TEST ITEMS IN PHYSICAL SCIENCES

TEST ITEMS IN PHYSICS

MECHANICS

1. Which of the following quantities is a scalar quantity?

a. momentum b. work c. force d. acceleration
2. An airplane travels east for 2 hours at a rate of 500km/h. Which of the following quantities is a vector?
a. the time of travel c. the distance traveled
b. the displacement d. the speed of the plane
3. Which of the following is the best definition of velocity?
a. It is a description of the motion of a body.
b. It is a measure of how fast a body is moving.
c. It is the speed of a body and its direction of motion.
d. It is equal to the distance traveled divided by the time of travel.
4. The speedometer of a car gives you a reading of the car’s
a. instantaneous speed c. average speed
b. instantaneous velocity d. average velocity
5. Acceleration is defined as the change in
a. velocity divided by the time interval
b. distance divided by the time interval
c. time it takes to move from one place to another place
d. time it takes to move from one speed to another speed
6. Which of the following situations describes a body that is accelerating?
a. a truck that is at rest
b. a car rounding a curve at constant speed
c. a bicycle moving at constant speed along a straight highway
d. none of the above
7. Which of the following statements is always true?
a. when the acceleration is constant, the velocity is zero
b. when the acceleration is zero, the velocity is also zero
c. when the velocity is constant, the acceleration is zero
d. when the instantaneous velocity is zero, the acceleration is also zero
8. A truck is moving along a straight highway. As it approaches an intersection, the driver steps on the brakes, bringing
the car to a complete stop. Which of the following statements is true about the motion of the truck?
a. the velocity and acceleration have opposite directions
b. the velocity and acceleration have the same directions
c. the velocity and acceleration of the truck are both constant
d. none of the above
9. The acceleration of a stone thrown upward is
a. the same as that of a stone thrown downward
b. greater than that of a stone thrown downward
c. smaller than that of a stone thrown downward
d. zero until it reaches the highest point in its motion
10. For an object that is dropped from rest,
a. the speed is proportional to the time of fall
b. the acceleration is proportional to the time of fall
c. the distance traveled is proportional to the time of fall
d. all of the above
11. If a freely falling object were somehow equipped with a speedometer, its speed reading wound increase each second
by
a. about 5 m/s b. about 10 m/s c. about 15/s d. a variable amount
12. An object at rest maintains its state of rest unless acted upon by a net force because of its
a. mass b. momentum c. inertia d. energy
13. An object in uniform motion maintains its state of motion unless acted upon by a net force because of its
a. mass b. momentum c. inertia d. energy
14. A sheet of paper can be withdrawn from under a container of milk without toppling it if the paper is pulled quickly. The
reason this can be done is that
a. the milk carton has inertia c. gravity pulls very hard on the milk carton
b. the milk carton has very little weight d. there are action and reaction forces
15. If the force of gravity suddenly stopped acting on the planets, they would
a. spiral slowly toward the sun c. fly straight away from the sum
b. spiral slowly away from the sun d. move in a straight line tangent to their orbit
16. According to Newton’s second law of motion
a. force on an object is equal to its acceleration divided by its mass
b. force on an object is equal to the product of its mass and acceleration
c. mass of an object is equal to the product of the force on it and its acceleration
d. acceleration of an object is equal to the product of the force on its and its mass
17. The acceleration produced by a net force on an object is
a. directly proportional to the mass
b. inversely proportional to the net force
c. in the same direction as the net force
d. all of the above
18. The weight of an object of an object
a. refers to its inertia
b. is the quantity of matter it contains
c. is the force with which it is attracted to the earth
d. is basically the same quantity as its mass but expressed in different units
19. The force that accelerates a rocket into outer space is exerted on the rocket by the exhaust gases. Which Newton’s
law of motion is illustrated in this situation?
a. First law of motion c. Third law of motion
b. Second law of motion d. cannot be determined
20. An object weighs 30 N on earth. A second object weighs 30 N on the moon. Which object has the greater mass?
a. the one on earth b. the one on the moon c. they have the same mass
21. As an airplane climbs,
a. its mass increases c. its weight increases
b. its mass decreases d. its weight decrease
22. Suppose a cart is being moved by a force. If suddenly a load is dumped into the cart so that the cart’s mass doubles,
what happens to the cart’s acceleration?
a. it doubles b. it triples c. it halves d. it stays the same
23. A player hits a ball with a bat. The action force is the impact of the bat against the ball. What is the reaction to this
force?
a. the weight of the ball c. the force of the ball against the bat
b. the air resistance on the ball d. the grip of the player’s hand against the bat
24. When a football is kicked, the action – and – reaction forces do not cancel each other because
a. they are not truly equal and opposite c. they are acting on two different bodies
b. they are not acting at the same time d. all of them
25. A car accelerates along a road. Viewed from outside the car, what is the force that accelerates it?
a. the engines pulling it forward
b. air rushing in behind the car as it moves
c. the wheels pulling forward on the wheels
d. the reaction force to the wheels pushing the road backward
26. A car travels in a circle with constant speed. The net force on the car is
a. directed toward the center of the curve
b. zero because the car is not accelerating
c. directed forward, in the direction of travel
d. none of them
27. Suppose the force of friction on a sliding object is 10 N. The force needed to maintain constant velocity is
a. less than 10 N b. more than 10 N c. 10 N d. 0 N
28. An apple weighs 1 N. The net force on the apple when it is at rest on top of your head is
a. 0 N b. 0.1 N c. 1 N d. 10 N
29. An apple weighs 1 N. The net force on the apple when it is in free fall is
a. 0 N b. 0.1 N c. 1 N d. 10 N
30. An unfortunate bug splatters against the windshield of a moving car. Compared to the force on the bug, the force on
the car is
a. greater b. smaller c. the same
31. An unfortunate bug splatters against the windshield of a moving car. Compared to the acceleration of the bug, the
acceleration of the car is
a. greater b. smaller c. the same
32. Two figure skaters who push off each other will move at the same speed if
a. they push with the same force c. there is no air resistance
b. the ice does not cause any friction d. they have the same mass
33. When two equal forces act on the same object in opposite directions, the net force is
a. smaller than either force c. zero
b. equal to each of the forces d. greater than either force
34. A tennis ball and a solid steel ball of the same size are dropped at the same time. Which ball has the greater force
acting on it?
a. the tennis ball b. the steel ball c. the same force is acting on them
35. A tennis ball and a solid steel ball of the same size are dropped at the same time. Which ball has the greater
acceleration? (assuming that the air resistance is negligible)
a. the tennis ball b. the steel ball c. they have the same acceleration
36. A ball rolling across the floor slows to a stop because
a. the forces are balanced c. there is a net external force acting on it
b. the net force equals zero d. the force that started it moving wears out
37. The momentum of an object is defined as the object’s
a. mass times its velocity c. force times its acceleration
b. mass times its acceleration d. force times the time interval
38. The momentum change of an object is equal to the
a. force acting on it c. velocity change of the object
b. impulse acting on it d. force acting on its times its velocity
39. Momentum of a system is conserved only when
a. the system is not moving
b. there are no forces acting on the system
c. there is no net external force acting on the system
d. there are no internal forces acting on the system
40. When the velocity of a moving object is doubled
a. its momentum is doubled c. its kinetic energy is doubled
b. its acceleration is doubled d. its potential energy is doubled
41. A rifle recoils from firing a bullet. The speed of the rifle’s recoil is small because the
a. momentum is conserved
b. rifle is more massive than the bullet
c. force against the rifle is relatively small
d. impulse on the rifle is less than the impulse on the bullet
42. In physics, work is done
a. in pushing against the wall c. in supporting an object on your shoulder
b. in preparing school lessons d. in lifting an object from the floor to the table
43. An object at rest may have
a. velocity b. momentum c. kinetic energy d. potential energy
44. An object in motion need not have
a. velocity b. momentum c. kinetic energy d. potential energy
45. What never changes when two or more objects collide in the absence of a net external force is
a. the momentum of each one c. the total momentum of all objects
b. the kinetic energy of each one d. the total kinetic energy of all objects
46. The amount of potential energy possessed by an elevated object is equal to
a. the distance it is lifted c. the power used to lift it
b. the force needed to lift it d. the work done in lifting it
47. A freight train rolls along a track with considerable momentum. If it were to roll at the same speed but had twice as
much mass, its momentum would be
a. zero b. doubled c. quadrupled d. unchanged
48. A job is done slowly and an identical job is done quickly. Both jobs require the same amount of work but different
amounts of
a. energy b. power c. both energy and power d. none of them
49. Which of the following statements is true about an object thrown upward under the influence of the earth’s gravity
alone?
a. kinetic energy increases – potential energy increases
b. kinetic energy decreases – potential energy increases
c. kinetic energy increases – potential energy decreases
d. kinetic energy decreases – potential energy decreases
50. Which of the following statements is true regarding simple machines being used with the presence of friction?
a. work input is always greater than work output
b. work input is always smaller than work output
c. work input is always equal to the work output
d. cannot be determined
THERMODYNAMICS
51. Temperature is a measure of
a. the total energy in something
b. the total kinetic energy in something
c. the average energy in a substance
d. the average molecular kinetic energy in a substance
52. Internal energy is the
a. total amount of energy contained in an object
b. average amount of energy contained in an object
c. amount of kinetic energy of all the molecules in the object
d. none of the above
53. Heat is the
a. amount of energy all the molecules have
b. total amount of energy contained in the object
c. energy transferred between objects because of temperature difference
d. all of the above
54. In thermodynamics, which states that the two systems which are in thermal equilibrium with a third system are in
thermal equilibrium with each other?
a. zeroth law b. first law c. second law d. third law
55. The natural direction of heat flow is from a high – temperature reservoir to a low – temperature reservoir. This fact is
incorporated in the
a. first law of thermodynamics c. law of conservation of energy
b. second law of thermodynamics d. zeroth law of thermodynamics
56. It refers to the temperature at which the molecules have the lowest possible kinetic energy
a. absolute zero b. melting point c. boiling point d. freezing point
57. Two metal strips of equal lengths were tied together. When heated, the strips bend. Which statement below best
explains this?
a. one metal is more elastic than the other
b. one metal conducts heat better than the other
c. the heat is not evenly distributed on the strips
d. one metal expands more than the other for the same increase in temperature
58. The warmth that you feel when you place your finger at the side of the flame of a burning candle is primarily caused by
a. conduction of heat b. convection of heat c. radiation of heat
59. Heat travels from the sun to the earth by means of
a. radiation b. convection c. conduction
60. When heat is added to boiling water, its temperature
a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same
61. As the atmospheric pressure increases, the boiling temperature of a liquid
a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same
62. Which method of heat transfer is most closely associated with the formation of a cool breeze that blows from the sea
to the land during daytime?
a. conduction b. convection c. radiation
63. During daytime, which heats up faster: the land or the sea?
a. the land b. the sea c. they heat up at the same time
64. During nighttime, which cools down faster: the land or the sea?
a. the land b. the sea c. they heat up at the same time
65. It refers to the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by a unit change in
temperature.
a. specific heat b. latent heat of fusion c. latent heat of vaporization
66. What gas law states that at constant temperature, volume is inversely proportional to absolute pressure?
a. Boyle’s law b. Charle’s law c. Gay – Lussac’s law
67. When a vapor condenses into a liquid
a. it absorbs heat c. its temperature rises
b. it releases heat d. its temperature drops
68. A metal lid cannot be unscrewed from its glass jar. Which is the best way to unscrew it from the jar?
a. invert the jar with the lid in a very hot water for a few seconds
b. invert the jar with the lid in a very cold water for a few seconds
c. invert the jar with the lid in hot and then in cold water for a few seconds
d. invert the jar with the lid in cold and then in hot water for a few seconds
69. An adiabatic process in a system is one in which
a. no heat enters or leaves the system
b. the pressure of the system remains constant
c. the system does no work nor work is done on it
d. the temperature of the system remains constant
0
70. It is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 C .
a. 1 calorie b. 1 Btu c. 1 joule d. all of them
0 0
71. One gram of steam at 100 C causes a more serious burn than 1 gram of water at 100 C because the steam
a. is less dense than water c. has a higher specific heat
b. strikes the skin with a greater force d. contains more internal energy
72. Sublimation refers to
a. the melting of a solid
b. the vaporization of a liquid
c. the condensation of a gas into a liquid
d. the vaporization of a solid without first becoming a liquid
73. Heat transfer by convection occurs
a. only in gases c. only in gases and liquids
b. only in liquids d. in solids, liquids, and gases
74. The materials with the highest heat conductivities are the
a. solids b. liquids c. gases d. metals
75. When work is done by a system, what happens to its temperature assuming that no heat is added to it?
a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same
76. When the temperature of a metal is increased, what happens to its density?
a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same
77. Which cools faster, a pot of boiling water or a same – size pot of lukewarm water both left at room temperature?
a. the boiling water b. the lukewarm water c. neither, they cool at the same time
78. Two pots are filled with boiling water. The pots are exactly the same size, but one pot is white and the other is black.
Which pot cools faster?
a. the white pot b. the black pot c. neither, they cool at the same time
79. If a red star and a blue star radiate energy at the same rate, which of the two is bigger?
a. the red star b. the blue star c. neither, they are of the same size
80. A piece of iron and a cup of water both have the same temperature. If they are heated so that they absorb the same
amount of heat,
a. both will have the same temperature
b. the iron will have the higher temperature
c. the water will have the higher temperature
d. not enough information is given to answer the question
81. Why does a piece of metal feel colder than a piece of wood at the same temperature?
a. metal is colder than wood
b. metals allows heat to flow through it easily
c. metals have higher specific heat than wood
d. none of the above
82. Systems that are left alone tend to move toward a state of
a. less entropy b. more entropy c. constant entropy d. no entropy
83. Which of the following engines is normally the least efficient?
a. gasoline engine b. diesel engine c. carnot engine
84. Which of the following engines is normally the most efficient?
a. gasoline engine b. diesel engine c. carnot engine
85. If you want to cook boiled eggs while in the mountains you should
a. use a hotter flame
b. boil the eggs for a shorter time
c. boil the eggs for a longer time
d. not boil the eggs, because the water temperature won’t get hot enough to cook them
86. A heat engine operates by taking in heat at a particular temperature and
a. converting it all to work
b. converting some of it into work and exhausting the rest at a lower temperature
c. converting some of it into work and exhausting the rest at the same temperature
d. converting some of it into work and exhausting the rest at a higher temperature
87. The work output of every heat engine is
a. depends only on its intake temperature
b. depends only on its exhaust temperature
c. equals the difference between its heat intake and heat exhaust
d. equal that of a carnot engine with the same intake and exhaust temperatures
88. The fuel in a diesel engine is ignited by
a. a spark plug
b. being compressed until it is hot enough
c. the hot compressed air into which it is injected
d. exhaust gases remaining from the previous cycle
89. A refrigerator exhausts
a. less heat than it absorbs from its contents
b. more heat than it absorbs from its contents
c. the same amount of heat that it absorbs from its contents
d. any of the above, depending on the circumstances
90. The working substance or refrigerant used in most refrigerators is a
a. gas that is easy to liquefy c. liquid that is hard to solidify
b. gas that is hard to liquefy d. liquid that is easy to solidify
91. A pressure cooker cooks food more rapidly than an ordinary pot with a loose lid because
a. the pressure forces heat into the food
b. the higher pressure lowers the boiling point of water
c. the higher pressure raises the boiling point of water
d. the higher pressure increases the specific heat of water
92. If a poor absorber of radiation were a good emitter, its temperature would be
a. lower than that of the surroundings
b. higher than that of the surroundings
c. the same as that of the surroundings
d. not be affected
93. A gas is heated in a closed container. Which of the following explains why the pressure of the gas increases?
a. the volume of the gas decreases
b. the volume of the gas increases
c. the number of particles of the gas increase in number
d. the particles of the gas collide more often with the walls of the container
94. A gas is heated in a closed container. Which of the following is not likely to happen?
a. the volume of the gas will increase
b. the pressure of the gas will increase
c. the average speed of the molecules will increase
d. the gas molecules will hit the walls of the container more often
95. What would be the effect on the pressure of the gas if its volume is halved and its temperature is doubled?
a. halved b. doubled c. increased three times d. increased four times
96. What accounts for the cooling effect inside a refrigerator?
a. the refrigerator is properly insulated
b. the vaporization of the refrigeration liquid
c. compression of the refrigeration gas into liquid
d. the motor converts electrical energy into thermal energy
97. Most cars have four – stroke internal combustion engines. Which of the following gives the correct sequence of the
four strokes?
a. compression – exhaust – power – intake
b. intake – compression – power – exhaust
c. intake – power – compression – exhaust
d. power – compression – intake – exhaust
0
98. Which of the following phrases correctly describes water at 4 C?
a. greatest volume; greatest density
b. smallest volume; smallest density
c. smallest volume; greatest density
d. greatest volume; smallest density
99. Melting snow
a. warms the surrounding air
b. cools the surrounding air
c. neither warms nor cools the surrounding air
100. Evaporation cools a liquid because
a. the slowest molecules tend to escape c. the pressure of the gas increases
b. the fastest molecules tend to escape d. the pressure of the gas decreases

ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

101. If a material becomes positively charged after being rubbed, what does it indicate?
a. it gains protons c. it loses protons
b. it gains electrons d. it loses electrons
102. If you comb your hair and the comb becomes negatively charged, your hair becomes
a. positively charged b. negatively charged c. neutral
103. Electric charges A and B are attracted to each other. Electric charges B and C repel each other. If A and C are held
close together, they will
a. attract b. repel c. not affect each other
104. The difference between electrical forces and gravitational forces is that electrical forces include
a. attractive interactions c. the inverse square law
b. repulsive interactions d. all of them
105. Which of the following devices conducts electricity in one direction only?
a. diode b. resistor c. capacitor d. transistor
106. Which of the following is the SI unit of charge?
a. ampere b. tesla c. farad d. coulomb
107. Compared to the resistance of two resistors connected in series, the same two resistors connected in parallel will
have
a. more resistance b. less resistance c. the same resistance
108. What law states that the force of electrostatic interaction between two point charges is directly proportional to the
product of their charges and is inversely proportional to the square of their separation distance?
a. Ohm’s Law b. Coulomb’s Law c. Faraday’s Law d. Ampere’s Law
109. When one light bulb in a parallel circuit containing several light bulbs burns out
a. the other bulbs burn brighter c. none of the other light bulbs will light up
b. the other light bulb burn dimmer d. nothing changes in the rest of the circuit
110. The electron volt is a unit of
a. charge b. energy c. voltage d. potential
111. Which of the following quantities is a vector quantity?
a. electric field b. capacitance c. inductance d. current
112. A rod with unknown charge attracts a plastic ball. Which of the following statements may describe them?
a. the rod is positive and the ball is negative
b. the rod is negative and the ball is positive
c. the rod is charged and the ball is neutral
d. all of the above
113. Which type of force is responsible in binding atoms together to form molecules?
a. electrical force b. magnetic force c. nuclear force d. gravitational force
114. Which of the following devices does not use an electromagnet?
a. electric bell b. telephone c. household light bulb d. none of them
115. What shape of a permanent magnet corresponds to the magnetic field formed by a solenoid?
a. disk magnet b. bar magnet c. horseshoe magnet d. none of them
116. The charge of body A is half as much as body B. Compared to the force on body B, the force on body A is
a. half as much b. twice as much c. four times as much d. the same
117. In an electric field region, an electron moves to the right. Which of the following statements best describes the
electric field?
a. the electric field is uniform c. the electric field is directed to the left
b. the electric field is non – uniform d. the electric field is directed to the right
118. A system of two charges has a positive potential energy. This signifies that
a. both charges are positive c. both charges are positive or both are negative
b. both charges are negative d. one charge is positive and the other is negative
119. A spherical Gaussian surface encloses an He atom. What is the net electric fluzx through such a surface?
a. positive b. negative c. zero d. cannot be determined
120. The junction rule is the direct consequence of
a. Newton’s second law c. conservation of charge
b. conservation of momentum d. conservation of energy
121. Which of the following changes to an ideal plate capacitor connected to an ideal battery result in an increase in the
charge of the capacitor?
a. inserting a dielectric material in between the plates
b. decreasing the area of the plates
c. increasing the separation distance between the plates
d. none of the above
122. An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential difference. Which of the following statements is
true?
a. the electron has a greater KE c. the electron has the greater speed
b. the proton has the greater KE d. the proton has the greater speed
123. A current is flowing to the east along a power line. If we neglect the earth’s magnetic field, the direction of the
magnetic field below it is
a. north b. east c. south d. west
124. An electron enters a magnetic field perpendicularly to B. The electron’s
a. motion is unaffected c. speed is changed
b. direction is changed d. energy is changed
125. Two parallel wires carry currents in the same direction. What will happen to the wires?
a. the wires attract each other
b. the wires repel each other
c. torques act on the wires that tend to turn them so that they are perpendicular
d. neither forces nor torques act on the wires
126. A wire loop is moved parallel to the magnetic field. The induced emf in the loop
a. is zero c. depends on the shape of the loop
b. depends on the area of the loop d. depends on the magnitude of the field
127. What happens to a charge projected along the direction of the magnetic field?
a. it will travel in a linear path c. it will come to rest
b. it will travel in a circular path d. it will move in a helix
128. A 60 – W and a 100 – W light bulbs are each connected to a 220 V outlet. Which bulb has more current through it?
a. the 60 – W bulb b. the 100 – W bulb c. the same amount of current flows in both
129. An electric heater is rated at 300 W for use in a 220 V circuit. The safety fuse in the circuit can handle 15 A of
current. What is the maximum number of heaters that can be safely operated in the circuit?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
130. A heater uses 20 A when connected to a 110 V line. If the electric power costs 10 cents per kilowatt – hour, the cost
of running the heater for 10 hours is
a. $0.22 b. $0.55 c. $2.20 d. $5.50
131. As more lamps are put into a parallel circuit, the overall current in the circuit
a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same
132. Two lamps, one with a thick filament and one with a thin filament, are connected in series. The voltage is greater in
the lamp with the
a. thick filament b. thin filament c. stays the same
133. The same potential difference is applied to a 30 W and a 60 W light bulbs. Which of the following statements is true?
a. the 30 W bulb carries the greater current ands has the higher resistance
b. the 30 W bulb carries the greater current, but the 60 W bulb has the higher resistance
c. the 30 W bulb has the higher resistance, but the 60 W bulb carries the greater current
d. the 60 W bulb carries the greater current and has the higher resistance
134. If the length of a wire is doubled and its cross – sectional area is also doubled, what effect will this give to the
resistance of the wire?
a. doubled b. halved c. remains the same
135. Two particles held near each other are released. As they move, the acceleration of each decreases. Therefore, the
particles
a. have opposite charges c. have the same charge
b. are electrical neutral d. not enough information is given
136. The potential energy of a certain system of two charges increases as the charges are moved farther apart. What
does this tell us about the signs of the charges?
a. both charges are positive c. one is positive and the other is negative
b. both charges are negative d. not enough information is given
137. A conductor is charged by induction with grounding using a charged plastic rod. Which of the following statements is
true about the conductor after the charging process?
a. the conductor will be polarized c. the conductor becomes positively charged
b. the conductor remains uncharged d. the conductor becomes negatively charged
138. A 4.0 Ω resistor is connected to a battery of emf 20 V and internal resistance of 1.0 Ω. The potential difference
across the resistor is
a. 4 V b. 16 V c. 19 V d. 20 V
– 19 – 19
139. Two identical sized conducting spheres A, with charge + 3.2 x 10 C, and B, with charge – 6.4 x 10 C, are
allowed to touch. During the touching, sphere A
a. gains three protons c. loses three protons
b. gains three electrons d. loses three electrons
140. When a 100 – W, 240 – V light bulb is operated at 200 V, the current that flows in it is
a. 0.35 A b. 0.42 A c. 0.50 A d. 0.58 A
141. An electroscope is a device that can be used to detect electric charges. Consider an electroscope that is initially
uncharged. Suppose that it is then charged by conduction using a charged glass rod. When a charged object is
brought close to the metal knob, the leaves of the electroscope diverged more. What is the charge of the object?
a. positive b. negative c. neutral d. not enough information is given
142. A 12 V potential difference is applied across a parallel combination of four 6 Ω resistors. The total current in the
circuit is
a. 0.5 A b. 2 A c. 8 A d. 18 A
143. What new concept does Maxwell’s general form of Ampere’s Law include?
a. a magnetic field could be attributed to a changing electric field
b. an electric field can be attributed to a changing magnetic field
c. a magnetic field can be attributed to the motion of charges
d. an electric field can be attributed to a charge distribution
144. In a drawing of magnetic field lines, the stronger the field is,
a. the closer together the file lines are c. the more nearly parallel the field lines are
b. the farther apart the field lines are d. the more divergent the field lines are
145. Electric power is defined as
a. current time voltage c. voltage divided by current
b. current divided by voltage d. resistance times voltage
146. The magnetic field lines around a long, straight current – carrying conductor are in the form of
a. straight lines parallel to the current
b. straight lines that radiate perpendicularly from the current – carrying wire, like the spokes of a wheel
c. concentric circles centered on the current – carrying wire
d. concentric helixes whose axis is the current – carrying wire
147. All magnetic field originate in
a. iron atoms c. magnetic domains
b. permanent magnets d. moving electric charges
148. A permanent magnet does not exert a force on
a. an unmagnetized iron bar c. a stationary electric charge
b. a magnetized iron bar d. a moving electric charge
149. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
a. charge b. energy c. momentum d. none of them
150. The magnetic flux through a wire loop changes by ΔφB in a time Δt. The change in the flux is proportional to
a. the current in the wire
b. the resistance of the wire
c. the net change that flows across any cross section of the wire
d. the potential difference between any two fixed points in the wire
WAVES AND OPTICS
151. Which property of light produces bright and dark bands on a screen after light from a source passes through two very
narrow slits that are near each other?
a. dispersion b. interference c. refraction d. polarization
152. Refraction explains
a. how periscope works
b. how images are formed by mirrors
c. why a pool appears shallower than it actually is
d. why some images formed by a mirror are virtual
153. A person standing waist deep in a swimming pool appears to have short legs because of
a. reflection b. refraction c. diffraction d. interference
154. After a rainstorm, a rainbow may appear in they sky. Which of the following statements explains this observation?
a. raindrops act as prism separating sunlight into different colors
b. the white clouds are actually prisms composed of different colors
c. the colors of the rainbow come from the raindrops in the atmosphere
d. when sunlight is reflected by the ground towards the clouds, it separates into different colors
155. The image in a plane mirror is
a. erect but reversed c. inverted but reversed
b. erect but not reversed d. inverted but not reversed
0
156. A ray of light is reflected from a mirror. The angle of incidence is 20 . The angle between the incident ray and the
reflected ray is
0 0 0 0
a. 10 . b. 20 . c. 30 . d. 40 .
157. As the angle of incidence increases, the index of refraction of the substance
a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same
158. Sound travels faster through warm air than cold air. This is to be expected because the faster – moving air molecules
in the warm air bump into each other more often and therefore
a. can transmit wave in less time
b. increases the temperature of the molecules
c. create regions of compression and rarefaction
d. passes the energy of the sound in a longer period
159. What states that light always takes a path that requires the least time as it moves from one point to another?
a. Snell’s law b. Fermat’s principle c. Huygen’s principle d. none of them
160. When sunlight falls on bubbles, the band of colors seen is due to
a. dispersion b. reflection c. interference d. scattering
161. The sun appears to be more reddish at sunset than at noon. Which of the following light phenomena is responsible
for this?
a. dispersion b. reflection c. interference d. scattering
162. Diffraction of light means
a. light is a transverse wave c. light bends as it passes through a small opening
b. light is reflected from a film d. light bends as it enters a different medium
163. Interference of waves occurs when
a. two or more waves combine
b. they bend around corners or opening
c. they slow down as they pass another medium
d. all of the above
164. An echo is produced by
a. reflection of sound c. refraction of sound
b. superposition of beats d. diffraction of sound
165. A piece of charcoal appears black when viewed in sunlight because
a. it absorbs all the light that fall on it c. it reflects all the light that falls on it
b. it disperses all the light that falls on it d. it transmits all the light that fall on it
166. Radio waves, infrared waves, ultraviolet waves and gamma rays are arranged in the order of increasing frequency in
the electromagnetic spectrum. How will the waves be listed in the order of increasing wavelength?
a. radio, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma c. radio, gamma, ultraviolet, infrared
b. gamma, ultraviolet, infrared, radio d. infrared, radio, gamma, ultraviolet
167. When rays parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror are reflected, they pass through
a. any point on the axis c. the principal focus
b. the center of curvature d. the point halfway between the focus and the mirror
168. A young lady is 160 cm tall. She wishes to buy a mirror large enough so that she can look at herself from the head to
toes at the same time. What is the shortest mirror that she can use?
a. 40 cm b. 80 cm c. 120 cm d. 160 cm
169. Why some sound is louder than others?
a. greater amplitude c. higher frequency
b. longer wavelength d. lower pitch
170. Which of the following phenomena best supports the hypothesis that light is a form of transverse wave motion?
a. dispersion b. reflection c. polarization d. refraction
171. The visible light portion of the electromagnetic spectrum falls between
a. radio waves and microwave c. radio waves and infrared rays
b. x – rays and gamma rays d. infrared rays and ultraviolet rays
172. What kind of mirror is used in automobile and trucks to give the driver a wider area and smaller image of the traffic
behind him?
a. convex mirror b. concave mirror c. plane mirror d. any of these
173. The term refraction refers to
a. bending of light rays when they strike a mirror
b. facts that white light is made up of different colors
c. bouncing back of waves when it encounters an obstacle
d. fact the light travels in a straight line in a uniform medium
174. We can raise the pitch of a guitar by using
a. long and fine string c. short and fine string
b. long and thick string d. short and thick string
175. When you are looking on a fish under water, in what direction should you aim your spear to hit it?
a. above the fish c. directly to the fish
b. below the fish d. either below or above the fish
176. When will a concave mirror produce an image larger than the object?
a. d0 > 2f b. d0 < 2f c. d0 = 2f d. for all values of d0
177. Which of the following best describes a real image?
a. Real images are erect. c. Real images cannot appear on a screen.
b. Real images are inverted. d. Real images are formed by apparent rays of light.
178. When will a concave mirror produce an erect image?
a. d0 > f b. d0 < f c. d0 = f d. f < d0 < 2f
179. A nearsighted person needs a concave lens. This lens makes the image fall
a. beyond the retina of the eye c. on the retina of the eye
b. before the retina of the eye d. on the eyeball
180. The image formed by a diverging lens is always
a. real b. inverted c. smaller than the object d. larger than the object
181. To use a convex lens as a simple magnifier, the object must be placed
a. between F and the lens c. between F and 2F
b. at F d. beyond 2F
182. Which of the following best describes the order of decreasing speed of sound in the given media?
1. wood 2. sea water 3. copper 4. glass 5. air

a. 12345 b. 34125 c. 54321 d. 41325

183. The speed within which sound travels depends on
a. volume of the medium c. mass of the medium
b. weight of the medium d. elasticity and density of the medium
184. As light wave passes from a medium whose index of refraction is 1.5 into a medium whose index of refraction is 1.2,
its
a. frequency increases c. wavelength increases
b. frequency decreases d. wavelength decreases
185. Which of the following is/ are true?
I. A convex lens will always form a real image.
II. A diverging lens can never form a real image.
III. The focal length of a diverging lens is positive.

a. I only b. II only c. I & II d. I, II, & III

186. A concave mirror served as a casing of the bulb of a car’s headlight. Where should the bulb be located to produce a
parallel beam of reflected light?
a. at the principal focus of the mirror
b. at the center of curvature of the mirror
c. between the principal focus and the mirror
d. beyond the center of curvature of the mirror
187. What happens when white light strikes a black object?
a. Blue light is reflected. c. No light is reflected.
b. Red light is reflected. d. All of the light is reflected.
188. A person is nearsighted if he or she _______.
a. can see far away things very well. c. has eyeballs that are a little too long.
b. has eyeballs that are a little too short. d. sees nearby objects as blurry.
189. Farsightedness can usually be corrected using _______.
a. convex mirrors. c. convex lenses.
b. concave mirrors. d. concave lenses.
190. An object is 0.080 m tall is placed 0.20 m in front of a convex lens. If the distance of the image to the lens is 0.40 m,
how tall is the image?
a. 0.010 m b. 0.040 m c. 0.08 m d. 0.16 m
191. Materials are classified according to transmission of light. A material that reflects and absorbs any light that strikes it
is _______.
a. concave b. opaque c. translucent d. transparent
192. If you look at the pool of still water your face is clearly seen. Which of the following best explains this?
a. scattering of white in different directions
b. regular reflection of light by the surface of still water
c. irregular reflection of light by the surface of still water
d. light is reflected from the surface of still water in different directions
193. What occurs when parallel rays of light hit a rough or bumpy surface?
a. Diffuse reflection c. Regular reflection
b. Diffraction d. Refraction
194. When the surface of a mirror curves inward, like the inside of a bowl, it is called a
a. concave mirror. c. diffuse mirror.
b. convex mirror. d. plane mirror.
195. Negative magnification indicates an image which is
a. inverted b. upright c. erect d. none of them
196. A boy walks towards a large plane mirror at a speed of 50 cm/s. At what rate does he approach his image?
a. 25 cm/s b. 50 cm/s c. 75 cm/s d. 100 cm/s
197. An unpolarized beam of transverse waves is one whose vibrations
a. occur in all directions
b. are confined to a single plane
c. occur in all directions perpendicular to their direction of motion
d. none of them.
198. Consider the four pairs of sunglasses below. Which pair of glasses is capable of eliminating the glare resulting from
sunlight reflecting off the calm waters of a lake?

a. b. c. d.
199. A ray of light is incident on a plane surface separating two transparent substances of refractive indices 1.70 and
1.50. The angle of incidence is 30 degrees and the ray originates in the medium of higher index of refraction. The
angle of refraction is
a. 34.5 degrees b. 26.2 degrees c. 79.0 degrees d. 45.0 degrees
200. From the previous number, total internal reflection will occur when the angle of incidence is
a. less than 61.90 degrees c. greater than 35.0 degrees
b. greater than 61.90 degrees d. total internal \reflection will not occur
TEST ITEMS IN EARTH SCIENCE
1. In majority of stars, the most common element is
a. oxygen b. helium c. hydrogen d. argon
2. The color of the hottest star is
a. orange b. red c. yellow d. blue
3. Black holes are difficult to locate because they
a. move very quickly c. have very low gravity
b. do not give off light d. are far away from any stars
4. Which idea is not part of Kepler’s Law of Planetary Motion?
a. The planets move in elliptical orbits
b. The planets rotate on their axes at various rates
c. The squares of the periods of revolution of a planet are proportional to the cubes of their average
distances from the sun.
d. None of the above
5. What do you call the point in the orbit of a planet where it is farthest from the sun?
a. apogee b. perigee c. aphelion d. perihelion
6. What is the hottest planet in the solar system?
a. Mercury b. Venus c. Earth d. Mars
7. What is the consequence of the inclination of the earth’s axis of rotation?
a. weather b. seasons c. global warming d. day and night
8. In which layer of the atmosphere is the ultraviolet radiation trapped?
a. troposphere b. mesosphere c. stratosphere d. thermosphere
9. At a point just north the Arctic Circle there are 24 hours of darkness at the time when the sun is directly overhead
at the
a. South Pole b. Equator c. Tropic Of Capricorn d. Tropic of Cancer
10. What is the biggest natural satellite in the Solar System?
a. Ganymede b. Callisto c. Europa d. Io
11. In the water cycle, which process is responsible for getting water into the atmosphere?
a. condensation b. precipitation c. sublimation d. evaporation
12. What happens when air is heated?
a. It expands and rises. c. It contracts and rises.
b. It expands and sinks. d. It contracts and sinks.
13. What do you call the phenomenon wherein there is a marked increase in the earth’s surface temperature
associated with the radiation being trapped by its atmosphere?
a. Global warming b. Greenhouse Effect c. El Niño d. La Niña
14. The type of galaxy to which our own galaxy belongs is called a(n)
a. spiral galaxy b. elliptical galaxy c. irregular galaxy d. barred galaxy
15. On which planet can the greatest volcano in the Solar System be found?
a. Saturn b. Jupiter c. Mars d. Uranus
16. Which of the following statements is true about a land breeze?
a. It occurs during daytime.
b. It occurs because a land heats up faster.
c. It is a movement of air from the land to the sea.
 d. None of the above.
17. What do you call the process by which rock breaks into pieces?
a. erosion b. weathering c. lithification d. deposition
18. In the Northern Hemisphere, the longest day occurs on the
a. winter solstice c. vernal equinox
b. summer solstice d. autumnal equinox
19. What planet is known for its top – like motion?
a. Jupiter b. Saturn c. Uranus d. Neptune
20. Where is air pressure greatest?
a. troposphere b. stratosphere c. mesosphere d. thermosphere
21. What happens to a given mass of fluid when heat flows into it?
a. It becomes denser. c. It becomes colder.
b. It becomes less dense. d. It becomes heavier.
22. A lunar eclipse can happen only when the moon’s phase is
a. new b. full c. gibbous d. crescent
23. The name for a chunk of rock, as it travels from space to the earth’s surface
a. meteoroid, meteor, meteorite c. meteoroid, meteorite, meteor
b. meteor, meteoroid, meteorite d. meteor, meteorite, meteoroid
24. What type of rock is formed due to extreme temperature and pressure?
a. Sedimentary b. metamorphic c. igneous d. all of them
25. Where can the asteroid belt be found?
a. between Earth and Mars c. between Jupiter and Saturn
b. between Mars and Jupiter d. between Venus and Earth
26. Viewed from earth, what is the brightest star in the evening sky?
a. Sirius b. Betelgeuse c. Proxima Centauri d. Rigel
27. What do you call the slow movement of the earth’s axis with a period of 26,000 years?
a. rotation b. revolution c. precession d. none of the above
28. What do you call the underground where an earthquake starts?
a. epicenter b. focus c. fault d. fissure
29. What do you call the stony conical projections that hang from the roof of a cave?
a. stalactite b. stalagmite c. column d. none of the above
30. Two air masses have the same humidity. Which of the following can also be said about them?
a. they have the same temperature c. both have rain clouds
b. they have the same amount of water vapor d. none of them
31. In which rock layer are remains of aquatic organisms commonly found?
a. igneous b. metamorphic c. sedimentary d. any of them
32. Which may be omitted from a list of processes that directly bring about changes in rocks?
a. erosion c. compacting of rock fragments
b. weathering d. subjecting rock to pressure, heat, and chemical action
33. Why does air temperature usually decrease towards the poles?
a. there is plenty of ice near the poles
b. air generally moves towards the equator
c. cold air near the poles prevents heating of the land
d. areas near the poles receive less solar energy per unit area
34. Good weather usually prevails in a high-pressure area. This is because the descending air (which characterizes
high – pressure area)
a. Cools and reduces its capacity to hold water vapor.
b. Warms and reduces its capacity to hold water vapor.
c. Cools and increases its capacity to hold water vapor.
d. Warms and increases its capacity to hold water vapor.
35. Nights are cooler when the sky is clear than when it is overcast. Why is this so?
a. the sun is hidden from us at night
b. cooler air can hold less water vapor
c. rain falls when water vapor condenses above freezing point
d. heat from the lower atmosphere easily escapes when there is no cloud cover
36. Which of the following conditions regarding the positions of the earth, moon and the sun could possibly result to
a solar eclipse?
a. the sun is between the earth and the moon
b. the moon is between the sun and the earth
c. the earth is between the sun and the moon
d. the earth, moon, and sun are at right angles to each other
37. Mars is a planet named after the Roman god of war Ares. What are the two natural satellites of Mars?
a. Phobos and Deimos c. Titan and Triton
b. Ganymede and Callisto d. Europa and Io
38. The planet named after the Roman goddess of beauty. It is also known as the morning and the evening star
although it is not a star.
a. Mercury b. Venus c. Mars d. Jupiter
39. In summer, we see the sun rise early and set late, why?
a. the tilt of the axis is towards the sun c. the tilt is changing in amount
b. the tilt of the axis is away from the sun d. the axis is not tilted
40. It is the deepest of the world’s oceans with a depth of about 14, 000 km.
a. Atlantic Ocean b. Pacific Ocean c. Indian Ocean c. Arctic Ocean
 41. The vibration of the earths surface due to the release of stored energy when the deformed rock ruptures or
returns to its original size and shape.
a. earthquake b. tsunami c. faulting d. tidal wave
42. Of the following changes that happen on the earth’s surface, which is not natural?
a. Weathering b. erosion c. deposition d. quarrying
43. A moon that rotates in an opposite direction from its planets rotation
a. Ganymede b. Titan c. Triton d. Europa
44. The water sphere of the earth is known as
a. Lithosphere b. hydrosphere c. atmosphere d. biosphere
45. How are latitude and longitude lines drawn?
a. Latitude lines are parallel and longitude lines meet at the poles.
b. Latitude lines are parallel and longitude lines meet at the equator.
c. Longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the poles.
d. Longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the equator.
46. In which group are the parts listed from the oldest to the youngest?
a. solar system, Milky Way galaxy, universe
b. Milky Way galaxy, solar system, universe
c. universe, solar system, Milky Way galaxy
d. universe, Milky Way galaxy, solar system
47. Which three planets are known as terrestrial planets because of their high density and rocky composition?
a. Mercury, Venus, Mars c. Jupiter, Saturn Uranus
b. Venus, Neptune, and Pluto d. Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
48. What is the most practical way to control pollution?
a. decreasing the population
b. more government control of industry
c. careful planning of environmental usage
d. slowing the rate of technological growth
49. Humans can cause rapid changes in the environment, sometimes producing catastrophic events. Which
statement below is the best example of this concept?
a. lightning causes forest fire
b. shifting crustal plates cause an earthquake
c. changing seasonal winds cause flooding in an area
d. mountainside highway construction causes a landslide
50. Which would most likely occur during the formation of igneous rock?
a. solidification of molten materials
b. recrystallization of unmelted material
c. compression and cementation of sediments
d. evaporation and precipitation of dissolved sediments
51. Why do mountain climbers use oxygen equipment at the top of high mountains?
a. there is a hole in the ozone layer
b. there is less oxygen in the air at great heights
c. there is little nitrogen in the air at great heights
d. there is no air at the top of very high mountains
52. Why do people feel warmer just before it rains?
a. heat released by the condensation of water vapor
b. the clouds prevent heat from escaping from earth
a. the increased relative humidity makes them feel warmer
d. the warming is due to the heat absorbed by the evaporation of water
53. Why does greenhouse effect result to warmer temperature near the earth’s surface?
a. clouds trap infrared radiation c. ozone traps ultraviolet radiation
b. soil absorbs incoming radiation d. carbon dioxide traps infrared radiation
54. Which of the following factors contribute to “greenhouse effect”
a. destruction of the forests
b. use of carbon dioxide by land plants
c. depletion of minerals in the soil by overfarming
d. use of solar glass panels to capture radiant energy
55. Which of the following gases has the greatest percentage in the earth’s atmosphere?
a. oxygen b. argon c. nitrogen d. carbon dioxide
56. A certain rock sample is found to have visible layering. This rock is most probably
a. metamorphic b. sedimentary c. extrusive igneous d. intrusive igneous
57. Which of the following is not a mineral?
a. pyrite b. pearl c. quartz d. halite
58. Rocks undergo mechanical weathering. Which of the following shows this?
a. acid dissolves rock
b. formation of caverns
c. water between particles in rock freezes
d. iron in rocks combine with oxygen
59. What is the correct sequence of the processes involved in the formation of sedimentary rocks?
a. weathering, transportation, cementation, erosion
b. erosion, transportation, cementation, weathering
c. weathering, erosion, transportation, cementation
d. erosion, weathering, transportation, cementation
60. You found an unknown mineral and to be able to identify it, one of the tests your teacher did was to determine its
weight, then, compare the weight of an equal volume of water. What property of the mineral was your teacher
trying to determine?
a. hardness b. luster c. specific gravity d. streak
61. Arranged from the top to the bottom, which is the correct arrangement of the layers of the earth?
a. outer core, mantle, crust, inner core c. crust, mantle, outer core, inner core
b. outer core, mantle, inner core, crust d. crust, mantle, inner core, outer core
62. Which of the following statements in seismology is correct?
a. the focus and the epicenter of an earthquake are the same
b. both describe the exact location of the source of an earthquake
c. the focus describes the direction of earthquake wave movement while epicenter tells where the
earthquake originated
d. the focus is different from the epicenter because the epicenter is the point on the surface of the earth
directly above the focus
63. Broken pieces of rocks are removed from the parent rock by running water. This process is called
a. erosion b. weathering c. lithification d. crystallization
64. Geologists reconstruct many details of the earth’s history from rocks. What particular rock type is used by
geologists?
a. igneous b. sedimentary c. metamorphic d. any of these
65. Rhyolite is a fine grained igneous rock. This rock is formed by which of the following processes?
a. lithification c. slow cooling of magma
b. cementation d. rapid crystallization of magma
66. A mineralogist rubbed the mineral against a piece of porcelain and examined the color of the powder left on the
porcelain. What property of the mineral was being tested?
a. hardness b. streak c. cleavage d. luster
67. The rate of cooling of magma greatly influences the size of mineral crystals in rocks. If a rock sample was
observed to have big crystals, this rock is probably
a. metamorphic c. extrusive igneous rock
b. sedimentary d. intrusive igneous rock
68. Which of the following theories states that in the past, the earth consisted of one land mass that broke apart into
smaller landmasses?
a. Continental drift c. Plate tectonics
b. Seafloor spreading d. Big bang theory
69. The tectonic plates are believed to be moving over partially melted rocks. In what part of the earth are the
partially melted rocks found?
a. hydrosphere b. atmosphere c. lithosphere d. asthenosphere
70. Which term best describes what clouds are made of?
a. smoke b. water vapor c. water droplets d. condensation nuclei
71. Seawater is composed mostly of which of the following minerals?
a. sodium chloride c. calcium sulfate
b. magnesium chloride d. magnesium sulfate
72. A fishpond which is composed of biotic and abiotic factors is an example of an ecosystem. How do biotic factors
differ from abiotic factors?
a. biotic factors are the vegetation while all the organisms are considered the abiotic factors
b. biotic factors are non – living factors while abiotic factors are the living factors of the ecosystem
c. biotic factors are the living components of the ecosystem while abiotic factors are the non – living
components
d. biotic factors are the community of organism while the abiotic factors are the plants and vegetation within
the ecosystem
73. Climate is determined by which of the following factors?
a. temperature and pressure c. temperature and cloud cover
b. precipitation and pressure d. temperature and precipitation
74. The number of standard time zones in the world is
a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 6
75. How long does it take the moon to go through all of its phases?
a. 24 hours b. 27 1/3 days c. 29 ½ days d. 1 year
76. Which of the following describes the umbra?
a. darker than the penumbra c. the same as the penumbra
b. lighter than the penumbra d. nine of them
77. If a solar eclipse occurred 2 weeks ago, what would be the phase of the moon today?
a. first quarter b. full c. last quarter d. new
78. When does a lunar eclipse occur?
a. when the moon moves into its own umbra
b. when the moon moves into the sun’s umbra
c. when the moon moves into the earth’s umbra
d. none of the above
79. The time it takes the moon to rotate along its axis once is
a. 24 hours b. 27 1/3 days c. 29 ½ days d. 1 year
80. If Venus is the twin sister of the Earth, which planet is considered the twin of Neptune?
a. Jupiter b. Pluto c. Saturn d. Uranus
81. The time it takes for the precession of the earth’s axis to complete one turn is
a. 1 year b. 100 years c. 1000 years d. 26000 years
82. What is Saturn’s largest satellite called?
a. Titan b. Rhea c. Triton d. Callisto
83. Which of the following statements is true?
a. water gives Neptune its blue cloud color
b. helium gives Neptune its blue cloud color
c. methane gives Neptune its blue cloud color
d. butane gives Neptune its blue cloud color
84. In summer, we see the sunrise early and sunset late. Why is this so?
a. the tilt is changing in amount
b. the tilt of the axis is towards the sun
c. the tilt of the axis is away from the sun
d. the tilt is either away from nor toward the sun
85. The thermonuclear fusion that takes place within the interior of the earth involving the nuclei of atoms fusing
together is due to
a. extremely high pressure
b. pressure of radioactive materials
c. explosion occurring within the sun
d. extremely high temperatures and extremely high pressures
86. On the moon, smooth lowland areas are called
a. maria b. rilles c. highlands d. craters
87. A common feature of a giant planet is
a. no atmosphere c. a thick atmosphere
b. one or no moon d. slow rotation
88. The source of energy that drives the hydrologic cycle is the
a. the sun c. the earth’s interior
b. the ocean d. latent heat from evaporating water
89. The most abundant chemical compound at the surface of the earth is
a. water c. silicon dioxide
b. nitrogen gas d. minerals of iron, magnesium, and silicon
90. Groundwater is
a. water that soaks into the ground
b. any water beneath the surface of the earth
c. water beneath the surface of the earth from a saturated zone
d. all of the above
91. What condition means a balance between the number of water molecules moving to and from the liquid state?
a. evaporation b. condensation c. saturation d. none of them
92. Without adding or removing any water vapor, a sample of air experiencing an increase in temperature will have
a. a lower relative humidity c. the same relative humidity
b. a higher relative humidity d. a changed absolute humidity
93. Air moving down a mountain slope is often warm because
a. it has been closer to the sun
b. this occurs only during summertime
c. it is compressed as it moves to lower elevation
d. cool air is more dense and settle to lower elevation
94. Ozone is able to protect the earth from harmful amounts of radiation by
a. reflecting it back to space
b. refracting it to a lower altitude
c. absorbing it and decomposing, then reforming
d. all of the above
95. The earth’s atmosphere is composed mainly of
a. nitrogen, oxygen, and argon
b. oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor
c. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen
d. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor
96. The greenhouse effect results to warmer temperatures near the surface because
a. clouds trap infrared radiation near the surface
b. some of the energy is re – radiated back to the surface
c. carbon dioxide molecules do not permit the radiation to leave
d. carbon dioxide and water vapor both trap infrared radiation
97. According to the plate tectonics theory, seafloor spreading takes place at a
a. subduction zone c. divergent boundary
b. transform boundary d. convergent boundary
98. The presence of an oceanic trench, a chain of volcanic mountains along a continental edge, and deep – seated
earthquakes is a characteristic of a /an
a. ocean – ocean plate convergence
b. ocean – continent plate convergence
c. continent – continent plate convergence
d. none of the above
99. The ongoing occurrence of earthquakes without seafloor spreading, oceanic trenches, or volcanoes is most
characteristic of a
a. subduction zone
b. transform boundary between plates
c. divergent boundary between plates
d. convergent boundary between plates
100. Which of the following does not describe a mineral?
a. it is a substance c. it is inorganic
b. it is naturally occurring d. it can be a solid, liquid, or gas
101. The earth’s atmosphere is mostly composed of
a. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor
b. nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon
c. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen
d. oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor
102. Air moving down a slope is often warm because
a. it has been closer to the sun
b. this occurs only during summertime
c. it is compressed as it moves lower elevations
d. cool air is more dense and settles to lower elevation
103. What condition means a balance between the number of water molecules moving to and from the liquid state?
a. evaporation b. condensation c. saturation d. none of them
104. Without adding or removing any water vapor, a sample of air experiencing an increase in temperature will have
a. a higher relative humidity c. the same relative humidity
b. a lower relative humidity d. a changed absolute humidity
105. Cooling a sample of air results in
a. an increased capacity to hold water vapor
b. a decreased capacity to hold water vapor
c. unchanged capacity to hold water vapor
d. any of the above can be correct
106. When water vapor in the atmosphere condenses to liquid water,
a. dew falls to the ground c. a cloud forms
b. rain or snow falls to the ground d. all of them are correct
107. The average temperature of a location is made more even by the influence of
a. elevation c. dry air
b. a large body of water d. nearby mountains
108. The climate of a specific location is determined by
a. its latitude
b. how much sunlight it receives
c. its latitude and nearby mountains and bodies of water
d. all of the above
109. Based on its abundance on the earth’s crust, most rocks will contain a mineral composed of oxygen and the
element
a. sulfur b. carbon c. silicon d. iron
110. The most common rock in the earth’s crust is
a. igneous b. sedimentary c. metamorphic d. none of them
111. Which of the following formed from previously existing rocks?
a. igneous rocks c. sedimentary rocks
b. metamorphic rocks d. all of them are correct
112. Sedimentary rocks are formed by the processes of compaction and
a. cementation c. melting
b. pressurization d. heating but not melting
113. Which type of rock probably existed first, starting the rock cycle?
a. igneous b. sedimentary c. metamorphic d. none of them
114. The oldest rocks are found in (the)
a. oceanic crust b. continental crust c. neither, since both are the same age
115. The least dense rocks are found in (the)
a. oceanic crust b. continental crust c. neither, since both are the same density
116. According to the plate tectonics theory, seafloor spreading takes place at a
a. subduction zone c. divergent boundary
b. convergent boundary d. transform boundary
117. The presence of an oceanic trench, a chain of volcanic mountains along a continental edge, and deep – seated
earthquakes is characteristic of a (an)
a. ocean – ocean plate convergence
b. ocean – continent plate convergence
c. continent – continent plate convergence
d. none of the above are correct
118. The presence of an oceanic trench with shallow earthquakes and island arcs with deep – seated earthquakes is
characteristic of a (an)
a. ocean – ocean plate convergence
b. ocean – continent plate convergence
c. continent – continent plate convergence
d. none of the above are correct
119. The ongoing occurrence of earthquakes without seafloor spreading, oceanic trenches, or volcanoes is most
characteristic of a
a. subduction zone c. convergent boundary between plates
b. divergent boundary between plates d. transform boundary between plates
120. What do you call the earth’s motion around the sun?
a. rotation b. revolution c. precession d. none of these
121. When the moon is between the earth and the sun, what kind of eclipse occurs?
a. solar eclipse b. lunar eclipse c. none of them
122. The measure of the star’s brightness is called its
a. intensity b. parallax c. color index d. magnitude
123. Which of the objects listed below is the largest in size?
a. stars b. nebula c. planets d. galaxies
124. Seasons occur on earth because its axis is tilted. The inclination of the axis is
0 0 0 0
a. 3 b. 12.5 c. 23.5 d. 31.5
125. What do you call the darker part of the shadow?
a. umbra b. penumbra c. sunspot d. blind spot
126. Compared to the earth’s gravity, the moon’s gravity is
a. ½ as much b. ¼ as much c. 1/3 as much d. 1/6 as much
127. Which of the following instruments determines the atmospheric relative humidity?
a. barometer c. psychrometer
b. anemometer d. sphygmomanometer
128. Which of the following is a non – renewable energy source?
a. wind energy c. fossil fuel
b. solar energy d. geothermal energy
129. Which of the following is a consequence of deforestation that leads to soil conversion from loam to sandy?
a. sedimentation b. compaction c. liquefaction d. desertification
130. Which of the following does NOT describe a mineral?
a. They are inorganic.
b. They are found in nature.
c. They can be solid, liquid, or gas.
d. They are made up of an orderly arrangement of atoms with a definite crystal structure.
131. Which of the following statements is true about earthquake prediction?
a. Earthquakes could be predicted 100%.
b. We could now determine the probable sites where earthquake could occur.
c. Seismologists could predict the time and day when an earthquake would occur.
d. There has been no attempt to predict an earthquake.
132. Which element is not recycled throughout an ecosystem by the processes of photosynthesis and respiration?
a. carbon b. oxygen c. nitrogen d. hydrogen
133. The greatest source of indoor pollutant is
a. CFC b. smog c. radon d. helium
134. Groundwater that is too close to hot rocks is warmed and flows to the surface as a
a. magma b. hot spring c. stream d. well
135. Which of the following creates deep water circulation?
a. Wind b. earthquakes c. volcanic activity d. difference in density
136. Which of the following contains the greatest volume of water on earth?
a. atmosphere b. glaciers and ice sheets c. groundwater d. oceans
137. What happens to the salinity of ocean water when the rate of evaporation increases?
a. it increases c. it remains the same
b. it decreases d. it is reduced to zero
138. What is the warning sign of an approaching tsunami?
a. high tide and low tide
b. flashflood in nearby beaches
c. coastal residents move to higher ground
d. rapid withdrawal of water from beaches
139. Convection in the asthenosphere caused the breaking of the lithosphere into huge segments. What are these
huge segments called?
a. faults b. boulders c. continents d. tectonic plate
140. How much stronger is an earthquake with a Richter magnitude of 6 compared with an earthquake with a Richter
magnitude of 5?
a. 10 times b. 20 times c. 100 times c. 1000 times
141. What type of volcano is formed when fluid magma erupts quietly and flows from a vent to gradually build up a
low, broad mountain with gentle slopes?
a. shield volcano c. cinder cone
b. composite volcano d. stratovolcano
142. Which of the following terms means Earth – centered?
a. heliocentric b. geocentric c. both of them d. none of them
143. Compared to the other stars, the sun is
a. small b. large c. medium – sized d. incomparable
144. The phases of the moon depend on the position of the
a. moon only c. earth and moon only
b. earth only d. earth, moon, and sun
145. The planets in the solar system
a. can support human life c. revolve around the sun
b. have the same surface temperature d. are exactly the same size
146. When it is summer in the northern hemisphere, in the southern hemisphere it is
a. autumn b. spring c. summer d. winter
147. During the summer, the days are
a. shorter than the nights c. the same length as the night
b. longer than the nights d. none of them
148. Which results from the collision of two continental plates?
a. mountains b. folds c. earthquakes d. all of them
149. Scientists believe that on of the earth’s layers is a liquid. Which is this?
a. crust b. mantle c. outer core d. inner core
150. Which of the following is the most violent of all volcanic eruptions?
a. Plinian eruption c. Strombolian eruption
b. Vulcanian eruption d. Hawaiian eruption
TEST ITEMS IN CHEMISTRY
1. Which of the following is not a physical property?
a. the ductility of a metal c. the freezing point of a liquid
b. the hardness of a metal d. the corrosiveness of an acid
2. Which statement describes a chemical property?
a. Hemoglobin molecules have red color
0
b. Water boils below 100 C on top of a mountain
c. Fertilizers help increase the agricultural production
d. When ice cubes are left on the table, it gradually melts.
3. Which is an example of a chemical change
a. boiling of water c. melting of butter
b. souring of milk d. dissolving salt in water
4. Which is an example of a physical change?
a. rusting of iron c. lighting a matchstick
b. ripening of mango d. dissolving sugar in water
5. How will you distinguish between an acid and a base?
a. test with litmus paper c. compare their boiling point
b. compare their density d. test for the solubility of water
6. Which of the following is an example of an intensive property?
a. density b. mass c. volume d. length
7. What do you call a mixture that scatters light passing through it?
a. Solution b. colloid c. suspension d. all of them
8. Ernest Rutherford is credited for the discovery of the atomic nucleus. What do you call the experiment he
conducted that led to the nuclear model of the atom?
a. oil – drop experiment c. gold – foil experiment
b. alpha – scattering experiment d. both b and c
9. Some cough syrup are shaken first before they are used. What characterizes these products?
a. solution b. colloid c. suspension d. mixture
10. All of the following are characteristics of an ionic bond except
a. involves sharing of electrons
b. stronger than a covalent bond
c. the components joined by the bonds are ions
d. ions are held by electrostatic forces of attraction
35
11. Which of the following is true of the element 17X .
a. element X has 17 neutrons
b. element X has 18 protons
c. element x has 17 electrons
d. element X has 17 neutrons and 18 protons
12. Louise wanted to know the nature of carbonated drink. She used a blue litmus paper. She observed that it turned
red after ten seconds. What type of compound is it?
a. acid b. base c. salt d. any of them
13. When a candle is lighted, it melts. The wax then vaporizes. Finally, it burns. Which is the correct order of
changes that took place?
a. chemical, physical, physical
b. physical, chemical, chemical
c. physical, physical, chemical
d. chemical, chemical, chemical
14. A covalent bond is formed when
a. electrons are gained by an atom
b. electrons are given up by an atom
c. electrons are shared between atoms
d. electrons are given up by one atom and taken in by another
15. Which of the following bonds is polar covalent?
a. F – F b. Be – Cl c. Na – Cl d. C – O
16. What is the molecular of methane (CH4)?
a. trigonal planar b. tetrahedral c. square planar d. linear
17. All of the following elements will have the tendency to give up electrons to be stable except
a. Aluminum b. Chlorine c. Calcium d. Potassium
18. A solid was heated, and decomposed into black solid and white smoke. What is the solid that was heated?
a. metal b. element c. mixture d. compound
19. The mass of an atom is attributed to
a. protons and neutrons c. electrons and neutrons
b. protons and electrons d. protons only
20. The common name of hydrochloric acid is muriatic acid. What is the chemical name for baking soda?
a. sodium bicarbonate c. sodium carbonate
b. sodium hydroxide d. calcium carbonate
21. Which of the following has the greatest number of nitrogen atoms?
a. NH4NO3 b. HNO3 c. (NH4)3PO4 d/ Ca(NO3)2
22. Colloids maybe dispersed in a gas, liquid, or solid. Which of the following colloidal systems show a liquid
dispersed in a gas medium?
a. clouds b. smoke c. paint d. beaten egg white
23. What is the correct chemical name of P4O10?
a. diphosphorus pentoxide c. phosphorus oxide
b. tetraphosphorus decoxide d. phosphorus oxyacid
24. Which of the following acid groups is found in vinegar?
a. nitric acid b. acetic acid c. sulfuric acid d. ascorbic acid
25. How do solutions differ from compounds?
a. solutions are heterogeneous mixtures; compounds are homogeneous.
b. solutions vary in composition; compounds have definite composition
c. solutions have definite composition; compounds vary in composition
d. solutions are formed in chem. reactions; compounds combine physically
2 2 6 2 6 2 10 1
26. The electron configuration of an atom of element X in the ground state is 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p . Which of
the following elements represents this?
a. 48Cd b. 35Br c. 31Ga d. 27Co
27. Lithium, sodium, and potassium are alkali metals belonging to Group 1A. What is the valence electron of these
elements?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
28. If two atoms that differ in electronegativity combine by chemical reaction and sharing of electrons, the bond that
joins them will be
a. ionic bond b. polar covalent c. nonpolar covalent d. metallic bond
29. What is the correct chemical name of Ca(ClO3)2?
a. Calcium chlorate c. Calcium (II) chlorate
b. Calcium chloride d. Calcium chlorite
30. Which of the following statements about the atoms of isotopes is true?
a. they have different number of protons and neutrons
b. they have the same number of protons and neutrons
c. they have the same number of proton but different number of neutron
d. they have the same number of neutron but different number of proton
31. Who discovered in 1932 the electrically neutral particle called neutron?
a. Joseph Thomson c. Robert Millikan
b. James Chadwick d. Eugen Goldstein
32. Which of the following represents a mole?
23
a. 3.01 x 10 gold atoms c. 27 g aluminum metal
23
b. 12.4 x 10 H2O molecules d. 44.00 g of CO2 molecules
33. What gas law states that the absolute pressure is inversely proportional to the volume of a gas?
a. Boyle’s Law b. Charle’s Law c. Gay – Lussac’s Law
34. Which of the following statements about boiling is true?
0
a. The normal boiling point of water is 100 C
b. Water boils when vapor pressure becomes equal to atmospheric pressure
c. The boiling temperature increases as the atmospheric pressure increases.
d. All of the above.
35. What would be the chemical formula of the compound formed between Mg and S?
a. MgS b. MgS2 c. Mg2S d. MgS3
36. The generalized electron configuration of this group of elements is [Noble Gas] ns2np5. Identify its group and
family.
a. Group VII and Family A c. Group II and Family B
b. Group V and Family A d. Group I and Family B
37. An atom of non – metallic chlorine has mass number of 35 and 18 neutrons in the nucleus. The anion derived
from the atom has 18 electrons. What is the symbol of the anion?
1+ 1- 0 2-
a. Cl b. Cl c. Cl d. Cl
38. Which of the following is an endothermic process?
a. condensing of steam c. freezing of water
b. subliming of mothballs d. all of them
39. What happens to the volume of an ideal gas if both the pressure and the volume are doubled?
a. double b. quadruple c. halved d. remains the same
40. Which of the following chemical equations is correctly balanced?
a. 2Zn + 6HCl  ZnCl2 + 3H2
b. 2H2SO4 + 6NaOH  2Na2SO4 + 3H2O
c. 2Mg + 6H2SO4  2MgSO4 + 3H2
d. 2Al + 6HNO3  2Al(NO3)3 + 3H2
41. Plumbic oxide (PbO2) is a compound used in the lead – acid batteries of automobiles. What is the valence
number of the lead in the formula?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
42. What is the molar mass in g/mol of Ca(ClO3)2?
a. 205 b. 206 c. 207 d. 208
43. Carbon disulfide is a nonpolar molecule. Its central atom is carbon. Using VSEPR, what is its shape?
a. linear b. trigonal planar c. tetrahedral d. bent
44. Which of the following molecules has a tetrahedral shape?
a. XeF4 b. BF3 c. AsF5 d. CF4
45. Which of the following pairs of elements is likely to form an ionic compound?
a. I and Cl b. Al and N c. Cl and Cl d. Mg and F
46. During chemical changes or chemical reactions, which particles are gained, lost, or shared?
a. protons inside the nucleus c. electrons in the outermost energy level
b. neutrons inside the nucleus d. electrons in the innermost energy level
47. Hydrogen peroxide has been used as a rocket propellant. If the chemical formula of hydrogen peroxide is H2O2,
what is its empirical formula?
a. H2O b. HO c. H2O2 d. HO2
48. Cooper is being used in jewelry making. How many atoms are there in 2 moles of copper?
22 23 24 24
a. 12.04 x 10 b. 1.204 x 10 c. 1.204 x 10 d. 12.04 x 10
49. The spoilage of meat is delayed when kept in the refrigerator because the cold temperature
a. keeps the flies insects away c. changes the color and odor of meat
b. slows down the action of bacteria d. turns the water component to ice
50. Who discovered the magnitude of the charge of the electron?
a. Joseph Thomson c. Robert Millikan
b. James Chadwick d. Eugene Goldstein
51. Isomers are compounds with the same
a. molecular formula with different structures
b. molecular formula with different atomic masses
c. atoms, but different molecular formulas
d. structures, but different formulas
52. The hydrocarbons with a double covalent carbon – carbon bond are called
a. alkanes b. alkenes c. alkynes d. none of them
53. According to their definitions, which of the following would not occur as unsaturated hydrocarbon?
a. alkanes b. alkenes c. alkynes d. none of them
54. What is the proof of a “wine cooler” that is 5 % alcohol by volume?
a. 2.5 proof b. 5 proof c. 10 proof d. 50 proof
55. A solution that is able to resist changes in the pH when small amounts of an acid or base are added is called a
a. neutral solution c. buffer solution
b. saturated solution d. balanced solution
56. A substance that ionizes completely into hydronium ions is known as a
a. strong acid b. weak acid c. strong base d. weak base
57. When a solution of an acid and a base are mixed together,
a. a salt and water are formed
b. they lose their acid and base properties
c. both are neutralized
d. all of the above are correct
58. Salt solutions freeze at a lower temperature than pure water because
a. more ionic bonds are present
b. salt solutions have higher vapor pressure
c. ions get in the way of water molecules trying to form ice
d. salt naturally has a lower freezing point than water
59. Adding sodium chloride to water raises the boiling point of water because
a. the energy of hydration is higher
b. sodium chloride has a higher boiling point
c. sodium chloride ions occupy space at the water surface
d. sodium chloride ions have stronger ion – ion bonds than water
60. Which of the following will conduct an electric current?
a. pure water
b. a water solution of a covalent compound
c. a water solution of an ionic compound
d. none of the above
61. According to the activity series for metals, adding metallic iron to a solution of aluminum chloride should result in
a. a solution of iron chloride and metallic aluminum
b. a mixed solution of iron and aluminum chloride
c. the formation of iron hydroxide with hydrogen given off
d. no metal replacement reaction
62. What do rusting and combustion have in common?
a. neither involve the reduction of a substance
b. they are both examples of oxidation
c. they are both impeded by the presence of water
d. they are the reverse processes and so they share nothing in common
63. Energy is required to break apart a chemical bond to overcome
a. gravitational forces of attraction c. electrical forces of attration
b. nuclear forces of attraction d. It is not! Energy is released.
64. Which type of molecular attraction is considered the strongest?
a. Ion – dipole b. dipole – dipole c. dipole – induced dipole
65. Water is considered a polar compound because
a. each molecule consists of fewer than 10 atoms
b. it has a strong attraction to magnets
c. one side is slightly negative while the other side is slightly positive
d. it is found in its frozen state in both arctic and Antarctic regions of our planet
66. What type of bonds generally involves nonmetal atoms?
a. covalent bonds b. ionic bonds c. none of them
67. The atoms of elements toward the bottom of any group in the periodic table tend to be
a. smaller because in the increase of the nuclear charge
b. smaller because of the decrease in the probability cloud density
c. larger because of a greater number of occupied shells
d. larger because of the decrease in nuclear charge
68. Salts are made of elements found on opposite ends of the periodic table because
a. elements on the left end tend to form positive ions while those on the right tend to form negative ions
b. elements on the left tend to form negative ions while those on the right tend to form positive ions
c. elements on opposite ends of the periodic table have similar arrangements of electrons
d. False. Salts are generally made of elements found on the same side of the periodic table.
69. Osmosis is the process whereby
a. water flows across a semipermeable membrane from regions of high to low solute concentrations
b. water flows across a semipermeable membrane from regions of low to high solute concentrations
c. solutes flow across a semipermeable membrane from regions of high to oow solute concentrations
d. solutes flow across a semipermeable membrane from regions of low to high solute concentrations
70. Calculate the molarity of 4.008g sodium hydroxide flakes dissolved in 1000 mL water.
a. 0.1 M b. 1.0 M c. 4.0 M d. 40 M
71. Sterling silver contains 93.5% silver. If a necklace made of sterling silver weighs 15 g, what is the mass of the
silver dissolved contained in the necklace?
a. 1.6 g b. 6.2 g c. 9.0 g d. 14.0 g
72. What is the percent by volume of 94 mL of ethyl alcohol present in 375 mL of beer?
a. 9.4 b. 25 c. 37 d. 40
73. A yellowish solution extracted from a leaf has a pH of 8. How would you describe the solution extract?
a. Acidic b. basic c. saturated d. supersaturated
74. How do viscosity and surface tension of liquids change as temperature increases?
a. Viscosity decreases with increasing temperature. Surface tension increases with an increase in
temperature.
b. Viscosity increases with increasing temperature. Surface tension decreases with an increase in
temperature.
c. Viscosity and surface tension increase with increasing temperature.
d. Viscosity and surface tension decrease with increasing temperature.
For numbers 75 – 77, consider the following reaction.
The complete combustion of methane, CH4, can be represented by the equation:

CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g)  CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g)

75. How many grams of CO2 are formed from the combustion of 120 g of methane?
a. 43.6 g b. 54.5 g c. 264 g d. 330 g
76. How many liters of O2 are needed to produce 20 L of CO2 at STP?
a. 10 L b. 20 L c. 22.4 L d. 40 L
77. How many grams of water are produced from the combustion of 56 L CH4 at STP?
a. 45 g b. 63 g c. 90 g d. 126 g
78. The products of the double replacement reaction between barium nitrate and hydrochloric acid are
a. BaCl and HNO3 c. BaCl2 and HNO3
b. BaCl2 and HNO2 d. BaCl and HNO2
79. An element undergoes oxidation when it
a. increases in oxidation number c. gains electrons
b. decreases in oxidation number d. loses protons
80. The reaction of sulfur trioxide with water to form sulfuric acid is an example of
a. combination reaction c. single replacement reaction
b. decomposition reaction d. double replacement reaction
For numbers 81 and 82, consider the following:

A compound was analyzed to contain 43.6% P and 56.4% O.

81. The empirical formula of the compound is

a. PO3 b. P2O5 c. PO4 d. P3O7
82. If the molecular mass of the compound is 284 g/mol, the molecular formula is
a. P4O12 b. P44O56 c. P3O12 d. P4O10
83. Which of these elements has the smallest atomic radius?
a. I b. Na c. Rb d. Cl
84. Which of the following elements is the most metallic?
a. O b. Ca c. Se d. Be
85. Which of the following elements has the highest ionization energy?
a. Li b. Ne c. Kr d. K
86. The differentiating electron of chlorine is added to a
7 3 5 5
a. 3p b. 7p c. 7p d. 3p
87. Which of the following elements belong to the d – block of the periodic table?
a. Mg b. Sc c. Al d. Kr
88. Sublevels are filled up in increasing energies. This statement explains the
a. Hund’s rule c. Pauli’s exclusion principle
b. Aufbau principle d. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
89. The maximum number of electrons that the third principal energy level can contain is
a. 8 b. 10 c. 18 d. 32
31
90. The azimuthal quantum number of the differentiating electron of phosphorus P15 is
a. 0 b. – 1 c. +1 d. 2
91. No two electrons can have the same set of four quantum numbers. This statement is known as
a. de Broglie’s principle c. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
b. Pauli’s exclusion principle d. Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity
92. The maximum number of electrons in the f sublevel is
a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 14
For numbers 93 – 95, consider the following set of four quantum numbers:

n = 4, l = 2, m = +1, s = – ½

93. The electron which has the given set of quantum numbers occupies sublevel
a. s b. p c. d d. f
94. The orbital configuration of the electron is
4 3 9 5
a. 4d b. 4p c. 4d d. 4p
95. The set of four quantum numbers is the PIN of the
rd th nd th
a. 33 electron b. 40 electron c. 42 electron d. 47 electron
96. What did the alpha – scattering experiment reveal?
a. The atom is made up of a very small, massive, and positively charged nucleus.
b. The atom consists of negative charges embedded in a sphere of positive charges.
c. The electrons are negatively charged particles.
d. The protons are in the nucleus.
97. Which of the following is an assumption of Dalton’s atomic theory?
a. Atoms of an element have different masses.
b. When atoms combine to form compounds, they do so in ratios of small whole numbers
c. An atom consists of a very small, positively charged nucleus
d. An atom is a sphere of positively charged material in which the detachable electrons are embedded
98. Which of these isotopes is used in detecting a malfunction of the thyroid gland?
a. Iodine – 131 b. Cobalt – 60 c. Carbon – 14 d. Uranium – 235
99. Which of the following molecules in non polar?
a. NH3 b. H2O c. CCl4 d. all of them are non polar
100. Which is true about ionic compounds?
a. soluble in water
b. do not conduct electricity
c. formed by electron sharing
d. have low melting and boiling points