CAPE (ACs) EXAN 2022 wa we anrat ae uta yer Gel StF we WE Ta wa A Get AAA. : IDFG-U-PFT denn gfe sar wa et 1244965 udtarnt yfeerent A aaa aaa wast qh wa : a ave ute : 250 FE etl BT we TE H fey my whew A oma rear orga aqeya .. dle are BT Yet are sa FH TTT ugar saya wr St fm gent ate fae om, wet aT ET ‘afer oT Ye eer estat an HAAS Re &, ot ga tte yet Bee _ Brat os va Fk OMR Ferre H afen eara het eae sth ter GFE STAR A, B, Cat Dw ema a ea fen feet aa on Pein & wet oie gees wet A rere saftgae ah 81 flee ait wee A ge / Perea ht feuia & arose fea ae fen ore erat Bi tr yea athe BO 3 a va ta gfe #195 wernt nea) fee me Bi aes wevin Feet othe otra SH oe Bl wee wea A aK weg (aon) Peg BL Ga Ba TIRE A GAS, FR ony Te sift wT TEA EI ae sa det a PH ee afi meget ae 8, at se eT wy Aha Eh on wa TA aes rain Aere SaT A TTR FATA a) et at eg sre | Rly Se A iPS HL ae A Rae me Aide ta ‘ah wait & sis war #1 pee ae whl rr 3 em wei Ss weg ee oe Sif eT YR aH, say wa gee aT ita satel & sagan ge Pam saws #2 F TT ae aM ge Sh sea A wa a are em when aa oe Shae Tata hers a aig Z1 sa SAT area ue yer Sa A gaa B1 ee ae & fey gas, aden yee & sea A dem @) 10. wera Tat & fore ave wghte wer-aat 4 softgan aro faq my mera sett & fore avs fem sre () were wer & fee an Safes set 81 Tetean ar wee wer | fora faq ma Us Tera TR fey wer tq faa fa, ay sat ar uw -ftrerg ews & eA ar eT) (i) WR AE Soha HB saftrm see Ren 2, ch ea vera see AT TET, TUR faq Te Sa HB eH sen Ae eet z, fr ft oa wer & foe saimgaR A Ah eH we fen TET! one ‘are Ag et eet eT Pear eT &, sag sHfeae ae set et fe ste B, at sa wea fre ae ave aren Wa we areal ag wen yet Gier wl a wet We wa TH 7 Get1, Refafaa 88 aaa, seh za ee sensi Sct avs oh cect ae opt densi Sats dopa aH oie #7 (a) 2400 (b) 2640 () 2880 (a) 2000 2. Oe afte fal ger @ aif eam aca * Fae fry Geren 3B sifia AET 10% A & to ti we a sea yan fatae & ara 8 arm %, fea 109% A wed-ameh (eu te) rol 1 Rratefaa Ha aaa, ware qe (repr) a 87 (a) 20% (b) 18% (c) 19% (d) 21% 3. ce 8 a feet de vicia Ae a fiver a Ee ang sit € eas oar 1:2 % agua F 1 ota ae Ae % one aw AG He & ora a segura en 8? (@ 1:3 (6) 1:5 (©) 2:9 (@) 1:9 JDFG-U-PFT/48A 4. FF ching aE Sep 2 al A safe & fore at raft a &q wfteat 1006 anf sgh ears Fan 8 aR a at & erg shoe oR aA wal eel @, ft aftad aren erst ee en afee? (a) 10% (b) 105% () 11% (a) 12% 8. feet ores AM stad are wf H2 25% aH ee 1 a ae Ted 2-H 16 km ther 8 stk ae 382 dts t, ot seh waa shea ara aa 8? (a) 12 km/hr () 1233 km/hr () 1033 km/hr (@) 13 km/hr 6. ah (zm) ath em (fs) a 8? (q) wre: fra wa a aifia aa she se aa am Sifts aa (0) Fraza& aia a ( saa afin aa (@) 2AT: sa Tam aifia aa ok fe cra wm fia aa1. Which one of the following is the difference of the sum of cubes of first ten natural numbers and the sum of squares of first ten natural numbers? (@) 2400 (&) 2640 () 2880 (a) 2000 2. A person buys an item from a shop for which the shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% on the marked price. The person pays using an e-wallet which gives 10% cash back. Which one of the following is the value of effective discount? (a) 20% () 18% () 19% (a) 21% 3. A solid spherical ball made of iron is melted and two new balls are made whose diameters are in the ratio of 1:2. ‘The ratio of the volume of the smaller new ball to the original ball is (a) 1:3 (b) 1:5 (co) 2:9 (a) 1:9 JDFG-U-PFT/48A 4. Suppose a bank gives an interest of 10% per annum compounded annually for a fixed deposit for a period of two years. What should be the simple interest rate per annum if the maturity amount after two years is to remain the same? (a) 10% () 105% () 11% (a) 12% 5. A runner’s average speed reduces by 25% every hour. If he runs 16 km in the first hour and he runs for 3 hours, then what is his overall average speed? (a) 12 km/hr (6) 12:33 km/hr () 10:33 km/hr (@) 13 km/hr 6. Trough and ridge are (a) elongated area of low pressure and of high pressure respectively (0) elongated areas of low pressure (c) elongated areas of high pressure (d) elongated area of high pressure and of low pressure respectively [P-7.0.7. ae sien eR She 2, fra TH Sat 10. frafafar devant (ateteia) #8 wae fafa aia @ sik ge oma (sete) wT Go Hho Ho/sngo Wo asa a sari EK SAY state A vfs Bren 7 weit? (a) TET (HI FIR) (a) Whe ao the wa (b) Te Bo Bo the fo) wa Pram (site ath) ame Songs (a) sto the (a) I W-ReR (si feet) 11, Prafafas 4 & ag w-a arises fare 8, 8. 3 sha aa seed &, oh set wan Bizet sare ‘Foren sein gt ara A argla (Ha) A TE een we wa? aA RR sree at (Gain fea) A a ‘wg & fare fear or 8? (a) teat fy rex oe (oy aire fy Rivera fo) FRee-weite (a) sree (@) sre 9. frafafiad 4 & aan ware da (sift 12, Prafefaat 4 8 tam dase ar: shee ‘fereea) rei 8? sik aefehe 1 engine sar a ae Frefir wm 8? gets! (ay arses ote sa ee (yi she casi fe) ee (6) afRrsies ath =afsersitera (d) We WHe-waA (a) rasta 3k wR JDFG-U-PFT/48A 47. The boundary layer of the forest at which the energy exchange occurs and some insolation is returned directly to space is (a) forest floor (b) forest soil (c) forest canopy (a) forest litter 8. The organisms that prefer high salt concentration habitats refer to as (a) alkaliphiles (b) calcifuges (c) halophiles (a) nitrophiles 9. Which one of the following is not an operating system? (a) MS-Windows () Linux () Ubuntu (@) MS-Excel SDFG-U-PFT/48A. 10. Which one of the following protocols is not an application layer of the ‘TCP/IP model? (a) FTP (o) HTTP () DNS (a) P 11, Which one of the following is a semi- conductor device that is used to increase the power of the incoming signals by preserving the shape of the original signal? (a) Register (6) Transistor (9. Plip-fop (d) Diode 12. Which of the following combinations correctly represents the genetic materials in prokaryotes. and eukaryotes respectively? (a) Nucleoid and Chromatin (o) Chromatin and Nucleoid () Nucleoid and Nucleolus (4) Nucleolus and Chromatin [P-7.0,13. wera (meet) was tare a ft wre A feat 81 cee tore a fafafad #8 feat are vette fear sre 7 (a) ie aa () Pref singh safere (o) ea stage saferan (q wi wee 14. frafafsr A a aaa, ey faemtes (ARH) A wrens aA aan ea a frets am 7 (a) wR Aft wea, Tae seta, gee ae otk cae a Ta (o) Wr Afra za, yah aFHftra-fihh, Te tae oh ae waht (o) wa After xx, wach aftr, ay dae oh wana a sera (a) waa Dif wea, HI area, ay Ga ok gag aehat 18. fefafad wrt 4 8 feet an saga ea aint? (a) eres (Fen tat) () i (za) (o) Frere (htfrsata) (aye (areereree!) JDFG-U-PFT/48A 16. ¥ae % frei 4 aifea qt A ante aa A we Fatt care (erefsrergsa) &1 ya aie 4, orgie 9 8 saa Wed} mer dee (wife) acer aren &) Preafeifiad 38 ata sien, sae A oh Baek sat 8? (a) sere (6) serrata (co) seri (a) sient 17, sraeemst % sagea, ea dew wet wh gee ave ora ok gag wes oe ey A afi fran ar 81 Prafefan 3 & san, ww ae, ‘Shes aa ar See 8? (a) Frits (b) 7H (aI) (ey Feira (a) Fae 18. arte & wi-avia « ate 3 sem aga (ms) ware fied € ott ay oes feats et tae Pref 4 & fa ren} er aH ‘sere 8? (a) ifs wad (o) RR (co) Atay Frater (a) Freee13. Lysosomes are sacs of the cell filled with digestive enzymes. These digestive enzymes are synthesized by (a) Golgi bodies (b) smooth endoplasmic reticulum (c) rough endoplasmic reticulum (a) lysosome itself 14. Which of the following best represents the cells of a meristem of plant? (a) Dense cytoplasm, thin cell wall, large nuclei and absence of vacuoles (b) Dense cytoplasm, thin cell wall, large nuclei and large vacuoles (c) Dense cytoplasm, thin cell wall, small nuclei and absence of vacuoles (a) Dense cytoplasm, thick cell wall, small nuclei and large vacuoles 15. Which one of the following animals has a four-chambered heart? (a) King cobra (b) Turtle () Chameleon (d) Crocodile JDFG-U-PFT/48A, 16. One way of incorporating desired characters into crop varieties is hybridization. In this process, there is crossing between genetically dissimilar plants. Which one of the following crossings will not refer to hybridization? (a) Intervarietal (b) Interspecific (c) Intergenic (qd) Intragenic 17. Depending on the —_ requirements, plant nutrients are classified as micronutrients and macronutrients. Which one of the following is an example of a macronutrient? (a) Manganese (b) Copper (c) Magnesium (4) Chlorine 18. Buds produced in the notches along the leaf margin of Bryophyllum fall on soil and develop into new plants. This is ‘an example of which one of the following types of reproduction? (a) Vegetative propagation (b) Budding () Spore formation (a) Regeneration [P-7.0.19. ‘ware (sete) Sas ger: feet vitae 22. frafeafaa 4 8 fea yard er wi sa Say fara sara #7 a 8 fry gt eat a eI? ee (a RafPran () He (b) ater (c) tem (aerR) fo) ates ERS: (@) ama 23, area % ate on fee aaah wea ae serene #27 (a) sR 20, a agai x sit ym xaaR BAR 8 ae a ect gre: uw G 3u A we 8 afta Ei eA ai Sat ky he ky Pat wane daira 87 (sats (a) wr (@) ky=ky ouesese 24, vite sal a aga sai A aRafia wa & fee parte wir faq oi ara Aya aa (Rearea) a eT (c) 9ky =ky wat? (a) treater erage (oy ex (co) Arex 21, frafefaad 4 8 ea-m, aa a ame (ahz) (a) sia (site) wet R? 28, fet saa aa A atea a a fo 2m C) ee Raa A aan er eh? (o) N/m? (a) +0-5 srestie (b) -0'5 srt () J/m? - (ec) +2-0 SIgsiet (qm (a) -1-0 sgaitex JDFG-U-PFT/48A 819. Phloem tissues are mostly responsible for transport of (a) water (b) oxygen () minerals (@) food 20. Two objects, x and y, have equal mass and are moving with speeds u and 3u respectively. Their kinetic energies k, and ky are related as (0) 2ky = Ky (@ 21. Which one of the following is not the unit of pressure? (a) pascal (Pa) () N/m? () 3/m? (a) bar SDFG-U-PFT/48A 22. Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a convex lens? (@ Aluminium (b) Glass () Sapphire (a) Water 23. The optical phenomenon responsible for the blue colour of sky is (@) dispersion (b) reflection (0) refraction (d) scattering 24, The electrical device used for converting mechanical energy into electrical energy is called (a) voltmeter (b) ammeter (c) motor (@) generator 25. The magnitude of focal length of ‘concave lens is 2 m, What is the power of the lens? (a) +0-5 dioptre (b) -0-5 dioptre (c) +2-0 dioptre (@) -1.0 dioptre [P7.0.26, ay wa % dhe egg sho Hare 29, 9a art a ater Prenat are &, ah een 8 fra aor as aor oth Geran aan est (gy Weare with 87 () WAAR R (a) sre a Seay sa (9 BHA ag are eMac CO. ( Awa eee (a) H,0 27. a fd afar ag a Yes da catia @ amg, at set ata sai Peed ye «90. Fiat otk B32 AL ohm ong 35 ad 8, en awe? att a2 a2 fh shad sg 32 ai 8 wen aH aa A shea org 17 ad 8) fren ote ae 2o1 3S A otra ong a eh? m4 (fq 3028 ate () 27-28 ie (co) 2938 (a 2998 28. fofefad 4 8 aan stems, ora otk aan SH 3 are safhifeen axe 8? 31, Hf Hen oF wH-fteg 8 124 afte 81 ae Hem er 8? (a) Yafafran sitaees (a) 194 P (6) 180 () Wien siteares (9 189 (@) Term siaeTes (a) 186 SDFG-U-PFT/48A. 1026. At the time of short circuit, the current in an electric circuit (a) becomes zero (®) remains same (c) increases sharply (d) decreases sharply 27. If the linear momentum of a moving object changes by two times, then its kinetic energy will change by a factor of (a) 2 (b) 4 @ 6 @ 8 28. Which one of the following oxides reacts with both acid and base? (a) Aluminium oxide (6) Calcium oxide (@) Sodium oxide (d@) Potassium oxide JDFG-U-PFT/48A, 1 29. Which of the following makes bread soft and spongy when baking soda is added? (a) Sodium salt of acid (b) NaHCO, () COs (a) 4,0 30. The average age of father and elder son is 35 years, the average age of father and younger son is 32 years and the average age of the two sons is 17 years. What is the average age of the father and his two sons? (a) 30 years (b) 27 years (c) 28 years (a) 29 years 81. A number is 124 more than its one-third. What is that number? (a) 194 (b) 180 (189 (a) 186 [P-7.0,32, a8 aR S41 gl 60 km/hr Af A she aA 24 Ov km/hr fa @ aa ach BL AR yt am A shea aft 50 km/hr %, tv a eH Rt? (a) 0) Co) (@ 40 30 100/3 35 33. 4m diffe a sh B fiat fat arf a 1o fit 4 qu aR wet 1 aR Ba aT art a1 15 fei a qu ax wae 8, dA aa ‘wa ad a feat Peat A a a aR? @ i) o @ 20 fa 24 fa 25 fa 30 fa 34, af gam #4 A ote densi #8 vec ar ‘Wensit a stad 25 @ ok sift aK densi ai sted, 20 %, a cect sit siftm den & dra a sik eH eT? (a) (b) CO) @ JDFG-U-PFT/48A 20 12 38. germ (ata) Fee Aan Pret aa 8? (a) Puan arate (o) Rebfiram arate (c) Wafer arreite (ay tifa write 36. fear frre sre 8? (a) are (=) (b) een (Fire) () TH (wR) (a) ara (as) 37. 8a cael (cere the) far frag 8? (a) ead, ka otk Maem (o) eh, saree stk tae (co) eh, aaa i afean (=a, titre otk tefean32. A car travels 3th of the distance at 35. Borax is prepared from a speed of 60 km/hr and the remaining th of the distance at a speed of ay Seaetaanaty v km/hr. If the average speed for the full journey is 50 km/hr, then the value of vis (b) magnesium carbonate (a) 40 (c) potassium carbonate (b) 30 (e) 100/3 (a) sodium carbonate (@ 35 36. Cinnabar is an ore of 33. Suppose A and B can complete a work together in 10 days. If B alone can complete the work in 15 days, then (a) mercury in how many days can A alone finish the work? (b) zine (a) 20 days (b) 24 days () copper () 25 days (@) lead (a) 30 days 34, If the average of the first four of five numbers in decreasing order is 25 and the average of the last four numbers is 20, then what is the difference (a) between the first and the last number? 37. White gold is an alloy of gold, nickel and palladium (a) 5 (b) gold, cobalt and palladium (b) 10 (6) gold, titanium and platinum () 15 (a) 20 (d) gold, magnesium and palladium JDFG-U-PFT/48A. 13 [P-n0.38. tf a aeiaism Be RAT 42, GRA 10 km Gia PRA a wae 8? sik HAR: 10 km/hr 3 14 km/hr A cafe & aren sree aera €1 Pert aa are a ee wegh a fa? (o) se (Fie) fo) eats (@) 20 frre (a) Pera (b) 25 fae () 28 fre 39. fewer aiaags ve % ae afiien ae gar Br (RE aTeH). To TL we Ree sore saree 87 (a) arse sft 43. wm fam 3 an sore sia | dts 2 faa (%s) safer a 8? (oy soe sien rea (ster safe @ 2 (@) aa after w 2 40. eregiss Tey Al gerry fen farerh 8? (a) 37 *antex (eo: (b) 37 Fravter (c) 17 Prather @ 8 (a) 57 Prater 41.5 ci wm ow ap t, fai ow aft 44, fae aden #25 agiaed wa @) ret wel (sfa-ae) anfret B1 aie afa-aehh a wage % ore-aret Fern arn et, Ae 5 cit a 5 @ftal are wm afte 4 faa adel @ Aarn a aaa 87 (a) 24 (b) 48 () 60 (a) 120 JDFG-U-PFT/48A 14 at & farm +4 aim % ok mea ae fae -1 % %1 a seri 74 se oI aeM 2, Hae frat welt & ser wel eu? (a) 4 (b) 3 () 5 (a938. Hydrogenation of alkenes can be carried out in the presence of (a) copper () zine (aluminium (a) nickel 39. Calcium oxide reacts with water to produce slaked lime. It is an example of (a) combination reaction (b) decomposition reaction (c) oxidation reaction (d) addition reaction 40. The atomic radius of hydrogen atom is (a) 37 nanometer (6) 37 picometer (©) 17 picometer (4) 57 picometer 41. There is a group of 5 people among which there is one couple. In how many ways can these 5 people be seated in a row having 5 chairs if the couple is to be seated next to each other? (a) 24 (b) 48 (c) 60 (d) 120 JDFG-U-PFT/48A. 15 42, Two friends 10 km apart start running. towards each other at speeds of 10 km/hr and 14 km/hr respectively. After how much time will they meet each other? (a) 20 minutes (b) 25 minutes () 28 minutes (a) 30 minutes 43. A coin is tossed 3 times. The probability of getting exactly 2 heads is @ 2 w 2 ( nin (a) ola 44. A test consists of 25 MCQs. Each correct answer gives +4 marks and incorrect answer gives -1 mark. If a candidate scores 74 marks, then how many questions were left unattempted? (a 4 ) 3 § (a9 [pn0.45. Pehl cafe & oe & 2 ak es % Ga 100 Re ae feet ar ga AA 320%, ADH ‘Fereet Hy sea Fert 8? (a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (a) 70 46. Bhat ‘fqegsta aaa care wre (eats wa fre fen)’ & am a are Shee A wal few al AA or 87 (a) War-wait (argeh) & afta feng a i (b) atte A ara a Sgr HEH (wie) (o) RRA afrenfera sage an setae (@) Faria tei wn faa 47. Rreafatad ari 1 fran afi : 1, We er & fe de te Bow a eather aot at seein Pen aren 8 2, 3a tea fea we Sri A gern 4, ate ter afta te Gat 3 ber & aft ae eA sera we safes eer 81 safes wert Ha ata-an/ata-8 we 8/8? (a) a1 () Fa2 () 132 et @ amisaee JDFG-U-PFT/48A. 16 48. frafeferd freed % fran Afar : 1, afi 2. wee 3. aa saa 4. a-ar/ata-8 a Prema Prema ae ( 132 (b) FA @ 133 (a) Fa 3 49, ana A ear & el 4, fraferitad aereiett 7 fran Are : 1 an 2. Fe 3. adm 48 fral/feat de om, we fren ae ag-d-arg fers 8/82 (a 132 (b) Fae 2 () 13R3 (a) ¥aa3 50. wa @ 4, ana 9 fefefad 4 8 fea te a adm ten wore A? (a) arent (o) sree (c) Arete (@) ae ora srt45. A person has a total of 100 coins consisting of 2 and ®5 coins. If the total value of the coins is 320, then the number of 2 coins is (a) 40 (b) 50 () 60 (a) 70 46. The technology known as ‘Electro- magnetic Air Lift System’ is sometimes talked about in reference to (a) launching guided missiles from silos (b) launching aircraft from warships () navigation of submarines nuclear-powered (a) development of reusable rockets 47. Consider the following statements : 1, Aluminium powder is used as a solid fuel for rocket engines. Compared to liquid fuel propelled rocket engines, the thrust per amount of fuel burned is higher in solid fuel propelled rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 JDFG-U-PFT/48A, 17 48. Consider the following missiles : 1, Agni 2. BrahMos 3. Dhanush Which of the above missile/missiles? is/are cruise (a) land 2 (2) 2 only (9 1ana3 (@ 3 only 49. With reference to India’s defence, consider the following helicopters : 1. Cheetah 2. Chetak 3. Rudra Which of the above has/have turret gun, rocket system and air-to-air missile? (@) and 2 (b) 2 only () land 3 (a) 3 only 50. Recently, India gave a coastal radar system to which one of the following countries? (a) Bangladesh (b) Maldives () Sri Lanka (@) United Arab Emirates [P.7.0.81. feet Rafe 9 Prfotra 4 a fra serefe A ie ‘area ae A gech eT BAA Bw a (a) sericea Sie ga wera (6) Ta a aa Ba sigs ite Guar (9 watigme tie ga cer be afer (cr #4 RAR 7 oa) (a) aces aa $a Het 52. feat ao ‘ater dacq win oh aretha ‘fan ren? (a) sree argent (by sect ere (oy sree tea (ay year 83. siia eam % dau 4, fefeta A a aan ar wel Tet 8? (a) mare sara Peete selena shea ft fara fraream, oon-ge Ha (es aa) yen sk seas dor a faara anfe @1 ) aeafra saenft ate sra wae aa far sfifiar % sigan, +i 9 fer tat a args saftren fee aa &1 (o) fate @a fara arisen a stra aa aa sere a arena # aa ea a far works seardia sais & fem fade Fata wer % sinta meh tar 3 a we ara sida ay & fee 34 a wer Asif & JDFG-U-PFT/48A 18 84, frafefiad 4 & ahaa ser adi wet 7 (a) “ooh sei arett Tame aise’ we Te wat ariee 81 () Yar aaa aa aria otk Fe ‘faora arian 1970 % cae 4 ores fae mR aL (co) “wera arty fare ar’ A raven #8 & are “Sel ati doe ‘aise’ 2001 4 ares A 7g ey (@ ‘ee sid om ete aha we sari atte ara 5s. waned ae A wa: fee TH a aT ‘a 8? (a) aifeate ae (b) Gra a ae, (co) Wate a ae (a) wea ae 86. samba 4 sre & frente = frafefera HR fa feat A feren oren B? (a) are () URI () re (a) shrs-srnks51. Which one of the following artworks was hailed by Sister Nivedita as the first masterpiece of Indian art’ ? (a) Bharatmata by Abanindranath ‘Tagore (b) Arjuna and Subhadra by Raja Ravi Varma (c) Sita in Captivity in Lanka by Abanindranath Tagore (d) Sati by Nandalal Bose 52. ‘Operation Sankalp’ was initiated and implemented by the (a) Indian Air Force (b) Indian Army (c) Indian Navy (@) Ministry of Home Affairs 53. Which one of the following statements is not true with regard to tribal welfare? (a) The Comprehensive Tribal Development Programme aims at land development activities, improvement of roof houses, infrastructure development and $0 on. (b) As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers Act, villages in forests are provided with community rights. () The Special Area Development Programme aims at distribution of forest area produces to the tribals equitably. () The Special Central Assistance to Tribal Subplan provides dairy cows to tribal groups living below the poverty line, JDFG-U-PFT/48A 19 54. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The ‘Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana’ is an urban self-employment programme. (6) Drought-Prone Area Programme and Desert Development Programme were launched in 1970s. (c) The ‘Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana’ was launched after restructuring the ‘Integrated Rural Development Programme’ in 2001. (d) The ‘Swarna Jayanti Gram ‘Swarozgar Yojana’ is a rural self- employment programme, 55. The Battle of Rakshasi-Tangadi is popularly known as the (a) Battle of Talikota (b) Battle of Khanwa (c) Battle of Panipat (@) Battle of Dharmat 56. Ashokan inscriptions in Afghanistan are written in which one of the following scripts? (@) Brahmi (6) Sharada (©) Kharoshthi (a) Greek-Aramaic [P7.0.87. una sterda 4 f1-qd 200 8 300 ach & 89. ana & fire Ga A afer % fae una aE der aa my fai & at A eaters Fa ‘ae start aren A rafts wa oA af a? aia-ar war wel ore te fs (a) 1967 (q) fee-aei (ais) A aa feet x faa otk R-fat deena A yeora (by 1966 a (@ 1965 (&) Bi A as den Ff yea a (a) 1964 feet stk ata & frei A eng A wrrared 3 afd, aff, da (as) otk Seer 60, Fem 3 8 han wh aft 8? (@ Fn fre a1 afer en, aaa (a) Te em, Sr mere ATT BH SIREN, Bs. He 2d $ ae eee eran ant 81 58. qi @ gi % wa gia Ahm oh (c) Sarek era, afta serarréa arr 81 Sig i a (ay Riera rr, en serena TT Bh aha aha 61, arf & at # frafafaa 3 a aaa ae (ra ar afte am) (anya aa) wee? A. aett 1. aa 1, arf, st aii a ae ran ae B. one 2. hein Sree aoe : = 2, well a1 sein was eat A ont D. wef 4. Fem % fa fe are 81 " 3. anf UH wr a at eA KoA = ‘are ar eta eh we wer 1 @aA Bc D Dearie to Ty. 3 AR Rem gz a MT ae FA TR BAC! () As, "BRUCE “Dp, (@ *7a 233 2 % 4 3 (OAc. Br WC 6D: b) *aa 1 3k 3 Shee at ( ra 1 32 (aa B c D Be fae oleae (@ 1,23R3 JDFG-U-PFT/48A 2087. Which one of the following statements about coins struck during 200 BCE to 300 CE in the Indian subcontinent is not correct? (a) The Indo-Greeks _ introduced bilingual and biscript legends on their coins. (b) The Kushanas minted large quantities of gold coins as well as copper coins of low denomination. (c) The Satavahanas issued coins of silver, copper, lead and potin. (d) Absence of Negama coins suggests the declining power and authority of merchant guilds. 58. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-1 List (Vedic name (Modern name) of river) A. Drishadvati 1. Chenab B. Askini 2. Chautang C. Vitasta 3. Ravi D. Purushni 4. Jhelum Code : (Wale Ba eo GD Dee ele eS; ORB se eb 2 shel Sree ir asa FCF a Sey G1 agen @a B Cc. oD Se eA ale ge JDFG-U-PFT/48A, 21 59. When was the Kothari Commission appointed by the Government of India to look into the education sector of India? @ oo) @ @ 1967 1966 1965 1964 60. Which one of the following is not correct? (a) The Gulf Stream is a warm ocean current. (&) The North Atlantic Drift is a warm ocean current. (c) The Labrador Current is a cold ocean current. (d) The California Current is a warm ocean current. 61. Which of the following statements about maps are correct? a Maps that maintain the true shapes of areas are known as conformal maps. Maps are used to show spatial relationships. Maps cannot show route from one place to another. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) (b) () (d) 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1,2 and 3 [P-7.0.62. FH Ge wea)! Fak aH as Fa aa ae ae eT A? (q) sete gee FA, yea A aa outst H ater 81 () 3H Te A, oh A ART C) TAM, 18h seat % tte chic ‘arate ea B1 (d) Fe Ft ae Gera gat, FA at Putier agai & mem a yesh % ard sik aif fear ar aaa 81 63, Tamra SR (att Gea) & Gel A, Frrafattra 4 8 ste ae we 8? (q) wer wf wa w sam em & aa Sard ae eran ween 81 ) war aft aH Fre een 8 aM Sard ae ra-are agar 81 () war Sarg agi % wra-wa (eR a wat! (@) woe Sag ai & wa-we wea am Roh arm: ven Ye Bare 2) 64, fratafan 4a aah, weg FO A Tee wat? (a) FR (6) are () Fra (a) WAR JDFG-U-PFT/48A 22 67. . Ta area A Zo wo amar am fren wer a deere AMT, HTT A ‘referers aftadt 3 & fad daftia 87 (a) sata A ya rentia Fe (o) Pre gen A Ra aT (co) am sn eT (a) Frararat Ah oferta ate wa a daira, ar . ‘sii vere” a aera: oi flea ar Bf ‘ara sien 8? (a) eRe sift (o) a wife (co) Area wife (ey et (rch) fa ‘Ss-an aie aie’ fafatas 4a fee Ra ‘waft 8? (a) Faren % ae anes gat ®) anim ast % ga, faa a gaa arrint wath SITE ye AT (9 ‘itensi, sggfa sft ott agate swat wErt & da ashen A agra at (@) 18-50 a4 % ag ai & ahi & fae fn gen62. Which one of the following statements about ‘great circle’ is not correct? (a) (b) () @ Every great circle divides the Earth into equal halves. Every great circle is a circumference of the Earth. Great circles mark the longest travel routes between locations on the Earth’s surface. Great circle is the largest circle that can be drawn around the Earth through two particular points. 63. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to normal lapse rate? (a) (b) (o) (a) ‘Temperature is highest at ground level and decreases with increasing altitude. Temperature is lowest at ground level and increases with increasing altitude. ‘Temperature remains stable with increasing altitude. Temperature first increases with increasing altitude and gradually starts decreasing. 64. Which one of the following is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River? fa) (b) © @ Ghaggar Mahi Kosi Manas JDFG-U-PFT/48A, 6S. The landmark case of D. C. Wadhwa vs. ‘State of Bihar in the Supreme Court is related to which one of the following powers of the Governor? () ) (co) (a) To repromulgate ordinances To appoint a Chief Minister To grant pardon, etc. To revise the emoluments and allowances of the MLAs 66. ‘Operation Flood’ is also popularly known as (a) (b) ( (a) the Green Revolution the White Revolution the Blue Revolution the Yellow Revolution 67. The ‘Stand-Up India Scheme’ is related to which one of the following issues? (a) eo (c} @ Social security during old age Providing technical knowhow to young, educated or skilled workers from rural areas Promoting entrepreneurship amongst women, SC and ST communities Insurance cover to people in the age group of 18-50 years [P7.0,68, frre #8 ata sede eine Paster wee? (a) Freer, afar ste wea % fara ert Al cafe ar Fides (gece) ae aaa t1 0) Wa wan stk oe wea % fee oH % via fae faq mB) () Haar 4 ae st ws A aft aA fafféz fen ren 81 (ay sree are ae % gem Faia sre BI 69. frefataas seri 1 fran afirg : 1. rifts stern farraer—ateh, fresh sref awrite A, sah wifes gre Pere 3 ye 8 fess tefl a aga fe) 2. ana # firme tet % aga wads ‘tag sich stk sega aA a wade Sert F 8 aaa /aa-a ae 8/2? (a) aa 1 () Fa 2 © 132 et @ Ahismate JDFG-U-PFT/48A. 24 a AR Ae ae aaa & a a Arafat wart FO ata-a/ata-a aah 8/8? 1. weft ahem ae 2014 FA ng oh 2. Fare Stee BS area a Frater ac & frat wal & te wat & ara de-atat ot squeal a dial A vehi wi agra fet ha Ree mg ge a wei aw See BAI (q) *aa1 (b) a2 13h 2a fd ahiseah2 1. Prafafaa serie fran sAifsre : 1, fiers 2000, wu Ror weg Se 81 2, We Uo Ueto tam, UH Sre-veh werR, see 3. The, we afteats (eenaitin) aerE 321 age seri 18 th-a/ate-8 we 8/8? (@ 132 (o) ¥a8 2 () 133 (a) ¥aA368. Which one of the following is not 70. Which of the following statements ‘a feature of Indian federalism? about ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’ programme is/are correct? (@) Courts can interpret the 1, Itwas announced in the year 2014. Constitution and powers of ee veer different levels of the Government. 2. Its aim is to create an environment which promotes learning between (b) Sources of revenue for the the States by sharing best practices Union Government and the State and experiences. Governments are specified. Select the correct answer using the (o) Powers of the Union and the States code given below. are specified in the Constitution. (a) Indian federalism is based on the (oy Meey principle of Separation of Powers. () 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 69. Consider the following statements : if ane ed 1. The early Malwa school of paintings was influenced by Shirazi school While the early Mughal paintings 71. Consider the following statements : initially followed Bihzad school. new ue 1. Mirage 2000 is a twin-engine ‘The major exponents of Bihzad ee school in India were Sayyid Ali and ‘Abdus Samad. 2, HAL Tejas is a delta-winged fighter jet. 3. Rafale is a hypersonic fighter jet. Which of the statements given above oe is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (a 1 and 2 aay (b) 2 only () Both 1 and 2 i. teas (a) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 3 only JDFG-U-PFT/48A, 25 [P-T0.JDFG-U-PFT/48A. 72, Frafefea 48 fra aide seh a Gtr Whe “Hees 9’ a siftrefera (fear) ok ‘Pattee? as aa ) ae (c) citardrs aE (a) Bax 73. aria era afteats rea, ‘Kh-47Ma firwa’, Prafeftea HA fea en Ae (b) ie ( (d) % Wo w 74, miata we, freer aga wre: warant # eargr ded % ded 3 fen ora &, fee meu fea 8? (@) Fe aK (o) aifeea are () fra aR (a) sta ar 75. ore Ot 4, fafa 4 8 fee tn are a 3 ‘care safes after ae’ we ween Pea ra (a) fa (b) FRR (c) =f sas6tee1 (a) ae aa sr 26 76. frafetas 48 seam, ae A aad goa tt onde aa 8? (a) aha ead yfera za (o) en Rea ae, (6) am TERR (@) ead sateen ot Peg ter GR esta’ % at a frafeted ae a a a-a1/an-B BA 8/8? 1. 2 oeredt wa & saad sik ste ah & area 4 arerepl anise dra 2) 2. wd Wid a wa wae we ie aa Te oie eq me ae A eT aR HE AAU (@) ¥ra1 (o) %aa 2 () 13th 2 at @ amhishaaa2 78. aeaiftan % at #, feafafad aa a a Bran wel ae a? (a) ear AL eH GET B1 (b) Weve Beh eared Gach % ra cA meh (co) ea eafkea a1 TH sin ay (ay we safe are eet 78 fy72. Which one of the following aerospace 76. Which one of the following is the oldest companies designed and manufactured Central Paramilitary Force in India? Falcon 9’, a reusable rocket? (a) The Central Reserve Police Force (a) Blue Origin (b) The Border Security Force (®) Boeing (c) Lockheed Martin (c) The Assam Rifles (d) SpaceX (a) The Commando Battalion for Resolute Action 73. ‘The Kh-47M2 Kinzhal’, a nuclear- capable hypersonic missile, belongs to 717. Which of the following statements about which one of the following countries? ‘Agency Houses’ is/are correct? (a) China 1, They were important commercial formations in the late eighteenth eye erence and nineteenth century India. Caria 2, ‘The operation of managing agencies (a USA remained confined to Calcutta. Select the correct answer using the 74, Mariupol city, frequently mentioned in cade grealbeloy news in the context of Russia-Ukraine conflict, is situated on the coast of 1 onk (a) Aral Sea ey, (b) Baltic Sea Oa () Caspian Sea (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Sea of Azov (a) Neither 1 nor 2 75. Recently, with which one of the following countries did India sign the ‘Comprehensive Economic Partnership 78. Which one of the following statements about Tolkappiyam is not correct? Agreement’ ? (a) It is a treatise on grammar. (a) Egypt (b) It was composed between first to (0) ‘Isreet fourth century CE. () South Africa () It was part of the Sangam corpus. (@) United Arab Emirates (d) It was composed by Panini. JDFG-U-PFT/48A. 27 [P.-T0.79. ana % Saf asa’ & ait 4, frafafiad seri i 2 aan wel ae a? (a) fafen wer 3 sen A of foe a Aa oer a mie e % fee a wares A wea & fey ia 1 () ara 4 auf 4 nia a a a wad we ar fia, Beh ae A Sra ai, afeee Reh Tei mre ‘oer7T TI (co) FAA Tea aaa Fee A cael aA Te wr Pfs fem (ey sama aa sia: saa-aine TE ana A ania gon 80. frafefaa grat 4 8 aaah wake a oh mg fi? (a) wate (b) Brera (0) weet (a) erie 81, ‘2 fan site cia’ fam fam 87 (a) weiter rail 8 (b) a afer (o) tien # ater te (a) ret a aia Fe 82. arTarK afte Fefefia 4 a fee oo § fee ® (@) Fa (b) sande (o) TEI (a) aiee JDFG-U-PFT/48A 84. 86. wets af frafafad 4 a fia ata a fae sayft fae (aed azete 2) war im 2? (@ 10% (b) 13 wad ( om (a) 27at ween sim wat a feiferfiad 3 8 fa ta ‘ere aren fea ST wer B? (a) 61 es (co) Arete (a) FR Freaferfiaa 4 8 at4-a1, afar (eer) % gan a am 8? (a) aul vereat (b) ra satin venga (o) Rrrenferes werfeat (ay Fea vert Frafefad 48 fea Tet i 50% & afte aa wn Bf % sieria enire 87 (a) fir () 3a (co) Fata (a) siren79. Which one of the following statements about Princely States’ in India is not correct? (a) The British Government declared that States were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent. (b) The decision to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent was left not to the people of Princely States but to the Princely Rulers. () The Ruler of Travancore first decided to remain independent. (4) The State of Travancore finally joined India through a plebiscite. 80. Which one of the following books was authored by Harshavardhana? (@) Harshacharita (b) Kadambari (6) Ratnavali (a) Gitagovinda 81. The King of Dance’ is a description of (a) Trimurti at Elephanta Caves () Kaliyamardan of Krishna () Bodhisattva Maitreya at Gandhara (a) Bronze Nataraja of the Cholas 82. Anasagar Lake is located in which one of the following States? (a) Gujarat (o) Uttarakhand (c) Rajasthan (@) Karnataka SDFG-U-PFT/48A. 83. The World Wetland Day is celebrated on which one of the following dates every year? (@) 10th June () 13th February () 9th March (@) 2nd February 84. Ganga water is being shared at Farakka with which one of the following countries? (a) Nepal (b) Bhutan (c) Bangladesh (@) Myanmar 85. Which one of the following is a part of Deccan Plateau? (a) Aravalli Hills (6) Karbi Anglong Hills (c) Shivalik Hills (@) Vindhyan Hills 86. In which one of the following States, more than 50% area is under Jhum cultivation? (2) Manipur (6) Assam (c) Sikkim (@) Mizoram [P-1.0.87. frafefad 4 a fra da amas A ge aT 90. ardafia sam afift % at H, Frafefian seri ‘Ree (feday’ 27 Ha aan /atea we RA? (a) aera 1, af a cts en A gam Hoa a () wea orf aa 81 2. aft & amt (aca) A afr Gee ie ost seag ao a #1 (@ wy ath wait a Req ae aw a a Se GPCI 88, sea H PRR a/% ita Preafeiaa Ha ataan/ aa te oat 1. rear afar 2. fatal (rH) aa 3. wea ih Oe 4. Pras fate ihe 3 fee ae ge a wan ae we a TI (a) Fara @ amiskaga (b) FG 1, 234 () FI 233 (@ 12,334 91. Prraferfian # & ata au wel et 2? 89, fafa 9 8 ae-a/aa, hia (a) sae, % fea we A % faee frat ‘afearera a1/% ard 8/87 Sea GT ST Ba Bh 1, Siae-siaerd rae fifa 2. WA feat fies ¥ ee sem Ti ) Fe We % Fem eT HERA Hel a RT wT BI AA fame ae ei a aA oH GAC (a) ¥aa 1 (o) Te ftaieag % few fra wena ae are a aaT 8) () Fa 2 Ce aes (ay et 5 we Pee Prat sera a (a ati sate went JDFG-U-PFT/48A 3087. ‘Dhivehi’ is a principal language of which one of the following Union Territories? (a) () Ladakh (c) Lakshadweep @ Puducherry Jammu and Kashmir 88. Which of the following is/are source/ sources of Law in India? 1. Constitution of India 2. Statutes 3. Customary Law 4. Case Law Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (®) 1,2 and 4 only () 2 and 3 only (@ 1,2, 3 and 4 89. Which among the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? 1, To ensure interministerial coordi- nation 2, Management of major crisis situations in the country Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) () Both 1 and 2 (a) Neither 1 nor 2 2 only JDFG-U-PFT/48A. 31 90. Which of the following statements about the Committee on Public Undertakings is/are correct? 1. There are more members from the Rajya Sabha than the Lok Sabha in the Committee. 2. The Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (6) 2 only () Both 1 and 2 (a) Neither 1 nor 2 91. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) A censure motion can be moved against a single Minister of the Council of Ministers. (6) A motion of no-confidence cannot be moved against the Prime Minister alone. () A censure motion cannot be moved against the entire Council of Ministers. @ ‘A censure motion can be moved against a group of Ministers. [P-1.0.92. ‘sea adie oot uel oofady fier (Ro UH SIRe Yo Alo)’ % sienfa frafefiad 7 A aaa, wes aren Ba Ae RP (a) ei saree (6) aig aH FA % fore ai-wea Fra fe) Pretega ret vitae sit er Far (a) wha ere stk Tor 93, ana, ‘saftey (aes) dari’ A wal freferfiaa 4 8 feat del HA arch 27 (a) Fer sates e fee snfeerat (Bz) (o) aot Set “Stam at (wtteateez)’ Sand (sitter) () fam eet A agaes ata yan SAT (a) "oq faa Sai? & oem a Sata 94, ari-of waren 4 sfgftra wee “APR A’ ‘Frafefaa 4 & fae daiftra 87 (@) end srarrin 4 fre aff a ea 0) YALA sae vena | a TR & ard sik affar aft at ge @ fear ate ta () Fa we Amita ao veh an arate ret (fre area) 4 Rar rn sift (arti) fares (@) we Fame game, A yeah & aya wy a Ta JDFG-U-PFT/48A. 32 9s. amie dae ommania sim ) Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Myanmar () Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, India, Sri Lanka and Maldives (d) Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Indonesia [P.T0.SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JDFG-U-PFT/48A, 44SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SDFG-U-PFT/48A, 45 [P.T.0.SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SDFG-U-PFT/48A, 46SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK kh SDFG-U-PFT/48A, 47 ‘SB22—264768DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : JDFG-U-PFT Test Booklet Series Serial No. TEST BOOKLET GENERAL ABILITY AND INTELLIGENCE 1244965 Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 250 . You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in INSTRUCTIONS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. This Test Booklet contains 125 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item, You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. . All items carry equal marks. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (i) If candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (i a question i left blank, i.e, no answer is given by the candidate, there will be mo penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO