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Answers & Solutions JEE (Main) - 2022 (Online) Phase-2: Memory Based
Answers & Solutions JEE (Main) - 2022 (Online) Phase-2: Memory Based
Morning
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Memory Based
Answers & Solutions
Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.
(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off
to the nearest integer.
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JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-2 (25-07-2022)-Morning
PHYSICS
SECTION - A mv 2mKE
Sol. r = =
qB qB
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices rA mA qB
=
rB mB qA
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
qA mA rB
Choose the correct answer: =
qB mB rA
1. The ratio of F1 : F2 = 1 : x. Then find the value of x
when net force is zero. 2 5 10
= =
3 3 9
3. A square loop of side length l is placed at centre of
another square loop of side length L (L >> l). Mutual
inductance of loops is equal to
(1) 3 (2) 2
2 20 l 2 0 l 2
(3) 1 (4) 4 (1) (2)
L L
Answer (1)
1 0 l 2 20 l 2
Sol. As the net force is zero (3) (4)
2 2 L L
Fx = 0 and Fy = 0
1 Answer (1)
2− = F1 Sol. If I current flows inside the bigger conducting loop
2
then magnetic field at the centre of bigger loop is
1
0I
F1 =
2 4
L ( 2)
4
3 2
and F2 =
2 0 l 2 2
=
F1 : F2 = 1 : 3 L
x=3 magnetic flux through smaller loop
2. Two positive charged particles A and B having
0 l 2 2 2
same kinetic energy move inside a transverse = l
uniform magnetic field. The ratio of radius of path of L
3 2 20 l 2
charge A to that of charge B is , while mass of mutual inductance =
5 L
4
particle A is times that of particle B. The ratio of 4. A body of mass 0.5 kg has velocity 3x2 + 5. What is
9 the work done in moving it from x = 0 m to x = 2 m?
charge on particle A to that of B is
(1) 60 J (2) 64 J
9 10
(1) (2) (3) 66 J (4) 72 J
10 9
Answer (3)
2 5
(3) (4) Sol. v = 3x2 + 5
5 3
vi = 5 m/s vf = (3 (2)2 + 5)
Answer (2)
= 17 m/s
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JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-2 (25-07-2022)-Morning
( )
1 6. Work function of a photosensitive material is 4.0 eV.
K.E. = m v f2 − v i2
2 The longest wavelength of light that can cause
photoemission from the substance is
1 1
= ( 289 − 25 ) (1) 310 nm (2) 470 nm
2 2
(3) 3100 nm (4) 955 nm
1
= ( 264 ) Answer (1)
4
= 66 J Sol. = 4 eV
At largest wavelength energy of photon capable to
Work done = 66 J
do photoelectric emission is equal to 4 eV.
5. For the circuit shown below potential difference
across point A and B is 1240
photon = nm
E (eV)
1240
= = 310 nm
4
7. For a given velocity, stopping distance is 27 m. If
1
velocity is reduced to rd of initial velocity, the
3
stopping distance (in m) will be
(1) 6 (2) 9
(1) 4 V (2) 3 V (3) 3 (4) 18
(3) 2 V (4) 1 V Answer (3)
Answer (1) Sol. In both cases, final velocity is zero.
02 – u2 = – 2a(27) …(i)
Sol. 2
u
And 02 − = −2a(S) …(ii)
3
From (i) and (ii)
2a(27) = 9(2aS)
Or S = 3
8. The rms value of current flowing through capacitor
is 6 A and voltage across it is 230 V. If angular
As the circuit is incomplete so no current will be frequency is 60 rad/s, then capacitance of capacitor
flowing from A point to B point. The combination of
three cells can be reduced down to an equivalent is
cell between A and B as shown below. (1) 435 F (2) 576 F
(3) 176 F (4) 783 F
Answer (1)
Sol. Irms = 6 A
Vrms = 230 V
= 60 rad/s
1 V 230
= rms =
C Irms 6
6 4 2
+ + 6
as E AB = 1 1 1 =4V C=
3 60 230
100
Now as the circuit from A to B is open so potential C= 10−4
difference between A and B is equal to emf of the 23
equivalent battery in between i.e., 4 V = 43.5 × 10–5 F
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JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-2 (25-07-2022)-Morning
9. A solid cylinder and solid sphere are rolled down a 11. In a YDSE setup, red light of wavelength 700 nm is
inclined plane from same height. If masses are used to keep slit separation as 4 mm. If screen is
same then velocity of cylinder to sphere is placed 2 m away then find the width of fringe.
(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.75 mm
4 3
(1) (2) (3) 1 mm (4) 0.35 mm
5 5
Answer (4)
14 5
(3) (4)
15 7 D
Sol. =
Answer (3) d
g sin 700 10−9 2
Sol. a = =
K2
1+ 2 4 10−3
R
14
g sin 2g sin = 10−4
For solid cylinder ac = = 4
1 3
1+ = 0.35 × 10–3 m
2
or 0.35 mm
g sin 5g sin
For solid sphere as = = 12. A 2 F capacitor is being charged from 0 to a
2 7
1+ maximum of 5C. Voltage across the capacitor
5 varies as
Now as distance moved by both the bodies is same
on incline.
2
vc ac 3 = 14 (1)
= =
vs as 5 15
7
10. Three identical particle each of masses 100 g are
placed at vertices of an equilateral triangle of side
length 13 cm. Find the force on one of the mass
(2)
100 3 150 3
(1) G (2) G
169 169
110 2 170 2 (3)
(3) (4) G
189 229
Answer (1)
Sol. If F is the force applied by one particle on another
then net force experienced by one particle = 3F
G m1m2
Fnet = 3
r2
(4)
G 10−2
= 3
169 10−4
100 3
= G
169 Answer (1)
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JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-2 (25-07-2022)-Morning
Sol. As the charge stored on capacitor increases the 15. Which of the following statement is correct about
potential difference across capacitor increases the rainbow?
Qmax 5 (1) Primary rainbow has red light of the bottom
Vmax = = V = 2.5 106 V
C 2 10−6 (2) Primary rainbow has violet light at the top
(3) Secondary rainbow has red light at the bottom
Now the voltage across capacitor follows the
relation. (4) Secondary rainbow has violet light at the top
( )
Answer (3)
V = Vmax 1 − e −t / RC
Sol. Primary rainbow is caused by single internal
Graph given in option 1 satisfies the relation. reflection by water droplets causing red light to be visible
at top while violet light visible at bottom of the primary
13. If wavelength of incident wavelength is changed
rainbow.
from 800 nm to 500 nm the velocity of electron
Whereas secondary rainbow is caused by two internal
doubles. The work function of metal is
refractions causing the violet light to be visible at bottom
(1) 1.24 eV of the secondary rainbow.
(2) 1.6 eV 16. In LC oscillation, to increase resonant frequency
(3) 1.00 eV (1) L Increases (2) L Decreases
(4) 2.1 eV C Remains same C Remains same
Answer (1) (3) C Increases (4) C Increases
Sol. If velocity of maximum energy electron doubles L Increases L Remains same
then its kinetic energy becomes four times Answer (2)
K.Emax = 4 K.Emax Sol. =
1
LC
1240
= + K.Emax …(1) 1
800 fres =
2 LC
1240
= + 4 K.Emax …(2) to increase the resonance frequency either L or C
500
or both should be decreased.
1240 1240 17. What is the truth table for following
3 = −
500
eV
200
= (6.2 – 2.48) eV
= 3.72 eV
1.24 eV
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JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-2 (25-07-2022)-Morning
Sol. The shown circuit in the question resemble to that 21. For the system shown in figure, ratio of time period
of an AND gate configuration so truth table will be of oscillation T1/T2 is (Assume no relative slipping
as given below between blocks)
A B Y
0 0 0
(1)
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
(2)
B2 1 −1 −2
m
= = [M L T ] T2 = 2
0
2 2K
19. 22.
20.
23.
SECTION - B
24.
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
25.
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a 26.
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
27.
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g. 28.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
29.
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer. 30.
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JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-2 (25-07-2022)-Morning
CHEMISTRY
(1) (2)
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JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-2 (25-07-2022)-Morning
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(2) [Co(NH3)5H2O]3+
(3) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+
(4) [Co(CN)6]3–
Answer (4)
Sol. Among the given complexes, the most stable
complex will absorb the shortest wavelength.
Higher oxidation state of the metal ion and strong
field ligand will form the most stable complex.
[Co(CN)6]3– is the most stable complex and hence
will absorb shortest wavelength.
7. IUPAC name of [Rn] 5f14 6d1 7s2 is
11. S1 → Acrolein can be obtained from glycerol by
(1) Un nil unium (2) Un nil bium
treatment with KHSO4.
(3) Un nil trium (4) Un nil septium
S2 → Acrolein has a fruity smell and presence of
Answer (3) glycerol can be identified with acrolein.
(1) S1 and S2 both are correct
Sol. Atomic number of the element is 103 and its IUPAC
name is Un nil trium (2) S1 and S2 both are incorrect
8. The pKa value of weak acid HA is 4.8 and pKb value (3) S1 is correct S2 is incorrect
of weak base BOH is 4.78. The pH of (4) S1 is incorrect S2 is correct
corresponding salt BA will be
Answer (3)
(1) 8.58 (2) 7.01
Sol. Glycerol reacts in presence of KHSO4 to form
(3) 4.79 (4) 9.22
acrolein
Answer (2)
Sol. BA is a salt of weak acid and weak base. pH of an
aqueous solution of BA is given by
1 1
pH = 7 + pK a – pK b
2 2
1 1
= 7+ ( 4.8 ) – ( 4.78 ) Acrolein has a pungent odour.
2 2 12. In the extraction of copper which of the following
= 7 + 2.4 – 2.39 = 7.01 compound is used in slag formation?
9. SO2Cl2 + 2H2O ⎯⎯
→ 2HCl + H2SO4 (A) Al2O3 (B) NiO
(C) CaO (D) ZnO
If 16 moles of NaOH are required to neutralise acid
formed. How many moles of SO2Cl2 are required (E) SiO2
(1) 16 (2) 8 (1) Only A, C & E (2) Only A, D, E
(3) 4 (4) 2 (3) Only E (4) Only A and D
19. Which of the following reaction represents the Only one sp3 hybridised C-atom is present in given
correct product? compound.
23. Bromine is reacted with excess of F2. What is
oxidation state of central atom in compound
(1) formed.
Answer (05.00)
Sol. When Bromine is heated with excess of fluorine
(2) BrF5 is formed.
Oxidation state of central atom is +5 in BrF5
Br2 + 5F2 ⎯⎯→ 2BrF5
(3) 24. How many of the following ions will release H2 gas
on reacting with mineral acid?
Ti2+, V2+, Cr2+, Co3+, Mn2+, Zn2+
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JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-2 (25-07-2022)-Morning
MATHEMATICS
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 16 16
1 2
(1) (2)
4 3
Choose the correct answer :
1. Let PQ be a tower and R cuts the tower such that 16 16
1 1
(3) (4)
RQ = 15 cm. let S be any point on ground such that 2 3
angle of elevation from R is 60° and PR makes an
Answer (1)
angle 15° on S. then height of tower is
Sol. Let number of trials be n and probability of success
(1) 10 ( 3 +1) be p. Let q = 1 – p
x2 – 24x + 128 = 0
(3) 5 3 2 + 3( )
So, mean = np = 16
(4) 5 3 2 − 3( ) and variance = npq = 8
Answer (3) 1
Clearly p = q =
2
Sol. Refer to diagram
and n = 32
0 32
1 1
Probability of no success = 32C0
2 2
16
1
=
4
15
sin60 = RS = 10 3
RS
(
= 5 3 2+ 3 ) Total 8 solutions.
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JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-2 (25-07-2022)-Morning
4. Let , , and be the roots of x4 + x3 + x2 + x + 1 6. Which of the following is tautology?
= 0 then value of 2021 + 2021 + 2021 + 2021 is (1) (~ p q ) q (2) q ( ~ p q )
(1) 2021 (2) 1
(3) –2021 (4) –1 (3) (~ p q ) p (4) p ( ~ p q )
Answer (4) Answer (2)
Sol. x4 + x3 + x2 + x + 1 = 0
Sol. (1) ( ~ p q ) q ~ ( ~ p q ) q ( p ~ q ) q
5
x –1 pq
=0
x –1
(2) q ( ~ p q ) ~q ( ~ p q ) ( ~ q q ) ~ p
x5 = 1
So , , , are the 5th roots of unity except 1. which is a tautology
(3) ( ~ p q ) p ( p ~ q ) p p ( p ~ q )
n n n0 if 5 | n
n n
Clearly + + + + 1 =
5 if 5 | n
(4) p ( ~ p q ) ~p ( ~ p q ) ~ p q
So 2021 + 2021 + 2021 + 2021 = –1 7. If a fair die is thrown two times and , are numbers
on it, then probability of x2 + x + > 0
Given curve C1 x 2 + ( y − 1) = 1 , then locus of
2
5.
centre of circle which touches C1 and x-axis is 1 19
(1) (2)
C2(x, y) ; y > 0 then area bounded by C2 and line y 2 36
= 4 is
4 17
(3) (4)
64 32 9 36
(1) (2)
3 3
Answer (4)
16 50
(3) (4) Sol. Total cases = 36
3 3
Answer (2) 2 < 4
Sol. Let equation of circle be
Value of 1 2 3 4 5 6
(x – )2 + (y – )2 = 2
No. of values of 1 2 3 3 4 4
as if touches given circle x2 + (y – 1)2 = 1 we have
dc1 c2 = r1 + r2 Favourable ways = 17
17
2 + ( − 1) = | + 1|
2
Required probability =
36
2 = 4
8. Let f : {1, 2, 3, 4} ⎯→ {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, then no. of
C2(x, y) = x2 = 4y
functions for which f(1) + f(2) = f(3)
Required area
(1) 108 (2) 90
(3) 15 (4) 18
Answer (2)
Sol. Possible values of f(3) are 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
for each k, if f(3) = k then there will be (k – 1)
set of values for f(1) and f(2).
4
4
x2 x3 So no. of possible combinations of f(1), f(2) and f(3)
A = 2 4 − dx = 2 4 x −
4 12 are 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 15
0 0
Also there are six possibilities for f(4).
32 32
= 2 16 − =
3 3 Here total number of functions = 15 × 6 = 90
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JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-2 (25-07-2022)-Morning
i 6 10
Argument of z = 1 + e
f ( x )cos x dx
5
9. is equal to So,
2 3 –10
(1) (2)
5 5
1
7 2 = 0 + (( x + 8) + ( x + 6) + ... + ( x − 10)) cos x dx
(3) (4) −
5 5 0
Answer (4)
1 1
i 6
= 10 ( x − 1)cos x dx = 10 ( x − 1)sin x + cos x
Sol. z = 1 + e 2 2
0
0
6 6
= 1 + cos + i sin 20
5 5 = −
3 3 3 2
= 2cos + i 2sin cos
2
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JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-2 (25-07-2022)-Morning
12.
22. If lim x 2 − x − 1 + x + = 0, then |8( + )| is
x →
13.
Answer (4)
14.
Sol. lim x 2 − x − 1 + ( x + ) = 0
15. x →
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the Answer (27560)
MANI___ →6 1 1 1 1
, , , are in A.P., so let
p q r s
MANKD__ →2
MANKID_ →1 1 1 1
= − 3, = − , = + and
MANKIND →1 p q r
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JEE (Main)-2022 : Phase-2 (25-07-2022)-Morning
Using sum of roots in both equations, we get 25. The remainder of (2024)2024 when divided by 7
2 – 2 = 4 and 2 + 2 = –2 Answer (1)
Sol. 2024 1 (mod 7)
1 3
= and = −
2 2 (2024)2024 1 (mod 7)
When (2024)2024 is divided by 7, remainder is 1.
Using product of roots in both equations we get
26.
1 1 1 1
= −5 = −10 and = −8 = −48 27.
2a a 6b b
28.
1 1 29.
So, − = 38
a b 30.
❑ ❑ ❑
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