Practice Tests

PRACTICE TESTS
TEST 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. wither B. thesis C. thoughtful D. breath
Question 2. A. traffic B. configuration C. cinema D. camouflage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. report B. conclude C. deter D. sanction
Question 4. A. advertise B. definite C. composite D. communicate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Tim and his friends have founded___________voluntary organisation which helps disabled
people with their transport needs.
A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 6. Dana finally admitted___________by what her father had said the day before.
A. hurt B. hurting C. being hurt D. hurted
Question 7. The man was very brave. He___________, but he chose to stay and fight.
A. must have escaped B. escaped C. had escaped D. could have escaped
Question 8. Air pollution is getting___________serious in big cities such as Hanoi and Beijing.
A. the more and the more B. more and more
C. most and most D. the most and the most
Question 9. The company has made an announcement that any application_______in after 30th April
shall not be considered.
A. sends B. is sent C. being sent D. sent
Question 10. Only after the teacher had explained the procedure clearly___________to go ahead with the
experiment.
A. the students were allowed B. were the students allowed
C. the students allowed D. did the students allow
Question 11. Her parents are really strict. They rarely let her stay out late, ___________ ?
A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 12. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by___________ rocking chair.
A. an old wooden European beautiful B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European D. a wooden old beautiful European
Question 13. Many astronomers never get back to the Earth because of___________accidents.
A. tragedy B. tragic C. tragically D. tragedies
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Question 14. After years of training hard, the athlete finally could___________ her ambition of winning
an Olympic gold medal.
A. reject B. exacerbate C. recognise D. realise
Question 15. The commission estimates that at least seven companies took___________ of the program.
A. advantage B. use C. benefit D. dominance
Question 16. The cinema is no longer as popular as it was in the 1930 s and 1940’s, but it is still an
important___________of entertainment.
A. status B. source C. origin D. prospect
Question 17. After years of derision from the world, the Hindi film industry is achieving its
___________ in the Sun.
A. position B. image C. shade D. place
Question 18. While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I___________this photograph of
my parents’ wedding.
A. took after B. made up C. turned down D. came across
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Of more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active.
A. only B. classify C. volcanoes D. active
Question 20. In spite of the Indian lacked animals, they had the ability to cultivate plants suitable for
daily use.
A. suitable B. lacked animals C. in spite of D. had the ability
Question 21. A professor of economy and history at our university has developed a new theory of the
relationship between historical events and financial crises.
A. financial crises B. relationship C. historical D. economy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22. John no longer drinks a lot.
A. John rarely drank a lot. B. John used to drink a lot.
C. John didn’t use to drink a lot. D. John now drinks a lot.
Question 23. “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,” the doctor told me.
A. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.
B. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
C. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
D. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.
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Question 24. People think that increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases will
inevitably lead to global warming.
A. Global warming is thought to result in increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse
gases.
B. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases is thought to be responsible for
global warming.
C. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases is attributed to global warming.
D. Global warming is blamed for increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. He was very tired. He agreed to help me with my homework.
A. As tired as was he, he agreed to help me with my homework.
B. Despite being very tired, but he agreed to help me with my homework
C. Tired though he was, but he agreed to help me with my homework.
D. Tired as he was, he agreed to help me with my homework.
Question 26. Mary quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday. She didn’t want to answer his phone
call this morning.
A. Mary’s refusal to answer the phone leads to her argument with her boyfriend yesterday.
B. Much as Mary quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday, she answered his phone call this morning.
C. Having quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday, Mary refused to answer his phone call this morning.
D. Before Mary quarrelled with her boyfriend yesterday, she answered his phone call.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Sam and David are talking about what to do after work.
- “Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?” - “___________”
A. Not at all. Go ahead. B. I’m sorry. I don’t know that.
C. That would be nice. D. Not so bad. And you?
Question 28. Laura: “What a lovely house you have!”
A. Of course not, it’s not costly. B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. I think so. D. No problem.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. When the Titanic crashed into the iceberg, the crew quickly sent out distress signals to alert
nearby ships of the disaster and request their help.
A. amusing B. strange C. bold D. help
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Question 30. I’m all in favour of ambition but I think when he says he’ll be a millionaire by the time he’s
25, he’s simply crying for the moon.
A. longing for what is beyond the reach B. asking for what is attainable
C. doing something with vigor or intensity D. crying a lot and for a long time
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. I prefer secure jobs because I don’t like keeping on moving and changing all the time.
A. challenging B. demanding C. stable D. safe
Question 32. When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on air.
A. extremely happy B. extremely light
C. feeling extremely unhappy D. feeling extremely airy
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Most adults struggle to recall events from their first few years of life and now scientists have identified
exactly when these childhood memories are lost forever. A new study into childhood amnesia has found
that it tends to take (33) ___________ around the age of seven.
The rapid decline of memories persisting while children are five and six is owing to the change in the way
memories are formed.
Before the age of seven, children tend to have an (34) ___________form of recall with no sense of time
and place in their memories. In older children, however, the early recollected events tend to be more adult
like in their content and the way they are formed. Faster rate of forgetting in children and higher turnover
of memories means early memories are less likely to survive. (35) ___________ , memories of younger
children tend to lack autobiographical narrative leading to a process known as “retrieval induced
forgetting” (36) ___________the action of remembering causes other information to be forgotten.
Consequently, if childhood memories can survive into the ninth or tenth year of life, they may stay a
chance of (37) ___________it into adulthood.
Question 33. A. affect B. effective C. effect D. effectively
Question 34. A. unbalanced B. immature C. insufficient D. irrational
Question 35. A. Besides B. However C. Therefore D. Otherwise
Question 36. A. whom B. which C. when D. where
Question 37. A. turning B. making C. transferring D. getting
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Being repeatedly late may just be accidental - or could it show a deeply rooted psychological desire to
express your own superiority? When I worked in an office, meetings would often start late, usually
because of a certain individual. Then they would overrun and the whole day lost its shape. But the
individual was high-ranking and self-important: nobody challenged. So, what are the ethics of lateness?
There’s a psychotherapist called Irvin Yalom who argues that all behaviour reflects psychology. Just as
people who like to be on time are motivated by certain deep-seated beliefs, so those who make others wait
are acting out an inner agenda, often based on an acute sense of power. There’s famous footage in which
Silvio Berlusconi kept Angela Merkel waiting while he made a call on his mobile. It speaks volumes.
But that is when all lateness is in one’s control, what about when your train is cancelled or your flight is
delayed or you had to wait longer for the plumber to arrive? In such cases, there’s not a lot of psychology
involved. Or is there? Some people will genuinely worry about the impact it will have on those left
waiting, while others might secretly enjoy the power of their absence.
The essential fact is that lateness means breaking a convention - you can only be late in respect of a
time agreed with other people. Regardless of psychology, it has a social value. And when we treat other
people’s time as less valuable than our own, we treat them as inferior.
Question 38. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Lateness indicates superiority of important individuals.
B. Social values of individuals are fostered through lateness.
C. Being late can reveal a lot about people’s psychology.
D. People with high sense of power have a tendency to be late.
Question 39. What is the “speaks volumes” in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to?
A. tells a lot B. makes sounds C. holds power D. talks loudly
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. The way our minds work is responsible for the way we behave.
B. Some people control a situation for their benefit through lateness.
C. Lateness can have an impact on other people who are made to wait.
D. Most people react the same when lateness is out of their control.
Question 41. It can be inferred from the reading passage that___________.
A. Berlusconi made Merkel wait as he wanted to show his importance.
B. it is fashionable to be late to meetings because nobody challenges.
C. the writer’s daily schedule was unaffected by his colleague’s lateness.
D. nothing can be said about one’s psychology if lateness is out of control.
Question 42. What does the word “it” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. fact B. lateness C. convention D. psychology
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correct answer to each of the questions front 43 to 50.
Homeopathy, the alternative therapy created in 1796 by Samuel Hahnemann, and now widely used all
over the world, is based on the belief that the body can be stimulated to heal itself. A central principle of
the “treatment” is that “like cures like”, meaning a substance that causes certain symptoms can also help
to remove those symptoms. Medicines used in homeopathy are created by heavily diluting in water the
substance in question and subsequently shaking the liquid vigorously. They can then be made into tablets
and pills. Practitioners believe that the more a substance is diluted in this way, the greater its power to
treat symptoms.
However, in a new study, a working committee of medical experts at Australia’s National Health and
Medical Research Council (NHMRC) has claimed that homeopathic medicines are only as effective as
placebos at treating illness. Their research, involving the analysis of numerous reports from homeopathy
interest groups and the public, concluded that there is no reliable evidence that homeopathy works.
Moreover, researchers uncovered no fewer than 68 ailments that homeopathic remedies had failed to
treat, including asthma, sleep disturbances, cold and flu, and arthritis.
As a result of the findings, the NHMRC is urging health workers to inform their patients to be wary of
anecdotal evidence that appears to support the effectiveness of homeopathic medicine. “It isn’t possible to
tell whether a health treatment is effective or not simply by considering the experience of one individual
or the beliefs of a health practitioner” says the report. Experts believe that most illnesses said to have been
cured by homeopathy would be cured by the body on its own without taking the medicine. Apparently,
many illnesses are short-lived by their very nature which often leads to people believing that it is the
homeopathy that cures them.
A more serious matter is highlighted by Professor John Dwyer of the University of New South Wales.
As an immunologist, he is concerned about homeopathic vaccinations on offer for diseases such as HIV,
tuberculosis, and malaria, none of which he considers effective. According to Professor John Dwyer, the
concept that homeopathic vaccinations are just as good as traditional vaccinations is delusion, and those
who believe it are failing to protect themselves and their children.
Question 43. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. “Homeopathy kills” say scientists B. “Avoid homeopathy” say scientists
C. Homeopathy worth trying once D. Unknown effects of homeopathy
Question 44. According to the reading passage, homeopathic medicines are___________ .
A. prepared similarly for different diseases
B. made up of a variety of ingredients
C. suitable for a wide range of symptoms
D. available only in the liquid form
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Question 45. What does the word “their” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. committee B. NHMRC C. medicines D. placebos
Question 46. The Australian study reveals that homeopathy is___________.
A. increasingly popular with the public B. helpful in the case of respiratory infections
C. ineffective in treating many diseases D. of great interest to a certain group of people
Question 47. What is the word “wary” in paragraph 3 closest in meaning to?
A. apprehensive B. reluctant C. cautious D. observant
Question 48. People tend to believe in homeopathy because of___________.
A. advertisements displayed in health center
B. positive feedback from a small number of people
C. reliable proof from recent medical reports
D. results of research into some alternatives therapies
Question 49. What is the word “delusion” in paragraph 4 closest in meaning to?
A. legend B. falsehood C. imagination D. hallucination
Question 50. In Professor John Dwyer’s view, homeopathic vaccinations__________.
A. may bring about bad consequences B. do harm to people’s health
C. might be ridiculously expensive D. are better than nothing at all
END OF TEST – BEST OF LUCK!
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TEST 2
Question 1. A. general B. generous C. generation D. guillotine
Question 2. A. changes B. increases C. suffocates D. compromises
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. deploy B. maintain C. border D. attain
Question 4. A. referee B. kangaroo C. cigarette D. technique
Question 5. After so___________consideration, we have finally arrived at a decision.
A. a lot of B. lots of C. many D. much
Question 6. The author did not intend anybody___________his paintings until they were finished.
A. seeing B. to seeing C. to see D. to be seen
Question 7. Every day, Peters mother drives him to school. However, today, he ___________to school
by his father.
A. was taken B. is being taken C. is taking D. took
Question 8. Linda, along with hundreds of others, ___________unemployed when the factory closes
next month.
A. becomes B. become C. is becoming D. are becoming
Question 9. The customs officers stopped the suspected man and ordered him to show___________.
A. what was he carrying in his bag. B. what he was carrying in his bag
C. what he carries in his bag D. what does he carry in his bag
Question 10. It was an English student, not a French one, ___________was the captain of our school
team.
A. which B. what C. whom D. who
Question 11. The man standing next to our father is a persuasive speaker with a natural
talent___________leadership.
A. for B. at C. in D. of
Question 12. The report form is available on the two___________discs in my drawer.
A. small green round B. round small green
C. green small round D. small round green
Question 13. The drug under examination has shown some___________results when given to
volunteers in some countries.
A. impressed B. impresses C. impressive D. impression
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Question 14. During rush hours, the traffic is usually_______and cars are closing up behind each other.
A. light B. heavy C. substantial D. enormous
Question 15. After suffering severe wounds in the attack, the secret agent decided to
his resignation to the commander.
A. give B. apply C. propose D. offer
Question 16. Her father was really a___________of strength to her when her marriage broke up.
A. source B. sculpture C. figure D. tower
Question 17. When travelling in Europe, we tried to____at least an hour in a medieval town to explore it.
A. stop off B. stop out C. stop up D. stop in
Question 18. Last week, an earthquake which______6.1 on the Richter scale struck southern California.
A. read B. measured C. calculated D. estimated
Question 19. Just pulling out of the station the train was that we were supposed to catch.
A. the B. the train was C. were supposed D. pulling out
Question 20. Alice Thornton’s autobiography provides a fascinate account of family life in seventeenth-
century England.
A. a fascinate account B. life C. seventeenth-century D. autobiography
Question 21. The meeting would have finished earlier if there had not been for their interruptions.
A. interruptions B. would have finished
C. had not been for D. earlier
Question 22. ‘T have never been to Russia. I think I shall go there next year.” said Bill.
A. Bill said that he had never been to Russia and he thought he would go there the next year.
B. Bill said that he would have never been to Russia and he thinks he would go there the next year.
C. Bill said that he had never been to Russia and he thinks he will go there the next year.
D. Bill said that he has never been to Russia and he thinks he would go there the next year.
Question 23. People believed that Jane retired because of her poor health.
A. Jane is believed to have retired because of her poor health.
B. Jane was believed to retire because of her poor health.
C. It is believed that Jane retired because of her poor health.
D. Jane retired because of her poor health was believed.
Question 24. Charles would have won the essay contest if he had typed his paper.
A. Charles won the essay contest in spite of not typing his paper.
B. Charles did not win the essay contest because he did not type his paper
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C. Typing his paper made Charles win the essay contest.
D. Charles did not win the essay contest even though he typed his paper.
Question 25. The government knows the extent of the problem. The government needs to take
action soon.
A. The government knows the extent of the problem whereas it needs to take action soon.
B. The government knows the extent of the problem so that it needs to take action soon.
C. Knowing the extent of the problem, the government needs to take action soon.
D. The government knows the extent of the problem, or else it needs to take action soon.
Question 26. The substance is very toxic. Protective clothing must be worn at all times.
A. Since the substance is very toxic, so protective clothing must be worn at all times.
B. So toxic is the substance that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
C. The substance is such toxic that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
D. The substance is too toxic to wear protective clothing at all times.
Question 27. Dick is thanking Michelle for giving him the gift on his birthday.
Dick: “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to me!”
Michelle: “___________”
A. Welcome! I’m glad you like it
B. Not at all
C. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it
D. All right! Do you know how much it costs?
Question 28. Ben: “___________.”
Jane: “Never mind.”
A. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned.
B. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday?
C. Thank you for being honest with me.
D. Congratulations! How wonderful!
Question 29. The first time I met my friend’s parents, I was walking on eggshells because I knew their
political views were very different from mine.
A. was talking nervously B. had a lot of pressure
C. was given many eggs D. had to be very cautious
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Question 30. Albert Einstein is lauded as one of the greatest theoretical physicists of all time.
A. acclaimed B. dictated C. described D. ordained
Question 31. His lawyer thought Jack had a good chance of being acquitted at the trial, if no further
evidence was found.
A. found guilty B. declared innocent
C. charged of being faulty D. advised of appealing
Question 32. Recycling and disposal of wastes require sizable expenditure, in such situations, industries
preferred to export their wastes to other countries.
A. minimum B. considerable C. plentiful D. trivial
The United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF), originally known (33)_______the United Nations’
International Children's Emergency Fund, was created by the United Nations General Assembly on 11
December 1946, to provide emergency food and healthcare to children and mothers in countries that had
been devastated by World War II. The Polish physician Ludwik Rajchman is widely regarded as the
(34)________of UNICEF and served as its first chairman from 1946 to 1950, when he had to flee the
United States in the wake of McCarthyism. Rajchman is to this day the only person that served as
UNICEF's Chairman for longer than 2 years. On Rajchman's suggestion, the American Maurice Pate was
appointed its first executive director, serving from 1947 until his death in 1965. In 1950, UNICEF's
mandate was extended to address the long-term needs of children and women in developing countries
everywhere. In 1953 it (35)________a permanent part of the United Nations System, and the words
"international" and "emergency" were dropped from the organization's name, though it retained the
original acronym, "UNICEF".
UNICEF (36)________on contributions from governments and private donors. UNICEF's total income
for 2015 was US$5,009,557,471. Governments contribute two-thirds of the organization's resources.
Private groups and individuals contribute the rest through national committees. It is estimated that 92 per
cent of UNICEF revenue is distributed to program services. UNICEF's programs emphasize developing
community-level services to (37)________the health and well-being of children. UNICEF was awarded
the Nobel Peace Prize in 1965 and the Prince of Asturias Award of Concord in 2006.
Question 33. A. for B. as C. such as D. like
Question 34. A. ancestor B. descendant C. pioneer D. founder
Question 35. A. became B. becomes C. becoming D. had become
Question 36. A. focuses B. stands C. concentrates D. relies
Question 37. A. promote B. provide C. widen D. increase
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Birds have evolved many physical attributes that contribute to their flying ability. Wings are important,
but adjustable tails, large hearts and light bones play critical roles.
To fly, birds, like airplanes, move air across their wings. Wings are designed so that air above the wings
is forced to move faster than air below the wing. This creates higher pressure under the wings, called lift,
which pushes the bird up. Different wing types evolved for different ways of flying. Prolonged flight
requires long wings and an ability to soar. Other birds need superior maneuverability. Finches and
sparrows have short, broad wings. Faster birds, like hawks have built - in spoilers that reduce turbulence
while flying. This allows a steeper angle of attack without stalling.
Tails have evolved for specialized use. The tail acts like a rudder helping birds steer. Birds brake by
spreading out their tails as they land. This adaptation allows them to make sudden, controlled stops in
essential skill, since most birds need to land on individual branches or on prey.
Flight takes muscle strength. If body builders had wings, they still could not flap hard enough to leave
the ground. Birds have large, specialized hearts that beat much faster than the human heart and provide
the necessary oxygen to the muscles. The breast muscle accounts for 15 percent of the bird’s body weight.
On pigeons, it accounts for a third of their total body weight. Birds carry no excess baggage, they have
hollow feathers and hollow bones with struts inside to maintain strength, like cross beams in a bridge.
Birds fly to find a prey, escape predators, and attract mates-in other words, to survive.

A. Wings are the most important physical attribute of birds.
B. Different wing styles evolved for different types of flight.
C. Birds have many specialized features that aid in their survival.
D. Birds fly for many reasons.
Question 39. According to the passage, what causes birds to rise when they start flying?
A. Long wings with hollow feathers B. Higher air pressure below than above the wings
C. Spreading out their tails D. Superior muscle strength
Question 40. The phrase “finches and sparrows” refers to___________.
A. wings B. maneuvers C. ways of flying D. birds
Question 41. According to the passage, what benefit comes from having built-in spoilers?
A. an ability to fly faster B. a steeper angle of diving for prey
C. prolonged flight D. superior maneuverability when climbing
Question 42. What does the author imply about the body builders having wings?
A. If they flapped their wings, they could fly a little.
B. If they had wings, their muscles would be strong enough for flight.
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C. If they had wings, their hearts would still not be large for flight.
D. Their wings would total 15 percent of their body weight.
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was signed into law in 1990. This law extends civil rights
protection to persons with disabilities in private sector employment, all public services, and in public
accommodations, transportation, and telecommunications. A person with disability is defined as someone
with a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits him or her in a major life activity, such as
walking, talking, working, or self-care. A person with a disability may also be someone with a past record
of such an impairment, for example, someone who no longer has heart disease but discriminated against
because of that history.
The ADA states that employers with fifteen or more employees may not refuse to hire or promote a
person because of a disability if that person is qualified to perform the job. Also, the employer must make
reasonable accommodations that will allow a person with a disability to perform essential functions of the
job. All new vehicles purchased by public transit authorities must be accessible to people with disabilities.
All rail stations must be made accessible, and at least one car per train in existing rail systems must be
made accessible.
It is illegal for public accommodations to exclude or refuse persons with disabilities. Public
accommodations are businesses and services such as restaurants, hotels, grocery stores, and parks. All
new buildings must be made accessible, and existing facilities must remove barriers if the removal can be
accomplished without much difficulty or expense.
The ADA also stipulates that companies offering telephone service to the general public must offer
relay services to individuals who use telecommunications devices for the deaf, twenty- four hours a day,
seven days a week.
Question 43. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To describe discrimination against persons with disabilities.
B. To explain the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act.
C. To make suggestions for hiring persons with disabilities.
D. To discuss telecommunications devices for the deaf.
Question 44. According to the passage, all of the followings are affected by the Americans with
Disabilities Act EXCEPT___________.
A. someone who has difficulty walking
B. a public transit authority
C. an employer with fewer than fifteen employees
D. a person with a past record of an impairment
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Question 45. The word “impairment” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. disability B. violation C. aptitude D. danger
Question 46. The author mentions grocery stores as an example of___________.
A. public transit B. barriers
C. private sector employment D. public accommodation
Question 47. The word “facilities” in bold in paragraph 3 refers to___________ .
A. barriers B. buildings C. rail stations D. disabilities
Question 48. The author implies all of the followings EXCEPT___________.
A. the ADA requires people with disabilities to pay for special accommodations
B. the ADA is designed to protect the civil rights of many people
C. public transportation must accommodate the needs of people with disabilities
D. the ADA protects the rights of people with mental impairments
Question 49. The word “stipulates” in bold in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. supposes B. admits C. states D. requests
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that___________ .
A. restaurants can refuse service to people with disabilities
B. every car of a train must be accessible to persons with disabilities
C. the ADA is not well-liked by employers
D. large companies may not discriminate against workers with disabilities
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TEST 3
Question 1. A. detachable B. denounce C. education D. admittance
Question 2. A. enunciate B. pronounce C. uncle D. nocturnal
Question 3. A. preserve B. bubble C. safeguard D. tabloid
Question 4. A. uneducated B. insignificant
C. irrelevance D. unquestionable
following questions
Question 5. Before the man could say anything more, Peter__________off towards the station.
A. rushed B. was rushing C. had rushed D. had been rushing
Question 6. For the engine to work properly, the green lever__________be in the up position.
A. can B. may C. will D. must
Question 7. __________the Nobel Prize, he retired from politics.
A. Received B. Having received C. Being received D. Receive
Question 8. The divorce rate in Vietnam is now higher__________half a century ago.
A. than it is B. than it does C. than it was D. than it did
Question 9. Would that the council__________in detail the issue of mercury pollution in the city
during the conference last week.
A. discussed B. were discussing C. had discussed D. was discussing
Question 10. The waiter enquired whether__________near the window.
A. we would like to sit B. we like to sit
C. do we like to sit D. would we like to sit
Question 11. __________, those students really prefer cold weather.
A. Strange though does it seem B. Strange though it may seem
C. Strange though may it seem D. Strange though it seem
Question 12. Brain’s attitude_________his work has always been very positive.
A. with B. into C. at D. towards
Question 13. There might be a_________to cheat if students sit too close together in exam rooms.
A. tempting B. temptation C. tempted D. tempt
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Question 14. If something electricity and heat, it allows electricity or heat to_________travel along
and through it.
A. carries B. transfers C. conducts D. exchanges
Question 15. We really regret to_________you that the course you are interested in is now full.
A. advise B. consult C. pledge D. explain
Question 16. The newspaper article which includes a gruesome description of the murder
has_________a lot of attention from the public.
A. paid B. confined C. drawn D. attracted
Question 17. Last year, the company went_________up after the one of its senior executives offered
his resignation.
A. straight B. belly C. stomach D. cloud
Question 18. Our mother was not happy with our work and made us_________.
A. start back B. start over C. start on D. start on at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
Question 19. She grew more and more fascinated by the subject as times went by.
A. fascinated B. grew C. times D. the subject
Question 20. I pretended not seeing her and carried on walking down the main street leading to the
downtown.
A. not seeing B. the main street C. carried on walking D. downtown
Question 21. Like many rich kids, Georgie was raised by a successor of underpaid nannies.
A. raised B. like C. underpaid nannies D. a successor
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. A drug may affect several functions, even though it’s targeted at only one.
A. A drug is taken for a specific purpose, but it may have a range of other effects.
B. However effective a drug may be, its functions have to be several.
C. Despite various other uses, a drug usually has a function for a special effect.
D. The functions expected of a drug are various even if it is used for a specific disease.
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Question 23. Most of the river ferries have been cancelled today due to the lack of visibility
caused by the fog.
A. A few of the ferries need to be rescheduled because of the fog that is causing poor visibility on the
river.
B. Since todays fog is obstructing visibility, the majority of the river ferries will not be running.
C. Because of the fog, it will be difficult for most of the ferries to cross the river safely today.
D. Whenever visibility is poor owing to the fog, nearly all of the river ferries are cancelled during the
day.
Question 24. Wouldn’t it better to let them know about the alterations to the plan?
A. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?
B. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?
C. Why haven’t they been informed about the new development?
D. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks.
A. If you don t change all the locks, the burglar could come back.
B. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks.
C. Youd better change all the locks or the burglar will come back.
D. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar will come back.
Question 26. My personal opinion doesn’t really matter. You need to decide for the good of
everyone.
A. Though my personal opinion really matters, we need to decide for the good for everyone.
B. Deciding for the good of everyone makes our personal opinion not really matter at all.
C. We need to decide for the good of everyone, so my personal opinion doesn’t really matter.
D. If my personal opinion doesn’t really matter, we need to decide for the good of everyone.
Question 27. “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” - “____________.”
A. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t B. oh, I didn’t realize it
C. You’re welcome D. That’s a good idea
Question 28. Sarah: “Oh my God, I’ve missed my bus.”
Christ: “____________. Another will come here in ten minutes.”
A. I hope so B. Don’t mention it C. Don’t worry D. Thank you
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CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Being a single mother no longer carries the social stigma that it used to.
A. difficulty B. holiness C. stain D. trial
Question 30. The members of the orchestra have arrived an hour prior to the performance for a short
rehearsal.
A. when B. before C. after D. while
Question 31. Earthworms help to aerate the soil.
A. suffocate B. destroy C. argue D. adjust
Question 32. He was imprisoned because he revealed secrets to the enemies.
A. disowned B. declared C. betrayed D. concealed
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking someone
in the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (33) _____to look directly at people when
speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying and is thought to carry a (34) ______of
honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people avoid long periods of eye contact. It is considered
more polite to look to the side during a conversation. The Lebanese, (35) _______, stand close together
and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action shows sincerity and gives people a better sense of
what their counterparts want. Given such differences with even the most common expressions, people
(36) _______travel or work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture's body language. People
tend to be unaware of the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (37) _______to consider your
own body language before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing about the body language
of friends, clients, and colleagues can be very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding
miscommunication.
Question 33. A. encouraged B. assisted C. forbidden D. opposed
Question 34. A. sense B. taste C. sound D. touch
Question 35. A. therefore B. in addition C. in contrast D. moreover
Question 36. A. who B. where C. which D. whose
Question 37. A. usefulness B. useful C. useless D. used
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The growth of cities, the construction of hundreds of new factories, and the spread of railroads in the
United States before 1850 had increased the need for better illumination. But the lighting in American
homes had improved very little over that of ancient times. Through the colonial period, homes were lit
with tallow candles or with a lamp of the kind used in ancient Rome - a dish of fish oil or other animal
or vegetable oil in which a twisted rag served as a wick. Some people used lard, but they had to heat
charcoal underneath to keep it soft and burnable. The sperm whale provided superior burning oil, but
this was expensive. In 1830 a new substance called “camphene” was patented, and it proved to be an
excellent illuminant. But while camphene gave a bright light it too remained expensive, had an
unpleasant odor, and also was dangerously explosive.
Between 1830 and 1850, it seemed that the only hope for cheaper illumination in the United States
was the wider use of gas. In the 1840s, American gas manufacturers adopted improved British
techniques for producing illuminating gas from coal. But the expense of piping gas to the consumer
remained so high that until the mid-nineteenth century gas lighting was feasible only in urban areas,
and only for public buildings for the wealthy. In 1854, a Canadian doctor, Abraham Gesner, patented a
process for distilling a pitch like mineral found in New Brunswick and Nova Scotia that produced
illuminating gas and an oil that he called “kerosene” (from “keros”, the Greek word for wax, and “ene”
because it resembled camphene). Kerosene, though cheaper than camphene, had an unpleasant odor,
and Gesner never made his fortune from it. But Gesner had aroused a new hope for making illuminating
oil from a product coming out of North American mines.
Question 38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why better lighting had
become necessary by the mid-nineteenth century?
A. increases in the number of new factories B. growth of cities
C. development of railroads D. demand for better medical facilities
Question 39. The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. oil B. charcoal C. lard D. wick
Question 40. What can be inferred about the illuminating gas described in the passage?
A. It had an unpleasant smell.
B. It was not allowed in public buildings.
C. It was not widely available until mid-nineteenth century.
D. It was first developed in the United States.
Question 41. The word “resembled” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. cost the same as B. was made from C. sounded like D. was similar to
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Question 42. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. a description of events in chronological order
B. a comparison of two years
C. an analysis of scientific findings
D. the statement of a theory and possible explanations
Dark matter in the universe is believed by some scientists to be a substance that is not readily
observable because it does not directly refract light or energy. Its existence can only be deduced
because of the effect that it has on surrounding matter. In fact, some members of the scientific
community have argued that dark matter does not actually exist. Others, however, believe in its
existence, in part because the scientific community does not have a complete understanding of gravity
science. On the other hand, some would argue that it is the understanding of gravitational science that
leads most scientists to believe in the existence of dark matter, because without dark matter, there are
many cosmological phenomena that are difficult to explain.
For example, dark matter in the universe may have a peculiar effect on the Milky Way galaxy. Some
scientists believe that the interaction between dark matter and other smaller, nearby galaxies is causing
the Milky Way galaxy to take on a warped profile. It has been asserted that not only does dark matter
exist, it may also be responsible for the Milky Way’s unusual shape. The interaction referenced
involves two smaller galaxies near the Milky Way, called Magellanic clouds, moving through an
enormous amount of dark matter, which, in effect, enhances the gravitational pull that the two
Magellanic clouds could have on the Milky Way and other surrounding bodies. Without the existence
of the dark matter, the Magellanic clouds would not have sufficient mass to have such a strong effect on
the bend of the Milky Way galaxy.
The strongest evidence for the validity of this hypothesis rests in Newtonian physics, and the
hypothesis that anything with mass will exert a gravitational pull. The Milky Way and other galaxies
with peculiar warped shapes are being molded by a gravitational force. However, there is nothing
readily observable with sufficient mass that could cause such a high level of distortion via gravitational
pull in the vicinity of the Milky Way. Therefore, something that is not easily observed must be exerting
the necessary force to create the warped shape of the galaxy.
Aaron Romanowsky and several colleagues have questioned the effect that dark matter might have on
galaxies. They point to the existence of several elliptical galaxies surrounded by very little dark matter
as evidence that dark matter is not, in fact, the cause of the warped galaxies. While they do not claim
that their findings should be interpreted to conclude that dark matter does not exist, they apparently
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believe that the results of their studies cast doubt on some of the conventional theories of galaxy
formation and manipulation.
Several models constructed by researchers from the University of California at Berkeley, however,
point to the idea that dark matter is the most likely explanation for the distorted shape of the Milky Way
and other galaxies. Using computer models, they have mapped the likely interactions between certain
galaxies and the surrounding dark matter, and those models have shown not only the possibility that
dark matter is responsible for the warped shape of the Milky Way, but that the relationship between the
dark matter and the Magellanic clouds is dynamic; the movement of the clouds through the dark matter
seems to create a wake that enhances their gravitational influence on the Milky Way.
Question 43. The passage states that some members of the scientific community are reluctant to
believe in the existence of dark matter because___________.
A. no one understands how to apply gravitational science.
B. dark matter has little effect on surrounding matter.
C. dark matter cannot be directly observed.
D. there is absolutely no evidence for the existence of dark matter.
Question 44. As it is used in paragraph 1, the term “phenomena” most nearly means___________.
A. surprises B. problems C. occurrences D. attitudes
Question 45. What does the passage offer as evidence for the existence of dark matter?
A. A photograph taken with the aid of a refracting telescope.
B. The enormous mass of Magellanic clouds.
C. The shape of the Milky Way galaxy.
D. A complete understanding of gravitational science.
Question 46. According to the passage, what is Aaron Romanowsky’s theory regarding dark
matter?
A. Dark matter has no effect at all on the shape of a galaxy.
B. It cannot be conclusively proven that dark matter affects the shape and formation of galaxies.
C. Computer models suggest that dark matter is responsible for warped galaxies.
D. The discovery of certain galaxies disproves the theory that dark matter exists in the universe.
Question 47. The last paragraph supports the general hypothesis provided earlier in the passage
that___________.
A. computer models are necessary for an understanding of gravitational science.
B. dark matter has little to no effect on the formation of certain cosmological phenomena
C. the effect of Magellanic clouds on galaxies is enhanced by dark matter.
D. the shape of the Milky Way galaxy can be deduced by observing the matter surrounding it
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Question 48. The word “conventional” in paragraph 4 most nearly means___________.
A. formally disputed B. strictly interpreted
C. easily understood D. generally accepted
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to___________.
A. models B. researchers C. interactions D. galaxies
Question 50. The passage supports which of the following statements about dark matter?
A. Its presence is readily observable to researchers who completely understand how to apply
gravitational science.
B. If it does not exist, the universe is largely empty.
C. Its existence is inferred by some researchers based on observations of cosmological bodies
composed of ordinary matter.
D. Its existence has been conclusively proven by computer models.
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TEST 4
Question 1. A. divisible B. design C. disease D. excursion
Question 2. A. borrowed B. conserved C. approached D. complained
Question 3. A. garbage B. dissolve C. bottle D. fishing
Question 4. A. beautiful B. happiness C. unhealthy D. neigh borhood
Question 5. She looked active in___________.
A. a jean B. a jeans C. jean D. jeans
Question 6. We ________ by a loud noise during the night.
A. woke up B. are woken up C. were woken up D. were waking up
Question 7. Why ___________she ___________ to be studying abroad?
A. does/ consider B. is/ considered C. is/ considering D. has/ considered
Question 8. Tom has the ___________ stamps in the collectors club.
A. most B. less C. more D. least
Question 9. Our boss would rather ___________ during the working hours.
A. us not chatting B. we didn’t chat C. us not chat D. we don’t chat
Question 10. ___________my car broke down, I came home late yesterday.
A. Since B. while C. For D. With
Question 11. ___________I first met my girlfriend.
A. It was in London that B. It was in London where
C. It was London that D. It was London which
Question 12. Last weekend, my family went to the cinema together. We chose a(an) ___________to
see.
A. new interesting film B. film interesting new
C. interesting film new D. interesting new film
Question 13. He has been very interested in doing research on ________ since he was at high school.
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
Question 14. The match will be televised ________ on VTV 3 tonight.
A. live B. lived C. lively D. living
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Question 15. The students are conducting a major___________.
A. exam B. experiment C. test D. experience
Question 16. “The suitcase isn’t too heavy, is it?” “No, it’s as light as___________.”
A. dust B. lightning C. a feather D. a fish
Question 17. “Have you heard about the Welshman, the Irishman and a pig?” “Yes, we have. That
joke’s as old as___________.”
A. Solomon B. the hills C. a dinosaur D. Jupiter
Question 18. I applied for the job but was___________.
A. taken away B. got over C. turned down D. turned off
Question 19. If anyone drops by while I am away, please take a message from him
A. drops B. while C. take D. him
Question 20. The fire began in the tenth floor of the block of flat, but it soon spread to other floors.
A. in B. tenth C. of D. soon spread
Question 21. The strong progress in poverty reduction and sharing prosperity that took place over the
first decade of the 2000s is at risk because of the global slowdown in growth.
A. reduction B. sharing C. the first D. at risk
Question 22. “Shall I make you a cup of milk?” the mother said to the son.
A. The mother wanted to make a cup of milk for the son.
B. The mother was asked to make a cup of milk for the son.
C. The mother promised to make a cup of milk for the son.
D. The mother offered to make a cup of milk for the son.
Question 23. The only student who failed the exam was Finet.
A. Together with other students, Finet failed the exam.
B. Everyone passed the exam.
C. Everyone, apart from Finet, failed the exam.
D. With the exception of Finet, everyone passed the exam.
Question 24. She had only just put the phone down when her boss rang back.
A. Hardly she puts the phone down when her boss rang back.
B. Hardly had she put the phone down when her boss rang back.
C. Hardly did she put the phone down than her boss rang back.
D. Hardly she had put the phone down when her boss rang back.
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Mark the letter A, B, Cor D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
Question 25. Her explanation was clear. I didn’t understand it.
A. Despite of her clear explanation, I didn’t understand it.
B. Despite her clear explanation, I didn’t understand it.
C. Despite the fact that I didn’t understand it, her explanation was clear.
D. In spite of the fact that I didn’t understand it, her explanation was clear
Question 26. Dan is able to make English instruction videos for Vietnamese people. It is because
his Vietnamese wife helps him.
A. If only Dan were able to make English instruction videos for Vietnamese people.
B. If it weren’t for his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t make English instruction videos for
Vietnamese people.
C. Without his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t have made English instruction videos for
Vietnamese people.
D. But for his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t have made English instruction videos for
Vietnamese people.
Question 27. Two students are discussing their previous English class.
- Student 1. “I think the teacher should give us more exercises.”
- Student 2. “___________”
A. Yes, let’s B. Ok
C. That’s rubbish D. That’s what I was thinking
Question 28. Eden and Edward are chatting after work. Eden suggests eating out.
- Eden. “Shall we eat out tonight?”
- Edward. ___________!”
A. That’s all right B. That’s a great idea
C. It is very kind of you. D. You are very welcome.
Question 29. People are not aware of the problem of overpopulation.
A. incident B. issue C. trouble D. case
Question 30. He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking.
A. frightens me B. cheers me C. irritates me D. surprises me
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Question 31. In this world, emotion has become suspect- the accepted style is smooth, antiseptic and
passionless.
A. soft B. agitated C. silky D. easy
Question 32. Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. busy with B. free from C. relaxed about D. interested in
Is it worth reading books, (33) ________ nowadays there are so many other forms of entertainment?
Some people say that even paperback books are expensive, and not everyone can borrow books from a
library. They might add that television is more exciting and that viewers can relax as they watch their
favorite (34) ________. All that may be true, but books are still very popular. They encourage the
reader to use his or her imagination for a start. You can read a chapter of a book, or just a few pages,
and then stop. Of course, it may be so (35) ________that you can't stop! There are many different kinds
of books, so you can choose a crime novel or an autobiography, or a book (36) ________ gives you
interesting information. If you find it hard to choose, you can read reviews, or ask friends for ideas.
Personally, I can't do without books, but I can (37) _________up television easily enough. You can't
watch television at bus stops!
Question 33. A. in B. or C. why D. since
Question 34. A. ones B. programmes C. episodes D. cereals
Question 35. A. current B. imagined C. interest D. gripping
Question 36. A. whose B. which C. what D. when
Question 37. A. pick B. look C. give D. turn
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world’s universities, came
from very inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims landed
at Plymouth. Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period were
more than 100 graduates of England's prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these
universities graduates in the New World were determined that their sons would have the same
educational opportunities that they themselves had had. Because of this support in the colony for an
institution of higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a
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college in October of 1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this
land was in an area called Newetowne, which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and
is the site of the present-day university.
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of Charlestown,
died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to the fledgling college. In
spite of the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court named the college
after the minister in appreciation for what he had done. The amount of the bequest may not have been
large, particularly by today's standard, but it was more than the General Court had found it neces sary to
appropriate in order to open the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in
addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class of four
students. Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire
teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.
A. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities
B. What is today a great university started out small
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts
Question 39. The pronoun "they" in the second paragraph refers to___________
A. Oxford and Cambridge universities B. university graduates
C. the Puritan sons D. educational opportunities
Question 40. The word "somewhat" in the last paragraph could best be replaced by___________
A. to and fro B. back and forth C. side by side D. more or less
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. What he died of B. where he came from
C. Where he was buried D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
Question 42. The passage implies that___________
A. Henry Dunster was an ineffective president
B. someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster
C. Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty
D. the position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the early years
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Psychologists who study information processing have identified and described several memory
structures that clarify how our memory works. They include the sensory register, short-term memory,
and long-term memory. Each structure varies as to how much information it can hold and for how long.
A description of how human process information typically begins with environmental stimuli. Our
sense receptors are constantly stimulated by visual, auditory, tactile, olfactory, and gustatory stimuli.
These experiences are initially recorded in the sensory register, so named because information is
thought to be encoded there in the same form in which it was perceived. The purpose of the sensory
register is to hold information one to three seconds. Information not recognized or otherwise selected
by us disappears from the system. The sensory register can hold about twelve items of information at a
time. Typists make extensive use of the sensory register in order to remember words just long enough
to get them typed. If no further processing takes place, a typist’s ability to recall that information later
is minimal. Similarly, most of us have had the experience of reading an entire page of text, only to
discover when we got to the bottom of the page, we couldn’t say anything about it except that we had
indeed “read” every word.
Once information has been recognized as meaningful, it is sent to short-term memory. In this case,
short-term is approximately 20 seconds, while this may seem surprising, it can be easily demonstrat ed.
If you were asked to dial an unfamiliar phone number, received a busy signal, and were then distracted
by something or someone else for 15 to 20 seconds, chances are you would have forgotten the number
at that point. Short-term memory is often referred to as “working” memory.
Most cognitive psychologists believe that the storage capacity of long-term memory is unlimited and
contains a permanent record of everything an individual has learned and experienced. Information is
encoded there to enhance its meaningfulness and organization so that it can be easily retrieved when
necessary.
Question 43. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. to explain how our memory processes information.
B. to describe the sensory register.
C. to explain why we sometimes forget information.
D. to compare short-term and long-term memory.
Question 44. The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. psychologists B. information C. memory structures D. environmental stimuli
Question 45. The word “stimuli” is closest in meaning to___________.
A. objects or events that activate our memory B. objects we consider attractive
C. things that help us to later recall what happened D. situations in which we experience emotions
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Question 46. According to the passage, typists are unable to recall information they type if___.
A. they are tired
B. they are distracted by something or someone
C. they have too much work to be able to process it all
D. they do not recognize it as meaningful enough to remember
Question 47. The word “minimal” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to___________.
A. very big B. very good C. very pretty D. very small
Question 48. According to the passage, which type of information is sent to short-term memory?
A. Information we need for three seconds or less.
B. Information that surprises us.
C. Information that is relevant to us.
D. Environmental stimuli we do not perceive.
Question 49. It can be inferred that short-term memory is called “working” memory because__.
A. we use it extensively when we are working
B. it holds information we are working on at a given moment
C. it is very difficult to use effectively
D. we must work hard to retrieve information from it.
Question 50. Which of the following would we most easily retrieve from long-term memory?
A. A wrong telephone number we dialed.
B. The face of a stranger on the street.
C. The birth date of our children
D. Voices from the television in the background
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TEST 5
Question 1. A. grows B. tends C. roars D. sweeps
Question 2. A. performed B. finished C. interviewed D. delivered
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. justice B. struggle C. neglect D. wildlife
Question 4. A. eradicate B. unexpected C. accompany D. commitment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 5. We ___________ in silence when he suddenly ___________ me to help him.
A. walked - was asking B. were walking - asked
C. were walking - was asking D. walked - asked
Question 6. I don’t know why John always refuses ___________ me in person.
A. to meet B. meeting C. met D. to meeting
Question 7. It ___________ Sue that you saw last night. She’s abroad with her family.
A. should have been B. must have been C. can’t have been D. needn’t have been
Question 8. At one time the entire world ___________ by dinosaurs.
A. has ruled B. was ruled C. will be ruled D. was ruling
Question 9. I asked Martha ___________ to enter law school.
A. are you planning B. is she planning C. was she planning D. if she was planning
Question 10. Extinction means a situation ___ a plan, an animal or a way of life etc ...stops existing.
A. to which B. in which C. on which D. for which
Question 11. ___________he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Not until had
Question 12. Let’s begin our discussion now, ___________?
A. shall we B. will we C. don’t we D. won’t we
Question 13. The more ___________ and positive you look, the better you will feel.
A. confidence B. confident C. confide D. confidently
Question 14. Mr. Pike is certainly a ___________ writer; he has written quite a few books this year.
A. prolific B. fruitful C. fertile D. successful
Question 15. The 1st week of classes at university is a little ___________ because so many students
get lost, change classes or go to the wrong place.
A. uncontrolled B. arranged C. chaotic D. notorious
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Question 16. Due to the computer malfunction, all our data was lost. So unhappily, we had to begin all
the calculations from___________.
A. onset B. source C. original D. scratch
Question 17. The players’ protests ___________ no difference to the referees decision at all.
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
Question 18. Although he is my friend, I ___________ find it hard to his selfishness.
A. put up with B. catch up with C. keep up with D. come down with
Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 19. A number of wild horses on Assateague is increasing, resulting in overgrazed marsh and
dune grasses.
A. A B. is C. resulting D. grasses
Question 20. Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel are expected changing their
reservations and proceed to Hawaii.
A. reaching B. are C. changing D. proceed
Question 21. Although the Red cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurse will not let you to give
blood if you have just had cold.
A. accepts B. let C. to give D. have just had cold.
Question 22. “I’ll drop you from the team if you don’t train harder,” said the captain to John.
A. John was reminded to train harder so as not to be dropped from the team.
B. The captain threatened to drop John from the team unless he trained harder.
C. The captain urged that John should train harder in order not to be dropped from the team.
D. The captain promised to drop John from the team in case he trained harder.
Question 23. It’s possible that Joanna didn’t receive my message.
A. Joanna shouldn’t have received my message.
B. Joanna needn’t have received my message.
C. Joanna mightn’t have received my message.
D. Joanna can’t have received my message.
Question 24. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
B. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
C. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
D. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
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Question 25. Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it.
A. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year.
B. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year.
C. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year.
D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year.
Question 26. Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the
meeting.
A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting
C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at the
meeting.
D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the company.
Question 27. A mother is complaining to her son that his room gets dusty.
- Mother: “Haven’t you tidied up your room yet?”
- Son: “___________”
A. I will, after I do all the exercises in my textbook.
B. I am tired with my tidying.
C. The more I tidy, the worse it gets.
D. Why don’t you give me a hand with cleaning?
Question 28. Linda and Janet are talking about family living under one roof.
Linda: “I think it’s a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof. They can help
one another.”
Janet: “___________. Many old-aged parents like to lead independent life in a nursing home.”
A. It’s nice to hear that B. Me, too.
C. I agree with you completely D. That’s not true
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
Question 29. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. all long day B. day after day C. all day long D. the long day
Question 30.1 just want to stay at home and watch TV and take it easy.
A. relax B. sit down C. sleep D. eat
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a husband is
obliged to tell his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late.
A. urged B. free C. required D. suggested
Question 32. Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management
system, he just made light of it.
A. completely ignored B. treated as important
C. disagreed with D. discovered by chance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
CYBERFASHION
Most of us own modern gadgets such as mobile phones, or digital cameras. We may carry them round
in our pockets, or attach them to our bodies. But not for much longer! So far designers have succeeded
in (33) ___________tiny bits of technology directly into our clothing.
In actual fact “cyberfashion” is the latest trend! One example, the Musical Jacket, is already in the
shops and stores. This jacket is silk. It is (34) ___________by a keyboard, also manufactured from
fabric, which is connected to a tiny device (35) ___________plays music.
At present, you have to touch a shoulder pad to hear the music. But in the future, you will be able to
operate the device just by turning your wrist or walking! For many athletes, scientists have invented a
smart shirt which measures your heart rate, body temperature and respiration rate! (36) ___________,
the most romantic piece of cyberfashion must be the Heartthrob Brooch.
This item of jewellery, made from diamonds and rubies, has two miniature transmitters. They make
the brooch glow in time to the beating of its wearers heart. If you meet someone (37) ___________,
your heart will beat faster - and your brooch will let everyone know how you feel!
Question 33. A. dividing B. associate C. combining D. integrating
Question 34. A. monitored B. examined C. controlled D. managed
Question 35. A. that B. what C. who D. when
Question 36. A. Although B. However C. Moreover D. While
Question 37. A. gorge B. gorgeously C. gorgeousness D. gorgeous
correct answer to each of the questions
Imagine the busy streets of New York City, an enormous place with millions of people. Everyday, the
streets are congested with people going about their daily lives. Now imagine a small robot in the
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middle of all of those people rolling down a busy sidewalk. Most people would not even notice the ten-
inch smiling robot, called a Tweenbot, rolling along the street. This strange machine may interest some
people, while others would ignore it completely. A researcher interested in studying how helpful peo ple
really are uses such robots in her experiments that take place on the streets of New York.
The Tweenbots experiment is the idea and creation of Kacie Kinzer. Kinzer s idea was to make a
robot that could navigate the city and reach its destination only if it was aided by pedestrians.
Tweenbots rely on the kindnessof warm-hearted strangers. Made simply of cardboard, wheels, and a
device to turn the wheels, the Tweenbots face many dangers on the city streets. They could be run over
by cars or smashed by careless kids. Kinzer thought her little robots might even be seen as some kind of
terrorist device. The only real protection a Tweenbot has is its friendly smile. In addition to that, each
of Kinzer’s robots is fitted with a flag that displays instructions for the robot’s destination. The only
way these robots will reach their final point is if someone lends them a hand. Tweenbots are essentially
a social experiment aimed at providing people a chance to show how caring they are.
On a daily basis, people in New York City are often in a hurry to get around. However, the
Tweenbots, through their inability to look after themselves, took people out of their normal routines.
The people who noticed the helpless little robots were actually interested in helping the Tweenbots find
their way home. Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line. If one was to
get stuck, or was going in the wrong direction, it would be up to strangers to free it or turn it in the right
direction. Surprisingly, no Tweenbot was lost or damaged, and each one arrived at its target in good
condition. In fact, most people treated the robot in a gentle manner, and some even treated it as though
it were a small living being. Even if you were in a rush to go somewhere, would you stop and help a
Tweenbot successfully reach its destination?
Question 38. What is this reading about?
A. A place to buy robots B. A new kind of toy
C. An experiment D. An interesting idea for the future
Question 39. What is a Tweenbot?
A. A person from New York City B. A ten-inch smiling robot
C. A pedestrian D. A terrorist device
Question 40. The word “congested” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________
A. flocked B. secluded C. stuffed D. crowded
Question 41. How did a Tweenbot get to its final destination?
A. With the help of other Tweenbots.
B. With the help of kind pedestrians on the street
C. With the help of Kacie Kinzer.
D. With the help of other robots in New York City.
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Question 42. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Most Tweenbots arrived at their destination damaged or broken.
B. Most people treated the Tweenbots in a gentle manner.
C. Tweenbots could not navigate the city on their own.
D. Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line.
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Being aware of one's own emotions - recognizing and acknowledging feelings as they happen - is at
the very heart of Emotional Intelligence. And this awareness encompasses not only moods but also
thoughts about those moods. People who are able to monitor their feelings as they arise are less likely
to be ruled by them and are thus better able to manage their emotions. Managing emotions does not
mean suppressing them; nor does it mean giving free rein to every feeling.
Psychologist Daniel Goleman, one of several authors who have popularized the notion of Emotional
Intelligence, insisted that the goal is balance and that every feeling has value and significance. As
Goleman said, "A life without passion would be a dull wasteland of neutrality, cut off and isolated from
the richness of life itself." Thus, we manage our emotions by expressing them in an appropriate manner.
Emotions can also be managed by engaging in activities that cheer us up, soothe our hurts, or reassure
us when we feel anxious.
Clearly, awareness and management of emotions are not independent. For instance, you might think
that individuals who seem to experience their feelings more intensely than others would be less able to
manage them. However, a critical component of awareness of emotions is the ability to assign meaning
to them - to know why we are experiencing a particular feeling or mood. Psychologists have found that,
among individuals who experience intense emotions, individual differences in the ability to assign
meaning to those feelings predict differences in the ability to manage them. In other words, if two
individuals are intensely angry, the one who is better able to understand why he or she is angry will
also be better able to manage the anger. Self-motivation refers to strong emotional self-control, which
enables a person to get moving and pursue worthy goals, persist at tasks even when frustrated, and
resist the temptation to act on impulse. Resisting impulsive behavior is, according to Goleman, "the
root of all emotional self-control."
Of all the attributes of Emotional Intelligence, the ability to postpone immediate gratification and to
persist in working toward some greater future gain is most closely related to success - whether one is
trying to build a business, get a college degree, or even stay on a diet. One researcher examined
whether this trait can predict a child's success in school. The study showed that 4-year-old children who
can delay instant gratification in order to advance toward some future goal will be "far superior as
students" when they graduate from high school than will 4-year-old who are not able to resist the
impulse to satisfy their immediate wishes.
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Question 43. Which of the following can we infer from paragraph 1?
A. Some people can understand their feelings better than others.
B. People who can manage their emotions will be controlled by them.
C. If people pay attention to their feelings, they will not be able to manage them.
D. If people pay attention to their feelings, they can control their emotions better.
Question 44. The word "encompasses" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ___________
A. maintains B. includes C. entertains D. divides
Question 45. The word "soothe" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by___________.
A. reduce B. weaken C. worsen D. relieve
Question 46. From paragraph 2, we can see that Daniel Goleman___________
A. trained people to increase their Emotional Intelligence
B. treated patients who had emotional problems
C. wrote about Emotional Intelligence
D. studied how people manage their emotions
Question 47. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about our emotions EXCEPT___.
A. every feeling is important B. we can manage our emotions
C. emotions are part of a satisfying life D. we should ignore some feelings
Question 48. The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. psychologists B. individuals
C. individual differences D. intense emotions
Question 49. In paragraph 3, the author explains the concept of awareness and management of
emotions by______.
A. describing how people learn to control their emotions
B. giving an example of why people get angry
C. comparing how two people might respond to an intense emotion
D. explaining why some people are not aware of their emotions
Question 50. According to paragraph 4, children might be more successful in school if they can
resist impulses because they can______.
A. easily understand new information
B. be more popular with their teachers
C. have more friends at school
D. focus on their work and not get distracted
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TEST 6
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
Question 1. A. heritage B. package C. passage D. teenage
Question 2. A. clothes B. bosses C. boxes D. couches
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. desert B. dessert C. centre D. circle
Question 4. A. medieval B. managerial C. mediocre D. magnificent
Question 5. Due to the economic unrest, people ___________ happy lately.
A. hadn’t been B. aren’t C. weren’t D. haven’t been
Question 6. Television can make things memorable for the reason that it presents information ______
an effective way.
A. over B. with C. in D. on
Question 7. ___________how confident you are, it is almost impossible not to be a little nervous
before an important exam.
A. No matter B. Even though C. Not only D. whereas
Question 8. The Principal usually has his pupils ___________ waste paper for their mini-project.
A. collect B. having collected C. collected D. to collect
Question 9. Neither of the boys came to school yesterday, ___________?
A. didn’t they B. does they C. did they D. doesn’t they
Question 10. Anna is holding her shopping bag with one hand and turning the door handle with .
A. another B. the other C. other D. others
Question 11. ___________that Columbus discovered America.
A. It was in 1492 B. There was in 1492
C. In 1492 D. That was in 1492
Question 12. ___________be needed, the river basin would need to be dammed.
A. Hydroelectric power should B. When hydroelectric power
C. Hydroelectric power D. Should hydroelectric power
Question 13. Most office furniture is bought more on the basis of ___________ than comfort.
A. afford B. affording C. afforded D. affordability
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Question 14. Although our opinions on many things___________, we still maintain a good relationship
with each other.
A. differ B. receive C. maintain D. separate
Question 15. The pointless war between the two countries left thousands of people dead and
seriously___________.
A. injured B. wounded C. spoilt D. damaged
Question 16. He enjoyed the dessert so much that he accepted the second ___________ when it was
offered.
A. sharing B. helping C. pile D. load
Question 17. I’ve just been offered a new job! Things are ___________.
A. clearing up B. making up C. looking up D. turning up
Question 18. The children had to ___________ in the principal’s office after they took part in a fight.
A. hit the right notes B. beat around the bush
C. play second fiddle D. face the music
Question 19. Mobility is one of the characteristics often demanded of executives, and they must
accustom themselves to move quite regularly.
A. Mobility B. characteristics C. of D. to move
Question 20. Every city in the United States has traffic problems because the amount of cars on
American streets and highways is increasing every year.
A. in the United States B. traffic
C. amount D. on American streets
Question 21. Parents’ choices for their children’s names is based on names of their relatives or
ancestors.
A. choice B. their C. is based D. relatives
Question 22. More petrol is consumed nowadays than ten years ago.
A. Not so much petrol was consumed ten years ago as nowadays.
B. Petrol consumption is going down nowadays.
C. We had more petrol ten years ago than we do nowadays.
D. We should consume as much petrol as possible.
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Question 23. The problem was so complicated that the students couldn’t understand it.
A. It was such complicated problem that the students couldn’t understand.
B. The problem wasn’t simple enough for the students to understand it.
C. The problem was too complicated for the students to understand.
D. It was so complicated problems that the students couldn’t understand
Question 24. My American friend finds it difficult to pick up food with chopsticks.
A. My American friend doesn’t feel like picking up food with chopsticks.
B. My American friend can’t find chopsticks to pick up food.
C. My American friend didn’t used to pick up food with chopsticks.
D. My American friend is not used to picking up food with chopsticks.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that a best combines
Question 25. It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 26. She fell over in the last minutes. She didn't win the race.
A. If she didn't fall over in the last minutes, she would win the race.
B. She didn't win the race even though she fell over in the last minutes
C. Not having won the race, she fell over in the last minutes
D. She could have won the race if she hadn't fallen over in the last minutes.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following questions.
Question 27. Jenny: “Wow! what a nice coat you are wearing!”
Peter: “___________”
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. B. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
C. I like you to say that. D. Yes, of course. It’s expensive.
Question 28. Stranger. “Excuse me! Can you show me the way to Main Street, please?”
Man. “___________”
A. Continue. B. It’s easy to do it.
C. Um, I am sorry I have no idea. D. Am I going right?
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
Question 29. By being thrifty and shopping wisely, housewives in the city can feed an entire family on
as little as 500.000 VND a week.
A. luxurious B. economical C. sensible D. miserable
Question 30. Gerry didn’t go on the expedition - he made up that part of the story.
A. invented B. narrated C. unfolded D. recounted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
Question 31. About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most,
like the starfish and crabs, live in the ocean.
A. with backbones B. with ribs C. without ribs D. without backbones
Question 32. If you say bad things about the person who give a job you bite the hand that feeds you.
A. be unfriendly B. be ungrateful C. be thankful D. be devoted
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
(33) ___________in technology have made a lot of changes to our everyday lifestyles, but one of the
biggest has got to be how we read books. Since the invention of the e-book, there has been a significant
change to our reading habits. Given the choice between taking a couple of heavy paperbacks on holiday
or an e-book device like a Kindle, most of us, including our parents and grandparents, would
unsurprisingly opt (34) ___________the Kindle.
But what would our lives be like with no books at all? It’s a (35) ___________question. Some
educational specialists are making predictions that in the future we won’t even see books in classrooms
- everything will be done online! (36) ___________of the idea of getting rid of books say that there will
always be a need for paper-based versions of materials. However, to be realistic, we have to accept that
there is a (37) ___________chance that in a decade’s time schools and classrooms will be book-free!
what do you think of that?
Question 33. A. Progression B. Successes C. Increases D. Advances
Question 34. A. of B. on C. for D. at
Question 35. A. special B. naughty C. funny D. tricky
Question 36. A. Alternatives B. Contestants C. Opponents D. Enemies
Question 37. A. remote B. far C. long D. distant
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correct answer to each of the questions.
Bitcoins are a form of virtual currency. In other words, they are a type of money that does not exist in
the actual world. However, they can be used to purchase actual products and services from real
companies.
The bitcoin system was created in 2009 by an enigmatic person named Satoshi Nakamoto. In fact, no
one is sure if Satoshi Nakamoto is an actual person or a group of people. Bitcoins are designed to serve
as an alternative to national currencies, such as dollars and euros. They can be used to pay for things
instead of cash or credit cards, when bitcoins are transferred from a buyer to a seller, the transaction is
recorded in a public database.
Governments are concerned that bitcoins can easily be stolen by hackers. It has dawned on them that
they might be used for illegal purposes. For example, stolen goods could be purchased without the
government’s knowledge. Although more and more companies are beginning to accept bitcoins, the
percentage of purchases made using bitcoins is minuscule compared to other online payment methods,
such as credit cards. Instead, many bitcoin owners simply keep them as an investment since more
valuable in the future. This may or may not be a wise approach. Currently, the value of bitcoins is
fluctuating wildly, especially when compared to highly stable national currencies, Bitcoin Investors are
gambling on the hope that as this high-tech money becomes more widely accepted, its value will soar.
(Adaptedfrom, https.//www.digitalcommerce360.com/)
Question 38. What is the passage mainly about?
A. A new kind of currency in the virtual world
B. A way of doing business in the virtual world
C. An alternative to bitcoins created by Nakamoto
D. The future of bitcoins in the real world.
Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to___________
A. dollars B. euros C. things D. bitcoins
Question 40. The word “minuscule” is closest in meaning to___________
A. considerable B. small C. minimal D. increasing
Question 41. Why are bitcoins of great concern to governments?
A. Because the value of bitcoins is fluctuating wildly.
B. Because bitcoins will eventually replace national currencies.
C. Because bitcoins may be used in illegal transactions.
D. Because most of bitcoin owners are hackers.
Question 42. Which of the following is defined in the passage?
A. Bitcoins B. Transactions C. Credit cards D. Public Database
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correct answer to each of the following questions.
WHY DON’T YOU GET A PROPER JOB?
She wants to be a singer; you think she should go for a long-term career with job security and
eventually retire with a good pension. But a new report suggests that in fact she’s the pract ical one.
Why do parents make terrible careers advisers?
Today’s 14 and 15-year-olds are ambitious. They are optimistic about their prospects, but their career
ideas are rather vague. Although 80% of them have no intention of following in their parents’ footsteps,
69% still turn to their parents for advice. They look at their working future in a different way to their
parents.
A job for life is not in their vocabulary; neither is a dead-end but secure job that is boring but pays the
bills. Almost half the boys surveyed expected that their hobbies would lead them into the right sort of
job, while most girls seemed determined to avoid traditionally female careers such as nursing.
In the past, this might have counted as bad news. Certainly when I was 15, my guidance counsellors
were horrified at my plans to become a writer. I’m glad I didn’t change my plans to suit them. Even so,
their faith in rigid career paths was well-founded. In those days, that was the way to get ahead.
But the world has changed. The global economy is not kind to yesterday’s diligent and dependable
worker. The future belongs to quick-thinking people who are resourceful, ambitious and can take the
initiative. This means that a 14-year-old who sees her working future as a kind of adventure, to be made
up as she goes along is not necessarily being unrealistic.
However, she has to have the training and guidance to help her develop the right skills for today’s
market; not the rigid preparation for a workplace that disappeared twenty years ago.
Many young people are very aware of the pitfalls of the flexible workplace; they understand that
redundancy, downsizing and freelancing are all part of modern working life, but no one is telling them
how they might be able to turn the new rules of the employment game to their advantage. This is what
they need to know if they are to make a life for themselves.
So what is to be done? A good first step would be to change the way in which schools prepare young
people for adult life. The education system is becoming less flexible and more obsessed with traditional
skills at just the time that the employment market is going in the opposite direction.
Accurate, up-to-date information on new jobs and qualifications can help guidance counsellors to help
their students. Young people need solid information on the sort of training they need to pursue the
career of their dreams. Also, a little bit of encouragement can go a long way. If nothing else, a bit of
optimism from an adult can serve as an antidote to the constant criticism of teenagers in the press.
What, then, can we as parents do to help them? The best thing is to forget all the advice that your
parents gave you, and step into your teenagers shoes. Once you’ve done that, it’s easier to see how
important it is that they learn how to be independent, resourceful and resilient. Give them the courage
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to follow their dreams -however odd they might sound right now. In a world that offers economic
security to almost no one, imagination is a terrible thing to waste.
Question 43. What is the writer’s attitude to the changing job market?
A. It is a challenge that must be faced.
B. It had made too many people unemployed.
C. It is something that young people are afraid of.
D. It has had a negative effect on education.
Question 44. How does the writer think the global economy has affected the employment market?
A. Workers have to be willing to change jobs.
B. Workers are unlikely to receive a pension.
C. It has made workers less dependable.
D. It has made work more adventurous.
Question 45. The writer uses the phrase “aware of the pitfalls” to show that young people_____
A. feel that modern jobs are too flexible B. know about the problems of modern jobs
C. don’t think they get enough training D. accept that they will be made redundant
Question 46. What kind of employment would teenagers like to have?
A. A job similar to their parents. B. A job that gives them fulfillment.
C. A job that can also be a hobby. D. A job with economic security.
Question 47. The writer feels that most parents________.
A. give their children good career advice
B. do not tend to be particularly ambitious
C. have very traditional views about work
D. have realistic goals for their children
Question 48. How can parents help their children?
A. By trying to think the way they do B. By learning to be courageous
C. By ignoring advice given by others D. By becoming more independent
Question 49. What does the writer believe about her guidance counsellors?
A. That they should have treated her better. B. That the advice they gave was wrong
C. That they were in some ways right. D. That they had tried to ruin her career.
Question 50. What does the writer feel will happen if the education system does not change?
A. Young people will be discouraged from working.
B. Young people will receive mover criticism in the press,
C. Young people will be unable to fulfill their potential.
D. Young people will not be optimistic about their future.
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TEST 7
Question 1. A. scholarship B. architect C. cherish D. chorus
Question 2. A. honest B. honor C. vehicle D. height
Question 3. A. private B. protect C. reform D. regard
Question 4. A. policeman B. eyewitness C. copyright D. dressmaker
Question 5. Our line of designer clothing is more expensive than________of our competitor.
A. this B. those C. that D. their
Question 6. The boat was sailing north when a terrible storm_________.
A. was breaking B. would break C. had broken D. broke
Question 7. It ________ that neither the passengers nor the driver was injured in the crash
A. was announced B. is announcing C. is announced D. was announcing
Question 8. After ________ goodbye to her friends, she got onto the bus.
A. to be said B. being said C. having said D. said
Question 9. It’s high time we ________ these mice.
A. are getting rid of B. are going to get rid of
C. get rid of D. got rid of
Question 10. The lady ____ design had been chosen stepped to the platform to receive the award.
A. whom B. whose C. that D. which
Question 11. Professor Smith explained the lecture slowly____________.
A. as soon as his students understood it clearly
B. so that his students can understand it clearly
C. unless his students fail to understand it clearly
D. so that his students could understand it clearly
Question 12. Put all the toys away ____________ someone slips and falls on them.
A. provided that B. unless C. in case D. so long as
Question 13. The interviews with parents showed that the vast majority were _______ of teachers.
A. support B. supportive C. supporter D. supporting
Question 14. Some ____________ animals become tame if they get used to people.
A. wild B. domestic C. endangered D. rare
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Question 15. She made a big ____________ about not having a window seat on the plane.
A. fuss B. complaint C. interest D. excitement
Question 16. After the robbery of the bank, the police ____________ of the robbers and arrested
the whole band.
A. kept pace B. took notice C. made use D. kept track
Question 17. After a good night sleep he woke up feeling as fresh as ____________ and eager to
start work again.
A. fruit B. a daisy C. a kitten D. a maiden
Question 18. Bill seems unhappy about his job because he doesn’t get ____________ his boss.
A. up to B. on for C. on well with D. in with
Question 19. If I wasn’t been wearing the seatbelt, I’d have been seriously injured.
A. wasn’t B. wearing C. I’d D. seriously injured
Question 20. The receptionist said I must fill in that form before I attended the interview.
A. The B. I must C. that form D. attended
Question 21. They had a discussion about training not only the new employees but also giving them
some challenges.
A. about B. training not only C. giving D. some changes
Question 22. Mary exclaimed that the singer’s voice was so sweet.
A. “How sweet is the singer’s voice?” said Mary.
B. “What a sweet voice the singer has” said Mary.
C. “How sweet voice the singer is” said Mary.
D. “What a sweet voice the singer is” said Mary.
Question 23. Without skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
A. But for skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
B. With skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
C. Had it not been for skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
D. He wouldn’t have survived the operation if it hadn’t been for skillful surgery.
Question 24. The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
A. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.
B. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.
D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.
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Question 25. Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her
performance
A. However much Laura practiced playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
B. As soon as Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better
C . Had Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
D. Hardly had Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her performance.
Question 26. The boy lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers. The doctors are operating
on him.
A. The boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers is being operating on.
B. The boy whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
C. The boy was whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of
firecrackers.
D. The doctors are operating on the boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
Question 27. Bill and Jerry are in a coffee shop.
- Bill: “Can I get you another drink.”
- Jerry: “____________”
A. No, it isn’t B. Not just now C. No, I’ll think it over D. Forget it
Question 28. Mary and her son are in the kitchen.
- Mary: “Watch out or you’ll hurt yourself!”
- Son: “____________”
A. Yes, I won’t do that again B. That’s a good idea
C. Thank you! D. I totally agree with you.
Question 29. The game of life is a lot like football. You have to tackle your problems, block your fears,
and score your points when you get the opportunity.
A. have B. take C. gain D. fulfill
Question 30. Because of a piece of paper in the soup bowl, the old lady raised a ballyhoo about it at
the restaurant.
A. made a fuss B. appeased C. applauded D. complained
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Question 31. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a
lot of prizes.
A. advantage B. obstacle C. barrier D. disadvantage
Question 32. She told him she’d spent all her savings but he didn’t bat an eyelid.
A. didn’t tell anything B. showed surprise
C. didn’t care D. refused to listen
Tattooing is an old art. Tattooing is an old art. In ancient Greece, people who had tattoos were (33) __
as members of the upper classes. On the other hand, tattooing was banned in Europe by the early
Christians, (34) ____ thought that it was a sinful thing to do. It was not (35) ____ the late 18th century,
when Captain Cook saw South Sea Islander decorating their bodies with tattoos that attitudes began to
change. Sailors came back from these islands with pictures of Christ on their backs and from then on,
tattooing gained (36) _____ popularity. A survey by the French army in 1881 showed that among the
387 men questioned there were 1,333 designs.
Nowadays, not everybody finds tattoos acceptable. Some people thing that getting one is silly because
tattoos are more or less permanent. There is also some (37) _____ about catching a blood disease from
unsterilized needles. Even for those who do want a tattoo, the process of getting one is not painless, but
the final result, in their eyes, is worth the pain.
Question 33. A. supposed B. realized C. held D. regarded
Question 34. A. who B. that C. they D. whose
Question 35. A. by far B. since C. because D. until
Question 36. A. at B. on C. in D. of
Question 37. A. danger B. trouble C. concern D. threat
Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is well
placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the brightest of the planets
apart from Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter’s less than 10 -hour
rotation period gives it the shortest day in the solar system in so far as the principal planets are
concerned. There are no true seasons on Jupiter because the axial inclination to the perpendicular of the
orbital plane is only just over 3°-less than that for any other planet.
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The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red spot. It has shown variations in both intensity and
color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At its greatest extent it
may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area is greater than that of
Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in longitude. Over the past
century the total longitudinal drift has amounted to approximately 1200°. The latitude is generally very
close to -22°. It was once thought that the Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid body floating in
Jupiter’s outer gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager results have refuted that idea and proven the
Red Spot to be a phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity may well due to its exceptional
size, but there are signs that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be permanent. Several smaller red
spots have been seen occasionally but have not lasted.
Question 38. According to the passage, which planet typically shines the most brightly?
A. Earth B. Jupiter C. Venus D. Mars
Question 39. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ____________
A. Jupiter B. The Great Red Spot C. intensity D. color
Question 40. The word "exceptional" in paragraph 2 mostly means____________
A. extreme B. sustainable C. temporary D. infrequent
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Jupiter is bigger than all other planet in the solar system
B. A day in Jupiter is nearly 10 hours long
C. The Red Great Spot moves more vertically than horizontally
D. Scientists have proof showing that smaller red spots are increasing their size to become other Great
Red Spots.
Question 42. The passage was probably taken from_______.
A. an art journal B. a geology magazine
C. a high school textbook D. an archaeology book
Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New York
Yankees in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally in 1951 to his last
year in 1968, baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For many people, Mantle
symbolized the hope, prosperity, and confidence of America at that time.
Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-handed and left-
handed. He won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his team. He was a
wonderful athlete, but this alone cannot explain America’s fascination with him. Perhaps it was
because he was a handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor miner from Oklahoma. His
career, from the lead mines of the West to the heights of success and fame, was a fairy-tale version of
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the American dream. Or perhaps it was because America always loves a “natural”: a person who wins
without seeming to try, whose talent appears to come from an inner grace. That was Mickey Mantle.
But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems. He played
without complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He lived to fulfill his father’s dreams and drank
to forget his father’s early death.
It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the liver and
accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned away from his old life
and warned young people not to follow his example, the destructive process could not be stopped.
Despite a liver transplant operation that had all those who loved and admired him hoping for a
recovery, Mickey Mantle died of cancer at the age of 63.
A. Mickey Mantle’s success and his private life full of problems
B. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time
C. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball
D. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player
Question 44. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Mantle____________
A. introduced baseball into the US
B. earned a lot of money from baseball
C. had to try hard to be a professional player
D. played for New York Yankees all his life
Question 45. The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. Mantles being fascinated by many people
B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athlete
C. Mantles being a “switch-hitter”
D. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player
Question 46. The word “fulfill” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. achieve what is hoped for, wished for, or expected
B. do something in the way that you have been told
C. do what you have promised or agreed to do
D. get closer to something that you are chasing
Question 47. Which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of Mantle’s
body?
A. His way of life B. His loneliness
C. His own dream D. His liver transplant operation
Question 48. The word “cirrhosis” in paragraph 4 probably means____________
A. a danger B. an operation C. the destruction D. a serious disease
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Question 49. All of the following are true about Mantle EXCEPT____________ .
A. He was born into a poor family but later achieved fame and success
B. He was so severely addicted to alcohol that he couldn’t give it up to the last days of his life
C. He could hit with the bat on either side of his body
D. His father’s early death exerted a negative influence on him.
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans____________.
A. success in Mantle’s career was difficult to believe
B. Mantle had a lot of difficulty achieving fame and success
C. success in Mantle’s career was unnatural
D. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good player.
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TEST 8
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
Question 1. A. whispered B. wandered C. sympathized D. sentenced
Question 2. A. compile B. facile C. facsimile D. textile
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. carpet B. country C. idea D. volume
Question 4. A. familiar B. uncertainty C. impatient D. arrogantly
Question 5. I demand to know how this vase_____________, and no one is leaving till I find out.
A. got broken B. was breaking C. has broken D. is broke
Question 6. The more you practice speaking in public, _____________.
A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently
C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become
Question 7. It is said the Robinhood robbed _____________ rich and gave the money to poor.
A. a/ a B. a/ the C. the/ the D. the/ a
Question 8. Not only _____________ among the largest animals that ever lived, but they are also
among the most intelligent.
A. some whales B. they are whales C. whales D. are whales
Question 9. _____________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. Intelligent as was the boy B. As intelligent the boy was
C. As the boy was intelligent D. Intelligent as the boy was
Question 10. There is no excuse for your late submission! You _____________ the report by last
Monday.
A. should have finished B. mightn’t have finished
C. needn’t have finished D. must have finished
Question 11. My parents lent me the money. _____________, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.
A. Therefore B. Otherwise C. Only if D. However
Question 12. The biologists have found more than one thousand types of butterflies in the forest,
_____________its special characteristics.
A. each one has B. which has C. each having D. having
Question 13. John is feeling _____________ because he hasn’t had enough sleep recently.
A. irritate B. irritation C. irritably D. irritable
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Question 14. Jenny has an _____________ command of Japanese cuisine.
A. intensive B. utter C. impressive D. extreme
Question 15. why are you always so jealous _____________ other people?
A. in B. of C. below D. on
Question 16. The head teacher has asked me to take the new boy under my _____ and look after him.
A. sleeves B. arm C. wing D. cloak
Question 17. The online game “Dumb ways to die” quickly ______ with young people after being
released in 2013.
A. took on B. caught up C. caught on D. took up
Question 18. Just think! Next month you’ll be _____ and it seems like only yesterday you were a baby.
A. in your teens B. in your teenage C. teenager D. at your teens
Question 19. The children are extremely excited about the visit to the town where their grandparents
were born in.
A. about B. were C. where D. the town
Question 20. Chandler was shocked when his entire class seemed to come down with the same
imaginative disease.
A. was shocked B. entire class C. come down with D. imaginative disease
Question 21. Transgender people are denied the ability to join the armed forces due to discriminating
policies implemented by the government.
A. Transgender B. are denied C. armed forces D. discriminating
Question 22. “Please, let my child go!” she begged the kidnapper.
A. She begged the kidnapper to let her child to go.
B. She pleaded with the kidnapper to release her child.
C. She solemnly ordered the kidnapper to set her child free.
D. She pleaded the kidnapper to let her child go.
Question 23. Sometimes having professional assistance with your CV can increase your chance of
finding a job.
A. Having your CV professionally prepared determines whether you'll get the job or not.
B. The prospects for finding employment can possibly be enhanced by a professionally produced CV.
C. Having a professional help you with your CV is a sure way to find a job.
D. Without a professional CV, it is impossible to find a job
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Question 24. It seems to me that we’ve taken the wrong train.
A. The trained turned out to be not the one we were supposed to have taken.
B. There is no chance that we’ll catch the train that we’re supposed to.
C. I have a feeling that this train is not the one we should be on.
D. I wish we had been more careful and taken the right train from the station.
Question 25. She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of th e
country.
A. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.
B. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines.
C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines.
D. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines.
Question 26. They are my two sisters. They aren’t teachers like me.
A. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters aren’t teachers.
B. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.
C. They are my two sisters, neither of whom is teacher like me.
D. They are my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.
Question 27. Tony and Bob are talking in their classroom.
Tony: “We are buying Lily a graduation present.” - Bob: “_____________”
A. She’s out of my league. B. Can you all be more down-to-earth?
C. I’m raking in money now. D. Could I chip in?
Question 28. Mai and Joey are talking about their favorite pastimes.
Joey: “What sort of things do you like doing in your free time?” - Mai: “_____________”
A. I love checking out the shops for new clothes.
B. None. Been starved since 9 yesterday.
C. I hate shopping.
D. Nothing special. Just some photos I took on the trip to Nepal.
Question 29. Some operations may have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.
A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse
Question 30. The natives were angry when foreigners came to their country and took over their land.
A. migrants B. tourists C. members D. locals
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Question 31. Later a wine reception will be followed by a concert before guests tuck into a banquet.
A. a formal party B. a formal conference
C. an informal party D. an enormous breakfast
Question 32. The nominating committee always meet behind closed doors, lest its deliberations
become known prematurely.
A. dangerously B. safely C. privately D. publicly
Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (33) _______up about 10 percent of the population -
but, frankly, it seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all of the right -handed
gadgets, awkwardly designed desks, and cooking tools that fit comfortably only in your right hand,
what (34) _______someone to become a lefthand? Scientists aren’t exactly sure, but research points to
a complex (35) _______between genes and environment.
While no exact set of “leftie genes” have been discovered, people who dominantly use their left hands
do have more left-handed family members. And researchers have found different brain wirings in
righties vs. lefties. But no matter (36) ______it is that drives someone to use their antipodal paw,
science has also uncovered a particular set of personality traits that lefthanded people tend to have. So
for all of you lefties, leftie-loving righties, and ambidextrous folks out there - it’s time to brush up on
your left-handed knowledge and help (37) _______an end to leftie discrimination once and for all.
Question 33. A. consist B. account C. hold D. make
Question 34. A. causes B. makes C. gets D. does
Question 35. A. collaborate B. collaboration C. collaborating D. collaborated
Question 36. A. which B. who C. what D. that
Question 37. A. put B. bring C. make D. take
Trees are useful to man in three very important ways: they provide him with wood and other
products, they give him shade, and they help to prevent drought and floods.
Unfortunately, in many parts of the world man has not realized that the third of these services is
the most important. In his eagerness to draw quick profit from the trees, he has cut them down in large
numbers, only to find that without them he has lost the best friends he had.
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Two thousand years ago a rich and powerful country cut down its trees to build warships, with
which to gain itself an empire. It gained the empire but, without its trees, its soil became hard and poor.
When the empire fell to pieces, the country found itself faced by floods and starvation.
Even though a government realizes the importance of a plentiful supply of trees, it is difficult for
it to persuade the villager to see this. The villager wants wood to cook his food with, and he can earn
money by making charcoal or selling wood to the townsman. He is usually too lazy or too careless to
plant and look after trees. So unless the government has a good system of control, or can educate the
people, the forests will slowly disappear.
This does not only mean that there will be fewer trees. The results are even more serious. For
where there are trees their roots break the soil up, allowing the rain to sink in and also bind the soil, thus
preventing it being washed away easily, but where there are no trees, the soil becomes hard and poor. The
rain falls on hard ground and flows away on the surface, causing floods and carrying away with it the rich
topsoil, in which crops grow so well, when all the topsoil is gone, nothing remains but a worthless desert.
Question 38. In the writer's opinion, _____________, or the forests slowly disappear.
A. people shouldn't draw benefit from the tree
B. measures must be taken
C. government must realize the serious results
D. unless trees never be cut down
Question 39. The word “bind” in the passage probably means___________
A. to make wet B. to wash away C. to make stay together D. to improve
Question 40. In the last two paragraphs the writer wanted to make it clear that________
A. where there are no trees, the soil becomes hard and poor
B. where there are no trees, the land might become desert slowly
C. where there are many trees, there are fewer floods
D. floods will make the land become desert
Question 41. It’s a great pity that in many places________
A. man is not eager to make profits from trees
B. man hasn’t found out that he has lost all trees
C. man hasn’t realized the importance of trees to him
D. man is only interested in building empire
Question 42. Trees are useful to man mainly in three ways, the most important of which is that they
can ______
A. keep him from the hot sunshine B. make him draw quick profit from them
C. enable him to build warships D. protect him from drought and floods
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PERCEPTIONS OF ANIMALS ACROSS CULTURES
When living and working in another country, there are numerous things to consider apart from the
more obvious ones of climate, language, religion, currency, etc. Some important considerations are less
obvious. For example, do you have a pet or do you enjoy a hobby such as horse riding? Your animal or
hobby may be perceived in a completely different light in another culture so it’s important to consider the
significance given to specific animals in different parts of the world and general perceptions towards
them.
One example which is often mentioned in popular press is the case of dogs. In some cultures, like
the US or UK, dogs are loved and considered a great pet to have at home and with the family. In other
cultures, such as those where Islam is the majority religion, dogs may be perceived as dirty or dangerous.
Muslims treatment of dogs is still a matter of debate amongst Islamic scholars, while these animals are
widely considered by many Western cultures to be “mans best friend”, the Koran describes them as
“unhygienic”. Muslims will therefore avoid touching a dog unless he can wash his hands immediately
afterwards, and they will almost never keep a dog in their home.
In Iran, for instance, a cleric once denounced “the moral depravity” of dog owners and even
demanded their arrest. If you are an international assignee living and working in Saudi Arabia or another
Arabic country, you should remember this when inviting Arab counterparts to your house in case you
have a dog as a pet. This is just one example of how Islam and other cultural beliefs can impact on
aspects of everyday life that someone else may not even question. A Middle Eastern man might be very
surprised when going to Japan, for instance, and seeing dogs being dressed and pampered like humans
and carried around in baby prams!
Dogs are not the only animals which are perceived quite differently from one culture to another. In
India, for example, cows are sacred and are treated with the utmost respect. Conversely in Argentina, beef
is a symbol of national pride because of its tradition and the high quality of its cuts. An Indian working in
Argentina who has not done his research or participated in a cross cultural training programme such as
Doing Business in Argentina may be surprised at his first welcome dinner with his Argentinean
counterparts where a main dish of beef would be served.
It is therefore crucial to be aware of the specific values assigned to objects or animals in different
cultures to avoid faux-pas or cultural misunderstandings, particularly when living and working in another
culture. Learning how people value animals and other symbols around the world is one of the numerous
cultural examples discussed in Communicaid’s intercultural training courses. Understanding how your
international colleagues may perceive certain animals can help you ensure you aren’t insensitive and it
may even provide you with a good topic for conversation.
(Source: https. //www.communicaid.com)
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Question 43. What does the author suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Talking about different perceptions with others will help you overcome insensitivity.
B. To avoid cultural shocks, people should not live or work in another culture.
C. It’s important to value the objects or animals in different countries before going there.
D. Understanding different perceptions of animals will help you avoid faux-pas in another nation.
Question 44. According to paragraph 2, which sentence is INCORRECT?
A. The dog is a typical example of different views in the world about animals.
B. Dogs are well-treated and loved in the US and UK.
C. Muslims are those considering dogs as their best pets at home.
D. People whose religion is Islam don’t like having dogs in their home.
Question 45. The word “unhygienic” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to____________
A. unhealthy B. undependable C. unreliable D. unacceptable
Question 46. What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. you are an international assignee
B. you are having a dog as pet
C. a cleric once denounced the moral depravity of dog owners and even demanded their arrest
D. you are living and working in Saudi Arabia or another Arabic country
Question 47. The author mentioned “cows” in paragraph 4 as an example of______________
A. the animals that are differently perceived in numerous cultures
B. sacred animals in Argentina
C. a symbol of a nation for its high quality of nutrients
D. which may cause surprise for Argentinian people at dinner
Question 48. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Perceptions of animals across cultures
B. What should be learnt before going to another country
C. Dogs and different beliefs in the world
D. Muslims and their opinions about animals
Question 49. The word “pampered” in the third paragraph could be best replaced by____________
A. indulged B. taken care of C. made up D. respected
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that______________
A. people will change their perceptions of animals when living in another culture
B. you should not be surprised if other counterparts consider your sacred animals as food
C. there are many things to research before going to live and work in another country
D. respecting other cultures is a good way to have a successful life abroad
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TEST 9
Question 1. A. chemistry B. Christmas C. machine D. headache
Question 2. A. honest B. honey C. hour D. heir
Question 3. A. digest B. cactus C. camel D. human
Question 4. A. compliment B. heartbroken C. labor-saving D. short-sighted
Question 5. I have bought a present for my brother, and now I need some_________.
A. paper wrapper B. wrap paper C. wrapped paper D. wrapping paper
Question 6. You _________ by my secretary next week.
A. will notify B. would notify C. will be notified D. is going to be notified
Question 7. Her boyfriend is said _________ in the army two years ago.
A. to have served B. to serve C. serving D. have served
Question 8. Nothing is ________ easy as it looks.
A. so B. such C. as D. that
Question 9. The local council recommended that John _________ to the head of the apartment.
A. is appointed B. was appointed C. be appointed D. could be appointed.
Question 10. _________ they've already made their decision, there's nothing much we can do.
A. Seeing that B. On grounds that C. Assuming that D. For reason that
Question 11. It was under the tree _________ he found the wallet he had lost before.
A. that B. whom C. who D. where
Question 12. Can I help you, sir?” - “I’m looking for a_________ table”
A. wooden round fashionable B. round wooden fashionable
C. wooden fashionable round D. fashionable round wooden
Question 13. The architects have made __________ use of glass and transparent plastic.
A. imaginative B. imagine C. imagination D. imaginatively
Question 14. I only tell my secrets to my_________ friend as she never reveals them to anyone.
A. creative B. enthusiastic C. trustworthy D. unrealizable
Question 15. Paul is a very _________ character, he is never relaxed with strangers.
A. self-conscious B. self-satisfied C. self-directed D. self-confident
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Question 16. I haven’t read any medical books or articles on the subject for a long time, so I’m
____________with recent developments.
A. out of reach B. out of condition C. out of touch D. out of the question
Question 17. He was wearing very shabby, dirty clothes and looked very____________.
A. easy- going B. down to earth C. out of shape D. down at heel
Question 18. Attempts must be made to _______ the barriers of fear and hostility which divide the two
communities.
A. break down B. set up C. get off D. pass over
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
Question 19. Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.
A. inappropriate B. it C. because D. the
Question 20. For its establishment, ASEAN Tourism Association has played an important role in
promoting and developing ASEAN Tourism services.
A. Tourism Association B. played
C. in promoting and developing D. For its
Question 21. Sleeping, resting and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold.
A. juice B. best ways C. Sleeping D. to drink
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
Question 22. “I agree that I am narrow-minded,” said the manager.
A. The manager denied being narrow-minded.
B. The manager admitted being narrow-minded.
C. The manager refused to be narrow-minded.
D. The manager promised to be narrow-minded.
Question 23. A supermarket is more convenient than a shopping centre.
A. A shopping centre is not as convenient as a supermarket.
B. A shopping centre is more convenient than a supermarket.
C. A supermarket is not as convenient as a shopping centre.
D. A supermarket is as inconvenient as a shopping centre.
Question 24. It was a mistake for Tony to buy that house.
A. Tony couldn’t have bought that house.
B. Tony can’t have bought that house.
C. Tony needn’t have bought that house.
D. Tony shouldn’t have bought that house.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 25. Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at Johns birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 26. Their team performed excellently at the elimination tournament. They didn’t win
the trophy.
A. Subsequent to their performance at the elimination tournament, they were afraid to win the trophy
excellently.
B. Were it not for their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they wouldn’t have won
the trophy.
C. Despite their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they didn’t win the trophy.
D. Because they didn’t win the trophy, their performance at the elimination tournament was however
excellent.
Question 27. Sue and Anne are talking about their future plans.
Sue: “I am not interested in the idea of taking a gap year and going backpacking in Nepal.”
Anne: “ Well,_____________.”
A. I am B. help yourself C. neither do I D. that’s life
Question 28. Two students are chatting in the corridor after class.
Tim: “ We should make a slide show for our history presentation next week.”
Laura: “_____________”
A. Sorry, I have to check my diary. B. That’s exactly what I was going to say.
C. I’d love to but I just can’t now. D. That’s true. I understand how you feel.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
Question 29. Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. essential B. informative C. invented D. exciting
Question 30. Please stop making that noise! It really gets on my nerves.
A. cheers me up B. wakes me up C. annoys me D. amuses me
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Question 31. One is supposed to expend far more energy in marathon run than expected.
A. exhaust B. spend C. consume D. reserve
Question 32. The information you have got is actually off the record, so be careful if you intend to use
it for publication.
A. private B. official C. confidential D. important
Amy Tan was born on February 19th, 1952 in Oakland, California. Tan grew up in Northern
California, (33) _________ when her father and older brother both died from brain tumors in 1966, she
moved with her mother and younger brother to Europe, where she attended high school in Montreux,
Switzerland. She returned to the United States for college. After college, Tan worked as a language
development consultant and as a corporate freelance writer. In 1985, she wrote the story "Rules of the
Game" for a writing workshop, which laid the early (34) _________ for her first novel The Joy Luck
Club. Published in 1989, the book explored the (35) _________ between Chinese women and their
Chinese-American daughters, and became the longest-running New York Times bestseller for that year.
The Joy Luck Club received numerous awards, including the Los Angeles Times Book Award. It has
been translated into 25 languages, including Chinese, and was made into a major motion picture for
(36) ________ Tan co-wrote the screenplay. Tan's other works have also been (37) ________ into
several different forms of media.
Question 33. A. however B. moreover C. so D. but
Question 34. A. preparation B. base C. source D. foundation
Question 35. A. relate B. relative C. relationship D. relatively
Question 36. A. whom B. that C. what D. which
Question 37. A. adjoined B. adapted C. adjusted D. adopted
The first thing to do when you have a trip abroad is to check that your passport is valid. Holders of
out-of-date passports are not allowed to travel overseas. Then you can prepare for your trip. If you don't
know the language, you can have all kinds of problems communicating with local people. Buying a
pocket dictionary can make a difference. You'll be able to order food, buy things in shops and ask for
directions. It's worth getting one. Also there's nothing worse than arriving at your destination to find
there are no hotels available. The obvious way to avoid this is to book in advance. This can save you
money too. Another frustrating thing that can happen is to go somewhere and not know about important
sightseeing places. Get a guide book before you leave and make the most of your trip. It's a must.
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Then, when you are ready to pack your clothes, make sure they are the right kind. It's no good
packing sweaters and coats for a hot country or T-shirts and shorts for a cold one. Check the local
climate before you leave.
Also, be careful how much you pack in your bags. It's easy to take too many clothes and then not
have enough space for souvenirs. But make sure you pack essentials, what about money? Well, it's a
good idea to take some local currency with you but not too much. There are conveniently located cash
machines (ATMs) in most big cities, and it's usually cheaper to use them than change your cash in
banks. Then you'll have more money to spend. When you are at your destination, other travellers often
have great information they are happy to share. Find out what they have to say. It could enhance your
travelling experience.
(Adapted from Pearson Test of English General Skills)
A. Things to avoid when you go abroad B. Tips for Travellers Overseas
C. The benefits of travelling D. How to find ATMs in big cities
Question 39. According to the passage, you should do all of the following before leaving
EXCEPT__.
A. taking money from an ATM B. making sure of the validity of your passport
C. preparing suitable clothes D. getting a guide book
Question 40. The word "This" in paragraph 1 refers to_____.
A. finding are no hotels to stay at B. saving money
C. booking in advance D. asking for directions
Question 41. According to the passage, holders of out-of-date passports__________.
A. have to show an ID instead when they travel
B. cannot travel to other countries
C. should ask for help from local people
D. may have their passports renewed in any country.
Question 42. The word “essentials” in paragraph 4 mostly means____________.
A. everything B. valuables C. necessities D. food
correct answer to each of the questions from 43-50.
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View
a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the
time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a
stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right
one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live.
Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
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Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin
by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and
surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel?
Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or co-operative work?” There are
no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you
require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of
importance to you. The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a
desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupations - building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent -
that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and
employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found
only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail
sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a c areer
by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries;
however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and
commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or
negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber
does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have m erits or
demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps,
whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get
mature, you will likely to develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities.
The choice you make today need not be your final one.
Question 43. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to ______
A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
Question 44. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
Question 45. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by____________.
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
Question 46. According to paragraph 2, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person
who does not want to live in a big city?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
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Question 47. Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job
EXCEPT_______
A. Your likes and your dislikes B. The atmosphere at work
C. Geographical location D. Your strengths and weaknesses
Question 48. In paragraph 3, the author suggests that ____________
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
Question 49. The word “grueling” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ____________.
A. tiring and hard B. relaxing C. painful D. enjoyable
Question 50. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant.
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
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TEST 10
Question 1. A. wisdom B. minor C. lively D. wildness
Question 2. A. hatred B. naked C. knocked D. sacred
Question 3. A. ignite B. igloo C. dogsled D. asset
Question 4. A. domestic B. dormitory C. dogmatic D. deliberate
Question 5. “When is your math exam?” “Well, this time tomorrow I ___________ for it”.
A. will be sitting B. will sit C. will have been sitting D. sit
Question 6. The President mentioned pension reform and went on ___________ that he would reduce
unemployment figures.
A. adding B. add C. to be adding D. to add
Question 7. ___________you to be offered that job, would you have to move to another city?
A. Provided that B. Should C. Were D. Had
Question 8. I agree ___________ one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80km.
A. in B. of C. on D. for
Question 9. Up ___________ when it saw its master.
A. jumped the dog B. did the dog jump C. the dog jump D. does the dog jump
Question 10. ___________will be carried in the next space payload has not yet been announced to
the public.
A. It B. What C. When D. That
Question 11. ___________extremely bad weather in the mountains, we’re no longer considering
our skiing trip.
A. Due to B. Because C. Since D. Due to the fact that
Question 12. Having been selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the
International Convention, ___________.
A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him
C. the members congratulated him D. he gave a short acceptance speech
Question 13. The authorities have shown no signs of ___________to the kidnappers’ demands.
A. standing up B. bringing about C. getting down D. giving in
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Question 14. My main ___________ to the new motorway is that it will spoil the countryside.
A. objection B. object C. objective D. objecting
Question 15. Sue would suffer obesity if she couldn’t control her___________ overeating.
A. compulsive B. disastrous C. exhaustive D. unbearable
Question 16. After a six-year relation, Martha and Billy have decided to___________.
A. break the bank B. tie the knot C. turn the page D. make ends meet
Question 17. Most of the in this workshop do not work very seriously or productively.
A. tooth and nail B. rank and file C. eager beavers D. old hand
Question 18. A penalty shot is ___________ when a major foul is committed inside the 5-meter line.
A. prevented B. awarded C. committed D. ranged
Question 19. The train to Ho chi Minh city left at precisely 7 o’clock as usually, but the train to Ha Noi
capital left at half past six o’clock, which was exactly 20 minutes late.
A. exactly B. as usually C. which D. precisely
Question 20. Sam found it hard to concentrate on his work because the noise.
A. it B. concentrate C. work D. because
Question 21. Peacocks are among the most exotic birds in nature; its long tail feathers fan out to reveal
a profusion of vivid colors.
A. fan out B. its C. most exotic D. among
Question 22. It is not until a Vietnamese girl getting 18 years old that she is allowed to get
married legally.
A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
B. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
C. The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years.
D. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old.
Question 23. “I would be grateful if you could send me further information about the job.”, Lee
said to me.
A. Lee thanked me for sending him further information about the job.
B. Lee felt great because further information about the job had been sent to him.
C. Lee politely asked me to send him further information about the job.
D. Lee flattered me because I sent him further information about the job.
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Question 24. The workers only complain because of their unfair treatment.
A. Were the workers fairly treated, they wouldn’t complain.
B. The workers complain because their employees are unfair.
C. If the workers are treated fairly, they will not complain.
D. Are the workers treated fairly, they will not complain.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that a best combines
Question 25. He was overconfident. Therefore, he ruined our plan completely.
A. It was because his overconfidence that ruined our plan completely.
B. He was overconfident, which ruined our plan completely.
C. That he was overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
D. It was his overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
Question 26. He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the
mountain.
A. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain
D. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Question 27. - “Excuse me. Where's the parking lot?” - “___________”
A. You missed the turn. It's back that way.
B. Do you get lost? I do too.
C. You are going the wrong way. It's not here
D. Why do you ask me? I don't know.
Question 28. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.
- Hoa: "Why aren't you taking part in our activities?” “__________”
- Hai: "Yes, I can. Certainly!"
A. Shall I take your hat off?
B. Can you help me with this decoration?
C. Can I help you?
D. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?
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Question 29. I think we should tell Peter that the location of the picnic has been changed. Let’s put
him in the picture.
A. show him B. take his photo C. explain to him D. inform him
Question 30. Mike pretended to be sick, but I saw through his deception at once.
A. was used to B. got angry with C. got bored with D. was aware of
Question 31. You’re 25 years old, but you still haven’t cut the apron strings.
A. become independent B. bought a new house
C. relied on others D. started doing well
Question 32. Though built almost five hundred years ago, the church remained practically intact.
A. in perfection B. in completion C. in chaos D. in ruins
MODERN SCIENCE
It seems entirely natural to US that there are teams of scientists in universities and (33) _____
institutions around the world, attempting to discover the way the world works. (34) _____, it hasn’t
always been that way. Although the scientific method is now four or five hundred years old, th e ancient
Greeks, for example, believed that they could (35) _____ the cause of natural events just by the power
of thought.
During the 17th century, more and more people began to realize that they could test their
scientific ideas by designing a relevant experiment and seeing what happened. A lot of (36) ____was
made in this way by individual scientists. These men and women often worked alone, carrying out
research into many different areas of science, and they often received very little (37) _____ for their
hard work. At the start of the 20th century, though, it became clear that science was becoming more
complicated and more expensive. The individual scientists disappeared, to be replaced by highly
qualified teams of experts. Modern science was born.
Question 33. A. every B. whole C. other D. another
Question 34. A. However B. Accordingly C. Thus D. Besides
Question 35. A. solve out B. work out C. come out D. give out
Question 36. A. evolution B. progress C. movement D. development
Question 37. A. reward B. present C. gift D. prize
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Accidents do not occur at random. People eighty-five years of age and older are twenty-two
times likely to die accidentally than are children five to nine years old. The risk for native Americans is
four times that for Asian-Americans and twice that for white Americans or African-Americans. Males
suffer accidents at more than twice the rate of females, in part because they are more prone to risky
behavior. Alaskans are more than three times as likely as Rhode Islanders to die in an accident. Texans
are twenty- one times more likely than New Jerseyites to die in a natural disaster. Among the one
hundred most populous counties, Kern County, California (Bakersfield), has an accident fatality rate
three times greater than Summit County, Ohio (Akron).
Accidents happens more often to poor people. Those living in poverty receive inferior medical
care, are more apt to reside in houses with faulty heating and electrical systems, drive older cars with
fewer safety features, and are less likely to use safety belts. People in rural areas have more accidents
than city or suburban dwellers because farming is much riskier than working in a factory or office and
because emergency medical services are less readily available. These two factors - low income and
rural residence - may explain why the south has a higher accident rate than the north.
Question 38. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Children aged five to nine face the greatest accident risk.
B. All people face an equal risk of having an accident.
C. One in every 22 people aged 85 and over will die in an accident.
D. The risk of having an accident is greater among certain groups of people.
Question 39. The word “inferior” in the passage is closest in meaning to___________.
A. modern B. low-quality C. well-equipped D. unsafe
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following groups of people in America face
the highest risk of having an accident?
A. Native Americans B. Asian-Americans
C. White Americans D. African-Americans
Question 41. What does the word “that” in the passage refer to___________?
A. males B. native Americans
C. the risk D. African-Americans
Question 42. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for a higher accident rate
among the poor?
A. Little knowledge about safety.
B. Inadequate medical services.
C. Poor housing and working conditions.
D. Use of cars which incorporate fewer safety features.
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correct answer to each of the following questions.
The concept of being environmentally conscious, or “green”, has become more prevalent in
twenty first-century U.S culture. It has begun to affect the manufacturing of everything from non- toxic
household cleaning products to motor vehicles powered by alternative sources of energy. However, o ne
way of being “green” that is perhaps not as apparent to the viewer but of equal importance in being
environmentally conscious, is the construction of buildings that are considered “sustainable”.
Sustainable buildings are those that do not impose on the environment or rely on the over-utilization of
energy or natural resources. There are four main principles of sustainability, which includes
consideration of the health and stability of all living things and their environmental diversity, as well as
the economic opportunities of humanity.
Sustainable architecture consists of environmentally conscious design techniques. In the past,
the demolition of an old building meant that all or most of the debris of the building would end up in a
landfill or a waste disposal site. Today, architects can plan and design a building that uses recycled
materials, such as wood, concrete, stone, or metal. These materials are salvaged from the demolition of
an older building and can be appropriately incorporated into a new construction. Architects and
construction supervisors may also choose to recycle more organic parts of demolished buildings, such
as wooden doors, windows and other glass, ceramics, paper, and textiles.
A problem that has often arisen has been with how a site crew-whether it is demolition or
construction crew determines and sorts what is “waste” and what is recyclable. Architects and
environmental scientists have to decide whether or not a material is appropriate for use in new
construction and how it will impact the environment. They must evaluate the materials from the
demolition and determine what those materials contain, and if they meet the standards set by the U.S,
government’s Environmental Protection Agency (the EPA). If the debris from the demolition contains
hazardous materials that are harmful to the environment or to the consumer, such as asbestos, then the
material is not salvageable. Use of the asbestos for insulation and as a form of fire retardation in
buildings and fabrics was common in the nineteenth century. Asbestos was once used in shingles on the
sides of buildings, as well as in the insulation in the interior walls of homes or other construction. In
new “green” construction, insulation that once asbestos- based can be replaced with recycled denim or
constructed with cellulose-a fibrous material found in paper products. The same-assessment applies to
wood or wallboard painted with toxic lead-based paints. In addition, gas-flow regulators and meters on
both water and gas heating systems constructed prior to 1961 must be carefully evaluated to determine
that they do not contain dangerous substances such as mercury. Mercury can be harmful to humans and
the environment if it is spilled during the removal of these devices.
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Question 43. The word “prevalent” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. rare B. unusual C. widespread D. valuable
Question 44. In paragraph 1, the author implies that___________.
A. some companies manufacture vehicles that are not powered by gasoline
B. the concept of being green has not influenced manufacture
C. uses of alternative energy are apparent to the consumer
D. all buildings impose on the environment
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true?
A. All construction follows the concept of sustainable architecture.
B. Sustainable buildings do not overuse electricity, oil, or gas.
C. Today’s cleaning products and appliances harm the environment.
D. Construction of “green” buildings is an old idea.
Question 46. In paragraph 2, the word “salvaged” is closest in meaning to___________.
A. lost B. destroyed C. buried D. saved
Question 47. According to paragraph 2, environmentally conscious design incorporates_____.
A. safe, organic, recycled materials B. new wood, stone, or concrete
C. debris from a demolished building D. materials from a landfill
Question 48. In paragraph 3, the author mention both demolition and construction crews in order
to ____
A. give an example of how choosing materials is not easily determined on a site
B. illustrate the types of crews that sort waste and recyclables
C. demonstrate that choosing recyclable materials is challenging for both crews
D. contrast the work of the two types of crews on a site
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. the EPA
B. the site crew
C. architects and environmental scientists
D. the materials from the demolition
Question 50. In paragraph 3, the author mentions all of the following hazardous materials found
in a debris from a demolition site EXCEPT___________.
A. cellulose B. mercury C. asbestos D. lead
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TEST 11
Question 1. A. climate B. examine C. invitation D. interview
Question 2. A. society B. geography C. dry D. sandy
Question 3. A. dismiss B. destroy C. display D. district
Question 4. A. entertain B. candidate C. referee D. afternoon
Question 5. When Bill got home, his children _____________ in the yard.
A. will be playing B. were playing C. are playing D. played
Question 6. Did you manage _____________ the book you were looking for?
A. to find B. found C. finding D. find
Question 7. That cannot be a true story. He _____________ it up.
A. must have made B. should have made
C. would have made D. can have made
Question 8. Beethovens Fifth Symphony _____________ next weekend.
A. is going to be performed B. has been performed
C. will be performing D. will have performed
Question 9. She said that when she _____________ to school, she saw an accident
A. had been walking B. has walked C. was walking D. has been walking
Question 10. She wanted Tom, _____________ she liked, as a partner, but she got Jack, She
didn’t like.
A. whom/ whose B. whose/ whom C. whose/ whose D. whom/ whom
Question 11. Scarcely _____________ out of bed when_____________
A. had I got/ did the doorbell ring B. had I got/ the doorbell rang
C. I had got/ did the doorbell ring D. I had got/ the doorbell rang
Question 12. I think he will join us, _____________?
A. won’t he B. don’t I C. will not he D. do not I
Question 13. For more than 10 years, we have seen the significant _____________ in the economy
of our country.
A. develop B. developments C. developers D. developed
Question 14. The _____________ load for this car is one ton.
A. top B. max C. peak D. height
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Question 15. Most modern office _____________ includes facsimile machines, photocopiers and
telephone systems.
A. device B. tool C. equipment D. instrument
Question 16. I just took it _____________ that he’d always be on time.
A. into consideration B. easy C. into account D. for granted
Question 17. That’s exactly what I mean, Tom. You’ve_____________!
A. put your foot in it B. killed two birds with one stone
C. put two and two together D. hit the nail on the head
Question 18. My car is getting unreliable. I think I’ll trade it _____________ for a new one.
A. off B. away C. in D. up
Question 19. I visited Mexico and United States last year.
A. visited B. Mexico C. United States D. last year
Question 20. Yesterday he said he regretted not to have gone to the exhibition last week.
A. yesterday B. said C. regretted D. not to have gone
Question 21. Minh’s mother would sooner not to meet her friend in person than phone her.
A. sooner B. not to meet C. in person D. than
Question 22. Friendly though he may seem, he’s not to he trusted.
A. He’s too friendly to be trusted.
B. However he seems friendly, he’s not to be trusted.
C. He may have friends, but he’s not to be trusted.
D. However friendly he seems, he’s not to be trusted.
Question 23. The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 24. Calling Odyse is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It’s worth not calling Odyse since his phone is out of order.
B. It’s no use to call Odyse since his phone is out of order.
C. It’s useless call Odyse as his phone is out of order.
D. There is no point in calling odyse as his phone is out of order.
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Question 25. Randy doesn’t play rugby. Neither does Lucy
A. Neither Randy nor Lucy doesn’t play rugby. B. Neither Randy nor Lucy play rugby.
C. Neither Randy nor Lucy plays rugby. D. Either Randy or Lucy plays rugby.
Question 26. Nguyen Huu Kim Son broke the SEA Games record in the men’s 400-metre individual
medley event. He is very proud of it.
A. He is very proud of what he broke the SEA Games record.
B. He takes pride in breaking the SEA Games record.
C. He is interested in the SEA Games record.
D. He is very proud of he broke the SEA Games record.
Question 27. This situation happened in a restaurant
- Customer: “Excuse me!”
- Waiter: “Yes, sir. How can I help you?”
- Customer: “I don’t want to make a scene but there’s a fly in my soup.”
- Waiter: “_____________”
A. I’m so sorry! I will get you another one.
B. What can I do to help?
C. You are right. I will get you another one.
D. You could be right but I don’t think it is a fly.
Question 28. Alice and Mary have just finished watching a movie.
- Alice: “Endgame is such a wonderful movie”
- Mary: “_____________”
A. I couldn’t agree more. B. I don’t like your saying.
C. I didn’t say anything. D. I’m a huge fan of Marvel.
Question 29. One of the biggest issues that many victims of negligent behavior encounter is difficulty in
determining whether or not an action had foreseeable consequences.
A. predictable B. unpredictable C. ascertainable D. computable
Question 30. We’re really close friends but we just cannot see eye to eye on politics.
A. not see well B. not share the same views about
C. not understand D. not care for
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Question 31. The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase the
precision of the sampling procedure.
A. inaccuracy B. exactness C. insecurity D. flexibility
Question 32. Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of the time
just before the check-in counter closed.
A. in a terrible condition B. with all out luggage
C. at the very last moment D. with much time to spare
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps
foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously, thus
teaching people how to (33) ______ their way through different systems. It therefore brings people into
touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to
others that say a teacher or agriculturalist or nurse would have, (34) _______ they do have many skills
that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can be
harnessed for the benefit of their fellow human beings, and ultimately themselves. From (35) ________
this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are involved is (36) _______.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (37) ______ have shown an ability to work as part
of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be desirable
qualities in any employee.
Question 33. A. give B. work C. put D. take
Question 34. A. so B. but C. or D. for
Question 35. A. all B. none C. above D. both
Question 36. A. unattainable B. immeasurable C. undetectable D. impassible
Question 37. A. which B. whose C. who D. what
Insects’ lives are very short and they have many enemies, but they must survive long enough to
breed and perpetuate their kind. The less insect-like they look, the better their chance of survival. To
look "inedible" by imitating plants is a way frequently used by insects to survive. Mammals rarely
imitate plants, but many fish and invertebrates do.
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The stick caterpillar is well named. It is hardly distinguishable from a brown or green twig. This
caterpillar is quite common and can be found almost anywhere in North America. It is also called
"measuring worm" or "inchworm." It walks by arching its body, then stretching out and grasping the
branch with its front feet then looping its body again to bring the hind fed forward, when danger
threatens, the stick caterpillar stretches its body away from the branch at an angle and remains rigid and
still, like a twig, until the danger has passed.
Walking sticks, or stick insects, do not have to assume a rigid, twig-like pose to find protection:
they look like inedible twigs in any position. There are many kinds of walking sticks, ranging in size
from the few inches of the North American variety to some tropical species that may be over a foot
long, when at rest their front legs are stretched out, heightening their camouflage. Some of the tropical
species are adorned with spines or ridges, imitating the thorny bushes or trees in which they live.
Leaves also seem to be a favorite object for insects to imitate. Many butterflies can suddenly disappear
from view by folding their wings and sitting quietly among the plants that they resemble.
A. Caterpillars that live in trees
B. The feeding habits of insects
C. How some insects imitate plants to survive
D. Insects that are threatened with extinction
Question 39. Which of the following does the word “enemies” in line 1 refer to?
A. plants looking like insects B. extreme weather conditions
C. creatures that eat insects D. insects looking like plants
Question 40. According to the passage, how does a stick caterpillar make itself look like a twig?
A. By holding its body stiff and motionless
B. By looping itself around a stick
C. By changing the color of its skin
D. By laying its body flat against a branch
Question 41. Which of the following is the antonym of the word “inedible” in paragraph 3?
A. eatable B. colorful C. beautiful D. moving
Question 42. How can butterflies make themselves invisible?
A. By hiding under the leaves
B. By disappearing from the view
C. By folding wings and sitting still among the leaves with similar colors
D. By flying among colorful flowers
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There are two basic types of glaciers, those that flow outward in all directions with little regard
for any underlying terrain and those that are confined by terrain to a particular path.
The first category of glaciers includes those massive blankets that cover whole continents,
appropriately called ice sheets. There must be over 50,000 square kilometers of land covered with ice
for the glacier to qualify as an ice sheet, when portions of an ice sheet spread out over the ocean, they
form ice shelves.
About 20,000 years ago the Cordilleran Ice sheet covered nearly all the mountains in southern
Alaska, western Canada, and the western United States. It was about 3 kilometers deep at its thickest
point in northern Alberta. Now there are only two sheets left on Earth, those covering Greenland and
Antarctica.
Any domelike body of ice that also flows out in all directions but covers less than 50,000 square
kilometers is called an ice cap. Although ice caps are rare nowadays, there are a number in northeastern
Canada, on Baffin Island, and on the Queen Elizabeth Islands.
The second category of glaciers includes those of a variety of shapes and sizes generally called
mountain or alpine glaciers. Mountain glaciers are typically identified by the landform that controls
their flow. One form of mountain glacier that resembles an ice cap in that it flows outward in several
directions is called an ice field. The difference between an ice field and an ice cap is subtle.
Essentially, the flow of an ice field is somewhat controlled by surrounding terrain and thus does not
have the domelike shape of a cap. There are several ice fields in the Wrangell. St. Elias, and Chugach
mountains of Alaska and northern British Columbia.
Less spectacular than large ice fields are the most common types of mountain glaciers: the
cirque and valley glaciers. Cirque glaciers are found in depressions in the surface of the land and have a
characteristic circular shape. The ice of valley glaciers, bound by terrain, flows down valleys, curves
around their corners, and falls over cliffs.
Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Where major glaciers are located
B. How glaciers shape the land
C. The different kinds of glaciers
D. How glaciers are formed
Question 44. The word “terrain” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by____________.
A. the seabed B. area of land C. countryside D. prairie
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Question 45. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ice sheets are so named because______
A. they are thicker in some areas than the others
B. they are identified by the landform that controls their flow
C. they cover large areas of land
D. they are confined to cirque glaciers
Question 46. According to the passage, where was the Cordilleran Ice Sheet thickest?
A. Alaska B. Antarctica C. Greenland D. Alberta
Question 47. According to paragraph 5, ice fields resemble ice caps in which of the following
ways?
A. Their flow B. Their texture C. Their location D. Their shape
Question 48. The word “subtle” in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by____________.
A. slight B. substantial C. regional D. obvious
Question 49. The word “their” in last paragraph refers to____________.
A. ice fields B. cirque glaciers C. valley glaciers D. valleys
Question 50. All of the following are alpine glaciers EXCEPT____________.
A. cirque glaciers B. ice caps C. ice fields D. Valley glaciers
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TEST 12
Question 1. A. theatre B. thunder C. therefore D. throughout
Question 2. A. apologizes B. invites C. roofs D. certificates
Question 3. A. sector B. lawyer C. workforce D. prefer
Question 4. A. diversity B. biography C. biology D. fundamental
Question 5. I don’t know much about computer, so I asked the assistant for ____________ advice.
A. a little B. many C. a few D. a lot
Question 6. You should know that everyone in this office ______ busy planning the dance for a week.
A. is B. has been C. are D. have been
Question 7. The children were made ______ up the mess they had left before they could watch TV.
A. clear B. to clear C. clearing D. cleared
Question 8. Most headaches ____________ with aspirin unless they are too severe.
A. can treat B. can be treating C. can be treated D. can treats
Question 9. I wish I _____ able to accept that role, but I was preparing for another play at the time.
A. were B. was C. had been D. have been
Question 10. Everyone thought she would accept the offer. ____, she turned it down immediately.
A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However D. Hitherto
Question 11. I would have cooked something special if I ____________ you were coming.
A. knew B. know C. have known D. had known
Question 12. Women have proved repeatedly that they are equal and often superior ____ men in almost
every field.
A. to B. than C. as D. over
Question 13. There is still widespread ____________ against older people in the job market.
A. discriminate B. discriminatory C. discrimination D. discriminating
Question 14. The arrested man is suspected of ____________ government funds for himself.
A. robbing B. appropriating C. appreciating D. confiscating
Question 15. It was hard to ____________ the temptation to watch the late-night show even though I
was so tired then.
A. defy B. resist C. refuse D. oppose
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Question 16. The company managed to beat the ____________on delivering its new system.
A. team B. other C. time D. clock
Question 17. Even though she had been studying hard, she had only a ___ chance of passing the exam.
A. slim B. narrow C. thin D. light
Question 18. I ran in a marathon last week, but I was not fit enough. I _____ after 15 kilometres.
A. dropped out B. moved in C. showed off D. closed down
Question 19. Keith had so interesting and creative plans that everyone wanted to work on his
committee.
A. wanted B. plans C. so interesting D. on
Question 20. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial
world.
A. in our large B. with C. many D. are
Question 21. A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to the same
idea.
A. sentences B. consists of C. to D. A paragraph
Question 22. Greater use of public transport would cut the amount of pollution from cars.
A. Were more people to use public transport, cars would stop releasing exhaust into the atmosphere.
B. If more people use public transport, it will cut the amount of pollution from cars.
C. If public transport was widely used, people would no longer suffer from pollution from cars.
D. If more people used public transport, there would be less pollution from cars.
Question 23. Mark delayed writing the book until he had done a lot of research.
A. Mark did a lot of research after he finished writing the book.
B. It was only when Mark had written the book that he did a lot of research.
C. Mark delayed writing the book as he had already done any research.
D. Only after Mark had done a lot of research did he begin to write the book.
Question 24. “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night
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Question 25. Lee gave up her job. She planned to continue her education.
A. Lee’s education was interrupted since she wanted to find a job.
B. Lee gave up her job with the aim at continuing her education.
C. Lee gave up her job in case she continued her education.
D. Lee gave up her job with a view to continuing her education.
Question 26. This is a rare opportunity. You should take advantage of it to get a better job.
A. You should take advantage of this rare opportunity, for which is to get a better job.
B. This is a rare opportunity what you should take advantage of to get a better job.
C. You should take advantage of this opportunity, that is rare to get a better job.
D. This is a rare opportunity that you should take advantage of to get a better job.
Question 27. Mark and Anne are talking after the class.
Mark: “Guess what? I’ve been recruited to be a member of Green Dream Volunteer Group.”
Anne: “____________”
A. Good luck next time!
B. That’s great! Congratulations!
C. That’s the least thing I could do for you.
D. It doesn’t make sense to me.
Question 28. Amy and Jacob are talking about the two-day excursion at the end of the school year.
Amy: “You look so sad. ____________”
Jacob: “I couldn’t get my parents’ permission to stay the night away from home.”
A. Can you help me? B. How do you deal with it?
C. What should I do? D. what’s the problem?
Question 29. It was late at night, the wind was howling and when she heard the knock on the door, she
almost jumped out of her skin.
A. was surprised B. was asleep C. was terrified D. was delighted
Question 30. Wild animals use various methods to ward off predators and their natural enemies.
A. rebel B. befriend C. deter D. attack
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Question 31. We should grow more trees so that they can absorb more carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere.
A. take in B. emit C. consume D. cut off
Question 32. We have achieved considerable results in the economic field, such as high economic
growth, stability and significant poverty alleviation over the past few years.
A. eradication B. aggravation C. prevention D. reduction
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution (33) ____ is as complicated as it is serious. It is
complicated because much pollution is caused by things that benefit people. (34) ______, exhaust from
automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But the automobile provides transportation for
millions of people. Factories discharge much of the material that pollutes the air and water b ut factories
give (35) _____ to a large number of people.
Thus, to end or greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to (36) _______ using many
things that benefit them. Most people do not want to do that, of course. But pollution can be grad ually
reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can work to find ways to lessen the amount of
pollution that such things as automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws
(37) _____ require businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.
Question 33. A. event B. accident C. work D. problem
Question 34. A. As a result B. However C. Therefore D. For example
Question 35. A. employed B. employment C. unemployed D.unemployment
Question 36. A. start B. stop C. enjoy D. continue
Question 37. A. whom B. that C. whose D. who
By adopting a few simple techniques, parents who read to their children can considerably increase
their children's language development. It is surprising, but true. How parents talk to their children
makes a big difference in the children's language development. If a parent encourages the child to
actively respond to what the parent is reading, the child's language skills increase.
A study was done with two or three-year-old children and their parents. Half of the thirty children
participants were in the experimental study; the other half acted as the control group. In the
experimental group, the parents were given a two-hour training session in which they were taught to
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ask open-ended questions rather than yes-no questions. For example, the parent should ask, "What is
the doggy doing?" rather than, "Is the doggy running away?" Experimental parents were also instructed
how to expand on their children's answer, how to suggest alternative possibilities, and how to praise
correct answers.
At the beginning of the study, the children did not differ on levels of language development, but at the
end of one month, the children in the experimental group were 5.5 months ahead of the control group
on a test of verbal expression and vocabulary. Nine months later, the children in the experimental group
still showed an advance of 6 months over the children in the control group.
Question 38. Parents can give great help to their children's language development by ___ them.
A. responding to B. reading to C. adopting D. experimenting
Question 39. What does the word "they" in the second paragraph refer to?
A. Participants B. Children C. Questions D. Parents
Question 40. During the training session, experimental parents were taught to_________.
A. use yes-no questions B. study many experiments
C. ask open-ended questions D. give correct answers
Question 41. What was the major difference between the control group and the experimental one
in the study?
A. The number of participants. B. The books that were read.
C. The age of the children. D. The training that parents received.
Question 42. What conclusion can be drawn from this passage?
A. Children who read actively always act six months earlier than those who don't.
B. The more children read, the more intelligent they become.
C. Two or three-year-old children can be taught to read actively.
D. Children's language skills increase when they are required to respond actively.
The elements other than hydrogen and helium exist in such small quantities that it is accurate to say
that the universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium by weight and somewhat less than 75
percent hydrogen.
Astronomers have measured the abundance of helium throughout our galaxy and in other galaxies as
well. Helium has been found in old stars, in relatively young ones, in interstellar gas, and in the distant
objects known as quasars. Helium nuclei have also been found to be constituents of cosmic rays that
fall on the earth (cosmic rays are not really a form of radiation; they consist of rapidly moving
particles of numerous different kinds). It doesn’t seem to make very much difference where the helium
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is found. Its relative abundance never seems to vary much. In some places, there may be slightly more
of it; in others, slightly less, but the ratio of helium to hydrogen nuclei always remains about the same.
Helium is created in stars. In fact, nuclear reactions that convert hydrogen to helium are responsible
for most of the energy that stars produce. However, the amount of helium that could have been
produced in this manner can be calculated, and it turns out to be no more than a few percent. The
universe has not existed long enough for this figure to be significantly greater. Consequently, if the
universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium now, then it must have been about 25 percent
helium at a time near the beginning.
However, when the universe was less than one minute old, no helium could have existed. Calculations
indicate that before this time temperatures were too high and particles of matter were moving around
much too rapidly. It was only after the one- minute point that helium could exist. By this time, the
universe had cooled so sufficiently that neutrons and protons could stick together. But the nuclear
reactions that led to the formations of helium went on for only relatively short time. By the time the
universe was a few minutes old, helium production had effectively ceased
Question 43. What does the passage mainly explain?

A. Why hydrogen is abundant.
B. How stars produce energy.
C. When most of the helium in the universe was formed.
D. The difference between helium and hydrogen.
Question 44. According to the passage, helium is____________.
A. difficult to detect.
B. the oldest element in the universe.
C. the second-most abundant element in the universe.
D. the most prevalent element in quasars.
Question 45. The word “constituents” is closest in meaning to____________.
A. causes B. relatives C. components D. targets
Question 46. Why does the author mention “cosmic rays”?
A. To explain how the universe began.
B. As an example of an unsolved astronomical puzzle.
C. To explain the abundance of hydrogen in the universe.
D. As part of a list of things containing helium.
Question 47. The word “they” refers to____________ .
A. radiation B. constituents C. cosmic rays D. particles
Question 48. The word “vary” is closest in meaning to____________.
A. include B. mean C. stretch D. change
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Question 49. The creation of helium within stars ____________.

A. cannot be measured
B. produces hydrogen as a by-product
C. produces energy
D. causes helium to be much more abundant in old stars than in young stars
Question 50. Most of the helium in the universe was formed ____________ .
A. in a very short time
B. in interstellar space
C. before most of the hydrogen
D. during the first minute of the universes existence
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TEST 13
Question 1. A. stone B. zone C. phone D. none
Question 2. A. university B. unique C. unit D. undo
Question 3. A. release B. offer C. amaze D. believe
Question 4. A. classify B. flexible C. sensitive D. tomato
Question 5. The examination was not very difficult, but it was_____________ long.
A. so much B. too much C. very much D. much too
Question 6. Our industrial output _____________ from $2 million in 2002 to $4 million this year.
A. rises B. has risen C. was rising D. rose
Question 7. We had a lot of fun _____________ at the picnic.
A. to play B. playing C. played D. plays
Question 8. We _____________ to take a taxi. Otherwise we’ll be late for the meeting.
A. would rather B. had better C. must have D. will have
Question 9. Some film stars _____________ difficult to work with.
A. are said be B. are said to be C. say to be D. said to be
Question 10. the long jumper _____________ the pole-vaulter win the prize.
A. Both-and B. Neither-nor C. Either-or D. Not only-but also
Question 11. _____________restaurant you pick is fine with me.
A. Whichever B. Whenever C. whoever D. wherever
Question 12. Now the manager is no longer as indifferent _____________ criticism as he used to be.
A. against B. to C. towards D. with
Question 13. Does Mr. Mike bring his farm _____________ to the local market every day?
A. productively B. productive C. product D. produce
Question 14. In population growth Latin America _____________ first, Africa second, and Asia third.
A. places B. ranks C. numbers D. stands
Question 15. The referee _____________ the coin to decide which team would kick the ball first.
A. caught B. threw C. cast D. tossed
Question 16. Sorry for being late. I was ____________ in the traffic for more than an hour.
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
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Question 17. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a _____________ day.
A. windy B. rainy C. foggy D. snow
Question 18. “What I’ve got to say to you now is strictly _____________ and most certainly not for
publication” said the government to the reporter.
A. off the record B. for the time being
C. by the way D. on record
Question 19. The Canadian Shield is a huge, rocky region who curves around Hudson Bay like a giant
horseshoe.
A. a huge B. who C. around D. like
Question 20. Almost all of the people appeared on television wear makeup.
A. Almost B. of C. appeared D. wear
Question 21. The original World Cup trophy was given permanent to Brazil to honor that country’s
record third world cup title in Mexico in 1970.
A. The original World Cup trophy B. permanent
C. that country’s record D. in Mexico
Question 22. Studying all night is good for neither your grades nor your health.
A. Studying all night is good for your grades.
B. Studying all night does not help at all.
C. Studying all night is good for your health
D. Studying all night is helpful to you
Question 23. You should not keep bad company under any circumstances.
A. In no circumstances should you be friends with bad people.
B. Under no circumstances should you not keep bad company.
C. Under any circumstances shouldn’t you make friends with bad people.
D. In no circumstances should you keep your company because it is bad.
Question 24. Although he was disabled, he was quite confident the first time he practiced this sport.
A. Though a disabled boy, he was quite confident the first time he practiced this sport.
B. Though he was unable to walk, but the first time he practiced this sport, he was quite confident
C. In spite of being quite confident the first time he practiced this sport, he was disabled
D. He was quite confident when practicing this sport for the first time despite of a disabled boy.
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Mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
Question 25. My grandmother is very old. She can’t do the chores herself.
A. My grandmother is very old that she can’t do the chores herself.
B. My grandmother is too old to do the chores herself.
C. My grandmother is such old that she can’t do the chores herself.
D. My grandmother is too old to not do the chores herself.
Question 26. She turned the radio on at 7.30. She was still listening to it when her mother came
home at 9.30.
A. She had been listening to the radio at 7.30
B. She had been listening to the radio since 7.30
C. She had been listening to the radio after 7.30
D. She had been listening to the radio by 7.30
Question 27. Hana and Rina are talking about Lucy.
- Hanna: “Lucy has lost her purse somewhere this morning!”
- Rina: “_____________”
A. Tough luck B. Congratulations!
C. Never mind. D. I will take it for her
Question 28. Lucia wants to borrow his friends bike.
- Lucia: “Would you mind if I used your bike?”
- Friend: “_____________”
A. I don’t want to use your bike. B. Sure, go ahead.
C. Sorry, no, I won’t do it. D. Please accept it with my best wishes.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
Question 29. We had never experienced such discourtesy towards the elderly as it occurred at this
center
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
Question 30. Just by coincidence, I met my old classmate after 20 years.
A. sight B. surprise C. chance D. luck
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Question 31. His thoughtless comments made her very angry.
A. kind B. honest C. thoughtful D. pleasant
Question 32. I could not see what she was doing. It was so dark there.
A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from
The story of gold is an adventure involving kings, queens, pirates, explorers, conquerors, and the
native people they conquered. Throughout history, gold has (33) ______ a magic spell over those it
touched. Gold is beautiful and rare; a soft shiny metal that can be moulded into many shapes. It has
been used for money, jewelry, and to decorate special buildings such as palaces and places of worship.
(34) _______ the precious metal was discovered, prospectors rushed to mine it, starting new cities and
countries as they went. Gold and the people who love it have helped shape the world we live in today.
Gold is one of many elements, or substances that cannot be changed by normal chemical means, that
are found in the Earth's crust. Gold has a warm, sunny color and (35) _____ it does not react with air,
water, and most chemicals, its shine never fades. In its natural (36) _______, gold is soft and easily
shaped, when heated to 1,062 Celsius it melts and can be poured (37) _______ moulds to form coins,
gold bars, and other objects. Stories have been told, movies made and legends born about the discovery
of the world's great gold deposits. It is a saga of dreams, greed, ambition and exploration.
Question 33. A. knitted B. folded C. woven D. sewn
Question 34. A. Whoever B. However C. Wherever D. Whatever
Question 35. A. despite B. because C. yet D. so
Question 36. A. position B. size C. condition D. shape
Question 37. A. into B. forward C. with D. at
Tsunami is a Japanese word which means harbor wave and is used as the scientific term for seismic
sea wave generated by an undersea earthquake or possibly an undersea landside or volcanic eruption,
when the ocean floor is tilted or offset during an earthquake, a set of waves is created similar to the
concentric waves generated by an object dropped into the water. Most tsunamis originate along the
Ring of Fire, a zone of volcanoes and seismic activity, 32,500 km long that encircles the Pacific Ocean.
Since 1819, about 40 tsunamis have struck the Hawaiian Islands.
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A tsunami can have wavelengths, or widths, of 100 to 200 km, and may travel hundreds of kilometers
across the deep ocean, reaching speeds of about 725 to 800 kilometres an hour. Upon entering shallow
coastal waters, the wave, which may have been only about half a metre high out at sea, suddenly grows
rapidly. When the wave reaches the shore, it maybe 15 m high or more. Tsunamis have tremendous
energy because of the great volume of water affected. They are capable of obliterating coastal
settlements.
Tsunamis should not be confused with storm surges, which are domes of water that rise underneath
hurricanes or cyclones and cause extensive coastal flooding when the storms reach land. Storm surges
are particularly devastating if they occur at high tide. A cyclone and accompanying storm surge skilled
an estimated 500,000 people in Bangladesh in 1970. The tsunami which struck south and southeast Asia
in late 2004 killed over 200 thousand people.
Question 38. What does the word “concentric” in paragraph 1 mean?

A. wavy B. having many centres
C. having a common centre D. a ring
Question 39. What is the greatest speed of tsunami travelling across the deep ocean?
A. 200 kilometres an hour B. 700 kilometres an hour
C. 800 kilometres an hour D. 150,000 kilometres an hour
Question 40. How are tsunami capable of obliterating coastal settlements?
A. They have tremendous energy due to the great volume of water affected.
B. They are a metre high or more.
C. They travel hundreds of kilometres
D. They can strike the shore fifteen metres high
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Tsunami only occurs in Asia
B. A cyclone along with storm surges happened in Asia in 1970.
C. Storm surges are domes of water rising underneath hurricanes or cyclones.
D. Storm surges cause extensive coastal flooding.
A. Where tsunamis originate.
B. Damage caused by tsunamis.
C. Facts about tsunamis.
D. How tremendous the energy of a tsunami is.
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There are many theories of aging, but virtually all fall into the category of being hypotheses with a
minimum of supporting evidence. One viewpoint is that aging occurs as the body's organ systems
become less efficient. Thus failures in the immune system, hormonal system, and nervous system could
all produce characteristics that we associate with aging. Following a different vein, many current
researchers are looking for evidence at the cellular and sub cellular level.
It has been shown that cells such as human fibroblasts (generalized tissue cells) grown in culture
divide only a limited number of times and then die. (Only cancer cells seem immortal in this respect).
Fibroblast cells from an embryo divide more times than those taken from an adult. Thus some
researchers believe that aging occurs at the cellular level and is part of the cell's genetic makeup. Any
event that disturbs the cell's genetic machinery such as mutation, damaging chemicals in the cell's
environment, or loss of genetic material, could cause cells to lose their ability to divide and thus bring
on aging. Other theories of aging look at different processes. Chronological aging refers to the passage
of time since birth and is usually measured in years. While chronological age can be useful in
estimating the average status of a large group of people, it is a poor indicator of an individual person's
status because there is a tremendous amount of variation from one individual to the next in regard to the
rate at which biological age changes occur. For example, on the average, aging results in people losing
much of their ability to perform strenuous activities, yet some elderly individuals are excellent
marathon runners.
Another type of aging is cosmetic aging, which consists of changes in outward appearance with
advancing age. This includes changes in the body and changes in other aspects of a person's
appearance, such as the style of hair and clothing, the type of eyeglasses, and the use of a hearing aid.
Like chronological aging, it is frequently used to estimate the degree to which other types of aging have
occurred. However, it is an inaccurate indicator for either purpose because of variation among
individuals and because a person's appearance is affected by many factors that are not part of aging,
including illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight
Question 43. What is the best title for this passage?

A. Different Processes of Aging
B. Outstanding Characteristics Associated with Aging
C. Theories of Aging: Well Proven Hypotheses
D. Theories of Aging: Poorly Supported Hypotheses
Question 44. The author points out that cancer cells_____________
A. seem to live forever B. divide and then die
C . divide more in embryos than in adults D. lose their ability to divide
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Question 45. The phrase “an embryo” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. a descendant B. an infant C. a parent D. an internal organ
Question 46. The word “strenuous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. basic B. troublesome C. mental D. intense
Question 47. As explained in this passage, the theory of aging which examines the cellular level
would NOT assign which of the following as a cause of aging?
A. Mutation B. Deterioration into the body’s immune system
C. Loss of genetic material D. Chemical damage from the environment
Question 48. According to the passage, chronological aging is not a good indicator of an
individual’s status regarding aging because _______ .
A. elderly people are often athletic
B. there is individual variation in the rate of biological aging
C. strenuous activities are not good measures of age
D. it is difficult to get accurate records of birth dates
Question 49. In the last paragraph, the word “this” refers to_____________
A. cosmetic aging B. type of aging C. outward appearance D. advancing age
Question 50. The author implies all of the following about cosmetic aging EXCEPT ________
A. It does not occur at the same rate for all people
B. It is a poor indicator of chronological age
C. Illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight cause aging to occur
D. It is described by changes in outward appearance
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TEST 14
Question 1. A. dinner B. distribute C. mine D. begin
Question 2. A. factory B. satisfy C. ability D. easy
Question 3. A. diverse B. desert C. sector D. willing
Question 4. A. volunteer B. Vietnamese C. expedition D. sociable
Question 5. We need _____________ money to send our son to Oxford University.
A. a large sum of B. a few of C. many D. lot of
Question 6. Only after she had finished the course did she realize she _____________ a wrong choice.
A. had made B. has made C. had been making D. was making
Question 7. Tom denied _____________ part in the fighting at school.
A. to take B. take C. to taking D. taking
Question 8. I _____________ buy that book because I didn’t bring any money with me.
A. can’t B. couldn’t C. may not D. must
Question 9. Two people are said _____________ in the accident two weeks ago.
A. to get hurt B. got hurt C. to have got hurt D. to have been got hurt
Question 10. John, along with twenty students, _____________ a party
A. plan B. have planned C. is planning D. are planning
Question 11. _____________ really surprised all of us
A. That he can speak Vietnamese very well
B. He can speak Vietnamese very well
C. It is he can speak Vietnamese very well
D. The fact is he can speak Vietnamese very well
Question 12. The students are expected to stick _____________ their school’s regulation.
A. in B. at C. to D. by
Question 13. Many species of plants and animals are in _____________ of extinction.
A. dangerous B. endangered C. danger D. dangerously
Question 14. The wine had made him a little _____________ and couldn’t control his movement.
A. narrow-minded B. light-headed C. light-footed D. light-hearted
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Question 15. Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be _____________ to health.
A. crucial B. supportive C. receptive D. destructive
Question 16. Thomas knows Paris like the back of his_____________. He used to be a taxi driver there
for 2 years.
A. head B. mind C. hand D. life
Question 17. We are _____________ a survey to find out what our customers think of their local bus
service.
A. conducting B. researching C. corresponding D. investigating
Question 18. when the light_____________, we couldn’t see anything.
A. came off B. put out C. switched off D. went out
Mark A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 19. To everyone's surprise, it wasn't in Bristol which he made his fortune, although that’s
where he was born.
A. To B. surprise C. which D. made
Question 20. After spending two days arguing about where to go for their holidays, it was decided that
they shouldn’t go anywhere.
A. arguing B. for C. it was decided D. shouldn’t go
Question 21. Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience
in the film industry.
A. successful B. film directions C. former D. expand
meaning to each of the following sentences.
Question 22. "Do you believe in what the boy says, Mary?" said Tom.
A. Tom asked Mary if she believed in what the boy said.
B. Tom asked Mary to believe in what the boy said.
C. Tom asked Mary whether she believes in what the boy says.
D. Tom said that Mary believed in what the boy said.
Question 23. John is fat because he eats so many chips.
A. If John didn’t eat so many chips, he would not be fat.
B. John is fat though he eats so many chips.
C. Being fat, John eats so many chips.
D. If John doesn’t eat so many chips, he will not be fat.
Question 24. Refusal to give a breath sample to the police could lead to your arrest.
A. If you refused to be arrested, you have to give a breath sample.
B. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
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C. If a breath sample is not given, the police will refuse to arrest you.
D. The police could cause you to give a breath sample to decide whether to arrest you or not.
Question 25. People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in
the park.
A. People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park.
B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park.
Question 26. The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems.
C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problems.
D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.
Question 27. A student is asking the librarian to help her to fax a report.
Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?”
Librarian: “_____________”
A. Sorry, I have no idea.
B. It’s very kind of you to say so.
C. What rubbish! I don’t think it’s helpful.
D. Certainly, what’s the fax number?
Question 28. Anne is complaining about the noise from the next - door house.
Anne: “I can’t really stand the noise from the next-door house, especially after 10 p.m.”
Mary: “_____________. You should talk to your neighbor.”
A. Calm down, Anne. B. I’m sorry. I didn’t mean that.
C. I know what you mean. D. What a silly girl.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
Question 29. Tet marks the beginning of spring and, for agrarian people who depend on the lunar
calendar to manage their crops, the start of the year.
A. traditional ones B. minority people C. farmers D. old people
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Question 30. The government decided to pull down the old building after asking for the ideas from the
local resident.
A. renovate B. purchase C. maintain D. demolish
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in
Question 31. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a
lot of prizes.
A. difficulty B. barrier C. advantage D. disadvantage
Question 32. Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to
cooperate more in the future.
A. express disapproval of B. voice opinions on
C. find favor with D. resolve a conflict over
correct word for each of the blanks.
Parents whose children show a special interest in a particular sport have a difficult decision to (33)
_____ about their children’s career, should they allow their children to train to become top sportsmen
and women? For many children it means starting very young and school work, going out with fri ends
and other interests have to take second place. It’s very difficult to explain to a young child why he or
she has to train for five hours a day, even at the weekend, when most of his or her friends are playing.
Another problem is of course money. In many countries money for training is (34) ______ from the
government for the very best young sportsmen and women. If this help cannot be given, it means that it
is the parents that have to find the time and the money to support their child’s (35) _______ and sports
clothes, transport to competitions, special equipment etc. can all be very expensive.
Many parents are understandably concerned that it is dangerous to start serious training in a sport at
an early age. Some doctors agree that young muscles may be damaged by training before they are
properly developed. Professional trainers, (36) ______, believe that it is only by starting young that you
can reach the top as a successful sports person. What is clear is that very (37) ______ people reach the
top and both parents and children should be prepared for failure even after many years of training.
Question 33. A. do B. plan C. make D. prepare
Question 34. A. enough B. available C. possible D. enormous
Question 35. A. development B. develop C. developing D. developed
Question 36. A. furthermore B. in addition C. moreover D. however
Question 37. A. little B. many C. a few D. few
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Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
Paul Watson is an environmental activist. He is a man who believes that he must do something, not
just talk about doing something. Paul believes in protecting endangered animals, and he protects them
in controversial ways. Some people think that Watson is a hero and admire him very much. Other
people think that he is a criminal.
On July 16th, 1979, Paul Watson and his crew were on his ship, which is called the Sea Shepherd.
Watson and the people who work on the Sea shepherd were hunting on the Atlantic Ocean near
Portugal. However, they had a strange prey; instead of hunting for animals, their prey was a ship, the
Sierra. The Sea shepherd found the Sierra, ran into it and sank it. As a result, the Sierra never returned
to the sea. The Sea Shepherd, on the other hand, returned to its home in Canada. Paul Watson and his
workers thought that they had been successful.
The Sierra had been a whaling ship, which had operated illegally. The captain and crew of the Sierra
did not obey any of the international laws that restrict whaling. Instead, they killed as many whales as
they could, quickly cut off the meat, and froze it. Later, they sold the whale meat in countries where it
is eaten.
Paul Watson tried to persuade the international whaling commission to stop the Sierra. However, the
commission did very little, and Paul became impatient. He decided to stop the Sierra and other whaling
ships in any way that he could. He offered to pay $25,000 to anyone who sank any illegal whaling ship,
and he sank the Sierra. He acted because he believes that the whales must be protected. Still, he acted
without the approval of the government; therefore, his actions were controversial.
Paul Watson is not the only environmental activist. Other men and women are also fighting to p rotect
the Earth. Like Watson, they do not always have the approval of their governments, and like Watson,
they have become impatient. Yet, because of their concern for the environment, they will act to protect
it.
(Adapted from “Eco fighters” by Eric Schwartz, OMNI)
Question 38. According to the reading, an environmental activist is someone who _______.
A. runs into whaling ship.
B. does something to protect the Earth.
C. talks about protecting endangered species.
D. is a hero, like Paul Watson.
Question 39. When something is “controversial”, ________.
A. everyone agrees with it. B. everyone disagrees with it.
C. people have different ideas about it. D. people protect it.
Question 40. The Sea Shepherd was hunting _________.
A. the Atlantic Ocean B. whales C. the Sierra D. Portugal
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Question 41. The author implies that Paul Watson lives in __________.
A. Portugal B. a ship on the Atlantic
C. the Sierra D. Canada
Question 42. In paragraph 3, the word “it” refers to_____________.
A. whale meat B. the Sierra C. whales D. the Sierra crew
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer for
each of the blanks.
The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of Earth - is a vast
frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean
floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally
without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earths surface, the
deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the
void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the
first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the
beginning of the National Science Foundations Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques
first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP’s drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was
able to maintain a steady position on the ocean’s surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting
samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor. The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a
15-year research program that ended in November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000
kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites
around the world. The Glomar challenger’s core samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what
the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate what it will probably look like
millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glom ar
Challenger’s voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental
drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to
understanding the world’s past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching
back hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and
the intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past
climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change
- information that may be used to predict future climates.
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Question 43. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” because it_____________
A. is not a popular area for scientific research
B. contains a wide variety of life forms
C. attracts courageous explorers
D. is an unknown territory
Question 44. The word “inaccessible” is closest in meaning to_____________
A. unrecognizable B. unreachable C. unusable D. unsafe
Question 45. The author mentions “outer space” because_____________
A. the Earth’s climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space.
B. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment.
C. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor.
D. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean
exploration.
Question 46. Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?
A. It is a type of submarine. B. It is an ongoing project.
C. It has gone on over 100 voyages. D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.
Question 47. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was _____________
A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas
B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
C. composed of geologists from all over the world
D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry
Question 48. The word “they” refers to _____________
A. years B. climates C. sediments D. cores
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the
Deep Sea Drilling Project?
A. Geologists were able to determine the Earths appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.
C. Information was revealed about the Earth’s past climatic changes.
D. Geologists observed forms of marine life never seen before.
Question 50. How long did the Glomar Challenger conduct its research?
A. 3 years B. 5 years C. 15 years D. 16 years
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TEST 15
Question 1. A. announced B. evaluated C. enunciated D. demanded
Question 2. A. queue B. quarter C. quadruple D. questionnaire
Question 3. A. record B. mentor C. timber D. bother
Question 4. A. catastrophe B. millennium C. acknowledgement D. photograph
Question 5. Peter ordered a pizza and salad. _____ pizza was nice but _____ salad was disgusting.
A. A/a B. The/ ∅ C. ∅/∅ D. The/the
Question 6. Since the end of the war, the Government ______ over five thousand of prisoners.
A. have released B. released C. has released D. has been released
Question 7. The suspect was seen __________ the building by at least a dozen witnesses.
A. enter B. to entering C. entering D. entered
Question 8. The four men are widely believed __________ by their captors because their family did
not agree to pay the ransom.
A. to kill B. to have been killed
C. to have killed D. to be killed
Question 9. Having counted all the students on the bus, __________
A. the vehicle started moving B. the vehicle was driven
C. they were allowed to play D. the driver started to drive
Question 10. Many exam candidates lose marks simply ____ they do not read the questions properly.
A. because of B. because C. due to D. owing that
Question 11. What __________ to your family if you were to die in an accident?
A. happens B. would happen C. will happen D. happened
Question 12. Those Americans are looking for a place where they can exchange their dollars ________
pounds.
A. into B. to C. for D. with
Question 13. All attempts at __________ were stamped on by senior officials.
A. modernise B. modernizers C. modernisation D. modernizing
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Question 14. NATO has finally arrived at an important decision to __________ cruise missiles
in the battle.
A. employ B. deploy C. defeat D. withdraw
Question 15. The woman crying in front of the burning house has lost her most __________ possession
in the fire.
A. valued B. appreciated C. recognized D. prized
Question 16. The woman was confused about whether or not to __________ the pregnancy.
A. stop B. terminate C. eradicate D. dismiss
Question 17. His voice had a freshness that would make many tenors under the age of 40 go green
with__________.
A. jealousy B. hatred C. envy D. arrogance
Question 18. This band normally __________ their album with an instrumental track.
A. closes off B. closes up C. closes down D. closes out
Question 19. what was once a great and powerful empire have effectively ceased to be.
A. to be B. have effectively C. powerful D. was once
Question 20. One of the boys kept laughing, this annoyed Jane intensely.
A. this B. one of the boys C. intensely D. laughing
Question 21. I’m trying to cut down on diary product intake and it’s difficult because I adore cheese.
A. I adore cheese B. diary product intake
C. difficult D. trying to cut
Question 22. This country wouldn’t have much income without tourism.
A. Tourism is developing very quickly in this country.
B. Tourism development is going up in this country.
C. This country depends on its tourism for making its income.
D. In order to develop, this country invests into tourism.
Question 23. Many people were severely critical of the proposal for the new motorway.
A. There was severe criticism of the proposal for the new motorway.
B. The proposals for the new motorway was severely criticized.
C. There was the proposal for the new motorway, but many people were criticized.
D. Many people were severely criticized by the new motorway that was proposed.
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Question 24. There was no precedent for the President’s resignation in the country.
A. The President resigned in the country, which seemed strange.
B. Never before had any President resigned in the country.
C. That the President resigned becomes a scandal in the country.
D. Never before there was an event that President resigned in the country.
Question 25. His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in the
competition.
B. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn't do well in the
competition.
C. Such were his friends' support and encouragement that he couldn't do really well in the competition.
D. Had it not been for his friends' support and encouragement, he couldn't have done so well in the
competition.
Question 26. Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
B. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker,
C. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
D. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
Question 27. Tim: “__________”
Laura: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
C. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
Question 28. Tim: “Would you like to have dinner with me?” -
Steve: “__________.”
A. Yes, so do I B. Yes, it is C. Yes, I’d love to D. I’m very happy
Question 29. Within their home country, National Red Cross and Red Crescent societies assume the
duties and responsibilities of a national relief society.
A. get off B. take on C. go about D. put in
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Question 30.1 had tried to sketch an aspect of life that I had seen and known, and that was very well
indeed, and I had wrought patiently and carefully in the art of the poor little affair.
A. a nature B. a part C. a character D. an appearance
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
Question 31. She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.
A. broke B. wealthy C. kind D. poor
Question 32. He fell foul of me when I asked him to apologize to his teacher.
A. quarrelled with me B. made friends with me
C. attacked me D. showed appreciation for me
The wildlife of the Juan Fernandez Archipelago remained undisturbed until the arrival of European
settlers, who introduced their animals to the Islands. Amongst these were goats and cows to be bred for
meat and milk, but also rats and mice which had jumped ship. Cats later brought over to kill these pests
also quickly escaped into the (33) _____. Little did the settlers understand the impact this would have on
local species. The rabbits they'd brought over too, could not be held in captivity for long, and their
numbers rapidly expanded. But it was not just fauna that arrived but also (34) ______. Plants such as the
blackberry bramble flourished in the tropical climate and spread throughout the native forest.
In the past, the islands’ birds had no natural predators. Many therefore evolved to lay their eggs in ground
nests. This habit now makes them incredibly (35) _____ as rats and mice destroy their eggs and cats
devour the newly hatched chicks. Meanwhile grazing goats, rabbits and cows have turned once fertile
valleys into wasteland. One now rare tree species is known as the Luma, in which firecrown
hummingbirds nests. Today the Luma is being covered over by spiky blackberry brambles, the
hummingbird’s natural habitat is disappearing and the fear is that they will soon (36) ____________.
Conservationists from Chile and around the world are uniting to show the urgent need for preservation of
these islands' original and unique species. They know the best way to do this is to (37) __________ the
plants and animals that are alien species.
Question 33. A. landscape B. surroundings C. scenery D. wild
Question 34. A. crops B. flora C. vegetation D. weeds
Question 35. A. susceptible B. risky C. incapable D. vulnerable
Question 36. A. wipe out B. die out C. pass away D. go through
Question 37. A. ban B. abolish C. eradicate D. demolish
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TEENAGE FICTION
Teenagers have their own TV channels, websites and magazines. So, what about books? Last year one
publisher, Martins, started publishing a series called Waves. We spoke to the director Julia Smith. She
explained, “Teenage fiction has been published since the 1970s but publishers have never been
particularly successful in getting teenagers to buy and read books. Now they’re realizing that teenagers
aren’t just older children but they’re not adults either and often aren’t interested in adult fiction. For this
series we’re looking for new writers who write especially for teenagers.”
Athene Gorr’s novel was published in the series last year and is selling well. Its title is The Purple Ring,
she says, “The important thing is to persuade teenagers to pick up your book. I’m a new writer so,
although I’ve got an unusual name which people might remember, nobody knows it yet! But my book has
a fantastic cover which makes people want to look inside. Then they realize what a brilliant story it is!”
And what do teenagers themselves think about the series? We talked to Sophie Clarke, aged 15. She
said, “I’ve read a few books in the Waves series. They say they’re for 14 - 19 year-olds and I agree with
that. We’re not interested in the same things as people in their twenties and thirties. I like them and I think
they look really good too. The only thing is that because bookshops put them in the children’s section,
lots of teenagers won’t find them so they may not do very well. And it’s a shame there’s no non-fiction in
the series as I think lots of teenagers, especially boys, might buy that.”
Question 38. What is the writer trying to do?
A. give information about a new series of books
B. explain why teenager fiction is easier to write than adult fiction
C. persuade authors to write more teenager fiction
D. compare different series of teenager fiction
Question 39. Julia Smith says publishers now recognize that teenagers __________.
A. can enjoy the same kind of stories as adults
B. are more interested in reading nowadays
C. grow up more quickly nowadays
D. are neither children nor adults
Question 40. Athene Gorr thinks teenagers were attracted to her book because of __________
A. its cover B. the story C. its title D. her name
Question 41. What does Sophie Clarke say about the books in the Waves series?
A. They shouldn’t be kept with children’s books.
B. She would prefer to read adult fiction.
C. They will be bought by lots of teenagers.
D. She isn’t keen on the design.
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Question 42. Which of these paragraphs could be used to advertise the Waves series?
A. “This series is for all teenagers and those who are nearly teenagers, whether you’re 10 or 19, you’ll
find something here to please you.”
B. “Choose a book from the Waves series. It includes both fiction and non-fiction and is aimed at
teenagers aged 14+.”
C. “The Waves series has been popular with teenagers since the 1970s. This year we have added 20 new
writers to our list.”
D. “If you’re aged between 14 and 19, don’t miss the Waves series which has novels by new authors.”
SPORTS COMMENTARY
One of the most interesting and distinctive of all uses of language is commentary. An oral reporting of
ongoing activity, commentary is used in such public arenas as political ceremonies, parades, funerals,
fashion shows and cooking demonstrations. The most frequently occurring type of commentary may be
that connected with sports and games. In sports there are two kinds of commentary, and both are often
used for the same sporting event. “Play-by-play” commentary narrates the sports event, while “colour -
adding” or “colour” commentary provides the audience with pre-event background, during-event
interpretation, and post¬event evaluation. Colour commentary is usually conversational in style and can
be a dialogue with two or more commentators.
Play-by-play commentary is of interest to linguists because it is unlike other kinds of narrative, which
are typically reported in past tense. Play-by-play commentary is reported in present tense. Some examples
are “he takes the lead by four” and “she’s in position.” One linguist characterizes radio play-by-play
commentary as “a monologue directed at an unknown, unseen mass audience who voluntarily choose to
listen...and provide no feedback to the speaker.” It is these characteristics that make this kind of
commentary unlike any other type of speech situation.
The chief feature of play-by-play commentary is a highly formulaic style of presentation. There is
distinctive grammar not only in the use of the present tense but also in the omission of certain elements of
sentence structure. For example, “Smith in close” eliminates the verb, as some newspaper headlines do.
Another example is inverted word order, as in “over at third is Johnson.” Play-by-play commentary is
very fluent, keeping up with the pace of the action. The rate is steady and there is little silence. The
structure of the commentary is cyclical, reflecting the way most games consist of recurring sequences of
short activities---as in tennis and baseball---or a limited number of activity options---as in the various
kinds of football. In racing, the structure is even simpler, with the commentator informing the listener of
the varying order of the competitors in a “state of play” summary, which is crucial for listeners or
viewers who have just tuned in.
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Question 43. The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to?
A. commentary B. an ongoing activity
C. language D. sporting event
Question 44. Which of the following statement is true of colour commentary?
A. It narrates the action of the event in real time, using the present tense.
B. It is a monologue given to an audience that does not respond to the speaker.
C. It is steady and fluent because it must keep up with the action of the event.
D. It gives background on the event, and interprets and evaluates the event.
Question 45. How is play-by-play commentary distinct from other types of narrative?
A. It is not published in magazines. B. It involves only one reporter.
C. It is not spoken in past tense. D. It takes place after the event.
Question 46. Why does the author quote a linguist in paragraph 2?
A. To give examples of play-by-play commentary.
B. To show how technical sports commentary is.
C. To describe the uniqueness of radio play-by-play.
D. To criticize past trends in sports commentary.
Question 47. The word “pace” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to?
A. speed B. score C. cause D. plan
Question 48. The word “crucial” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to?
A. fascinating B. important C. confusing D. generous
Question 49. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most likely agrees with which of
the following statements about sports commentary?
A. Sports commentators should work hard to improve their grammar,
B. Sports commentators do not need special knowledge of the sport.
C. Colour commentary is more important than play-by-play commentary.
D. Commentary enhances the excitement and enjoyment of sports.
Question 50. What mainly makes play-by-play commentary special?
A. a highly formulaic style of presentation
B. the distinctive use of present tense
C. the omission of certain sentence elements
D. the inverted word order
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TEST 16
Question 1. A. expand B. stagnant C. vacancy D. applicant
Question 2. A. examine B. employ C. exact D. species
Question 3. A. attention B. financial C. guarantee D. courageous
Question 4. A. profit B. modern C. typhoon D. feature
Question 5. Some encyclopedias provide ___________ on specific fields such as music or philosophy.
A. information B. informations C. informing D. informativation
Question 6. This time last Friday, we ___________ to Moscow.
A. flew B. had flown C. were being flown D. were flying
Question 7. My boss expects the report ___________ on time.
A. to be completed B. to complete C. completing D. being completed
Question 8. The language centre offers courses of various levels, such as elementary, intermediate and
_____.
A. advance B. advancement C. advanced D. advancing
Question 9. ___________5 months for the fridge to be delivered, I decide to cancel the order.
A. Waiting B. Waited C. Having waited D. Had waited
Question 10. The clothes of my sister are more expensive ___________ of my mother.
A. than this B. than that C. than those D. than these
Question 11. In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye _____ with the interviewers.
A. link B. connection C. touch D. contact
Question 12. It is ___________ of businessmen to shake hands in formal meetings.
A. familiar B. typical C. ordinary D. common
Question 13. Yesterday, John told me that he wished he ___________ harder in high school then
university might not be so difficult for him.
A. studied B. would study C. had studied D. studies
Question 14. Peter was the last applicant ___________ by that interviewer.
A. to interview B. interviewing C. to be interviewing D. to be interviewed
Question 15. He fixed a metal ladder to the wall below his window _______ escape if there was a fire.
A. to B. not to C. so as not D. so that
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Question 16. He came ______ a lot of criticism for the remarks he made in a television interview.
A. in for B. over C. out of D. off
Question 17. Jane has never enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera. They are not really her ___.
A. piece of cake B. cup of tea C. biscuit D. chip off the old block
Question 18. I always get _____ in my stomach before visiting the dentist.
A. worms B. butterflies C. crabs D. mosquitoes
Question 19. The keynote speaker started with some complementary remarks about the organizers of
the conference, and then proceeded with her speech.
A. The keynote speaker B. complementary remarks
C. organizers D. proceeded
Question 20. when I got home, Irene lay in bed watching a blockbuster movie.
A. got home B. lay C. watching D. blockbuster
Question 21. The graduated assistant informed us that the first exam was the most difficult of the two.
A. graduated B. informed C. the first D. most difficult
Question 22. In Vietnam, football is more popular than basketball.
A. In Vietnam, basketball is not as popular as football.
B. In Vietnam, basketball is more popular than football.
C. In Vietnam, football is not as popular as basketball.
D. In Vietnam, football is as popular as basketball.
Question 23. It usually takes her an hour to drive to work.
A. She never spends an hour driving to work.
B. She used to drive to work in an hour.
C. She doesn’t usually drive to work in an hour.
D. She usually spends an hour driving to work.
Question 24. It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers’ lives.
A. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers’ lives thanks to modern farming
methods.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers’ lives.
C. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers’ lives.
D. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
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Question 25. We gain more knowledge about how to stay safe online. We worry about the threats
of cybercrime less.
A. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the less we worry about the threats of
cybercrime.
B. The more we stay online to gain safety knowledge, the less we worry about the threats of
cybercrime.
C. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the more we worry about the threats
of cybercrime.
D. The more we know about how to stay safe online, we worry about the threats of cybercrime less.
Question 26. The new contract sounds good. However, it seems to have some problems.
A. In spite of the fact that the new contract sounds good, it appears to have some problems.
B. In spite of its sound, the new contract appears to have some problems.
C. In order to get less problem, the new contract should improve its sound.
D. If it had much less problems, the new contract would sound better.
Question 27. Liz and Jenifer are talking about the gift Jenifer brought.
- Liz: “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to us!”
- Jenifer: “__________ ”
A. Not at all, don’t mention it.
B. Welcome! It’s very nice of you.
C. Alright! Do you know how much it costs?
D. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it.
Question 28. Ben has done something by accident.
- Ben: “___________”
- Jane: “Never mind”
A. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned
B. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday?
C. Thank you for being honest with me.
D. Congratulations! How wonderful!
Question 29. The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. cancelled B. changed C. delayed D. continued
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Question 30. The discovery of the new planet was regarded as a major breakthrough in astronomy.
A. promised B. doubted C. considered D. refused
Question 31. People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in the
disaster-stricken areas.
A. awareness B. uncertainty C. reluctance D. willingness
Question 32. Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.
A. puts off B. looks for C. attends to D. approves of
Back in the 1960s and 1970s, the world was becoming more aware of the destructive effects of
industry (33) __. The environment and people were starting to think seriously about ways of protecting
the environment. One man who was particularly affected by this subject was Gerard Morgan-Grenville.
As Morgan-Grenville travelled round earning his living as a gardener, he noticed signs of damage that
was being done to the countryside around him. It wasn’t long before Morgan-Grenville decided that he
had to do something about this situation. He felt that if people could be shown a better way of living
then maybe they would be interested enough to try to protect their (34) _______ environment.
Mr. Morgan-Grenville decided to set up a project (35) ___ would prove what was happening to our
surroundings and what could be done about it. So, in 1975, Morgan-Grenville created the Centre for
Alternative Technology (CAT) in a village in Wales.
The main aim of CAT is to search for an ecologically better way of living by using technology which
(36) _____ no harm to the environment. One of the most important things CAT did initially was to
explore and demonstrate a wide range of techniques and to point out which ones had the least
destructive results on the world around us. (37) ______, CAT provides information and advice to
people all over Britain and all over the world. If more and more individuals are informed about how
much damage our modern lifestyle is causing to the planet, maybe more of them would be prepared to
look for practical solutions to environmental problems.
Question 33. A. for B. to C. with D. on
Question 34. A. worthless B. valueless C. precious D. priceless
Question 35. A. that B. whose C. who D. this
Question 36. A. gets B. makes C. plays D. does
Question 37. A. Therefore B. However C. Moreover D. Although
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The custom of paying a bride price before marriage is still a well-established part of many
African cultures. In paying a bride price, the family of the groom must provide payment to the family of
the bride before the marriage is allowed. The bride price can vary greatly from culture to culture in
Africa. In the Zulu and Swazi tribes of southern Africa, the bride price often takes the form of cattle. In
Western African, kola nuts, shells, and other goods are often used for the payment of the bride pri ce.
The actual payment of money sometimes takes place, but the payment of goods is more frequent. The
amount of paid in a bride price can also vary. In modern times, the bride price is occasionally quite
small and its value is mainly symbolic. However, the bride price can still be quite high, especially
among prominent or highly traditional families.
There are a number of justifications used to explain the payment of bride price. The first is that
the bride price represents an acknowledgement of the expense the bride’s family has gone in order to
raise her and bring her up as a suitable bride for the groom. It also represents payment for the loss of a
family member, since the bride will officially become a member of her husband’s family and will leave
her own. On a deeper level the bride price represents payment for the fact that the bride will bring
children into the family of the groom, thereby increasing the wealth of the family. This concept is
reinforced by the fact that the bride price must often be returned if the bride fails to bear children.
The payment of the bride price has quite a number of effects on African society. First, the
payment of bride price acts to increase the stability of African family structures. Sons are dependent on
their fathers and older relatives to help them pay the bride price of their wives, and this generally leads
to greater levels of obedience and respect. The negotiations between the two families concerning the
bride price allow the parents and other family members to meet and get to know one another before the
marriage. Finally, since the bride price must often be repaid in case of divorce, the bride’s family often
works to make sure that any marital problems are solved quickly. Bride prices also work as a system of
wealth distribution in African cultures. Wealthier families can afford to support the marriage of their
son, and thus their wealth is transferred to other families.
Question 38. What is the topic of the passage?

A. The most common payments of the bride price in African cultures.
B. The effects of the practice of bride price on African society.
C. The practice of bride price in many African cultures.
D. The financial problems arising after marriage.
Question 39. The word “prominent” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to____________.
A. famous B. impoverished C. two-parent D. affluent
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Question 40. The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. Justification B. The expense of raising the bride
C. An acknowledgement D. The bride price
Question 41. It can be inferred from the paragraph 2 that____________.
A. After marriage, married women never see their parents again.
B. The family of the groom pays the bride price on the wedding day.
C. African society puts more value on men than women.
D. African families attach great importance to children.
Question 42. Which of the following statement is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. With the practice of paying the bride price, African men would not respect their family members.
B. The initial negotiations over the bride price provide opportunities for the two families to get to
know each other.
C. Animals are an acceptable form of payment when it comes to paying the bride price.
D. The bride’s family has to return the bride price to the groom’s in case the couple are unable to
have children or get divorced.
Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be trained programmer to work online. Of
course, there are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of
new media has opened up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level
of technical expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of
webmaster. However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications
and responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a webmaster to perform.
To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software
that the website the webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software
require different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running
internally (at the firm itself) or externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally, the
responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or
whether the firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can
create an accurate webmaster job description.
Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer
applications. However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high
demand. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new media”.
The term “new media” is difficult to define because it encompasses a constantly growing set of
new technologies and skills, specifically, it includes websites, email, Internet technology, CD -ROM,
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DVD, streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music,
computer illustration, video games, virtually reality, and computer artistry.
Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With
many companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting of
freelance workers online has become common business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool
of buyers from around the world with whom freelancers can contract their services. An added benefit to
such online jobs is that freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own
country of residence.
How much can a person make in these kinds of career? As with many questions related to
today’s evolving technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay
people with technical Internet skills salaries well above $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at
about $30,000 per year, but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been
known to make between $40,000 and $70,000 per year.
Question 43. What is the best title for this passage?

A. The definition of “new media” B. Internet jobs
C. The job of Webmasters D. People with Internet skills
Question 44. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of webmasters?
A. They work either independently or collaboratively.
B. The duties they perform stay almost unchanged.
C. Their jobs require a minimal level of expertise
D. They hardly support hardware and software products.
Question 45. The word “identity” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____________
A. find out B. pick up on C. come across D. look into
Question 46. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ____________.
A. websites B. tasks C. hardware and software D. skill sets
Question 47. Which of the followings is NOT true about the job of the freelance writers?
A. It may involve working with foreign companies.
B. It is considered a “content” job.
C. There is a high demand for traditional skills.
D. It requires deep knowledge of computer applications.
Question 48. The word “downsize” in paragraph 5 most likely means ____________.
A. dismiss workers B. decrease salary C. go bankrupt D. win new contracts
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Question 49. According to the passage, all of the followings are true EXCEPT ____________.
A. A basic job description for a webmaster is not easy to define.
B. A webmaster does not have to get himself updated with computer science.
C. “New media” does not encompass writing skills.
D. Online jobs for workers with basic computer skills are available.
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that ____________.
A. only well-trained workers are advised to work online.
B. online workers can work full-time online.
C. becoming a webmaster is really easy.
D. workers with limited computer skills cannot make good money.
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TEST 17
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the -word whose underlined part
Question 1. A. comb B. come C. dome D. home
Question 2. A. volunteer B. trust C. fuss D. judge
Question 3. A. sleepy B. trophy C. facial D. exact
Question 4. A. authority B. necessity C. academic D. commercially
Question 5. He was not offered the job because he knew ________ about Information Technology.
A. a little B. little C. many D. a few
Question 6. Graham was disappointed because he _________ for the bus for an hour.
A. was waiting B. waited C. has been waiting D. had been waiting
Question 7. Sally hoped __ to join the private club. She could make important business contacts there.
A. inviting B. being invited C. to invite D. to be invited
Question 8. ____________the homework, he was allowed to go out with his friends.
A. finishing B. finish C. to finish D. having finished
Question 9. The country is rapidly losing its workers as ____________ people are emigrating.
A. the most and the most B. the more and the more
C. more and more D. most and most
Question 10. It is absolutely essential that she _________ head office in advance.
A. arrive B. arrives C. will arrive D. must arrive
Question 11. We have just visited disadvantaged children in an orphanage ___ in Bac Ninh Province.
A. located B. locating C. which locates D. to locate
Question 12. Peter works hard at everything he does. His brother, ____________, seldom puts out
much effort.
A. on the other hand B. otherwise C. furthermore D. consequently
Question 13. John's ____________ and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales
Manager.
A. punctuality B. punctual C. punctuate D. punctually
Question 14. We truly respected our father and always ____________ by his rule.
A. submitted B. obeyed C. complied D. abode
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Question 15. We were quite impressed by the ____________ students who came up with the answer to
our question almost instantly.
A. absent-minded B. big-headed C. quick-witted D. bad-tempered
Question 16. I am sure your sister will lend you a sympathetic __ when you explain the situation to her.
A. eye B. ear C. arm D. finger
Question 17. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but he _______ to the
occasion wonderfully.
A. raised B. rose C. fell D. faced
Question 18. You looked exhausted. I think you’ve ____________ more than you can handle.
A. turned on B. taken up C. turned up D. taken on
Question 19. The more tired you are, the more hard you can concentrate.
A. more tired B. you are C. more hard D. concentrate
Question 20. The ocean probably distinguishes the earth from other planets of the solar system, for
scientists believe that large bodies of water are not existing on the other planets.
A. probably B. for C. are not existing D. from
Question 21. There were considerate amounts of money wasted on large building projects.
A. considerate B. amounts C. wasted D. building
Question 22. I thought I should not have stayed at home yesterday.
A. I regretted staying at home yesterday. B. I regretted for staying at home yesterday.
C. I regret for staying at home yesterday. D. I regret to stay at home yesterday.
Question 23. They don’t let the workers use the office telephone for personal calls.
A. They don’t allow using the office telephone to call personal secretaries.
B. They don’t allow workers to use the office telephone.
C. The office telephone is used by workers personally.
D. They don’t let the office telephone be used for personal purpose by workers
Question 24. “ You should have finished the report by now.” John told his secretary.
A. John reproached his secretary for not having finished the report.
B. John said that his secretary had not finished the report.
C. John reminded his secretary of finishing the report.
D. John scolded his secretary for not having finished the report.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
Question 25. He hadn’t eaten anything since morning. He took the food eagerly.
A. He took the food eagerly although he had eaten a lot since dawn.
B. He took the food eagerly for he had eaten nothing since dawn.
C. He had eaten nothing since dawn so that he took the food eagerly.
D. He took the food so eagerly that he had eaten nothing since dawn.
Question 26. Julie had a training course in alternative medicine. She was able to help the man out
of danger.
A. Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man out of
danger.
B. Having trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
C. But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of danger.
D. Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
Question 27. Maria and Diana are talking about the evening.
Maria: “ Thanks for the lovely evening”
Diana: “____________”
A. I’m glad you enjoyed it B. Oh, That’s right
C. No, it’s not good D. Yes, it’s really great
Question 28. Tom came late for the meeting with Barbara.
Tom: “ Sorry, I’m late. The traffic was terrible”
Barbara: “____________”
A. My pleasure B. Don’t worry.
C. I wish I could but I’m sorry D. Well, let me see.
Question 29. Since the death of Laura's father, her mother has become a breadwinner to support the
family.
A. a person who bakes bread every morning
B. a bakery-owner
C. a person who delivers bread to make money
D. a person who goes out to work to earn money
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Question 30. Peter is the black sheep of the family, so he is never welcomed there.
A. a beloved member B. a bad and embarrassing member
C. the only child D. the eldest child
Question 31. The loss of his journals had caused him even more sorrow than his retirement from the
military six years earlier.
A. grief B. joy C. comfort D. sympathy
Question 32. As a newspaper reporter, she always wanted to get information at first hand
A. indirectly B. directly C. easily D. slowly
correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
SPORTS IN SOCIETY
The position of sport in today's society has changed out of all recognition. People no longer
seem to think of sports as ‘just a game’ - to be watched or played for the (33) ____________ of
enjoyment. Instead, it has become big business worldwide. It has become accepted practice for leading
companies to provide sponsorship. TV companies pay large sums of money to screen important
matches or competitions. The result has been huge rewards for athletes, some of (34) ____________ are
now very wealthy, particularly top footballers, golfers and tennis players. (35) ____________, it is not
unusual for some athletes to receive large fees on top of their salary, for advertising products or making
personal appearances.
A trend towards shorter working hours means that people generally tend to have more free time,
both to watch and to take in sporting activity; sport has become a significant part of the recreation
industry that we now rely (36) ____________ to fill our leisure hours. Professional sport is a vital part
of that industry, providing for millions of (37) ____________ people all over the world.
Question 33. A. advantage B. good C. benefit D. sake
Question 34. A. whose B. whom C. who D. that
Question 35. A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. Therefore
Question 36. A. for B. with C. on D. in
Question 37. A. ordinary B. mighty C. extremist D. abnormal
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Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
In many ways, the increasingly rapid pace of climate change is a direct result of the growth of
the human population. In the last 100 years, the world population has more than tripled, from just under
2 billion at the beginning of the century to nearly 7 billion today. In addition, the average person uses
more energy and natural resources than the average person one hundred years ago, meaning that the
rates of consumption are actually much higher than just the increase in population would imply. For
example, it took the world 125 years to use the first one trillion barrels of oil. The next trillion barrels
will be used in less than 30 years, which is almost 5 times as fast, not three.
All of these activities: food production, energy usage, and the use of natural resources,
contribute to climate change in some way. The greater amounts of oil and other fuels burned to create
energy release chemicals which add to global warming. In order to produce more food, farmers cut
down trees to gain more land for their fields. In addition, we cut down trees to build the houses needed
for a larger population. Those trees are an essential part of controlling global warming; others are too
numerous to mention.
In addition to a growing population, the world also has a population that desires a higher
standard of living than in the past, and a higher standard of living requires the use of even more natural
resources. A look at one country will provide a clear example of this fact. China is the world ’s most
populous nation, with 1.3 billion people. Currently, the standard of living for most of those people is far
below that of people in first world nations. Therefore, the average Chinese citizen uses far fewer natural
resources and less energy than the average citizen of the US or Japan. But China is growing in power,
and more of its citizens are beginning to expect a first world lifestyle. If every Chinese person attains a
first world lifestyle, the amount of energy and natural resources needed in the world will double, even if
the standard of living in every other nation on Earth remains the same as it is today.
Question 38. How many years did it take the world years to use the first one trillion barrels of oil?
A. 100 years B. 125 years C. 30 years D. 7 years
Question 39. The word “consumption” in the passage is closest in meaning to___________.
A. development B. usage C. population D. increase
Question 40. According to the passage, which of these activities does NOT contribute to climate
change in some way?
A. food production B. energy usage
C. wild animals hunting D. natural resources consumption
Question 41. According to the passage, how does food production contribute to global warming?
A. Producing more food leads to growth in the world population.
B. Food production uses many chemicals which add to global warming.
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C. Food production requires that the forests be cleared to create farmland.
D. Food production decreases the ability of the air to release heat..
Question 42. According to the passage, how does the standard of living affect global warming?
A. Higher standards of living are better for the environment.
B. First world nations create less population than developing nations.
C. The use of natural resources is directly related to the standard of living.
D. High standards of living lead to increases in world population.
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the
Carnegie Hall, the famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a restoration.
While this is not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building’s history. As a result of this
new restoration, Carnegie Hall once again has the quality of sound that it had when it was first built.
Carnegie Hall owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel company in
the late 1800s. The hall was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a reputation as an excellent performing
arts hall where accomplished musicians gained fame. Despite its reputation, however, the concert hall
suffered from several detrimental renovations over the years. During the Great Depression, when fewer
people could afford to attend performances, the directors sold part of the building to commercial
businesses. As a result, a coffee shop was opened in one corner of the building, for which the builders
replaced the brick and terra cotta walls with windowpanes. A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the
acoustical quality of the hall when the makers of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of
the ceiling to allow for lights and air vents. The hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake
ceiling but the hall never sounded the same afterwards.
In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stern became involved in restoring the hall after a group of real
estate developers unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise office building on the
site. This threat spurred Stern to rally public support for Carnegie Hall and encourage the City of New
York to buy the property. The movement was successful, and the concert hall is now owned by the city.
In the current restoration, builders tested each new material for its sound qualities, and they replaced
the hole in the ceiling with a dome. The builders also restored the outer walls to their original
appearance and closed the coffee shop. Carnegie has never sounded better, and its prospects for the
future have never looked more promising.
Question 43. This passage is mainly about___________.
A. changes to Carnegie Hall
B. the appearance of Carnegie Hall
C. Carnegie Hall’s history during the Great Depression
D. damage to the ceiling in Carnegie Hall
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Question 44. The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to___________.
A. Carnegie Hall B. New York City C. a restoration D. a plan
Question 45. What major change happened to the hall in 1946?
A. The acoustic dome was damaged.
B. Space in the building was sold to commercial businesses.
C. The walls were damaged in an earthquake.
D. The stage was renovated.
Question 46. Who was Andrew Carnegie?
A. A violinist B. An architect
C. A steel mill owner D. Mayor of New York City
Question 47. What was Isaac Stern’s relationship to Carnegie Hall?
A. He made the movie “Carnegie Hall” in 1946.
B. He performed on opening night in 1891.
C. He tried to save the hall, beginning in 1960.
D. He opened a coffee shop in Carnegie Hall during the Depression
Question 48. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “detrimental” in paragraph
2?
A. dangerous B. trivial C. impressive D. damaging
Question 49. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “unveiled” in paragraph 3?
A. announced B. restricted C. overshadowed D. located
Question 50. How does the author seem to feel about the future of Carnegie Hall?
A. ambiguous B. guarded C. optimistic D. negative
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TEST 18
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
Question 1. A. laugh B. cough C. enough D. though
Question 2. A. breath B. breathe C. with D. soothe
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. nuclear B. consist C. hello D. prepare
Question 4. A. economic B. solution C. convention D. specific
Question 5. A complete ____ of terms and conditions should be made before the agreement is signed.
A. examine B. examining C. examination D. examined
Question 6. I ____ one item early last week, but I am certain that I did not get the receipt at that time
A. purchase B. purchases C. purchased D. have purchased
Question 7. American ________ to have been discovered by Colombus.
A. is said B. was said C. being said D. says
Question 8. _____________ to set the alarm clock, Jenny left for work late this morning.
A. Forget B. To forget C. Having forgotten D. Forgotten
Question 9. Since he was unable to attend the annual meeting, Mr. Yokomate requested that the
minutes __________ to his office.
A. be sent B. were sent C. sent D. send
Question 10. Volunteers should keep in mind values of the charity event in ________ they participate
actively.
A. when B. whose C. that D. which
Question 11. _____________to the airline strikes, Mr. Jones had to postpone his business trip to Rome.
A. Owed B. Because C. Due D. As
Question 12. If she had experience in medical research, she _____________ for one of the positions
at the hospital.
A. apply B. could apply C. could have apply D. can apply
Question 13. Those in research positions are responsible for compiling and _________ research data.
A. store B. storage C. storing D. to store
Question 14. _____________ a year, Tarrin Industrial Supply audits the accounts of all of its factories.
A. Once B. Immediately C. Directly D. Yet
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Question 15. The timeline for the pathway lighting project was extended to _______ input from the
Environmental Commission.
A. use up B. believe in C. make into D. allow for
Question 16. If you don’t want your business to _____________ bankrupt, avoid consulting those
willing to step out on a limb.
A. come B. take C. go D. pay
Question 17. _____________ the BPT39 wireless speaker is widely popular, production will be
increased fivefold starting next month.
A. On behalf of B. Whether C. Moreover D. As
Question 18. Jack is very independent, he always paddle his own _____________
A. boat B. canoe C. ship D. yatch
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions
Question 19. If you came to the party tomorrow, don’t forget to bring your parents.
A. If B. came C. don’t D. to bring
Question 20. Even the CEO had to admit that Prasma Designs’ win was part the result of fortunate
timing.
A. Even B. Prasma Designs’ C. part D. timing
Question 21. To prepare for marathon, I run 15 kilometers three and four times a week.
A. To prepare B. run C. three and four D. times
Question 22. “Where were you last night, Mr. Jenkins?” he said.
A. He wanted to know where Mr. Jenkins was the night before.
B. He asked Mr. Jenkins where was he last night.
C. He wanted to know where Mr. Jenkins had been the following night.
D. He asked Mr. Jenkins where he had been the previous night.
Question 23. The burglar was caught red- handed by the police when he was breaking into the
flat.
A. The police caught the burglar to break into the flat.
B. The police caught the burglar when breaking into the flat,
C. When the burglar had broken into the flat, the police caught him at once.
D. The police caught the burglar breaking into the flat.
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Question 24. “We’ll go camping as long as the weather is good.”
A. If the weather is fine, we will go camping.
B. The weather is good when we will go camping.
C. If the weather is better, we will go camping.
D. We’ll go camping immediately the weather is good.
Question 25. We are not going to select the ruling party. We are not going to select the opposition
party either.
A. We are going to select neither the ruling party nor the opposition party in the upcoming election.
B. We are not going to select neither the ruling party nor the opposition party in the upcoming
election.
C. We are going to select either the ruling party or the opposition party in the upcoming election.
D. We are not going to select either the ruling party or the opposition party in the upcoming election.
Question 26. The lighthouse was built in the 1600s. It remains standing through hundreds of
years.
A. Having been built in the 1600s, the lighthouse remains standing through hundreds of years.
B. Building in the 1600s, the lighthouse remains standing through hundreds of years.
C. Built in the 1600s, the lighthouse remains standing through hundreds of years.
D. Having built in the 1600s, the lighthouse remains standing through hundreds of years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Laura is warning Bob about the house.
- Laura: “Mind your head. The ceiling is low”.
- Bob: “_____________”
A. Don’t mention it. B. Thanks, I’ll remember it.
C. I couldn’t agree more with you. D. I don’t think you’re right.
Question 28. David is talking to Linda after a party.
- David: “Would you like me to give you a ride home?”
- Linda: “_____________”
A. That’s be great, thanks. B. Sorry, you’re not my type.
C. Yes, I’m riding home now D. No, thanks. I don’t like riding.
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Question 29. The Boy Scouts organization is dedicated to helping boys become moral and productive
adults.
A. committed B. used C. focused D. interested
Question 30. Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize
Question 31. Henry has found temporary job in a factory.
A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory
Question 32. We had a whale of time as everything was quite fantastic.
A. had little time to play B. had a lot of time to play
C. felt happy D. felt disappointed
Not everybody recognizes the benefits of new developments in communications technology.
Indeed, some people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative (33) ______ on young
people’s communication and language skills, especially when we hear that primary school children may
be at risk of becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has texting become, however, that even
pigeons have started doing it. (34) ________, in this case, it’s difficult to view the results as anything
but positive. Twenty of the birds are about to take to the skies with the task of measuring air pollution,
each (35) ________ with sensor equipment and a mobile phone. The readings made by the sensors will
be automatically converted into text messages and beamed to the Internet - (36) _______ they will
appear on a dedicated ‘pigeon blog’. The birds will also each have a GPS receiver and a camera to
capture aerial photos, and researchers are building a tiny ‘pigeon kit’ containing all these gadgets. Each
bird will carry these in a miniature backpack, (37) _____, that is, from the camera, which will hang
around its neck. The data the pigeons text will be displayed in the form of an interactive map, which
will provide local residents with up-to-the-minute information on their local air quality.
Question 33. A. result B. outcome C. effect D. conclusion
Question 34. A. Therefore B. What’s more C. whereas D. That is
Question 35. A. armed B. loaded C. granted D. stocked
Question 36. A. when B. which C. where D. what
Question 37. A. instead B. except C. apart D. besides
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The Art World
One of the major problems in the art world is how to distinguish and promote an artist. In effect,
a market must be created for an artist to be successful. The practice of signing and numbering
individual prints was introduced by James Abbott McNeill whistler, the nineteenth - century artist best
known for the painting of his mother, called “Arrangement in Grey and Black”, but known to most of
us as“ whistler’s Mother”. Whistler’s brother - in - law, Sir Francis Seymour Haden, a less well -
known artist, had speculated that collectors might find prints more attractive if they knew that they
were only a limited number of copies produced. By signing the work in pencil, an artist could guarantee
and personalize each print. As soon as Whistler and Haden began the practice of signing and numbering
their prints, their work began to increase in value, when other artists noticed that the signed prints
commanded higher prices, they began copying the procedure. Although most prints are signed on the
right - hand side in the margin below the image, the placement of the signature is a matter of personal
choice. Indeed, prints have been signed within the image, in any of the margins, or even on the reverse
side of the print, wherever the artist elects to sign it, a signed print is still valued above an unsigned one,
even in the same edition.
Question 38. Which of the following would be a better title for the passage?
A. Whistlers Mother B. Whistler’s Greatest Works
C. The Practice of Signing Prints D. Coping Limited Edition Prints
Question 39. The word “speculated” in the paragraph 1 could best be replaced by_____________
A. guessed B. noticed C. denied D. announced
Question 40. What was true about the painting of Whistler’s mother?
A. It was painted by Sir Francis Haden
B. Its title was “Arrangement in Grey and Black”
C. It was not one of whistler’s best paintings
D. It was a completely new method of painting
Question 41. The author mentions all of the following as reasons why a collector prefer a signed
print EXCEPT_____________
A. it guarantees the prints authenticity
B. it makes the print more personal
C. it encourages higher prices for the print
D. it limits the number of copies of the print
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that artists number their prints_____________
A. as an accounting procedure B. to guarantee a limited edition
C. when the buyer requests it D. at the same place on each of the prints
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects - an estimated 90 percent of the
world’s species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for
examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable
image with the general public.
Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation
issues such as diversity. Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention
over the past century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate
regions. For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when
he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour’s walk, whereas the total number found
on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early
comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed. A general theory of
diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones, but also
patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups.
However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions,
rather man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the
Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly “personal communication” citations, even for
vertebrates, In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are
still in the documentation phase. In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some
arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used
synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies
make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by
focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
Question 43. The word “striking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________

A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful
Question 44. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation
issues because they _________
A. are simple in structure
B. have been given scientific names
C. are viewed positively by people
D. are found mainly in temperate climates
Question 45. The word “exceed” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________
A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to
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Question 46. Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
Question 47. All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of
diversity EXCEPT _____________
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones
B. patterns of distribution of species in each region
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones
D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
Question 48. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss _____________
A. their physical characteristics B. their adaption to different habitats
C. their names D. their variety
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to _____________
A. insects B. butterflies C. patterns D. issues
Question 50. The idea “little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution” in paragraph 5
means that_____________
A. there are many things that we know about butterfly evenness distribution
B. we don’t know anything about butterfly evenness distribution
C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution
D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent
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TEST 19
Question 1. A. workshop B. worm C. worry D. wordless
Question 2. A. borrowed B. helped C. dismissed D. booked
Question 3. A. dissolve B. household C. confide D. approach
Question 4. A. determine B. argument C. counterpart D. marvelous
Question 5. A few days ago, ____________ problem arise. However, until now, we haven’t found any
solutions to it yet.
A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 6. Keith deserves ____________ in the conference for all the help she has given us.
A. to mention B. mention C. mentioning D. mentioned
Question 7. This is not ____________ the last one we stayed in.
A. as a comfortable hotel as B. an as comfortable hotel as
C. a as comfortable hotel as D. as comfortable a hotel as
Question 8. There are dozens of TV channels, ________ operate 24 hours a day.
A. some B. some of which C. some of those D. some of them
Question 9. Thirty-one people have been injured in ________ incidents throughout the day.
A. violent B. violence C. violently D. violate
Question 10. what chemical is this? It's _________ a horrible smell.
A. giving over B. giving off C. giving down D. giving up
Question 11. Mary will have finished all her work ____________
A. as soon as her boss returned B. until her boss will return
C. by the time her boss returns D. when her boss will return
Question 12. So little ____ about mathematics that the lecture was beyond completely beyond me.
A. I have known B. I knew C. do I know D. did I know
Question 13. It is probably impossible for life to ever exist on Venus _____ its intense surface heat.
A. because B. although C. despite D. due to
Question 14. If you cannot improved sales figures this month, you will be____________sacked.
A. promise B. conduct C. regulate D. deliver
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Question 15. At the meeting last week, the finance director _______ the figures for the previous year.
A. produced B. represented C. purchased D. commended
Question 16. I think Trump can easily win the election. He is a man of the ____________.
A. community B. society C. country D. people
Question 17. Overcrowded slums are often considered as breeding ground ____________ crime.
A. of B. to C. for D. towards
Question 18. The military court ______ the major for failing to do his duty.
A. scolded B. reprimanded C. humiliated D. ridiculedƯ
Question 19. A severe illness when she was just nineteen months old deprived the well- known writer
and lecturer Helen Keller from both her sight and hearing.
A. just B. deprived C. when D. from both
Question 20. He didn’t know who it was and couldn’t imagine why they did it, but there must have
been somebody that started the rumor which he was from London and very wealthy.
A. which B. who C. why D. that
Question 21. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.
A. such as B. in the near future
C. It is believed D. be used to doing
Question 22. It would have been better if he had told us his new address.
A. He might have told us his new address.
B. He should have told us his new address.
C. He shouldn’t have told us his new address.
D. It doesn’t matter that he didn’t tell us his new address.
Question 23. She knows more about it than I do.
A. I know as much about it as she does.
B. She knows as much about it as I do.
C. I don’t know as much about it as she does.
D. She doesn’t know as much about it as I do.
Question 24. “Why don’t you participate in the volunteer work in summer?”, said Sophie.
A. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
B. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.
C. Sophie suggested my participating in the volunteer work in summer.
D. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer.
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Question 25. We arrived at the airport. We realized our passports were still at home.
A. It was until we arrived at the airport that we realized our passports were still at home.
B. We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports are still at home.
C. Not until had we arrived at the airport we realized our passports were still at home.
D. Not until we arrived at the airport did we realize that our passports were still at home.
Question 26. Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Question 27. - Laura: “What a lovely cat you have!”
- Maria: “____________.”
A. Of course not, it’s not costly
B. Thank you. Thank you. My father bought it for me
C. I think so
D. No problem
Question 28. - Janet: "Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?"
- Susan: “____________’’
A. I don't agree, I'm afraid B. You’re welcome
C. That would be great D. I feel very bored
Question 29. she got up late and rushed to the bus stop.
A. came into B. went leisurely C. dropped by D. went quickly
Question 30. School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools.
A. divided B. paid C. required D. depended
Question 31. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being courteous B. being cheerful C. being efficient D. being late
Question 32. My sister lives in Alaska, so we can only see each other once in a blue moon.
A. occasionally B. rarely C. at night D. frequently
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VIRTUAL DOCTORS
Clare Harrison rarely falls ill and hates going to the doctors when she does. So when she
recently (33) _____________ out in a painful rash down one side of her body she emailed her
symptoms, (34) _________ also included a (35) _______ fever, to e-doc, the internet medical service.
Two hours later she was diagnosed as having shingles (Herpes Zoster) by her online doctor, who
prescribed a special cleansing solution for the rash and analgesics to help relieve the pain.
Health advice is now the second most popular topic that people search for on the internet, and
online medical consultation is big business. Sites vary enormously in what they offer, with services
ranging from the equivalent of a medical agony aunt to a live chat with a doctor via email. They are
clearly (36) _______ a demand from people who are too busy or, in some cases, too embarrassed to
discuss their medical (37) ______ with their general practitioners.
Question 33. A. worked B. passed C. came D. ran
Question 34. A. whose B. which C. who D. that
Question 35. A. small B. weak C. mild D. calm
Question 36. A. serving B. meeting C. creating D. establishing
Question 37. A. harm B. story C. hardship D. complaint
Dolphins are one of the most intelligent species on the planet, which makes them a very
interesting animal to scientists. In their natural habitats, dolphins use various vocalization techniques.
They whistle and squeak to recognize members of their pod, identify and protect their young, and call
out warnings of danger. They also make clicking sounds used for echolocation to find food and
obstacles in dark and murky waters.
Amazingly, the whistling sound that the bottlenose dolphin makes has been found to have a
similar pattern to human language. They always make conversational sounds when they greet each
other. If you listen to dolphins' squeaks and squeals, it will sound like they are having a conversation.
Dolphins usually use both sound and body language to communicate with each other. It is
through gesture and body language, however, that most of their communication with humans comes.
Dolphins can be trained to perform complicated tricks. This suggests they have a high level of
intelligence and communication capacity. If they work for a long time with a trainer, they are able to
recognize and understand human commands.
A lot of dolphin communication has been studied using dolphins in captive environments. These
studies have been criticized because some marine biologists believe that dolphins living in aquariums or
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research centers cannot be considered "normal." Even so, most believe that studying dolphin
communication in captivity is useful for beginning to understand the complexity of dolphi n
communication. After all, dolphins are one of the most intelligent animals. Their ability to
communicate is impressive and worthy of study.
Question 38. What would be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Communications in dolphins
B. Intelligent mammals in captivity
C. Dolphins' social tendencies with humans
D. Complex patterns in dolphin life
Question 39. In line 2, the word vocalization is closest in meaning to____________.
A. making gestures B. creating words C. producing sounds D. closing eyes
Question 40. What do some marine biologists think about captive dolphins?
A. Their relationships are too personal with marine biologists.
B. They can't be considered accurate subjects for biological studies.
C. They can communicate exactly the same as humans do.
D. They easily demonstrate how dolphins act in the wild.
Question 41. All of the following are true about dolphin communication EXCEPT____________
A. dolphins' squeals and squeaks sound conversational to the human ear
B. dolphins' clicking sounds are sometimes used to greet humans
C. communication using sounds and gestures occurs between dolphins
D. body language and gestures are used for communication with humans
Question 42. The word “most” refers to ____________
A. the majority of marine biologists B. a few bottlenose dolphins
C. a lot of bottlenose dolphins D. the minority of marine biologists
What does it take to graduate from university with a First?
Mark McArdle, first-class degree holder from the University of Lancaster, tells how he did it.
Don’t spend too much time at the student lounge, do turn up for most lectures and tutorials and
do submit all coursework - eventually. That, I was told by a PhD student during freshers’ week, was all
I needed to do to get a 2:2. For a 2:1, I’d require a better attendance record and have to work harder, but
not at the expense of being cut off from civilization. And for a First I would have to become some sort
of social outcast, go to even lecture and tutorial (scribbling notes madly), spend every waking moment
immersed in academic books, and be among the last to be thrown out of the university library at 10 pm
closing time.
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Well, I did not give up my life for study. I didn't attend every lecture and tutorial. I didn’t write
down every word spoken in lectures. I didn’t get 80% or more in every essay, project, test or exam. I
was usually behind with my reading and occasionally mystified by the syllabus. Sometimes I couldn't
be bothered to go to university and stayed at home instead. But I always knew where I was what I had
to do and what not to bother with. And I always worked hard on the things that counted: assignments
and exams.
Getting a degree is about learning, but it isn’t just about learning biology, history, English or
whatever. It’s about understanding what you need to succeed - what, in fact, the university wants from
you and what you will get in return. You have to have a feel for the education market and really sell
your inspirations, what does the lecturer want? what is the essay marker searching for? Some students
try to offer something not wanted. Others want to give very little - they steal the thoughts of others and
submit them as their own. But they all want to be rewarded. Exchange, but don’t steal, and you’ll get a
degree.
I could guarantee every book on my reading list was out on long loan from the university library
within five seconds of the list being issued. This was worrying at first, but I quickly learned that it was
impossible to read all of the books on an average reading list anyway. I sought shortcuts. Collections of
selected readings or journal articles were excellent sources that often saved me the bother of reading the
original texts. References in books dragged me all over the place but with all the courses I had to do,
there wasn't enough time to be dragged too far. I would flick through the book, read the introduction,
note any summaries, look at diagrams, skim the index, and read any conclusions. I plucked out what
was needed and made my escape.
I revised by discarding subject areas I could not face revising, reading, compiling notes, and
then condensing them onto one or two sheets of A4 for each subject area. Leading up to the exam, I
would concentrate on just the condensed notes and rely on my memory to drag out the detail behind
them when the time came. I didn’t practice writing exam questions, although it was recommended. I
prefer to be spontaneous and open-minded. I don't want pre-formed conclusions filling my mind.
And nor should you; there is no secret to getting a First - this is just an account of how I got my
First. Be a happy student by striking the right balance between working and enjoying yourself. Take
what you do seriously and do your best. And, no matter what you do don’t forget to appreciate every
day of your university studies: it is one of the greatest periods of your life.
Glossary:
University degree classifications in the UK:
- First class
- Upper second (2:1)
- Lower second (2:2)
- Third class (3)
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Question 43. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To describe learning experience of an excellent student
B. To emphasize the importance of higher education
C. To suggest ways to deal with assignments at university
D. To point out challenges of studying at university
Question 44. The PhD students who spoke to the writer____________.
A. exaggerate the need to work hard B. succeeded in scaring the writer
C. was uncertain how to help the writer D. thought the writer would get a First
Question 45. In the third paragraph, the writer warns against____________.
A. offering money to academic staff B. trying to second-guess lectures
C. expecting to be rewarded D. plagiarism in essays and exams
Question 46. The word “immersed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. ploughed B. absorbed C. sunk D. dipped
Question 47. Why did the writer not practice writing exam questions?
A. He thought the practice was rather boring.
B. He wanted to answer exam questions critically.
C. He was advised not to.
D. He thought it might prejudice staff against him.
Question 48. The word “flick through” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. search quickly B. skim C. borrow D. read carefully
Question 49. All of the following are mentioned about factors that help the writer to succeed at
university EXCEPT _________.
A. an understanding of what was required
B. regular attendance at lectures
C. selective reading
D. well-organizing revision
Question 50. It can be inferred from what the write said in the last paragraph that _______.
A. student’s top priority is to pass exams
B. teachers should set goals for students right from the first year
C. students should follow his recipe for success
D. students should make the most of being a student
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TEST 20
Question 1. A. land B. sandy C. many D. candy
Question 2. A. compete B. intend C. medal D. defend
Question 3. A. relax B. wonder C. problem D. special
Question 4. A. reflection B. division C. industry D. remember
Question 5. I think everyone wants to make friends with John. He is ___________ honest person.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 6. He ___________ only three letters to his parents since he joined the army.
A. has written B. wrote C. would write D. had written
Question 7. Jimmy’s low examination scores kept him from ___________ to the university
A. to admit B. to be admitted C. admitting D. being admitted
Question 8. The company is believed ___________ a lot of money last year.
A. to lose B. lost C. to have lost D. to be losing
Question 9. When ___________ as the new manager of the company, Mr. Smith knew he had a lot of
things to do.
A. appointing B. appointed C. appoint D. have appointed
Question 10: ___________his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very clearly.
A. Because B. Even though C. Because of D. In spite of
Question 11. If I ___________ a wallet in the street, I’d take it to the police.
A. find B. found C. will find D. would find
Question 12. I assume that you are acquainted ___________ this subject since you are responsible
writing the accompanying materials.
A. to/for B. with/for C. to/to D. with/with
Question 13. The song has ___________ been selected for the 2018 World Cup, Russia.
A. office B. officer C. officially D. official
Question 14. Elephants ___________ the ecosystems they live in, and make it possible for a lot of
other species to survive in those environments as well.
A. obtain B. remain C. maintain D. attain
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Question 15. After the fire, the government pledged to implement a program of ___________ all over
the devastated national park.
A. reforestation B. rebuilding C. replenishment D. reconstruction
Question 16. He was given a medal in ___________ of his service to the country.
A. gratitude B. recognition C. knowledge D. response
Question 17. I'm going on business for a week, so I'll be leaving everything ___________.
A. on your guards B. up to your eyes
C. in your capable hands D. in the care of you
Question 18. Archaeologists think that massive floods could have ___________ the dinosaurs.
A. wiped out B. laid off C. put aside D. taken down.
Question 19. The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A. smoking B. effects C. on D. have been proved.
Question 20. She had so many luggage that there was not enough room in the car for it.
A. so many B. was C. enough room D. it
Question 21. Alike light waves, microwaves may be reflected and concentrated elements.
A. Alike B. waves C. may be D. concentrated
Question 22. "I didn't break the mobile phone," Lan said.
A. Lan denied breaking the mobile phone.
B. Lan admitted breaking the mobile phone.
C. Lan prevented us from breaking the mobile phone
D. Lan promised to break the mobile phone.
Question 23. The bag was heavy, so we could not take it with us.
A. If the bag was not heavy, we would take it with us.
B. Unless the bag had not been heavy, we would have taken it with us.
C. If had the bag not been heavy, we would have taken it with us.
D. Had the bag not been heavy, we would have taken it with us
Question 24. He was such a wet blanket at the party tonight!
A. He made people at the party wet through.
B. He spoiled other people's pleasure at the party
C. He bought a wet blanket to the party.
D. He was wet through when going home from the party.
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Question 25. He was suspected of stealing credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected of stealing credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected of stealing credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
Question 26. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam. She didn’t want it to get broken in the
post.
A. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so that it wouldn’t get broken in the post.
B. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so it didn’t get broken in the post.
C. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so as it wouldn’t get broken in the post.
D. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam for it didn’t get broken in the post.
Question 27. David and Cathy are talking about the party next week.
David.: “I’d like to invite you to a party next Sunday.”
Cathy: “___________”
A. Thank you. What time? B. How do you do?
C. You’re entirely welcome. D. I’m glad you like it.
Question 28. Tom and Marry are meeting at the class reunion.
Tom. "Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary" - Mary. “___________"
A. Thanks. That's a nice compliment B. why do you say so?
C. Sorry, I don't like it D. I think so
Question 29. I strongly recommend that you should take out an insurance policy in the house for your
own peace of mind.
A. to stop your sleeping B. to stop your worrying
C. to stop your thinking D. to stop your believing
Question 30. Every year this charity organization takes on volunteers to support the needy and the
poor.
A. dismisses B. creates C. recruits D. interviews
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Question 31. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being on time B. being cheerful C. being efficient D. being late
Question 32. Jose had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they
were apples and oranges.
A. containing too many technical details B. very similar
C. completely different D. very complicated
Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
blanks.
Higher education also provides a competitive edge in the career market. We all know that in the
economic times we are living in today, finding jobs is not guaranteed. The number of people
unemployed is still relatively high, and the number of new career (33) _______ isn’t nearly enough to
put people in jobs they are seeking. As a job seeker, you’re competing with a high number of
experienced workers (34) _______ have been out of the workforce for a while and are also seeking
work. (35) ______, when you have a higher education, it generally equips you for better job security.
Generally speaking, employers tend to value those who have completed college than those who have
only completed high school and are more likely to replace that person who hasn’t (36) _______a higher
education. Furthermore, some companies even go so far as to pay your tuition because they consider an
educated (37) ________to be valuable to their organization. A college education is an investment that
doesn’t just provide you with substantial rewards. It benefits the hiring company as well.
Question 33. A. responsibilities B. activities C. opportunities D. possibilities
Question 34. A. who B. where C. whose D. which
Question 35. A. Otherwise B. Moreover C. Therefore D. However
Question 36. A. permitted B. refused C. applied D. received
Question 37. A. employment B. employer C. employee D. unemployed
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 38 to 42.
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to
put a greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of
readily available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth - friendly. Two such
resources are solar power and geothermal power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the
needs of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through
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the use of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the us alone, more than 100, 000
homes are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in
other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing
steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is
geothermal power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water
and steam that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator,
which produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known
supply of fossil fuel resources and as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal
energy is fairly simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use in Iceland, a region of high
geothermal activity where there are over 80 percent of private homes, are heated by geothermal power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional
energy sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on
global scale.
Question 38. What is the main topic of this passage?

A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
C. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 39. Which of the following words could best replace the word “abundant”?
A. a lot B. scarce C. little D. enough
Question 40. The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to __________
A. solar energy B. the earth C. sunlight D. energy consumption
Question 41. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal
energy production?
A. They both require the use of a generator.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They are both conventional and costly.
Question 42. what best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage?
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
C. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming.
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correct answer to each of the following questions from 43 to 50.
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become
recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family, traditional cultural
patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship groups, one
or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal process of selection. In
larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or recruitment.
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of
research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of “natural leaders.” It
seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common; rather, virtually any
person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that meet the needs of that particular
group.
Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader, research
suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals.
Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group. Group
members look to instrumental leaders to “get things” done. Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is
leadership that emphasizes the collective well-being of a social group’s member. Expressive leader are
less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group
members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. Group members expect
expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group and provide support to individual
members.
Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group members.
They give orders and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the groups goals.
Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to others in the group. They offer
sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten a
serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As the
differences in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection
from group members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy
a more distant respect.
Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How leadership differs in small and large groups
B. The role of leaders in social groups
C. The problems faced by leaders
D. How social groups determine who will lead them
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Question 44. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders
EXCEPT___________
A. recruitment B. specific leadership training
C. traditional cultural patterns D. formal election process
Question 45. Which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph
2?
A. person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on leadership.
B. Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.
C. A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader in another
group.
D. Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person.
Question 46. The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on ___________
A. sharing responsibility with group members
B. achieving a goal
C. ensuring harmonious relationships
D. identifying new leaders
Question 47. The word “collective” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________
A. necessary B. group C. particular D. typical
Question 48. It can be understood that ___________
A. There is lots of tension and conflict in an election of a leader in the family.
B. There is usually an election to choose leaders in a family as well as in larger groups.
C. It has been said that there must be a set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common.
D. Leaders are sometimes chosen formally or informally.
Question 49. The word “resolve” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________
A. talk about B. find a solution for
C. avoid repeating D. avoid thinking about
Question 50. Paragraphs 3 and 4 organize the discussion of leadership primarily in terms of ____
A. examples that illustrate a problem B. narration of events
C. comparison and contrast D. cause and effect analysis
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NOTES
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NOTES
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NOTES
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END OF TEST – BEST OF LUCK!

Question 38. What is the main idea of the passage?

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Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?

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Question 43. What does the passage mainly explain?

Question 49. The creation of helium within stars ____________.

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Question 38. What does the word “concentric” in paragraph 1 mean?

Question 43. What is the best title for this passage?

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Question 38. What is the topic of the passage?

Question 43. What is the best title for this passage?

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Question 43. The word “striking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________

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Question 38. What is the main topic of this passage?

Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?

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