Vision Answer PDF

VISIONIAS
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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION
GENERAL STUIDES (P) 2022 – ABHYAAS TEST – 3699
Q 1.D
• Web 1.0 is the world wide web or the internet that was invented in 1989. It became popular from 1993.
The internet in the Web 1.0 days was mostly static web pages where users would go to a website and then
read and interact with the static information.
• Web 2.0 started in some form in the late 1990s itself though 2004 was when most of its features were
fully available. It is still the age of Web 2.0 now.
• The differentiating characteristic of Web 2.0 compared to Web1.0 is that users can create content. They
can interact and contribute in the form of comments, registering likes, sharing and uploading their photos
or videos and perform other such activities.
• In Web 2.0, most of the data in the internet and the internet traffic are owned or handled by very few
behemoth companies. This has created issues related to data privacy, data security and abuse of such data.
• Web 3.0
o The concept of Web3, also called Web 3.0, is used to describe a potential next phase of the
internet. The model, a decentralised internet to be run on blockchain technology, would be
different from the versions in use, Web 1.0 and Web 2.0. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Web3 enables peer to peer (seller to buyer) transactions by eliminating the role of the
intermediary. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o In web3, users will have ownership stakes in platforms and applications unlike now where tech giants
control the platforms. Web3 will deliver a “decentralized and fair internet where users control their
own data”. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 2.C
• Cell produces molecules it needs by reading the genetic code written in the DNA. This is known as gene
expression. RNA interference regulates gene expression by a highly precise mechanism called sequence
directed gene silencing by degrading specific messenger RNAs (mRNAs) or by blocking its translation
into protein. RNAi functions specifically to silence, or deactivate genes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The ability of interfering RNA to silence genes was discovered in the 1990s by American scientists
Andrew Z. Fire and Craig C. Mello, who shared the 2006 Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine for
their work. Fire and Mello successfully inhibited the expression of specific genes by introducing short
double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) segments into the cells of nematodes.
• RNAi plays an important role not only in regulating genes but also in mediating cellular defence against
infection by RNA viruses, including influenza viruses and rhabdoviruses, a group that contains the
causative agent of rabies.
• RNAi occurs naturally in almost all eukaryotes (organisms whose cells contain a nucleus and other
membrane-bound organelles) such as animals, insects, fungi etc. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic
organisms as a method of cellular defence.
o Prokaryotes have an RNAi-like defence system that is functionally analogous but not homologous to
eukaryotic RNAi. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Recently, RNA interference (RNAi) technology has been suggested for manufacturing
pesticides. Using RNAi technology, they created a specific RNA to prevent those proteins from being
formed in the pest. This can help in targeting only specific pests and avoid damage to friendly insects such
as bees, earthworms etc. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Q 3.D
• Assisted reproductive technology (ART) is used to treat infertility. It includes fertility treatments that
handle both a woman's egg and a man's sperm. It works by removing eggs from a woman's body. The
eggs are then mixed with sperm to make embryos. The embryos are then put back in the woman's body. In
vitro fertilization (IVF) is the most common and effective type of ART.
• Types of ARTs:
o In Vitro Fertilization (IVF): It is the most common form of ART that is used by maximum patients.
In this, a woman’s eggs are combined with a man’s sperm in a laboratory. The fertilized egg is then
placed inside the woman’s uterus in a procedure called embryo transfer.
✓ Mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT) is a new form of reproductive in-vitro fertilization
(IVF) that works on the principle of replacing a women's abnormal mitochondrial DNA (mt-
DNA) with the donor's healthy one. Mitochondrial replacement therapy offers a solution for
mothers who may not want to pass down their mitochondrial DNA. Instead, a female
donor’s mitochondria are used. The resulting embryo has a tiny bit of DNA from the donor.
A child born from MRT has 99.9 percent of its DNA from its two parents. Hence, the child
has DNA from three parents.
o Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT): The man’s sperm and a woman’s egg are made to combine
in a lab. Then the eggs are implanted into the fallopian tubes and fertilization occurs inside a woman’s
body. Hence, the baby has DNA from two parents.
o Gestational Surrogacy technique: It involves gathering the eggs from the mother and fertilizing it
with the sperm from the father before placing the embryo into the uterus of the gestational surrogate.
In this method, the surrogate has no biological link to the baby as the egg and sperm were both
sourced from the legal parents.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
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Q 4.C
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• The compatibility or cross-talk between the cell and the plasma is what makes each blood type special.
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The markers on the cell are determined by a master type called H, out of which are generated types A, B,
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AB, and AO. When blood transfusion occurs, the compatibility between the donor blood cell type and the
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plasma of the recipient becomes vital, else the blood may coagulate or clump up, causing serious danger.
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o Thus people with A-type blood can accept blood from A-type or O type and not from AB or B type
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donors. And they can donate, in turn, to those with A or AB types.

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o Those with B type can receive from B or O types and can donate to those with B or AB types. Those
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with AB type blood can receive from anyone and donate to other AB. Finally, those with O type
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blood can receive only from O but can donate their blood to A, B, O, or AB- universal donors.
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• Each red blood cell has an antigen over its surface, which helps determine which group it belongs to. The
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Bombay blood group, also called hh, is deficient in expressing antigen H, meaning the RBC has no
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antigen H. Individuals with the rare Bombay phenotype (hh) do not express H antigen (also called
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substance H), the antigen which is present in blood group O. As a result, they cannot make A
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antigen (also called substance A) or B antigen (substance B) on their red blood cells, whatever
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alleles they may have of the A and B blood-group genes because A antigen and B antigen are made
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from H antigen. For this reason, people who have Bombay phenotype can donate red blood cells to
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any member of the ABO blood group system (unless some other blood factor gene, such as Rh, is
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incompatible), but they cannot receive blood from any member of the ABO blood group system (which
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always contains one or more of A, B or H antigens), but only from other people who have Bombay
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phenotype. the Bombay doctors found that the hh type (Bombay type people) can accept only from
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other hh types, and also can receive only from the hh types. This makes the Bombay Blood types a
very special and rare category of people.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 5.D
• Aedes mosquitoes are originally found in tropical and subtropical parts of the world. Though most serious
diseases such as dengue, chikungunya, yellow fever, and zika are transmitted by just two species —
Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus — these are fast emerging throughout the world as a public health
threat.
• A.aegypti is native to sub-Saharan Africa, and in its native environment, it lives in tree holes and small
pools of water and bites non-human primates. Similarly, A. albopictus is native to tropical Southeast Asia,
where it was originally a forest species that fed on wild animals. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• While human-made conditions have made it easy for the mosquitoes to spread over larger areas, global
warming has further aided in their proliferation as warm and wet environments are excellent places for
mosquitoes to breed.
• A.aegypti is heat-tolerant and the A.albopictus is heat-limited. In a warming world, year-round
transmission potential from A.aegypti is likely to expand, particularly in South Asia and sub-Saharan
Africa, transmission potential of A.albopictus is likely to decline substantially in the tropics as the tropics
eventually become too hot for it. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Several other factors are also responsible for the increasing menace caused by these mosquitoes. This
includes environmental cues such as light pollution. While A.aegypti typically bites people during the
day (early morning to afternoon), artificial lights have increased their feeding period and
consequently their ability to spread diseases. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 6.C
• Recently private automobile companies have been aiming for the production of Solid-State batteries by
2025.
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• A Solid state battery replaces polymer separator used in conventional Lithium-Ion batteries with a solid
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state separator.
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o Lithium Ion Batteries use aqueous electrolyte solutions to keep anode(negative electrode generally
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made of graphite) and cathode (positive electrode made of Lithium) apart.

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o On the other hand, Solid-State Battery uses Solid electrolyte that plays the role of a separator as
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well. Hence statement 2 is correct.

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• Replacement of the separator enables carbon or silicon anode used in conventional Lithium ion batteries
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to be replaced with a Lithium metal anode.

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o Lithium metal anode is more energy dense than conventional anodes, allowing battery to store a
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greater amount of energy in the same volume. Hence statement 1 is correct.

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Q 7.A
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• The amount of sunlight that strikes the earth's surface in an hour and a half is enough to handle the entire
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world's energy consumption for a full year. Solar technologies convert sunlight into electrical energy
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either through photovoltaic (PV) panels or through mirrors that concentrate solar radiation. This energy
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can be used to generate electricity or be stored in batteries or thermal storage. Although there are
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enormous benefits globally from the growth in solar power generation however End-of-life (EOL) solar
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panels may become a source of hazardous waste. Global installed PV capacity is expected to rise further
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to 4500 GW by 2050. Therefore, the disposal of PV panels will become a pertinent environmental issue in
the next decades.
• Solar panel waste can include heavy metals such as silver, lead, arsenic and cadmium and at certain
levels it may be classified as hazardous waste. Solar panels may be considered a waste when a generator
decides to discard unused solar panels and used solar panels are disconnected/removed from service and
will not be reused.
• There are many types of solar panels in circulation. The main types are monocrystalline silicon,
polycrystalline silicon, cadmium telluride (CdTe) and the newer thin-film types such as copper indium
gallium selenide (CIS/CIGS). The following are some panels that do contain toxic material.
• CDTe solar panels may be a hazardous due to cadmium.
• Gallium arsenide (GaAs) panels may be hazardous due to arsenic.
• Some older silicon solar panels may be hazardous waste for hexavalent chromium coatings.
• Newer, thin-film solar panels contain CIS/CIGS and may be hazardous due to copper and/or selenium.
• Radium and polonium are the radioactive elements that are not present in solar panels.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 8.B
• Recently, the Centre has reportedly put on temporary hold Kerala’s demand to declare wild boar as
vermin.
• The ‘vermin tag’ is given to animals involved in crop depredation, conflict with humans and loss of
property.
• As per Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the
Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• The Central Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in
Schedule I and part II of Schedule II of the law to be vermin for any area for a given period of
time. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• According to the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, “vermin” means any wild animal specified in Schedule
V.
Q 9.C
• Recently, the UK government has declared octopuses, crabs, and lobsters as 'sentient beings,
meaning they have some amount of consciousness and are capable of experiencing pain or suffering.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• An independent review commissioned by the UK government concluded that there is strong scientific
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evidence decapod crustaceans and cephalopod molluscs are sentient.
• The European Union (EU) recognizes animals as sentient beings in Article 13 of the Treaty on the
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Functioning of the EU, which is relevant in particular to the welfare of farmed animals.
• This classification is the reasoning given for protecting their welfare. gm
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Q 10.D
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• Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) or Ecologically Fragile Areas (EFAs) are areas in India notified by the
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Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India around Protected
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Areas, National Parks, and Wildlife Sanctuaries.

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• The purpose of declaring ESZs is to create some kind of "shock absorbers" to the protected areas by
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regulating and managing the activities around such areas.

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• They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection.
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• The National Board of Wildlife has decided that the activities in the ESA would be of regulatory
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nature rather than prohibitive nature, unless and otherwise so required. Hence statement 1 is not
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• The width of the ESZ and type of regulation may vary from protected area to area.
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• An ESZ could go up to 10 kilometers around a protected area as provided in the Wildlife

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Conservation Strategy, 2002. Hence, statement 2 is not correct

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• The Kasturirangan committee report proposes 37 percent of the total area of the Western Ghats, which
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is roughly 60,000 square kilometers, to be declared as an eco-sensitive area (ESA). Hence statement
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3 is not correct.
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Q 11.C
• 'Panchamrita’ promises: Prime Minister Narendra Modi proposed a five-fold strategy for India to play
its part in helping the world get closer to 1.5 degrees Celsius on the first day of the global climate meeting
in Glasgow.
• Several world leaders have descended or would turn up in Glasgow for the 26th Conference of Parties
(CoP26) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, starting November 1, 2021.
• The prime minister euphemistically termed his scheme as ‘Panchamrita’ meaning the ‘five ambrosia’.
o Panchamrita is a traditional method of mixing five natural foods — milk, ghee, curd, honey, and
jaggery. These are used in Hindu and Jain worship rituals. It is also used as a technique in Ayurveda.

• Prime Minister's ‘Panchamrita’ promises include:
o India will get its non-fossil energy capacity to 500 gigawatts by 2030.
o India will meet 50 percent of its energy requirements by 2030 with renewable energy.
o India will reduce its projected carbon emission by one billion tonnes by 2030.
o India will reduce the carbon intensity of its economy by 45 percent by 2030.
o India will achieve net-zero by 2070.
Q 12.A
• Ferula assafoetida or Heeng is a soft-stemmed plant that grows up to 1.5 m in height and has
dissected leaves with carrot-like roots. After five years, when the plant starts flowering around
May, its stem is cut close to the crown and the root is laid bare. It exudes a milky substance called
oleo gum resin, which is allowed to dry until it turns pale yellow or brown and then scraped off. The
process is repeated every four to five days until the exudation ceases. These scrapings have a strong
pungent smell. To turn it into an edible spice, the raw extract is mixed with wheat or rice flour. One plant
produces 20 to 25 grams of asafoetida. While its price depends on the quality, 1 kg of pure asafoetida is
sold up to Rs 25,000 and 1 ha can earn about Rs 10 lakh every five years.
• Recently farmers have begun to cultivate Heeng in India. Although asafoetida has a long history of use
in India, both as a flavoring agent and folk medicine, every pinch of it is imported from central and
east Asia whose cold arid regions offer a suitable environment for the plant to thrive even in the
wild. In 2019-20, India imported about 1,540 tonnes of unprocessed asafoetida from Iran,
Afghanistan, and Uzbekistan for Rs 942 crore; 90 percent of it was from Afghanistan. Since the
seeds of assafoetida fail to show good germination in a non-native environment and have prolonged
dormancy.
• In India, Heeng is now being grown in Himachal Pradesh (Lahaul and Spiti, Mandi, Kullu, Kinnaur, and
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Chamba districts), Uttarakhand (Chamoli), Ladakh (Ranbirpur, Leh), and Jammu and Kashmir (Kistwar,
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Doda, and Rajouri districts).
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• Hence option (a) is the correct answer. ri@
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Q 13.B
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• The Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines issued by the EC to regulate political parties and
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candidates prior to elections. MCC does not have statutory backing. Hence statement 1 is not
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correct.
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• The model code of conduct was first observed during the 1960 polls. “Historically, the credit of
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giving the idea of a model code of conduct for political parties should go to the State of Kerala,
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which adopted, for the first time, a code of conduct for observance for Political Parties during the
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general election to the State Legislative Assembly in February 1960. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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• It helps EC in keeping with the mandate it has been given under Article 324 of the Constitution, which
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gives it the power to supervise and conduct free and fair elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.
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• The MCC is operational from the date on which the election schedule is announced until the date of result
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announcement.
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• MCC contains eight provisions dealing with:

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o General Conduct: Criticism of political parties must be limited to their policies and programs, past
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record, and work. Activities such as using caste and communal feelings to secure votes, criticizing
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candidates on the basis of unverified reports, bribing or intimidating of voters, etc. are prohibited.
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o Meetings: Parties must inform the local police authorities of the venue and time of any meeting in
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time to enable the police to make adequate security arrangements.

o Processions: If two or more candidates plan processions along the same route, organizers must
establish a contact in advance to ensure that the processions do not clash. Carrying and burning
effigies representing members of other political parties is not allowed.
o Polling Day: All authorized party workers at polling booths should be given suitable badges or
identity cards. Identity slips supplied by them to voters shall be on plain (white) paper and shall not
contain any symbol, name of the candidate, or the name of the party.
o Polling Booths: Only voters and those with a valid pass from the EC are allowed to enter polling
booths.
o Observers: The EC will appoint observers to whom any candidates may report problems regarding the
conduct of the election.
• Section 126 in The Representation of the People Act, 1951: Prohibition of public meetings during the
period of forty-eight hours ending with hour fixed for conclusion of poll.—
o No person shall—
✓ convene, hold, attend, join or address any public meeting or procession in connection with an
election; or
✓ display to the public any election matter by means of cinematograph, television or other similar
apparatus; or
✓ propagate any election matter to the public by holding, or by arranging the holding of, any
musical concert or any theatrical performance or any other entertainment or amusement with a
view to attracting the members of the public thereto, in any polling area during the period of
forty-eight hours ending with the hour fixed for the conclusion of the poll for any election in that
polling area.
• Prohibitory period of Release of Manifesto during elections(s)
o In case of single phase election, manifesto shall not be released during the prohibitory period, as
prescribed under Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
o In case of multi-phase elections, manifesto shall not be released during the prohibitory periods, as
prescribed under Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, of all the phases of those
elections.”
Q 14.A
• National Anthem:
o The song Jana-gana-mana, composed originally in Bangla by Rabindranath Tagore, was adopted in its
Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly as the National Anthem of India on January 24,1950. It
was first sung on December 27, 1911 at the Calcutta Session of the Indian National
Congress. The complete song consists of five stanzas.
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o The playing time of the full version of the National Anthem is approximately 52 seconds. A short
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version consisting of the first and last lines of the National Anthem (playing time approximately
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20 seconds) is also played on certain occasions. ri@
• National Song:
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o The song Vande Mataram, composed in Sanskrit by Bankimchandra Chatterji, was a source of
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inspiration to the people in their struggle for freedom. It has an equal status with Jana-gana-mana.
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o The first political occasion when it was sung was the 1896 session of the Indian National
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Congress.
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o Aurobindo Ghosh translated National Song into English language.

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• National Calendar:
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o The National Calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365
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days was adopted from March 22,1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following
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official purposes:
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✓ Gazette of India;
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✓ news broadcast by All India Radio;

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✓ calendars issued by the Government of India; and

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✓ government communications addressed to the public.

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o Dates of the National Calendar have a permanent correspondence with dates of the Gregorian
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Calendar, 1 Chaitra falling on March 22 normally and on March 21 in leap year.

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Q 15.C
• On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the
Assembly. (First Session - 9th Dec. - 23rd Dec. 1946)
• Objective Resolution enshrined the aspirations and values of the constitution-makers. Under this, the
people of India were guaranteed social, economic, and political justice, equality, and fundamental
freedoms. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.
• This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947 (Second Session -
20-25 January, 1947). Hence statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.
• It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified
version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.

• It read:
o This Constituent Assembly declares its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as the
Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a Constitution:
(Hence statement 3 is not correct)
o Wherein the territories that now comprise British India, the territories that now form the Indian States,
and such other parts of India as are outside India and the States as well as other territories as are
willing to be constituted into independent sovereign India, shall be a Union of them all; and
o wherein the said territories, whether with their present boundaries or with such others as may be
determined by the Constituent Assembly and thereafter according to the law of the Constitution, shall
possess and retain the status of autonomous units together with residuary powers and exercise all
powers and functions of Government and administration save and except such powers and
functions as are vested in or assigned to the Union or as are inherent or implied in the Union or
resulting therefrom; and
o wherein all power and authority of Sovereign Independent India, its constituent parts and
organs of Government are derived from the people; and
o wherein shall be guaranteed and secured to all the people of India justice, social, economic and
political; equality of status of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression,
belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to the law and public morality;
and
o wherein adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and
depressed and other backward classes; and
o whereby shall be maintained the integrity of the territory of the Republic and its sovereign rights
on land, sea, and air according to justice and the law of civilized nations; and
o This ancient land attains its rightful and honored place in the world and makes its full and
willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind.”
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Q 16.C
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• The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2021 provides a framework for
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the functioning of the Legislative Assembly and the government of the National Capital Territory (NCT)
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of Delhi. It amends certain powers and responsibilities of the Legislative Assembly and the Lieutenant
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Governor.
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• It provides that the term “government” referred to in any law made by the Legislative Assembly will
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imply Lieutenant Governor (LG). The Act prohibits the Legislative Assembly from making any rule to
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enable itself or its Committees to:

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o consider the matters of the day-to-day administration of the NCT of Delhi and; Hence statement
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2 is correct.
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o conduct any inquiry in relation to administrative decisions. Further, it provides that all such rules
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made before its enactment will be void.

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• It gives discretionary powers to the L-G even in matters where the Legislative Assembly of Delhi is
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empowered to make laws. Hence statement 1 is correct.

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• The Act makes it mandatory for the government to obtain the opinion of the LG on all matters
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before any executive action can be taken, ensuring accountability. This means that the state
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government or cabinet would need to seek the LG’s opinion before implementing any decision. The
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amendment will greatly reduce the efficiency and timeliness of the Delhi government by making it
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imperative for it to hold consultations with the L-G even when a situation demands urgent action.
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Significantly, the L-G is not obliged to give his opinion to the State government within a time frame.
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Critics argue that the L-G could politically exploit these unbridled powers to hamper the government’s
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administrative work and thus turn the political tides against the incumbent if he so desires. Hence
statement 3 is not correct.
Q 17.A
• Freedom of Association - Article 19(1) (c):
o All citizens have the right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies. It includes the right
to form political parties, companies, partnership firms, societies, clubs, organizations, trade unions, or
any kind of body of persons.
o It not only includes the right to start an association or union but also to continue with the association
or union as such. Further, it covers the negative right of not to form or join an association or union.

o Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the exercise of this right by the State on the grounds
of sovereignty and integrity of India, public order and morality. Hence option (a) is the correct
answer.
✓ Subject to these restrictions, the citizens have complete liberty to form associations or unions for
pursuing lawful objectives and purposes. However, the right to obtain recognition of the
association is not a fundamental right.
o The Supreme Court held that the trade unions have no guaranteed right to effective bargaining or right
to strike or right to declare a lock-out. The right to strike can be controlled by appropriate industrial
law.
• Freedom of Movement - Article 19(1)(d):
o This freedom entitles every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of the country. He can
move freely from one state to another or from one place to another within a state.
o The grounds of imposing reasonable restrictions on this freedom are two, namely, the interests
of the general public and the protection of interests of any scheduled tribe.
o The entry of outsiders in tribal areas is restricted to protect the distinctive culture, language, customs,
and manners of scheduled tribes and to safeguard their traditional vocation and properties against
exploitation.
• Freedom of Residence - According to Article 19(1)(e):
o Every citizen has the right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of the country. This right has
two parts:
✓ the right to reside in any part of the country, which means to stay at any place temporarily, and
✓ the right to settle in any part of the country, which means to set up a home or domicile at any
place permanently.
o This right is intended to remove internal barriers within the country or between any of its parts. This
promotes nationalism and avoids narrow-mindedness.
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o The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of this right on two grounds,
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namely, the interest of the general public and the protection of interests of any scheduled tribes.
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o The right of outsiders to reside and settle in tribal areas is restricted to protect the distinctive culture,
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language, customs, and manners of scheduled tribes and to safeguard their traditional vocation and
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properties against exploitation.

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• Freedom of Profession - Article 19 (1) (g):

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o All citizens are given the right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade, or
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business. This right is very wide as it covers all the means of earning one’s livelihood.
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o The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of this right in the interest of the
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general public.
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Q 18.D
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• The President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters his office. However,
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he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the Vice-President.
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Further, he can also be removed from the office before the completion of his term by the process of
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impeachment.
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o Article 56 (2): Resignation of President addressed to the Vice-President shall be communicated

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by Vice-President to the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Hence statement 1 is correct.

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• Supreme Court in A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shukla, 1976 case held that “Article 34 is primarily concerned with
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granting indemnity by law in respect of acts done during operation of martial law. The Constitution does
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not have a provision authorizing the proclamation of martial law. Declaration of martial law does not
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ipso facto result in the suspension of the writ of habeas corpus”. Thus, there is no express provision in the
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Constitution that authorizes the executive to declare martial law. However, declaring martial law is
essentially an executive act (similar to an emergency). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the
highest law officer in the country.
o He is appointed by the President.
o The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not
contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the
president.
o The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as
the President may determine. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 19.B
• Delimitation literally means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in
a country or a province having a legislative body.
• The job of delimitation is assigned to a high power body. Such a body is known as Delimitation
Commission or a Boundary Commission. In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been constituted
4 times – in 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, in 1963 under Delimitation Commission
Act, 1962, in 1973 under Delimitation Act, 1972 and in 2002 under Delimitation Act, 2002. Hence
• It is a high power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any
court.
• The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the
Election Commission of India.
o Composition:
✓ Retired Supreme Court judge as Chairperson, hence statement 2 is not correct.
✓ Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner nominated by the Chief Election
Commissioner, ex officio
✓ Respective State Election Commissioners
• Important procedure and powers of the Commission:
o The Commission can determine its own procedure and, in the performance of its functions, have all
the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 while trying a suit, in respect
of the following matters, namely:—
✓ summoning and enforcing the attendance of witnesses;
✓ requiring the production of any document; and
✓ requisitioning any public record from any court or office.
✓ Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Q 20.A
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• Britishers had started giving education only since 1813 in which they published a charter act to provide a
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financial aid of one hundred thousand rupees for indigenous educational institutions.
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• But the quarrel between two groups i.e. the orientalists and the occidentals created some hurdles before
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the smooth running of the educational system in the country. The quarrel was in the selection of the
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medium of instruction and the content of the syllabus. This oriental-anglicist controversy had to be solved
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for the effective implementation of modern education in India. The duty was given to Macaulay, a law
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member of the Governor’s council.

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• On February 2, 1835, Thomas Babington Macaulay circulated Minute on Education, a treatise that offered
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definitive reasons for why the East India Company and the British government should spend money on
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the provision of English language education, as well as the promotion of European learning, especially the
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sciences, in India.
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• While, the Minute acknowledged the historic role of Sanskrit and Arabic literature in the Subcontinent, it
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also contended that they had limitations. “A single shelf of a good European library was worth the whole
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native literature of India and Arabia,” Macaulay wrote in the Minute.

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• A month after its circulation, the Minute became policy, when William Bentinck, then governor-
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general of India, signed the resolution. The English Education Act 1835, gave effect to this decision
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and English was made the official government and court language replacing Persian language.
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Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

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• Through this minute it was decided that the limited government resources would be used to teach
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western sciences and literature through the English medium alone.

• Macaulay’s Minute clearly stated its intentions: education was to “form a class who may be interpreters
between us and the millions whom we govern; a class of persons, Indian in blood and colour, but English
in taste, in opinions, in morals, and in intellect”.
• Downward filtration theory is a theory introduced by Lord Macaulay in his Macaulay’s Minute, which
states that giving education to the members of the higher classes of the society would facilitate an
opportunity for the grass root people of the society, too, because the lower class people always tend to
imitate and follow the model of the people of higher status in the society.

Q 21.C
• On 22nd September 1921, Gandhi made a momentous decision to change his attire. From the elaborate
Gujarati attire, he decided on a simple dhoti and shawl.
• This epoch-making decision was taken by Gandhiji in Madurai after he decided that he has to work
for and with the poor people of India and how can he identify with them if he wears different
clothes from them. He stuck to this dress code even on his trip abroad and until his very last
moment!
• Gandhiji’s desire to identify himself with the poor masses was not a momentary decision. He had been
contemplating about it for a long time. On two earlier occasions, he had thought of donning the common
man’s clothes but it was ultimately in Madurai (Tamil Nadu) where he finally took the plunge of adopting
the attire of a poor peasant.
• Gandhi describes the incident that forced him to shed his formal attire: “On the way (from Madras to
Madurai by train) I saw in our compartment crowds that were wholly unconcerned with what had
happened. Almost without exception, they were bedecked in foreign fineries. I entered into conversation
with some of them and pleaded for Khadi. …. They shook their heads as they said, 'We are too poor to buy
Khadi and it is so dear.' I realized the substratum of truth behind the remark. I had my vest, cap and full
dhoti on. When these uttered only partial truth, the millions of compulsorily naked men, save for their
langoti four inches wide and nearly as many feet long, gave through their limbs the naked truth. What
effective answer could I give them, if it was not to divest myself of every inch of clothing I decently could
and thus to a still greater extent bring myself in line with ill-clad masses? And this I did the very next
morning after the Madura meeting."
• This thought traveled along with him during his train journey down to Madurai where, on 22nd September
1921, Gandhi once for all decided upon a simple dhoti and a shawl.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
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Q 22.A
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• The Charter Act of 1793 put the municipal institutions on a statutory basis. Hence statement 1 is
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correct. ri@
o The Governor General was empowered to appoint Justices of Peace in the presidency towns.
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Hence statement 2 is not correct.

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o These Justices of Peace were given powers to levy taxes on houses and lands to meet the cost of
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police, scavenging and repair of roads.

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o A house tax at the rate of 5% of the rental value was imposed in the presidency towns. Between 1840
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and 1853 the rate-payers were given the right to elect members of corporations, but the process was
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reversed in 1856 when all executive power, in the Bombay town, was concentrated in the hands of a
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nominated commissioner. A similar procedure was followed in Madras and Calcutta. Further attempts
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to introduce the elective element were made in 1872, 1876 and 1878.
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Q 23.A
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• Warli tribals were primarily indentured labour working in the fruit orchards, or wadis, mainly of chikoos
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for which the area was famous. They brought the wadi owners huge profits, but little of this was
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transferred to the Adivasis, most of whom were caught in a vicious cycle of poverty and debts they were
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unable to pay back.

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• In 1944, the Warli tribal agricultural labourers in Umbargaon, Dahanu talukas of Thana district of
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western India on their own staged an unsuccessful strike to demand a daily minimum wage of 12
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annas for agricultural work and also against forced labour. The strike failed. Hence, statement 1 is
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correct.
• Hereafter, the leaders of Maharashtra Kisan Sabha, Godavari Parulekar or Godutai and Shamrao
Parulekar decided to organize Maharashtra’s peasantry, starting with the Adivasis of Dahanu and
Umbargaon. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Heeding Godutai’s call, about 5,000 Adivasis, largely from Thane, Dahanu and Palghar, gathered at Zari
village in Talasari taluka on May 23, 1945, when Godutai formally declared that bonded labour was at an
end.
• The Adivasis moved from village to village declaring they would not work without wages. People stopped
work and marched out of landlords’ houses and fields. Within months this spread to Dahanu. Godutai
gave the call for liberation with the slogan ‘Take your pot and your loincloth and break free. By October
bonded labour had been buried.” Even the barbaric practice of lagnagadi, or marriage slave, ended.
• In October 1946, the movement was again renewed, this time with an additional demand for a minimum
daily rate for forest work, which the timber companies were not prepared to offer. The strike went on for
one month and their demands were met and an agreement was reached between Kisan Sabha and Timber
merchants.
• Thus the movement ended in a victory for Warli tribals who were mobilized by Kisan Sabhas.
Q 24.A
• Apart from the Digambaras and the Svetambaras, there was, in the past, another sect of the Jainas.
This sect, known as the Yapaniyas existed in Karnataka at least from the 5th to the 14th century.
• The first inscription which mentions the Yapaniyas is by Mrigesavarman (A. D. 475-490) a Kadamba
king Palasika. The Kadambas themselves were Brahmanas, but this King erected a Jaina temple in the city
of Palasika, and made a grant to the sects of Yapaniyas, Nirgranthas, and the Kurchakas. (Nirgranthas
were Digambaras).
• The Yapaniyas worshipped nude images which still exist and the people who worship in these
temples nowadays are Digambaras. The Yapaniya monks themselves also used to remain nude.
• Great grammarian, Shakatayana was a Yapaniya and a contemporary of the Rashtrakuta king
Amoghvarsa.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 25.A
• The book Travels in the Mogul Empire A. D. 1656-68 by Francois Bernier provides a valuable
account of the Mughal Empire.
o François Bernier was a French physician and traveller. He stayed (1658 – 1670) for around 12 years
in India.
o Bernier has endeavored to elucidate upon almost every aspect of the Mughal Empire viz. political
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developments, wealth of the emperors, economic conditions of the general populace, living conditions
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in Agra, Delhi etc, customs, traditions, beliefs of the subjects and so on.
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• Foguoji (“Record of Buddhist Kingdoms”) written by Fa-hsien contains valuable information not
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found elsewhere concerning the history of Indian Buddhism during the early centuries of the
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common era. Because of the fairly detailed descriptions by him, it is possible to envision Buddhist
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India before the Muslim invasions.

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o Fa-Hsien spent two decades (394-414) traveling to and studying in India. After his return to China, he
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translated into Chinese the many Sanskrit Buddhist texts he had brought back.
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• The Periplus of the Erythraean Sea is an eyewitness account of ancient travel to Africa and India
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via the Red Sea written by an unknown Greek-speaking Egyptian author in the 1st century CE. In
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this detailed account, the conditions of the routes are described, along with the ports along the way,
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the demeanor of the locals, and the major imports and exports.
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o Megasthenes is an ancient Greek historian and diplomat, author of an account of India called, Indica.
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He visited the court of Chandra Gupta Maurya.

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Q 26.B
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• In 1575, Akbar built a hall called Ibadat Khana or the Hall of Prayer at his new capital, Fatehpur
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Sikri. To this, he called selected theologians, mystics, and those of his courtiers and nobles who were
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known for their scholarship and intellectual attainments. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
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• The proceedings, at first, were confined to the Muslims. They were hardly orderly. The mullahs
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wrangled, shouted, and abused each other even in the presence of the emperor. The behavior of the
mullahs, their pride, and conceit in their learning disgusted Akbar and further alienated him from
the mullahs.
• At this stage, Akbar opened the Ibadat Khana to people of all religions— Christians, Zoroastrians,
Hindus, Jains, even atheists. This broadened the discussions, and debates began even on issues on which
all Muslims were agreed, such as whether the Quran was the last revealed book and Muhammad its
prophet, resurrection, nature of God, etc. This horrified the theologians. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• A number of fatwas were given by the qazis declaring Akbar to be a heretic. Akbar suppressed the
rebellion and gave drastic punishment to the qazis.
• To further strengthen his position in dealing with the mullahs, Akbar also issued a declaration which
asserted that if there were conflicting views among those who were considered fit to interpret the Quran,
that is mujtahids, Akbar, by virtue of being ‘a most just and wise king’, and his rank being higher in the
eyes of God than of the mujtahids, was entitled to choose any one of the interpretations, which would be
of benefit to the nation and in the interests of good order.
Q 27.B
• The Battle of Talikota was a battle fought between the Vijayanagar Empire and the Deccan
Sultanates of Ahmadnagar, Bijapur, Golconda, Bidar. The combined forces of the Deccan
Sultanates inflicted a devastating defeat on the Vijayanagar army.
• In this battle, the Vijayanagara forces were led by Aliya Rama Raya.
o After the death of Krishna Deva (1530), there was a struggle for succession among his relations since
his sons were all minors. Ultimately, in 1543, Sadashiva Raya ascended the throne and reigned till
1567. But the real power lay in the hands of a triumvirate in which the leading person was Aliya
Rama Raya.
• Deccani Sultanates were led by
o Ahmadnagar - Hussain Nizam Shah
o Bijapur - Ali Adil Shah
o Golconda - Ibrahim Quli Qutb Shah Wali
o Bidar - Ali Barid Shah
• Aliya Rama Raya was able to play off various Muslim powers against one another. So, the Sultans of
Bijapur, Ahmednagar and Golconda entered into a joint pact to march against Vijayanagara Empire.
• After the battle, Aliya Rama Raya was surrounded, taken prisoner and immediately executed.
Vijayanagara was thoroughly looted and left in ruins.
• The Battle of Talikota is generally considered to mark the end of the great age of Vijayanagara. Although
the kingdom lingered on for almost one hundred more years, its territories decreased continually.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
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Q 28.D
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• The Lion Capital discovered more than a hundred years ago at Sarnath, near Varanasi, is generally
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referred to as Sarnath Lion Capital. This is one of the finest examples of sculpture from the Mauryan
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period. It was built in commemoration of the historical event of the first sermon or the
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Dhammachakrapravartana by the Buddha at Sarnath. The capital was built by Ashoka. The capital
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originally consisted of five component parts:

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o the shaft (which is broken in many parts now),

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o a lotus bell base,

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o a drum on the bell base with four animals proceeding clockwise,

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o the figures of four majestic addorsed lions, and

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o the crowning element, Dharamchakra, a large wheel, was also a part of this pillar.
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• However, this wheel is lying in a broken condition and is displayed in the site museum at
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Sarnath. The capital without the crowning wheel and the lotus base has been adopted as the National
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Emblem of Independent India. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

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• The national emblem of India is shown below

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Q 29.C
• Kalamkari (also known as Vrathapani) literally translates into “pen craft”; with ‘kalam’ meaning pen
and ‘kari’ meaning art and refers to both printed and painted cloth. Kalamkari art and printing is
concentrated primarily in Andhra Pradesh, particularly in Kalahasti and Machilipatnam. In the
seventeenth century Persian influences led to artists experimenting with the depiction of trees, fruits,
flowers and ornamental birds. This cloth painting process involves no chemical product and the excess
dyes that flow into the rivers while washing do not pollute it. Originally large paintings on cloth served as
pictorial renderings of the great epics, the Ramayana and the Mahabharata for temples. Paintings were
also made to illustrate spiritual poems of eminent writers. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Kavad is the colorful wooden toy like a box, is actually a shrine, wherein mostly the stories from
epics Ramayan and Mahabharat are depicted. Sometimes there are other stories from local folklore like
stories of locals saints or heroes. Artists in Chittorgarh, Rajasthan make these wooden temples with
doors that can be opened up to reveal elaborately painted stories of historical or religious importance.
These wooden kavads are used for worship and on festive occasions. Hence pair 2 is not correctly
matched.
• The Jharna Patachitra of West Bengal is a long vertical paper scroll used to tell stories from religious
epics. The artists compose songs that they sing while they slowly unroll each scene of the painting. Old
fabric is pasted on the back of the scroll to make it stronger. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
Q 30.D
• To unlock a more equitable world, a global effort is needed to encourage and invest in the creation of
digital public goods (DPG): open-source software, open data, open artificial intelligence models, open
standards and open content. This is key to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals. Digital public
goods should adhere to privacy and other applicable laws, standards and best practices, do no harm.
• The basic traits of DPG include
o DPG are goods with benefits that potentially extend to all countries, people, and generations.
o They are public in the traditional economic sense as opposed to private; and global as opposed to
national.
o Similar to public goods, DPG are non-rivalrous and non-excludable.
• India’s DPG Model:
o India Stack was synthesised to solve a fundamental issue impeding ﬁnancial inclusion: a lack of a
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comprehensive identiﬁer. Core part of the India Stack: Aadhaar Authentication, Aadhaar e-KYC,
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eSign, Digital Locker, Unified Payment Interface (UPI) and Digital User Consent.
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o CoWin – a digital solution for COVID-19 vaccination management registration. It uses Digital
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Infrastructure for Vaccination Open Credentialing (DIVOC) to credentialize vaccines.
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• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

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Q 31.A
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• External Commercial Borrowings are commercial loans raised by eligible resident entities from
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recognised non-resident entities and should conform to parameters such as minimum maturity, permitted
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and non-permitted end-uses, maximum all-in-cost ceiling, etc.

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• The framework for raising loans through ECB comprises the following two options foreign currency
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denominated ECBs and INR denominated ECBs.

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• ECBs can be raised in any of the following forms:

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o Loans
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o Issue of non-convertible, optionally convertible or partially convertible preference shares/debentures

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o Trade credits beyond 3 years

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o Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) or

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o Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bonds (FCEBs)

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• Eligible borrowers include All entities eligible to receive FDI. Further, the following entities are also
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eligible to raise ECB:

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o Port Trusts;
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o Units in SEZ;
o SIDBI; and
o EXIM Bank of India
• The negative list, for which the ECB proceeds cannot be utilised, would include the following:
o Real estate activities.
o Investment in the capital market.
o Equity investment
o Repayment of Rupee loans,
• Indian Depository Receipt (IDR) is a financial instrument denominated in Indian Rupees in the form of a
depository receipt. In an IDR, foreign companies would issue shares to an Indian Depository and thus can
mobilise funds from India by selling shares. IDR is an opposite case of GDR or ADR. In other words,
the IDR is an instrument denominated in Indian Rupees created by a Domestic Depository to enable
foreign companies to raise funds from the Indian Securities Markets.
Q 32.D
• A bank places its funds in assets to earn profits. The assets include investments ( government securities
etc.), loans and advances, money at call and short notice, bills discounted and purchased. It also
includes the cash in hand with the banks and also the cash held with the RBI.
• The liabilities include deposits (both time and demand) and borrowings. Certificates of Deposit (CD) are
issued by scheduled commercial banks and select financial institutions in India as allowed by RBI
within a limit. A CD that matures in less than one year will be reported by the bank as a current
liability.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 33.A
• The Lok Sabha passed the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill 2021, making into law
amendments made to the IBC, 2016. The latest amendments allow the use of “pre-packs” to resolve
insolvency proceedings involving micro, small and medium-scale enterprises. According to the
amendments, the government has notified a threshold for default – not exceeding ₹1 crore -- at
which point a pre-packaged resolution process may be initiated. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Pre-packs, which are popular in many developed countries, are seen as a smoother way to resolve
bankruptcies unlike the conventional insolvency resolution process.
• A pre-pack is a way of resolving the troubles of creditors and owners of a distressed business. Under a
pre-pack resolution, creditors and owners of a business agree to sell the business to an interested
buyer before going to the court to sanction the agreement. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
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• The pre-pack insolvency resolution process (PIRP) is in contrast to the corporate insolvency resolution
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process (CIRP) that has been used under the IBC to sell or liquidate troubled businesses till now. Under
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CIRP, once a creditor moves to court, a resolution professional appointed by the court takes charge of the
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business and then draws up and implements a plan of resolution. The pre-pack option has been introduced
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to help micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs) hit hard by the pandemic.
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• Pre-packs make great economic sense as well. They allow the assets of distressed businesses to be quickly
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deployed back into the economy rather than being subject to long litigation in courts.
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Q 34.A
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• The persistence of high core inflation (i.e., CPI inflation excluding food and fuel) since June 2020 has
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been an area of policy concern as input cost pressures could rapidly be transmitted to retail inflation as
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demand strengthens. The Government and RBI are resorting to multiple interventions to curb the rising
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inflation. Some of these include:

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• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently conducted a $ 5 billion dollar-rupee swap auction as part
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of its liquidity management initiative, leading to infusion of dollars and sucking out of the rupee from the
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financial system. The central bank’s move will reduce the pressure on inflation and strengthen the
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rupee.
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• The Union and State Governments had also recently reduced excise duty and VAT on petrol and
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diesel, which was aimed at bringing down inflation by way of direct effects as well as indirect effects
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operating through fuel and transportation costs.

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• Recently, as prices of edible oil hit near-record highs, the Union Government substantially reduced
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taxes on imports of palm, soy and sunflower oil.

• Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has recently issued directions to stock exchanges in
the commodity derivatives segment for immediately suspending trading in derivative contracts in
key farm commodities, namely paddy (non-basmati), wheat, chana, mustard seeds and its derivatives,
soya bean and its derivatives, crude palm oil and moong for a year.
o It is to rein in rising prices of essential commodities, which are fuelling inflation. It is believed that
speculators have a role in jacking up prices and this needed to be discouraged to curb inflation and
support growth as the economy is recovering from COVID-19 impact.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 35.B
• The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) was established
by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development
Authority Act passed by the Parliament. It is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence
• It is mandated with the responsibility of export promotion and development of the scheduled products
such as Fruits, Vegetables and their Products such as
• Meat and Meat Products, Poultry and Poultry Products, Dairy Products, Confectionery, Biscuits and
Bakery Products, Honey, Jaggery and Sugar Products, Cocoa and its products, chocolates of all kinds,
Alcoholic and Non-Alcoholic Beverages, Cereal and Cereal Products, Groundnuts, Peanuts and Walnuts,
Pickles, Papads and Chutneys, Guar Gum, Floriculture and Floriculture Products, Herbal and Medicinal
Plants.
• Basmati Rice has been included in the Second Schedule of the APEDA Act, 1985.
• In addition to this, APEDA has been entrusted with the responsibility of monitoring the import of
sugar as well. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The APEDA, Ministry of Commerce & Industries, Government of India is implementing the National
Programme for Organic Production (NPOP). The programme involves the accreditation of
Certification Bodies, standards for organic production, promotion of organic farming and
marketing etc. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 36.A
• Recently, A World Trade Organisation (WTO) panel has ruled against India’s sugar export subsidy
and domestic support to sugarcane growers in a dispute filed by Australia, Brazil and Guatemala.
• The sugar industry is an important agro-based industry that impacts the rural livelihood of about 50
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million sugarcane farmers and around 5 lakh workers directly employed in sugar mills.
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• India is the second-largest producer of sugar in the world after Brazil and is also the largest
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consumer.
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• With the amendment of the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966, the concept of Statutory Minimum Price
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(SMP) of sugarcane was replaced with the ‘Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP)’ of sugarcane for
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2009-10 and subsequent sugar seasons.

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• The cane price announced by the Central Government is decided on the basis of the recommendations of
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the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) after consulting the State Governments and
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associations of the sugar industry.

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• The Central Government considered the recommendations of the committee headed by Dr C.

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Rangarajan on the de-regulation of the sugar sector and decided to discontinue the system of levy
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obligations on mills for sugar produced after September 2012 and abolished the regulated release
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mechanism on open market sale of sugar. Hence statement 1 is correct.

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• The deregulation of the sugar sector was undertaken to improve the financial health of sugar mills,
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enhance cash flows, reduce inventory costs and also result in timely payments of cane prices to sugarcane
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farmers.
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• The Government of India has reviewed the Sugar Subsidy Scheme and has decided that it is
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imperative to give access to the consumption of sugar as a source of energy in the diet, for the
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poorest of the poor section of the society i.e. AAY families. Hence
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• Accordingly, CCEA has decided that the existing system of sugar distribution through PDS may be
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continued as per the following:-

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o The existing scheme of supply of subsidized sugar through PDS may be continued for restricted
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coverage of AAY families only. They will be provided 1 kg of sugar per family per month.
o The current level of subsidy at Rs. 18.50 per kg provided by the Central Government to States/UTs
for distribution of sugar through PDS may be continued for the AAY population.
• MINIMUM INDICATIVE EXPORT QUOTAS (MIEQ). -
• With a view to improving domestic sugar price sentiments, the Government fixed indicative export targets
for each mill proportionate to their sugar production. No export subsidy or incentive is offered and the
industry is expected to export at prevailing international prices and absorb the losses so incurred.
• However, it is no longer required to promote the export of sugar. Hence, MIEQ has been
withdrawn. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 37.B
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently issued Retail Direct Scheme scheme to bring investments from
individual investors into government securities. The scheme of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Retail
Direct has been formulated as a one-stop solution to facilitate investment in Government Securities
by individual investors. At present, the G-sec market is dominated by institutional investors such as
banks, mutual funds and insurance companies. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Under this scheme, retail investors can open and maintain a Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) account with the
RBI free of cost through the dedicated online portal for this scheme.
• The scheme improves ease of access by retail investors through online access to the government securities
market – both primary and secondary. The ‘Online portal’ will also give the registered users access to
primary issuance of Government securities and NDS-OM (electronic anonymous order matching system
for secondary market trading in Government securities owned by RBI). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 38.A
• The Ministry of Labour recently released a new series of Wage Rate Index (WRI) with the base year
2016, is compiled and maintained by the Labour Bureau. It would be compiled twice a year on a
half-yearly basis, on January 1 and July 1. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not
correct
• The new series of WRI will replace the old series with base 1963-65. The new series of WRI has
increased the scope and coverage in terms of a number of industries, sample size, occupations under
selected industries, weightage of industries etc.
• In the new WRI basket, the current wage data has been collected from 2,881 units under 37 selected
industries as against 1,256 units under 21 industries in the old series.
• Of the 37 industries covered in the new series, 16 new ones have been added under the manufacturing
sector - including textile garments, footwear and petroleum. In the new series, the oil mining industry has
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been introduced in the basket in place of mica mines industry, to make the mining sector more
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representative of 3 different kinds of mining namely coal, metal and oil. Total 3 plantation industries
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(tea, coffee and rubber) have been retained in the new WRI basket with enhanced coverage.
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Q 39.A
• The World Economic Forum recently released the Global Risks Report 2022. Cybersecurity,
pandemic, climate change and space advancements are emerging risks to the global economy. The global
economy is to shrink by 2.3% by 2024. However, in developing countries, this is to be 5.5%. In rich
countries, it will be 0.9%. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• The World Bank’s Global Economic Prospects Report was released on January 11, 2022. The report
notes that Global economic growth will decrease sharply to 4.1% in 2022 and 3.2% in 2023, from 5.5% in
2021. It projects India’s annual growth to be 8.3% in the fiscal year 2021-2022, 8.7% in 2022-23, and
6.8% in 2023-24. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• The Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) has released new data on Arms Sales
in its Global Arms Trade Report. The three Indian companies are Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(HAL), Indian Ordnance Factories, and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) is among the world’s top 100
for combined arms sales in 2020. India’s share of arms sales globally in 2020 was 1.2 %. Their aggregated
arms sales of USD 6.5 billion were 1.7 % higher in 2020 than in 2019” and accounted for 1.2 % of the top
100 total. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Q 40.B
• India now has a 2+2 format dialogue mechanism on strategic and security issues with four of its key
strategic partners, Russia being the latest. The three others — Australia, the US, and Japan — are
also ‘Quad’ partners.
• Russia is the only non-Quad member with which India has this mechanism. The maiden Indo-Russia
2+2 meet had taken place in New Delhi on December 6, 2021 the day that saw Russian President Putin
visiting India for the annual India-Russia summit.
• The dialogue took place in the backdrop of India getting deliveries of the S-400 missile defense system
from Russia.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer
Q 41.C
• Recently, Indonesia's parliament has passed a law approving the relocation of its capital from slowly
sinking Jakarta to a site 2,000 kilometres away on jungle-clad Borneo island called East Kalimantan
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that will be named "Nusantara".
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• Jakarta has long been plagued by serious infrastructure problems and flooding exacerbated by climate
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change, with experts predicting up to a third of the city could be underwater by 2050.
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• Indonesia, the world’s fourth most populous nation. Indonesia is the largest archipelago in the world. It
consists of five major islands and about 30 smaller groups. There are total number of 17,508 islands of
which about 6000 are inhabited. Straddling equator, the archipelago is on a crossroads between two
oceans, the Pacific and the Indian Ocean, and bridges two continents, Asia and Australia.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer

Q 42.A
• Literally translated as ‘the boy’ and ‘the girl’ in the Spanish language, El Nino and La Nina are the exact
opposite phases of a climatic phenomenon called the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle, which
takes place in the Pacific Ocean.
• It involves temperature changes in the waters of the Eastern and Central Pacific Oceans.
• La Niña means Little Girl in Spanish.
• La Niña is also sometimes called El Viejo, anti-El Niño, or simply "a cold event."
• La Niña has the opposite effect of El Niño.
• During La Niña events, trade winds are even stronger than usual, pushing more warm water
toward Asia. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Off the west coast of the Americas, upwelling increases, bringing cold, nutrient-rich water to the surface.
• During La Niña, waters off the Pacific coast are colder and contain more nutrients than usual.
• This environment supports more marine life and attracts more cold-water species, like squid and salmon,
to places like the California coast.
• It causes drought in the South American countries of Peru and Ecuador, heavy floods in Australia, high
temperatures in the Western Pacific, Indian Ocean, off the Somalian coast and comparatively better
monsoon rains in India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Generally, El Nino and La Nina occur every 4 -5 years.
• El Nino is more frequent than La Nina.
Q 43.B
• The Amazon rainforest plays an important part in regulating the world’s oxygen and carbon cycles.
• It produces roughly 6 percent of the world’s oxygen and has long been thought to act as a carbon sink,
meaning it readily absorbs large amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is
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not correct.
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• The Amazon River is the second-longest river in the world, next to the Nile covering roughly nearly
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4,000 miles. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Not only does the Amazon encompass the single largest remaining tropical rainforest in the world, it also
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houses at least 10% of the world's known biodiversity, including endemic and endangered flora and
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fauna, and its river accounts for 15-16% of the world's total river discharge into the oceans. Hence
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statement 3 is correct.
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• There are more than 2.5 million species of insect that scuttle through the leaf litter.
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• It contains roughly 1,300 bird species, 3,000 species of fish, and approximately 430 species of mammals,
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according to National Geographic.

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Q 44.A
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• The lines running east to west, parallel to the Equator, are called lines of latitude. The lines running north
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to south passing through the poles are called lines of longitude. The intersection of latitudes and
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longitudes pinpoint any place on the earth's surface. These crisscrossing lines form a framework known as
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the Geographic Grid. Therefore, all lines of latitudes intersect with all lines of longitudes. Hence
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• Latitude is the angular distance of a place north or south of the equator.
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o The Equator is the longest line of latitude. It represents 0° latitude.

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o Including the equator, there are 181 parallels of latitude at 1° interval. Hence statement 3 is not
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correct.
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• A great circle is a circle that is drawn on the surface of a sphere (such as the earth) that take has a radius
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equal to the radius of the sphere, and whose centre is also the sphere's centre. Circles that do not pass
through the centre of the earth are small circles. Arcs of great circles are the shortest route between two
points on a sphere.
o The Equator is the only latitude that is a great circle. All the parallels of latitudes other than the
equator are small circles. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o All longitudes are a part of a great circle. The two diametrically opposite lines make a full circle also
known as the Great Circle. For example, 0° and 180° meridian together make a full circle round the
earth. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Q 45.A
• FOREST TYPES OF TAMIL NADU
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o The physiography of the country has been classified into ten biogeographic zones, of which two viz.,
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the Coramandel or the East Coast and the Western Ghats are occurring in the State. Naturally,
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the landmass of the State falls under two natural divisions' viz., the eastern coastal plain and the
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hilly region along the north and the west. Among the Southern states, Tamil Nadu contains the
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maximum number of 9 of the total of 16 major forest types recognized in India by Champion and
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o Coastal plain can be subdivided into (a) the Coramandel plain, (b) the Alluvial plains of the
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Cauvery delta,(c) the dry Southern plains in Madurai, Ramanathapuram, Kanyakumari, and
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Tirunelveli, and (d) the inner plains comprising districts of Dharmapuri, Salem, Vellore, and Madurai
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districts. A narrow belt of sand dunes rising to about 10m is found on the Toothukudi coast. Further
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south in Toothukudi, red sandhills locally known as “Teri” rise to 50 m above mean sea level
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(MSL). Typical coral reefs occur at Pamban islands at the head of the Gulf of Mannar on the east
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coast.
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o The hilly region along the North and the West Along the whole length of the western part, at a
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distance from the sea varying from 80 to 160 km runs the range of the Western Ghats, a steep and
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rugged mass averaging 1220m above MSL and rising to 2554 m at Mukurti and 2637 m at
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Doddabetta in Nilgiris. It has tropical evergreen, semi-evergreen and deciduous forests, as well as
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savannahs intermixed with cultivated lands and settled areas in the valleys. The Eastern Ghats from
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Andhra Pradesh cut across the State to meet the Nilgiri hills.
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o The 'Palghat gap' of about 30 km width is the only marked break in the Western Ghats. To
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the south of this gap, the range is called Anamalai and Cardamom hills. On the east of Western
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Ghats are Palni hills, which are an offshoot of Anamalais. Other prominent groups of hills are Javadis,
Shervaroys, Chitteris, Kolli hills, Kalrayans, and Pachamalais. All these form a chain of low, flat-
topped hills. Nilgiris and Anamalais are hill groups with the maximum height.
o It is seen that the tropical deciduous and thorn forests constitute the majority of the forest area in
the State and account for nearly 60% of the total forests. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 46.A
• From the fifth to fourteenth centuries Buddhist and Jain developments were equally vibrant and often
went hand in glove with Hindu ones. Sites such as Ellora have Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain monuments;
however, Badami, Khajuraho, and Kannauj have the remains of any two of the religions right next to each
other.
• Ellora Caves: The Ellora complex is unique because it consists of Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain
caves. these caves are excavated side by side to testify to the peaceful ancient coexistence of these three
major Indian religions. The first twelve caves are Buddhist and appear to be the oldest, dating circa 600 to
800 C.E. They comprise monasteries and one chaitya or temple. The Hindu ones are Caves 13 to 29,
perhaps the best known being Cave 16, the Kailash Temple. These were built between 600 to 900 C.E.
The Jain group of caves are 30 to 34 and were the last to be excavated, circa 800 to 1000 C.E.
• Badami Caves, Karnataka: There are four rock-cut temples (caves) of which three are
Brahmanical, while the fourth is Jain.
• Khajuraho has temples of Shaiva, Vaishnava, and Jain sects. There are temples dedicated to Shiva,
Ramachandra, and Parshvanatha amongst others.
Q 47.B
• Rathas of Mahabalipuram:
o Mahabalipuram (or Mamallapuram), located along southeastern India’s Coromandel Coast, was a
celebrated port city of the Pallavas. The group of monuments there consists of rock-cut cave temples,
monolithic temples, bas-relief sculptures, and structural temples as well as the excavated remains of
temples. The Pallava dynasty, which ruled this area between the 6th and 9th centuries CE, created
these majestic edifices. The monuments of Mahabalipuram may be subdivided into the following
categories:
✓ The mandapas (rock-cut caves): During the time of Narasimhavarman-I Mamalla, new
innovations were introduced in the rock medium in the form of cave temples. Notable examples
of the cave temple are Konerimandapa, Mahishmardhini cave, and Varahamandapa. These rock-
cut caves are richly embellished with sculptural representations known for their natural grace and
suppleness. Noteworthy among them are Mahishamardhini, Bhuvaraha, Gajalakshmi,
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Tirivikrama, and Durga.
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✓ The rathas (monolithic temples): The monolithic temples are locally called “ratha” (chariot), as
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they resemble the processional chariots of a temple. These five monolithic temples are each hewn
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out of a huge boulder.
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✓ The rock reliefs: The sculptural bas reliefs are another very important class of masterly creations
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created during Mamalla’s reign. There are four such reliefs at Mamallapuram, the most
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noteworthy among them being the Arjuna’s Penance and Govardhanadhari.

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✓ The temples: King Rajasimha introduced structural architecture on a grand scale. The earliest and
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most modest is the Mukundanayananar temple, followed by the Olakkanesvara temple, perched
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on a rock near the lighthouse.

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o Pancha Rathas is an example of monolithic Indian rock-cut architecture made from granite. Each
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of the five monuments in the Pancha Rathas complex resembles a chariot (ratha), and each is carved
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over a monolith that slopes in a north-south direction with a marginal incline. The structures were
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not consecrated because they were not completed following the death of Narasimhavarman I. Hence,
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o These 7th-century shrines (or temples; either term is appropriate) were carved during the reign of
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King Mamalla (Narasimhavarman I, c. 630 - 670), after whom the site (Mamallapuram, also called
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Mahabalipuram) is named. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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o They are named individually after Draupadi and the Pandavas brothers from the Mahabharata,
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although they have nothing to do with temple carts or the Mahabharata. Hence, statement 3 is
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not correct.
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Q 48.B
• The earliest treatise on dance available to us is Bharat Muni's Natyashastra, the sourcebook of the art of
drama, dance, and music. According to the author, he has evolved this Veda by taking words from the
Rigveda, music from the Samaveda, gestures from the Yajurveda and emotions from the Atharvaveda.
An ancient classification followed in all styles is of Tandava and Lasya.
o Tandava the masculine, is heroic bold, and vigorous.
o Lasya the feminine is soft, lyrical, and graceful. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o Abhinaya broadly means expression. This is achieved through Angika, the body and limbs,
vachikasong and speech and aharya, costume and adornment; and satvika, moods and emotions.
• Odissi closely follows the tenets laid down by the Natya Shastra. Facial expressions, hand gestures and
body movements are used to suggest a certain feeling, an emotion or one of the nine rasas.

• The techniques of movement are built around the two basic postures of the Chowkand the Tribhanga.
o The chowk is a position imitating a square - a very masculine stance with the weight of the body
equally balanced. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o The tribhanga is a very feminine stance where the body is deflected at the neck, torso and the
knees. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 49.A
• The Therigatha (‘verses of old women monks’) is a collection of 73 poems written by Buddhist
women monks over a period of 300 years. ‘Theri’ refers to elderly women monks or distinguished
women of wisdom and character. It is said that the poems were passed down orally in the Magadhi
language for a few hundred years, before being compiled in Pali in the 1st century BCE.
• The poems are renditions of stories, situations and emotions that seem remarkably extant. Depression,
loss, marriage, motherhood, betrayal, menopause and death—all feature as causes of suffering, which are
then overcome through Buddhist teachings.
o One of the first poems in the book is by the first Buddhist nun, Pajapati Gautami. After Siddhartha’s
birth mother, Maya, passed away shortly after giving birth, it was her sister, Pajapati, who raised him.
Years later, a much older Pajapati who, by then, had no worldly obligations, fought her way into
being accepted in the sangha (community of monks) as a nun.
Q 50.A
• National Health Mission, Assam in collaboration with Piramal Swasthya and Cisco launched the
project “Niramay” to demonstrate the integration of digital health technology to strengthen public
health care delivery in the state.
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• This initiative is based on Piramal Swasthya’s indigenous integrated health technology platform ‘AMRIT’
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(Accessible Medical Records via Integrated Technologies).
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• This project will work towards strengthening digital infrastructure to enable telemedicine interactions,
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rapid diagnostics, patient’s health records and data collection at the grass-root level in three aspirational
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districts (Barpeta, Darrang and Baksa) in Assam.

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• Project Niramay will provide specialist consultation and early diagnosis of non-communicable diseases
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and cases of high-risk pregnancy. It will also enhance the quality of health data and patient experience,
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ultimately helping to minimise people's out-of-pocket spending on health.

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• Hence option (a) is the correct answer

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Q 51.B
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• Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 or
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Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 recognises and vests two broad types of rights to scheduled tribes and
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other traditional forest dwellers: individual forest rights (IFR) and community forest rights (CFR).
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• FRA empowers Gram Sabha to be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and
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extent of individual or community forest rights or both. Hence statement 1 is correct.

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• It includes the right for conversion of Pattas or leases or grants issued by any local authority or any
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State Government on forest lands to titles. Hence statement 3 is correct.

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• It includes any other traditional right customarily enjoyed by the forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes or
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other traditional forest dwellers, as the case may be, which are not mentioned in the FRA but excluding
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the traditional right of hunting or trapping or extracting a part of the body of any species of wild
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animal. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 52.B
• A motion is a proposal made by a member to the House to elicit a specific action or order on a
matter. The motion may also seek that the House express an opinion with regard to some matter.
• The process from the start to finish of a motion's life-cycle is as follows:
o A member rises to move the motion, the Chair/Speaker approves or disapproves it, if approved, the
House takes up a debate.
o At the conclusion of the debate, the Chair poses the operative question, which is passed or rejected in
a vote (generally by voice).

• Closure Motion:
o It is a motion moved by a member to cut short the debate on a matter before the House.If the
motion is approved by the House, the debate is stopped forthwith and the matter is put to vote. Hence
o There are four kinds of closure motions. They are:
✓ Simple Closure: It is one when a member moves that the ‘matter has been sufficiently discussed
be now put to vote.
✓ Closure by Compartments: In this case, the clauses of a bill or a lengthy resolution are
grouped into parts before the commencement of the debate. The debate covers the part as a
whole and the entire part is put to vote. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
✓ Kangaroo Closure: Under this type, only important clauses are taken up for debate and
voting and the intervening clauses are skipped over and taken as passed.
✓ Guillotine Closure: It is one when the undiscussed clauses of a bill or a resolution are also
put to vote along with the discussed ones due to wanting of time (as the time allotted for the
discussion is over. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 53.B
• Forty-Second Amendment Act, 1976:
o The most comprehensive amendment made so far to the Constitution. It is known as ‘Mini-
Constitution’. It gave effect to the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee.
o Added three new words (i.e., socialist, secular and integrity) in the Preamble.
o Added Fundamental Duties by the citizens (new Part IV A).
o Made the president bound by the advise of the cabinet.
o Provided for administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters (Added Part XIV A).
Hence statement 4 is correct.
o Froze the seats in the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies on the basis of 1971 census till 2001.
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o Made the constitutional amendments beyond judicial scrutiny.
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o Curtailed the power of judicial review and writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts.
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o Raised the tenure of Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies from 5 to 6 years.
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o Provided that the laws made for the implementation of Directive Principles cannot be declared invalid
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by the courts on the ground of violation of some Fundamental Rights.

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o Empowered the Parliament to make laws to deal with anti-national activities and such laws are to take
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precedence over Fundamental Rights.

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o Added three new Directive Principles viz., equal justice and free-legal aid, participation of workers in
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the management of industries and protection of environment, forests and wild life.
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o Facilitated the proclamation of national emergency in a part of territory of India.

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o Extended the one-time duration of the President’s rule in a state from 6 months to one year.
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o Empowered the Centre to deploy its armed forces in any state to deal with a grave situation of law and
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order.
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o Shifted five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list, viz, education, forests, protection of wild
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animals and birds, weights and measures and administration of justice, constitution and organisation
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of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts.
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o Did away with the requirement of quorum in the Parliament and the state legislatures.
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o Empowered the Parliament to decide from time to time the rights and privileges of its members and
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committees.
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o Provided for the creation of the All-India Judicial Service. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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o Shortened the procedure for disciplinary action by taking away the right of a civil servant to make
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representation at the second stage after the inquiry (i.e., on the penalty proposed).
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• The Thirty-Eighth Amendment Act, 1975 made the declaration of emergency by the president non-
justiciable. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978 restored the original term of the Lok Sabha and the state
legislative assemblies (i.e., 5 years). Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 54.B
• Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the constitution contain special provisions for twelve states
viz., Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Sikkim,
Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, and Karnataka.
• The intention behind them is to meet the aspirations of the people of backward regions of the states or to
protect the cultural and economic interests of the tribal people of the states or to deal with the disturbed
law and order condition in some parts of the states or to protect the interests of the local people of the
states.
• Originally, the constitution did not make any special provisions for these states. They have been
incorporated by the various subsequent amendments made in the context of the reorganization of the
states or conferment of statehood on the Union Territories.
• Under Article 371, the President is authorized to provide that the Governor of Maharashtra and
that of Gujarat would have special responsibility for:
o the establishment of separate development boards for
✓ Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of Maharashtra,
✓ Saurashtra, Kutch and the rest of Gujarat;
✓ Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o making a provision that a report on the working of these boards would be placed every year before the
State Legislative Assembly.
• The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975 made Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian
Union. It included a new Article 371-F containing special provisions with respect to Sikkim. These
are as follows:
o The Sikkim Legislative Assembly is to consist of not less than 30 members.
o One seat is allotted to Sikkim in the Lok Sabha and Sikkim forms one Parliamentary constituency.
o For the purpose of protecting the rights and interests of the different sections of the Sikkim
population, the Parliament is empowered to provide for the:
✓ number of seats in the Sikkim Legislative Assembly which may be filled by candidates belonging
to such sections; and
✓ delimitation of the Assembly constituencies from which candidates belonging to such sections
alone may stand for election to the Assembly.
o The Governor shall have special responsibility for peace and for an equitable arrangement for
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ensuring the social and economic advancement of the different sections of the Sikkim population. In
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the discharge of this responsibility, the Governor shall act in his discretion, subject to the directions
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o The President can extend (with restrictions or modifications) to Sikkim any law which is in
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force in a state of the Indian Union. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

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• Under Article 371-J, the President is empowered to provide that the Governor of Karnataka would
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have special responsibility for:

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o The establishment of a separate development board for the Hyderabad- Karnataka region.
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o Making a provision that a report on the working of the board would be placed every year before the
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State Legislative Assembly.

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o Article 371-J (which provided for special provisions for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region of the state
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of Karnataka) was inserted in the Constitution by the 98thConstitutional Amendment Act of 2012.
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Q 55.B
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• The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of
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the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague-Chelmsford Reforms). Hence option (b) is the
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correct answer.
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• The Speaker is the head of the Lok Sabha, and its representative. He is the guardian of powers and
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privileges of the members, the House as a whole and its committees. He is the principal spokesman of the
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House, and his decision in all Parliamentary matters is final.

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o In Kihota Hollohan v. Zachillhu case Supreme Court clarified that, the Speaker or Chairman
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acting under Tenth Schedule of the Constitution is a Tribunal.

• Independence and impartiality are the two important attributes of the office of the Speaker. This is sought
to be ensured in many ways.
o In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker has been given a very high position. He comes next only to
the President, the Vice-President and the Prime Minister. He ranks higher than all Cabinet Ministers
other than the Prime Minister himself.
o His salary and allowances are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, that is, they do not have to
be voted by Parliament.
o His conduct cannot be discussed except on a substantive motion.

o He does not vote in the House except when there is an equality of votes. And, when he gives his
casting vote in the event of a tie, it is always in accordance with well-established parliamentary
principles and conventions. Incidentally, so far there has not been a single instance in India since
Independence, when the Speaker was required to make use of his casting vote.
o The Speaker is politically neutral. Upon his election as Speaker, he dissociates himself from the
activities of his party. While he may continue to belong to a party, he ceases to be involved in any
party politics. He does not hold any party office, does not participate in any party meetings or
functions and keeps away from political controversies and party campaigns.
Q 56.B
• Prime Minister recently stated that Rs 1,300 crore had been paid to over 1 lakh depositors who could
not access their money as their banks faced financial crises and that a further 3 lakh such depositors
were set to receive funds stuck in such accounts. The PM noted that the deposits worth Rs 76 lakh crore
were insured under the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) Act
providing full coverage to around 98 percent of bank accounts.
• In India, deposits in public and private sector banks, local area banks, small finance banks, regional
rural banks, cooperative banks, Indian branches of foreign banks, and payments banks are all
insured by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), a fully owned
subsidiary of RBI.
• However, primary cooperative societies are not insured by DICGC. Moreover, the deposit insurance
scheme is compulsory and none of the above-mentioned banks can withdraw from it.
• The premium for this insurance is paid by banks to the DICGC and is not passed on to depositors. It
has been raised from 10 paise for every Rs 100 deposit, to 12 paise and a limit of 15 paise has been
imposed.
• DICGC insures all deposits such as savings, fixed, current, recurring, etc. except the following:
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o Deposits of foreign Governments
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o Deposits of Central/State Governments
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o Inter-bank deposits ri@
o Deposits of State Land Development Banks with the State co-operative bank
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o Any amount due on account of and deposit received outside India

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o Any amount, specifically exempted by the corporation with the previous approval of RBI
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• Hence statement 1 is not correct.

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• All funds held in the same type of ownership at the same bank are added together before deposit insurance
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is determined. If the funds are in different types of ownership (savings, current, etc.) or are deposited into
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separate banks they would be insured separately.

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• In August 2021, the Centre passed an amendment to the DICGC Act to ensure that account holders can
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access their insured deposits.

fo
o Under the new amendments, bank deposits of up to ₹5 lakh are insured by the government. Earlier,
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deposits of only up to ₹1 lakh were insured. The cover of Rs 5 lakh per depositor is provided by
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DICGC.
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o Moreover, DICGC must return money owed to depositors within 90 days. Earlier, depositors
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normally had to wait for 8-10 years before they could get their deposits in a distressed bank only after
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its complete liquidation or restructuring. Hence statement 2 is correct

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Q 57.B
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• The cross elasticity of demand is an economic concept that measures the responsiveness in the quantity
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demanded of one good when the price for another good change. Also called cross-price elasticity of
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demand, this measurement is calculated by taking the percentage change in the quantity demanded of one
good and dividing it by the percentage change in the price of the other good.
• It is a measure of relative change in the quantity demanded of a commodity due to a change in the
price of its substitute/complement. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The cross elasticity of demand for substitute goods is always positive because the demand for one good
increases when the price for the substitute good increases. When goods are a substitute for each other then
cross elasticity of demand is positive. In other words, when an increase in the price of Y leads to an
increase in the demand for X. For instance, with the increase in the price of tea, demand for coffee will
increase as coffee substitutes tea.
• Alternatively, in the case of complementary goods, the cross elasticity of demand is negative. A
proportionate increase in the price of one commodity leads to a proportionate fall in the demand of
another commodity because both are demanded jointly. For example, if the price of coffee increases, the
quantity demanded of coffee stir sticks drops as consumers are drinking less coffee and need to purchase
fewer sticks. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Cross elasticity is zero if a change in the price of one commodity will not affect the quantity demanded of
the other. In the case of goods which are not related to each other, cross elasticity of demand is zero.
Q 58.A
• The Positive Pay System, developed by the National Payments Corporation of India, is a process of
reconfirming the key details of large value cheques. Under this system, a person issuing the high-value
cheque submits certain essential details of that cheque like date, name of the beneficiary/payee amount
etc. to the drawee bank. The details can be submitted through electronic means such sas SMS, mobile app,
internet banking, ATM etc. The details are cross-checked while issuing the cheque and any discrepancy is
flagged.
• RBI has told banks to enable the facility for all account holders issuing cheques for amounts of ₹50,000
and above. It has also said that while availing of the facility is at the discretion of the account holder,
banks may consider making it mandatory in case of cheque values of ₹5 lakh and above.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q 59.B
• Turkey’s official currency, the lira, has been in a free-fall recently, losing about a quarter of its value
against the U.S. dollar in November. This is mainly due to the following reasons:
o The supply of Turkish liras in the market has been rising rapidly when compared to relatively
harder currencies like the U.S. dollar. According to World Bank data, Turkey’s broad money supply
rose by about three and a half times between 2014 and 2020.
o The demand for a currency too can affect its value. Turkey has one of the largest current account
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deficits in the world, which means that the value of its imports is much larger than the value of its
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exports. The country has traditionally depended on foreign investment to fund the gap between
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imports and exports. But foreign investors who help fund the current account deficit generally want
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some degree of certainty about the exchange rate. As the Turkish central bank becomes erratic in how
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it regulates the supply of liras, the exchange value of the lira has become increasingly unpredictable.
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So, foreign investors have become reluctant to purchase liras to invest in Turkey, which in turn has
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led to a drop in the demand for the currency.

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o The central bank influences interest rates by regulating the money supply. To lower interest rates, it
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flushes the loan market with fresh money so that the price of bonds and other forms of debt
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increases (thus pushing down their yield). This, in turn, causes an increase in the overall money
ya
supply and hence prices to rise. This can further deepen the currency crisis. On the other hand, high
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interest rates in the economy decrease the money supply.

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o Hence, option (b) is correct.

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Q 60.A
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• The Lead Bank Scheme is a scheme that aims at providing adequate banking and credit in rural
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areas through a ‘service area approach’, with one bank assigned for one area. It was introduced in
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1969 in view of this aim. Hence statement 1 is correct.

en
• On the recommendation of the Gadgil Study Group and Banker’s Committee, the Scheme was
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introduced by RBI. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

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• A bank has a relatively large network of branches in the rural areas of a given district and endowed with
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adequate financial and manpower resources has generally been entrusted with the lead responsibility for
that district.
• Accordingly, all the districts in the country have been allotted to various banks. Hence statement 3
is correct.
• The lead bank acts as a leader for coordinating the efforts of all credit institutions in the allotted districts
to increase the flow of credit to agriculture, small-scale industries and other economic activities included
in the priority sector in the rural and semi-urban areas, with the district being the basic unit in terms of
geographical area.
• Later, A high-power committee was constituted by the Government Of India and it was headed by
Usha Thorat, former Deputy Governor of RBI, in order to suggest some reforms in the Land Bank
Scheme.
Q 61.B
• The annual Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), published since 2005, is an independent
monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance of 60 countries and the EU. It aims
to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables comparison of individual countries’
climate protection efforts and progress. Recently, CCPI 2022 report is published by German-watch
along with Climate Action Network (CAN) and New Climate Institute. According to the report major
emitting economies that announced their Net Zero emission release targets fared poorly in their climate
change performance over 2021. However India has maintained its 10th rank and continued to be
among the top-performing countries within Group of 20. According to the report India is already on
track to meet its 2030 emissions target (which is compatible with a well-below-2°C scenario), close to
achieving its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) target of a 40% share for non-fossil fuel
installed power capacity by 2030, and on course for a targeted 33–35% reduction in energy intensity by
the same year. As an independent monitoring tool, the CCPI has a leading role providing information on
the Paris Agreement’s implementation phase. It looks at four categories, with 14 indicators:
Greenhouse gas emissions (40 per cent of the overall score), renewable energy (20 per cent), energy
use (20 per cent) and climate policy (20 per cent).
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Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

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Q 62.A
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• Recently, Denison barb (Miss Kerala) has been included in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection)
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Amendment Bill, 2021.

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• The Denison Barb, Denison's barb, Miss Kerala is a native freshwater fish species commonly found in
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parts of Karnataka and Kerala.

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• It is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

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• It is commonly seen in the aquarium trade; pet collection caused it to become endangered and is its single
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major threat.
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Q 63.D
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• The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is a

global science-policy platform, recognized by both the scientific and political communities, for assessing
the state of the planet's biodiversity, its ecosystems and the essential services they provide to society. It
provides a mechanism recognized by both the scientific and policy communities to synthesize, review,
assess and critically evaluate relevant information and knowledge on the contribution of biodiversity and
ecosystem services to sustainability generated worldwide by governments, academia, scientific
organizations, non-governmental organizations and indigenous communities.
• Statement 1 is correct: It is an intergovernmental science-policy platform for biodiversity and
ecosystem services that addresses the need of Multilateral Environmental Agreements that are related to
biodiversity and ecosystem services, and builds on existing processes, such as the global environmental
conventions and development policy dialogues.
• Statement 3 is correct: It was established in 2012 (Busan outcome) by close to 100 governments, and its
membership has continued to grow as IPBES' impact has increased. All States Members of the United
Nations are eligible for IPBES membership. It is not a United Nations body. India has been its
founding member since 2012.
• Statement 2 is correct: The UNEP Governing Council with, available resources, provide the secretariat
and administrative arrangements for the IPBES secretariat. Current staff of the IPBES secretariat are
employed by UNEP.
• All States Members of the United Nations that are not members of IPBES, conventions, multilateral
organizations, United Nations bodies and specialized agencies and other organizations that have been
approved as observers at the previous sessions can become its observer members
Q 64.A
• The home range of an animal:
o The amount of space an animal uses on a regular basis is called its home range. It is the area
where it spends its time; it is the region that encompasses all the resources the animal requires to
survive and reproduce. Competition for food and other resources influences how animals are
distributed in space. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Home ranges can stretch for many miles or they can be only a few feet. The size of a home range
often depends on the size of an animal. Large animals, like the moose, need more space to
survive than smaller animals like the chipmunk.
o Animals move around for a variety of reasons. They move for food, for shelter, to care for their
young, to find a mate, and to escape predators. Some animals move seasonally from one location to
another; this is migration. All animals move around within their habitat on a daily basis. The area an
animal uses to meet its daily needs is its home range.
o Having a home range is important for an animal's survival. They become familiar with their
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range. They know where the food and water are, where the danger is, and where the good hiding
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spots are. They also learn to identify when something has changed or invaded their home range. Many
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animals are as familiar with their home range as you are with your neighborhood! In fact, some
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animals are so attached to their home ranges that when they are removed from them, they will
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sometimes travel many miles to return!

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o Some animals have one location in their home range, like a den or a nest, that is their
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home. They may move around their home range during the day or at night, but they always return to
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that one place to sleep! Other animals don't have a single place in their home range that is their home.
ar
They may rest wherever they can find a safe, comfortable spot! Other animals may have a few spots
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within their home range that they use to rest. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
ya
o Many animals, like the coyote, mark and defend some or all of their home range. When this happens,
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they have established a territory. When an animal establishes a territory, it usually only defends it
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against other members of its species. Many male animals will establish a territory and share it
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with more than one female but defend it against other males. This helps ensure that other males
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won't mate with the females in his home range.

on
o Bobcats are solitary animals, except during mating season. They mark their territory with
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urine, feces, scent markings, scratches, and scrapes (piles of dirt and debris marked with
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scent). A male's home range may overlap with the home range of a couple of females and often
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another male. Females' home ranges usually don't overlap. Home ranges can vary in size from less
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than a square mile to more than 20 miles, depending on the season of the year and the geographic
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location.
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o The fisher is usually nocturnal. A fisher's home range is usually about ten square miles and may
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overlap with the home ranges of a number of other fishers. It uses scent to mark its territory. A
fisher moves around its home range frequently, following well-used trails. It travels both on the
ground and through the trees. The fisher makes its den in crevices, under bushes, in logs, and in trees.
Q 65.B
• Recently a study noted that between 2009 and 2019, the number of reported incidents of poaching
and seizure of bear parts in India was 149 involving at least 264 bears.
• The Asiatic black bear (Ursus thibetanus), and sloth bear (Melursus ursinus) are currently listed
as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Both these species are protected under the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 and you can be
imprisoned for three to seven years and charged a hefty fine or both for the illegal trade.

• They are also listed in Appendix I of CITES which prohibits international trade of these species.
• The gall bladder of the Asiatic black bear was poached in high numbers for use in traditional
medicine, while sloth bears were killed for their skin and claws. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Asiatic Black Bears hibernate through the winter months and so spend the autumn months consuming
foods such as acorns, beechnuts and walnuts that have a high-fat content in order to build up a good layer
of fat to keep them sustained throughout the winter.
• The sloth bear usually spends the day snoozing in a cave, preferring one near a river bank and unlike other
bears, it doesn’t hibernate but does have a period of comparative inactivity during the monsoon.
Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 66.C
• During Quit India Movement, the peasant movement in Bihar was ruthlessly suppressed by the British
Army which was given a free hand to torture and burn down entire villages.
• The movement thereafter went underground and was coordinated from around 1943 by a new
organizational structure called the Azad Dastas (Freedom Brigades) or guerilla bands, which operated
mainly in south Bihar.
• These Azad Dastas were organized by Jaiprakash Narayan in the terrains of Nepal and trained them
in guerrilla warfare. It conducted raids on ammunition depots, treasuries, and other government offices.
• Some of the Congress Socialist Party leaders like Jayaprakash Narayanan tried to maintain control
over Azad Dastas, but the latter soon developed links with professional dacoit gangs and Congress
Socialist Party distanced from Dastas. Dastas were suppressed finally in 1944.
Q 67.B
• By 1875, it was estimated that there were 475 newspapers in India, the vast majority owned and edited by
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Indians. They catered to the literate minority—less than 10 percent of the population at that time—but
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their influence extended well beyond this segment, since the news and views they published were repeated
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and spread by word of mouth. The nascent library movement in India also helped, as did public reading
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rooms. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
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• In 1780, James Augustus Hicky published his Bengal Gazette or Calcutta General Advertiser, a
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four-page weekly English newspaper. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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o It covered everything that might be important to Calcutta, devoting many sections to politics, world
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news and events in India.

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o He attacked corruption in the East India Company and in high echelons of society.
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o Hicky did not spare any institution. He exposed the problems of low pay for soldiers in the subaltern
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ranks of the Company’s army. Failed wars of the Company also came under its gaze.
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o But the East India Company soon looked askance at his inconvenient views and, after two years of
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mounting exasperation, seized his press in 1782.

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• The first printing press was introduced to the subcontinent by the Portuguese in 1550s in Goa. It
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only printed books.

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o The first British printing press was established in Bombay in 1664. Hence, statement 3 is not
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correct.
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Q 68.C
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• Dr. Muthulakshmi hailed from a socially handicapped environment in an era when girls were born only to
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be married. Born in 1886 in the small princely state of Pudukottai, she faced numerous challenges. She
Th
was a pioneer in the fight for social and political upliftment of women in India, an inspirational force for
generations of helpless women and children. Her achievements as a legislator and social reformer had an
everlasting impact on the lives of women.
• Her work in the Madras Legislative Council between 1927 and 1930 was very fruitful. She was able
to pilot into laws many acts of social reform dear to her heart. The legislation to abolish the
iniquitous devadasi system that was widely prevalent in Tamil Nadu (also Karnataka and Andhra
Pradesh) faced stiff resistance from the Congress lobby led by Satyamurthi Iyer.
o The Immoral Traffic Control Act, the Act to Prevent Cruelty to Children, raising the age of consent of
girls for marriage, and many other acts of social reform were enacted into laws during this period,
entirely due to her efforts

• In 1926, Muthulakshmi Reddy attended the World women's Conference which was held in Paris
and Muthulakshmi Reddy participated in it as a representative of Tamil Nadu Mahalir Sangam, a
women association formed by Annie Besant and Margaret Cousins.
• In 1931, she presided over the first Asian women's Conference at Lahore.
• At the request of the Women’s Indian Association, she became a member of the Madras Legislative
Council.
o She enthusiastically resigned from the Legislative Council when Mahatma Gandhi announced
and began the Salt Satyagraha campaign in 1930.
• Other welfare activities included the organization of the first Vigilance Association in Madras and the
establishment of the first Rescue Home for Women (Stri Sadana). Dr. Reddy was the secretary of the
Association for a long time. She was the life behind the Children Aid Society, a home for delinquent
children.
• The Leaders of the time chose to include her name in the first flag of Independent India that was hoisted
on the Red fort in 1947.
Q 69.C
• After the Kakori setback to the revolutionaries of northern India younger men such as Bejoy
Kumar Sinha, Shiv Varma and Jaidev Kapur in U.P-- Bhagat Singh, Bhagwati Charan Vohra, and
Sukhdev in Punjab set out to reorganize the HRA under the overall leadership of Chandrashekhar
Azad.
• Simultaneously, they were being influenced by socialist ideas. Finally, nearly all the major young
revolutionaries of northern India met at Ferozeshah Kotla Ground at Delhi on 9 and 10 September 1928,
created a new collective leadership, adopted socialism as their official goal and changed the name of the
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party to the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.
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• The HSRA leadership now decided to let the people know about its changed objectives and the need
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for a revolution by the masses. Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt were asked to throw a bomb in
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the Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April 1929 against the passage of the Public Safety Bill and
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the Trade Disputes Bill which would reduce the civil liberties of citizens in general and workers in
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particular.
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• The aim was not to kill, for the bombs were relatively harmless, but, as the leaflet, they threw into the
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Assembly hail proclaimed, ‘to make the deaf hear’. The objective was to get arrested and to use the trial
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court as a forum for propaganda so that people would become familiar with their movement and ideology.
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• Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt were tried in the Assembly Bomb Case. Later, Bhagat Singh,
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Sukhdev, Rajguru and tens of other revolutionaries were tried in a series of famous conspiracy cases.
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Q 70.C
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• Fission and fusion are two physical processes that produce massive amounts of energy from atoms.
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• Nuclear fission is a nuclear reaction in which the nucleus of an atom is bombarded with low-energy
on
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neutrons which split the nucleus into smaller nuclei. An abundant amount of energy is released in this
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process. Nuclear fission reactions are used in nuclear power reactors since it is easy to control and
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en
produces large amounts of energy.

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• Nuclear Fusion is a reaction that occurs when two atoms combine together to form one or more different
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atomic nuclei and subatomic particles like protons and neutrons.

• Differences between nuclear fission and fusion:
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o Fission reactions do not occur in nature naturally, whereas fusion reactions occur in stars and the
sun. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o In a fission reaction splitting of atoms releases tremendous energy. But the energy released during
nuclear fusion is several times greater than the energy released during nuclear fission. Hence,
o Little energy is needed to split an atom in a fission reaction compared to the energy needed to fuse
two or more atoms together in a fusion reaction
o Atomic bomb works on the principle of nuclear fission whereas Hydrogen bomb works on the
principle of a nuclear fusion bomb (but also involve fission reaction). a hydrogen bomb – is
essentially a two-stage explosion: one a nuclear fission reaction, the other a nuclear fusion reaction.
The initial explosion in a thermonuclear bomb is the fission reaction like a conventional nuclear bomb
– that emits x-rays that cause the secondary explosion, triggered by the fusion of tritium and
deuterium (two hydrogen isotopes). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 71.D
• Fluorescent light bulbs are a specific type of gas-discharge light. They produce light by converting
ultraviolet emissions with a fluorescent coating on the inside of the tube.
o UV radiation is generated in the first place by an electrical charge that is run through the inert mercury
glass internal to the bulb. The gas is excited by the electricity and releases ultraviolet radiation as a
consequence. Fluorescent lights require ignition, which is typically provided by a voltage pulse or a
third electrode (an additional metal part) internal to the bulb.
• A light-emitting diode (LED) is a semiconductor light source that emits light when current flows through
it. Electrons in the semiconductor recombine with electron holes, releasing energy in the form of photons.
The colour of the light (corresponding to the energy of the photons) is determined by the energy required
for electrons to cross the bandgap of the semiconductor
• LED lighting vs Fluorescent:
o LEDs have an extremely long lifespan relative to every other lighting technology (including
fluorescent lights). New LEDs can last 50,000 to 100,000 hours or more.
o LEDs are extremely energy efficient relative to every other commercially available lighting
technology. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o LED light closely resembles natural sunlight. This is because all spectrums of color are represented
in the LED chips, producing the brightest white. In addition, every single color output is replicated
seamlessly. The right lighting can help improve focus, productivity and overall health and
wellness. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Fluorescent lights are omnidirectional. Omnidirectional lights produce light in 360 degrees. This is a
large system inefficiency because at least half of the light needs to be reflected and redirected to the
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desired area being illuminated. On the other hand, LEDs are naturally directional (they emit light
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for 180 degrees by default). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
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Q 72.C
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• The electromagnetic spectrum is a continuum of all electromagnetic waves arranged according to

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frequency and wavelength. The sun, earth, and other bodies radiate electromagnetic energy of varying
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wavelengths. Electromagnetic energy passes through space at the speed of light in the form of sinusoidal
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waves.
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• Electromagnetic waves include visible light waves, X-rays, gamma rays, radio waves, microwaves,
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ultraviolet and infrared waves. The classification of waves according to frequency is the electromagnetic
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spectrum.
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• Infrared waves are produced by hot bodies and molecules. This band lies adjacent to the low-
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frequency or long-wavelength end of the visible spectrum. Infrared waves are sometimes referred to
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as heatwaves. This is because water molecules present in most materials readily absorb infrared waves
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(many other molecules, for example, CO2, NH3, also absorb infrared waves). Infrared radiation also plays
on
an important role in maintaining the earth’s warmth or average temperature through the greenhouse effect.
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Incoming visible light (which passes relatively easily through the atmosphere) is absorbed by the earth’s
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surface and reradiated as infrared (longer wavelength) radiations. This radiation is trapped by greenhouse
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gases such as carbon dioxide and water vapour.

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Q 73.C
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• River Thames, ancient Tamesis or Tamesa, also called (in Oxford, England) River Isis, the chief river of
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southern England.
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• At 215 miles (346 km), it is the longest river entirely in England and the second-longest in the United
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Kingdom, after the River Severn.

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• It was declared "biologically dead" in 1957 because of years of pollution.

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• But at present, the river is a thriving ecosystem “home to myriad wildlife as diverse as London itself,”
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according to the Zoological Society of London (ZSL) in its State of the Thames report.
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• The river now supports 115 species of fish and wildlife from seahorses to seals.
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• While the Thames is no longer “nearly devoid of life,” climate change threatens the ecosystem and the
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animals depending on it.

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Q 74.D
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• Over the last few years, there have been variations in the pattern and intensity of rainfall in Kerala and
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Uttarakhand, and other states.

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• Even after the retreat of the Southwest monsoon from the Indian subcontinent, Kerala and Uttarakhand
is
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tend to receive heavy rainfall in October.

• Reasons for Heavy Rainfall in Kerala:
o There have been two rain-bearing ‘low-pressure systems’ that are active in the Arabian Sea as
well as the Bay of Bengal.
o The low-pressure system in the Arabian Sea contributed to the heavy rain in Kerala. Hence,
o Normally, October is the month when the southwest monsoon entirely retreats from India, and the
northeast monsoon sets in, bringing rain over Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, coastal Andhra Pradesh, and
Kerala.

• Reasons for Heavy Rainfall in Uttarakhand:
o Western disturbances are periodic influxes of moisture-laden clouds from the Mediterranean that are
common during winter and western disturbances are what caused the rain in northern India. Hence,
o Overall elevated temperatures are also contributing to warmer waters in the Arctic Ocean and drawing
colder air from the poles with greater intensity and this has added to the increased moisture, thereby
seeding more intense western disturbance activity over north India.
o In October, the Bay of Bengal is still warm and strong winds from there are reaching as far as
Uttarakhand and contribute to rainfall in several parts of north-eastern India. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Q 75.C
• Muling La Pass is situated in the north of Gangotri at an elevation of 5669 m in the Great Himalayas
in Uttarakhand. It connects Uttarakhand with Tibet. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Pensi La Pass is situated in the Union Territory of Ladakh. It is a vital link between the Kashmir
Valley and Kargil. It remains closed to traffic from November to mid-May due to heavy snowfall. Hence
pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Shipkila Pass is situated in Himachal Pradesh at an elevation of 6000 m. Sutlej river enters India from
Tibet through this pass. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Zoji La Pass in Jammu and Kashmir is an important road link between Srinagar and Kargil on one side
and Leh on the other side. Border Road Organisation (BRO) is responsible for maintaining the road and
cleaning it off the snow during winter. This pass remains closed from December to mid-May. Hence pair
4 is correctly matched.
Q 76.B
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• Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) is a Central Sector Scheme, under the Ministry of
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Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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• The aim is to provide medium - long term debt financing facilities through interest subvention and
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credit guarantee. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
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• Beneficiaries include farmers, Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS), Farmer Producers
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Organizations (FPOs), Agri-entrepreneurs, Startups, Central/State agency or Local Body sponsored

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Public-Private Partnership Projects, APMCs, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.

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• Eligible projects include: Post Harvest Management Projects like Supply chain services including e-
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marketing platforms, Warehouses, Silos, Sorting &grading units, Cold chains, Logistics facilities,
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etc. Building community farming assets like Organic inputs production, Infrastructure for smart and
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precision agriculture, supply chain infrastructure for clusters of crops including export clusters, etc.
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• AIF is managed and monitored through an online Management Information System (MIS) platform.
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• National, State, and District Level Monitoring Committees will ensure real-time monitoring and effective
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feedback about the implementation of the scheme.

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Q 77.D
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• As per RBI, A Core Investment Company (CIC) is a Non-Banking Financial Company with an asset
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size of Rs 100 crore and above.

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• These carry on the business of acquisition of shares and securities and which satisfies the following
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conditions as of the date of the last audited balance sheet. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
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• It holds no less than 90% of its net assets in the form of investment in equity shares, preference shares,
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bonds, debentures, debt, or loans in group companies.

• It accepts public funds.
• it does not trade in its investments in shares, bonds, debentures, debt, or loans in group companies except
through block sale for the purpose of dilution or disinvestment.
• NIFTY 50 is NSE's diversified index comprising stocks from the top 50 Indian companies across 14
sectors. It tracks the market performance of the largest cap companies & hence, broadly reflects the Indian
economy.
• Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) or institutions are those which are 'too big to fail'. It
includes the State Bank of India, ICICI Bank, and HDFC Bank.

Q 78.D
• Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) provides financial assistance to startups for proof of
concept, prototype development, product trials, market-entry, and commercialization. Hence
• It is an initiative of the government of India with the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal
Trade (DPIIT).
• The Seed Fund is disbursed to selected startups through eligible incubators across India.
• A startup, recognized by DPIIT, incorporated not more than 2 years ago at the time of application
is invited to apply for the scheme. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Individual entrepreneurs are not eligible to apply for support under the scheme.
• The scheme provides:
o Up to Rs. 20 Lakhs as a grant for validation of Proof of Concept, prototype development, or product
trials.
o Up to Rs. 50 Lakhs of investment for market entry, commercialization, or scaling up through
convertible debentures or debt or debt-linked instruments.
• A startup applicant can avail of seed support in the form of grants and debt/convertible debentures
each once as per the guidelines of the scheme. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 79.D
• The Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. (CCIL) was set up in April 2001 to provide guaranteed clearing
and settlement functions for transactions in Money, G-Secs, Foreign Exchange and Derivative
markets.
• CCIL also provides non-guaranteed settlement for Rupee interest rate derivatives and cross-
currency transactions through the CLS Bank. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• CCIL’s adherence to the stringent principles governing its operations as a Financial Market Infrastructure
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has resulted in its recognition as a Qualified Central Counterparty (QCCP) by the Reserve Bank of
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India in 2014. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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• It has also set up a Trade Repository to enable financial institutions to report their transactions in OTC
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derivatives.
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• Through its fully owned subsidiary, Clearcorp Dealing Systems Limited (CDSL), CCIL has
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introduced various platforms for the electronic execution of deals in various market segments.
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• Further, CDSL has developed, implemented and manages the NDS-OM - the RBI-owned anonymous
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electronic trading system for dealing in G-Secs and also for reporting of OTC deals as well as the NDS-
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CALL platform which facilitates electronic dealing in the Call, Notice & Term Money market.
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• CCIL is also the Trade Repository for all OTC transactions in the Forex, Interest Rate and Credit
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derivative transactions.
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• CCIL through its subsidiary Legal Entity Identifiers India Limited is the Local Operating Unit (LOU) for
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issuing globally compatible Legal Entity Identifiers (LEIs) in the Indian financial market.
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• Currently, CCIL is the Calculation Agent for some of the important Benchmarks used by the
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market under the aegis of the Benchmark Administrator, Financial Benchmarks India Limited
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(FBIL).
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Q 80.C
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• India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has been established under the Department of Posts, Ministry of
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Communication with 100% equity owned by the Government of India. IPPB was launched by the
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Prime Minister on September 1, 2018. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• The bank has been set up with the vision to build the most accessible, affordable and trusted bank for the
common man in India. The fundamental mandate of India Post Payments Bank is to remove barriers for
the unbanked & underbanked and reach the last mile leveraging the Postal network comprising 155,000
Post Offices (135,000 in rural areas) and 300,000 Postal employees.
• India Post Payments Bank is now a scheduled bank, can borrow from RBI. The RBI announced that India
Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has been included in the Second Schedule to the Reserve Bank of India Act,
1934, and thus made a scheduled bank. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• To provide easy access to investors to participate in public and rights issues by using various payment
avenues, markets regulator SEBI allowed payments banks to carry out the activities of investment
bankers. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 81.D
• Indian Customs Electronic Gateway (ICEGATE) is the national portal of Indian Customs of
Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) that provides e-filing services to the Trade,
Cargo Carriers and other Trading Partners electronically. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• ICEGATE is internally linked with multiple partner agencies including RBI, Banks, DGFT, DGCIS,
Ministry of Steel, Directorate of Valuation and other various Partner Government Agencies involved in
EXIM trade enabling faster Customs clearance.
• All electronic documents/ messages being handled by the ICEGATE are processed at the Customs' end by
the Indian Customs EDI System (ICES).
• MADAD an e-portal will help Indian citizens living abroad to file consular grievances online on the
services offered by the Indian Missions and Posts abroad.
• Compliance Information Portal - This portal gives information on customs procedures and
compliance requirements for imports and exports. It also gives information on applicable duties and
taxes on each commodity. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• India Trade Portal - To facilitate and thereby increase external trade activities with the rest of the world,
the Department of Commerce, Government of India has developed this web portal. The services include
Global tenders and queries, MFN/Preferential Trade of 90 countries, Item wise export and import policy
conditions of India, Rules of origin to get preferential access to targeted markets. Hence pair 2 is not
correctly matched.
Q 82.A
• The popular beaches of Mumbai and Goa in recent times and especially in these passing months are
covered in sticky tarballs that gave off a foul fuel smell. The Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation
(BMC) has removed over 20,000 kg of tarballs from Juhu and Versova beaches in one month. Tarballs
are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that form when crude oil floats on the ocean surface. They are
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formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments. They are transported from the open sea to
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the shores by sea currents and waves. Some of the balls are as big as a basketball while others are smaller
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globules and can weigh as much as 6-7 kgs. Wind and waves tear the oil slick into smaller patches that are
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scattered over a much wider area. Various physical, chemical and biological processes (weathering)
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change the appearance of the oil. It is suspected that the oil comes from the large cargo ships in the deep
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sea and gets pushed to the shore as tarballs during monsoon due to wind speed and direction. All the oil
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spilt in the Arabian sea eventually gets deposited on the western coast in the form of tarballs in the
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monsoon season when wind speed and circulation pattern favour transportation of these tarballs.
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Q 83.C
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• Stenohaline organisms:
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o These are species that can only tolerate specific ranges of salinities. They can not handle a high
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amount of shifts of salt content in water and the organism's tolerance for salt content depends on the
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type of species it is. Freshwater fish like goldfish are not able to survive in sea water because of the
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high content of salt. The same applies to fish that live in saline water, except they are unable to
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survive in fresh water. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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o Most stenohaline organisms are osmoconformers which means their bodies do not change in
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osmolarity depending on the salinity of their surroundings. The internal environment of a stenohaline
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organism is isosmotic to the external environment. Eg. Gold fish, Haddock fish.
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• Euryhaline organism:
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o They are opposite of a stenohaline organism. A euryhaline organism can withstand different
salinities and can cope with a wide range of different environments. They can migrate from
freshwater to saltwater and even to brackish water. Euryhaline organisms are osmoregulators meaning
they can control the level of salt content in its body.
o Euryhaline organisms are commonly found in habitats such as estuaries and tide pools where the
salinity changes regularly. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o However, some organisms are euryhaline because their life cycle involves migration between
freshwater and marine environments, as is the case with salmon and eels. Eg.Atlantic stingray,
molly, green crab.

Q 84.B
• The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) has notified mass emission standards for E12
(12% Ethanol with Gasoline) and E15 (15% Ethanol 12 with gasoline) biofuels. This will enable the
automotive industry to manufacture E12 and E15 compliant motor vehicles. These rules may be called
Central Motor Vehicles (25th Amendment) Rules, 2021(CMVR). The compatibility of the vehicle to the
level of ethanol blend of E12 or E15 or E20 or E85 or E100 shall be defined by the vehicle
manufacturer and the same shall be displayed on the vehicle by putting a clearly visible sticker after the
serial number. For the bi-fuel vehicles, the reference gasoline fuel shall be as per E5 or E10 or E12 or E15
as declared by the manufacturer during approval. Vehicles manufacturer shall submit the vehicle to the
test agencies referred under rule 126, for CMVR compliance.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 85.D
• Compressed Bio-Gas
o Biogas is produced naturally through a process of anaerobic decomposition from waste / bio-mass
sources like agriculture residue, cattle dung, sugarcane press mud, municipal solid waste, sewage
treatment plant waste, etc. The other waste streams viz. rotten potatoes from cold storage, rotten
vegetables, dairy plants, chicken/ poultry litter, food waste, horticulture waste, forestry residues, and
industrial Effluent Treatment Plants (ETPs) treating organic waste can be used in the generation of
biogas. After purification, it is compressed and called CBG, which has a pure methane content
of over 90%.
o Compressed Bio-Gas is exactly similar to the commercially available natural gas in its composition
and energy potential.
o CBG can be used as an alternative, renewable automotive fuel.
o The biogas is purified to remove hydrogen sulfide (H2S), carbon dioxide (CO2), water vapor, and
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compressed as Compressed Bio Gas (CBG), which has a methane (CH4) content of more than
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90%. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
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o CBG has calorific value and other properties similar to CNG and hence can be utilized as green
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renewable automotive fuel. Thus it can replace CNG in automotive, industrial, and commercial
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areas, given the abundance of biomass availability within the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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o The biogas produced contains approximately 55% to 60% methane, 40% to 45% carbon
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dioxide, and trace amounts of hydrogen sulfide. Biogas is purified to remove carbon dioxide and
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hydrogen sulfide gases to prepare CBG. The CBG can be transported through cylinder cascades
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or pipelines to retail outlets. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Q 86.B
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• Nurdles are tiny plastic pellets that form the raw materials of most of today’s plastic products and are
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made of polyethylene, polypropylene, polystyrene, polyvinyl chloride and other plastics. Hence option
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(b) is the correct answer.

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• They are melted down and cast into moulds to make various plastic products.
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• Today, nurdles are rapidly degrading the oceans.

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• Released into the environment from plastic plants or when shipped around the world as raw material to
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factories, they will sink or float, depending on the density of the pellets and if they are in freshwater or
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saltwater.
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• They are often mistaken for food by seabirds, fish and other wildlife. In the environment, they fragment
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into nanoparticles whose hazards are more complex.

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• They are the second-largest source of micropollutants in the ocean, by weight, after tyre dust.
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• Like crude oil, nurdles are highly persistent pollutants and will continue to circulate in ocean currents
and wash ashore for decades.
• They are also “toxic sponges”, which attract chemical toxins and other pollutants onto their surfaces.
• Nurdles also act as “rafts” for harmful bacteria such as E coli or even cholera, one study found,
transporting them from sewage outfalls and agricultural runoff to bathing waters and shellfish beds and
this phenomenon of “plastic rafting” is increasing.

Q 87.A
• Very short-lived substances (VSLS) are ozone-depleting halogen-containing substances found in the
stratosphere. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Short-lived halogenated substances (VSLS) such as dichloromethane have an atmospheric lifetime
shorter than six months.
• Dichloromethane has been identified as the most abundant chlorine-containing VSLS, accounting for 70
percent of the total stratospheric source gas injection from chlorine-containing VSLS.
• Approximately 90% of VSLS are produced by natural processes and their rate of production is
increasing. Hence, statement 2 is not correct
o They are bromine compounds produced by seaweed and the ocean's phytoplankton.
o Only 10% of these ozone-depleting chlorine compounds are man-made.
• In previous decades it was believed that the most significant factor in ozone depletion was the increase in
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
• Currently, VSLS are increasing rapidly, mainly due to industrial activities.
Q 88.B
• Ulugh Khan, later known as Ghiyasuddin Balban belonged to the Mamluk dynasty. His era started from
1246–87. But he ascended the throne in only in 1265 after Sultan Mahmud died.
• Balban constantly sought to increase the prestige and power of the monarchy, because he was convinced
that this was the only way to face the internal and external dangers facing him.
• In order to prove his claim to noble blood, Balban stood forth as the champion of the Turkish
nobility. He refused to entertain for important government posts anyone who did not belong to a
noble family. This virtually meant the exclusion of Indian Muslims from all positions of power and
authority. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o While claiming to act as a champion of the Turkish nobility, Balban was not prepared to share power
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with anyone. In this process Balban finally broke the power of the chahalgani, i.e., the Turkish nobles.
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• To repel the Mongols who had entrenched themselves in Punjab and posed a serious danger to the
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Delhi Sultanate, Balban reorganized the military department (diwan-i-arz), and pensioned off those
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soldiers and troopers who were no longer fit for service. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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• To emphasize that the nobles were not his equals, he insisted on the ceremony of sijada and paibos
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(prostration and kissing the monarch’s feet).

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o Balban also introduced the famous Persian festival of Nowruz in India to impress the nobles and
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people with his wealth and power. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Q 89.B
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• The post-Mauryan centuries saw a great spurt in the minting of coins. The kIngs of the north-west
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imitated Greek, Roman and Iranian coin types, while others issued local coins that were superior to the
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punch-marked coins of the Mauryan period

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• Currencies minted elsewhere, such as the denarii of the Roman Empire, circulated freely. Coinage also
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allowed the possibility of forward speculation in goods and capital. However, the increasing use of money
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did not drive out the barter systems, particularly in rural areas where agricultural products, such as paddy,
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provided the unit of exchange.

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• A large variety of coins were used in towns; these were of

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o Gold (nishka, suvarna and pala),

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o Silver (shatamana),
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o Copper (kakini) and lead.

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• The most commonly used coin was the karshapana or pana. With the expansion of the commercial
enterprise, weights and measures became ' increasingly detailed and complex.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 90.A
• Tipu Sultan also known as the Tiger of Mysore was the ruler of the Kingdom of Mysore in South India
and a pioneer of rocket artillery.
• He took over the running of Mysore after the death of Haider Ali on December 7, 1782. Tipu was
educated well, was fluent in Persian. He was a prolific writer and several volumes of his letters and notes
exist even today.

• Tipu Sultan’s notes cover a wide range of military operations, regulations, trading, prohibition, religion,
and morals. He was quite a polymath, and in his brief reign, attempted to reform the calendar, build a
naval fleet by commissioning a dockyard in Oman, and was interested in astronomy.
• Tipu Sultan also kept a book in which he recorded and analyzed his dreams. This book contains 37
dreams, recorded between 1785 and 1798. Most of these dreams are devoted to driving the British
out of India, and defeating the Nizam and others who were allying with the British.
o Tipu Sultan’s analyses of his own dreams reflect a mixture of preoccupations and influences, much
like contemporary methods. In two dreams, he sees three dates on a silver platter, and interprets this
as a harbinger of his victory over the British, the Nizam and the Marathas, literally a sense of victory
being served up on a platter.
• He was the one of the few Indian rulers who understood the dangers the British posed to India, and fought
four wars to oust them from India – in that sense he could be called the first freedom fighter in the
subcontinent.
Q 91.A
• Article 366 provides for various definition to the words and expressions used in the Constitution. It
basically aids the interpretation of the Constitution and hence acts as the guiding light to the provisions
of the Constitution.
• Article 366 defines all the major terms or phrases mentioned in the Constitution in order to avoid any sort
of ambiguity in relation to understanding of the Indian Constitution.
• Some important terms defined under Article 366 are agricultural income, corporation tax, debt, Federal
court, goods, goods and services tax, High Court, Indian State, pension, Proclamation of Emergency,
railways, Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Union Territory etc. Hence option (a) is the correct
answer.
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Q 92.B
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• The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) was constituted on 12th August 1994 as a
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statutory body by an Act of Parliament viz. ‘National Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act, 1993’,
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for a period of three years i.e. up to 31st March 1997. As per sub-section (4) of Section 1 of the Act, it
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was to cease to exist after 31.3.1997. However, the validity of the Act was extended up to March 2002,
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and then up to February 2004 vide Amendment Acts passed in 1997 and 2001 respectively. Hence
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o With the lapsing of the “The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act, 1993” w.e.f.
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29.2.2004, the Commission is acting as a Non-Statutory body of the Ministry of Social Justice
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and Empowerment. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

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• The mandate of the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis:

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o Recommend to the Central Government specific programmes of action towards elimination of

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inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities for Safai Karamcharis.

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o Study and evaluate the implementation of the programmes and schemes relating to the social and
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economic rehabilitation of Safai Karamcharis; and scavengers, in particular.

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o Investigate specific grievances and take suo-moto notice of matters relating to non-implementation
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of: -
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✓ programmes or schemes in respect of any group of Safai Karamcharis

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✓ decisions, guidelines or instructions, aimed at mitigating the hardships of Safai Karamcharis

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✓ measures for the social and economic upliftment of Safai Karamcharis

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✓ the provisions of any law in its application to Safai Karamcharis; and take up such matters with
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the concerned authorities or with the Central or State Governments

✓ Hence statement 3 is correct.
o To study and monitor the working conditions, including those relating to health, safety and wages of
Safai Karamcharis working under various kinds of employers including Government, Municipalities
and Panchayats, and to make recommendations in this regard.
o However, with the enactment of “The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and
Their Rehabilitation Act, 2013”, the mandate and scope of the Commission has also been
enlarged. Such as:
✓ To monitor the implementation of the Act.
✓ To enquire into complaints regarding contravention of the provisions of the Act, and to convey its
findings to the concerned authorities with recommendations requiring further action.

✓ To advise the Central and the State Governments for effective implementation of the provisions of
the Act.
✓ To take suo motu notice of matter relating to non-implementation of the Act.
Q 93.C
• The third Schedule contains the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for the following office bearers:
o Union Ministers of India
o Union Ministers of a State
o Parliament Election Candidates
o Members of Parliament (MPs)
o Supreme Court Judges
o Comptroller and Auditor General
o State Ministers
o State Legislature Elections’ Candidates
o State Legislature Members
o High Court Judges
o However, among the above mentioned office bearers only Union Ministers of India Union Ministers
of a State takes oath for the office of secrecy. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 94.B
• The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state
legislature:
o He must be a citizen of India.
o He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorized by the Election
Commission for this purpose.
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o He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25
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years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.
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o He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament. ri@
• Accordingly, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of
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People Act (1951):

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o A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the
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concerned state and to be qualified for the governor’s nomination, he must be a resident in the
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concerned state. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

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o A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in
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the concerned state. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

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o He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe if he wants to contest a seat reserved for
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them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not reserved
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for them.
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o In the case of a seat reserved for an autonomous district of Assam, he is a member of a Scheduled
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Tribe of any autonomous district and is an elector for the Assembly constituency in which such seat or
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any other seat is reserved for that district. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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Q 95.C
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• Recently, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs has amended the One Person Companies (OPCs) rules
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after the announcement made by Finance Minister in Union Budget 2021-22.

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• One Person Companies (OPCs)

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o Section 2(62) of the Companies Act defines a one-person company as a company that has only one
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person as to its member. OPC is a company that can be formed by just one person as a shareholder.
o These companies can be contrasted with private companies, which require a minimum of two
members to get going. However, for all practical purposes, OPCs are like private companies.
o The 2013 Act exempted OPCs from many procedural requirements and, in some cases, also
provided relaxations. For example, OPCs do not need to conduct an annual general meeting, which is
a requirement for other companies. OPCs also do not require signatures of both the company secretary
and director on its annual returns. One is enough.
o The new rules have reduced the residency limit for an Indian citizen to set up an OPC from 182 days
to 120 days. The amendment will allow Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) to incorporate OPCs in
India.
Q 96.A
• The Assam Government has recently decided to increase the size of Orang National Park. The park is
to be expanded thrice. The State is to add 200.32 square kilometers to the Orang National Park. The area
to be added consists of the Brahmaputra river. It also includes sandbars and islands of the
river. Orang, on the northern bank of the Brahmaputra river, is strategic to the Kaziranga Orang
Riverine Landscape. Tigers and rhinos are known to use the islands in this riverine landscape, about
180 km long, to hop between Orang and Kaziranga. The addition will help in managing the river islands
scientifically to act as corridors as well as habitat for transient and resident animals, including the
tigers and their prey animals, rhinos, and elephant. It will also be a support to 16 species of turtles
and potential reintroduction of Gharials back in the Brahmaputra which became locally extinct.
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Q 97.B
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• Ecological Threat Report 2021

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o The ‘Ecological Threat Report (ETR) 2021: Understanding ecological threats, resilience and
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peace’ was released by the Institute of Economics and Peace, an international think tank. Hence
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option (b) is the correct answer.

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o According to this report, around 1.26 billion people across 30 countries are suffering from both
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extreme ecological risk and low levels of resilience. These countries are least likely to be able to
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mitigate and adapt to new ecological threats, leading to mass displacement, the report said.
o Data from over 2,500 sub-national administrative units in 178 countries were assessed for threats
relating to food risk, water risk, rapid population growth, temperature anomalies, and natural
disasters.
o Findings -
✓ Of the 178 countries in the ETR, 30 were identified as hotspots for having low levels of resilience
and a medium to extremely high catastrophic threat score. 13 faced extremely high ecological
threats and 34 others faced high ecological threats.
✓ The 30 hotspot countries are least likely to be able to mitigate and adapt to new ecological threats,
leading to mass displacement.

✓ The most vulnerable countries are clustered in the Middle East and North Africa, sub-Saharan
Africa, and South Asia.
✓ Of the 15 countries most threatened, 3 are in South Asia. As a region, South Asia is the worst-
placed, with water and food risks driving the average ETR score in the region.
Q 98.C
• A fuel cell uses the chemical energy of hydrogen or other fuels to cleanly and efficiently produce
electricity. If hydrogen is the fuel, the only products are electricity, water, and heat. Fuel cells are unique
in terms of the variety of their potential applications; they can use a wide range of fuels and feedstocks
and can provide power for systems as large as a utility power station and as small as a laptop computer.
• The most promising of all fuel cell technologies developed is the Proton Exchange Membrane fuel
cell (PEMFC), which operates at a lower temperature.
• A proton-exchange membrane, or polymer-electrolyte membrane (PEM), is a semipermeable membrane
generally made from ionomers and designed to conduct protons while acting as an electronic insulator and
reactant barrier. Proton-exchange membranes are primarily characterized by proton conductivity (σ),
methanol permeability (P), and thermal stability. PEM fuel cells use a solid polymer membrane (a thin
plastic film) which is permeable to protons when it is saturated with water, but it does not conduct
electrons.
Q 99.C
• Earthshot Prize,2021:
o It is an award set up by Prince William and the Royal Foundation, the charity founded by the
Duke and Duchess of Cambridge, and historian David Attenborough (Winner of Indira Gandhi
Peace Prize, 2019). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
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o Established in 2020, 2021 was the first year when awards were handed out to finalists for their
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contributions towards achieving UN Sustainable Development Goals. Hence statement 1 is
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correct. ri@
o The award will honor five finalists between 2021 and 2030 for developing solutions to fight the
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climate crisis.
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o They will receive a prize of one million Euros. The winners will be chosen by the Earthshot Prize
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Council.
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o Each year five winners will be selected, one for each of the Five United Nations Sustainable
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Development Goals (SDGs):

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✓ Restoration and protection of nature

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✓ Air cleanliness
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✓ Ocean revival
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✓ Waste-free living
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✓ Climate action.
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o Eligibility:
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✓ Prizes could be awarded to a wide range of individuals, teams, or collaborations – scientists,

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activists, economists, community projects, leaders, governments, banks, businesses, cities, and
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countries – anyone whose workable solutions make a substantial contribution to achieving the
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Earthshots.
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o Objectives:
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✓ To encourage and support the development of solutions for Earth’s environmental problems.
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✓ To incentivize change and help repair the planet over the next ten years.
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✓ To turn the current pessimism surrounding environmental issues into optimism, by highlighting
the ability of human ingenuity to bring about change, and inspire collective action.
o The Earthshot Prize 2021 Indian Winner:
✓ “Clean our Air” Takachar, India: A portable machine created to turn agricultural waste into
fertilizer so that farmers do not burn their fields and cause air pollution. Hence, statement 3 is
not correct.
✓ This technology will help convert crop residues into sellable bio-products like fuel and fertilizers.
✓ The technology reduces smoke emissions by 98%.
✓ The burning of agricultural waste causes air pollution that in some areas has reduced life
expectancy by a decade.

Q 100.D
• The Montréal Process
o It is a voluntary agreement on sustainable forest management.
o It is also known as the Montréal Process Working Group on Criteria and Indicators for the
Conservation and Sustainable Management of Temperate and Boreal Forests,
o It was formed in Geneva, Switzerland in June 1994 as a result of the Rio Forest Principles developed
at the 1992 Earth Summit.
o The primary aim of sustainable forest management is to maintain a broad, specified range of forest
values in perpetuity.
• The Near East Process
o It is a set of 7 criteria and 65 indicators for sustainable forest management at the regional and
national levels in the Eastern Countries like Afghanistan, Algeria, Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Cyprus,
Djibouti, Egypt etc.
o They have been developed by the FAO and UNEP.
o It is intended to assist countries in assessing and measuring the sustainability of forest management
activities
• The Bhopal-India Process
o It is one of the nine global initiatives on the Criteria and Indicators approach for Sustainable Forest
Management.
o India developed its National set of 8 Criteria and 37 Indicators for the Sustainable Management of its
Natural Forests.
o These 8 Criteria and 37 Indicators have been adopted in the National Working Plan Code 2014, a
guiding document for the preparation of Working/ Management Plans in the country at the Forest
Management Unit level.
o The Criteria and Indicators (C&I) provide a robust approach for the assessment of forests for its
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progress towards sustainability over a period.
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• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
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VISIONIAS

1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

donors. And they can donate, in turn, to those with A or AB types.

made of graphite) and cathode (positive electrode made of Lithium) apart.

well. Hence statement 2 is correct.

to be replaced with a Lithium metal anode.

greater amount of energy in the same volume. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Areas, National Parks, and Wildlife Sanctuaries.

regulating and managing the activities around such areas.

• An ESZ could go up to 10 kilometers around a protected area as provided in the Wildlife

Conservation Strategy, 2002. Hence, statement 2 is not correct

4 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• MCC contains eight provisions dealing with:

time to enable the police to make adequate security arrangements.

o Aurobindo Ghosh translated National Song into English language.

✓ news broadcast by All India Radio;

✓ calendars issued by the Government of India; and

✓ government communications addressed to the public.

Calendar, 1 Chaitra falling on March 22 normally and on March 21 in leap year.

• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

6 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

enable itself or its Committees to:

made before its enactment will be void.

empowered to make laws. Hence statement 1 is correct.

7 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

properties against exploitation.

• Freedom of Profession - Article 19 (1) (g):

o Article 56 (2): Resignation of President addressed to the Vice-President shall be communicated

by Vice-President to the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Hence statement 1 is correct.

8 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

member of the Governor’s council.

native literature of India and Arabia,” Macaulay wrote in the Minute.

Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

western sciences and literature through the English medium alone.

9 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Hence statement 2 is not correct.

police, scavenging and repair of roads.

unable to pay back.

India before the Muslim invasions.

He visited the court of Chandra Gupta Maurya.

• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

originally consisted of five component parts:

o the shaft (which is broken in many parts now),

o a lotus bell base,

o a drum on the bell base with four animals proceeding clockwise,

o the figures of four majestic addorsed lions, and

Emblem of Independent India. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• The national emblem of India is shown below

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

and non-permitted end-uses, maximum all-in-cost ceiling, etc.

denominated ECBs and INR denominated ECBs.

• ECBs can be raised in any of the following forms:

o Issue of non-convertible, optionally convertible or partially convertible preference shares/debentures

o Trade credits beyond 3 years

o Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) or

o Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bonds (FCEBs)

eligible to raise ECB:

inflation. Some of these include:

operating through fuel and transportation costs.

taxes on imports of palm, soy and sunflower oil.

14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

2009-10 and subsequent sugar seasons.

associations of the sugar industry.