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27/04/2016 CODE-A

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MM : 120 Crash & Test Series_GUJCET2016 Time : 3 Hrs.

Test - 06
Topics covered :
Phy. : Semi-conductors- Electronics : Transistor, PNP and NPN transistor, characteristics of transistor, tran-
sistor as an amplifier, switch, oscillator, digital electronic and logic circuit, logic gate, Boolean equation,
primary concept of IC. Communication Systems: Block diagram of communication system, signals and
bandwidth, length of antenna, power radiated by antenna, amplitude modulation, production of AM wave,
demodulation, propagation of electromagnetic waves, ground wave propagation or surface wave propa-
gation, sky wave propagation.
Chem. : Co-ordination compounds: Werner’s theory, classification of ligands, IUPAC nomenclature, Isomerism,
VBT, stability of complex, geometry, hybridization, magnetic moment, CFT, Synergic bonding, macrocyclic
effect, Organometallic compounds, Magnetic properties and colour of compounds, application of coordi-
nation compound
Bot. : Molecular basis of Inheritance: Structure of t-RNA, Central Dogma, Translation, Gene, Regulation of
gene expression (lac and trp operon), HGP and DNA fingerprinting.
Zoo. : Biotechnology and its Applications: Biotechnological applications in agriculture - GMO, Bt cotton; Bio-
technological applications in medicines - Genetically engineered insulin, Gene therapy, Transgenic ani-
mals, Ethical issues; Biopatent; Biopiracy; Biosafety issues.

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 1 mark. One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for incorrect response of each question.

PHYSICS
1. In intrinsic semiconductor if nh and ne are number 3. With increase in temperature, the resistivity of
density of holes and electrons which of following semiconductors
is true?
(1) nh > ne (2) ne > nh (1) Decreases
(3) nh ~ ne (4) ne >> nh
(2) Increases
2. At absolute '0' temperature pure semiconductor
behaves as
(3) No effect
(1) Conductor (2) Insulator
(3) Superconductor (4) Metal (4) Increases exponentially

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Crash & Test Series_GUJCET2016 Test-06

4. In conductors the conduction band and valence 11. Dynamic resistance for depletion zone is given by
band
V V2
(1) Overlap (1) (2)
I I2
(2) Just touch each other
(3) Separated by large V 2 V
(3) (4)
I I
(4) Do not exist
5. Forbidden energy gap for silicon is 12. Process of converting AC to DC is known as

(1) 1.2 eV (2) 1.3 eV (1) Superposition (2) Ramification

(3) 1.1 eV (4) 1.4 eV (3) Magnification (4) Rectification

6. In n-type semiconductors the energy gap between 13. Find current through D2, in the given circuit
conduction band and donor impurity electron level
is D1 200
(1) 0.05 eV (2) 0.5 eV
(3) 5 eV (4) 50 eV 600 D2
7. Representation for photodiode is given by

6V
(1)
(1) 0.1 A (2) 0.2 A
(3) 0.01 A (4) 0.02 A
(2)
14. Zener diode is used in
(1) Rectifier (2) Voltage regulator
(3) Charger (4) LED
(3) 15. LED is used in
(1) Reverse bias
(2) Display devices
(3) Can be used in both
(4)
(4) Photodiode
16. A photodiode is made up from semiconductor
8. The current in PN junction diode in forward bias having 2 eV band gap. Which light will it detect?
is in order of
(1) 0.025 × 10–8m (2) 0.025 × 10–7m
(1) mA (2) A
(3) 6.25 × 10–7m (4) 6.25 × 10–8m
(3) MA (4) nA
17. Current through collector is 0.8 mA and  is 0.8.
9. Thickness of depletion layer in PN junction diode Find base current
at reverse bias
(1) 0.4 mA (2) 0.2 mA
(1) Increases
(3) 0.04 mA (4) 0.02 mA
(2) Decreases
18. The correct relation between '' and '' is
(3) Remains same
(4) Decreases exponentially 1  
(1)   (2) 
 1 
10. In reverse bias condition the resistance of
depletion layer is in order of
2 
(1) 104  (2) 105  (3)   (4) 
1  1 
(3) 106  (4) 10–6 

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Crash & Test Series_GUJCET2016 Test-06

19. In a PNP transistor about 108 holes enter emitter 27. For given circuit if: Ib = 60 A ; RB = 105 ,
in 2 s when connected to battary. About 5% of RL = 0.1 K, Ie = 0.05 A, VCC = 10 V. Calculate
holes recombine with electrons at base. Find ''. VCE.
(1) 0.95 (2) 0.90 VCC
RB RL
(3) 0.85 (4) 0.80 IC
20. Transconductance is given by IB
VCE
AV RL VBE
(1) R (2) AV
L

  (1) 0.5 V (2) 1 V

(3) R (4) RL (3) 1.5 V (4) 2 V
L

28. The current flowing through R1 is changed from

21. In an oscillator an output signal of 0.5 MHz is 1 mA to 4 mA by changing input voltage. Find
obtained with an inductor of 5 H. What should be change in potential difference across R2 in circuit
value of inductor to obtain 2 MHz frequency? in due process
(1) 3.13 H (2) 0.312 H R 1 = 50

(3) 6.25 H (4) 0.625 H

22. The given circuit represents which gate? R2

A B
(1) 0.2 V (2) 0.05 V
(3) 0.1 V (4) 0 V
29. Correct symbol for NPN transistor is [where
e = emitter, b = base, c = collector]
(1) OR (2) AND
e c e c
(3) NAND (4) NOR
(1) (2)
23. For given relation y  A · B , which gate it would b
b
be? e c e c
(1) OR (2) NAND
(3) (4)
(3) AND (4) NOR b b
24. The output is '0' whenever any one input is '1'. 30. In common base amplifier the phase difference
Whenever all the inputs are '0', the output is equal between input and output signal is
to '1'. Which gate is it? (1) 2 (2) 0°
(1) OR (2) AND 
(3) (4) 
2
(3) NOR (4) NAND
31. What will be input of A and B for Boolean
25. A minimum of how many NAND gates are required expression A  B  1 ?
to form OR gate?
(1) 0, 0 (2) 0, 1
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 1, 0 (4) 1, 1
(3) 4 (4) 3 32. Given circuit diagram represents which gate?
26. If '' for CE configuration is '15' in an amplifier A
circuit. Input resistance is equal to 1k and load
resistance is 5k, voltage gain of circuit is Y
(1) 75 (2) 3 B
1 1 (1) OR (2) AND
(3) (4)
75 3 (3) NAND (4) NOR
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Crash & Test Series_GUJCET2016 Test-06

33. The current-voltage graph represents which (1) Unregulated (2) Regulated
semiconductor device? (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Digital in nature
If (mA) 36. The minimum height of antenna for transmission
of EM wave of wavelength 2000 m is
(1) 100 m (2) 200 m
V (3) 500 m (4) 1000 m
Vf
37. Telephone communication system has bandwidth
(1) 2800 Hz (2) 2900 Hz

Iz (mA)
(3) 3000 Hz (4) 3100 Hz

(1) Zener diode (2) Transistor 38. Sky wave propagation utilizes which layer of
atomosphere?
(3) Solar cell (4) Rectifier
(1) Mesosphere (2) Stratosphere
34. The following graph represents which of the
(3) Ionosphere (4) Troposphere
folllowing uses of transistor?
V0
39. The short form AM stands for
(1) Amplitude Modulated wave
(2) Atomosphere Modulated wave
(3) Atomicaly Modulated wave
Vi (4) Automatically Modulated wave
(1) CE amplifier (2) CB amplifier 40. Maximum distance between antenna (h1) and
reciever (h2) in communication is
(3) Switch (4) Oscillator
35. What potential difference would be obtained across (1) 4 2h1R
RL?
RS (2) 4 2h2R
+ +

RL
(3) 2  h1R  h2R 
Unregulated
voltage (4) 2h1R  2h2R

CHEMISTRY
41. What should be the co-ordination number and 43. Oxidation state of Fe in Na3[Fe(ox)3] is
geometrical shape of K[Cr(NH3)2(CO3)2] complex (1) +2 (2) +3
respectively?
(3) +1 (4) 0
(1) 4, Square planar
44. Which of the following is not tetrahedral complex?
(2) 4, Tetrahedral
(1) K[MnO4] (2) K2[NiCl4]
(3) 6, Octahedral
(3) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2] (4) [Ni(CO)4]
(4) 6, Trigonal bipyramidal
45. Which complex is used to stop the growth of
42. Which isomerism is shown by Penta- tumour in body?
amminenitrocobalt(III) ion and Penta-
(1) Ferrocene (2) Cis-platin
amminenitritocobalt(III) ion?
(3) EDTA (4) Desferrioxime
(1) Optical isomerism
46. Which complex has the maximum conductivity in
(2) Ionisation isomerism
its aqueous solution?
(3) Cis-trans isomerism
(1) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2 (2) (NH4)2 [MoO4]
(4) Linkage isomerism
(3) K3[Fe(CN)6] (4) K2[Cr2O7]

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Crash & Test Series_GUJCET2016 Test-06

47. Which ligand does not form chelate compound? 56 The type of hybridisation for central metal ion in
(1) Ethane-1,2-diamine an aqua complex formed by dissolving NiCl2 in
water is
(2) Propylene triamine
(1) sp3d 2 (2) d 2sp3
(3) Oxalate ion
(3) sp3 (4) dsp2
(4) Methanamine
57 Which of the following does not show optical
48. For complexes having low spins, which of the isomerism?
following is correct relation?
(1) [Cr(C2O4)3]3+ (2) cis[PtCl2(en)2]2+
(1) 0 < P (2) 0 > P
(3) [CrCl2(NH3)2(en)]+ (4) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(3) 0 = P (4) 0 = 1/P
58 Magnetic moment of [Fe(CN)6]3– complex is
49. The coordination number, oxidation number,
number of electrons in d-orbital and number of (1) 1.73 BM (2) 3.87 BM
unpaired electrons in d-orbital are respectively in (3) Zero (4) 2.83 BM
complex K4[Fe(CN)6] 59. Which of the following is correct order of
(1) 4,2,6,4 (2) 6,3,6,4 spectrochemical series?
(3) 6,2,6,0 (4) 4,2,5,1 (1) Cl– < F– < NCS– < OH–
50. Which of the following complex ions is not (2) F– < Cl– < OH– < NCS–
expected to absorb visible light? (3) Cl– < F– < OH– < NCS–
(1) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (2) [Ni(CN)4]2– (4) OH– < NCS– < Cl– < F–
(3) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ 60. Which of the following compounds is not a double
51 The charge and the number of co-ordination site salt?
in EDTA is respectively (1) Carnalite
(1) –6, 6 (2) –4, 6 (2) Potassium alum
(3) –3, 3 (4) –4, 4 (3) Potassium tetraoxomanganate
52 To remove the excess proportion of copper and (4) Ferrous ammonium sulphate
iron, which of the following is used
61. Which of the following is not bidentate ligand?
(1) Cyanocobalamine
(1) CO32– (2) pn
(2) Cis-platin
(3) tn (4) en
(3) D-penicillamine and desferrioxime
62. Ammonium diamminedioxalatocobaltate (III) is
(4) EDTA
(1) (NH4)2[Co(NH3)2(OX)2]
53. Hybridisation in [MnO4]– complex ion is
(2) NH4[Co(NH3)2(OX)2]
(1) sp 3 (2) dsp 2
(3) NH4[Co(NH2)2(OX)2]
(3) d 3s (4) d 2s 2
(4) (NH4)2[Co(NH3)2(OX)]
54 [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Br2 and [Pt(NH3)4Br2]Cl2 show?
63. What is the secondary valency of metal ion in
(1) Hydration isomerism [Mn(en)3]Cl3?
(2) Ionization isomerism (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) Co-ordination isomerism (3) 4 (4) 6
(4) Linkage isomerism 64.The complex compound in which the oxidation
55 IUPAC name of Na2[Fe(NO)(CN)5] is number of metal is zero, is
(1) Disodium nitrosoniumpentacyanoiron (II) (1) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2
(2) Disodium nitroniumpentacyanoferrate (II) (2) Na2 [Ni (EDTA)]
(3) Sodium pentacyanonitrosoniumferrate (II) (3) [Cr(CO)6]
(4) Sodium pentacyanonitrosoniumiron (III) (4) [Cr(NH3)6] [Cr(SCN)6]

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Crash & Test Series_GUJCET2016 Test-06

65. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl] Cl2.H2O show 74. Which of the following is correct statement regarding
crystal field theory in tetrahedral complexes?
(1) Linkage isomeresm
(2) Ionisation isomerism (1) Energy of d x 2  y 2 and dz2 orbitals is in-

(3) Hydrate Isomerism creased by 3/5 t

(4) Co-ordination isomerism (2) Energy of d x 2  y 2 and dz2 orbitals is de-

66 Geometrical isomers - Facial and meridonial are creased by 2/5 t
found in (3) Energy of dxy, dxz and dyz orbitals is decreasd
(1) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (2) [Fe(NH3)2(CN)4] by 3/5 t

(3) [Ni(CN)4]2– (4) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] (4) Energy of dxy, dxz and dyz orbitals is increased
by 2/5 t
67 Geometrical isomerism is found in co-ordination
75 Which of the following is not the limitation of valence
compounds having co-ordination number bond theroy?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) It is not able to explain the colours of
(3) 4 (tetrahedral) (4) 6 co-ordination compounds
(2) There is no covalent bond character in bonding
68 Which one of the following is paramagnetic in
of central metal atom and ligand
nature?
(3) It cannot distinguish the weak and strong
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) [NiCl4]2– ligands
(3) [Fe(CN)6]4– (4) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) It consists of some assumptions
69. Which of the following has magnetic moment 76 Which of the following is used in estimation of
5.92 BM? hardness of water?
(1) [NiCl4]2– (2) [Fe(CN)6]3– (1) Rhodium complex (2) Hypo
(3) [FeF6]3– (4) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (3) -nitroso- -naphthol (4) EDTA
70. A co-ordinate covalent bond in K2[Cu(CN)4] exists 77 Which of the following is correct?
between
(1) Oxalate : tridentate negative ion ligand
(1) K+ and CN– (2) Cu2+ and CN–
(2) pn : unidentate neutral ligand
(3) K+ and [Cu(CN)4]2– (4) K+ and Cu2+
(3) tn : tridentate negative ion ligand
71. Which of the following ligands acts as strongest
(4) EDTA : hexadentate negative ion ligand
ligand according to crystal field theory?
78 Which of the following complex compounds is most
(1) NH3 (2) CN–
stable?
(3) en (4) CO
(1) [CuF4]2– (2) [Cu(CN)4]2–
72. Which of the following relations is correct according
(3) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (4) [Cu(H2O)4]2+
to crystal field theory
79 The primary valency and secondary valency of
4 4 chromium in [CrCl2(en)2]NO3 is respectively
(1) 0  t (2)  t  0
9 9 (1) +2,4 (2) +2, 6
(3) +3, 6 (4) +3, 4
3 2
(3)  0  t (4) t  0
80 Which of the following is incorrect match for the
5 5
angle between any two nearby hybrid orbitals and
73 Which orbitals experience more repulsion with hybridisation?
ligand in octahedral complexes according to crystal
field theory? (1) sp3 hybridisation : 109o 28'

(1) dxy, dyz (2) dyz, dzx (2) dsp2 hybridisation : 90o
(3) d 2sp3 hybridisation : 90o
(3) d x 2  y 2 , d z2 (4) d
x 2 y 2 , d xy
(4) sp3d 2 hybridisation : 109o 28'

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Crash & Test Series_GUJCET2016
examtimepdfs.blogspot.com Test-06

BIOLOGY
81. Which of the following is specific for amino acid? (1) One (2) Two
(1) mRNA (2) tRNA (3) Three (4) Four
(3) Codon (4) Both (2) & (3) 87. Which statement is not correct about the lac
82. X – Only mRNA helps in protein synthesis operon?
Y – Ribosome moves along mRNA in 3’ direction (1) It is normally turned off if glucose is given
by distance of one codon (2) It is an inducible system
(1) X and Y both are correct (3) It regulates production of a series of five
(2) X and Y both are incorrect enzymes
(3) X is correct and Y is incorrect (4) Structural gene makes products that allow
(4) X is incorrect and Y is correct lactose metabolism
83. Who described unidirectional flow of information? 88. Action of structural gene is regulated by ________
with the help of ________ protein respectively
(1) H.M. Temin and D. Baltimore
(2) F.H.C Crick (1) Operator site, repressor protein

(3) Jacob and Monad (2) Operator site, promoter protein

(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Promoter site, repressor protein
84. Identify A, B, C, D from following diagram (4) Both (1) & (2)

B C
89. Which genes carry code for synthesis of protein?
A Protein
(1) Regulator gene (2) Operator gene
D (3) Promoter gene (4) Structural gene
(1) mRNA, Replication, Translation, Transcription 90. What does this diagram indicate?
(2) mRNA, Translation, Transcription, Replication
(3) mRNA, Transcription, Translation, Replication
(4) cDNA, Replication, Transcription, Translation
85. Identify A, B, C, D & E from following diagram
B D A

(1) Structure of Lac operon

E (2) Repressed state of Lac operon
C
(1) A-Termination site, B-Promoter, C-Gene,
D-Initiation site, E-Coding sequence
(2) A-Termination site, B-Promoter, C-Coding
sequence, D-Initiation site, E-Gene
(3) A-Initation site, B-Promoter, C-Gene,
D-Termination site, E-Coding sequence
(4) A-Initiation site, B-Promoter, C-Coding
sequence, D-Termination site, E-Gene
86. How many of the following statements are
incorrect?
(A) For expression of one gene, few other genes
are required
(B) Gene whose product is required known as
structural gene
(C) RNA polymerase bind to operator site and
starts transcription to produce mRNA
(D) Precursor can open up the ooperator gene
(3) Active state of Lac operon
(4) All of these
91. Which of the following is not a goal of Human
Genome Project?
(1) To prepare genetic map of human genome
(2) To store information in data base
(3) To determine information of only expressed
nucleotide sequence
(4) To understand social, ethical, legal
complications related to project
92. Identify incorrect match
(1) Homo sapiens  >3 billion  30,000 genes
(2) D. melanogaster  137 million  13000
genes
(3) E. coli  2.6 billion  3200
(4) HIV  9700  9

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Crash & Test Series_GUJCET2016 Test-06

93. Which of the following is application of HGP w.r.t 99. What is true for this diagram?
risk assessment?
(1) Diagnosis of disease
(2) To evaluate health risk caused by toxins
(3) To evaluate risk of edible vaccine (1) DNA fragments are separated by
(4) Both (2) & (3) electrophoresis through agar gel

94. Which of the following is not salient feature of (2) DNA cut into fragments through restriction
Human Genome? enzyme

(1) Average gene consists of 3000 bases
(2) Total number of gene estimated is 30,000
(3) The functions are known for over 50 precent of
discovered gene
(4) Y chromosome has fewest gene
95. Blood clotting of Abraham Lincoln has been
analysed for evidences of a genetic disorder called
(1) Marfan’s syndrome
(2) Alzheimer’s disease
(3) Diabetes
(4) Cardiovascular disease
96. Which of the following is true for VNTR?
(1) It is short repetitive sequences
(2) Specific for each person
(3) DNA band transferred to a nylon membrane
(4) Excess probe is washed away
100. Which is true about Human Genome Project?
(1) In 1991, project initiated by joint effort
(2) Working draft of genome announced in 2000
(3) In February 2003, analysis of working draft
was published
(4) All of these are true
101. Biotechnology is applicable in following areas,
except
(1) Healthcare
(2) Agriculture
(3) Haemodialysis

(3) It is nucleotide sequence (4) Environmental uses

(4) All of these
97. What is the role of electrophoresis?
(1) To transfer DNA band pattern to nylon
membrane
(2) To separate DNA fragments
(3) To wash probes not attached to DNA
(4) Both (1) & (2)
98. Which is the correct order for making DNA
fingerprint?
(A) Extraction of DNA from blood sample
(B) Electrophoresis
(C) Radioactive probe introduction
(D) Restriction enzyme digestion of DNA
(E) Radioactive DNA pattern transferred to X-ray
film
102. Applications of biotechnology are useful to
(1) Microorganisms used in biotechnology
technique
(2) Plants used in biotechnology technique
(3) Animals used in biotechnology technique
(4) Human beings
103. Food production can be improved by following
three ways, except
(1) Agro-chemical based agriculture
(2) Organic agriculture
(3) Soil-less agriculture
(4) Genetically engineered crop based agriculture
104. The world population has topped _____ people
and is predicted to double in next _____ years.

(1) A  C  B  D  E (1) 6 billion, 50

(2) A  B  C  D  E (2) 6 billion, 150

(3) A  D  B  C  E (3) 150 million, 60
(4) A  C  D  E  B (4) 160 million, 5

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Crash & Test Series_GUJCET2016 Test-06

105. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the 109. Which of the following features is not correct for
correct answer. Bt cotton?
Column - I Column - II (1) It is an example of GMO
a. Pest resistance (i) Unforeseen risks (2) It has a foreign gene isolated from specific
to environment insect
b. Bt cotton (ii) Application of (3) It develops resistance against bollworms
biotechnology in
(4) It has a foreign gene isolated from Bacillus
field of agriculture
thuringiensis
c. Ex vivo (iii) GMO
110. Statement (A): Bacillus thuringiensis produces
d. Ethical issues (iv) Gene therapy toxic protein in an inactive form.
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) Statement (B): It gets activated in alkaline pH
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) causing pores in midgut leading to death of
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) insects.

(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (1) A and B both are correct, B is correct
explanation A.
106. Statement (A): GMO is an organism whose
genetic material has been altered using genetic (2) A and B both are correct, B is not correct
engineering technique. explanation of A
Statement (B): Growing pest resistant plant can (3) Only A is correct
help to eliminate the application of chemical (4) Both A and B are incorrect
pesticides and reduce the cost of bringing the
crop in market. 111. Humulin has _____ amino acids.

(1) A and B both are correct, B is correct (1) 51 (2) 30

explanation A. (3) 21 (4) 230
(2) A and B both are correct, B is not correct 112. Host organism used for production of humulin
explanation of A
(1) Escherichia coli
(3) Only A is correct
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) -cells of islets of Langerhans
107. Statement (X): The main advantage of using
genetic engineering technique in agriculture is the (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
possibility of increased productivity through the 113. How many of the following statements are correct
use of newer varieties having improved properties. as biological and ecological risks posed by
Statement (Y): Bt cotton is a genetically GMO?
modified crop that contains a foreign gene (i) Production of toxic or allergic metabolites.
isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis.
(ii) Unexpected new susceptibilities to pathogens.
(1) Only statement (X) is correct
(iii) Transmission of new traits to related sexually
(2) Only statement (Y) is correct compatible weed species.
(3) Statements (X) and (Y) both are correct (iv) Isolate useful genes and then obtain patent
(4) Statements (X) and (Y) both are incorrect for them.
108. The given diagram is of (1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
114. Proinsulin differs from insulin having
(1) An extra stretch C peptide
(2) Less molecular weight
(3) Being produced from insulin
(1) Bt corn (2) Bt cotton
(4) More effective role in glucose regulation
(3) Bt brinjal (4) Bt mango

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Crash & Test Series_GUJCET2016 Test-06

115. Match the column-I with column-II and choose 118. Cells from patient’s blood/bone marrow are
the correct answer. removed and grown in laboratory. This is related
Column - I Column - II to

(a) Lepidoptera (i) Grasshopper (1) In vivo gene therapy

(b) Orthoptera (ii) Bollworms (2) Germ line gene therapy
(c) Homoptera (iii) Beetles (3) Ex vivo gene therapy
(d) Coleoptera (iv) Aphids (4) More than one option is correct
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
119. Transgenic models exist for many human
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) diseases such as
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) Cancer
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Cystic fibrosis
116. _____ is not found in mature insulin.
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(1) C peptide
(4) More than one option is correct
(2) A peptide
(3) B peptide 120. ‘Cry’ protein produce by B. thuringiensis is an
inactive form. It is converted into an active form
(4) More than one option is correct
of toxin that causes death of insect. This
117. _____ is a technique of biotechnology which is activation requires
used to treat and diagnose certain diseases.
(1) Acidic pH
(1) Biopiracy
(2) Alkaline pH
(2) Gene therapy
(3) Bioethics (3) Neutral pH

(4) Biopatent (4) More H+ ion concentration

  

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Crash & Test Series_GUJCET2016 Test-06

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Crash & Test Series_GUJCET2016
Test - 06
ANSWERS
1 (3) 21 (2) 41 (3) 61 (3) 81. (4) 101 (3)

2 (2) 22 (2) 42 (4) 62 (2) 82. (4) 102 (4)

3 (1) 23 (4) 43 (2) 63 (4) 83. (2) 103 (3)

4 (1) 24 (3) 44 (3) 64 (3) 84. (3) 104 (1)

5 (3) 25 (4) 45 (2) 65 (3) 85. (1) 105 (3)

6 (1) 26 (1) 46 (1) 66 (4) 86. (1) 106 (2)

7 (3) 27 (2) 47 (4) 67 (4) 87. (3) 107 (3)

8 (1) 28 (4) 48 (2) 68 (2) 88. (1) 108 (2)

9 (1) 29 (1) 49 (3) 69 (3) 89. (4) 109 (2)

10 (3) 30 (2) 50 (2) 70 (2) 90. (2) 110 (2)

11 (4) 31 (1) 51 (2) 71 (4) 91. (3) 111 (1)

12 (4) 32 (3) 52 (3) 72 (2) 92. (3) 112 (1)

13 (4) 33 (1) 53 (3) 73 (3) 93. (2) 113 (3)

14 (2) 34 (3) 54 (2) 74 (4) 94. (3) 114 (1)

15 (2) 35 (2) 55 (3) 75 (2) 95. (1) 115 (1)

16 (3) 36 (3) 56 (1) 76 (4) 96. (4) 116 (1)

17 (2) 37 (1) 57 (4) 77 (4) 97. (2) 117 (2)

18 (4) 38 (3) 58 (1) 78 (2) 98. (3) 118 (3)

19 (1) 39 (1) 59 (3) 79 (3) 99. (2) 119 (4)

20 (1) 40 (4) 60 (3) 80 (4) 100. (2) 120 (2)

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