Course: LT BIPC Date: 23-11-2020

Duration: 3 Hrs NEET CUM TEST-1 Max. Marks: 720 M

Note: Important Instructions
 Duration of test is 3 hours and question paper contains 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
 Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
Guessing of answer is harmful.
 The candidate has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with
the help of Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted
PHYSICS
1  1 
1. The expression i j is a
2 2
1) Unit vector 2) Null vector 3) Tensor 4) Scalar
2. A vector parallel to the vector i  2 j and having magnitude 3 5 units is
 
1) 3i  6 j 2) 6i  3 j 3) 4i  2 j 4) i  2 j
3. One of two rectangular components of a force is 20 N and it makes an angle of 600 with the
force. Then the magnitude of other component will be
20
1) N 2) 20 3N 3) 40N 4) zero
3
4. The rectangular components of a vector lying in xy-plane are (n  1) and I. If coordinate system is
turned by 600 , they are n and 3 respectively. The value of n is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 2.5 4) 3.5
5. The minimum number of vectors of equal magnitude required to produce a zero resultant
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) More than 4
       
6. The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the vectors A  4 i  3 j  6 k and B   i  3 j  8 k is
1    1   
1)  3 i  6 j  2 k  2)  3 i  6 j  2 k 
7  7 
1    
 1    

3)  3i 6 j 2 k  4)  3 i  6 j 2 k 
49   49  
7. The greater and least resultant of two forces are 7 N and 3 N respectively. If each of the force is
increased by 3N and applied at 600 . The magnitude of the resultant is
1) 129N 2) 7N 3) 3N 4) 10N
  
8. Resultant of the two vector F1 and F2 is of magnitude P. If F2 is reversed, then resultant is of
magnitude Q. What is the value of P 2  Q 2 ?
1) F12  F22 2) F12  F22 3) 2  F12  F22  4) 2  F12  F22 
9. Two light strings of length 4cm and 3cm are tied to a bob of weight 500gm . The free ends of strings
are tied to pegs in the same horizontal line and separated by 5cm . The ratio of tension in the
longer string to that in the shorter string is
1) 4:3 2) 3:4 3) 4:5 4) 5:4
  1   

 a. b 0
10. If a and b are two unit vectors and the angle between them is 60 then   is
1   

 a.b
 
1) 2 2) 3 3) 0 4) 1 / 2
      
11. If A  9i  7 j  5k and B  3i  2 j  6k then the value of A  B . A  B is
  
1) 206 2) 128 3) 106 4) – 17
   
12. If A  5i  2 j  3k and A  2i  j  2k , component of B along A is
14 28 28 14
1) 2) 3) n 4)
38 38 38 38
   
13. The component of A along B is 3 times that of the component of B along A . Then A:B is
1) 1: 3 2) 3 : 1 3) 2 : 3 4) 3 : 2
14. The work done by a force 2i  j  5k when it displaces the body from a point (3, 4, 6) to a point
(7, 2, 5) is
1) 5 units 2) 7 units 3) 1 units 4) 15 units
15. Upon heating, the length of the side of a cube changes by 2%. The volume of the cube changes by
1) 1% 2) 6% 3) 0.5% 4) 4%
0
16. A metre scale made of steel is calibrated at 20 C to give correct reading. Find the distance between
mark 50cm mark and 51cm mark if the scale is used at 100 C . Coefficient of linear expansion of steel
is 1.1  105 / 0 C
1) 1.00011cm 2) 1.0011cm 3) 1.011cm 4) 1.000011cm
17. Radius of a sphere is 100cm at 00 C and 100.1cm at 1000 C .Coefficient of cubical expansion of the
sphere is
1) 30  106 / C 2) 10  106 / 0 C 3) 60  106 / 0 C 4) 20  106 / 0 C
18. The difference between the length L1 of a brass rod and length L2 of a steel rod is constant at all
temperatures. The coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel are 1 and  2 respectively.
Then
1) L11  L2 2 2) L12  L21
3) L1 (1  1 )  L2 (1   2 ) 4) L1 (1   2 )  L2 (1  1 )
19. A clock with an iron pendulum keeps correct time at 150 C . If the room temperature rises to
200 C , the error in seconds per day will be (coefficient of linear expansion for iron is
0.000012 / 0 C )
1) 2.5sec 2) 2.6sec 3) 2.4sec 4) 2.2sec
0
20. A metal metre scale gives correct measurement at 0 C . If is generally used at a temperature of
400 C . The correction to be made for every metre is (  106 / 10 C )
1) 4  107 m 2) 4  105 m to be added
3) 4  105 m must be deducted 4) 4  103
21. The brass scale of a barometer gives correct reading at 100 C . The barometer reads 75cm at
300 C .What is the atmospheric pressure at 00 C (in cm Hg)
( Brass  20  106 / 0 C ;  Hg  175  106 / 0 C )
1) 74.8 2) 75.03 3) 70 4) 60
5 1
22. The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 49 10 K . What is the fractional change in its
density for a 300 C rise in temperature?
1) 2.35  102 2) 1.47  102 3) 1.47  103 4) 2.35  102
23. The radius of a metal sphere at room temperature T is R, and the coefficient of linear expansion of
the metal is  . The sphere is heated a little by a temperature T so that its new temperature is
T  T . The increase in the volume of the sphere is approximately
1) 2 RT 2)  R 2T 3) 4 R 3T / 3 4) 4 R3T
24. The magnitude of scalar and vector products of two vectors are 48 3 and 144 respectively.
What is the angle between the two vectors?
1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 900
25. A metal rod having a linear coefficient of expansion 2  105 / 0 C has a length 1m at 250 C , the
temperature at which it is shortened by 1 mm is
1) 500 C 2) 500 C 3) 250 C 4) 12.50 C
 
26. Find the torque of a force F  3i  2 j  k acting at the point r  8i  2 j  3k about origin
1) 14i  38 j  3k 2) 4i  4 j  6k
3) 14i  38 j  16k 4) 4i  17 j  22k
   
27. If 1 and  2 are two non-collinear unit vectors and if | 1   2 | 3 then the value of
   
  
a1  a2 . 2a1  a2 is
3
1) 1 2) 3 3) 4) 7
2
28. The value of 1  cos  is
cos 2    
1) 2 cos  2) 3) 2cos 2   4) 2sin 2  
2 2 2
29. The value of Tan 370
3 4 3 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 5 4 3
30. The value of sin(180   ) is
1) cos  2) tan  3) sin  4)  sin 
31. The value of cos 2 is
1) 1  2sin 2  2) 2cos2   1 3) cos2   sin 2  4) All
d
32. (cos x ) 
dx
1) sin x 2)  sin x 3)  cos x 4) tan x
d
33.  ( x 2  2 x  6)
dx
1) x 2  2 x 2) 2 x  6 3) 2 x  2 4) 6
d  1 
34. 
dx  x 2 
2 2 2 2
1) 2 2) 2 3) 4)
x x x3 x3
2
35.  (3x  2 x)dx is (with constant c)
1) x 3  x 2 2) x 3  2 x 3) 3x 2  2 x 4) 3x 2  x
1
36.  x dx 
x2 1
1) c 2) c 3) ln x  c 4) x 2  c
2 X2
1
37.  xn dx 
x n 1 x  n 1 xn
1) 2) 3) 4) n. x n1
n 1 n  1 n
d 2x
38. e is
dx
e2 x
1) e 2 x 2) 2.e 2 x 3) 4) e x
2
 d
39.  u.v  is
dx
1) uv  vu 2) dudv  vu 3) udv  vdu 4) uv  du.dv
40. tan(270   ) is
1) tan  2)  tan  3)  cot  4) cot 
2

 4x  3x 2 dx
3
41.
0
1) 12 2) 10 3) 4 4) 24
42. tan 2
2 tan  tan  tan 2  tan 2 
1) 2
2) 3) 4)
1  tan  1  tan 2  1  tan  1  tan 
d
43.
dx
 sin 2 x  
1) cos 2x 2) cos x 3) sin x 4) sin 2 x
44. cos( A  B) 
1) cos A sin B  sin A cos B
2) cos A sin B  sin A cos B
3) cos A cos B  sin A sin B
4) cos A cos B  sin A sin B
x
45.  e dx
ex e2 x
1) e x  c 2) c 3) e 2 x  c 4) c
2 2
CHEMISTRY
46. The number of radial nodes for 3p orbitals is:
1) 4 2) 4 3) 2 4) 1
47. Number of angular nodes for 4d orbitals is:
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
48. Which of the following is responsible to rule out the existence of definite paths or trajectories of
electrons?
1) Pauli’s exclusion principle
2) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
3) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity
4) Aufbau principle
49. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be:
1) 2 2) 4 3) 9 4) 3
50. The pair of ions having same electronic configuration is:
3 3 3 2 3 3 3 3
1) Cr , Fe 2) Fe , Mn 3) Fe , Co 4) Se , Cr
51. Which of the following statements concerning the quantum numbers are correct?
I) Angular quantum number determines the three dimensional shape of the orbital
II) The principal quantum number determines the orientation and energy of the orbital
III) Magnetic quantum number determines the size of the orbital
IV) Spin quantum number of an electron determines the orientation of the electron relative to the
chosen axis
1) Only I, II 2) Only I, II, III 3) Only I,IV 4) Only II, IV
52. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are correct?
n l m1
1) 1 1 2
2) 2 1 1
3) 3 2 3
4) 3 4 2
53. For the electrons of oxygen atom, which of the following statements is correct?
1) Z eff for an electron in a 2s orbital is the same as Z eff for an electron is a 2 p orbital
2) An electron in the 2s orbital has the same energy as an electron in the 2 p orbital
3) Z eff for an electron in 1s orbital is the same as Z eff for an electron in a 2s orbital
4) The two electrons present in the 2s orbital have same spin quantum numbers ms but of
opposite sign.
54. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
0 4
(i)X-rays (a) v  10  10 Hz
10
(ii) UV-rays (b) v  10 Hz
16
(iii) Long radio waves ( c) v  10 Hz
18
(iv) Microwave (d) v  10 Hz
1) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b 2) i-b, ii- a, iii-c, iv-d 3) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d 4) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-d
55. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength  , the stopping potential is V .
V
If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2 , the stopping potential is . The
4
threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is:
5

1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 2
56. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the third line from the red end corresponds to
which one of the following inter-orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen?
1) 5  2 2) 4  1 3) 2  5 4) 3  2
57. Which of the following transitions have minimum wavelength?
1) n4  n1 2) n2  n1 3) n4  n2 4) n3  n1
58. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 1kg having kinetic energy 0.5J is:
34 34 21 34
1) 6.626  10 m 2) 13.20  10 m 3) 10.38  10 m 4) 6.626  10 
59. Which of the following angular momentum is not possible according to Bohr’s theory?
h h h h
2.5
1) 2 2)  3)  4) 3
60. The orbital angular momentum of a p  electron is given as:
h h 3h h
3 6
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2  4) 2
61. The electrons identified by quantum numbers ' n ' and ' l ' :
A) n  4, l  1 B) n  4, l  0 C) n  3, l  2 D) n  3, l  1
Can be placed in order of increasing energy as:
1) A<C<B<D 2) C<D<B<A 3) D<B<C<A 4) B<D<A<C
62. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600 m / sec with an accuracy of 0.005%.
Certainty with which the position of the electron can be located is:
31
(h  6.6  10 34 kg m2 s 1 , mass of electron me  9.1  10 kg )
4 3 3 3
1) 1.52  10 m 2) 5.1  10 m 3) 1.92  10 m 4) 3.84  10 m
63. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following:
2
1) 2l  1 2) 4 l  2 3) 2n 4) 4l  1
64. The orbital diagram in which ‘Aufbau principle’ is violated, is:
1)

2)

3)

4)

65. The ratio of charge and mass would be greater for:

1) proton 2) electron 3) neutron 4) alpha
66. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by:
1) Spin quantum number
2) Principal quantum number n
3) Magnetic quantum number m
4) Azimuthal quantum number l
67. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations per quantum in the order of increasing energy:
A: Blue light B: Yellow light C: X-ray D: Radiowave
1) D, B, A, C 2) A, B, D, C 3) C, A, B, D 4) B, A, D, C
68. The ratio of e / m for a cathode ray:
1) varies with a gas in a discharge tube
2) is fixed
3) varies with different electrodes
4) is maximum if hydrogen is taken
69. The highest value of e / m of anode rays has been observed when the discharge tube is filled
with:
1) nitrogen 2) oxygen 3) hydrogen 4) helium
0 0
70. The ratio of energy of radiations of wavelengths 2000 A and that of 4000 A is:
1) 2 2) 4 3) 1 / 2 4) 1 / 4
71. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Plack’s quantum theory of radiation?
1) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole number multiples of quantum number.
2) Radiation is associated with energy.
3) Radiation energy is not emitted or absorbed continuously but in the form of small packets
called quanta.
4) The magnitude of energy associated with a quantum is proportional to the frequency.
72. The wave number which corresponds to electromagnetic radiation of 600 nm is equal to:
4 1 4 1 4 1 4 1
1) 1.6  10 cm ` 2) 0.16  10 cm 3) 16  10 cm 4) 160  10 cm
73. The nature of positive rays produced in a vacum discharge tube depends upon:
1) the nature of the gas filled
2) nature of the material of cathode
3) nature of material of anode
4) the potential applied across the electrodes
74. Any p  orbital can accommodate upto:
1) 4 electrons
2) 2 electrons with parallel spins
3) 6 electrons
4) 2 electrons with opposite spins
75. Rutherford’s experiment which established the nuclear model of the atom used a beam of:
1)   particle, which impinged on a metal foil and got absorbed
2)   rays, which impinged on a metal foil and ejecred electrons
3) helium atoms, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered
4) helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered
76. Observe the following statements regarding isotones:
I. 39 K and 40Ca are isotones.
II. Nuclides having different atomic number(Z) and mass number (A) but same number of
neutrons are called isotones.
III. 19 F and 23 Na are isotones.
The correct answer is:
1) I, II and III are correct 2) only I and II are correct
3) only I and III are correct 4) only II and III are correct
77. STATEMENT-I:- On increasing the intensity of incident radiation, the number of photoelectrons are
ejected and their K.E. increases.
STATEMENT-II:- Greater the intensity means greater the energy which in turn means greater the
frequency of the radiation.
1) Statement-I and II are correct
2) Statement I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
4) Statement I & II are incorrect
78. Which of the following statements is not correct about the characteristics of cathode rays?
1) They start from the cathode and move towards the anode
2) They travel in straight line in the absence of an external electrical or magnetic field
3) Characteristics of cathode rays do not depend upon the material of electrodes in cathode ray tube
4) Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of gas present in the cathode ray
tube
79.
 320
Represents
1) 3s Orbital 2) 3d Orbital 3) 3p Orbital 4) 3f Orbital
80. Chlorine exists in two isotopic forms, C 1  37 and C 1  35 but its atomic mass is 35.5. This
indicates the ratio of C1  37 and C1  35 is approximately:
1) 1:2 2) 1:1 3) 1:3 4) 3:1
81. Which of the following atoms contain least number of neutrons?
235 238 239 240
1) 92 U 2) 92 U 3) 93 U Np
4) 93

82. Most favourable conditions for electrovalent bonding are:

1) low ionization potential of one atom and high electron affinity of the other atom
2) high electron affinity and high ionization potential of both the atoms
3) low electron affinity and low ionization potential of both the atoms
4) high ionization potential of one atom and low electron affinity of the other atom
83. Element A has 3 electrons in the outermost orbit and element B has 6 electrons in the outermost
orbit. The formula of the compound formed between A and B would be:
1) A2 B3 2) A2 B6 3) A2 B 4) A3B2
84. Which of the following is Incomplete Octet?
1) BeCl2 2) CH 4 3) SF6 4) PCl5
85. The electronegativity of caesium is 0.7 and that of fluorine is 4.0. The bond formed between the two
is:
1) covalent 2) electrovalent 3) coordinate 4) metallic
86. Amongst LiCl , BeCl2 , MgCl 2 and RbCl the compounds with greatest and least ionic character,
respectively, are:
1) LiCl and RbCl 2)
RbCl and BeCl2 3)
RbCl and MgCl2 4)
MgCl2 and BeCl2
87. Which of the following has pseudo inert gas configuration
   2
1) Na 2) Cu 3) K 4) S
88. Odd electron bond is present in
1) NO 2) NO2 3) ClO2 4) All
89. Which of the following is super octet?
1) PCl5 2) CH 4 3) BF3 4) All
90. KCl easily dissolves in water because
1) It is a salt of potassium
2) It reacts with water
3) It is an electrovalent compound
4) Its ions are easily solvated

BOTANY
91. Stilt roots which grow obliquely from basal nodes of culm stem and acting as brace are found in
1) Sorghum 2) Maize 3) Sugar cane 4) All
92. Which of the following is not related to corm
1) Tunic 2) Lateral bud 3) Node 4) Scale leaves
93. Sweet Potato is homologous to
1) Ginger 2) Turnip 3) Potato 4) Colacasia
94. In some plants like grass, Monstera and Banyan tree, roots arise from parts other than the radical and
are called
1) Tertiary roots 2) Secondary roots
3) Tap root 4) Adventitious roots
95. Stolon is common in
1) Banana and Jasmine 2) Mint and Jasmine
3) Mango and Jasmine 4) Maize and Mint
96. A long leaf less flowering stem arising directly from bulb like onion, is called
1) Scape 2) Bulbil 3) Turion 4) Liana
97. Leaves Originate from
1) Shoot apical meristem and arranged in acropetal order
2) Shoot apical meristem and Baispetal order
3) Root apical meristem
4) Axillary bud
98. A bud is present in
1) The axil of simple leaf 2) Axil of compound leaf
3) The stem apex 4) All are correct
99. Venation is a term used to describe the patterns of arrangement of
1) Floral organs 2) Flowers in Inflorescence
3) Veins and Vein lets in a Lamina 4) All the above
100. Root cap is absent in
1) Lithophytes 2) Xerophytes 3) Hydrophytes 4) Mesophytes
101. Leaf base expands is to sheath in
1) Grasses and Banana 2) All legumes
3) Most of Dicots 4) All monocots
102. In Nepenthes (Pitcher plant) the pitcher is formed due to modification of
1) Leaf petiole 2) Leaf lamina 3) Leaf apex 4) leaf margin
103. Vegetative propagation in water hyacinth occurs by
1) Sucker 2) Stolon 3) offset 4) Runner
104. Secondary and Tertiary roots develop from primary root in
1) Acropetal succession 2) Basipetal succession
3) Irregular 4) Both1 and 2
105. In which plants, underground stems spread to new niches and when older parts die new plants are
formed.
1) Pistia 2) Strawberry and grass 3) Crocus 4) Jasmine
106. Petiole when becomes green, flat and tend to function as leaf, is called
1) Phylloclade 2) Cladode 3) Cladophyll 4) Phyllode
107. Stipules are
1) Two lateral leaf like structures 2) Present at the base of leaf
3) Protect axillary bud 4) More than one option is correct
108. Whorled simple leaves with reticulate venation is found in
1) Calotropis 2) Mustard 3) Gulmohor 4) Nerium
109. In cymose type of inflorescence.
(a) Main axis terminates into flower
(b) Flower born in basipetal order
(c) Main axis does not terminate into flower.
(d) Flowers are born in acropetal order.
1) (a) and (b) 2) (c) and (d) 3) (a) and (c) 4) (b) and (c)
110. Racemose inflorescense is identified by
1)Acropetal arrangement of flowers on peduncle
2) Presence of sessile flowers
3) Continuous growth of main axis
4) Both (1) and (3)
111. Sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margin, without overlapping is found in
1) China rose 2) Pea 3) Cassia 4) Calotropis
112. Diadelphous condition is found in
1) Citrus (2) Pea (3) China rose (4) Tomato
113. Choose the incorrect match
1) Zygomorphic flowers (Bilateral symmetry) - Pea, gulmohur, bean, Cassia
2) Asymmetric (irregular flower) - Canna
3) Inferior ovary - Pea
4) Superior ovary/ hypogynous flower - Mustard, China rose and brinjal
114. Label the parts (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the following diagram

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1) Epicarp Pericarp Endocarp Mesocarp
2) Pericarp Mesocarp Epicarp Endocarp
3) Epicarp Endosperm Mesocarp Endocarp
4) Epicarp Mesocarp Seed Endocarp
115. If fruit is developed by the ripening of ovary and any other part along with it, it is called
1) Pseudocarp 2) Eucarp 3) Parthenocarp 4) Pericarp
116. Embryo is made up of
1) A radical 2) Embryonal axis
3) One of two cotyledons 4) All of these
117. Select the incorrect statement among the following.
1) Monocot seeds are generally endospermic
2) In maize, seed coat is membranous and generally fused with fruit wall
3) In monocot seed, single large shield shape cotyledon is known as scutellum
4) In orchids, seeds are endospermic
118. Scutellum is a
1) Food storing haploid structure in grass embryo
2) Remnant of cotyledon in maize
3) Shield shaped and large cotyledon of grasses
4) Protective covering of plumule in grasses
119. The number and arrangement of stamens in a papilionaceous taxon is
1) A10 2) A (3) 3) A(9) 1 4) A5
120. Colchicum autumanle belongs to
1) Leguminoseae 2) Cruciferae 3) Liliaceae 4) Malvaceae
121. Floral features are represented in the summarized form as
1)Family 2) Floral formula 3) Floral diagram 4) Both (2) and (3)
122. Family of perennial herbs is
1) Fabaceae 2) Brassicaceae 3) Poaceae 4) Liliaceae
123. Select the Incorrect match.
1) Ornamental - Tulip, Gloriosa, Lupin, sweet pea, Petunia
2) Medicine - Muliathi, Atropa belladonna, Aloe
3) Fodder - Sesbania, Trifolium
4) Edible oil - Soyabean, Colchicine, groundnut
124. Floral formula of Brassicaceae is

1) 2)
3) 4)

125. Plumule is covered by

1) Root cap (2) Coleorrhiza (3) Coleoptile (4) Hypocotyl
126. Which of the following is not an example of literal meristem?
1) Fascicular vascular cambium 2) Interfascicular cambium
3) Cork – cambium 4) Periderm
127. Which of the following is an example of primary meristem?
1) Apical meristem 2) Intercalary meristem
3) Lateral meristem 4) Both (1) and (2)
128. Apical meristems and intercalary meristem are primary meristem because they
1) Are disintegrated after primary growth of plant
2) Are disintegrated after secondary growth of plant
3) Appear early in life of a plant and contribute to the formation of the primary plant body
4) None of these
129. What is the function of lateral meristem?
1) It gives rise to the lateral branches.
2) It increases girth of the plant axis.
3) It increases girth as well as length of the plant axis.
4) It increases only length of the plant axis.
130. A tissue is a group of cells having a
1) Different origin and always a common function
2) Common origin and always a different function
3) Common origin and usually a common function
4) Different origin and a different function
131. Select the correct set.
Plant Organ Function
1) Vanda Tap root Moisture absorption
2) Jasmine Offset Photosynthesis
3) Pineapple Sucker Propagation
4) Nepenthes Leaf tip Photosynthesis
132. Which of the following is correct about dicot seed?
I) Micropyle is present above the hilum
II) At the ends of embryonal axis radicle and plumule is present
III) Seed coat has three layers
IV) Cotyledons are generally without food reserve
 1) (I) and (II) 2) (II) and (III) 3) (III) and (IV) 4) (I) and (IV)
133. The aleurone layer in maize grain is present
1) Between seed coat and endosperm 2) Between endosperm and cotyledon
3) Between endosperm and embryonal axis 4) Between fruit wall and coleoptile.
134. A boat-shaped structure found in a papilanaceous corolla is developed by
1) Posterior large petal 2) Posterior large petal and one smaller lateral petal
3) Two anterior petals 4) Two small lateral petals
135. S-I All lateral meristems are secondary meristems
S-II Apical and intercalary meristems are primary meristems
1) S-I, S-II are correct 2) S-I is incorrect , S-II in correct
3) S-I, S-II – Bother are incorrect 4) S-I in correct, S-II is incorrect

ZOOLOGY
136. Which animals exhibit division of labour at cellular level
1) Echinoderms 2) Molluscs 3) Ctenophores 4) Poriferans
137. Multicellular animals with asymmetrical body are
1) sponges 2) Coelenterates 3) Ctenophores 4) Echinoderms
138. The undifferentiated layer present in diploblastic organisms is
1) Mesenchyme 2) Mesoderm 3) Mesoglea 4) Mesohyl
139. The body cavity of coelomates is lined by
1) Ectoderm 2) Mesoderm 3) Endoderm 4) MALT
140. In which of the following organisms, symmetry of adults differs from their larval symmetry
1) Annelids 2) Arthropods 3) Molluscs 4) Echinoderms
141. Which of the following is not the function of cnidoblasts
1) Anchorage 2) Défense 3) Food capture 4) Reproduction
142. The central body cavity of Coelenterates is
1) Paragastric cavity 2) Gastrovascular cavity
3) Blastocoel cavity 4) Epigastric cavity
143. Match the following
COLUMN I COLUMN II
A. Obelia I. High regeneration
B. Aurelia II. Comb jelly
C. Ctenoplana III. Jelly fish
D. Planaria IV. Metagenesis
A B C D
1. I II III IV
2. I III II IV
3. IV III II I
4. IV II III I
144. Which of the following parasitic group of animals have hooks and suckers
1) Round worms 2) Flat worms
3) Segmented worms 4) Worm like chordates.
145. Which of the following is not common feature of Cnidarians and ctenophores
1) Digestion 2) Levels of organisation
3) Symmetry 4) Methods of reproduction
146. The body of sponges is supported by
A. spicules B. Ossicles C. Spongin fibres D. Spines
1) A&B 2) B&C 3) A&C 4) A&D
147. The function of flame cells is
1) Nutrition and excretion 2) Osmoregulation and excretion
3) Integration and excretion 4) Reproduction and nutrition
148. Read the following
A. Circular cross section B. Pseudocoelom C. Muscular pharynx
D. Excretory tube E. Radial symmetry
 Which of the above are related to Aschelminthes?
1) All except C 2) All except D
3) All except B 4) All except E
149. Lateral appendages ofaquatic annelids are
1) Parapodia 2) Foot 3) Flippers 4) Patagia
150. Distinctly marked segmentation is seen in
1) Round worms 2) Molluscans 3) Annelids 4) Echinoderms
151. Bioluminescence is the characteristic feature of
1) Cnidarians 2) Ctenophores 3) Annelids 4) Molluscans
152. in which of the following group of animals longitudinal and circular muscles of body wall help in
locomotion?
1) Round worms 2) Earth worms 3) Flat worms 4) Blind worms
153. Earth worms and Leeches are
1) Monoecious 2) Dioecious
3) Asexual reproducers 4) Viviparous
154. Statocysts of arthropods are
1) Respiratory organs 2) Excretory organs
3) Balancing organs 4) Reproductive organ
155. Match the following
COLUMN I COLUMN II
A. Aedes I. Vector
B. Limulus II. King crab
C. Locusta III. Gregarious, polyphagous pest
D. Laccifer IV. Lac insect
A B C D
1. I II III IV
2. I III II IV
3. IV III II I
4. IV II III I
156. The second largest phylum in the kingdom animalia is
1) Arthropoda 2) Mollusca 3) Echinodermata 4) Annelida
157. File like rasping organ of Molluscans is
1) Osphradium 2) Aristotle’s lantern
3) Radula 4) Jacobson’s organ
158. Calcareous endoskeletal ossicles are present in
1) Arthropoda 2) Mollusca 3) Echinodermata 4) Annelida
159. The most unique mammalian feature is
1) Homeothermy 2) Tetra pods 3) Mammary glands 4) Viviparity
160. Structure of cells in a tissue vary according to their
1) location 2) function 3) Origin 4) maturation
161. Read the following and mark the incorrect
1) Compound epithelium has protective role
2) simple squamous epithelium acts as diffusion barriers
3) Epithelial tissue has little inter- cellular matrix
4) Glandular epithelium consists of squamous epithelium
162. Specialised connective tissue includes
1) Bones & cartilages 2) Adipose tissue
3) Blood 4) All
163. Read the following and identify the incorrect
1) Compound epithelium has limited role in secretion and absorption
2) Cell junctions provide structural and functional links between individual cells of tissue.
3) Areolar tissue forms supporting frame work for epithelium
4) Loose connective tissue has semi-rigid solid matrix
164. The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the complex bodied animals is
1) Epithelium 2) Connective tissue
3) Muscular tissue 4) Neural tissue
165. Following is not the cell of loose connective tissue
1) Fibroblasts 2) Macrophages
3) Mast cells 4) Chondroblasts
166. Glandular epithelium is formed by
1) Squamous and cuboidal cells 2) Squamous and columnar cells
3) Cuboidal and columnar cells 4) Any type of cells
167. Match the following
COLUMN I COLUMN II
A. Tight junctions I. prevent leakages
B. Adhering junctions II. Perform cementing
C. Gap junctions III. Facilitate cell communications
D. Ligaments IV. Connect bone to bone

A B C D
1) I II III IV
2) I III II IV
3) IV III II I
4) IV II III I
168. Read the following
A. They are cuboidal or columnar cells
B. Their function is to move particles /mucus in a specific direction
C. They are present mainly in the inner surface of the hollow organs.
Identify the above epithelium
1) Compound epithelium 2) Glandular epithelium
3) Ciliated epithelium 4) Keratinised epithelium
169. PCT of nephron consists of
1) simple squamous epithelium 2) Columnar epithelium
3) Cuboidal epithelium with microvilli 4) Cuboidal epithelium with cilia
170. Oviparous mammalian is
1) Balaenoptera 2) Delphinus
3) Ornithorhynchus 4) Rattus
171. Match the following
COLUMN I COLUMN II
A. Homeotherms I. Lizards, snakes
B. Air sacs II. Fish, amphibians
C. Poikilotherms III. Supplement respiration
D. Skin casting IV. Birds, mammals
A B C D
1) I II III IV
2) I III II IV
3) IV III II I
4) IV II III I
172. Kangaroo is
1) Macropus 2) Pteropus
3) Macaca 4) Psittacula
173. Fully ossified and pneumatic bones are present in
1) Amphibians2) Reptiles 3) Aves 4) Mammals
174. In which of the following stomach is modified into gizzard
1) Amphibians2) Reptiles 3) Aves 4) Mammals
175. Birds have
1) Sweat glans 2) Serous glans 3) Sebaceous glands 4) Oil glands
176. Flightless bird is
1) Columba 2) Struthio 3) Neophron 4) Pavo
177. Read the following and identify the animals
A. Persistent notochord B. No operculum
C. Tough skin D. Powerful jaws E. Predaceous
1) Chondrichthyes 2) Osteichthyes
3) Reptiles 4) Aves
178. The buoyancy regulating organ of bony fish is
1) Operculum 2) Air bladder
3) Cloaca 4) No such organ occurs
179. The Indian cat fish is
1) Catla 2) Rohu 3) Angel fish 4) Magur
180. In amphibians and reptiles the ear is represented by
1) Pinna 2) Tympanum 3) Organ of corti 4) Wattles