EASWARI ENGINEERING COLLEGE

(AUTONOMOUS)
DEPARTMENT OF ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING

191ECC602T- ANTENNASAND MICROWAVEENGINEERING

th
ECE - 6 Semeseter

Regulations - 2019
ONE MARK QUESTION WITH ANSWERS
 UNIT I INTRODUCTIONTO MICROWAVE SYSTEMS AND
ANTENNAS

TOPIC 1.1 MICROWAVE

FREQUENCY BANDS

1. Oscillators operating at millimeter wavelength are difficult to realize and are alsoless efficient.
a) true
b) false

Answer: a
Explanation: As frequency increases to the millimeter wave range, it becomes increasingly difficult to build
fundamental frequency oscillators with good power, stability and noise characteristics. An alternative
approach is to produce a harmonicof a low frequency oscillator through the use of frequency multiplier.

2. is an example for a frequencymultiplier.

a) resistor
b) inductor
c) capacitor
d) transistor

Answer: d
Explanation: A non linear device has the ability to generate the harmonics of the input
sinusoidal signal. Transistor and diodes are non linear devices and hence can be used as a
frequency multiplier.

3. The major drawback of frequencymultipliers is that they have:

a) higher attenuation
b) complex construction methods
c) complex design
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Designing a good quality frequency multiplier is more difficult since itnon-
linear analysis, matching at multiple frequencies, stability analysis and thermal
considerations. Considering all these issues for designing a multiplier makes it very complex.

4. A reactive diode multiplier uses as the key electronic component for frequency
multiplication.
a) zener diode
b) light emitting diode
c) varactor diode
d) Gunn diode

Answer: c
Explanation: Reactive diode multipliers use either a varactor diode or step recovery diode
biased to present a non linear junction capacitance. Since losses in these diodes are low, the
fraction of RF power converted to the desired harmonic is relatively high.

5. A major disadvantage of frequency multipliers is that they multiply the noisefactor

along with frequency.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: A disadvantage of frequency
multipliers is that noise levels are also
increased by the multiplication factor.
Frequency multiplication process is a phase
multiplication process as well, so phase noise
variations get multiplied by the same factor as
the frequency gets multiplied.
6. If a frequency multiplier has a
multiplication factor of 10, then the increase
in noise level due to frequency multiplication
is:
a) 10 dB
b) 20 dB
c) 25 db
d) 15 dB
Answer: b
Explanation: For a frequency multiplier, the
increase in noise power is given by 20 log n,
where n is the multiplication factor of the
multiplier. Substituting in the below equation,
increase in noise level is 20 dB.
7. In a diode frequency multiplier, an input
signal of frequency fo applied to the diode is
terminated with at all frequencies
other than required harmonic.
a) real impedances
b) reactive impedance
c) complex impedance
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In a diode frequency multiplier,
an input signal of frequency fo applied to the
diode is terminated with reactive impedance
at all frequencies other than required
harmonic nfo. if the diode junction
capacitance has a square –law I-V
characteristic , it is necessary to terminate
unwanted harmonics with short circuit.
8. Resistive multipliers are more efficient as
compared to reactive multipliers.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: Resistive multipliers generally
use forward biased Schottky-barrier diodes to
provide non linear characteristic. Resistive
multipliers have low efficiency but have
better bandwidth.
9. Reactive multipliers have a disadvantage
that they cannot be used at very high
frequencies and they become less efficient.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: At millimeter frequencies,
varactor diode exhibits resistive property.
Hence, at high frequency the multiplier
becomes lossy and also does not offer high
bandwidth, which is a major disadvantage.
10. For a resistive frequency multiplier of
multiplication factor 2, the maximum
theoretical conversion efficiency is:
a) 50 %
b) 25 %
c) 75 %
d) 12.5 %
Answer: b
Explanation: For a resistive frequency
multiplier of multiplication factor 2, the
maximum theoretical conversion efficiency is
given by 1/m2 where m is the multiplication
factor. For a factor 2 multiplier, maximum
theoretical conversion efficiency is 25 %.
TOPIC 1.2 PHYSICAL CONCEPT
OF RADIATION
1. The basic requirements of transmitting
antennas are:
a) High efficiency
b) Low side lobes two lines that chary the TEM wave
c) Large signal to noise ratio approaches λ the wave tends to be radiated so
d) Lone of the mentioned that the opened – out line act as an antenna
which lunches a free space wave.
Answer: a
Explanation: The basic requirements of a 5. The number of patterns radiation pattern
transmitting antenna are high gain and required to specify the characteristic are :
efficiency while requirements of receiving a) Three
antennas are low side lobes and large signal b) Four
to noise to ratio. c) Two
d) Five
2. is a device that converts
electrons to photons or vice-versa. Answer: a
a) Antenna Explanation: The three patterns required are,
b) Electron gun θ component of the electric field as the
c) Photon amplifier function of the angles as θ and φ, the φ
d) Microwave tube component of the electric field as the function
of the angles θ and φ, the phase of these fields
Answer: a as a functions of the angle φ and θ .
Explanation: Antenna is a device that
converts electrons into photons or vice versa. 6. The beam width of the antenna pattern
A transmitting antenna converts electrons into measured at half power points is called:
photons while a receiving antenna converts a) Half power beam width
photons into electrons. b) Full null beam width
c) Beam width
3. The basic equation of radiation that is d) None of the mentioned
applied to any antenna irrespective of the type
of the antenna is: Answer: a
a) iL= Qv Explanation: The beam width of an antenna
b) iQ = Lv measure at half of the maximum power
c) i/L=Q/v received by an antenna or the 3 dB beam
d) None of the mentioned width of the antenna is termed as half null
beam width.
Answer: a
Explanation: Basic equation of radiation is 7. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) =
given by iL=Qv. i is the time change in cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half
current, l is the length of the current element, power beam width of the antenna is:
q is the charge v is the acceleration of the a) 330
charge.
b) 660
4. When the separation between two lines that c) 12000
carry the TEM wave approaches λ the wave d) None of the mentioned
tends to be radiated.
a) True Answer: b
b) False Explanation: Half power beam width of the
antenna is obtained by equating the field
Answer: a pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power
Explanation: When the separation between point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of
beam width. Solving the given problem in the
same flow, half power beam width of the intensity. Unit of radiation intensity is watts
antenna is 660. per steridian or per square degree.

8. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ. TOPIC 1.3 NEAR- AND FAR-
cos 2θ. The first null beam width of the
antenna is: FIELD REGIONS
a) 450
b) 900 TOPIC 1.4 FIELDS AND POWER
c) 1800 RADIATED BY AN ANTENNA
d) 1200

Answer: b TOPIC 1.5 ANTENNA PATTERN

Explanation: Half power beam width of the CHARACTERISTICS
antenna is obtained by equating the field
pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power
point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of TOPIC 1.6 ANTENNA GAIN AND
beam width. Twice the half power beam EFFICIENCY
width gives the first null beam width. With
the same steps applied, the half power beam
width of the antenna is 450. First null beam TOPIC 1.7 APERTURE
width is 900. EFFICIENCY AND EFFECTIVE
AREA
9. The solid area through which all the power
radiated by the antenna is: 1. A is a device that converts a
a) Beam area guided electromagnetic wave on a
b) Effective area transmission line into a plane wave
c) Aperture area propagating in free space.
d) Beam efficiency a) Transmitting antenna
b) Receiving antenna
Answer: a c) Radar
Explanation: The beam area is the solid d) Mixer
angle through which all of the power radiated
by the antenna would stream if P (θ, φ) Answer: a
maintained its maximum value over beam Explanation: A transmitting antenna is a
area and zero elsewhere. This value is device that converts a guided electromagnetic
approximately equal to the angles subtended wave on a transmission line into a plane wave
by the half power points of the main lobe in propagating in free space. It appears as an
the two principal planes. electrical circuit on one side, provides an
interface with a propagating plane wave.
10. Power radiated from an antenna per unit
solid angle is called radiation intensity. 2. Antennas are bidirectional devices.
a) True a) True
b) False b) False
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Power radiated from an antenna Explanation: Antennas can be used both as
per unit solid angle is called radiation
transmitters and receivers. As transmitters
they radiate energy to free space and as
receivers they receive signal from free space.
Hence, they are called bidirectional devices
as they are used at both transmitting end and
receiving end.
3. Dipole antennas are an example for:
a) Wire antennas
b) Aperture antennas
c) Array antennas
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Dipoles, monopoles, oops,
Yagi-Uda arrays are all examples for wire
antennas. These antennas have low gains, and
are mostly used at lower frequencies.
4. antennas consist of a regular
arrangement of antenna elements with a feed
network
a) Aperture antennas
b) Array antennas
c) Printed antennas
d) Wire antennas
Answer: b
Explanation: Array antennas consist of a
regular arrangement of antenna elements with
a feed network. Pattern characteristics such as
beam pointing angle and side lobe levels can
be controlled by adjusting the amplitude and
phase excitation of array elements.
5. A parabolic reflector used for reception
with the direct broadcast system is 18 inches
in diameter and operates at 12.4 GHz. The
far-field distance for this antenna is:
a) 18 m
b) 13 m
c) 16.4 m
d) 17.3 m
Answer: d
Explanation: Far field distance for a reflector
antenna is given by 2D2/λ. D is the diameter
and λ is the operating signal wavelength.
Substituting in the above expression, far field
distance is 17.3 m.
6. of an antenna is a plot of the
magnitude of the far field strength versus
position around the antenna.
a) Radiation pattern
b) Directivity
c) Beam width
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Radiation pattern of an antenna
is a plot of the magnitude of the far field
strength versus position around the antenna.
This plot gives the detail regarding the region
where most of the energy of antenna is
radiated, side lobes and beam width of an
antenna.
7. Antennas having a constant pattern in the
azimuthal plane are called
a) High gain antenna
b) Omni directional antenna
c) Unidirectional antenna
d) Low gain antenna
Answer: b
Explanation: Omni directional antennas
radiate EM waves in all direction. If the
radiation pattern for this type of antenna is
plotted, the pattern is a constant signifying
that the radiated power is constant measured
at any point around the antenna.
8. Beamwidth and directivity are both
measures of the focusing ability of an
antenna.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Beamwidth and directivity are
both measures of the focusing ability of an
antenna. An antenna with a narrow main
beam will have high directivity, while a
pattern with low beam will have low
directivity.
9. If the beam width of an antenna in two
orthogonal planes are 300 and 600. Then the
directivity of the antenna is:
a) 24
b) 18
c) 36
d) 12
Answer: b
Explanation: Given the beam width of the
antenna in 2 planes, the directivity is given by
32400/θ*∅, where θ,∅ are the beam widths in
the two orthogonal planes. Substituting in the
equation, directivity of the antenna is 18.
10. If the power input to an antenna is 100
mW and if the radiated power is measured to
be 90 mW, then the efficiency of the antenna
is:
a) 75 %
b) 80 %
c) 90 %
d) Insufficient data
Answer: c
Explanation: Antenna efficiency is defined
as the ratio of radiated power to the input
power to the antenna. Substituting the given
data in the efficiency equation, the efficiency
of the antenna is 90%.
TOPIC 1.8 ANTENNA NOISE
TEMPERATURE AND G/T
1. If an antenna has a directivity of 16 and
radiation efficiency of 0.9, then the gain of
the antenna is:
a) 16.2
b) 14.8
c) 12.5
d) 19.3
Answer: a
Explanation: Gain of an antenna is given by
the product of radiation efficiency of the
antenna and the directivity of the antenna.
Product of directivity and efficiency thus
gives the gain of the antenna to be 16.2.
2. Gain of an antenna is always greater than
the directivity of the antenna.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Gain of an antenna is always
smaller than the directivity of an antenna.
Gain is given by the product of directivity and
radiation efficiency. Radiation efficiency can
never be greater than one. So gain is always
less than or equal to directivity.
3. A rectangular horn antenna has an aperture
area of 3λ × 2λ. Then the maximum
directivity that can be achieved by this
rectangular horn antenna is:
a) 24 dB
b) 4 dB
c) 19 dB
d) Insufficient data
Answer: c
Explanation: Given the aperture dimensions
of an antenna, the maximum directivity that
can be achieved is 4π A/λ2, where A is the
aperture area and λ is the operating
wavelength. Substituting the given values in
the above equation, the maximum directivity
achieved is 19 dB.
4. A rectangular horn antenna has an aperture
area of 3λ × 2λ. If the aperture efficiency of
an antenna is 90%, then the directivity of the
antenna is:
a) 19 dB
b) 17.1 dB
c) 13 dB
d) 21.1 dB
Answer: b
Explanation: Given the aperture dimensions
of an antenna, the directivity that can be
achieved is ap4π A/λ2, where A is the
aperture area and λ is the operating
wavelength, ap is the aperture efficiency.
Substituting the given values in the above
equation, the directivity achieved is 17.1 dB.
5. If an antenna has a directivity of 16 and is
operating at a wavelength of λ, then the
maximum effective aperture efficiency is:
a) 1.27λ2
b) 2.56λ2
c) 0.87λ2
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum effective aperture
efficiency of an antenna is given by D λ2/4π,
D is the directivity of the antenna.
Substituting in the equation the given values,
the maximum effective aperture is 1.27λ2.
6. A resistor is operated at a temperature of
300 K, with a system bandwidth of 1 MHz
then the noise power produced by the resistor
is:
a) 3.13×10-23 watts
b) 4.14×10-15 watts
c) 6.14×10-15 watts
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: For a resistor noise power
produced is given by kTB, where T is the
system temperature and B is the bandwidth.
Substituting in the above expression, the
noise power produced is 4.14×10-15 watts.
7. With an increase in operating frequency,
the background noise temperature:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Remains unaffected
Answer: a
Explanation: The plot of frequency v/s
background noise temperature shows that
with the increase of the signal frequency, the
background noise temperature increases.
Also, with the increase of the elevation angle
from the horizon, background noise
temperature increases.
8. The noise temperature of an antenna is
given by the expression:
a) radTb + (1-rad) Tp
b) (1-rad) TP
c) radTb
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The noise temperature of an
antenna is given by the expression radTb +
(1-rad) Tp. here, Tb is the brightness
temperature and Tp is the physical
temperature of the system. rad is the radiation
efficiency. Noise temperature of a system
depends on these factors.
9. Low is the G/T ratio of an antenna, higher
is its efficiency.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In the G/T ratio of an antenna,
G is the gain of an antenna and T is the
antenna noise temperature. Higher the G/T
ratio of an antenna better is the performance
of the antenna.
10. has a constant power spectral
density.
a) White noise
b) Gaussian noise
c) Thermal noise
d) Shot noise
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal noise has a power
spectral density for a wide range of
frequencies. Its plot of frequency v/s noise
power is a straight line parallel to Y axis.

TOPIC 1.9 IMPEDANCE
MATCHING
1. Slotted line is a transmission line
configuration that allows the sampling of:
a) electric field amplitude of a standing wave
on a terminated line
b) magnetic field amplitude of a standing
wave on a terminated line
c) voltage used for excitation
d) current that is generated by the source
Answer: a
Explanation: Slotted line allows the
sampling of the electric field amplitude of a
standing wave on a terminated line. With this
device, SWR and the distance of the first
voltage minimum from the load can be
measured, from this data, load impedance can
be found.
2. A slotted line can be used to measure
and the distance of
from the load.
a) SWR, first voltage minimum
b) SWR, first voltage maximum
c) characteristic impedance, first voltage
minimum
d) characteristic impedance, first voltage
maximum
Answer: a
Explanation: With a slotted line, SWR and
the distance of the first voltage minimum
from the load can be measured, from this
data, load impedance can be found.
3. A modern device that replaces a slotted
line is:
a) Digital CRO
b) generators
c) network analyzers
d) computers
Answer: c
Explanation: Although slotted lines used to
be the principal way of measuring unknown
impedance at microwave frequencies, they
have largely been superseded by the modern
network analyzer in terms of accuracy,
versatility and convenience.
4. If the standing wave ratio for a
transmission line is 1.4, then the reflection
coefficient for the line is:
a) 0.16667
b) 1.6667
c) 0.01667
d) 0.96
Answer: a
Explanation: ┌= (SWR-1)/ (SWR+1).
Substituting for SWR in the above equation
for reflection co-efficient, given SWR is 1.4,
reflection co-efficient is 0.16667.
5. If the reflection coefficient of a
transmission line is 0.4, then the standing
wave ratio is:
a) 1.3333
b) 2.3333
c) 0.4
d) 0.6
Answer: b
Explanation: SWR= (1+┌)/ (1-┌). Where ┌
is the reflection co-efficient. Substituting for
the reflection co-efficient in the equation,
SWR is 2.3333.
6. Expression for ϴ means phase angle of the
reflection co efficient r=|r|-e^jθ, the phase of
the reflection co-efficient is:
a) θ=2π+2βLmin
b) θ=π+2βLmin
c) θ=π/2+2βLmin
d) θ=π+βLmin
Answer: b
Explanation: here, θ is the phase of the
reflection co-efficient. Lmin is the distance
from the load to the first minimum. Since
voltage minima repeat every λ/2, any multiple
of λ/2 can be added to Lmin .
7. In the expression for phase of the reflection
coefficient, Lmin stands for :
a) distance between load and first voltage
minimum
b) distance between load and first voltage
maximum
c) distance between consecutive minimas
d) distance between a minima and immediate
maxima
Answer: a
Explanation: Lmin is defined as the distance
between the terminating load of a
transmission line and the first voltage
minimum that occurs in the transmission line
due to reflection of waves from the load end
due to mismatched termination.
8. If SWR=1.5 with a wavelength of 4 cm and
the distance between load and first minima is
1.48cm, then the reflection coefficient is:
a) 0.0126+j0.1996
b) 0.0128
c) 0.26+j0.16
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: ┌= (SWR-1)/ (SWR+1).
Substituting for SWR in the above equation
for reflection co-efficient, magnitude of the
reflection co-efficient is 0.2. To find θ,
θ=π+2βLmin, substituting Lmin as 1.48cm,
θ=86.4⁰. Hence converting the polar form of
the reflection co-efficient into rectangular co-
ordinates, reflection co-efficient is
0.0126+j0.1996.
9. If the characteristic impedance of a
transmission line 50 Ω and reflection
coefficient is 0.0126+j0.1996, then load
impedance is:
a) 47.3+j19.7Ω
b) 4.7+j1.97Ω
c) 0.26+j0.16
d) data insufficient
Answer: a
Explanation: ZL=Z0 (1+┌)/ (1-┌).
Substituting the given values of reflection co-
efficient and characteristic impedance, ZL is
47.3+j19.7Ω .
10. If the normalized load impedance of a
transmission line is 2, then the reflection co-
efficient is:
a) 0.33334
b) 1.33334
c) 0
d) 1
Answer: a
Explanation: ZL=Z0 (1+┌)/ (1-┌), this is the
expression for load impedance. Normalized
load impedance is the ratio of load impedance
to the characteristic impedance, taking
ZLL/Z0 as 2, the reflection co-efficient is
equal to 0.33334.
TOPIC 1.10 FRIIS
TRANSMISSION EQUATION
TOPIC 1.11 LINK BUDGET AND
LINK MARGIN NOISE
1. Link budget consists of calculation of
a) Useful signal power
b) Interfering noise power
c) Useful signal & Interfering noise power
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The link analysis and its output,
the link budget consists of calculations and
tabulations of useful signal power and
interfering noise power at the receiver.
2. Link budget can help in predicting
a) Equipment weight and size
b) Technical risk
c) Prime power requirements
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Link budget can help to predict
equipment weight, size, prime power
requirements, technical risk and cost. Link
budget is one of the system manager’s useful
document.
3. Which is the primary cost for degradation
of error performance?
a) Loss in signal to noise ratio
b) Signal distortion
c) Signal distortion & Loss in signal to noise
ratio
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two primary causes
for the degradation of error performance.
They are loss in signal to noise ratio and the
second is signal distortion caused by
intersymbol interference.
4. Which factor adds phase noise to the
signal?
a) Jitter
b) Phase fluctuations
c) Jitter & Phase fluctuations
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: When a local oscillator is used
in signal mixing, phase fluctuations and jitter
adds phase noise to the signal.
5. Antennas are used
a) As transducer
b) To focus
c) As transducer & To focus
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Antennas are used as
transducer that converts electronic signals to
electromagnetic fields and vice versa. They
are also used to focus the electromagnetic
energy in the desired direction.
6. Mechanism contributing to a reduction in
efficiency is called as
a) Amplitude tapering
b) Blockage
c) Edge diffraction
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Mechanism contributing to a
reduction in efficiency is called as amplitude
tapering, spillover, edge diffraction, blockage,
scattering, re-radiation and dissipative loss.
7. Space loss occurs due to a decrease in
a) Electric field strength
b) Efficiency
c) Phase
d) Signal power
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to the decrease in electric
field strength there will be a decrease in
signal strength as a function of distance. This
is called as space loss.
8. Antenna’s efficiency is given by the ratio
of
a) Effective aperture to physical aperture
b) Physical aperture to effective aperture
c) Signal power to noise power
d) Losses
Answer: a
Explanation: The larger the antenna aperture
the larger is the resulting signal power density
in the desired direction. The ratio of effective
aperture to physical aperture is the antenna’s
efficiency.
9. Effective radiated power of an isotropic
radiator can be given as a product of
a) Radiated power and received power
b) Effective area and physical area
c) Transmitted power and transmitting gain
d) Receiving power and receiving gain
Answer: c
Explanation: An effective radiated power
with respect to an isotropic radiator EIRP can
be defined as the product of transmitted
power and the gain of the transmitting
antenna.
10. According to reciprocity theorem,
and are identical.
a) Transmitting power and receiving power
b) Transmitting gain and receiving gain
c) Effective area and physical area
d) None of the mentioned
b) Radiation resistance
c) Transmission impedance
d) Recovery resistance
Answer: b
Explanation: The transmission line is
connected at the center. The dipole has an
impedance of 73 V at its center, which is the
radiation resistance. At the resonant
frequency, the antenna appears to be a pure
resistance of 73 V.

Answer: b 3. What happens when the radiation

Explanation: The reciprocity theorem states resistance of the antenna matches the
that for a given antenna and carrier characteristic impedance of the transmission
wavelength the transmitting and receiving line?
gain are identical. a) No transmission occurs
b) No reception occurs
c) SWR is maximum
d) SWR is minimum

UNIT II RADIATION Answer: d

Explanation: When the radiation resistance
MECHANISMS AND of the antenna matches the characteristic
DESIGN ASPECTS impedance of the transmission line, the SWR
is minimum and maximum power reaches the
antenna. This allows maximum power to be
TOPIC 2.1 RADIATION transmitted.
MECHANISMS OF LINEAR
WIRE AND LOOP ANTENNAS 4. The type of dipole antenna that has a
higher band width is called as?
a) Conical antenna
1. A dipole antenna is also called as? b) Yagi antenna
a) Marconi antenna c) Helical antenna
b) Yagi antenna d) Marconi antenna
c) Bidirectional antenna
d) Hertz antenna Answer: a
Explanation: A common way to increase
Answer: d bandwidth in the antenna is to use a version
Explanation: One of the most widely used of the dipole antenna known as the conical
antenna types is the half-wave dipole antenna. antenna. The overall length of the antenna is
This antenna is also formally known as the 0.73λ or 0.73(984)/f = 718.32/f. This is
Hertz antenna after Heinrich Hertz, who first longer than the traditional one-half
demonstrated the existence of wavelength of a dipole antenna, but the
electromagnetic waves. physical shape changes the necessary
dimensions for resonance.
2. The impedance at the center of the antenna
is known as?
a) Characteristic impedance
5. The radiation pattern of a half-wave dipole
has the shape of a
a) Doughnut
b) Sphere
c) Hemisphere
d) Circular
Answer: a
Explanation: The radiation pattern of any
antenna is the shape of the electromagnetic
energy radiated from or received by that
antenna. Typically that radiation is
concentrated in a pattern that has a
recognizable geometric shape. The radiation
pattern of a half-wave dipole has the shape of
a doughnut.
6. What is the beam width for a half wave
dipole antenna?
a) 90°
b) 180°
c) 50°
d) 250°
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam width is measured
between the points on the radiation curve that
are 3 dB down from the maximum amplitude
of the curve. The maximum amplitude of the
pattern occurs at 0° and 180°. The 3-dB down
points are 70.7 percent of the maximum. The
angle formed with two lines extending from
the center of the curve to these 3-dB points is
the beam width. The beam width is 90°. The
smaller the beam width angle, the more
directional the antenna.
7. What does the beam width of an antenna
tell us?
a) Signal strength
b) Signal power
c) Directivity
d) Degradation
Answer: c
Explanation: The measure of an antenna’s
directivity is beam width, the angle of the
radiation pattern over which a transmitter’s
energy is directed or received. Beam width is
measured on an antenna’s radiation pattern.
8. What is the power radiated by the antenna
with gain called as?
a) Critical power
b) Transverse power
c) Effective radiated power
d) Transmitted power
Answer: c
Explanation: The power radiated by an
antenna with directivity and therefore gain is
called the effective radiated power (ERP).
The ERP is calculated by multiplying the
transmitter power fed to the antenna Pt by the
power gain Ap of the antenna.
9. What is the radiation pattern of an isotropic
radiator?
a) Doughnut
b) Sphere
c) Hemisphere
d) Circular
Answer: b
Explanation: An isotropic radiator is a
theoretical point source of electromagnetic
energy. The E and H fields radiate out in all
directions from the point source, and at any
given distance from the point source, the
fields form a sphere.
10. What is the impedance of the folded
dipole antenna?
a) 50Ω
b) 100Ω
c) 300Ω
d) 20Ω
Answer: c
Explanation: A popular variation of the half-
wave dipole is the folded dipole. Like the
standard dipole, it is one-half wavelength
long. However, it consists of two parallel
conductors connected at the ends with one
side open at the center for connection to the
transmission line. The impedance of this
popular antenna is 300 V, making it an
excellent match for the widely available 300-
V twin lead.
11. Which of the following antennas produce
a vertical radiation pattern?
a) Dipole antenna
b) Yagi antenna
c) Marconi antenna
d) Hertz antenna
Answer: c
Explanation: The same effect as dipole
antenna can be achieved with a one-quarter
wavelength antenna or Marconi antenna. A
vertical dipole with the doughnut-shaped
radiation pattern, in which one-half of the
pattern is below the surface of the earth. This
is called a vertical radiation pattern.
TOPIC 2.2 APERTURE
ANTENNAS
TOPIC 2.3 REFLECTOR
ANTENNAS
TOPIC 2.4 MICROSTRIP
ANTENNAS AND FREQUENCY
INDEPENDENT ANTENNAS
1. The members of the antenna family which
are made of wires of certain value in terms of
operating wavelength are called:
a) Loop antennas
b) Wire antennas
c) Dipole antenna
d) Slot antennas
Answer: c
Explanation: Wires of half wavelength are
termed as dipoles. Their radiation resistance
is about 73 Ω. If only half of this length is
used, then it is called quarter-wave monopole
with a radiation resistance of 36.5 Ω.
2. The antenna in which location of the feed
determines the direction of the lobe are:
a) Wire antenna
b) Loop antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Horn antenna
Answer: a
Explanation: In a wire antenna, the location
of the feed determines the direction of the
lobe and the orientation of the wire
determines the polarization. These wires can
be thick or thin. Thickness of the wire
determines the radiation resistance of the
antenna.
3. Based on the size of the loops, loop
antennas are classified as small and large
loops. This is the only classification of loop
antenna.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Loop antennas are classified
based on various antenna parameters. To
name a few, small and large loops, circular
and square loops, loops having single or multi
turns, loops with turns wound using a single
wire or multiple wires.
4. Antenna that does not belong to the horn
antenna family among the following are:
a) Pyramidal horn
b) Conical horn
c) bi-conical horn
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the above mentioned
antennas belong to the horn antenna family.
Horn antennas may be made of pointed or
rounded waveguides. The waveguides may
contain disc at an end or some dielectric.
5. Patch antennas are the antennas of small
size and are made of:
a) Strip line
b) Microstrip lines
c) Coaxial cables
d) Rectangular waveguide
Answer: b
Explanation: Patch antennas are microstrip
antennas that can be of any shape. Patch
antennas can be aperture-coupled fed or
proximity fed. For obtaining circular
polarization, a patch may also be doubly fed.
6. Reflector antennas are widely used to
modify radiation patterns of radiating
elements.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Reflector antennas are used to
modify radiation patterns of radiating
elements. Reflector antennas are classified
into two categories. They are passive
reflectors and active reflectors. Based on the
type of the radiating element and the
modification in the radiation pattern required,
accordingly either active or passive reflectors
are chosen.
7. The pattern of the reflector in a reflector
antenna is called:
a) Primary pattern
b) Secondary pattern
c) Reflector pattern
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In a reflector antenna, the feed
pattern is called primary pattern and the
pattern of the reflector is called secondary
pattern. These antennas are widely employed
in RADARs and other types of point to point
communication links.
8. antennas have gain less than
reflector antennas but have more lenient
tolerance on surfaces.
a) Helical antennas
b) Lens antennas
c) Array antennas
d) Slot antennas
Answer: b
Explanation: Lens antennas are complex in
nature but are able to scale wider angles. In
comparison to reflectors, their gain is 1 or 2
dB less, but these have more lenient tolerance
on surfaces. These have less rearward
reflection, relatively low loss and can be
easily shaped to the desired contours.
9. Lens antennas are classified into two types.
One being fast antenna, the other one is:
a) Slow antenna
b) Delay antenna
c) Dynamic antenna
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In delay lenses, the electrical
path length is increased or the wave is
retarded by the lens medium. Dielectric
lenses and H-plane metal lenses fall in this
category.
10. The antennas which offer high operational
bandwidth and the antenna parameters are
maintained over a wide range of antennas are
called:
a) Wide band antennas
b) Array antennas
c) Parabolic antennas
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In this class of antennas,
constancy of impedance and radiation
characteristics is maintained over a wide
range of frequencies. To be wide band or
frequency independent, antennas should
expand or contract in proportion to the
wavelength.
11. High directivity required in RADAR
communication is satisfied using this type of
antennas:
a) Wide band antennas
b) Antenna arrays of a square corner antenna is:
c) Slot antennas a) 0.4 m2
d) Patch antennas b) 0.2 m2
Answer: b c) 0.1 m2
Explanation: Higher directivity is the d) None of the mentioned
requirement in point to point communication.
This can be achieved by increasing the size of Answer: a
the antennas in terms of electrical length. Explanation: Given the directivity of the
When much high directivity is required, antenna, effective aperture of the antenna is
antenna arrays are used. given by Dλ2/4π. substituting the given
values of the variables; the effective aperture
12. The terminal impedance of a dipole of the antenna is 0.4 m2.
antenna is 710 Ω. The terminal impedance of
the slot antenna given the intrinsic impedance
of air is 377 Ω is: TOPIC 2.5 DESIGN
a) 100 Ω CONSIDERATIONS AND
b) 50 Ω APPLICATIONS.
c) 25 Ω
d) None of the mentioned 1. The basic requirements of transmitting
antennas are:
Answer: b
a) High efficiency
Explanation: The terminal impedance Z of
the slot is given by the relation Z 2/ 4Z )SZₒ is b) Low side lobes
0 d c) Large signal to noise ratio
the intrinsic impedance of the medium and d) Lone of the mentioned
ZD is the terminal impedance of the dipole.
Substituting the given values in the above Answer: a
equation, the terminal impedance of sot is 50 Explanation: The basic requirements of a
Ω. transmitting antenna are high gain and
efficiency while requirements of receiving
13. If the length of aperture in a pyramidal antennas are low side lobes and large signal
horn antenna is 10cm and δ for the design is to noise to ratio.
0.25. Then, the flaring angle of the pyramidal
horn is: 2. is a device that converts
a) 30⁰ electrons to photons or vice-versa.
b) 25.4⁰ a) Antenna
c) 45⁰ b) Electron gun
d) 60⁰ c) Photon amplifier
d) Microwave tube
Answer: b
Explanation: The flaring angle of pyramidal Answer: a
Explanation: Antenna is a device that
horn is given by 2cos-1(L/L+δ). Substituting
converts electrons into photons or vice versa.
the values of L and δ, flaring angle is 25.4⁰. A transmitting antenna converts electrons into
photons while a receiving antenna converts
14. If the directivity of a square corner
receiving antenna is 20 and operating at a photons into electrons.
wavelength of 0.25m, the effective aperture
3. The basic equation of radiation that is
applied to any antenna irrespective of the type
of the antenna is:
a) iL= Qv
b) iQ = Lv
c) i/L=Q/v
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Basic equation of radiation is
given by iL=Qv. i is the time change in
current, l is the length of the current element,
q is the charge v is the acceleration of the
charge.
4. When the separation between two lines that
carry the TEM wave approaches λ the wave
tends to be radiated.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: When the separation between
two lines that chary the TEM wave
approaches λ the wave tends to be radiated so
that the opened – out line act as an antenna
which lunches a free space wave.
5. The number of patterns radiation pattern
required to specify the characteristic are :
a) Three
b) Four
c) Two
d) Five
Answer: a
Explanation: The three patterns required are,
θ component of the electric field as the
function of the angles as θ and φ, the φ
component of the electric field as the function
of the angles θ and φ, the phase of these fields
as a functions of the angle φ and θ .
6. The beam width of the antenna pattern
measured at half power points is called:
a) Half power beam width
b) Full null beam width
c) Beam width
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam width of an antenna
measure at half of the maximum power
received by an antenna or the 3 dB beam
width of the antenna is termed as half null
beam width.
7. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) =
cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half
power beam width of the antenna is:
a) 330
b) 660
c) 12000
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Half power beam width of the
antenna is obtained by equating the field
pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power
point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of
beam width. Solving the given problem in the
same flow, half power beam width of the
antenna is 660.
8. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ.
cos 2θ. The first null beam width of the
antenna is:
a) 450
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 1200
Answer: b
Explanation: Half power beam width of the
antenna is obtained by equating the field
pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power
point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of
beam width. Twice the half power beam
width gives the first null beam width. With
the same steps applied, the half power beam
width of the antenna is 450. First null beam
width is 900.
9. The solid area through which all the power
radiated by the antenna is:
a) Beam area
b) Effective area
c) Aperture area
d) Beam efficiency
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam area is the solid
angle through which all of the power radiated
by the antenna would stream if P (θ, φ)
maintained its maximum value over beam
area and zero elsewhere. This value is
approximately equal to the angles subtended
by the half power points of the main lobe in
the two principal planes.
10. Power radiated from an antenna per unit
solid angle is called radiation intensity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Power radiated from an antenna
per unit solid angle is called radiation
intensity. Unit of radiation intensity is watts
per steridian or per square degree.
UNIT III ANTENNA
ARRAYS AND
APPLICATIONS
TOPIC 3.1 TWO-ELEMENT
ARRAY
TOPIC 3.2 ARRAY FACTOR
1. A is a device that converts a
guided electromagnetic wave on a
transmission line into a plane wave
propagating in free space.
a) Transmitting antenna
b) Receiving antenna
c) Radar
d) Mixer
Answer: a
Explanation: A transmitting antenna is a
device that converts a guided electromagnetic
wave on a transmission line into a plane wave
propagating in free space. It appears as an
electrical circuit on one side, provides an
interface with a propagating plane wave.
2. Antennas are bidirectional devices.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Antennas can be used both as
transmitters and receivers. As transmitters
they radiate energy to free space and as
receivers they receive signal from free space.
Hence, they are called bidirectional devices
as they are used at both transmitting end and
receiving end.
3. Dipole antennas are an example for:
a) Wire antennas
b) Aperture antennas
c) Array antennas
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Dipoles, monopoles, oops,
Yagi-Uda arrays are all examples for wire
antennas. These antennas have low gains, and
are mostly used at lower frequencies.
4. antennas consist of a regular
arrangement of antenna elements with a feed
network
a) Aperture antennas
b) Array antennas
c) Printed antennas
d) Wire antennas
Answer: b
Explanation: Array antennas consist of a
regular arrangement of antenna elements with
a feed network. Pattern characteristics such as
beam pointing angle and side lobe levels can
be controlled by adjusting the amplitude and
phase excitation of array elements.
5. A parabolic reflector used for reception
with the direct broadcast system is 18 inches
in diameter and operates at 12.4 GHz. The
far-field distance for this antenna is:
a) 18 m
b) 13 m
c) 16.4 m
d) 17.3 m
Answer: d
Explanation: Far field distance for a reflector
antenna is given by 2D2/λ. D is the diameter
and λ is the operating signal wavelength.
Substituting in the above expression, far field
distance is 17.3 m.
6. of an antenna is a plot of the
magnitude of the far field strength versus
position around the antenna.
a) Radiation pattern
b) Directivity
c) Beam width
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Radiation pattern of an antenna
is a plot of the magnitude of the far field
strength versus position around the antenna.
This plot gives the detail regarding the region
where most of the energy of antenna is
radiated, side lobes and beam width of an
antenna.
7. Antennas having a constant pattern in the
azimuthal plane are called
a) High gain antenna
b) Omni directional antenna
c) Unidirectional antenna
d) Low gain antenna
Answer: b
Explanation: Omni directional antennas
radiate EM waves in all direction. If the
radiation pattern for this type of antenna is
plotted, the pattern is a constant signifying
that the radiated power is constant measured
at any point around the antenna.
8. Beamwidth and directivity are both
measures of the focusing ability of an
antenna.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Beamwidth and directivity are
both measures of the focusing ability of an
antenna. An antenna with a narrow main
beam will have high directivity, while a
pattern with low beam will have low
directivity.
9. If the beam width of an antenna in two
orthogonal planes are 300 and 600. Then the
directivity of the antenna is:
a) 24
b) 18
c) 36
d) 12
Answer: b
Explanation: Given the beam width of the
antenna in 2 planes, the directivity is given by
32400/θ*∅, where θ,∅ are the beam widths in
the two orthogonal planes. Substituting in the
equation, directivity of the antenna is 18.
10. If the power input to an antenna is 100
mW and if the radiated power is measured to
be 90 mW, then the efficiency of the antenna
is:
a) 75 %
b) 80 %
c) 90 %
d) Insufficient data
Answer: c
Explanation: Antenna efficiency is defined
as the ratio of radiated power to the input
power to the antenna. Substituting the given
data in the efficiency equation, the efficiency
of the antenna is 90%.
TOPIC 3.3 PATTERN
MULTIPLICATION
TOPIC 3.4 UNIFORMLY SPACED
ARRAYS WITH UNIFORM
1. Which of the following is false regarding
Antenna array?
a) Directivity increases
b) Directivity decreases
c) Beam width decreases
d) Gain increases
Answer: b
Explanation: A single antenna provides low
gain and less directivity. To increase the
directivity antenna arrays are used. With the
antenna arrays, directivity and gain increases
and beam width decreases.
2. Electrical size of antenna is increased by
which of the following?
a) Antenna Array
b) Decreasing the coverage area
c) Increasing the coverage area
d) Using a single antenna
Answer: a
Explanation: To increase the directivity
antenna arrays are used. With the antenna
arrays, directivity and gain increases and
beam width decreases. The electrical size of
the antenna is increased by placing an array
antenna together to achieve high directivity.
3. For long distance communication, which of
the property is mainly necessary for the
antenna?
a) High directivity
b) Low directivity
c) Low gain
d) Broad beam width
Answer: a
Explanation: Long distance communication
requires antenna with high directivity. To
increase the directivity antenna arrays are
used. With the antenna arrays, directivity and
gain increases and beam width decreases.
4. Which of the following is false about the
single antenna for long distance
communication?
a) Enlarging may create side lobes
b) No side lobes
c) High directivity is required
d) High Gain is required
Answer: b
Explanation: High directive antennas are
required for the long distance
communications. The array of antennas is
used to increase the directivity. The
directivity can be increased by increasing the
dimensions of antenna but it creates side
lobes.
5. The electrical size of antenna is increased
by antenna array to avoid size lobes
compared to single antenna.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Increasing the dimensions of
antennas may lead to the appearance of the
side lobes. So by placing a group of antennas
together the electrical size of antenna can be
increased. With the antenna arrays, directivity
and gain increases and beam width decreases.
6. A uniform linear array contains
a) N elements placed at equidistance and fed
currents of equal magnitude and progressive
phase shift
b) N elements at non-equidistance and fed
currents of equal magnitude and progressive
phase shift
c) N elements at equidistance and fed currents
of unequal magnitude and progressive phase
shift
d) N elements at equidistance and fed
currents of unequal magnitude and equal
phase shift
Answer: a
Explanation: An array is said to be linear if
N elements are spaced equally long the line
and is a uniform array if the current is fed
with equal magnitude to all elements and
progressive phase shift along the line. High
directivity can be obtained by antenna array.
7. Total resultant field obtained by the
antenna array is given by which of following?
a) Vector superposition of individual field
from the element
b) Maximum field from individual sources in
the array
c) Minimum field from individual sources in
the array
d) Field from the individual source
Answer: a
Explanation: The total resultant field is
obtained by adding all the fields obtained by
the individual sources in the array. An Array
containing N elements has the resultant field
equal to the vector superposition of individual
field from the elements.
8. If the progressive shift in antenna array is
equal to zero then it is called
a) Broad side
b) End-fire
c) Yagi-uda
d) Fishbone antenna
Answer: a
Explanation: The total phase difference of
the fields is given by Ѱ=kdcosθ+β
Here β is the progressive phase shift
⇨ β=0, array is a uniform broadside array
⇨ β=180, array is a uniform end-fire array
Yagi-uda antenna, fishbone antenna are end-
fire antenna array.
9. What is the progressive phase shift of the
end-fire array?
a) 0
b) 90
c) 180
d) 60
Answer: c
Explanation: The progressive phase shift of
the end-fire array is 180°. It is a linear array
whose direction of radiation is along the axis
of the array. For a broadside array it is 0°.
10. Which of the following statement about
antenna array is false?
a) Field pattern is the product of individual
elements in array
b) Field pattern is the sum of individual
elements in array
c) Resultant field is the vector superposition
of the fields from individual elements in array
d) High directivity can be achieved for long
distance communications
Answer: b
Explanation: The total resultant field is
obtained by adding all the fields obtained by
the individual sources in the array. Radiation
pattern is obtained by multiplying the
individual pattern of the element. Field
pattern is the product of individual elements
in array. Antenna arrays are used to get high
directivity with less side lobes.
TOPIC 3.5 AND NON-UNIFORM
EXCITATION AMPLITUDES
TOPIC 3.6 SMART ANTENNAS.
1. The basic requirements of transmitting
antennas are:
a) High efficiency
b) Low side lobes
c) Large signal to noise ratio
d) Lone of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The basic requirements of a
transmitting antenna are high gain and
efficiency while requirements of receiving
antennas are low side lobes and large signal
to noise to ratio.
2. is a device that converts
electrons to photons or vice-versa.
a) Antenna
b) Electron gun
c) Photon amplifier
d) Microwave tube
Answer: a
Explanation: Antenna is a device that
converts electrons into photons or vice versa.
A transmitting antenna converts electrons into
photons while a receiving antenna converts
photons into electrons.
3. The basic equation of radiation that is
applied to any antenna irrespective of the type
of the antenna is:
a) iL= Qv
b) iQ = Lv
c) i/L=Q/v
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Basic equation of radiation is
given by iL=Qv. i is the time change in
current, l is the length of the current element,
q is the charge v is the acceleration of the
charge.
4. When the separation between two lines that
carry the TEM wave approaches λ the wave
tends to be radiated.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: When the separation between
two lines that chary the TEM wave
approaches λ the wave tends to be radiated so
that the opened – out line act as an antenna
which lunches a free space wave.
5. The number of patterns radiation pattern
required to specify the characteristic are :
a) Three
b) Four
c) Two
d) Five
Answer: a
Explanation: The three patterns required are,
θ component of the electric field as the
function of the angles as θ and φ, the φ
component of the electric field as the function
of the angles θ and φ, the phase of these fields
as a functions of the angle φ and θ .
6. The beam width of the antenna pattern
measured at half power points is called:
a) Half power beam width
b) Full null beam width
c) Beam width
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam width of an antenna
measure at half of the maximum power
received by an antenna or the 3 dB beam
width of the antenna is termed as half null
beam width.
7. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) =
cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half
power beam width of the antenna is:
a) 330
b) 660
c) 12000
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Half power beam width of the
antenna is obtained by equating the field
pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power
point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of
beam width. Solving the given problem in the
same flow, half power beam width of the
antenna is 660.
8. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ.
cos 2θ. The first null beam width of the
antenna is:
UNIT IV PASSIVE AND
a) 450
b) 900 ACTIVE MICROWAVE
c) 1800 DEVICES
d) 1200
TOPIC 4.1 MICROWAVE
Answer: b
Explanation: Half power beam width of the PASSIVE COMPONENTS:
antenna is obtained by equating the field DIRECTIONAL COUPLER,
pattern of the antenna to 0.707 (half power POWER DIVIDER, MAGIC TEE
point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of ATTENUATOR, RESONATOR
beam width. Twice the half power beam
width gives the first null beam width. With
1. are used in the final
the same steps applied, the half power beam
stages of radar and radio transmitters to
width of the antenna is 450. First null beam
increase the radiated power level.
width is 900. a) Power amplifiers
b) Oscillators
9. The solid area through which all the power c) Transistors
radiated by the antenna is: d) Attenuators
a) Beam area
b) Effective area Answer: a
c) Aperture area Explanation: Power amplifiers are used in
d) Beam efficiency the final stages of radar and radio transmitters
to increase the radiated power level. Output
Answer: a of power amplifiers are in the range of 100-
Explanation: The beam area is the solid 500 mW.
angle through which all of the power radiated
by the antenna would stream if P (θ, φ) 2. Important factors to be considered for
maintained its maximum value over beam power amplifier design are:
area and zero elsewhere. This value is a) Efficiency
approximately equal to the angles subtended b) Gain
by the half power points of the main lobe in c) Thermal effect
the two principal planes. d) All of the mentioned
10. Power radiated from an antenna per unit Answer: d
solid angle is called radiation intensity. Explanation: As per the application
a) True requirement and considering various aspects
b) False of an amplifier like efficiency, gain, thermal
efficiency and inter modulation distortion,
Answer: a amplifiers need to be designed.
Explanation: Power radiated from an antenna
per unit solid angle is called radiation 3. Amplifier efficiency is the ratio of RF
intensity. Unit of radiation intensity is watts output power to DC input power. This
per steridian or per square degree. parameter determines the performance of an
amplifier.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Power amplifier is the primary
consumer of DC power in most hand-held
wireless devices, so amplifier efficiency is an
important consideration. Amplifier efficiency
is the ratio of RF output power to DC input
power.
4. Gain of power amplifiers with
increase in operating frequency.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Increases exponentially
d) Decreases exponentially
Answer: b
Explanation: Silicon bipolar junction
transistor amplifiers in the cellular telephone
band of 800-900 MHz band have power
added efficiencies of about 80%. But this
efficiency drops quickly with increase in the
operating frequency.
5. amplifiers are linear circuits,
where the transistor is biased to conduct over
the entire range of the input signal cycle.
a) Class A amplifiers
b) Class B amplifiers
c) Class C amplifiers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Class A amplifiers are linear
circuits, where the transistor is biased to
conduct over the entire range of the input
signal cycle. Because of this, class A
amplifiers theoretically have a maximum
efficiency of 50%.
6. A class B amplifier consists of
transistors in order to conduct the input signal
over the entire cycle.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: Class B amplifier is biased to
conduct only during one-half of the input
signal cycle. 2 complementary transistors are
operated in a class B push pull amplifier to
provide amplification over the entire cycle.
7. Power amplifiers in the increasing order of
efficiency is:
a) Class A, B, C
b) Class C, A, B
c) Class B, A, C
d) Efficiency of all the 3 amplifiers is the
same
Answer: a
Explanation: Class A amplifiers have an
efficiency of about 50%. Class B amplifiers
have an efficiency of about 78%, class C
amplifiers can achieve efficiencies up to
100%. In the increasing order of efficiency, C
> B> a)
8. Behavior of a transistor in power amplifiers
is unpredictable at all input signal levels.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A transistor behaves linearly
for signal powers below 1dB compression
point and so, the small –signal scattering
parameters should not depend either on the
input power level or the output termination
impedance.
9. If the output power of an amplifier is 10 V,
and the input power supplied to the amplifier
is 0.229 V given that the DC voltage used is
38.5 V, efficiency of the power amplifier is:
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 35%
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of a power amplifier
is (Pout- Pin)/ PDc Substituting the given
values in the above expression, efficiency of
the power amplifier is 25%.
10. If a power amplifier has an output power
of 10 W, and an amplifier gain of 16.4 dB,
then the input drive power is:
a) 400 mW
b) 225 mW
c) 229 mW
d) 240 mW
Answer: c
Explanation: Input drive power required to
get an output of 10 W is Pout (dBm)- G (dB).
G is the gain of the amplifier. Substituting the
given values in the above equation, 229 mW.
TOPIC 4.2 PRINCIPLES OF
MICROWAVE
SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES:
GUNN DIODES
1. Silicon and germanium are called
semiconductors.
a) direct gap
b) indirect gap
c) band gap
d) indirect band gap
Answer: b
Explanation: The forbidden energy gap for
silicon and germanium are respectively 1.21
eV in Si and 0.79 eV in germanium. Silicon
and germanium are called indirect gap
semiconductors because the bottom of the
conduction band does not lie directly above
the top of the valence band.
2. GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN
diodes because:
a) GaAs is cost effective
b) It less temperature sensitive
c) it has low conduction band electrons
d) less forbidden energy gap
Answer: d
Explanation: In GaAs, the conduction band
lies directly above the top of the valence
band. The lowest energy conduction band in
GaAs is called as primary valley. GaAs
consists of six secondary valleys. The bottom
of one of the secondary valley is at an energy
difference of 0.35 eV with the bottom of the
primary valley in conduction band.
3. In a GaAs n-type specimen, the current
generated is constant irrespective of the
electric filed applied to the specimen.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: In a GaAs n-type specimen,
when the electric field applied reaches a
threshold value of Eth, the current in the
specimen becomes suddenly oscillatory and
with respect to time and these oscillations are
in the microwave frequency range. This effect
is called Gunn Effect.
4. When the electric field applied to GaAs
specimen is less than the threshold electric
field, the current in the material:
a) increases linearly
b) decreases linearly
c) increases exponentially
d) decreases exponentially
Answer: a
Explanation: When the electric field applied
is less than the threshold value of electric
field, the electrons jump from the valence
band to the primary valley of the conduction
band and current increases linearly with
electric field.
5. When the applied electric field exceeds the
threshold value, electrons absorb more energy
from the field and become:
a) hot electrons
b) cold electrons b) positive resistance
c) emission electrons c) negative voltage
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: When the applied electric field
exceeds the threshold value, electrons absorb
more energy from the field and become hot
electrons. These electrons jump into the
lowest secondary valley in the conduction
band. When the electrons become hot, their
mobility reduces.
Answer: a
Explanation: When either a voltage or
current is applied to the terminals of a sample
of bulk solid state compound formed by
group 5 and 3 elements of periodic table, a
differential resistance is developed in the bulk
device. This fundamental concept is called
RWH theory.

6. GaAs is used in fabricating Gunn diode. 9. The number of modes of operation for n
Gunn diode is: type GaAs is:
a) bulk device a) two
b) sliced device b) three
c) made of different type of semiconductor c) four
layers d) five
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: n-type GaAs used for
Explanation: A GUNN diode is a bulk fabricating Gunn diode has four modes of
device, that is, it does not contain any operation. They are Gunn oscillation mode,
junction but it is a slice of n-type GaAs. P- limited space charge accumulation mode, and
type GaAs does not exhibit Gunn Effect. stable amplification mode bias circuit
Hence it is a reversible and can be operated in oscillation mode.
both directions.
10. The free electron concentration in N-type
7. The electrodes of a Gunn diode are made GaAs is controlled by:
of: a) effective doping
a) molybdenum b) bias voltage
b) GaAs c) drive current
c) gold d) none of the mentioned
d) copper
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The free electron concentration
Explanation: Gunn diode is grown in n-type GaAs is controlled through effective
epitaxially onto a gold or copper plated doping so that they range from 1014 to 1017
molybdenum electrode, out of gallium per cc at room temperature. The typical
arsenide doped with silicon, tellurium or specimen of n-type GaAs has the dimensions
selenium to make it n-type. 150 µm by 150 µm.
8. When either a voltage or current is applied 11. The modes of operation of a Gunn diode
to the terminals of bulk solid state compound are illustrated in a plot of voltage applied to
GaAs, a differential is developed in the Gunn diode v/s frequency of operation of
that bulk device. Gunn diode.
a) negative resistance
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: A graph of plot of product of
frequency and the length of the device plotted
along y-axis versus the product of doping
concentration and length along X- axis. These
are the parameters on which the four modes
of operation of Gunn diode are explained.
12. The mode of operation in which the Gunn
diode is not stable is:
a) Gunn oscillation mode
b) limited space charge accumulation mode
c) stable amplification mode
d) bias circuit oscillation mode
Answer: a
Explanation: In Gunn oscillation mode, the
device is unstable due to the formation of
accumulation layer and field domain. This
high field domain moves from cathode to
anode.
13. The frequency of oscillation in Gunn
diode is given by:
a) vdom/ Leff
b) Leff/ Vdom
c) Leff/ WVdom
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In Gunn oscillation mode, the
frequency of oscillation is given by vdom/
Leff, where vdom is the domain velocity, Leff
is effective length that the domain moves
from the time it is formed until the time a new
domain is formed.
14. In Gunn diode oscillator, the Gunn diode
is inserted into a waveguide cavity formed by
a short circuit termination at one end
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: The Gunn diode is mounted at
the centre of the broad wall of a shorted
waveguide since for the dominant TE10
mode; the electric field is maximum at the
centre.
15. In a Gunn diode oscillator, the electron
drift velocity was found to be 107 cm/second
and the effective length is 20 microns, then
the intrinsic frequency is:
a) 5 GHz
b) 6 GHz
c) 4 GHz
d) 2 GHz
Answer: a
Explanation: The intrinsic frequency for a
Gunn oscillator is given by Vd/L. Here VD is
the drift velocity and L is the effective length.
Substituting the given values in the above
equation, intrinsic frequency is 5 GHz.
TOPIC 4.3 IMPATT DIODES,
SCHOTTKY BARRIER DIODES,
PIN DIODES
1. The material used to fabricate IMPATT
diodes is GaAs since they have the highest
efficiency in all aspects.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: IMPATT diodes can be
fabricated using silicon, germanium, GaAs or
indium phosphide. Out of these materials,
GaAs have highest efficiency, low noise and
high operating frequencies. But GaAs has a
major disadvantage of complex fabrication
process and higher cost. So, GaAs are not
preferred over silicon and germanium.
2. When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the
breakdown voltage is applied to an IMPATT
diode, it results in:
a) avalanche multiplication
b) break down of depletion region
c) high reverse saturation current
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A reverse bias voltage
exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied
to an IMPATT diode, a high electric field
appears across the n+ p junction. This high
field imparts sufficient energy to the holes
and also to valence electrons to raise
themselves to the conduction band. This
results in avalanche multiplication of electron
hole pair.
3. To prevent an IMPATT diode from
burning, a constant bias source is used to
maintain at safe limit.
a) average current
b) average voltage
c) average bias voltage
d) average resistance
Answer: a
Explanation: Avalanche multiplication is a
cumulative process resulting in rapid increase
of carrier density. To prevent the diode from
burning due to this increased carrier density, a
constant bias source is used to maintain
average current at safe limit.
4. The number of semiconductor layers in
IMPATT diode is:
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: IMPATT diode consists of 4
layers according to the construction. It
consists of a p+ region and n+ layers at the
two ends. In between these layers, a p type
layer and an intrinsic region is sandwiched.
5. The resonant frequency of an IMPATT
diode is given by:
a) Vd/2l
b) Vd/l
c) Vd/2πl
d) Vdd/4πl
Answer: a
Explanation: The resonant frequency of an
IMPATT diode is given by the expression
Vd/2l. Here VD is the carrier drift velocity; L
is the length of the intrinsic region in the
IMPATT diode.
6. If the length of the intrinsic region in
IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift
velocity are 107 cm/s, then the drift time of
the carrier is:
a) 10-11 seconds
b) 2×10-11 seconds
c) 2.5×10-11 seconds
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The drift time of the carrier is
defined as the ratio of length of the intrinsic
region to the carrier drift velocity.
Substituting the given values in this relation,
the drift time of the carrier is 2×10-11
seconds.
7. If the length of the intrinsic region in
IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift
velocity are 107 cm/s, then the nominal
frequency of the diode is:
a) 12 GHz
b) 25 GHz
c) 30 GHz
d) 24 GHz
Answer: b
Explanation: Nominal frequency is defined
as the ratio of the carrier drift velocity to
twice the length of the intrinsic region.
Substituting the given values in the above
equation, the nominal frequency is 25 GHz.
Dept. of ECE
8. IMPATT diodes employ impact ionization
technique which is a noisy mechanism of
generating charge carriers.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: IMPATT devices employ
impact ionization techniques which is too
noisy. Hence in order to achieve low noise
figure, impact ionization is avoided in
BARITT diodes. The minority injection is
provided by punch through of the
intermediate region.
9. An essential requirement for the BARITT
diode is that the intermediate drift region be
completely filled to cause the punch through
to occur.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: An essential requirement for
the BARITT diode is that the intermediate
drift region be completely filled to cause the
punch through to the emitter-base junction
without causing avalanche breakdown of the
base collector junction.
10. If the RMS peak current in an IMPATT
diode is 700 mA and if DC input power is 6
watt, with the load resistance being equal to
2.5 Ω, the efficiency of the diode is:
a) 10.1 %
b) 10.21 %
c) 12 %
d) 15.2 %
Answer: b
Explanation: Efficiency of IMPATT diode is
defined as the ratio of output RMS power to
the input DC power. Calculating the RMS
output power from the given RMS current
and substituting in the equation of efficiency,
the efficiency is 10.21%.
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11. If the critical field in a Gunn diode
oscillator is 3.2 KV/cm and effective length is
20 microns, then the critical voltage is:
a) 3.2 V
b) 6.4 V
c) 2.4 V
d) 6.5 V
Answer: b
Explanation: Critical voltage of a Gunn
diode oscillator is given by the expression lEc
where l is the effective length and Ec is the
critical field. Substituting the given values in
the above equation, critical voltage is 6.4
volts.
TOPIC 4.4 MICROWAVE TUBES:
KLYSTRON, TWT
MAGNETRON.
1. The production of power at higher
frequencies is much simpler than production
of power at low frequencies.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: As frequency increases to the
millimeter and sub millimeter ranges, it
becomes increasingly more difficult to
produce even moderate power with solid state
devices, so microwave tubes become more
useful at these higher frequencies.
2. Microwave tubes are power sources
themselves at higher frequencies and can be
used independently without any other
devices.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Microwave tubes are not
actually sources by themselves, but are high
power amplifiers. These tubes are in
conjunction with low power sources and this
28

combination is referred to as microwave
power module.
3. Microwave tubes are grouped into two
categories depending on the type of:
a) Electron beam field interaction
b) Amplification method
c) Power gain achieved
d) Construction methods
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Microwave tubes are grouped
into two categories depending on the type of
electron beam field interaction. They are
linear or ‘O’ beam and crossed field or the m
type tube. Microwave tubes can also be
classified as oscillators and amplifiers.
4. The klystron tube used in a klystron
amplifier is a type beam
amplifier.
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed field
c) Parallel field
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In klystron amplifier, the
electron beam passes through two or more
resonant cavities. The first cavity accepts an
RF input and modulates the electron beam by
bunching it into high density and low density
regions.
5. In crossed field tubes, the electron beam
traverses the length of the tube and is parallel
to the electric field.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In a crossed field or ‘m’ type
tubes, the focusing field is perpendicular to
the accelerating electric field. Since the
focusing field and accelerating fields are
perpendicular to each other, they are called
crossed field tubes.
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6. is a single cavity klystron tube
that operates as on oscillator by using a
reflector electrode after the cavity.
a) Backward wave oscillator
b) Reflex klystron
c) Travelling wave tube
d) Magnetrons
Answer: b
Explanation: Reflex klystron is a single
cavity klystron tube that operates as on
oscillator by using a reflector electrode after
the cavity to provide positive feedback via the
electron beam. It can be tuned by
mechanically adjusting the cavity size.
7. A major disadvantage of klystron amplifier
is:
a) Low power gain
b) Low bandwidth
c) High source power
d) Design complexity
Answer: b
Explanation: Klystron amplifier offers a very
narrow operating bandwidth. This is
overcome in travelling wave tube (TWT).
TWT is a linear beam amplifier that uses an
electron gun and a focusing magnet to
accelerate beam of electrons through an
interaction region.
8. In a oscillator, the RF wave
travels along the helix from the collector
towards the electron gun.
a) Interaction oscillator
b) Backward wave oscillator
c) Magnetrons
d) None o the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In a backward wave oscillator,
the RF wave travels along the helix from the
collector towards the electron gun. Thus the
signal for oscillation is provided by the
bunched electron beam itself and oscillation
occurs.

9. Extended interaction oscillator is a
beam oscillator that is similar to
klystron.
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed beam
c) Parallel beam
d) M beam
Answer: a
Explanation: Extended interaction oscillator
is a linear beam oscillator that uses an
interaction region consisting of several
cavities coupled together, with positive
feedback to support oscillation.
10. Magnetrons are microwave devices that
offer very high efficiencies of about 80%.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetrons are capable of very
high power outputs, on the order of several
kilowatts, and with efficiencies of 80% or
more. But disadvantage of magnetron is that
they are very noisy and cannot maintain
frequency or phase coherence when operated
in pulse mode.
11. Klystron amplifiers have high noise
output as compared to crossed field
amplifiers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Crossed filed amplifiers have
very good efficiencies – up to 80%, but the
gain is limited to 10-15 db) In addition, the
CFA has a noisier output than either a
klystron amplifier or TWT. Its bandwidth can
be up to 40%.
12. is a microwave device in
which the frequency of operation is
determined by the biasing field strength.
a) VTM
b) Gyratron
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c) Helix BWO
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Gyratron is a microwave device
in which the frequency of operation is
determined by the biasing field strength and
the electron velocity, as opposed to the
dimensions of the tube itself. This makes the
gyrator especially useful for microwave
frequencies.
UNIT V MICROWAVE
DESIGN PRINCIPLES
TOPIC 5.1 IMPEDANCE
TRANSFORMATION
TOPIC 5.2 IMPEDANCE
MATCHING
1. Slotted line is a transmission line
configuration that allows the sampling of:
a) electric field amplitude of a standing wave
on a terminated line
b) magnetic field amplitude of a standing
wave on a terminated line
c) voltage used for excitation
d) current that is generated by the source
Answer: a
Explanation: Slotted line allows the
sampling of the electric field amplitude of a
standing wave on a terminated line. With this
device, SWR and the distance of the first
voltage minimum from the load can be
measured, from this data, load impedance can
be found.
2. A slotted line can be used to measure
and the distance of
from the load.

a) SWR, first voltage minimum
b) SWR, first voltage maximum
c) characteristic impedance, first voltage
minimum
d) characteristic impedance, first voltage
maximum
Answer: a
Explanation: With a slotted line, SWR and
the distance of the first voltage minimum
from the load can be measured, from this
data, load impedance can be found.
3. A modern device that replaces a slotted
line is:
a) Digital CRO
b) generators
c) network analyzers
d) computers
Answer: c
Explanation: Although slotted lines used to
be the principal way of measuring unknown
impedance at microwave frequencies, they
have largely been superseded by the modern
network analyzer in terms of accuracy,
versatility and convenience.
4. If the standing wave ratio for a
transmission line is 1.4, then the reflection
coefficient for the line is:
a) 0.16667
b) 1.6667
c) 0.01667
d) 0.96
Answer: a
Explanation: ┌= (SWR-1)/ (SWR+1).
Substituting for SWR in the above equation
for reflection co-efficient, given SWR is 1.4,
reflection co-efficient is 0.16667.
5. If the reflection coefficient of a
transmission line is 0.4, then the standing
wave ratio is:
a) 1.3333
b) 2.3333
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c) 0.4
d) 0.6
Answer: b
Explanation: SWR= (1+┌)/ (1-┌). Where ┌
is the reflection co-efficient. Substituting for
the reflection co-efficient in the equation,
SWR is 2.3333.
6. Expression for ϴ means phase angle of the
reflection co efficient r=|r|-e^jθ, the phase of
the reflection co-efficient is:
a) θ=2π+2βLmin
b) θ=π+2βLmin
c) θ=π/2+2βLmin
d) θ=π+βLmin
Answer: b
Explanation: here, θ is the phase of the
reflection co-efficient. Lmin is the distance
from the load to the first minimum. Since
voltage minima repeat every λ/2, any multiple
of λ/2 can be added to Lmin .
7. In the expression for phase of the reflection
coefficient, Lmin stands for :
a) distance between load and first voltage
minimum
b) distance between load and first voltage
maximum
c) distance between consecutive minimas
d) distance between a minima and immediate
maxima
Answer: a
Explanation: Lmin is defined as the distance
between the terminating load of a
transmission line and the first voltage
minimum that occurs in the transmission line
due to reflection of waves from the load end
due to mismatched termination.
8. If SWR=1.5 with a wavelength of 4 cm and
the distance between load and first minima is
1.48cm, then the reflection coefficient is:
a) 0.0126+j0.1996
Dept. of ECE
b) 0.0128
c) 0.26+j0.16
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: ┌= (SWR-1)/ (SWR+1).
Substituting for SWR in the above equation
for reflection co-efficient, magnitude of the
reflection co-efficient is 0.2. To find θ,
θ=π+2βLmin, substituting Lmin as 1.48cm,
θ=86.4⁰. Hence converting the polar form of
the reflection co-efficient into rectangular co-
ordinates, reflection co-efficient is
0.0126+j0.1996.
9. If the characteristic impedance of a
transmission line 50 Ω and reflection
coefficient is 0.0126+j0.1996, then load
impedance is:
a) 47.3+j19.7Ω
b) 4.7+j1.97Ω
c) 0.26+j0.16
d) data insufficient
Answer: a
Explanation: ZL=Z0 (1+┌)/ (1-┌).
Substituting the given values of reflection co-
efficient and characteristic impedance, ZL is
47.3+j19.7Ω .
10. If the normalized load impedance of a
transmission line is 2, then the reflection co-
efficient is:
a) 0.33334
b) 1.33334
c) 0
d) 1
Answer: a
Explanation: ZL=Z0 (1+┌)/ (1-┌), this is the
expression for load impedance. Normalized
load impedance is the ratio of load impedance
to the characteristic impedance, taking
ZLL/Z0 as 2, the reflection co-efficient is
equal to 0.33334.
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TOPIC 5.3 MICROWAVE FILTER
DESIGN
1. High gain is not achievable at microwave
frequencies using BJT amplifiers because:
a) device construction
b) complex architecture
c) ports are not matched at high frequencies
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: At higher frequencies, if higher
bandwidth is desired, a compromise on
maximum achievable gain is made. But at
these higher frequencies, the ports of the
amplifier are not matched to 50 Ω.
2. To flatten the gain response of a transistor:
a) biasing current has to be increased
b) input signal level has to increased
c) increase the operational bandwidth
d) give negative feedback to the amplifier
Answer: d
Explanation: Negative feedback can be used
to increase the gain response of the transistor,
improve the input and output match, and
increase the stability of the device.
3. In conventional amplifiers, a flat gain
response is achieved at the cost of reduced
gain. But this drawback can be overcome by
using:
a) balanced amplifiers
b) distributed amplifiers
c) differential amplifiers
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In conventional amplifiers, a
flat gain response is achieved at the cost of
reduced gain. But this drawback can be
overcome by using balanced amplifiers. This
is overcome by using two 900 couplers to
cancel input and output reflections from two
identical amplifiers.
32

4. Bandwidth of balanced amplifier can be an
octave or more, but is limited by the
bandwidth of the coupler.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: In order to achieve flat gain
response, balanced amplifiers use couplers to
minimize reflections. But this in turn reduces
the bandwidth of the amplifier to the coupler
bandwidth.
5. Coupler that is mostly used in balanced
amplifiers to achieve the required
performance is:
a) branch line coupler
b) wilkinson coupler
c) lange coupler
d) waveguide coupler
Answer: c
Explanation: Lange couplers are broadband
couplers and are compact in size. Since the
bandwidth of a balanced amplifiers depends
on the bandwidth of the coupler used. Lange
coupler is thus preferred over couplers.
6. Distributed amplifiers offer very high
a) gain
b) bandwidth
c) attenuation
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Distributed amplifiers offer
very high bandwidth of about 10 decade. But
higher gain cannot be achieved using
distributed amplifiers and matching at the
ports is very important to achieve higher
bandwidth.
7. In distributed amplifiers, all the FET stages
in the amplifier are connected in series to one
another.
a) true
b) false
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Answer: b
Explanation: In distributed amplifiers,
cascade of N identical FETs have their gates
connected to a transmission line having a
characteristic impedance of Zg with a spacing
of lg while the drains are connected to a
transmission line of characteristic impedance
Zd, with a spacing ld.
8. uses balanced input and
output, meaning that there are 2 signal lines,
with opposite polarity at each port.
a) differential amplifier
b) distributed amplifier
c) balanced amplifier
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Differential amplifier uses
balanced input and outputs, meaning that
there are 2 signal lines, with opposite polarity
at each port. It has two input ports and one
output port. The difference of the 2 input
signals is amplified.
9. A major advantage of differential
amplifiers is:
a) high gain
b) low input impedance
c) higher output voltage swing
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Differential amplifiers can
provide higher voltage swings that are
approximately double that obtained with
single ended amplifier.
10. Along with a differential amplifier, 1800
hybrid is used both at the input and output.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: A differential amplifier can be
constructed using two single-ended amplifiers
 www.studymaterialz.in

and 1800 hybrids at the input and output to =0 occurs, it is possible to achieve non zero
split and then recombine the signals. output voltage for zero input voltage, thus
forming an oscillator. This is called
Barkhausen criteria.
TOPIC 5.4 RF AND
MICROWAVE AMPLIFIER 4. The necessary condition for oscillation in a
DESIGN Colpitts oscillator is:
a) C2/C1=gm/Gi
1. is a non linear circuit that b) C1/C2=gm/Gi
converts DC power to an AC waveform of c) C2/C1= gm*Gi
desired frequency based on the oscillator d) None of the mentioned
design.
a) Attenuator Answer: a
b) Amplifier Explanation: The condition for sustained
c) Oscillator oscillation in a Colpitts oscillator is C2/C1 =
d) None of the mentioned gm/Gi. Here C1 and C2 are the capacitance in
the feedback network, gm is the
Answer: c
Explanation: Oscillator is a non linear circuit transconductance of the transistor and Gi is
that converts DC power to an AC waveform. the input admittance.
Most RC oscillators provide sinusoidal
outputs, which minimizes undesired 5. Colpitts oscillator operating at 50 MHz has
harmonics and noise sidebands. an inductor in the feedback section of value
0.10µH. then the values of the capacitors in
2. The transfer function of an RF oscillator is the feedback section is:
given by: a) 100 pF, 100 pF
a) A/ (1-AH (ω)) b) 100 pF, 50 pF
b) A/ (1+AH (ω)) c) 70 pF, 130 pF
c) A/ (-1+AH (ω)) d) 80 pF, 60 pF
d) 1/ (1-AH (ω))
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The equivalent value of series
Explanation: Transfer function of an RF combination of the capacitors is given by 1/
oscillator is given by A/ (1-AH (ω)). Here, A ω2L. This gives the equivalent capacitance
is the gain of the transistor multiplier used. value of 200 pF. C1C2/ (C1+C2) =200 pF. C1
H(ω) is the function representing the and C2 values can be chosen in several ways.
feedback network. In an oscillator, positive One of the way is C1=C2=100 pF.
feedback is used.

3. The criterion on which oscillations are 6. The necessary condition for oscillation in a
produced in the oscillator circuit is called: Hartley oscillator is:
a) Shannon’s criteria a) L1/L2 = gm/Gi
b) Barkhausen criteria b) L1/L2 =Gi /gm
c) Colpitts criteria c) L2L/L1 = gm/Gi
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: When the condition 1-AH (ω)
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Answer: a
Explanation: Necessary condition for
oscillation in a Hartley oscillator is L1/L2 =
gm/Gi. Here, L1 and L2 are the inductances in
the feedback network and gm is the
transconductance of the transistor and Gi is
the input admittance.
7. An inductor is operating at frequency of 50
MHz. Its inductance is 0.1 µH, and then the
series resistance associated with the inductor
is: (Qo=100)
a) 0.31 Ω
b) 1.32 Ω
c) 1 Ω
d) 1.561 Ω
Answer: a
Explanation: Series resistance associated
with an inductor is given by ωL/Qₒ.
Substituting in this equation, the series of an
inductor is given by 0.31.
8. Hartley oscillator has inductance values of
12 mH and 4 mH in the feedback section and
a capacitor of 4 nF. Then the resonant
frequency of the circuit is:
a) 19.89 kHz
b) 25 kHz
c) 45 kHz
d) 12 kHz
Answer: a
Explanation: Resonant frequency of Hartley
oscillator is given by 1/ 2π√(C1 (L1 + L2)).
Substituting the given values in the above
equation, cut-off frequency is 19.89 kHz.
9. Colpitts oscillator in the feedback section
has an inductance of 4 mH and capacitors of
12 nH and 4 nH. Then the resonant frequency
of Colpitts oscillator is:
a) 50.4 kHz
b) 35.1 kHz
c) 45.9 kHz
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Resonant frequency of Colpitts
oscillator is given by 1/2π√LCₒ, where C0 is
the equivalent capacitance given by C1C2/
(C1+C2). Substituting and solving the
equation, resonant frequency is 45.9 kHz.
10. For Colpitts oscillator, the capacitors C1
and C2 in the feedback network are 1 µF and
25 µF respectively. Then the β value of the
transistor is:
a) 35
b) 000.76
c) 25
d) 0.0025
Answer: c
Explanation: β for a transistor is defined as
the ratio of transconductance of the transistor
to the input admittance, which is equal to the
ratio of C2/C1. Substituting the given values,
β of the transistor is 25.
TOPIC 5.5 MICROWAVE
POWER AMPLIFIER DESIGN
1. are used in the final
stages of radar and radio transmitters to
increase the radiated power level.
a) Power amplifiers
b) Oscillators
c) Transistors
d) Attenuators
Answer: a
Explanation: Power amplifiers are used in
the final stages of radar and radio transmitters
to increase the radiated power level. Output
of power amplifiers are in the range of 100-
500 mW.
2. Important factors to be considered for
power amplifier design are:
a) Efficiency
b) Gain

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c) Thermal effect
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: As per the application
requirement and considering various aspects
of an amplifier like efficiency, gain, thermal
efficiency and inter modulation distortion,
amplifiers need to be designed.
3. Amplifier efficiency is the ratio of RF
output power to DC input power. This
parameter determines the performance of an
amplifier.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Power amplifier is the primary
consumer of DC power in most hand-held
wireless devices, so amplifier efficiency is an
important consideration. Amplifier efficiency
is the ratio of RF output power to DC input
power.
4. Gain of power amplifiers with
increase in operating frequency.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Increases exponentially
d) Decreases exponentially
Answer: b
Explanation: Silicon bipolar junction
transistor amplifiers in the cellular telephone
band of 800-900 MHz band have power
added efficiencies of about 80%. But this
efficiency drops quickly with increase in the
operating frequency.
5. amplifiers are linear circuits,
where the transistor is biased to conduct over
the entire range of the input signal cycle.
a) Class A amplifiers
b) Class B amplifiers
c) Class C amplifiers
d) None of the mentioned
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Answer: a
Explanation: Class A amplifiers are linear
circuits, where the transistor is biased to
conduct over the entire range of the input
signal cycle. Because of this, class A
amplifiers theoretically have a maximum
efficiency of 50%.
6. A class B amplifier consists of
transistors in order to conduct the input signal
over the entire cycle.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: Class B amplifier is biased to
conduct only during one-half of the input
signal cycle. 2 complementary transistors are
operated in a class B push pull amplifier to
provide amplification over the entire cycle.
7. Power amplifiers in the increasing order of
efficiency is:
a) Class A, B, C
b) Class C, A, B
c) Class B, A, C
d) Efficiency of all the 3 amplifiers is the
same
Answer: a
Explanation: Class A amplifiers have an
efficiency of about 50%. Class B amplifiers
have an efficiency of about 78%, class C
amplifiers can achieve efficiencies up to
100%. In the increasing order of efficiency, C
> B> a)
8. Behavior of a transistor in power amplifiers
is unpredictable at all input signal levels.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A transistor behaves linearly
for signal powers below 1dB compression
point and so, the small –signal scattering

parameters should not depend either on the
input power level or the output termination
impedance.
9. If the output power of an amplifier is 10 V,
and the input power supplied to the amplifier
is 0.229 V given that the DC voltage used is
38.5 V, efficiency of the power amplifier is:
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 35%
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of a power amplifier
is (Pout- Pin)/ PDc Substituting the given
values in the above expression, efficiency of
the power amplifier is 25%.
10. If a power amplifier has an output power
of 10 W, and an amplifier gain of 16.4 dB,
then the input drive power is:
a) 400 mW
b) 225 mW
c) 229 mW
d) 240 mW
Answer: c
Explanation: Input drive power required to
get an output of 10 W is Pout (dBm)- G (dB).
G is the gain of the amplifier. Substituting the
given values in the above equation, 229 mW.
TOPIC 5.6 LOW NOISE
AMPLIFIER DESIGN
1. is defined as the ratio of
desired signal power to undesired noise
power.
a) Signal to noise ratio
b) Noise to signal ratio
c) Noise figure
d) Noise temperature
Answer: a
Explanation: SNR is defined as the ratio of
desired signal power to undesired noise
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power, and so is dependent on the signal
power. When noise and a desired signal are
applied to the input of a noise less network,
both noise and signal will be attenuated or
amplified by the same factor, so that the
signal to noise ratio will be unchanged.
2. is defined as the ratio of input
signal to noise ratio to the output signal to
noise ratio.
a) Noise figure
b) Noise temperature
c) SNRo
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise figure is defined as the
ratio of input signal to noise ratio to the
output signal to noise ratio of a system or a
receiver. SNRi is the signal to noise ratio
measured at the input terminals of the device.
SNR0 is the output signal to noise ratio
measured at the output terminals of the
device.
3. The equivalent noise temperature of a
network given the noise figure of the network
or system is:
a) T0(F-1)
b) T0(F+1)
c) T0(F)
d) T0/F
Answer: a
Explanation: The equivalent noise
temperature of a network given the noise
figure of the network or system is given by
T0(F-1). In this expression, F is the noise
figure of the system. T0 has the value 290 K.
T0 is the standard temperature considered.
4. Noise figure can be defined for any
microwave network irrespective of any other
constraints.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Noise figure is defined only for
a matched input source and for a noise source
equivalent to a matched load at a temperature
T0= 290 K. noise figure and noise
temperature are interchangeable noise
properties.
5. Expression for noise of a two port network
considering the noise due to transmission line
and other lossy components is:
a) GkTB + GNadded
b) GkTB
c) GNadded
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Expression for noise of a two
port network considering the noise due to
transmission line and other lossy components
is GkTB + GNadded. Here, G is the gain of the
system. Nadded is the noise generated by the
transmission line, as if it appeared at the input
terminals of the line.
6. Noise equivalent temperature of a
transmission line that adds noise to the noise
of a device is:
a) T (L-1)
b) T (L+1)
c) T (L)
d) T/L
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise equivalent temperature
of a transmission line that adds noise to the
noise of a device is given by T (L-1). Here L
is the loss factor of the line and T is the
temperature at which the system is thermal
equilibrium.
7. If the noise figures of the first stage of a
two stage cascade network is 8 dB and the
noise figure of the second stage is 7 dB and
the gain of the first stage is 10, then the noise
figure of the cascade is:
a) 8. 6 dB
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b) 7.6 dB
c) 5.6 dB
d) 8.9 dB
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise figure of a two stage
cascade network is given by F1+ (F2-1)/G1.
Here F1, F2 are the noise figure of the first
and the second stage respectively. G1 is the
gain of the first stage. Substituting the given
values in the above equation, noise figure of
the cascade is 8.6 dB.
8. Noise equivalent temperature of a 2 stage
cascade network is given by:
a) Te1 + Te2/ G1
b) Te1 + Te1
c) Te1 / Te1
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise equivalent temperature
of a 2 stage cascade network is given by Te1
+ Te1/ G1. Here, Te1 is the noise equivalent
temperature of stage 1 and Te1 is the noise
equivalent temperature of stage 2. G1 is the
gain of the first stage of the amplifier.
9. When a network is matched to its external
circuitry, the gain of the two port network is
given by:
a) │S21│2
b) │S 22│2
c) │S12│2
d) │S 11│2
Answer: a
Explanation: The gain of a two port network
is given by the product of SS21 of the
network and reflection co-efficient at the
source end. But when the two port network is
matched to the external circuitry, reflection

coefficient becomes zero and gain reduces to
│S21│2.
10. For a Wilkinson power divider of
insertion loss L and the coupler is matched to
the external circuitry, and then the gain of the
coupler in terms of insertion loss is:
a) 2L
b) 1/2L
c) L
d) 1/L
Answer: b
Explanation: To evaluate the noise figure of
the coupler, third port is terminated with
known impedance. Then the coupler becomes
a two port device. Since the coupler is
matched, ГS=0 and Гout=S22=0. So the
available gain is │S21│2. This is equal to
1/2L from the available data.
11. Noise equivalent temperature of
Wilkinson coupler having a gain of 1/2L is
given as:
a) T (2L-1)
b) T (2L+1)
c) T (2L*1)
d) T / (2L-1)
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise equivalent temperature
of the Wilkinson coupler is found using the
relation
T (1-G21)/G21. Substituting for G21 in the
above expression, equivalent noise
temperature is T (2L-1).
12. Expression for over all noise figure of a
mismatched amplifier is:
a) 1+ (F-1)/ (1 -│Г│2)
b) 1
c) 1+ (F-1)
d) (F-1)/ (1 -│Г│2)
Answer: a
Explanation: The overall noise figure of a
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mismatched amplifier is given by 1+ (F-1)/ (1
-│Г│2). Here F is the noise figure of the
amplifier, when there is an impedance
mismatch at the input of the amplifier; this
impedance mismatch is given by Г.
TOPIC 5.7 MICROWAVE MIXER
DESIGN
1. One condition to be satisfied in an
oscillator circuit so that stable oscillations are
produced is:
a) positive feedback is to be achieved
b) negative feedback is to be achieved
c) 1800 phase shift is required between the
transistor input and output.
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In an oscillator a total of 3600
of phase shift is to be achieved in the entire
circuit to produce oscillations. The transistor
used in the oscillator circuit must produce a
phase shift of 1800 to achieve stable
oscillations. Hence this condition has to be
satisfied by the oscillator.
2. In an oscillator, the resonant feedback
circuit must have must have a low Q in order
to achieve stable oscillation.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: If the resonant feedback circuit
has a high Q, so that there is random phase
shift with frequency, the oscillator will have
good frequency stability.
3. Quartz crystals are more efficient as a
feedback network because:
a) less circuit complexity
b) cost effective
c) crystals operate at high voltage levels
d) LC circuits have unloaded Q of a few
hundreds

Answer: d
Explanation: At frequencies below a few
hundred MHz, where LC resonators seldom
have unloaded Qs greater than a few hundred.
Quartz crystals have unloaded Q of about
10000 and have a temperature drift of
0.001%/C0.
4. Quartz crystal and tourmaline used in
oscillators work on the principle of:
a) photo electric effect
b) piezo electric effect
c) Raman effect
d) black body radiation
Answer: b
Explanation: Quartz crystals work on the
principle of piezo electric effect. When
electrical energy is applied to these crystals,
they vibrate in a direction perpendicular to
the application of energy producing
oscillations.
5. A quartz crystals equivalent circuit is a
series LCR circuit and has a series resonant
frequency.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: A quartz crystal has an
equivalent circuit such that a series LCR
network is in parallel with a capacitor. A
quartz crystal thus has both series and parallel
resonant frequencies.
6. Quartz crystal is used in the
region, where the operating point of
the crystal is fixed.
a) resistive
b) inductive reactance
c) capacitive reactance
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Quartz crystal is always
operated in the inductive reactance region so
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that the crystal is used in place of an inductor
in a Colpitts or pierce oscillator.
7. In the plot of reactance v/s frequency of a
crystal oscillator, the reactance between series
resonant frequency and parallel resonant
frequency is:
a) capacitive
b) inductive
c) both capacitive and inductive
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In the plot of reactance v/s
frequency of a crystal oscillator, the reactance
between series resonant frequency and
parallel resonant frequency is inductive. In
this region between the series and parallel and
series resonant frequencies, the operating
point of the crystal is fixed and hence can be
used as part of other circuits.
8. In the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal,
LCR arm has an inductance of 4 mH and
capacitor has a value of 4nF, then the series
resonant frequency of the oscillator is:
a) 0.25 MHz
b) 2.5 MHz
c) 25 MHz
d) 5 MHz
Answer: a
Explanation: The series resonant frequency
of a crystal oscillator is given by 1/√LC.
Substituting the given values of L and C in
the expression, the series resonant frequency
is 0.25 MHz.
9. Parallel resonant frequency of quartz
crystal is given by:
a) 1/ √(LCₒC/(Cₒ+C))
b) 1/√LC
c) 1/√LCₒ
d) 1/ √(L(Cₒ+C) )
Answer: a
Explanation: Parallel resonant frequency of
an oscillator is given by√(LCₒC/(Cₒ+C)).

Here L and C are the inductance and
capacitance in the LCR arm of the equivalent
circuit of the crystal. Co is the capacitance
existing in parallel to this LCR arm.
10. The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal
has LCR arm capacitance of 12nF and
inductance of 3mH and parallel arm
capacitance of 4nF. Parallel resonant
frequency for the circuit is:
a) 3 MHz
b) 0.3 MHz
c) 6 MHz
d) 9 MHz
Answer: a
Explanation: The parallel resonant frequency
of a crystal oscillator is given by 1/
√(LCₒC/(Cₒ+C)). Substituting the given
values in the equation, the parallel resonant
frequency is found to be 3 MHz.
TOPIC 5.8 MICROWAVE
OSCILLATOR DESIGN
1. In microwave oscillators, negative
resistance transistors and diodes are used in
order to generate oscillations in the circuit.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In microwave oscillator, for a
current to flow in the circuit the negative
impedance of the device must be matched
with positive impedance. This results in
current being non-zero and generates
oscillation.
2. Any device with negative impedance as its
characteristic property can be called:
a) Energy source
b) Energy sink
c) Oscillator
d) None of the mentioned
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Answer: a
Explanation: A positive resistance implies
energy dissipation while a negative resistance
implies an energy source. The negative
resistance device used in the microwave
oscillator, thus acts as a source. The condition
Xin+ XL=0 controls the frequency of
oscillation. Xin is the impedance of the
negative resistance device.
3. In a microwave oscillator, a load of 50+50j
is connected across a negative resistance
device of impedance -50-50j. Steady state
oscillation is not achieved in the oscillator.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The condition for steady state
oscillation in a microwave oscillator is Zin=-
ZL. Since this condition is satisfied in the
above case, steady state oscillation is
achieved.
4. For achieving steady state oscillation, the
condition to be satisfied in terms of reflection
coefficients is:
a) Гin=ГL
b) Гin=-ГL
c) Гin=1/ГL
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The condition for steady state
oscillation to be achieved in terms of
reflection coefficient is Гin=1/ГL. Here Гin is
the reflection coefficient towards the
reflection coefficient device and ГL is the
reflection coefficient towards the load.
5. A one port oscillator uses a negative
resistance diode having Гin=0.9575+j0.8034
(Z0=50Ω) at its desired frequency point. Then
the input impedance of the diode is:
a) -44+j123
b) 50+j100

c) -44+j145
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The input impedance of the
diode given reflection coefficient and
characteristic impedance is Z0 (1+Гin)/ (1-
Гin). Substituting in the given equation, the
input impedance is -44 +j123 Ω.
6. If the input impedance of a diode used in
the microwave oscillator is 45-j23 Ω, then the
load impedance is to achieve stable
oscillation is:
a) 45-j23 Ω
b) -45+j23 Ω
c) 50 Ω
d) 23-j45 Ω
Answer: b
Explanation: The condition for stabilized
oscillation is Zin=-ZL. According to this
equation, the load impedance required for
stabilized oscillation is – (45-j23) Ω. The load
impedance is thus -45+j23 Ω.
7. To achieve stable oscillation, Zin + ZL=0 is
the only necessary and sufficient condition to
be satisfied by the microwave oscillator.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The condition Zin + ZL=0 is
only a necessary condition for stable
oscillation and not sufficient. Stability
requires that any perturbation in current or
frequency is damped out, allowing the
oscillator to return to its original state.
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8. In transistor oscillators, the requirement of
a negative resistance device is satisfied using
a varactor diode.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In a transistor oscillator, a
negative resistance one port network is
created by terminating a potentially unstable
transistor with impedance designed to drive
the device in an unstable region.
9. In transistor oscillators, FET and BJT are
used. Instability is achieved by:
a) Giving a negative feedback
b) Giving a positive feedback
c) Using a tank circuit
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Oscillators require a device that
has high instability. To achieve this condition,
transistors are used with a positive feedback
to increase instability.
10. In a transistor amplifier, if the input
impedance is -84-j1.9 Ω, then the terminating
impedance required to create enough
instability is:
a) -84-j1.9 Ω
b) 28+j1.9 Ω
c) – (28+j1.9) Ω
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Relation between terminating
impedance and input impedance is Zs=-Rin/3.
Zs is the terminating impedance. Substituting
in the given equation, the terminated
impedance is 28+j1.9 Ω.