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03/04/2016 CODE-A

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MM : 120 Crash & Test Series for Medical Time : 3 Hrs.

Test - 2 (GUJCET-2016)
Topics covered :
Phy. : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance: Capacitors and capacitance, combination of capacitors, energy stored
in capacitors, insertion of dielectric, Van-de-graaff generator; Current Electricity: - Electric current & current
density, Ohm’s law, relation between drift velocity, mobility and current, temperature dependence of resistivity,
super conductivity, emf and terminal voltage, secondary cells, Kirchhoff’s law & combination of resistors,
combination of cells, potentiometer, Wheatstone bridge, electric energy & power; Magnetic Effects of Electric
Current: Oersted’s experiment, biot-savart’s law, magnetic field due to straight and circular current carrying
conductor, Ampere’s circuital law, Solenoid, Toroid, Force on current carrying wire, force on an electric charge
moving in a magnetic field, cyclotron, Torque acting on a rectangular current carrying coil in magnetic field,
galvanometer, ammeter, voltmeter.
Chem.: Solution: Abnormal colligative properties, method of determining the molecular mass, abnormal molecular
mass and van’t Hoff factor, degree of dissociation; Electrochemistry: Electrochemical cells, types of cell, cell
potential, emf series, Nernst equation, Products of Electrolysis, resistivity, specific & molar conductance, ionic
mobality, Kohlrausch’s law, batteries, corrosion; Chemical Kinetics : Factors affecting rate of reaction, rate constant
and order of reaction, molecularity, integrated rate law, pseudo first order reaction, effect of temperature on rate
constant, theory of collision, activation energy; Surface chemistry: Adsorption isotherm, adsorption from solution,
catalysis, enzyme catalysis, colloids, preparation and purification colloids, , Tyndall effect, Electrophoresis,
coagulation, emulsions.
Bot. : Mineral Nutrition: Translocation of mineral solutes, Soil as reservoir of essential elements, Metabolism of
nitrogen– nitrogen cycle, biological nitrogen fixation; Photosynthesis: Photosynthetic pigments, Electron transport
system, Splitting of water molecules, Photophosphorylation (Cyclic and non-cyclic),Chemiosmotic Hypothesis,
Dark reaction–C3 & C4 pathway, Photorespiration, factors affecting photosynthesis, Glycolysis, fermentation, Aerobic
respiration– TCA, Electron transport system and oxidative phosphorylation, mechanism of chemiosmotic
generation of ATP, Respiratory balance sheet, Amphibolic pathway, Respiratory quotient. Organism and population:
Environment, Basic concept of ecology, Major abiotic factors, Response to abiotic factors, Adaptations, Population
(Density, Natality, Mortality, Age distribution, Population growth, Population equilibrium, population fluctuations).
Zoo. : Body Fluids and Circulation: Introduction; Blood - Blood plasma, Blood cells; ABO & Rh Blood groups: Blood
coagulation; Lymph; Circulatory pathways, Human circulatory system, Heart, Cardiac Cycle; ECG; Double
Circulation; Regulation of Cardiac Activity; Diseases - Hypertension, Atherosclerosis, Arteriosclerosis; Excretory
Products and their Elimination: Introduction; Human excretory system; Nephron- Structure, Function, Types;
Mechanism of urine formation, Counter Current Mechanism; Regulation of Kidney function; Micturition; Role of
other organs in excretion; Disorders - Uremia, Kidney failure, Renal calculi, Nephritis; Locomotion and Movement:
Introduction; Types of movement; Types of muscles; Structure of skeletal muscle and contractile proteins;
Mechanism of muscle contraction.

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 1 mark. One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for incorrect response of each
question.

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Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

PHYSICS

1. The energy of a charged capacitor is U. Another

identical capacitor is connected parallel to first 1
capacitor, after disconnecting the battery. The 2 C1
energy of each of the capacitors will be A
3 C2
3U
B
(1) (2) U 4 C3
2

U U 3ε0 A 2 ε0 A
(3) (4) (1) (2)
4 2 d 3 d

2. One parallel plate capacitor is charged. Which of 3 ε0 A ε0 A

the following options will be true, for the change (3) (4)
2 d d
in the charge, potential difference and
capacitance, when the distance between the two 7. A parallel plate capacitor is charged with a
plates is gradually increased? certain potential difference. A slab of 3 mm is
placed between its two plates. The distance
(1) Remains constant, decreases, decreases
between the plates is required to increase by
(2) Remains increases, decreases, decreases 2.4 mm to keep the same potential difference
(3) Remains constant, decreases, increases between the plates. Find dielectric constant of
the slab.
(4) Remains constant, increases, decreases
(1) 3 (2) 5
3. The ratio of maximum to minimum capacitance
that can be obtained by combination of 100 (3) 2.5 (4) 2.4
capacitors of 5 F is 8. 27 identical mercury drops are charged at 10 V
(1) 104 : 1 (2) 102 : 1 potential difference. What will be the electric
potential on the surface of the large drop formed
(3) 1 : 104 (4) 1 : 102
by their combination ?
1 (1) 45 V (2) 135 V
4. Write the dimensions of 0 E 2
2
(3) 270 V (4) 90 V
(1) M1L2T–1 (2) M1L2T–2 9. A wire in a circular shape has 10  resistance.
(3) M1L–1T–2 (4) M1L–2T–1 The resistance per one meter is 1 . The
resultant between A and B is equal to 2.4 ,
5. Find potential difference between points A and B
then the length of the chord AB will be equal to
shown in figure
B

(1) 2.4 (2) 4

(3) 4.8 (4) 6
10. Formula for current flowing through a wire is
(1) 0 V (2) 10 V I = 6t2 + 4t – 2. Here t is in second and I is in
ampere. In this wire what is quantity of electric
(3) 14 V (4) 16 V
charge passing in time interval 1 s. to 2 s?
6. Four identical plates having equal area A are
(1) 8 C (2) 18 C
connected as shown in figure. What is the
equivalent capacitance between points A & B ? (3) 20 C (4) 24 C

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Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

11. Value of a carbon resistor is (10 ± 20%) . 18. If two heaters of each power 1 kW, 250V are
Therefore, colour code on it is connected in parallel to a 250 V supply their
(1) Brown, black, black combined rate of heating will be
(2) Brown, black, brown (1) 2000 W (2) 1000 W
(3) Brown, brown, black (3) 5000 W (4) 250 W
(4) Black, brown, black 19. n identical bulbs, each designed to draw a power
12. A galvanometer of resistance 25  is shunted by P from a certain voltage supply, are joined in
2.5  wire. The part of total current that flows series across that supply. The power which they
through the galvanometer is given by will draw individually is
(1) nP (2) P
1 2
(1) (2)
11 11 P
P
(3) (4)
3 4 n n2
(3) (4)
11 11 20. Two electron beams moving parallel to each other
13. In an ammeter 0.5% of total current passes will
through galvanometer. If resistance of (1) Attract each other
galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will
be (2) Repel each other
(3) Not exert any force on each other
G G
(1) (2) (4) Get arranged perpendicularly to each other
200 194
(3) 119 G (4) 200 G 21. To obtain a radially uniform magnetic field in a
moving coil galvanometer
14. A wire is uniformly stretched to increase its
length by 100%. What will be the percentage (1) Number of turns in the coil is kept large
increase in its resistance ? (2) More current is passed through the coil
(1) 50% (2) 300% (3) Poles of magnet are kept cylindrical
(3) 200% (4) 100%
(4) The coil is wound around an aluminium frame
15. The deflection in moving-coil galvanometer falls
22. The lines of induction around an infinite straight
from 50 divisions to 10 divisions, when a shunt
of 12  is connected with it. The resistance of conductor carrying current are
galvanometer coil is (1) Parallel to conductor
(1) 6  (2) 48  (2) Concentric circle
(3) 24  (4) 12  (3) Perpendicular to the conductor
16. For the heating coil of an electric heater
(4) None of these
(1) Resistivity and melting point must be high
23. Which physical quantity is represented by the
(2) Resistivity must be high and melting point low ratio of magnetic dipole moment and angular
(3) Resistivity and melting point must be low momentum ?
(4) Resistivity must be low and melting point high (1) r2 (2) Force
17. What maximum power can be obtained from a (3) Gyro-magnetic ratio (4) Magnetic field
battery of emf  and internal resistance r
24. Unit of permeability of a vacuum is
connected with an external resistance R ?
[T = Tesla, m = meter, A = Ampere]
2 2
 
(1) (2) Am A
4r 3r (1) (2)
T T−m
2 2
(3) (4) T T−m
2r r (3) (4)
A −m A

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 examtimepdfs.blogspot.com
Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

25. In the following circuit, if the heat evolved in the 29. The drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor
10  resistor is 19 cal/s. The heat evolved in the Vd when the current i is flowing in it. If both the
4  resistor is approximately radius and current are doubled, the drift velocity
will be
Vd Vd
(1) (2)
8 4
Vd
(3) (4) Vd
2
30. The wires of same dimension but resistivities 1
and 2 are connected in series. The equivalent
resistivity of the combination is
(1) 4 (2) 5 1  2
(1) (2)   
(3) 10 (4) 20 2

26. As shown in the figure 20 A, 40 A and 60 A (3) 2(1 + 2) (4) 12
currents are passing through very long straight 31. If the specific resistance and area of cross-section
wires P, Q and R respectively in the directions of a potentiometer wire are  and A and I is
shown by the arrows. In this condition the current flowing through it, then potential gradient is
direction of the resultant force on wire Q is
I I
(1) (2)
A Aρ

IA
(3) (4) IA

20 A 40 A 60 A 32. The current i through a wire varies with
time t as shown. How many coulomb charge
flows through the wire in time interval
t1 = 0 to t2 = 3 second ?
i
(1) 13.5 C
P Q R i = 6t 2
(2) 27 C
(1) Towards left of wire Q
(2) Towards right of wire Q (3) 37.5 C
(3) Normal to the plane of paper
(4) 54 C t
(4) In the direction of current passing through Q
27. A long wire carries a steady current. When it is 33. A wire of length L is drawn such that its diameter
is reduced to half of its original diameter. If the
bent in a circular form, the magnetic field at its
initial resistance of the wire were 10 , its new
centre is B. Now if this wire is bent in a circular
resistance would be
loop of n turns, what is the magnetic field at its
(1) 40  (2) 80 
centre ?
(3) 120  (4) 160 
(1) nB (2) n2B
34. The value of drift speeds at cross-section (1) and
(3) 2nB (4) 2n2B (2) are V1 and V2 respectively in the conductor
 shown below in the shape of a truncated cone.
28. A charged particle is moving
 with velocity v in
a uniform magnetic field B . The magnetic force
acting on it will be maximum when
 
(1) v and B are in same direction
 
(2) v and B are in opposite direction
 
(3) v and B are mutually perpendicular
 
(4) v and B make an angle of 45° with each
other

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Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

Which of the following is correct ? (1) 2BiR (downward)

(1) V1 > V2 (2) 2BiR (upward)
(2) V1 < V2 (3) BiR (upward)
(3) V1 = V2 (4) Zero
(4) Any of these 38. Three long, straight and parallel wires carrying
current are arranged as shown in the figure. The
35. A conductor of length L carrying a current 2i is
placed in a magnetic field B. How much force will wire C which carries a current 5 A is so placed
act on the conductor, if it is placed parallel to that it experiences no force. The distance of wire
the direction of field ? C from wire D is then
(1) 9 cm D C B
iBL
(1)
2 (2) 7 cm
15 A 5 A 10 A
(2) 2iBL (3) 5 cm
(3) 2BL
(4) 3 cm 15 cm
(4) Zero
39. In the given figure, the loop is fixed but straight
36. A conducting loop carrying current I is placed in
wire can move. The straight wire will
a uniform magnetic field pointing into the plane
of the paper as shown. The loop will have a (1) Remain stationary
tendency to
(2) Move towards the loop
y
I1
(3) Move away from the loop
X B

(4) Rotate about the axis

x
I 40. Magnetic field at the centre O due to the given
structure is

I
(1) Contract
I R O
(2) Expand
R
(3) Move towards +ve x-axis
I
(4) Move towards –ve x-axis

37. A semicircular wire of radius R is connected to 0I ⎡ 31⎤

a wire bent in the form of a sine curve to form (1) ⎢  ⎥
4R ⎣ 2  ⎦
a closed as shown in the figure. If the loop
carries a current i and is placed in a uniform 0I ⎡ 1⎤
magnetic field B, then total force acting on the (2) ⎢3 ⎥
2R ⎣  ⎦
sine curve is [R is radius of semicircular part]
0I ⎡ 31⎤
(3) ⎢  ⎥
4R ⎣ 2  ⎦

0I ⎡ 1 ⎤
(4) 3 
4R ⎢⎣  ⎥⎦

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Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

CHEMISTRY
41. Which of the following solutions has highest 50. If a is the degree of dissociation of Na2SO4, the
osmotic pressure ? van’t Hoff factor (i) used for calculating the
molecular mass is
(1) 1 M NaCl (2) 1 M urea
(1) 1 + a (2) 1 – a
(3) 1 M sucrose (4) 1 M glucose
(3) 1 + 2a (4) 1 – 2a
42. Which of the following salt will have same value of
van't Hoff’s factor (i) as that of K4[Fe(CN)6 51. The function of the salt bridge is to
(1) Al2(SO4)3 (2) NaCl (1) Allow ions to move from anode to cathode
(3) Al(NO3)3 (4) Na2SO4 (2) Allow solutions from one half cell to the other
half cell
43. van't Hoff’s factor for 0.1 M ideal solution is
(3) Allow the current to flow through the cell and
(1) 0.1 (2) 1 keep the solutions electrically neutral
(3) 0.01 (4) > 1
(4) Keep the level of solutions same
44. Which of the following aqueous solutions has
52. Zinc is used to protect iron from corrosion because
highest boiling point ?
(1) Eoxi of zinc is less than Eoxi of iron
(1) 1% glucose (2) 1% scurose
(2) Ered of zinc is less than Ered of iron
(3) 1% NaCl (4) 1% CaCl2
(3) Zinc is cheaper than iron
45. The van't Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution is
2.74. The degree of dissociation is (4) Zinc is abundantly available
(1) 91.3% (2) 87% 53. The charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of
Cr2O72– ions to Cr3+ is
(3) 100% (4) 74%
(1) 96500 C (2) 2 × 96500 C
46. The depression in freezing point for 1 M urea, 1 M
glucose and 1 M NaCl is in the ratio (3) 6 × 96500 C (4) 4 × 96500 C
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 : 2 54. The ionic conductivity of the cation and anion of the
uni-univalent salt is 140 and 80 respectively. The
(3) 1 : 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 2 : 3
molar conductivity of the salt is
47. In 0.2 M aqueous solution of weak acid HX, the
(1) 160 –1 cm2 mol–1 (2) 280 –1 cm2 mol–1
degree of ionisation is 0.3. Taking Kf for water as
1.85 K kg mol–1, the freezing point of solution will (3) 60 –1 cm2 mol–1 (4) 220 –1 cm2 mol–1
be nearest to
55. Faraday’s laws of electrolysis are related to
(1) –0.480°C (2) –0.360°C
(1) Atomic number of the cation
(3) –0.260°C (4) 0.480°C
(2) Atomic number of the anion
48. 0.004 M solution of Na2SO4 is isotonic with 0.01
(3) Equivalent mass of the electrolyte
M solution of glucose at same temperature. The
apparent degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 is (4) Speed of the cation
(1) 50% (2) 25% 56. Mark the false statement among the following
(3) 75% (4) 85% (1) Nernst equation can be deduced on the basis
of principles of thermodynamics
49. Which one of the following aqueous solutions will
exhibit highest boiling point ? (2) G and EMF (E) are related as G = –nFE

(1) 0.01 M Na2SO4 (3) Nernst equation for single electrode potential is
RT
(2) 0.01 M KNO3 E  EÖ  log a n
nF M
(3) 0.015 M urea
(4) The efficiency of H2–O2 fuel cell is approx. 70%
(4) 0.015 M glucose

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Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

57. A gas X at 1 atm pressure is bubbled through a 63. If a graph is plotted between lnK and 1/T for the
solution containing a mixture of 1 M Y– and 1 MZ– first order reaction, the slope of the straight line so
at 25° C. If reduction potential of Z > Y > X, then obtained is given by

(1) Y will oxidise X and not Z Ea

Ea
(1) (2) 
(2) Y will oxidise Z and not X R 2.303 R
(3) Y will oxidise both Z and X
2.303 Ea
(4) Y will reduce both X and Z (3)  (4) 
EaR 2.303
58. The time required to remove electrolytically one
fourth of Ag from 0.2 L of 0.1 M AgNO3 solution by 64. For a first order reaction, A  products, if k is the
a current of 0.1 ampere is approximately rate constant then the half life period of the
reaction is equal to
(1) 320 minutes (2) 160 minutes
0.693 1 1
(3) 80 minutes (4) 40 minutes (1) k A (2) k A
[ ] [ ]
59. If 1F charge is passed through solutions of KCl,
CuSO4 and AlCl3 kept in three vessels using inert
electrodes. The ratio of moles of K, Cu and Al
1 [A ] ln 2
(3) k ln A (4)
deposited will be [ ]0 k

(1) 2 : 3 : 6 (2) 1 : 2 : 3 65. A first order reaction has a half life period of
34.65 seconds. Its rate constant is
(3) 6 : 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 1 : 1
(1) 6 × 10–2 s–1
60. Which of the following cannot evolve H2 gas from
dilute acid? (2) 4 × 10–2 s–1
(1) Pt (2) Na (3) 20 s–1

(3) Mg (4) Fe (4) 2 × 10–2 s–1

61. For a chemical reaction, x + 2y  z, if the rate 66. For the reaction, 2x + y  z, the following
of appearance of z is 0.50 moles per litre per hour, kinetic data was obtained
then the rate of diappearance of y is
d [ z]
(1) 0.5 mol L–1 hr–1 (2) 1 mol L–1 hr–1 [x] [y]
dt
(3) 0.25 mol L–1 hr–1 (4) Can’t be predicted
(mol L–1) (mol L–1) (mol L–1 s–1)
62. For the reaction,
4.0 1.0 1.0
NO2(g) + CO(g)  NO(g) + CO2(g),
4.0 4.0 2.0
the correct expression for the rate of the reaction 1.0 4.0 1.0
is
The rate expression is
d NO2  (1) k[x][y]½
(1) Rate 
dt
(2) k[x]2[y]
(3) k[x]½[y]½
d  CO2 
(2) Rate  (4) k[x]½[y]
dt
67. For a certain first order reaction, X  Y + Z, the
d NO2   d  CO value of t½ is 10 minutes. The concentration of X
(3) Rate  is reduced to 10% of the original concentration in
dt
(1) 10 min (2) 90 min
d  CO (3) 33 min (4) 70 min
(4) Rate 
dt

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 examtimepdfs.blogspot.com
Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

68. The rate constant of a first order reaction, whose 74. The Tyndall effect associated with colloidal particles
half-life is 480 seconds, is is due to
(1) 2.88 × 10–3 s–1 (1) Presence of electrical charge
(2) 1.44 × 10–3 s–1 (2) Scattering of light
(3) 1.44 s–1 (3) Absorption of light
(4) 0.72 × 10–3 s–1 (4) Reflection of light
69. The rate law of a reaction between the substances 75. Which one of the following is not applicable to
A and B is given by rate = k[A]n [B]m. On doubling chemisorption ?
the concentration of A and halving the conc. of B,
(1) Its heat of adsorption is high
the ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of
reaction will be (2) It takes place at high temperature
(3) It is reversible
1
(1) (4) It forms mono-molecular layers
2m+n

(2) m + n 76. In the colloidal state the particle size ranges

(3) n – m (1) Below 1 nm

(4) 2(n – m) (2) Between 1 nm to 100 nm

(3) More than 100 nm
dA  4 1 1
70. A + 2B  C + D. If   5  10 mol L s , (4) Between 1 mm to 100 mm
dt
77. All colloids
d B 
then  is (1) Are suspensions of one phase in another
dt
(2) Are two phase systems
(1) 2.5 × 10–4 mol l–1 s–1
(3) Contain only water-soluble particles
(2) 5.0 × 10–4 mol l–1 s–1
(4) Are true solutions
(3) 2.5 × 10–3 mol l–1 s–1
78. Milk is an example of
(4) 1.0 × 10–3 mol l–1 s–1
(1) Emulsion
71. An emulsion is a colloidal system of
(2) Suspension
(1) Two solids
(3) Foam
(2) Two liquids
(4) Solution
(3) One gas and one solid
(4) One gas and one liquid 79. The electrical charge on a colloidal particle is
indicated by
72. Which of the following is a lyophobic colloid ?
(1) Brownian movement
(1) Gelatin
(2) Electrophoresis
(2) Sulphur
(3) Ultramicroscope
(3) Starch
(4) Molecular sieves
(4) Gum arabic
80. As2S3 solution is
73. The nature of bonding forces in adsorption is
(1) Positive colloid
(1) Purely physical such as van der Waal’s forces
(2) Negative colloid
(2) Purely chemical
(3) Neutral colloid
(3) Both chemical and physical
(4) None of these
(4) Neither physical nor chemical

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Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

BIOLOGY

81. Which of the following is non symbiotic aerobic (1) One (2) Two
bacteria?
(3) Three (4) Four
(1) Rizobium (2) Azotobacter
88. Which of the following is incorrect match?
(3) Clostridium (4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) Chlorophyll - a – Green pigment
82. What is true about ammonification?
(1) Organic matter is converted into inorganic matter (2) Chlorophyll - b – Green pigment

(2) Nitrogenous wastes converted into ammonia by (3) Xanthophyll – Yellow pigment
autotrophic bacteria, fungi and other
(4) Carotenoids – Yellow to red pigment
decomposers
(3) It is one way reaction 89. The following chemical reaction reveals O 2
production into atmosphere form H2O.
(4) Both (1) & (3)
Light
83. Which of the following is not related with 6CO2  12H2 O  C6H12O6  6H2 O  6O2
nitrification?
(1) NItrosomonas (2) Nitrobacter The above biochemical reaction was given by

(3) Anabena (4) Both (2) & (3) (1) Neil

84. How many of the following belong to macronutrient? (2) Von Sach
C, H, O, N, P, Ni, S, Mo, Co, Cu, Mg (3) Robert Hill
(1) Five (2) Six (4) Ingenhousz
(3) Four (4) Seven
90. Select one of the correct options for A, B and C in
85. How many of the following are directly related with the given figure
symbiotic nitrogen fixation ?

nif gene, Rhizobium, Clostridium, Azotobacter,

nitrogenase, N  N, leghaemoglobin, transaminase

(1) Six (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Five
86. Nitrification is (a) process in which _ (b) is
increases.
(1) a - Oxidation, b - Oxygen
(2) a - Reduction, b - Nitrogen
(3) a - Oxidation b - Nitrogen
(4) a - Reduction b - Oxygen
A B C
87. “CO2 is required for photosynthesis to occur.”
How many of the following statement justify above Thylakoi d
(1) Stroma AD P
membrane
statement?
(i) Half leaf experiment (2) Stroma Granum H+

(ii) Half leaf part in air absorbs CO2 Thylakoi d

(3) Stroma ATP
membrane
(iii) Exposed part of leaf gave positive test for
starch Thylakoi d
(4) AD P ATP
membrane
(iv) In presence of bright sunlight, small bubbles of
CO2 are released around green parts

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Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

91. During photorespiration A of carbon lost due to

oxygenation of RUBP is recovered and B is A B C
wasted as one molecule of CO2.
(1) 2ATP+H2O 2Ethanol+2CO2 2Lactic acid
Identify A and B in above statement
(2) Energy Alcohol A ci d
(1) A - 65% B - 35%
(2) A - 75% B - 15% (3) H2O Alcohol PEP

(3) A - 75% B - 25% (4) 2ATP+H2O 2Lactic acid 2CO2

(4) A - 55% B - 45%
95. How many ATP(s) will be produced from one
92. How many ATP(s) and NADPH will be required for molecule of glucose through oxidative
synthesis of one molecule of sucrose during Calvin phosphorylation during Kreb’s cycle ?
cycle ?
(1) 28 (2) 30
(1) 36 ATP, 36 NADPH
(3) 38 (4) 8
(2) 18 ATP, 12 NADPH
96. A(O51H98O6) + BO2  102CO2 + C + Energy
(3) 36 ATP, 12 NADPH
Identify A, B and C in the given above equation.
(4) 36 ATP, 24 NADPH
(1) A –2 (2) A – 2
93. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram
B – 145 B – 145
C - 8H2O C – 98H2O
(3) A –2 (4) A – 5
B – 102 B – 145
A
C – 145O2 C – 102H2O
97. Read the following statements carefully
B A : Bacteria, fungi and algae are examples of
microflora.
B : Protozoans, nematodes and mites are
examples of microfauna.
C
C : Nematodes and spider are examples of
A B C mesofauna.
D : Earthworm, snake and moles are examples of
(1) PGAL PGAL Starch macrofauna.
(2) Carboxylation Regeneration Sucrose How many of above are correct statements ?

(3) Reduction Carboxylation Sucrose (1) Four (2) Three

(3) Two (4) One
(4) Carboxylation Reduction Sucrose
98. Observe the following diagram.
94. Select one of the correct options for X, Y and Z in
the given following diagram

Select one of the correct option for the above

diagram.
(1) Population (2) Microfauna
(3) Community (4) Predation
C B

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Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

99. Observe the following figure : 105. Mention the name of A and B in the given figure

Select one of the correct options for the above

figure.
(1) Parasitism (2) Predation (1) Arch of aorta, Left coronary artery
(3) Competition (4) Mutatlism (2) Anterior vena cava, Right ventricle
100. Which of the following is climax community (w.r.t. (3) Pulmonary artery, Right coronary artery
Hydroseric succession) ?
(4) Left pulmonary artery, Left coronary artery
(1) Phytoplankton (2) Rooted submerged
106. What happens by the infection of bacteria ?
(3) Sedge medow (4) Forest stage
(1) Uremia (2) Diabetes
101. What is the number of erythrocytes in 1 mm3 ? (3) Nephritis (4) Stone in kidney
(1) 4000 to 11000 (2) 250000 to 500000 107. Make right pairs from the column I and column II
(3) 100 to 700 million (4) 4 to 6 million on the bases of urine formation.

102. Full form of PTA is Column-I Column-II

(1) Plasma thromboplastin antigen a. Filtration (i) Process occurred in

(2) Proconvertin antigen
(3) Plasma thromboplastin antecedent
(4) Proconvertin thromboplastin antigen
103. The last phase of cardiac cycle is
(1) Systole of all chambers of heart
(2) Diastole of all chambers of heart
(3) Atrial systole
(4) Ventricular systole
104. Make correct pairs
Column-I
convoluted tubules
b. Re-absorption (ii) Process occurred in
Malpighian body
c. Secretion (iii) Process occurred in
proximal convoluted
tubules
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
108. What A, B & C indicate respectively in given
Column-II figure?

a. AHG (i) XI
b. Stuart factor (ii) VII
c. Proconvertin (iii) VIII
d. PTA (iv) X
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

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Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

(1) Glomerules, proximal convoluted, distal
convoluted tubule
(2) Proximal convoluted, henle loop, vasa recta
(3) Bowman’s capsule, afferent arteriole, efferent
arteriole
(4) Vasa recta, collecting duct, distal convoluted
109. In which muscle amount of myoglobin is high?
(1) Red muscle
(2) White muscle
(3) Non-striated muscle
(4) Both 1 & 2
110. What B indicates in the given figure ?
(3) S.A. node  A.V. node  Bundle of His 
Purkinje fibres  Heart muscles
(4) A.V. node  Bundle of His  S.A. node 
Purkinje fibres  Heart muscles
114. What is the correct order of events occur during
blood clotting ?
i. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
ii. Formation of clot
iii. Thromboplastin formation
iv. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
(1) iii, ii, i and iv (2) iii, iv, i and ii
(3) iii, iv, ii and i (4) iv, i, iii and ii
115. Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure

(1) Troponin (2) Tropomyosin

(3) Actin (4) Myosin
Assertion reason Type (111 & 112)
A. Both A and R are true and R is correct
expalanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
111. A : The wall of left ventricle is more muscular than
that of right ventricle
A B C D
R : The process of cardiac activity of heart is
regulated by special nodal tissue. Pulmonary
(1) Aorta Lungs Vena cava
artery
(1) A (2) B
Pulmonary
(3) C (4) D (2) Vena cava Lungs Aorta
artery
112. A : Bowman’s capsule and Glomerulus are
collectively called Malpighian body. Pulmonary
(3) Vena cava Lungs Aorta
vein
B : Average 1100 to 1200 ml blood filter through
kidney every minute Pulmonary
(4) Aorta Lungs Vena cava
artery
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
116. Which of the following pairs is wrong ?
113. The correct route through which impulse travels in
the heart is (1) Uricotelic – Birds
(1) S.A. node  Purkinje fibres  Bundle of His (2) Ureotelic – Insects
 A.V. node  Heart muscles (3) Ammonotelic – Tadpole
(2) A.V. node  S.A. node  Purkinje fibres  (4) Ureotelic – Elephant
Bundle of His  Heart muscles

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Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

117. ATPase of the muscle is located in Assertion Reason Type (119-120)

(1) Actinin (2) Troponin A. Both A and R are true and R is correct
explanation of A
(3) Myosin (4) Actin
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
118. Match the column and find out the correct answer
explanation of A
Column-I Column-I C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false by R is true
a. Area of only thick filaments (i) A-band
119. A : Fibrins are formed by the conversion of inactive
b. Separates the sarcomers from fibrinogens in the plasma by the enzyme thrombin.
(ii) I-band
each other
R : Plasma without fibrinogen and blood corpuscles
c. Middle area in the sarcomere is called serum.
where thick and thin filaments are (iii) H-zone (1) A (2) B
found
(3) C (4) D
d. Area in the sarcomere where
(iv) Z-disc 120. A : Contraction of muscle fibre takes place by the
only thin filaments are present
sliding of the thin filaments over the thick filaments.
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) B : The central part of thick filament is not
overlapped by thin filaments in a resting stage.
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) A (2) B
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) C (4) D
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

  

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Crash & Test Series for Medical GUJCET-2016 _Test 02

03/04/2016 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 120 Time : 3 Hrs.

Crash & Test Series for Medical
Test - 2 (GUJCET-2016)
ANSWERS

1. (3) 31. (1) 61. (2) 91. (3)

2. (4) 32. (4) 62. (1) 92. (4)
3. (1) 33. (4) 63. (1) 93. (4)
4. (3) 34. (1) 64. (4) 94. (1)
5. (4) 35. (4) 65. (4) 95. (1)
6. (3) 36. (2) 66. (3) 96. (2)
7. (2) 37. (2) 67. (3) 97. (1)
8. (4) 38. (1) 68. (2) 98. (1)
9. (2) 39. (2) 69. (4) 99. (2)
10. (2) 40. (3) 70. (4) 100. (4)
11. (1) 41. (1) 71. (2) 101. (4)
12. (1) 42. (1) 72. (2) 102. (3)
13. (1) 43. (2) 73. (3) 103. (2)
14. (2) 44. (4) 74. (2) 104. (3)
15. (2) 45. (2) 75. (3) 105. (1)
16. (1) 46. (3) 76. (2) 106. (3)
17. (1) 47. (1) 77. (2) 107. (1)
18. (1) 48. (3) 78. (1) 108. (1)
19. (4) 49. (1) 79. (2) 109. (1)
20. (2) 50. (3) 80. (2) 110. (1)
21. (3) 51. (3) 81. (2) 111. (2)
22. (2) 52. (2) 82. (4) 112. (2)
23. (3) 53. (3) 83. (3) 113. (3)
24. (4) 54. (4) 84. (4) 114. (2)
25. (3) 55. (3) 85. (4) 115. (3)
26. (1) 56. (3) 86. (3) 116. (2)
27. (2) 57. (1) 87. (2) 117. (3)
28. (3) 58. (3) 88. (4) 118. (3)
29. (3) 59. (3) 89. (3) 119. (2)
30. (1) 60. (1) 90. (3) 120. (2)

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