SCIENCE 10

THIRD QUARTER SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT

1. Hormones affect various processes in the body as they regulate the activities of
organs, tissues, and cells. Which of the following statements is true about female
hormones? They _____.
A. act in very small amounts but results to great deal of change in the body
B. lead to growth of facial hair and development of Adam’s apple
C. may cause pain and headaches
D. trigger the development and release of ovum

2. Physiological processes are commonly moderated via two distinct feedback

mechanisms –positive and negative feedback. Which of the pairs of events and
feedback regulation is incorrect?
A. Childbirth: positive feedback.
B. Lactation: positive feedback.
C. Menstruation: negative feedback.
D. Ovulation: negative feedback.

3. During the first half of the cycle, which feedback mechanism keeps levels of FSH,
LH, estrogen, and progesterone relatively stable?
A. combined B. negative
C. neutral D. positive

4. Menstruation is a monthly occurrence. When will there be menstruation?

A. when the egg is not fertilized by a sperm
B. when the egg is released from the ovary
C. when the egg meets the sperm
D. when the egg reaches the uterus.

5. In the female human reproductive system, fertilization normally occurs in the _____.
A. cervix B. fallopian tube
C. uterus D. vagina

6. Which refers to the “period” which occurs in females if no fertilization takes place?
A. Puberty B. Menopause
C. Menstruation D. Ovulation
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7. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the function of the endocrine system?
A. controls sexual reproduction
B. collect sensory input from the body
C. maintain homeostasis
D. regulate growth

8.What gland is involved if a person’s blood sugar level becomes unstable?

A. adrenal B. pancreas
 C. parathyroid D. ovary

9.The nervous system uses electrical impulses to send messages through neurons
while ___________ uses hormones to send messages to the target cells through the
bloodstream.
A. circulatory system B. endocrine system
C. nervous system D. reproductive system

10.What is the purpose of the thyroid gland?

A. It releases insulin and glucagon to regulate sugar level.
B. It releases thyroxin and insulin to stimulate growth.
C. It releases thyroxin and calcitonin.
D. It releases adrenaline to prepare the body for action.

11.What is osteoporosis?
A. It is a condition characterized by imbalanced blood sugar.
B. A disorder characterized by apparent lack of aging.
C. A disorder characterized by impaired growth.
D. A disorder in which bones become fragile and breakable.

12.What do you call a rare condition that causes abnormal growth in children due to
the decrease in the production and secretion of growth hormones?
A. diabetes B. dwarfism
C. gigantism D. goiter

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13. You felt hungry because you haven’t eaten your food for lunch trying to finish
home works. Which of the following is the best response to the given stimulus?
A. Continue work. B. Eat.
C. Ignore the situation. D. Shout out loud.

14. Instructions from the brain to the target organs is carried by _________.
A. receptors B. nerves
C. sense organs D. hormones

15. It refers to the state reached when each part of the body functions in equilibrium
with other parts.
A. feedback B. homeostasis
C. impulse D. unstable

16. Which nervous system controls the internal organs?

A. autonomic B. central
C. peripheral D. somatic

17. The hypothalamus connects the two systems, ___________ and ____________.
A. cardiovascular, urinary
B. circulatory, nervous
C. nervous, endocrine
D. nervous, respiratory
18. What part of a neuron carries the impulse toward the cell body?
A. axon B. cell body
C. dendrite D. nucleus
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19. During the process of transcription, which of the following is produced?
A. ATP B. DNA C. H2O D. mRNA

20. If the DNA template reads “ATA”, which of the following would be the
corresponding mRNA codon?
A. ATA B. TUT C. UAU D. UCU

21. The genetic code is based upon the reading of how many bases at a time?
A. one B. two C. three D. four

22. How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12

23. Which of the following is a similarity between DNA and messenger RNA molecules?
They both contain
A. uracil
B. double-stranded polymers
C. phosphates
D. the same sugar

24. Events that take place during the synthesis of a specific protein are listed below.
A. Messenger RNA attaches to a ribosome.
B. DNA serves as a template for the production of RNA.
C. Transfer RNA bonds to a specific codon.
D. Amino acids are bonded together.
E. RNA exits from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.

The correct order of these events is

A. B E A C D
B. D A E C B
C. B C E D A
D. C B A E D

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25. A frame shift mutation is a genetic mutation that is caused by the insertion or
deletion of a specific number of nucleotides that shifts the reading frame of the
sequence.The insertion or deletion of how many nucleotides would cause a frame shift
mutation?
A.2 B.3 C.6 D.9

26. How do mutations lead to genetic variation?

A.by changing the organism's appearance
B.by changing the way that the organism reproduces
C.by changing the organism's behavior
D.by producing random changes in an organism's genetic code
27. A piece of each chromosome has broken off and been reattached to the other
chromosome, resulting in an exchange.The process that occurs when a section of a
chromosome breaks off and reattaches to another chromosome is known as_______.
A. deletion B. inversion
C. nondisjunction D. translocation

28. What do you call the genetic mutation that causes a codon that should code for a
specific amino acid to be changed into a stop codon ?
A. a chromosomal mutation. B. Codon mutation
C. a frame shift mutation. D. Anti-Codon mutation

29. What type of mutation is being shown below: Normal: ABCDEFGH Mutated gene:
ABCBCDEFGH
A. an insertion B. an inversion
C. a deletion D. a duplication

30. What type of mutation is being shown below: Normal gene: ABCDEFGH Mutated
gene: ABCDCEFGH
A. an insertion B. an inversion
C. a deletion D. a duplication
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31. Which of the following statements does NOT describe Darwin's theory of natural
selection?
A. Members of a population will compete.
B. Populations tend to reproduce in small numbers.
C. Members of a population have heritable variations.
D. Some members of a population have adaptive traits.

32. Which of the following describes indirect pieces of evidence for evolution?
A. It is observed or seen
B. It involves actual observations
C. It is something that does not involve actual observation of evolution but for
which we can infer that change has taken place
D. None of the above.

33. The strongest evidence of evolution from a common ancestor is ________

A. similar embryological structures.
B. similar DNA sequences.
C. similar body structures.
D. similar fossils.

34. What does it mean by direct evidence for evolution?

A. It consists of observations of actual evolution
B. It does not involve direct observation of the evolution
C. It is something that is not observed or seen
D. None of the above.

35. Which of the statements best describes the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Acquired characteristics of parents can be passed on to offspring.
B. Organisms develop desirable structures to survive in a given environment.
 C. Organs that are not used may disappear, while organs that are constantly
utilized may develop.
D. In nature, the organisms with desirable characteristics may survive, while
those with weaker traits may not.

36. Which idea best describes the theory of evolution?

A. Earth is relatively young.
B. Each organism is specially created
C. Species are related by common descent.
D. A mix of fossils in a region indicates that a local catastrophe occurred.
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37. The following are some of the environmental problems that can be found in a
community, EXCEPT?
A. burning of plastics
B. converting lands to commercial buildings
C. throwing garbage everywhere
D. using bamboo straws instead of plastic straws

38. This a fishing method used to drive out fishes by pounding the corals with a heavy
weight, or simply by breaking the corals.
A. dynamite fishing
B. illegal logging
C. Kaingin system
D. muro-ami

39. What is the main cause of habitat destruction in animals?

A. animals reproducing too quickly
B. dynamite fishing
C. earthquakes and volcanic eruptions
D. illegal cutting of trees

40. Which of the following is an action that you could take to help protect and
conserve biodiversity in the environment?
A. Consume more electricity at home.
B. Buy plastic bags instead of paper bags.
C. Make use of vehicles even at short distances.
D. Plant more trees.

41. How should coral reef ecosystem be used to conserve its resources?
A. Collect coral fishes and sell them to pet shops.
B. Collect corals as souvenir items for tourists.
C. Convert the reef to an industrial area.
D. Promote it as an ecotourism destination.

42. What would happen to the number of coconut trees if there were a sudden
increase in the population of Cocolisap, insects that feed on the leaves of young
coconut trees that results to yellowing and fading of the leaves?
A. There would be a decrease in the survival rate of coconut trees.
B. There would be an increase in the population of Cocolisap.
C. There would be an increase in the survival rate of coconut trees.
 D. There would be no changes in the survival rate of coconut trees.

43. Why is it better for an ecosystem to have high biodiversity rather than low
biodiversity?
A. Ecosystem with high biodiversity is more unstable towards environmental
changes.
B. Ecosystem with high biodiversity can withstand environmental changes.
C. Ecosystem with low biodiversity is more stable than ecosystem with high
biodiversity.
D. Ecosystem with low biodiversity adapts better to climate-driven
environmental changes than more diverse ecosystem.
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44. As the population size increases, what will happen to the demand for resources in
a community?
A. decreases B. increases
C. remains the same D. unpredictable

45. The Philippines is tagged as a global center for marine biodiversity, which the
country struggles to protect against illegal activities like dynamite fishing. Which of
the following is the result of dynamite fishing?
A. coral mining
B. constructs fragile coral colonies
C. source of livelihood
D. destruction of coral reefs

46. Which limiting factor is independent of the number of individuals in a given

population?
A. competition
B. natural disasters
C. parasitism
D. stress

47. COVID -19 may spread more rapidly in crowded areas. What type of limiting factor
is presented by this?
A. density-dependent
B. density-independent
C. population crasher
D. population enhancer

48. The Philippine Eagle is an endemic bird in Davao which faces endangerment
brought by human activities. Which activity is NOT included in the list of results of
human activities?
A. habitat destruction B. habitat degradation
C. volcanic eruption D. forest fire

49. A pest destroying corn (Zea mays) infested Barangay Masagana last May. It strikes
and harms hundreds of corn plants. What would happen to the corn borer population
in the field?
A. The corn borer population would infinitely increase.
B. The corn borer population would decrease.
 C. The corn borer population would stay the same.
D. The corn borer population would be stable.

50. Above 1 million marine animals (comprising mammals, fish, sharks, turtles, and
birds) are killed each year due to plastic waste in the ocean. Why is plastic dangerous
for marine life?
A. It makes them grow faster.
B. It makes reproduction easier.
C. They mistake it for food and cannot digest it.
D. It’s not dangerous because they use plastic waste for habitats.