NMDCAT-2022

PMC TOPIC WISE TEST (T-10)

Name----------------------------------------- Total Marks: 100/ Time: 1.30hrs Date: 07-09-2022

BIOLOGY
TOPICS: VARIATION AND GENETICS, EVOLUTION
Q. 1 Which of the following do not follow Mendel’s law of independent assortment?
A) Alleles C) Multiple alleles
B) Linked genes D) Non-linked genes
Q. 2 The actual purpose of test cross is to know the:
A) Genotype of dominant phenotypic trait
B) Genotype of recessive phenotypic trait
C) Phenotype of any individual
D) Genotype of any individual
Q. 3 If there is cross between round and yellow with wrinkled and green, the F2 gives_____ wrinkled
green:
A) 9/16 C) 3/16
B) 1/16 D) 2/16
Q. 4 When two or more genes interact in a way that their effect is additive expression, it is:
A) Dominance relation C) Epistasis
B) Polygenic inheritance D) Pleiotropy
Q. 5 The phenomenon responsible for variations:
A) Mitosis C) Gene linkage
B) Cloning D) Crossing over
Q. 6 Red and green opsins are absent in the retina of:
A) Moncohromat person C) Dichromat person
B) Trichromat person D) Normal person
c c
Q. 7 A female is colorblind with genotypeX X . What could be the genetic combination of her parents for
her colorblindness?
A) XCXC, XCY C) XcXc, XcY
B) XCXC, XcY D) XCXc, XCY
Q. 8 DNA stores all sorts of biological information which are contained in:
A) Gene C) Karyotype
B) Phenotype D) Cell
Q. 9 Genes/alleles for eye color in an individual make his/her:
A) Phenotype C) Karyotype
B) Genotype D) Inheritance
Q. 10 A gene pool is collection of all _____ of a breeding population:
A) Chromosomes C) DNA
B) Alleles D) Chromatin
Q. 11 Species in their present form were not specially created. It was first time suggested by:
A) Lamarck C) C. Linnaeus
B) Darwin D) Malthus
Q. 12 Which of the following has undergone less evolutionary changes as compared to others?
A) Archaeobacteria C) Green algae
B) Galapagos finches D) Cyanobacteria
Q. 13 The first photosynthetic organism appeared in evolutionary history of earth:
A) Algae C) Seedless plants
B) Bacteria D) Lichens
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Q. 14 Archaeobacteria live in ponds having temperature extremes upto:
A) 1000C C) 1200C
B) 1100C D) 1400C
Q. 15 If two alleles for a gene are ‘A’ and ‘a’. Determine the gene frequency of heterozygous individuals,
if the % frequency of ‘A’ is 60%:
A) 0.30 C) 0.40
B) 40% D) 30%
Q. 16 In his famous voyage to Galapagos island, Darwin studied:
A) 10 types of reptiles C) 13 types of finches
B) 16 types of fossils D) 20 types of life forms
Q. 17 Formation of which organelle cannot be explained by membrane invagination hypothesis?
A) Flagella C) Nucleus
B) Chloroplast D) Mitochondria
Q. 18 The point of Lamarckism which is not accepted by modern evolutionist:
A) Use of organs develops them C) Disuse of organs degenerates them
B) Acquired traits can be inherited D) All accepted as correct
Q. 19 Neo Darwinism is based on ideas from all except:
A) Taxonomy C) Biogeography
B) Paleontology D) Toxicology
Q. 20 Which of the following theory/hypothesis explains origin of life on earth?
A) Darwinism C) Hydrothermal vent hypothesis
B) Lamarckism D) Endosymbiont hypothesis
Q. 21 All of the following statements are incorrect except:
A) Earliest life forms on earth were lichens and fungi
B) Multicellularity appeared due to eukaryotic cells
C) All life forms were specially created in present form
D) Early life forms originated in deserts
Q. 22 Lamarck presented a mechanism to explain how specific______ evolve:
A) Species C) Adaptation
B) Organism D) Population
Q. 23 The work of Darwin on origin of species is mainly based on:
A) Taxonomy C) Comparative anatomy
B) Biogeography D) Population genetics
Q. 24 Wings of parrot and butterfly are examples of:
A) Divergent evolution C) Convergent evolution
B) Line evolution D) Web evolution
Q. 25 In a small population, the change in frequency of allele that occurs by chance is:
A) Gene pool C) Genetic drift
B) Mutation D) Natural selection
Q. 26 If two alleles for a gene are ‘B’ and ‘b’. Determine the frequency of heterozygous individuals, if the
allelic frequency of ‘B’ is 0.7:
A) 0.32 C) 0.3
B) 0.42 D) 0.49
Q. 27 Regarding Hardy-Weinberg law, all of the following affect allele frequency except:
A) Random mating C) Genetic drift
B) Mutation D) Selection
Q. 28 Product of evolution is/are:
A) Individuals C) Community
B) Species D) Biomes
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Q. 29 Inbreeding in a population usually results in:
A) Decreased number of homozygotes C) Decreased number of heterozygotes
B) Decrease in number of individuals D) Decrease in chromosome number
Q. 30 Evolutionary relationships among species are reflected in their:
A) Behaviors C) Genes & gene products
B) Differences of DNA D) Mutations

CHEMISTRY
TOPICS: ELECTROCHEMISTRY
Q. 31 Oxidation state of “P” in phosphonium ion (PH 4+) is----------------
A) +3 C) –3
B) +5 D) –4
Q. 32 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A) Oxidation always takes place at anode
B) The standard reduction potentials are always taken as negative
C) Oxidation potential and reduction potential of an electrode are equal in magnitude
D) Anode contain –ve charge in galvanic cell
Q. 33 Consider the following redox reaction:
2MnO4- + 3ClO3- + H2O   3ClO4- + 2MnO2 + 2OH-
Which one is correct statement?
A) Mn is reduced C) Mn is oxidized
B) Cl is reduced D) Water is oxidized
Q. 34 Eoof Fe+2 / Fe is – 0.44 V; Eo of Cu+2 / Cu is + 0.34 V. Then in the cell-------------
A) Cu oxidizes Fe2 ion C) Cu reduces Fe2 ion
B) Cu2+oxidizes Fe D) Cu2+ ion reduces Fe
Q. 35 Four alkali metals A, B, C and D are having respectively standard electrode potentials as –3.05V, – 1.66V,
– 0.40V and –0.80V, Which one will be the weak reducing agent?
A) A C) C
B) B D) D
Q. 36 Which one of the following reactions takes place at the anode when an aqueous solution of CuSO4 is
electrolyzed by using both copper electrodes?
A) 2SO24 + 2H2O   2H2SO4 + O2 + 4e C) Cu   Cu 2+ + 2e 
B) SO24 
 SO2 + O2 + 2e  O2 + 4H + + 4e 
D) 2H 2 O 
Q. 37 Which element exhibit maximum oxidation number?
A) N C) S
B) Cr D) Mn
Q. 38 Which of the following is true in the case of Zn-Cu cell?
A) The flow of electrons takes place from copper to zinc
B) E red of copper electrode is less than that of zinc electrode
C) Zinc acts as an anode and copper as cathode
D) All are correct
Q. 39 Molten NaCl conducts electricity due to the presence of---------------
A) Free electrons C) Free ions
B) Free molecules D) Atoms of Na and Cl
Q. 40 Electricity in voltaic cell is produced due to--------------
A) Neutralization reaction C) Reduction reaction
B) Oxidation reaction D) Redox reaction
Q. 41 Salt bridge transfers-------------
A) Electrons C) Current
B) Anion D) Ions
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Q. 42 Temperature for the measurement of standard electrode potential is----------------
A) 298K C) 0℃
B) 300K D) 310K
Q. 43 Consider the following redox reaction:
2MnO4- + 3ClO3- + H2O 
 3ClO4- + 2MnO2 + 2OH-
The reducing agent is
A) H2O C) MnO2
1
B) ClO 3 D) MnO4-
Q. 44 In which of the following sulphur shows +4 oxidation state -----------
A) H2S C) Na2S2O3
B) H2SO3 D) H2SO4
Q. 45 Rusting of iron occurs due to---------------
A) Reduction C) Oxidation
B) Hydrogenation D) Sublimation

Q. 46 Electrode potential data are given below:

Feaq3  + e 
 Feaq2  ; E o = +0.77V

Alaq3  + 3e  
 Al s  ; E o = 1.66V

Br2 + 2e  
 2Braq  ; E o = +1.08V

Based on the data, the reducing power of Fe 2+ , Al and Br will increase in the order
A) Br  < Fe2+ < Al C) Al < Br  < Fe 2+
B) Fe2+ < Al < Br  D) Al < Fe 2+ < Br 
Q. 47 Standard hydrogen electrode has the standard reduction potential----------
A) Unity C) Positive
B) Zero D) Negative
Q. 48 All of the following statements are true about oxidation except----------------
A) It is zero in free state C) It may be negative
B) It is always equal to valency D) It may be in fraction
Q. 49 Conduction due to free ions is called-------------------
A) Electrolytic conduction C) Electronic conduction
B) Metallic conduction D) There is no conduction due to free ions
Q. 50 Oxidizing agent in the following reaction is;
–
2MnO4- + 3ClO3- + H2O   3ClO4 + 2MnO2 + 2OH
-
-
A) MnO4 C) H2O
B) ClO3- D) MnO2
Q. 51 When dilute Na2SO4 aqueous solution is used as an electrolyte in electrolytic cell the anode
product is;
A) Na(s) C) SO2(g)
B) H2(g) D) O2(g)
Q. 52 During refining of copper, impure copper is taken at --------------
A) Anode C) Electrolyte
B) Cathode D) Both A and B
Q. 53 Aluminum can displace _________ ion from its aqueous solution.
A) Na+ C) Li+
+
B) Ag D) Ca2+
Q. 54 All are correct about metallic conduction except----------------
A) Involve free electrons C) It is a chemical change
B) Decrease by increasing temperature D) Conducts through electrodes
Q. 55 Oxygen always shows positive oxidation state with---------------
A) Chlorine C) Nitrogen
B) Fluorine D) Both A and B

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Q. 56 Standard reduction potentials of four hypothetical metals W, X, Y and Z are +0.34V, –1.05V, –2.12V
and +1.37V respectively, which is most reactive metal
A) W C) Y
B) X D) Z
Q. 57 Cathodic reaction during electrolysis of aqueous CuSO 4 is--------------
A) Cu   Cu2+ + 2e- C) 4OH–   O2 + 2H2O + 4e–
B) 2H+ + 2e–  H2 D) Cu2+ + 2e-   Cu

Q. 58 The sum of all kinds of energies of atoms, ions or molecules of a system is known as --------------
A) Kinetic energy C) Potential energy
B) Internal energy D) Lattice energy

Q. 59 Molten CuCl2 is electrolyzed using platinum electrodes. The reaction occurring at anode is ------------------
2+   
A) Cu(s) 
 Cu +2e C) Cl2(g)  2e  2Cl
2+   
B) Cu +2e 
 Cu(s) D) 2Cl 
Cl2(g) + 2e
Q. 60 Specie which discharge at anode during electrolysis of aqueous solution of KCl?
A) OH-1 C) O2
B) H2 D) Cl-1
PHYSICS
TOPICS: NUCLEAR PHYSICS
Q. 61 Which two nuclei contain the same number of neutrons?
A) 126 C and 146 C C) 23 24
11 Na and 12 Mg
16
B)N and 158 O
7
32
D) 14 32
Si and 15 P
Q. 62 The nuclei which have different atomic numbers but equal number of neutrons are called:
A) Isobars C) Isotopes
B) Isotones D) Isomers
Q. 63 The source of energy in sun is
A) Fission C) Chemical reaction
B) Fusion D) Combustion
Q. 64 The relationship between decay constant  and half-life T1/2 of the radioactive substance is
1
A) T1/2  n  2  C) T1/2  n  
2

B)  n  2 D)   n  2 
T1/2

Q. 65 The fraction of atoms of radioactive element that decays in 6 days is 7/8. The fraction that
decays in 10 days will be
A) 77/80 C) 31/32
B) 71/80 D) 15/16
Q. 66 When a nucleus with atomic number Z and mass number A undergoes a radioactive decay
process,
A) Both Z and A will decrease, if the process is decay
B) Z will decrease but A will not change, if the process is + decay
C) Z will increase but A will not change, if the process is - decay.
D) All of these
140 94
Q. 67 In nuclear fission reaction, when the products are 54 Xe and 38 Sr, the number of neutrons
emitted is
A) 4 C) 3
B) 2 D) 1

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Q. 68 Nuclear radiation when subjected under magnetic field defects as shown below, 1, 2 and 3
denotes respectively:

A)  ,  ,  C)  ,  , 
B)  ,  ,  D)  ,  , 

Q. 69 The following represents a sequence of radioactive decays involving two  -particles and
one  particle.
  
85 At  V  W  X
217

213 209
A) 85 At C) 82 Pb
B) 215
77 lr TlD) 217
81

Q. 70 Plutonium decay with a half-life of 24000 Year. If plutonium is stored for 72000 years, the
fraction of it that remains is
1 1 1 1
A) B) C) D)
2 4 3 8
A A 4 A 4
Q. 71 In the transformation sequence represented by Z X  Z 2Y  Z 2Y  ZA14 K the decay are on
the order
A) , , , C) , , 
B) ,,  D) ,, 
Q. 72 - radiation are emitted due to
A) De-excitation of atom C) De-excitation of nucleus
B) Excitation of atom D) Excitation of nucleus
Q. 73 Radium and polonium were discovered by:
A) Rutherford C) Pierre curie and Marie curie
B) Becquerel D) Irene curie and Joliot
Q. 74 If 20 g of a radioactive substance reduces to 10 g in 4 minutes, then in what time will 80 g of
the same substance reduce to 10 g?
A) 8 min C) 12 min
B) 16 min D) 20 min
77
Q. 75 The symbol 32 Ge represents a nucleus of germanium that decays to a nucleus of arsenic by
emitting a  -particle.
What is the symbol of this arsenic nucleus?
76 78
A) 32 As C) 31 As
78 77
B) 32 As D) 33 As
Q. 76 A zirconium nucleus 100
40 Zr emits  -particle. The product nucleus is also emits  -particle.
What is the final resulting nucleus of these two decays?
A) 100
38 Sr
98
C) 40 Zr
100 102
B) Mo42 D) 40 Zr
Q. 77 The radioactivity of a nucleus becomes 1/64 of its initial value in 60 seconds. The half-life of
nuclide is
A) 5 s C) 10 s
B) 20 s D) 30 s

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Q. 78 Different radioactive materials have
A) Same half life C) Different half life
B) Same total life D) Both B & C
Q. 79 The half-value period of a radioactive nuclide is 3 hours. In 9 hours, its activity will be
reduced by a factor of:
A) 1/ 9  C) 1/ 6 
B) 1/ 27  D) 1/ 8
Q. 80 The initial activity of a sample of a radioactive isotope containing N 0 nuclei is A0. What is
A
the number of unchanged nuclei when the activity has declined to 0 ?
2
0.69N 0
A) 0.69 N0 C)
2
N0 N0
B) D)
2 1.38
Q. 81 The particles equal in mass or greater than mass of protons are called
A) Leptons C) Baryons
B) Mesons D) Quarks
Q. 82 Emission of a neutrino is occupied by the emission of:
A)   B)   C)   D) All of these
Q. 83 The fusion process is possible at high temperatures because at high temperatures
A) The nucleus disintegrates
B) Molecules disintegrate
C) Atoms become ionized
D) The nuclei get sufficient energy so as to overcome the Coulomb repulsive force
Q. 84 One eight of the initial mass of certain radioactive isotope remains un-decayed after one
hour. The half-life of the isotope in minutes is
A) 8 C) 20
B) 30 D) 45
Q. 85 Half-life of uranoium-239 is
A) 23.5 days C) 23.5 minutes
B) 23.5 seconds D) 23.5 years

ENGLISH
TOPICS: VOCABULARY
Q. 86 COMPONENTS
A) Constituent C) Parasite
B) Instrumental D) Dispensable
Q. 87 ARC
A) Incline C) Slant
B) Gradient D) Curve
Q. 88 ATTENDANT
A) Aid C) Host
B) Aide D) Hoist
Q. 89 GRADIENT
A) Groove C) Steepness
B) Climax D) Pit
Q. 90 OBLIGATORY
A) Requisite C) Commonplace
B) Optional D) Favourable
Q. 91 SYSTEMIC
A) Fragmental C) Fashionable
B) Formidable D) Formational

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Q. 92 We can't rally around _______ information that diminishes our ability to think critically.
A) Stoic C) Sequential
B) Structural D) Specious
Q. 93 Subsequent investigation revealed that the claims were fake and______.
A) Real C) True
B) Skeptical D) Fabricated
Q. 94 The company issues an annual report of every March.
A) A productive C) A financial
B) A comprehensive D) A yearly
Q. 95 Formerly, in The United States many nurses worked as private duty nurse rather than in
hospital.
A) Strictly C) Previously
B) Officially D) Periodically
LOGICAL REASONING
TOPICS: LOGICAL REASONING
Q. 96 Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... What number should come next?
A) (1/3)
B) (1/8)
C) (2/8)
D) (1/16)
Q. 97
I. The Reserve Bank of PAKISTAN has recently put restrictions on few small
banks in the country.
II. The small banks in the private and co-operative sector in PAKISTAN are not in a
position to withstand the competitions of the bigger in the public sector.12
A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C) Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
Q. 98 Tanya is older than Eric.
Cliff is older than Tanya.
Eric is older than Cliff.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A) True
B) False
C) Uncertain
D) Certain
Q. 99 ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _____, MLNA
A) OLPA
B) KLMA
C) LLMA
D) KLLA
Q. 100 In a one day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of these 160 runs
were made by spinners.
Conclusions:
I. 80% of the team consists of spinners.
II. The opening batsmen were spinners.
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusion II follows
C) Either I or II follows
D) Neither I nor II follows

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