BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 2020-21

BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

DETAILED SYLLABUS

Unit Topic

DC Circuits
Electrical circuit elements (R, L and C), Concept of active and passive elements, voltage and current
I sources, concept of linearity and linear network, unilateral and bilateral elements, Kirchhoff’s laws, Loop
and nodal methods of analysis, Star-delta transformation, Superposition theorem, Thevenin theorem,
Norton theorem.

Steady- State Analysis of Single Phase AC Circuits

Representation of Sinusoidal waveforms – Average and effective values, Form and peak factors, Concept
of phasors, phasor representation of sinusoidal varying voltage and current.
Analysis of single phase AC Circuits consisting of R, L, C, RL, RC, RLC combinations (Series and
II Parallel), Apparent, active & reactive power, Power factor, power factor improvement.
Concept of Resonance in series & parallel circuits, bandwidth and quality factor.
Three phase balanced circuits, voltage and current relations in star and delta connections.
Transformers
Magnetic materials, BH characteristics, ideal and practical transformer, equivalent circuit, losses in
III transformers, regulation and efficiency. Auto-transformer and three-phase transformer connections.

Electrical machines
DC machines: Principle & Construction, Types, EMF equation of generator and torque equation of motor,
IV applications of DC motors (simple numerical problems)
Three Phase Induction Motor: Principle & Construction, Types, Slip-torque characteristics, Applications
(Numerical problems related to slip only) Single Phase Induction motor: Principle of operation and
introduction to methods of starting, applications.
Three Phase Synchronous Machines: Principle of operation of alternator and synchronous motor and
their applications.
Electrical Installations
V Components of LT Switchgear: Switch Fuse Unit (SFU), MCB, ELCB, MCCB, Types of Wires and Cables,
Importance of earthing. Types of Batteries, Important characteristics for Batteries. Elementary calculations
for energy consumption and savings, battery backup.

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BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

Solved MCQ
Content Page No
1. Unit-I ……………………………………………………..………....…...…….3

2. Unit-II………………………………………….……….…………….…..…….12

3. Unit-III …………………………………………………..….....…………….... 20

4. Unit-IV …………………………..…….…..……………………….………..…27

5. Unit-V …………………………………………………….......................….….34

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Unit-I

1. Kirchhoff’s voltage laws are not applicable to 6. According to KCL as applied to a junction in a
circuits with network of conductors
a. distributed parameters a. total sum of currents meeting at the
b. lumped parameters junction is zero
c. passive elements b. no current can leave the junction without
d. non-linear resistances some current entering it
Ans: (d) c. net current flow at the junction is positive
2. The algebraic sum of voltages in any closed path d. algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the
of network is equal to junction is zero
a. infinity Ans: (a)
b. zero 7. Kirchhoff’s current law at a junction deals with
c. two a. conservation of energy
d. one b. conservation of momentum
Ans: (b) c. conservation of angular momentum
3. Which network analysis states that the algebraic d. conservation of charge
sum of voltage on a closed-loop is zero? Ans: (d)
a. crammers method 8. A system which follows the superposition
b. nodal method of analysis principle is known as
c. loop current method of analysis a. System
d. current sources in loop current method of b. Control System
analysis c. Linear System
Ans: (c) d. Unilateral System
4. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is concerned with Ans: (c)
a. IR drop 9. A system is linear if and only if it satisfies
b. Battery e.m.f a. principle of superposition
c. Junction voltage b. principle of homogeneity
d. both (a) and (b) c. both (a) and (b) above
Ans: (d) d. neither (a) and (b) above
5. Kirchhoff’s first and second laws are Ans: (c)
respectively based on conservation of 10. The superposition theorem is based on the
a. energy and charge a. Duality
b. charge and energy b. Linearity
c. mass and charge c. Reciprocity
d. mass and energy d. Non-linearity
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)

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11. The superposition theorem can be applied only Ans: (c)

to circuits having 16. Superposition theorem is used to obtain current
a. resistive elements in or voltage across any conductor of the
b. passive elements a. AC network
c. linear bilateral elements b. magnetic network
d. non-linear elements c. non-linear network
Ans: (c) d. linear network
12. A non-linear network does not satisfy Ans: (d)
a. superposition condition 17. The superposition theorem is applicable to
b. homogeneity condition a. current only
c. both superposition as well as homogeneity b. voltage
condition c. both current and voltage
d. superposition, homogeneity and d. current, voltage and power
associative condition Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) 18. A linear circuit contains ideal resistors and ideal
13. In applying superposition theorem, to determine voltage source. If values of all the resistors are
branch current and voltages halved then the voltage across each resistor
a. all current and voltage sources are shorted. becomes.
b. only current sources are open-circuited. a. halved
c. only voltage sources are shorted. b. doubled
d. Voltage sources are shorted and current c. remained unchanged
sources are open-circuited. d. decreased by 4 times
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
14. A linear circuit in one whose parameters 19. The application of Thevenin’s theorem in a
a. change with change in current circuit results in
b. change with change in voltage a. an ideal voltage source
c. do not change with voltage and current b. an ideal current source
d. none of the options c. a current source and a resistance in parallel
Ans: (c) d. a voltage source and a resistance in series
15. In electrical circuits states that for a response Ans: (d)
(voltage or current) in any branch of a bilateral 20. Thevenin’s theorem converts a circuit to an
linear circuit having more than one independent equivalent form consisting of
source equals the algebraic sum of the responses a. a current source and a series resistance
caused by each independent sources acting b. a voltage source and a parallel resistance
alone. c. a voltage source and a series resistance
a. norton’s theorem d. a current source and a parallel resistance
b. thevenin’s theorem Ans: (d)
c. superposition theorem
d. duality theorem 21. While calculating Rth in Thevenin’s theorem
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a. all independent sources are made dead

b. only current sources are made dead Terminal voltage 12 V 0V

c. only voltage sources are made dead

Terminal current 0A 1.5 A
d. all voltage and current sources are made
a. 16 Ω
dead
b. 8Ω
Ans: (d)
c. 0
22. How can Thevenin’s resistance and Norton
d. ∞
resistance be correlated in an AC circuit
Ans: (b)
a. always the same
27. While Thevenizing a circuit between two
b. generally the same
terminals, Vth equals
c. sometimes the same
a. short circuit terminal voltage
d. always different
b. open circuit terminal voltage
Ans: (c)
c. emf of the battery nearest to the terminals
23. Thevenin’s theorem cannot be applied to
d. net voltage available in the circuit
a. linear circuit
Ans: (b)
b. non-linear circuit
28. Thevenin’s theorem cannot be applied to
c. active circuit
networks that contain elements which are
d. passive circuit
a. active
Ans: (b)
b. passive
24. While Thevenizing a circuit between two
c. linear
terminals, Vth is equal to
d. non-linear
a. short circuit terminal voltage
Ans: (d)
b. open circuit terminal voltage
29. For a network, Thevenin equivalent is given by
c. net voltage available in the circuit
Vth = 10V and Rth = 50 Ω. If this network is
d. E.m.f. of the battery nearest to the terminals
shunted by another 50 Ω at load. What is the new
Ans: (b)
Thevenin equivalent of the network?
25. Thevenin’s theorem is _______ form of an
a. 5 V, 50 Ω
equivalent circuit.
b. 5 V, 25 Ω
a. voltage
c. 10 V, 50 Ω
b. current
d. 10 V, 25 Ω
c. both voltage and current
Ans: (b)
d. none of these
30. The application of Norton’s theorem in a circuit
Ans: (c)
results in
26. The given result was obtained from
a. a voltage source and an impedance in series
measurements taken between the two terminals
b. an ideal voltage source
of a resistive network. The Thevenin resistance
c. a current source and an impedance in
of the network is
parallel
d. an ideal current source

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Ans: (c) 35. In a parallel circuit, with a number of resistors,

31. While applying Norton’s theorem to DC the voltage across each resistor is ________
networks, the network is replaced by a a. The same for all resistors
a. voltage source in series with a resistance b. Is divided equally among all resistors
b. voltage source is parallel with a resistance c. Is divided proportionally across all resistors
c. current source in series with a resistance d. Is zero for all resistors
d. current source in parallel with a resistance Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) 36. The currents entering in the three branches of a
32. Norton’s theorem is ________ Thevenin’s parallel circuit are 3A, 4A and 5A. What is the
theorem. current leaving it?
a. the same as a. 0 A
b. converse of
b. Insufficient data provided
c. cannot say
c. The largest one among the three values
d. none of these
d. 12 A
Ans: (a)
Ans: (d)
33. Which of the following statements is/are correct
37. KCL is based on the conservation of
about Norton’s theorem?
a. Energy
i. the value of the current source is the short
b. Charge
circuit current between the two terminals of
c. Momentum
the network
d. Speed
ii. Resistance is the equivalent resistance
Ans: (b)
measured between the terminals of the
network with all the energy. Sources are
38. KVL is based on the conservation of

replaced by their internal resistance. a. Energy

a. only i is correct b. Charge
b. only ii is correct c. Momentum
c. both i and ii are correct d. Speed
d. both i and ii are incorrect Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) 39. The algebraic sum of voltages around any closed
34. If two bulbs are connected in parallel and one path in a network is equal to
bulb blows out, what happens to the other bulb? a. Infinity
a) The other bulb blows out as well b. 1
b) The other bulb continues to glow with the c. 0
same brightness d. Always greater than 1
c) The other bulb glows with increased Ans: (c)
brightness 40. A closed path in any circuit which have more
d) The other bulb stops glowing than two meshes is called _________.
Ans: (b) a. Branch

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b. Node c. Unilateral
c. Loop d. All of these
d. all are correct Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) 47. Transmission line is the example of
41. KCL is applied at a. Active element
a. node b. Unilateral element

b. mesh c. Bilateral elements

c. loop d. None of these

d. none of these Ans: (c)

Ans: (a) 48. The ideal voltage source has _______

42. KVL is applied at resistance.

a. Node a. Unity

b. Junction b. Zero

c. Loop c. Infinite

d. All of these d. None of these

Ans: (c) Ans: (b)

43. Active elements are those which 49. The ideal current source has _______ resistance.
a. Consume electrical energy a. Unity
b. Generates electrical energy b. Zero
c. Dissipates electrical energy c. Infinite
d. Shows linear relationship between voltage and d. None of these
current Ans: (c)
Ans: (b) 50. The real voltage source has ____________ but
44. Passive elements are those which finite internal resistance.
a. Consume electrical energy a. Small
b. Generates electrical energy b. Zero
c. stores electrical energy c. Large
d. both (A) & (C) d. None of these
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
45. Example of linear element is 51. The real current source has ____________ but
a. diode finite internal resistance.

b. BJT a. Small
c. Capacitor b. Zero
d. Op-amp c. Large
Ans: (c) d. None of these
46. _______________ elements obey Ohm’s law. Ans: (c)

a. Linear 52. Mesh analysis is the application of

b. Non-linear a. KCL
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b. KVL Ans: (c)

c. Faraday law Superposition theorem is not applicable for

d. Lenz’s law a. Voltage calculations

Ans: (b) b. Bilateral elements

53. Nodal analysis is the application of c. Passive elements

a. KCL d. Power calculations

Ans: (d)
b. KVL
58. Minimum source requirement for superposition
c. Faraday law
theorem is
d. Lenz’s law
a. One
Ans: (b)
b. Two
54. Superposition theorem is valid for _________
c. Three
a. Linear systems
d. Four
b. Non-linear systems
Ans: (b)
c. Both linear and non-linear systems
59. Thevenin’s theorem is applicable to
d. Neither linear nor non-linear systems
a. Linear, non-linear and time variant responses
Ans: (a)
b. Linear,non-linear circuits
55. In superposition theorem, when we consider the
c. Linear & bilateral circuits
effect of one current source, all the other current
d. All of these
sources are ____________
Ans: (c)
a. Shorted
60. Using Thevenin’s theorem we convert the given
b. Opened
circuit into ____________ across the load
c. Removed
terminals.
d. Undisturbed
a. An ideal voltage source in series with
Ans: (b)
resistance
56. In superposition theorem, when we consider the
b. An ideal voltage source in parallel with
effect of one voltage source, all the other voltage
resistance
sources are ____________
c. A real voltage source in series with
a. Shorted
resistance
b. Opened
d. A real voltage source in parallel with
c. Removed
resistance
d. Undisturbed
Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)
61. A star connected circuit has 3 Ω resistance in
57. The superposition theorem applicable to
each branch, what will be the resistance of each
calculate
branch of its equivalent delta connection.
a. Voltage only
a. 1 Ω
b. Current only
b. 3 Ω
c. Both current and voltage
c. 5 Ω
d. Current, voltage and power
d. 4 Ω

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Ans: (c)
62. A delta connected circuit has 3 Ω resistance in
each branch, find the resistance of each branch
of its equivalent star connection.
a. 1 Ω
b. 2 Ω
a. 0.5 A
c. 3 Ω
b. 1A
d. 4 Ω
c. 1.5A
Ans: (a)
d. 2A
63. While calculating the Thevenin’s resistance,
Ans: (c)
a. Only voltage sources are removed
67. The current i as shown in Fig. is
b. Only current sources are removed
c. All sources should be present in the circuit
d. All sources must be removed from the circuit
Ans: (d)
64. The value of Io in the circuit of Fig. a. 0A
b. 1A
c. 2A
d. 3A
Ans: (c)
a. 5A 68. The voltage v1 across 20 Ω is _______ as shown
b. 8A in Fig.
c. 3A
d. 2A
Ans: (d)
65. In the circuit shown in Fig., the voltage and
a. 1V
current source are ideal. The voltage (Vout)
b. 20V
across the current source, in volts is
c. 200V
d. 2V
Ans: (b)
69. The value of R if V = 4V in the circuit shown in
a. 10V Fig. will be ____
b. 0V
c. 20V
d. cannot determine
Ans: (c)
66. The value of ‘i’ as shown in Fig..

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a. 12Ω a) 4 kΩ
b. 16Ω b) 5 kΩ
c. 4.36Ω c) 8 kΩ
d. None of these d) 14 kΩ
Ans: (a) Ans: a
70. The voltages v1, v2 & v3 as shown in Fig.7 are 73. Value of i1, i2, and i3 in the circuit in Fig.
_______ are______

a. 24V, 12V, 10V

a. 11 A, 4 A, 1 A
b. 24V, 22V, 10V
b. 1A, 4A, 11A
c. 46V, 12V, 10V
c. 4A, 11A, 1A
d. 46V, 22V, 10V
d. 4A, 1A, 11A
Ans: d
Ans: a
71. The equivalent resistance across ‘a’ & ‘b’
74. The Thevenin resistance at terminals a and b is
is______ for the circuit
______ of Fig.

a. 25Ω
b. 20Ω
a. 3Ω
b. 11Ω
c. 5Ω

c. 5Ω d. 4Ω
d. None of these Ans: d

Ans: b

75. Continuation of Question 74. The Thevenin

72. The equivalent resistance of the circuit is: voltage across terminals a and b of the circuit is
a. 50 V
b. 40 V
c. 20 V
d. 10 V
Ans: b
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76. Which pair of circuits in Fig. 12 are equivalent? a. 3.857Ω

b. 2.857Ω
c. 3.214Ω
d. 4.214Ω
Ans: (a)
a. a and b
80. For the circuit in Fig. Given below, the Norton’s
b. b and d
equivalent resistance as seen from terminals: b-c
c. a and c
is
d. c and d
Ans: (c)
77. Using superposition theorem, the value of i in the
circuit is

a. 3.857Ω
b. 2.857Ω
c. 3.214Ω
a. 2A d. 4.214Ω
b. 5A Ans: (c)
c. 3A 81. For the circuit in Fig. Given below, the Norton
d. 7A equivalent resistance at terminals a-b is
Ans: (b)
78. The Thevenin equivalent resistance at terminals
a-b of the circuit is _______

a. 5Ω
b. 10Ω
a. 60Ω c. 0

b. 20Ω b. 10/3Ω

c. 120/7 Ω Ans: (d)

d. 28Ω
Ans: (d)
79. For the circuit in Fig. Given below, the
Thevenin’s equivalent resistance as seen from
terminals: a-b is

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Unit-II
1. The unit of Power is c. Conductance
a. Henry d. Resistance
b. Farad Ans: (c)
c. Watt 8. The unit of the reactive power is
d. Ohm a. Watt
Ans: (c) b. KWh
2. The unit of Resistance is c. VAr
a. Henry d. Ohms
b. Farad Ans: (c)
c. Watt 9. The SI unit of the susceptance is
d. Ohm a. Ohms
Ans: (d) b. Siemens
3. Coulomb is the unit of c. VAr
a. Charge d. KWh
b. Current Ans: (b)
c. Resistance 10. Farad/meter is the unit of
d. Reactance a. Permitivity
Ans: (a) b. Retentivity
4. Impedance is denoted by c. Reluctance
a. Z d. Resistance
b. R Ans: (a)
c. KWh 11. Tesla is the unit of
d. P a. Magnetic Flux Density
Ans: (a) b. Magnetic Flux
5. Permeance is reciprocal of c. Magnetic intensity
a. Conductance d. Magnetic susceptance
b. Retentivity Ans: (a)
c. Reluctance 12. The unit of the Capacitive reactance is
d. Resistance a. Henry
Ans: (c) b. Farad
6. C/s may be the unit of a/an c. Watt
a. Electric Current d. Ohm
b. Energy Ans: (d)
c. Reluctance 13. The RMS value of clipped waveform is-
d. Resistance
7. Siemens is the unit of
a. Reluctance
b. Retentivity

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c. 45o
d. 30
a. 0.583 Vm V Ans: (b)
b. 1.622 Vm V 18. A current is represented by i = 100 sin (314t −
c. 0.936 Vm V 30°) A. The rms value of the current and the
d. 0 V frequency are, respectively
Ans: (a) a. 100 A and 314 Hz
14. The current through ammeter A2 and A3 in b. 100 A and 50 Hz
given figure are 110° A and 170° A c. 70.7 A and 314 Hz
respectively. The reading of the ammeter A1 is- d. 70.7 A and 50 Hz.
Ans: (d)
19. If form factor of a sinusoidal wave is 1.11, then
the form factor of a triangular wave will
a. also be 1.11
a. 140° A b. be less than 1.11

b. 1.73240° A c. be more than 1.11

c. 260° A d. None of above

Ans: (b)
d. 10° A
20. Two impedances Z1 = 4 + j4 Ω and Z2 = 4 − j4
Ans: (b)
Ω are connected in parallel. Their equivalent
15. What is the relationship between current (i) and
impedance is
voltage (v) in a circuit consisting of a capacitor
a. 8 + j8 Ω
in series with a resistor?
b. 4 + j0 Ω
a. i and v are in phase across the capacitor
c. 8 − j8 Ω
b. i leads v across the resistor
d. 8 + j0 Ω
c. v leads i across the capacitor
Ans: b
d. i and v are in phase across the resistor
21. Form factor of an AC wave indicates
Ans. (b)
a. Low sharp or steep the wave shape is
16. The elements in RCL series circuit are
b. Low flat the wave shape is
a. Resistance only
c. Low symmetrical the wave shape is
b. Inductance only
d. The degree of its conformity to sinusoidal
c. Capacitance only
form
d. Resistance, inductance and capacitance
Ans: a
Ans: (d)
22. If v = 200 V, a current of 10 A is flowing
17. The voltage and current in an AC circuit is
through a circuit. The power factor is 0.5
represented by v = Vm sin (ωt + 30°) and i =
lagging. The instantaneous value of the current
Im sin (ωt − 45°). The power factor angle of the
can be written as
circuit is
a. i = 10 sin 60° A
a. 15°
b. i = 10 sin (ωt − 30°) A
b. 75°
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c. i = 14.14 sin (ωt − 60°) A d. 141.4 V

d. i = 14.14 sin (ωt + 60°) A Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) 27. The value of VC if the supply voltage is
23. The ratio of active power to apparent power is 10√2sin314t as shown in fig.
known as factor.
a. Demand
b. Load
c. Power
d. Form
Ans: (c) a. 10.414V
24. In given circuit the value of capacitor C that b. 6V
make I=0 is. c. 9.16V
d. 10.78V
Ans: (c)
28. The expression of i (t) as shown in fig
a. 10cost
b. 10sint
b. 10cos(t-900)
c. 10
a. 10F Ans: (a)
b. 20F 29. The voltage v(t)=12sin(60t+450) is applied to a

c. 30F 0.1H inductor. The steady-state current through

d. 40F the inductor will be

a. 2sin(60t-450)
Ans: 20F
b. 2sin(60t +1350)
25. What will be the phase angle between two
c. 1.2 sin(60t-450)
alternating waves of equal frequency, when one
d. 1.22sin(60t +1350)
wave attains maximum value the other is at zero
Ans: (a)
value?
30. The power absorbed by an impedance
a. 0°
Z = (30 - j70) Ω is ______, when the voltage
b. 45°
V = 120sin314t is applied across it.
c. 90
a. 480W
d. 180
b. 144W
Ans: (c)
c. 240W
26. The r.m.s value of half wave rectified sine wave
d. 37.24W
is 200 V. The r.m.s value of full wave rectified
Ans: (d)
AC. will be
31. 42. Voltage and current in a two element series
a. 100 V
circuit are expressed as:
b. 111 V
V = 100 sin(314t + 150) V
c. 282.8 V
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I = 10 sin(314t - 300) A. The elements are 36. Which of the following conditions is true for
a. R & L both series and parallel resonance?
b. R & C a. impedance is minimum
c. L & C b. power factor is unity
d. None of these c. power factor is zero
Ans: (a) d. power is low
32. In an ac circuit, the voltage is given as Ans: (b)
V(t)= 200sin314t and the current is given as 37. A series RLC circuit has R = 50 Ω, L = 50 μH
I(t) =10sin(314t - 300)A. The active power will and C = 2 μF. The Q-factor of the circuit is
be a. 0.1
a. 2kW b. 1
b. 1kW c. 10
c. 1.732kW d. 2
d. 866W Ans: (a)
Ans: (d) 38. In a series resonant circuit, a change in supply
33. Power factor of an electrical circuit is equal to voltage will cause a change in
a. R/Z a. the current drawn,
b. Cosine of phase angle difference between b. the Q-factor of the circuit,
current and voltage c. the bandwidth of the circuit,
c. Ratio of useful current to total current Iw/I d. the resonant frequency as well
d. All above Ans: (a)
Ans: (d) 39. The power factor at resonance in R-L-C parallel
34. Poor power factor circuit is
a. Overloads alternators, transformers and a. Zero
distribution lines b. 0.08 lagging
b. Results in more power losses in the c. 0.8 leading
electrical system d. Unity
c. Reduces load handling capability of Ans: (d)
electrical system 40. The resonant frequency in R-L-C series circuit
d. Results in all above is
Ans: (d) 2π
a. f0 =
√LC
35. Power factor of the system is kept high √LC
b. f0 =
a. To reduce line losses 2π
1
b. To maximize the utilization of the capacities c. f0 =
2π√LC
of generators, lines and transformers 1 L
d. f0 = √
c. To reduce voltage regulation of the line 2π C

d. Due to all above reasons Ans: (c)

Ans: (d) 41. The bandwidth of a series R-L-C circuit is
C
a.
2πL

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R a. inductive
b.
2πL
C b. resistive
c.
2πR
c. capacitive
L
d. d. none of these
2πR

Ans: (d) 48. In LCR circuit which one of the following

42. An R, L, C circuit is in series resonance at statement is correct?
frequency of f Hz. If the value of all the a. L and R oppose each other
components is doubled, the new frequency will b. R values increases with frequency
be c. the inductive reactance increases with
a. f/4 frequency
b. f/2 d. the capacitive reactance increases with
c. 2f frequency
d. remains unchanged 49. Q factor of a coil measured by the meter is
Ans. (b) __________ the actual Q of the coil.
43. A high Q coil has a a. equal to
a. high bandwidth b. somewhat lesser than
b. low power factor c. somewhat higher than
c. high losses d. twice
d. a flat responses 50. Current at resonance in a series circuit is
44. The phenomena of resonance is used in ________ and in a parallel circuit is _________
a. radio a. Minimum, maximum
b. capacitor b. Maximum, minimum
c. transformer c. Maximum, maximum
d. amplifier d. Minimum, minimum
45. In a series RLC circuit, the magnitude of
resonance frequency can be changed by
changing the value of 51. In RLC circuits, the electric current at
a. R only resonance is
b. L only a. Maximum in series circuit and minimum in
c. C only parallel circuit
d. L or C b. Maximum in parallel circuit and minimum
46. Q of a resonant transmission line is in series circuit
a. Q = L/R c. Maximum in both the circuits
b. Q = ωL/R d. Minimum in both the circuits
c. Q = ωR/L 52. Power factor of a parallel RLC circuit at
d. Q = ω/LR resonance is
47. For frequencies below the resonant frequency, a. Unity
a parallel LC circuit behaves as a _________ b. Zero
load. c. 0.0707 leading

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d. 0.707 lagging a. 180°

53. The electric current in an RLC series circuit at b. 120
resonance is c. 45°
a. Maximum d. 90°
b. Minimum Ans: (b)
c. Infinity 59. Three identical impedances are connected in
d. Zero delta to a three phase supply of 400V. The line
54. At a frequency less than the resonant frequency current is 34.65A and the total power taken
a. Series circuit is capacitive and parallel from the supply is 14.4kw. What is the
circuit is inductive resistance of each impedance
b. Series circuit is inductive and parallel circuit a. 20
is capacitive b. 16
c. Both circuits are inductive c. 12
d. Both circuits are capacitive d. 10
55. In an R-C-L series circuit, during resonance, the Ans: (c)
impedance will be 60. In a three phase AC circuit, the sum of all three
a. Zero generated voltages is ______?
b. Minimum a. Infinite (∞)
c. Maximum b. Zero (0)
d. None of these c. One (1)
56. The parallel circuit consists of an inductive d. None of the above
branch with R and L as its resistance and Ans: (b)
inductance in parallel with capacitance branch
with C farad. The impedance offered by this
circuit under resonance condition is given by 61. For a three-phase delta connected load, fed
a. Z = LCR from a star connected network, the power
b. Z = R/LC transferred to the load is _____?
c. Z = L/CR
d. Z = LC/R
57. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is
10 kVA and active power is 8 kW. The reactive
power in the circuit is
a. 16 kVAR a. 3 kW

b. 8 kVAR b. 4.7 kW

c. 6 kVAR c. 5 kW

d. 4 kVAR d. 7 kW

Ans: (c) Ans: (b)

58. In a three-phase system, the voltages are

separated by

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62. In a Y-connected circuit, the magnitude of each 67. In the R-L-C containing R=4.5Ω , L=0.06H, C=
line current is 0.6F the power factor will be
a. Three times the corresponding phase current a. Zero
b. Equal to the corresponding phase current b. Lagging
c. Zero c. Leading
d. One-third the phase current d. Unity
Ans: b Ans: (c)
63. The expression for total power output of a 68. Three equal impedances having a resistance of
delta connected system in terms of phase 25Ω and 40Ω are connected in star to a 400 V,
voltage and current is given by 3-phase, 50Hz supply the line current is
a. 3VpIpcos∅ a. IL=2.5A
b. √3VpIpcos∅ b. IL=4.9A
Vp Ip cos∅ c. IL=0A
c.
√3
Vp Ip cos∅
d. None of above
d.
3 Ans: (b)
Ans: a
64. Which of following equation is valid for a 3-
phase 4- wire balanced star- connected load?
a. IR+IY+IB = IN = 0 69. Continuation of question no. 46, the power
b. IR+IY - IB = IN factor and power consumed, respectively
c. IR - IY+IB = IN a. 0.53(lag), 1800W
d. VR+VY+VB = IN b. 1, 1800W
Z
Ans: a c. 0.53(lag), 1000W
65. The relation between the line and phase voltage d. None of above
of a star connected circuit is given by Ans. (a)
a. VL=VP 70. Continuation of question no. 46: the phase
b. VL=√3VP current is-
c. VL=3VP a. 30A
d. VL= VP b. 20A
2 c. 17.32A
Ans: (b)
d. Cannot be determine
66. The relation between the line and phase current
Ans. (c)
of a delta connected circuit is given by
71. Continuation of question no. 46: the power
a. IL=√3IP
factor -
b. IL= IP
a. 0.677
c. IL=3IP
b. 0.577
d. IL= IP
2 c. 0.32
Ans: (a) d. 0.707
Ans. (b)

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72. A delta connected balanced 3-phase load is

supplied from a 33-phase, 400 V supply. The
line current is 30A and power taken by the load
is 12kW, the impedance per phase is-
a. 20Ω
b. 30Ω
c. 23.09Ω
d. 10Ω
Ans: (c)
73. When phase sequence at the 3-phase load is
reversed
a. Phase currents are change in magnitude
b. Phase currents change in phase angle but not
in magnitude
c. Total power consumed is changed
d. Phase powers are changed
Ans. (b)
74. How much r.m.s current does a 300 W, 200 V
bulb take from the 200 V, 50 Hz supply?
a. 0.5A
b. 1.5A
c. 2A
d. 3A
Ans. (b)
75. What will be the total power consumed when
three coils, each having a resistance of 10 ohms
and an impedance of 0.02 H, are connected in
star across a 440-V, 50-Hz, three-phase supply?
a. 10 kW
b. 13.88 kW
c. 21.51 kW
d. 25 kW
Ans. (b)

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Unit-III
1. The air gap is usually inserted in (a) Low hysteresis loss
magnetic circuit to (b) High permeability
(a) Increase m.m.f. (c) Low retentivity
(b) increase the flux (d) High retentivity
(c) prevent saturation Ans: d
(d) none of the above 7. Higher the self-inductence of a coil
Ans: c (a) Lesser its weber-turns
2. The relative permeability of the (b) Lower the induced e.m.f
ferromagnetic material is (c) Greater the flux produced by it
(a) Less than one (d) Longer the delay in establishing
(b) More than one steady state current through it
(c) More than 10 Ans: d
(d) More than 100 8. Reciprocal of reluctance is:
Ans: b (a) Reluctivity
3. The unit of magnetic flux is (b) Permeance
(a) Henry (c) Permeability
(b) Weber (d) Susceptibility
(c) Ampere turn/meter Ans: b
(d) Ampere/meter 9. Hysteresis loss least depends on:
Ans: b (a) Volume of material
4. Permeability in a magnetic circuit (b) Frequency
corresponds to ………………. In an (c) Steinmetz’s coefficient of material
electric circuit. (d) Ambient temperature
(a) Resistance Ans: d
(b) Resistivity 10. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss
(c) Conductivity than an iron core because _____.
(d) Conductance (a) Ferrites have high resistance
Ans: c (b) Ferrites have high hysteresis
5. The magnetizing force (H) and magnetic (c) Ferrites have low permeability
flux density (B) are connected by the (d) Ferrites are magnetic
relation Ans: a
(a) B=µrH/µo 11. What is the use of Laminated cores, in
(b) B=µH electrical machines?
(c) B=H/µo µr (a) Copper loss
(d) B=µH/µr (b) Eddy current loss
Ans: b (c) Hysteresis loss
6. A material used for good magnetic (d) All of the above
memory should have Ans: b

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12. While comparing magnetic and electric (c) High, low

circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is (d) Low, low
compared with which parameter of Ans: c
electrical circuit? 18. In a magnetic circuit the hysteresis loss
(a) E.M.F. takes place due to
(b) Current (a) Rapid reversals of its magnetization
(c) Current density (b) Flux density lagging behind
(d) Conductivity magnetizing force
Ans: b (c) Molecular friction
13. What is the unit of reluctance? (d) It high retentivity
(a) Meter/Henry Ans: d
(b) Henry/meter 19. Which of the following losses will be
(c) Henry minimum for a single phase no load
(d) 1/Henry transformer?
Ans: d (a) Copper losses
14. Conductance is analogous to: (b) Hysteresis losses
(a) Permeance (c) Eddy current losses
(b) Reluctance (d) Mechanical losses
(c) Flux Ans: a
(d) Inductance 20. In order to minimize loss due to hysteresis
Ans: a , the magnetic material should have
15. The unit of retentivity is ___. (a) High resistivity
(a) Weber (b) Low hysteresis co-efficient
(b) Weber/sq. m (c) Large B-H loop area
(c) Ampere turn/meter (d) High retentivity
(d) Ampere turns Ans: a
Ans: b 21. The property of the magnetic material
16. The property of a material which opposes which opposes the creation of magnetic
the creation of magnetic flux in it is flux in it known as
known as Reluctance (a) reluctivity
(a) True (b) magnetomotive force
(b) False (c) permeance
Ans: a (d) reluctance
17. Those magnetic materials are best suited Ans: d
for making armature and transform cores 22. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines
which have ____ permeability and ____ because it has
hysteresis loss. (a) Low coercive
(a) High, high (b) Low retentivity
(b) Low, high (c) Low hysteresis loss

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(d) High coercive 28. Which of the following does not change
Ans: c in a transformer ?
23. At city substation, the AC is stepped down (a) Current
to............... (b) Voltage
(a) 120 V (c) Frequency
(b) 130 V (d) All of the above
(c) 220 V Ans: c
(d) 320 V 29. A transformer core is laminated to
Ans: c (a) reduce hysteresis loss
24. Efficiency of a transformer is of the order (b) reduce eddy current losses
of........... (c) reduce copper losses
(a) 100 percent (d) reduce all above losses
(b) 98 percent Ans: b
(c) 50 percent 30. The path of a magnetic flux in a
(d) 25 percent transformer should have
Ans: b (a) high resistance
25. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material (b) high reluctance
is large, the hysteresis loss in this material (c) low resistance
will be (d) low reluctance
(a) Zero Ans: d
(b) Small 31. No-load on a transformer is carried out to
(c) Large determine
(d) None of the above (a) copper loss
Ans: c (b) magnetising current
26. The transformer ratings are usually (c) magnetising current and loss
expressed in terms of (d) efficiency of the transformer
(a) Volts Ans: c
(b) Amperes 32. The efficiency of a transformer will be
(c) kW maximum when
(d) kVA (a) copper losses = hysteresis losses
Ans: d (b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
27. The main advantage of auto transformer (c) eddy current losses = copper losses
over a two winding transformer is (d) copper losses = iron losses
(a) Hysteresis losses are reduced Ans: d
(b) Saving in winding material 33. The purpose of providing an iron core in a
(c) Copper losses are negligible transformer is to
(d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated (a) provide support to windings
Ans: b (b) reduce hysteresis loss
(c) decrease the reluctance of the magnetic

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path 39. In a given transformer for given applied

(d) reduce eddy current losses voltage, losses which remain constant
Ans: c irrespective of load changes are
34. While conducting short-circuit test on a (a) friction and windage losses
transformer the following side is short (b) copper losses
circuited (c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(a) High voltage side (d) none of the above
(b) Low voltage side Ans: c
(c) Primary side 40. No-load current of a transformer has
(d) Secondary side (a) has high magnitude and low power
Ans: b factor
35. A transformer transforms (b) has high magnitude and high power
(a) voltage factor
(b) current (c) has small magnitude and high power
(c) power factor
(d) frequency (d) has small magnitude and low power
Ans: a factor
36. Primary winding of a transformer Ans: d
(a) is always a low voltage winding 41. If R2 is the resistance of secondary
winding of the transformer and K is the
(b) is always a high voltage winding
transformation ratio then the equivalent
(c) could either be a low voltage or high secondary resistance referred to primary
will be
voltage winding
(a) K2R2
(d) none of the above (b) R2
K
Ans: c
(c) R2
37. Which winding in a transformer has more (d) R2
K
number of turns ?
Ans: a
(a) Low voltage winding 42. Material used for construction of
(b) High voltage winding transformer core is usually
(c) Primary winding (a) wood
(d) Secondary winding (b) copper
Ans: b (c) aluminium
38. Efficiency of a ideal transformer is of the (d) silicon steel
order of Ans: d
(a) 100 per cent 43. Which of the following does not change in
(b) 98 per cent an ordinary transformer ?
(c) 50 per cent (a) Frequency
(d) 25 per cent (b) Voltage
Ans: a (c) Current

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(d) Any of the above 49. Which of the following is the main
Ans: a advantage of an auto-transformer over a
44. 65. The leakage flux in a transformer two winding transformer?
depends upon (a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
(a) load current (b) Saving in winding material
(b) load current and voltage (c) Copper losses are negligible
(c) load current, voltage and frequency (d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated
(d) load current, voltage, frequency and Ans: b
power factor 50. An ideal transformer is one which has
Ans: a (a) no losses and magnetic leakage
45. The path of the magnetic flux in (b) interleaved primary and secondary
transformer should have windings
(a) high reluctance (c) a common core for its primary and
(b) low reactance secondary windings
(c) high resistance (d) core of stainless steel and winding of
(d) low resistance pure copper metal
Ans: b (e) none of the above
46. The full-load copper loss of a transformer Ans: a
is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss 51. When a given transformer is run at its
will be rated voltage but reduced frequency, its
(a) 6400 W (a) flux density remains unaffected
(b) 1600 W (b) iron losses are reduced
(c) 800 W (c) core flux density is reduced
(d) 400 W (d) core flux density is increased
Ans: d Ans: d
47. The value of flux involved m the e.m.f. 52. An ideal transformer will have maximum
equation of a transformer is efficiency at a load such that
(a) average value (a) copper loss = iron loss
(b) r.m.s. value (b) copper loss < iron loss
(c) maximum value (c) copper loss > iron loss
(d) instantaneous value (d) none of the above
Ans: c Ans: a
48. Silicon steel used in laminations mainly 53. If the supply frequency to the transformer
reduces is increased,” the iron loss will
(a) hysteresis loss (a) not change
(b) eddy current losses (b) decrease
(c) copper losses (c) increase
(d) all of the above (d) any of the above
Ans: d Ans: c

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54. If primary number of turns is higher then, d) 3 A

transformer is called _________ Ans. c
a) Step-down 58. Assuming an ideal transformer, The
b) Step-up Thevenin's equivalent voltage and
c) One-one impedance as seen from the terminals x
d) Autotransformer and y for the circuit in figure are
Ans: a
55. If a transformer is having equal number of
turns at primary and secondary then
transformer is called as _______________
a) Step-down
b) Step-up a) 2sinꙍt, 4Ω
c) One-one b) 1sinꙍt, 1Ω
d) Autotransformer c) 1sinꙍt, 4Ω
Ans: c
d) 2sinꙍt, 0.5Ω
56. Which of the following statements support
Ans: a
the ideal transformer features?
59. The low voltage winding of a 400/230V,
a. Zero winding resistance
1-phase, 50Hz transformer is to be
b. Zero leakage flux
connected to a 25Hz, the supply voltage
c. Constant core losses
should be
i. I, II
a) 230 V
ii. III
b) 460 V
iii. I, III
c) 115 V
iv. I, II, III
d) 65 V
Ans: a
Ans: c
57. A single-phase transformer has a turns
60. The laws of electromagnetic induction
ratio of 1:2 and is connected to a purely
(Faraday's and Lenz's law) are
resistive load as shown in the figure. The
summarized in the following equation:
magnetizing current as well as the load
a) e = iR
current drawn is 1 A. If the core losses and di
b) e = L
leakage reactance are neglected, the dt
d∅
primary current should be c) e = −N
dt

d) None of these
Ans: c
61. The efficiency of a 100 kVA transform is
0.98 at full as well as at half load. For this

a) 1.41 A transformer at full load the copper loss is

b) 2 A a) less than core loss

c) 2.24 A b) equal to core loss

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c) more than core loss

d) none of these Ans: b
Ans: c 64. A 300 kVA transformer
62. A single phase transformer has a has 95% efficiency at full load 0.8
maximum efficiency of 90% at full load pf lagging and 96% efficiency at half load,
and unity power factor. Efficiency at half unity pf. The iron loss (Pi) and copper loss
load at the same power factor is (Pc) in kW, under full load operation are
a) 86.7% a) Pc=4.12W, Pi= 8.51W
b) 88.26% b) Pc=8.51W, Pi= 4.12W
c) 88.9% c) Pc=6.59W, Pi= 9.21W
d) 87.8% d) Pc=12.72W, Pi= 3.07W
Ans: d Ans: b
63. Figure shows an ideal single-phase
transformer. The primary and secondary
coils are wound on the core as shown.
N1
Turns = 2 The correct phasors of
N2

voltages E1, E2 currents I1, I2 and core

flux ϕ are as shown in fig.

a)

b)

c)

d)
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Unit-IV
1. The induced e.m.f. in d.c. generator is 7. What will happen when the field of a DC shunt
proportional to: motor gets opened while the motor is running?
a. Field flux a) Continue to run at the same speed
b. Armature current b) Speed of motor will be reduced
c. Speed of armature c) The motor will attain dangerous high speed
d. all of these d) Armature current will be reduced
Ans: d 8. According to Fleming’s left-hand rule if the
2. Hoists, cranes and battery powered vehicles forefinger points in the direction of the field than
use _________ motors in the locomotive. the middle finger will point in the direction of
a) dc series a) Current in the conductor
b) dc shunt b) Resultant force on the conductor
c) induction c) Movement of the conductor
d) reluctance d) None of the above
3. Centrifugal pumps, fans-blowers use 9. Which of the following rule is used to
__________ determine the direction of rotation of D.C.
a) shunt as well as induction motor motor?
b) only shunt motors a) Columb’s Law
c) only induction motor b) Lenz’s Law
d) none of the mentioned c) Fleming’s Right-hand Rule
4. Which DC motor is preferred for Elevator? d) Fleming’s Left-hand Rule
a) Differentially compound motor 10. The speed of a d.c. motor is
b) Series motor a) Directly proportional to flux per pole
c) Shunt Motor b) Inversely proportional to flux per pole
d) Cumulative compound motor c) Inversely proportional to the applied voltage
5. Which DC motor is preferred for constant d) None of the above
speed? 11. The torque developed by a d.c motor is directly
a) Compound motor proportional to
b) Series motor a) Flux per pole × Armature current
c) Shunt motor b) Armature resistance × Applied voltage
d) Differential motor c) Armature Resistance × Armature current
6. Why is the speed of DC shunt motor d) Square of armature resistance
dependent on Back EMF? 12. An 8-pole dc machine has 800 lap wound
a) Because flux is proportional to the armature conductors. The flux per pole of the machine is
current 36mWb. If a no-load induced voltage of 280V is
b) Because armature drop is negligible required. What should be the speed of rotation of
c) Because Back EMF is equal to armature the machine?
current a) 843 rpm
d) Because flux is constant in DC shunt motor b) 2332 rpm

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c) 292 rpm 18. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt

d) 583 rpm generator is 600 V. The armature resistance is
13. As the load is increased, the speed of a dc 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the
shunts motor: terminal voltage will be:
a) Increases proportionately a) 640 V
b) Remain constant b) 620 V
c) Increases slightly c) 600 V
d) None of these. d) 580 V
Ans: a Ans: d
14. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually 19. The load current and field current of a DC shunt
made of: generator are 50A and 5A respectively. Its
a) mica armature current will be:
b) copper a)50A
c) cast iron b) 55A
d) carbon c) 45A
Ans: b d) 40A
15. In lap winding, the number of parallel path is Ans: b
always: 20. A 200V DC Generator has a shunt field
a) Double the number of poles resistance of 200 Ω. Its field current is:
b) same as the number of poles a) 1A
c) half the number of poles b) 2A
d) two c) 3A
Ans: b d) 4A
16. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of: Ans: a
a) Carbon 21. The EMF generated in armature of a D.C.
b) soft copper Motor is called as:
c) hard copper a) Back emf
d) all of above b) Generated emf
Ans: a c) both a & b
17. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has d) None of these
generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed increases Ans: a
to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be 22. The current drawn by a 120V D.C. shunt motor
nearly: of Ra = 0.5Ω and back emf 110V is:
a) 150 V a) 20A
b) 175 V b) 24A
c) 240 V c) 22A
d) 290 V d) 5A
Ans: a Ans: a

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23. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor c) 4%

can be changed by: d) 2%
a) Interchanging supply terminals Ans: d
b) Interchanging field terminals 29. The slip of an induction motor normally does
c) either of (a) and (b) above not depend on
d) None of the above a) rotor speed
Ans: b b) synchronous speed
24. The equation for slip speed is ____________ c) shaft torque
Ns− Nr
a) d) core-loss component
Ns
b) Ns − Nr Ans: d
c) Nr
d) Ns 30. If any two phases for an induction motor are
Ans: b interchanged
25. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has
a) The motor will run in the reverse direction
4% slip. The frequency of rotor current will be:
b) The motor will continue to run in the same
a) 50 Hz
direction
b) 25 Hz
c) The motor will stop
c) 5 Hz
d) The motor will Burn
d) 2 Hz
Ans: a
Ans: d
31. An induction Motor is
26. The frame of an induction motor is usually
a) Self-starting with high torque
made of
b) Self-starting with zero torque
a) Silicon steel
c) Self-starting with low torque
b) Cast iron
d) Not self-starting
c) Aluminum
Ans: a
d) Bronze
32. In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors
Ans: b
a) Rotor conductors are kept open
27. A 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full
b) Rotor conductor ends are short-circuited
load speed of 1440 r.p.m. The number of poles
through slip rings
in the motor is
c) Rotor conductors are short-circuited through
a) 2 pole
end rings
b) 4 pole
d) Rotor conductors are connected to the
c) 6 pole
insulation
d) 8 pole
Ans: c
Ans: b
33. At standstill condition the value of slip is
28. A three phase, 4 poles, 50 Hz induction motor
a) 0
has a full load speed of 1440 rpm. The full load
b) Infinity
slip will be
c) One
a) 3%
d) None of the above
b) 5%
Ans: c

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34. Rotor resistance speed control method is not Hz. Then the full load slip and the corresponding
applicable in speed.
a) Slip Ring induction motor a) 4% & 750
b) Squirrel cage induction motor b) 4% & 720
c) Synchronous motor c) 5% & 1000
d) None of the above d) 5% & 1500
Ans: b Ans: b
35. If the terminal voltage of an induction motor is 40. A 4 pole, 3 phase, 50 Hz induction motor runs
decreased then current at a speed of 1470 r.p.m. speed. Then the
a) Decreased frequency of the induced e.m.f. in the rotor
b) Increased under this condition.
c) Remain same a) 1 Hz
d) None of the above b) 2 Hz
Ans: a c) 5 Hz
36. A 4 pole 50 Hz induction motor is running at d) 6 Hz
1300 rpm. Find the speed of stator magnetic Ans: a
field with respect to the rotor? 41. A single-phase induction motor is:
a) 1500 rpm a) Inherently self-starting motor
b) 200 rpm b) Inherently self-starting with low torque
c) 1300 rpm c) Inherently not-self-starting motor
d) 3000 rpm d) none of these
Ans: b Ans: c
37. Induction motors have the advantage of 42. In a single phase motor the centrifugal switch;
a) Less Maintenance a) Disconnects auxiliary winding of the motor
b) Less cost b) Disconnects main winding of the motor
c) Simple in construction c) Reconnects the main winding the motor
d) All of the above d) reconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor
Ans: d Ans: a
38. If the frequency of 3-phase supply to the stator 43. In a split phase motor, the running winding
of a 3-phase induction motor is increased, then should have
synchronous speed a) High resistance and low inductance
a) Increased b) low resistance and high inductance
b) Decreased c) High resistance as well as high inductance
c) Remain unchanged d) low resistance as well as low inductance
d) None of the above Ans:b
Ans: a 44. Which of the following methods is used to start
39. An 8 pole, three phase induction motor is a synchronous motor ?
supplied from 50 Hz, a.c. supply. On full load, a) Damper winding
the frequency of induced EMF in the rotor is 2 b) Star-delta starter

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c) Damper winding in conjunction with star- 50. Which of the following law/rule can be used to
delta starter determine the direction of rotation of DC
d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit motor?
Ans: a a) Lenz's law
45. Synchronous motors are; b) Faraday's law
a) Not-self starting c) Coloumb's law
b) self-starting d) Fleming's left-hand rule
c) essentially self-starting Answer: (d)
d) None of the above 51. The power mentioned on the nameplate of an
Ans: a electric motor indicates
46. A synchronous motor will always stop when: a) the power drawn in kW
a) Supply voltage fluctuates b) the power drawn in kVA
b) load in motor varies c) the gross power
c) excitation winding gets disconnected d) the output power available at the shaft
d) Supply voltage frequency changes Answer: (d)
Ans: c 52. The speed of a DC motor can be varied by
47. For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph varying
is drawn between: a) field current
a) Field current and armature current b) applied voltage
b) terminal voltage and load factor c) resistance in series with armature
c) Power factor and field current d) any of the above
d) armature current and power factor Answer: (d)
Ans: d 53. When the armature of a DC motor rotates, emf
48. Synchronous motor always runs at induced is
a) The synchronous speed a) self-induced emf
b) less than synchronous speed b) mutually induced emf
c) more than synchronous speed c) back emf
d) None of the above d) none of the above
Ans: a Answer: (c)
49. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be 54. Torque developed by a DC motor depends upon
easily confirmed that a particular motor is DC a) magnetic field
motor? b) length of the conductors
a) Frame c) number of conductors
b) Shaft d) all of above
c) Commutator Answer: (d)
d) Stator 55. Synchronous motor always runs at
Answer: (c) a) the synchronous speed
b) less than synchronous speed
c) more than synchronous speed

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d) none of above b) Voltage

Answer: (a) c) Speed
56. The working of synchronous motor is similar to d) None of the above
a) gear train arrangement Answer: (c)
b) transmission of mechanical power by shaft 61. Brushes of DC machines are made of
c) distribution transformer a) Carbon
d) turbine b) Soft copper
Answer: (b) c) Hard copper
57. Mostly, synchronous motors are of d) All of above
a) alternator type machines Answer: (a)
b) induction type machines 62. For a DC machines laboratory following type of
c) salient pole type machines DC supply will be suitable
d) smooth cylinderical type machines a) Rotary converter
b) Mercury arc rectifier
Answer: (c)
c) Induction motor DC generator set
58. In which of the following motors the stator and d) Synchronous motor DC generator set
rotor magnetic field rotate at the same speed? Answer: (c)
a) Universal motor 63. The emf generated in a DC generator is directly
b) Synchronous motor proportional to
c) Induction motor a) Flux/pole
d) Reluctance motor b) Speed of armature
Answer: (b) c) Number of poles
59. When load is placed on 3-phase induction d) All of the above
motor its slip Answer: (b)
a) increases 64. A DC generator can be considered as
b) decreases a) Rectifier
c) remains constant b) Prime mover
d) does not depend on load c) Rotating amplifier
Answer:(a) d) Power pump
59. Capacitor start and run 1-phase IM is basically Answer: (c)
a 65. A DC generator works on the principle of
a) 1-ph induction motor a) Lenz's law
b) 2-ph induction motor b) Ohm's law
c) 1-ph reluctance induction motor c) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
d) 3-ph induction motor d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Answer: (c)
60. In case of DC machines, mechanical losses are 66. A DC series motor is that which
primary function of a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire
a) Current and less turns

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b) has a poor torque

c) can be started easily without load
d) has almost constant speed
Answer: (a)
67. These days DC motors are widely used in
a) pumping sets
b) air compressors
c) electric traction
d) machine shops
Answer: (c)

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Unit-V
1. Fusing factor should be d) Tin
a) Equal to zero Ans: (b)
b) Less than now 7. H.R.C. fuses has
c) Equal to one a) High rating of current
d) More than one b) High rupturing capacity
Ans: (d) c) High resistance capacity
2. Fuse wire should possess d) None of these
a) High specific resistance and high melting Ans: (b)
point 8. Selection of fuse is based on
b) High specific resistance and low melting a) Steady load
point b) Fluctuating load
c) Low specific resistance and low melting c) a & b
point d) None of these
d) Low specific resistance and high melting Ans: (c)
point 9. Which among these are the main characteristics
Ans: (d) of a fuse element?
3. Fusing factor is defined as the ratio between a). Low melting point
a) Maximum fusing current and rated voltage b). High conductivity
b) Maximum fusing current and rated current c). Least deterioration due to oxidation
c) Minimum fusing current and rated current d). All of the above
d) Minimum fusing current and rated voltage Ans (d)
Ans: (c) 10. For a current upto 10A which material is used
4. Fuses can serve upto a current of as the fusing element?
a) 25 A a) Copper
b) 50 A b) Silver
c) 75 A c) Alloy of lead and tin
d) 100 A d) Zinc
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
5. Cut-off current in a fuse is the 11. What is fusing factor?
a) Maximum value actually reached a) The ratio of current rating of the fuse to the
b) R.m.s. value actually reached minimum fusing current.
c) Average value actually reached b) The ratio of minimum fusing current to the
d) None of these current rating of the fuse.
Ans: (a) c) The ratio of maximum fusing current to the
6. Best practicable material for a fuse wire is current rating of the fuse.
a) Aluminium d) The ratio of minimum fusing current to the
b) Copper voltage rating of the fuse
c) Iron Ans: (b)

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12. Fuse is a device which is used for d) two way switch

___________. Ans: (c)
a) protection 18. A circuit breaker is
b) amplification a) power factor correcting device
c) impedance matching b) a device to neutralize the effect of transients
d) none of above c) a waveform correcting device
Ans: (a) d) a current interrupting device.
13. Fuse is used in circuit for ________________. Ans: (d)
a) Equipment Safety 19. Which device can be used as switch and as well
b) Human Safety as protective device?
c) None of Above a) Triple pole iron clad switch
d) a & b are correct b) Intermediate switch
Ans: (d) c) Miniature circuit breaker
14. The melting point of Fuse element is d) Earth leakage circuit breaker
____________. Ans. (c)
a) low 20. ELCB stands for ......
b) medium a) Electrical Leakage Circuit Breaker
c) high b) Earth Leakage Current Breaker
d) all are correct c) Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker
Ans: (c) d) Electrical Line Circuit Breaker
21. Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker (ELCB) works
15. Fuse wire are always connected with on the principle of......
_________. a) Over load current
a) Phase b) Short circuit current
b) neutral c) Residual current
c) earth d) Neutral current
d) all are correct Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) 22. An ELCB must always be connected in the
16. The cheapest form of protection is circuit......
___________. a) Before energy meter
a) relay b) After energy meter
b) circuit breaker c) At the entry of supply to load after energy
c) fuse meter
d) switch d) Tail end of the installation
Ans: (c) Ans: (c)
17. Miniature circuit breaker is a small 23. ELCBs are specially used to disconnect the
a) fuse supply under......
b) magnetic switch a) Short circuit condition
c) electromagnetic switch b) Ground fault condition

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c) Open circuit condition c). Simplified design earth fault protection

d) Over load condition d). All of the above
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
24. The expansion form of RCCB is ...... 30. The advantage of neutral earthing
a) Residual Current Circuit Breaker a). Safety of personnel
b) Residual Circuit Current Breaker b). Reduction of earth fault current
c) Residual Current Control Breaker c). Elemination of arcing ground
d) Residual Control Circuit Breaker d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
25. Expansion of MCCB is ...... 31. Ground resistance should be designed such that
a) Moulded Case Circuit Breaker a) Grounding resistance should be always zero
b) Main Case Circuit Breaker b) Grounding resistance should be as low as
c) Main Control Circuit Breaker possible
d) Main Current Circuit Breaker c) Grounding resistance should be as high as
Ans: (a) possible
26. What is the purpose of Earth Leakage Circuit d) All of the above
Breaker in building wiring installation? Ans. (b)
a) It protects the appliances from excess current 32. The earthing rod orientation in the pit should
b) It prevents the waste of electrical energy be:
consumption a) 45°
c) It establishes the supply voltage b) Horizontal
d) It protects the energy meter from short circuit c) Vertical
Ans: (b) d) 75°
27. The main disadvantage of ELCB is ...... Ans. (c)
a) Less reliable in operation 33. Moisture content in the soil _______ the earth
b) Not easy to install soil resistance.
c) Not easy to maintain a) increase
d) More costly b) decrease
Ans: (d) c) does not affect
28. Earthing is necessary to give protection against d) none of the above
a). Danger of electric shock Ans. (b)
b). Voltage fluctuation 34. Which of the following will damage when High
c). Overloading voltages originated due to Line to Ground faults
d). High temperature of the conductors in ungrounded system?
Ans: (a) a) Insulation damage
29. The advantage of neutral earthing is b) Conductors melt down
a). Freedom from persistent arcing grounds c) Will not have any effect
b). Over voltages due to lightning can be d) Fires
discharged to earth Ans. (a)

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35. The objective of earthing or grounding is ____. Ans. (a)

a). to provide as low resistance possible to the 41. In the cables, the location of fault is usually
ground found out by comparing
b). to provide as high resistance possible to the a) The resistance of the conductor
ground b) The inductance of conductors
c). to provide flow of positive, negative and c) The capacitances of insulated conductors
zero sequence currents d) All above parameters
d). None of the above Ans: (a)
Ans. (a) 42. A cable carrying alternating current has
36. Which type of earthing is used by transmission a) Hysteresis losses only
lines? b) Hysteresis and leakage losses only
a) Plate earthing c) Hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
b) Rod earthing d) Hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction
c) Strip earthing losses
d) All of the above Ans: (b)
Ans. (c) 43. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on
37. What is earthing? a) Presence of moisture
a) connecting electrical machines to earth b) Working temperature
b) providing a connection to the ground c) Time of application of the voltage
c) connecting the electrical machines to source d) All of the above
d) providing a source of current Ans: (d)
Ans. (a) 44. Solid type cables are considered unreliable
38. The bedding on a cable consists of beyond 66 kV because
a) Hessian cloth a) Insulation may melt due to higher
b) Jute temperature
c) Any of the above b) Skin effect dominates on the conductor
d) None of the above c) Of corona loss between conductor and
Ans. (c) sheath material
39. _________ cables are used for 132 kV lines. d) There is a danger of breakdown of
a) High tension insulation due to the presence of voids
b) Super tension Answer: (d)
c) Extra high tension 45. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be
d) Extra super voltage avoided economically by the use of
Ans. (d) a) Inter-sheaths
40. High tension cables are generally used up to b) Insulating materials with different dielectric
a) 11 kV constants
b) 33 kV c) Both (a) and (b)
c) 66 kV d) None of the above
d) 132 kV Answer: (c)

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46. The bedding on a cable consists of b) Voltage rating

a) Hessian cloth c) Ampere hour rating
b) Jute d) None of the above
c) Any of the above Ans: (c)
d) None of the above 53. The storage battery generally used in electric
Answer: (c) power station is
47. Cables are used for 132 kV lines. a) Nickel-cadmium battery
a) High tension b) Zinc carbon battery
b) Super tension c) Lead-acid battery
c) Extra high tension d) None of the above
d) Extra super voltage Ans: (c)
Answer: (d) 54. Battery charging equipment is generally
48. PVC stands for installed
a) Polyvinyl chloride a) In well ventilated location
b) Post varnish conductor b) In clean and dry place
c) Pressed and varnished cloth c) As near as practical to the battery being
d) Positive voltage conductor charged
Answer: (a) d) In location having all above features
49. High tension cables are generally used up to Ans: (d)
a) 11 kV 55. What gets deposited on the plates of a
b) 33 kV discharged lead-acid battery?
c) 66 kV a) PbO2
d) 132 kV b) Pb2O4
Answer: (a) c) Pb
50. The insulating material for cables should d) PbSO4
a) Be acid proof Answer: (d)
b) Be non-inflammable 56. Which is the electrolyte used in Li-ion battery?
c) Be non-hygroscopic a) Lead dioxide
d) Have all above properties b) Lithium-based gel
Answer: (a) c) Sulfur dioxide
51. The insulating material for a cable should have d) Cobalt
a) Low cost Answer: (b)
b) High dielectric strength 57. Which of the following statement is true for the
c) High mechanical strength movement of electrons concerning the direction
d) All of the above of current?
Answer: (c) a) Same as the direction of current
52. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms b) Opposite direction of current
of c) Does not depend on the direction of current
a) Current rating d) No movement of electrons

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Answer: (b) b) Discharge rate is higher

58. Which is the material used to as anode in a c) Delivers large amount of power
lithium-ion battery? d) All of the above
a) Brass foil coated with graphite Answer: (d)
b) Aluminum foil coated with graphite 64. Number of cells connected in series provide a
c) Copper foil coated with graphite —–
d) Stainless steel coated with graphite a) High current carrying capacity
Answer: (b) b) Higher Voltage
59. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of c) Higher power
a lithium-ion battery? d) None of the above
a) Complex to manufacture Answer: (b)
b) Sophisticated chargers 65. Number of cells connected in parallel provide
c) More expensive a——-
d) High energy density a) High current carrying capacity
Answer: (d) b) Higher voltage
60. In Ideal case, the Charging current for 200Ah c) Higher power
battery would be ____ ? d) None of the above
a) 10 A Answer: (a)
b) 12 A 66. Active materials of a lead acid cell are
c) 15 A a) Spongy lead
d) 20 A b) Lead peroxide
Answer: (d). c) Dilute H2SO4
61. In Ideal case, the Charging Time for 200Ah d) All of the above
battery would be ______ ? Ans: (d)
a) 5 hours 67. Sulphation in a lead acid battery occurs due to
b) 10 hours a) Heavy charging
c) 15 hours b) Fast charging
d) 20 hours c) Trickle charging
Answer: (b) d) Incomplete charging
62. One (1) Ah = ________? Ans: (d)
a) 1C 68. During the charging of a lead acid cell
b) 1200C a) It's voltage increases
c) 2400C b) It gives out energy
d) 3600C c) It's cathode becomes dark chocolate brown
Answer: (d) in colour
63. Nickel-Cadmium batteries are preferred more d) Specific gravity of H2 SO4 decreases
than Lead-Acid batteries in military Ans: (a)
applications because——– 69. Which of the following statement is correct
a) Can be easily charged and discharged. about lead acid batteries

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a) it delivers current as soon as its components b) slightly increases with the increase in
are put together temperature
b) density of electrolyte increases while c) decreases with the increase in temperature
delivering current d) both (a) and (b)
c) it does not deliver current on putting its Answer: (d)
components together until it is supplied 75. A bulb has a power of 200W. What is the
electrical energy from external source energy dissipated by it in 5 minutes?
d) it has lead as positive plates a) 60J
Answer: (c) b) 1000J
70. During discharging of lead acid cells, the c) 60kJ
terminal voltage decreases with the decrease in d) 1kJ
a) temperature Answer:( c)
b) discharge rate 76. Which among the following is an expression
c) state of charge for energy?
d) none of these a) V2It
Answer: (b) b) V2Rt
71. In a lead acid battery, separators are provided to c) V2t/R
a) reduce internal resistance d) V2t2/R
b) facilitate flow of the current Answer: (c)
c) avoid internal short circuits 77. A 100 W bulb will consume how much energy
d) increase the energy efficiency when switched on for 10 hours:
Answer: (c) a) 0.1 kWh
72. Common impurity in a battery electrolyte is b) 1 Wh
a) dust particles c) 1 kWh
b) iron d) 10 kWh
c) lead crystals Answer: (c)
d) sodium chloride 78. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-
Answer: (b) hour efficiency of a lead acid cell is
73. In a lead acid battery, excessive formation of a) just one.
lead sulphate occurs due to b) always greater than one.
a) idleness of battery for a long time c) always less than one.
b) low level of electrolyte d) none of the above.
c) persistent undercharging Ans: b
d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
74. The EMF of a lead acid battery
a) increases with the increase in specific gravity
of the electrolyte

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