HEMA KLUBSY BEAR FINAL COACHING c.

d.
15
20
PLEASE AVOID SPREADING THE NOTES. THANK YOU SO
8. The proliferative phase of the metamyelocyte stage
MUCH . PINAGHIRAPAN PO NATIN ITO
comes to an end after cell divisions
1. How many iron atom(s) and pyrrole rings, respectively, a. 2 to 3
compromise the heme portion of the hemoglobin b. 6 to 7
molecule? c. 8 to 9
a. 2 and 3 d. 4 to 5
b. 2 and 4 9. Which refer to a negative kleihauer-Betke test?
c. 1 and 4 1. RBC appear as pale pink ghost
d. 1 and 3 2. RBC are deeply stained red
2. Surface membrane reorganization occurs with the 3. Hb is denatured
transformation of the platelet from discoid to an a/an 4. Hb resists denaturation
shape with pseudopods
a. 1 and 3
a. Elliptical
b. 2 and 3
b. Ovoid
c. 1 and 4
c. Elongated
d. 2 and 4
d. Spherical
3. What is the solid tumor counterpart of acute 10. The basophils remain in the maturation stage phase for
lymphoblastic leukemia? approximately hours
a. Lymphoma, well leukemia a. 12
differentiated;lymphocytic b. 10
b. Lymphoma, poorly leukemia c. 15
differentiated; lymphocytic d. 8
c. Myeloma
11. What is the recommended target INR range most
d. Reticulum sarcoma indications such treatment or prophylaxis of deep vein
4. Short draw in an evacuated tube causes the thrombosis(DVT)?
hematocrit reading to be A. 0.5-1.0
a. Erratic B. 1.0-2.0
b. Decreased C. 2.0-3.0
c. Inconsistent D. 3.0-4.0
d. Increased 12. Hemoglobin appears for the first time at the
5. The deficient factor is factor VIII. What would be result stage
for PT, PTT, and TCT, respectively, using clot based a. Metarubricyte
screening assays? b. Rubricyte
a. Normal , prolonged, normal c. Prorubricyte
b. Prolonged, prolonged, prolonged d. Polychromatic erythrocyte
c. Prolonged, normal , normal 13. Which area in mm2 is used four counting platelets?
d. Prolonged, normal, prolonged a. 4
b. 9
6. Which groups are NOT at increased risk of
c. 1
thrombosis?
d. 0.4
1. Young adults
14. Which are the primary target cells of EPO?
2. Children
a. Leukemic myeloblasts
3. Infants
b. Fibroblasts
4. Neonates
c. Bone marrow erythroid progenitors
a. 1,2 and 3
d. Neutrophil precursors
b. 2,3, and 4
15. Endomitosis occurs at which phase of
c. 2 and 3
thrombopoiesis
d. 3 and 4
a. Maturation
7. After how many minutes should counting of the WBCs b. Circulation
commence after charging the hemocytometer with c. Proliferation
the diluted blood? d. Shedding
a. 5
b. 10 16. Which is the general description of cytoplasmic color
in younger cells?
a. Lighter blue

I.K Aytona Page 1

 b. Pinkish 23. Using the push-type wedge preparation, routine peripheral
c. Grayish blood smear is prepared using a drop of blood with a
d. Dark blue diameter of about mm
17. Which are considered in pre-analytical quality A. 2 to 3
assurance in relation to specimen management? B. 2 to 4
1. Correctly separated/centrifuged C. 1 to 3
2. Tests done within specified timeframes D. 1 to 4
3. Intact and seal
24. What is the last RBC maturation stage that
4. Stored properly
undergoes mitosis?
a. 1,2 and 4
a. 5th stage
b. 1 and 4
b. 2nd stage
c. 2 and 4
c. 3rd stage
d. 2,3 and 4
d. 4th stage
18. In aplastic anemia, which describe/s the bone
marrow? 25. Using an automated hematology analyzer, presence of
1. Empty large platelet clumps may increase count
2. Packed with blood cells a. RBC
3. Hypoplastic b. Rective
4. Hyperplastic c. Nucleated RBC
a. 1 and 3 d. WBC
b. 2 and 4 26. Which are involved in the stem cell mobilization?
c. 1 a. IL-2 and G-CSF
d. 2 b. G-CSF, IL-2, and GM-CSF
19. Which are the newer approaches in the diagnosis of c. IL-3, G-CSF, and GM-CSF
acute leukemias? d. IL-2 and IL-3
1. Flow cytometry
2. Cytogenetic analysis 27. Which stage of the cell cycle is referred to by the
3. Cytochemical stains following?
4. Molecular testing 1. The tetraploid DNA is checked for proper
a. 2 and 3 replication and damage
b. 1 and 4
2. Takes approximately 4 hours
c. 1,2 and 4 a. G1
d. 1,2 and 3 b. G2
c. M
20. Which uses detection of interference in a laser beam or d. S
light source to differentiate and enumerate cell types?
a. Radiofrequency resistance 28. Which represents nuclear fragment remnants
b. Optical scatter predominantly composed of DNA(from karyorrhexis or
nuclear disintegration)?
c. Laser technology
a. Hemoglobin crystals
d. Electrical impedance
b. Pappenheimer bodies
21. Which compose the adult hemoglobin? c. Heinz bodies
1. Heme groups d. Howell-Jolly bodies
2. Polypeptide chains 29. In sickle cell anemia, trapped plasma using
3. Amino acids microhematocrit result to an increase of %
a. 1 ,2 and 3 a. 1 to 3
b. 1 and 2 b. 4-6
c. 3 c. 3-6
d. 2-5
d. 1
30. The precursor of neutrophil is
22. Which cells contains granules with Charcot-Leyden crystal a. Myelocyte
protein? b. Band
a. Eosinophil c. Promyelocyte
b. Monocyte d. Metamyelocyte
c. Neutrophil 31. Which coagulation factor is a mineral?
d. Basophil a. Xii
b. XIII

I.K Aytona Page 2

 c. III 2. Normal fibrinogen level
d. IV 3. Fibrin degradation products significantly
32. How can the relationship of MPV with platelet count increased
be described? a. 1 and 3
a. Indeterminate b. 2 and 3
b. Directly proportional c. 1 and 2
c. Inversely proportional d. 1,2 and 3
d. Inconsistent
33. The following findings refer to which anemia? 39. Which are locations of the adult hematopoiesis tissue
*Microcytic, and hypochromic 1. Lymph nodes
*Caused by poor dietary intake or chronic blood loss 2. Spleen
*characterized by pallor, fatigue, and weakness 3. Liver
a. Thalassemia 4. Thymus
b. Aplastic a. 1 ,3 and 4
b. 2 ,3 and 4
c. Sickle cell
c. 1,2 and 3
d. Iron
d. 1,2 ,3 and 4
deficiency
40. Which coagulation factor is a thrombin substrate?
a. II
34. Which coagulation factors composes the fibrinogen
b. III
group?
c. IV
1. I
d. I
2. V
41. Which medical conditions are associated with the round,
3. VIII
solid-staining, dark blue to purple inclusions, frequently
4. XIII
seen in mature erythrocytes but may also be seen in
a. 1,2 and 3
immature nucleated cells?
b. 1,2 ,3 and 4
a. Hemolytic anemia, and pernicious anemia
c. 1 and 2
b. Physical atrophy of the spleen and defective or
d. 3 and 4
accelerated heme synthesis
35. What is the solid tumor counterpart of plasma cell c. Hemolytic anemia, pernicious anemia, and
leukemia?
physical atrophy of the spleen
a. Lymphoma , well leukemia d. Pernicious anemia, hemolytic anemia, physical
differentiated;lymphocytic atrophy of the spleen, and defective or accelerated
b. Lymphoma, poorly leukemia differentiated; heme synthesis
lymphocytic 42. Which is a sensitive early marker for factor VII
c. Myeloma activity in mild liver disease?
d. Reticulum sarcoma a. PTT
b. Fibrinogen assay
36. Which are formed during the maturation series of the
c. Thrombin time
eosinophils?
1. Primary granules d. Prothrombin time

2. Lipid bodies 43. An MCHC between 36 and 38 g/dl should be

3. Storage vesicles checked for
4. Secondary granules a. Elliptocytes
a. 1 and 2 b. Spherocytes
b. 1 and 4 c. Stomatocytes
c. 1,2,3 and 4 d. Ovalocytes
d. 1 ,3 and 4
37. Swelling around the puncture site due to the leakage of 44. The positive predictive value predicts the probability than
a large amount of blood is caused by an individual with a positive assay result _ disease or
a. Ecchymosis condition
b. Petechiae a. May have
c. Hematoma b. Has
d. Bruise c. Could have
d. Will have
38. Which are laboratory findings in acute,
uncompensated DIC?
1. Prolonged PT, PTT, and thrombin time

I.K Aytona Page 3

 45. Which are antibody producing lymphocytes? a. 1 and 2
a. T b. 2 and 3
b. NK c. 1,2 and 3
c. TH d. 1 and 2
d. B
46. If MPV is done within an hour after blood collecting in 54. Which triggers acquired bleeding disorder?
EDTA tube, MPV will be increased by about? 1. Vitamin K deficiency
a. 15 2. Vitamin C deficiency
b. 10 3. Factor IX deficiency
c. 5 4. Penetrating trauma
d. 20 a. 1,2 and 4
b. 3 and 4
47. Which platelet anatomical area or zone provides the c. 1,2 and 3
cytoskeleton? d. 1 and 2
a. Peripheral
b. Organelle 55. Which does not exhibit myeloperoxidase?
c. Membranous system a. Eosinophil
d. Sol gel zone b. Neutrophils
c. Lymphocytes
48. To avoid a falsely high hemoglobin, the drabkin- sample d. Monocytes
solution needs to be centrifuged and the supernatant
measured if platelet count is greater than 56. Using the push-type wedge preparation, routine
a. 700 x 109 / L peripheral blood smear is prepared at an angle of
b. 900 x 109 / L degrees
c. 800 x 109 / L a. 10 to 15
d. 600 x 109 / L b. 30 to 45
c. 20 to 30
49. Which may occur with inadequate fibrinolysis? d. 15 to 20
a. Thrombosis and incomplete wound healing
57. Which syndrome demonstrates the smallest platelet
b. Clot extension, thrombosis , and incomplete observed?
wound healing
a. Wiskott- Aldrich
c. Clot extension, and incomplete wound healing
b. Bernard soulier
d. Clot extension, and thrombosis
c. May hegglin
50. Which syndrome is characterized by the presence of large
d. Alport
platelets and the presence of Dohle-like bodies in the
58. To ensure that the RBC have lyzed, how many minutes
granulocytic leukocytes?
should the diluted blood for WBC count sit before
a. May hegglin
charging the hemocytometer?
b. Bernard soulier
a. 20
c. Alport syndrome
b. 10
d. Wiskott-Aldrich
c. 15
51. Are counted for WBC is mm2
d. 5
a. 4
59. MPV values should be based on specimens that are
b. 0.2
between hours old
c. 0.4
a. 1-4
d. 1
b. 4-5
52. At what maturational stage of the neutrophilic series
c. 3-6
do a densely packed chromatin occurs?
d. 2-5
a. Band
60. The deficient factor is factor IX. What would be result
b. Segmented for PT, PTT, and TCT, respectively, using clot based
c. Myelocyte screening assays?
d. Promyelocyte A. Normal , prolonged, normal
53. Which are functions of platelet of the platelet B. Prolonged, prolonged, prolonged
cytoskeleton? C. Prolonged, normal , normal
1. Maintains the circulating discoid shape of the cell D. Prolonged, normal, prolonged
2. Maintains position of the organelles
3. Mediates membrane contact reactions

I.K Aytona Page 4

 61. Which are examples of analytical errors? 68. Aprroximately, how much is the increase of fibrinogen
1.verbal reporting of result in mg/dl in the elderly (65 to 79 years) per decade?
2.oversight of instrument flags a. 25
3.out of control QC results
4.Wrong assay performed b. 15
a. 2,3 and 4 c. 10
b.3 and 4 d. 20
c.1,2, and 3
69. Which are areas of the platelet peripheral zone?
d.1 and 2
1. Glycocalyx
62. The deficient factor is factor XI. What would be result 2. Plasma membrane
for PT, PTT, and TCT, respectively, using clot based 3. Sub membranous
screening assays? a. 2 and 3
A. Prolonged, prolonged, prolonged b. 1 ,2 and 3
B. Prolonged, normal, prolonged c. 1 and 2
C. Normal, prolonged, normal d. 1 and 3
D. Prolonged, normal, normal 70. The following are work practice controls, EXCEPT:
A. Splash guard
63. If blood for ESR is kept overnight at the B. Hand washing
refrigerator and ESR done immediately the
C. Avoiding recapping
following morning, the result will be
D. Warning signage
a. Decreased
b. Erratic 71. During handwashing, what should be the position of the
c. Increased hands when rinsing?
d. Inconsistent a. Unimportant
64. Which is a postphlebotomy neurological b. upward
complication? c. downward
a. Nerve damage d. Circular
b. Reflex arteriospasm 72. Which are stained by PERIODIC ACID SCHIFF?
c. Thrombosis a. Enzymes
d. Pseudoaneurysm b. Lipids
c. Glycogen
65. The following refer to which acquired syndrome?
d. Proteins
*Uncontrolled activation of thrombin and consumptions
of coagulation factors, platelets, and fibrinolytic proteins
73. Which are typical disorders of acquired platelet
dysfunctions?
*secondary to an underlying disorder and is
associated with a number of clinical conditions 1. Uremia
a. TTP 2. Pernicious anemia
B.rosenthal syndrome 3. Bernard soulier syndrome
C.DIC 4. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
D.Von willebran disease a. 2 and 4
b. 3 and 4
66. The new type of thromboplastins for measuring the PT are c. 1 and 3
recombinantly derived tissue factor
d. 1 and 2
a. Rabbit
b. Mouse 74. The deficient factor is Prothrombin. What would be result
c. Human for PT, PTT, and TCT, respectively, using clot based
d. Porcine screening assays?
67. Which are BASIC statistics used for quality a. Normal , prolonged, normal
assurance? b. Prolonged, prolonged, normal
1. Measures of central tendency c. Prolonged, normal , normal
2. Measures of dispersion d. Prolonged, normal, prolonged
3. Measures of probability 75. If the concentration of anticoagulant is increased,
a. 2 and 3 ESR will be
b. 1 and 2 a. Inconsistent
c. 1 and 3 b. Higher
d. 1,2 and 3 c. Erratic
d. Lower
76. The chromatin of MK-II is:

I.K Aytona Page 5

 a. Moderately condensed
b. Homogenous
c. Deeply and variably condensed 84. The objective used for WBC count is ___x
d. Heterogenous a. 40
b. 10
77. Proportion without a disease who have a negative test
result compared with all individuals who have a negative c. 45
test result is d. 50
a. Diagnostic specificity
b. Negative predictive value 85. Which generally describes the platelet production if
c. Positive predictive value megakaryocyte possess more nuclear lobes?
d. Diagnostic sensitivity a. Inverse relationship
78. Demarcation membrane system is present in which of b. No relationship
the following? c. Lower
1. MK 1 d. Higher
2. MK II
3. MK III 86. The building block of hemostatic plug is
a. 1,2 and 3 a. Fibrin
b. 2 and 3 b. Tissue factor
c. 1 and 3 c. Thrombin
d. 1 and 2 d. Prothrombin fragments
79. Which are examples of abnormal hemoglobin due to 87. Which is measure of the uniformity of platelet size?
abnormal rate of synthesis ? a. PDW
a. Hb S, Hb C, and HB SS b. RCMI
b. Hb SS and thalassemia c. RDW
c. HB S, Hb C, and alpha thalassemia d. MPV
d. Alpha thalassemia, and Beta thalassemia 88. Differential scatter is the combination of light
80. Which platelet appear in compensation for scatter
thrombocytopenia? a. Low angle and forward angle
1. Circulating b. Forward and orthogonal
2. Resting c. High angle and orthogonal

3. Stress
d. Low angle and high angle

a. 1 and 2 89. Which concentration of sodium citrate , expressed in

b. 2 and 3 percentage, has be adopted by the international council
c. 3 for standardization for coagulation studies?
a. 3.2
d. 1
b.3.8
c.2.2
81. Which stain (s) granulocytic cells only? d.2.9
1. Esterase
2. Napthol AS-D chloroacetate 90. Using the push type wedge technique, peripheral blood
smear from a polycythemic patient is prepared at an
3. Alpha-napthyl butyrate
angle of degrees
4. Alpha- napthly acetate
a. 30
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 b. 35
c. 3 and 4 c. 40
d. 1 d. 25
82. Hematopoiesis that begins around the 19th day of
embyrogenic development after fertilization of is 91. Fitzgerald factor is
phase a. FSP
a. Medullary b. PTA
b. Hepatic c. Prekallekrein
c. Myeloid d. HMWK
d. Mesoblastic
SITUATION
83. Which is the precursor of the orthochromic Hemoglobin and MCH from a lipemic and icteric specimen were
normoblast? done using an automated hematology analyzer.
a. Polychromatic erythrocyte 92. What is the expected hemoglobin?
b. Pronormoblast 1. Decreased
c. Basophilic normoblast 2. Increased

d. Polychromatic normoblast 3. Inaccurate

I.K Aytona Page 6

 4. Imprecise a. Cirrhosis
a. 1 and 3 b. Erythroleukemia
b. 1 and 4 c. Aplastic leukemia
c. 2 and 3 d. Chronic liver diseae
d. 2 and 4
99. Which are caused by maturation defects?
93. What is the expected MCH? 1. Vitamin B12 deficiency
1. DECREASED 2. Folate deficiency
2. Increased 3. Myelodysplasia
3. Inaccurate 4. Iron deficiency
4. Imprecise a. 1 and 4
a. 1 and 3 b. 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 4 d. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4
100. What are the mechanisms of anemia?
94. Using the manual method, what can be expected for 1. Impaired red cell production
hemoglobin result? 2. Accelerated red cell destruction
a. Lower 3. Blood loss
b. Higher a. 2 and 3
c. Indeterminate b. 1 and 3
d. Same c. 1,2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
SITUATION
The FAB Classification of AML is used. Features include abnormal 101. If the RBCs are larger than normal, to which side of the
proliferation of both erythroid and granulocytic precursors, which histogram will the cells be expected?
may include abnormal megakaryocyte and monocytic proliferations a. Indeterminate
b. Right
95. What is the subtype?
c. Left
a. M5b
d. Middle
b. M6
c. M4 102. Duplicate reticulocyte count should agree within
d. M7 a. 20%
b. 15%
96. What is the name?
c. 10%
a. Acute megakaryocytic leukemia d. 5%
b. Acute erythroid leukemia, well differentiated
c. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia 103. Which of the following are parts of stromal cells?
d. Acute erythroleukemia 1. Endothelial
2. Adipose
97. If the FAB classification is ALL and the following are 3. Osteoclast
the features observed, what is the subtype?
4. Hematopoietic stem cell
*small blasts
a. 1 and 4
*indistinct nuclear shape
*scant nucleoli
b. 2,3 and 4
*invisible cytoplasm c. 2 and 3
a. L1 d. 1,2 and 3
b.L2
104. There is shift to the left, which cells are increased?
c.L3
1. Segmented neutrophils
d. L4
2. Band cells
SITUATION 3. Metamyelocyte
The cells are macrocytic. MCV is greater than 100femtoliter. 4. Myelocytes
a. 2,3 and 4
98. Using the algorithm for morphological classification of b. 1,2,3
anemia based on the MCV, which anemia is the
c. 3 and 4
megaloblastic condition to be considered?
d. 1,2,3, and 4

I.K Aytona Page 7

 105. Which should be included in the laboratory 111. Eosinophils remain in the maturation storage phase for
procedure manual? about days
A. Reference “normal “ ranges a. 5.5
B. List of supervisors b. 2.5
C. Technical sources of error c. 3.5
D. Limitation of the procedure d. 4.5
a. 2 and 3 112. The following refers to which type of anemia?
b. 1,2 and 3 *an autosomal recessive or X-linked
*manifesting in childhood or early adult life
c. 1 and 4
*characterized by mental retardation, absence of the thumb
d. 1,3 and 4
and radius, small stature, hypogonadism, and patchy brown
106. Major categories of thrombocytosis are associated with discoloration of the skin
which of the following? a. Fanconi‟s anemia
A. Germline mutation of the thrombopoietin gene b. Alpha thalassemia
B. Somatic mutation of JAK2 c. Sickle cell anemia
C. Reactive conditions d.B-Thalassemia
a. 1 and 3
113. Each grid of the Levy counting chamber with improved
b. 1,2 and 3
Neubauer ruling has a total area of mm2
c. 2 and 3
a. 9
d. 1 and 2
b. 25
107. The hematocrit is 31% and the RBC count is c. 16
3.3x109 /L, what Is the MCV , expressed in d. 4
FEMTOLITER?
a. 80 114. Dendritic cells originates at (precursor of dendritic cell)
b. 103 a. CMP
c. 94 b. Eosinophil- basophil progenitor
d. 89 c. Granulocyte – monocyte progenitor
d. Common Lymphoid progenitor
108. Which of the following refers to apoptosis? 115. At what maturational stages are tertiary granules
A. Cell size: enlarged due to swelling formed?
B. Cell size: reduced due to shrinkage A. Metamyelocytes
C. Nucleus : randomly breaks and lysis B. Myelocytes
D. Nucleus: condensation and fragmentation C. Band
a. 2 and 4 D. Segmented
b. 1 and 3 a. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4 b. 1 ,2 and 3
d. 2 and 3 c. 1,3 and 4
d. 1 and 3
109. Which is/are caused by a hereditary platelet
aggregation defect? 116. Which hemoglobins are produced during early
A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia embryogenesis?
B. Essential athrombia A. Fetal /Hb F
C. Factor VIII: C deficiency B. GOWER 1
D. Factor IX: C deficiency C. GOWER 2
a. 1 and 2 D. Portland
b. 1 only a. 2 and 3
c. 1,2,3 and 4 b. 2,3 and 4
d. 1,3, and 4 c. 1,2,3, and 4
d. 1,2 and 3
110. In erythropoiesis, at what maturational stage does 117. Correction of the WBC count must be done if NRBC per
mitosis end? 100 WBCs observed is
a. Fifth a. >10
b. Fourth b. >5
c. Third c. >3
d. Second

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 126. The film on slide 1 showed some RBCs with
118. Which is a quantitative estimate of erythrocyte moth- eaten look. Other RBCs were echinocytic
anisocytosis? . What slide drying technique could have
a. RCMI caused this?
b. PDW a. Automated dryer
c. MPV b. Small fan
d. RDW c. Breath blowing
d. Air dried
119. Which is caused by a hereditary aggregation 127. The film on slide 2 is too short without a
defect? “rainbow appearance” when slide is held up to
A. BSS the light, holes were also noted. Which of
B. Von wille bran disease course of action will NOT solve the problem?
C. Storage pool disease a. Increase amount of blood
D. Release reaction defects b. Push spreader slide smoothly and rapidly
a. 1 and 2 c. Use of scrupulously clean slide
b. 3 and 4 d. Use of proper angle of spreader and slide
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3 SITUATION
A WBC count greater than 100 x 109 /L was obtained
120. Using the manual method, which is/are not using an automated hematology analyzer
converted to cyanmethemoglobin ?
a. Sulfhemoglobin 128. What is the expected hemoglobin value?
b. Hemoglobin and sulfhemoglobin 1. Increased
c. Hemoglobin 2. Decreased
d. Hemoglobin and carboxyhemoglobin 3. Imprecise
4. Inaccurate
121. Which platelet anatomical area or zone plays and
a. 1 and 3
important role in platelet aggregation and ATP
b. 2 and 4
synthesis for platelet metabolism?
c. 2 and 3
a. Organelle
d. 1 and 4
b. Sol gel
c. Peripheral
129. What is the expected RBC count?
d. Membranous system
1. Increased
122. Which factor is deficient in owren‟s disease? 2. Decreased
a. Factor V 3. Imprecise
b. FACTOR VII 4. Inaccurate
c. FACTOR VIII a. 2 and 3
d. FACTOR IX b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
123. Which coagulation factor is NOT a serine protease ? d. 1 and 4
a. Stable factor 130. For the WBC count, what should be checked?
b. Christmas factor A. Interferences
c. Fitzgerald B. Sensitivity
d. Prothrombin C. Specificity
124. Which are pools of the developing neutrophils in the D. Linearity
BONE MARROW?
1. Stem cell pool
2. Proliferation / mitotic SITUATION
3. Maturation-storage
Phlebotomy is to be done on a patient under
a. 2 and 3
enteric isolation.
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 2 131. What PPE should be used?
TWO PERIPHERAL BLOOD FILSM ARE PREPARED AND a. Mask
STAINED FOR ROUTINE EXAMINATION b. Gowns and masks
c. Gown and gloves
125. Which polychrome stains are used? d. Gown
a. EA 50 and methylene blue
b. Harri‟s hematoxylin and EA50 132. Which pathogen is involved?
c. Harri‟s hematoxylin and OG6 a. Pseudomonas
d. Eosin and methylene blue b. Streptococci
c. Staphylococcus
d. Salmonella

HEMA F.C I.K AYTONA

 133. Protection of whom is the focus of the isolation a. Binucleus
procedure? b. Cytoplasmic division
1. Patient c. pyknotic nucleus
2. Healthcare professionals d. Nuclear fragmentation
3. Other patients
a. 2 and 3 141. Which of the following are formed from
b. 1 and 3 the precipitation of the beta chains of
c. 1 the Hb A?
d. 2 A. Howell-Jolly bodies
B. Basophilic stippling
C. Heinz bodies
SITUATION D. Cabot rings
A screening test is done where blood is added to a buffered salt 142. How does dehydration affects ESR level?
solution containing sodium hydrosulfate and saponin
a. Increase
134. Which test is referred?
a. Osmotic fragility b. Decrease
b. Acid elution c. Variable
c. Sucrose hemolysis d. No effect
d. Dithionite solubility 143. WHICH of the following are associated with DIC
I.Rosenthal syndrome
135. The test is used to screen for hemoglobin
II. LIVER DISEASE
a. A1
b. S III.AFIBRINOGENEMIA
a. 1 and 2
c. A
b. 2 and 3
d. F c. 1 and 3
136. If the test is positive, what will be the observations? d. 1,2,3
1. Solution is clear
2. Solution is turbid
3. Lines behind the tube are visible 144. This refers to the passage of more than one cell at a
time through the orifice of an hemalyzer that causes
4. Lines are not visible
artificially large pulses, which results in falsely increased
a. 1 and 3 cell volumes and falsely decreased cell counts
b. 2 and 4 A. back wash effect
c. 2 and 3 B. Coincident
d. 1 and 4 C. Simultaneous effect
137. What is the principle of this test? D. Double passage
a. Precipitation
b. Red cell autohemolysis 145. Which of the following correlates with the measurement
of cell volume?
c. Oxidation
I. Forward light scatter
d. Reduction II. Forward low angle scatter
III. Forward high angle
138. A Definitive diagnosis of vWD relies on the IV. Orthogonal light scatter
following:
a. 1,2,3
I. Personal and family history of mucocutaneous
bleeding
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 only
II. Laboratory demonstration of decreased vWF d. 1,2,3,4
activity
III. Automated platelet function tests
a. I & II
b. I, III
c. I, II, III
d. II, III

139. Whare are the Major components of hemostasis?

I. Veins
II. Platelets
III. Coagulation factors
a. I & II
b. I, II, III
c. I & III
d. II & III

140. which of the following is true regarding platelet

maturation?

HEMA F.C I.K AYTONA