Ppe 2021 MCQ

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Question 1 The levator palpebrae superioris muscle is innervated by the


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Trochlear nerve.
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b. Trigeminal nerve.
c. Facial nerve.

d. Abducent nerve.
e. Oculomotor nerve.

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Question 2 Which of the following agents is considered as the main primary etiology of encephalitis?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. viruses
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b. fungi
c. bacteria
d. helminthes
e. protozoa

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Question 3 An 83-year-old woman with Parkinson’s disease is currently being treated with carbidopa/levodopa, but her Parkinson’s
Answer saved symptoms are worsening. She has normal liver function and no history of liver disease. The physician adds entacapone to her
Marked out of regimen. How does entacapone help in Parkinson’s disease?
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a. Stimulation of norepinephrine release
b. Inhibition of COMT
c. Inhibition of MAO
d. Stimulation of acetylcholine release
e. Increased norepinephrine synthesis

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Question 4 Diabetes mellitus is a disorder characterized by hyperglycemia. All of the following are common in type 2 diabetes mellitus
Answer saved EXCEPT
Marked out of
1.00 a. Retinopathy
b. Diabetic ketoacidosis
c. Coma
d. Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state
e. Nephropathy

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Question 5 A 45 years old woman with a 3 cm mass in the upper pole of left kidney that showed enhancement by a CT scan. What is the
Answer saved best treatment?
Marked out of
1.00 a. Radiotherapy.
b. Chemotherapy.
c. Partial nephrectomy.

d. Observation.
e. Immuotherapy

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Question 6 One of the following represents a characteristic feature of anticipation of allelic expansion mutation
Answer saved
Marked out of a. The first generation a!ected appear more severe symptoms at a late age.
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b. The first generation a!ected appear more severe symptoms at an earlier age.
c. The succeeding generations a!ected appear more severe symptoms at a late age.

d. The succeeding generations a!ected appear more severe symptoms at an earlier age.

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Question 7 An autoimmune disease in which an antibody mimics the action of TSH is


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Myxedema
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b. Cretinism
c. Cushing's disease
d. Grave's Disease
e. Acromegaly

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Question 8 The vector (insect) is considered as a biological transmitter for:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Leishmania
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b. Measles virus
c. Shigella
d. Mumps virus
e. Salmonella

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Question 9 Regarding warfarin, which statement is the most precise


Answer saved
Marked out of a. it activates factor X and IX
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b. it is agonist to vit K
c. patient need to stop intake of warfarin 6 hrs before surgery
d. it does not need dose monitoring
e. it has high plasma protein binding

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Question 10 Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Combination with ARBs is safe and e!ective
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b. decrease sodium excretion
c. increase proteinuria in diabetes
d. Arterio and veno dilators
e. increase potassium excretion

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Question 11 All the following describe liver appropriately EXCEPT:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. The left triangular ligament of the liver lies anterior to the abdominal part of the esophagus.
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b. The lesser omentum suspends the stomach from the visceral surface of the liver.
c. The quadrate lobe drains into the right hepatic duct.

d. The attachment of the hepatic veins to the inferior vena cava is one of the most important supports of the liver.
e. The ligamentum venosum is attached to the left branch of the portal vein in the porta hepatis.

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Question 12 Which of the following immunosuppressant drugs is e!ective in treatment of psoriasis:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Rituximab
1.00
b. Mycophenolate mofetil
c. Azathioprine
d. Methotrexate
e. Cyclophosphamide

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Question 13 Which of the following feature is strongly goes with seizure diagnosis and not syncope?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Aura
1.00
b. Falling
c. Pallor
d. Loss of consciousness
e. Biting of the lateral of the tongue

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Question 14 The innate immunity cell that important in ingestion and destroy pyogenic bacteria as staphylococcus aureus is:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Macrophage
1.00
b. NKC
c. Eosinophil
d. Mast cell
e. Neutrophil

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Question 15 The main neurotransmitter that increase in schizophrenia is:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. noradrenaline
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b. Histamine
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin

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Question 16 Physician Professional responsibilities involve one of the following:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. inequality of care
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b. Business relations with patients
c. Patient confidentiality

d. Low price of services


e. Talking to families

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Question 17 One of the major participants that create the resting membrane potential (RMP) in living cells is the:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Presence of large cations outside the cell.
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b. Presence of large anions outside the cell.
c. Presence of large anions inside the cell.
d. Presence of large cations inside the cell.

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Question 18 A 51-year-old man has become increasingly fatigued for the past 10 months. On physical examination, the patient has angular
Answer saved cheilosis of his mouth. Laboratory studies showed his Hb is 9.2 g/dl, Hct 27.9%, MCV 132 fL (N.V 80-100 fl), platelet count 242×
Marked out of 109 /L, and WBC count 7.5× 109 /L. Which of the following morphologic findings is most likely to be present on examination of
1.00 his peripheral blood smear?

a. Hypochromic, microcytic RBCs


b. Nucleated red blood cells
c. Schistocytes
d. Blasts with Auer rods

e. Hypersegmented neutrophils

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Question 19 Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of hyperkalemia.
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Alpha adrenergic blocker
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b. Calcium gluconate
c. B2 adrenergic agonist
d. Diuretics
e. Insulin

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Question 20 One of the following is NOT a “Graphic representation” :
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Table
1.00
b. Histogram
c. Pie Chart
d. Linear graph
e. Bar Chart

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Time left 0:11:52

Question 21 Most of the common cancer chemotherapy drugs work only, or best on cells that are in an active growth or replication phase.
Answer saved Given that information, which of the following stages of the normal cell cycle is the most resistant to these anticancer drugs
Marked out of
1.00 a. G2
b. G1
c. M
d. G0

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Question 22 You want to assess the e!cacy of a new anti-epileptic drug versus an old drug .What is the best study design for this purpose?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Cohort study
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b. Case-control study
c. Randomized clinical trial
d. Ecologic study
e. Cross sectional study

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Question 23 The auditory pathway include all of the following structures EXCEPT:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Superior olivery complex.
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b. lateral laminescus.
c. Scarpa’s ganglion.
d. Auditory nuclei.
e. Spiral ganglion.

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Question 24 The motor innervation of the tongue is carried out by hypoglossal nerve except palatoglossus muscle which is supplied by:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Maxillary nerve
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b. Mandibular nerve
c. Accessory nerve
d. Facial nerve
e. Glossopharyngeal nerve

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Question 25 The stimulation of sympathetic autonomic nervous system will lead to all the followings EXCEPT:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Stimulate salivation .
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b. Vasoconstriction and elevated BP.
c. Inhibition of digestive function.
d. Bronchodilatation .
e. Bradycardia.

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Time left 0:11:43

Question 26 A 40-year-old woman has had a week long course of fever and mental confusion. Physical examination showed: temperature
Answer saved 38.2 °C, PR 100/ minute, RR 22/minute, and BP 100/60 mm Hg. She has widespread petechiae on skin and mucosal surfaces.
Marked out of Laboratory studies showed her serum urea 52 mg/dL and creatinine 5.3 mg/dL (both elevated). She has a hemoglobin of 10.2
1.00 g/dL, hematocrit 36.8%, MCV 93 fL, platelet count 19× 109 /L, and WBC count 8.7 × 109/L. Schistocytes and fragmented RBC are
seen on her peripheral blood smear. Her prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and D-dimer are not elevated. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy


b. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
c. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

d. Trousseau syndrome
e. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

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Question 27 In COPD, one of the following is a characteristic symptom or sign


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Wheezing almost always present
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b. Dry cough
c. Cyanosis is a late feature
d. Nocturnal cough and sputum
e. Increased breath sounds because of increased elasticity

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Question 28 Which of the following ions plays the major role in maintaining the cell volume when it is exposed to hypotonic environment?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Na+
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b. K+
c. Ca++
d. Cl-

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Question 29 By definition, the nature of delirium that di"erentiates it from dementia includes which of the following?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Deteriorating course
1.00
b. Familial onset.
c. Acute onset
d. Irreversible progression
e. Insidious onset

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Question 30 A 30-year-old man has had a progressively worsening productive cough for one month. On physical examination, a few small
Answer saved non tender lymph nodes are palpable in the axillae, and the tip of the spleen is palpable. Laboratory studies showed Hb 10.2
Marked out of g/dL, Hct 31.1%, MCV 90 fL, WBC count 67× 109 /L, and platelet count 36× 109 /L. Microscopic examination of his peripheral
1.00 blood smear showed many blasts with Auer rods. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia


b. Acute myeloid leukemia
c. Lymphoblastic leukemia
d. Leukemoid reaction
e. Leukoerythroblastosis

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Time left 0:11:36

Question 31 In which one of the following conditions would aspirin be contraindicated?


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Unstable angina
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b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Myalgia

d. Peptic ulcer
e. Fever

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Question 32 Dementia secondary to which of the following is not reversible?


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Nutritional deficiencies
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b. Stroke
c. Depression
d. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
e. Hypothyroidism

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Question 33 Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Peptic ulcer
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b. Migraine
c. Renal insu!ciency
d. Asthma
e. Heart failure

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Question 34 Areas of the skin that give discrete sensation, should have:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. high number of receptors with large receptive field.
1.00
b. low number of receptors with large receptive field.
c. high number of receptors with overlapping receptive fields.
d. high number of receptors with small receptive field.

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Question 35 A 19-year-old primigravida of Southeast Asian ancestry gave birth at 35 weeks gestation a male infant. On physical
Answer saved examination, the infant is markedly hydropic and dead. Laboratory studies showed his hematocrit is 17%. The red blood cells
Marked out of displayed marked microcytosis, anisocytosis and poikilocytosis. Which of the following diseases is most likely to be present in
1.00 this infant?

a. Hemoglobin E disease
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. G6PD deficiency
d. Hereditary elliptocytosis
e. Alpha-thalassemia

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Time left 0:11:27

Question 36 A 53-year-old woman with seizure disorder and trigeminal neuralgia presents to her primary care physician for follow-up and
Answer saved treatment. She has no new complaints. Which of the following medications may serve to treat all of her earlier mentioned
Marked out of problems?
1.00
a. Carbamazepine
b. Lacosamide
c. Felbamate

d. Gabapentin
e. Lamotrigin

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Question 37 In the emergency department, 70-years old man is admitted for treatment of a myocardial infarction. He is currently taking
Answer saved three medications including clopidogrel (antiplatelet agent) and aspirin daily in addition to omeprazole (potent CYP inhibitor)
Marked out of for heartburn. Clopidogrel requires CYP enzyme, particularly CYP2C19, for conversion from an inactive to active form as it is a
1.00 prodrug. Which of the following is the most likely contributor to his myocardial infarction?

a. Hypersensitivity reaction due to clopidogrel


b. Increased antiplatelet activity of clopidogrel due to omeprazole
c. Reduced antiplatelet activity of clopidogrel due to aspirin
d. Reduced antiplatelet activity of clopidogrel due to omeprazole
e. Increased antiplatelet activity of clopidogrel due to aspirin

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Question 38 Which of the following is NOT seen in Turner syndrome?


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Gonadal streaks
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b. Webbed neck
c. Mosaic 46 XX/45 XO
d. Coarctation of the aorta
e. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

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Question 39 For how long is the cardiac cycle, if the heart rate is 75 beats/min?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. 0.7 sec
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b. 0.5 sec
c. 0.8 sec
d. 0.4 sec

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Question 40 It is significant for a mother to breast feed her baby, as it
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Appears to help in attachment.
1.00
b. Is fundamental to the development of a healthy mind.
c. Is fundamental to the development of a healthy personality.
d. Ensures proper brain development.
e. Is the only way to gain enough nutrition to survive.

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Time left 0:11:19

Question 41 Which of the following represents the most common route of CNS infection?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. focus close to the CNS
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b. hematogenous spread
c. congenital defect

d. interneural pathway
e. trauma or surgery

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Question 42 Which of the following best describes stage 1 of labor, from start to finish?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Onset of contractions until cervix is 10cm dilated
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b. Onset of contractions until delivery of the placenta
c. Starts from when the cervix is 4cm dilated until it is completely dilated at 10cm
d. Onset of contractions until delivery of the fetus
e. Onset of contractions until cervix is 4 cm dilated

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Question 43 The primary mechanism of the antibacterial action of the fluoroquinolones involves the inhibition of
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Beta-lactamases
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b. Cell wall synthesis
c. Synthesis of cell membranes
d. Nucleic acid synthesis
e. protein synthesis

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Question 44 Which of the following drugs reduces cholesterol synthesis in liver, increases expression of LDL receptors on hepatocytes and
Answer saved has been found to reduce mortality due to coronary artery disease by its pleotropic e!ects?
Marked out of
1.00 a. Cholestyramine
b. Omega 3
c. Simvastatin
d. Nicotinic acid
e. Gemfibrozil

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Question 45 Unlocking mechanism of the knee joint to permit its flexion is caused by the action of one of the following muscles:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Popliteus muscle.
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b. Gastrocnemius muscle.
c. Vastus medialis muscle.
d. Biceps femoris muscle.
e. Articularis genu muscle.

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Time left 0:11:11

Question 46 A patient with Broca’s aphasia:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Can’t interpret language but can express himself.
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b. Can interpret language but can express himself by writing only.
c. Can’t interpret language but can express himself by speech only.

d. Can interpret language but can’t express himself.


e. Can’t interpret language but can express himself by writing only.

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Question 47 Which of the following microbes are yeast (unicellular) fungi?


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Pneumocystis jiroveci and Candida spp.
1.00
b. Candida spp. and Drmatophytes
c. Aspergillus spp and Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Cryptococcus neoformans and Candida spp.
e. Drmatophytes and Aspergillus spp.

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Question 48 A study is conducted to determine what changes in the size of the spleen take place with hematologic disorders. The spleen
Answer saved sizes are estimated from CT scans for adult patients who developed complications of their hematologic disease. For which of
Marked out of the following diseases is the spleen most likely to remain normal in size?
1.00
a. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b. Myeloproliferative disorder
c. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
d. Sickle cell anemia
e. infectious mononucleosis

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Question 49 The perception of egocentrism is met in theories of


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Moral development
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b. Social development
c. Psychosexual development
d. Autism
e. Cognitive development

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Question 50 Which cell is a macrophage found in the central nervous system?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Dust cell
1.00
b. Microglia
c. Histiocyte
d. Kup!er cell
e. Langerhans cell

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Time left 0:11:03

Question 51 A possible reasoning for disagreeing with a conclusion of causal association include all the following EXCEPT:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Reversibility
1.00
b. Random error
c. Selection bias

d. Recall bias
e. Confounding factors

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Question 52 Normal resident microbes are absent from the:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. skin
1.00
b. intestine
c. Lungs
d. Pharynx
e. hair follicles

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Question 53 The foramen rotundum is located in the


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Occipital bone.
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b. Petrous part of the temporal bone.
c. Frontal bone.
d. Lesser wing of the sphenoid bone.
e. Greater wing of the sphenoid bone.

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Question 54 A 45-year-old man has had increasing abdominal discomfort with abdominal enlargement for the past two years. On physical
Answer saved examination, the spleen was very large. An abdominal CT scan revealed massive (estimated 3000 gm size) splenomegaly.
Marked out of Laboratory data included Hb 9 g/dL, WBC count 5× 109 /L, and platelet count 50× 109 /L. A genetic study revealed that the
1.00 patient was positive for JAK2 mutation. Which of the following underlying conditions he most likely has?

a. Myelofibrosis
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. multiple myeloma
d. Portal hypertension
e. Sickle cell anemia

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Question 55 The posterior neuropore (opening of neural tube) is closed at which time of development?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Day 29
1.00
b. Day 25
c. Day 26
d. Day 27
e. Day 28

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Time left 0:10:53

Question 56 The only excitatory nuclei in basal ganglia is


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Subthalamus
1.00
b. Putamen
c. Globus pallidus

d. Caudate
e. Substantia nigra

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Question 57 Basic concepts in health economics do not include:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Opportunity cost
1.00
b. Equity
c. E!ciency
d. Payment
e. E"ectiveness

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Question 58 The following structures form the walls of the inguinal canal EXCEPT:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. The fascia transversalis
1.00
b. The internal oblique muscle
c. The conjoint tendon
d. The lacunar ligament
e. The aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle

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Question 59 Samir is mostly nonverbal, is learning to coordinate purposeful movements with sense data, and is emerging the notion of
Answer saved object permanence. The child is in Piaget's __________ stage.
Marked out of
1.00 a. Sensorimotor
b. Preoperational
c. Informal operational
d. Formal operational
e. Concrete operational

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Question 60 When is the peak of oogenesis?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. During reproductive age
1.00
b. At birth
c. During the early gestational period
d. At mid-gestation (approximately 20 weeks after conception)
e. At puberty

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Time left 0:10:43

Question 61 The predominent cell in acute inflammation is


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Eosinophil.
1.00
b. Macrophage.
c. Lymphocyte.

d. Microphage.
e. Pus cell.

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Question 62 Anti-arrhythmic drugs


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Sotalol is e!ective for the treatment of Torsade de Pointes
1.00
b. Amiodarone is e!ective in ventricular and supraventricular tachycardia
c. Amlodipine is e!ective in supraventricular tachycardia
d. Lignocaine is a sodium channel blocker ,e!ective in the treatment of atrial fibrillation.
e. Adenosine is the drug of choice in ventricular tachycardia

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Question 63 The sensory innervation of the medial side of the palm of hand is mediated by which nerve?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Dorsal cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve
1.00
b. Radial nerve
c. Superficial branch of ulnar nerve
d. Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve
e. Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve

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Question 64 The drug of choice for bipolar disorders is:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Lithium
1.00
b. Haloperidol
c. benzodiazepine
d. Chlorpromazine

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Question 65 The mechanism of oseltamivir involves the
Answer saved
Marked out of a. inhibition of protease enzyme
1.00
b. inhibition of neuraminidase activity.
c. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
d. inhibition of M2 channel
e. Interference with binding of virus to cell membrane

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Time left 0:10:34

Question 66 A 70 years man presented to you with painless heamturia. Abdominal ultrasound revealed bladder mass and the patient was
Answer saved underwent cystoscope and resection of the mass. Histopathology showed non muscle invasive bladder cancer. What is the
Marked out of next treatment:
1.00
a. radical cystectomy.
b. observation .
c. systemic chemotherapy.

d. radiotherapy.
e. intravesical chemotherapy.

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Question 67 A couple are newly married, they are both a!ected with familial hypercholesterolemia. What is the probability of the disease
Answer saved with severe symptoms occurring in the first child?
Marked out of
1.00 a. 3/4
b. 1/2
c. 1/4
d. 0

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Question 68 Opioid drugs act by one of the following:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Opening calcium channel in presynaptic membrane
1.00
b. Inhibition of GABA release
c. Induction of closure of chloride channel
d. Induction of depolarization in presynaptic membrane

e. Induction of hyperpolarization in presynaptic membrane

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Question 69 One of following is NOT a purpose of the health system :


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Promoting
1.00
b. restoring health
c. Funding
d. monitoring
e. Maintaining

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Question 70 The following veins form important porto-systemic anastomoses except
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Veins of the ascending and descending parts of the colon with the lumbar veins
1.00
b. Paraumbilical veins and superficial veins of the anterior abdominal wall
c. Superior rectal vein and inferior vena cava
d. Veins from the bare areas of the liver with the phrenic veins
e. Esophageal branches of the left gastric vein and tributaries of the azygos veins

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Time left 0:10:23

Question 71 What is the main function of the receptors present at presynaptic membrane?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Depolarize the presynaptic cell membrane.
1.00
b. Control the release of the neurotransmitter.
c. Depolarize the postsynaptic cell membrane.

d. Prevent the activation of the postsynaptic receptors by neurotransmitters.

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Question 72 The primary e!ect of T3 and T4 is to


Answer saved
Marked out of a. decrease blood glucose
1.00
b. promote the release of calcitonin
c. promote heat-generating (metabolic) reactions
d. stimulate the uptake of iodine by the thyroid

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Question 73 Tributaries of brachiocephalic vein include one of the following veins:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Inferior thyroid vein
1.00
b. Pterygoid venous plexus
c. Retromandibular vein
d. Middle thyroid vein
e. Superior thyroid vein

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Question 74 Which infection increases the risk of developing bladder cancer?


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Escherichia coli
1.00
b. Pseudomonous.

c. Tuberculosis
d. Schistosomiasis
e. Proteus

Clear my choice
Question 75 Two teenage siblings in the same family are noted to have frequent nosebleeds and easy bruising from even minor trauma.
Answer saved Both have had menorrhagia since menarche. One girl's CBC showed Hb 14 g/ dL, Hct 42.3%, MCV 90 fL, platelet 242× 109 /L,
Marked out of and WBC 7.7 × 109 /L. Her prothrombin time is 12 seconds and partial thromboplastin time 25 seconds. Platelet function
1.00 studies showed a defect in platelets aggregation but not in adhesion. Which of the following disorders is these siblings most
likely to have?

a. Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
b. von Willebrand disease
c. Antithrombin III deficiency

d. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
e. Hemophilia A

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Time left 0:10:15

Question 76 It is well-known that drug e!cacy in the logarithmic scale of dose-response curve is determined by the maximal height of the
Answer saved measured response on the e"ect axis, whereas drug potency is determined by
Marked out of
1.00 a. The number of animals exhibiting an all-or-non response
b. The steepness of the dose-response curve
c. The signal transduction pathway
d. The position of the curve along the log-dose axis
e. The formula, including the a!nity of the drug and the number of drug receptors

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Question 77 What is cardiac cycle?


Answer saved
Marked out of a. event associated with each heart rate
1.00
b. events associated with each heart beat
c. blood ejected from atria to the ventricles
d. blood ejected from the ventricles to the body

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Question 78 The Gamma Motor Neuron:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. reaches extrafusal muscle fibers.
1.00
b. is one of the upper motor neurons.
c. conducts nerve signals faster than alpha motor neurons.
d. is responsible for the tone of the muscle.

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Question 79 Attention deficit (neglect syndrome) could be seen in:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Lesion of the parietal lobe.
1.00
b. Lesion of the temporal lobe.

c. Lesion of the frontal lobe.


d. Lesion of the occipital lobe.
e. Lesion of the cerebellum.

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Question 80 Failure of cranial closure of neural tube during nervous system development can lead to which deformity?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. DiGeorge syndrome.
1.00
b. Spina bifida.
c. Meningocele.
d. Hydrocephalus.
e. Anencephaly.

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Time left 0:10:08

Question 81 A 17-year-old adolescent has malaise for the past 3 weeks. He has mild pharyngitis on physical examination, as well as tender
Answer saved axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy. The spleen is palpable. A CBC showed Hb 14.0 g/dL, HCT 42.2%, MCV 90 fL, platelet
Marked out of count 301× 109 /L, and WBC count 8× 109 / with "atypical lymphocytes" on the peripheral blood smear. His illness is most likely
1.00
a. infectious mononucleosis
b. non Hodgkin lymphoma
c. acute lymphoblastic leukemia

d. bacterial pharyngitis
e. acute myeloid leukemia

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Question 82 Important anatomical point in the nasal cavity that comprises the openings of maxillary sinus, anterior ethmoidal cells,
Answer saved ethmoid infundibulum and hiatus semilunaris, is called:
Marked out of
1.00 a. Osteomeatal complex
b. Vestibule
c. Superior meatus
d. Middle meatus
e. Middle concha

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Question 83 Arrhythmia and convulsion are the major side e"ects of one of the following:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Terbutaline
1.00
b. Ipratropium bromide
c. Prednisolone

d. Montelukast
e. Theophylline

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Question 84 One of the following is a trigger for asthma


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Oxygen
1.00
b. Paracetamol
c. Cholinergic agents
d. Sympathetic stimulation
e. Warm air

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Question 85 In a posteroanterior radiograph of the thorax, the following structures form the left margin of the heart shadow EXCEPT
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Superior vena cava.
1.00
b. Arch of aorta.
c. Pulmonary trunk.
d. Left auricle.
e. Left ventricle.

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Time left 0:09:59

Question 86 After the contraction of atria, how much volume of blood flows from atria to the ventricles through AV valves?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. 25ml
1.00
b. 30ml
c. 22ml

d. 15ml

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Question 87 Mysthenia gravis disease is a --------------------- hypersensitivity.


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Type I
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b. Type I &Type III
c. Type IV
d. Type III
e. Type II

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Question 88 A 28-year-old woman presents with primary amenorrhea. She is diagnosed with 46,XY gonadal dysgenesis (anatomic or
Answer saved enzymatic testicular failure). During pelvic laparoscopy, what is the expected finding?
Marked out of
1.00 a. Empty pelvis (no gonads or internal genitalia)
b. Both male and female internal genitalia.
c. Streak gonads and male internal genitalia
d. Bilateral abdominal testes and male internal genitalia
e. Streak gonads and female internal genitalia

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Question 89 The inflammatory exudate contains.


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Both inflammatory cells and protein are low in it.
1.00
b. More inflammatory cells and less protein.
c. More protein with less inflammatory cells.
d. Both inflammatory cells and protein are High in it.

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Question 90 The continuous, systematic collection, analysis and interpretation of health-related data needed for the planning,
Answer saved implementation and evaluation of public health practice defines one of the following term:
Marked out of
1.00 a. Monitoring
b. Promotion
c. Surveillance

d. Population health
e. Prevention

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Time left 0:09:52

Question 91 One of the following drugs has a significant antigenic e!ect


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Tenecteplase
1.00
b. Heparin
c. Streptokinase

d. clopidogrel
e. Reteplase

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Question 92 An obstetrician performs a median episiotomy on a woman during parturition to prevent uncontrolled tearing. If the perineal
Answer saved body is damaged, the function of which of the following muscles might be impaired?
Marked out of
1.00 a. Deep transverse perineal and obturator internus.
b. Ischiocavernosus and sphincter urethrae.
c. External anal sphincter and sphincter urethrae.
d. Bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus
e. Bulbospongiosus and superficial transverse perineal.

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Question 93 Which element below is not a primary health care


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Breast examination
1.00
b. Adequate water supply and sanitation
c. Food supply and proper nutrition
d. Health education
e. Maternal and child health

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Question 94 Which of the following is not a granulocyte?


Answer saved
Marked out of a. Neutrophil
1.00
b. Basophils
c. Eosinophils
d. Lymphocytes
e. PMN( Polymorphonuclear)

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Question 95 The following family pedigree shows inherited Alkoptonuria through theirgenerations.Carrier members of a family are
Answer saved
Marked out of
1.00

a. II.5, III.6 and III.8


b. II.4, II.6 and III8
c. I.1, II.2 and II.5
d. II.5, II.6 and III6

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Time left 0:09:43

Question 96 Five months infant received BCG vaccination in her left arm, few weeks later she developed palpable left axillary lymph node,
Answer saved the node was excised and examined by pathologist. The microscopic picture showed multiple whorled structures with central
Marked out of finely granular pinkish materials and multinucleated cells. What is most important mediator in the development of such
1.00 lesion?

a. TNF
b. INF-gamma
c. IL-6

d. IL-10
e. Macrophage chemotactic factor.

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Question 97 The process of co-activation is normally needed during:


Answer saved
Marked out of a. reflex activity.
1.00
b. voluntary activity.
c. vigorous exercise only.
d. rest.

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Question 98 The axillary nerve originated from which part of the brachial plexus?
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Medial cord
1.00
b. Middle trunk
c. Lateral cord
d. Upper trunk

e. Posterior cord

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Question 99 A 25-year-old African-American man is given anti-malarial prophylaxis (strong oxidative agent) for a trip to West Africa. Over
Answer saved the next week he develops increasing fatigue. On physical examination there are no abnormal findings. Laboratory studies
Marked out of showed a hematocrit of 30%. Examination of his peripheral blood smear showed red blood cells with numerous Heinz bodies
1.00 and bitten cells. There is a family history of this disorder, with males, but not females, a!ected. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?

a. Beta-thalassemia

b. Hereditary spherocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. Alpha-thalassemia
e. Sickle cell anemia

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Question 100 In unilateral conductive hearing loss (when the other ear is normal) the result of Weber test will be:
Answer saved
Marked out of a. Heard in the midline.
1.00
b. Lateralized to the a!ected side.
c. Heard in both ears equally.
d. Lateralized to the normal side.

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