JEE (Main) Enthuse Race

JEE (MAIN) 2023
ENTHUSE COURSE
(CLASS-XII)
SUBJECT
Physics
Chemistry
Mathematics
City Head Office

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Corporate Office
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“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-0744-2757575 +91-744-2435003 info@allen.ac.in
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INDEX
RACE NO. TOPIC NAME PAGE NO.
1 # RACE ......................................... ELECTROSTATICS .................................................................... 1
2 # RACE .......................................... ELECTROSTATICS .................................................................... 3
3 # RACE .......................................... ELECTROSTATICS .................................................................... 5
4 # RACE .......................................... ELECTRICITY ........................................................................... 7
5 # RACE .......................................... ELECTRICITY ........................................................................... 9
6 # RACE .......................................... CAPACITOR ............................................................................. 12
7 # RACE .......................................... CAPACITOR ............................................................................. 14
8 # RACE .......................................... MEC ........................................................................................ 16
9 # RACE .......................................... MEC ........................................................................................ 18
10 # RACE ........................................ MAGNETIC MATERIALS ............................................................ 20
11 # RACE ........................................ EMI ......................................................................................... 22
12 # RACE ........................................ EMI ......................................................................................... 24
13 # RACE ........................................ ALTERNATING CURRENT ......................................................... 27
14 # RACE ........................................ WAVES .................................................................................... 29
15 # RACE ........................................ RAY OPTICS ............................................................................ 31
16 # RACE ........................................ RAY OPTICS ............................................................................ 33
17 # RACE ........................................ RAY OPTICS ............................................................................ 35
18 # RACE ........................................ WAVE OPTICS .......................................................................... 37
19 # RACE ........................................ WAVE OPTICS .......................................................................... 39
20 # RACE ........................................ ATOMS .................................................................................... 41
21 # RACE ........................................ NUCLEUS, X-RAY & DUEL NATURE .......................................... 43
22 # RACE ........................................ NUCLEUS ............................................................................... 45
23 # RACE ........................................ NUCLEUS ............................................................................... 47
24 # RACE ........................................ NUCLEUS ............................................................................... 49
25 # RACE ........................................ SEMI CONDUCTOR .................................................................. 51
26 # RACE ........................................ SEMI CONDUCTOR .................................................................. 53
27 # RACE ........................................ COMMUNICATION .................................................................... 55
28 # RACE ........................................ COMMUNICATION .................................................................... 57

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ENGLISH
TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 01 EL ECT ROS TATI CS PHYSICS
INSTRUCTIONS : (1) The exercise sheet should be attempted in exam like environment. (2) The exercise sheet should be completed in
maximum 50 minutes. (3) You should not refer any study material/notes while attempting the sheet. (4) The answers must be checked
only AFTER ALL the questions have been attempted.
1. The force of repulsion between two charges +3mC 7. Three point charges are placed at the corners of an
and +8mC is 60N. A third charge –5mC is added on equilateral triangle. Assuming only electrostatics
each of them, now the force between them will be forces are acting
(1) –15N (2) +10N (1) if the charges have different magnitudes and
(3) +20N (4) –20N different signs, the system will be in equilibrium.
2. Figure below show regular hexagon, the charges (2) the system will be in equilibrium if the charges
are placed at the vertices. In which of the following have the same magnitudes but different signs.
cases the electric field at the center is zero. (3) the system can never be in equilibrium
5q 4q q –q (4) the system will be in equilibrium if the charges
rotate about the centre of the triangle.
6q 3q –q q 8. Two point charges of q and 4q are kept 30 cm apart.
(1) (2) At a distance _______ on the straight line joining
q 2q q q
them, the intensity of electric field is Zero.
I II
2q 2q 2q 2q 30cm
q q q q
(3) (4) (1) 20 cm from 4q (2) 7.5 cm from q
2q 2q 2q q (3) 15 cm from 4q (4) 5 cm from q
III IV
9. Charge Q each is placed on (n – 1) corners of a
3. Two point charges +9e and +e are kept 16 cm. apart
polygon of sides n. The distance of each corner
to each other. Where should a third charge q be
from the centre of the polygon is r. The electric field
placed between them so that the system remains in
at its centre is
the equilibrium state :-
(1) 24 cm from +9e (2) 12 cm from +9e Q Q
(1) k (2) (n – 1) k
(3) 24 cm from +e (4) 12 cm from +e r2 r2
4. The dimension of permittivity of vacuum [e 0 ]
n Q n -1 Q
(1) M1L3T–2 A–2 (2) M1L2T–4 A–4 (3) k 2 (4) k 2
n -1 r n r
(3) M–1 L–3 T4 A2 (4) M0L0T0A0
5. When a comb is rubbed with hair 10 18 electrons 10. The linear charge density on the circumference of
moves from hair to comb. Then charge on comb is a circle of radius a varies as l = l0cosq. The total
charge on it is ..............
(1) 1.6 C (2) 1.6 nC
(1) zero (2) infinite
(3) –1.6 C (4) –0.16 C
(3) pal 0 (4) 2pa
6. The force acting between two point charges kept at
a certain distance is F. Now magnitudes of charges 11. 1 nC charge is uniformly distributed on square plane
are halved and the distance between them is surface of 50 cm length then surface charge
doubled, the force acting between them is density.....
(1) F/2 (2) F/16 (1) 2 ´ 10–9 Cm–2 (2) 10–9 Cm–2
(3) F/8 (4) 16F (3) 4 ´ 10–9 Cm–2 (4) 0.5 Cm–2
PHYSICS ADI/E-1
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
12. q charge is kept at each corner of cube having length 15. Three positive charges of equal value q are placed
‘l’. What will be electric field at centre of cube ? at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. The resulting
q lines of force should be sketched as in
(1)
l2
q
(2) 2
2l
32q (1) (2)
(3) 2
l
(4) zero
Comprehension for Q. no. 13 and 14
In the figure, electric field lines are shown for an
isolated system of two charges A and B.
Study the lines of forces shown and answer the (3) (4)
following questions.
A B NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS

1. Radius of a semicircular ring is 20 cm and uniformly
charged by 7 × 10–10 C. Electric field at centre of
ring is
13. From the figure you can certainly conclude that 2. It is given that q1 + q2 = q. If force acting between
(1) Both of them have same magnitude and opposite q1
q1 and q2 is maximum than = ....... ( p = 3.15 )
sign. q
(2) Both of them have opposite sign and magnitude 3. The electric force acting between two point charges
of A is greater than that of B. kept at a certain distance in vacuum is 10N. If the
same two charges are kept at the same distance in a
(3) Both of them have opposite sign and magnitude
medium of dielectric constant k then force become
of B is greater than that of A.
4N. Then value of dielectric constant is
(4) Both of them have opposite sign but information
4. A charged particle of mass 2 kg and charge 1 mC is
is insufficient to predict their relative
thrown from a horizontal ground at 45° angle with
magnitudes.
speed 10 m/s. In space, a horizontal electric field
14. Charges A and B have E = 2 × 107 N/C exists, then what is the range of
(1) magnitudes in the ratio 11:6 respectively projectile. (g = 10 m/s2)
(2) magnitudes in the ratio 3:2 respectively 5. The distance between two charges q 1 = 2µC and
(3) magnitudes in the ratio 6:11 respectively q2 = +6 µC is 15 cm. Calculate the distance from
(4) magnitudes in the ratio 2:3 respectively charge 2, to the points on the line segment joining
the two charges where the electric field is zero ?
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (3) 16. 100 17. 0.5 18. 2.5 19. 20 20. 5.50
E-2/ ADI PHYSICS

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
1. There exists an electric field 100 N/C along Z- 6. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it.
direction. The flux passing through a square of 10 If f is the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated
cm sides placed on XY plane inside the electric field with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the
is ___________ plane surface A in units of voltmeter will be
(1) 1.0 Nm2C–1 (2) 2.0 Vm q 1é q ù
(3) 10 Vm (4) 4.0 Nm C 2 –1 (1) Î - f (2) 2 ê Î - f ú B
0 ë 0 û
2. As shown in figure, q charge is placed at the open C A
q f
end of the cylinder with one end open. The total (3) 2 Î (4)
flux emerging from the surface of cylinder is .... 0 3
7. A disk of radius a/4 having a uniformly distributed
q 2q charge 6C is placed in the x-y plane with its centre
(1) e (2) e
0 0 at (–a /2, 0, 0). A rod of length a carrying a uniformly
q
distributed charge 8 C is placed on the x-axis from
q x = a/4 to x = 5a/4. Two point charges –7 C and 3 C
(3) 2e (4) zero
0 are placed at (a/4, –a/4, 0) and (–3a/4, 3a/4, 0),
respectively. Consider a cubical surface formed by
3. A uniformly charged wire passes though a cube of
six surfaces x = ± a/2, y = ± a/2, z = ± a/2. The
side length a. If the linear charge density of the
electric flux through this cubical surface is
wire is l, the maximum electric flux passing through y
the cube is ___ -2C 2C
(1) e (2) e
la 2 la o o
(1) e (2)
0 e0 x
10C 12C
3la 6la 2 (3) e (4) e
(3) (4)
e0 e0 o o
4. If the electric flux entering and leaving an closed 8. A cube of side 20 cm has its center at the origin and
surface respectively is f1 and f2 the electric charge its one side is along the x-axis, so that one end is at
inside the surface will be x = +10 cm and the other is at x = –10cm. The
(1) (f1 + f2)e0 (2) (f2 – f1)e0 magnitude of electric field is 100 N/C and for x > 0
it is pointing in the +ve x-direction and for x < 0 it
(f1 + f2 ) (f2 - f1 ) is pointing in the –ve x-direction as shown. The sign
(3) (4)
e0 e0 and value of charges inside the box, are :- (Given
5. A square surface of side L metre isurin the plane of that Î0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2/N-m2)
the paper. A uniform electric field E (volt/m), also
in the plane of the paper, is limited only to the lower
half of the square surface, (see figure). The electric
flux in SI units associated with the surface is :-
(1) zero (2) EL2
EL2 (1) Negative, 6 × 10–11C (2) Positive, 7.08 × 10–11C

EL2 E
(3) (4) (3) Positive, 6 × 10–11C (4) Negative, 7.08×10–11C
2 Î0 2
PHYSICS ADI/E-3
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
9. Two thin rings having radius R placed at distance d 12. An infinite nonconducting sheet of charge has a
coaxially. Charge +q and – q is deposited on each surface charge density of 10–7 C/m2. The separation
respectively. Potential difference between their between two equipotential surfaces near the sheet
centre is ............ whose potential differ by 5V is
(1) 0.88 cm (2) 0.88 mm
qR q é1 1 ù
(1) (2) 2 pe êR - 2 ú (3) 0.88 m (4) 5 × 10–7 m
4pe0d 2 0 ë
2
R +d û
13. In a regular polygon of n sides, each corner is at a
distance r from the centre. Identical charges are
q é1 1 ù
(3) zero (4) 4pe êR - 2 2 ú
placed at (n – 1) corners. At the centre, the intensity
0 ë R +d û is E and the potential is V. The ratio V/E has
10. As shown in figure charges are kept on vertices of magnitude
a square. At centre of square electric field is E and (1) r n (2) r(n – 1)
potential is v. When charges at A and B interchanged (3) (n – 1)/r (4) r(n – 1)/n
with charges on C and D respectively then......
14. In a certain region of space, the potential is given
–q
D C by : V = k[2x2 – y2 + z2]. The electric field at the
–q
point (1, 1, 1) has magnitude =
(1) kÖ6 (2) 2kÖ6
+q (3) 2kÖ3 (4) 4kÖ3
A+q B
r NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
(1) E remains constant but V changes
r 1. External force brings – 6C charge from infinite
(2) both E and V changes
r distance to given point in electric field. Work done
(3) E and V both remains constant by electric field during this is 120J. Electric potential
r
(4) V remains constant but E changes at this point is ..............
11. As shown in figure point charge + q is placed at 2. Work done to displace 20 C by 2 cm is 2 J. Potential
origin O. Work done to take charge – q from A to difference between two point is .......
another point B is ........... 3. In a uniform electric field, the potential is 10 V at
Here co-ordinate of A (0, a) and co-ordinate of B the origin of coordinates, and 8 V at each of the
(a, 0) points (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0) and (0, 0, 1). The potential
(1) zero at the point (1, 1, 1) will be
4. If we merged 125 spherical mercury droplets having
æ -qQ ö
(2) ç 4 pe a 2 ÷ 2a 2.5 V potential of each mercury droplet. What will
è 0 ø (a,0)A be the potential of entire droplets will be ?
5. 2 charged particles of masses 'm' and 2m have
æ qQ ö a
(3) ç 4 pe a 2 ÷ changes '2q' and 'q' respectively. They are kept in a
+q
è 0 ø 2 uniform electric field for away from each other and
O B(a,0)
then allowed to move for the same time. If the ratio
æ qQ ö of their K.E is x : 1, Find x
(4) ç 4 pe a 2 ÷ 2a
è 0 ø
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14 (2) 15. 10 16. 0.1 17. 4 18. 62.5 19. 8
E-4/ ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
1. An electric dipole is placed in an electric field of a 7. Four charges are placed each at a distance a from
point charge, then ___________ origin. The dipole moment of configuration is
y
(1) the resultant force acting on the dipole is always
3q
zero
(2) the resultant force acting on the dipole may be x
-2 q -2 q
zero
(3) torque acting on it may be zero q
(4) torque acting on it is always zero

2. In case of an electric dipole. the angle between (1) 2qajˆ (2) 3qajˆ
dipole moment and intensity of electric field at any
(3) 2aq[iˆ + ˆj] (4) None of these
point on its axis is ____________
(1) 0° (2) 45° 8. The dipole moment of a system of charge +q
(3) 90° (4) None of these distributed uniformly on an arc of radius R
subtending an angle p/2 at its centre where another
3. Electric field at distance x on equatorial point of
charge –q is placed at centre is :
dipole is E. Magnitude of electric field at same
distance x on axis of the dipole be. 2 2qR 2qR qR 2qR
(1) (2) (3) (4)
E p p p p
(1) E (2)
2 9. Figure shows the electric field lines around an
electric dipole. Which of the arrows best represents
E the electric field at point P ?
(3) 2E (4)
4
4. Two equal and opposite charge of 2 ´ 10–6 C are
separated by 50cm and this dipole is placed in
uniform electric field of 2.5 ´ 10+6 V/m magnitude.
Maximum torque acting on it is ..........
(1) 5 Nm (2) 2.5 Nm
(3) 25 Nm (4) 0.5 J
5. Two coins having similar charges on them are
placed at distance of 4.5 m on table. Force acting (1) (2) (3) (4)
between them is 40/9 N. Charge on each coin is......
(1) 100 mC (2) 200 mC 10. Point P lies on the axis of a dipole. If the dipole is
rotated by 90° anticlock wise, the electric field
(3) 0.32 mC (4) 400 mC r
6. An electric dipole is placed in non uniform electric vector E at P will rotate by
field then ............. (1) 90° clockwise
(1) both force and torque act (2) 180° clockwise
(2) only force act (3) 90° anti-clockwise
(3) only torque act (4) it depends on which side of the dipole the point
(4) torque or force do not act. P is located.
PHYSICS ADI/E-5
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
11. A and B are two points on the axis and the NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
perpendicular bisector respectively of an electric 16. An electric dipole is placed at the origin O such
dipole. A and B are far away from the dipole and at
that its equator is y-axis. At a point P for away from
equal distance from it. If the field at A and B are
r r dipole, the electric field direction is along y-axis.
E A and E B then
OP makes an angle a with the x-axis find tan a.
r r r r
(1) E A = E B (2) E A = 2E B 17. An electric dipole consisting of two opposite
r r
(3) E A = -2E B charges of 2 × 10–6 C each separated by a distance
1 r r of 3 cm is placed in an electric field of 2 × 105 N/C.
(4) | E B | = | E A | , and EB is perpendicular to EA
2 The maximum torque on the dipole will be ?
12. Surface charge density on hemisphere of radius R 18. In the figure two conducting concentric spherical
is s. Potential on its centre is ..........
shells are shown. If the electric potential at the centre
sR sR is 20 V and the electric potential of the outer shell is
(1) 4e (2) e
0 0 5V, then the potential of the inner shell is
s sR
(3) e (4) 2e R
0 0
13. A point P is 20 m away from a 2 mC charge and 40
m away from a 4mC point charge. Find the electric
potential at P.
(1) 900 V (2) 1800 V (3) 450 V (4) 1350 V
14. Charge Q is distributed uniformly over a non-
conducting sphere of radius R. Find the electric
potential at distance r from the centre of the sphere 19. Figure shows a solid hemisphere with a charge of 5
(r < R). nc distributed uniformly through its volume. The
KQ KQ hemisphere lies on a plane and point 'p' is located
(1) (3R 2 - r 2 ) (2) (2R 2 - r 2 )
2R 3
3R 3 on the plane at distance 15 cm from the centre of
KQ 2 2 KQ hemisphere. Find the electric potential at p in volt.
(3) 3 (R - r ) (4) (3R 2 - r 2 )
R 3R 3
15. Calculate the potential energy of –2q charge as O P
shown in the figure.
H G
q
32 Kq 2 q 15cm
(1)
3 a q q
E F 20. 4 identical large metal plates are arranged parallel
3 Kq 2 a
(2) –2q to each other, with equal gaps in between. They are
32 a
given charges q, 2q, 3q, 4q consecutively. Now,
32 Kq 2 q
(3) - D
C the outermost plates one shorted. If the charge flows
q
3 a q q a
3 Kq 2 A a
xq
B through shorted wire is , find 'x'.
(4) - 3
32 a
ANS WER KEY
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. 1.414 17. 0.012 18. 20
19. 300 20. 5
E-6/ ADI PHYSICS

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 04 E L E CT R I C IT Y PHYSICS
1. The cross-sectional area of the plane shown in the 6. An insulating pipe of cross-section area 'A' contains
figure is equal to 1 cm2. 2A current flows through a an electrolyte which has two types of ions® their
conductor. The current density at point P in the charges being –e and +2e. A potential difference
conductor will be ........... applied between the ends of the pipe result in the
drifting of the two types of ions, having drift speed
= v (–ve ion) and v/4 (+ve ion). Both ions have the
same number per unit volume = n. The current
flowing through the pipe is
(1) nev A/2 (2) nev A/4
4 (3) 5nev A/2 (4) 3nev A/2
´ 104 Am-2 3
(1) (2) ´ 104 Am-2 7. A current I flows through a uniform wire of diameter
3 2
d when the mean electron drift velocity is V. The
3 3 same current will flow through a wire of diameter
(3) ´ 10-4 Am -2 (4) ´ 10-4 Am -2
2 4 d/2 made of the same material if the mean drift
velocity of the electron is :
2. In a hydrogen atom, the electron is moving in a
(1) v/4 (2) v/2
circular orbit of radius 5.3 × 10–11 m with a constant
speed of 2.2 × 106 ms–1. The electric current formed (3) 2v (4) 4v
due to the motion of electron is ........... 8. A wire has a non-uniform cross-section as shown in
figure. A steady current flows through it. The drift
(1) 1.12 A (2) 1.06 mA
speed of electrons at points P and Q is vP and vQ.
(3) 1.06 A (4) 1.12 mA
(1) vP = vQ
3. A current density of 2.5 Am–2 is found to exist in a (2) vP < vQ
conductor when an electric field 5 × 10–8 Vm–1 is
(3) vP > vQ
applied across it. The resistivity of a conductor is ...
(4) Data insufficient
(1) 1 × 10–8 Wm (2) 2 × 10–8 Wm
9. Figure shows a part of a closed circuit. If the current
(3) 0.5 × 10–8 Wm (4) 12.5 × 10–8 Wm
flowing through it is 2A, what will be the potential
4. A resistive wire is stretched till its length increased
difference between points A and B ? (VA - VB )
by 100 %. Due to the consequent its diameter
decrease then the change in the resistance of a
stretched wire will be ...........
(1) 300 % (2) 200 %
(1) +2 V (2) +1 V (3) –2 V (4) –1 V
(3) 100 % (4) 50 %
10. In the network shown in figure, the equivalent
5. Masses of three wires of copper are in the ratio resistance between points X and Y will be ..........
5 : 3 : 1 and their lengths are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. 1 2 4 5
3 Z
The ratio of their electrical resistances are ..........
Z Y
(1) 5 : 3 : 1 (2) 125 : 15 : 1
(3) 1 : 15 : 125 (4) 1 : 3 : 5 (1) r (2) r/2 (3) 2r (4) r/3
PHYSICS ADI/E-7
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
11. What will be the time taken by electron to move (1) 30 ohms (2) 40 ohms
with drift velocity from one end to the other end of (3) 50 ohms (4) 60 ohms
copper conductor 3 metre long and carrying a 15. A uniform conductor of resistance R is cut into 20
current of 3 A ? equal pieces. Half of them are joined in series and
[The cross-sectional area of the conductor = 2 × the remaining half of them are connected in parallel.
10–6 m2 and electron density for copper n = 8.5 × If the two combinations are joined in series, the
1028 m–3 ] effective resistance of all the pieces is :
(1) 2.72 × 103s (2) 2.72 × 104s
R
(3) 2.72s (4) 2.72 × 10–4s (1) R (2)
2
12. A storage battery is connected to a charger for
charging with a voltage of 12.5 Volts. The internal 101R 201R
resistance of the storage battery is 1W. When the (3) (4)
200 200
charging current is 0.5 A, the emf of the storage
battery is: NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
(1) 13 Volts (2) 12.5 Volts 1. 0.2 mm diameter copper wire is connected to 5.0
mm diameter iron wire. The current flows through
(3) 12 Volts (4) 11.5 Volts
both the wires. If 8.0 A current flows through the
13. In the figure shown, battery 1 has emf = 6 V and copper wire, then calculate the following equatities.
internal resistance = 1 W. Battery 2 has emf = 2V
(1) The current flowing through the iron wire and
and internal resistance = 3 W. The wires have
current density.
negligible resistance. What is the potential
difference across the terminals of battery 2 ? (2) The current density in the copper wire.
2. A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer.
The percentage change in its resistance is ....... [As-
sume that the volume of the wire remains constant.]
3. At what temperature would the resistance of a
copper conductor be double its resistance at 0°C ?
Given µ for copper = 3.9 × 10–3 °C–1
(1) 4 V (2) 1.5 V (3) 5 V (4) 0.5 V 4. A cylindrical wire is stretched to increase its length
14. In the given circuit the current flowing through the by 10%. Calculate the percentage increase in
resisitance 20 ohms is 0.3 ampere resistance.
while the ammetre reads 0.8 ampere. What is the 5. One conducting wire of length 1 m is cut into two
value of R1 ? unequal part P and Q respectively. Now, part P is
stretched to double its length. Let the modified wire
be R. If the resistance of the R and Q wires are same,
then calculate the length of P and Q wires.
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2)
1.28 ´ 10 6 8 ´ 108
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. (i) A/m2 (ii) A / m2 17. 0.2
p p
1 4
18. 256.4 19. 21 20. Lenglh of the P wire is meter. Length of Q wire is meter
5 5
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ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 05 E L E CT R I C IT Y PHYSICS
1. Two bulbs one of 200 volts, 60 watts & the other of (1) only [1] is correct
200 volts, 100 watts are connected in series to a (2) [1], [2] and [3] are correct
200 volt supply. The power consumed will be (3) [1], [3] and [4] are correct
(1) 37.5 watt (2) 160 watt (4) [1] and [3] are correct
(3) 62.5 watt (4) 110 watt 7. A Wheatstone's bridge is balanced with a resistance
2. Three 60 W light bulbs are mistakenly wired in series of 625 W in the third arm, where P, Q and S are in
and connected to a 120 V power supply. Assume the 1st, 2nd and 4th arm respectively. If P and Q are
the light bulbs are rated for single connection to interchanged, the resistance in the third arm has to
120 V. With the mistaken connection, the power be increased by 51W to secure balance. The
dissipated by each bulb is: unknown resistance in the fourth arm is
(1) 6.7 W (2) 13.3 W (3) 20 W (4) 40 W
3. In the figure shown the power generated in y is
maximum when y = 5W. Then R is
(1) 625 W (2) 650 W (3) 676 W (4) 600 W

8. The figure shows a metre-bridge circuit, with
AB = 100 cm, X = 12W and R = 18W, and the jockey
(1) 2 W (2) 6 W (3) 5 W (4) 3 W
J in the position of balance. If R is now made 8W,
4. A galvanometer has a resistance of 20W and reads through what distance will J have to be moved to
full-scale when 0.2 V is applied across it. To convert obtain balance?
it into a 10 A ammeter, the galvanometer coil should
have a
(1) 0.01W resistor connected across it
(2) 0.02W resistor connected across it
(3) 200W resistor connected in series with it (1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
(4) 2000 W resistor connected in series with it 9. A 6 V battery of negligible internal resistance is
5. A galvanometer coil has a resistance 90 W and full connected across a uniform wire of length 1 m. The
scale deflection current 10 mA. A 910W resistance positive terminal of another battery of emf 4V and
is connected in series with the galvanometer to internal resistance 1 W is joined to the point A as
make a voltmeter. If the least count of the voltmeter shown in figure. The ammeter shows zero deflection
is 0.1V, the number of divisions on its scale is when the jockey touches the wire at the point C.
The AC is equal to
(1) 90 (2) 91 (3) 100 (4) none
6. ln a balanced wheat stone bridge, current in the
galvanometer is zero. It remains zero when :
[1] battery emf is increased
[2] all resistances are increased by 10 ohms
[3] all resistances are made five times
(1) 2/3 m (2) 1/3 m (3) 3/5 m (4) 1/2 m
[4] the battery and the galvanometer are interchanged
PHYSICS ADI/E-9
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
10. A potentiometer wire has length 10 m and resistance 14. Arrange the order of power dissipated in the given
10W. It is connected to a battery of EMF 11 volt circuits, if the same current is passing through all
and internal resistance 1 W, then the potential circuits and each resistor is 'r'
gradient in the wire is
(1) 10 V/m (2) 1 V/m (i)
(3) 0.1 V/m (4) None of these
11. The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of (ii)
emf E is balanced at a length l/3 from the positive
end of the wire. If the length of the wire is increased
(iii)
by l/2. At what distance will the same cell give a
balance point.
2l l
(1) (2) (iv)
3 2
l 4l (1) P2 > P3 > P4 > P1 (2) P3 > P2 > P4 > P1

(3) (4) (3) P4 > P3 > P2 > P1 (4) P1 > P2 > P3 > P4
6 3
15. An electric current of 5A is divided in three branches
12. The effective resistance between the points P and
forming a parallel combination. The lengths of the
Q of the electrical circuit shown in the figure is
wires in the three branches are in the proportion 2 :
3 : 4 and their radii are in the proportion 3 : 4 : 5.
The currents in each branch if the wires are of the
same material, are ......., ...... and ......... respectively.
(1) 1.4 A, 1.66 A, 19.4 A
(2) 1.4 A, 1.66 A, 1.94 A
(3) 14 A, 1.66 A, 1.94 A
(1) 2 Rr / (R + r) (2) 8R(R + r)/(3R + r) (4) 1.4 A. 16.6 A, 1.94 A
(3) 2r + 4R (4) 5 R/2 + 2r NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
13. A 100 W bulb B1, and two 60 W bulbs B2 and B3, 16. What is the ratio of power consumed by the bulb
are connected to a 250 V source, as shown in the B1 to the Bulb B2 ?
figure. Now W1, W2 and W3 are the output powers 25W
of the bulbs B1, B2 and B3 respectively. Then 100W B1 100V
A B
100W
600W B2 200V
æ 500 ö C D
ç 3 ÷W
è ø
200V
17. Calculate the current through 6V battery.
6V 2W
5V
2W A B
4V
(1) W1 > W2 = W3 (2) W1 > W2 > W3 3W
(3) W1 < W2 = W3 (4) W1 <W2 < W3
E-10/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
18. AB is a 1m long uniform wire of 10W resistance. 19. In the figure, the potentiometer wire AB of length L
Find the length AJ when galvanometer shows no and resistance 9r is joined to cell D of emf e and
deflection. internal resistance r. The cell C's emf is e/2 and
internal resistance is 2r. The galvanometer a will show
15W no deflection when length AJ is x × L then x = ?
D
2V + e,r
J
A B
A J B
G
1.2W
+ G
1.5V
0.3W e/2,2r
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (2)
16. 4 17. 0.5 18. 37.5 19. 0.56
PHYSICS ADI/E-11
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 06 CAPACITOR PHYSICS
1. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor formed 8. 5 capacitor of C value are connected as shown in
by the circular plates of diameter 4.0 cm is equal to figure. Ratio of equivalent capacitance between p
the capacitance of a sphere of diameter 200 cm. and R and between P and Q is ........
Find the distance between two plates.
P
(1) 2 × 10–4 m (2) 1 × 10–4 m c c
(3) 3 × 10–4 m (4) 4 × 10–4 m Q T
2. If a capacitor having capacitance of 600 mF is c c
charged at a uniform rate of 50 mC/s, what is the R c S
time required to increase its potential by 10 volts.
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 5 : 2 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1
(1) 500 s (2) 6000 s
9. Capacitor of 4mF and 6 mF are connected in series.
(3) 12 s (4) 120 s
Potential difference of 200V is applied between
3. Two capacitor having value C1 and C2 are connected
outer plates of capacitor. Charge on each capacitor
in parallel. This combination is given charge Q.
is ......
Ratio of charges on C1 and C2 is ...............
(1) 6000 mC (2) 480 mC
C2 (3) 12000 C (4) 6000 C
(1) C1 C2 (2)
C1
10. A capacitor of 20 mF is charged to 500 V. Now
battery is disconnected and uncharged capacitor of
C1
(3) C1 + C2 (4) C 5mF is connected in parallel. Potential difference
2
across combination of capacitor is ......
4. How three capacitor of 4mF should be connected to (1) 400 V (2) 300 V
obtain effective capacitance of 6 mF ? (3) 200 V (4) 100 V
(1) all in series 11. Equivalent capacitance of network shown is ......
(2) all in parallel
A
(3) two in series and one in parallel
4m F 4m F
(4) two in parallel and one in series 4m F
4mF
5. When an aluminium plate of negligible thickness is
introduced between two plates of capacitor then B 4m F
capacitance ........... 10
(1) mF (2) 4 mF (3) 6 mF (4) 8 mF
(1) decrease (2) do not change 3
(3) Increase (4) becomes zero 12. The area of every plate shown in the figure is A and
6. Value of a parallel plate capacitance is 3F. Distance the separation between the successive plates is d.
between plates is 5 mm. Area of plate is ......... What is the capacitance between points a and b ?
(1) 4.259 × 109 m2 (2) 1.964 × 109 m2
(3) 12.81 × 109 m2 (4) 1.694 × 109 m2
7. How many capacitors of 8mF, 250 V rating are
connected in which way so that equivalent
capacitance is 16 mF and 1000 V rating obtained?
(1) e0 A/d (2) 2e0 A/d (3) 3e0 A/d (4) 4e0 A/d
(1) 4 (2) 32 (3) 8 (4) 3
E-12/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
13. In the figure area of each plate is A and the distance NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
between consecutive plates is d. What is the 16. Equivalent capacitance between A and B is of the
effective capacitance between points A and B ? form nC. Find n-upto two places after decimal.
C C C
A
C C C
B
17. Find the value C in mF if equivalent capacitance

between points A and B to be 1 mF as shown in figure.
1mF
(1) e 0 A / d (2) 2e 0 A / d (3) 3e 0 A / d (4) 4e 0 A / d
A C
14. Six identical square metallic plates are arranged as 6mF 4mF
in figure. Length of each plate is l. The capacitance 8mF
of this arrangement would be ........... 12mF
2mF 2mF
B
18. Two parallel plate condenser of capacity of 2F and

3F are changed to 3V and 4V respectively. If likely
charged plates are connected together then the
common potential will (in volt) will be
3e 0 l 2 4 e 0 l2 19. Find the potential diff between point C and point D.
(1) (2)
d 3 d C
3 e 0 l2 4e 0 l2 A 6mF 3mF
B
(3) (4)
2 d d D
15. Find the equivalent capacitance across A & B 12mF 4mF
100
20. A circuit is shown in figure below. Find out the
charge (in mC) of condenser having capacitance 5
mF.
2 mF
3 mF
5mF
28 15
(1) mf (2) mF
3 2 4 mF
(3) 15 mF (4) None of these 6V
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (2) 16. 0.62 17. 1.39 18. 3.60
19. 8.25 20. 9
PHYSICS ADI/E-13
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 07 CAPACITOR PHYSICS
1. The capacitance of a variable capacitor joined with 6. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C (without
a battery of 100 V is changed from 2 mF to 10 mF. dielectrics) is filled by dielectric slabs as shown in
What is the change in the energy stored in it ? figure. Then the new capacitance of the capacitor is
(1) 2 × 10–2 J (2) 2.5 × 10–2 J (1) 6 C
K3=6
(2) 4 C
(3) 6.5 × 10–2 J (4) 4 × 10–2 J
(3) 2.4 C K1=2 K2=4
2. A capacitor of 20 mF is charged to 500 V. Now
(4) 3 C
battery is disconnected and uncharged capacitor of
5mF is connected in parallel. Potential difference 7. In the circuit shown initially C1 & C2 are uncharged.
After closing the switch
across combination of capacitor is ......
(1) 400 V (2) 300 V
(3) 200 V (4) 100 V
3. A capacitor with air as medium between plate is
charged to voltage V. Now battery is disconnected
and distance between plate is increased then (1) The charge on C2 is greater that on C1
potential difference between plates.........
(2) The charge on C1 and C2 are the same
(1) do not change (2) become zero (3) The potential drops across C1 and C2 are the
(3) increases (4) decreases same
4. The distance between the plates of a charged parallel (4) The potential drops across C2 is greater than that
plate capacitor is 5 cm and electric field inside the across C1
plates is 200 Vcm –1 . An uncharged metal bar of 8. A capacitor C is charged to a potential difference V
width 2 cm is fully immersed into the capacitor. The and battery is disconnected. Now if the capacitor
length of the metal bar is same as that of plate of plates are brought close slowly by some distance :
capacitor. The voltage across capacitor after the (1) some +ve work is done by external agent
immersion of the bar is (2) energy of capacitor will decrease
(1) zero (2) 400 V (3) energy of capacitor will increase
(3) 600 V (4) 100 V (4) none of the above
9. An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into the
5. Condenser A has a capacity of 15 mF when it is shape as shown in the figure. It carries a current of i
filled with a medium of dielectric constant 15. Another ampere and the radius of the circular loop is r metre.
Then the magnetic induction at its centre will be
condenser B has a capacity 1 mF with air between
the plates. Both are charged separately by a battery r
of 100V. After charging, both are connected in O

i
parallel without the battery and the dielectric material
being removed. The common potential now is
m 0 2i m 0 2i
(1) 400V (2) 800V (1) (p + 1) (2) (p - 1)
4p r 4p r
(3) 1200V (4) 1600V
(3) Zero (4) Infinite
E-14/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
10. The strength of the magnetic field at a point r near 15. An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r
a long straight current carrying wire is B. The field makes n rotation per second. The magnetic field
r produced at the centre has a magnitude of
at a distance will be
2
m 0 ne m 0n 2e m 0 ne
(1) (2) (3) 2pr (4) Zero
(1) B/2 (2) B/4 (3) 2B (4) 4B 2r 2r
11. A straight section PQ of a circuit lies along the NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
a a 16. Separation between plates of a
X-axis from x = - to x = and carries a steady
2 2
parallel plate capacitor is 5 mm.
current i. The magnetic field due to the section PQ This air cpacitor is charged to
at a point X = + a will be a potential difference 25 V. The
(1) Proportional to a (2) Proportional to a 2 voltage source is removed and
3 mm
(2) Proportional to 1 / a (4) Zero a dielectric of 3mm thickess 5 mm
12. Two concentric circular coils of ten turns each are and dielectric constant 10 is
situated in the same plane. Their radii are 20 and placed between plates.
40 cm and they carry respectively 0.2 and 0.3 Find potential difference between plates after
ampere current in opposite direction. The magnetic inserting dielectric.
field in weber / m2 at the centre is 17. Two cpacitor each having capacitance C and
breakdown voltage 12 V are joined in series. Find
35 m 7 5
(1) m0 (2) 800 (3) 80 m 0 (4) 4 m 0 breakdown voltage of combination. (Series
4
combinations)
13. A battery is connected between two points A and B 18. Find steady state charge on capacitor in nano
on the circumference of a uniform conducting ring coulomb.
of radius r and resistance R. One of the arcs AB of 10 W
the ring subtends an angle q at the centre. The value 8v 0.1µF

20 W 20 W
20 W
of the magnetic induction at the centre due to the
current in the ring is 10 W
(1) Proportional to 2 (180° - q ) 19. A semicircular wire of radius ‘R’, carrying current
r
(2) Inversely proportional to r ‘I’ is placed in a uniform magnetic field B as shown
æ IpR 2 Bö
(3) Zero, only if q = 180° in figure. If torque acting on the wrie is çè ÷ .
x ø
(4) Zero for all values of q What is the value of ‘x’?
14. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of
radius r carrying current I is B1 . The field at the
centre of another coil of radius 2 r carrying same
B1
20. A wire is wound on a long rod of material of relative
current I is B2 . The ratio B2 is permeability µr = 4000 to make a solenoid. If the
current through the wire is 5 A and number of turns
1 per unit length is 1000 per meter, then magnetic
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
field inside the solenoid is (in T)
ANS WER KEY

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (1) 16. 11.50 17. 24 18. 400 19. 2
20. 25.12
PHYSICS ADI/E-15
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 08 MEC PHYSICS
1. A wire in the form of a square of side ‘a’ carries a 5. In the figure shown there are two semicircles of radii
current i. Then the magnetic induction at the centre r1 and r2 in which a current i is flowing. The
of the square wire is (Magnetic permeability of free magnetic induction at the centre O will be
space = m o )
r1
m0i m0i 2 2 2m o i m0i
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2p a O
2pa pa pa O
r2
2. A current of i ampere is flowing through each of

the bent wires as shown, the magnitude and direction m i mi
(1) r0 (r1 + r2) (2) 40 (r1 - r2 )
of magnetic field at O is
m0i æ r1 + r2 ö m0i æ r2 - r1 ö
(3) 4 çç r r ÷÷ (4) 4 çç r r ÷÷
è 12 ø è 12 ø
6. Magnetic field due to a ring having n turns at a
distance x on its axis is proportional to (if r = radius
m 0i æ 1 2 ö m 0i æ 1 3 ö of ring)
(1) ç + ÷ (2) ç + ÷ r2
4 è R R¢ ø 4 è R R¢ ø r
(1) (x 2 + r 2 ) (2) (x 2 + r 2 )3 / 2
m 0i æ 1 3 ö m 0i æ 1 3 ö nr 2 n 2r 2
(3) ç + ÷ (4) ç + ÷ (3) (4) (x 2 + r 2 ) 3 / 2
8 è R 2R ¢ ø 8 è R R¢ ø 2
(x + r ) 2 3/2
7. A long straight wire carrying current of 30A is placed

3. Three rings, each having equal radius R, are placed
in an external uniform magnetic field of induction
mutually perpendicular to
4 ´ 10–4T. The magnetic field is acting parallel to
each other and each having its centre at the origin the direction of current. The magnitude of the
of co-ordinate system. If current I is flowing through resultant magnetic induction in tesla at a point 2.0
each ring then the magnitude of the magnetic field cm away from the wire is
at the common centre is
(1) 10 –4 (2) 3 ´ 10–4 (3) 5 ´ 10–4 (4) 6 ´ 10–4
8. Two straight horizontal parallel wires are carrying
the same current in the same direction, d is the
distance between the wires. You are provided with
a small freely suspended magnetic needle. At which
of the following positions will the orientation of the
m0I needle be independent of the magnitude of the
(1) 3 (2) zero
2R current in the wires
(3) ( 2 -1 )m2RI0
(4) ( 3- 2 )m2RI0
(1) At a distance d / 2 from any of the wires
(2) At a distance d / 2 from any of the wires in the
4. A current flows in a conductor from east to west. horizontal plane
The direction of the magnetic field at a points above (3) Anywhere on the circumference of a vertical circle
the conductor is ..... of radius d and centre halfway between the wires
(1) Towards north (2) Towards south (4) At points halfway between the wires in the
(3) Towards east (4) Towards west horizontal plane
E-16/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
9. A circular coil of radius R carries an electric current. 15. Consider six wires coming into or out of the page, all
The magnetic field due to the coil at a point on the with the same current. Rank the line integral of the
axis of the coil located at a distance r from the centre magnetic field (from most positive to most negative)
of the coil, such that r >> R, varies as taken counterclockwise around each loop shown.
loop C
loop B
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
r r3 / 2 r2 r3 X
X
10. A long copper tube of inner radius R carries a current X
i. The magnetic field B inside the tube is loop D

loop A
m i m i m i (1) B > C > D > A (2) B > C = D > A

(1) 2p0R (2) 4p0R (3) 2R0 (4) Zero
(3) B > A > C = D (4) C > B = D > A
11. A long solenoid is formed by winding 20 turns/cm. 16. Two parallel long wires carry current i1 and i2 with
The current necessary to produce a magnetic field i1 > i2. When the current are in same direction the
of 20 millitesla inside the solenoid will be magnetic field at a point midway between the wire
m0 is 10 µT. If the direction of i2 is reversed , the field
approximately ( = 10 -7 tesla - metre / ampere )
4p i1
becomes 30 µT. the ratio i is
(1) 8.0 A (2) 4.0 A (3) 2.0 A (4) 1.0 A 2
12. One metre length of wire carries a constant current. 17. A circular coil of 100 turns has an effective radius
0.05
p
The wire is bent to form a circular loop. The
magnetic field at the centre of this loop is B. The m and carries a current of 0.1 A (i = cosntant). How
same is now bent to form a circular loop of smaller much work in mJ is required to turn it in an external
radius to have four turns in the loop. The magnetic magnetic field of 1.5 wb/m2 through 180° about axis
field at the centre of this new loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field. The plane of coil
is initially perpandicular to the magnetic field.
(1) 4 B (2) 16 B (3) B / 2 (4) B / 4
18. A copper wire having resistance 0.01 W in each
13. A current I flows along the length of an infinitely
metre is used to wind a 400 turns of radius 1 cm
long, straight and thin-walled pipe. Then
and length 20 cm. find the emf of battery which
(1) The magnetic field at all points inside the pipe when connected across the solenoid will cause a
is the same but not zero magnetic field of 1 × 10 –2 T near the center of
(2) The magnetic field at any point inside the pipe solenoid.
is zero 19. A current I = 5A flows along a thin wire shaped as
(3) The magnetic field is zero only on the axis of shown in figure. The radius of curved part of wire
the pipe is equal to R = 120 mm and angle q = 90°. The
(4) The magnetic field is different at different points magnetic field at point O is n µT. Find n.
inside the pipe
O
14. The ratio of the magnetic field at the centre of a R
i
current carrying coil of the radius a and at a distance

i
‘a’ from centre of the coil and perpendicular to the
20. A point charge q = 2µC is at origin. It has velocity
axis of coil is
2iˆ m / s . The magnitude of magnetic field at point
1 1
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4) 2 2 (0, 2, 0) in x × (10–12 T). Find x.
2 2 2
ANS WER KEY

1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. 2 17. 75 18. 1 19. 28 20. 0.1
PHYSICS ADI/E-17
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 09 MEC PHYSICS
1. An electron is moving along positive x-axis. A uniform 6. An electron (mass = 9.1 × 10-31 ; charge = - 1.6 ×
electric field exists towards negative y-axis. What 10-19 C) experiences no deflection if subjected to
should be the direction of magnetic field of suitable an electric field of 3.2 × 105 V/m and a magnetic
magnitude so that net force of electron is zero field of 2.0 × 10-3 Wb/m2 . Both the fields are normal
(1) positive z- axis (2) negative z-axis to the path of electron and to each other . If the
(3) positive y-axis (4) negative y-axis electric field is removed, then the electron will
2. A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving revolve in an orbit of radius :
from the origin under the action of an electric field (1) 45 m (2) 4.5 m
r r r (3) 0.45 m (4) 0.045 m
E = E 0 î and B = B0 î with velocity v = v0 ĵ . The
7. A charged particle moves in a magnetic field
speed of the particle will become 2v0 after a time r r
B = 10 î with initial velocity u = 5î + 4ˆj . The path
2mv0 2 Bq of the particle will be
(1) t = (2) t =
qE m v0 (1) straight line (2) circle
(3) helical (4) none
( )
3 Bq 3 m v0
(3) t = (4) t = 8. A electron experiences a force 4.0 î + 3.0 ˆj × 10–13
m v0 qE
N in a uniform magnetic field when its velocity is
3. An electron is projected with velocity v0 in a uniform 2.5 k̂ ´10 7 ms–1 . When the velocity is redirected
electric field E perpendicular to the field. Again it is
projected with velocity v 0 perpendicular to a
( )
and becomes 1.5 î - 2.0 ĵ ´ 107 ms–1, the magnetic
force of the electron is zero. The magnetic field
uniform magnetic field B. If r1 is initial radius of ®
curvature just after entering in the electric field and vector B is :
r2 is initial radius of curvature just after entering in (1) – 0.075 î + 0.1 ĵ (2) 0.1 î + 0.075 ĵ
magnetic field then the ratio r1/r2 is equal to
(3) 0.075 î - 0.1 ˆj + k̂ (4) 0.075 î - 0.1ˆj
Bv 02 B Ev0 Bv 0 9. Electrons moving with different speeds enter a
(1) (2) (3) (4) uniform magnetic field in a direction perpendicular
E E B E
to the field. They will move along circular paths.
4. Two protons move parallel to each other, keeping
(1) of same radius
distance r between them, both moving with same
r (2) with larger radii for the faster electrons
velocity V . Then the ratio of the electric and
magnetic force of interaction between them is (3) with smaller radii for the faster electrons
(1) c2/V2 (2) 2c2/V2 (4) either (2) or (3) depending on the magnitude of
the magnetic field
(3) c2/2V2 (4) None of these
10. In the previous question, time periods of rotation
5. An electron having kinetic energy T is moving in a
will be :
circular orbit of radius
r R perpendicular to a uniform
magnetic induction B . If kinetic energy is doubled (1) same for all electrons
and magnetic induction tripled, the radius will become (2) greater for the faster electrons
(3) smaller for the faster electrons
3R 3 2 4 (4) either (2) or (3) depending on the magnitude of
(1) (2) R (3) R (4) R
2 2 9 3 the magnetic field
E-18/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
11. OABC is a current carrying square loop an electron 15. A particle of specific charge (q/m) is projected from
is projected from the centre of loop along its the origin of coordinates with initial velocity
diagonal AC as shown. Unit vector in the direction [ui – vj]. Uniform electric magnetic fields exist in
of initial acceleration will be the region along the +y direction, of magnitude E
and B. The particle will definitely return to the origin
once if
(1) [vB 2pE] is an integer
(2) (u2 + v2)1/2 [B pE] is an integer

æ î + ĵ ö î + ĵ (3) [vB pE] in an integer
(1) k̂ (2) - çç ÷
÷ (3) – k̂ (4)
è 2ø 2
(4) [uB pE] is an integer
12. A particle having charge of 1 C, mass 1 kg and
speed 1 m/s enters a uniform magnetic field, having 16. A beam of ions with velocity 2 ´ 105 m / s enters
magnetic induction of 1 T, at an angle q = 30°
normally into a uniform magnetic field of
between velocity vector and magnetic induction.
The pitch of its helical path is (in meters) 4 ´ 10-2 tesla . If the specific charge of the ion is
5 ´ 107 C / kg , then the radius of the circular path
3p p
(1) (2) 3p (3) (4) p described will be
2 2
17. A proton of mass m and charge +e is moving in a
13. A charged particle is released from rest in a region
circular orbit in a magnetic field with energy 1 MeV.
of uniform electric and magnetic fields, which are
What should be the energy of a - particle
parallel to each other. The locus of the particle will
be (mass = 4m and charge = + 2e), so that it can revolve
in the path of same radius (in MeV)
(1) helix of constant pitch
18. A proton and an a - particle enter a uniform
(2) straight line
magnetic field perpendicularly with the same speed.
(3) helix of varying pitch If proton takes 25 m sec to make 5 revolutions, then
(4) cycloid the periodic time for the a - particle would be (in
14. A particle of specific charge (charge/mass) a starts m sec)
moving from the origin under the action of an 19. A deutron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a
r r
electric field E = E 0 î and magnetic field B = B0k̂ . circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in a plane
perpendicular to magnetic field B . The kinetic
Its velocity at (x0, y0, 0) is ( 4î - 3 ĵ) . The value of
energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit
x0 is: of radius 0.5 metre in the same plane with the same
13 aE 0 16 aB0 B is (in keV)
(1) (2)
2 B0 E0 20. The ratio of magnitude of magnetic field at the
centre of circular current carrying wire to its
25 5a magnetic moment is 12. If the current and radius
(3) (4)
2a E 0 2 B0 both are doubled, the ratio will become
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (3) 16. 0.10 17. 1 18. 10 19. 100 20. 1.5
PHYSICS ADI/E-19
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 10 MAGNETIC MATERIALS PHYSICS
1. Which of the following is correct ? 5. The graph between temperature and magnetic
(1) The mangetic field lines need not be susceptibility for a paramagnetic substance is
x
perpendicular to the surface from which they x
originate
(1) (2)
(2) Complete magnetic shielding is not possible T T
(3) Curie point is the critical temperature below x x
which a substance behaves as super conductor
(4) A bar magnet’s dipole moment can be always (3) (4)
T
determined in the presence of an external field T
2. The true value of angle of dip at a place is 60°. The

6. If the angular momentum of an electron is J then
apparent angle of dip, when a magnetic needle is
rotated through 30° from the magnetic meridian at the magnitude of the magnetic moment will be
the same place, is eJ eJ 2m
(1) m (2) 2m (3) eJ 2m (4) eJ
-1 æ 1 ö 7. For an isotropic medium B, m, H and M are related

(1) tan–1 (2) (2) tan ç ÷
è2ø as (where B, m 0 , H and M have their usual meaning
in the context of magnetic material
-1 æ 3 ö æ4ö
(3) tan ç ÷ (4) tan - 1ç ÷ (1) (B - M ) = m 0 H (2) M = m 0 (H + M )
è2ø è3ø
(3) H = m 0 (H + M ) (4) B = m 0 (H + M )
3. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is bent in the
8. Two short magnets of equal dipole moments M are
form of quadrant of cicular arc. The new magnetic
fastened perpendicularly at their centre (figure). The
moment is
magnitude of the magnetic field at a distance d from
2M 2 2M 2M the centre on the bisector of the right angle is
(1) (2) (3) (4) M N P
p p p d
4. A bar magnet oscillates in a region of uniform S N
magnetic field with time period T. Now, a piece of S
wood identical in all respects in terms of mass and

length is joined with bar magnet as shown. The new m M m0 M 2 m0 2 2 M m 2M
(1) 4p0 3 (2) (3) (4) 4p0 3
time period of oscillation is d 4p d 3 4p d 3 d
9. Two magnets of equal mass are joined at right angles

to each other as shown the magnet 1 has a magnetic
moment 3 times that of magnet 2. This arrangement
is pivoted so that it is free to rotate in the horizontal
N S plane. In equilibrium what angle will the magnet 1
Wood subtend with the magnetic meridian
m1 q m2
-1 æ 1 ö -1 æ 1 ö N N
(1) tan ç ÷ (2) tan ç ÷ (1) (2)
T è 2ø è3ø
(1) T (2) 2T (3) (4) 2T S
2 (3) tan-1(1) (4) 0°
90° S
E-20/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
10. A curve between magnetic moment and temperature 14. The magnetic potential at a point on the axial line
of magnet is of a bar magnet of dipole moment M is V. What is
M M
the magnetic potential due to a bar magnet of dipole
M
moment 4
at the same point
(1) (2)
O T O
T (1) 4 V (2) 2 V (3) V/2 (4) V/4
M M
15. If f1 and f 2 be the angles of dip observed in two
(3) (4) vertical planes at right angles to each other and f be
O
T
O
T the true angle of dip, then
11. The figure illustrate how B, the flux density inside (1) cos 2 f = cos 2 f1 + cos 2 f 2
a sample of unmagnetised ferromagnetic material (2) sec 2 f = sec 2 f1 + sec 2 f 2
varies with B0, the magnetic flux density in which
(3) tan 2 f = tan 2 f1 + tan 2 f 2
the sample is kept. For the sample to be suitable for
making a permanent magnet (4) cot 2 f = cot 2 f1 + cot 2 f 2
B NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
Q P 16. The pole strength of a bar magnet is 48 A-m and the
R distance between its poles is 25cm. The torque, by
B0
O
which it can be held at an angle of 30° with the uniform
magnetic field of strength 0.15 Wb/m2, will be
S 17. Two short bar magnets of magnetic moment M each
(1) OQ should be large, OR should be small
are placed at a distance 2d apart. The magnetic field
(2) OQ and OR should both be large
midway between them at P is
(3) OQ should be small and OR should be large S
(4) OQ and OR should both be small
12. The period of oscillation of compass needle is 8s at
S N P
a place where dip angle is 30° and magnetic field is
d d
B1. At another place where dip angle is 60° and N
magnetic field is B2, the period of oscillation is 4s 18. In a vertical plane p 1 making angle 30° with
then B2/B1 is magnetic meridian, apparent angle of dip is 60°.
The apparent angle of dip in vertical plane p2, which
(1) 4 3 (2) 3 3 (3) 5/7 (4) 8/7 is perpendicular to plane p1 is
13. A bar magnet of length 3 cm has points A and B 19. An iron rod of volume 10 –4 m 3 and relative
along its axis at distances of 24 cm and 48 cm on permeability 1000 is placed inside a long solenoid
the opposite sides. Ratio of magnetic fields at these wound with 5 turns/cm. If a current of 0.5 A is
points will be passed through the solenoid, then the magnetic
moment of the rod is
A B
S N
20. A bar magnet has coercivity 4 × 10 3 Am–1 . It is
24 cm 48 cm desired to demagnetise it by inserting it inside a
solenoid 12 cm long and having 60 turns. The
(1) 8 (2) 1 / 2 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 current that should be sent through the solenoid is
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3)
m0 M 5
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (4) 16. 0.90 N-m 17. 18. tan–1 (3)
4p d3
19. 25 20. 8A
PHYSICS ADI/E-21
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 11 EMI PHYSICS
1. In a coil of area 10 cm2 and 10 turns with a magnetic 7. When a bar magnet falls through a long hollow metal
field directed perpendicular to the plane and is cylinder fixed with its axis vertical, the final
changing at the rate of 10 8 gauss/second. The acceleration of the magnet is
resistance of the coil is 20 ohm. The current in the (1) Equal to zero
coil will be (2) Less than g
(1) 5 amp (2) 0.5 amp (3) Equal to g
(3) 0.05 amp (4) 5 × 108 amp (4) Equal to g in to beginning and then more than g
2. A coil of area 100cm 2 has 500 turns. Magnetic field 8. The magnetic flux linked with a circuit of resistance
of 0.1 weber / metre is perpendicular to the coil. The
2 100 ohm increases from 10 to 60 webers. The
amount of induced charge that flows in the circuit
field is reduced to zero in 0.1 second. The induced
is (in coulomb)
e.m.f. in the coil is
(1) 1 V (2) 5 V (1) 0.5 (2) 5
(3) 50 V (4) Zero (3) 50 (4) 100
3. A coil having an area 2m 2 is placed in a magnetic 9. A conducting loop of radius R is present in a

uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane
field which changes from 1Wb / m 2 to 4Wb / m 2 in a
of the ring. If radius R varies as a function of time
interval of 2 second. The e.m.f. induced in the coil ‘t’, as R = R0+ t. The e.m.f induced in the loop is
will be
(1) 4 V (2) 3 V (3) 1.5 V (4) 2 V
4. Two different loops are concentric and lie in the
same plane. The current in the outer loop is
clockwise and increasing with time. The induced
current in the inner loop then, is
(1) Clockwise (1) 2p(R0 + t)B clockwise
(2) Zero (2) p(R0 + t)B clockwise
(3) Counter clockwise (3) 2p(R0 + t)B anticlockwise
(4) In a direction that depends on the ratio of the (4) zero
loop radii 10. In the arrangement shown in given figure current
5. The north pole of a long horizontal bar magnet is from A to B is increasing in magnitude. Induced
being brought closer to a vertical conducting plane current in the loop will
along the perpendicular direction. The direction of
the induced current in the conducting plane will be
(1) Horizontal (2) Vertical
(3) Clockwise (4) Anticlockwise
6. The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant
‘t’ is given by f = 5t3 – 100t + 300, the e.m.f. induced (1) have clockwise direction
in the coil at t = 2 second is (2) have anticlockwise direction
(1) – 40 V (2) 40 V (3) be zero
(3) 140 V (4) 300 V (4) oscillate between clockwise and anticlockwise
E-22/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
11. The figure shows an isosceles triangle 15. The self inductance of a coil is L. Keeping the length
× × × ×
wire frame with apex angle equal to × × × × and area same, the number of turns in the coil is
× × × ×
p/2. The frame starts entering into × v × × increased to four times. The self inductance of the
× × × × coil will now be
the region of uniform magnetic field × × × ×
B with constant velocity v at t = 0. × × × × (1) 1/4 L (2) L (3) 4 L (4) 16 L
× × × ×
The longest side of the frame is perpendicular to NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
the direction of velocity. If i is the instantaneous 16. A coil has 2000 turns and area of 70 cm 2 . The
current through the frame then choose the magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the coil
alternative showing the correct variation of i with is 0.3 Wb/m2 and takes 0.1sec to rotate through
180°. The value of the induced e.m.f. will be
time.
17. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of length
10 cm is situated in uniform magnetic field
(1) (2) perpendicular to plane of loop. The magnetic
induction is 0.1 tesla and resistance of connector
(R) is 1 ohm. The sides AB and CD have resistances
(3) (4) 2 ohm and 3 ohm respectively. Find the current in
the connector during its motion with constant
12. A long metal bar of 30 cm length is aligned along a velocity one metre/sec.
north south line and moves eastward at a speed of
10 ms–1. A uniform magnetic field of 4.0 T points
vertically downwards. If the south end of the bar
has a potential of 0 V, the induced potential at the
north end of the bar is 18. A thin wire of length 2m is perpendicular to the xy
(1) + 12 V plane. It is moved with velocity
r
(2) – 12 V v= ( 2î + 3 ĵ + k̂ ) m / s through a region of magnetic
r
(3) 0 V induction B = ( î + 2ˆj) Wb / m 2 . Then potential
(4) cannot be determined since there is not closed circuit difference induced between the ends of the wire :
13. A conducting rod moves with 19. The number of turns in the coil of an ac generator
is 5000 and the area of the coil is 0.25 m2. The coil
constant velocity u is rotated at the rate of 100 cycles/sec in a magnetic
perpendicular to the long, field of 0.2 W/m 2 . The peak value of the emf
straight wire carrying a generated is (p = 3.14)
current I as shown. Compute 20. As shown in the ´ ´ ´ ´ ´ ´
the emf generated between
figure a metal ´ ´ ´ ´ ´ ´
the ends of the rod. 50 cm
rod makes ´
3W
´ ´ ´ ´ ´
v = 2m/s
m 0 uIl m 0 uIl 2m 0 uIl m 0 uIl contact and ´ ´ ´ ´ ´ ´
(1) (2) (3) (4) complete the
pr 2pr pr 4pr ´ ´ ´ ´ ´ ´
circuit. ´ ´
B = 0.15 T
´ ´ ´ ´
14. The current passing through a choke coil of 5 henry
The circuit is perpendicular to the magnetic field
is decreasing at the rate of 2 ampere/sec. The e.m.f.
with B = 0.15 tesla. If the resistance is 3 Ω , force
developing across the coil is
needed to move the rod as indicated with a constant
(1) 10 V (2) – 10 V (3) 2.5 V (4) – 2.5 V speed of 2m/sec is
ANS WER KEY
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (4) 16. 84 17. 1/220 18. 2 19. 157
20. 3.75 × 10 –3
PHYSICS ADI/E-23
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 12 EMI PHYSICS
1. There is a uniform magnetic field B normal to the r

4. The magnetic field in a region is given by B =
xy plane. A conductor ABC has length AB = l1 ,
parallel to the x-axis, and length BC = l2, parallel to FG IJ
x $
the y-axis. ABC moves in the xy plane with velocity H
B0 1 +
a K
k . A square loop of edge - length d is
v x î + v y ĵ . The potential difference between A and placed with its edge along x & y axis. The loop is
r
moved with constant velocity V = V0 $i . The emf
C is proportional to
(1) vxl1 + vyl2
induced in the loop is
(2) vxl2 + vyl1
(3) vxl2 – vyl1
V0 B 0 d 2 V0 B 0 d 2
(1) (2)
(4) vxl1 – vyl2
a 2a
2. A conducting rod PQ of length 5 m oriented as shown V0 B0 a 2
(3) (4) None of these
in figure is moving with velocity (2 m/s) î without d
any rotation in a uniform magnetic field (3 ĵ + 4k̂ ) 5. When a ‘J’ shaped conducting rod is rotating in its
Tesla. Emf induced in the rod is own plane with constant angular velocity w, about
one of its end P, in a uniform magnetic field
(1) 32 Volts r
B directed normally into the plane of paper then
(2) 40 Volt magnitude of emf induced across it will be
(3) 50 Volt
(4) None of these
3. An equilateralr triangular loop ADC in finite
magnetic field B is pulled with constant velocity
(V) shown in the figure. At time t = 0, side DC of
loop is at edge of the magnetic field. Magnetic field 1
is perpendicular to the paper inwards (or (1) Bw L2 + l 2 (2) BwL2
2
perpendicular to the plane of the coil). The induced
current versus time graph will be as 1 1
(3) Bw(L2 + l 2 ) (4) Bw l 2
2 2
6. Two coils of self inductance L1 and L2 are placed
closer to each other so that total flux in one coil is
completely linked with other. If M is mutual
inductance between them, then
(1) M = L1 L2 (2) M = L1 / L2
(1) (2) (3) M = L1 L2 (4) M = (L1 L2 ) 2

7. An e.m.f. of 15 volt is applied in a circuit containing
5 henry inductance and 10 ohm resistance. The ratio
of the currents at time t = ¥ and at t = 1 second is
(3) (4) e1 / 2 e2
(1) (2) (3) 1 - e -1 (4) e -1
e1 / 2 - 1 e2 - 1
E-24/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
8. A step-down transformer is used on a 1000 V line 12. A wire cd of length l and mass m is sliding without
to deliver 20 A at 120 V at the secondary coil. If the friction on conducting rails ax and by as shown.
efficiency of the transformer is 80% the current The vertical rails are connected to each other with a
drawn from the line is . resistance R between a and b. A uniform magnetic
(1) 3 A (2) 30 A (3) 0.3 A (4) 2.4 A field B is applied perpendicular to the plane abcd
such that cd moves with a constant velocity of
9. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic
R
field which is directed into the paper. The magnetic b
a
field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions
of induced current in wires AB and CD are l
c d
´ ´ ´ ´ C ´
x y
´ A ´ ´ ´ ´
mgR mgR mgR mgR
(1) (2) (3) (4)
´ ´ ´ ´ ´
Bl B 2l 2 B3l 3 B 2l
B
13. A conducting rod AC of length 4l is rotated about a
´ ´ ´ ´ D ´ r
point O in a uniform magnetic field B directed into
(1) B to A and D to C (2) A to B and C to D
the paper. AO = l and OC = 3l. Then
(3) A to B and D to C (4) B to A and C to D
× × × × × ® ×
10. The north and south poles of two identical magnets
× × O × × ×
approach a coil, containing a condenser, with equal A C
× × × × × ×
speeds from opposite sides. Then w
× × × × × ×
Rear side
Bwl 2 2 7
1 (1) VA - VO = (2) VO - VC = 2 Bwl
S N S N 2
v 2 v
2 9
Observer
Front side (3) VA - VC = 4 Bwl 2 (4) VC - VO = 2 Bwl
(1) Plate 1 will be negative and plate 2 positive 14. The network shown in the figure is a part of a
(2) Plate 1 will be positive and plate 2 negative complete circuit. If at a certain instant the current i
(3) Both the plates will be positive is 5 A and is decreasing at the rate of 10 3 A / s then
(4) Both the plates will be negative VA - VB is
11. As shown in the figure is a circular loop of radius r

A B
and resistance R. A variable magnetic field of 1W 15 V 5mH
induction B = B0e -t is established inside the coil. If (1) 5 V (2) 10 V (3) 15 V (4) 20 V
the key (K) is closed, the electrical power developed
15. What is the mutual inductance of a two-loop system
right after closing the switch is equal to
as shown with centre separation l
B ´
R
´
´
´ ´ ´ 1 2
´
´ ´ a a
´ K
l >>a
B02pr 2 B0 10r 3
(1) (2)
R R
m0pa 4 m0pa 4 m0pa 4 m0pa 4

B02p 2r 4 R B02p 2r 4 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) (4) 8l 3 4l 3 6l 3 2l 3
5 R
PHYSICS ADI/E-25
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS in second). The resistance of the ring is 2W and g =
16. Calcualte the ratio of current flowing through the 10 m/s2. Find induced electri field in (V/m) at the
battery at t = 0 and t = ¥ (t = 0 is the time of crosing circumference of ring at the instant ring starts
of switch) toppling.
t=0 3
18. The current in an L–R circuit builds up to th of
5W 2µF 2H 4
20 V its steady state value in 4 sec. Find time constant of
15 W 5W
circuit (use ln2 = 0.7)
19. A coil of inductance 50µH and resistance 0.5W is
connected to a battery of emf 5V. A resistance of
17. (XZ is horizontal plane) 10W is connected parallel to coil and battery is
removed at the same time. Find amount of heat
generated in the coil after removing battery in mJ.
A uniform conducting ring of mass p kg and radius
20. Two coil having self inductances L1 = 1 mH and
1 m is kept on the smooth horizontal table. A
L2 = 5 mH. The current in the coils are increasing at
uniform, but time varying magnetic field
same constant rate at a certain instant and power
B= ( î + t ˆj) T is present in the region where t is time
2
supplied to coils is also same. Find ratio of energy
stored in coils at this instant.
ANS WER KEY

1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. 0.5 17. 3.18 18. 2.86 19. 0.12 20. 5
E-26/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 13 ALTERNATING CURRENT PHYSICS
1. When 100 V DC is applied across a solenoid a

current of 1 A flows in it. When 100 V AC is applied
across the same coil, the current drops to 0.5 A. If
the frequency of the AC source is 50 Hz, the
impedance and inductance of the solenoid are: (1) I1 = I2 = I3 = I4 (2) I3 > I1 = I2 > I4
(1) 100W, 0.93 H (2) 200W, 1.0 H (3) I3 > I4 > I2 = I1 (4) I3 > I2 > I1 > I4
(3) 10W, 0.86H (4) 200W, 0.55 H 7. The current I, potential difference V L across the
2. In ac circuit when ac ammeter is connected it reads inductor and potential difference V C across the
i current. If a student uses dc ammeter in place of capacitor in circuit as shown in the figure are best
ac ammeter the reading in the dc ammeter will be: represented vectorially as
i
(1) (2) 2i (3) 0.637 i (4) zero
2
3. An AC current is given by I = I0 + I1 sin wt then its
rms value will be
(1) I 0 2 + 0.5 I12 (2) I0 2 + 0.5 I0 2 (1) (2)
(3) 0 (4) I 0 2
4. Power factor of an L-R series circuit is 0.6 and that
of a C–R series circuit is 0.5. If the element (L, C, (3) (4)
and R) of the two circuits are joined in series the
power factor of this circuit is found to be 1. The 8. In the shown AC circuit phase difference between
ratio of the resistance in the L-R circuit to the currents I1 and I2 is
resistance in the C–R circuit is
4 3 3
(1) 6/5 (2) 5/6 (3) (4)
3 3 4
5. The effective value of current i = 2 sin 100 p t + 2
sin(100 p t + 30°) is :
(1) 2 Amp (2) 2 2 + 3 Amp p xL xL - xC

(1) – tan–1 (2) tan–1
(3) 4 Amp (4) None of these 2 R R
6. If I1, I2, I3 and I4 are the respective r.m.s. values of p xL xL - xC p
(3) + tan–1 (4) tan–1 +
the time varying currents as shown in the four cases 2 R R 2
I, II, III and IV. Then identify the correct relations. 9. In a series R-L-C circuit, the frequency of the source
is half of the resonance frequency. The nature of
the circuit will be
(1) capacitive (2) inductive
(3) purely resistive (4) data insufficient
PHYSICS ADI/E-27
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
6W
10. An alternating current is given by the equation (1) 0V, 0.47A A
i = i1 cos w t + i2 sin w t . The r.m.s. current is given by (2) 1.68V, 0.47A 5mH 4W 50mF
1 1 (3) 0V, 1.4 A
(1) (i1 + i2 ) (2) (ii + i2 )2
2 2 (4) 5.6V, 1.4 A V
1 NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
(3) 2 (i12 + i22 )1 / 2 (4) None of these
16. An alternating voltage is connected in series with a
11. Voltage and current in an ac circuit are given by resistance R and an inductance L If the potential
æ pö æ pö drop across the resistance is 200 V and across the
V = 5 sin ç 100pt - ÷ and I = 4 sin ç 100 p t + ÷
è 6ø è 6ø inductance is 150 V, then the applied voltage is
(1) Voltage leads the current by 30° 17. In the circuit shown below, the ac source has voltage
(2) Current leads the voltage by 30° V = 20 cos(wt) volts with w = 2000 rad/sec. the
(3) Current leads the voltage by 60° amplitude of the current will be nearest to
(4) Voltage leads the current by 60°
6W
12. Power delivered by the source of the circuit
becomes maximum, when
5 mH, 4W 50 mF
1
(1) wL = wC (2) wL =
wC
2 18. An LCR series circuit with a resistance of 100 ohm
æ 1 ö
(3) wL = - ç ÷ (4) wL = wC is connected to an ac source of 200 V (r.m.s.) and
è wC ø
angular frequency 300 rad/s. When only the
13. A 10 ohm resistance, 5 mH coil and 10 mF capacitor capacitor is removed, the current lags behind the
are joined in series. When a suitable frequency
voltage by 60°. When only the inductor is removed
alternating current source is joined to this the current leads the voltage by 60°. The average
combination, the circuit resonates. If the resistance power dissipated is
is halved, the resonance frequency
19. A capacitor is charged to a potential of V0 . It is
(1) Is halved (2) Is doubled connected with an inductor through a switch S. The
(3) Remains unchanged (4) In quadrupled switch is closed at time t = 0. If potential across
14. An inductor of inductance L and resistor of capacitor becomes zero for the first time at
resistance R are joined in series and connected by a np LC
source of frequency w . Power dissipated in the t= . Write down the value of n.
4
circuit is + –
L C
(R 2 + w 2 L2 ) V 2R
(1) (2) S
V (R + w 2 L2 )
2
20. In the given circuit, the circuit impedance is (2l)
kW. Find the value of l.
V R 2 + w 2 L2
(3) (R 2 + w 2 L2 ) (4) IL=2mA
V2 IR=1.5mA
15. In the circuit shown in the figure, the ac source gives 15V ~
a voltage V = 20 cos(2000 t). Neglecting source
resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter reading will be
ANS WER KEY

1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (3)
11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (4) 16. 250 17. 2 18. 200 19. 4 20. 3
E-28/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 14 W AV E S PHYSICS
1. An electromagnetic wave travels in a medium with 7. Which of the following is/are greenhouse gas(es) ?
speed 2 × 10 8 m/s. If relative permeability of (1) CO2 (2) H2 O
medium is 1.0, then relative permittivity is
(3) CFC (4) All of these
(1) 2.25 (2) 4.5
8. The rate of change of voltage of a parallel plate
(3) 0.5 (4) 2.5 capacitor if the instantaneous displacement current
2. An electromagnetic radiation has energy of 13.2 of 1A is established between the two plates of a
keV, then radiation belongs to the region of 1µF parallel plate capacitor-
(1) Microwave (2) X-ray (1) 106 v/s (2) 10 v/s
(3) Infrared (4) Visible (3) 108 v/s (4) 10–6 v/s
3. The figure gives the magnetic field of an 9. The relation between electric field E and magnetic
electromagnetic wave at a certain point and at a
field H in an electromagnetic wave is-
certain instant. The wave transports energy in
negative y-direction. Then the direction of electric µ0
field at this point and instant is (1) E = H (2) E = e H
0
µ0 e0
(3) E = e0 H (4) E = µ0 H
10. An electromagnetic wave is propagating along Y-

axis. Then-
(1) z-axis (2) – z-axis (1) Oscillating electric field is along X-axis and
(3) x-axis (4) – x-axis oscillating magnetic field is along Y-axis
4. Hertz's experiment confirms that (2) Oscillating electric field is along Z-axis and
(1) An electron at rest produces EM waves oscillating magnetic field is along X-axis
(2) An oscillating electron produces EM waves (3) Both oscillating electric and magnetic fields are
(3) An electron in conductor moving with drift along Y-axis, but phase difference between them
velocity produces EM wave is 90º
(4) All of these (4) Both oscillating electric and magnetic fields are
5. The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave mutually perpendicular in arbitrary directions
is given by 2 × 10–7sin(0.5 × 103 x + 1.5 × 1011t). 11. A electromagnetic wave going through a medium
This electromagnetic wave is is given by E = E0sin (kx – wt) and B = B0sin (kx –
(1) Visible light (2) Infrared wt) then -
(3) Microwave (4) Radiowave (1) E0k = B0w
6. Which of the following EM radiations has least (2) If Electric is in Z direction them magnetic field
wavelength? should be in –y direction.
(1) g-ray (2) X-ray (3) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
(3) infrated (4) Radiowaves (4) Only A is correct
PHYSICS ADI/E-29
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
12. In a plane E.M. wave, the electric field oscillates
sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.5 × 1010 Hz and 17. Poynting vector ®
P for an EM wave is-
amplitude 480 V/m. The amplitude of oscillating
magnetic field will be- (1) ® ® ®
P = E × B (2) ® ® ®
P = E × H
(1) 1.52 × 10–8 Wb/m2 (2) 1.52 × 10–7 Wb/m2
® ®
(3) 1.6 × 10–6 Wb/m2 (4) 1.6 × 10–7 Wb/m2 E E
® ®
(3) P = ® (4) P = ®
13. The average value of electric energy density in an B H
electromagnetic wave is (E0 is peak value) -
18. A variable frequency AC source is connected to a
1 E 02 capacitor. Then on increasing the frequency-
(1) e0E02 (2)
2 2e 0
(1) Both conduction current and displacement
current will increase
1
(3) e0E02 (4) eE2 (2) Both conduction current and displacement
4 0 0
current will decrease
14. Consider an electric charge oscillating with a
frequency of 10 MHz. The radiation emitted will (3) conduction current will increase and
have a wavelength equal to- displacement current will decrease
(1) 20 m (2) 30 m (4) conduction current will decrease and
displacement current will increase.
(3) 40 m (4) 10 m
19. In an electromagnetic wave, the amplitude of
15. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has
electric field is 10 V/m. The frequency of wave is
minimum frequency ?
5 × 1014 Hz, the wave is propagating along z–axis,
(1) radio wave (2) ultrasonic wave
then total average energy density of E.M. wave is -
(3) microwave (4) audible wave
(1) 2.21 ×10–10 J/m3 (2) 4.42 × 10–10 J/m3
16. The magnetic field in a plane EM wave is given by-
(3) 1.11 × 10–10 J/m3 (4) None of these
B = (100 µT) sin [(2 × 1015 s–1)(t – x/c)] ^j 20. A lamp emits monochromatic green light uniformly
in all directions. The lamp is 3% efficient in
The equation for electric field is-
converting electrical power to electromagnetic
(1) E = 100 µN/C sin [(2 × 1015s–1)(t – x/c)](– ^k ) waves and consumes 100 W of power. The
amplitude of electric field associated with the
(2) E = 3 × 1010µN/Csin[(2 × 1015s–1)(t – x/c)](– ^k ) electromagnetic radiation at a distance of 5 m from
the lamp will be-
(3) E = 3 × 1010µN/C sin[(2 × 1015 s–1)(t – x/c)] ^k (1) 1.34 V/m (2) 2.68 V/m
(4) E = 100 µN/C sin [(2 × 1015 s–1)(t – x/c)] ^k (3) 4.02 V/m (4) 5.36 V/m
ANS WER KEY
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (2)
11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (2)
E-30/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 15 RAY OPTICS PHYSICS
1. Figure shows a torch sending a parallel beam of 7. An object is placed at 20 cm from a convex mirror
light fixed on a wall and a plane mirror which forms of focal length 10 cm. The image formed by the
a spot on the wall. As the mirror moves towards the mirror is :-
wall, the spot on the wall moves (1) Real and at 20 cm from the mirror
(1) Towards the torch (2) Virtual and at 20 cm from the mirror
(2) Away from the torch (3) Virtual and at 20/3 cm from the mirror
(3) First closer to torch (4) Real and at 20/3 cm from the mirror
then away 8. An object 2.5 cm high is placed at a distance of
(4) Nowhere 10 cm from a concave mirror of radius of curvature
30 cm the size of the image is :-
2. Two plane mirrors are placed parallel to each other.
(1) 9.2 cm (2) 10.5 cm
The distance between mirrors is 10 cm. An object
is placed between the mirrors at a distance 4 cm (3) 5.6 cm (4) 7.5 cm
from one of them, say M 1 . What is the distance 9. A man 180 cm high stands infront of a plane mirror.
between the first image formed at M1 and second His eyes are at a height of 170 cm from the floor.
image formed at M2 ? Then the minimum length of the plane mirror for
(1) 28 cm (2) 30 cm him to see his full length image is :
(3) 26 cm (4) 32 cm (1) 90 cm (2) 180 cm
3. Two plane mirrors are at right angles to each other. (3) 45 cm (4) 360 cm
A man stands between them and combs his hair 10. A man 180 cm high stands infront of a plane mirror.
with his right hand. In how many of the images will His eyes are at a height of 170 cm from the floor.
he be seen using his right hand Then the lower edge of the mirror should be above
the ground level at a height of :
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
(1) 85 cm (2) 170 cm (3) 180 cm (4) 90 cm
4. Number of images of an object kept symmetrically
between two mirrors inclined at 72° would be: 11. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror, along
r
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 the direction given by, A = 2iˆ - 3ˆj + 4kˆ . Find the
5. A short linear object of length b lies along the axis unit vector along the reflected ray. Take normal to
of a concave mirror of focal length f at a distance u r
mirror along the direction of B = 3iˆ - 6ˆj + 2kˆ
from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is
approximately equal to -94iˆ + 237ˆj + 68kˆ -94iˆ + 68ˆj - 237kˆ
1 1 (1) (2)
49 29 49 29
æ u - f ö2 æ f ö2
(1) b ç ÷ (2) b ç ÷
è f ø è u-f ø 3iˆ + 6 ˆj - 2kˆ
2 (3) (4) None of these
æ u-f ö æ f ö 7
(3) b ç ÷ (4) b ç ÷
è f ø è u -f ø 12. A ray reflected successively from two plane mirrors
6. A concave mirror gives an image three times as large inclined at a certain angle undergoes a deviation of
the object placed at a distance of 20 cm from it. For 240°. Then the number of images observable is :
the image to be real, the focal length should be :- (1) 3 (2) 5
(1) 10 cm (2) 15 cm (3) 20 cm (4) 30 cm (3) 7 (4) 9
PHYSICS ADI/E-31
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
13. If there is no parallax between the images formed 2. A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm and a convex
by the convex mirror and the plane mirror then what mirror of focal length 20 cm are placed 50 cm. apart
is the focal length of the convex mirror? as shown in the figure. An object ‘AB’ of height 2mm
is placed perpendicular to the principal axis at a
distance 20 cm from the concave mirror. Find height
in mm (with sign) of image formed after two
reflections, considering first reflection from concave
mirror and second reflection from convex mirror.
(1) 48cm (2) 24cm (3)18cm (4) 32cm

13. As the position of an object (u) (reflected from a
concave mirror) is varied, the position of the image
(v) also varies. By letting the u change from 0 to +
¥, the graph between v versus u will be
3. A convex mirror of radius of curvature ‘R’ is fixed
on a stand at rest with total mass ‘m’ which is facing
a block of equal mass moving with speed ‘v’ on a
(1) (2) frictionless surface as shown in figure. Consider the
collision between block and the stand as elastic
collision. If speed of image w.r.t. ground after time
æ 3R ö
çè ÷ø is nv then fill the value of ‘n’.
(2) (4) v
14. A concave mirror has a focal length 20 cm. The ®V

m
distance between the two positions of the object for 2R
which the image size is double of the object size is
4. An image of candle on a screen is found to be double
(1) 30 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 60 cm (4) 40 cm its size. When candle is shifted by a distance 5 cm,
15. The magnification of the image when an object is then the image becomes triple its size, find radius
placed at a distance x from the principal focus of a of curvature of the mirror.
mirror of focal length f is 5. A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm and a point
x f f f object both are moving away from each other with
(1) (2) 1 + (3) (4) 1 - velocites 1 ms–1 and 10 ms–1 respectively as shown
f x x x
in figure. Find the velocity(in m/s) of image when
NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS the object is at a distance 15 cm from the mirror.
1. A point object is kept in front of plane mirror. The 1 ms-1
plane mirror is performing SHM of amplitude 2 cm.
The plane mirror moves along the x-axis and x-
10 ms-1
axis is normal to the mirror. The amplitude of mirror
is such that object is always in front of mirror. The O
amplitude of SHM of image is (in cm) 15 cm
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. 4 17. –12 18. 1.11 19. 60 20. 45
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ENTHUSE COURSE
1. For an eye kept at a depth h inside water of refractive 5. A ray falls on a prism ABC (AB = BC) and travels
index m, and looking outside, the radius of circle as shown in fig. The minimum refractive index of
through which the outer objects can be seen, will be the prism material should be :-
h h A
(1) (2)
m2 - 1 m 90°
h æ m2 - 1 ö
(3) (4) çç m ÷÷ h
m2 + 1 è ø B
90°
C
2. White light is incident on the interface of glass and (1) 4/3 (2) 2 (3) 1.5 (4) 3
air as shown in the figure. If green light is just totally
internally reflected then the emerging ray in air 6. In a spherical paper weight (R = 10 cm) made of
contains 3
glass of refractive index m = , an object is
(1) Yellow, orange, red 2
embedded at a distance 5 cm from its centre. What
(2) Violet, indigo, blue
is the apparent position of the object when seen from
(3) All colours the opposite side (see figure)?
(4) All colours except green (1) 10 cm behind centre
3. A concave mirror is placed on a horizontal table (2) 10 cm behind P
with its axis directed vertically upwards. Let O be
the pole of the mirror and C its centre of curvature. (3) 15 cm behind centre
A point object is placed at C. It has a real image, (4) 5 cm behind P
also located at C. If the mirror is now filled with 7. A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5, has
water, the image will be both surfaces of same radius of curvature R. On
(1) Real, at C immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it
(2) Real, located beyond C will behave as a :-
(3) Virtual, beyond C (1) Convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(4) Real and located before C (2) Convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
4. A plane mirror is placed horizontally inside water (3) Divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
æ 4ö (4) Divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
ç m = 3 ÷ . A ray falls normaly on it. The mirror is rotated
è ø 8. A convex lens of focal length f produces an image,
by angle q such that after reflection, the ray does not m times the size of the object; then the distance of
come out of water. The minimum value of q is the object from the lens is :
p [A] If the image is real :-
(1)
4 (1) (µ – 1)f (2) (µ + 1)f
3ö-1 æ
(2) sin ç ÷ (µ – 1)f (µ + 1)f
è4ø (2) (4)
µ µ
1 -1 æ 3 ö
(3) sin ç ÷
2 è4ø [B] If the image is virtual :-
-1 æ 3 ö (µ + 1)f (µ – 1)f
(4) 2sin ç ÷ (1) (µ – 1)f (2) (3) (4) (µ + 1)f
è4ø µ µ
PHYSICS ADI/E-33
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ENTHUSE COURSE
9. What is the the refractive index material of a plano- (2) 14.6 cm from unsilvered face
convex lens, if the radius of curvature of the convex (3) 5.67 cn from unsilvered face
surface is 10 cm and focal length of the lens is 30 cm (4) 8.33 cm from unsilvered face
(1) 1.33 (2) 1.5 (3) 1.1 (4) None 15. A vessel ofdepth x is half-filled with oil of refractive
10. As shown in Fig. a shpereical air lens of radii index µ1. and the other half is filled with water of
R1 = R2 = 10 cm is caught in a glass (µ = 1.5) refractive index µ 2 . The apparent depth of the
cylinder. [A] Determine the focal length and nature vesselw hen viewed from above is:
of air lens. [B] If a liquid of refractive index 2 is
x ( m1 + m 2 ) 2m1m 2
filled in the lens, what will happen to its focal length (1) (2) 2 ( m + m )
and nature ? 2m1m 2 1 2
xm1m 2 2x ( m1 + m 2 )
µ = 1.5 µ = 1.5 µ = 1.5 (3) ( m + m ) (4)
µ=1 µ=2 1 2 m1m 2
µ = 1.5
NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
(A) (B)
(1) [A] 15 cm, diverging lens, [B] 15 cm, converging 16. An optical system consists of thin convex lens of focal
lens length 30 cm and plane mirror placed 15 cm behind
the lens. An object is placed 15 cm in front of the lens.
(2) [A] 23 cm, diverging lens [B] 37 cm, converging
lens The distance of final image from object is (in cm)
(3) [A] 10 cm, converging lens [B] 5 cm, diverging 17. A diverging lens of focal length 20 cm is placed
lens co-axially 5 cm to the left of a converging mirror
of focal length 10 cm. At what distance (in cm)
(4) None of these
would an object be placed to the left of the lens so
11. A double convex lens is made of glass which has that a real image is formed on object itself?
its refractive index 1.55 for violet rays and 1.50 for
18. The rear face of a thin equiconvex lens (µ=3/2) of
red rays. If the focal length for violet rays is 20 cm,
focal length 30 cm is silvered. An boject is placed at
the focal length for red rays will be :-
a distance of 10 cm in front of thin silvered lens.
(1) 9 cm (2) 18 cm (3) 20 cm (4) 22 cm
Find distance (in cm) of image from the silvered lens
12. Two plano-concave lens of glass of refractive index
19. A convex lens is cut in half along its principal axis
1.5 have radii of curvature of 20 and 30 cm. They
and the two halves separated by a distance of 12
are placed in contact with curved surfaces towards
cm. An object ‘O’ is placed 6 cm. in front of the
each other and the space between them is filled with
lens as shown in figure. Two sharp images are
a liquid of refractive index (4/3). Find the focal
formed on the screen placed 80 cm from the object.
length of the system.
What is the focal length of the lens?
(1) 60 cm (2) 72 cm (3) 40 cm (4) 34 cm
13. The focal length of plano-concave lens(µ =3/2) is -
10 cm, then its focal length when its plane surface
is polished is
(1) 5cm (2) 15cm (3)7.5cm (4)20cm 5. A bioconvex lens (µ = 3/2) has radii of curvature
14. A plane mirror is made of a glass slab (µg = 1.5) 2.5 20cm each. It is fitted into a hole in a large box
cm thick and silvered on its back. A point object is filled with water (µ = 4/3). A point object is placed
placed 5 cm in front of the unsilvered face of the outside the box at a distance of 40 cm from the lens
mirror. What will be the position of the final image? on its axis. Find distance (in cm) of the image
(1) 12 cm from unsilvered face formed in water in the box
ANS WER KEY
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. [A] (4) [B] (3) 9. (1)
10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (1) 16. 45 17. 60 18. 30 19. 19.55
20. 160
E-34/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
1. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60° on one 7. A thin biprism of obtuse angle a = 178° is placed at
face of a prism of angle 30°. The emergent ray of a distance l = 20 cm from slit. What is the sepration
light makes an angle of 30° with incident ray. The between the image formed, in (mm) ? Refractine
angle made by emergent ray with second face of index of material µ = 1.6
prism will be :-
(1) 0° (2) 90°
(3) 45° (4) 30° 178°
2. The angle of a thin prism is 5°. What will be its S
refractive index if the deviation of a ray is 2.5°?
l
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 4 mm (2) 5 mm
(3) 1.5 (4) 1.3
(3) 6 mm (4) None of these
3. Calculate the deviation if the prism in the above
question is dipped in water; (R.I. for water = 4/3). 8. A man uses a convex lens of focal length 5 cm as
(1) 2.5° (2) 0.625° magnifying glass. The least distance of distinct
vision of the man is 25 cm. Calculate the
(3) 0.11° (4) 2°
magnification if the image is formed at the least
4. When a ray of light is incident at angle of 35° on an
distance of distinct vision.
equilateral prism. Then it passes symmetriacally.
Calculate the deviation of the ray. (Symmetrically (1) 1.5 (2) 3
means parallel to base) (3) 4 (4) 6
(1) 30° (2) 5° 9. In the above question calculate the distance of the
(3) 10° (4) 45° object from the lens.
5. A prism having refracting index 2 and refracting (1) 25 cm (2) 5.53 cm
angle 30° has one of the refracting surface polished.
(3) 4.16 cm (4) None of these
A beam of light incident on the other refracting
surface will retrace its path if the angle of incidence 10. The focal length of the objective and eye piece of a
is – (in degree) microscope are respectively 1cm and 2cm. The
(1) 45 (2) 30 distance between them is 12 cm. Where an object
(3) 60 (4) 90 should be placed in order to view it at the least distant
of distinct vision.
6. The refractive index of the crown glass for violet
and red lights are 1.51 and 1.49 respectively and (1) 4.05 cm (2) 0.05 cm
those for flint glass are 1.77 and 1.73 respectively. A (3) 2.05 cm (4) 1.1 cm
narrow beam of white light is incident at a small angle of
11. The distance between the objective and the eye
incidence on the shown combination of thin prisms. find
piece of microscope are 16 cm and their focal length
the value of a (in degree) for which mean deviation of
are respectively 0.4 cm and 2.5 cm. Calculate the
beam is zero.
magnifying power if the final image is formed at
(1) a = 4
infinity.
(2) a = 5
(1) 329.26 (2) 425
(3) a = 6
(3) 123 (4) 50
(4) a = 1
PHYSICS ADI/E-35
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
12. An astronomical telescope has an eye piece of focal NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
length 5 cm. If magnification produced is 14 in 16. A certain thin prism is found to produce a minimum
normal adjustment, then calculate the length of the deviation of 40º and produces a deviation of 44º
telescope. when the angle of incidence is either 42º or 62º.
(1) 75 cm (2) 9 cm The angle of incidence when light undergoes
(3) 50 cm (4) 55 cm minimum deviation in degree …. × 10 degree.
13. An astronomical telescope of length 50 cm produces 17. The separation between the objective and the
a magnification of 9 in normal adjustment. Calculate eyepiece of a compound microscope can be adjusted
focal length of its objective and eye piece. between 9.8 cm to 11.8 cm. The focal length of
objective and eye piece are 1 cm and 6 cm
(1) 4 cm, 2 cm
respectively. If the image is always needed at 24
(2) 30 cm, 5 cm cm from the eye then what is the ratio of maximum
(3) 55 cm, 10 cm to minimum magnifying power of microscope.
(4) 45 cm, 5 cm 18. An achromatic convergent doublet of two lenses in
14. The maximum distance up to which a man can see contact has a power of +2D. The convex lens has
distinctly is 200 cm. What lens & of which focal power +5D. What is the ratio of the dispersive
length he should use in order to see distant objects powers of the convergent and divergent lenses?
distinctly? 19. The focal length of the objective lens of a telescope
(1) Convex lens, + 200 cm is 30 cm and that of its eye lens is 3 cm. It is focussed
(2) Concave lens, – 200 cm on a scale 2 metres distant from it. The distance of
the objective lens from the eye lens to see with
(3) Convex lens, + 50 cm
relaxed eye is :
(4) Concave lens, – 50 cm
15. A man can see objects clearly only up to 3 meter. 20. Two prisms of same glass (m = 2 ) are stuckk
What should be the focal length of the lens to see together without gap as shown. Find the angle of
clearly upto 12 m. incidence (in degree)on the face AC such that the
(1) 4 m deviation produced by the combination is minimum
(2) 0.25 m
(3) 33.33 m
(4) None of these
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16. 5 17. 1.5 18. 3:5 19. 38.3 20. 45
E-36/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 18 WAVE OPTICS PHYSICS
1. Two sources of waves are called coherent if 7. In Young's double slit interference experiment, the slit
(1) Both have same amplitude of vibration separation is made 3 folds. The fringe width becomes
(2) Both produce waves of same wavelength 1 1
(1) times (2) times
(3) Both produce waves of the same frequency 3 9
having constant phase difference (3) 3 times (4) 9 times
(4) Both produce waves having same velocity 8. The maximum intensity of fringes in Young's
experiment is I. If one of the slits is closed, then
2. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of
intensity at that place becomes I 0 . Then relation
intensites I and 4I are superimposed. The maximum
between I and I0 is
and minimum possible intensities in the resulting
beam are (1) I = I0 (2) I = 2I0
(1) 5I and I (2) 5I and 3I (3) I = 4I0 (4) There is no relation
(3) 9I and I (4) 9I and 3I 9. In a Young's double slit experiment, the fringe width
is found to be 0.4 mm. If the whole apparatus is
3. Two identical light waves, propagating in the same
direction, have a phase difference d. After they 4
immersed in water of refractive index without
superpose, the intensity of the resulting wave will 3
disturbing the geometrical arrangement, the new
be proportional to
fringe width will be
ædö
(1) cos d (2) cos ç ÷ (1) 0.30 mm (2) 0.40 mm
è2ø
(3) 0.53 mm (4) 450 mm
2æ dö
(3) cos ç ÷ (4) cos2 d 10. In YDSE, d = 2 mm, D = 2 m and l = 500 nm. If
è2ø intensity of two slits are I0 and 9I0, then find intensity
4. For destructive interference to take place between 1
two monochromatic light waves of wavelength l, at y = mm
6
the path difference should be
(1) 7 I0 (2) 10 I0
(2n - 1)l (3) 16 I0 (4) 4 I0
(1) (2) 2nl
4
11. In a Young's double slit experiment, the source
(2n + 1)l
(3) (4) nl illuminating the slits is changed from blue to violet.
2 The width of the fringes
5. If the amplitude ratio of two sources producing
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
interference is 3 : 5, the ratio of intensities of
maxima and minima is (3) Becomes unequal (4) Remains same
(1) 25 : 16 (2) 5 : 3 12. In Young's double slit experiment, when two light
waves form third minimum, they have
(3) 16 : 1 (4) 25 : 9
(1) Phase difference of 3p
6. Monochromatic green light of wavelength 5 × 10–7
m illuminates a pair of slits 1 mm apart. The (2) Path difference of 3l
separation of bright lines on the interference pattern 5p
(3) Phase difference of
formed on a screen 2 m away is 2
(1) 0.25 mm (2) 0.1 mm 5l
(4) Path difference of
(3) 1.0 mm (4) 0.01 mm 2
PHYSICS ADI/E-37
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
13. In Young's experiment, the separation between 5th
y
maxima and 3rd minima is how many times as that
of fringe width? S2
(1) 5 times (2) 3 times d

(3) 2.5 times (4) 2 times
P
14. In the Young's double slit experiment, when a glass S1 x
D
plate (n = 1.5) of thickness t is introduced in the
path of one of the interfering beams (wavelength = 17. White light is incident normally on a glass plate of
l), the intensity at the position where central maxima thickness 0.5 × 10–6 m and index of refraction 1.50
occurred previous remains unchanged. The maximum wavelengths in visible region (400 nm -
minimum thickness of the glass plate is 700 nm) are strongly reflected by the plate ? (in nm)
(1) 2l (2) l 18. In young's experiment for interference of light the
(3) 2/3l (4) l/3 slits 0.2 cm apart are illuminated by yellow light
15. It is found that when waves from two identical (l = 6000 Å) what will be the fringe width if the
coherent sources superpose at a certain point, the
æ 4ö
resultant intensity is equal to intensity of one wave system is immersed in water ? (in mm) ç m = ÷
è 3ø
only. This means that the phase different between
the two waves at that point is 19. In young's experiment, the slits separated by
(1) Zero (2) p/3 d = 0.8 mm, are illuminated with light of wavelength
(3) 2p/3 (4) p 7200 Å. Interference pattern is obtained on a screen
D = 2m from slits. Find the minimum distance from
central maximum at which the average intensity is
16. Two sources S1 and S2 emitting light of wavelength 50% of the maximum ? (in mm)
600 nm are placed a distance 1.0 × 10–2 cm apart. A
20. Monochromatic light of wavelength of 600 nm used
detector can be moved on line S, P which is
in YDSE. If one of the slit is covered with transparent
perpendicualr to S1S2. Locate the position of farthest
sheet of thickness 1.8 × 10–5 m made of a material
minima detected. (in CM)
of refractive index 1.6, how many fringe will be
shifted ?
ANS WER KEY

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (1.7) 17. (600) 18. (0.225)
19. (45) 20. (18)
E-38/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 19 WAVE OPTICS PHYSICS
1. The 6563 Å line emitted by hydrogen atom in a 8. Refractive index of material is equal to the tangent
star is found to be red shifted by 5 Å. The speed of polarising angle. It is called
with which the star is receding from the earth is (1) Brewster's law (2) Lambert's law
(1) 17.3 × 103 m/s (2) 4.29 × 107 m/s (3) Malus' law (4) Bragg's law
(3) 3.39 × 105 m/s (4) 2.29 × 105 m/s 9. Two polarizers are oriented with transmission planes
2. In diffraction using single slit, a slit of width a is making an angle of 60°. The percentage of incident
illuminated by white light. For red light (l = 6500 unpolarized light that passes through the system is
Å), the first minima is obtained for q = 30°. Then (1) 50% (2) 100%
the value of a will be (3) 12.5% (4) 37.5%
(1) 3250 Å (2) 6.5 × 10 –4
10. When angle of incidence of the material is 60°, the
(3) 1.3 mm (4) 2.6 × 10 –4
reflected light is completely polarized. The velocity
3. Angular width of central maximum of a diffraction of the refracted ray inside the material is (in m/s)
pattern on a single slit does not depend upon
3
(1) Distance between slit and source (1) 3 × 108 (2) ´ 108
2
(2) Wavelength of the light used
(3) Width of the slit (3) 3 ´108 (4) 0.5 × 108
(4) Frequency of light used 11. The correct relation between the angle of diffraction
4. Red light is generally used to observe diffraction f and the glancing angle q in Davission – Germer
pattern from single slit. If blue light is used instead experiment will be –
of red light, then diffraction pattern f q
(1) q = 90o – (2) f = – 90o
(1) Will be more clear (2) Will contract 2 2
(3) Will expand (4) Will not be visualized (3) q = 90o – f (4) f = 90o – q
5. For what distance is ray optics a good approximation 12 In a Fraunhoffer diffraction experiment at a single
when the aperture is 4 mm wide and the wavelength slit using light of wavelength 400 nm, the first
is 500 nm? minimum is formed at an angle of 30º. Then the
(1) 32 m (2) 69 m direction q of the first secondary maximum is -
(3) 16 m (4) 8 m æ4ö

(1) tan–1 ç 3 ÷ (2) 60º
6. Through which character we can differentiate è ø
between light waves and sound waves
(1) Interference (2) Reflection æ3ö æ3ö
(3) sin–1 ç 4 ÷ (4) tan–1 ç 4 ÷
è ø è ø
(3) Refraction (4) Polarisation
7. The angle of polarisation for any medium is 60°. 13 The total angular width of central maxima in
What will be critical angle for this? diffraction at a single slit is -
(1) sin -1 ( 3) (2) tan -1 ( 3) l 2l

(1) (2)
a a
-1 æ 1 ö
(3) cos-1 ( 3) (4) sin ç ÷ 2a 2a
è 3ø (3) (4)
l 3l
PHYSICS ADI/E-39
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
14. A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distant NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
source falls on a single slit 1mm wide and the 16. Calculate the separation of two points on the moon
resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen that can be resolved using 600 cm telescope. Given
2m away. The distance between the first dark fringes the distance of the moon from the earth is 3.8 ×
on either side of central bright fringe is- 1010 cm. The wavelength most sensitive to eye is
(1) 1.2 cm 5.5 × 10–5 cm (in m)
(2) 1.2 mm 17. Estimate the distance for which ray optics a good
(3) 2.4 cm approximation for an aperature of 4 mm and the
wavelength is 400 nm ? (in m)
(4) 2.4 mm
18. A laser light beam of power 20 mw is focused on a
15. When the angle of incidence on the material is 60º,
the reflected light is completely polarised. The target by a lens of focal length 0.05 m. If the
aperature of the laser be 1 mm and the wavelength
velocity of refracted ray inside the material is-
of its light 7000 Å. If intensity of impact on the
(1) 3 × 108 m/s
target is x × 1012 wm–2. Then value of x is :
3 19. Unpolarized light of intensity 32 wm –2 passes
(2) × 108 m/s through three polarizers such that transmission axis
2
of the first and second polarizer makes an angle
(3) 3 × 108 m/s 30° with each other and transmission axis of the
last polarizer is crossed with that of the first. The
1
(4) × 108 m/s intensity of final emerging light will be [in wm–2]
3
20. Two nicols are oriented with their principal planes
making an angles of 60°. The percentage of incident
unpolarized light which passes through the system
is :
ANS WER KEY

1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. 41.8 17. 40 18. 10.9719. 3 20. 12.5
E-40/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 20 ATO M S PHYSICS
1. In scattering experiment, find the distance of closest 6. The product of angular speed and tangential speed
approach, if a 6 MeV a-particle is used of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is
(1) 3.2 × 10–16 m (2) 2 × 10–14 m (1) Directly proportional to n2
(3) 4.6 × 10–15 m (4) 3.2 × 10–15 m (2) Directly proportional to n3
2. An a-particle colliding with one of the electrons in (3) Inversely proportional to n4
a gold atom looses
(4) Independent of n
(1) Most of its momentum
7. What should be the ratio of minimum to maximum
1 wavelength of radiation emitted by transition of an
(2) About rd of its momentum
3 electron to ground state of Bohr’s hydrogen atom?
3 1
(3) Little of its energy (1) (2)
4 4
(4) Most of its energy
1 3
3. When an electron in hydrogen atom is taken from (3) (4)
8 8
fourth excited state to ground state 8. Three energy levels L 1 , L2 and L3 of a hydrogen
(1) Both kinetic energy and potential energy atom correspond to increasing values of energy i.e.,
increases
E L1 < E L2 < E L3 . If the wavelength corresponding
(2) Both kinetic energy and potential energy
to the transitions L3 to L2, L2 to L1 and L3 to L1 are
decreases
l3 , l2 and l1 respectively then
(3) Kinetic energy will increase while potential
energy will decrease l2l3
(1) l3 = l1 + l2 (2) l1 = l + l
2 3
(4) Kinetic energy will decrease while potential
l1l 2
energy will increase (3) l1 = l2 + l3 (4) l 3 = l + l
1 2
4. What should be the angular momentum of an
9. If the wavelength of first member of Lyman series
electron in Bohr’s hydrogen atom whose energy is
is l then calculate the wavelength of first member
–0.544 eV?
of Pfund series
h 3h 675 245
(1) (2) (1) l (2) l
p 2p 11 11
322 289
5h 2h (3) l (4) l
(3) (4) 13 11
2p 2p 10. In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, the ratio
5. Ground state energy of H-atom is –13.6 eV. The between the period of revolution of an electron in
energy needed to ionise H-atom from its second the orbit of n = 1 to the period of revolution of the
excited state is electron in the orbit n = 2 is
(1) 1.51 eV (2) 3.4 eV (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 12.1 eV (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 8
PHYSICS ADI/E-41
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
11. If an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from third 15. The magnetic field at the centre of hydrogen atom
orbit to second orbit, the frequency of the emitted due to the motion of the electron in the first Bohr
radiation is given by (c is speed of light) orbit is B. The magnetic field at the centre due to
motion of the electron in 2nd orbit is
3Rc 5Rc
(1) (2)
29 36 B B B B
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 32 64
7Rc 8Rc
(3) (4) NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
36 31
16. If potential energy of ground state of He+ atom is
12. Let F 1 be the frequency of second line of Lyman
zero then, what will be total energy of e– in 1st
series and F2 be the frequency of first line of Balmer
excited state (in eV) ?
series then frequency of first line of Lyman series is
given by 17. Atoms of hydrogen gas absorb photons and sub-
sequently emit 6 different wavelength when it
(1) F1 – F2 (2) F1 + F2
comes to ground state. All the wavelength received
F1F2 are equal or smaller than wavelength of photon.
(3) F2 – F1 (4) F + F What is the energy of photon in eV ?
1 2
18. If mass of electron would have been double of the
13. If He+ ion undergoes transition n = 2 ® 1 the ratio present value then energy of electron in first excited
of final to initial magnetic field due to motion of state in hydrogen atom would be (in eV) ?
electron at the nucleus will
19. For high principle quantum number (n) for hydrogen
(1) 32 : 1 (2) 1 : 32 atom spacing between neighboring energy level is
(3) 16 : 1 (4) 1 : 16 proportion to nx then, what will be value of x ?
14. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition 20. If expression of energy for triply ionised Be atom
such that its kinetic energy increases, then in nth energy level is given as
(1) The electron may have excited form n = 2 to n = 3
Me 4
(2) Potential energy of the electron increases E(n) = -a ´
2 Î20 n 2 h 2
(3) Potential energy of the electron decreases
(4) Total energy of the electron increases then, a is equal to :
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (3) 16. 95.2 17. 0.66 18. –6.8 19. 1 20. 2.25
E-42/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 21 NUCLEUS, X-RAY & DUEL NATURE PHYSICS
1. Minimum wavelength of X-ray is 2 Å, then potential 7. An X-ray tube when operated at 60 kV, then reading
difference between anode and cathode is: of tube current is 50 mA. Assuming that the total
(1) 62 kV (2) 6.2 kV energy of electron is converted into heat, the rate of
(3) 24.8 kV (4) 2.48 kV heat produced at the anode in calories/second is
about :
2. X-rays obtained by coolidge tube are :
(1) 100 (2) 300
(1) Mono-chromatic
(3) 500 (4) 714
(2) Of all wave lengths below a maximum
wavelength 8. The intensity of X–rays of wavelength 0.5Å reduces
to one fourth on passing through 3.5 mm. thickness
(3) Of all wave length above a minimum wave
of a metal foil. The coefficient of absorption of metal
length.
will be
(4) Of all wave length between a maximum and a
(1) 0.2 mm–1 (2) 0.4 mm–1
minimum wave length
(3) 0.6 mm–1 (4) 0.8 mm–1
3. X-ray is an electromagnetic radiation, so X-ray
photons carry : 9. Assuming photo-emission to take place, the factor
by which the maximum velocity of the emitted
(1) An electric charge
photo electrons changes when the wavelength of
(2) A magnetic moment the incident radiation is increased four times, is
(3) Both the electric charge and magnetic moment (assuming work function to be negligible in
(4) Neither electric charge nor magnetic moment comparison to hc/l)
4. In X-ray spectrum wave length l of line Ka depends
1
on atomic number Z as : (1) 4 (2)
4
(1) l µ Z2 (2) l µ (Z–1)2
1
1 1 (3) 2 (4)
(3) l µ (4) l µ 2
(Z - 1) (Z - 1)2
10. Two identical, photocathodes receive light of
5. If potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is V frequencies f 1 and f 2 . If the velocities of the
volt, then minimum wavelength of X-rays produced photoelectrons (of mass m) coming out are
is about (in Å) : respectively v1 and v2 , then–
(1) 1240/V (2) 12400/V
2h
(3) 24000/V (4) 12.27/ V (1) v12 – v 22 = (f – f )
m 1 2
6. In an X-ray tube, electrons accelerated through a
1/ 2
polential difference of 15000 V strike a copper é 2h ù
(2) v1 + v2 = ê (f1 + f2 ) ú
target. The speed of the emitted X-rays from the ëm û
tube is [e = charge on electron, m = mass of electron,
Z = atomic number of target] 2h
(3) v12 + v 22 = (f + f2)
m 1
2 ´ 2e ´ 1500 2 ´ e ´ 1500
(1) (2)
m m 2h é 2h
1/2
ù
2Ze ´ 1500 (4) v1 + v2 = (f - f )
(3) (4) 3 × 108 m/s m êë m 1 2 úû
m
PHYSICS ADI/E-43
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
11. Let K 1 be the maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons emitted by a light of wavelength l1 i current
and K2 corresponding to l2. If l1 = 2l2, then A

B
(1) 2K1 = K2 (2) K1 = 2K2 C
D
K2
(3) K1 < (4) K1 > 2K2
2 V
12. Light coming from a discharge tube filled with

hydrogen falls on the cathode of the photoelectric
(1) Beam B has highest frequency
cell. The work function of the surface of cathode is
4eV. Which one of the following values of the anode (2) Beam C has longest wavelength
voltage (in volts) with respect to the cathode will (3) Beam A has highest rate of photoelectric emission
likely to make the photo current zero? (4) Photoelectrons emitted by B have highest
(1) –4 (2) –6 momentum
(3) –8 (4) –10 NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
13. 10–3W of 5000 Å light is directed on a photoelectric 16. A bulb lamp emits light of mean wavelength (4500
cell. If the current in the cell is 0.16 m A, the Å). the lamp is rated 150 W and 8% of the energy
percentage of incident photons which produce appears as emitted light. Number of photons are
photoelectrons, is emitted by the lamp per second is x × 1018. Then x is
(1) 0.4% (2) .04% 17. If the work function of the target material is 1.24 eV
(3) 20% (4) 10% and the wavelength of incident light is 4.36 × 10–7 m.
What retarding potential is necessary to stop the
14. Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode
emission of the electrons?
C, on a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of
the emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons 18. Calculate de-Broglie wavelength for average helium
of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons atom in a furnace at 400 k. Given mass of helium =
will reach the anode A if the stopping potential of 4.002 amu [in Å]
A relative to C is 19. The k-absorption edge of an unknown element is
(1) 3 V (2) – 3V 0.171 Å. Then find out the atomic number of
element.
(3) –1 V (4) 4 V
20. If the Ka radiation of Mo (z = 42) has a wavelength
15. The figure shows the results of an experiment
of 0.71 Å, Calculate wavelength of the corresponding
involving photoelectric effect.
radiation of Cu is. Ka for Cu (z = 29), b = 1 (in Å).
The graphs A, B, C and D related to a light beam
having different wavelengths. Select the correct
alternative
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. 27.17 17. 1.58 V 18. 0.63 19. 74
20. 1.52
E-44/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 22 N U CL E U S PHYSICS
1. The masses of neutron and proton are 1.0087 amu 7. The control rod in a nuclear reactor is made of
and 1.0073 amu respectively. If a helium nucleus
(1) Graphite (2) Plutonium
(alpha particles) of mass 4.0015 amu is formed by
combining neutrons and protons. The binding (3) Cadmium (4) Uranium
energy of the helium nucleus will be (1 amu = 931 8. Nucleus A divides into two nuclei B and C in a
MeV) fission process, their binding energies being Ea, Eb
(1) 24.8 MeV (2) 28.4 MeV and Ec respectively. Then
(3) 14.2 MeV (4) 42.8 MeV (1) Eb + Ec > Ea (2) Eb + Ec < Ea
2. The binding energy of a-particle 24 He is 7.047 MeV (3) Eb + Ec = Ea (4) Eb – Ec = Ea

9. When 92U undergoes fission by absorbing 0n1 and
235
2
per nucleon and the binding energy of deutron 1H Ba 144 and 36 Kr 89 are formed. The number of
56
is 1.112 MeV per nucleon. Then in the fusion neutrons produced will be
reaction 12 H + 12 H ® 24He + Q, the energy Q released (1) 2 (2) 3
is (3) 1 (4) 0
(1) 23.74 MeV (2) 32.82 MeV 10. A nucleus of 84Po originally at rest emit a-particle
210
(3) 11.9 MeV (4) 4.94 MeV with speed v. Recoil speed of the daughter nucleus
3. One requires energy En to remove a nucleon from a is
nucleus and an energy E e to remove an electron
v v
from the orbit of an atom. Then (1) (2)
210 84
(1) En > Ee (2) En < Ee
(3) En = Ee (4) En ³ d Ee 4v 3v
(3) (4)
4. Radius of 4
nucleus is 3 Fermi. The radius of
2 He
206 214
32
16 S
nucleus will be 11. Which of the following is most unstable
(1) 6 Fermi (2) 4 Fermi (1) a-particle (2) Neutrons
(3) 5 Fermi (4) 8 Fermi
(3) b –-particle (4) b+-particle
5. Two nucleons are at a separation of 1 × 10 m. –15
12. Some radioactive nucleus may emit
The net force between them is F1 if both are protons,
F2 if both are neutrons and F3 if one is a proton and (1) All the three a, b and g simultaneously
other is a neutron. In such a case (2) Only a and b simultaneously
(1) F1 = F2 = F3 (2) F1 = F2 > F3 (3) All the three a, b and g one after another
(3) F1 = F3 > F2 (4) F2 > F1 > F3 (4) g along with a or b particles
6. If m, mn and m p are the masses of ZXA nucleus, 13. Mass of neutron is mn = 1.008665 amu and mass of
neutron and proton respectively proton mp = 1.007825 amu. The minimum energy
(1) m = (A – Z) mn + Zmp of an antineutrino to produce the reaction v + p ®
(2) m = (A – Z) mp + Zmn n + e+, is approximately-
(3) m < (A – Z) mn + Zmp (1) 2 MeV (2) 5 MeV
(4) m > (A – Z) mn + Zmp (3) 8 MeV (4) 10 MeV
PHYSICS ADI/E-45
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
14. When 6
3 Li is bombarded with 4 MeV deutrons, one 19. Two square mirrors of 150 cm2 area each are kept
reaction that is observed is the formation of two perpendicular to each other. Parallel beam of light
a-particles, each with 13.2 MeV of energy. The incident on the mirrors as shown. Intensity of the
Q-value for this reaction is- beam is 10 W/m2. If force on mirror-1 is a × 10–12
N then a is equal to :
(1) 13.2 MeV (2) 26.4 MeV
(3) 22.4 MeV (4) 4 MeV
15. Binding energy per nucleon of 1H 2 and 2He4 are
1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV respectively. Energy released
in the process 1H2 + 1H2 = 2He4 is -
(1) 20.8 MeV (2) 16.6 MeV
Mirror-2
(3) 25.2 MeV (4) 23.6 MeV
NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS 45°
16. The number of photons of radiation of wavelength
l = 5 × 10–7 must fall per second on a blackened Mirror-1
plate in order to produce a force of 6.62 × 10–5 is M
× 1022. Then value of M is 20. Calculate the binding energy for nucleon of 12
C
6
17. Pb206 is obtained as final product when 6a and 4b-

nucleus, if mass of proton m p = 1.0078u , mass of
particles are emitted by nucleus X. What will be the
nutron mn = 1.00874u mass of C12 Mc=12.000u, and
ratio of number of neutron and proton in X ?
1u = 931.4 MeV (in MeV)
18. If two deutrons of negligible kinetic energy undergo
fusion reaction as follows.
D + D ® 32He + n + 3.2MeV
then, what will be kinetic energy of neutron in MeV
?
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. 5 17. 1.55 18. 2.4 19. 500 20. 92.2
E-46/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
1. Half life of a radioactive element is 10 days. The 7. The half-life of a sample of a radioactive substance
1 is 1 hour. If 8 × 1010 atoms are present at t = 0, then
time during which quantity remains of initial the number of atoms decayed in the duration t = 2
10
hour to t = 4 hour will be
mass will be
(1) 2 × 1010 (2) 0.75 × 1010
(1) 99 days (2) 33 days
(3) 16 days (4) 70 days (3) 1.5 × 1010 (4) Zero
2. An element A decays by a two step process into 8. A nucleus of mass 220 amu in free state decays to
element C emit an a-particle. Kinetic energy of the a-particle
emitted is 5.4 MeV. The recoil energy of the
A ® B + 2He4 B ® C + 2e– Then,
daughter nucleus is
(1) A and B are isobars
(1) 0.25 MeV (2) 0.5 MeV
(2) A and C are isobars
(3) 0.1 MeV (4) 0.75 MeV
(3) A and B are isotopes
9. Two radio active nuclei X and Y decay into stable
(4) A and C are isotopes nucleus Z
3. During mean life of a radioactive element, the X —® Z + 2a + b–
fraction that disintegrates is
Y —® Z + a + 2b+
e -1 if Z1 and Z2 are atomic numbers of X and Y then
(1) e (2)
e (1) Z1 = Z2
1 e (2) Z2 – Z1 = 1
(3) (4) (3) Z1 – Z2 = 1
e e -1
4. Find the decay rate of the substance having 4 × 1015 (4) 2Z1 – Z2 = 2
atoms. Half life of a radioactive substance in a- 10. Consider the nuclear reaction X200 ® A 110 + B80. If
decay is 1.2 × 107 s the binding energy per nucleon for X, A and B are
(1) 2.3 × 108 atom/s (2) 3.2 × 108 atom/s 7.4 MeV, 8.2 MeV and 8.1 MeV respectively, then
(3) 2.3 × 1011 atom/s (4) 3.2 × 1011 atom/s the energy released in the reaction -
5. The activity of a sample of a radioactive material is (1) 70 MeV
A1, at time t1, and A2 at time t2 (t2 > t1). If its mean (2) 200 MeV
life T, then (3) 190 MeV
(1) A2 = A1e (t1 -t 2 ) / T (2) A1 –A2 = t2 – t1 (4) 10 MeV
11. Assuming that about 200 MeV of energy is released
(3) A1t1 = A2t2 (4) A 2 = A1e (t1 / t 2 )T
per fission of 92U235 nuclei, then the mass of U235
6. A radioactive substance has an average life of 5 consumed per day in a fission reactor of power 1
hours. In a time of 5 hours megawatt will be approximately :
(1) Less than half of the active nuclei decay (1) 10–2 g
(2) More than half of the active nuclei decay (2) 1 g
(3) Half of the active nuclei decay (3) 100 g
(4) All active nuclei decay (4) 10,000 g
PHYSICS ADI/E-47
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
12. Binding energy per nucleon vs mass number curve 15. A star initially has 1040 deuterons. It produces energy
for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y and Z are via the processes
four nuclei as indicated on the curve.
3
The process that would release energy is– 2 2
1 H +1H ¾
¾®1 H + p and 2 3
1 H + 1H ¾® 2 He 4 + n
¾
It the average power radiated by the star is 1016 W,

8.5
Y the deuteron supply of the star is exhausted in a
X
8
7.5 W time of the order of -
B.E.
per
nucleon
in Mev
(1) 106 s (2) 108 s
5 Z
(3) 1012 s (4) 1016 s
30 60 90 120

(1) Y ® 2 Z (2) W ® Y + Z
(3) W ® 2Y (4) X ® Y + Z 16. A radio-isotope has half life 5 years. The fraction
of the atoms of this material that would decay in 15
13. Calculate the binding energy of the deuteron which
years is n × 10–3 then find out value of n.
consists of a proton and a neutron, given that the
atomic mass of the duteron is 2.014102 u - 17. The half life of radium is 1600 years. The fraction
(1) 0.002388 MeV (2) 2.014102 MeV of a sample of radium that would remain after 6400
(3) 2.016490 MeV (4) 2.224 MeV years is x × 10–4 then find out value of x.
14. Which of the following graphs might represent the 18. An artificial radiaoactive decay series begin with
relationship between atomic mass and the total unstable 94 Pu241 . The stable nuclide obtained afte
Binding energy of the nucleus, for nucleus heavier eight a-decays and five b-decays is PXQ. Find out
than 94Sr ? value of P + Q.
19. There are two radioactive substances A and B.

total total Decay constant of B is two times that of A. Initially,
(1) B.E (2) B.E both ahve equal number of nuclei. After n half lives
A A
of A, rate of disintegration of both are equal. The
value of n is
20. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at rest,

total total emits an alpha particle. If the Q value of the reacton
(3) B.E (4) B.E is 5.5 MeV, calcualte the K.E. of the a particle.
A A
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (3) 16. 875 17. 625 18. 292 19. 1 20. 5.4
E-48/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
1. A reactor is generating 1000 kW of power and 200 6. Samples of two radioactive nuclides, X and Y, each
MeV of energy may be obtained per fission of U235. have equal activity A0 at time t = 0. X has a half-life
of 24 years and Y a half-life of 16 years. The
The rate of nuclear fission in the reactor is
samples are mixed together. What will be the total
(1) 3.125 × 1016 activity of the mixture at t = 48 years ?
(2) 1.253 × 1016
1 1
(3) 2 × 108 (1) A0 (2) A0
12 4
(4) 931
3 3
2. In a radioactive substance, initially 8 × 104 number (3) A0 (4) A0
16 8
of atoms are there, having half life period 3 years.
7. Ten grams of 57Co kept in an open container Beta-
The number of atoms 1 × 10 4 will remain after
decays with a half-life of 270 days. The weight of
interval of
the material inside the container after 540 days will
(1) 6 years (2) 24 years be very nearly -
(3) 3 years (4) 9 years (1) 10 g (2) 5 g
3. The half life period of a radioactive substance is (3) 2.5 g (4) 1.25 g
5 min. The amount of substance decayed in 20 min 8. The half-life of a certain radioactive element is such
will be
7
(1) 25% (2) 6.25% that of a given quantity decays in 12 days. What
8
(3) 93.75% (4) 75% fraction remains undecayed after 24 days?
4. A radioactive material has a half life of 600 years 1
and 300 years for a and b emissions respectively. (1) 0 (2)
128
The material decays by simultaneous a and b
1 1
(3) (4)
3 64 32
emissions. What is time in which th of the material
4 9. The graph represents the decay of a newly-prepared
will decay? sample of radioactive nuclide X to a stable nuclide
(1) 600 years (2) 900 years Y. The half-life of X is t. The growth curve for Y
(3) 200 years (4) 400 years intersects the decay curve for X after time T.
5. An accident in a nuclear laboratory resulted in

Number X
deposition of a certain amount of radioactive material of atoms Y
of halflife 18 days inside the laboratory. Tests
revealed that the radiation was 64 times more than
the permissible level required for safe operation of
the laboratory. What is the minimum number of days O T Time
after which the laboratory can be considered safe
for use ? What is the time T ?
(1) 64 (2) 90 (1) t/2 (2) ln(t/2)
(3) 108 (4) 120 (3) t (4) ln(2t)
PHYSICS ADI/E-49
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
10. The graph (fig.) shows the number of particles Nt 14. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decays
emitted per second by a radioactive source as a according to the scheme
function of time t. The relationship between Nt and
a b a g
t is A ¾¾® A1 ¾
¾® A 2 ¾¾® A3 ¾
¾® A4
3
If the mass number and atomic number of A are
2
In Nt
180 and 72 respectively, then what are these

1
numbers for A4 -
0
0 20 40 60
(1) 172 and 69 (2) 174 and 70
(1) Nt = 1000e –(20t/s)
(2) Nt = 20e (20t/s)
(3) 176 and 69 (4) 176 and 70
(3) Nt = 3e –(0.05t/s)
(4) Nt = 20e –(0.05t/s)
15. What is the age of an ancient wooden piece if it is
11. At time t = 0, some radioactive gas is injected into a known that the specific activity of C14 nuclide in it
sealed vessel. At time T, some more of the same
3
gas is injected into the same vessel. Which one of amounts to of that in freshly felled trees ? Given
5
the following graphs best represents the variation
of the logarithm of the activity A of the gas with : the half-life of C14 nuclide is 5570 years.
time t ? (1) 1000 years (2) 2000 years
lnA lnA (3) 3000 years (4) 4000 years
(1) (2) NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS

T t T t 16. The half life of 198 Au is 2.7 days then the acitivty
of 1.00 mg of 198 Au in Ci. is (approx).
lnA lnA
17. The power output of 92 U235 reactor is x × 107W if it
(3) (4) takes 30 days to use up 2 kg of fuel and if each
T t T t fission gives 185 MeV of usable energy. Then x is
18. A radioactive sampel has 8 × 1018 active nuclei at a
12. Let T be the mean life of a radioactive sample. 75%
instant. How many of these nuclei will still be active
of the active nuclei present in the sample initially
state after two half -lives (in ×1018)
will decay in time -
T 19. A radioactive sample decays throguh two different
(1) 2 T (2) (ln 2) decay process a-decay and b-decay. Half - life time
2
(3) 4 T (4) 2(ln 2) T for a-decay is 3hr and half life for b-decay is 6 hr.
What will be the ratio of number of intitial
13. The decay of 238
92 U to 239
93 Np by b -emission is not
radioactive nuclei to the number of radioacive nuclei
possible because -
present after 6 hr ?
(1) b-decay only occurs in isotopes of low mass
20. After 280 days, the acitivity of a radioactive sample
239
(2) 93 Np is not a stable isotope is 600 dps. The activity reduces to 300 dps after
(3) mass number cannot increase in a decay process another 140 days. If initial activity of the sample is
(4) atomic number cannot increase in a decay process. x × 104 dps then what is the value of x.
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (4) 16. 244 17. 5.85 18. 2 19. 8 20. 2.4
E-50/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 25 SEMI CONDUCTOR PHYSICS
1. Silicon is a semiconductor. If a small amount of As 5. A p-n photo diode is made of a material with a band
is added to it, then its electrical conductivity gap of 2 eV. The minimum frequency of the
radiation that can be absorbed by the material is
(1) Decreases
nearly
(2) Increases
(1) 1 × 1014 Hz (2) 20 × 1014 Hz
(3) Remains unchanged (3) 10 × 1014Hz (4) 5 × 1014 Hz
(4) Becomes zero 6. Zener breakdown takes place if
2. The mobility of free electron is greater than that of (1) Doped impurity is low
free holes because they (2) Doped impurity is high
(1) Carry negative charge (3) Less impurity in N-part
(2) Are light (4) Less impurity in p-type
(3) Mutually collide less 7. In the depletion region of an unbiased p-n junction
diode there are
(4) Require low energy to continue their motion
(1) Only electrons
3. Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence
(2) Only fixed ions
electrons each. At room temperature which one of
(3) Only holes
the following statements is most appropriate ?
(4) Both electrons and holes
(1) The number of free conduction electrons is
8. In a p-n junction solar cell, the value of photo-
negligibly small in all the three
electromotive force produced by monochromatic
(2) The number of free electrons for conduction is light is proportional to the
significant in all the three (1) Voltage applied at the p-n junction
(3) The number of free electrons for conduction is (2) Barrier voltage at the p-n junction
significant only in Si and Ge but small in C (3) Intensity of light falling on the cell
(4) The number of free electrons for conduction is (4) Frequency of light falling on the cell
significant in C but small in Si and Ge 9. Serious drawback of the semiconductor device is
4. Which circuit will not show current in ammeter ? that they
(1) Are costly
(2) Do not last for long time
(3) Pollute the environment
(1) (2)
(4) Cannot be used with high voltage
10. The reason for current flow in p-n junction in
forward bias is
(1) Drifting of charge carriers
(2) Diffusion of charge carriers
(3) (4) (3) Minority charge carriers
(4) All of these
PHYSICS ADI/E-51
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
11. In the energy band diagram of a material shown
below, the open circles and filled circles denote
R
holes and electrons respectively. The material is (5)
–10V
(1) 1,2,3 (2) 2,4,5
(3) 1,3,4 (4) 2,3,4
15. Symbolic representation of photodiode is -
(1) (2)
(1) A p-type semiconductor
(2) An n-type semiconductor (3) (4)
(3) An insulator
(4) A metal
16. A silicon specimen is made into a p-type
12. In a p–type semiconductor the acceptor level is
semiconductor by doping; on an average, one
situated 57 meV above the valence band. The
indium atom per 5 × 107 silicon atoms. If the number
maximum wavelength of light required to produce
density of atoms in the silicon specimen is 5 × 1028
a hole will be –
atm/m3, then the number of acceptor atoms in silicon
(1) 57 Å (2) 57 × 10–3 Å per cubic centimeter is N × 1013. Find value of N.
(3) 217100 Å (4) 11.61 × 10–33 m 17. Consider the junction diode is ideal. Find the value
13. Current through the ideal diode is – of current through the resistance of 300 W ?
100W
2V 5V 18. The potential barrier for germanium pn junction is

0.3V. If the width of the depletion layer is a micron,
find the strengh of the electric field (in kv/m) at the
(1) zero (2) 20 A junction
19. The current through a junction diode changes by
1 1
(3) A (4) A 1.2 mA when the forward bias voltage is changed
20 50
by 0.6 V. Find the dynamic resistance (in W).
14. In the given figure, which of the diodes are forward 20. Figure shows two identical diodes D 1 and D 2
biased? connected as shown. Find the current through
+5V resistor R.
+10V
R
(1) (2)
+5V
–12V
–10V R
(3) (4)
–5V
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15 (3) 16. 100 17. 0 18. (300) 19. (500) 20. (0.1)
E-52/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 26 SEMI CONDUCTOR PHYSICS
1. When n-p-n transistor is used as an amplifier 8. The circuit is equivalent to

(1) Electrons move from base to collector
(2) Holes move from emitter to base
(3) Electrons move from collector to base
(4) Holes move from base to emitter
(1) NOR gate (2) OR gate
2. If l1, l2, l3 are the lengths of the emitter, base and
(3) AND gate (4) NAND gate
collector of a transistor then
9. The output y, when all three inputs are first high
(1) l1 = l2 = l3 (2) l3 < l1 < l2
(3) l3 > l1 > l2 (4) l3 < l2 > l1 and then low, will respectively be
3. In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is
applied across
(1) Any where (2) Emitter-collector
(3) Collector-base (4) Base-emitter
4. The concentration of impurities in a transistor is (1) 1, 1 (2) 0, 1
(1) Largest for base region (3) 0, 0 (4) 1, 0
(2) Largest for emitter region 10. Negative feedback
(3) Least for emitter region (1) Increases stability
(4) Equal for the emitter, base and collector region
(2) Decreases stability
5. In a transistor the collector current is always less
(3) Produces oscillation
than the emitter current because
(1) Collector side is reverse biased and the emitter (4) Stops current in the transistor
side is forward biased 11. The current obtained from a simple filterless rectifier
(2) Collector being reverse biased, attracts less is
electrons (1) Constant direct current
(3) A few electrons are lost in the base and only (2) Varying direct current
remaining one’s reach the collector (3) Half current
(4) Collector side is forward biased and emitter side (4) Eddy current
is reverse biased 12. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with
6. The minimum potential difference between the base
(1) No feedback
and emitter required to switch a silicon transistor
‘ON’ is approximately (2) Negative feedback
(1) 1 V (2) 3 V (3) Positive feedback
(3) 5 V (4) 4.2 V (4) Large gain
7. Which of the following represents NAND gate ? 13. When n-p-n transistor is used as an amplifier
(1) Electrons move from base to collector
(1) (2) (2) Holes move from emitter to base
(3) Electrons move from collector to base
(3) (4)
(4) Holes move from base to emitter
PHYSICS ADI/E-53
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
14. Figure gives a system of logic gates. From the study NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
of truth table it can be found that to produce a high
output (1) at R, we must have – 16. A common emitter amplifier gives an output of 3 V
for an input of 0.01 V. If current gain of the transistor
is 100 and the input resistance is 1kW, then find the
X
collector resistance(in kW).
P
Y
R 17. What is the phase difference between the input
signal voltage and output voltage in a common
emitter amplifier(in degrees)?
O
18. An unregulated input of 10.0 V is applied across a
(1) X = 0, Y = 1 (2) X = 1, Y = 1 series combination of a zener diode and a resistor
(3) X = 1, Y = 0 (4) X = 0, Y = 0 RS. A regulated volage VZ = 6.0 V is required across
the load resistor connected across the zener diode.
15. An n-p-n transistor circuit is arranged as shown, it
The load current is to be 4.0 mA. If the zener current
is a –
is four times the load current, find the value of
resistor RS.
N R = 10 K 19. The a.c. current gain of a transistor amplifier in the
P V
common emitter mode is 150. Find the change in
N the collector current (in mA) when the base current
V
changes hy 100 mA.
20. In a common emitter amplifier, when the emitter

(1) Common base amplifier circuit current changes by 10 mA, the collector current
(2) Common-emitter amplifier circuit changes by 9.5 mA. Find the a.c. current gain of the
amplifier.
(3) Common-collector amplifier circuit
(4) None of these
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. 3 17. 180 18. 200 19. 15 20. 19
E-54/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 27 CO MM UNI CATI ON PHYSICS
1. Out of the following, which is not an essential 9. Three waves A, B and C of frequencies 1600 kHz,
element of a communication system? 5 MHz and 60 MHz, respectively are to be
(1) Transmitter transmitted from one place to another. Which of the
(2) Transducer following is the most appropriate mode of
communication?
(3) Receiver
(1) A is transmitted via space wave while B and C
(4) Communication channel
are transmitted via sky wave
2. A device which provides output in electrical form
(2) A is transmitted via ground wave, B via sky wave
or it has input in electrical form is called a
and C via space wave
(1) Transmitter (2) Receiver
(3) B and C are transmitted via ground wave while
(3) Repeater (4) Transducer A is transmitted via sky wave
3. Decrease in signal strength due to energy losses is (4) B is transmitted via ground wave while A and C
called are transmitted via space wave
(1) Distortion (2) Interference 10. The velocity of electromagnetic waves in a dielectric
(3) Attenuation (4) Noise medium (refractive index m = 4) is
4. The disturbance or distortion in the transmission and (1) 3 × 108 metre/second
processing of message signals is called (2) 1.5 × 108 metre/second
(1) Noise (2) Attenuation (3) 6 × 108 metre/second
(3) Interference (4) None of these (4) 7.5 × 107 metre/second
5. A repeater is a combination of 11. A speech signal of 3 kHz used to modulate a carrier
(1) Receiver (2) Amplifier signal of frequency 1 MHz, using amplitude
(3) Transmitter (4) All of these modulation.
6. The audible range of frequencies is' The frequencies of the side bands will be
(1) 20 kHz to 20 MHz (2) 20 Hz to 20 kHz (1) 1.003 MHz and 0.997 MHz
(3) 20 Hz to 20 MHz (4) None of these (2) 3001 kHz and 2997 kHz
7. If l is wavelength of radio signals to be transmitted, (3) 1003 kHz and 1000 kHz
then the length of Hertz antenna is (4) 1 MHz and 0.997 MHz
l 12. A message signal of frequency wm is superposed
(1) l (2) on a carrier wave of frequency wc to get an
4
amplitude modulated wave (AM). The frequency
l of the AM wave will be
(3) (4) 2l
2 (1) wm
8. Modulation is necessary (2) wc
(1) To select suitable size of antenna
wc + wm
(2) To increase effective power radiated by antenna (3)
2
(3) To avoid mixing up of signals from different
transmitters wc - wm
(4)
(4) All of these 2
PHYSICS ADI/E-55
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
13. A basic communication system consists of NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
A. Transmitter B. Information source 16. A TV tower has a height of 50 m. The maximum
C. User of information D. Channel distance (in km) up to which TV transmission can
E. Receiver be received is approximately equal to (radius of
earth = 6.4 × 106 m)
Choose the correct sequence in which these are
arranged in a basic communication system 17. An audio signal is sent on a carrier wave of
frequency 30 MHz. The minimum length (in m) of
(1) ABCDE (2) BADEC
the antenna at the transmitting station must be
(3) BDACE (4) BEADC
18. A message signal of frequency 12 kHz and peak
14. Identify the mathematical expression for amplitude voltage 20 V is used to modulate a carrier wave of
modulated wave frequency 12 MHz and peak voltage 30 V. The
(1) (Ac + Amsinwmt)cos(wct + f) modulation index of the amplitude modulated wave
(2) Acsin{wct + f + k2vm(t)} is
(3) {Ac + k2vm(t)}sin(wct + f} 19. A message signal of 12 kHz and peak voltage 20 V
(4) Acvm(t)sin[wct + f] is used to modulate a carrier wave of frequency 12
MHz and peak voltage 30 V. Calculate bandwidth
15. The distance between consecutive maxima and
of modulated wave (in KHz).
minima is given by
20. A modulated carrier wave has maximum and
(1) l/2 (2) 2l
minimum amplitudes of 750 mV and 250 mV.
(3) l (4) l/4 Calculate the percentage modulation.
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (4) 16. (25) 17. (2.5) 18. (0.67) 19. (24) 20. (50)
E-56/ADI PHYSICS
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 28 CO MM UNI CATI ON PHYSICS
1. Long distance short-wave radio broad-casting uses 9. An audio signal of 0.1 V is used in amplitude
(1) Ground wave (2) Ionospheric wave modulation of a career wave of amplitude 0.3. The
(3) Direct wave (4) Sky wave modulation index is
2. Broadcasting antennas are generally
1
(1) Omnidirectional type (1) 3 (2)
3
(2) Vertical type
(3) 0.03 (4) None of these
(3) Horizontal type
10. The frequency of amplitude modulated wave is
(4) None of these equal to
3. For television broadcasting, the frequency
(1) Frequency of carrier wave (fc)
employed is normally
(2) Frequency of modulating signal (fm)
(1) 30 – 300 MHz (2) 30 – 300 GHz
(3) 30 – 300 kHz (4) 30 – 300 Hz fc + fm
(3)
4. The process of superimposing signal frequency (i.e., 2
audio wave) on the carrier wave is known as
fc - fm
(1) Transmission (2) Reception (4)
2
(3) Modulation (4) Detection
5. In an amplitude modulated wave for audio - 11. The radio waves of frequency ranging from 2 MHz
frequency of 500 cycles/second, the appropriate to 30 MHz are called
carrier frequency will be (1) Sky waves (2) Ground waves
(1) 50 cycles/s (2) 100 cycles/s (3) Space waves (4) None of these
(3) 500 cycles/s (4) 50,000 cycles/s 12. Which of the following is an advantage of FM over
6. If there were no atmosphere, the average AM ?
temperature on the surface of earth would be (1) Less noise
(1) Lower (2) Higher (2) Larger bandwidth
(3) Same as now (4) 0°C (3) More circuit complexity
7. The T.V. transmission tower in Delhi has a height (4) Can be transmitted to longer distance
of 240 m. The distance up to which the broadcast 13. The process of changing some characteristic of a
can be received, (taking the radius of earth to be carrier wave in accordance with the signal to be
6.4 × 106 m) is transmitted is called
(1) 100 km (2) 60 km (1) Amplification (2) Rectification
(3) 55 km (4) 50 km (3) Modulation (4) None of these
8. Ozone layer above earth’s atmosphere will not 14. A ground receiver station is receiving a signal at
(1) Prevent infrared radiations from sun reaching 500 MHz transmitted from a ground transmitter at
earth a height of 300 m located at a distance of 500 km.
(2) Prevent infrared rays reflected from earth from It is coming via
escaping earth’s atmosphere (1) Ground wave (2) Space wave
(3) Prevent ultraviolet rays from sun (3) Sky wave
(4) Reflect back radiowaves (4) Satellite communication
PHYSICS ADI/E-57
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
15. An information signal of 150 MHz is to be sent 17. A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a
across a distance of 40 km. Which mode of height 32 m and that of the receiving antenna is
communication is suitable ? 500 m. What is the maximum distance of sight mode
(1) Ground wave propagation ? The radius of earth is 6400 km.
18. A radar has a power of 1 kW and is operating at a
(2) Space wave propagation
frequency of 10 GHz. It is located on a mountain
(3) Sky wave propagation top of height 500 m. The maximum distance upto
(4) Satellite communication which it can detect object located on the surface of
the earth (Radius of earth = 6.4 × 106 m) is
19. The total power content of an AM wave is 900 W.
16. A radar has a power of 1kW and is operating at a For 100% modulation, the power transmitted by
frequency of 10 GHz. It is located on a steep each side band is -
mountain top of height 600 m. What is the 20. A T.V. tower has a height of 100 m. How much
maximum distance upto which it can detect an population is covered by T.V. broadcast, if the av-
object located on the surrounding earth’s surface ? erage population density around the tower is 1000/
The radius of earth is 6400 km. km2 ?
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (2) 16. (87.6) 17. (45.5) 18. (80)
19 (150) 20. 39.5 × 10 5
E-58/ADI PHYSICS
INDEX
1 # RACE ......................................... ISOMERISM (STRUTURAL & G.I.) ............................................. 1
2 # RACE .......................................... ISOMERISM (OPTICAL) .............................................................. 5
3 # RACE .......................................... GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY ............................................. 7
4 # RACE .......................................... ALKYL HALIDE ........................................................................ 11
5 # RACE .......................................... SUBSTITUTION AND ELIMINATION ........................................... 13
6 # RACE .......................................... ALCOHOL ............................................................................... 15
7 # RACE .......................................... ALCOHOL, PHENOL AND ETHER ............................................. 19
8 # RACE .......................................... CARBONYL COMPOUND ......................................................... 22
9 # RACE .......................................... ALDEHYDE AND KETONE ........................................................ 24
10 # RACE ........................................ CARBOXYLIC ACID AND IT'S DERIVATIVES ............................... 26
11 # RACE ........................................ NITROGEN CONTAINING COMPOUNDS (AMINES) ...................... 30
12 # RACE ........................................ BIOMOLECULES ...................................................................... 33
13 # RACE ........................................ POLYMER ................................................................................ 35
14 # RACE ........................................ CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE ................................................ 38
15 # RACE ........................................ PRACTICAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY ........................................... 43
16 # RACE ........................................ SOLID STATE ........................................................................... 45
17 # RACE ........................................ LIQUID SOLUTION ................................................................... 49
18 # RACE ........................................ LIQUID SOLUTION ................................................................... 52
19 # RACE ........................................ ELECTROCHEMISTRY .............................................................. 55
20 # RACE ........................................ ELECTROCHEMISTRY .............................................................. 58
21 # RACE ........................................ CHEMICAL KINETICS ................................................................ 61
24 # RACE ........................................ SURFACE CHEMISTRY .............................................................. 68
25 # RACE ........................................ COORDINATION COMPOUNDS ................................................. 71
26 # RACE ........................................ COORDINATION COMPOUNDS ................................................. 74
27 # RACE ........................................ D & F-BLOCK .......................................................................... 76
28 # RACE ........................................ METALLURGY ......................................................................... 78
29 # RACE ........................................ P-BLOCK ................................................................................. 81
30 # RACE ........................................ P-BLOCK ................................................................................. 84

T
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 01 ISOMERISM (STRUTURAL & G.I.) C HE M I S T R Y
1. Which of the following is incorrectly matched:- 5. How many structural isomers are possible when one
H-atom of anthracene is replaced by chlorine:-
O–CH2–CH 3 O–CH3
CH3 C2H5 (1) 3 (2) 7
(1) ; Metamers
(3) 4 (4) 6
Br COOH COOH Br
O–H CH2OH
CH3 6. and are :-
(2) ; Functional group isomers HOOC Br Br COOH
(1) Chain isomers
CH3 (2) Geometrical isomers
(3) Functional isomers
(3) ; Chain isomers
(4) Position isomers
(4) CH3–CH2 CH2–CH3 ; Metamers 7. How may total structural isomers of 3° amines are
possible with the molecular formula C6H15 N
CH3 CH2–CH2 –CH3
(1) 4 (2) 7
2. Sum of X, Y and Z is :- (3) 6 (4) 5
(1) C4 H8O No. of aldehydes = X
8. How many alkenes (only structural isomers) are
(2) C5 H12 No. of chain isomers=Y
possible with the molecular formula C4H8
(3) C4 H8 Maximum no. of alkenes=Z
(1) 10 (2) 7 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 9 (4) 8 (3) 5 (4) 6
3. Which of the following compounds can show 9. Which of the following is correct :-
geometrical isomerism :-
O O
Cl Cl CH 3 (1) , Functional group isomers
(1) C (2) C H
Cl Cl CH 3
CH3 Cl Cl
(3) C (4) C (2) ; Position isomers
Cl H H
4. Find out relation between the following O O
compounds: (3) ;
NH2 H2N H
O COOH
Position and functional group isomers
i. O and
(4) All of these
10. Isomerism shown by
O
O C–Cl O O
Cl
ii. and –S–O– –Me & Me– –S–O–
O O
iii. CH3CH2CH2CHCH3 and CH3CH2CHCH2CH3

(1) Chain isomerism
COOH COOH (2) Positional isomerism
O O
(3) Metamerism
iv. O and
O (4) Functional group isomerism
C HE M I S T R Y ADI/E-1
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
11. Which is true for the following isomeric forms I 17. How many isomers of C5 H 11 OH will be primary
& II respectively : alcohol (Only structural) :-
CCl3 H CCl3 CCl3 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

C=C C=C
H CCl3 H H 18. C7 H9 N has how many isomeric forms that contain
(I) (II) a benzene ring :-
Dipole Boiling Melting Stability (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 6
moment point point 19. A position isomer of butyne-1 is -
(i) I > II I > II II > I I > II (1) Butene-1 (2) Butene-2
(ii) II > I II > I II > I II > I (3) Butyne-2 (4) Buta-1, 3-diene
(iii)I > II I > II I > II I > II 20. Which of the following is an isomer of propanal ?
(iv)II > I II > I I > II I > II (1) Ethanol (2) Acetone
12. Assign double configuration to the following (3) Propanol (4) Popanoic acid
COOH 21. Compounds CH3NHC3H7 and C2H5NHC2H5 exhibit
CH2OH
(1) Geometrical isomerism
CN
H 2N–H2C CN (2) Optical isomerism
(3) Position isomerism
(1) E (2) E, E
(4) Metamerism
(3) E,Z (4) Z,Z
13. Compare dipole moment of the following 22. Which type of isomerism is shown by diethyl ether
and methyl propyl ether?
Cl Cl H Cl
(i) C=C ; C=C
H H Cl H (1) chain (2) function
F F H (3) metamerism (4) position

CH3
(ii) C=C ; C=C
H H H CH3 23. How many primary amines are possible for the
(iii) CH3 –CH2 –CºCH ; CH3–CºC–CH3 formula C4H11N ?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
14. –C–O– and H–C–O– – are
O O 24. C7H7Cl shows how many isomers?
(1) Position isomers (2) Metamers (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 2

(3) Functional isomer (4) Chain isomer 25. Which of the following is correct matchings?
15. Which of following pairs of compounds are Column –I Column -II
tautomers -
O O
(1) Propanol and propanone
=
(1) CH3–C–OH & H–C–OCH3 metamers

(2) 1-Propanol and 2-propanol
(3) Ethanol and vinyl alcohol (2) CH3–CH2–CºCH & position isomers
(4) Vinyl alcohol and Ethanal CH3 –C ºC–CH 3
16. Type of isomerism exists between :- (3) CH 3CH2CH2 NH2 & tautomers
CH3 –CH2 –CH2 –CN and CH3–CH–CH3 CH3–CH–CH3
–
CN NH2
(1) Position (2) Chain
(4) CH3CH2OH & (CH3)2 O tautomers
(3) Both the above (4) None of these
E-2/ ADI C HE M I S T R Y
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
26. The enolic form of acetone contains (ix) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(1) 9 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 2 lone pairs Cl Cl
(2) 8 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 2 lone pairs (x) C C
H H
(3) 10 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 1 lone pair
(4) 9 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 1 lone pair H H
27. Tautomerism is exhibited by (xi)

COOH COOH
I. II.
CH=CH–OH O O
III. IV. (xii)

O O
O O
32. Assign the configuration E/Z to the following
(1) All the four (2) II, III and IV compounds.
(3) I, III and IV (4) None of these
H2N CH3 H2N OCH3
28. Which of the following compounds cannot show C C
(i) (ii)
tautomerism ? C C
O Cl NO2 HS-CH2 F
O
(1) HO–CH=CH 2 (2) F Cl 14
H3C CH3
C
C
O O (iii) C (iv)
C
O NH H D 14
(3) (4) MeO CH3
29. Which of the following are examples of C 2 H5 CH3

metamerism? C
H3C C
(1) Ethoxy ethane and 1-methoxy propane (v)
HC CH2 CH(CH3)2
(2) Pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one H3C
(3) N-Methyl propan-1-amine and N-ethyl ethanamine
(4) All of the above F
H2C CH CH2-Cl
30. The number of structural and configurational
(vi) C
isomers of a bromo compound C5H9Br obtained by I
C
the addition of HBr on 2-pentyne respectively are : D3C CH2 CH2–CH3
(1) 1, 2 (2) 2, 4
(3) 4, 2 (4) 2,1 F
C Br
31. Which of the following compounds can show (vii) Cl
geometrical isomerism : C
Cl
(i) Pent-3-en-1-yne (ii) Acetaldoxime
(iii) Pent-1-ene (iv) 1-chloropropene OHC CH2–OH
C
(v) 2-Methylbut-2-ene (vi) But-2-yne (viii)
C
(vii) 2-chlorobutane (viii) Butenyne NC C–OH
O
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
33. Which of the following compounds have zero 34. In which compound cis-trans nomenclature cannot
dipole moment. be used :
CH3 (i) CH3–CH=CH–COOH
H
(i) CCl4 (ii) C=C (ii) C6H5–CH=CH–C 6H5
H C2H5
(iii) C6H5–CH=CHD
Cl H CH3
(iii) C=C (iv) Cl Cl (iv) C6H5–CH=C
H Cl Cl
ANS WER KEY

1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. FGI,FGI,CI FGI 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (2)
10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. i > ii, ii > i, i > ii 14. (2) 15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (2)
19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (4) 22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (3)
29. (4) 30. (2) 31. i, ii, iv, ix, x, xi, xii
32. Z-i,ii, iii,- E- iv, v, vi, vii, viii 33. i & iii, iv 34. iv
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 02 ISOMERISM (OPTICAL) C HE M I S T R Y
1. A Fischer projection of (2R, 3S)-2,3-butanediol is - 7. Following two isomers are –
CH3 CH3 COOH COOH

HO H HO H H Cl H Cl
(1) HO H (2) H OH Cl H H Cl
CH3 CH3 COOH COOH
CH 3
(1) Enantiomers (2) Mesomers
CH3
H OH H OH (3) Diastereomers (4) Position isomers
(3) HO H (4) H OH
CH3 CH 3 8. Optical activity is expected for –
2. The number of chiral centres present in (1) 2–Methyl propanoic acid

3, 4-dibromo-2-pentanol is (2) Methyl 2–methyl propanoate
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (3) Methyl 2–chloro propanoate
Et (4) Propanoic acid
3. Me * OH It has chiral centre (*). It is- 9. Which of the following compounds contains two
H similar asymmetric carbon atoms -
(1) R (2) S (1) CH 3 CHBrCHOHCH3

(3) Both (4) None of these (2) CH3CH2CHOHCHOHCH 3
4. Which of the following contain asymmetric carbon (3) C6H5CHBrCHBrCH3
atom – (4) CH3CHBrCH2CHBrCH3
(1) CH 3–CH2 –CH 2 –Br (2) CH3–CH–CH–CH3 10. The following compound can exhibit-
Br CH3 CH3 H
C= C H
(3) CH3–CH 2–CH–CH3 (4) Both B & C CH 3 C
Br CH3 COOH
CH 3 (1) Geometrical isomerism

H Cl
5. If optical rotation produced by is + 36º (2) Geometrical and optical isomerisms
Cl H
CH3
(3) Optical isomerism
CH 3
H
(4) Tautomerism
Cl
then that produced by is-
H Cl 11. Which compound would exhibit optical isomers–
CH3
(1) -36º (2) 0º COOH NO2 CH3

(3) + 36º (4) Unpredictable C OH
(1) (2)
6. Number of optically active isomers of tartaric acid NO2 H3C COOH
COOH
CH(OH)COOH
is
CH(OH)COOH O
N
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) R1 R3 (4) C
R2
(3) 4 (4) 5
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
12. An organic compound will show optical isomerism 16. Which of the following compounds can exist in
if – meso form?
(1) Four groups attached to C atom are different (1) 1,2-Dichlorobutane
(2) Three groups attached to C atom are different (2) 2, 3-Dichloropentane
(3) Two groups attached to C atom are different
(3) 2,3-Dichlorobutane
(4) All the groups attached to C atom are same
(4) 1, 2-Dichloropentane
13. Which of the following compounds possesses a
chiral centre - 17. The correct statements about the compounds a, b
H OH H OH and c is/are
CH3
(1) (2)
COOCH3 COOH COOH
O O
H OH
H OH H OH H OH
Cl Br
H OH H OH OH H
(3) (4)
COOH COOCH3 COOCH3
(a) (b) (c)
14. Which of the following pairs of structures repre-
sent enantiomers -
(1) a and b are identical
COOH CH3
(2) a and b are diastereomers
(1) HO H and H OH
(3) a and c are enantiomers
CH 3 COOH
(4) a and b are enantiomers
H H 18. The number of optically active isomers of Glucose

is :-
(2) CH3 OH and H COOH
(1) 4 (2) 8
COOH CH3
(3) 12 (4) 16
COOH OH 19. How many chiral centres are present in the following
(3) H CH3 and CH3 H O
OH COOH O
compound :- Cl
Me
CH 3 OH
(4) HOOC OH and HOOC H (1) 4 (2) 5
H CH 3 (3) 6 (4) 7
20. Configurations of the two centres in the following
CH3
H OH COOH
15. In the structure H Br
H Br
molecule are : H CN
CH 3 OH
the configurations at the chiral centres are - (1) (2R, 3S) (2) (2R, 3R)
(1) 2R, 3R (2) 2S, 3R (3) 2R, 3S (4) 2S, 3S (3) (2S, 3S) (4) (2S, 3R)
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (1)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 03 GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY C HE M I S T R Y
1. Maximum –I effect is exerted by the group 7. The order of stability of the following resonating
(1) C6H5 – (2) –OCH 3 structures
Q
(3) –Cl (4) –NO2 O O
Å
2. Zero inductive effect is exerted by CH2 = CH – C – H (I), CH2 – CH = C – H (II)
(1) C6H5 – (2) H Å
O
(3) CH3 – (4) Cl Q
and CH2 – CH = C – H (III) is :
3. Pair of groups exerting (–I) effect is
(1) – NO2 and – CH3 (2) – NO2 and – Cl (1) II > I > III (2) I > III > II
(3) – Cl and – CH3 (4) – CH3 and – C2H5 (3) I > II > III (4) III > II > I
4. ‘M’ effect is the resonance of - 8. Hyperconjugation occur due to overlaping of-
(1) p electrons only (1) p M.O. with ‘s’ (2) ‘p’ orbital with s
(3) s M.O. with p M.O. (4) None
(2) s electrons only
9. The activating nature of – CH 3 group linked to
(3) p and s both
benzene ring can be better explained with the help
(4) (+) ve and (–) charge of
5. M effect takes part in - (1) Hyperconjugation (2) Resonance effect
(1) Saturated system (3) Inductive effect (4) Electromeric effect
(2) Unsaturated system containing conjugated 10. Which of the following groups has the highest
double bond. hyperconjugative effect but least + I-effect ?
(3) Unsaturated system containing non conjugated (1) – CH3 (2) – CH2CH3
double bond. (3) – CH (CH3)2 (4) – C (CH3)3
11. Which of the following properties cannot be
(4) A triple bond in a carbon chain
explained on the basis of hyperconjugation.
6. Which of the following pairs of structures do not
(1) Dipole moment of CH3 – NO2
represent resonating structures?
(2) o-p directing character of – CH3 group.
O OH CH3
Å
(1) CH3 – C – CH3 ; CH 3 – C = CH2 (3) Greater stability of CH3 – C – CH2
CH3
Å
Q (4) Meta directing character of CCl3 group
(2) O ; O
12. Which of the following molecules has all the effects:
Å
inductive : mesomeric and Bakernathan
OH OH (Hyperconjugation) effect ?
(3) CH3 – C – CH3 ; CH3 – C – CH3 (1) C2H5Cl
Å
(2) CH3 – CH = CH2
Å (3) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
(4) CH3 – C – OH ; CH 3 – C = OH
Q
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – C– CH3
O O O
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
13. Electromeric effect is - Q
CH2
(1) The effect in excited state
(2) p electrons remain in valency shall 21. Hybridisation of carbanion in is -
(3) The shift of p electron as well as s electron
(4) Only p electrons are shifted (1) sp3 (2) sp2
(3) sp (4) Unhybridised
14. In > C = O the direction of electromeric shift-
22. Consider the following carbocations
(1) are different for E+ and Nu– attack
(2) are same for E+ and Nu– attack Å Å
(a) CH3O CH 2 (b) CH2
(3) will depend upon attacking sight
(4) None
Å Å
15. The most stable free radical among the following is (c) CH3 CH2 (d) CH3 — CH 2
• 2
(1) C6H5CH2CH
·
(2) CH3 - C H 2 - CH 3 The relative stabilities of these carbocations are such
that:-
• 3
(3) C6H5CHCH
•
(4) CH3CH2 (1) d < b < c < a (2) b < d < c < a
(3) d < b < a < c (4) b < d < a < c
16. Most stable carbocation is
23. Electrophile is
Å Å
(1) CH2 = CH (2) CH = CH – CH (1) H2 O (2) NH3
2 2
(3) AlCl3 (4) C2 H5NH2
Å
(3) CH2 (4) Å CH3 24. Which of the following can behave as a nucleophile
(1) HOH (2) R — OH
17. Which of the following is most stable - (3) R — NH2 (4) all of these
Å Å 25. Which shows aromatic character?
(1) CH3 (2) CH3 – CH 2
Å Å (1) Å (2) Q
(3) CH3 – CH – CH3 (4) CH2=CH– CH 2
18. Which of the following is least stable carbocations (3) (4) Q
Å Å
(1) CH2 = CH (2) CH3– CH2
26. Rank the following alkenes in order of decreasing
Å Å heats of hydrogenation (largest first)
(3) CH3 (4) Ph CH 2
19. Which of the following is most stable -
Q Q (I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) CH (2) CH3 – C – CH3
3
(1) II > III > IV > I (2) II > IV > III > I
CH3
Q Q (3) I > III > IV > II (4) I > IV > III > II
(3) CH3 – C – CH3 (4) Cl – C – Cl
Å Å Å Å
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
F Cl
20. Which of the following is most stable - 27.

O
Q Q
OH NH–C–CH3 NO2
(1) CH3 (2) CH2= CH (II) (III) (IV)
(I)
Q Q
(3) CH º C (4) CH 3–Cº C [Stability order]
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
Å Å Å Å
CH2
[Acidic strength]
CH2 CH2 CH2
COOH COOH COOH COOH
35. F Cl Br I
28. CH3 H3C–C–CH3
CH2CH3 CH2–CH3
CH3 CH3 (I) (II) (III) (IV)
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
[Stability order] [Acidic strength]
NH2
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
29. 36. N
N–H
N
H
NO2 CN CH3 (IV)
(I) (II) (III)
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
[Basic strength]
[Stability order]
37. Arrange given compounds in decreasing order of
O their Ka value:
30.
N N N N (i) HCOOH ; CH3COOH ; C2H5COOH ; C3H7 –COOH
H H H (I) (II) (III) (IV)
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
Cl
[Basic strength] (ii) COOH Cl COOH
COOH Cl
Me
(III)
H H Me (I) (II)
NH–Me NH2 N
N
HOOC HOOC -COOH
31. (iii) COOH ; HOOC COOH
(III)
(I) (II)
NO2 (IV )
(I) (II) (III)
[Basic strength] (IV)

O2N
;F HOOC
COOH COOH COOH
(I) (II) (III)
OH OH OH OH
CH3 38. What is the order of acidic strength (Ka) for the
32. following set of compounds.
CH3
(i) F – CH2 – CH2 – OH
CH3
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(ii) Cl–CH2–CH 2–OH
[Acidic strength] (iii) O 2N–CH2–CH 2 –OH
39. Which among the given acid has lowest pKa value
COOH COOH COOH COOH
(1) Chloroacetic acid (2) Bromoacetic acid
33.
(3) Nitroacetic acid (4) Cyanoacetic acid
NO2 CN CH3 NH2 40. Arrange the compounds in order of decreasing
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
acidity :
[Acidic strength] (I) Cl – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(II) Cl2CH – CH2 – OH
COOH COOH COOH COOH
(III) Cl – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
34. (IV) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
F Cl Br I
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (3) II > I > IV > III (4) II > I > III > IV
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
41. Consider the given compounds : (1) A-P ; B-Q ; C-R (2) A-R ; B-P ; C-Q
(1) CH3 – CH2 – NH2 (2) CH3 – CH = NH (3) A-R ; B-Q ; C-P (4) A-P ; B-R ; C-Q
(3) CH3 – C º N (4) C2H5 – NH – C2H5 43. Correct order of rate of EAS (electrophilic aromatic
Arrange basicity of these compounds in decreasing NO2 Cl CH3
order :
substitution) ?
(1) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3 (2) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) 1 > 4 > 2 > 3 (4) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2
42. Match the Kb value of following base : (1) c > b > a > d
List - I (Base) List - II (Kb Value) (2) c > d > a > b
•• (3) a > b > c > d
(A) CH3–NH2 (P) 5.4 × 10–4
(4) c > d > b > a
(B) (CH3)2NH (Q) 0.6 × 10–4
(C) (CH3)3N (R) 4.5 × 10–4
ANS WER KEY

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (1)
10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (1)
19. (4) 20. (3) 21. (2) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (4)
27. I > III > II > IV 28. I > II > III > IV 29. I > II > IV > III 30. I > III > II > IV
31. IV > I > III > II 32. IV > II > III > I 33. I > II > III > IV 34. IV > III > II > I
35. IV > III > II > I 36. IV > II > III > I
37. (i) I > II > III > IV (ii) I > II > III (iii) III > II > I (iv) I > III > II
38. (1) III > I > II (2) II > I > III
39. (3) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (2) 43. (4)
E-10/ADI C HE M I S T R Y
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 04 ALKYL HALIDE C HE M I S T R Y
1. Finkelstein reaction is - 8. The correct order of Dipole moment of alkyl

(1) 2CH3CH2Cl+ Ag2O (dry) ¾¾® halides is.
CH3CH2OCH2CH3+ 2AgCl (1) RI > RBr < RCl > RF (2) RF > RCl > RBr > RI
(3) RCl > RF > RBr > RI (4) None of these
(2) CH3CH2Br + NaI ¾Acetone
¾¾ ¾® CH3CH2I+ NaBr 9. SN1 reaction is favoured by : -
(3) CH3CH2Br + Ag2O (moist) ¾¾® (1) Non-polar solvent
CH3CH2OH + AgBr (2) More no. of alkyl group on the carbon atom
(4) CH3CH2Cl + NaOCH3 ¾¾® CH3 CH2OCH3 (3) Small groups on the carbon attached to the
NaCl halogen atom
2. In the Hunsdiecker reaction - (4) None of these
(1) Number of carbon atoms decrease 10. Chlorination of toluene in the presence of light
(2) Number of carbon atoms increase and heat followed by treatment with aqueous
NaOH gives
(3) Number of carbon atoms remain same
(4) one of the above (1) o-cresol (2) p-cresol
3. In Finkelstein Reaction, which reactants are used- (3) 2,4-dihydroxytoluene
(1) NaI + C2H5OH (2) NaF + acetone (4) Benzoic acid
(3) NaBr + CH3OH (4) NaI + CH3COCH3 11. Arrange the following compounds in order of
4. C2H5Cl + AgF ¾¾¾® C2H5F + AgCl increasing dipole moment
Toluene m-chlorobenzene
The above reaction is called -
I II
(1) Hunsdiecker (2) Swart
o- dichlorobenzene p-dichlorobenzene
(3) Strecker (4) Wurtz
III IV
5. Pick up the correct statement about alkyl halides :
(1) I < IV < II < III (2) IV < I < II < III
(1) They show H-bonding
(3) IV < I < III < II (4) IV < II < I < III
(2) They are soluble in water
12. When propylene reacts with HBr in presence of
(3) They are soluble in organic solvent peroxide, the product formed is -
(4) They do not contain any polar bond
(1) n-Propyl alcohol
6. Alkyl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution (2) Propylene peroxide
reaction because -
(3) n-Propyl bromide
(1) Alkyl groups are electron repelling groups
(4) 1,3 Dibromo propene
(2) Halide ion is a weak nucleophile and therefore
13. Vinylic halides are unreactive towards
displaced by stronger nucleophiles.
nucleophilic substitution because of the following
(3) Halogen shows a - I effect except -
(4) they have a dipole moment (1) C - halogen bond is strong
7. Which of the following compounds is most rapidly (2) The halogen is bonded to sp2 carbon
hydrolyzed by SN1 mechanism. (3) A double bond character is developed in the
(1) C6H5Cl (2) Cl – CH2 – CH = CH2 carbon-halogen bond by reasonance
(3) (C6H5)3 CCl (4) C6 H5 CH2Cl (4) Halide ions are not good leaving groups
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
14. Alkyl halides are almost never prepared by - CH3 CH CH2 CH2l
(4)
(1) Direct halogenation of alkane. Cl
(2) Reaction of ROH with PX3. 19. The correct reactivity order of alcohols towards
(3) Reaction of ROH with HX. H–X will be
(4) Reaction of alkene with HX. (I) CH2 CH—OH (II) CH2 CH—CH2OH
15. Which one of the following compounds most (III) CH3—CH 2—OH (IV) CH3 CH CH3
readily undergoes substitution by SN2 mechanism OH
CH3 (1) II > I > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I
(1) H 3C (2) H 3C (3) II > IV > I > III (4) II > IV > III > I
Cl 20. SN1 reaction on optically active substrates mainly
Cl CH3
Cl H 3C gives
(3) H 3C (4) Cl (1) Retention in configuration
C3H7 H3C
(2) Inversion in configuration
16. Which one of the following tert. halide will not
(3) Racemic product (4) No product
give SN1 Reaction :
21. Anti-Markownikoff's addition of HBr is not
C6H5 CH3 oberved in -
(1) CH3—C—X (2) CH3—C—Cl (1) Propene (2) But-2-ene
CH3 CH3 (3) Butene (4) Pent-2-ene
C6H5
22. CH3 –CH=CH H - Br
OH ¾ ¾¾ ®
(3) CH3—C—Br (4)
Major product (1) ;A is :–
C6H5 Br
(1) CH3–CHBrCH2 OH
17. Toluene, when treated with Br 2 /Fe, gives p-
(2) CH 3 CH2 CHBr OH
bromotoluene as the major product, because the
CH3 group - (3) CH 3CH2CHBr Br
(1) is para directing (2) is meta directing (4) CH 3CHBrCH2 Br
(3) deactivates the ring by hyperconjugation
(4) deactivates the ring 23. ¾¾¾
Br2
NaCl
®?
18. Predict the product 'C' obtained in the following Br Br
reaction of 1–butyne (1) Cl (2) Br
CH3 — CH2—C CH+HCl ¾¾® B ¾H¾l® C Cl
(3) Both the above (4) Cl
l
24. The given reaction
(1) CH3 CH2 CH2 C H CH3 OH
NaOH/HOH
l Cl CH3–C–CH2–Cl CH3–C–CH2–CH3
CH3 CH3
(2) CH3 CH2 CH CH2Cl Is an example of :
l (1) SN2 reaction (2) SN1 reaction
(3) SE1 reaction (4) SE2 reaction
(3) CH3 CH2 C CH3
NCERT 10.2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22
Cl
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (3)
21. (2) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (2)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 05 SUBSTITUTION AND ELIMINATION C HE M I S T R Y
1. Arrange the following compounds in descending 8. The presence of halogen in an organic compound
order of density. is detected by :
RF, RBr, RCl, H2O, RH, RI (1) iodoform test (2) silver nitrate test
(1) RF > RBr > RCl > H2O > RH > RI (3) beilstein's test (4) millon's test
(2) RI > RF > RBr > RCl > H2O > RH 9. The reagent (s) for the following conversion
(3) RBr > RCl > RI > H2O > RF > RH Br
?
(4) RI > RBr > H2O > R-Cl > RF > RH H H is /are -
Br
2. C-Cl bond of chlorobenzene in comparison to C-Cl (1) alcoholic KOH
bond of methyl chloride is (2) Alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH 2
(1) longer and weaker (2) shorter and weaker (3) aquesous KOH followed by NaNH2
(3) shorter and stronger (4) longer and stronger (4) Zn/CH3OH
3. Which one of the following is the strongest 10. A mixture of two organic compounds was treated with
nucleophile in aprotic solvent for SN2 mechanism? sodium metal in ether solution. Isobutane was obtained
(1) Cl– (2) Br–1 (3) I–1 (4) H2 O as a product. The two chlorine compounds are
4. Following is the substitution reaction in which CN (1) Methyl chloride and propyl chloride
replaces Cl (2) Methyl chloride and ethyl chloride
D
R – Cl + KCN ¾¾ ® R – CN + KCl (3) Isopropyl chloride and Methyl chloride
(alcoholic) (4) Isopropyl chloride and ethyl chloride
To obtain propane nitrile, R-Cl should be 11. Chloroform, on warming with Ag powder, gives
(1) chloro ethane (2) 1-chloro propane (1) C2H2 (2) C2H4 (3) C2H6 (4) C6H6
(3) chloromethane (4) 2-chloro propane 12. Among the bromides I-II given below, the order of
5. (CH3)3 C – Br + OH ® [(CH3)3 C–OH] + Br In
–1 –1
reactivity is SN1 reaction is -
above reaction which one is the rate determinig
step? O
O
(1) OH–1 attacks substrate (I) (II) (III)
(2) substrate alkyl bromide attack OH –1 Br Br Br
(3) substrate leaves Br –1
and attract OH –1 (1) III > I > II (2) III > II > I
(4) The polar C-Br bond breaks slowly and (3) II > III > I (4) II > I > III
carbocation is formed Me Me
H - Cl
6. Isoroply chloride undergoes hydrolysis by 13. ¾¾¾ ® major product is:-
(1) SN1 mechanism (2) SN2 mechanism
(3) SN1 and SN2 (4) neither SN1 nor SN2 Me Me Me Me
Cl
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl ¾¾ ® B ¾¾® C ¾¾ ® D
alc. HBr Na
7. KOH ether
(1) (2)
In the above sequence of reaction, the product D Cl
Cl Me Me Me
is:
Me
(1) Propane (2) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane (3) (4)
(3) Hexane (4) Allyl bromide Cl
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
14. Which statement is true regarding electrophilic Me Br Me SPh
addition reaction :- SPh SPh
(1) Carbocation is formed in R.D.S. (3) (4)
(2) Carbocation rearrangement is observed NO2 NO2
(3) Reaction is intiated by electrophile 18. The compound which can be a good substrate for
(4) All both S N1 & S N2 :
15. Which of the following statement is true for the (1) CH3 – Cl
major product obtained in the given reaction :- (2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl
CH4 + Cl2 hn (major product) :- (3) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl

(Excess) (4) (CH3)3 C – Cl
(1) Reacts with AgNO3(aq) to give white ppt of AgCl 19. Match the column-I and column-II and select the
(2) Is used as an aneasthetic correct answer :
(3) Has zero dipole moment Column-I Column-II
(4) All Cl
16. Select the chain propagation steps in the free radical a q. K O H
chlorination of methane :- (1) (p) E1
.
(1) Cl2 2Cl
Cl
. .
(2) Cl+CH4 CH3Cl+H a lc . K O H
(2) (q) SN1
. .
(3) Cl+CH4 CH3+HCl
. . Cl
(4) H+Cl 2 HCl+Cl
H 2O
. . (3) (r) SN2
(e) CH3+Cl 2 CH3–Cl+Cl
(1) b, c, e (2) a, c, e
OH
(3) c, e (4) b, c, d Å
H /D
(4) (s) E2
17. The major product of the following reaction is
Me Br
(1) (a-s); (b-r); (c-p); (d-q)
F (2) (a-r); (b-s); (c-q); (d-p)
PhS Na
dimethylformamide
(3) (a-r); (b-s); (c-p); (d-q)
NO2 (4) (a-q); (b-p); (c-r); (d-s)
20. Which of the following is most reactive towards SN2
Me SPh Me SPh (1) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl
F F
(2) O Cl (3) P h Cl
(1) (2)
NO2
Ph
NO2 (4) Cl
O
NCERT 10.7, 8, 10, 11, 13, 14, 15, 16
ANS WER KEY

1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 06 ALCOHOL C HE M I S T R Y
1. Most acidic alcohol is – towards conc. HCI is –

(1) (CH 3)3C–OH (2) CH3CH2 OH (1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > III > II > IV
(3) CH 3OH (4) Propanol-2 (3) IV > III > II > I (4) IV > III > I > II
2. Alcohols have higher boiling points than parent hy- 8. On acid catalysed hydration, 2-phenyl propene
drocarbons because of – gives:
(1) Higher molecular masses (1) 3-phenyl-2-propanol
(2) Presence of hydrogen bonding (2) 2-phenyl-1-propanol
(3) Presence of carbon chain
(3) 1-phenyl-3-propanol
(4) None of these
(4) 2-phenyl-2-propanol
3. Dehydration of the alcohols
9. Least soluble alcohol in water is :
OH OH OH
(1) OH (2)
I II
OH
OH
(3) OH (4)
OH
10. The increasing order of boiling points of 1º, 2º, 3º
III IV
alcohol is -
will be in order
(1) 1º > 2º > 3º (2) 3º > 2º > 1º
(1) III >II > IV >I (2) I > II >III >IV
(3) 2º > 1º > 3º (4) None
(3) IV > II > III > I (4) II > IV > I > III
4. HBr reacts fastest with – 11. Methyl alcohol reacts with phosphorus trichloride
to form-
(1) 2-methyl propan-2-ol
(1) Methane (2) Methyl chloride
(2) propan-1-ol
(3) Acetyl chloride (4) Dimethyl ether
(3) propan-2-ol
(4) 2-methyl propan-1-ol 12. Benzene diazonium chloride on hydrolysis gives:
5. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in- (1) benzene (2) benzyl alcohol
(3) phenol (4) chlorobenzene
(1) Ethanol (2) Diethyl ether
(3) Ethyl chloride (4) Triethyl amine 13. Which one/ones of the following reactions will yield
6. In CH3CH2OH, the bond that undergoes heterolytic 2-propanol ?
cleavage most readily is– +
(i) CH3CH = CH2 + H2O ¾¾®

H
(1) C — C (2) C — O
(ii) CH3CHO ¾¾¾¾ ®
( i)CH MgI 3
(3) C — H (4) O — H (ii )H O 2
7. The order of reactivity of the following alcohols

(iii) HCHO ¾¾¾¾ ®
( i)C H MgI
2 5
(ii )H O 2
CH3 CH3
(I) (II) F (iv) CH3CH = CH2 ¾¾¾¾¾
Neutral KMnO
® 4
F OH OH
Choose the right answer :
CH3 CH3
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(III) (IV) Ph OH
OH (3) (iii) and (i) (4) (ii) and (iv)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
14. Phenol is acidic, because:-
(1) It contains —OH group 22. In the reaction, MgBr CH2 CH2 ¾¾®
H O
2
(1)
(2) It has a cyclic structure O
(3) It conjugate base is stabilized by resonance the compound (1) is :
(4) All the above
15. Absolute alcohol cannot be obtained by simple frac-
(1) CH2OH
tional distillation because :
(1) pure C2 H5OH is unstable
(2) C2H5OH forms hydrogen bonding with water
(2) CH2CH2OH
(3) boiling point C2H5OH is very close to that of
water
(4) constant boiling azeotropic mixture is formed
with water (3) CH CH2
16. Primary amine on treatement with NaNO2 and HCl
yields : O
(1) nitro compound (2) ammonia (4) None of these
(3) secondary alcohol (4) primary alcoho 23. 2-Phenylethanol may be prepared by the reaction
17. Which of the following Grignard reagents is suitable of phenyl magnesium bromide with:
for the preparation of 3-methyl-2-butanol ? (1) HCHO (2) CH3 CHO
(1) 2-Butanone + methyl magnesium bromide (3) CH 3COCH3 (4) CH2 CH2
(2) Acetone + ethyl magnesium bromide
(3) Acetaldehyde + isopropyl magnesium bromide O
(4) Ethyl propionate + methyl magnesium bromide 24. The nature of 2, 4, 6–trinitrophenol is :-
18. When CH3 MgI is made to react with acetone and (1) Acidic (2) Basic
the addition product is hydrolysed, we get : (3) Weakly basic (4) Neutral
(1) primary alcohol (2) secondary alcohol
MgBr CH 2CH2OH
(3) tertiary alcohol (4) an aldehyde 25. forms
19. Tertiary alcohol is obtained as major product in:
on reaction with –
(1) (CH3)2CH–CH=CH2 ¾¾¾¾¾
® Oxymercuration
demercuration CH 2 – CH2
(1) CH3 – CHO (2)
O
(2) (CH3)3C–CH=CH2 ¾¾¾¾
Dil.H SO
® 2 4
(3) (CH3)2CH–CH=CH2 ¾¾¾¾¾

Hydroboration
® (3) CH3 – CH2 – CHO (4) O
oxidation
(4) all of the above

26. B ¬¾
NaBH 4
¾¾¾ CH = CH – CHO ¾H¾2 /¾
Pt
® A
20. (CH3)3 CMgBr on reaction with D2O produces :
(1) (CH3)3CD (2) (CH3)3COD A and B are –
(3) (CD3)3CD (4) (CD3 )3 OD
(1) CH2CH2CHO, CH= CH – CH2OH
21. Which of the following compounds on reaction with
CH3MgBr will give a tertiary alcohol ?
(2) CH2 CH2CH 2OH,
(1) C2H5CHO (2) C2 H5 COOCH3
(3) C2H5COOH (4) CH3– CH CH – CH 3
CH=CH–CH2 OH
O
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
34. Which one of the following will most readily be
(3) CH=CH–CH2OH in both cases dehydrated in acidic condition –
O OH OH
(4) CH2CH2CH2OH in both cases (1) (2)
27. Propene, CH3 – CH = CH2 can be converted to 1-
O
propanol by oxidation. Which set of reagents among O
the following is ideal to effect the conversion -

(3) (4)
(1) Alkaline KMnO4 OH OH
(2) B2H6 and alkaline H2O2

35. Acetaldehyde reacts with CH3MgBr. The compound
(3) O3 /Zn dust formed will be -
(4) Oximecuration/demecuration (1) CH3CH2 OH (2) CH3CHOHCH3
28. Under suitable conditions C 6 H 5 CH 2 OH (3) CH3 CH2 CH2 OH (4) None of these
(1) C6H5OH (2), and C6H5COOH (3) can act as acids. 36. To prepare 3-ethylpentan-3-ol, the reactants needed
The increasing order of their acidic strength is - are-
(1) A < B < C (2) A < C < B (1) CH3CH2MgBr + CH3COCH2CH3
(3) B < A < C (4) C < B < A (2) CH3 MgBr + CH3CH2 CH2COCH2CH3
29. Oxalic acid is formed when glycol is treated with. (3) CH3 CH2MgBr + CH3 CH2COCH2CH3
(1) H2 SO4 (2) H3 PO4 (4) CH3 CH2CH2MgBr + CH3COCH2CH3
(3) HCl (4) HNO3 37. Reaction of alcohol does not show cleavage of R-
30. Isopropyl alcohol is heated at 300°C in presence of O linkage-
Cu catalyst to give :- (1) ROH + PCl5 (2) ROH + SOCl2
(1) Acetone (2) Dimethyl ether (3) ROH + HCl (4) ROH + Na
(3) Acetaldehyde (4) Ethane
38. The missing structures A and B in the reaction
31. Carbolic acid is :- sequence :
(1) Phenol (2) methenol Al2 O3 (i )O
R - CH2 - CH2OH ¾¾ ¾® R - CH = CH ¾¾¾3 ®Å
(3) Formic acid (4) Acetic acid 350° 2 ( ii ) Zn ,H O
3
32. Diethyl ether on heating with conc. HI gives two RCHO + A, RCHO ¾Re ¾¾® B ;
¾duce
moles of – A & B are given by the set -
(1) Ethanal (2) Iodoform (1) CH3OH, RCOOH (2) Methanal, RCH2OH
(3) Ethyl iodide (4) Methyl iodide (3) Ethanal, RCOOH (4) Methanal, RCHOHR
33. The main product of the following reaction is 39. A on treatment with Na gives B and with PCl5 gives
Conc. H2SO4 C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B
C6H5CH2CH(OH)CH(CH3)2 ?
and C are in the order-
H5C6CH2CH2 (1) C2H5 OH, C2H5 Cl, C2H5 ONa
(1) C = CH2
H3 C (2) C2H5OH, C2 H6, C2H5Cl
H5C6 H (3) C2H5 OH, C2H5 ONa, C2H5Cl
(2) C=C (4) C2H5Cl, C2 H6, C2H5OH
H CH(CH3)2
40. Methanol and ethanol are distinguished by-
C6H 5CH 2 CH3
(3) C=C (1) Treating with Schiff’s reagent
H CH3
(2) Treating with Lucas reagent
C 6 H5 CH(CH3)2 (3) Heating with iodine and alkali
(4) C=C
H H (4) Treating with CrO3 in dil. H2SO4
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
41. Absolute alcohol contains- (2) CH3CH(OH)CH3 + PBr3
(1) 40% H2O (2) 10% H2O (3) CH3 CH2OH + CH3COOH
(3) 5% H2O (4) 100% C2 H5OH (4) ROH + HX
42. Which of the following reactions of alkanols does Home work:
not involve C – O bond breaking : NCERT 11.1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 11, 12, 13, 15, 17,
(1) CH3CH2OH + SOCl2 19, 32
ANS WER KEY

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (2) 22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (4) 30. (3)
31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (2) 36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (3)
41. (4) 42. (3)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 07 ALCOHOL, PHENOL AND ETHER C HE M I S T R Y
1. In the following sequence of reactions 5. Phenol and benzoic acid are distinguished by :-
CH3 – Br ¾¾¾ LiAlH
B ¾¾¾¾ ® C,
(1) Lucas reagent (2) Victor Meyer test
® A ¾¾¾®
+
KCN H O 3
4
ether
(3) Caustic soda (4) Sodium bicarbonate
the end product (3) is:
6. Which of the following is the strongest acid :-
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Ethyl alcohol
(1) Carbolic acid (2) Carbonic acid
(3) Acetone (4) Methane
(3) Picric acid (4) Acetic acid
2. In a set of reactions, ethyl benzene yielded a product D
7. In the reaction :
CH2CH3 Br2
CH3
KMnO 4
¾¾¾¾ ®B¾¾¾ ®C¾¾¾¾
C2H5 OH
®D
KOH FeCl 3 H+ CH3–CH–CH2–O–CH2–CH3 + HI ¾® .........
'D' would be :- which of following compounds will be formed :
COOC2H5 (1) CH3 CH CH3 + CH3—CH2—OH
(1) CH3
Br
(2) CH3 CH CH2 OH + CH3—CH3
(2) CH2–CH–COOC2H5
CH3
Br
(3) CH3 CH CH2 OH + CH3—CH2—I
Br
CH3
(3)
Br (4) CH3 CH CH2 I + CH3–CH2–OH
CH2COOC2H5
CH3
COOH 8. Oxonium salt of ether has the structure :-
(4) C2H5 O CH OÅ H
OCH2CH3 (1)
CH3 H
3. Consider the following reaction, Å
(2) CH3 CH2 O CH2 CH3
ethanol ¾¾¾
3 PBr
® X alc. KOH
¾¾¾¾¾ ®Y H
( i ) H2SO4 room temperature
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® Z; (3) (C2H5)2O ® O
( ii ) H2O
(4)
the product Z is :-
(1) CH3CH2OH
(2) CH2 = CH2 9. Phenol reacts with benzenediazonium chloride
solution to form a compound of the structure :-
(3) CH3CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3
(4) CH3 – CH2 – O – SO3H (1) HO N N Cl
4. The major organic products of reaction are (2) N N OH
CH3–O–CH(CH3)2 + HI ¾®
(3) N N
(1) CH3OH +(CH3)2CHI (2) ICH2–O–CH(CH3)2
OH Cl
(3) CH3 O C(CH3)2 (4) CH3I+ (CH3)2CHOH
(4) N N Cl
I
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
15. The Product of the reaction.
10. NaNO
Phenol ¾¾¾¾ ® Green2
colour H2O
¾¾¾ ® red
conc.H2 SO4
colour ¾ ¾¾
O ∗ HBr ↑ is
NaOH
® Blue colour
This reaction is associated with the name of :- CH 3 CH 3
(1) Gattermann (2) Coupling reaction (1) OH (2) Br
(3) Liebermann nitroso (4) Reimer–Tiemann Br OH
OH CH 3 CH 3
,
11. ∗C2 H 5 I ¾¾ ¾¾
OC2 H 5
¾¾ ↑ gives (3) (4) Br
Anhyd . C2 H 5OH
16. Which of the following cannot be made by using

(1) C6 H 5OC2 H 5 (2) C2 H 5OC2 H 5 williamson synthesis ?
(1) Methoxy benzene
(3) C6 H 5OC6 H 5 (4) C6 H 5 I
(2) Benzyl P-nitrophenylether
12. In the reaction sequence — (3) Tert.butyl methyl ether
CH 3I HI (4) Di-tert butyl ether
NaOH
SO3Na ¾¾¾¾
350°C
®A B ¾¾¾
® C+D
Anisole ¾¾AICI
¾ ¾↑ ¾¾2 ¾ ¾↑ ¾¾¾ ↑X
3 ( CH )CCI 3 Cl / FeCl HBr
A, B, C and D are given by the set :- 17. Heat
3
(1) Sodium phenate, anisole, C6H5I, CH3OH The product X in the above series of reactions is
(2) Sodium phenate, phenetole, C2H5I, C6H5OH
(3) Sodium phenate, anisole, C6H5OH, CH3I OCH 3 Br
(4) Sodium phenate, phenetole, C6H5I, C2H5OH Br Cl
(1) (2)
PCl Zn
13. A ¬¾¾¾
5
OH ¾¾¾¾®
Distil
B C (CH 3 )3 C (CH 3 )3
NaOH CH3COCl
OH OCH 3
C
Cl Cl
The compounds A, B and C in the above reaction (3) (4)
sequence are :- C (CH 3 )3 C (CH 3 )3
(1) Chlorobenzene, benzene, methyl benzoate
(2) Triphenyl phosphate, benzene, phenyl acetate
OH O
(3) Benzyl chloride, benzene, phenyl acetate 18. The reaction ¾¾¾
CH 2 I 2
NaOH
↑ CH 2 is an
(4) Benzyl chloride, benzene, phenylacetyl chloride OH O
14. The compounds A, B and C in the reaction sequence example of
are given by the set : (1) Wurtz reaction (2) Witting reaction
HBr Mg (i) CH3 CHO (3) Kolbe schmidt (4) Williamson reaction
CH 3 CH 2OH ¾¾¾
D
® A ¾¾¾ ® B ¾¾¾¾¾ Å ®C (ii ) H3 O
19. In the given reaction
(1) CH3CH2Br, CH3 CH2MgBr, (CH3 )3 C - OH OD
(2) CH3 CH2 Br, (CH3 CH2 )2 MgBr, (CH3 )2 CHCH2 OH O ¾[¾
X]
® [X] will be -
D
(3) CH3 CH2 Br, CH 3 CH2 MgBr, CH3 CH(OH)CH 2CH 3 (1) LiAlD4/D2 O (2) NaBD4 /H2 O
(4) CH3 CHBr2 , CH3CH(MgBr)2 , CH3CH(OH)CH3 (3) LiAlD4/HOH (4) NaBH4 /D2 O
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
20. Consider the following transformations. (1) 1-Propyl cyclopentanol
LiAlH 4 (2) 2-propyl cyclopentanol
CH3 CH = CHCHO ¾¾¾ ¾® A ¾H¾
¾2O
® the final
Et 2O
(3) 2-propyl cyclopentene
product (2) is (4) ethyl cyclohexane
(1) CH3CH = CHCH2OH
O O O
(2) CH3 CH2 CH2CH2 OH 23. Et H , (Me)2C H , (Me)3C H
(3) CH3CH = CHCH3 I II III
(4) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 The relative order of esterification of the following
21. Consider the following reaction. alcohols is
(1) I < II < III (2) I > II > III
O16
H +
(3) I < III < II (4) I > III > II
CH3–C–O18–C2H5 + H2O16 ¾heat
¾®
24. Phenol when treated with acetyl chloride gives a
The products formed in the reaction are compound of the following structure :
O16 OH O CCH3
(1) CH3–C–O H and C2H5O H
16 18 (1) (2)
COCH3 O
O16 OH OH
(2) CH3–C–O18H and C2H5O16 H (3) (4)

COCH3
COCH3
O16
(3) CH3–C–O16H and C2H5O16 H 25. Phenol with CCl4 and KOH gives salicylic acid. The
reaction is known as.
O18
(1) Friedal craft reaction
(4) CH3–C–O18H and C2H5O18 H (2) Riemer - Tiemann
OH CH2CH2CH3
(3) Rosenmund's reaction
22. ¾4 ® A ¾¾
¾H¾2SO
¾ ¾® B
B2H 6 (4) Siemlet reaction
Home work :
– NCERT 11.14, 16, 18, 20, 21 to 33
¾H¾2 O¾ ¾¾® is :
2 / OH
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (2)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 08 CARBONYL COMPOUND C HE M I S T R Y
Cl2/hn Alc. KOH (i) O3 9. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MgI
1. A B X X is
(ii) H2O/Zn followed by hydrolysis gives:
(1) CHO – (CH2)3 – CHO (1) n-Propyl alcohol (2) Ethanal
(2) CHO – (CH2)2 – CHO (3) Propanal (4) Isopropyl alcohol
(3) CHO – (CH2)3 – CH3 10. Compound used for preserving dead bodies is
(4) CHO – CHO (1) CH2 O (40%) (2) CH3CHO (10%)
2. When propyne reacts with 20% H2SO4 & 1% HgSO4 (3) CH3OH (25%) (4) C2H5OH (40%)
, we get- 11. The general order of reactivity of carbonyl
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Propanaldehyde compounds for nucleophilic addition reactions is
(3) Acetone (4) Formic acid (1) H2C = O > RCHO > ArCHO > R2C = O > Ar2C =O
3. Except acetylene, other alkynes react with H2O to give- (2) ArCHO > Ar2C = O > RCHO > R2C = O > H2C = O
(1) Aldehyde (2) CH3 CHO (3) Ar2C = O > R2C =O >ArCHO > RCHO > H2C = O
(3) Ketones (4) Alkanal. (4) H2C = O > R2C = O > Ar2C =O > RCHO > ArCHO
4. When CH3MgI reacts with CH3CN and the product 12. Least reactive towards nucleophilic additon is
is hydrolysed, we get -
(1) CH2 = O (2) CCl3–C–C2H 5
(1) Propanal (2) Acetone
O
(3) Formaldehyde (4) Acetaldehyde
5. Ethylidene chloride (CH3CHCl2) on hydrolysis with (3) CH3–C–C2H5 (4) CH3–C–H
NaOH gives - O O
(1) CH3 CHO (2) CH 3COCH3 13. Stephen reaction is the reaction involving:
(3) CH 3 CH(OH)2 (4) C2H5OH (1) Reduction of alkanoyl chloride with Pd/BaSO4.
6. (HCOO)2Ca + (CH3COO)2Ca ¾¾¾¾¾
dry distillation
¾® “A” - (2) Reduction of alkyl isocyanide with sodium and alcohol
Product A is – (3) Reduction of alkyl cyanide with SnCl2 and HCl
(1) Propanone (2) Methanal and hydrolysing the intermediate aldimine.
(3) Ethanal (4) All of the above (4) Reduction of carbonyl compound with zinc
amalgam and HCl.
7. The conversion CH 3 CH 2 CHO –––––®
CH3CH2CH2OH can not be affected by: 14. Which of the following statements is wrong:
(1) NaBH4 (2) Zn/HCl (1) The Polar character of the C=O group gives rise to
intermolecular attraction called dipole-dipole
(3) H2/Ni (4) Na + alcohol
attractions.
Xylene
8. The reaction - CH3COCl + H2 ¾ ¾ ¾® CH CHO +
Pd / BaSO 3
(2) The lower aldehydes and ketones are soluble in water.
4
(3) The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are
HCl is
lower than those of nonpolar alkanes of
(1) Stephen’s reaction
comparable molecular weight
(2) Rosenmund reaction
(4) Aldehydes and ketones are incapable of
(3) Hoffmann reaction intermolecular hydrogen bonding with
(4) Cannizzaro’s reaction themselves.
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
15. Which of the following alkenes is most suitable for 19. What is the function of BaSO 4 in Rosenmund
the preparation of butanone by ozonolysis - reaction
(1) To stop further oxidation of aldehyde
(1) (2) (2) To stop further reduction of aldehyde
(3) Act as a poisonous catalyst
(4) It checks the reactivity of Pd.
(3) (4)
20. Which is most difficult to oxidise-
(1) HCHO (2) CH3 CHO
16. Consider the following sequence of reactions
(3) CH 3COCH3 (4) CH 3 CH2CHO
H O+
CH3C º CH ¾¾
3
¾® A ¾1¾
.CH 3MgI
¾¾® B,, 21. The major product obtained from photochemical
Hg 2+ 2.H O 2
chlorination of ethylbenzene (in excess) is
The final product (B) is hydrolyzed with aqueous KOH and the product is
(1) CH3C º CCH3 (2) CH3COCH2CH3 then oxidized with PCC. The final product formed is
(3) CH3 CH2 CHOHCH3 (4) (CH3)3 C – OH (1) PhCH2 CHO (2) PhCOCH3
(3) PhCHO (4) PhCOOH
C º CH ¾D O, H SO
¾2 ¾ 2¾¾4 ® P the principal
17. 22. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by
HgSO
CH3 4
chromyl chloride is called
organic product; where P is: (1) Cannizzaro reaction (2) Wurtz reaction
(3) Etard reaction
COCH2D COCHD 2
(1) (2) (4) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Me Me
23. Compound which gives acetone on ozonolysis
CD2–CHO CH D – C H O (1) CH3–CH = CH–CH3 (2) (CH3)2C = C(CH3)2
(3) (4)
Me Me (3) C6H5CH = CH2 (4) CH3CH = CH2
24. Which of the aldehyde is most reactive ?
18. CH3MgBr + + (1) C6H5 – CHO (2) CH3 CHO
¾¾3¾® A ¾¾¾® B
HO HBr
O (3) HCHO (4) All the equally reactive

¾HCHO
¾¾ ® D, D is: 25. C6 H6 + CO + HCl ¾¾¾ ¾¾
3
® X + HCl ,
Anhy AlCl
Compound X is
¾Mg
¾ /¾ ¾® C
ether
H O+3
(1) C6H5CH3 (2) C6 H5 CH2Cl
(3) C6H5CHO (4) C6H5COOH
(1) (2) CH 2OH 26. The reagent most suitable for converting a primary
H3C CH 2OH CH3 alcohol into an aldehye is -
(1) K2Cr2O7and H2SO4 (2) KMnO4 and NaOH
OH
+
(3) CH3 (4) CH3
(3) NH ClCrO3–, CH2Cl2
CH3 OH
(4) HNO3
NCERT 12.1 to 12.6, 12.17. 12.18
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (3)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (3)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 09 ALDEHYDE AND KETONE C HE M I S T R Y
1. The typical reactions of aldehyde is 8. Which of the following products is formed when
(1) Electrophilic addition benzaldehyde is treated with CH3 MgBr and the
(2) Nucleophilic substitution addition product so obtained is subjected to acid
(3) Nucleophilic addition hydrolysis
(4) Nucleophilic elimination (1) Secondary alcohol (2) A primary alcohol
2. The addition of HCN to carbonyl compounds is an (3) Phenol (4) Tert-Butyl alcohol
example of 9. Aldol condensation will not be observed in
(1) Nucleophilic substitution (1) Chloral (2) Phenyl acetaldehyde
(2) Electrophilic addition (3) Hexanal (4) Ethanal
(3) Nucleophilic addition 10. Which of the following compounds containing
(4) Electrophilic substitution carbonyl group will give coloured crystalline
3. Correct order of reactivity of CH 3 CHO, compound with
NHNH 2
C2H5COCH3 and CH3COCH3 is
(1) CH 3CHO > CH 3COCH 3 > CH 3COC2 H 5
O2 N NO2
(2) C2 H5COCH 3 > CH 3COCH 3 > CH 3CHO
(3) CH 3COCH 3 > CH 3CHO > C2H 5COCH 3 (1) CH 3 COCl (2) CH 3 COCH 3
(4) CH 3COCH 3 > C2 H 5COCH 3 > CH 3CHO
(3) HO(C6 H 4 )COOH (4) CH 3 CONH 2
4. The alkaline CuSO4 containing sodium potassium
tartrate does not react with 11. Which of the following organic compounds
exhibits positive Fehling test as well as
(1) CH 3CHO (2) C2 H5CHO
iodoform test
(3) C6H5CH2CHO (4) C6 H5CHO
(1) Methanal (2) Ethanol
5. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly (3) Propanone (4) Ethanal
matched
12. Ketones react with Mg-Hg over water gives
(1) > C = O ¾¾
Clemenson' s reduction
¾ ¾ ¾¾ ¾¾® > CH 2
(1) Pinacolone (2) Pinacols
(2) > C = O ¾¾ ¾- Kishner
Wolf
¾ ¾¾ reduction
¾¾® > CHOH
(3) Alcohols (4) None of these
(3) - COCl ¾¾Rosenmund' s reduction
¾ ¾ ¾¾ ¾¾® CHO
13. Cannizzaro reaction is not shown by
(4) - C º N ¾¾
Stephen reduction
¾¾¾¾ ¾® CHO
(1) HCHO (2) C6 H 5 CHO
6. Reduction of Aldehydes and Ketones to
hydrocarbon take place in the presence of (3) CH 3CHO (4) All of these
(1) Zn amalgam and HCl acid 14. Which of the following compound will undergo self
aldol condensation in the presence of cold dilute
(2) Pd/BaSO4 (3) Anhydrous AlCl3
alkali
(4) Ni/Pt
(1) C6 H 5 CHO (2) CH 3CH 2CHO
7. Which of the following gives aldol condensation
reaction (3) CH º C - CHO (4) CH 2 = CH - CHO
O 15. Acetaldehyde when treated with dilute NaOH gives
||
(1) C6 H 5 OH (2) C6 H 5 - C - C6 H 5
(1) CH 3 CH 2 OH (2) CH 3 COOH
O O
|| || CH 3 - CH - CH 2 - CHO
(3) CH 3 CH 2 - C - CH 3 (4) (CH 3 )3 C - C - H (3) | (4) CH 3 - CH 3
OH
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
16. C2H5 CHO and (CH3)2CO can be distinguished by 25. A compound A ® C5 H 10 Cl 2 on hydrolysis gives
testing with
which reacts with NH 2 OH , forms
C 5 H 10 O
(1) Phenyl hydrazine (2) Hydroxylamine iodoform but does not give fehling test. A is
(3) Fehling solution (4) Sodium bisulphite
Cl Cl
17. Acetaldehyde cannot show | |
(1) CH 3 - C - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 3 (2) CH 3 CH 2 - C - CH 2 CH 3
| |
(1) Iodoform test (2) Lucas test Cl Cl
(3) Benedict’s test (4) Tollen’s test Cl

| Cl Cl
18. Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate is obtained (3) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH (4) | |
| CH 3 - CH - CH - CH 2 - CH 3
by the action of sodium hydroxide on Cl
benzaldehyde. This reaction is known as

26. CH 3 - CHO + HCN ® A ; A Compound on
(1) Aldol condensation (2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
hydrolysis gives
(3) Sandmeyer’s reaction (4) Claisen condensation
19. Which of the following does not give iodoform test (1) CH3 - CH 2 - COOH (2) CH 3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - NH 2
(1) CH3CH2OH (2) CH3OH CH3 - CH - COOH

(3) CH 3CHO (4) PhCOCH3 (3) CH3 - CO - COOH (4) |
OH
20. Which of the following will not give iodoform test
27. Clemenson's reduction of ketones is carried out in
(1) Ethanal (2) Ethanol
(3) 2-propanone (4) 3-pentanone (1) H2 with Pd catalyst (2) Glycol with KOH
21. Action of hydrazine on aldehydes and ketones (3) LiAlH4 in water (4) Zn – Hg with HCl
gives compound of the general structure 28. Reaction
(1) > C = N - NH 2 (2) > C = N - OH R H2NNH2 R H
C = O ¾ KOH
¾ ¾ ¾¾
/ glycol
® C + N2 + H2
(3) > C = N - NH - CONH 2 (4) > C = N - NH - C6 H 5 R R H
22. Treatment of propionaldehyde with dilute NaOH (1) Wolff-Kishner reaction
solution gives (2) Aldol reaction
(1) CH 3 CH 2 COOCH 2 CH 2 CH 3 (3) Clemenson's reduction
(2) CH 3CH 2CHOHCH(CH 3 )CHO (4) Gattermann koch reaction
(3) CH 3CH 2CHOHCH2CH 2CHO 29. Which gives lactic acid on hydrolysis after
(4) CH 3CH 2COCH 2CH 2CHO reacting with HCN
23. Aldol condensation of acetaldehyde involves the (1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
formation of which of the following intermediate
(3) C6 H 5 CHO (4) CH3COCH 3
(1) Acetate ion (2) A carbanion
(3) A carbonium ion (4) A free radical 30 Clemmenson reduction involves > C = O to > CH2
in presence of
24. CH 3 CH = CHCHO is oxidised to CH 3 CH=
(1) Zn / Hg (2) Alcohol
CHCOOH using-
(3) Zn dust (4) Zn / alcohol
(1) Alkaline KMnO4 (2) Selenium dioxide Home Work:
(3) Ammoniacal AgNO3 (4) All of these NCERT 12.7 to 12.11, 12.13, 12.15, 12.16
ANS WER KEY

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (4)
21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30. (1)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 10 CARBOXYLIC ACID AND It's DERIVATIVES C HE M I S T R Y
1. Hydrolysis of 1,1, 1-trichloro derivative (1) of alkane 8. In the electrolysis of the aqueous solution of
gives a molecule (2) on alkaline hydrolysis which CH 3 CH 2 COONa, anion goes to anode the
produces red coloration with aqueous FeCl3 . The possibility of formation of following compounds
compound (1) is - takes place -
(1) CH3 CH2CCl3 (2) CH3 CCl3 (1) CH3–CH2 –CH2–CH3

(2) CH2 = CH2, CH3 – CH3
(3) CH 3CH(CH3)CCl3 (4) None
(3) CH3 CH2 COOC2 H5
2. Hydrolysis of an ester gives acid A and alcohol B.
The acid reduces Fehling’s solution. Oxidation of (4) All the above
alcohol B gives acid A. The ester is - 9. Which of the following organic acid decolourises
bromine water as well as forms anhydride -
(1) Methyl formate (2) Ethyl formate
(1) HOOC–COOH
(3) Methyl acetate (4) Ethyl acetate
(2) HOOC–CH2 –COOH
3. Increasing pKa of o, m- and p-nitrobenzoic acid is
H–C–COOH
(1) p < m < o (2) o < m < p (3)
H–C–COOH
(3) o < p < m (4) m < p < o
4. Which of the following test is not carried out to H–C–COOH
examine the presence of –COOH groups - (4)
HOOC–C–H
(1) Litmus test (2) Sodium bicarbonate test
10. In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yields a
(3) Ester test (4) Bromine water test
product C -
5. A liquid was mixed with ethanol and a drop of
concentrated H2 SO4 was added. A compound with CH3COOH + PCl5 ® A ¾C¾6 H¾6 ® B ¾C¾2 H¾
5 MgBr
¾¾® C
Anhy .AlCl 3 Ether
a fruity smell was formed. The liquid was :
Product C would be -
(1) CH 3OH (2) HCHO (1) CH3 CH(OH)C2 H5
(3) CH 3COCH3 (4) CH 3COOH (2) CH3COC 6 H5
6. The product A, B, C and D in the reaction (3) CH3 CH(OH)C6 H5
A + B ¬¾ ¾Heat
¾ ¾® C 2H 5
¾¾ H – COOH H 2SO 4 C + D are given
Heat
(4) CH3–C–(OH)C6H5
by the set -
(1) CO, H2O, CO2, H2 (2) CO2, H2O, CO, H2 11.
Re d P
A ¬¾HI
¾¾ CH COOH ¾LiAlH
3 ¾¾ ¾4 ® B. , What is not
(3) CO2, H2, CO, H2O (4) CO, H2 CO2, H2O
true for A and B -
O…..H–O
(1) A is hydrocarbon of general formula CnH2n + 2
7. The monomer of H–C C–H is a -
O–H…..O while B belongs to alcohol
(2) A can be obtained by reducing CH3CH2Cl while
(1) Good reducing agent
B by its hydrolysis
(2) Dehydrating agent
(3) A is alkene while B is alkanal
(3) Dibasic acid
(4) A and B both belongs to different homologous
(4) Less acidic than C2H5COOH series
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
12. Identify Z in the following reaction sequence CH3 I 18. The carboxylic acid that does not undergo HVZ
Cl reaction is -
¾ X ¾Dry
¾Mg
¾® ¾¾® Y ¾¾®
¾2 Z -
Ether ice Re d P (1) CH 3COOH
(1) CH 3COOH (2) CH3MgI (2) (CH3 )2CHCOOH
(3) CH3COCl (4) ClCH2COOH (3) CH3CH2CH2 CH2 COOH
13. In a set of reactions acetic acid yields a product (4) (CH3)3C COOH
[D]. The structure of [D] would be - 19. Consider the following aryl alkyl ketones :
6 6 C H
CH3COOH ¾SOCl ¾¾ ¾ ¾¾®
¾¾ ¾ 2
® [A] Anhy . AlCl3
O O
C–CH 3 C–CH3
[B] ¾HCN
¾¾® [C] ¾¾¾® [D]
HOH I. II.
H3CO H3C
OH CN
(1) C 6H5CH 2–C–CH3 (2) C 6H5–C–CH3 O

O
CN OH C–CH3
C–CH3
OH COOH
III. O2N IV. CH3
CH
CH3
(3) C6H5–C–COOH (4) C6H5–CH2–C–CH3
Friedel-Craft’s acylation can be used to obtain.
CH 3 OH
(1) II, III and IV (2) I, III and IV
14. Rate of the reaction :
(3) I, II and IV (4) I, II and III
O O 20. An optically active compounds (X) reacts with
R–C + Nu ® R – C
–
+Z – phenyl hydrazine to form phenylhydrazone
Z Nu derivative. The compound X, gives a yellow
is fastest when Z is : precipitate of iodoform with I 2 and NaOH. The
compound X is -
(1) OCOCH3 (2) NH2
(3) OC 2H5 (4) Cl (1) CH3CH2CCH2CH3
O
15. The end product in the following series of reactions is
CH3COOH ¾¾¾® (1) ¾¾

NH 3
¾® (2) ¾¾
Heat
¾® (3)
P2 O 5 (2) CH3CCH2CH– CH3
O CH3
(1) CH4 (2) CH 3OH
(3) acetonitrile (4) ammonium acetate (3) CH3C CH – CH2CH3
16. The compound which on reduction with LiAlH4 O CH3
gives two same alcohols -
(4) CH3CH – CCH3
(1) CH 3COOCH3 (2) CH3COOC2 H5
CH3 O
(3) CH 3COCH3 (4) CH3 CHO
21. The appropriate reagent for the transformation -
Br2 O
17. CH 3 CH 2 COOH ¾Re¾®
¾ X
dP ¾¾ ¾ ¾® Y, Y in the
NH 3 ( alc.)
CH3 CH2CH3
above reaction is-
HO HO
(1) Lactic acid (2) Ethylamine
(1) Zn(Hg), HCl (2) NH2 NH2 , OH–
(3) Propylamine (4) Alanine (3) H2/Ni (4) NaBH 4
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
22. In the reaction sequence : 30. Which one of the following reacts with Grignard
NaCN/HCl
Å
H 2O/H /D reagent to form an addition product which can be
C6H5CHO [X] Product
Product will be - hydrolysed to a carboxylic acid?
(1) O2 (2) CO2 (3) SO2 (4) None
(1) Optically inactive acid
31. A halogen compound ‘A’ on hydrolysis with dilute
(2) Optically inactive a-hydroxy acid
alkali followed by acidification gives acetic acid.
(3) Racemic mixture of two optically active a- The compound X is -
hydroxy acids
(1) ClCH2CH2Cl (2) CH3CHCl 2
(4) Racemic mixutre of two optically active secondary
(3) ClCH2CHCl 2 (4) CH3 CCl3
alcohols
32. Which of the following is the best representation of
23. How many aldols will be formed by CH3CHO and
the structure of the carboxylate ion -
CH3–CH2 – CHO –
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1 d+ d–
O
d+
O
O
24. In the reaction’ CH3COCH3 + SeO2 ® P + Se + H2O (1) R–C (2) R–C (3) R–C (4) None
the product (P) is - O O
d–
O
d+
d–
(1) CH 3COOCH3 (2) CH3 COOCH2 OH
33. Which of the following compounds does not have
(3) CH 3COCHO (4) CH3OCOOCH3
a carboxyl group -
25. Aldol condensation, between which of the following
(1) Methanoic acid (2) Ethanoic acid
compounds followed by dehydration gives methyl
vinyl ketone ? (3) Picric acid (4) Benzoic acid
34. Hydrolysis of an ester gives acid A and alcohol
(1) Formaldehyde and acetone
B.The acid reduces Fehling’s solution. Oxidation
(2) Formaldehyde and acetaldehyde
of alcohol B gives acid A. The ester is -
(3) Two molecules of acetaldehyde (1) Methyl formate (2) Ethyl formate
(4) Two molecules of acetone. (3) Methyl acetate (4) Ethyl acetate
26. Which of the following products is formed when 35. Which one of the following on oxidation will not
adipic acid is heated - give a carboxylic acid with the same number of
CH2– CH2 CH2– CH2 carbon atoms
(1) O (2) C=O
CH2– CH2 CH2– CH2 (1) CH 3COCH3 (2) CCl3.CH2 CHO
CH2– CH2CO CH2– CH2COOH (3) CH3 CH2 CH2 OH (4) CH 3 CH2CHO
(3) O (4)
CH2– CH2CO CH2– CH2COOH 36. When malonic acid is heated, it gives -
27. Malonic acid and succinic acid are distinguished by (1) Formic acid (2) Oxalic acid
(1) Heating (2) NaHCO3 (3) Acetic anhydride (4) Acetic acid
(3) Both A& B (4) None of these 37. The acid D obtained through the following sequence
of reactions is -
28. Identify Z in the sequence
+
Br KCN H 3O
¾ ¾¾® A ¾¾2 ® B ¾¾¾® C ¾¾
C2H5Br ¾Alc .KOH
¾® Y ¾H¾2 O¾
(i ) heat (H ) +
¾®
CH3COONH4 ¾(ii¾
)P O
¾® Z - CCl 4 ( excess )
2 5
(1) CH3 CH2CONH2 (2) CH3CN (1) Succinic acid (2) Malonic acid
(3) CH 3COOH (4) (CH3CO)2 O (3) Maleic acid (4) Oxalic acid
29. When oxalic acid is heated, which one of the 38. In the following reactions -
following is formed along with CO2 – CO ,D
¾¾¾® A (ii) CH = CH + CO +
(i) CH3CH2ONa under pressure 2 2
(1) Acetic acid (2) Glyceric acid
H PO 4
(3) Formic acid (4) None of these H2O ¾¾3 ¾
¾® B ; A and B respectively are :
under pressure
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
(1) CH3CH2 COOH in both cases (2) Replacement of a-hydrogen
(2) CH3CH2CHO in both cases (3) Replacement of b-carbons
(3) CH 3CH2COOH, CH 3CHO (4) Replacement of a-carbons
(4) CH3CHO, CH3COOH 45. A compound with molecular formula C4H10 O4 on
39. Phenol is a weaker acid than acetic acid because- acylation with acetic anhydride gives a compound
with molecular formula C 12 H 18 O 8 . How many
(1) Phenoxide ion is better stabilized by resonance
hydroxyl groups are present in the compound -
than acetate ion
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
(2) Acetate ion is better stabilized by resonance
than phenoxide ion 46. On mixing ethyl acetate with aqueous sodium
chloride, the composition of the resultant solution is
(3) Phenol is less soluble in water than acetic acid
(1) CH3Cl + C2H5COONa
(4) Both phenoxide ion and acetate ion are equally
stable (2) CH3 COONa + C2H5OH
40. Which of the following dicarboxylic acids contains (3) CH3COCl + C2H5OH + NaOH
the most acidic hydrogen ? (4) CH3COOC2H5 + NaCl
(1) Maleic acid (2) Fumaric acid 47. The product of acid hydrolysis of P and Q can be
(3) Succinic acid (4) Malonic acid distinguished by :
41. Which of the following lacks chirality - OCOCH3 H3C
P = H2C= Q=
(1) 2-Hydroxy propanoic acid CH3 OCOCH3
(2) 2-Aminopropanoic acid (1) Lucas reagent (2) 2,4-DNP
(3) 2,3-Butene-dioic acid (3) Fehling’s solution (4) NaHSO3
(4) 2,3-Dihydroxy butanoic acid 48. Consider the following sequence of reactions :
OH–
42. (CH 3 ) 2 C = CHCOCH 3 can be oxidised to X Y + CH 3CH 2COO –
(C11H14O 2)
(CH3)2C = CHCOOH by - 1. KMnO 4/OH–
(1) Chromic acid (2) NaOI 2. H3O+
(3) Cu at 300 ºC (4) KMnO4 COOH

CH3
Re d P
43. CH3–C–COOH + Br2 ¾¾D¾® [ Product ] The product COOH
CH3
of the above reaction is - The compound ‘X’ is -
O
(1) b-Dibromo acid O
(1) (2) O
(2) b,b’ - Dibromo acid O
(3) b,b’,b’’-Tribromo acid O

O
(4) No reaction takes place (3) O (4) O
44. HVZ reaction is specific for -
NCERT : 12.12, 12.14, 12.19, 12.20
(1) Replacement of b-hydrogen
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30. (2)
31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (1) 36. (4) 37. (1) 38. (1) 39. (2) 40. (1)
41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (2)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 11 NITROGEN CONTAINING COMPOUNDS (AMINES) C HE M I S T R Y
1. Which of the following is 1° amine 9. Which of the following reactions does not yield an
(1) Ethylene diamine (2) Dimethyl amine amine
Na
(1) RX + NH3 ¾¾® (2) RCH = NOH + [H ] ¾¾
¾®
(3) Trimethyl amine (4) N-methyl aniline C 2 H 5 OH
2. Allyl isocyanide has (3) RCN + H 2O ¾¾

H
¾®
+
(4) LiAlH 4
RCONH 2 + 4 H ¾¾ ¾¾®
(1) 9 sigma bonds and 4 pi bonds 10. Which of the following is converted into an alcohol
(2) 8 sigma bonds and 5 pi bonds on treatment with HNO2
(3) 8 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds and 4 non-bonding (1) Methyl amine (2) Aniline
electrons (3) Dimethyl amine (4) Triethyl amine
(4) 9 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds and 2 non-bonding 11. Which of the following gives RNC, when reacted
electrons with CHCl3 and KOH
3. Acetamide is treated separately with the following (1) RNH2 (2) R2NH (3) R3 N (4) R4N+Cl–
reagents. Which would give methyl amine
12. When aniline reacts with NaNO 2 and dil. HCl at
(1) PCl5 (2) NaOH + Br2 0° – 5°C, the product formed is
(3) Sodalime (4) Hot conc. H2SO4 (1) Nitroaniline
4. Na + C 2 H 5 OH
CH 3 CN ¾¾¾ ¾ ¾
¾® X ; The compound X is (2) Benzene diazonium chloride
(3) Benzene (4) Trinitroaniline
(1) CH 3CONH 2 (2) CH 3CH 2 NH 2
13. In the reaction PCl 5
CH 3COOH ¾¾ NH 3
¾®( A) ¾¾ NaBrO
¾®(B) ¾¾ ¾¾®(C).
(3) C2H 6 (4) CH 3 NHCH 3
the final product (3) is
5. Acetanilide can be prepared from aniline and which
of the following (1) Ammonium acetate (2) Acetamide
(1) Ethanol (2) Acetaldehyde (3) Amino methane (4) Ethanal
(3) Acetone (4) Acetic anhydride 14. In the following reaction, X is
6. The Hinsberg’s method is used for Bromination

X ¾¾ ¾¾¾® Y ¾¾NaNO2 + HCl
¾¾¾ Boiling
¾® Z ¾¾ ¾ ¾® Tribromobenzene
C2 H5OH
(1) Preparation of primary amines
(1) Benzoic acid (2) Salicylic acid
(2) Preparation of secondary amines
(3) Phenol (4) Aniline
(3) Preparation of tertiary amines
15. Which of the following reactions will not give
(4) Separation of amine mixtures primary amine
7. Which one of the following compound gives a (1) KOH . Br2
CH 3CONH 2 ¾¾ ¾¾ ¾® (2) LiAlH4
CH3CN ¾¾ ¾¾®
secondary amine on reduction
(3) LiAlH
CH 3 NC ¾¾ ¾¾
4
® (4) CH3CONH2 ¾¾¾¾
4
®
LiAlH
(1) Nitromethane (2) Nitrobenzene

16. The reaction
(3) Methyl isocyanide (4) Methyl cyanide
C6 H5 NH 2 + CHCl3 + 3 KOH ® C6 H 5 NC + 3 KCl + 2 H 2O
8. In the reaction
is known as
O (1) Carbylamine reaction
||
H 3O
R - C - OH ¬¾
+
[H]
¾ ¾ X ¾¾¾® RCH 2 NH 2 ;
‘X’ is
(2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(1) Isonitrile (2) Nitrile (3) Kolbe reaction
(3) Nitrite (4) Oxime (4) Hofmann’s degradation
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
17. Which of the following compound is the strongest 25. Primary amines can be distinguished from
base secondary and tertiary amines by reacting with
(1) Ammonia (2) Aniline (1) Chloroform and alcoholic KOH
(3) Methylamine (4) N-methyl aniline (2) Methyl iodide
(3) Chloroform alone
Å
N2 (4) Zinc dust
26. Identify the product Z in the series
18. C uCN
¾¾¾
¾® Product ; The product is Na + C H OH HNO K Cr O
CH 3 CN ¾¾ ¾2¾5¾
¾® X ¾¾ ¾
¾2
® Y ¾¾2 ¾2 ¾
¾
7
®Z
CH 3 H 2SO 4
(1) CH 3CHO (2) CH 3CONH 2
NH 2 CN NH 2
(3) CH 3COOH (4) CH 3CH 2 NHOH
CN
(1) (2) (3) (4) 27. The end product of the reactions is
HNO2 PCl 5 H . NH 2
CH 3 CH 3 C2 H 5 NH 2 ¾¾ ¾
¾® A ¾¾ ¾® B ¾¾ ¾¾® C
(1) Ethyl cyanide (2) Ethyl amine

19. Ethyl amine on heating with CS 2 in presence of
(3) Methyl amine (4) Acetamide
HgCl 2 forms
28. Correct order of increasing basicity is
(1) C 2 H 5 NCS (2) (C2 H 5 ) 2 S (1) NH3 < C6 H5 NH2 < (C2H5 )2 NH < C2H5 NH2 < (C2H5 )3 N
(3) (C2 H 5 ) 2 CS (4) C 2 H 5 (CS) 2 (2) C6H5 NH2 < NH3 < (C2H5 )3 N < (C2H5 )2 NH < C2H5 NH2
20. Which of the following reacts with NaNO 2 + HCl to give (3) C6H5 NH2 < NH3 < C2H5 NH2 < (C2H5)3 N < (C2H5)2 NH
phenol (4) C6 H5 NH2 < (C2H5 )3 N < NH3 < C2H5 NH2 < (C2H5 )2 NH
(1) C6 H 5 CH 2 NHCH 3 (2) (CH 3 ) 2 NH 29. Aniline on treatment with excess of bromine water gives
(1) Aniline bromide (2) o-bromoaniline
(3) CH 3 NH 2 (4) C6 H 5 NH 2
(3) p-bromoaniline (4) 2, 4, 6-tribromoaniline
21. Sn+ HCl
CH 3 NO 2 ¾¾ ¾¾® CH 3 X , the ‘X’ contain 30. Which one is least basic
(1) - NH 2 (2) - COOH (1) NO 2 NH 2 (2) CH 3 O NH 2
(3) - CHO (4) (CH 3 CO) 2 O (3) C6 H 5 NH 2 (4) All of these

22. Azo-dyes are prepared from : 31. Which statement is not correct
(1) Aniline (2) Salicylic acid (1) Amines form hydrogen bond
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Chlorobenzene (2) Ethyl amine has higher boiling point than propane
23. Gabriel’s phthalimide synthesis is used for the (3) Methyl amine is more basic than ammonia
preparation of (4) Dimethyl amine is less basic than methyl amine
(1) Primary aromatic amine 32. In the diazotisation of aniline with sodium nitrite
(2) Secondary amine and hydrochloric acid, an excess of hydrochloric
(3) Primary aliphatic amine acid is used primarily to
(4) Tertiary amine (1) Suppress the concentration of free aniline

available for coupling
24. Aniline when treated with HNO2 and HCl at 0o C gives (2) Suppress hydrolysis of phenol
(1) Phenol (2) Nitrobenzene (3) Insure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid
(3) A diazo compound (4) None of these (4) Neutralize the base liberated
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
33. Product obtained by electrolytic reduction of 37. RNH 2 reacts with C6 H 5 SO 2 Cl in aqueous KOH to
nitrobenzene in presence of H 2 SO4 is give a clear solution. On acidification a precipitate
is obtained which is due to the formation of
(1) o-amino phenol (2) m-amino phenol
(3) p-amino phenol (4) None of these H
|
34. Identify the product Z in the following reaction (1) R - N + - SO2C6 H5OH -
|
( AC )2 O
C 6 H 5 NH 2 ¾¾ ¾¾® X ¾¾
Br2 / CCl 4
¾¾ HOH
¾® Y ¾¾ ¾® Z H
(1) p-Bromoaniline
(2) R - N - SO2C6 H5 K +
(2) p -Bromoacetophenone
(3) R - NHSO2C6 H 5
(3) o-Bromoacetophenone
(4) o-Bromoacetonilide (4) C6 H 5 SO2 NH 2
35. Azo dye is prepared by the coupling of phenol and 38. Which of the following is the strongest base ?
(1) Diazonium chloride (2) o-nitro aniline
NH 2
(3) Benzoic acid (4) Chlorobenzene (1) (2) NHCH 3
CH 3
H O / H+
36. NaNO HCl
C6 H5 NH2 ¾¾¾2¾¾® X ¾¾2¾¾
¾2 Cu (CN)
® Y ¾¾2¾¾
¾® Z
(3) NH 2 (4) CH 2 NH 2
Z is identified as :
(1) C6 H 5 - NH - CH 3 (2) C6 H 5 - COOH Home work:
NCERT 13.1 to 13.14
(3) C6 H5 - CH 2 - NH 2 (4) C6 H5 - CH 2 - COOH
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (4)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (4) 30. (1)
31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (1) 36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (4)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 12 BIOMOLECULES C HE M I S T R Y
1. Sucrose (can sugar) is disacharide. One molecule 4. In disaccharides, if the reducing ground of
of sucrose on hydrolysis gives ... monosaccharides, i.e., aldehydic or ketonic groups are
(1) 2-molecules of glucose bonded, these are non-reducing sugars. Which of the
(2) 2 molecules of glucose + 1 molecule of fructose following disaccharide is a non reducing sugar ?
(3) 1 molecules of glucose + 1 molecule of fructose CH2OH CH2OH
(4) 2 molecules of fructose O O
H H H H H H
2. Which of the following pairs represents anomers?
(1) OH H O OH H OH
HO
CHO CHO
H OH H OH
H OH HO H
HO H HO H CH2OH
H OH H OH O O
H HOH2 C H
(1) H H
H OH H OH (2)
OH H O H OH CH OH
HO 2
CH2OH CH2OH
H OH OH H
CHO CHO CH2OH CH2OH

H OH HO H O O
HO HO H OH
H
HO H H OH O
H OH HO H (3) H OH H H OH H H
(2)
H OH HO H H OH H OH
CH2OH CH2OH
CH 2OH CH 2OH
O O
H HO H OH
H
O
H OH HO H (4) HO OH H H OH H H
H OH H OH
H OH H OH
HO H O HO H O
(3) H OH H OH 5. Which of the following acid is a vitamin ?
H H (1) Aspartic acid (2) Ascorbic acid
CH2OH CH2OH (3) Adipic acid (4) Saccharic acid
6. Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides
together by phosphodiester linkage between which
H OH HO H carbon atoms of pentose sugars of nucleotides are
H OH HO H
HO H O these linkages present ?
H OH O
(4) H OH HO H (1) 5' and 3' (2) 1' and 5'
H H (3) 5' and 5' (4) 3' and 3'
CH2OH CH2OH 7. Nucleic acids are the polymers of ......
3. Proteins are found to have two different type of (1) Nucleosides (2) Nucleotides
secondary structures viz. a-helix and b-pleated (3) Bases (4) Sugars
sheet structure. a-Helix structure of protein is 8. Which of the following statements is not true about
established by glucose ?
(1) Peptide bonds (1) It is an aldohexose
(2) van der Waals forces (2) On heating with HI it forms n-hexane
(3) Hydrogen bonds (3) It is present in furanose form
(4) Dipole-diple interactions (4) It does not give 2, 4-DNP test.
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
9. Each polypeptide in a protein has amino acids linked 16. Hydrolysis of sucrose is called
with each other in a speci fic sequence. This (1) Inversion (2) Esterification
sequence of amino acids is said to be .... (3) Hydration (4) Saponification
(1) Primary structure of proteins 17. The tripeptide is written as glycine-Alanine glycine.
The correct structure of the tripeptide is
(2) Secondary structure of proteins O CH 3 CH3 O CH 3
H H
N N
(3) Tertiary structure of proteins (1) H2N N
H COOH (2) H2N N
H COOH
O O
(4) Quaternary structure of proteins H
O
H
O CH 3
N N
10. DNA and RNA contain four bases each. Which of (3) H2N N
H COOH (4) H2N N
H COOH
O CH 3 O CH 3
the following bases is not present in RNA?

18. Secondary structure of proteins refers to
(1) Adenine (2) Uracil (1) Mainly denatured proteins and the structure of
(3) Thymine (4) Cytosine the prosthetic group
11. Which of the following compounds be detected by (2) Three dimensional structure, especially between
Molisch's test ? amino acid residue that are distant from each
other in the polypeptide chain
(1) Sugars (2) Amines
(3) Linear strucutre of amino acid residues in the
(3) Primary alcohols (4) Nitro compounds polypeptide chain
12. Glucose does not react with :- (4) Regular folding patterns of continuous portions
(1) NH2OH (2) NaHSO3 of the polypeptide chain
19. Biuret test is not given by
(3) C6H5NHNH2 (4) HCN
(1) Urea (2) Proteins
13. a-D(+)-glucose and b-D(+)-glucose are :-
(3) Carbohydrates (4) Polypeptides
(1) enantiomers (2) Conformers
20. The deficiency of vitamin C causes :-
(3) epimers (4) Anomers (1) Scurvy (2) Rickets
14. The beta and alph glucose have different specifie (3) Pyrrohea (4) Pernicious anaemia
rotations. When either is dissolved in water, their 21. The vitamin which is neither soluble in water nor
rotation changes until the same fixed value results. in fat is
This is called (1) biotin (2) phylloquinone
(1) Epimerization (2) Racemisation (3) Thiamine (4) Ergocalciferol
(3) Anomerisation (4) Mutarotation 22. In the following structure,
15. Which of the following hexoses will form the same HOCH2
osazone when treated with excess phenyl O OH
OH
hydrazine ? 4 1
2
(1) D-glucose, D-fructose and D-galactose HO 3
(2) D-glucose, D-fructose and D-mannose OH
Anomeric carbon is
(3) D-glucose, D-mannose and D-galactose
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(4) D-fructose, D-mannose and D-galactose Home Work NCERT : 14.1 to 14.22
ANS WER KEY

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (1)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 13 POLYMER C HE M I S T R Y
1. [ NH(CH2)6NHCO(CH2)4CO ]n is a : 10. Which of the following is biodegradable polymer

(1) homopolymer (2) copolymer of polyamide class ?
(3) addition polymer (4) thermosetting polymer (1) Dextron (2) Nylon-2-nylon-6
2. Which of the following is a linear polymer :- (3) Nylon-6, 6 (4) PHBV
(1) Nylon 11. Which of the following is not a semisynthetic

polymer ?
(2) Bakelite
(1) cis-polyisoprene (2) Cellulose nitrate
(3) PVC
(3) Cellulose acetate (4) Vulcanised rubber
(4) Melamine formaldehyde polymer
12. The commerical name of polyacrylonitrile is .....
3. Which of the following is a branched polymer?
(1) Dacron (2) Orlon (acrilan)
(1) Low density (2) Polyester
(3) PVC (4) Bakelite
(3) Nylon (4) PVC
13. Which of the following polymer is biodegradable?
4. Which of the following is not a thermoplastic?
(1) ( CH2–C = CH —CH 2 )n
(1) Polythene (2) Bakelite
Cl
(3) PVC (4) Teflon CN
5. Which of the following is a step-growth polymer ? (2) ( CH2–CH = CH —CH2 –CH 2– CH )
(1) Polyacrylonitrile (2) Polyisoprene
(3) ( O – CH – CH2–C – O – CH–CH2–C )
(3) Nylon (4) Polythene
CH3 O CH2CH3 O
6. Which is not a condensation polymer ?
(1) Nylon-6, 6 H H O O
(2) Glyptal (4) N – (CH2)6 – N – C – (CH2)4–C n
(3) dacron CH3 CH3
(4) PTFE (Polytetrafluoroethene 14. ( CH2–C –CH 2–C )n
7. Given the polymers : A = Nylon; B = Buna-S; C = CH3 CH3
Polythene. Arrange these in increasing order of their Is a polymer having monomer units ......
intermolecular forces (lower to higher)
(1) (2)
(1) A > B > C (2) B > C > A
H
(3) B < C < A (4) C < A < B
(3) (4)
8. Natural rubber is a polymer of H
15. Which of the following polymer can be formed by
(1) Butadiene (2) ethylene
using the following monomer unit ?
(3) isoprene (4) neoprene H
9. Bakelite is a polymer of N O
(1) Benzaldehyde and phenol H2C C
H2C CH2
(2) Formaldehyde and phenol
H2C CH2
(3) Formaldehyde and benzyl alcohol (1) Nylon 6, 6 (2) Nylon 2-nuylon-6
(4) Acetaldehyde and phenol (3) Melamine polymer (4) Nylon-6
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
16. The catalyst used for olefin polymerization is:- 25. Which one of the following statements is not true ?
(1) Ziegler-Natta catalyst (1) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and styrene
(2) Wilkinson catalyst (2) Natural rubber is a 1, 4-polymer of isoprene
(3) Raney nickel catalyst (3) In vulcanization, the formation of sulphur

bridges between different chains makes rubber
(4) Modified resin harder and stronger
17. Which of the following polymers is prepared by (4) Natural rubber has the trans-configuration at
condensation polymerization ? every double bond
(1) Styrene (2) Nylon-6, 6 26. Which of the following st ructure represents
(3) Teflon (4) Rubber Neoprene polymer ?
18. Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene (1) —CH—CH

( 2—
)n
glycol and C 6H 5
(1) Benzoic acid (2) Phthalic acid (2) —CH
( 2—C = CH—CH2—
)n
(3) Terephthalic acid (4) Salicylic acid Cl
19. The monomers of buna-S rubber are :-
CN
(1) Vinyl chloride and sulphur (3) —CH
( 2 —CH—
)n
(2) Butadiene
Cl
(3) Styrene and butadiene
(4) —CH
( )n
2—CH—
(4) Isoprene and butadiene
27. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of
20. Which of the following is a fully flourinated
(1) H2C = CH — CH = CH2 and C6H5CH = CH2
polymer ?
(2) H2C = CH — CN and H2C = CH–CH = CH2
(1) Neoprene (2) Teflon
(3) H2C = CH—CN and H2C = CH — C = CH2
(3) Thiokol (4) PVC
CH3
21. Which of the following is a monomer of PAN? Cl
(1) CH2 = CHF (2) CH2 = CCl2
(4) H2C = CH — C = CH2 and
(3) CH2 = CHCl (4) CH2 = CH—CN
H2C = CH–CH = CH2
22. The polymer used in the manufacture of orlon is :-
28. Structures of some common polymers are given.
(1) PTFE (2) PAN Which one is not correctly represented?
(3) PMMA (4) PVC
(1) Neoprene —CH2–C = CH – CH2–CH2—
23. Which of the following is a polyamide ?
Cl n
(1) Teflon (2) Nylon-66
(3) Terylen (4) Bakelite
(2) Terylene OC COOCH 2CH2—O—
24. Which of the following is false ? n
(1) Artificial silk is derived from cellulose (3) Nylon 66—[ NH(CH2)6NHCO(CH 2)4—CO—)n
(2) Nylon-6, 6 is an example of elastomer (4) Teflon —( CF2—CF2—)n
(3) The repeat unit in natural rubber is isoprene 29. Which polymers occur naturally ?
(4) Both starch and cellulose are polymers of (1) Starch and Nylon (2) Starch and Cellulose
glucose (3) Proteins and Nylon (4) Proteins and PVC
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
30. Which one of the following sets forms the (3) 60ºC
biodegradable polymer ? (4) Lower than 60ºC
(1) HO—CH 2—CH 2—OH and 32. Which of the following has PDI - 1 ?
(1) Decron
HOOC COOH
(2) Cellulose
(3) SBR
(4) PVC
(2) CH = CH2 and
33. Which addition substance is used in increasing the
rate of vulcanisation reaction ?
CH2 = CH–CH = CH2
(1) Calcium oxide
(3) CH2 = CH – CN and CH2 = CH—CH = CH2
(2) Zinc oxide
(4) H2N — CH2– COOH and
(3) Copper oxide
H2N —(CH2)5—COOH
(4) Lead oxide
31. At which temperature natural rubber becomes soft
Home work:
(1) Higher than 62ºC
NCERT : 15.1 to 15.20
(2) Between 10ºC and 60ºC
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (2)
21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30. (4)
31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (2)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 14 CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE C HE M I S T R Y
1. Which of the following is not a broad spectrum 11. The following compound is used as
antibiotic
(1) Tetracycline (2) Chloromycetin
(3) Penicillin (4) None of these
2. 2-Acetoxy benzoic acid is used as an (1) An anti-inflammatory compound
(1) Antimalarial (2) Antidepressant (2) Analgesic
(3) Antiseptic (4) Antipyretic (3) Hypnotic
3. Which of the following is used as an antibiotic (4) Antiseptic
(1) Ciprofloxacin (2) Paracetamol 12. Arsenic drugs are mainly used in the treatment of
(3) Ibuprofen (4) Tocopherol (1) Jaundice (2) Typhoid
(3) Syphilis (4) Cholera
4. When salicyclic acid is treated with acetic anhydride
weget 13. An anti-pyretic is
(1) Quinine (2) Paracetamol
(1) Aspirin (2) Paracetamol
(3) Luminal (4) Piperazine
(3) Salol (4) chloramphenicol
14. The drug used as an anti-depressant is
5. Amoxillin is semi-synthetic modification of
(1) Luminol (2) Phenelzine
(1) Penicillin (2) Streptomycin (3) Mescaline (4) Sulphadiazine
(3) Tetracycline (4) Chloroampheniol
15. Antiseptic chloroxylenol is
6. Which of the following is an anti-diabatic drug (1) 4-chloro-3,5-dimethylphenol
(1) Insulin (2) Penicillin (2) 3-chloro-4,5-dimethylphenol
(3) Chloroquine (4) Aspirin (3) 4-ehloro-2,5-dimethylphenol
7. Which of these is a hypnotic (4) 5-chloro-3,4-dimethylphenol
(1) Metaldehyde (2) Acetaldehyde 16. Which of the following is an insecticide
(3) Paraldehyde (4) lorthoaidehyde (1) Bakelite (2) TNT
8. The correct structure of the drug paracetamol is (3) BHC (4) Aspirin
17. Which of the following drugs is an antifertility drug
(1) Sulphaguanidine (2) Paludrin
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) Norethindron (4) Birthionol
18. Aspirin is
(1) Antibiotic (2) Antipyretic
(3) Sedative (4) Psychedelic
9. An ester used as medicine is
19. A medicine which promotes the secretion of urine
(1) Ethylacetate (2) Methyl acetate
is called
(3) Methyl salicylate (4) Ethyl benzoate
(1) Uretic (2) Monouretic
10. The use of chemicals for treatment of diseases is (3) Diuretic (4) Triuretic
called as
20. An example of a psychedelic agent is
(1) Homoeotherapy (2) Isothermotherapy (1) DNA (2) LSD
(3) Angiotherapy (4) Chemotherapy (3) DDT (4) TNT
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
21. An antibiotic with abroad spectrum 33. Which of the following can be used as an
(1) Kills the antibodies bacteriocidal ?
(2) Acts on a specific antigen (1) Paracetamol (2) Penicillin
(3) Acts on different antigens (3) Chloramphenicol (4) Streptomycin
(4) Acts on both the antigens and antibodies 34. Vernol, a barbituric drug is used as a
22. Which of the following is not a narcotic- (1) Anaesthetic (2) Sedative
(1) Codeine (2) Brown Sugar (3) Antiseptic (4) Antipyretic
(3) Diclofenac (4) Morphine 35. Which of the following is a hypnotic drug
23. Which of the following medicine is required for (1) Catechol (2) Luminal
malaria- (3) Phenol (4) Tincture iodine
(1) Aspirin (2) Penicillin 36. Morphine is used then as an
(3) Chloroquine (4) Paracetamol
(1) Antipyretic (2) Antiseptic
24. Streptomycin is an example of (3) Analgesic (4) Insecticide
(1) Antibiotic (2) An algesic 37. A substance which can act both as an analgesic
(3) Antipyretic (4) Anaesthetic
and antipyretic is
25. Which of the following is not a narcotic drug
(1) Quinine (2) Aspirin
(1) Opium (2) Heroin (3) Penicillin (4) Insulin
(3) Pethidine (4) Bithional
38. Drug which do nto bind to the active site but bind
26. Chloroxylenol is an important component of to a different site ? What is such site called?
(1) Soap (2) Antibiotics (1) In activesite (2) Locktic site
(3) Dettol (4) Painkillingointments (3) Reactive site (4) Allostic site
27. Which of the following is an antidepressants
39. Which drug is not for acidity?
(1) Chloroxylenol (2) Bithional
(1) Omperazole (2) Lansoprazole
(3) Cocaine (4) PenicilIin-G
(3) Lysol (4) Al[(OH)]3
28. Which one is abroad spectrum antibiotic
40. Which drug is not analgesic ?
(1) Chloremphen icol (2) Penicillin
(1) Equanil (2) Ibuprofen
(3) Paracetamol (4) Ampicillin
(3) Naproxin (4) Diclogenac sodium
29. The drug used for treatment of typhoid is
41. Which of the following is antipyretic ?
(1) Chloromycetin (2) Novalgin
(1) Ranitidine (2) Tarcey
(3) Paracetamol (4) Quinine
(3) Terpineol (4) Chloroform
30. Halinin is an
42. What is the drug called which binds to receptor site
(1) Antibiotic (2) Antipyretic
and stop communication process of cell ?
(3) Hormone (4) Vitamin
(1) Antagonists (2) Agonists
31. Sulpha drugs are derivatives of
(3) Pigonists (4) Logistic
(1) Benzene sulphonic acid
43. Which of the following is a non-narcotic analgesic?
(2) Sulphanilicacid
(1) Ofloxacin (2) meprombamate
(3) Sulphanilamide
(4) P-Aminobenzenzoicacid (3) amytal (4) Aspirin
32. Which of the following can bring down the body 44. Which of the following substances may be sued as
temperature antiseptic as well as disinfectant ?
(1) Aspirin (2) Chloroquine (1) Formaldehyde (2) Chlorine
(3) Penicillin (4) Quinine (3) KMnO4 (4) Phenol
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
45. Which of the following analgesics is not habit- 55. Which of the following diseases is caused by
forming ? protozoas?
(1) Morphine (2) Aspirin (1) Tuberculosis (2) Pneumonia
(3) Codein (4) Heroin (3) Diphtheria (4) Malaria
46. Which of the following statements is not correct ? 56. Which of the following diseases is not caused by
(1) Antipyretics are substances which are used to protozoas?
reduce the body temperature (1) Malaria (2) Dysentery
(2) Analgesics are substance which are used to (3) Smallpox (4) Syphilis
relieve pain 57. Which of the following is viruses born disease ?
(3) Antiseptics and disinfectants can be used for (1) Pneumonia (2) Malaria
the same purposes (3) Diphtheria (4) Influenza
(4) Antiseptics can be safely applied on living 58. The drug used to cure tubecrculosis is
beings whereas disinfectants are not safe to
(1) Quinine
apply.
(2) Piperazine
47. Which of the following commonly used as
disinfectant ? (3) Sulphanilamide
(1) Acriflavin (2) Mercurochrome (4) Para-aminosalicylic acid
(3) Tincture of iodine (4) Phenol 59. The drug used for the treatment of throat infection
48. Which is used as a disinfectants drugs ? is
(1) Paracetamol (2) Soframycin (1) Quinine
(3) Lysol (4) Streptomycin (2) Piperazine
49. Dettol is a mixture of (3) Sulpha drug like sulphanilamide
(4) Isonicatin hydrazide
(1) Chloroxylenol and terpeneol in suitbable solvent
60. Which of the following is not ranquilizer ?
(2) Fromaldehyde and phenol in the sovlent water
(1) Luminal (2) Veronal
(3) Tincture of iodine and chloroform
(3) Reserpine (4) Piperazine
(4) KMnO4 and iodoform
61. Which of the following not ture for reserpine ?
50. Which of the following is a general anaesthetics ?
(1) Reserpine is an alkaloid
(1) Procaine (2) Cocainc
(3) Nitrousoxide (4) Xylocaine (2) Reserpine is also known as serpasil
51. Which of the follwoing is not a local anaesthetic ? (3) Reserpine is obtained from the plant raowolfia
serpentina
(1) Diethylether (2) Cocaine
(3) Procaine (4) Xylocaine (4) Reserpine is not a tranquilizer
52. The anaesthetic which is administered by injection 62. Which of the following used for lowering blood
is pressure ?
(1) diethyl ether (2) divinylether (1) Reserpine (2) Morphine
(3) liquidnitrous oxide (4) Morphine (3) Diethylether (4) Cocaine
53. Which of the following diseases is not caused by 63. Which of the following antibiotics is used to cure
bacteria? typhoid ?
(1) Pneoumonia (2) Dysentery (1) Penicillin (2) Chloramphenicol
(3) Tuberculosis (4) Diphtheria (3) Tetracycline (4) Streptomycin
54. Which of the following diseases is acused by 64. Which of the following atnibiotics is used to cure
bacteria ? tuberculsos ?
(1) Tuberculosis (2) Dysentery (1) Penicillin (2) Chloramphenicol
(3) Malaria (4) Syphilis (3) Tetracycline (4) Streptomycin
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
65. Which of the following is not regarded as antibiotics
in true sense ?
(3)
(1) Tetracycline (2) Penicilline
(3) Sulpha drugs (4) Chloromphenicol
66. The susbtance used in the birth control pills is (4)
(1) tetracycline (2) Sulphadiazine
(3) mifepriston (4) piperazine 70. A 16 years old boy came to the doctor with main
67. The structure of aspirin is complaints of frequent sneezing, watering from
nose and eyes, intense, intching in eyes and cold.
He has past history of allegry to dost. The doctor
prescibes most probabilty which for the drugs.
(1) (2) (1) Norediinrone (2) Lansoprazole
(3) Reserpine (4) Chlorpheniramine
71. The structure given below is known as
68. The structure of paracetamol is (1) Penicilline F (2) Penicillin G

(3) Penicillin K (4) Ampicillin
72. Which synthetic sweetener is 160 times more seeter
(1) (2) than sugar ?
(1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin
(3) Sucralose (4) Alitame
73. Which compound is used as a preservative in foods
(1) Salt fo sorbic acid (2) Citric acid
(3) Ascorbic acid (4) Saccharin
(3) (4) 74. Choosen the correct statement
(1) Saccharin is 650 times weeter than sugar
(2) Alitame is 2000 times sweeter than sugar
69. Which of the following structures is not correct ? (3) Sucralose is 1600 times sweeter than sugar
(4) Aspartame is 550 times sweeter than sugar
75. Which compound is antioxident ?
(1) BHA (2) DDB
(1) (3) ABS (4) CFRP
76. Which is not edible colour from the following ?
(1) Carotene (2) Carmel
(3) Terazine (4) Alitame
77. Which of the following substances is added to soap
to make it antispetic ?
(2)
(1) Iodine (2) KMnO4
(3) Bithional (4) Cl2
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
78. Soap is 82. Structurally biodegradable detergent should contain
(1) Sodium stearate (2) Calcium stearate (1) Normalalkyl chain
(3) Sodium acetate (4) Sodium benzoate (2) Branched alkyl chain
79. The polar head of sodium stearate is (3) Phenylside chain
(1) Na+
(2) H + (4) Cyclohexyl side chain
(3) –COO– (4) CH3[CH216 ] 83. Which of the following detergent is used as
80. Detergents..... the surace tension of water germicide ?
(1) Reduces (2) Increases (1) Cetyltrimethylammonium chloride
(3) Keeps constant (4) Slightly increases (2) p-dodecylbenzenesulphonate
81. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium chloride is which type (3) Sodium laurylalko sulphonate
of detergent ? (4) Butylated hydroxy toluene.
(1) Anionic (2) Cationic NCERT : All NCERT Exercise
(3) Non-ionic (4) Biosoft
ANS WER KEY

1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (2)
21. (3) 22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (1)
31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (2) 36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (1)
41. (1) 42. (1) 43. (4) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (1) 50. (3)
51. (1) 52. (4) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (4) 56. (3) 57. (4) 58. (4) 59. (3) 60. (4)
61. (4) 62. (1) 63. (2) 64. (4) 65. (3) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (4) 70. (4)
71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (1) 74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (4) 77. (3) 78. (1) 79. (3) 80. (1)
81. (2) 82. (2) 83. (1)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 15 PRACTICAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY C HE M I S T R Y
1. A white crystalline solid 'X' gives following OH OH

chemical test: COOH COOCH 3
(i) It liberates CO2 with NaHCO3 4. and
(ii) It forms a coloured dye on diazotisation and
coupling with phenol can be differentiated by :
(iii) With Br2 water it forms white precipitate of 2, (1) NaOH (3) Na metal
4, 6-tribromo aniline. (3) NaHCO3 (4) FeCl3
H
'X' can be identified as:
5. NH2 and N
NH2 NH2
can be differentiated by :
(1) (2) (1) Carbylamine reaction
SO 3H (2) Iodoform test
SO 3H (3) Cold KMnO4
(D Br2; H2O
H O
O O
N C CH3 NH2
6. H3 C C H and Ph C H be differentiated
(3) (4) by :
COOH (1) Tollen's reagent (2) Fehling's solution
COOH
(3) Lucas reagent (4) Victor meyer's test
NH2 NH2 7. Which of the following is true?
(1) Tollen's reagent gives a positive test with all
2. and can be differentiated by : aldehyde.
(2) Fehling's solutions gives a positive test with all
(1) Carbylamine reaction aldehyde.
(2) H2SO4 (3) Tollen's reagent gives a positive test with all
caboxylic acid
(3) Diazotisation and coupling with phenol
(4) Tollen's reagent gives a positive test with
(4) Mustard oil reaction
a–methyl keto.
OH
8. Compound 'X' gives positive test with 2,4–DNP and
with I2/NaOH. Compound (X) may be:
3. and can be differentiated by : O O
(1) (2)
H
O
(1) FeCl3 (2) NaHCO3
(3) ZnCl2 + HCl (4) Fehling's solution (3) (4) All of these
Ph
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
9. Which of the following is true? 14. A compound which does not give a positive test in
(1) Alcohol give red colour with cerric ammonium Lassaign'es test for nitrogen is :
nitrate (1) urea (2) hydrazine
(2) Aldehyde and ketone gives orange red colour (3) azobenzene (4) phenyl hydrazine
with 2,4–DNP 15. p-nitrophenol and o–nitrophenol are separated by:
(3) RCOOH gives CO2 with NaHCO3
(1) distillation (2) steam distillation
(4) All are true (3) crystallization (4)fractional crystallization
10. Which of the following compounds decolourise 16. Give a sample test to differentiate cyclohexane and
Br2–H2O and also give positive test with neutral
cyclohexene
FeCl3:
(1) Br2 / H2O (2) Bayer's reagent
OH (3) Tollen's reagent (4) All of these
(1) (2)
17. Ethylamine and diethylamine cannot be
differentiated by :
(3) OH (4) OH (1) Hinsberg test (2) carbylamine test
(3) Iodoform test (4) Both (1) and (2)
11. In Kjeldhal's method, nitrogen present is estimated 18. Lassaigne's test for the detection of nitrogen will
as : fail in the case of
(1) N2 (2) NH3 (1) NH2CONH2 (2) NH2CONHNH2.HCl
(3) NO2 (4) None of these (3) NH2NH2.HCl (4) C6H5NHNH2.2HCl
12. In Kjeldhal's method of estimation of nitrogen, 19. Which of the following acid give positive Tollen's
K2SO4 acts as: test.
(1) an oxidising agent (2) catalytic agent CO 2H CO 2H
(3) hydrolysing agent (4) boiling point elevator (H 2C) 2 H C
(1) (2) 2
13. The prussian blue colour obtained during the test CO 2H CO 2H
of nitrogen by Lassaigne's test is due to the
(3) CH3–COOH (4) HCO2H
formation of :
20. Give test to differentiate 1,1–dichloroethane and
(1) Fe[Fe(CN)6]3
1,2–dichloroethane:
(2) Na3[Fe(CN)6]
(1) 2,4 –DNP then aq. KOH
(3) Fe[(CN)]3
(2) aq. KOH then 2,4–DNP
(4) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
(3) NaHSO3
(4) Lucas reagent
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (4)
11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (2)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 16 SOLID STATE C HE M I S T R Y
1. Which of the following are the correct axial 6. Which of the following dimensions of a unit cell
distance and axial angles for rhombohedral represent a tetragonal unit-
system? (1) a = b = c ; a = b = g = 90°
(1) a = b = c, a = b = g ¹ 90° (2) a = b ¹ c ; a = b = g = 90°
(2) a = b ¹ c, a = b = g = 90°
(3) a = b = c ; a = b = g ¹ 90°
(3) a ¹ b ¹ c, a = b = g = 90º (4) a ¹ b ¹ c ; a ¹ b ¹ g = 90°
(4) a ¹ b ¹ c, a ¹ b ¹ g ¹ 90º
7. Lithium crystallizes as body centered cubic
2. Which of the following shaded plane in fcc lattice crystals. If the length of the side of unit cell is 350
contains arrangement of atoms as shown by circles pm, the atomic radius of lithium is :-
(1) 303.1 pm (2) 606.2 pm
(3) 151.5 pm (4) 123.7 pm
8. Each edge of a cubic unit cell is 400 pm long. If
atomic weight of the element is 120 and it's density
is 6.25 g/cm3. The crystal lattice is :
(use NA = 6 × 1023)
(1) (2)
(1) primitive (2) body centered
(3) face centered (4) end centered
9. An element X (Atomic weight. = 80 g/mol) having
(3) (4) fcc structure, calculate number of unit cells in 8
gm of X :
3. In a face centred lattice of X and Y, X atoms are (1) 0.4 × NA (2) 0.1 × NA
present at the corners while Y atom are at face (3) 4 × NA (4) None of these
centres. Then the formula of the compound would 10. The ability of a substance to assume two or more
be if one of the X atoms is missing from a corner crystalline structures is called-
in each unit cell
(1) Isomerism (2) Amorphism
(1) X7 Y24 (2) X24 Y7 (3) Polymorphism (4) Isomorphism
(3) XY24 (4) X24 Y
11. If the ratio of coordination no. of A to that of B is
4. Consider a Body Centered Cubic (BCC)
x : y, then the ratio of no. of atoms of A to that no.
arrangement, let d e , d fd , d bd be the distances
of atoms of B in unit cell is :
between successive atoms located along the edge,
the face-diagonal, the body diagonal respectively (1) x : y (2) y : x
in a unit cell. Their order is given by : (3) x2 : y (4) y : x2
(1) de < dfd < bbd (2) dfd > dbd > de 12. In a face centered cubic arrangement of A and B
(3) dfd > de > dbd (4) dbd > de > dfd atoms one present where A atoms are at the corner
of the unit cell and B atoms at the face centers.
5. Ionic solids are generally
One of the B atom missing from one of the face in
(1) Good conductor of electricity
unit cell. The simplest formula of compound is :
(2) Quite hard
(1) AB3 (2) A8B5
(3) Volatile
(3) A2B5 (4) AB 2/5
(4) Quite brittle
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
13. In a solid, oxide ions are arranged in ccp, cations 20. Amorphous solids
A occupy (1/8) th of the tetrahedral voids and (1) possess sharp melting points.
cations B occupy (1/4)th of the octahedral voids. (2) undergo clean cleavage when cut with knife.
The formula of the compound is :
(3) do not undergo clean cleavage when cut with
(1) ABO4 (2) AB 2O3 kinetic.
(3) A2BO4 (4) AB 4O4 (4) possess orderly arrangement over long
14. How many effective Na and Cl ions are present
+ –
distances.
respectively in a unit cell of NaCl solid (Rock salts 21. Column A describe nature of bonding and Column
structure) if ions along line connecting opposite B the solid having that type of bonding :
face centeres are absent ?
A (Nature of bonding) B (solid)
7 I. Van der Waals P. Al, Cd
(1) 3, 3 (2) ,4
2 II. Ionic Q. CO2,H2
III. Metallic R. Si, diamond
7 7 7
(3) , (4) 4, IV. Covalent S. MgO, NaCl
2 2 2
Correct matching of A and B is in alternate :
15. A crystal is made of particles X and Y. X forms fcc
I II III IV
packing and Y occupies all the octahedral voids.
(1) P Q R S
If all the particles along one body diagonal are
(2) Q S P R
removed then the formula of the crystal would be
(3) Q P R S
(1) X4Y3 (2) X5Y4
(4) S P Q R
(3) X4Y5 (4) None of these
22. The unit cell with crystallographic dimensions
16. In fcc lattice A, B, C, D atoms are arranged at
a=b ¹ c; a < b < y < 900 is
corner, face centre, octahedral void and tetrahedral
void respectively, then the body diagonal contains (1) cubic (2) tetragonal
(1) 2A, C, 2D (2) 2A, 2B, 2C (3) monoclinic (4) hexagonal
(3) 2A, 2B, D (4) 2A, 2D 23. The interparticle forces in solid hydrogen are
17. How many unit cells are present in 5.0 gm of crystal (1) hydrogen bonds (2) covalent bonds
AB (formula mass of AB = 40) having CsCl salt (3) co-ordinate bonds (4) vander waal's forces
type structure ? (NA = Avogadro's no.) 24. A solid melts slightly above 273 K and is a poor
NA conductor of heat and electricity. To which of the
(1) NA (2) following categories does it belong ?
10
(1) ionic solid (2) covalent solid
(3) 4NA (4) None of these
(3) metallic (4) molecular
18. In an atomic BCC, what fraction of edge is not
25. Which among the following will show anisotropy
covered by atoms ?
(1) Glass (2) Barium Chloride
(1) 0.255 (2) 0.134
(3) 0.524 (4) 0.327 (3) Wood (4) Paper
26. In a crystal, all the lattice sites are found to be
19. A hexagonal close packing of atomic solid one
occupied by covalent molecules. To which kind of
corner and one face left unoccupied per unit cell.
solid does it belong ?
What is its packing fraction ?
(1) ionic (2) molecular
(1) 0.132 (2) 0.875
(3) covalent (4) None of these
(3) 0.658 (4) 0.978
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
27. In a face centred cubic (F.C.C.) arrangement the 34. The number of atoms in a unit cell of a cubic
number at atoms per unit cell is . crystal system is 1, the arrangement of atoms is.
(1) 8 (2) 2 (1) body centred cubic
(3) 1 (4) 4 (2) face centred cubic
28. Bravais lattices are of (3) end centred cubic
(1) 7 types (2) 10 types (4) simple cubic
(3) 14 types (4) 17 types
35. Edge length of a cube is 400 pm. Its body diagonal
29. The most unsymmetrical crystal system is: would be.
(1) Cubic (2) Hexagonal (1) 566 pm (2) 600 pm
(3) Triclinic (4) Orthorhombic
(3) 500 pm (4) 693 pm
30. The following diagram shows arrangement of lattice
36. Relation between radius of an atom and edge
point with a = b = c and
length of body centre unit cell.
4
(1) a = r (2) a = 2r
3
(3) a = 2r (4) None

37. Packing efficiency of face centred cubic crystal :
a = b = g = 90º. Choose the correct options. (1) 74.6% (2) 68.0%

(1) The arrangement is SC with each lattice point (3) 52.8% (4) None
surrounded by 6 nearest neighbours. 38. Relation between edge length (1) of cube and
(2) The arrangement is SC with each lattice point radius of atom arranged in face centred cubic
surrounded by 8 nearest neighbours. crystal :
(3) The arrangement is FCC with each lattice point
r
surrounded by 12 nearest neighbours. (1) a = 2 2 r (2) a =
2 2
(4) The arrangement in BCC with each lattice point
surrounded by 8 nearest neighbours (3) 3a = 4r (4) 3a = 2r
31. The number of atoms in a unit cell of a cubic crystal 39. Packing efficiency of hexagonal close packing :
system is 2, the arrangement of atoms is.
(1) 74% (2) 68%
(1) body centred cubic
(3) 52.8% (4) None
(2) face centred cubic
40. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms
(3) end centred cubic
present in simple cubic crystal.
(4) simple cubic
32. In a end centred cubic arrangement the number at p p
(1) (2)
atoms per unit cell is . 6 3 2
(1) 8 (2) 2
p p
(3) 1 (4) 4 (3) (4)
4 2 4
33. The space occupied by bcc arrangement is
approximately. 41. Free space in body centred cubic unit is :
(1) 50 % (2) 68 % (1) 32% (2) 34%
(3) 74 % (4) 56 % (3) 28% (4) 30%
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
42. If a stands for edge length of cubic system, then NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
ratio of radii of spheres packed in SCC, BCC, FCC.
46. Cesium atoms are the largest naturally occurring
1 1 1 3 2 atoms. The radius of Cs atom is 2.60Å. The
(1) a : 3a : a (2) a: a: a
2 2 2 2 2
number of moles of Cs atoms to be laid side by
1 3 1 side to give a row of Cs atoms 2.50 cm long is
(3) a : 3a : 2a (4) a: a: a
2 4 2 2 x × 10–17. Find the value of x.
43. (A) Three elements P, Q and R crystallize in a 47. A solid has a structure in which X atoms are
cubic solid lattice. The P atoms occupy the located at cubic corners of unit cell, O atom are at
corners, Q atoms the cube centres and R atoms the edge centres and Y atoms at cube centre.
the edges. The formula of the compound is:
Then the formula of compound is XaYbOc.
(1) PQR (2) PQR2
(3) PQR3 (4) PQ3R. If two atoms of O are missing from any of two
(B) A compound alloy of gold and copper edge centres per unit cell, then the molecular
crystallises in a cubic lattice in which the gold formula is XxYyOz.
atoms occupy the lattice points at the corner of
Then, find the value of (x +y+z) - (a + b + c).
a cube and the copper atoms occupy the
centres of each of the cube faces. Hence 48. The difference in coordination numbers of
compound alloy has formula : hexagonal close packing in 3-D and square close
(1) AuCu (2) Au3Cu packing in 2-D, of identical spheres is :
(3) Au2Cu (4) AuCu3
49. In the NaCl structure, each Na + Ion is surrounded
44. In a face centred cubic arrangement of A and B
by six Cl– ions nearest neighbours and.... Na+ Irons
atoms whose A atoms are at the corner of the unit
cell and B atoms at the face centres. One of the A next nearest neighbours.
atom Is missing from one corner in unit cell. The 50. Number of crystal systems having, only two types
simplest formula of the compound is
of Bravais lattices = x,
(1) A7B3 (2) AB3
Number of crystal systems having, at least 2
(3) A7B24 (4) A2B3
interfacial angles equal = y,
45. A compound is formed by elements A and B. This
crystallises in the cubic structure where the A atoms All the three interfacial angles and all the three
are at the corners of the cube and B atoms are at the axes lengths equal = z
body centres. The simplest formula of the
compound is : Then find y–(x+ z)
(1) A8B4 (2) AB6 Home Work
(3) AB (4) A6B
NCERT: 1.7 to 1.26
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (3)
21. (2) 22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30. (1)
31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (4) 36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (1)
41. (1) 42. (4) 43. (A) - 3, (B)- 4 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (8) 47. (4) 48. (8) 49. (12)
50. (2)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 17 LIQUID SOLUTION C HE M I S T R Y
1. CsBr has b.c.c. structure with edge length 4.3 Å. 7. Which of the following are true for ideal solutions :
The shortest inter ionic distance in between Cs+ and (1) DVmix = 0
Br– is (2) DHmix = 0
(1) 3.72 (2) 1.86 (3) 7.44 (4) 4.3 (3) Raoult's law is obeyed for entire concentration
2. What is the mole ratio of benzene (PB0 = 150 torr) range and temperatures.
and toluene (PT0 = 50 torr) in vapour phase if the (4) All of these
given solution has a vapour pressure of 120 torr?
8. In which case van’t Hoff factor is maximum?
(1) 7 : 1 (2) 7 : 3
(1) KCl, 50% ionised
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 7 : 8
(2) K2SO4, 40% ionised
3. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution. At a certain
temperature the total vapour pressure of a mixture (3) SnCl4, 20% ionised
of A and B is 400 mm. The mole fraction of A in (4) FeCl3, 30% ionised
the liquid mixture in equilibrium with the vapour 9. Which of the following molarity values of ions in a
phase is 0.4. If the vapour pressure ratio (P A0/P B0 ) aqueous solution of 5.85 % w/v NaCl, 5.55% w/v
for the pure liquids at this temperature is 1/6, what CaCl2 and 6% w/v NaOH are correct
is the partial pressure of A in the vapour phase? [Na = 23, Cl = 35.5 , Ca = 40, O = 16 ]
(1) 50mm (2) 60mm (1) [Cl–1] = 2M (2) [Ca2+] = 0.5 M
(3) 70mm (4) 40mm (3) [OH–] = 1.5 M (4) All of the above
4. Mixture of volatile components A and B has total 10. In which of the following cases van't Hoff factor is
vapour pressure (in Torr) p = 254 – 119 xA , where less than 3 (i < 3)
xA is mole fraction of A in mixture. Hence p 0A and (1) AlCl3 if a = 0.8. (2) BaCl2 if a = 0.9.
p0 are (in Torr) (3) Na3PO4 if a = 0.9 (4) K4[Fe(CN)6] if a = 0.7.
B
(1) 254, 119 (2) 119, 254 11. In which of the following pairs of solutions will the
(3) 135, 254 (4) 119, 373 values of the van't Hoff factor be the same?
5. 1 M of glucose (C6H12O6) solution (density = 1.18 (1) 0.05 M K4 [Fe(CN)6] and 0.10 M FeSO4.
g/ml) is equivalent to which of the following solution (2) 0.10 M K4[Fe(CN)6] and 0.05 M
(1) 180 g solute per litre solution FeSO4.(NH4 )2SO4. 6H2 O.
(2) % w/v = 18% (solution) (3) 0.20 M NaCl and 0.10 M BaCl2
(3) 1 molal solution (4) 0.05 M FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O and 0.03 M KCl
(4) All of these MgCl2 . 6H2O
6. Arrange in increasing order of Molarity of solute in 12. Two liquids ‘A’ and ‘B’ are mixed in the molar ratio
following solutions considering water as solvent. of 1 : 2 and the vapour pressure of the solution is
Show your calculations: 24 torr. When the two liquids are mixed in the
(i) 224 gm/lit. KOH reverse ratio, the vapour pressure of the solution
(ii) 11.2% w/v KOH increases by a fraction of 1/4. The vapour pressures
of pure ‘A’ and ‘B’ are respectively.
(iii) 5m KOH (d = 0.64 gm/ml)
(1) 20 torr, 40 torr (2) 40 torr, 20 torr
(1) (ii) < (iii) < (i) (2) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
(3) 36 torr, 18 torr (4) 18 torr, 36 torr
(3) (iii) < (i) < (ii) (4) (i) < (ii) < (iii)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
Comperhension 20. A solution containing components A and B follows
The pressure of two pure liquid A and B which form Raoult's law
an ideal solutions are 400 mm Hg and 800 mm Hg (1) A – B attraction force is greater than A – A and
respectively at temperature T. A liquid containing B–B
3 : 1 molar composition pressure can be varied. The
(2) A – B attraction force is less than A – A and B –
solutions is slowly vaporized at temperature T by
B
decreasing the applied pressure starting with a
pressure of 760 mm Hg. A pressure gauge (in mm) (3) A – B attraction force remains same as A – A
Hg is connected which given the reading of and B – B
pressure applied. (4) Volume of solution is different from sum of
13. The reading of pressure Gauge at which only liquid volume of solute and solvent
phase exists. 21. A 0.001 molal solution of [Pt(NH3 )4Cl4] in water
(1) 499 (2) 399 had a freezing point depression of 0.0054°C.I Kf
(3) 299 (4) None for water is 1.80, the correct formulation for the
14. The reading of pressure Gauge at bubble point is above molecule is :
(1) 500 (2) 600 (1) [Pt(NH3)4Cl3]Cl (2) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl 2
(3) 700 (4) None (3) [Pt(NH3)4Cl]Cl3 (4) [Pt(NH3)4Cl4 ]
15. The reading of pressure Gauge at which only vapour 22. Formation of a solution from two components can
phase exists is be considered as :-
(1) 501 (2) 457.14 (i) Pure solvent ® separated solvent molecules,
(3) 425 (4) 525 DH 1
16. The vapour pressure of a solvent A is 0.80 atm. (ii) Pure solute ® separated solute molecules, DH2
When a nonvolatile substance B is added to this (iii)Separated solvent and solute molecules ®
solvent its vapour pressure drops to 0.6 atm. What solution, DH3
is mole fraction of B in solution? Solution so formed will be ideal if :-
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.50 (1) DHsoln = DH1 + DH2 + DH3
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.90
(2) DHsoln = DH1 + DH2 – DH3
17. The molarity of a solution made by mixing 50 ml
(3) DHsoln = DH1 – DH2 – DH3
of conc. H2SO4 (36 N) with 50 ml. of water, is
(4) DHsoln = DH3 – DH1 – DH2
(1) 36 M (2) 18 M
(3) 9 M (4) 6M 23. Which of the following solutions has maximum
freezing point depression at equimolal concentration
18. Vapour pressure of CCl4 at 250C is 143 mm Hg. 0.5
gm of a non-volatile solute (mol. wt. 65) is dissolved (1) [Co(H2 O)6 ]Cl 3
in 100 ml of CCl4. Find the vapour perssure of the (2) [Co(H2 O)5Cl]Cl2 .H2 O
solution. (Density of CCl4 = 1.58 gm/cm3 ) (3) [Co(H2O)4 Cl2]Cl. 2H2 O
(1) 141.93 mm (2) 94.39 mm (4) [Co(H2O)3 CI3 ].3H2 O
(3) 199.34 mm (4) 143.99 mm 24. If mole fraction of a solvent in a solution decreases,
19. The vapour pressure decreases by 10 mm of Hg then :
when solute's mole fraction in a solution is 0.2. If
(1) vapour pressure of solution increase
the vapour pressure decreases is 20 mm of Hg then
the mole fraction of solute will be (2) boiling point decreases
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (3) Osmotic pressure increases
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.8 (4) freezing point of solution increases
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
25. A mixture of two immiscible liquids at a constant The degree of dissociation of electrolyte is
pressure of 1 atm boils at a temperature (1) 50% (2) 75%
(1) equal to the normal boiling point of more volatile (3) 100% (4) Zero
liquid
30. 2.56g of sulfur in 100g of CS 2 has depression in
(2) equal to the mean of the normal boiling points freezing point of 0.010C.Kf = 0.10 molal-1 . Hence,
of the two liquids the atomicity of sulfur in CS2 is
(3) greater than the normal boiling point of either (1) 2 (2) 4
of the liquid
(3) 6 (4) 8
(4) smaller than the normal boiling point of either
of the liquid.
31. The vapour pressure of two pure liquids A and B
26. Two liquids X and Y are perfectly immiscible. If X
are 50 and 40 torr respectively. If 8 moles of A is
and Y have molecular masses in ratio 1:2, the total
mixed with x moles of B, then vapour pressure of
vapour pressure of a mixture of X and Y prepared
solution obtained is 48 torr. What is the value of x.
in weight ratio 2:3 should be (PX0 = 400 torr, PY0 =
200 torr) 32. The vapour pressure of a liquid solution containing
A and B is 99 torr. Calculate mole % of B in vapour
(1) 300 torr (2) 466.7 torr
phase.
(3) 600 torr (4) 700 torr
(Given : P°A = 100 torr ; P°B = 80 torr)
27. In which case van’t Hoff factor is maximum ?
33. If 30 g of a solute of molecular weight 154 is
(1) KCl, 50% ionised (2) K2SO4, 40% ionised
dissolved in 250 g of benzene. What will be the
(3) SnCl4, 20% ionised (4) FeCl3, 30% ionised
boiling point of the resulting solution?
28. 1M of glucose solution has a freezing point of
-1.860C. If 10 ml of 1M glucose is mixed with 30ml ( Given : K ( b C6 H 6 )
= 2.6 K kgmol -1 )
of 3M glucose then the resultant solution will have 34. Calculate elevation in boiling point for 2 molal
a freezing point of aqueous solution of glucose.
(1) -2.790 C (2) -4.650 C
(3) -5.58 C 0
(4) -7.44 C0 ( Given : K ( b H 2O )
= 0.5 K kgmol -1 )
29. 20g of a binary electrolyte (molecular weight = 100) 35. What is the maximum value of van't Hoff factor for
are dissolved in 500 g of water. The freezing point A1C13 ?
of the solution is – 0.74°C ; Kf = 1.86 K moIality–1, Home work:
NCERT 2.1 to 2.15
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (2)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (3)
21. (2) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (4) 29. (4) 30. (4)
31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (4)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 18 LIQUID SOLUTION C HE M I S T R Y
1. An aqueous solution of urea containing 18 g urea 6. When 20 g of naphthoic acid (C11H8O2) is dissolved
in 1500 cm3 of solution has a density of 1.052 g/ in 50g of benenze (Kf = 1.72 K kg mol–1), a freezing
cm3. If the molecular mass of urea is 60, then the point depression of 2K is observed. The van't Haff
molality of solution is factor (i) is
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.192 (1) 0.5 (2) 1.0
(3) 0.064 (4) 1.2 (3) 2.0 (4) 3.0
2. Which statment about the composition of vapour
7. If two substances A and B have PA0 : PB0 = 1 : 2 and
over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and
toluene is correct ? Assumes the temperature is have mole fraction in solution 1 : 2 then mole
constant at 25°C. fraction of A in vapours
Vapours pressure data (at 25°C) (1) 0.33 (2) 0.25
Benzene 75 mm of Hg (3) 0.52 (4) 0.2
Toluene 22 mm of Hg 8. 0.2 mole of HCl and 0.1 mole of calcium chloride
(1) The vapour will contain higher percentage of were dissolved in water to have 500 ml. of solution.
benzene The molarity of Cl– ions in the solution is
(2) The vapour will contain higher percentage of (1) 0.04M (2) 0.8M (3) 0.4 M (4) 0.08 M
toluene 9. The mass of solute ‘A’ (mol mass = 40 gm mol–1 )
(3) The vapour will contain equal amount of that should be added to 180 gm of pure water in
benzene and toluene order to lower its vapour pressure to 4/5th of its
original value
(4) Not enough information is give to make a
prediction (1) 187.5 gm. (2) 90 gm.
3. Which solution will have the highest boiling point (3) 150 gm. (4) 100 gm.
(1)1% glucose in water (2) 1% sucrose in water 10. 150ml of C2H5OH (density = 0.78 gm/ml) is diluted
(3) 1% NaCl in water (4) 1% CaCl2 in water to one litre by adding water; molarity of the solution
is
4. At 40°C, the vapour pressure (in torr) of methyl
alcohol (A) and ethyl alcohol (B) solution is (1) 2.54 (2) 11.7 (3) 2.99 (4) 29.9
represented by P = 120 XA + 138; where XA is mole 11. 6.8g H2 O2 is dissolved in 224 mL solution. This
fraction of methyl alchol. The value of lim XA ® solution will be labelled as
PBo Po (1) 0.224 V (2) 20 V (3) 5 V (4) 10 V
0 and limXB ® 0 A are
XB XA 12. Consider the following vapour pressure-
(1) 138, 258 (2) 258,138 composition graph, SP is equal to
(3) 120, 138 (4) 138, 125 re p0B
pour pressu
5. The vapour pressure of a solution of a non-volatile To tal va P
Vapour pA0 Q
non-electrolyte (A) in a solvent (B) is 95 % of the pressure PA
vapour pressure of the solvent at the same PB R
S
temperature. If MB = 0.3 MA, where MB and MA are 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1
mole fraction
molecular weight of B and A respectively, the weight
ratio of the solvent and solute are (1) PQ + RS (2) PQ + QR + RS
(1) 0.15 (2) 5.7 (3) 0.2 (4) 4.0 (3) SR + SQ (4) PQ + QR
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
13. pH of a 0.1 M monobasic acid is measured to be 2. 20. Y gm of a non-volatile solute of molar mass M is
Its osmotic pressure at a given temperature T K is dissolved in 250 g of benzene. If K b is molal
(1) 0.1 RT (2) 0.11 RT elevation constant, the value of DT is given by :
(3) 1.1 RT (4) 0.01 RT 4M 4K b Y Y Y
14. A solution containing 0.1 g of a non-voltatile (1) K Y (2) (3) K b (4) K b
b M 4M M
organic substance P(molecular mass 100) in 100g
of benzene raises the boiling point of benzene by 21. A solute 'A' undergoes association in a medium as
0.2°C, while a solution containing 0.1 g of another nA A n The degree of association is 'a', then
non-volatile substance Q in the same amount of van't Hoff factor may be given as :
benzene raises the boiling point of benzene by
a
0.4°C. What is the ratio of molecular masses of P (1) i = 1 – a (2) i + 1 +
and Q ? n
a
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1 1- a +
(3) i = n (4) i = 1
15. What is the osmotic pressure of the solution obtained 1
by mixing 300 cm3 of 2% (mass-volume) solution 22. What is the correct sequence of osmotic pressure
of urea with 300 cm3 3.42% solution of sucrose of of 0.01M aqueous solution of :
20°C ? (a) Al2(SO4)3 (b) K3 PO4
(1) 5 atm (2) 5.2 atm (c) BaCl2 (d) Urea
(3) 2.6 atm (4) 4.5 atm (1) p4 > p3 > p2 > p1 (2) p1 > p2 > p3 > p4
16. The value of van't Hoff factor for K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ], (3) p1 = p2 > p3 = p4 (4) p2 > p4 > p1 > p3
assuming complete ionization is : 23. FeCl 3 on reaction with K4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] in aqueous
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5 solution gives blue colour. These are
17. The degree of ionization (1) of a weak electrolyte separated by a semipermeable membrane AB as
AxBy is related is related to van't Hoff factor by shown. Due to osmosis there is :
expression : 0.1 M
A
K4 Fe(CN)6 0.01 M FeCl3
i -1 i -1
(1) a = (2) a =
x + y +1 x + y -1
Side X Side Y
x + y -1 x + y +1 B
(3) a = (4) a =
i -1 i -1 (1) Blue colour formation in side x
18. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 (2) Blue colour Formation in side Y
K when 10 g of glucose (P1) ; 10 g of urea (P2) and (3) Blue colour formation in both of the sides X and Y
10 g of sucrose (P3 ) are dissolved in 250 mL of (4) no blue colour formation
water is :
24. Difference between diffusion and osmosis is :
(1) P1 < P2 > P3 (2) P3 > P1 > P2
(1) a semipermeable membrane is required for osmosis
(3) P2 > P1 > P3 (4) P2 > P3 > P1 while diffusion requires no semipermeable
19. When acetone and chloroform are mixed together, membrane
h-bonding takes place between them. Such a liquid (2) in osmosis, movement of molecules is in one
pair shows direction whereas in diffusion, the movement is in
(1) +ve deviation from Raoult's law both sides
(2) –ve deviation from Raoult's law (3) in osmosis only the solvent moves while in diffusion
(3) no deviation from Raoult's law solute and solvent both move all the above
(4) slight increase in volume (4) all of the above
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
25. If liquids A and B form an ideal solution : (4) Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M NaCl is lower than
(1) the free energy of mixing is zero the osmotic pressure of 0.05 M BaCl2 (assume
complete dissociation)
(2) the free energy as well as entropy of mixing are
zero 29. A solution of CaCl2 was prepared by dissolving
0.00112 g in 1 kg of distilled water (Molar mass of
(3) enthalpy of mixing is zero
Ca = 41 g mol–1 and Cl = 35.5 g mol–1). The freezing
(4) the entropy of mixing point constant of water is 2 K kg mol –1 . The
26. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol A depression in the freezing point of the solution is :
(PA0 = 150 torr) and 2 mol B (PB0 = 240 torr) is 200 (1) 0.0002 (2) 0.002 (3) 0.003 (4) 0.0006
torr. In this case: 30. Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in a cold
(1) there is positive deviation form Raoult's law climate. Mass of ethylene glycol which should be
(2) there is negative deviation from Raoult's law added to 4 kg of water to prevent it from freezing at
– 6°C will be :
(3) there is no deviation from Raoult's law
(Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1 and Molar mass of
(4) molecular masses of A and B are also required
ethylene glycol = 62 g mol–1 )
for calculating the deviation
(1) 304.60 g (2) 800.00 g
27. Consider 0.1 M solution of two solutes X and Y.
The solute X behaves as uni-univalent electrolyte (3) 204.30 g (4) 400.00 g
while the solute Y dimerises in solution. Which of 31. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of CH3OH is supplied.
the following statements are correct regarding these What is the mole fraction of methyl alcohol in the
solutions solution?
1. The boiling point of solution of X will be higher (1) 0.050 (2) 0.100 (3) 0.190 (4) 0.086
than that of Y NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
2. The osmotic pressure of solution of Y will be 32. Calculate depression of freezing point for 0.56 molal
lower than that of X aq. solution of KC1.
3. The freezing point of the solution of X will be (Given : K f ( H2 O) = 1.8K kg mol–1).
lower than that of Y 33. A solution containing 500 g of a protein per litre is
4. The relative lowering of vapour of both the isotonic with a solution containing 3.42g sucrose
solutions will be the same per litre. The molecular mass of protein in 5 × 10x,
Select the correct answer from the codes given below hence x is.
(1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 2, 3, 4 (3) 1, 2, 4 (4) 1, 3, 4 34. An aqueous solution of urea has a freezing point of
–0.515°C Predict the osmotic pressure (in atm) of
28. 0.1 M NaCl and 0.05 M BaCl 2 solutions are
the same solution at 37°C.
separated by a semi-permeable membrane in a
container. For this system, choose the correct (Given : K f ( H O) = 1.86K kg mol–1)
2
answer. 35. 0.2M aq. solution of KCl is isotonic with 0.2M
(1) There is no movement of any solution across K2SO4 at same temperature. What is the van't Hoff
the membrane factor of K2 SO4 ?
(2) Water flows from BaCl2 solution towards NaCl 36. The vapour pressure of two pure liquids A and B
solution are 5 and 10 torr respectively. Calculate the total
(3) Water flows from NaCl solution towards BaCl2 pressure of the solution (in torr) obtained by mixing
solution 2 mole of A and 3 mole of B.
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9 (4) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (2)
21. (3) 22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (2) 29. (4) 30. (2)
31. (4) 32. 2 33. 4 34. 7 35. 2 36. (8)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 19 ELECTROCHEMISTRY C HE M I S T R Y
1. Which of the following decreases on dilution of 1 2 3

electrolyte solution ? (1) NaCl HCl NH 4 OH
(1) Equivalent conductance (2) NH4 OH NaCl HCl
(2) Molar conductance (3) HCl NaCl NH 4 OH
(3) Specific conductance (4) NH4 OH HCl NaCl
(4) Conductance 6. In infinite dilutions, the equivalent conductances
2. The correct order of equivalent conductances at of Ba2+ and Cl– are 127 and 76 ohm–1 cm–1 eqvt–1.
infinite dilution of LiCl, NaCl and KCl is : The equivalent conductivity of BaCl2 at indefinite
(1) LiCl > NaCl > KCl (2) KCl > NaCl > LiCl dilution is
(3) NaCl > KCl > LiCl (4) LiCl > KCl > NaCl (1) 101.5 (2) 139.5
3. The conductance of a solution of an electrolyte is (3) 203.5 (4) 279.5
equal to that of its specific conductance. The cell 7. The factor which is not affecting the conductivity
constant of the conductivity cell is equal to : of any solution is
(1) Resistance (2) Faraday (1) Dilution (2) Nature of electrolyte
(3) Zero (4) Unity (3) Temperature (4) None of these
4. Which of the following graph correctly represents 8. Given l / a = 0.5cm -1 , R = 50ohm, N = 1.0 . The
the variation of molar conductance (L m ) with
equivalent conductance of the electrolytic cell is
dilution for a strong electrolyte ?
(1) 10 ohm -1 cm 2 gm eq -1 (2) 20 ohm -1 cm 2 gm eq -1
(3) 300 ohm -1 cm 2 gmeq -1 (4) 100ohm -1 cm 2 gmeq -1

Lm Lm
(1) (2) 9. In an electrolytic cell, flow of e– will be -
(1) from cathode to anode in solution
Dilution Dilution
(2) from cathode to internal source
(3) from cathode to external source
(4) from anode to cathode
Lm Lm
(3) (4) 10. Which of the following ion is expected to have
highest value of molar conductivity at infinite
Dilution Dilution dilution in the aqueous solution ?
5. A graph of molar conductivity of three electrolytes 1
(NaCl, HCl and NH4OH) is plotted against C (1) Na+ (2) K+ (3) Ca2+ (4) H+
2
Which of the following options is correct ? 11. On passing an electric current, the quantity of
deposition of a metal on cathode depends on the
(1) shape of cathode
Lm
1 (2) size of cathode
2
3 (3) concentration of electrolytic solution
C (4) quantity of charge and charge number of metal ion
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
12. 3 faraday of electricity are passed through molten 18. The standerd EMF of the cell Ni | Ni2+ || Cu2+ | Cu(s)
Al2O3, aqueous solution of CuSO4 and molten NaCl is 0.59 volt. The standard reduction electrode
taken in three different electrolytic cells. The amount potential of copper electrode is 0.34 volt. The
of Al, Cu and Na deposited at the cathodes will be standard reduction electrode potential of nickel
in the ratio of– electrode will be
(1) 1 mole : 2 mole : 3 mole (1) 0.25 volt (2) – 0.25 volt
(2) 3 mole : 2 mole : 1 mole (3) – 0.50 volt (4) – 0.025 volt
(3) 1 mole : 1.5 mole : 3 mole 19. Which of the following statements about the
spontaneous reaction occuring in a galvanic cell is
(4) 1.5 mole : 2 mole : 3 mole
always true ?
13. Which statement is not correct for Kohlrausch law
(1) E0cell > 0, DGº < 0, and Q < K
(1) The law is valid at infinite dilution
(2) E0cell > 0, DGº > 0, and Q < K
(2) The law is valid for weak electrolytes only
(3) E0cell > 0, DGº > 0, and Q > K
(3) The basis of law is independent migration of
(4) Ecell > 0, DG < 0, and Q > K
ions
20. The following facts are available
(4) None of the above
2X– + Y2 ¾® 2Y– + X2 2W– +Y2 ¾® No reaction
14. The specific conductivity of a saturated solution of
2Z– + X2 ¾® 2X– + Z2
AgCl is 3.40 × 10 –6 ohm –1 cm –1 at 25ºC.
Which of the following statements is correct?
If l Ag + = 62.3 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 & lCl– = 67.7 ohm–1
º º º º
cm2 mol–1 , the solubility of AgCl at 25ºC is - (1) E W – / W2 > E Y – / Y2 > E X – / X 2 > E Z – / Z 2
(1) 2.6 × 10–5 mol L–1 (2) 3.731 × 10–3 mol L–1 º º º º
(2) E W – / W2 < E Y – / Y2 < E X – / X 2 < E Z– / Z2
(3) 3.731 × 10 –5
moL
–1
(4) 2.6 × 10 gL
–3 –1
º º º º
15. The equivalent conductance of an infinitely dilute (3) E W – / W2 < E Y – / Y2 > E X – / X 2 > E Z– / Z2
solution of NH4Cl is 150 and the ionic conductance
º º º º
of OH– and Cl– ions are 198 and 76 respectively. If (4) E W – / W2 > E Y – / Y2 < E X – / X 2 < E Z – / Z2
the equivalent conductance of a 0.01 N solution of
NH 4 OH is 9.6. What will be its degree of é d(DG ) ù
dissociation ? 21. DG = DH – TDS and DG = DH + T ê dT ú then
ë ûP
(1) 0.0353 (2) 0.0103
æ dE cell ö
(3) 0.96 (4) 0.414 ç ÷ is -
è dT ø
16. Calculate molar conductivity at infinite dilution of
CH3COOH if molar conductivity at infinite dilution DS nE
of CH3COONa, HCl and NaCl are 91.6, 425.0 and (1) (2)
nF DS
128.1 S cm2 mol–1 -
(3) – nFEcell (4) + nEFcell
(1) 390.5 S cm2 mol–1 (2) 388.5 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 490.5 S cm2 mol–1 (4) None of these 22. In H2 – O2 fuel cell the reaction occuring at cathode
is -
17. The resistance of a N/10 KCl solution is 245 W.
Calculate the equivalent conductance of the solution (1) 2H2O + O2 + 4e– ® 4OH–
if the electrodes in the cell are 4 cm apart and each (2) 2H2 + O2 ® 2H2O(l)
having an area of 7.0 sq. cm - (3) H+ + OH– ® H2O
(1) 23.32 S cm2 eq–1 (2) 23.23 S m2 eq–1
1
(3) 2.332 S cm2 eq–1 (4) None of these (4) H+ + e– ® H
2 2
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
23 The electric charge for electrode deposition of one NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
gram equivalent of a substance is- 26. Calculate the cell potential (in V) if DG = –96\5kJ/
(1) one ampere per second mol and n = 1.
(2) 96,500 coulombs per second 27. If KC for the reaction
(3) one ampere for one hour Cu2+ (aq) + Sn+2 (aq) ¾¾
® Sn4+ (aq) + Cu(s)
(4) charge on one mole of electrons
at 25°C is represented as y x 109 then find the value
24. Which of the following is correct ?
(1) Conductivity of a solution decreases with
(
of y. Given ECu 2+ |Cu = 0.34V ; ESn4+ |Sn2+ = 0.15V
0 0
)
dilution, whereas molar conductivity increases 28. If DG° for the half cell MnO4- | MnO2 in an acid
with dilution solution is xF then find the value of x
(2) Conductivity of a solution increases with dilution
, whereas molar conductivity decreases with (Given E 0
MnO4- | Mn2+
= 1.5V ; EMnO
0
-
| Mn2+
4
= 01.25V )
dilution
29. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction Cd2+ (aq)
(3) Both conductivity and molar conductivity
+ 4NH3(aq) Cd ( NH 3 ) 4 ( aq )
2+
is 10x then find
decrease with dilution
the value of x.
(4) Both conductivity and molar conductivity
increase with dilution (Given E 0
Cd 2+ |Cd
= -0.04V ; ECd
0
( NH )2+
3 4 |Cd
= -0.61V )
25. How many faradays are required to reduce 1 mol
30. The conductivity of saturated solution of sparingly
of BrO 3- to Br–? soluble salt, Ba3(PO4)2, is 1.2 × 10–5 ohm–1cm–1. The
limiting equivalent conductances of BaCl2, K3PO4
(1) 3 (2) 5
and KC1 are 160, 140 and 100 ohm –1 cm 2 eq –1 ,
(3) 6 (4) 4
respectively. The ksp of Ba3 (PO4)2 (in the order of
10–25) is
Home work: NCERT : 3.7 to 3.18
ANS WER KEY

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16. (2) 1®7. (1) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23 (4) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (6) 28. (5) 29. (7) 30. (108)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 20 ELECTROCHEMISTRY C HE M I S T R Y
1. How many kJ of energy is spent when a current of 7. Which of the following does not occur at cathode
4 amp passes for 200 second under a potential of of electrolytic cell ?
115 V ? (1) Ag+ ¾® Ag – e– (2) Fe+3 + e– ¾® Fe+2
(1) 52 kJ (2) 72 kJ (3) 82 kJ (4) 92 kJ (3) Cu ¾® Cu2+ + 2e (4) 2H+ ¾® H2 – 2e–
2. The minimum equivalent conductance in fused state 8. Which of the following is not a function of salt
is shown by - bridge -
(1) MgCl2 (2) BeCl2 (3) CrCl2 (4) SrCl2 (1) To maintain electrical neutrality of the solution
3. When equal number of coulomb of electricity is (2) To complete the circuit so that current can flow
passed through aqueous solution of AX and BX2
(3) To prevent voltage drop & to minimize liquid-
and if number of moles of A and B deposited
liquid junction potential
respectively are Y and Z then -
(4) To increase liquid-liquid junction potential
(1) Y = Z (2) Y < Z
9. Mg | Mg2+ (0.01 M) || pH = 1, H+ | Pt (H2)
(3) Z = 2Y (4) Y = 2Z
E0cell = + 2.37 V hence :
4. For the cell prepared from electrode A and B.
Electrode A : Cr2 O7 2– /Cr3+, E0 red = + 1.33 V and 0.0591
(1) Ecell = 2.37 + V (2) Ecell = 2.37 + 0.0591 V
Electrode B : Fe3+/Fe2+, E0red = 0.77 V 2
which of the following statements is not correct (3) Ecell = 2.37 V (4) None of these
(1) The electrons will flow from B to A when con 10. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of
nection are made pH 3 at 25ºC. The reduction potential of the electrode
(2) The emf of the cell will be 0.56 V 2.303 RT
would be (the value of is 0.059 V) :
(3) A will be positive electrode F
(4) None of these (1) 0.177 V (2) – 0.177 V
5. The standard oxidation potentials of Zn and Ag is (3) 0.087 V (4) 0.059 V
water at 25ºC are, 11. The half cell reduction potential of a hydrogen
Zn(s) ¾® Zn2+ + 2e [Eº = 0.76 V] electrode at pH = 10 will be
Ag(s) ¾® Ag + e +
Eº = – 0.80 V (1) 0.59 V (2) – 0.59 V
(3) 0.059 V (4) – 0.059 V
Which reaction actually takes place :
12. In electrolysis of NaCl, when platinum electrode is
(1) Zn(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) ¾® Zn2+ + 2Ag(s)
taken then H2 is liberated at the cathode while with
(2) Zn2+ + 2Ag+ (s) ¾¾® 2Ag+ (aq) + Zn(s)
mercury cathode it forms sodium amalgam. This is
(3) Zn(s) + 2Ag(s) ¾¾® Zn2+ (aq) + Ag+ (s) because
(4) Zn2+ (aq) + Ag+ (aq) ¾¾® Zn(s) + Ag(s)
(1) Hg is more inert than Pt
6. Given that Eº values of Ag+/Ag, K+/K, Mg+2/Mg and
(2) More voltage is required to reduce H+ at Hg than
Cr+3/Cr are 0.80V, – 2.93V, – 2.37V, and – 0.74 V,
at Pt
respectively. Which of the following orders
regarding the reducing power of metal is correct ? (3) Na is dissolved in Hg while it does not dissolve
in Pt
(1) Ag > Cr > Mg > K (2) Ag < Cr < Mg < K
(4) Conc. of H+ ions is larger when Pt electrode is
(3) Ag > Cr > K > Mg (4) Cr > Ag > Mg > K
taken
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
13. In electrolysis of dilute H2SO4, what is liberated at 2H+ + 2e = H2 (g) ; ± 0.0 V
anode ? Fe3+ (aq) + e = Fe2+ (aq); + 0.77 V
(1) H2 (2) SO4 2–
Which is the strongest oxidising agent ?
(3) SO2 (4) O2
(1) Zn (s) (2) Cr (s)
14. When an acid cell (lead storage battery or cell) is (3) H2 (g) (4) Fe3+ (aq)
charged then :
21. One gm metal M+2 was discharged by the passage
(1) voltage of cell increases of 1.81 ´ 1022 electrons. What is the atomic weight
(2) electrolyte of cell dilutes of metal?
(3) resistance of cell increases (1) 33.35 (2) 133.4 (3) 66.7 (4) 55
(4) none of the above
22. Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 10000 C
15. In the electrolysis of a copper(II) chloride solution, to furnish aluminium metal. The cathode reaction
the mass of the cathode increased by 3.2 g. What is Al+3 + 3e– ® Al. To prepare 5.12 kg of aluminium
occurred at the copper anode ? metal by this method would require
(1) 0.05 mol of Cu2+ passed into the solution (1) 5.49 ´ 107 C of electricity
(2) 0.56 L of O2 was liberated (2) 1.83 ´ 107 C of electricity
(3) 0.1 mol of Cu passed into the solution
2+
(3) 5.49 ´ 104 C of electricity
(4) 0.112 L of Cl2 was liberated
(4) 5.49 ´ 1010 C of electricity
16. The passage of a constant current through a solution
23. One mole of electron passes through each of the
of dilute H2 SO4 with ‘Pt’ electrodes liberated 336
solution of AgNO3, CuSO4 and AlCl3 when Ag, Cu
cm3 of a mixture of H2 and O2 at S.T.P. The quantity
and Al are deposited at cathode. The molar ratio of
of electricity that was passed is
Ag, Cu and Al deposited are
(1) 96500 C (2) 965 C
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 6 : 3 : 2 (3) 6 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 : 6
1
(3) 1930 C (4) faraday 24. If x specific resistance of the electrolyte solution
100
and y is the molarity of the solution, then L m is
17. Which of the following is not a function of salt
given by
bridge in an electrochemical cell ?
(1) To maintain electrical neutrality of the solution 1000x x 1000 xy
(1) (2) 1000 (3) (4)
(2) To complete the circuit so that current can flow y y xy 1000
0
(3) To supply ions to cathodic and anodic
25. The limiting molar conductivities L m for NaCl, KBr
compartment.
and KCl are 126, 152 and 150 S cm 2 mol –1
(4) To increase cell voltage 0
respectively. The L m for NaBr is
18. A given cell reaction is spontaneous when :
(1) 128 S cm2 mol–1 (2) 176 S cm2 mol–1
(1) E°red is negative (2) E°red is positive
(3) 278 S cm2 mol–1 (4) 302 S cm2 mol–1
(3) Ecell is positive (4) DG = 0
26. In a cell that utilizes the reaction Zn(s) + 2H+ (aq)
19. º
If E Fe2+
/ Fe is x1,
º
EFe3+
/ Fe is x2 then
E0Fe3+ / Fe2+ will be ® Zn2+(aq) + H2(g) addition of H 2SO4 to cathode
compartment, will
(1) 3x2 – 2x1 (2) x2 – x1
(3) x2 + x1 (4) 2x1 + 3x2 (1) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the left
20. The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the (2) lower the E and shift the equilibrium to the right
following half-reactions are given against each. (3) increase the E and shift the equilibrium to the
Zn2+ (aq) + 2e = Zn (s) ; – 0.762 right
Cr3+ (aq) + 3e = Cr (s) ; – 0.74 V (4) increase the E and shift the equilibrium to the
left
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
30. The amount of electricity which releases 2.0g of
27. The E 0 3 + 2 + values for Cr, Mn Fe and Co aree
M |M gold from a gold salt is same as that which dissolves
– 0.41, + 1.57, 0.77 and 1.97 V respectively. For 0.967 g of copper anode during the electrolysis of
which one of these metals the change in oxidation copper sulphate solution. What is the oxidation
state from +2 to +3 is easiest? number of gold in the gold state ? (At. wt. of Cu =
(1) Cr (2) Mn (3) Fe (4) Co 63.5; Au = 197)
NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS 31. When a molten salt was electrolysed for 5 min with
9.65 A current, 0.72g of the metal was deposited.
28. How many faradays are required for reduction of 1
mol C6H5NO2 into C6 H5NH2 ? Calculate the Eq. wt. of metal.
29. What is the equivalent weight of 02 in the following 32. During the electrolysis of a concentrated brine
solution. Calculate the moles of chlorine gas
1 produced by the passage of 4F electricity. .
reaction, H 2O + O2 + 2e - ¾¾
® 2OH - ?
2 Home work: NCERT: 3.1 to 3.6
ANS WER KEY

1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (2)
11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4)
21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (1) 28. 6. 29. 8 30. 3
31. 6 32. 2
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 21 CHEMICAL KINETICS C HE M I S T R Y
1. Rate constant for the reaction is 1.5 × 107 sec–1 at 7. A second order reaction between A and B is
50°C and 4.5 × 107 sec–1 at 100°C. What is the value elementary reaction A + B ® Product.
of activation energy ? Rate law expression of this reaction will be :
(1) 220 J mol –1
(2) 2300 J mol –1
(1) Rate = k [A][B] (2) Rtae = k[A]0 [B]2
(3) 2.2 × 103 J mol–1 (4) 2.2 × 104 J mol–1
(3) Rate = k[A]2[B]0 (4) Rate = k[A]3/2 [B]1/2
2. Which of the following is correct ?
8. Which of the following is correct for zero and first
(1) Molecularity of a reaction can be fractional order reactions respectively, where 'a' is initial
(2) Zero order reaction never stops concentration of the reactant ?
(3) A first order reaction must be homogenous 1 1
(1) t1/ 2 µ a,t1/ 2 µ (2) t1/ 2 µ a,t1/ 2 µ
(4) The frequency factor 'A' in Arrhenius equation a2 a
- Ea / RT
(3) t1/2 µ a, t1/2 µ a0 (4) t1/2 µ a0, t1/2 µa
(k = Ae ) increases with increase in
9. A reaction takes place in three steps with activation
temperature
energy E a1 = 180 kJ/mol, E a2 = 80 kJ/mol, and
3. Which of the following is pseudo unimolecular
reaction ? E a3 = 50 kJ/mol respectively. Overall rate constant
(1) 2H2O2 ® 2H2O + O2 2/3
ék k ù
(2) C6H5N2Cl + HOH ® C6H5OH + N2 + HCl of the reaction is k = ê 1 2 ú .
ë k3 û
(3) CH3COOC2H5+NaOH®CH3COONa + C2H5OH The activation energy of the reaction will be :
(4) 2O3 ® 3O2 (1) 140 kJ/mol (2) 150 kJ/mol
4. The order and molecularity of the chain reaction, (3) 43.44 kJ/mol (4) 100 kJ/mol
H 2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ¾¾
hv
® 2HCl(g), are : 10. Consider the following statements :
(1) 2, 0 (2) 0, 2 1. The rate of reaction is always proportional to
the concentrations of reactants.
(3) 1, 1 (4) 3, 0
2. The order of an elementary chemical reaction
5. A reactant (1) forms two products : A ¾¾
k1
®B step can be determined by examining its
Activation energy E a1 , A ¾¾
k2
® C Activation stoichiometry.
3. The first order reactions follows an exponential
energy E a2 , If Ea 2 = 2Ea1 , then k1 and k2 will be time course.
related as : Of these statements :
(1) k 2 = k1e Ea1 / RT (2) k 2 = k 1e Ea2 / RT (1) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(2) 1 and 2 are correct
(3) k 1 = Ak 2 e Ea1 / RT (4) k 1 = 2k 2 e Ea 2 / RT
(3) 2 and 3 are correct
6. Collision theory is satisfactory for : (4) 1 and 3 are correct
(1) first order reactions 11. A reaction A ® B, involves following mechanism :
(2) second order reactions Step 1 : A ¾¾
k1
® B (fast)
(3) bimolecular reactions
Step 2 : B ¾¾
k2
® C (slow)
(4) zeroth order reactions
Step 2 : C ¾¾
k3
® D (fast)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
The rate law of the reaction may be given as : Mechanism II :
(1) rate = k1[A] (2) rate = k2[B] O3 (g) O2 (g) + [O] (fast)
(3) rate = k3[C] (4) rate = k1k2k3 [B][C]
12. For a gaseous reaction, the following data were NO3 (g) + [O] ¾¾
® NO3 (slow)
recorded :
NO3 (g) + NO2 (g) ¾¾
® N 2 O5 (fast)
Concentration in (1) I only (2) II only (3) Both I and II
0.1 0.05 0.025 0.0125
mol L-1 (4) Neither I nor II
Half-life in sec 30 29.9 30.1 30
15. Tow different first order reactions have rate constants
The order of reaction is : k1 and k2 at T1(k1 > k2). If temperature is increased
(1) second (2) first from T1 to T2, then new constant become k3 and k4
respectively. which among the following relations
(3) zero (4) fractional
is correct ?
13. The half-life of second order reaction is :
(1) k1 > k2 = k3 = k4 (2) k1 < k3 and k2 < k4
(1) inversely proportional to the square of the initial (3) k1 = k3 = k4 (4) k1 > k2 > k3 > k4
concentration of the reactants
16. In the reaction, A + B A + B ¾¾
® C + D, the rate
(2) inversely proportional to the initial concentration
of reactants æ dx ö
çè dt ÷ø when plotted again time 't' gives a straight line
(3) proportional to the initial concentration of
reactants parallel to time axis. The order and rate of reaction
(4) independent of the initial concentration of will be :
reactants (1) 1, k + 1 (2) 0, k (3) 1, k + 1 (4) k, k + 1
14. Consider this reaction : 17. In the Haber process of ammonia manufacture,
2NO 2 (g) + O 3 (g) ¾¾

® N 2 O5 (g) + O2 (g) N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) ¾¾
® 2NH 3 (g) the rate of
The reaction of nitrogen dioxide and ozone d[NH3 ]

appearance of NH3 is : = 2 ´ 10-4 mol L-1 sec -1
represented is first order in NO2 (g) and in O3 (g). dt
Which of these possible reaction mechanisms is The rates of the reaction expressed in terms of N2
consistent with the rate law ? and H2 will be :
Mechanism I : Rates in terms of H2 Rates in terms of N2
NO2 (g) + O3 (g) ¾¾
® NO3 (g) + O2 (g) (slow) (mol L –1
sec )
–1
(mol L–1 sec–1 )
(1) 3 × 10–4 2 × 10–4 (2) 3 × 10–4 1 × 10–4
NO3 (g) + NO 2 (g) ¾¾
® N 2O 5 (g) (fast)
(3) 1 × 10–4 3 × 10–4 (4) 2 × 10–4 2 × 10–4
Home work: NCERT all exercise
ANS WER KEY

1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (2)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
1. 2NO + 2H2 ¾¾® N2 + 2H2O. The experimental rate 6. Reaction A ® B follows second order kinetics.
law for above reaction is Rate = k [NO]2 [H2]. When Doubling the concentration of A will increase the
time is in minutes and the concentration is in moles/ rate of formation of B by a factor of :
L, the units for k are (1) 1/4 (2) 1/2
moles3
moles (3) 2 (4) 4
(1) (2)
L3 - min L - min 7. For the reaction 2NO2 ¾¾® N2O2 + O2,
2 2
moles L
(3) (4) d[NO2 ]
L2 - min moles 2 - min rate expression is as follows – = K [NO2]n
dt
2. The differential rate law equation for the elementary , where K = 3 × 10–3 mol–1 L sec–1. If the rate of
reaction A + 2B ¾¾®
K
3C, is : formation of oxygen is 1.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 sec–1 then
the molar concentrations of NO2 in mole L–1 is
d [A] d [B] d [C]
(1) – =- = = k [A] [B]2 (1) 1.5 × 10–4 (2) 0.0151
dt dt dt
(3) 0.214 (4) 0.316
d [A ] 1 d [B] 1 d [C] 8. Decomposition of NH 4 NO 2 (aq) into N 2 (g) and
(2) – =- = = k [A]2 [B]
dt 2 dt 3 dt 2H 2 O (l) is first order reaction Which of the
following graph is correct?
d [A ] 1 d [B] 1 d [C]
(3) – =- = = k [A] [B]2
dt 2 dt 3 dt
(4) None of these
(1) (2)
d [A]
3. For the reaction 2A ¾¾® B + 3C; if – = k1
dt
d [B] d [C]
[A]2; = k2 [A]2; = k3 [A]2 the correct
dt dt
reaction between k1, k2, and k3 is : (3) (4)
(1) k1 = k2 = k3 (2) 2k1 = k2 = 3 k3
9. A first order reaction is 75% completed in 100
(3) 4k1 = k2 = 3 k3 (4) k 1 = k 2 = k 3 minutes. How long time will it take for it’s 87.5%
2 3
completion?
4. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) 125 min (2) 150 min
(1) Unit of rate of disappearance is Ms–1
(3) 175 min (4) 200 min
(2) Unit of rate of reaction is Ms–1
10. For the zero order reaction A ® B + C; initial
(3) Unit of rate constant k is depend on order
concentration of A is 0.1 M. If A = 0.08 M after 10
(4) Unit of k for first order reaction is Ms–1
minutes, then it’s half-life and completion time are
5. The rate expression for reaction A (g) + B(g) ® respectively :
C(g) is rate = k[A]1/2 [B]2. What changes in rate if
(1) 10 min; 20 min
initial concentration of A and B increase by factor
(2) 2 × 10–3 min, 10–3 min
4 and 2 respectively ?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 25 min, 50 min
(4) 250 min, 500 min.
(3) 8 (4) None of these
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
11. The accompanying figure depicts the change in 18. A catalyst is a substance which :
concentration of species A and B for the reaction (1) increases the equilibrium concentration of the
A B, as a function of time, the point of product
intersection of the two curves represents
(2) changes the equilibrium constant of the reaction
(1) t1/2
(3) shortens the time to reach equilibrium
(2) t3/4
(4) supplies energy of the reaction
(3) t2/3
19. The rate constant for the reaction, 2N2O5 ® 4NO2
(4) data insufficient to predict
+ O2, is 3.0 × 10–5 sec–1. If the rate is 2.40 × 10–5
12. In the following reaction A ® B + C, rate constant mol litre–1 sec–1 , then the concentration of n2SO 5
is 0.001 Ms–1. If we start with 1 M of A then conc. (in mol litre–1)
of A and B after 10 minutes are respectively :
(1) 1.4 (2) 1.2 (3) 0.04 (4) 0.8
(1) 0.5 M, 0.5 M (2) 0.6 M, 0.4 M
20. If 'I' is the intensity of absorbed light and 'C' is the
(3) 0.4 M, 0.6 M (4) none of these
concentration of AB for the photochemical process,
13. The order of a reaction A ® product in which half the AB + hv ® AB, the rate of the formation of AB is
reagent is reacted is half an hour, three quarters in one
directly proportional to :
hour and seven - eighth in one and half hours is
(1) C (2) I (3) I2 (4) C.I
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) zero (4) –1
21. The rate law of a chemical reaction given below :
14. Rate constant k = 2.303 min for a particular
–1
reaction. The initial concentration of the reaction is 2 NO( g ) + O2( g ) ¾¾

® 2 NO2( g )
1 mol/litre then rate of reaction after 1 minute is :
is given as rate = K ( NO2 ) ( O2 ) . How will the rate
2
(1) 2.303 M min–1 (2) 0.2303 M min–1
(3) 0.1 M min –1
(4) none of these of reaction change if the volume of the reaction
15. Two first order reaction have half-lives in the ratio vessel is reduced to 1/4 of its original value ?
8 : 1. Calculate the ratio of time intervals t1 : t2. The NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
th
æ 1ö 22. The rate of decomposition of a substance increases
time t 1 and t 2 are the time period for ç ÷
è4ø by a factor of 2.25 for 1.5 times increase in
th
æ3ö concentration of substance at same temperature.
completion of 1st reaction and ç ÷ 2nd completion
è4ø Find the order of the reaction.
rxn repectively. 23. In a second order reaction, when the concentration of
(1) 1 : 0.301 (2) 0.125 : 0.602 both the reactants arc equal, the reaction is completed
(3) 1 : 0.62 (4) none of these 20% in 500 seconds. How long (seconds) it would
16. The rate constant of a reaction depends on : take for the reaction to go to 60% completion?
(1) temperature 24. For a zero order chemical reaction,
(2) initial concentration of the reactants 2NH3(g) ¾¾
® N2(g) + 3H2(g)
(3) time of reaction (4) extent of reaction Rate of reaction = 0.1 atm/sec. initially only
17. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction ammonia is present and its pressure = 3 arm.
depends on the : calculate total pressure at t = 10 sec.
(1) concentration of the reactant 25. 90% of a first order reaction was completed in 3
(2) concentration of the product minutes. When (minutes) will 99.9% of the reaction
(3) time (4) temperature be complete?
ANS WER KEY

1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (2)
21. 64 22. 2 23. 3000 24. 5 25. 9
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
1. Consider the chemical reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) ® 6. The rate law for the reaction, RCl + NaOH(aq) ®
2NH3(g). The rate of this reaction can be expressed ROH + NaCl is given by, Rate = k1[RCl]. The rate
in terms of time derivative of concentration of N2(g), of the reaction will be :
H2 (g) or NH3 (g). Identify the correct relationship (1) Doubled on doubling the concentration of
amongst the rate expressions.
sodium hydroxide
1 1 (2) halved on reducing the concentration of alkyl
(1) Rate = – d[N2]/dt = – d[H2]/dt = d[NH2]/dt
3 2
hailed to one half
(2) Rate = – d[N2]/dt = – 3d[H2]/dt = 2d[NH3]/dt (3) increased on increasing the temperature of the
(3) Rate d[N2]/dt =
1
d[H2]/dt =
1
d[NH3]/dt reaction
3 2
(4) unaffected by increasing the temperature of the
(4) Rate = – d[N2]/dt = – d[H2]/dt = d[NH3]/dt reaction
2. In a first order reaction the concentration of reactant
decreases from 800 mol/dm 3 to 50 mol/dm 3 in 7. For a first order reaction, A ¾¾
® P, the temperature
2 × 104 sec. The rate constant of reaction in sec–1 is: (T) dependent rate constant 'k' was found to follow
(1) 2 × 104
(2) 3.45 × 10 –5
200
(3) 1.386 × 10–4 (4) 2 × 10–4 the equation log10 k = 6 - . The pre-exponential
T
3. Which one of the following statement for order of factor 'A' and activation energy Ea, respectively are:
reaction is not correct ? (1) 1 × 106s–1 and 9.2 kJ mol–1
(1) Order can be determined experimentally (2) 6.0s–1 and 16.6 kJ mol–1
(2) Order of reaction is equal to sum of the power (3) 1 × 106s–1 and 16.6 kJ mol–2
of concentration terms in differential rate law (4) 1 × 106s–1 and 383 kJ mol–1
(3) It is not affected with the stoichiometric 8. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant 'k'
coefficient of the reactants with temperature (T) are given blow. The plot that
(4) Order cannot be frictional follows Arrhenius equation is :
4. Consider a reaction aG + bH ® Products. When
concentration of both the reactants G and H is
doubled rate increase by eight times. However, k k
when concentration of G is doubled keeping the (1) (2)

consecration of H fixed, the rate is doubled. The T T
overall order of the reaction is :
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3 k
5. Under the same reaction conditions, initial (3)

concentration of 1.386 mol dm –3 of a substance T
becomes half in 40 second and 20 second through
first order and zero order kinetics respectively. Ratio
(k1/k0) of the rate constants for first order (k1 ) and
k
zero order (k0) of the reactions is :
(4)
(1) 0.5 mol–1 dm3 (2) 1 mol dm–3
T
(3) 1.5 mol dm–3 (4) 2 mol–1 dm3
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
9. For the first order reaction 15. In a consecutive first order reaction,
2N2 O5 (g)®4NO2 (g) + O2 (g) A ¾¾ k1
® B ¾¾
k2
® C (where, k 1 and k 2 are the
(1) the concentration of the reactant decreases respective rate constants) species B has trasient
exponentially with time existence. Therefore :
(2) the half-life of the reaction decreases with (1) k1 » k 2 (2) k1 » 2k 2
increasing temperature
(3) k1 >> k 2 (4) k1 << k 2
(3) the half-life of the reaction depends on the initial
concentration of the reactant 16. For a gaseous reaction, the rate of reaction is
(4) the reaction proceeds to 99.6% completion in expressed in terms of
dP
instead of
dC
or
dn
, where
dt dt dt
eight half-life duration
C is concentration and n is the number of moles.
d[P] Hence, the relation between expression is :
10. The overall are , for the reaction
dt
dC dn V dP
(1) = =

K
dt dt RT dt
2A B;B + C ¾¾
kf
® P is given by :
(1) K kf[A]2[C] (2) K[A][B] dC 1 dn 1 dP
(2) = = =
dt V dt RT dt
(3) kf[B][C] (4) K kf[A]2 [B][C]
11. For a first order reaction, the half-life is 50 sec. dP dn dC
(3) = =
Identify the correct statement from the following : dt dt dt
(1) the reaction is complete in 100 sec (4) None of these
(2) the reaction begins after 50 sec
dP dn dC d[NH3 ]
(3) the same quantity of reactant is consumed for 17. For the reaction, = = , - = k 1[NH 3 ];
dt dt dt dt
very 50 sec of the reaction
(4) quantity of reactant remaining after 100 sec is d[N 2 ] d[H 2 ]
= k 2 [NH 3 ]; = k 3 [NH3 ]
half of what remains after 50 sec dt dt
12. For the reaction, A ® Product, the plot of [A] versus The reaction between k1, k2 and k3 may be given
time is straight line, the order of reaction is : as:
(1) Zero (2) first (1) 1.5k1 = 3k2 = k3 (2) 2k1 = k2 = 3k3
(3) second (4) pseudo first (3) k1 = k2 = k3 (4) k1 = 3k2 = 2k3
13. For a first order reaction, if the time taken for 18. The given data are for the reaction :
completion of 50% of the reaction is t second, the
2NO(g) + Cl2(g) ® 2NOCl(g) at 298 K
time required for completion of 99.9% of the
[Cl 2 ] [NO] Initial rate
reaction is :
(mol L–1 sec–1 )
(1) 10t (2) 5t
(3) 100t (4) 2t I 0.05 M 0.05 M 1 × 10–3
14. The decomposition of a gas on surface follows the II 0.15 M 0.05 M 3 × 10–3
III 0.05 M 0.15 M 9 × 10–3
kP
rate law : Rate µ The rate law for the reaction is :
1 + kP
(1) rate = k [NO][Cl2]
where, P is pressure and k is a constant. The order
of the reaction at high pressure is : (2) rate = k [Cl2][NO]2
(1) zero (2) 1/2 (3) rate = k [Cl2]2[NO]
(3) 1 (4) 2 (4) rate = k [Cl2]
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS 22. Carbon monoxide reacts with O 2 to form CO 2 :
19. Half-life for the zero order reaction, 2CO(g) + O 2 (g)® 2CO 2(g) information on this
reaction is given in the table below.
A(g) ® B(g) + C(g) and half-life for the first order
reaction X(g)® Y(g) + Z(g) are equal. If completion
[CO] mol/L [O2 ]mol/L Rate of reaction (mol/L. min)
time for the zero order reaction is 13.86min, then 0.02 0.02 -5
4 × 10
calculate the rate constant (in hr–1 ) for the reaction 0.04 0.02 -4
1.6 × 10
X(g)® Y(g) + Z(g). -5
0.02 0.040 8 × 10
20. 5A® Product
In above reaction, half-life period is directly What is the value for the rate constant for the
proportional to initial concentration of reactant reaction in proper related unit ?
The initial rate of reaction is 400 mol lit–1 min–1. 23. For any acid catalysed reaction, A ¾¾®
H
B
+
Calculate the half-life period (in sec) when initial

concentration of reactant is 200mol lit–1 . Half-life period is independent of concentration of
A at given pH. At same concentration of A half -life
21. In an elementary reaction A(g) + 2B(g) ® C(g) the
time is lOmin at pH = 2 and half-life time is 100
initial pressure of A and B are PA = 0.40 atm and
min at pH = 3. If the rate law expression of reaction
PB = 0.60 atm respectively. After time T, if pressure
is r = k[A]x[H+]y then calculate the value of (x + y).
of C is observed 0.1 atm, then find the value of
ri (initial rate of reaction)
rt ( rate of reaction after time t )
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (BC) 7. (4) 8. (4) 9. (ABD)
10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (2)
19. 6 20. 2 21. 0 22. 5 23. 2
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 24 SURFACE CHEMISTRY C HE M I S T R Y
1. Which gas will be adsorbed on a solid to greater 11. The Tyndall effect associated with colloidal particles
extent. is due to
(1) A gas having non polar molecule (1) presence of electrical charges
(2) A gas having highest critical temperature (Tc) (2) scattering of light
(3) A gas having lowest critical temperature. (3) absorption of light
(4) reflection of light
(4) A gas having highest critical pressure.
12. Which one of the following is not applicable to
2. Which of the following factors affects the adsorption
chemisorption?
of a gas on solid?
(1) Its heat of adsorption is high
(1) Tc(critical temp.) (2) Temperature of gas
(2) It takes place at high temperature
(3) Pressure of gas (4) All of them
(3) It is reversible
3. The volume of gases NH3, CO2 and CH4 adsorbed (4) It forms mono-molecular layers
by one gram of charcoal at 298 K are in
13. In the colloidal state the particle size ranges
(1) CH4 > CO2 > NH3 (2) NH3 > CH4 > CO2
(1) below 1 nm
(3) NH3 > CO2 > CH4 (4) CO2 > NH3 > CH4 (2) between 1 nm to 100 nm
4. The heat of physisorption lie in the range of (3) more than 100 nm
(1) 1 – 10 kJ mol –1
(2) 20 to 40 kJ mol –1 (4) none of the above
(3) 40 to 200 kJ mol–1 (4) 200 to 400 kJ mol–1 14. All colloids
5. Adsorption is multilayer in case of (1) are suspensions of one phase in another
(1) physical adsorption (2) chemisorption (2) are two-phase systems
(3) in both (4) none of the these (3) contain only water-soluble particles
6. Reversible adsorption is (4) are true solutions
(1) chemical adsorption (2) physical adsorption 15. Colloids can be purified by
(3) both (4) None (1) condensation (2) peptization
7. Which of the following is not a gel ? (3) coagulation (4) dialysis
(1) Cheese (2) Jellies 16. Milk is an example of

(1) emulsion (2) suspension
(3) Curd (4) Milk
(3) foam (4) sol.
8. An emulsion is a colloidal system of
17. Colloidal particles in a sol. can be coagulated by
(1) two solids (2) two liquids
(1) heating
(3) one gas and one solid(4) one gas and one liquid (2) adding an electrolyte
9. Which of the following is a lyophobic colloid? (3) adding oppositely charged sol
(1) Gelatin (2) Sulphur (3) Starch (4) Gum (4) any of the above methods
10. The nature of bonding forces in adsorption 18. Emulsifier is an agent which
(1) purely physical such as Van Der Waal's forces (1) accelerates the dispersion
(2) purely chemical (2) homogenizes an emulsion
(3) both chemical and physical always (3) stabilizes an emulsion
(4) None of these (4) aids the flocculation of an emulsion
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
19. Fog is a colloidal system of 27. As2S3 sol is
(1) gas in liquid (2) liquid in gas (1) positive colloid (2) negative colloid
(3) gas in gas (4) gas in solid (3) neutral colloid (4) none of the above
20. Given below are a few electrolytes, indicate which 28. At the critical micelle concentration (CMC) the
one among them will bring about the coagulation surfactant molecules
of a gold sol. quickest and in the least of molar (1) decompose (2) dissociate
concentration?
(3) associate
(1) NaCl (2) MgSO4
(4) become completely soluble
(3) Al2(SO4)3 (4) K4[Fe(CN)6 ]
29. Alums purify muddy water by
21. When a lyophobic colloidal solution is observed ,
(1) dialysis (2) absorption
we can see
(3) coagulation (4) forming true solution
(1) light scattered by colloidal particle
30. Solute dispersed in ethanol is called
(2) size of the colloidal particle
(1) emulsion (2) micelle
(3) shape of the colloidal particle
(3) hydrophilic sol. (4) alcosols
(4) relative size of the colloidal particle
31. Which one of the following is lyophillic colloid ?
22. Colloidal solutions are classified on the basis of (1) Milk (2) Gum
(1) molecular size (2) orgainc or inorganic
(3) Fog (4) Blood
(3) surface tension value 32. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is
(4) pH value called
23. The electrical charge on a colloidal particle is (1) suspension (2) emulsion
indicated by (3) gel (4) true solution
(1) Brownian movement 33. The process which is catalysed by one of the product
(2) electrophoresis is called
(3) ultra microscope (1) acid-base catalysis
(4) molecular sieves (2) autocatalysis
24. The minimum concentration of an electrolyte (3) negative catalysis
required to cause coagulation of a sol is called (4) homogeneous catalysis
(1) flocculation value (2) gold number 34. Tyndall effect would be observed in a
(3) protective value (4) none of these (1) solution (2) solvent
25. Smoke precipitator works on the principle of (3) precipitate (4) colloidal sol.
(1) distribution law 35. A liquid is found to scatter a beam of light but leaves
(2) neutralization of charge on colloids no residue when passed through the filter paper.
The liquid can be described as
(3) Le-Chaterlier's principle
(4) addition of electrolytes (1) a suspension (2) oil
(3) a colloidal sol. (4) a true solution
26. Which one of following statements is not correct in
respect of lyophilic sols? 36. The ability of an ion to bring about coagulation of
a given colloid depends upon
(1) There is a considerable interaction between the
dispersed phase and dispersion medium (1) its charge
(2) the sign of the charge alone
(2) These are quite stable and are not easily coagulated
(3) the magnitude of the charge
(3) They need stabilizing agent
(4) both magnitude and sign of charge
(4) The particle are hydrated
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
37. An arsenious sulphide sol. carries a negative charge. 42. The gold number of gelatin is 0.01. Calculate the
The maximum precipitating power of this sol. is amount of gelatin to be added to 1000 mL of a
possessed by colloidal sol of gold to prevent its coagulation,
(1) K2 SO4 (2) CaCl2 before adding 1 mL of 10% NaCl solution.
(3) Na3PO4 (4) AlCl3 43. 526.3 mL of 0.5 m HC1 is shaken with 0.5 g of
38. Which of the following is an example of associated activated charcoal and filtered. The concentration
colloid? of the filtrate is reduced to 0.4 m. Calculate the
amount of adsorption (x/m)?
(1) Protein + water (2) Soap + water
44. In an adsorption experiment, a graph between log
(3) Rubber + benzene (4) As2O3 + Fe(OH)3
(x/m) versus log P was found to be linear with a
39. Adsorption of gases on solid surface is generally
slope of 45°. The intercept on they axis was found
exothermic because
to be 0.301. Calculate the amount of the gas
(1) enthalpy is positive (2) entropy decreases adsorbed per gram of charcoal under a pressure of
(3) entropy increases (4) free energy increases 3.0 atm.
40. The disperse phase in colloidal iron (III) hydroxide 45. Count the number of correct statements
and colloidal gold is positively and negatively (a) Minimum potential required for electrophoresis
charged respectively. Which of the following is not
is called Zeta potential.
correct ?
(b) Tyndall effect increases with increase in
(1) Magnesium chloride solution coagulates the gold
difference in size of particle and wavelength of
sol more readily than iron (III) hydroxide sol.
light used.
(2) Sodium sulphate solution cause coagulation in
(c) Minimum amount of electrolyte in millimoles
both sols.
per 100 mL required to cause precipitation in
(3) Mixing of the sols has no effect. two hours is called coagulating value.
(4) Coagulation in both sols can be brought about (d) Both physical and chemical adsorption
by electrophoresis. decreases with temperature.
NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS (e) Chemical bonds may be covalent or ionic in
41. For the coagulation of 500 mL of arsenious sulphide chemical adsorption.
sol, 2mL of 1 MN a Cl is required. What is the (f) Zeolites are shape selective catalyst.
flocculation value of NaCl?
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (3)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30. (4)
31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (3) 36. (4) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (3)
41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (4) 44. (6) 45. (2)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 25 COORDINATION COMPOUNDS C HE M I S T R Y
1. Which of the following acts as a bidentate ligand in 9. The coordination number of a central metal atom in
complex formation a complex is determined by
(1) Acetate (2) Oxalate (1) The number of ligands around a metal ion
bonded by sigma and pi-bonds both.
(3) Thiocyanate (4) EDTA
(2) The number around a metal ion bonded by pi-bonds
2. The co-ordination number of cobalt in the complex
(3) The number of ligands around a metal ion bonded
[Co(en)2 Br2 ]Cl2 is
by sigma bonds
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4 (4) The number of only anionic ligands bonded to
3. Which of the following ligands forms a chelate the metal ion
(1) Acetate (2) Oxalate 10. A monodentate ligand has
(3) Cyanide (4) Ammonia (1) One co-ordinate site
4. According to Werner’s theory (2) Two co-ordinate sites
(1) Primary valency can be ionized (3) Any number of co-ordinate sites
(2) Secondary valency can be ionized (4) No capacity to co-ordinate
(3) Primary and secondary valencies both cannot 11. Among the properties (1) reducing (2) oxidising (3)
be ionized complexing, the set of properties shown by CN -
(4) Only primary valency cannot be ionized ion towards metal species is
5. Which is the example of hexadentate ligand (1) c, a (2) b, c (3) a, b (4) a, b, c
(1) 2, 2—dipyridyl 12. IUPAC name of [Pt( NH 3 ) 3 (Br )( NO2 )Cl ]Cl is
(2) Dimethyl glyoxime (1) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum (IV) chloride
(3) Aminodiacetate ion (2) Triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum (IV) chloride
(4) Ethylene diammine tetra acetate ion [EDTA] (3) Triamminebromochloronitroplatinum (IV) chloride
6. The coordination number of a metal in coordination (4) Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV) chloride
compounds is
13. The IUPAC name of the complex [Pt ( NH 3 )2 Cl 2 ] is
(1) Same as primary valency
(1) Platinum (II) diammino dichloride
(2) Sum of primary and secondary valencies
(2) Diammino dichloro platinate (IV)
(3) Same as secondary valency
(3) Bis (ammino) dichloro platinum (IV)
(4) None of these
(4) Diammine dichloro platinum (II)
7. The number of ions formed when pentammine
14. The correct name of [Pt ( NH 3 )4 Cl 2 ] [PtCl 4 ] is
chloriclo cobalt (III) sulphate sulphate is dissolved
in water is (1) Tetraammine dichloro platinum (iv) tetrachloro
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) Zero platinate (ii)
8. According to Lewis the ligands are (2) Dichloro tetra ammine platinium (iv) tetrachloro
platinate (ii)
(1) Acidic in nature
(3) Tetrachloro platinum (ii) tetraammine platinate
(2) Basic in nature (iv)
(3) Neither acidic nor basic (4) Tetrachloro platinum (ii) dichloro tetraammine
(4) Some are acidic and others are basic platinate (iv)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
15. In K 4 [Fe (CN )6 ], the E.A.N. of Fe is 23. Which one of the following octahedral complexes
will not show geometric isomerism (A and B are
(1) 33 (2) 35
monodentate ligands)
(3) 36 (4) 26
(1) [MA5 B] (2) [MA2 B4 ]
16. The IUPAC name of K 4 [Fe (CN )6 ] is
(3) [MA3 B3 ] (4) [MA4 B2 ]
(1) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)
24. The number of unpaired electrons in the complex
(2) Potassium ferrocyanide
(3) Tetrapotassium hexacyanoferrate (II) ion [CoF6 ]3- is (Atomic no. of Co = 27)
(4) Tetrapotassium ferroushexacyanide (II) (1) Zero (2) 4 (3) 3 (4)2

17. The IUPAC name of [Ni(CO) 4 ] is 25. Which would exhibit co-ordination isomerism
(1) Tetra carbonyl nickel (II) (1) [Cr( NH 3 )6 ][Co(CN)6 ]

(2) Tetra carbonyl nickel (0) (2) [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]
(3) Tetra carbonyl nickelate (II) (3) [Cr ( NH 3 )6 ]Cl 3
(4) Tetra carbonyl nickelate (0)
(4) [Cr(en) 2 Cl 2 ]+
18. Pick out the complex compound in which the
central metal atom obeys EAN rule strictly 26. [Co(NH 3 )5 NO2 ]Cl 2
and [Co(NH 3 )5 (ONO)]Cl 2 are
(1) K 4 [Fe(CN )6 ] (2) K 3 [ Fe(CN )6 ] related to each other as
(1) Geometrical isomers
(3) [Cr(H 2O)6 ] Cl 3 (4) [Cu( NH 3 )4 ] SO4
(2) Optical isomers
19. The IUPAC name of [Co ( NH 3 )6 ]Cl 3 is
(3) Linkage isomers
(1) Hexammine cobalt (III) chloride
(4) Coordination isomers
(2) Hexammine cobalt (II) chloride
27. [Co( NH 3 ) 5 Br ] and
SO 4 [Co( NH 3 ) 5 SO 4 ]Br are
(3) Triammine cobalt (III) trichloride
examples of which type of isomerism
(4) None of these
(1) Linkage (2) Geometrical
20. The complex chlorocompound diaquatriammine
(3) Ionization (4) Optical
cobalt (III) chloride is represented as
(1) [Co( NH 3 )3 (H 2O)3 ]Cl 2 28. The shape of [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 - ion is
(2) [Co( NH 2 )3 (H 2 O)2 ]Cl 2 (1) Hexagonal (2) Pyrimidal

(3) Octahedral (4) Octagonal
(3) [CoCl( NH 3 )3 (H 2O)2 ]Cl 3
29. Which would exhibit ionisation isomerism
(4) [CoCl( NH 3 )3 (H 2O)2 ]Cl 2
(1) [Cr ( NH 3 )6 ]Cl 3 (2) [Co( NH 3 )5 Br ]SO 4
21. Which of the following is paramagnetic
(3) [Cr(en)2 Cl 2 ] (4) [Cr(en) 3 Cl 3 ]
(1) [Ni(CO)4 ] (2) [Co( NH 3 )6 ]3+
30. [Ti(H 2 O)6 ]+3 is paramagnetic in nature due to

(3) [Ni(CN )4 ] 2-
(4) [NiCl 4 ]2-
(1) One unpaired e - (2) Two unpaired e–
22. Which compound is zero valent metal complex (3) Three unpaired e - (4) No unpaired e -
(1) [Cu( NH 3 )4 ]SO4 31. The number of geometrical isomers for
(2) [Pt ( NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ] [Pt( NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ] is
(3) [ Ni(CO) 4 ] (1) Two (2) One
(4) K 3 [ Fe(CN )6 ] (3) Three (4) Four
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
32. The pair of complex compounds [Cr(H 2 O)6 ]Cl3 and 36. One mole of the complex compound Co( NH 3 )5 Cl 3 ,
[Cr(H 2 O )5 Cl ]Cl 2 H 2 O are an example of gives 3 moles of ions on dissolution in water. One
mole of the same complex reacts with two moles of
(1) Linkage isomerism
AgNO 3 solution to yield two moles of AgCl (s) . The
(2) Ionisation isomerism
structure of the complex is
(3) Coordination isomerism
(1) [Co( NH 3 )5 Cl] Cl 2 (2) [Co( NH 3 )3 Cl 3 ]. 2 NH 3
(4) Hydrate isomerism
33. The type of isomerism present in nitropentamine (3) [Co( NH 3 )4 Cl 2 ] Cl . NH 3 (4) [Co(NH3)4 Cl]Cl2. NH3
chromium (III) chloride is 37. The complex used as an anticancer agent is
(1) Optical (1) trans -[Co( NH 3 )3 Cl 3 ]
(2) Linkage
(2) cis -[PtCl 2 ( NH 3 )2 ]
(3) Ionization
(3) cis - K 2 [PtCl 2 Br2 ]
(4) Polymerisation
34. Which one of the following will give a white (4) Na 2 CO3
precipitate with AgNO3 in aqueous mediun NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
(1) [Co( NH 3 )5 Cl ] ( NO2 )2 38. Find the total number of d electrons in the metal
Ion of the complex [M(NH3)4]2+
(2) [Pt ( NH 3 )2 Cl2 ]
(EAN of metal equal = 35)
(3) [Pt(en)Cl2 ]
39. What is the difference of the number of unpaired
(4) [Pt (NH3 )4 ]Cl2 electrons between Zn2+ and [Zn(NH3 )4 ]2+
35. How many unpaired electrons are present in the 40. For d6 ion in octahedral field in strong field ligand,
central metal ion of [CoCl4 ]2 - what is the number of extra electron pairs with the
respect to free metal ion?
(1) 3
41. What is the denticity of N(CH2CH2NH2)3
(2) 4
42. Total optically inactive complex for [M(AB)2(AA)]
(3) 5
Home work NCERT 9. 1 to 9.15
(4) 2
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (4)
21. (4) 22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (3) 29. (2) 30. (1)
31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (1) 36. (1) 37. (2) 38. 9 39. 0 40. 2
41. 4 42. 0
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 26 COORDINATION COMPOUNDS C HE M I S T R Y
1. Match the complexes in column-I with the EAN of 8. The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom
central atom in column-II: in the following species.
Column-I Column-II NH3, [PtCl4]2–, PCl5 and BCl3 is [At No. Pt = 78]
(1) [Fe(CO)4 ]2– (P) 34 (1) dsp2,sp3d,sp2 & sp3
(2) [Co(NH3 )5Cl]Cl (Q) 35 (2) sp3 ,dsp2, sp 3d, sp 2
(3) K2[Ni(CN)4 ] (R) 36 (3) dsp2,sp2,sp3 & sp3 d
(4) [Cu(NH3) 4] 2+ (S) 37 (4) dsp2, sp3,sp2 & sp3 d
2. The oxidation state of Fe in brown ring complex, 9. The species having tetrahedral shape is :
[Fe(H2 O)5NO]SO4 is (1) [PdCl4]2–
(1) +1 (2) +2 (2) [Ni(CN)4 ]2–
(3) +3 (4) +4 (3) [Pd(CN)4 ]2–
3. The compound which does not show (4) [NiCl4]2–
paramagnetism is 10. The pair of compounds having metals in their highest
(1) [Cu(NH3)4 ]Cl 2 (2) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl oxidation state is
(3) NO (4) NO2 (1) MnO2, FeCl3
4. The number of d-electron is [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+ (2) [MnO4]¯, CrO2Cl2
[At No. of Cr = 24] is
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Co(CN)3]
(1) 2 (2) 3
(4)[NiCl4]2– , [CoCl4]¯
(3) 4 (4) 5
11. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown by–
5. Amongst the following ions which one has the A
highest paramagnetism B B
M
(1) [Cr(H2 O)6] 3+
(2) [Fe(H2 O)6] 2+
(1)
B B
(3) [Cu(H2O)6] 2+
(4) [Zn(H2O)6] 2+
A
A
6. Identify the complexes which are expected to be
A
coloured
M en
(1) Ti(NO3)4 (2) [Cu(NCCH3 )4 ]+BF 4 – (2 )
B
(3) [Cr(NH3 )6 ]Cl 3 (4) K3[VF6 ] B
A
7. The complex ion which has no 'd' electrons in the
central metal atom is : en M en
(3)
[ At No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe= 26, Co = 27 ]
A
(1) [MnO4]¯ en
B
(2) [Co (NH3)6] 3+
M
(3) [Fe(CN)6 ]3– (4)
B
(4) [Cr(H2 O)6]3+ en
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
12. Which one of the following is expected to exhibit Select the correct answer using the codes given
optical isomerism [en = ethylenediamine] – below
(1) Trans-[Co(en)2 Cl2 ] (2) Cis-[Pt(NH3)2 Cl2 ] (1) b & c (2) a, b & c
(3) Cis-[Co(en)2Cl2 ] (4)Trans-Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ] (3) a & c (4) a & b
13. Theoritically the No. of geometrical isomers ex-
NUME RICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
pected for octahedral complex[Mabcdef] is –
16. Give the number of ligands which are negative as
(1) Zero (2) 30
well as flexidentate.
(3) 15 (4) 9
14. The number of geometrical isomers for [Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ] CO32 - , CH 3COO - , X - , H - ,SO 24-
is – 17. How many pairs of enantiomers are possible for JM
(1) Two (2) One (AA) (BC)de]?
(3) Three (4) Four 18. Give the ratio of trans-isomers in [M (AA)b2c2] and
15. Which one of the following pairs of isomers and [Ma4 b2 ], (B) respectively.
types of isomerism are correctly matched – 19. Give the number of unpaired electron present in the
(a) [Co(NH3)5 (NO2)]Cl2 and d-orbitals (whose lobes are present along the axis)
[Co(NH3)5 (ONO)]Cl2 ....Linkage for the complex [Co(SCN)4]2–
(b) [Cu(NH3)4](PtCl4)] and [Pt(NH3)4 ] 20. How many maximum atom (s) is/are present in same
plane of Cr(CO)6 ?
[CuCl4 ]......co-ordination
Home work: NCERT 9. 16 to 9.30
(c) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2)] Br2 and [Pt(NH3)4
Br2 )]Cl2 ......Ionization
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) - R, (2) - S, (3) - P, (4) - Q 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3,4) 7. (1)
8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (2)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 27 d & f-BLOCK C HE M I S T R Y
1. The highest oxidation state of Cr will be 9. Which forms coloured salts

(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) Metals
(3) 4 (4) 6 (2) Non-metals
2. Which statement is true about the transitional ele- (3) p - block elements
ments (4) Transitional elements
(1) They are highly reactive 10. The general electronic configuration of transition
(2) They show variable oxidation states elements is
(3) They have low M.P. (1) (n - 1)d 1-5
(4) They are highly electropositive (2) (n - 1)d 1-10 ns 1
3. Highest (+7) oxidation state is shown by
(3) (n - 1)d 1-10 ns 1-2
(1) Co (2) Cr
(4) ns 2 (n - 1)d 10
(3) V (4) Mn
4. Transitional elements are 11. Transition elements are coloured
(1) All metals (1) Due to small size
(2) Few metals and few non-metals (2) Due to metallic nature
(3) All solids (3) Due to unpaired d - electrons
(4) All highly reactive (4) All of these
5. Which of the following has highest ionic radii 12. Lanthanum is grouped with f-block elements be-
cause
(1) Cr +3 (2) Mn +3
(1) It has partially filled f -orbitals
(3) Fe +3 (4) Co +3
(2) It is just before Ce in the periodic table
6. Which of the following element has maximum den-
(3) It has both partially filled f and d-orbitals
sity
(4) The properties of Lanthanum are very similar
(1) Hg (2) Au to the elements of 4f block
(3) Os (4) Pb
13. The element having electronic configuration
7. Transitional elements exhibit variable valencies be-
belongs to ns 2 (n - 1)d1-10 (n - 2) f 1-14
cause they release electrons from the following or-
bits (1) s-block
(2) p-block
(1) ns orbit
(3) d-block
(2) ns and np orbits
(4) f-block
(3) (n – 1)d and ns orbits
14. Zinc and mercury do not show variable valency like
(4) (n – 1)d orbit
d-block elements because
8. The tendency towards complex formation is maxi-
(1) They are soft
mum in
(2) Their d- shells are complete
(1) s - block elements
(3) They have only two electrons in the
(2) p - block elements
outermost subshell
(3) d - block elements
(4) f - block elements (4) Their d-shells are incomplete
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
15. The transition metals mostly are NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS
(1) Diamagnetic 18. What is the oxidation states of Cr in butterfly
structure.
(2) Paramagnetic
(3) Neither diamagnetic nor paramagnetic 19. Out of the following, how many oxides are acidic.
MnO, Mn2O3, MnO2, MnO3, Mn2O7
(4) Both diamagnetic and paramagnetic
16. Among the following series of transition metal 20. What is the value of x in the Wilkinson's catalyst
[RhCl (Ph3 P)x] which is used as a homogenous
ions, the one where all metals ions have 3d 2
catalyst in the hydrogenation of alkene.
electronic configuration is
21. How many elements of first transition series have
(1) Ti 4 + , V 3 + , Cr 2 + , Mn3 + (2) Ti 2 + , V 3 + , Cr 4 + , Mn5 + half filled d subshell?
(3) Ti 3 + , V 2 + , Cr 3 + , Mn4 + (4) Ti + , V 4 + , Cr 6 + , Mn7 + 22. Find the total number of triangular faces in the
geometry of permanganate ion.
17. Which of the following ground state electronic
Home work:
configurations is correct for d4 system for an isolated
gaseous ion. NCERT all exercise
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
ANS WER KEY

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (3)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (6) 19. (3) 20. (3)
21. (2) 22. (4)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE #28 METALLURGY C HE M I S T R Y
1. The most abundant metal in the earth crust is 10. When ZnS and PbS minerals are present together,
(1) Na (2) Mg then NaCN is added to separate them in the froth
floatation process as a depressant, because
(3) Al (4) Fe
(1) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
2. A mineral is called an ore if
(2) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4]
(1) Metal present in mineral is precious (3) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]
(2) Metal can be extracted from it (4) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN.
(3) Metal can be extracted profitably from it 11. Froth floatation process is used for the concentration
(4) Metal cannot be extracted from it of
3. Metal which can be extracted from all the three (1) Oxide ores (2) Sulphide ores
dolomite, magnesite and carnallite is (3) Chloride ores (4) Amalgams
(1) Na (2) K 12. Magnetic separation is used for increasing
(3) Mg (4) Ca concentration of the following
4. Cinnabar is an ore of (1) Horn silver (2) Calcite
(3) Haematite (4) Magnesite
(1) Hg (2) Cu
13. Froth–floatation method is successful in separating
(3) Pb (4) Zn impurities from ores because
5. Composition of bauxite is (1) The pure ore is lighter than water containing
(1) Al 2 O 3 (2) Al2O3 . H 2O additives like pine oil, cresylic acid etc.
(3) Al2O3 . 2H 2O (4) Al2O3 . 3 H 2O (2) The pure ore is soluble in water containing
additives like pine oil, cresylic acid etc.
6. An important oxide ore of iron is
(3) The impurities are soluble in water containing
(1) Haematite (2) Siderite additives like pine oil, cresylic acid etc.
(3) Pyrites (4) Malachite
(4) The pure ore is not as easily wetted by water as
7. Which of the following ores does not represent the by pine oil, cresylic acid etc
ore of iron 14. Heating of pyrites in air for oxidation of sulphur is called
(1) Haematite (2) Magnetite (1) Roasting (2) Calcination
(3) Cassiterite (4) Limonite (3) Smelting (4) Slagging
8. Galena is 15. Purpose of smelting of an ore is
(1) PbO (2) PbCO3 (1) To oxidise it
(3) PbS (4) PbCl 2 (2) To reduce it
(3) To remove vaporisable impurities
9. All ores are minerals, while all minerals are not ores
(4) To obtain an alloy
because
16. Which of the following processes involves smelting
(1) The metal can’t be extracted economically from
all the minerals (1) ZnCO3 ® ZnO + CO2
(2) Minerals are complex compounds (2) Fe 2O3 + 3C ® 2 Fe + 3CO
(3) The minerals are obtained from mines (3) 2 PbS + 3O2 ® 2 PbO + 2SO2
(4) All of these are correct (4) Al2O3 .2H 2O ® Al2O3 + 2 H 2O
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
17. In metallurgy, flux is a substance used to convert 25. The electrolytic method of reduction is employed
for the preparation of metals that
(1) Infusible impurities to fusible material
(2) Soluble impurities to insoluble impurities (1) Are weakly electropositive
(2) Are moderately electropositive
(3) Fusible impurities to infusible impurities
(4) Mineral into silicate (3) Are strongly electropositive
(4) Form oxides
18. In the manufacture of iron lime stone added to the
26. Which of the following metals cannot be extracted
blast furnace, the calcium ion ends in the form of
by carbon reduction process
(1) Slag (2) Gangue
(1) Pb (2) Al
(3) Calcium metal (4) CaCO3
(3) Hg (4) Zn
19. In the modern blast furnaces, the charge consists of 27. In alumino–thermite process, aluminium is used
a mixture of as
(1) Calcined iron oxides + lime + anthracite coal (1) Oxidising agent (2) Flux
(2) Calcined iron oxides + limestone + coke (3) Reducing agent (4) Solder
(3) Hydrated iron oxides + dolomite + coke 28. After partial roasting, the sulphide of copper is reduced
(4) Iron pyrites + lime +bituminous coal by
20. In blast furnace, the highest temperature is in (1) Reduction by carbon
(2) Electrolysis
(1) Reduction zone (2) Slag zone
(3) Self–reduction
(3) Fusion zone (4) Combustion zone
(4) Cyanide process
21. During extraction of Fe ; slag obtained is
29. In order to refine “blister copper” it is melted in a
(1) FeO (2) FeSiO3 furnace and is stirred with green logs of wood. The
(3) MgSiO3 (4) CaSiO3 purpose is
(1) To expel the dissolved gases in blister copper
22. The final step for the extraction of copper from
copper pyrite in Bessemere converter involves the (2) To bring the impurities to surface and oxidize
them
reaction
(3) To increase the carbon content of copper
(1) 4 Cu2O + FeS ® 8 Cu + FeSO4
(4) To reduce the metallic oxide impurities with
(2) Cu2S + 2Cu2O ® 6Cu + SO2 hydrocarbon gases liberated from the wood
(3) 2Cu2O + FeS ® 4 Cu + Fe + SO2 30.. Which method of purification is represented by the
500 K 1675 K
(4) Cu2S + 2FeO ® 2Cu + 2FeCO + SO2 + 2I 2 ¾¾
equation TiImpure ¾® TiI 4 ¾¾ ¾¾® Ti + 2I 2
Pure
23. CN - solution used in extraction of which metal (1) Cupellation (2) Poling
(1) Ag (2) Ti (3) Van Arkel (4) Zone refining
(3) Zn (4) Sn 31. Cupellation process is used in the metallugry of
(1) Copper (2) Silver
24. General method for the extraction of metal from
(3) Aluminium (4) Iron
oxide ore is
32. Zone refining is a method to obtain
(1) Carbon reduction
(1) Very high temperature
(2) Reduction by aluminium
(2) Ultra pure Al
(3) Reduction by hydrogen (3) Ultra pure metals
(4) Electrolytic reduction (4) Ultra pure oxides
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
33. A metal which is refined by poling is 39. Graph for metal M 2 is above to the graph for M1
(1) Sodium metal in Ellingham diagram, based on this fact find
the CORRECT option. (Both graphs do not intersect
(2) Blister copper
each other at any point)
(3) Zinc (4) Silver
(1) Metal M2 can reduce the oxide of metal M1
34. If the impurity in a metal has a greater affinity for
(2) Metal M1 can reduce the oxide of metal M2
oxygen and is more easily oxidised than the metal,
(3) Both metals can reduce oxides of each other
then the purification of metal may be carried out by
(4) Metal M1 can’t reduce the oxide of metal M2
(1) Poling
(2) Zone refining
40. How many cyanide ions are involved in the
(3) Electrolytic refining
following chemical equation?
(4) Cupellation
- Θ
35. Zone refining is used for the purification of ® éëAu ( CN 2 ) ùû + O H
Au + CN - + H 2 O + O 2 ¾¾
(1) Cu (2) Au
41. Amongst the following, how many ores can be
(3) Ge (4) Ag
concentrated by froth flotation process:
36. Pb and Sn are extracted from their chief ore by
Galena, sphalerite, cassiterite, calamine, chalcocite,
(1) Carbon reduction and self reduction. haematite, argentite
(2) Self reduction and carbon reduction.
42. How many of the following are oxide ores:
(3) Electrolysis and self reduction.
Calamine, cuprite, zincite, chalcocite, haematite,
(4) Self reduction and electrolysis.
bauxite, magnetite, cassiterite
37. When the sample of Cu with Zn impurity is to be
43. Find the number of following reactions which are
purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes
involved in roasting process:
are:
D
Cathode Anode i. S8 + 8O 2 ¾¾ ® 8SO 2
(1) Pure Zn Pure Cu D
ii. P4 + 5O 2 ¾¾ ® P4 O10
(2) Impure sample Pure Cu
D
(3) Pure copper Impure sample iii. 4As + 3O 2 ¾¾ ® 2As 2 O3
38. During the process of electrorefining of copper D
iv. 2ZnS + 3O 2 ¾¾ ® 2ZnO + 2SO 2
some metals present as impurity settle as anode mud.
These are: D
v. ZnCO 3 ¾¾ ® 4ZnO + CO 2
(1) Sn and Ag
44. How many metallic ores are concentrated by
(2) Pb and Zn
magnetic separation method from the given ores?
(3) Ag and Au
Cassiterite, pyrolusite, rutile, magnetite, galena,
(4) Fe and Ni cinnabar.
Home work: NCERT all exercise
ANS WER KEY

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (4)
21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (3) 29. (4) 30. (3)
31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (3) 36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. 8
41. 3 42. 6 43. 4 44. 4
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 29 p-BLOCK C HE M I S T R Y
1. White phosphorus produces the following products 8. Which of the following reaction can not take place
on reaction with conc. NaOH in reality-
(1) NaH2PO2 + PH3
(1) 5F– + FO3– + 6H+ ¾¾
® 3F2 + 3H2O
(2) NaH2PO4 + PH3
(3) Na2HPO3 + PH3 (2) 5Cl– + ClO3– + 6H+ ¾¾
® 3Cl2 + 3H2O
(4) None of these (3) 5Br– + BrO3– + 6H+ ¾¾
® 3Br2 + 3H2O
2. N 2 can be absorbed by calcium carbide at the
temperature around 1000°C, then compound X is (4) 5I– + IO3– + 6H+ ¾¾
® 3I2 + 3H2O
formed. Select the correct statement about X- 9. The decrease in stability of higher oxidation state
(1) Compound X is known as nitrolim in p–block with increasing atomic number is due to
(2) It is a very good fertiliser (1) decrease in bond energy as going down the group
(3) Compound X has cyanamide ion in it's structure (2) energy required to unpair ns2– electrons is not
(4) All are correct compensated by the energy released in forming
3. Choose the incorrect statement the two additional bonds.
(1) NH3 is more soluble compared to PH3 in water (3) both are correct.
(2) Liquid I2 conducts electricity (4) none is correct.
(3) F2 can be prepared by oxidising KF with KMnO4 10. Dinitrogen gas is evolved when sodium nitrite is
(4) XeO3 can be obtained by the hydrolysis of both heated :
XeF4 and XeF6 . (1) alone
4. Which of the following compound is responsible (2) with ammonium chloride
for catching fire spontaneously in Holme's signal. (3) with ammonium hydroxide
(1) P2H4 (2) PH3 (3) C2H4 (4) All of there (4) with potassium nitrate
5. Which of the following ground state electronic 11. Which of the following compounds does not give
configurations is correct for d4 system for an isolated nitrogen on heating ?
gaseous ion. (1) NaN3 (2) (NH4)2SO4
(3) NH4 NO2 (4) NH4ClO4.
(1) (2)
12. Dinitrogen can be purified from the impurities of
(3) (4) oxides of nitrogen and ammonia by passing through
(1) conc. HCl
6. Select correct about "Phosphorus acid".
(2) Alkaline solution of pyrogallol
(1) Monobasic acid in water
(3) An acidified solution of potassium dichromate
(2) OH– acceptor in water
(4) An aqueous solution of KOH.
(3) Reducing acid
13. Ammonia and red hot CuO react to produce
(4) Stronger as compare to nitric acid
(1) Cu2O, N2, H2
7. Which of the following compound is responsible
for catching fire spontaneously in Holme's signal. (2) Cu, H2O, N2
(1) P2H4 (2) PH3 (3) Cu(OH)2 , N2

(4) [Cu(NH3)4](OH)2
(3) C2H4 (4) All of there
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
14. Which compounds are produced when ammonia 21. Which of the following statements about N2O is false
reacts with excess of bromine ? (1) A neutral oxide which does not form hyponitrous
(1) N2 , NH4Br (2) N2 and HBr acid with water
(3) NBr3, HBr (4) NH4Br only (2) An oily liquid
15. The complex which absorbs N2 at room temperature (3) Used as propellant for whipped ice-cream
(1) [Ru(NH3)5 H2O]2+ (4) Used as an anaesthetic
(2) [Ru(NH3 )4H2O]Cl3 22. Which of the following statements is true for HNO2
(3) [Ru(NH3)4NO.H2 O]
(1) It can be prepared by acidifying an aqueous
(4) None of the above solution of nitrite.
16. Which of the following is not correct ? (2) It is unstable weak acid which is known only in
(1) Ammonia is used as refrigerant. aqueous solution.
(2) A mixture of Ca(CN) 2 and C is known as (3) N2O3 is an anhydride of HNO2 .
nitrolium.
(4) All of these
(3) A mixture of Ca(H2PO4)2 and CaSO4. 2H2O is
23. What is true about N2O4 ?
known as superphosphate of lime.
(4) Hydrolysis of NCl3 gives NH3 and HOCl. (1) It is a mixture N2O3 and N2O5
17. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true ? (2) It is absorved by water to form nitric acid
(1) Ammonia burns in air with a pale yellow flame. (3) It is reddish brown gas
(2) Calcium carbide reacts with nitrogen gas at (4) It reacts with water to give mixture of two
1100°Cto form a fertilizer, nitrolim. oxoacids of nitrogen
(3) All the elements of nitrogen family are 24. Which oxide does not act as a reducing agent ?
polyatomic(except nitrogen). (1) NO (2) N2O4
(4) The melting point of antimony is less than arsenic (3) N2 O (4) N2O5
18. Which of the following cannot result in the 25. Action of conc. nitric acid on metallic tin produces
formation of NO ? (1) stannous nitrite (2) stannous nitrate
(1) N2 + O2 (Electric arc) (3) stannic nitrate (4) hydrated stannic oxide
(2) NH3 + O2 ; (Pt / Rh catalyst / 1200 K)
(3) NaNO3 / HCl 26. 3HNO 2 ¾¾
® HNO3 + H 2 O + 2NO
(4) None of these The incorrect statements regarding this reaction is
19. Which will not give precipitate with NH4OH solution (1) It is an example of disproportionation reaction
(1) FeCl3 (aq) (2) Al2 (SO4)3 (aq)
(2) +3 oxidation state of N is more stable than +5
(3) CuSO4 (aq) (4) CrCl3 (aq)
(3) HNO3 is an example of oxoacids
20. When a vapour, at atmospheric pressure was gradually
heated from 25ºC its colour was found to deepen at (4) +3 oxidation state of N changed into +5 and +2
first and then to fade as the temperature was raised oxidation states.
above 160ºC. At 600ºC, the vapour was almost 27. In modern process, white phosphorus is
colourless, but its colour deepened when the pressure manufactured by :
was raised at this temperature. The vapour was :
(1) heating a mixture of phosphorite mineral with
(1) the bromine sand and coke in an electric furnace
(2) a mixture of nitrogen dioxide and dinitrogen (2) heating calcium phosphate with lime
tetraoxide
(3) heating bone ash with coke
(3) pure nitrogen dioxide
(4) heating phosphate mineral with sand.
(4) pure dinitorgen tetraoxide
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
28. Red P can be obtained from white P by : 31. Calcium phosphide react with water or dil. HCl and
(1) heating it with a catalyst in an inert atmosphere gives a compound 'X' pure 'X' is non inflammable
but becoems inflammable owing to the presence of
(2) distilling it in an inert atmosphere
P2H4 or P4 vapours. 'X' is abssorbed in HI to form
(3) dissolving in it CS2 and crystallizing
compound 'Y' Y on treating with KOH gives 'X'.
(4) melting it and pouring the liquid into water Compoud X and Y respectively.
29. The incorrect statement regarding 15th group
(1) X = PH 3 and Y = PH 4 I
hydrides (EH3). [E = N, P, As Sb, Bi]
(1) NH3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 > BiH3 : (2) X = NaH 2 PO 2 and Y = H3 PO 2
Thermal stability (3) X = PH 4 + and Y = PH 4 I

(2) N - H > P - H > As - H > Sb - H > Bi - H : E–H (4) X = PH 3 and Y = H3 PO 2
bond dissociation enthalpy
(3) NH3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 > BiH3 : 32. Number of oxides of nitrogen which produce nitric
Reducing character acid when dissolved in water :
(4) NH3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 > BiH3 : N2O, NO, N2O3, NO2, N2O4, N2O5
33. How many moles of phosphine gas is produced
Basicity
when one mole of calcium phosphide reacts with
30. Select more acidic oxides excess of water?
(I) P2 O3 and P2 O 5 34. Number of moles of sodium hydroxide required for
complete neutralisation of H+
(II) N 2 O3 and As2 O3
In solution which is formed by hydrolysis of on
(III) P2 O 5 and Sb2 O5 mole of PCl5
35. Atomic number of the promoter used in the
(1) P2 O3 , N 2 O3 , P2 O 5 nanufacture of ammonia by Habers process is:
(2) P2 O3 , As2 O3 , Sb 2 O5 36. Total number of moles of P – H
Bonds in products when one mole of white
(3) P2 O5 , N 2 O3 , P2 O5
phosphorus completely reacts with potassium
(4) P2 O 5 , As2 O3 , Sb 2 O 5 hydroxide solution :
Home work: NCERT 7.1 to 7.20
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (2)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (BCD) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (2)
21. (2) 22. (4) 23. (4) 24. (4) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (3)
31. (1) 32. 4 33. 2 34. 8 35. 42 36. 9
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 30 p-BLOCK C HE M I S T R Y
5. Calcium phosphide react with water or dil. HCl and

1. 3HNO 2 ¾¾
® HNO 3 + H 2 O + 2NO
gives a compound 'X' pure 'X' non inflammable but
The incorrect statements regarding this reaction is becoems inflammable owing to the presence of P2H4
(1) It is an example of disproportionation reaction or P 4 vapours. 'X' is abssorbed in HI to form
(2) +3 oxidation state of N is more stable than +5 compound 'Y' Y on treating with KOH gives 'X'.
Compoud X and Y respectively.
(3) HNO3 is an example of oxoacids
(4) +3 oxidation state of N changed into +5 and +2 (1) X = PH 3 and Y = PH 4 I
oxidation states. (2) X = NaH 2 PO 2 and Y = H3 PO 2
2. The incorrect statement regarding 15th group
hydrides (EH3). [E = N, P, As Sb, Bi] (3) X = PH 4 + and Y = PH 4 I
(1) NH3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 > BiH3 : (4) X = PH 3 and Y = H3 PO 2
D
Thermal stability 6. 4H 3 PO 3 ¾¾ ® 3' X '+ ' Y '
(2) N - H > P - H > As - H > Sb - H > Bi - H : E–H The correct statements regarding reaction is/are
(1) It is an example of disproportionation reaction
bond dissociation enthalpy
(2) X is orthophosphoric acid
(3) NH3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 > BiH3 : (3) Y is phosphine gas
Reducing character (4) All are correct statements
7. The incorrect order is
(4) NH3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 > BiH3 :
(1) HF < HCl < HBr < Hl : Acidic strength
Basicity
(2) HF > HCl > HBr > Hl : Thermal stability
3. Select more acidic oxides (3) HF > HCl > HBr > Hl : Boiling point
(I) P2 O3 and P2 O 5 (4) HF > HCl > HBr > Hl : Bond dissociation enthalpy
8. Order of reducing nature
(II) N 2 O3 and As2 O3
(1) H 3 PO3 > H3 PO 2 > H 3 PO 4
(III) P2 O 5 and Sb2 O5
(2) H 3 PO 4 > H 3 PO3 > H3 PO2
(1) P2 O3 , N 2 O3 , P2 O 5 (2) P2 O3 , As2 O3 , Sb2 O5
(3) H 3 PO2 > H3 PO4 > H3 PO3
(3) P2 O5 , N 2 O3 , P2 O5 (4) P2 O 5 , As2 O3 , Sb 2 O 5
(4) H 3 PO2 > H3 PO3 > H 3 PO 4
4. The incorrect statement regarding dinitrogen.
9. The true statement of the acids of phosphorus H3PO2,
(1) It is used in "Haber process" to produce
H3PO3 and H3PO4 is :
ammonia gas.
(1) their acidic nature is : H3PO4 < H3PO3 < H3PO2
(2) Liquid N2 is used as a refrigerant to
(2) the geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral in all
preserve food. these.
(3) It is highly reactive at 300 K. (3) all have one P = O.
(4) It is used where an inert atmosphere is required. (4) all of these
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
10. Among the following compounds, which on heating 18. Nitrogen gas is obtained from
do not produce N2 ?
(1) BaN3 (2) NH 4 Cl + NaNO 2
(1) (NH4)2Cr2 O7 (2) NH4Cl + NaNO2
(3) NH4Cl + CaO (4) Ba(N3)2 (3) ( NH 4 ) 2 Cr2 O7 (4) All
11. Which of the following order is incorrect ?
19. Red phosphorus can be obtained from white
(1) Lewis basic character : NH3>PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 phosphorus by
(2) Bond dissociation energy : HF > HCl > HBr > HI (1) Heating it with a catalyst in an inert atmosphere
(3) Thermal stability : H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
(2) Distilling it in an inert atmosphere
(4) Bond angle : CH4 > SiH4 > GeH4 > SnH4
(3) Dissolving it in carbon disulphide and
12. The correct code for stability, of oxidation states crystallizing
for given cations is :
(4) Melting it and pouring the liquid into water
(i) Pb2+>Pb4+,Tl+<Tl3+ (ii) Bi3+<Sb3+, Sn2+<Sn4+
20. At high temperature nitrogen combines with
(iii) Pb2+>Pb4+,Bi3+>Bi5+ (iv) Tl3+<In3+,Sn2+>Sn4+
calcium carbide (CaC 2 ) to give
(1) (v) & (vi) (2) (i), (iii) & (vi)
(3) (iii) & (v) (4) (ii) & (iv) (1) Calcium cyanide (2) Calcium cyanamide·
(3) Calcium carbonate (4) Calcium nitride
13. Which one of the following combines with Fe(II )
ions to form a brown complex 21. on heating liberates a gas. The same
( NH 4 )2 Cr2 O7
(1) N 2 O (2) NO (3) N 2 O3 (4) N 2 O5 gas will be obtained by
14. White phosphorus (P4 ) has (1) Heating NH 4 NO2
(1) Six P-P single bonds (2) Heating NH 4 NO3

(2) Four P-P single bonds
(3) Treating H 2O2 with NaNO2
(3) Four lone pairs of electrons
(4) Treating Mg 3 N 2 with H 2O
(4) PPP angle of 60 o
15. Which of the following oxide of nitrogen is the 22. The structural formula of hypophosphorus acid is
anhydride of HNO3
O O
|| |
(1) NO (2) N 2 O3 (3) N 3 O4 (4) N 2 O5 P P
(1) H | OH (2) H | OH
16. Ammonium dichromate on heating gives H OH
(1) Chromium oxide and ammonia

O O
(2) Chromic acid and nitrogen ||
P
||
P
(3) H O | OH (4) OH | OOH
(3) Chromium oxide and nitrogen H OH
(4) Chromic acid and ammonia
23. e number of P–O–P bonds in cyclic metaphosphoric
17. In NH 4 NO 2 , the oxidation number of nitrogen will
acid is
be
(1) + 3 (2) + 5 (1) Zero (2) Two
(3) – 3 and + 3 (4) + 3 and + 5 (3) Three (4) Four

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS What is the average oxidation state of central atom
24. How many S-O-S, S-S bonds and total number of of X ion.
lone pair are present respectively in the trimerof SO3. [Multiply your answer by 100]
[If your answers are 2,4 and 10 respectively, w rite 27. Find the number of moles of sodium hydroxide
the answer as 2410. | which would exactly neutralise all the acids
25. Which of the following species arc pscudohalidcs produced by complete hydrolysis of one mole of
? SO2Cl2. Assume 100% efficiency of all the reactions
involved.
CN Θ ,SCN Θ , OCN Θ , , acac,
28. Which of the following oxides are amphoteric?
SO32- ,S2O32- , en, NC Θ , TeCN Θ , N Θ3 , CO 32 - MgO, CaO, FeO, Cu2O, Ag2O, Al2O3, PbO, SnO,
ZnO, BeO, Na2O, Cs2 O
26. S2 O 2Θ ® I Θ + X ( ion )
3 + I 2 ¾¾ Home work : NCERT 7.21 to 7.40
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (3)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1,4) 15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (3018) 25. (6) 26. (250) 27. (4) 28. (5)
INDEX
1 # RACE ......................................... DETERMINANTS ...................................................................... 1
2 # RACE .......................................... MATRIX ................................................................................... 3
RACE MISCELLANEOUS .............. DETERMINANTS & MATRIX ...................................................... 6
3 # RACE .......................................... RELATION & FUNCTION ........................................................... 8
4 # RACE .......................................... FUNCTION .............................................................................. 10
5 # RACE .......................................... FUNCTION .............................................................................. 12
6 # RACE .......................................... ITF .......................................................................................... 14
RACE MISCELLANEOUS .............. RELATION, FUNCTION & ITF .................................................... 15
7 # RACE .......................................... LIMIT ....................................................................................... 18
8 # RACE .......................................... LIMIT ....................................................................................... 21
9 # RACE .......................................... CONTINUITY ........................................................................... 23
10 # RACE ........................................ DIFFERENTIABILITY ................................................................. 25
RACE MISCELLANEOUS ............. LIMIT, CONTINUITY & DIFFERENTIABILITY ................................ 27
11 # RACE ........................................ MOD ....................................................................................... 30
12 # RACE ........................................ MOD ....................................................................................... 32
13 # RACE ........................................ MOD ....................................................................................... 33
RACE MISCELLANEOUS ............ MOD ....................................................................................... 34
14 # RACE ........................................ PROBABILITY .......................................................................... 36
15 # RACE ........................................ PROBABILITY .......................................................................... 38
RACE MISCELLANEOUS ............ PROBABILITY .......................................................................... 41
16 # RACE ........................................ INDEFINITE INTEGRATION ........................................................ 44
17 # RACE ........................................ INDEFINITE INTEGRATION ........................................................ 46
18 # RACE ........................................ DEFINITE INTEGRATION ........................................................... 49
RACE MISCELLANEOUS ............ INDEFINITE INTEGRATION, DEFINITE INTEGRATION .................. 56
21 # RACE ........................................ AOD ........................................................................................ 59
22 # RACE ........................................ AOD ........................................................................................ 61
23 # RACE ........................................ AOD ........................................................................................ 63
24 # RACE ........................................ AREA ...................................................................................... 65
25 # RACE ........................................ DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION ........................................................ 67

26 # RACE ........................................ DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION ........................................................ 70
RACE MISCELLANEOUS ............ AREA, DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION.............................................. 71
27 # RACE ........................................ VECTOR & 3D ......................................................................... 74
28 # RACE ........................................ VECTOR & 3D ......................................................................... 76
29 # RACE ........................................ VECTOR & 3D ......................................................................... 78
RACE MISCELLANEOUS ............ VECTOR & 3D ......................................................................... 80
30 # RACE ........................................ LPP ......................................................................................... 81
31 # RACE ........................................ COMPLEX NUMBER ................................................................. 84
32 # RACE ........................................ COMPLEX NUMBER ................................................................. 86
RACE MISCELLANEOUS ............ COMPLEX NUMBER ................................................................. 88

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 01 DETERMINANTS MATH EM ATI CS
INSTRUCTIONS : (1) The exercise sheet should be attempted in exam like environment. (2) The exercise sheet should be
completed in maximum 50 minutes. (3) You should not refer any study material/notes while attempting the sheet. (4) The answers
must be checked only AFTER ALL the questions have been attempted.
Single correct choice type 6. Number of solutions of the equation

1. The cofactor of the element ‘4’ in the determinant 1 1 1
1 3 5 1 1 1 + cos q 1 = 0 in (0,10) is equal to
2 3 4 2 1 1 1 + tan q
8 0 1 1
is
0 2 1 1 (1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 3
(1) 4 (2) 10
(3) – 10 (4) – 4 a2 + 1 ab ac
7. If D = ab b +1
2
bc then D :
1 4 20 ac bc c +1
2
2. The roots of the equation 1 -2 5 = 0 are

1 2x 5 x 2 (1) 1+a2+b2+c2 (2) a2 +b2+c2
(3) (a2+b2+c2 )2 (4) ab+bc+ca
(1) -1,-2 (2) -1, 2
a + b a + 2b a + 3b
(3) 1,-2 (4) 1, 2
a + 2b a + 3b a + 4b =
8.
3. If a > 0 and discriminant of ax 2 + 2bx + c is negative, a + 4 b a + 5b a + 6b
a b ax + b (1) a 2 + b 2 + c 2 - 3abc (2) 3ab

then b c bx + c is
(3) 3a + 5b (4) 0
ax + b bx + c 0
9. If x is a positive integer, then
(1) Positive (2) (ac–b)2(ax2 + 2bx + c)
x! ( x + 1)! (x + 2)!
(3) Negative (4) 0
D = (x + 1)! (x + 2)! ( x + 3)! is equal to
4. If a ¹ b ¹ c, the value of x which satisfies the equation ( x + 2)! (x + 3)! (x + 4)!
0 x-a x-b (1) 2( x! )( x + 1)!

x +a 0 x -c = 0 , is
x +b x+c 0 (2) 2(x! )(x + 1)! (x + 2)!
(3) 2(x! )( x + 3)!
(1) x = 0
(4) None of these
(2) x = a
10. If Sn = an + bn + gn then
(3) x = b
(4) None of these S0 S1 S2
S3 = k ( a - b) ( b - g ) ( g - a ) then k = ...
2 2 2
S1 S2
a b c 4x 2a - p
S2 S3 S4
5. A= p q r and B = 4y 2b -q ,
x y Z 4z 2c -r (1) 2 abg
If det (A) = 2 then det (B) = (2) 3
(1) –8 (2) 8 (3) 1
(3) –16 (4) 16 (4) abg
MATH EM ATI CS ADI/E-1

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
11. For a unique value of p and q, the system of
equations given by : 1+ x x x2
x + y + z = 6, x + 2y + 3z = 14, x 1+ x x 2 = ax 5 + bx 4 + cx3 + dx 2 + ex + f,
13. If
2x + 5y + pz = q x2 x 1+ x
has infinitely many solutions, then p + q =...
then the value of (e + f + 2) is
(1) 14 (2) 24
14. If a, b and c be the roots of x3 + 2x2 + 5 = 0, then the
(3) 34 (4) 44
Numerical value questions a b c
value of b c a . is
y +z z y
c a b
12. If z z + x x = kxyz such that kn = 64, then
y x x+y 15. If the equations 2x + 3y + 1 = 0, 3x + y – 2 = 0 and
the value of n is ax + 2y – b = 0 are consistent, then the value of
(a – b) is
ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (4) 12. 3 13. 6 14. 8 15. 2
E-2/ ADI MATH EM ATI CS

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 02 MATRIX MATH EM ATI CS
1. Construct a 3 × 2 matrix whose elements are given é2 2 ù é 7 6ù

6. If A = ê ú and B= ê ú then find
1 ë2 -6 û ë -5 8 û
by a ij = i - 3j .
2 A + B.
é1 2 ù éa bù
2. If A = ê ú , then |2A| = 7. Find the value of A + I2 where A = ê
ë4 2 û ú.
ëc d û
(1) 2|A| (2) 4|A|

(3) 8|A| (4) None of these é2 7ù é1 2 ù
8. If A = ê ú and B = ê 0 3 ú then find A – B..
ë9 8û ë û
éx 2ù é5 1ù
3. Find x and y If ê + 1 y - ú = ê
ë3 3û ë3 3 úû
é3 ù
9.
ê ú
If A = ê2 ú and B = [1 2 3] then what will be the
êë1 úû
é 0 2 3ù é 7 6 3ù
4. If A = ê ú and B = ê ú then A + B = order of AB.
ë2 1 4 û ë1 4 5 û
é 7 8 6ù é - 7 -4 0 ù é 1 1ù é1 0 ù
(1) ê
9 úû
(2) ê
- 3 -1úû 10. If A = ê ú , B = ê0 , then AB =
ë3 5 1 úû
1 ë
ë 0 1û ë
é7 4 0ù é- 7 - 8 -6 ù é0 0 ù é1 1 ù
(3) ê
-1úû
(4) ê
ë -1 3 ë -3 - 5 -9 úû (1) ê ú
ë0 0 û
(2) ê ú
ë1 0 û
é2 5 4ù é5 6 7 ù
é 1 1ù é1 1 ù
5. If A = ê and B = ê (3) ê ú (4) ê ú
ú
-1 6 û ú then ë 0 1û ë0 0 û
ë0 ë 2 0 -8û
A + B is: éi 0ù
11. If A = ê ú then A =
2
ë0 i û
é2 5 4ù é 7 11 11 ù
(1) ê ú (2) ê ú
ë 0 -2 8 û ë 2 -1 -2 û é1
(1) ê
0ù é -1
(2) ê
0ù
ú
ë 0 -1 û ë0 -1úû
é -3 -1 -3ù é 4 5 4ù
(3) ê ú (4) ê ú é1 0 ù é -1 0 ù
ë -2 1 2 û ë 5 -5 1 û (3) ê ú (4) ê
1 úû
ë0 1 û ë0

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
éa 0 ù é1 0 ù é 1 -1ù é1 1ù
12. If A = ê ú ,B=ê ú , where A2 = B, then 19. If A = ê ú and B = ê1 1ú then find ma-
ë 1 1û ë5 1 û ë -1 1 û ë û
trix AB.
the value of a is
(1) 1
(2) –1 é 2 3ù é3 4 ù
20. If A = ê ú , B = ê2 1 ú then prove that
(3) 4 ë0 1 û ë û
(4) No real value of a
(AB)' = B'A'.
é1 0 0 ù
13. If A = êê 0 1 0 úú then A2 =
ëê a b -1ûú
é 2 5ù é5 7ù
21. If A = ê ú and B = ê 2 0 ú then find B'A'.
ë3 1 û ë û
(1) a unit matrices
(2) A éx x - 1ù
22. For what value of x, the matrix ê 1 x + 3ú is a singular?
(3) a null matrices ë û
(4) –A
23. Using determinants solve the equation :
Subjective Type Questions x + 2y + z = 4.
x – y+ z = 5
é1 2 5 ù é4 0 7ù
14. If matrix A = ê ú and B = êê 2 1 3 úú then 2x + 3y – z = 1
ë3 4 6 û
ëê1 5 6 ûú
find the value of AB. 24. Solve the following equations using determinant
method :
é0 i ù x+y+z=6
15. If A = ê ú , where i = –1 then find A and A .
2 2 3
ë i 0 û x–y+z =2
2x + 4y – z = 1
é4 0 ù
é1 2 5 ù
16. If A = ê3 4 6 ú and B = êê 2 1 úú then find AB :
ë û
ëê 1 5 úû
é1 -1ù
17. If A = ê ú then prove that A – 4A + 5I = 0.
2
ë2 3 û
é2 1 ù é1 2 ù
18. If x + y = ê ú and 2x – y = ê ú then find
ë1 2 û ë2 1 û
the value of x.

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
ANS WER KEY
é 5ù
ê1 2ú
ê ú
1
1. A= ê 2ú 2. (2) 3. x = 2 and y = 1 4. (1) 5. (2)
ê2 ú
ê ú
ê0 3ú
êë 2 úû
é 9 8ù éa + 1 b ù é1 5ù
6. ê -3 2 ú 7. ê c d + 1úû
8. ê9 5ú 9. Order = 3 × 3 10. (3)
ë û ë ë û
é13 27 43 ù
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. ê 26 34 69 ú
ë û
é13 27 ù é1 1ù
15. A2 = –I , A3 = –IA = –A 16. ê 26 34 ú 18. x=ê ú
ë û ë1 1û
é0 0ù é 20 17 ù
19. ê0 0ú 21. ê14 21ú 22. x = –1
ë û ë û
D1 20 D 3 D 22
23. x= = , y = 2 = - and z = 3 = 24. (–1, 2, 5)
D 9 D 9 D 9

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE (MISCELLANEOUS) DETERMINANTS & MATRIX MATH EM ATI CS
p b c
é 2 -1ù é5 2 ù é2 5 ù
1. If a ¹ p, b ¹ q, c ¹ r and a q c = 0 then 6. Let A = ê ú ,B=ê ú ,C=ê ú find
ë3 4û ë7 4 û ë3 8û
a b r
the matrices D such that CD – AB = 0.
p q r é -8 5 ù
+ + = ......... 7. If then prove that A = ê
p-a q-b r-c ú then prove that
ë 2 4û
(1) 1 (2) 2 A2 + 4A – 42I = 0.
(3) 3 (4) 0
é5 3ù
8. If A = ê ú then prove that A2 – 3A – 7I = 0.
2 r -1 2.3 r -1 4.5 r -1 ë -1 -2 û
n
2. If Dr = x y z , then the value of å Dr =
2n - 1 3n - 1 5n - 1
r =1
é cos a sin a ù
9. If A = ê ú then prove that
ë - sin a cos a û
é cos 2a sin 2a ù
(1) 1 (2) – 1 A2 = ê ú
(3) 0 (4) None of these ë - sin 2a cos 2a û
é -1 1 -1ù é0 4 3ù
(a x + a - x )2 (a x - a - x )2 1
10. If A = ê 3 -3 3 ú , B = êê 1 -3 -3úú compute
3. (b x + b - x )2 (b x - b - x )2 1 = ê ú
(c x + c - x )2 (c x - c - x )2 1 êë 5 -5 5 úû êë -1 4 4 úû
A2 B 2
(1) 0 (2) 2abc
é0 1ù
11. If A = ê then find A4 .
(3) a 2 b 2 c 2 (4) None of these ë1 0 úû
4. If ai2 + bi2 + ci2 = 1, (i = 1,2,3) and a i a j + bi b j + c i c j = 0

é 2 5ù é5 7ù
12. If A = ê ú and B = ê ú then prove that
a1 a2 a3
2
ë3 1û ë2 0û
(i ¹ j, i, j = 1, 2,3) then the value of b1 b2 b3 is (AB)' = B'A'
c1 c 2 c 3
é 2 3 4ù
ê 5 7 9ú
(1) 0 (2) ½ 13. Express ê ú as the sum of a symmetric and
êë -2 1 1 úû
(3) 1 (4) 2
skew symmetric matrix.
14. Solve the following system of equations using the
é8 0 ù é 2 -2 ù determinant method
ê ú ê ú
5. If A = ê 4 -2 ú and B = ê 4 2 ú , then find the 2x – 3y + 5z = 11
êë 3 6 úû êë -5 1 úû
3x + 2y – 4z = –5
matrix X, such that 2A + 3X = 5B. x + y – 2z = – 3
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
Numerical value questions
é 0 1ù
18. If A = ê ú , then the value of ab such that
ë -1 0 û
15
r r -1 Ar
15. If A r = , r Î N . Find å 10
r -1 r r =1
(aI + bA)2 = A
16. If A, B and C are n × n matrices and
det(A) = 2, det(B) = 3 and det(C) = 5, then the value é 0 2y z ù
of the det(A2BC–1) is equal to A = êê x y -z úú
19. If and AA' = I. Then value of x2 +
êë x -y z úû
17. If N be the number of all possible matrices of order

y2 + z2 is
N 20. If A is a square matrix of order 3, such that |A| = 2
3 × 3 with each entry 0 or 1, then is :
10 then |adj(adj(adjA)| is :
ANS WER KEY
é -10 ù
ê -2 3 ú
ê ú é 8 -5ù é 3 0 ù
ê 4 14 ú
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. 6. ê -3 2 ú ê 43 22 ú
ê 3 ú ë ûë û
ê ú
ê -31 -7 ú
ëê 3 3 ûú
é -1 1 -1ù
10. A = êê 3 -3 3 úú 11. I.
êë 5 -5 5 úû
é1 4 1 ù é0 -1 3ù
1 ê ú 1 ê ú
13. Symmetric = (A + A ') = ê 4 7 5ú , Skew symmetric = (A - A ') = ê 1 0 4ú
2 êë 1 5 1 úû 2 êë -3 -4 0 úû
14. x = 1, y = 2, z = 3 15. 22.5 16. 2.4 17. 51.2

18. 0.5 19. 1 20. 256

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 03 RELATION & FUNCTION MATH EM ATI CS
1. If R is a relation from a finite set A having m 7. For n, m Î N, n|m means that n is a factor of m, the
elements to a finite set B having n elements, then relation is
the number of relations from A to B is (1) Reflexive and symmetric
(1) 2mn (2) 2mn –1 (2) Transitive and symmetric
(3) 2mn (4) mn (3) Reflexive, transitive and symmetric
2. In the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, a relation R is defined (4) Reflexive, transitive and not symmetric
by R = {(x, y) | x, y Î A and x < y}. Then R is 8. Let R = {(x, y) : x, y Î A, x + y = 5} where
(1) Reflexive A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} then
(2) Symmetric (1) R is not reflexive, symmetric and not transitive
(3) Transitive (2) R is an equivalence relation
(4) None of these (3) R is reflexive, symmetric but not transitive
3. For real numbers x and y, we write x R y Û x – y + (4) R is not reflexive, not symmetric but transitive
9. Given the relation R = {(1, 2), (2, 3)} on the set A =
2 is an irrational number. Then the relation R is
{1, 2, 3}, the minimum number of ordered pairs which
(1) Reflexive
when added to R make it an equivalence relation is
(2) Symmetric
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) Transitive
(3) 7 (4) 8
(4) None of these
10. Let X be a family of sets and R be a relation on X
4. Let L denote the set of all straight lines in a plane. defined by 'A is disjoint from B'. Then R is
Let a relation R be defined by a R b Û a ^ b, (1) Reflexive (2) Symmetric
a, b Î L. Then R is
(3) Anti-symmetric (4) Transitive
(1) Reflexive (2) Symmetric
11. Let A = {p, q, r}. Which of the following is an
(3) Transitive (4) None of these equivalence relation in A ?
5. Two points P and Q in a plane are related if (1) R1 = {(p, q), (q, r), (p, r), (p, p)}
OP = OQ, where O is a fixed point. This relation is
(2) R2 = {(r, q) (r, p), (r, r), (q, q)}
(1) Reflexive but symmetric
(3) R3 = {(p, p), (q, q), (r, r), (p, q)}
(2) Symmetric but not transitive
(4) None of these
(3) An equivalence relation
12. Let R be the relation in the set {1, 2, 3, 4} given by
(4) None of these R = {(1, 2), (2, 2), (1, 1), (4,4), (1, 3), (3, 3), (3, 2)}.
6. Let a relation R is the set N of natural numbers be Choose the correct answer.
defined as (x, y) Î R if and only if x2 – 4xy + 3y2 = 0 (1) R is reflexive and symmetric but not transitive.
for all x, y Î N. The relation R is (2) R is reflexive and transitive but not symmetric.
(1) Reflexive (2) Symmetric (3) R is symmetric and transitive but not reflexive.
(3) Transitive (4) Equivalence (4) R is an equivalence relation.
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
e x - e -|x|
13. The range of the function f(x) = is 17. f(x) = x - 1 - x2
e x + e|x|
(1) [0, 1]
(2) [0, 1] 18. f(x) = x - x2 + 4 + x + 4 - x
(3) [0, 1/2) 19. Solve : x (ex – 1)(x + 2) (x – 3)2 £ 0.
(4) R
20. Find the range of f(x) = x2 – x – 3.
Find the domain of the following functions
(14 to 19) 21. Find the domain and range of
x -3 f(x) = x 2 - 3x + 2
14. f(x) =
(x + 3) x 2 - 4
22. Find the range of function
1 f(x) = 6x + 3x + 6–x + 3–x + 2.
15. f(x) = 2-x -
2
9- x
23. If x Î [1, 2], then find the range of f(x) = tan x.
x-2 1- x
16. f(x) = +
x+2 1+ x 24. f(x) = log(x–4)(x2 – 11x + 24)
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (4)
8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (3)
é 1 ù
14. (–¥, –3) È (–3, –2) È (2, ¥) 15. (–3, 2] 16. f 17. ê , 1ú
ë 2 û
é 13 ö
18. [0, 1] 19. (–¥, –2] È {0, 3} 20. ê - 4 , ¥÷ø
ë
21. (–¥, 1] È [2, ¥) ; Range : [0, ¥) 22. Range [6, ¥)
23. (–¥, tan 2] È [tan1, ¥) 24. (8, ¥)

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 04 FUNCTION MATH EM ATI CS
1. The domain of the function f(x) = log | log|x| | is æ 1 + xö 3x + x3
9. If f(x) = log and g(x) = , then f(g(x))
(1) R – {–1, 0, 1} (2) R – [–1, 1] è 1- xø 1 + 3x2
(3) R – (–1, 1) (4) R+ is equal to
2. The range of the real valued function
(1) –f(x) (2) 3f(x)
f(x) = |log |x| | is
(1) R+ (2) R (3) [f(x)]3 (4) –3f(x)
(3) [0, ¥) (4) [1, ¥)
4x
10. If f(x) = , then f(x) + f(1 – x) is equal to
3. The domain of the function f(x) = 1- | x |
is 4 +2
x
2- | x |
(1) 0 (2) –1
(1) (–¥, ¥) – [–1, 1]
(2) (–¥, ¥) – [–2, 2] (3) 1 (4) 4
(3) [–1, 1] È (–¥, –2) È (2, ¥)
10 + x
(4) None of these 11. If e f(x) = , x Î (–10, 10) and
10 – x
1
4. If f(x) = x + , then
x f(x) = kf æ 200x 2 ö , then k is equal to
è 100 + x ø
(1) f(x2) = (f(x))2
(2) f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) (1) 0.8 (2) 0.7
(3) f(–x) = f(x)
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.5
(4) f(1/x) = f(x)
ax - c 12. Which of the following functions from R to R is not
5. If f(x) = = y , then f(y) equals one-one ?
cx - a
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) ex – e–x
(3) x (4) 1/x
(2) (ex – e–x)/(ex + e–x)
6. If f(x) = logax, then f(ax) equals
(1) f(1) f(x) (2) 1 + f(x) (3) ex + e–x
(3) f(x) (4) af(x) (4) e2x
ax + a -x 13. Which of the following functions from

7. If f(x) = , then f(x + y) + f(x – y) equals
2
]–p/2, p/2[ to R is a bijection ?
(1) 2(f(x) + f(y)) (2) 2f(x) f(y)
(1) tan x
(3) f(x) + f(y) (4) f(x) f(y)
(2) sin x
æ 1ö
8. If f(y) = log y, then f(y) + f ç ÷ is equal to (3) cos x
è yø
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) –1 (4) ex + e–x
E-10/ADI MATH EM ATI CS

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
14. Which of the following is the graph of | sin x |
17. Which of the following is the graph of y = ?
sin x
y = |x – 1| + |x – 3| ?
y
y
1
(1) x (1) -p
x
O 1 3 0 p 2p
y
y
1
x
(2) O 1 3
x (2) -p 0 p 2p
–1
y 1
(3) x
x –1
(3) O 1 3
1
y
(4) -p 0 p 3p
x
2p
–1
(4) O 1 3
x
18. The range of the function ¦ : N ® I; ¦(x) = (– 1) x – 1,

is -
15. Let ƒ (x) = [x] = the greatest integer less than or equal (1) [–1, 1] (2) {– 1, 1}
to x and g(x) = x – [x]. Then for any two real num-
(3) {0, 1} (4) {0, 1, – 1}
bers x and y -
2x + 3
(1) ƒ (x + y) = ƒ (x) + ƒ (y) 19. If f : Q – {3} ® Q, f(x) = , then f is
x-3
(2) g(x + y) = g(x) + g(y) (1) One-one (2) Onto
(3) ƒ (x + y) = ƒ (x) + ƒ {y+g(x)} (3) One-one onto (4) None of these
20. Which of the following are identical
(4) None of these
(1) ƒ (x) = lnx2 ; g(x) = 2lnx
x
16. Let f(x) = defined from (0, ¥) ® [0, ¥), then by
1+ x 1
f(x) is - (2) ƒ( x) = cosecx ; g( x) =
sin x
(1) One-one but not onto
1
(2) One-one and onto (3) ƒ (x) = tanx ; g(x) =
cot x
(3) Many-one but not onto
1
(4) Many-one and onto (4) ƒ( x) = secx ; g ( x) =
cos-1 x
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2)

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 05 FUNCTION MATH EM ATI CS
1. If f : R ® R, f(x) = 2x + sinx, then f is 8. In the following, odd function is

(1) One-one and onto (1) cos x (2) x2 + x + 1
(2) One-one but not onto (3) x3 + x (4) [x] (where, [.] is G.I.F.)
(3) Onto but not one-one 9. The period of f(x) = sin(px/2) + 2cos(px/3) – tan(px/4)
(4) Neither one-one nor onto is
2. If f : N ® Z is defined as (1) 6 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 12
ì x -1
ï
f(x) = í 2 , when x is odd , then f(x) is æ xö
ïî- x / 2, when x is even 10. The period of the function sin çè sin ÷ø is
3
(1) One-one but not onto (1) 6p (2) 8p
(2) Onto but not one-one (3) 4p (4) 2p
(3) One-one onto
11. The number of all onto functions which can be
(4) Neither one-one not onto defined from A = {1, 2, 3....,n}, n ³ 2 to
3. If E = {1, 2, 3, 4} and F = {1, 2}, then number of B = {a, b} is
onto functions defined from E to F is (1) nP2 (2) 2n – 2
(1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 2n – 1 (4) None of these
(3) 12 (4) 8 12. If ƒ (x) = x2 and g(x) = x – 7 then goƒ.
4. If A = {a, b, c}, then total number of one-one onto (1) x2 – 7 (2) (x – 7)2
functions which can be defined from A to A is
(3) x2 + 7 (4) (x + 7)2
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 9 (4) 6 e x + e- x
13. ƒ : [0, ¥) ® [1, ¥),ƒ (x) = then ƒ –1(x) is
2
5. If A = {x : –1 £ x £ 1} = B and f : A ® B,
f(x) = sin px, then f is (1) ln(x - x2 - 1)
(1) One-one (2) Onto
(3) One-one onto (4) Many one into (2) ln(x - x 2 + 1)
6. The period of the function f(x) = log (cos 2x) + tan 4x is
(3) ln(x + x2 + 1)
(1) p/2 (2) p
(3) 2p (4) 2p/5 (4) ln(x + x2 - 1)
7. Which of the following functions is not even
14. If f(x) is an even function and g(x) is an odd
æ 1 + x2 ö function, and x2 f(x) – 2f(1/x) = g(x), then f(5) is
(1) log ç ÷ (2) sin2x + cos2x equal to
è 1 - x2 ø
(1) 5 (2) 1/75
æ 1 + x3 ö (1 + 2x )2
(3) log ç ÷ (4) (3) 0 (4) g(5)
è 1 - x3 ø 2x
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
15. Which of the following functions is not invertible ? 19. The function ƒ : [0,3] ® [1,29], defined by
ƒ(x) = 2x3 – 15x2 + 36x + 1, is :
(1) ƒ : R ® R, ƒ(x) = 3x + 1
(1) One-one and onto
(2) ƒ : R ® [0, ¥), ƒ(x) = x2
(2) Onto but not one-one
1
(3) ƒ : R+ ® R, ƒ(x) = (3) One-one but not onto
x3
(4) Neither one-one nor onto
(4) None of these
20. Find whether the following functions are even or
16. Let the function ƒ be defined by ƒ(x) =
2x + 1
, then odd or none :
1 - 3x
ƒ–1(x) is
(
(a) f(x) = log x + 1+ x 2 )
x -1
(1)
3x + 2 x(a x + 1)
(b) f(x) =
a x -1
3x + 2
(2)
x -1 (c) f(x) = sinx + cosx
x +1
(3)
3x - 2 (d) f(x) = xsin2x – x3
2x + 1
(4) (e) f(x) = sinx – cosx
1 - 3x
(1 + 2x )
2
x2 + x + 2 (f) f(x) =
17. Range of the function f(x) = 2 is -
x + x +1 2x
(1) [1, 2] (2) [1, ¥)

x x
(g) f (x) = + +1
é 7 ù æ ù 7 e -1 2
x
(3) ê 2, 3 ú (4) ç 1, 3 ú
ë û è û
18. Which of the following functions is (h) f(x) = [(x + 1)2]1/3 + [(x – 1)2]1/3
non-periodic ?
(1) ƒ(x) = tan(3x – 2)
(2) ƒ(x)={x}, the fractional part of the number x
(3) ƒ(x) = x + cosx
cos2 x sin 2 x
(4) ƒ(x) = 1 - -
1 + tan x 1 + cot x
ANS WER KEY
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (2)
20. (a) Odd (b) Even (c) Neither even nor odd (d) Odd
(e) Neither even nor odd (f) Even (g) Even (h) Even

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 06 ITF MATHEMATICS
PAR T-I 7. cos–1 (cos 20)

Find the domain of the following functions 8. cot–1(cot 4)
(Q.1 to Q. 7)
é1 5ù
1. y = sin–1(2x – 3) 2. y = sin–1(|x| – 1) 9. Find the value of tan ê cos -1 ú.
ë2 3 û
3. y = sin (x + 1)
–1 2
4. y = sin (sec x)
–1
1
10. If cos(2sin–1 x) = , then find the value of x.
æx ö 2
9
5. y = sin–1 log2 ç ÷
è 2 ø
6. Find the domain of f(x) = sin–1(log9(x2/4)). æ1 -1 æ 3ö ö
11. Find the value of sin ç cot ç - ÷ ÷ .
è2 è 4ø ø
7. Find the range of
12. Find the number of solutions of the equation
æ 1 + x2 ö 2
f(x) = cos –1
ç ÷+ 2-x cos (cos–1 x) = cosec(cosec–1 x).
è 2x ø
PART-II æ -1 1 -1 ö
13. If sin ç sin + cos x ÷ = 1, then find the value of x.
Evaluate the following : (Q. No. 1 to 8) è 5 ø
æ æ 3 ö pö Solve for x : (Q. No. 14 to 18)

1. cos ç cos -1 ç - ÷ + ÷
è è 2 ø 6ø 14. sin–1 x < cos–1 x
2. sin–1(sin10) 15. sec–1 x > cosec–1 x.
3. cos (cos10)
–1
16. tan –1 x > cot–1 x.
4. tan–1 (tan(–6))
5p 2
æp æ 1 öö 17. (tan–1 x)2 + (cot–1 x)2 = .
5. sin ç - sin -1 ç ÷ ÷ 8
è2 è 2 øø
18. If a = sin–1(cos(sin–1x)) and b = cos–1 (sin(cos–1x)),
6. sin–1 (sin 100)
then find tanatanb .
ANS WER KEY
PAR T-I
1. [1, 2] 2. [–2, 2] 3. {0} 4. {np} ; n Î I 5. [–2, –1] È [1, 2]
é 2ù é2 ù
6. ê -6, - 3 ú È ê 3 ,6 ú 7. {1, 1 + p}
ë û ë û
PART-II
3
1. –1 2. (3p – 10) 3. 4p – 10 4. 2p – 6 5. 6. 100 – 32p
2
7. 20 – 6p 8. 4–p 9.
1
2
3-( )
5 10. ±
2
3
11. 2/ 5 12. Two
1 é 1 ù
13. 14. ê -1, 2 ú 15. (–¥, –1] È ( 2 , ¥) 16. x>1 17. –1 18. 1
5 ë û
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE MISCELLANEOUS RELATION, FUNCTION & ITF MATH EM ATI CS
PAR T-I æ 2x ö
12. f (x) = 12 - 3x - 33- x + sin -1 ç ÷
1. Which one of the following relations on R is è 3ø
equivalence relation log0.3 | x - 2 |
13. f(x) =
(1) x R1y Û |x| = |y| (2) x R2y Û x ³ y |x|
(3) x R3y Û x | y (4) x R4y Û x < y
14. f(x) = log4 {log5(log3(18x – x2 – 77))}
2. Let N denote the set of all natural numbers and R
be the relation on N × N defined by (a, b) R (c, d)
if ad (b + c) = bc(a + d), then R is Numerical value questions
(1) Symmetric only (2) Reflexive only
(3) Transitive only (4) Equivalence 15. Number of integers in the range of
3. Let W denote the words in the English dictionary. æp ö
Define the relation R by : R = {(x, y) Î W × W| the f(x) = sec ç cos2 x ÷ , - ¥ < x < ¥.,is
è4 ø
words x and y have at least one letter in common}. 16. Number of integers in the domain of
Then R is
(1) Reflexive & symmetric but not transitive 1
f(x) =
2
(2) Reflexive & symmetric and transitive log1/ 2 (x - 7x + 13)
(3) Reflexive but not symmetric and transitive
17. Number of integers in the domain of
(4) Not reflexive, symmetric and transitive
4. Find the range of f(x) = sin2x – sin x + 1 1
f(x) = 10
C x -1 - 3 ´ ( 10 Cx ) is
5. Find the domain for f(x) = cos(sin x)
6. Find the range of f(x) = cos(loge(x)). 18. Number of integers in the range of
7. Find the range of the function f(x) = sgn(x2 – 2x + 3).,is
f (x) = log 2 (2 - log 2 (16sin 2 x + 1)) 19. The domain of the function
1
(08 to 12) f(x) = log is
| sin x |
2
(x -2)
8. f(x) = 4x + 83 - 13 - 2 2(x -1) (1) R – (–p, p) (2) (–¥, ¥)
(3) R – {2np, n Î Z} (4) R – {np, n Î Z}
ì log10 x ü 20. If [a] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal
9. f(x) = log10 í ý
î 2(3 - log10 x) þ to a and –1 £ x < 0, 0 £ y < 1, 1 £ z < 2, then
æ x -1 ö [x] + 1 [y] [z]

10. f(x) = log0.4 ç ÷ [x] [y] + 1 [z] is equal to -
èx+5ø
[x] [y] [z] + 1
(1) [x] (2) [y]
1
11. f(x) = 10
C x -1 - 3 ´ 10 C x (3) [z] (4) none of these

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
21. The number of integers lying in the domain of the 32. If f(2x + 3y, 2x – 7y) = 20x, and the value of f(2, 2)
æ 5 - 2x ö
1
function ƒ (x) = log 0.5 ç is m, then is
÷ is - m
è x ø
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0 33. If the period of the function f(x) = sin3
x
+ cos5
x
is
22. Find the range of f(x) = log[x – 1]sin x, where [.] 2 5
denotes greatest integer function. p
T, then is
T
æp ö
23. Find the range of f(x) = sec ç cos2 x ÷ , ¥ < x < ¥.
è4 ø ax + 1
34. If the function f(x) = is identical with
4x
x+3
24. If f(x) = , then f(x) + f(1 – x) is equal to
4x + 2
a
f–1(x), then the value of is :
10 + x 10
25. If e f(x) = , x Î (–10, 10) and f(x) = kf
10 – x
35. If f(x) = sin2 x + sin2(x + p/3) + cos x cos (x + p/3)
æ 200x ö , then k is equal to and g(5/4) = 1 then the value of (gof) x is
è 100 + x 2 ø
36. The period of the function
26. If A contain 3 elements and B contains 4 elements,
then the number of all one-one functions defined x éx ù x éx ù x éx ù
f(x) = - ê - 5ú + - ê - 5ú + - ê - 5ú is
from A to B is 3 ë3 û 4 ë4 û 5 ë5 û
27. If A = {a, b, c}, then total number of one-one onto PART - II
functions which can be defined from A to A is
28. f(x) = cos x , correct statement is (Q.1 to Q. 6)
(1) f(x) is periodic and its period = 2p æ x -3ö
1. y = sin–1 ç ÷ + log10(4 – x)
(2) f(x) is periodic and its period = 4p2 è 2 ø
(3) f(x) is periodic and its period = p
æ x -2ö
(4) f(x) is not periodic. 2. y = log[x]x + cos–1 ç ÷ ; (Where [.] G.I.F.)
è 2 ø
29. The period of the function f(x) = |sin x + cos x| +
|sin x – cos x| is 3. y = log10(x – 1) + cos–1(1 – |x|)
(1) p/6 (2) p/4
æ [x 2 - 3] ö
(3) p/2 (4) p 4. y = cos–1 ç ÷ + log
g2(|x| – 1)(Where [.] G.I.F.)
30. In the following, bijective function is è 5 ø
(1) f : [1, 2] ® [–1/4, 0], f(x) = x2 – 3x + 2
æ 1 ö
(2) f : [–p/2, p/2] ® [–1, 1], f(x) = sin x 5. y = cos–1 ç ÷ ; ({ } denotes fractional part function)
è {x} ø
(3) f : [–p/2, p/2] ® [–1, 1], f(x) = cos x
(4) f : (–¥, 0) È (0, ¥) ® [0, ¥), f(x) = |log|x||
6. y= sin -1 (log2 x)
1
31. The domain of the function f(x) = is
[x] - 5[x] + 6
( )
2
7. Find the range of f(x) = tan–1 x 2 - 2x + 2 .
(1) (–¥, –2] È (4, ¥) (2) (–¥, 2] È (3, ¥)
8. Find the range of f(x) = sin–1 x + tan–1x + cos–1x.
(3) (–¥, 2] È (4, ¥) (4) (–¥, –2] È [4, ¥)

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
PART-III 7. If sin–1x = p/5, for some x Î (–1, 1), then find the
value of cos –1 x.
1.
æ 3ö
Evaluate: cos ç tan -1 ÷ p
è 4ø 8. cot –1 x + tan –1 3 =
2
2. Simplify : sin(cot–1 x)
11p
9. 2 cos–1 x + sin–1 x = .
3p 6
3. If sin–1 x + sin–1 y + sin–1 z = , then find the value
2 10. Find the minimum value of (sec–1x)2 + (cosec–1x)2 .
x2 + y2 + z2 .
1
11. Find the value of sin–1x + sin–1 1 + cos–1x + cos–1 .
3p2
x x
4. If (sin–1 x)2 + (sin–1y)2 + (sin–1 z)2 = , then find
4
2p
the minimum value of x + y + z. 12. If sin–1 x + sin–1 y = , then find the value of
3
5. Find the range of f(x) = |3tan–1x – cos–1(0)| – cos–1(–1).
cos–1 x + cos–1 y
p
6. Find the value of x for which sec–1x + sin–1x = æ -1 1 -1 ö
2 13. If sin ç sin + cos x ÷ = 1, then the value of x is.
è 5 ø
ANS WER KEY

PAR T-I
é3 ù
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. êë 4 , 3úû 5. R 6. [–1, 1]
7. (–¥,1] 8. x Î [2, ¥) 9. x Î [102, 103 ) 10. (1, ¥)
é 3ù
11. {9,10} 12. ê1, 2 ú 13. [1, 2) È (2, 3] 14. (8,10)
ë û
15. (1) 16. (0) 17. 2 18. (1) 19. (4)
20. (3) 21. (3) 22. (–¥, 0] 23. éë1, 2 ùû 24. (1)
25. (0.5) 26. (24) 27. (6) 28. (4) 29. (3) 30. (2) 31. (3) 32. 0.05
33. 0.1 34. –0.3 35. 1 36. 60
PART-II
1. [1, 4) 2. [2, 4] 3. (1, 2] 4. (–3, –1) È (1, 3)

ép pö é p 3p ù
5. f 6. [1, 2] 7. êë 4 , 2 ø÷ 8. ê4, 4 ú
ë û
PART-III
1
1. 4/5 2. 3. 3 4. –3 5. [–p , p )
1+ x2
3p p2
6. ±1 7. 8. 3 9. f 10.
10 8
p
11. p 12. 13. 1/5
3

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 07 LIMIT MATH EM ATI CS
Evaluation of RHL & LHL :

é x -3 ù x3 - x 2 - x + 1
lim
(e) x ® 3 ê log lim
x + 6 - 3 úû (f) x ®1 x3 - 3x + 2
a
1. Evaluate the following limits ([.], {.} denotes ë
greatest integer function and fractional part function
respectively)
2x 2 + 9x - 5
|x| (g) lim
(i) lim [x], lim{x} (ii) lim x®-5 x+5
x®2 x® 2 x ®0 x
[x] x 2 -1 + x -1
(iii) lim[x] + {x} (iv) lim (h) lim , x >1
x ®0 x ®1 x x®1
x 2 -1
{ }
(v) lim (vi) lim x sgn(x - 1)
x ®1 [x] x ®1 x-2 1
(i) lim - 3
x®1 x - x x - 3x 2 + 2x
2
ì1
ï 2 if x < -1
ïx x 4 - 81
ï2, if - 1 £ x < 1 (j) lim
x®3 x 2 - 9
ï
2. Consider the function f(x) = í3, if x = 1
ï x + 1, if 1 < x £ 2
ï 8x3 + 1
ï -1 (k) lim
ï (x - 2)2 , if x > 2 x®-1/ 2 2x + 1
î
x2 - x - 6
Determine the following limits (l) lim
x®3 x 3 - 3x 2 + x - 3
(a) xlim
®-1+
f(x) (b) xlim
®-1
f(x)
x 3 -125
(m) lim 2
x®5 x - 7x + 10
(c) xlim
®1-
f(x) (d) xlim
®2+
f(x)
x2 - 2
(e) lim
x®2
f(x) (f) xlim
®-3
f(x) (n) xlim 2
® 2 x + 2x - 4
(g) lim
x ®5
f(x)
x4 - 9
3. Find the limits based on factorisation : (o) xlim 2
® 3 x + 4 3x - 15
x3 + 3x 2 - 9x - 2 4x - 1
(a) xlim 3 (b) xlim x 4 - 3x 3 + 2
®2 x -x -6 ®1/ 4 2 x - 1 (p) lim
x®1 x 3 - 5x 2 + 3x + 1
(a + x)2 - a 2 4x 5 + 9x + 7 x3 +1
(c) lim (d) xlim (q) lim
®1 3x 6 + x3 + 1 x®-1 x + 1
x®0 x

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
4. Find the limits based on rationalisation : 6. Limit of the form ¥ - ¥
9 + 5x + 4x 2 - 3 x +1 x 2 + 7x - x
lim (a) xlim
(a) lim (b) x ® -1 ®¥
x ®0 x 6x 2 + 3 + 3x
2x æ 1 x ö
a 2 + x2 - a (b) lim çè 2 - ÷
(c) lim (d) lim ,a>0 x®1 x + x - 2 x 3 - 1ø
x®0 a+x - a-x x®0 x2
x -3 5x - 4 - x æ 1 2 ö
(c) lim ç - 2 ÷
(e) lim (f) lim x®3 è x - 3 x - 4x + 3 ø
x®3 x -2 - 4-x x®1 x -1
x -1 1 + x -1 æ 1 4 ö
(d) lim çè - ÷
(g) lim
x®1 2 (h) lim x®2 x - 2 x 3 - 2x 2 ø
x +3 -2 x®0 x
a+x - a 2 é 1 1 ù
5x - 4 - x (e) lim(x - 9) ê +
(i) lim (j) lim x®3 ë x + 3 x - 3 úû
x®0
x a 2 + ax x®1 x3 -1
3+ x - 5- x (f) xlim x{ x +1 - x}
(k) lim ®¥
x®1 x 2 -1
æ x3 x2 ö
lim
(g) x ®¥ ç - ÷
è 3x - 4 3x + 2 ø
2
x+ h - x
(l) lim ,x¹0
h®0 h
(h) lim
x®¥
( 9x 2 + 1 - 3x )
x -a x - x2
(m) lim
x®a x - a
(n) lim
x®1 x -1
(i) xlim
® -¥
( 3 2x3 - 3 - 5x)
1+ 3x - 1- 3x
(o) lim
x®0 x (j) xlim
®¥
x ( x2 + 1 - x )
5. Based on n ® ¥
xn - an
7. Based on lim
x®a x-a
(3x - 1)(4x - 2) 3x3 - 4x 2 + 6x -1
(a) xlim (b) lim
®¥ (x + 8)(x -1) x®¥ 2x 3 + x 2 - 5x + 7
(x+2)5/2 -(a +2)5/2 (x + 2)3/ 2 - (a + 2)3/ 2
(a) lim (b) lim
x®a x-a x®a x -a
5x 3 - 6 x
(c) xlim (d) xlim (1+ x)6 -1 x2 / 7 - a2 / 7
®¥
9 + 4x6 ®¥
4x 2 + 1 - 1 (c) lim (d) lim
x®0 (1+ x)2 - 1 x®a x -a
n2 12 + 22 + .... + n 2
(e) lim (f) lim x5 / 7 - a5 / 7 8x3 + 1
n®¥ 1 + 2 + 3 + .... + n n®¥ n3 (e) lim (f) lim
x®a x 2 / 7 - a 2 / 7 x®-1/ 2 2x + 1
13 + 23 + .... + n 3 x3 - 64
(g) nlim (h) xlim 52x /(x + 3) . (g) lim
®¥ (n -1)4 ®¥ x®4 x 2 - 16

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
x n - 3n x5 - a5
(h) If lim =108, find the value of n. (m) If lim = 405
x®3 x - 3 x®a x - a
x3 +1 x 2 / 3 - a2 / 3
(i) lim (j) lim x9 - a 9 lim(4 + x)
x®-1 x + 1 x®a x 3 / 4 - a 3 / 4 (n) If lim = x®5
x®a x - a
x15 -1
(k) lim x3 - a3 x4 -1
x®1 x10 - 1
(o) If lim = lim
x® a x - a x®1 x - 1
Find all possible values of a in (l,m,n & o)
(p) Find the limit of
9 9
x -a
(l) If lim =9 x p -1
x®a x - a
lim (p and q are integers )
x ®1 x q - 1
ANS WER KEY

1. (i) limit does not exists (ii) limit does not exists
(iii) 0 (iv) RHL = 1, LHL = 0, limit does not exists
(v) RHL = 1, LHL = not defined (vi) RHL = 1, LHL = –1 limit does not exists
1 1
2. (a) 2 (b) does not exist (c) 2 (d) does not exist (e) does not exist (f) (g) –
9 9
15 2 2 +1
3. (a) (b) 2 (c) 2a (d) 4 (e) log 6a (f) (g) –11 (h) (i) 2
11 3 2
1
(j) 18 (k) 3 (l) (m) 25 (n) 2/3 (o) 2 (p) 5/4 (q) 3
2
1
4. (a) 5/6 (b) 1 (c) 2 a (d) 1/2a (e) 1 (f) 2 (g) 2 (h) 1/2 (i)
2a a
2 1 1
(j) (k) (l) (m) 2 a (n) 3 (o) 3
3 4 2 x
3
5. (a) 12 (b) (c) 5/2 (d) 1/2 (e) 2 (f) 1/3 (g) 1/4 (h) 25
2
6. (a) 7/2 (b) –1/9 (c) 1/2 (d) 1 (e) 6 (f) 1/2 (g) 2/9 (h) 0 (i) +¥
(j) 1/2
5 3 2 -5 / 7 5 3/ 7
7. (a) (a + 2)3 / 2 (b) (a + 2)1/ 2 (c) 3 (d) a (e) a (f) 3
2 2 7 2
8 -1/12
(g) 6 (h) 4 (i) 3 (j) a (k) 3/2 (l) 1, –1 (m) 3,–3 (n) 1,–1
9
2 p
(o) ± (p)
3 q

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 08 LIMIT MATH EM ATI CS
INSTRUCTIONS : (1) The exercise sheet should be attempted in exam like environment. (2) The exercise sheet should be completed
in maximum 50 minutes. (3) You should not refer any study material/notes while attempting the sheet. (4) The answers must be checked
1. Based on Trigonometric Limits 1- cos2x

(o) lim
sin x 0
x®0 3tan 2 x
(a) lim
x®0 x 1- cos5x
(p) lim
x®0 1- cos6x
3sin x - 4sin 3 x
(b) lim ax + x cos x
x®0 x (q) lim
x®0 bsin x
cosax - cosbx
(c) lim cosecx - cot x
x®0 coscx - cosdx (r) lim
x®0 x
tan 2 3x
(d) lim sin 3x + 7x
x®0 x2 (s) lim
x®0 4x + sin 2x
cos3x - cos7x
(e) lim 5x + 4sin 3x
x®0 x2 (t) lim
x®0 4 sin 2x + 7x
2x - s in x
(f) lim tan2x - sin 2x
x®0 tan x + x (u) lim
x®0 x3
sin 3x - sin x ecx - cot x)
(g) lim (v) lim(cos
x®0
x®0 sin x
2. Exponential and logarithmic limit :
sin(2 + x) - sin(2 - x)
(h) lim log(1 + kx)
x®0 x (a) lim
x ®0 x
2 - 1+ cos x
(i) lim log(a + h) - log a
x®0 x2 (b) lim
h ®0 h
x 2 + 1- cos x a x - bx
(j) lim (c) lim
x®0 x sin x x ®0 x
x3 cot x a tan x - a x
(k) lim (d) lim
x®0 1 - cos x
x ®0 tan x - x
3. Expansion method :
sin(3 + x) - sin(3 - x)
(l) lim ae x - b
x®0 x (a) If lim =2 then a + b =.
x®0 x
3sin2 x - 2sin x 2
(m) lim ex - 1 - x
x®0 3x 2 (b) lim
®
x 0 x2
1 + sin x - 1 - sin x x - sin x
(n) lim
x®0 x (c) lim
x ®0 x3
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
e x - e - x - 2x 5. Sandwich theorem
(d) lim
x ®0 x3 x + 7sin x
(a) lim
x - tan x
x ®¥ -2x + 13
(e) lim (b) If [.] denotes the greatest integer function, then
x ®0 x3
[x] + [2x] + ... + [nx]
3
ex - 1 - x 3 lim
(f) lim x ®¥ n2
x ®0 sin 6 2x
4. 1¥ form :
x+4
æx+6ö
(a) lim ç ÷
x ®¥
è x +1 ø
1/ x
æp ö
(b) lim tan ç + x ÷
x®0
è4 ø
1/(x -1)
(c) lim(x)
x ®1
(d) lim (1 + sin 2 x)1/(1- cos x)

x ®0
ANS WER KEY
p a 2 - b2 1
1. (a) (b) 3 (c) (d) 9 (e) 20 (f)
180 c2 - d2 2
1 3
(g) 2 (h) 2cos2 (i) (j) (k) 2 (l) 2cos3
4 2 2
1 2 25 a +1 1
(m) (n) 1 (o) (p) (q) (r)
3 3 36 b 2
5 17
(s) (t) (u) 4 (v) 0
3 15
1 a
2. (a) k (b) (c) log (d) log e a
a b
3. (a) 4 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/6 (d) 1/3 (e) –1/3
(f) 1/128
4. (a) e5 (b) e2 (c) e (d) e2
1 x
5. (a) - (b)
2 2

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 09 CONTINUITY MATHEMATICS
1. Determine whether the following functions are

ì 2 æ 1ö
continuous at the indicated points. ïx sin ç ÷ , x ¹ 0
(j) f(x) = í è xø at x = 0
ïî 0 ,x= 0
ìx
ï , x¹0
(a) f(x) = í x at x = 0
ïî 1, x = 0 2. Find k, if f(x) is continuous at indicated points.
ì1 - cos 4x
ï ,x¹0
ìx - x - 6
2 (a) f(x) = í 8x 2 at x = 0
ï , if x ¹ 3 ïî k ,x=0
(b) f(x) = í x - 3 at x = 3
ïî 5 , if x = 3
ì1 - cos2kx
ï ,x¹0
ìx - 9
2 (b) f(x) = í x2 at x = 0
ï
(c) f(x) = í x - 3 , if x ¹ 3 at x = 3 ïî 8 ,x= 0
ïî 6 , if x = 3
ìx - 1
ï
2
(c) f(x) = { kx + 1 , x £ p
cos x , x > p
at x = p
(d) f(x) = í x - 1 , for x ¹ 1 at x = 1

ïî 2 , for x = 1
(d) f(x) = {
kx + 1 , x £ 5
3x - 5 , x > 5
at x = 5
ì1 - x n
ï
(e) f(x) = í 1 - x , x ¹ 1 n Î N at x = ì x 2 - 25
ï
ïî n - 1 , x = 1 (e) f(x) = í x - 5 , x ¹ 5 at x = 5
ïî k ,x=5
ì1 - cos x
ï , if x ¹ 0 ì kx 2 , x ³ 1
(f) f(x) = í x 2 at x = 0
(f) f(x) = í at x = 1
ïî 1 , if x = 0 î 4 , x <1
3. Find the values of a and b such that the function

ì x- | x |
ï , When x ¹ 0
(g) f(x) = í 2 at x = 0 ì 5, if x £ 2
ïî 2 , When x = 0 ï
defined by f(x) = íax + b, if 2 < x < 10 is a
ï 21, if x ³ 10
î
ì| x - a |
ï , When x ¹ a at x = a Continuous function.
(h) f(x) = í x - a
ïî 1 , When x = a 4. f(x) = |x – 1| + |x – 2|, is discontinuous at point
(1) 1
ì x ,x >0 (2) 2
(i) f(x) = ïí 1 , x = 0 at x = 0 (3) 1 and 2
ïî- x , x < 0
(4) None of these
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
NUMER ICAL VALUE QUESTIONS
ì1 - cos2kx
ï ,x¹0
1 x2 7. If f(x) = í x2 is continuous at x = 0,
5. If f(x) = - is discontinuous at x = m and ïî 8 ,x=0
| x | -1 2
2
then the sum of all values of k is
3æ m -n ö
x = n then ç = ......
5 è 2 ÷ø
8. The number of points at which the function
ì x 2 - 25 1
ï f(x) = is discontinuous
6. If f(x) = í x - 5 , x ¹ 5 is continuous at x = 5,then log x
ïî k ,x=5
the value of k is
ANS WER KEY
1. (a) Discontinuous (b) Continuous (c) Continuous (d) Continuous (e) Discontinuous
(f) Discontinuous (g) Discontinuous (h) Discontinuous (i) Discontinuous
(j) Continuous
2 9
2. (a) 1 (b) k=±2 (c) k=– (d) k= (e) k = 10
p 5
(f) k=4
3. a = 2, b = 1
4. (4) 5. 0.6 6. 10 7. 0 8. 3

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 10 DIFFERENTIABILITY MATH EM ATI CS
1. The function f(x) = e–|x| is 8. If f(x) = x, x < 1 and f(x) = x2 + bx + c, x > 1 and
(1) Continuous everywhere but not differentiable f'(x) exists finitely for all x Î R then
at x = 0 (1) b = –1, c Î R (2) c = 1, b Î R
(2) Continuous and differentiable everywhere (3) b = 1, c = –1 (4) b = –1, c = 1
(3) Not continuous at x = 0 9. Let f(x) = x ( x - x + 1) , then

(4) None of these (1) f(x) is continuous but not differentiable at x = 0
(2) f(x) is differentiable at x = 0
2. The set of points where the function f (x) = 1 - e - x
2
(3) f(x) is not differentiable at x = 0

is differentiable is
(4) f(x) is not continuous at x = 0
(1) (-¥, ¥) (2) (-¥, 0) È (0, ¥)
æ 1ö
(3) (-1, ¥) (4) none of these 10. Let f(x) = xp cos çè x ÷ø , when x ¹ 0 and f(x) = 0 when
3. If f(x) = a |sinx| + b e |x| + c |x| 3 and if f(x) is x = 0. Then, f(x) will be differentiable at x = 0, if
differentiable at x = 0, then (1) p > 1 (2) p > 0
(1) a = b = c = 0 (2) a = b = 0, c Î R 1
(3) < p<1 (4) 0 < p < 1
(3) b = c = 0, a Î R (4) a = c = 0, b Î R 2
4. The function f(x) = |x – 1|ex is differentiable if x 11. For a real number y, [y] denotes the greatest integer
belongs to
tan(p[x - p])
(1) R (2) R – {1} less than or equal to y, then f(x) = is
1 + [x]2
(3) R–{–1} (4) R–{0}
(1) discontinuous at some x
5. The value of derivative of |x – 2| + |x – 5| at x = 4 is
(2) continuous at all x, but f'(x) does not exist
(1) 0 (2) –2
(3) 2 (4) none of these for some x
(3) f'(x) exists for all x but f"(x) does not exists
6. If the derivative of the function
(4) f'(x) exists for all x.
ì ax 2 + b x < -1 12. At the point x = 1, the function
f (x) = í 2 is everywhere
î bx + ax + 4, x ³ -1
ì x 3 - 1, 1 < x < ¥
f (x) = í is
continuous, then î x - 1, -¥ < x £ 1
(1) a = 2, b = 3 (2) a = 3, b = 2
(1) continuous and differentiable
(3) a = –2, b = –3 (4) a = –3, b = –2
(2) continuous and not differentiable
7. The number of values of x Î [0,2] at which the real
(3) discontinuous and differentiable
function 1
f (x) = x - + | x - 1| +tan x is not finitely (4) discontinuous and not differentiable.
2
13. The function f(x) = (x2 – 1)|x2 – 3x + 2| + cos (|x|) is
differentiable is not differentiable at
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) –1 (2) 0
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
14. If f is a continuous function such that
ìx, x<1
f(0) = f(1) = 0, f'(1) = 2 and y(x) = f(ex) ef(x), then 17. If f(x) = í 2
and f'(x) exists
y'(0) is î x + bx + c, x > 1
(1) 0 (2) 1 finitely for all x Î R then a+b is
(3) 2 (4) none of these 18. Let a and b real numbers such that the function
ì-3ax 2 - 2 , x < 1
15. The value of derivative of |x – 2| + |x – 5| at x = 4 is f(x) = í is diffrentiable for all x Î
î bx + a , x ³1
2
ìax 2 - b, | x |< 1 R then find the sum of all possible values of a

ï
16. If f (x) = í 1 is differentiable at x = 1,
ï | x | , | x |³ 1
î
then a + b is
ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. 0 16. -2 17. 0 18. 3

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE (MISCELLANEOUS) LIMIT, CONTINUITY, DIFFERENTIABILITY MATHEMATICS
INSTRUCTIONS : (1) The exercise sheet should be attempted in exam like environment. (2) The exercise sheet should be completed
in maximum 50 minutes. (3) You should not refer any study material/notes while attempting the sheet. (4) The answers must be checked
PAR T-I
(b) xlim x +1 - x
1. Find the limit ®¥
x + 7 - 3 2x - 3 (c) xlim x{ x 2 + 1 - x 2 -1}

(a) xlim ®¥
®2 3 x + 6 - 2 3 3x - 5
(d) xlim{ x + 1 - x} x + 2
x + 8 - 8x + 1 ®¥
(b) xlim
®1 5 - x - 7x - 3 4. Evaluate Limit
7 + 2x - ( 5 + 2 ) x cos x + 2sin x
(c) lim (a) lim
x® 10 x 2 -10 x®0 x 2 + tan x
sin(a + x) + sin(a - x) - 2 sin a

1+ x + x2 - x + 1 (b) lim
(d) lim x® 0 x sin x
x®0 2x 2
5.
3 + 2x - ( 2 + 1)
(e) lim æ 1ö
x® 2 x2 - 2 (a) lim x log ç 1 + ÷
x ®¥
è xø
1+ x 2 - 1 + x x{ln(x + a) - ln x}
(f) lim (b) lim
x ®¥
x®0
1+ x 3 - 1+ x
2. Find the limit: (ab) x - a x - bx + 1

(c) lim
x ®0 x2
3x -1 + 4x -2 6. Evaluate Limit
(a) lim
x®¥ 5x -1 + 6x -2
A cos x + Bx sin x - 5
(a) If lim exists & then find A and
x ®0 x4
x2 + a2 - x2 + b2
(b) xlim
®¥
B
x2 + c2 - x2 + d2
4 + sin 2x + Asin x + Bcos x
(b) Let f(x) = ,
æ 1 2 3 n - 1ö x2
(c) lim ç 2 + 2 + 2 + .... + 2 ÷
n®¥ è n n n n ø
If lim
x ®0
f(x) exists and finite then find A, B and
2 x + 33 x + 55 x limit.
(d) xlim
®+¥ 3x - 2 + 3 2x - 3 7. Evaluate Limit
( )
1/ 2x
2 2 (a) lim 1 + tan 2 x
2x + 3 2x + 3 x ®0
(e) lim and lim
x ® +¥ 4x + 2 x ® -¥ 4x + 2
1 /(x - a)
æ sin x ö
3. Find the Limit (b) lim ç ÷ (a ¹ kp , k is an integer)
x®a
è sin a ø
(a) xlim x 2 + cx - x lim (e x + x)1 / x
®¥ (c) x ®0

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
PART-II
x - e x + cos 2x
1. Determine whether the following functions are 6. If f(x) = ; x ¹ 0 is continuous at x = 0
x2
continuous at the indicated points.
then [f(0)] . {f(0)} = .....
ì 1/ x , if x ¹ 0 where, [.] = G.I.F. and {.} = F.P.F.
(a) f(x) = íe at x = 0
î 1 , if x = 0
ìax 2 - b, | x |< 1
ï
7. If f (x) = í 1 is differentiable at x = 1, then
ì x , 0 £ x < 1/ 2 ï | x | , | x |³ 1
ï 1 î
(b) f(x) = í 1/ 2, x = 1/ 2 at x =
2
îï1 - x, 1/ 2 < x £ 1
1 1
(1) a = , b = -
2 2
ì æ 1 ö
ï(x - a)sin ç ,x¹a
(c) f(x) = í è x - a ÷ø at x = a 1
(2) a = - , b = -
3
ïî 0 ,x=a 2 2
2. Find k, if f(x) is continuous at indicated points. 1

(3) a = b =
2
ì cos2 x - sin 2 x - 1
ï ,x¹0 (4) a = b = -
1
(a) f(x) = í x 2 + 1 -1 at x = 0 2
ï k ,x=0
î
ì| 2x - 3 |[x], x ³ 1
ï
ì 2 x + 2 - 16 8. The function f (x) = í æ px ö ([·] GIF)
ï ,x¹2 ïsin çè 2 ÷ø , x < 1
(b) f(x) = í 4x - 16 at x = 2 î
ïî k ,x=2 (1) is continuous at x = 2
3. Find a and b so that function f(x) is continuous at (2) is differentiable at x = 1
indicated points (3) is continuous but not differentiable at x = 1
(4) none of these
ì 1 , x£3
ï 9. Let f : [0,1] ® [0,1] be a continuous function. Then,
(a) f(x) = íax + b , 3 < x < 5 at x = 3 and x = 5
ïî 7 , x ³ 5 (1) f(x) = x for at least one x, 0 < x < 1
ì 1 - sin 3 x
(2) f(x) is differentiable in [0,1]
ï , x £ p/2
ï 3cos x
2
p (3) f(x) + x = 0 for at least one x such that 0 £ x £ 1
(b) f(x) = í a , x = p/ 2 at x = (4) none of these
ï b(1 - sin x) 2
ï , x > p/ 2
î ( p - 2x)
2 10. Let f(x + y) = f(x) f(y) V x, y Î R. Suppose that
f(3) = 3 and f'(0) = 11, then f'(3) is given by
4. Draw the graph of the function (1) 22 (2) 44
f(x) = x – |x – x 2 |, –1 £ x £ 2 and discuss the (3) 28 (4) 33
continuity or discontinuity of f(x) in the interval
11. Let f be a function satisfying
x Î [–1, 2].
f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) V x,y and
5. Discuss the continuity of the function
if f(x) = x2 g(x) where g(x) is a continuous function,
ì[x] + x - [x] ; x³0 then f'(x) equals.
f(x) = í
î sin x ; x<0 (1) g'(x) (2) g(0)
(Where [·] is greatest integer function) (3) g(0) + g'(x) (4) 0

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
x + y ö f (x) + f (y) 13. Let f(x + y) = f(x) f(y) V x, y Î R. Suppose that

12. Let f æç ÷= for all real x and y. If f'(0)
è 2 ø 2 f(3) = 3 and f'(0) = 11, then f'(3) is
exists and equals –1, then f'(y/2) equals : (1) 3/11 (2) 11/3
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 33 (4) None of these
(3) –1 (4) 2
ANS WER KEY

PAR T-I
5- 2 1 2 -1
1. (a) 34/23 (b) 7/12 (c) (d) (e) (f) 1
6 10 4 2 2
a 2 - b2 2 2 2
2. (a) 3/5 (b) (c) 1/2 (d) (e) and –
c2 - d2 3 4 4
3. (a) C/2 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 1/2
4. (a) 3 (b) –sina
5. (a) 1 (b) a (c) loga × logb
5
6. (a) A = 5, B = (b) A = –2, B = –4, L = 2
2
7. (a) e (b) ecota (c) e 2

PART-II
1. (a) discontinous (b) continuous (c) continuous
1 1
2. (a) –4 (b) 3. (a) a = 3, b = –8 (b) a = ,b=4
2 2
4. f(x) is continuous in the interval [–1, 2] 5. f(x) is continuous everywhere.
6. 1.50 7. (2)
8. (3) is continuous but not differentiable at x = 1 9. (1)
10. (4) 11. (4)
12. (3) 13. (3)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 11 MOD MATH EM ATI CS
PART-I (CHAIN RULE) PART-II

Differentiate the following functions with respect to x. (LOGARITHMIC DIFFERENTIATION)
All logarithms in questions and solutions to be assumed
to the base 'e'. dy
Find if
dx
1. e 2x
2. e sinx 1. y = xx
2. xy = yx
x
3. e
3. xmyn = (x + y)m+n
4. ex
2
4. y = (loge x)sin x
5. e –ax+b 5. (sin –1 x )cos
–1
x
6. e –x x
7. e 3x 6. y = xx
8. e ax +b 7. xy + yx = 4
9. ecos x 8. y = x1/x
9. y = xy
10. e 2x
10. y = xlogx
11. x + 5x + 6
3 2
11. xtany = ytanx
1 x
12. x6 – x5 + x4 – 12. y = ex
x3
13. y = x + x1/x
1 1 14. (x x ) x
13. x3 + 2 + +1
x x 15. xyyx = 1
14. 16. y = (1 + cosx)x
x3
17. y = sinx . sin 2x sin 3x sin 4x
15. 3
x 4
æ 5x 4 + 6x 2 - x + 1ö
16. çè ÷ø
x
2
æ 1 ö
17. çè x + ÷
xø
18. sin(x2 + 1)
19. esin x
20. log sin x
21. x2 + x + 1
22. log (sec x + tan x)

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
ANS WER KEY
PART-I (CHAIN RULE)
Differentiate the following functions with respect to x.
All logarithms in questions and solutions to be assumed to the base 'e'.
x
e
1. 2e 2x 2. (cos x)e sin x
3. 4. 2xex
2
2 x
5. -ae - ax + b 6. -e - x 7. 3e 3x 8. ae ax + b
2x
e
9. - sin x e cosx
10. 11. 3x 2 + 10x 12. 6x 5 - 5x 4 + 4x 3 + 3x -4
2x
1 1
3 2 4 3
13. 3x 2 - 2x -3 - x -2 14. (x) 15. x 16. 15x 2 + 6 - x -2
2 3
1
17. 1- 18. cos(x 2 + 1)(2x) 19. (cosx)esin x 20. cot x
x2
2x + 1
21. 22. sec x
2 x2 + x + 1
PART-II
(LOGARITHMIC DIFFERENTIATION)
y(x log y - y) dy
1. x x (log x + 1) 2. x(y log x - x) 3.
dx
æ sin x ö -1 æ - logsin -1 x cos-1 x ö

4. (loge x)sin x ç cosx(loge log e x) + ÷ 5. (sin -1 x)cos x
ç + ÷
è x loge x ø è 1 - x2 sin -1 x 1 - x 2 ø
x æ 1 ö -(y x log y + yx y -1 ) 1
æ 1 - log x ö
6. = x x ·x x log x ç1 + log x + ÷ 7. 8. xx ç ÷
è x log x ø x y log x + xy x -1 è x
2
ø
y2 æ 2 log x ö y æ tan y - x sec 2 x log y ö

9. 10. x log x ç ÷ 11. ç ÷
x(1 - y log x) è x ø x è tan x - y sec 2 y log x ø
12.
x
13. x (1 - log x)
x
14.
2
e x x x (1 + log x) 1+ x x (2x log x + x)
x2
y (y + x log y) æ x sin x ö
15. - 16. (1 + cosx)x ç log(1 + cosx) -
x (x + y log x) è 1 + cos x ÷ø
17. y(cot x + 2 cot 2x + 3cot 3x + 4 cot 4x)

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
Differentiate the following functions with respect to x. x x...... ¥

dy y2
27. If y = x , then prove that =
(Q. 1 to Q. 26) dx x(1 - y log x)
1. x3 + y3 = 3axy 2. x2 + xy + y2 = 100 28. If y = sin x + sin x + sin x + ......¥ ,
3. xy = c2 4. y3 – 3xy2 = x3 + 3x2y dy cos x

then prove that =
dx (2y - 1)
5. x2/3 + y2/3 = a2/3 6. 4x + 3y = log(4x – 3y)
x + e x +..... to ¥ dy y
2 2
29. If y = e x+e , then prove that dx = (1 - y)
x y
7. + =1 8. x5 + y5 = 5xy (cos x)...... ¥
If y = (cos x)
(cosx)
a 2 b2 30. , then prove that
9. (x + y)2 = 2axy 10. (x2 + y2)2 = xy dy -y 2 tan x
=
dx (1 - y logcos x)
æxö
11. ex – y = log ç ÷ 12. sin xy+cos(x+y)=1 31. If y = x + x + x + .......¥ , then prove that
èyø
13. exy + xy = 0 14. xy2 = 1 dy 1
=
15. xy = x + y3 3
16. x + y = sin xy dx (2y - 1)
17. y = tan (x + y) 18. x cos y = sin(x + y) 32. If y = log x + log x + log x + ........¥ ,
19. x = y log(xy) 20. ax + by = cosy
2
dy 1
then prove that (2y – 1) =
21. xn + yn = a n 22. x2 + y2 – xy = 4 dx x
23. x + y = xy3 24. xy + x2y2 = c 1 1 1
33. If y = x + ....... ¥ ,
25. x3 + x2y + xy2 + y3 = 81 x+ x + x +
dy y
26. xy + xy2 = tan x + y then prove that =
dx (2y - x)
ANS WER KEY

ay - x 2 (2x + y) (x + y) 2
1. 2. – 3. – y/x 4. 5. (–y/x) 1/3
y 2 - ax (x + 2y) y2 - 2xy - x 2
4(1 - 4x + 3y) –b 2 x y - x4 ay - x - y 4x(x 2 + y 2 ) - y

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
3(4x - 3y + 1) a2y y4 - x x + y - ax x - 4y(x 2 + y 2 )
y (xe x -y - 1) sin(x + y) - y cos(xy) –1 3x 2 - y

11. 12. 13. – y/x 14. y3 15.
x (ye x - y - 1) x cos(xy) - sin(x + y) 2 x - 3y2
y cos(xy) - 1 (-1)(1 + y 2 ) cos y - cos(x + y) (x - y)y -a

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
1 - x cos(xy) y2 x sin y + cos(x + y) x(y + x) 2by + sin y
–x n -1 y - 2x y
21. 22. 23. 24. – y/x
y n -1 2y - x x(1 - 3xy 2 )
-(3x 2 + 2xy + y 2 ) æ sec 2 x - y - y 2 ö

25. 26. ç x + 2xy - 1 ÷
(x 2 + 2xy + 3y 2 ) è ø

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
Differentiate the following questions dy

Find , when
dx
1. ex w.r.t x .
11. x = at2, y = 2at
2. sin2x w.r.t. ecosx.
12. x = a cos q, y = b sin q
3. sin x w.r.t. tan x.
–1 –1
13. x = a cos2 q , y = b sin2q
4. x6 with respect to (1/ x ).
14. x = a cos3q, y = a sin3q
5. log x with respect to cotx. 15. x = a(1 – cos q), y = a(q + sin q)
6. esin x with respect to cosx. 16. x = a log t, y = b sin t
7. sin x with respect to cos x.
3 3
17. x = (log t + cos t), y = (et + sin t)
æ 1 + x2 - 1 ö 18. x = cos q + cos 2q, y = sin q + sin 2q

8. tan -1 ç ÷ w.r.t. tan–1x.
ç x ÷
è ø 19. x = a(cos q + q sin q), y = a(sin q – q cos q)
1 - x2 dy
9. tan -1 with respect to cos–1x2.
1 + x2 20. Find , when x = a(t + sin t) and y = a(1 – cos t).
dx
æ x ö æ 1 + t2 ö 2t dy
10. tan -1 ç with respect to cos–1(2x2 – 1). 21. If x = a ç and y = find .
è 1 - x 2 ÷ø ÷ - 2
è1- t ø
2 (1 t ) dx
ANS WER KEY
- cos x
1 + x2 13 sin 2 x
1. 2e x
x 2. 2 cos xe 3. 4. -12 × x 2 5. -
1 - x2 x
1 1 1
6. -esin x 7. – tan x 8. 9. 10. -
2 2 2
1 - b cot q -b q
11. 12. 13. 14. –tan q 15. cot
t a a 2
b t cos t t(e t + cos t) æ cos q + 2cos2q ö t

16. 17. 18. - ç ÷ 19. tan q 20. tan
a (1 - t sin t) è sin q + 2 sin 2 q ø 2
(1 + t 2 )
21.
2at

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE (MISCELLANEOUS) MOD MATH EM ATI CS
Differentiate the following functions with respect to x. (sin x)...... ¥

If y = (sin x)
(sin x)
10. , then prove that
All logarithms in questions and solutions to be assumed
to the base 'e'. dy y 2 cot x
=
dx (1 - y logsin x)
1. x–3 + x–4 + x–5 + x–6 + x–2 + x–1 + 1
11. If y = cos x + cos x + cox + .........¥ ,

æ 2sin 2 x + 3cos x - 1ö
2. çè ÷ø dy sin x
sin x then prove that =
dx (1 - 2y)
æ e x tan x + 1ö
3. çè ÷
tan x ø
12. If y = tan x + tan x + tan x + ........¥ , then prove
dy sec 2 x
dy that =
Find if dx (2y - 1)
dx
a x........ ¥
If y = a
x
13. , then prove that
dy log x
4. If xy = ex–y, then prove that = .
dx (1 + log x)2 dy
=
y 2 (log y)
dx x[1 - y(log x)(log y)]
5. y = xx + (sinx)cot x
dy
Find , when
dx
(1 + x) (2 + x)
6. y=
(3 + x) (4 + x) 14. x= sin 2q , y = cos2q
(1 - x 2 )1 / 2 .(2x - 3)1 / 2
7. y= 15. x = eq(sin q + cos q), y = eq(sin q – cos q)
(x 2 + 2)2 / 3
16. If x = a[cosq + log tan (q/2)] and y = a sin q, find

dy y dy
8. If xp . yq = (x + y)p+q ; then prove that = at q = p/4
dx x dx
( x )( )
x ...... ¥
9. If y = ( x) , then prove that 17. If x = a sin 2t (1 + cos 2t) and
æ dy ö y2 æ dy ö b
xç ÷ = y = b cos 2t(1 – cos 2t), show that ç dx ÷ p = a .
è dx ø (2 - y log x) è øat t=
4

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
18. If x = 3 sint – sin3t, y = 3 cost – cos3t,
ìï 1 + x 2 - 1 - x 2 üï
22. tan - 1 í ý w.r.t. cos–1x2.
2
dy p îï 1 + x 2
+ 1 - x 2
ïþ
find 2 at t = .
dx 3
dy - y æ 2x ö æ 2x ö
23. tan -1 ç with respect to sin -1 ç .
19. If x = a sin -1 t and y = a cos-1 t , show that = . è 1 - x 2 ÷ø 2 ÷
è1+ x ø
dx x
Differentiate :
æ 1 - x2 ö -1 æ 3x - x ö
3
24. cos-1 ç with respect to tan ç 2 ÷.
æ 2x ö -1 æ 1 - x ö è 1 + x 2 ÷ø
2
20. sin -1 ç 2 ÷ w.r.t. cos ç . è 1 - 3x ø
2 ÷
è1+ x ø è1+ x ø
æ 1 + x2 - 1 ö -1 æ 2x ö
21. tan -1 ç ÷ with respect to sin ç 2 ÷
ç x ÷ è1+ x ø
è ø
ANS WER KEY
1. 3x–4 – 4x–5 – 5x–6 – 6x–7 – 2x–3 – x–2 2. 2 cos x - 3cosec 2 x + cosecx cot x
log x
3. e x - cosec 2 x 4. (1 + log x)2
1 (1 + x)(2 + x) æ 1 1 1 1 ö
5. x x (1 + log x) + (sin x)cot x (cot 2 x - cosec 2 x logsin x) 6. ç + - - ÷
2 (3 + x)(4 + x) è x + 1 x + 2 x + 3 x + 4 ø
æ -x 1 4x ö
7. yç + - ÷ 14. –(tan 2q)3/2
è (1 - x ) (2x - 3) 3(x + 2) ø
2 2
15. tan q 16. 1
-16
18. 20. 1
27
1 1
21. 22. -
4 2
2
23. 1 24.
3

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 14 PROBABILITY MATH EM ATI CS
Single correct choice type 6. The letter of the word ‘ASSASSIN’ are written down
1. In a single throw of two dice the probability of at random in a row. The probability that no two S
obtaining an odd number is occur together is
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
6 2 35 14
1 1
(3) (4) None of these (3) 15 (4) None of these
3
2. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the 7. The probability of getting 4 heads in 8 throws of a
probability of obtaining a multiple of 2 on one of coin, is
them and a multiple of 3 on the other
1 1
(1) 2 (2) 64
5 11
(1) (2)
36 36
8 8
C4 C4
(3) (4)
1 1 8 28
(3) 6
(4)
3 8. In a lottery 50 tickets are sold in which 14 are of
3. From 10,000 lottery tickets numbered from 1 to prize. A man bought 2 tickets, then the probability
10,000, one ticket is drawn at random. What is the that the man win the prize, is
probability that the number marked on the drawn 17 18
(1) (2)
35 35
ticket is divisible by 20
72 13
1 1 (3) (4)
175 175
(1) (2)
100 50
9. A card is drawn at random from a pack of cards. The
1 1 probability of this card being a red or a queen is
(3) (4)
20 10
1 1
(1) (2)
4. The probability of happening an event A in one trial 13 26
is 0.4. The probability that the event A happens at 1 7

least once in three independent trials is (3) (4)
2 13
(1) 0.936 (2) 0.784 10. If A and B are two events such that P( A) = 0.4 ,
(3) 0.904 (4) 0.216 P ( A + B) = 0.7 and P ( AB) = 0.2, then P (B) =
5. A bag contains 19 tickets numbered from 1 to 19. (1) 0.1 (2) 0.3
A ticket is drawn and then another ticket is drawn (3) 0.5 (4) None of these
without replacement. The probability that both the 11. Suppose that A, B, C are events such that
tickets will show even number, is
1 1
P ( A) = P (B) = P (C) = , P ( AB) = P (CB) = 0, P ( AC) = ,
9 8 4 8
(1) (2)
19 18
then P ( A + B) =
9 4 (1) 0.125 (2) 0.25
(3) (4)
18 19 (3) 0.375 (4) 0.5

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
12. A and B are two independent events. The æ ö B
15. If 4 P ( A) = 6 P (B) = 10 P ( A Ç B) = 1, then P ç A ÷ =
è ø
1
probability that both A and B occur is and the
6
2 3
(1) (2)
1 5 5
probability that neither of them occurs is . Then
3
7 19
the probability of the two events are respectively (3) 10 (4) 60
1 1 16. A pair has two children. If one of them is boy, then

(1) and
2 3
the probability that other is also a boy, is
1 1 1 1
(2) and (1) (2)
5 6 2 4
1 1 1
(3) and (3) (4) None of these
2 6 3
2 1 Numerical value questIons

(4) and
3 4
17. The probability of happening at least one of the
13. If A and B are two independent events such that events A and B is 0.6. If the events A and B happens
simultaneously with the probability 0.2, then
3 8
P ( A Ç B' ) = and P ( A'ÇB) = , then P(A) =
25 25 P ( A ) + P (B ) =
1 3 18. If A and B an two events such that

(1) (2)
5 8 5 1 1
P ( A È B)= , P ( A Ç B)= and P (B ) = , then
6 3 3
2 4
(3) 5
(4)
5 P (A)=
14. Let A and B be two events such that P ( A) = 0.3 and 1 1 7

19. If P( A) = , P (B) = and P ( A Ç B) = , then the
2 3 12
P ( A È B) = 0.8 . If A and B are independent events,
value of P ( A¢ Ç B ¢) is
then P(B) =
20. The two events A and B have probabilities 0.25 and
5 5
(1) (2) 0.50 respectively. The probability that both A and
6 7
B occur simultaneously is 0.14. Then the probability
3 2 that neither A nor B occurs is
(3) (4)
5 5
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (3)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. 1.2 18. 0.5 19. 0.75 20. 0.39

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 15 PROBABILITY MATH EM ATI CS
Single correct choice type 7. A bag contain 5 white, 7 black, and 4 red balls,
PART- I find the chance that three balls drawn at random
1. A coin is tossed and a die is thrown. Find the are all white.
probability that the outcome will be a head or a 8. Thirteen persons take their places at a round table,
number greater than 4. Find the odds against two particular persons sitting
2. If four coins are tossed, Two events A and B are together.
defined as 9. A has 3 shares in a lottery containing 3 prizes and 9
A : No two consecutive heads occur blanks, B has 2 shares in a lottery containing 2 prizes
B : At least two consecutive heads occur. and 6 blanks. Compare their chances of success.
Find P(A) and P(B). State whether the events are 10. (i) A fair die is tossed. If the number is odd, find
equally likely, mutually exclusive and exhaustive. the probability that it is prime.
3. 6 married couples are standing in a room. If 4 people (ii) Three fair coins are tossed. If both heads and
are chosen at random, then the chance that exactly tails appear, determine the probability that
one married couple is among the 4 is
exactly one head appears.
16 8 11. In throwing 3 dice, the probability that atleast 2 of
(1) (2)
33 33 the three numbers obtained are same is -
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/3
17 24
(3) (4) (3) 4/9 (4) None of these
33 33
12. There are 4 defective items in a lot consisting of 10
4. The probability that a positive two digit number
items. From this lot we select 5 items at random.
selected at random has its tens digit at least three
The probability that there will be 2 defective items
more than its unit digit is -
among them is -
(1) 14/45 (2) 7/45
1
(3) 36/45 (4) 1/6 (1)
2
5. A 5 digit number is formed by using the digits
2
0,1,2,3,4 & 5 without repetition. The probability (2)
that the number is divisible by 6 is : 5
(1) 8% (2) 17% 5
(3) 18% (4) 36% (3)
21
6. A card is drawn at random from a well shuffled
deck of cards. Find the probability that the card is 10
a- (4)
21
(i) king or a red card
13. If two of the 64 squares are chosen at random on a
(ii) club or a diamond
chess board, the probability that they have a side in
(iii) king or a queen
common is -
(iv) king or an ace
(1) 1/9 (2) 1/18
(v) spade or a club
(vi) neither a heart nor a king (3) 2/7 (4) None of these

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
14. Two red counters, three green counters and 4 blue 19. From a pack of 52 playing cards, face cards and
counters are placed in a row in random order. The tens are removed and kept aside then a card is drawn
probability that no two blue counters are adjacent at random from the remaining cards. If
is - A: The event that the card drawn is an ace
7 7 B: The event that the card drawn is a heart

(1) (2)
99 198 S : The event that the card drawn is a spade
then which of the following holds ?
5 (1) 9P(A) = 4P(H) (2) P(S) = 4P(AÇH)
42 (3) 3P(H) = 4P(AÈS) (4) P(H) = 12P(AÇS)
15. In a single throw of three dice, determine the 20. Given two independent events A, B such that
probability of getting P(A) = 0.3, P(B) = 0.6. Determine
(i) a total of 5 (i) P(A and B)
(ii) a total of atmost 5 (ii) P(A and not B)

(iii)P(not A and B)
(iii) a total of at least 5
(iv)P(neither A nor B)
16. A fair die is thrown 3 times. The chance that sum of
three numbers appearing on the die is less than 11, (v) P(A or B)
is equal to - 21. Let A & B be two events. Suppose P(A) = 0.4 ,
P(B) = p & P(A È B) = 0.7. The value of p for
1 2
(1) (2) which A & B are independent is :
2 3
(1) 1/3 (2) 1/4
1 5
(3) (4) 8 (3) 1/2 (4) 1/5
6
22. A license plate is 3 capital letters (of English
17. A pair of numbers is picked up randomly (without
alphabets) followed by 3 digits. If all possible
replacement) from the set {1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 12, 13,
license plates are equally likely, the probability that
17, 19}. The probability that the number 11 was
picked given that the sum of the numbers was even, a plate has either a letter palindrome or a digit
is nearly : palindrome (or both), is
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.125 7 9

(1) (2)
(3) 0.24 (4) 0.18 52 65
18. For a biased die the probabilities for the different
8
faces to turn up are given below : (3) (4) None of these
65
Faces : 1 2 3 4 5 6
Probabilities : 0.10 0.32 0.21 0.15 0.05 0.17 23. Let A and B be events such that P(A) = 4 / 5 ,
The die is tossed & you are told that either face one P(B) = 1/3, P(A/B) = 1/6, then find
or face two has turned up. Then the probability that (i) P(A Ç B)
it is face one is : (ii) P(A È B)
(1) 1/6 (2) 1/10 (iii)P(B/A)
(3) 5/49 (4) 5/21 (iv)Are A and B independent?
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
24. Coloured balls are distributed in four boxes as shown 27. A biased die is tossed and the respective
in the following table: probabilities for various faces to turn up are given
Colour below
Box
Black White Red Blue
Face 1 2 3 4 5 6
I 3 4 5 6
II 2 2 2 2 Pr obability 0.1 0.24 0.19 0.18 0.15 0.14
III 1 2 3 1
4 3 1 5 If an even face has turned up, then the probability
IV
that it is face 2 or face 4, is
A box is selected at random and then a ball is
randomly drawn from the selected box. The colour 28. There are 3 bags which are known to contain 2 white
of the ball is black, what is the probability that ball and 3 black balls; 4 white and 1 black balls and 3
drawn is from the box III? white and 7 black balls respectively. A ball is drawn
at random from one of the bags and found to be a
(1) 0.165 (2) 0.234
black ball. Then the probability that it was drawn
(3) 0.785 (4) 0.624 from the bag containing the most black balls is
25. A coin is biased so that heads is three times as likely 29. If X follows a binomial distribution with parameters
to appear as tails. Find P(H) and P(T). If such a coin
n = 6 and p. If 9 P ( X = 4) = P ( X = 2), then p =
is tossed twice find the probability that head occurs
at least once. 30. In a binomial distribution the probability of getting
a success is 1/4 and standard deviation is 3, then
Numerical based questions
its mean is
26. In a simultaneous toss of four coins, what is the
probability of getting exactly three heads
ANS WER KEY
2 1 1
1. 2. ; 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3)
3 2 2
7 1 2 2 1 9
6. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi)
13 2 13 13 2 13
1 2 1
7. 8. 5:1 9. 952 to 715 10. (i) , (ii) 11. (3)
56 3 2
1 5 53
12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (i) , (ii) , (iii) 16. (1)
36 108 54
17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (i) 0.18, (ii) 0.12, (iii) 0.42, (iv) 0.28, (v) 0.72
1 43 5
21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (i) , (ii) , (iii) , (iv) NO 24. (1)
18 90 18
3 1 15
25. , ; 26. 0.25 27. 0.75 28. 0.466 29. 0.25 30. 12
4 4 16

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE (MISCELLANEOUS) PROBABILITY MATH EM ATI CS
Single correct choice type 6. If m rupee coins and n ten paise coins are placed in
1. A problem of mathematics is given to three students a line, then the probability that the extreme coins
whose chances of solving the problem are 1/3, 1/4 are ten paise coins is
and 1/5 respectively. The probability that the n (n - 1)
question will be solved is (1) m+n
Cm / n m (2) (m + n) (m + n - 1)
2 3 4 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) m+n
Pm / m n (4) m +n
Pn / n m
3 4 5 5
7. For a biased die, the probabilities for different faces
2. The probability of hitting a target by three marksmen
to turn up are
1 1 1
are , and respectively. The probability thatt
2 3 4 Face : 1 2 3 4 5 6
one and only one of them will hit the target when Probability : 0.2 0.22 0.11 0.25 0.05 0.17
they fire simultaneously, is
The die is tossed and you are told that either face 4
11 1 or face 5 has turned up. The probability that it is
(1) (2)
24 12 face 4 is
1 1 1
(3) (4) None of these (1) 6 (2) 4
8
3. A determinant is chosen at random. The set of all 5

determinants of order 2 with elements 0 or 1 only. (3) (4) None of these
6
The probability that value of the determinant chosen
8. There are 3 bags which are known to contain 2 white
is positive, is
and 3 black balls; 4 white and 1 black balls and 3
(1) 3/16 (2) 3/8 white and 7 black balls respectively. A ball is drawn
(3) 1/4 (4) None of these at random from one of the bags and found to be a
4. A cricket team has 15 members, of whom only 5 black ball. Then the probability that it was drawn
can bowl. If the names of the 15 members are put from the bag containing the most black balls is
into a hat and 11 drawn at random, then the chance
7 5
of obtaining an eleven containing at least 3 bowlers (1) (2)
15 19
is
3
7 11 (3) (4) None of these
(1) (2) 4
13 15
9. Two friends A and B have equal number of
12 daughters. There are three cinema tickets which are
(3) 13
(4) None of these
to be distributed among the daughters of A and B.
5. A bag has 13 red, 14 green and 15 black balls. The The probability that all the tickets go to daughters
probability of getting exactly 2 blacks on pulling of A is 1/20. The number of daughters each of them
out 4 balls is P 1. Now the number of each colour have is
ball is doubled and 8 balls are pulled out. The 10. A cube with all six faces coloured is cut into 64
probability of getting exactly 4 blacks is P2. Then cubical blocks of the same size which are
(1) P1 = P2 (2) P1 > P2 thoroughly mixed. Find the probability that the 2
randomly chosen blocks have 2 coloured faces each
(3) P1 < P2 (4) None of these
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
11. A quadratic equation is chosen from the set of all 17. Of all the mappings that can be defined from the
the quadratic equations which are unchanged by set A : {1, 2, 3, 4} ® B(5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, a mapping is
squaring their roots. The chance that the chosen randomly selected. The chance that the selected
equation has equal roots is - mapping is strictly monotonic, is
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/3
1 2
(3) 1/4 (4) 2/3 (1) (2)
125 125
12. Mr. A forgot to write down a very important phone
number. All he remembers is that it started with 713
5 5
and that the next set of 4 digit involved are 1,7 and (3) (4)
9 with one of these numbers appearing twice. He 4096 2048
guesses a phone number and dials randomly. The 18. The probabilities that a student will receive A, B, C
odds in favour of dialing the correct telephone or D grade are 0.40, 0.35, 0.15 and 0.10
number, is - respectively. Find the probability that a student will
(1) 1 : 35 (2) 1 : 71 receive
(3) 1 : 23 (4) 1 : 36 (i) not an A grade
13. 5 persons entered the lift cabin on the ground floor (ii) B or C grade
of an 8 floor building. Suppose that each of them
(iii) at most C grade
independently and with equal probability, can leave
the cabin at any other floor, starting from the first, 19. A determinant is chosen at random from the set of
find the probability that all 5 persons leave at all determinants of order 2 with elements 0 or 1
different floors. only. The probability that the determinant chosen
14. Consider a function ƒ(x) that has zeroes 4 and 9. has the value non negative is :
Given that Mr. A randomly selects a number from (1) 3/16 (2) 6/16
the set {–10, –9,–8,......8,9,10}, what is the (3) 10/16 (4) 13/16
probability that Mr. A chooses a zero of ƒ(x2) ?
20. A card is drawn & replaced in an ordinary pack of
15. n different books (n > 3) are put at random in a 52 playing cards. Minimum number of times must
shelf. Among these books there is a particular book
a card be drawn so that there is atleast an even chance
'A' and a particular book B. The probability that
of drawing a heart, is
there are exactly 'r' books between A and B is -
(1) 2
2 2(n - r - 1) (2) 3
(1) (2)
n(n - 1) n(n - 1) (3) 4
2(n - r - 2) (n - r) (4) More than four

(3) (4) 21. Whenever horses a, b, c race together, their respective
n(n - 1) n(n - 1)
probabilities of winning the race are 0.3, 0.5 and
16. There are ten prizes, five A's, three B's and two C's, 0.2 respectively. If they race three times the
placed in identical sealed envelopes for the top ten probability that “the same horse wins all the three
contestants in a mathematics contest. The prizes are
races” and the probability that a, b, c each wins one
awarded by allowing winners to select an envelope
race, are respectively (Assume no dead heat)
at random from those remaining. When the 8 th
contestant goes to select the prize, the probability 8 9 16 3
that the remaining three prizes are one A, one B (1) ; (2) ,
50 50 100 100
and one C, is
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/3 12 15 10 8
(3) ; (4) ;
(3) 1/12 (4) 1/10 50 50 50 50

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
22. Two cubes have their faces painted either red or 24. An urn contains 3 red balls and n white balls. Mr. A
blue. The first cube has five red faces and one blue draws two balls together from the urn. The
face. When the two cubes are rolled simultaneously, probability that they have the same colour is 1/2.
the probability that the two top faces show the same Mr. B draws one ball from the urn, notes its colour
colour is 1/2. Number of red faces on the second and replaces it. He then draws a second ball from
cube, is the urn and finds that both balls have the same
(1) 1 (2) 2 colour is, 5/8. The possible value of n is
(3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 9 (2) 6
23. A committee of three persons is to be randomly (3) 5 (4) 1
selected from a group of three men and two women 25. The probability that an automobile will be stolen
and the chair person will be randomly selected from and found within one week is 0.0006. The
the committee. The probability that the committee probability that an automobile will be stolen is
will have exactly two women and one man, and 0.0015. The probability that a stolen automobile will
that the chair person will be a woman, is/are be found in one week is
(1) 1/5 (2) 8/15 (1) 0.3 (2) 0.4
(3) 2/3 (4) 3/10 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.6
ANS WER KEY

23
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. 3 10.
168
8
C5 · 5! 4
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. 14. 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (2)
85 21
18. (i) 0.6, (ii) 0.5, (iii) 0.25 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (1) 22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (2)

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 16 INDEFINITE INTEGRATION MATHEMATICS
Single correct choice type 8. ò sec x log(sec x + tan x) dx =

dx
1. ò x + x log x
=
(1) [log(sec x + tan x)] 2 + c
(1) log(1 + log x) (2) log log(1 + log x) 1
[log(sec x + tan x)] 2 + c
(2)
2
(3) log x + log(log x) (4) None of these
2
cot x (3) sec x + tan x sec x + c
2. ò log sin x
dx =
(4) None of these
(1) log(log sin x) + c (2) log(log cosec x) + c
(3) 2 log(log sin x ) + c (4) None of these æ cos x ö
x
9. òç x
ç -
cos x
sin x ÷÷ dx = ............. +C
3x 2 è ø
3. ò x6 + 1
dx =
(1) 2 x sin x (2) 2 x cosx

(1) log(x 6 + 1) + c (2) tan -1 ( x 3 ) + c
æ x3 ö (3) 2 x + cos x (4) None of these

(4) 3 tan çç 3 ÷÷ + c
-1
(3) 3 tan -1 (x 3 ) + c
è ø sin x dx
10. ò a 2 + b 2 cos 2 x
=
x dx
4. ò 1 - x cot x
=
1 æ a cos x ö
(1) log(a 2 + b 2 cos 2 x) + c (2) tan -1 ç ÷+c
(1) log(cos x - x sin x) + c (2) log( x sin x - cos x) + c ab è b ø
(3) log(sin x - x cos x ) + c (4) None of these 1 æ a cos x ö

1 æ b cos x ö -1
÷+c
(3) cot -1 ç ÷+c (4) ab cot ç b ø
ab è a ø è
dx
5. ò e + e -x
x
=
dx
(1) tan (e ) -1 -x
(2) tan (e )
-1 x 11. To find the value of ò x 2ax - x 2
, the suitable sub-
(3) log(e x - e - x ) (4) log(e x + e - x ) stitution is

(1) x = a cos t (2) x = 2a cos t
x x
e cos e
6. ò x
dx = (3) x = 2at (4) x = 2a sin 2 t
Subjective Type Questions
(1) 2 sin e x (2) sin e x
(3) 2 cos e x (4) - 2 sin e x

12. ò sin x° dx
5x x
7. ò
x 5 dx
(1 + x 3 )
= 13. ò 55 × 55 × 5x dx
e 2x + 1
(1)
2
(1 + x 3 )( x 3 + 2) (2)
2
(1 + x 3 )( x 3 - 4)
14. ò e 2x - 1
dx
3 9
x3
(3)
2
9
(1 + x 3 )( x 3 + 4) (4)
2
9
(1 + x 3 )( x 3 - 2) 15. ò 1 - x8
dx

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
x+2 1
16. ò (x + 1)3
dx 22. ò e 2x - 1
dx = j(x) + c then f(0) is equal to
x e -1 + e x -1 23. ò sec x tan xdx = f(x) + c then 2020 f(p) is equal to

2020
17. ò xe + ex
dx
NCERT Questions
1
18. òx- x
dx
24.
dx
ò x ( log x ) m
, x > 0, m ¹ 1
Numerical Value Type
dx
cot x æpö 25. ò cos x (1 - tan x )
2
ò dx = - f(x) + c then f ç ÷ is equal to 2
19.
sin2x è4ø
æ x 3 sin ( tan -1 x 4 ) ö
x 26. ò çç 1 + x 8 ÷÷dx
è ø
20. If ò 16 - x 4
dx = f(x) + c then 4f(2) is equal to
(take p = 3.14) æ sin 3 x + cos 3 x ö

27. ò çè sin 2 x cos 2 x ø
÷dx
3x + 1 1
21. ò (3x 2
+ 2x + 1)3
dx = k
(3x 2 + 2x + 1)2
+ c then value of
k is
ANS WER KEY
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (4)

5x
180 55
8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. – cos x° + c 13. +c
p (loge 5)3
1 -1 4 1 1
14. log |ex – e–x| + c 15. sin x + c 16. - - +c
4 (x + 1) 2(x + 1)2
1
17. log x e + e x + C 18. 2 log x - 1 + c 19. (1) 20. (3.14)
e
( log x )
1- m
21. (–0.25) 22. (0) 23. (1) 24. +C

1- m
1 1
25. -C 26. - cos ( tan -1 x 4 ) + C 27. sec x – cosec x + C
(1 - tan x ) 4

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 17 INDEFINITE INTEGRATION MATH EM ATI CS
Single correct choice type æ 1 + sin 2x ö

òe
2x
6. ç ÷ dx = ........ + C
è 1 + cos 2x ø
òx
2
1. log xdx = ........ + C
e2 x e2 x
(1) - cot x (2) tan x
2 2
x3 é 1ù x3 é 1ù
(1)
3 ê log x + 2 ú (2)
3 ê log x - 3 ú
ë û ë û
e2 x e2 x
(3) - tan x (4) cot x
x2 é 1ù x4 é 1ù 2 2
(3)
2 êlog x + 2 ú (4)
4 ê log x + 2 ú
ë û ë û
x e-x
ò e cos
-x
7. 2
dx = - f(x) +C then f(x) is equal to
1 2 4
ò sin
-1
2. dx = ........ + C (x > 0)
x
(1) 2 - sin x + cos x (2) 2 - sin x - cos x
-1 (3) 1 + sin x + cosx (4) 1 - sin x + cos x
(1) cosec x × x + log x + x - 1
2
x2
òe
x
-1 8. dx = ............. +C
(2) cosec x × x - log x + x - 1
2
(x + 2)2
-1 x2 xæ x-2 ö
(3) cosec x × x - log x + x + 1
2 x
(1) e (2) e ç x + 2 ÷
(x + 2)2 è ø
-1
(4) cosec x × x + log x + x + 1
2
ex
x+2
e2 x
ò x e dx = f(x) + C then f(x) will be
2 2x
3. 1
4 9. ò 1 + sin x + cos x dx = ........ + C
(1) 2x2 + 2x + 1 (2) 2x2 – 2x – 1

(3) 2x2 – 2x + 1 (4) 2x2 + 2x – 1 1 x x
(1) log tan + 1 (2) log tan - 1
2 2 2
1
4. ò(sin2x -cos2x)dx = 2
sin(2x -a) + b, bÎR then a = ........
x 1 x
log tan - 1
(3) log tan + 1 (4)
2 2 2
5p p 3p p
(1) (2) - (3) (4) 1
4 4 4 4
10. ò 8cos 2
x + 3sin 2 x + 1
dx = ........ + C
sin k x sin m x
ò sin x cos xdx = - + C then k + m is
8 3
5. 1 -1 æ 2 cot x ö
k m 1 -1 æ 2cot x ö
(1) tan ç ÷ (2) 6 tan ç
2 è 3 ø è 3 ÷ø
equal to
(1) 20 (2) 9 1 -1 æ 2 cot x ö 1 -1 æ 2 tan x ö
(3) 3 tan ç 3 ÷ø
(4) 6 tan ç 3 ÷ø
(3) 11 (4) –20 è è

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
(x 4 - x )1 / 4
11. ò x5
dx = .........
5. ò
x 2 + 1 [ln(x 2 + 1) - 2 ln x]
dx
x4
5/4 5/4
4 æ 1 ö 4æ 1 ö Numerical Value Type
(1) 15 ç1 - 3 ÷ +c (2) 5 ç 1 - 3 ÷ +c
è x ø è x ø
6x + 7
4 æ 1 ö
5/4 1. ò (x - 5)(x - 4)
dx
(3) ç1 + 3 ÷ +c (4) None of these
15 è x ø
9
Subjective Type Questions = A x2 - 9x + 20 + Blog x - + x 2 - 9x + 20 + C ,
2
1 + cos x then A + B is equal to
1. (i) ò sin x cos x dx 2. By taking e = 2.71 evaluate
sin 4x é 1 ù
(ii) ò sin x dx ò êëlog(log x) + (log x) 2 ú dx = f(x) + C then f(e) =
û
sin 4x
(iii) ò cos2x dx (2x 2 + 1) æ æ x + 1 öa æ x - 2 öb ö
3. ò (x 2 - 4)(x2 - 1) dx = log çç èç x - 1 ø÷ èç x + 2 ø÷ ÷÷ + C
4 è ø
sec x
(iv) ò tan x
dx
then value of a + b is equal to
5
-
sin 2 x æ -
12
ö 3
(v) ò 3
cos14 x
dx 4. ò çè
x 1 + x 23
÷ dx = f(x) + C , then f(0) is equal to
ø
5x 4 + 4x 5 NCERT Questions
(vi) ò (x 5 + x + 1)2 dx Evaluate:
(vii) ò
sin2x
dx ( 3sin f - 2 ) cos f
æ pö æ pö
sinç x - ÷.sinç x + ÷
1. ò 5 - cos 2
f - 4sin f
df
è 6ø è 6ø
æ 2x ö
ò sin
sin 2x cos2x -1
(viii) ò dx 2. ç ÷ dx
9 - cos4 2x è 1+ x2 ø
ex 1
2. (i) ò 1 + ex
dx 3. ò cos ( x + a ) cos ( x + b )dx
(ii) ò e x - 1 dx
4. ò
1
dx
sin x sin ( x + a )
3
1
(iii) òx x4 - 1
dx
x2 + x +1
5. ò ( x + 1)2 ( x + 2 ) dx
3. ò 2x - x 2 dx
5x + 3
4.
x 2 + 4x + 10

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (1)
8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (1)
Subjective Type
x æ sin 3x ö
1. (i) log tanx + log tan + c (ii) 2ç + sin x ÷ + c (iii) –cos2x + c
2 è 3 ø
2
5
3
5
3
11 1
(iv) 2 tan x + tan 2 x + c (v) (tan x) 3 + (tan x) 3 + c (vi) +c
5 5 11 (1 + x -4 + x -5 )
ì æ pö æ p öü 1 æ cos2 2x ö
(vii) log ísin ç x - ÷ sin ç x + ÷ ý + c (viii) - sin -1 ç ÷+c
î è 6 ø è 6 øþ 4 è 3 ø
1 -1 2
2. (i) 2 1 + ex + c (ii) 2 êé e x - 1 - tan -1 e x - 1 úù + c (iii) sec x + c
ë û 2
(x - 1) 1
3. 2x - x 2 + sin -1 (x - 1) + c
2 2
4. 5 x 2 + 4x + 10 - 7 log x + 2 + x 2 + 4x + 10 + C
3
1æ 1 ö2 é æ 1 ö 2ù
5. - ç 1 + 2 ÷ ê log ç 1 + 2 ÷ - ú + C
2 è x ø ë è x ø 3û
Numerical Value
1. 40 2. –2.71 3. 1.25 4. 3
NCERT Questions
4
1. 3log ( 2 - sin f ) + +C 2. 2x tan–1x – log (1 + x2) + C
2 - sin f
1 cos ( x + b )
3. log +C
sin ( a - b ) cos ( x + a )
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 18 DEFINITE INTEGRATION MATH EM ATI CS
Subjective Type Questions p /2

dx
1
12. ò 5 + 4 sin x
dx 0
1. ò 1+ x - x
0 p /4
p
13. ò cos 2x 1 - sin 2 x dx
4 0
cos x
2. ò 2 - sin 2 x
dx
2
0 dx
14. ò
p
1 (
x x4 +1 )
4
3. ò tan 2 x dx
1
1- x2
ò0 1 + x 2 + x 4 dx
0
15.
5
2x
4. ò 5x 2
+1
dx
p /4
2 sin q + cos q
16. ò 9 + 16 sin 2q
dq
0
1
sin -1 x
5. ò x (1- x)
dx
p /2
0 x + sin x
17. ò 1 + cos x
dx
ln 2 0
6. ò x e-x dx
1
0 æ d æ 1 öö
18. ò ççè dx çè 1 + e 1/ x ÷ ÷÷ dx
øø
e æ 1 ln x ö÷
-1
ç
7. ò ç x ln x
+
x ÷
dx
1 è ø p /4
sin 2 x
19. ò sin x + cos4 x
4
dx
0
cos x æpö æ 3p ö
8. f ' (x) = , f ç ÷ = a, f ç ÷ = b,
x è2ø è 2 ø 2
5x 2
20. ò1 x 2 + 4x + 3 dx
3p 2
then find ò f ( x ) dx = .......... 1
p2 1
( x - x3 ) 3
21. ò
1 x 4
dx
e
æ 1 1 ö 3
9. ò ç - 2 ÷ dx
è ln x ln x ø
2 22. Evaluate the following definite integratls as limit of
sums:
9
x
ò dx 4
10.
( 30 - x ) ò (x - x ) dx
3 2 2
4 2 (i)
1
p /2
cos x dx 1
11. ò (1+ sin x) (2 + sin x) (ii) òe
x
dx
0
-1

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
Numerical Value Type 1
25. If f(0) = 3, f(2) = 5, f '(2) = 7 then ò x × f "(2x)dx = .....

æ px ö æ 1ö
23. If f(x) = A sin çè ÷ø + B, f ' çè ÷ø = 2 and
0
2 2
4/3
2x 2 + x +1 dx then eA = ........
1
2A pA + B
26. Let A = ò
ò f ( x ) dx =
3 2
then = ..... 3/ 4 x + x + x +1
0
p 5
p
24. If f(p) = 2 and ò (f(x)+ f ¢¢(x)) sin x dx = 5, then
0
f(0) = .........
ANS WER KEY
1 52 p p 1
1. (2) 2. 3. 1- 4. loge 6
3 6 4 5
p2 1 æ eö p
5. 6. ln ç ÷ 7. 2 e 8. 2- ( a - 3b)
4 2 è 2ø 2
2 19 4 2 1
9. e- 10. 11. ln 12. tan-1
ln 2 99 3 3 3
1 1 32 1 1
13. 14. ln 15. ln3 16. ln 3
3 4 17 2 20
p 1- e p 5æ 5 3ö
17. 18. 19. 20. 5 - ç 9 log - log ÷
2 1+ e 4 2è 4 2ø
27 1
21. 4 22. (i) (ii) e - 23. 0.8 24. 3
2 e
25. 3 26. 1.77
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
Single correct choice type

p
1 + cos2x
p 7. ò 2
dx
1.
ò cos x dx is equal to
0
0
(1) 0
(1) 2 (2) 4 (2) 1
(3) 6 (4) 8 (3) 2
1 (4) 3
2. ò 3x - 1 dx is equal to b
ò f(a + b - x) dx is equal to ........

0
8.
(1) 1/2 (2) 11/2 a
(3) 7/6 (4) 5/6

b -a b
2
(1) ò f(x) dx (2) ò f(x) dx
3. ò
0
x2 + 2x - 3 dx is equal to 0 a
a b
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8 (3) ò
b
f(x) dx (4) ò f(x - a) dx
a
4. ò
If f ( x ) = x + x - 1 then f ( x ) dx = ... b
0 9. If f(a + b – x) = f(x), then

ò xf(x) dx is equal to
a
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 8 b b
a+b a+b
1.5
(1)
2 ò
f(x) dx (2)
2 ò
f(b - x) dx
ò [x ] dx is equal to
a a
2
5.
0
b
b-a
(1) 2 - 2 (2) 2 -2
(3)
2 ò
f(x) dx
a
(4) None of these
(3) 1.5 (4) 2

p
2 2
sin 4 x
6. ò
0
{x} dx is equal to; where, {} is a fractional part 10. ò
0
sin 4 x + cos 4 x
dx is equal to
function.
p p
(1) 2 (1) (2)
2 4
(2) 3
(3) 1 p p
(3) (4)
(4) -1 3 8

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
p p
4
2
ò x sin
3 4
11. ò
0
log tan x dx is equal to 17.
-p
4
x dx is equal to
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 3 (2) 2

(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 1 (4) 0
¥
log(1 + x 2 ) p
12. ò dx is equal to ........ 2
1 + x2
ò (x )
5
0 18. + x sec x + cot 5 x + 1 dx is equal to
-p
2
(1) plog 2 (2) –plog 2
p p (1) 0 (2) 2p
(3) log2 (4) – log2 (3) p (4) 3p
2 2
kb
a
13. òx+
dx
a -x 2 2
is equal to ........
19. ò f(x) dx is equal to ........
ka
0
(1) p/2 (2) p/4 b b
(3) p/3 (4) p (1) k f(x) dx ò a

ò
(2) k 2 f(x) dx
a
p
14. ò log(1 + cos x) dx is equal to

0
b b
ò ò f(kx) dx
3
(3) k f(kx) dx (4) k
æ1ö æ3ö a a
(1) p log ç ÷ (2) p log ç ÷
è2ø è2ø
100 p
æ5ö
(3) p log ç ÷
æ2ö
(4) p log ç ÷
20. ò | sin x | dx
0
is equal to
è2ø è3ø
(1) 100p (2) 100
p
(3) 200 (4) 200p
If I1 = ò x f(sin x + cos x)dx and
3 2
15.
0
10
p
I1 21. ò ( x - [ x]) dx is equal to; where, []=G.I.F..
I2 = ò
0
f(sin3 x + cos2 x)dx then
I 2 is equal to
0
(1) 20 (2) 5
(1) p/2 (2) –p
(3) 10 (4) 15
(3) 2p (4) –2p
100
òe
2p x -[ x ]
x sin 2n x dx
16. ò
0 (sin 2 n x + cos2 n x)
dx is equal to 22.
0
is equal to; where, [] = G.I.F..
(1) p (1) 100e

(2) –p2 (2) 100(e+1)
(3) p 2
(3) 100(e-1)
(4) –2p 2
(4) 200e
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
16 p
4000 p
3 dx
23. ò | sin x |dx is equal to 27. If ò
0
1 + e sin x
= kp then k is equal to
0
(1) 1000 (2) 2000

21 31 (3) 3000 (4) 4000
(1) (2)
2 2
Subjective types questions
41 Evaluate :
(3) (4) 10
2 5
Numerical Value Type 28.

ò x + 2 dx
-5
2
òx
3
24. If - x dx = k then k is equal to 1
ò x (1 - x )
n
-1 29. dx
(1) 1.75 (2) 2.75 0
(3) 3.75 (4) 4.75

p
2
25. If f(x) = f(a – x) and g(x) + g(a – x) = 10, cos5 x
a a
30.
ò
0
cos5 x + sin 5 x
dx
ò ò
also f ( x ) g ( x ) dx = k f ( x ) dx then k is equal to
0 0
p
4
(1) 0
(3) 2
(2) 1
(4) 5
31.
ò log (1 + tan x ) dx
0
11 7 5
26. For f ( x ) = x - 3x + 7x - x + 1 ,
cos2 x
p
4
k
if
-p
ò f ( x ) dx = 8 then k is equal to
4
(1) 24 (2) 56
(3) 16 (4) 32
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (3)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. 29
1 p p
29. 30. 31. log 2
( n + 1)( n + 2 ) 4 8

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
x3 2p
d dt
1.
dx ò
x2 log t
is equal to
6. òe
dx
sin x
+1
is equal to
0
x2 - x x2 + x (1) .0 (2) 2 p
(1) (2)
logx logx (3) p (4) 3 p
(3) 0 (4) None of these æ n n 1 ö

7. lim ç 2 2 + 2 2 + ..... + ÷ is equal to :-
n®¥ è n +1 n +1 2n ø
( )
x
2. If f ( x ) = ò 1
x
sin t 2 dt then f ' (1) is equal to :-
(1)
p
(2)
p
2 4
3 3
(1) (2) sin1 p p
2 2 (3) (4)
3 6
3
(3) cos1 (4) None of these æ1 1 1 1 ö
2 8. lim ç + + + ..... + ÷ is equal to :-
n ®¥ è n n +1 n + 2 3n ø
x2
ò
(1) ln 3 (2) ln 6
3. If f ( x ) = 1 + t 2 dt then f ' (x) is equal to :-
0
(3) ln 9 (4) ln12
(1) 1 + x2 (2) 1 + x4 2n
å
1 r
9. lim is equal to :-
(3) x 1 + x 4 (4) 2x 1 + x 4
n®¥ n r =1 n + r2
2
x4 (1) 5 +1 (2) 4
4. If f ( x ) = ò x2
sin t dt then f ' (x) is equal to :-
(3) 5 -1 (4) 1
( )
(1) 4x 3 cos x 2 - 2xcosx p
2
ò sin
4
10. x cos6 x dx is equal to
(2) 4x sin x 3
( ) - 2x sin x
2
0
(3) sin x 3p
(1)
256
(4) None of these
3
(2)
x2 256
ò cos t
2
dt
3p
5. lim 0 equal to :- (3)
x®0 x sin x 512
(1) 2 (2) 1 p
(4)
(3) 0 (4) None of these 6

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
p
2 1 x7
11. ò sin
4
x dx is equal to 14. If ò 0
1 - x4
dx = k then value of [k] is equal; to
0
........ ; where [.] is greatest integer function.
3 3p p
(1) (2)
8 8 2
7p
ò sin x cos8 xdx =
4
15. If then find the value of k.
k
3p 3p 0
(3) (4)
4 16 Subjective type questions
p 3
ò
4 2
Let I n = tan n x dx (n>1, n Î N ) then
12.
0
16. ò x sin ( px ) dx
-1
1
(1) I n = I n -2 (2) I n + I n-2 = 1
n -1 òe
2 -3x
17. dx as a limit of a sum
0
1
(3) I n - I n-2 = (4) None of these
n -1 p
æ 1 - sin x ö
òe
x
18. ç ÷ dx
Numerical Value Type p è 1 - cosx ø
2
b b
2
ò x dx = 0 and ò x dx = 3 then value of b50- a
p
3 2 x
13. If
a a
is 19. òa
0
2
cos x + b2 sin 2 x
2
dx
equal to :-
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3)
3 1 1æ 2 1ö
11. (4) 12. (2) 13. 0.04 14. 0 15. 2048 16. + 17. e - ÷
p p2 3 çè eø
p p2
18. e 2 19.
2ab

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE (MISCELLANEOUS) INDEFINITE INTEGRATION, DEFINITE INTEGRATION MATH EM ATI CS
PAR T-I é (log x - 1) ù

2
Single correct choice type

6. ò êë1 + (log x)2 úû dx = ............. +C
log( x + 1 + x 2 ) xe x x
1. ò 1+ x 2
dx = (1)
1 + x2
(2) (log x)2 + 1
1 log x x
(1) [log( x + 1 + x 2 )]2 + c (2) log( x + 1 + x 2 )2 + c
2 (3) (log x)2 + 1 (4)
x +1
2
(3) log( x + 1 + x 2 ) + c (4) None of these

tan 4 x tan 2 x æ pö
7. ò tan
5
xdx = - + f(x) + C then f ç ÷ =
4 2 è4ø
1 - cos x
2. ò cos x(1 + cos x) dx = ............. +C
1
(1) log 2 (2) log 2
x 2
(1) log e (sec x + tan x) - 2 tan
2 1
(2) loge (sec x) (3) –log 2 (4) - log 2
2
(3) loge (tan x)
11 1
(4) None of these
ò ( sin x ) 3 ( cos x ) 3 dx = ............. +C
- -
8.
dx
3. ò 1 + ex
=
8 2
3 - 3 -
(1) - (tan x) 3 - (tan x) 3
(1) log(1 + e x ) (2) - log(1 + e - x ) 8 2
8 2
(3) - log(1 - e - x ) (4) log(e - x + e -2x ) 8 - 2 -
(2) - (tan x) 3 - (tan x) 3
3 3
sin x 5 4
4. ò cos 2
x cos2x
dx = ............. +C 8 - 2 -
(3) - (tan x) 3 - (tan x) 3
3 3
(4) None of these
(1) - 1 - tan 2 x (2) - 1 + sec 2 x
sin x + cos x
(3) - 1 + cos 2 x (4) - 1 + sin 2 x 9. ò 17 - sin 2x dx = ......... + C
1 æ sin x - cos x ö 1 -1 æ sin x - cosx ö

òe
-1
5.
secx
sec3 x(sin2 x + cosx + sinx + sinxcosx)dx = ... + C (1) 4 tan ç ÷ (2) tan ç ÷
è 4 ø 2 è 2 ø
(1) esecx (sec2 x +secxtanx) 1 -1 æ sin x + cos x ö 1 -1 æ sin x + cos x ö

(3) 2 tan ç 2 ÷ (4) 4
tan ç
2 ÷
è ø è ø
(2) etanx (sec2 x + secxtanx)
Subjective type questions
(3) esec x (sec x + tan x)
e x (x + 1)
(4) e sec x 10. ò cos2 (xe x )
dx

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
p
11. ò sec xcosec 2 xdx = K tan 3 x + L tan x + M cot x + C , then
4
2
3(K + L + M) =
10. ò ( 2 logsin x - logsin 2x ) dx
0
ò[ cot x + tan x ] dx
¥
12. log x
11. ò1+ x
0
2
dx is equal to ........
æ sin -1 x - cos -1 x ö
13. ò çè sin -1 x + cos -1 x ÷ø dx, x Î [0,1] (1) p (2) 0
(3) log 2 (4) p log 2
1
1- x log x
14. ò 1+ x
dx 12.
ò
0 1 - x2
dx is equal to ........
PART-II (1) p log(1/2) (2) –plog(1/2)

p /4
sin 2 x . cos2 x p p
1. ò dx (3) log(1/2) (4) – log(1/2)
(sin )
2
0
3
x + cos3 x 2 2
p /4 p
4
tan 2 x p
2. ò (x cos x · cos 3x)dx 13. If ò x
dx = 4k - then k is equal to
0 1+ e 4
-p
4
3
x
3. ò 3- x
dx (1) 0.25 (2) 1.25
0
(3) 3.25 (4) 4.25
1/ 2
dx
4. ò 2
( )
æx x ö
ç ò e dx ÷
2
0 1- 2 x 1- x2
lim èx0 ø
14. x ®¥ equal to
ò e dx
2 x2
p
0
òx
sin x
5. (1 + x cos x · ln x + sin x ) dx
p2
19
(1) (2) 0
p 2
6. ò q sin2 q cos q dq
0 17
e 2
dx
7. ò ln( x x e x ) x2 dz d2y
1
15. If y = ò 0 1 + z3
then find
dx 2
at x = 1
2
æ1 1 ö 2x (1) –1 (2) –4
8. ò çè x - 2x 2÷
ø
e dx
1 (3) –8 (4) –2
9. If g (x) is the inverse of f (x) and f (x) has domain 1
1
x Î [1, 5], where f (1) = 2 and f (5) = 10. Find the 16. lim éë( n + 1)( n + 2 )( n + 3 ) ...... ( 2n ) ùû n is equal to :-
n®¥ n
5 10
value of ò f ( x ) dx + ò g ( y) dy . (1)
e
(2) 4e (3) e 4 (4)
4
1 2 4 e
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
17. The least value of the function
æ1ö
19. For 2f ( x ) - 3f ç ÷ = x ,
x
é 5p 4 p ù èxø
f(x) = ò (3sin t + 4cos t) dt on the interval êë 4 , 3 úû 2
ò f ( x ) dx = k (1 + ln 2 ) then k is equal to :-
5p/ 4
if
is equal to :- 1
3 3 1
(1) 3+ (2) 2 3 + 2 - 4 sin 2 x 1 1
2 2
If (1 - sin x ) ( 2 + sin x ) (1 - sin x )
2 2 2
20. then
3 1 3 1
(3) 2 + (4) -2 3 + 2
+
(1 + sin x ) (1 + sin x )
2 2
sin 2 x
2 2
e 37
p sin ( p log x ) p
18. ò1
x
dx is equal to 2
ò f ( x ) dx .
evaluate -p
2
(1) 2 (2) 37 -p
(3) 74 (4) 0
p
2
ò sin 2x tan ( sin x ) dx

-1
21.
0
ANS WER KEY

PAR T-I
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (2)
æ tan x - 1 ö
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. tan(xex) + c 11. 4 12. 2 tan -1 ç ÷+C
è 2 tan x ø
2 ( 2x - 1) -1 2 x - x2
13. sin x+ -x+C 14. -2 1 - x + cos -1 x + x - x 2 + C
p p
PART-II
1.
1
6
2.
p-3
16
3.
3p
2
4.
1
2
ln 2 + 3( ) 5. p-
p2
4
4 e 2 ( e 2 - 2)
6. - 7. ln 2 8. 9. 48
9 4
p 1
10. log 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (4) 16. (4)
2 2
p
17. (4) 18. (1) 19. – 0.6 20. 4 21. -1
2
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 21 AOD MATH EM ATI CS
1. A particle is moving on a straight line, where its 6. If y = x3 + 5 and x changes from 3 to 2.99, then the
position s (in metre) is a function of time t (in approximate change in y is
seconds) given by s = at2 + bt + 6, t ³ 0. If it is (1) 2.7 (2) – 0. 27
known that the particle comes to rest after 4 seconds (3) 27 (4) None
at a distance of 16 metre from the starting position
7. The point of the curve y2 = 2(x – 3) at which the
(t = 0), then the retardation in its motion is
normal is parallel to the line y – 2x +1 = 0 is
5 æ 1 ö
(1) –1m/sec2 (2) m / sec 2
4 (1) (5,2) (2) ç - 2 ,-2÷
è ø
1 5 æ3 ö
(3) - m / sec (4) - m / sec
2 2
2 4 (3) (5, –2) (4) ç 2 , 2 ÷

è ø
2. Radius of a circle is increasing uniformly at the rate px

of 3 cm/sec. The rate of increasing of area when 8. The equation of the normal to the curve y = sin at
2
radius is 10 cm, will be (1, 1) is
(1) p cm /s
2
(2) 2p cm /s 2
(1) y = 1 (2) x = 1
(3) 10p cm /s 2
(4) None of these
-2
3. A particle is moving in a straight line according to (3) y = x (4) y - 1 = (x - 1)
p
the formula s = t2 + 8t + 12. If s be measured in
9. The equation of tangent to the curve y = 2 cos x at
metre and t be measured in second, then the average
velocity of the particle in third second is p
x= is
4
(1) 14 m/sec (2) 13 m/sec
(3) 15 m/sec (4) None of these æ pö æ pö
(1) y - 2 = 2 2 ç x - 4 ÷ (2) y + 2 = 2 ç x + 4 ÷
è ø è ø
4. A 10cm long rod AB moves with its ends on two
mutually perpendicular straight lines OX and OY. æ pö
If the end A be moving at the rate of 2cm/sec, then (3) y - 2 = - 2 ç x - 4 ÷ (4) None of these
è ø
when the distance of A from O is 8 cm, the rate at
which the end B is moving, is 10. The equation of tangent to the curve y = 2cosx at
p
8 4 x= is
(1) cm / sec (2) cm / sec 4
3 3
æ pö
2 (1) y - 2 = 2 2 ç x - ÷
(3) cm / sec (4) None of these è 4ø
9
æ pö
5. If the radius of a circle increases from 3 cm to (2) y + 2 = 2 ç x + ÷
è 4ø
3.2 cm, then the increase in the area of the circle is
æ pö
(1) 1.2pcm2 (3) y - 2 = - 2 ç x - ÷
è 4ø
(2) 12pcm 2
æ pö
(3) 6pcm2 (4) y - 2 = 2 ç x - ÷
è 4ø
(4) None of these
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
x y 17. The angle of intersection of the curves y = x2 and
11. At which point the line + = 1, touches the curve
a b x = y2 at (1, 1) is
y = be–x/a
æ4ö
(1) (0, 0) (2) (0,a) (1) tan -1 ç ÷ (2) tan -1 (1)
è3ø
(3) (0, b) (4) (b, 0)
12. The angle between curves y2 = 4x and x2 + y2 = 5 æ3ö
(3) 90° (4) tan -1 ç ÷
at (1, 2) is è4ø
(1) tan–1 (3) (2) tan–1 (2)
(3) p/2 (4) p/4
18. The radius of a sphere is measured to be 20 cm
13. For the curve by2 = (x + a)3 the square of subtangent with a possible error of 0.02 of a cm. The
is proportional to consequent error in the surface of the sphere is
(1) (Subnormal)1/2 (2) Subnormal 19. The angle of intersection of curves
(3) (Subnormal) 3/2
(4) None of these
æ qö
14. The tangent to the curve y = ax2 + bx at (2, –8) is y = x2, 6y = 7–x2 at (1, 1) is q then çè ÷ø
p
parallel to x-axis. Then
(1) a = 2, b = –2 (2) a = 2, b = –4 NCERT Questions
(3) a = 2, b = –8 (4) a = 4, b = –4 20. Using differentials, find the approximate value of
15. The sum of intercepts on co-ordinate axes made by each of the following:
tangent to the curve x + y = a is 1

æ 17 ö 4 1
(1) a (2) 2a (a) ç ÷ (b) ( 33) - 5

è 81ø
(3) 2 a (4) None 21. The two equal sides of an isosceles triangle with
16. If normal to the curve y = f(x) is parallel to x-axis, fixed base b are decreasing at the rate of 3 cm per
then correct statement is second. How fast is the area decreasing when the
two equal sides are equal to the base ?
dy dy
(1) =0 (2) =1 22. Find the equation of the normal to curve x2 = 4y
dx dx which passes through the point (1, 2).
dx 23. The length x of a rectangle is decreasing at the rate
(3) =0 (4) None of 3 cm/minute and the width y is increasing at the
dy
rate of 2cm/minute. When x =10cm and y = 6cm,
find the rates of change of (a) the perimeter and (b)
the area of the rectangle
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (3)
11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. 10.05 sq cm
19. 0.5 20. (a) 0.677 (b) 0.497
21. b 3cm 2 / s 22. x+y–3=0 23. (a) 2cm/min (b) –2cm2/min

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
1. Let y = x2e–x, then the interval in which y increases 9. For the function f(x) = ex, a = 0, b = 1, the value of
with respect to x is c in mean value theorem will be
(1) (–¥, ¥) (2) (–2, 0) (1)log x (2) log(e – 1)
(3) (2, ¥) (4) (0, 2) (3) 0 (4) 1
2. The function y = 2x3 – 9x2 + 12x – 6 is monotonic
10. Rolle’s theorem is not applicable to the function
decreasing, when
f(x) = |x| defined on [–1, 1] because
(1) 1 < x < 2 (2) x > 2
(1)f is not continuous on [ –1, 1]
(3) x < 1 (4) None of these
(2) f is not differentiable on (–1,1)
3. For which value of x, the function f(x) = x2 – 2x is
(3) f(–1) ¹ f(1)
decreasing
(4) f(–1) = f(1) ¹ 0
(1) x > 1 (2) x > 2
(3) x < 1 (4) x < 2 p
11. If f(x) = cos x, 0 £ x £ , then the real number ‘c’
4. The function f(x) = cosx – 2px is monotonically 2
decreasing for of the mean value theorem is
1 1 p p
(1) p < (2) p > (1) (2)
2 2 6 4
(3) p < 2 (4) p > 2
5. If f(x) = kx 3 – 9x 2 + 9x + 3 is monotonically -1 æ 2 ö -1 æ 2 ö
(3) sin ç ÷ (4) cos ç ÷
increasing in each interval, then è pø èpø
(1) k < 3 (2) k £ 3 . 12. Rolle’s theorem is true for the function
(3) k > 3 (4) None of these f(x) = x2 – 4 in the interval
6. In which interval is the given function (1)[–2, 0] (2) [–2, 2]
f(x) = 2x 3 – 15x 2 + 36x + 1 is monotonically
decreasing é 1ù
(3) ê0, ú (4) [0, 2]
(1)[2, 3] (2) (2, 3) ë 2û
(3) (–¥, 2) (4) (3, ¥)
1
7. The function f(x) = tanx – x 13. For the function x + , x Î [1, 3], the value of c for
x
(1) Always increases
the mean value theorem is
(2) Always decreases
(3) Never decreases (1)1 (2) 3
(4) Sometimes increases and sometimes decreases (3) 2 (4) None
8. The value of ‘a’ in order that f(x) = 3 sinx – cosx f(b) - f(a)
14. If from mean value theorem, f '(x1 ) = ,
– 2ax + b decreases for all real values of x, is given b-a
by then
(1) a < 1 (2) a ³ 1 (1) a < x1 £ b (2) a £ x1 < b
(3) a ³ 2 (4) a < 2 (3) a < x1 < b (4) a £ x1 £ b

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
Numerical value questions 19. Find the intervals in which the function f given by
15. The function sin x - bx + c will be increasing in the f(x) = 2x2 – 3x is
interval (-¥, ¥) , if b < k where k = (a) increasing
(b) decreasing
4x2 + 1
16. Function f (x ) = is decreasing for interval 20. Find the intervals in which the following functions
x
are strictly increasing or decreasing:
[a, b] then a + b =
(a) x2 + 2x – 5
17. The function f(x) = x3 – 6x2 + ax + b satisfy the
(b) 10 – 6x – 2x2
conditions of Rolle’s theorem in [1, 3] then sum of
values of a and bis (c) –2x3 – 9x2 – 12x + 1
NCERT Questions (d) 6 – 9x – x2
18. Find the intervals in which the function f given by (e) (x + 1)3 (x – 3)3
1
f ( x) = x3 + ,x ¹ 0
x3
(i) increasing
(ii) decreasing.
ANS WER KEY

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (2)
11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (–1) 16. (0) 17. (5)
æ3 ö æ 3ö
18. (i) x < –1 and x > 1 (ii) – 1 < x < 1 19. (a) çè , ¥÷ø , (b) çè -¥, ÷ø
4 4
20. (a) decreasing for x < –1 & increasing for x > – 1 (b) decreasing for x > –3/2 and increasing for x < –3/2
(c) increasing for – 2 < x < – 1 and decreasing for x < – 2 and x > – 1
(d) increasing for x < –9/2 and decreasing for x > –9/2
(e) increasing in (1, 3) and (3, ¥), decreasing in (– ¥, –1) and (– 1, 1).

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
1. The point for the curve y = xex at 7. The number that exceeds its square by the greatest
amount is
(1) x = –1 is minimum (2) x = 0 is minimum
(3) x = –1 is maximum (4) x = 0 is maximum (1) – 1 (2) 0
1
p (3)
2
(4) 1
2. The function sinx(1 + cosx) at x = , is
3
8. If for a function f(x), f'(a) = 0, f''(a) = 0, f'''(a) > 0,
(1) Maximum then at x = a, f(x) is
(2) Minimum
(1) Minimum (2) Maximum
(3) Neither maximum nor minimum (3) Not an extreme point (4) Extreme point
(4) None of these
9. The least value of the sum of any positive real
x
æ1ö number and its reciprocal is
3. Maximum value of ç ÷ is
èxø (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) (e)e (2) (e)1/e (3) 3 (4) 4
e 10. xx has a stationary point at
æ1ö
(3) (e) –e
(4) ç ÷ 1
èeø (1) x = e (2) x =
e
4. If x + y = 10, then the maximum value of xy is
(3) x = 1 (4) x = e
(1) 5 (2) 20
11. x and y be two variables such that x > 0 and xy = 1.
Then the minimum value of x + y is
5. The sum of two numbers is fixed. Then its
(1) 2 (2) 3
multiplication is maximum, when
(3) 4 (4) 0
(1)Each number is half of the sum
1 2 12. What are the minimum and maximum values of the
(2) Each number is and respectively of the function x5 – 5x4 + 5x3 – 10
3 3
sum (1) – 37, – 9
1 3 (2) 10, 0
(3)Each number is and respectively of the
4 4 (3) It has 2 min. and 1 max. values
sum
(4) It has 2 max. and 1 min. values
(4) None of these 13. Divide 20 into two parts such that the product of
6. The two parts of 100 for which the sum of double one part and the cube of the other is maximum.
of first and square of second part is minimum, are The two parts are
(1) 50, 50 (2) 99, 1 (1) (10, 10) (2) (5, 15)
(3) 98, 2 (4) None of these (3) (13, 7) (4) None of these
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (2)
7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (2)

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE (MISCELLANEOUS) (AOD) MATH EM ATI CS
1. The slope of tangent to the curve x = t2 + 3t – 8, Numerical value questions

y = 2t2 – 2t –5 at the point (2, –1) is
9. A 10cm long rod AB moves with its ends on two
22 6 mutually perpendicular straight lines OX and OY.
(1) (2) (3) – 6 (4) None
7 7 If the end A be moving at the rate of 2cm/sec, then
2. Co-ordinates of a point on the curve y = xlogx at which when the distance of A from O is 8cm, the rate at
the normal is parallel to the line 2x – 2y = 3 are which the end B is moving, is
(1) (0, 0) (2) (e, e) (3) (e2, 2e2 ) (4) (e–2, –2e–2)
10. The equation of the tangent to the curve x = 2 cos 3 q
3. The length of normal to the curve x = a(q + sinq),
y = a(1 – cosq) at the point q = p/2 is and y = 3 sin 3 q at the point q = p / 4 is 3x + 2y = k
then value of 2k
(1) 2a (2) a/2 (3) 2a (4) a / 2
2x 11. Sand is pouring from a pipe at the rate of 12 cm3/s.
4. The function f(x) = log(1 + x) - is increasing on The falling sand forms a cone on the ground in such
2+x
a way that the height of the cone is always one-sixth
(1) (0, ¥) (2) (–¥, 0)
of the radius of the base. How fast is the height of
(3) (–¥,¥) (4) None of these
the sand cone increasing when the height is 4 cm?
x 2 - 3x
5. For which interval, the function satisfies K sin x + 2 cos x
x -1 12. If the function f (x ) = is increasing for all
sin x + cos x
all the conditions of Rolle’s theorem
values of x, then positive integer just greater then k is
(1) [0, 3] (2) [– 3, 0]
(3) [1.5, 3] (4) For no interval 13. In the mean value theorem, f (b) - f (a) = (b - a) f ' (c) if
6. From mean value theorem f(2) – f(1) = (b – a)f'(x1); a = 4 , b = 9 and f (x ) = x then the value of c is
1 Subjective type Questions
a < x1 < b if f(x) = , then x1 =
x
14. Find the intervals in which the function f given by
a+b 2ab b -a
(1) ab (2) (3) (4) 4sin x - 2x - x cos x
2 a+b b+a f ( x) =
2 + cos x
7. The function f(x) = x(x + 3)e –(1/2)x
satisfies all the
conditions of Rolle’s theorem in [–3, 0]. The value is (i) increasing (ii) decreasing.
of c is
4sin q
(1) 0 (2) –1 (3) – 2 (4) – 3 15. Prove that y =
( 2 + cos q) is an increasing function
8. Let f(x) satisfy all the conditions of mean value
é pù
1 of q in ê 0, ú
theorem in [0, 2]. If f (0) = 0 and | f '(x) | £ for all ë 2û
2
x, in [0, 2] then 16. Show that the normal at any point q to the curve
(1) f(x) £ 2 (2) |f(x)| £ 1 x = a cosq + a q sinq, y = a sinq – aq cosq
(3) f(x) = 2x (4) f(x) = 3 for at least one x in [0, 2] is at a constant distance from the origin.
ANS WER KEY
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (3)
8. (2) 9. 2.66 10. 6 11. 1/48p cm/ s 12. 3 13. 6.25
p 3p p 3p
14. (i) 0 £ x £ and < x < 2p (ii) < x <
2 2 2 2
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 24 AREA MATH EM ATI CS
1. The area of the figure bounded by the curves 7. The area bounded by the curves y2 = 4a2(x – 1) and
y = |x – 1| and y = 3 – |x| is the lines x = 1 and y = 4a is
(1) 2 (2) 3
16a
(3) 4 (4) None of these (1) 4a (2)
3
2. The area bounded by the curves y2 = 2x + 1 and
x – y – 1 = 0 is 8a
2 4 3
(1) (2)
3 3 8. The area common to the parabolas y = 2x 2 and
y = x2 + 4 (in square units) is
8 16
(3) (4)
3 3 2 3
(1) (2)
3. Area of the region bounded by the curve C, 3 2
p 32 3
y = tanx, tangent drawn to C at x = and x-axis is (3) (4)
4 3 32
1 1æ 1ö 9. The area formed by triangular shaped region

(1) log 2 (2) ç log2 - ÷
2 2è 2ø bounded by the curves y = sinx, y = cosx and
x = 0 is
1
(3) ( log2 - 1) (4) None of these (1) 2 -1 (2) 1
2
4. Area bounded by the parabola x = –2y 2 and (3) 2 (4) 1 + 2
x = 1 – 3y2 is 10. Area of the region bounded by the curve
8 y2 = 4x, y-axis and the line y = 3 is
(1) (2) 2
3 9
(1) 2 (2)
4 2 4
(3) (4)
3 3
9 9
5. Area of the region bounded by the curves (3) (4)
3 2
y = x2 + 2, y = –x, x = 0 and x = 1 is
Numerical type questions
17 15 11. If area bounded by the curves y2 = 4ax and y = mx
(1) (2)
6 6
a2
13 is , then the value of m is
(3) (4) None of these 3
6
12. Smaller area enclosed by the circle
6. Area common to the curves y = x3 and y = x is
x2 + y2 = 4 and the line x + y = 2 is p – k then k is
5 5 5 13. The area bounded by the curve x2 = 4y and the line
(1) (2) (3) (4) None
3 4 12 x = 4y – 2 is

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
Subjective type questions 17. Using the method of integration find the area
14. Using integration find the area of the triangular bounded by the curve |x| + |y| = 1 .
region whose sides have the equations 18. Using the method of integration find the area of
y = 2x + 1, y = 3x + 1 and x = 4. the region bounded by lines:
15. Find the area of the region bounded by 2x + y = 4, 3x – 2y = 6 and x – 3y + 5 = 0
x2 = 4y, y = 2, y = 4 and the y-axis in the first 19. Using the method of integration find the area of the
quadrant. triangle ABC, coordinates of whose vertices are
16. Find the area of the region enclosed by the parabola A(2, 0), B (4, 5) & C (6, 3).
x2 = y, the line y = x + 2 and the x-axis.
ANS WER KEY
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2)
32 - 8 2 5 7
11. 2 12. 2 13. 1.125 14. 5 15. 16. 17. 2 18. 19. 7
3 6 2

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 25 DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION MATH EM ATI CS
PAR T-I 7. The differential equation for the family of curves

1. The degree of the equation x2 + y2 –2ay = 0, where a is an arbitrary constant, is
2 2
(1) (x2 – y2)y¢ = 2xy (2) 2(x2 + y2)y¢ = xy
æ d 2 y ö æ dy ö æ d2 y ö
+ ç
çè dx ÷ø è dx ø
2 ÷ = x cos çè dx 2 ÷ø is (3) 2(x2 – y2)y¢ = xy (4) (x2 + y2)y¢ = 2xy
2
(1) 1 (2) 2 d2 y æ dy ö
8. The general solution of y. = ç ÷ is
dx 2 è dx ø
2. The differential equation of all non-horizontal lines (1) y = C1x + C2 (2) y = C1 e C 2 x
in a plane is
(3) y = C1x + C2ex (4) y = e C1x + e C 2 x
dy dx
(1) =0 (2) dy = 0 9. Form a differential equation for the family of curves
dx
represented by ax² + by² = 1 , where a & b are
arbitary constants.
d2y d2x
(3) =0 (4) dy 2 = 0 10. Obtain the differential equation of the family of
dx 2
circles x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 ; where g , f & c
3. The order and degree of differential equation are arbitary constants.
1- y 2 dx + y 1- x 2 dy = 0 are respectively PART-II
(1) 1, 2 (2) 1, 1 Variable separable form
(3) 2, 1 (4) 2, 2 1. Solve : (1 - x²) (1 - y) dx = xy (1 + y) dy
4. The order and degree of the differential equation
2. Solve :
dy
+
(x 2
)(
- 1 y2 - 1 ) =0
é æ dy ö 2 ù 2/3 dx
d2 y xy
ê4 + ç ÷ ú = are
ëê è dx ø ûú dx 2
dy æ d yö
2
3. Solve : y - x d x = a çè y + d x ÷ø
(1) 2, 2 (2) 3, 3
(3) 2, 3 (4) 3, 2 dy p
4. Solve : sin x. = y. lny if y = e , when x =
5. The order and the degree of differential equation dx 2
d4 y d3 y d2 y dy
–4 +8 –8 + 4y = 0 are respectively dy 1 - y2
dx 4
dx 3
dx 2 dx 5. Solve : + =0.
dx 1 - x2
(1) 4, 1 (2) 1, 4
Homogeneous D.E.
(3) 1, 1 (4) None of these
6. The differential equation of the family of curves dy x 2 + xy
1. Solve : (1) = 2
represented by y = a + bx + ce–x dx x + y2
(where a, b, c are abritrary constants) is (2) (x3 - 3xy2) dx = (y3 - 3x2y) dy

(1) y’’’ = y’ 2. Find the equation of a curve such that the projection
(2) y’’’ + y’’ = 0 of its ordinate upon the normal is equal to its
(3) y’’’ – y” + y’ = 0 abscissa.
(4) y’’’ + y’’ – y’ = 0 3. Solve : (x - y) dy = (x + y + 1) dx

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
x + 2y - 3 dy
dy 8. x2 y - x3 = y4 cos x
4. Solve : =
2x + y - 3 dx
dx
9. y (2xy + ex) dx - ex dy = 0
dy x+ y +1
5. Solve : = Numerical Type Questions
dx 2x + 2y + 3
1. The degree of the differential equation satisfying
Linear D.E.
Solve the following differential equations : (
1 + x 2 + 1 + y 2 = A x 1 + y 2 - y 1 + x2 ) is
1. (x + tan y) dy = sin 2y dx 2. The order of the differential equation whose general
solution is given by
dy x 1
2. + 2
y= y = (c1 + c2)sin (3x + c3) – c4 e2x is
dx 1+x 2 x (1 + x2 )
3. The degree of the differential equation
dy
3. (1 - x²) d x + 2xy = x (1 - x²)1/2 æ d3 y ö
2/3
ç ÷ d2 y dy
ç dx 3 ÷ +4–3 2 +5 = 0 is
è ø dx dx
dy
4. x(x - 1) - (x - 2) y = x3(2x - 1)
dx 4. The order ¢O¢ and degree D of the differential
2
5. y - x Dy = b(1 + x²Dy) æ dy ö x 2 æ dy ö
equation y = 1 + x ç dx ÷ + ç ÷ + .... +
è ø 2 ! è dx ø
dy y y
6. + lny = 2 (ln y)2
dx x x n
x n æ dy ö
ç ÷ + ..... ¥ are given
dy n ! è dx ø
7. 2 - y sec x = y3 tan x
dx
ANS WER KEY

PAR T-I
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (2)
2
d2 y æ d yö dy
9. xy 2 + x ç ÷ - y =0 10. [1 + (y')²].y''' - 3y'(y'')² = 0
dx è d xø dx
PART-II- VARIABLES SEPARABLE
1 1
1. ln x (1 - y)² = c - y² - 2y + x² 2. x 2 - 1 - sec- x + y 2 - 1 = c
1
2 2
3. y = c (1 - ay) (x + a) 4. y = etan(x/2)
5. sin–1x + sin–1y = c
HO M O GE N E OU S
é 1 x + 2yù
1. (a) c(x - y)2/3 (x² + xy + y²)1/6 = exp ê tan -1 ú where exp x º ex (b) y² - x² = c (y² + x²)²
ë 3 x 3 û
y 2 + y y2 - x2 c2
2. = l n y + y 2 - x2 , where same sign has to be taken.
x2 x3
2y + 1 1 4
3. arctan 2 x + 1 = ln c x2 + y 2 + x + y + 4. (x+y-2) = c (y - x)3 5. x+y+ = ce3(x-2y)
2 3

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
LIN EAR
1 é 1 ù 1 1 + x2 - 1
1. x cot y = c + tan y 2. y 1 + x2 = c + ln ê tan arc tan x ú other form is y 1 + x 2 = c + ln
2 ë 2 û 2 x
3. y = c (1 - x²) + 1 - x2 4. y (x - 1) = x2 (x2 - x + c) 5. y(1 + bx) = b + cx
6. x = lny æçè cx 2
+
1ö
7. 1
= - 1 + (c + x) cot æç x pö 8. x3 y-3 = 3sinx + c
2 ÷ø
+
y2 è2 4 ÷ø
9. y-1 ex = c - x²
NUME RICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
1. 1 2. 3 3. 2 4. 1

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 26 DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION MATH EM ATI CS
PAR T-I 2. Solution of the differential equation (2x – y + 2)

GENERAL CHANGE OF VARIABLE BY A dx + (4x – 2y – 1) dy = 0 is
SUITABLE SUBSTITUTION (1) 2x – y = ce–(x + 2y) (2) 2x + y = ce(2x–y)
Solve the following differential equations : (3) x – 2y = ce–(x + 2y) (4) 2x + y = ce(x + 2y)
1. (x - y²) dx + 2xy dy = 0 3. Differential equation formed by family of curves
y = (a + bx)e–x + cex where a,b & c are parameters, is
2. (x3 + y2 + 2) dx + 2y dy = 0 (1) y''' + y'' = y' + y (2) y"' – 2y = y" – 2y'
(3) y"' + y = y" + y (4) y"' + y" + y' + y = 0
dy tan y
3. - = (1 + x) ex sec y
dx 1+ x 4. Solution of differential equation
dx
y
= tan x (1 + y sin x ) is given by
dy e 1 dy
4. = 2 -
dx x x
(1) cosec x = –y + 1 + Ce–y
(2) y = tanx + Cex
dy y2 - x
5. = (3) sinx ey = 1 + y + C
dx 2 y (x + 1)
(4) cosecx = y + Cey
6. (1 - xy + x y ) dx = x dy
2 2 2
Numerical Type questions

dy
7. = ex-y (ex - ey)
dx
5. The differential representing the family of curves
PART-II
y2 = 2c(x + c ), where c > 0, is a parameter, then
1. The solution of y'y''' = 3(y'') is 2
order is :
(1) x = ay2 + by + c
dy æ ax + b ö
(2) y = ax2 + bx + c 6. The solution of =ç ÷ represents a parabola
dx è cy + d ø
(3) y = aex + be–x + c
if c ¹ 0 and a is :
(4) x = aey + be–y + c
ANS WER KEY

PAR T-I
1. y² + x ln ax = 0 2. y² = 3x² - 6x - x3 + ce-x + 4 3. sin y = (ex + c) (1 + x)
c c
4. cx² + 2xe-y = 1 5. y2 = -1 + (x + 1) l n or x + (x + 1) l n
x +1 x +1
1
6. y= tan(l n | cx |) 7. ey = c. exp (-ex) + ex - 1
x
PART-II
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. 1 6. 0
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE (MISCELLANEOUS) AREA, DIFFERENTIAL & EQUATION MATH EM ATI CS
PAR T-I 7. IF the area of the region in the first quadrant

1. A re a o f t h e region bounded by the curves enclosed by x-axis, line x = 3y and the circle x2 +
y = 2x, y = 2x – x2, x = 0 and x = 2 is given by
y2 = 4 is p/k then the value of k is
3 4 3 4 8. In figure, AOBA is the part of the ellipse
(1) log 2 - 3 (2) log 2 + 3 9x2 + y2 = 36 in the first quadrant such that OA = 2
and OB = 6. Find the area between the arc AB and
4 3 4 the chord AB.
(3) 3log 2 - (4) log 2 - 3
3
2. Area bounded by the curves |y| = 1 – x2 is
2 4
(1) (2)
3 3
8
3 9. Find the area lying above x-axis and included
3. The area bounded by y = xe and the lines |x| = 1, y = 0
|x| between the circle x2 + y2 = 8x and inside of the
is parabola y2 = 4x.
(1) 4 (2) 6 10. Find the area of the region {(x, y) : y2 £ 4x, 4x2 +
(3) 1 (4) 2 4y2 £ 9}
4. Area bounded by the curve xy2 = a2(a – x) and y- 11. Using integration find the area of region bounded
axis is by the triangle whose vertices are (– 1, 0), (1, 3)
and (3, 2).
pa 2
(1) (2) pa2
2
PART-II
(3) 3pa2 (4) None of these 1. The order and degree of the differential equation
5. The area of the circle x + y = 16 exterior to the
2 2
2
parabola y2 = 6x is dy æ dy ö
y=x + a 2 ç ÷ + b 2 are
dx è dx ø
4 4
(1)
3
( 4p - 3 ) (2)
3
( 4p + 3 ) (1) 1, 2 (2) 2, 1
(3) 1, 1 (4) 2, 2
4 4
(3) ( 8p - 3 ) (4) ( 8p + 3 ) 2. Given that the following functions vanish at x = 0,
3 3
then the function(s) differentiable at x = 0 is/are
6. If area of th e r eg ion b oun ded b y y = si na x,
(1) e–1/x (2) 1 - e-|x|
p p
y = 0, x = and x = is 4, then positive value of
a 3a 2 4
(3) 1 - e- x (4) 1 - e- x
a is
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
d2 y 6. If area of triangle formed by tangent (with positive
3. If x + y = ex–y, then at x = x0 is given by
y
dx 2 slope) and normal to a curve at any point in first
quadrant with x-axis is cube of its ordinate, then
differential equation of such family is
4e y0
(1) x 0 2
(e + e y0 )3 æ dy ö
(1) ç ÷ = 2y
dy
è dx ø dx
2
4e(x0 + 2y0 ) (2) ç
æ dy ö dy
÷ - 2y + 1 = 0
(2) x 0 è dx ø dx
(e + e y0 )3
2
æ dy ö
(3) 2y ç ÷ +1 = 0
è dx ø
4(x 0 + y0 )
(3)
(x 0 - y0 + 1)3 2
æ dy ö dy
(4) ç ÷ + 2y + 1 = 0
è dx ø dx
4(x 0 + y 0 ) 7. If y = e–x (Acosx + Bsinx), then y satisfies

(4)
(x 0 + y 0 + 1) 2
d2 y dy
(1) 2
+2 =0
dx dx
4. Solution of differential equation
d2 y dy
(tan–1y – x) dy = (1 + y2 ) dx is (2) 2
- 2 + 2y = 0
dx dx
-1
-1 - tan
(1) x = (cot y + 1) + Ce
y
d2 y dy
(3) 2
+ 2 + 2y = 0
dx dx
-1
(2) x = (tan -1 y + 1) + C e - cot y
d2 y
(4) + 2y = 0
dx2
-1
-1 - tan
(3) x = (tan y + 1) + C e
y
Subjective type questions
8. Form the differential equation of the family of curves
-1
-1 - tan
(4) x = (tan y - 1) + Ce
y
represented by, c(y + c) 2 = x 3 ; where c is any
arbitrary constant.
5. Solution of the differential equation
is ln (sec x + tan x) ln (sec y + tan y)
9. Solve : dx = dy
2
dy (xy)2 æ dy ö (xy)3 æ dy ö
3
cos x cos y
=
x 1 + xy + + + ....
dx 2! çè dx ÷ø 3! çè dx ÷ø
dy
10. If = e -2 y and y = 0 when x = 5, then find the
(1) y = logex + C dx
value of x when y = 3.
(2) y = (log ex)2 + C
11. The perpendicular from the origin to the tangent at
any point on a curve is equal to the abscissa of the
(3) y = ± (log e x)2 + 2C point of contact. Find the equation of the curve
satisfying the above condition and which passes
(4) xy = xy + K through (1, 1).

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
12. Find the curve for which any tangent intersects the d2 y dy
Let (x + 1) = 2x
2
y-axis at the point equidistant from the point of 20. 2 , where y'(0) = 3 & y(0) = 1,
dx dx
tangency and the origin.
then y(1) is equal to
2
dy 2 (y + 2)
13. Solve : =
d x (x + y - 1)2 21. The curve which satisfies the differential equation
14. (1 + y + x²y)dx + (x + x3)dy = 0 3x
y' = (where y' denotes the first order derivative
dy y
15. + xy = y²ex²/2 . sin x
dx of y with respect to x) and passes through (1,1) is
16. The differential equation of all conics with centre hyperbola whose eccentricity..
at origin is of order
dy
22. If y = x sin(ln 3x) then
17. x + y lny = xyex
dx 2
æ dy ö æ dy ö
x ç ÷ - 2xy ç ÷ + 2y 2 is equal to k(x)2 then
2
æ dyö
2
dy è dx ø è dx ø
18. çè d x ÷ø - (x + y) d x + x y = 0
k is :
19. y y' sin x = cos x (sin x - y2)
ANS WER KEY
PAR T-I
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. 0.375 7. 3
8p 4 9p 9 -1 æ 1 ö 1
8. = -2 3 9. ( 8 + 3p) 10. - sin ç ÷ +
è ø 11. 4
3 8 8 4 3 3 2
PART-II
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (3)
8. 12y (y')² = x[8(y')3 - 27] 9. ln2 (sec x + tan x) - ln2 (sec y + tan y) = c
y+2
e6 + 9 -2tan -1
x-3
10. 11. x² + y² - 2x = 0 12. x2 + y2 = cx 13. e = c. (y+2)
2
14. xy = c - arc tan x 15. e-x²/2 = y (c + cosx) 16. 2
x2 2 c
17. xlny = ex(x – 1) + c 18. y = cex ; y = c + 19. y2 = sin x +
2 3 sin2 x
20. 5 21. 22. 1

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 27 VECTOR & 3D MATH EM ATI CS
r r r r r r r r r
1. If a + b is perpendicular to a and b = 2 a , then 6. If a, b, c, d are position vectors of vertices A, B, C,
r r r
r r r r
( )
(1) 2a + b is parallel to b
D of a quadrilateral ABCD and a + c = b + d, then
ABCD is a
r r r
(2) ( 2a + b ) is perpendicular to b (1) Parallelogram
r r r (2) Rhombus
(3) ( 2a - b ) is perpendicular to b
(3) Rectangle
r r r
(4) ( 2a + b ) is perpendicular to a (4) Square
7. The points (2, –1, 1), (1, –3, –5), (3, –4, –4) are
r r
2. The vectors a = 5 î + 4 ^j and b = -20 i^ - 16 ^j are vertices of a triangle which is
(1) Coincident (1) Equilateral (2) Isosceles
(2) Parallel (3) Right angled (4) None of these
r
r r
(3) perpendicular 8. If a,b,c are three vectors (¹ 0), no two of which
(4) Neither parallel nor perpendicular
r r r r
r r r r r r are collinear. If ar + 2b is collinear with c, b + 3c is
3. Let a = 1, b = 2, c = 3 and a ^ (b + c),
r r
collinear with a, then ar + 2b + 6cr is
r r r r r r r r
b ^ (c + a),c ^ (a + b) then | a + b + c | is r r
(1) Parallel to a (2) Parallel to b
(1) 6 (2) 6 r r
(3) Parallel to c (4) 0
(3) 14 (4) None of these 9. If D, E, F are mid. points of the sides BC, CA, AB
respectively of a triangle ABC, then
1 3 1 uuur uuur uuur
4. The vector î - ˆj + kˆ is AD + BE + CF=
8 8 4
uuur r
(1) GA (2) 0
(1) Unit vector
uuur
(3) GB (4) None of these
(2) Parallel to the vector 2iˆ - 6 ˆj + 4kˆ
10. Modulus of sum of three mutually perpendicular
(3) Perpendicular to the vector 2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ unit vecors is
(1) 3 (2) 3
p
(4) Makes an angle with 2iˆ - 4ˆj + 3kˆ
3 (3) 0 (4) None of these
r 11. Four points with the position vectors
5. The vector b which is collinear with vector
r r r 7iˆ - 4ˆj + 7k,
ˆ î - 6 ˆj + 10k,
ˆ - î - 3jˆ + 4kˆ and 5iˆ - ˆj + kˆ
a = (1, 2, -1) and satisfies a ·b = 5, is
form a
1 1
(1) (5, 10, -5) (2) (5, 10, -5) (1) Rhombus (2) Rectangle
3 6
(3) Square
(3) (5, 10, –5) (4) 6(5, 10, –5) (4) Parallelogram but not rhombus

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
r r r r r r 16. If the position vectors of four points A, B, C and D
12. If | a | = | b |, then (a + b)·(a - b) =
are î + ˆj + k,
ˆ 2iˆ + 3ˆj, 3iˆ + 5ˆj - 2kˆ and kˆ - ˆj
(1) Zero (2) Negative
(3) Positive (4) None of these uuur uuur
respectively, then AB and CD are related as
r
13. If q is the angle between two vectors ar and b, then (1) Perpendicular (2) Parallel
r r (3) Independent (4) None of these
a ·b > 0 only if
r r r r
17. If a, b, c, d are position vectors of points A, B, C,
p
(1) 0 £ q £ p (2) £ q £ p D respectively such that
2
r r r r r r r r
(a - d)·(b - c) = (b - d)·(c - a) = 0, then D is
p p
(3) 0 £ q £ (4) 0 £ q < (1) Centroid of DABC
2 2
(2) Circumcentre of DABC
r r
14. For any two vectors a and b, (3) Orthocentre of DABC
(4) Incentre of DABC
r r r r r r r r
r
If ar and b are two unit vectors inclined at an angle
(1) | a ·b | > | a || b | (2) | a ·b | < | a || b |
18.
r r r r r r r r
(3) | a ·b | ³ | a || b | (4) | a ·b | £ | a || b | r r
q to each other, then | a + b | < 1 if
r r r r r r r r r r r
15. If a + b + c = ad, b + c + d = b a and a, b, c are non-
p p
r r (1) q = (2) q =
coplanar, then ar + b + cr + d = 6 2
r
(1) aar (2) bb p 2p
(3) q = (4) <q< p
r r 3 3
(3) 0 (4) (a + b)c
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (4)

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
1. If the three points with position vectors 4. If the vectors 3p + q ; 5p - 3q and

(1, a, b) (a, 2, b) and (a, b, 3) are collinear in space,
then the value of a + b is 2p + q ; 4 p - 2q are pairs of mutually
Ù
(1) 3 (2) 4 perpendicular vectors then sin ( p q ) is
(1) 55 4 (2) 55 8
2. Let A(1, 2, 3), B(0, 0, 1), C(–1, 1, 1) are the vertices
of a DABC. (3) 3 16 (4) 247 16
(i) The equation of internal angle bisector through
5. Consider the points A, B and C with position vectors
A to side BC is
r ( - 2 iˆ + 3 ˆj + 5 kˆ ) , ( iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3 kˆ ) and ( 7iˆ - kˆ )
(1) r = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ + µ(3iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ)
respectively.
r r
(2) r = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ + µ(3iˆ + 4 ˆj + 3kˆ)
Statement-1: The vector sum, A B + B C + C A = 0
r
(3) r = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ + µ(3iˆ + 3 ˆj + 2kˆ) because
r Statement-2: A, B and C form the vertices of a
(4) r = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ + µ(3iˆ + 3 ˆj + 4kˆ) triangle.
(ii) The equation of median through C to side AB is (1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-
r 2 is correct explanation for statement-1
(1) r = - î + ˆj + k̂ + p(3î - 2k̂ )
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
r statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2) r = - î + ˆj + k̂ + p(3î + 2k̂ )
statement-1.
r
(3) r = - î + ĵ + k̂ + p( -3î + 2k̂ ) (3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
r (4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(4) r = - î + ˆj + k̂ + p(3î + 2 ĵ)
6. The set of values of c for which the angle between
(iii)The area (DABC) is equal to the vectors cx $i - 6 $j + 3 k$ & x $i - 2 $j + 2 cx k$ is
acute for every x Î R is
9 17
(1) (2) (1) (0, 4/3) (2) [0, 4/3]
2 2
(3) (11/9, 4/3) (4) [0, 4/3)
17 7
(3) (4) 7. If the vector 6 $i - 3 $j - 6 k$ is decomposed into
2 2
vectors parallel and perpendicular to the vector
3. The vectors 3 $i - 2 $j + k$ , $i - 3 $j + 5 k$
& $i + $j + k$ then the vectors are :
2 $i + $j - 4 k$ form the sides of a triangle. Then
triangle is (
(1) - $i + $j + k$ ) & 7 $i - 2 $j - 5 k$
(1) An acute angled triangle (

(2) - 2 $i + $j + k$ ) & 8 $i - $j - 4 k$
(2) An obtuse angled triangle
(3) An equilateral triangle (3) + 2 ( $i + $j + k$ ) & 4 $i - 5 $j - 8 k$
(4) A right angled triangle (4) None of these
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
r r r r r r
8. If a + b + c = 0 , a = 3 , b = 5 , c = 7 , then the 11. The points with position vectors 20iˆ + ˆj, 5iˆ - ˆj and
r r
angle between a & b is : lî - 13ˆj are collinear if l =
r r
(1) p 6 (2) 2p 3 12. If a and b are two non-parallel unit vectors and
r
the vector aar + b bisects the internal angles between
(3) 5p 3 (4) p 3
r r
Numerical Type Questions a and b, then a is
r r r
9. Let a , b , c be vectors of length 3, 4, 5 respectively.. 13. Vectors 2iˆ - ˆj + kˆ and 2iˆ - 4ˆj + lkˆ aree
r r r r r r r perpendicular if l =
Let a be perpendicular to b + c , b to c + a & c to
r r r r r 14. Let a$ , b$ , c$ are three unit vectors such that a$ + b$ + c$
a + b . and a + b + c is k 2 then k is : is also a unit vector. If pairwise angles between
r r r a$ , b$ , c$ are q , q and q respectively then cos q +
10. Given three vectors a , b & c each two of which 1 2 3 1
cos q2 + cos q3 equals
r r
( )
are non collinear. Further if a + b is collinear with
15. If the co-ordinates of the points A, B, C, D be
r r r r r r
( )
c , b + c is collinear with a & ½ a ½ = ½ b ½ = (2, 3, –1), (3, 5, – 3), (1, 2, 3) and (3, 5, 7)
respectively, then the projection of AB on CD is
r r r r r r r
½ c ½= 2 . Then the value of a . b + b . c + c . a :
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (i) (4), (ii) (2), (iii) (2) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (4)
9. 5 10. –3 11. –85 12. 1 13 –8 14. –1 15. 0

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
1. If the length of a vector be 21 and direction ratios x -1 y - 2 z +1

7. If = = is the equation of the line
be 2, – 3, 6 then its direction cosines are l m n
2 2 -1 2 -3 6 through (1, 2, –1) and (–1, 0, 1), then (l, m, n) is

(1) 21 , , (2) , ,
7 7 7 7 7 (1) (–1, 0, 1) (2) (1, 1, –1)
2 3 6 (3) (1, 2, –1) (4) (0, 1, 0)
(3) , , (4) None of these
7 7 7 8. The point of intersection of lines
2. If the co-ordinates of the points P , Q, R, S be (1, x-4
=
y -1 z
=
x -1 y - 2 z - 3
= =
and is
2, 3), (4, 5, 7), (– 4, 3, – 6) and (2, 0, 2) respectively, 5 2 1 2 3 4
then (1) (–1, –1, –1) (2) (–1, –1, 1)

(1) PQ|| RS (2) PQ ^ RS (3) (1, –1, –1) (4) (–1, 1, –1)
(3) PQ = RS (4) None of these 9. The angle between the lines whose direction cosines
3. The projection of the line segment joining the points are proportional to (1, 2, 1) and (2, –3, 6) is
(–1, 0, 3) and (2, 5, 1) on the line whose direction æ 2 ö æ 1 ö
-1 -1
ratios are 6, 2, 3 is (1) cos çç 7 6 ÷÷ (2) cos çç 7 6 ÷÷
è ø è ø
10 22
(1) (2) æ 3 ö æ 5 ö
7 7 -1 -1
(3) cos çç 7 6 ÷÷ (4) cos çç 7 6 ÷÷
è ø è ø
18
7 10. Direction ratios of the line represented by the
4. Points (1, 1, 1), (–2, 4, 1), (–1, 5, 5) and (2, 2, 5) equation x = ay + b, z = cy + d are
are the vertices of a (1) (a, 1, c) (2) (a, b – d, c)
(1) Rectangle (2) Square (3) (c, 1, a) (4) (b, ac, d)
(3) Parallelogram (4) Trapezium 11. The symmetric equation of lines 3 x + 2y + z - 5 = 0
5. If and
l1 , m1 , n1 are the direction cosines of
l2 , m2 , n2 and x + y - 2z - 3 = 0 , is
two perpendicular lines, then the direction cosine
of the line which is perpendicular to both the lines, x -1 y - 4 z - 0 x +1 y + 4 z -0
(1) = = (2) = =
5 7 1 5 7 1
will be
(1) (m1n2 - m2n1), (n1l2 - n2l1 ), (l1m2 - l2m1 ) x +1 y - 4 z - 0
= =
x -1 y - 4 z - 0
= =
(3) (4)
-5 7 1 -5 7 1
(2) (l1l2 - m1m2 ), (m1m2 - n1n2 ), (n1n2 - l1l2 )
x +1 y+ 3 z - 4
1
,
1
,
1 12. The angle between two lines = =
(3) 2 2 -1
l 12 + m12 + n12 l 22 + m 22 + n 22 3
x - 4 y + 4 z +1
and = = is
1 1 1 1 2 2
(4) , ,
3 3 3
1
-1 æ ö -1 æ ö2
6. If the co-ordinates of the points A, B, C be (1) cos ç 9 ÷ (2) cos ç 9 ÷
è ø è ø
(-1, 3, 2), (2, 3, 5) and (3, 5,–2) respectively, then ÐA =
(1) 0° (2) 45° 3
-1 æ ö -1 æ ö4
(3) cos ç 9 ÷ (4) cos ç 9 ÷
(3) 60° (4) 90° è ø è ø

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
x - 3 y - 2 z -1 16. The angle between the lines 2 x = 3y = - z and
13. The straight line = = is
3 1 0 6 x = -y = -4 z , is
(1) Parallel to x-axis (1) 0° (2) 30°
(2) Parallel to y-axis (3) 45° (4) 90°
(3) Parallel to z-axis
Numerical Type Questions
(4) Perpendicular to z-axis
17. The co-ordinates of points A, B, C, D are (a, 2, 1),
x-2 y-3 z-4 x -1 y-4 z-5 (1, –1, 1), (2, – 3, 4) and (a+1, a+2, a+3)
14. The line = = and = =
1 1 -k k 2 1
respectively. If AB = 5 and CD = 6 , then a =
are coplanar, if
(1) k = 0 or –1 (2) k = 0 or 1 18. If the angle between the lines whose direction ratios
are 2,–1 , 2 and a, 3, 5 be 45° , then a =
(3) k = 0 or –4 (4) k = 3 or –3
15. The point of intersection of the lines 19. The length of the perpendicular from p oint
x -5 y-7 z + 2 x + 3 y -3 z-6 x - 6 y -7 z -7
= = , = = is (1, 2, 3) to the line = = is
3 -1 1 - 36 2 4 3 2 -2
5 10 20. The perpendicular distance of the point (2, 4, –1) from

(1) 21, 3 , 3 (2) ( 2, 10, 4)
x +5 y +3 z -6
the line = = is
(3) (-3, 3, 6) (4) (5, 7, - 2) 1 4 -9
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (1) 16 (4) 17. –3 18. 4 19. 7 20. 7

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE (MISCELLANEOUS) VECTOR & 3D MATH EM ATI CS
1. If 4iˆ + 7ˆj + 8k,

ˆ 2iˆ + 3ˆj + 4kˆ and 2iˆ + 5ˆj + 7kˆ are the 7. The angle between a line with direction ratios
position vectors of the vertices A, B and C of triangle 2 : 2 : 1 and a line joining (3, 1, 4) to (7, 2, 12) is
ABC, the position vector of the point where the (1) cos -1(2 / 3) (2) cos -1(-2 / 3)
bisector of ÐA meets BC is
(3) tan -1(2 / 3) (4) None of these
2 2
(1) (-6iˆ - 8ˆj - 6k)
ˆ (2) (6iˆ + 8ˆj + 6k)
ˆ
8. A line makes the same angle q , with each of the x
3 3
and z–axis. If the angle b , which it makes with y-
1 ˆ 1
(3) (6i + 13ˆj + 18k)
ˆ (4) (5iˆ + 12k)
ˆ axis is such that sin 2 b = 3 sin 2 q , then cos 2 q equals
3 3
2. The position vectors of the points A and B w.r.t. an
r r 3 2
origin are a = î + 3ˆj - 2kˆ and b = 3iˆ + ˆj - 2kˆ (1) 5 (2)
3
uuur
respectively. If P is a point on AB, then OP whichh 1
bisects ÐAOB is (3) (4) None of these
5
(1) 2(- î + ˆj + k)
ˆ (2) 2(iˆ - ˆj + k)
ˆ
Numerical Type Questions
(3) 2(iˆ + ˆj - k)
ˆ (4) 2(iˆ + ˆj + k)
ˆ
3. The acute angle between the medians drawn from the
9.
r r r
Let u = î + ˆj , v = î - ĵ and w = î + 2ˆj + 3k̂ . If n̂ is
acute angles of an isosceles right angled triangle is:
r r
a unit vector such that u · n̂ = 0 and v · n̂ = 0 , and
(1) cos-1 (2 3) (2) cos-1 (3 4)
r l
(3) cos-1 (4 5) (4) None of these | w · n̂ | = l , then the value of is equal to
2
r r
4. If a and b are non zero, non collinear, and the
linear combination 10. If A(4, 7, 8), B(2, 3, 4), C(2, 5, 7) are the position
r r r r vectors of the vertices of DABC. Then length of
( 2x - y)a + 4b = 5a + ( x - 2 y) b holds for real x
and y then x + y has the value equal to angle bisector of angle A is (Given that 34 = 5.8)
(1) – 3 (2) 1
(3) 17 (4) 3 11. If P and Q are two given points on the curve
5. The angle between the lines whose direction cosines 1 uuur uuur
satisfy the equations l + m + n = 0 , l 2 + m2 - n2 = 0 is y= x+ such that OP· î = 1 and OQ· î = -1 where
x
given by
î is a unit vector along x-axis, then length of vector
2p p 5p p uuur uuur
(1)
3
(2)
6
(3)
6
(4)
3
3OP + 2OQ is k 5 then k is :
6. The angle between the lines whose direction cosines
are connected by the relations l + m + n = 0 and 12. The vectors 2iˆ + 3ˆj, 5iˆ + 6ˆj and 8iˆ + lˆj have their
2lm + 2nl - mn = 0 , is initial points at (1, 1). The value of l so that the
p 2p vectors terminate on one straight line is
(1) (2) 3 (3) p (4) None of these
3
ANS WER KEY

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1)
8. (1) 9. 1.50 10. 3.86 11. 1 12. 9

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 30 LPP MATH EM ATI CS
1. The objective function z = 4x + 3y can be maximized 6. The graph of inequations x £ y and y £ x + 3 is

subjected to the constraints located in
3 x + 4 y £ 24 , 8 x + 6 y £ 48 , x £ 5, y £ 6; x, y ³ 0 (1) II quadrant
(1) At only one point (2) I, II quadrants
(2) At two points only (3) I, II, III quadrants
(3) At an infinite number of points (4) II, III, IV quadrants
(4) None of these 7. The area of the feasible region for the following
2. If the constraints in a linear programming problem constraints 3y + x ³ 3, x ³ 0, y ³ 0 will be
are changed
(1) Bounded (2) Unbounded
(1) The problem is to be re-evaluated
(2) Solution is not defined (3) Convex (4) Concave
(3) The objective function has to be modified 8. A wholesale merchant wants to start the business
(4) The change in constraints is ignored of cereal with Rs. 24000. Wheat is Rs. 400 per
3. Which of the following statements is correct quintal and rice is Rs. 600 per quintal. He has
capacity to store 200 quintal cereal. He earns the
(1) Every L.P.P. admits an optimal solution
profit Rs. 25 per quintal on wheat and Rs. 40 per
(2) A L.P.P. admits a unique optimal solution
quintal on rice. If he stores x quintal rice and y
(3) If a L.P.P. admits two optimal solutions, it has
quintal wheat, then for maximum profit the
an infinite number of optimal solutions
objective function is
(4) The set of all feasible solutions of a L.P.P. is not
a convex set (1) 25 x + 40y (2) 40 x + 25y
4. Shaded region is represented by 400 600
(3) 400 x + 600y (4) x+ y
Y
40 25
(0,20) x+y=20
æ 20 40 ö
C(10,16)
Bç ,
è 3 3 ø
÷
9. Mohan wants to invest the total amount of Rs. 15,000
Shaded 2x+5y=80 in saving certificates and national saving bonds.
X According to rules, he has to invest at least Rs. 2000
A(20,0) (40,0)
in saving certificates and Rs. 2500 in national saving
(1) 2 x + 5y ³ 80, x + y £ 20, x ³ 0, y £ 0
bonds. The interest rate is 8% on saving certificate
(2) 2 x + 5 y ³ 80, x + y ³ 20, x ³ 0, y ³ 0 and 10% on national saving bonds per annum. He
(3) 2 x + 5 y £ 80, x + y £ 20, x ³ 0, y ³ 0 invest Rs. x in saving certificates and Rs. y in national
saving bonds. Then the objective function for this
(4) 2 x + 5y £ 80, x + y £ 20, x £ 0, y £ 0
problem is
5. The constraints -x1 + x 2 £ 1
(1) 0.08 x + 0.10y
-x1 + 3x 2 £ 9
x1 , x 2 ³ 0 define on x y
(2) +
2000 2500
(1) Bounded feasible space
(2) Unbounded feasible space (3) 2000 x + 2500y
(3) Both bounded and unbounded feasible space x y
(4) +
(4) None of these 8 10

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
10. A firm produces two types of products A and B. 14. The vertices of a feasible region of the above
The profit on both is Rs. 2 per item. Every product question are
requires processing on machines M 1 and M 2 . For (1) (0, 18), (36, 0)
A, machines M 1 and M 2 takes 1 minute and 2 minute (2) (0, 18), (10, 13)
respectively and for B, machines M 1 and M 2 takes (3) (10, 13), (8, 14)
the time 1 minute each. The machines M 1 , M 2 are (4) (10, 13), (8, 14), (12, 12)
not available more than 8 hours and 10 hours, any 15. The maximum value of objective function in the
of day, respectively. If the products made x of A above question is
and y of B, then the linear constraints for the L.P.P. (1) 100 (2) 92
except x ³ 0, y ³ 0 , are
(3) 95 (4) 94
(1) x + y £ 480 , 2 x + y £ 600 16. A factory produces two products A and B. In the
(2) x + y £ 8, 2 x + y £ 10 manufacturing of product A, the machine and the
carpenter requires 3 hour each and in manufacturing
(3) x + y ³ 480 , 2 x + y ³ 600 of product B, the machine and carpenter requires 5
(4) x + y £ 8, 2 x + y ³ 10 hour and 3 hour respectively. The machine and
11. The objective function in the above question is carpenter work at most 80 hour and 50 hour per
week respectively. The profit on A and B is Rs. 6
(1) 2 x + y (2) x + 2y
and 8 respectively. If profit is maximum by
(3) 2 x + 2y (4) 8 x + 10y manufacturing x and y units of A and B type product
12. In a test of Mathematics, there are two types of respectively, then for the function 6 x + 8 y the
questions to be answered–short answered and long constraints are
answered. The relevant data is given below (1) x ³ 0, y ³ 0, 5 x + 3y £ 80, 3 x + 2y £ 50
Type of questions Time taken to solve
(2) x ³ 0, y ³ 0, 3 x + 5 y £ 80, 3 x + 3y £ 50
Short answered questions 5 minute
Long answered questions 10 minute (3) x ³ 0, y ³ 0, 3 x + 5 y ³ 80, 2 x + 3y ³ 50
Marks Number of questions (4) x ³ 0, y ³ 0, 5 x + 3y ³ 80, 3 x + 2y ³ 50
3 10 17. A shopkeeper wants to purchase two articles A and
5 14 B of cost price Rs. 4 and 3 respectively. He thought
The total marks is 100. Students can solve all the that he may earn 30 paise by selling article A and
questions. To secure maximum marks, a student 10 paise by selling article B. He has not to purchase
solves x short answered and y long answered total article worth more than Rs. 24. If he purchases
questions in three hours, then the linear constraints the number of articles of A and B, x and y
except x ³ 0, y ³ 0 , are respectively, then linear constraints are
(1) 5 x + 10y £ 180 , x £ 10, y £ 14 (1) x ³ 0, y ³ 0, 4 x + 3 y £ 24
(2) x + 10y ³ 180 , x £ 10, y £ 14 (2) x ³ 0, y ³ 0, 30 x + 10 y £ 24
(3) 5 x + 10y ³ 180 , x ³ 10, y ³ 14 (3) x ³ 0, y ³ 0, 4 x + 3 y ³ 24
(4) 5 x + 10y £ 180 , x ³ 10, y ³ 14 (4) x ³ 0, y ³ 0, 30 x + 40 y ³ 24

13. The objective function for the above question is 18. In the above question the iso-profit line is
(1) 10 x + 14 y (2) 5 x + 10y (1) 3 x + y = 30 (2) x + 3y = 20
(3) 3 x + 5 y (4) 5 y + 3 x (3) 3 x - y = 20 (4) 4 x + 3y = 24

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
19. The sum of two positive integers is at most 5. The Numerical Type Questions
difference between two times of second number and
21. For the L.P. problem Max z = 3 x1 + 2 x 2 such thatt
first number is at most 4. If the first number is x and
second number y, then for maximizing the product 2 x1 - x 2 ³ 2 , x1 + 2x 2 £ 8 and x 1 , x 2 ³ 0 , z =
of these two numbers, the mathematical formulation is
22. For the L.P. problem Min z = - x 1 + 2x 2
(1) x + y ³ 5 , 2y - x ³ 4, x ³ 0, y ³ 0
such that - x1 + 3 x 2 £ 0, x1 + x 2 £ 6, x1 - x 2 £ 2
(2) x + y ³ 5 , -2 x + y ³ 4, x ³ 0, y ³ 0
and x 1 , x 2 ³ 0 , x 1 =
(3) x + y £ 5 , 2y - x £ 4, x ³ 0, y ³ 0
(4) None of these 23. On maximizing z = 4 x + 9 y subject to x + 5 y £ 200,
20. For the L.P. problem Min z = x 1 + x 2 such thatt 2 x + 3y £ 134 and x, y ³ 0 , z =
5 x 1 + 10 x 2 £ 0, x 1 + x 2 ³ 1, x 2 £ 4 and x 1 , x 2 ³ 0 24. For the L.P. problem Min z = 2 x + y subject to
(1) There is a bounded solution 5 x + 10y £ 50, x + y ³ 1, y £ 4 and x, y ³ 0 , z =
(2) There is no solution 25. For the L.P. problem Min z = 2 x - 10y subject to
(3) There are infinite solutions x - y ³ 0, x - 5 y ³ -5 and x, y ³ 0 , z =
(4) None of these
ANS WER KEY

1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (3)
21. 24 22. 2 23. 382 24. 2 25. 10

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 31 COMPLEX NUMBER MATH EM ATI CS
1. {1 + (– i)4n+3} (1 – i) (n Î N) equals - 9. For positive integers n 1 , n 2 the value of the

(1) 2 (2) –2 (3) 1 (4) i expression ;
2. If a, b Î C, the set of complex numbers, and one of (1 + i) n1 + (1 + i 3 ) n1 + (1 + i 5 ) n 2 + (1 + i 7 ) n 2 , where
the roots of x2 + ax + b = 0 is purely real and the
i = - 1 , is a real number if :
other is purely imaginary, then a2 – (a ) 2 is (1) n1 = n2 + 1 (2) n1 = n2 – 1
(1) 4b2 (2) 4b (3) n1 = n2 (4) n1 > 0, n2 > 0
(3) – 4b (4) – 4b2
100
æ -1- i ö
10. çç ÷÷ equals -
i +i +i +i +i
592 590 588 586 584
è 2 ø
3. The value of -1 =
i 582 + i 580 + i 578 + i 576 + i 574
(1) 1 (2) i
(1) –1 (2) –2
(3) – i (4) – 1
(3) –3 (4) –4
11. If z + z = 0 then which of the following must be
3
6i -3i 1 true on the complex plane?

4. If 4 3i -1 = x + iy then (x, y) is (1) Re(z) < 0 (2) Re(z) = 0
20 3 i (3) Im(z) = 0 (4) z4 = 1
12. Number of integral values of n for which the quantity
(1) (3, 1) (2) (1, 3) (n + i)4 where i2 = – 1, is an integer is
(3) (0, 3) (4) (0, 0) (1) 1 (2) 2
5. Roots of equation ix – 3x – 2i = 0 are
2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) i, 2i (2) –i, –2i
x -3 y -3
(3) 2i, –i (4) 3i, –4i 13. If + = i where x, y Î R then
3+i 3-i
7-i
6. If z = 3 - 4 i , then the complex number z14 reduces (1) x = 2 & y = – 8 (2) x = – 2 & y = 8
to – (3) x = – 2 & y = – 6 (4) x = 2 & y = 8
(1) A purely real (2) A purely imaginary 14. Number of complex numbers z satisfying z 3 = z
(3) Non-real complex (4) None of these
is
100 (1) 1 (2) 2
7. The value of åi
n= 0
n!
equals (where i = -1 ) (3) 4 (4) 5
15. Modulus and argument of (tan 1 – i)2 is
(1) –1 (2) i
(1) tan2 1 + 1, 2 – p (2) cot21 + 2, p – 3
(3) 2i + 95 (4) 97 + i
(3) tan22 – 3, p – 4 (4) –tan21 – 1, 2 – 2p
8. Give that x, y Î R, then value of x and y is, if
16. If z = x + iy satisfies arg (z + 2) = arg (z + i), then
x y 5 + 6i (1) x + 2y + 1 = 0
+ =
1 + 2i 3 + 2i 8i - 1
(2) x + 2y + 2 = 0
(1) x = 1, y = 3 (2) x = 2, y = 1 (3) x – 2y + 1 = 0
(3) x = 1, y = 2 (4) x = y = 5 (4) x – 2y – 2 = 0
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
17. Polar form of -3 2 + 3 2i is Numerical Type Questions

18. The complex number z satisfies z + | z | = 2 + 8i.
æ 3p 3p ö æ p pö The value of | z | is
(1) 6 ç cos + isin ÷ (2) 4 ç cos + i sin ÷
è 4 4 ø è 4 4ø 19. Number of complex numbers z such that | z | = 1
æ 5p 5p ö æ 5p 5p ö z z
and + = 1 is
(3) 2 ç cos + isin ÷ (4) 6 ç cos + i sin ÷ z z
è 4 4 ø è 4 4 ø
20. Number of real or purely imaginary solution of the
equation, z3 + i z - 1 = 0 is :
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (4)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (4) 15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. 17 19. 8 20. (0)
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE # 32 COMPLEX NUMBER MATH EM ATI CS
1 1 x
1. Greatest and least vlaue of z1 + z 2 . If z1 = 24 + 7i 8. If 2 cosq = x + and 2 cosf = y + y , then
x y+
and |z2| = 6 is
(1) 24, 19 (2) 19, 35 y
equals
x
(3) 35, 16 (4) 4, –2
(1) 2 cos (q –f) (2) 2 cos (q + f)
3 -i (3) 2 sin (q – f) (4) 2 sin (q + f)
2. If z = , then (i101 + z101)103 equals-
2 9. If w and w2 are complex cube roots of unity, then 1
(1) iz (2) z –2w2 is a root of
(3) z (4) None of these (1) x3 –1 = 0 (2) (x –1)3 + 8 = 0
3. (–64)1/4 equals - (3) x3 + 1 = 0 (4) (x –1)3 – 8 = 0
(1) ± 2(1 + i) (2) ± 2 (1 – i) 6
æ 2pk 2pk ö
(3) ± 2(1 ± i) (4) None of these 10. The value of å çè sin 7
- i cos ÷
7 ø is -
k =1
4. If w is imaginary cube root of unity then the value
of wn + w2n (where n is not a multiple of 3) is (1) –1 (2) 0
(1) 0 (2) – w (3) –i (4) i
(3) w2 (4) – 1
11. If i = -1 , then
5. If a1, a2, a3,...a8 are the 8th roots of unity then -
(1) (a1)3 + (a2)3 + (a3)3 +...+ (a8)3 = 8 æ 1 i 3ö
334
æ 1 i 3ö
365
4 + 5 çç - + ÷ + 3 çç - + ÷ is equal to
(2) a1 + a2+a3 +... + a8 = 1
è 2 2 ÷ø è 2 2 ÷ø
(3) (a1)50 + (a2)50 ...+ (a8)50 = 0
(1) 1 - i 3 (2) - 1 + i 3
(4)(a1)16 + (a2)16 ...+ (a8)16 = 0
6. If 1, a1, a2 , a3 , a4, be the roots of x5–1= 0 then (3) i 3 (4) - i 3
w - a1 w - a2 w - a3 w - a4 12. |z – z1|2 + |z – z2|2 = |z1 – z2|2then locus of z is
. .
w 2 - a1 w2 - a 2 w2 - a 3
. w2 - a is (1) Straight line (2) Circle
4
(3) Ellipse (4) None of these
where w is a non real complex cube root of unity.
13. If |z1| = |z2| = |z3| = 1 and z1 + z2 + z3 = 0 then the area
(1) w (2) w2
of the triangle whose vertices are z1, z2, z3 is -
(3) 2w (4) w3
7. The value of the expression 3 3 3
(1) (2)
1. (2 – w) . (2 – w2) + 2 . (3 – w) (3 – w2) + ....... + 4 4
(n – 1) (n – w) (n – w2), where w is an imaginary (3) 1 (4) None of these
cube root of unity is- 14. If z1, z2, z3 and z4 are in A.P. then z1, z2, z3 and z4 lie
2 2
on.
æ n (n + 1) ö æ n (n + 1) ö
(1) ç ÷ (2) ç ÷ – n (1) Straight line
è 2 ø è 2 ø
(2) Circle
2
æ n (n + 1) ö (3) Ellipse
(3) ç ÷ +n (4) None of above
è 2 ø (4) None of these
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
15. If |z – 1| + |z + 2| = 3, then locus of z on argand 18. The complex number a + i, a – i, 1 + ai, 1 – ai where
plane is a Î R. Taken in order on argand plane represent
(1) Straight line (2) Line segment the vertices of a parallelogram if
(3) Circle (4) Ellipse (1) a = 1 (2) a = –1
1
(3) a = 0 (4) a = 2
16. If z = z1 + z and z1 is any point on a fixed circle
1 ai
19. If z1 = 1 + i, z2 = –2 + 3i and z 3 = where i2 = –1,
with the centre at the origin then z lies on 3
(1) Straight line (2) Circle are collinear then value of a is
(3) Ellipse (4) Hyperbola (1) –1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
17. The points representing the complex number z for Numerical Type Questions
æz-2ö p 20. If z is a complex number satisfying the equation |
which arg ç z + 2 ÷ = lie on - z + i | + | z – i | = 8, on the complex plane then
è ø 3
maximum value of | z | is
(1) A circle (2) A straight line
21. If w is cube root of unity (w¹ 1) then the least value
(3) An ellipse (4) A parabola
of n, where n is positive integer such that (1+ w2)n =
(1 + w4)n is-
n
22. The value of å sin
2pk
n
is -
k= 0
ANS WER KEY

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. 4
21. 3 22. 0
ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
RACE (MISCELLANEOUS) COMPLEX NUMBER MATH EM ATI CS
3 7. If |z1| = 1, |z2| = 2, |z3| = 3 and |z1 + z2 + z3| = 1 then

1. If x + iy= cos q + isin q + 2 , the 4x– x2–y2 reduces to - |9z1z2 + 4z1z3 + z3z2| is equal to
(1) 6 (2) 36
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
1 - iz
2. If 27iZ3 + 18Z2 –12Z + 8i = 0, then 8. If z = x + iy & w = then ½w½ = 1
z-i
3 implies that, in the complex plane
(1) |Z| = (2) |Z| = 1
2
(1) z lies on the imaginary axis
4 2 (2) z lies on the real axis
(3) |Z| = (4) |Z| =
3 3 (3) z lies on the unit circle
3. In the quadratic equation x + (p + iq) x + 3i = 0, p &
2
(4) None of these
q are real. If the sum of the squares of the roots is 8
then 1 i
9. If z + z = 2 and i w + —
w =2
(1) p = 3, q = - 1 (2) p = –3, q = –1
(3) p = ± 3, q = ± 1 (4) p = - 3, q = 1
then the maximum value of | z – w | is -
4. The complex number z satisfying z + | z | = 1 + 7i
then the value of | z |2 equals (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 625 (2) 169 (3) 5 (4) None of these
(3) 49 (4) 25 3p
10. Complex number where the curves arg(z - 3i) =
5. If x = 9 1/3
9 1/9
9 1/27
......and if, y = 4 1/3
4 –1/9
4 1/27
4
¥ p
...... and if and z = å (1 + i) – r then, the argument and arg(2z + 1 - 2i) =
4
intersect, is
r =1
of the complex number w = x + yz is 3 9

(1) 3 + 5i (2) + i
æ 2ö 4 4
(1) 0 (2) p – tan–1 çç ÷
÷
è 3 ø 6 9 13 17i
(3) - i (4) +
æ 2ö æ 2 ö 5 5 4 4
(3) – tan–1 çç ÷
÷ (4) – tan–1 ç ÷
è 3 ø è 3ø 11. A point 'z' moves on the curve ½z - 4 - 3 i½ = 2 in
an argand plane. The maximum and minimum
4
z1 z1 - z 2 values of ½z½ are
6. If z is purely imaginary number, then is
2 z1 + z2 (1) 2, 1 (2) 6, 5
equal to – (3) 4, 3 (4) 7, 3
12. The minimum value of ½z – 1 + 2i| + |4i – 3 – z| is
3
(1) (2) 1
2 (1) 5 (2) 5
2 4
(3) (4) (3) 2 13 (4) 15
3 9

ENGLISH

ENTHUSE COURSE
1 1 Numerical Type Questions
13. If z + = 2 cos 3º, then z2000 + 2000 + 1 =
z z 15. If z is a complex number satisfy z + |z| = 2 + 8i then
(1) 0 (2) 1 value of |z| is
(3) –1 (4) 2 16. If x2 – x + 1 = 0 then the value of
14. Let z1, z2, be two complex numbers represented by 2 2 2 2
æ 1ö æ 2 1 ö æ 3 1 ö æ 24 1 ö
points on the circle |z| = 1 and |z| = 2 respectively ç x + ÷ + çç x + 2 ÷÷ + çç x + 3 ÷÷ +.....+ çç x + 24 ÷÷ is
è xø è x ø è x ø è x ø
then
(1) max |2z1 + z2| = 4
( )
50
17. 8 + -1 = 349 (a + ib) then value of a2 + b2 is
(2) max |z1 – z2| = 1
1 4
(3) z 2 + z ³ 3 18. If z - = 2 then difference b/w max. of (|z|) and
1 z
(4) None of these min. of |z| is
ANS WER KEY

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. 17 16. 48 17. 9 18. 2
Important Notes
ENGLISH
TARGET : JEE-MAIN 2023

NURTURE COURSE
MATH EM ATI CS ADI/25

ENGLISH
TARGET : JEE-MAIN 2023

NURTURE COURSE
26/ADI MATH EM ATI CS

JEE (Main) Enthuse Race

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JEE (Main) Enthuse Race

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JEE (MAIN) 2023

City Head Office

PRE-ENGINEERING/PRE-MEDICAL/PNCF CENTERS ALSO AT

1 # RACE ......................................... ELECTROSTATICS .................................................................... 1

2 # RACE .......................................... ELECTROSTATICS .................................................................... 3

3 # RACE .......................................... ELECTROSTATICS .................................................................... 5

4 # RACE .......................................... ELECTRICITY ........................................................................... 7

5 # RACE .......................................... ELECTRICITY ........................................................................... 9

6 # RACE .......................................... CAPACITOR ............................................................................. 12

7 # RACE .......................................... CAPACITOR ............................................................................. 14

8 # RACE .......................................... MEC ........................................................................................ 16

9 # RACE .......................................... MEC ........................................................................................ 18

10 # RACE ........................................ MAGNETIC MATERIALS ............................................................ 20

11 # RACE ........................................ EMI ......................................................................................... 22

12 # RACE ........................................ EMI ......................................................................................... 24

13 # RACE ........................................ ALTERNATING CURRENT ......................................................... 27

14 # RACE ........................................ WAVES .................................................................................... 29

15 # RACE ........................................ RAY OPTICS ............................................................................ 31

16 # RACE ........................................ RAY OPTICS ............................................................................ 33

17 # RACE ........................................ RAY OPTICS ............................................................................ 35

18 # RACE ........................................ WAVE OPTICS .......................................................................... 37

19 # RACE ........................................ WAVE OPTICS .......................................................................... 39

20 # RACE ........................................ ATOMS .................................................................................... 41

21 # RACE ........................................ NUCLEUS, X-RAY & DUEL NATURE .......................................... 43

22 # RACE ........................................ NUCLEUS ............................................................................... 45

23 # RACE ........................................ NUCLEUS ............................................................................... 47

24 # RACE ........................................ NUCLEUS ............................................................................... 49

25 # RACE ........................................ SEMI CONDUCTOR .................................................................. 51

26 # RACE ........................................ SEMI CONDUCTOR .................................................................. 53

27 # RACE ........................................ COMMUNICATION .................................................................... 55

28 # RACE ........................................ COMMUNICATION .................................................................... 57

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

A B NUME RICAL VALUE QUESITONS

ANS WER KEY

E-2/ ADI PHYSICS

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

EL2 (1) Negative, 6 × 10–11C (2) Positive, 7.08 × 10–11C

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

ANS WER KEY

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

(4) torque acting on it is always zero

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

E-6/ ADI PHYSICS

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

ANS WER KEY

E-8/ ADI PHYSICS

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

(1) 625 W (2) 650 W (3) 676 W (4) 600 W

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

l 4l (1) P2 > P3 > P4 > P1 (2) P3 > P2 > P4 > P1

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

ANS WER KEY

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

17. Find the value C in mF if equivalent capacitance

18. Two parallel plate condenser of capacity of 2F and

ANS WER KEY

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

of 100V. After charging, both are connected in O

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2023

the ring subtends an angle q at the centre. The value 8v 0.1µF

ANS WER KEY