PCB Test 6

Test - PCB Test 6
For NEET Examination

Student Copy Only
© Biomentors Classes Online 2022
Do not share in public domain Uploaded On: 16-07-2022
Format - NEET
Negative Marking Applied
Syllabus:
Biology -
Biology Basics, 1. The Living World, 8. Cell – The Unit of Life, 1. Reproduction in Organisms, 3. Human
Reproduction
Physics -
3. Motion in a Straight Line, 1. Electric Charges and Fields, 2. Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Chemistry -
2. Structure of Atom, 3. Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, 4. Chemical
Bonding and Molecular Structure, 1. Solid State, 2. Solutions, 3. Electrochemistry
1) Who got the "triple crown of biology"?

किसे "बायोलॉजी का ट्रिपल क्राउन "मिला?
a) Esau b) Calvin
c) Mayr d) Herbert Boyer
2) What is the unifying concept of biology?

जीव विज्ञान की एकीकृ त अवधारणा क्या है?
a) Evolution b) Genetics
c) Classification d) Morphology
3) Bioinformatics is an interdisciplinary branch which is concerned with the application of?

जैव सूचना विज्ञान एक अंतःविषय शाखा है जो किसके अनुप्रयोग से संबंधित है?
a) Engineering techniques in biological studies b) Chemistry in understanding the biological

phenomenon
c) Physics in understanding various life processes d) Information science in analyzing the biological data
4) Melvin Calvin was professor of?

मेल्विन के ल्विन इसके प्रोफे सर थे?
a) Botany b) Plant physiology

c) Pharmacology d) Biochemistry
5) Biometry refers to?

बॉयोमेट्री इसको संदर्भि त करता है?
a) Measurement of evolutionary rate in humans b) Measurement of living things and it's analytical 1
g g y
processes
c) Measurement of fertility and mortality rate d) None of these
6) Maintenance of internal favorable conditions, despite changes in external environment is?

बाहरी वातावरण में परिवर्तन के बावजूद आं तरिक अनुकू ल परिस्थितियों का रखरखाव है?
a) Entropy b) Steady state

c) Enthalpy d) Homeostasis
7) The term ‘systematic’ refers to?

सिस्टेमैटिक' शब्द किसको संदर्भि त करता है?
a) Identification and classification of plants and animals b) Nomenclature and identification of plants and
animals
c) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship d) Different kinds of organisms and their classification
8) K. Esau dominated in the field of plant biology up to the age of 99 years. She contributed mainly in the field of?
के एसाव 99 वर्ष की आयु तक पादपजीव विज्ञान के क्षेत्र में हावी थी। उन्होंने मुख्य रूप से किस क्षेत्र में योगदान दिया?
a) Morphology of flowering plants b) Anatomy of seed plants

c) Classification of flowering plants d) Physiology of seed plants
9) Metabolism comprises?
चयापचय में शामिल हैं?
a) Digestion of food b) Elimination of wastes

c) Exchange of gases d) Various energy exchanges in cell
10) Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?
निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा पहलू जीवित चीजों की एक विशिष्ट विशेषता है?
a) Perception of events happening in the environment b) Increase in mass by accumulation of material both
and conciousness on surface as well as internally
c) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro d) Increase in mass from outside only
11) Match the column :

दिए गए कॉलम मिलान करें?
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a) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv) b) A = (ii), B = (iii), C = (iv), D = (i)
c) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (ii) d) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iv)
12) Which is the most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living organisms?
सभी जीवों की सबसे स्पष्ट और तकनीकी रूप से जटिल विशेषता कौन सी है?
a) Sensitivity & irritability b) Growth & reproduction

c) Cellular organisation & metabolism d) Sexuality & Differentiation
13) Couplet in taxonomic key means?

वर्गीकरण कुं जी में कप्लेट से तात्पर्य है?
a) A pair of homologous characters b) A pair of similar species

c) A pair of analogous structures d) A pair of contrasting characters
14) Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given?
निम्नलिखित का मिलान करें और दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही संयोजन चुनें?
a) A -I, B-II, C-III, D-IV b) A-II, B-III, C- IV, D-I

c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
15) Animals are classified into hierarchial groups. In which one of the following, the largest number of species is
found?
जंतुओं को श्रेणीबद्ध समूहों में वर्गीकृ त किया गया है। निम्नलिखित में से किसमें प्रजातियों की सबसे बड़ी संख्या पाई जाती है?
a) Genus b) Order
c) Family d) Class
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16) Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic hierarchial arrangement in ascending order of the following?
निम्नलिखित में वर्गीकरण व्यवस्था के सही आरोही अनुक्रम को पहचानें?
a) Spermatophyta, Sapindales, Dicotyledons, b) Mangifera, Dicotyledons, Anacardiaceae,

Anacardiaceae, Mangifera Spermatophyta, Sapindales
c) Mangifera, Anacardiaceae, Sapindales, d) Dicotyledons, Anacardiaceae, Sapindales,
Dicotyledons, Spermatophyta Spermatophyte, Mangifera
17) Match the Column - I with Column - II and select the correct option?
कॉलम - I के साथ कॉलम - II का मिलान करें और सही विकल्प चुनें?
a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c b) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

c) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d d) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a
18) Match the following and choose the correct option?

निम्नलिखित मिलान करें और सही विकल्प चुनें?
a) a-4, b - 3, c -5, d - 2, e - 1 b) a-5, b - 4, c-2, d-1, e-3

c) a-4, b-5, c-2, d -1, e-3 d) a-5, b -3, c-2, d-1, e-4
19) Nomenclature is very important in taxonomy, which of the following is not correct about scientific
nomenclature?
नामकरण टैक्सोनॉमी में बहुत ही महत्वपूर्ण है, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा वैज्ञानिक नामकरण के बारे में सही नहीं है?
a) They ensure that each organism has only one name b) They also ensure that such name has not been used
for any other known organism
c) Scientific nomenclature is a standardised naming d) Different countries of the world use different kinds of
system scientific nomenclature system
20) Which of the following multiply by the process of fragmentation?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन विखंडन की प्रक्रिया द्वारा बहुगुणन करता है?
a) Planaria b) Filamentous algae

c) Fungi d) All of these 4
21) Middle lamella is composed mainly of?
मध्यपटलिका मुख्य रूप से इससे बनी है?
a) Calcified polymer of glucosamine b) Hemicellulose with glycopeptide

c) Divalent cations with linked D-galacturonic acid d) Calcium carbonate & Magnecium phosphate
polymers mainly
22) Genes present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells are found in?
यूके रियोटिक कोशिकाओं के साइटोप्लाज्म में मौजूद जीन इसमें पाए जाते हैं?
a) Mitochondria and inherited via egg cytoplasm b) Lysosomes and peroxisomes

c) Golgi bodies and smooth endoplasmic reticulum d) Plastids and inherited via male gamete
23) The figure shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its parts labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D). Select the part
correctly matched with its function?
दिये गये आरेख में एक माइटोकॉन्ड्रियन की संरचना को दिखलाया गया है जिसके कु छ हिस्सों को लेबल किया गया है (ए), (बी), (सी) और (डी)।
उसके कार्य के साथ मिलान वाले भाग का चयन करें?
a) Part (C ) : Cristae - possess single circular DNA b) Part (A) : Matrix - major site for respiratory chain
molecule and ribosomes enzymes
c) Part (D) : Outer membrane - gives rise to inner d) Part (B): Inner membrane - forms infoldings called
membrane by splitting cristae
24) Mitochondria having?

माइटोकॉन्ड्रिया में?
a) A diameter of 0.2 - 1.0 mm (average 0.5mm) and b) A diameter of 0.2 - 1.0μm (average 0.5μm) and
length 1.0 - 4.1mm length 1.0 - 4.1μm
c) A diameter of 2 - 10μm (average 5 μm) and length d) A diameter of 0.2 - 1.0 nm (average 0.5 nm) and
10 - 14 μm length 1.0 - 4.1 nm
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25) If a particle migrate from lumen of thylakoid to the out of cell membrane. It has to cross how many miminum
number of membranes?
यदि एक कण थाइलाकोइड के लुमेन से कोशिका झिल्ली से बाहर की ओर निकलता है। तब इसे कम से कम कितने झिल्लियों की संख्या को पार
करना होगा?
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 1
26) Which of the following essentially require carrier molecules during transport through cell membranes?
निम्नलिखित में से किसे कोशिका झिल्ली के माध्यम से परिवहन के दौरान आवश्यक रूप से वाहक अणुओं की आवश्यकता होती है?
a) Simple diffusion b) Facilitated diffusion

c) Osmosis d) Downhill transport of gases
27) Whose discovery published in Nature in 1954 related to the triple helical structure of collagen?
किसकी खोज 1954 में नेचर पत्रिका में प्रकाशित हुयी थी जिसमे कोलेजन की ट्रिपल हेलिकल संरचना की महत्वपूर्ण खोज का जिक्र था?
a) Linus Pauling b) H G Khorana

c) Meselson & Stahl d) G N Ramachandran
28) (1) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence and performing the essential functions of life.
(2) Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living.
(1) एककोशिकीय जीव स्वतंत्र अस्तित्व और जीवन के आवश्यक कार्यों को करने में सक्षम हैं।
(2) कोशिका की पूरी संरचना से कम कु छ भी स्वतंत्र जीवन सुनिश्चित नहीं करता है।
a) Both (1) & (2) are correct statements b) Both (1) & (2) are incorrect statements
c) Only (1) is correct statements d) Only (2) is correct statements
29) (1) Years between 1931 to 1960 considered to be very important in the field of cytology.
(2) The invention and improvement of the electron microscope revealed all the structural details of the cell.
(1) सन 1931 से 1960 के बीच के वर्षों को कोशिका विज्ञान के क्षेत्र में बहुत महत्वपूर्ण माना जाता है।
(2) इलेक्ट्रॉन माइक्रोस्कोप के आविष्कार और सुधार से कोशिका के सभी संरचनात्मक विवरणों का पता चला।
a) Both (1) & (2) are correct statements b) Both (1) & (2) are incorrect statements
c) Only (2) is correct statements d) Only (1) is correct statements
30) Polygalactronoids are the major constituents of?

पालीग्लाक्टोरोनॉइड् स किसके प्रमुख घटक हैं
a) Middle lamella b) Primary cell wall

c) Secondary cell wall d) Cell membrane
31) Cytoplasm of one plant cell is connected with other through? 6

एक पादप कोशिका के साइटोप्लाज्म को दू सरी पादप कोशिका से इसके माध्यम से जोड़ा जाता है?
a) Plasmalemma b) Plasmodesmata
c) Plastoquinones d) Endoplasmic reticulum
32) Phosphatidylcholine are the major constituents of?

फोस्फे टिडीलकोलिन किसके प्रमुख घटक हैं
a) Middle lamella b) Primary cell wall

c) Secondary cell wall d) Cell membrane
33) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms is called?

जीवित जीवों के अध्ययन और समझने के लिए भौतिक-रासायनिक दृष्टिकोण को कहा जाता है?
a) Biochemistry b) Reductionist Biology

c) Evolution d) Cytochemistry
34) The presence of cell wall is a unique character of the plant cells is first shown by?
कोशिका भित्ति की उपस्थिति पादप कोशिकाओं का एक विशिष्ट लक्षण है जिसे सर्वप्रथम इन्होने बताया था ?
a) R Brown b) R Hooke
c) A V Leeuwenhoeck d) T Schwann
35) Plasmids are extra chromosomal genetic material of?

प्लास्मिड इनमे अतिरिक्त क्रोमोसोमल आनुवंशिक सामग्री हैं?
a) Bacteria b) Virus
c) Algae d) Amoeba
36) Which of the following cytoplasmic cell organelle (s) is / are double membrane bound in animal cell?
निम्नलिखित में से जंतु कोशिका में कौन सा कोशिकाद्रवीय कोशिकांग दोहरी झिल्ली से बाध्य है?
a) Nucleus, Mitochondria and Chloroplast b) Chloroplast & Golgi body

c) Mitochondria & Chloroplast d) Mitochondria
37) Gram -ve and +ve bacteria have cell membrane made up of?
ग्राम -ve और + ve जीवाणुओं में कोशिका झिल्ली इससे बनी होती है?
a) Proteins and lipids b) Cellulose

c) Peptidoglycan d) Chitin
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38) Helically coiled shaped bacteria are called?
कुं डलित आकृ ति के बैक्टीरिया को कहा जाता है?
a) Spirilla b) Cocci
c) Bacilli d) Vibrio
39) The size of most of the cells is best expressed in?

अधिकांश कोशिकाओं का आकार सबसे अच्छी तरह से व्यक्त किया जाता है?
a) Å b) Milimeters (mm)
c) Nanometers (nm) d) Micrometers (μm)
40) Who proposed the theory that " cells arise only from the pre existing cells"?
किसने इस सिद्धांत का प्रस्ताव दिया कि "कोशिकाएं पहले से मौजूद कोशिकाओं से ही उत्पन्न होती हैं"?
a) Mohl b) Virchow
c) Haeckel d) Brown
41) Match column-I (Organism) with column-II (reproductive structure).

कॉलम- I (जीव) के साथ कॉलम- II (प्रजनन संरचना) को मेल करे?
a) A : 1, B : 2, C : 3, D : 4 b) A : 4, B : 1, C : 3, D : 2
c) A : 1, B : 3, C : 4, D : 2 d) A : 2, B : 1, C : 4, D : 3
42) Identify A, B and C in the diagram.

आरेख में A, B और C को पहचानें।
8
a) A: Nodes, B: Buds, C: Adventitious root b) A: Buds, B: Nodes, C: Tap root
c) A: Adventitious root, B: Nodes, C: Buds d) A: Tap root, B: Nodes, C: Buds
43) Identify A, B and C in the figure.

आकृ ति में A, B और C को पहचानें।
a) A: Zoospores of chlamydomonas, B: Conidia of b) A: Zoospores of chlamydomonas, B: Conidia of

penicillium, C: Buds in hydra yeast, C: Buds in hydra
c) A: Conidia of penicillium, B: Zoospores of d) A: Zoospores of chlamydomonas, B: Ascospores of
chlamydomonas, C: Buds in hydra penicillium, C: Buds in hydra
44) In plants, the units of vegetative propagation are capable of giving rise to new offspring. These structures are
called
पौधों में, वनस्पति प्रसार की इकाइयां नई संतानों को जन्म देने में सक्षम हैं। इन संरचनाओं को कहा जाता है?
a) Gametes b) Spores
c) Propagules d) Rhizomes
45) What is Neelakurunji?

नीला कु रुं जी क्या है?
a) A plant that flowers in every 50 years b) An alga which is a source of Agar

c) The plant having the highest viable seeds d) It is a shrub that is found in the shola forests of the
Western Ghats in Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
46) Identify the events (A, B, D and E) in life of general reproduction -

जीवन में सामान्य प्रजनन की घटनाओं (ए, बी, डी और ई) की पहचान करें?
9
a) A - Gamete transfer, B - Gametogenesis, D - Zygote b) A - Gametogenesis, B - Gamete transfer, D - Zygote
formation, E - Embryogenesis formation, E - Embryogenesis
c) A - Gametgenesis, B - Zygote formation, D - Gamete d) A - Gametogenesis, B - Gamete transfer, D -
transfer, E - Embryogenesis Embryogenesis, E - Zygote formation
47) One of the plants using 'Foliar adventitious buds' as method for vegetative propagation is?
वर्धि प्रजनन की विधि के रूप में 'पर्ण कलियों' का उपयोग करने वाले पौधों में से एक है?
a) Banana b) Ginger
c) Bryophyllum d) Calocasia
48) A multicellular, filamentous alga exhibits a type of sexual life cycle in which the meiotic division occurs after
the formation of zygote. The adult filament of this alga has?
एक बहुकोशिकीय, फिलामेंटस शैवाल एक प्रकार का लैंगिक जीवन चक्र प्रदर्शि त करता है जिसमें जाइगोट बनने के बाद अर्धसूत्री विभाजन होता
है। इस शैवाल का वयस्क तंतु है?
a) Haploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia b) Diploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia
c) Diploid vegetative cells and haploid gametengia d) Haploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia
49) Birds in captivity (as in poultry farms) can be made to lay eggs throughout the year. In this case laying eggs
is?
पक्षी (मुर्गी फार्म में- पिं जरों में ) पुरे वर्ष अंडे देते हैं । इस प्रकार अंडे देना है?
a) Related to natural reproduction and a commercial b) Neither related to reproduction nor a commercial
exploitation for human welfare exploitation for human welfare
c) Not related to natural reproduction but a commercial d) Related to reproduction but not a commercial
exploitation for human welfare exploitation for human welfare.
50) Find out correct order of vegetative propagules of plants like Potato, Ginger, Agave, Bryophyllum and Water
Hyacinth?
आलू, अदरक, अगेव, ब्रायोफिलम और जलकुं भी जैसे पौधों के वर्धि प्रजनन के सही क्रम का पता लगाएं ?
a) Offset, bulbil, leaf bud, rhizome and eyes b) Leaf bud, bulbil, offset, rhizome and eyes
c) Eyes, rhizome, bulbil, leaf bud and offset d) Rhizome, bulbil, leaf bud, eyes and offset
51) Identify gametes (A, B and C) respectively -

क्रमशः युग्मक (ए, बी और सी) की पहचान करें?
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a) Heterogametes, isogametes, Homogametes b) Isogametes, homogametes, heterogametes
c) Homogametes, isogametes, heterogametes d) Homo / Isogametes, heterogametes, heterogametes
52) Embryo with 8-16 cell is called

8-16 कोशिका वाले भ्रूण को कहा जाता है
a) Blastomere b) Blastocyst
c) Morula d) Zygote
53) Foetus develops limbs by-

इस समय तक भ्रूण में भुजाओ का विकास हो जाता है-
a) First month b) First week

c) Second month d) Second week
54) Each testicular lobule contains

प्रत्येक वृषण खंड(lobule) में होते है
a) 250 Compartment b) 25 Sertoli and male germ cell

c) 1-3 Seminiferous tubule d) 250 Seminiferous tubule
55) The very first hormone which is primarily responsible for spermatogenesis at the age of puberty
सबसे पहला हार्मोन जो मुख्य रूप से यौवनावस्था में शुक्राणुजनन के लिए उत्तरदायी है
a) GnRh b) LH
c) FSH d) Estrogen
56) Which cells secrete testicular hormones called androgen

कौन सी कोशिकाएँ , एं ड्रोजन नामक वृषण हार्मोन का स्राव करती है
a) Spermatogonia b) Sertoli cell

c) Interstitial cell d) None
57) Which of the following hormone act on Sertoli cell and stimulates secretion of some factor which help in
process of spermiogenesis
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निम्नलिखित हार्मोन में से कौन सर्टोली कोशिका पर कार्य करता है और कु छ कारक के स्राव को प्रेरित करता है जो स्पेर्मि ओजेनेसिस की प्रक्रिया में
सहायता करता है।
a) GnRh b) LH
c) FSH d) All of the above
58) The given diagram refers to TS of testis showing sectional view of a few seminiferous tubules. Ientify the
parts labelled (a) - (d) and select the correct option.
दिया गया आरेख वृषण के अनुप्रस्थ काट को संदर्भि त करता हैं जो कु छ शुक्रजनक नलिकाओं (Seminiferous tubules) के अनुभागीय दृश्य
को दर्शाता हैं। लेबल किए गए भागों (a) - (d) को चिह्नित करें और सही विकल्प का चयन करें।
a) a-Sertoli cells, b-Spermatozoa, c-Interstitial cells, d- b) a-Sertoli cells, b-Secondary spermatocyte, c-

Sperms Interstitial cells, d-Sperms
c) a-Interstitial cells, b-Spermatogonia, c-Sertoli cells, d- d) a-Sertoli cells, b-Spermatogonia, c-Leydig cell, d-
Sperms Sperms
59) Match the following with correct combination

सही संयोजन के साथ निम्नलिखित का मिलान करें?
a) A = 5, B = 2, C = 4, D = 1, E = 3 b) A = 1, B = 3, C = 2, D = 5, E = 4
c) A = 3, B = 2, C = 5, D = 4, E = 1 d) A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4, E = 5
60) Trace a sperm cell journey from the structure where it is produced to fertilization of the egg?
1. Seminiferous tubules
2. Vas deferens
3. Uterus
4. Fallopian tube
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5. Vagina
6. Epididymis
7. Urethra
एक शुक्राणु कोशिका के बनने से लेकर अंड के निषेचन के यात्रा मार्ग को चिन्हित करे ।
1. सेमीनीफे रस नलिकाएं
2. वास डिफरेंस
3. गर्भाशय
4. फै लोपियन ट्यूब
5. योनि
6. एपिडीडिमिस
7. यूरेथ्रा
a) 6, 1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 4 b) 1, 6, 2, 7, 5, 3, 4
c) 1, 6, 2, 7, 5, 4, 3 d) 1, 2, 6, 7, 5, 3, 4
61) Given is the stage of a growing embryo and different regions of the fallopian tube marked 1, 2, 3, 4 Where do
you think the given stage of embryo will be seen in the fallopian tube
गए आरेख में बढ़ते भ्रूण का चरण और फै लोपियन ट्यूब के विभिन्न क्षेत्रों को 1, 2, 3, 4 में चिह्नित किया गया है, फे लोपियन ट्यूब में भ्रूण के दिए
गए चरण को कहाँ देखा जा सकता है?
a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) 1
62) Body of embryo is formed from?

भ्रूण का शरीर इससे बनता है?
a) Trophoblast b) Inner cell mass

c) Outer cell mass d) Trophoectoderm.
63) Choose the correct group of labellings

लेबलिं ग का सही समूह चुनें?
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a) I - Trophoblast, II - Archenteron, III - Micromeres b) I - Trophoblasts, II - Blastocoel, III - Megameres
c) I - Trophoblast, II - Archenteron, III - Inner mass cells d) I - Trophoblasts, II - Blastocoel, III - Inner mass cells.
64) Spermatogenesis occurs in?

शुक्राणुजनन इसमें होता है?
a) A solid mass of cells surrounded by the matrix b) Islets of germ cells present in the connective tissue
matrix
c) A tubular structure having dividing and nutritive cells d) Interstitial space among testicular lobules
at the periphery of the tubule
65) Eggs produced in a year by an ovary of a nonpregnant woman is?

अगर्भवती महिला के एक अंडाशय द्वारा एक वर्ष में उत्पादित अंड होते हैं?
a) 12 b) 6
c) 24 d) 48
66) Antrum is cavity of?

एं ट्रम इसकी गुहा है?
a) Ovary b) Graafian follicle

c) Blastula d) Gastrula
67) What would happen if vasa deferentia of man are cut?

यदि मनुष्य के वास डिफे रेंसिया को काट दिया जाए तो क्या होगा?
a) Sperms are non-nucleate b) Spermatogenesis does not occur

c) Semen is without sperms d) Sperms are nonmotile.
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68) Enzyme hyaluronidase is synthesized in?
एं जाइम हाइलोरोनिडेस इसमें संश्लेषित किया जाता है?
a) Head of sperm b) Golgi bodies of developing acrosome

c) Lysosome of mature acrosome d) Tail of sperm
69) Blastopore is
ब्लास्टोपोर है
a) Opening of neural tube b) Opening of gastrocoel/archenteron

c) Future anterior end of embryo d) Found in blastula
70) Chorionic gonadotropin is secreted by?

कोरियोनिक गोनाडोट्रोपिन इसके द्वारा स्रावित होता है?
a) Pituitary b) Ovary
c) Placenta d) Uterus.
71) Relaxin is produced by?

रिलैक्सिन इसके द्वारा निर्मि त होता है?
a) Ovary b) Testis
c) Adrenal d) Pituitary gland.
72) Cells of Rauber' are

रॉबेर के सेल' ________ हैं
a) Inner cell mass of blastocoel b) Secretory cells of endometrium

c) Trophoblast cells in contact with uterine wall d) Trophoblast cells in contact with inner cell mass of
blastocyst.
73) Semen contains fluid from many parts of the secretory tract, is alkaline to help neutralize the acidic vagina,
contains about 20% morphologically abnormal sperm, and about 25% immotile sperm. Which of the following
describes semen that contains sperm with poor motility?
वीर्य में स्रावी पथ के कई हिस्सों से तरल पदार्थ होता है, अम्लीय योनि को बेअसर करने में मदद करने के लिए यह क्षारीय होता है, इसमें लगभग
20% मॉर्फोलॉजिकल रूप से असामान्य शुक्राणु होते हैं, और लगभग 25% अपरिपक्व शुक्राणु होते हैं। निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा उस वीर्य का
वर्णन करता है जिसमें खराब गतिशीलता के साथ शुक्राणु होते हैं?
a) Azoospermia b) Oligospermia
c) Asthenozoospermia d) Teratozoospermia
74) ____________ is called anti-ovulator hormone.

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____________ को एं टी-ओव्यूलेटर हार्मोन कहा जाता है?
a) LH b) ICSH
c) Progesterone d) FSH
75) A 25 years old female goes to doctor. She ask doctor that after 4 days there is due date of her menses and
she want to postpone bleeding for some days as she will be engaged in some official work during those days.
Which hormone will the doctor advise her to take?
25 साल की महिला डॉक्टर के पास जाती है। वह डॉक्टर से पूछती है कि 4 दिनों के बाद उसके मासिक धर्म की नियत तारीख है और वह कु छ
दिनों के लिए रक्तस्राव को स्थगित करना चाहती है क्योंकि वह उन दिनों के दौरान किसी आधिकारिक कार्य में व्यस्त होगी। डॉक्टर उसे किस
हार्मोन की सलाह देंगे?
a) FSH and LH b) LH and progesterone

c) Progesterone only d) LH only
76) Corona radiata is derived from?

कोरोना रेडियोटा इससे व्युत्पन है?
a) Inner cell mass b) Cumulus ovaricus

c) Theca interna d) Theca externa.
77) In given T. S. of human ovary. Identify A to F.

मानव अंडाशय के दिए गए अनुप्रस्थ काट में A से F को पहचानें।
a) A - Secondary follicle, B - Tertiary follicle with antrum, b) A - Graafian follicle, B - Tertiary follicle with antrum, C
C - Ovum, D - Corpus luteum, E - Primary follicle, F - - Ovum, D - Corpus spongiosum, E - Primary follicle, F -
Corpus albicans Corpus albicans
c) A - Graafian follicle, B - Tertiary follicle with antrum, C d) A - Graafian follicle, B - Tertiary follicle with antrum, C
- Ovum, D - Corpus albicans, E - Primary follicle, F - - Ovum, D - Corpus luteum, E - Primary follicle, F -
Corpus luteum Corpus albicans
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78) The accompanying diagram is a male reproductive system.
I. D - produces sperms but not testosterone.
II. D - produces testosterone but not sperms.
III. D - produces sperms and testosterone.
IV. A - secretes a liquid rich in fructose and prostaglandins.

दिया गया आरेख एक पुरुष प्रजनन प्रणाली है।
I. D - शुक्राणु पैदा करता है लेकिन टेस्टोस्टेरोन नहीं।
II. D - टेस्टोस्टेरोन पैदा करता है लेकिन शुक्राणु नहीं।
III. D - शुक्राणु और टेस्टोस्टेरोन का उत्पादन करता है।
IV. A - फ्रु क्टोज और प्रोस्टाग्लैंडिं स से समृद्ध तरल को मुक्त करता है।
a) I and II b) III and IV

c) All d) None
79) The endometrium undergoes cyclical changes during the __________ cycle?
__________ चक्र के दौरान एं डोमेट्रियम चक्रीय परिवर्तन से गुजरता है।
a) Menstrual b) spermatogenesis
c) Thermal d) None of these
80) Corpus spongiosum is part of

कॉर्पस स्पोंजियोसम इसका हिस्सा है?
a) Ovary b) Testis
c) Uterus d) Male copulatory organ
81) An object moving with a speed of 6.25 m / s. is decelerated at a rate given by = - 2.5 where v is the
instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object, at come to rest, would be
6.25 m / s की गति से चलती हुई वस्तु की दर = - 2.5 से मंदित होती है जहाँ पर v तात्क्षणिक वेग है। वस्तु द्वारा विरामावस्था में आने
के लिए लिया गया समय होगा?
a) 1s b) 2s
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c) 4s d) 8s
82) The velocity of a particle moving along the positive x-axis varies as where p is the positive constant.
If at t = 0, x = 0 then the velocity of the particle after time 't' will be
धनात्मक x - अक्ष के अनुदिश गतिमान एक कण का वेग के रूप में परिवर्ति त होता है, जहाँ p एक धनात्मक स्थिरांक है। यदि t = 0,
पर x = 0 पर है तो समय बाद कण का वेग होगा
a) b)
c) d)
83) The distance through which a body falls in the nth second is h. The distance through which it falls in the next
second is
वह दू री जिस के माध्यम से एक काय n वें सेकं ड में गिरता है h है। वह दू री जिस में यह अगले सेकं ड में गिरता है, होगी?
a) h b) h + g
c) h – g d) h + g
84) A body covers 26, 28, 30, 32 meters in 10th, 11th, 12th and 13th seconds respectively. The body starts
एक काय क्रमशः 10 वें, 11 वें, 12 वें और 13 वें सेकं ड में 26, 28, 30, 32 मीटर की दू री तय करता है। काय कहाँ से शुरू होता है?
a) From rest and moves with uniform velocity b) From rest and moves with uniform acceleration
c) With an initial velocity and moves with uniform d) With an initial velocity and moves with uniform
acceleration velocity
85) A particle experience constant acceleration for 20 seconds after starting from rest. If it travels a distance s1 in
the first 10 seconds and distance s2 in the next 10 seconds, then
एक कण विरामावस्था से शुरू करने के बाद 20 सेकं ड के लिए नियत त्वरण का अनुभव करता है। यदि यह पहले 10 सेकं ड में दू री s1 और अगले
10 सेकं ड में s2 की दू री तय करता है, तो
a) s2 = s1 b) s2 = 2s1
c) s2 = 3s1 d) s2 = 4 s1
86) A particle of unit mass undergoes one dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to v(x) = bx-
2n , Where b and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as the
function of x, is given by:
इकाई द्रव्यमान का एक कण एक आयामी गति से कु छ इस प्रकार गुजरता है कि इसका वेग v(x) = bx-2n के अनुसार परिवर्ति त होता है जहाँ b
और n स्थिरांक हैं और x कण की स्थिति है। एक्स के फलन के रूप में कण का त्वरण,.................. द्वारा जायेगा
a) -2nb2x-4n - 1 b) -2nb2x-2n + 1
c) -2nb2e-4n + 1 d) -2nb2x-2n - 1
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87) Speed of two identical cars are u and 4u at some instant. The ratio of the respective distances in which the
two cars are stopped from that instant is
किसी समय पर दो एक समान कारों की गति u और 4u हैं। संबंधित दू री का अनुपात जिसमें दोनों कारों को रोक दिया जाता है
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 4
c) 1 : 8 d) 1 : 16
88) A particle moves along X axis as x = 4(t-2) + a(t-2)2 Which of the following is true if a is constant and its value
is 1?
एक कण एक्स अक्ष के अनुदिश निम्न प्रकार चलता है x = 4(t-2) + a(t-2)2 निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सत्य है यदि a कोई स्थिरांक है
और इसका मान 1 है
a) The initial velocity of the particle is 4

b) The acceleration of the particle is 2
कण का प्रारंभिक वेग 4 है कण का त्वरण 2 है

c) The particle is at origin at t = 0
d) none of these
कण t = 0 पर मूल बिं दु पर है
89) Assume that a car is able to stop with retardation of 5 m/s2. Driver of the car sees an emergency situation and
applies the breaks and it took him 0.6 second to apply breaks. If car is moving with speed of 60 km per hour, then
what will be the distance covered by the car before stopping?
मान लें कि एक कार 5 m/s2 की मंदता के साथ रुकने में सक्षम है। कार का ड्राइवर एक आपातकालीन स्थिति देखता है और ब्रेक लगाता है और
ब्रेक लगाने के लिए उसे 0.6 सेकं ड का समय लगा। यदि कार 60 किमी प्रति घंटे की गति से आगे बढ़ रही है, तो रुकने से पहले कार द्वारा तय की
गई दू री क्या होगी?
a) 27 m b) 28 m
c) 37 m d) 38 m
90) A particle has initial velocity (2 + 3 ) and acceleration (0.3 + 0.2 ). The magnitude of velocity after 10
seconds will be:
एक कण का प्रारंभिक वेग (2 + 3 ) और त्वरण (0.3 + 0.2 ) है। 10 सेकं ड के बाद वेग का परिमाण होगा:
a) 9 units b) 5 units
c) 5 units d) 9 units
91) A particle is moving such that its position coordinate (x, y) are (2m, 3m) at time t = 0,
(6m, 7m) at time t = 2s and
(13m, 14) at time t = 5s.
Average velocity vector ( ) from t = 0 to t = 5s is:

एक कण इस तरह चल रहा है कि उसकी स्थिति निर्देशांक (x, y) कु छ इस प्रकार से हैं समय t = 0 पर (2m, 3m)
समय t = 2s पर (6m, 7m) और
समय t = 5s पर (13m, 14m)
औसत वेग सदिश ( ) t = 0 से t = 5 s तक है:
a) (13î + 14ĵ) b) (î + ĵ)
c) 2(î + ĵ) d) (î + ĵ)
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92) Find the ratio of distance to displacement for a particle which is moving on a circle whose radius is R and
completes 3.5 revolutions.
उस कण के दू री एवं विस्थापन का अनुपात ज्ञात कीजिए जो एक वृत्त पर जा रहा है जिसका त्रिज्या R है और 3.5 चक्करों को पूरा करता है
a) b)
c) d) 3
93) There is a room of dimensions 12 m length, 8 m height and 6 m width. A fan is situated at the centre of the
roof which is 1 m long. A fly starts from one opposite corner of the room and sits exactly at the centre of the fan.
The displacement of this fly with respect to that corner will be?
12 मी लंबाई, 8 मीटर ऊं चाई और 6 मीटर चौड़ाई का एक कमरा है। एक पंखा छत के कें द्र में स्थित है जो 1 मीटर लंबा है। कमरे के एक विपरीत
कोने से एक मक्खी शुरू होती है और पंखे के ठीक कें द्र में बैठती है। उस कोने के संबंध में इस मक्खी का विस्थापन होगा?
a) m b) 10 m
c) m d) m
94) A person moves 30 meter north and then 20 meter towards east and finally 30√2 meter in south west
direction. The final position of the person from the origin will be?
एक व्यक्ति 30 मीटर उत्तर दिशा में फिर 20 मीटर पूर्व दिशा में तथा अंत में 30√2 दक्षिण पश्चिम दिशा में चलता है तो इस व्यक्ति की अंतिम
स्थिति क्या होगी?
a) 10 m east b) 10 m west
c) 10 m south-west d) None of these
95) A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a building of height 200m. It strikes the ground at the point 200 m
away from the foot of the building. The displacement of the ball will be (assuming that it traces a circular path).
ऊं चाई 200 मीटर की इमारत के ऊपर से एक गेंद को क्षैतिज रूप से फें का जाता है। यह इमारत के पाये से 200 मीटर की दू री पर जमीन पर
गिरती है। गेंद का विस्थापन होगा (यह मानते हुए कि यह एक वृत्ताकार पथ पर चलती है)।
a) 314 m b) 200 m
c) 628 m d) none of these
96) A ball is dropped vertically from a height ‘d’ above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up vertically to
a height d/2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air resistance, its velocity ‘v’ varies with height h above the
ground is
एक गेंद जमीन से 'd’ ऊँ चाई से लंबवत गिरायी जाती है। यह जमीन से टकराता है और ऊं चाई d/2 तक लंबवत उछलता है। बाद की गति और वायु
प्रतिरोध की उपेक्षा करते हुए, इसका वेग 'v' जमीन के ऊपर ऊं चाई h के साथ किस प्रकार से परिवर्ति त होगा
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a) 1.0 b) 2.0
c) 3.0 d) 4.0
97) A bike starts from rest, accelerates uniformly with 1 m/s2 acceleration on a straight road for 10 s. then moves
with uniform velocity. The distance covered by the bike in nth second vs n graph will be?
एक बाइक विरामावस्था से शुरू होती है, 10s के लिए एक सीधी सड़क पर 1 मी/एस2 त्वरण के साथ समान रूप से चलती है। फिर वह समान
वेग से चलती है। n वें सेकं ड में तय की गयी दू री बनाम n ग्राफ होगा?
a) Circle b) Parabola
c) Straight line d) Ellipse
98) A graph of acceleration versus time of a particle starting from rest at t = 0 is as shown in Fig. The speed of the
particle at t = 14 second is
t = 0 पर विरामावस्था से शुरू होने वाले एक कण के त्वरण समय आरेख, चित्र में दिखाया गया है। t = 14 सेकं ड पर कण की चाल है
a) 2 ms-1 b) 34 ms-1
c) 20 ms-1 d) 42 ms-1
99) A car is moving on a straight road. The velocity of the car varies with time as shown in the figure. Initially (at t
= 0), the car was at x = 0, where, x is the position of the car at any time ‘t’.Averages speed from t = 0 to t = 70 s
will be
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एक कार सीधी सड़क पर चल रही है। कार का वेग समय के साथ बदलता रहता है जैसा कि चित्र में दिखाया गया है। प्रारंभ में (t = 0 पर), कार x
= 0 पर थी, जहाँ, x किसी भी समय कार की स्थिति है। t = 0 से t = 70 सेकं ड में औसत चाल होगी
a) m/s b) m/s
c) m/s d) Zero
100) The position time (x - t) graph for two children A and B returning from their school to their homes P and Q
respectively are shown in the given figure. Choose the correct statement.
दो बच्चों A और B के लिए अपने स्कू ल से लौटते हुए के लिए स्थिति समय (x-t) ग्राफ दिया गया है जहां पर P और Q क्रमशः उनके घर हैं, जैसा
कि चित्र में दिखाया गया है। सही कथन चुनें।
a) B lives closer to school than A. b) B starts earlier its journey

c) B walks faster than A d) B reaches home early than A
101) The wrong statement about electric lines of force is

विद्युत् बल रेखाओं के बारे में असत्य कथन है
22
a) These originate from positive charge and end on b) They do not intesect each other at a point (ये एक दू सरे
negative charge (ये धनावेश से प्रारम्भ होकर ऋणावेश पर समाप्त को नहीं काटती है)
होती है)
c) They have the same form for a point charge and a d) They have physical existance (इनका भौतिक अस्तित्व होता
sphere (बिं दु आवेश एवं गोले के लिए इनकी आकृ ति समान होती है) है)
102) A positively charged particle moving along x - axis with a certain velocity enters a uniform electric field
directed along positive y - axis. Its
किसी निश्चित वेग से x अक्ष के अनुदिश गतिमान धनावेश धनात्मक y अक्ष की ओर दिष्ट समरूप विद्युत् क्षेत्र में प्रवेश करता है। तो इसका
a) Vertical velocity changes but horizontal velocity b) Horizontal velocity changes but vertical velocity
remains constant (ऊर्ध्वाधर वेग परिवर्ति त होगा किन्तु क्षैतिज वेग remains constant (ऊर्ध्वाधर वेग समान रहेगा किन्तु क्षैतिज वेग
समान रहेगा) परिवर्ति त होगा)
c) Both vertical and horizontal velocity change (ऊर्ध्वाधर d) Neither vertical nor horizontal velocity changes (न तो
तथा क्षैतिज वेग दोनों परिवर्ति त होंगें) ऊर्ध्वाधर वेग परिवर्ति त होगा न ही क्षैतिज वेग परिवर्ति त होगा)
103) Two small spheres each carrying a charge q are placed r meter apart. If one of the spheres is taken around
the other one in a circular path of radius r, the work done will be equal to
दो छोटे गोले परस्पर r दू री पर रखे हुए हैं। प्रत्येक पर q वैद्युत आवेश है। यदि एक गोले को दू सरे गोले के चारों ओर r त्रिज्या के वृत्तीय पथ में
घुमाया जाये तो संपन्न कार्य होगा
a) Force between them r b) Force between them 2r

c) Force between them 2 r d) Zero
104) A charge Q is fixed at a distance d in front of an infinite metal plate. The lines of force are represented by
किसी अनन्त समतल आवेशित चादर के सामने d दू री पर एक आवेश +Q स्थित है l विद्युत् बल रेखाओं का सही चित्रण है
a) a b) b
c) c d) d
23
105) Two charges, each equal to q, are kept at x = -a and x = a on the x-axis. A particle of mass m and charge q0
= - is placed at the origin. If charge q0 is given a small displacement y(y < < a) along the y - axis, the net force
acting on the particle is proportional to
q मान के बराबर दो आवेशों को x = -a और x = +a पर x - अक्ष पर रखा जाता है। द्रव्यमान m और आवेश q0 = का एक कण मूल बिं दु पर
रखा गया है। यदि चार्ज q0 को y - अक्ष के साथ एक छोटा विस्थापन y (y < < a) दिया जाता है, तो कण पर कार्यरत बल ...... के आनुपातिक
होता है
a) y b) y2
c) d)
106) Consider a neutral conducting sphere. A positive point charge is placed outside the sphere. The net charge
on the sphere is then
एक उदासीन चालक गोले पर विचार करें। एक धनात्मक बिं दु आवेश को गोले के बाहर रखा जाता है। गोले पर कु ल आवेश होगा
a) Negative and distributed uniformly over the surface b) Negative and appears only at the point on the sphere
of the sphere closest to the point charge
c) Negative and distributed non-uniformly over the d) zero
entire surface of the sphere
107) The number of electrons to be put on a spherical conductor of radius 0.1 meter to produce an electric field of
0.036N/C just above its surface is
0.1 मीटर त्रिज्या के गोलाकार चालक की सतह पर 0.036N/C का क्षेत्र उत्पन्न करने के लिए आवश्यक इलेक्ट्रॉनों की संख्या होगी?
a) 2.7 x 105 b) 2.6 x 105

c) 2.5 x 105 d) 2.4 x 105
108) An electric dipole of moment ‘p’ is placed in an electric field of intensity ‘E’. The dipole acquires a position
such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle θ with the direction of electric field. Assuming that the potential
energy of the dipole to be zero when θ = 90֯ , then the ratio of the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will
be.
एक द्विध्रुव को जिसका द्विध्रुवाघूर्ण ’p ' है, को एक विद्युत द्विध्रुव तीव्रता 'E' में रखा गया है। द्विध्रुव एक ऐसी स्थिति प्राप्त करता है कि द्विध्रुव का
अक्ष विद्युत क्षेत्र की दिशा के साथ θ कोण बनाता है। यह मानते हुए कि द्विध्रुवीय की स्थितिज ऊर्जा कोण θ = 90 होने पर शून्य होती है | तब
बलाघूर्ण एवं स्थितिज ऊर्जा का अनुपात होगा।
a) tan θ b) cot θ
c) - tanθ d) -cot θ
109) Two identical charges of 10 C each, are placed at a distance of 10 cm from each other are fixed. Which of
the following charge will be in equilibrium when it is placed at the midpoint of the line joining these charges.
10 C के दो समान चार्ज, एक दू सरे से 10 सेमी की दू री पर लगाए जाते हैं। निम्न में से कौन सा चार्ज संतुलन में होगा, जब इसे इन आवेशों को
मिलाने वाली रेखा के मध्य बिं दु पर रखा जाता है।
a) 1 C b) 5 C
c) 10 C d) All of these
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110) A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge + Q. The electric field at the centre O of the ring due to
the charge on the part AKB of the ring is E. The electric filed at the centre due to the charge on the part ACDB of
the ring is
त्रिज्या R की एक पतली चालक वलय को आवेश +Q दिया जाता है। वलय के AKB हिस्से पर आवेश के कारण वलय के कें द्र O पर विद्युत क्षेत्र
E है। वलय के हिस्से ACDB के कारण कें द्र में विद्युत क्षेत्र की तीव्रता ....................... है।
a) 2E along KO b) E along OK
c) E along KO d) 3E along OK
111) An electric dipole of moment p is placed in the position of stable equilibrium in uniform electric field of
intensity E. It is rotated through an angle θ from the initial position. The potential energy of electric dipole in the
final position is
p दिधुव आघूर्ण का एक वैघृत दिधुव एक समान वैघृत क्षेत्र E में सन्तुलन की स्थिति है | प्रारम्मिक स्थिति से इसे θ कोण से घुमाया गया है, तो
अन्तिम स्थिति में दिधुव की स्थितिज ऊर्जा होगी
a) pEcosθ b) pEsinθ
c) pE(1 – cosθ) d) - pEcosθ
112) Four charges +Q, -Q, +Q and –Q are placed at the corners of a square of side ‘a’ taken in order. At the
centre of the square electric field
चार शुल्क +Q , -Q, + Q और -Q को क्रम में लेकर एक वर्ग के कोनों पर रखा जाता है। वर्ग के कें द्र में विद्युत क्षेत्र
a) Is zero b) Nonzero
c) upwards d) downwards
113) A charge q1 exerts some force F on charge q2 when these charges are placed at a distance r from each
other. Let if charge q3 is brought near to these charges such that they form an equilateral triangle. New force
exerted by charge q1 on q2 will
जब किसी आवेश q1 को आवेश q2 से कु छ दू री r पर रखा जाता है तो यह q1, q2पर बल F लगाता है | यदि किसी तीसरे आवेश q3 को इस
प्रकार से इनके नजदीक लाया जाये की ये तीनों मिलकर एक समबाहु त्रिभुज की रचना करें तो q1 द्वारा q2 पर आरोपित बल होगा?
a) Increases b) Decreases 25
c) Remains unchanged. d) Increases if all charges are of same sign.
114) A charge q is placed at the center of the open end of cylinderical vessel. The flux of the electric field through
the surface of the vessel is
एक आवेश q बेलनाकार पात्र के मुंह के कें द्र पर रखा है। इस पात्र की सतह से गुजरने वाला फ्लक्स होगा
a) zero b)
c) d)
115) A conducting loop has a charge of q = 4 μC. The thickness of the loop is negligible and its radius is r = 6 cm.
What is the electric field (E) on the axis of symmetry of the loop at a distance of X = 8 cm from the centre of the
loop?
एक चालक लूप के पास q = 4 μC का आवेश है l लूप को मोटाई नगण्य है और इसकी त्रिज्या r = 6 cm है l इस लूप के सममित अक्ष पर लूप
के कें द्र से x = 8 cm की दू री पर विद्युत् क्षेत्र की तीव्रता का मान होगा
a) 288 X 102 Vm-1 b) 288 X 103 Vm-1

c) 288 X 104 Vm-1 d) 288 X 105 Vm-1
116) In a certain charge distribution, all points having zero potential can be joined by a circle S. Points inside S
have positive potential and points outside S have negative potential. A positive charge, which is free to move, is
placed inside S.
एक निश्चित आवेश वितरण में सभी शून्य विभव वाले बिं दुओं को एक वृत्त के द्वारा जोड़ा जाता है। S के अंदर के सभी बिं दु धनात्मक विभव पर
और S के बाहर के सभी बिं दु ऋणात्मक विभव पर हैं। एक धनात्मक आवेश जो कि चलने के लिए स्वतंत्र हैं, S के अंदर रखा जाता है
a) It will remain in equilibrium b) It can move inside S, but it cannot cross S

c) It must cross S at some time d) It may move, but will ultimately return to its starting
point.
117) Value of potential at a point due to a point charge is

एक बिं दु आवेश के कारण किसी बिं दु पर विद्युत् विभव का मान
a) Inversely proportional to square of the distance b) Directly proportional to square of the distance
c) Inversely proportional to the distance d) Directly proportional to the distance
118) Electric potential at an equatorial point of a small dipole with dipole moment P(r, distance from the dipole) is
द्विध्रुव आघूर्ण P के एक लघु द्विध्रुव से r दू री पर निरक्षीय स्थिति में विद्युत् विभव है
a) zero b)
c) d)
119) A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed ‘v’. It
approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed 2v, the closest distances of 26
approach would be
एक आवेशित कण q को गति 'v' से एक अन्य आवेशित कण Q की प्रक्षेपित कर दिया जाता है, जो कि एक स्थान पर नियत है। यह Q से
निकटतम दू री r तक पहुंचता है और फिर लौटता है। यदि q को गति 2v दी जाती है, तो निकटतम दू री होगी
a) r / 2 b) r / 4
c) 2r d) 4r
120) An electron of mass m and charge e is accelerated form rest through a potential differnece V in vaccum. The
final speed of the electron will be
एक इलेक्ट्रॉन जिसका द्रव्यमान m तथा आवेश e है को निर्वात में विभवांतर V द्वारा विरामावस्था से त्वरित किया जाता है। इलेक्ट्रॉन की अंतिम
चाल होगी
a) b)
c) d)
121) Subsidiary quantum number specifies.

सब्सिडरी (द्विगंशी) क़्वांजाम संख्या दर्शाता हैं
a) Size of orbital b) Shape of orbital

c) Orientations of orbital d) Nuclear stability
122) The energy of an electron of 2py orbital is

2py कक्षक में मौजूद इलेक्ट्रॉन की ऊर्जा होगी
a) Greater than 2px orbital b) Less than 2pz orbital

c) Same as that of 2px and 2pz orbitals d) Equals to 2s orbital
123) Electronic configuration of four elements are given below. Which of the corresponding element would be
most paramagnetic?
चार तत्व के इलक्ट्रोनिक विन्यास नीचे दी गयी है I तो निम्न में से कौनसा तत्व अनुचंबकीय होगा
a) 1s22s22p6 b) 1s22s22p1
c) 1s22s22p5 d) 1s22s22p4
124) Rutherford α-particles experiment proved that atom has

रदरफोर्ड α- कण प्रयोग ने साबित किया कि परमाणु में ........होता है
a) Electron b) Nucleus
c) Neutron d) Orbital
27
125) A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be (h = 6.6 × 10-34Js):
0.66 kg की एक गेंद 100 m/s की गति से चल रही हैं | इससे सम्बंधित तरंगदैधर्य होगी (h = 6.6 × 10-34Js):
a) 1.0 × 10- 32 m b) 6.6 × 10- 32 m

c) 6.6 ×10- 34 m d) 1.0 × 10-35 m
126) Energy of electron of hydrogen atom in second Bohr orbit is

हाइड्रोजन परमाणु की दितियक बोहर कक्षा के इलेक्ट्रॉन की ऊर्जा हैं
a) – 5.44 ×10-19 J b) – 5.44 ×10-19 kJ

c) – 5.44 ×10-19 cal d) – 5.44 × 10-16 cal
127) The de Broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 200 g and moving at a speed of 5 metres / hour, is
of the order
(h = 6.625 × 10-34 J s)

डी ब्रोगली तरंग दैर्ध्य 200 ग्राम की एक गेंद के साथ जुड़ा हुआ है और 5 मीटर / घंटा की गति से आगे बढ़ रहा है, तो गेंद की डी ब्रोगली तरंगदैर्ध्य
क्या होगी
(h = 6.625 × 10-34 J s)
a) 10-15 m b) 10-20 m
c) 10-25 m d) 10-30 m
128) The 71st electron of an element X with an atomic number of 71 enters into the orbital
तत्व X का 71st इलेक्ट्रॉन परमाणु संख्या के साथ किस कक्षा में प्रवेश करता है
a) 4f b) 6p
c) 6s d) 5d
129) Gradual addition of electronic shells in the noble gases causes a decrease in their
अक्रिय गैस में इलेक्ट्रॉनिक कक्ष के संयोग से उसके .....में कमी आती है
a) Ionisation energy b) Atomic radius

c) Boiling point d) density
130) The size of isoelectronic species F-, Ne and Na+ is affected by

समइलेक्ट्रॉनिक प्रजाति F-, Ne और Na+ के आकर ___ से प्रभावित होता है
a) Nuclear charge (Z) (नाभिकीय आवेश (Z)) b) Valence principal quantum no. (n) (संयोजकता मुख्य
क्वांटम संख्या (n))
c) Electron-Electron interaction in the outer orbitals. d) None of the factors because their size is same (कोई
(बाह्यतम कक्षक में इलेक्ट्रॉन-इलेक्ट्रॉन परस्पर क्रिया) भी कारक नहीं क्योंकि उनके आकार समान है)
28
131) Which pair is different from the others?
निम्न में से कौनसा युग्मन दू सरे से अलग है
a) Li - Mg b) B - Si
c) Be - Al d) Li - Na
132) An element of atomic number 29 belongs to

परमाणु क्रमांक 29 वाला तत्व होगा
a) s-block b) p-block
c) d-block d) f-block
133) The electronic configuration of halogen is

हलोजन का इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास है
a) ns2np6 b) ns2np3
c) ns2np5 d) ns2
134) Which species has the maximum ionic radius

किस प्रजाति में अधिकतम आयनिक त्रिज्या होती है
a) Na+ b) O2-
c) F- d) Mg2+
135) The crystal lattice of ice is mostly formed by

बर्फ में क्रिस्टलीय जालक ....द्वारा निर्माण होता है
a) Ionic forces b) Covalent bond

c) Intramolecular H-bonds d) Covalent as well as H-bonds
136) Head on overlapping result in

सिरे से अतिव्यापन होने पर .....बनता है
a) Sigma bond b) pi-bond

c) delta-bond d) None of the above
137) Which of these hybridisation can form outer d orbital complexes

निम्न में से कौनसा संकरण बाहरी d कक्षक वाले संकु ल में शामिल है
a) dsp2 b) sp3d2
29
c) d2sp3 d) dsp3
138) Which of the following has highest bond energy

निम्न में से किसका बंध ऊर्जा उच्चतम है
a) F-F b) N-N
c) C-C d) O-O
139) Hybridization involves

संकरण शामिल होना यानि
a) Addition of an electron pair b) Mixing up of atomic orbitals

c) Removal of an electron d) Separation of orbitals
140) Hybridization of central atom in NF3 is

NF3 में कें द्रीय परमाणु का संकरण क्या होगा?
a) sp3 b) sp
c) sp2 d) dsp2
141) In a monoclinic unit cell, what is the relation of sides and angles respectively?
एक मोनोक्लिनिक एकक कोष्ठिका में क्रमशः भुजाओं और कोणों का क्या संबंध होता है?
a) a = b c and b) a b c and

c) a b c and d) a b c and
142) If Z is the number of atoms in the unit cell that represents the closest packing sequence .......ABCABC.....,
What will be the number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell?
यदि Z इकाई सेल में परमाणुओं की संख्या है जो निकटतम पैकिं ग अनुक्रम का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है .......ABCABC......, यूनिट सेल में
टेट्राहेड्रल रिक्तियों की संख्या क्या होगी?
a) Z b) 2Z
c) d)
143) In which of the following crystals, alternate tetrahedral voids are occupied?
निम्नलिखित में से किस क्रिस्टल में, वैकल्पिक चतुष्फलकीय रिक्तिकाएँ भरी हुई हैं?
a) NaCl b) ZnS
c) CaF2 d) Na2 O
30
144) A solid A+ B- has the B- ions arranged in FCC lattice points and the A+ ions occupy half of the tetrahedral
sites in the structure. What is the formula of solid?
एक ठोस A+ B- में B- आयन FCC जाली बिं दुओं में व्यवस्थित होते हैं और A+ आयन संरचना में टेट्राहेड्रल साइटों के आधे हिस्से पर कब्जा कर
लेते हैं। ठोस का सूत्र क्या होता है?
a) AB b) AB2
c) A2B d) A3B4
145) The consititutent particles of a solid have

एक ठोस के संघटक कणों में होता है
a) translatory motion only b) rotatory motion

c) vibratory motion only d) all the above types of motion
146) Nickel crystallizes in an fcc unit cell with a cell - edge length of 0.3524nm. calculate the radius of the nickel
atom
निकल के क्रिस्टल में fcc के इकाई सेल के कोर की लम्बाई 0.3524nm है तब Ni परमाणु की त्रिज्या की गणना कीजिये
a) 0.1624 nm b) 0.1246 nm
c) 0.2164 nm d) 0.1426 nm
147) Diamond is an example of

हीरा किस के एक उदाहरण है
a) Solid with hydrogen bonding (ठोस जिसमे हाइड्रोजन बंध है) b) Electrovalent solid (आयनिक ठोस)
c) Covalent solid (सहसंयोजक ठोस) d) Glass (काँच)
148) The edge length of sodium chloride unit cell is 564 pm. If the size of Cl- ion is 181 pm. The size of Na+ ion
will be
सोडियम क्लोराइड इकाई सेल की 564pm है। यदि Cl- आयन का आकार 181 pm है तो Na+ आयन का आकार होगा
a) 101 pm b) 181 pm
c) 410 pm d) 202 pm
149) Which one of the following is non-ideal solution

निम्न में से कौनसा अनादर्श विलयन है
a) Benzene+toluene b) n-hexane+n-heptane
c) Ethyl bromide + ethyl iodide d) Water + nitric acid
150) The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the elevation in boiling point to
31
मोलल उन्नयन स्थिरांक और क्वथनांक में उन्नयन का अनुपात है
a) Molarity b) Molality
c) Mole fraction of solute d) Mole fraction of solvent
151) Which one of the following statements is false?

निम्न में से कोसना कथन गलत है
a) The correct order of osmatic pressure for 0.01M b) Isotonic solutions are those solutions which have the
aqueous solution of each compound is BaCl2 > KCl > same osmatic pressure
CH3 COOH > sucrose
c) Raoult’s law state that the vapour pressure of a d) Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in
component over a solution is proportional to its mole different solvents will have the same freezing point
fraction in liquid state depression.
152) A solution of CH3COOH is 12%(w/V), its molarity will be

CH3COOH का विलयन 12% (w/V)है, तो विलयन की मोलरता होगी ......
a) 2.0 b) 1.66
c) 3.0 d) 1.0
153) The vapour pressure of pure benzene at 88℃ is 957 mm Hg and that of toluene at the same temperature is
379.5 mm Hg. Calculate the composition of benzene-toluene mixture boiling at 88℃ if the vapour pressure of the
mixture is 760 mmHg
88 ℃ पर शुद्ध बेंजीन का वाष्प दाब 957 mm Hg और उसी तापमान पर टॉलूइन का वाष्पदाब 379.5 mm Hg है। 88 ℃ पर उबलते बेंजीन-
टॉलूइन मिश्रण की घटको की गणना करें यदि मिश्रण का वाष्पदाब 760 mm Hg है
a) xbenzene=0.66; xtoluene=0.34 b) xbenzene=0.34; xtoluene=0.66

c) xbenzene=xtoluene=0.5 d) xbenzene=0.75; xtoluene=0.25
154) The freezing point of pure nitrobenzene is 278.8K. When 2.5 g of unknown substance is dissolved in 100 g
of nitrobenzene, the freezing point of solution is found to be 276.8K. If the freezing point depression constant of
nitrobenzene is 8 K kg/mol, what is the molar mass of unknown substance?
शुद्ध नाइट्रोबेंजीन का हिमांक 278.8K है। जब अज्ञात पदार्थ के 2.5 ग्राम को नाइट्रोबेंजीन के 100 ग्राम में घोला जाता है, तो विलयन का हिमांक
276.8K पाया जाता है। यदि नाइट्रोबेंजीन का हिमांक अवनमन स्थिरांक 8 K kg / mol है, तो अज्ञात पदार्थ का मोलर द्रव्यमान कितना है?
a) 200 g/mol b) 100 g/mol

c) 55 g/mol d) 129 g/mol
155) The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is _________
प्रबल इलेक्ट्रोलाइट बेरियम हाइड्रॉक्साइड के एक जलीय विलयन के लिए वैन हॉफ फै क्टर (i) है
a) 3.0 b) 0.0
c) 1.0 d) 2.0
32
156) Value of Henry’s Constant KH
हेनरी कॉन्स्टेंट KH का मान
a) Increases with increase in temperature b) Decreases with increases in temperature

c) Remain constant d) First increases then decreases
157) If a salt bridge is removed from the two half cells, the voltage
यदि दो आधे सेल, एक लवन पुल हटा दिया जाता है, तो विभव _____ होता है
a) drops to zero b) does not change

c) Increase gradually d) increases rapidly
158) The desired amount of charge for the obtaining one mole of Al from Al(3+)
Al(3+) से Al का एक मोल प्राप्त करने के लिए कितने आवेश की आवशकता है
a) 3×96500 C b) 96500 C
c) 96500/C d) 96500/2 C
159) Lesser the value of E° of metal

धातु के E° का मान कम होना यानि ....
a) More tendency to get reduced b) Better reductant

c) Better oxidising agent d) None of the above
160) The reaction that takes places in anode is

एनोड में होने वाली अभिक्रिया है...
a) Ionisation b) Reduction
c) Oxidation d) Hydrolysis
Answers
1) C.
Ernst mayr - 11th NCERT Page 2
2) A.
Evolution, 11th ncert page no 3

33
3) D.
Information science in analyzing the biological data
Basics of biology
4) D.
Melvin Ellis Calvin was an American biochemist known for discovering the Calvin cycle along with Andrew
Benson and James Bassham, for which he was awarded the 1961 Nobel Prize in Chemistry. He spent most of his
five-decade career at the University of California, Berkeley.
11th ncert page no 215 and basics of biology
5) B.
Measurement of living things and it's analytical processes is called biometry

Basics of biology
6) D.
In biology, homeostasis is the state of steady internal physical and chemical conditions maintained by living
systems.(the living world)
11th ncert page no 3
7) C.
Systematics - Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship
8) B.
Anatomy of seed plants
9) D.
Various energy exchanges in cell.
10) A.
Perception of events happening in the environment and conciousness,
11) D.
11th NCERT Page no. 4
12) A.
NCERT 11th Page no. - 5
Perhaps, the most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living organisms is this ability to sense their
surroundings or environment and respond to these environmental stimuli which could be physical, chemical or
biological. We sense our environment through our sense organs. Plants respond to external factors like light,
34
water, temperature, other organisms, pollutants, etc. All organisms, from the prokaryotes to the most complex
eukaryotes can sense and respond to environmental cues. Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal
breeders, both plants and animals. All organisms handle chemicals entering their bodies. All organisms therefore,
are ‘aware’ of their surroundings. Human being is the only organism who is aware of himself, i.e., has self-
consciousness. Consciousness therefore, becomes the defining property of living organisms.
IMPORTANT CONCLUSION - Irritability is the excitatory ability that living organisms have to respond to changes
in their environment. The term is used for both the physiological reaction to stimuli and for the pathological,
abnormal or excessive sensitivity to stimuli. Living things can sense what is going on around them, and are able
to respond to it. This is known as sensitivity.
13) D.
Couplet in the key is a pair of contrasting characters, 11th ncert page no 13
14) B.
15) D.
Class is largest taxon among the given four options.11th ncert page no 10
16) C.
The genus Mangifera belongs to the order Sapindales in the family Anacardiaceae. Mango: Scientific Name
"Mangifera indica L." The correct taxonomic sequence is - Mangifera, Anacardiaceae, Sapindales, Dicotyledons,
Spermatophyta
17) B.
1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
11th ncert page no 4/5
18) B.
a-5, b - 4, c-2, d-1, e-3, 11th ncert page no 9,10
19) D.
Different countries of the world use only one scientific nomenclature system, 11th ncert page no 7
35
20) D.
All of these shows fragmentation, 11th ncert page no 4
21) C.
Middle lamella is a Pectin layer between the primary and secondary cell walls and is made up of calcium pectate.
It helps in sticking the cells together. Pectate is a polymer of Glucoronic acid & Galacturonic acid. Calcium is main
divalent cation.11th ncert page no 132
22) A.
The cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells contains number of organelles like mitochondria, chloroplasts, Golgi bodies,
lysosomes, peroxisomes etc. Out of these only mitochondria and chloroplasts contain DNA. During fertilization
male gametes do not have sufficinet amount of cytoplasm, so most of the cytoplasm hence organelles to the
offsprings is contributed by egg itself.
23) D.
Part (B): Inner membrane - forms infoldings called cristae, 11th ncert page no 135
24) B.
A diameter of 0.2 - 1.0μm (average 0.5 μm) and length 1.0 - 4.1 μm
25) C.
It has to cross - Thylakoid membrane, Inner membrane of chloroplast, Outer membrane of chloroplast & Plasma
membrane.11th ncert page no 136
26) B.
Simple diffusion, osmosis & downhill transport of gases doesn't need carrier proteins.
27) D.
G.N. RAMACHANDRAN's discovery of the triple helical structure of collagen published in Nature in 1954
36
28) A.
Unicellular organisms are capable of (i) independent existence and (ii) performing the essential functions of life.
Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living. Hence, cell is the
fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms.
11th ncert page no126
29) A.
The invention of the microscope and its improvement leading to the electron microscope revealed all the
structural details of the cell.
11th ncert page no131
30) A.
Pectin is a polymer of galacturonic acid, 11th ncert page no 132
31) B.
Through plasmodesmata, plant cells remain connected. (Protoplasmic threads), 11th ncert page no 132
32) D.
Phosphatidylcholines (PC) are a class of phospholipids that incorporate choline as a headgroup. They are a
major component of biological membranes.
33) B.
The physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms is called ‘Reductionist Biology". 11th
ncert page no 123
34) D.
Schwann (1839), a British Zoologist, studied different types of animal cells and reported that cells had a thin outer
layer which is today known as the ‘plasma membrane’. He also concluded, based on his studies on plant tissues,
that the presence of cell wall is a unique character of the plant cells. On the basis of this, Schwann proposed the
hypothesis that the bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells and products of cells.11th ncert page no
126
35) A.
Bacteria has plasmids as accesory DNA circles
36) D.
Chloroplast absent in animal cell; Nucleus is extracytoplasmic.
37
37) A.
Proteins and lipids - Cell membrane is always a lipoprotein structure, 11th ncert page no 129
38) A.
Spirilla (or spirillum for a single cell) are curved bacteria which can range from a gently curved shape to a
corkscrew-like spiral.
39) D.
Micrometers (μm) is generally used to express size of cell
40) B.
Virchow gave 'Omnis cellula a cellula' theory.
41) A.
A : 1, B : 2, C : 3, D : 4,
12th ncert page no 5/6/7
42) A.
A: Nodes, B: Buds, C: Adventitious root
43) A.
A: Zoospores of chlamydomonas, B: Conidia of penicillium, C: Buds in hydra, 12th ncert page no 6
44) C.
Vegetative propagules, 12th ncert page no 7
45) D.
Strobilanthes kunthiana, known as Kurinji or Neelakurinji in Tamil, is a shrub that is found in the shola forests of
the Western Ghats in Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Nilgiri Hills, which literally means the blue mountains, got their
name from the purplish blue flowers of Neelakurinji that blossoms only once in 12 years.12th ncert page no 9
46) B.
A - Gametogenesis, B - Gamete transfer, D - Zygote formation, E - Embryogenesis, Event of sexual reproduction

, 12th ncert page no 10
47) C.
Foliar (on the leaf) adventitious buds are formed at place other than nodes. E.g., Bryophyllum.12th ncert page no
7
38
48) D.
Haploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia
49) C.
Not related to reproduction but a commercial exploitation for human welfare,12th ncert page no 9
50) C.
Eyes, rhizome, bulbil, leaf bud and offset
51) D.
Homo / Isogametes, heterogametes, heterogametes, 12th ncert page no 10
52) C.
Morula NCERT 12th Standard Page No.53
53) C.
Second month, NCERT 12th Standard Page No.54
54) C.
1-3 Seminiferous tubule, NCERT 12th Standard Page No.43
55) A.
GnRh, NCERT 12th Standard Page No.47
56) C.
Interstitial cell, NCERT 12th Standard Page No.47
57) C.
FSH NCERT 12th Standard Page No.47
58) D.
a-Sertoli cells, b-Spermatogonia, c-Leydig cell, d-Sperms, 12th ncert page no 44
59) B.
A = 1, B = 3, C = 2, D = 5, E = 4, 12th ncert page no 50, 51, 54 etc
60) B.
1, 6, 2, 7, 5, 3, 4, 12th ncert page no 43

39
61) A.
4, 12th ncert page no 52
62) B.
Inner cell mass, 12th ncert page no 53
63) D.
I - Trophoblasts, II - Blastocoel, III - Inner mass cells.12th ncert page no 52
64) C.
Seminiferous tubules, 12th ncert page no47
65) B.
6 (Ovary ovulate alternatively), 11th ncert page no 48
66) B.
Graafian follicle, 12th ncert page no 48
67) C.
Conceptual MCQ from Concept of 12th NCERT Page no. 43 & 61 - Semen is without sperms (Discussed in
Human reproduction)
68) B.
Golgi bodies of developing into acrosome, 12th ncert page no 48
69) B.
Opening of gastrocoel/archenteron, 12th ncert page no 53 Embryonic development
70) C.
Placenta secretes hCG, 12th ncert page no 53
71) A.
Ovary it is required during parturition and carpous luteum secrete this.12th ncert page no 53
72) D.
Trophoblast cells in contact with inner cell mass of blastocyst.12th ncert page no 52 (image)
73) C.
Azoospermia is the medical term used when there are no sperm in the ejaculate.
A low sperm count is also called oligospermia.
40
Asthenozoospermia is an infertility condition in men wherein a man produces sperms with low motility. Motility is
the ability of the sperm to move forward swiftly and in a straight line.
Teratospermia, also referred to as teratozoospermia, is defined as abnormal sperm morphology (shape), caused
by either defect in the head, midpiece and/or tail. It is a disorder in which males produce wonky-looking sperms.
This, in turn, affects their chances of fertilizing the eggs..12th ncert page no 48/ concept based on semen/sperm
functioning etc
74) C.
Progesterone suspends ovulation during pregnanc, promotes implantation of foetus on the endometrium and
development of foetus in the uterus.12th ncert page no 50/51
75) C.
Reduced level of both progesterone and estrogen causes menses. The menstrual cycle is associated with
withdrawal of progesterone.12th ncert page no 51
76) B.
Cumulus ovaricus is a cluster of cells surrounding the oocyte in Graafian follicle and even after ovulation. The
inner most layer of cumulus cells give rise to Corona radiata which is adjacent to the protective layer of the ovum,
the zona pellucida.12th ncert human reproduction.
77) D.
A - Graafian follicle, B - Tertiary follicle with antrum, C - Ovum, D - Corpus luteum, E - Primary follicle, F - Corpus
albicans, 12th ncert page no 49
78) B.
III (Testes) and IV (Seminal vesicles), 12th ncert page no 43 and 44
79) A.
Menstrual cycle
80) D.
Male copulatory organ
81) B.
In the question, acceleration is given as the function of v
So from a – v, relation we need to convert it into v – t relation.
Given
a = f(v) =
= dt
Integrating both sides, we get
∫6.250 = - 2.5 ∫0 t dt
41
|2 |6.250 = - 2.5t
2 = 2.5t
t = 2 sec.
82) B.
Here in the question velocity is the given as the function of x and it is asked as the function of time ‘t’.
Therefore,
Differentiating with respect to x,
Now acceleration is given as
Using first kinematical equation
v = u + at
v=0+ p2t
So the velocity =
83) D.
Distance covered in (n+1)th second
y = g(n+1)2 - gn2
y= g[(n+1)2 - n2] = g(2n+1)……..(i)
Distance covered in nth second
h = g(2n–1)…….(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
y = h + g.
84) C.
The distance covered in nth second is
Then 26 = u + (2.10 - 1) = u + 19
28 = u + (2.11 - 1 ) = u + 21
30 = u + (2.12 - 1) = u + 23
32 = u + (2.13 - 1) = u + 25
Solving equations we get
u = 7m / sec, a = 2m/sec2
∴ The body starts with initial velocity u = 7m / sec
and moves with uniform acceleration a = 2m/sec2
85) C.
Let a be the constant acceleration of the particle.
Then s = ut + at2 or s1 = 0 + × (10)2 = 50a
42
And s2 = [0 + a(20)2] - 50a = 150a
∴ s2 = 3s1.
86) A.
According to question, v(x) = bx-2n
Differentiating we get
= b.(-2n)x-2n-1
Acceleration of the particle as function of x is given as
a = v. = (bx-2n).[b.-2n x -2n-1]
⇒ a = -2nb2x-2n-2n-1
⇒ a = -2nb2 x-4n-1
⇒ a = -2nb2 x-4n+1
87) D.
From third kinematical equation
We know that v2 = u2 + 2.a.s
Final velocity is zero. It means v = 0. It means acceleration is also negative. So we can say that s ∝ u2
88) B.
The position of the particle at t = 0
Putting t = 0 in the equation of x
x = 4(0-2) + a(0-2)2 = - 8 + a.4 = 4a - 8
But a = 1 So x = 4.1 – 8 = 4 – 8 = -4
Hence option C is wrong. Now, when the displacement is given as a function of time, then velocity of the particle
is derivative of the displacement. Hence,
⇒ v = [4(t - 2) + a(t - 2)2]
⇒ v = [4t - 8 + a(t2 - 4t + 4)]
⇒ v = [4t - 8 + at2 - 4at + 4a]
⇒ v = 4 - 0 + 2at - 4a + 0
⇒ v = 2at - 4a + 4
But a = 1
Hence, v = 2t - 4 + 4 = 2t
For initial conditions, means at t = 0 v = 2 x 0 = 0
Hence option no A is wrong. Now we know that v = 2t
When the velocity is given as a function of time, then the acceleration is given as first derivative of velocity, hence
a = dv/dt
⇒ a = (2t)
⇒a=2
Acceleration is constant is independent of time (t). Hence the acceleration of the particle is 2 m/s2.
Hence option no B is correct.
43
89) D.
Initial speed of the car is given = 60 kmph = 60 x = m/s
Since driver takes 0.6 second before applying the breaks.
The distance covered in this 0.6 seconds
d1 = 0.6 x =10 m
After moving the distance of 10 m, driver has applied the brakes. So retardation begins from this point.
The distance covered by the car before stopping
Using third equation of motion
v2 = u2 + 2as
The total distance covered by the car before stopping = 27.78 + 10 = 37.78 = 38m
90) B.
In question it is given that
initial velocity =2î+3ĵ and acceleration
=0.3î+0.2ĵ First kinematical equation in vector form is given by
=(2î+3ĵ) +(0.3î+0.2ĵ) ×10 = 5î+5ĵ
| |=5 .
91) D.
92) B.
We know that the ratio of distance to displacement for a particle moving on a circle
In one complete revolution, one particle completes angle of 2 π
The total distance covered in 3.5 revolution = 2 x 3.5 = 7 π
Hence
93) A.
If we observe the question carefully we find that to reach the fly to the centre of the fan it need to fly first 6 m in
horizontal direction along length, then 7 m in the vertical direction and at last 3 m to reach the fan.
So the displacement vector for the fly will be
m.
44
94) B.
Drawing the figure we get
And finally
Hence the resultant vector
=(0î+30ĵ)+(20î+0ĵ)+(-30î-30ĵ)=-10î
It implies that the particle finally will be at 10 m distance from the origin in the west.(Because we are getting –ve
sign with , so in the west direction.
95) B.
When the ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a building, and if covers a circular path. Then it simply means
it covers a quarter circle.
Observe the quarter circle.
The displacement = m
45
96) A.
For the given condition initial height of the ball above the ground ‘h’ should be equal to ‘d’ and velocity of the ball
should be zero.
When the ball is released its velocity continuously increases in downward direction and it will be maximum when
it hits the ground.
As per the question just after the collision, the velocity of the ball becomes half of the initial velocity and it
reverses its direction.
Now the ball moves in upward direction and now its velocity decreases and becomes zero at height ‘h’ = d/2.
Now observe the graphs –
Graph (b) – velocity is shown positive in both the cases while going up and while going down. So this is wrong.
Graph (d) – velocity is shown negative in both the cases while going up and while going down. So this is also
wrong.
Graph (c) – velocity graph is shown by the straight line. Here velocity is changing uniformly with the time but not
with the height.
As one should know that
v = u + at
and v =
so graph (c) is wrong because with height velocity is not linearly related.
Graph (a) is only correct option.
97) C.
Bike has starts from rest; it means its initial velocity u = 0
Now the distance covered in nth second is given as
Snth = u + a(2n - 1)
⇒ Snth = 0 + an - a
⇒ Snth = an - a
Since, the acceleration is given as a constant. Therefore, this equation will represent the equation of a straight
line.
Hence, the graph of distance covered in nth second vs ‘n’ will be a straight line.
98) B.
Area under a – t graph is change in velocity.
Area = (4 × 4) + 6 × 4 + × 2 × 4 + × 2 × (-2)
= 36 - 2 = 34 ms-1
change in velocity = final velocity - initial velocity
34 = final velocity - 0
final velocity = 34
As initial velocity is zero therefore, the velocity at 14 second is 34 ms-1
99) B.
Area under velocity time graph gives the displacement when the area is taken along with their sign. It gives the
distance when signs are considered only positive.
Area of figure 1 = A1 = x 10 x 4 = 20
Area of figure 2 = A2 = 10 x 4 = 40
Area of figure 3 = A3 = x 10 x (8 + 4) = 60
Area of figure 4 = A4 = x 20 x 8 = 80
Area of figure 5 = A5 = x 20 x (-4) = -40
46
So displacement = total area
Displacement = 20 + 40 + 60 + 80 + 40 = 240 m
average speed = m/s
100) C.
From the graph Along y axis when we look then we find that P is below Q on Y axis which is representing the
distance of homes of A and B respectively. It means that A lives closer to school.
From the graph it should be clear that at time t = 0 the motion of A has started, whereas B is still waiting in the
school. It means A has started early. From the slope of x-t graph, we get the idea of velocity of particle. In our
case the slope of A is less as compared to slope of B. It means that B is moving fast compared to A. If we draw a
perpendicular line on time axis where the graphs are ending then we find that both the lines are intersecting the
time axis at the same line which we have drawn perpendicular to time axis. Whereas if we draw dotted line,
perpendicular from P and Q for the graphs, they finish at the same instant of time. From above discussion it
should be clear that option no ‘C’ is correct.
101) D.
They have physical existance
102) A.
Vertical velocity changes due to electric field, but no change in horizontal velocity.
103) D.
The force is perpendicular to the displacement so the work done is zero.
104) A.
Metal plate acts as an equipotential surface, therefore the field lines should enter normal to the surface of the
metal plate.
105) A.
Fnet = 2Fcos θ
Fnet =
Fnet =
⇒ Fnet = ⇒ Fnet ∝ y
47
106) D.
Equal and opposite charges will appear on the sphere. So net charge in the sphere becomes zero.
107) C.
E=
but q = ne
therefore
E =
∴n=
n= x 105 = 2.5 x 105
108) C.
The torque on the dipole is given as τ = pEsinθ
The potential energy of the dipole in electric field is given as U = -pEcosθ
Taking ratio the answer will be –tan θ
109) D.
Let say the charges are as Q = 10 C placed at point A and C.
The charge q will be in equilibrium if the forces exerted on it by the other charges are equal and opposite.
K =K
On solving we get as x = r – x and x =
Now if we observe carefully, then we find that, the equilibrium of third charge is independent of the nature of
48
charge ‘q’.
Because while solving we have not used the sign of charge ‘q’. Also while applying the condition of equilibrium on
charge q, the charge q is getting cancelled out.
So if any charge is placed at the midpoint of the line joining these two charges, this third charge will always be in
equilibrium.
110) B.
By the symmetry of the figure, the electric fields at O due to the portions AC and BD are equal in magnitude and
opposite in direction. So, they cancel each other. Similarly, the field at O due to CD and AKB are equal in
magnitude but opposite in direction.
Now as per the question it is asked that electric field due to only for ACDB. But From ACDB, the electric field due
to AC has cancelled out electric field due to BD. Therefore, the electric field at the centre due to the charge on the
part ACDB is because of only section CD, and it will be E along OK.
Hence electric field due to ACDB will be E along OK.
111) D.
Potential energy of dipole in electric field U = - pE cosθ; where θ is the angle between electric field and dipole.
112) A.
If we look at the diagram carefully we find the Electric fields in the directions as shown in the figure. So, we can
conclude that net electric field is zero At the centre of the square.
49
113) C.
We know the property of electrostatic force that if any other charge is introduced in the vicinity of two charges
then there is no effect of this charge on the electrostatic force between two previous charges.
The individual forces are unaffected due to the presence of other charges. (NCERT page no 15 in the section 1.7
– Forces between multiple charges)
114) C.
To apply Gauss's theorem it is essential that charge should be placed inside a closed surface. so imagine another
similar cylinderical vessel about it as shown in figure (dotted)
115) C.
Electric field at point on the axis of symmetry of a circular loop at a distance x from the centre of loop is
Substituting, k = 9 X 109 Nm2 C-2;
q = 4 μC = 4 X 10-6 C; r = 6cm = 6 X 10-2 m
We get X = 8cm = 8 X 10-2 m,
∴E = 288 X 104 Vm-1
116) C.
A free position change move from higher (positive) potential to lower (negative) potential. Hence, it must cross S
at some time.
117) C.
V=
50
118) A.
zero
119) B.
If the charge q is shot with the speed v then it has kinetic energy
KE = 1/2 mv2
Since, there is only conservative force so according to the energy conservation theorem
Kinetic energy of the particle = potential energy of the system
1/2 mv2 = KqQ/r……(i)
Now the speed of the particle is doubled
1/2 m(v')2 = KqQ/r'
1/2 m(2v')2 = KqQ/r' ……(ii)
Dividing eqn (i) and (ii), we get
r' = r/4
120) C.
Kinetic energy K =
121) B.
Subsidiary quantum number (l) specifies Shape of orbital.
122) C.
2px ,2py and 2pz are degenerate orbitals i.e they have the same energy
123) D.
Configuration contains 2 unpaired electrons hence most paramagnetic.
124) B.
Nucleus
125) D.
λ = h / mv = 6.6 × 10-34 / (0.66 × 100) = 1 × 10-35 m.
126) A.
E = - (2.172 × 10-18) / n2
=(-2.172 × 10-18) / 22
= -5.42 × 10-19 J.
127) D.
According to de Broglie’s equation
51
λ = h / mv = (6.626 × 10-34 × 3600) / (0.2 × 5)
λ = 2.385 × 10-30 m
128) D.
[Xe] 4f146s25d1
129) A.
Gradual addition of electronic shells results in increase in size thus IE decreases
130) A.
The size of isoelectronic species depends upon effective nuclear charge and decreases with increase in effective
nuclear charge.
131) D.
Except (d) all show diagonal relationship
132) C.
Cu29 - [Ar] 3d10 4s1
133) C.
Halogens has 7 electrons in its valence shell (ns2 np5).
134) B.
O2- has minimum effective nuclear charge, hence has maximum ionic radius
135) D.
Covalent as well as H-bonds
136) A.
Head on overlapping result in Sigma bond
137) B.
sp3d2 form outer d orbital complexes
138) C.
The bond energies of F-F, C-C, N-N and O-O bonds are 33, 80, 39 and 34.2 kJ/mol respectively. Therefore
molecule of C-C has the highest bond energy
139) B.
Hybridization involves mixing of atomic orbitals 52

140) A.
NF3 is predominantly covalent in nature and has pyramidal structure( the central atom is sp3 hybridized ) with a
lone pair of electron in the fourth orbitals
141) C.
Based on classification of cubic crystals (depending on interfacial angles and interce[ts a, b and c made
by the unit cell on crystallographic axis)
a b c and
142) B.
Number of tetrahedral voids in closed packed CCP or FCC and HCP is double the number of atoms forming the
main lattice.
The above arrangement of atoms will give FCC lattice.
143) B.
In ZnS structure, sulphides occupy all the lattice points while Zn2+ ions are present in alternative tetrahedral
voids.
144) A.
In a closed packed structure, the number of tetrahedral voids for atom of the crystal is two. Since, half of the
tetrahedral voids are occupied by A+ the number of A+ is same as that of B- in the crystal. Thus, formula is AB.
145) C.
Particle of a solid have vibratory motion only.
146) B.
For an fcc lattice, dface = a√2
or 4rNi = a√2
rNi = a√2 / 4 = √2 / 4 × 0.3524 = 0.1246nm.
147) C.
Diamond is a covalent solid in which constituent particles are atoms.
148) A.
2(r+ + r-) = a
2(r(Na+) + r(Cl-)) = 564 pm
r(Na+) = (564 / 2) - 181 = 101 pm
149) D.
Water and nitric acid form a non-ideal solution showing negative deviation from Raoult's law. Other solutions are
ideal solutions
53
150) B.
Molality
151) D.
Depression in freezing point = Kf m(as Kf↑,∆Tf↑)
Kf depends upon the solvent.
152) A.
Number of moles = 12 / 60 = 0.2
Molarity = (number of moles) / (volume in litre) = (0.2 × 1000) / 100 = 2
153) A.
p=p°(benzene)×(xbenzene)+p°(toluene)×(xtoluene)
760=957×(xbenzene)+379.5(1-xbenzene)
xbenzene=0.66 and xtoluene=1-0.66=0.34
154) B.
Tf°=278.8K, Tf=276.8K, ∆ Tf=278.8-276.8=2K
Kf=8K kgmol(-1)
m=(wB/mB)/MA ×1000
=(2.5/mB)/100×1000=25/mB
∆ Tf=Kf×m
2=8×25/mB ⟹mB =(8×25)/2=100gmol(-1)
155) A.
On complete dissociation, barium hydroxide Ba(OH)2 gives three ions. Hence, van't Hoff factor (i) is 3.
156) A.
Henry’s Constant KH increases with increases with increases in temperature
157) A.
When the salt bridge is removed, potential drops to zero.
158) A.
Al →Al(3+ )+3e-
159) B.
Lesser the value of E° of metal, lesser the reduction potential, lesser oxidising power.
54
160) C.
Oxidation takes place at anode
55

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PCB Test 6

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Test - PCB Test 6

For NEET Examination

Negative Marking Applied

1) Who got the "triple crown of biology"?

2) What is the unifying concept of biology?

3) Bioinformatics is an interdisciplinary branch which is concerned with the application of?

a) Engineering techniques in biological studies b) Chemistry in understanding the biological

4) Melvin Calvin was professor of?

a) Botany b) Plant physiology

5) Biometry refers to?

6) Maintenance of internal favorable conditions, despite changes in external environment is?

a) Entropy b) Steady state

7) The term ‘systematic’ refers to?

a) Morphology of flowering plants b) Anatomy of seed plants

a) Digestion of food b) Elimination of wastes

11) Match the column :

a) Sensitivity & irritability b) Growth & reproduction

13) Couplet in taxonomic key means?

a) A pair of homologous characters b) A pair of similar species

a) A -I, B-II, C-III, D-IV b) A-II, B-III, C- IV, D-I

a) Spermatophyta, Sapindales, Dicotyledons, b) Mangifera, Dicotyledons, Anacardiaceae,

a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c b) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

18) Match the following and choose the correct option?

a) a-4, b - 3, c -5, d - 2, e - 1 b) a-5, b - 4, c-2, d-1, e-3

20) Which of the following multiply by the process of fragmentation?

a) Planaria b) Filamentous algae

a) Calcified polymer of glucosamine b) Hemicellulose with glycopeptide

a) Mitochondria and inherited via egg cytoplasm b) Lysosomes and peroxisomes

24) Mitochondria having?

a) Simple diffusion b) Facilitated diffusion

a) Linus Pauling b) H G Khorana

30) Polygalactronoids are the major constituents of?

a) Middle lamella b) Primary cell wall

31) Cytoplasm of one plant cell is connected with other through? 6

32) Phosphatidylcholine are the major constituents of?

a) Middle lamella b) Primary cell wall

33) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms is called?

a) Biochemistry b) Reductionist Biology

35) Plasmids are extra chromosomal genetic material of?

a) Nucleus, Mitochondria and Chloroplast b) Chloroplast & Golgi body

a) Proteins and lipids b) Cellulose

39) The size of most of the cells is best expressed in?

41) Match column-I (Organism) with column-II (reproductive structure).

42) Identify A, B and C in the diagram.

43) Identify A, B and C in the figure.

a) A: Zoospores of chlamydomonas, B: Conidia of b) A: Zoospores of chlamydomonas, B: Conidia of

45) What is Neelakurunji?

a) A plant that flowers in every 50 years b) An alga which is a source of Agar

46) Identify the events (A, B, D and E) in life of general reproduction -

51) Identify gametes (A, B and C) respectively -

52) Embryo with 8-16 cell is called

53) Foetus develops limbs by-

a) First month b) First week

54) Each testicular lobule contains

a) 250 Compartment b) 25 Sertoli and male germ cell

56) Which cells secrete testicular hormones called androgen

a) Spermatogonia b) Sertoli cell

a) a-Sertoli cells, b-Spermatozoa, c-Interstitial cells, d- b) a-Sertoli cells, b-Secondary spermatocyte, c-

59) Match the following with correct combination

62) Body of embryo is formed from?

a) Trophoblast b) Inner cell mass

63) Choose the correct group of labellings

64) Spermatogenesis occurs in?

65) Eggs produced in a year by an ovary of a nonpregnant woman is?