1. A volume of 1000 cm3 is equal to _______. 14.

A spherical concave shaving mirrors has a radius of

a. 100 mL c. 1 quart curvature of 30 cm. The magnification of man’s face
b. 10 L d. 1 L when it Is 12 cm from the vertex of the mirror is ____.
2. The meter is slightly longer than the ____. a. 2 c. 5
a. inch c. mile b. 3 d. 4
b. foot d. yard 15. A hardened tree resin in which ancient insects have
3. Matter waves were first hypothesized by which of the sometimes been preserved is ______.
following scientists? a. cast c. carbon
a. Schrodinger c. Heisenberg b. amber d. mold
b. de Broglie d. Pauli 16. Element X has an electron configuration of 1s 2s 2p5.
4. According to scientific method, what needs to be Based on information, element X belongs to ____
done to move beyond conjecture or simple family.
hypothesis in a person’s understanding of his or her a. Alkali metal c. Inert gas
physical surroundings? b. Halogen d. Coinage
a. conduct a controlled experiment 17. Which material/s has/have large thermal
b. find a understood model with answers conductivity?
c. make an educated guess I. Gel III. Concrete
d. search for answers on the Internet II. Copper IV. Home insulations
5. Which of the following is the best example of the use a. I and II c. I and III
of referent? b. I and IV d. I only
a. your textbook c. big as a dump truck 18. When the equation MnO2 + CO  Mn2O3 is balanced,
b. the planet Mars d. a red bicycle what is the sum of all written and “understood”
6. If the speed of a moving object is doubled, which coefficients?
quantity associated with the object must also double? a. 4 c. 8
a. its acceleration b. 9 d. 5
b. its momentum 19. An atom contains 70 protons, 10 electrons and 99
c. its gravitational potential energy neutrons. What is the mass number?
d. its kinetic energy a. 169 c. 140
7. Which of the following units can be used to express b. 130 d. 159
the strength of a magnetic field? 20. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0 com to the right
a. Newton c. Galileo of a concave spherical mirror having a radius of
b. Tesla d. Edison curvature of 20.0 com. The position and orientation
8. Sound vibration below 20 vibrations per second is of the image is _______.
considered _________. a. 35 cm to the left of the mirror; inverted
a. hypersonic c. supersonic b. 35 cm to the right of the mirror; inverted
b. infrasonic d. ultrasonic c. 25 cm to the left of the mirror; inverted
9. The following situations illustrate acceleration, d. 25 cm to the right of the mirror; inverted
EXCEPT _____. 21. The speed of light in crown glass is 2x108 m/s. the
a. a drum rolls down on an inclined plane index of refraction of crown glass is ______.
b. a body travels around the curved road with a a. 2.5 c. 2.0
constant speed of 20 m/s. b. 1.0 d. 1.5
c. the bus increase its speed from 70 kph to 120 22. You won the jackpot prize in a lottery. The prize
kph money cannot be paid in currency but only in gold.
d. a car travels at constant speed along a Applying your knowledge in chemistry, select the
highway largest amount of gold from the choices below.
10. Cobalt-60 is a strong source of gamma rays and is (Au=197)
used in the treatment of ____. a. 22.5 moles of gold
a. Alzheimer’s disease b. 23.5 moles of gold
b. High blood pressure c. 50 kg of gold
c. Osteoporosis d. 40 kg of gold
d. Cancer 23. An object 1.50 cm tall is placed 6.0 cm to the left of
11. What are the organic compounds that are used in the vertex of a convex spherical mirror whose radius
perfumes and for artificial flavors? of curvature has a magnitude of 20.0 cm. The position
a. Ethers c. Esters of the image is _______.
b. Carboxylic acids d. Alcohols a. 2.75 cm to the left of the mirror
12. A spherical concave shaving mirrors has a radius of b. 3.75 cm to the right of the mirror
curvature of 30 cm. The magnification of man’s face c. 2.75 cm to the right of the mirror
when it Is 12 cm from the vertex of the mirror is ____. d. 3.75 cm to the left of the mirror
a. 2 c. 5 24. A feature of coastal deposition is ________.
b. 3 d. 4 a. Sea arch c. Sea stuck
13. When rocks and geologic events are put into b. Spit d. Wave-cut cliff
chronologic without regard to the actual dates, what 25. An object 1.50 cm tall is placed 6.0 cm to the left of
is obtained is ___________. the vertex a convex spherical mirror whose radius of
a. Geologic formation curvature has a magnitude of 20.0 cm. The size of the
b. Absolute numerical geologic time image is _______.
c. Relative geologic time a. 0.838 cm c. 1.938 cm
d. Correlation period b. 1.838 cm d. 0.938 cm
26. Fossils form Precambrian time could include ______. 38. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0 cm to the right of
a. Leaf impression and shark teeth a convex spherical mirror having a radius of curvature
b. Dinosaur bones and giant birds of 20.0 cm. the position and orientation of the image
c. Human skulls and skeletons is ______.
d. Algae, bacteria, and sea worms a. 4.83 cm to the right if the mirror; erect
27. What principles explains why airplanes can fly and b. 5.83 cm to the right of the mirror; erect
curveballs curve? c. 4.83 cm to the left of the mirror; erect
a. Bernoulli c. Pascal d. 5.83 to the left of the mirror; erect
b. Archimedes d. Torricelli 39. Which of the following is an ethyl group?
28. A rock dropped off a bridge takes 5 seconds to hit the a. CH3— c. CH3CH2--
water. Approximately what was the rock’s velocity b. CH2 d. CH2CH3--
just before impact? 40. The boiling point of water changes with the height
a. 10 m/s c. 50 m/s above sea level. The table shows the elevation of
b. 30 m/s d. 25 m/s different mountains in the Philippines. Which of the
29. Any flow of water between well-defined banks is following mountains is boiling point the LEAST?
called _______.
a. aquifer c. river flow Mountain Height (highest peak)
b. stream d. water table above sea level
30. Sodium chloride conducts electricity when dissolved Mt. Arayat 1125
in water. What type of bond is present in NaCl? Mt. Makiling 1130
a. hydrogen c. ionic Mt. Banahaw 2450
b. nonpolar d. polar Mt. Apo 3143
31. Fossils form Precambrian time could include ______. a. Mt. Apo c. Mt. Makiling
a. Dinosaur bones and giant birds b. Mt. Banahaw d. Mt. Arayat
b. Human skulls and skeletons 41. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0 cm to the right of
c. Leaf impression and shark teeth a concave spherical mirror having a radius of
d. Algae, bacteria, and sea worms curvature of 20.0 cm. The position and orientation of
32. Of the following, the copper conductor that has the the image is ______.
least resistance is ________. a. 25 cm to the left if the mirror; inverted
a. thick, short and cool b. 25 cm to the right of the mirror; inverted
b. thin, long and hot c. 35 cm to the left of the mirror; inverted
c. thin, short and cool d. 35 cm to the right of the mirror; inverted
d. thick, long and cool 42. Which of the following is NOT true?
33. An empty garbage truck is moving at a speed of 4 m/s a. The greater the impact time, the lesser the
enters a tunnel where a bale of garbage half as impact force
massive as the truck is drooped onto the truck. What b. The increase of the mass of the moving body
is the speed of the truck when coming out of the will result to a change in momentum
tunnel? c. The decrease of the velocity will result to a
a. 5.8 m/sec c. 2.8 m/sec change in momentum
b. 2.7 m/sec d.5.7 m/sec d. There is momentum for a body at rest.
34. What is the formula for lithium nitride? 43. The age of the earth, determined by radiometric
a. Li3N c. Li2N2 dating is
b. LiN d. Li3N3 a. 1200.0 years c. 320 million years
35. The term which denotes the continuous circulation of b. 150 million years d. 4.56 billion years
the Earth’s water is described as ______. 44. Which of the following is an alkaloid?
a. Hydrothermal equilibrium a. nicotine c. bakelite
b. Hydrologic cycle b. oil of wintergreen d. aspirin
c. Aqua cycle 45. Monosaccharides, oligosaccharides and
d. Redistribution process polysaccharides are types of ________.
36. A drinking glass is one-fourth filled with water and is a. nucleotides c. proteins
repeatedly tapped at the side with a metal spoon. b. carbohydrates d. lipid
What will happen to the sound when the water inside 46. How many sodium atoms are in 2 moles of sodium?
the glass is increased? a. 22 c. 6.02 x 1023
24
a. alternately increase and decrease b. 1.20 x 10 d. 11
b. increases 47. His work, The Sceptical Chemist, is seen as a
c. decreases cornerstone book in the field of chemistry.
d. remains unchanged a. Boyle c. Berzelius
37. Which of the following situations does NOT show b. Davy d. Mendeleev
work being done? 48. Diffraction occurs best in a wave when the slit width
a. A girls kicks the ball is less than the ________.
b. A boy presses his hands on the door a. Wavelength c. Interference
c. A girl picks up her doll b. Light d. Refraction
d. A boy pushed his car forward
49. How many covalent bonds does a carbon atom 63. Balance this equation.
form? CaC2 + H20  Ca (OH)2 + C2H2
a. 3 c. 1 a. 1,1,1,1 c. 1,2,1,1
b. 4 d. 2 b. 2,1,1,2 d. 1,1,2,1
50. Which of the following is the preferred name of 64. A heat engine operates with 65.0 kcal of heat and
Na2S? exhausts 40.0 kcal of heat. How much work did the
a. disodium sulphide engine do?
b. disodium sulphate a. 130 kJ c. 110 kJ
c. sodium sulphide b. 120 kJ d. 105 kJ
d. sodium sulphate 65. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0 cm to the right of
51. What would be the appropriate procedure to a convex spherical mirror having a radius of curvature
decrease the heat output of a fission reactor core? of 20.0 cm. The position and orientation of the image
a. remove a few fuel rods is _______.
b. increase the level of coolant a. 5.83 cm to the left of the mirror; erect
c. insert the control rods farther b. 4.83 cm to the right of the mirror; erect
d. decrease the amount of moderator c. 5.83 cm to the right of the mirror; erect
52. Which of the following describe physical change as a d. 4.83 cm to the left of the mirror; erect
process? 66. In a dessert, the prime mover of the land material is
I. Usually reversible _______.
II. Usually irreversible a. gravity c. wind
III. Produce new substances b. creep d. rain
IV. Cause changes in the arrangement of the 67. What is the formula for lithium hydrogen carbonate?
particles a. LiHCO2 c. LiHCO
a. II and IV c. I and III b. LiHCO4 d. LiHCO3
b. II and III d. I and IV 68. Gases can be compressed because molecules are
53. The era when dinosaurs were common was the ______.
________. a. always moving c. small
a. Mesozoic c. Cambrian b. stationary d. far apart
b. Cenozoic d. Paleozoic 69. The following combinations of atom (mixture,
54. The image for which light rays diverge and cannot compound, and molecule) of arranged in an
form an image is ______. ASCENDING order in terms of molecules are
a. imaginative c. real ________.
b. concave d. virtual I. mixture III. molecule
55. The process which is NOT a type of mechanical II. compound
disintegration is _________. a. II, III and I c. III, II and I
a. frost wedging c. abrasion b. III, I and II d. I, II and III
b. oxidation d. roof penetration 70. The bar magnet was broken into four equal parts.
56. Which electromagnetic source is LEAST harmful to The total number of magnetic poles existing in the
humans? four parts is _______.
a. radio transformer c. x-ray machine a. 6 c. 8
b. UV lamp d. microwave oven b. 2 d. 4
57. Chemical weathering can be determined by 71. When the polarization directions of two polarizing
analysing the rock’s ________. sheets are at an angle of 90 ½ to each other. What
a. composition c. mass happen is ________.
b. density d. temperature a. There is a maximum transmission
58. What is pH of natural rainwater? b. No light gets through
a. 5.0 to 6.0 c. 4.2 to 5.2 c. Transmission is reduced by 50%
b. 5.6 to 6.2 d. 4.0 to 5.0 d. Transmission is reduced by 30%
59. Which set of coefficients will balance this equation? 72. A spherical concave shaving mirror has a radius of
? P + ? Br2  ? PBr3 curvature of 30 cm. When it is 12 cm form the vertex
a. 2,6,2 c. 3,1,1 of the mirror, the distance and position of the image
b. 2,3,6 d. 3,2,3 of the person is ________.
60. Which of the following is the preferred name of a. 60 cm behind the mirror; real
Na2SO4? b. 60 cm behind the mirror; virtual
a. sodium sulphide c. 6 cm behind the mirror; real
b. disodium sulphide d. 6 cm behind the mirror; virtual
c. sodium sulphate 73. Earthquake vibrations are detected, measure and
d. disodium sulphate recorded by instrument called _______.
61. What is the formula weight if magnesium hydroxide, a. sonargraphs c. seiesmographs
an ingredient found in antacid ______. b. richter scales d. magnetometers
a. 89.0 u c. 41.3 u 74. The agents that cause erosions are ________.
b. 72.0u d. 58.3 u a. laciers and waves only
62. The largest units of geologic time are _____. b. waves only
a. eras c. eons c. streams and waves only
b. epochs d. periods d. streams, glaciers and waves
75. The power rating of an electric motor that drawas
current of 4 A when operated at 110 V is ______.
a. 400 W c. 40 W
b. 1000 W d. 440 W
76. What is the radius in nm of the electron orbit of 87. To separate a 0.25-C charge form another charge, 30
hydrogen atom for n=3? J of work is done. What is the electric energy of the
a. 0.377 nm c. 0.356 nm charge?
b. 0.456 nm d. 0.477 nm a. 120 J c. 7.5 J
77. An observer is standing on the eastern side of a cliff b. 30 J d. 15 J
where a sailing ship can be seen. As the ship sails away 88. To describe mineral hardness, we use ________.
it seems to sink slowly from the observer’s point of a. uranium c. potassium
view. This is because the _______. b. Mohs scale d. carbon dating
a. surface of the Earth is flat 89. A major source of air pollution is _______.
b. distance between the observer and the ship a. a nuclear electrical generation
increase b. incomplete combustion
c. observer is looking towards the eastern c. acid rain
shore d. temperature inversions
d. earth is an oblate spheroid 90. Which of the following objects has the greatest
78. Earth’s magnetic field is most likely due to ______. kinetic energy?
a. convection currents in the molten part of a. an object with a mass of 3kg and a velocity
Earth’s interior of 2 m/s
b. the rotation of Earth acting on all of Earth’s b. an object with a mass of 1kg and a velocity
electrons of 4 m/s
c. the revolution of Earth c. an object with a mass of 4kg and a velocity
d. millions of small magnets buried in Earth of 1 m/s
79. Which of the following is NOT a common feature of d. an object with a mass of 2kg and a velocity
sedimentary rock? of 3 m/s
a. discordant c. ripple marks 91. Tidal bulges in the ocean are due ________.
b. stratification d. bedding a. mainly to gravitational forces between the
80. A generator is a device that converts ______. Sun and Moon
a. chemical energy to mechanical energy b. to the horizontal components of tidal that
b. mechanical energy to electrical energy cause water to flow over Earth’s surface
c. electrical energy to mechanical energy toward areas nearest the Moon and toward
d. mechanical energy to chemical energy areas opposite the Moon
81. Energy can NOT be _______. c. mainly to gravitational between the Sun
a. transferred c. created and Earth
b. transformed d. conserved d. to the Moon’s gravitational forces lifting
82. The two most abundant elements in Earth’s crust are the ocean water
______. 92. If two equal positive charges are placed equidistant
a. silicon and oxygen on either side of another positive charge, the middle
b. silicon and aluminum positive charge experience will be ________.
c. aluminum and iron a. net force to either side
d. oxygen and iron b. zero net force
83. When a negative work is done on a moving object, its c. net force to the left
kinetic energy ________. d. net force to the right
a. remains constant 93. A car is traveling in a straight line along a road. Its
b. decreases distance X form a stop sign is given as function of time
c. depends on the reference point T by the equation X= (2.0 m/s times T + (0.25 m/s )
d. increases time T3 . The average velocity of the car for the
84. Only about 50% of the solar energy directed toward following time intervals: T= 2.0 s to T= 4.0 s is___.
Earth penetrates directly to the surface. What a. 19.0 m/s c. 21.1 m/s
happens to the rest pf the radiation? b. 21.0 m/s d. 20.0 m/s
a. it loses energy travelling through space 94. Metamorphism over a vast area brought about by
b. it is absorbed or reflected by the both heat and pressure is called ________.
atmosphere a. shear metamorphism
c. it loses energy overcoming the sun’s gravity b. regional metamorphism
d. it is reflected of the moon and back into c. contact metamorphism
space d. hydrothermal metamorphism
85. A baseball pitcher is throwing a fast ball, which has a 95. In addition to force, work involves _________.
speed (leaving his hand) of 42 m/s. The mass of the a. time c. motion
baseball is 0.180 kg. How much work has the pitcher b. weight d. friction
done on the ball in throwing it? 96. Most of the molecular oxygen in the early
a. 159 J c. 139 J atmosphere of Earth resulted from ________.
b. 149 J d. 169 J a. decaying primitive plants and animals
86. Fuel sources other than fossil fuels and nuclear are b. lightning striking Earth
_________. c. photosynthesis in primitive plants
a. alternative energy sources d. volcanic eruption
b. renewable sources
c. alternative power sources
d. Renewable energy sources
97. What is TRUE of all combinations of resistors 110. The makers of certain automobiles advertise that it
arranged in parallel? can accelerate from 15.0 to 50.0 mi/hr in 10.0 s.
I. Current splits down each leg of Assuming that the acceleration in ft/s is _______.
combination a. 8.13 ft/s c. 7.13 ft/s
II. Voltage is constant across each leg of the b. 5.13 ft/s d. 6.13 ft/s
combination 111. During a thunderstorm, 4.0 s elapses between
III. Resistance is the same for each leg of observing a lightning flash and hearing the resulting
combination thunder. Approximately how far away in km and mi
a. I, II and III c. I and III was the lightning flash?
b. I and II d. II and III a. 1.4 km or 0.9 mi c. 2.8 km or 1.8 mi
98. A biconvex lens is which of the following: b. 1.3 km or 0.80 mi d. 2.6 km or 1.6 mi
a. a Fresnel lens 112. Fuel sources other than fossil fuels and nuclear are
b. a lens that forms a virtual image for D0 > f _________.
c. thicker at the edge then at the center a. Renewable power sources
d. a converging lens b. alternative power sources
99. In about 12, 000 years, the star Vega will be the c. alternative energy sources
North star, not Polaris, because of Earth’s _____.
d. renewable energy sources
a. precession c. tilted axis
b. recession d. uneven equinox 113. The general term for large bodies of intrusive
100. A baseball pitcher is throwing a fast ball, which has igneous rock is ________.
a speed (leaving his hand) of 42 m/s. The mass of the a. slate c. pluton
baseball is 0.180 kg. How much work has the pitcher b. schist d. gneiss
done on the ball in throwing it? 114. The number of daylight at a specific place on
a. 169 J c. 149 J Earth’s surface is dependent on the _________.
b. 139 J d. 159 J a. Latitude, date and height of the sea level
101. Which of the following is NOT a common b. Latitude
metamorphic rock? c. Height of the sea level
a. slate c. gneiss d. date
b. shale d. marble 115. If two equal negative charges are placed
102. What is the number of wave cycles for a given equidistant on either side of a positive charge, the
period of time called? positive charge would _______.
a. wavelength c. amplitude a. cannot be determined
b. period d. frequency b. experience a net force to the left
103. If an astronomical light source is moving away from c. have a zero net force
us, we observe _______. d. experience a net force to the right
a. a sonic boom 116. Which statement on electrons is TRUE? If a body
b. a shift toward longer wavelengths has _______.
c. a blue shift a. excess of electrons, the object is said to
d. a shift toward higher frequencies be positively charged
104. A current of 0.5 A exists in a 60 Ω lamp. The applied b. less electrons than the number if protons
potential difference is _______. in nuclei, the object is said to be
a. 120 V c. 30 V negatively charged
b. 12 V d. 60 V c. an equal number of electrons and
105. The soil called loam is _______. protons, the object is said to be
a. mostly humus with some sand electrically neutral
b. all sands and humus d. more or less electrons that are required
c. equal amount of sand, silt and clay to balance the positive charge of the
d. from the C horizon of a soil profile nuclei, that object has no electric charge
106. A brick is dropped from the roof of a building. If the 117. Earth’s atmosphere is divided into layers that are
brick strikes the ground after 5.0 s, the height of the based upon their ________.
building in meters is a. gas content c. temperature gradient
a. 132 m c. 125 m b. relative humidity d. water content
b. 122 m d. 135 m 118. To describe mineral hardness, we use _______.
107. The appearance of high cirrus clouds, followed by a. carbon dating c. Mohs scale
thicker and lower stratus clouds, then continuous b. uranium d. potassium
light rain over several days probably means which of 119. Geothermal energy, a possible energy resource, is
the following air masses has moves to your area? based on which phenomenon?
a. maritime tropical c. continental tropical a. heat energy from the Sun penetrates
b. maritime polar d. continental polar deep into the Earth
108. Angular momentum is conserved by the absence of b. human activity is the largest source of
________. heat energy on Earth
a. inertia c. linear momentum c. Earth’s internal energy heat its surface
b. a net force d. gravity more that the Sun does
109. Rocks formed by alteration of pre-existing rocks by d. There are concentration of heat in some
pressure, temperature, or chemistry are ______. places of Earth’s crust
a. metamorphic rocks
b. gneiss rocks
c. igneous rocks
d. sedimentary rocks
120. A subsidence temperature inversion is caused by 134. The two daily high tides are due mainly to the
_______. ____.
a. subcritical pressure a. differential gravitational attraction of the
b. a high-pressure air mass Moon because of the inverse-square
c. radiative cooling relationship
d. acid rain b. gravitational forces between the Sun and
121. Cumulus clouds usually mean an atmospheric Moon
state of _______. c. gravitational forces between the Sun and
a. cool, dry equilibrium Earth
b. stability d. Moon’s gravitational force lifting the
c. instability ocean water away from the solid Earth
d. warm, humid equilibrium 135. Hubble’s law ________.
122. A step-up transformer has _______. a. is sometimes referred to as law of shifts
a. fewer windings on the primary coil b. indicates that the universe is not
b. fewer winding on the secondary coil expanding
c. an equal number of windings on the c. is sometimes referred to as law of
primary and secondary coils redshifts
d. more windings on the primary coil d. relates the observed recessional velocity
123. NOT a common metamorphic rock is _____. of a galaxy
a. granite c. gneiss 136. The continuous circulation of Earth’s water supply
b. slate d. schist is known as the _____ cycle.
124. If the index of refraction of crown glass is 1.5, what a. hydrogeology c. aqua
is the speed of light in crown glass? b. redistribution d. giant lava flows
a. 137. The surfaces of planet Mercury and our Moon
125. A fluorescent lamp rated at 100 kW has an contain some very large craters that are most
efficiency of 20%. How much energy is dissipated likely the result of _______.
as heat if the lamp is used for 5 hours? a. large collapsed caves
a. 16 kW-hrs c. 400 kW-hrs b. asteroid impacts
b. 100 kW-hrs d. 40 kW-hrs c. nuclear explosions
126. The approximate time between new and full d. giant lava flows
moon is _______. 138. The ocean covers about what percent of Earth’s
a. three weeks c. four weeks surface?
b. one week d. two weeks a. 50 c. 65
127. It is impossible to determine exactly and b. 85 d. 75
simultaneously the particle properties of ______. 139. Which was the Apollo mission with the first
a. velocity and momentum international space rendezvous? This was the first
b. charge and mass coordinated launce of two spacecraft from
c. charge and position different countries.
d. position and velocity a. Apollo 21 c. Apollo 19
128. What does the fundamental mechanism of b. Apollo-Schmitt d. Apollo-Soyuz
mountain building appear to be? 140. Which go with land degradation?
a. diastrophism c. volcanism I. Urban sprawl and commercial
b. thrust faulting d. sedimentation development
129. During periods of increased global temperature, II. Deforestation
which of the following is most likely to occur? III. Overgrazing
a. an increase in earthquakes a. I and III c. I and II
b. an increase in atmosphere CO2 b. I, II and III d. II and III
c. a decrease in earthquakes 141. Major concern about global warming arises from
d. a decrease in atmosphere CO2 increased concentrations of ________.
130. The largest impact features on the Moon are the a. greenhouse gases
_______. b. photochemical smog
a. maria c. craters c. nitrogen oxides
b. rays d. plains d. sulfur oxides
131. It is impossible to determine exactly and 142. Which of the following is NOT a general physical
simultaneously the particle properties of ______. feature of the Moon’s surface?
a. charge and position a. regolith c. terminator
b. charge and mass b. plains d. rays
c. position and velocity 143. The largest impact features on the Moon are the
d. velocity and momentum _______.
132. The planet which has NO Moon is ______. a. plains c. maria
a. Venus c. Jupiter b. craters d rays.
b. Mars d. Earth
133. When analysed with a spectrometer, light from an 144. The two daily high tides are due mainly to the
incandescent source produces _____spectrum. ____.
a. parallel c. perpendicular a. Moon’s gravitational force lifting the
b. direct d. continuous ocean water away from the solid Earth
b. gravitational forces between the Sun and
Earth
 c. differential gravitational attraction of the
Moon because of the inverse-square
relationship
d. gravitational forces between the Sun and
Moon
145. Quasars ________.
a. are very large objects
b. were first detected by radio telescopes
c. are very small objects
d. exhibit blue shifts in their spectrum
146. The statement which is true is that the Moon
__________.
a. revolves around the Earth in 31 days
b. is the second-brightest object in the sky
c. has an appreciable magnetic field
d. surface gravity is 1/81 that of the Earth
147. Early telescopes showed stars as only point of
light, while the planets appeared to be much
larger, providing evidences that stars must
______________.
a. be much farther from Earth than planets
b. travel in elliptical orbits like planets
c. reflect much more light than planets
d. be more plentiful in our solar system then
planets
148. The outer boundary of the solar system is thought
to be as much as ________ astronomical units
from the Sun.
a. 100,000 c. 10,000
b. 75,000 d. 40,000
149. What is the downslope movement of overburden
under the influence of gravity called?
a. solifluction c. mudflow
b. mass wasting d. slump
150. Reasonable values for the absolute dates for
sedimentary rocks are determined by ________.
a. relating them to igneous rock
b. relating them to time scale
c. the geologic time scale
d. radiometrically dating them