UBND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10 THPT CẤP TỈNH

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
Ngày thi: 19/01/2022
(Đề thi có 09 trang)

CHÚ Ý:
Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi
Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết đáp án: A, hoặc B, C, D.
Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài.
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì.)

A. LISTENING
I. You will hear five short conversations. For each question, write your answer, A, B or C
on your answersheet.(5 pts.)
1. Which dress is Kate talking about?

A B C
2.Which house do William and Jane live in?

A B C
3. Which photograph is the woman talking about?

A B C

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 4. Which morning activity is for beginners?

A B C
5. How does the girl decide to finish the dessert?

A B C

II. You are going to listen to two conversations and answer the questions that follow.
CONVERSATION 1:
You will hear a radio interview with Jack Williams, who is talking about a town called
Swanton. For each question, write your answer A, B or C on your answer sheet. (3 pts.)
6. Where is the town of Swanton located?
A. By a lake B. Near the sea C. On a hill
7. What does Jack like most about living in Swanton?
A. There are opportunities of climbing nearby.
B. There is plenty of activity in the town.
C. There is interesting wildlife near the town.
8. What does Jack say about entertainment in Swanton?
A. A music festival takes place in the town.
B. Its football club has done well club this year.
C. An arts centre was opened one year ago.
CONVERSATION 2:
You will hear an interview with a scientist about memory. For each question, write your
answer, A, B or C on your answer sheet. (2 pts.)
9. When registering information, we ____________.
A. store it in a safe place and change it
B. change it into an understandable form for the brain
C. change it into a suitable form and recall it
10. When trying to memorize a long phone number, Dr. Willard says we should____________.
A. repeat the number again and again
B. focus on each individual number separately
C. divide the number in smaller parts

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III. You will hear a talk in an architectural agency. Listen and fill in each space with NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS. (5 pts.)

Lighting :
- Put a large lamp in corner near (11) ____________.
- Hang (12)____________ on the walls.
Window treatment:
- Change blinds to (13)____________.
- Color? Maybe (14)____________.
Flooring:
-Replace carpet with (15) ____________ flooring.
Extras:
-Maybe add (16) ____________near TV.

IV. You will hear two friends, a boy, Rolf, and a girl, Maria, talking about the jobs they
would like to do in the future. Listen and decide whether the statements are True (T) or
False (F) by writing T or F on your answer sheet. (4 pts.)

STATEMENTS T F
17. Maria is confident she will be able to work for an airline.
18. Rolf intends to do a job connected with his degree.
19. Maria and Rolf agree it is important to have a good salary.
20. Rolf’s ambition is to manage his own company one day.

B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY - LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS

I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which indicates the best option to complete each
of the following blanks. (8 pts.)
21. He has been unable to find a job _________ with his ability as an accountant.
A. commensurate B. suitable C. requisite D. appropriate
22. The number of working women in China _________ from 49% in 1980 to nearly 65% today.
A. increased B. has increased C. is increasing D. have increased
23. Giving up smoking is just one of the ways to _________ heart disease.
A. turn off B. put off C. ward off D. switch off
24. I like my new job, yet the only fly in the _________is the fact that I have to work every other
weekend.
A. fat B. porridge C. soup D. ointment
25. _________made him more admirable.
A. What he gained his control of the situation after lots of difficulties
B. That he gained his control of the situation after lots of difficulties
C. Although he gained his control of the situation after lots of difficulties
D. Because he gained his control of the situation after lots of difficulties
26. Our project was successful _________ its practicality.

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 A. with a view to B. on behalf of C. regardless of D. in terms of
27. Julia is chatting to her close friend, Sue.
Julia: “If only I hadn’t lent him all my money!” Sue: “________________”
A. Well, you did. So it’s no use crying over spilt milk.
B. All right. You will be OK.
C. I’m sorry to hear that. You owed him.
D. No problem. The more, the merrier.
28. Mike and Joe are talking about transport in the future.
Mike: “Do you think there will be pilotless planes?” Joe: “________________”
A. Yes, of course. They were an innovation of the previous century.
B. What for? There are quite a few around.
C. Why not? There have been cars without drivers.
D. No, there’s nothing impossible with modern technology.

II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (5 pts.)

29. The search for a new vaccine will take ____________ over all (PRIOR)
other medical research.
30. The damage caused by the terrible storm two days ago was (ESTIMATE)
_____________. The real figures go up every minute.
31. That woman is _____________ pleasant, but her younger sister is (CONSIDER)
a little unfriendly.
32. The policy is _____________ and will cost the government a lot (ECONOMY)
of money.
33. Barrack Obama is the first President of the United States with (RACE)
_____________ background.
II. Choose the underlined part in each of the following questions that needs correcting.
(3pts.)
34. Children who do not have normal living conditions as others are the disadvantaged ones.
A. Children B. normal living C. as others D. the disadvantaged
35. Vladimir Putin is a prominently political leader not only in Russia but in the world as well.
A. prominently B. leader C. but D. as well
36. You’d better not forget your documents at home in case the interviewer wants to see it.
A. not forget B. in case C. wants D. it
IV. Choose the word/ phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the
following sentences. (2 pts.)
37. We need a proper investigation to get to the bottom of things.
A. read bottom-up B. climb from the bottom to the top
C. drive up the street D. find the true explanation or the state of affairs
38. Phosphorus is used in paints for highway signs and markers because it is luminous at night.
A. intensive B. adequate C. bright D. attractive

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V. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the
following sentences. (2 pts.)
39. Music can also help you relax and feel rejuvenated.
A. bored B. aged C. tired D. saddened
40. There's a world of difference between being a teacher and a student.
A. a great similarity B. a yawning gap C. a radical change D. a great division

C. READING
I. There are FIVE blanks in the text below. From the options A, B, C, D, E and F in the
box, choose ONE suitable phrase for each blank. Each option is used ONCE only.(5 pts.)

A. the burial urn

B. the bones
C. an abandoned plantation
D. a team of researchers
E. a significant archaeological discovery
F. the proof

The Éfaté Burial Site

A 3,000-year-old burial ground of a seafaring people called the Lapita has been found on
(41) _________ on the Pacific island of Éfaté. The cemetery, which is (42) _________ was
uncovered accidentally by an agricultural worker.
The Lapita explored and colonized many Pacific islands over several centuries. They took
many things with them on their voyages including animals and tools.
The burial ground increases the amount of information about the Lapita available to
scientists. At present, (43)_________, led by Matthew Spriggs from the Australian National
University, are helping with the excavation of the site. Spriggs believes (44)_________ which
was found at the site is very important since it confirms that (45) _________ excavated inside
are Lapita.
II.Read the following text and choose the best heading among for each paragraph. (5 pts.)
List of Headings
A. Departure procedures
B. Observation area
C. Baggage services
D. Healthcare services
E. Departure fees
F. Tourist travel center
Auckland International Airport Services
46. [Paragraph 1: _______]
The second floor of the international terminal offers a view of the airfield and all incoming
and outgoing flights. There is a café situated here as well as a restaurant, which is available for
all airport visitors to use.

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47. [Paragraph 2: _______]
We are open for all international flights and provide a comprehensive service for visitors to
the city. Brochures on a range of attractions are available, and we also offer a booking service for
accommodation and transport. Shuttle buses into the city centre are provided at a competitive
price.
48. [Paragraph 3: _______]
Passengers who require urgent medical attention should dial 9877 on any public telephone
in the terminal. The airport pharmacy is located on the ground floor near the departure lounge,
and stocks a comprehensive range of products.
49. [Paragraph 4: _______]
Departing passengers can completely seal their luggage or packages in recyclable
polythene to protect them from damage. Luggage storage, charged at $10 per hour, is available
on the first floor. Transit passengers have free access to storage facilities.
50. [Paragraph 5: _______]
Every international passenger, with the exception of children under 12 years of age and
transit passengers in Auckland for less than 24 hours, is required to make a payment of $25 when
leaving the country. This can be arranged at the National Bank on the ground floor.
III. Read the passage and decide which option A, or B, C, D best fits each space.(10 pts.)
Does the Moon Affect Your Behavior?
For thousands of years, the moon has caught our (51) _________ .It is widely believed to
be associated with things that (52)_________ out after dark like wolves and witches. The moon
has long been considered to have magical (53)_________, which places it in the list of
supernatural symbols. Despite moon-landings in the second half of this century, the idea that the
moon (54)_________ our minds and bodies remains popular. American studies have reported
more murders (55)_________ full moon, more bleeding during surgery, a greater (56)_________
of accidents and suicides, and more disturbed behaviour in psychiatric hospitals. This apparent
lunar influence has been called the “Transylvania effect”. In fact, there are at least two theories
put (57)_________ by scientists claiming to explain this effect. (58)_________, Ivan Kelly of
the University of Saskatchewan and James Rotton of Florida International University found that
the “Transylvania effect” did not actually exist at all. Furthermore, they (59)_________ the
“Transylvania effect” theories, saying they were scientifically incorrect. Kelly claims “moon
moods” are probably (60)_________ by psychological factors. “If you believe the moon affects
you, you may alter your behavior accordingly. There is no magic involved at all.”
51. A. breath B. thoughts C. imagination D. minds
52. A. take B. come C. give D. make
53. A. talents B. gifts C. strengths D. powers
54. A. affects B. reacts C. adopts D. moves
55. A. at B. on C. in D. before
56. A. amount B. number C. amounts D. numbers
57. A. on B. away C. forward D. up
58. A. However B. Moreover C. Otherwise D. Probably

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 59. A. sacked B. rejected C. dropped D. refused
60. A. thought B. made C. invented D. caused
IV. Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question. (10 pts.)
Albert Einstein, a German born in March, 1879, is probably the most famous physicist in
history. Einstein became interested in physics at an early age. When he was 5 years old, his
father showed him a compass. Even at that young age, Einstein comprehended that something in
space was making the needle move. From this early interest, Einstein would grow to become the
physicist that formulated the special and general theories of relativity. He also contributed to the
quantum theory and statistical mechanics. He received the Nobel Prize in Physics for his
explanation of the photoelectric effect and for his contributions to Theoretical Physics. However,
it was his Theory of Relativity that made Einstein a household name, and people associated
Einstein with the word “genius”.
When Einstein saw that Newtonian mechanics was insufficient, he first began his scientific
work. It could not make the laws of mechanics agree with the laws of the electromagnetic field.
Einstein theorized that a theory of relativity must take the theory of gravitation into
consideration. Therefore, Newton’s law of gravity was not completely accurate. Einstein’s
equation E=mc2 replaced Newton’s law of gravity. Einstein’s theory was believed correct
because it took electromagnetic phenomena into consideration. It also made allowance for a
characteristic of gravitation specifically in that it curves over space and time. This meant that
matter such as a planet or a star could make space and time curve in response to the matter that
existed. This theory was important because it took into consideration the fact that the universe is
constantly changing and expanding.
Einstein’s works formed an important part of the foundation of modern physics, and
brought great fame to Einstein. Nevertheless, they were completed without conferring with his
scientific colleagues and with very little reference to existing scientific reading materials. For
this reason, many scientists were resentful of him. However, Einstein truly deserved fame.
61. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Albert Einstein is the most famous genius in the field of physics.
B. Albert Einstein made great contributions to modern physics.
C. Einstein and Newton could not agree on what gravity is.
D. The Theory of Relativity is an improvement over Newton’s law of gravity.
62. The word “quantum” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. the smallest amount of something B. the moderate amount of something
C. the equivalent amount of something D. the largest amount of something
63. Which of the following can be inferred from the underlined sentence in paragraph 1?
A. Not many households knew the name Einstein and he was a genius.
B. The Theory of Relativity was introduced to households and applied to living life.
C. It was hard for people to understand the Theory of Relativity because Einstein was very brilliant.
D. The Theory of Relativity made Einstein known to everyone as a genius.
64. According to the passage, what stimulated Einstein’s interest in physics?
A. Planets and stars in outer space. B. The movement of a compass needle.
C. Physics literature. D. An error in Newton’s law of gravity.

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65. According to the passage, what was the reason for the imprecision in Newton’s law of gravity?
A. It wasn’t in accordance with the law of electromagnetic field.
B. It connected to the fact that the universe is constantly changing and expanding.
C. It was replaced by Einstein’s equation E=mc2.
D. It took the theory of mechanics into consideration.
66. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Einstein’s theory B. a characteristic of gravitation
C. electromagnetic phenomena D. Newton’s law of gravity
67. Why does the author mention a planet or a star in paragraph 2?
A. To suggest that matter is large in size.
B. To show that only stars and planets exist in space
C. To provide an example of matter
D. To support the idea that the universe is changing
68. All of the following were mentioned about Einstein’s works EXCEPT________.
A. they formed a significant part of modern physics’ framework
B. Einstein high reputation was built on them.
C. they were completed in the absence of consulting his scientific colleagues
D. existing scientific reading materials were a principal source of reference for them
69. The word “resentful” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assured B. devoted C. irritated D. engrossed
70. Which of the following best describes the author’s opinion of Albert Einstein?
A. critical B. neutral C. indifferent D. appreciative

D. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it.(5 pts.)

71. He gradually became absent-minded as he grew old.

The older.............................................................................................................................................
72. The decorators have finished the whole of the first floor.
We have
73. Kate feels regretted now because she behaved badly towards the guests at the party.
Had......................................................................................................................................................
74. Gary is proud of the fact that he is never late.
Gary takes...........................................................................................................................................
75. Everyone must admit that prevention is better than cure.
There is no..........................................................................................................................................

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II. (10 pts.) Below is a part of a letter you’ve received from an English friend, Sarah.

“… I’ve just seen an interesting programme about sea

turtles on television. Which programme have you enjoyed
recently?...”

Write a letter of about 80 - 100 words, replying Sarah.

 In your letter, you should:
- give a brief description of the programme.
- explain why you find the programme interesting.
- state the positive effect(s) the programme has on you.
 You are required to sign your name as Mai Anh.

III. Some people believe that teenagers now suffer from various sources of pressures. Do
you agree or disagree with their view? In about 200 - 220 words, write an essay to express
your opinion. (15 pts.)

=== THE END ===

Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………………………. Số báo danh:……………………

Họ và tên cán bộ coi thi số 1:………………………………………………….Chữ ký:……..…………………….
Họ và tên cán bộ coi thi số 2:………………………………………………….Chữ ký:……..…………………….

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 SỞ GD & ĐT ĐỀ CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH
HẢI DƯƠNG LỚP 10
TRƯỜNG THPT TUỆ TĨNH Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
(Đề thi gồm 05 trang )
Học sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi.
Phần trắc nghiệm: chỉ cần viết chữ cái A B,C, hoặc D
Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài.
( Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì)
A. LISTENING (10 points)
Hướng dẫn cho phần nghe hiểu: Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh nghe 2 lần. Mở
đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có
trong bài nghe.
Part 1. Listen to the recording and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false
(F). You will hear the recording twice. (5 points)
Statements T F
Question 1:The children’s show is at the library.
Question 2: The show begins at 3.30p.m.
Question 3: A child’s ticket costs 75p.
Question 4: The holiday reading course is for 6 weeks.
Question 5: This year from the library, children can win a book
Part 2. Listen to Sue, talking to her friend, Jim about the news sports centre. Choose the
best answer A, B, C or D to each question. You will hear the recording twice. (5 points)
6.Which bus goes to the sports centre?
A. 15 B. 18 C.25 D.20
7.From Monday to Saturday, the sports centre is open from _____.
A. 6 a.m B. 7a.m C. 9a.m D. 10a.m
8.If Sue goes swimming, she must take__________.
A. soap B. a swimming hat C. a towel D. glasses
9.At the sport centre, you can buy __________.
A. sandwiches B. fruit C. drinks D.pizzas
10.Jim and Sue are going to the sports centre next __________.
A.Wednesday B. Thursday C.Saturday D. Sunday
B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I.Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (18.0
points):
1. It's a good idea to see your doctor regularly for _______.
A. a revision B. a control C. an investigation D. a check-up
2. We were all hungry, so she suggested ___________ dinner early.
A. to have B. having C. had D. have
3.___________ he practised hard, he didn’t pass the driving test.
A. As long as B. Even though C. In spite of D. Provided that
4. _______from Bill, all the students said they would go
A. Except B. Only C. Apart D. Separate
5. Tam ___________go fishing with his brother when he was young.
A. used to B. is used to C. has used to D. was used to
6. The _________of waste paper can save a great amount of wood pulp.
A. recycle B. recyclable C. recyclement D. recycling

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7. Do you know all the guests ________ to the party ?
A. inviting B. invited C. who invited D. were invited
8. We didn’t ________to the station in time to catch the train.
A. reach B. arrive C. get D. lead
9. Take your coat with you_______it gets cold later.
A. if B. as long as C. when D. in case
10. John wasn’t at work yesterday. He ______
A. must have been ill. B. must be ill.
C. must have ill . D. must to be ill.
11. I’ll give you ten minutes to come ______ with a better idea.
A. out B. in C. through D. up
12. Alice : “ What shall we do this evening?” Carol: “ ___________ ”
A. Let’s go out for dinner. B. No problem. C. Thank you. D. You are very
kind.
13. As she arrived at the theatre, she remembered that she_______to meet a friend
somewhere else
A. promised B. had promised C. has promised D. promised
14. The children________to the zoo.
A. were enjoyed taken B. enjoyed being taken C. were enjoyed taking D. enjoyed taking
15. I am late because my alarm clock didn’t _______this morning.
A. come on B. ring out C. go off D. turn on
16. He is thought________ in a foreign country when he was 20.
A. to work B. to have worked C. working D. has worked
17. We got our car_______yesterday.
A. wash B. to wash C. washing D. washed
18. . Mr Ha: "I've been promoted. Now I'm the marketing manager." Mr Binh:
“___________!”
A. Congratulations B. Good luck C. You are really lucky D. You are
welcomed
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5.0 points):
19. The fuel (CONSUME)______________ of this car is rather high.
20. His boss told him off because he had behaved (RESPONSIBLE)______________.

21. Saucepans are sold in the (HOUSE)___________goods department.

22. He claimed that his (BRING UP) ___________had caused him to become a criminal.
23. Watching TV has become one of the most popular
forms(ENTERTAIN)._____________.
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (3.0
points):
24. For more than 450 years, Mexico City has been the economic, culture, and political
A B

centre of Mexican people.

C D
25. If you need to keep fit, then why not take on a sport such as badminton or tennis?
A B C D

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26. I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been working like a teacher
for
A B C D
a long time.
IV. Choose the word / phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word /
phrase in the following questions (2.0 points):

27. Parents are recommended to collaborate with teachers in educating children.

A. separate B. disagree C. part D. cooperate

28. The government needs to seek a solution to prevent domestic violence as soon as
possible.

A. recreation B. keyword C. remedy D. technique

V. Choose the word / phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in
the following questions (2.0 points):
29. If the candidates can perform well and impress the interviewers during the interview,
they can be recruited.
A. dismissed B. taken on C. employed D. chosen
30. Josh may get into hot water when driving all full speed after drinking.
A. get into trouble B. stay safe C. fall into disuse D. remain calm

C. READING:
I. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the
most suitable for each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don’t need all
of them. (5 points).
A. create B. reserve C. amount D. prevent
E. quantity F. preserve G. destruction H.demand
Today in China where large scale (1)_______ of forests has occurred, the government
has required that every citizen between the age of 11 and 60 plant three to five trees per year
or do the equivalent (2)_____ of work in other forest services. The government claims that at
least 1,000 million trees have been planted in China every year since 1982. In Western
countries, increasing consumer (3)_____ for wood products that have been produced causes
forest land-owners and forest industries to become increasingly accountable for their forest
management and timber harvesting practices.
The Arbor Day Foundation’s Rain Forest Rescue programme is a charity that helps to
(4)_______ deforestation. The charity uses money to buy up and (5)_______ rainforest land
before the lumber companies can buy it. The Arbor Day Foundation then protect the land
from deforestation.
II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space
(10 points)
During the 20th century the pace of technology development in cameras and photography
continued at an accelerated pace much like many (6)______technology developments. While
several key (7) _____ like car, telephone and the gramophone record happened in the later
half of the 19th century, it is the last 100 years that saw major developmental work in many

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areas of communications technology as well as in other fields, fax machines and the Internet,
to name (8) _____.
In the (9)_____ of the camera, the developments simplified the whole process of
photography, (10)_____ it accessible to one and all at affordable (11)_____ and the camera
industry denizens of our times made it into a mass phenomenon. The first mass use camera
became available (12)_____ the turn of the 20th century and can be traced back to the year
1900. There are hundreds of (13)_____ of cameras available today both for the amateur as
well as the (14)_____ and the camera is an important (15)_____ of any family's repertoire of
gadgets.
6. A. other B. another C. others D. an other
7. A. discoveries B. products C. works D. inventions
8. A. a few B. a lot C. few D. several
9. A. example B. case C. situation D. part
10. A. letting B. finding C. making D. causing
11. A. prices B. costs C. values D. expenses
12. A. at B. in C. on D. for
13. A. kinds B. products C. series D. models
14. A. profession B. professional C. unprofessional D. professor
15. A. kind B. job C. part D. work
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer (10 points).
Walt Disney was born in 1901 in Chicago, but soon moved to a small farm near
Marceline, Missouri. From this rural and rather humble beginning he later became one of the
most famous and beloved motion-picture producers in history. Although he died in 1966, his
name and artistic legacy continue to influence the lives of millions of people throughout the
world.
After several years of barely making ends meet as a cartoon artist operating from his Los
Angeles garage, Disney had his first success in 1928, with his release of a Mickey Mouse
cartoon. Throughout the next decade, he continued to produce a number of cartoons, and
develop more of his highly profitable and enduring creations, such as Donald Duck and
Pluto. In the late 1930s, he issued full-length cartoon films. Snow White became an instant
commercial and critical success. This was only the first of many films, both animated and
not, produced by Disney and his studio.
But as renowned as Disney name is for cartoons and movies, it is probably best known
for a string of spectacular amusement and theme parks. Starting with California’s Disneyland
in 1955 and culminating with the fantastically successful Disney World and EPCOT Center
in Florida, Disney became a household name. In recent years, the theme park concept
became international, with openings in Toyo and Paris. With the continuing success of
Disney, the creations of future theme parks are under discussion.
16. Which of the following is the title for the passage?
A. Walt Disney and his Legacy. B. The history of Disney World and
Disneyland.
C. Walt Disney’s Boyhood Years. D. Walt Disney and Animated Cartoons.
17. The word “humble” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. simple B. shy C. boring D. respectful
18. What is the author’s attitude toward the accomplishments of Walt Disney?
A. critical B. approving C. ambivalent D. respectful
19. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. Disney first achieved success after his death.
B. Mickey Mouse was Disney’s only cartoon creation.

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 C. Snow White was the first full-length cartoon film.
D. Disney’s first concern was always profitability.
20. In paragraph 2, “barely making ends meet” is closest in meaning to __________.
A. trying new businesses B. producing only a few cartoons
C. not making much money D. meeting personal failure
21. The word “enduring” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. difficult B. suffering C. famous D. lasting
22. The word “renowned” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________ .
A. possessed B. talked about C. useful D. well-known
23. It can be inferred from the passage that________.
A. Snow White was Disney’s most successful film.
B. Disney created cartoon movies and “non-cartoon” movies.
C. the Tokyo theme park is in financial difficulty.
D. the California theme park is now closed.
24. The word “concept” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. idea B. location C. birth D. demand
25. In future years, it is most likely that___________ .
A . the remaining theme parks will also close B. Disney will produce only
cartoons
C. the Paris theme park will become successful D. the Disney name will stay well
known
D. WRITING(35points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before (10 points):
1. You can try to get Mark to lend you his car but you won’t succeed.
=> There’s no point __________________________________________________________.
2. Nobody can deny that she has a beautiful voice.
=> It can’t________________________________________________________________.
3. John could do his homework because his sister helped him.
=>Without _________________________________________________________________.
4. The plane had hardly left the airport when a big problem occurred.
=> No sooner _______________________________________________________________.
5. We haven’t seen each other for 5 years.
=> The last time _____________________________________________________________.
II. You are on holiday in a town by the sea. Write a postcard about 80 words to your
friend, Sam.(10 points)
In your postcard you should
*explain why you choose this town for a holiday
*describe something you have enjoyed doing on your holiday
* arrange to meet Sam when you return.

III. Nowadays more and more secondary school students are using mobile phones,
which is one of the matters of great concern. Write a paragraph of 150-180 words about
the disadvantages of using mobile phones among secondary students. (15 points)
=== THE END ===

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 KEY
A. LISTENING (10 points)
Part 1. Listen to the recording and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false
(F). You will hear the recording twice. (5 points)
( 1 point for each correct answer)
1.T 2.F 3T 4.T 5.F
Part 2. Listen to Sue, talking to her friend, Jim about the news sports centre. Choose the
best answer A, B, C or D to each question. You will hear the recording twice. (5 points)
6.B 7.A 8C 9A 10B
B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS(30 points)
1D 2B 3B 4C 5A 6D 7B 8C 9D 10A
11D 12A 13B 14B 15C 16B 17D 18A
19. CONSUMPTION
20. IRRESPONSIBLY
21. HOUSEHOLD
22. UPBRINGING
23. ENTERTAINMENT
24B 25C 26D 27D 28C 29A 30B
D. READING(25points)
I. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the
most suitable for each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don’t need all
of them.(5 points).
( 1 point for each correct answer)
1.G 2. C 3. H 4.D 5. F

II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
(10 points)
( 1 point for each correct answer)
6. A 11. A
7. D 12. A
8. A 13. D
9. B 14. B
10. C 15. C
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer (10 points). ( 1 point for each
correct answer)
16. A 21. D
17. A 22. D
18. B 23. B
19.C 24. A
20.C 25. D
D. WRITING(35 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before (10 points):

1. There’s no point in getting Mark to lend you his car.

2. It can’t be denied (that) she has a beautiful voice.

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3. Without his sister / his sister’s help, he couldn’t / wouldn’t have done his homework.
4. No sooner had the plane left the airport than a big problem occurred.
5.The last time we saw each other was 5 years ago.

II.(10 points)
1. Form: (1 points)
- Correct form
- Easy to follow
- Coherent
2. Content: (5 points)
- Successful fulfillment of the task
3. Language: (4 points)
- Appropriate vocabulary
- Suitable connectors
- Correct grammar
- Punctuating / Spelling

III: (15.0 points)

1. Form: (2 points)
- Correct form
- Easy to follow
- Coherent
2. Content: (7 points)
- Successful fulfillment of the task
3. Language: (6 points)
- Appropriate vocabulary
- Suitable connectors
- Correct grammar
- Punctuating / Spelling