Knowledge Assessment SAA

Part 1

1. With amazon virtual private cloud (VPC) what is the smallest size subnet you can have in
VPC?
A: / 28
2. With Amazon VPC, what is the maximum IP address rangeyou can have?
A: /16
3. You need to allow resources in private subnet to access the internet. Which of the following
must be present to enable access ?
A: NAT gateway
4. Which AWS networking service enables a company to create a virtual network within AWS?
A: Amazon VPC
5. Private subnets have direct access to internet ?
A: False
6. Which component of AWS global infrastructure does Amazon cloud front to ensure low
latency delivery?
A: AWS edge locations
7. Which of the following is an optional security control that can be applied at the subnet layer
if VPC?
A: Network ACL
8. What happens when you use amazon virtual private cloud (Amazon VPC) to create a new
VPC ?
A: route table is created by default; must manually create subnets and internet gateway
9. Which of the following can be used to protect amazon elastic compute cloud (EC2) instance
hosted in AWS?
A: Security Group
10. You are a solution architect who works at a large retail company that is migrating its existing
infrastructure to aws. You recommend that they use a cutom VPC. When you create a VPC,
you assign it to IPv4, how many IP address are available
A: 251

Part 2

1. For certain service like Amazon elastic compute cloud and amazon relational database
service (RDS) you can invest in reserved capacity. What options are available for reserved
Instance? Choose 3
A: AURI, NURI, PURI
2. Where can a customer go to get more details about EC2 billing activity that took place 3
months ago ?
A: AWS cost explorer
3. True or False, to receive the discounted rate associated with reserved isntances, you must
make a full, upfront payment for the term of the agreement?
A: False
4. There is no charge for which of the following. Choose 2.
A: Inbound data transfer (with some exceptions); data transfer between services within the
same AWS region
5. What are the 4 support plans offered by aws support ?
 A: Basic, developer, business, enterprise
6. What aws tool compares the cost of running your application in an on-premises data center
to aws?
A: TCO (Total Cost Ownership) Calculator
7. As AWS grows, thecost of doing business is reduced and savings are passed back to the
customer with lower pricing. What is this optimisation called?
A: Econimic of scale
8. True or False. AWS offers a variety of services at no charge, for example VPC, IAM. But you
might be charged for other AWS services that you use in conjunction with these services
A: True
9. When are free data transfers applicable across AWS? Choose 2
A: Free inbound data transfer; free oubond data transfer between AWS services within the
same region
10. True or False. Unlimited services are available with the AWS free tier to new AWS customers
for 12 months following their AWS sign update ?
A: False

Part 3

1. true or false. amazon simple storage service s3 is an object storage suitable for the storage
of flat files like microsoft word documents, photos, etc
A: true
2. amazon s3 replicates all objects?
A: in multiple availability zones within the same region
3. which of the following can be used as a storage class for an s3 object lifecycle policy?
A: glacier, s3 infrequent access and s3 standard access
4. the name of an s3 bucket must be unique?
A: worldwide across all aws accounts
5. you can use amazon elastic file system efc to..?
A: implement storage for ec2 instances that multiple virtual machines can access at the
same time
6. amazon elastic block storage ebs is a recommended when data?
A: must be quickly accessible, requiring longterm persistence and requires an encryption
solution
7. true or false, by default all data stored in amazon s3 is viewable by the public?
A: False
8. regarding amazon s3 glacier, what is a vault?
A: container for storing archives
9. when you create a bucket in amazon s3, it is associated with a specific aws region?
A: Trure
10. which of the following are features of amazon elastic block store ebs?
A: data is automatically replicated within an availability zone, can be encrypted upon
creation and used by an instance, as if they were not encrypted

Part 4.

1. why is aws more economical than traditional data centers for applications with varying
compute workloads?
A: amazon ec2 instances can be launched on demand when needed
 2. if your project requires monthly reports that iterate through very large amounts of data,
which amazon elastic compute cloud ec2 purchasing option should you consider?
A: scheduled reserved instances
3. what is included in an amazon machine image ami?
A: all of the above (what)?
4. which amazon elastic compute cloud ec2 feature ensures your instances will not share a
physical host with instances from any other aws customer?
A: dedicated instances
5. which of the following services is a serverless compute service in aws?
A: aws lambda
6. what is the service provided by aws that enables developers to easily deploy and manage
applications in the cloud?
A: aws elastic beanstalk
7. your web application needs four instances to support steady traffic all of the time. on the
last day of the month, the traffic triples. what is the most cost-effective way to handle this
patter?
A: run four reserved instances constantly, then add eight on-demand instances on the last
day of each month.
8. containers contain an entire operating system?
A: False
9. which amazon ec2 optiion is best for long-term workload with predictable usage patterns?
A: reserved instances
10. which of the following must be specified when launching a new amazon elastic cloud
compute ec2 windows instance
A: amazon machine image ami, amazon ec2 instance type

Part 5.

1. you are designing an ecommerce web application that will scale to hundreds of thousand of
concurrent users. what database technology is best suited to hold session state?
A: amazon DynamoDB
2. you need to find an item in an amazon dynamoDB table using an attribute other than item's
primary key?
A: Scan
3. in amazon dynamoDB, what does the query operation enable you to do?
A: query a table using partition key and an optional sort key filter
-query any secondary indexes that exist for a table
-efficiently retrieve items form a table or secondary index
4. which AWS cloud service is best suited for analysing your data by using standard structured
query language(SQL) and existing business intelligence (BI) tools
A: amazon redshift
5. in amazon dynamoDB, an attribute is?
A: fundamental data element
6. which of the following use cases is appropriate for using amazon relational database services
(amazon RDS)?
A: complex transactions
7. a company has an application, which consists of .NET layer that connects to mysql database
-they want to move this application to AWS and use AWS features such as high availability
and automated backups. which of the following would be an ideal database for this use case
 A: Amazon Aurora
8. if you are developing an application that requires a database with extremely fast
performance, fast scalability, and flexibility in database schema, which service should you
consider
A: amazon DynamoDB
9. amazon RDS automatically patches the database software and backs up your database
storing the backups for a user defined retention period and enabling point in time recovery?
A: True
10. what should you consider when choosing a database type?
A: data size, data access period, query frequency, highly available

Part 6

1. which of the following is not one of the four areas of the performance efficiency pillar of the
aws well-architected framework?
A: Traceability
2. which of the following is a principle when designing cloud-based systems
A: Assume everything will fail
3. which of the following are pillars of the aws well-architected framework?
A: operational excellence, security, cost optimization
4. which design principles are recommended when considering performance efficiency
A: use serverless architectures, democratize advanced technologies
5. aws trusted advisor provides insight regarding which five categories of an aws account
A: performance, cost optimization, security, fault tolerance, and service limits
6. aws well-architectured framework is organized into how many pillars
A: five
7. after you move to the aws cloud, you want to ensure that the right security settings are put
in place. which online tool can assist in security compliance?
A: AWS Trusted Advisor
8. which of the following is a measure of your system's ability to provide functionality when
desired by the user?
A: reliability
9. what is defined as the ability for a system to remain operational even if some of the
components of that system fail?
A: Fault tolerance
10. which of the following best describes a system that can withstand some measures of
degradation, experiences minimal downtime, and requires minimal human intervention?
A: Highly available

Part 7

1. Which of the following AWS tools help your application scale up or down based on demand?
A: Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
Elastic Load Balancing
2. Which service would you use to send alerts based on Amazon CloudWatch alarms?
A: Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
3. Which of the following are characteristics of Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling?
Choose three
 A: Responds to changing conditions by adding or terminating instances
Launches instances from a specified Amazon Machine Image (AMI)
Enforces a minimum number of running Amazon EC2 instances
4. Which of the following must be configured on an Elastic Load Balancing load balancer to
expect incoming traffic
A: A Lsitener (what is it?)
5. Which of the following elements are used to create an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling launch
configuration?
A: Amazon Machine Image (AMI)
Instance type
Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes
6. Which of the following services can help you conflict important metrics from Amazon
Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) and Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)
instances?
A: Amazon CloudTrail
7. Which of the following are elements of an Auto Scaling group
(Choose three)
A: Maximum size
Desired capacity
Minimum size
8. There is an adult at your company and they need to have a big log of all access to AWS
resources in the account. Which of the following services can assist in providing these
details?
A: AWS CloudTrail
9. In Elastic Load Balancing, when the load balancing detects an unhealthy target, which of the
following are true
(Choose three)
A: Stops routing traffic to that target
Resumes routing traffic when it detects that the target is healthy again
Routes traffic to a healthy target
10. What are the three types of load balancers that Elastic Load Balancing offers?
(Choose three)
A: Application Load Balancer
Network Load Balancer
Classic Load Balancer

Part 8

1. in the shared responsibility model, aws is responsible for providing what?

A: security OF the cloud
2. in the shared responsibility model, which of the following are examples of "security in the
cloud"? choose 2
A: 1. encryption of data at rest and data in transit 2. security group configurations
3. which of the following is the responsibility of aws under the shared responsibility model?
A: maintaining physical hardware
4. when creating an aws identity and access management policy, what are the 2 types of access
that can be granted to a user? choose 2.
A: 1. aws management console access 2. programmatic access
 5. true or false. aws organizations enables you to consolidate multiple aws accounts so that
you centrally manage them
A: true
6. which of the following are best practices to secure your account using aws identity and
access management? choose 2.
A: 1. managing access to aws resources 2. defining fine-grained access rights
7. which of the following should be done by the aws account root user
A: change the aws support plan
8. after initial login, what does aws recommend as the best practice for the aws account root
user?
A: delete the access keys of the aws account root user
9. how would a system administrator add an additional layer of login security to a user's aws
management console?
A: enable multi-factor authentication
10. true or false. aws key management service (aws kms) enables you to assess, audit, and
evaluate the configurations of your aws resources
A: false. aws kms is a service that allows you to create and manage encryption keys and
control the use of encryption across a wide range of aws services and in your applications

Part 9

1. What is the best definition of cloud architecture?

A: Applying cloud characteristics to a solution that uses cloud services and features to
meet technical and business requirements
2. The AWS Well-Architected Framework has five pillars. Two of the pillars are security
and operational excellence. What are the other pillars of the Well-Architected
Framework? (Select THREE.)
A: Cost Optimisation; Performance efficiency; Reliability
3. Which actions are consistent with the operational excellence pillar of the AWS Well-
Architected Framework? (Select TWO.)
A: Apply software engineering principles and methodology to infrastructure as code;
Review and improve processes and procedures on a continuous cycle.
4. An application requires a frontend web tier of multiple servers that communicate with
a backend application tier of multiple servers. Which design most closely follows
Amazon Web Services (AWS) best practices?
A: Design the web tier to communicate with the application tier through the Elastic Load
Balancing service.
5. A solutions architect is developing a process for handling server failures. Which
process most closely follows Amazon Web Services (AWS) best practices?
A: Amazon CloudWatch detects a system failure. It triggers automation to provision a
new server.
6. A company wants to change some functionality of their website. They are unsure of
what will happen if they make the change. Which approach most closely follows
Amazon Web Services (AWS) best practices?
A: Provision a new server and make changes to it. Use DNS to gradually migrate users to
the new server. Shut down the original server after all users migrate.
7. A company stores read-only data in Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3).
Most users are in the same country as the company headquarters. Some users are
 located around the world. Which design decision most closely follows Amazon Web
Services (AWS) best practices?
A: Use a bucket in the AWS Region closest to the company headquarters. All users access
the data through Amazon CloudFront.
8. A consultant must access a large object in an S3 bucket. They need a day to access
the file. Which method for granting access most closely follows Amazon Web
Services (AWS) best practices?
A: Create a presigned URL to the object that expires in 24 hours, and give it to the
consultant.
9. What are the main considerations that influence which AWS Regions to use? (Select
TWO.)
A: Compliance with laws and regulations; Latency reduction for end users
10. What are the main considerations that influence which Availability Zones to use?
(Select TWO.
A: Application resiliency during system failures;  Protection against localized natural
disasters
Part 10

1. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) provide a good solution for which of the
following use cases?
A: An internet-accessible storage location for video files that an external website accesses
2. A company is interested in using Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) alone
to host their website, instead of a traditional web server. Which types of content does
Amazon S3 support for static web hosting? (Select THREE.)
A: Video and sound files; Client-side scripts; HTML files and image files
3. Which scenarios represent a good use for Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon
S3)? (Select TWO.)
A: Storing computation and analytics data; Backing up critical data
4. A company wants to use an S3 bucket to store sensitive data. Which actions can they
take to protect their data? (Select TWO.)
A: Using client-side encryption to protect data in transit; Enabling server-side encryption
on the S3 bucket after uploading sensitive data
5. A company must create a common place to store shared files. Which requirements
does Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) support? (Select TWO.)
A: Maintain different versions of files; Recover deleted files
6. A customer service team accesses case data daily for up to 30 days. Cases can be
reopened and require immediate access for 1 year after they are closed. Reopened
cases require 2 days to process. Which solution meets the requirements and is the
most cost-efficient?
A: Store case data in S3 Standard. Use a lifecycle policy to move the data into S3
Standard-Infrequent Access (S3 Standard-IA) after 30 days.
7. Which Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) unaccelerated data transfers
have an associated cost? (Select TWO.)
A: OUT to other AWS Regions; OUT to the internet
8. A company is migrating 100 terabytes (TB) of data from their on-premises data center
to Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3). The company connects to Amazon
Web Services (AWS) by using a single 155 megabits per second (Mbps) internet
connection. Which data transfer option is the fastest and most cost-effective?
 A: AWS Snowball
9. A video producer must regularly transfer several video files to Amazon Simple Storage
Service (Amazon S3). The files range from 100700 MB. The internet connection has
been unreliable, causing some uploads to fail. Which solution provides the fastest,
most reliable, and most cost-effective way to transfer these files to Amazon S3?
A: Amazon S3 multipart uploads
10. Which qualities vary by AWS Region? (Select TWO.)
A: Service and feature availability; Cost-effectiveness of workloads

Part 11

1. Which attributes are reasons to choose Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon
EC2)? (Select TWO.
A: Complete control of computing resources; Ability to run any type of workload
2. What are the benefits of using an Amazon Machine Image (AMI)? (Select THREE.)
A: Selling or sharing software solutions packaged as an AMI; Using an AMI as a server
backup for Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances; Launching instances
with the same configuration
3. A system administrator must change the instance types of multiple running Amazon
Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances. The instances were launched with a
mix of Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)-backed Amazon Machine Images
(AMIs) and instance store-backed AMIs. Which method is a valid way to change the
instance type?
A: Stop an Amazon EBS-backed instance , change its instance type, and start the instance.
4. A workload requires high read/write access to large local datasets. Which instance
types would perform best for this workload? (Select TWO.)
A: Storage optimized; Memory optimized
5. An application requires the media access control (MAC) address of the host Amazon
Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance. The architecture uses an AWS Auto
Scaling group to dynamically launch and terminate instances. Which way is best for
the application to obtain the MAC address?
A: Use the user data of each instance to access the MAC address through the instance
metadata.
6. A transactional workload on an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)
instance performs high amounts of frequent read and write operations. Which
Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume type is best for this workload?
A: Provisioned IOPS solid state drive (SSD)
7. It is possible to create an NFS share on an Amazon EBS-backed Linux instance by
installing and configuring an NFS server on the instance. In this way, multiple Linux
systems can share the file system of that instance. Which advantages does Amazon
Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) provide, compared to this solution? (Select TWO.)
A: High availability; Automatic scaling
8. Which feature does Amazon FSx for Windows File Server provide?
A: Fully managed Windows file servers
9. Which descriptions of Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) pricing options
are correct? (Select TWO.)
 A: Spot Instances offer spare compute capacity at discounted prices, and can be
interrupted; On-Demand Instances enable you to pay for compute capacity by usage time,
with no long-term commitments.
10. A company has three high-performance computing instances that must communicate
with each other. The company would like to achieve maximum network performance
between the instances. The most important requirement is that these systems do not
share the same rack. Which placement strategy should they use?
A: Spread

Part 12

1. Which use cases indicate that a non-relational database might be a better solution
than a relational database? (Select TWO.)
A: Data with unpredictable attributes; Horizontal scaling for massive data volume
2. Which statement that compares a database service that Amazon Web Services (AWS)
manages with a database on an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)
instance is true?
A: AWS manages DB patches for a database on a managed database service.
3. Which examples are good use cases for Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon
RDS)? (Select THREE.)
A: Running a Microsoft SQL Server in Amazon Web Services (AWS); An application that
requires complex joins of data; An application that requires the database to enforce
syntax rules
4. A small company is deciding which service to use for an enrollment system for their
online training website. Choices are MySQL on Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
(Amazon EC2), MySQL in Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS), and
Amazon DynamoDB. Which combination of use cases suggests using Amazon RDS?
(Select THREE.)
A: he company doesn't want to manage database patches; Student, course, and
registration data are stored in many different tables; The data is highly structured.
5. Which scenarios are good use cases for Amazon DynamoDB? (Select THREE.)
A: Document database for JavaScript Object Notation (JSON)-based documents;
Applications that require ACID transactions; Database for serverless architectures
 
6. A small game company is designing an online game, where thousands of players can
create their own in-game objects. The current design uses a MySQL database in
Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) to store data for player-created
objects. Which use cases suggest that DynamoDB might be a better solution? (Select
TWO.)
A: Unpredictable attributes for player-created objects; Large number of player-created
objects, each with different attributes
7. Which techniques should you use to secure an Amazon Relational Database Service
(Amazon RDS) database? (Select THREE.)

A: Encryption to protect sensitive data; A virtual private cloud (VPC) to provide instance isolation
and firewall protection; Security groups to control network access to individual instances

8. Which techniques should you use to secure Amazon DynamoDB? (Select THREE.)
A: Encryption to protect sensitive data; An Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) gateway
endpoint to prevent traffic from traversing the internet; AWS Identity and Access Management
(IAM) policies to define access at the table, item, or attribute level

9. A company wants to migrate their on-premises Oracle database to Amazon Aurora

MySQL. Which process describes the high-level steps?

A: Use AWS Schema Conversion Tool to convert the schema, and then use AWS Database
Migration Service (AWS DMS) to migrate the data.

10. You must perform a heterogeneous migration from your on-premises facility to a
database in a virtual private cloud (VPC). You will use AWS Snowball Edge and AWS
Database Migration Service (AWS DMS). At which point do you use AWS Schema
Conversion Tool (AWS SCT)?
A: At the start, to extract data from the source database into the Snowball Edge, before shipping
the device

Part 13:

1. Which definition describes a virtual private cloud (VPC)?

A: A logically isolated virtual network that you define in the AWS Cloud
2. Which actions are best practices for designing a virtual private cloud (VPC)? (Select
THREE.)
A: Divide the VPC network range evenly across all Availability Zones available; Create one
subnet per Availability Zone for each group of hosts that have unique routing
requirements; Reserve some address space for future use.
3. A company wants to run a highly available web tier by using two EC2 instances and a
load balancer. Which design is valid and provides the highest availability?
A: Two different subnets, one per Availability Zone. Each subnet contains one EC2
instance.
4. A company's VPC has the CIDR block 172.16.0.0/21 (2048 addresses). It has two
subnets (A and B). Each subnet must support 100 usable addresses now, but this
number is expected to rise to at most 254 usable addresses soon. Which subnet
addressing scheme meets the requirements and follows AWS best practices?
A: Subnet A: 172.16.0.0/23 (512 addresses) Subnet B: 172.16.2.0/23 (512 addresses)
5. Which combination of actions enables direct internet access for IPv4 hosts in a virtual
private cloud (VPC)? (Select THREE.)
A: Configuring hosts to have or obtain an internet-routable address; Creating a route for
0.0.0.0/0 that points to the internet gateway; Configuring security groups and network
access control lists (network ACLs) to permit internet traffic
6. A group of consultants requires access to an EC2 instance from the internet, for 3
consecutive days each week. The instance is shut down the rest of the week. The
virtual private cloud (VPC) has internet access. How should you assign an IPv4
address to the instance to give the consultants access?
A: Associate an Elastic IP address with the EC2 instance
7. Several EC2 instances launch in a virtual private cloud (VPC) that has internet access.
These instances should not be accessible from the internet, but they must be able to
download updates from the internet. How should the instances launch?
 A: Without public IP addresses, in a subnet with a default route to a network address
translation (NAT) gateway
8. You are configuring a bastion host to access EC2 instances in a virtual private cloud
(VPC). What must you do to the security groups? (Select TWO.)
A: Add a rule to the private subnet EC2 instances to allow traffic from the bastion host
security group; Add a rule to the bastion host to allow traffic from your source IP address.
9. You have a virtual private cloud (VPC) with a public subnet and a secure subnet. All
EC2 instances in the secure subnet must be able to communicate with specific
internet addresses. How can you control traffic with a network access control list
(network ACL)?
A: Add rules to the subnet custom network ACL to allow traffic from and to allowed
internet addresses.
10. All of the EC2 instances in a subnet can communicate with a certain IPv4 network on
the internet. How should you modify the security groups or current custom network
access control list (network ACL) to deny traffic to and from several restricted
addresses in that network?
A: In the network ACL, deny traffic to and from the restricted addresses.

Part 14

1. What is AWS Site-to-Site VPN?

A: A solution that provides a connection between a virtual private cloud (VPC) and an on-
premises network by using IPsec
2. What does AWS Direct Connect provide?
A: A dedicated network connection from an on-premises network to AWS that uses
802.1q
3. A company has two virtual private clouds (VPCs). VPC A has a Classless Inter-Domain
Routing (CIDR) block of 10.1.0.0/16. VPC B has CIDR block of 10.2.0.0/16. Both
VPCs belong to the same Amazon Web Services (AWS) account. What is the simplest
way to connect the two VPCs so that they can route all traffic between them?
A: VPC peering
4. A company is implementing a system to back up on-premises systems to Amazon
Web Services (AWS). Which network connectivity method will provide a solution with
the most consistent performance?
A: AWS Direct Connect
5. Systems in a secure subnet in a virtual private cloud (VPC) must access a bucket in
Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3). Which solution stops traffic from
crossing the internet?
A: Create a VPC gateway endpoint for Amazon S3
6. A company has three virtual private clouds (VPCs). VPCs A, B, and C have Classless
Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) blocks that do not overlap. Both A and C have separate
VPC peering connections with B. However, A cannot communicate with C. What is
the simplest and most cost-effective way to enable full communication between A
and C?
A: Add a peering connection between A and C, and route traffic between A and C through
the peering connection.
7. Because of a natural disaster, a company moved a secondary data center to a
temporary facility with internet connectivity. It needs a secure connection to the
 company's virtual private cloud (VPC) that must be operational as soon as possible.
The data center will move again in 2 weeks. Which option meets the requirements?
A: AWS Site-to-Site VPN
8. What is the simplest way to connect 100 virtual private clouds (VPCs) together?
A: Connect the VPCs to AWS Transit Gateway
9. A company's security administrator requires that EC2 instances in a specific subnet
must connect to Amazon DynamoDB through a VPC endpoint. The company's
network standards require that the infrastructure support high availability. Which
action meets these architecture requirements without adding another subnet?
A: Associate a single VPC endpoint with the subnet
10. A company uses a single AWS Direct Connect connection between their on-premises
network and their virtual private cloud (VPC). They want to ensure that the network
connectivity is highly available by adding a backup connection. Which network
connectivity method provides most cost-effective solution for the backup
connection?
A: An on-demand AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection across the internet
 
 
 

Part 15

1. How can an application use Amazon ElastiCache to improve database read

performance? (Select TWO.)

A: Write data to ElastiCache whenever the application writes to the database.

 Read data from ElastiCache first and write to ElastiCache when a cache miss occurs.

 Writing data to the cache only when a cache miss occurs is called lazy loading.
Writing data to the cache every time that the application writes data to the database
is called write-through.
2. Which scenarios indicate that you should use an Amazon Simple Queue Service
(Amazon SQS) standard queue? (Select TWO.)

A: Messages can be sent in any order; A message might need to be delivered more than once