FEATI University

2nd Aero Departmental Mock Exam

(Aerodynamics)

Name:_________________________________________________________Date:_____________Score:_________

I. Shade the letter of the correct answer. (Use #2 Pencil)

1. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with
(a) ailerons (c) flaps
(b) rudders (d) elevator

2. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder?
(a) center (c) left
(b) right (d) down

3. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?

(a) The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron.
(b) The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle.
(c) The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron.
(d) Both ailerons move at different direction all the time

4. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?

(a) root (c) leading edge
(b) tip (d) trailing edge

5. Dutch roll is movement in?

(a) yaw and pitch (c) yaw and dive
(b) yaw and roll (d) pitch and yaw

6. Wing sweptback will?

(a) increase lateral stability (c) has no effect
(b) decrease lateral stability (d) increase drag

7. The stalling speed of aircraft will?

(a) increase if its heavier (c) is always constant
(b) decrease if its heavier (d) increase as angle of attack increases

8. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is?
(a) low (c) both high and low
(b) high (d) by a switch in cockpit

9. Which condition is the actual amount of water vapor in a mixture of air and water?
(a) absolute humidity (c) dewpoint
(b) relative humidity (d) precipitation point

10. The temperature to which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated is called
(a) absolute humidity (c) dewpoint
(b) relative humidity (d) precipitation point

11. Flutter can be reduced by

(a) horn balance (c) servo tabs
(b) Mass balancing (d) trim tabs

12. Tuck under occurs when

(a) Shock stall on outboard wings (c) The aircraft reaches Mcrit
(b) Shock stall on inboard wings (d) when at nose heavy

13. If, after a disturbance, an aeroplane initially returns to its equilibrium state.
(a) It has neutral stability (c) it has static stability and may be dynamically stable.
(b) It is neutrally unstable (d) it has static stability and may not be dynamically stable.

14. If an aircraft returns to a position of equilibrium it is said to be.

(a) Statically stable (c) positively stable
(b) Neutrally stable (d) negatively stable

15. Which part of the rotor disc produces the most lift during forward flight?
(a) Midspan portion (c) rear portion
(b) Back portion (d) front portion
16. Translational drift is the tendency of the helicopter to drift
(a) laterally (c) vertically
(b) longitudinally (d) all of the above

17. In forward flight the relative air velocity at each blade.

(a) Greatest for retreating blade (c) greatest at fastest blade
(b) Equal for all blades (d) greatest at advancing blade

18. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for in the rotor blades?
(a) Control pitch (c) control flap
(b) Control speed (d) control lead and lag

19. Initially downstream a normal shockwave the air flow is?

(a) supersonic (c) the same
(b) subsonic (d) increases

20. Tuck under can be counteracted by?

(a) Trim tabs (c) aileron reversal
(b) Swept back (d) mach trim

21. Critical Mach Number is defined as

(a) that number at which the airflow becomes supersonic.
(b) that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic.
(c) the minimum Mach number at which the aircraft can go supersonic.

22. Critical Mach No. may be increased by.

(a) Using higher thickness/chord ratio wing (c) increasing dihedral
(b) Sweeping back wing (d) use of vortex generators

23. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the centre of pressure tends to move?
(a) forward (c) rearward
(b) no change (d) center

24. What produces the most lift at low speeds?

(a) High camber (c) low aspect ratio
(b) Low camber (d) high aspect ratio

25. Which statement is true?

(a) Both Induced drag and profile drag increase with the square of the airspeed.
(b) Profile drag increases with the square of the airspeed.
(c) Induced drag increases with the square of the airspeed.

26. The pint wherein the Profile drag and induced drag intersects is?
(a) L/D max (c) stalling speed
(b) Maximum drag (d) maximum speed

27. If the wing loading of an aircraft were reduced the stalling speed would.
(a) increase (c) decrease
(b) not be affected (d) increase or decrease depending on the weight removed

28. For a cambered wing section, the zero lift angle of attack will be.
(a) 4 degrees (c) positive
(b) zero (d) negative

29. Induced downwash.

(a) Reduces effective AOA of the wing (c) have no effect
(b) increases effective AOA of the wing (d) R = 585 miles

30. The stalling of an aerofoil is affected by the?

(a) weight (c) angle of attack
(b) airspeed (d) all of the above

31. Wing tip vortices create a type of drag known as

(a) Form drag (c) skin friction drag
(b) Wave drag (d) induced drag
32. Geometric Pitch is the distance moved.
(a) In one revolution (c) in one revolution without slip
(b) In one revolution with slip (d) angle of root chord to tip chord

33. The primary purpose of a feathering propeller is to.

(a) prevent further engine damage when an engine fails in flight.
(b) prevent propeller damage when an engine fails in flight.
(c) eliminate the drag created by a windmilling propeller when an engine fails in flight.

34. The air pressure and density at a point on the wing of a Boeing 747 are 1.10 x 105 N/m2 and 1.20 kg/m3 respectively.
What is the temperature at that point?
(a) 111 K (c) 152 k
(b) 319 k (d) 17 k

35. The high-pressure air storage tank for a supersonic wind tunnel has a volume of I 000 ft3. If air is stored at a pressure
of 30 atm and a temperature of 530" R, what is the mass of gas stored in the tank in pound mass?
(a) 2248 (c) 2189
(b) 1237 (d) 1879

36. Calculate the standard atmosphere values OF Temperature at a geopotential altitude of 14 km.
(a) 273 K (c) 288.8 K
(b) 216.66 (d) 245 K

37. The flight test data for a given airplane refer to a level-flight maximum-velocity run made at an altitude that
simultaneously corresponded to a pressure altitude of 30,000 ft and density altitude of 28,500 ft. Calculate the
temperature of the air at the altitude at which the airplane was flying for the test.
(a) 152 R (c) 390 R
(b) 276 R (d) 154 R

38. Consider an airplane flying at some real, geometric altitude. The outside (ambient) pressure and temperature are 5.3
x 104 N/m2 and 253 K, respectively. Calculate the pressure altitude at which this aiq1lane is flying.
(a) 5221 m (c) 2325 m
(b) 3456 m (d) 5147 m

39. Consider a convergent duct with an inlet area A 1 = 5 m2• Air enters this duct with a velocity V1 = 10 m/s and leaves
the duct exit with a velocity V2 = 30 m/s. What is the area of the duct exit?
(a) 2.3 m2 (c) 1.24 m2
2
(b) 1.67 m (d) 1.97 m2

40. Consider an airfoil in a flow of air, where far ahead (upstream) of the airfoil, the pressure, velocity, and density are
2116lb/ft2, 100 mi/h, and 0.002377 slug/ft3, respectively. At a given point A on the airfoil, the pressure is 2070 lb/ft 2.
What is the velocity at point A?
(a) 245 fps (c) 178 fps
(b) 322 fps (d) 278 fps

41. An airplane is flying at standard sea-level conditions. The temperature at a point on the wing is 250 K. What is the
pressure at this point? (assume isentropic flow)
(a) 345 KPa (c) 122 kPa
(b) 61 kPa (d) 89 kPa

42. Consider an airfoil in a flow of air, where far ahead of the airfoil (the free stream), the pressure, velocity, and density
are 2116 lb/ft2, 500 mi/h, and 0.002377 slug/ft3, respectively. At a given point A on the airfoil, the pressure is 1497lb/ft2
What is the velocity at point A? Assume isentropic flow. For air, cp = 6006 ft ·lb/(slug)( R).
(a) 2298 fps (c) 1345 fps
(b) 889 fps (d) 1061 fps

43. A jet transport is flying at a standard altitude of 30,000 ft with a velocity of 550 mi/h. What is its Mach number?
(a) 0.667 (c) 0.811
(b) 0.925 (d) 0.467

44. In a low-speed subsonic wind tunnel, one side of a mercury manometer is connected to the settling chamber (reservoir)
and the other side is connected to the test section. The contraction ratio of the nozzle A2 / A1 equals 1/15. The reservoir
pressure and temperature area p1 = 1.1 atm and T1 = 300 K, respectively. When the tunnel is running, the height
difference between the two columns of mercury is 10 cm. The density of liquid mercury is 1.36 X 104 kg/m3 Calculate
the airflow velocity in the test section V2.
(a) 188 m/s (c) 122 m/s
(b) 165 m/s (d) 144 m/s
45. The altimeter on a low-speed Cessna 150 private aircraft reads 5000 ft. By an independent measurement, the outside
air temperature is 505°R. If a Pitot tube mounted on the wing tip measures a pressure of 1818 lb/ft2 What is the true
velocity of the airplane?
(a) 156 fps (c) 179 fps
(b) 237 fps (d) 202 fps

46. Consider the flow of air over a small flat plate that is 5 cm long in the flow direction and 1 m wide. The free-stream
conditions correspond to standard sea level, and the flow velocity is 120 m/s. Assuming laminar flow, calculate the
boundary layer thickness at the downstream edge (the trailing edge).
(a) 4.06 x 10-4 m (c) 4.88 x 10-4 m
-4
(b) 3.22 x 10 m (d) 4.54 x 10-4 m

47. Consider a NACA 4412 airfoil at an angle of attack of 4°. If the free-stream Mach number of 0.7 and low speed Cl of
0.83, what is the lift coefficient?
(a) 0.7 (c) 1.59
(b) 0.89 (d) 1.16

48. What atmospheric conditions will cause the true landing speed of an aircraft to be highest?
(a) Low temp high humidity (c) high temp high humidity
(b) Head wind low humidity (d) high temp low humidity

49. The landing speed of an aircraft is 54 m/s2. If the maximum deceleration is 3m/s2 the minimum length of runway
required is.
(a) 162 m (c) 360 m
(b) 223 m (d) 486 m

50. The percentage of nitrogen in air is approximately.

(a) 60% (c) 88%
(b) 78% (d) 67%