PCAR Merged

PCAR PART 2
Republic of the Philippines
CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS (CAR)

PART 2
PERSONNEL LICENSING
Amendment 03 28 January 2014

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UNCONTROLLED COPY WHEN DOWNLOADED
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INTENTIONALLY BLANK PAGE

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RECORD OF AMENDMENTS
Amendment No. Date Subject Incorporated By

Initial Issue 23 June 2008 Ruben F. Ciron
First Amendment 21 March 2011 2.2.4.1 (d) (4) (iii) (E) Ramon S.
Demonstration of knowledge Gutierrez
and comprehension of the
English Language on
Validation Flight Crew
Licenses
2.3.1.5 Limitation of
privileges of pilots who have
attained their 60th birthday
2.3.1.5.1 Curtailment of
Privileges of Pilots who
have attained their 65th
Birthday
2.3.3.4 (f) Amendment on

Medical Fitness of Airlines
Transport Pilot License –
Airplane
2.3.3.9 (f) Amendment on

Medical Fitness of Airlines
Transport Pilot License –
Helicopter
2.4.4 (f) Amendment on

Medical Fitness of Flight
Engineer License
2.5.3 (f) Amendment on

Medical Fitness of Flight
Navigator License
2.10.2.4.6. (b) Medical

Requirements of Scheduled
Commercial Air Operators
Second Amendment 01 August 2013 Inserted vertical bars on the LT GEN William
previous amendments K Hotchkiss III
AFP (Ret)

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Third Amendment 28 January 2014 2.1.3 Abbreviations (12) LT GEN William

(13) K Hotchkiss III
2.2.2.1 Licenses (i) AFP (Ret)
2.2.2.4 Certificates (2)
2.2.3 Validity of Licenses,
Ratings, Authorizations
and Certificates (f)
2.2.6.2 Use of synthetic
flight trainers
2.2.10.4 Reinstatement of
privileges of expired pilot
licenses and ratings
2.2.10.5 Reinstatement of
privileges of expired
AMT/AMS licenses and
ratings
2.2.11 Re-issue or
reinstatement of a
licenses, rating,
authorizations or
certificate
privileges of pilots who
birthday
privileges of pilots who
birthday
2.6.3.2 Eligibility
requirements: general (6)
(7) (8)
2.6.3.3 AMS ratings (b)
New subpart of 2.11
New subpart of 2.12
IS 2.11.3 New IS subpart
2.3.3.1 Student Pilots
Fourth Amendment 24 April 2014 2.2.7 Language Proficiency LT GEN William
(c) K Hotchkiss III
AFP (Ret)
Fifth Amendment 20 June 2014 2.11.4 Guidelines for the LT GEN William
Additional Endorsement K Hotchkiss III
and Rating for Cabin AFP (Ret)
Crew Member License
Privileges of Pilots Who

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Have Attained Their 65th

and 67th Birthday
Sixth Amendment 19 July 2014 Repeal of Paragraph 2 and 3 LT GEN William
of the Philippine Civil K Hotchkiss III
Aviation Regulations Part AFP (Ret)
2 Subsection 2.2.4.2 (b)
Conversion of Flight
Crew License
Seventh Amendment 24 July 2014 2.3.3.4 Airline Transport LT GEN William
Pilot License (c) (5) K Hotchkiss III
AFP (Ret)
Eighth Amendment 01 July 2016 New Part 2.13 LT GEN William
2.2.7 Language Proficiency K Hotchkiss III
2.3.2.4 Type Rating – AFP (Ret)
Airplane and Helicopter
and Powered-Lifts (c) (2)
2.3.3.5.2 Requirements (f)
(1) (ii)
2.6.2.4 Knowledge
Requirements (a) (5) (i)
2.7.5 Air Traffic Controller
Rating Requirements (c)
2.8.3 Flight Operations
Officer License (b) (1)
(iv) and (d) (4)
2.10.1.3 Aviation Medical
Examiners (AME) (g) and
(k)
2.10.1.6 Decrease of
Medical Fitness (b)
2.10.1.8 Medical Certificate
(d) (1)
2.10.2.2.1 Certificate and
Issue Renewal (d)
2.10.2.2.2 Physical and
Mental Requirements (b)
(6) and (aa)
Mental Requirements (b)
(7) and (z)
Mental Requirements (x)
Ninth Amendment 06 January 2017 Repealing of Provisions in Capt. Jim C.

PCAR’s Pertaining to the Sydiongco
Issuance, Renewal or Re-

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Issue of a Cabin Crew

License.
2.1.2 Definitions (6)

2.1.3 Abbreviations
2.2.2.1 Licenses (j)
New PCAR Part 2.14 Air

Traffic Safety Electronic
Personnel License and
Ratings
IS 2.14.3.2 Appendix A:
ATSEP License –
Knowledge
IS 2.14.3.4 Appendix B:
ATSEP License – Skill
Test
IS 2.14.8.1 Appendix C:
ATSEP Rating –
Knowledge
IS 2.14.8.3 Appendix D:
ATSEP Rating – Skill
Test
2.2.2.5 Medical Fitness
Tenth Amendment 23 April 2018 2.1.2 Definitions (a) Capt. Jim C.

• Academic training Sydiongco
• Accountable executive
• Aerodynamic stall
• Aeroplane upset
• Angle of Attack
(AOA)
• Approach-to-stall
• Approved training
organization (ATO)
• Assessment
• Autoflight systems
• Behaviour
• Behavioural indicator
• Bridge training
• Competency-based
training
• Contributing factor
• Core competencies

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• Critical angle of attack

• Critical system
malfunctions
• Developed upset
• Developing upset
• Energy
• Energy state
• Evidence-based
training (EBT)
• Fidelity level
• First Indication of a
stall
• Flight crew member
• Flight management
system
• Flight path
• Flight simulation
training device
(FSTD)
• Instructional systems
design (ISD)
• Instructor
• Line-orientated flight
training
• Load factor
• Manoeuvres
• Manoeuvre-based
training
• Motion turnaround
bumps
• Negative training
• On-aeroplane training
• Performance criteria
• Phase of flight
• Post-stall regime
• Practical training
• Quality assurance
(QA)
• Quality management
• Quality system
• Scenario
• Scenario-based
training
• Stall

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• Stall Event
• Stall recovery
procedure
• Stall warning
• Startle
• Stick pusher
• Stick shaker
• Stress (response)
• Surprise
• Threat management
• Train-to-proficiency
• Training event
• Training objective
• Transport category
aeroplane
• Unsafe situation
• Wake encounter
2.1.3 Abbreviations (a)

• AOA – Angle of
Attack
• FIR – Flight Instructor
Rating
• IR – Instrument
Rating
• MER – Multi-Engine
Rating
• TR – Type-Rating
• UPRT – Upset
Prevention and
Recovery Training
2.2.6.2 Use of Flight

Simulation Training Devices
(FSTD) (a), (b) and Note
2.3.2.4 Type Ratings –

Airplane and Helicopter and
Powered-Lifts (b) (1) (v)
2.3.3.3 Commercial Pilot

License – Airplane (b) (1)
(viii) and (d) (2) (iii), (4), (5)

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2.3.3.4 Airline Transport

Pilot License – Airplane (b)
(1) (viii)
2.3.3.5.2 Requirements (f)

(1) (ii)
2.3.3.11 Instructor Ratings –

Airplane and Helicopter (a)
(4) & (5), (c) (1) (vii) and
(d) (2) (i) (M)
Class/Type Rating [SP (A)
and MP (A)] – Knowledge
(a) (9)
IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C:
Airplane Upset Prevention
and Recovery Training
(UPRT) for CPL and for
MPL, ATPL, Type Rating,
Instructor Rating (Airplane)
and Instructor Authorization
for Flight Simulation
Training Device(s)
(Airplane)
Eleventh Amendment 08 July 2020 2.2.2.2 Ratings (c) Capt. Jim C.

Sydiongco
2.7.4 Air Traffic Controller
Categories/Ratings (a)

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LIST OF EFFECTIVE PAGES
Part Page Amendment No. Page Date

Part 2 Personnel Licensing
Cover Page i Amendment 03 28 January 2014
Board Resolution iii – v Amendment 03 28 January 2014
Record of Amendments vi – xii Amendment 11 15 January 2021
List of Effective Pages xiii – xix Amendment 11 15 January 2021
Table of Contents xx – xxvii Amendment 11 15 January 2021
Introduction xxviii Original Issue 23 June 2008
Page
2.1-1 Amendment 10 16 July 2018
2.1-11 Amendment 03 28 January 2014

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2.3-2 Amendment 05 20 June 2014

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2.10-10 Amendment 08 01 July 2016
2.10-13 Amendment 08 01 July 2016
2.10-16 Amendment 08 01 July 2016

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2.10-21 Amendment 08 01 July 2016
2.10-22 Amendment 08 01 July 2016
2.10-23 Amendment 08 01 July 2016
2.10-24 Amendment 08 01 July 2016
IS-1 Amendment 03 28 January 2014
IS-10 Amendment 10 16 July 2018

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CONTENTS
2.1 GENERAL.................................................................................................... 2.1-1

2.1.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………….. 2.1-1
2.1.2 Definitions…………………………………………………………………………. 2.1-1
2.1.3 Abbreviations……………………………………………………………………… 2.1-9
2.2 GENERAL LICENSING REQUIREMENTS……………………………………. 2.2-1
2.2.1 General…….………………………………………………………………………. 2.2-1
2.2.2 Licenses, Ratings, Authorizations and Certificates…………………………… 2.2-1
2.2.2.1 Licenses……………………………………………………………………………. 2.2-1
2.2.2.2 Ratings…………………………………………………………………………….. 2.2-2
2.2.2.3 Authorizations……………………………………………………………………... 2.2-3
2.2.2.4 Certifications………………………….......………………………………………. 2.2-3
2.2.2.5 Medical Fitness……………………………………………………………………. 2.2-3
2.2.3 Validity of Licenses, Ratings, Authorizations and Certifications……………... 2.2-4
2.2.4 Validation and Conversion of Foreign Licenses and Ratings……...………… 2.2-4
2.2.4.1 Validation of Flight Crew Licenses……………………………………………… 2.2-4
2.2.4.2 Conversion of Flight Crew Licenses……………………………………………. 2.2-6
2.2.4.3 Validation and Conversion of Flight Crew Licenses by Reliance upon the
Licensing System of another Contracting State……..……………................. 2.2-7
2.2.4.4 Validation in Case of Leased, Chartered or Interchanged aircraft...………… 2.2-8
2.2.4.5 Validation of Foreign mechanics Licenses...…….…………………………….. 2.2-8
2.2.5 Military Competence Special Rules……..……….…………………….………. 2.2-8
2.2.5.1 Military Pilots………………………………………………………………………. 2.2-8
2.2.5.2 Military Flight Engineers………………………………………………………….. 2.2-8
2.2.5.3 Military Mechanics………………………………………………………………… 2.2-8
2.2.5.4 Evidentiary Documents…………..……………………………………………… 2.2-9
2.2.6 Training and Testing Requirements…………………………………………….. 2.2-9
2.2.6.1 Approved Training………………………………………………………………… 2.2-9
2.2.6.2 Use of Flight Simulation Training Devices (FSTD)………………………….… 2.2-10
2.2.6.3 Knowledge and Skill Tests and Checks: Time, Place, Designated Persons
and Format………………………………………………………………………… 2.2-10
2.2.6.4 Knowledge and Skill Tests and Checks; Prerequisites and Passing Grades 2.2-10
2.2.6.5 Reliance on Training and Testing in another Contracting State……………... 2.2-11

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2.2.7 Language Proficiency……………………………………………………………. 2.2-11

2.2.8 Recording of Flight Time………………………………………………………… 2.2-12
2.2.9 Format of the License……………………………………………………………. 2.2-12
2.2.10 Suspension or Revocation of a Licenses, Rating, Authorization or
Certificate………………………………………………………………………….. 2.2-12
2.2.10.1 Suspension of Licenses, Rating, Authorizations or Validation Certificate..… 2.2-12
2.2.10.2 Suspension of Medical Certificate………………………………………………. 2.2-13
2.2.10.3 Revocation of Licenses, Ratings, Authorization or Certificate…..…………... 2.2-13
2.2.10.4 Reinstatement of Privileges of Expired Pilot Licenses and Ratings………… 2.2-14
2.2.10.5 Reinstatement of Privileges of Expired AMT/AMS Licenses and Ratings…. 2.2-14
2.2.11 Re-issue or Reinstatement of a License, Rating, Authorization or
Certificate…………………………………………………………………………. 2.2-15
2.3 Pilot Licenses, Categories, Ratings and Authorizations……..………..... 2.3-1
2.3.1 General……………………………………………………………………….…… 2.3-1
2.3.1.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………..… 2.3-1
2.3.1.2 General Rule Concerning Pilot Licenses, Ratings and Authorizations…..…. 2.3-1
2.3.1.3 Authority to Act as a Flight Crew Member……………..……………………… 2.3-1
2.3.1.4 Crediting of Flight Time…………..……………………………………………… 2.3-1
2.3.1.5 Limitation of Privileges of Pilots who have Attained their 60 Birthday……..
th
2.3-2
2.3.1.5.1 Curtailment of Privileges of Pilots who have Attained their 65 th and 67th
Birthday……………………………………………………………………………. 2.3-2
2.3.1.6 Recent Experience Requirements……………………………………………… 2.3-3
2.3.2 Category, Class & Type Ratings and Category II/III Authorizations……….... 2.3-3
2.3.2.1 General……………………..…………………………………………………….. 2.3-3
2.3.2.2 Category Ratings…………………………………………………………………. 2.3-3
2.3.2.3 Class Ratings - Airplane, Helicopter and Powered - Lifts…………………… 2.3-4
2.3.2.4 Type Ratings - Airplane, Helicopter and Powered – Lifts…………………... 2.3-5
2.3.2.5 Category II and III Authorization………………………………………………... 2.3-7
2.3.3 Pilot Licenses, Instrument and Instructor Ratings…………………………… 2.3-7
2.3.3.1 Student Pilots……………………………………………………………………. 2.3-7
2.3.3.2 Private Pilot License – Airplane…………………………………………............ 2.3-8
2.3.3.3 Commercial Pilot License – Airplane…………………………………………… 2.3-11
2.3.3.4 Airline Transport Pilot License – Airplane……………………………………… 2.3-14
2.3.3.5 Multi-crew Pilot License (MPL)………………………………………………….. 2.3-18

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2.3.3.5.1 General……..……………………………………………………………………... 2.3-18

2.3.3.5.2 Requirements……………………………………………………………………… 2.3-19
2.3.3.6 Instrument Rating – Airplane…………………………………………………….. 2.3-22
2.3.3.7 Private Pilot License – Helicopter……………..………………………………... 2.3-25
2.3.3.8 Commercial Pilot License – Helicopter……………..………………………….. 2.3-27
2.3.3.9 Airline Transport Pilot License – Helicopter……………………..…………….. 2.3-31
2.3.3.10 Instrument Rating – Helicopter………………..………………………………… 2.3-34
2.3.3.11 Instructor Ratings– Airplane and Helicopter……........................................... 2.3-37
2.3.3.12 Examiners………………………………………………………………………… 2.3-41
2.3.3.13 Glider Pilot License……………………………………………………………... 2.3-41
2.3.3.14 Free Balloon Pilot License……………………………………………………….. 2.3-43
2.4 Flight Engineer License and Ratings……………………………………… 2.4-1
2.4.1 Applicability…………….………………………………………………………… 2.4-1
2.4.2 General…………………….…………………………………………………….. 2.4-1
2.4.3 Type Rating – Flight Engineer…………………………………………………… 2.4-1
2.4.4 Flight Engineer License………………………………………………………… 2.4-2
2.5 Flight Navigator License …………………………………….………..……… 2.5-1
2.5.1 Applicability………….…………………………………………………………… 2.5-1
2.5.2 General………………………………………………………………………….. 2.5-1
2.5.3 Flight Navigator License.…….……………………………………..………….. 2.5-1
2.6 Aviation Maintenance Licensing……………………………………………. 2.6-1
2.6.1 General………………………………………………………………………….. 2.6-1
2.6.1.1 Applicability………….…………………………………………………………… 2.6-1
2.6.2 Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT)……………………………………. 2.6-1
2.6.2.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………… 2.6-1
2.6.2.2 Eligibility Requirements: Ratings……………………………………………… 2.6-1
2.6.2.3 Ratings…………………………………………………………………………… 2.6-1
2.6.2.4 Knowledge Requirements……………………………………………………… 2.6-1
2.6.2.5 Knowledge Requirements for the Ratings……………….…………………… 2.6-2
2.6.2.6 Skill Requirements……………………………………………………………… 2.6-2
2.6.2.7 Experience Requirements…………………………………………………….. 2.6-3
2.6.2.8 Privileges and Limitations……………………………………………………… 2.6-3
2.6.2.9 Duration of AMT License………………………………………………………. 2.6-4
2.6.2.10 Recent Experience Requirements……………………………………………. 2.6-4

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2.6.2.11 Display of License………………………………………………………………. 2.6-5

2.6.2.12 Application for Additional Rating………………………………………………. 2.6-5
2.6.2.13 Requirements for Renewal of Licenses………………………………………. 2.6-5
2.6.3 Aviation Maintenance Specialist (AMS)………………………………………. 2.6-5
2.6.3.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………………. 2.6-5
2.6.3.2 Eligibility Requirements: General……………………………………………… 2.6-5
2.6.3.3 AMS Ratings…………………………………………………………………….. 2.6-6
2.6.3.4 Knowledge Requirements General……………………………………………. 2.6-7
2.6.3.5 Knowledge Requirements for the Ratings………………………………..…... 2.6-7
2.6.3.6 Skill Requirements………………………………………………………...…….. 2.6-8
2.6.3.7 Experience Requirements……………………………………………………… 2.6-8
2.6.3.8 Privileges and Limitations….………………………………………………….. 2.6-9
2.6.3.9 Duration of the Licenses……………………………………………………….. 2.6-9
2.6.3.10 Recent Experience Requirements…………………………………………….. 2.6-9
2.6.3.11 Display of License.……………………………………………………………... 2.6-10
2.6.3.12 Requirement of the Renewal of License.……………………………………. 2.6-10
2.7 Air Traffic Controller Licenses, Categories and Ratings………………. 2.7-1
2.7.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………… 2.7-1
…
2.7.2 General…………………………………………………………………………… 2.7-1
2.7.3 Air Traffic Controller License…………………………………………………... 2.7-1
2.7.4 Air Traffic Controller Categories/Ratings……………………………………... 2.7-2
2.7.5 Air Traffic Controller Ratings Requirements…………………………………. 2.7-2
2.8 Flight Operations Officer License………………………………………….. 2.8-1
2.8.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………………. 2.8-1
2.8.2 General…………………………………………………………………………… 2.8-1
2.8.3 Flight Operations Officer License……………………………………………… 2.8-1
2.9 Aeronautical Station Operation Licenses…………………………………. 2.9-1
2.9.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………........... 2.9-1
2.9.2 General…………………………………………………………………………… 2.9-1
2.9.3 Aeronautical Station Operation Licenses…………………………………….. 2.9-1
2.10 Medical Provisions for Licensing…………………………………………... 2.10-1
2.10.1 General…………………………………………………………………………… 2.10-1
2.10.1.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………………. 2.10-1
2.10.1.2 Medical Fitness………………………………………………………………….. 2.10-1

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2.10.1.3 Aviation Medical Examiners (AME)…………………………………………… 2.10-1

2.10.1.4 Aviation Medical Examinations………………………………………………… 2.10-2
2.10.1.5 Special Circumstances…………………………………………………………. 2.10-2
2.10.1.6 Decrease of Medical Fitness…………………………………………………... 2.10-3
2.10.1.7 Use of Psychoactive substances……………………………………………… 2.10-3
2.10.1.8 Medical Certificates…………………………………………………………….. 2.10-3
2.10.2 Medical Requirements…………………………………………………………. 2.10-5
2.10.2.1 Requirements for Medical Certificate………….…………………………….. 2.10-5
2.10.2.1.1 General…………………………………………………………………………… 2.10-5
2.10.2.1.2 Physical and Mental Requirements…………………………………………… 2.10-5
2.10.2.1.3 Visual Acuity Test Requirements…………………………............................. 2.10-5
2.10.2.1.4 Color Perception Requirements………………………………………………. 2.10-5
2.10.2.1.5 Hearing Requirements………………………………………………………….. 2.10-6
2.10.2.2 Class 1 Medical Certificate…………………………………………………….. 2.10-6
2.10.2.2.1 Certificate Issue and Renewal…………………………………………………. 2.10-6
2.10.2.2.3 Visual Requirements……………………………………………………………. 2.10-10
2.10.2.3 Class 2 Medical Certificate…………………………………………………….. 2.10-12
2.10.2.4 Class 3 Medical Certificate………………………………….…………………. 2.10-18
2.10.2.4.5 Medical Requirements for Scheduled Commercial Air Transport Operators 2.10-24
2.10.2.4.6 Penalties…………………………………………………………………………. 2.10-24
2.11 RESERVED……………………….………………………………………………. 2.12-1
2.12 Ground Instructor License…………………………………………………….. 2.12-1
2.12.1 General…………………………………………………………………………….. 2.12-1
2.12.2 Ground Instructors License……………………………………………………… 2.12-1

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2.13 RPA Controller Certificate………………………………………...............….. 2.13-1

2.13.1 Applicability…………………………………………………………………….….. 2.13-1
2.13.2 Application for RPA Controller Certificate……………………………………… 2.13-1
2.13.3 Eligibility for RPA Controller Certificate………………………………………… 2.13-1
2.13.4 Conditions as RPA Controller Certificate………………………………………. 2.13-1
2.13.5 RPA Controller Certificate: Contents…………………………………………… 2.13-2
2.13.6 Validity of RPA Controller Certificate…………………………………………… 2.13-2
2.13.7 Show Cause Notice to RPA Controller Certificate Holder……………………. 2.13-2
2.13.8 Cancellation of RPA Controller Certificate……………………………………... 2.13-3
2.13.9 Cancellation at Request of Holder………………………………………………. 2.13-3
2.13.10 Validation of Foreign RPA Controller Certificate, License or Authorization… 2.13-3
2.14. AIR TRAFFIC SAFETY ELECTRONIC PERSONNEL LICENSE
AND RATINGS…………………………………………………………………… 2.14-1
2.14.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………… 2.14-1
2.14.2 General……………………………………………………………………... 2.14-1
2.14.3 Requirements for the Issue of the License……………………………... 2.14-1
2.14.3.1 Age………………………………………………………………………….. 2.14-1
2.14.3.2 Knowledge…………………………………………………………………. 2.14-1
2.14.3.3 Experience…………………………………………………………………. 2.14-1
2.14.3.4 Skill………………………………………………………………………….. 2.14-1
2.14.3.5 Medical Fitness……………………………………………………………. 2.14-1
2.14.4 Privileges of the Holder of License……………………………………… 2.14-2
2.14.5 Validity of License………………………………………………………… 2.14-2
2.14.6 Requirements for the Renewal of License……………………………… 2.14-2
2.14.7 ATSEP Rating……………………………………………………………… 2.14-2
2.14.8 Requirements for ATSEP Ratings……………………………………….. 2.14-3
2.14.8.1 Knowledge…………………………………………………………………. 2.14-3
2.14.8.2 Experience…………………………………………………………………. 2.14-3
2.14.8.3 Skill………………………………………………………………………….. 2.14-3
2.14.9 Privileges of the Holder of Rating……………………………………….. 2.14-3
2.14.10 Validity of Ratings…………………………………………………………. 2.14-4
2.14.11 Requirements for the Re-Validation of Rating…………………………. 2.14-4
IS 2.2.1 Issue, renewal and re-issue of licenses, ratings, Authorizations and
Certificates………………………………………………………………………… IS-2

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IS 2.2.4.3 Appendix A: Procedures for Conversion of a PPL…………………………….. IS-2

IS 2.2.4.3 Appendix B: Procedures for Conversion of a PPL/IR, CPL, CPL/IR, ATPL
and Flight Engineer License…………….……………………………………… IS-2
IS 2.2.4.3 Appendix C: Procedures for Validation and Conversion of flight crew
licenses by reliance upon the licensing system of another Contracting
State………………………………………………………………………………... IS-3
IS 2.2.5 Military Flight Crew and Mechanics…………………..………………………... IS-4
IS 2.2.6 Appendix A: Prerequisites for a knowledge test……………………...……….. IS-5
IS 2.2.6 Appendix B: Prerequisites for a skill test……………………………………….. IS-5
IS 2.2.7 Language proficiency…………………………………………………………….. IS-5
IS 2.2.8 Recording of flight time…………………………………………………………… IS-7
IS 2.2.9 Format of the license…………...………………………………………………… IS-9
IS 2.3.2.4 Appendix A: Class/Type rating [SP(A) and MP(A)] – Knowledge…………… IS-9
IS 2.3.2.4 Appendix B: Flight instruction, skill test and proficiency check – CRM……. IS-10
IS 2.3.3.1 Student pilots - Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training…….. IS-11
IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix A: Private pilot license (A) - Knowledge …………………………… IS-12
IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix B: Private pilot license (A) - Flight instruction and skill test………. IS-13
IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix A: Commercial pilot license (A) – Knowledge……………………… IS-16
IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix B: Commercial pilot license (A) - Flight instruction and skill test… IS-19
IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C: Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training (UPRT) for
CPL and for MPL, ATPL, Type Rating, Instructor Rating (Airplane) and
Instructor Authorization for Flight Simulation Training Device(s) (Airplane)... IS-22
IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix A: Airline transport pilot license (A) – Knowledge…………………. IS-34
IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B: Airline transport pilot license (A) - Flight Instruction and skill
Test…………………………………………………………………………………. IS-38
IS 2.3.3.5 Appendix A Multi-crew Pilot License (A) Knowledge and Experience………. IS-39
IS 2.3.3.5 Appendix B Multi-crew Pilot License Skills………………………………..…… IS-41
IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix A: Instrument rating (A and H) – Knowledge………………………. IS-42
IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B: Instrument rating (A and H) - Flight instruction, skill test and
proficiency check………………………………………………………………….. IS-45
IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix A: Private pilot license (H) – Knowledge…………………………… IS-46
IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B: Private pilot license (H) – Flight instruction and skill test……… IS-47
IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix A: Commercial pilot license (H) – Knowledge……………………… IS-49
IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B: Commercial pilot license (H) – Flight instruction and skill test IS-52

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PCAR PART 2
IS 2.3.3.9 Appendix A: Airline transport pilot license (H) – Knowledge…………………. IS-54

IS 2.3.3.9 Appendix B: Airline transport pilot license (H) - Flight Instruction and skill
Test…………………………………………………………………………………. IS-58
IS 2.3.3.11 Appendix A: Flight instructor (A and H) - Flight instruction, skill test and
proficiency check………………………………………………………………….. IS-59
IS 2.3.3.11 Appendix B: Flight instructor for instrument ratings (A and H) – Flight
instruction, skill test and proficiency check……………………………………. IS-63
IS 2.3.3.11 Appendix C: Instructor rating for additional type ratings – Flight instruction,
skill test and proficiency check………………………………………………….. IS-65
IS 2.3.3.11 Appendix D Instructor rating for Multi-Crew Pilot License – Flight
Instruction, skill rest and proficiency check…………………………………….. IS-66
IS 2.3.3.12 Examiners…………………………………………………………………………. IS-68
IS 2.4.3 Type rating - Flight engineers - Flight Instruction, skill test and proficiency
Check………………………………………………………………………………. IS-69
IS 2.6.2.6 Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT) License Skill Test..……………….. IS-70
IS 2.6.2.6 (a) Skill requirements for the AMT Airframe rating…………………………… IS-71
IS 2.6.2.6 (b) Skill requirements for the AMT Power-plant rating………………………. IS-71
IS 2.6.2.6 (c) Skill requirements for the AMS Avionics rating…………………………… IS-71
IS 2.10.1.3 Appendix A – Basic training in aviation medicine for AMEs………………….. IS-72
IS 2.10.1.3 Appendix B – Advanced training in aviation medicine for AMEs…………….. IS-72
IS 2.10.1.4 Application form for Medical Certificate………………………………………… IS-72
IS 2.10.1.8 Medical Certificate………………………………………………………………… IS-73
IS 2.11.3 RESERVED…………………………………………...…………………………... IS-73
IS 2.14.3.2 Appendix A: ATSEP License – Knowledge……………………………………. IS-74
IS 2.14.3.4 Appendix B: ATSEP License – Skill Test………………………………………. IS-75
IS 2.14.8.1 Appendix C: ATSEP Rating – Knowledge……………………………………… IS-75
IS 2.14.8.3 Appendix C: ATSEP Rating – Skill Test………………………………………... IS-76

xxvii
PCAR PART 2
Introduction
CAR Part 2 addresses the licensing of personnel. Article 32 of the Chicago Convention requires
Republic of the Philippines to issue certificates of competency and licenses or validate such
certificates or licenses issued by other Contracting States to the pilot of every aircraft and to other
members of the operating crew of every aircraft engaged in international navigation.
The basis of this obligation is the goal of promoting and conducting safe and regular aircraft
operations through the development and implementation of internationally acceptable certification
and licensing processes. If the same process is extended to domestic operations, Republic of the
Philippines can ensure the overall safety of aircraft operation through unification of licensing
requirements.
ICAO Annex 1, Personnel Licensing, presents the broad international specifications for personnel
licensing agreed upon by Contracting States. Most of the specifications in ICAO Annex 1 are not
given in enough detail to satisfy the day-to-day management of a country's personnel licensing
activities.
Part 2 of the Civil Aviation Regulations presents detailed requirements for the general rules of
licensing and detailed requirements for the certification of airmen, pilots, non-pilot flight crew
members, and airmen, such as mechanics, who are not flight crew.
Part 2 also presents medical standards for the granting of licenses and certification, and for the
administration of medical examinations. The licensing and medical standards are based upon
ICAO Annex 1.
Original Issue 23 June 2008

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PCAR PART 2
2.1 GENERAL
2.1.1 APPLICABILITY
Part 2 prescribes:
(a) The requirements for issuing, renewal and re-issue of aviation personnel licenses,
ratings, Authorizations and certificates:
(b) the conditions under which those licenses, ratings, Authorizations and Certificates are
necessary; and
(c) the privileges and limitations granted to the holders of those licenses, ratings,
Authorizations and certificates.
2.1.2 DEFINITIONS
(a) For the purpose of Part 2, the definitions in the Law, in Part 1 and the following
definitions shall apply:
(1) Academic training. Training that places an emphasis on studying and reasoning
designed to enhance knowledge levels of a particular subject, rather than to
develop specific technical or practical skills.
(2) Accountable executive. The individual who has corporate authority for ensuring
that all training commitments can be financed and carried out to the standard
required by the civil aviation authority (CAA), and any additional requirements
defined by the approved training organization.
(3) Aerodynamic stall. An aerodynamic loss of lift caused by exceeding the critical
angle of attack (synonymous with the term ‘stall’).
(4) Aeroplane upset. An airplane in flight unintentionally exceeding the parameters
normally experienced in line operations or training, normally defined by the
existence of at least one of the following parameters:
a) pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees, nose up; or
b) pitch attitude greater than 10 degrees, nose down; or
c) bank angle greater than 45 degrees; or
d) within the above parameters, but flying at airspeeds inappropriate for the
conditions.
(5) Aircraft certificated for single-pilot operation. A type of aircraft which the State
of Registry has determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely
with a minimum crew of one pilot.
(6) Aircraft certificated for multi-pilot operation. A type of aircraft which the State
with a minimum crew of two pilots.
Note: During the certification process, the State of Registry may issue a certificate
of airworthiness designating an aircraft for single-pilot operation based upon the
Type Certificate issued by the State of Design, but might also require that the same
aircraft be operated by more than one pilot under certain conditions, such as use
in air transportation. (See Part 8 paragraph 8.4.1.1)
(7) Aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot. A type of aircraft that is required
to be operated with a co-pilot as specified in the flight manual or by the air operator
certificate.
Amendment 10 16 July 2018

2.1-1
PCAR PART 2
(8) Airmanship. The consistent use of good judgment and well-developed knowledge,
skills and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives.
(9) Airship. A power-driven lighter than air aircraft.
(10) Air Traffic Safety Electronic Personnel. also known as CNS Systems Officer
in the CAAP
(11) Angle of Attack (AOA). Angle of attack is the angle between the oncoming air,
or relative wind, and a defined reference line on the aeroplane or wing.
(12) Approach-to-stall. Flight conditions bordered by stall warning and aerodynamic
stall.
(13) Approved training organization (ATO). An organization approved by and
operating under the supervision of a Contracting State in accordance with the
requirements of Annex 1 to perform approved training.
(14) Assessment. The determination as to whether a candidate meets the
requirements of the expected performance standard.
(15) Autoflight systems. The autopilot, autothrottle (or autothrust), and all related
systems that perform automatic flight management and guidance.
(16) Behaviour. The way a person responds, either overtly or covertly, to a specific
set of conditions, which is capable of being measured.
(17) Behavioural indicator. An overt action performed or statement made by any
flight crew member that indicates how an individual or the crew is handling an
event.
(18) Bridge training. Additional training designed to address shortfalls in knowledge
and skill levels so that all trainees possess the pre-requisite levels upon which
the approved training programme was designed.
(19) Calendar month. A period of a month beginning and ending with the dates that
are conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a numbered
year (as January 1 through January 31 in the Gregorian calendar).
(20) Calendar year. A period of a year beginning and ending with the dates that are
conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a numbered
year(as January 1 through December 31 in the Gregorian calendar).
(21) Commercial air transport operation. An aircraft operation involving the
transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.
(22) Competency. A combination of skills, knowledge and attitudes required to
perform a task to the prescribed standard.
(23) Competency-based training. Training and assessment that are characterized
by a performance orientation, emphasis on standards of performance and their
measurement and the development of training to the specified performance
standards.
(24) Competency element. An action that constitutes a task that has a triggering
event and a terminating event that clearly defines its limits, and an observable
outcome.
(25) Competency unit. A discrete function consisting of a number of competency
elements.

2.1-2
PCAR PART 2
(26) Complex airplane. An airplane that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a
controllable pitch propeller; or in the case of a seaplane, flaps and a controllable
pitch propeller
(27) Contributing factor. A reported condition that contributed to the development of
an aircraft accident or incident.
(28) Conversion. Conversion is the action taken by the Republic of the Philippines in
issuing its own license on the basis of a license issued by another Contracting
State for use on aircraft registered in the Republic of the Philippines.
(29) Core competencies. A group of related behaviours, based on job requirements,
which describe how to effectively perform a job and what proficient performance
looks like. They include the name of the competency, a description, and a list of
behavioural indicators.
(30) Credit. Recognition of alternative means or prior qualifications.
(31) Critical angle of attack. The angle of attack that produces the maximum
coefficient of lift beyond which an aerodynamic stall occurs.
(32) Critical system malfunctions. Aeroplane system malfunctions that place
significant demand on a proficient crew. These malfunctions should be
determined in isolation from any environmental or operational context.
(33) Cross country. A flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival
following a pre-planned route using standard navigation procedures.
(34) Developed upset. A condition meeting the definition of an aeroplane upset.
(35) Developing upset. Any time the aeroplane begins to unintentionally diverge
from the intended flight path or airspeed.
(36) Energy. The capacity to do work.
(37) Energy state. How much of each kind of energy (kinetic, potential or chemical)
the aeroplane has available at any given time.
(38) Error. An action or inaction by the flight crew that leads to deviations from
organizational or flight crew intentions or expectations.
(39) Error management. The process of detecting and responding to errors with
countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of errors, and
mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aircraft state.
(40) Evidence-based training (EBT). Training and assessment based on
operational data that is characterized by developing and assessing the overall
capability of a trainee across a range of core competencies rather that by
measuring the performance of individual events or manoeuvres.
Note.- Guidance on EBT is contained in the Procedures for Air Navigation
Services- Training (PANS-TRG, Doc 9868) and the Manual of Evidence-based
Training (Doc 9995). EBT is competency-based and is applicable, as an option,
to the recurrent training of flight crew members engaged in commercial air
transport operations that is conducted in an FSTD.
(41) Fidelity level. The level of realism assigned to each of the defined FSTD
features.
(42) First Indication of a stall. The initial aural, tactile or visual sign of an impending
stall, which can be either naturally or synthetically induced.

2.1-3
PCAR PART 2
(43) Flight crew member. A licensed crew member charged with duties essential to
the operation of an aeroplane during a flight duty period.
(44) Flight management system. An aeroplane computer system that uses a large
database to permit routes to be pre-programmed and fed into the system by
means of a data loader. The system is constantly updated with respect to position
accuracy by reference to the most appropriate navigation aids available, which
are automatically selected during the information update cycle.
(45) Flight path. The trajectory or path of an object (aeroplane) travelling through the
air over a given space of time.
(46) Flight plan. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to
an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft.
(47) Flight simulation training device (FSTD). A synthetic training device that is in
compliance with the minimum requirements for FSTD qualification as described
in Doc 9625.
(48) Human performance. Human capabilities and limitations which have an impact
on the safety and efficiency of aeronautical operations.
(49) Instructional systems design (ISD). A formal process for designing training
which includes analysis, design and production, and evaluation phases.
(50) Instructor. A person authorized to provide academic or practical training to a
trainee or trainee for an aviation license, rating or endorsement.
(51) Instrument flight time. Time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft solely by
reference to instruments and without external reference points.
(52) Instrument ground time. Time during which a pilot is practicing, on the ground,
simulated instrument flight in a synthetic flight trainer approved by the Authority.
(53) Instrument time. Instrument flight time or instrument ground time.
(54) Licensing Authority. The authority designated by the Contracting State as
responsible for the licensing of personnel.
(55) Line-orientated flight training. Training and assessment involving a realistic,
‘real time’, full mission simulation of scenarios that are representative of line
operations.
(56) Load factor. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aeroplane, the
former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, propulsive forces, or
ground reactions.
(57) Manoeuvres. A sequence of deliberate actions to achieve a desired flight path.
Flight path control may be accomplished by a variety of means including manual
aeroplane control and the use of autoflight systems.
(58) Manoeuvre-based training. Training that focuses on a single event or
manoeuvre in isolation.
(59) Medical certificate. The evidence issued by the Authority that the license holder
meets specific requirements of medical fitness. It is issued following an
evaluation by the Licensing Authority of the report submitted by the designated
medical examiner who conducted the examination of the applicant for the
license.
(60) Motion turnaround bumps. A phenomenon associated with FSTD motion
actuators when their direction of travel reverses, which results in acceleration
spikes that can be felt by the pilot thus giving a false motion cue.

2.1-4
PCAR PART 2
(61) Negative training. Training which unintentionally introduces incorrect information

or invalid concepts, which could actually decrease rather than increase safety.
(62) On-aeroplane training. A component of a UPRT programme designed to develop
skill sets in employing effective upset prevention and recovery strategies utilizing
only suitably-capable light aeroplanes.
(63) Performance criteria. Simple, evaluative statements on the required outcome of
the competency element and a description of the criteria used to measure whether
the required level of performance has been achieved.
(64) Phase of flight. A defined period within a flight.
Note.- E.g. take-off, climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing.
(65) Pilot (to). To manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight time.
(66) PIC under supervision. Co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the PIC, the
duties and functions of a PIC, provided that the method of supervision employed
is acceptable to the (Licensing) Authority.
(67) Post-stall regime. Flight conditions at an angle of attack greater than the critical
angle of attack.
(68) Powered-lift. A heavier than air aircraft capable of vertical take-off, vertical
landing, and low speed flight that depends principally on engine driven lift devices
or engine thrust for the lift during these regimes and on non-rotating aerofoil(s) for
lift during horizontal flight.
(69) Practical training. Describes training that places an emphasis on the
development of specific technical or practical skills, which is normally preceded by
academic training.
(70) Problematic use of substances. The use of one or more psychoactive
substances by aviation personnel in a way that:
(i) Constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives, health or welfare
of others: and/or
(ii) Causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or
disorder.
(71) Psychoactive substances. Alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids, sedatives and
hypnotics, cocaine, other psychostimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile solvents,
whereas coffee and tobacco are excluded.
(72) Quality assurance (QA). All the planned and systematic actions necessary to
provide adequate confidence that all activities satisfy given standards and
requirements, including the ones specified by the approved training organization
in relevant manuals.
(73) Quality management. A management approach focused on the means to
achieve product or service quality objectives through the use of its four key
components: quality planning; quality control; quality assurance; and quality
improvement.
(74) Quality system. The aggregate of all the organization’s activities, plans, policies,
processes, procedures, resources, incentives and infrastructure working in unison
towards a total quality management approach. It requires an organizational
construct complete with documented policies, processes, procedures and
resources that underpin a commitment by all employees to achieve excellence in

2.1-5
PCAR PART 2
product and service delivery through the implementation of best practices in quality
management.
(75) Rated air traffic controller. An air traffic controller holding a license and valid
ratings appropriate to the privileges to be exercised.
(76) Renewal of license, rating, Authorization or certificate. The administrative
action taken within the period of validity of a license, rating, Authorization or
certificate that allows the holder to continue to exercise the privileges of a license,
rating, Authorization or certificate for a further specified period consequent up on
the fulfillment of specified requirements.
(77) Re-issue of a license, rating, Authorization or certificate. The administrative
action taken after a license, rating, Authorization or certificate has lapsed that
reissues the privileges of the license, rating, Authorization or certificate for a further
specified period consequent upon the fulfillment of specified requirements.
(78) Route sector. A flight comprising take off, departure, cruise of not less than 15
minutes, arrival, approach and landing phases.
(79) Scenario. Part of a training module plan that consists of predetermined
manoeuvres and training events.
(80) Scenario-based training. Training that incorporates manoeuvres into real-world
experiences to cultivate practical flying skills in an operational environment.
(81) Stall. An aerodynamic loss of lift caused by exceeding the critical angle of attack.
Note. – A stalled condition can exist at any attitude and airspeed, and may be
recognized by continuous stall warning activation accompanied by at least one
of the following:
a) buffeting, which could be heavy at times;
b) lack of pitch authority and/or roll control; and
c) inability to arrest the descent rate.
(82) Stall Event. An occurrence whereby the aeroplane experiences conditions
associated with an approach-to-stall or an aerodynamic stall.
(83) Stall recovery procedure. The manufacturer-approved aeroplane-specific stall
recovery procedure. If a manufacturer-approved recovery procedure does not
exist, the aeroplane-specific stall recovery procedure developed by the operator
based on the stall recovery template contained in the FAA Advisory Circular, AC
120-109.
(84) Stall warning. A natural or synthetic indication provided when approaching a stall
that may include one or more of the following indications:
a) aerodynamic buffeting (some airplanes will buffet more than others);
b) reduced roll stability and aileron effectiveness;
c) visual or aural cues and warnings;
d) reduced elevator (pitch) authority;
e) inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent; and
f) stick shaker activation (if installed).
Note. – A stall warning indicates an immediate need to reduce the angle of
attack.
(85) Startle. The initial short-term, involuntary physiological and cognitive reactions to
an unexpected event that commence the normal human stress response.

2.1-6
PCAR PART 2
(86) Stick pusher. A device that, automatically applies a nose down movement and
pitch force to an aeroplane’s control columns, to attempt to decrease the
aeroplane’s angle of attack. Device activation may occur before or after
aerodynamic stall, depending on the aeroplane type.
Note. – A stick pusher is not installed on all aeroplane types.
(87) Stick shaker. A device that automatically vibrates the control column to warn the
pilot of an approaching stall.
Note. – A stick shaker is not installed on all aeroplane types.
(88) Stress (response). The response to a threatening event that includes
physiological, psychological and cognitive effects. These effects may range from
positive to negative and can either enhance or degrade performance.
(89) Surprise. The emotionally-based recognition of a difference in what was expected
and what is actual.
(90) Synthetic flight trainer. See flight simulation training device.
(91) Threat. Events or errors that occur beyond the influence of the flight crew,
increase operational complexity and which must be managed to maintain the
margin of safety.
(92) Threat management. The process of detecting and responding to threats with
countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of threats and
mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aeroplane states.
(93) Train-to-proficiency. Approved training designed to achieve end-state
performance objectives, providing sufficient assurances that the trained individual
is capable to consistently carry out specific tasks safely and effectively.
Note. – In the context of this definition, the words train-to-proficiency can be
replaced by training-to-proficiency.
(94) Training event. Part of a training scenario that enables a set of competencies to
be exercised.
(95) Training objective. A clear statement that is compromised of three parts, i.e.:
a) the desired performance or what the trainee is expected to be able to do at
the end of training (or at the end of particular stages of training);
b) the conditions under which the trainee will demonstrate competence; and
c) the performance standard to be attained to confirm the trainee’s level of
competence.
(96) Transport category aeroplane. A category of airworthiness applicable to large
civil aeroplanes, which are either:
a) Turbojets with 10 or more seats or having a maximum take-off mass
(MTOM) of greater than 5 700 kg (12 566 lb); or
b) Propeller-driven aeroplanes with greater than 19 seats or a MTOM greater
than 8618 kg (19 000 lb).
(97) Undesired aircraft state. Occurs when the flight crew places the aircraft in a
situation of unnecessary risk.
(98) Unsafe situation. A situation, which has led to an unacceptable reduction in
safety margin.
(99) Validation. The action taken by the Republic of the Philippines as an alternative
to issuing its own license, in accepting a license issued by another Contracting

2.1-7
PCAR PART 2
State as the equivalent of its own for use on aircraft registered in the Republic of
the Philippines.
(100) Wake encounter. An event characterized by the aeroplane experiencing the
effects of wake turbulence brought about by wingtip vortices or engine exhaust.

2.1-8
PCAR PART 2
2.1.3 ABBREVIATIONS
(a) The following abbreviations are used in Part 2:
(1) A – Airplane
(2) ADS-B – Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast
(3) AIP - Aeronautical Information Publication
(4) AME - Aviation Medical Examiner
(5) AMS - Aviation Maintenance Specialist
(6) AMT - Aviation Maintenance Technician
(7) AOA – Angle of Attack
(8) AS – Airship
(9) ATCO - Air Traffic Controller
(10) ATS - Air Traffic Control Service
(11) ATSEP – Air Traffic Safety Electronic Personnel
(12) ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot License
(13) B – Balloon
(14) CAT II/III - Category II/III
(15) CNS/ATM – Communications, Navigation, Surveillance Air Traffic
Management
(16) CPL - Commercial Pilot License
(17) CRM - Crew Resource Management
(18) DFEE - Designated Flight Engineer Examiner
(19) DFNE - Designated Flight Navigator Examiner
(20) DME – Distance Measuring Equipment
(21) FE - Flight Engineer
(22) Fl - Flight Instructor
(23) FIR – Flight Instructor Rating
(24) FN - Flight Navigator
(25) FOO - Flight Operations Officer
(26) G – Glider
(27) GBAS – Ground-Based Augmentation System
(28) GNSS – Global Navigation Satellite System
(29) GPS – Global Positioning System
(30) IA - Inspection Authorization
(31) IFR - Instrument Flight Rules
(32) ILS - Instrument Landing System
(33) IR – Instrument Rating
(34) H – Helicopter

2.1-9
PCAR PART 2
(35) HMI – Human-Machine Interface

(36) ICAO - International Civil Aviation Organization
(37) MER – Multi-Engine Rating
(38) MPA - Multi-pilot Airplane
(39) MPH - Multi-pilot Helicopter
(40) MPL - Multi-crew Pilot License
(41) NDB – Non-Directional Beacon
(42) NOTAM - Notice to airmen
(43) PIC - Pilot-in-Command
(44) PL - Powered-lift
(45) PPL - Private Pilot License
(46) RT – Radiotelephony
(47) SBAS – Satellite-Based Augmentation System
(48) SIC - Second-in-Command
(49) SMC – System Monitoring and Control
(50) SPA - Single-pilot Airplane
(51) SPH - Single-pilot Helicopter
(52) TR – Type-Rating
(53) UPRT – Upset Prevention and Recovery Training
(54) VFR - Visual Flight Rules
(55) VOR – Very High Frequency Omni-Directional Radio

2.1-10
PCAR PART 2

2.1-11
PCAR PART 2
2.2 GENERAL LICENSING REQUIREMENTS

2.2.1 GENERAL
(a) A license, rating, Authorization and/or certificate will be issued, renewed or re-issued
when the applicant complies with the requirements of Part 2.
(b) Privileges. A license and/or certificate holder is not permitted to exercise privileges
other than those granted by the license and/or certificate.
(c) Medical fitness. An applicant for a flight crew or air traffic controller license shall hold
a medical certificate issued in accordance with the provisions of this Part.
Implementing Standard: See IS 2.2.1 for detailed requirements for application for the
issue, renewal and re-issue of licenses, ratings, authorizations and certificates.
2.2.2 LICENSES, RATINGS, AUTHORIZATIONS AND CERTIFICATES

2.2.2.1 LICENSES
The following licenses are issued under this Part to an applicant who satisfactorily
accomplishes the requirements in this Part for the license sought:
(a) Pilot licenses:
(1) Private pilot license (PPL);
(2) Commercial pilot license (CPL);
(3) Airline Transport pilot license (ATPL);
(4) Multi-crew Pilot License (MPL);
(5) Glider pilot license; and
(6) Free balloon pilot license.
(b) Flight engineer license.
(c) Flight navigator license.
(d) Aviation maintenance technician license (AMT).
(e) Aviation maintenance specialist license (AMS).
(f) Air traffic controller license (ATCO).
(g) Flight operations officer (Flight Dispatcher) license;
(h) Aeronautical station operator.
Note: Flight radiotelephone operator
(1) Where the knowledge and skill of an applicant have been established as
satisfactory in respect of the certification requirements for the radiotelephone
operator’s restricted certificate specified in the general radio regulations annex to
the International Telecommunication Convention and the applicant has met the
requirements that are pertinent to the operation of the radiotelephone on board an
aircraft, a Contracting State may endorse a license already held by the applicant
or issue a separate license as appropriate
(2) Skill and knowledge requirements on radiotelephony procedures and phraseology
have been developed as an integral part of all pilot airplane and helicopter licenses.
(i) Air Traffic Safety Electronic Personnel (ATSEP)

2.2-1
PCAR PART 2
2.2.2.2 RATINGS
(a) The following ratings are placed on a pilot license when an applicant satisfactorily
accomplishes the requirements in this Part for the rating sought:
(1) Category ratings in the following aircraft:
(i) Airplane
(ii) Helicopter
(iii) Glider
(iv) Free Balloon
(2) Class ratings in the following aircraft:
(i) Single-engine land - airplane
(ii) Single-engine sea - airplane
(iii) Multi-engine land - airplane
(iv) Multi-engine sea- airplane
(v) A class rating may be issued for those helicopters certificated for single-pilot
Operations and which have comparable handling, performance and other
characteristics.
Note: A class rating or endorsement for High Performance Airplanes (HPA)
requires additional knowledge, if the applicant has not completed the ATPL (A)
knowledge requirements.
(3) Type ratings in the following aircraft:
(i) Each type of aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least
two pilots;
(ii) Each type of helicopter certificated for single-pilot except where a class rating
has been established under (a)(2)(v); and
(iii) Any aircraft considered necessary by the Authority.
Note: A type rating for High Performance Airplanes (HPA) requires additional
knowledge, if the applicant has not completed the ATPL(A) knowledge
requirements.
(4) Instrument ratings in the following aircraft:
(i) Instrument — Airplane
(ii) Instrument — Helicopter
(5) Instructor ratings:
(i) Flight instructors
(ii) Instructors for additional class/type/instrument ratings
(iii) Ground Instructor
(b) The following ratings are placed on a flight engineer's license when an applicant
satisfactorily accomplishes the requirements in this Part for the rating sought:
(1) Type rating
(2) Instructor rating

2.2-2
PCAR PART 2
(c) The following ratings are placed on an air traffic controller license when an applicant
satisfactorily accomplishes the requirements in this Part for the rating sought:
(1) Aerodrome control rating;
(2) Approach control procedural rating;
(3) Approach control surveillance rating;
(4) Approach precision radar control rating;
(5) Area control procedural rating; and
(6) Area control surveillance rating.
(d) The following ratings are placed on an aviation maintenance technician license when
an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the requirements in this Part for the rating
sought:
(1) Airframe
(2) Powerplant
(3) Airframe and Powerplant
2.2.2.3 AUTHORIZATIONS
(a) The following Authorizations are issued when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes
the requirements in this Part for the Authorization sought:
(1) Student pilot Authorization
Note: if the State prefers, a license or certificate can be issued.
(2) Examiner Authorization
(b) The following Authorizations are placed on a license when an applicant satisfactorily
accomplishes the requirements in this Part for the Authorization sought:
(1) Category II pilot Authorization
(2) Category III pilot Authorization
(3) Inspection Authorization
2.2.2.4 CERTIFICATES
(a) The following certificates are issued when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the
requirements in this Part for the certificate sought:
(1) Medical certificate Class 1 for CPL, ATPL, Flight engineer and Flight navigator
license
(2) Medical certificate of Class 2 for PPL, Glider, Free balloon pilot
(3) Medical certificate Class 3 for Air traffic controller license
(4) Validation certificates
2.2.2.5 MEDICAL FITNESS

(a) The Authority shall apply, as part of its State safety programme, basic safety
management principles to the medical assessment process of license holders, that as
a minimum include:

2.2-3
PCAR PART 2
(1) routine analysis of in-flight incapacitation events and medical findings during
medical assessments to identify areas of increased medical risk; and
(2) continuous re-evaluation of the medical assessment process to concentrate on
identified areas of increased medical risk.
(b) The Licensing Authority shall implement appropriate aviation-related health promotion
for license holders subject to a Medical Assessment to reduce future medical risks to
flight safety.
Note 1.— Standard 2.2.2.5 indicates how appropriate topics for health promotion
activities may be determined.
Note 2.— Guidance on the subject is contained in the Manual of Civil Aviation Medicine
(Doc 8984).
Note 3.— Guidance on the relationship between the Licensing Authority and the
implementation of Medical Assessment for license holders is contained in the Manual
of Procedures for Establishment and Management of a State’s Personnel Licensing
System (Doc 9379).
2.2.3 VALIDITY OF LICENSES, RATINGS, AUTHORIZATIONS AND

CERTIFICATES
(a) The privileges granted by a license, or by related ratings, may not be exercised unless
the holder maintains competency and meets the requirements for recent experience
of this Part.
(1) Maintenance of competency and recent experience requirements for pilot licenses
and ratings shall be base on a systematic approach to accident prevention and
should include a risk assessment process and analysis
(2) Maintenance of competency shall be indicated in the airman's personal license or
record (e.g. logbook).
(b) The maintenance of competency of flight crew members, engaged in commercial air
transport operations, may be satisfactorily established by demonstration of skill during
proficiency flight checks completed in accordance with Part 8.
(c) The validity period of a license varies by the type of license. The date of validity of a
license shall be endorsed on each license, so as to be easily identified by an inspecting
authority.
(d) The validity period of the ratings, Authorizations and medical certificates and the
renewal/re-issue conditions are indicated in the relevant Subparts of Part 2.
(e) Renewal of a license will take place within the validity period after initial issue of a
rating, provided the ratings related to the license and the medical certificate are valid.
2.2.4 VALIDATION AND CONVERSION OF FOREIGN LICENSES AND RATINGS

2.2.4.1 VALIDATION OF FLIGHT CREW LICENSES
(a) A person who holds a current and valid pilot license issued by another Contracting
State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 may apply for a validation of such license for
use on aircraft registered in the Republic of the Philippines.
(b) The Republic of the Philippines will verify the authenticity of the license, ratings
Authorizations and the medical certificate with the state of license issue.

2.2-4
PCAR PART 2
(c) A validation certificate with PPL privileges, based upon at least a PPL, will be issued
provided:
(1) The applicant for the validation certificate shall present to the Authority the foreign
license.
(2) The applicant for the validation certificate shall hold a current medical certificate
issued under Part 2 or a current medical certificate issued by the Contracting State
that issued the applicant's pilot license provided that the foreign medical certificate
meets the requirements of Part 2, relevant to the license held.
(3) The validation certificate will be valid provided the foreign license or in the case of
a continuing license, the rating/medical certificate remains valid.
(d) A validation certificate with PPL/IR. CPL. CPL/IR. ATPL or FE privileges, based upon
the relevant license, will be issued provided the following requirements are met.
(1) The applicant for the validation certificate shall present to the Authority the foreign
license and evidence of the experience required by presenting the record (e.g.
logbook).
(2) The validation certificate will be valid for one year, provided the foreign license or
in the case of a continuing license the rating/medical certificate remains valid.
(3) Ratings will only be validated together with the validation of a license.
(4) The applicant for the validation certificate shall:
(i) hold a current medical certificate issued under Part 2 or a current medical
certificate issued by the Contracting State that issued the applicant's pilot
license provided that the foreign medical certificate meets the requirements of
Part 2, relevant to the license held;
(ii) complete a skill test for the relevant ratings in the license that he or she wants
to be validated relevant to the privileges of the license held;
(iii) demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority the knowledge relevant to the
license to be validated of:
(A) Air Law;
(B) Aeronautical Weather codes;
(C) Flight Performance and Planning; and
(D) Human Performance.
(E) Demonstrate a knowledge and comprehension of the English language as
required by subpart 2.3.7
(F) While exercising the privileges of his license, a valid medical certificate, the
license on which the validation is based and the certificate of validation shall
be carried; and
(G) Comply with the experience requirements set out in the table below:
License Experience Validation Privileges
ATPL (A)  1 500 hours as PIC in multi-pilot Commercial air transport in multi-
certificated airplanes pilot airplanes as PIC

2.2-5
PCAR PART 2
ATPL (H)  1 000 hours as PIC on multi-pilot Commercial air transport in multi-
helicopters pilot helicopters as PIC
ATPL (A) or  500 hours as PIC or co-pilot on Commercial air transport in multi-
CPL(A)/IR with multi-pilot airplanes pilot airplanes as co-pilot
ATPL (A)
knowledge
ATPL (H) or  500 hours as PIC or co-pilot on Commercial air transport in multi-
CPL(H)/IR with multi-pilot helicopters pilot helicopters as co-pilot
ATPL (H)
knowledge
CPL (A)/IR  1 000 hours as PIC in Commercial air transport in single-
commercial air transport since pilot airplanes as PIC
gaining an IR
CPL (H)/IR  1 000 hours as PIC in Commercial air transport in single-
commercial air transport since pilot helicopters as PIC
gaining an IR
CPL (A)  700 hours in airplanes other than Activities in airplanes other than
gliders, including 200 hours in commercial air transport
the activity role for which
validation is sought, and 50
hours in the role in the last 12
months
CPL (H)  700 hours in helicopters Activities in helicopters other than
including 200 hours in the commercial air transport
activity role for which validation
is sought, and 50 hours in the
role in the last 12 months
PPL A / IR  100 hours PIC instrument flight Private flights under IFR
time
Flight engineer  1 500 hours as flight engineer on Commercial air transport in
airplanes in commercial air airplanes as flight engineer
transport
Flight engineer  1 000 hours flight engineer on Other than commercial air
airplanes in other than transport in airplanes as flight
commercial air transport engineer
*Note: The term multi-pilot is used to indicate experience in an aircraft required to be

operated with a co-pilot. (For example, see ICAO Annex 1, paragraph 2.5.1.5).
>= Greater than
2.2.4.2 CONVERSION OF FLIGHT CREW LICENSES

(a) Conversion of a foreign pilot license for issuance of a PPL by Republic of the
Philippines. A person who holds a current and valid pilot license with at least PPL
privileges issued by another Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1, may
apply for a conversion and be issued with a PPL for use on aircraft registered in
Republic of the Philippines provided the following requirements are met.

2.2-6
PCAR PART 2
(1) The holder shall:

(i) present to the Authority the foreign license, evidence of experience required by
presenting the record (e.g. logbook) and current medical certificate;
(ii) present to the Authority evidence of language proficiency in English as
specified in Subpart 2.2.7 or shall demonstrate the language proficiency skills
as specified in Subpart 2.2.7;
(iii) present to the Authority a Class 2 medical certificate issued under this Part;
(iv) demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority the knowledge of Air Law; and
(v) complete a PPL skill test.
(2) The Republic of the Philippines will verify the authenticity license, ratings,
Authorizations and the medical certificate with the State of license issue.
(b) Conversion of PPL/IR. CPL; CPL/IR, ATPL and Flight Engineer licenses, which have
been validated in accordance with Subpart 2.2.4.1: The holder of a current and valid
foreign PPL/IR, CPL, CPL/IR, ATPL or Flight Engineer license issued by another
Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1, and appropriate medical
certificate, may apply for conversion to the appropriate license and ratings issued by
Republic of the Philippines, provided the following requirements are met:
(1) The applicant is the holder of a current validation certificate issued under Subpart
2.2.4.1;
(2) The applicant shall hold a medical certificate issued under this Part, appropriate to
the level of license to be converted.
(3) Ratings listed on a person's foreign pilot license that have been validated in
accordance with Subpart 2.2.4.1, may be placed on that person's converted
license.
2.2.4.3 VALIDATION AND CONVERSION OF FLIGHT CREW LICENSES BY

RELIANCE UPON THE LICENSING SYSTEM OF ANOTHER
CONTRACTING STATE
(a) Notwithstanding Subparts 2.2.4.1 and 2.2.4.2, the Authority may issue a validation
certificate or a license with the applicable ratings to the holder of a current and valid
foreign license, provided:
(1) The license is issued by another Contracting State;
(2) The Authority is convinced that the license has been issued on the basis of at least
Part 2; and
(3) There is an agreement between the Authority and the other Contracting State
about recognition of licenses and, if applicable, keeping the licenses and ratings
current and valid.
(b) The applicant for the validation certificate or conversion shall present to the Authority
the foreign license and evidence of the currency of the license by presenting the record
(e.g. logbook).
(c) The applicant shall hold a medical certificate relevant to the license to be converted or
validated, provided that the foreign medical certificate meets the requirements of Part2,
which medical certificate shall be issued under Part 2, medical requirements.
(d) If applicable, the applicant shall pass a knowledge test on Air Law.

2.2-7
PCAR PART 2
Note: See ICAO Document 9379 for procedures related to validation or conversion.
Implementing Standard: See IS 2.2.4.3 Appendices A, B and C for procedures for
validation or conversion of flight crew licenses.
2.2.4.4 VALIDATION IN CASE OF LEASED, CHARTERED OR INTERCHANGED

AIRCRAFT
(a) The requirements stated in Subpart 2.2.4.1 shall not apply where aircraft, registered in
Republic of the Philippines, are leased to, chartered by or interchanged by an operator
of another Contracting State, provided that during the term of the lease the State of
the Operator has accepted the responsibility for the technical and/or operations
supervision in accordance with Article 83-bis of the ICAO Convention.
(b) The licenses of the flight crew of the other Contracting State may be validated,
provided that the privileges of the flight crew license validation are restricted for use
during the lease, charter or interchange period only on nominated aircraft in specified
operations not involving a Republic of the Philippines operator, directly or indirectly
through a wet lease or other commercial arrangement.
Note: See ICAO Document 9379 for procedures related to validation.
2.2.4.5 VALIDATION OF FOREIGN MECHANICS LICENSES

(a) The Authority may render valid a license issued by a foreign country on a reciprocal
basis as an alternative to the issuance of its own license. It shall establish validity by
suitable authorization to be carried with the former license accepting it as the
equivalent of the latter. The validity of the authorization shall not extend beyond the
period of validity of his foreign license.
2.2.5 MILITARY COMPETENCE SPECIAL RULES

2.2.5.1 MILITARY PILOTS
The holder of a military pilot license (or certificate) who meets the requirements of IS
2.2.5 may apply, on the basis of his or her military training, for:
(a) a CPL;
(b) a rating in the category and class of aircraft for which that military pilot is qualified;
(c) an instrument rating with the appropriate category rating for which that military pilot is
qualified; and a type rating, if appropriate.
2.2.5.2 MILITARY FLIGHT ENGINEERS

(a) A rated military aircraft flight engineer, or a former rated military aircraft flight engineer,
who meets the requirements of knowledge, skill and experience as required by Subpart
2.4 will be eligible for a flight engineer license, based on his/her military competency.
(b) An aircraft type rating shall be placed on the flight engineer license, for which he/she
is qualified.
2.2.5.3 MILITARY MECHANICS

(a) General

2.2-8
PCAR PART 2
A rated military aircraft mechanic or former rated military aircraft mechanic who applies
for an Aviation Maintenance license is entitled to that license based on military
competence in accordance with the provisions of this section.
(b) To be eligible for the provisions of this section, the applicant must provide evidence
that he is or was, within the preceding twelve-month period from the date of application,
a member of the military and for aircraft mechanics, on active military duty as an aircraft
mechanic.
(c) An eligible military or former military applicant for an Aviation Maintenance license who
has been appropriately trained and has at least 4 years practical experience in aircraft
repair, alteration and inspection shall be issued that license if he satisfactorily passes
the theoretical examinations for an Aviation Maintenance license and a practical
examination administered by the Authority.
(d) An eligible military or former military applicant for an Aviation Maintenance license who
has been appropriately trained and has at least 10 years practical experience in aircraft
repair, alteration and inspection shall be issued that license if he satisfactorily passes
the CAR examinations and a practical examination administered by the Authority.
2.2.5.4 EVIDENTIARY DOCUMENTS

The following documents are satisfactory evidence for the purposes indicated -
(a) To show that an applicant is a member of the armed forces, an official identification
card issued to him by an armed force may be used.
(b) To show the applicant’s discharge or release from the armed forces, or his former
membership therein, an original or certified true copy of a license of discharge or
release may be used.
(c) To show current or previous status as a rated military pilot on flying status with a
Philippine Armed Force, one of the following may be used:
(1) An official Armed Force order to flight duty as a military pilot.
(2) An official Armed Force form or logbook showing military pilot status.
(3) An official order showing that the applicant graduated from an accredited pilot
school and is or was rated as a military pilot.
(d) To show practical experience as a military aircraft mechanic, applicable service
records; and
(e) To show appropriate training as a military aircraft mechanic, the certificates of training.
2.2.6 TRAINING AND TESTING REQUIREMENTS

2.2.6.1 APPROVED TRAINING
(a) The Authority may provide for some reduction in the experience requirements for the
issue of certain licenses and ratings prescribed in this Part when training is conducted
within an Approved Training Organization under special curricula approved by the
Authority.
(b) Approved training shall provide a level of competency at least equal to that provided
by the minimum experience requirements for personnel not receiving such approved
training.

2.2-9
PCAR PART 2
(c) CAR Part 3 prescribes the requirements for certifying and administering Approved
Training Organizations for conducting approved training.
(d) The approval of a training organization by the Authority shall be dependent upon the
applicant demonstrating compliance with the requirements of CAR Part 3.
Note: See ICAO Document 7192 Part B-5 and Doc 9379 for details on training
2.2.6.2 USE OF FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES (FSTD)

(a) Depending on the purpose (training, testing or checking) and on the type of license or
rating sought (PPL, CPL, ATPL, MPL, IR, TR, MER, FIR) one or more of seven device
types may be used. The device types differ in terms of fidelity of the 3 simulator feature
categories, aircraft simulation, cueing simulation and environment simulation.
(b) For the purpose of UPRT, which includes stall and engine and airframe icing, additional
fidelities of the simulator feature aerodynamic flight and engine model, flight controls
and forces, motion cueing and the IOS are required.
(1) A license holder shall be evaluated/checked in an SFT with the features and
configuration similar to a particular type of aircraft used by the said license holder.
(2) A license holder shall be evaluated/checked in an SFT for the purpose of additional
rating of Instrument Rating (IR) only.
Note. ICAO Doc. 9625 Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulation
Training Devices, Fourth Edition 2015, provides guidance for the approval of FSTDs.
2.2.6.3 KNOWLEDGE AND SKILL TESTS AND CHECKS: TIME, PLACE,

DESIGNATED PERSONS AND FORMAT
(a) Knowledge and Skill Tests and Checks prescribed by or under Part 2 are given at times
and places and by persons authorized and designated by the Authority.
(b) The knowledge test will be performed in written or computer format, except for the
knowledge test for an instructor rating or an additional instructor rating within the same
aircraft category, which may be performed orally. In addition to the written knowledge
test, candidates may be questioned orally during the skill test, as appropriate.
2.2.6.4 KNOWLEDGE AND SKILL TESTS AND CHECKS: PREREQUISITES AND

PASSING GRADES
(a) An applicant for a knowledge test or a skill test shall have received any required
endorsement as specified in this part.
Note: The endorsement requirements may differ between licenses and will appear in
each license section as applicable.
(b) An applicant for a knowledge or skill test must receive written Authorization from the
Authority to take the test.

2.2-10
PCAR PART 2
(c) An applicant shall show proper identification in the form of a Government issued
identification document at the time of application that contains the applicant's:
photograph, signature and date of birth.
(d) The Authority will specify the minimum passing grades.
(e) An applicant for a knowledge or skill test who fails that test may reapply for the test
only after the applicant has received:
(1) The necessary training from an authorized instructor who has determined that the
applicant is proficient to pass the test; and
(2) An endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave the applicant the
additional training.
2.2.6.5 RELIANCE ON TRAINING AND TESTING IN ANOTHER CONTRACTING

STATE
(a) The Authority may rely on the training and/or testing system administered by another
Contracting State as the basis for its own written or practical test requirement for
airman licenses provided that the Authority has an agreement with the other
Contracting State whose training and/or testing system is used.
(b) The applicant shall apply for and receive written approval from the Authority prior to
receiving training and/or testing in a system administered by another Contracting State.
2.2.7 LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY

(a) Flight navigators required to use the radio telephone aboard an aircraft, air traffic
controllers and aeronautical station operators shall demonstrate the ability to speak,
read and understand the English language used for radio telephony communications.
(b) All airplane, airship, helicopter and powered-lift pilots, air traffic controllers and
aeronautical station operators shall demonstrate the ability to speak and understand
the language used for radiotelephony communications to the level specified in the
language proficiency requirements.
(c) All airplane, airship, helicopter and powered-lift pilots, air traffic controllers and
aeronautical station operators shall demonstrate the ability to speak and understand
the language used for radiotelephony communications to the level specified in the
language proficiency requirements as follows:
(1) those demonstrating language proficiency at the Operational Level (Level 4) shall
no longer be evaluated.
(2) those demonstrating language proficiency at the Extended Level (Level 5) shall no
longer be evaluated.
(3) those demonstrating language proficiency at the Expert Level (Level 6) shall be
exempted from further language evaluation.
(d) Flight engineers, and glider and free balloon pilots should have the ability to speak and
understand the language used for radiotelephony communications.
(e) Implementing Standard IS 2.2.7 contains the detailed requirements for language
proficiency.

2.2-11
PCAR PART 2
Note: ICAO DOC 9835 Manual on the Implementation of ICAO Language Proficiency
Requirements is a guide to the implementation of the ICAO Language Proficiency
Requirements.
2.2.8 RECORDING OF FLIGHT TIME

(a) Each person shall document and record the following time in a manner acceptable to
the Authority:
(1) training and experience used to meet the requirements for a license, rating and
Authorization of Part 2; and
(2) the experience required to show recent flight experience according to the
requirements of Part 2.
Implementing Standard: see IS 2.2.8 for detailed recording requirements.
2.2.9 FORMAT OF THE LICENSE

(a) The license format shall be in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority. The
items required on the license are indicated in IS 2.2.9.
2.2.10 SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION OF A LICENSE, RATING,

AUTHORIZATION/CERTIFICATE
Note: See also Subpart 1.2.1.7.
2.2.10.1 SUSPENSION OF A LICENSE, RATING AUTHORIZATION OR

VALIDATION CERTIFICATE
If, in accordance with the Civil Aviation Law the Authority determines that the interests of
safety require that a license, rating, Authorization or certificate must be suspended, the
Authority may act as follows:
(a) If the Authority discovers facts indicating either a lack of competency or lack of
qualification, the Authority may, require an applicant for or the holder of any license,
rating, Authorization, or validation certificate to retake all or part of the knowledge or
practical tests required for any license, rating, Authorization, or validation certificate at
issue, renewal or re-issue. The Authority may suspend the validity of any such license,
rating, Authorization and/or validation certificate pending the results of such re-testing.
(b) A person whose license, rating, Authorization, or certificate has been amended,
modified, suspended, or revoked shall be provided with notice and an opportunity to
be heard in accordance with Subpart 1.2.1.7.3.
(c) After notifying the person involved, in writing, stating the reasons for such action, the
Authority may also suspend the validity of any license, rating, Authorization and/or
validation certificate in the following cases:
(1) during the investigation of an aircraft disaster or incident;
(2) in cases of proven misconduct, recklessness or excessive carelessness;
(3) if the holder has acted in contradiction to his or her privileges; and/or
(4) pending the investigation of a suspected violation of these regulations or the
aviation law under which these regulations are effected.

2.2-12
PCAR PART 2
(d) Once the suspension is effective, the person involved shall immediately cease
exercising the privileges of the affected license, certificate, rating, or Authorization. The
person involved shall surrender to the Authority all licenses or validation certificates in
his or her possession that are subject to the suspension within 8 days of receiving the
notification of the order. If the person fails to surrender the documents under
suspension, the Authority may revoke all such certificate(s) held by that person.
(e) When a suspension is limited to one or more ratings mentioned on the license or
validation certificate, the Authority shall provide the person involved with a new license
or validation certificate omitting all ratings which are subject to the suspension.
(f) The Authority may cancel a suspension in the following cases:
(1) if person under suspension has taken and passed the knowledge or practical tests
required for any license, rating, or Authorization at issue indicated in (a);
(2) if the person involved has gained the required additional experience; or
(3) by revocation of the license, rating, Authorization and/or validation certificate.
(g) Once the suspension has been cancelled, other than by revocation, the Authority shall
issue the person involved a new license or validation certificate.
2.2.10.2 SUSPENSION OF A MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

(a) In case of doubt concerning the medical fitness of the holder of a medical certificate,
the Authority may determine that the person involved shall again repeat a complete or
partial medical examination. and may suspend the validity of that medical certificate
until the repeat examination is completed with favorable results.
(b) The validity of a medical certificate may also be suspended in case of a temporary
rejection on medical grounds.
(c) The person holding the medical certificate will be notified in writing of a suspension
stating the reasons for that suspension.
(d) The person holding the suspended medical certificate shall surrender the medical
certificate in his or her possession to the Authority within 8 days after the date of
receiving the notification.
(e) In cases in which the medical fitness of the person involved allows it, the Authority may
provide the person with a suspended medical certificate of a particular class with a
new medical certificate of a lower class.
(f) A suspension may be lifted if the medical examination intended in (a) has been passed
satisfactorily. If a suspension is lifted, the person involved shall receive a new medical
certificate unless the medical certificate was revoked.
2.2.10.3 REVOCATION OF LICENSES, RATINGS, AUTHORIZATIONS OR

CERTIFICATES
(a) A license, rating, Authorization or certificate shall be revoked if the holder has lost the
skills for exercising the privileges mentioned in the document or fails to meet the
appropriate medical standards as shown by the results of a medical examination or a
test.

2.2-13
PCAR PART 2
(b) A license, rating, Authorization and/or certificate may be revoked if the holder has
made a statement contrary to the truth in obtaining or maintaining that license, rating
Authorization or certificate, or has provided incorrect data at a medical examination
and/or test required for the issue, maintenance or renewal of the license, rating,
Authorization and certificate.
(c) A license, rating, Authorization or certificate shall be revoked in case of proven
misconduct, recklessness or excessive carelessness. The holder of the license will be
notified in writing of the revocation with the reasons therefore.
(d) A person who has had a license or certificate revoked shall be obliged to hand over to
the Authority all the licenses or certificates in his or her possession applicable to the
revocation within 8 days after the date of receiving notification from the Authority.
(e) The person who has been denied the privilege to manipulate the controls of an aircraft
by judgment of a court, shall be equally obliged to hand over to the Authority all licenses
and certificates in his or her possession within 8 days after he or she has taken
cognizance of the judgment or after it can be reasonably assumed that he or she has
taken cognizance thereof.
2.2.10.4 REINSTATEMENT OF PRIVILEGES OF EXPIRED PILOT LICENSES AND

RATINGS
(a) No person who holds an expired pilot license or rating shall exercise the privileges of
said license or ratings,
(b) The holder of an expired Philippine issued pilot license and rating shall pass the Civil
Aviation Regulations practical examinations and medical test required for renewal or
reinstatement of the license.
(c) Flight crewmembers seeking reinstatement of any license that has expired for more
than twenty four (24) months shall complete an aircraft initial ground and flight training
program, including instrument rating with additional condition as follows:
(1) For holders of a flight crewmember license other than an airline transport pilot
license, training on any aircraft type is required;
(2) For holders of an airline transport pilot license and flight engineer license, training
certification on a multi-engine and/or applicable type of aircraft should be
presented.
(3) Except as provided, flight crewmember seeking reinstatement of an aircraft rating,
other than a rating as part of a license re-issuance shall complete an initial ground
and flight training program and pass a knowledge and skill test for that type of
aircraft.
2.2.10.5 REINSTATEMENT OF PRIVILEGES OF EXPIRED AMT/AMS LICENSES

AND RATINGS
(a) No person who holds an expired AMT/AMS license or rating shall exercise the
privileges of said license or rating;
(b) Aviation Maintenance Technicians or Specialists who seek reinstatement of their
licenses that had already expired shall comply with the following conditions:
(1) Within twenty four (24) months from expiration of license, he/she shall pass the
Civil Aviation Regulations test given by the Authority.
(2) After twenty four (24) months from expiration of license, he/she shall pass the Civil
Aviation Regulations test and must undergo the appropriate recurrent training from

2.2-14
PCAR PART 2
an Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO) or any school or facility accredited

by the Authority for such purpose.
(3) After sixty (60) months from expiration of license, he/she shall comply with the
requirements for the application for the initial application for AMT/AMS License.
2.2.11 RE-ISSUE OR REINSTATEMENT OF A LICENSE, RATING,

AUTHORIZATION OR CERTIFICATE
Note: Re-issue of a license, rating, Authorization or certificate. The administrative
action taken after a license, rating, Authorization or certificate has lapsed that reissues the
privileges of the license, rating, Authorization or certificate for a further specified period
consequent upon the fulfillment of specified requirements. (PCAR 2.1.2 (a) (35))
Note: Other airman license: A person required by any part of these regulations to have
an airman's license shall have it in their physical possession or readily accessible in the
aircraft or at the work site when exercising the privileges of that license. (PCAR 1.2.1.1
(c))
(a) The following conditions qualifies for a reissue or reinstatement of the license, rating,
authority or certificate:
(1) expired licenses;
(2) surrendered licenses;
(3) suspended licenses;
(4) revoked licenses;
(5) exchange of licenses to lower grade or different rating;
(6) and other similar conditions;
Note: A license that has been suspended or revoked may be reissued or reinstated
subject to the Director General’s approval.
(b) Any person who holds a Philippine license, ratings authorization or certificate that has
been surrendered, expired, or other similar conditions may apply for a reissue or
reinstatement of such license for use provided he/she successfully complies with the
requirements of the license;
Note: A license that has been surrendered or has expired shall be considered as an
“expired license”
(c) A person who holds an expired Philippine license, ratings authorization or certificate
for LESS THAN thirty six (36) months must pass the knowledge test on the Air Law to
be administered by the Authority prior to the re-issue of the said license;
(d) A person who holds expired Philippine license, ratings, authorization or certificate for
MORE THAN thirty six (36) months must undergo the same process as the initial or
original license application, including passing the Air Law, ALL the theoretical or
knowledge test of the license in question and skill test and oral test requirements to be
administered by the Authority prior to the re-issue of the said license;
(e) In addition to the requirements of PCAR 2.2.11 (c), a holder of an expired FLIGHT
DISPATCHER LICENSE, rating, authorization or certificate for MORE THAN thirty six
(36) months shall be required to undergo the appropriate refresher course for the said
license.

2.2-15
PCAR PART 2
INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK

2.2-16
PCAR PART 2
2.3 PILOT LICENSES, CATEGORIES, RATINGS AND

AUTHORIZATIONS
2.3.1 GENERAL
2.3.1.1 APPLICABILITY
This Section prescribes the requirements for the issue, renewal and re-issue, if applicable,
of pilot licenses, ratings and Authorizations.
2.3.1.2 GENERAL RULE CONCERNING PILOT LICENSES, RATINGS AND

AUTHORIZATIONS
(a) An applicant shall, before being issued with any pilot license, rating or Authorization,
meet such requirements in respect of age, knowledge, experience, flight instruction,
skill, medical fitness and language proficiency as are specified for that license, rating
or Authorization.
(b) A person shall not act either as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot of an aircraft in any of
the categories unless that person is the holder of a pilot license issued in accordance
with the provisions of Part 2.
(c) An applicant shall for renewal or re-issue of a license, rating or Authorization meet the
requirements as are specified for that license, rating or Authorization.
2.3.1.3 AUTHORITY TO ACT AS A FLIGHT CREW MEMBER

(a) A person shall not act as a flight crew member of an aircraft registered in the Republic
of the Philippines unless a valid license or a validation certificate is held showing
compliance with the specifications of this Part and appropriate to the duties to be
performed by that person.
(b) No person may act as the PIC or co-pilot of an aircraft unless that person holds the
appropriate category, class and type rating for the aircraft to be flown.
(c) A person shall not act as a flight crew member of an aircraft in the territory of the
Republic of the Philippines unless a valid license or a validation certificate is held that
has been issued by the State of Registry of that aircraft or by any other Contracting
State and rendered valid by the state of registry of that aircraft.
Note: During a skill test, the applicant acts as PIC but the safety pilot will intervene in
safety situations.
2.3.1.4 CREDITING OF FLIGHT TIME

(a) A student pilot or the holder of a pilot license shall be entitled to be credited in full with
all solo, dual instruction and pilot-in-command flight time towards the total flight time
required for the initial issue of a pilot license or the issue of a higher grade of pilot
license.
(b) The holder of a pilot license, when acting as co-pilot at a pilot station of an aircraft
certificated for operation by a single pilot but required by a Contracting State to be
operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credited with not more than 50 percent
of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot
license. The Authority may authorize that flight time be credited in full towards the total
flight time required, provided the aircraft is equipped to be operated by a co-pilot and
the aircraft is operated in a multi-pilot crew operation. The holder of a pilot license,
when acting as co-pilot at a pilot station of an aircraft certificated to be

2.3-1
PCAR PART 2
operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credited in full with this flight time
towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot license.
(c) The holder of a pilot license, when acting as pilot-in-command under supervision, shall
be entitled to be credited in full with this flight time towards the total flight time required
for a higher grade of pilot license.
2.3.1.5 LIMITATION OF PRIVILEGES OF PILOTS WHO HAVE ATTAINED THEIR

60TH BIRTHDAY
(a) No person who holds a pilot license under this Part shall serve as pilot-in-command on
a Philippine-registered civil aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport
(defined in Part 2.1.2) in a single pilot operation if that person reached 60 th year of age.
(b) No person who holds a pilot license issued under this Part shall serve as a pilot-in-
command on a Philippine-registered civil aircraft engaged in commercial air transport
in a multi-crew operation if that person reached 60 th year of age unless the other pilot
is younger than 60 years of age.
2.3.1.5.1 CURTAILMENT OF PRIVILEGES OF PILOTS WHO HAVE ATTAINED

THEIR 65TH AND 67TH BIRTHDAY
(a) No person who holds a pilot license under this Part shall serve as pilot-in-command or
as co-pilot on a Philippine-registered civil aircraft engaged in international commercial
air transport if that person has reached 65th years of age.
(b) No person who holds a pilot license under this Part shall serve as pilot-in-command or
as co-pilot on a Philippine-registered civil aircraft engaged in domestic commercial air
transport if that person has reached 67th years of age.
(c) No person under this Part shall be granted any flexibility in meeting the medical
qualifications under any circumstances or medical conditions if that person has
reached 65th years of age.
(d) Any person beyond 67 years of age who holds a pilot license and a valid medical
certificate under this Part may be allowed to fly as a pilot-in-command or co-pilot
provided the flight is not in pursuance of commercial air transport operations, singly or
collectively, and a mandatory CAAP medical examination every six (6) months is
complied with.
(e) For purposes of paragraph (a) (d) above and of other applicable PCAR provisions, all
aircraft operations involving the transport of passengers, cargo or mail are presumed
commercial air transport operations except in the following instances:
(1) Training or demonstration flights of Approved Training Organizations;
(2) Corporate flights for the purpose of transporting the company’s executives,
employees and/or clients;
(3) The cargo on board is owned by the aircraft owner/operator.
(f) Any person who claims that his/her flight is covered by the above exceptions shall
present sufficient proof, documentary and/or testimonial, to prove the same when so
required by the Authority
Amendment 05 20 June 2014

2.3-2
PCAR PART 2
2.3.1.6 RECENT EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) A pilot shall not operate an aircraft carrying passengers as pilot-in-command or copilot
to operate at the flight controls of a type or a variant of a type of aircraft during take-off
and landing unless that pilot has operated the flight controls during at least three take-
offs and landings within the preceding 90 days on the same type of aircraft or in the
flight simulator approved for the purpose.
(b) The holder of a license that does not include an instrument rating shall not act as PIC
of an aircraft carrying passengers at night unless he or she has carried out at least
three take-offs and three landings at night during the previous 90 days.
(c) A pilot shall not act in the capacity of a cruise relief pilot in a type or variant of a type
of aircraft unless, within the preceding 90 days that pilot has either:
(1) Operated as a PIC, CP or cruise relief pilot on the same type of aircraft; or
(2) Carried out flying skill refresher training including normal, abnormal and emergency
procedures specific to cruise flight on the same type of aircraft or in a flight
simulator approved for the purpose, and has practiced approach and landing
procedures, where the approach and landing procedure practice may be performed
as the pilot who is not flying the aircraft.
(d) Each person shall document and record the experience required, to show the recent
flight experience.
2.3.2 CATEGORY, CLASS and TYPE RATINGS AND CATEGORY ll / Ill

AUTHORIZATIONS
2.3.2.1 GENERAL
(a) The holder of a pilot license shall not be permitted to act as pilot-in-command or as
copilot of an airplane or helicopter unless the holder has received Authorization as
follows:
(1) the appropriate class rating specified in this Part, or
(2) a type rating when required in accordance with this Part; and
(3) an authorization when required or permitted in accordance with this Part.
(b) The applicant shall meet the appropriate requirements of this Part for the aircraft rating
or authorization sought.
(c) When an applicant demonstrates skill and knowledge for the initial issue or re-issue of
a pilot license, the category and ratings appropriate to the class or type of aircraft used
in the demonstration will be entered on the license.
(d) For the purpose of training, testing or specific special purpose non-revenue, non-
passenger carrying flights, special Authorization may be provided in writing to the
license holder by the Authority in place of issuing the class or type rating in accordance
with (a). This Authorization shall be limited in validity to the time needed to complete
the specific flight.
2.3.2.2 CATEGORY RATINGS

(a) The category of aircraft shall be endorsed on the license as a rating.
(b) Any additional category rating endorsed on a pilot license shall indicate the level of
licensing privileges at which the category rating is granted.

2.3-3
PCAR PART 2
(c) The holder of a pilot license seeking additional category ratings shall meet the
requirements of this Part appropriate to the privileges for which the category rating is
sought.
2.3.2.3 CLASS RATINGS - AIRPLANE AND HELICOPTER AND POWERED-LIFTS

(a) Flight instruction.
(1) The applicant for a class rating shall have completed the flight instruction for the
class rating on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 or 2.3.3.3 Appendix B (for airplane)or
IS 2.3.3.6 or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B (for helicopter), as applicable.
(2) Where applicable the flight instruction shall include instrument procedures,
including instrument approach and landing procedures under normal, abnormal
and emergency conditions including simulated engine failure.
(b) Skill.
(1) The applicant for a class rating shall:
(i) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that
the person is prepared for the required skill test;
(ii) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 or
2.3.3.3Appendix B (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B (for
helicopter), as applicable.
(2) Where applicable the skill test shall include instrument procedures, including
instrument approach and landing procedures under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions including simulated engine failure.
(c) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of a class rating are to act as a pilot on the class of aircraft
specified in the rating.
(d) Validity: Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the validity
period of:
(1) a multi-engine class rating is 1 calendar year;
(2) a single-engine class rating is 2 calendar years.
(e) Renewal.
(1) For the renewal of a single-engine class rating the pilot shall:
(i) within the preceding 24 calendar months, complete a proficiency check on
areas of operation listed in IS 2.3.3.2, Appendix B for PPL or IS
2.3.3.3Appendix B for CPL (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B for PPL or
IS2.3.3.7 Appendix B for CPL (for helicopter), as applicable; or
(ii) have completed 12 hours flight time within the 12 months preceding the expiry
date.
(2) For the renewal of a multi-engine class rating the pilot shall:
(i) within the preceding 12 calendar months, complete a proficiency check on the
subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix B for PPL or IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix B for
CPL (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B for PPL or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B
for CPL (for helicopter), as applicable; and
(ii) have completed 10 route sectors within the 3 months preceding the expiry date.

2.3-4
PCAR PART 2
(3) Where applicable the proficiency check shall include instrument procedures,
and emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure.
(4) If a pilot takes the proficiency check required in this section in the calendar month
before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due, the pilot is
considered to have taken it in the month in which it was due for the purpose of
computing when the next proficiency check is due.
(f) Re-issue. If the class rating has expired the applicant shall:
(1) Have received refresher training from an authorized instructor with an endorsement
that the person is prepared for the required skill test; and
(2) Pass the required skill test on the areas of operation listed in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix
B for PPL or IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix B for CPL (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B
for PPL or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B for CPL (for helicopter), as applicable.
emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure.
2.3.2.4 TYPE RATINGS - AIRPLANE AND HELICOPTER AND POWERED-LIFTS

(a) Knowledge. The applicant for a type rating shall have completed the theoretical
knowledge instruction and demonstrated in a test the relevant knowledge subjects as
listed in IS 2.3.2.4 Appendix A.
(b) Experience.
(1) An applicant for a type rating shall:
(i) have at least 100 hours as pilot-in-command applicable to the category of
aircraft;
(ii) where applicable, have an instrument rating applicable to the category of
aircraft;
(iii) have completed a CRM course as listed in IS 2.3.2.4 Appendix B; and
(iv) have demonstrated in a test, the ATPL knowledge on the basis of the
requirements listed in Subpart 2.3.3.4 (b) (for airplane) or Subpart 2.3.3.8 (b)
(for helicopter), as applicable.
(v) for the first type-rating –airplane-, have completed on-airplane upset recovery
training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
(c) Flight instruction.
(1) The applicant for a type rating shall have completed the flight instruction for the
type rating:
(i) for single-pilot aircraft: on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 or IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix
B (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B for helicopter, as
applicable; and
(ii) for multi-pilot aircraft: on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B (for
airplane) or 2.3.3.8 Appendix B (for helicopter), as applicable.
(2) Where applicable the flight instruction shall include instrument procedures,
and emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure and upset prevention
and recovery training.

2.3-5
PCAR PART 2
(d) Skill.
(1) The applicant for a type rating shall:
the person is prepared for the required skill test;
(ii) pass the required skill test:
(A) for single pilot aircraft: on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 or IS 2.3.3.3
Appendix B (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B for
helicopter, as applicable; and
(B) for multi-pilot aircraft on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 (for airplane) or
IS2.3.3.8 Appendix B(for helicopter), as applicable.
(e) Privileges.
Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the privileges of the
holder of a type rating are to act as a pilot on the type of aircraft specified in the rating.
(1) When the skill test for a type rating has been performed under VFR the type rating
will be issued limiting the privileges to VFR flight and such limitation will be
endorsed on the rating.
(f) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements in this Part, the validity period of
a type rating is 1 year.
(g) Renewal. For the renewal of a type rating the pilot shall:
(1) within the preceding 12 calendar months, complete a proficiency check:
(i) for single pilot aircraft: on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 or IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix
B (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B for helicopter, as
applicable: and
(ii) for multi-pilot aircraft on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B (for
airplane) or IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B (for helicopter), as applicable.
(2) have completed 10 route sectors within the 3 months preceding the expiry date.
(3) Where applicable the proficiency check shall include instrument procedures,
and emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure.
(h) Re-issue. If the type rating has been expired the applicant shall:
(1) have received refresher training from an authorized instructor with an endorsement
that the person is prepared for the required skill test: and
(2) pass the required skill test:
(i) for single pilot aircraft: on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 or IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix
B (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B (for helicopter), as
applicable: and

2.3-6
PCAR PART 2
(ii) for multi-pilot aircraft on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B (for
airplane) or IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B (for helicopter), as applicable.
2.3.2.5 CATEGORY II AND III AUTHORIZATION

(a) General.
(1) A person, not flying under Part 8, may not act as pilot of an aircraft during Category
II or III operations unless that person holds a Category II or III pilot Authorization
for that category, class or type of aircraft.
(2) The applicant for a Category II or III pilot Authorization shall:
(i) hold a pilot license with an instrument rating or an ATPL; and
(ii) hold a category and class or type rating for the aircraft for which the
Authorization is sought.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a Category II or III pilot Authorization shall have
completed the theoretical knowledge instruction and demonstrated in a test the
knowledge subjects as listed in IS 2.3.2.4 Appendix A (Section 6).
(c) Experience. The applicant for a Category II or III pilot Authorization shall have at least:
(1) 50 hours of night flight time as PIC;
(2) 75 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated instrument conditions; and
(3) 250 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC.
(d) Flight instruction. The applicant for a Category II or III pilot Authorization shall have
completed the flight instruction on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B
(Section10) for airplane or IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B (Section 9) for helicopter, as
applicable.
(e) Skill. The applicant for a Category II or III pilot Authorization shall pass a skill test
including the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B (Section 10) for airplane or
IS2.3.3.8 Appendix B (Section 9) for helicopter, as applicable.
(f) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the validity
period of a Category II and III Authorization is 6 months.
(g) Renewal. For the renewal of a Category II or III pilot Authorization the pilot shall have
completed a proficiency check including the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix
B(Section 10) for airplane or IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B (Section 9) for helicopter, as
applicable.
(h) Re-issue. If the Category II or the Category III have been expired the applicant shall:
(2) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B
(Section10) for airplane or IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B (Section 9) for helicopter, as
applicable.
2.3.3 PILOT LICENSES, INSTRUMENT AND INSTRUCTOR RATINGS

2.3.3.1 STUDENT PILOTS

2.3-7
PCAR PART 2
(a) The applicant for a student pilot Authorization shall be not less than 16 years of age.
(b) The applicant can read, speak and understand English
(c) The applicant must hold a current class 2 Medical Certificate
(d) Pre-solo flight instruction. Prior to conducting a solo flight, a student pilot shall have:
(1) received and logged flight training for the maneuvers and procedures as listed in
IS 2.3.3.1.
(2) demonstrated satisfactory proficiency and safety, as judged by an authorized
instructor, on the maneuvers and procedures as listed in IS 2.3.3.1.
(e) Solo flight requirement
(1) Holding at least a Class 2 Medical Certificate
(2) An Authorized student pilot had received and logged ground training from an
authorized instructor on the following subject:
(i) Applicable sections of Part 2 and Part 8;
(ii) Airspace rules and procedures for the airport where the student will perform
solo flight; and
(iii) Flight characteristics and operation for the make and model of aircraft to be
flown.
(3) Must be authorized by a Flight Instructor.
2.3.3.2 PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE - AIRPLANE

(a) Age. The applicant for a PPL(A) shall be not less than 17 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a PPL(A) shall:
(1) Receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the following
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a PPL(A); rules of the
air; appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures
(ii) Aircraft general knowledge:
(A) Principles of operation of airplane powerplants, systems and instruments;
(B) Operating limitations of airplanes and powerplants: relevant operational
information from the flight manual or other appropriate document;
(iii) Flight performance and planning:
(A) effects of loading and weight distribution on flight characteristics; weight
and balance calculations;
(B) use and practical application of take-off, landing and other performance
data;
(C) pre-flight and en-route flight planning appropriate to private operations
under VFR; preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans;
appropriate air traffic services procedures; position reporting procedures;
altimeter setting procedures; operations in areas of high-density traffic;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the PPL(A)
(v) Meteorology: application of elementary aeronautical meteorology; use of, and
procedures for obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry

2.3-8
PCAR PART 2
(vi) Navigation: practical aspects of air navigation and dead-reckoning techniques;

use of aeronautical charts:
(vii) Operational procedures:
(A) use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM, aeronautical
codes and abbreviations;
(B) appropriate precautionary and emergency procedures, including action to
be taken to avoid hazardous weather, wake turbulence and the operating
hazards;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to airplanes;
(ix) Radiotelephony:
(A) radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to VFR
operations; action to be taken in case of communication failure;
(B) as listed in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix A;
(2) have received an endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorized instructor
who:
(i) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects;
(ii) certifies that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test; and
(3) pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge areas listed in IS 2.3.3.2
Appendix A.
(c) Experience
(1) The applicant for a PPL(A) shall have completed not less than 40 hours of flight
time as pilot of airplanes, a total of 5 hours may have been completed in a flight
simulator or flight procedures trainer.
(2) The applicant shall have completed in airplanes not less than 10 hours of solo flight
time under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor, including 5hours of
solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight totaling not less
than 270 km (150 nm) in the course of which full-stop landings at two difference
aerodromes shall be made.
(3) The holder of pilot licenses in other categories may be credited with 10 hours of
the total flight time as pilot-in-command towards a PPL(A).
(d) Flight Instruction.
(1) The applicant for a PPL(A) shall receive and log not less than 20 hours of dual
instruction from an authorized instructor on the subjects listed in IS
2.3.3.2Appendix B. These 20 hours may include 5 hours completed in a flight
simulator or flight procedures trainer. The 20 hours of dual instruction shall include
at least 5hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight
totaling not less than 270 km (150 NM) in the course of which full-stop landings at
two different aerodromes shall be made.
(2) The instructor shall ensure that the applicant has operational experience in at least
the following areas to the level of performance required for the private pilot:
(i) pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, airplane
inspection and servicing;
(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and
procedures;
(iii) control of the airplane by external visual reference;

2.3-9
PCAR PART 2
(iv) flight at critically slow airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, incipient
and full stalls;
(v) flight at critically high airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, spiral dives,
(vi) normal and cross-wind take-offs and landings;
(vii) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance take-offs, short field
landings;
(viii) flight by reference solely to instruments, including the completion of a level180
degrees turn:
(ix) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and, where
available, radio navigation aids;
(x) emergency operations, including simulated airplane equipment malfunctions;
and
(xi) operations to, from and transmitting controlled aerodromes, compliance with
air traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as
further specified in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix B.
(3) If the privileges of the PPL(A) are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
received 4 hours dual instruction in airplanes in night flying, including take-offs,
landings and 1 hour of navigation and that information shall be endorsed on the
license.
Note 1: Training can be performed by an individually authorized flight instructor, by
an authorized flight instructor in a flying club, or in an Aviation Training
Organization.
(e) Skill. The applicant for a PPL(A) shall:
(1) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the
person is prepared for the required skill test; and
(2) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform as pilot in-command
of an airplane, the areas of operation described in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix B, with a
degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a
PPL(A), and to
(i) operate the airplane within its limitations;
(ii) complete all maneuvers with smoothness and accuracy;
(iii) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(iv) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(v) maintain control of the airplane at all times in a manner such that the successful
outcome of a procedure or maneuver is never seriously in doubt.
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for a PPL (A) shall hold a current Class 2 Medical
Certificate.
(g) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of a PPL (A) shall be to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot
in-command or co-pilot of any airplane engaged in non-revenue flights.
(h) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the validity
period of the license is 5 years. For renewal of the license see 2.2.3.

2.3-10
PCAR PART 2
2.3.3.3 COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE - AIRPLANE

(a) Age. The applicant for a CPL (A) shall be not less than 18 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a CPL (A) shall:
(1) receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the following
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a CPL (A); rules of the
(A) principles of operation and functioning of airplane powerplants, systems
and instruments:
(B) operating limitations of appropriate airplanes and powerplants; relevant
operational information from the flight manual or other appropriate
document;
(C) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate
airplanes;
(D) maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of
appropriate airplanes;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on airplane handling, flight
characteristics and performance; mass and balance calculations;
data;
(C) pre-flight and en-route flight planning appropriate to operations under VFR;
preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans; appropriate air traffic
services procedures;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the CPL (A);
(v) Meteorology:
(A) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports. charts
and forecasts; use of, and procedures for obtaining, meteorological
information, pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry;
(B) aeronautical meteorology; climatology of relevant areas in respect of the
elements having an effect upon aviation; the moment of pressure systems.
the structure of fronts; and the origin and characteristics of significant
weather phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing conditions;
hazardous weather avoidance;
(vi) Navigation: air navigation. including the use of aeronautical charts, instruments
and navigation aids; understanding of the principles and characteristics of
appropriate navigation systems; operation of air borne equipment
(vii) Operation procedures:
(A) use of aeronautical documentation such as AIR; NOTAM, aeronautical
codes and abbreviations:
(B) appropriate precautionary and emergency procedures;
(C) operational procedures for carriage of freight; potential hazards associated
with dangerous goods;

2.3-11
PCAR PART 2
(D) requirements and practices for safety briefing to passengers, including

precautions to be observed when embarking and disembarking from
airplanes;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to airplanes, and upset
prevention and recovery elements from IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C;
operations; action to be taken in case of communication failure:
(B) as further specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix A.
(2) Have received an endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorized
instructor who:
(i) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects:
(ii) certifies that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test: and
(3) Pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.3
Appendix B.
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for a CPL(A) shall have completed not less than 200 hours of flight
time, or 150 hours if completed during an Authority-approved training course
provided for in an Approved Training Organization under Part 3, as a pilot of
airplanes, of which 10 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator or flight
procedures trainer.
(2) The applicant shall have completed in airplanes not less than:
(i) 100 hours as pilot-in-command or, in the case of a course of approved training,
70 hours as pilot-in-command;
(ii) 20 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross
country flight totaling not less than 540 km (300 NM) in the course of which full-
stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made:
(iii) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be
instrument ground time;
(iv) if the privileges of the license are to be exercised at night, 5 hours of night flight
time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot-in-command.
(3) The holder of a pilot license in another category may be credited towards the 200
hours of flight time as follows:
(i) 10 hours as PIC in a category other than helicopters; or
(ii) 30 hours as pilot-in-command holding a PPL(H) on helicopters; or
(iii) 100 hours as pilot-in-command holding a CPL(H) on helicopters.
(4) The applicant for a CPL(A) shall hold a PPL(A) issued under this Part.
(1) The applicant for a CPL(A) shall receive and log not less than 25 hours of dual
instruction from an authorized instructor. These 25 hours may include 5 hours
completed in a flight simulator or flight procedures trainer.
the following areas to the level of performance required for the commercial pilot:

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PCAR PART 2
(i) pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, airplane

inspection and servicing; aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision
avoidance precautions and procedures;
(ii) control of the airplane by external visual reference;
(iii) upset prevention training including flight at critically slow airspeeds, recognition
of, and recovery from, incipient and full stalls, and on-airplane upset recovery
training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C;
(iv) flight at critically high airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, spiral dives;
(v) normal and cross-wind take-offs and landings;
(vi) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance take-offs, short field
landings;
(vii) basic flight maneuvers and recovery from unusual attitudes by reference solely
to basic flight instruments;
(viii) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and radio
navigation aids; diversion procedures
(ix) abnormal and emergency procedures and maneuvers; and
(x) operations to, from and transmitting controlled aerodromes, compliance with
air traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as
further specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix B.
(3) If the privileges of the CPL (A) are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
received 4 hours dual instruction in airplanes in night flying, including take-offs,
landings and 1 hour of navigation.
(4) For airplane instructor ratings, have completed on-airplane recovery training as
specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
(5) For Flight Instructor (FI), have completed on-airplane upset prevention and
recovery training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
(e) Skill. The applicant for a CPL(A) shall:
(2) shall have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform as pilot-in
command of an airplane, the areas of operation described in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix
B, with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder
of a CPL(A), and to
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for a CPL (A) shall hold a current Class 1 Medical
Certificate.
privileges of the holder of a CPL(A) shall be:
(1) to exercise all the privileges of the holder of a PPL(A);

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PCAR PART 2
(2) to act as pilot-in-command in any airplane engaged in operations other than

commercial air transportation;
(3) to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air transportation in any airplane
certificated for single-pilot operation; and
(4) to act as co-pilot in commercial air transportation in airplanes required to be
operated with a copilot.
period of the license is Five (5) year. For renewal of the license see 2.2.3.
2.3.3.4 AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSE - AIRPLANE

(a) Age. The applicant for an ATPL (A) shall be not less than 21 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an ATPL (A) shall:
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of an ATPL(A); rules of the
air, appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures
(A) general characteristics and limitations of electrical, hydraulic,
pressurization and other airplane systems; flight control systems, including
autopilot and stability augmentation;
(B) principles of operation, handling procedures and operating limitations of
airplane powerplants; effects of atmospheric conditions on engine
performance; relevant operational information from the flight manual or
other appropriate document,
(C) operating procedures and limitations of appropriate airplanes; effects of
atmospheric conditions on airplane performance,
(D) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate
airplanes;
(E) flight instruments; compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic
instruments, operational limits and precession effects; practices and
procedures in the event of malfunctions of various flight instruments;
(F) (maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of
appropriate airplanes;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on airplane handling, flight
data, including procedures for cruise control;
(C) pre-flight and en-route operational flight planning; preparation and filing of
air traffic services flight plans; appropriate air traffic services procedures;
altimeter setting procedures
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the ATPL(A)
(v) Meteorology:

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PCAR PART 2
(A) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports, charts

and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information; pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry;
elements having an effect upon aviation; the moment of pressure systems;
the structure of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of significant
(C) causes, recognition and effects of engine and airframe icing; frontal zone
penetration procedures; hazardous weather avoidance;
(vi) Navigation:
(A) air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts, radio navigation
aids and area navigation systems; specific navigation requirements for
long-range flights; use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and
instruments necessary for the control and navigation of airplanes;
(B) use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure,
enroute, approach and landing phases of flight; identification of radio
navigation aids;
(C) principles and characteristics of self-contained and external-referenced
navigation systems; operation of airborne equipment;
(A) interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP,
NOTAM, aeronautical codes and abbreviations, and instrument procedure
charts for departure, en-route, descent and approach;
(B) precautionary and emergency procedures; safety practices associated with
flight under IFR
(C) operational procedures for carriage of freight and dangerous goods;
airplanes;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to airplanes; subsonic
aerodynamics; compressibility effects, maneuver boundary limits, wing design
characteristics, effects of supplementary lift and drag devices; relationships
between lift, drag and thrust at various airspeeds and in different flight
configuration and upset prevention and recovery elements from IS 2.3.3.3
Appendix C;
(ix) Radiotelephony: radiotelephony procedures and phraseology; action to be
taken in case of communication failure; as further specified in IS
2.3.3.4Appendix A
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for an ATPL (A) shall have completed not less than 1,500 hours of
flight time as a pilot of airplanes of which a maximum of 100 hours may have been
completed in a flight simulator. The applicant shall have completed in airplanes not
less than:
(i) 250 hours, either as pilot-in-command, or made up by not less than 100 hours
as pilot-in-command and the necessary additional flight time as co-pilot
performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command, the duties and

2.3-15
PCAR PART 2
functions of a pilot-in-command; provided that the method of supervision

employed is acceptable to the Authority;
(ii) 200 hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than 100 hours shall
be as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the
pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command, provided that
the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the Authority;
(iii) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be
instrument ground time; and
(iv) 100 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot.
(2) Holders of a CPL(H) will be credited with 50% of their helicopter flight time as pilot-
in-command towards the flight time required in paragraph (1) above.
(3) The applicant shall have completed a CRM course on the subjects listed in
IS2.3.2.4 Appendix B.
(4) The applicant for an ATPL(A) shall be the holder of a CPL(A) with instrument and
multi-engine rating issued under this Part.
(5) Holders of MPL (A) shall have completed not less than:
(i) 3,000 hours as pilot of airplanes of which a maximum of 100 hours may have
been completed in a flight simulator. The applicant shall have completed in
airlines not less than:
(A) 350 hours of pilot-in-command, or made up of not less than 10 hours as
pilot-in-command and the necessary additional flight time as co-pilot
performing under the supervision of pilot-in-command, the duties and
functions of pilot-in-command.
Note: After completion of the required skill test, the applicant shall be issued
ATPL with limitations: “For Multi-Crew Operations Only” and “For
Supervised Line Flying Only”.
(B) The applicant shall complete not less than 150 hours as pilot-in-command
during Supervised Line Flying.
Note: After completion of not less than 150 hours as pilot-in-command
during SLF, the applicant shall be issued ATPL with limitation: “For Multi-
Crew Operation Only
(d) Flight Instruction. The applicant for an ATPL(A) shall have received the dual flight
instruction required for the issue of the CPL(A) and the IR.
(e) Skill. The applicant for an ATPL(A) shall:
(2) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform, as pilot-in
command of a multi-engine airplane required to be operated with a co-pilot, the
following procedures and maneuvers:
(i) pre-flight procedures, including the preparation of the operational flight plan
and filing of the air traffic services flight plan;
(ii) normal flight procedures and maneuvers during all phases of flight;

2.3-16
PCAR PART 2
(iii) procedures and maneuvers for IFR operations under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure, and covering at least
the following:
(A) transition to instrument flight on take-off;
(B) standard instrument departures and arrivals;
(C) en-route IFR procedures and navigation;
(D) holding procedures;
(E) instrument approaches to specified minima;
(F) missed approach procedures;
(G) landings from instrument approaches;
(iv) abnormal and emergency procedures and maneuvers related to failures and
malfunctions of equipment, such as powerplant, systems and airframe; and
(v) procedures for crew incapacitation and crew coordination, including allocation
of pilot tasks, crew cooperation and use of checklists.
(3) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform the areas of
operation described in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B, with a degree of competency
appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL(A), and to:
outcome of a procedure or maneuver is never in doubt;
(vi) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and
(vii) communicate effectively with the other flight crew members
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for an ATPL(A) shall hold a current Class 1 Medical
Certificate .,except for:
(i) Check Airman Qualifications for Flight Simulation Training Device as provided
for under 8.10.1.39 (b) (1); and
(ii) Check Airmen who have reached their 65 th birthday or who do not have an
appropriate medical certificate as provided for under 8.10.1.39 (d) and 8.10.1.1
(c).
privileges of the holder of an ATPL(A) shall be:
(1) to exercise all the privileges of the holder of a PPL(A) and CPL(A) and of an IR(A);
and
(2) to act as pilot-in-command and co-pilot in airplanes in air transportation.
(3) if authorized under this CAR, holder of an ATPL may instruct other pilots in air
transportation service in aircraft or approved simulator training device of the
category, class and type for which he is rated. To do so, he must be familiar with
the operating procedures of the company for which he is providing pilot instruction.
However, he may not instruct for more than 8 hours in one day, and not more than
36 hours in any 7-day period. He may instruct under this section only in aircraft

2.3-17
PCAR PART 2
with functioning dual controls. Unless he has a valid flight instructor license, an
airline transport pilot may instruct only as provided in this section.
period of the license is 5 years. For renewal of the license see Subpart 2.2.3.
2.3.3.5 MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENSE (MPL)

2.3.3.5.1 GENERAL
(a) Applicability
This section prescribes the requirements for the issuance of an MPL and ratings, the
conditions under which those license and ratings are necessary, and the limitations
upon those license and ratings.
(b) Eligibility requirement:
(1) To be eligible for an MPL in the airplane category, the applicant shall have
completed an approved training course. The training shall be competency-based
and conducted in a multi-crew operational environment.
(2) During the training, the applicant shall have acquired the knowledge, skills and
attitudes required as the underpinning attributes for performing as a co-pilot of a
turbine-powered air transport airplane certificated for operation with a minimum
crew of at least two pilots.
(c) Assessment level:
(1) The applicant for the MPL in the airplane category shall have satisfactorily
demonstrated performance in all the nine competency units specified herein at the
advanced level of competency and shall have demonstrated the skill and
knowledge required for the safe operation of the applicable type of aircraft, relevant
to the licensing requirements and piloting functions of the applicant.
(2) The use of a flight simulation training device for acquiring the experience or
performing any maneuver required during the demonstration of skill for the issue
of a license or rating shall be approved by the Authority, which shall ensure that
the flight simulation training device used is appropriate to the task.
(d) Competency units:
The nine competency units that an applicant has to demonstrate are as follows: The
applicant shall:
(1) Apply threat and error management (TEM) principles;
(2) Perform airplane ground operations;
(3) Perform take-off;
(4) Perform climb
(5) Perform cruise;
(6) Perform descent
(7) Perform approach;
(8) Perform landing; and
(9) Perform after-landing and airplane post-flight operations.
(e) Nationality:

2.3-18
PCAR PART 2
Be a citizen of the Philippines or a citizen of a foreign country granting similar rights

and privileges to citizens of the Philippines subject, however, to existing treaty or
treaties and agreements entered into by the Philippine Government with foreign
countries and subject further to security measures adopted by the Philippine
Government.
2.3.3.5.2 REQUIREMENTS
(a) Age. The applicant for a MPL shall be not less than 18 years of age.
(b) Language proficiency. Be able to pass the ICAO English Proficiency Test at level 4 or
above.
(c) Knowledge. The applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate
to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL (A) and appropriate to the category
of aircraft intended to be included in the license, in at least the following subjects (see
IS: 2.3.3.5 Appendix A). The applicant for an MPL shall:
(1) Receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the following
subjects:
(i) Air Law: Rules and regulations relevant to the holder of an airline transport pilot
license; rules of the air; appropriate air traffic services practices and
procedures.
(ii) Aircraft General Knowledge:
(A) General characteristics and limitations of electrical, hydraulic,
pressurization and other aircraft systems; flight control systems, including
autopilot and stability augmentation.
(B) Principles of operation, handling procedures and operating limitations of
aircraft powerplants; effects of atmospheric conditions on engine
performance; relevant operational information from the flight manual or
other appropriate document.
(C) Operating procedures and limitations of the relevant category of aircraft;
effects of atmospheric conditions on aircraft performance in accordance to
the relevant operational information from the flight manual.
(D) Use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate
aircraft.
(E) Flight instruments, compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic
procedures in the event of malfunctions of various flight instruments and
electronic display units.
(F) Maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of
appropriate aircraft.
(G) For helicopter and powered-lift, transmission (power-trains) where
applicable;
(iii) Flight Performance and Planning:
(A) Effects of loading and mass distribution on aircraft handling.
(iv) Human Performance:
(A) Human performance including principles of threat and error management.
(v) Meteorology:

2.3-19
PCAR PART 2
(A) Interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports,

charts and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information, pre-flight and in-flight altimetry.
(B) Aeronautical meteorology; climatology of relevant areas in respect of the
elements having an effect upon aviation; the movement of pressure
systems; the structure of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of
significant weather phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing
conditions.
(C) Causes, recognition and effects of icing; frontal zone penetration
procedures; hazardous weather avoidance.
(D) In the case of airplane and powered-lift, practical high altitude meteorology,
including interpretation and use of weather reports, charts and forecasts,
and jet-streams.
(vi) Navigation:
(A) Air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts, radio navigation
long-range flights.
(B) Use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for
the control and navigation of aircraft.
(C) Use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure,
navigation aids.
(D) Principles and characteristics of self-contained and external-referenced
navigation systems; operation of airborne equipment.
(vii) Operational Procedures:
(A) Application of threat and error management to operational performance;
(B) Interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP,NOTAM,
aeronautical codes and abbreviations;
(C) Precautionary and emergency procedures; safety practices;
(D) Operational procedures for carriage of freight and dangerous goods;
(E) Requirements and practices for safety briefing to passengers, including
aircraft;
(F) In the case of the helicopter, and if applicable, powered-lift, settling with
power; ground resonance; retreating blade stall; dynamic roll-over and
other operation hazards; safety procedures, associated with flight under
VFR;
(viii) Principles of flight
(ix) Radiotelephony
(A) Procedures and phraseology; action to be taken in case of communication
failure.
(d) Skill. The applicant for an MPL shall have demonstrated the skills:
(1) Required for fulfilling all the competency units specified in this part as pilot flying
and pilot not flying, to the level required to perform as a co-pilot of turbine

2.3-20
PCAR PART 2
powered airplanes certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two
pilots under VFR and IFR, and to:
(2) Recognize and manage threats and errors;
(3) Smoothly and accurately manually control the airplane within its limitations at all
times, such that the successful outcome of a procedure or maneuver is assured;
(4) Operate the airplane in the mode of automation appropriate to the phase of flight
and to maintain awareness of the active mode of automation;
(5) Perform, in an accurate manner, normal, abnormal and emergency procedures in
all phases of flight; and
(6) Communicate effectively with other flight crew members and demonstrate the
ability to effectively perform procedures for crew incapacitation, crew coordination,
including allocation of pilot tasks, crew cooperation, adherence to standard
operating procedures (SOPs) and use of checklists.
(7) Progress in acquiring the skills above shall be continuously assessed.
Note: See IS: 2.3.3.5 Appendix B for MPL Skills requirements.
(e) Medical fitness. The applicant for an MPL shall hold a current Class 1 Medical
Certificate.
(f) Ratings. Comply with the sections of this regulation that apply to the rating he seeks.
(1) Airplane rating: Aeronautical experience.
(i) An applicant for a Multi-crew pilot license with an airplane rating shall have
completed an approved training course and shall have not less than 240hours
as pilot flying and pilot not flying of actual and simulated flight.
(ii) Flight experience in actual flight shall include not less than 40 hours of flight
time, or 35 hours if completed during a course of approved training, as a pilot
of airplanes appropriate to the class rating sought and shall include upset
prevention and recovery training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C, night
flying, cross-country and flight by reference solely to instruments.
(iii) The Licensing Authority shall determine whether experience as a pilot under
instruction in a flight simulation training device is acceptable as part of the total
flight time of 40 hours or 35 hours, as the case may be. Credit for such
experience shall be limited to a maximum of 5 hours.
(iv) When the applicant has flight time as a pilot of aircraft in other categories, the
Licensing Authority shall determine whether such experience is acceptable
and, if so, the extent to which the flight time requirements of sub-paragraph
(v) above can be reduced accordingly.
(vi) In addition to meeting the above provisions, the applicant shall have gained, in
a turbine-powered airplane certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at
least two pilots, or in a flight simulation training device approved for that
purpose by the Licensing Authority the experience necessary to achieve the
advanced level of competency defined listed in Subpart 2.3.3.5.1 (c) and (d)
above.
privileges of the holder of an MPL shall be:
(1) (i) to exercise all the privileges of the holder of a private pilot license in the
appropriate airplane category provided the requirements have been met;

2.3-21
PCAR PART 2
(ii) to exercise the privileges of the instrument rating in a multi-crew operation; and
(iii) To act as co-pilot in an airplane required to be operated with a co-pilot.
(2) Before exercising the privileges of the instrument rating in a single pilot operation,
the license holder shall have demonstrated an ability to act as pilot-in-command in
a single pilot operation exercised solely by reference to instruments.
(3) Before exercising the privileges of a commercial pilot license in a single pilot
operation, the license holder shall have:
(i) completed 70 hours, either as pilot-in-command, or made up by not less than
10 hours as pilot-in-command and the necessary additional flight time as pilot
in-command under supervision;
(ii) meet the requirements for the commercial pilot license.
(4) Act as second-in-command/co-pilot in commercial air transportation in airplanes
required to be operated with a co-pilot by the type certificate of the aircraft or the
regulations under which the aircraft will be operated; and
(5) When the holder of an airline transport pilot license in the airplane category has
only previously held a MPL, the privileges of the license shall be limited to multi-
crew operations unless the holder has met the requirements established. Any
limitation of privileges shall be endorsed on the license.
period of the license is five (5) year. For renewal of the license see Subpart 2.2.3.
2.3.3.6 INSTRUMENT RATING - AIRPLANE

(a) General. The holder of a pilot license shall not act either as pilot-in-command or as
copilot of an aircraft under instrument flight rules (IFR) unless such holder has received
proper Authorization from the Authority. Proper Authorization shall comprise an
instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft category.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an IR (A) shall:
subjects
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to flight under IFR: related air traffic
services practices and procedures;
(A) use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for
the control and navigation of airplanes under IFR and in instrument
meteorological conditions; use and limitations of autopilot;
(B) compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic instruments,
operational limits and precession effects; practices and procedures in the
event of malfunctions of various flight instruments;
(iii) Flight performance and planning
(A) pre-flight preparations and checks appropriate to flight under IFR;
(B) operational flight planning; preparation and filing of air traffic services flight
plans under IFR; altimeter setting procedures;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to instrument flight in
airplanes;

2.3-22
PCAR PART 2
(v) Meteorology:
(A) application of aeronautical meteorology; interpretation and use of reports,
charts and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry;
(B) causes, recognition and effects of engine and airframe icing; frontal zone
(vi) Navigation:
(A) practical air navigation using radio navigation aids;
(B) use accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure,
navigation aids;
(vii) Operation procedures
(A) interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM,
aeronautical codes and abbreviations, and instrument procedure charts for
departure, en-route; descent and approach;
flight under IFR
(viii) Radiotelephony:
(A) radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to aircraft
operations under IFR, action to be taken in case of communication failure;
(B) as listed in IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix A.
who:
(3) pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.6
Appendix A.
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for an IR (A) shall hold at least a PPL (A).
(2) The applicant shall have completed not less than:
(i) 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in
categories acceptable to the Authority, of which not less than 10 hours shall be
in airplanes; and
(ii) 40 hours of instrument time in airplanes or helicopters of which not more than
20 hours, or 30 hours where a flight simulator is used, may be instrument
ground time. The ground time shall be under the supervision of an authorized
instructor.
(1) The applicant for an IR (A) shall have not less than 10 hours of the instrument flight
time required in (c)(2)(ii) while receiving and logging dual instruction in airplanes
from an authorized flight instructor, on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.6Appendix B.
the following areas to the level of performance required for the holder of an
instrument rating:

2.3-23
PCAR PART 2
(i) pre-flight procedures, including the use of the flight manual or equivalent
document, and appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of
an IFR flight plan;
(ii) pre-flight inspection, use of checklists, taxiing and pre-take-off checks;
(iii) procedures and maneuvers for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions covering at least:
(iv) in flight maneuvers and particular flight characteristics.
(3) If the privileges of the instrument rating are to be exercised on multi-engine
airplanes, the applicant shall have received dual instrument flight instruction in
such an airplane from an authorized flight instructor. The instructor shall ensure
that the applicant has operational experience in the operation of the airplane solely
by reference to instruments with one engine inoperative or simulated inoperative.
(e) Skill. The applicant for an IR (A) shall:
appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an IR (A), and to:
outcome of a procedure or maneuver is never seriously in doubt,
(vi) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures, and
(3) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to operate multi-engine
airplanes solely by reference to instruments with one engine inoperative, or
simulated inoperative, described in IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B, if the privileges of the
instrument rating are to be exercised on such airplanes.
(f) Medical fitness. Applicants who hold a PPL shall have established their hearing acuity
on the basis of compliance with the hearing requirements for the issue of a Class
1Medical Certificate.
privileges of the holder of an IR(A) shall be to pilot airplanes under IFR.

2.3-24
PCAR PART 2
(1) Before exercising the privileges on multi-engine airplanes the holder of the rating
shall have complied with the requirements of (e) (3).
period of an IR (A) is 5 years.
(i) Renewal:
(1) For the renewal of a single-engine instrument rating the applicant shall within the
preceding 12 calendar months, complete proficiency check on the subjects listed
in IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B.
(2) For the renewal of a multi-engine instrument rating the applicant shall within the
preceding 12 calendar months, complete proficiency check on the subjects listed
before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due; the pilot is
(j) Re-issue. If the instrument rating has been expired the applicant shall:
(2) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B.
2.3.3.7 PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE - HELICOPTER

(a) Age. The applicant for a PPL (H) shall be not less than 17 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an PPL(H) shall
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a PPL (H); rules of the
(A) principles of operation of helicopter powerplants, transmission
(powertrains),systems and instruments;
(B) operating limitations of helicopters and powerplants: relevant operational
information from the flight manual;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on flight characteristics; mass and
balance calculations;
data;
(C) pre-flight and en-route flight planning appropriate to private operation
sunder VFR; preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans;
appropriate air traffic services procedures; position reporting procedures;
altimeter setting procedures; operations in areas of high-density traffic;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the PPL(H)
procedures for obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry

2.3-25
PCAR PART 2
(vi) Navigation: practical aspects of air navigation and dead reckoning techniques;
use of aeronautical charts:
be taken to avoid hazardous weather and wake turbulence; settling with
power, ground resonance, rollover and other operating hazards;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to helicopters;
(A) radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to VFR operations;
action to be taken in case of communication failure;
who:
(i) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects
(3) pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge areas listed in IS 2.3.3.6
Appendix A
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for a PPL (H) shall have completed not less than 40 hours of flight
time as pilot of airplanes, a total of 5 hours may have been completed in a flight
simulator or flight procedures trainer.
(2) The applicant shall have completed in helicopter not less than 10 hours of solo
flight time under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor, including 5hours
of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight totaling not
less than 180 km (100 nm) in the course of which landings at two different points
shall be made.
(3) The holder of pilot licenses in other categories may be credited with 10 hours of
the total flight time as pilot-in-command towards a PPL (H).
(1) The applicant for a PPL(H) shall receive and log not less than 20 hours of dual
instruction from an authorized instructor on the subjects listed in IS
2.3.3.6Appendix B. These 20 hours may include 5 hours completed in a flight
simulator or flight procedures trainer. The 20 hours of dual instruction shall include
at least 5hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight
totaling not less than 180 km (100 NM) in the course of which landings at two
different points shall be made.
the following areas to the level of performance required for the private pilot:
(i) pre-flight operations. including mass and balance determination, helicopter
procedures;
(iii) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;

2.3-26
PCAR PART 2
(iv) recovery at the incipient stage from settling with power; recovery techniques
from low-rotor rpm within the normal range of engine rpm; ground maneuvering
and run-ups; hovering; take-offs and landings — normal, out of wind and
sloping ground;
(v) take-offs and landings with minimum necessary power; maximum performance
take-off and landing techniques; restricted site operations; quick stops;
(vi) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and, where
available, radio navigation aids including a flight of at least one hour;
(vii) emergency operations, including simulated helicopter equipment malfunctions;
auto-rotative approach and landing; and
(viii) operations to, from and transmitting controlled aerodromes, compliance with
air traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology
(ix) as further specified in IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B.
(3) If the privileges of the PPL (H) are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
received 4 hours dual instruction in helicopters in night flying, including takeoffs,
landings and 1 hour of navigation.
(e) Skill. The applicant for a PPL (H) shall:
(2) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform as pilot-in command
of a helicopter, the areas of operation described in IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B, with a
PPL(A), and to
(i) operate the helicopter within its limitations;
(v) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in a manner such that the
successful outcome of a procedure or maneuver is never seriously in doubt.
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for a PPL(H) shall hold a current Class 2 Medical
Certificate.
privileges of the holder of a PPL(H) shall be to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot
in-command or co-pilot of any helicopter engaged in non-revenue flights.
period of the license is 5 years. For renewal of the license see 2.2.3.
2.3.3.8 COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE - HELICOPTER

(a) Age. The applicant for a CPL(H) shall be not less than 18 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an CPL(H) shall:
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a CPL (H); rules of the

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(ii) Aircraft general knowledge

(A) principles of operation and functioning of helicopter powerplants,
transmission (power-trains) systems and instruments;
(B) operating limitations of appropriate helicopters and powerplants; relevant
operational information from the flight manual;
(C) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate
helicopters;
(D) maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of
appropriate helicopters;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution, including external loads, on
helicopter handling, flight characteristics and performance; mass and
data;
preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans; appropriate air traffic
services procedures;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the CPL (H);
(v) Meteorology:
(A) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports,
charts and forecasts; use of, and procedures for obtaining, meteorological
information, pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry;
elements having an effect upon aviation; the moment of pressure systems,
weather phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing conditions,
(vi) Navigation: air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts, instruments
and navigation aids; understanding of the principles and characteristics of
appropriate navigation systems; operation of air borne equipment.
(vii) Operation procedures
(B) appropriate precautionary and emergency procedures; settling with power,
ground resonance, roll-over and other operating hazards;
(C) operational procedures for carriage of freight, including external loads;
potential hazards associated with dangerous goods;
helicopters;
operations; action to be taken in case of communication failure; and

2.3-28
PCAR PART 2

who:
Appendix A.
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for a CPL(H) license shall have completed not less than 150 hours
of flight time, or 100 hours if completed during an integrated course of approved
training provided for in an Aviation Training Organization Part 3, as a pilot of
helicopters, of which 10 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator or
flight procedures trainer.
(2) The applicant shall have completed in helicopters not less than:
(i) 35 hours as pilot-in-command;
(ii) 10 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross-
country flight in the course of which full-stop landings at two different points
shall be made;
(iii) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be
instrument ground time;
(iv) if the privileges of the license are to be exercised at night, 5 hours of night flight
time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot-in-command.
(3) The holder of a pilot license in the helicopter category may be credited towards the
150 hours of flight time as follows:
(i) 20 hours as pilot-in-command holding a PPL(A) in airplanes; or
(ii) 50 hours as pilot-in-command holding a CPL(A) in airplanes.
(4) The applicant for a CPL (H) shall hold a PPL(H) under this Part.
(1) The applicant for a CPL (H) shall have received and log not less than 30 hours of
dual instruction in helicopters from an authorized flight instructor under Part 3 on
the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B.
the following areas to the level of performance required for the commercial pilot:
(i) Pre-flight operations. including mass and balance determination, helicopter
procedures;
(iii) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;
(iv) recovery at the incipient stage from settling with power; recovery techniques
from low-rotor rpm within the normal range of engine rpm;
(v) ground maneuvering and run-ups; hovering; take-offs and landings - normal,
out of wind and sloping ground; steep approaches;

2.3-29
PCAR PART 2
(vi) take-offs and landings with minimum necessary power; maximum performance
take-off and landing techniques; restricted site operations; quick stops;
(vii) hovering out of ground effect; operations with external load, if applicable; flight
at high altitude;
(viii) basic flight maneuvers and recovery from unusual attitudes by
reference solely to basic flight instruments;
(ix) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and radio
navigation aids; diversion procedures
(x) abnormal and emergency procedures. including simulated helicopter
equipment malfunctions; auto-rotative approach and landing; and
(xi) operations to, from and transmitting controlled aerodromes, compliance with
air traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology
(xii) as further specified in IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B.
(3) If the privileges of the license are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
received dual instruction in helicopters in night flying, including take-offs, landings
and navigation.
(e) Skill. The applicant for a CPL (H) shall:
(2) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform as pilot-in command
of an helicopter, the areas of operation described in IS 2.3.3.7Appendix B, with a
CPL(H), and to
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for a CPL(H) shall hold a current Class 1 Medical
Certificate.
privileges of the holder of a CPL(H) shall be:
(1) to exercise all the privileges of the holder of a PPL(H);
(2) to act as pilot-in-command in any helicopter engaged in operations other than
commercial air transportation;
(3) to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air transportation in any helicopter
certificated for single-pilot operation; and
(4) to act as co-pilot in commercial air transportation in helicopters required to be
operated with a copilot.

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PCAR PART 2
2.3.3.9 AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSE - HELICOPTER

(a) Age. The applicant for an ATPL (H) shall be not less than 21 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an ATPL(H) shall:
subjects
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of an ATPL(H); rules of the
(A) general characteristics and limitations of electrical, hydraulic and other
helicopter systems; flight control systems, including autopilot and stability
augmentation;
(B) principles of operation, handling procedures and operating limitations of
helicopter powerplants; transmission (power-trains); effects of atmospheric
conditions on helicopter performance; relevant operational information from
the flight manual;
(C) operating procedures and limitations of appropriate helicopters; effects of
atmospheric conditions on helicopter performance; relevant operational
information from the flight manual:
(D) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate
helicopters flight instruments; compasses, turning and acceleration errors;
gyroscopic instruments, operational limits and precession effects; practices
and procedures in the event of malfunctions of various flight instruments;
(E) maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of
appropriate helicopters;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution, including external loads, on
helicopter handling, flight characteristics and performance; mass and
data, including procedures for cruise control;
altimeter setting procedures
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the ATPL(H)
(v) Meteorology:
(A) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports. charts
and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information, pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry;
elements having an effect upon aviation; the moment of pressure systems;
(C) causes, recognition and effects of engine, airframe and rotor icing;
(vi) Navigation:

2.3-31
PCAR PART 2
(A) Air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts. radio navigation
long-range flights;
(B) use. limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for
the control and navigation of helicopters;
(C) use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems; identification of radio
navigation aids:
(D) principles and characteristics of self-contained and external-referenced
(A) Interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP.
NOTAM, aeronautical codes and abbreviations;
(B) precautionary and emergency procedures; settling with power. Ground
resonance, retreating blade stall. dynamic roll-over and other operating
hazards; safety practices associated with flight under VFR;
(C) operational procedures for carriage of freight, including external load, and
dangerous goods;
helicopters;
operations; action to be taken in case of communication failure
who:
Appendix A.
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for an ATPL (H) shall have completed not less than 1000 hours of
flight time as a pilot of helicopters of which a maximum of 100 hours may have
been completed in a flight simulator. The applicant shall have completed in
helicopters not less than:
(i) 250 hours. either as pilot-in-command, or made up by not less than 100 hours
as pilot-in-command and the necessary additional flight time as co-pilot
performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command, the duties and
functions of a pilot-in-command; provided that the method of supervision
employed is acceptable to the Authority;
(ii) 200 hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than 100 hours shall
be as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the
pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command, provided that
the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the Authority;

2.3-32
PCAR PART 2
(iii) 30 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may be
instrument ground time; and
(iv) 50 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot.
(2) Holders of a CPL (A) will be credited with 50% of their airplane flight time as pilot
in- command towards the flight time required in (1).
(3) The applicant shall have completed a CRM course on the subjects listed in
IS2.3.2.4 Appendix B.
(4) The applicant for an ATPL (H) shall be the holder of a CPL (H) issued under this
Part.
(d) Flight Instruction. The applicant for an ATPL (H) shall have received the dual flight
instruction required for the issue of the CPL (H).
(e) Skill. The applicant for a ATPL (H) shall:
(2) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform, as pilot-in
command of a helicopter required to be operated with a co-pilot, the following
procedures and maneuvers:
(i) pre-flight procedures, including the preparation of the operational flight plan
and filing of the air traffic services flight plan;
(ii) normal flight procedures and maneuvers during all phases of flight;
(iii) if the IR is going to be part of the ATPL(H): procedures and maneuvers for IFR
operations under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions, including
simulated engine failure, and covering at least the following:
(iv) abnormal and emergency procedures and maneuvers related to failures and
malfunctions of equipment. such as powerplant, systems and airframe; and
(v) procedures for crew incapacitation and crew coordination, including allocation
of pilot tasks, crew cooperation and use of checklists.
appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL(H), and to:
(iv) apply aeronautical knowledge;

2.3-33
PCAR PART 2
successful outcome of a procedure or maneuver is never seriously in doubt;
(vi) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for an ATPL (H) shall hold a current Class 1 Medical
Certificate, except for:
(1) Check Airman Qualifications for Flight Simulation Training Device as provided for
under 8.10.1.39 (b) (1); and
(2) Check Airmen who have reached their 65 th birthday or who do not have an
appropriate medical certificate as provided for under 8.10.1.39 (d) and 8.10.1.1 (c).
privileges of the holder of an ATPL (H) shall be:
(1) to exercise all the privileges of the holder of a PPL (H) and CPL (H); and
(2) to act as pilot-in-command and co-pilot in helicopters in air transportation.
2.3.3.10 INSTRUMENT RATING – HELICOPTER

(a) General. The holder of a pilot license shall not act either as pilot-in-command or as
copilot of an aircraft under instrument flight rules (IFR) unless such holder has received
proper Authorization from the Authority. Proper Authorization shall comprise an
instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft category.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an IR (H) shall:
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to flight under IFR; related air traffic
services practices and procedures;
(A) use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for
the control and navigation of helicopters under IFR and in instrument
meteorological conditions; use and limitations of autopilot;
(B) compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic instruments
operational limits and precession effects; practices and procedures in the
event of malfunctions of various flight instruments;
(A) pre-flight preparations and checks appropriate to flight under IFR;
(B) operational flight planning; preparation and filing of air traffic services flight
plans under IFR; altimeter setting procedures;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to instrument flight in
helicopters;
(v) Meteorology:

2.3-34
PCAR PART 2
(A) application of aeronautical meteorology; interpretation and use of reports,

charts and forecasts; codes and abbreviations: use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry;
(B) causes, recognition and effects of engine and airframe icing; frontal zone
(vi) Navigation:
(A) practical air navigation using radio navigation aids,
(B) use; accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure,
navigation aids;
(A) interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP,
NOTAM, aeronautical codes and abbreviations, and instrument procedure
charts for departure, en-route, descent and approach;
flight under IFR:
(viii) Radiotelephony:
(A) radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to aircraft
operations under IFR; action to be taken in case of communication failure;
who:
Appendix A.
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for an IR (H) shall hold a PPL (H), a CPL (H) or an ATPL (H).
(2) The applicant shall have completed not less than:
(i) 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in
categories acceptable to the Authority, of which not less than 10 hours shall be
in helicopters; and
(ii) 40 hours of instrument time in helicopters or airplanes of which not more than
20 hours, or 30 hours where a flight simulator is used, may be instrument
ground time. The ground time shall be under the supervision of an authorized
instructor.
(1) The applicant for an IR(H) shall have gained not less than 10 hours of the
instrument flight time required in (c)(2)(ii) while receiving and logging dual
instruction in helicopters from an authorized flight instructor, on the subjects listed
the following areas to the level of performance required for the holder of an
instrument rating:

2.3-35
PCAR PART 2
an IFR flight plan;
(ii) pre-flight inspection, use of checklists, taxiing and pre-take-off checks;
(iii) procedures and maneuvers for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and
(A) transition to instrument flight on take-off:
(C) en-route IFR procedures and navigation:
(D) holding procedures:
(F) missed approach procedures:
(G) landings from instrument approaches:
(iv) in flight maneuvers and particular flight characteristics.
(3) If the privileges of the instrument rating are to be exercised on multi-engine
helicopters, the applicant shall have received dual instrument flight instruction in
such an helicopter from an authorized flight instructor. The instructor shall ensure
that the applicant has operational experience in the operation of the helicopter
solely by reference to instruments with one engine inoperative or simulated in
operative.
(e) Skill. The applicant for an IR(H) shall:
operation described in IS: 2.3.3.5 Appendix B, with a degree of competency
appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an IR(H), and to:
(i) operate the helicopter within its limitations:
(ii) complete all maneuvers with smoothness and accuracy:
(f) Medical fitness. Applicants who hold a PPL shall have established their hearing acuity
on the basis of compliance with the hearing requirements for the issue of a Class 1
Medical Certificate.
privileges of the holder of an IR(H) shall be to pilot helicopters under IFR.
period of the instrument rating is 5 years.
(i) Renewal.
(1) For the renewal of an IR(H) the applicant shall within the preceding 12 calendar
months, complete a proficiency check on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.5 Appendix
B.

2.3-36
PCAR PART 2
(j) Re-issue. If the instrument rating has been expired the applicant shall:
(2) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.5 Appendix B.
2.3.3.11 INSTRUCTOR RATINGS - AIRPLANE AND HELICOPTER

(a) General. The applicant for an instructor rating or Authorization - airplane or helicopter,
shall
(1) hold at least the license and rating for which instruction is being given, in the
appropriate category; and
(2) hold the license and rating necessary to act as the pilot-in-command of the aircraft
on which the instruction is given; or
(3) hold a specific Authorization granted by the Authority.
(4) for airplane instructor ratings, have completed on-airplane recovery training as
specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
(5) for Flight Instructor (FI), have completed on-airplane upset prevention and
recovery training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
(b) Flight Instructors
(1) Age. The applicant for a flight instructor rating (FI) shall be not less than 18 years
of age.
(2) Knowledge:
(i) The applicant for an Fl rating shall have met the knowledge requirements for
the issue of a CPL as specified in Subparts 2.3.3.3 and 2.3.3.7, as applicable.
(ii) In addition, the applicant for an FI rating shall receive and log ground training
from an authorized instructor on the following subjects:
(A) techniques of applied instruction;
(B) assessment of student performance in those subjects in which ground
instruction is given;
(C) the learning process;
(D) elements of effective teaching;
(E) student evaluation and testing, training philosophies;
(F) training program development;
(G) lesson planning
(H) classroom instructional techniques;
(I) use of training aids;
(J) analysis and correction of student errors;
(K) human performance relevant to flight instruction; and

2.3-37
PCAR PART 2
(L) hazards involved in simulating system failures and malfunctions in the

aircraft
(iii) Have received an endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorized
instructor who:
(A) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects;
(B) certifies that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test; and
(iv) pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge subjects listed in (2).
(A) This test may be combined with the test under (5).
(v) The holder of an FI rating, issued under this Part, applying for an additional
Flatting is exempted from this paragraph (2).
(3) Experience. The applicant for an Fl rating shall have completed not less than 200
hours of flight time on single-pilot aircraft of the appropriate category.
(4) Flight Instruction. The applicant for an FI rating shall, under the supervision of an
instructor accepted by the Authority for that purpose
(i) have received instruction in flight instructional techniques including
demonstration, student practices, recognition and correction of common
student errors; and
(ii) have practiced instructional techniques in those flight maneuvers and
procedures in which it is intended to provide flight instruction listed in IS:
2.3.3.11 Appendix A or B, as applicable.
(5) Skill. The applicant for an FI rating shall:
the person is prepared for the required skill test; and
(ii) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.11 Appendix A or
B, as applicable.
(c) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part,
(1) the privileges for the holder of an Fl rating shall be:
(i) to supervise solo flights by student pilots;
(ii) to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL;
(iii) to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a CPL if he or she has completed
500 hrs of flight time and 200 hours of flight instruction;
(iv) to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a single-engine class rating if he or
she has 15 hrs on the applicable type in the preceding 12 months;
(v) to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a multi-engine class rating if he or
she has 500 hrs flight time and 15 hours on the applicable type in the preceding
12 months; and
(vi) to carry out flight instruction for the issue of an instructor rating, if he or she has
completed 500 hours of instruction in the appropriate category.
(vii) to carry out flight instruction for the on-airplane upset recovery as specified in
IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C, if he or she completed instructor training at an ATO for
on-airplane upset recovery instruction.
(2) the privileges of the holder of a Fl instrument rating shall be to carry out flight
instruction for the issue of an IR, if he or she has completed 200 hours flight in

2.3-38
PCAR PART 2
accordance with instrument flight rules and passed the test on the subjects listed
(d) Instructor rating for additional type ratings:
(1) Subject to compliance with this Subpart, pilots having experience in accordance
with paragraph (3) below, may apply for an instructors rating for additional type
ratings.
(2) Knowledge.
(i) The applicant for an instructor rating for additional type ratings shall receive
and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the following subjects:
(A) techniques of applied instruction;
(B) assessment of student performance in those subjects in which ground
instruction is given;
(C) the learning process;
(D) elements of effective teaching;
(E) student evaluation and testing, training philosophies;
(F) training program development;
(G) lesson planning;
(H) classroom instructional techniques;
(I) use of training aids;
(J) analysis and correction of student errors;
(K) human performance relevant to flight instruction; and
(L) hazards involved in simulating system failures and malfunctions in the
aircraft;
(M) and upset prevention and recovery elements from IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
(ii) shall have received an endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorized
instructor who
(A) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects;
(iii) pass the required knowledge test on the subjects listed in (2) (i).
(A) The test may be combined with the test under (5).
(iv) The holder of an instructor rating for additional type ratings is exempted from
this paragraph.
(3) Experience:
(i) The applicant for an instructor rating for additional type ratings shall have
completed:
(A) for single-pilot type rating instruction 500 hours of flight time as pilot-in
command
(B) for multi-pilot type rating instruction 500 hours of flight time as pilot-in
command on multi-pilot aircraft of the appropriate category including
30route sectors in the preceding 12 months of which 15 sectors may have
been completed in a flight simulator.

2.3-39
PCAR PART 2
(4) Flight Instruction: The applicant for an instructor rating for additional type ratings
shall, under the supervision of an instructor accepted by the Authority for that
purpose:
(i) have received instruction in instructional techniques including demonstration,
student practices, recognition and correction of common student errors; and
(ii) have practiced instructional techniques in those flight maneuvers and
procedures in which it is intended to provide instruction on the subjects listed
in Appendix C for type rating instructor.
(5) Skill. The applicant shall have demonstrated in a skill test, in the category and in
type of aircraft for which instructor privileges are sought, the ability to instruct in
those areas in which instruction is to be given, including pre-flight, post-flight and
ground instruction as appropriate on the subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.11 Appendix C
for type rating instructor.
(6) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of a instructor rating are to carry out flight instruction for the
issue of an additional type rating including CRM training in the appropriate
category.
(e) Instructor Authorization for synthetic flight training.
(1) Notwithstanding Subpart 2.3.3.11 (a), former holders of professional pilot licenses,
having instructional experience can apply for an Authorization to provide flight
instruction in a synthetic flight trainer, provided the applicant has at least two (2)
years experience as instructor in synthetic flight trainers.
(2) Skill. The applicant shall have demonstrated in a skill test, in the category and in
the class or type of aircraft for which instructor Authorization privileges are sought,
the ability to instruct in those areas in which ground instruction is to be given.
(3) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of an Authorization are to carry out synthetic flight training
instruction for the issue of a class or type rating in the appropriate category.
period of instructor ratings and Authorization is five (5) years.
(g) Renewal.
(1) For the renewal of an Fl rating the applicant shall:
(i) have conducted at least 30 hours of flight instruction within the 12 months
preceding the expiry date; or
(ii) within the preceding 24 calendar months complete a proficiency check on the
subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.11 Appendix A or B, as applicable.
(2) For the renewal of an instructor rating for additional class ratings the applicant shall:
(i) have conducted at least 30 hours of flight instruction within the 12 months
preceding the expiry date; or
subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.11 Appendix A.
(3) For the renewal of an instructor rating for additional type ratings the applicant shall:
(i) have conducted one simulator session of at least 3 hours or one air exercise of
at least 1 hour of a type rating course in the preceding 12 months; and

2.3-40
PCAR PART 2
subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.11 Appendix C.
(4) For the renewal of an instructor Authorization for synthetic flight training the
applicant shall:
(i) have conducted one simulator session of at least 3 hours of a type rating course
in the preceding 12 months.
(5) If an instructor takes the proficiency check required in this section in the calendar
month before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due, the instructor
is considered to have taken it in the month in which it was due for the purpose of
computing when the next proficiency check is due
(h) Re-issue. If the instructor rating or Authorization has been expired the applicant shall:
(2) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.11 Appendix A, B or C,
as applicable.
2.3.3.12 EXAMINERS
(a) General. Examiners shall hold at least the license and the rating for which they are
authorized to conduct skill tests or proficiency checks and shall hold the privilege to
instruct for this license or rating.
(b) Experience. The applicant for the examiner's Authorization shall have 1,000 hours of
flight time and 200 hours of flight instruction.
(c) Training. The ground, flight and simulator training for Examiners shall include the
subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.12.
(d) Skill test. The applicant for an examiner Authorization shall have conducted at least
one skill test in the role of an examiner for which Authorization is sought, including
briefing, conduct of the skill test, assessment of the applicant to whom the skill test is
given, debriefing and recording/documentation. This skill test shall be supervised by
an inspector of the Authority or by a senior examiner specifically authorized by the
Authority for this purpose.
(e) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the examiner's Authorization are to conduct skill tests and proficiency
checks for a license and rating(s).
period of an examiner's Authorization is five (5) years. Re-Authorization will be at the
discretion of the Authority.
2.3.3.13 GLIDER PILOT LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for a glider pilot license shall be not less than 16 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a glider pilot license shall:
(1) receive training on the knowledge subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a glider pilot license;
rules of the air; appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures;

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PCAR PART 2
(A) principles of operation of glider systems and instruments;

(B) operating limitations of gliders; relevant operational information from the
flight manual or other appropriate document;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on flight characteristics; mass and
balance considerations:
(B) use and practical application of launching, landing and other performance
data;
appropriate air traffic services procedures; altimeter setting procedures;
operations in areas of high-density traffic:
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the glider pilot;
procedures for obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry;
(vi) Navigation: practical aspects of air navigation and dead-reckoning techniques,
use of aeronautical charts;
(B) different launch methods and associated procedures;
(C) appropriate precautionary and emergency procedures, including action to
be taken to avoid hazardous weather and wake turbulence and other
operating hazards;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to gliders
(2) pass the required knowledge test.
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant shall have completed not less than 6 hours of flight time as a pilot of
gliders including 2 hours' solo flight time during which not less than 20 launches
and landings have been performed.
(2) The applicant for a glider pilot license shall have gained, under appropriate
supervision, Operational experience in a glider in at least the following areas:
(i) pre-flight operations, including glider assembly and inspection;
(ii) techniques and procedures for the launching method used, including
appropriate airspeed limitations, emergency procedures and signals used;
(iii) traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and procedures;
(iv) control of the glider by external visual reference;
(v) flight throughout the flight envelope;
(vi) recognition of, and recovery from, incipient and full stalls and spiral dives;
(vii) normal and cross-wind launches, approaches and landings;
(viii) cross-country flying using visual reference and dead reckoning;
(ix) emergency procedures.

2.3-42
PCAR PART 2
(3) The holder of a pilot license in the airplane category may be credited with three (3)
hours towards the six (6) hours of flight time required for the glider license.
(d) Skill. The applicant for a glider pilot license shall have demonstrated by passing the
required skill test the ability to perform as pilot-in-command of a glider, the procedures
and maneuvers described in (c) with a degree of competency appropriate to the
privileges granted to the holder of a glider pilot license, and to:
(1) operate the glider within its limitations;
(2) complete all maneuvers with smoothness and accuracy;
(3) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(5) Maintain control of the glider at all times in a manner such that the successful
(e) Medical fitness. The applicant of a glider pilot license shall holder a current Class 2
Medical Certificate.
(f) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of a glider pilot license shall be to act as pilot-in-command of
any glider provided that the license holder has operational experience in the launching
method used.
(g) Validity of the license. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this
Part, the validity period of the license is 5 years. For renewal of the license see Subpart
2.2.3.
2.3.3.14 FREE BALLOON PILOT LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for a free balloon pilot license shall be not less than 16 years of
age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a free balloon pilot license shall:
(1) receive training on the following knowledge subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a free balloon pilot
license; rules of the air; appropriate air traffic services practices and
procedures;
(A) principles of operation of free balloon systems and instruments;
(B) operating limitations of free balloons; relevant operational information from
the flight manual or other appropriate document;
(C) physical properties and practical application of gases used in free balloons;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on flight characteristics; mass
calculations;
(B) use and practical application of launching, landing and other performance
data. including the effect of temperature;
appropriate air traffic services procedures; altimeter setting procedures;
operations in areas of high-density traffic;

2.3-43
PCAR PART 2
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the free balloon pilot;
(v) Meteorology: application of elementary aeronautical meteorology; use of. And
procedures for obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry;
(vi) Navigation: practical aspects of air navigation and dead-reckoning techniques;
use of aeronautical charts;
be taken to avoid hazardous weather and wake turbulence and other
operating hazards;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to gliders
(ix) Radiotelephony: the applicant should have demonstrated a level of knowledge
appropriate to the privileges to be granted to the holder of a free balloon pilot
license, in radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as appropriate to VFR
operations and on action to be taken in case of communication failure;
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant shall have completed not less than 16 hours of flight time as a pilot
of free balloons including at least 8 launches and ascents of which one must be
solo.
(2) The applicant for a free balloon pilot license shall have gained in free balloons
under appropriate supervision operational experience.
(3) If the privileges of the license are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
gained, under appropriate supervision, operational experience in free balloons in
night flying.
(d) Skill. The applicant for a free balloon pilot license shall have demonstrated by passing
the required skill test the ability to perform as pilot-in-command of a free balloon, the
procedures and maneuvers described in (c) with a degree of competency appropriate
to the privileges granted to the holder of a free balloon pilot license, and to:
(1) operate the free balloon within its limitations;
(2) complete all maneuvers with smoothness and accuracy;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(5) Maintain control of the free balloon at all times in a manner such that the successful
(e) Medical fitness. The applicant for a free balloon pilot license shall hold a current Class
2 Medical Certificate.
(f) Privileges.
(1) Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the privileges of
the holder of a free balloon pilot license shall be to act as a pilot-in-command of
any free balloon provided that the license holder has operational experience in hot
air or gas balloons, as appropriate.

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PCAR PART 2
(2) Before exercising the privileges at night, the license holder shall have complied
with the requirements as specified in (c) (3).
(g) Validity of the license. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this
Part, the validity period of the license is 5 years. For renewal of the license see Subpart
2.2.3.

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2.3-46
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2.4 FLIGHT ENGINEER LICENSE AND RATINGS

2.4.1 APPLICABILITY
This section prescribes the requirements for the issue, renewal and re-issue of a flight
engineers license and ratings.
2.4.2 GENERAL
(a) A person shall not act as a flight engineer of an aircraft registered in Republic of the
Philippines unless a valid license or a validation certificate is held showing compliance
with the specifications of this Part and appropriate to the duties to be performed by that
person.
(b) For the purpose of training, testing or specific special purpose non-revenue, non
passenger carrying flights, special Authorization may be provided in writing to the
license holder by the Authority in place of issuing the class or type rating in accordance
with this Part. This Authorization will be limited in validity to the time needed to
complete the specific flight.
(c) An applicant shall, before being issued with a flight engineer license, meet such
requirements in respect of age, knowledge, experience, skill, medical fitness and
language proficiency as are specified for that license or rating.
(d) An applicant shall for renewal or re-issue of a license, rating or Authorization meet the
2.4.3 TYPE RATING - FLIGHT ENGINEER

(a) Knowledge. The applicant for a type rating shall have completed the theoretical
knowledge instruction and demonstrated by passing a knowledge test the knowledge
subjects as listed in IS: 2.3.2.4 Appendix A.
(b) Experience. The applicant for a type rating shall:
(1) have at least 100 hours flight time in the performance of the duties of a flight
engineer; and
(2) have completed a CRM course as listed in IS: 2.3.2.4 Appendix B.
(c) Flight instruction. The applicant for a type rating shall have completed the flight
instruction for the type rating on the subjects listed in IS: 2.4.3.
(d) Skill. The applicant for a type rating shall:
(2) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS: 2.4.3.
privileges of the holder of a type rating are to act as flight engineer on the type of
aircraft specified in the rating.
period of a type rating is 5 years.
(g) Renewal. For the renewal of a type rating the flight engineer shall:
(1) within the preceding 12 calendar months complete a proficiency check on the
subjects as listed in IS: 2.4.3 and

2.4-1
PCAR PART 2
(2) Have completed 10 route sectors.

(3) If a flight engineer takes the proficiency check required in this section in the
calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due, the
flight engineer is considered to have taken it in the month in which it was due for
the purpose of computing when the next proficiency check is due.
(h) Re-issue. If a type rating has been expired the applicant shall:
(2) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS: 2.4.3.
2.4.4 FLIGHT ENGINEER LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for a flight engineer license shall be not less than 18 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a flight engineer license shall:
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a flight engineer license;
rules and regulations governing the operation of civil aircraft pertinent to the
duties of a flight engineer;
(A) basic principles of powerplants; gas turbines and/or piston engines;
characteristics of fuels; fuel systems including fuel control; lubricants and
lubrication systems; afterburners and injection systems, function and
operation of engine ignition and starter systems;
(B) principles of operation; handling procedures and operating limitations of
aircraft powerplants; effects of atmospheric conditions on engine
performance;
(C) airframes; flight controls; structures; wheel assemblies; brakes and antiskid
units; corrosion and fatigue life; identification of structural damage and
defects;
(D) ice and rain protection systems;
(E) pressurization and air-conditioning systems; oxygen systems;
(F) hydraulic and pneumatic systems;
(G) basic electrical theory, electric systems (AC and DC); aircraft wiring
systems; bonding and screening;
(H) principles of operation of instruments, compasses, autopilots, radio
communication equipment, radio and radar navigation aids, flight
management systems, displays and avionics;
(I) limitations of appropriate aircraft;
(J) fire protection, detection, suppression and extinguishing systems;
(K) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate
aircraft;

2.4-2
PCAR PART 2
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on aircraft handling, flight

(B) use and practical application of performance data including procedures for
cruise control:
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the flight engineer;
(v) Operational procedures:
(A) principles of maintenance; procedures for the maintenance of
airworthiness; defect reporting; pre-flight inspections; precautionary
procedures for fuelling and use of external power; installed equipment and
cabin systems;
(B) normal, abnormal and emergency procedures;
(C) operational procedures for carriage of freight and dangerous goods;
(vi) Principles of flight: fundamentals of aerodynamics;
(vii) Radiotelephony: radiotelephony procedures and phraseology;
who:
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for a flight engineer license shall have completed under the
supervision of a person accepted by the Authority for that purpose, not less than
100 hours of flight time in the performance of the duties of a flight engineer, of
which 50 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator.
(2) The holder of a pilot license may be credited with 30 hours towards the 100 hours
of flight time.
(3) The applicant shall have operational experience in the performance of the duties
of a flight engineer, under the supervision of a flight engineer accepted by the
Authority for that purpose, in at least the following areas:
(i) Normal procedures:
(A) pre-flight inspections
(B) fuelling procedures, fuel management
(C) inspection of maintenance documents
(D) normal flight deck procedures during all phases of flight
(E) crew coordination and procedures in case of crew incapacitation
(F) defect reporting
(ii) Abnormal and alternate (standby) procedures:
(A) recognition of abnormal functioning of aircraft systems
(B) use of abnormal and alternate (standby) procedures
(iii) Emergency procedures:

2.4-3
PCAR PART 2
(A) recognition of emergency conditions

(B) use of appropriate emergency procedures as further specified in IS: 2.4.3.
(4) The applicant shall have completed a CRM course as listed in IS: 2.3.2.4 Appendix
B.
(d) Flight instruction. The applicant for a type rating shall have completed the flight
instruction for the type rating on the subjects as listed in IS: 2.4.3.
(e) Skill. The applicant for a flight engineer license shall:
(2) have demonstrated by passing the required skill test, the ability to perform as flight
engineer of an aircraft, the duties and procedures described in paragraph (c) (3)
above with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the
holder of a flight engineer license, and to
(i) use aircraft systems within the aircraft's capabilities and limitations;
(ii) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(iii) apply aeronautical knowledge:
(iv) perform all the duties as part of an integrated crew with the successful outcome
never in doubt: and
(v) communicate effectively with the other flight crew members.
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for a flight engineer license shall hold a current Class 1
Medical Certificate., except for:
for under 8.10.1.39 (b) (1); and
(ii) Check Airmen who have reached their 65 th birthday or who do not have an
(c).
privileges of the holder of a flight engineer license shall be to act as flight engineer of
any type of aircraft on which the holder has demonstrated a level of knowledge and
skill, on the basis of those requirements specified in Subpart 2.4.4 (b) and (d) which
are applicable to the safe operation of that type of aircraft.
period of the license is five (5) years. For renewal of the license see Subpart 2.2.3.

2.4-4
PCAR PART 2
2.5 FLIGHT NAVIGATOR LICENSE

2.5.1 APPLICABILITY
navigator license.
2.5.2 GENERAL
(a) An applicant shall, before being issued with a flight navigator license, meet such
requirements in respect of age, knowledge; experience, skill, medical fitness and
language proficiency as are specified for that license.
(b) An applicant shall for renewal or re-issue of a license, rating or Authorization meet the
requirements as are specified for that license.
2.5.3 FLIGHT NAVIGATOR LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant shall be not less than 18 years of age.
(b) Knowledge.
(1) The applicant for a flight navigator license shall receive and log ground training
from an authorized instructor on the following subjects:
(i) Air Law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a flight navigator license;
appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures;
(ii) Flight performance and planning
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on aircraft performance;
(B) use of take-off, landing and other performance data including procedures
for cruise control;
altimeter setting procedures;
(iii) Human performance: human performance relevant to the flight navigator;
(iv) Meteorology
(A) Interpretation and practical application of aeronautical meteorological
reports. charts and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and
procedures for obtaining, meteorological information; pre-flight and in flight;
altimetry;
elements having an effect upon aviation; the movement of pressure
systems; the structure of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of
significant weather phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing
conditions;
(v) Navigation
(A) dead-reckoning; pressure-pattern and celestial navigation procedures, the
use of aeronautical charts, radio navigation aids and area navigation
systems; specific navigation requirements for long-range flights;
(B) use; limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for
the navigation of the aircraft,

2.5-1
PCAR PART 2
(C) use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure,

enroute and approach phases of flight; identification of radio navigation
aids;
(D) principles, characteristics and use of self-contained and external
referenced navigation systems; operation of airborne equipment;
(E) the celestial sphere including the movement of heavenly bodies and their
selection and identification for the purpose of observation and reduction of
sights; calibration of sextants; the completion of navigation documentation;
(F) definitions, units and formulae used in air navigation;
(vi) Operational procedures: interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation
such as AIP, NOTAM, aeronautical codes, abbreviations, and instrument
procedure charts for departure, en-route, descent and approach;
(vii) Principles of flight: principles of flight;
(viii) Radiotelephony: radiotelephony procedures and phraseology.
(2) shall have received an endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorized
instructor who:
(A) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects,
(3) pass the required knowledge test on the subjects listed in paragraph (b) (1).
(c) Experience
(1) The applicant shall have completed in the performance of the duties of a flight
navigator, not less than 200 hours of flight time acceptable to the Authority, in
aircraft engaged in cross-country flights, including not less than 30 hours by night.
(2) The holder of a pilot license may be credited with 30 hours towards the 200 hours
of flight time.
(3) The applicant shall produce evidence of having satisfactorily determined the
aircraft's position in flight, and used that information to navigate the aircraft, as
follows:
(i) by night - not less than 25 times by celestial observations; and
(ii) by day - not less than 25 times by celestial observations in conjunction with
self-contained or external-referenced navigation systems.
(d) Skill. The applicant shall have demonstrated by passing the required skill test the ability
to perform as flight navigator of an aircraft with a degree of competency appropriate to
the privileges granted to the holder of a flight navigator license, and to:
(2) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(3) perform all duties as part of an integrated crew; and
(4) communicate effectively with the other flight crew members.

2.5-2
PCAR PART 2
(e) Medical fitness. The applicant shall hold a current Class 1 Medical Certificate, except
for:
for under 8.10.1.39 (b) (1); and
(ii) Check Airmen who have reached their 65th birthday or who do not have an
(c).
(f) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of a flight navigator license shall be to act as flight navigator of
any aircraft.
(g) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the validity
period of the license is five (5) years. The license shall become invalid when the flight
navigator has ceased to exercise the privileges of the license for a period of 6 months.
The license shall remain invalid until the flight navigator's ability to exercise the
privileges of the license has been re-established. For renewal of the license see
Subpart 2.2.3.

2.5-3
PCAR PART 2

2.5-4
PCAR PART 2
2.6 AVIATION MAINTENANCE LICENSING

2.6.1 GENERAL
(a) Subpart 2.6 prescribes the requirements for issuing the following licenses and
associated ratings and/or authorizations for:
(1) Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT)
(2) Aviation Maintenance Specialist (AMS)
2.6.2 AVIATION MAINTENANCE TECHNICIAN (AMT)

(a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for issuance of an Aviation Maintenance
Technician (AMT) license and associated ratings the conditions under which this
license and ratings are necessary and the general operating rules and limitations of
the holder of this license and ratings.
2.6.2.2 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL

(a) An applicant for an AMT license and any associated rating shall
(1) Be at least 18 years of age;
(2) Demonstrate the ability to read, write, speak, and understand the English language
by reading and explaining appropriate maintenance publications and by writing
defect and repair statements;
(3) Comply with the knowledge, experience, and competency requirements prescribed
for the license and rating sought; and
(4) Pass all of the prescribed tests for the license and rating sought, within a period of
24 months.
(b) A licensed AMT who applies for an additional rating must meet the requirements of
Subpart 2.6.2.6 and, within a period of 24 months, pass the tests prescribed by
Subparts 2.6.2.5 and 2.6.2.7 for the additional rating sought.
2.6.2.3 RATINGS
(a) The following ratings are issued under this subpart:
(1) Airframe
(2) Powerplant
(3) Airframe and Powerplant
2.6.2.4 KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

(a) The applicant for an Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT) license shall have pass
a knowledge test covering at least the following areas:
(1) Air law and airworthiness requirements:
(i) rules and regulations relevant to an Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT)
license holder including applicable airworthiness requirements governing

2.6-1
PCAR PART 2
certification and continuing airworthiness of aircraft and approved aircraft

maintenance organization procedures;
(2) Natural science and aircraft general knowledge
(i) basic mathematics; units of measurement; fundamental principles and theory
of physics and chemistry applicable to aircraft maintenance;
(3) Aircraft engineering
(i) characteristics and applications of the materials of aircraft construction
including principles of construction and functioning of aircraft structures,
fastening techniques; powerplants and their associated systems, mechanical,
fluid, electrical and electronic power sources, aircraft instrument and display
systems, aircraft control systems, and airborne navigation and communication
systems;
(4) Aircraft maintenance:
(i) tasks required to ensure the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft including
methods and procedures for the overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement,
modification or defect rectification of aircraft structures, components and
systems in accordance with the methods prescribed in the relevant
Maintenance Manuals and the applicable requirements of airworthiness;
(5) Human performance:
(i) human performance and limitations, including principles of threat and error
management relevant to the duties of an aviation maintenance license holder;
2.6.2.5 KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RATINGS

(a) The applicant for an airframe rating shall pass a knowledge test covering at least the
following areas:
(1) Airframe Maintenance practices and materials
(2) Airframe systems and structures-fixed wing
(3) Airframe systems and structures-rotary wing
(4) Systems and structures
(b) The applicant for a powerplant rating shall pass a knowledge test covering at least the
following areas:
(1) Piston engines
(2) Propellers
(3) Gas turbine engines
(4) Fuel systems
(c) The applicant shall pass each section of the test before applying for the oral and
practical tests prescribed by the Authority.
2.6.2.6 SKILL REQUIREMENTS

(a) Each applicant for an AMT license or rating must pass an oral and a skill test on the
license or rating he seeks. The tests cover the applicant's basic skill in performing
practical projects on the subjects covered by the written test for the license or rating

2.6-2
PCAR PART 2
and shall contain at least the subjects in the IS 2.6.2.6, appropriate to the license or
rating sought.
2.6.2.7 EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for an AMT license and associated ratings may qualify by either practical
experience or through training in an ATO.
(b) Practical experience only. Each applicant for an AMT license and rating(s) relying
solely on practical experience shall provide documentary evidence, acceptable to the
Authority, of the following experience in the inspection, servicing and maintenance of
aircraft or its components:
(1) Airframe rating - 30 months,
(2) Powerplant rating - 30 months;
(3) Airframe and Powerplant ratings - 60 months;
(c) Approved Training. Each applicant for an AMT license relying on completion of training
in an Approved Training Organization (ATO) shall provide documentary evidence,
acceptable to the Authority, of the following training:
(1) Airframe rating - 24 months
(2) Powerplant rating - 24 months
(3) Airframe and Powerplant ratings - 30 months
2.6.2.8 PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

(a) Except as specified in paragraphs (d), (e) and (f) of this subsection, a licensed AMT
with A&P may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or
modification of, or after inspection, sign a maintenance release and a return to service
for any aircraft, airframe aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part
thereof for which he or she is rated, provided the licensed AMT has:
(1) Satisfactorily performed the work at an earlier date;
(2) Demonstrated the ability to perform the work to the satisfaction of the Authority;
(3) Received training acceptable to the Authority on the tasks to be performed; or
(4) Performed the work while working under the direct supervision of a licensed AMT
who is appropriately rated and has-
(i) Had previous experience in the specific operation concerned; or
(ii) Received training acceptable to the Authority on the task to be performed.
(b) Except as specified in paragraphs (d), (e) and (f) of this subsection, a licensed AMT
with an Airframe rating may after he/she has performed the 100-hour inspection
required by Part 8 of this chapter on an airframe, or any related part or appliance, and
sign a maintenance release.
(c) Except as specified in paragraphs (d), (e) and (f) of this subsection, a licensed AMT
with a Powerplant rating may perform the 100-hour inspection required by Part 8 of
this chapter on a powerplant or propeller or any related part or appliance, and sign a
maintenance release.
(d) An AMT with an Airframe or Powerplant rating may not

2.6-3
PCAR PART 2
(1) Supervise the maintenance, repair, or modification of, or approve and provide a
maintenance release for any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance,
component or part thereof, for which he/she is rated unless he/she has
satisfactorily performed the work concerned at an earlier date.
(2) Exercise the privileges of the license unless the licensed AMT understands the
current instructions for continued airworthiness and the maintenance instructions
for the specific operation concerned.
(e) An AMT with an Airframe or Powerplant rating may
(1) Perform or supervise under the direct supervision and control of an AMO, any
repair or alteration of instruments.
(2) Sign a Maintenance Release for any aircraft, airframe, engine, propeller, appliance,
component, or part thereof after completion of a major alteration or major repair.
(f) A licensed mechanic shall not exercise the privileges of his license and ratings unless
he is familiar with the current CAR, manufacturer's instructions and the maintenance
manuals pertinent to the particular aircraft operation to be performed.
2.6.2.9 DURATION OF THE LICENSE

(a) The duration of the AMT license is (5) years.
(b) The holder of a license with an expiration date may not, after that date, exercise the
privileges of that license.
(c) The license shall remain valid as long as the holder thereof maintains his/her
competency.

(a) A licensed AMT may not exercise the privileges of his/her license or rating unless,
within the preceding 24 months:
(1) The Authority has found that he/she is able to do that work; or
(2) For at least 6 months within the preceding 24 months-
(i) Served as an AMT under his/her license and rating;
(ii) Technically supervised other AMT’s;
(iii) Provided aviation maintenance instruction or served as the direct supervisor of
persons providing aviation maintenance instruction for an AMT course or
program acceptable to the Authority;
(iv) Supervised the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of any
aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part
thereof; or been engaged in any combination of paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through
(a)(2)(iii) of this subsection; and
(b) Has received appropriate recurrent training from an AMO within the preceding 24
months and is familiar both with current manufacturers and approved maintenance
organization’s instructions and the maintenance manuals pertinent to the particular
aircraft operation to be performed.
(1) The requirements of recurrent training applies to all AME’s when certifying aircraft
or components used in commercial operations.

2.6-4
PCAR PART 2
2.6.2.11 DISPLAY OF LICENSE

(a) Each person who holds an AMT license shall keep it within the immediate area where
he/she normally exercises the privileges of the license and shall present it for
inspection upon the request of the Authority or law enforcement officer.
2.6.2.12 APPLICATION FOR ADDITIONAL RATING

(a) An applicant for a rating subsequent to the original issuance of a mechanic license with
approved rating shall meet the training, knowledge and experience requirements for
the rating sought and pass a practical examination established by the Authority.
2.6.2.13 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RENEWAL OF LICENSES

(a) A holder of an aircraft mechanic license desiring to renew his license must accomplish
and submit the following within 30 days prior to the expiry of his license:
(1) Application for the renewal of license duly notarized;
(2) Certification or proof that the holder has rendered services in accordance with the
provisions this Part from an AMO, AOC or an ATO, or any other person found
acceptable in writing by the Authority, as applicable, in any case fully in compliance
with this regulations.
2.6.3 AVIATION MAINTENANCE SPECIALIST (AMS)

(a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for issuance of Aviation Maintenance
Specialist (AMS) licenses and ratings, the conditions under which this license and
ratings are necessary and the general operating rules and limitations of the holder of
this license and ratings.
2.6.3.2 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL

(a) An applicant for an AMS license and any associated rating shall:
(1) Be at least 18 years of age;
(2) Demonstrate the ability to read, write, speak, and understand the English language
by reading and explaining appropriate maintenance publications and by writing
defect and repair statements;
(3) Comply with the knowledge, experience, and competency requirements prescribed
for the license and rating sought; and
(4) Pass all of the prescribed tests for the license and rating sought, within a period of
24 months.
(5) Be a citizen of the Philippines or a citizen of a foreign country granting similar rights
and privileges to citizens of the Philippines subject, however, to existing treaty or
treaties, and agreements, entered into by the Philippine Government with foreign
countries, and subject, further, to security measures adopted by the Philippine
Government.
(6) For AMS Specialized Service Rating be specially qualified to perform maintenance
on aircraft or components thereof, appropriate to the job for which he/she was
employed;

2.6-5
PCAR PART 2
(7) For AMS Specialized Service Rating be employed for a specific job requiring those
special qualifications by an approved maintenance organization certificated under
Part 6 allowed by its operating certificate and approved specific operating
provisions to provide maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications to
aircraft; and
(8) For AMS Specialized Service Rating be recommended for certification by his
employer, to the satisfaction of the Authority, as able to satisfactorily maintain
aircraft or components, appropriate to the job for which he is employed;
(b) A licensed AMS who applies for an additional rating must meet the requirements of
this Part and, within a period of 24 months, pass the tests prescribed by the Authority
for the additional rating sought.
2.6.3.3 AMS RATINGS

(a) The following ratings are issued under this subpart:
(1) Limited Airframe:
(i) Fixed wing
(ii) Rotary wing
(iii) Aircraft Systems, Hydraulics
(iv) Aircraft Systems, Pneumatics
(v) Aircraft Emergency and Safety Equipment
(vi) Aircraft Structures, Sheet metal
(vii) Aircraft Structures, Composites
(viii) Aircraft Structures, Woodwork/Fabric
(2) Limited Powerplant:
(i) Piston
(ii) Propellers
(iii) Turbine
(iv) Fuel Systems
(3) Avionics
(i) Electrical
(ii) Instruments
(iii) AFCS Fixed wing
(iv) AFCS Rotary wing
(v) Navigation
(vi) Radio
(4) Specialized Services
(i) Welding
(ii) Non-destructive testing (subject to compliance with P.N.S. 146)
(b) At no instance shall an AMS license be issued a Specialized Service rating in which
the AMO has not been issued.

2.6-6
PCAR PART 2
(c) Ratings for an applicant employed by an AMO shall coincide with the approved specific
operating provisions and the approved maintenance procedures manual that identifies
the AMO’s authorizations limited to the specific job for which the person is employed
to perform, supervise, or sign a maintenance release.
Note: When employed by an AMO, an Aviation Maintenance Specialist (AMS) license
should correspond to the specialty shop or group in which they perform, supervise, or
sign a maintenance release an aeronautical product or aircraft. For example,
Hydraulic component overhaul, landing gear overhaul, special inspections, non-
destructive testing, turbine disc overhaul, etc.
2.6.3.4 KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

(a) The applicant for an aviation maintenance Specialist license shall have pass a
knowledge test covering at least the following areas related to the ratings sought:
(1) Air law and airworthiness requirements:
(i) rules and regulations relevant to an Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT)
license holder including applicable airworthiness requirements governing
certification and continuing airworthiness of aircraft and approved aircraft
maintenance organization procedures;
(2) Natural science and aircraft general knowledge
(i) basic mathematics; units of measurement; fundamental principles and theory
of physics and chemistry applicable to aircraft maintenance;
(3) Aircraft engineering
(i) characteristics and applications of the materials of aircraft construction
including principles of construction and functioning of aircraft structures,
fastening techniques; powerplants and their associated systems; mechanical;
fluid; electrical and electronic power sources; aircraft instrument and display
systems; aircraft control systems; and airborne navigation and communication
systems;
(4) Aircraft maintenance :
(i) tasks required to ensure the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft including
methods and procedures for the overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement,
modification or defect rectification of aircraft structures, components and
systems in accordance with the methods prescribed in the relevant
Maintenance Manuals and the applicable requirements of airworthiness;
(i) Human performance and limitations, including principles of threat and error
management relevant to the duties of an aviation maintenance license holder;
2.6.3.5 KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RATINGS

(a) The applicant for the following ratings shall pass a knowledge test covering at least the
following areas:
(1) Limited Airframe:
(i) Airframe Maintenance practices and materials

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PCAR PART 2
(ii) Airframe systems and structures-fixed wing

(iii) Airframe systems and structures-rotary wing
(iv) Systems and structures
(2) Limited powerplant:
(i) Piston engines
(ii) Propellers
(iii) Gas turbine engines
(iv) Fuel systems
(3) Avionics :
(i) Aircraft engineering and maintenance: Electrical and instrument
(A) Maintenance practices and materials
(B) Electrical and electronic fundamentals
(C) Digital techniques, computers and associated devices
(D) Aircraft electrical systems
(E) Aircraft instrument systems
(ii) Aircraft engineering and maintenance: Automatic flight control systems
AFCS/Navigation/Radio
(A) Automatic flight control systems (AFCS): Fixed wing
(B) Automatic flight control systems (AFCS): Rotary wing
(C) Aircraft inertial navigation systems (INS)
(D) Aircraft radio and radio navigation systems
(iii) Specialized Services
(A) Welding
(B) Non-destructive testing (subject to compliance with P.N.S. 146)
(b) The applicant shall pass each section of the test before applying for the theoretical and
practical tests prescribed in this Part.
2.6.3.6 SKILL REQUIREMENTS

(a) Each applicant for an AMS license or rating must pass an oral and a skill test on the
license or rating he seeks. The tests cover the applicant's basic skill in performing
practical projects on the subjects covered by the written test for the license or rating
and shall contain at least the subjects in the IS 2.6.3.7, appropriate to the license or
rating sought.
2.6.3.7 EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for an AMS license and associated ratings may qualify by either practical
experience solely or through training in an ATO plus practical experience.
(b) Practical experience only. Each applicant for an AMS license and rating(s) relying
solely on practical experience shall provide documentary evidence, acceptable to the

2.6-8
PCAR PART 2
Authority, of the following experience in the inspection, servicing and maintenance of

aircraft or its components
(1) Limited Airframe rating - 30 months,
(2) Limited Powerplant rating - 30 months;
(3) Avionics rating - 36 months,
(c) Approved Training. Each applicant for an AMS license relying on completion of training
in an Approved Training Organization shall provide documentary evidence acceptable
to the Authority, of the following training:
(1) Limited Airframe rating - 24 months
(2) Limited Powerplant rating - 24 months
(3) Avionics rating - 24 months in an ATO, plus 12 months practical work experience.
2.6.3.8 PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

(a) A licensed AMS may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance,
or alteration of aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances,
components, and parts appropriate to the designated specialty area for which the
Aviation Maintenance Specialist (AMS) is licensed and rated.
(b) An Aviation Maintenance Specialist (AMS) may not perform or supervise duties unless
the aviation repair specialist understands the current instructions of the employing
certificate holder and the instructions for continued airworthiness, which relate to the
specific operations concerned.
(c) A licensed AMS with an Avionics rating may inspect, repair, maintain, perform a
function test and sign a maintenance release for avionics systems and related
components.
2.6.3.9 DURATION OF THE LICENSE

(a) The duration of the AMS license is (5) years.
(b) The holder of a license with an expiration date may not, after that date, exercise the
privileges of that license
(c) Licenses shall remain valid as long as the holders thereof maintain their competency.

(a) A licensed AMS may not exercise the privileges of his/her license or rating unless,
within the preceding 24 months:
(1) The Authority has found that he/she is able to do that work; or
(2) for at least 6 months within the preceding 24 months-
(i) Served as an AMS under his/her license and rating;
(ii) Technically supervised other AMSs.
(b) Has received appropriate recurrent training from an AMO within the preceding 24
months and is familiar both with current manufacturers and approved maintenance
organization’s instructions and the maintenance manuals pertinent to the particular
operations to be performed.

2.6-9
PCAR PART 2
2.6.3.11 DISPLAY OF LICENSE

(a) Each person who holds an AMS license shall keep it within the immediate area where
he/she normally exercises the privileges of the license and shall present it for
inspection upon the request of the Authority or law enforcement officer.
2.6.3.12 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RENEWAL OF LICENSE
(a) A holder of an AMS license desiring to renew his license must accomplish and submit
the following within 30 days prior to the expiry of his license:
(i) Application for the renewal of license duly notarized;

(ii) Certification or proof that the holder has rendered services during the previous 24
months in accordance with the provisions of this Part from an AMO, or any other
person found acceptable in writing by the Authority, as applicable, in any case fully
in compliance with this regulations.

2.6-10
PCAR PART 2
2.7 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER LICENSES, CATEGORIES AND

RATINGS
2.7.1 APPLICABILITY
This section prescribes the requirements for the issue, renewal and re-issue of an air
traffic controller license and ratings.
2.7.2 GENERAL
(a) An applicant shall, before being issued with an air traffic controllers license, meet such
requirements in respect of age, knowledge, experience, skill, medical fitness and
language proficiency as are specified for that license or rating.
2.7.3 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for an air traffic controller license shall be not less than 21 years of
age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an air traffic controller license shall
(1) receive an approved training course from an authorized instructor on the
knowledge areas:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the air traffic controller;
(ii) Air traffic control equipment: principles, use and limitations of equipment used
in air traffic control;
(iii) General knowledge: principles of flight; principles of operation and functioning
of aircraft, powerplants and systems; aircraft performances relevant to air traffic
control operations;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to air traffic control;
(v) Language: the language or languages nationally designated for use in air traffic
control and ability to speak such language or languages without accent or
impediment which would adversely affect radio communication;
(vi) Meteorology: aeronautical meteorology; use and appreciation of
meteorological documentation and information; origin and characteristics of
weather phenomena affecting flight operations and safety; altimetry;
(vii) Navigation: principles of air navigation; principle, limitation and accuracy of
navigation systems and visual aids;
(viii) Operational procedures: air traffic control, communication, radiotelephony and
phraseology procedures (routine, non routine and emergency); use of the
relevant aeronautical documentation; safety practices associated with flight.
who:
(i) conducted the training on the knowledge areas;

2.7-1
PCAR PART 2
(c) Experience The applicant shall have completed an approved training course and not
less than three months' satisfactory service engaged in the actual control of air traffic
under the supervision of an appropriately rated air traffic controller. The experience
requirements specified for air traffic controller ratings in Subpart 2.7.4 will be credited
as part of the experience specified in this paragraph.
(d) Medical fitness. The applicant for an air traffic controller license shall hold a current
Class 3 Medical Certificate.
(e) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirement specified in this Part, the validity
period of the license is five (5) years. For renewal of the license see Subpart 2.2.3.
2.7.4 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER CATEGORIES/RATINGS

(a) Air traffic controller ratings shall comprise the following categories:
(1) aerodrome control rating;
(2) approach control procedural rating;
(3) approach control surveillance rating;
(4) approach precision radar control rating;
(5) area control procedural rating; and
(6) area control surveillance rating.
Note: The World Meteorological Organization has specified requirements for
personnel making meteorological observations which apply to air traffic controllers
providing such a service.
2.7.5 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER RATING REQUIREMENTS

(a) Knowledge. The applicant for an air traffic controller rating shall
(1) receive an approved training course from an authorized instructor on the following
subjects:
(i) aerodrome control rating:
(A) aerodrome layout; physical characteristics and visual aids;
(B) airspace structure;
(C) applicable rules, procedures and source of information;
(D) air navigation facilities;
(E) air traffic control equipment and its use;
(F) terrain and prominent landmarks;
(G) characteristics of air traffic;
(H) weather phenomena; and emergency and search and rescue plans;
(ii) approach control and area control ratings:
(A) airspace structure;
(B) applicable rules, procedures and source of information;
(C) air navigation facilities;
(D) air traffic control equipment and its use;

2.7-2
PCAR PART 2
(E) terrain and prominent landmarks;

(F) characteristics of air traffic and traffic flow;
(G) weather phenomena; and
(H) emergency and search and rescue plans; and
(iii) approach radar, approach precision radar and area radar control ratings. The
applicant shall meet the requirements specified in (ii) in so far as they affect the
area of responsibility. and shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge
appropriate to the privileges granted. in at least the following additional
subjects:
(A) principles, use and limitations of radar, other surveillance systems and
associated equipment; and
(B) procedures for the provision of approach, precision approach or area radar
control services, as appropriate, including procedures to ensure
appropriate terrain clearance;
who:
(b) Experience.
(1) The applicant for an air traffic controller license shall have:
(i) satisfactorily completed an approved training course;
(ii) provided; satisfactorily, under the supervision of an appropriately rated air
traffic controller:
(A) aerodrome control rating: an aerodrome control service, for a period of not
less than 90 hours or one month, whichever is greater, at the unit for which
the rating is sought;
(B) approach, approach radar, area or area radar control rating: the control
service for which the rating is sought. for a period of not less than 180 hours
or three months, whichever is greater, at the unit for which the rating is
sought; and
(C) approach precision radar control rating: not less than 200 precision
approaches of which not more than 100 shall have been carried out on a
radar simulator approved for that purpose by the Authority. Not less than
50 of those precision approaches shall have been carried out at the unit
and on the equipment for which the rating is sought; and
(iii) if the privileges of the approach radar control rating include surveillance radar
approach duties, the experience shall include not less than 25 plan position
indicator (PPI) approaches on the surveillance equipment of the type in use at
the unit for which the rating is sought and under the supervision of an
appropriately rated approach radar controller.
(2) The experience specified under (ii) shall have been completed within the 6-month
period immediately preceding application.

2.7-3
PCAR PART 2
(c) Skill. The applicant shall have demonstrated by passing the required skill test, at a
level appropriate to the privileges being granted, the skill, judgment and performance
required to provide a safe, orderly and expeditious control service including the
recognition and management of threats and errors.
(d) Privileges.
(1) Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the privileges of
the holder of an air traffic controller license
(i) aerodrome control rating: to provide or to supervise the provision of aerodrome
control service for the aerodrome for which the license holder is rated:
(ii) approach control rating: to provide or to supervise the provision of approach
control service for the aerodrome or aerodromes for which the license holder
is rated, within the airspace or portion thereof, under the jurisdiction of the unit
providing approach control service;
(iii) approach control rating: to provide or to supervise the provision of approach
control service for the aerodrome or aerodromes for which the license holder
is rated, within the airspace or portion thereof, under the jurisdiction of the unit
providing approach control service;
(iv) approach radar control rating: to provide and/or supervise the provision of
approach control service with the use of radar or other surveillance systems for
the aerodrome or aerodromes for which the license holder is rated, within the
airspace or portion thereof, under the jurisdiction of the unit providing approach
control service:
(A) subject to compliance with the provisions of paragraph (b) (1) (iii), the
privileges shall include the provision of surveillance radar approaches;
(v) approach precision radar control rating: to provide and/or supervise the
provision of precision approach radar service at the aerodrome for which the
license holder is rated;
(vi) area control rating: to provide and/or supervise the provision of area control
service within the control area or portion thereof, for which the license holder is
rated; and
(vii) area radar control rating: to provide and/or supervise the provision of area
control service with the use of radar, within the control area or portion thereof.
for which the license holder is rated.
(2) Before exercising the privileges indicated in paragraph (d) (1), the license holder
shall be familiar with all pertinent and current information.
(e) Validity of ratings. A rating shall become invalid when an air traffic controller has
ceased to exercise the privileges of the rating for a period of five (5) years. A rating
shall remain invalid until the controller's ability to exercise the privileges of the rating
has been re-established.

2.7-4
PCAR PART 2
2.8 FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICER LICENSE

2.8.1 APPLICABILITY
operations officer license.
2.8.2 GENERAL
(a) An applicant shall, before being issued with a flight operations officer license; meet
such requirements in respect of age; knowledge; experience; skill, medical fitness and
language proficiency as are specified for that license.
(b) An applicant shall for renewal or re-issue of a license meet the requirements as are
specified for that license.
Note: The license can also be specified as Flight dispatcher license.
2.8.3 FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICER LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for a flight operations officer license shall be not less than 21 years
of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a flight operations officer license shall
(1) receive an approved training course from an authorized instructor on the
knowledge areas:
(i) Air Law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a flight operations officer
license; appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures;
(A) principles of operation of airplane powerplants, systems and instruments
(B) operating limitations of airplanes and powerplants; and
(C) minimum equipment list;
(iii) Flight performance calculation and planning procedures:
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on aircraft performance and flight
characteristics; mass and balance calculations;
(B) operational flight planning; fuel consumption and endurance calculations;
alternate airport selection procedures; en-route cruise control; extended
range operation;
(C) preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans; and
(D) basic principles of computer-assisted planning systems;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to dispatch duties; including
principles of threat and error management.
(v) Meteorology
(A) aeronautical meteorology; the moment of pressure systems; the structure
of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of significant weather
phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing conditions;

2.8-1
PCAR PART 2
(B) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports, charts

and forecasts, codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information;
(vi) Navigation: principles of air navigation with particular reference to instrument
flight;
(A) use of aeronautical documentation;
(B) operational procedures for the carriage of freight and dangerous goods;
(C) procedures relating to aircraft accidents and incidents; emergency flight
procedures;
(D) procedures relating to unlawful interference and sabotage of aircraft;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to the appropriate category of
aircraft;
(ix) Radio communication: procedures for communicating with aircraft and relevant
ground stations;
who:
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for a flight operations officer license shall have gained the following
experience:
(i) a total of two (2) years' service in any one or in any combination of the
capacities specified in (A) to (C) inclusive, provided that in any combination of
experience the period serviced in any capacity shall be at least one year:
(A) a flight crew member in air transportation; or
(B) a meteorologist in an organization dispatching aircraft in air transportation;
or
(C) an air traffic controller; or a technical supervisor of flight operations officers
or air transportation flight operations systems; or
(ii) at least one year as an assistant in the dispatching of air transport; or
(iii) have satisfactorily completed a course of approved training.
(2) The applicant shall have served under the supervision of a flight operations officer
for at least 90 working days within the 6 months immediately preceding the
application.
(d) Skill. The applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to:
(1) make an accurate and operationally acceptable weather analysis from a series of
daily weather maps and weather reports; provide an operationally valid briefing on
weather conditions prevailing in the general neighborhood of a specific air route;
forecast weather trends pertinent to air transportation with particular reference to
destination and alternates;

2.8-2
PCAR PART 2
(2) determine the optimum flight path for a given segment, and create accurate manual
and/or computer generated flight plans;
(3) provide operating supervision and all other assistance to a flight in actual or
simulated adverse weather conditions as appropriate to the duties of the holder of
a flight operations officer license; and
(4) recognize and manage threat and errors.
privileges of the holder of a flight operations officer license shall be to serve in that
capacity with responsibility for each area for which the applicant meets the
requirements in CAR Part 8 and 9.
(f) Validity. The validity period of the license is 5 year. A license shall become invalid when
a flight operations officer has ceased to exercise the privileges of the license for a
period of 6 months. A license shall remain invalid until the flight operations officer's
ability to exercise the privileges of the license has been re-established. For renewal of
the license see Subpart 2.2.3.

2.8-3
PCAR PART 2

2.8-4
PCAR PART 2
2.9 AERONAUTICAL STATION OPERATOR LICENSES

2.9.1 APPLICABILITY
This section prescribes the requirements for the issue, renewal or re-issue of an
aeronautical station operator license.
2.9.2 GENERAL
(a) An applicant shall, before being issued with an aeronautical station operator license,
meet such requirements in respect of age, knowledge, experience, skill, medical
fitness and language proficiency as are specified for that license.
requirements as are specified for that license.
2.9.3 AERONAUTICAL STATION OPERATOR LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for an aeronautical station operator license shall be not less than
18 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an aeronautical station operator license shall:
subjects:
(i) General Knowledge: air traffic services provided within Republic of the
Philippines;
(ii) Language: the language or languages nationally designated for use in air
ground communications and ability to speak such language or languages
without accent or impediment which would adversely affect radio
communication;
(iii) Operational Procedures: radiotelephony procedures; phraseology;
telecommunication network:
(iv) Rules and regulations: rules and regulations applicable to the aeronautical
station operator;
(v) Telecommunication equipment: principles, use and limitations of
telecommunication equipment in an aeronautical station
who:
(c) Experience. The applicant for an aeronautical station operator license shall have:
(i) satisfactorily completed an approved training course within the 12-month
period immediately preceding application, and have served satisfactorily under
a qualified aeronautical station operator for not less than 2 months; or
(ii) satisfactorily served under a qualified aeronautical station operator for not less
than 6 months during the 12-month period immediately preceding application.

2.9-1
PCAR PART 2
(d) Skill. The applicant for an aeronautical station operator license shall demonstrate; or
have demonstrated; competency in:
(i) operating the telecommunication equipment in use; and
(ii) transmitting and receiving radiotelephony messages with efficiency and
accuracy.
privileges of the holder of an aeronautical station operator license shall be to act as an
operator in an aeronautical station. Before exercising the privileges of the license, the
holder shall be familiar with all pertinent and current information regarding the types of
equipment and operating procedures used at that aeronautical station.
(f) Validity: The validity period of the license is five (5) years. A license shall become
invalid when an aeronautical station operator has ceased to exercise the privileges of
the license for a period of 6 months. A license shall remain invalid until the aeronautical
station operator's ability to exercise the privileges of the license has been re-
established. For renewal of the license see Subpart 2.2.3.

2.9-2
PCAR PART 2
2.10 MEDICAL PROVISIONS FOR LICENSING

2.10.1 GENERAL
(a) Medical confidentiality shall be respected at all times.
(b) All medical reports and records shall be securely held with accessibility restricted to
authorized personnel.
(c) When justified by operational considerations, the Chief of the Office of Flight Surgeon
and Aviation Medicine shall determine to what extent pertinent medical information is
presented to relevant officials of the Authority.
(a) This Section prescribes the requirements and procedures for issuing, renewing and
re-issuing Class 1, Class 2 and Class 3 medical certificates.
2.10.1.2 MEDICAL FITNESS

(a) The applicants for a flight crew license and air traffic controller license shall hold a
medical certificate issued in accordance with this Part.
(b) The flight crew members or air traffic controllers shall not exercise the privileges of
their license unless they hold a current medical certificate appropriate to the license.
2.10.1.3 AVIATION MEDICAL EXAMINERS (AME)

(a) Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the Authority will
designate and authorize qualified and licensed physicians in the practice of medicine,
to be authorized as an AME and conduct medical examinations of fitness of applicants
for the issue, renewal or re-issue of the licenses or ratings specified in this Part. AMEs
may be designated outside of Republic of the Philippines.
(b) AMEs shall have had, or shall receive:
(1) Basic training in aviation medicine for Class 2 and 3 medical examinations on the
subjects listed in IS: 2.10.1.3 Appendix A, supported by a diploma or a certificate
of completion; and
(2) Advance training in aviation medicine for Class 1 medical examinations on the
subjects listed in IS: 2.10.1.3 Appendix B.
(3) Refresher training at regular intervals, not more than three years.
(c) AMEs shall acquire practical knowledge and experience of the conditions in which the
holders of licenses and ratings carry out their duties.
(d) Prior to a designation, medical examiners shall demonstrate adequate competency in
aviation medicine
(e) The Authorization of an AME is valid for 3 years. The AME shall have completed at
least 10 examinations for a medical certificate per year. Re-Authorization will be at the
discretion of the Authority.
(f) Having completed the medical examination of an applicant in accordance with this
Section, the AME shall coordinate the results of the examination and submit a signed
report to the Authority, detailing the results of the examination and evaluating the
findings with regard to medical fitness. If the medical report is submitted to the

2.10-1
PCAR PART 2
Authority in electronic format, adequate identification of the examiner shall be\

established.
(g) The medical examiner shall be required to submit sufficient information to the Licensing
Authority to enable that Authority to undertake Medical Assessments audits.
Note: The purpose of such auditing is to ensure that medical examiners meet
applicable standards for good medical practice and aeromedical risk assessment.
Guidance on aeromedical risk assessment is contained in the Handbook of Procedures
of Aviation Medical Examination.
(h) If the medical examination is carried out by a constituted group of AMEs, the head of
the group will be appointed by the Authority, who will be responsible for coordinating
the results of the examination, evaluating the findings with regard to the medical
fitness, and signing the report.
(i) The Authority will use the services of physicians experienced in the practice of aviation
medicine, when it is necessary to evaluate reports submitted to the Authority by
medical examiners.
(j) The Authority retains the right to reconsider any action of an AME.
(k) The competence of a medical examiner shall be evaluated periodically by the medical
assessor.
2.10.1.4 AVIATION MEDICAL EXAMINATIONS

Applicants for licenses or ratings for which medical fitness is prescribed shall sign and
furnish to the AME a declaration stating whether they have previously undergone such
an examination and, if so, the date, place and result of the last examination. They shall
indicate to the examiner whether a medical certificate has previously been refused,
revoked or suspended and, if so, the reason for such refusal, revocation or suspension.
(a) Each applicant for a medical certificate shall provide the AME with a personally certified
statement of medical facts concerning personal, familial and hereditary history.
(b) Each applicant for a medical certificate shall produce proof of identification.
(c) Any false declaration to an AME made by an applicant for a license or rating shall be
reported to the Authority for such action as may be considered appropriate.
(d) The applicant shall complete the appropriate application form as detailed in IS:
2.10.1.4.
2.10.1.5 SPECIAL CIRCUMSTANCES

(a) If the medical requirements prescribed in Part 2 for a particular license are not met,
the appropriate medical certificate will not be issued, renewed or re-issued unless the
following conditions are fulfilled:
(1) Accredited medical conclusion indicates that in special circumstances the
applicant's failure to meet any requirement, whether numerical or otherwise. Is
such that exercise of the privileges of the license applied for is not likely to
jeopardize flight safety;
(2) Relevant ability, skill and experience of the applicant and operational conditions
have been given due consideration; and

2.10-2
PCAR PART 2
(3) The license is endorsed by the Authority with any special limitation or limitations
when the safe performance of the license holder's duties is dependent on
compliance with such limitation or limitations.
(b) The AME shall report to the Authority any individual case where, in the AME's
judgment, an applicant's failure to meet any requirement, whether numerical or
otherwise, is such that exercise of the privileges of the license being applied for, or
held, is not likely to jeopardize flight safety.
2.10.1.6 DECREASE OF MEDICAL FITNESS

(a) Holders of licenses provided for in this Part shall not exercise the privileges of their
licenses and related ratings at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their
medical fitness which might render them unable to safely and properly exercise these
privileges.
(b) The Authority shall ensure that license holders are provided with clear guidelines on
medical conditions that may be relevant to flight safety and when to seek clarification
or guidance from a medical examiner or Licensing Authority.
Note: Guidance on physical and mental conditions and treatment that are relevant to
flight safety about which information may need to be forwarded to the Licensing
Authority, is contained in the Handbook of Procedures of Aviation Medical
Examination.
(c) Holders of licenses provided for in this Part shall not exercise the privileges of their
licenses and related ratings during any period in which their medical fitness has, from
any cause, decreased to an extent that would have prevented the issue or renewal of
their Medical Assessment.
2.10.1.7 USE OF PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCES

(a) Holders of licenses provided for in this Part shall not exercise the privileges of their
licenses and related ratings while under the influence of any psychoactive substance
which might render them unable to safely and properly exercise these privileges.
(b) Holders of licenses provided for in this Part shall not engage in any problematic use of
substances.
(c) Holders of licenses provided for in this Part who engage in any kind of problematic use
of substances shall be identified and removed from their safety-critical functions.
Return to the safety-critical functions may be considered after successful treatment or,
in cases where no treatment is necessary, after cessation of the problematic use of
substances and upon determination that the person’s continued performance of the
function is unlikely to jeopardize safety.
(d) Random tests for effects of alcohol or psychoactive substances will be conducted by
the Authority.
Note: See ICAO Manual on Prevention of Problematic Use of Substances in the
Aviation Workplace (Doc 924)
2.10.1.8 MEDICAL CERTIFICATES

(a) The medical certificate shall be in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority. The
items required on the license are indicated in IS: 2.10.1.8.

2.10-3
PCAR PART 2
(b) Issue of medical certificates

(1) A medical certificate will be issued to any person who meets the medical
requirements prescribed in this Subpart, based on medical examination and
evaluation of the applicant's history and condition.
(i) The Authority will issue the Class 1 medical certificate.
(ii) The issue of Class 2 and 3 medical certificates may be delegated to the
authorized Aviation Medical Examiner.
(2) Each person to be issued a medical certificate shall undergo a medical examination
based on the physical and mental requirements contained in this Subpart.
(3) Any person who does not meet the medical requirements of this Subpart may apply
for the discretionary issuance of a certificate under Subpart 2.10.1.5.
(c) Validity:
(1) The validity period of the medical certificate is:
(i) 6 months for the Class 1 for ATPL.
(ii) 12 months for CPL, MPL, flight engineer license, flight navigator license and
FOO license.
(iii) 24 months for the Class 2 for the PPL, SPL, glider pilot license and free balloon
pilot license; and Class 3 for air traffic controller license.
(iv) When the holders have passed their 40th birthday:
(A) the 12-month interval specified for CPL, MPL, flight engineer license and
flight navigator license will be reduced to 6 months; and
(B) the 24-month interval specified for the PPL, SPL, glider pilot license, free
balloon pilot license and air traffic controller license will be reduced to 12
months.
(v) The period of validity of a medical certificate may be extended, at the discretion
of the Licensing Authority, up to 45 days.
(2) For initial issuance of the medical certificate, the period of validity shall begin on
the date the medical examination is performed. For any renewal or re-issuance of
a medical certificate, based on a medical examination that takes place during the
period of validity of the current medical certificate, but no more than 28 days before
its expiry date, the new period of validity shall begin on that date. For any renewal
or re-issuance, based on a medical examination taking place after the expiry date
or earlier than 28 days before the expiry date, the new period of validity shall begin
on the date of the examination.
(3) The period of validity of a Medical Assessment may be reduced when clinically
indicated.
(d) Renewal or re-issue of a medical certificate
(1) The level of medical fitness to be met for the renewal or re-issue of a medical
certificate shall be same as that for the initial certificate except where otherwise
specifically stated.
(2) The renewal of the Class 1, 2 and 3 medical certificates may be delegated to the
(3) Re-issue of the Class 1 medical certificate will be done by the Authority.

2.10-4
PCAR PART 2
(4) Re-issue of the Class 2 and 3 medical certificate may be delegated to the
(e) Limitation or denial
(1) The Authority may for medical reasons justified and notified to the applicant limit or
deny a medical certificate.
(f) Suspension or revocation of a medical certificate
(1) The Authority may in accordance with Subpart 2.2.10 suspend or revoke a medical
certificate issued, if it is established that an applicant or a certificate holder has not
met, or no longer meets the requirements of Part 2.
2.10.2 MEDICAL REQUIREMENTS

2.10.2.1 REQUIREMENTS FOR MEDICAL CERTIFICATES
2.10.2.1.1 GENERAL
An applicant for a Medical Certificate issued in accordance with this Part, shall undergo a
medical examination based on the following requirements:
(a) physical and mental;
(b) visual and color perception; and
(c) hearing.
2.10.2.1.2 PHYSICAL AND MENTAL REQUIREMENTS

An applicant for any class of Medical Assessment shall be required to be free from:
(a) any abnormality; congenital or acquired; or
(b) any active, latent, acute or chronic disability; or
(c) any wound, injury or sequelae from operation; or
(d) any effect or side-effect of any prescribed or non-prescribed therapeutic medication
taken; such as would entail a degree of functional incapacity which is likely to interfere
with the safe operation of an aircraft or with the safe performance of duties.
2.10.2.1.3 VISUAL ACUITY TEST REQUIREMENTS

(a) Visual acuity tests must be conducted in an environment with a level of illumination
that corresponds to ordinary office illumination (30-60cd/m2).
(b) Visual acuity must be measured by means of a series of Landolt rings or similar
optotypes, placed at a distance from the applicant appropriate to the method of testing
adopted.
2.10.2.1.4 COLOR PERCEPTION REQUIREMENTS

(a) The applicant shall be required to demonstrate the ability to perceive readily those
colors the perception of which is necessary for the safe performance of duties.
(b) The applicant shall be tested for the ability to correctly identify a series of
pseudoisochromatic plates in daylight or in artificial light of the same color

2.10-5
PCAR PART 2
temperature such as that provided by CIE standard illuminants C or D2 as specified

by the International Commission of Illumination (CIE).
(c) An applicant obtaining a satisfactory result as prescribed by the Authority shall be
assessed as fit. An applicant failing to obtain a satisfactory result in such a test shall
be assessed as unfit unless able to readily distinguish the colors used in air navigation
and correctly identify aviation colored lights. Applicants who fail to meet these criteria
shall be assessed as unfit except for Class 2 assessment with the following restriction:
valid daytime only.
2.10.2.1.5 HEARING REQUIREMENTS

Hearing requirements are established in addition to the ear examination conducted during
the medical examination for the physical and mental requirements.
(a) The applicant shall be required to be free from any hearing defect that would interfere
with the safe performance of duties in exercising the privileges of the license.
Note 1: The reference zero for calibration of pure-tone audiometers used for applying
Subparts 2.10.2.2.4 (a) and 2.10.2.4.4 (a) is that of the International Organization for
Standardization (ISO) Recommendation R389, 1964.
Note 2: The frequency composition of the background noise referred to in Subparts
2.10.2.4 (a)(1) and 2.10.2.4.4.(a)(1) is defined only to the extent that the frequency
range 600 to 4 800 Hz is adequately represented.
Note 3: In the choice of speech material, aviation-type material is not to be used
exclusively for the above tests. Lists of phonetically balanced words in use by a number
of Contracting States have given satisfactory results.
Note 4: A quiet room for the purposes of testing the hearing requirements is a room in
which the intensity of the background noise is less than 50 dB when measured on 'slow
response of an 'A"-weighted sound level meter.
Note 5: For the purposes of hearing requirements, the sound level of an average
conversational voice at point of output ranges from 85 to 95 dB.
2.10.2.2 CLASS 1 MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

2.10.2.2.1 CERTIFICATE ISSUE AND RENEWAL
(a) An applicant for a CPL, MPL, ATPL, Flight Engineer or Flight Navigator license shall
undergo an initial medical examination for the issue of a Class 1 Medical Certificate.
(b) Except where otherwise stated in this subpart, holders of CPL, MPL, ATPL, Flight
Engineer or Flight Navigator license shall have their Class 1 Medical Certificate
renewed at intervals not exceeding those specified in Subpart 2.10.1.8 (c).
(c) A Class 1 Medical Certificate will be issued when the applicant complies with the
requirements of this Part
(d) In alternate years, for Class 1 applicants under 40 years of age, the Licensing Authority
may allow medical examiners to omit certain routine examination items related to the
assessment of physical fitness, whilst increasing the emphasis on health education
and prevention of ill health.
The medical examination shall be based on the following requirements.

2.10-6
PCAR PART 2
(a) The applicant shall not suffer from any disease or disability which could render that
applicant likely to become suddenly unable either to operate an aircraft safely or to
perform assigned duties safely.
(b) The applicant shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of:
(1) a psychosis:
(2) alcoholism;
(3) drug dependence;
(4) any personality disorder, particularly if severe enough to have repeatedly resulted
in overt acts;
(5) a mental abnormality, or neurosis of a significant degree; such as might render the
applicant unable to safely exercise the privileges of the license applied for or held,
unless accredited medical conclusion indicates that in special circumstances, the
applicant's failure to meet the requirement is such that exercise of the privileges of
the license applied for is not likely to jeopardize flight safety.
(6) a depression being treated with antidepressant medication, unless the medical
assessor, having access to the details of the case concerned, considers the
applicant’s condition as unlikely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant’s
license and rating privileges.
(c) The applicant should have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any
mental abnormality, personality disorder or neurosis which according to accredited
medical conclusion, makes it likely that within two years of the examination the
applicant will be unable to safely exercise the privileges of the license or rating applied
for or held.
Note: A history of acute toxic psychosis need not be regarded as disqualifying,
provided that the applicant has suffered no permanent impairment.
(d) The applicant shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of
the following:
(1) a progressive or non-progressive disease of the nervous system, the effects of
which, according to accredited medical conclusion, are likely to interfere with the
safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges;
(2) epilepsy;
(3) any disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of
cause;
(e) Cases of head injury, the effects of which, according to accredited medical conclusion,
are likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating
privileges shall be assessed as unfit.
(f) The applicant shall not possess any abnormality of the heart, congenital or acquired,
which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating
privileges. A history of proven myocardial infarction shall be disqualifying.
Note: Such commonly occurring conditions as respiratory arrhythmia, occasional
extra systoles which disappear on exercise, increase of pulse rate from excitement or
exercise, or a slow pulse not associated with auriculoventricular dissociation may be
regarded as being “within -normal" limits.

2.10-7
PCAR PART 2
(1) Electrocardiography shall form part of the heart examination for the first issue of a
license and shall be included in re-examination of applicants between the ages of
30 and 40 no less frequently than every two years, and thereafter no less frequently
than annually.
Note 1: The purpose of routine electrocardiography is case finding. It does not
provide sufficient evidence to justify disqualification without further thorough
cardiovascular investigation.
Note 2: Guidance on resting and exercise electrocardiography is published in the
Manual of Civil Aviation Medicine (Doc 8984).
(2) An applicant who has undergone coronary bypass, grafting or angioplasty (with or
without stenting) or other cardiac intervention or who suffers from any other
potentially incapacitating cardiac condition shall be assessed unfit, unless the
applicant’s cardiac condition has been investigated and evaluated in accordance
with best medical practices and is assessed not likely to interfere with the safe
exercise of the applicant’s license or rating privileges.
(g) The systolic and diastolic blood pressures shall be within normal limits.
Note 1: The use of drugs for control of high blood pressure is disqualifying except for
those drugs. the use of which, according to accredited medical conclusion is
compatible with the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges.
Note 2: Extensive guidance on the subject is published in the Manual of Civil Aviation
Medicine (Doc 8984).
(h) There shall be no significant functional, nor structural abnormality of the circulatory
tree.
(i) There shall be no acute disability of the lungs, nor any active disease of the structures
of the lungs, mediastinum or pleura. Radiography shall form a part of the medical
examination in all doubtful clinical cases.
(1) Radiography should form a part of the initial chest examination and should be
repeated periodically thereafter.
(j) Any extensive mutilation of the chest wall with collapse of the thoracic cage and
sequelae of surgical procedures resulting in decreased respiratory efficiency at altitude
shall be assessed as unfit.
(k) Cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease should be assessed as unfit if the
condition is causing symptoms.
(l) Cases of active pulmonary tuberculosis, duly diagnosed, shall be assessed as unfit.
Cases of quiescent or healed lesions which are known to be tuberculous, or are
presumably tuberculous in origin, may be assessed as fit.
Note 1: Guidance material on assessment of respiratory diseases is published in the
Note 2: Guidance material on hazards of the medications is published in the Manual
of Civil Aviation Medicine (Doc 8984).
(m) Cases of disabling disease with important impairment of function of the gastrointestinal
tract or its adnexae shall be assessed as unfit.
(n) The applicant shall be required to be completely free from those hernias that might
give rise to incapacitating symptoms.

2.10-8
PCAR PART 2
(o) Any sequelae of disease or surgical intervention on any part of the digestive tract or its
adnexae, likely to cause incapacity in flight, in particular any obstructions due to
structure or compression shall be assessed as unfit.
(1) An applicant who has undergone a major surgical operation on the biliary passages
or the digestive tract or its adnexae, which has involved a total or partial excision
or a diversion of any of these organs should be assessed as unfit until such time
as the medical Authority designated for the purpose by Republic of the Philippines
and having access to the details of the operation concerned considers that the
effects of the operation are not likely to cause incapacity in the air.
(p) Cases of metabolic, nutritional or endocrine disorders likely to interfere with the safe
exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges shall be assessed as unfit.
(q) Cases of insulin-treated diabetes mellitus shall be assessed as unfit. Proven cases of
non-insulin-treated diabetes mellitus shall be assessed as unfit unless the condition is
shown to be satisfactorily controlled by diet alone or by diet combined with oral
antidiabetic medication, the use of which, according to the accredited medical
conclusion are compatible with the safe exercise of the applicant’s license and rating
privileges.
(r) Cases of severe and moderate enlargement of the spleen persistently below the costal
margin shall be assessed as unfit.
(s) Cases of significant localized and generalized enlargement of the lymphatic glands
and of diseases of the blood shall be assessed as unfit, except in cases where
accredited medical conclusion indicates that the condition is not likely to affect the safe
exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges.
(1) Possession of the sickle cell trait should not be a reason for disqualification unless
there is positive medical evidence to the contrary.
(2) Cases in (r) due to a transient condition should be assessed as only temporarily
unfit.
(t) Cases presenting any signs of organic disease of the kidney shall be assessed as
unfit; those due to a transient condition may be assessed as temporarily unfit. Urine
examination shall form part of the medical examination and shall contain no abnormal
element considered by the medical examiner to be of pathological significance. Cases
of affections of the urinary passages and of the genital organs shall be assessed as
unfit; those due to a transient condition may be assessed as temporarily unfit.
(u) Any sequelae of disease or surgical procedures on the kidneys and the urinary tract
likely to cause incapacity, in particular any obstructions due to stricture or compression,
shall be assessed as unfit. Compensated nephrectomy without hypertension or uremia
may be assessed as fit.
(1) An applicant who has undergone a major surgical operation on the urinary system
which has involved a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of its organs
should be assessed as unfit until such time as the medical Authority designated for
the purpose by Republic of the Philippines and having access to the details of the
operation concerned considers that the effects of the operation are not likely to
cause incapacity in the air.
(v) An applicant for the first issue of a license who has a personal history of syphilis shall
be required to furnish evidence, satisfactory to the AME, that the applicant has
undergone adequate treatment.

2.10-9
PCAR PART 2
(w) Pregnancy shall be cause of temporary unfitness.

(1) In the absence of significant abnormalities, accredited medical conclusion may
indicate fitness during the middle months of pregnancy.
(x) Following confinement or termination of pregnancy, the applicant shall not be permitted
to exercise the privileges of her license until she has undergone reexamination and
has been assessed as fit.
(y) Any active disease of the bones, joints, muscles or tendons and all serious functional
sequelae of congenital or acquired disease shall be assessed as unfit. Functions after-
effects of lesion affecting the bones, joints, muscles or tendons and certain anatomical
defects compatible with the safe exercise of the applicants license and rating privileges
(z) Applicants who are seropositive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) shall be
assessed as unfit unless the applicant’s condition has been investigated and
evaluated in accordance with best medical practice and is assessed as not likely to
interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant’s license or rating privileges.
(aa) There shall be:
(1) no active pathological process, acute or chronic, of the internal ear or of the middle
ear;
(2) no unhealed (unclosed) perforation of the tympanic membranes. A single dry
perforation need not render the applicant unfit. Licenses shall not be issued or
renewed in these circumstances unless the appropriate hearing requirements in
Subpart 2.10.2.2.4 are complied with;
(3) no permanent obstruction of the Eustachian tubes;
(4) no permanent disturbances of the vestibular apparatus. Transient conditions may
be assessed as temporarily unfit.
Note: The details of the hearing requirements are set out in Subpart 2.10.2.4.
(bb) There shall be free nasal air entry on both sides. There shall be no serious
malformation, nor serious, acute or chronic affection of the buccal cavity or upper
respiratory tract. Cases of speech defects and stuttering shall be assessed as unfit.
2.10.2.2.3 VISUAL REQUIREMENTS

(a) The function of the eyes and their adnexa shall be normal. There shall be no active
pathological condition, acute or chronic, nor any sequelae of surgery or trauma of the
eyes or their adnexa likely to reduce proper visual function to an extent that would
interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges.
(b) Distant visual acuity with or without correction shall be 6/9 or better in each eye
separately, and binocular visual acuity shall be 6/6 or better. No limits apply to
uncorrected visual acuity. Where this standard of visual acuity can be obtained only
with correcting lenses, the applicant may be assessed as fit provided that:
(1) such correcting lenses are worn during the exercise of the privileges of the license
or rating applied for or held; and
(2) in addition, a pair of suitable correcting spectacles is kept readily available during
the exercise of the privileges of the applicant's license.

2.10-10
PCAR PART 2
Note: An applicant accepted as meeting these provisions is deemed to continue

to do so unless there is reason to suspect otherwise, in which case an ophthalmic
report is required at the discretion of the Authority. Both uncorrected and correct
visual acuity are normally measured and recorded at each re-examination.
Conditions which indicate a need to obtain an ophthalmic report include: a
substantial decrease in the uncorrected visual acuity; any decrease in best
corrected visual acuity, and the occurrence of eye disease, eye injury or eye
surgery.
(c) Applicants may use contact lenses to meet the requirement of (b) provided that:
(1) the lenses are monofocal and non-tinted;
(2) the lenses are well tolerated; and
(3) a pair of suitable correcting spectacles is kept readily available during the exercise
of the license privileges.
Note: Applicants who use contact lenses may not need to have their uncorrected
visual acuity measured at each re-examination provided the history of their
contact lens prescription is known.
(d) Applicants with a large refractive error shall use contact lenses or high-index spectacle
lenses. Note: If spectacles are used, high-index lenses are needed to minimize
peripheral field distortion.
(1) Applicants whose uncorrected distant visual acuity in either eye is worse than 6/60
shall be required to provide a full ophthalmic report prior to initial Medical certificate
and every five years thereafter.
Note 1: The purpose of the required ophthalmic examination is (1) to ascertain
normal visual performance and (2) to identify any significant pathology.
Note 2: Guidance on the assessment of monocular applicants under the
provisions of Subpart 2.10.1.5 is contained in the Manual of Civil Aviation
(e) Applicants who have undergone surgery affecting the refractive status of the eye shall
be assessed as unfit unless they are free from those sequelae which are likely to
interfere with the safe exercise of their license and rating privileges.
(f) The applicant shall have the ability to read, while wearing the correcting lenses, if any,
required by paragraph (b), the N5 chart or its equivalent at a distance selected by that
applicant in the range of 30 to 50 cm and the ability to read the N14 chart or its
equivalent at a distance of 100 cm. If this requirement is met only by the use of near
correction, the applicant may be assessed as fit provided that this near correction is
added to the spectacle correcting already prescribed in accordance with (b); if no such
correction is prescribed, a pair of spectacles for near use shall be kept readily available
during the exercise of the privileges of the license. When near correction is required,
the applicant shall demonstrate that one pair of spectacles is sufficient to meet both
distant and near visual requirements.
Note 1: N5 and N14 refer to the size of typeface used. For further details, see the
Note 2: Any applicant who needs near correction to meet this requirement will require
`look-over", bifocal or perhaps multifocal lenses in order to read the instruments and
a chart or manual held in the hand, and also to make use of distant vision, through
the windscreen, without removing the lenses. Single-vision near correction (full
lenses of one power only, appropriate for reading) significantly reduces distant visual
acuity and is therefore not acceptable.

2.10-11
PCAR PART 2
Note 3: Whenever there is a requirement to obtain or renew correcting lenses, an

applicant is expected to advise the refractionist of reading distances for the visual
flight deck tasks relevant to the types of aircraft in which the applicant is likely to
function.
(1) When near correction is required in accordance with this paragraph, a second pair
of near-correction spectacles shall be kept available for immediate use.
(g) The applicant shall be required to have normal fields of vision.
(h) The applicant shall be required to have normal binocular function.
Note: Defective stereopsis, abnormal convergence not interfering with near vision,
and ocular misalignment where the fusional reserves are sufficient to prevent
asthenopia and diplopia may not be disqualifying.

(a) The applicant, tested on a pure-tone audiometer at first issue of license, not less than
once every five years up to the age of 40 years, and thereafter not less than once every
three years, shall not have a hearing loss in either ear separately, of more than 35 dB
at any of the frequencies 500, 1 000 or 2 000 Hz, or more than 50 dB at 3 000 Hz.
However, an applicant with a hearing loss greater than the above may be declared fit
provided that:
(1) the applicant has a hearing performance in each ear separately equivalent to that
of a normal person, against a background noise that will simulate the masking
properties of flight deck noise upon speech and beacon signals; and
(2) the applicant has the ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet room,
using both ears, at a distance of 2m from the examiner, with the back turned to the
examiner.
(b) Alternatively, other methods providing equivalent results to those specified in
paragraph (a) shall be used.

(a) An applicant for a PPL, SPL, FOO and a Glider Pilot license or a Free Balloon Pilot
license shall undergo an initial medical examination for the issue of a Class 2 Medical
Certificate.
(b) Except where otherwise stated in this subpart, holders of a PPL, SPL, FOO and a
Glider Pilot license or a Free Balloon Pilot license shall have their Class 2 Medical
Certificate renewed at intervals not exceeding those specified in Subpart 2.10.1.8 (c).
requirements of this Part.


2.10-12
PCAR PART 2
applicant likely to become suddenly unable either to operate an aircraft safely or to
perform assigned duties safely.
(1) a psychosis;
(2) alcoholism;
(3) drug dependence;
in overt acts;
(5) a mental abnormality, or neurosis of a significant degree;
(6) such as might render the applicant unable to safely exercise the privileges of the
license applied for or held, unless accredited medical conclusion indicates that in
special circumstances, the applicant's failure to meet the requirement is such that
exercise of the privileges of the license applied for is not likely to jeopardize flight
safety; and
(7) a depression being treated with antidepressant medication, unless the medical
assessor, having access to the details of the case concerned, considers the
applicant’s condition as unlikely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant’s
license and rating privileges.
for or held.
the following:
(2) epilepsy:
cause:
privileges. A history of proven myocardial infarction shall be disqualifying.
extrasystoles which disappear on exercise, increase of pulse rate from excitement or
regarded as being “within normal" limits.

2.10-13
PCAR PART 2
(1) Electrocardiography should form part of the heart examination for the first issue of
a license, at the first re-examination after the ages 30 and 40, no less frequently
than every two years, and thereafter no less frequently than annually.
provide sufficient evidence to justify disqualification without further
thoroughcardiovascular investigation.
(2) An applicant who has undergone coronary bypass grafting or angioplasty (with or
potentially incapacitating cardiac condition shall be assessed as unfit unless the
those drugs, the use of which, according to accredited medical conclusion is
(h) There shall be no significant functional nor structural abnormality of the circulatory tree.
The presence of varicosities does not necessarily entail unfitness.
(i) There shall be no acute disability of the lungs nor any active disease of the structures
(j) Any extensive mutilation of the chest wall with collapse of the thoracic cage and
sequelae of surgical procedures resulting in decreased respiratory efficiency at altitude
shall be assessed as unfit.
(k) Cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease should be assessed as unfit if the
(l) Cases of active pulmonary tuberculosis, duly diagnosed, shall be assessed as unfit.
(m) Cases of disabling disease with important impairment of function of the gastrointestinal
(n) The applicant shall be required to be completely free from those hernias that might
(o) Any sequelae of disease or surgical intervention on any part of the digestive tract or its

2.10-14
PCAR PART 2
(1) An applicant who has undergone a major surgical operation on the biliary passages
or the digestive tract or its adnexae, which has involved a total or partial excision
or a diversion of any of these organs should be assessed as unfit until such time
as the medical Authority designated for the purpose by Republic of the Philippines
and having access to the details of the operation concerned considers that the
effects of the operation are not likely to cause incapacity in the air.
(p) Cases of insulin-treated diabetes mellitus shall be assessed as unfit. Proven cases of
diabetes mellitus shown to be satisfactorily controlled without the use of any
antidiabetic drug may be assessed as fit. The use of anti-diabetic drugs for the control
of diabetes mellitus is disqualifying except for those oral drugs administered under
conditions permitting appropriate medical supervision and control and which according
to accredited medical conclusion, are compatible with the safe exercise of the
applicant's license and rating privileges.
(q) Cases of severe and moderate enlargement of the spleen persistently below the costal
margin shall be assessed as unfit.
(r) Cases of significant localized and generalized enlargement of the lymphatic glands
(1) Possession of the sickle cell trait should not be a reason for disqualification unless
there is positive medical evidence to the contrary.
(2) Cases in (q) due to a transient condition should be assessed as only temporarily
unfit.
(s) Cases presenting any signs of organic disease of the kidney shall be assessed as
(t) Any sequelae of disease or surgical procedures on the kidneys and the urinary tract
(1) An applicant who has undergone a major surgical operation on the urinary system
which has involved a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of its organs
should be assessed as unfit until such time as the medical Authority designated for
the purpose by the Republic of the Philippines and having access to the details of
the operation concerned considers that the effects of the operation are not likely to
cause incapacity in the air.
(u) An applicant for the first issue of a license who has a personal history of syphilis shall
(v) Applicants who have a history of severe menstrual disturbances that have proved
unamenable to treatment and that are likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the
applicant's license and rating privileges shall be assessed as unfit.
(1) Applicants who have undergone gynaecological operations should be considered
individually.

2.10-15
PCAR PART 2
(w) Pregnancy shall be cause of temporary unfitness.

(x) Following confinement or termination of pregnancy, the applicant shall not be permitted
to exercise the privileges of her license until she has undergone reexamination and
has been assessed as fit.
(y) Any active disease of the bones. joints, muscles or tendons and all serious functional
sequelae of congenital or acquired disease shall be assessed as unfit. Certain
qualifying functional after-effects of lesion affecting the bones, joints, muscles or
tendons and certain anatomical defects compatible with the safe exercise of the
applicants license and rating privileges may be assessed as fit.
(z) Those who are seropositive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) shall be assessed
as unfit unless the applicant’s condition has been investigated and evaluated in
accordance with best medical practice and is assessed as not likely to interfere with
the safe exercise of the applicant’s license or rating privileges.
(aa) There shall be:
ear;
Note: The details of the hearing requirements are set out in 2.10.2.3.4.
(bb) There shall be no serious malformation nor serious, acute or chronic affection of the
buccal cavity or upper respiratory tract.

Note: An applicant accepted as meeting these provisions is deemed to continue to
do so unless there is reason to suspect otherwise, in which case an ophthalmic

2.10-16
PCAR PART 2
surgery.
(c) Applicants may use contact lenses to meet the requirement of paragraph (b) provided
that:
(1) the lenses are monofocal and non-tinted:
lenses.
Note: If spectacles are used, high-index lenses are needed to minimize peripheral
field distortion.
(e) Applicants whose uncorrected distant visual acuity in either eye is worse than 6/60
should be required to provide a full ophthalmic report prior to initial Medical Certificate
Note 1: The purpose of the required ophthalmic examination is (1) to ascertain
normal visual performance; and (2) to identify any significant pathology.
Note 2: Guidance on the assessment of monocular applicants under the provisions of
Subpart 2.10.1.5 is contained in the Manual of Civil Aviation Medicine (Doc 8984).
(f) Applicants who have undergone surgery affecting the refractive status of the eye shall
(g) The applicant shall have the ability to read, while wearing the correcting lenses, if any,
required by (b), the N5 chart or its equivalent at a distance selected by that applicant
in the range of 30 to 50 cm and the ability to read the N14 chart or its equivalent at a
distance of 100 cm. If this requirement is met only by the use of near correction, the
applicant may be assessed as fit provided that this near correction is added to the
spectacle correcting already prescribed in accordance with (b); if no such correction is
prescribed, a pair of spectacles for near use shall be kept readily available during the
exercise of the privileges of the license. When near correction is required, the applicant
shall demonstrate that one pair of spectacles is sufficient to meet both distant and near
visual requirements.
-look-over", bifocal or perhaps multifocal lenses in order to read the instruments and
function.

2.10-17
PCAR PART 2
(h) The applicant shall be required to have normal fields of vision.
(i) The applicant shall be required to have normal binocular function.
Note: Defective stereopsis, abnormal convergence not interfering with near vision,

(a) The medical examination shall be based on the following requirements:
(1) The applicant tested on a pure-tone audiometer at first issue of license, and every
three (3) years after the age of 50 years, shall not have a hearing loss in either ear
separately, of more than 35 dB at any of the frequencies 500, 1000 or 2000 Hz, or
more than 50 dB at 3000 Hz. However, an applicant with a hearing loss greater
than the above may be declared fit provided that:
(i) the applicant has hearing performance in each ear separately equivalent to that
of a normal person, against a background noise that will simulate the masking
properties of flight deck noise upon speech and beacon signals; and
(ii) the applicant has the ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet
room, using both ears, at a distance of 2m from the examiner, with the back
turned to the examiner.
(2) Alternatively, other methods providing equivalent results to those specified in
paragraph (1) shall be used.

(a) An applicant for an Air Traffic Controller license shall undergo an initial medical
examination for the issue of a Class 3 Medical Certificate.
(b) Except where otherwise stated in this subpart, holders of an Air Traffic Controller
license shall have their Class 3 Medical Certificate renewed at intervals not exceeding
those specified in Subpart 2.10.1.8 (c).
requirements of this Part.

applicant likely to become suddenly unable to perform assigned duties safely.
(1) a psychosis:
(2) alcoholism;
(3) drug dependence,

2.10-18
PCAR PART 2
in overt acts;
(5) a mental abnormality, or neurosis of a significant degree,
(i) such as might render the applicant unable to safely exercise the privileges of
the license applied for or held, unless accredited medical conclusion indicates
that in special circumstances, the applicant's failure to meet the requirement is
such that exercise of the privileges of the license applied for is not likely to
jeopardize flight safety.
for or held.
the following:
(2) epilepsy;
cause;
privileges. An applicant indicated by accredited medical conclusion to have made a
satisfactory recovery from myocardial infarction may be assessed as fit.
extrasystoles which disappear on exercise, increase of pulse rate from excitement or
regarded as being within ”normal“ limits.
(1) Electrocardiography shall form part of the heart examination for the first issue of a
license, and shall be included in re-examination of the applicant between the ages
30 and 40 no less frequently than every two years, and thereafter no less frequently
than annually.
provide sufficient evidence to justify disqualification without further thorough
cardiovascular investigation.
(2) An applicant who has undergone coronary bypass, grafting or angioplasty (with or
potentially incapacitating cardiac condition shall be assessed unfit, unless the

2.10-19
PCAR PART 2
those drugs, the use of which, according to accredited medical conclusion is
(h) There shall be no significant functional nor structural abnormality of the circulatory tree.
The presence of varicosities does not necessarily entail unfitness.
(i) There shall be no acute disability of the lungs nor any active disease of the structures
(j) Cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease should be assessed as unfit if the
(k) Cases of active pulmonary tuberculosis, duly diagnosed, shall be assessed as unfit.
(l) Cases of disabling disease with important impairment of function of the gastrointestinal
(m) The applicant shall be required to be completely free from those hernias that might
(n) Any sequelae of disease or surgical intervention on any part of the digestive tract or its
(o) Cases of metabolic, nutritional or endocrine disorders likely to interfere with the safe
exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges shall be assessed as unfit.
(p) Cases of insulin treated diabetes mellitus shall be assessed as unfit. Proven cases of
diabetes mellitus shown to be satisfactorily controlled without the use of any
antidiabetic drug may be assessed as fit. The use of anti-diabetic drugs for the control
of diabetes mellitus is disqualifying except for those oral drugs administered under
conditions permitting appropriate medical supervision and control and which according
to accredited medical conclusion, are compatible with the safe exercise of the
applicant's license and rating privileges.
(q) Cases of significant localized and generalized enlargement of the lymphatic glands
(1) Cases in (q) due to a transient condition should be assessed as only temporarily
unfit.

2.10-20
PCAR PART 2
(r) Cases presenting any signs of organic disease of the kidney shall be assessed as
(s) Any sequelae of disease or surgical procedures on the kidneys and the urinary tract
(t) An applicant for the first issue of a license who has a personal history of syphilis shall
(u) Applicants who have a history of severe menstrual disturbances that have proved
unamenable to treatment and that are likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the
applicant's license and rating privileges shall be assessed as unfit.
(v) Pregnancy shall be cause of temporary unfitness:
(2) Following confinement or termination of pregnancy, the applicant shall not be
permitted to exercise the privileges of her license until she has undergone
reexamination and has been assessed as fit.
(w) Any active disease of the bones, joints, muscles or tendons and all serious functional
sequelae of congenital or acquired disease shall be assessed as unfit. Functional after-
effects of lesion affecting the bones, joints, muscles or tendons and certain anatomical
defects compatible with the safe exercise of the applicants license and rating privileges
(x) Those who are seropositive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) shall be assessed
as unfit unless the applicant’s condition has been investigated and evaluated in
accordance with best medical practice and is assessed as not likely to interfere with
the safe exercise of the applicant’s license or rating privileges.
Note: Early diagnosis and active management of HIV disease with antiretroviral
therapy reduces morbidity and improves prognosis and thus increases the likelihood
of a fit assessment.
(y) There shall be:
ear;
(2) no unhealed (unclosed) perforations of the tympanic membrane. A single dry
perforation need not render the applicant unfit. License shall not be issued or
renewed in these circumstances unless the appropriate hearing requirements in
Subpart 2.10.2.2.4 are complied with;
(3) no permanent obstruction of the Eustachian tubes; and
Note: The details of the hearing requirements are set out in Subpart 2.10.2.4.4.

2.10-21
PCAR PART 2
(z) There shall be no serious malformation, nor serious, acute or chronic affection of the
buccal cavity or upper respiratory tract. Cases of speech defects and stuttering shall
be assessed as unfit.

Note: An applicant accepted as meeting these provisions is deemed to continue
to do so unless there is reason to suspect otherwise in which case an ophthalmic
surgery.
(c) Applicants may use contact lenses to meet the requirement of (b) provided that:
(1) the lenses are monofocal and non-tinted:
lenses.
Note: If spectacles are used, high-index lenses are needed to minimize peripheral
field distortion.
(e) Applicants whose uncorrected distant visual acuity in either eye is worse than 6/60
should be required to provide a full ophthalmic report prior to initial Medical Certificate
Note 1: The purpose of the required ophthalmic examination is 1) to ascertain normal
visual performance and 2) to identify any significant pathology.
Note 2: Guidance on the assessment of monocular applicants under the provisions of
2.10.1.5 is contained in the Manual of Civil Aviation Medicine (Doc 8984).

2.10-22
PCAR PART 2
(f) Applicants who have undergone surgery affecting the refractive status of the eye shall
(g) The applicant shall have the ability to read, while wearing the correcting lenses, if any,
required by (b), the N5 chart or its equivalent at a distance selected by that applicant
in the range of 30 to 50 cm and the ability to read the N14 chart or its equivalent at a
distance of 100 cm. If this requirement is met only by the use of near correction, the
applicant may be assessed as fit provided that this near correction is added to the
spectacle correcting already prescribed in accordance with (b); if no such correction is
prescribed. a pair of spectacles for near use shall be kept readily available during the
exercise of the privileges of the license. When near correction is required, the applicant
shall demonstrate that one pair of spectacles is sufficient to meet both distant and near
visual requirements.
“Look-over", bifocal or perhaps multifocal lenses in order to read the instruments and
function.
(h) The applicant shall be required to have normal fields of vision.
(i) The applicant shall be required to have normal binocular function.
Note: Defective stereopsis: abnormal convergence not interfering with near vision,

(a) The applicant, tested on a pure-tone audiometer at first issue of license, not less than
once every five years up to the age of 40 years, and thereafter not less than once every
three years, shall not have a hearing loss in either ear separately, of more than 35 dB
at any of the frequencies 500, 1000 or 2000 Hz, or more than 50 dB at 3000 Hz.
However, an applicant with a hearing loss greater than the above may be declared fit
provided that:
(1) the applicant has a hearing performance in each ear separately equivalent to that
of a normal person, against a background noise that will simulate the that
experienced in a typical air traffic control working environment; and
(2) the applicant has the ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet
room, using both ears, at a distance of 2m from the examiner, with the back turned
to the examiner.

2.10-23
PCAR PART 2
(b) Alternatively, other methods providing equivalent results to those specified in (a) shall
be used.
2.10.2.4.5 MEDICAL REQUIREMENTS FOR THE SCHEDULED COMMERCIAL AIR

OPERATORS
The following general medical requirements shall apply to the scheduled commercial air
operators’ medical services:
(a) A scheduled commercial air operator shall have a medical service in support of its
operation whose head shall be at least an Aviation Medical Specialist.
(b) A scheduled commercial air operator Medical Examiner shall not perform medical
examination of airmen of the scheduled commercial air operator for the purpose of
securing original or renewal of airmen licenses or rating(s). He shall be mainly
concerned in keeping the flight crew members of the scheduled commercial air
operator physically and mentally fit to perform flight duties at all times.
2.10.2.4.6 PENALTIES
Any person who violates any provisions of these rules and regulations shall be liable to
the provisions and penalties prescribed in Chapter XI of the Civil Aviation Authority Act of
2008 (Republic Act No. 9497).

2.10-24
PCAR PART 2
2.11 RESERVED
2.12 GROUND INTRUCTOR LICENSE
2.12.1 GENERAL
The applicant for an instructor rating or license – airplane or helicopter, shall:
(a) Hold at least a valid commercial pilot license with instrument rating if instrument
instructions is to be given or have completed the necessary (ATO) Approved Training
Organization on the subjects/courses to be handled or otherwise established his
competence to provide such instruction; and
(b) Hold a specific authorization/license granted by the Authority
2.12.2 GROUND INSTRUCTORS LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for a ground instructor rating or license shall be not less than 21
years of age.
(b) Knowledge:
(1) The applicant for a ground instructor rating or license shall have met the knowledge
requirements for the issuance of a CPL as specified in PCAR Part 2.3.3.3 and
2.3.3.8, as applicable;
(2) Must be able to read, speak, write and understand the English language;
(3) In addition, the applicant for a ground instructor license shall meet the requirements
of 2.3.3.11(b)(2)(ii)(A) - (L) from an authorized instructor; and
(4) Has obtained instructional experience for at least twenty (20) hours certified by a
currently licensed ground instructor by having presented each subject he/she is to
teach, in its entirety, to a minimum of group of student class.
(c) Issuance. For original issuance of ground instructor rating or license, the applicant
shall submit the following;
(1) Certification or proof that he meets the eligibility requirements for a ground
instructor;
(2) Passed the knowledge test for ground instructor; and
(3) Passed a practical examination on each subject he/she is to teach.
(d) Medical Fitness. The applicant for a ground instructor rating or license shall be holder
of a current Class 2 Medical Certificate
(e) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in the existing
aviation regulations on Ground Instruction, the privileges of the holder of a ground
instructor license shall be:
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, provide a course of instruction
in each subject for which he has passed the practical demonstration required.
(2) Provide instruction in an approved training program under PCAR Part 8 and Part 9
in which subjects for which he is qualified under that training program; and
(3) If rated on a higher horsepower single engine aircraft, provide instruction on all
aircraft systems and subjects for aircraft of an equal or lower horsepower rating
made by the same manufacturer.
(4) These provisions are not applicable to aircraft with a different propulsion system;
that is, piston, turbo-propeller or turbojet.

2.12-1
PCAR PART 2
(f) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in these Guidelines,
the validity period of the license is 5 years. For renewal of the ground instructor see
PCAR Part 2.2.3, and must present the evidence to the authority within thirty (30) days
prior to the expiry of his/her license, that he/she has exercised the privileges of said
license during its validity.

2.12-2
PCAR PART 2
2.13 RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

2.13.1 APPLICABILITY
(a) This Subsection applies to all persons conducting Remotely Piloted Aircraft
System for commercial operations.
(b) This likewise applies to all persons conducting Remotely Piloted Aircraft System
for non-commercial operations using Large RPAs or operating within the controlled
or prohibited airspace in relation to PCAR Part 11.11.3 (c).
2.13.2 APPLICATION FOR RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

(a) The application for RPA Controller’s Certificate shall be made in writing, signed
and sworn to by the applicant. The application shall also state the following:
(1) The date and place of filing;
(2) The name of applicant;
(3) The address of the applicant;
(4) The intended RPA to be controlled;
(5) Details of any flight crew license, air traffic control license or operations officer
license that the applicant holds (include details of ratings, endorsements and
qualifications);
(6) Details of applicant’s experience in operating RPAs.
(7) Evidence of the completion of any training course in RPA operation that the
applicant has undertaken.
(b) The Authority may refuse to consider, or cease considering, the application until
the applicant gives the information or a copy of it.
2.13.3 ELIGIBILITY FOR RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

(a) No person is eligible for the issuance of an RPA Controller Certificate unless he or
she:
(1) Has completed an RPAs training course as conducted by the RPA
manufacturer in the operation of the type of RPA that he or she proposes to
operate; and
(2) Has at least five (5) hours experience in operating RPAs outside controlled
airspace.
(3) Has Passed RPAS Exam.
(4) Has passed the demonstration flight conducted by the authorized personnel of
the Authority.
2.13.4 CONDITIONS AS RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

(a) The Authority may impose a condition on the authorization of a person as a RPA
controller in the interest of air navigation safety.
(b) Without limiting the generality of paragraph (a), the following conditions may be
imposed:
(1) Allow the person to control RPAs of only specified kinds; or

2.13-1
PCAR PART 2
(2) Limit the areas where he or she may control RPAs; or

(3) Allow him or her to control RPAs only in VMC.
2.13.5 RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE: CONTENTS

(a) The RPA Controller Certificate shall contain the following information:
(1) Name of the person;
(2) Address;
(3) RPA Controller PEL Number;
(4) Conditions and Limitations;
(5) Type rating; and
(6) Period of validity.
2.13.6 VALIDITY OF RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

(a) An RPA Controller Certificate issued by the Authority is effective for a period of
five (5) years from date of issuance and remains valid until:
(1) The Authority amends, suspends, revokes or otherwise terminates the
certificate;
(2) The RPA Controller surrenders it to the Authority.
2.13.7 SHOW CAUSE NOTICE TO RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

HOLDER
(a) The Authority may give a show cause notice to an RPA Controller Certificate
Holder if there are reasonable grounds for believing that there are facts or
circumstances that would justify the cancellation of the certification under PCAR
Part 2 Subpart 2.13.8
(b) A show cause notice shall include the following:
(1) tell the controller of the facts and circumstances that, in Authority’s opinion,
would justify the cancellation of the RPA Controller Certificate under PCAR
Part 2 Subpart 2.13.8; and
(2) invite the controller to show in writing, within a reasonable time stated in the
notice, why the RPA Controller Certificate should not be cancelled.
(c) A show cause notice may state that the RPA Controller Certificate is suspended if
the Authority reasonably considers that there may be a serious risk to air
navigation safety if the certification were not to be suspended.
(d) If a show cause notice states that the RPA Controller Certificate is suspended, the
certification is suspended from when the notice is given to the holder.
(e) The Authority may at any time revoke the suspension.
(f) If the approval is suspended and the Authority has not dealt with it under PCAR
Part 2 Subpart 2.13.8 within 90 days after the day it is suspended, the suspension
lapses at the end of that period.

2.13-2
PCAR PART 2
2.13.8 CANCELLATION OF RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

(a) The Authority may cancel an RPA Controller certificate by written notice to the
controller, if:
(1) The Authority has given to the controller a show cause notice under PCAR Part
2 Subpart 2.13.7 in relation to it;
(2) The Authority has taken into account any representation made, within the
period stated in the notice, by or on behalf of the controller; and
(3) there are reasonable grounds for believing that the controller:
(i) has operated an RPA in contravention of these Subpart or of a condition of
the certification; or
(ii) has operated the RPA negligently or carelessly; or
(iii) in operating the RPA, has recklessly endangered human life or property.
(b) If the Authority has given a show cause notice under PCAR Part 2 Subpart 2.13.7
to an RPA Controller Certificate Holder, and it decides not to cancel the approval,
the Authority shall:
(1) Inform the controller in writing of the decision; and/or
(2) Revoke the suspension if the controller’s authorization is suspended under that
regulation.
2.13.9 CANCELLATION AT REQUEST OF HOLDER

(a) The Authority may cancel a RPA Controller Certificate if asked to do so in writing
by the controller.
(b) The cancellation takes effect upon the issuance by the Authority of such order
cancelling the RPA Controller Certificate.
2.13.10 VALIDATION OF FOREIGN RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE,

LICENSE OR AUTHORIZATION
(a) A person who holds a current and valid RPA Controller Certificate, License or
Authorization issued by another Contracting State may apply for a validation of
such license or authorization for use on Remotely Piloted Aircraft registered with
the Authority.
(b) The Authority shall verify with the authenticity of the license/authorization and
ratings with the issuing state.
(c) A validation certificate will be issued, provided:
(1) that the applicant shall present to the Authority the foreign issued
license/authorization.
(2) that the foreign issued license/authorization is current and valid.
(d) A validation certificate, based upon the relevant foreign issued
license/authorization, will be issued provided the following requirements are met:
(1) The applicant for the validation certificate shall present to the Authority the
foreign license/authorization and evidence of the experience required by PCAR
Part 2; 2.13.3.

2.13-3
PCAR PART 2
(2) The validation certificate will be valid for one (1) year, provided that the foreign
license/authorization are still current and valid.
(3) The applicant for the validation certificate shall:
(i) have completed RPA training course conducted by the RPA manufacturer
in the operation of the type of RPA that he or she proposes to operate;
(ii) have at least five (5) hours experience in operating RPAs.
(iii) pass the demonstration flight conducted by the authorized personnel of the
Authority.

2.13-4
PCAR PART 2
2.14 AIR TRAFFIC SAFETY ELECTRONIC PERSONNEL LICENSE AND

RATINGS
2.14.1 APPLICABILITY
This section prescribes the requirements for the issuance of an Air Traffic Safety Electronic
Personnel (ATSEP) license and ratings.
2.14.2 GENERAL
An applicant shall, before being issued with an ATSEP license, meet such requirements
in respect of age, knowledge, experience, skill, medical fitness as specified for that license
or rating.
2.14.3 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE ISSUE OF THE LICENSE

2.14.3.1 AGE.
The applicant shall be at least 21 years of age.
2.14.3.2 KNOWLEDGE.
The applicant for an ATSEP license shall:
(i) have satisfactorily completed an approved training course conducted by an
authorized instructor and/or acceptable to the Authority with at least knowledge
subject as specified in IS 2.14.3.2 APPENDIX A;
(ii) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the
person is prepared for the required knowledge test; and
(iii) have passed the required knowledge test on the knowledge subjects of item (i) of
this Part.
2.14.3.3 EXPERIENCE.
The applicant for an ATSEP license shall have completed not less than Three Hundred
Twenty (320) hours of Facility Familiarization Training in the preventive maintenance of an
Air Navigation Facility Equipment under the supervision of an authorized instructor.
2.14.3.4 SKILL.
The applicant for an ATSEP license shall:
(i) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the
person is prepared for the required skill test as specified in IS 2.14.3.4 APPENDIX
B; and
(ii) have demonstrated, by passing a skill test, the ability to perform the privileges as
specified in 2.14.4.(a) or (b) as appropriate.
2.14.3.5 MEDICAL FITNESS.

The applicant shall hold a current Class 3 Medical Certificate.

2.14-1
PCAR PART 2
2.14.4 PRIVILEGES OF THE HOLDER OF LICENSE

Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in 2.14.3, the privileges of the holder
of an ATSEP license shall:
(a) except as specified in paragraphs (b) of this subsection and provided the licensed
ATSEP has:
(1) Satisfactorily performed the work at an earlier date;
(2) Demonstrated the ability to perform the work to the satisfaction of the Authority;
(3) Received training acceptable to the Authority on the tasks to be performed; and
(4) Performed the work under the direction of a licensed ATSEP designated by the
Authority:
(i) perform activities related to the establishments and/or improvement of air
navigation facilities;
(ii) implement approved plans and design for the establishment and/or
improvement of air navigation facilities;
(iii) formulate and/or implement standard procedures and regulations, and conduct
evaluation of air navigation facilities; and
(iv) administer, manage, supervise, and/or train on the functional operation and
maintenance of CNS/ATM systems.
(b) operate and maintain a CNS/ATM system and equipment under the direct supervision
of an appropriately rated ATSEP.
2.14.5 VALIDITY OF LICENSE

Subject to compliance of the requirements specified in 2.14.3, the license is valid for five
(5) years from the date of issuance provided that the license holder shall:
(a) continue to perform ATSEP functions within the Authority;
(b) continue to exercise any of the Privileges as specified in 2.14.4; and
(c) hold a current class 3 medical certificate.
2.14.6 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RENEWAL OF LICENSES

A holder of an ATSEP license desiring to renew his/her license must accomplish and
submit the following, within 30 days prior to the expiry of his/her license:
(a) Application for the renewal of license;
(b) current Class 3 medical certificate; and
(c) Certification or proof that the holder continues to exercise any of the privileges of the
license.
2.14.7 ATSEP RATING

ATSEP ratings are issued specific for each equipment type, brand and model, and shall
comprise the following categories:
(a) Communications Equipment Rating
(b) Radio Navigational Aids Equipment Rating

2.14-2
PCAR PART 2
(c) Surveillance Equipment Rating

(d) Data Processing System Rating
2.14.8 REQUIREMENTS for ATSEP RATINGS

2.14.8.1 KNOWLEDGE.
The applicant for an ATSEP rating shall:
(i) have satisfactorily completed an approved training course conducted by an
authorized instructor and/or acceptable to the Authority with at least subject areas
as specified in IS 2.14.8.1 APPENDIX C
(ii) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the
person is prepared for the required written and/or oral test; and
(iii) have demonstrated a required level of knowledge, through written and/or oral test,
covering the areas specified in item (i) of this Part for a specific equipment for which
the rating is sought.
2.14.8.2 EXPERIENCE.
(i) have rendered a service of at least one (1) year in the preventive and corrective
maintenance of a specific equipment for which the rating is sought under the
supervision of an appropriately rated ATSEP.
2.14.8.3 SKILL.
(i) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the
person is prepared for the required practical/skill test as specified in IS 2.14.8.3
APPENDIX D; and
(ii) have demonstrated a level of skills, by passing a practical/skill test, appropriate to
the privileges as specified in 2.14.9 for a specific equipment for which the rating is
sought.
2.14.9 PRIVILEGES OF THE HOLDER OF RATING

Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in 2.14.8, the privileges of the holder
of an ATSEP license with one or more ratings shall be to:
(a) perform and/or supervise the operation, and maintenance of a specific equipment for
which the license holder is rated;
(b) conduct on-the-job training for a specific equipment; and
(c) certify the reliability and recommend the return-to-service of a specific equipment for
which the license holder is rated following a preventive and/or corrective maintenance
procedures.

2.14-3
PCAR PART 2
2.14.10 VALIDITY OF RATINGS

The rating shall become invalid when an ATSEP has ceased to exercise any of the
privileges of the rating for at least one (1) year. A rating shall remain invalid until the
ATSEP’s ability to exercise the privileges of the rating has been re-validated.
2.14.11 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RE-VALIDATION OF RATING

A holder of an ATSEP Rating desiring to re-validate his/her Rating shall:
(a) hold a current Class 3 medical certificate; and
(b) pass the skill test for the relevant ratings that he or she wants to be validated relevant
to the privileges of the rating held and/or demonstrate to the satisfaction of the
Authority the knowledge relevant to the rating to be validated.

2.14-4
PCAR PART 2

CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS
(CAR)
PART 2: IS
PERSONNEL LICENSING:
IMPLEMENTING STANDARDS

IS-1
PCAR PART 2
IS 2.2.1 ISSUE, RENEWAL AND RE-ISSUE OF LICENSES, RATINGS,

AUTHORIZATIONS AND CERTIFICATES
(a) Issue, renewal and re-issue of licenses, ratings, Authorizations and certificates will take
place when the applicant meets the requirements of Part 2 for issue, renewal and re-
issue for these licenses, ratings, Authorizations and certificates.
(b) Issue, renewal and re-issue of licenses, ratings, Authorizations and certificates will be
performed by the Authority.
(c) Notwithstanding (b), renewal of ratings and category II/III pilot Authorizations may be
performed by the Examiner, when delegated by the Authority.
(d) Notwithstanding (b), renewal of medical certificates may be performed by the AME,
when delegated by the Authority.
(e) Application for the issue, renewal and re-issue of licenses, ratings. Authorizations or
certificates by the Authority shall be done by submitting to the Authority a properly filled
out form, which form can be obtained from the Authority. This form must be submitted
to the Authority at least 14 days before the expiry date.
IS 2.2.4.3 APPENDIX A: PROCEDURES FOR CONVERSION OF A PPL

(a) The holder of a private pilot license issued by another Contracting State may directly
apply for a conversion of his or her license, without prior holding a validation as is
required for PPL/IR or professional licenses under Subpart 2.2.4.3 (b).
(b) The applicant shall, before application for a conversion, complete the requirements of
Subpart 2.2.4.3 (a).
(c) Application for the issue of a conversion of a license issued by another Contracting
State must be done by submitting to the Authority a properly filled out form, which form
can be obtained from the Authority.
(d) The application form for the issue of a conversion of a license issued by another
Contracting State must be submitted to the Authority at least 14 days in advance of
the date the conversion is desired.
(e) The valid license from the other Contracting State and the record (e.g.) logbook must
be presented to the Authority
(f) The applicant shall hold a medical certificate relevant to the license applied for and this
medical certificate will be issued by the Authority of Republic of the Philippines, when
the applicant complies with the requirements of this Part.
(g) The Authority, that issues a license based on a license issued by another Contracting
State, remains responsible for the converted license.
IS 2.2.4.3 APPENDIX B: PROCEDURES FOR CONVERSION OF A PPL/R, CPL,

CPL/IR, ATPL AND FLIGHT ENGINEER LICENSE
(a) The applicant shall, before application for a conversion, complete the requirements of
Subpart 2.2.4.3. (b).
(b) Application for the conversion of a license issued by another Contracting State shall
be made by submitting a properly filled out form to the Authority, which form can be
obtained from the Authority.

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(c) The application form for the issue of a conversion of a license issued by another
Contracting State must be submitted to the Authority at least 14 days in advance of
the date the conversion is desired.
(d) The valid license from the other Contracting State and the record (e.g. logbook) must
be presented to the Authority.
(e) The applicant shall hold a medical certificate relevant to the license applied for and this
(f) The Authority, that issues a license based on a license issued by another Contracting
State, remains responsible for the converted license.
IS 2.2.4.3 APPENDIX C: PROCEDURES FOR VALIDATION AND CONVERSION OF

FLIGHT CREW LICENSES BY RELIANCE UPON THE LICENSING
SYSTEM OF ANOTHER CONTRACTING STATE
(a) The Authority that issues a license based on a license from another Contracting State
remains responsible for the validation certificate and the converted license.
(b) The Authority should, before making the agreement mentioned in Subpart 2.2.4.3
(a)(3) be convinced, that the other Contracting State issues licenses in conformity with
at least this Part.
(c) An inspector or experienced pilot from Republic of the Philippines, or from another
Contracting State delegated by the Authority of Republic of the Philippines, must visit
the other Contracting State to be convinced that the licensing system in the other
Contracting State is in conformity with at least this Part. A report describing the bases
for the decision shall be made to the Authority of Republic of the Philippines.
(d) An Air Law test must be arranged if the Air Law system of Republic of the Philippines
is different from the Air Law system from the other Contracting State.
(e) Renewal and re-issue of the validation certificate or the converted licenses and ratings:
(1) when examiners are available in Republic of the Philippines to perform proficiency
checks for the renewal of rating(s) or skill tests for the re-issue of the license or
rating(s), these tests/checks will be performed by the authorized examiners of
Republic of the Philippines;
(2) when examiners are not available in Republic of the Philippines to perform
proficiency checks for the renewal of the rating(s) or skill test for the re-issue of the
license or rating(s), the availability of examiners for these tests/checks from the
other Contracting State can be arranged in the agreement mentioned in Subpart
2.2.4.3 (a)(3).
(f) Application for the validation certificate and the conversion of a license from another
Contracting State shall be done by submitting to the Authority a properly filled out form,
which form can be obtained from the Authority.
(g) The valid license from the other Contracting State and the record (e.g. logbook) must
be presented to the Authority
(h) The applicant shall hold a medical certificate relevant to the license applied for and this
IS 2.2.5 MILITARY FLIGHT CREW AND MECHANICS

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(i) Requirements for a military pilot to meet the requirements of Subpart 2.2.5.
(ii) Military pilots on active flying status within the past 12 months. The holder of a military
pilot license (or certificate) who has been on active flying status within the 12 months
before applying shall:
(1) Pass a knowledge test on the appropriate parts of these regulations that apply to
pilot privileges and limitations, air traffic and general operating rules, and accident
reporting rules;
(2) Present documentation showing compliance with the requirements of paragraph
(c) of this subsection for at least one aircraft category rating; and
(3) Present documentation showing that the applicant is or was, at any time during the
12 calendar months before the month of application the holder of a military pilot
license (or certificate) on active flying status in an armed force of the Republic of
the Philippines.
(iii) Aircraft category, class and type ratings. The Authority may issue to the holder of a
military pilot license (or certificate) an aircraft category, class or type rating to a
commercial pilot license if the pilot present documentary evidence that shows
satisfactory accomplishment of:
(1) A military pilot check and instrument proficiency check of the Republic of the
Philippines in that aircraft category, class or type, if applicable, as PIC during the
12 calendar months before the month of application; and
(2) At least 10 hours of PIC time in that aircraft category, class or type, if applicable,
during the 12 calendar months before the month of application.
(iv) Instrument rating. The holder of a military pilot license (or certificate) may apply for an
airplane or helicopter instrument rating to be added to his or her commercial pilot
license if the pilot has, within the 12 calendar months preceding the month of
application:
(1) Passed an instrument proficiency check by an armed force of the Republic of the
Philippines in the aircraft category for the instrument rating sought; and
(2) Received Authorization from an armed force of the Republic of the Philippines to
conduct IFR flights on airways in that aircraft category and class for the instrument
rating sought.
(v) Aircraft type rating. The Authority will issue an aircraft type rating only for aircraft types
that the Authority has certified for civil operations.
(vi) Aircraft type rating placed on an airline transport pilot license. The Authority may issue
to the holder of a military pilot license (or certificate) who holds an airline transport pilot
license an aircraft type rating provided that the pilot:
(1) Holds a category and type rating for that type of aircraft at the airline transport pilot
license level; and
(2) Passed an official military pilot of the Republic of the Philippines check and
instrument proficiency check in that type of aircraft as PIC during the 12 calendar
months before the month of application.
(vii) Evidentiary documents. The Authority may accept the following documents as
satisfactory evidence of military pilot status.
(1) An official identification card issued to the pilot by an armed force to demonstrate
membership in the armed forces.

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(2) An original or a copy of a certificate of discharge or release from an armed force of

the Republic of the Philippines;
(3) At least one of the following:
(i) An order of an armed force of the Republic of the Philippines to flight status as
a military pilot
(ii) An armed force form or logbook showing military pilot status; or
(iii) an order showing that the applicant graduated from a military pilot school of the
Republic of the Philippines and received a rating as a military pilot.
(4) A certified armed force logbook or an appropriate official armed force form or
summary to demonstrate flight time in military aircraft as a member of an armed
force of the Republic of the Philippines.
(5) An official armed force of Republic of the Philippines record of a military designation
as PIC.
(6) An official record of satisfactory accomplishment of an instrument proficiency check
during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of application.
IS 2.2.6 APPENDIX A: PREREQUISITES FOR A KNOWLEDGE TEST

(a) The applicant shall, before passing the knowledge test for a license or rating:
(1) have satisfactorily accomplished the required training;
(2) have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record, that has been signed
by an authorized instructor, who certifies that the applicant is prepared for the
knowledge test.
IS 2.2.6 APPENDIX B: PREREQUISITES FOR A SKILL TEST

(a) An applicant shall, before passing the skill test for a license or rating:
(1) have passed the required knowledge test within the 24-calendar-month period
preceding the month the applicant completes the skill test;
(2) have satisfactorily accomplished the required training and obtained the experience
prescribed by Part 2 for the license or rating sought;
(3) meet the prescribed age requirement of this Part for the issuance of the license or
rating sought; and
(4) have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record that has been signed
by an authorized instructor, who certifies that the applicant is prepared for the
required skill test.
(b) An applicant for an airline transport pilot license may take the skill test for that license
with a knowledge test report that has been completed within a period of seven (7) years
before the application, provided the applicant is employed as a flight crew member by
a certificate holder under Part 9 at the time of the skill test.
IS 2.2.7 LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY

(a) General
(1) To meet the language proficiency requirements contained in Subpart 2.2.7, an
applicant for a license or a license holder shall demonstrate, in a manner

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acceptable to the Authority, compliance with the holistic descriptors in paragraph

(b) below and with the Operational Level (Level 4) of the Language Proficiency
Rating Scale as mentioned in paragraph c) below.
(b) Holistic descriptors: Proficient speakers shall:
(1) communicate effectively in voice-only (telephone/radiotelephone) and in face-to-
face situations;
(2) communicate on common, concrete and work-related topics with accuracy and
clarity;
(3) use appropriate communicative strategies to exchange messages and to recognize
and resolve misunderstandings (e.g. to check, confirm, or clarify information) in a
general or work-related context;
(4) handle successfully and with relative ease the linguistic challenges presented by a
complication or unexpected turn of events that occurs within the context of a routine
work situation or communicative task with which they are otherwise familiar; and
(5) use a dialect or accent which is intelligible to the aeronautical community.
(c) Rating scale:
Operational Level (Level 4)
(1) Pronunciation: Pronunciation, stress, rhythm and intonation are influenced by the
first language or regional variation but only sometimes interfere with
understanding.
(2) Structure: Basic grammatical structures and sentence patterns are used creatively
and are usually well controlled. Errors may occur, particularly in unusual or
unexpected circumstances, but rarely interfere with meaning.
(3) Vocabulary: Vocabulary range and accuracy are usually sufficient to communicate
effectively on common, concrete, and work related topics. Can often paraphrase
successfully when lacking vocabulary in unusual or unexpected circumstances.
(4) Fluency: Produces stretches of language at an appropriate tempo. There may be
occasional loss of fluency on transition from rehearsed or formulaic speech to
spontaneous interaction, but this does not prevent effective communication. Can
make limited use of discourse markers or connectors. Fillers are not distracting.
(5) Comprehension: Comprehension is mostly accurate on common, concrete, and
work related topics when the accent or variety used is sufficiently intelligible for an
international community of users. When the speaker is confronted with a linguistic
or situational complication or an unexpected turn of events, comprehension may
be slower or require clarification strategies.
(6) Interactions: Responses are usually immediate, appropriate and informative.
Initiates and maintains exchanges even when dealing with an unexpected turn of
events. Deals adequately with apparent misunderstandings by checking,
confirming or clarifying.
Extended Level (Level 5)
(1) Pronunciation: Pronunciation, stress, rhythm, and intonation, though influenced by
the first language or regional variation, rarely interfere with ease of understanding.
(2) Structure: Basic grammatical structures and sentence patterns are consistently
well controlled. Complex structures are attempted but with errors which sometimes
interfere with meaning.

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PCAR PART 2
(3) Vocabulary: Vocabulary range and accuracy are sufficient to communicate

effectively on common, concrete, and work related topics. Paraphrases
consistently and successfully. Vocabulary is sometimes idiomatic.
(4) Fluency: Able to speak at length with relative ease on familiar topics, but may not
vary speech flow as a stylistic device. Can make use of appropriate discourse
markers or connectors.
(5) Comprehension: Comprehension is accurate on common, concrete, and work
related topics and mostly accurate when the speaker is confronted with a linguistic
or situational complication or an unexpected turn of events. Is able to comprehend
a range of speech varieties (dialect and/or accent) or registers.
(6) Interactions: Responses are immediate, appropriate, and informative. Managers
the speaker/listener relationship effectively.
Expert Level (Level 6)
(1) Pronunciation: Pronunciation, stress, rhythm, and intonation, thought possibly
influenced by the first language or regional variation, almost never interfere with
ease of understanding.
(2) Structure: Both basic and complex grammatical structures and sentence patterns
are consistently well controlled.
(3) Vocabulary: Vocabulary range and accuracy are sufficient to communicate
effectively on a wide variety of familiar and unfamiliar topics. Vocabulary is
idiomatic, nuanced, and sensitive to register.
(4) Fluency: Able to speak at length with a natural, effortless flow. Varies speech flow
for stylistic effect, e.g. to emphasize a point. Uses appropriate discourse markers
and connectors spontaneously.
(5) Comprehension: Comprehension is consistently accurate in nearly all contexts and
includes comprehension of linguistic and cultural subtleties.
(6) Interactions: Interacts with ease in nearly all situations Is sensitive to verbal and
nonverbal cues, and responds to them appropriately.
IS 2.2.8 RECORDING OF FLIGHT TIME

The details in the records of flights flown as pilot shall contain the following items:
(a) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of Subparts 2.2.6.1 and 2.3.1.6, each
person shall enter the following information for each flight or lesson logged:
(1) Personal details:
(i) Name and address of the holder
(2) For each flight:
(i) Name of PIC
(ii) Date of flight
(iii) Place and time of departure and arrival
(iv) Type of aircraft and registration
(3) For each synthetic flight trainer session:
(i) Type and qualification number of flight trainer
(ii) Synthetic flight trainer instruction

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PCAR PART 2
(iii) Date
(iv) Total time of session
(4) Pilot function:
(i) Solo
(ii) PIC
(iii) Co-pilot
(iv) Dual
(v) Flight instructor
(b) Logging of flight time
(1) Logging of solo flight time:
(i) A student pilot may log as solo flight time only that flight time when the pilot is
the sole occupant of the aircraft.
(2) Logging of PIC flight time:
(i) The applicant or the holder of a pilot license may log as PIC time all that flight
time during which that person is:
(A) The sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which the pilot is rated;
and
(B) Acting as PIC of an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required under
the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight
is conducted.
(ii) An authorized instructor may log as PIC time all of the flight time while acting
as an authorized instructor.
(iii) A student pilot may log as PIC time all solo flight time and flight time as student
pilot-in-command provided that such time is countersigned by the instructor.
(3) Logging of co-pilot time:
(i) A person may log co-pilot time only when occupying a pilot seat as co-pilot in
an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required under the type certification
of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is conducted.
(4) Logging of instrument flight time:
(i) A person may log instrument flight time only for that flight when the person
operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or
simulated instrument flight conditions.
(5) Logging instruction time:
(i) A person may log instruction time when that person receives training from an
authorized instructor in an aircraft or synthetic flight trainer.
(ii) The instruction time shall be logged in a record (e.g. logbook) and shall be
endorsed by the authorized instructor.
IS 2.2.9 FORMAT OF THE LICENSE
(a) The following details shall appear on the license:
(i) Name of State (in bold type);
(ii) Title of license (in very bold type);

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(iii) Serial number of the license, in Arabic numerals, given by the Authority issuing
the license;
(iv) Name of holder in full (in Roman alphabet also if script of national language is
other than Roman and date of birth:
(v) Address of holder:
(vi) Nationality of holder;
(vii) Signature of holder;
(viii) Authority and, where appropriate, all conditions under which the license is
issued;
(ix) Certification concerning validity and Authorization;
(x) Signature of officer issuing the license and the date of such issue;
(xi) Seal or stamp of Authority issuing license;
(xii) Ratings, e.g. category, class, type of aircraft, airframe, aerodrome control, etc.;
(xiii) Remarks. i.e. special endorsements relating to limitations and endorsements
for privileges;
(xiv) Any other details desired by Republic of the Philippines in issuing the license.
IS 2.3.2.4 APPENDIX A: CLASS/TYPE RATING [SP (A) and MP (A)] - KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the type rating for multi-pilot - airplane shall
include the following subjects:
(1) Airplane structure and equipment, normal operation of systems and malfunctions
(i) Dimensions
(ii) Engine including auxiliary power unit
(iii) Fuel system
(iv) Pressurization and air-conditioning
(v) Ice protection. windshield wipers and rain repellent
(vi) Hydraulic systems
(vii) Landing gear
(viii) Flight controls, lift devices
(ix) Electrical power supply
(x) Flight instruments, communication, radar and navigation equipment
(xi) Cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment
(xii) Emergency equipment
(2) Limitations:
(i) General limitations
(ii) Engine limitations
(iii) System limitations
(iv) Minimum equipment list

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PCAR PART 2
(3) Performance, flight planning and monitoring

(4) Load. balance and servicing
(i) Load and balance
(ii) Servicing on the ground
(5) Emergency procedures
(6) Special requirements for extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down
to a decision height of less than 200 ft (60m)
(i) Airborne and ground equipment: technical requirements, operational
requirements, operational reliability, fail operational, fail-passive, equipment
reliability, operating procedures, preparatory measures, operational
downgrading, communications
(ii) Procedures and limitations: operational procedures, crew co-ordination
(7) Special requirements for "glass cockpit" airplane with electronic flight instrument
systems (e.g. EFTS; EICAS)
(8) Flight Management systems (FMS)
(9) Upset prevention and recovery elements from IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
IS 2.3.2.4 APPENDIX B: FLIGHT INSTRUCTION, SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY

CHECK - CRM
(a) The flight instruction, skill test and proficiency for CRM for the multi-pilot type rating —
airplane and helicopter shall include the following subjects:
(1) The training program:
(i) An initial indoctrination/awareness segment;
(ii) A method to provide recurrent practice and feedback; and
(iii) A method of providing continuing reinforcement
(2) Topics to be contained in an initial CRM training course:
(i) Communications processes and decision behavior;
(ii) Internal and external influences on interpersonal communications;
(iii) Barriers to communication;
(iv) Listening skills;
(v) Decision making skills
(vi) Effective briefings;
(vii) Developing open communications;
(viii) Inquiry, advocacy and assertion training;
(ix) Crew self-critique;
(x) Conflict resolution;
(xi) Team building and maintenance;
(xii) Leadership and followership training;
(xiii) Interpersonal relationships;

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(xiv) Workload management;

(xv) Situational awareness
(xvi) How to prepare, plan and monitor task completions;
(xvii) Workload distribution;
(xviii) Distraction avoidance;
(xix) Individual factors; and
(xx) Stress reduction.
IS 2.3.3.1 STUDENT PILOTS - MANEUVERS AND PROCEDURES FOR PRE-SOLO

FLIGHT TRAINING
(a) A student pilot who is receiving training for solo flight shall receive and log flight training
for the following maneuvers and procedures, as applicable for each category and class
rating:
(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including pre-flight planning and preparation,
powerplant operation and aircraft systems
(2) Taxiing, including run-ups
(3) Take-offs and landings, including normal and crosswind
(4) Straight and level flight and turns in both directions
(5) Climbs and climbing turns
(6) Airport traffic patterns including entry and departure procedures
(7) Collision avoidance, wind-shear avoidance and wake turbulence avoidance
(8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag configurations
(9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight
(10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery
initiated at the first indication of a stall and recovery from a full stall
(11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions
(12) Ground reference maneuvers
(13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine malfunctions
(14) Slips to a landing
(15) Go-around
(b) Additional training for a helicopter:
(1) Approaches to the landing area
(2) Hovering and hovering turns
(3) Simulated emergency procedures, including autorotational descents with a power
recovery and power recovery to hover
(4) Rapid decelerations
(5) Simulated one-engine-inoperative approaches and landings for multi-engine
helicopters
(c) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in an airplane or rotorcraft:

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(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning
with the aid of a magnetic compass
(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight
(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including
recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight
(4) Recognition, avoidance and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features
in the geographical area where the student pilot will conduct cross-country flight
(5) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications
(6) Climbs at best angle and best rate
(7) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight instruments, including
straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids and ATC
directives.
IS 2.3.3.2 APPENDIX A: PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE (A) - KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the private pilot license - airplane shall include
at least the following subjects:
(1) Air law
(i) Relevant parts of ICAO Convention and Annexes 2, 7, 8, 11 and 14
(ii) ICAO Document 4444: General provisions, Area control service, Approach
control service, Aerodrome control service, Flight information and alerting
service;
(iii) National law
(2) Aircraft General Knowledge
(i) Airframe: Airframe structure and loads
(ii) Powerplant: engines general, engine cooling, engine lubrication, ignition
systems, carburetion, aero engine fuel, fuel systems, propellers, engine
handling
(iii) Systems: electrical system, vacuum system
(iv) Instruments: Pitot/static system, Airspeed indicator, Altimeter, Vertical speed
indicator, Gyroscopes, Turn indicator, Altitude indicator, Heading indicator,
Magnetic compass, Engine instruments, Other instruments
(v) Airworthiness
(3) Flight Performance and Planning
(i) Mass and balance
(ii) Performance: Take-off, Landing, In-flight
(i) Basic physiology: Concepts, Effects of partial pressure, Vision, Hearing, Motion
sickness, Flying and health, Toxic hazards
(ii) Basic psychology: The information process, the central decision channel,
stress; judgment and decision making
(5) Meteorology

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PCAR PART 2
(i) The atmosphere. Pressure, density and temperature, Humidity and

precipitation, Pressure and wind; Cloud information, Fog, mist and haze,
Airmasses, Frontology, Ice accretion, Thunderstorms; Flight over mountainous
areas, Climatology, Altimetry, The meteorological organization, Weather
analysis and forecasting, Weather information for flight planning,
Meteorological broadcasts for aviation
(6) Navigation
(i) Form of the earth, mapping, conformal orthomorphic projection (ICAO
1.500.000 chart), Direction, Airplane magnetism, Distances, Charts in practical
navigation, Chart reference material/map reading, Principles of navigation, The
navigation computer, Time, Flight planning, Practical navigation
(ii) Radio navigation: Ground direction finding (D/F), automatic direction finding
(ADF), including associated beacons (non directional beacons (NDBs) and use
of the radio magnetic indicator (RMI). VHF omni-directional range/distance
measuring equipment (VOR/DME), GPS, Ground radar; Secondary
surveillance radar
(7) Operational Procedures
(i) Relevant parts of ICAO Annex 6, Part II; Annex 12, 13 and 16 (relevant parts),
Contravention of aviation regulations
(8) Principles of Flight
(i) The atmosphere, Airflow around a body, sub-sonic, Airflow about a two
dimensional aerofoil; Three dimensional flow about an aerofoil; Distribution of
the four forces, Flying controls, Trimming controls, Flaps and slats, The stall,
Avoidance of spins, Stability, Load factor and maneuvers, Stress loads on the
ground
(9) Communications
(i) Radio telephony and communications, Departure procedures, En-route
procedures, Arrival and traffic pattern procedures, Communications failure,
Distress and urgency procedures
IS 2.3.3.2 APPENDIX B: PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE (A) - FLIGHT INSTRUCTION

AND SKILL TEST
(a) The flight instruction and skill test for the single-engine and multi-engine private pilot
license - airplane shall include at least the following areas of operation:
Note 1: When (SE) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for single-engine. When
(ME) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for multi-engine. When nothing is
indicated the item or paragraph is for single-engine and multi-engine.
Note 2: When (S) is indicated, the item is only for seaplanes. When (L) is indicated,
the item is only for landplanes. When nothing is indicated the item is for land and
seaplanes.
(1) Pre-flight preparation; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Licenses and documents
(ii) Airworthiness requirements
(iii) Weather information

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PCAR PART 2
(iv) Cross-country flight planning

(v) National airspace system
(vi) Performance and limitations
(vii) Operation of system
(viii) Principles of flight
(ix) Water and Seaplane Characteristics (S)
(x) Seaplane bases, maritime rules and aids to marine navigation (S)
(xi) Aeromedical factors
(2) Pre-flight procedures: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Pre-flight inspection
(ii) Cockpit management
(iii) Engine Starting
(iv) Taxiing (L)
(v) Taxiing and Sailing (S)
(vi) Before take-off check
(3) Aerodrome and seaplane operations: including the applicant's knowledge and
performance of the following tasks--
(i) Radio communications and ATC light signals
(ii) Traffic patterns
(iii) Aerodrome/Seaplane Base, runway and taxiway signs, markings and lighting
(4) Take-offs, landings and go-grounds; including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Normal and crosswind take-off and climb
(ii) Normal and crosswind approach and landing
(iii) Soft-field take-off and climb (SE) (L)
(iv) Soft-field approach and landing (SE) (L)
(v) Short-field [Confined area (S)] take-off and maximum performance climb
(vi) Short-field approach (Confined area (S)) and landing
(vii) Glassy Water take-off and climb (S)
(viii) Glassy water approach and landing (S)
(ix) Rough water take-off and climb (S)
(x) Rough water approach and landing (S)
(xi) Forward slip to a landing (SE)
(xii) Go-around /rejected landing
(5) Performance maneuver: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
the following tasks--
(i) Steep turns

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PCAR PART 2
(6) Ground reference maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and

(i) Rectangular course
(ii) S-turns
(iii) Turns around a point
(7) Navigation: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the following
tasks--
(i) Pilotage and dead reckoning
(ii) Navigation systems and radar services
(iii) Diversion
(iv) Lost procedures
(8) Slow flight and stalls; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks-
(i) Maneuvering during slow flight
(ii) Power-off stalls
(iii) Power-on stalls
(iv) Spin awareness
(9) Basic instrument maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and performance
of the following tasks--
(i) Straight-and-level flight
(ii) Constant airspeed climbs
(iii) Constant airspeed descents
(iv) Turns to headings
(v) Recovery from unusual flight
(vi) Radio Communications, navigation systems/facilities and radar services;
including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the following tasks--
(10) Emergency operations; including the applicant's knowledge and performance
(i) Emergency approach and landing
(ii) Emergency descent (ME)
(iii) Engine failure during take-off before VMC (simulated) (ME)
(iv) Engine failure after lift-off (simulated) (ME)
(v) Approach and landing with an inoperative engine (simulated) (ME)
(vi) Systems and equipment malfunctions
(vii) Emergency equipment and survival gear
(11) Multi-engine operations (ME); including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Maneuvering with one engine inoperative
(ii) VMC demonstration

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(iii) Engine failure during flight (by reference to instruments)

(iv) Instrument approach — one engine inoperative (by reference to instruments)
(12) Night operation; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Night preparation
(13) Post-flight procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) After landing, parking and securing
(ii) Anchoring (S)
(iii) Docking and mooring (S)
(iv) Ramping/Beaching (S)
IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX A: COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE (A) — KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the commercial pilot license — airplane shall
include at least the following subjects:
(1) Air law
(i) International Agreements and Organizations: The Convention of Chicago;
Other International agreements: IATA agreement; Tokyo and Warsaw
Convention; PIC authority and responsibility regarding safety and security;
Operators and pilots liabilities towards persons and goods on the ground, in
case of damage and injury caused by the operation of the aircraft, Commercial
practices and associated rules, dry and wet lease;
(ii) Relevant parts of ICAO Annexes: 1, 2, 7, 8, 9, 11 (and Doc 4444), 12, 13, 14,
15, 17;
(iii) Procedures for air navigation (PANS-OPS) - Aircraft Operations Doc 8168;
(iv) National law
(2) Aircraft general knowledge
(i) Airframe and systems, electrics, powerplant, emergency equipment
(A) Airframe and systems: Fuselage, Cockpit and cabin windows, Wings,
Stabilizing surfaces, Landing Gear, Flight Controls, Hydraulics, Air driven
systems (piston engines only), Air driven systems (turbopropeller and jet
aircraft), Non-pneumatic operated de-ice and anti-ice systems, Fuel
system;
(B) Electrics: Direct Current (DC), Alternating Current (AC), Semiconductors,
Basic knowledge of computers; Basic radio propagation theory
(C) Powerplant: Piston Engine, Turbine Engine, Engine construction, Engine
systems, Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
(D) Emergency equipment: Doors and emergency exits, Smoke detection, Fire
detection, Fire fighting equipment, Aircraft oxygen equipment, Emergency
equipment
(ii) Instrumentation

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(A) Flight instruments: Air data instruments, Gyroscopic instruments, Magnetic

Compass, Radio Altimeter, Electronic Flight Instrument System
(EFIS),
(B) Automatic flight control system: Flight director, Autopilot, Yaw
damper/Stability augmentation system,
(C) Warning and recording equipment: Warnings general; Stall warning,
(D) Powerplant and system monitoring instruments: Pressure gauge,
Temperature gauge, RPM indicator, Consumption gauge, Fuel gauge,
Torque meter, Flight hour meter, Vibration motoring, Remote (signal)
transmission system, Electronic Displays
(3) Flight performance and planning
(i) Mass and balance: Center of gravity, Mass and balance limits
(ii) Loading: Terminology, Aircraft mass checks, Procedures for determining
airplane mass and balance documentation; Effects of overloading;
(iii) Center of gravity: Basis of cg calculations (load and balance documentation),
Calculation of cg; Securing of loading; Area load, running load, supporting
(iv) Performance of single-engine airplanes - Performance class B: Definitions of
terms and speeds; Take-off and landing performance, Climb and cruise
performance
(v) Performance of multi-engine airplanes: Definitions of terms and speeds;
Importance of performance calculations; Elements of performance, Use of
performance graphs and tabulated data
(vi) Flight planning and flight monitoring:
(A) Flight plan for cross country flights: Navigation plan, Fuel plan, Flight
monitoring and in-flight re-planning, Radio communication and navigation
aids;
(B) ICAO ATC flight plan: Types of flight plan, Completing the flight plan, Filling
the flight plan, Closing the flight plan, Adherence to flight plan
(C) Practical flight planning: Chart preparation; Navigation plans; Simple fuel
plans, Radio planning practice
(D) Practical completion of a flight plan (flight plan, flight log, navigation log,
ATC plan, etc.): Extraction of data
(4) Human performance
(i) Human factors basic concepts: Human factors in aviation, Accident statistics,
Flight safety concepts
(ii) Basic aviation physiology: Basics of flight physiology, Man and environment:
the sensory system; Health and Hygiene;
(iii) Basic aviation psychology: Human information processing; Human error and
reliability; Decision making; Avoiding and managing errors: cockpit
management; Personality; Human overload and underload, Advanced cockpit
automation
(5) Meteorology
(i) The atmosphere: Composition, extent, vertical division; Temperature;
Atmospheric pressure; Atmospheric density; Altimetry;

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(ii) Wind: Definition and measurement; General circulation; Turbulence; Variation

of wind with height; Local winds; Standing waves;
(iii) Thermodynamics: Humidity;
(iv) Clouds and Fog: Cloud formation and description; Fog, mist, haze
(v) Precipitation
(vi) Airmasses and fronts: Types of airmasses; Fronts;
(vii) Pressure systems: Location of the principal pressure areas, Anticyclone, Non
frontal depressions;
(viii) Climatology: Typical weather situations in mid-latitudes; Local seasonal
weather and wind
(ix) Flight hazards: Icing, Turbulence; Wind-shear; Thunderstorms; Hazards in
mountainous areas; Visibility reducing phenomena;
(x) Meteorological information: Observation, Weather charts, Information for flight
planning
(6) Navigation:
(i) General Navigation: Basics of navigation: The solar system; The earth, Time
and time conversions; Directions, Distance
(ii) Magnetism and compasses: General Principles, Aircraft magnetism,
Knowledge of the principles, standby and landing or main compasses and
remote reading compasses
(iii) Charts: General properties of miscellaneous types of projections; The
representation of meridians; parallels; great circles and rhumb lines; The use
of current aeronautical charts
(iv) Dead reckoning navigation (DR): Basics of dead reckoning; Use of the
navigational computer; The triangle of velocities; Determination of DR position;
Measurement of DR elements; Resolution of current DR problems;
Measurements of maximum range, radius of action and point-of-safe-return
and point-of-equal-time
(v) In-flight navigation: Use of visual observations and application to in-flight
navigation; Navigation in climb and descent: Navigation in cruising flight, use
of fixes to revise navigation data; Flight log (including navigation records);
(vi) Radio Navigation: Radio aids: Ground D/F (including classification of bearings);
ADF (including associated beacons and use of the radio magnetic indicator);
VOR and Doppler-VOR (including the use of the radio magnetic indicator);
DME (distance measuring equipment); Basic radar principles: SSR (secondary
surveillance radar and transponder); Self-contained and external referenced
navigation systems: Satellite assisted navigation: GPS/GLONASS/DGPS
(7) Operational procedures
(i) ICAO Annex 6 Parts I, II and III (as applicable)
(ii) Special operational procedures and hazards: Minimum equipment list; Ground
icing; Bird strike risk and avoidance; Noise abatement; Fire/smoke;
Decompression of pressurized cabin; Winds-hear, microburst; Wake
turbulence; Security; Emergency and precautionary landings; Fuel jettisoning;
Transport of dangerous goods; Contaminated runways;
(8) Principles of flight:

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(i) Basics; laws and definitions; The two-dimensional airflow about an aerofoil:
The coefficients; The three-dimensional airflow about an airplane; The total
drag; The ground effect; The relation between the lift coefficient and the speed
for constant lift; The stall; Climax augmentation; Means to decrease the CLCD
ratio, increasing drag; The boundary layer;
(ii) Stability: Condition of equilibrium in stable horizontal flight; Methods of
achieving balance; Longitudinal stability; Static directional stability; Static
lateral stability; Dynamic lateral stability;
(iii) Control: General; Pitch control; Yaw control; Roll control; Interaction in different
planes (yaw/roll); Means to reduce control forces; Mass balance; Trimming;
(iv) Limitations: Operating limitations; Maneuvering envelope; Gust envelope;
(v) Propellers: Conversion of engine torque to thrust; Engine failure or engine stop;
Design feature for power absorption; Moments and couples due to propeller
operation;
(vi) Flight mechanics: Forces acting on an airplane; Asymmetric thrust; Emergency
descent; Wind-shear;
(9) Radiotelephony:
(i) VFR Communications: Definitions; General operating procedures; Relevant
weather information terms (VFR); Action required to be taken in case of
communication failure; distress and urgency procedures; General principles of
VHF propagation and allocation of frequencies;
(ii) Morse code.
IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX B: COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE (A) - FLIGHT

INSTRUCTION AND SKILL TEST
(a) The flight instruction and skill test for the single-engine and multi-engine commercial
pilot license -airplane shall include at least the following areas of operation:
Note 1: When (SE) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for single-engine. When
(ME) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for multi-engine. When nothing is
Note 2: When (S) is indicated, the item is only for seaplanes. When (L) is indicated,
the item is only for landplanes. When nothing is indicated the item is for land and
seaplanes.
following tasks:
(ii) Airworthiness requirements
(iii) Weather information
(iv) Cross-country flight planning
(v) National airspace system
(vi) Performance and limitations
(vii) Operation of system
(viii) Principles of flight (ME)

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(ix) Water and Seaplane characteristics (S)

(x) Seaplane bases, maritime rules and aids to marine navigation (S)
(xi) Aeromedical factors
(2) Pre-flight procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks:
(iii) Engine Starting
(iv) Taxiing (L)
(v) Taxiing and sailing (S)
(vi) Before take-off check
(3) Aerodrome and seaplane base operations; including the applicant's knowledge
and performance of the following tasks--
(iii) Aerodrome/Seaplane base, runway and taxiway signs, markings and lighting
(4) Take-off, landing, and go-around; including the applicant's knowledge and
(iii) Soft-field take-off and climb (SE)
(iv) Soft-field approach and landing (SE)
(v) Short-field (Confined area (S)) take-off and maximum performance climb
(vi) Short-field (Confined area (S)) approach and landing
(vii) Glassy water take-off and climb (S)
(viii) Glassy water approach and landing (S)
(ix) Rough water take-off and climb (S)
(x) Rough water approach and landing (S)
(xi) Power-off 180 degrees accuracy approach and landing (SE)
(xii) Go-around /rejected landing
(5) Performance maneuvers: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Steep turns
(ii) Steep spiral (SE)
(iii) Chandelles (SE)
(iv) Lazy eights (SE)
(6) Ground reference maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and

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(i) Eights on pylons (SE)

(7) Navigation; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the following
tasks:
(ii) Navigation systems and radar services
(iii) Diversion
(8) Slow flight and stalls; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks-
(ii) Power-off stalls
(iii) Power-on stalls
(iv) Spin awareness
(9) Emergency operations; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Emergency approach and landing
(ii) Emergency descent (ME)
(iii) Engine failure during take-off before VMC (simulated) (ME)
(iv) Engine failure after lift-off (simulated) (ME)
(v) Approach and landing with an inoperative engine (simulated) (ME)
(vi) Systems and equipment malfunctions
(vii) Emergency equipment and survival gear
(10) High altitude operations: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Supplemental oxygen
(ii) Pressurization
(11) Multi-engine operations (ME): including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Maneuvering with one engine inoperative
(ii) VMC demonstration
(iii) Engine failure during flight (by reference to instruments)
(iv) Instrument approach — one engine inoperative (by reference to instruments)
(i) After landing, parking and securing
(ii) Anchoring (S)
(iii) Docking and mooring (S)
(iv) Ramping/beaching (S)

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IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX C: AIRPLANE UPSET PREVENTION AND RECOVERY

TRAINING (UPRT) FOR CPL AND FOR MPL, ATPL, TYPE RATING,
INSTRUCTOR RATING (AIRPLANE) AND INSTRUCTOR AUTHORIZATION
FOR FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICE(S) (AIRPLANE)
(a) Definitions
(1) Angle of attack (AOA). The angle between the oncoming air, or relative wind, and
a defined reference line on the airplane or wing,
(2) Approach-to-stall. Flight conditions bordered by the stall warning and stall.
(3) Developed upset. A condition meeting the definition of an airplane upset.
(4) Developing upset. Any time the airplane begins to unintentionally diverge from the
intended flight path or airspeed.
(5) Energy State. How much of each king of energy (kinetic, potential or chemical) the
airplane has available at any given time.
(6) First indication of a stall. The initial aural, tactile or visual sign of an impending stall,
which can be either naturally or synthetically induced.
(7) Flight path. The trajectory or path of the travelling through the air over a given
space of time.
(8) Flight path management. An active manipulation, using either the airplanes
automation or manual handling, to command the airplane flight controls to direct
the airplane along a desired trajectory.
(9) Load factor. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the airplane, the former
being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, propulsive forces, or ground
reactions.
(10) Manoeuvre-based training. Training that focuses on a single event or manoeuvre

in isolation.
(11) Negative transfer of training. Training which unintentionally introduces incorrect

information or invalid concepts, which could actually decrease rather than
increase safety.
(12) Negative transfer of training. The application (and ‘transfer’) of what was learned
in a training environment (i.e., a classroom, an FSTD) to normal practice, i.e. it
describes the degree to which what was learned in training is applied to actual
normal practices. In this context, negative transfer of training refers to the
inappropriate generalization of knowledge and skill to a situation or setting in
normal practice that does not equal the training situation or setting.
angle of attack.


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(15) Spin. ‘Incipient spin’ means a transient flight condition in the post-stall regime
where an initial, uncommanded roll in excess of 45° has resulted from yaw
asymmetry during a stall and which, if recovery action is not taken, will lead
rapidly to a developing spin. Prompt recovery during this incipient spin stage will
normally result in an overall heading change, from pre-stall conditions, of not
more than 180°.
‘Developing spin’ means a flight condition in the post-stall regime where the
airplane exhibits abnormal, but varying, rates of yaw and roll, together with
changing pitch attitude, following an incipient spin but before the establishment
of a developed spin. A developing spin follows an unrecovered incipient spin and
will usually persist, in the absence of any recovery action, until a developed spic
ensues. ‘Developed spin’ means a flight condition in the post-stall regime where
airplane has achieved approximately constant pitch attitude, yaw rate and roll
rate on a descending flight path. In action, to attaining a developed spin, the
airplane is likely to have rolled through at least 540°.
Note: To summarize, the circumstances that must prevail before an airplane

spins are: The airplane must be in a stalled condition and the airplane must yaw
and/or roll.
(16) Stall. A loss of lift caused by exceeding the airplane’s critical angle of attack. A
stalled condition can exist at any attitude and airspeed, and may be recognized
by continuous stall warning activation accompanied by at least one of the
following:
- buffeting, which could be heavy at times;
- lack of pitch authority and/or roll control; and
- inability to arrest the descent rate.
(17) Stall Event. An occurrence whereby the airplane experiences conditions
associated with an approach-to-stall or a stall.
(18) Stall (event) recovery procedure. The manufacturer-approved airplane-specific

stall recovery procedure. If an OEM-approved recovery procedure does not exist,
the airplane-specific stall recovery procedure developed by the operator, based
on the stall recovery template contained in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C, may be used.
(19) Stall warning. A natural or synthetic indication provided when approaching a stall
that may include one or more of the following indications:
- aerodynamic buffeting (some airplanes will buffet more than others);
- reduced roll stability and aileron effectiveness;
- visual or aural cues and warnings;
- reduced elevator (pitch) authority;
- inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent; and
- stick shaker activation (if installed).
(20) Startle. The initial short-term, involuntary physiological and cognitive reactions to
an unexpected event that commence the normal human stress response.
pitch force to an airplane’s control columns, to attempt to decrease the airplane’s
angle to attack. Device activation may occur before or after aerodynamic stall,
depending on the airplane type.
Note: A stick pusher is not installed on all airplane types.

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(22) Stick shaker. A device that automatically vibrates the control column to wan the
Note. A stick shaker is not installed on all airplane types.
physiological, psychological and cognitive effects. These effects may range
from positive to negative and can either enhance or degrade performance.
(24) Surprise. The emotionally-based recognition of a difference in what was
expected and what is actual.
performance objectives, providing sufficient assurances that the trained individual is capable
to consistently carry out specific tasks safely and effectively.
(b) Upset prevention and recovery training - UPRT

(1) Upset prevention training in FSTDs or airplanes:
The objective of upset prevention training is to enable pilots to prevent airplane upsets.
Upset prevention training consist of ground training and flight instruction in FSTD or
airplanes; it should use a combination of manoeuvre-based and scenario-based training.
Scenario-based training may be used to introduce pilots to situations which, if not correctly
managed, could lead to an upset condition. Relevant TEM and CRM aspects should be
included in scenario-based training.
In FSTDs instructors and pilots should understand the limitations of the device. To avoid
negative training and negative transfer of training, instructors should ensure that the
selected upset prevention scenarios and exercises take into consideration the limitations of
the FSTD and the extent to which it represents the handling characteristics of the actual
airplane. If it is determined that the FSTD is not suitable, the required training outcome
should be achieved by other means.
The upset prevention elements in Table 1 should be integrated into the flight instruction of
CPL, MPL, ATPL and Type rating modules and phases, such that all the elements are
covered.
Pre-
Flying
Core elements and components Flight
Training
briefing
A. Aerodynamics
1. General Aerodynamic Characteristics X X
2. Aeroplane certification and limitations X X
3. Aerodynamics (high and low altitude) X X
4. Aeroplane performance (high and low altitude) X X
5. AoA and stall awareness X X
6. Aeroplane stability X X
7. Control surface fundamentals X X
8. Use of trim X X
9. Icing and contamination effects X X
10. Propeller slipstream (as applicable) X X
B. Causes of and contributing factors to upsets
1. Environmental X X
2. Pilot-induced X X
3. Mechanical (aeroplane systems) X X
Safety review of accidents and incidents relating to
C.
aeroplane upsets

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Safety review of accidents and incidents relating to aeroplane

1. X X
upsets
D. G-load management
1. Positive/negative/increasing/decreasing G-loads X X
2. Lateral G awareness (sideslip) X X
3. G-load management X X
E. Energy management
Kinetic energy vs potential energy vs chemical energy
1. X X
(power)
F. Flight path management
1. Relationship between pitch, power and performance X X
2. Performance and effects of differing power plants X X
Manual and automation inputs for guidance and control (if X X
3.
applicable)
4. Class-specific characteristics of flight path management X X
Management of g-arounds from various stages during the X X
5.
approach
6. Automation management (if applicable) X X
7. Proper use of rudder X X
G. Recognition
Class-specific examples of instrumentation during developing
1. X X
and developed upset
2. Pitch/power/roll/yaw X X
3. Effective scanning (effective monitoring) X X
4. Stall protection systems and cues X X
5. Criteria for identifying stalls and upsets X X
System malfunction
H. (including immediate handling and subsequent
operational considerations, as applicable)
1. Flight control defects X X
2. Engine failure (partial or full) X X
3. Instrument failures X X
4. Loss of reliable airspeed X X
5. Automation failures X X
Stall protection system failures, including icing alerting X X
6.
systems
Additional exercises, Flight path management, manual
I.
control
1. Manually controlled slow flight X X
2. Steep turns X X
3. Manually controller loss of reliable airspeed X X
4. Manually controlled instrument departure and arrival X X
5. Visual approach X X
6. Recovery from bounced landing X X
Upset prevention training is delivered by personnel holding an instructor rating or
authorization for synthetic flight training.
Normally used for all exercises require during CPL, MPL, ATPL and Type rating training.
This “normal” training envelope can be defined by the airplane certified flight envelope,
operational parameters, and safety margins for student and instructor errors;
e.g. for prevention training in airplanes:

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• bank angles: Prevention training in airplane certified in the Normal category must
respect the bank limitation of 60deg, and additionally consider sufficient margin for
errors, to avoid exceeding the 60deg of bank; consequentially exercises exceeding
45deg of bank should not be planned;
• pitch attitude: Excessive pitch attitudes beyond those attitudes normally flown during
licensing training should be avoided; prevention training should stay within 25deg nose-
high and 10deg nose-down;
• airspeed: Prevention exercises should stay within an airspeed range of Vs to Va;
• AOA: Post-stall exercises should only flown in airplane certified at least for incipient
spin; incipient spins should only be flown in airplane certified for developed spin.
(2) Upset recovery training:
i) Upset recovery training in FSTDs for CPL, MPL, ATPL and Type Rating Upset
recovery training assumes that prevention has failed and an upset has developed. It should
be designed as manoeuvre-based training. The objective of upset recovery training is to
enable pilots to recover from developed upsets and to build pilot resilience.
Resilience can be increased by raising the level of competence (behaviors that mobilize the
relevant knowledge, skills and attitudes) and by achieving the appropriate level of
confidence (trust).
Upset recovery training consist of ground training and flight instruction in an FSTD or an
airplane.
Ground training should comprise the elements in Table 2; flight instruction should comprise
the exercises in Table 3.
Table 2: Elements of upset recovery training

Core elements and components
A. Threat and Error Management (TEM) & Crew Resource Management (CRM)
1. TEM framework
2. Recognition of threats and errors of undesired aircraft states
3. Management of threats and errors of undesired aircraft states
4. Countermeasures of threats and errors of undesired aircraft states (early intervention
and timely switching to undesired aircraft states management when necessary to
prevent upsets)
5. Situational awareness
6. Aeroplane flight plan management, manual control
7. Application of procedures
8. Problem-solving decision-making
9. Workload management
10. Communication
11. Leadership and teamwork
B. Human factors – managing consequential psychological and physiological
effects of developed upsets
1. Active monitoring and checking
2. Human information processing, cognitive effects
3. Perceptual illusions (visual or physiological) and spatial disorientation, effects of G-
loads
4. Correct interpretation of upset attitudes and energy states
5. Management of surprise and startle induced by upset attitudes
6. Managing the effects of G-loads
7. Understanding counter-intuitive behavior

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8. Distraction, inattention, fixation

C. Application of recovery templates
1. Recovery from nose-high attitudes at various bank angles
2. Recovery from nose-low attitudes at various bank angles
D. Application of the OEM stall recovery procedure or the stall recovery template
Table 3: Upset recovery exercises
Ground Flight
Upset recovery exercises
Training Instruction
1. Timely and appropriate intervention X X
Application of OEM recommendations
2. Recovery from nose-high at various bank angles X X
3. Recovery from nose-low at various bank angles; X X
Including spiral dive
Application of the stall recovery SOPs
4. *Recovery from stall, including uncoordinated stalls X X
(aggravating yaw)
5. *Recovery from accelerated and secondary X X
6. *Recovery from incipient spin X X
Recovery from stall events, in the following configurations:
- Take-off configuration;
- Clean configuration low altitude;
7. X X
- Clean configuration near maximum operating
altitude; and
- Landing configuration during the approach phase.
*For on-airplane recovery training only
Upset recovery courses should be designed with care to allow pilots to gradually increase
their performance and build resilience. Pilots should not be required to perform maneuvers
not listed in Table 3.
(1) Stall recovery exercises
To recover from stall events the stall recovery Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) of
the Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) should be used. Instructors or ATOs should
therefore consult the OEM on whether any approved specific stall recovery procedures are
available prior to using the recommended template in Table 4. The OEM procedures always
take precedence over the recommendations.
Note: Refer to Revision 3 of the APURTA on the ICAO website for a detailed explanation
and rationale of the stall recovery template by the OEMs.
Table 4: Recommended stall event recovery template

Stall Event Recovery Template
Pilot Flying – Immediately do the following at first indication of a stall (aerodynamic
buffeting, reduced roll stability and aileron effectiveness, visual or aural cues and warnings,
reduced elevator (pitch) authority, inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent, stick
shaker activation (if installed)). – during any flight phases except at lift-off.
Pilot
Pilot Flying (PF) Monitoring
(PM)
1. AUTOPILOT – DISCONNECT
(a large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when
the autopilot is disconnected)
2. AUTOTHRUST/AUTOTHROTTLE – OFF MONITOR

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3. a) NOSE DOWN PITCH CONTROL apply until stall airspeed and

warning is eliminated attitude
b) NOSE DOWN PITCH TRIM (as needed) throughout the
(reduce the angle of attack (AOA) whilst accepting the recovery and
resulting loss) ANNOUNCE
4. BANK – WINGS LEVEL any continued
5. THRUST – ADJUST (as needed) divergence
(Thrust reduction for aeroplanes with underwing
mounted engines may be needed)
6. SPEEDBRAKES/SPOILERS - RETRACT
7. When airspeed is sufficiently increasing – RECOVERY
to level flight
(Avoid the secondary stall due to premature recovery or
excessive G-loading)
(2) Nose-high and Nose-low recovery exercises
Nose-high and nose-low recovery exercises should use the strategies recommended by the
OEMs contained in Table 5 and 6 below.
Note: As the OEM procedures always take precedence over the recommendations, training
providers should consult the respective OEM on whether any approved specific recovery
procedures are available prior to using the templates.
Note: Refer to revision 3 of the Airline Upset Prevention and Recovery Guide (APURTA) for
a detailed explanation and rationale of nose-high and nose-low recovery strategies as
recommended by the OEMs.
Table 5: Recommended nose-high recovery strategy

Nose-High recovery strategy template
Either Pilot – Recognize and confirm the developing situation by announcing ‘nose high’
Pilot
(PM)
(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when
2. AUTOTHRUST/AUTOTHROTTLE - OFF
MONITOR
3. APPLY as much nose-down control input as required to
airspeed and
obtain a nose-down pitch rate
attitude
4. THRUST – ADJUST (as needed)
throughout the
(Thrust reduction for aeroplanes with underwing
recovery and
mounted engines may be needed)
ANNOUNCE
5. ROLL – ADJUST (if required)
any continued
(Avoid exceeding 60-degree bank)
divergence
6. When airspeed is sufficiency increasing – RECOVERY
to level flight
Note:
(a) Recovery to level flight may require use of pitch trim.
(b) If necessary, consider reducing thrust in aeroplanes with underwing-mounted
engines to aid in achieving nose-down pitch rate.
(c) WARNING: Excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate the upset situation
or may result in high structural loads.

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Table 6: Recommended nose-low recovery strategy

Nose-Low recovery strategy template
Either Pilot – Recognize and confirm the developing situation by announcing ‘nose-low’
(if the autopilot or autothrust/autothrottle is responding correctly, it may not be appropriate
to decrease the level of automation while assessing if the divergence is being stopped.
Pilot
(PM)
(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when
2. AUTOTHRUST/AUTOTHROTTLE – OFF MONITOR
3. RECOVERY form stall if required airspeed and
4. ROLL in the shortest direction to wings level attitude
throughout the
(It may be necessary to reduce the G-loading by applying
recovery and
forward control pressure to improve roll effectiveness)
ANNOUNCE
5. THRUST AND DRAG – ADJUST (if required) any continued
6. RECOVER to level flight divergence
Note:
(a) Recovery to level flight may require use of pitch trim.
(b) WARNING: Excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate the upset situation
or may result in high structural loads.
ii) On-airplane upset upset recovery training
The objective of on-airplane recovery training should be to build pilot resilience. Resilience
can be increased by raising the level of competence (behaviors that mobilize the relevant
knowledge, skills and attitude) and by achieving the appropriate level of confidence (trust).
Note: Upset recovery training should not be referred to as aerobatic flight. Although basic
aerobatics do contribute to certain pilot competencies, such as airplane flight path
management, manual control, and situational awareness, aerobatic manoeuvres do not
serve the same training objectives as upset recovery training does. Simply put, the focus of
basic aerobatics is on a sequence of prescribed manoeuvres, such as passing through
defined attitudes and using perfect energy management. In contrast to basic aerobatics,
upset recovery training focusses exactly on the contrary. The training focusses on applying
correct and timely recovery strategies to return the airplane to safe flight, whilst building the
pilot’s resilience against the associated psychological and physiological human factors (to
better cope with the startle and surprise effect). Additionally, in the context of the subsequent
pilot career in commercial air transport, it is of the utmost importance that the potential for
negative transfer of training is avoided, i.e. single-engine piston airplanes behave differently
compared to large transport airplanes.
The training objectives should enable pilots to:

(1) apply effective strategies to recover from actual developed upsets;
(2) manage psychological and physiological effects induced by all-attitude exposure;

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(3) perform appropriate counter-intuitive actions whilst experiencing unusual accelerations,

especially those experienced during deviations from normal 1G flight conditions.
Instructors should:
(1) deliver training in a spirit of collaborative learning and ensure that pilots will experience
the successful outcome of their actions. Success will allow pilots to build positive thinking
and confidence in their ability to successfully recover from any developed nose-high or
nose-low attitude, and from stalls. Such experience may positively contribute to
resilience and consequentially reduce the level of stress in difficult situations. Lower
stress levels will then allow problem-focused coping with the situation (including the
application of TEM and CRM) and prevent or reduce emotional effects, such as attention-
channeling and degraded information processing;
(2) place emphasis on the differences in aerodynamic behavior and flight controls of large
transport airplanes in comparison to training airplane to avoid negative transfer of
training;
(3) place emphasis on the correct application of:
(i) the stall recovery Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) of the Original Equipment
Manufacturers (OEMs), or the OEM recommended template, and to reduce the AOA
whilst accepting the resulting altitude loss. The training should also emphasis the
avoidance of secondary stalls during the recovery; and
(ii) the nose-high and nose-low recommendations of the OEM during nose-high attitudes
(various bank angles) exercises.
Note: Transport airplanes are typically certified to withstand G-loadings in the range of -1 to
+2.5G (or +3G in some business airplanes). As the on-airplane upset recovery training in
an airplane is mainly focused on future airline pilots, instructors should ensure that student
pilots are not exposed to G-loading outside this range to avoid negative transfer of training.
The on-airplane upset recovery training course shall be completed at an ATO and shall be
designed according to the “train-to-proficiency” concept.
It shall comprise at least:
(1) 5 hours of ground training
(2) Pre-flight briefings and post-flight debriefings; and
(3) 3 hours of all-attitude upset recovery flight instruction in an airplane qualified for the
training task. Airplane used shall be certified for all pitch and bank attitudes and for
developed spins.
Upon completion of the course, the applicant shall be issued with a certificate of completion
and a logbook-entry by the ATO.
On-airplane upset recovery training objectives
In general, the training objectives are for the student pilot to be able to
(1) recognize and confirm the situation;
(2) apply an appropriate, effective and timely recovery action;
(3) stay within the airspeed and G-loading envelope;
(4) correctly recognize when recovered from the upset situation;
(5) set safe parameters of heading, altitude and speed whilst re-establishing situational
awareness;
(6) identify the reasons for the airplane entering the upset situation and take appropriate
corrective actions to prevent further upsets;

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(7) become more confident about their skills and ability to recover from an upset situation.
The instructor should ensure that the training area remains well clear of traffic and significant
weather.
on-airplane upset recovery exercises
Table 3 shows the list of upset recovery exercises.
In broad terms, there are six kinds of upset situations that should be addressed:
(1) Nose-high with low airspeed at various bank-angles;
(2) Nose-low with high airspeed at various bank angles, including spiral dive;
(3) Airspeed stable with high bank angle;
(4) Recovery from stall events, including uncoordinated stalls;
(5) Recovery from accelerated and secondary stall;
(6) Recovery from incipient spin.
(2) Instructor training
i) Instructor training for UPRT in FSTDs
It is of paramount importance that instructors have the specific competence to deliver UPRT
in an FSTD, including the ability to demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the type-
specific upset recovery procedures and recommendations developed by the Original
Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs). Prior to conducting UPRT training instructors should:
(a) be able to demonstrate application of the type-specific upset recovery procedures and
recommendations developed by the OEMs;
(b) understand the importance of applying type-specific OEMs procedures for recovery
manoeuvres;
(c) be able to distinguish between the applicable SOPs and the OEMs recommendations
(if available);
(d) understand the capabilities and limitations of the FSTD used for UPRT;
(e) be aware of the potential of negative transfer of training that may exist when training
outside the capabilities of the FSTD;
(f) understand and be able to use the IOS of the FSTD in the context of effective UPRT
delivery;
(g) understand and be able to use the FSTD instructor tools available for providing
accurate feedback on pilot performance;
(h) understand the importance of adhering to the FSTD UPRT scenarios that have been
validated by the training program developer; and
(i) understand the missing critical human factor aspects due to the limitations of the FSTD
and convey this to the student pilot(s) receiving the training.
ii) Instructor training for the on-airplane recovery training
Upset recovery training in the all-attitude/all-envelope environment of an airplane may
require instructor performance beyond that experienced in normal operations. Moreover,
the safety implications of poor upset recovery instructional technique or misleading
information is more significant than in any other areas of pilot training. The unpredictable
nature of pilot inputs, reactions and behavior requires fluency in response to a wide variety
of potential situations requiring a time-constrained and accurate response. This specialized
expertise cannot be acquired through routine flight operations alone but demands that
instructor training provide routine flight appropriate degree of exposure necessary to
develop a comprehensive understanding of the entire UPRT operating environment, as well
as the airplane’s limitations and capabilities.

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Instructors for the on-airplane upset recovery training should therefore be trained-to-
proficiency and remain current to ensure competence in airplane manoeuvring as well as
being able to consistently employ effective intervention skills that may become necessary
to maintain adequate margins of safety. Such interventions may be required with regard to
airplane limitations, altitude, airspace, avoidance of collision, human performance and
limitations of the instructor or the trainee or any other threats or errors that might reduce
margins of safety. Instructors’ training should therefore focus on risk/safety margin
management, strong teaching skills with respect to human factors, trainee’s
psychophysiological reactions (startle and surprise), confidence building, and in-flight
recovery skills.
Instructors should:
(1) ensure that the training objectives of the upset recovery exercises are achieved;
(2) understand that upset recovery exercises in an aeroplane build primarily resilience and
confidence. In other words, the training serves mainly human factor training objectives
and less flying skills training;
(3) have knowledge and understanding of how
- UPRT in an aeroplane and in an FSTD complement each other;
- to ensure that negative transfer of training from light aeroplane to heavier transport
category aeroplanes is avoided. This may be achieved by observing UPRT in an
FSTD, especially in an type-specific FFS;
(4) have knowledge and understanding of the upset prevention theoretical knowledge and
flight instruction elements taught during the CPL, MPL, ATPL and Type rating to ensure
continuity and consistency in delivering UPRT;
(5) ensure that the risk mitigation procedure developed by the ATO are strictly adhered to
in order to ensure that safety margins are maintained.
Instructors for on-airplane upset recovery training shall

(1) have completed an on-airplane upset recovery instructor training course at an ATO;
(2) have at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on airplanes, including 200 hours of
flight instruction; and
(3) shall be experienced in aerobatic flight.
The objectives of the on-airplane upset recovery instructor training is to train instructors to
deliver training in accordance with the ‘train-to-proficiency’ concept and to manage safety.
Training should be both theoretical and practical. Practical elements should include the
development of specific instructor skills, particularly in the area of teaching upset recovery
techniques and strategies whilst exploring the associated physiological and psychological
aspects.
Applicants for the flight instructor privilege of on-airplane upset recovery training should
have passed a pre-entry flight assessment with an instructor holding the privilege to instruct
in the on-airplane upset recovery training within 6 months preceding the start of the course,
to assess their ability to undertake the course.
Instructor training should comprise

(1) ground training on the elements of upset recovery training in Table 2 and the additional
instructor upset recovery course elements in Table 7;
(2) flight instruction on the upset recovery exercises in Table 3;

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(3) additional instructor training elements in Table 7.
Table 7: Additional on-airplane upset recovery instructor training elements

Additional Instructor upset recovery course elements
1. Completion of a flight risk assessment
2. Resilience and confidence-building strategies, managing startle and surprise
3. Understanding the operating environment
4. Understanding the limitations and type-specific characteristics of the aeroplane used
for training
5. Value and benefits of an instructor-led demonstration
6. Energy management factors
7. Workload management
8. Instructor techniques to induce and manage startle and surprise
9. Upset recognition and recovery strategies
10. Disorientation
11. Distraction
12. Recognition of student pilot errors
13. Intervention strategies
During the training, the performance of the instructor shall be continuously assessed and
recorded.
Upon completion of the course, the applicant shall be issued with a certificate of completion
and logbook-entry by the ATO.
(3) Use of FSTDs for UPRT
The use of an FSTD provides valuable training without the risks associated with airplane
training. In order to avoid negative transfer of training, the capabilities of the specific FSTD
to be used should be considered when designing and delivering the training program,
especially when manoeuvre training could involve operation outside the normal flight
envelope of the airplane, for example during aerodynamic stall.
Type-specific content contained in the training program should be developed in consultation
with the OEMs to avoid negative training or negative transfer of training.
Some FSTDs may offer capabilities that could enhance the UPRT, such as Instructor
Operating Station (IOS) feature, enhanced aerodynamic models and enhanced motion
cueing. The value of such features in support of the training objectives may be considered.
The FSTD used for upset recovery training should be qualified to ensure that the training
task objectives can be achieved and negative transfer of training is avoided.
A level C or D FFs is qualified for the upset recovery training task. Exercises Outside the
Validated Training Envelope (VTE) should not be conducted. This is especially relevant for
stall event training.
Lower level FSTD (e.g. ICAO Type VI) may also qualify for the upset recovery training task
if equivalency for the specific features needed for the task can be demonstrated through the
conduct of a special evaluation. Once the lower level FSTD is deemed to qualify, the
authority should enter the additional capability on the certificate using the wording ‘upset
recovery training’.
Except for CPL and MPL, credit for on-airplane recovery training may be granted for
recovery training in an FSTD, if it can be demonstrated that the FSTD is capable of
delivering the same training results, by offering an appropriate level of fidelity; e.g. a motion
of platform delivering sustained g-loading, aerodynamic modelling of the same AOA range
(alpha-beta-envelope), stall behavior etc., to fully support the upset recovery training

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objectives, in particular the psycho-physiological effects equivalent to the aircraft. Once the
FSTD is deemed to qualify, the authority should enter the additional capability on the
certificate using the wording ‘credit for on-airplane upset recovery training’
(4) Additional guidance
Specific guidance on upset prevention training is available in the latest revisions of the ICAO
Doc 10011 ‘Manual on Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training’ and in the
‘Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Aid’, available on the ICAO website.
IS 2.3.3.4 APPENDIX A: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSE (A) —

KNOWLEDGE
(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the airline transport pilot license — airplane
shall include at least the following subjects:
(1) Air law
(i) International Agreements and Organizations: The Convention of Chicago:
Other International agreements: IATA agreement, Tokyo and Warsaw
Convention: PIC authority and responsibility regarding safety and security:
Operators and pilots liabilities towards persons and goods on the ground: in
case of damage and injury caused by the operation of the aircraft; Commercial
practices and associated rules: dry and wet lease;
(ii) Relevant parts of ICAO Annexes: 1. 2. 7, 8, 9, 11 (and Doc 4444). 12, 13, 14,
15, 17.
(iv) National law;
(i) Airframe and systems, electrics, powerplant; emergency equipment
(A) Airframe and systems: Fuselage: Cockpit and cabin windows: Wings,
Stabilizing surfaces: Landing Gear: Flight Controls; Hydraulics: Air driven
systems (piston engines only): Air driven systems (turbopropeller and jet
aircraft): Non-pneumatic operated de-ice and anti-ice systems; Fuel
system;
(B) Electrics: Direct Current (DC); Alternating Current (AC): Semiconductors:
Basic knowledge of computers: Basic radio propagation theory;
(C) Powerplant: Piston Engine: Turbine Engine: Engine construction: Engine
systems, Auxiliary Power Unit (APU);
(D) Emergency equipment: Doors and emergency exits; Smoke detection; Fire
detection; Fire fighting equipment; Aircraft oxygen equipment; Emergency
equipment;
(A) Flight instruments: Air data instruments, Gyroscopic instruments; Magnetic
Compass; Radio Altimeter; Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS);
Flight Management System (FMS);
(B) Automatic flight control system: Flight director, Autopilot; Flight envelope
protection; Yaw damper/Stability augmentation system, Automatic pitch
trim; Thrust computation, Auto-thrust,

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(C) Warning and recording equipment: Warnings general; Altitude alert

system; Ground proximity warning system (GPWS); Traffic collision
avoidance system (TCAS), Overspeed warning; Stall warning, Flight data
recorder; Cockpit voice recorder;
Temperature gauge, RPM indicator; Consumption gauge; Fuel gauge;
Torque meter; Flight hour meter; Vibration motoring; Remote
(signal)transmission system; Electronic Displays;
(i) Mass and balance: Center of gravity, Mass and balance limits;
(ii) Loading: Terminology; Aircraft mass checks; Procedures for determining
airplane mass and balance documentation; Effects of overloading;
(iii) Center of gravity: Basis of cg calculations (load and balance documentation);
Calculation of cg; Securing of loading; Area load; running load, supporting;
(iv) Performance of single-engine airplanes not certified under FAR/JAR 25 —
Performance class B: Definitions of terms and speeds; Take-off and landing
performance, Climb and cruise performance,
(v) Performance of multi-engine airplanes not certified under FAR/JAR 25 —
Performance class B: Definitions of terms and speeds; Importance of
performance calculations; Elements of performance, Use of performance
graphs and tabulated data;
(vi) Performance of airplanes certified under FAR/JAR 25 — Performance class A:
Take-off, Accelerate-stop distance, Initial Climb; Climb; Cruise; Descent and
landing; Practical application of an airplane performance manual;
(vii) Flight planning and flight monitoring:
(A) Flight plan for cross country flights: Navigation plan; Fuel plan; Flight
monitoring and in-flight re-planning; Radio communication and navigation
aids;
(B) ICAO ATC flight plan: Types of flight plan; Completing the flight plan; Filling
the flight plan; Closing the flight plan; Adherence to flight plan;
plans; Radio planning practice.
(viii) IFR (airways) flight planning: Meteorological considerations; Selection of
routes to destination and alternates; General flight planning tasks;
(A) Jet airplanes flight planning: Additional flight planning aspects for jet
airplanes (advanced flight planning); computerized flight planning;
(B) Practical completion of a flight plan (flight plan, flight log, nav log, ATC plan,
etc.): Extraction of data;
(i) Human factors basic concepts: Human factors in aviation; Accident statistics;
Flight safety concepts;
(ii) Basic aviation physiology: Basics of flight physiology; Man and environment:

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automation
(5) Meteorology
Atmospheric pressure; Atmospheric density; International Standard
Atmosphere (ISA); Altimetry;
(ii) Wind: Definition and measurement; Primary cause of wind; General circulation;
Turbulence; Variation of wind with height; Local winds; Jet streams; Standing
waves;
(iii) Thermodynamics: Humidity; Change of state of aggregation; Adiabetic
processes
(v) Precipitation: Development; Types;
frontal depressions; Tropical revolving storms
(viii) Climatology: Climatology zones; Tropical climatology; Typical weather
situations in mid-latitudes; Local seasonal weather and wind
(ix) Flight hazards: Icing, Turbulence; Wind-shear; Thunderstorms; Tornadoes;
Low and high level inversions; Stratospheric conditions; Hazards in
mountainous areas; Visibility reducing phenomena;
planning
(6) Navigation:
(i) General Navigation: Basics of navigation: The solar system; The earth, Time
and time conversions: Directions, Distance
representation of meridians, parallels, great circles and rhumb lines; The use
navigation; Navigation in climb and descent; Navigation in cruising flight, use
Purposes of FMS (flight management systems);
(vi) Inertial navigation systems (INS): Principles and practical application;
Alignment procedures; Accuracy, reliability, errors and coverage, INS
operation;

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(vii) Radio Navigation: Radio aids: Ground D/F (including classification of bearings);
VOR and Doppler VOR (including the use of the radio magnetic indicator); DME
(distance measuring equipment); ILS (instrument landing system); MLS
(Microwave landing system);
(viii) Basic radar principles: Pulse techniques and associated terms; Ground
radar; Airborne weather radar; SSR (secondary surveillance radar and
transponder); Use of radar observations and application to in-flight
navigation;
(ix) Area navigation systems: General philosophy; Typical flight deck equipment
and operation; Instrument indications; Types of area navigation system inputs;
VOR/DME area navigation (RNAV); Flight director and autopilot coupling;
(x) Self-contained and external-referenced navigation systems: Doppler, Loran-C;
Decca navigation system; Satellite assisted navigation:
GPS/GLONASS/DGPS
(i) ICAO Annex 6 Parts I, II and III (as applicable); Navigation requirements for
long-range flights;
icing; Bird strike risk and avoidance; Noise abatement; Fire/smoke;
Decompression of pressurized cabin; Wind-shear, microburst; Wake
turbulence; Security; Emergency and precautionary landings; Fuel jettisoning;
Transport of dangerous goods; Contaminated runways;
(i) Basics, laws and definitions; The two-dimensional airflow about an aerofoil;
The coefficients; The three-dimensional airflow about an airplane; The total
drag; The ground effect; The relation between the lift coefficient and the speed
for constant lift; The stall; Climax augmentation, Means to decrease the CLCD
ratio, increasing drag; The boundary layer; Special circumstances,
(ii) Transonic aerodynamics: The Mach number definition, Normal shockwaves;
Means to avoid the effects of exceeding M-CRIT
(iii) Supersonic aerodynamics: Oblique shockwaves
(iv) Stability: Condition of equilibrium in stable horizontal flight; Methods of
achieving balance; Longitudinal stability; Static directional stability; Static
lateral stability; Dynamic lateral stability;
(v) Control: General; Pitch control; Yaw control; Roll control; Interaction in different
planes (yaw/roll); Means to reduce control forces; Mass balance; Trimming;
(vi) Limitations: Operating limitations, Maneuvering envelope; Gust envelope,
(vii) Propellers: Conversion of engine torque to thrust; Engine failure or engine stop;
Design feature for power absorption; Moments and couples due to propeller
operation;
(viii) Flight mechanics: Forces acting on an airplane; Asymmetric thrust;
Emergency descent; Wind-shear;
(9) Radiotelephony:

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communication failure, distress and urgency procedures; General principles of

VHF propagation and allocation of frequencies,
(ii) IFR Communications: Definitions; General operating procedures; Action
required to be taken in case of communication failure; Distress and urgency
procedures; General principles of VHF propagation and allocation of
frequencies;
(iii) Morse code.
IS 2.3.3.4 APPENDIX B: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSE (A) – FLIGHT

(a) The flight instruction and skill test for the airline transport pilot license - airplanes shall
include CRM and at least the following areas of operation:
following tasks--
(i) Equipment examination
(ii) Performance and limitations
following tasks--
(ii) Powerplant start
(iii) Taxiing
(iv) Before takeoff checks
(3) Take-off and departure phase: including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Normal takeoffs with different flap settings. including expedited take-off
(ii) Instrument takeoff;
(iii) Powerplant failure during takeoff
(iv) Rejected takeoff
(v) Departure procedures
(4) In-flight maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks-
(i) Steep turns
(ii) Approach to stalls
(iii) Powerplant failure
(iv) Specific flight characteristics
(v) Recovery from unusual altitudes.
(5) Instrument procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Standard terminal arrival/flight management system procedures
(ii) Holding procedures

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(iii) Precision instrument approaches

(iv) Non-precision instrument approaches
(v) Circling approach
(vi) Missed approach
(6) Landings and approaches to landings; including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Normal and crosswind approaches and landings
(ii) Landing from a precision approach
(iii) Approach and landing with (simulated) powerplant failure
(iv) Landing from a circling approach
(v) Rejected landing
(vi) Landing from a no-flap or a non-standard flap approach.
(7) Normal and abnormal procedures
(8) Emergency procedures
(9) Post-flight procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) After landing procedures
(ii) Parking and securing
IS 2.3.3.5 Appendix ‘A’ MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENSE KNOWLEDGE AND

EXPERIENCE
The applicant shall have completed a course of approved training covering all the
knowledge and experience requirements specified herein:
(a) Knowledge: The applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate
to the privileges granted to the holder of an airline transport pilot license and
appropriate to the category of aircraft intended to be included in the license, in at least
the following subjects:
(1) Meteorology
(2) Air law
(i) rules and regulations relevant to the holder of an airline transport pilot license;
rules of the air; appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures;
(3) Aircraft general knowledge for airplanes, helicopters and powered-lifts
(i) general characteristics and limitations of electrical, hydraulic, pressurization
and other aircraft systems; flight control systems, including autopilot and
stability augmentation;
(ii) principles of operation, handling procedures and operating limitations of aircraft
powerplants; effects of atmospheric conditions on engine performance;
relevant operational information from the flight manual or other appropriate
document;
(iii) operating procedures and limitations of the relevant category of aircraft; effects
of atmospheric conditions on aircraft performance in accordance with the
relevant operational information from the flight manual;

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(iv) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate aircraft;
(v) flight instruments; compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic
procedures in the event of malfunctions of various flight instruments and
electronic display units;
(vi) maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of
appropriate aircraft;
(vii) for helicopters and powered-lifts, transmission (power trains) where applicable;
(4) Flight performance, planning and loading
(v) effects of loading and weight distribution on aircraft handling, flight
(ii) use and practical application of take-off, landing and other performance data,
including procedures for cruise control;
(iii) pre-flight and en-route operational flight planning; preparation and filing of air
traffic services flight plans; appropriate air traffic services procedures; altimeter
setting procedures;
(iv) in the case of helicopters and powered-lifts, effects of external loading on
handling;
(i) human performance including principles of threat and error management;
(ii) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports, charts
and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for obtaining,
meteorological information, pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry;
(iii) aeronautical meteorology; climatology of relevant areas in respect of the
elements having an effect upon aviation; the movement of pressure systems;
the structure of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of significant weather
phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing conditions;
(iv) causes, recognition and effects of icing; frontal zone penetration procedures;
(v) in the case of airplanes and powered-lifts, practical high altitude meteorology,
including interpretation and use of weather reports, charts and forecasts; jet
streams;
(6) Navigation
(i) air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts, radio navigation aids
and area navigation systems; specific navigation requirements for long-range
flights;
(ii) use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for the
control and navigation of aircraft:
(iii) use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure, enroute,
approach and landing phases of flight; identification of radio navigation aids;
(iv) principles and characteristics of self-contained and external-referenced
(i) application of threat and error management to operational performance;

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(ii) interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM,

aeronautical codes and abbreviations;
(iii) precautionary and emergency procedures; safety practices;
(iv) operational procedures for carriage of freight and dangerous goods;
(v) requirements and practices for safety briefing to passengers, including
precautions to be observed when embarking and disembarking from aircraft;
(vi) in the case of helicopters, and if applicable, powered-lifts, settling with power;
ground resonance; retreating blade stall; dynamic rollover and other operating
hazards; safety procedures, associated with flight in VMC;
(8) Principles of flight
(i) principles of flight;
(9) Radiotelephony
(i) communication procedures and phraseology; action to be taken in case of
communication failure.
(ii) In addition to the above subjects, the applicant for an airline transport pilot
license applicable to the airplane or powered-lift category shall have met the
knowledge requirements for the instrument rating.
IS 2.3.3.5 APPENDIX B: MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENSE SKILLS

(a) The applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to perform, as pilot-in-command of
an aircraft within the appropriate category required to be operated with a copilot, the
following procedures and maneuvers:
(1) pre-flight procedures, including the preparation of the operational flight plan and
filing of the air traffic services flight plan;
(2) normal flight procedures and maneuvers during all phases of flight;
(3) abnormal and emergency procedures and maneuvers related to failures and
malfunctions of equipment, such as powerplant, systems and airframe;
(4) procedures for crew incapacitation and crew coordination, including allocation of
pilot tasks, crew cooperation and use of checklists; and
(5) in the case of airplanes and powered-lifts, procedures and maneuvers for
instrument flight described the applicant shall have completed not less than:
(6) 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories
acceptable to the Licensing Authority, of which not less than 10 hours shall be in
the aircraft category being sought; and
(7) 40 hours of instrument time in aircraft of which not more than 20 hours, or 30 hours
where a flight simulator is used, may be instrument ground time. The ground time
shall be under the supervision of an authorized instructor.
(b) Flight instruction
(1) The applicant shall have gained not less than 10 hours of instrument flight time
while receiving dual instrument flight instruction in the aircraft category being
sought, from a flight instructor authorized by the Authority. The instructor shall
ensure that the applicant has operational experience in at least the following areas
to the level of performance required for the holder of an instrument rating:

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an IFR flight plan;
(ii) pre-flight inspection, use of checklists, taxiing and pre take-off checks;
(iii) procedures and maneuvers for LFR operation under normal, abnormal and
(C) en-route IFR procedures;
(H) in-flight maneuvers and particular flight characteristics including simulated
engine failure.
(I) In the case of an airplane, the applicant shall have demonstrated the ability
to perform the procedures and maneuvers described as pilot-in-command
of a multi-engine airplane.
(2) The applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to perform the procedures and
maneuvers described with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges
granted to the holder of an airline transport pilot license, and to:
(i) recognize and manage threats and errors;
(ii) smoothly and accurately, manually control the aircraft within its limitations at all
times, such that the successful outcome of a procedure or maneuver is
assured;
(iii) operate the aircraft in the mode of automation appropriate to the phase of flight
and to maintain awareness of the active mode of automation;
(iv) perform, in an accurate manner, normal, abnormal and emergency procedures
in all phases of flight;
(v) exercise good judgment and airmanship, to include structured decision making
and the maintenance of situational awareness; and
(vi) communicate effectively with other flight crew members and demonstrate the
ability to effectively perform procedures for crew incapacitation, crew
coordination, including allocation of pilot tasks, crew cooperation, adherence to
standard operating procedures (SOPs) and use of checklists.
IS 2.3.3.6 APPENDIX A: INSTRUMENT RATING (A AND H) - KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the instrument rating — airplane and helicopter
(1) Air law
Convention; PIC authority and responsibility regarding safety and security,

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Operators and pilots liabilities towards persons and goods on the ground, in
case of damage and injury caused by the operation of the aircraft, Commercial
practices and associated rules: dry and wet lease
(ii) Relevant parts of ICAO Annexes: 1. 2. 7; 8, 9, 11 (and Doc 4444), 12, 13, 14,15;
(iv) National law
(i) Airframe and systems, electrics, powerplant, emergency equipment
(A) Airframe and systems: Air driven systems (piston engines only), Air driven
systems (turbo propeller and jet aircraft), Non-pneumatic operated de-ice
and anti-ice systems, Fuel systems
(B) Electrics: Direct Current (DC), Basic radio propagation theory
(C) Flight instruments: Air data instruments, Gyroscopic instruments, Magnetic
Compass, Radio Altimeter; Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFTS),
Flight Management System (FMS)
(D) Automatic flight control system: Flight director; Autopilot; Yaw
damper/Stability augmentation system;
(E) Warning and recording equipment: Warnings general; Stall warning;
(i) Flight planning and flight monitoring:
(A) Flight plan for cross country flights: Navigation plan, Fuel plan, Flight
monitoring and in-flight re-planning, Radio communication and navigation
aids;
(B) ICAO ATC flight plan: Types of flight plan, Completing the flight plan, Filling
the flight plan, Closing the flight plan, Adherence to flight plan
plans, Radio planning practice
(D) IFR (airways) flight planning: Meteorological considerations, Selection of
routes to destination and alternates, General flight planning tasks,
(E) Practical completion of a flight plan (flight plan, flight log, nay log, ATC plan,
etc.): Extraction of data
(i) Human factors basic concepts: Human factors in aviation, Accident statistics,
Flight safety concepts
(ii) Basic aviation physiology: Basics of flight physiology, Man and environment:
automation
(5) Meteorology

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(ii) Wind: Definition and measurement: General circulation; Turbulence: Variation

(iii) Thermodynamics: Humidity; Change of state of aggregation; Adiabatic
processes
(v) Precipitation: Development and types of precipitation;
frontal depressions;
(viii) Climatology: Typical weather situations in mid-latitudes; Local seasonal
weather and wind
(ix) Flight hazards: Icing, Turbulence; Wind-shear; Thunderstorms; Low and high
level inversions; Hazards in mountainous areas;
planning
(6) Navigation:
(i) General Navigation:
(ii) Charts: The use of current aeronautical charts
(iii) Radio Navigation: Radio aids: Ground D/F (including classification of bearings);
DME (distance measuring equipment); ILS (instrument landing
(iv) system); MLS (Microwave landing system);
(v) Basic radar principles: Pulse techniques and associated terms; Ground radar;
Airborne weather radar; SSR (secondary surveillance radar and transponder);
Use of radar observations and application to in-flight navigation;
(vi) Area navigation systems: General philosophy; Typical flight deck equipment
VOR/DME area navigation (RNAV);
(vii) Self-contained and external-referenced navigation systems: Satellite assisted
navigation: GPS/GLONASS/DGPS
(i) General
(ii) Special operational procedures and hazards: General
(8) Radiotelephony:
(i) IFR Communications: Definitions; General operating procedures; Action
required to be taken in case of communication failure; distress and urgency
frequencies; Morse code.

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IS 2.3.3.6 APPENDIX B: INSTRUMENT RATING (A AND H) - FLIGHT INSTRUCTION,

SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK
(a) The flight instruction, skill test and proficiency check for the instrument rating —
airplane and helicopter shall include at least the following areas of operation:
Note: When (SE) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for single-engine. When
(ME) is indicated the item or paragraphs is only for multi-engine. When nothing is
following tasks--
(i) Weather information
(ii) Cross-country flight planning
following tasks:
(i) Aircraft systems related to IFR operations
(ii) Aircraft flight instruments and navigation equipment
(iii) Instrument cockpit check
(3) Air traffic control clearances and procedures; including the applicant's knowledge
(i) Air traffic control clearances
(ii) Compliance with departure, en route and arrival procedures and clearances
(iii) Holding procedures
(4) Flight by reference to instruments; including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Change of airspeed
(iii) Constant airspeed climbs and descents
(iv) Rate climbs and descents
(v) Timed turns to magnetic compass headings
(vi) Steep turns
(vii) Recovery from unusual flight attitudes
(5) Navigation systems; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Intercepting and tracking navigational systems and DME Arcs
(6) Instrument approach procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Non-precision instrument approach
(ii) Precision ILS instrument approach
(iii) Missed approach
(iv) Circling approach
(v) Landing from a straight-in or circling approach

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(i) Loss of communications
(ii) One engine inoperative during straight-and-level flight and turns (ME)
(iii) One engine inoperative — instrument approach (ME)
(iv) Loss of gyro attitude and/or heading indicators
following tasks--
(i) Checking instruments and equipment
IS 2.3.3.7 APPENDIX A: PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE (H) — KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the private pilot license - helicopter shall include
at least the following subjects:
(1) Air law
(i) Relevant parts of ICAO Convention and Annexes 2, 7, 8, 11 and 14
(ii) ICAO Document 4444: General provisions, Area control service, Approach
control service, Aerodrome control service; Flight information and alerting
service
(iii) National law:
(2) Aircraft General Knowledge
(i) Airframe: Rotors: Airframe structure and loads
(ii) Powerplant: Piston engine; Engines general, lubrication system; air cooling;
ignition systems, engine fuel supply, engine performance, power augmentation
devices, fuel, mixture, engine handling and manipulation. operational criteria,
(iii) Systems: electrical system, hydraulic system
(iv) Instruments: Pilot/static system, Airspeed indicator, Altimeter, Vertical speed
indicator, Gyroscopes, Turn indicator, Altitude indicate, Heading indicator,
Magnetic compass, Engine instruments, Other instruments
(v) Airworthiness
(3) Flight Performance and Planning
(i) Mass and balance
(ii) Performance: Take-off; Landing; In flight
(i) Basic physiology: Concepts, Effects of partial pressure, Vision, Hearing; Motion
sickness, Flying and health; Toxic hazards
(ii) Basic psychology: The information process, the central decision channel,
stress, judgment and decision making
(5) Meteorology
(i) The atmosphere, Pressure, density and temperature, Humidity and
precipitation, Pressure and wind, Cloud information, Fog, mist and haze,
Airmasses, Frontology, Ice accretion, Thunderstorms, Flight over mountainous

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areas, Climatology, Altimetry, The meteorological organization, Weather

analysis and forecasting; Weather information for flight planning,
Meteorological broadcasts for aviation
(6) Navigation
(i) Form of the earth; Mapping, Conformal conic projection, Direction, Helicopter
magnetism, Distances, Charts in practical navigation, Chart reference
material/map reading, Principles of navigation; The navigation computer; Time;
Flight planning, Practical navigation
(7) Radio navigation: Ground directory finding (D/F), Automatic directory finding
(ADF), including associated beacons (non directional beacons (NDBs)) and use of
the radio magnetic indicator (RMI), VHF omni-directional range/distance
measuring equipment (VOR/DME), GPS, Ground radar, Secondary surveillance
radar
(8) Operational Procedures
(i) Relevant parts of ICAO Annex 6. Part III. Annex 12, 13 and 16 (relevant parts),
Contravention of aviation regulations
(9) Principles of Flight
(i) The atmosphere. Airflow around a body; Subsonic flow about a two
dimensional aerofoil, Three dimensional flow about an aerofoil, Rotor
aerodynamics, Flying controls, Stability. Load factor and maneuvers,
Stressloads on the ground, Helicopter specific hazards
(10) Communications
(i) Radio telephony and communications, Departure procedures, En-route
procedures, Arrival and traffic pattern procedures, Communications failure,
Distress and urgency procedures.
IS 2.3.3.7 APPENDIX B: PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE (H) - FLIGHT INSTRUCTION

AND SKILL TEST
(a) The flight instruction and skill test for the private pilot license - helicopter shall include
at least the following areas of operation:
following tasks--
(ii) Weather information
(iii) Cross-country flight planning
(iv) National airspace system
(v) Performance and limitations
(vi) Operation of system
(vii) Minimum equipment list
(viii) Aeromedical factors
following tasks--

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(iii) Engine Starting and rotor engagement
(iv) Before take-off check
(3) Aerodrome and heliport operations; including the applicant's knowledge and
(iii) Aerodrome and heliport markings and lighting
(4) Hovering maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Vertical take-off and landing
(ii) Slope operations
(iii) Surface taxi
(iv) Hover taxi
(v) Air taxi
(5) Take-off, landing, and go-around; including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Normal and crosswind approach
(iii) Maximum performance take-off and climb
(iv) Steep approach
(v) Rolling take-off
(vi) Shallow approach and running/roll-on landing
(vii) Go-around
(6) Performance maneuver; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Rapid deceleration
(ii) Straight in autorotation
tasks--
(i) Pilot age and dead reckoning
(ii) Radio navigation and radar services
(iii) Diversion
(i) Power failure at a hover
(ii) Power failure at altitude
(iii) Systems and equipment malfunctions

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(iv) Settling-with-power
(v) Low rotor RPM recovery
(vi) Dynamic rollover
(vii) Ground resonance
(viii) Low G conditions
(9) Emergency equipment and survival gear Night operation; including the applicant's
knowledge and performance of the following tasks--
(i) Physiological aspects of night flying
(ii) Lighting and equipment for night flying
(i) After landing and securing
IS 2.3.3.8 APPENDIX A: COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE (H) — KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the commercial pilot license — helicopter shall
include at least the following subjects:
(1) Air law
Operators and pilots liabilities towards persons and goods on the ground; in
(ii) Relevant parts of ICAO Annexes: 1. 2.7. 8, 9, 11 (and Doc 4444). 12, 13, 14,
15, 17;
(iv) National law;
(A) Airframe and systems: Helicopter configurations; Controls and rotors;
Cockpit and cabin; Landing Gear; Transmission systems; Rotor-brake;
Inspection; Hydraulics; Air driven systems De-ice and anti-ice systems,
Fuel system
(B) Electrics: Direct Current (DC); Alternating Current (AC); Semiconductors;
Basic knowledge of computers; Basic radio propagation theory;
(C) Powerplant: Piston Engine; Turbine Engine; Engine construction; Engine
detection; Fire fighting equipment; Aircraft oxygen equipment; Emergency
equipment;

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(A) Flight instruments: Air data instruments; Gyroscopic instruments; Magnetic

Flight Management System (FMS):
protection: Yaw damper/Stability augmentation system;
(C) Warning and recording equipment: Warnings general: Altitude alert system:
Ground proximity warning system (GPWS); Traffic collision avoidance
system (TCAS), Overspeed warning; Flight data recorder; Cockpit voice
recorder; Rotors and engine over/underspeed warning;
Temperature gauge, RPM indicator, Consumption gauge: Fuel gauge:
Torque meter: Flight hour meter; Remote (signal) transmission system:
Electronic Displays; Chip detection;
(ii) Loading: Terminology: Aircraft mass checks: Procedures for determining
helicopter mass and balance documentation; Effects of overloading:
Calculation of cg; Securing of load, Area load, running load, supporting;
(iv) Performance: Airworthiness Requirements: Definitions of terms; Take off —
Cruise - Landing Performance;
(v) Flight planning and flight monitoring:
(A) Flight plan for cross country flights: Navigation plan: Fuel plan; Flight
aids;
plans; Radio planning practice;
(D) Practical completion of a flight plan (flight plan, flight log, nay log, ATC plan,
etc.): Extraction of data;
(E) Offshore or remote area operation: Additional flight planning aspects for off
shore or remote area operation; computerized flight planning;
automation
(5) Meteorology

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(iii) Thermodynamics: Humidity; Change of state of aggregation; Adiabatic
processes
(v) Precipitation
mountainous areas;
planning
(6) Navigation:
(i) General Navigation: Basics of navigation: The solar system; The earth Time
and time conversions; Directions. Distance
VOR and Doppler VOR (including the use of the radio magnetic indicator); DME
(distance measuring equipment);
(vii) Basic radar principles: Pulse techniques and associated terms; Ground radar;
SSR (secondary surveillance radar and transponder); Use of radar
observations and application to in-flight navigation;
(viii) Area navigation systems: Flight director and autopilot coupling;

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(ix) Self-contained and external-referenced navigation systems: Doppler; Loran-C;

GPS/GLONASS/DGPS
(i) ICAO Annex 6 Parts II and III (as applicable);
icing; Bird strike risk and avoidance; Noise abatement; Fire/smoke; Windshear,
microburst; Wake turbulence; Security; Emergency and precautionary
landings; Fuel jettisoning; Transport of dangerous goods; Contaminated
runways; Rotor down wash; Operation influence by meteorological conditions;
(8) Emergency procedures;
(i) Subsonic Aerodynamics: Basic laws and definitions; Derivation of lift; Drag;
Distribution of forces — balance of couples; Stability; Blade-stall; Transonic
effects on blades; Limitations; Performance degradation;
(ii) Helicopter aerodynamics: The helicopter and associated terminology; The
forces diagram and associated terminology; Uniformity of rotor thrust along
blade span; Helicopter controls; Rotor blade freedom of movement; Phase lag
and advance angle; Vertical flight; Forces in balance; Transitional lift; Power
requirements; Further aerodynamics of forward flight; Factors affecting cyclic
stick limits; The flare — power flight; Settling with power (vortex ring); Blade
sailing; Autorotation — vertical; Autorotation - forward flight; Stability; Control
power; Power requirements — graphs;
(9) Radiotelephony
(ii) Morse code.
IS 2.3.3.8 APPENDIX B: COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE (H) — FLIGHT

(a) The flight instruction and skill test for the commercial pilot license — helicopter shall
include at least the following areas of operation:
following tasks--
(iii) Cross-country flight planning
(iv) National airspace system
(v) Performance and limitations
(vi) Operation of system
(vii) Minimum equipment list
(viii) Aeromedical factors
(ix) Physiological aspects of night flying

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(x) Lighting and equipment for night flying

following tasks--
(iii) Engine starting and rotor engagement
(iv) Before take-off check
(3) Aerodrome and heliport operations; including the applicant's knowledge and
performance of the following tasks:
(iii) Aerodrome and heliport markings and lighting
(4) Hovering maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(ii) Slope operations
(iii) Surface taxi
(iv) Hover taxi
(v) Air taxi
(5) Take-off, landing and go-around; including the applicant's knowledge and
(iii) Maximum performance take-off and climb
(iv) Steep approach
(v) Rolling take-off
(vi) Shallow approach and running/roll-on landing
(vii) Go-around
(6) Performance maneuver; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(ii) 180 Degrees autorotation
tasks--
(ii) Radio navigation and radar services
(iii) Diversion

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the following tasks:
(iii) Systems and equipment malfunctions
(iv) Settling-with-power
(v) Low rotor RPM recovery
(viii) Low G conditions
(ix) Emergency equipment and survival gear
(9) Special operations; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Confined area operation
(ii) Pinnacle/platform operations
(i) After landing; parking and securing
IS 2.3.3.9 APPENDIX A: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSE (H) - KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the airline transport pilot license — helicopter
(1) Air law
Operators and pilots liabilities towards persons and goods on the ground; in
(ii) Relevant parts of ICAO Annexes: 1, 2, 7, 8, 9, 11 (and doc 4444), 12, 13, 14,
15 and 17;
(iv) National law;
(A) Airframe and systems: Helicopter configurations; Controls and rotors;
Cockpit and cabin; Landing Gear; Transmission systems; Rotor-brake;
Inspection; Hydraulics; Air driven systems, De-ice and anti-ice systems,
Fuel system
(B) Electrics: Direct Current (DC); Alternating Current (AC); Semiconductors,
Basic knowledge of computers Basic radio propagation theory;

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(C) Powerplant: Piston Engine; Turbine Engine; Engine construction; Engine

detection; Fire-fighting equipment; Aircraft oxygen equipment; Emergency
equipment;
(A) Flight instruments: Air data instruments, Gyroscopic instruments,Magnetic
Flight Management System (FMS);
protection; Yaw damper/Stability augmentation system;
(C) Warning and recording equipment: Warnings general; Altitude alert system;
Ground proximity warning system (GPWS); Traffic collision avoidance
system (TCAS), Overspeed warning; Flight data recorder; Cockpit voice
recorder; Rotors and engine over/underspeed warning;
Temperature gauge, RPM indicator; Consumption gauge, Fuel gauge,
Torque meter, Flight hour meter, Remote (signal) transmission system;
Electronic Displays; Chip detection;
(ii) Loading: Terminology; Aircraft mass checks; Procedures for determining
helicopter mass and balance documentation; Effects of overloading;
Calculation of cg; Securing of load; Area load; running load, supporting;
(iv) Performance: Airworthiness Requirements; Definitions of terms; Take off —
Cruise - Landing Performance;
(v) Flight planning and flight monitoring:
(A) Flight plan for cross country flights: Navigation plan; Fuel plan; Flight
aids;
plans; Radio planning practice;
(D) IFR (airways) flight planning: Meteorological considerations; Selection of
routes to destination and alternates; General flight planning tasks;
Note: This subsection is only part of the instruction, test or check when an
instrument rating is required.
(E) Practical completion of a flight plan (flight plan, flight log, navigation log,
ATC plan, etc.): Extraction of data;
(F) Offshore or remote area operation: Additional flight planning aspects for
offshore or remote area operation; computerized flight planning;

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automation
(5) Meteorology
of wind with height; Local winds; Jet streams; Standing waves;
(iii) Thermodynamics: Humidity; Change of state of aggregation; Adiabetic
processes
(v) Precipitation
mountainous areas;
planning
(6) Navigation:
(i) General Navigation: Basics of navigation: The solar system; The earth Time
and time conversions; Directions, Distance

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DME (distance measuring equipment); ILS (instrument landing system); MLS
(Microwave landing system);
(vii) Basic radar principles: Pulse techniques and associated terms; Ground radar;
Airborne weather radar; SSR (secondary surveillance radar and transponder);
Use of radar observations and application to in-flight navigation;
(viii) Area navigation systems: General philosophy; Typical flight deck equipment
VOR/DME area navigation (RNAV); Flight director and autopilot coupling
(ix) Area navigation systems: General philosophy; Typical flight deck equipment
VOR/DME area navigation (RNAV); Flight director and autopilot coupling
Note: Typical flight deck equipment and operation: Instrument indications: and
Types of area navigation system inputs are only part of the instruction, test or
check when an instrument rating is required.
(x) Self-contained and external-referenced navigation systems: Doppler; Loran-C;
GPS/GLONASS/DGPS
(i) ICAO Annex 6 Parts I, II and III (as applicable);
icing; Bird strike risk and avoidance; Noise abatement; Fire/smoke; Windshear;
microburst; Wake turbulence; Security; Emergency and precautionary
landings; Fuel jettisoning; Transport of dangerous goods; Contaminated
runways;
(i) Subsonic Aerodynamics: Basic laws and definitions; Derivation of lift; Drag;
Distribution of forces — balance of couples; Stability; Blade-stall; Transonic
effects on blades; Limitations; Performance degradation;
(ii) Helicopter aerodynamics: The helicopter and associated terminology; The
forces diagram and associated terminology; Uniformity of rotor thrust along
blade span; Helicopter controls; Rotor blade freedom of movement;; Phase lag
and advance angle; Vertical flight; Forces in balance; Transitional lift; Power
requirements; Further aerodynamics of forward flight; Factors affecting cyclic
stick limits; The flare — power flight; Settling with power (vortex ring); Blade
sailing; Autorotation — vertical; Autorotation - forward flight; Stability; Control
power; Power requirements — graphs;
(9) Radiotelephony:
(ii) IFR Communications: Definitions; General operating procedures; Action
required to be taken in case of communication failure; distress and urgency

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frequencies;
Note: This subsection is only part of the instruction, test or check when an
instrument rating is required.
(iii) Morse code.
IS 2.3.3.9 APPENDIX B: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSE (H) – FLIGHT

(a) The flight instruction and skill test for the airline transport pilot license for helicopters
shall include CRM and at least the following areas of operation:
(1) Pre-flight preparations and checks; including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Equipment examination
following tasks--
(ii) Powerplant start
(iii) Taxiing
(iv) Pre-takeoff checks
(3) Takeoff and departure phase: including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Normal and crosswind takeoff
(ii) Instrument takeoff
(iii) Powerplant failure during takeoff
(iv) Rejected takeoff
(v) Instrument departure
(4) In-flight maneuvers: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks-
(i) Steep turns
(ii) Powerplant failure-multi-engine helicopter
(iii) Powerplant failure-single-engine helicopter
(iv) Recovery from unusual altitudes
(v) Settling with power
(5) Instrument procedures: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Instrument arrival
(ii) Holding
(iii) Precision instrument approaches
(iv) Non-precision instrument approaches

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(v) Missed approach

(6) Landings and approaches to landings: including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Normal and crosswind approaches and landings
(ii) Approach and landing with simulated powerplant failure-multiengine helicopter
(iii) Rejected landing
(7) Normal and abnormal procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and
performance of the tasks.
(8) Emergency procedures: including the applicant's knowledge and performance.
following tasks--
(i) After landing procedures
IS 2.3.3.11 APPENDIX A: FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR (A and H) - FLIGHT INSTRUCTION,

SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK
(a) The flight instruction, skill test and proficiency check for the flight instructor rating -
airplane and helicopter shall include at least the following areas of operation:
Notes:
(1) When (SE) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for single-engine, when (ME)
is indicated the item or paragraphs is only for multi-engine. When nothing is indicated
the item or paragraph is for single-engine and multi-engine.
(2) When (A) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for Airplane. When (H) is
indicated the item or paragraph is only for Helicopter. When nothing is indicated the
item or the paragraph is for A and H.
(3) When (S) is indicated, the item is only for seaplanes, when (L) is indicated, the
item is only for landplanes. When nothing is indicated the item is for land and
seaplanes.
(1) Fundamentals of instruction; including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) The learning process
(ii) The teaching process
(iii) Teaching methods
(iv) Evaluation
(v) Flight instructor characteristics and responsibilities
(vi) Human factors
(vii) Planning instructional activity
(2) Technical subject areas; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
the following tasks
(i) Aeromedical factors
(ii) Visual Scanning and collision avoidance

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(iii) Principles of flight

(iv) Aircraft flight controls
(v) Aircraft weight and balance
(vi) Navigation and flight planning
(vii) Night operations
(viii) High altitude operations (A)
(ix) Regulations and publications
(x) Use of minimum equipment list
(xi) National airspace system
(xii) Navigation aids and radar services (A)
(xiii) Logbook entries and license endorsements
(xiv) Water and seaplane characteristics (S)
(xv) Seaplane bases, rules and aids to marine navigation (S)
following tasks--
(iii) Operation of systems (SE)
(iv) Performance and limitations (SE)
(v) Airworthiness requirements
(4) Pre-flight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight: including the applicant's
knowledge and performance of the following task--
(i) Maneuver lesson
following tasks--
(iii) Engine starting (A)
(iv) Engine starting and rotor engagement (H)
(v) Taxiing (A)
(vi) Sailing (S)
(vii) Before take-off check
(6) Aerodrome operations and Heliport operations: including the applicant's
knowledge and performance of the following tasks--
(iii) Aerodrome and runway markings and lighting (A)
(iv) Aerodrome and Heliport Markings and lighting

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(7) Take-off, landing and go-around (A): including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Take-off and maximum performance climb
(iii) Short field (Confined area (S)) take-off and maximum performance climb
(iv) Soft field take-off and climb (SE)
(v) Glossy water take-off and climb (S)
(vi) Rough water take-off and climb (S)
(vii) Normal and crosswind approach and landing
(viii) Slip to a landing (SE)
(ix) Go-around/rejected landing
(x) Short field (Confined area (S)) approach and landing
(xi) Glassy water approach and landing (S)
(xii) Rough water approach and landing (S)
(xiii) Soft field approach and landing (SE)
(xiv) Power-off 180 degrees accuracy approach and landing
(8) Hovering Maneuvers (H); including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(ii) Surface taxi
(iii) Hover taxi
(iv) Air taxi
(v) Slope operation
(9) Fundamentals of flight; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(ii) Level turns
(iii) Straight climbs and climbing turns
(iv) Straight descents and descending turns
(10) Performance maneuvers (A); including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Steep turns
(ii) Steep spirals (SE)
(11) Performance maneuvers (H); including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Straight-in autorotation
(iii) 180 degrees autorotation

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(12) Ground reference maneuvers (A); including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Rectangular course
(ii) S-turns across a road
(iii) Turns around a point
(13) Slow flight, stalls and spins (A); including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Power-on stalls (proficiency)
(iii) Power-off stalls (proficiency)
(iv) Crossed-control stalls (demonstration) (SE)
(v) Elevator trim stalls (demonstration) (SE)
(vi) Secondary stalls (demonstration) (SE)
(vii) Spins (SE)
(14) Basic instrument maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Constant airspeed climbs
(iii) Constant airspeed descents
(iv) Turns to headings
(v) Recovery from unusual flight attitudes
(15) Emergency operations (SE) (A); including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Emergency approach and landing (simulated)
(ii) Systems and equipment malfunctions
(iii) Emergency equipment and survival gear
(16) (Emergency operations (ME) (A); including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Systems and equipment malfunctions
(ii) Engine failure during take-off before VMC
(iii) Engine failure after lift-off
(iv) Approach and landing with an inoperative engine
(v) Emergency descent
(vi) Emergency equipment and survival gear
(17) Emergency operations (H); including the applicant's knowledge and performance
(iii) Settling-with-power

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(iv) Low rotor RPM recovery

(v) Anti-torque system failure
(viii) Low "G" conditions
(ix) Systems and equipment malfunctions
(x) Emergency equipment and survival gear
(18) Multi-engine operations (ME) (A); including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Operation of systems
(iii) Flight principles — engine inoperative
(iv) Maneuvering with one engine inoperative
(v) VMC demonstration
(vi) Demonstrating the effects of various airspeeds and configurations during
engine inoperative performance
(19) Special operations (H); including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Confined area operation
(ii) Pinnacle/platform operation
(i) Post-flight procedures
(ii) Anchoring
(iii) Docking and mooring
(iv) Beaching
(v) Ramping
IS 2.3.3.11 APPENDIX B: FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR FOR INSTRUMENT RATINGS (A

and H) - FLIGHT INSTRUCTION, SKILL TEST and PROFICIENCY CHECK
(a) The flight instruction, skill test and proficiency for the flight instructor for instrument
ratings - airplane and helicopter shall include at least the following areas of operation:
Notes:(1) When (SE) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for single-engine.
When (ME) is indicated the item or paragraphs is only for multi-engine. When nothing
is indicated the item and paragraph are for single-engine and multi-engine.
(2) When (A) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for Airplane. When (H) is
item and the paragraph are for A and H.
(1) Fundamentals of instructing; including the applicant's knowledge and performance

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(i) The learning process

(ii) Human behavior and effective communication
(iii) The teaching process
(iv) Teaching methods
(v) Critique and evaluation
(vi) Flight instructor characteristics and responsibilities
(vii) Planning instructional activity
(2) Technical subject areas; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Aircraft flight instruments and navigation equipment
(ii) Aeromedical factors
(iii) Regulations and publications related to IFR operations
(iv) Logbook entries related to instrument instruction
following tasks:
(i) Weather information
(ii) Cross-country flight planning
(iii) Instrument cockpit check
(4) Pre-flight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; including the applicant's
knowledge and performance of the following task:
(i) Maneuver lesson
(5) Air traffic control clearances and procedures; including the applicant's knowledge
and performance of the following tasks-
(i) Air traffic control clearances
(ii) Compliance with departure, en-route and arrival procedures and clearances
(6) Flight by reference to instruments; including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Turns
(iii) Change of airspeed in straight-and-level and turning flight
(iv) Constant airspeed climbs and descents
(v) Constant rate climbs and descents
(vi) Timed turns to magnetic compass headings
(vii) Steep turns
(viii) Recovery from unusual flight altitudes
(7) Navigation systems; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks:
(i) Intercepting and tracking navigational systems and DME Arcs
(ii) Holding procedures

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(8) Instrument approach procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and

(i) Non-precision instrument approach
(ii) Precision instrument approach
(iii) Missed approach
(iv) Circling approach (A)
(v) Landing from a straight-in approach
(i) Loss of communications
(ii) Loss of gyro attitude and heading indicators
(iii) Engine failure during straight-and-level flight and turns
(iv) Instrument approach — one engine inoperative
the following task--
(i) Checking instruments and equipment
IS 2.3.3.11 APPENDIX C: INSTRUCTOR RATING FOR ADDITIONAL TYPE RATINGS

- FLIGHT INSTRUCTION, SKILL TEST and PROFICIENCY CHECK
(a) The flight instruction, skill test and proficiency checks for instructors for additional type
ratings -airplane and helicopter shall include at least the following areas of operation:
Note: When (A) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for Airplane. When (H) is
item and the paragraph are for A and H.
(1) Technical subject areas
(i) The content of the technical subject areas shall cover the areas as applicable
to the aircraft class or type.
(ii) Flight simulator: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks:
(A) Use of checklist, setting of radios/navigation aids
(B) Starting engines
(C) Take-off checks
(D) Instrument take-off, transition to instruments after lift off
(E) Engine failure during take-ff between V1 and V2 (Airplane)
(F) Aborted take-off prior to reaching V1 (A)
(G) High mach buffeting, specific flight characteristics (if necessary) (A)
(H) Take-off with engine failure prior to TDP or DPATO or shortly after TDP or
DPATO (Helicopter)
(I) Steep turns

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(J) Recovery from approach to stall/take-off, clean landing configuration

(Airplane)
(K) Instrument approach to required minimum decision height or minimum
descent height/altitude, manual one engine simulated inoperative during
approach and landing or go-around (Airplane)
(L) Instrument approach to required minimum decision height or minimum
descent height/altitude, autopilot one engine simulated inoperative during
approach and landing or go-around (Helicopter)
(M) Rejected landing and go-around
(N) Crosswind landing
(iii) Category II and II operations, if applicable: including the applicant's knowledge
(A) Precision approaches, automatic with auto-throttle and flight director go
around caused by aircraft or ground equipment deficiencies
(B) Go-around caused by weather conditions
(C) Go-around at DH caused by offset position from centerline
(D) One of the CAT II/CAT III approaches must lead to a landing
(iv) Aircraft: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the following
tasks--
(A) Familiarization with controls during outside checks
(B) Use of checklist, setting of radios and navigation aids, starting engines
(C) Taxiing
(D) Take-off
(E) Engine failure during take-off short after V2, after reaching climb out attitude
(Airplane)
(F) Engine failure during take-off short after TDP or DPATO after reaching
climb out attitude (Helicopter)
(G) Other emergency procedures (if necessary)
(H) Instrument approaches to required minimum decision height, manual one
engine out during approach and landing or go-around
(I) One engine simulated inoperative go-around from required minimum
decision height
(J) One engine (critical) simulated inoperative landing
IS 2.3.3.11 APPENDIX D: INSTRUCTOR RATING FOR MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENSE

– FLIGHT INSTRUCTION, SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK
In addition to the information outlined in IS: 2.3.3.11 Appendices A, B and C, the
following applies to the MPL program:
(a) Flight Instructor Competencies
The nature of MPL training, with its emphasize on multi-crew operations, is such that
instructors engaged in the delivery of that training need to meet minimum levels of
competency. Organizations planning to deliver training for the issue of a MPL have a

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responsibility to ensure that their instructors either have, or provide a means by which
the instructors can achieve, the following competencies:
(b) Competencies:
(1) For all instructors engaged in training for the MPL:
(i) Successful completion of an operators CRM course;
(ii) Understanding of the philosophy of multi-crew operations;
(iii) Use of a multi-crew flight check system; and
(iv) Use of operator specific SOPs.
(2) For flight instructors engaged in training for the Core and Basic Stages;
(i) Current Flight Instructors Rating;
(ii) Current Command Instrument Rating,
(iii) Management of multiple students; and
(iv) Successful completion of an operator’s multi-crew operations course.
(3) For instructors engaged in training for the Intermediate and Advanced Stages:
(i) Hold, or have held, a Command (Multi-engine) Instrument Rating,
(ii) Hold, or have held, a Flight Instructors Rating, and
(iii) Hold, or have held, a Multi-engine Training Approval.
(c) Induction
The standardization of instructors is an essential for any MPL training organization.
Induction training which covers the following aspects will provide a suitable level of
initial standardization:
(1) Structure and management chain of responsibility;
(i) This should provide the new instructor with a clear understanding of the
hierarchy of the organization and the lines of communication and responsibility.
(2) Instructor and trainee duties and responsibilities;
(i) Particular attention should be given to the conduct of in-flight procedures such
as:
(A) multi-crew operations,
(B) emergency and non-normal procedure training.
(C) Multi-crew Operations;
(3) Particular attention should be given to ensuring that instructors are cognizant of
the differences in multi-crew training, and are familiar with the specific
requirements of the organization with respect to multi-crew pilot training.
(4) Threat and Error Management should:
(i) clearly address the need for TEM,
(ii) ensure that all instructors clearly understand the importance of applying TEM
in training,
(iii) ensure that instructors understand how to deliver TEM training,
(iv) ensure that instructors are competent in the assessment of TEM.

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(5) Supervision;
(i) Address the need for supervision and the individual responsibilities of
instructors.
(6) Operations Manual;
(i) Instructors should be left in no doubt as to the need for them to conduct all
operations in accordance with the procedures laid down in the operations
manual.
(7) Pre and post flight briefings procedures;
(i) In addition to addressing the policy on briefings, instructors should be given the
opportunity to review and refresh their individual briefing techniques.
(8) Training procedures;
(i) Address the Operations Manual provisions on training including the use of
Training Plans, Achievement Records etc.
(9) Recording procedures.
(i) Instructors should be given the opportunity to gain familiarity with the
organizations recording methods. In particular attention should be made of the
need for accurate Training Records, and the need to maintain up to date
Achievement Records.
(d) Recurrent Training
Recurrent training represents the ongoing aspect of standardization and should
reinforce many of the topics addressed during induction training. Accordingly, the
following topics need to be part of any recurrent training program:
(1) Instructor and trainee duties and responsibilities;
(i) Supervision;
(ii) Pre and post flight briefings procedures;
(iii) Training procedures; and
(iv) Recording procedures.
(2) In addition (under the guidance and supervision of senior staff) provision should
made for each instructor to evaluate their own flight instructional techniques and
procedures to identify any weaknesses or deviations from the requirements of the
Operations Manual.
(e) Duty Roster Systems
The requirements for instructor rostering will vary according to the size and complexity
of the individual training organization. For small organizations a suitable roster system
need be no more complex than a simple white board showing instructional and other
duties with provision for the display of rest periods. Larger organizations will need to
take a more detailed approach to their rostering, and may need to make use of a
computerized system. Regardless of size, organizations will need to ensure that the
rostering system makes provision for the inclusion of standardization/recurrent training
undertaken by instructors.
IS 2.3.3.12 EXAMINERS
(a) The ground training for examiners shall at least include:

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(1) Examiner duties, functions and responsibilities

(2) Applicable regulations and procedures;
(3) Appropriate methods, procedures and techniques for conducting the required tests
and checks;
(4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection of:
(i) Improper and insufficient training, and
(ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely affect safety;
(5) Appropriate corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory tests and checks; and
(6) Approved methods, procedures and limitations for performing the required normal,
abnormal and emergency procedures in the aircraft.
(b) The flight training shall include:
(1) Training and practice in conducting flight evaluation (from the left and right pilot
seats for pilot examiners) in the required normal, abnormal and emergency
procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight tests and checks;
(2) The potential results of improper, untimely or non-execution of safety measures
during an evaluation; and
(3) The safety measures (to be taken from either pilot seat for pilot check examiners)
for emergency situations that are likely to develop during an evaluation.
(c) The flight training for examiners (simulator) shall include:
(1) Training and practice in conducting flight checks in the required normal, abnormal
and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the evaluations tests
and checks required by this Part (this training and practice shall be accomplished
in a flight simulator, a flight procedures trainer or flight training device.
(2) Training in the operation of flight simulators, flight procedures trainers, or flight
training devices, or in all three, to ensure competence to conduct the evaluations
required by this Part.
IS 2.4.3 TYPE RATING - FLIGHT ENGINEERS - FLIGHT INSTRUCTION, SKILL

TEST and PROFICIENCY CHECK
(a) The flight instruction, skill test and proficiency check for the flight engineers license
and type rating shall include CRM and at least the following areas of operation:
(1) Pre-flight preparation: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Equipment examination-systems knowledge
(ii) Aircraft handbooks; manuals, minimum equipment list (MEL), configuration
deviation list (CDL) and operations specifications
(iii) Performance and limitations
following tasks:
(i) Pre-flight inspection and cockpit setup
(ii) Pre-flight inspection-exterior

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(3) Ground operations; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks:
(i) Powerplant start
(ii) Taxi and pre-takeoff checks
(4) Normal procedures: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks:
(i) Take-off
(ii) In-flight
(iii) During approach and landing
(iv) Engine systems monitoring
(5) Abnormal and emergency procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and
performance of the following tasks:
(i) Take-off
(ii) In-flight
(iii) During approach and landing
(iv) Engine systems monitoring
(6) Post-flight procedures
(i) After landing
IS 2.6.2.6 AVIATION MAINTENANCE TECHNICIAN (AMT) LICENSE SKILL TEST

Each applicant for a Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT) license or rating shall pass
an oral and practical test appropriate to the rating(s) sought. The tests cover the applicants’
skill in performing the practical projects on the subjects covered by the written test for that
rating. The applicant will be provided with appropriate facilities, tools, materials and
airworthiness data
(a) The skill test for the AMT License shall test the applicant's knowledge and performance
in at least the following areas of operation:
(1) basic electricity
(2) lines and fittings
(3) materials and processes
(4) ground operations and servicing
(5) cleaning and corrosion control
(6) mathematics
(7) maintenance forms and records
(8) maintenance publications
(9) physics
(10) mechanic privileges and limitations

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IS 2.6.2.6 (a) SKILL REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AMT AIRFRAME RATING

(a) The skill test for the airframe rating shall test the applicant's knowledge and
performance in at least the following areas of operation:
(1) assembly and rigging
(2) airframe inspection
(3) aircraft landing gear systems
(4) hydraulic and pneumatic systems
(5) cabin atmosphere control systems
(6) aircraft instrument systems
(7) communication and navigation systems
(8) fuel systems
(9) aircraft electrical systems
(10) position and warning systems
(11) ice and rain control systems
(12) fire protection systems
(13) Job/task documentation and control practices.
IS 2.6.2.6 (b) SKILL REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AMT POWERPLANT RATING

(a) The skill test for the powerplant rating shall test the applicant's knowledge and
performance in at least the following areas of operation:
(1) powerplant electrical systems
(2) lubrication systems
(3) ignition and starting systems
(4) fuel metering
(5) engine fuel systems
(6) induction and engine airflow systems
(7) engine cooling systems
(8) engine exhaust and reverser systems
(9) propellers
(10) auxiliary power units
IS 2.6.3.6 (c) SKILL REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AMS AVIONICS RATING

(a) The skill test for the avionics rating shall test the applicant's knowledge and
performance in the basic workshop and maintenance practices in at least the following
areas of operation:
(1) Avionics — electrical
(2) Avionics — instrument

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(3) Avionics — autoflight

(4) Avionics — radio
(5) Repair, maintenance and function testing of aircraft systems/components —
avionics
IS 2.10.1.3 APPENDIX A- BASIC TRAINING IN AVIATION MEDICINE FOR AMEs

(a) Basic training in aviation medicine
(b) Physics of atmosphere and space
(c) Basic aeronautical knowledge
(d) Aviation Physiology
(e) Ophthalmology
(f) Otorinolaryngology
(g) Cardiology and general medicine
(h) Neurology
(i) Psychiatry in aviation medicine
(j) Psychology
(k) Dentistry
(l) Accidents, Escape and Survival
(m) Legislation. rules and regulations
(n) Air evacuation
(o) Medicine and flying
IS 2.10.1.3 APPENDIX B - ADVANCED TRAINING IN AVIATION MEDICINE FOR

AMEs
(a) Pilot working environment
(b) Aerospace physiology
(c) Ophthalmology
(d) Otorinolaryngology
(e) Cardiology and general medicine
(f) Neurology/Psychiatry
(g) Human factors in aviation
(h) Tropical medicine
(i) Hygiene
(j) Space medicine
IS 2.10.1.4 APPLICATION FORM FOR MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

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(Application form to be implemented here from Guide for Aviation Medical Examiners.)
IS 2.10.1.8 MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

The following details shall appear on the medical certificate:
(i) Name of State
(ii) License No.
(iii) Name of holder in full (in Roman alphabet also if script of national language is
other than Roman):
(iv) Date of birth
(v) Address of holder
(vi) Nationality of holder
(vii) Signature of holder
(viii) Medical certificate Class 1 or 2
(ix) Issuing Authority
(x) Validity
(xi) Limitations
(xii) Date of issue and signature of issuing officer.
IS 2.11.3 RESERVED

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IS 2.14.3.2 APPENDIX A: ATSEP LICENSE - KNOWLEDGE

The knowledge instruction and test for ATSEP license - shall include at least the following
subjects as recommended in the ICAO Doc 7192 Part E-2:
(a) ATSEP GENERAL EXAM
1) Air Law
2) International and national organizations and standards
3) Familiarization with air traffic service and air space standards
4) Familiarization with CNS/ATM concepts
5) System Safety
6) Human Performance and Limitation
(b) COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
1) Communication System Concepts
2) Radio Transmitters and Receivers
3) Communication Protocols
4) Networks
5) Types of Medium
6) Recorders
7) Safety aspects
(c) RADIO NAVIGATIONAL AIDS
1) Navigational Aids Concepts
2) Ground-Based Systems (NDB, VOR, DME, ILS, etc.)
3) Satellite-Based Navigation Systems (GNSS, GBAS, SBAS, GPS etc.)
4) On-board Navigation Architecture
5) Display Systems
6) Inertia Navigation
7) Vertical Navigation
8) Safety Aspects
(d) SURVEILLANCE
1) Surveillance System Concepts
2) Primary Surveillance
3) Surface Movement Radar
4) Secondary Surveillance
5) ADS-B
6) Human-Machine Interface
7) Safety Aspects
(e) DATA PROCESSING SYSTEM
1) User functional view

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2) Data processing chain

3) Software process
4) Hardware Platform
5) Data Essential Features
6) Life Cycle
7) Aviation Data Details Structure
8) Safety Aspects
(f) POWER SUPPLY
1) Power Distribution
2) Uninterruptible Power Supply
3) Engine Generator Set
4) Batteries and Battery Stations
5) Power Supply Network
6) Safety Aspects
IS 2.14.3.4 APPENDIX B: ATSEP LICENSE – SKILL TEST

Each applicant for ATSEP License shall pass both oral and practical tests. The tests cover
the applicant’s skill in performing the practical projects on the subject covered by the
written test.
The applicant will be provided with appropriate tools, materials and manuals.
The skill tests for the ATSEP License shall include, but not limited to:
a) Use of Test Instruments
b) Identification of electronic/electrical components
c) Reading schematic Diagrams
d) Troubleshooting analysis
IS 2.14.8.1 APPENDIX C: ATSEP RATING – KNOWLEDGE

The On-the-job training (OJT) instruction and test for ATSEP rating Experience
requirement shall include at least the following subjects for each specific equipment:
a) Environmental knowledge for the equipment or system.
Detailed view of the technical and operational environment of the system and
equipment.
b) Theoretical section of the equipment or system.
Familiarization with the system or equipment, in particular with the principles,
descriptions, characteristics, performance standards and functionality of the hardware
and software elements.
c) Practical section enhanced by OJT on the equipment or system.
Work on live equipment under the supervision of an experienced ATSEP or instructor.

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IS 2.14.8.3 APPENDIX D: ATSEP RATING – SKILL TEST

The applicant shall have successfully completed the system and equipment rating training
and competency assessment.
The applicant shall have mastery on, but not limited to:
a) Details of the different components of the equipment;
b) Protocols used and the data flow;
c) Parameters and error messages;
d) Measurement and checking of different modules and their parameters;
e) Procedures in performing unit replacement and calibration;
f) Functionality of the Human Machine Interface (HMI) and System Monitoring &
Control (SMC) and their operation.

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PART 3
APPROVED TRAINING ORGANIZATIONS
Amendment 01 21 March 2011

i
PCAR PART 3

ii
PCAR PART 3

iii
PCAR PART 3

iv
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First Amendment 21 March 2011 3.2.1 Flight Crew Training Ramon S. Gutierrez
Courses
Second Amendment 01 August 2013 Inserted vertical bars on the LT GEN William K
previous amendments Hotchkiss III AFP (Ret)
Third Amendment 23 April 2018 3.1.2.1 General (b) Capt. Jim C. Sydiongco
3.1.2.2 Application for
Issuance or Amendment of
an ATO Certificate (e) (2)
(iv)
3.1.2.7 Facilities,
Equipment and Material (c)
3.2.1 Flight Crew Training
Courses (26)
3.2.5 Training Aircraft (a)
(1) (i)
3.2.6 Flight Simulation
Training Devices (b) (1) (i)
IS 3.1.2.2 Appendix A –
Application for Issuance or
Amendment of an ATO
Certificate (e) and (h)
Inspection (a) (4)
IS 3.2.2 Appendix C:
Instructors for training for
licenses and ratings (c)
IS 3.2.2 Appendix D:
Instructors for additional
class or type ratings (b) (i)
IS 3.2.2 Appendix E:
Instructors for flight
simulation training
device(s) (a) (i)
Fourth Amendment 28 December 3.1.2.3 Validity of the Capt. Jim C. Sydiongco
2018 Certificate and Renewal (a)
Fifth Amendment 09 June 2020 3.2.1 Flight Crew Training Capt. Jim C. Sydiongco
Courses (7), (8) and (14)

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Part 3 Approved Training Organizations
Cover Page i Amendment 01 21 March 2011
Board Resolution iii – v Amendment 01 21 March 2011
Record of Amendments vi Amendment 05 01 July 2020
List of Effective Pages vii – viii Amendment 05 01 July 2020
Table of Contents ix – xi Amendment 05 01 July 2020
Introduction
Page
3.1-1 Original Issue 23 June 2008
IS-1 Original Issue 23 June 2008

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TABLE OF CONTENTS
3.1 GENERAL……………..................................................................................... 3.1-1

3.1.1 General…………………………………………………………………………. 3.1-1
3.1.1.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………….. 3.1-1
3.1.1.2 Definitions…………………………………………………………………………. 3.1-1
3.1.1.3 Abbreviations……………………………………………………………………... 3.1-1
3.1.2 Certification and local requirements………………………………………….…. 3.1-2
3.1.2.1 General……………………………………………………………………………… 3.1-2
3.1.2.2 Application for issuance or amendment of an ATO certificate………………... 3.1-2
3.1.2.3 Validity of the certificate and renewal………………………………………........ 3.1-3
3.1.2.4 Inspection…………………………………………………………………….……. 3.1-4
3.1.2.5 Renewal of the certificate……………………………………………………..….. 3.1-4
3.1.2.6 Suspension or revocation……………………………………………………..….. 3.1-4
3.1.2.7 Facilities, equipment and material…………………………………………..…… 3.1-4
3.1.2.8 Location………………………………………………………………………..…… 3.1-5
3.1.2.9 Satellite ATOs…………………………………………………………….…..……. 3.1-5
3.1.2.10 Changes Requiring notice to the authority…………………………………….… 3.1-5
3.2 TRAINING FOR FLIGHT CREW LICENSES AND RATINGS………………… 3.2-1
3.2.1 Flight crew training courses……………………………………………………..… 3.2-1
3.2.2 Personnel………………………………………………………………………..…. 3.2-2
3.2.3 Record Keeping………………………………………………………………..….. 3.2-2
3.2.4 Training program and approval……………………………………………..…… 3.2-2
3.2.5 Training aircraft…………………………………………………………………...… 3.2-3
3.2.6 Flight Simulation Training Devices………………………………………………… 3.2-3
3.2.7 Airports and sites………………………………………………………………..… 3.2-4
3.2.8 Training facilities…………………………………………………………………… 3.2-4
3.2.9 Training manual and procedures manual……………………………………..… 3.2-4
3.3 TRAINING FOR LICENSESAND RATINGS FOR AVIATION
MAINTENANCE, AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLERS, FLIGHT OPERATIONS
OFFICERS AND AERONAUTICALSTATION OPERATORS……………… 3.3-1
3.3.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………………. 3.3-1
3.3.2 Training courses for licenses and rating for aviation maintenance, air traffic,
Controllers, flight operations officers and aeronautical station officers………..... 3.3-1

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3.3.3 Personnel…………….……………………………………………………………….. 3.3-1

3.3.4 Record keeping………………………..……………………………………………... 3.3-1
3.3.5 Training program and approval……………………………………………………. 3.3-2
3.3.6 Training facilities, equipment and material for aviation maintenance (AM)
Courses……………………………………………………………………………….. 3.3-2
3.3.7 Training, facilities, equipment and material for Air Traffic controller, flight
operations officer and aeronautical station operator courses…………………. 3.3-3
3.3.8 Training manual and procedures manual………………………………………… 3.3-3
3.4 AMT TRAINING COURSE………………………………………………………… 3.4-1
3.4.1 Applicability…………………………………………………………………………… 3.4-1
3.4.2 AMT training courses………………………………………………………………… 3.4-1
3.4.3 General Curriculum Requirements………………………………………………… 3.4-1
3.4.4 AMT Training Program Providers………………………………………………….. 3.4-2
3.4.5 Instructor Requirements……………………………………………………………… 3.4-2
3.4.6 Attendance and Credit for Prior Instruction or Experience………………………. 3.4-2
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX A – Application for Issuance or Amendment of an ATO
Certificate………………..…………………………………………………………… IS-2
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX B: Quality System…….………………………………………………. IS-2
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX C: Guidance Materials for Quality System………………….……... IS-2
IS 3.1.2.2 APPNDIX D: Aviation Training Organization Certificate………………..……...... IS-10
IS 3.1.2.4 APPENDIX A: Inspection…..……………………………………………………….. IS-11
IS 3.1.2.4 APPENDIX B: Inspection Report………………………………………………… IS-11
IS 3.1.2.5 Renewal…..…………………………………………………………………………. IS-13
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX A: Head of Training…………………………………………………… IS-13
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX B: Chief Flight Instructor…………….……………………………….. IS-13
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX C: Instructor for Training for License and Rating…………………. IS-14
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX D: Instructors for Additional Class or Type Rating………………… IS-14
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX E : Instructors for Synthetic Flight Training……………………….... IS-14
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX F: Instructors for Flight Engineer License and/or Ratings………… IS-14
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX G: Chief Ground Instructor (CGI)…………………………….……… IS-15
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX H: Ground instructors…………..……………….……………………. IS-15
IS 3.2.4 Flight crew Training Courses………………………………………………………. IS-15
IS 3.2.7 Airports and Sites…………………………………………………………………….. IS-15

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IS 3.2.9 APPENDIX A: Training Manual……………………………………………………. IS-16

IS 3.2.9 APPENDIX B: Procedures Manual………..………………………………………. IS-18
IS 3.4.3 AM Airframe and/or Powerplant and/or Avionics Ratings………………………. IS-19

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3.1 GENERAL
3.1.1 GENERAL
Part 3 prescribes the requirements governing the certification of Aviation Training
Organizations.
3.1.1.2 DEFINITIONS
(a) For the purpose of Part 3, the definitions in the Law, in Part 1 and 2 and the following
definitions shall apply:
(1) Accountable manager. The manager who has corporate Authority for ensuring
that all training commitments can be financed and carried out to the standard
required by the Authority and any additional requirements defined by the ATO. The
accountable manager may delegate in writing to another person within the
organization, the day to day management but not the overall approval management
responsibility.
Note: The “accountable manager” is not specifically defined under ICAO, but the
concept is partially discussed in ICAO Doc. 9642, Section IV, Chapter 2, as being
either the CEO or a high level corporate official who has financial responsibility for
the entire organization. The examples of an accountable manager are: the CEO,
President, Managing Director, Director General, General Manager, etc.
(2) Procedures manual. A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance
for use by personnel of the Aviation Training Organization in the execution of their
duties in meeting the requirements of the certificate.
(3) Quality manager. The manager, acceptable to the Authority, responsible for the
management of the Quality system, monitoring function and requesting corrective
actions.
(4) Training manual. A manual containing the training goals, objectives, standards
syllabi, and curriculum for each phase of the approved training course. ICAO Doc
7192, Part D-1.
(5) Training specifications. A document issued to an Aviation Training Organization
certificate holder by the Republic of the Philippines that specifies training program
requirements and authorizes the conduct of training, checking, and testing with any
limitations thereof.
3.1.1.3 ABBREVIATIONS
(1) A – Airplane
(2) AMT – Aviation Maintenance Technician
(3) ATCO – Air Traffic Controller
(4) ATO – Aviation Training Organization
(5) ATPL – Airline Transport Pilot License
(6) CFI – Chief Flight Instructor
(7) CGI – Chief Ground Instructor

3.1-1
PCAR PART 3
(8) CPL – Commercial Pilot License

(9) CRM – Crew Resource Management
(10) FE – Flight Engineer
(11) H – Helicopter
(12) IFR – Instrument Flight Rules
(13) ICAO – International Civil Aviation Organization
(14) MMEL – Master Minimum Equipment List
(15) PIC – Pilot-in-Command
(16) PPL – Private Pilot License
(17) RT – Radiotelephony
(18) VFR – Visual Flight Rules
3.1.2 CERTIFICATION AND LOCATION REQUIREMENTS

3.1.2.1 GENERAL
(a) No person may operate an Aviation Training Organization (ATO) without, or in violation
of, an ATO certificate and training specifications issued under this Part.
(b) No person may conduct training, testing and/or checking in Flight Simulation Training
Device(s) without, or in violation of, the certificate and training specifications required
under this Part.
(c) The Licensing Authority will issue to a Aviation Training Organization that meets the
requirements of this Part an ATO certificate and training specifications for providing
courses for flight crew licenses and ratings and for courses for personnel other than
flight crew members, as approved by the Authority.
3.1.2.2 APPLICATION FOR ISSUANCE OR AMENDMENT OF AN ATO

CERTIFICATE
(a) An applicant for an ATO certificate and training specifications shall apply at least 120
calendar days before the beginning of any proposed training.
(b) An applicant for an ATO certificate shall submit an application:
(1) In a form and manner prescribed by the Licensing Authority; and
(2) Containing any information the Licensing Authority requires the applicant to submit
including at least the information shown in IS 3.1.2.2, Appendix A.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.1.2.2 Appendix A for certificate information
needed by the Authority
(c) The ATO shall establish procedures acceptable to the Licensing Authority to ensure
compliance with all relevant requirements of this Part. The procedures shall include a
quality system which meets the procedures in IS: 3.1.2.2., Appendices B and C.
(d) An applicant for a certificate shall ensure that the facilities and equipment described in
its application are:
(1) available for inspection and evaluation prior to approval; and

3.1-2
PCAR PART 3
(2) in place and operational at the location of the ATO prior to issuance of a certificate
under this Part.
(e) The Authority will issue to an applicant who meets the requirements of this Part and is
approved by the Authority:
(1) an ATO certificate containing:
(i) the name, location of the ATO;
(ii) the date of issue and period of validity;
(iii) the authorized locations of operations; and
(iv) training courses for the following categories, as applicable: flight crew training,
training for personnel other than flight crew and other training as approved by
the Authority;
Implementing Standard: See IS 3.1.2.2 Appendix D for the Aviation Training
Organization Certificate
(2) Training Specifications containing:
(i) authorization for the ATO;
(ii) the type of training authorized, including approved courses;
(iii) the rating, category, class and type of aircraft, or parts thereof, that may be
used for training, testing and checking;
(iv) for each Flight Simulation Training Device(s) that may be used for training,
testing and checking, the make, model and series of aircraft being simulated,
the qualification level assigned and the identification number assigned by the
Authority;
(v) any aircraft, or parts thereof, approved for training, as appropriate;
(vi) authorized deviations or waivers from this Part;
(vii) staff required to perform under this Part; and
(viii) any other items the Authority may require or allow.
Implementing Standard: IS 3.1.2.2 – Appendix D – Aviation Training
Organization Certificate
(f) The Authority may deny a certificate if the Authority finds that the applicant does not
comply with the approval requirements of this Part.
(g) The Authority may amend an ATO certificate and/or the training specifications:
(1) On the Authority’s own initiative, under the applicable Republic of the Philippines
legislation; or
(2) Upon timely application by the certificate holder.
(h) An ATO located outside Republic of the Philippines may apply for a Republic of the
Philippines ATO certificate, to provide training leading to a license issued by Republic
of the Philippines, provided the requirements of this Part are met.
3.1.2.3 VALIDITY OF THE CERTIFICATE AND RENEWAL

(a) Subject to satisfactory compliance with the requirements of this Part, the validity of the
certificate is five (5) years.

3.1-3
PCAR PART 3
3.1.2.4 INSPECTION
(a) The Authority may, at any time, inspect an ATO holder on the ATO holder’s premises
to determine the ATO’s compliance with this Part.
(b) Inspections will normally be conducted at least annually, unless the certificate holder
continues to meet the requirements under which it was originally certificated. At the
discretion of the Authority the inspection may be extended to 24 months.
(c) After an inspection is made, the certificate holder will be notified, in writing, of any
deficiencies found during the inspection.
(d) Inspection will also be performed on the applicant for, or the holder of an ATO
certificate held outside Republic of the Philippines. This inspection may be delegated
to the Authority of the State where the ATO is located, provided an arrangement exists.
Implementing Standards: IS 3.1.2.4 Annex A and B for detailed inspection
requirements
3.1.2.5 RENEWAL OF THE CERTIFICATE

(a) An ATO may apply for renewal of its certificate within 30 days preceding the month its
ATO certificate expires, provided the ATO meets the requirements prescribed in this
Part.
(b) After the application the ATO will be inspected to ensure that it meets the requirements
prescribed in this Part.
Implementing Standards: IS 3.1.2.5 for detailed renewal requirements
3.1.2.6 SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION

(a) The Authority may suspend or revoke an issued ATO certificate, if it is established that
a certificate holder has not met, or no longer meets the requirements of Part 3.
3.1.2.7 FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT AND MATERIAL

(a) The facilities and working environment shall be appropriate for the task to be
performed.
(b) The ATO shall have, or have the necessary information, technical data, equipment,
training devices and material to conduct the courses for which it is approved.
(c) Flight Simulation Training Device(s) shall be qualified according to requirements
established by the Republic of the Philippines and their use shall be approved by the
Licensing Authority to ensure that they are appropriate to the task.
Note.- The manual of Criteria for the qualification of flight simulator (Doc 9625) and
FAA Advisory Circular 120-40B provides guidance on the approval of flight simulator.
AC 61-136 FAA Approval of Aviation Training Device(s) under use of Training and
Experience dated 17 November 2014.
(d) A certificate holder may not make a substantial change in facilities, equipment or
material that have been approved for a particular training program, unless that change
is approved by the Authority in advance.
(e) Each certificate holder shall maintain the records required by this Part in facilities
adequate for that purpose.

3.1-4
PCAR PART 3
3.1.2.8 LOCATION
(a) An applicant for, or holder of, a certificate issued under this Part shall establish and
maintain a principal business office that is physically located at the address shown on
its certificate.
3.1.2.9 SATELLITE ATOs

(a) The holder of an ATO certificate may conduct training in accordance with a training
program approved by the Authority at a satellite ATO if:
(1) the facilities, equipment, personnel and course content of the satellite ATO meet
the applicable requirements;
(2) the instructors at the satellite ATO are under the direct supervision of management
personnel of theprincipal ATO; and
(3) the certificate holder’s training specifications reflect the name and address of the
satellite ATO and the approved courses offered at the satellite ATO.
(b) The Authority will issue training specifications which prescribe the operations required
and authorized at each satellite ATO.
3.1.2.10 CHANGES REQUIRING NOTICE TO THE AUTHORITY

(a) Each ATO shall notify the Authority within 30 days of any of the following changes:
(1) the Accountable Manager;
(2) the Quality Manager;
(3) the instructional staff; and
(4) the housing, training facilities and equipment, procedures, training programs and
work scope that could affect the approval.
(b) The Authority may prescribe the conditions under which the ATO may operate during
such changes unless the Authority determines that the approval should be suspended.

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PCAR PART 3

3.1-6
PCAR PART 3
3.2 TRAINING FOR FLIGHT CREW LICENSES AND RATINGS

3.2.1 FLIGHT CREW TRAINING COURSES
The Authority may approve, as provided in the training specifications, the following courses
of instruction to an applicant for, or a holder of an ATO certificate, provided the applicant
meets the requirements of Parts 2 and 3:
(1) Private Pilot License (PPL) Course for Airplane Single-Engine (SE) Land/Sea;
(2) Private Pilot License (PPL) Course for Airplane Multi-Engine (ME) Land/Sea;
(3) Commercial Pilot License (CPL) Course for Airplane Single-Engine (SE) Land/Sea;
(4) Commercial Pilot License (CPL) Course for Airplane Multi-Engine (ME) Land/Sea;
(5) Instrument Rating (IR) Course for Airplane;
(6) Flight Instructor (FI) Course for Airplane Single-Engine (SE) Land/Sea;
(7) Flight Instructor (FI) Course for Airplane Multi-Engine (ME) Land/Sea;
(8) Flight Instructor (FI) Course with Instrument Rating (IR) Course for Airplane Single-
Engine (SE) Land/Sea;
(9) Flight Instructor (FI) Course with Instrument Rating (IR) Course for Airplane Multi-
Engine (ME) Land/Sea;
(10) Instructor Course for Synthetic Flight Training for Airplane Single-Engine (SE)
Land/Sea;
(11) Instructor Course for Synthetic Flight Training for Airplane Multi-Engine (ME)
Land/Sea;
(12) Refresher Course for Airplane Single-Engine (SE) Land/Sea;
(13) Refresher Course for Airplane Multi-Engine (ME) Land/Sea;
(14) Airline Transport Pilot License (ATPL) for Airplane;
(15) Commercial Pilot License (CPL) / Instrument Rating (IR), Multi-Engine (ME) /
Crew Resource Management (CRM) Integrated Course for Airplane;
(16) Flight Engineer License (FEL) Course;
(17) Flight Navigator License (FNL) Course;
(18) Multi-Crew Pilot License (MPL) Course for Airplane;
(19) Private Helicopter Pilot License (PHPL) Course;
(20) Commercial Helicopter Pilot License (CHPL) Course;
(21) Flight Instructor (FI) Course for Helicopter (H);
(22) Flight Instructor (FI) with Instrument Rating (IR) Course for Helicopter (H);
(23) Instrument Rating (IR) Course for Helicopter (H);
(24) Instructor Course for Synthetic Flight Training for Helicopter (H);
(25) Type Rating Training Course.
Note 1: See ICAO Document 7192, Part B-5, Volume 1 and 2 for Integrated
Commercial Pilot Course
Note 2: Course contents are not specified in detail in this Part 3 to allow courses
to be tailored to specific training needs of students and to be updated promptly. (21
March 2011)

3.2-1
PCAR PART 3
(26) Flight Instructor Course for on-airplane upset recovery training
3.2.2 PERSONNEL
(a) The ATO shall satisfy the Authority that there shall be on the staff:
(1) an Accountable Manager;
(2) a Quality Manager;
(3) a Head of Training;
(4) a Chief Flight Instructor, as applicable;
(5) a Chief Ground Instructor, as applicable; and
(6) an adequate number of ground and flight instructors relevant to the courses
provided.
(b) Each instructor to be used for flight training must hold an instructor rating or
authorization in accordance with 2.3, relevant to the instruction given.
(c) The ATO shall ensure that all instructional personnel receive initial and continuation
training appropriate to their assigned tasks and responsibilities. The training program
established by the training organization shall include training in knowledge and skills
related to human performance.
Note: Guidance material to design training programs to develop knowledge and skills
in human performance can be found in the ICAO Human Factors Training Manual (Doc
9583).
Implementing Standard: See IS 3.2.2 Appendix A – H for detailed requirements for
staff of the ATO.
3.2.3 RECORD KEEPING

(a) A certificate holder shall maintain and retain the following records for a period of one
year after the completion of training:
(1) details of ground, flying and simulated flight training given to individual students;
(2) detailed and regular progress reports from instructors including assessments, and
regular progress flight tests and ground examinations;
(3) personal trainee information, e.g. names, course, certificates held, expiry dates of
medical certificates, ratings, etc.; and
(4) record of each instructor that indicates qualifications and compliance with this Part
and Part 2.
(b) The format of the student training records shall be specified in the Training Manual
(c) The ATO shall submit training records and reports as required by the Authority.
3.2.4 TRAINING PROGRAM AND APPROVAL

(a) The applicant for, or the holder of an ATO certificate shall apply to the Authority for
training program approval.
(b) The applicant for, or the holder of an ATO certificate shall develop a training program
for each type of course offered. This program shall include;

3.2-2
PCAR PART 3
(1) a breakdown of flying and theoretical knowledge instruction in either a week-by-

week or phase presentation, a list of standard exercises and a curriculum
summary. In particular, synthetic flight training and theoretical knowledge
instruction shall be phased in such a manner as to ensure that students shall be
able to apply to flying exercises the knowledge gained on the ground;
(2) minimum aircraft and flight training equipment requirements for each proposed
program;
(3) minimum instructor qualifications for each proposed program; and
(4) a program for initial training and continuing training of each instructor employed to
instructing a proposed program.
(c) The content and sequence of the training program shall be acceptable to the Authority.
3.2.5 TRAINING AIRCRAFT

(a) An adequate fleet of training aircraft appropriate to the courses of training shall be
provided for the training for flight crew licenses and ratings. Each aircraft shall be fitted
with duplicated primary flight controls for use by the instructor and the student. Swing-
over flight controls shall not be acceptable.
(1) The fleet shall include, as appropriate to the courses of training, Airplane(s)
suitable for demonstrating stalling and spin avoidance.
(i) For on-airplane recovery training, Airplane(s) shall be qualified for the training
task; the Airplane(s) shall be certified for all bank and pitch attitudes and for
developed spins. Except for CPL and MPL, FTSDs may be used as an alternative,
if it can be demonstrated that the FSTD is capable of delivering the same results,
in particular the psycho-physiological effects effects equivalent to the aircraft.
(2) ATO fleet helicopter(s) shall include, as appropriate to the courses of training,
helicopter(s) suitable for auto-rotation demonstration.
(3) ATO fleet aircraft shall be suitably equipped to simulate instrument meteorological
conditions and suitably equipped for the instrument flight training and testing.
3.2.6 FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES

(a) An applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate, providing synthetic flight training, shall
satisfy the Authority that suitably equipped synthetic flight trainers are provided having
regard to the number of students and organization of courses.
(b) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate shall show that each synthetic flight
trainer used for training, testing and checking or is specifically qualified and approved
by the Authority for:
(1) each manoeuvre and procedure for the make, model and series of aircraft, set of
aircraft, or aircraft type simulated, as applicable; and
(i) For the purpose of UPRT, which includes stall and engine and airframe icing,
additional fidelities of the simulator features, aerodynamic flight and engine model,
flight controls and forces, motion cueing, and IOS are required.
(2) each training program or training course in which the synthetic flight trainer is used,
if that program or course is used to satisfy any requirement of these regulations.

3.2-3
PCAR PART 3
3.2.7 AIRPORTS AND SITES

(a) Each applicant for, and holder of, an ATO certificate shall show that it has continuous
use of each airport and sites (for helicopter training) at which training flights originate,
and that the airport has an adequate runway and the necessary equipment.
Implementing Standard: See 3.2.7 for specific runway and equipment requirements
and requirements for sites.
3.2.8 TRAINING FACILITIES

(a) An applicant for, and holder of an ATO certificate shall have facilities, as determined
by the Authority, appropriate for the maximum number of students expected to be
taught at any time, as follows:
(1) Flight operations facilities:
(i) an operations room;
(ii) a flight planning room
(iii) adequate briefing rooms
(iv) offices for the instructors
(2) Knowledge instruction facilities
(i) classroom accommodation,
(ii) suitable demonstration equipment;
(iii) a RT training and testing facility
(iv) a library
(v) offices for instructors
(b) A certificate holder may not make a substantial change in facilities, equipment or
3.2.9 TRAINING MANUAL AND PROCEDURES MANUAL

(a) Each applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate shall prepare and maintain a Training
Manual and a Procedures Manual containing information and instructions to enable
staff to perform their duties and to give guidance to students on how to comply with
course requirements, as listed in IS 3.2.9 Appendix A: Training Manual and IS 3.2.9
Appendix B: Procedures Manual.
(b) The Training Manual and Procedures Manual may be combined.
(c) The ATO shall ensure that the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual are
amended as necessary to keep the information contained therein up to date.
(d) Copies of all amendments to the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual shall be
furnished promptly to all organizations or persons to whom the manual has been
issued.
Implementing Standards: See IS 3.2.9 Appendix A and B for detailed requirements for
the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual and format for each manual.

3.2-4
PCAR PART 3

3.2-5
PCAR PART 3
3.3 TRAINING FOR LICENSES AND RATINGS FOR AVIATION

MAINTENANCE, AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLERS, FLIGHT
OPERATIONS OFFICERS AND AERONAUTICAL STATION
OPERATORS
3.3.1 APPLICABILITY
(a) Certification under this Subpart is not required for training that is approved under the
provisions of Part 9.
3.3.2 TRAINING COURSES FOR LICENSES AND RATINGS FOR AVIATION

MAINTENANCE, AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLERS, FLIGHT OPERATION
OFFICERS AND AERONAUTICAL STATION OPERATORS.
The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an applicant for, or a
holder of an ATO certificate, provided the applicant meets the requirements of CAR Parts
2 and 3:
(a) Aviation maintenance license course
(b) Airframe rating, powerplant rating, avionics rating course
(c) Air traffic controller license course
(d) Courses for ratings for Air traffic controller licenses
(e) Flight operations officer course
(f) Aeronautical station operator course
Note: Course contents are not specified in detail because it allows courses to be
tailored to specific training needs of students and to be updated in a quicker way.
3.3.3 PERSONNEL
(a) The ATO shall satisfy the Authority that an adequate number of qualified, competent
staff are employed as follows:
(1) An Accountable Manager;
(2) A Quality Control Manager;
(3) A Head of Training; and
(4) An adequate number of instructors relevant to the courses provided, qualified in
accordance with the requirements of Part 2.
(b) The ATO shall ensure that all instructional personnel receive initial and continuation
training appropriate to their assigned tasks and responsibilities. The training program
established by the training organization shall include training in knowledge and skills
related to human performance.
Note: Guidance material to design training programs to develop knowledge and skills
in human performance can be found in the ICAO Human Factors Training Manual (Doc
9583).
3.3.4 RECORD KEEPING

(a) A certificate holder shall maintain and retain the following records for a minimum period
of one year after the completion of training:

3.3-1
PCAR PART 3
(1) details of training given to individual students;

(2) detailed and regular progress reports from instructors including assessments, and
regular progress tests and examinations;
(3) personal trainee information, e.g. names, course, certificates held, expiry dates of
medical certificates, if applicable, ratings, etc.; and
(4) record of each instructor that indicates qualifications and compliance with this Part
and Part 2.
(b) The ATO shall submit training records and reports as required by the Authority.
3.3.5 TRAINING PROGRAM AND APPROVAL

(a) Each applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate, shall apply to the Authority for
training program approval.
(b) Each applicant shall ensure that each training program submitted to the Authority for
approval meets the applicable requirements.
(c) Each applicant for training program approval shall indicate in the application:
(1) Which courses are part of the program; and
(2) Which requirements of Part 2 will be satisfied by the training program.
(d) After a certificate holder begins operations under an approved training program, the
Authority may require the certificate holder to make revisions to the training program,
if the Authority finds that the certificate holder is not meeting the provisions of its
approved training program.
3.3.6 TRAINING FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT AND MATERIAL FOR AVIATION

MAINTENANCE (AM) COURSES
(a) An applicant for, and holder of, an ATO certificate shall have facilities, as determined
by the Authority, appropriate for the maximum number of students expected to be
taught at any time, as follows:
(1) An enclosed classroom.
(2) Suitable facilities arranged to assure proper separation from the working space, for
parts, tools, materials and similar articles.
(3) Suitable area for application of finishing materials, including paint spraying.
(4) Suitable areas equipped with wash-tank and degreasing equipment with air
pressure or other adequate cleaning equipment.
(5) Suitable facilities for running engines.
(6) Suitable area with adequate equipment, including benches, tables, and test
equipment, to disassemble, service and inspect:
(i) Ignition systems, electrical equipment and appliances;
(ii) Carburetors and fuel systems; and
(iii) Hydraulic and vacuum systems for aircraft, aircraft engines, and their
appliances.
(7) Suitable space with adequate equipment, including tables, benches, stands and
jacks for disassembling, inspecting and rigging aircraft.

3.3-2
PCAR PART 3
(8) Suitable space with adequate equipment for disassembling, inspecting,

assembling, troubleshooting and timing engines.
(b) An applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate with approved AM courses shall have
and maintain the following instructional equipment as is appropriate to the rating
sought:
(1) Various kinds of airframe structures, airframe systems and components,
powerplants and powerplant system and components (including propellers) of a
quantity and type suitable to complete the practical projects required by its
approved training program;
(2) At least one aircraft of a type acceptable to the Authority;
(c) An applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate with an AM rating shall have airframes,
powerplants, propellers, appliances and components thereof, to be used for instruction
and from which students will gain practical working experience and shall insure that
the airframes, powerplants, propellers, appliances and components thereof be
sufficiently diversified as to show the different methods of construction, assembly,
inspection and operation when installed in an aircraft for use.
(d) An applicant for an ATO certificate with an AM rating, or an applicant seeking an
additional AM rating, shall have at least the facilities, equipment and materials
appropriate to the rating sought.
(e) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate with an AM rating shall maintain, on
the premises and under the full control of the ATO, an adequate supply of material,
special tools and shop equipment used in constructing and maintaining aircraft as is
appropriate to the approved training program of the ATO, in order to assure that each
student will be properly instructed.
(f) A certificate holder may not make a substantial change in facilities, equipment or
3.3.7 TRAINING FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT AND MATERIAL FOR AIR TRAFFIC

CONTROLLER, FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICER AND
AERONAUTICAL STATION OPERATOR COURSES
Reserved.
3.3.8 TRAINING MANUAL AND PROCEDURES MANUAL

(a) Each applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate shall prepare and maintain a Training
Manual and a Procedures Manual containing information and instructions to enable
staff to perform their duties and to give guidance to students on how to comply with
course requirements.
(b) The Training Manual and Procedures Manual may be combined.
(c) The ATO shall ensure that the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual is
amended as necessary to keep the information contained therein up to date.
(d) Copies of all amendments to the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual shall be
furnished promptly to all organizations or persons to whom the manual has been
issued.

3.3-3
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3.3-4
PCAR PART 3
3.4 AMT TRAINING COURSE

3.4.1 APPLICABILITY
(a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for—
(1) Issuing ATO certificates and ratings;
(2) Conducting licensing courses and associated ratings for AMTs; and
(3) Instructing the general operating rules for the holders of AMT licenses and ratings.
3.4.2 AMT TRAINING COURSES

(a) The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an applicant for, or
holder of an ATO certificate, provided the applicant meets the requirements of 3.1.2.2
(1) AMT—
(i) Airframe rating;
(ii) Powerplant rating;
(iii) Airframe and Powerplant rating; and
(iv) Avionics rating.
3.4.3 GENERAL CURRICULUM REQUIREMENTS

(a) Each ATO shall have an approved curriculum that is designed to qualify its students to
perform the duties of an AMT for a particular rating or ratings.
(b) The curriculum shall offer at least the following number of hours of instruction shown,
and the instruction unit hour shall be not less than 50 minutes in length.
(1) Airframe – 1,150 hours (400 general plus 750 airframe).
(2) Powerplant – 1,150 hours (400 general and 750 powerplant).
(3) Combined airframe and powerplant – 1,900 hours (400 general plus 750 airframe
and 750 powerplant).
(4) Avionics - 1,150 hours (400 hours of General Subjects, and 750 hours of Avionics
Subjects)
(c) The curriculum shall cover the subjects and items prescribed in IS: 3.4.3, AMT Airframe
and/or Powerplant and/or Avionics Ratings
(d) Each ATO shall teach each subject to at least the indicated level of proficiency defined
in IS: 3.4.3, AMT Airframe and/or Powerplant and/or Avionics Ratings.
(e) The certificate holder shall maintain a curriculum that shows—
(1) The required practical projects to be completed;
(2) For each subject, the proportions of theory and other instruction to be given; and
(3) A list of the minimum required tests to be given.
(f) Each ATO may issue AMT licenses of competency to persons successfully completing
speciality courses provided that all requirements are met and the licenses of
competency specifies the aircraft make and model to which the license applies.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.4.3, AMT Airframe and/or Powerplant and/or
Avionics Ratings for applicable AMT course curri14 CFR: 147.21

3.4-1
PCAR PART 3
3.4.4 AMT TRAINING PROGRAM PROVIDERS

(a) The holder of a training organization applicant may apply to the Authority for approval
for an AMT training program.
(b) An AOC holder, an AMO, or an ATO may apply to the Authority for approval for an
AMT training program that meets the requirements of this Subpart.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.4.3 for AMT training program curriculum
requirements.
3.4.5 INSTRUCTOR REQUIREMENTS

(a) Each ATO shall provide the number of instructors holding appropriate licenses and
ratings, issued under Part 2, Section 2.6.2 that the Authority determines is necessary
to provide adequate instruction and supervision of the students, including at least one
such instructor for each 25 students in each class held in a shop where students are
performing actual tasks appropriate to the curriculum.
(b) An ATO may provide specialized instructors, who are not licensed in accordance with
Part 2, to teach mathematics, physics, basic electricity, basic hydraulics, drawing, and
similar subjects.
(c) Each ATO shall maintain a list of the names and qualifications of such specialized
instructors, and upon request, provide a copy of the list, with a summary of the
qualifications of each specialized instructor to the Authority.
3.4.6 ATTENDANCE AND CREDIT FOR PRIOR INSTRUCTION OR EXPERIENCE

(a) An ATO may credit a student with instruction or previous experience as follows:
(1) Instruction satisfactorily completed at—
(i) An accredited university, college, or junior college;
(ii) An accredited vocational, technical, trade or high school;
(iii) A military technical school; or (iv) An ATO.
(2) Previous aviation maintenance experience comparable to required curriculum
subjects—
(i) By determining the amount of credit to be allowed by documents verifying
previous experience; and
(ii) By giving the student a test equal to the one given to students who complete
the comparable required curriculum subject at the ATO.
(3) Credit to be allowed for previous instruction —
(i) By an entrance test equal to one given to the students who complete a
comparable required curriculum subject at the crediting ATO;
(ii) By an evaluation of an authenticated transcript from the student's former
school; or
(iii) In the case of an applicant from a military school, only on the basis of an
entrance test.
(4) A certificate holder may credit a student seeking an additional rating with previous
satisfactory completion of the general portion of an ATO’s curriculum.

3.4-2
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(b) Each ATO shall show hours of absence allowed and how it will make missed material
available to the student.

3.4-3
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3.4-4
PCAR PART 3

PART 3: IS
APPROVED TRAINING ORGANIZATIONS


IS-1
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IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX A – APPLICATION FOR ISSUANCE OR AMENDMENT OF AN

ATO CERTIFICATE
Each applicant for an ATO certificate and training specification shall provide the Authority
with the following information:
(a) a statement showing that the minimum qualification requirements for each
management position are met;
(b) a description of the minimum qualifications and ratings for each instructor;
(c) a statement acknowledging that the applicant may notify the Authority within 10
working days of any change made in the assignment of persons in the required
management or instructors positions;
(d) the proposed training specifications requested by the applicant;
(e) a description of the training equipment that the applicant proposes to use e.g. the
aircraft, the Flight Simulation Training Device(s) including any special equipment used
for each phase of training;
(f) a listing of the airports or sites at which training flights originate and a description of
the applicant’s training facilities, equipment and qualifications of personnel to be use;
and
(g) a training program, including manuals, curricula, outlines, courseware, procedures and
documentation to support the items required in 3.2.3, 3.2.4, 3.3.4 and 3.3.5.
(h) In case of conducting on-airplane upset recovery training for instructors and/or
students a statement about:
(i) how the safety risks associated with this training are identified and mitigated; and
(ii) The procedures for minimum dispatch and weather criteria, such as minimum safe
altitudes, cloud clearances and airspace restrictions.
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX B - QUALITY SYSTEM

(a) In a quality system of an ATO for training for licenses and ratings the following five
elements should be clear identifiable:
(1) determination of the organization’s training policy and training and flight safety
standards;
(2) determination and establishment of assignment of responsibility, resources,
organization and operational processes, which will make allowance for policy and
training and flight safety standards;
(3) follow up system to ensure that policy, training and flight safety standards are
complied with;
(4) registration and documentation of deviations from policy, training and flight safety
standards together with necessary analysis, evaluations and correction of such
deviations; and
(5) evaluation of experiences and trends concerning policy, training and flight safety
standards.
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX C - GUIDANCE MATERIAL FOR A QUALITY SYSTEM

(a) Introduction

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(1) A basis for quality should be established by every ATO and problem-solving
techniques to run processes should be applied. Knowledge in how to measure,
establish and ultimately achieve quality in training and education is considered to
be essential.
(2) The purpose of this Guidance material is to provide information and guidance to
the ATO on how to establish a Quality System that enables compliance with 3.1.2.2
(c).
(3) In order to show compliance with 3.1.2.2 (c) an ATO should establish its Quality
System in accordance with the instructions and information contained in the
succeeding paragraphs.
(b) The Quality system of the ATO
(1) Terminology
(i) Quality. The totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that
bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.
(ii) Quality Assurance. All those planned and systematic actions necessary to
provide adequate confidence that all training activities satisfy given
requirements, including the ones specified by the ATO in relevant manuals.
(iii) Quality Manual. The document containing the relevant information pertaining
to the ATO’s quality system and quality assurance program.
(iv) Quality audit. A systematic and independent examination to determine whether
quality activities and related results comply with planned arrangements and
whether these arrangements are implemented effectively and are suitable to
achieve objectives.
(2) Quality Policy and Strategy
(i) It is of vital importance that the ATO describes how the organization formulates,
deploys, reviews its policy and strategy and turns it into plans and actions. A
formal written Quality Policy Statement should be established that is a
commitment by the Head of Training, as to what the Quality System is intended
to achieve. The Quality Policy should reflect the achievement and continued
compliance with relevant parts of Part 2 and 3 together with any additional
standards specified by the ATO.
(ii) The Accountable Manager will have overall responsibility for the Quality
System including the frequency, format and structure of the internal
management evaluation activities.
(3) Purpose of a Quality System: The implementation and employment of a Quality
System will enable the ATO to monitor compliance with relevant parts of Part 2 and
3, the Procedures Manual and the Training Manual, and any other standards as
established by the ATO, or the Authority, to ensure safe and efficient training.
(4) Quality Manager
(i) The primary role of the Quality Manager is to verify, by monitoring activities in
the field of training, that the standards required by the Authority, and any
additional requirements as established by the ATO are being carried out
properly under the supervision of the Head of Training, Chief Flight Instructor
and Chief Ground Instructor.
(ii) The Quality Manager should be responsible for ensuring that the Quality
Assurance Program is properly implemented, maintained and continuously

IS-3
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reviewed and improved. The Quality Manager should: - have direct access to
the Head of Training; - have access to all parts of the ATO’s organization.
(iii) In the case of small or very small ATO’s, the posts of the Head of Training and
the Quality Manager may be combined. However, in this event, quality audits
should be conducted by independent personnel.
(5) Quality System
(i) The Quality System of the ATO should ensure compliance with and adequacy
of training activities conducted.
(ii) The ATO should specify the basic structure of the Quality System applicable to
all training activities conducted.
(iii) The Quality System should be structured according to the size of the ATO and
the complexity of the training to be monitored.
(6) Scope: A quality System should address the following:
(i) Leadership
(ii) Policy and Strategy
(iii) Processes
(iv) The provisions of Parts 2 and 3
(v) Additional standards and training procedures as stated by the ATO
(vi) The organizational structure of the ATO
(vii) Responsibility for the development, establishment and management of the
Quality System
(viii) Documentation, including manuals, reports and records
(ix) Quality Assurance Program
(x) The required financial, material and human resources
(xi) Training requirements
(xii) Customer satisfaction
(7) Feedback System: The quality system should include a feedback system to ensure
that corrective actions are both identified and promptly addressed. The feedback
system should also specify who is required to rectify discrepancies and non-
compliance in each particular case, and the procedure to be followed if corrective
action is not completed within an appropriate timescale.
(8) Documentation: Relevant documentation includes the relevant part(s) of the
Training and Procedures Manual, which may be included in a separate Quality
Manual.
(i) In addition relevant document should also include the following:
(A) Quality Policy
(B) Terminology
(C) Specified training standards
(D) A description of the organization
(E) The allocation of duties and responsibilities
(F) Training procedures to ensure regulatory compliance

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(ii) The Quality Assurance Program, reflecting:

(A) Schedule of the monitoring process
(B) Audit procedures
(C) Reporting procedures
(D) Follow-up and corrective action procedures
(E) Recording System
(F) The training syllabus
(G) Document control
(9) Quality Assurance Program: The Quality Assurance Program should include all
planned and systematic actions necessary to provide confidence that all training
are conducted in accordance with all applicable requirements, standards and
procedures.
(10) Quality Inspection
(i) The primary purpose of a quality inspection is to observe a particular
event/action/document etc., in order to verify whether established training
procedures and requirements are followed during the accomplishment of that
event and whether the required standard is achieved.
(ii) Typical subject areas for quality inspections are:
(A) Actual flight and ground training
(B) Maintenance
(C) Technical Standards
(D) Training Standards
(11) Audit
(i) An audit is a systematic, and independent comparison of the way in which a
training is being conducted against the way in which the published training
procedures say it should be conducted.
(ii) Audits should include at least the following quality procedures and processes:
(A) An explanation of the scope of the audit
(B) Planning and preparation
(C) Gathering and recording evidence
(D) Analysis of the evidence
(iii) The various techniques that make up an effective audit are:
(A) Interviews or discussions with personnel
(B) A review of published documents
(C) The examination of an adequate sample of records
(D) The witnessing of the activities which make up the training
(E) The preservation of documents and the recording of observations
(12) Auditors

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(i) The ATO should decide, depending on the complexity of the training, whether
to make use of a dedicated audit team or a single auditor. In any event, the
auditor or audit team should have relevant training and/or operational
experience.
(ii) The responsibilities of the auditors should be clearly defined in the relevant
documentation.
(13) Auditor’s Independence
(i) Auditors should not have any day-to-day involvement in the area of the
operation or maintenance activity which is to be audited. An ATO may, in
addition to using the services of full-time dedicated personnel belonging to a
separate quality department, undertake the monitoring of specific areas or
activities by the use of part-time auditors.
(ii) An ATO whose structure and size does not justify the establishment of full-time
auditors, may undertake the audit function by the use of part-time personnel
from within its own organization or from an external source under the terms of
an agreement acceptable to the Authority.
(iii) In all cases the ATO should develop suitable procedures to ensure that persons
directly responsible for the activities to be audited are not selected as part of
the auditing team. Where external auditors are used, it is essential that any
external specialist is familiar with the type of training conducted by the ATO.
(iv) The Quality Assurance Program of the ATO should identify the persons within
the company who have the experience, responsibility and Authority to:
(A) Perform quality inspections and audits as part of ongoing Quality
Assurance
(B) Identify and record any concerns or findings, and the evidence necessary
to substantiate such concerns or findings
(C) Initiate or recommend solutions to concerns or findings through designated
reporting channels
(D) Verify the implementation of solutions within specific timescales
(E) Report directly to the Quality Manager
(14) Audit Scope: ATOs are required to monitor compliance with the Training and
Procedures Manuals they have designed to ensure safe and efficient training. In
doing so they should as a minimum, and where appropriate, monitor:
(i) Organization
(ii) Plans and objectives
(iii) Training Procedures
(iv) Flight Safety
(v) Manuals, Logs and Records
(vi) Flight and Duty Time limitations
(vii) Rest requirements and scheduling
(viii) Aircraft Maintenance/Operations interface
(ix) Maintenance programs and continued airworthiness
(x) Maintenance accomplishment

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(15) Audit Scheduling

(i) A Quality Assurance Program should include a defined audit schedule and a
periodic review cycle. The schedule should be flexible, and allow unscheduled
audits when trends are identified. Follow-up audits should be scheduled when
necessary to verify that corrective action was carried out and that it was
effective.
(ii) An ATO should establish a schedule of audits to be completed during a specific
calendar period. All aspects of the training should be reviewed within a period
of 12 months in accordance with the program unless an extension to the audit
period is accepted as explained below.
(iii) An ATO may increase the frequency of their audits at their discretion but should
not decrease the frequency without the acceptance of the Authority. It is
considered unlikely that a period of greater than 24 months would be
acceptable for any audit topic.
(iv) When an ATO defines the audit schedule, significant changes to the
management, organization, training, or technologies should be considered, as
well as changes to the regulatory requirements.
(16) Monitoring and corrective action
(i) The aim of monitoring within the Quality System is primarily to investigate and
judge its effectiveness and thereby to ensure that defined policy, training
standards are continuously complied with. Monitoring activity is based upon
quality inspections, audits, corrective action and follow-up. The ATO should
establish and publish a quality procedure to monitor regulatory compliance on
a continuing basis. This monitoring activity should be aimed at eliminating the
causes of unsatisfactory performance.
(ii) Any non-compliance identified should be communicated to the manager
responsible for taking corrective action or, if appropriate, the Accountable
Manager. Such non-compliance should be recorded, for the purpose of further
investigation, in order to determine the cause and to enable the
recommendation of appropriate corrective action.
(iii) The Quality Assurance Program should include procedures to ensure that
corrective actions are developed in response to findings. These quality
procedures should monitor such actions to verify their effectiveness and that
they have been completed. Organizational responsibility and accountability for
the implementation of corrective action resides with the department cited in the
report identifying the finding. The Accountable Manager will have the ultimate
responsibility for ensuring, through the Quality Manager(s), that corrective
action has re-established compliance with the standard required by the
Authority and any additional requirements established by the ATO.
(17) Corrective action
(i) Subsequent to the quality inspection/audit, the ATO should establish:
(A) The seriousness of any findings and any need for immediate corrective
action
(B) The origin of the finding
(C) What corrective actions are required to ensure that the non-compliance
does not recur
(D) A schedule for corrective action

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(E) The identification of individuals or departments responsible for

implementing corrective action
(F) Allocation of resources by the Accountable Manager, where appropriate
(ii) The Quality Manager should:
(A) Verify that corrective action is taken by the manager responsible in
response to any finding of non-compliance
(B) Verify that corrective action includes the elements outlined in paragraph
(16) above
(C) Monitor the implementation and completion of corrective action
(D) Provide management with an independent assessment of corrective action,
implementation and completion
(E) Evaluate the effectiveness of corrective action through the follow-up
process
(18) Management Evaluation
(i) A management evaluation is a comprehensive, systematic documented review
by the management of the quality system, training policies, and procedures,
and should consider: The results of quality inspections, audits and any other
indicators; as well as the overall effectiveness of the management organization
in achieving stated objectives. A management evaluation should identify and
correct trends, and prevent, where possible, future non-conformities.
Conclusions and recommendations made as a result of an evaluation should
be submitted in writing to the responsible manager for action. The responsible
manager should be an individual who has the Authority to resolve issues and
take action. The Accountable Manager should decide upon the frequency,
format, and structure of internal management evaluation activities.
(19) Recording
(i) Accurate, complete and readily accessible records documenting the result of
the Quality Assurance Program should be maintained by the ATO. Records are
essential data to enable an ATO to analyze and determine the root causes of
non-conformity, so that areas of non-compliance can be identified and
subsequently addressed.
(ii) The following records should be retained for a period of 5 years:
(A) Audit schedules
(B) Quality inspection and audit reports
(C) Responses to findings
(D) Corrective action reports
(E) Follow-up and closure reports
(F) Management evaluation reports
(20) Quality Assurance Responsibility for Satellite ATOs
(i) An ATO may decide to sub-contract out in accordance with Subpart 3.1.2.10,
certain activities to external organizations subject to the approval of the
Authority.
(ii) The ultimate responsibility for the training provided by the satellite ATO always
remains with the ATO. A written agreement should exist between the ATO and

IS-8
PCAR PART 3
the satellite ATO clearly defining the safety related services and quality to be
provided. The satellite ATO’s safety related activities relevant to the agreement
should be included in the ATO’s Quality Assurance Program.
(iii) The ATO should ensure that the satellite ATO has the necessary
authorization/approval when required, and commands the resources and
competence to undertake the task. If the ATO requires the satellite ATO to
conduct activity which exceeds the satellite ATO’s authorization/approval, the
ATO is responsible for ensuring that the satellite ATO’s quality assurance takes
account of such additional requirements.
(21) Quality System Training
(i) Correct and thorough training is essential to optimize quality in every
organization. In order to achieve significant outcomes of such training the ATO
should ensure that all staff understand the objectives as laid down in the Quality
Manual.
(ii) Those responsible for managing the Quality System should receive training
covering:
(A) An introduction to the concept of Quality System
(B) Quality management
(C) Concept of Quality Assurance
(D) Quality manuals
(E) Audit techniques
(F) Reporting and recording
(G) The way in which the Quality System will function in the ATO
(iii) Time should be provided to train every individual involved in quality
management and for briefing the remainder of the employees. The allocation
of time and resources should be governed by the size and complexity of the
operation concerned.
(22) Sources of Training:
Quality management courses are available from the various National or
International Standards Institutions, and an ATO should consider whether to offer
such courses to those likely to be involved in the management of Quality Systems.
Organizations with sufficient appropriately qualified staff should consider whether
to carry out in-house training.
(23) Quality Systems for small/very small Organizations
(i) The requirement to establish and document a Quality System and to employ a
Quality Manager applies to all ATOs.
(ii) Complex quality systems could be inappropriate for small or very small ATOs
and the clerical effort required to draw up manuals and quality procedures for
a complex system may stretch their resources. It is therefore accepted that
such ATOs should tailor their quality systems to suit the size and complexity of
their training and allocate resources accordingly.
(iii) For small and very small ATOs it may be appropriate to develop a Quality
Assurance Program that employs a checklist. The checklist should have a
supporting schedule that requires completion of all checklist items within a
specified timescale, together with a statement acknowledging completion of a

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periodic review by top management. An occasional independent overview of

the checklist content and achievement of the Quality Assurance should be
undertaken.
(iv) The small ATO may decide to use internal or external auditors or a combination
of the two. In these circumstances it would be acceptable for external
specialists and or qualified organizations to perform the quality audits on behalf
of the Quality Manger.
(v) If the independent quality audit function is being conducted by external
auditors, the audit schedule should be shown in the relevant documentation.
(vi) Whatever arrangements are made, the main ATO retains the ultimate
responsibility for the quality system and especially the completion and flowing.
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX D – AVIATION TRAINING ORGANIZATION CERTIFICATE

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IS 3.1.2.4 APPENDIX A: INSPECTION

(a) The inspection shall focus on:
(1) staff: adequacy of number and qualifications;
(2) instructors: validity of licenses and ratings; logbooks;
(3) training aircraft: registration; associated documents; maintenance records;
(4) Flight Simulation Training Device(s) qualification and approval;
(5) facilities: adequacy to the courses being conducted and the number of students;
(6) documentation: documents related to the courses; updating system; training and
operations manuals;
(7) training records and checking forms;
(8) flight instruction including pre-flight briefing, actual flight debriefing for ATOs for
flight crew training;
(9) instruction program for personnel other than flight crew;
(10) quality system.
IS 3.1.2.4 APPENDIX B: INSPECTION REPORT

Report for the inspection of an ATO for training for flight crew licenses.
INSPECTION REPORT
AVIATION TRAINING ORGANIZATION
Approved Courses Inspected

(Tick those relevant)

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Itemized Inspector’s report

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Note 1: Where it has not been possible to carry out a check item, this shall be stated with
reasons.
Note 2: Any item(s) marked unsatisfactory shall have an explanation attached to this
report.
IS 3.1.2.5 Renewal
(a) The holder of an ATO approval must apply for a renewal in sufficient time before the
expiry date of the approval certificate in order to continue training without interruption
because of the expiry date of the approval certificate. Renewal of approval is based on
criteria and a report in IS 3.1.2.4.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix A: Head of Training

(a) The Head of Training shall have overall responsibility for ensuring satisfactory
integration of flying training, synthetic flight training and theoretical knowledge
instruction and for supervising the progress of individual students. The Head of
Training shall have had extensive experience in training as a flight instructor for
professional pilot licenses and possess a sound managerial capability.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix B: Chief Flight Instructor (CFI)

(a) The CFI shall be responsible for the supervision of flight and synthetic flight instructors
and for the standardization of all flight instruction and synthetic flight instruction.
(b) The CFI shall:
(1) hold the highest professional pilot license related to the flying training courses
conducted;
(2) hold the rating(s) related to the flying training courses conducted;

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(3) hold a flight instructor rating for at least one of the types of aircraft used on the
course; and
(4) have completed 1,000 hours pilot-in-command flight time of which a minimum of
500 hours shall be on flying instructional duties related to the flying courses
conducted, of which 200 hours may be instrument ground time.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix C: Instructors for training for licenses and ratings

Flight instructors, shall hold:
(a) A professional pilot license and rating(s) in accordance with Part 2 related to the flying
training courses they are appointed to conduct; and
(b) an instructor rating or authorization in accordance with Part 2, relevant to the part of
the course being conducted e.g. flight instructor, flight instrument rating instructor,
instructor for additional class or type rating(s), instructor for synthetic flight training, as
appropriate.
(c) Before delivering UPRT instructor should have received UPRT instructor training,
details are specified in IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX C.
(1) On-airplane recovery training requires special instructor qualification. Before
delivering UPRT for on-airplane recovery instruction, a certificate of completion
and a logbook-entry, issued by the ATO for successful completion of on-airplane-
upset recovery instructor training. During this course, the ATO shall provide
training-to-proficiency and shall continuously assess and record the performance
of the instructor under training.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix D: Instructors for additional class or type ratings

Instructors for additional class or type ratings training shall hold:
(a) the license and the rating(s) in accordance with Part 2 related to the class or type rating
training courses they are appointed to conduct; and
(b) an instructor rating in accordance with Part 2, relevant to the part of the course being
conducted.
(i) Before delivering UPRT instructors shall have received UPRT instructor training.
Details are specified in IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX C.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix E: Instructors for flight simulation training device(s)

(a) Instructors for synthetic flight training shall hold the authorization in accordance with
Part 2 related to the synthetic flight training courses they are appointed to conduct.
(i) Before UPRT instructors shall have received UPRT instructor training. Details are
specified in IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX C.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix F: Instructors for flight engineer licenses and/or ratings
Instructors for flight engineer licenses and rating training shall hold:
(a) the license and the rating(s) in accordance with Part 2 related to the flight engineer
license and/or rating training courses they are appointed to conduct; and
(b) an instructor rating in accordance with Part 2, relevant to the part of the course being
conducted.

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IS 3.2.2 Appendix G: Chief ground instructor (CGI)

(a) The CGI shall be responsible for the supervision of all ground instructors and for the
standardization of all theoretical knowledge instruction.
(b) The CGI shall have a practical background in aviation and have undergone a course
of training in instructional techniques or have had extensive previous experience in
giving theoretical knowledge instruction.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix H: Ground instructors

(a) Ground instructors in license and ratings knowledge subjects shall have appropriate
experience in aviation and shall, before appointment, give proof of their competency
by giving a test lecture based on material they have developed for the subjects they
are to teach.
IS 3.2.4 Flight crew training courses

(a) Each applicant for, and holder of, an approved flight crew training course shall include
training on the knowledge and flight training subjects that are based on the
requirements of Part 2 and are:
(1) needed to safely exercise the privileges of the license, rating or authorization for
which the course is established; and
(2) conducted to develop competency, proficiency, resourcefulness, self-confidence
and self-reliance in each student.
(b) Each applicant for, and holder of, an approved flight crew training course shall include:
(1) the knowledge and flight training that is appropriate to the aircraft rating and flight
crew license level for which the course applies; and
(2) an adequate number of total knowledge and flight training hours appropriate to the
aircraft rating and flight crew license level for which the course applies.
(c) Each person, to graduate from an approved pilot training course shall satisfactorily
accomplish the progress checks and skill tests, consisting of the areas of operation
that are appropriate to the operating privileges or authorization that graduation from
the course will permit.
IS 3.2.7 Airports and Sites

(a) The base airport, and any alternative base airport, at which flying training is being
conducted shall have at least the following facilities:
(1) at least one runway or take-off area that allows training aircraft to make a normal
take-off or landing at the maximum take-off or maximum landing weight authorized,
and touch down autorotation as appropriate:
(i) under calm wind (not more than four knots) conditions and temperatures equal
to the mean high temperature for the hottest month of the year in the operating
area;
(ii) clearing all obstacles in the take-off flight path by at least 50 feet;
(iii) with the powerplant operation and the landing gear (if applicable)
recommended by the manufacturer; and

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(iv) with a smooth transition from lift-off to the best rate of climb speed without
exceptional piloting skills or techniques;
(2) have a wind direction indicator that is visible at ground level from the ends of each
runway;
(3) have adequate runway electrical lighting if used for night training; and
(4) have a traffic direction indicator when:
(i) the airport does not have an operating control tower; and (ii) traffic and wind
advisories are not available.
IS 3.2.9 Appendix A: Training Manual

The Training Manual for use at an ATO conducting approved training courses shall include
the following:
(a) Chapter 1: The Training Plan:
(1) The aim of the course: A statement of what the student is expected to do as a result
of the training, the level of performance, and the training constraints to be
observed.
(2) Pre-entry requirements: Minimum age, educational requirements (including
language), medical requirements.
(3) Credits for previous experience: To be obtained from the Authority before training
begins.
(4) Training Curricula: The flying curriculum (single-engine), the flying curriculum
(multi-engine), the synthetic flight training curriculum and the theoretical knowledge
training curriculum.
(5) The time scale and scale in weeks, for each curriculum: Arrangements of the
course and the integration of curricula time.
(6) Training program: The general arrangements of daily and weekly programs for
flying, ground and synthetic flight training. Bad weather constraints, Program
constraints in terms of maximum student training times, (flying, theoretical
knowledge, synthetic) e.g. per day/week/month, Restrictions in respect of duty
periods for students. Duration of dual and solo flights at various stages, Maximum
flying hours in any day/night, Maximum number of training flights in any day/night,
Minimum rest period between duty period.
(7) Training records: Rules for security of records and documents. Attendance
records. The form of training records to be kept. Persons responsible for checking
records and students’ log books. The nature and frequency of records checks.
Standardization of entries in training records. Rules concerning log book entries.
(8) Safety training: Individual responsibilities. Essential exercises. Emergency drills
(frequency). Dual checks (frequency at various stages). Requirement before first
solo day/night/navigation, etc.
(9) Checks and tests: Flying: Progress checks and skill tests. Knowledge: Progress
tests and knowledge tests. Authorization for test: Rules concerning refresher
training before retest. Test reports and records. Procedures for test paper
preparation, type of question and assessment, standard required for ‘Pass’.
Procedure for question analysis and review and for raising replacement papers.
Test resit procedures.

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(10) Training effectiveness: Individual responsibilities. General Assessment. Liaison

between departments. Identification of unsatisfactory progress (individual
students). Actions to correct unsatisfactory progress. Procedure for changing
instructors. Maximum number of instructor changes per student. Internal feedback
system for detecting training deficiencies. Procedure for suspending a student from
training. Discipline. Reporting and documentation.
(11) Standards and level of performance at various stages: Individual responsibilities.
Standardization. Standardization requirements and procedures. Application of test
criteria.
(b) Chapter 2: Briefing and Air Exercises
(1) Air Exercise: A detailed statement of the content specification of all the air
exercises to be taught, arranged in the sequence to be flown with main and sub-
titles.
(2) Air exercise reference list: An abbreviated list of the above exercises giving only
main and sub-titles for quick reference, and preferably in flip-card form to facilitate
daily use by instructors.
(3) Course structure – Phase of training: A statement of how the course will be divided
into phases, indication of how the above air exercises will be divided between the
phases and how they will be arranged to ensure that they are completed in the
most suitable learning sequence and that essential (emergency) exercises are
repeated at the correct frequency. Also, the curriculum hours for each phase and
for groups of exercises within each phase shall be stated and when progress tests
are to be conducted, etc.
(4) Course structure integration of curricula: The manner in which theoretical
knowledge, synthetic flight training and flying training will be integrated so that as
the flying training exercises are carried out students will be able to apply the
knowledge gained from the associated theoretical knowledge instruction and
synthetic flight training.
(5) Student progress: The requirement for student progress and include a brief but
specific statement of what a student is expected to be able to do and the standard
of proficiency he or she must achieve before progressing from one phase of air
exercise training to the next. Include minimum experience requirements in terms
of hours, satisfactory exercise completion, etc. As necessary before significant
exercises, e.g. night flying.
(6) Instructional methods: The ATO requirements, particularly in respect of pre- and
post-flying briefing, adherence to curricula and training specifications, authorization
of solo flights, etc.
(7) Progress tests: The instructions given to examining staff in respect of the conduct
and document of all progress tests.
(8) Glossary of terms: Definition of significant terms as necessary.
(9) Appendices: Progress test report forms. Skill test report forms. ATO certificates of
experience, competence, etc. as required.
(c) Chapter 3: Synthetic flight training: Structure generally as for Chapter 2.
(d) Chapter 4: Knowledge instruction: Structure generally as for Chapter 2 with a training
specification and objectives for each subject. Individual lesson plans to include mention
of the specific training aids available for use.

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IS 3.2.9 Appendix B: Procedures Manual

The Procedures Manual for use at an ATO conducting approved training courses shall
include the following:
(a) Chapter 1: General:
(1) A list and description of all volumes in the Procedures Manual.
(2) Administration (function and management).
(3) Responsibilities (all management and administrative staff).
(4) Student discipline and disciplinary action.
(5) Approval/authorization of flights.
(6) Preparation of flying program (restriction of numbers of aircraft in poor weather).
(7) Command of aircraft.
(8) Responsibilities of pilot-in-command.
(9) Carriage of passengers.
(10) Aircraft documentation.
(11) Retention of documents.
(12) Flight crew qualification records (licenses and ratings).
(13) Revalidation (licenses, ratings and medical certificates).
(14) Flying duty period and flight time limitations (flying instructors).
(15) Flying duty period and flight time limitations (students).
(16) Rest periods (flying instructors).
(17) Rest periods (students).
(18) Pilots’ log books
(19) Flight planning (general).
(20) Safety general: equipment, radio listening watch, hazards, accidents and
incidents (including reports), safety pilots, etc.
(b) Chapter 2: Technical
(1) Aircraft descriptive notes.
(2) Aircraft handling (including checklists, limitations, aircraft maintenance and
technical logs, in accordance with relevant requirements, etc.)
(3) Emergency procedures.
(4) Radio and radio navigation aids.
(5) Allowable deficiencies (based on MMEL, if available).
(c) Chapter 3: Route
(1) Performance (legislation, take-off, route, landing, etc.).
(2) Flight planning (fuel, oil, minimum safe altitude, navigation equipment, etc.)
(3) Loading (load sheets, weight, balance, limitations).
(4) Weather minima (flying instructors)

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(5) Weather minima (students: at various stages of training).

(6) Training routes/areas
(d) Chapter 4: Staff training
(1) Appointments of persons responsible for standards/competence of flying staff.
(2) Initial training.
(3) Refresher training.
(4) Standardization training.
(5) Proficiency checks
(6) Upgrading training.
(7) ATO staff standards evaluation.
IS 3.4.3 AM AIRFRAME AND/OR POWERPLANT AND/OR AVIONICS RATINGS

Curriculum Requirements
This Implementing Standard defines terms used in Section A, B, C and D of this part, and
describes the levels of proficiency at which items under each subject in each curriculum
must be taught, as outlined in Sections A, B, C and D.
(a) Definitions. As used in Sections A, B, C and D:
(1) "Inspect" means to examine by sight and touch.
(2) "Check" means to verify proper operation.
(3) "Troubleshoot" means to analyze and identify malfunctions.
(4) "Service" means to perform functions that assure continued operation.
(5) "Repair" means to correct a defective condition. Repair of an airframe or
powerplant system includes component replacement and adjustment, but not
component repair.
(6) "Overhaul" means to disassemble, inspect, repair as necessary, and check.
(b) Teaching levels.
(1) Level 1 requires:
(i) Knowledge of general principles, but no practical application.
(ii) No development of manipulative skill.
(iii) Instruction by lecture, demonstration, and discussion.
(i) Knowledge of general principles, and limited practical application.
(ii) Development of sufficient manipulative skill to perform basic operations.
(iii) Instruction by lecture, demonstration, discussion, and limited practical
application.
(i) Knowledge of general principles, and performance of a high degree of practical
application.

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(ii) Development of sufficient manipulative skills to simulate return to service.

(iii) Instruction by lecture, demonstration, discussion, and a high degree of practical
application.
(c) Teaching materials and equipment.
(1) The curriculum may be presented utilizing currently accepted educational materials
and equipment, including, but not limited to: calculators, computers, and audio-
visual equipment.
Section A – General Curriculum Subjects

This section list the subjects required for at least 400 hours of general curriculum subjects.
The number in parentheses before each item listed under each subject heading indicates
the level of proficiency at which that item shall be taught.
Teaching
Level
A. BASIC ELECTRICITY 30 HOURS
(2) 1. Calculate and measure capacitance and inductance.
(2) 2. Calculate and measure electrical power.
(3) 3. Measure voltage, current, resistance, and continuity.
Teaching
Level
(3) 4. Determine the relationship of voltage, current, and resistance in electrical circuits.
(3) 5. Read and interpret aircraft electrical circuit diagrams, including solid state devices
and logic functions.
(3) 6. Inspect and service batteries.
B. AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS 40 HOURS
(2) 7. Use aircraft drawings, symbols, and system schematics.
(3) 8. Draw sketches of repairs and alterations.
(3) 9. Use blueprint information.
(3) 10. Use graphs and charts.
C. WEIGHT AND BALANCE 30 HOURS
(2) 11. Weigh aircraft.
(3) 12. Perform complete weight and balance check and record data.
D. FLUID LINES AND FITTINGS 15 HOURS
(3) 13. Fabricate and install rigid and flexible fluid lines and fittings.
E. MATERIALS AND PROCESSES 50 HOURS
(1) 14. Identify and select appropriate non-destructive testing methods.

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(2) 15. Perform dye penetrate, eddy current, ultrasonic, and magnetic particle inspections.
(1) 16. Perform basic heat-treating processes.
(3) 17. Identify and select aircraft hardware and materials.
(3) 18. Inspect and check welds.
(3) 19. Perform precision measurements.
F. GROUND OPERATION AND SERVICING 30 HOURS
(2) 20. Start, ground operate, move, service, and secure aircraft and identify typical ground
operation hazards.
(2) 21. Identify and select fuels.
G. CLEANING AND CORROSION CONTROL 30 HOURS
(3) 22. Identify and select cleaning materials.
(3) 23. Inspect, identify, remove, and treat aircraft corrosion and perform aircraft cleaning.
H. MATHEMATICS 75 HOURS
(3) 24. Extract roots and raise numbers to a given power.
(3) 25. Determine areas and volumes of various geometric shapes.
(3) 26. Solve ratio, proportion, and percentage problems.
(3) 27. Perform algebraic operations involving addition, subtraction, multiplication, and
division of positive and negative numbers.
I. MAINTENANCE FORMS AND RECORDS 40 HOURS
(3) 28. Write descriptions of work performed including aircraft discrepancies and corrective
actions using typical aircraft maintenance records.
Teaching
Level
(3) 29. Complete required maintenance forms, records, and inspection reports.
J. BASIC PHYSICS 40 HOURS
(2) 30. Use and understand the principles of simple machines; sound, fluid, and heat
dynamics; basic aerodynamics; aircraft structures; and theory of flight.
K. MAINTENANCE PUBLICATIONS 50 HOURS
(3) 31. Demonstrate ability to read, comprehend, and apply information contained in CAA
and manufacturers‘ aircraft maintenance specifications, data sheets, manuals,
publications, and related Civil Aviation Regulations (CAR) Airworthiness Directives,
and Model Advisory Material.
(3) 32. Read technical data.
L. MECHANIC PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS 20 HOURS
(3) 33. Exercise mechanic privileges within the limitations prescribed by Part 2 of the CAR.
Section B - Airframe Curriculum Subjects

This section list the subjects required in at least 750 hours of each airframe curriculum, in

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addition to at least 400 hours in general curriculum subjects. The number in parentheses
before each item listed under each subject heading indicates the level of proficiency at
which that item must be taught.
I. AIRFRAME STRUCTURES
Teaching
level
A. WOOD STRUCTURES 15 HOURS
(1) 1. Service and repair wood structures.
(1) 2. Identify wood defects.
(1) 3. Inspect wood structures.
B. AIRCRAFT COVERING 15 HOURS
(1) 4. Select and apply fabric and fiberglass covering materials.
(1) 5. Inspect, test, and repair fabric and fiberglass.
C. AIRCRAFT FINISHES 30 HOURS
(1) 6. Apply trim, letters, and touch-up paint.
(2) 7. Identify and select aircraft finishing materials.
(2) 8. Apply finishing materials.
(2) 9. Inspect finishes and identify defects.
D. SHEET METAL AND NONMETALLIC STRUCTURES 60 HOURS
(2) 10. Select, install, and remove special fasteners for metallic, bonded, and composite
structures.
(2) 11. Inspect bonded structures.
(2) 12. Inspect, test and repair fiberglass, plastics, honeycomb, composite, and laminated
primary and secondary structures.
(2) 13. Inspect, check, service, and repair windows, doors, and interior furnishings.
(3) 14. Inspect and repair sheet metal structures.
Teaching
level
(3) 15. Install conventional rivets.
(3) 16. Form, layout, and bend sheet metal.
E. WELDING 70 HOURS
(1) 17. Weld magnesium and titanium.
(1) 18. Solder stainless steel.
(1) 19. Fabricate tubular structures.
(2) 20. Solder, braze, gas weld, and arc weld steel.
(1) 21. Weld aluminum and stainless steel.

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F. ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING 50 HOURS

(1) 22. Rig rotary wing aircraft.
(2) 23. Rig fixed wing aircraft.
(2) 24. Check alignment of structures.
(3) 25. Assemble aircraft components, including flight control surfaces.
(3) 26. Balance, rig, and inspect moveable primary and secondary flight control surfaces.
(3) 27. Jack aircraft.
G. AIRFRAME INSPECTION 40 HOURS
(3) 28. Perform airframe conformity and airworthiness inspections.
II. AIRFRAME SYSTEMS AND COMPONENTS

A. AIRCRAFT LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS 30 HOURS
(3) 29. Inspect, check, service, and repair landing gear, retraction systems, shock struts,
brakes, wheels, tires, and steering systems.
B. HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER SYSTEMS 20 HOURS
(2) 30. Repair hydraulic and pneumatic power systems components.
(3) 31. Identify and select hydraulic fluids.
(3) 32. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair hydraulic and pneumatic power
systems.
C. CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL SYSTEMS 60 HOURS
(1) 33. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair heating, cooling, air conditioning,
pressurization systems, and air cycle machines.
(1) 34. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair heating, cooling, air conditioning,
and pressurization systems.
(2) 35. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service and repair oxygen systems.
D. AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS 20 HOURS
(1) 36. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair electronic flight instrument
systems and both mechanical and electrical heading, speed, altitude, temperature,
pressure, and position indicating systems to include the use of built-in test equipment.
(2) 37. Install instruments and perform a static pressure system leak test.
Teaching
level
E. COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION SYSTEMS 30 HOURS
(1) 38. Inspect, check, and troubleshoot autopilot, servos, and approach coupling systems.
(1) 39. Inspect, check, and service aircraft electronic communication and navigation
systems, including VHF passenger address interphones and static discharge devices,
aircraft VOR, ILS, LORAN/GPS, Radar beacon transponders, flight management
computers, and GPWS.

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(2) 40. Inspect and repair antenna and electronic equipment installations.
F. AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEMS 70 HOURS
(1) 41. Check and service fuel dump systems.
(1) 42. Perform fuel management transfer, and De-fuelling.
(1) 43. Inspect, check, and repair pressure-fuelling systems.
(2) 44. Repair aircraft fuel system components.
(2) 45. Inspect and repair fluid quantity indicating systems.
(2) 46. Troubleshoot, service, and repair fluid pressure and temperature warning systems.
(3) 47. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair aircraft fuel systems.
G. AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS 50 HOURS
(2) 48. Repair and inspect aircraft electrical system components; crimp and splice wiring
to manufacturers’ specifications, and repair pins and sockets of aircraft connectors.
(3) 49. Install, check, and service airframe electrical wiring, controls, switches, indicators,
and protective devices.
(3) 50.a. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair alternating and direct current
electrical systems.
(1) 50.b. Inspect, check, and troubleshoot constant speed and integrated speed drive
generators.
H. POSITION AND WARNING SYSTEMS 50 HOURS
(2) 51. Inspect, check, and service speed and configuration warning systems, electrical
brake controls, and anti-skid systems.
(3) 52. Inspect, check, troubleshoot and service landing gear position indicating and
warning systems.
I. ICE AND RAIN CONTROL SYSTEMS 40 HOURS
(2) 53. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair airframe ice and rain control
systems.
J. FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS 70 HOURS
(1) 54. Inspect, check, and service smoke and carbon monoxide detection systems.
(3) 55. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair aircraft fire detection and
extinguishing systems.
Section C - Powerplant Curriculum Subjects

This section list the subjects required in at least 750 hours of each powerplant curriculum, in
before each item listed under each subject heading indicates the level of proficiency at which
that item must be taught.
Teaching
level
I. POWERPLANT THEORY AND MAINTENANCE
A. RECIPROCATING ENGINES 80 HOURS

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(1) 1. Inspect and repair a radial engine.

(2) 2. Overhaul reciprocating engine.
(3) 3. Inspect, check, service, and repair reciprocating engines and engine installations.
(3) 4. Install, troubleshoot, and remove reciprocating engines.
B. TURBINE ENGINES 80 HOURS
(2) 5. Overhaul turbine engine.
(3) 6. Inspect, check, service, and repair turbine engines and turbine engine installations.
(3) 7. Install, troubleshoot, and remove turbine engines.
C. ENGINE INSPECTION 80 HOURS
(3) 8. Perform powerplant conformity and airworthiness inspections.
II. POWERPLANT SYSTEMS AND COMPONENTS

A. ENGINE INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS 50 HOURS
(2) 9. Troubleshoot, service, and repair electrical and mechanical fluid rate-of-flow
indicating systems.
(3) 10. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair electrical and mechanical engine
temperature, pressure, and rpm indicating systems.
B. ENGINE FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS 40 HOURS
(3) 11. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair engine fire detection and
extinguishing systems.
C. ENGINE ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS 30 HOURS
(2) 12. Repair engine electrical system components.
(3) 13. Install, check, and service engine electrical wiring, controls, switches, indicators,
D. LUBRICATION SYSTEMS 30 HOURS
(2) 14. Identify and select lubricants.
(2) 15. Repair engine lubrication system components.
(3) 16. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair engine lubrication systems.
E. IGNITION AND STARTING SYSTEMS 50 HOURS
(2) 17. Overhaul magneto and ignition harness.
(2) 18. Inspect, service, troubleshoot, and repair reciprocating and turbine engine ignition
systems and components.
(3) 19. a. Inspect, service, troubleshoot, and repair turbine engine electrical starting
systems.
(1) 19. b. Inspect, service, and troubleshoot turbine engine pneumatic starting systems.
Teaching
level

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PCAR PART 3
F. FUEL METERING SYSTEMS 60 HOURS

(1) 20. Troubleshoot and adjust turbine engine fuel metering systems and electronic
engine fuel controls.
(2) 21. Overhaul carburetor.
(2) 22. Repair engine fuel metering system components.
(3) 23. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair reciprocating and turbine engine
fuel metering systems.
G. ENGINE FUEL SYSTEMS 30 HOURS
(2) 24. Repair engine fuel system components.
(3) 25. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair engine fuel systems.
H. INDUCTION AND ENGINE AIRFLOW SYSTEMS 40 HOURS
(2) 26. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair engine ice and rain control
systems.
(1) 27. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot and repair heat exchangers, superchargers,
and turbine engine airflow and temperature control systems.
(3) 28. Inspect, check, service, and repair carburetor air intake and induction manifolds.
I. ENGINE COOLING SYSTEMS 30 HOURS
(2) 29. Repair engine cooling system components.
(3) 30. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair engine-cooling systems.
J. ENGINE EXHAUST AND REVERSER SYSTEMS 40 HOURS
(2) 31. Repair engine exhaust system components.
(3) 32.a. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair engine exhaust systems.
(1) 32.b. Troubleshoot and repair engine thrust reverser systems and related components.
K. PROPELLERS 60 HOURS
(1) 33. Inspect, check, service, and repair propeller synchronizing and ice control systems.
(2) 34. Identify and select propeller lubricants.
(1) 35. Balance propellers.
(2) 36. Repair propeller control system components.
(3) 37. Inspect, check, service, and repair fixed pitch, constant speed, and feathering
propellers, and propeller governing systems.
(3) 38. Install, troubleshoot, and remove propellers.
(3) 39. Repair aluminum alloy propeller blades.
L. UNDUCTED FANS 40 HOURS
(1) 40. Inspect and troubleshoot unducted fan systems and components.
M. AUXILIARY POWER UNITS 40 HOURS
(1) 41. Inspect, check, service, and troubleshoot turbine driven auxiliary power units.

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PCAR PART 3
Section D - Avionics Curriculum Subjects

This section list the subjects required in at least 750 hours of each avionics curriculum, in
before each item listed under each subject heading indicates the level of proficiency at
which that item must be taught.
I. AVIONICS THEORY AND MAINTENANCE COURSE

A. AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS 20 HOURS
Teaching
level
(3) 1. Aircraft instruments test and repair electrical flight instruments.
(3) 2. Inspect altitude indicating and reporting equipment.
(3) 3. Test aircraft systems utilizing built in test equipment.
B. COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION 20 HOURS
(3) 4. Test aircraft antenna systems
(3) 5. Install systems and components.
(3) 6. Test, inspect, and repair autopilot systems.
C. AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS 20 HOURS
(3) 4. Inspect, test and repair electrical cables.
(3) 5. Inspect and repair electrical generating system components.
D. AIRCRAFT DIGITAL COMPUTER SYSTEMS. 20 HOURS
(3) 4. Test and repair digital systems and components.
(3) 5. Test and troubleshoot computer systems.
II. AVIONICS SYSTEMS AND COMPONENTS COURSE

A. AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS 150 HOURS
Teaching
Level
(1) 1. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair electronic flight instrument systems
and both mechanical and electrical heading, speed, altitude, temperature, pressure,
and position indicating systems to include the use of built-in test equipment.
(3) 2. Install instruments and perform a static pressure system leak test.
B. COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION SYSTEMS 150 HOURS
(2) 3. Inspect, check, and troubleshoot autopilot, servos and approach coupling systems.

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PCAR PART 3
(3) 4. Inspect, check, and service aircraft electronic communication and navigation
systems, including VHF passenger address interphones, audio control devices and
static discharge devices, aircraft VOR, ILS, LORAN, GPS, Radar beacon
transponders, flight management computers, and GPWS. Inspect, test, troubleshoot
and repair INS, IRS and other forms of inertial navigation devices and systems.
(2) 5. Inspect and repair antenna and electronic equipment installations.
Teaching
Level
C. AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS 150 HOURS
(3) 6. Repair and inspect aircraft electrical system components, cable routing and security;
crimp and splice wiring to manufacturers' specifications; and repair pins and sockets
of aircraft connectors.
(3) 7. Install, check, test, and service airframe electrical wiring, controls, switches,
indicators, and protective devices.
(3) 8. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair alternating and direct current
electrical systems and components.
(1) 9. Inspect, check, and troubleshoot constant speed and integrated speed drive
generators.
(3) 10. Install, check, and service engine electrical wiring controls, switches, indicators,
D. AIRCRAFT DIGITAL COMPUTER SYSTEMS 220 HOURS
(2) 11. Install, inspect, test and repair digital systems and equipment, indicating, and
switching systems and components. Install, test, inspect, repair onboard-integrated EFIS
systems, entertainment systems and components, and logic and control components.

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PCAR PART 4

PART 4
AIRCRAFT REGISTRATION AND MARKING

i
PCAR PART 4

ii
PCAR PART 4

iii
PCAR PART 4

iv
PCAR PART 4

v
PCAR PART 4

Original Issue 23 June 2008 Ruben F. Ciron
First Amendment 21 March 2011 Amendment to the Ramon S. Gutierrez
Definitions of Aircraft
Amendment to the
provisions on
Registration
Requirements Part
4.2.1.1 (a) and (b)
Second Amendment 01 August 2013 Inserted vertical bars LT GEN William K
on the previous Hotchkiss III AFP (Ret)
amendments
Third Amendment 20 November 2014 4.3.1.12 Registration for LT GEN William K
UAV Hotchkiss III AFP (Ret)
Four Amendment 15 July 2015 4.3.1.11 Identification LT GEN William K
Plate Required. (b) Hotchkiss III AFP (Ret)
Requirement of an
aircraft identification
plate.
Fifth Amendment 01 July 2016 4.3.1.12 Registration for LT GEN William K
RPA Hotchkiss III AFP (Ret)

vi
PCAR PART 4

Part 4 Aircraft Registration and Marking
Board Resolution iii-v Amendment 01 21 March 2011
List of Effective Pages vii Amendment 05 01 July 2016
Table of Contents viii Amendment 05 01 July 2016
Introduction ix Original Issue 23 June 2008
Page
4.1-1 Amendment 01 21 March 2011

vii
PCAR PART 4
CONTENTS
4.1 GENERAL……………………..………………………………………………….. 4.1-1

4.1.1.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………….. 4.1-1
4.1.1.2 Definitions…………………………………………………………………………. 4.1-1
4.1.1.3 Abbreviations……………………………………………………………………… 4.1-2

4.2 REGISTRATION REQUIREMENTS…............................................................ 4.2-1
4.2.1.1 General……………………………………………………………………………. 4.2-1
4.2.1.2 Registration eligibility………………………………………………………….… 4.2-1
4.2.1.3 Application………………………………………………………………………… 4.2-1
4.3 NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS……………………………….. 4.3-1
4.3.1.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………….. 4.3-1
4.3.1.2 General……………………………………………………………………………. 4.3-1
4.3.1.3 Nationality and registration marks to be used………………………………… 4.3-1

4.3.1.4 Display of marks: general……………..…………………………………………. 4.3-2
4.3.1.5 Size of marks……………………………………………………………………… 4.3-2
4.3.1.6 Deviations for size and location of marks……………………………………… 4.3-3
4.3.1.7 Location of marks on fixed-wing aircraft………………………………………. 4.3-3
4.3.1.8 Location of marks on rotorcraft………………………………………………… 4.3-3
4.3.1.9 Location of marks on lighter-than-air aircraft…………………………………. 4.3-3

4.3.1.10 Sale of aircraft: removal of marks……………………………………………… 4.3-4
4.3.1.11 Identification plate required……………………………………………………….. 4.3-4
4.3.1.12 Registration for RPA’s.……………………………………………………………. 4.3-5

viii
PCAR PART 4
Introduction
CAR Part 4 sets forth the requirements for registration of aircraft in the Republic of the
Philippines and governs the application of nationality and registration marks. Part 4 is derived
from ICAO Annex 7.

ix
PCAR PART 4

x
PCAR PART 4
4.1 GENERAL
(a) Part 4 prescribes the requirements for registration and marking of Civil Aircraft under
the provisions of the Civil Aviation Law.
4.1.1.2 DEFINITIONS
(a) For the purpose of Part 4, the following definitions shall apply:
(1) Airplane (aeroplane). A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in
flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under
given conditions of flight.
(2) Aircraft. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the
reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth's surface.
(3) Airship. A power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.
(4) Balloon. A non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.
(5) Common mark. A mark assigned by the International Civil Aviation Organization
to the common mark registering authority registering aircraft of an international
operating agency on other than a national basis.
(6) Common mark registering authority. The authority maintaining the non-national
register, or where appropriate, the part thereof, in which aircraft of an
international operating agency are registered.
(7) Fireproof material. A material capable of withstanding heat as well as or better
than steel when the dimensions in both cases are appropriate for the specific
purpose.
(8) Glider. A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly
from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given
conditions of flight.
(9) Gyroplane. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the
air on one or more rotors which rotate freely on substantially vertical axes.
(10) Heavier-than-air. Any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic
forces.
(11) Helicopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions
of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes.
(12) International operating agency. An agency of the kind contemplated in Article 77
of the Convention.
(13) Lighter-than-air aircraft. Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air.
(14) Ornithopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions
of the air on planes to which a flapping motion is imparted.
(15) Rotorcraft. A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the
reactions of the air on one or more rotors.
(16) State of Registry. The State on whose register the aircraft is entered.
NOTE: See other definitions in Part 1.

4.1-1
PCAR PART 4
(1) ADIZ - Air Defense Identification Zone
(2) DEWIZ - Distant Early Warning Identification Zone

4.1-2
PCAR PART 4
4.2 REGISTRATION REQUIREMENTS

4.2.1.1 GENERAL
(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft that is eligible for registration under the laws of
the Republic of the Philippines unless it has been registered by its owner/operator
under the provisions of the laws of the Republic of the Philippines and the Authority
has issued a Certificate of Aircraft Registration for that aircraft which shall be carried
aboard that aircraft for all operations.
(b) The certificate of aircraft registration shall be in English.
4.2.1.2 REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY

(a) An aircraft is eligible for registration if it is:
(1) Owned by or leased to a citizen or citizens of the Philippines or corporations or
associations organized under the laws of the Philippines at least sixty per centum
(60%) of whose capital is owned by Filipino citizens (as referred in Section 44 of
the RA 9497), or a government entity of the Republic of the Philippines; and
(2) Not registered under the laws of any foreign country.
(b) A foreign-owned or registered aircraft may be eligible for registration, if utilized by
members of aero clubs organized for recreation, sport or the development of flying
skills as a prerequisite to any aeronautical activities of such clubs within the
Philippine airspace, and if so authorized by the Authority.
4.2.1.3 APPLICATION
(a) A person who wishes to register an aircraft in the Republic of the Philippines must
submit an application for aircraft registration to the Authority in a form and manner
acceptable to the Authority. Each application shall:
(1) Certify as to citizenship as defined under Subpart 4.2.1.2;
(2) Show evidence identifying ownership or lease-agreement (as approved by the
Authority); and
(3) Be signed in ink.
(b) The fee provided for by law will be submitted with the application for aircraft
registration to the Authority.
(c) Upon an applicant meeting all requirements for registration, a Certificate of Aircraft
Registration will be issued by the Director of Flight Standards Inspectorate Service.

4.2-1
PCAR PART 4

4.2-2
PCAR PART 4
4.3 NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS

(a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for the identification and marking of civil
aircraft registered in the Republic of the Philippines.
4.3.1.2 GENERAL
(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft registered in the Republic of the Philippines
unless it displays nationality and registration marks in accordance with the
requirements of this section. The letter or letters used to identify the nationality of the
Republic of the Philippines shall conform to the requirements specified in this Part.
This is to be followed by a series of numbers or letters assigned by the Authority in
accordance with this Part.
(b) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, no person may place on any aircraft a
design, mark, or symbol that modifies or confuses the nationality and registration
marks. The marks shall not be confused with the International Five Letter Code of
Signals or Distress Codes.
(c) Permanent marking of aircraft nationality and registration shall be painted on the
aircraft or affixed by other means insuring a similar degree of permanence, have no
ornamentation:
(1) Contrast in color with the background: and
(2) Be legible.
(d) The Authority maintains a current register showing for each aircraft registered in the
Republic of the Philippines, the information recorded in the Certificate of Registration.
(e) The register of unmanned free balloons shall contain the date, time and location of
release, the type of balloon and the name of the operator.
4.3.1.3 NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS TO BE USED

(a) Every aircraft duly registered by the Authority shall display the registration mark
assigned to such aircraft. The nationality and registration marks appearing on the
aircraft shall consist of a group of characters.
(b) The nationality mark shall precede the registration mark. When the first character of
the registration mark is a letter, it shall be preceded by a hyphen.
(c) The nationality mark for Philippine registered aircraft is RP.
(d) The registration mark shall be a combination of letters and numbers assigned by the
Authority.
(e) The nationality and registration marks borne by aircraft shall consist of the following:
(1) The Roman capital letters "RP" immediately preceding identification number for
aircraft used solely for governmental purposes, and or belonging to the Philippine
government, provinces, municipalities, or political subdivisions (except those
belonging to the Philippine Army).
(2) The Roman capital letters "RP-C" will classify aircraft, except gliders, as
complying fully with the airworthiness requirements as the case may be for the
purpose of carrying persons or property, for or without hire.

4.3-1
PCAR PART 4
(3) Gliders complying fully with airworthiness requirements shall display the Roman
capital letters "RP-G" immediately preceding the license number or numbers.
(4) The Roman capital letters "RP-R" will classify an aircraft as complying in some
limited respect with the airworthiness requirements as the case may be, provided
each deficiency is compensated for by means of suitable operation limitations.
The certificate of an aircraft in this classification will specify the use or uses, for
such aircraft is deemed airworthy by such use or uses, shall exclude carrying of
passengers, and shall be for industrial purposes only.
(5) The Roman capital letters "RP-X" will classify an aircraft as one which has
applied for an experimental certificate.
(6) Non-type certificated aircraft will only be registered as “RP-S” (refer to Subpart
11.10.2 (b).
(7) The airworthiness symbol will be followed by a number or numbers issued for the
purposes of further identification.
4.3.1.4 DISPLAY OF MARKS: GENERAL

(a) Each owner shall display on that aircraft marks consisting of the Roman capital letter
denoting nationality of the Republic of the Philippines followed by the registration
number of the aircraft in Arabic numerals. Each suffix letter used in the marks
displayed must also be a Roman capital letter.
(b) If, because of the aircraft configuration, it is not possible to mark the aircraft in
accordance with this Part, the owner may apply to the Authority for a different
procedure.
4.3.1.5 SIZE OF MARKS

(a) Each operator of an aircraft shall display marks on the aircraft meeting the size
requirements of this section.
(b) Height. The character marks shall be of equal height and on-
(1) Heavier-than-air aircraft, shall be at least:
(i) 50 centimeters high if on the wings; and
(ii) 30 centimeters high if on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and vertical tail
surfaces.
(2) Lighter-than-air aircraft other than unmanned free balloons, shall be at least 50
centimeters high.
(3) Unmanned free balloons, shall be determined by the Authority taking into
consideration the size of the surface to which the identification plate is affixed.
(c) Width. Characters must be two-thirds as wide as they are high, except the number
"1", which must be one-sixth as wide as it is high, and the letters "M" and "W" which
may be as wide as they are high.
(d) Thickness. Characters shall be formed by solid lines one-sixth as thick as the
character is high.
(e) Spacing. The space between each character may not be less than one-fourth of the
character width.

4.3-2
PCAR PART 4
(f) Uniformity. The marks required by this Part for fixed-wing aircraft must have the
same height, width, thickness, and spacing on both sides of the aircraft.
(g) Each operator of an aircraft penetrating an ADIZ or DEWIZ shall display on that
aircraft temporary or permanent nationality and registration marks at least 30
centimeters high.
4.3.1.6 DEVIATIONS FOR SIZE AND LOCATION OF MARKS

(a) If either one of the surfaces authorized for displaying required marks is large enough
for display of marks meeting the size requirements of this section and the other is
not, the operator shall place full-size marks on the larger surface.
(b) If neither surface is large enough for full-size marks, the Authority may approve
marks as large as practicable for display on the larger of the two surfaces.
4.3.1.7 LOCATION OF MARKS ON FIXED-WING AIRCRAFT

(a) Fuselage/Tail: The aircraft shall display the required marks on either the vertical tail
surfaces or the sides of the fuselage.
(b) The marks required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be displayed as follows:
(1) If displayed on the vertical tail surfaces, horizontally on both surfaces, horizontally
on both surfaces of a single vertical tail or on the outer surfaces of a multi-vertical
tail.
(2) If displayed on the fuselage surfaces, horizontally on both sides of the fuselage
between the trailing edge of the wing and the leading edge of the horizontal
stabilizer.
(3) If engine pods or other appurtenances are located in the area described in
paragraph (b)(2) and are an integral part of the aircraft, the operator may place
the marks on those pods or appurtenances.
(c) Wings: the marks shall appear once on the lower surface of the wing structure as
follows:
(1) Shall be located on the left half of the lower surface of the wing structure unless
they extend across the whole of the lower surface of the wing structure. So far as
is possible, the marks shall be located equidistant from the leading and trailing
edges of the wings.
(2) The tops of the letters and numbers shall be toward the leading edge of the wing.
4.3.1.8 LOCATION OF MARKS ON ROTORCRAFT

(a) Each operator of a rotorcraft shall display marks horizontally on both surfaces of the
cabin, fuselage, boom, or tail; such that the rotorcraft can be readily identified.
4.3.1.9 LOCATION OF MARKS ON LIGHTER-THAN-AIR AIRCRAFT

(a) Airships. The operator shall place marks on an airship to appear on
(1) The hull, located lengthwise on each side of the hull and on its upper surface on
the line of symmetry; or
(2) The horizontal and vertical stabilizers surfaces-

4.3-3
PCAR PART 4
(i) For the horizontal stabilizer, located on the right half of the upper surface and
on the left half of the lower surface, with the tops of the letters and numbers
toward the leading edge; and
(ii) For the vertical stabilizer, located on each side of the bottom half stabilizer,
with the letters and numbers placed horizontally.
(b) Spherical balloons (other than unmanned free balloons). The operator shall apply
marks to appear in two places diametrically opposite each other and located near the
maximum horizontal circumference of the balloon.
(c) Non-spherical balloons (other than unmanned free balloons). The operator shall
apply marks to appear on each side, located near the maximum cross-section of the
balloon immediately above either the rigging band or the points of attachment of the
basket suspension cables.
(d) Lighter-than-air aircraft (other than unmanned free balloons). The operator shall
apply side marks to be visible both from the sides and from the ground.
(e) Unmanned free balloons. The operator shall apply marks to appear on the
identification plate.
4.3.1.10 SALE OF AIRCRAFT: REMOVAL OF MARKS

(a) When an aircraft that is registered in Republic of the Philippines is sold, the holder of
the Certificate of Aircraft Registration shall remove, before its delivery to the
purchaser, all nationality and registration marks of Republic of the Philippines, unless
the purchaser is a citizen or other legal entity as prescribed in Subpart 4.2.1.2(a)(1).
4.3.1.11 IDENTIFICATION PLATE REQUIRED

(a) The operator shall affix to each aircraft registered under the laws of the Republic of
the Philippines an identification plate
(1) Containing the marks of nationality and registration;
(2) Made of fireproof metal or other fireproof material of suitable physical properties;
(3) Secured to the aircraft in a prominent position, near the main entrance, or, in the
case of a free balloon, affixed conspicuously to the exterior of the payload.
(b) Requirement of an aircraft identification plate
(1) Material: Fireproof material,stainlessw steel is preferred but other fireproof
material of suitable physical properties may be allowed;
(2) Size: Size shall be minimun of 1-inch x 2-inches or a maximum of 6 –inches by 3-
inches,depending on the size of the aircraft. Size may differ for each aircraft type;
(3) Location: Aircraft identification plate must be located inside the aircraft and near
the main entrance door or alongside with the manufacturer’s data plate;
(4) Contents: At least the nationality and registration marks;
(5) Markings: Machine etched not painted

4.3-4
PCAR PART 4
4.3.1.12 REGISTRATION FOR RPA

(a) Consistent with R.A. 9497 and PCAR Part 4, all large RPA and other RPA
required to be registered shall bear the registration markings “RP-U” followed by
the assigned number 001 to 999, followed by a letter from A to Z.
(b) Required registration marks must be located on the visible side of the Electronic
Control Module (ECM). All RPAs where the ECM can be installed must comply
with the registration marking requirements of the Authority on the fuselage and/or
wing area.
(c) Size of registration marks must be proportionate to the RPA or ECM.
(d) Registration marks must be made of waterproof, weather resistant inks, paints or
sticker (decal). (per Memorandum Circular no.29-15, series of 2015)

4.3-5
PCAR PART 4

4.3-6
PCAR PART 5

PART 5
AIRWORTHINESS

i
PCAR PART 5

ii
PCAR PART 5

iii
PCAR PART 5

iv
PCAR PART 5

v
PCAR PART 5

First Amendment 21 March 2011 1. Definition Ramon S. Gutierrez
• Continuing Airworthiness
2. Eligibility (a) and (b)
3. Weighing of Aircraft
4. Reporting of failures,
malfunctions, and defects
5. Damage to Aircraft
6. Performance Rules:
modifications and repairs
Third Amendment 21 November 5.5.1.3 General (e) LT GEN William K
2014 5.5.1.4 Reporting of Failures, Hotchkiss III AFP (Ret)
Malfunctions, and Defects (a)
Fourth Amendment 24 November 5.1.1.2 Definitions Capt. Jim C. Sydiongco
2016 11. State of Manufacture
5.5.1.3 General (e)
5.5.1.4 Reporting of Failures,
Malfunctions, and Defects (a),
(e) & (f)

vi
PCAR PART 5

Part 5 Airworthiness
Board Resolution iii - v Amendment 01 21 March 2011
Record of Amendments vi Amendment 04 06 January 2017
List of Effective Pages vii - viii Amendment 04 06 January 2017
Table of Contents ix - xi Amendment 04 06 January 2017
Introduction xii Original Issue 23 June 2008
Page

vii
PCAR PART 5


viii
PCAR PART 5
CONTENTS
5.1 GENERAL ……………………………………………………………………….. 5.1-1

5.1.1.1 Applicability……..……..…………………………………………………………... 5.1-1
5.1.1.2 Definitions…………………….…………………………………………………… 5.1-1
…………
5.1.1.3 Abbreviations……………….……………………………………………………… 5.1-2
….........
5.2 AIRCRAFT AND COMPONENT ORIGINAL CERTIFICATION……………… 5.2-1
5.2.1.1 Applicability ..……………………………………………………………………. 5.2-1
5.3 SUPPLEMENTAL TYPE CERTIFICATES ……………………………………. 5.3-1
5.3.1.1 Applicability ……………………………………………………………………… 5.3-1
5.3.1.2 ISSUANCE OF A SUPPLEMENTAL TYPE CERTIFICATE ………………….. 5.3-1
5.4 CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS ….…………………………………….. 5.4-1
5.4.1 Airworthiness Certificates ………………………..…………………….………… 5.4-1
5.4.1.1 Applicability ………………………………………………………………………. 5.4-1
5.4.1.2 Eligibility …………………………………………………………………………… 5.4-1
5.4.1.3 Classifications of Certificate of Airworthiness ………………………………… 5.4-1
5.4.1.4 Amendment of Certificate of Airworthiness…………………………………… 5.4-1
5.4.1.5 Transfer or Surrender of Certificate of Airworthiness ………………………… 5.4-1
5.4.1.6 Effective Dates of a Certificate of Airworthiness……………………………… 5.4-1
5.4.1.7 Aircraft Identification………………………………………………………………. 5.4-2
5.4.1.8 Issue of Standard Certificate of Airworthiness ………………………………… 5.4-2
5.4.1.9 Airworthiness Directives………………………………………………………… 5.4-3
5.4.1.10 Commercial Air Transport ……………………………………………………… 5.4-3
5.4.1.11 Issue of Special Certificate of Airworthiness…………………………………… 5.4-3
5.4.1.11.1 Issue of Certificate of Airworthiness for restricted category Aircraft ………… 5.4-3
5.4.1.11.2 Issue of Certificate of Airworthiness for limited category aircraft…………… 5.4-4
5.4.1.11.3 Experimental certificates………………………………………………………… 5.4-4
5.4.1.11.4 Special flight permits……………………………………………………………… 5.4-4
5.4.1.11.5 Issue of special flight permits …………………………………………………… 5.4-5
5.4.2 Airworthiness Approvals for Export …………………………………….............. 5.4-5
5.4.2.1 Applicability ……………………………………………………………………….. 5.4-5
5.4.2.2 Eligibility ……………………………………………………………………………. 5.4-6
5.4.2.3 Airworthiness Approvals for Export …………………………………………….. 5.4-6
5.4.2.4 Application ………………………………………………………………………… 5.4-7

ix
PCAR PART 5
5.4.2.5 Issue of Export Airworthiness Approval for Class I products ………………… 5.4-8
5.4.2.6 Issue of airworthiness approval tags for Class II products …………………… 5.4-9
5.4.2.7 Responsibilities of exporters …………………………………………………… 5.4-9
5.4.2.8 Performance of inspections and overhauls …………………………………… 5.4-9
5.4.3 Certificate of Noise Compliance ………………………………………………… 5.4-10
5.4.3.1 Application for a Certificate of Noise Compliance …………………………… 5.4-10
5.4.4 Weighing Of Aircraft……………………………………………………………… 5.4-10
5.5 CONTINUED AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT AND COMPONENTS….. 5.5-1
5.5.1.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………………… 5.5-1
5.5.1.2 Responsibility……………………………………………………………………… 5.5-1
5.5.1.3 General…………………………………………………………………………….. 5.5-1
5.5.1.4 Reporting of Failures, Malfunctions, and Defects……………………………… 5.5-2
5.5.1.5 Approval of Materials, Parts, Processes, and Appliances …………………… 5.5-3
5.5.1.5.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………………… 5.5-3
5.5.1.5.2 Replacement and modification parts…………………………………………… 5.5-3
5.5.1.5.3 Approval of materials, parts, processes, and appliances…………………….. 5.5-5
5.5.1.6 Damage To Aircraft……………………………………………………………… 5.5-6
5.6 AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE AND INSPECTION …………………………… 5.6-1
5.6.1.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………….. 5.6-1
5.6.1.2 Persons Authorized to Perform Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and
Modifications……………………………………………………………………… 5.6-1
5.6.1.3 Persons Authorized to Perform Maintenance ………………………………… 5.6-1
5.6.1.4 Authorized Personnel to Approve For Return To Service…………………… 5.6-2

5.6.1.5 Persons Authorized to Perform Inspections……………………………………. 5.6-2
5.6.1.6 Performance Rules: Maintenance……………………………………………… 5.6-2
5.6.1.7 Performance Rules: Inspections………………………………………………… 5.6-3
5.6.1.8 Performance Rules: Airworthiness Limitations………………………………… 5.6-4
5.6.1.9 Performance Rules: Modifications and Repairs……………………………… 5.6-4
5.7 MAINTENANCE RECORDS AND ENTRIES………………………………… 5.7-1
5.7.1.1 Content, Form, and Disposition of Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance,
Rebuilding, and Modification Records ……………………………….………… 5.7-1
5.7.1.2 Records of Overhaul and Rebuilding…………………………………………… 5.7-1
5.7.1.3 Approval for Return to Service after Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance,
Rebuilding, or Modification…………………………………………………..…… 5.7-2

x
PCAR PART 5
5.7.1.4 Content, Form, and Disposition of Records for Inspections…………..……… 5.7-2

IS 5.1.1.2(a)(1) Major Modifications (Definition)……………………………………………….. IS-2
IS 5.1.1.2(a)(3) Major Repairs (Definition)……………………………………………………….. IS-3
IS: 5.1.1.2(a)(5) Preventive Maintenance (Definition)…………………………………………… IS-5
IS: 5.4.3 Noise Emission Standards ……………………………………………………… IS-6
IS: 5.4.3.1 Noise Evaluation Methods and Certification Documentation…………………. IS-7
IS: 5.6.1.3 (a) Elementary Work………………………………………………………………….. IS-11
IS: 5.6.1.7 Performance Rules: 100-Hour Inspections…………………………………….. IS-13
IS: 5.7.1.1 Recording of Major Repairs and Major Modifications………………………….. IS-15

xi
PCAR PART 5

PART 5
AIRWORTHINESS
Introduction
CAR Part 5 presents regulatory requirements for the airworthiness of aircraft expected to
operate in the Republic of the Philippines using the standards and recommended practices in
ICAO Annexes 6 and 8.
Part 5 is designed to address the complex situation faced by most countries today respecting
the airworthiness of aircraft operating within the country and in international aviation. In most
such cases, there are aircraft registered in the Republic of the Philippines that were designed
and manufactured in another Contracting State, and aircraft registered in the Republic of the
Philippines that were designed in one Contracting State and manufactured in another
Contracting State. In addition, the Republic of the Philippines may have AOC holders who
operate aircraft registered in another Contracting State, with different states of design and
manufacture. Additionally, the Republic of the Philippines may have AOC holders who are part
of a regional consortium, with maintenance facilities in a neighboring country. Proper
airworthiness of aircraft registered in the Republic of the Philippines is the result of
communication between all parties.
CAR Part 5 requires all persons operating Republic of the Philippines registered aircraft to notify
the Authority when certain events occur. The Authority is required to open lines of
communication with the State of Design and/or the State of Manufacture so that the Authority
can receive all safety bulletins and airworthiness directives for each type of aircraft operating in
the Republic of the Philippines.
Maintenance requirements are set forth in Part 5 for persons who are neither employees of an
Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO).

xii
PCAR PART 5
5.1 GENERAL
(a) This regulation prescribes the requirements for—
(1) Certification of aircraft and aeronautical components;
(2) Issuance of Certificate of Airworthiness and other certifications for aeronautical
products;
(3) Continued airworthiness of aircraft and aeronautical components;
(4) Rebuilding and modifications of aircraft and aeronautical components;
(5) Maintenance and preventive maintenance of aircraft and aeronautical
components;
(6) Aircraft inspection requirements; and
(7) Air operator aircraft maintenance and inspection requirements.
5.1.1.2 DEFINITIONS
(a) For the purpose of Part 5, the following definitions shall apply—
(1) Continuing Airworthiness. The set of processes by which an aircraft, engine,
propeller or part complies with the applicable airworthiness requirements and
remains in a condition for safe operation throughout its operating life.
(2) Major modification. Major modification means an alteration not listed in the
aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller specifications – (1) that might appreciably
affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, power-plant, operations,
flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or (2) that is not
done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by elementary
operations. Described in IS: 5.1.1.2(a)(1).
(3) Maintenance release. A certification confirming that the maintenance work to
which it relates has been complied with in accordance with the applicable
standards of airworthiness, using approved data.
(4) Major repair. Major repair means a repair: (1) that if improperly done might
appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, power-plant,
operations, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or (2)
that is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by elementary
operations. Described in IS: 5.1.1.2(a)(3).
(5) Modification. The alteration of an aircraft/aeronautical product in conformity with
an approved standard.
(6) Preventative maintenance. Simple or minor preservation operations and the
replacement of small standard parts, not involving complex assembly operations,
described in IS: 5.1.1.2(a)(5).
(7) Overhaul. The restoration of an aircraft/aeronautical product using methods,
techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, including disassembly,
cleaning, and inspection as permitted, repair as necessary, and reassembly; and
tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in
accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Authority,
which have been developed and documented by the State of Design, holder of
the type certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or

5.1-1
PCAR PART 5
appliance approval under Parts Manufacturing Authorization (PMA) or Technical

Standard Order (TSO).
(8) Rebuild. The restoration of an aircraft/aeronautical product by using methods,
techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, when it has been
disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as necessary,
reassembled, and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item, using
either new parts or used parts that conform to new part tolerances and limits.
This work will be performed by only the manufacturer or an organization
approved by the manufacturer, and Authorized by the State of Registry.
(9) Return to Service (RTS). A document signed by an authorized representative of
an approved maintenance organization (AMO) in respect of an inspection, repair
or modification on a complete aircraft, engine or propeller after it has received a
Maintenance Release for the maintenance performed at an AMO.
Note: An air operator's aircraft are returned to service following maintenance by a
person specifically authorized by an AMO rather than by an individual on their
own behalf. A return to service can only be signed when all maintenance has
been completed, accounted for and a maintenance release signed as described
in Parts 5 and 6. The person signing the RTS acts in the capacity of an
authorized agent for the AMO and is certifying that the maintenance covered by
the RTS was accomplished according to the air operator's continuous
maintenance program. Responsibility for each step of the accomplished
maintenance is borne by the person signing for that step and the RTS certifies
the entire maintenance work package. This arrangement in no way reduces the
responsibility of licensed aircraft maintenance technicians (AMT) or maintenance
organizations for maintenance functions or tasks they perform or supervise. The
RTS is required for all commercially operated aircraft including flight training
aircraft having undergone maintenance at an AMO; however this may also be
used for Non-Commercial aircraft.
(10) State of Design. The Contracting State which approved the original type
certificate and any subsequent supplemental type certificates for an aircraft, or
which approved the design of an aeronautical product or appliance.
(11) State of Manufacture. The State having jurisdiction over the organization
responsible for the final assembly of the aircraft engine or propeller.
(12) State of Registry. The Contracting State on whose register the aircraft is
entered.
(a) The following acronyms are used in Part 5:
(1) AOC – Air Operator Certificate
(2) AMO – Approved Maintenance Organization
(3) MEL – Minimum Equipment List
(4) PIC – Pilot in command
(5) TSO – Technical Standard Order

5.1-2
PCAR PART 5
5.2 AIRCRAFT AND COMPONENT ORIGINAL CERTIFICATION

(a) This Subpart describes the procedures and designation of applicable rules for
original certification of aircraft and related aeronautical products.
(b) The Authority will hold this Subpart reserved until such time as it has received an
application for Type Certificates, Production Certificates or other related approvals
including but not limited to airworthiness directives (AD), Supplemental Type
Certificates (STC), Technical Standard Orders (TSO), and Part Manufacturer
Approvals.
(c) Any applicant for a production certificate for any aircraft or aeronautical product
thereof for manufacture in the Republic of the Philippines shall comply with the type
certificate as required by the State of Design for approval.
(d) At such time as the application for production is presented the Authority will make
available suitable regulations or provisions for the issuance of an Certificate of
Airworthiness, or airworthiness document as appropriate for the product
concerned.(e) Any component or product installed or to be installed in a Philippine
Registered aircraft shall have an airworthiness approval tag traceable to an approved
airworthiness standard accepted by the Authority, issued by an authorized person on
the basis of inspection and operation tests, certifying that those products conform to
a type design included in a Type Certificate validated by the Authority and is in
condition for safe operation.

5.2-1
PCAR PART 5

5.2-2
PCAR PART 5
5.3 SUPPLEMENTAL TYPE CERTIFICATES

(a) This Subpart prescribes procedural requirements for the issue of supplemental type
certificates.
5.3.1.2 ISSUANCE OF A SUPPLEMENTAL TYPE CERTIFICATE

(a) Any person who alters a product by introducing a major change in type design, not
great enough to require a new application for a type certificate, shall apply for a
Supplemental Type Certificate to the regulatory agency of the State of Design that
approved the type certificate for that product, or to the State of Registry of the
aircraft. The applicant shall apply in accordance with the procedures prescribed by
that State.

5.3-1
PCAR PART 5

5.3-2
PCAR PART 5
5.4 CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS

5.4.1 AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATES
(a) This Subpart prescribes procedures required for the issue of Certificate of
Airworthiness.
5.4.1.2 ELIGIBILITY
(a) Any registered owner of Republic of the Philippines registered aircraft, or agent of the
owner, may apply for a Certificate of Airworthiness for that aircraft.
(b) Each applicant for a Certificate of Airworthiness shall apply in a form and manner
acceptable to the Authority.
5.4.1.3 CLASSIFICATIONS OF CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS

(a) Standard Certificate of Airworthiness will be issued for aircraft in the specific category
and model designated by the State of Design in the type certificate.
(b) The Authority may issue a Special Certificate of Airworthiness in the form of a
restricted certificate or special flight permit.
5.4.1.4 AMENDMENT OF CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS

(a) The Authority may amend or modify a Certificate of Airworthiness:
(1) Upon application from an operator.
(2) On its own initiative.
5.4.1.5 TRANSFER OR SURRENDER OF CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS

(a) An owner shall transfer a Certificate of Airworthiness—
(1) To the lessee upon lease of an aircraft within or outside the Republic of the
Philippines.
(2) To the buyer upon sale of the aircraft within the Republic of the Philippines.
(b) An owner shall surrender the Certificate of Airworthiness for the aircraft to the issuing
Authority upon sale of that aircraft outside of the Republic of the Philippines.
5.4.1.6 EFFECTIVE DATES OF A CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS

(a) Unless sooner surrendered, suspended, revoked, or a termination date is otherwise
established by the Authority, Certificate of Airworthiness are effective as follows:
(1) Standard Certificate of Airworthiness, special Certificate of Airworthiness, and
Certificate of Airworthiness issued for restricted or limited category aircraft are
effective for one year as long as the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and
alterations are performed in accordance with this CAR and the aircraft is
registered in the Republic of the Philippines
(2) A special flight permit is effective for the period of time specified in the permit.

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(3) An experimental certificate for research and development, showing compliance

with regulations, crew training, or market surveys is effective for 1 year after the
date of issue or renewal unless the Authority prescribes a shorter period. The
duration of an experimental certificate issued for operating amateur-built aircraft,
exhibition, air-racing, operating primary kit-built aircraft, unless the Authority
establishes a specific period for good cause.
(b) The owner, operator, or bailee of the aircraft shall, upon request, make it available for
inspection by the Authority.
(c) Upon suspension, revocation, or termination by order of the Authority of a Certificate
of Airworthiness, the owner, operator, or bailee of an aircraft shall, upon request,
surrender the certificate to the Authority.
(d) When an aircraft imported for registration in Republic of the Philippines has a
Certificate of Airworthiness issued by another Contracting State, Republic of the
Philippines may, as an alternative to issuance of its own Certificate of Airworthiness,
establish validity by suitable Authorization to be carried with the former Certificate of
Airworthiness accepting it as the equivalent of a Certificate of Airworthiness issued
by Republic of the Philippines. The validity of the Authorization shall not extend
beyond the period of validity of the Certificate of Airworthiness or one year,
whichever is less.
5.4.1.7 AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION

(a) Each applicant for a Certificate of Airworthiness shall show that the aircraft is
properly registered and marked, including identification plates, as required by CAR
Part 4.
5.4.1.8 ISSUE OF STANDARD CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS

(a) An applicant for a standard Certificate of Airworthiness for an import aircraft type
certificated in accordance with this Part is entitled to a Certificate of Airworthiness if
the country in which the aircraft was manufactured or previously registered certifies,
and the Authority finds, that:
(1) The applicant presents evidence to the Authority that the aircraft conforms to a
type design approved under a type certificate or a supplemental type certificate
and to the applicable Airworthiness Directives of the State of Manufacture;
(2) The aircraft has been inspected in accordance with the performance rules of this
regulation for inspections and found airworthy by persons Authorized by the
Authority to make such determinations within the last 30 calendar days; and
(3) The Authority finds after an inspection that the aircraft conforms to type design
and is in condition for safe operation
(b) The Authority may validate a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by another
Contracting State upon registration of the aircraft in Republic of the Philippines for
the period specified in that certificate.
(c) Likewise, all Class I Aeronautical Products, such as aircraft, engine and propeller that
are first of its kind to be placed under Philippine registry must undergo type certificate
validation to become eligible for importation and to obtain Certificate of Airworthiness.

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5.4.1.9 AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES

(a) Upon registration of an aircraft in the Republic of the Philippines, the Authority will
notify the State of Design of the aircraft of the registration in the Republic of the
Philippines, and request that the Authority receives any and all airworthiness
directives addressing that aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or
component part.
(b) Whenever the State of Design considers that a condition in an aircraft, airframe,
aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part is unsafe as shown by the
issuance of an airworthiness directive by that State, the requirements of such
directives shall apply to the Republic of the Philippines registered civil aircraft of the
type identified in that airworthiness directive.
(c) The Authority may identify manufacturer's service bulletins and other sources of data,
or develop and prescribe inspections, procedures and limitations, in the form of an
airworthiness directive for mandatory compliance pertaining to affected aircraft in the
Republic of the Philippines.
(d) No person may operate any Republic of the Philippines registered civil aircraft to
which the measures of this subsection apply, except in accordance with the
applicable directives.
5.4.1.10 COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) The Authority will consider a Certificate of Airworthiness valid for commercial air
transport only when that aircraft is included in the AOC’s Specific Operating
Provisions in accordance with CAR Part 9, issued by the Authority which identifies
the specific types of commercial air transport Authorized.
5.4.1.11 ISSUE OF SPECIAL CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS

5.4.1.11.1 ISSUE OF CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS FOR RESTRICTED
CATEGORY AIRCRAFT
(a) An applicant for the original issue of a restricted category Certificate of Airworthiness
for an aircraft type certificated in the restricted category, that was not previously type
Part.
(b) Import aircraft. An applicant for a special Certificate of Airworthiness for an import
aircraft type certificated in accordance with this Part is entitled to an restricted
Certificate of Airworthiness if the country in which the aircraft was manufactured or
previously registered certifies, and:
(1) The applicant presents evidence to the Authority that the aircraft conforms to a
type design approved under a type certificate or supplemental type certificate and
to applicable Airworthiness Directives;
(2) The aircraft has been inspected in accordance with the performance rules for a
100-hour inspections set forth in these CAR and found airworthy by an authorized
person; and
(3) The Authority finds after inspection, that the aircraft conforms to the type design,
and is in condition for safe operation.

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5.4.1.11.2 ISSUE OF CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS FOR LIMITED

CATEGORY AIRCRAFT
(a) An applicant for a Certificate of Airworthiness for an aircraft in the limited category is
entitled to the certificate when—
(1) He shows that the aircraft has been previously issued a limited category type
certificate and that the aircraft conforms to that type certificate; and
(2) The Authority finds, after inspection (including a flight check by the applicant),
that the aircraft is in a good state of preservation and repair and is in a condition
for safe operation.
(b) The Authority prescribes limitations and conditions necessary for safe operation.
5.4.1.11.3 EXPERIMENTAL CERTIFICATES

Experimental certificates are issued for the following purposes:
(a) Research and development. Testing new aircraft design concepts, new aircraft
equipment, new aircraft installations, new aircraft operating techniques, or new uses
for aircraft.
(b) Showing compliance with regulations. Conducting flight tests and other operations to
show compliance with the airworthiness regulations including flights to show
compliance for issuance of type and supplemental type certificates, flights to
substantiate major design changes, and flights to show compliance with the function
and reliability requirements of the regulations.
(c) Crew training. Training of the applicant's flight crews.
(d) Exhibition. Exhibiting the aircraft's flight capabilities, performance, or unusual
characteristics at air shows, motion picture, television, and similar productions, and
the maintenance of exhibition flight proficiency, including (for persons exhibiting
aircraft) flying to and from such air shows and productions.
(e) Air racing. Participating in air races, including (for such participants) practicing for
such air races and flying to and from racing events.
(f) Market surveys. Use of aircraft for purposes of conducting market surveys, sales
demonstrations, and customer crew training only.
(g) Operating amateur-built aircraft. Operating an aircraft the major portion of which has
been fabricated and assembled by persons who undertook the construction project
solely for their own education or recreation.
(h) Operating kit-built aircraft. Operating an aircraft that meets the criteria of this Part that
was assembled by a person from a kit manufactured by the holder of a production
certificate for that kit, without the supervision and quality control of the production
certificate holder.
5.4.1.11.4 SPECIAL FLIGHT PERMITS

(a) A special flight permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet
applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight, for the following
purposes:
(1) Flying the aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations, or maintenance are to be
performed, or to a point of storage.

5.4-4
PCAR PART 5
(2) Delivering or exporting the aircraft.

(3) Production flight testing new production aircraft.
(4) Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger.
(5) Conducting customer demonstration flights in new production aircraft that have
satisfactorily completed production flight tests.
(b) A special flight permit may also be issued to authorize the operation of an aircraft at a
weight in excess of its maximum certificated takeoff weight for flight beyond the
normal range over water, or over land areas where adequate landing facilities or
appropriate fuel is not available. The excess weight that may be authorized under
this paragraph is limited to the additional fuel, fuel-carrying facilities, and navigation
equipment necessary for the flight.
(c) Upon application, a special flight permit may be issued for aircraft that may not meet
applicable airworthiness requirements but are capable of safe flight for the purpose of
flying aircraft to a base where maintenance or alterations are to be performed. The
permit issued under this paragraph is an authorization, including conditions and
limitations for flight..
(d) The permit issued under this paragraph is an authorization, including any conditions
and limitations for flight, which is set forth with the certificate.
5.4.1.11.5 ISSUE OF SPECIAL FLIGHT PERMITS

(a) An applicant for a special flight permit must submit a statement in a form and manner
prescribed by the Authority, indicating—
(1) The purpose of the flight.
(2) The proposed itinerary.
(3) The crew required to operate the aircraft and its equipment, e.g., pilot, co-pilot,
navigator, etc.
(4) The ways, if any, in which the aircraft does not comply with the applicable
airworthiness requirements.
(5) Any restriction the applicant considers necessary for safe operation of the
aircraft.
(6) Any other information considered necessary by the Authority for the purpose of
prescribing operating limitations.
(b) The Authority may make, or require the applicant to make appropriate inspections or
tests necessary for safety.
5.4.2 AIRWORTHINESS APPROVALS FOR EXPORT

(a) This subpart prescribes—
(1) Procedural requirements for the issue of Airworthiness Approvals for Export; and
(2) Rules governing the holders of those approvals.
(b) For the purposes of this subpart—
(1) A Class I product is a complete aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller, which—

5.4-5
PCAR PART 5
(i) Has been type certificated in accordance with the applicable CAR and for
which Specifications or type certificate data sheets have been issued; or
(ii) Is identical to a type certificated product specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this
section in all respects except as is otherwise acceptable to the civil aviation
authority of the importing state.
(2) A Class II product is a major component of a Class I product (e.g., wings,
fuselages, empennage assemblies, landing gears, power transmissions, control
surfaces, etc), the failure of which would jeopardize the safety of a Class I
product; or any part, material, or appliance, approved and manufactured under
the Technical Standard Order (TSO) system in the “C” series.
(3) A Class III product is any part or component which is not a Class I or Class II
product and includes standard parts, i.e., those designated as AN, NAS, SAE,
etc.
(4) The words “newly overhauled” when used to describe a product means that the
product has not been operated or placed in service, except for functional testing,
since having been overhauled, inspected and approved for return to service in
accordance with the applicable CAR.
5.4.2.2 ELIGIBILITY
(a) Any exporter or his authorized representative may obtain an Airworthiness Approval
for Export for a Class I or Class II product.
5.4.2.3 AIRWORTHINESS APPROVALS FOR EXPORT

(a) Kinds of approvals:
(1) Airworthiness Approvals for Export of Class I products. Such approval does not
authorize the operation of aircraft.
(2) Airworthiness Approval for Export of Class II and III products is issued in the form
of Airworthiness Approval Tags, CAA Form AAT.
(b) Products which may be approved. Airworthiness Approvals for Export are issued
for—
(1) Aircraft and other Class I products located in the Republic of the Philippines,
except that an Airworthiness Approval for Export may be issued for any of the
following without assembly or flight-test:
(i) A small airplane type certificated under Part 3 or 4 (a) of the Civil Air
Regulations, or Part 23 of the Federal Aviation Regulations, and
manufactured under a production certificate;
(ii) A glider compliant with the type certification requirements of this Part and
manufactured under a production certificate; or
(iii) A normal category rotorcraft type certificated under Part 6 of the Civil Air
Regulations or Part 27 of the Federal Aviation Regulations and manufactured
under a production certificate.
(2) Used aircraft possessing a valid RP Certificate of Airworthiness, or other used
Class I products that have been maintained in accordance with the applicable
CAR and are located in a foreign country, if the Authority finds that the location

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PCAR PART 5
places no undue burden upon the CAA in administering the provisions of this
regulation.
5.4.2.4 APPLICATION
(a) An application for Airworthiness Approval for Export for a Class I or Class II product
is made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority
(b) A separate application must be made for—
(1) Each aircraft;
(2) Each engine and propeller, except that one application may be made for more
than one engine or propeller, if all are of the same type and model and are
exported to the same purchaser and country; and
(3) Each type of Class II product, except that one application may be used for more
than one type of Class II product when—
(i) They are separated and identified in the application as to the type and model
of the related Class I product; and
(ii) They are to be exported to the same purchaser and country.
(c) Each application must be accompanied by a written statement from the importing
country that will validate the Airworthiness Approval for Export if the product being
exported is—
(1) A product that does not meet the special requirement of the importing country; or
(2) A product that does not meet a requirement specified in this Part for Class I,
Class II or Class III products, as applicable, for the issuance of an Airworthiness
Approval for Export. The written statement must list the requirements not met.
(d) Each application for Airworthiness Approval for Export of a Class I product must
include, as applicable:
(1) A weight and balance report, with a loading schedule when applicable, for each
aircraft in accordance with these regulations. For transport aircraft and commuter
category airplanes this report must be based on an actual weighing of the aircraft
within the preceding twelve months and shall be witnessed by the Authority or
authorized Aeronautical Engineer representative, and after any major repairs or
alterations to the aircraft. Changes in equipment not classed as major changes
that are made after the actual weighing may be accounted for on a “computed”
basis and the report revised accordingly. Manufacturers of new non-transport
category airplanes, normal category rotorcraft, and gliders may submit reports
having computed weight and balance data, in place of an actual weighing of the
aircraft, if fleet weight control procedures approved by the Authority have been
established for such aircraft. In such a case, the following statement must be
entered in each report: “The weight and balance data shown in this report are
computed on the basis of Authority approved procedures for establishing fleet
weight averages.” The weight and balance report must include an equipment list
showing weights and moment arms of all required and optional items of
equipment that are included in the certificated empty weight.
(2) A maintenance manual for each new product when such a manual is required by
the applicable airworthiness rules.
(3) Evidence of compliance with the applicable airworthiness directives. A suitable
notation must be made when such directives are not complied with.

5.4-7
PCAR PART 5
(4) When temporary installations are incorporated in an aircraft for the purpose of
export delivery, the application form must include a general description of the
installations together with a statement that the installation will be removed and
the aircraft restored to the approved configuration upon completion of the delivery
flight.
(5) Historical records such as aircraft and engine log books, repair and alteration
forms, etc., for used aircraft and newly overhauled products.
(6) For products intended for overseas shipment, the application form must describe
the methods used, if any, for the preservation and packaging of such products to
protect them against corrosion and damage while in transit or storage. The
description must also indicate the duration of the effectiveness of such methods.
(7) The Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual when such material is required by the
applicable airworthiness regulations for the particular aircraft.
(8) A statement as to the date when title passed or is expected to pass to a foreign
purchaser.
(9) The data required by the special requirements of the importing country.
5.4.2.5 ISSUE OF EXPORT AIRWORTHINESS APPROVAL FOR CLASS I

PRODUCTS
(a) An applicant is entitled to an Export Airworthiness Approval for a Class 1 product if
that applicant shows at the time the product is submitted to the Authority for export
airworthiness approval that it meets the requirements of this section, as applicable,
except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section:
(b) New or used aircraft must meet the airworthiness requirement for a standard
Certificate of Airworthiness, or meet the airworthiness certification requirements for a
“restricted” Certificate of Airworthiness.
(c) New or used aircraft manufactured outside the Republic of the Philippines must have
a valid Certificate of Airworthiness.
(d) Used aircraft must have undergone an annual type inspection and be approved for
return to service in accordance with these CAR. The inspection must have been
performed and properly documented within 30 days before the date the application is
made for an Airworthiness Approval for Export. In complying with this paragraph,
consideration may be given to the inspections performed on an aircraft maintained in
accordance with a maintenance program under Part 9 or a progressive inspection
program under Part 8, within the 30 days prior to the date the application is made for
an Airworthiness Approval for Export.
(e) New engines and propellers must conform to the type design and must be in a
condition for safe operation.
(f) Used engines and propellers which are not being exported as part of a certificated
aircraft must have been newly overhauled.
(g) The special requirements of the importing country must have been met.
(h) A product need not meet a requirement specified in paragraphs (a) through (g) of this
section, as applicable, if acceptable to the importing country and the importing
country indicates that acceptability in writing.

5.4-8
PCAR PART 5
5.4.2.6 ISSUE OF AIRWORTHINESS APPROVAL TAGS FOR CLASS II

PRODUCTS
(a) An applicant is entitled to an export airworthiness approval tag for Class II products if
that applicant shows, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, that––
(1) The products are new or have been newly overhauled and conform to the
approved design data;
(2) The products are in a condition for safe operation;
(3) The products are identified with at least the manufacturer's name, part number,
model designation (when applicable), and serial number or equivalent; and
(4) The products meet the special requirements of the importing country.
(b) A product need not meet a requirement specified in paragraph (a) of this section if
acceptable to the importing country and the importing country indicates that
acceptability in writing.
5.4.2.7 RESPONSIBILITIES OF EXPORTERS

Each exporter receiving an export airworthiness approval for a product shall—
(a) Forward to the air authority of the importing country all documents and information
necessary for the proper operation of the products being exported, e.g., Flight
Manuals, Maintenance Manuals, Service Bulletins, and assembly instructions, and
such other material as is stipulated in the special requirements of the importing
country. The documents, information, and material may be forwarded by any means
consistent with the special requirements of the importing country;
(b) Forward the manufacturer's assembly instructions and an Authority’s approved flight
test form to the civil aviation authority of the importing country when unassembled
aircraft are being exported. These instructions must be in sufficient detail to permit
whatever rigging, alignment, and ground testing is necessary to ensure that the
aircraft will conform to the approved configuration when assembled;
(c) Remove or cause to be removed any temporary installation incorporated on an
aircraft for the purpose of export delivery and restore the aircraft to the approved
configuration upon completion of the delivery flight;
(d) Secure all proper foreign entry clearances from all the countries involved when
conducting sales demonstrations or delivery flights; and
(e) When title to an aircraft passes or has passed to a foreign purchaser—
(1) After the issuance of the Export Airworthiness Approval, request cancellation of
the RP registration and Certificate of Airworthiness, giving the date of transfer of
title, and the name and address of the foreign owner;
(2) Return the Registration and Certificate of Airworthiness to the Authority
(3) Submit a statement certifying that the RP’s identification and registration numbers
have been removed from the aircraft in compliance with Part 4.
5.4.2.8 PERFORMANCE OF INSPECTIONS AND OVERHAULS

Unless otherwise provided for in this subpart, each inspection and overhaul required for
export airworthiness approval of Class I and Class II products must be performed and
approved by one of the following:

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PCAR PART 5
(a) The manufacturer of the product.

(b) An Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO) in accordance with Part 6.
(c) An appropriately Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO) having adequate
overhaul facilities, and maintenance organization appropriate to the product involved,
when the product is a Class I product located in a foreign country and has the
approval by the Authority.
5.4.3 CERTIFICATE OF NOISE COMPLIANCE

(a) If an application for a certificate of noise compliance is made in respect of an aircraft
under Subpart 5.4.3.1 below and the aircraft meets the applicable noise emission
levels specified in IS 5.4.3.1 the Authority shall issue the certificate.
5.4.3.1 APPLICATION FOR A CERTIFICATE OF NOISE COMPLIANCE

(a) An application for a certificate of noise compliance shall be signed by the owner or
operator of the aircraft.
(1) The applicant shall include evidence that the aircraft meets the noise emission
levels as detailed in IS: 5.4.3.1.
(2) This evidence can be supplied from data contained in an aircraft Type Certificate,
an approved flight manual or other formats acceptable to the Authority.
Note: See IS: 5.4.3.1 for Noise Certification Methods and Certification
Documentation
5.4.4 WEIGHING OF AIRCRAFT

(a) All Philippine registered aircraft shall be re-weighed at the following periods:
(1) When used for commercial or aerial work operations every three (3) years;
(2) When used for commercial operations and with CAAP approved weight control
program, at such periods as determined by the weight control program;
(3) When used in general aviation every five (5) years, or
(4) For any aircraft at such times as the Director General may direct.
(b) A complete and continuous record of a modification performed and their resultant
change to the Mass and CG limits shall be maintained for all aircraft.
(c) A revised Load Data sheet shall be issued before flight.
(1) For airplanes, when the empty weight has changed by more than one half of one
percent of the max. T.O.W. or 10 kg, whichever is the greater, or the empty
weight center of gravity position has changed by more than 2% of the maximum
permissible center of gravity range or 5 mm, whichever is the greater;
(2) For rotorcraft, when the empty weight has changed by more than one percent of
the max. T.O.W. or 10 kg, whichever is the greater, or the empty weight center of
gravity position has changed by more than 10 mm or 10 percent of the maximum
permissible center of gravity range whichever is the less.

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PCAR PART 5
5.5 CONTINUED AIRWORTHINESSOF AIRCRAFT AND COMPONENTS

(a) This Subpart prescribes rules governing the continued airworthiness of civil aircraft
registered in the Republic of the Philippines whether operating inside or outside the
borders of the Republic of the Philippines.
5.5.1.2 RESPONSIBILITY
(a) The owner of an aircraft or, in the case of a leased aircraft, the lessee, shall be
responsible for maintaining the aircraft in an airworthy condition by ensuring that—
(1) All maintenance, overhaul, modifications and repairs which affect airworthiness
are performed as prescribed by the State of Registry;
(2) Authorized maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft
maintenance records certifying that the aircraft is airworthy;
(3) A maintenance release is completed to the certify that the maintenance work
performed has been completed satisfactorily and in accordance with the
prescribed methods; and
(4) In the event there are open discrepancies, the maintenance release includes a
list of the uncorrected maintenance items and these items are made a part of the
aircraft permanent record.
5.5.1.3 GENERAL
(a) No person may perform maintenance, repairs, or modifications on an aircraft other
than as prescribed in this regulation.
(b) No person may operate an aircraft for which a manufacturer’s maintenance manual
or instructions for continued airworthiness has been issued that contains an
airworthiness limitation section unless the mandatory replacement times, inspection
intervals, and related procedures specified in that section or alternative inspection
intervals and related procedures set forth in the specific operating provisions
approved under part 9, or in accordance with the inspection program approved under
Part 8 have been complied with.
(c) No person may operate an aeronautical product to which an Airworthiness Directive
applies, issued either by the State of Design, the State of Registry, or the Authority,
except in accordance with the requirements of that Airworthiness Directive.
(d) When the Authority determines that an airframe or aeronautical product has exhibited
an unsafe condition and that condition is likely to exist or to develop in other products
of the same type design, the Authority may issue an Airworthiness Directive
prescribing inspections and the conditions and limitations, if any, under which those
products may continue to be operated.
(e) The Authority shall ensure that all mandatory continuing airworthiness
information which it, as the State of Registry, originated in respect of that aircraft,
is transmitted to the appropriate State of Design.

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5.5.1.4 REPORTING OF FAILURES, MALFUNCTIONS, AND DEFECTS

(a) Owners or operators of airplane over 5,700 kg and helicopters over 3, 175
maximum take-off weight shall report to the Authority and to the organization
responsible for the aircraft type design any failure, malfunction, or defect that
result in at least the following.
(1) Fires during flight and whether the related fire-warning system properly operated;
Fires during flight not protected by a related fire-warning system;
(2) False fire warning during flight;
(3) An engine exhaust system that causes damage during flight to the engine,
adjacent structure, equipment, or components;
(4) An aircraft component that causes accumulation or circulation of smoke, vapor,
or toxic or noxious fumes in the crew compartment or passenger cabin during
flight;
(5) Engine shutdown during flight because of flameout;
(6) Engine shutdown during flight when external damage to the engine or aircraft
structure occurs;
(7) Engine shutdown during flight due to foreign object ingestion or icing;
(8) Shutdown during flight of more than one engine;
(9) A propeller feathering system or ability of the system to control overspeed during
flight;
(10) A fuel or fuel-dumping system that affects fuel flow or causes hazardous leakage
during flight;
(11) An unintended landing gear extension or retraction, or opening or closing of
landing gear doors during flight;
(12) Brake system components that result in loss of brake actuating force when the
aircraft is in motion on the ground;
(13) Aircraft structure that requires major repair;
(14) Cracks, permanent deformation, or corrosion of aircraft structure, if more than
the maximum acceptable to the manufacturer or the Authority;
(15) Aircraft components or systems malfunctions that result in taking emergency
actions during flight (except action to shut down an engine);
(16) Each interruption to a flight, unscheduled change of aircraft en route, or
unscheduled stop or diversion from a route, caused by known or suspected
technical difficulties or malfunctions;
(17) Any abnormal vibration or buffeting caused by a structural or system
malfunction, defect, or failure;
(18) A failure or malfunction of more than one attitude, airspeed, or altitude
instrument during a given operation of the aircraft.
(19) The number of engines removed prematurely because of malfunction, failure or
defect, listed by make and model and the aircraft type in which it was installed;
or
(20) The number of propeller featherings in flight, listed by type of propeller and
engine and aircraft on which it was installed.

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PCAR PART 5
(b) Each report required by this Subsection shall—

(1) Be made within three (3) working days after determining that the failure,
malfunction, or defect required to be reported has occurred; and
(2) Include as much of the following information as is available and applicable—
(i) Aircraft serial number;
(ii) When the failure, malfunction, or defect is associated with an article approved
under a TSO Authorization, the article serial number and model designation,
as appropriate;
(iii) When the failure, malfunction or defect is associated with an engine or
propeller, the engine or propeller serial number, as appropriate;
(iv) Product model;
(v) Identification of the part, component, or system involved, including the part
number; and
(vi) Nature of the failure, malfunction, or defect.
(c) The Authority, if the State of Registry of the aircraft, will submit all such reports upon
receipt to the State of Design.
(d) The Authority, if not the State of Registry of the aircraft, will submit all such reports
upon receipt to the State of Registry.
(e) Whenever this information relates to an engine or propeller, such information shall be
transmitted to both the organization responsible for engine or propeller type design
and the organization responsible for aircraft type design.
(f) Where a continuing airworthiness safety issue is associated with a modification, the
State of Registry shall ensure that there exists a system whereby the above
information is transmitted to the organization responsible for the design of the
modification.
5.5.1.5 APPROVAL OF MATERIALS, PARTS, PROCESSES, AND APPLIANCES

5.5.1.5.1 APPLICABILITY
(a) This subpart prescribes procedural requirements for the approval of certain materials,
parts, processes, and appliances.
5.5.1.5.2 REPLACEMENT AND MODIFICATION PARTS

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may produce a
modification or replacement part for sale for installation on a type certificated product
unless it is produced pursuant to a Parts Manufacturer Approval issued under this
subpart.
(b) This section does not apply to the following:
(1) Parts produced under a type or production certificate.
(2) Parts fabricated by an owner or an AMO for maintaining his own product or for
the maintenance of a specific aircraft.
(3) Standard parts (such as bolts and nuts) conforming to established industry
standards or specifications

5.5-3
PCAR PART 5
(c) An application for a Parts Manufacturer Approval is made to the Authority and must
(1) The identity of the product on which the part is to be installed.
(2) The name and address of the manufacturing facilities at which these parts are to
be manufactured.
(3) The design of the part, which consists of—
(i) Drawings and specifications necessary to show the configuration of the part;
and
(ii) Information on dimensions, materials, and processes necessary to define the
structural strength of the part.
(4) Test reports and computations necessary to show that the design of the part
meets the airworthiness requirements of these CAR applicable to the product on
which the part is to be installed, unless the applicant shows to the Authority that
the design of the part is identical to the design of a part that is covered under a
type certificate. If the design of the part was obtained by a licensing agreement,
evidence of that agreement must be furnished.
(d) An applicant is entitled to a Parts Manufacturer Approval for a replacement or
modification part if—
(1) The Authority finds, upon examination of the design and after completing all tests
and inspections, that the design meets the airworthiness requirements of the
CAR applicable to the product on which the part is to be installed; and
(2) He submits a statement certifying that he has established the fabrication
inspection system required by paragraph (h) of this section.
(e) Each applicant for a Parts Manufacturer Approval must allow the Authority to make
any inspection or test necessary to determine compliance with the applicable CAR.
However, unless otherwise authorized by the Authority
(1) No part may be presented to the Authority for an inspection or test unless
compliance with paragraphs (f) (2) through (4) of this section has been shown for
that part; and
(2) No change may be made to a part between the time that compliance with
paragraphs (f) (2) through (4) of this section is shown for that part and the time
that the part is presented to the Authority for the inspection or test.
(f) Each applicant for a Parts Manufacturer Approval must make all inspections and
tests necessary to determine—
(1) Compliance with the applicable airworthiness requirements;
(2) That materials conform to the specifications in the design;
(3) That the part conforms to the drawings in the design; and
(4) That the fabrication processes, construction, and assembly conform to those
specified in the design.
(g) The Authority does not issue a Parts Manufacturer Approval if the manufacturing
facilities for the part are located outside of the republic of the Philippines, unless the
Authority finds that the location of the manufacturing facilities places no burden on
the Authority in administering applicable airworthiness requirements.
(h) Each holder of a Parts Manufacturer Approval shall establish and maintain a
fabrication inspection system that ensures that each completed part conforms to its

5.5-4
PCAR PART 5
design data and is safe for installation on applicable type certificated products. The
system shall include the following:
(1) Incoming materials used in the finished part must be as specified in the design
data.
(2) Incoming materials must be properly identified if their physical and chemical
properties cannot otherwise be readily and accurately determined.
(a) Materials subject to damage and deterioration must be suitably stored and
adequately protected.
(b) Processes affecting the quality and safety of the finished product must be
accomplished in accordance with acceptable specifications.
(c) Parts in process must be inspected for conformity with the design data at
points in production where accurate determination can be made. Statistical
quality control procedures may be employed where it is shown that a
satisfactory level of quality will be maintained for the particular part involved.
(3) Current design drawings must be readily available to manufacturing and
inspection personnel, and used when necessary.
(4) Major changes to the basic design must be adequately controlled and approved
before being incorporated in the finished part.
(5) Rejected materials and components must be segregated and identified in such a
manner as to preclude their use in the finished part.
(6) Inspection records must be maintained, identified with the completed part, where
practicable, and retained in the manufacturer's file for a period of at least 12
years after the part has been completed.
(i) A Parts Manufacturer Approval issued under this section is not transferable and is
effective until surrendered or withdrawn or otherwise terminated by the Authority.
(j) The holder of a Parts Manufacturer Approval shall notify the Authority in writing within
10 days from the date the manufacturing facility at which the parts are manufactured
is relocated or expanded to include additional facilities at other locations.
(k) Each holder of a Parts Manufacturer Approval shall determine that each completed
part conforms to the design data and is safe for installation on type certificated
products.
5.5.1.5.3 APPROVAL OF MATERIALS, PARTS, PROCESSES, AND APPLIANCES

Whenever a material, part, process, or appliance is required to be approved under this
chapter, it may be approved—
(a) Under a Parts Manufacturer Approval;
(b) Under a Technical Standard Order issued by the Federal Aviation Administration of
the United States of America..
(c) In conjunction with type certification procedures for a product; or
(d) In any other manner approved by the Authority.

5.5-5
PCAR PART 5
5.5.1.6 DAMAGE TO AIRCRAFT

(a) When the aircraft has sustained damage that requires major repair or replacement of
the affected component, the CAAP shall judge whether the damage is of a nature
such that the aircraft is no longer airworthy as defined by the appropriate
airworthiness requirements.
(b) If the damage is sustained or ascertained when the aircraft is in the territory of
another Contracting State, the authorities of that Contracting State shall be entitled to
prevent the aircraft from resuming its flight on the condition that they shall advise the
CAAP immediately, communicating to all details necessary to formulate the judgment
referred to in (a).
(c) When CAAP considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft
is still airworthy, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight.

5.5-6
PCAR PART 5
5.6 AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE AND INSPECTION

(a) This Subpart prescribes rules governing the maintenance and inspection of any
aircraft having a Republic of the Philippines Certificate of Airworthiness or associated
aeronautical products.
5.6.1.2 PERSONS AUTHORIZED TO PERFORM MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE

MAINTENANCE, AND MODIFICATIONS
(a) Except as specified in (b), the persons authorized to perform maintenance subject to
this Subpart include—
(1) A person performing maintenance under the supervision of appropriately rated
aviation maintenance technician;
(2) An aviation maintenance technician with the appropriate ratings;
(b) All aircraft involved in commercial operations, shall be maintained and returned to
service after a maintenance release has been signed by an organization approved in
accordance with Part 6.
(c) This Subpart outlines the privileges and limitations of these entities with respect to
the extent and type of work they may perform regarding—
(1) Maintenance,
(2) Preventive Maintenance,
(3) Modification,
(4) Inspection, and
(5) Approvals for return to service.
5.6.1.3 PERSONS AUTHORIZED TO PERFORM MAINTENANCE

(a) No person may perform any task defined as maintenance on an aircraft or
aeronautical products, except as provided in the following—
(1) A pilot licensed by the Authority may perform elementary work as specified in IS:
5.6.1.3 (a).
(2) A person working under the supervision of a aviation maintenance technician,
may perform the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and modifications that
the supervisory aviation maintenance technician is Authorized to perform—
(i) If the supervisor personally observes the work being done to the extent
necessary to ensure that it is being done properly, and
(ii) If the supervisor is readily available, in person, for consultation.
(3) A licensed aviation maintenance technician may perform or supervise the
maintenance or modification of an aircraft or aeronautical product for which he or
she is rated subject to the limitation of Part 2, Section 2.4.4 of these regulations.
(4) An AMO may perform aircraft maintenance within the limits specified by the
Authority.
(5) No AOC holder may perform aircraft maintenance unless approved under Part 6
of these regulations.

5.6-1
PCAR PART 5
(6) A manufacturer holding an AMO may—

(i) Rebuild or alter any aeronautical product manufactured by that manufacturer
under a type or production certificate;
(ii) Rebuild or alter any aeronautical product manufactured by that manufacturer
under a TSO Authorization, a Parts Manufacturer Approval by the State of
Design, or Product and Process Specification issued by the State of Design;
and
(iii) Perform any inspection required by Part 8 on aircraft it manufacturers, while
currently operating under a production certificate or under a currently
approved production inspection system for such aircraft.
5.6.1.4 AUTHORIZED PERSONNEL TO APPROVE FOR RETURN TO SERVICE

(a) No person or entity, other than the Authority, may approve an aircraft, airframe,
aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, or component part for return to service after it
has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification,
except as provided in the following:
(1) A pilot licensed by the Authority may return his or her aircraft to service after
performing Authorized preventive maintenance.
(2) A licensed aviation maintenance technician may approve aircraft and
aeronautical products for return to service after he or she has performed,
supervised, or inspected its maintenance subject to the limitation of Part 2,
paragraph 2.6.2.8 of these regulations.
(3) An AMO may approve aircraft and aeronautical products for return to service as
provided in the specifications approved by the Authority.
5.6.1.5 PERSONS AUTHORIZED TO PERFORM INSPECTIONS

(a) No person, other than the Authority, may perform the inspections required by Subpart
8.2.1.7 for aircraft and aeronautical products prior to or after it has undergone
maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification, except as
provided in the following:
(1) An aviation maintenance technician may conduct the required inspections of
aircraft and aeronautical products for which he or she is rated and current, except
on aircraft involved in commercial operations.
(2) An AMO may perform the required inspections of aircraft and aeronautical
products as provided in the specifications approved by the Authority.
5.6.1.6 PERFORMANCE RULES: MAINTENANCE

(a) Each person performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification on an
aeronautical product shall use the methods, techniques, and practices prescribed
in—
(1) The current manufacturer's maintenance manual or instructions for Continued
Airworthiness prepared by its manufacturer; and
(2) Additional methods, techniques and practices required by the Authority; or
methods, techniques and practices designated by the Authority where the
manufacturer’s documents were not available.

5.6-2
PCAR PART 5
(b) Each person shall use the tools, equipment, and test apparatus necessary to assure
completion of the work in accordance with accepted industry practices. If the
manufacturer involved recommends special equipment or test apparatus, the person
performing maintenance shall use that equipment or apparatus or its equivalent
acceptable to the Authority.
(c) Each person performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification on an
aeronautical product shall do that work in such a manner, and use materials of such
a quality, that the condition of the aeronautical product worked on will be at least
equal to its original or properly altered condition with regard to aerodynamic function,
structural strength, resistance to vibration and deterioration, and other qualities
affecting airworthiness.
(d) The methods, techniques, and practices contained in an AOC holder’s maintenance
control manual and continuous maintenance program, as approved by the Authority,
will constitute an acceptable means of compliance with the requirements of this
Subpart.
5.6.1.7 PERFORMANCE RULES: INSPECTIONS

(a) General. Each person performing an inspection required by the Authority shall—
(1) Perform the inspection so as to determine whether the aircraft, or portion(s)
thereof under inspection, meets all applicable airworthiness requirements; and
(2) If there is an inspection program required or accepted for the specific aircraft
being inspected perform the inspection in accordance with the instructions and
procedures set forth in the inspection program.
(b) Rotorcraft. Each person performing an inspection required on a rotorcraft shall
inspect the following systems in accordance with the maintenance manual or
Instructions for Continued Airworthiness of the manufacturer concerned—
(1) The drive shafts or similar systems,
(2) The main rotor transmission gear box for obvious defects,
(3) The main rotor and center section (or the equivalent area), and
(4) The auxiliary rotor on helicopters.
(c) Annual and 100-hour inspections.
(1) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall use a checklist
while performing the inspection. The checklist may be of the person's own
design, one provided by the manufacturer of the equipment being inspected, or
one obtained from another source. This checklist shall include the scope and
detail of the items prescribed by the Authority.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 5.6.1.7 for components to be included in an
annual or 100-hour inspection.
(2) Each person approving a reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft for return to
service after an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that approval, run the
aircraft engine or engines to determine satisfactory performance in accordance
with the current manufacturer's recommendations of—
(i) Power output (static and idle rpm);
(ii) Magnetos;
(iii) Fuel and oil pressure; and

5.6-3
PCAR PART 5
(iv) Cylinder and oil temperature.

(3) Each person approving a turbine-engine-powered aircraft for return to service
after an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that approval, run the aircraft
engine or engines to determine satisfactory performance in accordance with the
current manufacturer's recommendations.
5.6.1.8 PERFORMANCE RULES: AIRWORTHINESS LIMITATIONS

(a) Each person performing an inspection or other maintenance specified in an
airworthiness limitations section of a current manufacturer's maintenance manual, or
Instructions for Continued Airworthiness, shall perform the inspection or other
maintenance in accordance with that section, or in accordance with specifications
approved by the Authority.
5.6.1.9 PERFORMANCE RULES: MODIFICATIONS AND REPAIRS

All modifications and repairs shall comply with airworthiness requirements of this
CAR and be acceptable to the State of Design or the CAAP. The owner or operator
shall ensure that the substantiating data supporting compliance with the
airworthiness requirements are retained. However, in the case of s major repair or
major modification, the work must have been done in accordance with technical data
approved by the State of Design or the CAAP before returning the aircraft to service.
Approval or acceptance of a specific modification or repair on a specific aircraft by
the State of Design shall constitute approval by the CAAP and no further approvals
will be required.

5.6-4
PCAR PART 5
5.7 MAINTENANCE RECORDS AND ENTRIES

5.7.1.1 CONTENT, FORM, AND DISPOSITION OF MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE
MAINTENANCE, REBUILDING, AND MODIFICATION RECORDS
(a) Each person who maintains, performs preventive maintenance, rebuilds, or modifies
an aircraft or aeronautical product shall, when the work is performed satisfactorily,
make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment as follows—
(1) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Authority) of work
performed;
(2) Completion date of the work performed;
(3) Name, signature, certificate number, and kind of license held by the person
approving the work.
Note: The signature constitutes the approval for return to service only for the
work performed.
(b) The person performing the work shall enter records of major repairs and major
modifications, and dispose of that form in the manner prescribed by the Authority.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 5.7.1.1 for the maintenance form requirements and
a sample major repair and modification form.
(c) A person working under supervision of an aviation maintenance technician may not
perform any inspection required in Part 8 or any inspection performed after a major
repair or modification.
5.7.1.2 RECORDS OF OVERHAUL AND REBUILDING

(a) No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form, an aeronautical
product as being overhauled unless—
(1) It has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as
necessary, and reassembled using methods, techniques, and practices
acceptable to the Authority; and
(2) It has been tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or
in accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the
Authority, which have been developed and documented by the holder of the type
certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or appliance
manufacturing approval.
(b) No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form an aircraft or
other aeronautical product as being rebuilt unless it has been disassembled, cleaned,
inspected as permitted, repaired as necessary, reassembled, and tested to the same
tolerances and limits as a new item, using either new parts or used parts that
conform to new part tolerances and limits.
Note: Part 5.7.1.2 (a) reflects the required maintenance entry for rebuilt. As identified
in Part 5.6.1.3 (a) (6) only a manufacturer holding an AMO can rebuild an
aeronautical product.

5.7-1
PCAR PART 5
5.7.1.3 APPROVAL FOR RETURN TO SERVICE AFTER MAINTENANCE,

PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE, REBUILDING, OR MODIFICATION
(a) No person may approve for return to service any aeronautical product that has
undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification
unless—
(1) The appropriate maintenance record entry has been made;
(2) The repair or modification form Authorized by or furnished by the Authority has
been executed in a manner prescribed by the Authority;
(3) If a repair or modification results in any change in the aircraft operating limitations
or flight data contained in the approved aircraft flight manual, those operating
limitations or flight data are appropriately revised and set forth as prescribed.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 5.7.1.1 for the repair or modification form
requirements.
5.7.1.4 CONTENT, FORM, AND DISPOSITION OF RECORDS FOR INSPECTIONS

(a) Maintenance record entries. The person approving or disapproving the return to
service of an aeronautical product after any inspection performed in accordance with
Part 8, shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment containing
the following information—
(1) Type of inspection and a brief description of the extent of the inspection;
(2) Date of the inspection and aircraft total time in service;
(3) Signature, the license number, and kind of license held by the person approving
or disapproving for return to service the aeronautical product;
(4) If the aircraft is found to be airworthy and approved for return to service, the
following or a similarly worded statement— “I certify that this aircraft has been
inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and was determined to be in
airworthy condition”;
(5) If the aircraft is not approved for return to service because of needed
maintenance, non-compliance with the applicable specifications, airworthiness
directives, or other approved data, the following or a similarly worded
statement—I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with
(insert type) inspection and a list of discrepancies and un-airworthy items dated
(date) has been provided for the aircraft owner or operator; and
(6) If an inspection is conducted under an inspection program provided for in Part 8,
the person performing the inspection shall make an entry identifying the
inspection program accomplished, and containing a statement that the inspection
was performed in accordance with the inspections and procedures for that
particular program.
(b) Listing of discrepancies. The person performing any inspection required in Part 8,
who finds that the aircraft is not airworthy or does not meet the applicable type
certificate data sheet, airworthiness directives or other approved data upon which its
airworthiness depends, shall give the owner/operator a signed and dated list of those
discrepancies.

5.7-2
PCAR PART 5

PART 5: IS
AIRWORTHINESS:

IS-1
PCAR PART 5
IS: 5.1.1.2 (A) (1) MAJOR MODIFICATIONS (DEFINITION)

(a) Airframe Major Modifications. Major modifications include modifications to the
listed aircraft parts, or the listed types of modifications (when not included in the
applicable aircraft specifications)—
(1) Wings.
(2) Tail surfaces.
(3) Fuselage.
(4) Engine mounts.
(5) Control system.
(6) Landing gear.
(7) Hull or floats
(8) Elements of an airframe including spars, ribs, fittings, shock absorbers, bracing,
cowlings, fairings, and balance weights.
(9) Hydraulic and electrical actuating system of components.
(10) Rotor blades.
(11) Changes to the empty weight or empty balance which result in an increase in the
maximum Certified weight or centre of gravity limits of the aircraft.
(12) Changes to the basic design of the fuel, oil, cooling, heating, cabin
pressurization, electrical, hydraulic, de-icing, or exhaust systems.
(13) Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control surfaces which affect flutter
and vibration characteristics.
(b) Power-plant Major Modifications. Major power-plant modifications, even when not
listed in the applicable engine specifications, include—
(1) Conversion of an aircraft engine from one approved model to another, involving
any changes in compression ratio, propeller reduction gear, impeller gear ratios
or the substitution of major engine parts which requires extensive rework and
testing of the engine.
(2) Changes to the engine by replacing aircraft engine structural parts with parts not
supplied by the original manufacturer or parts not specifically approved by the
Authority.
(3) Installation of an accessory which is not approved for the engine.
(4) Removal of accessories that are listed as required equipment on the aircraft or
engine specification.
(5) Installation of structural parts other than the type of parts approved for the
installation.
(6) Conversions of any sort for the purpose of using fuel of a rating or grace other
than that listed in the engine specifications.
(c) Propeller Major Modifications. Major propeller modifications, when not authorized
in the applicable propeller specifications, include—
(1) Changes in blade design.
(2) Changes in hub design.
(3) Changes in the governor or control design.

IS-2
PCAR PART 5
(4) Installation of a propeller governor or feathering system.

(5) Installation of propeller de-icing system.
(6) Installation of parts not approved for the propeller.
(d) Appliance Major Modifications. Modifications of the basic design not made in
accordance with recommendations of the appliance manufacturer or in accordance
with applicable Airworthiness Directive are appliance major modifications. In addition,
changes in the basic design of radio communication and navigation equipment
approved under type certification or other Authorization that have an effect on
Frequency stability noise level, sensitivity, distortion, spurious radiation, AVC
characteristics, or ability to meet environmental test conditions and other changes
that have an effect on the performance of the equipment are also major
modifications.
IS: 5.1.1.2(A)(3) MAJOR REPAIRS (DEFINITION)

(a) Airframe Major Repairs. Repairs to the following parts of an airframe and repairs of
the following types, involving the strengthening, reinforcing, splicing, and
manufacturing of primary structural members of their replacement, when replacement
is by fabrication such as riveting or welding, are airframe major repairs.
(1) Box beams.
(2) Monocoque or semimonocoque wings or control surfaces.
(3) Wing stringers or chord members.
(4) Spars.
(5) Spar flanges.
(6) Members of truss-type beams.
(7) Thin sheet webs of beams.
(8) Keel and chine members of boat hulls or floats.
(9) Corrugated sheet compression members which act as flange material of wings or
tail surfaces.
(10) Wing main ribs and compression members.
(11) Wing or tail surface brace struts.
(12) Engine mounts.
(13) Fuselage longerons.
(14) Members of the side truss, horizontal truss, or bulkheads.
(15) Main seat support braces and brackets.
(16) Landing gear brace struts.
(17) Axles.
(18) Wheels.
(19) Parts of the control system such as control columns, pedals, shafts, brackets, or
horns.
(20) Repairs involving the substitution of material.

IS-3
PCAR PART 5
(21) The repair of damaged areas in metal or plywood stressed covering exceeding
six inches in any direction.
(22) The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.
(23) The splicing of skin sheets
(24) The repair of three or more adjacent wing or control surface ribs or the leading
edge of wings and control surfaces, between such adjacent ribs.
(25) Repair of fabric covering involving an area greater than that required to repair
two adjacent ribs.
(26) Replacement of fabric on fabric covered parts such as wings, fuselages,
stabilizers, and control surfaces.
(27) Repairing, including re-bottoming, of removable or integral fuel tanks and oil
tanks.
(b) Power-plant Major Repairs. Repairs of the following parts of an engine and repairs
of the following types, are power-plant major repairs—
(1) Separation or disassembly of a crankcase or crankshaft of a reciprocating engine
equipped with an integral supercharger.
(2) Separation or disassembly of a crankcase or crankshaft of a reciprocating engine
equipped with other than spur-type propeller reduction gearing.
(3) Special repairs to structural engine parts by welding, plating, metalizing, or other
methods.
(c) Propeller Major Repairs. Repairs of the following types to a propeller are propeller
major repairs—
(1) Any repairs to or straightening of steel blades.
(2) Repairing or machining of steel hubs.
(3) Shortening of blades.
(4) Re-tipping of wood propellers.
(5) Replacement of outer laminations on fixed pitch wood propellers.
(6) Repairing elongated bolt holes in the hub of fixed pitch wood propellers.
(7) Inlay work on wood blades.
(8) Repairs to composition blades.
(9) Replacement of tip fabric.
(10) Replacement of plastic covering.
(11) Repair of propeller governors.
(12) Overhaul of controllable pitch propellers.
(13) Repairs to deep dents, cuts, scars, nicks, etc., and straightening of aluminum
blades.
(14) The repair or replacement of internal elements of blades.
(d) Appliance Major Repairs. Repairs of the following types to appliances are appliance
major repairs—
(1) Calibration and repair of instruments.
(2) Calibration of avionics or computer equipment.

IS-4
PCAR PART 5
(3) Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory.

(4) Complete disassembly of complex hydraulic power valves.
(5) Overhaul of pressure type carburetors, and pressure type fuel, oil, and hydraulic
pumps.
IS: 5.1.1.2 (A) (5) PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE (DEFINITION)

(a) Preventive Maintenance. Preventive maintenance is limited to the following work,
provided it does not involve complex assembly operations.
(1) Removal, installation and repair of landing gear tires.
(2) Replacing elastic shock absorber cords on landing gear.
(3) Servicing landing gear shock struts by adding oil, air, or both.
(4) Servicing landing gear wheel bearings, such as cleaning and greasing.
(5) Replacing defective safety wiring or cotter keys.
(6) Lubrication not requiring disassembly other than removal of non-structural items
such as cover plates, cowlings, and fairings.
(7) Making simple fabric patches not requiring rib stitching or the removal of
structural parts or control surfaces.
(8) Replenishing hydraulic fluid in the hydraulic reservoir.
(9) Refinishing decorative coating of fuselage, wings, tail group surfaces (excluding
balanced control surfaces), fairings, cowling, landing gear, cabin, or cockpit
interior when removal or disassembly of any primary structure or operating
system is not required.
(10) Applying preservative or protective material to components where no
disassembly of any primary structure or operating system is involved and where
such coating is not prohibited or is not contrary to good practices.
(11) Repairing upholstery and decorative furnishings of the cabin or cockpit when
the repairing does not require disassembly of any primary structure or operating
system or interfere with an operating system or affect primary structure of the
aircraft.
(12) Making small simple repairs to fairings, non-structural cover plates, cowlings,
and small patches and reinforcements not changing the contour so as to interfere
with proper airflow.
(13) Replacing side windows where that work does not interfere with the structure
of any operating system such as controls, electrical equipment, etc.
(14) Replacing safety belts.
(15) Replacing seats or seat parts with replacement parts approved for the aircraft,
not involving disassembly of any primary structure or operating system.
(16) Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits in landing light wiring circuits.
(17) Replacing bulbs, reflectors, and lenses of position and landing lights.
(18) Replacing wheels and skis where no weight and balance computation is
involved.
(19) Replacing any cowling not requiring removal of the propeller or disconnection
of flight controls.

IS-5
PCAR PART 5
(20) Replacing or cleaning spark plugs and setting of spark plug gap clearance.
(21) Replacing any hose connection except hydraulic connections.
(22) Replacing prefabricated fuel lines.
(23) Cleaning fuel and oil strainers.
(24) Replacing and servicing batteries.
(25) Replacement or adjustment of non-structural fasteners incidental to
operations.
(26) The installation of anti-misfueling devices to reduce the diameter of fuel tank
filler openings provided the specific device has been made a part of the aircraft
type certificate data by the aircraft manufacturer, the manufacturer has provided
appropriately approved instructions acceptable to the Authority for the installation
of the specific device, and installation does not involve the disassembly of the
existing filler opening.
IS: 5.4.3 Noise Emission Standards

(a) The standards related to aircraft noise emission are those contained in the following
Chapters of ICAO Annex 16, Volume I, Part II:
(1) Chapter 2, entitled "Subsonic jet airplanes - Application for certificate of
airworthiness for the prototype accepted before 6 October 1977".
(2) Chapter 3, entitled:
"1. Subsonic jet airplanes - Application for certificate of airworthiness for the
prototype accepted on or after 6 October 1977 and before 1 January 2006”.
"2. Propeller-driven airplanes over 5700 kg - Application for certificate of
airworthiness for the prototype accepted on or after 1 January 1985 and
before 17 November 1988".
airworthiness for the prototype accepted on or after 17 November 1988 and
before 1 January 2006”.
(3) Chapter 4, entitled:
prototype accepted on or after 1 January 2006”.
airworthiness for the prototype accepted on or after 1 January 2006”.
(4) Chapter 5, entitled "Propeller-driven airplanes over 5700 kg - Application for
certificate of airworthiness for the prototype accepted before 1 January 1985".
(5) Chapter 6, entitled "Propeller-driven airplanes not exceeding 8618 kg- Application
for certificate of airworthiness for the prototype accepted before 17 November
1988".
(6) Chapter 8, entitled "Helicopters".
(7) Chapter 10, entitled "Propeller-driven airplanes not exceeding 8618 kg -
Application for certificate of airworthiness for the prototype or derived version
accepted on or after 17 November 1988".

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(8) Chapter 11, entitled “Helicopters not exceeding 3,175 kg maximum certificated
take-off mass”.
IS: 5.4.3.1 NOISE EVALUATION METHODS AND CERTIFICATION
DOCUMENTATION
(a) Noise Evaluation Methods
The methods for the evaluation of aircraft noise are those contained in the following
Appendices of ICAO Annex 16, Volume I:
(1) APPENDIX 1, entitled "Evaluation method for noise certification of subsonic jet
airplanes - Application for certificate of airworthiness for the prototype accepted
before 6 October 1977".
(2) APPENDIX 2, entitled "Evaluation method for noise certification of":
prototype accepted on or after 6 October 1977".
"2. Propeller-driven airplanes over 5,700 kg - Application for certificate of
airworthiness for the prototype accepted on or after 1 January 1985 and
before 17 November 1988".
"3. Propeller-driven airplanes over 8,618 kg - Application for certificate of
airworthiness for the prototype accepted on or after 17 November 1988".
"4. Helicopters".
(3) APPENDIX 3, entitled "Noise evaluation method for noise certification of
propeller-driven airplanes not exceeding 8,618 kg - Application for certificate of
airworthiness for the prototype accepted before 17 November 1988".
(4) APPENDIX 4, entitled “Evaluation method for noise certification of helicopters not
exceeding 3175 kg maximum certificated take-off mass”.
(5) APPENDIX 6, entitled "Noise evaluation method for noise certification of
propeller-driven airplanes not exceeding 8618 kg- Application for certificate of
airworthiness for the prototype accepted on or after 17 November 1988".
(b) Noise Certification Documentation
INFORMATION TO BE PROVIDED
The document attesting noise certification for an aircraft shall provide at least the
following information. All items are numbered in accordance with ICAO guidelines as
detailed in Annex 16 Volume I. This is to facilitate access to the information when the
noise certification documentation is examined by another State’s aviation Authority
using a language other than English. Some items are relevant to certain chapters
only. In these cases the relevant chapters are indicated in the item description.
ITEMS 1 TO 3 INCORPORATED IN THE FOLLOWING SAMPLE NOISE
CERTIFICATE.
ITEM 4 - REGISTRATION MARKS
The nationality or common mark and registration marks issued by the State of
Registry in accordance with Annex 7. This item shall correspond with the information
on the certificate of registration and the certificate of airworthiness.
ITEM 5 - MANUFACTURER AND MANUFACTURER’S DESIGNATION OF
AIRCRAFT

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The type and model of the subject aircraft. This item shall correspond with the
information on the certificate of registration and the certificate of airworthiness.
ITEM 6 - AIRCRAFT SERIAL NUMBER

The aircraft serial number as given by the manufacturer of the aircraft. This item shall
correspond with the information on the certificate of registration and the certificate of
airworthiness.
ITEM 7 - ENGINE MANUFACTURER, TYPE AND MODEL
The designation of the installed engine(s) for identification and verification of the
aircraft configuration. It shall contain the type and model of the subject engine(s). The
designation shall be in accordance with the type certificate or supplemental type
certificate for the subject engine(s).
ITEM 8 - PROPELLER TYPE AND MODEL FOR PROPELLER-DRIVEN
AEROPLANES
The designation of the installed propeller(s) for identification and verification of the
aircraft configuration. It shall contain the type and model of the subject propeller(s).
The designation shall be in accordance with the type certificate or supplemental type
certificate for the subject propeller(s). This item is included only in the noise
certification documentation for propeller-driven airplanes. Use Attachment #1 table
for applicability requirements.
ITEM 9 - MAXIMUM TAKE-OFF MASS AND UNIT
The maximum take-off mass, in kilograms, associated with the certificated noise
levels of the aircraft.
ITEM 10 - MAXIMUM LANDING MASS AND UNIT FOR CERTIFICATES ISSUED
UNDER CHAPTERS 2, 3, 4, 5 AND 12
The maximum landing mass, in kilograms, associated with the certificated noise
levels of the aircraft. The unit (kg) shall be specified explicitly in order to avoid
misunderstanding. If the primary unit of mass of' the State of Design of the aircraft is
different from kilograms. The conversion factor used shall be in accordance with
Annex 5. This item is included only in the noise certification documentation for
documents issued under Chapters 2, 3, 4, 5 and 12.
ITEM 11 - NOISE CERTIFICATION STANDARD
The chapter and section of Annex 16, Volume I, according to which the aircraft is
certificated. For Chapters 2, 8, 10 and 11, the section specifying the noise limits
should also he included.
ITEM 12 - ADDITIONAL MODIFICATIONS INCORPORATED, FOR THE PURPOSE
OF COMPLIANCE WITH THE APPLICABLE NOISE CERTIFICATION
STANDARDS
This item shall contain, as a minimum, all additional modifications to the basic aircraft
as defined by Items 5, 7 and 8 that are essential in order to meet the requirements of
the chapter of Annex 16, Volume I, to which the aircraft is noise certificated as given
under Item 11. Other modifications that are not essential to meet the stated chapter
but are needed to attain the certificated noise levels as given may also he included at
the discretion of the Authority. The additional modifications should be given using
unambiguous references, such as supplemental type certificate (STC) numbers,
unique part numbers or type/model designators given by the manufacturer of the
modification.

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ITEM 13 - THE LATERAL/FULL-POWER NOISE LEVEL IN THE CORRESPONDING

UNIT FOR DOCUMENTS ISSUED UNDER CHAPTERS 2, 3, 4, 5 AND 12
The lateral/full-power noise level as defined in the relevant chapter. It shall specify
the unit (e.g. EPNdB) of the noise level, and the noise level shall be stated to the
nearest tenth of a dB. This item is included only in the noise certification
documentation for aircraft certificated to Chapters 2, 3, 4, 5 and 12.
ITEM 14 – THE APPROACH NOISE LEVEL IN THE CORRESPONDING UNIT FOR
DOCUMENTS ISSUED UNDER CHAPTERS 2, 3, 4, 5 ,8 AND 12
The approach noise level as defined in the relevant chapter. It shall specify the unit
(e.g. EPNdB) of the noise level, and the noise level shall be stated to the nearest
tenth of a dB. This item is included only in the noise certification documentation for
aircraft certificated to Chapters 2, 3, 4, 5, 8 and 12.
ITEM 15 – THE FLYOVER NOISE LEVEL IN THE CORRESPONDING UNIT FOR
DOCUMENTS ISSUED UNDER CHAPTERS 2, 3, 4, 5, AND 12
The flyover noise level as defined in the relevant chapter. It shall specify the unit (e.g.
EPNdB) of the noise level, and the noise level shall be started to the nearest tenth of
a dB. This item is included only in the noise certification documentation for aircraft
certificated to Chapters 2, 3, 4, 5, and 12.
ITEM 16 – THE OVERFLIGHT NOISE LEVEL IN THE CORRESPONDING UNIT FOR
DOCUMENTS ISSUED UNDER CHAPTERS 6, 8, AND 11
The overflight noise level as defined in the relevant chapter. It shall specify the unit
(e.g. EPNdB or dB(A)) of the noise level, and the noise level shall he started to the
documentation for aircraft certificated to Chapters 6, 8, and 11.
ITEM 17 – THE TAKE-OFF NOISE LEVEL IN THE CORRESPONDING UNIT FOR
DOCUMENTS ISSUED UNDER CHAPTERS 8 AND 10
The take-off noise level as defined in the relevant chapter. It shall specify the unit
(e.g. EPNdB or dB(A)) of the noise level, and the noise level shall be stated to the
documentation for aircraft certificated to Chapters 8 and 10.
ITEM 18 – STATEMENT OF COMPLIANCE
A statement that the subject aircraft complies with the applicable noise requirements.
References should be made to annex 16, volume 1.
ITEM 19 – DATE OF ISSUE
The date on which the noise certification document was issued.
ITEM 20 – SIGNATURE
The signature of the officer issuing the noise certification document. In addition the
seal will be added.
REMARKS
This box is not numbered, in order to avoid non-standardized numbering. The box is
for additional information. Caution should be exercised to ensure that the information
provided will not be confused with the official noise certification levels. In particular,
noise levels taken under conditions other than the noise certification conditions
should he clearly marked as supplementary information. The box should contain an
adequate description of what additional information is provided.

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Noise Certification Standards for Propeller driven Airplanes

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IS: 5.6.1.3 (A) ELEMENTARY WORK

The following list is exhaustive; if a task is not listed, it is not elementary work.
Elementary work is a form of maintenance that is not subject to a maintenance release.
Hence, it need not be performed by a holder of an AMT license, or by persons working
under an AMO certificate. The owner is responsible for controlling authorizations to
persons who may perform elementary work.
Individuals including pilots are permitted to perform these tasks only after they have
been trained for the specific task by a licensed AMT. For aircraft operated in Commercial
Air Service, the applicable tasks listed below are elementary work, provided they are
individually listed in the operator's maintenance control manual and or operational

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manual as applicable, along with a reference to the training to be undertaken by persons

authorized to perform them in accordance with the CAR.
The performance of all tasks designated as elementary work shall be entered in the
technical record for the aeronautical product, as required by the CAR.
Information Note: Under the CAR, every person who makes an entry in a technical
record shall enter the person's name and, if the entry is in respect of the performance of
maintenance or elementary work, the signature or employee identifier or, where the
record is kept as electronic data, enter the person's user code or an equivalent security
designation.
ELEMENTARY WORK TASK LISTINGS
(1) fabric patches measuring not more than 15 cm (6 in) in any direction and not
requiring rib stitching or the removal of control surfaces or structural parts, on
small privately operated aircraft;
(2) removal and replacement of tires, wheels, landing skids or skid shoes, not
requiring separation of any hydraulic lines, on small privately operated aircraft;
(3) removal and replacement of skis on fixed landing gear, not requiring separation
of any hydraulic lines, on small privately operated aircraft;
(4) repair of non-structural fairings, cover plates and cowlings, on small privately
operated aircraft;
(5) cleaning and replacement of spark plugs, on small privately operated aircraft;
(6) checking of cylinder compression, on small privately operated aircraft;
(7) cleaning or changing of fuel, oil, and air filters, on small privately operated
aircraft;
(8) draining and replenishing engine oil, on small privately operated aircraft;
(9) checking the electrolyte level and specific gravity of lead acid batteries, on small
privately operated aircraft;
(10) adjustment of generator or alternator drive belt tension, on small privately
operated aircraft;
(11) cleaning of balloon burner nozzles;
(12) removal and replacement of balloon baskets, burners and gas tanks that are
designed for rapid change in service;
(13) removal and replacement of glider wings and tail surfaces that are designed for
quick assembly;
(14) repair of upholstery, trim and cabin furnishings;
(15) removal and replacement of role equipment designed for rapid removal and
replacement;
(16) removal and replacement of passenger seat belts and harnesses;
(17) removal and replacement of fuses, light bulbs and reflectors;
(18) removal and replacement of avionics components that are rack mounted or
otherwise designed for rapid removal and replacement, where the work does not
require testing other than an operational check;
(19) removal and replacement of aircraft batteries;

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(20) removal and replacement of co-pilot control levers, wheels, pedals and pedal
guard plates that are designed for rapid removal and replacement, on other than
transport category aircraft;
(21) opening and closing of non-structural access panels;
(22) removal and replacement of cabin doors on unpressurized aircraft, where the
door is designed for rapid removal and replacement;
(23) removal, replacement and repositioning of non structural partitions in the
passenger cabin;
(24) inspection and continuity checking of self-sealing chip detectors;
(25) removal and replacement of induction system anti-icing baffles, scoops and
deflectors that are designed for rapid removal and replacement;
(26) removal, cleaning, replacement and adjustment of external components of
chemical dispersal systems that are designed for rapid removal and
replacement;
(27) deactivating or securing inoperative systems which may be included in an
approved MEL, including the installation of devices specifically intended for
system deactivation, where the work does not involve disassembly, the
installation of parts, or testing other than operational checks;
(28) checking and adjusting air pressure in helicopter floats, and aircraft tires having
an operating pressure below 100 psi.
(29) repetitive visual inspections or operational checks (including inspections and
tests required by airworthiness directives) not involving disassembly or the use
of visual aids, performed out of phase with the aircraft’s scheduled check cycle
at intervals of less than 100 hours air time, provided the tasks are also included
in the most frequent scheduled maintenance check.
Information Notes:
(i) An operational check referred to in (27) above constitutes a check to
determine if the unit is working. Operational checks do not involve measuring
the unit’s performance against a predetermined standard. Where the testing
procedures require such measurement, replacement of the unit shall not
constitute Elementary Work.
(ii) Tasks referred to in (29) above are elementary work when performed out of
phase, but require a maintenance release when done as part of a scheduled
maintenance check.
IS: 5.6.1.7 PERFORMANCE RULES: 100-HOUR INSPECTIONS

(a) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that
inspection, thoroughly clean the aircraft and aircraft engine and remove or open all
necessary inspection plates, access doors, fairings, and cowlings.
(b) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect, where
applicable, the following components—
(1) Fuselage and hull group—
(i) Fabric and skin - for deterioration, distortion, other evidence of failure, and
defective or insecure attachment of fittings.
(ii) Systems and components - for improper installation, apparent defects, and

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PCAR PART 5
unsatisfactory operation.
(iii) The cabin and cockpit group.
(iv) Generally - for uncleanness and loose equipment that might foul the controls.
(v) Seats and safety belts - for poor condition and apparent defects.
(vi) Windows and windshields - for deterioration and breakage.
(vii) Instruments - for poor condition, mounting, marking, and (where practicable)
for improper operation.
(viii) Flight and engine controls - for improper installation and improper operation.
(ix) Batteries - for improper installation and improper charge. (x) All systems - for
improper installation, poor general condition, apparent and obvious defects,
and insecurity of attachment.
(2) Engine and nacelle group—
(i) Engine section - for visual evidence of excessive oil, fuel, or hydraulic leaks,
and sources of such leaks.
(ii) Studs and nuts - for improper torquing and obvious defects.
(iii) Internal engine - for cylinder compression and for metal particles or foreign
matter on screens and sump drain plugs. If there is weak cylinder
compression, for improper internal condition and improper internal
tolerances.
(iv) Engine mount - for cracks, looseness of mounting, and looseness of engine to
mount.
(v) Flexible vibration dampeners - for poor condition and deterioration.
(vi) Engine controls - for defects, improper travel, and improper safetying.
(vii) Lines, hoses, and clamps - for leaks, improper condition, and looseness.
(viii) Exhaust stacks - for cracks, defects, and improper attachment.
(ix) Accessories - for apparent defects in security of mounting.
(x) All systems - for improper installation, poor general condition, defects, and
insecure attachment.
(xi) Cowling - for cracks and defects.
(3) Landing gear group—
(i) All units - for poor condition and insecurity of attachment.
(ii) Shock absorbing devices - for improper oleo fluid level.
(iii) Linkage, trusses, and members - for undue or excessive wear, fatigue, and
distortion.
(iv) Retracting and locking mechanism - for improper operation.
(v) Hydraulic lines - for leakage.
(vi) Electrical system - for chafing and improper operation of switches.
(vii) Wheels - for cracks, defects, and condition of bearings.
(viii) Tires - for wear and cuts.
(ix) Brakes - for improper adjustment.

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PCAR PART 5
(x) Floats and skis - for insecure attachment and obvious or apparent defects.
(4) Wing and centre section assembly for—
(i) Poor general condition,
(ii) Fabric or skin deterioration,
(iii) Distortion,
(iv) Evidence of failure, and
(v) Insecurity of attachment.
(5) Complete empennage assembly for—
(i) Poor general condition,
(ii) Fabric or skin deterioration,
(iii) Distortion,
(iv) Evidence of failure,
(v) Insecure attachment,
(vi) Improper component installation, and
(vii) Improper component operation.
(6) Propeller group—
(i) Propeller assembly - for cracks, nicks, binds, and oil leakage,
(ii) Bolts - for improper torquing and lack of safety,
(iii) Anti-icing devices - for improper operations and obvious defects, and
(iv) Control mechanisms - for improper operation, insecure mounting, and
restricted travel.
(7) Avionics/instrument group—
(i) Avionics/instruments equipment - for improper installation and insecure
mounting.
(ii) Wiring and conduits - for improper routing, insecure mounting, and obvious
defects.
(iii) Bonding and shielding - for improper installation and poor condition.
(iv) Antenna including trailing antenna - for poor condition, insecure mounting,
and improper operation.
(8) Electronic/electrical group—
(i) Wiring and conduits - for improper routing, insecure mounting, and obvious
defects.
(ii) Bonding and shielding - for improper installation and poor condition.
(9) Each installed miscellaneous item that is not otherwise covered by this listing
and/or has instructions for continued airworthiness - for improper installation and
improper operation.
IS: 5.7.1.1 RECORDING OF MAJOR REPAIRS AND MAJOR MODIFICATIONS

(a) Each person performing a major repair or major modification shall—

IS-15
PCAR PART 5
(1) Execute the appropriate form prescribed by the Authority at least in duplicate;
(2) Give a signed copy of that form to the aircraft owner/operator; and
(3) Forward a copy of that form to the Authority, in accordance with Authority
instructions, within 48 hours after the aeronautical product is approved for return
to service.
(b) In place of the requirements of paragraph (a), major repairs made in accordance with
a manual or specifications acceptable to the Authority, an AMO may—
(1) Use the customer's work order upon which the repair is recorded;
(2) Give the aircraft owner a signed copy of the work order and retain a duplicate
copy for at least one year from the date of approval for return to service of the
aeronautical product;
(3) Give the aircraft owner a maintenance release signed by an Authorized
representative of the AMO and incorporating the following information—
(i) Identity of the aeronautical product;
(ii) If an aircraft, the make, model, serial number, nationality and registration
marks, and location of the repaired area;
(iii) If an aeronautical product, give the manufacturer's name, name of the part,
model, and serial numbers (if any); and
(4) Include the following or a similarly worded statement—
The aeronautical product identified above was repaired, overhauled and
inspected in accordance with currently effective, applicable instructions of the
State of Design and regulatory requirements of the Authority, and is approved for
return to service.
Pertinent details of the repair are on file at this maintenance organization.

Order No._____________________ Date___________________
Signed________________________________________________(Signature of
Authorized representative)
____________________________________________________ (Facility Name)
(AMO Certificate Number)
______________________________________________________ (Address)
______________________________________________________

IS-16
PCAR PART 5

IS-17
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IS-18
PCAR PART 6

PART 6
APPROVED MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION

i
PCAR PART 6

ii
PCAR PART 6

iii
PCAR PART 6

iv
PCAR PART 6

v
PCAR PART 6

First Amendment 21 March 2011 1. Definitions Ramon S. Gutierrez
• Powerplant
2. 6.2.1.3 Duration and
Renewal of Certificate (a),
(c) and (d).
Third Amendment 21 November 1. Definitions LT GEN William K
2014 • Powerplant Hotchkiss III AFP (Ret)
Fourth Amendment 23 March 2018 1. 6.2.1.3 Duration and Capt. Jim C. Sydiongco
Renewal of Certificate (a)
Fifth Amendment 28 December 1. 6.2.1.3 Duration and Capt. Jim C. Sydiongco
2018 Renewal of Certificate (a)
Sixth Amendment 09 June 2020 1. 6.2.1.3 Duration and Capt. Jim C. Sydiongco
Renewal of Certificate (c)
2. IS 6.5.1.2 Maintenance
Procedures and
Independent Quality
Assurance System

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PCAR PART 6

Part 6 Approved Maintenance Organization
List of Effective Pages vii – ix Amendment 06 01 July 2020
Table of Contents x – xi Amendment 06 01 July 2020
Introduction xii Original Issue 23 June 2008
Page
6.1-2 Amendment 03 21 November 2014

vii
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viii
PCAR PART 6


ix
PCAR PART 6
CONTENTS
6.1 GENERAL ……………………………………………………………………… 6.1-1

……………………………………………………………..
6.1.1.1 Applicability ……………………………………………………………………... 6.1-1
6.1.1.2 Definitions …………………..………………………………………………...…. 6.1-1
6.1.1.3 Abbreviations ……………………………………………………………………. 6.1-3
6.1.1.4 Certificate and Specific Operating Provisions ………………………..……… 6.1-3
6.1.1.5 Advertising ……………………………………………………………………… 6.1-3
6.1.1.6 Deviation Authority ……………………………………………………………… 6.1-4
6.2 CERTIFICATION ……………………………………………………………… 6.2-1
6.2.1.1 Application for an AMO Certificate ………………………………………...… 6.2-1
6.2.1.2 Issuance of an AMO Certificate …………………………………………..…… 6.2-1
6.2.1.3 Duration and Renewal of Certificate ………………………………………… 6.2-2
6.2.1.4 Continued Validity of Approval ………………………………………………… 6.2-2
6.2.1.5 Changes to the AMO and Certificate Amendments ………………………… 6.2-2
6.2.1.6 Ratings of the AMO……………………………………………………………… 6.2-3
6.2.1.7 AMO Limited Ratings…………………………………………………………… 6.2-6
6.3 HOUSING, FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT, AND MATERIALS……….……… 6.3-1
6.3.1.1 General …………………………………………………………………………. 6.3-1
6.3.1.2 Housing and Facility Requirements ………………………………………….. 6.3-1
6.3.1.3 Equipment, Tools and Material ………………………………………………… 6.3-1
6.4 ADMINISTRATION……………………………………………………………… 6.4-1
6.4.1.1 Personnel and Training Requirements ……………………………………… 6.4-1
6.4.1.2 Rest and Duty Limitations for Persons Performing Maintenance Functions
in an AMO………………………………………………………………………. 6.4-1
6.4.1.3 Record of Certifying Staff……………………………………………………… 6.4-2
6.5 AMO OPERATING RULES.......................................................................... 6.5-1
6.5.1.1 Approved Maintenance Organization Procedures Manual………………… 6.5-1
6.5.1.2 Maintenance Procedures and Independent Quality Assurance System…… 6.5-3
6.5.1.3 Capability List…………………………………………………………………… 6.5-3
6.5.1.4 Privileges of the Approved Maintenance Organization……………………… 6.5-4
6.5.1.5 Limitations on the AMO …………………………………………………………. 6.5-5
6.5.1.6 Certificate of Return to Service ………………………………………………… 6.5-5
6.5.1.7 Maintenance Records…………………………………………………………… 6.5-5

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PCAR PART 6
6.5.1.8 Airworthiness Data ……………………………………………………………… 6.5-7

6.5.1.9 Reporting of Unairworthy Conditions………………………………………… 6.5-8
6.5.1.10 CAA Inspections ………………………………………………………………… 6.5-8
6.5.1.11 Performance Standards............................................................................... 6.5-8
IS: 6.1.1.4 (d) Maintenance Organization Certificate........................................................... IS-2

IS: 6.2.1.1 Application for an AMO Certificate................................................................ IS-3
IS: 6.2.1.6 Ratings of the AMO....................................................................................... IS-4
IS: 6.3.1.2 Housing and Facility Requirements.............................................................. IS-13
IS: 6.3.1.3 Equipment, Tools and Material..................................................................... IS-14
IS: 6.4.1.1 Personnel Requirements............................................................................... IS-15
IS: 6.4.1.3 Records of Certifying Staff............................................................................ IS-17
IS: 6.5.1.1 Maintenance Organization Procedures Manual............................................ IS-18
IS: 6.5.1.2 Maintenance Procedures and Independent Quality Assurance System....... IS-21
IS: 6.5.1.6 Certification of Return to Service.................................................................. IS-36
IS: 6.5.1.8 Airworthiness Data........................................................................................ IS-41

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PCAR PART 6

PART 6
APPROVED MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION
Introduction
CAR Part 6 provides regulations for the registration and monitoring of Approved Maintenance
Organizations (AMO) in Republic of the Philippines. The proper maintenance of aircraft is
fundamental to aviation safety, and requires meticulous record-keeping.
In the Republic of the Philippines, persons have to be individually licensed in accordance with
Part 2 to perform any maintenance task and to sign the maintenance release to return to service
any aircraft or component. An AOC holder must use the services from an AMO with the
appropriate ratings, through administrative arrangements. This means that the maintenance
organization of an AOC holder must qualify as an AMO in its own right and obtain a separate
certificate as an AMO. As per the ICAO provisions, there is a need for oversight and regulation
of AMO's from the Authority.
An AMO applicant within the Republic of the Philippines is required to disclose any and all AMO
certificates in any Contracting State other than the Republic of the Philippines. Many regional
airline consortia use common maintenance facilities in one Contracting State. This practice does
not relieve the Republic of the Philippines from approving the AMO that its AOC holders use.
Knowledge of the other Contracting State's AMO licensing and regulating practices will allow the
Authority both to communicate with the Authority overseeing the AMO certificate, and to weigh
the AMO requirements of the other Contracting State for satisfaction of the Republic of the
Philippines's own regulations.
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PCAR PART 6
6.1 GENERAL
Part 6 prescribes the requirements for issuing approvals to organizations for the
maintenance, preventive maintenance, and modifications of aircraft and aeronautical
products and prescribes the general operating rules for an Approved Maintenance
Organization (AMO). The approval, when granted, shall apply to the whole organization
and shall be headed by the accountable manager.
6.1.1.2 DEFINITIONS
(a) For the purpose of Part 6, the following definitions shall apply
(1) Accountable Manager (Maintenance). The manager who has corporate
authority for ensuring that all maintenance, preventive maintenance, and
modification required by the aircraft owner/operator can be financed and carried
out to the standard required by the Authority. The accountable manager may
delegate to another person in the organization, in writing, to become the
accountable manager, when authorized by the Authority.
Note: The "accountable manager' is not specifically defined under ICAO, but the
concept is partially discussed in ICAO Doc. 9642. Section IV. Chapter 2, as being
either the CEO or a high-level corporate official who has financial responsibility
for carrying out the maintenance functions for the entire organization. This person
is not specifically defined under the current FAR's, but would generally equate to
either the owner of the AMO or the corporate official who signs the initial
application for the AMO certification. The definition of accountable manager used
in this Part is adapted from JAR 145.5 for ease of reference. JAR 145.5 IEM
gives examples of the Accountable Manager as the CEO, President, Managing
Director, Director General, General Manager, etc.
(2) Approved data. Technical information approved by the Authority.
(3) Article. Any item, including but not limited to, an aircraft; airframe, aircraft engine,
propeller, appliance, accessory, assembly, subassembly, system, subsystem,
component, unit, product or part.
(4) Certificated Approved Maintenance Organization. Means approved by the
Authority.
(5) Composite. Structural materials made of substances; including, but not limited
to, wood, metal, ceramic; plastic, fiber-reinforced materials, graphite, boron, or
epoxy, with built-in strengthening agents that may by in the form of filaments,
foils; powders, or flakes; of a different material.
(6) Computer system. Any electronic or automated system capable of receiving,
storing, and processing external data; and transmitting and presenting such data
in a usable form for the accomplishment of a specific function.
(7) Facility. A physical plant, including land, buildings, and equipment, which
provide the means for the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance,
or modifications of any article.
(8) Housing. Buildings, hangers, and other structures to accommodate the
necessary equipment and materials of a maintenance organization that-
6.1-1
PCAR PART 6
(i) Provide working space for the performance of maintenance, preventive

maintenance, or modifications for which the maintenance organization is
certificated and rated; and
(ii) Provide structures for the proper protection of aircraft, airframes, aircraft
engines, propellers, appliances, components, parts, and subassemblies
thereof during disassembly, cleaning, inspection, repair, modification,
assembly, and testing; and
(iii) Provide for the proper storage, segregation, and protection of materials, parts,
and supplies.
(10) Powerplant. The system consisting of all the engines, drive system components
(if applicable), and propellers (if installed), their accessories, ancillary part, and
fuel and oil systems installed on an aircraft but excluding the rotors for a
helicopter. (per Memorandum Circular No. 36-14, Series of 2014 dated 21
November 2014)
(11) Return to Service. (RTS). A document signed by an authorized representative
of an approved maintenance organization (AMO) in respect of an inspection,
repair or modification on a complete aircraft, engine or propeller after it has
received a Maintenance Release for the maintenance performed at an AMO.
Note: An air operator's aircraft are returned to service following maintenance by
a person specifically authorized by an AMO rather than by an individual on their
in Parts 5 and 6. The person signing the RTS acts in the capacity of an
authorized agent for the AMO and is certifying that the maintenance covered by
the RTS was accomplished according to the air operator's continuous
maintenance program. Responsibility for each step of the accomplished
maintenance is borne by the person signing for that step and the RTS certifies
the entire maintenance work package. This arrangement in no way reduces the
responsibility of licensed aircraft maintenance technicians (AMT) or maintenance
organizations for maintenance functions or tasks they perform or supervise. The
RTS is required for all commercially operated aircraft including flight training
aircraft having undergone maintenance at an AMO; however this may also be
used for Non-Commercial aircraft.
(12) Signature. An individual's unique identification used as a means of
authenticating a maintenance record entry or maintenance record. A signature
may be hand-written, electronic, or any other form acceptable to the Authority.
(13) Specialized maintenance. Any maintenance not normally performed by an
AMO (e.g. tire retreating, plating, etc.)
(14) Specific operating provisions. The Specific Operating Provisions describe the
ratings (Class and/or Limited) in detail and will contain or reference material and
process specifications used in performing repair work, along with any limitations
applied to the maintenance organization. The Accountable Manager and the
Authority sign this document.
Amendment 03 21 November 2014
6.1-2
PCAR PART 6
a. The following abbreviations are used in Part 6.
(1) AMO – Approved Maintenance Organization (Part 1)
(2) PMA – Parts Manufacturing Authorization
(3) TSO – Technical Standard Order
(4) RTS – Return to Service
6.1.1.4 CERTIFICATE AND SPECIFIC OPERATING PROVISIONS

(a) The AMO certificate will consist of two documents
(1) A one page certificate signed by the Authority, and
(2) A multi-page specific operating provisions signed by the Accountable Manager
and the Authority, containing the terms, conditions, and authorizations.
(b) No person may operate as a certificated approved maintenance organization without,
or in violation of, an approved maintenance organization certificate issued under this
Part.
(c) A certificated approved maintenance organization may perform maintenance,
preventive maintenance, or modifications on an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine,
propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof only for which it is rating and within
the limitations placed in its specific operating limitations.
(d) The AMO certificate will contain
(1) The certificate number specifically assigned to the AMO;
(2) The name and location (main place of business) of the AMO;
(3) The date of issue and period of validity;
(4) The ratings issued to the AMO; and
(5) Authority signature.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.1.1.4(d) for a sample AMO certificate.
(e) The AMO Specific Operating Provisions will contain
(1) The certificate number specifically assigned to the AMO;
(2) The class or limited ratings issued in detail, including special approvals and
limitations issued;
(3) The date issued or revised
(4) Accountable manager and Authority signatures
(5) The certificate issued to each certificated maintenance organization must be
available in the premises for inspection by the public and the Authority.
6.1.1.5 ADVERTISING
(a) No approved maintenance organization may advertise as a certificated approved
maintenance organization until an approved maintenance organization certificate has
been issued to that facility.
6.1-3
PCAR PART 6
(b) No certificated approved maintenance organization may make any statement, either
in writing or orally, about itself that is false or is designed to mislead any person.
(c) Whenever the advertising of an approved maintenance organization indicates that it
is certificated, the advertisement must clearly state the approved maintenance
organization's certificate number.
6.1.1.6 DEVIATION AUTHORITY

(a) The Authority may, upon consideration of the circumstances of a particular
maintenance organization, issue a deviation providing relief from specified sections
of this Part, provided that the Authority finds that the circumstances presented
warrant the deviation and that a level of safety will be maintained equal to that
provided by the rule from which the deviation is sought. This deviation authority will
be issued as a Letter of Deviation Authority.
(b) A Letter of Deviation Authority may be terminated or amended at any time by the
Authority.
(c) A request for deviation authority must be made in a form and manner acceptable to
the Authority and submitted to the Authority at least 60days before the date the
deviation from specified sections. This part is necessary for the intended
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification. A request for deviation
authority must contain complete statement of the circumstances and justifications for
the deviation requested, and show that a level of safety will be maintained equal to
that provided by the rule from which the deviation is sought.
(d) Each certificated maintenance organization that receives a Letter of Deviation
Authority must have a means of notifying the appropriate management, certifying
staff, and personnel of the deviation, including the extent of the deviation and when
the deviation is terminated or amended.
6.1-4
PCAR PART 6
6.2 CERTIFICATION
6.2.1.1 APPLICATION FOR AN AMO CERTIFICATE
(a) The Authority will require an applicant for an AMO certificate to submit the following:
(1) An application in a form and a manner prescribed by the Authority;
(2) Its maintenance procedures manual in duplicate;
(3) A list of the maintenance functions to be performed for it, under contract, by
another AMO;
Note: ICA0 Doc. 9642. Part 4, 2.9 states that it’s accepted practice to permit
AMOs to subcontract work to non-approved maintenance organizations if the
contracting AMO is (1 approved for the work to be subcontracted and has the
ability to assess the competency of the subcontractor. (2 retains the responsibility
for the quality control and release of subcontracted activities, and (3 there exist
procedures to control subcontracted activities together with terms of reference for
the personnel responsible for their management.
(4) A list of all AMO certificates and ratings pertinent to those certificates issued by
any contracting State other than Republic of the Philippines; and
Note: The requirement for listing AMO certificates, above. supports the
application by Republic of the Philippines of the following Articles of the Chicago
Convention: Article 33 - Recognition of Certificates and Licenses: Article 37(d) –
Adoption of International Standards and Procedures; Article 39(b) - Endorsement
of Certificates and Licenses; and Article 40 - Validity of Endorsed Certificates
and Licenses.
(5) Any additional information the Authority requires the applicant to submit.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.2.1.1 for sample of an application identified in
sub paragraph (a)(1).
Note: In “a form and in a manner" mean that a form issued by the Authority
should be completed by the accountable manager, or the manager's nominee
designated in accordance with Subpart 6.2.1.1(a).
(b) An application for the amendment of an existing AMO certificate shall be made on a
form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority. If applicable, the AMO shall submit
the required amendment to the maintenance procedure manual to the Authority for
approval.
6.2.1.2 ISSUANCE OF AN AMO CERTIFICATE

(a) An applicant may be issued an AMO certificate if, after investigation, the Authority
finds that the applicant
(1) Meets the applicable regulations and standards for the holder of an AMO; and
(2) Is properly and adequately equipped for the performance of maintenance of
aircraft or aeronautical product for which it seeks approval
Note: If under national law, any charges are to be prescribed by the Authority for
the AMO application process, that requirement should be set forth in this section.
6.2-1
PCAR PART 6
6.2.1.3 DURATION AND RENEWAL OF CERTIFICATE

(a) A Certificate or Rating issued to an Approved Maintenance Organization is valid
for five (5) years from the date of issuance subject to the compliance with the
Approved Maintenance Organization Procedures Manual and the provisions of
PCAR Part 6, unless:
(1) The Approved Maintenance Organization surrenders it; or

(2) The CAAP suspends or revokes it.
The Authority may at any time access the Approved Maintenance Organization
for the purpose of determining continued compliance with the PCAR.
(b) The holder of a certificate that expires or is surrendered, suspended, or revoked

by the CAAP must return the certificate and specific operating provisions to the
CAAP.
(c) A certificated approved maintenance organization that applies for a renewal of
its CAAP approved maintenance organization certificate must submit its request
for renewal with supporting documents no later than 60 days before the
approved maintenance organization's current certificate expires. Late
submission of the renewal request may result in the application being treated as
a new application for an AMO.
Note: An AMO certificate may not be renewed if any of the conditions upon
which the certificate was originally issued or amended are changed or become
invalid for any reason.
6.2.1.4 CONTINUED VALIDITY OF APPROVAL

(a) Unless the approval has been previously surrendered, superseded, suspended,
revoked or expired by virtue of exceeding any expiration date that may be
specified in the approval certificate, the continued validity of approval is
dependent upon
(1) The AMO remaining in compliance with this Part;
(2) The Authority being granted access to the organization's facilities to
determine continued compliance with this regulation; and
(3) The payment of any charges prescribed by the Authority.
(b) The holder of an AMO certificate that expires or is surrendered , suspended, or
revoked, shall return it to the Authority.
6.2.1.5 CHANGES TO THE AMO AND CERTIFICATE AMENDMENTS

(a) To enable the Authority to determine continued compliance with this Part, the
AMO shall provide written notification to the Authority either prior to, or within a
time period determined by the Authority to be as soon as practicable after, any
of the following changes:
6.2-2
PCAR PART 6
(1) The name of the organization;

(2) The location of the organization;
(3) The housing, facilities, equipment, tools, material, procedures, work scope and
certifying staff that could affect the AMO rating or ratings;
(4) The ratings held by the AMO, whether granted by the Authority or held through
an AMO certification issued by another contracting State;
Note: See subsection 6.2.1.1(a).
(5) Additional locations of the organization;
(6) The accountable manager; or
(7) The list of management personnel identified as described in the maintenance
procedure manual.
(b) The Authority will amend the AMO certificate if the AMO notifies the Authority of a
change in
(1) Location or housing and facilities;
(2) Additional locations of the organization;
(3) Rating, including deletions;
(4) Name of the organization with same ownership; or
(5) Ownership.
(c) The Authority may amend the AMO certificate if the AMO notifies the Authority of a
change in
(1) The accountable manager; or
(2) The list of management personnel identified as described in the maintenance
procedure manual.
(d) When the Authority issues an amendment to an AMO certificate because of new
ownership of the AMO, the Authority will assign a new certificate number to the
amended AMO certificate.
(e) The Authority may:
(1) Prescribe, in writing, the conditions under which the AMO may continue to
operate during any period of implementation of the changes noted in
subparagraph (a); and
(2) Hold the AMO certificate in abeyance if the Authority determines that approval of
the AMO certificate should be delayed; the Authority will notify the AMO certificate
holder, in writing, of the reasons for any such delay.
(f) If changes are made by the AMO to the items listed in subparagraph (a) without
notification to the Authority and amendment of the AMO certificate by the Authority,
the AMO certificate may be suspended by the Authority.
6.2.1.6 RATINGS OF THE AMO

(a) The following ratings are issued under this Subpart:
(1) Airframe ratings. An aircraft rating on an approved maintenance organization
certificate permits that approved maintenance organization to perform
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications on an aircraft; including
6.2-3
PCAR PART 6
work on the powerplant(s) of that aircraft up to, but not including, overhaul as that
term defined in 5.1.1.2(a)(5) under the following classes:
(i) Class 1: Aircraft (other than rotorcraft and aircraft composed primarily of
composite material) of 5,700 kg maximum certificated take-off weight or less.
(ii) Class 2: Aircraft (other than rotorcraft and aircraft composed primarily of
composite material) over 5,700 kg maximum certificated take-off weight and
up to, and including, 3,200 kg maximum certificated take-off weight.
(iii) Class 3: Aircraft, (other than rotorcraft and aircraft composed primarily
composite material) over 34,200 kg maximum certificated take-off weight.
(iv) Class 4: Rotorcraft (other than rotorcraft composed primarily of composite
material) of 2,736 kg maximum certificated take-off weight or less.
(v) Class 5: Rotorcraft (other than rotorcraft composed primarily of composite
material) over 2,736 kg maximum certificated take-off weight.
(vi) Class 6: Aircraft composed primarily of composite material, of 5,700 kg
maximum certificated take-off weight or less.
(vii) Class 7: Aircraft composed primarily of composite material, over 5,700 kg
maximum certificated take-off weight
(2) Powerplant ratings. A powerplant rating on an approved maintenance
organization certificate permits that approved maintenance organization to
perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of powerplants
under the following classes:
(i) Class 1: Reciprocating engines.
(ii) Class 2: Turbopropeller and turboshaft engines.
(iii) Class 3: Turbojet and turbofan engines.
(3) Propeller ratings. A propeller rating on an approved maintenance organization
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of propellers under the
following classes:
(i) Class 1: Fixed-pitch and ground-adjustable propellers.
(ii) Class 2: Variable-pitch propellers.
(4) Avionics ratings. An avionics rating on an approved maintenance organization
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of avionics equipment
under the following ratings:
(i) Class 1: Communication equipment: Any radio transmitting equipment or
receiving equipment, or both, used in aircraft to send or receive
communications, regardless of carrier frequency or type of modulation used;
including auxiliary and related aircraft interphone systems, amplifier systems,
electrical or electronic inter-crew signaling devices, and similar equipment;
but not including equipment used for navigation of the aircraft or as an aid to
navigation, equipment for measuring altitude or terrain clearance, other
measuring equipment operated on radio or radar principles, or mechanical,
electrical, gyroscopic, or electronic instruments that are a part of
communications avionics equipment.
6.2-4
PCAR PART 6
(ii) Class 2: Navigational equipment: Any avionics system used in aircraft for en-
route or approach navigation, except equipment operated on radar or pulsed
radio frequency principles, but not including equipment for measuring altitude
or terrain clearance or other distance equipment operated on pulsed radio
frequency principles.
(iii) Class 3: Pulsed equipment: Any aircraft electronic system operated on pulsed
radio frequency principles.
(5) Computer systems ratings. A computer systems rating on an approved
maintenance organization certificate permits that approved maintenance
organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications
of digital computer systems and components thereof, that have the function of
receiving external data, processing such data, and transmitting and presenting
the processed data under the following classes:
(i) Class 1: Aircraft computer systems.
(ii) Class 2: Powerplant computer systems.
(iii) Class 3: Avionics computer systems.
(6) Instrument ratings. An instrument rating on an approved maintenance
perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of instruments
under the following classes:
(i) Class 1: Mechanical: Any diaphragm, bourdon tube, aneroid, optical, or
mechanically driven centrifugal instrument that is used on aircraft or to
operate aircraft, including tachometers, airspeed indicators, pressure gauges,
drift sights, magnetic compasses, altimeters. or similar mechanical
instruments,
(ii) Class 2: Electrical: Any self-synchronous and electrical indicating instruments
and systems, including remote indicating instruments, cylinder head
temperature gauges, or similar electrical instruments,
(iii) Class 3: Gyroscopic: Any instrument or system using gyroscopic principles
and motivated by air pressure or electrical energy, including automatic pilot
control units, turn and bank indicators, directional gyros, and their parts, and
flux gate and gyrosyn compasses,
(iv) Class 4: Electronic: Any instruments whose operation depends on electron
tubes, transistors, or similar devices including capacitance type quantity
gauges, system amplifiers, and engine analyzers.
(7) Accessory ratings. An accessory rating on an approved maintenance
perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of accessory
equipment under the following classes:
(i) Class 1: Mechanical. The accessories that depend on friction, hydraulics,
mechanical linkage, or pneumatic pressure for operation,
(ii) Class 2: Electrical. The accessories that depend on electrical energy,
(iii) Class 3: Electronic. The accessories that depend on the use of an electron
tube transistors, lasers, fiber optics, solid-state, integrated circuits, vacuum
tubes, or similar electronic controls,
6.2-5
PCAR PART 6
(iv) Class 4: Auxiliary power units (APU's) that may be installed on aircraft as
self-contained units to supplement the aircraft's engines as a source of
hydraulic, pneumatic, or electrical power.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.2.1.6 for a detailed explanation of each
rating.
6.2.1.7 AMO LIMITED RATINGS

(a) Whenever the Authority finds it appropriate, it may issue a limited rating to an AMO
that maintains or alters only a particular type of airframe; powerplant, propeller, radio,
instrument, or accessory, or parts thereof, or performs only specialized maintenance
requiring equipment and skills not ordinarily found in an AMO. Such a rating may be
limited to a specific model aircraft, engine, or constituent part, or to any number of
parts made by a particular manufacturer.
(b) Limited ratings are issued for
(1) Aircraft;
(2) Airframe,
(3) Powerplants;
(4) Propellers;
(5) Avionics equipment;
(6) Computer systems;
(7) Instruments,
(8) Accessories; and
(9) Any other purpose for which the Authority finds the applicant's request
appropriate.
(c) Specialized service ratings. A specialized service rating may be issued to a
maintenance organization to perform specific maintenance or processes. The
specific operating provisions of the approved maintenance organization must identify
the specification used in performing that specialized service. The specification may
be--
(1) A civil or military specification that is currently used by industry and approved by
the Authority; or
(2) A specification developed by the approved maintenance organization and
6.2-6
PCAR PART 6
6.3 HOUSING, FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT, & MATERIALS

6.3.1.1 GENERAL
A certificated approved maintenance organization must provide personnel, facilities,
equipment, and materials in quantity and quality that meet the standards required for the
issuance of the certificate and ratings that the approved maintenance organization holds.
6.3.1.2 HOUSING AND FACILITY REQUIREMENTS

(a) Housing and facilities shall be provided appropriate for all planned work ensuring, in
particular, protection from weather.
(b) All work environments shall be appropriate for the task carried out and shall not
impair the effectiveness of personnel.
(c) Office accommodation shall be appropriate for the management of planned work
including, in particular, the management of quality, planning, and technical records.
(d) Specialized workshops and bays shall be segregated, as appropriate, to insure that
environmental and work area contamination is unlikely to occur.
(e) Storage facilities shall be provided for parts, equipment, tools and material.
(f) Storage conditions shall be provided security for serviceable parts, segregation of
serviceable from unserviceable parts, and prevent deterioration of and damage to
stored items.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.3.1.2 for detailed requirements pertaining to
housing and facilities.
6.3.1.3 EQUIPMENT, TOOLS, AND MATERIAL

(a) The AMO shall have available the necessary equipment, tools, and material to
perform the approved scope of work and these items shall be under full control of the
AMO. The availability of equipment and tools means permanent availability except in
the case of any tool or equipment that is so rarely needed that its permanent
availability is not necessary.
(b) The Authority may exempt an AMO from possessing specific tools and equipment for
maintenance or repair of an aircraft or aeronautical product specified in the AMO's
approval, if these items can be acquired temporarily, by prior arrangement, and be
under full control of the AMO when needed to perform required maintenance or
repairs.
Note: The Authority need not amend the approval to delete the aircraft or
aeronautical product on the basis that it is a temporary situation and there is a formal
agreement from the AMO to re-acquire tools, equipment, etc. before performing any
maintenance or repair.
(c) The AMO shall control all applicable tools, equipment, and test equipment used for
product acceptance and/or for making a finding of airworthiness.
(d) The AMO shall ensure that all applicable tools, equipment, and test equipment used
for product acceptance and/or for making a finding of airworthiness are calibrated to
ensure correct calibration to a standard acceptable to the Authority and traceable to
the State National Standards
(e) The AMO shall keep all records of calibrations and the standards used for calibration.
6.3-1
PCAR PART 6
Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.3.1.3 for detailed requirements pertaining to tools,
equipment, and test equipment.
6.3-2
PCAR PART 6
6.4 ADMINISTRATION
6.4.1.1 PERSONNEL AND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS
(a) A management person or group of persons acceptable to the Authority, whose
responsibilities include ensuring that the AMO is in compliance with these
regulations, shall be nominated.
(b) The person or persons nominated as manager shall represent the maintenance
management structure of the AMO, and be responsible for all functions specified in
Part 6.
(c) Nominated managers shall be directly responsible to an accountable manager who
shall be acceptable to the Authority.
(d) The AMO shall employ sufficient personnel to plan, perform, supervise and inspect
and release the work in accordance with the approval.
(e) The competence of personnel involved in maintenance shall be established in
accordance with a procedure and to a standard acceptable to the Authority.
(f) The person signing maintenance release or an approval for return to service shall be
qualified in accordance with CAR Part 2, as appropriate to the work performed, and
is acceptable to the Authority.
(g) The maintenance personnel and the certifying staff shall meet the qualification
requirements and receive initial and continuation training to their assigned tasks and
responsibilities in accordance with a program acceptable to the Authority. The
training program established by the AMO shall include training in knowledge and
skills related to human performance, including coordination with other maintenance
personnel and flight crew.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.4.1.1 for detailed personnel requirements.
6.4.1.2 REST AND DUTY LIMITATIONS FOR PERSONS PERFORMING

MAINTENANCE FUNCTIONS IN AN AMO
(a) No person may assign, nor shall any person perform maintenance functions for
aircraft, unless that person has had a minimum rest period of 8 hours prior to the
beginning of duty.
(b) No person may schedule a person performing maintenance functions for aircraft for
more than 12 consecutive hours of duty.
(c) In situations involving unscheduled aircraft unserviceability, persons performing
maintenance functions for aircraft may be continued on duty for
(1) Up to 16 consecutive hours; or
(2) 20 hours in 24 consecutive hours.
(d) Following unscheduled duty periods, the person performing maintenance functions
for aircraft shall have a mandatory rest period of 10 hours.
(e) The AMO shall relieve the person performing maintenance functions from all duties
for 24 consecutive hours during any 7 consecutive day period.
6.4-1
PCAR PART 6
6.4.1.3 RECORD OF CERTIFYING STAFF

(a) The AMO shall maintain a roster of all certifying staff, which includes details of the
scope of their authorization.
(b) Certifying staff shall be notified in writing of the scope of their authorization.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.4.1.3 for detailed requirements pertaining to
records of certifying staff.
6.4-2
PCAR PART 6
6.5 AMO OPERATING RULES

6.5.1.1 APPROVED MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION PROCEDURES MANUAL
Note: The purpose of the Approved Maintenance Organization Procedures Manual is to
set forth the procedures, the means. and methods of the AMO. Compliance with its
contents will assure compliance with the Part 6 requirements, which is a pre-requisite to
obtaining and retaining an AMO certificate.
(a) An AMO Maintenance Procedure Manual and any subsequent amendments thereto
shall be approved by the Authority prior to use.
(b) The AMO Maintenance Procedures Manual shall specify the scope of work required
of the AMO in order to satisfy the relevant requirements needed for an approval of an
aircraft or aeronautical product for return to service.
(c) The procedures manual and any other manual it identifies must:
(1) Include instructions and information necessary to allow the personnel concerned
to perform their duties and responsibilities with a high degree of safety;
(2) Be in a form that is easy to revise and contains a system which allows personnel
to determine current revision status;
(3) Have the date of the last revision printed on each page containing the revision;
(4) Not be contrary to any applicable Republic of the Philippines regulation or the
AMO's specific operating provisions; and
(5) Include a reference to appropriate civil aviation regulations.
(d) The AMO shall provide an Approved Maintenance Procedures Manual for use by the
organization, containing the following information
(1) A statement signed by the accountable manager confirming that the maintenance
organization Procedures Manual and any associated manuals define the AMO's
compliance with this regulation and will be complied with at all times;
(2) A procedure to establish and maintain a current list of the titles and names of the
management personnel accepted by the Authority. The list of personnel may be
separate from the Procedures Manual but must be kept current and available for
review by the Authority when requested;
(3) A list which describes the duties and responsibility of the management personnel
and which matters on which they may deal directly with the Authority on behalf of
the AMO;
(4) An organization chart showing associated chains of responsibility of the
management personnel.
(5) A procedure to establish and maintain a current roster of certifying personnel;
Note: The list of certifying personnel may be separate from the procedures
manual but must be kept current and available for review by the Authority when
requested.
(6) A description of the procedures used to establish the competence of
maintenance personnel;
(7) A general description of manpower resources;
Note: Subparagraphs (1) to (7) constitutes the management part of the
maintenance organization Procedures Manual and therefore could be produced
6.5-1
PCAR PART 6
as one document and made available to person(s) who should be reasonably

familiar with its contents.
(8) A description of the method used for the completion and retention of the
maintenance records;
(9) A description of the procedure for preparing the maintenance release and the
circumstances under which the release is to be signed;
(10) A description, when applicable, of additional procedures for complying with an
AOC holder's maintenance procedures and requirements;
(11) A description of the procedures for complying with the service information
reporting requirement contained in 6.5.1.9;
(12) A description of the procedure for receiving, amending and distributing within the
maintenance organization all necessary airworthiness data from the type
certificate holder or the type design organization;
(13) A general description of the facilities located at each address specified in the
AMO's approval certificate;
(14) A general description of the AMO's scope of work relevant to the extent of
approval;
(15) The notification procedure for AMO to use when requesting the approval of
changes to the organization of the AMO from the Authority;
(16) The amendment procedure for the AMO procedures manual, including the
submission to the Authority, and the method and procedures to ensure that all
amendments are furnished promptly to all organizations and persons to whom
the manual has been issued;
(17) The AMO's procedures, acceptable to the Authority, to ensure good
maintenance practices and compliance with all relevant requirements in this
subsection;
(18) The AMO's procedures to establish and maintain an independent quality system
to monitor compliance with the adequacy of the procedures to ensure good
quality maintenance practices and airworthy aircraft and aeronautical products.
Compliance monitoring must include a feedback system to the person or group
of persons specified in 6.4.1.1 and ultimately to the accountable manager to
ensure, as necessary, corrective action. Such a system shall be acceptable to
the Authority;
(19) The AMO procedures for self-evaluations, including methods and frequency of
such evaluations, and procedures for reporting results to the accountable
manager for review and action:
(20) A list of operators, if appropriate, to which the AMO provides an aircraft
maintenance service:
(21) A list of organizations performing maintenance on behalf of the AMO; and
(22) A list of the AMO's line maintenance locations and procedures, if applicable.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.5.1.1 for detailed requirements concerning the
Procedures Manual and a sample Maintenance Procedures Manual format.
6.5-2
PCAR PART 6
6.5.1.2 MAINTENANCE PROCEDURES AND INDEPENDENT QUALITY

ASSURANCE SYSTEM
(a) The AMO shall establish procedures acceptable to the Authority to insure good
maintenance practices and compliance with all relevant requirements in these
regulations such that aircraft and aeronautical products may be properly returned to
service.
(b) The AMO shall establish an independent quality assurance system, acceptable to the
Authority, to monitor compliance with and adequacy of the procedures and by
providing a system of inspection to ensure that all maintenance is properly
performed.
Note: The quality assurance system may be an independent system under the
control of the quality manager that evaluates the maintenance procedures and the
correctness of the Equivalent Safety Case process.
(c) The quality assurance system shall include a procedure to initially qualify and
periodically perform audits on persons performing work on behalf of the AMO.
(d) Compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system to the designated
management person or group of persons directly responsible for the quality system
and ultimately to the accountable manager to ensure, as necessary, corrective
action.
(e) The maintenance procedures shall cover all aspects of maintenance activity and
describe standards to which the AMO intends to work. The aircraft/aircraft
component design AMO standards and aircraft operator standards must be taken
into account.
(f) The maintenance procedures should address the provisions and limitations of Part 6.
(g) The AMO's quality system shall be sufficient to review all maintenance procedures as
described in the Procedures Manual in accordance with an approved program once a
year for each aircraft type maintained.
(h) The AMO's quality system shall indicate when audits are due, when completed, and
establish a system of audit reports, which can be seen by visiting Authority staff on
request. The audit system shall clearly establish a means by which audit reports
containing observations about non-compliance or poor standards are communicated
to the accountable manager.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.5.1.2 for a detailed list of inspection items
evaluated by the quality system.
6.5.1.3 CAPABILITY LIST

(a) Each certificated approved maintenance organization must prepare and retain a
current capability list approved by the Authority. The approved maintenance
organization may not perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications
on an article until the article has been listed on the capability list in accordance with
this Part and 6.5.1.1(d)(19).
(b) The capability list must identify each article by make and model, part number, or
other nomenclature designated by the article's manufacturer.
(c) An article may be listed on the capability list only if the article is within the scope of
the ratings and classes of the approved maintenance organization's certificate, and
only after the approved maintenance organization has performed a self-evaluation in
accordance with 6.5.1.1(d)(19). The approved maintenance organization must
6.5-3
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perform the self-evaluation described in this paragraph to determine that the

maintenance organization has all of the facilities, equipment, material, technical data,
processes, housing, and trained personnel in place to perform the work on the article
as required by this part. If the approved maintenance organization makes that
determination, it may list the article on the capability list.
(d) The document of the evaluation described in paragraph (c) of this section must be
signed by the accountable manager and must be retained on file by the approved
maintenance organization.
(e) Upon listing an additional article on its capability list, the maintenance organization
must send a copy of the list to the Authority having jurisdiction over the approved
(f) The capability list(s) must be available in the premises for inspection by the public
and the Authority.
(g) The self-evaluations must be available in the premises for inspection by the
Authority.
(h) The AMO shall retain the capability list(s) and self-evaluation(s) for two years from
the date accepted by the Accountable Manager.
6.5.1.4 PRIVILEGES OF THE APPROVED MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION

(a) The AMO shall carry out the following tasks as permitted by and in accordance with
the AMO maintenance procedures manual
(1) Maintain any aircraft or aeronautical product for which it is rated at the location
identified in the approval certificate;
(2) Maintain any aircraft for which it is rated at any location subject to the need for
such maintenance arising from unserviceability of the aircraft;
(3) Describe the activities in support of a specific AOC holder where that AOC has
requested the services of the AMO at locations other than the location identified
on the AMO certificate and the AMO has been rated to maintain the aircraft of
that specific AOC holder at the requested location in the AMO operating
provisions approved by the Authority; and
(4) Issue an approval for return to service or a maintenance release in respect of
subparagraphs (a) (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection upon completion of
maintenance in accordance with limitations applicable to the AMO.
(b) An AMO may not contract out the maintenance, preventative maintenance,
modification or alteration of a complete type-certificated product to a non-approved
(c) The AMO may maintain or alter any article for which it is rated at a place other than
the AMO, if
(1) The function would be performed in the same manner as when performed at the
AMO and in accordance with this Subpart;
(2) All necessary personnel, equipment, material, and technical and/or approved
standards are available at the place where the work is to be done; and
(3) The maintenance procedure manual of the AMO sets forth approved procedures
governing work to be performed at a place other than the AMO.
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6.5.1.5 LIMITATIONS ON THE AMO

The AMO shall maintain an aircraft or aeronautical product for which it is approved only
when all necessary housing, facilities, equipment, tools, material, approved technical
data and certifying staff are available.
6.5.1.6 CERTIFICATE OF RETURN TO SERVICE

(a) A certificate of return to service shall be issued by appropriately authorized certifying
staff when satisfied that all required maintenance of the aircraft or aeronautical
product has been properly carried out by the AMO in accordance with the
maintenance procedure manual.
Note: An aeronautical product which has been maintained off the aircraft requires the
issue of a certificate of return to service for such maintenance and another certificate
of return to service in regard to being installed properly on the aircraft, when such
action occurs.
(b) A certificate of return to service shall contain
(1) Basic details of the maintenance carried out;
(2) The date such maintenance was completed; and
(3) The identity, including the authorization reference, of the AMO and certifying staff
issuing the certificate.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.5.1.6 for detailed requirements concerning a
certificate of return to service, along with a sample form.
6.5.1.7 MAINTENANCE RECORDS

(a) The AMO shall record, in a form acceptable to the Authority, all details for
maintenance work performed.
(b) The AMO shall provide a copy of each certificate of return to service to the aircraft
operator, together with a copy of any specific airworthiness data used for
repairs/modifications performed.
(c) The AMO shall retain a copy of all detailed maintenance records and any associated
airworthiness data for two years from the date the aircraft or aeronautical product to
which the work relates was released from the AMO.
Note: FAR and JAR require retaining maintenance records for two years.
[Ref. ICAO 9389 Attachment 6-E-1, Paragraphs 7.9.5 and 7.9.9]
Note: Where an AOC holder contracts an AMO to keep the aircraft operator's
certificates of return to service and any associated airworthiness data, the retention
period will be that required by Part 5.
(d) Each person who maintains, performs preventive maintenance, rebuilds, or modifies
an aircraft/aeronautical product shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that
equipment:
(1) A description and reference to data acceptable to the Authority of work
performed.
(2) The date of completion of the work performed.
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(3) The name of the person performing the work if other than the person specified in
this subsection.
(4) If the work performed on the aircraft/aeronautical product has been performed
satisfactorily, the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the
person approving the work.
(5) The authorized signature, the AMO certificate number, and kind of certificate held
by the person approving or disapproving for return to service the aircraft,
airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component part, or portions
thereof;
(6) The signature constitutes the approval for return to service only for the work
performed.
(7) In addition to the entry required by this paragraph, major repairs and major
modifications shall be entered on a form, and the form disposed of by the person
performing the work, in the manner prescribed by the Authority.
(e) No person shall describe in any required maintenance entry or form an aircraft or
aeronautical component as being overhauled unless:
(a) Using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, it has
been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted. repaired as necessary, and
reassembled; and
(b) It has been tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or
in accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the
Authority, which have been developed and documented by the holder of the type
certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or
appliance approval under a TSO.
Note: For definitions of overhaul see 5.1.1.2(a)(5).
(f) No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form, an aircraft or
other aeronautical product as being rebuilt unless it has been
(1) Disassembled. cleaned, inspected as permitted;
(2) Repaired as necessary; and
(3) Reassembled and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item, using
either new parts or used parts that either conforms to new part tolerances and
limits, or to approve oversized or undersized dimensions.
Note: For definitions of rebuild see 5.1.1.2(a)(6).
(g) No person may approve for return to service any aircraft or aeronautical product that
has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification
unless:
(a) The appropriate maintenance record entry has been made;
(b) The repair or modification form authorized by or furnished by the Authority has
been executed in a manner prescribed by the Authority;
(h) If a repair or modification results in any change in the aircraft operating limitations or
flight data contained in the approved aircraft flight manual, those operating limitations
or flight data shall be appropriately revised and set forth as prescribed by the
Authority.
(i) Maintenance record entries for inspections. The person approving or disapproving for
return to service an aircraft/aeronautical product, after any inspection performed in
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accordance with this regulation, shall make an entry in the maintenance record of
that equipment containing the following information:
(1) The type of inspection and a brief description of the extent of the inspection;
(2) The date of the inspection and aircraft total time in service; and
(3) The authorized signature, the AMO certificate number, and kind of certificate held
by the person approving or disapproving for return to service the aircraft,
airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component part, or portions
thereof;
(4) If the aircraft is found to be airworthy and approved for return to service, the
following or a similarly worded statement—I certify that this aircraft has been
inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and was determined to be in
airworthy condition;
(5) If the aircraft is not approved for return to service because of needed
maintenance, non-compliance with the applicable specifications, airworthiness
directives, or other approved data, the following or a similarly worded
statement—/ certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with
(insert type) inspection and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items dated
(date) has been provided for the aircraft owner or operator; and
(6) If an inspection is conducted under an inspection program provided for in this
regulation, the entry shall identify the inspection program accomplished, and
contains a statement that the inspection was performed in accordance with the
inspections and procedures for that particular program.
(j) Listing of discrepancies. If the person performing any inspection required by this
regulation finds that the aircraft is not airworthy or does not meet the applicable type
certificate data sheet, airworthiness directives, or other approved data upon which its
airworthiness depends, that person shall give the owner or lessee a signed and
dated list of those discrepancies.
6.5.1.8 AIRWORTHINESS DATA

(a) The AMO shall be in receipt of all airworthiness data appropriate to support the work
performed from the Authority, the aircraft/aeronautical product design organization,
and any other approved design organization in the State of Manufacture or State of
Design, as appropriate.
Note: The Authority may classify data from another authority or organization as
mandatory and may require the AMO to hold such data.
(b) Where the AMO modifies airworthiness data specified in paragraph (a) to a format or
presentation more useful for its maintenance activities, the AMO shall submit to the
Authority an amendment to the maintenance procedure manual for any such
proposed modifications for acceptance.
(c) All airworthiness data used by the AMO shall be kept current and made available to
all personnel who require access to that data to perform their duties.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 6.5.1.8 for detailed requirements concerning
airworthiness data.
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6.5.1.9 REPORTING OF UNAIRWORTHY CONDITIONS

(a) The AMO shall report to the Authority and the aircraft design organization of the
State of Design any identified condition that could present a serious hazard to the
aircraft.
(b) Reports shall be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority and
contain all pertinent information about the condition known to the AMO.
(c) Where the AMO is contracted by an AOC holder to carry out maintenance, that AMO
shall report to the AOC holder any condition affecting the aircraft or aeronautical
product.
(d) Reports shall be made as soon as practicable, but in any case within three (3)
working days of the AMO identifying the condition to which the report relates.
6.5.1.10 CAA INSPECTIONS

Each certificated approved maintenance organization shall allow the Authority to inspect
that approved maintenance organization and any of its contract maintenance facilities at
any time to determine compliance with this part. Arrangements for maintenance,
preventive maintenance or modifications by a contractor shall include provisions for
inspections of the contractor by the Authority.
6.5.1.11 PERFORMANCE STANDARDS

(a) Each certificated approved maintenance organization that performs any
maintenance, preventive maintenance, modifications for an air operator certificated
under CAR Part 9 having an approved maintenance program under CAR Part 9,
Subpart 9.4.1.11 and approved continuous maintenance program under Subpart
CAR Part 5, 5.6.1.8 (e) shall perform that work in accordance with the air operator's
manuals.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (a), each certificated approved maintenance
organization shall perform its maintenance and modification operations in
accordance with the applicable standards in Part 5. It shall maintain, in current
condition, all manufacturer's service manuals, instructions, and service bulletins that
relate to the articles that it maintains or modifies.
(c) In addition, each certificated approved maintenance organization with an avionics
rating shall comply with those sections in Part 5 that apply to electronic systems, and
shall use materials that conform to approved specifications for equipment appropriate
to its rating. It shall use test apparatus, shop equipment, performance standards, test
methods, modifications, and calibrations that conform to the manufacturer's
specifications or instructions, approved specification, and if not otherwise specified,
to accept good practices of the aircraft avionics industry.
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PCAR PART 6

PART 6: IS
APPROVED MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION:

23 June 2008
IS-1
PCAR PART 6
IS: 6.1.1.4(d) MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION CERTIFICATE
IS-2
PCAR PART 6
IS: 6.2.1.1 APPLICATION FOR AN AMO CERTIFICATE
IS-3
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IS: 6.2.1.6 RATINGS OF THE AMO

Except for job functions that are contracted out, each certificated approved maintenance
organization must provide equipment and material so that the job functions listed in this
IS, as appropriate to the class or limited rating held or applied for, can be performed as
required. The job functions are as follows:
(a) For an aircraft rating:
(1) Classes 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5:
(i) Metal skin and structural components :
(A) Repair and replace steel tubes and fittings using the proper welding
techniques when appropriate.
(B) Apply anticorrosion treatment to the interior and exterior parts.
(C) Perform simple machine operations.
(D) Fabricate steel fittings.
(E) Repair and replace metal skin.
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(F) Repair and replace alloy members and components.

(G) Assemble and align components using jigs or fixtures.
(H) Make up forming blocks or dies.
(I) Repair or replace ribs.
(ii) Wood Structure:
(A) Splice wood spars.
(B) Repair ribs and spars.
(C) Align interior of wings.
(D) Repair or replace plywood skin.
(E) Apply treatment against wood decay.
(iii) Fabric covering:
(A) Repair fabric surfaces.
(iv) Aircraft control systems:
(A) Repair and replace control cables.
(B) Rig complete control system.
(C) Replace and repair all control system components.
(D) Remove and install control system units and components.
(v) Aircraft systems:
(A) Replace and repair landing gear hinge-point components and
attachments.
(B) Maintain elastic shock absorber units.
(C) Conduct landing gear retraction cycle tests.
(D) Maintain electrical position indicating and wiring systems.
(E) Repair and fabricate fuel, pneumatic, hydraulic, and oil lines.
(F) Diagnose electrical and electronic malfunctions.
(G) Repair and replace electrical wiring and electronic data transmission lines.
(H) Install electrical and electronic equipment.
(I) Perform bench check of electrical and electronic components. (This check
is not to be confused with the more complex functional test after repair or
overhaul.)
(vi) Assembly operations:
(A) Assemble aircraft components or parts, such as landing gear, wings, and
controls.
(B) Rig and align aircraft components, including the complete aircraft and
control system.
(C) Install powerplants.
(D) Install instruments and accessories.
(E) Assemble and install cowlings, fairings, and panels.
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(F) Maintain and install windshields and windows.

(G) Jack or host complete aircraft.
(H) Balance flight control surfaces.
(vii) Non-destructive inspection and testing using dye penetrants and magnetic,
ultrasonic, radiographic, fluorescent, or holographic inspection techniques.
(viii) Inspection of metal structures:
(A) Inspect metal structures, using appropriate inspection
equipment to perform the inspections required on an aircraft.
(2) Classes 6 and 7:
(i) In addition to having the capability to perform the appropriate functions set
forth for class 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5 aircraft ratings, an approved maintenance
organization holding a class 6 or 7 aircraft rating for composite aircraft must
have the following equipment:
(A) Autoclave capable of providing positive pressure and temperature
consistent with materials used.
(B) Air circulating oven with vacuum capability.
(C) Storage equipment, such as freezer, refrigerator, and temperature-control
cabinets or other definitive storage areas.
(D) Honeycomb core cutters.
(E) Non-destructive inspection equipment such as x-ray, ultrasonic, or other
types of acoustic test equipment as recommended by the manufacturer.
(F) Cutting tools, such as diamond or carbide saws or router bits, suitable for
cutting and trimming composite structures.
(G) Scales adequate to ensure proper proportioning by weight of epoxy
adhesive and resins.
(H) Mechanical pressure equipment such as vacuum bagging or sand bags,
as appropriate.
(I) Thermocouple probes necessary to monitor cure temperatures.
(J) Hardness testing equipment using heat guns that are thermostatically
controlled for curing repairs.
(ii) Appropriate inspection equipment to perform inspection of composite
structures as recommended by the manufacturer and as required for
inspection of an aircraft under this section.
(3) List of maintenance functions that may be contracted out:
(i) For all classes of airframe ratings:
(A) Metal plating or anodizing.
(B) Complex machine operation involving the use of planners, shapers,
milling machines, etc.
(C) Abrasive air blasting and chemical cleaning operations.
(D) Heat treatment.
(E) Magnetic inspection.
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PCAR PART 6
(F) Repair or rebuilt metal tanks

(G) Fabricate alloy members and components such as tubes, channels;
cowlings, fittings, attach angles, etc.
(H) Fabricate wood spars.
(I) Overhaul and repair hydraulic-pneumatic shock absorber units.
(J) Overhaul and repair brake system components.
(K) Overhaul and repair hydraulic system components
(L) Conduct aircraft weight and balance operation (this function will be
conducted in a draft free area).
(M) Fluorescent inspection of alloy components.
(N) Recovering and refinishing of components and entire aircraft.
(b) Powerplant rating:
(1) Class 1:
(i) Maintain and alter powerplants, including replacement of parts:
(A) Perform chemical and mechanical cleaning.
(B) Perform disassembly operations.
(C) Replace bushings, bearings, pins, and inserts.
(D) Perform heating operations that may involve the use of recommended
techniques that require controlled heating facilities.
(E) Perform chilling or shrinking operations.
(F) Remove and replace studs.
(G) Inscribe or affix identification information.
(H) Paint powerplants and components.
(I) Apply anticorrosion treatment for parts.
(ii) Inspect all parts, using appropriate inspection aids:
(A) Determine precise clearances and tolerances of all parts.
(B) Inspect alignment of connecting rods, crankshafts, and impeller shafts.
(iii) Accomplish routine machine work:
(A) Ream inserts, bushings, bearings, and other similar components.
(B) Reface valves.
(iv) Accomplish assembly operations:
(A) Perform valve and ignition-timing operations.
(B) Fabricate and test ignition harnesses.
(C) Fabricate and test rigid and flexible fluid lines.
(D) Prepare engines for long or short term storage.
(E) Hoist engines by mechanical means.
(2) Classes 2 and 3:
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(i) In addition to having the capability to perform the appropriate functions as

required for class 1 powerplant rating, a maintenance organization holding a
class 2 or a class 3 powerplant rating must have the following equipment:
(A) Testing equipment
(B) Surface treatment antigallant equipment
(ii) Functional and equipment requirements recommended by the manufacturer:
and
(iii) Appropriate inspection equipment.
(i) Class 1 and 2 Powerplant (Reciprocating).
(ii) Replacement of valve guides and seats.
(iii) Plating operations (copper, silver, cadmium, etc.).
(iv) Replacement and repair of powerplant alloy sheet metal and steel
components such as air baffles, etc.
(v) Magnetic, fluorescent and other acceptable inspection aids.
(vi) Balancing of parts, including crankshafts, impeller shafts, etc.
(vii) Precision grinding, honing and lapping operations (including crankshaft,
cylinder barrels, etc.)
(viii) Precision drilling, tapping, boring, milling, and cutting operations.
(ix) Functional check powerplant accessories (this check is not to be confused
with the more complex performance test of overhaul).
(x) Install engines in aircraft.
(xi) Align and adjust engine controls.
(c) Propeller Rating:
(1) Class 1:
(i) Remove and install propellers
(ii) Maintain and alter propellers, including installation and replacement of parts:
(A) Replace bladed tipping.
(B) Refinish wood propellers
(C) Make wood inlays.
(D) Refinish plastic blades.
(E) Straighten bent blades within repairable tolerances.
(F) Modify blade diameter and profile.
(G) Polish and buff.
(H) Perform painting operations.
(iii) Inspect components using appropriate inspection aids:
(A) Inspect propellers for conformity with manufacturer's drawings and
specifications.
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PCAR PART 6
(B) Inspect hubs and blades for failures and defects using all visual aids,
including the etching of parts.
(C) Inspect hubs for wear of splines or keyways or any other defect.
(iv) Balance propellers:
(A) Test for proper track on aircraft.
(B) Test for horizontal and vertical unbalance using precision equipment.
(2) Class 2
(i) Remove and install aircraft propellers, which may include installation and
replacement of parts.
(A) Perform all functions listed under Class 1 propellers when applicable to
make and model propeller in this class.
(B) Properly lubricate moving parts.
(C) Assemble complete propeller and subassemblies using special tools
when required.
(ii) Inspect components using appropriate inspection aids for those functions
listed for class 1 propellers under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this Implementing
Standard when applicable to the make and model of the propeller being
worked on.
(iii) Repair or replace components or parts:
(A) Replace blades, hubs, or any of their components.
(B) Repair or replace anti-icing devices.
(C) Remove nicks or scratches from metal blades.
(D) Repair or replace electrical propeller components.
(iv) Balance propellers, including those functions listed for class 1 propellers
under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this Implementing Standard when applicable to
the make and model of the propeller being worked on.
(v) Test propeller pitch-changing mechanism:
(A) Test hydraulically operated propellers and components.
(B) Test electrically operated propellers and components.
(i) Class 1 Propeller: (A) Inspect hubs and blades for failures and defects; using
magnetic or fluorescent inspection devices.
(ii) Class 2 Propeller: (A) Test of constant speed devices.
(d) Avionics rating:
(1) Class 1, 2, and 3:
(A) Perform physical inspection of avionics systems and components by visual
and mechanical inspection.
(B) Perform electrical inspection of avionics systems and components by means
of appropriate electrical and/or electronic test equipment.
(C) Check aircraft wiring, antennas, connectors, relays, and other associated
avionics components to detect installation faults.
IS-9
PCAR PART 6
(D) Check engine ignition systems and aircraft accessories to determine sources
of electrical interference.
(E) Check aircraft power supplies for adequacy and proper functioning.
(F) Remove, repair, and replace aircraft antennas.
(G) Measure transmission line attenuation.
(H) Measure avionics component values such as inductance, capacitance, and
resistance.
(I) Determine waveforms and phase in avionics equipment when applicable.
(J) Determine proper aircraft avionics antenna, lead-in, and transmission-line
characteristics and determine proper locations for type of avionics equipment
to which the antenna is connected.
(K) Determine the operational condition of avionics equipment installed in aircraft
by using appropriate portable test apparatus.
(L) Test all types of transistors: solid-state, integrated circuits; or similar devices
in equipment appropriate to the class rating.
(M) Test avionics indicators.
(2) Class 1.
(i) In addition to having the capability to perform the job functions listed in
paragraph (d)(1):
(A) Test and repair headsets, speakers; and microphones.
(B) Measure radio transmitter power output.
(C) Measure modulation values; noise; and distortion in communication
equipment.
(3) Class 2:
paragraph (d)(1):
(A) Test and repair headsets.
(B) Test speakers
(C) Measure loop antenna sensitivity by appropriate methods.
(D) Calibrate to approved performance standards any radio navigational
equipment, en-route and approach aids, or similar equipment, as
appropriate to this rating.
(4) Class 3:
paragraph (d)(1):
(A) Measure transmitter power output.
(5) List of maintenance functions that may be contracted out.
(i) Class 2 Avionics:
(A) Repair of speakers.
(ii) Class 3 Avionics:
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PCAR PART 6
(A) Metal plating of transmission lines, wave guides, and similar equipment
in accordance with appropriate specifications.
(iii) For all Class of Avionics ratings:
(A) Test avionics indicators.
(B) Overhaul, test, and check dynamotors, inverters, and other radio electrical
apparatus.
(C) Paint and refinish equipment containers
(D) Accomplish appropriate methods of marking calibrations, or other
information on avionics control panels and other components, as required.
(E) Make and reproduce drawings, wiring diagrams, and other similar material
required to record alteration and/or modifications to avionics (photographs
may be used in lieu of drawings when they will serve as an equivalent or
better means of recording).
(F) Fabricate tuning shaft assemblies, brackets, cable assemblies, and other
similar components used in avionics or aircraft avionics installations.
(G) Install complete avionics systems in aircraft and prepare weight and
balance reports (that phase of avionics installation requiring modifications
to the aircraft structure must be performed, supervised, and inspected by
appropriately qualified and authorized person).
(e) Computer systems rating:
(1) Class 1, 2, and 3:
(A) Maintain computer systems in accordance with manufacturer's
specifications, test requirements, and recommendations.
(B) Remove, maintain, and replace computer systems in aircraft.
(C) Inspect, test, and calibrate computer system equipment, including
software.
(f) Instrument rating:
(1) Class 1:
(i) Diagnose instrument malfunctions on the following instruments:
(A) Rate-of-climb indicators.
(B) Altimeters.
(C) Airspeed indicators.
(D) Vacuum Indicators.
(E) Oil pressure gauges.
(F) Hydraulic pressure gauges.
(G) De-icing pressure gauges.
(H) Pitot-static tube.
(I) Direct indicating compasses.
(J) Accelerometer.
(K) Direct indicating tachometers.
IS-11
PCAR PART 6
(L) Direct reading fuel quantity gauges.

(ii) Inspect, test, and calibrate the instruments listed under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of
this IS on and off the aircraft, as appropriate.
(2) Class 2:
(i) Diagnose instrument malfunctions of the following instruments:
(A) Tachometers.
(B) Synchroscope.
(C) Electric temperature indicators.
(D) Electric resistance-type indicators.
(E) Moving magnet-type indicators.
(F) Warning units (oil and fuel).
(G) Selsyn systems and indicators.
(H) Self-synchronous systems and indicators.
(I) Remote indicating compasses.
(J) Quantity indicators.
(K) Avionics indicators.
(L) Ammeters.
(M) Voltmeters.
(N) Frequency meters.
(ii) Inspect; test; and calibrate instruments listed under paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this
IS on and off the aircraft; as appropriate.
(3) Class 3:
(i) Diagnose instrument malfunctions of the following instruments:
(A) Turn and bank indicators.
(B) Directional gyros.
(C) Horizon gyros.
(D) Auto pilot control units and components.
(4) Class 4:
(i) Diagnose instrument malfunctions of the following instruments.
(A) Capacitance-type quantity gauge.
(B) Laser gyros.
(C) Other electronic instruments.
(g) Accessory rating:
(1) Class 1; 2; 3; and 4:
IS-12
PCAR PART 6
(i) Perform the following functions in accordance with the manufacturers

specifications and recommendations:
(A) Diagnose accessory malfunctions.
(B) Maintain and alter accessories; including installing and replacing parts.
(C) Inspect; test; and calibrate accessories on and off the aircraft as
appropriate.
IS: 6.3.1.2 HOUSING AND FACILITY REQUIREMENTS

(a) For ongoing maintenance of aircraft to aircraft hangars shall be available and large
enough to accommodate aircraft during maintenance activities.
(b) Where the hangar is not owned by the AMO, it is recommended to:
(1) Establish proof of authorization to use hangar;
(2) Demonstrate sufficiency of hangar space to carry out planned base maintenance
by preparing a projected aircraft hangar visit plan relative to the maintenance
program;
(3) Update the aircraft hangar visit plan on a regular basis;
(4) Ensure; for aircraft component maintenance, aircraft component workshops are
large enough to accommodate the components on planned maintenance;
(5) Ensure aircraft hangar and aircraft component workshop structures prevent the
ingress of rain, hail; ice, snow; wind and dust, etc.;
(6) Ensure workshop floors are sealed to minimize dust generation; and
(7) Demonstrate access to hangar accommodation for usage during inclement
weather for minor scheduled work and/or lengthy defect rectification.
(c) Aircraft maintenance staff shall be provided with an area where they may study
maintenance instructions and complete maintenance records in a proper manner.
Note: It is acceptable to combine any or all of the above requirements into one office
subject to the staff having sufficient room to carry out assigned tasks.
(d) Hangars used to house aircraft together with office accommodation shall be such as
to insure a clean, effective and conformable working environment.
(1) Temperatures should be maintained at a comfortable level.
(2) Dust and any other airborne contamination should be kept to a minimum and not
permitted to reach a level in the work task area where visible aircraft/component
surface contamination is evident.
(3) Lighting should be such as to insure each inspection and maintenance task can
be carried out.
(4) Noise levels should not be permitted to rise to the point of distracting personnel
from carrying out inspection tasks. Where it is impractical to control the noise
source, such personnel should be provided with the necessary personal
equipment to stop excessive noise causing distraction during inspection tasks.
(e) Where a particular maintenance task requires the application of specific
environmental conditions different to the foregoing, then such conditions shall be
observed. (Specific conditions are identified in the approved maintenance
instructions.)
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(f) Where the working environment for line maintenance deteriorates to an

unacceptable level with respect to temperature, moisture, hail, ice, snow, wind, light,
dust/other airborne contamination; the particular maintenance or inspection tasks
shall be suspended until satisfactory conditions are re-established.
(g) For both base and line maintenance where dust or other airborne contamination
results in visible surface contamination, all susceptible systems shall be sealed
until acceptable conditions are re-established.
(h) Storage facilities for serviceable aircraft components shall be clean, well ventilated
and maintained at an even dry temperature to minimize the effects of
condensation.
(i) Manufacturer and standards recommendations shall be followed for specific aircraft
components.
(j) Storage racks shall provide sufficient support for large aircraft components such that
the component is not distorted.
(k) All aircraft components, wherever practicable, shall remain packaged in protective
material to minimize damage and corrosion during storage.
IS: 6.3.1.3 EQUIPMENT, TOOLS, AND MATERIAL

(a) All applicable tools, equipment, and test equipment used for product acceptance
and/or for making a finding of airworthiness shall be traceable to the Republic of the
Philippines national standards.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (a), in the case of foreign manufactured tools,
equipment, and test equipment, the standard provided by the county of manufacture
may be used if approved by the Authority.
(c) Where the manufacturer specifies a particular tool, equipment, or test equipment
then that tool, equipment, or test equipment shall be used unless the manufacturer
has identified the use of an equivalent.
(d) Except as provided in paragraph (c), tools, equipment, or test equipment other than
that recommended by the manufacturer will be acceptable based on at least the
following:
(1) The AMO shall have a procedure in the Maintenance Procedure Manual if it
intends to use equivalent tools, equipment, or test equipment other than that
recommended by the manufacturer.
(2) The AMO shall have a program to include:
(i) A description of the procedures used to establish the competence of
personnel that make the determination of equivalency to tools, equipment, or
test equipment.
(ii) Conducting and documenting the comparison made between the specification
of the tool, equipment or test equipment recommended by the manufacturer
and the equivalent tool, equipment, or test equipment proposed.
(iii) Ensuring that the limitations, parameters, and reliability of the proposed tool,
equipment, or test equipment are equivalent to the manufacturer's
recommended tools, equipment, or test equipment.
(iv) Ensuring that the equivalent tool, equipment, or test equipment is capable of
performing the appropriate maintenance function, all normal tests, or
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calibrations, and checking all parameters of the aircraft or aeronautical

product undergoing maintenance or calibration.
(3) The AMO shall have full control of the equivalent tool, equipment, or test
equipment (i.e. ownership, lease, etc.)
(e) An AMO approved for base maintenance shall have sufficient aircraft access
equipment and inspection platforms/docking such that the aircraft may be properly
inspected.
(f) The AMO shall have a procedure to inspect/service and, where appropriate, calibrate
tools, equipment, and test equipment on a regular basis and indicate to users that an
item is within any inspection or service or calibration time limit.
(g) The AMO shall have a procedure if it uses a standard (primary, secondary or transfer
standards) for performing calibration, that standard cannot be used to perform
maintenance.
(h) A clear system of labeling all tooling, equipment and test equipment shall be used to
give information on when the next inspection or service or calibration is due, and if
the item is unserviceable for any other reason where it may not be obvious.
(i) A clear system of labeling all tooling, equipment, and test equipment shall be used to
give information on when such tooling, equipment, and test equipment is not used for
product acceptance and/or for making a finding of airworthiness. Old IS 6.3.1.3(d)
(j) A register shall be maintained for all calibrated tools, equipment and test equipment
together with a record of calibrations and standards used. Old IS 6.3.1.3(e)
(k) Inspection, service, or calibration on a regular basis shall be in accordance with the
equipment manufacturers' instructions except where the AMO can show by results
that a different time period is appropriate in a particular case and is acceptable to the
Authority. Old IS 6.3.1.3(f)
IS: 6.4.1.1 PERSONNEL REQUIREMENTS

(a) The AMO functions shall be subdivided under individual managers or combined in
any number of ways, dependent upon the size of the AMO.
(b) The AMO shall have. dependent upon the extent of approval the following: (1) A base
maintenance manager,
(2) A line maintenance manager,
(3) A workshop manager and a quality manager, all of whom should report to the
accountable manager.
Note: In small AMOs, one or more of the above positions may be combined
subject to approval by the Authority.
(c) The Accountable Manager shall be responsible for ensuring that all necessary
resources are available to accomplish maintenance required to support the AMO's
approval.
(d) The Base Maintenance Manager shall be responsible for:
(1) Ensuring that all maintenance required to be carried out in the hangar, plus any
defect rectification carried out during base maintenance, is carried out to
specified design and quality standards; and
(2) Any corrective action resulting from quality compliance monitoring.
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(e) The Line Maintenance Manager shall be responsible for:

(1) Ensuring that all maintenance required to be carried out on the line, including line
defect rectification, is performed to the required standards; and
(f) The Workshop Manager shall be responsible for:
(1) Ensuring that all work on aircraft components is performed to required standards;
and
(g) The Quality Manager shall be responsible for:
(1) Monitoring the AMO's compliance with Part 6; and
(2) Requesting remedial action as necessary by the base maintenance manager/line
maintenance manager/workshop manager or the accountable manager, as
appropriate.
(h) The AMO may adopt any title for managerial positions, but shall identify to the
Authority the titles and persons chosen to carry out these functions.
(i) Where an AMO chooses to appoint managers for all or any combination of the
identified functions because of the size of the undertaking, these managers shall
report ultimately through either the Base Maintenance Manager or Line Maintenance
Manager or Workshop Manager or Quality Manager, as appropriate, to the
accountable manager.
(j) The managers specified in this subsection shall be identified and their credentials
submitted to the Authority. To be accepted, such managers shall have relevant
knowledge and satisfactory experience related to aircraft/aircraft component
maintenance as appropriate in accordance with these regulations.
Note: Certifying staff may report to any of the managers specified depending upon
which type of control the AMO uses (for example-licensed engineers, independent
inspection/dual function supervisors, etc.) so long as the quality compliance
monitoring staff remain independent.
(k) The AMO shall have a production man-hours plan showing that it has sufficient man-
hours for the intended work.
(l) If an AMO is approved for base maintenance, the plan shall relate to the aircraft
hangar visit plan.
(m) Man-hour plans shall regularly be updated.
Note: Work performed on any aircraft registered outside the Republic of the
Philippines should be taken into account where it impacts upon the production man-
hours plan.
(n) Quality monitoring compliance function man-hours shall be sufficient to meet the
requirement of 6.5.1.2(b).
(o) Planners; mechanics, supervisors and certifying staff shall be assessed for
competence by "on the job" evaluation or by examination relevant to their particular
role within the AMO before unsupervised work is permitted.
(p) To assist in the assessment of competence, job descriptions are recommended for
each position. The assessment shall establish that:
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(1) Planners are able to interpret maintenance requirements into maintenance tasks,
and have an appreciation that they have no authority to deviate from the aircraft
maintenance program.
(2) Mechanics are able to carry out maintenance tasks to any standard specified in
the maintenance instructions and will notify supervisors of mistakes requiring
rectification to re-establish required maintenance standards.
(3) Supervisors are able to ensure that all required maintenance tasks are carried
out and where not done or where it is evident that a particular maintenance task
cannot be carried out to the maintenance instructions, then such problems will be
reported to and agreed by the quality organization.
(4) Certifying staff are able to determine when the aircraft or aircraft component is
and is not ready to return to service.
(q) In the case of planners; supervisors, and certifying staff, knowledge of AMO
procedures relevant to their particular role shall be demonstrated.
(r) Training of certifying staff shall be performed by the AMO or by an institute selected
by the AMO. In either case, the AMO shall establish the curriculum and standards for
training, as well as pre-qualification standards for the personnel intended for training.
Pre-qualification standards are intended to insure that the trainee has a reasonable
chance of successfully completing any course.
(s) Examinations shall be set at the end of each training course.
(t) Initial training shall cover:
(1) Basic engineering theory relevant to the airframe structure and systems fitted to
the class of aircraft the AMO intends to maintain:
(2) Specific information on the actual aircraft type on which the person is intended to
become a certifying person including the impact of repairs and system/structural
defects; and
(3) Company procedures relevant to the certifying staffs tasks.
(u) Continuation training should cover changes in AMO procedures and changes in the
standard of aircraft and/or aeronautical products maintained.
(v) The training program shall include details of the number of personnel who will receive
initial training to qualify as certifying staff over specified time periods.
(w) The training program established for maintenance personnel and certifying staff by
the AMO shall include training in knowledge and skills related to human performance
including coordination with other maintenance personnel and flight crew.
IS: 6.4.1.3 RECORDS OF CERTIFYING STAFF

(a) The following minimum information shall be kept on record in respect of each
certifying person:
(1) Name;
(2) Date of birth;
(3) Basic training;
(4) Type training;
(5) Continuation training;
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(6) Experience;
(7) Qualifications relevant to the approval;
(8) Scope of the authorization:
(9) Date of first issue of the authorization;
(10) Expiration date of the authorization (if appropriate);
(11) Identification number of the authorization.
(b) Records of certifying staff shall be controlled, but not necessarily run by the AMO's
quality department.
(c) The number of persons authorized to access the system shall be limited to minimize
the possibility of records being altered in an unauthorized manner and to limit
confidential records from become accessible to unauthorized persons.
(d) A certifying person shall be given reasonable access on request to his or her records.
(e) The Authority is authorized to and may investigate the records system for initial and
continued approval, or when the Authority has cause to doubt the competence of a
particular certifying person.
(f) The AMO shall keep the record of a certifying person for at least two years after that
person has ceased employment with the AMO or upon withdrawal of his or her
authorization. Upon request, the certifying staff shall be furnished with a copy of their
record on leaving the AMO.
(g) The authorization document shall be in a style that makes its scope clear to certifying
staff and any authorized person that may be required to examine the document.
Where codes are used to define scope, an interpretation document shall be readily
available.
(h) Certifying staff are not required to carry the authorization document at all times but
shall produce it within a reasonable time of a request from an authorized person.
Note: Authorized persons, apart from the AMO's quality department or maintenance
supervisors/managers, include the Authority.
IS: 6.5.1.1 MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION PROCEDURES MANUAL

(a) AMO personnel shall be familiar with those parts of the manuals that are relevant to
the maintenance work they perform.
(b) The AMO shall specify in the Procedures Manual who should amend the manual,
particularly in the case where the manual consists of several parts.
(c) The Quality Manager shall be responsible for
(1) Monitoring the amendment of the Procedures Manual, including associated
procedures manuals
(2) Submitting proposed amendments to the Authority, unless the Authority has
agreed, via a procedure stated in the amendment section of the Procedures
Manual. That some defined class of amendments may be incorporated without
approval by the Authority.
(d) The Procedures Manual shall address four main areas
(1) The management Procedures Manual covering the parts previously specified:
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(2) The maintenance procedures covering all aspects of how aircraft components
may be accepted from outside sources and how aircraft will be maintained to the
required standard;
(3) The quality system procedures, including the methods of qualifying mechanics,
inspection, certifying staff and quality audit personnel; and
(4) Contracted AOC holder procedures and paperwork.
Sample Maintenance Procedures Manual Format

The manual may be put together in any subject order so long as all applicable subjects
are covered.
Part 1 - Management
1.1 Corporate commitment by the accountable manager
2.1 Management personnel
3.1 Duties and responsibilities of the management personnel
4.1 Management Organization Chart
5.1 List of certifying staff. Note: A separate document may be referenced
6.1 Manpower resources
7.1 General description of the facilities at each address intended to be approved
8.1 Organizations intended scope of work
9.1 Notification procedure to the Authority regarding changes to the organization's
activities/approval/location/personnel
10.1 Manual amendment procedures
Part 2 - Maintenance Procedures
2.1 Supplier evaluation procedure
2.2 Acceptance/inspection of aircraft components and material from outside
contractors.
2.3 Storage, tagging and release of aircraft components and material to aircraft
maintenance
2.4 Acceptance of tools and equipment
2.5 Calibration of tools and equipment
2.6 Use of tooling and equipment by staff (including alternate tools)
2.7 Cleanliness standards of maintenance facilities
2.8 Maintenance instructions and relationship to aircraft/aircraft component
manufacturers' instructions including updating and availability to staff
2.9 Repair procedure
2.10 Aircraft maintenance program compliance
2.11 Airworthiness Directives procedure
2.12 Optional modification procedure
2.13 Maintenance documentation in use and completion of same
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2.14 Technical record control

2.15 Rectification of defects arising during base maintenance
2.16 Return to service procedure
2.17 Records for the air carrier operator
2.18 Reporting of defects to the Authority/Operator/Manufacturer
2.19 Return of defective aircraft components to store
2.20 Defective components to outside contractors
2.21 Control of computer maintenance record systems
2.22 Reference to specific maintenance procedures such as:
− Engine running procedures,
− Aircraft pressure run procedures,
− Aircraft towing procedures,
− Aircraft taxiing procedures.
Part L2 - Additional Line Maintenance Procedures
L2.1 Line maintenance control of aircraft components, tools, equipment, etc.
L2.2 Line maintenance procedures related to servicing/fuelling/de-icing, etc.
L2.3 Line maintenance control of defects and repetitive defects
L2.4 Line procedure for completion of technical log
L2.5 Line procedure for pooled parts and loan parts
L2.6 Line procedure for return of defective parts removed from aircraft
Part 3 - Quality System Procedures
3.1 Quality audit of organization procedures
3.2 Quality audit of aircraft
3.3 Quality audit remedial action procedure
3.4 Certifying staff qualification and training procedures
3.5 Certifying staff records
3.6 Quality audit personnel
3.7 Qualifying inspectors
3.8 Qualifying mechanics
3.9 Exemption process control
3.10 Concession control for deviation from organizations' procedures
3.11 Qualification procedure for specialized activities such as non-destructive testing,
welding, etc.
3.12 Control of manufacturers' working teams
Part 4 - Documentation
4.1 Contracted air operators
4.2 Air operator procedures and paperwork
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4.3 Air operator record completion

Part 5 - Appendices
5.1 Sample of documents
5.2 List of subcontractors
5.3 List of line maintenance locations
IS: 6.5.1.2 MAINTENANCE PROCEDURES AND INDEPENDENT QUALITY

ASSURANCE SYSTEM
Following are sample inspection items.
MAINTENANCE SYSTEM AND CERTIFYING STAFF

Reference: Part 6
MAINTENANCE PROCEDURES
GENERAL
The chief certifying staff manager is responsible to the accountable manager for full
compliance with all procedures outlined in this system as appropriate to any item being
inspected, repaired, overhauled or altered by the maintenance organization. The
airworthiness of those items and compliance with record requirements of the operators
of those items and of the maintenance organization depends upon conformity to the
procedures of this system.
CERTIFYING STAFF
Certifying staff are required to be thoroughly familiar with all inspection methods,
techniques and equipment used in their area of responsibility to determine the quality of
airworthiness of an article undergoing maintenance, repair or alterations. All personnel
must also maintain proficiency in the use of the various types of inspection aids to be
used for inspection of the particular items undergoing inspection. Available to all
certifying staff are current specifications involving inspection tolerances, limits, and
procedures as set forth by manufacturer of the product undergoing inspection and other
forms of inspection information such as CAA airworthiness directives, manufacturer's
bulletins, etc. A file of maintenance manuals, engineering letters, service letters, CAA
regulations, etc., are maintained in the inspection office.
Certifying staff assigned to maintenance organization operations is required to
familiarize themselves with CAA regulations applicable to such operations with particular
emphasis on the following:
Part 4 — Aircraft Registration and Marking

Part 5 - Airworthiness Implementing Standard
Part 6 — Approved Maintenance Organization
Part 7 — Instruments and equipment Implementing Standards
Part 8 — Operations Implementing Standards
Part 9 — Air Operator Certificate and Administration Implementing Standard
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SUPERVISORS, CERTIFYING STAFF, AND MECHANICS

All supervisors, certifying staff, and mechanics are required to be thoroughly familiar
with the requirements of this manual, CAA regulations, airworthiness directives and
advisory circulars, manufacturer's service letters and bulletins and engineering orders.
The basic maintenance system requires mechanics to sign their last name or initials for
work performed by the prior to submitting the item to certifying staff for final acceptance.
Certifying staff will indicate their acceptance of work performed with the application of the
certifying staff acceptance stamp next to the item on the work forms. See appropriate
section of this manual for sample forms and instructions for their use.
MAINTENANCE CONTINUITY
Reference: Part 6, 6.4.1.1, IS: 6.4.1.1. This section should show by title, who
performs the maintenance continuity, the forms to be used, and disposition of the
records. The maintenance continuity should encompass incoming materials, preliminary
hidden damage and final inspection where applicable. It should include items as they
progress through various stages of repair, overhaul or modification, including other
inspections, test and calibrations (Rockwell Hardness Test; Magnaflux, Ultrasonic X-ray,
etc.), adjusting or calibrating VOIR; DME or ILS equipment. It should establish a system
for passing along the continuity of inspection and other maintenance from one shift or
person to another. It should reference manufacturer's inspection standards for the
maintenance of the particular items.
CONTINUITY OF MAINTENANCE RESPONSIBILITY

Through a "Line of Succession" list maintained by the chief certifying staff manager,
his/her duties are assured of performance as "Acting Chief certifying staff manager."
A status book will be provided in the hangar and each shop in which a status report
will be left by each of the certifying staff leaving the job before completion of a project, for
information to the succeeding certifying staff. Its purpose is to assure a continuing
inspection responsibility for in progress work inspections.
All forms upon which work performed is listed have been designed to show the name
of the mechanic who performs the work (or supervises it) and the names of the certifying
staff inspecting that work.
Samples of work forms, inspection forms, and instructions for completing them, are
contained in the appropriate section of this manual.
INCOMING MATERIALS
Reference: Part 6, 6.4.1.1 This section should explain how compliance is shown, how
the inspections are recorded, classification of incoming materials, including checks for
damage, preservation and shelf life, identification of parts by part number, and the
person responsible to perform the inspection (by title). In addition, it should describe the
action to be taken when materials received do not meet specifications.
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PARTS RECEIVING POLICY

The chief certifying staff manager of the maintenance organization (or designee) is
responsible to see that all incoming materials, AN or MS and other hardware, parts,
components, equipment and other products procured for use by the maintenance
organization are subject to receiving inspection to assure conformance to part number,
purchase order and/or other applicable specifications. A record of such inspections will
be recorded on maintenance organization Form No. XXXX, Receiving Inspection. Any
products that fail to meet applicable specifications will be red tagged as unserviceable,
listing the discrepancy and be returned to the stockroom manager for return to vendor.
To preclude those parts from being used, the stockroom manager will place such items
in the locked holding area until they are repacked for shipping back to the vendor.
GENERAL TEST REQUIREMENTS:

1. New components manufactured under a type or production certificate, or in
accordance with a Technical Standard Order (or similar CAA approved technical
data), or components which have been rebuilt by the manufacturer to production
specifications, require a visual receiving inspection.
2. Any repaired or overhauled components received from an CAA certificated
maintenance organization do not normally require more than a visual receiving
inspection before being returned to service. Repaired or overhauled components that
are received from other than an CAA certified maintenance organization, in addition
to the normal receiving inspection, will be functionally checked before being returned
to service.
3. All components requiring a functional check are routed to the proper maintenance
organization shop for the accomplishment of this check.
Note: Functional checks are performed in accordance with instructions contained in
the appropriate manufacturer's publications. However, if such specific instructions
are not available, functional check requirements will be determined by the chief
certifying staff manager, and issued on a form to provide a means of recording
compliance therewith.
Note: Functional checks are performed in accordance with instructions contained in
the appropriate manufacturer's publications. However, if such specific instructions
are not available, functional check requirements will be determined by the chief
certifying staff manager. and issued on a form to provide a means of recording
compliance therewith. If suitable test facilities are not available in maintenance
organization, components may be functionally checked in the aircraft. In any case, all
functional checks must be monitored and recorded by the chief certifying staff
manager or designee.
4. The Supervisor - Quality Assurance Control or certifying staff may request a
functional check of any component overhauled or repaired by any agency, when of
the opinion that such a check is required in order to return the component to service.
5. All adhesives, sealers, primers, finishing and other materials having limited shelf life
are identified by material control labels showing the expiration date of the shelf life as
established by applicable specifications. Inspectors and mechanics will dispose of
any materials found in the shop or storerooms without such identification or with
expired shelf life.
6. The detailed functions of material inspection are covered by the manufacturer's
quality assurance directive and inspection bulletins which will be used to implement
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PCAR PART 6
the operation of the maintenance organization with respect to the control and
identification of materials, parts and equipment received for direct use in the
maintenance organization. All parts new or overhauled purchased from vendors will
be checked for proper approval documentation prior to release for installation by the
WORK ORDER
Upon receipt of a work request for maintenance or alteration on an airframe, engine,
accessory, propeller, instrument. radio or a product requiring a specialized service
covered by the maintenance organization certificate, the maintenance department will
issue a (name of company) Maintenance organization Work Order Form XXXX to
authorize that work to be accomplished. The form is pre-numbered and that number will
be the basic reference for the product's maintenance record. The work order will specify
the work to be accomplished. The work order will be supplemented as necessary with
detailed inspection instructions along with applicable forms; to assure proper inspection
and repair of the unit involved. The number of additional forms used will be identified on
the work order. The original of the printed and numbered work order form will be retained
in the base maintenance manager's office.
A logbook will be maintained in the base maintenance manager's office for recording
each work order in numerical order, identifying the customer, the product for which it was
issued along with the manufacturer serial number, special instructions and the work
accomplished.
It will be the responsibility of the respective shop manager and chief certifying staff
manager to assure that proper supplemental instructions are furnished to assure proper
progressive servicing, inspection and testing of the product involved.
Mechanics will enter work accomplished and use last names or initials to sign off that
work on the form, Certifying staff will use their inspection stamp to sign off inspections. A
list of inspectors and stamp numbers are contained in this manual under Section XXXX.
See copy of work order and supplemental forms in the appropriate section of this
manual. Do we need to provide these forms? If not, then this wording is confusing —
Maybe something such as: A copy of the work order form and supplemental forms
should be contained in a separate section of the manual"?
A copy of the work order with all attachments should be on file as a permanent
record of all work accomplished. The record should reflect the signature of each
mechanic and certifying staff that performed maintenance on each unit. It should reflect
exactly what work was accomplished. It should show all of the parts used. The records
should be maintained for a period of not less than two years.
RECORD OF WORK
A detailed record shall be kept of all work performed by the maintenance
organization. A copy of each Work Order Form XXXX with all attached supplementary
form(s) will be maintained in the maintenance organization records section. A separate
file area is provided for all paper work associated with the maintenance organizations
work activities. Each work record is checked by an inspector for work accomplished parts
used signature of mechanic and inspectors who performed maintenance. Records are
maintained in active file for two (2) years then transferred to dead storage for 5 additional
years. X
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PCAR PART 6
PRELIMINARY INSPECTION
This information should indicate who is to perform the inspection. The method of
inspection and any special testing requirements. Instructions should include the type of
form to be used, how defects noted are recorded and the requirement to make them part
of the work order.
PRELIMINARY INSPECTION
The Chief certifying staff manager of the maintenance organization is responsible for
the performance of appropriate inspections including functional and non-destructive tests
to assure that all units delivered to the maintenance organization for maintenance,
alteration or repair under the privileges of the maintenance organization certificate are
subjected to a preliminary inspection to determine the state of preservation and any
defects on the items involved. This inspection will be recorded on the Preliminary
Inspection Form XXXX with any discrepancies noted and the form must be attached to
the work order identified with the unit involved. It will remain with the applicable
inspection records until the unit is released for functional and non-destructive tests.
Those forms will show the work order number and will be routed attached to the work
order.
Before any work is begun, the Chief certifying staff manager will, in the case of work
to be performed for an air operator under the continuous airworthiness requirements of
Part 6, make sure that all necessary current information and specifications are included
or referred to in the work instructions that are to accompany the article through the
maintenance organization. And that the work is done in accordance with the air
operators manual.
HIDDEN DAMAGE INSPECTION

This section should describe who is to perform the inspection (by title), the depth
(should include areas adjacent to obviously damaged members or components), how the
inspection will be recorded, the recording and handling of any defects noted and the
requirement to make the inspection a part of the work order.
INSPECTION FOR HIDDEN DAMAGE

The preliminary inspection is not limited to the area of obvious damage or
deterioration but includes a thorough and searching inspection for hidden damage in
areas adjacent to the damaged area and/or in the case of deterioration, a thorough
review of all similar materials or equipment in a given system or structural area. The
scope of this inspection will be governed by the type of unit involved with special
consideration accorded previous operating history, Malfunction or Defect Reports,
service bulletins and AD notes applicable to the unit involved. The inspector is
responsible for listing all discrepancies noted during inspection on the work order prior to
return for return to service. See the appropriate section of this manual for proper forms
and instructions for using them.
This section should explain how the results of required inspections are recorded and
made part of the applicable work order.
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PCAR PART 6
PROGRESSIVE INSPECTION
Certifying staff will be assigned to make inspections at various stages of teardown,
overhaul, and repair of all units or components received by the maintenance organization
for service. Progressive inspections are accomplished with a frequency determined by
applicable manual recommendations and/or maintenance organization originated work
forms.
MAJOR REPAIR AND ALTERATION AIRCRAFT AND COMPONENTS

Following the preliminary inspection, additional records may be prepared by the
inspection department to provide a comprehensive historical record of the work
performed. These records will contain work orders, service bulletins, AD notes, service
letters, Type of inspection, detailed figures related to functional tests and special non-
destructive tests to be accomplished. The approved engineering or other approved
technical data authorizing the repair or alteration will be clearly indicated. Where special
drawings are made to cover specific repair conditions, a copy of the drawing will be
included in the aircraft records.
Units removed from the aircraft will be tagged with the appropriate inspection
identification tag listing the aircraft serial number, a unit serial number and reason for
removal.
No item removed and tagged as above described will be reinstalled unless the unit is
cleared as "serviceable" by inspection.
REPAIR, ALTERATION AND OVERHAUL ACCESSORIES AND APPLIANCES

Self-contained accessory and appliance units such as actuators, pumps, valves,
generators, etc., which, after preliminary inspection, have been established as eligible for
overhaul or repair, will be identified with a green repairable part tag with appropriate
repair instructions entered on the face of the tag, as authorized by the work order. No
such unit shall be approved for returned to service without a maintenance release tag
authorizing its return to service.
INSPECTION PROCEDURES
The Chief certifying staff manager is responsible for the complete and efficient
performance of inspections assigned to the maintenance organization to assure
inspection acceptance in accordance with manual specifications or other approved
technical data.
Shop supervisors are responsible for the accomplishment of all work in accordance
with manual specifications or other approved technical data. The work done under the
maintenance organization's Limited Rating - Specialized Service Non-destructive
Inspection by X-ray, magnetic particle, eddy current or ultrasonic must be accomplished
in accordance with the (name of company) CAA approved process specification XXXX.
Alterations and repair will be subject to progressive inspection by the certifying staff
department. Discrepancies generated during the process of accomplishing the work
involved will be recorded on the appropriate work forms. Discrepancies so recorded will
be corrected before the unit is submitted for final inspection. Upon completion of this
progressive inspection; the area affected is given a shakedown inspection and after all
rework is accomplished and accepted, the inspection will clear the unit for final
acceptance.
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PCAR PART 6
Upon completion of a specific operation, the mechanic will sign off the records using
his signature indicating that the item is complete and ready for inspection. The action
accomplished to correct a specific discrepancy will be noted under each item on the
work order. The certifying staff will then inspect the item to assure conformance to
specifications and established workmanship standards. Functional checks of any system
affected by the work involved will be accomplished before final acceptance. Inspection
acceptance will be indicated by the inspector's stamp or signature.
MAINTENANCE INSPECTION
100-hour and progressive inspections, inspections of amateur built aircraft and
aircraft on CAR Part 8, Subpart 8.3 programs will be accomplished in accordance with
the inspection cards or inspection schedule provided for each specific model aircraft. The
inspection paperwork will be supplemented as necessary to cover items to be replaced
for time, special inspection items discrepancies and airworthiness directives. All 100-
hour and annual inspection paperwork will comply with Subpart 5.6.1.7.
No aircraft will be returned to service following an inspection as outlined above until
all discrepancies affecting airworthiness have been corrected.
Maintenance supervisors are responsible for screening completed work orders
covering work performed in their assigned area to assure that all items on the work order
have been cleared, that there are no open discrepancies and that all major work
accomplished is covered by approved data. Certifying staff will recheck to assure
compliance with this section.
After work orders have been screened for completeness and accuracy, they are
routed to the base maintenance manager's office. Such inspection and work records will
be retained in active file for a period of not less than two years (as required by CAR Part
6) and then transferred to dead storage for 5 additional years.
CONTINUITY OF MAINTENANCE RESPONSIBILITY

A status book will be provided in the hangar and each shop in which a status report
will be entered by each of the lead mechanics informing the next shift of the status of
each job not completed. Its purpose is to assure a continuing maintenance responsibility
for work in progress.
HANDLING OF PARTS
This section should explain compliance with the rule, Processing of parts,
identification, tag, segregation, and protection from damage and/or contamination, parts
finishing, preservation, stock control and shelf life.
HANDLING OF PARTS
All items or components undergoing maintenance, repairs and/or alterations in the
maintenance organization shall have the component parts segregated and in containers
in order to assure that all parts of the same unit(s) are kept together. Suitable trays,
racks, stands and protective coverings (as required) are to be provided in shop areas to
ensure maximum protection of all parts. Rejected parts will be identified by the use of a
red reject tag and final disposition will be the responsibility of the Chief Certifying Staff
Manager.
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PCAR PART 6
TAGGING AND IDENTIFICATION OF PARTS

The following is our four-tag system:
White tags - Used for identification of unit and customer only. To be completed by
shop supervisor or a designated employee.
Green tag - Will be attached to units or parts requiring repairs or test and will include
work to be performed. To be executed and signed by certifying staff only.
Yellow tag - To be attached to completed units which have received final inspection
and are approved for return to service. The maintenance release is printed or
stamped on the reverse side of this tag. (See Maintenance Release Statement,
example in the appropriate section of this manual). This release will be signed by a
designated certifying staff person only.
Red tag - Will be attached to rejected parts, pending final disposition. If rejected parts
are in large quantities, they can be place in a special container marked "rejected
parts." This tag to be completed by a certifying staff. All tags contain the following
information:
Manufacturers - model - part number - serial number - name of part owner.
The yellow tag will remain attached to the parts returned to the customer.
The red, white and green tags will be made a part of work order file. If the rejected
part is returned to the customer, the red tag will remain attached and a record will be
made on the work order showing the part was returned to the customer.
PART FINISHING
Painting and spraying is accomplished in an area segregated from assembly areas.
PRESERVATION OF PARTS
Components are preserved in accordance with manufacturer's recommendations or
other acceptable industry standards. To afford protection against humidity, extreme
temperatures, dust, rough handling or other damage, the component will be preserved
by wrapping in suitable containers, plastic bags, and/or rigid boxes containing suitable
shock absorption material.
Storage of "Maintenance organization" preserved components will be accomplished
by storing in a separate "Maintenance organization" location maintained by the "Stores"
department. The location should provide maximum protection from physical damage.
(Expand as necessary the preservation and storage requirements to suit the products
worked on under the maintenance organization ratings.)
SHELF LIFE
For those items having a specific shelf life, Maintenance organization Form XXXX is
completed by the receiving certifying staff during the first ten (10) calendar days of each
month.
Components of parts that have exceeded allowable shelf life limits will be red tagged
(Condemned) and will be forwarded to the Chief Certifying Staff Manager for final
disposition.
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PCAR PART 6
INCOMING MATERIAL
All incoming material shall be inspected for quantity, quality, conformity to
dimensions or specifications and state of preservation. At this time the cure date of
material having shelf life shall be noted, and the older stock shall be used first provided
it is not beyond manufacturer's specifications.
HARDWARE AND EQUIPMENT STORAGE

The Stockroom Manager is responsible to the Base Maintenance Manager for the
operation of the stockroom and is responsible for controlling, segregating and
maintaining all stock and tools as to a serviceable or unserviceable category approved
by the Chief certifying staff manager.
In addition the Stockroom manager is required to:
• Properly store, segregate and protect materials, parts and supplies.
• Provide suitable storage facilities for storing standard parts, spare parts and assure
that raw materials are separated from shop and working space.
• Provide for the preservation of all articles or parts, while in inventory, that is subject
to deterioration and shelf life specifications.
Only acceptable parts and supplies will be issued for any job. Acceptable industry
practices shall be followed for the proper protection and storage of materials. (The
standards for use by the maintenance organization should be detailed here.)
RECORD OF TEST AND/OR CALIBRATION

This section should include in house tests applicable to the maintenance organization
ratings and those contracted to outside agencies. It should include a requirement for the
signature of the mechanic and/or certifying staff as appropriate. The record should
identify the article by serial number or company assigned number.
RECORD OF SPECIALIZED INSPECTION, TEST AND/OR CALIBRATION

Specific notations, attesting accomplishment, will be made on either Form XXXX
and/or appropriate printed work forms for recording specialized inspection, testing and/or
calibration of a component or aircraft. (See appropriate section of this manual.)
RECORD OF INSPECTIONS
Where a record of the inspection by dimensions, tests or calibration is required by the
manufacturer's technical data such record shall be made on an appropriate form properly
identified with the Work Order: it must also be dated and signed by the mechanic
performing the inspection, tests or calibration and/or the certifying staff as appropriate.
RECORD OF TESTS AND CALIBRATION OF PRECISION EQUIPMENT

A system is maintained on all precision test equipment that will properly identify each
piece of equipment. A file system is maintained to properly identify the equipment and
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PCAR PART 6
record the date and person testing or calibrating each individual piece of precision
equipment. (Give details of system here or state where it can be obtained.)
WORK BY OUTSIDE CONTRACTORS

When test and/or calibrations are performed by the following outside contractors they
will be required to provide the records as outlined above. (List here the outside agencies
and the work for which they are contracted to do for the maintenance organization.)
RECORD OF PRECISION TEST EQUIPMENT CALIBRATION.

Identify the person (by title) responsible for the calibration and then test records. The
records should include the manufacturer. model and serial or company assigned
number, date of check, the method used to calibrate and the frequency the person or
company who performs checks, and the results and/or corrections made, when the next
inspection is due, and requirements to tag equipment as appropriate.
CONTROL OF PRECISION TOOLS AND TEST EQUIPMENT
Precision tools, gauges, scales, pressure gauges, ammeters, ohmmeters, voltmeters,
radio, electronic, X-ray, eddy current and ultrasonic test equipment used in the
maintenance organization operations are subject to periodic checks and calibration in
accordance with appropriate maintenance organization procedures. (List equipment here
and outline procedures as appropriate.)
All maintenance organization personnel; before using test equipment, are
responsible to check that the testing unit has a current calibration label attached. Any
piece of test equipment found in the maintenance organization without a current
calibration label attached shall be given to the certifying staff department for re-
calibration.
TEST EQUIPMENT CALIBRATION REQUIREMENTS

Test equipment shall be calibrated at periodic intervals established on the basis of
stability, purpose and degree of usage. One year shall be the maximum calibration
interval. (List calibration periods on equipment list.)
Each piece of test equipment will be labelled. The label will identify the unit by
manufacturer, model and serial number. The attached label must indicate the last
calibration date and next calibration due date.
During the first week of each month the chief certifying staff manager will review the
test equipment calibration history card file and give cards for test equipment requiring
calibration to the maintenance manager and each shop foreman as appropriate. It will be
the responsibility of those persons to issue work orders to maintenance organization
shops or outside contractors as necessary for the calibration of the units and attachment
of updated calibration labels. After calibration, the test unit will be checked for proper
labeling and the equipment calibration history card will be updated and returned to the
inspection department active file.
At no time will any person be permitted to perform work on aircraft or components
using test equipment which is out of calibration. The test equipment labels will be
checked by supervisors at random to assure that equipment in use is in calibration. If at
any time a piece of test equipment inadvertently exceeds its calibration due date, it will
be immediately be removed from service until a calibration check has been performed.
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PCAR PART 6
Standards used to calibrate test equipment must be traceable to the States National
Standards or an approved foreign country's standard by certificate from the testing
facility. Frequency for calibration standards may vary for different units but must never
exceed a 12-month interval.
RECORD OF SELF-EVALUATIONS.
Identify the person(s) (by title) responsible to perform the self-evaluations and the
individual that ensures that the capability list is kept current. . The record(s) of self-
evaluation shall include the person (by title), date, and the results and/or corrections
made as appropriate.
The self-evaluation along with the capability list shall be reviewed and signed by the
accountable manager. Procedures identifying that the maintenance organization shall
not perform such maintenance on any article until such time the accountable manager
has accepted and signed the self-evaluation sheet(s)and capability list.
FINAL INSPECTION AND RETURN TO SERVICE

This should explain compliance with the rules, who performs the inspection (by title),
how it is recorded, and requires a check of maintenance work package for completion.
FINAL INSPECTION AND RETURN TO SERVICE

Prior to approval for return to service, irrespective of the method to be used to
indicate such approval, the Chief certifying staff manager will audit the records "package"
as identified by the work order, to determine that all work has been inspected as required
for compliance with this inspection system and Part 6. He/she will indicate affirmative
findings approving the form per Section XXXX of this manual.
When approval has been given to the above audit, either the Chief certifying staff
manager or the individual authorized in the official roster and individual summary of
employment, will approve the article for return to service.
This approval will be accomplished as appropriate to the work done, the article
involved, the records available with the article, and the instructions of the customer care
will be exercised to comply with Part 5 in every case.
Whenever the aircraft records (log) are available, record of work accomplished is
expected to be made therein. This does not waive any Part 6 records requirements.
Neither will Part 5 or Part 9 be considered waived by Part 6 records requirements.
Articles such as appliances, accessories, and individual parts or components will not
have an individual record to which an entry may be added. However, the installation of
these items on an aircraft constitutes an aircraft maintenance or alteration, and records
must be made accordingly.
Routinely, major repair approvals will be handled in accordance with 5.7.1.1 and
paragraph (b) of IS: 5.7.1.1. A maintenance release is completed as a part of the work
order form at the time of approval for return to service. A separate maintenance release
card will be completed and shipped on an article that is shipped to a customer. At the
request of the customer (to be indicated on the work order when originated), CAA MR-
MR&M Form will be completed instead of the maintenance release approval for return to
service in accordance with the procedure in paragraph (a) of Part 5 IS: 5.7.1.1. In all
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PCAR PART 6
cases where major alteration is involved, CAA MR-MR&M Form will be completed per
5.7.1.1 and IS: 5.7.1.1.
The authorized supervisor in whose area the repair or alteration is accomplished will
be responsible for establishing that the repair or alteration was made in accordance with
the requirements of Part 5 and will sign the conformity statement (Item 6) on CAA MR-
MR&M Form.
Certifying Staff responsible for the approval for return to service of aircraft will
indicate such approval by signing the approval for return to service (Item 7) on CAA MR-
MR&M Form. Appropriate entries will be made in the aircraft record pertinent to the
repairs and alterations accomplished by the maintenance organization. Specific
reference will be made by calendar date to the applicable CAA MR-MR&M Form. The
original CAA MR-MR&M Form will be inserted in the aircraft record with a copy
forwarded to the local CAA office and one copy retained with the copy of the aircraft work
order.
It is the responsibility of the certifying staff authorizing return to service to assure that
the aircraft flight manual is properly revised following any alteration or modification to the
aircraft and that the weight and balance record has been amended as necessary.
Aircraft components, appliances, and other items, other than completed aircraft
repaired or overhauled as authorized by the maintenance organization specifications, will
be returned to service through the use of a maintenance release pre-printed on the
serviceable parts tag described in this section of this manual. The authorized supervisor
under whose jurisdiction the work is accomplished will be responsible for the release of
units in the category.
No aircraft or unit may be released for return to service until the work order and other
records have been reviewed for completeness and final acceptance cleared by
inspection. Particular attention shall be accorded the status of applicable airworthiness
directives.
MAINTENANCE RELEASE STATEMENT

A maintenance release statement stamp and/or pre-printed tag, prepared in
accordance with IS: 5.7.1.1 will be used to return to service major repairs which have
been accomplished by this AMO in accordance with Part 5. Other records required by
5.7.1.1 will be executed, as required, regardless of whether a CAA MR-MR&M Form or
maintenance release has been used to return the article to service. In any event, the
AMO will indicate on their copy of the work order whether or not a maintenance release
was used, including the signature of the authorized certifying staff representative.
The (use only applicable rating or ratings) aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller
or appliance identified above was repaired and inspected in accordance with current
maintenance rules of the Civil Aviation Regulations and is approved for return to service.
"Pertinent details of the repair are on file at this maintenance organization under
Work Order Number___________
Date_____________
Signed _______________________________________________ (Signature of
authorized representative)
For (Maintenance organization name and certificate number)
(Address)
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PCAR PART 6
NOTE 1: Inspection stamp/symbol will not be used on the maintenance release.
SAMPLE OF RETURN TO SERVICE FOR AIR OPERATOR WORK

RETURN TO SERVICE STATEMENT
A Return to Service statement stamp and/or pre-printed tag, prepared in accordance
with IS: 5.7.1.1, will be used to return to service major repairs which have been
accomplished by this organization in accordance with Part 5. Other records required by
5.7.1.1 will be executed, as required, regardless of whether a CAA MR-MR&M Form or
maintenance release has been used to return the article to service. In any event, the
AMO will indicate on their copy of the work order whether or not a maintenance release
was used, including the signature of the authorized representative.
"Example"
The (use only applicable rating or ratings) aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller
or appliance identified above was repaired and inspected in accordance with current
maintenance rules of the Civil Aviation Regulations and is approved for return to service.
"Pertinent details of the repair are on file at this maintenance organization under
Work Order Number Date
Signed
(Signature of authorized representative)
For (Maintenance organization name and certificate number)
(Address)
NOTE 1: Inspection stamp/symbol will not be used on the maintenance release.
MALFUNCTION OR DEFECT AND MECHANICAL RELIABILITY

REPORT
This section should explain in detail how compliance with rules and reporting
requirements are to be met, and prescribe the responsibility (by title) of person(s) who
prepare and submit reports.
MALFUNCTION OR DEFECT REPORT

This maintenance organization will report to the CAA within 72 hours after it
discovers any serious defect in, or other recurring unairworthy condition of, an aircraft,
powerplant, or propeller, or any component of any of them. The report will be made on a
CAA Form XXXX, Malfunction or Defect Report, describing the defect or malfunction
completely without withholding any pertinent information. In any case, where the filing of
a report under the preceding paragraph might prejudice the maintenance organization, it
will be referred to the CAA for a determination as to whether it must be reported. If the
defect or malfunction could result in an imminent hazard to flight, the maintenance
organization will use the most expeditious method it can to inform the CAA.
Is unairworthy a word or should it be non-airworthy?
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PCAR PART 6
MECHANICAL RELIABILITY REPORTS

When work is being accomplished for an air carrier and a defect as described under
the Malfunction or Defect Report is found; the air operator will be notified in order that a
Mechanical Reliability Report may be issued by the air operator.
RESPONSIBILITY FOR SUBMITTING REPORTS

The Accountable Manager and Chief Certifying Staff Manager are responsible for
preparing and submitting a Malfunction or Defect Report to the CAA Office. (Show
location of office.)
SUBCONTRACTED MAINTENANCE PROCEDURES

SUBCONTRACTED MAINTENANCE
Any work performed by another maintenance organization for this maintenance
organization will be inspected by the Chief Certifying Staff Manager or certifying staff
personnel delegated for such inspection. This inspection will be to verify that the work
was performed in an airworthy manner, that parts and materials used were of such a
quality to be airworthy, and that the paperwork received with the material verifies the
authenticity of the part and work performed. At no time shall the stockroom manager
release any parts made by, or parts having had work performed on them by a
subcontractor until the Chief Certifying Staff Manager or certifying staff personnel
delegated has approved the materials as being airworthy.
All subcontracted work shall be kept separate from regular stock until this inspection
has been performed and the material accepted for use.
If for any reason subcontracted material is rejected as being unairworthy, it will
immediately be identified as unairworthy and the proper disposition made, such as scrap
or return to vendor.
LIST OF SUBCONTRACTED MAINTENANCE
1. Metal plating or anodizing.
2. Complex machine operations involving the use of planers, shapers, milling
machines, etc.
3. Abrasive air blasting and chemical cleaning operations.
4. Heat treatment.
5. Magnetic inspection.
6. Fabricate wood spars.
7. Overhaul and repair hydraulic-pneumatic shock absorber units.
8. Overhaul and repair hydraulic system components.
9. Fluorescent inspection of alloy parts.
10. Recovering and refinishing of components and entire aircraft.
PERFORMANCE OF MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE

MAINTENANCE, ALTERATIONS AND REQUIRED INSPECTION
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PCAR PART 6
UNDER THE CONTINUOUS AIRWORTHINESS REQUIREMENTS

OF CAR PART 9
NOTE: This section should show how the rule is to be complied with that the work is to
be accomplished with the operator's manual and a current copy of the manual is
available.
PERFORMANCE OF MAINTENANCE. PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE. ALTERATIONS

AND REQUIRED INSPECTION UNDER THE CONTINUOUS AIRWORTHINESS
REQUIREMENTS OF CAR PART 9
This maintenance organization will perform this work in accordance with the operator's
manual. The maintenance organization will have a current copy of the applicable section of
each operator's manual which contracts with the maintenance organization for the
performance of that operator's maintenance. The chief certifying staff manager will be
responsible for keeping each operator's manual revised and determining that the operator's
manual is current before a work order is issued.
PERFORMANCE OF WORK AT A LOCATION OTHER THAN THE

MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION
Reference: Part 6; 6.2.1.6 In accordance with Part 6, 6.2.1.6, a maintenance
organization may maintain or alter any article for which it is rated at a place other than the
maintenance organization providing certain preparations are made and certain conditions
are met as required by Part 6, 6.2.1.6 (c). Performance standards are required to remain
acceptable at such places of work. Part 6, 6.2.1.6(c)(3) requires the maintenance procedure
manual to contain the approved procedures governing the work to be performed at a place
other than the maintenance organization. This is a frequently overlooked manual
requirement. In order for a procedure to be valid for approval it should:
1. Be described in terms understandable to those persons who are governed by it in the
performance of the work.
2. Be monitored regularly so as to ensure it covers the nature of the work that may be
needed outside the maintenance organization. This is necessary as it is difficult to
predict the nature of work to be done outside the AMO.
3. Be tailored for the particular AMO, the nature of work and the frequency expected.
The following are items recommended for consideration:
(a) Who will authorize the work, organize the project, direct it, and who will perform
the work?
(b) What type of work tasks will be required (supply, repairs, inspections, and
communications)?
(c) Where some of the work is to be done. It may be advantageous to perform
support work on components or parts at the base maintenance organization as a
standard procedure.
(d) How will the work projects be monitored and reviewed to assure procedures are
adequate and that records identify the projects for accountability?
(e) Occasional explanations within the system description of why certain
requirements, controls or reports are necessary will help employees to
understand and accept the system.
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PCAR PART 6
4. The privilege to perform work at a location other than the maintenance organization
is to be done on a temporary basis. If a permanent AMO is established at the
location, it will be necessary for the maintenance organization to make application for
an original application for a maintenance organization at the location.
PERFORMANCE OF MAINTENANCE AT A LOCATION OTHER THAN THE

MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION
(Name of Company) will provide maintenance service for its customers on an
emergency on-call basis at a place away from the maintenance organization. (Name of
Company) can only provide this service for work for which the maintenance organization
is rated. Only the Accountable Manager or the Chief Certifying Staff Manager is
authorized to initiate a work order for such work.
The base maintenance manager will be responsible for assigning the personnel
necessary to perform the work and appoint a person to be in charge of the work force.
The chief certifying staff manager will assign the certifying staff responsible to inspect the
work and assure that all required forms and work are completed as necessary. The chief
certifying staff manager will assign one certifying staff personnel with the responsibility
for returning the article to service.
The base maintenance manager will ensure that the article to undergo maintenance
and the work force will be in an area safe for the work to be performed and that they will
be protected from the elements. The base maintenance manager will be responsible for
providing all the necessary manpower, work forms, technical data, tools, and equipment
necessary for the accomplishment of the maintenance. The base maintenance manager
will establish a system of communications between the field force and the maintenance
organization.
The stockroom manager will be responsible for assigning a stockperson who will
provide parts and supply support between the maintenance organization and the field
force. All articles removed by the field force from a product undergoing maintenance at a
location away from the maintenance organization will be routed through the stockroom
parts receiving department. The article(s) will be inspected in accordance with the
maintenance organization inspection procedures and either routed to the maintenance
organization shops or to contract maintenance organizations, as appropriate.
All personnel assigned to accomplish work away from the maintenance organization
shall accomplish the specific function of work in the same manner as when performed at
the maintenance organization and in accordance with Part 6.
IS: 6.5.1.6 CERTIFICATION OF RETURN TO SERVICE

(a) A certificate of return to service is required for the following:
(1) Before flight at the completion of any package of maintenance scheduled by the
approved aircraft maintenance program on the aircraft, whether such
maintenance took place as base or line maintenance.
Note: Only in exceptional cases may scheduled maintenance be deferred and
then only in accordance with procedures specified in the AMO's procedures
manual. In all cases, the AMO must provide the owner/operator with a list of any
uncorrected defects that may exist.
(2) Before flight at the completion of any defect rectification, while the aircraft
operates between scheduled maintenance.
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PCAR PART 6
(3) At the completion of any maintenance on an aircraft component when off the
aircraft.
(b) The certificate of return to service shall contain the following statement: "Certifies that
the work specified except as otherwise specified was carried out in accordance with
current regulations and in respect to that work the aircraft/aircraft component is
considered ready for return to service."
(c) The certificate of return to service shall reference the data specified in the
manufacturer's or air carrier operator's instructions or the aircraft maintenance
program which itself may cross-reference to a manufacturer's instruction in a
maintenance manual, service bulletin, etc.
(d) Where instructions include a requirement to insure that a dimension or test figure is
within a specific tolerance as opposed to a general tolerance, the dimension or test
figure shall be recorded unless the instruction permits the use of GO/NO gauges. It is
not normally sufficient to state that the dimension or the test figure is within tolerance.
(e) The date such maintenance was carried out shall include when the maintenance took
place relative to any life or overhaul limitation in terms of date/flying
hours/cycles/landings etc., as appropriate.
(f) When extensive maintenance has been carried out, it is acceptable for the certificate
of return to service to summarize the maintenance as long as there is a cross-
reference to the work-pack containing full details of maintenance carried out.
Dimensional information shall be retained in the work-pack record.
(g) The person issuing the return to service shall use a full signature and preferably a
certification stamp except in the case where a computer return to service system is
used. In this latter case, the Authority will need to be satisfied that only the particular
person can electronically issue the return to service.
Note: One such method of compliance is the use of a magnetic or optical personal
card in conjunction with a personal identity number (PIN) which is keyed into the
computer and known only to the individual.
Note: An example of a certificate of return to service is shown below. Not intended to
be used as an import or export tag.
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PCAR PART 6
LINE-BY-LINE INSTRUCTIONS FOR COMPLETION OF MODEL AMO CAA FORM AAT:

(a) Block 1. Republic of the Philippines.
(b) Block 2. CAA Form, Airworthiness Approval Tag, and Civil Aviation Authority.
(c) Block 3. System Tracking Reference Number:
(1) Fill in the unique number established by the CAAP-approved numbering system.
(2) If the form is computer-generated, it may be produced as programmed by the
computer.
Shippers must establish a numbering system for traceability in order to fill out
Block 3 of the form. This system must also provide a means of cross-referencing
the number(s) and product(s) being shipped.
(d) Block 4. Organization:
(1) Fill in the full name and address of the CAA-approved organization or individual
shipping the product(s)/part(s) as applicable:
(i) Company name and address
(ii) Production Approval Holder (PAH) approval or certificate numbers, when
applicable (e.g., production certificate number, approved maintenance
organization certificate numbers, air operator certificate number).
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PCAR PART 6
(2) When a supplier has direct ship authorization from a PAH, the following
information should be entered:
(i) PAH name and address
(ii) PAH approval or certificate number
(iii) c/o Supplier name and address
Note: If an individual product/part is produced as a spare by a supplier, the
supplier must have either direct ship authority or hold a production approval
(PMA/TSO authorization) for all products/parts shipped. If the supplier holds
its own production approval and the products/parts were manufactured and
are being shipped under that approval. The information required in paragraph
(1) above should be listed.
(e) Block 5. Work Order, Contract, or Invoice Number:
(1) Fill in the contract, work order, or invoice number related to the shipment list, or
maintenance release, and state the number of pages attached to the form,
including dates, if applicable. If the shipment list contains the information required
in Blocks 6 through 12, the respective blocks may be left blank if an original, or
true copy, of the list is attached to the form. In this case, the following statement
should be entered in Block 13: "This is the certification statement for the
products/parts listed on the attached document dated, containing pages
______through ____.
(2) In addition, the shipment list must cross-reference the number located in Block 3.
The shipment list may contain more than one item; but it is the responsibility of
the shipper to determine if the CAA of the importing jurisdiction will accept bulk
shipments under a single Model CAA Form [AAT]. If the CAA does not permit
bulk shipments under a single form, Blocks 6 through 12 of each form must be
filled in for each product shipped.
(f) Block 6. Item: When Model CAA Form [AAT] is issued a single item number or
multiple item numbers may be used for the same part number. Multiple items should
be numbered in sequence. If a separate listing is used, enter "List Attached"
Note: The blank form can be computer-generated. However, the format cannot be
changed nor can any words be added or deleted. Pre-printing of some information is
permissible. i.e.: the information in blocks 1, 2, 3, 4, 14 and 19. The size of blocks
may be varied slightly, but the form must remain readily recognizable. The form may
also be reduced in overall size to facilitate placement of the wording on the back of
the form onto the face of the document.
(g) Block 7. Description: Enter the name or description of the product/part as shown on
the design data. For products/parts that do not have design data available, the name
as referenced in a part catalog, overhaul manual, etc. can be used.
(h) Block 8. Part Number: Enter each part number of the product.
(i) Block 9. Eligibility: State the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller make and model on
which the PMA part is eligible for installation. If a part is eligible for installation on
more than one model enter the words "to be verified by installer or TBV by installer."
Where parts are TSO articles, state "TSO Article N/A" since eligibility for installation
for TSO articles is determined at the time of installation.
Note: For TSO articles CAA Form [AAT] does not constitute authority to install a
product on a particular aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller. The user or installer is
responsible for confirming that the product is eligible for installation by reference to
IS-39
PCAR PART 6
overhaul manuals, service bulletins, etc., as applicable. While the information in

Block 9 is optional, it should be filled out whenever possible. When using CAA Form
[AAT] for CONFORMITY of certification program products, enter N/A.
(j) Block 10. Quantity: State the quantity of each product/part shipped.
Note: If a PAH or their inventory facilities require a Form 8130-3 for individual
products/parts at a later date, the procedures in paragraph 8c of this order should be
used.
(k) Block 11. Serial/Batch Number: State the serial number or equivalent (identified on
the part) on the form for each product/part shipped. If a serial number or equivalent is
not required on the part, enter "N/A."
(l) Block 12. Status/work: Enter "Newly Overhauled" for those products that have not
been operated or placed in service since overhaul. Enter "PROTOTYPE" for
products/parts submitted to support type certification programs. Other
permissible/appropriate terms to describe the status of the product/part are:
"INSPECTED" "REPAIRED," "REBUILT," or "ALTERED."
(m) Block 13. Remarks: Enter any information or references to support documentation
necessary for the user or installer to make a final determination of airworthiness of
the products/parts listed in Block 7. Each statement must specify which item
identified in Block 6 is related. Examples of information to be supplied are as follows:
(1) Any restrictions (e.g., prototype only).
(2) Alternative approved part number.
(3) Compliance or non-compliance with airworthiness directives or service bulletins.
(4) Information on life-limited parts.
(5) Manufacturing, cure, or shelf-life data.
(6) Drawing and revision level
(7) When used for conformity the word "CONFORMITY" must be entered in capital
letters. In addition, an explanation of the products/parts use, e.g., pending
approved data, TC pending, for test only, etc., should be provided. Information
concerning a conformity inspection such as design data, revision level, date,
project number,
(8) When used for spare parts identify whether the parts are PMA, TSO authorized.
In addition, if the CAA Model Form [AAT] is for spare parts or sub components of
an CAA approved modification or replacement part, the PMA or TSO
authorization should be listed in Block 13.
(9) When used for return to service this block should contain the data required by
Subpart 5.7.1.1. If other documents such as work orders or travelers, CAAP Form
in accordance with CAR Part 6, IS: 6.4.1.8, Maintenance Release Form, are used
by the certificate holders to comply with Subpart 5.7.1.1, they should be
specifically referenced in this block and be cross referenced.
(n) Block 14. Return to Service: The information is already pre-printed in the block.
(o) Block 15. Signature: Signature of the individual authorized by the air agency, air
carrier, or the manufacturer in accordance with Subpart 5.6.1.5 (a)(2), (3), and (4).
The approval signature shall be manually applied at the time and place of issuance.
IS-40
PCAR PART 6
(p) Block 16. Certificate number: Enter the air agency or air carrier operating certificate
number. For manufacturers returning to service after rebuilding products/parts the
production approval number should be entered.
(q) Block 17. Name: The typed or printed name of the individual identified in Block 20.
(r) Block 18. Date: The date the Model CAA Form [AAT] is signed and the products are
returned to service. This does not need to be the same as the shipping date, which
may occur at a later date.
IS: 6.5.1.8 AIRWORTHINESS DATA

(a) The AMO shall be in receipt of all airworthiness data appropriate to support the work
performed from the Authority; the aircraft/aeronautical product design organization,
and any other approved design organization in the State of Manufacture or State of
Design, as appropriate. Some examples of maintenance-related documents are:
(1) Civil Aviation Regulations;
(2) Associated advisory material,
(3) Airworthiness directives,
(4) Manufacturers' maintenance manuals,
(5) Repair manuals,
(6) Supplementary structural inspection documents,
(7) Service bulletins.
(8) Service letters.
(9) Service instructions.
(10) Modification leaflets,
(11) Aircraft maintenance program,
(12) NDT Manual; etc.
Note: Paragraph (a) primarily refers to maintenance data that has been
transcribed from the Authority and all Type Certificate (TC) holders into the
AMO's format, such as customized maintenance cards or computer base data.
Note: To obtain acceptance from the Authority, it is important that accuracy of
transcription is assured.
(b) A procedure shall be established to monitor the amendment status of all data and
maintain a check that all amendments are being received by being a subscriber to
any document amendment scheme.
(c) Airworthiness data shall be made available in the work area in close proximity to the
aircraft or aeronautical product being maintained and for supervisors, mechanics,
and certifying staff to study.
(d) Where computer systems are used to maintain airworthiness data the number of
computer terminals shall be sufficient in relation to the size of the work program to
enable easy access; unless the computer system can produce paper copies. Where
microfilm or microfiche readers/printers are used, a similar requirement is applicable.
IS-41
PCAR PART 6
IS-42
PCAR PART 7

PART 7
INSTRUMENT AND EQUIPMENT

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PCAR PART 7

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PCAR PART 7

Original Issue 23 June 2008 Ruben F. Ciron
First Amendment 21 March 2011 1. 7.2.9 Navigation Equipment Ramon S. Gutierrez
previous amendments Hotchkiss III AFP
(Ret)
Third Amendment 31 October 2013 1. Abbreviations LT GEN William K
• EVS – Enhanced Vision Hotchkiss III AFP
System (Ret)
• HUD – Head-up Display
2. 7.2.8 Navigation equipment
for operations in RVSM
airspace.
3. 7.2.11 Airplanes equipped
with head-up displays
(HUD) and/or enhanced
vision system (EVS). (New
Subtitle base on Annex 6
amendment 33, 34, 35 and
36.)
4. 7.7 Flight Recorders, 7.7.1
General Requirement,
7.7.1.1 Construction and
installation, 7.7.1.2
Operation, 7.7.1.3
Continued Serviceability
and inspection of flight
recorder systems, 7.7.1.4
Flight recorder electronic
documentation, and 7.7.1.5
Combination recorders.
(New Subtitle base on
Annex 6 amendment 33, 34,
35 and 36.)
5. 7.7.2 Flight data recorders
(FDR) and aircraft data
recording systems (ADRS),
7.7.2.1 Types and
parameters, 7.7.2.2 Aircraft
equippage for operation,
7.7.2.3 Discontinuation, and
7.7.2.4 Duration. (New

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PCAR PART 7

36.)
6. 7.7.3 Cockpit voice
recorders (CVR) and
cockpit audio recording
systems (CARS), 7.7.3.1
Signals to be recorded –
CVR and CARS, 7.7.3.2
Aircraft equippage for
operations, 7.7.3.3
Discontinuation, 7.7.3.4
Duration, and 7.7.3.5
Cockpit voice recorder
alternate power. (New
36.)
7. 7.7.4 Data link recorders
(DLR) and data link
recording systems (DLRS),
7.7.4.1 Applicability, 7.7.4.2
Duration, and 7.7.4.3
Correlation. (New Subtitle
base on Annex 6
36.)
8. 7.7.5 Airborne image
recorder (AIR) and airborne
image recording system
(AIRS) (New Subtitle base
on Annex 6 amendment 33,
34, 35 and 36.)
9. 7.8.6 Portable fire
extinguishers.
10. 7.8.11 First-aid kit,
universal precaution kit and
emergency medical kit.
11. 7.8.17 Life raft
12. IS: 7.7.1.3 Continued
Serviceability and
inspection of flight recorder
systems
13. IS: 7.7.2.1 (A) Flight data
recorders – type and
parameters – airplane (new

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PCAR PART 7

36.)
14. IS: 7.7.2.1 (B) Flight data
recorders – type and
parameters – helicopters
(new Subtitle base on
35 and 36.)
15. IS: 7.7.2.2 Aircraft
equippage for operation –
Aircraft data recording
systems (ADRS) (New
36.)
16. IS 7.7.4.1 Data link recorder
applicability. (New Subtitle
base on Annex 6
36.)
17. IS: 7.8.11 First-aid kit,
universal precaution kit and
emergency medical kit.
(New Subtitle base on
35 and 36.)
Fourth Amendment 13 January 2014 1. 7.3.1 Radio Equipment LT GEN William K
Hotchkiss III AFP
(Ret)
Fifth Amendment 17 August 2016 1. 7.8.6 Portable Fire Capt. Antonio G.
Extinguishers (c) (1) and (2) Buendia, Jr.
2. 7.8.7 Lavatory Fire
Extinguisher (c) (1) and (2)
Sixth Amendment 18 October 2016 1. 7.6.7 Airborne Collision Captain Jim C.
Avoidance System II Sydiongco
(ACAS II)
Seventh Amendment 01 July 2016 1. 7.8.6 Portable and Captain Jim C.
Equipment Sydiongco
2. 7.1.3 Abbreviations
• CVS
• COMAT
• EFB
• EUROCAE
• LED

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PCAR PART 7
• NVIS
• RTCA
• SVS
3. 7.2.11 Airplanes Equipped
with automatic landing
system, a head-up displays
(HUD) or equipment
displays, enhanced vision
system (EVS), synthetic
vision system (SVS) and/or
combined vision system
(CVS)
4. 7.3.3 Altitude reporting
transponder (c)
5. 7.4.1 Aircraft lights and
instrument illumination (a)
(7)
6. 7.7 Flight recorders
7. 7.7.1 General requirements
8. 7.7.1.1 Construction and
installation
9. 7.7.2.2 Aircraft equippage
for operation
10. 7.7.5 Airborne image
recorder (AIR) and airborne
image recording system
(AIRS)
11. IS: 7.7.1.3 Continued
serviceability and inspection
of flight recorder system
12. 7.8.19 Aircraft underwater
locator beacon (new)
Eighth Amendment 23 November 1. 7.8.11 First-aid kit, Captain Jim C.
2017 Universal precaution kit and Sydiongco
emergency medical kit
2. 7.8.19 Aircraft Underwater
Locator Beacon
Ninth Amendment 23 March 2018 1. 7.6.7 Airborne Collision Captain Jim C.
Avoidance System II Sydiongco
(ACAS) (d)
Tenth Amendment 20 March 2019 1. 7.8.11 First-aid Kit, Captain Jim C.
Universal Precaution Kit Sydiongco
and Emergency Medical Kit
(c) (1)
Eleventh Amendment 29 January 2020 1. 7.3 Communication and Captain Jim C.

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PCAR PART 7
Surveillance Equipment Sydiongco

2. 7.3.1 Radio Equipment (i)
Twelfth Amendment 24 February 2020 1. 7.2.10.1 Electronic Flight Captain Jim C.
Bag (EFB) Sydiongco
2. 7.2.10.1.1 EFB Equipment
3. 7.2.10.1.2 EFB Functions
4. 7.2.10.1.3 EFB Operational
Approval
Thirteenth 09 June 2020 1. 7.7.5 Airborne Image Captain Jim C.
Amendment Recorder (AIR) and Sydiongco
Airborne Image Recording
System (AIRS) (a) (3)
2. 7.8.11 First-Aid Kit,
Universal Precaution Kit and
Emergency Medical Kit (a)
(1)

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PCAR PART 7

Part 7 Instrument and Equipment
Record of Amendments vi - x Amendment 13 01 July 2020
List of Effective Pages xi – xiii Amendment 13 01 July 2020
Table of Contents xiv-xvii Amendment 13 01 July 2020
Introduction xviii Original Issue 23 June 2008
Page
7.2-7 Amendment 03 31 October 2013

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7.8-5 Amendment 05 17 August 2016

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PCAR PART 7

IS-7 Amendment 03 31 October 2013

xiii
PCAR PART 7
CONTENTS
7.1 GENERAL.…………………………………………………………………............ 7.1-1

7.1.1 Applicability..……………………………………………………………………….. 7.1-1
7.1.2 Reserved…………………………………………………………………………… 7.1-1
7.1.3 Abbreviations……………………………………………………………………..... 7.1-1
7.1.4 General Instrument and Equipment Requirements …………………………… 7.1-2
7.2 FLIGHT AND NAVIGATIONAL INSTRUMENTS………...…………………… 7.2-1
7.2.1 General Requirements…………………………………………………………… 7.2-1
7.2.2 Minimum Flight and Navigational Instruments………………………………… 7.2-1
7.2.3 IFR Instruments…………………………………………………………………… 7.2-1
7.2.4 Standby Attitude Indicator……………………………………………………….. 7.2-2
7.2.5 Instruments and Equipment for Category II Operations…………………….... 7.2-3
7.2.6 Instruments and Equipment For Category III Operations…………………….. 7.2-4
7.2.7 Navigation Equipment for Operations in MNPS Airspace…………………… 7.2-6
7.2.8 Navigation Equipment for Operations in RVSM Airspace…………………… 7.2-7
7.2.9 Navigation Equipment – General………………………………………………… 7.2-8
7.2.10 Electronic Navigation Data Management……………………………………… 7.2-8
7.2.11 Airplanes Equipped with Head-up Displays (HUD) and/or Enhanced Vision
Systems (EVS)……………………………………………………………………. 7.2-9
7.3 COMMUNICATION AND SURVEILLANCE EQUIPMENT…………………… 7.3-1
7.3.1 Radio Equipment…………………………………………………………………... 7.3-1
7.3.2 Crew Member Interphone System………………………………………………. 7.3-2
7.3.3 Altitude Reporting Transponder………………………………………………… 7.3-2
7.4 AIRCRAFT LIGHTS AND INSTRUMENT ILLUMINATION………………… 7.4-1
7.4.1 Aircraft and Lights Instrument Illumination…………………………………….. 7.4-1
7.5 ENGINE INSTRUMENTS…………….............................................................. 7.5-1
7.5.1 Engine Instruments……………………………………………………………… 7.5-1
7.6 WARNING INSTRUMENTS AND SYSTEMS………………………………… 7.6-1
7.6.1 Mach Number Indicator…………………………………………………………… 7.6-1
7.6.2 Loss of Pressurization Indicator………………………………………………… 7.6-1
7.6.3 Landing Gear: Aural Warning Device…………………………………………… 7.6-1
7.6.4 Altitude Alerting System………………………………………………………….. 7.6-1
7.6.5 Ground Proximity Warning System…………………………………………….... 7.6-2

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PCAR PART 7
7.6.6 Weather Radar…………………………………………………………………...... 7.6-2

7.6.7 Airborne Collision Avoidance System II (ACAS II)…………………………… 7.6-2
7.6.8 Forward Looking Wind Shear Warning System — Turbojet Aircraft…………. 7.6-3
7.7 FLIGHT RECORDERS…………….……..………………………………………. 7.7-1
7.7.1 General Requirements…………………………………………………………… 7.7-1
7.7.1.1 Construction and Installation……………………………………………………. 7.7-1
7.7.1.2 Operation…………………………………………………………………………... 7.7-2
7.7.1.3 Continued Serviceability and Inspection of Flight Recorder Systems………. 7.7-2
7.7.1.4 Flight Recorder Electronic Documentation…………………………………….. 7.7-2
7.7.1.5 Combination Recorders………………………………………………………….. 7.7-3
7.7.2 Flight Data Recorders (FDR) and Aircraft Data Recording Systems (ADRS). 7.7-3
7.7.2.1 Types and Parameters……………………………………………………………. 7.7-3
7.7.2.2 Aircraft Equippage for Operation..………………………………………………. 7.7-4
7.7.2.3 Discontinuation……………………………………………………………………. 7.7-6
7.7.2.4 Duration…………………………………..………………………………………… 7.7-6
7.7.3 Cockpit Voice Recorders (CVR) and Cockpit Audio Recording Systems
(CARS)…………………………………………………………………………….. 7.7-6
7.7.3.1 Signals to be Recorded – CVR and CARS…………………………………… 7.7-7
7.7.3.2 Aircraft Equippage for Operations……………………………………………… 7.7-7
7.7.3.3 Discontinuation…………………………………………………………………… 7.7-8
7.7.3.4 Duration…………………………………………………………………………… 7.7-8
7.7.3.5 Cockpit Voice Recorder Alternate Power……………………………………… 7.7-9
7.7.4 Data Link Recorders (DLR) and Data Link Recording Systems (DLRS)…… 7.7-9
7.7.4.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………….. 7.7-9
7.7.4.2 Duration…………………………………………………………………………… 7.7-10
7.7.4.3 Correlation………………………………………………………………………… 7.7-10
7.7.5 Airborne Image Recorder (AIR) and Airborne Image Recording System
(AIRS)………………………………………………………………………………. 7.7-10
7.8 EMEGENCY, RESCUE, AND SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT……………………. 7.8-1
7.8.1 Emergency Equipment: All Aircraft……………………………………………… 7.8-1
7.8.2 Emergency Exit Equipment……………………………………………………… 7.8-1
7.8.3 Visual Signaling Devices………………………………………………………… 7.8-2
7.8.4 Survival Equipment………………………………………………………………... 7.8-2
7.8.5 Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)………………………………………….. 7.8-2

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7.8.6 Portable Fire Extinguishers……………………………………………………… 7.8-3

7.8.7 Lavatory Fire Extinguishers……………………………………………………… 7.8-4
7.8.8 Lavatory Smoke Detector………………………………………………………… 7.8-5
7.8.9 Crash Axe…………………………………………………………………………... 7.8-5
7.8.10 Marking of Break-in Points………………………………………………………... 7.8-5
7.8.11 First-Aid and Emergency Medical Kit…………………………………………… 7.8-6
7.8.12 Oxygen Storage and Dispensing Apparatus…………………………………… 7.8-7
7.8.13 Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE)………………………………………… 7.8-8
7.8.14 First Aid Oxygen Dispensing Units……………………………………………… 7.8-8
7.8.15 Megaphones……………………………………………………………………….. 7.8-9
7.8.16 Individual Flotation Devices………………………………………………............ 7.8-9
7.8.17 Life Raft………………………………...………………………………….............. 7.8-10
7.8.18 Flotation Device for Helicopter Ditching…………………………………………. 7.8-10
7.8.19 Aircraft Underwater Locator Beacon…………………………………………….. 7.8-10
7.9 MISCELLANEOUS SYSTEM AND EQUIPMENT…………………………….. 7.9-1
7.9.1 Seats, Safety Belts, and Shoulder Harness…………………………………… 7.9-1
7.9.2 Passenger and Pilot Compartment Doors……………………………………… 7.9-1
7.9.3 Passenger Information Signs……………………………………….................. 7.9-1
7.9.4 Public Address System…………………………………………………………… 7.9-2
7.9.5 Materials for Cabin Interiors…………………………………………………….. 7.9-2
7.9.6 Materials for Cargo and Baggage Compartments……………………………. 7.9-2
7.9.7 Power supply, Distribution, and Indication System…………………………… 7.9-3
7.9.8 Protective Circuit Fuses…………………………………………………………… 7.9-3
7.9.9 Icing Protection Equipment……………………………………………………… 7.9-3
7.9.10 Pilot Heat Indication Systems…………………………………………………… 7.9-4
7.9.11 Static Pressure System…………………………………………………………… 7.9-4
7.9.12 Windshield Wipers………………………………………………………………… 7.9-4
7.9.13 Chart Holder………………………………………………………………………... 7.9-4
7.9.14 Cosmic Radiation Detection Equipment………………………………………… 7.9-4
7.9.15 Maritime Sound Signaling Device……………………………………………… 7.9-4
7.9.16 Anchors……………………………………………………………………………... 7.9-5
IS: 7.2.5 CATEGORY II AND III: Instruments And Equipment Approval and
Maintenance Requirements…………………………………..…….…….. IS-2

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PCAR PART 7
IS: 7.7.1.3 Continued Serviceability and Inspection of Flight Recorder System… IS-5
IS: 7.7.2.1(A) Flight Data Recorders – Type and Parameters – Airplane……………… IS-6
IS: 7.7.2.1(B) Flight Data Recorders – Type and Parameters – Helicopters…………. IS-17
IS: 7.7.2.2 Aircraft Equippage for Operations – Aircraft Data Recording
System (ADRS)……………………………………………………….. IS-23
IS: 7.7.4.1 Data Link Recorder Applicability………………………………………….. IS-28
IS: 7.8.2 Emergency Exit Equipment……..…………………………………………. IS-29
IS: 7.8.4 Survival Equipment…………………………………………………............. IS-31
(a) Flight Over Land……………….………………………..……………….. IS-31
(b) Flight Over Water………………….…………………………………….. IS-31
IS: 7.8.5 Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)………………..………..………..... IS-32
IS: 7.8.11 First-aid Kit, Universal Precaution Kit and Emergency Medical Kit……. IS-32
IS: 7.8.12 Oxygen Storage and Dispensing Apparatus………………………....…. IS-34
IS: 7.9.14 Cosmic Radiation Detection Equipment…………………………………. IS-37

xvii
PCAR PART 7
INTRODUCTION
CAR Part 7 presents standards and recommended practices as regulatory requirements for
instruments and equipment on aircraft expected to operate in the Republic of the Philippines.
The requirements in Part 7 address two categories of aircraft operations. The sections of Part 7
applicable to all aircraft address minimum requirements, and are noted by the key [AAC]
preceding the particular section. It is important to note that the AAC designation applies to all
aircraft and AOC Holder [AOC] categories unless other, more specific regulations supplant the
[AAC] requirement. In some instances, certain items such as Mach meters or sea anchors apply
only to aircraft with performance characteristics requiring such items. Some [AAC] requirements
apply to passenger-carrying aircraft. In such instances, the requirement addresses the operation
of any passenger-carrying aircraft, most particularly corporate aircraft, that may have
performance and range capabilities matching the type of aircraft operated by commercial air
transport entities or AOC holders. Similarly, some equipment specified for [AOC] aircraft have
sections keyed as [AAC]. In such instances, if a non- [AOC] aircraft is fitted with such
equipment, the equipment characteristics must comply with the applicable sections designated
[AAC].
The key [AOC] applies to AOC holders operating in the Republic of the Philippines, whether on
domestic or international flights.
Certain sections, such as those addressing MNPS airspace, may not address airspace
contiguous to the Republic of the Philippines, but anticipate that the Republic of the Philippines
AOC holder’s aircraft may operate through such airspace in the course of commerce. Such
requirements are intended to facilitate the integration of the Republic of the Philippines AOC
holders into such operations.
As in other Parts of these Regulations, operators of aircraft operated in the Republic of the
Philippines but registered in another Contracting State must notify the Authority in the Republic
of the Philippines when alterations, major repairs or major alterations are made to the aircraft.
The Republic of the Philippines may have unique territorial or geographic features that may
affect the operation of aircraft, and must be kept informed of the condition of aircraft operated
within its borders. Part 7 includes survival equipment requirements that may apply to the
Republic of the Philippines.

xviii
PCAR PART 7
7.1 GENERAL
7.1.1 APPLICABILITY
(a) Part 7 prescribes the minimum instrument and equipment requirements for all aircraft
in all operations.
(b) Part 7 requirements use the following key designators—-
(1) AAC: all aircraft, including AOC holders appropriate to the subject of the
regulations, e.g., an AAC, all aircraft regulation may only refer to seaplanes, but
will include AOC seaplanes;
(2) AOC: Where AOC requirements are redundant to AAC requirements, or more
detailed, the AOC requirements will be followed.
(c) The statement, “Individual Certificate of Airworthiness First Issued” shall mean
individual certificate of airworthiness of the first production aircraft under the type
certificate.
7.1.2 RESERVED
7.1.3 ABBREVIATIONS
The following abbreviations are used in Part 7:
ADF – Automatic Direction Finder
AOC - Air Operator Certificate
DH – Decision Height
DME – Distance Measuring Equipment
CVS – Combined Vision System
COMAT – Operator Material
EFB – Electronic Flight Bag
ELT – Emergency Locator Transmitter
EUROCAE – European Organization for Civil Aviation Equipment
EVS – Enhanced Vision System
HUD – Head-up Display
ILS – Instrument Landing System
IFR – Instrument Flight Rating
IMC - Instrument Meteorological Conditions
LED – Light Emitting Diode
LRNS - Long Range Navigation Systems
MEL – Minimum Equipment List (Part 1)
MHz - Megahertz
MLS – Microwave Landing System
MNPS - Minimal Navigation Performance Specifications
NDB – Non-Directional Beacon

7.1-1
UNCONTROLLED COPYWHEN DOWNLOADED
PCAR PART 7
NVIS – Night Vision Imaging Systems

PBE - Protective Breathing Equipment
RCP - Required Communication Performance
RVSM – Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum
RTCA – Radio Technical Commission for Aeronautics
SSR – Secondary Surveillance Radar
SVS – Synthetic Vision System
VFR – Visual Flight Rules
VMC - Visual Meteorological Conditions
VOR – VHF Omnidirectional Range
VSM – Vertical Separation Minimum
7.1.4 GENERAL INSTRUMENT AND EQUIPMENT REQUIREMENTS

(a) [AAC] In addition to the minimum equipment necessary for the issuance of a certificate
of airworthiness, the instruments, equipment and flight documents prescribed in Part
7 shall be installed or carried, as appropriate, in aircraft according to the aircraft used
and to the circumstances under which the flight is to be conducted.
(b) [AAC] All required instruments and equipment shall be approved and installed in
accordance with applicable airworthiness requirements.
(c) [AAC] Prior to operation in the Republic of the Philippines of any aircraft not registered
in the Republic of the Philippines that uses an airworthiness inspection program
approved or accepted by the State of Registry, the owner/operator shall ensure that
instruments and equipment required by the Republic of the Philippines but not installed
in the aircraft are properly installed and inspected in accordance with the requirements
of the State of Registry.
(d) [AAC] An operator shall ensure that a flight does not commence unless the required
equipment—
(1) Meets the minimum performance standard and the operational and airworthiness
requirements;
(2) Is installed such that the failure of any single unit required for either communication
or navigation purposes, or both, will not result in the inability to communicate and/or
navigate safely on the route being flown; and
(3) Is in operable condition for the kind of operation being conducted, except as
provided in the MEL.
(e) [AAC] If equipment is to be used by one flight crew member at his station during flight,
it shall be installed so as to be readily operable from his or her station.
(f) [AAC] When a single item of equipment is required to be operated by more than one
flight crew member, it shall be installed so that the equipment is readily operable from
any station at which the equipment is required to be operated.

7.1-2
PCAR PART 7
7.2 FLIGHT AND NAVIGATIONAL INSTRUMENTS

7.2.1 GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
(a) [AAC] All aircraft shall be equipped with flight and navigational instruments which will
enable the flight crew to—
(1) Control the flight path of the aircraft;
(2) Carry out any required procedural maneuvers;
(3) Observe the operating limitations of the aircraft in the expected operating
conditions; and
(4) In the event of the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight operate
the aircraft with the remaining navigation equipment in accordance with its
operational flight plan and the requirements of ATS.
(b) [AAC] When a means is provided for transferring an instrument from its primary
operating system to an alternative system, the means shall include a positive
positioning control and shall be marked to indicate clearly which system is being used.
(c) [AAC] Those instruments that are used by any one flight crew member shall be so
arranged as to permit the flight crew member to see the indications readily from his
station, with the minimum practicable deviation from the position and line of vision
which he normally assumes when looking forward along the flight path.
7.2.2 MINIMUM FLIGHT AND NAVIGATIONAL INSTRUMENTS

(a) [AAC] No person may operate any aircraft unless it is equipped with the following flight
and navigational instruments:
(1) An airspeed indicator;
(2) A sensitive pressure altimeter, adjustable for any barometric pressure likely to be
set during flight;
(3) A vertical speed indicator;
(4) A turn and slip indicator, or a turn coordinator incorporating a slip indicator;
(5) A magnetic compass;
(6) A means of indicating in the flight crew compartment the outside air temperature;
(7) An accurate timepiece indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds (approval
not required).
(b) [AAC] Whenever an aircraft is operating at night or when two pilots are required, each
pilot's station shall have separate flight instruments as listed in (a) and additionally as
follows;
(1) An attitude indicator (artificial horizon); and
(2) A stabilized direction indicator (directional gyroscope).
7.2.3 IFR INSTRUMENTS

(a) [AAC] All aircraft when operated in IFR, or at night, or when the aircraft cannot be
maintained in a desired attitude without reference to one or more flight instruments,
shall be equipped with the flight instruments as listed in 7.2.2 and additionally as
follows —

7.2-1
PCAR PART 7
(1) An airspeed indicating system with a means of preventing malfunctioning due to

either condensation or icing;
(2) A sensitive pressure altimeter with counter drum-pointer or equivalent
presentation, calibrated in feet with a sub-scale setting calibrated in
hectopascals/millibars, adjustable for any barometric pressure likely to be set
during flight;
(3) A means of indicating whether the supply of power to the gyroscopic instruments
is adequate.
(b) [AAC] No person may operate an aircraft under IFR, or under VFR over routes that
cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks, unless the aircraft is equipped
with navigation equipment in accordance with the requirements of air traffic services in
the area(s) of operation, but not less than:
(1) One VOR receiving system, one ADF system, one DME and one Marker Beacon
receiving system;
(2) One ILS or MLS where ILS or MLS is required for approach navigation purposes;
(3) An Area Navigation System when area navigation is required for the route being a
flown;
(4) An additional VOR receiving system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation
is based only on VOR signals; and
(5) An additional ADF system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based
only on NDB signals.
(c) [AAC] All aircraft intended to land in IMC or at night shall be provided with radio
navigation equipment capable of receiving signals providing guidance to—
(1) A point from which a visual landing can be effected; or
(2) Each aerodrome at which it is intended to land in IMC; and
(3) Any designated alternate aerodromes.
(d) [AOC] No person may conduct single pilot IFR operations unless the aircraft is
equipped with an autopilot with at least altitude hold and heading mode.
7.2.4 STANDBY ATTITUDE INDICATOR

(a) [AAC] No person may operate an airplane with a maximum certified take-off mass
exceeding 5,700 kg, aircraft having a maximum approved passenger seating
configuration of more than 9 seats and all helicopters when operating in accordance
with IFR, unless it is equipped with a single standby attitude indicator (artificial horizon)
that—
(1) Operates independently of any other attitude indicating system;
(2) Is powered continuously during normal operation; and
(3) After a total failure of the normal electrical generating system, is automatically
powered for the purpose of operating and illuminating for a minimum of 30 minutes
from a source independent of the normal electrical generating system.
(b) [AAC] When the standby attitude indicator is being operated by emergency power, it
shall be clearly evident to the flight crew.

7.2-2
PCAR PART 7
(c) [AAC] Where the standby attitude indicator has its own dedicated power supply there
shall be an associated indication, either on the instrument or on the instrument pane
when this supply is in use.
(d) [AAC] If the standby attitude instrument system is installed and usable through flight
attitudes of 360° of pitch and roll, the turn and slip indicators may be replaced by slip
indicators
7.2.5 INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT FOR CATEGORY II OPERATIONS

(a) The instruments and equipment listed in this subsection shall be installed, approved
and maintained in accordance with IS: 7.2.5 for each aircraft operated in a Category II
operation:
Note: This subsection does not require duplication of instruments and equipment
required by subpart 7.2.2 or any other provisions of Part 7.
(1) Group I
Is comprised of the following equipment and this equipment must be inspected
both within three calendar months of the previous inspection and must also have a
bench inspection within 12 months of the previous bench inspection using
procedures contained in the approved maintenance program.
(i) Two localizer and glide slope receiving systems.
Note: Each system shall provide a basic ILS display and each side of the
instrument panel must have a basic ILS display. However, a single localizer
antenna and a single glide slope antenna may be used.
(ii) A communications system that does not affect the operation of at least one of
the ILS systems.
(iii) A marker beacon receiver that provides distinctive aural and visual indications
of the outer and the middle markers.
(iv) Two gyroscopic pitch and bank indicating systems.
(v) Two gyroscopic direction indicating systems.
(vi) Two airspeed indicators.
(vii) Two sensitive altimeters adjustable for barometric pressure, having markings
at 20 foot intervals and each having a placarded correction for altimeter scale
error and for the wheel height of the aircraft.
(viii) One self-monitoring radio altimeter with dual display.
(ix) Two vertical speed indicators.
(x) A flight control guidance system that consists of either an automatic approach
coupler or a flight director system.
Note: A flight director system must display computed information as steering
command in relation to an ILS localizer and, on the same instrument, either
computed information as pitch command in relation to an ILS glide slope or
basic ILS glide slope information. An automatic approach coupler must provide
at least automatic steering in relation to an ILS localizer. The flight control
guidance system may be operated from one of the receiving systems required
by paragraph (a)(1)(i).

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(xi) For Category II operations with decision heights below 150 feet a radio
altimeter is required.
(2) Group II
Is comprised of the following equipment and this equipment which, with the
exception of the static system, does not require special maintenance procedures
other than those necessary to retain the original approval condition. Group II
equipment must be inspected within 12 months of the previous inspection using
procedures contained in the approved maintenance program.
(i) Warning systems for immediate detection by the pilot of system faults in items
(a)(1)(i), (a)(1)(iv), (a)(1)(vi) and (a)(1)(ix), of Group I
(ii) Dual controls.
(iii) An externally vented static pressure system with an alternate static pressure
source.
(iv) A windshield wiper or equivalent means of providing adequate cockpit visibility
for a safe visual transition by either pilot to touchdown and rollout.
(v) A heat source for each airspeed system pitot tube installed or an equivalent
means of preventing malfunctioning due to icing of the pitot system.
Note: See ICAO DOC 9635, Manual of All Weather Operations and the current
edition of FAA Advisory Circular (AC) 120-29, Criteria for Approval of Category
I and Category II Weather Minima for Approach, for further guidance.
7.2.6 INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT FOR CATEGORY III OPERATIONS

(a) The instruments and equipment listed in this subsection shall be installed, approved
and maintained in accordance with international acceptable criteria, a schedule
approved in accordance with IS: 7.2.5 and the AFM in each aircraft operated in a
Category III operation:
Note 1: This subsection does not require duplication of instruments and equipment
required by 7.2.2, and 7.2.5 or any other provisions of Part 7.
Note 2: Acceptable international criteria may include: ICAO Doc 9365, Manual on All
Weather Operations; the current edition of FAA AC 120-28 or JAR AWO
(b) Airborne systems for CAT IIIA minima not less than RVR 200 m (600 ft). The
following equipment in addition to the instrument and navigation equipment required
by this Part for IFR flight and CAT II operations is the minimum aircraft equipment
required for CAT IIIA:
(1) A redundant flight control or guidance system demonstrated in accordance with
international acceptable criteria. Acceptable flight guidance or control systems
include the following—
(i) A Fail Operational or Fail Passive automatic landing system at least to
touchdown;
(ii) A Fail Operational or Fail Passive manual flight guidance system providing
suitable head-up or head-down command guidance, and suitable monitoring
capability at least to touchdown;
(iii) A hybrid system, using automatic landing capability as the primary means of
landing at least to touchdown; or
(iv) Other system that can provide an equivalent level of performance and safety.

7.2-4
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(2) An automatic throttle or automatic thrust control system that meets approved
criteria as specified in the AFM. However, for operations with a 15 m (50 ft) DH, or
other operations that have been specifically evaluated such as for engine
inoperative landing capability, automatic throttles may not be required if it has been
demonstrated that operations can be safely conducted, with an acceptable work
load, without their use.
(3) At least two independent navigation receivers/sensors providing lateral and vertical
position or displacement information, typically with the first pilot’s station receiving
the information from one and the second pilot’s station receiving the information
from the other. The navigation receivers/sensors shall meet the criteria specified
for CAT IIIA operations.
(4) At least two approved radio altimeter systems that meet the performance
requirements criteria as specified in the AFM, typically with the first pilot’s station
receiving information from one and the second pilot’s station receiving information
from the other.
(5) Failure detection, annunciation, and warning capability, as determined acceptable
by criteria in the AFM.
(6) Missed approach guidance provided by one or more of the following means:
(i) Attitude displays that include suitable pitch attitude markings, or a pre-
established computed pitch command display.
(ii) An approved flight path angle display, or
(iii) An automatic or flight guidance go-around capability.
(7) Suitable forward and side flight deck visibility for each pilot as specified in the AFM.
(8) Suitable windshield rain removal, ice protection, or defog capability as specified in
the AFM.
(c) Airborne systems for CAT IIIB minima less than RVR 200 m (600 ft) but not less
than RVR 125 m (400 ft). The following equipment in addition to the instrument and
navigation equipment required by this Part for IFR flight and CAT II and CAT IIIA
operations is the minimum aircraft equipment required for CAT IIIB plus the following
extra equipment requirements:
(1) A redundant flight control or guidance system demonstrated in accordance with
international acceptable criteria. Acceptable flight guidance or control systems
include the following –
(i) A Fail Operational landing system with a Fail Operational or Fail Passive
automatic rollout system; or
(ii) A Fail Passive landing system, limited to touchdown zone RVR not less than
RVR 200 m (600 ft), with Fail Passive rollout provided automatically or by a
flight guidance system providing suitable head-up or head-down guidance, and
suitable monitoring capability, or
(iii) A Fail Operational hybrid automatic landing and rollout system with comparable
manual flight guidance system, using automatic landing capability as the
primary means of landing; or
(iv) Other system that can provide an equivalent level of performance and safety.
(2) An automatic throttle or automatic thrust control that meets the appropriate criteria
as specified in the AFM. However for operations with a 15 m (50 ft) DH, automatic

7.2-5
PCAR PART 7
throttles may not be required if it has been demonstrated that operations can safely
be conducted, with an acceptable work load, without their use.
(3) At least two independent navigation receivers/sensors providing lateral and vertical
position or displacement information, typically with the first pilot’s station receiving
information from one and the second pilot’s station receiving information from the
other. The navigation receivers/sensors shall meet the criteria specified in the
AFM.
(4) At least two approved radio altimeter systems that need the performance criteria
outlined in the AFM, typically with the first pilot’s station receiving information from
one and the second pilot’s station receiving information from the other.
(5) Failure detection, annunciation and warning capability as specified in the AFM.
(6) Missed approach guidance provided by one or more of the following means:
(i) Attitude displays that include calibrated pitch attitude markings, or a pre-
established computed pitch command display; or
(ii) An approved flight path angle display, or
(iii) An automatic or flight guidance go-around capability.
(7) Suitable forward and side flight deck visibility for each pilot, as specified in the AFM.
(8) Suitable windshield rain removal, ice protection, or defog capability as specified in
the AFM.
(d) Airborne systems for CAT IIIC minima less than RVR 75 m (300 ft). The following
equipment in addition to the instrument and navigation equipment required by this Part
for IFR flight and CAT II, CAT IIIA and CAT IIIB operations is the minimum aircraft
equipment required for CAT IIIC:
(1) A Fail Operational Automatic Flight Control System, or manual flight guidance
system designed to meet fail operational system criteria, or a hybrid system in
which both the fail-passive automatic system and the monitored manual flight
guidance components provide approach and flare guidance to touchdown, and in
combination provide full fail operational capability, and
(2) A fail operational automatic, manual, or hybrid rollout control system.
7.2.7 NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT FOR OPERATIONS IN MNPS AIRSPACE

(a) [AAC] No person may operate an aircraft in MNPS airspace unless it is equipped with
navigation equipment that-
(1) Continuously provides indications to the flight crew of adherence to or departure
from track to the required degree of accuracy at any point along that track; and
(2) Be authorized by the State of Registry for operations in such airspace.
Note: Equipment shall comply with Minimum Navigation Performance
Specifications (MNPS) prescribed in ICAO Doc 7030 in the form of Regional
Supplementary Procedures.
(b) The navigation equipment required for operations in MNPS airspace shall be visible
and usable by either pilot seated at his duty station.
(c) For unrestricted operation in MNPS airspace an aircraft shall be equipped with two
independent Long-Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).

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PCAR PART 7
(d) For operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes, an aircraft shall be
equipped with one LRNS, unless otherwise specified.
7.2.8 NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT FOR OPERATIONS IN RVSM AIRSPACE

(a) [AAC] For flights in defined portions of airspace where, based on Regional Air
Navigation Agreement, a reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) of 300 m
(1,000 ft) is applied between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive, an aircraft:
(1) Shall be provided with equipment that is capable of:
(i) Indicating to the flight crew the flight level being flown;
(ii) Automatically maintaining a selected flight level;
(iii) Providing an alert to the flight crew when a deviation occurs from the selected
flight level. The threshold for the alert shall not exceed + or – 90 m (300 ft); and
(iv) Automatically reporting pressure-altitude;
(2) shall be authorized by the Authority for operation in the airspace concerned; and
(i) The State of Operator for AOC holders through operations specifications, or
(ii) The State of Registry for non-AOC holders through letter of authorization.
(b) Prior to granting an RVSM approval required by paragraph (a)(2), the Republic of the
Philippines shall be satisfied that:
(1) The vertical navigation performance capability of the aircraft satisfies the
requirements specified in ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Appendix 4 (AOC) and ICAO
Annex 6, Part II, Appendix 2 (General Aviation).
(2) The operator has instituted appropriate procedures in respect of continued
airworthiness (maintenance and repair) practices and programs; and
(3) The operator has instituted appropriate flight crew procedures for operations in
RVSM airspace.
Note: An RVSM approval is valid globally on the understanding that any operating
procedures specific to a given region will be stated in the operations manual or
appropriate crew guidance.
(c) The Republic of the Philippines in consultation with the State of Registry, if appropriate,
shall ensure that, in respect of those aircrafts mentioned in item (a)(2) above, adequate
provisions exist for:
(1) Receiving the reports of height-keeping performance issued by the monitoring
agencies established in accordance with Annex 11, 3.3.4.2; and
(2) Taking immediate corrective action for individual aircraft, or aircraft type groups,
identified in such reports as not complying with the height-keeping requirements
for operations in airspace where RVSM is applied.
(d) The Authority will take appropriate action in respect of aircraft and operators found to
be operating in RVSM airspace in the Philippines without a valid RVSM approval.
Note 1: These provisions and procedures need to address both the situation where the
aircraft in question is operating without approval in the airspace of the State, and the
situation where an operator for which the State has regulatory oversight responsibility
is found to be operating without the required approval in the airspace of another State.
Amendment 03 31 October 2013

7.2-7
PCAR PART 7
Note 2: See ICAO Doc 9574, Manual on Implementation of a 300 m (1,000 ft) Vertical
Separation Minimum between FL 290 and FL 410 Inclusive, for guidance relating to
the approval for operations in RVSM airspace.
(e) An operator with RVSM approval shall ensure that a minimum of two airplanes of each
aircraft type grouping of the operator have their height-keeping performance
monitored, at least once every two years or within intervals of 1 000 flight hours per
airplane, whichever period is longer. If an operator aircraft type grouping consists of a
single airplane, monitoring of that airplane shall be accomplished within the specified
period.
Note: Monitoring data from any regional monitoring program established in accordance
with ICAO Annex 11.3.3.5.2, may be used to satisfy the requirement.
(f) An operator shall ensure that each airplane shall be sufficiently provided with
navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of the failure of one item of equipment
at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment will enable the airplane to navigate
in accordance with paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of 7.2.8.
Note: Guidance material relating to aircraft equipment necessary for flight I airspace
where RVSM is applied is contained in the Manual on Implementation of a 300 m (1
000ft) Vertical Separation minimum Between FL 290 and FL 410 Inclusive (ICAO Doc
9574).
(g) On flights in which it is intended to land in instrument meteorological conditions, an
airplane shall be provided with radio equipment capable of receiving signals providing
guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be effected. This equipment shall
be capable of providing such guidance for each aerodrome at which it is intended to
land in instrument meteorological conditions and for any designated alternate
aerodromes.
7.2.9 NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT — GENERAL

(a) [AAC] No person may operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with navigation
equipment that will enable it to proceed in accordance with-
(1) It's operational flight plan,
(2) The prescribed Performance-Based Navigation Specification, and
(3) The requirements of air traffic services and,
(b) No person may operate an aircraft in Performance-Based Navigation specification
airspace unless authorized by CAAP for such operations.
Note: See ICAO Doc 9613 for information on the approval process for operations in
RNP airspace.
7.2.10 ELECTRONIC NAVIGATION DATA MANAGEMENT

(a) [AAC] No person shall employ electronic navigation data products that have been
processed for application in the air and on the ground unless the Authority has
approved:

7.2-8
PCAR PART 7
(1) The operator’s procedures for ensuring that the process applied and the products
delivered have acceptable standards of integrity and that the products are
compatible with the intended function of the equipment that will use them;
(2) The operator’s program for continual monitoring of both process and products; and
(3) The operator’s procedures to ensure the timely distribution and insertion of current
and unaltered electronic navigation data to all aircraft that require it.
Note: Guidance relating to the processes that data suppliers may follow is
contained in RTCA DO -200A/EUROCAE ED-76 and RTCA DO –
201A/EUROCAE ED- 77.
7.2.10.1 ELECTRONIC FLIGHT BAG (EFB)

Note: Guidance on EFB equipment, functions and operational approval is contained
in the ICAO Doc 10020.
7.2.10.1.1 EFB EQUIPMENT

(a) Where portable EFBs are used on board an airplane, the operator shall ensure that
they do not affect the performance of the airplane systems, equipment or the ability
to operate the airplane.
7.2.10.1.2 EFB FUNCTIONS

(a) Where EFBs are used on board an airplane the operator shall:
(1) assess the safety risk(s) associated with each EFB function;
(2) establish and document the procedures for the use of, and training requirements
for, the device and each EFB function; and
(3) ensure that, in the event of an EFB failure, sufficient information is readily available
to the flight crew for the flight to be conducted safely.
Note: Guidance on safety risk assessments is contained in the Safety Management
Manual (SMM) Doc 9859.
(b) The Authority shall approve the operational use of EFB functions to be used for the
safe operation of airplanes.
7.2.10.1.3 EFB OPERATIONAL APPROVAL

(a) In approving the use of EFBs, the Authority will ensure that:
(1) the EFB equipment and its associated installation hardware, including interaction
with airplane systems if applicable, meet the appropriate airworthiness certification
requirements;
(2) the operator has assessed the safety risks associated with the operations
supported by the EFB function(s);
(3) the operator has established requirements for redundancy of the information (if
appropriate) contained in and displayed by the EFB function(s);
(4) the operator has established and documented procedures for the management of
the EFB function(s) including any database it may use; and
(5) the operator has established and documented the procedures for the use of, and
training requirements for, the EFB and the EFB function(s).

7.2-9
PCAR PART 7
Note: Guidance on safety risk assessments is contained in the Safety Management

Manual (SMM) (Doc 9859).
7.2.11 AIRPLANES EQUIPPED WITH AUTOMATIC LANDING SYSTEMS, A HEAD-

UP DISPLAYS (HUD) OR EQUIVALENT DISPLAYS, ENHANCED VISION
SYSTEMS (EVS), SYNTHETIC VISION SYSTEMS (SVS) AND/OR
COMBINED VISION SYSTEMS (CVS)
(a) Where airplanes are equipped with automatic landing systems, a HUD or equivalent
displays, EVS, SVS or CVS, or any combination of those systems into a hybrid system,
the use of such systems for the safe operation of an airplane shall be approved by the
Authority.
Note.-Information regarding HUD or equivalent displays, including references to
RTCA and EUROCAE documents, is contained in the Manual of All-Weather
Operations (Doc 9365).
(b) The use of the automatic landing systems, a HUD or equivalent displays, EVS, SVS
or CVS, shall comply with the following:
(1) the equipment meets the airworthiness certification requirements;
(2) the operator has carried out a safety risk assessment of the operations supported
by the automatic landing systems, a HUD or equivalent displays, EVS, SVS, or
CVS;
(3) the operator has established and documented the procedures for the use of, and
training requirements for, automatic landing systems, a HUD or equivalent
displays, EVS,SVS or CVS.
Note 1.-Guidance on safety risk assessments is contained in the Safety
Management Manual (SMM)(Doc 9859).
Note 2-Guidance on operational approvals is contained in ICAO Annex 6 Part
1 Attachment I.

7.2-10
PCAR PART 7
7.3 COMMUNICATION AND SURVEILLANCE EQUIPMENT

7.3.1 RADIO EQUIPMENT
(a) [AAC] No person may operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with radio equipment
required for the kind of operation being conducted and capable of receiving
meteorological information at any time during flight.
(b) [AAC] All aircraft operated in VFR as a controlled flight or in IFR shall be provided with
radio communication equipment capable of conducting two-way communication with
those aeronautical stations and on those frequencies prescribed by the Authority,
including the aeronautic emergency frequency 121.5 MHz
Note: This requirement is considered fulfilled if the ability to conduct the
communications specified therein is established during radio propagation conditions
which are normal for the route.
(c) [AOC] No person may operate an aircraft in IFR, or in VFR over routes that cannot be
navigated by reference to visual landmarks, unless the aircraft is equipped with
communication and navigation equipment in accordance with the requirements of air
traffic services in the area(s) of operation, but not less than—
(1) Two independent radio communication systems necessary under normal operating
conditions to communicate with an appropriate ground station from any point on
the route including diversions.
Note: Each system shall have an independent antenna installation except that,
where rigidly supported non-wire antennae or other antenna installations of
equivalent reliability are used, only one antenna is required.
(2) Secondary Surveillance Radar transponder equipment as required for the route
being flown.
(d) [AOC] When more than one communications equipment unit is required, each shall be
independent of the other or others to the extent that a failure in any one will not result
in failure of any other.
(e) [AAC] No person may operate an aircraft under IFR unless it is equipped with an audio
selector panel accessible to each required flight crewmember.
(f) [AOC] No person may conduct single pilot IFR or night operations unless the aircraft
is equipped with;
(1) a serviceable autopilot that has at least altitude hold and heading select modes,
(2) a headset with boom microphone or equivalent,
(3) a transmit button on the control wheel and,
(4) a means to display charts to be readable in all ambient light conditions.
(g) [AAC] All flight crew members required to be on flight deck duty should communicate
through boom or throat microphones below the transition level/altitude.
(h) For Helicopter operations all flight crew members required to be on flight deck duty
shall communicate through boom or throat microphones.
(i) [AAC] For operations where communication and/or surveillance equipment are
required to meet an RCP and/or RSP specification for performance-based
communication and surveillance (PBCS), in addition to 7.3.1(a) and (b) and 7.3.3, an
aircraft shall:
(1) be provided with communication and/or surveillance equipment which will enable
it to operate in accordance with the prescribed RCP and/or RSP specifications;

7.3-1
PCAR PART 7
(2) have information relevant to the aircraft RCP and/or RSP specification capabilities
listed in the flight manual or other aircraft documentation approved by the State of
Design or State of Registry;
(3) have information relevant to the aircraft RCP and/or RSP specification capabilities
included in the MEL; and
Note.- Information on the performance-based communication and surveillance
(PBCS) concept and guidance material on its implementation are contained in the
Performance-based Communication and Surveillance (PBCS) Manual (Doc 9869).
(4) be authorized by the Authority for operations in such airspace.
Note.- Information on the required elements for operations to be granted PBCS
operational authorization by the Authority may be found in the ICAO “Operational
Authorization Guidance for Performance-based Communication and Surveillance
(PBCS)”.
7.3.2.1.1 CREW MEMBER INTERPHONE SYSTEM

(a) [AOC] No AOC holder may operate an aircraft on which a flight crew of more than one
is required unless it is equipped with a flight crew interphone system, including
headsets and microphones, not of a handheld type, for use by all members of the flight
crew.
(b) [AOC] No AOC holder may operate an airplane with a maximum certified take-off mass
exceeding 15,000 kg or having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration
of more than 19 unless it is equipped with a crew member interphone system that—
(1) Operates independently of the public address system except for handsets,
headsets, microphones, selector switches and signaling devices;
(2) Provides a means of two-way communication between the flight crew compartment
and each—
(i) Passenger compartment;
(ii) Galley located other than on a passenger deck level; and
(iii) Remote crew compartment that is not on the passenger deck and is not easily
accessible from a passenger compartment;
(3) Is readily accessible for use—
(i) From each of the required flight crew stations in the flight crew compartment;
and
(ii) At required cabin crew member stations close to each separate or pair of floor
level emergency exits;
(4) Has an alerting system incorporating aural or visual signals for use by flight crew
members to alert the cabin crew and for use by cabin crew members to alert the
flight crew;
(5) Has a means for the recipient of a call to determine whether it is a normal call or
an emergency call; and
(6) Provides on the ground a means of two-way communication between ground
personnel and at least two flight crew members.

7.3-2
PCAR PART 7
7.3.3 ALTITUDE REPORTING TRANSPONDER

(a) [AAC] No person may operate an aircraft in airspace that requires a pressure reporting
transponder unless that equipment is operative and operates in accordance with the
provisions of ICAO Annex 10, Volume IV.
(1) The aircraft will be assigned a distinct serialized 24-bit address identity code
supplied by the Authority for the transponder, this must be programmed prior to
operation of the aircraft.
(b) [AAC] No person may operate an aircraft at altitudes above FL 290 unless it is
equipped with a system that is automatically reporting pressure altitudes.
(c) [AOC] No person may operate an aircraft in commercial air transportation unless it is
equipped with a data source that provides pressure-altitude information with a
resolution of 7.62 m (25 ft), or better.

7.3-3
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7.3-4
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7.4 AIRCRAFT LIGHTS AND INSTRUMENT ILLUMINATION

7.4.1 AIRCRAFT LIGHTS AND INSTRUMENT ILLUMINATION
(a) [AAC] All aircraft operated at night shall be equipped with:
(1) A landing light;
(2) An anti-collision light system;
(3) Navigation/position lights;
(4) Lights to conform to the International regulations for preventing collisions at sea if
the aircraft is a seaplane or an amphibian aircraft.
(5) Illumination for all flight instruments and equipment that are essential for the safe
operation of the aircraft;
(6) Lights in all passenger compartments;
(7) An independent portable light for each crew member station; and
(8) A heated pitot tube.
(b) [AOC] No AOC holder may operate an aircraft by night unless, in addition to the
equipment specified in paragraph (a) above, it is equipped with;
(1) Two landing lights or a single light having two separately energized filaments.

7.4-1
PCAR PART 7

7.4-2
PCAR PART 7
7.5 ENGINE INSTRUMENTS

7.5.1 ENGINE INSTRUMENTS
(a) [AAC] No person may operate any powered aircraft without the following engine
instruments:
(1) A means for indicating fuel quantity in each fuel tank to be used;
(2) An oil pressure indicator for each engine;
(3) An oil temperature indicator for each engine;
(4) A manifold pressure indicator for each engine with controllable pitch propellers;
and
(5) A tachometer for each engine.
(b) [AOC] In addition to the listed equipment requirements in paragraph (a), no AOC
operator may operate any powered aircraft without the following engine instruments:
(1) A carburetor air temperature indicator for each piston engine;
(2) A cylinder head temperature indicator for each air-cooled piston engine;
(3) A fuel pressure indicator for each engine;
(4) A fuel flow meter or fuel mixture indicator for each engine not equipped with an
automatic altitude mixture control;
(5) An oil quantity indicator for each oil-tank when a transfer or separate oil reserve
supply is used;
(6) An independent fuel pressure warning device for each engine or a master warning
device for all engines with a means for isolating the individual warning circuits from
the master warning device; and
(7) A device for each reversible propeller, to indicate to the pilot when the propeller is
in reverse pitch, which complies with the following:
(i) The device may be actuated at any point in the reversing cycle between the
normal low pitch stop position and full reverse pitch, but it may not give an
indication at or above the normal low pitch stop position.
(ii) The source of indication shall be actuated by the propeller blade angle or be
directly responsive to it.

7.5-1
PCAR PART 7

7.5-2
PCAR PART 7
7.6 WARNING INSTRUMENTS AND SYSTEMS

7.6.1 MACH NUMBER INDICATOR
[AAC] All aircraft with speed limitations expressed in terms of Mach number shall be
equipped with a Mach number indicator.
7.6.2 LOSS OF PRESSURIZATION INDICATOR

[AAC] All pressurized aircraft intended to be operated at altitudes at or above 25,000’
above sea level shall be equipped with a device to provide positive warning to the flight
crew of any dangerous loss of pressurization.
7.6.3 LANDING GEAR: AURAL WARNING DEVICE

(a) [AOC] Each airplane with retractable landing gear shall have a landing gear aural
warning device that functions continuously under the following conditions:
(1) For airplanes with an established approach wing-flap position, whenever the wing
flaps are extended beyond the maximum certified approach climb configuration
position in the Airplane Flight Manual and the landing gear is not fully extended
and locked.
(2) For airplanes without an established approach climb wing-flap position, whenever
the wing flaps are extended beyond the position at which landing gear extension is
normally performed and the landing gear is not fully extended and locked.
(b) [AOC] The warning system required by paragraph (a) of this section:
(1) May not have a manual shutoff;
(2) Shall be in addition to the throttle-actuated device installed under the type
certification airworthiness requirements; and
(3) May utilize any part of the throttle-actuated system including the aural warning
device.
(c) [AOC] The flap position-sensing unit may be installed at any suitable place in the
airplane.
7.6.4 ALTITUDE ALERTING SYSTEM

(a) [AAC] No person may operate a turbine propeller powered airplane with a maximum
certified take-off mass in excess of 5,700 kg or having a maximum approved
passenger seating configuration of more than 9 seats, or a turbojet powered airplane,
unless it is equipped with an altitude alerting system capable of—
(1) Alerting the flight crew upon approaching pre-selected altitude in either ascent or
descent; and
(2) Alerting the flight crew by at least an aural signal, when deviating above or below
a pre-selected altitude.
(b) [AAC] For operations in defined portions of airspace where, based on Regional Air
Navigation Agreement, a RVSM of 300 m (1,000 ft.) is applied above FL 290, an aircraft
shall be provided with equipment which is capable of;
(1) indicating to the flight crew the flight level being flown
(2) automatically maintaining a selected flight level

7.6-1
PCAR PART 7
(3) Providing an alert to the flight crew when a deviation occurs from the selected flight
level. The threshold for the alert may not exceed ±90 m (300 ft.).
(4) automatically reporting pressure-altitude, and
(5) Shall be authorized by the State of the Operator for operation in the airspace
concerned.
7.6.5 GROUND PROXIMITY WARNING SYSTEM

(a) [AAC] No person may operate an airplane with a maximum certified take-off mass in
excess of 5,700 kg, unless it is equipped with a ground proximity warning system which
has a forward looking terrain avoidance function.
(b) [AAC] Each ground proximity warning system shall automatically provide, by means of
aural signals which may be supplemented by visual signals, timely and distinctive
warning to the flight crew of sink rate, ground proximity, altitude loss after take-off or
go around, incorrect landing configuration and downward glideslope deviation.
(c) [AAC] A ground proximity warning system shall provide, as a minimum, warnings of
the following circumstances—
(1) Excessive descent rate.
(2) Excessive terrain closure rate.
(3) Excessive altitude loss after take-off or go-around.
(4) Unsafe terrain clearance while not in landing configuration; and
(5) Excessive descent below the instrument glide path.
7.6.6 WEATHER RADAR

[AOC] No person may operate a helicopter carrying passengers or a pressurized
airplane in commercial air transport in an area where potentially hazardous weather
conditions may be expected unless it is equipped with operative weather radar.
7.6.7 AIRBORNE COLLISION AVOIDANCE SYSTEM II (ACAS II)

(a) [AAC] Any airborne collision avoidance system installed on an aircraft shall be
(b) [AAC] Each person operating an aircraft equipped with an airborne collision avoidance
system shall have that system on and operating.
(c) [AAC] No person may operate a turbine engine airplane for which the individual
airworthiness certificate was first issued after 24 November 2005 with a maximum
certificated take-off mass in excess of 15,000 kg or authorized to carry more than 30
passengers, unless it is equipped with an ACAS II.
(d) [AAC] No person may operate a turbine engine airplane for which the individual
airworthiness certificate was first issued after 1 January 2008 with a maximum
certificated take-off mass in excess of 5,700 kg but not exceeding 15,000 kg or
authorized to carry more than 19 passengers, unless it is equipped with an ACAS II.
(e) [AAC] An airborne collision avoidance system shall operate as designed.

7.6-2
PCAR PART 7
(f) [AOC] No person may operate a turbine powered airplane with a maximum certificated
takeoff mass in excess of 5700 kg or authorized to carry more than 19 passengers,
unless it is equipped with an ACAS II.
(g) After 1 January 2017, All Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS) units shall
comply with requirements of Part 7.6.7 through the implementation of Traffic Alert and
Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) Version 7.1.
7.6.8 FORWARD LOOKING WIND SHEAR WARNING SYSTEM — TURBOJET

AIRCRAFT
(a) [AOC] All turbojet airplanes of a maximum certificated takeoff mass in excess of 5,700
kg or authorized to carry more than nine passengers should be equipped with a
forward-looking wind shear warning system.
(b) [AOC] The system should be capable of providing the pilot with a timely aural and
visual warning of wind shear ahead of the aircraft and the information required to permit
the pilot to safely commence and continue a missed approach or go-around or to
execute an escape maneuver if necessary.
(c) [AOC] The system should also provide an indication to the pilot when the limits
specified for the certification of automatic landing equipment are being approached,
when such equipment is in use.

7.6-3
PCAR PART 7

7.6-4
PCAR PART 7
7.7 FLIGHT RECORDERS

7.7.1 GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
Note 1: Crash protected flight recorders comprise one or more of the following
systems: a flight data recorder (FDR), a cockpit voice recorder (CVR), an airborne
image recorder (AIR) and/or a data link recorder (DLR). Image and data link
information may be recorded on either the CVR or the FDR.
Note 2: Lightweight flight recorders comprise one or more of the following systems: an
aircraft data recording system (ADRS), a cockpit audio recording system (CARS), an
airborne image recording system (AIRS) and/or a data link recording system (DLRS).
Image and data link information may be recorded on either the CARS or the ADRS.
Note 3: Combination recorders (FDR/CVR) may be used to meet the equipage
requirements for helicopters.
Note 4. – For airplanes for which the application for type certification is
submitted to the State of Design before 1 January 2016, specifications
applicable to flight recorders may be found in EUROCAE ED-112, ED-56A, ED-
55, Minimum Operational Performance Specification (MOPS), or earlier
equivalent documents.
Note 5. – For airplanes for which the application for type certification is
submitted to the State of Design on or after 1 January 2016, specifications
applicable to flight recorders may be found in EUROCAE ED-112A, Minimum
Operational Performance Specification (MOPS), or equivalent documents.
Note 6. – Specifications applicable to lightweight flight recorders may be found in
EUROCAE ED 155, Minimum Operational Performance Specification (MOPS), or
7.7.1.1 CONSTRUCTION AND INSTALLATION

(a) Flight recorders systems shall be constructed, located and installed so as to provide
maximum practical protection for the recordings in order that the recorded information
may be preserved, recovered and transcribed.
(1) Non-deployable flight recorder containers shall:
(i) be painted a distinctive orange or yellow color;
(ii) carry reflective material to facilitate their location; and
(iii) have securely attached an automatically activated underwater locating device
operating at a frequency of 37.5 kHz. At the earliest practicable date, but not
later than 1 January 2018, this device shall operate for a minimum of 90 days.
(2) Automatic deployable flight recorder containers shall:
(i) be painted a distinctive orange color, however the surface visible from outside
the aircraft may be of another color;
(ii) carry reflective material to facilitate their location; and
(iii) have an integrated automatically activated ELT.
(b) Flight recorder systems shall be installed so that:
(1) The probability of damage to the recordings is minimized;

7.7-1
PCAR PART 7
(2) They receive electrical power from a bus that provides the maximum reliability for
operation of the flight recorder systems without jeopardizing service to essential or
emergency loads;
(3) There is an aural or visual means for pre-flight checking that the flight recorder
systems are operating properly; and
(4) If the flight recorder systems have a bulk erasure device, the installation shall be
designed to prevent operation of the device during flight time or crash impact.
(5) They meet the prescribed crashworthiness and fire protection specifications.
(c) The flight recorder systems, when tested by methods approved by its State of Design,
shall be demonstrated to be suitable for the environmental extremes over which they
are designed to operate.
(d) Means shall be provided for an accurate time correlation between the flight recorder
systems recordings.
Note 1: Industry crashworthiness and fire protection specifications for ADRS and
CARS are as contained in the EUROCAE ED-155, Minimum Operational Performance
Specifications (MOPS) for Lightweight Flight Recording Systems, or equivalent
documents.
7.7.1.2 OPERATION
(a) Flight recorder systems shall not be switched off during flight time.
(b) To preserve flight recorder records, flight recorders shall be deactivated upon
completion of flight time following an accident or incident. The flight recorders shall not
be reactivated before their disposition as determined in accordance with the
accident/incident regulations of the Authority.
Note 1: The need for removal of the flight recorder records from the aircraft will be
determined by the investigation authority in the State of Occurrence conducting the
investigation with due regard to the seriousness of an occurrence and the
circumstances, including the impact on the operation.
Note 2: The operator’s responsibilities regarding the retention of flight recorder records
are contained in PCAR Volume 1 Part 13.
7.7.1.3 CONTINUED SERVICEABILITY AND INSPECTION OF FLIGHT RECORDER

SYSTEMS
(a) The operator shall conduct operational checks and evaluations of recordings from the
flight recorder systems to ensure the continued serviceability of the recorders.
(b) The procedures for the inspections of the flight recorder systems are given in IS
7.7.1.3.
7.7.1.4 FLIGHT RECORDER ELECTRONIC DOCUMENTATION

(a) Operators shall provide to accident investigation authorities the documentation of flight
recording systems parameters in electronic format and in accordance with ARINC
647A, Flight Recorder Electronic Documentation or equivalent Document.

7.7-2
PCAR PART 7
7.7.1.5 COMBINATION RECORDERS

(a) [AAC] No person may operate an airplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass
over 5 700 kg required to be equipped with an FDR and a CVR unless it is equipped
with–
(1) An FDR and a CVR; or
(2) Two combination recorders (FDR/DVR).
(b) [AOC] No person may operate an airplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass of
over 5 700 kg and which is required to be equipped with both a FDR and CVR unless—
(1) The airplane is equipped with an FDR and a CVR or alternatively equipped with
two combination recorders (FDR/CVR).
(2) The airplane is equipped with two combination recorders (FDR/CVR) for airplanes
type certificated on or after 1 January 2016.
Note: The requirement may be satisfied by equipping the airplanes with two
combination recorders (one forward and one aft) or separate devices.
(c) [AOC] No person may operate an airplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass of
over 15 000 kg which is required to be equipped with both a CVR and an FDR and
type certificated on or after 1 January 2016, unless—
(1) The airplane is equipped with two combination recorders (FDR/CVR), and
(2) one recorder is located as close to the cockpit as practicable and the other recorder
located as far aft as practicable.
(d) [AOC] No person may operate a multi-engined turbine-powered airplane of a maximum
certificated take-off mass of 5 700 kg or less, unless –
(1) The airplane is equipped with an FDR and/or a CVR, or
(2) The airplane is equipped with one combination recorder (FDR/CVR).
7.7.2 FLIGHT DATA RECORDERS (FDR) AND AIRCRAFT DATA RECORDING

SYSTEMS (ADRS)
(Reserved)
7.7.2.1 TYPES AND PARAMETERS

(a) Airplane. Airplane FDR shall record the parameters as listed in IS 7.7.2.1(A) for the
following FDR types:
(1) Types I and IA FDR shall record the parameters required to determine accurately
the airplane flight path, speed, attitude, engine power, configuration and operation.
(2) Types II and IIA FDRs shall record the parameters required to determine accurately
the airplane flight path, speed, attitude, engine power and configuration of lift and
drag devices.
(b) Helicopter. Helicopter FDR shall record the parameters as listed in IS 7.7.2.1 (B) for
the following FDR types:
(1) Type IV FDRs shall record the parameters required to determine accurately the
helicopter flight path, speed, attitude, engine power and operation.

7.7-3
PCAR PART 7
(2) Type IVA FDRs shall record the parameters required to determine accurately the
helicopter flight path, speed, attitude, engine power, operations and configuration.
(3) Type V FDRs shall record the parameters required to determine accurately the
helicopter flight path, speed, attitude and engine power.
7.7.2.2 AIRCRAFT EQUIPPAGE FOR OPERATION

(a) No person may operate the following airplane unless it is equipped with a flight data
recorder capable of recording the aural environment of the flight deck during flight time.
(1) [AAC] All turbine-engined airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of
5,700 kg or less for which the application is for a type certificate is first made to the
State of Design on or after 1 January 2016; shall be equipped with:
(i) a Type II FDR; or
(ii) a Class C AIR or AIRS capable of recording flight path and speed parameters
displayed to the pilot(s); or
(iii) an ADRS capable of recording the essential parameters defined in the Table in
IS 7.7.2.2.
Note: Type certificate first issued refers to the date of issuance of the original “Type
Certificate” for the airplane type, not the date of certification of particular airplane
variants or derivative models.
(2) [AOC] All turbine-engined airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5
700 kg or less for which the individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued on
or after 1 January 2016 shall be equipped with:
(i) a Type II FDR; or
(ii) a Class C AIR or AIRS capable of recording flight path and speed parameters
displayed to the pilot(s); or
(iii) an ADRS capable of recording the essential parameters defined in the Table in
IS: 7.7.2.2.
(3) [AAC] All airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 27 000 kg for
which the individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued on or after 1 January
1989 shall be equipped with a Type I FDR.
(4) [AAC] All airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5 700 kg, up
to and including 27 000 kg, for which the individual certificate of airworthiness is
first issued on or after 1 January 1989, shall be equipped with a Type II FDR.
(5) [AOC] Effective 1 January 2016, all multi-engined turbine-engined airplanes of a
maximum certificated take-off mass of 5 700 kg or less for which the individual
certificate of airworthiness is first issued on or after 1 January 1990 shall be
equipped with a Type IIA FDR.
(6) [AOC] All turbine-engined airplanes, for which the individual certificate of
airworthiness was first issued on or after 1 January 1987 but before 1 January
1989, with a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5 700 kg, except those in
paragraph 7.7.2.2(8) and 7.7.2.2(10), shall be equipped with an FDR which shall
record time, altitude, airspeed, normal acceleration and heading.
(7) [AOC] Effective 1 January 2016, all turbine-engined airplanes, for which the
individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued on or after 1 January 1987

7.7-4
PCAR PART 7
but before 1 January 1989, with a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5
700 kg, except those in paragraph 7.7.2.2(8) and 7.7.2.2.(10), shall be equipped
with an FDR which shall record time, altitude, airspeed, normal acceleration,
heading and such additional parameters as are necessary to determine pitch
attitude, roll attitude, radio transmission keying and power on each engine.
airworthiness was first issued on or after 1 January 1987 but before 1 January
1989, with a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 27 000 kg that are of types
of which the prototype was certificated by the appropriate national authority after
30 September 1969 shall be equipped with a Type II FDR.
(9) AOC] All turbine-engined airplanes, for which the individual certificate of
airworthiness was first issued before 1 January 1987, with a maximum certificated
take-off mass of over 5 700 kg shall be equipped with an FDR which shall record
time, altitude, airspeed, normal acceleration and heading.
individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued before 1 January 1987, with
a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 27 000 kg that are of types of which
the prototype was certificated by the appropriate national authority after 30
September 1969 shall be equipped with an FDR which shall record, in addition to
time, altitude, airspeed, normal acceleration and heading, such additional
parameters as are necessary to meet the objectives of determining:
(i) the attitude of the airplane in achieving its flight path; and
(ii) the basic forces acting upon the airplane resulting in the achieved flight path
and the origin of such basic forces.
which the individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued after 1 January 2005
shall be equipped with a Type IA FDR.
(12) [AOC] All airplanes which are required to record normal acceleration, lateral
acceleration and longitudinal acceleration for which the application is for a type
certificate is first made to its State of Design on or after 1 January 2016 and which
are required to be fitted with an FDR shall record those parameters at a maximum
sampling and recording interval of 0.0625 seconds.
(13) [AAC] All airplanes which are required to record pilot input and/or control surface
position of primary controls (pitch, roll, yaw) for which the application for a type
certificate is first made to its State of Design on or after 1 January 2016 and which
are required to be fitted with an FDR shall record those parameters at a maximum
sampling and recording interval of 0.125 seconds.
Note: For airplanes with control systems in which movement of a control surface
will back drive the pilot’s control, “or” applies. For airplanes with control systems in
which movement of a control surface will not back drive the pilot’s control, “and”
applies. In airplanes with independent moveable surfaces, each surface needs to
be recorded separately. In airplanes with independent pilot input on primary
controls, each pilot input on primary controls needs to be recorded separately.
(b) No person may operate the following helicopter unless it is equipped with a flight data
recorder capable of recording the aural environment of the flight deck during flight time.
(1) [AAC] All helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 3 180 kg
for which the individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued on or after 1
January 2016 shall be equipped with a Type IVA FDR.

7.7-5
PCAR PART 7
(2) [AAC] All helicopter with a certificated takeoff mass of over 7 000 kg, or having a
passenger seating configuration of more than nineteen, for which the individual
certificate of airworthiness is first issued on or after 1, January 1989 shall be
equipped with a Type IV FDR.
(3) [AAC] All helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 3 180 kg,
up to and including 7 000 kg, for which the individual certificate of airworthiness is
first issued on or after 1 January 1989 shall be equipped with a Type V FDR.
(4) [AOC] All turbine-engined helicopter of a maximum certificated take-off mass of
over 2 250 kg, up to and including 3 180 kg the application for a type certificate is
first made to its State of Design on or after 1 January 2018, unless is it equipped
with:
(i) A Type IVA FDR; or
(ii) A Class C AIR capable of recording fight path and speed parameters displayed
to the pilot(s); or
(iii) An ADRS capable of recording the essential parameters in the Table in IS:
7.7.2.2.
(5) [AOC] All turbine-engined helicopter of a maximum certificated take-off mass of
over 3 180 kg or less for which the individual certificate of airworthiness is first
issued on or after 1 January 2018, unless is it equipped with:
(i) A Type IVA FDR; or
(ii) A Class C AIR capable of recording fight path and speed parameters displayed
to the pilot(s); or
(iii) An ADRS capable of recording the essential parameters in the Table in IS:
7.7.2.2.
7.7.2.3 DISCONTINUATION
(a) Flight data recorder media not acceptable for use in aircraft registered in the
Philippines, or operated in commercial air transport operations in the Philippines, are–
(1) Engraving metal foil;
(2) Photographic film;
(3) Analogue data using frequency modulation (FM);
(4) Magnetic tape.
7.7.2.4 DURATION
(a) FDRs shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during the last—
(1) Type I and II -- 25 hours of operation.
(2) Type IIA – 30 minutes of operation.
(3) Type IV, IVA and V – 10 hours of operation.
7.7.3 COCKPIT VOICE RECORDERS (CVR) AND COCKPIT AUDIO RECORDING

SYSTEMS (CARS)
(Reserved)

7.7-6
PCAR PART 7
7.7.3.1 SIGNALS TO BE RECORDED – CVR AND CARS

(a) The CVR, and CARS as applicable to airplanes, shall start to record prior to the aircraft
moving under its own power and record continuously until the termination of the flight
when the aircraft is no longer capable of moving under its own power.
(b) In addition to (a) above, the CVR and CARS shall start to record as early as possible
during the cockpit checks prior to engine start at the beginning of the flight until the
cockpit checks immediately following engine shutdown at the end of the flight.
(c) The CVR shall record on four separate channels, or more, at least the following:
(1) Voice communication transmitted from or received in the aircraft by radio;
(2) Aural environment on the flight deck;
(3) Voice communication of flight crew members on the flight deck using the aircraft’s
interphone system, if installed;
(4) Digital communications with ATS, unless recorded by the FDR.
(d) The CARS shall record on two separate channels, or more, at least the following:
(1) Voice communication transmitted from or received in the airplane by radio;
(2) Aural environment on the flight deck; and
(3) Voice communication of flight crewmembers on the flight deck using the airplane’s
interphone, if installed.
(e) The recorder shall be capable of recording on at least four channels simultaneously,
except for the recorder in paragraph 7.7.2.2(a)(4) in the preferred channel allocation
as follows:
(1) Channel 1 – co-pilot headphones and live boom microphone;
(2) Channel 2 – pilot headphones and live boom microphone;
(3) Channel 3 – area microphone;
(4) Channel 4 – time reference plus the third and fourth crewmembers.
Note 1: Channel 1 is located closest to the base of the recording head.
Note 2: The preferred channel allocation presumes the use of current conventional
magnetic tape transport mechanisms and is specified because the outer edges of the
tape have a higher risk of damage than the middle. It is not intended to preclude use
of alternative recording media where such constraints may not apply.
(f) On a tape-based CVR, to ensure accurate time correlation between channels, the
recorder shall record in an in-line format. If a bi-directional configuration is used, the
in-line format and channel allocation shall be retained in both directions.
7.7.3.2 AIRCRAFT EQUIPPAGE FOR OPERATIONS

(a) No person may operate an airplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder
as listed below:
(1) [AAC] All turbine-engined airplanes for which the application for a type certificate
is first submitted to the appropriate CAA on or after 1 January 2016 and required
to be operated by more than one pilot shall be equipped with either a CVR or a
CARS.

7.7-7
PCAR PART 7
1987 shall be equipped with a CVR.
(3) [AAC] Effective 1 January 2016, all airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off
mass of over 5 700 kg, up to and including 27 000 kg, for which the individual
certificate of airworthiness is first issued on or after 1 January 1987, shall be
equipped with a CVR.
(4) [AOC] All airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5 700 kg for
2003, shall be equipped with a CVR capable of retaining the information recorded
during at least the last two hours of its operation.
(5) [AOC] All airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5 700 kg for
1987 shall be equipped with a CVR.
airworthiness was first issued before 1 January 1987, with a maximum certificated
take-off mass of over 27 000 kg that are of types of which the prototype was
certificated by the appropriate national authority after 30 September 1969 shall be
equipped with a CVR.
individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued before 1 January 1987, with
a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5 700 kg up to and including 27 000
kg that are of types of which the prototype was certificated by the appropriate
national authority after 30 September 1969 shall be equipped with a CVR.
(b) No person may operate a helicopter unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder
as listed below:
(1) [AAC] All helicopters of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 7 000 kg for
1987 shall be equipped with a CVR. For helicopters not equipped with an FDR, at
least main rotor speed shall be recorded on the CVR.
(2) [AAC] Effective 1 January 2016, all helicopters of a maximum certificated take-off
mass of over 3 180 kg for which the individual certificate of airworthiness is first
issued on or after 1 January 1987 shall be equipped with a CVR. For helicopters
not equipped with an FDR, at least main rotor speed shall be recorded on the CVR.
(3) [AAC] All helicopters of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 7 000 kg for
which the individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued before 1 January
1987 shall be equipped with a CVR. For helicopters not equipped with an FDR, at
least main rotor speed shall be recorded on the CVR.
7.7.3.3 DISCONTINUATION
(a) CVS media not acceptable for use in aircraft registered in the Philippines, or operated
in commercial air transport operations in Philippines, are—
(1) Magnetic tape and wire.
7.7.3.4 DURATION
(a) A CVR shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last—

7.7-8
PCAR PART 7
(1) 30 minutes of its operation; or

(2) 2 hours, beginning no later than 1 January 2016.
7.7.3.5 COCKPIT VOICE RECORDER ALTERNATE POWER

(a) [AOC] No person may operate an airplane required to be equipped with a CVR unless
it is equipped with CVR alternate power that:
(1) automatically engages and provides ten minutes, plus or minus one minute, of
operation whenever airplane power to the recorder ceases, either by normal
shutdown or by any other loss of power;
(2) powers the CVR and its associated cockpit area microphone components, and
(3) is located as close as practicable to the alternate power source.
(b) [AOC] No person may operate an airplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass of
over 27 000 kg for which the individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued on or
after 1 January 2018 unless is it equipped with an alternate power source, as described
in (a) above, that powers–
(1) the forward CVR in the case of combination recorders, or
(2) at least one CVR.
Note 1: “Alternate” means separate from the power source that normally provides
power to the CVR. The use of airplane batteries or other power sources is acceptable
provided that the requirements are above are met and electrical power to essential and
critical loads is not compromised.
Note 2: When the CVR function is combined with other recording functions within the
same unit, powering the other functions is allowed.
7.7.4 DATA LINK RECORDERS (DLR) AND DATA LINK RECORDING SYSTEMS
(DLRS)
(Reserved)
(a) No person may operate an airplane or helicopter for which the individual certificate of
airworthiness is first issued on or after 1 January 2016, which utilize any of the data
link communications applications listed in IS 7.7.4.1 and are required to carry a CVR,
unless the aircraft records on a flight recorder the data link communications messages.
(b) No person may operate an airplane or helicopter modified on or after 1 January 2016,
which utilize any of the data link communications applications listed in IS 7.7.4.1 and
are required to carry a CVR, unless the aircraft records on a flight recorder the data
link communications messages.
(c) No person may operate an airplane or helicopter where the aircraft flight path is
authorized or controlled through the use of data link messages, unless all data link
messages, both uplinks to the aircraft and downlinks from the aircraft are recorded on
the aircraft. As far as practicable, the time the messages were displayed to the flight
crew and the time of the responses shall be recorded.

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PCAR PART 7
Note 1: Data link communications are currently conducted by either ATN-based or

FANS 1/A-equipped aircraft.
Note 2: A Class B AIR could be a means for recording data link communications
applications messages to and from the aircraft where it is not practical or is prohibitively
expensive to record those data link communications applications messages on FDR
or CVR.
7.7.4.2 DURATION
(a) The minimum recording duration shall be equal to the duration of the CVR.
7.7.4.3 CORRELATION
(a) Data link recording shall be correlated to the recorded cockpit audio.
7.7.5 AIRBORNE IMAGE RECORDER (AIR) AND AIRBORNE IMAGE

RECORDING SYSTEM (AIRS)
(a) Airborne image recorders are classified as follows.
(1) A Class A AIR or AIRS captures the general cockpit area in order to provide data
supplemental to conventional flight recorders.
(2) A Class B AIR or AIRS captures data link message displays.
(3) A Class C AIR or AIRS captures instruments and control panels.
Note 1: A Class C AIR or AIRS may be considered as a means for recording flight
data where it is not practical or is prohibitively expensive to record on an FDR or
an ADRS, or where an FDR is not required.
(b) The AIR or AIRS must start to record prior to the aircraft moving under its own power
and record continuously until the termination of the flight when the aircraft is no longer
capable of moving under its own power. In addition, depending on the availability of
electrical power, the AIR or AIRS must start to record as early as possible during the
cockpit checks prior to engine start at the beginning of the flight until the cockpit checks
immediately following engine shutdown at the end of the flight.

7.7-10
PCAR PART 7
7.8 EMERGENCY, RESCUE, AND SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT

7.8.1 EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT: ALL AIRCRAFT
(a) [AAC] Each item of emergency and flotation equipment shall be—
(1) Readily accessible to the crew and, with regard to equipment located in the
passenger compartment, to passengers without appreciable time for preparatory
procedures;
(2) Clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation;
(3) Marked as to date of last inspection; and
(4) Marked as to contents when carried in a compartment or container.
7.8.2 EMERGENCY EXIT EQUIPMENT

(a) [AAC] Each passenger-carrying land plane emergency exit (other than over-the-wing)
that is more than 6 feet from the ground with the airplane on the ground and the landing
gear extended, shall have an approved means to assist the occupants in descending
to the ground.
(b) [AAC] Each passenger emergency exit, its means of access, and its means of opening
shall be conspicuously marked by a sign visible to occupants approaching along the
main passenger aisle.
(c) AOC] Each passenger carrying aircraft shall have an emergency lighting system,
independent of the main lighting system that—
(1) Illuminates each passenger exit marking and locating sign;
(2) Provides enough general lighting in the passenger cabin; and
(3) Includes floor proximity emergency escape path marking.
(d) [AAC] Each passenger emergency exit shall have instructions for opening that exit
from the outside clearly marked on the outside of the door.
(e) [AAC] Each passenger emergency exit shall have a 2-inch colored band outlining the
opening on the outer edge of the door or on the side of the fuselage.
(f) [AAC] These markings shall be readily distinguishable from the surrounding fuselage
area by contrast in color and shall comply with the following:
(1) If the reflectance of the darker color is 15 percent or less, the reflectance of the
lighter color shall be at least 45 percent.
(2) If the reflectance of the darker color is greater than 15 percent, at least a 30 percent
difference between its reflectance and the reflectance of the lighter color shall be
provided.
Note: “Reflectance" is the ratio of the luminous flux reflected by a body to the
luminous flux it receives.
(3) Exits that are not in the side of the fuselage shall have external means of opening
and applicable instructions marked conspicuously in red or, if red is inconspicuous
against the background color, in bright chrome yellow and, when the opening
means for such an exit is located on only one side of the fuselage, a conspicuous
marking to that effect shall be provided on the other side.
(g) [AAC] Each passenger-carrying aircraft shall be equipped with a slip-resistant escape
route that meets the requirements under which that airplane was type certified.

7.8-1
PCAR PART 7
Implementing Standard: See IS: 7.8.2 for details of the emergency exit equipment
requirements.
7.8.3 VISUAL SIGNALLING DEVICES

(a) [AAC] No person may operate an aircraft over water or across land areas which have
been designated by the Republic of the Philippines as areas in which search and
rescue would be especially difficult, unless equipped with such signaling devices as
may be appropriate to the area over flown, to include—
(1) Visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft; and
(2) At least one pyrotechnic signaling device for each life raft required for overwater
operations.
7.8.4 SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT

(a) Subject to subsection (b), no person shall operate an aircraft over land unless there is
carried on board survival equipment, sufficient for the survival on the ground of each
person on board, given the geographical area, the season of the year and anticipated
seasonal climatic variations, that provides the means for
(1) starting a fire;
(2) providing shelter;
(3) providing or purifying water; and
(4) visually signaling distress.
(b) Subsection (a) does not apply in respect of
(1) a balloon, a glider, a hang glider, a gyroplane or an ultra-light airplane;
(2) an aircraft that is operated within 25 nautical miles of the aerodrome of departure
and that has the capability of radio communication with a surface-based radio
station for the duration of the flight;
o
(3) a multi-engined aircraft that is operated south of 66 30' north latitude or north of
o
66 30’ south latitude
(i) in IFR flight within controlled airspace, or
(ii) along designated air routes;
(4) an aircraft that is operated by an air operator, where the aircraft is equipped with
equipment specified in the air operator's company operations manual, but not with
the equipment required by subsection (a); or
(5) an aircraft that is operated in a geographical area where and at a time of year when
the survival of the persons on board is not jeopardized.
7.8.5 EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER (ELT)

(a) [AAC] Except for 7.8.5 (b) all aircraft on all flights shall be equipped with a 406 MHz
ELT of a type and quantity as specified in IS: 7.8.5, meet the technical standards
specified by the Authority and the relevant portions of ICAO Annex 10, Volume 3.

7.8-2
PCAR PART 7
(1) The ELT must be registered and programmed with a distinct Unique Identification
Number (UIN) which is comprised of a 24 bit code. This code is supplied by the
Authority prior to installation and use.
(b) All aircraft should carry an ELT however an aircraft may be operated without an ELT
on board where the aircraft is
(1) a glider, balloon, airship, ultra-light airplane, gyroplane, restricted or non-Type
Certificated aircraft;
(2) operated by the holder of a flight training unit operating certificate, engaged in flight
training and operated within 25 nautical miles of the aerodrome of departure;
(3) engaged in a flight test.
(c) Batteries used in ELTs shall be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)
when—
(1) The transmitter has been in use for more than one cumulative hour; or
(2) 50 percent of their useful life (or for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their
useful life of charge) has expired.
(d) The expiration date for a replacement or recharged ELT battery shall be legibly marked
on the outside of the transmitter.
Note: The battery useful life (or useful life of charge) requirements do not apply to
batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are essentially unaffected during
probable storage intervals.
7.8.6 PORTABLE FIRE EXTINGUISHERS

(a) [AAC] No person may operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with portable fire
extinguishers of a type which, when discharged, will not cause dangerous
contamination of the air within the aircraft. At least one shall be located in —
(1) The pilot’s compartment; and
(2) Each passenger compartment that is separate from the pilot’s compartment and
not readily accessible to the flight crew.
Note: Any portable fire extinguisher so fitted in accordance with the certificate of
airworthiness of the airplane may count as one prescribed.
(b) [AOC] No person may operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with portable fire
extinguishers accessible for use in crew, passenger, and cargo compartments as
follows:
(1) The type and quantity of extinguishing agent shall be suitable for the kinds of fires
likely to occur in the compartment where the extinguisher is intended to be used.
(2) At least one portable fire extinguisher shall be provided and conveniently located
for use in each Class E cargo compartment which is accessible to crew members
during flight, and at least one shall be located in each upper and lower lobe galley.
(3) At least one portable fire extinguisher shall be conveniently located on the flight
deck for use by the flight crew.

7.8-3
PCAR PART 7
(4) At least one portable fire extinguisher shall be conveniently located in the
passenger compartment if the passenger compartment is separate from the flight
deck and not readily accessible to the flight crew.
(5) For each airplane having a passenger seating capacity of more than 30, there shall
be at least the following number of portable fire extinguishers conveniently located
and uniformly distributed throughout the compartment.
Minimum Number of Hand Fire Extinguishers

Passenger Seating Capacity
7 through 29 1
30 through 60 2
61 through 200 3
201 through 300 4
301 through 400 5
401 through 500 6
501 through 600 7
601 or more 8
(c) [AAC] Any agent used in a portable fire extinguisher in an aircraft for which the
individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued on or after 31 December 2011, and
any extinguishing agent used in a portable fire extinguisher in an aircraft for which the
individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued on or after 31 December 2018, shall:
(1) Meet the applicable minimum performance requirements of the Authority; an
(2) Not contain Halon 1211, Halon 1301, or Halon 2402.
7.8.7 LAVATORY FIRE EXTINGUISHER

(a) [AOC] No person may operate a passenger-carrying transport category airplane
unless each lavatory in the airplane is equipped with a built-in fire extinguisher for each
disposal receptacle for towels, paper, or waste located within the lavatory.
(b) [AOC] Built-in lavatory fire extinguishers shall be designed to discharge automatically
into each disposal receptacle upon occurrence of a fire in the receptacle.
(c) [AAC] After 31 December 2016, any agent used in a built-in fire extinguisher for
each lavatory disposal receptacle for towels, or waste in an aircraft for which
the individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued on or after 31 December
2011 shall:
(1) Meet the applicable minimum performance requirements of this Authority; and
(2) not be of a type listed in the 1987 Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete
the Ozone Layer as it appears in the Eighth Edition of the Handbook for the
Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer, Annex A, Group
II.

7.8-4
PCAR PART 7
Note.— Information concerning extinguishing agents is contained in the UNEP

Halons Technical Options Committee Technical Note No. 1 – New Technology
Halon Alternatives and FAA Report No. DOT/FAA/AR-99-63, Options to the Use of
Halons for Aircraft Fire Suppression Systems.
7.8.8 LAVATORY SMOKE DETECTOR

(a) [AOC] No person may operate a passenger-carrying transport category airplane
unless each lavatory in the airplane is equipped with a smoke detector system or
equivalent that provides—
(1) A warning light in the cockpit; or
(2) A warning light or audio warning in the passenger cabin which would be readily
detected by a flight attendant, taking into consideration the positioning of flight
attendants throughout the passenger compartment during various phases of flight.
7.8.9 CRASH AXE

[AOC] No AOC holder shall operate a large airplane unless it is equipped with a crash
axe appropriate to effective use in that type of airplane, stored in a place not visible to
passengers on the airplane.
7.8.10 MARKING OF BREAK-IN POINTS

(a) [AAC] If areas of the fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in an emergency
are marked on an aircraft, such areas shall be marked as shown below, and the color
of the markings shall be red or yellow and, if necessary, they shall be outlined in white
to contrast with the background.
(b) If the corner markings are more than 2 meters apart, intermediate lines 9 cm x 3 cm
shall be inserted so that there is no more than 2 m between adjacent markings.
(c) The words “CUT HERE IN EMERGENCY” shall be marked across the centre of each
break-in area in Capital Letters.
(d) The application of these markings is not mandatory.
Amendment 05 17 August 2016

7.8-5
PCAR PART 7
7.8.11 FIRST-AID KIT, UNIVERSAL PRECAUTION KIT AND EMERGENCY

MEDICAL KIT
(a) First Aid Kits.
(1) No person may operate the following aircraft unless it is equipped with an
accessible, approved first-aid kit(s):
(i) [AAC - Airplane] Airplanes with a maximum certificated take-off weight of over
5 700 kg;
(ii) [AOC] - All AOC holders.
(2) The contents of first-aid kits to be carried shall comply with IS: 7. 8.11.
(3) Each aircraft shall carry first-aid kits in accordance with at least the following
schedule:
Number of Number of
Passenger Seats First-Aid Kits
0-100 1
101-200 2
201-300 3
301-400 4
401-500 5
More than 500 6
(4) The location of first aid kits should be:

(i) Distributed evenly throughout the aircraft

7.8-6
PCAR PART 7
(ii) Readily accessible to cabin crew members, if cabin crew members are required
for flight, and
(iii) Located near the aircraft exits should their use be required outside the aircraft
in an emergency situation.
(b) Universal Precaution Kit.
(1) No person shall operate an aircraft that requires a cabin crew member unless it is
equipped with at least one universal precaution kit.
(2) The contents of universal precaution kits to be carried shall comply with IS: 7. 8.11.
(3) Each aircraft shall carry additional universal precaution kits in accordance with the
following:
(i) Two kits for aircraft Authorized to carry more than 250 passengers; and
(ii) Additional kits, as determined by the Authority, at times of increased public
health risk, such as during an outbreak of a serious communicable disease
having pandemic potential.
(c) Emergency Medical Kit.
(1) [AOC] No person may operate a passenger flight in an aeroplane with 100 seats
or more on a sector length of more than two hours unless the aeroplane is equipped
with an approved emergency medical kit for treatment of injuries or medical
emergencies that might occur during flight time or in minor accidents.
(2) [AOC] The contents of emergency medical kits to be carried shall comply with IS:
7. 8.11.
(3) [AOC] The medical kit shall be stored in a secure location.
7.8.12 OXYGEN STORAGE AND DISPENSING APPARATUS

(a) [AAC] All aircraft intended to be operated at altitudes requiring the use of supplemental
oxygen shall be equipped with adequate oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus.
(b) [AAC] The oxygen apparatus, the minimum rate of oxygen flow, and the supply of
oxygen shall meet applicable airworthiness standards for type certification in the
transport category as specified by the Authority.
(c) [AAC] No person may operate an aircraft at altitudes above 10,000 feet unless it is
equipped with oxygen masks, located so as to be within the immediate reach of flight
crew members while at their assigned duty station.
(d) [AAC] No person may operate a pressurized aircraft at altitudes above 25,000 feet
unless:
(1) Flight crew member oxygen masks are of a quick donning type;
(2) An automatically deployable oxygen-dispensing unit is connected to oxygen supply
terminals installed so as to be immediately available to each occupant, wherever
seated.
(3) Sufficient spare outlets and masks and/or sufficient portable oxygen units with
masks are distributed evenly throughout the cabin to ensure immediate availability
of oxygen to each required cabin crew member regardless of his location at the
time of cabin pressurization failure.
(4) The total number of dispensing units and outlets shall exceed the number of seats
by at least 10%. The extra units are to be evenly distributed throughout the cabin.

7.8-7
PCAR PART 7
(e) [AAC] The amount of supplemental oxygen for sustenance required for a particular
operation shall be determined on the basis of flight altitudes and flight duration,
consistent with the operating procedures established for each operation in the
Operations Manual and with the routes to be flown, and with the emergency
procedures specified in the Operations Manual.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 7.8.12 to determine the amount of supplemental
oxygen needed for non-pressurized and pressurized aircraft.
7.8.13 PROTECTIVE BREATHING EQUIPMENT (PBE)

(a) [AAC] No person may operate an airplane with a maximum certified takeoff mass
exceeding 5,700 kg. or having a maximum approved seating configuration of more
than 19 seats unless—
(1) It has PBE to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of each flight crew member while
on flight deck duty and to provide oxygen for a period of not less than 15 minutes;
and
(2) It has sufficient portable PBE to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all required
cabin crew members and to provide breathing gas for a period of not less than 15
minutes.
(b) The oxygen supply for PBE may be provided by the required supplemental oxygen
system.
(c) The PBE intended for flight crew use shall be conveniently located on the flight deck
and be easily accessible for immediate use by each required flight crew member at
their assigned duty station.
(d) The PBE intended for cabin crew use shall be installed adjacent to each required cabin
crew member duty station.
(e) Easily accessible portable PBE shall be provided and located at or adjacent to the
required hand fire extinguishers except that, where the fire extinguisher is located
inside a cargo compartment, the PBE shall be stowed outside but adjacent to the
entrance to that compartment.
(f) The PBE while in use shall not prevent required communication.
7.8.14 FIRST AID OXYGEN DISPENSING UNITS

(a) [AOC] No AOC holder may conduct a passenger carrying operation in a pressurized
aircraft at altitudes above 25,000 feet, when a cabin crew member is required to be
carried, unless it is equipped with—
(1) Undiluted first-aid oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons, may
require oxygen following a cabin depressurization; and
(2) A sufficient number of dispensing units, but in no case less than two, with a means
for cabin crew to use the supply.
(b) [AOC] The amount of first-aid oxygen required in paragraph (a) for a particular
operation and route shall be determined on the basis of—
(1) Flight duration after cabin depressurization at cabin altitudes of more than 8,000
feet;
(2) An average flow rate of at least 3 liters Standard Temperature Pressure
Dry/minute/person; and

7.8-8
PCAR PART 7
(3) At least 2% of the passengers carried, but in no case for less than one person.
7.8.15 MEGAPHONES
(a) [AOC] Each person operating a passenger-carrying airplane shall have a portable
battery-powered megaphone or megaphones readily accessible to the crew members
assigned to direct emergency evacuation.
(b) [AOC] The number and location of megaphones required in paragraph (a) shall be
determined as follows:
(1) On airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 60 and less than 100
passengers, one megaphone shall be located at the most rearward location in the
passenger cabin where it would be readily accessible to a normal flight attendant
seat; and
(2) On airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 99 passengers, two megaphones
in the passenger cabin on each airplane one installed at the forward end and the
other at the most rearward location where it would be readily accessible to a normal
flight attendant seat.
Note: The Authority may grant a deviation from the requirements of paragraph (b)
if the Authority finds that a different location would be more useful for evacuation
of persons during an emergency.
7.8.16 INDIVIDUAL FLOTATION DEVICES

(a) Landplanes including helicopters.
(1) [AAC] Shall carry the equipment prescribed in paragraph(2):
(i) When flying en-route over water beyond gliding distance from the shore;
(ii) When flying over water at a distance of more than 93 km (50 NM) away from
the shore for aircraft capable of maintaining safe altitude after the failure of one
engine for two-engine aircraft and the failure of two engines for three or four-
engine aircraft.; or
(iii) When taking off or landing at an aerodrome where the (Authority) has
determined the takeoff or approach path is so disposed over water that in the
event of a mishap there would be the likelihood of a ditching.
(2) [AAC] One life-jacket or equivalent flotation device equipped with a means of
electric illumination shall be carried for each person on board, stowed in a position
easily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided.
(b) Seaplanes.
(1) [AAC] For all flights, seaplanes shall be equipped with the equipment prescribed in
paragraph (2).
(c) Helicopters.
(1) For offshore operations the life jacket shall be worn unless the occupant is wearing
an integrated survival suit.

7.8-9
PCAR PART 7
7.8.17 LIFE RAFT

(a) [AAC] In addition to the equipment prescribed in 7.8.16 and 7.8.18 of this Part,
lifesaving rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board shall be installed in:
(1) All airplanes when operating in “Extended over-water operations” as defined in
Subpart 8.1.1.2 (b).
(2) Class 1 and 2 helicopters when they are operated over water at a distance from
land corresponding to more than 10 minutes at normal cruise speed.
(3) Class 3 helicopters when they are operated over water beyond auto-rotational
or safe forced landing distance from land.
(b) An aircraft shall have lifesaving rafts with a sufficient capacity to carry all persons on
board in the event of the loss of one raft of the largest capacity.
(c) All lifesaving rafts shall be stowed so as to facilitate their ready use in an emergency.
(d) Life rafts shall be equipped with the following life sustaining equipment—
(1) A electric survivor locator light;
(2) A survival kit equipped in accordance with the requirements of subsection 7.8.4;
(3) A pyrotechnical signaling device.
(e) [AOC] In helicopters, life rafts which are not deployable by remote control and which
have a mass of more than 40 kg shall be equipped with a means of mechanically
assisted deployment.
7.8.18 FLOTATION DEVICE FOR HELICOPTER DITCHING

(a) [AAC] All helicopters flying over water at a distance from land corresponding to more
than 10 minutes at normal cruise speed in the case of performance Class 1 or 2
helicopters, or flying over water beyond auto-rotational or safe forced landing distance
from land in the case of performance Class 3 helicopters, shall be fitted with a
permanent or rapidly deployable means of floatation so as to ensure a safe ditching of
the helicopter.
7.8.19 AIRCRAFT UNDERWATER LOCATOR BEACON

(a) [AOC] at the earliest practicable date but not later than 1 January 2019, no aircraft with
a maximum certificated take-off mass of 27,000 kg may engage in “ Extended over-
water operations” as defined in Subpart 8.1.1.2(b) without a securely attached
underwater locating device operating at a frequency of 8.8kHz. This automatically
activated underwater locating device shall operate for a minimum of 30 days and shall
not be installed in wings or empennage.
Note: Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB)performance requirements are as contained
in the SAE AS6254, Minimum Performance Standard for Underwater Locating Devices
(Acoustic) (Self-Powered), or equivalent documents.

7.8-10
PCAR PART 7
7.9 MISCELLANEOUS SYSTEMS AND EQUIPMENT

7.9.1 SEATS, SAFETY BELTS, AND SHOULDER HARNESSES
(a) [AAC] Each aircraft used in passenger carrying operations shall be equipped with the
following seats, safety belts, and shoulder harnesses that meet the airworthiness
requirements for type certification of that aircraft:
(1) A seat with safety belt for each person on board over the age of two (2) years old;
and a restraining belt for each berth on board the aircraft
(2) A safety harness for each flight crewmember seat.
(i) The safety harness for each pilot seat shall incorporate a device, which will
automatically restrain the occupant’s torso in the event of rapid deceleration.
(ii) The safety harness for each pilot seat, which includes shoulder straps and a
seat belt, should incorporate a device to prevent a suddenly incapacitated pilot
from interfering with the flight controls.
(3) A forward or rearward facing (within 15 degrees of the longitudinal axis of the
airplane) seat equipped with a safety harness for each cabin crew member station
in the passenger compartment.
(4) The cabin crew member’s seats shall be located near floor level and other
emergency exits for emergency evacuation.
7.9.2 PASSENGER AND PILOT COMPARTMENT DOORS

(a) [AOC] All aircraft which are equipped with a flight crew compartment door, door shall
be capable of being locked, and means shall be provided by which cabin crew can
discreetly notify the flight crew in the event of suspicious activity or security breaches
in the cabin.
(b) [AOC] All passenger-carrying aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in
excess of 45500 kg or with a passenger seating capacity greater than 60 shall be
equipped with an approved flight crew compartment door that is designed to resist
penetration by small arms fire and grenade shrapnel, and to resist forcible intrusions
by unauthorized persons. This door shall be capable of being locked and unlocked
from either pilot’s station.
(c) All aircraft which are equipped with a flight crew compartment door in accordance with
(b):
(1) shall be closed and locked from the time all external doors are closed following
embarkation until any such door is opened for disembarkation, except when
necessary to permit access and egress by authorized persons; and
(2) a means shall be provided for monitoring from either pilot’s station the entire door
area outside the flight crew compartment to identify persons requesting entry and
to detect suspicious behavior or potential threat.
7.9.3 PASSENGER INFORMATION SIGNS

(a) [AOC] No AOC holder may operate a passenger carrying aircraft unless it is equipped
with—
(1) At least one passenger information sign (using either letters or symbols) notifying
when smoking is prohibited and one sign (using either letters or symbols) notifying
when safety belts should be fastened shall, when illuminated, be legible to each

7.9-1
PCAR PART 7
person seated in the passenger cabin under all probable conditions of cabin
illumination;
(2) Signs which notify when safety belts should be fastened and when smoking is
prohibited shall be so constructed that the crew can turn them on and off;
(3) At least one legible sign or placard that reads "Fasten Seat Belt While Seated" is
visible from each passenger seats;
(4) A sign or placard in each lavatory that reads: “Philippine law provides for a penalty
for tampering with the smoke detector installed in this lavatory”;
(5) Each seat that is equipped with passenger floatation devices or life vests will be
placarded, with instructions on where they are located.
7.9.4 PUBLIC ADDRESS SYSTEM

(a) [AOC] No AOC holder may operate a passenger carrying airplane with a maximum
approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 unless a public address
system is installed that—
(1) Operates independently of the interphone systems except for handsets, headsets,
microphones, selector switches and signaling devices;
(2) For each required floor level passenger emergency exit which has an adjacent
cabin crew seat, has a microphone which is readily accessible to the seated cabin
crew member, except that one microphone may serve more than one exit, provided
the proximity of the exits allows unassisted verbal communication between seated
cabin crew members; and
(3) Is capable of operation within 10 seconds by a cabin crew member at each of those
stations in the compartment from which its use is accessible; and
(4) Is audible and intelligible at all passenger seats, toilets, and cabin crew seats and
workstations.
7.9.5 MATERIALS FOR CABIN INTERIORS

(a) [AOC] Upon the first major overhaul of an aircraft cabin or refurbishing of the cabin
interior, all materials in each compartment used by the crew or passengers that do not
meet the current airworthiness requirements pertaining to materials used in the interior
of the cabin for type certification in the transport category as cited by the Authority,
shall be replaced with materials that meet the requirements specified by the Authority.
(b) [AOC] Seat cushions, except those on flight crew member seats, in any compartment
occupied by crew or passengers shall meet requirements pertaining to fire protection
as specified by the Authority.
7.9.6 MATERIALS FOR CARGO AND BAGGAGE COMPARTMENTS

(a) [AOC] Each Class C or D cargo compartment greater than 200 cubic feet in volume in
a transport category aircraft type certified after January 1, 1958 shall have ceiling and
sidewall liner panels which are constructed of—
(1) Glass fiber reinforced resin;
(2) Materials which meet the test requirements for flame resistance of cargo
compartment liners as prescribed for type certification; or

7.9-2
PCAR PART 7
(3) In the case of installations approved prior to 20 March 1989, aluminum.

Note: The term "liner" includes any design feature, such as a joint or fastener,
which would affect the capability of the liner to safely contain fire.
7.9.7 POWER SUPPLY, DISTRIBUTION, AND INDICATION SYSTEM

(a) [AOC] No AOC holder may operate an airplane unless it is equipped with—
(1) A power supply and distribution system that meets the airworthiness requirements
for certification of an airplane in the transport category, or
(2) A power supply and distribution system that is able to produce and distribute the
load for the required instruments and equipment, with use of an external power
supply if any one power source or component of the power distribution system fails.
Note: The use of common elements in the power system may be approved if the
Authority finds that they are designed to be reasonably protected against
malfunctioning.
(3) A means for indicating the adequacy of the power being supplied to required flight
instruments.
(b) [AOC] Engine-driven sources of energy, when used, shall be on separate engines.
7.9.8 PROTECTIVE CIRCUIT FUSES

[AAC] No person may operate an aircraft in which protective fuses are installed unless
there are spare fuses available for use in flight equal to at least 10% of the number of fuses
of each rating or three of each rating whichever is the greater.
7.9.9 ICING PROTECTION EQUIPMENT

(a) [AAC] No person may operate an aircraft in icing conditions unless it is certified and
equipped for the prevention or removal of ice on windshields, wings, empennage,
propellers, and other parts of the aircraft where ice formation will adversely affect the
safety of the aircraft.
(b) [AAC] A flight to be planned or expected to operate in suspected or known ground icing
conditions shall not be commenced unless the aircraft has been inspected for icing
and, if necessary, has been given appropriate de-icing/anti-icing treatment.
Accumulation of ice or other naturally occurring contaminants shall be removed so that
the aircraft is kept in an airworthy condition prior to take-off.
Note: Guidance material can be found in ICAO Manual of Aircraft Ground De-
icing/Anti-icing Operations (Doc 9640).
(c) [AOC] No AOC holder may operate an aircraft in expected or actual icing conditions at
night unless it is equipped with a means to illuminate or detect the formation of ice.
Note: Any illumination that is used shall be of a type that will not cause glare or
reflection that would handicap crew members in the performance of their duties.

7.9-3
PCAR PART 7
7.9.10 PITOT HEAT INDICATION SYSTEMS

(a) [AOC] No AOC holder may operate a transport category aircraft equipped with a flight
instrument pitot heating system unless the aircraft is also equipped with an operable
pitot heat indication system that complies with the following requirements:
(1) The indication provided shall incorporate an amber light that is in clear view of a
flight crew member.
(2) The indication provided shall be designed to alert the flight crew if either the pitot
heating system is switched "off," or the pitot heating system is switched "on" and
any pitot tube heating element is inoperative.
7.9.11 STATIC PRESSURE SYSTEM

[AOC] No person may operate an aircraft unless two independent static pressure systems,
vented to the outside atmospheric pressure so that they will be least affected by airflow
variation or moisture or other foreign matter, and installed so as to be airtight except for
the vent.
7.9.12 WINDSHIELD WIPERS

[AOC] No AOC holder may operate an airplane with a maximum certified take-off mass of
more than 5,700 kg unless it is equipped at each pilot station with a windshield wiper or
equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation.
7.9.13 CHART HOLDER

[AOC] No AOC holder may operate an aircraft unless a chart holder is installed in an easily
readable position which can be illuminated for night operations.
7.9.14 COSMIC RADIATION DETECTION EQUIPMENT

(a) [AOC] No person shall operate an airplane in commercial air transport operations in
an airplane intended to be operated above 15,000 m (49,000 ft.) unless it is equipped
with—
(1) an instrument to measure and indicate continuously the dose rate of total cosmic
radiation being received (i.e., the total of ionizing and neutron radiation of galactic
and solar origin) and the cumulative dose on each flight or
(2) A system of on-board quarterly radiation sampling acceptable to the Authority as
described in IS: 7.9.14.
7.9.15 MARITIME SOUND SIGNALLING DEVICE

[AAC] All seaplanes for all flights shall be equipped with equipment for making the sound
signals prescribed in the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, where
applicable.

7.9-4
PCAR PART 7
7.9.16 ANCHORS
[AAC] All seaplanes for all flights shall be equipped with one anchor, and one sea anchor
(drogue), when necessary to assist in maneuvering (approval for the anchors not
required).
Note. - "Seaplanes" includes amphibians operated as seaplanes.

7.9-5
PCAR PART 7
INTENTIONALLY LEFT PAGE

7.9-6
PCAR PART 7
REPUBLIC OF THE PHILIPPINES
Part 7: IS
INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT:

IS-1
PCAR PART 7
IS: 7.2.5 CATEGORY II AND III: INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT APPROVAL AND
MAINTENANCE REQUIREMENTS
(a) General. The instruments and equipment required by subpart 7.2.5 and 7.2.6 shall be
approved as provided in this implementing standard before being used in Category II
and/or Category III operations. Before presenting an aircraft for approval of the
instruments and equipment, it must be shown that since the beginning of the 12 th
calendar month before the date of submission—
(1) The ILS localizer and glide slope equipment were bench checked according to the
manufacturer's instructions and found to meet those standards specified in RTCA
Paper 23-63/DO-177 dated March 14, 1963, “Standards Adjustment Criteria for
Airborne Localizer and Glideslope Receivers.”
(2) The altimeters and the static pressure systems were tested and inspected; and
(3) All other instruments and items of equipment specified in subpart 7.2.5 that are
listed in the proposed maintenance program were bench checked and found to
meet the manufacturer's specifications.
(b) Flight control guidance system. All components of the flight control guidance system
shall be approved as installed by the evaluation program specified in paragraph (e) if
they have not been approved for Category III and/or Category III operations under
applicable type or supplemental type certification procedures. In addition, subsequent
changes to make, model, or design of the components must be approved under this
paragraph. Related systems or devices, such as the autothrottle and computed missed
approach guidance system, shall be approved in the same manner if they are to be
used for Category II and/or Category III operations.
(c) Radio altimeter. A radio altimeter must meet the performance criteria of this
paragraph for original approval and after each subsequent alteration.
(1) It shall display to the flight crew clearly and positively the wheel height of the main
landing gear above the terrain.
(2) It shall display wheel height above the terrain to an accuracy of ±5 feet or 5 percent,
whichever is greater, under the following conditions:
(i) Pitch angles of zero to ±5° about the mean approach attitude.
(ii) Roll angles of zero to 20° in either direction.
(iii) Forward velocities from minimum approach speed up to 200 knots.
(iv) Sink rates from zero to 15 feet per second at altitudes from 100 to 200 feet.
(3) Over level ground, it must track the actual altitude of the aircraft without significant
lag or oscillation.
(4) With the aircraft at an altitude of 200 feet or less, any abrupt change in terrain
representing no more than 10 percent of the aircraft's altitude must not cause the
altimeter to unlock, and indicator response to such changes must not exceed 0.1
seconds and, in addition, if the system unlocks for greater changes, it must
reacquire the signal in less than 1 second.
(5) Systems that contain a push to test feature must test the entire system (with or
without an antenna) at a simulated altitude of less than 500 feet.
(6) The system must provide to the flight crew a positive failure warning display any
time there is a loss of power or an absence of ground return signals within the
designed range of operating altitudes.

IS-2
PCAR PART 7
(d) Other instruments and equipment. All other instruments and items of equipment
required by subpart 7.2.5 or 7.2.6 shall be capable of performing as necessary for
Category II and/or Category III operations. Approval is also required after each
subsequent alteration to these instruments and items of equipment.
(e) Evaluation program.
(1) Application. Approval by evaluation is requested as a part of the application for
approval of the Category II manual.
(2) Demonstrations. Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, the evaluation
program for each aircraft requires the demonstrations specified in this paragraph.
At least 50 ILS approaches shall be flown with at least five approaches on each of
three different ILS facilities and no more than one half of the total approaches on
any one ILS facility. All approaches shall be flown under simulated instrument
conditions to a 30 m (100 foot) decision height and 90 percent of the total
approaches made shall be successful. A successful approach is one in which—
(i) At the 30 m (100 foot) decision height, the indicated airspeed and heading are
satisfactory for a normal flare and landing (speed must be ±5 knots of
programmed airspeed, but may not be less than computed threshold speed if
auto-throttles are used);
(ii) The aircraft at the 30 m (100 foot) decision height, is positioned so that the
cockpit is within, and tracking so as to remain within, the lateral confines of the
runway extended;
(iii) Deviation from glide slope after leaving the outer marker does not exceed 50
percent of full-scale deflection as displayed on the ILS indicator;
(iv) No unusual roughness or excessive attitude changes occur after leaving the
middle marker; and
(v) In the case of an aircraft equipped with an approach coupler, the aircraft is
sufficiently in trim when the approach coupler is disconnected at the decision
height to allow for the continuation of a normal approach and landing.
(3) Records. During the evaluation program the following information shall be
maintained by the applicant for the aircraft with respect to each approach and made
available to the Authority upon request:
(i) Each deficiency in airborne instruments and equipment that prevented the
initiation of an approach.
(ii) The reasons for discontinuing an approach, including the altitude above the
runway at which it was discontinued.
(iii) Speed control at the 30 m (100 foot) DH if autothrottles are used.
(iv) Trim condition of the aircraft upon disconnecting the auto coupler with respect
to continuation to flare and landing.
(v) Position of the aircraft at the middle marker and at the decision height indicated
both on a diagram of the basic ILS display and a diagram of the runway
extended to the middle marker. Estimated touchdown point shall be indicated
on the runway diagram.
(vi) Compatibility of flight director with the auto coupler, if applicable.
(vii) Quality of overall system performance.
(4) Evaluation. A final evaluation of the flight control guidance system is made upon
successful completion of the demonstrations. If no hazardous tendencies have

IS-3
PCAR PART 7
been displayed or are otherwise known to exist, the system is approved as

installed.
(f) Each maintenance program for Category II and/or Category III instruments and
equipment shall contain the following:
(1) A list of each instrument and item of equipment specified in subpart 7.2.5 or 7.2.6
that is installed in the aircraft and approved for Category II and/or Category III
operations, including the make and model of those specified in subpart 7.2.5 or
7.2.6.
(2) A schedule that provides for the performance of inspections under subparagraph
(5) of this paragraph within 3 calendar months after the date of the previous
inspection. The inspection shall be performed by a person authorized by Part 5,
except that each alternate inspection may be replaced by a functional flight check.
This functional flight check shall be performed by a pilot holding a Category II
and/or Category III pilot authorization for the type aircraft checked.
(3) A schedule that provides for the performance of bench checks for each listed
instrument and item of equipment that is specified in subpart 7.2.5 and 7.2.6 within
12 calendar months after the date of the previous bench check.
(4) A schedule that provides for the performance of a test and inspection of each static
pressure system within 12 calendar months after the date of the previous test and
inspection.
(5) The procedures for the performance of the periodic inspections and functional flight
checks to determine the ability of each listed instrument and item of equipment
specified in subpart 7.2.5 or 7.2.6 to perform as approved for Category II and/or
Category III operations including a procedure for recording functional flight checks.
(6) A procedure for assuring that the pilot is informed of all defects in listed
instruments and items of equipment.
(7) A procedure for assuring that the condition of each listed instrument and item of
equipment upon which maintenance is performed is at least equal to its Category
II and/or Category III approval condition before it is returned to service for Category
II and/or Category III operations.
(8) A procedure for an entry in the maintenance records that shows the date, airport,
and reasons for each discontinued Category II and/or Category III operation
because of a malfunction of a listed instrument or item of equipment.
(g) Bench check. A bench check required by this section shall comply with this paragraph.
(1) It shall be performed by an AMO holding one of the following ratings as appropriate
to the equipment checked:
(i) An instrument rating.
(ii) An avionics rating.
(2) It shall consist of removal of an instrument or item of equipment and performance
of the following:
(i) A visual inspection for cleanliness, impending failure, and the need for
lubrication, repair, or replacement of parts;
(ii) Correction of items found by that visual inspection; and

IS-4
PCAR PART 7
(iii) Calibration to at least the manufacturer's specifications unless otherwise

specified in the approved Category II and/or Category III manual for the aircraft
in which the instrument or item of equipment is installed.
(h) Extensions. After the completion of one maintenance cycle of 12 calendar months, a
request to extend the period for checks, tests, and inspections is approved if it is shown
that the performance of particular equipment justifies the requested extension.
IS: 7.7.1.3 CONTINUED SERVICEABILITY AND INSPECTION OF FLIGHT

RECORDER SYSTEMS
(a) The operator shall, prior to the first flight of the day, monitor the built-in test features
for the flight recorders and flight data acquisition unit (FDAU), when installed, by
monitored by manual and/or automatic checks.
(b) FDR systems or ADRS, CVR systems or CARS and AIR systems or AIRS shall have
recording system inspection intervals of one year; subject to the approval from the
Authority, this period may be extended to two years provided these systems have
demonstrated a high integrity of serviceability and self-monitoring. DLR systems or
DLRS shall have recording system inspection intervals of two years; subject to the
approval from the Authority, this period may be extended to four years provided these
systems have demonstrated high integrity of serviceability and self-monitoring.
(c) The operator shall carry out annual inspections as follows:
(1) an analysis of the recorded data from the flight recorders shall ensure that the
recorder operates correctly for the nominal duration of the recording;
(2) the analysis of the FDR or the ADRS shall evaluate the quality of the recorded data
to determine if the bit error rate (including those errors introduced by recorder, the
acquisition unit, the source of the data on the airplane and by the tools used to
extract the data from the recorder) is within acceptable limits and to determine the
nature and distribution of the errors;
(3) a complete flight from the FDR or the ADRS shall be examined in engineering units
to evaluate the validity of all recorded parameters. Particular attention shall be
given to parameters from sensors dedicated to the FDR or the ADRS. Parameters
taken from the aircraft’s electrical bus system need not be checked if their
serviceability can be detected by other aircraft systems;
(4) the readout facility shall have the necessary software to accurately convert the
recorded values to engineering units and to determine the status of discrete
signals;
(5) an examination of the recorded signal on the CVR or the CARS shall be carried
out by replay of the CVR or the CARS recording. While installed in the aircraft, the
CVR or the CARS shall record test signals from each aircraft source and from
relevant external sources to ensure that all required signals meet intelligibility
standards;
(6) where practicable, during the examination, a sample of in-flight recordings of the
CVR or CARS shall be examined for evidence that the intelligibility of the signal is
acceptable; and
(7) an examination of the recorded images on the AIR or AIRS shall be carried out by
replay of the AIR or AIRS recording. While installed in the aircraft, the AIR or AIRS
shall record test images from each aircraft source and from relevant external
sources to ensure that all required images meet recording quality standards.

IS-5
PCAR PART 7
(d) A flight recorder system shall be considered unserviceable if there is a significant

period of poor quality data, unintelligible signals, or if one or more of the mandatory
parameters is not recorded correctly.
(e) The operator shall make available a report of the recording system inspection upon
request by the CAAP for monitoring purposes.
(1) Calibration of the FDR system: for those parameters which have sensors dedicated
only to the FDR and are not checked by other means, recalibration shall be carried
out at least every five years or in accordance with the recommendations of the
sensor manufacturer to determine any discrepancies in the engineering conversion
routines for the mandatory parameters and to ensure that parameters are being
recorded within the calibration tolerances; and
(2) when the parameters of altitude and airspeed are provided by sensors that are
dedicated to the FDR system, there shall be a recalibration performed as
recommended by the sensor manufacturer, or at least every two years.
IS: 7.7.2.1(A) FLIGHT DATA RECORDERS—TYPE AND PARAMETERS - AIRPLANE

(a) Flight data recorders shall be classified as Type I, Type IA, Type II and Type IIA
depending upon the number of parameters to be recorded and the duration required
for retention of the recorded information.
(1) Type IA FDR. This FDR shall be capable of recording, as appropriate to the
airplane, at least the 78 parameters in Table A.
(2) Type I FDR. This FDR shall be capable of recording, as appropriate to the airplane,
at least the first 32 parameters in Table A
(3) Types II and IIA FDRs. These FDRs shall be capable of recording, as appropriate
to the airplane, at least the first 16 parameters in Table A.
(b) Parameters – General. .
(1) The parameters that satisfy the requirements for FDRs are listed in the paragraphs
below.
(2) The number of parameters to be recorded shall depend on airplane complexity.
(3) The parameters without an asterisk (*) are mandatory parameters which shall be
recorded regardless of airplane complexity.
(4) In addition, the parameters designated by an asterisk (*) shall be recorded if an
information data source for the parameter is used by airplane systems or the flight
crew to operate the airplane.
(5) However, other parameters may be substituted with due regard to the airplane type
and the characteristics of the recording equipment.
(c) Parameter – Flight Path and Speed. The following parameters satisfy the
requirements for flight path and speed:
(1) Pressure altitude
(2) Indicated or calibrated airspeed.
(3) Air-ground status and each landing gear air-ground sensor when practicable.
(4) Total or outside air temperature.
(5) Heading (primary flight crew reference)

IS-6
PCAR PART 7
(6) Normal acceleration

(7) Lateral acceleration.
(8) Longitudinal acceleration (body axis)
(9) Time or relative time count
(10) Navigation data*: drift angle, wind speed, wind direction, latitude/longitude.
(11) Groundspeed*
(12) Radio altitude*
(d) Parameters – Altitude. The following parameters satisfy the requirements for altitude:
(1) Pitch altitude.
(2) Roll altitude.
(3) Yaw or sideslip angle*.
(4) Angle of attack*
(e) Parameters – Engine Power. The following parameters satisfy the requirements for
engine power:
(1) Engine thrust power: propulsive thrust/power on each engine, cockpit thrust/power
lever position.
(2) Thrust reverse status*.
(3) Engine thrust command*.
(4) Engine thrust target*.
(5) Engine bleed valve position*
(6) Additional engine parameters*: EPR, N1, indicated vibration level, N2, EGT, TLA,
fuel flow, fuel cut-off lever position, N3.
(f) Parameters – Configuration. The following parameters satisfy the requirements for
configuration:
(1) Pitch trim surface position.
(2) Flaps*: trailing edge flap position, cockpit control selection.
(3) Slats*: leading edge flap (slat) position, cockpit control selection.
(4) Landing Gear*: landing gear, gear selector position.
(5) Yaw trim surface position*.
(6) Roll trim surface position*
(7) Cockpit trim control input position pitch*.
(8) Cockpit trim control input position roll*
(9) Cockpit trim control input position yaw*
(10) Ground spoiler and speed brake*: Ground spoiler position, ground spoiler
selection, speed brake position, speed brake selection.
(11) De-icing and/or anti-icing systems selection*
(12) Hydraulic pressure (each system)*
(13) Fuel quantity*

IS-7
PCAR PART 7
(14) AC electrical bus status*

(15) DC electrical bus status*
(16) APU bleed valve position*
(17) Computed centre of gravity*
(g) Parameters – Operation. The following parameters satisfy the requirements for
operation:
(1) Warnings
(2) Primary flight control surface and primary flight control pilot input: pitch axis, roll
axis, yaw axis.
(3) Marker beacon passage
(4) Each navigation receiver frequency selection
(5) Manual radio transmission keying and CVR/FDR synchronization reference
(6) Autopilot/autothrottle/AFCS mode and engagement status*
(7) Selected barometric setting*: pilot first officer (co-pilot)
(8) Selected altitude (all pilot selectable modes of operation)*
(9) Selected speed (all pilot selectable modes of operation)*
(10) Selected MACH (all pilot selectable modes of operation)*.
(11) Selected vertical speed (all pilot selectable modes of operation)*
(12) Selected heading (all pilot selectable modes of operation)*.
(13) Selected flight path (all pilot selectable modes of operation)*; course/DSTRK, path
angle.
(14) Selected decision height*
(15) EFIS display format*: pilot, first officer (co-pilot).
(16) Multi-function/engine/alerts display format *
(17) GPWS/TAWS/GCAS status*: selection of terrain display mode including pop-up
display status, terrain alerts, both cautions and warning, and advisories, on/off
switch position.
(18) Low pressure warning*: hydraulic pressure, pneumatic pressure.
(19) Computer failure*
(20) Loss of cabin pressure*
(21) TCAS/ACAS (traffic alert and collision avoidance system/airborne collision
avoidance system)*
(22) Ice detection*
(23) Engine warning each engine vibration*
(24) Engine warning each engine overtemperature*
(25) Engine warning each engine oil pressure low*
(26) Engine warning each engine overspeed*
(27) Wind shear warning*
(28) Operational stall protection, stick shaker and pusher activation*.

IS-8
PCAR PART 7
(h) All cockpit flight control forces*: control wheel, control column, rudder pedal cockpit
input forces.
(i) Vertical deviation*: ILS glide path, MLS elevation, and GNSS approach path.
(j) Horizontal deviation*: ILS localizer, MLS azimuth, and GNSS approach path.
(k) DME 1 and 2 distances*
(l) Primary navigation system reference*: GNSS, INS, VOR/DME, MLS, Loran C, ILS.
(m) Brakes*: left and right brake pressure, left and right brake pedal position.
(n) Date*
(o) Event marker*
(p) Head up display in use*.
(q) Para visual display on*
Note 1: It is not intended that airplanes issued with an individual certificate of
airworthiness before 1 January 2016 be modified to meet the range, sampling,
accuracy or resolution guidance detailed in this Appendix.
(r) Parameters – Flight Path and Speed as Displayed to the Pilot. The parameters that
satisfy the requirements for flight path and speed as displayed to the pilot(s) are listed
below. The parameters without an (*) are mandatory parameters which shall be
recorded. In addition, the parameters designed by an (*) shall be recorded if an
information source for the parameter is displayed to the pilot and is practicable to
record:
(2) Indicated airspeed or calibrated airspeed
(4) Pitch altitude
(5) Roll altitude
(6) Engine thrust/power
(7) Landing-gear status*
(8) Total or outside air temperature*
(9) Time*
(10) Navigation data*: drift angle, wind speed, wind direction, latitude/longitude
Table — Parameter Guidance for Crash Protected Flight Data Recorders – Airplanes
Notes:
1) The first 15 parameters satisfy the requirements for a Type II and Type IIA FDR.
2) The first 32 parameters satisfy the requirements for a Type I FDR.
3) The total 78 parameters satisfy the requirements for a Type IA FDR.

IS-9
PCAR PART 7
Maximum Accuracy
Sampling and limits (sensor
Serial Recording input
numb Measuremen interval compared to Recording
er Parameter t range (seconds) FDR read-out) resolution
1 Time (UTC when 24 hours 4 ±0.125% per 1 second

available, hour
otherwise relative
time count or GPS
sync)
2 Pressure-altitude– -300 m (-1 1 ±30 m to ±200 1.5 m (5 ft)
000 ft) to m
maximum (±100 ft to ±700
certificated ft)
altitude of
aircraft +1
500 m (+5
000 ft)
3 Indicated airspeed 95 km/h (50 1 ±5% 1 kt (0.5 kt
or calibrated kt) to max recommend
airspeed VSo (Note 1) ±3% ed)
VSo to 1.2 VD
(Note 2)
4 Heading (primary 360 degrees 1 ±2˚ 0.5˚
flight crew
reference)
5 Normal -3 g to +6 g 0.125 ±1% of 0.004 g
acceleration maximum range
(Note 3)– excluding
datum error of
±5%
6 Pitch attitude ±75 ° or ±0.25 ±2 ˚ 0.5˚
usable range
whichever is
greater
7 Roll attitude ±180˚ ±0.25 ±2˚ 0.5˚
8 Radio On-off one 1

transmission discrete)
keying
9 Power on each Full range 1 (per engine) ±2% 0.2% of full
engine range or the
(Note 4) resolution
required to
operate the
aircraft
10* Trailing edge flap Full range or 2 ±5% or as 0.5% of full

and cockpit control each discrete pilot’s indicator range or the
selection position resolution
required to
operate the
aircraft

IS-10
PCAR PART 7
Maximum Accuracy
11* Leading edge flap Full range or 2 ±5% or as 0.5% of full

and cockpit control each discrete pilot’s indicator range or the
selection position resolution
required to
operate the
aircraft
12* Thrust reverser Stowed, in 1 (per engine)

position transit, and
reverse
13* Ground Full range or 1 ±2% unless 0.2% of full
spoiler/speed each discrete higher accuracy range
brake selection position uniquely
(selection and required
position)
14 Outside air Sensor range 2 ±2˚ C 0.3˚C
temperature
15* Autopilot/auto A suitable 1
throttle/AFCS combination
mode and of
engagement discretes
status
16 Longitudinal +/-1 g 0.25 ±0.015 g 0.004 g
acceleration (Note excluding a
3) datum error of
±0.05 g
17 Lateral ±1 g 0.25 ±0.015 g 0.004 g
acceleration (Note excluding
3) a datum error of
±0.05 g
18 Pilot input and/or Full range ±0.25 ±2˚ unless 0.2% of full
control surface higher accuracy range or as
position-primary uniquely installed
controls (pitch, roll, required
yaw) (Note 5)
(Note 6)
19 Pitch trim position Full range 1 ±3% unless 0.3% of full
higher accuracy range or as
uniquely installed
required
20* Radio altitude– -6 m to 750 m 1 ±0.6 m (±2 ft) or 0.3 m (1 ft)
(–20 ft to 2 ±3% whichever below 150
500 ft) is greater below m (500 ft);
150 m (500 ft) 0.3 m
and ±5% above (1 ft) + 0.5%
150 m (500 ft) of full range
above 150
m (500 ft)

IS-11
PCAR PART 7
Maximum Accuracy
21* Vertical beam Signal range 1 ±3% 0.3% of full

deviation range
(ILS/GPS/GLS
glide path, MLS
elevation,
IRNAV/IAN
vertical deviation)
22* Horizontal beam Signal range 1 ±3% 0.3% of full
deviation range
(ILS/GPS/GLS
localizer, MLS
azimuth,
IRNAV/IAN lateral
deviation)
23 Marker beacon Discrete 1
passage
24 Master warning Discrete 1
25 NAV receiver Full range 4 As installed

frequency
selection (Note 7)
26* DME 1 and 2 0 – 370 km 4 As installed 1852 m
distance (includes (0-200 NM) (1 NM)
Distance to
runway threshold
(GLS) and
Distance to
missed approach
point (IRNAV/IAN)
(Notes 7 and 8
27 Air/ground status Discrete 1
28* GPWS/TAWS/GC Discrete 1

AS status
(selection of
terrain display
mode including
pop-up display
status) and
(Terrain alerts,
both cautions and
warnings, and
advisories) and
(on/off switch
position)
29* Angle of attack Full range 0.5 As installed 0.3% of full
range

IS-12
PCAR PART 7
Maximum Accuracy
30* Hydraulics, each Discrete 2 0.5% of full

system (low range
pressure)
31* Navigation data As installed 1 As installed
(latitude/longitude,
ground speed and
drift angle) (Note
9)
32* Landing gear and Discrete 4 As installed
gear selector
position
33* Groundspeed As installed 1 Data should be 1 kt
obtained from
the most
accurate
system
34 Brakes (left and (Maximum 1 1±5% 2% of full
right brake metered range
pressure, left and brake range,
right brake pedal discretes or
position) full range)
35* Additional engine As installed Each engine As installed 2% of full
parameters (EPR, each second range
N1, indicated
vibration level, N2;
EGT, fuel flow,
fuel cut-off lever
position, N3)
36* TCAQS/ACAS Discretes 1 As installed
(traffic alert and
collision avoidance
system)
37* Windshear Discrete 1 As installed
warning
38* Selected As installed 64 As installed 0.1 mb
barometric setting (0.01 in-Hg)
(pilot, co-pilot)
39* Selected altitude As installed 1 As installed Sufficient to
(all pilot selectable determine
modes of crew
operation) selection
40* Selected speed As installed 1 As installed Sufficient to

modes of crew
operations) selection

IS-13
PCAR PART 7
Maximum Accuracy
41* Selected Mach As installed 1 As installed Sufficient to

modes of crew
42* Selected vertical As installed 1 As installed Sufficient to

speed (all pilot determine
selectable modes crew
of operation) selection
43* Selected heading As installed 1 As installed Sufficient to

modes of crew
44* Selected flight 1 As installed

path
(all pilot selectable
modes of
operation)
(course/DSTRK,
path angle; final
approach path
(IRNAV/IAN))
45* Selected Decision As installed 64 As installed Sufficient to
Height determine
crew
selection
46* EFIS display Discrete(s) 4 As installed

format (pilot, co-
pilot)
47* Multi- Discrete(s) 4 As installed
function/engine/
alerts display
format
48* AC electrical bus Discrete(s) 4 As installed
status
49* DC electrical bus Discrete(s) 4 As installed
status
50* Engine bleed Discrete(s) 4 As installed
valve position
51* APU bleed valve Discrete(s) 4 As installed
position
52* Computer failure Discrete(s) 4 As installed
53* Engine thrust As installed 2 As installed

command
54* Engine thrust As installed 4 As installed 2% of full
target range

IS-14
PCAR PART 7
Maximum Accuracy
55* Computed centre As installed 64 As installed 1% of full

of gravity range
56* Fuel quantity in As installed 64 As installed 1% of full

CG trim tank range
57* Head up display in As installed 4 As installed

use
58* Para visual display As installed 1 As installed
on/off
59* Operational stall As installed 1 As installed
protection, stick
shaker and pusher
activation
60* Primary navigation As installed 4 As installed
system reference
(GNSS, INS,
VOR/DME, MLS,
Loran C, localizer
glideslope)
61* Ice detection As installed 4 As installed
62* Engine warning As installed 1 As installed

each engine
vibration
each engine over
temperature
each engine oil
pressure low
each engine over
speed
66* Yaw Trim Surface Full range 2 ±3% unless 0.3% of full
Position higher accuracy range
uniquely
required
67* Roll Trim Surface Full range 2 ±3% unless 0.3% of full
Position higher accuracy range
uniquely
required
68* Yaw or sideslip Full range 1 ±5% 0.5%
angle
69* De-icing and/or Descrete(s) 4
anti-icing systems
selection
70* Hydraulic pressure Full range 2 ±5% 100 psi
(each system)

IS-15
PCAR PART 7
Maximum Accuracy
71* Loss of cabin Discrete 1

pressure
72* Cockpit trim Full range 1 ±5% 0.2% of full
control input range or as
position installed
Pitch
position Roll installed

position Yaw installed
75* All cockpit flight Full range 1 ±5% 0.2% of full

control input (±311 N (±70 range or as
forces (control lbf), ±378 N installed
wheel, control (±85 lbf),
column, rudder ±734 N (±165
pedal) lbf)
76* Event marker Discrete 1
77* Date 365 days 64
78* ANP or EPE or As installed 4 As installed

EPU
Note 1: VSo stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
Note 2: VD design diving speed.
Note 3: Refer to IS: 7.7.2.2(a) (12) for increased recording requirements.
Note 4: Record sufficient inputs to determine power.
Note 5: For airplanes with control systems in which movement of a control surface will
back drive the pilot’s control, ‘‘or’’ applies. For airplanes with control systems in which
movement of a control surface will not back drive the pilot’s control,‘‘and’’ applies. In
airplanes with split surfaces, a suitable combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of
recording each surface separately.
Note 6: Refer to IS: 7.7.2.2(a) (13) for increased recording requirements.
Note 7: If signal available in digital form.
Note 8: Recording of latitude and longitude from INS or other navigation system is a
preferred alternative.
Note 9: If signals readily available.

IS-16
PCAR PART 7
If further recording capacity is available, recording of the following additional information should
be considered:
(a) operational information from electronic display systems, such as electronic flight
instrument systems (EFIS), electronic centralized aircraft monitor (ECAM) and engine
indication and crew alerting system (EICAS). Use the following order of priority:
(1) parameters selected by the flight crew relating to the desired flight path, e.g.
barometric pressure setting, selected altitude, selected airspeed, decision height, and
autoflight system engagement and mode indications if not recorded from another
source;
(2) display system selection/status, e.g. SECTOR, PLAN, ROSE, NAV, WXR,
COMPOSITE, COPY, ETC.;
(3) warnings and alerts;
(4) the identity of displayed pages for emergency procedures and checklists;
(b) retardation information including brake application for use in the investigation of landing
overruns and rejected take-offs.
IS: 7.7.2.1(B) FLIGHT DATA RECORDERS—TYPE AND PARAMETERS – HELICOPTERS

(a) Flight data records shall be classified as Type IV, Type IVA, and Type V depending
upon the number of parameters to be recorded.
(1) Type IV FDRs shall be capable of recording, as appropriate to the helicopter, at
least the first 30 parameters in Table B below.
(2) Type IVA FDRs shall be capable or recording, as appropriate to the helicopter, at
(3) Type V FDRs shall be capable of recording, as appropriate to the helicopter, at
(4) For all FDR types, if further recording capability is available, recording of the
following additional information shall be considered:
(5) Additional operational information from electronic displays, such as electronic flight
instrument systems (EFIS), electronic centralized aircraft monitor (ECAM) and
engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS); and
(6) Additional engine parameters (EPR, N1, fuel flow, etc.).
(b) The parameters that satisfy the requirements for a Type IV; Type IVA, and Type V
FDRs are listed below. The number of parameters to be recorded shall depend on
helicopter complexity. The parameters without an asterisk (*) are mandatory
parameters that shall be recorded. The parameters designated by an asterisk (*) shall
also be recorded if an information data source for an asterisked parameter is used by
helicopter systems or the flight crew to operate the helicopter. However, other
parameters may be substituted with due regard to the helicopter type and the
characteristics of the recording equipment.
(c) The following parameters satisfy the requirements for flight path and speed:
(2) Indicated airspeed
(3) Total or outside air temperature.

IS-17
PCAR PART 7
(5) Normal acceleration

(6) Lateral acceleration.
(7) Longitudinal acceleration (body axis)
(8) Time or relative time count
(9) Navigation data*: drift angle, wind speed, wind direction, latitude/longitude.
(d) The following parameters satisfy the requirements for altitude:
(1) Pitch altitude.
(2) Roll altitude.
(3) Yaw rate.
(e) The following parameters satisfy the requirements for engine power:
(1) Power on each engine: free power turbine speed (Nf), engine torque, engine gas
generator speed (Ng), cockpit power control position.
(2) Rotor: main rotor speed, rotor brake.
(3) Main gearbox oil pressure*
(4) Gearbox oil temperature*, main gearbox oil temperature, tail rotor gearbox oil
temperature
(5) Engine exhaust gas temperature (T4)*
(6) Turbine inlet temperature (TIT)*
(f) The following parameters satisfy the requirements for configuration:
(1) Landing gear or gear selector position*.
(2) Fuel quality*
(3) Ice detector liquid water content*
(g) The following parameters satisfy the requirements for operation:
(1) Hydraulics low pressure
(2) Warnings
(3) Primary flight controls —pilot input and/or control output position: collective pitch,
longitudinal cyclic pitch, lateral cyclic pitch, tail rotor petal, controllable stabilator,
hydraulic selection.
(4) Marker beacon passage
(5) Each navigation receiver frequency selection
(6) AFCS mode and engagement status*
(7) Stability augmentation system engagement*
(8) Indicated sling load force*
(9) Vertical deviation*: ILS glide path, GNSS approach path.
(10) Horizontal deviation*: ILS localizer, GNSS approach path.
(11) DME 1 and 2 distances*
(12) Altitude rate*

IS-18
PCAR PART 7
(13) Ice detector liquid water content*

(14) Helicopter health and usage monitor system (HUMUS)* engine data, chip
detectors, track timing, exceedance discretes, broadband average engine
vibration.
Note: Parameter requirements, including range, sampling, accuracy and
resolution are as contained in the Minimum Operational Performance
Specification (MOPS) for Crash Protected Airborne Recorder Systems, or
Table— Parameters for Flight Data Recorders – Helicopters

Maximum
Sampling
and Accuracy limits
Serial Recording (sensor input
1 Time (UTC when 24 hours 4 ±0.125% per 1s
available, hour
otherwise relative
time count or GPS
time sync)
2 Pressure-altitude– -300 m (–1 1 ±30 m to ±200 m 1.5 m (5 ft)
000 ft) to (±100 ft to ±700
maximum ft)
certificated
altitude of
aircraft +1 500
m (+5 000 ft)
3 Indicated airspeed As the 1 ±3% 1 kt
installed
measuring
system
4 Heading 360 degrees 1 ± 2˚ 0.5˚
5 Normal -3 g to +6 g 0.125 ±0-.9 g excluding 0.004 g
acceleration– a datum error of
±g
6 Pitch altitude ±75 ˚ or 100% 0.5 ± 2˚ 0.5˚
of usable
range
whichever is
greater
7 Roll altitude ±180˚ 0.5 ±2˚ 0.5˚
8 Radio On-off (one 1 --- ---
transmission discrete)
keying
9 Power on each Full range 1 (per ±2% 0.1% of full
engine engine) range

IS-19
PCAR PART 7
Maximum
Sampling
and Accuracy limits
10 Main rotor :
Main rotor speed 50-130% 0.51 ±2% 0.3% of full

range
Rotor brake Discrete --- ---
11 Pilot input and/or Full range 0.5 ±2% unless 0.5% of
control surface (0.25 higher accuracy operating
position-primary recommende uniquely range
controls (Collective d) required.
pitch, longitudinal
cyclic pitch, lateral
cyclic pitch, tail
rotor pedal)
12 Hydraulics, each Discrete 1 --- ---
system
(low pressure and
selection)
13 Outside air Sensor range 2 ±2˚C 0.3˚C
temperature
14* Autopilot/auto A suitable 1 --- ---
throttle/AFCS combination
mode and of discretes
engagement
status
15* Stability Discrete 1 --- ---
augmentation
system
engagement
16* Main gearbox oil As installed 1 As installed 6.895 kN/m2
pressure (1 psi)
17* Main gearbox oil As installed 2 As installed 1˚C
temperature
18 Yaw acceleration ±400˚/second 0.25 ±1.5% max ±2˚s
(or yaw rate) range excluding
datum error of
±5%
19* Sling load force 0-200% 0.5 ±3% of max 0.5% for
of certified range maximum
load certified load
20 Longitudinal ±1 g 0.25 ±0.015 g 0.0004 g
acceleration excluding datum
error of ± 0.05 g

IS-20
PCAR PART 7
Maximum
Sampling
and Accuracy limits
21 Lateral ±1 g 0.25 ±0.015 g 0.0004 g
acceleration excluding datum
error of ± 0.05 g
22* Radio altitude– -6 m to 750 m 1 ±0.6 m (±2 ft) or 0.3 m (1ft)
(–20 ft to 2 ±3% whichever below 150 m
500 ft) is greater below (500 ft), 0.3 m
150 m (500 ft) (1 ft) = 0.5%
and ±5% above of full range
150 m (500 ft) above
150 m (500 ft)
23* Vertical beam Signal range 1 ±3% 0.3% of full
deviation range
24* Horizontal beam Signal range 1 ±3% 0.3% of full
deviation range
25 Marker beacon Discrete 1 --- ---
passage
26 Warnings Discrete(s) 1 --- ---
27 Each navigation Sufficient to 4 As installed ----
receiver frequency determine
selection selected
frequency
28* DME 1 and 2 0-370 km 4 As installed 1.852 m (1
distance (0-200 NM) NM)
29* Navigation data As installed 2 As installed As installed
(latitude/longitude,
ground speed, drift
angle, wind speed,
wind direction)
30* Landing gear or Discrete 4 --- ---
gear selector
position
31* Engine exhaust As installed 1 As installed
gas temperature
(T4)
32* Turbine inlet As installed 1 As installed
temperature
(ITI/ITT)
33* Fuel contents As installed 4 As installed
34* Altitude rate As installed 1 As installed
35* Ice detection As installed 4 As installed

IS-21
PCAR PART 7
Maximum
Sampling
and Accuracy limits
36* Helicopter health As installed 1 As installed
and usage monitor
system
37 Engine control Discrete 1 ----- -----
modes
38* Selected As installed 64 As installed 0.1 mb (0.01
barometric setting in Hg)39*
(pilot and co-pilot)
39* Selected altitude As installed 1 As installed Sufficient to
modes of crew
40* Selected speed As installed 1 As installed Sufficient to
modes of crew
41* Selected Mach As installed 1 As installed Sufficient to
modes of crew
42* Selected vertical As installed 1 As installed Sufficient to
speed (all pilot determine
selectable modes crew
of operation) selection
43* Selected heading As installed 1 As installed Sufficient to
modes of crew
44* Selected flight path As installed 1 As installed Sufficient to
modes of crew
45* Selected decision As installed 4 As installed Sufficient to
height determine
crew
selection
46* EFIS display Discrete(s) 4 --- ---
format
(pilot and co-pilot)
47* Multi- Discrete(s) 4 --- ---
function/engine/
alerts display
format

IS-22
PCAR PART 7
Maximum
Sampling
and Accuracy limits
48* Event marker Discrete 1 --- ---
IS 7.7.2.2 AIRCRAFT EQUIPPAGE FOR OPERATIONS – AIRCRAFT DATA

RECORDING SYSTEM (ADRS)
(a) ADRS shall be capable of recording, as appropriate to the aircraft, at least the essential
(E) parameters in the Table below.
(b) The measurement range, recording interval and accuracy of parameters on installed
equipment is usually verified by methods approved by the State of Design.
(c) Documentation concerning parameter allocation, conversion equations, periodic
calibration and other serviceability/maintenance information shall be maintained by the
operator. The documentation shall be sufficient to ensure that accident investigation
authorities have the necessary information to read out the data in engineering units.
Table—Parameter Guidance for Aircraft Data Recording Systems

Maximu
m Minimu
Minimu
Paramet Recordi m
m Minimum
No Parameter er ng Recordi
Recordi Recording Remarks
. Name Categor Interval ng
ng Accuracy
y in Resolut
Range
Second ion
s
1 Heading R* ±180˚ 1 ±2˚ 0.5˚ *If not available,
(Magnetic record rates
or True)
2 Pitch E* ±90˚ 0.25 ±2˚ 0.5˚ *If not available,
altitude record rates
3 Roll E* ±180˚ 0.25 ±2˚ 0.5˚ *If not available,
altitude record rates
4 Yaw rate E* ±300˚ 0.25 ±1% + drift 2˚ *Essential if no
of 360˚/hr heading
available
5 Pitch rate E* ±300˚ 0.25 ±1% + drift 2˚ *Essential if no
of 360˚/hr pitch altitude
available
6 Roll rate E* ±300˚ 0.25 ±1% + drift 2˚ *Essential if no
of 360˚/hr roll rate
available
7 Positioning E Latitude: 2 (1 if As installed 0.00005 --
system: ±90˚; availabl (0.00015˚ ˚
e)

IS-23
PCAR PART 7
Maximu
m Minimu
Minimu
Paramet Recordi m
m Minimum
ng Accuracy
y in Resolut
Range
Second ion
s
latitude/ Longitud recommend
longitude e: ±180˚ ed
8 Positioning E* Available 2 (1 if As installed As *If available
system: range availabl installed
estimated e)
error
9 Positioning E -300 m 2 (1 if As installed 1.5 m (5 --
system: (-1 000 ft) availabl (±15 m (±50 ft)
altitude to e) ft)
maximu recommend
m ed)
certificat
ed
altitude
of
airplane
+1 500 m
(5 000 ft)
10 Positioning E 24 hours 1 ±0.5 second 0.1 *UTC time
system: second preferred where
time available
11 Positioning E 0-1 000 2 (1 if As installed 1 kt --
system: kt availabl (±5 kt
ground e) recommend
speed ed)
12 Positioning E 0-360˚ 2 (1 if As installed 0.5˚ --
system: availabl (±2˚
channel e) recommend
ed)
13 Normal E -3 g to + 0.25 As installed 0.004 g --
acceleratio 6 g(*) (0.125 if (±0.09 g
n availabl excluding a
e) datum error
of ±45 g
recommend
ed)
14 Longitudin E ±1 g(*) 0.25 As installed 0.004 g --
al (0.125 if (±0.015 g
acceleratio availabl excluding a
n e) datum error
of ±0.05 g
recommend
ed)

IS-24
PCAR PART 7
Maximu
m Minimu
Minimu
Paramet Recordi m
m Minimum
ng Accuracy
y in Resolut
Range
Second ion
s
15 Lateral E ±1 g(*) 0.25 As installed 0.004 g --
acceleratio (0.125 if (±0.015 g
n availabl excluding a
e) datum error
of ±0.05 g
recommend
ed)
16 External R 34.4 mb 1 As installed 0.1 mb --
static (3.44 in- (±1 mb (0.1 (0.01 in-
pressure Hg) to in-Hg) or Hg) or
(or 310.2 mb ±30 m (±100 1.5 m (5
pressure (31.03 in- ft) to ±210 m ft)
altitude) Hg) or (±700 ft)
available recommend
sensor ed)
range
17 Outside air R -50˚ to 2 As installed 1˚C --
temperatur +90˚C or (±2˚C
e (or total available recommend
air sensor ed)
temperatur range
e)
18 Indicated R As the 1 As installed 1 kt (0.5 --
air speed installed (±3% kt
pilot recommend recomm
display ed) ended)
measurin
g system
or
available
sensor
range
19 Engine R Full Each As installed 0.2% of --
RPM range engine full
including each range
overspee second
d
condition
20 Engine oil R Full Each As installed 2% of --
pressure range engine (5% of full full
each range) range
second

IS-25
PCAR PART 7
Maximu
m Minimu
Minimu
Paramet Recordi m
m Minimum
ng Accuracy
y in Resolut
Range
Second ion
s
21 Engine oil R Full Each As installed 2% of --
temperatur range engine (5% of full full
e each range) range
second
22 Fuel flow or R Full Each As installed 2% of --
pressure range engine full
each range
second
23 Manifold R Full Each As installed 0.2% of --
pressure range engine full
each range
second
24 Engine R Full Each As installed 0.1% of *Sufficient
thrust/ range engine full parameters e.g.
power/ each range EPRN/N1 or
torque second torque/Np as
parameters appropriate to
required to the particular
determine engine shall be
propulsive recorded to
thrust/ determine
power* power in both
normal and
reverse thrust.
A margin for
possible
overspeed
should be
provided.
25 Engine gas R 0-150% Each As installed 0.2% of --
generator engine full
speed (Ng) each range
second
26 Free power R 0-150% Each As installed 0.2% of --
turbine engine full
speed (Nf) each range
second
27 Coolant R Full 1 As installed 1˚C --
temperatur range (±5˚C
e recommend
ed)
28 Main R Full Each As installed 1 Volt --
voltage range engine

IS-26
PCAR PART 7
Maximu
m Minimu
Minimu
Paramet Recordi m
m Minimum
ng Accuracy
y in Resolut
Range
Second ion
s
each
second
29 Cylinder R Full Each As installed 2% of --
head range cylinder full
temperatur each range
e second
30 Flaps R Full 2 As installed 0.5˚ --
position range or
each
discrete
position
31 Primary R Full 0.25 As installed 0.2% of --
flight range full
control range
surface
position
32 Fuel R Full 4 As installed 1% of --
quantity range full
range
33 Exhaust R Full Each As installed 2% of --
gas range engine full
temperatur each range
e second
34 Emergency R Full Each As installed 1 Volt --
voltage range engine
each
second
35 Trim R Full 1 As installed 0.3% of --
surface range or full
position each range
discrete
position
36 Landing R Each Each As installed -- *Where
gear discrete gear available, record
position position* every 2 up-and-locked
seconds and down-and-
locked position
37 Novel/ R As As As required As --
unique required required required
aircraft
features

IS-27
PCAR PART 7
Key:
E Essential parameters
R Recorded parameters
IS 7.7.4.1 DATA LINK RECORDER APPLICABILITY

(a) Messages applying to the applications listed below shall be recorded. Applications
without the asterisk (*) are mandatory applications which shall be recorded regardless
of the system complexity. Applications with an (*) shall be recorded only as far as is
practicable given the architecture of the system.
(1) Data link initiation capability;
(2) Controller-pilot data link communications;
(3) Data link –flight information services;
(4) Automatic dependent surveillance- contract;
(5) Automatic dependent surveillance- broadcast*;
(6) Aeronautical operational control*.
(b) Descriptions of the applications for data link recorders are contained in the table below.
Table—Description of Applications for Data Link Recorders
Item Application Application Description Recording
No. Type Content
1 Data link This includes any applications used to logon to C
Initiation or initiate data link service. In FANS-1/A and
ATN, these are ATS Facilities Notification
(AFN) and Context Management (CM)
respectively.
2 Controller/Pilot This includes any application used to C
Communication exchange requests, clearances, instructions
and reports between the flight crew and
controllers on the ground. In FANS-1/A and
ATN, this includes the CPDLC application. It
also includes applications used for the
exchange of oceanic (OCL) and departure
clearances (DCL) as well as data link delivery
of taxi clearances.
3 Addressed This includes any surveillance application in C
Surveillance which the ground sets up contracts for delivery
of surveillance data. In FANS-1/A and ATn,
this includes the Automatic Dependent
Surveillance (ADS-C) application. Where
parametric data are reported within the
message they shall be recorded within the
message they shall be recorded unless data
from the same source are recorded on the
FDR.
4 Flight This includes any service used for delivery of C
Information flight information to specific aircraft. This

IS-28
PCAR PART 7
Item Application Application Description Recording

No. Type Content
includes, for example, D-METAR, D-ATIS, D-
NOTAM and other textual data link services.
5 Aircraft This includes Elementary and Enhanced M*
Broadcast Surveillance Systems, as well as ADS-B output
Surveillance data. Where parametric data sent by the
aircraft are reported within the message they
shall be recorded unless data from the same
sources are recorded on the FDR.
6 Aeronautical This includes any application transmitting or M*
Operational receiving data used for AOC purposes.
Control Data
Key:
C Complete contents recorded.
M Information that enables correlation to any associated records stored separately
from the aircraft.
* Applications to be recorded only as far as is practicable given the architecture of
the system.
IS: 7.8.2 EMERGENCY EXIT EQUIPMENT

(a) The assisting means for a floor level emergency exit shall meet the requirements under
which the airplane was type certified.
(b) The location of each passenger emergency exit shall be—
(1) Recognizable from a distance equal to the width of the cabin.
(2) Indicated by a sign visible to occupants approaching along the main passenger
aisle.
(c) There shall be an emergency exit locating sign—
(1) Above the aisle near each over-the-wing passenger emergency exit, or at another
ceiling location if it is more practical because of low headroom;
(2) Next to each floor level passenger emergency exit, except that one sign may serve
two such exits if they both can be seen readily from that sign; and
(3) On each bulkhead or divider that prevents fore and aft vision along the passenger
cabin, to indicate emergency exits beyond and obscured by it, except that if this is
not possible, the sign may be placed at another appropriate location.
(4) Each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign shall be
manufactured to meet the interior emergency exit marking requirements under
which the aircraft was type certified, unless the Authority cites different
requirements for compliance with this paragraph.
Note: No sign may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases
to below 250 micr- lamberts.
(d) Sources of general cabin illumination may be common to both the emergency and the
main lighting systems if the power supply to the emergency light system is independent
of the power supply to the main lighting system.

IS-29
PCAR PART 7
(e) The emergency lighting system shall provide enough general lighting in the passenger
cabin so that the average illumination, when measured at 40-inch intervals at seat
armrest height, on the centerline of the main passenger aisle, is at least 0.05 foot-
candles.
(f) Each emergency light shall—
(1) Be operable manually both from the flight crew station and from a point in the
passenger compartment that is readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat;
(2) Have a means to prevent inadvertent operation of the manual controls; and
(3) When armed or turned on at either station, remain lighted or become lighted upon
interruption of the aircraft’s normal electric power.
(4) Provide the required level of illumination for at least 10 minutes at the critical
ambient conditions after emergency landing.
(5) Have a cockpit control device that has an "on", "off", and "armed" position.
(g) The location of each passenger emergency exit operating handle and instructions for
opening the exit shall be shown in accordance with the requirements under which the
aircraft was type certified, unless the Authority cites different requirements for
compliance with this paragraph.
(h) No operating handle or operating handle cover may continue to be used if its
luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 100 micro-lamberts.
(i) Access to emergency exits shall be provided as follows for each passenger carrying
airplane:
(1) Each passageway between individual passenger areas, or leading to a Type I or
Type II emergency exit, shall be unobstructed and at least 20 inches wide.
(2) There shall be enough space next to each Type I or Type II emergency exit to allow
a crew member to assist in the evacuation of passengers without reducing the
unobstructed width of the passageway below that required in paragraph (j) 1, of
this section.
(3) There shall be access from the main aisle to each Type III and Type IV exit. The
access from the aisle to these exits shall not be obstructed by seats, berths, or
other protrusions in a manner that would reduce the effectiveness of the exit. In
addition, the access shall meet the emergency exit access requirements under
which the airplane was type certificated.
(4) If it is necessary to pass through a passageway between passenger
compartments to reach any required emergency exit from any seat in the
passenger cabin, the passageway shall not be obstructed. However, curtains may
be used if they allow free entry through the passageway.
(5) No door may be installed in any partition between passenger compartments.
(6) If it is necessary to pass through a doorway separating the passenger cabin from
other areas to reach any required emergency exit from any passenger seat, the
door shall have a means to latch it in open position, and the door shall be latched
open during each takeoff and landing. The latching means shall be able to
withstand the loads imposed upon it when the door is subjected to the ultimate
inertia forces, relative to the surrounding structure, prescribed in the airworthiness
standards for type certification in the transport category.
(j) Each passenger-carrying aircraft shall be equipped with exterior lighting that meets the
requirements under which that aircraft was type certificated.

IS-30
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(k) Each passenger-carrying aircraft shall be equipped with a slip-resistant escape route
that meets the requirements under which that aircraft was type certificated.
(l) Each floor level door or exit in the side of the fuselage (other than those leading into a
cargo or baggage compartment that is not accessible from the passenger cabin) that
is 44 or more inches high and 20 or more inches wide, but not wider than 46 inches,
each passenger ventral exit and each tail cone exit, shall meet the requirements of this
section for floor level emergency exits.
Note: The Authority may grant a deviation from this paragraph if he finds that
circumstances make full compliance impractical and that an acceptable level of safety
has been achieved.
(m) Approved emergency exits in the passenger compartments that are in excess of the
minimum number of required emergency exits shall meet all of the applicable
provisions of this subsection section and shall be readily accessible.
(n) On each large passenger-carrying turbojet powered airplane each ventral exit and tail
cone exit shall be —
(1) Designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight; and
(2) Marked with a placard readable from a distance of 30 inches and installed at a
conspicuous location near the means of opening the exit, stating that the exit has
been designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight.
IS: 7.8.4 SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT

FLIGHTS OVER LAND
(a) For flights over land the following standard shall be met:
(1) the company operations manual shall show how compliance with subpart 7.8.4 is
to be achieved;
(i) a list of survival equipment shall be carried on board with information on how
to use it;
(ii) a survival manual appropriate for the season and climate; and
(iii) crew member training.
FLIGHTS OVER WATER

(b) Where life rafts are required to be carried in accordance with subpart 7.8.17 (d), they
shall be equipped with an attached survival kit containing at least the following:
(1) a pyrotechnic signaling device;
(2) a radar reflector;
(3) a life raft repair kit;
(4) a bailing bucket and sponge;
(5) a signaling mirror;
(6) a whistle;
(7) a raft knife;
(8) an inflation pump;
(9) dye marker;

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(10) a waterproof flashlight;

(11) a two day supply of water, calculated using the overload capacity of the raft,
consisting of one pint of water per day for each person or a means of desalting or
distilling salt water sufficient to provide an equivalent amount;
(12) a fishing kit;
(13) a book on sea survival; and
(14) a first aid kit containing antiseptic swabs, burn dressing compresses, bandages
and anti-motion sickness pills.
IS: 7.8.5 EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER (ELT)

The following requirements shall be used to determine the quantity and type of 406
MHz ELT which must be carried.
(a) Except as provided for in (b), all airplanes authorized to carry more than 19 passengers
shall be equipped with at least one automatic ELT or two ELTs of any type.
(b) All airplanes authorized to carry more than 19 passengers for which the individual
certificate of airworthiness is first issued after 1 July 2008 shall be equipped with at
least two ELTs, one of which shall be automatic.
(c) Except as provided for in (d), all airplanes authorized to carry 19 passengers or less
shall be equipped with at least one ELT of any type.
(d) All airplanes authorized to carry 19 passengers or less for which the individual
certificate of airworthiness is first issued after 1 July 2008 shall be equipped with at
least one automatic ELT.
(e) Except as provided for in (f) all helicopters operating in performance Class 1, 2 and 3
shall be equipped with at least one automatic ELT or,
(f) when engaged in offshore operations, or other overwater operations, with at least one
automatic ELT and one ELT(S) in a raft or life jacket.
IS: 7.8.11 FIRST-AID KIT, UNIVERSAL PRECAUTION KIT AND EMERGENCY

MEDICAL KIT
The following provides guidance on typical contents of first-aid, universal precaution and
medical kits.
(a) The required first-aid kits shall include at least the following:
- Antiseptic swabs (10/pack)
- Bandage: adhesive strips
- Bandage: gauze 7.5 cm × 4.5 m
- Bandage: triangular, safety pins
- Dressing: burn 10 cm × 10 cm
- Dressing: compress, sterile 7.5 cm × 12 cm
- Dressing: gauze, sterile 10.4 cm × 10.4 cm
- Tape: adhesive 2.5 cm (roll)

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- Steri-strips (or equivalent adhesive strip)

- Hand cleanser or cleansing towelettes
- Pad with shield, or tape, for eye
- Scissors. 10 cm (if allowed by national regulations)
- Tape: adhesive, surgical 1.2 cm × 4.6 m
- Tweezers splinter
- Disposable gloves (multiple pairs)
- Thermometers (non-mercury)
- Mouth to mouth resuscitation mask with one-way valve
- First-aid manual, current edition
- Incident record form
- Mild to moderate analgesic [as allowed by national regulation]
- Antiemetic [as allowed by national regulation]
- Nasal decongestant [as allowed by national regulation]
- Antacid [as allowed by national regulation]
- Antihistamine [as allowed by national regulation]
(b) The required universal precaution kits shall include at least the following:
- Dry powder that can convert small liquid spill into a sterile granulated gel
- Germicidal disinfectant for surface cleaning
- Skin wipes
- Face/eye mask (separate or combined)
- Gloves (disposable)
- Protective apron
- Large absorbent towel
- Pick-up scoop with scraper
- Bio-hazard disposal waste bag
- Instruction
(c) The required medical kits shall include at least the following:
- Stethoscope
- Sphygmomanometer (electronic preferred)
- Airways, oropharyngeal (3 sizes)
- Syringes (appropriate range sizes)
- Needles (appropriate range sizes)
- Intravenous catheters (appropriate range of sizes)
- Antiseptic wipes
- Gloves (disposable)

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- Needle disposal box

- Urinary catheter
- System for delivering intravenous fluids
- Venous tourniquet
- Sponge gauze
- Tape – adhesive
- Surgical mask
- Emergency tracheal catheter (or large gauge intravenous cannula)
- Umbilical cord clamp
- Thermometers (non mercury)
- Basic life support cards
- Bag-valve mask
- Flashlight and batteries
(d) [AOC] The required medical kits shall include the following medication:
- Epinephrine 1 : 1000
- Antihistamine – injectable
- Dextrose 50% (or equivalent) – injectable: 50ml
- Nitroglycerin tablets, or spray
- Major analgesic
- Sedative anticonvulsant – injectable
- Antiemetic – injectable
- Bronchial dilator – inhaler
- Atropine – injectable
- Adrenocortical steroid – injectable
- Diuretic – injectable
- Medication for postpartum bleeding
- Sodium chloride 0.9% (minimum 259ml)
- Acetyl salicylic acid (aspirin) for oral use
- Oral beta blocker
- Epinephrine 1 : 10000 (can be a dilution of epinephrine 1 : 1000)
Note: If a cardiac monitor is available (with or without an AED) add to the above list.
IS: 7.8.12 OXYGEN STORAGE AND DISPENSING APPARATUS

(a) The supplemental oxygen supply requirements for non-pressurized aircraft are as
follows:
(1) Flight crew members. Each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty shall be
supplied with supplemental oxygen in accordance with Table 1. If all occupants of

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flight deck seats are supplied from the flight crew source of oxygen supply then
they shall be considered as flight crew members on flight deck duty for the purpose
of oxygen supply.
(2) Cabin crew members, additional crew members and passengers. Cabin crew
members and passengers shall be supplied with oxygen in accordance with Table
1. Cabin crew members carried in addition to the minimum number of cabin crew
members required, and additional crew members, shall be considered as
passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply .
(b) The supplemental oxygen supply requirements for pressurized aircraft are as follows:
(1) The amount of supplemental oxygen required shall be determined on the basis of
cabin pressure altitude, flight duration and the assumption that a cabin
pressurization failure will occur at the altitude or point of flight that is most critical
from the standpoint of oxygen need, and that, after the failure, the aircraft will
descend in accordance with emergency procedures specified in the Aircraft Flight
Manual to a safe altitude for the route to be flown that will allow continued safe
flight and landing.
(2) Following a cabin pressurization failure, the cabin pressure altitude shall be
considered the same as the aircraft altitude, unless it is demonstrated to the
Authority that no probable failure of the cabin or pressurization system will result in
a cabin pressure altitude equal to the aircraft altitude. Under these circumstances,
this lower cabin pressure altitude may be used as a basis for determination of
oxygen supply.
(3) Flight crew members.
(i) Each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty shall be supplied with
supplemental oxygen in accordance with Table 2. If all occupants of flight deck
seats are supplied from the flight crew source of oxygen supply then they shall
be considered as flight crew members on flight deck duty for the purpose of
oxygen supply. Flight deck seat occupants, not supplied by the flight crew
source, are to be considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply.
(4) Cabin crew members, additional crew members, and passengers
(i) Cabin crew members and passengers shall be supplied with supplemental
oxygen in accordance with Table 2. Cabin crew members carried in addition to
the minimum number of cabin crew members required, and additional crew
members, shall be considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply.

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(ii) The oxygen supply requirements, as specified in Table 2, for aircraft not
certificated to fly at altitudes above 25,000 ft., may be reduced to the entire
flight time between 10,000 ft. and 14,000 ft. cabin pressure altitudes for all
required cabin crew members and for at least 10% of the passengers if, at all
points along the route to be flown, the aircraft is able to descend safely within
4 minutes to a cabin pressure altitude of 14,000 ft.
Notes:
1. The supply provided shall take account of the cabin pressure altitude and descent
profile for the routes concerned.
2. The required minimum supply is that quantity of oxygen necessary for a constant
rate of descent from the aircraft's maximum certificated operating altitude to 10,000
ft. in 10 minutes and followed by 20 minutes at 10,000 ft.
ft. in 10 minutes and followed by 110 minutes at 10,000 ft. The oxygen required to
meet the Crew Protective Breathing Equipment provisions of this Part may be
included in determining the supply required.
ft.
(c) The supplemental oxygen supply requirements for non-pressurized helicopters are as
follows:

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(1) An operator shall not operate a non-pressurized helicopter at pressure altitudes

above 10,000 ft unless supplemental oxygen equipment, capable of storing and
dispensing the oxygen supplies required, is provided.
(2) The amount of supplemental oxygen for sustenance required for a particular
operation shall be determined on the basis of flight altitudes and flight duration,
consistent with the operating procedures, established for each operation in the
Operations Manual and with the routes to be flown, and with the emergency
procedures specified in the Operations Manual.
(3) A helicopter intended to be operated above 10,000 ft. pressure altitude shall be
provided with equipment capable of storing and dispensing the oxygen supplies
required.
(4) Oxygen supply requirements:
(i) Flight crew members. Each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty shall
be supplied with supplemental oxygen in accordance with Table 3. If all
occupants of flight deck seats are supplied from the flight crew source of
oxygen supply then they shall be considered as flight crew members on flight
deck duty for the purpose of oxygen supply.
(ii) Cabin crew members, additional crew members and passengers. Cabin crew
members and passengers shall be supplied with oxygen in accordance with
Table 3. Cabin crew members carried in addition to the minimum number of
cabin crew members required, and additional crew members, shall be
considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply.
Note: For the purpose of this table “passengers” means passengers actually carried,
including infants.
IS: 7.9.14 COSMIC RADIATION DETECTION EQUIPMENT

(a) Compliance with the sampling requirements in subpart 7.9.14 (a)(2) may be
accomplished as follows:
(1) The sampling shall be carried out in conjunction with a Radiological Agency or
similar organization acceptable to the Authority.
(2) Sixteen route sectors, which include flight above 15,000 m (49,000 ft.), shall be
sampled every quarter (three months). Where less than sixteen route sectors which

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include flight above 15,000 m (49,000 ft.) are achieved each quarter, then all
sectors above 15,000 m (49,000 ft.) shall be sampled.
(3) The cosmic radiation recorded should include both the neutron and non-neutron
components of the radiation field.
(4) The results of the sampling, including a cumulative summary quarter on quarter,
should be reported to the Authority under arrangements acceptable to the
Authority.

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PCAR PART 8

PART 8
OPERATIONS

i
PCAR PART 8

ii
PCAR PART 8

iii
PCAR PART 8

iv
PCAR PART 8

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PCAR PART 8

First Amendment 21 March 2011 8.2.1.8 Documents to be Ramon S. Gutierrez
carried on Aircraft: All
Operations (c)
8.5.1.21Reporting of
Hazardous conditions
Privileges of Pilots Who
Have Attained Their 60th
Birthday and Curtailment
of Privileges of Pilots
Who Have Attained Their
65th Birthday (c)
8.10.1.30.1 Route and Area
Checks: Airplane Pilot
Qualification (b) and (c)
number (2) Note and (e)
8.10.1.41 Minimum
Qualification For A Flight
Operations Officer
Instructor
Second Amendment 01 August 2013 Inserted vertical bars on LT GEN William K
the previous amendments Hotchkiss III AFP
(Ret)
Third Amendment 31 October 2013 8.1.1.2 Definitions LT GEN William K
• Accelerate-stop Hotchkiss III AFP
distance available (Ret)
(ASDA)
• Airworthy
• Alternate
airport/aerodrome/
helicopter
a. Take-off
alternate
b. En-route
alternate
c. Destination
alternate
• Approach and
landing operations
using instrument

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PCAR PART 8
approach
procedures (A) (B)
(C) (D)
• Continuing
airworthiness
• Duty
• Duty period
• EDTO critical fuel
• EDTO significant
system
• Engine
• Extended diversion
time operations
(EDTO)
• Fatigue
• Fatigue risk
management
system (FRMS)
• Flight duty period
• Isolated aerodrome
• Land distance
available (LDA)
• Maximum
diversion time
• Navigation
specification
• Point of no return
• Rest period
• State safety
program
• Threshold time
8.1.1.3 Abbreviations
• EDTO – extended
diversion time
operation
8.6.2.2 Adequacy of
operation facilities (d)
(e) (f)
8.6.2.4 Meteorological
limitations for VFR
flights
8.6.2.5 IFR destination
airport/helicopter

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8.6.2.6.1 IFR destination

alternate
airport/helicopter (a)
(b) (c)
8.6.2.6.3 IFR destination
alternate requirement
8.6.2.9 Take-off alternate
airport/helicopter:
commercial air
transport operations
8.6.2.11 Requirements for
extended diversion time
operations – airplanes
[AOC]
8.6.2.12 En route alternate
airport: EDTO
operations
8.6.2.13.1 Fuel and oil
planning and
contingency factors (f)
(g) (h) (i) (j)
8.6.2.15.1 Commercial air
transport: piston-
engined airplanes (c)
(d) (e)
transport: turbine-
engined airplanes
8.6.2.15.6 In-flight fuel
management
8.7.1.3 Aircraft
performance
calculations
8.7.2.4.1 Take-off
limitations: airplanes
(a) (5)
8.7.2.6 En route
limitations: one engine
inoperative
8.7.2.7 En route
limitations: two engines
inoperative
8.8.1.7 Instrument
approach operating
minima (b)

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8.8.1.32 Airplane operating

procedures for rates of
climb and descent
8.10.1.34 Recurrent
training: cabin crew (c)
(2) (4) (5) (6)
8.11 Fatigue Management for
Flight Time, Flight Duty
Periods, Duty Periods and
Rest Periods: Commercial
Air Transport
8.11.1.1 Application
8.11.1.2 Managing Fatigue-
Related Safety Risks
8.11.1.7 Flight Time, Flight
Duty Periods, Duty
Periods and Rest Periods
Records
IS: 8.11.1.2 Managing
Fatigue-Related Safety
Risks
Fourth Amendment 28 January 2014 8.1.1.2 Definitions (66) LT GEN William K
Flight Operations Hotchkiss III AFP
Officer/Flight (Ret)
Dispatcher (74) Ground
Instructor (GI)
8.6.3 Operational
Information
8.6.3.1 AIP, AIRAC and
AIC
8.6.3.2 Crew Briefings
8.8.4.13 Continuation of an
Instrument Approach,
letter (c) and (d)
8.10.1.41 Minimum
Qualification for a
Flight Operations
Officer Instructor
Fifth Amendment 20 June 2014 8.10.1.1 Limitation of LT GEN William K
Privileges of Pilots who Hotchkiss III AFP
have Attained their 60th (Ret)
Birthday and
Curtailment of
have Attained their 65th
and 67th Birthday

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Sixth Amendment 30 June 2014 IS: 8.5.1.26 LT GEN William K

Guidelines/Procedures Hotchkiss III AFP
on the use of (Ret)
Transmitting Portable
Electronic Device on
Board the Aircraft
Seventh 08 August 2014 8.10.1.1 Limitation of LT GEN William K
Amendment Privileges of Pilots who Hotchkiss III AFP
have Attained their 60th (Ret)
Birthday and
Curtailment of
have Attained their 65th
and 67th Birthday (c)
Eighth Amendment 31 October 2014 8.2.1.8 Documents to be LT GEN William K
Carried on Aircraft: All Hotchkiss III AFP
Operations (a)(27) & (Ret)
(b)(20)
Ninth Amendment 01 July 2016 8.3.1.9 Maintenance and LT GEN William K
Inspection Records Hotchkiss III AFP
Retention (a) (Ret)
Tenth amendment 14 July 2016 8.5.1.22 Reporting of
Incident (e)
8.5.1.29 Laser Illumination
Against Civil Aircraft
(new Part)
Eleventh 24 November 8.1.1.2 Definitions (b) Capt. Jim C.

Amendment 2016 (159) Sydiongco
Twelfth 01 July 2017 8.1.1.2 Definitions Capt. Jim C.
Amendment • Airport operating Sydiongco
minima
- Take-off
- Landing in 2D
instrument approach
- Landing in 3D
instrument approach
• Aircraft tracking
• Approach procedure
with vertical guidance
(APV)
• Automatic dependent
surveillance – contract
(ADS-C)

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PCAR PART 8
• Cargo
• Continuous descent
final approach
(ADFA)
• Decision altitude (DA)
or Decision Height
(DH)
• Instrument approach
operations
• Instrument approach
procedure
• Non-precision
approach (NPA)
procedure
• Minimum descent
altitude (MDA)
• Obstacle clearance
altitude (OCA)
• Rescue
• Search
8.1.1.3 Abbreviations (a)
- ADS-C – Automatic
dependent
surveillance –
contract
- NOTOC – Notice to
captain
- SAR – Search and
rescue
8.2.2 [AOC] Aircraft
tracking
8.5.1.27 Carriage of
dangerous goods
8.5.1.27.1 General
8.5.1.27.2 State
responsibilities
8.5.1.27.3 Operator
responsibilities
8.5.1.27.3.1 Operators with
no operational approval
to transport dangerous
goods as cargo (no DG
carry operator)

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PCAR PART 8
8.5.1.27.3.2 Operators
transporting dangerous
goods as cargo (DG
carry operators)
8.6.2.1 Aircraft
airworthiness and safety
precautions (a) (1)
8.6.2.15 Minimum fuel
supply for IFR flights
transport: piston-engined
airplanes (c) (1) and (f)
8.6.2.15.6 In-flight fuel
management (b) Note
8.8.1.7 Instrument
approach operating
minima
8.8.1.29 Noise abatement
procedures (b)
8.8.2.5 Inadvertent changes
(a) (2) (3) and (b)
8.8.2.7 Position reports (d)
8.8.4 IFR flight rules
8.8.4.1 navigation
procedures (a) Note
8.12.1.4 Operational
control duties (a) (5)
IS: 8.8.1.7 Instrument
approach operating
minima (b) (5)
Thirteenth 23 April 2018 8.1.1.2 Definitions (b) Capt. Jim C.

Amendment • Airplane upset Sydiongco
• Airplane upset
prevention and
recovery training
(UPRT)
• Angle of attack
(AOA)
• Approach-to-stall
• Core Group UPRT
Instructors
• Developed upset
• Developing upset

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PCAR PART 8
• Energy state
• Fidelity level
• First indication of a
stall
• Flight crew resilience
• Flight path
• Flight path
management
• Load factor
• Loss of control in
flight (LOCI)
• Manoeuvre-based
training
• Negative training
• Negative transfer of
training
• Post-stall regime
• Scenario-based
training
• Spin
• Stall
• Stall Event
• Stall (event) recovery
procedure
• Stall warning
• Startle
• Stick pusher
• Stick shaker
• Stress (response)
• Surprise
• Train-to-proficiency
8.1.1.3 Abbreviations (a)
• AOA – Angle of
Attack
• UPRT – Airplane
upset prevention and
recovery training
8.10.1.8.3 Flight Crew
Member Training
Programs (c)
8.10.1.15 Initial Aircraft
Flight Training (b)

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PCAR PART 8
8.10.1.20 Aircraft and

Instrument Proficiency
Checks (d)
8.10.1.30.1 Route and Area
Checks: Airplane Pilot
Qualification (c) (1) (ii),
(iii) and (vi) (A)
8.10.1.33 Recurrent
Training: Flight Crew
Members (b) (6) and (c) (4)
8.10.1.36 Flight Instructor
Qualifications (a) (3)
IS: 8.10.1.9 Company
Procedures Indoctrination
(a) (9)
IS: 8.10.1.33 Recurrent
Training: Flight Crew (f)
Note and (14)
IS: 8.10.1.37 Flight
Instructor Training (g) (1)
and (h)
Fourteenth 25 September 8.2.2 [AOC] Aircraft Capt. Jim C.
Amendment 2018 Tracking (b) and (c) Sydiongco
Fifteenth 28 December 8.2.2 [AOC] Aircraft Capt. Jim C.
Amendment 2018 Tracking (d) and (e) Sydiongco
Sixteenth 20 March 2019 8.6.2.2 Adequacy of Capt. Jim C.
Amendment Operating Facilities Sydiongco
Note 2
Seventeenth 09 June 2020 8.6.1.6 Closing a Flight Capt. Jim C.
Amendment Plan (d) Sydiongco
8.8.1.5 Minimum Safe
Altitudes (a) (4)
Eighteenth 01 July 2020 8.5.1.27.1 General (g) Capt. Jim C.
Amendment Sydiongco
Nineteenth 22 December 8.13 Safety Management Capt. Jim C.
Amendment 2020 System – International Sydiongco
General Aviation
Operators

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Part 8 Operations
Record of Amendments vi – xiv Amendment 19 15 January 2021
List of Effective Pages xv – xxii Amendment 19 15 January 2021
Table of Contents xxiii – xxxv Amendment 19 15 January 2021
Introduction
Page

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xvii
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xviii
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8.10-1 Amendment 07 08 August 2014
8.10-10 Amendment 13 16 July 2018
8.10-14 Amendment 13 16 July 2018
8.10-17 Amendment 13 16 July 2018
8.10-19 Amendment 13 16 July 2018

xix
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IS-2 Amendment 06 30 June 2014

xx
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xxi
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xxii
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CONTENTS
8.1 General………………….………………….…………………………….. 8.1-1

.............
8.1.1 Applicability and Definitions…………………………………………….. 8.1-1
8.1.1.1 Applicability………………………………….…………………………… 8.1-1
………..
8.1.1.2 Definitions………………..……………………………………………… 8.1-1
…………………...
8.1.1.3 Abbreviations…………………………………….……………………… 8.1-18
……………………………...………………………………….............
8.2 General Operations Requirements................................................. 8.2-1
8.2.1 Aircraft Requirements………………………………………………….. 8.2-1
…………………………………...…………………………………...
8.2.1.1 Registration Markings…………………………………………………... 8.2-1
8.2.1.2 Civil Aircraft Airworthiness………………………………………………. 8.2-1
8.2.1.3 Special Airworthiness Certificate Operational Restrictions………… 8.2-1
8.2.1.4 Aircraft Instruments and Equipment…………………………………… 8.2-1
8.2.1.5 Inoperative Instruments and Equipment……………………………… 8.2-1
8.2.1.6 Civil Aircraft Flight Manual, Marking and Placard Requirements…… 8.2-2
8.2.1.7 Required Aircraft and Equipment Inspections ………………………. 8.2-2
8.2.1.8 Documents to be Carried on Aircraft: All Operations ……………….. 8.2-3
8.2.1.9 Insurance Requirements: All Operations….………………………..... 8.2-5
8.2.2 [AOC] Aircraft Tracking ………………………………………………… 8.2-5
8.3 Aircraft Maintenance Requirements…………….…..……………… 8.3-1
8.3.1.1 Applicability………………………………..…………………..………… 8.3-1
8.3.1.2 General…………………………………………………………………… 8.3-1
8.3.1.3 Annual Inspections……………………………………………………… 8.3-2
8.3.1.4 Annual/100 Hours Inspections …………………..…………………… 8.3-2
8.3.1.5 Progressive Inspections………………………………………………… 8.3-3
8.3.1.6 Continuous Airworthiness Maintenance Inspection………………… 8.3-4
8.3.1.7 Changes to Aircraft Maintenance Inspection Program……………… 8.3-4
8.3.1.8 Required Maintenance……………...………………………………….. 8.3-4
8.3.1.9 Maintenance and Inspection Records Retention……………………… 8.3-4
8.3.1.10 Lease or Sale of Aircraft-Transfer of Maintenance Records…........... 8.3-5
8.4 Flight Crew Requirements …………………………………………… 8.4-1
8.4.1.1 Composition of the Flight Crew ………………….…………………… 8.4-1
8.4.1.2 Flight Crew Qualifications……………………………………………… 8.4-1

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8.4.1.3 Authorization in Lieu of a Type Rating………………………………… 8.4-1

8.4.1.4 Licenses Required……………………………………………………… 8.4-2
8.4.1.5 Flight Crew: Limitations on Use of Services for Commercial Air
Transport………………………………………………………………… 8.4-2
8.4.1.6 Rating Required for IFR Operations………………………………….. 8.4-2
8.4.1.7 Special Authorization Required for Category II/III Operations……… 8.4-3
8.4.1.8 Pilot Logbooks …………………………………………………………… 8.4-3
8.4.1.9 Pilot Currency: Take-Off and Landings, and Cruise Relief………… 8.4-3
8.4.1.10 Pilot Currency: IFR Operations ……………………………………….. 8.4-4
8.4.1.11 Pilot Currency: General Aviation Operations………………………… 8.4-4
8.4.1.12 Pilot Privileges and Limitations………………………………………... 8.4-4
.
8.5 Crew Member Duties and Responsibilities …….….……………… 8.5-1
.
8.5.1.1 Authority and Responsibility of the PIC………………………………… 8.5-1
8.5.1.2 Compliance with Local Regulations……………………………………. 8.5-1
8.5.1.3 Negligent or Reckless Operations of the Aircraft…………………… 8.5-1
…
8.5.1.4 Fitness of Flight Crew Members……………………………………… 8.5-2
8.5.1.5 Prohibition on Use of Psychoactive Substances, Including
Narcotics, Drugs or Alcohol…………………………………………… 8.5-2
8.5.1.6 Flight Crew Member Use of Seat Belts and Safety Harnesses…… 8.5-2
8.5.1.7 Flight Crew Members at Duty Stations………………………………… 8.5-3
8.5.1.8 Required Crew Member Equipment…………………………………… 8.5-3
…..
8.5.1.9 Compliance with Checklists…………………………………………… 8.5-4
8.5.1.10 Search and Rescue Information………………………………………. 8.5-4
8.5.1.11 Production of Aircraft and Flight Documentation……………………… 8.5-4
..
8.5.1.12 Locking of Flight Deck Compartment Door: Commercial Air
Transport……………………………………………………………......… 8.5-4
8.5.1.13 Admission to the Flight Deck: Commercial Air Transport…………… 8.5-4
8.5.1.14 Admission of Inspector to the Flight Deck…………………………… 8.5-5
.
8.5.1.15 Duties During Critical Phases of Flight: Commercial Air Transport… 8.5-5
8.5.1.16 Manipulation of the Controls: Commercial Air Transport…………… 8.5-5
8.5.1.17 Simulated Abnormal Situations In Flight: Commercial Air Transport 8.5-5
8.5.1.18 Completion of the Technical Log: Commercial Air Transport………. 8.5-5
8.5.1.19 Reporting Mechanical Irregularities………………………………..….. 8.5-5

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8.5.1.20 Reporting of Facility and Navigation Aid Inadequacies……………… 8.5-6

8.5.1.21 Reporting of Hazardous Conditions…………………………………… 8.5-6
8.5.1.22 Reporting of Incidents…………………………………..……………… 8.5-6
8.5.1.23 Accident Notification……………………………………………………… 8.5-6
8.5.1.24 Operation of Flight Deck Voice and Flight Data Recorders………… 8.5-7
8.5.1.25 Crew Member Oxygen: Minimum Supply and Use…………………… 8.5-7
8.5.1.26 Portable Electronic Devices…………………………………………… 8.5-8
8.5.1.27 Carriage of Dangerous Goods……………………………….………… 8.5-8
.
8.5.1.27.1 General …………………………………………………………………… 8.5-8
8.5.1.27.2 State Responsibilities …………………………………………………… 8.5-9
8.5.1.27.3 Operator Responsibilities ………………………………………………. 8.5-9
8.5.1.27.3.1 Operators with no Operational Approval to Transport Dangerous
Goods as Cargo (No DG Carry Operator) ……………………………. 8.5-10
8.5.1.27.3.2 Operators Transporting Dangerous Goods as Cargo (DG Carry
Operators)………………………………………………………………… 8.5-11
8.5.1.28 Microphones……………………………………………………………… 8.5-11
8.5.1.29 Laser Illumination Against Civil Aircraft……………………………….. 8.5-11
8.6 Flight Planning and Supervision..................................................... 8.6-1
8.6.1 Flight Plans……………………………………………………………..... 8.6-1
8.6.1.1 Submission of a Flight Plan…………………….……………………… 8.6-1
8.6.1.2 Air Traffic Control Flight Plan: Commercial Air Transport…………… 8.6-1
8.6.1.3 Contents of a Flight Plan ……………………………………………… 8.6-1
8.6.1.4 Planned Reclearance…………………………………………………… 8.6-2
8.6.1.5 Changes to a Flight Plan………………………………………………… 8.6-2
8.6.1.6 Closing a Flight Plan…………………………………………………… 8.6-2
……….
8.6.2 Flight Planning and Preparation………………………………………… 8.6-3
8.6.2.1 Aircraft Airworthiness and Safety Precautions………………………… 8.6-3
8.6.2.2 Adequacy of Operating Facilities……………………………………… 8.6-3
8.6.2.3 Weather Reports and Forecasts……………………………………… 8.6-4
8.6.2.4 Meteorological Limitations for VFR Flights…………………………… 8.6-4
8.6.2.5 IFR Destination Airport/Heliport………………………………………… 8.6-4
8.6.2.6 Destination Alternate Airport/Heliport………………………………… 8.6-5
8.6.2.6.1 IFR Destination Alternate Airport/Heliport…………………………… 8.6-5

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8.6.2.6.2 When No Destination Alternate Airport/Heliport is Required………… 8.6-6

8.6.2.6.3 IFR Destination Alternate Requirement………..………………………. 8.6-6
8.6.2.7 IFR Alternate Airport/Heliport Selection Criteria……………………… 8.6-7
8.6.2.8 Off-Shore Alternates for Helicopter Operations……………………… 8.6-7
8.6.2.9 Take-Off Alternate Airports/Heliports: Commercial Air Transport
Operations……………………………………………………………….. 8.6-8
8.6.2.10 Maximum Distance from an Adequate Airport for Twin-Engined
Airplanes Without an EDTO Approval………………..………………. 8.6-9
8.6.2.11 Requirements for Extended Diversion Time Operations Airplanes
……
[AOC]………………………………………………………………………. 8.6-10
.
8.6.2.12 En Route Alternate Airports: EDTO Operations……….……………… 8.6-12
8.6.2.13 Fuel, Oil, and Oxygen Planning and Contingency Factors………… 8.6-13
8.6.2.13.1 Fuel and Oil Planning and Contingency Factors…………………….. 8.6-13
8.6.2.13.2 Oxygen Planning and Contingency Factors……………………….… 8.6-14
8.6.2.14 Minimum Fuel and Oil Supply for VFR Flights………………….…… 8.6-15
8.6.2.15 Minimum Fuel Supply for IFR Flights…………………………………. 8.6-15
8.6.2.15.1 Commercial Air Transport: Piston-Engined Airplanes…….………… 8.6-15
8.6.2.15.2 Commercial Air Transport: Turbine-Engined Airplanes…………….. 8.6-18
8.6.2.15.3 General Aviation Airplanes: IFR Flights……………………………… 8.6-19
8.6.2.15.4 Helicopters: IFR Flights………………………………………………….. 8.6-19
8.6.2.15.5 Fuel and Oil Computation: All Operations…………………………...… 8.6-19
…
8.6.2.15.6 In-Flight Management……………………………………………………. 8.6-20
8.6.2.16 Flight Planning Document Distribution And Retention: Commercial
Air Transport………………………………………………………………. 8.6-21
8.6.2.17 Aircraft Loading, Mass and Balance…………………………………… 8.6-21
8.6.2.18 Maximum Allowable Mass to be Considered on All Load Manifests 8.6-22
8.6.2.19 Flight Release Required: Commercial Air Transport………………… 8.6-22
8.6.2.20 Operational Flight Plan: Commercial Air Transport ………………… 8.6-22
8.6.3 Operational Information………………………………………………… 8.6-22
8.6.3.1 AIP, AIRAC and AIC…………………………………………………….. 8.6-22
8.6.3.2 Crew Briefings…………………………………………………………… 8.6-22
8.7 Aircraft Operating And Performance Limitations………………… 8.7-1
8.7.1 All Aircraft……………………………….…………………………..……. 8.7-1

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8.7.1.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………..… 8.7-1

……….
8.7.1.2 General…………………………………………………………………… 8.7-1
…………
8.7.1.3 Aircraft Performance Calculations……………………………………… 8.7-1
8.7.1.4 General Mass and Obstruction Clearance Limitations……………… 8.7-1
8.7.2 Aircraft Used in Commercial Air Transport…………………………… 8.7-2
8.7.2.1 Applicability…………………………………………………………….… 8.7-2
…………
8.7.2.2 General…………………………………………………………………… 8.7-2
…………
8.7.2.3 Aircraft Performance Calculations……………………………………… 8.7-3
8.7.2.3.1 Aircraft Performance Calculations: General……………..…………… 8.7-3
8.7.2.3.2 Aircraft Performance: Helicopters………………………………………. 8.7-4
8.7.2.3.3 Aircraft Performance: Helicopters Certificated in Accordance With
Part IV of Annex 8……………………………………………………… 8.7-4
8.7.2.4 Take-Off Limitations……………………………………………………… 8.7-5
8.7.2.4.1 Take-Off Limitations: Airplanes………………………………………… 8.7-5
8.7.2.4.2 Take-Off Limitations: Helicopters…………………..…………………… 8.7-6
8.7.2.5 En Route Limitations: All Power Units Operating……………..……… 8.7-7
.
8.7.2.6 En Route Limitations: One Engine Inoperative……………..………… 8.7-7
8.7.2.7 En Route Limitations: Two Engines Inoperative………..………..…… 8.7-8
8.7.2.8 Landing Limitations……………………………………………..………. 8.7-9
8.8 Flight Rules…………………………………..………………………….. 8.8-1
8.8.1 All Operations……………………………………………………………. 8.8-1
8.8.1.1 Operation of Aircraft on the Ground……………………….…………… 8.8-1
8.8.1.2 Take-Off Conditions……………………………………………………… 8.8-1
8.8.1.3 Flight Into Known or Expected Icing………………………………….. 8.8-1
8.8.1.4 Altimeter Settings……………..………………………………………….. 8.8-2
8.8.1.5 Minimum Safe Altitudes: General……………………………………… 8.8-2
8.8.1.6 Minimum Safe VFR Altitudes…………..……………………………… 8.8-2
8.8.1.7 Instrument Approach Operating Minima…………………….………… 8.8-2
.
8.8.1.8 Category II And III Operations: General Operating Rules…………… 8.8-4
8.8.1.9 Category II And Category III Manual ………………………………… 8.8-5
8.8.1.10 Authorization for Exemption from Certain Category II Operations… 8.8-6
8.8.1.11 Diversion Decision………………………………………………………. 8.8-6
8.8.1.12 Operating Near Other Aircraft Including Formation Flights………… 8.8-6

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8.8.1.13 Right-Of-Way Rules: Except Water Operations ……………………… 8.8-7

8.8.1.14 Right-Of-Way Rules: Water Operations………………..………..….… 8.8-8
.
8.8.1.15 Use of Aircraft Lights……………………….…………………..………. 8.8-9
8.8.1.16 Simulated Instrument Flight…………………………………………..… 8.8-9
8.8.1.17 In-Flight Simulation of Abnormal Situations………………………..… 8.8-10
8.8.1.18 Dropping, Spraying, Towing………………..…………………………… 8.8-10
8.8.1.19 Aerobatic Flight…………………….…………………………………….. 8.8-10
8.8.1.20 Flight Test Areas…………………….………………………………….. 8.8-10
8.8.1.21 Prohibited Areas and Restricted Areas………………………….…… 8.8-10
8.8.1.22 Operations in MNPS or RVSM Airspace……………………………… 8.8-10
8.8.1.23 Operations on or in the Vicinity of a Controlled or on Uncontrolled
Airport……………………………………………………………………… 8.8-12
8.8.1.24 Airport Traffic Pattern Altitudes: Turbojet, Turbofan, or Large
Aircraft…………………………………………………………………….. 8.8-12
8.8.1.25 Compliance With Visual and Electronic Glide Slopes……………..…. 8.8-12
8.8.1.26 Restriction or Suspension of Operations: Commercial Air Transport. 8.8-12
8.8.1.27 Continuation Of Flight When Destination Airport is Temporarily
Restricted: Commercial Air Transport…………………………..……... 8.8-13
8.8.1.28 Interception……………………………………………………………..… 8.8-13
……………….
8.8.1.29 Noise Abatement Procedures…………………………………………… 8.8-13
8.8.1.30 Minimum Flight Altitude………………………………………………… 8.8-13
8.8.1.31 Operations in Performance-Based Navigation (PBN) Airspace…… 8.8-14
8.8.1.32 Airplane Operating Procedures for Rates of Climb and Descent….. 8.8-14
8.8.2 Control of Air Traffic……………………………………………………. 8.8-15
8.8.2.1 ATC Clearances………………….………………………………………. 8.8-15
8.8.2.2 Adherence to ATC Clearances………………………………………… 8.8-15
8.8.2.3 Communications…………….…………………………………………… 8.8-15
8.8.2.4 Route to be Flown……………………………..………………………... 8.8-16
8.8.2.5 Inadvertent Changes…………………………………………………… 8.8-16
8.8.2.6 ATC Clearance: Intended Changes…………………………………… 8.8-16
8.8.2.7 Position Reports………………………………………………….…….. 8.8-17
8.8.2.8 Operations on or in the Vicinity of a Controlled Airport………...…… 8.8-17
8.8.2.9 Unlawful Interference…………………………………………………… 8.8-18

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8.8.2.10 Time Checks…………………………………………………………….. 8.8-18

8.8.2.11 Universal Signals………………..………………………………………. 8.8-18
8.8.3 VFR Flight Rules and Airspace Designation………………………… 8.8-18
8.8.3.1 Visual Meteorological Conditions and Airspace Designation……… 8.8-18
8.8.3.2 VFR Weather Minimums for Take-Off and Landing………………… 8.8-21
8.8.3.3 Special VFR Operations……………………………………………….. 8.8-22
8.8.3.4 VFR Cruising Altitudes………………………………………………….. 8.8-22
8.8.3.5 ATC Clearances for VFR Flights……………………………………… 8.8-22
8.8.3.6 VFR Flights Requiring ATC Authorization…………………………… 8.8-22
8.8.3.7 Weather Deterioration Below VMC…………………………………… 8.8-23
8.8.3.8 Changing from VFR to IFR………………………….………………… 8.8-23
8.8.3.9 Two-Way Radio Communication Failure in VFR…………………..… 8.8-23
8.8.4 IFR Flight Rules………………………………………….………………. 8.8-23
8.8.4.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………… 8.8-23
………………….
8.8.4.2 IFR in Controlled Airspace…………………………..…………………. 8.8-24
8.8.4.3 IFR Flights Outside Controlled Airspace………………………………. 8.8-24
8.8.4.4 IFR Take-Off Minimums for Commercial Air Transport……………… 8.8-24
8.8.4.5 Minimum Altitudes for IFR Operations…………………………….…… 8.8-24
8.8.4.6 Minimum Altitudes for Use of an Autopilot…………………………… 8.8-25
8.8.4.7 IFR Cruising Altitude or Flight Level in Controlled Airspace………… 8.8-25
8.8.4.8 IFR Cruising Altitude or Flight Level in Uncontrolled Airspace……… 8.8-25
8.8.4.9 IFR Radio Communications………………………….…………………. 8.8-26
8.8.4.10 Operation Under IFR in Controlled Airspace: Malfunction Reports… 8.8-26
8.8.4.11 Continuation of IFR Flight Toward A Destination…………………… 8.8-26
8.8.4.12 Instrument Approach Procedures and IFR Landing Minimums…… 8.8-27
8.8.4.13 Continuation of an Instrument Approach……………………………… 8.8-27
8.8.4.14 Instrument Approaches to Civil Airports……………………………… 8.8-27
8.8.4.15 Operation Below DH or MDA…………………………………………… 8.8-28
8.8.4.16 Landing During Instrument Meteorological Conditions……………… 8.8-29
8.8.4.17 Execution of a Missed Approach Procedure………………………… 8.8-29
8.8.4.18 Change from IFR Flight to VFR Flight……………………………….... 8.8-29
8.8.4.19 Two-Way Radio Communications Failure in IFR…………………… 8.8-29
8.8.4.20 Threshold Crossing Height for Precision Approaches……………… 8.8-30

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8.8.4.21 Additional Requirements for Operations of Helicopters in

Performance Class 3 in IMC, Except Special VFR Flights……….… 8.8-30
8.8.4.22 Additional Requirements for Single Pilot Operations Under the
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or at Night……………………………… 8.8-31
8.8.4.23 Additional Requirements for Single-Engine Turbine Powered
Airplanes at Night and/or in Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
Conditions…………………………………………………………………. 8.8-31
8.8.4.24 Restricted and Prohibited Areas……….……………………………….. 8.8-31
8.8.4.25 Flight into Restricted Airspace (RP-P1) ………………………..……… 8.8-32
8.9 Passengers and Passenger Handling……………………………… 8.9-1
8.9.1 All Passenger Carrying Operations…………………………………… 8.9-1
8.9.1.1 Unacceptable Conduct………………..………………………………… 8.9-1
8.9.1.2 Refueling with Passengers on Board………………………………… 8.9-1
8.9.1.3 Passenger Seats, Safety Belts, and Shoulder Harnesses…………… 8.9-1
8.9.1.4 Passenger Briefing……………..………………………………………. 8.9-2
8.9.1.5 In-Flight Emergency Instruction………………………………………… 8.9-3
8.9.1.6 Passenger Oxygen: Minimum Supply and Use………………….…… 8.9-3
8.9.1.7 Alcohol or Drugs………………………………….………………………. 8.9-3
8.9.1.8 Restriction on Smoking on Board Aircraft……………………………. 8.9-3
8.9.2 Commercial Air Transport Passenger Carrying Operations………… 8.9-3
8.9.2.1 Passenger Compliance with Instructions…………………………….. 8.9-3
8.9.2.2 Denial of Transportation…………………………………………….….. 8.9-3
8.9.2.3 Carriage of Persons Without Compliance with These Passenger
Carrying Requirements………………………………………….………. 8.9-4
8.9.2.4 Cabin Crew Members at Duty Stations………………………………… 8.9-4
8.9.2.5 Evacuation Capability…………………………………………………… 8.9-5
8.9.2.6 Arming of Automatic Emergency Exits………………………………… 8.9-5
8.9.2.7 Accessibility of Emergency Exits and Equipment……………............. 8.9-5
8.9.2.8 Stops Where Passengers Remain on Board…………………………. 8.9-5
8.9.2.9 Passengers Loading and Unloading……………………...…………… 8.9-5
8.9.2.10 Carriage of Persons with Reduced Mobility……………………..…… 8.9-5
8.9.2.11 Exit Row Seating…………………….…………………………….…….. 8.9-6
8.9.2.12 Prohibition Against Carriage of Weapons……………………………… 8.9-7

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8.9.2.13 Oxygen for Medical Use by Passengers…………………..…..……… 8.9-8

8.9.2.14 Carry-On Baggage………………………………………………………. 8.9-8
8.9.2.15 Carriage of Cargo in Passenger Compartments……………………… 8.9-8
8.9.2.16 Passenger Information Signs………………..………………………… 8.9-10
8.9.2.17 Required Passenger Briefings…………….…………………………… 8.9-10
8.9.2.18 Passenger Briefing: Extended Overwater Operations……………… 8.9-10
8.9.2.19 Passenger Seat Belts………………………….………………………… 8.9-11
8.9.2.20 Passenger Seat Backs………………………………………………… 8.9-11
8.9.2.21 Stowage of Food, Beverage and Passenger Service……………….. 8.9-11
8.9.2.22 Securing of Items of Mass in Passenger Compartment……………… 8.9-11
8.10 Crew Member and Flight Operations Officer Qualifications:
Commercial Air Transport…………………………………………….. 8.10-1
8.10.1.1 Limitation of Privileges of Pilots Who Have Attained Their 60th
Birthday and Curtailment of Privileges of Pilots Who Have Attained
Their 65th and 67th Birthday…..…………………………………………. 8.10-1
8.10.1.2 Use of Flight Simulation Training Devices…………………….………. 8.10-1
8.10.1.3 Approval of Flight Training Device for Credit in Training and
Checking………………………………………………………………… 8.10-2
8.10.1.4 License Requirements for PIC………….………………………………. 8.10-2
8.10.1.5 License Requirements for Co-Pilot and Cruise Relief Pilot………… 8.10-2
8.10.1.6 FE License Requirements…………………….………………………… 8.10-2
8.10.1.7 Persons Qualified to Flight Release……………………..…………… 8.10-3
8.10.1.8 Training Programs……………..……………………………..………… 8.10-4
8.10.1.8.1 Applicability and Terms Used……………………………….………… 8.10-4
8.10.1.8.2 Mixed Fleet Flying and Cross-Crew Qualification Training………… 8.10-5
8.10.1.8.3 Flight Crew Member Training Programs……………………………… 8.10-6
8.10.1.9 Company Procedures Indoctrination……………………..…………… 8.10-7
8.10.1.10 Initial Dangerous Goods Training……………………………………… 8.10-7
8.10.1.11 Initial Security Training………………………………………………… 8.10-7
8.10.1.12 Initial Crew Resource Management……………………………………. 8.10-7
8.10.1.13 Initial Emergency Equipment Drills…………………………………… 8.10-7
8.10.1.14 Initial Aircraft Ground Training………………………………………… 8.10-7
8.10.1.15 Initial Aircraft Flight Training…………………………………………… 8.10-8

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8.10.1.16 Initial Specialized Operations Training………………………………… 8.10-8

8.10.1.17 Aircraft Differences……………………………………………………… 8.10-9
8.10.1.18 Reserved……………………..…………………………………………… 8.10-9
8.10.1.19 Introduction of New Equipment or Procedures……………………….. 8.10-9
8.10.1.20 Aircraft and Instrument Proficiency Checks……………………….… 8.10-10
8.10.1.21 Re-Establishing Recent Experience: Flight Crew…………………..… 8.10-10
8.10.1.22 Pairing of Low Experience Crew Members…………………………… 8.10-11
8.10.1.23 Flight Engineer and Flight Navigator Proficiency Checks…………… 8.10-11
8.10.1.24 Recent Experience, Competency Checks And Operation On More
Than One Type Of Aircraft: Cabin Crew Members………….……..…. 8.10-11
8.10.1.24.1 Recent Experience: Cabin Crew Members…………………….……… 8.10-11
8.10.1.24.2 Competency Checks: Cabin Crew Members………………………… 8.10-11
8.10.1.24.3 Operation On More Than One Type Of Aircraft: Cabin Crew
Members………………………………………………………………….. 8.10-12
8.10.1.25 Competency Checks: Flight Operations Officers…………………….. 8.10-12
8.10.1.26 Supervised Line Flying: Pilots………………………………….….…… 8.10-12
8.10.1.27 Supervised Line Flying: Flight Engineers……………………………… 8.10-13
8.10.1.28 Supervised Line Experience: Cabin Crew Members………………… 8.10-13
8.10.1.29 Line Observations: Flight Operations Officers………………………… 8.10-13
8.10.1.30 Route and Area Checks: Pilot Qualification…………………………. 8.10-13
8.10.1.30.1 Route and Area Checks: Airplane Pilot Qualification………………… 8.10-13
8.10.1.30.2 Operational Qualifications: Helicopter PIC……………………………. 8.10-15
8.10.1.31 PIC Low Minimums Authorization……………………………………… 8.10-16
8.10.1.32 Designated Special Airports And Heliports: PIC Qualification……… 8.10-16
8.10.1.33 Recurrent Training: Flight Crew Members……………………………. 8.10-16
8.10.1.34 Recurrent Training: Cabin Crew………………………………………… 8.10-18
8.10.1.35 Recurrent Training: Flight Operations Officers……………………… 8.10-19
8.10.1.36 Flight Instructor Qualifications………………………………………..… 8.10-19
8.10.1.37 Flight Instructor Training………………………………………………… 8.10-19
8.10.1.38 Check Airman Designation…………………………………………..… 8.10-19
8.10.1.39 Check Airman Qualifications……………………………………………. 8.10-20
8.10.1.40 Check Airman Training………………………………………………… 8.10-21
8.10.1.41 Minimum Qualification For A Flight Operations Officer Instructor ….. 8.10-21

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8.10.1.42 Reserved………………………………………………………………… 8.10-21

…
8.10.1.43 Monitoring Training And Checking Activities…………………………. 8.10-22
8.10.1.44 Termination Of A Proficiency, Competence Or Line Check………… 8.10-22
8.10.1.45 Recording of Crew Member Qualifications…………………………… 8.10-22
8.10.1.46 Reserved…………….…………………………………………………… 8.10-22
8.10.1.47 Eligibility Period…………………………………………………………. 8.10-22
8.10.1.48 Reductions in Requirements…………………………………...……….. 8.10-22
8.10.1.49 Records of Cosmic Radiation…………………………………….…… 8.10-23
8.10.1.50 Single Pilot Operations Under IFR or at Night…………………….… 8.10-23
8.11 Fatigue Management for Flight Time, Flight Duty Periods, Duty
Periods and Rest Periods: Commercial Air Transport……..……. 8.11-1
8.11.1.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………….. 8.11-1
8.11.1.2 Management Fatigue-Related Safety Risks………………………….. 8.11-1
8.11.1.3 Duty And Rest Periods: All Crew Members………………….…….….. 8.11-2
8.11.1.4 Duty Aloft: Flight Crew Members……………………………………….. 8.11-3
8.11.1.5 Compliance With Scheduling Requirements: All Crew Members…… 8.11-3
8.11.1.6 Special Flight Duty Schemes: All Crew Members…………………….. 8.11-3
8.11.1.7 Flight Time, Flight Duty, Duty and Rest Periods Records…………… 8.11-3
8.11.1.8 Flight Time, Duty and Rest Periods: Flight Crew Members………………8.11-3
8.11.1.9 Flight Crew Flight Time, Duty and Rest Periods: Scheduled and
Nonscheduled Domestic Commercial Air Transport Operations……… 8.11-5
8.11.1.9.1 Flight Time, Duty and Rest Periods: Flight Crew Members…………. 8.11-5
8.11.1.10 Flight Crew Flight Time, Duty And Rest Periods: Scheduled and
Nonscheduled International Commercial Air Transport Operations…… 8.11-6
8.11.1.10.1 Flight Time, Duty and Rest Periods: Aircraft Type Certificated for
……..…
Two Pilots…………………………………………………………………. 8.11-6
8.11.1.10.2 Flight Time, Duty And Rest Periods: Aircraft Type Certificated for
Two Pilots and One Other Flight Crew Member……………………... 8.11-7
8.11.1.10.3 Flight Time, Duty and Rest Periods: Augmented Crew Members………8.11-7
8.11.1.10.4 Flight Time, Duty and Rest Periods: Pilots Not Regularly Assigned……8.11-7
8.11.1.10.5 Flight Time, Duty and Rest Periods: Other Commercial Flying……… 8.11-8
8.11.1.11 Flight Operations Officer/Flight Dispatchers Duty Time and Rest
Periods Requirements: Scheduled International and Scheduled

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Domestic Operators……….................................................................... 8.11-8

8.11.1.12 Cabin Crew Duty Time and Rest Periods Requirements: Scheduled
and Non-Scheduled International and Domestic Operators…………. 8.11-8
8.12 Flight Release: Commercial Air Transport…………………………… 8.12-1
8.12.1.1 Applicability…………………………….………………………………………8.12-1
………….
8.12.1.2 Qualified Persons Required for Operational Control Functions……… 8.12-1
8.12.1.3 Functions Associated with Operational Control……………………….. 8.12-1
8.12.1.4 Operational Control Duties………………………………………………. 8.12-2
8.12.1.5 Contents of a Flight Release/Operational Flight Plan……….………… 8.12-3
8.12.1.6 Flight Release: Aircraft Requirements………………….………………. 8.12-3
8.12.1.7 Flight Release: Facilities and NOTAMs ………………...………………. 8.12-3
8.12.1.8 Flight Release: Weather Reports and Forecasts….………………….. 8.12-3
8.12.1.9 Flight Release in Icing Conditions……………..………………………. 8.12-4
8.12.1.10 Flight Release Under VFR or IFR………………………………….…… 8.12-4
8.12.1.11 Flight Release: Minimum Fuel Supply………………………………… 8.12-4
8.12.1.12 Flight Release: Aircraft Loading and Performance…………………… 8.12-4
8.12.1.13 Flight Release: Amendment or Re-Release En Route……………… 8.12-4
8.12.1.14 Flight Release with Airborne Weather Radar Equipment…………… 8.12-5
8.13 Safety Management System – International General Aviation
Operators………………………………………………………………… 8.13-1
IS 8.2.1.5 Inoperative Instruments and Equipment……………………………… IS-2
IS 8.5.1.26 Guidelines/Procedures on the use of Transmitting Portable
Electronic Device on Board the Aircraft……………………………..... IS-2
IS 8.8.1.7 Instrument Approach Operating Minima……………………………… IS-3
IS 8.8.1.9 Category II and III Manual……………………………………………… IS-3
IS 8.8.1.28 Interception of Civil Aircraft……………………………………………… IS-4
IS 8.8.2.11 Universal Aviation Signals………………………………………………. IS-7
IS 8.8.3.4 Table of Cruising Levels………………………………………………… IS-20
IS 8.8.4.6 Auto-Land in Category I or Better Weather Conditions……………… IS-23
IS 8.10.1.9 Company Procedures Indoctrination……………………..…………… IS-24
IS 8.10.1.10 Initial Dangerous Goods Training……………………………………… IS-24
IS 8.10.1.12 Initial Crew Resource Management Training……………………...… IS-26
IS 8.10.1.13 Initial Emergency Equipment Drills……………………………………. IS-27
IS 8.10.1.14 (b) Initial Aircraft Ground Training - Flight Crew………………………… IS-31

xxxiv
PCAR PART 8
IS 8.10.1.14 (c1) Initial and Re-Qualification Aircraft Ground Training: Cabin Crew
Members…………………………………………………………………... IS-37
IS 8.10.1.14 (c2) Check Cabin Crew: Initial and Re-Qualification Training……………. IS-40
IS 8.10.1.14(d) Initial Aircraft Ground Training: Flight Operations Officer…………… IS-42
IS 8.10.1.15 Initial Aircraft Flight Training……………………………………………. IS-44
IS 8.10.1.16 Initial Specialized Operations Training………………………………… IS-49
IS 8.10.1.17 Aircraft Differences……………………………………………………… IS-49
IS 8.10.1.20 Aircraft And Instrument Proficiency Check: Pilot……………………… IS-50
IS 8.10.1.21 Flight Engineer Proficiency Checks…………………………………… IS-51
IS 8.10.1.22 Pairing Of Low Experience Crew Members: Commercial Air
Transport………………………………………………………………….. IS-52
IS 8.10.1.24 Competency Checks: Cabin Crew Members…………..…………...… IS-53
IS 8.10.1.25 Competence Checks: Flight Operations Officers….…………………. IS-54
IS 8.10.1.33 Recurrent Training: Flight Crew ……………………………………….. IS-55
IS 8.10.1.34 Recurrent Emergency Training: Cabin Crew Members……………… IS-60
IS 8.10.1.35 Recurrent Training - Flight Operations Officer ……………………….. IS-63
IS 8.10.1.36 Reserved………………………………………………………………… IS-63
IS 8.10.1.37 Flight Instructor Training………………………………………………… IS-63
IS 8.10.1.40 Check Airman Training…………………………………….…………… IS-65
IS 8.11.1.2 Managing Fatigue-Related Safety Risks…………………………….. IS-66

xxxv
PCAR PART 8
8.1 GENERAL
8.1.1 APPLICABILITY AND DEFINITIONS
(a) (1) The Standards and Recommended Practices contained in Annex 6 Part I shall be
applicable to the operation of airplanes by operators authorized to conduct
commercial air transport operations (international and domestic).
(2) The Standards and Recommended Practices contained in Annex 6, Part II
(airplanes), and Annex 6 Part III Section III (helicopters) shall be applicable to
general aviation operations (international and domestic).
(3) The Standards and Recommended Practices contained in Annex 6, Part III
Sections I and II, shall be applicable to all helicopters engaged in commercial air
transport operations (international and domestic), except for these Standards and
Recommended Practices are not applicable to helicopters in aerial work.
(b) CAR Part 8 prescribes the requirements for:
(1) Operations conducted by airman certified in Republic of the Philippines while
operating aircraft registered in Republic of the Philippines.
(2) Operations of foreign registered aircraft by Republic of the Philippines Operators.
(3) Operations of aircraft within Republic of the Philippines by airman or Operators of
a foreign State.
(c) For operations outside of Republic of the Philippines, all Republic of the Philippines
pilots and operators shall comply with these requirements unless compliance would
result in a violation of the laws of the foreign State in which the operation is conducted.
Note: Where a particular requirement is applicable only to a particular segment of
aviation operations, it will be identified by a reference to those particular operations,
such as “commercial air transport" or “small non-turbojet or turbofan airplanes”.
Note: Those specific subsections not applicable to foreign operators will include the
phrase “This requirement is not applicable to foreign operators"
8.1.1.2 DEFINITIONS
(a) For general definitions, refer to CAR Part 1.
(b) When the following terms are used in this Part and definitions for the operation of
airplanes and helicopters in, they have the following meanings:
(1) Accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA). The length of the take-off run
available plus the length of stopway, if provided.
(2) Advisory airspace. An airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within
which air traffic advisory service is available.
(3) Aerial work. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialized
services such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation
and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.
(4) Aerobatic flight. Maneuvers intentionally performed by an aircraft involving an
abrupt change in its attitude, an abnormal attitude, or an abnormal variation in
speed.

8.1-1
PCAR PART 8
(5) Aircraft. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions
of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth's surface.
(6) Aircraft category. Classification of aircraft according to specified basic
characteristics, e.g. airplane (aeroplane), helicopter, glider, free balloon.
(7) Aircraft certificated for single-pilot operation. A type of aircraft which the State
with a minimum crew of one pilot.
(8) Aircraft operating manual. A manual, acceptable to the State of the Operator,
containing normal, abnormal and emergency procedures, checklists, limitations,
performance information, details of the aircraft systems and other material relevant
to the operation of the aircraft.
Note: The aircraft operating manual is part of the operations manual.
(9) Aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot. A type of aircraft that is required
to be operated with a co-pilot, as specified in the flight manual or by the air operator
certificate.
(10) Aircraft tracking. A process, established by the operator, that maintains and
updates, at standardized intervals, a ground-based record of the four dimensional
position of individual aircraft in flight.
(11) Aircraft - type of. All aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications
thereto except those modifications which result in a change in handling or flight
characteristics.
(12) Airmanship. The consistent use of good judgment and well-developed
knowledge, skills and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives.
(13) Air navigation facility. Any facility used in, available for use in, or designed for
use in aid of air navigation, including airports, landing areas, lights, any apparatus
or equipment for disseminating weather information, for signaling, for radio
directional finding, or for radio or other electrical communication, and any other
structure or mechanism having a similar purpose for guiding or controlling flight in
the air or the landing and take-off of aircraft.
(14) Air operator certificate (AOC). A certificate authorizing an operator to carry out
specified commercial air transport operations.
(15) Airplane (aeroplane). A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in
flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under
given conditions of flight.
(16) Airplane upset. An undesired airplane state characterized by unintentional
divergences from parameters normally experienced during operations. An
airplane upset may involve pitch and/or bank angle divergences as well as
inappropriate airspeeds for the conditions.
(17) Airplane upset prevention and recovery training (UPRT). A combination of
theoretical knowledge and flying training with the aim of providing flight crew with
the required competencies to prevent or recover from developing or developed
airplane upsets.
Note: Airplane upset ‘prevention training’ means a combination of theoretical
knowledge flying training with the air to provide flight crew with the required
competencies to prevent developing airplane upsets.

8.1-2
PCAR PART 8
Airplane ‘recovery training’ means a combination of theoretical knowledge and

flying training with the aim to provide flight crew with the required competencies
to recover from developed airplane upsets.
(18) Airport (aerodrome). A defined area on land or water including any buildings,
installations and equipment intended to be used either wholly or in part for the
arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.
(19) Airport operating minima. The limits of usability of an airport for:
(i) take-off, expressed in terms of runway visual range and/or visibility and, if
necessary, cloud conditions;
(ii) landing in 2D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of
visibility and/or runway visual range, minimum descent altitude/height
(MDA/H) and, if necessary, cloud conditions; and
(iii) landing in 3D instrument approach operations expressed in terms of
visibility and/or runway visual range and decision altitude/height (DA/H
appropriate to the type and/or category of the operation.
(20) Airworthy. The status of an aircraft, engine, propeller or part when it conforms to
its approved design and is in a condition for safe operation.
(21) Alternate airport/aerodrome/heliport. An airport/heliport to which an aircraft
may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or
to land at the airport/heliport of intended landing where the necessary services
and facilities are available, where aircraft performance requirements can be met
and which is operational at the expected time of use. Alternate airports/heliports
(a) Take-off alternate. An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft would be
able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not
possible to use the airport/heliport of departure.
(b) En-route alternate. An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft would be
able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route.
(c) Destination alternate. An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft would
be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the
airport/heliport of intended landing.
(22) Altimetry system error (ASE). The difference between the altitude indicated by
the altimeter display, assuming a correct altimeter barometric setting, and the
pressure altitude corresponding to the undisturbed ambient pressure.
(23) Angle of attack (AOA). The angle between the oncoming air, or relative wind,
and a defined reference line on the airplane or wing.
(24) Approach and landing phase - helicopters. That part of the flight from 300 m
(1,000 ft) above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this
height, or from the commencement of the descent in the other cases, to landing
or to the balked landing point.
(25) Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV). A performance-based
on navigation systems (ILS, MLS, GLS and SBAS Cat I) designed for 3D
instrument approach operations Type A or B.
Note: Refer to Subsection 8.8.1.7 paragraph (f) for instrument approach operation
types.
(26) Approach-to-stall. Flight conditions bordered by the stall warning and stall.

8.1-3
PCAR PART 8
(27) Appropriate airworthiness requirements. The comprehensive and detailed

airworthiness codes established, adopted or accepted by Republic of the
Philippines for the class of aircraft, engine or propeller under consideration.
(28) Approved training. Training conducted under special curricula and supervision
approved by a Contracting State that, in the case of flight crew members, is
conducted within an approved training organization.
(29) Approved training organization. An organization approved by a Contracting
State in accordance with the requirements of Annex 1, 1.2.8.2 and Appendix 2 to
perform flight crew training and operating under the supervision of that State.
(30) Area navigation (RNAV). A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation
on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground- or space-based
navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a
combination of these.
Note: Area navigation includes performance-based navigation as well as other
operations that do not meet the definition of performance-based navigation.
(31) Automatic dependent surveillance – contract (ADS-C): means by which the
terms of an ADS-C agreement will be exchanged between the ground system and
the aircraft, via a date link, specifying under what conditions ADS-C reports would
be initiated, and what data would be contained in the reports.
(32) Cabin crew member. A crew member who performs, in the interest of safety of
passengers, duties assigned by the operator or the PIC of the aircraft, but who
shall not act as a flight crew member.
(33) Calendar day. The period of elapsed time, using Coordinated Universal Time or
local time that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later in the next midnight.
(34) Cargo. Any property carried on an aircraft other than mail and accompanied or
mishandled baggage.
(35) Check airman (aircraft) [airplane/helicopter]. A person who is qualified, and
permitted, to conduct an evaluation in an airplane/helicopter, in a flight simulator,
or in a flight training device for a particular type airplane/helicopter, for a particular
Operator.
(36) Check airman (simulator). A person who is qualified to conduct an evaluation,
but only in a flight simulator or in a flight training device for a particular type aircraft,
for a particular Operator.
(37) Commercial air transport operation. An aircraft operation involving the
transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.
(38) Configuration deviation list (CDL). A list established by the organization
responsible for the type design with the approval of the State of Design which
identifies any external parts of an aircraft type which may be missing at the
commencement of a flight, and which contains, where necessary, any information
on associated operating limitations and performance correction.
(39) Congested area. In relation to a city, town or settlement, any area which is
substantially used for residential, commercial or recreational purposes.
(40) Congested hostile environment. A hostile environment within a congested area.
(41) Controlled flight. Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance.
(42) Co-pilot. A licensed pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as PIC but
excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight

8.1-4
PCAR PART 8
instruction. Co-pilot may also mean Second-in-command (SIC) or First Officer

(FO).
(43) Continuing Airworthiness. The set of processes by which an aircraft, engine,
propeller or part complies with the applicable airworthiness requirements and
remains in a condition for safe operation throughout its operating life.
(44) Continuous descent final approach (CDFA). A technique, consistent with
stabilized approach procedures, for flying the final approach segment of a non-
precision instrument approach procedure as a continuous descent, without level-
off, from an altitude/height at or above the final approach fix altitude/height to a
point approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing runway threshold or the point
where the flare maneuver should begin for the type of aircraft flown.
(45) Core Group UPRT Instructors. Core team of instructors responsible for proper
UPRT implementation and quality assurance.
(46) Crew member. A person assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during a
flight duty period.
(47) Critical engine. The engine whose failure would most adversely affect the
performance or handling qualities of an aircraft.
(48) Critical phases of flight. Those portions of operations involving taxiing, take-off
and landing, and all flight operations below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight.
(49) Cruise relief pilot. A flight crew member who is assigned to perform pilot tasks
during cruise flight, to allow the PIC or a co-pilot to obtain planned rest.
(50) Cruising level. A level maintained during a significant portion of a flight.
(51) Dangerous goods. Articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to
health, safety, property or the environment and which are shown in the list of
dangerous goods in the Technical Instructions or which are classified according
to those Instructions.
(52) Deadhead Transportation. Time spent in transportation on aircraft to or from a
crew member's home station.
(53) Decision altitude (DA) or decision height (DH). A specified altitude or height in
the precision approach or approach with vertical guidance at which a missed
approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the
approach has not been established.
(54) Defined point after take-off (DPATO). The point, within the take-off and initial
climb phase, before which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with
one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required.
(55) Defined point before landing (DPBL). The point, within the approach and
landing phase, after which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with
one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required.
(56) Developed upset. A condition meeting the definition of an airplane upset.
(57) Developing upset. Any time the airplane begins to unintentionally diverge from
the intended flight path or airspeed.
(58) Duty. Any task that flight or cabin crew members are required by the operator to
perform, including for example, flight duty, administrative work, training,
positioning and standby when it is likely to induce fatigue.

8.1-5
PCAR PART 8
(59) Duty period. A period which starts when flight or cabin crew personnel are
required by an operator to report for or to commence a duty and ends when that
person is free from all duties.
(60) EDTO critical fuel. The fuel quantity necessary to fly to an en-route alternate
aerodrome considering, at the most critical point on the route, the most limiting
system failure.
(61) EDTO-significant system. An airplane system whose failure or degradation
could adversely affect the safety particular to an EDTO flight, or whose continued
functioning is specifically important to the safe flight and landing of an airplane
during an EDTO diversion.
(62) Effective length of the runway. The distance for landing from the point at which
the obstruction clearance plane associated with the approach end of the runway
intersects the centerline of the runway to the far end.
(63) Elevated heliport. A heliport located on a raised structure on land.
(64) Emergency locator transmitter (ELT). A generic term describing equipment
which broadcast distinctive signals on designated frequencies and, depending on
application, may be automatically activated by impact or be manually activated.
An ELT may be any of the following:
(i) Automatic fixed ELT (ELT (AF)). An automatically activated ELT which is
permanently attached to an aircraft.
(ii) Automatic portable ELT [ELT (AP)]. An automatically activated ELT which is
rigidly attached to an aircraft but readily removable from the aircraft.
(iii) Automatic deployable ELT [ELT (AD)]. An ELT which is rigidly attached to an
aircraft and which is automatically deployed and activated by impact, and, in
some cases, also by hydrostatic sensors. Manual deployment is also provided.
(iv) Survival ELT [ELT(S)]. An ELT which is removable from an aircraft, stowed so
as to facilitate its ready use in an emergency, and manually activated by
survivors.
(65) Energy state. How much of each kind of energy (kinetic, potential or chemical)
the airplane has available at any given time.
(66) Engine. A unit used or intended to be used for aircraft propulsion. It consists of at
least those components and equipment necessary for the functioning and control,
but excludes the propeller (if applicable).
(67) En-route phase. That part of the flight from the end of the take-off and initial climb
phase to the commencement of the approach and landing phase.
(68) Extended diversion time operations (EDTO). Any operation by an airplane with
two or more turbine engines where the diversion time to an en-route alternate
aerodrome is greater than the threshold time established by the Authority.
(69) Extended over-water operation.
(i) With respect to aircraft having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5,700
kg (12,000 lbs) or more, other than helicopters, an operation over water at a
horizontal distance of more than 400 nm from the nearest shoreline or the
distance that can be covered in 120 minutes of flight at the published one
power-unit inoperative cruising speed (in still air, in ISA conditions), whichever
distance is lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site;

8.1-6
PCAR PART 8
(ii) With respect to aircraft having a maximum certificated take-off mass equal to
or less than 5,700 kg (12,000 lbs), other than helicopters, an operation over
water at a horizontal distance of more than 100 nm from the nearest shoreline
or the distance that can be covered in 30 minutes of flight at the published one
power-unit inoperative cruising speed (in still air, in ISA conditions), whichever
distance is lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site; or
(iii) With respect to helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of
more than 50 nm from the nearest shoreline and more than 50 nm from an
offshore heliport structure.
(70) Fatigue. A physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance
capability resulting from sleep loss or extended wakefulness, circadian phase, or
workload (mental and/or physical activity) that can impair a crew member's
alertness and ability to safely operate an aircraft or perform safety-related duties.
(71) Fatigue Risk Management System (FRMS). A data-driven means of
continuously monitoring and managing fatigue-related safety risks, based upon
scientific principles and knowledge as well as operational experience that aims to
ensure relevant personnel are performing at adequate levels of alertness.
(72) Fidelity level. The level of realism assigned to each of the defined FSTD features.
(73) Final approach and take-off area (FATO). A defined area over which the final
phase of the approach maneuver to hover or landing is completed and from which
the take-off maneuver is commenced. Where the FATO is to be used by
performance class 1 helicopters, the defined area includes the rejected take-off
area available.
(74) First indication of a stall. The initial aural, tactile or visual sign of an impending
stall, which can be either naturally or synthetically induced.
(75) Flight(s). The period from take-off to landing.
(76) Flight crew member. A licensed crew member charged with duties essential to
the operation of an aircraft during a flight duty period.
(77) Flight crew resilience. The ability of a flight crew member to recognize, absorb
and adapt to disruptions. Resilience can be increased by raising the level of
competence and by achieving the appropriate level of confidence.
(78) Flight data analysis. A process of analyzing recorded flight data in order to
improve the safety of flight operations.
(79) Flight duty period. A period which commences when a flight or cabin crew
member is required to report for duty that includes a flight or a series of flights and
which finishes when the airplane finally comes to rest and the engines are shut
down at the end of the last flight on which he/she is a crew member.
(80) Flight manual. A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness,
containing limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and
instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe
operation of the aircraft.
(81) Flight operations officer/flight dispatcher. A person designated by the operator
to engage in the control and supervision of flight operations, whether licensed or
not, suitably qualified in accordance with CAR Part 2, who supports, briefs and/or
assists the PIC in the safe conduct of the flight.
(82) Flight path. The trajectory or path of the airplane travelling through the air over a
given space of time.

8.1-7
PCAR PART 8
(83) Flight path management. An active manipulation, using either the airplanes
automation or manual handling, to command the airplane flight controls to direct
the airplane along a desired trajectory.
(84) Flight plan. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to
an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft. The term "flight plan" is used
to mean variously, full information on all items comprised in the flight plan
description, covering the whole route of a flight, or limited information required
when the purpose is to obtain a clearance for a minor portion of a flight such as to
cross an airway, to take off from, or to land at a controlled airport/heliport.
(85) Flight recorder. Any type of recorder installed in the aircraft for the purpose of
complementing accident/incident investigation.
(86) Flight safety documents system. A set of inter-related documentation
established by the operator, compiling and organizing information necessary for
flight and ground operations, and comprising, as a minimum, the operations
manual and the operator's maintenance control manual.
(87) Flight simulation training device. Any one of the following three types of
apparatus in which flight conditions are simulated on the ground:
(i) A flight simulator. which provides an accurate representation of the flight deck
of a particular aircraft type to the extent that the mechanical, electrical,
electronic, etc. aircraft systems control functions, the normal environment of
flight crew members, and the performance and flight characteristics of that type
of aircraft are realistically simulated;
(ii) A flight procedures trainer, which provides a realistic flight deck environment,
and which simulates instrument responses, simple control functions of
mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc. aircraft systems, and the performance
and flight characteristics of aircraft of a particular class; and
(iii) A basic instrument flight trainer, which is equipped with appropriate
instruments, and which simulates the flight deck environment of an aircraft in
flight in instrument flight conditions.
(88) Flight time. The period of time that the aircraft moves under its own power for the
purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after it is parked with
engine(s) shut down:
(i) Flight time - airplanes. The total time from the moment an airplane first moves
for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end
of the flight.
Note. - Flight time as here defined is synonymous with the term "block to block'.
Time or "chock to chock” time in general usage which is measured from time
an airplane first moves for the purpose of taking off until it finally stops at the
end of the flight.
(ii) Flight time - helicopters. The total time from the moment a helicopter's rotor
blades start turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the
end of the flight, and the rotor blades are stopped.
(89) General aviation operation. An aircraft operation other than a commercial air
transport operation or an aerial work operation.
(90) Ground handling. Services necessary for an aircraft’s arrival at, and departure
from, an airport/heliport, other than air traffic services.

8.1-8
PCAR PART 8
(91) Ground Instructor (GI). Rating allows the holder to give the ground instruction
required for a Flight Operation Officer/Flight Dispatcher.
(92) Helicopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions
of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes.
(93) Heli-deck. A heliport located on a floating or fixed offshore structure.
(94) Heliport. An airport/aerodrome or defined area on a structure intended to be used
wholly or in part for the arrival, departure, and surface movement of helicopters.
(95) Hostile environment. An environment in which:
(i) a safe forced landing cannot be accomplished because the surface and
surrounding environment are inadequate; or
(ii) the helicopter occupants cannot be adequately protected from the elements; or
(iii) search and rescue response/capability is not provided consistent with
anticipated exposure; or
(iv) there is an unacceptable risk of endangering persons or property on the
ground.
(96) Human Factors principles. Principles which apply to aeronautical design,
certification, training, operations and maintenance and which seek safe interface
between the human and other system components by proper consideration to
human performance.
(97) Human performance. Human capabilities and limitations which have an impact
on the safety and efficiency of aeronautical operations.
(98) Instrument approach operations. An approach and landing using instrument for
navigation guidance based on an instrument approach procedure. There are two
methods for executing instrument approach operations:
(a) a two-dimensional (2D) instrument approach operation, using lateral
navigation guidance only; and
(b) a three-dimensional (3D) instrument approach operation, using both lateral
and vertical navigation guidance.
Note: Lateral and vertical navigation guidance refers to the guidance
provided either by:
a) a ground-based radio navigation aid; or
b) computer-generated navigation data from ground-based, space-
based, self-contained navigation aids or a combination of these.
(99) Instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). Meteorological conditions
expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, less than the
minima specified for visual meteorological conditions.
(100) Integrated survival suit. A survival suit which meets the combined requirements
of the survival suit and life jacket.
(101) Isolated aerodrome. A destination aerodrome for which there is no destination
alternate aerodrome suitable for a given airplane type.
(102) Journey log. A form signed by the PIC of each flight that records the airplane's
registration, crew member names and duty assignments, the type of flight, and
the date, place, and time of arrival and departure.

8.1-9
PCAR PART 8
(103) Land distance available (LDA). The lengthy of runway which is declared
available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane landing.
(104) Landing decision point (LDP). The point used in determining landing
performance from which, a power-unit failure occurring at this point, the landing
may be safely continued or a balked landing initiated.
(105) Large airplane. An airplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over
5,700 kg.
(106) Light-sport aircraft, means an aircraft, other than a helicopter or powered-lift
that, since its original certification, has continued to meet the following:
(i) A maximum takeoff weight of not more than—
(A) 660 pounds (300 kg) for lighter-than-air aircraft;
(B) 1,320 pounds (600 kg) for aircraft not intended for operation on water; or
(C) 1,430 pounds (650 kg) for an aircraft intended for operation on water.
(ii) A maximum airspeed in level flight with maximum continuous power (VH) of not
more than 120 knots CAS under standard atmospheric conditions at sea level.
(iii) A maximum never-exceed speed (VNE) of not more than 120 knots CAS for a
glider.
(iv) A maximum stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed without the use of
lift enhancing devices (VS1) of not more than 45 knots CAS at the aircraft's
maximum certificated takeoff weight and most critical center of gravity.
(v) A maximum seating capacity of no more than two persons, including the pilot.
(vi) A single, reciprocating engine, if powered.
(vii) A fixed or ground-adjustable propeller if a powered aircraft other than a
powered glider.
(viii) A fixed or auto-feathering propeller system if a powered glider.
(ix) A fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system, if a gyroplane.
(x) A non-pressurized cabin, if equipped with a cabin.
(xi) Fixed landing gear, except for an aircraft intended for operation on water or a
glider.
(xii) Fixed or repositionable landing gear, or a hull, for an aircraft intended for
operation on water.
(xiii) Fixed or retractable landing gear for a glider
(107) Line operating flight time. Flight time recorded by the PIC or co-pilot while in
revenue service for an Operator.
(108) Load factor. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the airplane, the former
being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, propulsive forces, or ground
reactions.
(109) Loss of control in flight (LOCI). A categorization of an accident or incident
resulting from a deviation from the intended flight path.
(110) Maintenance. The performance of tasks required to ensure the continuing
airworthiness of an aircraft, including any one or combination of overhaul,
inspection, replacement, defect rectification, and the embodiment of a
modification or repair.

8.1-10
PCAR PART 8
(111) Maintenance organization's procedures manual. A document endorsed by

the head of the maintenance organization which details the maintenance
organization's structure and management responsibilities, scope of work,
description of facilities, maintenance procedures and quality assurance or
inspection systems.
(112) Maintenance program. A document which describes the specific scheduled
maintenance tasks and their frequency of completion and related procedures,
such as a reliability program, necessary for the safe operation of those aircraft to
which it applies.
(114) Manoeuvre-based training. Training that focuses on a single event or
manoeuvre in isolation.
(115) Master minimum equipment list (MMEL). A list established for a particular
aircraft type by the organization responsible for the type design with the approval
of the State of Design containing items, one or more of which is permitted to be
unserviceable at the commencement of a flight. The MMEL may be associated
with special operating conditions, limitations or procedures. The MMEL provides
the basis for development, review, and approval by the Authority of an individual
operator's MEL.
(116) Maximum diversion time. Maximum allowable range, expressed in time, from
a point on a route to an en-route alternate aerodrome.
(117) Maximum mass. Maximum certificated take-off mass.
(118) Medical assessment. The evidence issued by a Contracting State that the
license holder meets specific requirements of medical fitness.
(119) Meteorological information. Meteorological report, analysis, forecast, and any
other statement relating to existing or expected meteorological conditions.
(120) Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) or minimum descent height (MDH). A
specified altitude or height in a 2D instrument approach operation or circling
approach operation below which descent must not be made without the required
visual reference.
(121) Minimum equipment list (MEL). A list provides for the operation of aircraft,
subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, prepared
by an operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the MMEL established
for the aircraft type.
(122) Navigation specification. A set of aircraft and flight crew requirements needed
to support performance-based operations within a defined airspace. There are
two kinds of navigation specifications:
Required navigation performance (RNP) Specification: A navigation specification
based on area navigation that includes the requirement for performance
monitoring and alerting, designated by the prefix RNP, e.g.: RNP-4, RNP-APCH.
Area navigation (RNAV) Specification: A navigation specification based on area
navigation that does not include the requirement for performance monitoring and
alerting, designated by the prefix RNAV, e.g.: RNAV-5, RNAV-1.
Note 1: The Performance based Navigation Manual (ICAO Doc 9613) Volume 2
contains detailed guidance on navigation specifications.

8.1-11
PCAR PART 8
Note 2: The term RNP as previously defined as “a statement of the navigation

performance, necessary for operation within a defined airspace”, has been
removed from ICAO Annex 6 PART 1 as the concept of RNP has been overtaken
by the concept of PBN. The term RNP in of Annex 6 is now solely used in context
of navigation specifications that require performance monitoring and alerting.
E.g. RNP 4 refers to the aircraft and operating requirements, including a 4 NM
lateral performance with on-board performance monitoring and alerting that are
detailed in ICAO Doc 9613.
(123) Negative training. Training which unintentionally introduces incorrect
information or invalid concepts, which could actually decrease rather than
increase safety.
(124) Negative transfer of training. The application (and ‘transfer’) of what was
learned in a training environment (i.e., a classroom, an FSTD) to normal practice,
i.e. it describes the degree to which what was learned in training is applied to
actual normal practices. In this context, negative transfer of training refers to the
inappropriate generalization of knowledge and skill to a situation or setting in
normal practice that does not equal the training situation or setting.
(125) Night. The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of
morning civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise, as may
be prescribed by the appropriate authority.
(126) Non-congested hostile environment. A hostile environment outside a
congested area.
(127) Non-hostile environment. An environment in which:
(i) a safe forced landing can be accomplished because the surface and
surrounding environment are adequate;
(ii) the helicopter occupants can be adequately protected from the elements;
(iii) search and rescue response/capability is provided consistent with anticipated
exposure; and
(iv) the assessed risk of endangering persons or property on the ground is
acceptable.
(128) Non-precision approach (NPA) procedure. An instrument approach
procedure designed for 2D instrument approach operations Type A.
Note: Non-precision procedures may be flown using a continuous descent final
approach technique (CDFA). CDFA with advisory VNAV guidance calculated by
on-board equipment (see PANS-OPS (Doc 8168), Volume I, part I, Section 4,
Chapter I, paragraph 1.8.1) are considered 3D instrument approach operations.
CDFA with manual calculation of the required rate of descent are considered 2D
instrument approach operations. For more information on CDFA refer to PANS-
OPS (Doc 8168), Volume I, Section 1.7 and 1.8.
(129) Obstacle clearance altitude (OCA) or obstacle clearance height (OCH). The
lowest altitude or the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway
threshold or the airport elevation as applicable, used in establishing compliance
with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.
Note: Obstacle clearance altitude is referenced to mean sea level and obstacle
clearance height is referenced to the threshold elevation or in the case of non-
precision approach procedures to the aerodrome elevation or the threshold
elevation if that is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation. An

8.1-12
PCAR PART 8
obstacle clearance height for a circling approach procedure is referenced to the

aerodrome elevation.
(130) Obstruction clearance plane. A plane sloping upward from the runway at a
slope of 1:20 to the horizontal, and tangent to or clearing all obstructions within
a specified area surrounding the runway as shown in a profile view of that area.
In the plane view, the centerline of the specified area coincides with the centerline
of the runway, beginning at the point where the obstruction clearance plane
intersects the centerline of the runway and proceeding to a point at least 1500
feet from the beginning point. Thereafter, the centerline coincides with the take-
off path over the ground for the runway (in the case of take-offs) or with the
instrument approach counterpart (for landings), or where the applicable one of
these paths has not been established, it proceeds consistent with turns of at least
4,000 foot radius until a point is reached beyond which the obstruction clearance
plane clears all obstructions. This area extends laterally 200 feet on each side of
the centerline at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the
runway and continues at this width to the end of the runway; then it increases
uniformly to 500 feet on each side of the centerline at a point 1500 feet from the
intersection of the obstruction clearance plane with the runway; thereafter, it
extends laterally 500 feet on each side of the centerline.
(131) Offshore operations. Operations which routinely have a substantial proportion
of the flight conducted over sea areas to or from offshore locations. Such
operations include, but are not limited to, support of offshore oil, gas and mineral
exploitation and sea-pilot transfer.
(132) Operation. An activity or group of activities which are subject to the same or
similar hazards and which require a set of equipment to be specified, or the
achievement and maintenance of a set of pilot competencies, to eliminate or
mitigate the risk of such hazards.
(133) Operational control. The exercise of authority over the initiation, continuation,
diversion or termination of a flight in the interest of the safety of the aircraft and
the regularity and efficiency of the flight.
(134) Operational flight plan. The operator's plan for the safe conduct of the flight
based on considerations of aircraft performance, other operating limitations, and
relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the airports or
heliports concerned.
(135) Operations manual. A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance
for use by operational personnel in the execution of their duties.
(136) Operations specifications. The authorizations, conditions and limitations
associated with the air operator certificate (AOC) and subject to the conditions in
the operations manual.
(137) Operator. A person, organization or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage
in an aircraft operation.
(138) Operator’s maintenance control manual. A document which describes the
operator’s procedures necessary to ensure that all scheduled and unscheduled
maintenance is performed on the operator’s aircraft on time and in a controlled
and satisfactory manner.
(139) Operations in performance Class 1. Operations with performance such that, in
the event of a critical power- unit failure, performance is available to enable the
helicopter to safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, unless the
failure occurs prior to reaching the take-off decision point (TDP) or after passing

8.1-13
PCAR PART 8
the landing decision point (LDP), in which cases the helicopter must be able to
land within the rejected take-off or landing area.
the event of critical power-unit failure, performance is available to enable the
helicopter to safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, except
when the failure occurs early during the take-off maneuver or late in the landing
maneuver, in which cases a forced landing may be required.
the event of a power-unit failure at any time during the flight, a forced landing will
be required.
(142) Passenger exit seats. Those seats having direct access to an exit, and those
seats in a row of seats through which passengers would have to pass to gain
access to an exit, from the first seat inboard of the exit to the first aisle inboard of
the exit. A passenger seat having "direct access" means a seat from which a
passenger can proceed directly to the exit without entering an aisle or passing
around an obstruction.
(143) Performance-based navigation (PBN). Area navigation based on performance
requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS route, on an instrument
approach procedure or in a designated airspace.
Note: Performance requirements are expressed in navigation specifications
(RNAV specification, RNP specification) in terms of accuracy, integrity,
continuity, availability and functionality needed for the proposed operation in the
context of a particular airspace concept.
(144) Performance criteria. Simple, evaluative statements on the required outcome
of the competency element and a description of the criteria used to judge whether
the required level of performance has been achieved.
(145) Pilot (to). To manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight time.
(146) Pilot-in-command (PIC). The pilot designated by the operator, or in the case of
general aviation, the owner, as being in command and charged with the safe
conduct of a flight.
(147) Point of no return. The last possible geographic point at which an airplane can
proceed to the destination aerodrome as well as to an available en route alternate
aerodrome for a given flight.
angle of attack.
(149) Powered parachute. Means a powered aircraft comprised of a flexible or semi-
rigid wing connected to a fuselage so that the wing is not in position for flight until
the aircraft is in motion. The fuselage of a powered parachute contains the aircraft
engine, a seat for each occupant and is attached to the aircraft's landing gear.
(150) Pressure altitude. An atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of altitude which
corresponds to that pressure in the Standard Atmosphere.
(151) Problematic use of substances. The use of one or more psychoactive
substances by aviation personnel in a way that:
(i) constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives, health or welfare
of others; and/or
(ii) causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or
disorder.

8.1-14
PCAR PART 8
(152) Psychoactive substances. Alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids, sedatives and

hypnotics, cocaine, other, psychostimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile
solvents, whereas coffee and tobacco are excluded.
(153) Quality system. Documented organizational procedures and policies, internal
audit of those policies and procedures, management review and
recommendation for quality improvement.
(154) Rating. An authorization entered on or associated with a license and forming
part thereof, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such
license.
(155) Rescue. An operation to retrieve persons in distress, provide for their initial
medical or other needs, and deliver them to a place of safety.
(156) Repair. The restoration of an aeronautical product to an airworthy condition to
ensure that the aircraft continues to comply with the design aspects of the
appropriate airworthiness requirements used for the issuance of the type
certificate for the respective aircraft type, after it has been damaged or subjected
to wear.
(157) Required communication performance (RCP). A statement of the
performance requirements for operational communication in support of specific
ATM functions.
(158) Required communication performance type (RCP type). A label (e.g. RCP
240) that represents the values assigned to RCP parameters for communication
transaction time, continuity, availability and integrity.
(159) Rest period. A continuous and defined period of time, subsequent to and/or
prior to duty, during which flight or cabin crew members are free of all duties.
(160) Return to Service (RTS). A document signed by an authorized representative
of an approved maintenance organization (AMO) in respect of an inspection,
repair or modification on a complete aircraft, engine or propeller after it has
received a Maintenance Release for the maintenance performed at an AMO.
Note: An air operator's aircraft are returned to service following maintenance by
a person specifically authorized by an AMO rather than by an individual on their
in Parts 5 and 6. The person signing the RTS acts in the capacity of an authorized
agent for the AMO and is certifying that the maintenance covered by the RTS
was accomplished according to the air operator's continuous maintenance
program. Responsibility for each step of the accomplished maintenance is borne
by the person signing for that step and the RTS certifies the entire maintenance
work package. This arrangement in no way reduces the responsibility of licensed
aircraft maintenance technicians (AMT) or maintenance organizations for
maintenance functions or tasks they perform or supervise. The RTS is required
for all commercially operated aircraft including flight training aircraft having
undergone maintenance at an AMO; however this may also be used for Non-
Commercial aircraft.
(161) Runway visual range (RVR). The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on
the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights
delineating the runway or identifying its centre line.
(162) Safe forced landing. Unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable
expectancy of no injuries to persons in the aircraft or on the surface.

8.1-15
PCAR PART 8
(163) Safety management program. A systematic approach to managing safety,

including the necessary organizational structures, accountabilities, policies and
procedures.
(164) Satisfactory evidence. A set of documents or activities that a Contracting State
accepts as sufficient to show compliance with an airworthiness requirement.
(166) Search. An operation normally coordinated by a rescue coordination centre or
rescue subcentre using available personnel and facilities to locate persons in
distress.
(167) Series of flights. Series of flights are consecutive flights that:
(i) begin and end within a period of 24 hours; and
(ii) are all conducted by the same PIC.
(168) Sign a maintenance release (to). To certify that maintenance work has been
completed satisfactorily in accordance with the applicable Standards of
airworthiness, by issuing the maintenance release referred to in CAR.
(169) Small airplane. An aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5,700
kg or less.
(170) Spin. ‘Incipient spin’ means a transient flight condition in the post-stall regime
where an initial, uncommanded roll in excess of 45° has resulted from yaw
asymmetry during a stall and which, if recovery action is not taken, will lead
rapidly to a developing spin. Prompt recovery during this incipient spin stage will
normally result in an overall heading change, from pre-stall conditions, of not
more than 180°.
airplane exhibits abnormal, but varying, rates of yaw and roll, together with
changing pitch attitude, following an incipient spin but before the establishment
of a developed spin. A developing spin follows an unrecovered incipient spin and
will usually persist, in the absence of any recovery action, until a developed spin
ensues.
airplane has achieved approximately constant pitch attitude, yaw rate and roll
rate on a descending flight path. In transition from a stall with significant,
persistent yaw, with no recovery action, to attaining a developed spin, the
airplane is likely to have rolled through at least 540°.
Note: To summarize, the circumstances that must prevail before an airplane
spins are: The airplane must be in a stalled condition and the airplane must yaw
and/or roll.
(171) Stall. A loss of lift caused by exceeding the airplane’s critical angle of attack. A
stalled condition can exist at any attitude and airspeed, and accompanied by at
least one of the following:
- buffeting, which could be heavy at times:
- lack of pitch authority and/roll control: and
- inability to arrest the descent rate.
(172) Stall Event. An occurrence whereby the airplane experiences conditions
associated with an approach-to-stall or a stall.

8.1-16
PCAR PART 8
(173) Stall (event) recovery procedure. The manufacturer-approved airplane-

specific stall recovery procedure. If an OEM-approved recovery procedure does
not exist, the airplane-specific stall recovery procedure developed by the
operator, based on the stall recovery template contained in IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX
C, may be used.
(174) Stall warning. A natural or synthetic indication provided when approaching a
stall that may include one or more of the following indications:
- aerodynamic buffeting (some airplanes will buffet more than others);
- reduced roll stability and aileron effectiveness;
- visual or aural cues and warnings;
- inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent; and
- stick shaker activation (if installed).
Note: A stall warning indicates an immediate need to reduce the angle of attack.
(175) Startle. The initial short-term, involuntary physiological and cognitive reactions
to an unexpected event that commence the normal human stress response.
(176) State of design. The State having jurisdiction over the organization responsible
for the type design.
(177) State of Registry. The State on whose register the aircraft is entered.
(178) State of the Operator. The State in which the operator's principal place of
business is located or, if there is no such place of business, the operator's
permanent residence.
(179) State Safety program. An integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at
improving safety.
pitch force to an airplane’s control columns, to attempt to decrease the airplane’s
angle of attack. Device activation may occur before or after aerodynamic stall,
depending on the airplane type.
Note: A stick pusher is not installed in all airplane types.
(181) Stick shaker. A device that automatically vibrates the control column to warn the
Note: A stick shaker is not installed on all airplane types.
physiological, psychological and cognitive effects. These effects may range from
positive to negative and can either enhance or degrade performance.
(183) Surprise. The emotionally-based recognition of a difference in what was
expected and what is actual.
(184) Synthetic flight trainer. Any one of the following three types of apparatus in
which flight conditions are simulated on the ground:
(i) A flight simulator, which provides an accurate representation of the flight deck
of a particular aircraft type to the extent that the mechanical, electrical,
electronic, etc. aircraft systems control functions, the normal environment of
flight crew members, and the performance and flight characteristics of that type
of aircraft are realistically simulated;
(ii) A flight procedures trainer, which provides a realistic flight deck environment,
and which simulates instrument responses, simple control functions of

8.1-17
PCAR PART 8
mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc. aircraft systems, and the performance

and flight characteristics of aircraft of a particular class;
(iii) A basic instrument flight trainer, which is equipped with appropriate
instruments, and which simulates the flight deck environment of an aircraft in
flight in instrument flight conditions.
(185) Take-off and initial climb phase. That part of the flight from the start of take-off
to 300 m (1,000 ft) above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to
exceed this height, or to the end of the climb in the other cases.
(186) Take-off decision point (TDP). The point used in determining take-off
performance from which, a power-unit failure occurring at this point, either a
rejected take-off may be made or a take-off safely continued.
(187) Target level of safety (TLS). A generic term representing the level of risk which
is considered acceptable in particular circumstances.
(188) Threshold time. The range, expressed in time, established by the Authority, to
an en-route alternate aerodrome, whereby any time beyond requires an EDTO
approval from the Authority.
(189) Total vertical error (TVE). The vertical geometric difference between the actual
pressure altitude flown by an aircraft and its assigned pressure altitude (flight
level).
performance objectives, providing sufficient assurance that the trained individual
is capable to consistently carry out specific tasks safely and effectively.
(191) Type certificate. A document issued by a Contracting State to define the design
of an aircraft, engine or propeller type and to certify that this design meets the
appropriate airworthiness requirements of that State.
Note. – In some Contracting States a document equivalent to a type certificate
may be issued for an engine or propeller type.
(192) Type certificate. A document issued by a Contracting State to define the design
of an aircraft, engine or propeller type and to certify that this design meets the
appropriate airworthiness requirements of that State.
Note.— In some Contracting States a document equivalent to a type certificate
may be issued for an engine or propeller type.
(193) Visual meteorological conditions (VMC). Meteorological conditions expressed
in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling*, equal to or better than
specified minima.
(194) VTOSS. The minimum speed at which climb shall be achieved with the critical
power-unit inoperative, the remaining power-units operating within approved
operating limits.
* As defined in ICAO Annex 2.
(a) The following acronyms and abbreviations are used in this Part:
(1) ADS-C – Automatic Dependent Surveillance – Contract
(2) AFM - Airplane Flight Manual

8.1-18
PCAR PART 8
(3) AGL - Above Ground Level

(4) AOC - Air Operator Certificate
(5) AOA – Angle of Attack
(6) AOM - Aircraft Operating Manual
(7) APU - Auxiliary Power Unit
(8) ATC - Air Traffic Control
(9) CAT - Category
(10) CDL - Configuration Deviation List
(11) CP - Co-pilot
(12) CRM - Crew Resource Management
(13) DH - Decision Height
(14) EDTO – Extended Diversion Time Operation
(15) ETA - Estimated Time of Arrival
(16) FE - Flight Engineer
(17) FL - Flight Level
(18) GPS - Global Positioning System
(19) IMC - Instrument Meteorological Conditions
(20) INS - Inertial Navigation System
(21) LDA - Localizer-type Directional Aid
(22) LOC - Localizer
(23) LORAN - Long-range Navigation
(24) LVTO – Low Visibility Take Off
(25) MDA – Minimum Decent Altitude
(26) MEA — Minimum En Route Altitude
(27) MEL – Minimum Equipment List
(28) MMEL – Master Minimum Equipment List
(29) MNPS – Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications
(30) MOCA — Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
(31) MSL – Mean Sea Level
(32) NOTAM – Notice to Airmen
(33) NOTOC- Notice to Captain
(34) RFM – Rotorcraft Flight Manual
(35) RVR – Runway Visibility Range
(36) RVSM – Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum
(37) PBE – Protective Breathing Equipment
(38) PBN – Performance-based Navigation
(39) PIC – Pilot In Command

8.1-19
PCAR PART 8
(40) SAR – Search and Rescue

(41) SCC – Senior Cabin crew
(42) SIC – Second-in-command (co-pilot or first officer)
(43) SM – Statute Miles
(44) TACAN – Tactical Air Navigation System
(45) UPRT – Airplane upset prevention and recovery training
(46) VMC – Visual Meteorological Conditions
(47) VSM – Vertical Separation Minimum
(48) V1 - Take-off decision speed.
(49) VMO- Maximum operating speed.
(50) VSO - Stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing
configuration.

8.1-20
PCAR PART 8

8.1-21
PCAR PART 8
8.2 GENERAL OPERATIONS REQUIREMENTS

8.2.1 AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS
8.2.1.1 REGISTRATION MARKINGS
No person may operate a Republic of the Philippines-registered aircraft unless it displays
the proper markings prescribed in Part 4.
8.2.1.2 CIVIL AIRCRAFT AIRWORTHINESS

(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition.
(b) Each PIC shall determine whether an aircraft is in a condition for safe flight.
(c) The PIC shall discontinue a flight as soon as practicable when an unairworthy
mechanical, electrical or structural condition occurs.
8.2.1.3 SPECIAL AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATE OPERATIONAL

RESTRICTIONS
No person may operate an aircraft with a special airworthiness certificate except as
provided in the limitations issued with that certificate.
8.2.1.4 AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

No person may operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with the required instruments and
navigation equipment appropriate to type of flight operation conducted and the route being
flown.
Note: The instrument and equipment required for specific operations are listed in Part 7.
8.2.1.5 INOPERATIVE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

(a) No person may take-off an aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment installed,
except as authorized by the Authority.
(b) An Operator shall not operate a multi-engine aircraft with inoperative instruments and
equipment installed unless the following conditions are met:
(1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft.
(2) The Authority has issued the Operator specific operating provisions authorizing
operations in accordance with an approved Minimum Equipment List. The flight
crew shall have direct access at all times prior to flight to all of the information
contained in the approved Minimum Equipment List through printed or other means
approved by the Authority in the Operators specific operating provisions. An
approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by the specific operating
provisions, constitutes an approved change to the type design without requiring
recertification.
(3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must:
(i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in paragraph (c) of this
section.
(ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with certain instruments and equipment
in an inoperative condition.

8.2-1
PCAR PART 8
(4) Records identifying the inoperative instruments and equipment and the information
required by subparagraph (b) (3) (ii) of this section must be available to the pilot.
(5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in
the Minimum Equipment List and the specific operating provisions authorizing use
of the Minimum Equipment List.
(c) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in the Minimum
Equipment List:
(1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the
airworthiness requirements under which the aircraft is type certificated and which
are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions.
(2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in operable
condition unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise.
(3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations under Part 7, Part 8
and/or Part 9 of these regulations.
(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(3) of this section, an aircraft with inoperative
instruments or equipment may be operated under a special flight permit under Subpart
5.4.1.11 of these regulations
Implementing Standard: See IS: 8.2.1.5 for specific limitation on inoperative
instruments and equipment.
8.2.1.6 CIVIL AIRCRAFT FLIGHT MANUAL, MARKING AND PLACARD

REQUIREMENTS
(a) No person may operate a Republic of the Philippines-registered civil aircraft unless
there is available in the aircraft
(1) A current, approved AFM or RFM; or
(2) An AOM approved by the Authority for the Operator,
(3) If no AFM or RFM exists, approved manual material, markings and placards, or
any combination thereof, which provide the PIC with the necessary limitations for
safe operation.
(b) No person may operate a civil aircraft within or over Republic of the Philippines without
complying with the operating limitations specified in the approved AFM or RFM,
markings and placards, or as otherwise prescribed by the certifying authority for the
aircraft's State of Registry.
(c) Each AFM or RFM shall be updated by implementing changes made mandatory by the
State of Registry.
(d) Each operator shall display in the aircraft all placards, listings, instrument markings or
combination thereof, containing those operating limitations prescribed by the certifying
authority for the aircraft's State of Registry for visual presentation.
8.2.1.7 REQUIRED AIRCRAFT AND EQUIPMENT INSPECTIONS

(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, no person may operate a Republic of
the Philippines civil aircraft unless it has had the following inspections.
(1) An annual inspection within the past 12 calendar months;
(2) For remuneration or hire operations, a 100-hour inspection;

8.2-2
PCAR PART 8
(3) For IFR operations, an altimeter and pitot-static system inspection in the past 24
calendar months;
(4) For transponder equipped aircraft, a transponder check within the past 12 calendar
months; and
(5) For ELT-equipped aircraft, an ELT check within the past 12 calendar months.
(b) Aircraft maintained under an alternate maintenance and inspection program approved
by the Authority, as specified in Subpart 5.7.1.3 (a), may not have current annual or
100-hour inspections in their maintenance records.
Note: An "alternate maintenance and inspection program" may include a
manufacturer's recommended program, instructions for continued airworthiness, or a
program designed by the operator and approved by the Authority.
Note: The requirements of these inspections are provided in Part 5.
8.2.1.8 DOCUMENTS TO BE CARRIED ON AIRCRAFT: ALL OPERATIONS

(a) Except as provided in Subpart 8.2.1.6, no person may operate a civil aircraft in
commercial air transport operations unless it has within it the following current and
approved documents:
(1) Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued to the owner.
(2) Certificate of Airworthiness.
(3) Aircraft Journey Log.
(4) Aircraft Radio License.
(5) List of passenger names and points of embarkation and destination, if applicable.
(6) Cargo manifest including special loads information.
(7) Aircraft Technical Log.
(8) Air Operator Certificate: where applicable, shall carry a certified true copy of the
AOC specified in Subpart 9.1.1.4, and a copy of the operations specifications
relevant to the aircraft type, issued in conjunction with the certificate. When the
certificate and the associated operations specifications are issued by the State of
the Operator in a language other than English, an English translation shall be
included.
(9) Noise Certificate, or a document attesting noise certification. When the document,
or a suitable statement attesting noise certification as contained in another
document approved by the State of Registry, is issued in a language other than
English, it shall include an English translation.
(10) AFM (for airplanes) or RFM (for helicopters).
(11) Part(s) of the Operations Manual relevant to operation(s) conducted.
(12) MEL.
(13) Category II or III Manual, as applicable.
(14) Operational Flight Plan.
(15) Filed ATC flight plan.
(16) NOTAMS briefing documentation.

8.2-3
PCAR PART 8
(17) Meteorological information.

(18) Mass and balance documentation.
(19) Roster of special situation passengers.
(20) Maps and charts for routes of proposed flight or possibly diverted flights.
(21) Forms for complying with the reporting requirements of the Authority and the
Operator.
(22) For international flights, a general declaration for customs.
(23) Any documentation that may be required by the Authority or States concerned
with a proposed flight.
(24) The appropriate licenses for each crew member of the flight crew.
(25) Copy of the return to service, if any, in force with respect to the aircraft.
(26) Search and rescue information, for international flights.
(27) Aircraft insurance coverage
(b) Except as provided in Subpart 8.2.1.6, no person may operate a civil aircraft in general
aviation operations unless it has within it the following current and approved
documents:
(1) Certificate of Registration issued to the owner.
(2) Certificate of Airworthiness.
(3) Aircraft Journey Log.
(4) Aircraft Radio License.
(5) List of passenger names and points of embarkation and destination, if applicable.
(6) Cargo manifest including special loads information.
(7) The appropriate licenses for each crew member of the flight crew.
(8) Copy of the return to service, if any, in force with respect to the aircraft.
(9) Noise Certificate, or a document attesting noise certification. When the document,
or a suitable statement attesting noise certification as contained in another
document approved by the State of Registry, is issued in a language other than
English, it shall include an English translation.
(10) AFM (for airplanes) or RFM (for helicopters).
(11) Category II or III Manual, as applicable.
(12) Operational Flight Plan.
(13) NOTAMS briefing documentation.
(14) Maps and charts for routes of proposed flight or possibly diverted flights.
(15) Forms for complying with the reporting requirements of the Authority.
(16) For international flights, a general declaration for customs.
(18) Search and rescue information, for international flights.

8.2-4
PCAR PART 8
(20) Aircraft insurance coverage

(c) In case of loss or theft of any of the following: Certificate of Registration, Certificate of
Airworthiness, Noise Certificate, Aircraft Radio License or Air Operator Certificate, the
operation is allowed to continue until the flight reaches the base or place where a
replacement document can be provided.
Note: "Special situation passengers" includes armed security personnel, deportees,
persons in custody, and persons with special medical needs.
Note: The noise certificate shall state the standards in ICAO Annex 16, Volume 1. The
statement may be contained in any document, carried on board, approved by the
Authority.
8.2.1.9 INSURANCE REQUIREMENTS: ALL OPERATIONS

No person may operate an aircraft unless it has a valid insurance guarantee covering
aircraft hull, each person, freight and mail on board aircraft, and third parties liability, as
prescribed by the Authority.
8.2.2 [AOC] AIRCRAFT TRACKING
(a) On and after 8 November 2018, an Operator shall establish an aircraft tracking
capability to track airplanes throughout its area of operations.
Note.- Guidance on aircraft tracking capabilities is contained in the Normal Aircraft
Tracking Implementation Guidelines (Cir 347)
(b) An Operator should track the position of an airplane through automated reporting at
least every 15 minutes for the portion(s) of the inflight operation(s) under the following
conditions:
(1) the airplane has a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 27,000 kg and a
seating capacity greater than 19; and
(2) where an ATS unit obtains airplane position information at greater than 15 minute
intervals.
Note.- See CAR-ANS Part 11.2, for coordination between the operator and air
traffic services providers regarding position report messages.
(c) An Operator shall track the position of an airplane through automated reporting at least
every 15 minutes for the portion(s) of the inflight operation(s) that is planned in an
oceanic area(s) under the following conditions:
(1) the airplane has a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 45,500 kg and a
seating capacity greater than 19; and
(2) where an ATS unit obtains airplane position information at greater than 15 minutes
intervals.
Note 1.- Oceanic area- for the purpose of aircraft tracking is the airspace which
overlies waters outside the territory of the Philippines.
Note 2.- See CAR-ANS Part 11.2, for coordination between the operator and air
traffic services providers regarding position report messages.
(d) Notwithstanding the provisions in Part 8.2.2 (b) and (c), the Authority shall, based on
the results of an approved risk assessment process implemented by the operator,
allow for variations to automated reporting intervals. The process shall demonstrate

8.2-5
PCAR PART 8
how risks to the operation resulting from such variations can be managed and shall
include at least the following:
(1) capability of the operator’s operational control systems and processes, including
those for contacting ATS units;
(2) overall capability of the aeroplane and its systems;
(3) available means to determine the position of, and communicate with, the
aeroplane;
(4) frequency and duration of gaps in automated reporting;
(5) human factors consequences resulting from changes to flight crew procedures;
and
(6) specific mitigation measures and contingency procedures.
Note. - Guidance on development, implementation and approval of the risk
assessment process which allows for variations to the need for automatic reporting
and the required interval, including variation examples, is contained in the Aircraft
Tracking Implementation Guidelines (Cir 347).
(e) An operator shall establish procedures approved by the Authority for the retention of
aircraft tracking data to assist SAR in determining the last known position of the
aircraft.
Note. – Refer to PCAR Part 9.1.1.4 for operator responsibilities when using third
parties for the conduct of aircraft tracking under PCAR.

8.2-6
PCAR PART 8

8.2-7
PCAR PART 8
8.3 AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) This Subpart prescribes the rules governing the inspection of Republic of the
Philippines registered civil aircraft operating within or outside Republic of the
Philippines.
(b) Subparts 8.3.1.3 and 8.3.1.4 do not apply to aircraft subject to an approved continuous
maintenance program approved by the Authority for an Operator in Part 9.
(c) This Subpart applies to all aircraft, as designated below, operated as commercial air
transport in Republic of the Philippines if the operator has not been designated an
Operator by Republic of the Philippines.
(d) This Subpart applies to all general aviation large, complex aircraft operated in Republic
of the Philippines, whether or not the aircraft is registered in Republic of the Philippines.
(e) Where any aircraft, not registered in Republic of the Philippines and operating under
an inspection program approved or accepted by the State of Registry, does not have
the equipment required by Republic of the Philippines for operations within Republic
of the Philippines; the owner/operator shall ensure that such equipment is installed and
inspected in accordance with the requirements of the State of Registry, acceptable to
the Authority prior to operation of that aircraft in Republic of the Philippines.
(f) The owner of an airplane over 5,700 kg maximum certificated take-off mass, or in the
case where it is leased, the lessee, shall, as prescribed by the State of Registry, ensure
that the information resulting from maintenance and operational experience with
respect to continuing airworthiness, is transmitted as required by Subpart 8.3.1.6.
8.3.1.2 GENERAL
(a) The registered owner or operator of an aircraft is responsible for maintaining that
aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with all airworthiness directives.
(b) No person may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations on an
aircraft other than as prescribed in this Subpart and other applicable regulations,
including Part 5.
(c) No person may operate an aircraft for which a manufacturer's maintenance manual or
instructions for continued airworthiness has been issued that contains an airworthiness
limitations section unless the mandatory replacement times, inspection intervals and
related procedures set forth in operations specifications approved by the Authority
under Part 9 or in accordance with an inspection program approved under this
Subsection are complied with.
(d) The owner or operator shall use one of the following inspection programs as
appropriate for aircraft and the type operation:
(1) Annual inspection;
(2) Annual/100 hours inspection;
(3) Progressive; or
(4) Continuous airworthiness program.
(e) No aircraft shall have a Maintenance Release signed after inspection unless the
replacement times for life-limited parts specified in the aircraft specification-type data
sheets are complied with and the airplane, including airframe, power-units, propellers,

8.3-1
PCAR PART 8
rotors, appliances, and survival and emergency equipment, is inspected in accordance

with the selected inspection program.
(f) Each person wishing to establish or change an approved inspection program shall
submit the program for approval by the Authority and shall include in writing:
(1) Instructions and procedures for conduct of inspection for the particular make and
model aircraft, including necessary tests and checks. The instructions shall set
forth in detail the parts and areas of the aeronautical products, including survival
and emergency equipment required to be inspected; and
(2) A schedule for the inspections that shall be performed expressed in terms of time
in service, calendar time, number of system operations or any combination of
these.
(g) When an operator changes from one inspection program to another, the operator shall
apply the time in service, calendar times, or cycles of operation accumulated under the
previous program, in determining when the inspection is due under the new program.
8.3.1.3 ANNUAL INSPECTIONS

(a) An annual inspection program may be used for non-complex aircraft with a maximum
certificated take-off mass of less than 5,700 kg that are not used in commercial air
transport.
(b) An annual inspection under this paragraph may be performed by an AMT / A&P in
accordance with Part 2 or an AMO.
(c) No person may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar-months,
the aircraft has had:
(1) An annual inspection in accordance with Part 5 and has been completed by an
AMT / A&P or an AMO.
(2) An inspection for the issuance of a Certificate of Airworthiness completed for the
Authority in accordance with Part 5.
8.3.1.4 ANNUAL/100 HOURS INSPECTIONS

(a) No person may operate a non-complex aircraft with a certificated maximum take-off
mass less than 5,700 kg carrying any person (other than a crew member) used in
commercial air transport, and no person may give flight instruction for compensation
or hire in an aircraft which that person provides, unless:
(1) Within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has received an
annual or a 100-hour inspection, and
(2) Been approved for return to service in accordance with Part 5 of these regulations.
(b) The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to
reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a
place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100
hours of time in service.
(c) An annual inspection under this paragraph must be performed, a maintenance release
and a return to service signed in accordance with Part 2 at an AMO.
(d) A 100-hour inspection under this paragraph must be performed, a maintenance
release and a return to service signed in accordance with Part 2 at an AMO.

8.3-2
PCAR PART 8
8.3.1.5 PROGRESSIVE INSPECTIONS

(a) A progressive inspection program may be used for aircraft with a maximum certificated
take-off mass of less than 5,700 kg.
(b) Aircraft inspected under a progressive inspection program may be used for aircraft
engaged in commercial air transport.
(c) Progressive inspection. Each registered owner or operator of an aircraft desiring to use
a progressive inspection program shall submit a written request to the Authority, and
shall provide:
(1) An AMO appropriately rated in accordance with Part 6, to conduct the progressive
inspection;
(2) A current inspection procedures manual available and readily understandable to
pilot and maintenance personnel containing, in detail:
(i) An explanation of the progressive inspection, including the continuity of
inspection responsibility, the making of reports, and the keeping of records and
technical reference material;
(ii) An inspection schedule, specifying the intervals in hours or days when routine
and detailed inspections will be performed and including instructions for
exceeding an inspection interval by not more than 10 hours while en-route and
for changing an inspection interval because of service experience;
(iii) Sample routine and detailed inspection forms and instructions for their use; and
(iv) Sample reports and records and instructions for their use;
(3) Enough housing and equipment for necessary disassembly and proper inspection
of the aircraft; and
(4) Appropriate current technical information for the aircraft.
(d) The frequency and detail of the progressive inspection shall provide for the complete
inspection of the aircraft within each 12 calendar-months and be consistent with the
current manufacturer's recommendations, field service experience, and the kind of
operation in which the aircraft is engaged.
(e) The progressive inspection schedule shall ensure that the aircraft, at all times, will be
airworthy and will conform to all applicable aircraft specifications, type certificate data
sheets, airworthiness directives, and other approved data acceptable to the Authority.
(f) Each owner/operator shall include in the inspection program the name and address of
the person responsible for the scheduling of the inspections required by the program
and provide a copy of the program to the person performing inspection on the aircraft.
(g) If the progressive inspection is discontinued, the owner or operator shall immediately
notify the Authority, in writing, of the discontinuance.
(1) After the discontinuance, the first annual inspection under Part 8 is due within 12
calendar months after the last complete inspection of the aircraft under the
progressive inspection.
(2) The 100-hour inspection is due within 100 hours after that complete inspection.
(3) A complete inspection of the aircraft, for the purpose of determining when the
annual and 100-hour inspections are due, requires a detailed inspection of the
aircraft and all its components in accordance with the progressive inspection.
(4) A routine inspection of the aircraft and a detailed inspection of several components
are not considered to be a complete inspection.

8.3-3
PCAR PART 8
8.3.1.6 CONTINUOUS AIRWORTHINESS MAINTENANCE INSPECTION

(a) The registered owner or operator of each large airplane certificated with a maximum
take-off mass of over 5,700 kg, turbine-powered multi-engine airplane, and turbine-
powered rotorcraft shall select, identify in the aircraft maintenance records, and use
one of the following continuous airworthiness maintenance inspection programs for the
inspection of the aircraft:
(1) A current inspection program recommended by the manufacturer;
(2) A continuous airworthiness maintenance program for that make and model of
aircraft currently approved by the Authority for use by an AOC holder; or
(3) Any other inspection program established by the registered owner or operator of
that aircraft and approved by the Authority.
(b) Each owner/operator shall include in the selected inspection program the name and
address of the person responsible for the scheduling of the inspections required by the
program and provide a copy of the program to the person performing inspection on the
aircraft.
Note: The aircraft manufacturer’s inspection program and any other inspection
program approved by the Authority will specify who can perform aircraft maintenance,
inspections and return of the aircraft to service.
8.3.1.7 CHANGES TO AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE INSPECTION PROGRAM

(a) Whenever the Authority finds that revisions to an approved inspection program are
necessary for the continued adequacy of the program, the owner or operator shall,
after notification by the Authority, make any changes in the program found to be
necessary.
(b) The owner or operator may petition the Authority to reconsider the notice, within 30
days after receiving that notice.
(c) Except in the case of an emergency requiring immediate action in the interest of safety,
the filing of the petition stays the notice pending a decision by the Authority.
8.3.1.8 REQUIRED MAINTENANCE

(a) Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall:
(1) Have that aircraft inspected as prescribed in Part 8.3 and discrepancies repaired
as prescribed in the Performance Rules of Part 5;
(2) Repair, replace, remove, or inspect any inoperative instruments or items of
equipment at the next required inspection, except when permitted to be deferred
under the provisions of a Minimum Equipment List (MEL);
(3) Ensure that a placard has been installed on the aircraft when listed discrepancies
include in operative instruments or equipment; and
(4) Ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft
maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.
8.3.1.9 MAINTENANCE AND INSPECTION RECORDS RETENTION

(a) Except for records maintained by an AOC holder and notwithstanding the requirements
of Part 13, each registered owner or operator shall retain the following records for a
minimum period of 90 days after the unit to which they refer has been permanently

8.3-4
PCAR PART 8
withdrawn from service for paragraph (2); and the records in paragraph (1) below for
a minimum period of one year after the signing of the maintenance release or until the
work is repeated or superseded by other work of equivalent scope and detail:
(1) Records of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, minor modifications, and
records of the 100-hour; annual, and other required or approved inspections, as
appropriate, for each aircraft (including the airframe) and each engine, propeller,
rotor, and appliance of an aircraft to include-
(i) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Authority) of the work
performed,
(ii) The date of completion of the work performed; and
(iii) The signature and certificate number of the person signing the Maintenance
Release; and
(iv) As necessary the identification of the person at the AMO approving the aircraft
for return to service.
(2) Records containing the following information-
(i) The total time-in-service of the airframe, each engine, each propeller, and each
rotor.
(ii) The current status of all life-limited aeronautical products;
(iii) The time since last overhaul of all items installed on the aircraft which are
required to be overhauled on a specified time basis;
(iv) The current inspection status of the aircraft, including the time since the last
inspection required by the inspection program under which the aircraft and its
appliances are maintained.
(v) The current status of applicable Airworthiness Directives including, for each,
the method of compliance, the Airworthiness Directive number, and revision
date. If the Airworthiness Directive involves recurring action, the time and date
when the next action is required.
(vi) Copies of the forms prescribed by this chapter for each major modification to
the airframe and currently installed engines, rotors, propellers, and appliances.
(b) The records specified in paragraph (a) of this section shall be retained and transferred
with the aircraft at the time the aircraft is sold or leased.
(c) A list of defects shall be retained until the defects are repaired and the aircraft is
approved for return to service.
(d) The owner or operator shall make all maintenance records required by this subsection
available for inspection by the Authority.
Note: Requirements for maintenance records for an AOC holder are detailed in
subsection 9.4.1.7.
8.3.1.10 LEASE OR SALE OF AIRCRAFT-TRANSFER OF MAINTENANCE

RECORDS
(a) Any owner or operator who sells or leases a Republic of the Philippines registered
aircraft shall transfer to the purchaser/lessor, at the time of sale or lease, the records
identified in Subparts 8.3.1.8 and 8.3.1.9 of that aircraft, in plain language form or in
coded form at the election of the purchaser/lessor, if the coded form provides for the
preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the Authority.

8.3-5
PCAR PART 8
(b) The operator of an aircraft shall comply with the requirements of Subpart 8.3.1.9, as
applicable, while the aircraft is leased.

8.3-6
PCAR PART 8
8.4 FLIGHT CREW REQUIREMENTS

8.4.1.1 COMPOSITION OF THE FLIGHT CREW
(a) The number and composition of the flight crew shall not be less than that specified in
the flight manual (for helicopters: operations manual). The flight crew members shall
include flight crew members in addition to the minimum numbers specified in the flight
manual or other documents associated with the certificate of airworthiness, when
necessitated by considerations related to the type of aircraft used, the type of operation
involved and the duration of flight between points where flight crew members are
changed.
(b) The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds a valid radio license,
issued or rendered valid by the State of Registry, authorizing operation of the type of
radio transmitting equipment to be used.
(c) The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds a flight navigator license
in all operations where, as determined by the Authority, navigation necessary for the
safe conduct of the flight cannot be adequately accomplished by the pilots from the
pilot station.
(d) A co-pilot (CP) is required for IFR commercial air transport operations, unless the
Authority has issued an exemption. This exemption shall be for domestic operations
only and airplane weighing less than 5,700 kg or helicopters weighing less than 3,175
kg.
(e) When a separate flight engineer’s station is incorporated in the design of an airplane,
the flight crew shall include at least one flight engineer especially assigned to that
station, unless the duties associated with that station can be satisfactorily performed
by another flight crew member, holding a flight engineer license, without interference
with regular duties.
8.4.1.2 FLIGHT CREW QUALIFICATIONS

(a) The PIC shall ensure that the licenses of each flight crew member have been issued
or rendered valid by the State of Registry, contain the proper ratings, and that all flight
crew members have maintained recent experience and competence.
(b) No person may operate a civil aircraft in commercial air transport or aerial work unless
that person is qualified for the specific operation and in the specific type of aircraft
used.
(c) The operator or owner of the aircraft shall ensure that flight crewmembers engaged in
international civil aviation operations speak and understand the English language.
(d) The PIC of an aircraft equipped with an airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS II)
shall ensure that each flight crew member has been appropriately trained to
competency in the use of ACAS II equipment and the avoidance of collisions.
8.4.1.3 AUTHORIZATION IN LIEU OF A TYPE RATING

(a) The Authority may authorize a pilot to operate an aircraft requiring a type rating without
a type rating for up to 60 days, provided
(1) The Authority has determined that an equivalent level of safety can be achieved
through the operating limitations on the authorization;
(2) The applicant shows that compliance with this subsection is impracticable for the
flight or series of flights,

8.4-1
PCAR PART 8
(3) The operations:

(i) Involve only a ferry flight, training flight, test flight, or skill test for a pilot license
or rating;
(ii) Are within Republic of the Philippines, unless, by previous agreement with the
Authority, the aircraft is flown to an adjacent contracting State for maintenance,
(iii) Are not for compensation or hire unless the compensation or hire involves
payment for the use of the aircraft for training or taking a practical test; and
(iv) Involve only the carriage of flight crew members considered essential for the
flight.
(4) If the purpose of the authorization provided by this paragraph cannot be
accomplished within the time limit of the authorization, the Authority may authorize
an additional period of up to 60 days.
8.4.1.4 LICENSES REQUIRED

(a) No person may act as PIC or in any other capacity as a required flight crew member
of a civil aircraft of:
(1) Republic of the Philippines registry, unless he or she carries in their personal
possession the appropriate and current license for that flight crew position for that
type of aircraft and a valid medical certificate.
(2) Foreign registry, unless he or she carries in their personal possession a valid and
current license for that type of aircraft issued to them by the State in which the
aircraft is registered.
(b) Each operator shall ensure that flight crew members demonstrate the ability to speak
and understand the language used for communications as specified in CAR Part 2.
8.4.1.5 FLIGHT CREW: LIMITATIONS ON USE OF SERVICES FOR

COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT
No person may serve as an airman, nor may any Operator use an airman in commercial
air transport unless that person is otherwise qualified for the operations for which they are
to be used.
Note: The qualifications for airman engaged in commercial air transport are provided in
Subpart 8.10.
8.4.1.6 RATING REQUIRED FOR IFR OPERATIONS

(a) No person may act as PIC of a civil aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less
than the minimums prescribed for VFR flight unless:
(1) In the case of an aircraft, the pilot holds an instrument rating or an ATP license with
an appropriate airplane category, class, and type (if required) rating for the airplane
being flown;
(2) In the case of helicopter, the pilot holds a helicopter instrument rating or an ATP
license for helicopters not limited to VFR operations.

8.4-2
PCAR PART 8
8.4.1.7 SPECIAL AUTHORIZATION REQUIRED FOR CATEGORY II/III

OPERATIONS
(a) Except as shown in paragraph (b), no person may act as a pilot crew member of a civil
aircraft in a Category II/III operation unless
(1) In the case of a PIC, he or she holds a current Category II or III pilot authorization
issued by the State of Registry for that type aircraft.
(2) In the case of a CP, he or she is authorized by the State of Registry to act as CP
in that aircraft in Category II/III operations.
(b) An authorization is not required for individual pilots of an Operator that has operations
specifications approving Category II or III operations.
8.4.1.8 PILOT LOGBOOKS

(a) Each pilot shall show the aeronautical training and experience used to meet the
requirements for a license or rating, or recent experience, by a reliable record.
(b) Each PIC shall carry his or her logbook on all general aviation flights.
(c) A student pilot shall carry his or her logbook, including the proper flight instructor
endorsements, on all solo cross-country flights.
Note: The acceptable methods of logging experience are outlined in Part 2 - Personnel
Licensing.
8.4.1.9 PILOT CURRENCY: TAKE-OFF AND LANDINGS, AND CRUISE RELIEF

(a) No person may act as PIC or a co-pilot of an aircraft unless, within the preceding 90
days that pilot has:
(1) Made three take-offs and landings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in
an aircraft of the same category and class and if a type rating is required, of the
same type or in a flight simulation training device approved for the purpose.
(2) For a tail-wheel airplane, made the three take-offs and landings in a tail-wheel
airplane with each landing to a full stop.
(3) For night operations, made the three take-offs and landings required by paragraph
(a) (1) above at night.
(b) A pilot who has not met the recency of experience for take-offs and landings shall
satisfactorily complete a requalification curriculum acceptable to the Authority.
(c) Requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) above may be satisfied in a flight simulator
(d) No person may act as a cruise relief pilot in a commercial air transport unless within
the preceding 90 days, that pilot has either:
(1) Operated as PIC, CP or cruise pilot on the same type of aircraft; or
(2) Carried out flying skill refresher training including normal, abnormal and emergency
procedures specific to cruise flight on the same type of aircraft or in a flight
simulator approved for the purpose, and has practiced approach and landing
procedures, where the approach and landing procedure practice may be performed
as the pilot who is not flying the aircraft.
(e) When a pilot is flying several variants of the same type of aircraft or different types of
aircraft with similar characteristics in terms of operating procedures, systems and

8.4-3
PCAR PART 8
handling, the Authority shall decide under which conditions the requirements of
paragraph (a) for each variant or each type of aircraft can be combined.
8.4.1.10 PILOT CURRENCY: IFR OPERATIONS

(a) No person may act as a pilot under IFR, nor in IMC, unless he or she has, within the
past six calendar months
(1) Logged at least six hours of instrument flight time including at least three hours in
flight in the category of aircraft: and
(2) Completed at least six instrument approaches.
(b) A pilot who has completed an instrument competency check with an authorized
representative of the Authority retains currency for IFR operations for six calendar
months following that check.
8.4.1.11 PILOT CURRENCY: GENERAL AVIATION OPERATIONS

(a) In addition to the requirements in Subparts 8.4.1.9 and 8.4.1.10:
(1) No person may act as PIC of an aircraft type certified for more than one pilot or a
turbojet aircraft unless, since the beginning of the past 12 calendar months, he or
she has passed a proficiency check in an aircraft with an authorized representative
of the Authority.
(2) No person may act as PIC of an aircraft type certified for more than one pilot or a
turbojet aircraft unless, since the beginning of the past 24 calendar months, he or
she has passed a proficiency check in the type aircraft to be operated.
(3) No person may act as PIC of an aircraft type certified for a single pilot unless, since
the beginning of the 24 calendar months, he or she has passed a proficiency check
with an authorized representative of the Authority.
(4) No person may act as CP of an aircraft type certified for more than one pilot unless,
since the beginning of the 12 calendar months, he or she has logged 3 take-off and
landings as the sole manipulator of the controls in the aircraft of the same type.
(b) The person conducting the proficiency checks shall ensure that each check duplicates
the maneuvers of the type rating skill test.
Note: Subsection 8.4.1.11 does not apply to pilots engaged in commercial air transport
operations. Those requirements are outlined in Subpart 8.10.1.21.
8.4.1.12 PILOT PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

A pilot may conduct operations only within the general privileges and limitations of each
license as specified in Part 2 of these regulations.

8.4-4
PCAR PART 8
8.5 CREW MEMBER DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES

8.5.1.1 AUTHORITY AND RESPONSIBILITY OF THE PIC
(a) Pilot-in-command (PIC): Each operator shall designate one pilot to act as PIC for each
flight.
(b) The PIC shall be responsible for the operations and safety of the aircraft and for the
safety of all crew members, passengers and cargo on board, when the doors are
closed. The PIC shall also be responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft
from the moment the aircraft is ready to move for the purpose of taking off until the
moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight and the engine(s) used as primary
propulsion units are shut down (and in the case of helicopters, rotor blades stopped).
(c) The PIC of an aircraft shall have final authority as to the operation of the aircraft while
he or she is in command.
(d) The PIC of an aircraft shall, whether manipulating the controls or not, be responsible
for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with the rules of the air, except that the
PIC may depart from these rules in emergency circumstances that render such
departure absolutely necessary in the interests of safety.
(e) In an emergency during flight, the PIC shall ensure that all persons on board are
instructed in such emergency action as may be appropriate to the circumstances.
8.5.1.2 COMPLIANCE WITH LOCAL REGULATIONS

(a) The PIC shall comply with the relevant laws, regulations and procedures of the States
in which the aircraft is operated.
(b) If an emergency situation which endangers the safety of the aircraft or persons
necessitates the taking of action which involves a violation of local regulations or
procedures, the PIC shall -
(1) Notify the appropriate local authority without delay;
(2) Submit a report on any such violation to the appropriate authority of such State, if
required by the State in which the incident occurs; and
(3) Submit a copy of this report to the State of Registry.
(c) Each PIC shall submit reports specified in paragraph (b) to the Authority within 10 days
in the form prescribed.
(d) An operator shall ensure that all employees when abroad know that they must comply
with the laws, regulations, and procedures of those States in which operations are
conducted.
(e) An operator shall ensure that all pilots are familiar with the laws, regulations, and
procedures, pertinent to the performance of their duties, prescribed for the areas to be
traversed, the airports to be used and the air navigation facilities relating thereto. The
operator shall ensure that other members of the flight crew are familiar with such of
these laws, regulations, and procedures as are pertinent to the performance of their
respective duties in the operation of the aircraft.
8.5.1.3 NEGLIGENT OR RECKLESS OPERATIONS OF THE AIRCRAFT

No person may operate an aircraft in a negligent or reckless manner so as to endanger
life or property of others.

8.5-1
PCAR PART 8
8.5.1.4 FITNESS OF FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS

(a) No person may act as PIC or in any other capacity as a required flight crew member
when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them
unable to safely exercise the privileges of his or her license.
(b) The PIC shall be responsible for ensuring that a flight is not:
(1) Commenced if any flight crew member is incapacitated from performing duties by
any cause such as injury, sickness, fatigue, the effects of alcohol or drugs; or
(2) Continued beyond the nearest suitable airport/heliport if a flight crew member’s
capacity to perform functions is significantly reduced by impairment of faculties
from causes such as fatigue, sickness or lack of oxygen.
8.5.1.5 PROHIBITION ON USE OF PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCES, INCLUDING

NARCOTICS, DRUGS OR ALCOHOL
(a) No person may act or attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft:
(1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;
(2) While under the influence of alcohol; or
(3) While using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to
safety.
(b) A crew member shall, up to 8 hours before or immediately after acting or attempting to
act as a crew member, on the request of a law enforcement officer or the Authority,
submit to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or narcotic drugs in the blood.
(c) Whenever there is a reasonable basis to believe that a person may not be in
compliance with this paragraph and upon the request of the Authority, that person shall
furnish the Authority or authorize any clinic, doctor, or other person to release to the
Authority, the results of each blood test taken for presence of alcohol or narcotic
substances up to 8 hours before or immediately after acting or attempting to act as a
crew members.
(d) Any test information provided to the Authority under the provisions of this section may
be used as evidence in any legal proceeding.
8.5.1.6 FLIGHT CREW MEMBER USE OF SEAT BELTS AND SAFETY

HARNESSES
(a) Each flight crew member shall have his or her seat belts fastened during take-off and
landing and all other times when seated at his or her station.
(b) Safety harness. Any flight crew member occupying a pilot’s seat shall keep the safety
harness fastened during the take-off and landing phases; all other flight crew members
shall keep their safety harnesses fastened during the take-off and landing phases
unless the shoulder straps interfere with the performance of their duties, in which case
the shoulder straps may be unfastened but the seat belt must remain fastened.
(c) Each flight crew member occupying a station equipped with a shoulder harness shall
fasten that harness during take-off and landing, except that the shoulder harness may
be unfastened if the flight crew member cannot perform the required duties with the
shoulder harness fastened.

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PCAR PART 8
(d) Each occupant of a seat equipped with a combined safety belt and shoulder harness
shall have the combined safety belt and shoulder harness properly secured about that
occupant during take-off and landing and be able to properly perform assigned duties.
(e) At each unoccupied seat, the safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed, shall be
secured so as not to interfere with crew members in the performance of their duties or
with the rapid egress of occupants in an emergency.
8.5.1.7 FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS AT DUTY STATIONS

(a) Each required flight crew member shall remain at the assigned duty station during take-
off and landing and critical phases of flight.
(b) Each flight crew member shall remain at his or her station during all phases of flight
unless:
(1) Absence is necessary for the performance of his or her duties in connection with
the operation;
(2) Absence is necessary for physiological needs, provided one qualified pilot remains
at the controls at all times; or
(3) The crew member is taking a rest period and a qualified relief crewmember
replaces him or her at the duty station.
(i) For the assigned PIC during the en route cruise portion of the flight by a pilot
who holds an airline transport pilot license and an appropriate type rating, and
who is currently qualified as PIC or CP, and is qualified as PIC of that aircraft
during the en route cruise portion of the flight; and
(ii) In the case of the assigned CP, by a pilot qualified to act as PIC or Co-pilot of
that aircraft during en route operations.
(c) An operator shall, for each type of aircraft, assign to all flight crew members the
necessary functions they are to perform in an emergency or in a situation requiring
emergency evacuation. Annual training in accomplishing these functions shall be
contained in the operator’s training program and shall include instruction in the use of
all emergency and life-saving equipment required to be carried, and drills in the
emergency evacuation of the aircraft.
8.5.1.8 REQUIRED CREW MEMBER EQUIPMENT

(a) Each crew member involved in night operations shall have a flashlight at his or her
station, suitable for the type of operation undertaken, as specified by the operator.
(b) Each pilot crew member shall have at his or her station an aircraft checklist containing
at least the pre-take-off, after take-off, before landing and emergency procedures.
(c) Each pilot crew member shall have at his or her station current and suitable charts to
cover the route of the proposed flight and any route along which it is reasonable to
expect that the flight may be diverted.
(d) Each flight crew member assessed as fit to exercise the privileges of a license subject
to the use of suitable correcting lenses shall have a spare set of the correcting lenses
readily available when performing as a required crew member in commercial air
transport.
(e) Each aircraft shall have at least one copy of current cabin crew safety manual on board.
Each cabin crew member shall have at his or her station the safety

8.5-3
PCAR PART 8
directives/procedures-part of cabin crew safety manual for quick review during take-off
and landing.
8.5.1.9 COMPLIANCE WITH CHECKLISTS

The PIC shall ensure that the checklists specified in Subpart 9.3.1.11 are complied with
in detail.
8.5.1.10 SEARCH AND RESCUE INFORMATION

(a) An operator shall ensure that PIC has available on board the aircraft all the essential
information concerning the search and rescue services in the area over which the
aircraft will be flown.
(b) For all flights, the PIC shall have available on board the aircraft essential information
concerning the search and rescue services in the areas over which it is intended the
aircraft will be flown.
8.5.1.11 PRODUCTION OF AIRCRAFT AND FLIGHT DOCUMENTATION

The PIC shall, within a reasonable time of being requested to do so by a person authorized
by the Authority, produce to that person the documentation required to be carried on the
aircraft.
8.5.1.12 LOCKING OF FLIGHT DECK COMPARTMENT DOOR: COMMERCIAL

AIR TRANSPORT
(a) The PIC shall ensure that the flight deck compartment door (if installed) is locked at all
times during passenger-carrying commercial air transport operations, except as
necessary to accomplish approved operations or to provide for emergency evacuation.
(b) No person may operate a passenger carrying airplane having a maximum certificated
take-off mass in excess of 45,000 kg or with a passenger capacity greater than 60,
unless the flight crew compartment door is closed and locked:
(1) From the time all external doors are closed following embarkation; until
(2) Any such door is opened for disembarkation; except
(3) When necessary to permit access and egress by authorized persons.
8.5.1.13 ADMISSION TO THE FLIGHT DECK: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may admit any person to the flight deck of an aircraft engaged in commercial
air transport operations unless the person being admitted is -
(1) An operating crew member;
(2) A representative of the authority responsible for certification, licensing or
inspection, if this is required for the performance of his or her official duties; or
(3) Permitted by and carried out in accordance with instructions contained in the
Operations Manual.
(b) The PIC shall ensure that

8.5-4
PCAR PART 8
(1) In the interest of safety, admission on the flight deck does not cause distraction
and/or interference with the flight's operations; and
(2) All persons carried on the flight deck are made familiar with the relevant safety
procedures.
8.5.1.14 ADMISSION OF INSPECTOR TO THE FLIGHT DECK

(a) Whenever, in performing the duties of conducting an inspection, an inspector from the
Authority presents [Inspector's Credential Form] to the PIC, the PIC shall give the
inspector free and uninterrupted access to the flight deck of the aircraft.
8.5.1.15 DUTIES DURING CRITICAL PHASES OF FLIGHT: COMMERCIAL AIR

TRANSPORT
(a) No flight crew member may perform any duties during a critical phase of flight except
those required for the safe operation of the aircraft.
(b) No PIC may permit a flight crew member to engage in any activity during a critical
phase of flight which could distract or interfere with the performance of their assigned
duties.
8.5.1.16 MANIPULATION OF THE CONTROLS: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No PIC may allow an unqualified person to manipulate the controls of an aircraft during
commercial air transport operations.
(b) No person may manipulate the controls of an aircraft during commercial air transport
operations unless he or she is qualified to perform the applicable crew member
functions and is authorized by the Operator.
8.5.1.17 SIMULATED ABNORMAL SITUATIONS IN FLIGHT: COMMERCIAL AIR

TRANSPORT
(a) No person may cause or engage in simulated abnormal or emergency situations or the
simulation of IMC by artificial means during commercial air transport operations.
8.5.1.18 COMPLETION OF THE TECHNICAL LOG: COMMERCIAL AIR

TRANSPORT
(a) The PIC shall ensure that all portions of the technical log are completed with known or
suspected defects in the aircraft before, during and after flight operations, including:
(1) The journey logbook; and
(2) The aircraft maintenance records section.
8.5.1.19 REPORTING MECHANICAL IRREGULARITIES

(a) The PIC shall ensure that all mechanical irregularities occurring during flight time are:

8.5-5
PCAR PART 8
(1) For general aviation operations, entered in the aircraft logbook and disposed of in
accordance with the MEL or other approved or prescribed procedure.
(2) For commercial air transport operations and aerial work operations, entered in the
aircraft maintenance records section of the technical log of the aircraft at the
appropriate points before, during and at the end of that flight time.
8.5.1.20 REPORTING OF FACILITY AND NAVIGATION AID INADEQUACIES

(a) Each crew member shall report, without delay, any inadequacy or irregularity of a
facility or navigational aid observed in the course of operations to the person
responsible for that facility or navigational aid.
8.5.1.21 REPORTING OF HAZARDOUS CONDITIONS

(a) The PIC shall report to the appropriate ATC facility, without delay and with enough
details to be pertinent to the safety of other aircraft, any hazardous flight conditions
encountered en-route, including those associated with meteorological conditions.
(1) Those associated with meteorological observations during en-route and climb-out
phases of flight;
(2) On volcanic activity.
8.5.1.22 REPORTING OF INCIDENTS
(a) Air traffic incident report. The PIC shall submit, without delay, an air traffic incident
report whenever an aircraft in flight has been endangered by:
(1) A near collision with another aircraft or object;
(2) Faulty air traffic procedures or lack of compliance with applicable procedures by
ATC or by the flight crew: or
(3) A failure of ATC facilities.
(b) Birds. In the event a bird constitutes an in-flight hazard or an actual bird strike occurs,
the PIC shall, without delay:
(1) Inform the appropriate ground station whenever a potential bird hazard is
observed; and
(2) Submit a written bird strike report after landing.
(c) Dangerous Goods. The PIC shall inform the appropriate ATC facility, if the situation
permits, when an in-flight emergency occurs, involving dangerous goods on board.
(d) Unlawful Interference. The PIC shall submit a report to the local authorities and to the
Authority, without delay, following an act of unlawful interference with the crew
members on board an aircraft.
(e) Laser illumination: the flight crew shall immediately report the incident of laser
illumination by radio to the appropriate Air Traffic Control.
8.5.1.23 ACCIDENT NOTIFICATION

(a) The PIC shall notify the nearest appropriate authority, by the quickest available means,
of any accident involving his or her aircraft that results in serious injury or death of any
person, or substantial damage to the aircraft or property.

8.5-6
PCAR PART 8
(b) The PIC shall submit a report to the Authority of any accident which occurred while he
or she was responsible for the flight.
8.5.1.24 OPERATION OF FLIGHT DECK VOICE AND FLIGHT DATA RECORDERS

(a) The PIC shall ensure that whenever an aircraft has flight recorders installed, those
recorders are operationally checked and operated continuously from the instant
(1) For a flight data recorder, the aircraft begins its take-off roll until it has completed
the landing roll, and
(2) For a flight deck voice recorder, the initiation of the pre-start checklist until the end
of the securing aircraft checklist.
(b) The PIC may not permit a flight data recorder or flight deck voice recorder to be
disabled, switched off or erased during flight, unless necessary to preserve the data
for an accident or incident investigation.
(c) In event of an accident or incident, the PIC shall act to preserve the recorded data for
subsequent investigation.
8.5.1.25 CREW MEMBER OXYGEN: MINIMUM SUPPLY AND USE

(a) The PIC shall ensure that all flight crew members, when engaged in performing duties
essential to the safe operation of an aircraft in flight, shall use breathing oxygen
continuously whenever the circumstances prevail for which its supply has been
required in Subpart 8.6.2.13.2.
(b) All flight crew members of pressurized aircrafts operating above an altitude where the
atmospheric pressure is less than 376 hPa shall have available at the flight duty station
a quick donning type of oxygen mask which will readily supply oxygen upon demand.
(c) The PIC shall ensure that breathing oxygen and masks are available to crew members
in sufficient quantities for all flights at such altitudes where a lack of oxygen might result
in impairment of the faculties of crew members.
(d) In no case shall the minimum supply of oxygen on board the aircraft be less than that
Note: The requirements for oxygen supply and use are prescribed in Part 7, 7.8.12
Required Instruments and Equipment.
(e) The PIC shall ensure that all flight crew members, when engaged in performing duties
essential to the safe operation of an aircraft in flight, use breathing oxygen continuously
at cabin altitudes exceeding 10,000 ft for a period in excess of 30 minutes and
whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 13,000 ft.
(f) One pilot at the controls of a pressurized aircraft in flight shall wear and use an oxygen
mask
(1) For general aviation operations, at flight levels above 350, if there is no other pilot
at their duty station: and
(2) For commercial air transport operations, at flight levels above 250, if there is no
other pilot at their duty station.
(g) Cabin crew should be safeguarded so as to ensure reasonable probability of their
retaining consciousness during any emergency descent which may be necessary in
the event of loss of pressurization and, in addition, they should have such means of

8.5-7
PCAR PART 8
protection as will enable them to administer first aid to passengers during stabilized
flight following the emergency. Passengers should be safeguarded by such devices or
operational procedures as will ensure reasonable probability of their surviving the
effects of hypoxia in the event of loss of pressurization.
8.5.1.26 PORTABLE ELECTRONIC DEVICES

(a) No PIC or SCC may permit any person to use, nor may any person use a portable
electronic device, including cell-phone, on board an aircraft that may adversely affect
the performance of aircraft systems and equipment unless
(1) For IFR operations other than commercial air transport, the PIC allows such a
device prior to its use; or
(2) For commercial air transport operations, the Operator makes a determination of
acceptable devices and publishes that information in the Operations Manual for
the crew members use; and
(3) The PIC or SCC informs passengers of the permitted use.
8.5.1.27 CARRIAGE OF DANGEROUS GOODS

8.5.1.27.1 GENERAL
(a) No person shall carry dangerous goods in an aircraft registered in Republic of the
Philippines or operated in Republic of the Philippines except:
(1) With the written permission of the Authority and in accordance with the regulations
and/or conditions set by the Authority in granting such permission; and
(2) In accordance with the Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous
Goods by Air issued by the Council of International Civil Aviation Organization and
with any variations to those instructions that the Authority may from time to time
mandate and provide notification of to ICAO.
(b) Operators wishing to carry dangerous goods in an aircraft to, from or over the territory
of Republic of the Philippines must obtain prior written permission from the Director
General. The application must include details of Dangerous Goods Training Program.
(c) The operator shall ensure that all personnel, including third-party personnel,
involved in the acceptance, handling, loading and unloading of cargo are
informed of the operator’s operational approval and limitations with regard to
the transport of dangerous goods.
(d) On shipments to, from, within, or transiting through Republic of the Philippines, a 24-
hour emergency response information must be provided for all dangerous goods,
except for dangerous goods for which no transport document is required.
(e) The transport document must include a 24-hour emergency response telephone
number (including the area codes and for international number for location outside
Republic of the Philippines, the international access code, country and city codes are
needed). The telephone number must be monitored at all times by a person who :
(1) Has complete knowledge of emergency response and accident information fro
dangerous goods;
(2) Has immediate access to a person who possesses such knowledge and
information; and

8.5-8
PCAR PART 8
(3) Is knowledgeable of the hazards and characteristics of the dangerous goods being
transported.
(f) Infectious substances other than human blood, human urine and tissue are prohibited
from entry to Republic of the Philippines without approval from the Department of
Health Authorities and must be transported only on a cargo aircraft. Infectious
substances are not allowed in airmail.
(g) An operator who is involved in a dangerous goods incident and/or accident in the
Republic of the Philippines must provide the Authority all the necessary information to
allow the Authority take necessary accident mitigation action. A written report must be
prepared and sent by the operator (or his authorized representative) to the Authority
within 72 hours of the occurrence.
(h) No person may offer for transport aboard a passenger aircraft, a package or an over-
pack with an activity greater than 3.0.
(1) No package may be offered for transport aboard a passenger aircraft, a package
or an over-pack with an activity greater than 3,000 x A1 or 3,000 x A2 1,000 TBq
(27,000 Ci), whichever is less.
(2) All type B (U), type B (M), type H (U) type H (M) and fissile package design must
be certified by the Philippine Nuclear Research Institute (PNRI). Request for a
package design certification and approval should be directed to the appropriate
authority of the Philippine (PNRI).
8.5.1.27.2 STATE RESPONSIBILITIES

(a) The Authority shall indicate in the operations specification if an operator is approved
or is not approved to transport dangerous goods as cargo. When an operator is
approved to transport dangerous goods as cargo any limitations should be included.
(b) An operational approval may be granted for the transport of specific types of
dangerous goods only (e.g. dry ice, biological substance, Category B, and dangerous
goods in excepted quantities) or COMAT.
(c) The Supplement to the Technical Instructions contains guidance on a State’s
responsibilities with respect to operators. This includes additional information to Part
7 of the Technical Instructions on storage and loading, provision of information,
inspections, enforcement and CAR Parts 8, 9 and 18 information relevant to the
State’s responsibilities for dangerous goods.
(d) Carriage of dangerous goods other than as cargo (e.g. medical flights, search and
rescue) are addressed in Part 1, Chapter 1, of the Technical Instructions. The
exceptions for the carriage of dangerous goods that are either equipment or for use
on board the aircraft during flight are detailed in Part 1, 2.2.1, of the Technical
Instructions.
8.5.1.27.3 OPERATOR RESPONSIBILITIES

(a) An operator's training programme should cover, as a minimum, the aspects of the
transport of dangerous goods listed in the Technical Instructions in Table 1-4 for
operators holding an approval or Table 1-5 for operators without an approval.
Recurrent training must be provided within 24 months of previous training, except as
otherwise provided by the Technical Instructions.

8.5-9
PCAR PART 8
(b) Details of the dangerous goods training programme including the policies and
procedures regarding third-party personnel involved in the acceptance, handling,
loading and unloading of dangerous goods cargo should be included in the operations
manual.
(c) The Authority requires that operators provide information in the operations manual
and/or other appropriate manuals that will enable flight crews, other employees and
ground handling agents to carry out their responsibilities with regard to the transport of
dangerous goods and that initial training be conducted prior to performing a job
function involving dangerous goods as provided in the Technical Instructions.
(d) Operators should meet and maintain requirements established by the States in which
operations are conducted.
(e) Operators may seek approval to transport, as cargo, specific dangerous goods only,
such as dry ice, biological substance, Category B, COMAT and dangerous goods in
excepted quantities.
(f) Attachment 1 to Part S-7, Chapter 7, of the Supplement to the Technical Instructions
contains additional guidance and information on requirements regarding operators not
approved to transport dangerous goods as cargo and for operators that are approved
to transport dangerous goods as cargo.
(g) All operators should develop and implement a system that ensures they will remain
current with regulatory changes and updates. The Technical Instructions contain
detailed instructions necessary for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air. These
Instructions are issued biennially, becoming effective on 1 January of an odd-
numbered year.
8.5.1.27.3.1 OPERATORS WITH NO OPERATIONAL APPROVAL TO TRANSPORT

DANGEROUS GOODS AS CARGO ( NO DG CARRY OPERATOR)
The Authority shall ensure that operators not approved to transport dangerous goods
have:
(a) established a dangerous goods training programme that meets the applicable
requirements of the Technical Instructions, Part 1, Chapter 4 and Part 18, as
appropriate. Details of the dangerous goods training programme shall be included in
the operator’s operations manuals;
(b) established dangerous goods policies and procedures in its operations manual to
meet, at a minimum, the requirements of the Technical Instructions and Part 18 to
allow operator personnel to:
(1) identify and reject undeclared dangerous goods, including COMAT classified as
dangerous goods; and
(2) report to the appropriate authorities of the State of the Operator and the State in
which it occurred any;
(i) occasions when undeclared dangerous goods are discovered in cargo or mail;
and
(ii) dangerous goods accidents and incidents.

8.5-10
PCAR PART 8
8.5.1.27.3.2 OPERATORS TRANSPORTING DANGEROUS GOODS AS CARGO ( DG

CARRY OPERATORS)
The Authority shall approve the transport of dangerous goods and ensure that the
operator:
(a) establishes a dangerous goods training programme that meets the requirements in the
Technical Instructions, Part 1, Chapter 4, Table 1-4 and the requirements of Part 18,
as appropriate. Details of the dangerous goods training programme operator’s shall be
included in the operations manuals.
(b) established dangerous goods policies and procedures in its operations manual to
meet, at a minimum, the requirements of the Technical Instructions and Part 18 to
enable operator personnel to:
(1) identify and reject undeclared or misdeclared dangerous goods, including COMAT
classified as dangerous goods;
(2) report to the appropriate authorities of the State of the Operator and the State in
which it occurred any;
(i) occasions when undeclared or misdeclared dangerous goods are discovered
in cargo or mail; and
(ii) dangerous goods accidents and incidents;
(3) report to the appropriate authorities of the State of the Operator and the State of
Origin any occasions when dangerous goods are discovered to have been carried;
(i) when not loaded, segregated, separated or secured in accordance with the
Technical Instructions Part 7, Chapter 2; and
(ii) without information having been provided to the pilot-in-command( NOTOC);
(4) accept, handle, store, transport, load and unload dangerous goods, including
COMAT classified as dangerous goods as cargo on board an aircraft; and
(5) provide the pilot-in-command with accurate and legible written or printed
information concerning dangerous goods that are to be carried as cargo.
8.5.1.28 MICROPHONES
(a) For AOC holders operating aircraft, a required flight crew member shall use a boom or
throat microphone to communicate with another flight crewmember and air traffic
service below the transition level or altitude.
(b) For general aviation operations in an airplane, helicopter or powered lift aircraft, a
required flight crew member should use a boom or throat microphone to communicate
with another flight crew member and air traffic service below the transition level or
altitude.
(c) For aerial work operations, a required flight crew member should use a boom or throat
microphone to communicate with another flight crewmember and air traffic service
below the transition level or altitude, as applicable to the mission.
8.5.1.29 LASER ILLUMINATION AGAINST CIVIL AIRCRAFT

(a) No person shall intentionally project a laser beam or direct by a high intensity light at
an aircraft which can result in distraction, disruption, disorientation and, in extreme

8.5-11
PCAR PART 8
cases, incapacitation, adversely affect the ability of the flight crew to carry out their
responsibilities, especially during take-off and landing;
(b) A person using or planning to use lasers or other directed high intensity lights outdoors
that may enter navigable airspace with sufficient power to cause an aviation hazard
shall secure the written approval of the Authority within five (5) days from the intended
date of use or plan to use laser beam illumination;
(c) The PIC shall not deliberately operate an aircraft into a laser beam or other high-
intensity light unless flight safety is ensured; and
(d) No laser beam illumination is allowed within ten (10) nautical miles from the center of
aerodrome.

8.5-12
PCAR PART 8
8.6 FLIGHT PLANNING AND SUPERVISION

8.6.1 FLIGHT PLANS
8.6.1.1 SUBMISSION OF A FLIGHT PLAN
(a) Prior to operating one of the following, a pilot shall file a VFR or IFR flight plan, as
applicable, for
(1) Any flight (or portion thereof) to be provided with air traffic control service;
(2) Any IFR flight within advisory airspace;
(3) Any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so
required by the appropriate ATC authority to facilitate the provision of flight
information, alerting and search and rescue services;
(4) Any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so
required by the appropriate ATC authority to facilitate co-ordination with
appropriate military units or with ATC facilities in adjacent states in order to avoid
the possible need for interception for the purpose of identification; and
(5) Any flight across international borders.
(b) The PIC shall submit a flight plan before departure or during flight, to the appropriate
ATC facility, unless arrangements have been made for submission of repetitive flight
plans.
(c) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority, a pilot should submit a
flight plan to the appropriate ATC facility
(1) At least sixty (60) minutes before departure; or
(2) If submitted during flight, at a time which will ensure its receipt by the appropriate
ATC facility at least ten (10) minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach-
(i) The intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area; or
(ii) The point of crossing an airway or advisory route.
8.6.1.2 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL FLIGHT PLAN: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may take-off an aircraft in commercial air transport if an ATC flight plan has
not been filed, except as authorized by the Authority.
8.6.1.3 CONTENTS OF A FLIGHT PLAN

(a) Each person filing an IFR or VFR flight plan shall include in it the following information
(1) Aircraft identification;
(2) Flight rules and type of flight;
(3) Number and type(s) of aircraft and wake turbulence category;
(4) Equipment;
(5) Departure airport and alternate (if required);
(6) Estimated off-block time;
(7) Cruising speed(s);
(8) Cruising level(s);

8.6-1
PCAR PART 8
(9) Route to be followed;

(10) Destination airport and alternate (if required);
(11) Fuel endurance;
(12) Total number of persons on board;
(13) Emergency and survival equipment; and
(14) Other information.
(b) Whatever the purpose for which it is submitted, a flight plan shall contain information,
as applicable, on relevant items up to and including “alternate airport(s)" regarding the
whole route or the portion thereof for which the flight plan is submitted. It shall, in
addition, contain information, as applicable, on all other items when so prescribed by
the appropriate ATS authority or when otherwise deemed necessary by the person
submitting the flight plan.
8.6.1.4 PLANNED RECLEARANCE

(a) If during flight planning a person determines that there is a possibility, depending on
fuel endurance, that a flight may be able to change destinations and still comply with
minimum fuel supply planning requirements, that person shall notify the appropriate
ATC facility of this possibility when the flight plan is submitted.
Note: The intent of this provision is to facilitate a new clearance to a revised destination,
normally beyond the filed destination airport.
8.6.1.5 CHANGES TO A FLIGHT PLAN

(a) When a change occurs to a flight plan submitted for an IFR flight or a VFR flight
operated as a controlled flight. The pilot shall report that change as soon as practicable
to the appropriate ATC facility.
(b) For VFR flights other than those operated as controlled flight, the PIC shall report
significant changes to a flight plan as soon as practicable to the appropriate ATC
facility.
Note: Information submitted prior to departure regarding fuel endurance or total
number of persons carried on board, if incorrect at time of departure constitutes a
significant change and shall be reported.
8.6.1.6 CLOSING A FLIGHT PLAN

(a) The PIC shall make a report of arrival either in person or by radio to the appropriate
ATC facility at the earliest possible moment after landing at the destination airport,
unless ATC automatically closes a flight plan.
(b) When a flight plan has been submitted for a portion of a flight, but not the arrival at
destination, the pilot shall close that flight plan en route with the appropriate ATC
facility.
(c) When no ATC facility exists at the arrival airport, the pilot shall contact the nearest ATC
facility to close the flight plan as soon as practicable after landing and by the quickest
means available.
(d) Pilots shall include the following elements of information in their arrival reports:

8.6-2
PCAR PART 8

(2) Departure airport;
(3) Destination airport (only in the case of a diversionary landing);
(4) Arrival airport; and
(5) Time of arrival.
8.6.2 FLIGHT PLANNING AND PREPARATION

8.6.2.1 AIRCRAFT AIRWORTHINESS AND SAFETY PRECAUTIONS
(a) A flight, or series of flights, shall not be commenced until flight preparation forms have
been completed certifying that the PIC is satisfied that:
(1) the aircraft is airworthy, duly registered and that appropriate certificates with
respect thereto are on board the aircraft;
(2) the instruments and equipment prescribed in Part 7 for the particular type of
operation to be undertaken, are appropriate, taking in account the expected flight
conditions, installed and sufficient for the flight;
(3) any necessary maintenance has been performed and a maintenance release, if
applicable, has been issued in respect to the aircraft;
(4) the mass of the aircraft and center of gravity location are such that the flight can
be conducted safely, taking into account the flight conditions expected;
(5) any load carried is properly distributed and safely secured;
(6) a check has been completed indicating that the operating limitations, contained in
the flight manual or its equivalent, can be complied with for the flight to be
undertaken; and
(7) the Standards of Subpart 8.6.2.16 relating to the operational flight planning have
been complied with.
(b) The PIC shall have sufficient information on climb performance with all engines
operating to enable determination of the climb gradient that can be achieved during
the departure phase for the existing take-off conditions and intended take-off
technique.
(c) For commercial air transport operations, the PIC shall certify by signing the aircraft
technical log that he or she is satisfied that the requirements of paragraph (a) have
been met for a particular flight.
8.6.2.2 ADEQUACY OF OPERATING FACILITIES

(a) An operator shall ensure that a flight will not be commenced unless it has been
ascertained by every reasonable means available that the ground and/or water
facilities available and directly required on such flight, for the safe operation of the
airplane or helicopter and the protection of the passengers, are adequate for the type
of operation under which the flight is to be conducted and are adequately operated for
this purpose.
(b) An operator shall ensure that any inadequacy of facilities observed in the course of
operations is reported to the authority responsible for them, without undue delay.

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(c) The PIC shall not commence a flight unless it has been ascertained by every
reasonable means available that the ground and/or water areas and facilities available
and directly required for such flight and for the safe operation of the aircraft are
adequate, including communication facilities and navigation aids.
(d) Subject to their published conditions of use, aerodromes and their facilities shall be
kept continuously available for flight operations during their published hours of
operations, irrespective of meteorological conditions.
(e) An operator shall, as part of its safety management system, assess the level of rescue
and fire fighting service (RFFS) protection available at any aerodrome intended to be
specified in the operational flight plan in order to ensure that an acceptable level of
protection is available for the airplane intended to be used.
(f) Information related to the level of RFFS protection that is deemed acceptable by the
operator shall be contained in the operations manual.
Note 1: “Reasonable means” denotes use, at the point of departure, of information
available to the PIC either through official information published by the aeronautical
information services or readily obtainable in other sources.
Note 2: ICAO Annex 6, Part 1, Attachment I, contains guidance on assessing an
acceptable level of RFFS protection at aerodromes.
Note 3: It is not intended that this guidance limit or regulate the operation of an
aerodrome. The assessment performed by the operator does not in any way affect
the RFFS requirements of ICAO Annex 14, Volume I, for aerodromes.
8.6.2.3 WEATHER REPORTS AND FORECASTS

(a) Before commencing a flight, the PIC shall be familiar with all available meteorological
information appropriate to the intended flight.
(b) The PIC shall include, during preparation for a flight away from the vicinity of the place
of departure, and for every flight under the IFR:
(1) A study of available current weather reports and forecasts; and
(2) The planning of an alternative course of action to provide for the eventuality that
the flight cannot be completed as planned, because of weather conditions.
8.6.2.4 METEOROLOGICAL LIMITATIONS FOR VFR FLIGHTS

(a) No person will commence a flight to be conducted in accordance with the VFR unless
available current meteorological reports, or a combination of current reports and
forecasts, indicate that the meteorological conditions along the route, or that part of
the route to be flown under the VFR, will, at the appropriate time, allow VFR operations.
8.6.2.5 IFR DESTINATION AIRPORT/HELIPORT

(a) When No person may conduct an IFR flight unless—
(1) At the time of take-off, the meteorological conditions at the departure aerodrome
are at or above the operator’s established aerodrome operating minima for that
operation; and

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PCAR PART 8
(2) At the time of take-off or point of in-flight re-planning, current meteorological reports
or a combination of current reports and forecasts indicate that the meteorological
conditions will be, at the estimated time of use, at or above the operator’s
established aerodrome operating minima for that operation.
8.6.2.6 DESTINATION ALTERNATE AIRPORT/HELIPORT

8.6.2.6.1 IFR DESTINATION ALTERNATE AIRPORT/HELIPORT
For a flight to be conducted in accordance with the IFR, at least one destination alternate
airport/heliport shall be selected and specified in the operational and ATS flight plans,
unless:
(a) the duration of the flight from the departure aerodrome, or from the point of in-flight re-
planning to the destination aerodrome is such that, taking into account all
meteorological conditions and operational information relevant to the flight, at the
estimated time of use, a reasonable certainty exists that:
(1) the approach and landing may be made under VMC, (for helicopters: the weather
conditions in Subpart 8.6.2.6.2 prevails); and
(2) separate runways are usable at the estimated time of use of the destination
aerodrome with at least one runway having an operational instrument approach
procedure, in case of helicopter operations, a point of no return (PNR) shall be
determined; or
(b) the aerodrome is isolated. Operations into isolated aerodromes do not require the
selection of a destination alternate aerodrome(s) and shall be planned in accordance
with 8.6.2.15.1(c) (4) (D);
(1) for each flight into an isolated aerodrome a point of no return shall be determined;
and
(2) a flight to be conducted to an isolated aerodrome shall not be continued past the
point of no return unless a current assessment of meteorological conditions, traffic,
and other operational conditions indicate that a safe landing can be made at the
estimated time of use.
Note 1: Separate runways are two or more runways at the same aerodrome
configured such that if one runway is closed, operations to the other runway(s) can
be conducted.
Note 2: Guidance on planning operations to isolated aerodromes is contained in
the Flight Planning and Fuel Management Manual (ICAO Doc 9976).
(c) Two destination alternate aerodromes shall be selected and specified in the
operational and ATS flight plans when, for the destination aerodrome:
(1) meteorological conditions at the estimated time of use will be below the operator’s
established aerodrome operating minima for that operation; or meteorological
information is not available.
(d) For a heliport to be selected as a destination alternate, the available information shall
indicate that, at the estimated time of use, the conditions will be at or above the heliport
operating minima for that operation.
(e) For helicopters: For a flight departing to a destination which is forecast to be below the
heliport operating minima, two destination alternates should be selected. The first
destination alternate should be at or above the heliport operating minima for
destination and the second at or above the heliport operating minima for alternate.

8.6-5
PCAR PART 8
8.6.2.6.2 WHEN NO DESTINATION ALTERNATE AIRPORT/HELIPORT IS

REQUIRED
When no destination alternate airport/heliport is required. A flight to be conducted in
accordance with the IFR to an airport/heliport when no alternate airport/heliport is required
shall not be commenced unless:
(a) a standard instrument approach procedure prescribed for the airport/heliport of
intended landing by the jurisdictional authorities:
(1) For airplanes: Available current meteorological information indicates that the
following meteorological conditions will exist from two hours before to two hours
after the estimated time of arrival-
(i) A cloud base of at least 300 m (1,000 ft) above the minimum associated with
the instrument approach procedure; and
(ii) Visibility of at least 5.5 km or of 4 km more than the minimum associated with
the procedure.
(2) For helicopters: Available current meteorological information indicates that the
following meteorological conditions will exist from two hours before to two hours
after the estimated time of arrival: or from the actual time of departure to two hours
after the estimated time of arrival, whichever is the shorter period:
(i) a cloud base of at least 120 m (400 ft) above the minimum associated with the
instrument approach procedure; and
(ii) visibility of at least 1.5 km more than the minimum associated with the
procedure.
(b) The ceiling and visibility requirements of paragraph (a) may be reduced upon approval
of the Authority for
(1) Helicopters; or
(2) Commercial air transport where no suitable destination alternate exists.
8.6.2.6.3 IFR DESTINATION ALTERNATE REQUIREMENT

(a) Commercial air transport where the Authority has approved alternate minima as an
equivalent level of safety based on the results of a specific safety risk assessment
demonstrated by the operator, which contains the following:
(1) Capabilities of the operator;
(2) Overall capability of the airplane and its systems;
(3) Available aerodrome technologies, capabilities and infrastructure;
(4) Quality and reliability of meteorological information;
(5) Identified hazards and safety risks associated with each alternate aerodrome
variation;
(6) Specific mitigation measures.
Note: ICAO Doc 9859, Safety Management Manual, and ICAO Doc 9976, Flight
Planning and Fuel Management Manual, contain guidance on performing a safety
risk assessment and on determining variations, including examples of variations.

8.6-6
PCAR PART 8
(b) To ensure that an adequate margin of safety is observed in determining whether or not
an approach and landing can be safely carried out at each alternate aerodrome, the
operator shall specify appropriate incremental values, acceptable to the Authority, for
height of cloud base and visibility to be added to the operator’s established aerodrome
operating minima.
Note: Guidance on the selection of these incremental values is contained in the Flight
Planning and Fuel Management Manual (ICAO Doc 9976).
(c) The Authority shall approve a margin of time established by the operator for the
estimated time of use of an aerodrome.
Note: Guidance on establishing an appropriate margin of time for the estimated time
of use of an aerodrome is contained in the Flight Planning and Fuel Management
Manual (ICAO Doc 9976).
8.6.2.7 IFR ALTERNATE AIRPORT/HELIPORT SELECTION CRITERIA

(a) If alternate minima are published, no PIC may designate an alternate airport/heliport
in an IFR flight plan unless the current available forecast indicates that the
meteorological conditions at that alternate at the ETA will be at or above those
published alternate minima for that operation.
(b) If alternate minima are not published, and if there is no prohibition against using the
airport as an IFR planning alternate, each PIC shall ensure that the meteorological
conditions at that alternate at the ETA will be at or above:
(1) For a precision approach procedure, a ceiling of at least 180 m (600 feet) and
visibility of not less than 3 km; or
(2) For a non-precision approach procedure, a ceiling of at least 240 m (800 feet) and
visibility of not less than 5 km.
8.6.2.8 OFF-SHORE ALTERNATES FOR HELICOPTER OPERATIONS

(a) No person may designate an offshore alternate landing site when it is possible to carry
enough fuel to have an on-shore alternate landing site.
Note: The selection of offshore alternates should be exceptional cases, the details of
which have been approved by the Authority, and should not include payload
enhancement in IMC.
(b) Suitable offshore alternates shall be specified subject to the following:
(1) The offshore alternates shall be used only after a point of no return (PNR). Prior to
PNR onshore alternates shall be used;
(2) Mechanical reliability of critical control systems and critical components shall be
considered and taken into account when determining the suitability of the
alternates;
(3) One engine inoperative performance capability shall be attainable prior to arrival
at the alternate;
(4) To the extent possible, deck availability shall be guaranteed; and
(5) Weather information must be reliable and accurate.
(6) For IFR operations, an instrument approach procedure shall be prescribed and
available.

8.6-7
PCAR PART 8
Note 1: Offshore alternates should not be used when it is possible to carry enough
fuel to have an onshore alternate. Offshore alternates should not be used in a
hostile environment.
Note 2: The landing technique specified in the flight manual following control
system failure may preclude the selection of certain heli-decks as alternate
heliports. The mechanical reliability of critical control systems shall be taken into
account when determining the suitability and necessity for an offshore alternate.
8.6.2.9 TAKE-OFF ALTERNATE AIRPORTS/HELIPORTS: COMMERCIAL AIR

TRANSPORT OPERATIONS
(a) No person may release or take-off an aircraft without a suitable take-off alternate
specified in the flight release if either the meteorological conditions at the
airport/heliport of departure are below the operator’s established airport/heliport
operating landing minima for that operation or if it would not be possible to return to
the airport/heliport of departure for other reasons.
(b) Each operator shall ensure that each take-off alternate specified shall be located within
the following flight time from the airport of departure:
(1) For aircraft with two engines, one hour of flight time at a one-engine-inoperative
cruising speed, determined from the aircraft operating manual, calculated in ISA
and still-air conditions using the actual take-off mass; or
(2) For aircraft with three or four power-unit, two hours of flight time at an all-engine
operating cruising speed, determined from the aircraft operating manual,
calculated in ISA and still-air conditions using the actual take-off mass; or
(3) For aircraft engaged in extended diversion time operations (EDTO) where an
alternate aerodrome meeting the distance criteria of a) or b) is not available, the
first available alternate aerodrome located within the distance of the operator’s
approved maximum diversion time considering the actual take-off mass.
(4) For an aerodrome to be selected as a take-off alternate the available information
shall indicate that, at the estimated time of use, the conditions will be at or above
the operator’s established aerodrome operating minima for that operation.
Note: All calculations are based on the one-engine-inoperative cruising speed
according to the AFM in still air conditions based on the actual take-off mass.
(c) Commercial air transport where the Authority has approved alternate minima as an
variation;

8.6-8
PCAR PART 8
8.6.2.10 MAXIMUM DISTANCE FROM AN ADEQUATE AIRPORT FOR TWIN-

ENGINED AIRPLANES WITHOUT AN EDTO APPROVAL
(a) Unless specifically approved by the Authority (EDTO Approval), an Operator shall not
operate a two power-units airplane over a route which contains a point further from an
adequate airport than, in the case of:
(1) Large, turbine engine powered airplanes the distance flown in 60 minutes at the
one power-unit inoperative cruise speed determined in accordance with paragraph
(b) with either:
(i) A maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more; or
(ii) A maximum take-off mass of 45,360 kg or more,
(2) Reciprocating engine powered airplanes:
(i) The distance flown in 120 minutes at the one power-unit inoperative cruise
speed determined in accordance with paragraph (b); or
(ii) 300 nautical miles, whichever is less.
(b) An Operator shall determine a speed for the calculation of the maximum distance to
an adequate airport for each two power-unit airplane type or variant operated, not
exceeding Vmo based upon the true airspeed that the airplane can maintain with one
power-unit inoperative under the following conditions:
(1) International Standard Atmosphere;
(2) Level flight:
(i) For turbine engine powered airplanes:
(A) At FL 170; or
(B) At the maximum flight level to which the airplane, with one power-unit
inoperative, can climb, and maintain, using the gross rate of climb specified
in the AFM, whichever is less.
(ii) For propeller driven airplanes:
(A) At FL 80; or
(B) At the maximum flight level to which the airplane, with one power-unit
inoperative, can climb, and maintain, using the gross rate of climb specified
in the AFM, whichever is less.
(3) Maximum continuous thrust or power on the remaining operating power-unit:
(4) An airplane mass not less than that resulting from:
(i) Take-off at sea-level at maximum take-off mass until the time elapsed since
take-off is equal to the applicable threshold prescribed in paragraph (a);
(ii) All engines climb to the optimum long range cruise altitude until the time
elapsed since take-off is equal to the applicable threshold prescribed in
subparagraph (a); and
(iii) All engines cruise at the long range cruise speed at this altitude until the time
elapsed since take-off is equal to the applicable threshold prescribed in
paragraph (a).
(c) An Operator shall ensure that the following data, specific to each type or variant, is
included in the Operations Manual:

8.6-9
PCAR PART 8
(1) The one power-unit inoperative cruise speed determined in accordance with
paragraph (b): and
(2) The maximum distance from an adequate airport determined in accordance with
paragraphs (a) and (b).
Note: The speeds and altitudes (flight levels) specified above are only intended to
be used for establishing the maximum distance from an adequate airport.
8.6.2.11 REQUIREMENTS FOR EXTENDED DIVERSION TIME OPERATIONS -

AIRPLANES [AOC]
(a) An AOC holder shall not conduct operations beyond the threshold distance determined
in accordance with Subpart 8.6.2.10 unless approved to do so by the Authority.
(b) In requesting EDTO approval, each AOC holder shall show to the satisfaction of the
Authority that:
(1) For airplanes:
(i) For all airplanes,
(A) the most limiting EDTO significant system time limitation, if any indicated in
the Airplane Flight Manual (directly or by reference) and relevant to that
particular operation is not exceeded; and
(B) the additional fuel required by Subpart 8.6.2.15 shall include the fuel
necessary to comply with the EDTO critical fuel scenario as established by
the Authority.
(ii) For airplanes with two turbine engines, the airplanes EDTO certified and has
verified the–
(A) Reliability of the propulsion system;
(B) Airworthiness certification for EDTO of the airplane type; and
(C) EDTO maintenance program.
(D) Crew training programs; for two power-unit airplanes are consistent with
the level of safety required for current extended range of operations with
the three and four unit turbine-powered airplanes.
(2) It has conducted a safety risk assessment which demonstrates how an equivalent
level of safety will be maintained, taking into account the following:
(i) Capabilities of the operator;
(ii) Overall reliability of the airplane;
(iii) Reliability of each time limited system;
(iv) Relevant information from the airplane manufacturer; and
(v) Specific mitigation measures.
(c) Before conducting an EDTO flight, an AOC holder shall ensure that a suitable EDTO
en-route alternate is available, within either the approved diversion time or a diversion
time based on MEL generated serviceability status of the airplane whichever is shorter.
(d) No AOC holder shall commence a flight unless, during the possible period of arrival,
the required en-route alternate aerodrome will be available and the available
information indicates that conditions at the aerodrome will be at or above the
aerodrome operating minima approved for the operation.

8.6-10
PCAR PART 8
(e) No AOC holder shall conduct operations beyond 60 minutes, from a point on a route
to an en-route alternate aerodrome unless it ensures that:
(1) For all airplanes;
(i) En-route alternate aerodromes are identified; and
(ii) The most up-to-date information is provided to the flight crew on identified en-
route alternate aerodromes, including operational status and meteorological
conditions;
(2) For airplanes with two turbine engines, the most up-to-date information provided
to the flight crew indicates that conditions at identified en-route alternate
aerodromes will be at or above the operator’s established aerodrome operating
minima for the operation at the estimated time of use.
(3) These requirements are incorporated into the operators:
(i) operational control and flight dispatch procedures;
(ii) operating procedures; and
(iii) training programs.
(f) No AOC Holder shall proceed beyond the threshold time approved by the Authority
unless:
(1) the identified en-route alternate aerodromes have been re-evaluated for
availability; and
(2) the most up to date information indicates that, during the estimated time of use,
conditions at those aerodromes will be at or above the operator’s established
aerodrome operating minima for that operation; or.
(3) conditions are identified that would preclude a safe approach and landing at that
aerodrome during the estimated time of use and an alternative course of action
has been determined.
Note 1: ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Attachment D contains guidance on the
requirements of this provision.
Note 2: FAA AC 120-42B (as amended), Extended Operations (EDTO and Polar
Operations), provides additional guidance.
(g) Commercial air transport where the Authority has approved alternate minima as an
variation;

8.6-11
PCAR PART 8
8.6.2.12 EN ROUTE ALTERNATE AIRPORTS: EDTO OPERATIONS

(a) The PIC shall ensure that the required en route alternates for EDTO are selected and
specified in ATC flight plans in accordance with the EDTO diversion time approved by
the Authority.
(b) No person shall select an aerodrome as an EDTO en-route alternate aerodrome unless
the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that
during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the expected time
of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the planning
minima prescribed in the table below, and in accordance with the operator’s EDTO
approval.
(c) The ceiling and visibility requirements for operations conducted in accordance with
paragraphs (a) and (b) may be reduced upon approval of the Authority for—
(d) Commercial air transport where the Authority has approved alternate minima as an
variation;
Note 1: ICAO Doc 9859, Safety Management Manual, and ICAO Doc 9976, Flight
Planning and Fuel Management Manual, provide guidance on performing a safety
Note 2: The forecast weather criteria used in the selection of alternate aerodromes
for IFR flight will also be used for the selection of EDTO alternates.
Note 3: The forecast weather criteria used in the selection of alternate airports for
IFR flight will also be used for the selection of EDTO alternates.

8.6-12
PCAR PART 8
Note 1: Runways on the same airport are considered to be separate runways when
they are separate landing surfaces which may overlay or cross such that if one of the
runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other
runway and each of the landing surfaces has a separate approach based on a separate
aid.
8.6.2.13 FUEL, OIL, AND OXYGEN PLANNING AND CONTINGENCY FACTORS

8.6.2.13.1 FUEL AND OIL PLANNING AND CONTINGENCY FACTORS
(a) A flight shall not be commenced unless, taking into account both the meteorological
conditions and any delays that are expected in flight, the aircraft carries sufficient fuel
and oil to ensure that it can safely complete the flight, and, applicable special
provisions are complied with, as stated in Subpart 8.6.2.14 or 8.6.2.15. In addition, a
reserve shall be carried to provide for contingencies.
(b) In computing the fuel and oil required in paragraph (a) at least the following shall be
considered:
(1) meteorological conditions forecast;
(2) expected ATC routings;
(3) anticipated traffic delays;
(4) for IFR flights, one instrument approach at the destination, including a missed
approach;
(5) procedures prescribed in the operations manual for loss of pressurization en route,
where applicable;
(6) failure of one power-unit en route; and
(7) Any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft or increase fuel and/or
oil consumption.
(c) Each person computing the required minimum fuel and oil supply shall ensure that the
minimum fuel supply calculation includes an additional amount of fuel and oil to provide
for the increased consumption on the occurrence of any of the potential contingencies
specified by the operator, equal to that necessary to fly a percentage of the total time
for the flight from take-off to destination, as approved by the Authority.
(d) No PIC may commence a flight to an airport/heliport where no suitable alternate
airport/heliport is available because the destination airport/heliport is isolated, without
enough reserve fuel for two additional hours’ flight at normal cruise consumption, at
1,500 feet above the airport/heliport.
(e) The Authority may grant specific approval for commercial air transport operations to
isolated airports/heliport without regard to consumption requirement of paragraph (d).
(f) Each operator shall maintain fuel records to enable the Authority to ascertain that, for
each flight, the requirements of Subparts 8.6.2.14 and 8.6.2.15 have been complied
with. Fuel records shall be retained by the operator for a period of three (3) months.
(g) Each operator shall maintain oil records to enable the Authority to ascertain that trends
for oil consumption are such that an airplane has sufficient oil to complete each flight.
(h) Fuel and oil records shall be retained by the operator for a period of three months.
(i) No person may commence a flight unless he or she takes into account the fuel, oil,
and oxygen needed to ensure the safe completion of the flight, including any reserves
to be carried for contingencies.

8.6-13
PCAR PART 8
(j) For airplanes in AOC operations, the amount of usable fuel to be carried shall, as a
minimum, be based on:
(1) The following data –
(i) Current airplane-specific data derived from a fuel consumption monitoring
system, if available; or
(ii) If current airplane-specific data are not available, data provided by the airplane
manufacturer, an
(2) The operating conditions for the planned flight including:
(i) Anticipated airplane mass;
(ii) Notices to Airmen;
(iii) Current meteorological reports or a combination of current reports and
forecasts;
(iv) ATS procedures, restrictions and anticipated delays; and
(v) The effects of deferred maintenance items and/or configuration deviations.
(vi) Any other conditions that may delay the landing of the airplane or increase fuel,
oil and/or oxygen consumption.
8.6.2.13.2 OXYGEN PLANNING AND CONTINGENCY FACTORS

(a) A flight to be operated at flight altitudes at which the atmospheric pressure in personnel
compartments will be less than 700 hPa shall not be commenced unless sufficient
stored breathing oxygen is carried to supply:
(1) all crew members and 10 per cent of the passengers for any period in excess of
30 minutes that the pressure in compartments occupied by them will be between
700 hPa and 620 hPa; and
(2) the crew and passengers for any period that the atmospheric pressure in
compartments occupied by them will be less than 620 hPa.
(b) A flight to be operated with a pressurized airplane shall not be commenced unless a
sufficient quantity of stored breathing oxygen is carried to supply all the crew members
and passengers, as is appropriate to the circumstances of the flight being undertaken,
in the event of loss of pressurization, for any period that the atmospheric pressure in
any compartment occupied by them would be less than 700 hPa. In addition, when an
airplane is operated at flight altitudes at which the atmospheric pressure is less than
376 hPa, or which, if operated at flight altitudes at which the atmospheric pressure is
more than 376 hPa and cannot descend safely within four minutes to a flight altitude
at which the atmospheric pressure is equal to 620 hPa, there shall be no less than a
10-minute supply for the occupants of the passenger compartment.
(c) The PIC shall ensure that breathing oxygen is available to crew members and
passengers in sufficient quantities for all flights at such altitudes where a lack of oxygen
might result in impairment of the faculties of crew members or harmfully affect
passengers.
Implementing Standards: also refer to IS: 7.8.12 Oxygen Storage and Dispensing
Apparatus.

8.6-14
PCAR PART 8
8.6.2.14 MINIMUM FUEL AND OIL SUPPLY FOR VFR FLIGHTS

(a) For airplanes: No person may commence a flight in an airplane under VFR unless,
considering the wind and forecast weather conditions, there is enough fuel to fly to the
first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed
(1) For turbo-jet aircraft: flights during the day, for at least 30 minutes thereafter; or
(2) For Propeller-driven aircraft: flights at night, for at least 45 minutes thereafter; and
(3) For international flights, for at least an additional 15% of the total flight time
calculated for cruise flight.
(b) For helicopters: The fuel and oil carried in order to comply with Subpart 8.6.2.13.1
shall, in the case of VFR operations, be at least the amount sufficient (considering the
wind and forecast weather conditions) to allow the helicopter:
(1) To fly to the heliport to which the flight is planned;
(2) To fly thereafter for a period of 20 minutes at best-range speed; and
(3) To have an additional amount of fuel, sufficient to provide for the increased
consumption on the occurrence of any of the potential contingencies specified by
the operator to the satisfaction of the Authority. For international flights, for at least
an additional 10% of the total flight time calculated.
8.6.2.15 MINIMUM FUEL SUPPLY FOR IFR FLIGHTS

8.6.2.15.1 COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT: PISTON-ENGINED AIRPLANES
The fuel and oil carried in order to comply with Subpart 8.6.2.13.1 shall, in the case of
piston-engined airplanes, be at least the amount sufficient to allow the airplane:
(a) When a destination alternate airport is required, either:
(1) to fly to the airport to which the flight is planned thence to the most critical (in terms
of fuel consumption) alternate airport specified in the operational and ATS flight
plans and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes; or
(2) to fly to the airport to which the flight is planned, then 15 minutes of holding at 1,500
feet, thence to the most critical (in terms of fuel consumption) alternate airport
specified in the operational and ATS flight plans and thereafter for a period of 30
minutes holding at 1,500 feet; or
(3) to fly to the alternate airport via any predetermined point and thereafter for 45
minutes, provided that this shall not be less than the amount required to fly to the
airport to which the flight is planned and thereafter for:
(i) 45 minutes plus 15 per cent of the flight time planned to be spent at the cruising
level(s), or
(ii) two hours, whichever is less.
(b) When a destination alternate airport is not required:
(1) in terms of Subpart 8.6.2.6.1, to fly to the airport to which the flight is planned and
thereafter for a period of 45 minutes; or
thereafter for:
(i) 45 minutes plus 15 per cent of the flight time planned to be spent at the cruising
level(s), or

8.6-15
PCAR PART 8
(ii) two hours, whichever is less.

(c) [AOC] Airplanes. No person may commence a flight under IFR, or continue past the
point of in-flight re-planning, unless there is enough fuel supply, considering
meteorological conditions and any delays that are expected in flight, to include the
following:
(1) Taxi fuel – which shall be the amount of fuel expected to be consumed before take-
off taking into account local conditions at the departure aerodrome and auxiliary
power unit (APU) fuel consumption;
(2) Trip fuel – which shall be the amount of fuel required to enable the airplane to fly
from take-off, or the point of in-flight re-planning, until landing at the destination
aerodrome taking into account the operating conditions in the data provided by the
manufacturer;
(3) Contingency fuel – which shall be the amount of fuel required to compensate for
unforeseen factors. It shall be five percent of the planned trip fuel or of the fuel
required from the point of in-flight re-planning based on the consumption rate used
to plan the trip fuel, but in any case, shall not be lower than the amount required to
fly for five minutes at holding speed at 450 m (1500 ft) above the destination
aerodrome in standard conditions;
(4) Destination alternate fuel – which shall be
(i) Where a destination alternate aerodrome is required, the amount of fuel
required to enable the airplane to:
(A) Perform a missed approach at the destination aerodrome;
(B) Climb to the expected cruising altitude;
(C) Fly the expecting routing;
(D) Descend to the point where the expected approach is initiated; and
(E) Conduct the approach and landing at the destination alternate aerodrome;
or
(ii) Where two destination alternate aerodromes are required, the amount of fuel,
as calculated in (4)(i) above, required to enable the airplane to proceed to the
destination alternate aerodrome which requires the greater amount of alternate
fuel; or
(iii) Where a flight is operated without a destination alternate aerodrome, the
amount of fuel required to enable the airplane to fly for 15 minutes at holding
speed at 450 m (1500 ft) above destination aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions; or
(iv) Where the aerodrome of intended landing is an isolated aerodrome:
(A) For helicopters, the amount of fuel required to fly for 45 minutes plus 15
percent of the flight time planned to be spend at cruising level, including
final reserve fuel, or two hours, whichever is less; or
(B) For a turbine-engined airplane, the amount of fuel required to fly for two
hours at normal cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome,
including final reserve fuel;

8.6-16
PCAR PART 8
(3) Final reserve fuel – which shall be the amount of fuel calculated using the estimated
mass on arrival at the destination alternate aerodrome, or the destination
aerodrome when no destination alternate aerodrome is required, or a pre-
calculated value for each airplane type and variant in the fleet rounded up to an
easily recalled figure:
(i) For a helicopters, the amount of fuel required to fly for 45 minutes, under speed
and altitude conditions specified by the Authority; or
(ii) For a turbine-engined airplane, the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes
at holding speed at 450 m (1500 ft) above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions;
(4) Additional fuel – which shall be the supplementary amount of fuel required if the
minimum fuel calculated in accordance with trip fuel, contingency fuel, destination
alternate fuel and final reserve fuel above is not sufficient to:
(i) Allow the airplane to descend as necessary and proceed to an alternate
aerodrome in the event of engine failure or loss or pressurization, whichever
requires the greater amount of fuel based on the assumption that such a failure
occurs at the most critical point along the route;
(A) To fly for 15 minutes at holding speed at 450 m (1500 ft) above the
aerodrome elevation in standard conditions; and
(B) Make an approach and landing;
(C) Allow an airplane engaged in EDTO to comply with the EDTO critical fuel
scenario as established by the Authority;
(D) Meet additional requirements not covered above.
Note: Fuel planning for a failure that occurs at the most critical point along
a route may place the airplane in a fuel emergency situation.
(5) Discretionary fuel – shall be the extra amount of fuel to be carried at the discretion
of the PIC, or
(d) An airplane shall not take off or continue from the point of in-flight re-planning unless
the usable fuel on board meets the requirements in 8.6.2.15.1(c) (2), (4), (5) and (6) if
required.
(e) Notwithstanding the provisions in 8.6.2.15.1(c) (1)–(7) above, the Authority may
approve a variation to these requirements provided the operator can demonstrate an
equivalent level of safety will be maintained through a safety risk assessment that
includes at least the following:
(1) Flight fuel calculations;
(2) Capabilities of the operator to include:
(i) A data-driven method that includes a fuel consumption monitoring program;
and/or
(ii) The advanced use of alternate aerodromes; and
Note: ICAO Doc 9976, Flight Planning and Fuel Management Manual, contains
guidance on the specific safety risk assessment, fuel consumption monitoring
program and the advanced use of alternate aerodromes.

8.6-17
PCAR PART 8
(f) The use of fuel after flight commencement for purposes other than originally intended
during pre-flight planning shall require a re-analysis and, if applicable, adjustment of
the planned operation.
Note. – Guidance on procedures for in-flight fuel management including re-analysis,
adjustment and/or re-planning considerations when a flight begins to consume
contingency fuel before take-offs is contained in the Flight Planning and Fuel
Management Manual (ICAO Doc 9976).
8.6.2.15.2 COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT: TURBINE-ENGINED AIRPLANES

The fuel and oil carried in order to comply with Subpart 8.6.2.13.1 shall, in the case of
turbine-engined airplanes, be at least the amount sufficient to allow the airplane:
(a) When a destination alternate airport is required, either:
(1) to fly to and execute an instrument approach, and a missed approach, at the airport
to which the flight is planned, and thereafter:
(i) to fly to the alternate airport specified in the operational and ATS flight plan;
and then
(ii) to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m (1,500 ft) above the alternate
airport under standard temperature conditions, and approach and land; and
(iii) to have an additional amount of fuel and oil sufficient to provide for the
increased consumption on the occurrence of any of the potential contingencies
specified by the operator as approved by the Authority, which shall be at least
5% of the total time for the flight from take-off to destination; or
(2) to fly to the alternate airport via any predetermined point and thereafter for 30
minutes at 450 m (1,500 ft) above the alternate airport, due provision having been
made for an additional amount of fuel sufficient to provide for the increased
the operator as approved by the Authority; provided that fuel shall not be less than
the amount of fuel required to fly to the airport to which the flight is planned and
thereafter for two hours at normal cruise consumption.
(b) When a destination alternate airport is not required:
additionally to have an additional amount of fuel and oil, sufficient to provide for the
increased consumption on the occurrence of any of the potential contingencies
specified by the operator as approved by the Authority, which shall be at least 5%
of the total time for the flight from take-off to destination; and
thereafter for a period of two hours at normal cruise consumption.
8.6.2.15.3 GENERAL AVIATION AIRPLANES: IFR FLIGHTS

At least one destination alternate is available: For a flight to be conducted in accordance
with the IFR, at least one destination alternate airport shall be selected and specified in
the flight plan, unless:
(a) the duration of the flight and the meteorological conditions prevailing are such that
there is reasonable certainty that, at the estimated time of arrival at the airport of
intended landing, and for a reasonable period before and after such time, the approach
and landing may be made under VMC; or

8.6-18
PCAR PART 8
(b) the airport of intended landing is isolated and there is no suitable destination alternate
airport.
8.6.2.15.4 HELICOPTERS: IFR FLIGHTS

The fuel and oil carried in order to comply with Subpart 8.6.2.13 shall, in the case of IFR
operations, be at least the amount sufficient to allow the helicopter:
(a) When a destination alternate airport is not required in terms of Subpart 8.6.2.6 (a), to
fly to the heliport to which the flight is planned, and thereafter:
(1) to fly 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m (1,500 ft) above the destination heliport
under standard temperature conditions and approach and land; and
(2) to have an additional amount of fuel, sufficient to provide for the increased
the operator to the satisfaction of the Authority.
(b) When a destination alternate airport is required, to fly to and execute an instrument
approach, and a missed approach, at the heliport to which the flight is planned, and
thereafter:
(1) to fly to the alternate specified in the flight plan; and then
(2) to fly 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m (1,500 ft) above the destination heliport
under standard temperature conditions, and approach and land; and
(3) to have an additional amount of fuel, sufficient to provide for the increased
the operator to the satisfaction of the Authority.
(c) When no suitable alternate is available, in terms of Subpart 8.6.2.6 (a)(e.g. the
destination is isolated), sufficient fuel shall be carried to enable the helicopter to fly to
the destination to which the flight is planned and thereafter for a period that will, based
on geographic and environmental considerations, enable a safe landing to be made.
8.6.2.15.5 FUEL AND OIL COMPUTATION: ALL OPERATIONS

For the purpose of this Subpart, the following allowances will be computed when
determining fuel and oil requirements:
(a) Fuel and oil to destination includes fuel and oil for: taxi, departure via the expected
departure route, climb to the flight planned altitude, en-route flight, descent to the
expected initial approach point, an approach and a landing at the destination airport;
and
(b) Fuel and oil to the alternate airport (if required) includes fuel and oil for: a complete
missed approach procedure from the MDA/DA (H), climb to a safe altitude, en-route
flight, descent, approach and landing at the alternate airport.
8.6.2.15.6 IN-FLIGHT FUEL MANAGEMENT

(a) An operator shall establish policies and procedures, approved by the Authority, to
ensure that in-flight fuel checks and fuel management are performed.
(b) The pilot-in-command shall continually ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining
on board is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe
landing can be made with the planned final reserve fuel remaining upon landing.

8.6-19
PCAR PART 8
Note. The protection of final reserve fuel is intended to ensure a safe landing at any
aerodrome when unforeseen occurrences may not permit safe completion of an
operation as originally planned. Guidance on flight planning including the
circumstances that may require re-analysis, adjustment and/or re-planning of the
planned operation before take-off or en-route, is contained in the Flight Planning and
Fuel Management Manual (ICAO Doc 9976).
(c) The pilot-in-command shall request delay information from ATC when unanticipated
circumstances may result in landing at the destination aerodrome with less than the
final reserve fuel plus any fuel required to proceed to an alternate aerodrome or the
fuel required to operate to an isolated aerodrome.
(d) The pilot-in-command shall advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring MINIMUM
FUEL when, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, the pilot calculates that
any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less
than planned final reserve fuel.
Note 1: The declaration of MINIMUM FUEL informs ATC that all planned aerodrome
options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome of intended landing and any
change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than planned final
reserve fuel. This is not an emergency situation but an indication that an emergency
situation is possible should any additional delay occur.
Note 2: Guidance on declaring minimum fuel is contained in the Flight Planning and
Fuel Management Manual (ICAO Doc 9976)
(e) The pilot-in-command shall declare a situation of fuel emergency by broadcasting
MAYDAY MAYDAYMAYDAYFUEL, when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be
available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is
less than the planned final reserve fuel.
Note 1: The planned final reserve fuel refers to the value calculated in 8.6.2.15.1(c) (5)
(i) or (ii) and is the minimum amount of fuel required upon landing at any aerodrome.
Note 2: The words “MAYDAY FUEL” describe the nature of the distress conditions as
required in ICAO Annex 10, Volume II, 5.3.2.1, b) 3.
Note 3: Guidance on procedures for in-flight fuel management are contained in the
Flight Planning and Fuel Management Manual (ICAO Doc 9976).
8.6.2.16 FLIGHT PLANNING DOCUMENT DISTRIBUTION AND RETENTION:

COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT
(a) An operational flight plan shall be completed for every intended flight or series of flights.
The operational flight plan shall be approved and signed by the PIC and, where
applicable, signed by the flight operations officer/flight dispatcher, and a copy shall be
lodged with the appropriate authority. The operator shall determine the most efficient
means of lodging the operational flight plan. For commercial air transport operations,
the PIC shall complete and sign the following flight preparation documents prior to
departure:
(1) An operational flight plan, including NOTAMs and weather pertinent to the flight
planning decisions regarding minimum fuel supply, en route performance, and
destination and alternate airports.
(2) A load manifest; showing the distribution of the load, center of gravity, take-off and
landing mass and compliance with maximum operating mass limitations, and
performance analysis.

8.6-20
PCAR PART 8
(3) An applicable technical log page, if mechanical irregularities were entered after a
previous flight, maintenance or inspection functions were performed or a
maintenance release was issued at the departure airport/heliport.
(b) No person may take-off an aircraft in commercial air transport unless all flight release
documents, signed by the PIC, are retained and available at the point of departure.
(c) The PIC shall carry a copy of the documents specified in paragraph (a) on the aircraft
to the destination airport/heliport.
(d) Completed flight preparation documents shall be kept by the Operator for a period of
three (3) months.
Note: These documents are in addition to those specified in Subpart 8.2 for all aircraft
operations.
Note: The Authority may approve a different retention location where all documents
can be available for subsequent review.
8.6.2.17 AIRCRAFT LOADING, MASS AND BALANCE

(a) No person may operate an aircraft unless all loads carried are properly distributed and
safely secured.
(b) No person may operate an aircraft unless the calculations for the mass of the airplane
and centre of gravity location indicate that the flight can be conducted safely, taking
into account the flight conditions expected.
Note: When load masters, load planners or other qualified personnel are provided by
the AOC holder in a commercial air transport operation, the PIC may delegate these
responsibilities, but shall ascertain that proper loading procedures are followed.
(c) For commercial air transport operations, no PIC may commence a flight unless the PIC
is satisfied that the loading and mass and balance calculations contained in the load
manifest are accurate and comply with the aircraft limitations.
8.6.2.18 MAXIMUM ALLOWABLE MASS TO BE CONSIDERED ON ALL LOAD

MANIFESTS
(a) The PIC shall ensure that the maximum allowable mass for a flight does not exceed
the maximum allowable take-off mass:
(1) For the specific runway and conditions existing at the take-off time, and
(2) Considering anticipated fuel and oil consumption that allows compliance with
applicable en route performance, landing mass, and landing distance limitations
for destination and alternate airports.
8.6.2.19 FLIGHT RELEASE REQUIRED: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may start a flight under a flight following system without specific authority
from the person authorized by the Operator to exercise operational control over the
flight.
(b) No person may commence a passenger-carrying flight in commercial air transport for
which there is a published schedule, unless a qualified person authorized by the
Operator to perform operational control functions has issued a flight release for that
specific operation or series of operations.

8.6-21
PCAR PART 8
8.6.2.20 OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLAN: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may commence a flight unless the operational flight plan has been signed
by the PIC.
(b) A PIC may sign the operational flight plan only when the PIC and the person authorized
by the operator to exercise operational control have determined that the flight can be
safely completed.
Note: The operational flight plan shall include the routing and fuel calculations, with
respect to the meteorological and other factors expected, to complete the flight to the
destination and all required alternates.
(c) The PIC signing the operational flight plan shall have access to the applicable flight
planning information for fuel supply, alternate airports, weather reports and forecasts
and NOTAMs for the routing and airport.
(d) No person may continue a flight from an intermediate airport without a new operational
flight plan if the aircraft has been on the ground more than six (6) hours.
8.6.3 OPERATIONAL INFORMATION

8.6.3.1 AIP, AIRAC and AIC
(a) No operators shall dispatch a flight unless information continued in the current
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP), Aeronautical Information Regulation and
Control (AIRAC) and Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) has been prepared and
disseminated to flight crews and relevant operations personnel.
8.6.3.2 CREW BRIEFINGS

(a) Operator shall ensure that crew briefings are established in their standard operating
procedures.

8.6-22
PCAR PART 8
8.7 AIRCRAFT OPERATING AND PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS

8.7.1 ALL AIRCRAFT
(a) Each civil aircraft shall be operated in accordance with the comprehensive code of
performance established by the Authority and in compliance with the acceptable
standards, as prescribed in CAR Part 5, Subpart 5.4.1.2 and this Subpart.
8.7.1.2 GENERAL
(a) No person may operate an aircraft that:
(1) Exceeds its designed performance limitations for any operation, as established by
the State of Registry;
(2) Exceeds the operating limitations contained in the aircraft flight manual, or its
equivalent; or
(3) Exceeds the terms of its certificate of airworthiness.
(4) Exceeds the mass limitations, if applicable, imposed by the terms of its noise
certification standards, as contained in the applicable part of ICAO Annex 16,
Volume I, unless otherwise approved by the Authority.
8.7.1.3 AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE CALCULATIONS
(a) Each operator shall ensure that the performance data contained in the AFM/RFM, or
other authorized source is used to determine compliance with the appropriate
requirements of Subpart 8.7. A flight shall not be commenced unless the performance
information provided in the flight manual, supplemented as necessary with other data
acceptable to the Authority, indicates that the Standards of Subpart 8.7 can be
complied with for the flight to be undertaken.
(b) In applying the Standards of this Subpart, account shall be taken of all factors that
significantly affect the performance of the airplane (including, but not limited to: the
mass of the airplane, the operating procedures, the pressure altitude appropriate to
the elevation of the airport, the ambient temperature, the wind, the runway slope and
surface conditions of the runway, i.e. presence of snow, slush, water and/or ice, for
landplanes, water surface condition for seaplanes). Such factors shall be taken into
account directly as operational parameters or indirectly by means of allowances or
margins, which may be provided in the scheduling of performance data or in the
comprehensive and detailed code of performance in accordance with which the
airplane is being operated.
8.7.1.4 GENERAL MASS AND OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE LIMITATIONS

No person may take-off an aircraft without ensuring that the maximum allowable mass for
a flight does not exceed the maximum allowable take-off or landing mass, or any applicable
en route performance or landing distance limitations considering the
(1) Condition of the take-off and landing areas to be used;
(2) Gradient of runway to be used (landplanes only);
(3) Pressure altitude;

8.7-1
PCAR PART 8
(4) Ambient temperature,

(5) Current and forecast winds; and
(6) Any known conditions (e.g., atmospheric and aircraft configuration) which may
adversely affect aircraft performance, or compliance with noise certification
standards.
(b) No person may take-off an aircraft at a mass that, assuming normal engine operation,
cannot safely clear all obstacles during all phases of flight, including all points along
the intended en route path or any planned diversions.
(c) In no case shall the mass at the start of take-off, or at the expected time of landing at
the airport of intended landing and at any destination alternate airport, exceed the
relevant maximum masses at which compliance has been demonstrated with the
applicable noise certification Standards in Annex 16, Volume I, unless otherwise
authorized in exceptional circumstances for a certain airport or a runway where there
is no noise disturbance problem, by the competent authority of the State in which the
airport is situated.
(d) In no case shall the estimated mass for the expected time of landing at the airport of
intended landing and at any destination alternate airport, exceed the maximum landing
mass specified in the flight manual for the pressure-altitude appropriate to the elevation
of those airports, and if used as a parameter to determine the maximum landing mass,
any other local atmospheric condition.
8.7.2 AIRCRAFT USED IN COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) This Section prescribes aircraft performance and operating limitations for aircraft used
in commercial air transport operations, except those aircraft holding a special authority
or waiver by the Authority which exempt them from specific operating and performance
limitations.
8.7.2.2 GENERAL
(a) Each person operating an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport shall comply
with the provisions of Subpart 8.7.2.
(b) The Authority may authorize, exemptions in accordance with Part 1 of there
regulations, from the requirements of Subpart 8.7.2 if special circumstances make a
literal observance of a requirement unnecessary for safety.
(c) Where full compliance with the requirements of Subpart 8.7.2 cannot be shown due to
specific design characteristics (e.g., seaplanes, airships, or supersonic aircraft), the
operator shall apply approved performance standards that ensure a level of safety not
less restrictive than those of relevant requirements of this Subpart.
(d) Except as provided in Subpart 8.8.4.21, no person may operate a single-engine aircraft
used for revenue passenger carrying operations unless that aircraft is continually
operated in daylight, VFR, excluding over the top, and over routes and diversions
there-from, that do not permit a safe forced landing to be executed in the event of a
power-unit failure.
(e) No person may operate a multiengine aircraft used for revenue passengers carrying
operations that is unable to comply with any of the performance limitations of Subparts
8.7.2.4 through 8.7.2.8 unless that aircraft is continually operated

8.7-2
PCAR PART 8
(1) In daylight,
(2) In VFR, excluding over the top operations; and
(3) At a mass that will allow it to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 50
feet a minute when operating at the MEAs of the intended route or any planned
diversion, or at 5000 feet MSL, whichever is higher.
(f) Multiengine aircraft that are unable to comply with paragraph (e) (3) are, for the
purpose of this Section, considered to be a single engine aircraft and shall comply with
the requirements of paragraph (d).
8.7.2.3 AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE CALCULATIONS

8.7.2.3.1 AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE CALCULATIONS: GENERAL
(a) No person may take-off an aircraft used in commercial air transport without ensuring
that the applicable operating and performance limitations required for this Section can
be accurately computed based on the AMF, RFM, or other data source approved by
the Authority.
(b) Each person calculating performance and operating limitations for aircraft used in
commercial air transport shall ensure that performance data used to determine
compliance with this Section can, during any phase of flight, accurately account for-
(1) Any reasonably expected adverse operating conditions that may affect aircraft
performance;
(2) One engine failure for aircraft having two engines, if applicable; and
(3) Two engine failure for aircraft having three or more engines, if applicable.
(c) When calculating the performance and limitation requirements of Subparts 8.7.2.4 to
8.7.2.8, each person performing the calculation shall, for all engines operating and for
inoperative engines, accurately account for:
(1) In all phases of flight-
(i) The effect of fuel and oil consumption on aircraft mass;
(ii) The effect of fuel consumption on fuel reserves resulting from changes in flight
paths, winds, and aircraft configuration;
(iii) The effect of fuel jettisoning on aircraft mass and fuel reserves, if applicable
and approved;
(iv) The effect of any ice protection system, if applicable and weather conditions
require its use;
(v) Ambient temperatures and winds along intended route and any planned
diversion;
(vi) Flight paths and minimum altitudes required to remain clear of obstacles.
(2) During take-off and landing-
(i) The condition of the take-off runway or area to be used. including any
contaminates (e.g., water, slush, snow, ice);
(ii) The gradient of runway to be used;
(iii) The runway length including clearways and stopways, if applicable;
(iv) Pressure altitudes at take-off and landing sites;

8.7-3
PCAR PART 8
(v) Current ambient temperatures and winds at take-off;

(vi) Forecast ambient temperatures and winds at each destination and planned
alternate landing site;
(vii) The ground handling characteristics (e.g., braking action) of the type of aircraft;
and
(viii) Landing aids and terrain that may affect the take-off path, landing path, and
landing roll.
(ix) In determining the length of the runway available, account shall be taken of the
loss, if any, of runway length due to alignment of the airplane prior to take-off.
Note: Where conditions are different from those on which the performance is
based, compliance may be determined by interpolation or by computing the
effects of changes in the specific variables if the results of the interpolation or
computations are substantially as accurate as the results of direct tests.
Note: To allow for wind effect, take-off data based on still air may be corrected
by taking into account not more than 50 percent of any reported headwind
component and not less than 150 percent of any reported tailwind component,
and landing data based on.
8.7.2.3.2 AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE: HELICOPTERS

(a) In conditions where the safe continuation of flight is not ensured in the event of a critical
power unit failure, helicopter operations shall be conducted in a manner that gives
appropriate consideration for achieving a safe forced landing.
(b) Where the State of the Operator permits IMC operations in performance Class 3, such
operations shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of Subpart 8.8.4.22.
(c) For helicopters for which Part IV of Annex 8 is not applicable because of the exemption
provided for in Article 41 of the Convention, the level of performance specified in
Subpart 8.7.2.3.3 should be met as far as practicable.
(d) Where helicopters are operated to or from heliports in a congested hostile
environment, the competent authority of the State in which the heliport is situated shall
specify the requirements to enable these operations to be conducted in a manner that
gives appropriate consideration for the risk associated with a power-unit failure.
8.7.2.3.3 AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE: HELICOPTERS CERTIFICATED IN

ACCORDANCE WITH PART IV OF ANNEX 8
(a) The Standards contained in paragraphs (b) to (f) inclusive below and Subpart 8.7.2.4.2
(a) are applicable to the helicopters to which Part IV of Annex 8 is applicable.
(b) The level of performance defined by the appropriate parts of the code of performance
referred to in Subpart 8.7.1.1 for the helicopters designated in paragraph (a) above
shall be consistent with to the overall level embodied in the Standards of this chapter.
(c) A helicopter shall be operated in compliance with the terms of its certificate of
airworthiness and within the approved operating limitations contained in its flight
manual.

8.7-4
PCAR PART 8
(d) The State of the Operator shall take such precautions as are reasonably possible to
ensure that the general level of safety contemplated by these provisions is maintained
under all expected operating conditions, including those not covered specifically by the
provisions of this chapter.
(e) A flight shall not be commenced unless the performance information provided in the
flight manual indicates that the Standards of paragraph (f) below and Subpart 8.7.2.4.2
(a) can be complied with for the flight to be undertaken.
(f) In applying the Standards of this chapter, account shall be taken of all factors that
significantly affect the performance of the helicopter (such as: mass, operating
procedures, the pressure altitude appropriate to the elevation of the operating site,
temperature, wind and condition of the surface). Such factors shall be taken into
account directly as operational parameters or indirectly by means of allowances or
margins, which may be provided in the scheduling of performance data or in the code
of performance in accordance with which the helicopter is being operated.
8.7.2.4 TAKE-OFF LIMITATIONS

8.7.2.4.1 TAKE-OFF LIMITATIONS: AIRPLANES
(a) The mass of the airplane at the start of take-off shall not exceed the mass at which
paragraph (5) below is complied with, nor the mass at which Subparts 8.7.2.6, 8.7.2.7
and 8.7.2.8 are complied with, allowing for expected reductions in mass as the flight
proceeds, and for such fuel jettisoning as is envisaged in applying Subparts 8.7.2.6
and 8.7.2.7 and, in respect of alternate airports, Subparts 8.7.1.4 (d) and 8.7.2.8. No
person may take-off an airplane used in commercial air transport, unless the following
requirements are met when determining the maximum permitted take-off mass:
(1) In no case shall the mass at the start of take-off exceed the maximum take-off
mass specified in the flight manual for the pressure-altitude appropriate to the
elevation of the airport, and, if used as a parameter to determine the maximum
take-off mass, any other local atmospheric condition.
(2) The take-off run shall not be greater than the length of the runway.
(3) For turbine engine powered airplanes
(i) The take-off distance shall not exceed the length of the runway plus the length
of any clearway, except that the length of any clearway included in the
calculation shall not be greater than 1½ the length of the runway; and
(ii) The accelerate-stop distance shall not exceed the length of the runway, plus
the length of any stop way, at any time during take-off until reaching V1.
(4) For reciprocating engine powered airplanes-
(i) The accelerate-stop distance shall not exceed the length of the runway at any
time during take-off until reaching V1.
(5) The airplane shall be able, in the event of a critical engine failing, or for other
reasons, at any point in the take-off, either to discontinue the take-off and stop
within the accelerate-stop distance available, or to continue the take-off and clear
all obstacles along the flight path by an adequate vertical or horizontal distance,
described in paragraph (6), until the airplane is in a position to comply with Subpart
8.7.2.6. When determining the resulting take-off obstacle accountability area, the
operating conditions, such as crosswind component and navigation accuracy, must
be taken into account.

8.7-5
PCAR PART 8
Note. ICAO Annex 6 Part 1, Attachment C contains guidance on the vertical and
horizontal distances that are considered adequate to show compliance with this
Standard.
(6) If the critical power-unit fails at any time after the airplane reaches V1, to continue
the takeoff flight path and clear all obstacles either-
(i) by a height of at least 9.1m (35ft) vertically for turbine engine powered airplanes
or 15.2m (50ft) for reciprocating engine powered airplanes; and
(ii) by at least 60m (200 ft) horizontally within the airport boundaries and by at least
90 meters (300 ft) horizontally after passing the boundaries, without banking
more than 15 degrees at any point on the take-off flight path.
8.7.2.4.2 TAKE-OFF LIMITATIONS: HELICOPTERS

(a) Mass Limitations
(1) The mass of the helicopter at the start of take-off shall not exceed the mass at
which the code of performance referred to in Subpart 8.7.1.1 is complied with,
allowing for expected reductions in mass as the flight proceeds and for such fuel
jettisoning as is appropriate.
(2) In no case shall the mass at the start of take-off exceed the maximum take-off
mass specified in the helicopter flight manual taking into account the factors
specified in Subpart 8.7.2.3.3 (f).
(3) In no case shall the estimated mass for the expected time of landing at the
destination and at any alternate exceed the maximum landing mass specified in
the helicopter flight manual taking into account the factors specified in Subpart
8.7.2.3.3 (f).
(4) In no case shall the mass at the start of take-off, or at the expected time of landing
at the destination and at any alternate, exceed the relevant maximum mass at
which compliance has been demonstrated with the applicable noise certification
Standards in Annex 16, Volume I, unless otherwise authorized in exceptional
circumstances for a certain operating site where there is no noise disturbance
problem, by the competent authority of the State in which the operating site is
situated.
(b) In developing a code of performance, a risk assessment methodology in accordance
with the guidance in Attachment A to Annex 6 part III shall apply. Where a risk
assessment methodology is not applied, the standards of Subparts 8.7.2.4.2 (c) shall
apply.
(c) Take-off and Initial Climb Phase
(1) Operations in performance Class 1. The helicopter shall be able, in the event of
the failure of the critical power-unit being recognized at or before the take-off
decision point, to discontinue take-off and stop within the rejected take-off area
available or, in the event of the failure of the critical power-unit being recognized at
or after the take-off decision point, to continue the take-off, clearing all obstacles
along the flight path by an adequate margin until the helicopter is in a position to
comply with Subpart 8.7.2.6 (b)(1).
(2) Operations in performance Class 2. The helicopter shall be able, in the event of
the failure of the critical power-unit at any time after reaching DPATO, to continue
the take-off, clearing all obstacles along the flight path by an adequate margin until
the helicopter is in a position to comply with Subpart 8.7.2.6 (b)(1). Before

8.7-6
PCAR PART 8
the DPATO, failure of the critical power-unit may cause the helicopter to force-land;
therefore the conditions stated in Subpart 8.7.2.3.2 (a) shall apply.
(3) Operations in performance Class 3. At any point of the flight path, failure of a
power-unit will cause the helicopter to force-land; therefore the conditions stated in
Subpart 8.7.2.3.2 (a) shall apply.
8.7.2.5 EN ROUTE LIMITATIONS: ALL POWER UNITS OPERATING

(a) No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered airplane used in commercial
air transport at a mass that does not allow a rate of climb of at least 6.9 V SO (that is,
the number of feet per minute obtained by multiplying the airplane's minimum steady
flight speed by 6.9) with all engines operating, at an altitude of at least 300m (1,000 ft)
above all terrain and obstructions within ten miles of each side of the intended track.
8.7.2.6 EN ROUTE LIMITATIONS: ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE
(a) Airplane. No person may take off an airplane used in commercial air transport having two
power units unless that airplane can, in the event of the critical engine becoming
inoperative at any point along the route, or planned diversion there-from, to continue the
flight to a suitable airport or planned diversions there from, to continue the flight to an
airport, at which the Standard of Subpart 8.7.2.7 can be met, without flying below the
minimum flight altitude at any point, where a landing can be made while allowing:
(i) At least a rate of climb of 0.079 - (0.106/number of engines installed) VS02 (when
VSO is expressed in knots) at an altitude of 300m (1,000ft) above all terrain and
obstructions within 9.3 km (5sm), on each side of the intended track; and
(ii) A positive slope at an altitude of at least 450m (1,500ft) above the airport where
the airplane is assumed to land.
(2) For turbine engine powered transport category airplanes-
(i) A positive slope at an altitude of at least 300m (1,000ft) above all terrain and
obstructions within 9.3km (5sm), on each side of the intended track;
(ii) A net flight path from cruising altitude to the intended landing airport that allows
at least 600 m (2.000 ft) clearance above all terrain and obstructions within
9.3km (5sm), on each side of the intended track: and
(iii) A positive slope at an altitude of at least 450m (1,500 ft) above the airport where
the airplane is assumed to land;
Note: The climb rate specified in paragraph (a) (1) (i) may be amended to 0.026
Vso2 for large transport category aircraft issued a type certificate prior to 1953.
Note: The 9.3km (5nm) clearance margin stated in paragraph (a) shall be
increased to 18.5 km (10 nm) if navigational accuracy does not meet the 95%
containment level.
(b) Helicopters: No person shall take-off the helicopter used in commercial air transport
operation having two engines unless:
(1) Operations in performance Classes 1 and 2. The helicopter shall be able, in the
event of the failure of the critical power-unit at any point in the en-route phase, to
continue the flight to a site at which the conditions of Subpart 8.7.2.8 (e) (1) for
operations in performance Class 1, or the conditions of Subpart 8.7.2.8 (e) (2) for

8.7-7
PCAR PART 8
operations in performance Class 2 can be met, without flying below the appropriate
minimum flight altitude at any point.
(2) Operations in performance Class 3. The helicopter shall be able, with all power-
units operating, to continue along its intended route or planned diversions without
flying at any point below the appropriate minimum flight altitude. At any point of the
flight path, failure of a power-unit will cause the helicopter to force-land; therefore
the conditions stated in Subpart 8.7.2.3.2 (a) shall apply.
8.7.2.7 EN ROUTE LIMITATIONS: TWO ENGINES INOPERATIVE

(a) Airplane. No person may take-off an airplane used in commercial air transport having
three or more engines, on any part of a route where the location of en-route alternate
airports and the total duration of the flight are such that the probability of a second
engine becoming inoperative must be allowed for if the general level of safety implied
by the Standards of this chapter is to be maintained, the airplane shall be able, in the
event of any two engines becoming inoperative, to continue the flight to an en-route
alternate airport and land while allowing:
(1) For turbine engine powered airplanes-

(i) A net flight path (considering the ambient temperatures anticipated along the
track) clearing vertically by at least 600 m (2,000 feet) all terrain and
obstructions within 9.3 km (5 nautical miles) on each side of the intended track;
(ii) A positive slope at 450 m (1,500 feet) above the airport of intended landing;
and
(iii) Enough fuel to continue to the airport of intended landing, to arrive at an altitude
of at least 450 m (1,500 feet) directly over the airport, and thereafter to fly for
15 minutes at cruise power.
Note: The consumption of fuel and oil after the engine failure is the same as
the consumption that is allowed for in the net flight path data in the AFM.
(i) A rate of climb at 0.013 Vso2 feet per minute (that is, the number of feet per
minute is obtained by multiplying the number of knots squared by 0.013) at an
altitude of 300 m (1,000 ft) above the highest ground or obstruction within 18.6
km (10 nm) on each side of the intended track, or at an altitude of 1,500 m
(5,000 ft), whichever is higher; and
(ii) Enough fuel to continue to the airport of intended landing and to arrive at an
altitude of at least 300 m (1.000 ft) directly over that airport.
Note: When the two engines of the reciprocating airplane are predicted to fail
at an altitude above the prescribed minimum altitude, compliance with the
prescribed rate of climb need not be shown during the descent from the cruising
altitude to the prescribed minimum altitude, if those requirements can be met
once the prescribed minimum altitude is reached and assuming descent to be
along a net flight path and the rate of descent to be 0.013 Vso2 greater than the
rate in the approved performance data.
Note: If fuel jettisoning is authorized (or planned), the airplane's mass at the
point where the two engines fail is considered to be not less than that which
would include enough fuel to proceed to an airport and to arrive at an altitude
of at least 300 m (1,000 ft) directly over that airport.

8.7-8
PCAR PART 8
(b) Helicopters. No person shall take-off a Class 1 or Class 2 helicopter used in

commercial air transport having three or more engines unless that helicopter can, in
the event of two critical engines failing simultaneously at any point in the en route
phase, continue the flight to a suitable landing site.
8.7.2.8 LANDING LIMITATIONS

(a) Airplane: No person may take off an airplane used in commercial operations unless its
mass is such on arrival at the airport of intended landing and at any alternate airport,
that after clearing all obstacles in the approach path by a safe margin, be able to land,
with assurance that it can come to a stop or; for a seaplane, to a satisfactorily low
speed, within the landing distance available (Allowance shall be made for expected
variations in the approach and landing techniques, if such allowance has not been
made in the scheduling of performance data.), and within:
(1) For turbine engine powered airplanes, 60 percent of the effective length of each
runway.
(2) For reciprocating engine powered airplanes, 70 percent of the effective length of
each runway.
(b) For the purpose of determining the allowable landing mass at the destination airport,
each person determining the landing limit shall ensure that
(1) The airplane is landed on the most favorable runway and in the most favorable
direction, in still air: or
(2) The airplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering the probable wind
velocity and direction, runway conditions, the ground handling characteristics of
the airplane, and considering other conditions such as landing aids and terrain.
Note: If the runway at the landing destination is reported or forecast to be wet or
slippery, the landing distance available shall be at least 115 percent of the required
landing distance unless, based on a showing of actual operating landing
techniques on wet or slippery runways. A shorter landing distance (but not less
than that required by paragraph (a)) has been approved for a specific type and
model airplane and this information is included in the AFM.
(c) A turbine powered transport category airplane that would be prohibited from taking off
because it could not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) (1), may take off if an
alternate airport is specified that meets all the requirements of paragraph (a).
(d) Helicopters: No person may take off a helicopter used in commercial air transport
unless, with all engines operating on arrival at the intended destination landing site or
any planned alternate landing, it can clear all obstacles on the approach path and can
land and stop within the landing distance available.
(e) Helicopters:
(1) Operations in performance Class 1. In the event of the failure of the critical power-
unit being recognized at any point during the approach and landing phase, before
the landing decision point, the helicopter shall, at the destination and at any
alternate, after clearing all obstacles in the approach path, be able to land and stop
within the landing distance available or to perform a balked landing and clear all
obstacles in the flight path by an adequate margin equivalent to that specified in
Subpart 8.7.2.4.2 (c) (1). In case of the failure occurring after the landing decision
point, the helicopter shall be able to land and stop within the landing distance
available.

8.7-9
PCAR PART 8
(2) Operations in performance Class 2. In the event of the failure of the critical power-
unit before the DPBL, the helicopter shall, at the destination and at any alternate,
after clearing all obstacles in the approach path, be able either to land and stop
within the landing distance available or to perform a balked landing and clear all
obstacles in the flight path by an adequate margin equivalent to that specified in
Subpart 8.7.2.3.2 (c) (2). After the DPBL, failure of a power-unit may cause the
helicopter to force-land; therefore the conditions stated in Subpart 8.7.2.3.2 (a)
shall apply.
(3) Operations in performance Class 3. At any point of the flight path, failure of a
power-unit will cause the helicopter to force-land; therefore the conditions stated in
Subpart 8.7.2.3.2 (a) shall apply.

8.7-10
PCAR PART 8
8.8 FLIGHT RULES

8.8.1 ALL OPERATIONS
8.8.1.1 OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT ON THE GROUND
(a) No person may taxi an aircraft on the movement area of an airport unless the person
at the controls:
(1) has been authorized by the owner, the lessee, or a designated agent;
(2) is fully competent to taxi the aircraft;
(3) is qualified to use the radio if radio communications are required; and
(4) has received instruction from a competent person in respect of airport layout, and
where appropriate, information on routes, signs, marking, lights, ATC signals and
instructions, phraseology and procedures, and is able to conform to the operational
standards required for safe aircraft movement at the airport.
(b) For helicopters: No person shall cause a helicopter rotor to be turned under power for
the purpose of flight, unless there is a qualified pilot at the controls. The operator shall
provide appropriately specific training and procedures to be followed for all personnel,
other than qualified pilots, who are likely to carry out the turning of a rotor under power
for purposes other than flight.
8.8.1.2 TAKE-OFF CONDITIONS

(a) Before commencing take-off, a PIC shall ensure that
(1) According to the available information. the weather at the airport and the condition
of the runway intended to be used will allow for a safe take-off and departure; and
(2) The RVR or visibility in the take-off direction of the aircraft is equal to or better than
the applicable minimum.
8.8.1.3 FLIGHT INTO KNOWN OR EXPECTED ICING

(a) A flight to be operated in known or expected icing conditions shall not be commenced
unless the aircraft is certificated and equipped to cope with such conditions.
(b) No person may take-off an aircraft when frost, ice or snow is adhering to the wings,
control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets or other critical surfaces of the aircraft which
might adversely affect the performance or controllability of the aircraft.
(c) A flight to be planned or expected to operate in suspected or known ground icing
conditions shall not take off unless the aircraft has been inspected for icing and, if
necessary, has been given appropriate de-icing/anti-icing treatment. Accumulation of
ice or other naturally occurring contaminants shall be removed so that the aeroplane
is kept in an airworthy condition prior to take-off.
(d) For commercial air transport operations, no person may take-off an aircraft when
conditions are such that frost, ice or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to
the aircraft, unless the procedures approved for the Operator by the Authority are
followed to ensure ground de-icing and anti-icing is accomplished.

8.8-1
PCAR PART 8
8.8.1.4 ALTIMETER SETTINGS

(a) Each person operating an aircraft, except a balloon or glider, shall maintain the cruising
altitude or flight level by reference to an altimeter setting.
(b) The lowest usable flight level is determined by the atmospheric pressure in the area of
operation.
(c) The flight crew shall use the altimeter settings provided by the air traffic control service
of State within which the operation is conducted.
(d) See IS: 8.8.1.4 for the tables to determine the lowest usable flight level.
Note: In areas of the world where it may not be possible to get an altimeter setting,
reference the State’s procedures in the AIP-Philippines.
8.8.1.5 MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDES: GENERAL

(a) Except when necessary for take-off or landing, no person may operate an aircraft
below the following altitudes:
(1) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, continuation of flight or an
emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
(2) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or
over any open-air assembly of persons, an altitude of 300 m (1000 feet) above the
highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 m (2,000 feet) of the aircraft.
(3) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 150 m (500 feet) above the
surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas where the aircraft
may not be operated closer than 150 m (500 feet) to any person, vessel, vehicle,
or structure.
(4) Helicopters. Pilots of helicopters are not subject to the proximity restrictions
provided they are operated in a manner that is not hazardous to persons and
property on the surface. The PIC of a helicopter shall comply with any routes or
altitudes for the area that are prescribed for helicopters by the Authority.
(5) Altitudes prescribed by ICAO Annex 2: 3.1.2, 4.6 and 5.1.2.
8.8.1.6 MINIMUM SAFE VFR ALTITUDES

(a) No person may operate an airplane during the day, under VFR, at an altitude less than
300 m (1,000 feet) above the surface or within 1,000 feet of any mountain, hill, or other
obstruction to flight.
(b) No person may operate an airplane at night, under VFR, at an altitude less than 300
m (1,000 feet) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 8 km (5 nm)
from the centre of the intended course; or, in designated mountainous areas, less than
600 m (2,000 feet) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 8 km (5
nm) from the centre of the intended course.
8.8.1.7 INSTRUMENT APPROACH OPERATING MINIMA

(a) No person may operate to or from an airport/heliport using operating minima lower
than those which may be established for that airport/heliport by the State in which it is
located, unless that State specifically approves that operation, in accordance with the
provisions of Implementing Standard: IS: 8.8.1.7.

8.8-2
PCAR PART 8
(b) Each Operator shall establish airport/heliport-operating minima for each airport/heliport
to be used in operation, and shall approve the method of determination of such minima.
That minima shall not be lower than any that may be established for such airports by
the State of the Aerodrome except when specifically approved by that State.
Note: This Standard does not require the State of the Aerodrome to establish
aerodrome operating minima.
(c) The Authority may approve operational credit(s) for operations with airplanes equipped
with automatic landing systems, a HUD or equivalent displays, EVS, SVS or CVS.
Such approvals shall not affect the classification of the instrument approach procedure.
Note 1. – Operational credit includes:
(1) for the purposes of an approach ban (PCAR Part 8, Subsection 8.8.4.13,
paragraph (c) and (d)), a minima below the aerodrome operating minima;
(2) reducing or satisfying the visibility requirements; or
(3) requiring fewer ground facilities as compensated for by airborne capabilities.
Note 2. – Guidance on operational credit for aircraft equipped with automatic landing
systems, a HUD or equivalent displays, EVS, SVS and CVS is contained in Attachment
I and in the Manual of All-Weather Operations (ICAO Doc 9365).
Note 3. – Information regarding a HUD or equivalent displays, including references to
RTCA and EUROCAE documents, is contained in the Manual of All-Weather
Operations (ICAO Doc 9365).
(d) Threshold crossing height for 3D instrument approaches: An operator shall
establish operational procedures designed to ensure that an aircraft being used
to conduct 3D instrument approach operations crosses the threshold by a safe margin,
with the aircraft in the landing configuration and attitude.
(e) See IS 8.8.1.7 for requirements for Instrument Approach Operating Minima.
(f) Instrument approach operations shall be classified based on the designed lowest
operating minima below which an approach operation shall only be continued with the
required visual reference as follows:
(1) Type A: a minimum descent height or decision height at or above 75 m (250 ft);
and
(2) Type B: a decision height below 75 m (250 ft). Type B instrument approach
operations are categorized as:
(A) Category I (CAT I): a decision height not lower than 60 m (200 ft) and with
either a visibility not less than 800 m or a runway visual range not less than 550
m;
(B) Category II (CAT II): a decision height lower than 60 m (200 ft), but not lower
than 30 m (100 ft) and a runway visual range not less than 300 m;
(C) Category IIIA (CAT IIIA): a decision height lower than 30 m (100 ft) or no
decision height and a runway visual range not less than 175 m;
(D) Category IIIB (CAT IIIB): a decision height lower than 15 m (50 ft), or no
decision height and a runway visual range less than 175 m but not less than
50 m; and
(E) Category IIIC (CAT IIIC): no decision height and no runway visual range
limitations.
(g) The operating minima for 2D instrument approach operations using instrument

8.8-3
PCAR PART 8
approach procedures shall be determined by establishing a minimum descent altitude

(MDA) or minimum descent height (MDH), minimum visibility and, if necessary, cloud
conditions.
(h) The operating minima for 3D instrument approach operations using instrument
approach procedures shall be determined by establishing a decision altitude (DA) or
decision height (DH) and the minimum visibility or RVR.
Note 1: Where decision height (DH) and runway visual range (RVR) fall into different
categories of operation, the instrument approach operation would be conducted in
accordance with the requirements of the most demanding category (e.g. an operation
with a DH in the range of CAT IIIA but with an RVR in the range of CAT IIIB would be
considered a CAT IIIB operation or an operation with a DH in the range of CAT II but
with an RVR in the range of CAT I would be considered a CAT II operation).
Note 2: The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the
approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have
made an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position, in relation
to the desired flight path. In the case of a circling approach operation the required
visual reference is the runway environment.
Note 3: Guidance on approach classification as it relates to instrument approach
operations, procedures, runways and navigation systems is contained in the All
Weather Operations Manual (Doc 9365).
Note 4: For guidance on applying a continuous descent final approach (CDFA) flight
technique on non-precision approach procedures refers to PANS-OPS (Doc 8168),
Volume I, Section 1.7.
8.8.1.8 CATEGORY II AND III OPERATIONS: GENERAL OPERATING RULES

(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in a Category II or III operation unless:
(1) The PIC and CP of the aircraft hold the appropriate authorizations and ratings
prescribed in Subpart 2.2.2.
(2) Each flight crew member has adequate knowledge of, and familiarity with, the
aircraft and the procedures to be used;
(3) The instrument panel in front of the pilot who is controlling the aircraft has
appropriate instrumentation for the type of flight control guidance system that is
being used; and
(4) RVR information is provided.
(b) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, no person may operate a civil aircraft in
a Category II or Category III operation unless each ground component required for that
operation and the related airborne equipment is installed and operating.
(c) When the approach procedure being used provides for and requires the use of a DH,
the authorized DH is the highest of the following:
(1) The DH prescribed by the approach procedure.
(2) The DH prescribed for the PIC.
(3) The DH for which the aircraft is equipped.
(d) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, no pilot operating an aircraft in a
Category II or Category III approach that provides and requires use of a DH may

8.8-4
PCAR PART 8
continue the approach below the authorized decision height unless the following
conditions are met:
(1) The aircraft is in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended
runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and
where that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone
of the runway of intended landing.
(2) At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly
visible and identifiable to the pilot:
(i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100
feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a
reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also
distinctly visible and identifiable.
(ii) The threshold.
(iii) The threshold markings.
(iv) The threshold lights.
(v) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
(vi) The touchdown zone lights.
(e) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, each pilot operating an aircraft shall
immediately execute an appropriate missed approach whenever, prior to touchdown,
the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section are not met.
(f) No person operating an aircraft using a Category III approach without DH may land
that aircraft except in accordance with the provisions of the letter of authorization
issued by the Authority.
(g) No person may conduct Category II or III instrument approaches and landing
operations below 800 m visibility unless RVR information is provided.
(h) Paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section do not apply to operations conducted by
Operators issued a certificate under Part 9. No person may operate a civil aircraft in a
Category II or Category III operation conducted by an Operator unless the operation is
conducted in accordance with that Operator's approved training program and
operations specifications.
8.8.1.9 CATEGORY II AND CATEGORY III MANUAL

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may operate a civil
aircraft in a Category II or a Category III operation unless
(1) There is available in the aircraft a current and approved Category II or Category III
manual, as appropriate, for that aircraft;
(2) The operation is conducted in accordance with the procedures, instructions, and
limitations in the appropriate manual; and
(3) The instruments and equipment listed in the manual that are required for a
particular Category II or Category III operation have been inspected and
maintained in accordance with the maintenance program contained in the manual.
(b) (1) In seeking authorization for Category II or Category III operations, the air operator
shall submit for approval company manual and amendment(s) thereof that include the
conditions required for the conduct of such approach, including aircraft and aircraft

8.8-5
PCAR PART 8
equipment required, the training and qualifications required of maintenance personnel

and flight crew members, any specific airworthiness considerations, and any other
information related to the conduct of Category II/II operations.
(2) Each operator must keep a current copy of each approved manual at its principal
base of operations and must make each manual available for inspection upon
request by the Authority.
(c) Paragraphs (a) and (b) do not apply to operations conducted by an Operator issued a
certificate under Part 9, which will have approved Category II or III operations included
as a part of its operations manual.
(d) See IS 8.8.1.9 for specific Category II and III manual requirements.
8.8.1.10 AUTHORIZATION FOR EXEMPTION FROM CERTAIN CATEGORY II

OPERATIONS
(a) The Authority may authorize exemptions from the requirements of Subparts 8.8.1.8
and 8.8.1.9 for the operation of small aircraft in Category II operations if the Authority
finds that the proposed operation can be safely conducted.
Note: Such authorization does not permit operation of the aircraft carrying persons or
property for compensation or hire.
8.8.1.11 DIVERSION DECISION

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), the PIC shall land the aircraft at the nearest
suitable airport at which a safe landing can be made whenever an engine of an aircraft
fails or is shut down to prevent possible damage.
(b) If not more than one engine of an airplane having three or more engines fails, or its
rotation is stopped, the PIC may proceed to an airport if he or she decides that
proceeding to that airport is as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport after
considering the:
(1) Nature of the malfunction and the possible mechanical difficulties that may occur if
flight is continued;
(2) Altitude, mass, and usable fuel at the time of engine stoppage;
(3) Weather conditions en route and at possible landing points;
(4) Air traffic congestion;
(5) Kind of terrain; and
(6) Familiarity with the airport to be used.
8.8.1.12 OPERATING NEAR OTHER AIRCRAFT INCLUDING FORMATION

FLIGHTS
(a) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision
hazard.
(b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except:
(1) By arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation, and
(2) If in controlled airspace, in accordance with conditions prescribed by the
appropriate air traffic authority, which includes that:

8.8-6
PCAR PART 8
(i) The formation operates as a single aircraft with regard to navigation and
position reporting;
(ii) Separation between aircraft in the flight shall be the responsibility of the flight
leader and the pilots in command of the other aircraft in flight;
(iii) Separation between aircraft shall include periods of transition when aircraft are
maneuvering to attain their own separation within the formation and during join-
up and break-away; and
(iv) A distance not exceeding 1 km (0.5 NM) laterally and longitudinally and 30 m
(100 ft) vertically from the flight leader shall be maintained by each aircraft.
(c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.
8.8.1.13 RIGHT-OF-WAY RULES: EXCEPT WATER OPERATIONS

(a) General.
(1) Each pilot shall maintain vigilance so as to see and avoid other aircraft; and
(2) When a rule of this subsection gives another aircraft the right-of-way, the pilot shall
give way to that aircraft and may not pass over, under, or ahead of it unless well
clear and taking into account the effect of aircraft wake turbulence.
(3) Each pilot who has the right-of-way shall maintain his or her heading and speed
but is still responsible for taking such action, including collision avoidance
maneuvers based on resolution advisories provided by ACAS equipment, as will
best avert collision.
(b) In distress. An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.
(c) Converging.
(1) When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same
altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-
of-way.
(2) If the converging aircraft are of different categories-
(i) A balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of aircraft;
(ii) A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, and power driven heavier than air
aircraft; and
(iii) An airship has the right-of-way over a power driven heavier than air aircraft.
(d) Towing or Refueling. An aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of- way
over all other engine-driven aircraft, except aircraft in distress.
(e) Approaching head-on. When aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly
so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right.
(f) Overtaking. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of
an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear.
(g) Landing. Aircraft while on final approach to land or while landing, have the right-of-way
over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface.
Note: The PIC may not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway
surface which has already landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraft on final
approach

8.8-7
PCAR PART 8
(h) More than one landing aircraft. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport
for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way.
(i) The PIC shall not take advantage of the right of way landing rules in items (g) and (h)
in this paragraph to cut in front of another aircraft that is on final approach to land or to
overtake that aircraft.
(j) Emergency landing. Aircraft that are compelled to land have the right-of-way over other
aircraft.
(k) Taking off. Aircraft taking off have the right-of-way over aircraft taxiing on the
maneuvering area of an aerodrome.
(l) Surface movement of aircraft.
(1) Approaching head-on. When aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or
approximately so, each pilot of each aircraft shall stop or wherever practicable alter
course to the right so as to keep well clear.
(2) Converging. When aircraft are converging on a course, the aircraft to the other's
right has the right-of-way.
(3) Overtaking. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each
pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall keep well clear.
(m) Aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome.
(1) An aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area shall stop and hold at all runway-
holding positions unless otherwise authorized by the aerodrome control tower.
(2) An aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area shall stop and hold at all lighted stop
bars and may proceed further when the lights are switched off.
Note: The PIC will not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is
on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.
8.8.1.14 RIGHT-OF-WAY RULES: WATER OPERATIONS

(a) General. Each person operating an aircraft on the water shall, insofar as possible, keep
clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation, and shall give way to any
vessel or other aircraft that is given the right-of-way by any rule of this subsection.
(b) Converging or Crossing. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are on crossing
courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the right-of-way.
(c) Approaching head-on. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are approaching
head-on, or nearly so, each shall alter its course to the right to keep well clear.
(d) Overtaking. Each aircraft or vessel that is being overtaken has the right-of-way, and
the one overtaking shall alter course to keep well clear.
(e) Special circumstances. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, approach so as to
involve risk of collision, each aircraft or vessel shall proceed with careful regard to
existing circumstances, including the limitations of the respective craft.
(f) Landing and taking off. When aircraft, on landing or taking off from the water, shall
keep well clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation.
(g) Helicopters: All helicopters on flights over water in a hostile environment in accordance
with Subpart 7.8.18 shall be certificated for ditching. Sea state shall be an integral part
of ditching information.

8.8-8
PCAR PART 8
8.8.1.15 USE OF AIRCRAFT LIGHTS

(a) If an aircraft has red rotating beacon lights, or other lights installed to show that the
engine is running, the pilot shall switch those lights on before starting engines and
display those lights at all times the engines are running.
(b) No person may operate an aircraft between the period from sunset to sunrise unless:
(1) It has lighted navigation lights; and
(2) If anti-collision lights are installed, those lights are lighted.
(c) No person may park or move an aircraft between the period from sunset to sunrise in,
or in a dangerous proximity to, a movement area of an aerodrome, unless the aircraft:
(1) Is clearly illuminated;
(2) Has lighted navigation lights; or
(3) Is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights; or
(4) Has light to indicate when the engine is running.
(d) No person may anchor an aircraft unless that aircraft:
(1) Has lighted anchor lights; or
(2) Is in an area where anchor lights are not required on vessels.
(e) No person may operate an aircraft on water during the period from sunset to sunrise
unless:
(1) It displays lights as required by the International Regulations for Preventing
Collisions at Sea (most recent edition); or
(2) It shall display lights as similar as possible in characteristics and position to those
required by the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea if it is not
practical to display the lights exactly as required.
(f) A pilot is permitted to switch off or reduce the intensity of any flashing lights fitted to
meet the requirements of this paragraph if they do or are likely to:
(1) Adversely affect the satisfactory performance of duties; or
(2) Subject an outside observer to harmful dazzle.
8.8.1.16 SIMULATED INSTRUMENT FLIGHT

(a) No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless
(1) That aircraft has fully functioning dual controls, except:
(i) In the case of airships, or
(ii) In a single engine airplane equipped with a throw-over control wheel in place
of fixed, dual controls of the elevator and ailerons.
(2) The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who holds at least a private pilot
license with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown, and
(3) The safety pilot has adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft, or a
competent observer in the aircraft adequately supplements the vision of the safety
pilot.

8.8-9
PCAR PART 8
(b) No person may engage in simulated instrument flight conditions during commercial air
transport operations.
8.8.1.17 IN-FLIGHT SIMULATION OF ABNORMAL SITUATIONS

(a) An operator shall ensure that when passengers or cargo are being carried, no
emergency or abnormal situations shall be simulated.
8.8.1.18 DROPPING, SPRAYING, TOWING

(a) Except under conditions prescribed by the Authority, no pilot may take the following
actions
(1) Dropping, dusting or spraying from an aircraft,
(2) Towing of aircraft or other objects; or
(3) Allowing parachute descents.
8.8.1.19 AEROBATIC FLIGHT

(a) No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight
(1) Over any city. town or settlement:
(2) Over an open air assembly of persons;
(3) Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B. C. D or E airspace
designated for an airport:
(4) Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface: or
(5) When the flight visibility is less than 5 km.
(6) Unless in compliance with any other conditions prescribed by the Authority.
(b) No person may operate an aircraft in maneuvers exceeding a bank of 60 degrees or
pitch of 30 degrees from level flight attitude unless all occupants of the aircraft are
wearing parachutes packed by a qualified parachute riggers, licensed in accordance
with Part 2 of these regulations, in the past 12 calendar-months.
8.8.1.20 FLIGHT TEST AREAS

(a) No person may flight-test an aircraft except over open water, or sparsely populated
areas having light traffic.
8.8.1.21 PROHIBITED AREAS AND RESTRICTED AREAS

(a) No person may operate an aircraft in a prohibited area or in a restricted area. The
particulars of which have been duly published, except in accordance with the
conditions of the restrictions or by permission of the State over whose territory the
areas are established.
8.8.1.22 OPERATIONS IN MNPS OR RVSM AIRSPACE

(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft of Republic of the Philippines registry in defined
portions of airspace where, based on Regional Air Navigation Agreement, minimum

8.8-10
PCAR PART 8
navigation performance specifications (MNPS) are prescribed, or in airspace

designated as RVSM without a written authorization issued by the Authority.
(b) No person may operate an aircraft in MNPS or RVSM airspace, except in accordance
with the conditions of the procedures and restrictions required for this airspace.
(c) For flights in designated MNPS airspace: an aircraft shall be provided with navigation
equipment which:
(1) continuously provides indications to the flight crew of adherence to or departure
from track to the required degree of accuracy at any point along that track; and
(2) has been authorized by the Authority for MNPS operations concerned.
Note: See CAR Part 7, 7.2.7 for requirements regarding navigation equipment for
operations in MNPS airspace.
(d) For flights in designated RVSM airspace:
For flights in defined portions of airspace where, based on Regional Air Navigation
Agreement, a reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) of 300 m (1,000 ft) is
applied between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive, an aircraft:
(1) shall be provided with equipment which is capable of:
(i) indicating to the flight crew the flight level being flown;
(ii) automatically maintaining a selected flight level;
(iii) providing an alert to the flight crew when a deviation occurs from the selected
flight level. The threshold for the alert shall not exceed ± 90 m (300 ft); and
(iv) automatically reporting pressure-altitude; and
(2) shall be authorized by the Authority for operation in the airspace concerned.
(e) Prior to granting the RVSM approval required in accordance with subparagraph (d)(2)
above, an operator shall satisfy the Authority that:
(1) the vertical navigation performance capability of the aircraft satisfies the
requirements specified in Appendix 4 of Annex 6;
(2) the operator has instituted appropriate procedures in respect of continued
airworthiness (maintenance and repair) practices and programs; and
(3) the operator has instituted appropriate flight crew procedures for operations in
RVSM airspace.
(f) The operator shall ensure that, in respect of those aircraft mentioned in subparagraph
(d) above, adequate provisions exist for:
(1) receiving the reports of height-keeping performance issued by the regional
monitoring agencies established in accordance with Annex 11: 3.3.4.1; and
(2) taking immediate corrective action for individual aircraft, or aircraft type groups,
identified in such reports as not complying with the height-keeping requirements
for operation in airspace where RVSM is applied.
(g) The aircraft shall be sufficiently provided with navigation equipment to ensure that, in
the event of the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining
equipment will enable the aircraft to navigate in accordance with RVSM airspace
requirements.

8.8-11
PCAR PART 8
(h) If an aircraft or an operator found to be operating in RVSM airspace without a valid

RVSM approval, it shall be liable to penal action.
8.8.1.23 OPERATIONS ON OR IN THE VICINITY OF A CONTROLLED OR AN

UNCONTROLLED AIRPORT
(a) When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower, each pilot
of
(1) An airplane shall make all turns of that airplane to the left; or to the right, if
appropriately indicated by the authorities having jurisdiction over that airport;
(2) A helicopter shall avoid the flow of airplanes.
(b) When departing an airport without an operating control tower, each pilot of an aircraft
shall comply with any traffic patterns established by the authorities having jurisdiction
over that airport.
(c) Each pilot of an aircraft shall land and take-off into the wind unless safety, the runway
configurations, or traffic considerations determine that a different direction is
preferable.
(d) Each pilot operating an aircraft either on or in the vicinity of an airport shall:
(1) Observe other airport traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision; and
(2) Conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft in operation.
(e) Each pilot of an aircraft when operating to, from, or through an aerodrome having an
operational control tower shall also comply with the requirements at Part 8.8.2.8.
(f) See IS: 8.8.2.11 for the appropriate displays of light signals or visual markings.
8.8.1.24 AIRPORT TRAFFIC PATTERN ALTITUDES: TURBOJET, TURBOFAN, OR

LARGE AIRCRAFT
(a) When arriving at an airport, the PIC of a turbojet, turbofan, or large aircraft shall enter
the traffic pattern at least 1,500 ft AGL until further descent is required for landing.
(b) When departing, the PIC of a turbojet, turbofan, or large aircraft shall climb to 1,500 ft
AGL as rapidly as practicable.
8.8.1.25 COMPLIANCE WITH VISUAL AND ELECTRONIC GLIDE SLOPES

(a) The PIC of an airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach
slope indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower
altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
(b) The PIC of a turbojet, turbofan, or large airplane approaching to land on a runway
served by an ILS shall fly that airplane at or above the glide slope from the point of
interception to the middle marker.
8.8.1.26 RESTRICTION OR SUSPENSION OF OPERATIONS: COMMERCIAL AIR

TRANSPORT
(a) If a PIC or an Operator knows of conditions, including airport and runway conditions
that are a hazard to safe operations, that person shall restrict or suspend all

8.8-12
PCAR PART 8
commercial air transport operations to such airports and runways as necessary until
those conditions are corrected.
8.8.1.27 CONTINUATION OF FLIGHT WHEN DESTINATION AIRPORT IS

TEMPORARILY RESTRICTED: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT
(a) No PIC may allow a flight to continue toward any airport of intended landing where
commercial air transport operations have been restricted or suspended, unless
(1) In the opinion of the PIC, the conditions that are a hazard to safe operations may
reasonably be expected to be corrected by the estimated time of arrival; or
(2) There is no safer procedure.
8.8.1.28 INTERCEPTION
(a) When intercepted by a military or government aircraft, each PIC shall comply with the
international standards when interpreting and responding to visual signals and
communication as specified in IS: 8.8.1.28.
(b) No pilot may conduct an international flight unless the procedures and signals relating
to interception of aircraft, as specified in IS: 8.8.1.28, are readily available on the flight
deck.
8.8.1.29 NOISE ABATEMENT PROCEDURES

(a) Each AOC holder shall operate its aircraft in accordance with the noise abatement
procedures approved by the Authority.
(b) Unless otherwise directed by the Authority, the noise abatement procedures specified
by an operator for any one aircraft type shall be the same for all airports.
(c) Helicopters: An operator shall ensure that take-off and landing procedures take into
account the need to minimize the effect of helicopter noise.
8.8.1.30 MINIMUM FLIGHT ALTITUDE

(a) An operator shall be permitted to establish minimum flight altitudes for those routes
flown for which minimum flight altitudes have not been established by the State flown
over or the responsible State, provided they shall not be less than those established
by that State, unless specifically approved.
(b) An operator shall specify the method by which it is intended to determine minimum
flight altitudes for operations conducted over routes for which minimum flight altitudes
have not been established by the State flown over or the responsible State, and shall
include this method in the operations manual. The minimum flight altitudes determined
in accordance with the above method shall not be lower than specified in Subparts
8.8.1.5 and 8.8.4.5.
(c) The method for establishing the minimum flight altitudes shall be approved by the
Authority.
(d) The Authority shall approve such method only after careful consideration of the
probable effects of the following factors on the safety of the operation in question:
(1) the accuracy and reliability with which the position of the aircraft can be determined;

8.8-13
PCAR PART 8
(2) the inaccuracies in the indications of the altimeters used;

(3) the characteristics of the terrain (e.g. sudden changes in the elevation);
(4) the probability of encountering unfavorable meteorological conditions (e.g. severe
turbulence and descending air currents);
(5) possible inaccuracies in aeronautical charts; and
(6) airspace restrictions.
8.8.1.31 OPERATIONS IN PERFORMANCE-BASED NAVIGATION (PBN)

AIRSPACE
(a) No operator shall permit, and no pilot shall conduct operations in airspace designated
as Performance-based Navigation (PBN) airspace, unless so approved in the
operator’s Operations Specifications.
(b) For flights in defined portions of airspace or on routes where a PBN type has been
prescribed, an aircraft shall be provided with navigation equipment which will enable it
to operate in accordance with the prescribed RNP type(s) and the ATS requirements
as specified in Subparts 7.2.7, 7.2.8, 7.2.9 and 7.2.10.
(c) An operator shall equip the aircraft as prescribed in subparagraph (b) above by
incorporating the necessary airworthiness requirements, and submit to the Authority
for approval the company manuals and amendments thereof, including the pre-flight
and en-route procedures to be followed for such flights, the training and qualifications
required of maintenance personnel, flight operations officers/flight dispatchers, and
flight crew members; and such other information necessary in the conduct of
operations in PBN designated airspace. On successful demonstration of competency
of operations in PBN designated airspace by an operator, the Authority shall authorize
such operations.
Note: See ICAO Doc 9613 for information on the approval process for operations in
PBN airspace.
8.8.1.32 AIRPLANE OPERATING PROCEDURES FOR RATES OF CLIMB AND

DESCENT
(a) Unless otherwise specified in an air traffic control instruction, to avoid unnecessary
airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS II) resolution advisories in aircraft at or
approaching adjacent altitudes or flight levels, operators should specify procedures by
which an airplane climbing or descending to an assigned altitude or flight level,
especially with an autopilot engaged, may do so at a rate less than 8 m (26 ft)/sec or
450 m (1500 ft)/min (depending on the instrumentation available throughout the last
300 m (1000 ft) of climb or descent to the assigned level when the pilot is made aware
of another aircraft at or approaching an adjacent altitude or flight level.
Note: Material concerning the development of these procedures is contained in the
PANS-OPS (ICAO Doc 8168) Volume I, Part III, Section 3, Chapter 3.

8.8-14
PCAR PART 8
8.8.2 CONTROL OF AIR TRAFFIC

8.8.2.1 ATC CLEARANCES
(a) Each PIC shall obtain an ATC clearance prior to operating a controlled flight, or a
portion of a flight as a controlled flight.
(b) Each PIC shall request an ATC clearance through the submission of a flight plan to an
ATC facility, including potential re-clearance in flight.
(c) Whenever an aircraft has requested a clearance involving priority, each PIC shall
submit a report explaining the necessity for such priority, if requested by the
appropriate ATC facility.
(d) No person operating an aircraft on a controlled airport may taxi on the maneuvering
area or any runway without clearance from the airport control tower.
8.8.2.2 ADHERENCE TO ATC CLEARANCES

(a) When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no PIC may deviate from the clearance.
Except in an emergency, unless he or she obtains an amended clearance.
Note: A flight plan may cover only part of a flight, as necessary, to describe that portion
of the flight or those maneuvers which are subject to air traffic control. A clearance
may cover only part of a current flight plan as indicated in a clearance limit or by
reference to specific maneuvers such as taxiing, landing or taking off.
Note: Paragraph 8.8.2.2(a) does not prohibit a pilot from canceling an IFR clearance
when operating in VMC conditions or canceling a controlled flight clearance when
operating in airspace that does not required controlled flight.
(b) When operating in airspace requiring controlled flight, no PIC may operate contrary to
ATC instructions, except in an emergency.
(c) Each PIC who deviates from an ATC clearance or instructions in an emergency, shall
notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible.
8.8.2.3 COMMUNICATIONS
(a) Each person operating an aircraft on a controlled flight shall maintain a continuous
listening watch on the appropriate radio frequency of, and establish two-way
communication as required with, the appropriate ATC facility.
(b) Each person operating an aircraft on a controlled flight shall, except when landing at a
controlled airport, advise the appropriate ATC facility as soon as it ceases to be subject
to ATC service.
Note: More specific procedures may be prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority in
respect of aircraft forming part of airport traffic at a controlled airport.
Note: Automatic signaling devices may be used to satisfy the requirement to maintain
a continuous listening watch, if authorized by the Authority.
(c) All flight crew members required to be on flight deck duty shall communicate through
boom or throat microphones below the transition level/altitude.

8.8-15
PCAR PART 8
8.8.2.4 ROUTE TO BE FLOWN

(a) Unless otherwise authorized or directed by the appropriate ATC facility, the PIC of a
controlled flight shall, in so far as practicable
(1) When on an established ATC route. operate along the defined centre line of that
route; or
(2) When on any other route, operate directly between the navigation facilities and/or
points defining that route.
(b) The PIC of a controlled flight operating along an ATC route defined by reference to
VORs shall change over for primary navigation guidance from the facility behind the
aircraft to that ahead of it or as close as operationally feasible to the change-over point
where established.
Note: These requirements do not prohibit maneuvering the aircraft to pass well clear
of other air traffic or the maneuvering of the aircraft in VFR conditions to clear the
intended flight path both before and during climb or descent.
8.8.2.5 INADVERTENT CHANGES

(a) A PIC shall take the following action in the event that a controlled flight inadvertently
deviates from its current flight plan:
(1) Deviation from track. If the aircraft is off track, the PIC shall adjust the heading of
the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable.
(2) Variation in true airspeed. Each PIC shall inform the appropriate ATC facility if the
average true airspeed at cruising level between reporting points varies by plus or
minus Mach 0.02 or more, or plus or minus 19 km/h (10kt) true airspeed or more
from the current flight plan.
(3) Change in time estimate. Except where ADS-C is Activated and serviceable in
airspace where ADS-C services are provided, if the time estimate for the next
applicable reporting point, flight information region boundary or destination
aerodrome, whichever comes first, changes in excess of 2 minutes from that
previously notified to air traffic services, or such other period of time as is
prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority or on the basis of regional air
navigation, the flight crew shall notify the appropriate air traffic services unit as
soon as possible.
(b) When ADS-C services are provided and ADS-C is activated, the air traffic services unit
shall be informed automatically via data link whenever changes occur beyond the
threshold values stipulated by the ADS event contract.
8.8.2.6 ATC CLEARANCE: INTENDED CHANGES

(a) Requests for flight plan changes shall include the following information:
(1) Change of cruising level. Aircraft identification, requested new cruising level and
cruising speed at this level, and revised time estimates, when applicable, at
subsequent flight information region boundaries.
(2) Change of route-
(i) Destination unchanged. Aircraft identification, flight rules; description of new
route of flight including related flight plan data beginning with the position from

8.8-16
PCAR PART 8
which requested change of route is to commence; revised time estimates, and

any other pertinent information.
(ii) Destination change. Aircraft identification; flight rules; description of revised
route of flight to revised destination airport including related flight plan data,
beginning with the position from which requested change of route is to
commence; revised time estimates; alternate airport(s); any other pertinent
information.
8.8.2.7 POSITION REPORTS

(a) Each pilot of a controlled flight shall report to the appropriate ATC facility, as soon as
possible, the time and level of passing each designated compulsory reporting point,
together with any other required information, unless exempted from this requirement
by the appropriate ATC authority.
(b) Each pilot of a controlled flight shall make position reports in relation to additional
points or intervals when requested by the appropriate ATC facility.
(c) When operating via data link communications providing position information to the
appropriate air traffic services unit, each pilot of a controlled flight shall only provide
voice position reports when requested by the appropriate ATC facility.
8.8.2.8 OPERATIONS ON OR IN THE VICINITY OF A CONTROLLED AIRPORT

(a) No person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an
operational control tower unless two-way communications are maintained between
that aircraft and the control tower.
(b) On arrival, each PIC shall establish communications required by paragraph (a) prior to
4 nautical miles from the airport when operating from the surface up to and including
2,500 feet.
(c) On departure, each PIC shall establish communications with the control tower prior to
taxi.
(d) Take-off landing, taxi clearance. No person may, at any airport with an operating
control tower, operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway or take-off or land an aircraft,
unless an appropriate clearance has been received by ATC.
Note: A clearance to -taxi to" the take-off runway is not a clearance to cross or taxi on
to that runway. It does authorize the PIC to cross other runways during the taxi to the
assigned runway. A clearance to -taxi to" any other point on the airport is a clearance
to cross all runways that intersect the taxi route to the assigned point.
(e) Communications failure. If the radio fails or two-way communication is lost, a PIC may
continue a VFR flight operation and land if
(1) The weather conditions are at or above basic VFR minimums; and
(2) Clearance to land from the ATC tower is given in accordance with the universal
light signals and acknowledged by the PIC as contained in IS: 8.8.2.11 (e) and (f)
for light signals and acknowledgement.
Note: During IFR operations, the two-way communications failure procedures in
Subpart 8.8.4.19(a) (3) will apply.

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PCAR PART 8
8.8.2.9 UNLAWFUL INTERFERENCE

(a) A PIC shall, when and if possible, notify the appropriate ATC facility when an aircraft
is being subjected to unlawful interference, including:
(1) Any significant circumstances associated with the unlawful interference. and
(2) Any deviation from the current flight plan necessitated by the circumstances.
(b) If an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the PIC shall attempt to land as soon
as practicable at the nearest suitable aerodrome or at a dedicated aerodrome assigned
by the appropriate authority unless considerations aboard the aircraft dictate
otherwise.
8.8.2.10 TIME CHECKS

(a) Each PIC shall use Coordinated Universal Time (UTC), expressed in hours and
minutes of the 24-hour day beginning at midnight, in flight operations.
(b) Each PIC shall obtain a time check prior to operating a controlled flight and at such
other times during the flight as may be necessary.
(c) Whenever time is used in the application of data link communications, it shall be
accurate to within one second of UTC.
Note: The time checks above in 8.8.2.10 (a) and (b) are normally obtained from an air
traffic services unit unless other arrangements have been made by the operator or by
the appropriate ATC authority.
8.8.2.11 UNIVERSAL SIGNALS

(a) Upon observing or receiving any of the designated universal aviation signals as
contained in IS: 8.8.2.11 and IS: 8.8.1.28, each person operating an aircraft shall take
such action as may be required by the interpretation of the signal.
(b) Universal aviation signals shall have only the meanings designated.
(c) Each person using universal signals in the movement of aircraft shall only use them
for the purpose indicated.
(d) No person may use signals likely to cause confusion with universal aviation signals.
8.8.3 VFR FLIGHT RULES AND AIRSPACE DESIGNATION

8.8.3.1 VISUAL METEOROLOGICAL CONDITIONS AND AIRSPACE
DESIGNATION
(a) No person may operate an aircraft under VFR when the flight visibility is less than, or
at a distance from the clouds that is less than that prescribed, or the corresponding
altitude and class of airspace in the following table:

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PCAR PART 8
* When the height of the transition altitude is lower than 3,050 in (1,000 ft) AMSL, FL 100
should be used in lieu of 10,000ft.
** When so prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority:
Lower flight visibilities to 1,500 m may be permitted for flights operating:
- At speeds that, in the prevailing visibility, will give adequate opportunity to observe
other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision; or
- In circumstances in which the probability of encounters with other traffic would
normally be low, e.g. in areas of low volume traffic and for aerial work at low
levels.
Helicopters may be permitted to operate in less than 1,500 m flight visibility, if
maneuvered at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or
any obstacles in time to avoid collision.
*** The VMC minima in Class A airspace are included for guidance to pilots and do not imply
acceptance of VFR flights in Class A airspace.

8.8-19
PCAR PART 8
(b) Airspace Classification – Services Provided and Flight Requirements:
(c) Airspace designation in Republic of the Philippines:

(1) Class A airspace: IFR flights only are permitted. All flights are provided with air
traffic control service and are separated from each other.
(2) Class B airspace: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are provided with
air traffic control service and are separated from each other.
(3) Class C airspace: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are provided with
air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and
from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic
information in respect of other VFR flights.
(4) Class D airspace: IFR and VFR fights are permitted and all flights are provided
with air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and
receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic
information in respect of all other flights.

8.8-20
PCAR PART 8
(5) Class E airspace: IFR and VFR fights are permitted. IFR flights are provided with
air traffic control service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive
traffic information as far as is practicable.
(6) Class F airspace: IFR and VFR fights are permitted. All participating IFR flights
receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service
if requested.
(7) Class G airspace: IFR and VFR fights are permitted and receive flight information
service if requested.
(d) Within the Manila FIR, the airspace is divided and classified as follows:
AIRSPACE LEVELS CLASSIFICATION
Manila FIR Upper Control

Area FL 200 – Unlimited A
(except special use
airspace)
FL 65 – Unlimited A
Oceanic Airspace
Lower limit – FL 200 E

ATS Routes and TMA
Surface – Upper limit D

Control Zones
Aerodrome Traffic Zones

in Airports Surface – Upper limit D
with Aerodrome Control
Service
Aerodrome Advisory
Zones with
Surface – Upper limit F
Airports without
Aerodrome Control
Service
Uncontrolled Airspace G
8.8.3.2 VFR WEATHER MINIMUMS FOR TAKE-OFF AND LANDING

(a) No person may land or takeoff an aircraft under VFR from an aerodrome located within
a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern airspace unless
the:
(1) Reported ceiling is at least 450 m (1,500 ft); and

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PCAR PART 8
(2) Reported ground visibility is at least 5 km; or, except when a clearance is obtained
from ATC.
(b) No person may land or takeoff an aircraft or enter the traffic pattern under VFR from
an airport located outside a control zone, unless VMC conditions are at or above those
indicated in Subpart 8.8.3.1.
(c) The only exception to the required weather minimums of this subsection is during a
Special VFR operation.
8.8.3.3 SPECIAL VFR OPERATIONS

(a) No person may conduct a Special VFR flight operation to enter the traffic pattern, land
or takeoff an aircraft under Special VFR from an airport located in Class B, Class C,
Class D or Class E airspace unless:
(1) Authorized by an ATC clearance, under exceptional circumstances;
(2) The aircraft remains clear of clouds; and
(3) The flight visibility is at least 5 km.
(b) No person may conduct a Special VFR flight operation in an aircraft between sunset
and sunrise.
8.8.3.4 VFR CRUISING ALTITUDES

(a) Each person operating an aircraft in level cruising flight under VFR at altitudes above
900 m (3,000 ft) from the ground or water, shall maintain a flight level appropriate to
the track as specified in the table of cruising levels in IS: 8.8.3.4.
(b) Paragraph (a) does not apply when otherwise authorized by ATC, when operating in a
holding pattern, or during maneuvering in turns.
8.8.3.5 ATC CLEARANCES FOR VFR FLIGHTS

(a) Each pilot of a VFR flight shall obtain and comply with ATC clearances and maintain a
listening watch before and during operations
(1) Within Classes B, C and D airspace:
(2) As part of airport traffic at controlled airports; and
(3) Under Special VFR.
8.8.3.6 VFR FLIGHTS REQUIRING ATC AUTHORIZATION

(a) Unless authorized by the appropriate ATC authority, no pilot may operate in VFR flight
(1) Above FL 200; or
(2) At transonic and supersonic speeds.
(b) ATC authorization for VFR flights may not be granted in areas where a VSM of only
300m (1,000 ft) is applied above FL 290.
(c) No person may operate in VFR flight between sunset and sunrise unless:
(1) Authorized by the appropriate ATC authority, and
(2) Operating in accordance with any conditions prescribed by the Authority.

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PCAR PART 8
8.8.3.7 WEATHER DETERIORATION BELOW VMC

(a) Each pilot of a VFR flight operated as a controlled flight shall, when he or she finds it
is not practical or possible to maintain flight in VMC in accordance with the ATC flight
plan
(1) Request an amended clearance enabling the aircraft to continue in VMC to its
destination or to an alternative airport. or to leave the airspace within which an ATC
clearance is required;
(2) If no clearance can be obtained. continue to operate in VMC and notify the
appropriate ATC facility of the action being taken either to leave the airspace
concerned or to land at the nearest suitable airport;
(3) Operating within a control zone. request authorization to operate as a special VFR
flight; or
(4) Request clearance to operate in IFR, if currently rated for IFR operations.
8.8.3.8 CHANGING FROM VFR TO IFR

(a) Each pilot operating in VFR who wishes to change to IFR shall
(1) If a flight plan was submitted, communicate the necessary changes to be effected
to its current flight plan; or
(2) Submit a flight plan to the appropriate ATC facility and obtain a clearance prior to
proceeding IFR when in controlled airspace.
8.8.3.9 TWO-WAY RADIO COMMUNICATION FAILURE IN VFR

(a) If radio failure occurs in VFR while under ATC control, or if VFR conditions are
encountered after the failure, each pilot shall:
(1) Continue the flight under VFR;
(2) Land at the nearest suitable airport: and
(3) Report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means possible.
8.8.4 IFR FLIGHT RULES

(a) All aircraft operated in accordance with instrument flight procedures shall comply with
the IFR, and the airport/heliport instrument approach procedures approved by the
State in which the operation will take place.
Note: Information for pilots on flight procedure parameters and operational procedures
is contained in ICAO Doc 8168, PANS-OPS, Volume I. Criteria for the construction of
visual and instrument flight procedures are contained in ICAO DOC 8186, PANS-OPS,
Volume II. Obstacle clearance criteria and procedures used in certain States may differ
from PANS-OPS, and knowledge of these differences is important for safety reasons.
(b) Airplanes: One or more instrument approach procedures designed to support
instrument approach operations shall be approved and promulgated by the Authority
in which the aerodrome is located to serve each instrument runway or aerodrome
utilized for instrument flight operations.

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PCAR PART 8
(c) Helicopters: One or more instrument approach procedures to serve each final
approach and take-off area or heliport utilized for instrument flight operations shall be
approved and promulgated by the State in which the heliport is located, or by the State
which is responsible for the heliport when located outside the territory of any State.
8.8.4.2 IFR IN CONTROLLED AIRSPACE

(a) No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person
has
(1) Filed an IFR flight plan; and
(2) Received an appropriate ATC clearance.
8.8.4.3 IFR FLIGHTS OUTSIDE CONTROLLED AIRSPACE

(a) Each PIC of an IFR flight operating outside controlled airspace but within or into areas,
or along routes, designated by the appropriate ATC authority, shall maintain a listening
watch on the appropriate radio frequency and establish two-way communication, as
necessary, with the ATC facility providing flight information service.
(b) Each PIC of an IFR flight operating outside controlled airspace for which the
appropriate ATC authority requires a flight plan, a listening watch on the appropriate
radio frequency and establishment of two-way communication, as necessary, with the
ATC facility providing flight information service, shall report position as specified for
controlled flights.
8.8.4.4 IFR TAKE-OFF MINIMUMS FOR COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, no pilot operating an aircraft in
commercial air transport operations may accept a clearance to take off from a civil
airport under IFR unless weather conditions are at or above
(1) For aircraft; other than helicopters, having two engines or less: 1,500 m (1 statute
mile) visibility.
(2) For aircraft having more than two engines: 800 m (1/2 statute mile) visibility.
(3) For helicopters: 800 m (1/2 statute mile) visibility.
8.8.4.5 MINIMUM ALTITUDES FOR IFR OPERATIONS

(a) Operation of aircraft at minimum altitudes. Except when necessary for take-off or
landing, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below
(1) The applicable minimum altitudes prescribed by the authorities having jurisdiction
over the airspace being over-flown; or
(2) If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed by the authorities-
(i) Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600m
(2,000ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated
position of the aircraft; and
(ii) Elsewhere than as specified in paragraph (a), at a level which is at least 300m
(1,000ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated
position of the aircraft.

8.8-24
PCAR PART 8
(3) If an MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route or route segment, a
person may operate an aircraft below the MEA down to, but not below the MOCA,
when within 22 nautical miles of the VOR concerned.
(b) Climb for obstacle clearance.
(1) If unable to communicate with ATC. each pilot shall climb to a higher minimum IFR
altitude immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude
applies
(2) If ground obstructions intervene, each pilot shall climb to a point beyond which that
higher minimum altitude applies, at or above the applicable MCA.
8.8.4.6 MINIMUM ALTITUDES FOR USE OF AN AUTOPILOT

(a) For en route operations, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above the terrain
that is less than 500 feet.
Note: If the maximum altitude loss specified in the AFM for a malfunction under cruise
conditions when multiplied by two is more than 500 feet, then it becomes the controlling
minimum altitude for use of the autopilot.
(b) For instrument approach operations, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude
above the terrain that is less than 50 feet below the MDA or DH.
Note: If the maximum altitude loss specified in the AFM for a malfunction under
approach conditions when multiplied by two is more than 50 feet, then it becomes the
controlling minimum altitude for use of the autopilot.
(c) For Category II and III approaches, the Authority may approve the use of a flight control
guidance system with automatic capability to touchdown.
Note: For Category I approaches, see Implementing Standards IS: 8.8.4.6.
8.8.4.7 IFR CRUISING ALTITUDE OR FLIGHT LEVEL IN CONTROLLED

AIRSPACE
(a) Each person operating an aircraft under IFR in level cruising flight in controlled
airspace shall maintain the altitude or flight level assigned that aircraft by ATC.
(b) If the ATC clearance assigns "VFR conditions on-top," each person shall maintain a
VFR cruising altitude in VMC.
(c) Paragraph (b) above does not apply when otherwise authorized by ATC or specified
by the appropriate ATC authority in Aeronautical Information Publications.
(d) The requirements for VFR cruising altitudes are in Subpart 8.8.3.4.
8.8.4.8 IFR CRUISING ALTITUDE OR FLIGHT LEVEL IN UNCONTROLLED

AIRSPACE
(a) Each person operating an aircraft in level cruising flight under IFR, outside of controlled
airspace, shall maintain a flight level appropriate to the track as specified in the table
of cruising levels in IS: 8.8.3.4 or according to a modified table of cruising levels when
so prescribed in accordance with IS: 8.8.3.4 for flight above FL 410.
(b) A person may deviate from the cruising altitudes specified in paragraph (a) only when:
(1) Authorized by ATC for flight at or below 900 m (3,000 ft) above MSL; or

8.8-25
PCAR PART 8
(2) When otherwise authorized by ATC.
8.8.4.9 IFR RADIO COMMUNICATIONS

(a) Each PIC of an aircraft operated under IFR in controlled airspace shall have a
continuous watch maintained on the appropriate frequency and shall report by radio
as soon as possible
(1) The time and altitude of passing each designated reporting point, or the reporting
points specified by ATC, except that while the aircraft is under radar control, only
the passing of those reporting points specifically requested by ATC need be
reported;
(2) Any un-forecast weather conditions encountered; and
(3) Any other information relating to the safety of flight, such as hazardous weather or
abnormal radio station indications.
8.8.4.10 OPERATION UNDER IFR IN CONTROLLED AIRSPACE: MALFUNCTION

REPORTS
(a) The PIC of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall report as soon
as practical to ATC any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communication
equipment occurring in flight.
(b) In each report specified in paragraph (a), the PIC shall include the
(2) Equipment affected,
(3) Degree to which the capability of the pilot to operate under IFR in the ATC system
is impaired; and
(4) Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC.
8.8.4.11 CONTINUATION OF IFR FLIGHT TOWARD A DESTINATION

(a) For commercial air transport operations:
A flight shall not be continued towards the airport/heliport of intended landing, unless
the latest available information indicates that at the expected time of arrival, a landing
can be affected at that airport/heliport or at least one destination alternate
airport/heliport, in compliance with the operating minima established in accordance
with Subpart 8.8.1.7 (b).
(b) For General Aviation operations:
A flight shall not be continued towards the airport/heliport of intended landing unless
the latest available meteorological information indicates that conditions at that
airport/heliport, or at least one destination alternate airport/heliport, will, at the
estimated time of arrival, be at or above the specified airport/heliport operating minima.

8.8-26
PCAR PART 8
8.8.4.12 INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURES AND IFR LANDING

MINIMUMS
(a) No person may make an instrument approach at an airport/heliport except in
accordance with IFR weather minimums and instrument approach procedures
established for that airport/heliport set forth by the Authority.
(b) No AOC holder may make an instrument approach at an airport/heliport except as set
forth in the AOC holder's operations specifications.
8.8.4.13 CONTINUATION OF AN INSTRUMENT APPROACH

(a) In commercial air transport operations, no pilot may continue an approach past the
final approach fix (FAF), or where a FAF is not used, begin the final approach segment
of an instrument approach procedure, at any airport/heliport unless:
(1) A source approved by the Authority issues a weather report for that airport/heliport;
and
(2) The latest weather report for that airport/heliport reports the visibility or controlling
RVR to be equal to or more that the minimums prescribed for that procedure.
(b) If a pilot begins the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure and
subsequently receives a weather report indicating below-minimum conditions, the pilot
may continue the approach to DH or MDA.
Note: For the purpose of this subsection, the final approach segment begins at the final
approach fix or facility prescribed in the instrument approach procedure. When a final
approach fix is not prescribed for a procedure that includes a procedure turn, the final
approach segment begins at the point where the procedure turn is completed and the
aircraft is established inbound toward the airport on the final approach course within
the distance prescribed in the procedure.
(c) An instrument approach shall not be continued below 300 m (1,000 ft.) above the
aerodrome elevation or into the final approach segment unless the reported unless
visibility or controlling RVR is at or above the aerodrome operating minima.
Note: Criteria for the Final Approach Segment is contained in PANS-OPS (Doc 8168),
Volume II.
(d) If, after entering the final approach segment or after descending below 300 m (1,000
ft.) above the aerodrome elevation the reported visibility or controlling RVR falls below
the specified minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H. in any
case, an airplane shall not continue approach-to-land any aerodrome beyond a point
at which the limits of the operating minima specified for that aerodrome would be
infringed.
Note: Controlling RVR means the reported values of one or more RVR reporting
locations (touchdown, mid-point and stop-end) used to determine determined whether
minima are or are not met. Where RVR is used, the controlling RVR, unless otherwise
specified by State criteria.
8.8.4.14 INSTRUMENT APPROACHES TO CIVIL AIRPORTS

(a) Each person operating a civil aircraft shall use a standard instrument approach
procedure prescribed by the authorities having jurisdiction over the airport, unless
otherwise authorized by the Authority.

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PCAR PART 8
(b) Authorized DH or MDA. For the purpose of this section, when the approach procedure
being used provides for and requires the use of a DH or MDA the authorized DH or
MDA is the highest of the following:
(1) The DH or MDA prescribed by the approach procedure.
(2) The DH or MDA prescribed for the PIC.
(3) The DH or MDA for which the aircraft is equipped.
8.8.4.15 OPERATION BELOW DH OR MDA

(a) Where a DH or MDA is applicable, no pilot may operate a civil aircraft at any airport or
heliport below the authorized MDA, or continue an approach below the authorized DH
unless:
(1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the
intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal
maneuvers;
(2) For commercial air transport operations, a descent rate will allow touchdown to
occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing;
(3) The reported flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard
instrument approach being used or the controlling RVR is above the specified
minimum; and
(4) At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly
visible and identifiable to the pilot-
(i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100
feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a
reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also
distinctly visible and identifiable.
(ii) The threshold;
(iii) The threshold markings;
(iv) Threshold lights;
(v) The runway end identifier lights;
(vi) The visual approach slope indicator;
(vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings;
(viii) The touchdown zone lights;
(ix) The runway or runway markings; or
(x) The runway lights.
Note 1: Controlling RVR means the reported values of one or more RVR
reporting locations (touchdown, mid-point and stop-end) used to determine
whether operating minima are or are not met. Where RVR is used, the
controlling RVR is the touchdown RVR, unless otherwise specified by Republic
of the Philippines criteria.
Note 2: The visual references above do not apply to Category II and Ill
operations. The required visual references under Category II and III operations
are stated in the Operator's approved operations specifications or in a special
authorization prescribed by the Authority.

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PCAR PART 8
8.8.4.16 LANDING DURING INSTRUMENT METEOROLOGICAL CONDITIONS

(a) No pilot operating a civil aircraft may land that aircraft when the flight visibility is less
than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being
used.
8.8.4.17 EXECUTION OF A MISSED APPROACH PROCEDURE

(a) Each pilot operating a civil aircraft shall immediately execute an appropriate missed
approach procedure when either of the following conditions exist:
(1) Whenever the required visual reference criteria is not met in the following
situations:
(i) When the aircraft is being operated below MDA; or
(ii) Upon arrival at the missed approach point, including a DH where a DH is
specified and its use is required, and at any time after that until touchdown.
(2) Whenever an identifiable part of the airport is not distinctly visible to the pilot during
a circling maneuver at or above MDA, unless the inability to see an identifiable part
of the airport results only from a normal bank of the aircraft during the circling
approach.
8.8.4.18 CHANGE FROM IFR FLIGHT TO VFR FLIGHT

(a) An pilot electing to change from IFR flight to VFR flight shall notify the appropriate ATC
facility specifically that the IFR flight is cancelled and then communicate the changes
to be made to his or her current flight plan.
(b) When a pilot operating under IFR encounters VMC, he or she may not cancel the IFR
flight unless it is anticipated, and intended, that the flight will be continued for a
reasonable period of time in uninterrupted VMC.
8.8.4.19 TWO-WAY RADIO COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE IN IFR

(a) If two-way radio communication failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if continued flight
in VFR is judged not feasible, each pilot shall continue the flight according to the
following:
(1) Route-
(i) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received,
(ii) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the
fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance,
(iii) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may
be expected in a further clearance; or
(iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be
expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan.
(2) Altitude. At the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route
segment being flown-
(i) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received;

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PCAR PART 8
(ii) The minimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level for IFR
operations); or
(iii) The altitude or flight level ATC advised may be expected in a further clearance.
(3) Leave clearance limit:
(i) When the clearance limit is at a fix from which an approach begins, commence
descent or descent and approach:
(A) As close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has been
received; or
(B) If one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of
arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time
en route.
(ii) If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins:
(A) Leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has
been received, or if none has been received. upon arrival over the
clearance limit;
(B) Proceed to a fix from which an approach begins; and
(C) Commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the
ETA as calculated from the filed or amended with ATC estimated time en
route.
8.8.4.20 THRESHOLD CROSSING HEIGHT FOR PRECISION APPROACHES

(a) An operator shall establish operational procedures designed to ensure that an airplane
being used to conduct precision approaches crosses the threshold by a safe margin
with the airplane in the landing configuration and attitude.
8.8.4.21 ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR OPERATIONS OF HELICOPTERS IN

PERFORMANCE CLASS 3 IN IMC, EXCEPT SPECIAL VFR FLIGHTS
(a) Operations in performance Class 3 in IMC shall be conducted only over a surface
environment acceptable to the competent authority of the State over which the
operations are performed.
(b) In approving operations by helicopters operating in performance Class 3 in IMC, the
operator shall ensure that the helicopter is certificated for flight under IFR and that the
overall level of safety intended by the provisions of CAR Parts 5, 8 and 9 is provided
by:
(1) the reliability of the engines;
(2) the operator's maintenance procedures, operating practices and crew training
programs; and
(3) equipment and other requirements provided in accordance with Appendix 2 to
Annex 6 Part III.
(c) Operations of helicopters operating in performance Class 3 in IMC shall have a
program for engine trend monitoring and shall utilize the engine and helicopter
manufacturers’ recommended instruments, systems and operational/maintenance
procedures to monitor the engines.

8.8-30
PCAR PART 8
(d) In order to minimize the occurrence of mechanical failures, helicopters operating in

IMC in performance Class 3 should utilize vibration health monitoring for the tail-rotor
drive system.
8.8.4.22 ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR SINGLE PILOT OPERATIONS

UNDER THE INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES (IFR) OR AT NIGHT
(a) An airplane shall not be operated under the IFR or at night by a single pilot unless
(b) An airplane shall not be operated under the IFR or at night by a single pilot unless:
(1) the flight manual does not require a flight crew of more than one;
(2) the airplane is propeller-driven;
(3) the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is not more than nine;
(4) the maximum certificated take-off mass does not exceed 5,700 kg;
(5) the airplane is equipped as described in part 7, Subpart 7.8.11; and
(6) the pilot-in-command has satisfied requirements of experience, training, checking
and recency described in Subpart 8.10.1.50.
8.8.4.23 ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR SINGLE-ENGINE TURBINE

POWERED AIRPLANES AT NIGHT AND/OR IN INSTRUMENT FLIGHT
RULES (IFR) CONDITIONS
(a) In approving operations by single-engine turbine-powered airplanes at night and/or in
IMC the Authority shall ensure that the airworthiness certification of the airplane is
appropriate and that the overall level of safety intended by the provisions of Annexes
6 and 8 is provided by:
(1) the reliability of the turbine engine;
(2) the operator's maintenance procedures, operating practices, flight dispatch
procedures and crew training programs; and
(3) equipment and other requirements provided in accordance with Appendix 3 to
Annex 6.
(b) All single-engine turbine-powered airplanes operated at night and/or in IMC shall have
an engine trend monitoring system, and those airplanes for which the individual
Certificate of Airworthiness is first issued on or after 1 January 2005 shall have an
automatic trend monitoring system.
8.8.4.24 RESTRICTED AND PROHIBITED AREAS

(a) No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area as published in the AIP
contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area as published in the AIP,
unless that person has the permission of the using or controlling agency, as
appropriate.
(b) Each person conducting, an aircraft operation within a restricted area (approved by the
using agency) that creates the same hazards as the operations for which the restricted
area was designated may deviate from the rules of this subpart that are not compatible
with the operation of the aircraft.

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PCAR PART 8
8.8.4.25 FLIGHT INTO RESTRICTED AIRSPACE (RP-P1)

(a) The rule on this section should be strictly adhered to before a flight could commence
within the Malacañang (RP-P1).
(b) Helicopter pilots/operators should first request in writing a PSG clearance addressed
to the Commanding, PSG (Attn: OG3) with the following information:
(1) Time and date of actual flight;
(2) Registration number of aircraft;
(3) Type and capacity of aircraft;
(4) Name of pilots and crew;
(5) Name of all VIP/ passenger(s) on board; and
(6) Proposed Flight Plan.
(c) The PSG clearance shall be submitted to Domestic Flight Operations Briefing Station
(DFOBS) as an attachment to the Flight Plan;
(d) The Flight Plan, together with the PSG clearance, will be presented to the 250th
Presidential Airlift Wing Operation Center for RP-P1 airspace limits flight briefing;
(e) Upon airborne, the pilot shall contact call sign “PAPA ONE” of the Group Operations
Center, PSG at 11.5 MHz (primary) or 133.0 MHz (secondary) before entering RP-P1
airspace and observe designated gates of entry within the 2 nautical miles (3.71 km)
radius;
(f) In situations where a VIP passenger has to immediately proceed to Malacañang Park.
The pilot should at once contact “PAPA ONE” for clearance informing of a VIP
passenger on board and the reason for urgency to proceed to Malacañang Park. The
aircraft shall hold on a designated holding area until a clearance is given to proceed.
The pilot shall then inform MNL TWR at 118.1 MHz informing that he is flying into RP-
P1 and that a clearance has been granted by the PSG before entering RP-P1 airspace.
The time of granting such clearance should be specified.
(g) Accidental intrusions are strictly unauthorized and the pilot should coordinate with
“PAPA ONE” at frequency 119.5 MHz for proper instructions:
(1) Two (2) days for overfly;
(2) Three (3) days for landing at Area III; and
(3) Ten (10) days for aerial flights.
(h) In operation like paradrop, aerial photography, and request for clearance to operate a
helipad, strict adherence to PSG SOP 9-99 dated June 12, 1999 is enjoined.

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8.9 PASSENGERS AND PASSENGER HANDLING

8.9.1 ALL PASSENGER CARRYING OPERATIONS
8.9.1.1 UNACCEPTABLE CONDUCT
(a) No person on board may interfere with a crew member in the performance of his or her
duties.
(b) Each passenger shall fasten his or her seat belt and keep it fastened while the seat
belt sign slighted.
(c) No person on board an aircraft shall recklessly or negligently act or omit to act in such
a manner as to endanger the aircraft or persons and property therein.
(d) No person may secrete himself or herself nor secrete cargo on board an aircraft.
(e) No person may smoke while the no-smoking sign is lighted.
(f) No person may smoke in any airplane lavatory.
(g) No person may tamper with, disable or destroy any smoke detector installed in any
airplane lavatory.
8.9.1.2 REFUELING WITH PASSENGERS ON BOARD

(a) Airplanes: No PIC may allow an airplane to be refueled when passengers are
embarking, on board or disembarking unless:
(1) the airplane is properly attended by qualified personnel ready to initiate and direct
an evacuation of the airplane by the most practical and expeditious means
available; and
(2) two-way communication is maintained by the aircraft’s intercommunication system
or other suitable means between the ground crew supervising the refueling and the
qualified personnel on board the aircraft.
(b) Helicopters: No PIC may allow a helicopter to be refueled when passengers are
embarking, on board, disembarking or when the rotor is turning unless:
(1) the helicopter is properly attended by qualified personnel ready to initiate and direct
an evacuation of the helicopter by the most practical and expeditious means
available; and
(2) two-way communication is maintained by the helicopter’s intercommunication
system or other suitable means between the ground crew supervising the refueling
and the qualified personnel on board the helicopter.
(3) the operator is granted specific authorization by the Authority setting forth the
conditions under which such fueling may be carried out.
8.9.1.3 PASSENGER SEATS, SAFETY BELTS, AND SHOULDER HARNESSES

(a) The PIC shall ensure that each person on onboard occupies an approved seat or berth
with their own individual safety belt and shoulder harness (if installed) properly secured
about them during take-off and landing.
(b) Each passenger shall have his or her seatbelt securely fastened at any other time the
PIC determines it is necessary for safety.
(c) A safety belt provided for the occupant of a seat may not be used during take-off and
landing by more than one person who has reached his or her second birthday.

8.9-1
PCAR PART 8
Note: When cabin crew members are required in a commercial air transport operation,
the PIC may delegate this responsibility, but shall ascertain that the proper briefing has
been conducted prior to take-off.
(d) No operator may prohibit a child, if required by the child’s parent, guardian, or
designated attendant, from occupying a child restraint system furnished by the child’s
parent, guardian, or designated attendant, provided the child holds a ticket for an
approved seat or berth, or such seat or berth is otherwise made available by the
operator for the child’s use, and the requirements contained in paragraph (e) below
are met. This section does not prohibit the operator from providing the child restraint
system, or consistent with safe operating practices, determining the most appropriate
passenger seat location for the child restraint system.
(e) Notwithstanding any other requirements of this Part, a child may occupy an approved
child restraint system furnished by the operator or one of the persons described in sub-
paragraph (1) below, provided:
(1) The child is accompanied by the child’s parent or guardian to attend to the safety
of the child during the flight.
(2) The operator complies with the following requirements:
(i) The restraint system must be properly secured to an approved forward facing
seat or berth.
(ii) The child must be properly secured in the restraint system and must not exceed
the specified weight limit for the restraint system; and
(iii) The restraint system must bear the appropriate label(s).
8.9.1.4 PASSENGER BRIEFING

(a) The PIC shall ensure that crew members and passengers are made familiar, by means
of an oral briefing or by other means, with the location and use of the following items:
(1) Seat belts or harnesses, as appropriate;
(2) Emergency exits;
(3) Life jackets, if carriage of life jackets is prescribed;
(4) Oxygen dispensing equipment, if provision of oxygen for the passengers is
prescribed; and
(5) Other emergency equipment provided for individual use, including passenger
emergency briefing cards.
(b) The PIC shall ensure that all persons on board are aware of the locations and general
manner of use of the principal emergency equipment carried for collective use.
Note: For commercial air transport operations, the briefing shall contain all subjects
approved /by the Authority for the specific operations conducted as included in the
pertinent Operations Manual.
been conducted prior to take-off.
(c) The PIC shall ensure that, during take-off and landing and whenever by reason of
turbulence or any emergency occurring during flight, the precaution is considered
necessary, all passengers aboard the aircraft shall be secured in their seats by means
of the seat belts or harnesses provided.

8.9-2
PCAR PART 8
been conducted.
8.9.1.5 IN-FLIGHT EMERGENCY INSTRUCTION

(a) In an emergency during flight, the PIC shall ensure that all persons on board are
instructed in such emergency action as may be appropriate to the circumstances.
been conducted.
8.9.1.6 PASSENGER OXYGEN: MINIMUM SUPPLY AND USE

(a) The PIC shall ensure that breathing oxygen and masks are available to passengers in
sufficient quantities for all flights at such altitudes where a lack of oxygen might
harmfully affect passengers.
(b) The PIC shall ensure that the minimum supply of oxygen prescribed by the Authority
is on board the aircraft.
Note: The requirements for oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus are prescribed
in Part 7.
(c) The PIC shall require all passengers to use oxygen continuously at cabin pressure
altitudes above 13,000 feet.
8.9.1.7 ALCOHOL OR DRUGS

(a) No person may permit the boarding or serving of any person who appears to be
intoxicated or who demonstrates, by manner or physical indications, that that person
is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care).
8.9.1.8 RESTRICTION ON SMOKING ON BOARD AIRCRAFT

(a) No operator may permit smoking nor may any person smoke on board any part of an
aircraft involved in scheduled and non-scheduled international or domestic flights.
8.9.2 COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT PASSENGER CARRYING OPERATIONS

8.9.2.1 PASSENGER COMPLIANCE WITH INSTRUCTIONS
(a) Each passenger on a commercial air transport flight shall comply with instructions
given by a crew member in compliance with this section.
8.9.2.2 DENIAL OF TRANSPORTATION

(a) An Operator may deny transportation because a passenger
(1) Refuses to comply with the instructions regarding exit seating restrictions
prescribed by the Authority; or
(2) Has a handicap that can be physically accommodated only by an exit row seat.

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PCAR PART 8
8.9.2.3 CARRIAGE OF PERSONS WITHOUT COMPLIANCE WITH THESE

PASSENGER CARRYING REQUIREMENTS
(a) The passenger-carrying requirements of paragraph (b) do not apply when carrying
(1) A crew member not required for the flight;
(2) A representative of the Authority on official duty;
(3) A person necessary to the safety or security of cargo or animals; or
(4) Any person authorized by the Operator's Operation Manual procedures, as
(b) No person may be carried without compliance to the passenger carrying requirements
unless
(1) There is an approved seat with an approved seat belt for that person;
(2) That seat is located so that the occupant is not in any position to interfere with the
flight crew members performing their duties;
(3) There is unobstructed access from their seat to the flight deck or a regular or
emergency exit;
(4) There is a means for notifying that person when smoking is prohibited and when
seat belts shall be fastened; and
(5) That person has been orally briefed by a crew member on the use of emergency
equipment and exits.
8.9.2.4 CABIN CREW MEMBERS AT DUTY STATIONS

(a) During taxi, cabin crew members shall remain at their duty stations with safety belts
and shoulder harness fastened except to perform duties related to the safety of the
aircraft and its occupants.
(b) Each cabin crew member assigned to emergency evacuation duties shall occupy a
seat provided in accordance with Subpart 7.9.1 during take-off and landing and
whenever the PIC so directs, with seat belt or, when provided, safety harness fastened.
(c) During take-off and landing, cabin crew members shall be located as near as
practicable to required floor level exits and shall be uniformly distributed throughout
the aircraft to provide the most effective egress of passengers in event of an
emergency evacuation.
(d) When passengers are on board a parked aircraft, cabin crew members (or another
person qualified in emergency evacuation procedures for the aircraft) will be placed in
the following manner:
(1) If only one qualified person is required, that person shall be located in accordance
with the Operator's Operations Manual procedures.
(2) If more than one qualified person is required, those persons shall be spaced
throughout the cabin to provide the most effective assistance for the evacuation in
case of an emergency.

8.9-4
PCAR PART 8
8.9.2.5 EVACUATION CAPABILITY

(a) The PIC, SCC and other person assigned by the Operator shall ensure that, when
passengers are on board the aircraft prior to movement on the surface, at least one
floor-level exit provides for egress of passengers through normal or emergency means.
8.9.2.6 ARMING OF AUTOMATIC EMERGENCY EXITS

(a) No person may cause an airplane carrying passengers to be moved on the surface,
take-off or land unless each automatically deployable emergency evacuation assisting
means installed on the aircraft is ready for evacuation.
8.9.2.7 ACCESSIBILITY OF EMERGENCY EXITS AND EQUIPMENT

(a) No person may allow carry-on baggage or other items to block access to the
emergency exits when the aircraft is moving on the surface, during take-off or landing,
or while passengers remain on board.
8.9.2.8 STOPS WHERE PASSENGERS REMAIN ON BOARD

(a) At stops where passengers remain on board the aircraft, the PIC, the co-pilot, or both
shall ensure that
(1) All engines are shut down;
(2) At least one floor level exit remains open to provide for the deplaning of
passengers; and
(3) There is at least one person immediately available who is qualified in the
emergency evacuation of the aircraft and who has been identified to the
passengers on board as responsible for the passenger safety.
(b) If Refueling with passengers on board, the PIC or a designated company
representative shall ensure that the operator's Operations Manual procedures are
followed.
8.9.2.9 PASSENGERS LOADING AND UNLOADING

(a) No person may allow passenger loading or unloading of a propeller driven aircraft
unless all engines are shut down, unless the aircraft is using a passenger jet-way to
load and unload.
8.9.2.10 CARRIAGE OF PERSONS WITH REDUCED MOBILITY

(a) No person may allow a person of reduced mobility to occupy seats where their
presence could
(1) Impede the crew in their duties,
(2) Obstruct access to emergency equipment; or
(3) Impede the emergency evacuation of the aircraft.

8.9-5
PCAR PART 8
8.9.2.11 EXIT ROW SEATING

(a) No operator shall allow a passenger to sit in an emergency exit row if the PIC or SCC
determines that it is likely that the passenger would be unable to understand and
perform the functions necessary to open an exit and to exit rapidly.
(b) No cabin crew member may seat a person in a passenger exit seat if it is likely that the
person would be unable to perform one or more of the applicable functions listed
below:
(1) The person lacks sufficient mobility, strength, or dexterity in both arms and hands,
and both legs:
(i) To reach upward, sideways, and downward to the location of emergency exit
and exit-slide operating mechanisms;
(ii) To grasp and push, pull, turn, or otherwise manipulate those mechanisms;
(iii) To push, shove, pull, or otherwise open emergency exits;
(iv) To lift out, hold, deposit on nearby seats, or maneuver over the seatbacks to
the next row objects the size and mass of over-wing window exit doors;
(v) To remove obstructions of size and mass similar to over-wing exit doors;
(vi) To reach the emergency exit expeditiously;
(vii) To maintain balance while removing obstructions;
(viii) To exit expeditiously;
(ix) To stabilize an escape slide after deployment; or
(x) To assist others in getting off an escape slide.
(2) The person is less than 15 years of age or lacks the capacity to perform one or
more of the applicable functions listed above without the assistance of an adult
companion, parent, or other relative.
(3) The person lacks the ability to read and understand instructions required by this
section and related to emergency evacuation provided by the AOC holder in printed
or graphic form or the ability to understand oral crew commands.
(4) The person lacks sufficient visual capacity to perform one or more of the above
functions without the assistance of visual aids beyond contact lenses or
eyeglasses.
(5) The person lacks sufficient aural capacity to hear and understand instructions
shouted by cabin crew members, without assistance beyond a hearing aid.
(6) The person lacks the ability to adequately impart information orally to other
passengers.
(7) The person has a condition or responsibilities, such as caring for small children,
that might prevent the person from performing one or more of the functions listed
above; or a condition that might cause the person harm if he or she performs one
or more of the functions listed above.
(c) Determinations as to the suitability of each person permitted to occupy an exit seat
shall be made by the cabin crewmembers or other persons designated in the AOC
holder's Operations Manual.
(d) In the event a cabin crewmember determines that a passenger assigned to an exit
seat would be unable to perform the emergency exit functions, or if a passenger

8.9-6
PCAR PART 8
requests a non-exit seat, the cabin crew member shall expeditiously relocate the
passenger to a non-exit seat.
(e) In the event of full booking in the non-exit seats, and if necessary to accommodate a
passenger being relocated from an exit seat, the cabin crew member shall move a
passenger who is willing and able to assume the evacuation functions, to an exit seat.
(f) Each AOC ticket agent shall, before boarding, assign seats consistent with the
passenger selection criteria and the emergency exit functions, to the maximum extent
feasible.
(g) Each AOC ticket agent shall make available for inspection by the public at all
passenger loading gates and ticket counters at each aerodrome where the AOC holder
conducts passenger operations, written procedures established for making
determinations in regard to exit row seating.
(h) Each cabin crew member shall include in his or her passenger briefings a request that
a passenger identify himself or herself to allow reseating if he or she:
(1) Cannot meet the selection criteria;
(2) Has a non-discernible condition that will prevent him or her from performing the
evacuation functions;
(3) May suffer bodily harm as the result of performing one or more of those functions;
or
(4) Does not wish to perform emergency exit functions.
(i) Each cabin crew member shall include in his or her passenger briefings a reference to
the passenger information cards and the functions to be performed in an emergency
exit.
(j) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given by a crewmember or other
authorized employee of the AOC holder implementing exit seating restrictions.
(k) No PIC may allow taxi or pushback unless at least one required crewmember has
verified that all exit rows and escape paths are unobstructed and that no exit seat is
occupied by a person the crew member determines is likely to be unable to perform
the applicable evacuation functions.
(l) The procedures required by this standard will not become effective until final approval
is granted by the Authority. Approval will be based solely upon the safety aspects of
the AOC holder's procedures. In order to comply with this standard AOC holders shall:
(1) Establish procedures that address the requirements of this standard; and
(2) Submit their procedures for preliminary review and approval to the Authority.
8.9.2.12 PROHIBITION AGAINST CARRIAGE OF WEAPONS

(a) No person may, while on board an aircraft being operated in commercial air transport,
carry on or about their person a deadly or dangerous weapon, either concealed or
unconcealed.
(1) An AOC holder may permit a person to transport a weapon, in accordance with the
AOC holder’s approved security program, if the weapon is unloaded and both the
weapon and ammunition are securely stowed in a place inaccessible to any person
during the flight.

8.9-7
PCAR PART 8
(b) Officials or employees of the State, or crew members, who are authorized to carry
weapons on board the aircraft on domestic flights, shall do so in accordance with the
AOC holder’s approved security program.
(1) The PIC shall be notified by the AOC holder as to the number of armed persons
and the location of their seats.
(c) The persons identified in paragraph (b) above, may not carry weapons aboard an
international flight unless there is a prior agreement between Republic of the
Philippines and the State in which the operation will be either conducted or overflown.
8.9.2.13 OXYGEN FOR MEDICAL USE BY PASSENGERS

(a) An Operator may allow a passenger to carry and operate equipment for the storage,
generation or dispensing of medical oxygen only as prescribed by the Authority.
(b) No person may smoke, and no crew member may allow any person to smoke within
10 feet of oxygen storage and dispensing equipment carried for the medical use of a
passenger.
(c) No crew member may allow any person to connect or disconnect oxygen dispensing
equipment to or from an oxygen cylinder while any other passenger is aboard the
aircraft.
8.9.2.14 CARRY-ON BAGGAGE

(a) No person may allow the boarding of carry-on baggage in to the passenger cabin
unless it is adequately and securely stowed in accordance with the operator's
approved Operations Manual procedures.
(b) No person may allow aircraft passenger entry doors to be closed in preparation for taxi
or pushback unless at least one required crew member has verified that each article
of baggage has been properly stowed in overhead racks with approved restraining
devices or doors or in approved locations aft of the bulkhead.
(c) No person may allow carry-on baggage to be stowed in a location that would cause
that location to be loaded beyond its maximum placard mass limitation.
Note: The stowage locations shall be capable of restraining the articles in crash
impacts severe enough to induce the ultimate inertia forces specified in the emergency
landing conditions under which the aircraft was type-certified.
8.9.2.15 CARRIAGE OF CARGO IN PASSENGER COMPARTMENTS

(a) No person may allow the carriage of cargo in the passenger compartment of an
airplane except as prescribed by the Authority.
(b) Cargo may be carried anywhere in the passenger compartment if it is carried in an
approved cargo bin that meets the following requirements:
(1) The bin must withstand the load factors and emergency landing conditions
applicable to the passenger seats of the airplane in which the bin is installed,
multiplied by a factor of 1.15, using the combined mass of the bin and the maximum
mass of cargo that may be carried in the bin.

8.9-8
PCAR PART 8
(2) The maximum mass of cargo that the bin is approved to carry and any instructions
necessary to insure proper mass distribution within the bin must be conspicuously
marked on the bin.
(3) The bin may not impose any load on the floor or other structure of the airplane that
exceeds the load limitations of that structure.
(4) The bin must be attached to the seat tracks or to the floor structure of the airplane,
and its attachment must withstand the load factors and emergency landing
conditions applicable to the passenger seats of the airplane in which the bin is
installed, multiplied by either the factor 1.15 or the seat attachment factor specified
for the airplane, whichever is greater, using the combined mass of the bin and the
maximum mass of cargo that may be carried in the bin.
(5) The bin may not be installed in a position that restricts access to or use of any
required emergency exit, or of the aisle in the passenger compartment.
(6) The bin must be fully enclosed and made of material that is at least flame resistant.
(7) Suitable safeguards must be provided within the bin to prevent the cargo from
shifting under emergency landing conditions.
(8) The bin may not be installed in a position that obscures any passenger's view of
the "seat belt" sign, "no smoking" sign, or any required exit sign, unless an auxiliary
sign or other approved means for proper notification of the passenger is provided.
(c) Cargo, including carry-on baggage, must not be stowed in toilets.
(d) Cargo, including carry-on baggage must not be stowed against bulkheads or dividers
in passenger compartments that are incapable of restraining articles against
movement forwards, sideways or upwards and unless the bulkheads or dividers carry
a placard specifying the greatest mass that may be placed there, provided that:
(1) It is properly secured by a safety belt or other tie-down having enough strength to
eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally anticipated flight and ground
conditions.
(2) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants.
(3) It does not impose any load on seats or in the floor structure that exceeds the load
limitation for those components.
(4) It is not located in a position that obstructs the access to, or use of, any required
emergency or regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the crew and the
passenger compartment, or is located in a position that obscures any passenger's
view of the "seat belt" sign, "no smoking" sign or placard, or any required exit sign,
unless an auxiliary sign or other approved means for proper notification of the
passengers is provided.
(e) Cargo, including carry-on baggage, may be carried anywhere in the passenger
compartment of a small aircraft if it is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin, or
compartment installed in or on the aircraft, if it is secured by an approved means, or if
it is carried in accordance with each of the following:
(1) For cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt or other tie-down having enough
strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally anticipated flight
and ground conditions, or for carry-on baggage, it is restrained so as to prevent its
movement during air turbulence.
(2) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants.

8.9-9
PCAR PART 8
(3) It does not impose any load on seats or in the floor structure that exceeds the load
limitation for those components.
(4) It is not located in a position that obstructs the access to, or use of, any required
emergency or regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the crew and the
passenger compartment, or is located in a position that obscures any passenger's
view of the "seat belt" sign, "no smoking" sign or placard, or any required exit sign,
unless an auxiliary sign or other approved means for proper notification of the
passengers is provided.
(5) It is not carried directly above seated occupants.
(6) It is stowed in compliance with these restrictions during takeoff and landing.
(7) For cargo-only operations, if the cargo is loaded so that at least one emergency or
regular exit is available to provide all occupants of the aircraft a means of
unobstructed exit from the airplane if an emergency occurs.
8.9.2.16 PASSENGER INFORMATION SIGNS

(a) The PIC shall turn on required passenger information signs during any movement on
the surface, for each take-off and each landing, and when otherwise considered to be
necessary.
8.9.2.17 REQUIRED PASSENGER BRIEFINGS

(a) No person may commence a take-off unless the passengers are briefed prior to take-
off in accordance with the Operator's Operation Manual procedures on
(1) Smoking limitations and prohibitions;
(2) Emergency exit location and use;
(3) Use of safety belts;
(4) Emergency floatation means location and use;
(5) Fire extinguisher location and operation;
(6) Placement of seat backs;
(7) If flight is above 10,000 feet MSL, the normal and emergency use of oxygen; and
(8) The passenger briefing card.
(b) Immediately before or immediately after turning the seat belt sign off, the PIC or co-
pilot shall ensure that the passengers are briefed to keep their seat belts fastened while
seated, even when the seat belt sign is off.
(c) Before each take-off, the PIC or co-pilot shall ensure that any persons of reduced
mobility are personally briefed on
(1) The route to the most appropriate exit; and
(2) The time to begin moving to the exit in event of an emergency.
8.9.2.18 PASSENGER BRIEFING: EXTENDED OVERWATER OPERATIONS

(a) No person may commence extended over-water operations unless all passengers
have been orally briefed on the location and operations of life preservers, life-rafts and

8.9-10
PCAR PART 8
other flotation means, including a demonstration of the method of donning and inflating
a life preserver.
8.9.2.19 PASSENGER SEAT BELTS

(a) Each passenger occupying a seat or berth shall fasten his or her safety belt and keep
it fastened while the "Fasten Seat Belt" sign is lighted or, in aircraft not equipped with
such a sign, whenever instructed by the PIC.
(b) No passenger safety belt may be used by more than one occupant during take-off and
landing.
(c) At each unoccupied seat, the safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed, shall be
secured so as not to interfere with crew members in the performance of their duties or
with the rapid egress of occupants in an emergency.
Note: A person who has not reached his or her second birthday may be held by an
adult who is occupying a seat or berth.
Note: A berth, such as a multiple lounge or divan seat, may be occupied by two persons
provided it is equipped with an approved safety belt for each person and is used during
en route flight only.
8.9.2.20 PASSENGER SEAT BACKS

(a) No PIC or co-pilot may allow the take-off or landing of an aircraft unless each
passenger seat back is in the upright position.
Note: Exceptions may only be made in accordance with procedures in the Operator's
Operations Manual provided the seat back does not obstruct any passenger's access
to the aisle or to any emergency exit.
8.9.2.21 STOWAGE OF FOOD, BEVERAGE AND PASSENGER SERVICE

(a) No PIC or SCC may allow the movement of an aircraft on the surface, take-off or land
(1) When any food, beverage or tableware furnished by the Operator is located at any
passenger seat; and
(2) Unless each food and beverage tray and seat back tray table is in the stowed
position.
8.9.2.22 SECURING OF ITEMS OF MASS IN PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

(a) No person may allow the take-off or landing of an aircraft unless each item of mass in
the passenger cabin is properly secured to prevent it from becoming a hazard during
taxi, take-off and landing and during turbulent weather conditions.
(b) No person may allow an aircraft to move on the surface, take-off or land unless each
passenger serving cart is secured in its stowed position.

8.9-11
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8.9-12
PCAR PART 8
8.10 CREW MEMBER AND FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICER

QUALIFICATIONS: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT
8.10.1.1 LIMITATION OF PRIVILEGES OF PILOTS WHO HAVE ATTAINED THEIR
60TH BIRTHDAY AND CURTAILMENT OF PRIVILEGES OF PILOTS WHO
HAVE ATTAINED THEIR 65TH AND 67TH BIRTHDAY
(a) No person may serve nor may any AOC holder use a person as a required PIC in
single pilot operations on aircraft engaged in commercial air transport operations if that
person has reached his or her 60th birthday.
(b) For aircraft engaged in domestic commercial air transport operations requiring more
than one pilot as flight crew members, the AOC holder may use one pilot up to age
67 provided that the other pilot is less than age 60.
(c) For aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations requiring
more than one pilot as flight crew members, the AOC may use one pilot up to 65
provided that the other pilot is less than age 60.
(d) Check airmen who have reached their 65th birthday or who do not hold an appropriate
medical certificate may continue their check airman functions, but may not serve as or
occupy the position of a required pilot flight crew member on an airplane engaged in
commercial air transport operations.
8.10.1.2 USE OF FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES

(a) Each flight simulation training device that is used for flight crew member qualification
shall:
(1) Be specifically approved by the Authority for:
(i) The AOC holder;
(ii) The type aircraft, including type variations, for which the training or check is
being conducted; and
(iii) The particular maneuver, procedure, or crewmember function involved.
(2) Maintain the performance, functional, and other characteristics that are required
for approval.
(3) Be modified to conform with any modification to the airplane being simulated that
results in changes to performance, functional, or other characteristics required for
approval.
(4) Be given a daily functional pre-flight check before use.
(5) Have a daily discrepancy log completed by the appropriate instructor or check
airman at the end of each, training or check flight.
(b) The simulation device shall have the same technology for the basic flight instruments
(attitude indicator, airspeed, altimeter, and heading reference) as those of the aircraft
used by the operator.
(1) Operators that have electronic/glass displays shall use simulators that have
electronic/glass displays.
(2) Operators that have standard instruments shall use simulators that have standard
instruments.
Amendment 07 08 August 2014

8.10-1
PCAR PART 8
8.10.1.3 APPROVAL OF FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE FOR CREDIT IN TRAINING

AND CHECKING
(a) No AOC holder may use a flight simulation training device for training or checking
unless that simulator has been specifically approved for the AOC holder in writing by
the Authority.
(b) No AOC holder may use a simulator for credit in training, recency and checking other
than that specified in the Authority’s approval.
8.10.1.4 LICENSE REQUIREMENTS FOR PIC

(a) No pilot may act as PIC of a of an aircraft, certificated for operation with more than one
pilot, in commercial air transportation operations unless he or she holds an Airline
Transport Pilot License with applicable category, class and type rating for that aircraft.
(b) No pilot may act as PIC of an aircraft, certificated for operation for one pilot, in
commercial air transportation operations unless he or she holds a Commercial Pilot
License or an Airline Transport Pilot License with applicable category, class and type
rating for that aircraft.
(c) If instrument privileges are to be exercised, the PIC shall hold an Instrument Rating.
8.10.1.5 LICENSE REQUIREMENTS FOR CO-PILOT AND CRUISE RELIEF PILOT

(a) Co-pilot: No pilot may act as co-pilot of an aircraft in commercial air transport
operations unless he or she holds either a Commercial Pilot License/IR or an Airline
Transport Pilot License, each with applicable category, class and type ratings for the
aircraft operated, and has completed all training to serve as CP.
(b) Cruise relief pilot: No pilot may act as a cruise relief pilot of an aircraft in commercial
air transport operations unless he or she:
(1) holds an ATPL (for relieving the PIC) with applicable category, class and type
ratings for the aircraft operated, and:
(i) has completed all training to serve as PIC with the exception of initial operating
experience; or
(ii) has completed required training to serve as PIC above FL200, with the
exception of initial operating experience, and is fully qualified to serve as CP;
or
(2) holds at least a CPL/IR (for relieving the CP only) with applicable category, class
and type ratings for the aircraft operated, and has completed required training to
serve as co-pilot above FL200.
8.10.1.6 FE LICENSE REQUIREMENTS

(a) No person may act as the flight engineer of an aircraft unless he or she holds a flight
engineer license with the appropriate class rating.
(b) The Operator shall ensure that, on all flights requiring a flight engineer crew member,
there is assigned at least one other flight crew member qualified to perform the FE
duties in the event the FE becomes incapacitated.

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PCAR PART 8
8.10.1.7 PERSONS QUALIFIED TO FLIGHT RELEASE

(a) No person may act as a flight operations officer in releasing a scheduled passenger-
carrying commercial air transport operation unless that person:
(1) Holds a flight operations officer license or an ATP license; and
(2) Is currently qualified with the Operator for the operation and type of aircraft used.
(b) When the Authority requires that a flight operations officer/flight dispatcher, employed
in conjunction with an approved method of control and supervision of flight operations,
be licensed, that flight operations officer/flight dispatcher shall be licensed in
accordance with the provisions of Part 2 of these Regulations.
(c) In accepting proof of qualifications other than the option of holding of a flight operations
officer/flight dispatcher license, the Authority, in accordance with the approved method
of control and supervision of flight operations, shall require that, as a minimum, such
persons meet the requirements specified in Part 2 of these Regulations for the flight
operations officer/flight dispatcher license.
(d) A flight operations officer/flight dispatcher shall not be assigned to duty unless that
person has:
(1) satisfactorily completed an operator-specific training course that addresses all the
specific components of its approved method of control and supervision of flight
operations specified in Subpart 9.3.1.23 and IS: 9.3.1.23;
(2) made within the preceding 12 months, at least a one-way qualification flight in the
flight crew compartment of an airplane over any area for which that individual is
authorized to exercise flight supervision. The flight should include landings at as
many airports as practicable;
(3) demonstrated to the operator a knowledge of:
(i) the contents of the operations manual described in Subpart 9.3.1.2;
(ii) the radio equipment in the airplanes used; and
(iii) the navigation equipment in the airplanes used;
(4) demonstrated to the operator a knowledge of the following details concerning
operations for which the officer is responsible and areas in which that individual is
authorized to exercise flight supervision:
(i) the seasonal meteorological conditions and the sources of meteorological
information;
(ii) the effects of meteorological conditions on radio reception in the airplanes
used;
(iii) the peculiarities and limitations of each navigation system which is used by the
operation; and
(iv) the airplane loading instructions;
(5) demonstrated to the operator knowledge and skills related to human performance
relevant to dispatch duties; and
(6) demonstrated to the operator the ability to perform the duties specified in Subpart
8.12.1.4.
(e) A flight operations officer/flight dispatcher assigned to duty shall maintain complete
familiarization with all features of the operation which are pertinent to such duties,
including knowledge and skills related to human performance.

8.10-3
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(f) A flight operations officer/flight dispatcher shall not be assigned to duty after 12
consecutive months of absence from such duty, unless the provisions of paragraph (c)
are met.
8.10.1.8 TRAINING PROGRAMS

8.10.1.8.1 APPLICABILITY AND TERMS USED
(a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements applicable to each operator for establishing
and maintaining a training program for crew members, flight dispatchers, and other
operations personnel, and for the approval and use of training devices in the conduct
of the program.
(b) For the purpose of this Subpart, aircraft groups are as follows-
(1) Group I: Propeller driven, including-
(i) Reciprocating powered; and
(ii) Turbo-propeller powered.
(2) Group II: Turbojet powered.
(c) For the purpose of this Subpart, the following terms and definitions apply-
(1) Initial training. The training required for:
(i) Pilots and flight engineers, who have not previously qualified on a particular
type of aircraft or who have not served in the same capacity on a specific type
of aircraft for the period of time as follows:
(A) Longer than 12 months from the expiration date of any required proficiency
check in that aircraft for pilots and flight engineers having equal to or fewer
than 5,000 hours flight time;
(B) Longer than 18 months from the expiration date of any required proficiency
check in that aircraft for pilots and flight engineers having greater than
5,000 but fewer than 10,000 hours flight time; or
(C) Longer than 24 months from the expiration date of any required proficiency
check in that aircraft for pilots and flight engineers having equal to or greater
than 10,000 hours flight time;
Note: Pilot flight time excludes time acquired in any other crew position.
(ii) Cabin crew members, who have not previously qualified on a particular type of
aircraft or have not served on a specific type of aircraft for longer than 24
months from the date of the last flight; and
(iii) Flight dispatchers, who have not qualified and dispatched another aircraft of
that group or have not served in the same capacity for longer than 24 months
from the date of the last period of duty.
(2) Re-qualification training. The training required for crewmembers and dispatchers
who have exceeded any recurrent training period required by this chapter but have
not exceeded the periods of time specified in sub-paragraph (1)(i) to (iii) of this
section.
(3) Upgrade training. The training required for crew members who have qualified and
served as CP or flight engineer on a particular aircraft type, before they serve as
PIC or CP, as applicable, on that aircraft type. Also, the training required for a cabin

8.10-4
PCAR PART 8
crew member before serving in a more senior capacity on board any aircraft.
(4) Differences training. The training required for crew members and flight dispatchers
who have qualified and served on a particular type aircraft, when the Authority finds
differences training is necessary before a crew member serves in the same
capacity on a particular variation of that aircraft.
(5) Check Airman. A check airman is a person authorized as a CAA-designated check
pilot, check flight engineer, or check flight navigator who is permitted to conduct
flight checks or instruction on aircraft subject to the provisions specified in his/her
authorization.
(6) Cross Crew Qualification (CCQ) training. The training required for flight crew
members qualifying on another type of aircraft type or variant with the same or
essentially the same cockpit configuration. Due to aircraft type commonality and
by defining the differences between the base and variant aircraft, some of these
training courses are shorter than a full transition syllabus.
(7) Cross cockpit training. The training required for crewmembers to occupy a pilot
seat they do not normally occupy when engaged in flying operations.
(8) Downgrade training. The training required for flight crew members who have
qualified and serve as PIC or CP on a particular aircraft type, before they may
serve as CP or flight engineer, respectively, on that aircraft type.
(9) Mixed Fleet Flying. The operation of a base aircraft and variant(s) of the same type,
common type, related type or a different type by one or more flight crew members,
between training or checking events.
(i) Base aircraft: An operator designated aircraft or group of aircraft used as a
reference to compare differences with other aircraft within an operator’s fleet.
(ii) Variant: An aircraft or group of aircraft with the same characteristics that have
pertinent differences from the base aircraft. Pertinent differences are those
which require different or additional flight crew knowledge, skills, and/or abilities
that affect flight safety.
(10) Program hours. The hours of training prescribed in this chapter which may be
reduced by the Assistant Secretary upon a showing by the certificate holder that
circumstances justify a lesser amount.
(11) Rater or evaluator. A cabin crew member in the employ of an air operator
authorized by that operator to perform training and/or checks on cabin crew
members.
(12) In-flight. Refers to maneuvers, procedures, or functions that must be conducted
in the aircraft.
8.10.1.8.2 MIXED FLEET FLYING AND CROSS-CREW QUALIFICATION TRAINING

(a) Mixed Fleet Flying (MFF) Operation.
(1) An operator must have a cross crew qualification (CCQ) or a similar training
program approved by the Authority which must contain specific training
requirements to ensure crew members are properly trained, remain current,
proficient and qualified in all variants and/or types of aircraft flown before
commencing the MFF operation.
(2) The maximum number of aircraft types on which a pilot may qualify is two.

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PCAR PART 8
(b) Cross crew qualification (CCQ) training.

(1) Approval of cross crew qualification training is subject to the following conditions:
(i) Following completion of the initial training and checking on both aircraft,
subsequent training and checking shall be alternated between the two aircraft;
(ii) Approval of a CCQ training program shall be based on a combination of cockpit
similarities, the size/weight of the aircraft and the engine type and configuration
of the aircraft;
(iii) Recent experience as required by Subpart 8.4.1.9 will be satisfied if the take-
offs and landings total 3 on either of the aircraft or a combination of the two
aircraft; and
(iv) A minimum of 3 months and 150 hours experience on the base aircraft is
required before the crewmember commences a qualification course on the
variant aircraft.
(2) Cross crew qualification training for crew members must consist of at least the
following elements:
(i) Designation for each pilot of the initial aircraft trained and qualified to fly on
(base aircraft) and the aircraft on which he is to be qualified (variant aircraft);
(ii) Initial ground and flight training programs for the base aircraft and subsequent
qualification on the variant aircraft;
(iii) Recurrent ground and flight training programs for both aircraft; and
(iv) Upgrade ground and flight training programs for both aircraft.
8.10.1.8.3 FLIGHT CREW MEMBER TRAINING PROGRAMS

An operator shall establish and maintain a ground and flight training program, approved
by the Authority, which ensures that all flight crew members are adequately trained to
perform their assigned duties. The training program shall:
(a) Include ground and flight training facilities and properly qualified instructors as
determined by the Authority;
(b) Consist of ground and flight training in the type(s) of aircraft on which the flight crew
member serves;
(c) Include proper flight crew coordination and training in all types of emergency and
abnormal situations or procedures caused by power plant, (for helicopters:
transmission and rotor), airframe or systems malfunctions, fire or other abnormalities,
and, for airplanes, in upset prevention and recovery.
(d) Include training in knowledge and skills related to visual and instrument flight
procedures for the intended area of operation, human performance including threat
and error management and in the transport of dangerous goods and, where applicable,
procedures specific to environment in which the aircraft is to be operated;
(e) Ensure that all flight crew members know the functions for which they are responsible
and the relation of these functions to the functions of other crew members, particularly
in regard to abnormal or emergency procedures; and
(f) Be given on a recurrent basis, as determined by the Authority and shall include an
assessment of competence.

8.10-6
PCAR PART 8
8.10.1.9 COMPANY PROCEDURES INDOCTRINATION

(a) No person may serve nor may any Operator use a person as a crew member or flight
operations officer/flight dispatcher unless that person has completed the company
procedures indoctrination curriculum approved by the Authority, which shall include a
complete review of Operations Manual procedures pertinent to the crew member or
flight operation officer's duties and responsibilities.
(b) The Operator should provide a minimum of 40 program hours of instructions for
company procedures indoctrination training unless a reduction is determined
appropriate by the Authority.
(c) The knowledge area topics to be covered are contained in IS: 8.10.1.9.
8.10.1.10 INITIAL DANGEROUS GOODS TRAINING

(a) No person may serve nor may any Operator use a person involved in the preparation
or transport of dangerous goods or as a crew member unless he or she has completed
the appropriate initial dangerous goods curriculum approved by the Authority.
(b) Specific course curriculum requirements are contained in IS: 8.10.1.10.
8.10.1.11 INITIAL SECURITY TRAINING

(a) No person may serve nor may any Operator use operational personnel unless they
have completed the initial security curriculum approved by the Authority.
8.10.1.12 INITIAL CREW RESOURCE MANAGEMENT

(a) No person may serve nor may any Operator use a person as a flight operations officer
or crew member unless that person has completed the initial CRM curriculum approved
by the Authority.
(b) Course curriculum requirements are contained in IS: 8.10.1.12.
8.10.1.13 INITIAL EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT DRILLS

(a) No person may serve nor may any Operator use a person as a crew member unless
that person has completed the appropriate initial emergency equipment curriculum and
drills for the crew member position approved by the Authority for the emergency
equipment available on the aircraft to be operated.
(b) Course curriculum requirements are contained in IS: 8.10.1.13.
8.10.1.14 INITIAL AIRCRAFT GROUND TRAINING

(a) (1) No person may serve nor may any operator use a person as a crew member or
flight operations officer/flight dispatcher unless he or she has completed the initial
ground training approved by the Authority for the aircraft type.
(2) An operator shall establish and maintain a training program, approved by the
Authority, to be completed by all persons before being assigned as a crew member.
Each crew member and flight operations officer/flight dispatcher shall complete a
recurrent training program annually.

8.10-7
PCAR PART 8
(b) Initial aircraft ground training for flight crew members shall include the pertinent
portions of the operations manuals relating to aircraft-specific performance, mass and
balance, operational policies, systems, limitations, normal, abnormal and emergency
procedures on the aircraft type to be used. Specific course curriculum requirements
for flight crew members are contained in IS: 8.10.1.14(b).
Note: The Operator may have separate initial aircraft ground training curricula of
varying lengths and subject emphasis which recognize the experience levels of flight
crew members approved by the Authority.
(c) (1) For cabin crew members, initial and re-qualification aircraft ground training shall
include the pertinent portions of the operations manuals relating to aircraft-specific
configuration, equipment, normal and emergency procedures for the aircraft types
within the fleet. Specific course curriculum requirements, for cabin crew members,
are contained in IS: 8.10.1.14(c1).
(2) For check cabin crew members, initial and re-qualification ground training shall
include checking of cabin crew members on the pertinent portions of the operations
manuals relating to aircraft-specific configuration, equipment, normal and
emergency procedures for the aircraft types within the fleet. Specific course
curriculum requirements for check cabin crew member are contained in IS:
8.10.1.14(c2).
(d) For flight operations officers/flight dispatchers, aircraft initial ground training shall
include the pertinent portions of the operations manuals relating to aircraft-specific
flight preparation procedures, performance, mass and balance, systems, limitations for
the aircraft types within the fleet. Specific course curriculum requirements, for flight
operations officers/flight dispatchers, are contained in IS: 8.10.1.14(d).
8.10.1.15 INITIAL AIRCRAFT FLIGHT TRAINING

(a) No person may serve nor may any operator use a person as a flight crew member
unless he or she has completed the initial flight training approved by the Authority for
the aircraft type.
(b) Initial flight training shall focus on the maneuvering and safe operation of the aircraft
in accordance with operator's normal, abnormal and emergency procedures and, for
airplanes, include upset prevention training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX C.
(c) An operator may have separate initial flight training curricula which recognize the
experience levels of flight crew members approved by the Authority.
(d) Specific flight curriculum requirements are contained in IS: 8.10.1.15.
8.10.1.16 INITIAL SPECIALIZED OPERATIONS TRAINING

(a) No person may serve nor may any Operator use a person as a flight crew member
unless he or she has completed the appropriate initial specialized operations training
curriculum approved by the Authority.
(b) Specialized operations for which initial training curricula shall be developed include
(1) Low minimums operations. including low visibility take-offs and Category II and III
operations;
(2) Extended range operations;
(3) Specialized navigation;
(4) PIC right seat qualification;

8.10-8
PCAR PART 8
(5) RVSM; and

(6) PBN/RNP.
(c) See IS: 8.10.1.16 for specific initial specialized operations training curriculum.
8.10.1.17 AIRCRAFT DIFFERENCES

(a) No person may serve nor may any Operator use a person as a flight operations
officer/flight dispatcher or crew member on an aircraft of a type for which a differences
curriculum is included in the Operator's approved training program, unless that person
has satisfactorily completed that curriculum, with respect to both the crew member
position and the particular variant of that aircraft.
(b) Differences training for crew members and flight operations officers/flight dispatchers
must consist of at least the following as applicable to their assigned duties and
responsibilities-
(1) Instruction in each appropriate subject or part thereof required for initial ground
training in the aircraft unless the Authority finds that particular subjects are not
necessary.
(2) Flight training in each appropriate maneuver or procedure required for initial flight
training in the aircraft unless the Authority finds that particular maneuvers or
procedures are not necessary.
(3) The number of program hours of ground and flight training determined by the
Authority to be necessary for the aircraft, the operation, and the crew member or
flight dispatcher involved.
(4) Differences training for all variations of a particular type aircraft may be included in
initial, re-qualification, upgrade, and recurrent training for the aircraft.
(c) See IS: 8.10.1.17 for general listing of subjects to be covered in aircraft differences
training.
Note: See ICAO Doc 9379, Manual of Procedures for the Establishment of a State’s
Personnel Licensing System, for guidance of a general nature on cross-crew
qualification, mixed-fleet flying and cross-credit. See ICAO Doc 9376, Preparation of
an Operations Manual, for guidance material to design flight crew training programs.
8.10.1.18 RESERVED.
8.10.1.19 INTRODUCTION OF NEW EQUIPMENT OR PROCEDURES
(a) No person may serve nor may any Operator use a person as a flight crew member
when that service would require expertise in the use of new equipment or procedures
for which a curriculum is included in the Operator's approved training program, unless
that person has satisfactorily completed that curriculum, with respect to both the crew
member position and the particular variant of that aircraft.
Note: See ICAO Doc 9379, Manual of Procedures for the Establishment of a State’s
Personnel Licensing System, for guidance of a general nature on cross-crew
qualification, mixed-fleet flying and cross-credit. See ICAO Doc 9376, Preparation of
an Operations Manual, for guidance material to design flight crew training programs.

8.10-9
PCAR PART 8
8.10.1.20 AIRCRAFT AND INSTRUMENT PROFICIENCY CHECKS

(a) No person may serve nor may any operator use a person as a pilot flight crew member
unless, that person has passed the proficiency check(s) as prescribed in paragraphs
(b) and (c) below in the make, and model aircraft on which their services are required.
(b) An operator shall ensure that piloting technique and the ability to execute emergency
procedures is checked in such a way as to demonstrate the pilot’s competence on
each type or variant of type of aircraft. Where the operation may be conducted under
IFR, an operator shall ensure that the pilot’s competence to comply with such rules is
demonstrated to either a check pilot of the operator or to a representative of the
Authority. A pilot may complete both these requirements simultaneously in a specific
aircraft type.
(c) Such checks shall be performed twice within any period of one (1) year. Any two (2)
such checks which are similar and which occur within a period of four (4) consecutive
months shall not alone satisfy this requirement.
(d) When an operator schedules flight crew on several variants of the same type of aircraft
or with similar characteristics in terms of operating procedures, upset prevention and
recovery, systems and handling, the Authority shall decide under which conditions the
requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) above for each variant or each type of aircraft
can be combined.
(e) See IS: 8.10.1.20 for specific operation and procedures pertaining to the proficiency
checks.
8.10.1.21 RE-ESTABLISHING RECENT EXPERIENCE: FLIGHT CREW

(a) Pilots:
(1) In addition to meeting all applicable training and checking requirements, a required
pilot flight crew member who, in the preceding 90 days has not made at least three
(3) take-offs and landings in the type aircraft in which that person is to serve, shall,
under the supervision of a check airman, re-establish recent experience as follows:
(i) Make at least three (3) take-offs and landings in the aircraft in which that person
is to serve or in a qualified simulator.
(ii) Make at least one (1) take-off with a simulated failure of the most critical power
unit, one landing from the minimum ILS authorized for the Operator, and one
(1) landing to a full stop.
(2) When using a simulator to accomplish any of the take-off and landing training
requirements necessary to re-establish recent experience, each required flight
crew member position shall be occupied by an appropriately qualified person and
the simulator shall be operated as if in a normal in-flight environment without use
of the repositioning features of the simulator.
(3) A check airman who observes the take-offs and landings of a pilot flight crew
member shall certify that the person being observed is proficient and qualified to
perform flight duty in operations and may require any additional maneuvers that
are determined necessary to make this certifying statement.
(b) Flight Engineers: A flight engineer who in the preceding 6 months has not flown 50
hours flight time with an Operator as flight engineer in the appropriate class of airplane
shall re-establish recent experience by taking a proficiency check.

8.10-10
PCAR PART 8
8.10.1.22 PAIRING OF LOW EXPERIENCE CREW MEMBERS

(a) If a CP has fewer than 100 hours of flight time in the type aircraft being flown in
commercial air transport, and the PIC is not an appropriately qualified check pilot, the
PIC shall make all takeoffs and landings in situations designated as critical by the
Authority in IS: 8.10.1.22.
(b) No PIC or CP may conduct operations for a type aircraft in commercial air transport
unless either pilot has at least 75 hours of line operating flight time, either as PIC or
CP.
(c) The Authority may, upon application by the operator, authorize an exemption from
number of hours from paragraph (b) by an appropriate amendment to the operations
specifications in any of the circumstances identified in IS: 8.10.1.22.
8.10.1.23 FLIGHT ENGINEER AND FLIGHT NAVIGATOR PROFICIENCY CHECKS

(a) No person may serve nor may any Operator use a person as a flight engineer or a
flight navigator on an aircraft unless within the preceding 12 calendar months he or
she has a proficiency check in accordance with the requirements prescribed by the
Authority for the skill test in Part 2.
(b) See IS: 8.10.1.21 for specific procedures used in proficiency checks.
8.10.1.24 RECENT EXPERIENCE, COMPETENCY CHECKS AND OPERATION ON

MORE THAN ONE TYPE OF AIRCRAFT: CABIN CREW MEMBERS
8.10.1.24.1 RECENT EXPERIENCE: CABIN CREW MEMBERS
(a) No operator may use any person nor may any person serve as a required cabin crew
member on a particular aircraft type unless within the preceding 12 calendar months
that person has flown as a crew member on that type of aircraft.
(b) Cabin crew members who are qualified and have served as a crew member on another
type aircraft may serve as a crew member on the aircraft for which recent experience
has lapsed upon undergoing a competence check on that type aircraft.
(c) A cabin crew member who has not flown in any aircraft in which he/she is qualified
within the preceding 6 calendar months must re-establish recent experience as follows:
(1) Undergo refresher training in any one aircraft of the type aircraft that he/she is to
serve on; And
(2) Satisfactorily complete a competence check on one of the types of aircraft flown.
8.10.1.24.2 COMPETENCY CHECKS: CABIN CREW MEMBERS

(a) No person may serve nor may any operator use a person as a required cabin crew
unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that person
passed in the flight competency check, prescribed by the Authority in IS: 8.10.1.24
performing the emergency and other duties appropriate to that person’s assignment.
A competence check is required:
(1) On each type of aircraft following completion of initial training;
(2) On at least one type of aircraft following completion of upgrade training;
(3) On each type of aircraft as part of re-qualification training;

8.10-11
PCAR PART 8
(4) Within the preceding 12 calendar months as part of recurrent training; and
(5) To be conducted in a cycle, covering each type of aircraft qualified on.
(b) Cabin Crew Competency Card: An AOC holder shall ensure the following:
(1) Each cabin crew is issued with a competency card, acceptable to the Authority;
(2) On completion of the competence check as described in paragraph (a) above, the
evaluator completes the competency card;
(3) Each cabin crew carries the competency card whenever he/she is on duty; and
(4) The cabin crew presents the competency card to a CAA Inspector, when asked for
inspection.
8.10.1.24.3 OPERATION ON MORE THAN ONE TYPE OF AIRCRAFT: CABIN CREW

MEMBERS
(a) An operator shall ensure that each cabin crew member does not operate on more than
four (4) aircraft types except that, with the approval of the Authority, the cabin crew
member may operate on five (5) aircraft types, provided that safety equipment and
emergency procedures for at least two of the types are similar.
(b) For the purpose of sub-paragraph (a) above, variants of an aircraft type are considered
to be different types if they are not similar in all the following aspects:
(1) Emergency exit operation;
(2) Location and type of safety equipment; and
(3) Emergency procedures.
(c) An operator shall ensure that a cabin crew member operating more than one type
complies with all the applicable requirements prescribed in this Subpart for each type
unless the Authority has approved the use of credit(s) related to the training, checking
and recent experience requirements.
8.10.1.25 COMPETENCY CHECKS: FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICERS

(a) No person may serve nor may any operator use a person as a flight operations officer
has passed the competency check, prescribed by the Authority, for the skill test in Part
2, performing the flight preparation and subsequent duties appropriate to that person’s
assignment.
(b) See IS: 8.10.1.25 for specific procedures used in flight operation officer competency
checks.
8.10.1.26 SUPERVISED LINE FLYING: PILOTS

(a) Each pilot initially qualifying as PIC shall complete a minimum of 10 flights performing
the duties of a PIC under the supervision of a check airman.
(b) Each PIC transitioning to a new aircraft type shall complete a minimum of 5 flights
performing the duties of a PIC under the supervision of a check airman.
(c) Each pilot qualifying for duties other than PIC shall complete a minimum of 5 flights
performing those duties under the supervision of a check airman.

8.10-12
PCAR PART 8
(d) During the time that a qualifying PIC is acquiring operating experience, a check pilot
who is also serving as the PIC shall occupy a pilot station.
(e) In the case of a transitioning PIC, the check pilot serving as PIC may occupy the
observer's seat if the transitioning pilot has made at least two take-offs and landings in
the type aircraft used, and has satisfactorily demonstrated to the check pilot that he is
qualified to perform the duties of a PIC for that type of aircraft.
8.10.1.27 SUPERVISED LINE FLYING: FLIGHT ENGINEERS

(a) Each person qualifying as a flight engineer for each aircraft class (piston-engine; turbo
propeller powered, or turbojet powered) shall perform those functions for a minimum
of five (5) flights under the supervision of a designated Flight Engineer
Examiner/Check Examiner.
8.10.1.28 SUPERVISED LINE EXPERIENCE: CABIN CREW MEMBERS

(a) Each person qualifying as a cabin crew member shall perform those functions on the
aircraft, for a minimum of two (2) flights that must include at least five hours flown,
under the supervision of a cabin crew supervisor before qualifying as a required crew
member.
(b) The supervised line experience as stated in paragraph (a) above is not required for a
cabin crew member who has previously acquired such experience on any large
passenger carrying aircraft of the same group, if the operator shows that the cabin
crew member has received sufficient ground training for the aircraft in which the cabin
crew member is to serve.
Note: While qualifying, this person may not be a required crew member.
8.10.1.29 LINE OBSERVATIONS: FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICERS

has observed, on the flight deck, the conduct of two (2) complete flights, comprising at
least five (5) total hours, over routes representative of those for which that person is
assigned duties.
8.10.1.30 ROUTE AND AREA CHECKS: PILOT QUALIFICATION

8.10.1.30.1 ROUTE AND AREA CHECKS: AIRPLANE PILOT QUALIFICATION
(a) No person may serve nor may any operator use a person as a pilot unless, within the
preceding 12 calendar months, that person has passed a route check in which he or
she satisfactorily performed their assigned duties in one of the types of airplanes they
are to fly.
(b) An operator shall not utilize a pilot as pilot-in-command of an airplane on a route or
route segment for which that pilot is not currently qualified until such pilot has complied
with paragraphs (c) and (d) below.
(c) Each such pilot shall demonstrate to the operator an adequate knowledge of:
(1) the route to be flown, and the aerodromes which are to be used. This shall include
knowledge of:

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(i) the terrain and minimum safe altitudes;

(ii) the environmental factors related to the prevention of aeroplane upsets.
(A) the seasonal meteorological conditions
(B) the relevant environment hazards, such as:
(AA) Clear Air Turbulence (CAT);
(BB) Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ);
(CC) Thunderstorms;
(DD) Microbursts;
(EE) Wind Shear;
(FF) Icing;
(GG) Mountain Waves;
(HH) Wake Turbulence at high altitude;
(II) Temperature changes at high altitude;
(iii) the available mitigating procedures for the relevant hazards in (1) (ii) related to
the specific route;
(iv) the meteorological, communication and air traffic facilities, services and
procedures;
(v) the search and rescue procedures; and
(vi) the navigational facilities and procedures, including any long-range navigation
procedures, associated with the route along which the flight is to take place;
(A) for the more complex areas or routes, in-flight familiarization as a pilot-in-
command/commander or co-pilot under supervision, observer, or
familiarization in a flight simulation training device (FSTD) using a database
appropriate to the route concerned.
(2) procedures applicable to flight paths over heavily populated areas and areas of
high air traffic density, obstructions, physical layout, lighting, approach aids and
arrival, departure, holding and instrument approach procedures, and applicable
operating minima; and
Note.— That portion of the demonstration relating to arrival, departure, holding
and instrument approach procedures may be accomplished in an appropriate
training device which is adequate for this purpose.
(3) Notices to airmen.
(d) A PIC shall have made an actual approach into each aerodrome of landing on the
route, accompanied by a pilot who is qualified for the aerodrome, as a member of the
flight crew or as an observer on the flight deck, unless:
(1) the approach to the aerodrome is not over difficult terrain and the instrument
approach procedures and aids available are similar to those with which the pilot is
familiar, and a margin to be approved by the Authority is added to the normal
operating minima, or there is reasonable certainty that approach and landing can
be made in visual meteorological conditions; or
(2) the descent from the initial approach altitude can be made by day in visual
meteorological conditions; or

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PCAR PART 8
(3) the operator qualifies the pilot-in-command to land at the aerodrome concerned
by means of an adequate pictorial presentation; or
(4) the aerodrome concerned is adjacent to another aerodrome at which the pilot-in-
command is currently qualified to land.
(e) The operator shall maintain a record, sufficient to satisfy the authority of the
qualification of the pilot and of the manner in which such qualification has been
achieved.
(f) An operator shall not continue to utilize a pilot as a pilot-in-command on a route or
within an area specified by the operator and approved by the Authority unless, within
the preceding 12 months, that pilot has made at least one trip as a pilot member of the
flight crew, or as a check pilot, or as an observer in the flight crew compartment:
(1) within that specified area; and
(2) if appropriate, on any route where procedures associated with that route or with
any aerodromes intended to be used for take-off or landing require the application
of special skills or knowledge.
(g) In the event that more than 12 months elapse in which a pilot-in-command has not
made such a trip on a route in close proximity and over similar terrain, within such a
specified area, route or aerodrome, and has not practiced such procedures in a training
device which is adequate for this purpose, prior to again serving as a pilot-in-command
within that area or on that route, that pilot must re-qualify in accordance with
paragraphs (c) and (d).
(h) No person may perform PIC duties over a designated special operational area that
requires a special navigation system or procedures or in EDTO operations unless
their competency with the system and procedures has been demonstrated to the
Operator within the past 12 calendar months.
8.10.1.30.2 OPERATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS: HELICOPTER PIC

(a) An operator shall not utilize a pilot as PIC of a helicopter on an operation for which that
pilot is not currently qualified until such pilot has complied with paragraphs (b) and (c)
below.
(b) Each such pilot shall demonstrate to the operator an adequate knowledge of:
(1) the operation to be flown. This shall include knowledge of:
(i) the terrain and minimum safe altitudes;
(ii) the seasonal meteorological conditions;
(iii) the meteorological, communication and air traffic facilities, services and
procedures;
(iv) the search and rescue procedures; and
(v) the navigation facilities and procedures associated with the route or area in
which the flight is to take place; and
(2) procedures applicable to flight paths over heavily populated areas and areas of
high air traffic density, obstructions, physical layout, lighting, approach aids and
arrival, departure, holding and instrument approach procedures, and applicable
operating minima; and
(3) Notices to airmen.

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(c) A PIC shall have made a flight, representative of the operation with which the pilot is
to be engaged which must include a landing at a representative heliport, as a member
of the flight crew and accompanied by a pilot who is qualified for the operation.
(d) An operator shall not continue to utilize a pilot as a PIC on an operation unless, within
the preceding 12 months, the pilot has made at least one representative flight as a pilot
member of the flight crew, or as a check pilot, or as an observer on the flight deck. In
the event that more than 12 months elapse in which a pilot has not made such a
representative flight, prior to again serving as a pilot-in-command on that operation,
that pilot must re-qualify in accordance with paragraph (b) and (c) above.
8.10.1.31 PIC LOW MINIMUMS AUTHORIZATION

(a) Until a PIC has 15 flights performing PIC duties in the aircraft type (which included 5
approaches to landing using Category I or II procedures); he or she may not plan for
or initiate an instrument approach when the ceiling is less than 100 m (300 feet) and
the visibility less than 1.5 km (one statute mile).
(b) Until a PIC has 20 flights performing PIC duties in the aircraft type (which included 5
approaches and landings using Category III procedures), he or she may not plan for
or initiate an approach when the ceiling is less than 30 m (100 feet) or the visibility is
less than 350 m (1,200 ft) RVR.
8.10.1.32 DESIGNATED SPECIAL AIRPORTS AND HELIPORTS: PIC

QUALIFICATION
(a) The Authority may determine that certain airports, due to items such as surrounding
terrain, obstructions, or complex approach or departure procedures, are special
aerodromes requiring special airport/heliport qualifications and that certain areas or
routes, or both, require a special type of navigation qualifications.
(b) No person may serve nor may any operator use a person as PIC for operations at
designated special airports and heliports unless within the preceding 12 calendar
months:
(1) The PIC has been qualified by the operator through a pictorial means acceptable
to the Authority for that airport/heliport; or
(2) The PIC or the assigned CP has made a take-off and landing at that airport/heliport
while serving as a flight crew member for the operator.
(c) If the 12 months qualification period required in paragraph (b) has expired, the PIC
must re-qualify in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (b).
(d) Designated special airport and heliport limitations are not applicable if the operation
will occur:
(1) During daylight hours;
(2) When the visibility is at least 5 km (3 miles); and
(3) When the ceiling at that airport is at least 300 m (1,000 feet) above the lowest initial
approach altitude prescribed for an instrument approach procedure.
8.10.1.33 RECURRENT TRAINING: FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS

(a) No person may serve nor may any operator use a person as a flight crew member

8.10-16
PCAR PART 8
unless within the preceding 12 calendar months that person has completed the
recurrent ground and flight training curricula approved by with the Authority.
(b) The recurrent ground training shall include training on
(1) Aircraft systems and limitations and normal; abnormal and emergency procedures;
(2) Emergency equipment and drills;
(3) Crew resource management;
(4) Recognition of and transportation of dangerous goods, and review the dangerous
goods regulation and examination, as approved by the Authority; and
(5) Security training.
(6) For airplanes, upset prevention and recovery training.
(c) The recurrent flight training curriculum shall include:
(1) Maneuvering and safe operation of the aircraft in accordance with Operator's
normal. abnormal and emergency procedures;
(2) Maneuvers and procedures necessary for avoidance of in-flight hazards; and
(3) For authorized pilots, at least one low visibility take-off to the lowest applicable
minimum LVTO and two approaches to the lowest approved minimums for the
operator, one of which is to be a missed approach.
(4) Upset prevention and recovery training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C,
including:
(i) upset prevention training. Consisting of ground training and flight training in an
FSTD or an airplane, such training should include:
(A) for the conversion training course, upset prevention elements; and
(B) for the recurrent training program, upset prevention elements at least every
12 calendar months, such that all the elements are covered over a period
not exceeding 3 years.
(ii) upset recovery training. This training should:
(A) consist of ground training and flight training in an FFS qualified for the
training task;
(B) be completed from each seat in which a pilot’s duties require him/her to
operate;
(C) include the recovery exercise, such that all the exercises are covered over
a period not exceeding 3 years.
(d) The requirement for recurrent flight training in a particular type of aircraft shall be
considered fulfilled by:
(1) the use, to the extent deemed feasible by the Authority, of flight simulation training
devices approved for that purpose; or
(2) the completion within the appropriate period of the proficiency check required by
Subpart 8.10.1.20 in that type of aircraft.
(e) Satisfactory completion of a proficiency check with the operator for the type aircraft
and operation to be conducted may be used in lieu of recurrent flight training.
(f) Detailed recurrent training requirements are contained in IS: 8.10.1.33.

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PCAR PART 8
8.10.1.34 RECURRENT TRAINING: CABIN CREW

(a) No person may serve nor may any operator use a person as a cabin crew unless within
the preceding 12 calendar months that person has completed the recurrent training
program approved by the Authority relevant to the type(s) and/or variant(s) of aircraft
and operations to which he or she is assigned.
(b) The recurrent ground training shall include training on:
(1) Aircraft-specific configuration, equipment and procedures;
(2) Emergency and first aid equipment and drills;
(3) Crew resource management;
(4) Recognition or transportation of dangerous goods; and
(5) Security training.
(c) Each Operator shall establish and maintain a training program, approved by the
Authority, to be completed by all persons before being assigned as a cabin crew
member. Cabin crew members shall complete a recurrent training program annually.
This training programs shall ensure that each person is:
(1) Competent to execute those safety duties and functions which the cabin crew
member is assigned to perform in the event of an emergency or in a situation
requiring emergency evacuation;
(2) Drilled and capable in the use of emergency and life-saving equipment required to
be carried, such as life jackets, life rafts, evacuation slides, emergency exits,
portable fire extinguishers, oxygen equipment, first-aid and universal precaution
kits, automated external defibrillators;
(3) When serving on airplanes operated above 3,000 m (10,000 ft), knowledgeable as
regards the effect of lack of oxygen and, in the case of pressurized airplanes, as
regards physiological phenomena accompanying a loss of pressurization;
(4) Aware of other crew members’ assignments and functions in the event of an
emergency so far as is necessary for the fulfillment of the cabin crew member’s
own duties;
(5) Aware of the types of dangerous goods which may, and may not, be carried in a
passenger cabin; and
(6) Knowledgeable about human performance as related to passenger cabin safety
duties including flight crew-cabin crew member’s coordination.
Note 1: Requirements for the training of cabin crew members in the transport of
dangerous goods are included in the Dangerous Goods Training Program
contained in ICAO Annex 18 – The safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air and
the Technical Instruction for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air (ICAO
Doc 9284).
Note 2: Guidance material to design training program to develop knowledge and
skill in human performance can be found in the Human Factors Training Manual
(ICAO Doc 9683).
(d) A required cabin crew member who, due to a period of inactivity, has not met the
recurrent training requirements in paragraphs (a) through (c) shall complete the initial
Operator training program and competency check.
(e) Specific recurrent training program requirements for cabin crew members are
contained in IS: 8.10.1.34.

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PCAR PART 8
8.10.1.35 RECURRENT TRAINING: FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICERS

unless within the preceding 12 calendar-months that person has completed the
recurrent ground curricula approved by the Authority relevant to the type(s) and/or
variant(s) of aircraft and positions to which he or she is assigned.
(b) Specific requirements for flight operations officers recurrent training are contained in
IS: 8.10.1.35.
(c) A required flight operations officer who, due to a period of inactivity, has not met the
recurrent training requirements in paragraphs (a) through (b) shall complete the initial
Operator training program and competency check.
8.10.1.36 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS

(a) No AOC holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a flight instructor in an
established training program unless, with respect to the aircraft type involved, that
person:
(1) Holds the airman licenses and rating required to serve as a PIC, a flight engineer,
or a flight navigator, as applicable;
(2) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases for the aircraft,
including recurrent training and differences training, that are required to serve as a
PIC, flight engineer, or flight navigator, as applicable;
(3) For airplanes, has successfully completed instructor training for UPRT, approved
by the Authority.
(4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable initial or transitional training
requirements and the Authority-observed in-flight competency check; and
(5) Holds the appropriate medical certificate for service as a required crew member.
(b) Flight Instructor - Flight Simulation Training Device: Additional requirements. No
person may serve nor may any Operator use a person as a Flight Instructor - Flight
Simulation Training Device, unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month
before that service, that person has:
(1) Flown at least 5 flights as a required crew member for the type of aircraft involved;
or
(2) Observed, on the flight deck, the conduct of 2 complete flights in the aircraft type
to which the person is assigned.
8.10.1.37 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR TRAINING

(a) No person may serve nor may any AOC holder use a person as an instructor unless
he or she has completed the curricula approved by the Authority for those functions for
which they are to serve.
(b) See IS: 8.10.1.37 for specific training program requirements for instructor.
8.10.1.38 CHECK AIRMAN DESIGNATION

(a) No person may serve nor may any AOC holder use a person as a check airman for
any flight check under the Operator’s crew member checking and standardization
program in Subpart 9.3.1.9 unless that person has been designated by name and in

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PCAR PART 8
approved function by the Authority and has completed the Operator’s curricula
approved by the Authority for those functions for which he or she is to serve.
(b) Once designated, no person may serve nor may any Operator use a person as a check
airman for any flight check unless that person has demonstrated, initially and at least
biennially to an Authority inspector, the ability to conduct a check for which he or she
is designated.
(c) For the purpose of this Part:
(1) A check airman (aircraft) is a person who is qualified, and permitted to conduct
flight checks or instruction in an aircraft, or in a fight simulator, or in a flight
simulation training device for a particular type of aircraft.
(2) A check airman (simulator) is a person who is qualified to conduct flight checks or
flight instruction, but only in a flight simulator or in a flight simulation training device
for a particular type of aircraft.
(3) Check airmen (aircraft) and check airmen (simulator) are those airmen who
perform training and checking functions for a training program approved by the
Authority.
8.10.1.39 CHECK AIRMAN QUALIFICATIONS

(a) No operator may use a person, nor may any person serve as a check airman in an
established training program, with respect to the aircraft type involved, unless that
person:
(1) Holds the airman licenses and ratings required to serve as a PIC, a flight engineer,
or a flight navigator, as applicable, in operations under Part 9;
PIC, flight engineer, or flight navigator, as applicable, in operations under Part 9;
(3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency, competency and recent
experience checks that are required to serve as a PIC, flight engineer, or flight
navigator, as applicable, in operations under Part 9;
(4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable initial or transitional training
requirements, including in-flight training, and the Authority-observed in-flight
competency check;
(5) Holds at least an appropriate medical certificate if serving as a required flight crew
member;
(6) Has satisfied the recent experience requirements for his/her airman qualification;
and
(7) Has been approved by the Authority for the check airman duties involved.
(b) Check Airman - Flight Simulation Training Device: No person may serve nor may any
operator use a person as a check airman - Flight Simulation Training Device, in an
established training program, with respect to the aircraft type involved, unless that
person:
(1) Holds the airman licenses and ratings, except medical certificate, required to serve
as a PIC, a flight engineer, or a flight navigator, as applicable, in operations under
Part 9;

8.10-20
PCAR PART 8
PIC, flight engineer, or flight navigator, as applicable, in operations under Part 9;
(3) Has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency or competency checks that
are required to serve as a PIC, flight engineer, or flight navigator, as applicable, in
operation sunder Part 9;
(4) Has satisfactorily completed the applicable training requirements;
(5) Has been approved by the Authority for the check airman duties involved; and
(6) Since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that person
has:
(i) Flown at least 5 flights as a required crew member for the type of aircraft
involved; or
(ii) Observed, on the flight deck, the conduct of 2 complete flights in the aircraft
type to which the person is assigned.
(c) Completion of the requirements in paragraphs (a) (2), (3) and (4), or (b) (2), (3) and (4)
of this section, as applicable, shall be entered in the individual's training record
maintained by the certificate holder.
(d) Check airmen who have reached their 65th birthday or who do not hold an appropriate
medical certificate may function as check airmen, but may not serve as pilot flight crew
members, in operations under Part 9.
(e) The flight segments or line-observation program required in sub-paragraph (b)(6) of
this Subpart are considered to be completed in the month required if completed in the
calendar month before or in the calendar month after the month in which it is due.
8.10.1.40 CHECK AIRMAN TRAINING

(a) See IS: 8.10.1.40 for specific training program requirements for check airmen.
8.10.1.41 MINIMUM QUALIFICATION FOR A FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICER

INSTRUCTOR
(a) To be qualified to train and evaluate flight operations officers, a trainer must:
(1) have passed a flight operations officer’s course in a duly recognized training
organization;
(2) hold a valid flight operations officer’s license and ground instructor’s authorization
issued by CAAP;
(3) present proof of currency, continued competency and proficiency to be able to
renew the above licenses and authorization.
(b) Experience Requirement
(1) The applicant for a ground instructor for flight operations officer/flight dispatcher
license shall have gained a total of two and haft (2 ½) years, in continuous or
aggregate period, as duly licensed flight operations officer/flight dispatch.
8.10.1.42 RESERVED

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PCAR PART 8
8.10.1.43 MONITORING TRAINING AND CHECKING ACTIVITIES

(a) To enable adequate supervision of its training and checking activities, the Operator
shall forward to the Authority at least 24 hours before the scheduled activity the dates,
report times and report location of all:
(1) Training for which a curriculum is approved in the Operator’s training program; and
(2) Proficiency, competence and line checks.
(b) Failure to provide the information required by paragraph (a) may invalidate the training
or check and the Authority may require that it be repeated for observation purposes.
8.10.1.44 TERMINATION OF A PROFICIENCY, COMPETENCE OR LINE CHECK

(a) If it is necessary to terminate a check for any reason, the operator may not use the
crew member or flight operations officer in commercial air transport operations until
the completion of a satisfactory recheck.
8.10.1.45 RECORDING OF CREW MEMBER QUALIFICATIONS

(a) The operator shall maintain a record, sufficient to satisfy the Authority of the qualification
of each crew member and flight operations officer, and of the manner in which such
qualification has been achieved, as required by this Part.
(a) A pilot may complete the curricula required by this Part concurrently or intermixed with
other required curricula, but completion of each of these curricula shall be recorded
separately.
8.10.1.46 RESERVED
8.10.1.47 ELIGIBILITY PERIOD
(a) Crew members who are required to take a proficiency check, a test or competency
check, or recurrent training to maintain qualification for commercial air transport
operations may complete those requirements at any time during the eligibility period.
(b) The eligibility period is defined as the three (3) calendar month period including the
month-prior, the month-due, and the month-after any due date specified by this
subsection.
(c) Completion of the requirement at any time during the period shall be considered as
completed in the month-due for calculation of the next due date.
8.10.1.48 REDUCTIONS IN REQUIREMENTS

(a) The Authority may authorize reductions in, or waive, certain portions of the training
requirements of this Subpart, taking into account the previous experience of the crew
members.
(b) Any Operator request for reduction or waiver shall be made in writing and outline the
basis under which the request is made.
(c) If the request was for a specific crew member, the correspondence from the Authority
authorizing the reduction and the basis for it shall be filed in the record the operator
maintains for that crew member.

8.10-22
PCAR PART 8
(d) A person who progresses successfully through flight training, is recommended by their
instructor or a check airman, and successfully completes the appropriate flight check
for a check airman, or is permitted by the Authority, to complete a course in less than
program time, need not complete the program hours of flight training for the particular
aircraft. Whenever the Authority finds that 20 percent of the flight checks given at a
particular training base during the previous 6 months are unsuccessful, this method of
approval will not be used by the Operator at that base until the Authority finds that the
effectiveness of the flight training there has improved.
8.10.1.49 RECORDS OF COSMIC RADIATION

(a) For each flight of an airplane above 15,000 m (49,000 ft), each Operator shall maintain
records so that the total cosmic radiation dose received by each crew member over a
period of 12 consecutive months can be determined.
8.10.1.50 SINGLE PILOT OPERATIONS UNDER IFR OR AT NIGHT

The requirements of experience, recency and training applicable to single pilot operations
intended to be carried out under the IFR or at night shall be as under. The PIC shall:
(a) for operations under the IFR or at night, have accumulated at least 50 hours flight time
on the class of aircraft, of which at least 10 hours shall be as PIC;
(b) for operations under the IFR, have accumulated at least 25 hours flight time under the
IFR on the class of aircraft, which may form part of the 50 hours flight time in paragraph
(a);
(c) for operations at night, have accumulated at least 15 hours flight time at night, which
may form part of the 50 hours flight time in paragraph (a);
(d) for operations under the IFR, have acquired recent experience as a pilot engaged in a
single pilot operation under the IFR of:
(1) at least five IFR flight, including three instrument approaches carried out during the
preceding 90 days on the class of airplane in the single pilot role; or
(2) an IFR instrument approach check carried out on such an airplane during the
preceding 90 days;
(e) for operations at night, have made at least three take-offs and landings at night on the
class of airplane in the single pilot role in the preceding 90 days; and
(f) have successfully completed training programs that include, in addition to the
requirements of Subpart 8.10.1.8, passenger briefing with respect to emergency
evacuation, autopilot management, and the use of simplified in-flight documentation.
(g) The initial and recurrent flight training and proficiency checks indicated in Subparts
8.10.1.8 and 8.10.1.20 shall be performed by the PIC in the single pilot role on the
class of aircraft in an environment representative of the operation.

8.10-23
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8.10-24
PCAR PART 8
8.11 FATIGUE MANAGEMENT FOR FLIGHT TIME, FLIGHT DUTY

PERIODS, DUTY PERIODS AND REST PERIODS: COMMERCIAL
AIR TRANSPORT
(a) This Subpart is applicable to the flight time, flight duty periods and rest periods of crew
members and flight operations officers/flight dispatchers engaged in commercial air
transport flight operations.
(b) Each operator shall formulate rules to limit flight time, flight duty periods, duty periods
and rest periods for all its crew members. These rules shall also make provision for
adequate rest periods and shall be such as to ensure that fatigue occurring either in a
flight or successive flights or accumulated over a period of time due to these and other
tasks does not endanger the safety of a flight. These rules shall be in accordance with
the regulations established by the Authority, or approved by the Authority, and included
in the operations manual.
Note: Guidance on the establishments of limitations is given in ICAO Annex 6, Part 1
Attachment A.
(c) This subpart is applicable to the management of fatigue-related safety risks of crew
members and flight operations officers/flight dispatchers engaged in commercial air
transport flight operations.
(d) For the purpose of managing fatigue, the Operator shall establish regulations
specifying the limitations applicable to flight time, flight duty periods, duty periods and
rest periods for flight and cabin crew members. These regulations shall be based upon
scientific principles and knowledge, where available, with the aim of ensuring that the
flight and cabin crew members are performing at an adequate level of alertness.
Note: Guidance for the development of prescriptive fatigue management regulations
is given in ICAO Annex 6 Part 1, Attachment A.
8.11.1.2 MANAGING FATIGUE-RELATED SAFETY RISKS

(a) For the purpose of managing fatigue-related safety risks, an AOC holder shall establish
either:
(1) flight time, flight duty period, duty period and rest period limitations that are within
the prescriptive fatigue management regulations in Subpart 8.12; or
(2) a Fatigue Risk Management System (FRMS) in compliance with Subsection
8.11.1.2(e); or
(3) a FRMS in compliance with Subpart 8.11.1.2(e) for part of its operations and the
requirements of Subpart 8.12 for the remainder of its operations.
(b) Where the operator adopts prescriptive fatigue management regulations for part or all
of its operations, the Authority may approve, in exceptional circumstances, variations
to these regulations on the basis of a risk assessment provided by the operator.
Approved variations shall provide a level of safety equivalent to, or better than that
achieved through the prescriptive fatigue management regulations.
(c) The Authority shall approve an operator’s FRMS before it may take the place of any or
all of the prescriptive fatigue management regulations. An approved FRMS shall
provide a level of safety equivalent to, or better than, the prescriptive fatigue
management regulations.

8.11-1
PCAR PART 8
(d) Operators using an FRMS must adhere to the following provisions of the FRMS
approval process that allows the Authority to ensure that the approved FRMS meets
the requirements of Subpart 8.11.1.2(c).
(1) Establish maximum values for flight times and/or flight duty period(s) and duty
period(s), and minimum values for rest periods that shall be based upon scientific
principles and knowledge, subject to safety assurance processes
Note: ICAO Doc 9966, Fatigue Risk Management Systems Manual, provides a
definition for Safety Assurance Processes.
(2) Adhere to Authority mandates to decrease maximum values and increase in
minimum values in the event that the operator’s data indicates these values are
too high to too low, respectively; and
(3) Provide justification to the Authority for any increase in maximum values or
decrease in minimum values based on accumulated FRMS experience and
fatigue-related data before such changes will be approved by the Authority.
(e) Operators implementing an FRMS to manage fatigue-related safety risks shall, as a
minimum:
(1) Incorporate scientific principles and knowledge within the FRMS;
(2) Identify fatigue-related safety hazards and the resulting risks on an ongoing basis;
(3) Ensure that the remedial actions, necessary to effectively mitigate the risks
associated with the hazards, are implemented promptly;
(4) Provide for continuous monitoring and regular assessment of the mitigation of
fatigue risks achieved by such actions; and
(5) Provide for continuous improvement to the overall performance of the FRMS.
8.11.1.3 DUTY AND REST PERIODS: ALL CREW MEMBERS

(a) With respect to duty periods:
(1) Persons are considered to be on duty if they are performing any scheduled or
unscheduled tasks on behalf of the Operator.
(2) No Operator may schedule:
(i) A flight crew member for more than 14 hours of duty, except as prescribed by
the Authority.
(ii) A cabin crew member for more than 14 consecutive hours of duty, except as
(iii) A flight operations officer/aircraft dispatcher for more than 10 consecutive
hours of duty, except as prescribed by the Authority. (See 8.11.1.11).
(b) With respect to rest periods:
(1) The minimum rest period for flight crew members and flight operations
officer/dispatcher is considered to be 8 consecutive hours, unless otherwise
(2) The minimum rest period for cabin crew members shall be 9 consecutive hours,
unless otherwise prescribed by the Authority.

8.11-2
PCAR PART 8
(3) The operator shall relieve the flight crew member, cabin crew or flight operations
officer/flight dispatcher from all duties for 24 consecutive hours during any 7
consecutive day period.
(4) Time spent in deadhead transportation, that an operator requires of a flight crew
member and provides to transport the crew member to an airport/heliport at which
he/she is to serve on a flight as a crew member, or from an airport/heliport at which
he/she was relieved from duty to return to his/her home station, is not considered
part of a rest period.
(5) No operator may assign, nor may any person:
(i) Perform duties in commercial air transportation unless that person has had at
least the minimum rest period applicable to those duties as prescribed by the
Authority, or
(ii) Accept an assignment to any duty with the operator during any required rest
period.
8.11.1.4 DUTY ALOFT: FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS

(a) The Authority will consider all time spent on an aircraft as an assigned flight crew
member or relief flight crew member, whether resting or performing tasks to be duty
aloft.
(b) The Authority will consider a flight crew member to be on continuous duty aloft unless
the flight crew member receives a rest period of 8 consecutive hours on the ground.
(c) Each operator shall provide adequate sleeping quarters, including a berth, on the
aircraft whenever a flight crew member is scheduled to be aloft for more than 12 hours
during any 24 consecutive hours.
8.11.1.5 COMPLIANCE WITH SCHEDULING REQUIREMENTS: ALL CREW

MEMBERS
(a) The Authority will consider a person in compliance with prescribed duty time
requirements, if that person exceeds applicable requirements, during an emergency
or adverse situations beyond the control of the operator.
8.11.1.6 SPECIAL FLIGHT DUTY SCHEMES: ALL CREW MEMBERS

(a) The Authority may approve a special flight duty scheme for an operator.
(b) An operator may elect to apply the flight crew member flight duty and rest requirements
to the cabin crew members.
8.11.1.7 FLIGHT TIME, FLIGHT DUTY, DUTY AND REST PERIODS RECORDS
(a) Each AOC holder shall maintain records for each crew member and flight operations
officer/flight dispatcher of flight time, flight duty periods, duty periods, and rest periods.
8.11.1.8 FLIGHT TIME, DUTY AND REST PERIODS: FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no operator shall assign any flight
crew member to a duty period exceeding:

8.11-3
PCAR PART 8
(1) 14 hours in any 24 consecutive hours for aircraft certificated for two flight crew
members.
(2) 16 hours in any 24 consecutive hours for aircraft certificated for three flight crew
members.
(b) No person may schedule any flight crew member and no flight crew member may
accept an assignment as a required crew member for more than 7 flights in commercial
air transportation during any period of 18 consecutive hours, whichever comes first.
(c) The duty period for flight crew members during any 24 consecutive hours may be
extended by the addition of flight crew members as follows, provided the additional
crew member is qualified to act in his respective crew position. For the purposes of
computing weekly, quarterly and yearly flight time requirements, all flight crew
members participating in an extended duty period shall log all the flight time
accumulated during that flight or flights:
(1) For aircraft certificated for two flight crew members:
(i) An extension to 18 hours is permitted by the addition of one pilot and is
contingent upon the availability and use of a flight relief facility seat or bunk
(and for charter flights a restriction of 8 hours flight deck duty time per pilot);
and
(ii) An extension to 22 hours is permitted by the addition of two pilots and is
contingent upon the availability and use of a flight relief facility bunk (and for
charter flights a restriction of 8 hours flight deck duty time per pilot).
(2) For aircraft certificated for three flight crew members:
(i) An extension to 18 hours is permitted if the basic crew is augmented by one
pilot and an additional flight crew member and is contingent upon the
availability and use of a flight relief facility seat or bunk (and for charter flights
a restriction of 12 hours flight deck duty time per flight crew member); and
(ii) An extension to 22 hours is permitted if the basic crew is augmented by one
pilot and an additional flight crew member and is contingent upon the
availability and use of a flight relief facility bunk (and for charter flights a
restriction of 12 hours flight deck duty time per flight crew member).
(d) A flight crew member shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours free from flight duty
following 3 consecutive flight-deck duty-time periods that exceed 12 consecutive hours
unless the flight crew member has received at least 24 consecutive hours free from
flight duty between each of these flight duty periods.
(e) If a flight crew member is required to deadhead for more than 4 hours prior to beginning
a duty assignment, one half of all the time spent in deadhead transportation must be
treated as duty time for the purposes of complying with duty time limitations, unless he
is given at least 10 hours of rest on the ground before being assigned to duty.
(f) If a flight crew member is required to deadhead after the completion of a duty period,
that flight crew member shall be given an additional rest period at least equal to one-
half the time spent traveling that is in excess of the flight crew member’s maximum
duty period.
(g) A flight crew member is not considered to be scheduled for flight time in excess of flight
time and duty period requirements if the flights to which he is assigned are scheduled
and normally terminate within the requirements, but due to circumstances beyond the
control of the air carrier (such as adverse weather conditions, diversions, aircraft
mechanical delays, air traffic control delays or other unforeseen operational
circumstances) are not at the time of departure expected to reach the destination within

8.11-4
PCAR PART 8
the scheduled time under this provision, a maximum extension to the flight time and
flight duty period requirements of 3 hours for international operations and 2 hours for
domestic operations is permitted provided:
(1) The PIC, after consultation with other crew members, considers it is safe to do so;
(2) The PIC notifies the operator of the length of and the reason for the extension; and
(3) The operator immediately reports the extension to the Authority, records the details
of the extension, and maintains this record until the next audit by the Authority is
completed.
(h) Any rest period required under Subparts 8.11.1.9 and 8.11.1.10 may be reduced by
the amount of time delayed as a result of an unforeseen operational circumstance if
the flight crew member is provided a subsequent rest period of at least a period of time
equal to the reduced rest period. The subsequent rest period must be scheduled to
begin no later than 24 hours after the completion of the reduced rest period and must
occur between the completion of the scheduled flight duty period and the
commencement of the subsequent duty period.
(i) No pilot that is employed as a pilot by a scheduled or non-scheduled operator may do
any other commercial or general aviation flying if the total of such flying will exceed
any flight time requirements of this Subpart. Each pilot must report the flying times
accumulated in all flying to any and all operators employing him.
(j) For the purposes of determining flight time and flight duty period requirements and rest
periods requirements, flights involving any combination of domestic and international
flying are deemed to be international flights.
(k) Each operator shall establish and maintain a means for recording and tracking each
crew member’s flight and duty time and rest periods so as to not exceed any
requirements established in Subpart 8.11.
8.11.1.9 FLIGHT CREW FLIGHT TIME, DUTY AND REST PERIODS: SCHEDULED
AND NONSCHEDULED DOMESTIC COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT
OPERATIONS
(a) This Subpart prescribes flight time, duty and rest period requirements for flight crew
members on scheduled and non-scheduled domestic commercial air transport
operations.
8.11.1.9.1 FLIGHT TIME, DUTY AND REST PERIODS: FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS
(a) No scheduled and non-scheduled domestic operator may schedule any flight crew
member and no flight crew member may accept an assignment for flight time in
scheduled air transportation or in other commercial flying if that crew member's total
flight time in all commercial flying will exceed:
(1) 1,000 hours in any calendar year;
(2) 100 hours in any calendar month;
(3) 30 hours in any 7 consecutive days; or
(4) 8 hours between required rest periods.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Section, no scheduled or non-scheduled
domestic operator may schedule a flight crew member and no flight crew member may
accept an assignment for flight time during any 24 consecutive hours preceding the

8.11-5
PCAR PART 8
scheduled completion of any flight segment without a scheduled rest period during that
24 hours of at least the following:
(1) 9 consecutive hours of rest for 8 hours or less of flight time.
(2) 10 consecutive hours of rest for more than 8 hours up to including 9 hours of flight
time.
(3) 11 consecutive hours of rest for 9 or more hours of flight time.
(c) An operator may schedule a flight crew member for less than the rest required in
paragraph (b) of this Section or may reduce a scheduled rest under the following
conditions:
(1) A rest required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be scheduled for or
reduced to a minimum of 8 hours if the flight crew member is given a rest period of
at least 10 hours that must begin no later than 24 hours after the commencement
of the reduced rest period.
(2) A rest required under paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be scheduled for or
reduced to a minimum of 8 hours if the flight crew member is given a rest period of
at least 11 hours that must begin no later that 24 hours after the commencement
of the reduced rest period.
(3) No air operator may assign, nor may any flight crew member perform any flight
time with the operator unless the flight crew member has had at least the minimum
rest required under this Subpart.
8.11.1.10 FLIGHT CREW FLIGHT TIME, DUTY AND REST PERIODS: SCHEDULED
AND NONSCHEDULED INTERNATIONAL COMMERCIAL AIR
TRANSPORT OPERATIONS
(a) This Subpart prescribes flight time, duty and rest period requirements for flight crew
members on scheduled and non-scheduled international commercial air transport
operations.
8.11.1.10.1 FLIGHT TIME, DUTY AND REST PERIODS: AIRCRAFT TYPE

CERTIFICATED FOR TWO PILOTS
(a) No scheduled or any non-scheduled international operator may schedule any flight
crew member and no flight crew member may accept an assignment for flight time in
commercial flying if that flight crew member’s total flight time in all flying will exceed:
(1) 32 hours in any 7 consecutive days;
(2) 100 hours in any calendar month; or
(3) 1,000 hours in any calendar year.
(b) A flight crew member may be scheduled to fly in an aircraft that has a crew of two pilots
for 8 hours or less during any 24 consecutive hours without a rest period during these
8 hours.
(c) A flight crew member shall be given a rest period at the end of the scheduled hours of
flight duty. This rest period must be twice the number of hours flown since the
preceding rest period or 8 hours, whichever is greater. The operator shall relieve that
flight crew member of all duty with it during that rest period.

8.11-6
PCAR PART 8
8.11.1.10.2 FLIGHT TIME, DUTY AND REST PERIODS: AIRCRAFT TYPE

CERTIFICATED FOR TWO PILOTS AND ONE OTHER FLIGHT CREW
MEMBER
(a) No scheduled and non-scheduled international operator may schedule any flight crew
member and no flight crew member may accept an assignment for flight time in
commercial flying if that flight crew member’s total flight time in all flying will exceed:
(1) 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours;
(2) 120 hours during any 30 consecutive days;
(3) 300 hours during any 90 consecutive days; or
(4) 1,000 hours during any calendar year.
(b) A rest period of twice the number of hours flown since the last rest period or 12 hours,
whichever is greater, shall be scheduled following any flight segment.
(c) If a flight crew member has flown 20 or more hours during any 48 consecutive hours
or 24 or more hours during any 72 consecutive hours, he must be given at least 18
hours of rest before being assigned to any duty with the operator.
8.11.1.10.3 FLIGHT TIME, DUTY AND REST PERIODS: AUGMENTED CREW

MEMBERS
(a) No scheduled and non-scheduled international operator may schedule any flight crew
member who is part of an augmented crew and no flight crew member may accept an
assignment for flight time that exceeds:
(1) 350 hours during any 90 consecutive days; or
(2) 1,000 hours during any calendar year.
(b) A rest period of at least 24 hours shall be scheduled for flight crew members following
a flight requiring an augmented crew. Notwithstanding Subpart 8.11.1.8 (h), no flight
crew member may commence a flight duty assignment unless the flight crew member
has been given 12 consecutive hours of undisturbed rest following a flight requiring an
augmented crew.
8.11.1.10.4 FLIGHT TIME, DUTY AND REST PERIODS: PILOTS NOT REGULARLY
ASSIGNED
(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section, a pilot who is not
regularly assigned as a flight crew member for an entire calendar month under
Subparts 8.11.1.10.2 or 8.11.1.10.3 may not fly more than 100 hours in any calendar
month.
(b) The monthly flight time requirements for a pilot who is scheduled for duty aloft for more
than 20 hours in two-pilot crew members in any calendar month, whose assignment in
such a crew is interrupted more than once in that month by assignment to an
augmented crew, are those set forth in Subpart 8.11.1.10.1 except sub-paragraph
(a)(1).
(c) Except for a pilot covered by paragraph (b) of this section, the monthly and quarterly
flight time requirements for a pilot who is scheduled for duty aloft for more than 20
hours in any calendar month in an aircraft type certificated for two pilots and one other
flight crew member, or whose assignment in such a crew is interrupted more than once
in that calendar month by assignment to an augmented crew, are those set forth in
Subpart 8.11.1.10.2.

8.11-7
PCAR PART 8
(d) The 90 day flight time requirements, for a pilot to whom paragraphs (b) and (c) of this
section do not apply and who is scheduled for duty aloft for a total of not more than 20
hours within any calendar month in two-pilot crew members (with or without additional
pilots), are those set forth in Subpart 8.11.1.10.3.
(e) The monthly and quarterly flight time requirements for a pilot assigned to each of two-
pilot, three-pilot, and four pilot or more crew members in a given calendar month, and
who is not subject to paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section, are those set forth in
Subpart 8.11.1.10.2.
8.11.1.10.5 FLIGHT TIME, DUTY AND REST PERIODS: OTHER COMMERCIAL

FLYING
(a) No pilot that is employed as a pilot by a scheduled or non-scheduled international
operator may do any other commercial flying if that commercial flying plus his flying in
air transportation will exceed any flight time requirements in this Subpart.
8.11.1.11 FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICER/FLIGHT DISPATCHERS DUTY TIME AND

REST PERIODS REQUIREMENTS: SCHEDULED INTERNATIONAL AND
SCHEDULED DOMESTIC OPERATORS
(a) Each scheduled international and scheduled domestic operator shall establish the
daily duty period for a flight operations officer/flight dispatcher so that it begins at a
time that allows him to become thoroughly familiar with existing and anticipated
weather conditions along the route before he/she dispatches any aircraft. He/she shall
remain on duty until each aircraft dispatched by him/her has completed its flight, or has
gone beyond his jurisdiction, or until he/she is relieved by another qualified flight
operations officer/flight dispatcher.
(b) Except in cases where circumstances or emergency conditions beyond the control of
the operator require otherwise:
(1) No scheduled international or scheduled domestic operator may schedule a flight
operations officer/flight dispatcher for more than 10 consecutive hours of duty;
(2) If a flight operations officer/flight dispatcher is scheduled for more than 10 hours of
duty in 24 consecutive hours, the operator shall provide him/her a rest period of at
least eight hours at or before the end of 10 hours of duty.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, a scheduled international
operator may, if authorized by the Authority, schedule an flight operations officer/flight
dispatcher at a duty station outside of the Philippines, for more than 10 consecutive
hours of duty in a 24-hour period if that flight operations officer/flight dispatcher is
relieved of all duty with the operator for at least eight hours during each 24-hour period.
8.11.1.12 CABIN CREW DUTY TIME AND REST PERIODS REQUIREMENTS:

SCHEDULED AND NON-SCHEDULED INTERNATIONAL AND DOMESTIC
OPERATORS
An operator conducting domestic or international operations may assign a cabin crew
member to a duty period only when the applicable duty period and rest requirements of
this Subpart are met.
(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section, no operator may
assign a cabin crew member to a scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours.

8.11-8
PCAR PART 8
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a cabin crew member scheduled
to a duty period of 14 hours or less as provided under paragraph (a) of this section,
must be given a scheduled rest period of at least 9 consecutive hours. This rest period
must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the
(c) The rest period required under paragraph (b) of this section may be scheduled or
reduced to 8 consecutive hours if the cabin crew member is provided a subsequent
rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours. This subsequent rest period must be
scheduled to begin no later than 24 hours after the beginning of the reduced rest period
and must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the
(d) An operator conducting domestic or international operations may assign a cabin crew
member to a scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours, but no more than 16 hours,
if the certificate holder has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period at least
one cabin crew member in addition to the minimum cabin crew member complement
required for the flight or flights in that duty period under the operator's operations
specifications.
(e) An operator conducting international operations may assign a cabin crew member to
a scheduled duty period of more than 16 hours but no more than 18 hours, if the
operator has assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period at least two cabin crew
members in addition to the minimum cabin crew member complement required for the
flight or flights in that duty period under the operator's operations specifications and a
flight relief facility seat is on board the aircraft.
(f) An operator conducting international operations may assign a cabin crew member to
a scheduled duty period of more than 18 hours, but no more than 22 hours, if the
scheduled duty period includes one or more international flights and if the operator has
assigned to the flight or flights in that duty period at least three cabin crew members in
addition to the minimum cabin crew member complement required for the flight or
flights in that duty period under the operator's operations specifications and flight relief
facility bunks are on board the aircraft.
(g) Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, a cabin crew member scheduled to
a duty period of more than 14 hours but no more than 16 hours, as provided in
paragraph (d) of this section, must be given a scheduled rest period of at least 12
hours. This rest period must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty
period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period.
(h) Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, a cabin crew member scheduled to
paragraph (e) of this section, must be given a scheduled rest period of at least 14
hours. This rest period must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty
period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period.
(i) Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, a cabin crew member scheduled to
paragraph (f) of this section, must be given a scheduled rest period of at least 24 hours.
This rest period must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and
the commencement of the subsequent duty period.
(j) The rest period required under paragraph (g), (h) and (i) of this section may be reduced
by the amount of time delayed as a result of an unforeseen operational circumstances
if the cabin crew member is provided a subsequent rest period of at least a period of
time equal to the reduced rest period. The subsequent rest period must be scheduled
to begin no later than 24 hours after the completion of the reduced rest period and

8.11-9
PCAR PART 8
must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the
(k) No operator conducting domestic or international operations may assign a cabin crew
member to any duty period with the operator unless the cabin crew member has had
at least the minimum rest required under this section.
(l) No operator conducting domestic or international operations may assign a cabin crew
member to perform any duty with the operator during any required rest period.
(m) Time spent in transportation that an operator conducting domestic or international
operations requires of a cabin crew member and provides to transport the cabin crew
member to an airport at which that cabin crew member is to serve on a flight as a crew
member, or from an airport at which the cabin crew member was relieved from duty to
return to the cabin crew member's home station, is not considered part of a rest period.
(n) If a cabin crew member is required to deadhead for more than 4 hours prior to
beginning a duty assignment, one half of all the time spent in deadhead transportation
must be treated as duty time for the purposes of complying with duty time
requirements, unless he/she is given at least 10 hours of rest on the ground before
being assigned to duty.
(o) Each operator conducting domestic or international operations must relieve each cabin
crew member engaged in air transportation and each commercial operator must relieve
each cabin crew member engaged in air commerce from all further duty for at least 24
consecutive hours during any 7 consecutive calendar days.
(p) A cabin crew member is not considered to be scheduled for duty in excess of duty
period requirements if the flights to which the cabin crew member is assigned are
scheduled and normally terminate within the requirements but due to circumstances
beyond the control of the operator conducting domestic or international operations
(such as adverse weather conditions, diversions, air traffic control delays, aircraft
mechanical delays, or other unforeseen operational circumstances) are not at the time
of departure expected to reach their destination within the scheduled time.
(q) No scheduled or non-scheduled international or domestic operator may schedule any
cabin crew, and no cabin crew may accept an assignment for flight time in scheduled
air transportation or in other commercial flying if that cabin crew’s total flight time in all
commercial flying will exceed:
(1) 1,000 hours in any calendar year; or
(2) 100 hours in any calendar month.

8.11-10
PCAR PART 8
8.12 FLIGHT RELEASE: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) This Subpart is applicable to an operator and the person designated by the operator
to issue a flight release.
8.12.1.2 QUALIFIED PERSONS REQUIRED FOR OPERATIONAL CONTROL

FUNCTIONS
(a) An operator or a designated representative shall have responsibility for operational
control. Responsibility for operational control shall be delegated by an operator only to
the PIC and to a flight operations officer/flight dispatcher, if the operator’s approved
method of control and supervision of flight operations requires the use of flight
operations officer/flight dispatcher personnel.
(b) For passenger-carrying flights conducted on a published schedule, a licensed and
qualified flight operations officer or equivalently qualified person shall be on-duty at an
operations base to perform the operational control functions.
(c) For all other flights, Director of Operations and PIC are the qualified person exercising
operational control responsibilities, and shall be available for consultation prior to,
during and immediately following the flight operation.
(1) The Director of Operations may delegate the functions for initiating, continuation,
diversion and termination of a flight to other employees. However, the Director of
Operations shall retain full responsibility for these functions.
(d) For all flights, the PIC shares in the responsibility for operational control of the aircraft
and has the situational authority to make decisions regarding operational control issues
in-flight.
(1) Where a decision of the PIC differs from that recommended, the person making
the recommendation shall make a record of the associated facts.
8.12.1.3 FUNCTIONS ASSOCIATED WITH OPERATIONAL CONTROL

(a) The person exercising responsibility for operational control for an operator shall-
(1) Authorize the specific flight operation;
(2) Ensure that only those operations authorized by the AOC operations specifications
are conducted;
(3) Ensure that an airworthy aircraft properly equipped for the flight is available;
(4) Specify the conditions under which a flight may be dispatched or released (weather
minimums, flight planning, aircraft loading, and fuel requirements;
(5) Ensure that qualified personnel and adequate facilities are available to support and
conduct the flight;
(6) Ensure that crew members are in compliance with the flight and duty time
requirements when departing on a flight;
(7) Provide the PIC and other personnel who perform operational control functions
with access to the necessary information for the safe conduct of a flight (such as
weather, NOTAMS and aerodrome analysis);
(8) Ensure that proper flight planning and preparation is made;
(9) Ensure that flight locating and flight following procedures are followed;

8.12-1
PCAR PART 8
(10) Ensure that each flight has complied with the conditions specified for release
before it is allowed to depart;
(11) Ensure that when the conditions specified for a release cannot be met, the flight
is either cancelled, delayed, re-routed, or diverted;
(12) For all flights, ensure the monitoring of the progress of the flight and the provision
of information that may be necessary to safety; and
(13) Operational instructions involving a change in the ATS flight plan, shall when
practicable, be coordinated with the appropriate ATS unit before transmission to
the aircraft.
Note: See also ICAO Doc 9376, Preparation of an Operations Manual, Chapters
7 and 8.
8.12.1.4 OPERATIONAL CONTROL DUTIES

(a) A flight operations officer/flight dispatcher in conjunction with a method of control and
supervision of flight operations in accordance with Subpart 9.1.1.6 (c) shall:
(1) Assist the PIC in flight preparation and provide the relevant information required;
(2) Assist the PIC in preparing the operational and ATS flight plans;
(3) Sign the dispatch copy of the flight release and file the ATS flight plan with the
appropriate ATS unit;
(4) Furnish the PIC while in flight, by appropriate means, with information which may
be necessary for the safe conduct of the flight; and
(b) A qualified person performing the operational control duties shall avoid taking any
action that would conflict with the procedures established by:
(1) ATC;
(2) The meteorological service;
(3) The communications service; or
(4) The operator.
(c) In the event of an emergency, flight operations officer/flight dispatcher shall:
(1) Initiate the applicable procedures contained in the operator's operations manual
while avoiding taking any action that would conflict with the ATC procedures; and
(2) Convey safety related information to the PIC that may be necessary for the safe
conduct of the flight, including information related to any amendment to the flight
plan that becomes necessary in the course of the flight.
(d) If an emergency situation which endangers the safety of the aircraft or persons
becomes first known to the flight operations officer/flight dispatcher, action by that
person in accordance with (b) above shall include, where necessary, notification to the
appropriate authorities of the nature of the situation without delay, and request for
assistance if required.
Note: See also ICAO Doc 9376, Preparation of an Operations Manual, Chapters 7 and
8.

8.12-2
PCAR PART 8
8.12.1.5 CONTENTS OF A FLIGHT RELEASE/OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLAN

(a) The flight release/operational flight plan must contain at least the following information
concerning each flight:
(1) Company or organization name.
(2) Make, model, and registration number of the aircraft being used.
(3) Flight or trip number, and date of flight.
(4) Name of each flight crew member, cabin crew member, and PIC.
(5) Departure airport/heliport, destination airports/heliports, alternate
airports/heliports, and route.
(6) Minimum fuel supply (in gallons or pounds).
(7) A statement of the type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR).
(8) The latest available weather-reports, and forecasts for the destination
airport/heliport and alternate airports/heliports.
(9) Any additional available weather information that the PIC considers necessary.
Note: See also ICAO Doc 9376, Preparation of an Operations Manual, Chapter 7.
8.12.1.6 FLIGHT RELEASE: AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS

(a) No person may issue a flight release for a commercial air transport operation unless
the aircraft is airworthy and properly equipped for the intended flight operation.
(b) No person may issue a flight release for a commercial air transport operation using an
aircraft with inoperative instruments and equipment installed, except as specified in
the MEL approved for the operator for that type aircraft.
8.12.1.7 FLIGHT RELEASE: FACILITIES AND NOTAMs

(a) No person may release an aircraft over any route or route segment unless there are
adequate communications and navigational facilities in satisfactory operating condition
as necessary to conduct the flight safely.
(b) The flight operations officer shall ensure that the PIC is provided all available current
reports or information on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that
may affect the safety of the flight.
Note: For their review of the operational flight plan, the PIC will be provided with all
available NOTAMs with respect to the routing, facilities and airports.
8.12.1.8 FLIGHT RELEASE: WEATHER REPORTS AND FORECASTS

(a) No person may release a flight unless he or she is thoroughly familiar with reported
and forecast weather conditions on the route to be flown.
(b) No person may release a flight unless he or she has communicated all information and
reservations they may have regarding weather reports and forecasts to the PIC.

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8.12.1.9 FLIGHT RELEASE IN ICING CONDITIONS

(a) No person may release an aircraft, when in their opinion or that of the PIC, the icing
conditions that may be expected or are met exceed that for which the aircraft is certified
and has sufficient operational de-icing or anti-icing equipment.
(b) No person may release an aircraft any time conditions are such that frost, ice or snow
may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft, unless there is the available to
the PIC at the airport/heliport of departure adequate facilities and equipment to
accomplish the procedures approved for the operator by the Authority for ground de-
icing and anti-icing; and the aircraft has been inspected for icing and, if necessary, has
been given appropriate de-icing/anti-icing treatment; and
(c) Accumulation of ice or other naturally occurring contaminants shall be removed so that
the aircraft is kept in an airworthy condition prior to take-off.
8.12.1.10 FLIGHT RELEASE UNDER VFR OR IFR

(a) No person may release a flight under VFR or IFR unless the weather reports and
forecasts indicated that the flight can reasonably be expected to be completed as
specified in the release.
8.12.1.11 FLIGHT RELEASE: MINIMUM FUEL SUPPLY

(a) No person may issue a flight release for a commercial air transport operation unless
the fuel supply specified in the release is equivalent to or greater than the minimum
flight planning requirements of this Part, including anticipated contingencies.
8.12.1.12 FLIGHT RELEASE: AIRCRAFT LOADING AND PERFORMANCE

(a) No person may issue a flight release unless he or she is familiar with the anticipated
loading of the aircraft and is reasonably certain that the proposed operation will not
exceed the
(1) Centre of gravity limits:
(2) Aircraft operating limitations; and
(3) Minimum performance requirements.
8.12.1.13 FLIGHT RELEASE: AMENDMENT OR RE-RELEASE EN ROUTE

(a) Each person who amends a flight release while the flight is en route shall record that
amendment.
(b) No person may amend the original flight release to change the destination or alternate
airport while the aircraft is en route unless the flight preparation requirements for
routing, airport selection and minimum fuel supply are met at the time of amendment
or re-release.
(c) No person may allow a flight to continue to an airport to which it has been released if
the weather reports and forecasts indicate changes which would render that airport
unsuitable for the original flight release.

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8.12.1.14 FLIGHT RELEASE WITH AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR EQUIPMENT

(a) No person may release a large aircraft carrying passengers under IFR or night VFR
conditions when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms, or other
potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected with airborne weather
radar, may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the airborne
weather radar equipment is in satisfactory operating condition.

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8.13 SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM – INTERNATIONAL GENERAL

AVIATION OPERATORS
(a) International general aviation operators shall implement an SMS that meets the criteria
established by the State of Registry when conducting operations with:
(1) An airplane with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 5 700 kg;
(2) An airplane equipped with one or more turbojet engines; or
(3) An airplane with a seating configuration of more than nine passenger seats.
(b) The SMS shall be acceptable to the Authority and shall:
(1) Meet the criteria established by the State of Registry;
(2) Address the SMS framework and elements prescribed in PCAR Part 1; I.S. 1.5;
and
(3) Be commensurate with the size and complexity of the operation.
Note 1: Guidance on the implementation of an SMS for international general
aviation is contained in ICAO Doc 9859, Safety Management Manual (SMM), and
in industry codes of practice.

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PART 8: IS
OPERATIONS:

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IS: 8.2.1.5 INOPERATIVE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

(a) This implementing standard authorizes flight operations with inoperative instruments
and equipment installed in situations where no master minimum equipment list (MMEL)
is available and no MEL is required for the specific aircraft operation under these
regulations.
(b) The inoperative instruments and equipment may not be
(1) Part of the VFR-day instruments and equipment prescribed in Part 7;
(2) Required on the aircraft's equipment list or the operations equipment list for the
kind of flight operation being conducted;
(3) Required by Part 7 for the specific kind of flight operation being conducted, or
(4) Required to be operational by an airworthiness directive.
(c) To be eligible for these provisions, the inoperative instruments and equipment shall be
(1) Determined by the PIC not to be a hazard to safe operation;
(2) Deactivated and placarded Inoperative; and
Note: If deactivation of the inoperative instrument or equipment involves
maintenance, it must be accomplished and recorded in accordance with Part 5.
(3) Removed from the aircraft, the flight deck control placarded and the maintenance
recorded in accordance with Part 5.
Note: The required instruments and equipment for specific operations are listed in
Part 7.
IS: 8.5.1.26 GUIDELINES/PROCEDURES ON THE USE OF TRANSMITTING

PORTABLE ELECTRONIC DEVICE ON BOARD THE AIRCRAFT
(a) The Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines allows the use of transmitting portable
electronic devices specifically laptops and cellular phone including MP3 and
GSMOBA, on a conditional basis, on all commercial aircraft operating within or enroute
over the territorial jurisdiction of the Republic of the Philippines.
(b) The conditions and limitations are:
(1) When the aircraft doors are still open. Use of laptops and cellular phone may
be used, internet or short-message-service (SMS) or voice communications,
unless the Pilot-In-Command and or Senior Cabin Crew would specifically
announce on the public address system (PAS) its prohibition. In no case shall
laptop using broadband communications and cellular phone be allowed or used
when the aircraft is re-fuelling. In this instance, all transmitting portable electronic
devices must be turned-off.
(2) When the aircraft doors are closed. Transmitting portable electronics devices,
on silent mode, may be used only for short-message-service (SMS) or internet.
Voice communications are not allowed except the use of GSMOBA provided its
use does not interfere with the orderly conduct of flight. Games on electronic
devices on silent mode may be played.
(3) The use of MP3’s should always be with earphones and not with additional or
separate speaker and or amplifiers.
(c) All Philippine-registered commercial airlines/operator shall submit, for CAAP approval,
the page or pages of these revised Operations Manual containing the
Amendment 06 30 June 2014

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(d) procedures and guidelines including restriction in the implementation of this

regulations.
(e) Notwithstanding, any person who uses PTED’s, MP3’s and GSMOBA that interfere
with the orderly and safe conduct of air travel shall be proceeded with against under
the provisions of Republic Act Number 9497 or related laws.
(f) Transitory Provision. Pending CAAP approval of the amended ‘operation manual’ of
Philippine’ registered airline/operator incorporating the guidelines, procedures and
restrictions for conditions use of transmitting portable electronic devices, MP3’s, and
GSMOBA, all persons shall observe the provisions of Paragraph (b) of the
Implementing Standards of this regulations.
IS: 8.8.1.7 INSTRUMENT APPROACH OPERATING MINIMA

(a) Each Operator establishing airport/heliport-operating minima shall have its method for
determining such minima approved by the Authority.
(b) Each Operator's method for determining airport/heliport-operating minima which will
apply to any particular operation, shall accurately account for:
(1) the type, performance and handling characteristics of the aircraft;
(2) the composition of the flight crew, their competence and experience;
(3) the dimensions and characteristics of the runways selected for use;
(4) the adequacy and performance of the available visual and non-visual ground aids;
(5) the equipment available on the aircraft for the purpose of navigation acquisition of
visual references and/or control of flight path during the approach, landing and the
missed approach;
(6) the obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas and the obstacle
clearance altitude/height for the intended instrument approach procedures;
(7) the means used to determine and report meteorological conditions; and
(8) the obstacles in the climb-out areas and the necessary clearance margins;
(9) the declared distances, for helicopters.
IS: 8.8.1.9 CATEGORY II AND III MANUAL

(a) Application for approval. An applicant for approval of a Category II manual or an
amendment to an approved Category II manual shall submit the proposed manual or
amendment to the Authority. If the application requests an evaluation program, it shall
(1) The location of the aircraft and the place where the demonstrations are to be
conducted; and
(2) The date the demonstrations are to commence (at least 10 days after filing the
application).
(b) Contents. Each Category II manual must contain:
(1) The registration number, make, and model of the aircraft to which it applies;
(2) A maintenance program; and

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(3) The procedures and instructions related to recognition of DH, use of runway visual
range (RVR) information, approach monitoring, the decision region (the region
between the middle marker and the decision height), the maximum permissible
deviations of the basic ILS indicator within the decision region, a missed approach,
use of airborne low approach equipment, minimum altitude for the use of the
autopilot, instrument and equipment failure warning systems, instrument failure,
and other procedures, instructions, and limitations that may be found necessary by
the Authority.
Note: Category II approval is required to prior to obtaining Category III approval.
IS: 8.8.1.28 INTERCEPTION OF CIVIL AIRCRAFT

(a) All concerned in Republic of the Philippines shall observe the following principles
regarding the interception of civil aircraft.
(1) Interception of civil aircraft will be undertaken only as a last resort.
(2) If undertaken, an interception will be limited to determining the identity of the
aircraft, unless it is necessary to return the aircraft to its planned track, direct it
beyond the boundaries of national airspace, guide it away from a prohibited,
restricted or danger area or instruct it to effect a landing at a designated aerodrome.
(3) Practice interception of civil aircraft will not be undertaken.
(4) Navigational guidance and related information will be given to an intercepted
aircraft by radiotelephony, whenever radio contact can be established.
(5) In the case where an intercepted civil aircraft is required to land in the territory over-
flown, the aerodrome designated for the landing is to be suitable for the safe
landing of the aircraft type concerned.
Note: In the unanimous adoption by the 25th Session (Extraordinary) of the ICA0
Assembly on 10 May 1984 of Article 3-Bis to the Convention on International Civil
Aviation, the Contracting States have recognized that "every State must refrain
from resorting to the use of weapons against civil aircraft in flight."
(b) All concerned in Republic of the Philippines shall ensure that:
(1) A standard method has been established and made available to the public for the
maneuvering of aircraft intercepting a civil aircraft that is designed to avoid any
hazard for the intercepted aircraft.
(2) Provision is made for the use of secondary surveillance radar, where available, to
identify civil aircraft in areas where they may be subject to interception.
(c) The PIC of an aircraft that is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately:
(1) Follow the instructions given by the intercepting aircraft, interpreting and
responding to visual signals in accordance with the specifications in item (e) below.
(2) Notify, if possible, the appropriate air traffic services unit.
(3) Attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the
appropriate intercept control unit. By making a general call on the emergency
frequency 121.5 MHz, giving the identity of the intercepted aircraft and the nature
of the flight; and if no contact has been established and if practicable, repeating
this call on the emergency frequency 243 MHz.
(4) If equipped with SSR transponder, select Mode A Code 7700, unless otherwise
instructed by the appropriate air traffic services unit.

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(d) If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the
intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the PIC of the intercepted aircraft shall request
immediate clarification while continuing to comply with the visual instructions given by
the intercepting aircraft.
(e) If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the
intercepting aircraft by radio, the PIC of the intercepted aircraft shall request immediate
clarification while continuing to comply with the radio instructions given by the
intercepting aircraft.
(f) Radio communication during interception. If radio contact is established during
interception but communication in a common language is not possible, the PIC of each
involved aircraft shall attempt to convey instructions, acknowledgement of instructions
and essential at information by using the phrases and pronunciations in the table below
and transmitting each phrase twice:
(g) Radio communication during interception
(1) If radio contact is established during interception but communication in a common
language is not possible. attempts shall be made to convey instructions,
acknowledgement of instructions and essential at information by using the phrases
and pronunciations in the table below and transmitting each phrase twice:
Phrases for use by INTERCEPTING aircraft Phrases for use by INTERCEPTED aircraft
Phrase Pronunciation Meaning Phrase Pronunciation Meaning
CALL SIGN KOL SA-IN What is your call CALL SIGN KOL SA-IN My call sign is (call sign)
sign?
(Call sign)2 (Call sign)
WILCO VILL-KO Understood
FOLLOW FOL-LO Follow me
Will comply
DESCEND DEE-SEND Descend for landing
CAN NOT KANN NOTT Unable to comply
YOU LAND YOU LAAND Land at this airport
REPEAT REE-PEET Repeat your instruction
PROCEED PRO-SEED You may proceed
AM LOST AM LOSST Position unknown
MAYDAY MAYDAY I am in distress
HIJACK3 HI-JACK I have been hijacked
LAND LAAND I request to land at
(place name) (place name) (place name)
DESCEND DEE-SEND I require descent
1. In the second column, syllables to be emphasized are underlined.

2. The call sign required to be given is used in radiotelephone, communications with air
traffic services units and corresponding to the aircraft identification in the flight plan.
3. Circumstances may not always permit, nor make desirable, the use of the phrase
“HIJACK”.
(h) The following signals shall be used in the event of interception.

(1) Signals initiated by intercepting aircraft and responses by intercepted aircraft.
Series INTERCEPTING Aircraft Signals Meaning INTERCEPTED Aircraft Meaning
Responds
1 DAY or NIGHT—Rocking aircraft and You have DAY or NIGHT - Rocking Understood,
flashing navigational lights at been aircraft, flashing will comply.
irregular intervals (and landing lights intercepted. navigational lights at
in the case of a helicopter) from a Follow me.

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position slightly above and ahead of, irregular intervals and

and normally to the left of, the following.
intercepted aircraft (or to the right if
the intercepted aircraft is a
helicopter) and, after
acknowledgement, a slow level turn,
normally to the left, (or to the right in
the case of a helicopter) on the
desired heading.
Note 1. —Meteorological conditions

or terrain may require the intercepting
aircraft to reverse the positions and
direction of turn given above in
Series 1.
Note 2. —If the intercepting aircraft is

not able to keep pace with the
intercepting aircraft, the latter is
expected to fly a series of race-track
patterns and to rock the aircraft each
time it passes the intercepted aircraft.
2 DAY or NIGHT —An abrupt break- You may DAY or NIGHT - Rocking Understood,
away maneuver from the proceed the aircraft. will comply.
intercepted aircraft consisting of a
climbing turn of 90 degrees or
more without crossing the line of
flight of the intercepted aircraft.
3 DAY or NIGHT —Lowering landing Land at this DAY or NIGHT - Lowering Understood,
gear (if fitted), showing Airport. landing gear (if will comply.
steady landing lights and overflying fitted), showing steady
runway in use or, if the landing lights and
intercepted aircraft is a helicopter, following the intercepting
overflying the helicopter landing area. aircraft and, if, after
In the case of helicopters, the overflying the runway in
intercepting helicopter makes a use or helicopter landing
landing approach, coming to hover area. Landing is
hear to the landing area considered safe,
proceeding to land.
(2) Signals initiated by intercepted aircraft and responses by intercepting aircraft.
Series INTERCEPTING Aircraft Signals Meaning INTERCEPTED Aircraft Meaning

Responds
4 DAY or NIGHT—Raising landing Airport you DAY or NIGHT – If it is Understood,
gear (if fitted) and flashing landing have desired that the Follow me.
lights while passing over runway in designated intercepted aircraft follow
use or helicopter landing area at a is the intercepting
height exceeding 300 m (1,000 ft) but inadequate. aircraft to an alternate
not exceeding 600 m (2000 ft) (in the airport, the intercepting
case of a helicopter, at a height aircraft raises its landing
exceeding 50 m (170 ft) but not gear (if fitted) and uses the
exceeding 100 m (330 ft) above the Series 1 signals prescribed
airport level, and continuing to circle for intercepting aircraft.
runway in use or helicopter landing
area. If unable to flash landing lights. If it is decided to release Understood,
flash any other lights available. the intercepted you may

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aircraft, the intercepting proceed.

aircraft uses the Series 2
signals prescribed for
intercepting aircraft.
5 DAY or NIGHT—Regular switching

on and off of all available lights but in DAY or NIGHT – Uses
Can not Understood.
such a manner as to be distinct from Series 2 signals prescribed
comply.
flashing lights. DAY or NIGHT — for intercepting aircraft.
Irregular flashing of all available
lights.
6 DAY or NIGHT – Irregular flashing of In distress. DAY or NIGHT – Uses
all available lights. Series 2 signals prescribed Understood.
for intercepting aircraft.
IS: 8.8.2.11 UNIVERSAL AVIATION SIGNALS

(a) Distress signals. The following signals used, either together or separately, mean that
grave and imminent danger threatens, and immediate assistance is requested:
Note 1: None of the provisions in this section shall prevent the use, by an aircraft in
distress, of any means at its disposal to attract attention, make known its position and
obtain help.
Note 2: For full details of telecommunication transmission procedures for the distress
and urgency signals, see ICAO Annex 10, Volume II, Chapter 5.
Note 3: For details of the search and rescue visual signals, see ICAO Annex 12.
(1) A signal made by radiotelegraphy or by any other signaling method consisting of
the group SOS (• • • — — — • • • in the Morse Code);
(2) A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY;
(3) Rockets or shells throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals;
(4) A parachute flare showing a red light.
Note: Article 41 of the ITU Radio Regulations (Nos. 3268, 3270 and 3271 refer)
provides information on the alarm signals for actuating radiotelegraph and
radiotelephone auto-alarm systems: 3268 The radiotelegraph alarm signal consists
of a series of twelve dashes sent in one minute, the duration of each dash being
four seconds and the duration of the interval between consecutive dashes one
second. It may be transmitted by hand but its transmission by means of an
automatic instrument is recommended. 3270 The radiotelephone alarm signal
consists of two substantially sinusoidal audio frequency tones transmitted
alternately. One tone shall have a frequency of 2,200 Hz and the other a frequency
of 1,300 Hz, the duration of each tone being 250 milliseconds. 3271 The
radiotelephone alarm signal, when generated by automatic means, shall be sent
continuously for a period of at least thirty seconds but not exceeding one minute;
when generated by other means, the signal shall be sent as continuously as
practicable over a period of approximately one minute.
(b) The following signals used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft wishes
to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate
assistance:
(1) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights; or
(2) The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights in such manner as to be
distinct from flashing navigation lights.

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(c) The following signals used, either together or separately, mean that an aircraft has a
very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other
vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight:
(1) A signal made by radiotelegraphy or by any other signaling method consisting of
the group XXX.
(2) A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN, PAN.
(d) Visual signals used to warn an unauthorized aircraft. By day and by night, a series of
projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds, each showing, on
bursting, red and green lights or stars will indicate to an unauthorized aircraft that it is
flying in or about to enter a restricted, prohibited, or danger area, and that the aircraft
is to take such remedial action as may be necessary.
(e) Signals for airport traffic. Airport controllers shall use and pilots shall obey the following
light and pyrotechnic signals:

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(f) Pilots shall acknowledge aerodrome controller signals as follows:

(1) When in flight—
(i) During the hours of daylight by rocking the aircraft's wings.
Note: This signal should not be expected on the base and final legs of the
approach.
(ii) During the hours of darkness by flashing on and off twice the aircraft's landing
lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights.
(2) When on the ground—
(i) During the hours of daylight by moving the aircraft's ailerons or rudder.
(ii) During the hours of darkness by flashing on and off twice the aircraft's landing
lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights.
(g) Aerodrome authorities shall use the following visual ground signals during the following
situations:

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Note 1: The meaning of the relevant signals remains the same if bats, illuminated
wands or torch-lights are held.
Note 2: The aircraft engines are numbered, for the signalman facing the aircraft,
from right to left (i.e. No. 1 engine being the port outer engine).

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Note 3: Signals marked with an asterisk are designed for use to hovering
helicopters.
(2) Prior to using the following signals, the signalman shall ascertain that the area
within which an aircraft is to be guided is clear of objects which the aircraft might
otherwise strike.
Note: The design of many aircraft is such that the path of the wing tips, engines
and other extremities cannot always be monitored visually from the flight deck
while the aircraft is being maneuvered on the ground.
(3) Upon observing or receiving any of the signals given in below (as shown in
Appendix 1 of Annex 2), aircraft shall take such action as may be required by the
interpretation of the signal given in that Appendix. These signals shall, when used,
have the meaning indicated therein. They shall be used only for the purpose
indicated and no other signals likely to be confused with them shall be used.
(4) A signalman shall be responsible for providing standard marshalling signals to
aircraft in a clear and precise manner using the signals shown below.
(5) No person shall guide an aircraft unless trained, qualified and approved by the
appropriate authority to carry out the functions of a signalman.
(6) The signalman shall wear a distinctive fluorescent identification vest to allow the
flight crew to identify that he or she is the person responsible for the marshalling
operation.
(7) Daylight-fluorescent wands, table-tennis bats or gloves shall be used for all
signaling by all participating ground staff during daylight hours. Illuminated wands
shall be used at night or in low visibility.

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(i) Signals from the pilot of an aircraft to a signalman.

(1) The PIC or Co-Pilot shall use the following signals when communicating with a
signalman:
Note: These signals are designed for use by a pilot in the cockpit with hands plainly
visible to the signalman, and illuminated as necessary to facilitate observation by
the signalman.
Note: The aircraft engines are numbered in relation to the signalman facing the
aircraft, from right to left (i.e. No. I engine being the port outer engine).
(2) Brakes engaged: raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front
of face, then clench fist.
(3) Brakes released: raise arm, with fist clenched, horizontally in front of face, then
extend fingers.
Note: The moment the fist is clenched or the fingers are extended indicates,
respectively, the moment of brake engagement or release.
(4) Insert chocks: arms extended, palms outwards, move hands inwards to cross in
front of face.
(5) Remove chocks: hands crossed in front of face, palms outwards, move arms
outwards.
(6) Ready to start engine(s). Raise the appropriate number of fingers on one hand
indicating the number of the engine to be started.
IS: 8.8.3.4 TABLE OF CRUISING LEVELS

(a) The cruising levels at which a flight or a portion of a flight is to be conducted shall be
in terms of:
(1) Flight levels, for flights at or above the lowest usable flight level or, where
applicable, above the transition altitude;
(2) Altitudes, for flights below the lowest usable flight level or, where applicable, at or
below the transition altitude.
(b) The PIC shall observe the following cruising levels in areas where, on the basis of
regional air navigation agreement and in accordance with conditions specified therein,
a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 m (1,000 ft) is applied between FL 290
and FL 410 inclusive.*
(c) Except where otherwise indicated in air traffic control clearances or specified by the
appropriate ATS authority, VFR flights in level cruising flight when operated above 900
m (3,000 ft) from the ground or water, or a higher datum as specified by the appropriate
ATS authority, shall be conducted at a cruising level appropriate to the track as
specified in the following tables of cruising levels (as in Appendix 3 of Annex 2).

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IS: 8.8.4.6 AUTO-LAND IN CATEGORY I OR BETTER WEATHER CONDITIONS

(a) Some operators may wish to seek an approval from the Authority to perform automatic
landings in Category I or better weather conditions for training purpose or to record
data for operational demonstration/evaluation, or even at crew discretion.
(b) Following guidance will be useful for the operators to consider before processing such
requests:
(1) The airport requirements:
The successful demonstration of Automatic Landing System (ALS) performance
has been a part of type certification of Category II and Category III ILS quality
beam, however, it has not been done in case of ILS Category I ILS quality beam.
An automatic landing on Category I ILS quality beam is possible, provided an
operator confirms the following:
(i) The quality of electronic signal (ILS Category I quality beam) is capable of
providing satisfactory guidance below 200 feet;
(ii) The terrain profile before the runway threshold does not affect the ALS
performance; and
(iii) The electronic signal (e.g.: ILS Category I quality beam) sensitive areas need
to be protected before an automatic landing is considered to be performed.
(iv) The proposed automatic landing procedure shall be proven at each individual
runway, before that runway in included in the authorization list.
(2) Crew training and authorization: establish the operator standards to authorize pilots
for automatic landings.
(3) Crew procedures:
(i) An operator must establish procedures and techniques similar to Category II
and III operations.
(ii) Visual cues must be obtained at the applicable DA, or a go-around must be
performed.
(iii) The crew must be warned that fluctuations on the Localizer or Glide Slope
signal may occur, and in such case an immediate go-around and
disconnection/discontinuation of auto-pilot are necessary.
(iv) The Operations Manual contains crew procedures and list of runways wherein
Category I or better weather conditions automatic landings are authorized.
(v) The ALS is not considered safe when the critical area protection is not assured
by the ATC.
(vi) An operator must provide objective instructions to the flight crew, i.e.: when in
visual contact with the runway, automatic landing or take-over manually or to
go-around.
(4) Limitations: Automatic landing must be approved in the Aircraft Flight Manual
(AFM). At least Category II capability must be displayed on FMA. The AFM
limitations must be observed, including: glide slope angle, airport elevation, flap
configuration, wind limits, and the required equipment for Category II must be
operative.

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IS: 8.10.1.9 COMPANY PROCEDURES INDOCTRINATION

(a) Each Operator shall ensure that all operations personnel are provided company
indoctrination training that covers the following areas:
(1) Operator's organization, scope of operation, and administrative practices as
applicable to their assignments and duties.
(2) Appropriate provisions of these regulations and other applicable regulations and
guidance materials.
(3) Contents of the Operator’s certificate and operations specifications (not required
for cabin crew).
(4) Operator policies and procedures.
(5) Crew member and flight operations officer duties and responsibilities.
(6) Operator testing program for alcohol and narcotic psychoactive substances.
(7) Applicable crew member manuals.
(8) Appropriate portions of the Operator's Operations Manual.
(9) For flight crew members in airplanes, upset prevention training elements as
specified in IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX C.
IS: 8.10.1.10 INITIAL DANGEROUS GOODS TRAINING

(a) Each Operator shall establish, maintain and have approved by the Authority, staff
training programs commensurate with their responsibilities, as required by the
Technical Instructions.
(1) General familiarization training: which must be aimed at providing familiarity with
the general provisions;
(2) Function-specific training: which must provide detailed training in the requirement
applicable to the function for which that person is responsible; and
(3) Safety training: which must cover hazards presented by the dangerous goods, safe
handling and emergency response procedures.
(b) A test must be given to verify understanding of the regulations must be undertaken
following training. Confirmation that the test has been completed satisfactorily is
required and record should be made available to the Authority.
(c) Each Operator not holding a permanent approval to carry dangerous goods shall
ensure that:
(1) Staff who are engaged in general cargo handling have received training to carry
out their duties in respect of dangerous goods. At a minimum this training shall
cover the areas identified in Column 1 of Table 1 and be to a depth sufficient to
ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous
goods and how to identify such goods; and
(2) Crew members, passenger handling staff, and security staff employed by the
Operator who deal with the screening of a passengers and their baggage, have
received training which, at a minimum shall cover the areas identified in Column 2
of Table 1 and be to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the
hazards associated with dangerous goods, how to identify them and what
requirements apply to the carriage of such goods by passengers.

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(d) Each Operator holding a permanent approval to carry dangerous goods shall ensure
that:
(1) Personnel engaged in the acceptance of dangerous goods have received training
and are qualified to carry out their duties. At a minimum, this training shall cover
the areas identified in Column 1 of Table 2 and be to a depth sufficient to ensure
the staff can take decisions on the acceptance or refusal of dangerous goods
offered for carriage by air;
(2) Personnel engaged in ground handling, storage and loading of dangerous goods
have received training to enable them to carry out their duties in respect of
dangerous goods. At a minimum, this training shall cover the areas identified in
Column 2 of Table 2 and be to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is
gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods, how to identify such
goods and how to handle and load them;
(3) Personnel engaged in general cargo handling have received training to enable
them to carry out their duties in respect of dangerous goods. At a minimum, this
training shall cover the areas identified in Column 3 of Table 2 and be to a depth
sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with
dangerous goods; how to identify such goods and how to handle and load them;
(4) Flight crew members have received training which, at a minimum, shall cover the
areas identified in Column 4 of Table 2. Training shall be to a depth sufficient to
goods and how they should be carried on an airplane; and
(5) Passenger handling staff; security staff employed by the operator who deal with
the screening of passengers and their baggage; and crew members (other than
flight crew members) have received training which, at a minimum, shall cover the
areas identified in Column 5 of Table 2. Training shall be to a depth sufficient to
goods and what requirements apply to the carriage of such goods by passengers
or, more generally, their carriage on an airplane.
(e) Each Operator shall ensure that all personnel who require dangerous goods training
receive recurrent training at intervals of not longer than 2 years.
(f) Each Operator shall ensure that records of dangerous goods training are maintained
for all personnel required such training and that these records are maintained at the
location where the personnel perform such duties.

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(g) Each Operator shall ensure that its handling agent's staff is trained in accordance with
the applicable column of Table 1 or Table 2.
(h) An Operator shall provide dangerous goods training manuals which contain adequate
procedures and information to assist personnel in identifying packages marked or
labeled as containing hazardous materials including-
(1) Instructions on the acceptance, handling, and carriage of hazardous materials;
(2) Instructions governing the determination of proper shipping names and hazard
classes;
(3) Packaging, labeling, and marking requirements;
(4) Requirements for shipping papers, compatibility requirements, loading, storage,
and handling requirements; and
(5) Restrictions.
IS: 8.10.1.12 INITIAL CREW RESOURCE MANAGEMENT TRAINING

(a) Each Operator shall ensure that the flight operations officer and all aircraft crew
members have CRM training as part of their initial and recurrent training requirements.
(b) A CRM training program shall include
(1) An initial indoctrination/awareness segment;
(2) A method to provide recurrent practice and feedback; and
(3) A method of providing continuing reinforcement.
(c) Curriculum topics to be contained in an initial CRM training course include
(1) Communications processes and decision behavior;

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(2) Internal and external influences on interpersonal communications;

(3) Barriers to communication;
(4) Listening skills;
(5) Decision making skills;
(6) Effective briefings;
(7) Developing open communications;
(8) Inquiry, advocacy, and assertion training;
(9) Crew self-critique;
(10) Conflict resolution;
(11) Team building and maintenance;
(12) Leadership and fellowship training;
(13) Interpersonal relationships;
(14) Workload management;
(15) Situational awareness;
(16) How to prepare, plan and monitor task completions;
(17) Workload distribution;
(18) Distraction avoidance;
(19) Individual factors; and
(20) Stress reduction.
IS: 8.10.1.13 INITIAL EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT DRILLS

(a) Each aircraft crew member shall accomplish emergency training during the specified
training periods. using those items of installed emergency equipment for each type of
airplane in which he or she is to serve:
(b) During initial training, each aircraft crew member shall perform the following one-time
emergency drills
(1) Protective Breathing Equipment/Firefighting Drill:
(i) Locate source of fire or smoke (actual or simulated fire)
(ii) Implement procedures for effective crew co-ordination and communication,
including notification of flight crew members about fire situation.
(iii) Don and activate installed PBE or approved PBE simulation device.
(iv) Maneuver in limited space with reduced visibility.
(v) Effectively use the aircraft's communication system.
(vi) Identify class of fire.
(vii) Select the appropriate extinguisher.
(viii) Properly remove extinguisher from securing device.
(ix) Prepare, operate and discharge extinguisher properly.
(x) Utilize correct firefighting techniques for type of fire.

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(2) Emergency Evacuation Drill:

(i) Recognize and evaluate an emergency.
(ii) Assume appropriate protective position.
(iii) Command passengers to assume protective position.
(iv) Implement crew co-ordination procedures.
(v) Ensure activation of emergency lights.
(vi) Assess aircraft conditions.
(vii) Initiate evacuation (dependent on signal or decision).
(viii) Command passengers to release seatbelts and evacuate.
(ix) Assess exit and redirect, if necessary; to open exit, including deploying slides
and commanding helpers to assist.
(x) Command passengers to evacuate at exit and run away from aircraft.
(xi) Assist special need passengers, such as handicapped, elderly, and persons in
a state of panic.
(xii) Actually exit aircraft or training device using at least one of the installed
emergency evacuation slides.
Note: The crew member may either observe the airplane exits being opened in
the emergency mode and the associated exit slide/raft pack being deployed
and inflated, or perform the tasks resulting in the accomplishment of these
actions
(c) Each aircraft crew member shall accomplish additional emergency drills during initial
and recurrent training, including performing the following emergency drills
(1) Emergency Evacuation Drill:
(i) Correctly pre-flight each type of emergency exit and evacuation slide or slide-
raft (if part of cabin crew's assigned duties).
(ii) Disarm and open each type of door exit in normal mode.
(iii) Close each type of door exit in normal mode.
(iv) Arm of each type of door exit in emergency mode.
(v) Opening each type of door exit in emergency mode.
(vi) Use manual slide inflation system to accomplish or ensure slide or slide-raft
inflation.
(vii) Open each type of window exit.
(viii) Remove escape rope and position for use.
(2) Hand Fire Extinguisher Drill:
(i) Pre-flight each type of hand fire extinguisher.
(ii) Locate source of fire or smoke and identify class of fire.
(iii) Select appropriate extinguisher and remove from securing device.
(iv) Prepare extinguisher for use.
(v) Actually operate and discharge each type of installed hand fire extinguisher.
Note: Fighting an actual or a simulated fire is not necessary during this drill.

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(vi) Utilize correct firefighting techniques for type of fire.

(vii) Implement procedures for effective crew co-ordination and communication,
including notification of crew members about the type of fire situation.
(3) Emergency Oxygen System Drill:
(i) Actually operate portable oxygen bottles, including masks and tubing.
(ii) Verbally demonstrate operation of chemical oxygen generators.
(iii) Prepare for use and operate oxygen device properly, including donning and
activation.
(iv) Administer oxygen to self, passengers, and to those persons with special
oxygen needs.
(v) Utilize proper procedures for effective crew co-ordination and communication.
(vi) Activate PBE.
(vii) Manually open each type of oxygen mask compartment and deploy oxygen
masks.
(viii) Identify compartments with extra oxygen masks.
(ix) Implement immediate action decompression procedures.
(x) Reset oxygen system, if applicable.
(xi) Preflight and operation of PBE.
(xii) Activate PBE.
Note: Several operators equip their aircraft with approved PBE units that have
approved storage pouches fastened with two (2) metal staples at one end.
However, considerations of practicality and cost compel operators to use a less
durable storage pouch that lacks the staple fasteners for training purposes. As
a result, pilots and cabin crew members have been surprised that opening the
pouch furnished on board requires more force than opening the training pouch.
The Authority should require crew member training that includes the
appropriate procedures for operating PBE. In those cases where pouches with
staples are used for storage of the PBE unit, special emphasis in training
should highlight the difference between the training pouch and the onboard
pouch. The training pouch maybe easy to open, but the approved, onboard
pouch may require as much as 28 pounds of force to overcome the two (2)
staple fasteners.
(4) Flotation Device Drill:
(i) Pre-flight floatation device, if appropriate.
(ii) Don and inflate life vests.
(iii) Remove and use flotation seat cushions.
(iv) Demonstrate swimming techniques using a seat cushion.
(5) Ditching Drill, if applicable:
Note: During a ditching drill students shall perform the "prior to impact" and "after
impact" procedures for a ditching as appropriate to the specific operator's type of
operation.
(i) Implement crew co-ordination procedures, including briefing with captain to
obtain pertinent ditching information and briefing flight attendants.

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(ii) Co-ordinate time frame for cabin and passenger preparation.

(iii) Adequately brief passengers on ditching procedures.
(iv) Ensure cabin is prepared, including the securing of carry-on baggage,
lavatories, and galleys.
(v) Demonstrate how to properly deploy and inflate slide rafts.
(vi) Demonstrate how to properly deploy and inflate life-rafts, if applicable.
(vii) Remove, position, and attach slide rafts to aircraft.
(viii) Inflate rafts.
(ix) Use escape ropes at over-wing exits.
(x) Command helpers to assist.
(xi) Use slides and seat cushions as flotation devices.
(xii) Remove appropriate emergency equipment from aircraft.
(xiii) Board rafts properly.
(xiv) Initiate raft management procedures (i.e., Disconnecting rafts from aircraft,
applying immediate first aid, rescuing persons in water, salvaging floating
rations and equipment, deploying sea anchor, tying rafts together, activating
or ensuring operation of emergency locator transmitter).
(xv) Initiate basic survival procedures (i.e., Removing and utilizing survival kit
items, repairing and maintaining raft, ensuring protection from exposure,
erecting canopy, communicating location, providing continued first aid,
providing sustenance).
(xvi) Use heaving line to rescue persons in water.
(xvii) Tie slide-rafts or rafts together.
(xviii) Use life line on edge of slide raft or raft as a handhold.
(xix) Secure survival kit items.
(d) Each aircraft crew member shall accomplish additional emergency drill requirements
during initial and recurrent training including observing the following emergency drills:
(1) Life raft Removal and Inflation Drill, if applicable:
(i) Removal of a life raft from the aircraft or training device.
(ii) Inflation of a life raft.
(2) Slide raft Transfer Drill:
(i) Transfer of each type of slide raft pack from an unusable door to a usable door.
(ii) Disconnect slide raft at unusable door.
(iii) Redirect passengers to usable slide raft.
(iv) Installation and deployment of slide raft at usable door.
(3) Slide and Slide raft Deployment, Inflation, and Detachment Drill:
(i) Engage slide girt bar in floor brackets.
(ii) Arm slide for automatic inflation.
(iii) Inflate slides with and without quick-release handle (manually and
automatically).

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(iv) Disconnecting slide from aircraft for use as a flotation device.

(v) Arm slide rafts for automatic inflation.
(vi) Disconnecting slide raft from the aircraft.
(4) Emergency Evacuation Slide Drill:
(i) Open armed exit with slide or slide raft deployment and inflation.
(ii) Egress from aircraft via the evacuation slide and run away to a safe distance.
IS: 8.10.1.14 (b) INITIAL AIRCRAFT GROUND TRAINING - FLIGHT CREW

(a) Each Operator shall have an initial aircraft ground training curriculum for the flight crew
applicable to their duties, the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown.
Instructions shall include at least the following general subjects
(1) Operator's dispatch, flight release, or flight locating procedures.
(2) Principles and methods for determining mass and balance, and runway limitations
for takeoff.
(3) Operator’s operations specifications, authorizations and limitations.
(4) Adverse weather recognition and avoidance, and flight procedures which shall be
followed when operating in the following conditions:
(i) Icing.
(ii) Fog.
(iii) Turbulence.
(iv) Heavy precipitation.
(v) Thunderstorms.
(vi) Low-level wind-shear and micro-burst.
(vii) Low visibility.
(viii) Contaminated runway.
(5) Normal and emergency communications procedures and navigation equipment
including the Operator's communications procedures and ATC clearance
requirements;
(6) Navigation procedures used in area departure, en route, area arrival, approach and
landing phases;
(7) Approved crew resource management training;
(8) Air traffic control systems, procedures, and phraseology;
(9) Aircraft performance characteristics during all flight regimes, including:
(i) The use of charts, tables, tabulated data and other related manual information
(ii) Normal, abnormal, and emergency performance problems.
(iii) Meteorological and mass limiting performance factors (such as temperature,
pressure, contaminated runways, precipitation, climb/runway limits).
(iv) Inoperative equipment performance limiting factors (such as MEL/CDL,
inoperative antiskid).

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(v) Special operational conditions (such as unpaved runways, high altitude airports
and drift down requirements).
(10) Normal, abnormal and emergency procedures on the aircraft type to be used.
(b) Each Operator shall have an initial aircraft ground training curriculum for the flight crew
applicable to their duties, the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown, including
at least the following aircraft systems (if applicable):
(1) Aircraft:
(i) Aircraft dimensions, turning radius, panel layouts, cockpit and cabin
configurations.
(ii) Other major systems and components or appliances of the aircraft.
(iii) Operating limitations.
(iv) Approved aircraft flight manual.
(2) Power units:
(i) Basic engine description.
(ii) Engine thrust ratings.
(iii) Engine components such as accessory drives, ignition, oil, fuel control,
hydraulic, and bleed air features.
(3) Electrical.
(i) Sources of aircraft electrical power (engine driven generators, APU generator,
and external power);
(ii) Electrical buses;
(iii) Circuit breakers;
(iv) Aircraft battery; and
(v) Standby power systems.
(4) Hydraulic.
(i) Hydraulic reservoirs, pumps, accumulators; filters, check valves, interconnects
and actuators; and
(ii) Other hydraulically operated components.
(5) Fuel.
(i) Fuel tanks (location and quantities);
(ii) Engine driven pumps;
(iii) Boost pumps;
(iv) System valves and cross-feeds;
(v) Quantity indicators; and
(vi) Provisions for fuel jettisoning.
(6) Pneumatic.
(i) Bleed air sources (APU or external ground air); and
(ii) Means of routing, venting and controlling bleed air via valves, ducts, chambers.
and temperature and pressure limiting devices
(7) Air conditioning and pressurization.

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(i) Heaters. air conditioning packs, fans, and other environmental control devices;
(ii) Pressurization system components such as outflow and negative pressure
relief valves; and
(iii) Automatic, standby, and manual pressurization controls and annunciators.
(8) Flight controls.
(i) Primary controls (yaw, pitch, and roll devices);
(ii) Secondary controls (leading/trailing edge devices, flaps, trim, and damping
mechanisms);
(iii) Means of actuation (direct/indirect or fly by wire); and
(iv) Redundancy devices.
(9) Landing gear and brakes.
(i) Landing gear extension and retraction mechanism including the operating
sequence of struts, doors, and locking devices, and brake and antiskid
systems, if applicable;
(ii) Steering (nose or body steering gear);
(iii) Bogie arrangements;
(iv) Air/ground sensor relays; and
(v) Visual down-lock indicators.
(10) Ice and rain protection.
(i) Rain removal systems; and
(ii) Anti-icing and/or de-icing system(s) affecting flight controls, engines, pitot and
static probes, fluid outlets, cockpit windows, and aircraft structures.
(11) Equipment and furnishings.
(i) Exits;
(ii) Galleys;
(iii) Water and waste systems;
(iv) Lavatories;
(v) Cargo areas;
(vi) Crew member and passenger seats;
(vii) Bulkheads,
(viii) Seating and/or cargo configurations; and
(ix) Non-emergency equipment and furnishings.
(12) Navigation equipment.
(i) Flight directors;
(ii) Horizontal situation indicator;
(iii) Radio magnetic indicator,
(iv) Navigation receivers (GPS, ADF, VOR, OMEGA, LORAN-C, RNAV, Marker
Beacon, DME);
(v) Inertial systems (INS, IRS);

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(vi) Functional displays;

(vii) Fault indications and comparator systems;
(viii) Aircraft transponders;
(ix) Radio altimeters;
(x) Weather radar; and
(xi) Cathode ray tube or computer generated displays of aircraft position and
navigation information.
(13) Auto flight system.
(i) Autopilot;
(ii) Auto-throttles;
(iii) Flight director and navigation systems;
(iv) Automatic approach tracking;
(v) Auto-land; and
(vi) Automatic fuel and performance management systems.
(14) Flight instruments.
(i) Panel arrangement;
(ii) Flight instruments (attitude indicator, directional gyro, magnetic compass,
airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeters, standby instruments);
and
(iii) Instrument power sources and instrument sensory sources (e.g., Pitot static
pressure).
(15) Display systems.
(i) Weather radar; and
(ii) Other CRT displays (e.g., checklist, vertical navigation or longitudinal
navigation displays).
(16) Communication equipment.
(i) VHF/HF radios;
(ii) Audio panels;
(iii) In-flight interphone and passenger address systems;
(iv) Voice recorder; and
(v) Air/ground passive communications systems (ACARS).
(17) Warning systems.
(i) Aural, visual, and tactile warning systems (including the character and degree
of urgency related to each signal); and
(ii) Warning and caution annunciator systems (including ground proximity and
take-off warning systems).
(18) Fire protection.
(i) Fire and overheat sensors, loops, modules, or other means of providing visual
and/or aural indications of fire or overheat detection;

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(ii) Procedures for the use of fire handles, automatic extinguishing systems and
extinguishing agents; and
(iii) Power sources necessary to provide protection for fire and overheat conditions
in engines, APU, cargo bay/wheel well, cockpit, cabin and lavatories.
(19) Oxygen
(i) Passenger, crew, and portable oxygen supply systems;
(ii) Sources of oxygen (gaseous or solid);
(iii) Flow and distribution networks;
(iv) Automatic deployment systems;
(v) Regulators, pressure levels and gauges; and
(vi) Servicing requirements.
(20) Lighting.
(i) Cockpit, cabin, and external lighting systems;
(ii) Power sources;
(iii) Switch positions; and
(iv) Spare light bulb locations.
(21) Emergency equipment.
(i) Fire and oxygen bottles;
(ii) First aid kits;
(iii) Life-rafts and life preservers;
(iv) Crash axes;
(v) Emergency exits and lights;
(vi) Slides and slide rafts;
(vii) Escape straps or handles; and
(viii) Hatches, ladders and movable stairs.
(22) Auxiliary Power Unit (APU).
(i) Electric and bleed air capabilities;
(ii) Interfaces with electrical and pneumatic systems;
(iii) Inlet doors and exhaust ducts;
(iv) Fuel supply.
(23) Performance.
(c) Each Operator shall have an initial aircraft ground training curriculum for the flight crew
applicable to their duties, the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown, including
at least the following aircraft systems integration items:
(1) Use of checklist.
(i) Safety chocks;
(ii) Cockpit preparation (switch position and checklist flows);
(iii) Checklist callouts and responses; and

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(iv) Checklist sequence.

(2) Flight planning.
(i) Pre-flight and i-flight planning.
(ii) Performance limitations (meteorological, mass, and MEL/CDL items);
(iii) Required fuel loads;
(iv) Weather planning (lower than standard take-off minimums or alternate
requirements).
(3) Display systems.
(i) Weather radar.
(ii) CRT displays (checklists, vertical navigational and longitudinal displays).
(4) Navigation and communication systems.
(i) Pre-flight and operation of applicable receivers;
(ii) Onboard navigation systems; and
(iii) Flight plan information input and retrieval.
(5) Auto-flight/flight directors.
(i) Auto-pilot.
(ii) Auto-thrust.
(iii) Flight director systems, including the appropriate procedures, normal and
abnormal indications, and annunciators.
(6) Cockpit familiarization
(i) Activation of aircraft system controls and switches to include normal, abnormal
and emergency switches; and
(ii) Control positions and relevant annunciators, lights, or other caution and
warning systems.
(d) Each Operator shall ensue that initial ground training for flight crew consists of at least
the following program hours of instruction based on the aircraft to be used, unless a
reduction is determined appropriate by the Authority:
(1) For pilots and flight engineers:
(i) Piston-engine airplane: 64 hours.
(ii) Turbo-propeller powered airplane: 80 hours.
(iii) Turbo-jet airplane: 120 hours.
(iv) Helicopter: 64 hours.
(v) Powered-lift: 80 hours.
(vi) Other aircraft: 64 hours.
(2) For flight navigators:
(i) Piston-engine aircraft: 6 hours.
(ii) Turbo-propeller powered aircraft: 32 hours.
(iii) Turbojet-aircraft: 32 hours.

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IS: 8.10.1.14(c1) INITIAL AND RE-QUALIFICATION AIRCRAFT GROUND TRAINING:

CABIN CREW MEMBERS
(a) Each Operator shall have an initial and re-qualification ground training curriculum for
cabin crew members applicable to the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown,
including at least the following general subjects:
(1) Aircraft familiarization.
(i) Aircraft characteristics and description;
(ii) Flight-deck configuration;
(iii) Cabin configuration;
(iv) Galleys;
(v) Lavatories; and
(vi) Stowage areas.
(2) Aircraft equipment and furnishings.
(i) Cabin crew stations;
(ii) Cabin crew panels,
(iii) Passenger seats;
(iv) Passenger service units and convenience panels,
(v) Passenger information signs,
(vi) Aircraft markings; and
(vii) Aircraft placards.
(viii) Bassinets and bayonet tables.
(3) Aircraft systems.
(i) Air conditioning and pressurization system,
(ii) Aircraft communication systems (call, interphone and passenger address),
(iii) Lighting and electrical systems;
(iv) Oxygen systems (flight crew, observer and passenger); and
(v) Water system.
(vi) Entertainment and convenience systems.
(4) Aircraft exits.
(i) General information;
(ii) Exits with slides or slide rafts (pre-flight and normal operation);
(iii) Exits without slides (pre-flight and normal operations); and
(iv) Window exits.
(5) Crew member communication and co-ordination.
(i) Authority of PIC;
(ii) Routine communication signals and procedures; and
(iii) Crew member briefing.
(6) Routine crew member duties and procedures.

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(i) Crew member general responsibilities;

(ii) Reporting duties and procedures for specific aircraft;
(iii) Pre-departure duties and procedures prior to passenger boarding;
(iv) Passenger boarding duties and procedures;
(v) Prior to movement on the surface duties and procedures;
(vi) Prior to take-off duties and procedures applicable to specific aircraft;
(vii) In-flight duties and procedures;
(viii) Prior to landing duties and procedures;
(ix) Movement on the surface and arrival duties and procedures;
(x) After arrival duties and procedures; and
(xi) Intermediate stops.
(7) Passenger handling responsibilities.
(i) Crew member general responsibilities;
(ii) Infants, children, and unaccompanied minors;
(iii) Passengers needing special assistance;
(iv) Passengers needing special accommodation;
(v) Carry-on stowage requirements;
(vi) Passenger seating requirements; and
(vii) Smoking and no smoking requirements.
(8) Approved Crew Resource Management (CRM) training for cabin crew members.
(9) Security.
(10) Survival.
(b) Each Operator shall have an initial and re-qualification ground training curriculum for
cabin crew members applicable to the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown,
including at 1least the following aircraft specific emergency subjects:
(1) Emergency equipment.
(i) Emergency communication and notification systems;
(ii) Aircraft exits;
(iii) Exits with slides or slide rafts (emergency operation);
(iv) Slides and slide rafts in a ditching;
(v) Exits without slides (emergency operation);
(vi) Window exits (emergency operation);
(vii) Exits with tail-cones (emergency operation);
(viii) Cockpit exits (emergency operation);
(ix) Ground evacuation and ditching equipment;
(x) First aid equipment;
(xi) Portable oxygen systems (oxygen bottles, chemical oxygen generators,
protective breathing equipment (PBE));

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(xii) Firefighting equipment;

(xiii) Emergency lighting systems; and
(xiv) Additional emergency equipment.
(2) Emergency assignments and procedures.
(i) General types of emergencies specific to aircraft;
(ii) Emergency communication signals and procedures;
(iii) Rapid decompression;
(iv) Insidious decompression and cracked window and pressure seal leaks;
(v) Fires;
(vi) Ditching;
(vii) Ground evacuation;
(viii) Unwarranted evacuation (i.e., passenger initiated);
(ix) Illness or injury;
(x) Abnormal situations involving passengers or crew members;
(xi) Hijacking;
(xii) Bomb threat;
(xiii) Turbulence;
(xiv) Other unusual situations including an awareness of other crew members'
assignments and functions as they pertain to the cabin crew's own duties; and
(viii) Previous aircraft accidents and incidents.
(3) Aircraft specific emergency drills.
(i) Emergency exit drill;
(ii) Hand fire extinguisher drill;
(iii) Emergency oxygen system drill;
(iv) Flotation device drill;
(v) Ditching drill, if applicable;
(vi) Life raft removal and inflation drill, if applicable;
(vii) Slide-raft pack transfer drill, if applicable;
(viii) Slide or slide-raft deployment, inflation, and detachment drill, if applicable; and
(ix) Emergency evacuation slide drill, if applicable.
(c) Each Operator shall ensure that initial and re-qualification ground training for cabin
crew members includes a competence check given by the appropriate supervisor or
ground instructor to determine his or her ability to perform assigned duties and
responsibilities.
(d) Each Operator shall ensure that initial and re-qualification ground training for cabin
crew members consists of at least the following program hours of instruction for each
type of aircraft:
(1) Piston-engine: 8 hours;
(2) Turbo-propeller powered: 8 hours;

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(3) Turbo-jet: 16 hours; and

(4) Other aircraft: 8 hours.
(e) The training program shall ensure that each cabin crew is:
(1) competent to execute those safety duties and functions which the cabin crew
(2) drilled and capable in the use of emergency and life-saving equipment required to
be carried, such as life jackets, life rafts, evacuation slides, emergency exits,
portable fire extinguishers, oxygen equipment and first-aid kits;
(3) when serving on airplanes operated above 3,000 m (10,000 ft), knowledgeable as
(4) aware of other crew members’ assignments and functions in the event of an
own duties;
(5) aware of the types of dangerous goods which may, and may not, be carried in a
passenger cabin and has completed the dangerous goods training program
required by Annex 18; and
(6) knowledgeable about human performance as related to passenger cabin safety
duties including flight crew-cabin crew coordination.
(f) On successful completion of the required training and competency check, a cabin crew
member shall be issued with a “Cabin Crew Member Certificate”, which shall remain
valid for a period of two years, subject to successfully passing the required competency
check.
(g) No operator may use nor may any person serve as a cabin crew member on an aircraft,
unless he/she has successfully completed his/her competency check within three (3)
calendar months. To re-qualify, he/she must undergo a refresher training, and
successfully complete the competency check before he/she is scheduled as a cabin
crew member.
IS: 8.10.1.14 (c2) CHECK CABIN CREW: INITIAL AND RE-QUALIFICATION TRAINING
Initial and re-qualification ground training for the check cabin crew member shall include
assessment and checking of cabin crew members on the pertinent portions of the
operations manuals relating to aircraft-specific configuration, equipment, normal and
emergency procedures for the aircraft types within the fleet.
(a) The initial and re-qualification ground training for check cabin crew member must
(1) Check cabin crew member duties, functions, and responsibilities.
(2) The applicable CAR and the Operator’s policy and procedures.
(3) The appropriate methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting the required
checks.
(4) Proper evaluation of cabin crew member performance including the detection of:
(i) Improper and insufficient training; and
(ii) Personal characteristics that could adversely affect safety.
(5) The appropriate corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory checks.

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(6) The approved methods procedures, and limitations for performing the required
normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures in the aircraft.
(b) The initial ground training for check cabin crew member must include the following:
(1) The fundamental principles of the teaching learning process.
(2) Teaching methods and procedures.
(3) The instructor-student relationship.
(4) However, sub-paragraphs (b) (1), (2) and (3) of this section are not required for the
holder of a cabin crew instructor certificate.
(c) The initial ground and flight training for cabin crew member instructor must be
adequate to ensure competence to perform his/her assigned duties.
(d) For the purposes of this section:
(1) A check cabin crew member is a person who satisfactorily completed a check cabin
crew training program approved by the Authority to conduct assessments of
company cabin crew members on a particular aircraft type.
(2) Recent instructional experience means having provided instruction on the subject
for which the instructor has the required rating or knowledge within the preceding
12 month period.
(e) No AOC holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a check cabin crew in
a training program established under this Subpart unless, with respect to the aircraft
type involved, that person -
including recurrent training, that are required to serve as a cabin crew member in
operations under this Part;
(2) Has satisfactorily been assessed as a evaluator of cabin crew members, the
assessment of which may be conducted by the operator;
(3) Has completed the prescribed training requirements;
(4) Has attained a minimum of the following:
(i) Two (2) years of experience as a cabin crew member in appropriate operations;
(ii) Has been a evaluator of cabin crew members for at least six (6) months;
(iii) Experience as an in-flight instructor for at least one (1) year;
(iv) 30 sectors or 30 hours on the specific aircraft type; and
(v) Six sectors or 8 hours on the specific aircraft type in the preceding 12 months;
and
(5) Has satisfied the recency of experience requirements; and
(6) Meets at least one of the following criteria:
(i) For cabin crew members who have previous ground instructional experience,
within the preceding 12 months, have completed either a minimum of 24
instructional hours or 12 instructional hours under the supervision of a qualified
ground instructor on the aircraft system or subject on which he/she is to give
instruction;
(ii) For cabin crew members without previous ground instructional experience,
have a minimum of: two (2) years of experience as a cabin crew member in
appropriate operation; 60 sectors or 60 hours flown on the specific aircraft type;
or

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(iii) As a cabin crew member have served in that capacity in the preceding 12
months, and have completed either a minimum of 24 instructional hours or 12
instructional hours under the supervision of a qualified ground instructor on the
subject on which he is to give instruction in the preceding 12 months.
Note: The 12 hours supervised instruction required by paragraphs (6) (iii) of
this section must have been rated by a qualified instructor.
(f) Completion of the requirements of this section, as applicable, shall be entered in the
individual's training record maintained by the AOC holder.
(g) For the purposes of determining an anniversary date for recurrency of this section are
considered to be completed in the month required if completed in the calendar month
before or in the calendar month after the month in which it is due.
(h) The Authority, upon application by the certificate holder, may authorize deviations from
the requirements of subparagraph (e) (4) (iv & v), (e) (6) (i) of this section in the event
the AOC holder adds to its fleet an aircraft not before proven for use in its operations.
IS: 8.10.1.14(d) INITIAL AIRCRAFT GROUND TRAINING: FLIGHT OPERATIONS

OFFICER
(a) Each Operator shall provide initial aircraft ground training for flight operations officers
that include instruction in at least the following subjects:
(1) General dispatch subjects:
(i) Appropriate regulations.
(ii) Operations Manual of the AOC holder.
(iii) Operations specifications of the AOC holder.
(iv) Weather reports: interpretation, available sources, actual and prognostic,
seasonal variations.
(v) Communications, to include normal and emergency.
(vi) Meteorology, to include effects on radio reception.
(vii) Adverse weather.
(viii) Notices to airmen.
(ix) Navigational charts and publications.
(x) Joint dispatcher/pilot responsibilities.
(xi) ATC coordination procedures.
(xii) Familiarization with operations area, including classes of airspace and special
areas of navigation.
(xiii) Characteristics of special aerodromes.
(2) Aircraft characteristics:
(i) Aircraft specific flight preparation.
(ii) Aircraft operating and performance characteristics.
(iii) Navigation equipment, including peculiarities and limitations.
(iv) Instrument approach and communication equipment.
(v) Emergency equipment.

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(vi) FM or RFM provisions applicable to the aircraft duties.

(vii) MEL/CDL.
(viii) Applicable equipment training.
(3) Operations procedures:
(i) Adverse weather phenomena (wind-shear, clear air turbulence and
thunderstorms).
(ii) Mass and balance computations and load control procedures.
(iii) Aircraft performance computations, to include takeoff weight limitations based
on departure runway, arrival runway, and en route limitations, and also engine-
out limitations.
(iv) Flight planning procedures, to include route selection, flight time, and fuel
requirements analysis.
(v) Dispatch release preparation.
(vi) Crew briefings.
(vii) Flight monitoring procedures.
(viii) MEL and CDL procedures.
(ix) Manual performance of all required procedures in case of the loss of automated
capabilities.
(x) Training in appropriate geographic areas.
(xi) ATC and instrument procedures, ground hold and central flow control
procedures.
(xii) Radio/telephone procedures.
(4) Abnormal and emergency procedures.
(i) Assisting flight crew in an emergency.
(ii) Alerting of appropriate governmental, company and private agencies.
(5) Crew resource management.
Note: IS 8.10.1.12 contains CRM training items.
(6) Dangerous goods.
Note: IS 8.10.1.10 contains dangerous goods training items.
(7) Security.
Note: See Subpart 8.10.1.11.
(8) Differences training.
Note: IS 8.10.1.17 contains items on differences training.
(b) Each AOC holder shall ensure that initial ground training for flight operations officers
includes a competency check given by an appropriately qualified dispatch supervisor
or ground instructor that demonstrates the required knowledge and abilities.
(c) Each AOC holder shall ensure that initial ground training for flight operations officers
consists of at least the following program hours of instruction based on the aircraft to
be used, unless a reduction is determined appropriate by the Authority:
(1) Piston-engine aircraft: 30 hours.

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(2) Turbo-propeller powered aircraft: 40 hours.

(3) Turbo-jet aircraft: 40 hours.
(4) Other aircraft: 30 hours.
IS: 8.10.1.15 INITIAL AIRCRAFT FLIGHT TRAINING

(a) Each Operator shall ensure that pilot initial flight training includes at least the following:
Note: Flight training may be conducted in an appropriate aircraft or adequate Flight
Simulation Training Device (A = Airplane; H = Helicopter).
(1) Preparation
(i) Visual inspection (for aircraft with a flight engineer, use of pictorial display
authorized): A and H
(ii) Pre-taxi procedures: A and H
(iii) Performance limitations.
(2) Surface operation
(i) Pushback
(ii) Power-back taxi, if applicable to type of operation to be conducted.
(iii) Starting.
(iv) Taxi.
(v) Pre take-off checks.
(3) Take-off
(i) Normal.
(ii) Crosswind.
(iii) Rejected.
(iv) Power failure after V1.
(v) Lower than standard minimum, if applicable to type of operation to be
conducted.
(4) Climb
(i) Normal
(ii) One-engine inoperative during climb to en route altitude.
(5) En route
(i) Steep turns.
(ii) Approaches to stalls (take-off, en route, and landing configurations).
(iii) In-flight power unit shutdown.
(iv) In-flight power unit restart.
(v) High speed handling characteristics.
(6) Descent
(i) Normal.
(ii) Maximum rate.

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(7) Approaches
(i) VFR procedures.
(ii) Visual approach with 50% loss of power on one-engine (2 engines inoperative
on 3- engine airplanes) (PIC only)
(iii) Visual approach with slat/flap malfunction.
(iv) IFR precision approaches (ILS normal and ILS with one-engine inoperative).
(v) IFR non-precision approaches (NDB normal and VOR normal).
(vi) Non-precision approach with one engine inoperative (LOC back-course
procedures, SDF/LDA, GPS, TACAN and circling approach procedures).
Note: Simulator shall be qualified for training/checking on the circling
maneuver.
(vii) Missed approach from precision approach
(viii) Missed approach from non-precision approach
(ix) Missed approach with power unit failure
(8) Landings
(i) Normal with a pitch mis-trim (small aircraft only)
(ii) Normal from precision instrument approach
(iii) Normal from precision instrument approach with most critical engine
inoperative
(iv) Normal with 50% loss of power on one side (2 engines inoperative on 3-engine
airplanes) (PIC only)
(v) Normal with flap/slat malfunction
(vi) Rejected landings
(vii) Crosswind
(viii) Manual reversion/degraded control augmentation
(ix) Short/soft field (small aircraft only)
(x) Glassy/rough water (seaplanes only)
(9) After landing
(i) Parking
(ii) Emergency evacuation
(iii) Docking, mooring, and ramping (seaplanes only)
(10) Other flight procedures during any airborne phase
(i) Airborne Collision Avoidance System: use and avoidance maneuvers
(ii) Holding
(iii) Ice accumulation on airframe
(iv) Air hazard avoidance
(v) Wind-shear/micro-burst
(11) Normal, abnormal and alternate systems procedures during any phase
(i) Pneumatic/pressurization

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(ii) Air conditioning

(iii) Fuel and oil
(iv) Electrical
(v) Hydraulic
(vi) Flight controls
(vii) Anti-icing and de-icing systems
(viii) Autopilot
(ix) Flight management guidance systems and/or automatic or other approach and
landing aids
(x) Stall warning devices, stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation
systems
(xi) Airborne weather radar
(xii) Flight instrument system malfunction
(xiii) Communications equipment
(xiv) Navigation systems
(12) Emergency systems procedures during any phase
(i) Aircraft fires
(ii) Smoke control
(iii) Power unit malfunctions
(iv) Fuel jettison
(v) Electrical, hydraulic, pneumatic systems
(vi) Flight control system malfunction
(vii) Landing gear and flap system malfunction
(b) Each AOC holder shall ensure that flight engineer flight training includes at least the
following training and practice in procedures related to the carrying out of flight
engineer duties and functions. This training and practice may be accomplished either
in flight or in a flight simulation training device.
(1) Preparation.
(i) Airplane preflight.
(A) Logbook procedures.
(B) Safety checks.
(C) Cabin/interiors.
(D) Exterior Walk-around.
(E) Servicing/deicing.
(F) Use of Oxygen.
(2) Ground Operations.
(i) Performance Data.
(A) To/LND Data.
(B) Airport Analysis.

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(C) Mass and Balance.

(ii) Use of Checklist.
(A) Panel setup.
(iii) Starting.
(A) External power.
(B) External Air.
(C) APU.
(iv) Communications.
(A) Station Procedures.
(B) ACARS.
(v) Taxi.
(3) Takeoff.
(i) Power-unit Control.
(ii) Flaps/landing gear.
(iii) Fuel management.
(iv) Other Systems Operation.
(v) Aircraft Performance.
(vi) Checklist Completion.
(4) Climb.
(i) Power unit control.
(ii) Fuel Management.
(iii) Pressurization.
(iv) Electrical System.
(v) Air Conditioning.
(vi) Flight Controls.
(vii) Other Systems.
(5) En Route.
(i) Power unit Operation.
(ii) Fuel Management.
(iii) Performance Management.
(iv) Other Systems Operation.
(6) Descent.
(i) Powerplant operation.
(ii) Other Systems Operation.
(iii) Performance Management.
(7) Approach.
(i) Landing Data.

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(ii) Landing Gear Operation.

(iii) Flat/Slat/Spoiler Operation.
(iv) Approach Monitoring.
(8) Landings.
(i) Powerplant Operation.
(ii) Aircraft Configuration.
(iii) System Operation.
(iv) Emergency Evacuation.
(9) Procedures during Any Ground or Airborne Phase.
(i) Cockpit Equipment.
(ii) Flap Slats/Gear.
(iii) Power-unit.
(iv) Pressurization.
(v) Pneumatic.
(vi) Air Conditioning.
(vii) Fuel and Oil.
(viii) Electrical.
(ix) Hydraulic.
(x) Flight Controls.
(xi) Anti-Icing and Deicing.
(xii) Other Checklist Procedures.
(c) Each AOC holder shall ensure that flight navigator training includes at least the
following:
(1) Initial flight training for flight navigators must include flight training and a flight check
that is adequate to ensure the crew member's proficiency in the performance of his
or her assigned duties.
(2) The flight training and check specified in paragraph (1) must be performed:
(i) In-flight or in an appropriate flight simulation training device; or
(ii) In commercial air transport operations, if performed under the supervision of a
qualified flight navigator.
(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that initial flight training for pilots and flight engineers
consists of at least the following program hours of instruction based on the aircraft to
be used, unless a reduction is determined appropriate by the Authority:
(1) For one trainee in either an aircraft or flight simulation training devices:
(i) Piston-engine aircraft—PIC: 14 hours; CP: 14 hours; and FE: 12 hours.
(ii) Turbo-propeller powered aircraft—PIC: 15 hours; CP: 15 hours; and FE: 12
hours.
(iii) Turbo-jet aircraft—PIC: 20 hours; CP: 16 hours; and FE; 12 hours.
(iv) Other aircraft—PIC and CP: 14 hours.

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(2) For two pilots in a flight simulation training device:

(i) Piston-engine aircraft—PIC: 24 hours; CP: 24 hours; and FE: 20 hours.
(ii) Turbo-propeller powered aircraft—PIC: 24 hours; CP: 24 hours; and FE: 20
hours.
(iii) Turbo-jet aircraft—PIC: 28 hours; CP: 28 hours; and FE: 20 hours.
(iv) Other aircraft— PIC and CP: 24 hours.
IS: 8.10.1.16 INITIAL SPECIALIZED OPERATIONS TRAINING

(a) Each Operator shall provide initial specialized operations training to ensure that each
pilot and flight operations officer is qualified in the type of operation in which he or she
serves and in any specialized or new equipment, procedures, and techniques, such
as:
(1) Class II navigation
(i) Knowledge of specialized navigation procedures, such as MNPS
(ii) Knowledge of specialized equipment, such as INS, LORAN, OMEGA
(2) CAT II and CAT III approaches
(i) Special equipment, procedures and practice
(ii) A demonstration of competency
(3) Lower than standard minimum take-offs
(i) Runway and lighting requirements
(ii) Rejected take-offs at, or near, V1 with a failure of the most critical engine
(iii) Taxi operations
(iv) Procedures to prevent runway incursions under low visibility conditions
(4) Extended range operations with two engine airplanes
(5) Airborne radar approaches
(6) Autopilot instead of co-Pilot
IS: 8.10.1.17 AIRCRAFT DIFFERENCES

(a) Each Operator shall provide aircraft differences training for flight operations officers
when the operator has aircraft variances within the same type of aircraft, which
includes at least the following:
(1) Operations procedures-
(i) Operations under adverse weather phenomena conditions, including clear air
turbulence, wind-shear, and thunderstorms;
(ii) Mass and balance computations and load control procedures;
(iii) Aircraft performance computations, to include take-off mass limitations based
on departure runway, arrival runway, and en route limitations, and also engine-
out limitations;
(iv) Flight planning procedures, to include route selection, flight time, and fuel
requirements analysis;

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(v) Dispatch release preparation;

(vi) Crew briefings;
(vii) Flight monitoring procedures;
(viii) Flight crew response to various emergency situations, including the
assistance the aircraft flight operations officer can provide in each situation;
(ix) MEL and CDL procedures;
(x) Manual performance of an required procedures in case of the loss of
automated capabilities;
(xi) Training in appropriate geographic areas;
(xii) ATC and instrument procedures, to include ground hold and central flow
control procedures; and
(xiii) Radio/telephone procedures.
(2) Emergency procedures-
(i) Actions taken to aid the flight crew; and
(ii) Operator and Authority notification.
Note: The FAA Flight Standardization Board, the Transport Canada and JAA
Joint Operations Evaluation Board have a harmonized process and their
reports are a source for differences training.
IS: 8.10.1.20 AIRCRAFT AND INSTRUMENT PROFICIENCY CHECK: PILOT

(a) Aircraft and instrument proficiency checks for PIC and CP must include the following
operations and procedures listed in the appropriate skill test in Part 2, on each type or
variant of type of aircraft.
(b) The oral and flight test phases of a proficiency check should not be conducted
simultaneously.
(c) When the examiner determines that an applicant's performance is unsatisfactory, the
examiner may terminate the flight test immediately or, with the consent of the applicant,
continue with the flight test until the remaining events are completed.
(d) If the check must be terminated (for mechanical or other reasons) and there are events
which still need to be repeated, the examiner shall issue a letter of discontinuance,
valid for 60 days, listing the specific areas of operation that have been successfully
completed.
(e) Satisfactory completion of a proficiency check following completion of an approved
operator training program for the particular type aircraft, satisfies the requirement for
an aircraft type rating skill test if:
(1) That proficiency check includes all maneuvers and procedures required for a type
rating skill test.
(2) Proficiency checks are to be conducted by an examiner approved by the Authority.
(3) The oral and flight test phases of a proficiency check should not be conducted
simultaneously.
(4) When the examiner determines that an applicant's performance is unsatisfactory,
the examiner may terminate the flight test immediately or, with the consent of the
applicant, continue with the flight test until the remaining events are completed.

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(5) If the check must be terminated (for mechanical or other reasons) and there are
events which still need to be repeated, the examiner shall issue a letter of
discontinuance, valid for 60 days, listing the specific areas of operation that have
been successfully completed.
IS: 8.10.1.21 FLIGHT ENGINEER PROFICIENCY CHECKS

(a) Examiners shall include during proficiency checks for flight engineers an oral or written
examination of the normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures listed below:
(1) Normal procedures-
(i) Interior pre-flight
(ii) Panel set-up
(iii) Fuel load
(iv) Engine start procedures
(v) Taxi and before take-off procedures

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(vi) Take-off and climb Pressurization

(vii) Cruise and fuel management
(viii) Descent and approach
(ix) After landing and securing
(x) Crew co-ordination
(xi) Situational awareness, traffic scan, etc.
(xii) Performance computations
(xiii) Anti-ice; de-ice
(2) Abnormal and emergency procedures-
(i) Troubleshooting
(ii) Knowledge of checklist
(iii) Ability to perform procedures
(iv) Crew co-ordination
(v) Minimum equipment list (MEL) and configuration deviation list (CDL)
(vi) Emergency or alternate operation of airplane flight systems
IS: 8.10.1.22 PAIRING OF LOW EXPERIENCE CREW MEMBERS: COMMERCIAL AIR

TRANSPORT
(a) Situations designated as critical by the Authority at special airports designated by the
Authority or at special airports designated by the Operator include:
(1) The prevailing visibility value in the latest weather report for the airport is at or
below ¾ mile;
(2) The runway visual range for the runway to be used is at or below 4,000 feet;
(3) The runway to be used has water, snow, slush or similar conditions that may
adversely affect airplane performance;
(4) The braking action on the runway to be used is reported to be less than "good";
(5) The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots;
(6) Wind-shear is reported in the vicinity of the airport; or
(7) Any other condition in which the PIC determines it to be prudent to exercise the
PIC's prerogative.
(b) Circumstances which would be routinely be considered for deviation from the required
minimum line operating flight time include:
(1) A newly certified Operator does not employ any pilots who meet the minimum flight
time requirements;
(2) An existing Operator adds to its fleet a type airplane not before proven for use in
its operations; or
(3) An existing Operator establishes a new domicile to which it assigns pilots who will
be required to become qualified on the airplanes operated from that domicile.

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IS: 8.10.1.24 COMPETENCY CHECKS: CABIN CREW MEMBERS

(a) Evaluators shall conduct competency checks for cabin crew members to demonstrate
that the candidate's proficiency level is sufficient to successfully perform assigned
duties and responsibilities.
(b) A qualified supervisor or inspector, approved by the Authority, shall observe and
evaluate competency checks for cabin crew members.
(c) Evaluators shall include during each cabin crew competency check a demonstrated
knowledge of (may be simulated at the discretion of the check cabin crew):
(1) Emergency equipment-
(ii) Aircraft exits;
(iii) Exits with slides or slide-rafts (emergency operation);
(iv) Slides and slide-rafts in a ditching;
(v) Fires;
(vi) Ditching;
(viii) Unwarranted evacuation (i.e., Passenger initiated);
(xi) Turbulence; and
(xii) Other unusual situations.
(3) Emergency drills-

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(i) Location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried on the
airplane;
(ii) The location and use of all types of exits;
(iii) Actual donning of a lifejacket where fitted;
(iv) Actual donning of protective breathing equipment; and
(v) Actual handling of fire extinguishers.
(4) Crew Resource Management-
(i) Decision making skills;
(ii) Briefings and developing open communication;
(iii) Inquiry, advocacy, and assertion training; and
(iv) Workload management.
(5) Dangerous goods-
(i) Recognition of and transportation of dangerous goods;
(ii) Proper packaging, marking, and documentation; and
(iii) Instructions regarding compatibility, loading, storage and handling
characteristics.
(6) Security-
(i) Hijacking; and
(ii) Disruptive passengers.
(d) Cabin Crew Competency Card:
On completion of the competency check described as above, evaluators shall compete
the cabin crew competency card as required by Subpart 8.10.1.24 (b).
IS: 8.10.1.25 COMPETENCE CHECKS: FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICERS

(a) Evaluators shall conduct competency checks for flight operations officers to
demonstrate that the candidate's proficiency level is sufficient to ensure the successful
outcome of all dispatch operations.
(b) A qualified supervisor or inspector, approved by the Authority, shall observe and
evaluate competency checks for flight operations officers.
(c) Each competency check for flight operations officers shall include:
(1) An evaluation of all aspects of the dispatch function;
(2) A demonstration of the knowledge and abilities in normal and abnormal
situations; and
(3) An observation of actual flights being dispatched.
(d) Each evaluator of newly hired flight operations officers shall include during initial
competency checks an evaluation of all of geographic areas and types of aircraft the
flight operations officer will be qualified to dispatch. (Note: The supervisor may approve
a competency check of representative aircraft types when, in the supervisor's
judgment, a check including all types is impractical or unnecessary)

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(e) Evaluators may limit initial equipment and transition competency checks solely to the
dispatch of the types of airplanes on which the aircraft dispatcher is qualifying (unless
the check is to simultaneously count as a recurrent check).
(f) Each evaluator of flight operations officers shall include, during recurrent and re-
qualification competency checks, a representative sample of aircraft and routes for
which the aircraft dispatcher maintains current qualification.
(g) The Authority requires special operations competency checks before an aircraft
dispatcher is qualified in EDTO or other special operations authorized by the Authority.
IS: 8.10.1.33 RECURRENT TRAINING: FLIGHT CREW

(a) Each Operator shall establish a recurrent training program for all flight crew members
in the Operator's operations manual and shall have it approved by the Authority.
(b) Each flight crew member shall undergo recurrent training relevant to the type or variant
of airplane on which he or she is certified to operate and for the crew member position
involved.
(c) Each Operator shall have all recurrent training conducted by suitably qualified
personnel.
(d) Each Operator shall ensure that flight crew member recurrent ground training includes
at least the following:
(1) General subjects
(i) Flight locating procedures
(ii) Principles and method for determining mass/balance and runway limitations
(iii) Meteorology to ensure practical knowledge of weather phenomena including
the principles of frontal system, icing, fog, thunderstorms, wind-shear, and high
altitude weather situations
(iv) ATC systems and phraseology
(v) Navigation and use of navigational aids
(vi) Normal and emergency communication procedures
(vii) Visual cues before descent to MDA
(viii) Accident/incident and occurrence review
(ix) Other instructions necessary to ensure the pilot's competence
(2) Aircraft systems and limitations
(i) Normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures
(ii) Aircraft performance characteristics
(iii) Engines and or propellers
(iv) Major aircraft components
(v) Major aircraft systems (i.e.: flight controls, electric, hydraulic and other systems
as appropriate)
(vi) Ground icing and de-icing procedures and requirements.
(3) Emergency equipment and drills
(4) Every 12 months-

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airplane;
(iii) Actual/simulated donning of a lifejacket where fitted;
(iv) Actual/simulated donning of protective breathing equipment; and
(v) Actual/simulated handling of fire extinguishers.
(5) Every 3 years-
(i) Operation of all types of exits;
(ii) Demonstration of the method used to operate a slide, where fitted; and
(iii) Fire-fighting using equipment representative of that carried in the airplane on
an actual or simulated fire;
Note: With halon extinguishers an alternative method acceptable to the
authority may be used.
(iv) Effects of smoke in an enclosed area and actual/simulated use of all relevant
equipment in a simulated smoke-filled environment;
(v) Actual handling of pyrotechnics, real or simulated, where fitted;
(vi) Demonstration or simulated demonstration in the use of the life-raft(s), where
fitted;
(vii) An emergency evacuation drill;
(viii) A ditching drill, if applicable; and
(ix) A rapid decompression drill, if applicable.
(6) Crew resource management-
(iii) Inquiry, advocacy, and assertion training;
(iv) Workload management; and
(v) Situational awareness.
(7) Dangerous goods - every year:
(ii) Limitations
(iii) Proper packaging, marking, and documentation;
(iv) Instructions regarding compatibility, loading, storage and handling
characteristics;
(v) Provisions for passengers and crew members;
(vi) Emergency procedures; and
(vii) Examination.
(8) Security-
(i) Hijacking; and

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(e) Each Operator shall verify knowledge of the recurrent ground training by an oral or
written examination.
(f) Each Operator shall ensure that pilot recurrent flight training include at least the
following:
Note: Flight training may be conducted in an appropriate aircraft or adequate FSTD
(FSTD shall have landing capability). Requirements for FSTDs used for UPRT are
specified in IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX C and should be qualified to ensure that the training
task objectives can be achieved and negative transfer of training is avoided.
(1) Preparation-
(i) Visual inspection (use of pictorial display authorized); and
(ii) Pre-taxi procedures.
(2) Surface operation-
(i) Performance limitations;
(ii) Cockpit management;
(iii) Securing cargo;
(iv) Pushback;
(v) Power-back taxi;
(vi) Starting;
(vii) Taxi; and
(viii) Pre take-off checks.
(3) Take-off-
(i) Normal;
(ii) Crosswind;
(iii) Rejected;
(iv) Power failure after V1;
(v) Power unit failure during second segment; and
(vi) Lower than standard minimum.
(4) Climb –
(i) Normal; and
(ii) One-engine inoperative during climb to en route altitude.
(5) En route-
(i) Steep turns;
(ii) Approaches to stalls (take-off, en route, and landing configurations);
(iii) In-flight power unit shutdown;
(iv) In-flight power unit restart; and
(v) High speed handling characteristics.
(6) Descent-
(i) Normal; and
(ii) Maximum rate.

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(7) Approaches-
(i) VFR procedures;
(ii) Visual approach with 50% loss of power on one-engine (2 engines inoperative
on 3-engines airplanes) (PIC only);
(iii) Visual approach with slat/flap malfunction;
(iv) IFR precision approaches (ILS normal and ILS with one-engine inoperative);
(v) IFR non-precision approaches (NDB normal and VOR normal);
(vi) Non-precision approach with one engine inoperative (LOC back-course,
SDF/LDA, ( GPS, TACAN and circling approach procedures);
Note: Simulator shall be qualified for training/checking on the circling
maneuver.
(vii) Missed approach from precision approach;
(viii) Missed approach from non-precision approach; and
(ix) Missed approach with power unit failure.
(8) Landings-
(i) Normal with a pitch mis-trim (small aircraft only);
(ii) Normal from precision instrument approach;
(iii) Normal from precision instrument approach with most critical engine
inoperative;
(iv) Normal with 50% loss of power on one side (2 engines inoperative on 3-engine
airplanes) (PIC only);
(v) Normal with flap/slat malfunction;
(vi) Rejected landings;
(vii) Crosswind;
(viii) Short/soft field (small aircraft only); and
(ix) Glassy/rough water (seaplanes only).
(9) After landing-
(i) Parking;
(ii) Emergency evacuation; and
(iii) Docking, mooring, and ramping (seaplanes only).
(10) Other flight procedures during any airborne phase-
(i) Holding;
(ii) Ice accumulation on airframe;
(iii) Air hazard avoidance; and
(iv) Wind-shear/micro-burst.
(11) Normal, abnormal and alternate systems procedures during any phase-
(i) Pneumatic/pressurization;
(ii) Air conditioning;
(iii) Fuel and oil;

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(iv) Electrical;
(v) Hydraulic;
(vi) Flight controls;
(vii) Anti-icing and de-icing systems;
(12) Flight management guidance systems and/or automatic or other approach and
landing aids;
(i) Stall warning devices, stall avoidance devices. and stability augmentation
systems;
(ii) Airborne weather radar;
(iii) Flight instrument system malfunction;
(iv) Communications equipment;
(v) Navigation systems;
(vi) Auto-pilot;
(vii) Approach and landing aids; and
(viii) Flight instrument system malfunction.
(13) Emergency systems procedures during any phase-
(i) Aircraft fires;
(ii) Smoke control;
(iii) Power unit malfunctions;
(iv) Fuel jettison;
(v) Electrical, hydraulic, pneumatic systems;
(vi) Flight control system malfunction; and
(vii) Landing gear and flap system malfunction.
(14) For airplanes, upset prevention and recovery training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3
APPENDIX C.
(i) Upset Prevention Training should prioritize the upset prevention elements and
respective according to the operator’s safety risk assessment. Upset prevention
training should use a combination of manoeuvre-based and scenario-based
training. Scenario-based training may be used to introduce flight crew to
situations which, if not correctly managed, could lead to an upset condition,
Relevant TEM and CRM aspects should be included in scenario-based training
and the flight crew should understand the limitations of the FSTD in replicating
the physiological and psychological aspects of exposure to upset prevention
scenarios.
(ii) Upset Recovery Training should be manoeuvre-based, which enables flight
crew to apply their handling skills and recovery strategy whilst leveraging CRM
principles to return the airplane from an upset condition to a stabilized flight
path. The flight crew should understand the limitations of the FSTD in
replicating the physiological and psychological aspects of upset recovery
exercises. In order to avoid negative training and negative transfer of training.
Operators should ensure that the selected upset recovery exercises take into
consideration the limitations of the FSTD.
(iii) Stall Event Recovery Training

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PCAR PART 8
It is of utmost importance that stall event recovery training takes into account
the capabilities of the FSTD used. Most current and grandfathered FFS models
are deficient in representing the airplane in the aerodynamic stall regime, thus
practicing of ‘stall’ in such a device could potentially result in negative training
or negative transfer of training. The term ‘stall event’ is therefore introduced to
cater for the capability of current and grandfathered FFS, and for potential
future FFS enhancements. A ‘stall event’ is defined as an occurrence whereby
the airplane experiences one or more conditions associated with an approach-
to-stall or a stall.
IMPORTANT – when using current or grandfathers FFS, the stall event
recovery exercises should only be conducted as approach-to-stall exercises.
Stall training requires a special approved device. The FFS used for the upset
recovery training should be qualified to ensure that the training task objectives
can be achieved and negative transfer of training is avoided.
Stall event recovery training should emphasize the requirement to reduce the
angle of attack (AOA) whilst accepting the resulting altitude loss.
High-altitude stall event training should be included so that flight crew
appreciate the airplane control response, the significant altitude loss during the
recovery, and the increased time required. The training should also emphasize
the risk of triggering a secondary stall event during the recovery.
Refer to revision 3 of the Airline Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Aid
for a detailed explanation and rationale on the stall event recovery template as
recommended by the OEMs.
(g) Each Operator shall ensure that flight engineer recurrent flight training includes at least
the flight training specified in IS: 8.10.1.15(b).
(h) Each Operator shall ensure that flight navigator recurrent training includes enough
training and an in-flight check to ensure competency with respect to operating
procedures and navigation equipment to be used and familiarity with essential
navigation information pertaining to the Operator's routes that require a flight navigator.
(i) The Operator may combine recurrent training with the Operator's proficiency check.
(j) Recurrent ground and flight training curricula may be accomplished concurrently or
intermixed, but completion of each of these curricula shall be recorded separately.
IS: 8.10.1.34 RECURRENT EMERGENCY TRAINING: CABIN CREW MEMBERS

(a) Each Operator shall establish and have approved by the Authority a recurrent training
program for all cabin crew members.
(b) Each cabin crew shall undergo recurrent training in evacuation and other appropriate
normal and emergency procedures and drills relevant to their assigned positions and
the type(s) and/or variant(s) of airplane on which they operate. The recurrent training
for cabin crew members shall consist of at least the following program hours:
(1) Group I: reciprocating powered aircraft, 4 hours;
(2) Group I: turbo-propeller powered aircraft, 5 hours;
(3) Group II: other aircraft, 12 hours.
The abovementioned program hours are for EACII aircraft type that falls under any
group.

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PCAR PART 8
(c) Each Operator shall have all recurrent training and a competency check, as a part of
recurrent training, conducted by suitably qualified personnel. A cabin crew member
who completes recurrent training/competency check in a calendar month before or
after the calendar month in which that training or check is required, he/she is
considered to have taken or completed it in the calendar month in which it was
required. This provision of 11th, 12th and 13th month is valid only for the ‘completion’
of the required recurrent training.
(d) Each Operator shall ensure that, every 12 months, each cabin crew receive recurrent
training in at least the following:
(1) Emergency equipment-
(ii) Aircraft exits:
(iii) Exits with slides or slide-rafts (emergency operation);
(iv) Slides and slide-rafts in a ditching;
(v) Fires;
(vi) Ditching;
(viii) Unwarranted evacuation (i.e., passenger initiated);
(xi) Turbulence; and
(xii) Other unusual situations.
(3) Emergency drills.
(4) Every 12 months-

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PCAR PART 8
airplane;
(iii) Actual donning of a lifejacket where fitted;
(iv) Actual donning of protective breathing equipment; and
(v) Actual handling of fire extinguishers.
(5) Every 3 years-
(i) Operation of all types of exits;
(ii) Demonstration of the method used to operate a slide, where fitted;
(iii) Fire-fighting using equipment representative of that carried in the airplane on
an actual or simulated fire;
Note: With HaIon extinguishers. An alternative method acceptable to the
Authority may be used.
(iv) Effects of smoke in an enclosed area and actual use of all relevant equipment
in a simulated smoke-filled environment;
(v) Actual handling of pyrotechnics, real or simulated, where fitted;
(vi) Demonstration in the use of the life-raft(s), where fitted;
(vii) An emergency evacuation drill;
(viii) A ditching drill, if applicable;
(ix) A rapid decompression drill, if applicable;
(6) Crew resource management-
(iii) Inquiry, advocacy, and assertion training; and
(iv) Workload management.
(7) Dangerous goods-
(ii) Proper packaging, marking, and documentation; and
(iii) Instructions regarding compatibility, loading, storage and handling
characteristics.
(8) Security-
(i) Hijacking; and
(e) An Operator may administer each of the recurrent training curricula concurrently or
intermixed, but shall record completion of each of these curricula separately.
(f) The recurrent training program shall ensure that each cabin crew is:
(1) competent to execute those safety duties and functions which the cabin crew

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PCAR PART 8
(2) drilled and capable in the use of emergency and life-saving equipment required to
be extinguishers, oxygen equipment and first-aid kits;
(3) when serving on airplanes operated above 3,000 m (10,000 ft), knowledgeable as
(4) aware of other crew members’ assignments and functions in the event of an
own duties;
(5) aware of the types of dangerous goods which may, and may not, be carried in a
passenger cabin and has completed the dangerous goods training program
required by Annex 18; and
(6) knowledgeable about human performance as related to passenger cabin safety
duties including flight crew-cabin crew coordination.
(g) Each operator shall maintain a record of the satisfactory completion of the recurrent
training and competency check given to the crew member.
IS: 8.10.1.35 RECURRENT TRAINING - FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICER

(a) Each Operator shall establish and maintain a recurrent training program, approved by
the Authority and established in the Operator's operations manual, to be completed
annually by each flight operations officer.
(b) Each flight operations officer shall undergo recurrent training relevant to the type(s)
and/or variant(s) of airplane and operations conducted by the Operator.
(c) Each Operator shall conduct all recurrent training by suitably qualified personnel.
(d) An Operator shall ensure that, every 12 months, each flight operations officer receive
recurrent training in at least the following:
(1) Aircraft-specific flight preparation;
(2) Emergency assistance to flight crew members;
(3) Dispatch resource management: and
(4) Dangerous goods.
(e) Line observations in accordance with Subpart 8.10.1.29: An Operator shall ensure
that, every 12 months, each flight operations officer has observed, on the flight deck,
the conduct of two (2) complete flights, comprising at least five (5) total hours, over
routes representative of those for which that person is assigned duties.
(f) An Operator may administer each of the recurrent ground and flight training curricula
concurrently or intermixed, but shall record completion of each of these curricula
separately.
IS: 8.10.1.36 RESERVED.

IS: 8.10.1.37 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR TRAINING
(a) No person may use a person, nor may any person serve as flight instructor in a training
program unless:
(1) That person has satisfactorily completed initial or transition flight instructor training;
and

IS-63
PCAR PART 8
(2) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, that person satisfactorily conducts
instruction under the observation of an inspector from the Authority, an Operator's
check airman, or an examiner employed by the Operator.
(b) An Operator may accomplish the observation check for a flight instructor, in part or in
full, in an airplane, a flight simulator, or a flight training device.
(c) Each Operator shall ensure that initial ground training for flight instructors includes the
following
(1) Flight instructor duties, functions, and responsibilities;
(2) Applicable regulations and the Operator's policies and procedures;
(3) Appropriate methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting the required
checks;
(5) Appropriate corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory checks;
(6) Approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal,
abnormal, and emergency procedures in the airplane;
(7) Except for holders of a flight instructor license:
(i) The fundamental principles of the teaching-learning process;
(ii) Teaching methods and procedures; and
(iii) The instructor-student relationship.
(d) Each Operator shall ensure that the transition ground training for flight instructors
includes the approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the
required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures applicable to the aircraft to
which the flight instructor is in transition.
(e) Each Operator shall ensure that the initial and transition flight training for flight
instructors (aircraft), flight engineer instructors (aircraft), and flight navigator instructors
(aircraft) includes the following:
(1) The safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to develop during
instruction.
(2) The potential results of improper, untimely, or non-execution of safety measures
during instruction.
(3) For pilot flight instructor (aircraft):
(i) In-flight training and practice in conducting flight instruction from the left and
right pilot seats in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures
to ensure competence as an instructor; and
(ii) The safety measures to be taken from either pilot seat for emergency situations
that are likely to develop during instruction.
(4) For flight engineer instructors (aircraft) and flight navigator instructors (aircraft), in
flight training to ensure competence to perform assigned duties.
(f) An Operator may accomplish the flight training requirements for flight instructors in full
or in part in flight, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device, as appropriate.

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PCAR PART 8
(g) An Operator shall ensure that the initial and transition flight training for flight instructors
(simulator) includes the following:
(1) Training and practice in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures
and upset prevention and recovery to ensure competence to conduct the flight
instruction required by this part. This training and practice shall be accomplished
in full or in part in a flight simulator or in a flight training device.
(2) Training in the operation of flight simulators or flight simulation training devices, or
both, to ensure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this Part.
(h) An Operator shall provide standardization training for instructors per aircraft type shall
not be less than 10% of the instructor force, but at least 2 (two) are required.
It is of paramount importance that personnel providing UPRT in FSTDs have
demonstrated during previous instructor qualification training Operators should,
therefore, have a comprehensive training and standardization programmed in place,
and may need to provide FSTD instructors with additional training to ensure such
instructors have and maintain complete knowledge and understanding of the UPRT
operating environment, and skill sets. This training should ensure that instructors:
(i) are able to demonstrate the correct upset recovery techniques for the specific
airplane type;
(ii) understand the importance of applying type-specific Original Equipment
Manufacturers (OEMs) procedures for recovery manoeuvres;
(iii) are able to distinguish between the applicable SOPs and the OEMs
recommendations (if available);
(iv) understand the capabilities and limitations of the FSTD used for UPRT;
(v) are aware of the potential of negative transfer if training that may exist when
training outside the capabilities of the FSTD;
(vi) understand and are able to use the IOS of the FSTD in the context of effective
UPRT delivery;
(vii) understand and are able to use the FSTD instructor tools available for providing
accurate feedback on flight crew performance;
(viii) understand the importance of adhering to the FSTD UPRT scenarios that
have been validated by the training program developer; and
(ix) understand the missing critical human factor aspects due to the limitations of
the FSTD and convey this to the flight crew receiving the training.
The core group UPRT instructors shall:
(x) have experienced realistic g-immersion during recovery in combination with
representative aircraft type dynamic behavior.
IS: 8.10.1.40 CHECK AIRMAN TRAINING

(a) No person may use a person, nor may any person serve as a check airman (aircraft)
or check airman (simulator) in a training program unless, with respect to the aircraft
type involved, that person has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training phases
for the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are required to serve as PIC or flight
engineer, as applicable.
(b) Each Operator shall ensure that initial ground training for check airmen includes:
(1) Check airman duties, functions, and responsibilities;

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PCAR PART 8
(2) Applicable regulations and the Operator's policies and procedures;

(3) Appropriate methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting the required
checks;
(5) Appropriate corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory checks; and
(6) Approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal,
abnormal, and emergency procedures in the aircraft.
(c) Transition ground training for all check airmen shall include the approved methods,
procedures, and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and
emergency procedures applicable to the aircraft to which the check airman is in
transition.
(d) Each Operator shall ensure that the initial and transition flight training for check airmen
(aircraft), includes:
(1) Training and practice in conducting flight evaluations (from the left and right pilot
seats for pilot check airmen) in the required normal, abnormal, and emergency
procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight checks;
(2) The potential results of improper, untimely, or non-execution of safety measures
during an evaluation; and
(3) The safety measures (to be taken from either pilot seat for pilot check airmen) for
emergency situations that are likely to develop during an evaluation.
(e) Each Operator shall ensure that the initial and transition flight training for check airmen
(simulator), includes:
(1) Training and practice in conducting flight checks in the required normal, abnormal,
and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the evaluations
checks required by this part (this training and practice shall be accomplished in a
flight simulator or in a flight training device).
(2) Training in the operation of flight simulators or flight training devices, or both, to
ensure competence to conduct the evaluations required by this Part.
(f) An Operator may accomplish flight training for check airmen in full or in part in an
aircraft, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device, as appropriate.
IS: 8.11.1.2 MANAGING FATIGUE-RELATED SAFETY RISKS

(a) FRMS policy and documentation
(1) FRMS policy
(i) The operator shall define its FRMS policy, with all elements of the FRMS clearly
identified.
(ii) The policy shall require that the scope of FRMS operations be clearly defined
in the operations manual.
(iii) The policy shall:
(A) reflect the shared responsibility of management, flight and cabin crews, and
other involved personnel;

IS-66
PCAR PART 8
(B) clearly state the safety objectives of the FRMS;

(C) be signed by the accountable executive of the organization;
(D) be communicated, with visible endorsement, to all the relevant areas and
levels of the organization;
(E) declare management commitment to effective safety reporting;
(F) declare management commitment to the provision of adequate resources
for the FRMS;
(G) declare management commitment to continuous improvement of the
FRMS;
(H) require that clear lines of accountability for management, flight and cabin
crews, and all other involved personnel are identified; and
(I) require periodic reviews to ensure it remains relevant and appropriate.
Note: Effective safety reporting is described in ICAO Doc 9859, Safety
Management Manual (SMM).
(b) FRMS documentation
(1) An operator shall develop and keep current FRMS documentation that describes
and records:
(i) FRMS policy and objectives
(ii) FRMS processes and procedures;
(iii) accountabilities, responsibilities and authorities for these processes and
procedures;
(iv) mechanism for ongoing involvement of management, flight and cabin crew
members, and all other involved personnel;
(v) FRMS training programs, training requirements and attendance records;
(vi) scheduled and actual flight times, duty periods and rest periods with significant
deviations and reasons for deviations noted; and
(vii) FRMS outputs including findings from collected data, recommendations, and
actions taken.
(c) Fatigue risk management processes
(1) Identification of hazards
An operator shall develop and maintain three fundamental and documented
processes for fatigue hazard identification:
(i) Predictive
Predictive process shall identify fatigue hazards by examining crew scheduling
and taking into account factors known to affect sleep and fatigue and their
effects on performance. Methods of examination may include but are not limited
to:
(A) operator or industry operational experience and data collected on similar
types of operations;
(B) evidence-based scheduling practices; and
(C) bio-mathematical models.
(ii) Proactive

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PCAR PART 8
The proactive process shall identify fatigue hazards within current flight
operations. Methods of examination may include but are not limited to:
(A) self-reporting of fatigue risks;
(B) crew fatigue surveys;
(C) relevant flight and cabin crew performance data;
(D) available safety databases and scientific studies; and
(E) analysis of planned versus actual time worked.
(iii) Reactive
The reactive process shall identify the contribution of fatigue hazards to reports
and events associated with potential negative safety consequences in order to
determine how impact of fatigue could have been minimized. At a minimum,
the process may be triggered by any of the following:
(A) fatigue reports;
(B) confidential reports;
(C) audit reports;
(D) incidents; and
(E) flight data analysis events.
(2) Risk assessment
An operator shall develop and implement risk assessment procedures that
determine the probability and potential severity of fatigue-related events and
identify when the associated risks require mitigation.
(i) The risk assessment procedures shall review identified hazards and link them
to:
(A) operational processes;
(B) their probability;
(C) possible consequences; and
(D) the effectiveness of existing safety barriers and controls.
(3) Risk mitigation
(i) An operator shall develop and implement risk mitigation procedures that;
(A) select the appropriate mitigation strategies;
(B) implement the mitigation strategies; and
(C) monitor the strategies' implementation of effectiveness.
(d) FRMS safety assurance processes
(1) The operator shall develop and maintain FRMS safety assurance processes to:
(i) proved for continuous FRMS performance monitoring, analysis of trends, and
measurement to validate the effectiveness of the fatigue safety risk controls.
The sources of data may include, but are not limited to:
(A) hazard reporting and investigations;
(B) audits and surveys; and
(C) reviews and fatigue studies'

IS-68
PCAR PART 8
(ii) provide a formal process for the management of change which shall include
but is not limited to:
(A) identification of changes in the operational environment that may affect
FRMS;
(B) identification of changes within the organization that may affect; and
(C) consideration of available tools which could be used to maintain or improve
FRMS performance prior to implementing changes and
(iii) provide for the continuous improvement of the FRMS. This shall include but is
not limited to:
(A) the elimination and/or modification of risk controls have has unintended
consequences or that are no longer needed due to changes in the
operational or organizational environment;
(B) routine evaluations of facilities, equipment, documentation and
procedures; and
(C) the determination of the need to introduce new processes and procedures
to mitigate emerging fatigue-related risks.
(e) FRMS promotion processes
(1) FRMS promotion processes support the ongoing development of the FRMS, the
continuous improvement of its overall performance, and attainment of optimum
safety levels. The following shall be established and implemented by the operator
as part of its FRMS:
(i) training programs to ensure competency commensurate with the roles and
responsibilities of management, flight and cabin crew, and all other involved
personnel under the planned FRMS; and
(ii) explains FRMS communication channels used to gather and disseminate
FRMS-related information.

IS-69
PCAR PART 8

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PCAR PART 2

Republic of the Philippines

CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS (CAR)

Amendment 03 28 January 2014

INTENTIONALLY BLANK PAGE

Amendment 03 28 January 2014

Amendment 03 28 January 2014

Amendment 03 28 January 2014

Amendment 03 28 January 2014

Amendment No. Date Subject Incorporated By

2.3.3.4 (f) Amendment on

2.3.3.9 (f) Amendment on

2.4.4 (f) Amendment on

2.5.3 (f) Amendment on

2.10.2.4.6. (b) Medical

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

Third Amendment 28 January 2014 2.1.3 Abbreviations (12) LT GEN William

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

Have Attained Their 65th

Ninth Amendment 06 January 2017 Repealing of Provisions in Capt. Jim C.

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

Issue of a Cabin Crew

2.1.2 Definitions (6)

New PCAR Part 2.14 Air

2.2.2.5 Medical Fitness

Tenth Amendment 23 April 2018 2.1.2 Definitions (a) Capt. Jim C.

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

• Critical angle of attack

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

2.1.3 Abbreviations (a)

2.2.6.2 Use of Flight

2.3.2.4 Type Ratings –

2.3.3.3 Commercial Pilot

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

2.3.3.4 Airline Transport

2.3.3.5.2 Requirements (f)

2.3.3.11 Instructor Ratings –

Eleventh Amendment 08 July 2020 2.2.2.2 Ratings (c) Capt. Jim C.

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

LIST OF EFFECTIVE PAGES

Part Page Amendment No. Page Date

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

2.2-11 Amendment 08 01 July 2016

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

2.3-28 Amendment 03 28 January 2014

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

2.6-7 Amendment 08 01 July 2016

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

2.10-20 Amendment 03 28 January 2014

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

IS-19 Amendment 03 28 January 2014

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

IS-52 Amendment 03 28 January 2014

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

2.1 GENERAL.................................................................................................... 2.1-1

Amendment 11 15 January 2021

2.2.7 Language Proficiency……………………………………………………………. 2.2-11

Amendment 11 15 January 2021