Question N 1

Which of the following can be classified as a latent threat to flight crew?

A An in-flight aircraft malfunction.

B An equipment design issue.

C Flying into a known, congested airport.

D A predicted thunderstorm.

Question N 2
Which of the following promotes safety culture in a company?

A Upper levels of management provide required resources

B Safety imposed by hierarchy and administrative means

C Encouragement to report errors and punishment of those who make errors

D Encouragement to report errors and subsequent minimum action to correct them

Question N 3
The co-pilot is assigned the role of communicating with ATC. The ATC relays to
the co-pilot the clearance, and the co-pilot responds with an incorrect clearance.
The ATC controller and the PIC fail to notice the co -pilot makes an incorrect
read back. What errors have occurred?

A Communication error by the co-pilot, PIC, and ATC.

B Handling error by the co-pilot, and procedural error by the ATC and PIC.

C Communication error by the co-pilot and ATC, handling error by the PIC.

D Handling error by the co-pilot, and procedural error by the PIC.

Question N 4
Considering the Threat and Error Management (TEM) model, which of the
following situations is considered an error?

A Take-off with less than the legally required amount of fuel on board due to an erroneous
calculation by the dispatch crew.

B Inadequate control inputs resulting in a hard landing and the collapse of the landing gear.

C A lateral offset from the cleared track as a result of a drifting IRS.

D A descent below the glide path in wind shear.

Question N 5
In the Swiss Cheese model, what do holes represent?

A Missing data in the risk management system.

B Errors in the system or process.

C Systems or processes put in place to reduce risk.

D Systems or processes designed to prevent harm

Question N 6
Considering a typical civil aviation environment, what can be said about the
following statement?
“The Safety Culture is relatively enduring, stable and resistant to change.”

A It is true.
B Neither true nor false. Characteristics of Safety Cultures vary significantly among the
organizations and depend on many factors. In many organizations the Safety Culture can be stable and
resistant to change while in many other ones it might be relatively unstable and not resistant to change.

C It is false.

D Neither true nor false. Safety Culture has nothing to do with aviation as it is always defined
primarily by the generally prevailing attitude characteristics within a specific geographic region or a
country.

Question N 7
A typical example of an undesired aircraft state according to the TEM model
would be:

A Using an incorrect communication frequency.

B Approaching a runway with a crosswind component.

C Missing readback clearances between flight crew and ATC.

D Flying too fast and/or too high during an approach.

Question N 8
Competence of an individual pilot is based on..

A knowledge, skill, and ability.

B rules, character, and upbringing.

C focus, age, and knowledge.

D age, skill, and determination.

Question N 9
In an organisation where a good safety culture is predominant, the
accountability rests largely with..

A individuals.

B management.

C share holders.

D the board members.

Question N 10
A pilot becomes skilled when he/she:
1. trains or practises regularly
2. knows how to manage himself/herself
3. possesses all the knowledge associated with the aircraft
4. knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected.

A 1, 3, and 4

B 1 and 2 only

C 2, 3, and 4

D 1, 2, and 4

Question N 11
State the main component of an SMS.

A The customs and immigration services provided at a planned destination Airport.

B Environmental concerns such as noise abatement and minimization of pollution.

C Targeting the most economic Operation.

D The safety policy in an aviation organisation.

Question N 12
Considering the Threat and Error Management (TEM), from the perspective of
the flight crew, which of the following options is a latent organisational threat?

A Adverse weather en route, including thunderstorms, turbulence, wind shear and icing.

B Operational pressure resulting from delays, late arrivals, equipment changes.

C Failure to cross-verify automation inputs.

D Proceeding towards a wrong waypoint.

Question N 13
Which of the following options is an example of an environmental threat in the
TEM model?

A Missing a line in the checklist.

B A volcanic eruption on your flight route.

C Dispatch paperwork event or error.

D Being stressed due to pre-flight delays.

Question N 14
Whilst en-route to the destination, the Commander, who is flying the aircraft,
briefs on the correct approach procedure, with the Co-pilot monitoring height
and speed on the approach. During the approach for landing, the flight crew
inadvertently allowed the speed to increase above that required by the
published approach procedure. This situation is an example of:

A A handling error by the Commander and communication error by the Co-Pilot.

B A procedural error by the Commander and a standard operating procedure error by the Co-Pilot.

C Procedural errors by both pilots.

D A handling error by the Commander and a procedural error by the Co-Pilot.

Question N 15
Civil aviation is generally recognised for being..

A an open culture activity.

B an open culture but restricted to maintenance personnel.

C a closed culture activity.

D an open culture but restricted to cabin crew.

Question N 16
GPWS systems and SOPs are examples of which type of counter -measures in
the Threat and Error Management (TEM) model?

A Automation-based

B Systemic-based

C Liveware-based

D Hardware-based

Question N 17
Which of the following options lists the elements of the SHELL concept?
A Concept. Software, hardware, economy, and liveware.

B Software, hardware, environment, and location.

C Software, hardware, environment, and liveware.

D Software, harmony, environment, and location.

Question N 18
According to Annex 1 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation,
competency is defined as..

A a mental state or quality of being adequately or well qualified, having the ability to perform a
specific role.

B a set of behaviours that provide a structured guide for the identification, evaluation and
development of the behaviours in individuals.

C a combination of skills, knowledge and attitudes required to perform a task to the prescribed
standard.

D a collection of practical and theoretical knowledge, cognitive skills, behaviour and values used to
improve performance.

Question N 19
Threat and Error Management (TEM) is an overarching safety concept regarding
aviation operations and human performance. Within the TEM framework, and
according to ICAO Annex 1 on Personnel Licensing, error is defined as..

A an intentional deviation by an operational person from a known process or procedures with

undesired consequences.

B an event that occurs beyond the influence of an operational person that must be managed to
maintain the margin of safety.

C an action or inaction by an operational person that leads to deviations from organisational or the
operational person’s intentions or expectations.
D an erroneous, perception, belief or mental state by an operational person that does not conform to
an organisation’s objective reality.

Question N 20
A First Officer forgots to switch the anti-icing off after leaving icing conditions.
The Captain realises this and yells at the FO for it. What type of culture is the
Captain portraying?

A A punitive culture.

B A closed culture.

C A reporting culture.

D A democratic culture.

Question N 21
Consider the Threat and Error Management (TEM) model. A flight crew
experiences an undesired aircraft state (UAS). The most correct course of
action is to:

A Continue with the current configuration as an UAS is not an outcome and therefore the safety of
the flight remains unaffected.

B Continue with the current configuration and file a safety report upon landing.

C Take immediate countermeasures to recover to a normal operational state.

D Contact the Operator and request to practice this specific situation in the next training session.

Question N 22
According to James Reason, an organisation which collects and analyses
relevant data relates to which component of safety culture?
A Just

B Learning

C Informed

D Reporting

Question N 23
What does Murphy's Law state?

A Anything that can go wrong, will go wrong.

B Safety measures are offset by increased risk taking.

C An opportunity to engage in more probable behaviors (or activities) will reinforce less probable
behaviors (or activities).

D In order to understand what someone is telling you, it is necessary for you to assume the person is
being truthful, then imagine what could be true about it.

Question N 24
A pilot did not take enough fuel with him. However, he landed at the time
planned with fuel and no event occurred. The operator decided to tell him to
stay off duty for one week as a result of what he did. What type of culture does
the operator follow?

A Flexible culture

B Just culture

C Reporting culture

D Informed culture
Question N 25
Complete the following statement:
During an approach with thunderstorms in the vicinity, the pilot notices that the
visibility has dropped below minimum. This is a/an (1)__ and it can be (2)__ by
a proper briefing.

A (1) Threat; (2) eliminated.

B (1) Error; (2) predicted.

C (1) Error; (2) eliminated.

D (1) Threat; (2) predicted.

Question N 26
Cultivating an atmosphere where people have confidence to report safety
concerns without fear of blame is an example of a/an:

A Reporting Culture.

B Safety Culture.

C Open Culture.

D Learning Culture.

Question N 27
Which of the following factors contributes to a safety culture?

A Developing trust through rewarding good employees and punishing those who make mistakes.

B Safety being primarily an issue imposed on the employees by various administrative systems.

C Encouraging employees to report errors while taking minimum corrective action.

D The highest levels of management making the necessary resources available.

Question N 28
One major component of an SMS is:

A Quality assurance.

B Threat and error management.

C Safety risk management.

D Quality control.

Question N 29
Which of the following statements concerning aviation safety culture is correct?

A In an open culture, the highest good is the cumulative well-being of the society as a whole.

B A just culture is a culture in which errors made in flight are never prosecuted in order to encourage
pilots to openly communicate them.

C An informed culture actively collects, analyses and distributes safety-related data.

D In a flexible culture, committed errors can be voiced without risking negative consequences for
oneself.

Question N 30
An aircraft is performing an approach to aerodrome A in bad weather in an
executive aircraft. The conditions mean the pilot must divert to aerodrome B.
However, the passenger, who is part of senior management in your company,
insists that the pilot lands at aerodrome A. What could this be an example of if
the pilot is conditioned to obey authority and continue the approach to
aerodrome A?
A Complacency on the part of the pilot and impulsivity on the part of the passenger.

B National culture overriding the safety culture.

C Anti-authority.

D Resignation.

Question N 31
When the opinions of members of society in a high power distance culture
contradict those of their superiors, they..

A are required to speak out.

B will be asked to speak out.

C are unlikely to speak out.

D are likely to speak out.

Question N 32
The pilot monitoring speaks out loud whenever he/she changes an input setting
on a navigation instrument. The pilot flying detects an error in one digit set and
immediately point out the mistake so that it can be corrected.
This is an example of threat and error management (TEM) ..

A execution-countermeasure, aimed to help detect possible errors.

B prevention-countermeasure, designed to avoid errors in instrument settings.

C planning-countermeasure, useful to help prevent latent threats.

D review-countermeasure, which is required to cross-check actions of the other crew member.

Question N 33
Which safety culture would be best suited for a company using Fatigue Risk
Management System (FRMS)?

A Closed Culture.

B Learning Culture.

C Non-punitive Culture.

D Reactive Culture.

Question N 34
The operator of an aircraft takes disciplinary action against the captain of a
flight, claiming that he/she violated established operating procedures by landing
with insufficient fuel on board. The captain can plausibly demonstrate that
he/she has only made a mistake when documenting the fuel mass in the
technical logbook after the flight, while the actual fuel on board after landing
was well within the operational limits. The operator decides to suspend the pilot
from work for 10 days.
Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the operator's safety
culture?

A The operator demonstrates an adequate concern towards safety and considers negligent behavior as
unacceptable. Negligence displays a lack of awareness of risks and hazards, probably reducing the safety
margin in flight.

B In a “just culture” environment, the punishment of an employee for making an error is an example
of bad management; errors and violations should not be punished in order to promote an atmosphere of
trust.

C The operator efficiently applies the principle of “just culture”, fairly punishing negligent behavior
as a form of positive control. This can motivate employees to be more careful before taking action and
promote risk awareness.

D The operator does not apply the principle of “just culture”: to foster trust and collaboration. Such
an unintended slip should be reported and discussed to prevent their future re-occurrence, it should not be
punished.
Question N 35
The three basic components of the Threat and Error Management (TEM) model
are, from the perspective of flight crews, threats, errors and undesired aircraft
states. With regard to errors, the TEM model..

A recognizes three types of human errors, namely anticipated, unanticipated and latent errors.

B distinguishes three classes of errors, namely operational, organisational and environmental.

C considers three categories of errors, namely aircraft handling, procedural and communications.

D differentiates between three kinds of errors, namely aircraft handling, navigation and aircraft
configuration.

Question N 36
Consider TEM. Which of the following is an example of an organisational threat?

A Weather en-route including turbulence, ice and wind.

B Flying over mountains, valleys, and built-up areas.

C Implementing a safety management system.

D Using incorrect or expired charts.

Question N 37
Risk management is more effective with what component of a safety culture?

A No blame culture

B Reactive culture

C Justification culture

D Informed culture
Question N 38
A typical example of an organisational threat according to the TEM model would
be:

A Heavy workload and minimum legal breaks for relaxation.

B Missing or confusing marking on taxiways and runways.

C Wrong power setting during take-off.

D Taxiing on the wrong taxiways.

Question N 39
Safety culture is..

A NOT a sub-set of national culture.

B considered to be a sub-set of national culture.

C NOT a product of national culture.

D considered to be independent of national culture.

Question N 40
During the final approach in a single-pilot aircraft, the pilot receives a wind
shear warning in the cockpit. He/she decides, incorrectly, to continue the
approach. The investigation of the incident concludes that the pilot was NOT
aware of the procedure dictating a go-around.
This human error can be attributed to the following pair of the SHELL mode:
Liveware, representing the Commander and…

A Error representing pilots lack of familiarity with the procedures.

B Environment representing the weather conditions.

C Hardware representing the cockpit warning.

D Software representing the procedures.

Question N 41
According to the TEM model, what are the effective counter -measures used to
detect and manage foreseeable threats?

A Discussing procedures and aeronautical decision making management.

B Aeronautical decision making management and briefings.

C Situational awareness and discussing procedures.

D Briefings and situational awareness.

Question N 42
Evaluate what is possibly achievable in commercial aviation in respect of flight
safety.

A In commercial aviation, risk should be reduced as much as possible.

B Risk should be recognised and considered as being inevitable in commercial aviation.

C Risk should be eliminated wherever possible.

D Risk should be decreased as much as commercially possible.

Question N 43
How is the SHELL model relevant to the work in the cockpit?
A The hardware-Liveware interface addresses the ability of the crew to adapt to the physical
environment, such as seating, placing of the aircraft controls and air quality.

B The Software-Liveware interface refers to cockpit automation only, which can be a source of error
where flight crew have insufficient knowledge of computer systems.

C The Liveware-Environment interface refers to the aircraft environment, and the crew uses standard
operating procedures to functions there.

D It helps to identify possible sources of error, and to remove possible causes of error in the
performance of flying tasks.

Question N 44
In a company, a safety culture is established where a person is not legally
prosecuted when committing an error without intent, but where intentional
violation or negligent behavior are not tolerated. This safety culture is called…

A Flexible culture

B Open culture

C Just culture

D Non-punitive culture

Question N 45
Which of the following is an environmental threat according to the TEM (Threat
and Error Management) model?

A Aircraft hardware design.

B A contaminated runway.

C A crew-scheduling error.

D A maintenance error.
Question N 46
What are the main components of Safety Management System (SMS)?

A Safety Policy, Safety Risk Management, Safety Assurance and Safety Promotion.

B Safety Policy, Safety Risk Organisation, Safety Awareness and Safety Promotion.

C Safety Rules, Safety Risk Organisation, Safety Awareness and Safety Promotion.

D Safety Regulations, Safety Risk Management, Safety Awareness and Safety Promotion.

Question N 47
According to the Threat and Error Management (TEM) model, What is the
correct definition of "undesired aircraft state"?

A It is an event or error that occurs beyond the influence of the flight crew, increases operational
complexity and must be managed to maintain an acceptable margin of safety.

B Actions or inactions by the flight crew that lead to deviations from organisational or flight crew
intentions or expectations.

C It is an undesired flight situation associated with a reduction in margins of safety.

D Accidents that are the result of undesired actions or inactions by the flight crew.

Question N 48
According to the TEM Mode, threats are grouped in two basic categories. One of
these categories refers to environmental threats and the other category refers
to:

A Organisational threats that occur due to the organisation in aviation structures.

B Operational threats that occur due to the organisation in aviation structures.

C Human performance threats that occur due to the human performance of aviation personnel.

D Technical threats that occur due to the technical part of the aeronautical operations, e.g. aircraft
malfunctions.

Question N 49
Consider the training and assessment of pilots. Which of the following is one of
the eight core competencies?

A Situation awareness

B Captaincy

C Judgement and determination

D Synergy

.............................................................................................................................................................

Release date: 2022.11.13.

Question N° 50
The pilot of a multi-engined aircraft has quite a high workload, looking out for
traffic and also concentrating on following ATC instructions to avoid a potential
traffic conflict. After a very brief look at the instruments, the pilot's eyes
automatically focus on the analogue engine gauges. He/she quickly sees that
one needle indicates an abnormally high oil pressure value for the left engine.
What statement correctly explains how the brain is storing and processing the
information from the instruments in the above scenario?

A The attention of the pilot is split between focussing inside the cockpit and looking outside. The
indications from the instruments are stored for up to 20 seconds in the visual sensory store, enabling the
pilot to process their information whilst following the ATC instructions.
B The indications from all the instruments are stored as information in the pilot's working memory.
The pilot then consciously and quickly processes the information and decides that one engine's oil pressure
value is abnormal.

C The pilot detects the abnormal value by making a detailed scan of all the instruments, complying
with the procedures requiring continuous cross-checking of instruments during flight. His/her selective
attention is focussed on all the instruments' values.

D The visual image of the abnormal value is stored in the sensory store for about 1 second. The pilot
automatically reacts to the abnormality by looking at the gauges, and then his/her attention consciously
focuses on their indications.

Question N° 51
Stress is a..

A mechanism by which an individual can respond to situations which he/she may have to face.

B response by a person to his/her problems, which automatically leads to a reduction in his/her

performance.

C phenomenon which is specific to modern man.

D psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control.

Question N° 52
Which of the following situations would require a visit to an aeromedical
examiner?

A A personal injury that does NOT prevent functioning as a member of a flight crew.

B An appointment with a general practitioner.

C Regular use of medication.

D A slight headache.
Question N° 53
Internal respiration is..

A the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the lung.

B the process of inflating the lungs during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation.

C the term used for respiration inside the pressure cabin.

D a metabolic process inside the cells whereby oxygen is used and carbon dioxide produced.

Question N° 54
The pilot of a light sports aircraft has just experienced a very close near -miss in
the air. He then realizes that his heart is beating rapidly and also his rate of
breath has increased. This indicates that he is in a state of:

A Hyperventilation.

B Hypertension.

C Hypoxia.

D Hypoventilation.

Question N° 55
What is the main cause of conductive deafness?

A Prolonged exposure to high-frequency sounds, such as turbine-engine noise.

B An infectious disease of the inner ear that affects, for example, balance and hearing.

C A combination of lifestyle, e.g. smoking, and environmental factors, e.g. stress.

D A blockage of the outer or middle ear, e.g. ear wax, or fluid in the middle ear.

Question N° 56
A TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) sounds on the flight deck. Which part of the
inner ear carries the sound of the alert to the flight crew?

A The vestibular apparatus.

B The air-filled parts of the cochlea.

C The fluid-filled cochlea.

D The Eustachian tube.

Question N° 57
Which of the following terms describe some of the different parts of the auditory
system?

A External ear, eardrum, malleus, incus, stapes, and vestibular nerve.

B Ear canal, Eustachian membrane, cochlea, and tympanic nerve.

C Auditory canal, eardrum, ossicles, cochlea, and auditory nerve.

D Ear canal, eardrum, tympanic cavity, cochlea, and Eustachian nerve.

Question N° 58
Consider hypoxia. Which of the below are correct regarding Effective
Performance Time (EPT)?

1. EPT is shorter than the Time of Useful Consciousness (TUC), for any given
altitude.
2. The duration of EPT varies little between individuals.
3. The effect of stress on the duration of EPT is minimal.
4. For a person at rest EPT can be about 12 to 20 seconds, at a pressure
altitude of 40 000 ft.

A 1 and 4.

B 1 and 3.

C 2 and 3.

D 2 and 4.

Question N° 59
Which biases relate to human decision making?
1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of the risk of an event
occurring
2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our decision even in the face of
facts which contradict it
3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to influence the particular
decision
4. There is natural tendency to select only objective facts for decision -making
purposes

A 1, 2, 3

B 1, 2

C 1, 2, 4

D 3, 4

Question N° 60
Long-term memory is an essential component of the pilots knowledge and
expertise.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Long term memory?

A It is desirable to pre-activate knowledge stored in long-term memory to have it available when

required.
B Its capacity is limited.

C Long-term memory stores knowledge on a temporary basis only.

D The recovery of information from long-term memory is immediate and easy.

Question N° 61
Some of the factors which lead to having a high pulse rate are:
1. Adrenaline.
2. Obesity.
3. Being well-rested.
4. Staying outside in high heat conditions.
5. Noise induced hearing loss

A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

B 1, 2, 4.

C 1, 2, 5.

D 1, 2, 3, 4.

Question N° 62
Which of the following factors contributes to a safety culture?

A Developing trust through rewarding good employees and punishing those who make mistakes.

B Safety being primarily an issue imposed on the employees by various administrative systems.

C Encouraging employees to report errors while taking minimum corrective action.

D The highest levels of management making the necessary resources available.

Question N° 63
Which of the following answers are correct concerning the Long Term Memory?
1. Long Term memory can be affected by expectation and suggestion
2. Long Term Memory is also known as the Working Memory
3. Long Term Memory is limited to plus or minus 7 pieces of disassociated
pieces of information
4. Long Term Memory is where Motor Programmes (skills) are kept

A 1 and 3 only are correct.

B 1 and 4 only are correct.

C 1, 3 and 4 are all correct.

D 2 and 3 only are correct.

Question N° 64
Name the most important parts of the eye in the order they are met by the light
entering the eye, until it reaches the visual cortex.

A Cornea, lens, iris and pupil, retina.

B Lens, iris and pupil, cornea, retina.

C Cornea, iris and pupil, lens, retina.

D Lens, iris and pupil, retina, cornea.

Question N° 65
During the approach phase, a passenger starts feeling ear pain and advises the
cabin crew of this issue. What can the cabin crew do to help the passenger?

A Ask the pilot to stop the descent.

B Suggest to the passenger to swallow and make large jaw movements.

C Get the passenger a sick bag.

D Tell the captain to declare a MAYDAY and request an ambulance to wait for the aircraft at the
gate.

Question N° 66
Which of the scenarios below most clearly describes a situation of one or both
pilots being in a state of reduced vigilance?

A During the cruise, the Pilot Monitoring stays silent for several minutes, staring at the instrument
panel without moving.

B In heavy turbulence, both pilots are engaged in maintaining flight parameters, and cockpit
communications are reduced.

C Just after take-off, the Pilot Flying omits to give the "gear-up" command; the Pilot Monitoring calls
out, and then he/she selects the landing gear up.

D Cockpit communications are brief and concise during the cruise on a long-haul flight with good
visibility and no turbulence.

Question N° 67
When traveling in developing and tropical areas of the world, aircrew should
avoid which of the following?
1. Ice cubes in drinks
2. Swimming in local lakes or rivers
3. Cooked fruit
4. Local ice cream and salads
5. Wearing short clothing in the evenings

A 1, 2, 3, and 4 only.

B 1, 3, and 5 only.

C 2, 3, 4, and 5 only.

D 1, 2, 4, and 5 only.
Question N° 68
List the constituent parts of the blood and state their function.

A Red cells are involved in immunity, white cells carry oxygen and platelets coagulate blood.

B Red cells carry oxygen, white cells are involved in immunity and platelets coagulate blood.

C Red cells coagulate blood, white cells are involved in immunity, and platelets carry oxygen.

D Red cells carry oxygen, white cells coagulate blood and platelets are involved in immunity.

Question N° 69
A captain has recently joined a different operator. During an emergency, he
starts with the correct procedure, but later on he reverts to old habits. What is
this called?

A Lapse

B Error of commision

C Random error

D Reversion

Question N° 70
A pilot who is trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight
turn may experience..

A an autokinetic illusion.

B barotrauma.
C pressure vertigo.

D a Coriolis illusion.

Question N° 71
Which of the following options has the lowest relative humidity in the cabin?

A High temperature outside and high temperature in the cabin.

B High temperature outside and low temperature in the cabin.

C Low temperature outside and high temperature in the cabin.

D low temperature outside and low temperature in the cabin.

Question N° 72
The commander believes that the copilot has done the radio call. However, he
did not ask him. The radio call has not been done for five minutes. From the
following options which one is the best to describe the commander's state?

A Poor mental model.

B Slip.

C Confirmation bias.

D Violation.

Question N° 73
An experienced commander is flying with an equally experienced copilot, who is
new to the company. The commander does not have much experience with
flying over high seas, but the copilot has gained experience with his previous
employer. When they fly over high seas, the copilot gives the commander a lot
of advice, but the commander won’t listen. The commander then commits an
error that the copilot helps him correct.
What is the correct description of the cockpit authority situation?

A The commander and copilot operate in good synergy.

B The commander is a good follower to his autocratic copilot.

C The commander is autocratic and the copilot acts as a good follower.

D The cockpit is run in a laissez-faire style, as the copilot does not prevent the commander from
making the error.

Question N° 74
You are in a pressurised aircraft with no equipment available to regulate the
internal humidity. Which of the following options will give the lowest humidity in
the cabin?

A Very hot outside the aircraft, cold inside the aircraft.

B Very hot outside the aircraft, hot inside the aircraft.

C Very cold outside the aircraft, cold inside the aircraft.

D Very cold outside the aircraft, hot inside the aircraft.

Question N° 75
What effect does the blind spot have on the pilot’s ability to conduct an effective
visual search for other traffic?

A When the pilot is scanning the area ahead and on either side of the aircraft, with an unobscured
field of view, another aircraft on a constant relative bearing could be lost in the blind spot of either eye.

B If the pilot's vision remains focused on one area of the sky with an unobscured view, and another
aircraft is on a crossing course ahead, the other aircraft could be lost in the blind spot.
C The possibility of another aircraft on a constant relative bearing being lost in the blind spot is
increased if the pilot's focus of view remains in one direction and one eye is partially or completely
obscured.

D The effect of the blind spot can be problematic by day, but at night this problem does NOT occur
because of the use of aircraft lights.

Question N° 76
In the absence of external time cues, what is the approximate duration of a free -
running circadian rhythm?

A 24 hours to 28 hours.

B 1 hour to 2 hours.

C 6 hours to 8 hours.

D 10 hours to 12 hours.

Question N° 77
Threat and Error Management (TEM) is an overarching safety concept regarding
aviation operations and human performance. Within the TEM framework, and
according to ICAO Annex 1 on Personnel Licensing, error is defined as..

A an intentional deviation by an operational person from a known process or procedures with

undesired consequences.

B an event that occurs beyond the influence of an operational person that must be managed to
maintain the margin of safety.

C an action or inaction by an operational person that leads to deviations from organisational or the
operational person’s intentions or expectations.

D an erroneous, perception, belief or mental state by an operational person that does not conform to
an organisation’s objective reality.
Question N° 78
Which of the following statements about body temperature and its relevance to
sleep patterns is correct?

A The circadian variation in body temperature is the same for most people (who are adapted to the
local time and work/sleep cycle). Morning sunlight synchronises the body temperature rhythm to the local
time, allowing a person to quickly adjust to the local time zone.

B The daily variation in body temperature is the most important circadian rhythm for sleep, and it
varies significantly among individuals. A pilot should recognise his/her personal pattern in order to
effectively plan sleep timing and duration.

C The circadian variation in body temperature is the same for most people (who are adapted to the
local time and work/sleep cycle). It is critical for determining the timing, duration and therefore quality of
sleep.

D When the body temperature rises it takes longer to fall asleep, but the sleep will be of better quality
and longer duration. Because body temperature rises in the evening it is better to go to bed early in the
evening.

Question N° 79
Which of the factors below can have a negative impact on human reliability?
1. Complacency
2. Distractions
3. Fatigue
4. Low and medium workload levels
5. Lack of awareness

A 1, 2, 3 and 5.

B 1, 2, 3 and 4.

C 1, 3, 4 and 5.

D 2, 3, 4 and 5.

Question N° 80
From the following components of the respiratory system, which one is related
to increasing the volume of the chest cavity to achieve normal breathing?

A The nose and mouth.

B The diaphragm.

C The alveoli.

D The lungs.

Question N° 81
While flying, the captain feels light-headed. He then feels an uncomfortable
pressure on his left chest that lasts for a few minutes. All of the sudden, his left
arm goes numb.

A The captain should tell the co-pilot about this as soon as possible.

B The captain should not tell the co-pilot anything not to worry him/her.

C The captain should ask to be pilot monitoring during the approach.

D The captain should try not to focus on the pain and attend his AME as soon as they land.

Question N° 82
During a night flight a pilot returns from the cabin and takes their seat in the
flight deck, allowing their eyes to adapt to the dark. Which term is relevant to
describe the change in the rods and the cones?

A Peripheral vision

B Grey-out

C Sensitivity

D Binocular cue
Question N° 83
During a VFR flight, visibility deteriorates and the pilot, who doesnt hold an
instrument rating, encounters cloud conditions, despite the degrading
meteorological conditions the pilot decides not to divert but to continue the VFR
flight, finally entering Instrumental Meteorological Conditions, the pilot attempts
to continue the planned route but after 5 minutes contacts ATC for assistance.
Which of the following are accetable explanation for why the pilot made
violation?
1. The pilot did not properly assess the risk of the spatial disorientation while
entering into IMC.
2. The pilot made poor assesment of the environmental situation, and as a
consequence the pilot inadvertently entered IMC.
3. Once the conditions reached IMC, the pilot reviewed the options. There is
time to re-evaluate the situation in a degraded visual environmental before
experiencing the spatial disorientation.
4. The pilot failed to get an accurate meteorological pre -flight briefing, the
development of options when encountering an unexpected situatio n takes time
and may delay reaching a desicion.

A 1 and 4 only

B 1, 2 and 4

C 2 and 3 only

D 2, 3 and 4

Question N° 84
The co-pilot is assigned the role of communicating with ATC. The ATC relays to
the co-pilot the clearance, and the co-pilot responds with an incorrect clearance.
The ATC controller and the PIC fail to notice the co -pilot makes an incorrect
read back. What errors have occurred?

A Communication error by the co-pilot, PIC, and ATC.

B Handling error by the co-pilot, and procedural error by the ATC and PIC.

C Communication error by the co-pilot and ATC, handling error by the PIC.
D Handling error by the co-pilot, and procedural error by the PIC.

.............................................................................................................................................................

Release date: 2023.02.12.

Question N° 85
A helicopter pilot under supervision working for a medical evacuation team
performs a landing without keeping to mandatory airspeed and height values at
the landing decision point, and without actively engaging in the recommended
crew concept.
The supervising captain then conducts a debriefing of the manoeuvre, and
points out the various deficiencies. The pilot reacts by stating that he/she is an
excellent pilot who is without any doubt capable of performing such manoeuvres
safely.
What of these hazardous attitudes best fits the a ttitude of the pilot under
supervision?

A Resignation

B Macho

C Impulsivity

D Invulnerability

Question N° 86
During cruise a malfunction in the Inertial Reference System disengages the
autopilot, and the aircraft begins to bank. By the time the crew realises there is
something wrong, the angle of bank has exceeded 35°, and the crew are already
spatially disoriented. How may this be explained?

A If the rolling acceleration is greater than 8° per second, the vestibular receptors of the pilots may
fail to detect the variation in the angle of bank, being below the sensory threshold.

B With flying experience, the vestibular sensory threshold of their pilots decreases, leading to
reduced sensitivity to stimuli related to attitude changes of the aircraft.

C The aircraft's rolling acceleration is so slow that it remains below the vestibular sensory threshold,
so the crew fail to detect the change in the angle of bank.

D A variation in the bank angle of the aircraft should be perceived when it exceeds 8°, which is the
average sensory threshold for a healthy adult.

Question N° 87
Decision-making can be influenced by the following factors:
1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a majority within the group
they belong to
2. people always keep the future decisions in line with those their superiors
have made in the past
3. people more easily tend to select data which meet their expectations
4. people rarely base decisions on their personal preferences but rather on
rational information.
Which of the following lists all the correct answers ?

A 1 and 4

B 2 and 3

C 2 and 4

D 1 and 3

Question N° 88
In the Swiss Cheese model, what do holes represent?
A Missing data in the risk management system.

B Errors in the system or process.

C Systems or processes put in place to reduce risk.

D Systems or processes designed to prevent harm

Question N° 89
Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of
reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)?
1. Reduce the intensity of the light
2. Have a meal
3. Keep active, open communication between man and machine
4. Organise periods of rest during the flight

A 1 and 2

B 3 and 4

C 2 and 4

D 1 and 3

Question N° 90
An experienced pilot is employed by an airline operator on a fixed -term contract
as First officer. The Operator will offer a permanent contract to only 1 pilot at
the end of the year, so the First Officer is really motivated to perform at his/her
best.
The commander of the aircraft who flies with him/her should be aware that...

A High motivation increases arousal but reduces the perceived stress level, so the First Officer will be
prone to hypervigilance during the cruise.

B Over-motivation will affect performance, because the associated high levels of arousal are a
physiological source of stress.
C High levels of motivation lead to higher arousal, resulting in the First Officer performing his/her
monitoring duties more effectively.

D Strong motivation to achieve is a cognitive stressor, and it can negatively affect performance.

Question N° 91
During a two-hour domestic flight, the Commander keeps testing the knowledge
of the Co-Pilot, arrogantly lecturing and advising him/her for 1 hour after take -
off. Thereafter, the Co-Pilot remains generally quiet and submissive. The
Commander then asks the Co-Pilot to set in the Flight Management System
some unauthorised waypoints for the approach. The Co -Pilot is aware of the
violation but does NOT challenge the Commander about his/her decision and
does what the Commander orders.
How is the co-pilot behaving?

A As an obedient

B As a hypovigilant

C As a persuasive

D Self-disciplined

Question N° 92
An aircraft operating with the FMS in the LNAV VNAV mode is operating in a
busy terminal area at the end of a flight. Bad weather in the area has resulted in
ATC requiring the flight crew to make several changes to the aircraft's flight
path.

In order to maintain the maximum awareness of their flight status, what is the
best action for the pilots to take?

A The FMS in LNAV VNAV mode is the primary, and most accurate, navigation system available to
the pilots, and its use should be maintained. In order to minimise data entry errors, both pilots should check
the entry of the new LNAV/VNAV parameters at the same time.
B Re-programming of the FMS in the LNAV VNAV mode during periods of high workload can lead
to errors and also cause a loss of situational awareness. Therefore, the pilots should downgrade to a lower,
simpler level of automation such as ALT/HDG or even to manual flying.

C The main risk is that the pilots become distracted while re-programming the FMS. To reduce this
risk, the Pilot-in- Command should immediately request a short delay or a hold, in order to complete the
entry of the new LNAV VNAV parameters, before continuing with the approach.

D In order to mitigate against loss of situational awareness, and avoid the risk of errors while entering
new data, the FMS should be switched off, and the pilots should respond to ATC instructions by flying the
aircraft manually.

Question N° 93
From the factors below, select the option which includes the factors which would
increase the effect or lower the threshold for hypoxic hypoxia:
1. Alcohol consumption
2. Duration of exposure
3. Pressure altitude above 20,000 ft
4. Age over 35
5. Physical exertion at altitude
6. Humidity
7. High Temperature
8. Fatigue
9. Nausea
10. Scuba diving before the exposure
11. Caffeine consumption
12. Poor nutrition
13. Low humidity

A 1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9 and 11.

B 1, 3, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12.

C 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8 and 9.

D 2, 5, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12.

Question N° 94
One major component of an SMS is:
A Quality assurance.

B Threat and error management.

C Safety risk management.

D Quality control.

Question N° 95
Which of the factors below lead to having a high pulse rate?
1. Adrenaline
2. High humidity
3. Staying in heat condition
4. Obesity
5. Stress

A 1, 3 and 4

B 1, 3, 4 and 5

C 2, 3, 4 and 5

D 1 and 2

Question N° 96
Gastrointestinal upset is one of the most common causes of crew incapacitation
in flight. It can be caused by which of the following:
1. Viral infection from food or water
2. Bacterial infection from food or water
3. Diarrhoea
4. Vomiting
5. Spicy food
6. Alcohol

A 1, 2, 4 and 6.
B 1, 2, 5 and 6.

C 2, 3, 5 and 6.

D 3, 4, 5 and 6.

Question N° 97
What is the correct order in which light passes through the components of the
human eye?

A Cornea, iris/pupil, lens, Retina

B Cornea, lens, retina, iris/pupil

C Iris/pupil, lens, cornea, Retina

D Iris/pupil, retina, lens, Cornea

Question N° 98
Which are the two restorative processes that regulate the human body’s pattern
of sleepiness and alertness throughout the day?

A Light/dark homeostasis and the circadian dysrhythmia.

B Light/dark homeostasis and the parasomnia rhythm.

C Sleep/wake homeostasis and the parasomnia process.

D Sleep/wake homeostasis and the circadian rhythm.

Question N° 99
After SCUBA diving (to more than 10 m depth) you have to wait a period of time
before flying. This period is at least..
A 24 hours.

B 48 hours.

C 12 hours.

D 6 hours.

Question N° 100
On March 27th 1977, at Tenerife Aifield, a Pan American and KLM aircraft were
involved in a crash leading to multiple fatalities. On the day the visibility was
severly restricted due to fog. The KLM aircraft received a flight clearance and
the First Officer completed his readback with "we are now r eady for take-off".
The controller replied "OK, stand by for take-off". At this time there was a
transmission from another aircraft on the frequency which interupted this
message from the controller, the result being that the KLM crew only heard
"OK". The KLM Captain interpreted "OK" as take -off clearance and started the
take-off roll. The Pan Am aircraft was still taxing on the runway and the two
collided.

In relation to this incident described above what type of communication and

associated disadvantage are illustrated?

A Implicit communication, which is prone to technical limitation such as multiple transmissions on

the same frequency.

B Explicit communication, since the message was interrupted and should have required clarification
with the controller.

C Explicit communication and as such open to interpretation by either the flight crew or controller.

D Implicit communication which may be misinterpreted due to the fundamental differences between
verbal and non verbal communication.

Question N° 101
If you suspect carbon monoxide poisoning in flight, which of the following
actions should a crew member take?
1. Turn the cabin heat off.
2. Turn the cabin heat on.
3. Select the maximum rate of fresh air ventilation to the cabin.
4. Turn off all fresh air ventilation to the cabin.
5. Open the window if the environment allows.
6. Land as soon as possible/practicable and seek medical attention.
7. Avoid using supplemental oxygen.

A 1, 3, 5 and 6.

B 2, 4, 5 and 6.

C 2, 3, 5 and 6.

D 1, 4, 5 and 7.

Question N° 102
During flight, cabin pressurisation is lost, and CANNOT be restored before the
cabin altitude reaches a critical value. Which of the actions below must the flight
crew carry out, and in what order?
1. Declare an emergency.
2. Declare an emergency, asking for QNH information
3. Ask for QNH information.
4. Put on oxygen equipment
5. Initiate an immediate rapid descent to the minimum safe altitude or 10 000 ft,
whichever is higher.
6. Initiate an immediate descent to the minimum safe altitude or 10 000 ft,
whichever is higher, at a medium rate of descent to avoid decompression
sickness.

A First 1, followed by 5, then 4, then 3.

B First 4, followed by 6, then 2.

C First 5, followed by 4, then 2.

D First 4, followed by 5, then 2.

Question N° 103
Healthy people are usually capable of compensating for a lack of oxygen up to..

A 10000 ft to 12000 ft.

B 15000 ft.

C 20000 ft.

D 25000 ft.

Question N° 104
When flying over a downsloping terrain towards a flat runway, what is the pilot's
perception?

A He may feel that he is going too fast, so he reduces power.

B He may feel that he is higher than he actually is.

C He may feel that he is lower than he actually is.

D He perceives a normal approach.

Question N° 105
State the legal limit of the blood alcohol level (by concentration) in aviation.

A 0.2 % for flight planning and operations.

B 0.2 % when reporting for flight duty.

C 0.02 % whenever performing duties.

D 0.02 % during flight operations only.

Question N° 106
The physiological effects of an acceleration of 3G on the human body depends
on the:
1. duration of the G forces,
2. onset rate of the G forces,
3. magnitude of the G forces,
4. aircraft’s altitude.

A 2, 3, and 4 are correct, 1 is incorrect

B 1 and 4 are correct, 2 and 3 are incorrect

C 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are incorrect

D 1, 2, and 3 are correct, 4 is incorrect

Question N° 107
During a training flight at low altitudes, an instructor simulates an engine failure
and notices that the student pilot is becoming very nervous and is acting too
slowly. Therefore, the instructor takes over the controls. After landing the
student pilot feels weak and is over- breathing.
The instructor tells him/her to breathe slowly and to talk about the flight because
the student pilot is:

A Suffering from hypoxia, but his/her poor performance must be immediately discussed.

B Hyperventilating; speaking aloud helps to increase the oxygen exchange rate and restore normal
respiration.

C Suffering from hypoxia; speaking aloud allows for deeper breaths and helps to restore normal
levels of blood CO2.

D Hyperventilating; speaking aloud and breathing slowly are good countermeasures.

Question N° 108
Which of the following statements is correct?

A During the course of a flight, pilots should always reach a decision as quickly as possible.
B The decisions pilots make in the cockpit remain valid for a limited time only.

C Decision-making becomes an automatic process for experienced pilots.

D Any decision made by pilots in the cockpit can NOT be reversed.

Question N° 109
How many bouts of REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep typically occur in an 8 -
hour sleep period?

A 4 or 5

B 6 or 7

C 2 or 3

D 8 or 9

Question N° 110
Metacommunication is defined as

A having an assessment conversation

B active listening

C those aids, other than the actual words, which complement those words in order to communicate

D balancing the own ideas and interests with those of the receiver

Question N° 111
State the conditions which cause the "black hole effect" and the danger to flight
safety. The "black hole effect" can be caused by flying..
A under instruments with poor cockpit lighting and can lead to disorientation.

B over featureless terrain on the approach to an airfield which can create the illusion that the aircraft
is at a higher altitude than it really is, leading to a high approach being flown.

C over water at night on the approach to an airfield which can create the illusion that the aircraft is at
a higher altitude than it really is, leading to a low approach being flown.

D over water at night on the approach to an airfield which can create the illusion that the aircraft is at
a higher altitude than it really is, leading to a high approach being flown.

Question N° 112
A captain who has just recently been trained to a new aircraft type is learning
the memory items for an emergency procedure. What is the type of learning
described?

A Trial and error learning.

B Cognitive learning.

C Conditioning.

D Modelling.

Question N° 113
In the decision-making process, confirmation bias results in:

A a tendency to look for approval by other crew-members, or by the ATC

B choosing familiar solutions, even if they are not the best ones

C overestimating the frequency of some events

D a tendency to look for information which confirms the validity of the decision
Question N° 114
A helicopter pilot is performing a landing and on short final he/she is not keeping
the mandatory airspeed and heights. At debriefing, his/her commander pointed
out what he/she did not follow the operating standards. The pilot roughly said
that he/she is a good pilot and is very good at flying. What kind of attitude is
this?

A Impulsivity

B Invulnerability

C Resignation

D Macho