CFR 2021 Title14 Vol2

Title 14
Aeronautics and Space

Parts 60 to 109
Revised as of January 1, 2021
Containing a codification of documents

of general applicability and future effect
As of January 1, 2021
Published by the Office of the Federal Register

National Archives and Records Administration
as a Special Edition of the Federal Register
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Table of Contents
Page
Explanation ................................................................................................ v
Title 14:
Chapter I—Federal Aviation Administration, Department of

Transportation (Continued) ......................................................... 3
Finding Aids:
Table of CFR Titles and Chapters ....................................................... 947
Alphabetical List of Agencies Appearing in the CFR ......................... 967
List of CFR Sections Affected ............................................................. 977

iii
Cite this Code: CFR
To cite the regulations in

this volume use title,
part and section num-
ber. Thus, 14 CFR 60.1
refers to title 14, part
60, section 1.
iv
Explanation
The Code of Federal Regulations is a codification of the general and permanent
rules published in the Federal Register by the Executive departments and agen-
cies of the Federal Government. The Code is divided into 50 titles which represent
broad areas subject to Federal regulation. Each title is divided into chapters
which usually bear the name of the issuing agency. Each chapter is further sub-
divided into parts covering specific regulatory areas.
Each volume of the Code is revised at least once each calendar year and issued
on a quarterly basis approximately as follows:
Title 1 through Title 16..............................................................as of January 1
Title 17 through Title 27 .................................................................as of April 1
Title 28 through Title 41 ..................................................................as of July 1
Title 42 through Title 50 .............................................................as of October 1
The appropriate revision date is printed on the cover of each volume.
LEGAL STATUS
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vi
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OLIVER A. POTTS,
Director,
Office of the Federal Register
January 1, 2021
vii
THIS TITLE
Title 14—AERONAUTICS AND SPACE is composed of five volumes. The parts in

these volumes are arranged in the following order: Parts 1–59, 60–109, 110–199, 200–
1199, and part 1200–End. The first three volumes containing parts 1–199 are com-
prised of chapter I—Federal Aviation Administration, Department of Transpor-
tation (DOT). The fourth volume containing parts 200–1199 is comprised of chapter
II—Office of the Secretary, DOT (Aviation Proceedings) and chapter III—Com-
mercial Space Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, DOT. The fifth
volume containing part 1200–End is comprised of chapter V—National Aero-
nautics and Space Administration and chapter VI—Air Transportation System
Stabilization. The contents of these volumes represent all current regulations
codified under this title of the CFR as of January 1, 2021.
For this volume, Robert J. Sheehan, III was Chief Editor. The Code of Federal
Regulations publication program is under the direction of John Hyrum Martinez,
assisted by Stephen J. Frattini.
ix
Title 14—Aeronautics
and Space
(This book contains parts 60 to 109)
Part
CHAPTER I—Federal Aviation Administration, Department

of Transportation (Continued) ........................................... 60
CHAPTER I—FEDERAL AVIATION
ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF
TRANSPORTATION (CONTINUED)
SUBCHAPTER D—AIRMEN
Part Page
60 Flight simulation training device initial and con-
tinuing qualification and use ............................... 5
61 Certification: Pilots, flight instructors, and ground
instructors ........................................................... 501
63 Certification: Flight crewmembers other than pi-
lots ....................................................................... 637
65 Certification: Airmen other than flight crew-
members ............................................................... 656
67 Medical standards and certification ........................ 679
68 Requirements for operating certain small aircraft
without a medical certificate ............................... 691
SUBCHAPTER E—AIRSPACE
71 Designation of class A, B, C, D, and E airspace

areas; air traffic service routes; and reporting
points ................................................................... 695
73 Special use airspace ................................................ 700
75 [Reserved]
77 Safe, efficient use, and preservation of the navi-
gable airspace ....................................................... 702
SUBCHAPTER F—AIR TRAFFIC AND GENERAL OPERATING RULES
91 General operating and flight rules .......................... 712

93 Special air traffic rules ........................................... 873
95 IFR altitudes ........................................................... 907
97 Standard instrument procedures ............................. 915
99 Security control of air traffic ................................. 917
101 Moored balloons,kites, amateur rockets, and un-
manned free balloons ........................................... 921
103 Ultralight vehicles .................................................. 927

105 Parachute operations .............................................. 929
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
Part Page
106 [Reserved]
107 Small unmanned aircraft systems .......................... 935
108–109 [Reserved]
SUBCHAPTER D—AIRMEN
PART 60—FLIGHT SIMULATION APPENDIX E TO PART 60—QUALIFICATION PER-

FORMANCE STANDARDS FOR QUALITY MAN-
TRAINING DEVICE INITIAL AND AGEMENT SYSTEMS FOR FLIGHT SIMULA-
CONTINUING QUALIFICATION TION TRAINING DEVICES
AND USE APPENDIX F TO PART 60—DEFINITIONS AND AB-
BREVIATIONS FOR FLIGHT SIMULATION
Sec. TRAINING DEVICES
60.1 Applicability. AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113,
60.2 Applicability of sponsor rules to per- and 44701; Pub. L. 111–216, 124 Stat. 2348 (49
sons who are not sponsors and who are U.S.C. 44701 note)
engaged in certain unauthorized activi-
ties. SOURCE: Docket No. FAA–2002–12461, 71 FR
60.3 Definitions. 63426, Oct. 30, 2006, unless otherwise noted.
60.4 Qualification Performance Standards.
60.5 Quality management system. § 60.1 Applicability.
60.7 Sponsor qualification requirements.
60.9 Additional responsibilities of the spon- (a) This part prescribes the rules gov-
sor. erning the initial and continuing quali-
60.11 FSTD use. fication and use of all aircraft flight
60.13 FSTD objective data requirements. simulation training devices (FSTD)
60.14 Special equipment and personnel re- used for meeting training, evaluation,
quirements for qualification of the or flight experience requirements of
FSTD.
60.15 Initial qualification requirements.
this chapter for flight crewmember cer-
60.16 Additional qualifications for a cur- tification or qualification.
rently qualified FSTD. (b) The rules of this part apply to
60.17 Previously qualified FSTDs. each person using or applying to use an
60.19 Inspection, continuing qualification FSTD to meet any requirement of this
evaluation, and maintenance require- chapter.
ments.
60.20 Logging FSTD discrepancies.
(c) The requirements of § 60.33 regard-
60.21 Interim qualification of FSTDs for ing falsification of applications,
new aircraft types or models. records, or reports also apply to each
60.23 Modifications to FSTDs. person who uses an FSTD for training,
60.25 Operation with missing, malfunc- evaluation, or obtaining flight experi-
tioning, or inoperative components. ence required for flight crewmember
60.27 Automatic loss of qualification and certification or qualification under
procedures for restoration of qualifica-
this chapter.
tion.
60.29 Other losses of qualification and pro-
cedures for restoration of qualification. § 60.2 Applicability of sponsor rules to
60.31 Recordkeeping and reporting. persons who are not sponsors and
60.33 Applications, logbooks, reports, and who are engaged in certain unau-
records: Fraud, falsification, or incorrect thorized activities.
statements. (a) The rules of this part that are di-
60.35 Specific full flight simulator compli- rected to a sponsor of an FSTD also
ance requirements. apply to any person who uses or causes
60.37 FSTD qualification on the basis of a
Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement
the use of an FSTD when—
(BASA). (1) That person knows that the FSTD
APPENDIX A TO PART 60—QUALIFICATION PER- does not have an FAA-approved spon-
FORMANCE STANDARDS FOR AIRPLANE sor; and
FULL FLIGHT SIMULATORS (2) The use of the FSTD by that per-
APPENDIX B TO PART 60—QUALIFICATION PER- son is nonetheless claimed for purposes
FORMANCE STANDARDS FOR AIRPLANE of meeting any requirement of this
FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICES chapter or that person knows or should
APPENDIX C TO PART 60—QUALIFICATION PER-
FORMANCE STANDARDS FOR HELICOPTER
have known that the person’s acts or
FULL FLIGHT SIMULATORS omissions would cause another person
to mistakenly credit use of the FSTD
APPENDIX D TO PART 60—QUALIFICATION PER-

FORMANCE STANDARDS FOR HELICOPTER for purposes of meeting any require-
FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICES ment of this chapter.
§ 60.3 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(b) A situation in which paragraph ment of this chapter unless the sponsor
(a) of this section would not apply to a has established and follows a quality
person would be when each of the fol- management system (QMS), currently
lowing conditions are met: approved by the National Simulator
(1) The person sold or leased the Program Manager (NSPM), for the con-
FSTD and merely represented to the tinuing surveillance and analysis of the
purchaser or lessee that the FSTD is in sponsor’s performance and effective-
a condition in which it should be able ness in providing a satisfactory FSTD
to obtain FAA approval and qualifica- for use on a regular basis as described
tion under this part; in QPS appendix E of this part.
(2) The person does not falsely claim (b) The QMS program must provide a
to be the FAA-approved sponsor for the process for identifying deficiencies in
FSTD; the program and for documenting how
(3) The person does not falsely make the program will be changed to address
representations that someone else is these deficiencies.
the FAA-approved sponsor of the FSTD (c) Whenever the NSPM finds that
at a time when that other person is not the QMS program does not adequately
the FAA-approved sponsor of the address the procedures necessary to
FSTD; and meet the requirements of this part, the
(4) The person’s acts or omissions do sponsor must, after notification by the
not cause another person to detrimen- NSPM, change the program so the pro-
tally rely on such acts or omissions for cedures meet the requirements of this
the mistaken conclusion that the part. Each such change must be ap-
FSTD is FAA-approved and qualified proved by the NSPM prior to imple-
under this part at the time the FSTD mentation.
is sold or leased. (d) Within 30 days after the sponsor
receives a notice described in para-
§ 60.3 Definitions. graph (c) of this section, the sponsor
In addition to the definitions in part may file a petition with the Executive
1 of this chapter, other terms and defi- Director of Flight Standards Service
nitions applicable to this part are (the Executive Director) for reconsider-
found in appendix F of this part. ation of the NSPM finding. The sponsor
must address its petition to the Execu-
§ 60.4 Qualification Performance tive Director, Flight Standards Serv-
Standards. ice, Federal Aviation Administration,
The Qualification Performance 800 Independence Ave., SW., Wash-
Standards (QPS) are published in ap- ington, DC 20591. The filing of such a
pendices to this part as follows: petition to reconsider stays the notice
(a) Appendix A contains the QPS for pending a decision by the Executive Di-
Airplane Flight Simulators. rector. However, if the Executive Di-
(b) Appendix B contains the QPS for rector finds that there is a situation
Airplane Flight Training Devices. that requires immediate action in the
(c) Appendix C contains the QPS for interest of safety in air commerce, he
Helicopter Flight Simulators. may, upon a statement of the reasons,
(d) Appendix D contains the QPS for require a change effective without
Helicopter Flight Training Devices. stay.
(e) Appendix E contains the QPS for
[Doc. No. FAA–2002–12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct.
Quality Management Systems for 30, 2006; Amdt. 60–2, 72 FR 59599, Oct. 22, 2007,
FSTDs. as amended by Docket FAA–2018–0119, Amdt.
(f) Appendix F contains the QPS for 60–5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]
Definitions and Abbreviations for
FSTDs. § 60.7 Sponsor qualification require-
ments.
§ 60.5 Quality management system. (a) A person is eligible to apply to be
(a) After May 30, 2010, no sponsor a sponsor of an FSTD if the following
may use or allow the use of or offer the conditions are met:
use of an FSTD for flight crewmember (1) The person holds, or is an appli-
training or evaluation or for obtaining cant for, a certificate under part 119,
flight experience to meet any require- 141, or 142 of this chapter; or holds, or
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT § 60.9
is an applicant for, an approved flight fication evaluation conducted by the

engineer course in accordance with NSPM after May 30, 2008 and at least
part 63 of this chapter. once within each subsequent 12-month
(2) The FSTD will be used, or will be period thereafter.
offered for use, in the sponsor’s FAA- (c) If the use requirements of para-
approved flight training program for graphs (b)(2) and either (b)(5) or (b)(6)
the aircraft being simulated as evi- of this section are not met, the person
denced in a request for evaluation sub- will forfeit the right to sponsor that
mitted to the NSPM. FSTD and that person will not be eligi-
(b) A person is a sponsor if the fol- ble to apply to sponsor that FSTD for
lowing conditions are met: at least 12 calendar months following
(1) The person is a certificate holder the expiration of the qualification sta-
under part 119, 141, or 142 of this chap- tus.
ter or has an approved flight engineer (d) In addition to the FSTD described
course in accordance with part 63 of in paragraph (b) of this section, an
this chapter. FSTD sponsor may sponsor any num-
(2) The person has— ber of other FSTDs regardless of spe-
(i) Operations specifications author- cific aircraft or set of aircraft provided
izing the use of the specific aircraft or either—
set of aircraft and has an FAA-ap- (1) During the preceding 12-month pe-
proved training program under which riod, all of the other FSTDs are used
at least one FSTD, simulating the air- within the sponsor’s or another certifi-
craft or set of aircraft and for which cate holder’s FAA-approved flight
the person is the sponsor, is used by training program for the aircraft or set
the sponsor as described in paragraphs of aircraft simulated; or
(b)(5) or (b)(6) of this section; or (2) The sponsor obtains a written
(ii) Training specifications or an statement at least annually from a
FAA-approved course of training under qualified pilot who has flown the air-
which at least one FSTD, simulating craft or set of aircraft (as appropriate)
that aircraft or set of aircraft and for during the preceding 12-month period
which the person is the sponsor, is used stating that the subject FSTD’s per-
by the sponsor as described in para- formance and handling qualities, with-
graphs (b)(5) or (b)(6) of this section. in the normal operating envelope, rep-
(3) The person has a quality manage- resent the aircraft or set of aircraft de-
ment system currently approved by the scribed in the FAA Type Certificate
NSPM in accordance with § 60.5. and the type data sheet, if appropriate.
(4) The NSPM has accepted the per- The sponsor must retain the two most
son as the sponsor of the FSTD and current written statements for review
that acceptance has not been with- by the NSPM.
drawn by the FAA. [Doc. No. FAA–2002–12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct.
(5) At least one FSTD (as referenced 30, 2006; Amdt. 60–2, 72 FR 59599, Oct. 22, 2007]
in paragraph (b)(2)(i) or (b)(2)(ii) of this
section) that is initially qualified on or § 60.9 Additional responsibilities of the
after May 30, 2008, is used within the sponsor.
sponsor’s FAA-approved flight training (a) The sponsor must allow the
program for the aircraft or set of air- NSPM upon request to inspect the
craft at least once within the 12-month FSTD as soon as practicable. This in-
period following the initial/upgrade spection may include all records and
evaluation, and at least once within documents relating to the FSTD, to de-
each subsequent 12-month period there- termine its compliance with this part.
after. (b) The sponsor must do the following
(6) At least one FSTD (as referenced for each FSTD:
in paragraph (b)(2)(i) or (b)(2)(ii) of this (1) Establish a mechanism to receive
section) that was qualified before May written comments regarding the FSTD
30, 2008, is used within the sponsor’s and its operation in accordance with
FAA-approved flight training program the QPS appendix E of this part.
for the aircraft or set of aircraft at (2) Post in or adjacent to the FSTD
least once within the 12-month period the Statement of Qualification issued
following the first continuing quali- by the NSPM. An electronic copy of
§ 60.11 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
the Statement of Qualification that result of continually meeting the re-

may be accessed by an appropriate ter- quirements of this part.
minal or display in or adjacent to the (b) Is qualified as described in the
FSTD is satisfactory. Statement of Qualification.
(c) Each sponsor of an FSTD must (c) Remains qualified, through satis-
identify to the NSPM by name, one in- factory inspection, continuing quali-
dividual to be the management rep- fication evaluations, appropriate main-
resentative (MR). tenance, and use requirements in ac-
(1) One person may serve as an MR cordance with this part and the appli-
for more than one FSTD, but one cable QPS.
FSTD must not have more than one (d) Functions during day-to-day
person serving in this capacity. training, evaluation, or flight experi-
(2) Each MR must be an employee of ence activities with the software and
the sponsor with the responsibility and hardware that was evaluated as satis-
authority to— factory by the NSPM and, if modified,
(i) Monitor the on-going qualification modified only in accordance with the
of assigned FSTDs to ensure that all provisions of this part. However, this
matters regarding FSTD qualification section does not apply to routine soft-
are being carried out as provided for in ware or hardware changes that do not
this part; fall under the requirements of § 60.23.
(ii) Ensure that the QMS is properly (e) Is operated in accordance with the
established, implemented, and main- provisions and limitations of § 60.25.
tained by overseeing the structure (and
modifying where necessary) of the QMS § 60.13 FSTD objective data require-
policies, practices, and procedures; and ments.
(iii) Regularly brief sponsor’s man- (a) Except as provided in paragraph
agement on the status of the on-going (b) and (c) of this section, for the pur-
FSTD qualification program and the poses of validating FSTD performance
effectiveness and efficiency of the and handling qualities during evalua-
QMS. tion for qualification, the data made
(3) The MR serves as the primary available to the NSPM (the validation
contact point for all matters between data package) must include the air-
the sponsor and the NSPM regarding craft manufacturer’s flight test data
the qualification of that FSTD as pro- and all relevant data developed after
vided for in this part. the type certificate was issued (e.g.,
(4) The MR may delegate the duties data developed in response to an air-
described in paragraph (c)(2) and (c)(3) worthiness directive) if such data re-
of this section to an individual at each sults from a change in performance,
of the sponsor’s locations. handling qualities, functions, or other
characteristics of the aircraft that
§ 60.11 FSTD use. must be considered for flight crew-
No person may use or allow the use member training, evaluation, or for
of or offer the use of an FSTD for flight meeting experience requirements of
crewmember training or evaluation or this chapter.
for obtaining flight experience to meet (b) The validation data package may
any of the requirements under this contain flight test data from a source
chapter unless, in accordance with the in addition to or independent of the
QPS for the specific device, the FSTD aircraft manufacturer’s data in support
meets all of the following: of an FSTD qualification, but only if
(a) Has a single sponsor who is quali- this data is gathered and developed by
fied under § 60.7. The sponsor may ar- that source in accordance with flight
range with another person for services test methods, including a flight test
of document preparation and presen- plan, as described in the applicable
tation, as well as FSTD inspection, QPS.
maintenance, repair, and servicing; (c) The validation data package may
however, the sponsor remains respon- also contain predicted data, engineer-
sible for ensuring that these functions ing simulation data, data from pilot
are conducted in a manner and with a owner or pilot operating manuals, or
data from public domain sources, pro- paragraph (d) of this section after hav-
vided this data is acceptable to the ing flown all of the Operations Tasks
NSPM. If found acceptable the data listed in the applicable QPS appendix
may then be used in particular applica- relevant to the qualification level of
tions for FSTD qualification. the FSTD. Exceptions, if any, must be
(d) Data or other material or ele- noted. The name of the person(s) mak-
ments must be submitted in a form and ing this determination must be avail-
manner acceptable to the NSPM. able to the NSPM upon request.
(e) The NSPM may require additional (2) The FSTD systems and sub-sys-
objective data, which may include tems (including the simulated aircraft
flight testing if necessary, if the vali- systems) functionally represent those
dation data package does not support in the aircraft or set of aircraft. This
FSTD qualification requirements as determination must be made by the
described in this part and the applica- pilot(s) described in paragraph (b)(1) of
ble QPS appendix. this section, or by a person(s) trained
(f) When an FSTD sponsor learns, or on simulator systems/sub-systems and
is advised by an aircraft manufacturer trained on the operation of the simu-
or other data provider, that an addi- lated aircraft systems, after having ex-
tion to, an amendment to, or a revision ercised the operation of the FSTD and
of data that may relate to FSTD per- the pertinent functions available
formance or handling characteristics is through the Instructor Operating Sta-
available, the sponsor must notify the tion(s). Exceptions, if any, must be
NSPM as described in the applicable noted. The name of the person(s) mak-
QPS. ing this determination must be avail-
able to the NSPM upon request.
§ 60.14 Special equipment and per- (3) The cockpit represents the con-
sonnel requirements for qualifica- figuration of the specific type; or air-
tion of the FSTD. craft make, model, and series aircraft
When notified by the NSPM, the being simulated, as appropriate. This
sponsor must make available all spe- determination must be made by the
cial equipment and qualified personnel pilot(s) described in paragraph (b)(1) of
needed to accomplish or assist in the this section, or by a person(s) trained
accomplishment of tests during initial on the configuration and operation of
qualification, continuing qualification, the aircraft simulated. Exceptions, if
or special evaluations. any, must be noted. The name of the
person(s) making this determination
§ 60.15 Initial qualification require- must be available to the NSPM upon
ments. request.
(a) For each FSTD, the sponsor must (c) Except for those FSTDs pre-
submit a request to the NSPM to viously qualified and described in
evaluate the FSTD for initial qualifica- § 60.17, each FSTD evaluated for initial
tion at a specific level and simulta- qualification must meet the standard
neously request the Training Program that is in effect at the time of the eval-
Approval Authority (TPAA) forward a uation. However—
concurring letter to the NSPM. The re- (1) If the FAA publishes a change to
quest must be submitted in the form the existing standard or publishes a
and manner described in the applicable new standard for the evaluation for ini-
QPS. tial qualification, a sponsor may re-
(b) The management representative quest that the NSPM apply the stand-
described in § 60.9(c) must sign a state- ard that was in effect when an FSTD
ment (electronic signature is accept- was ordered for delivery if the spon-
able for electronic transmissions) after sor—
confirming the following: (i) Within 30 days of the publication
(1) The performance and handling of the change to the existing standard
qualities of the FSTD represent those or publication of the new standard, no-
of the aircraft or set of aircraft within tifies the NSPM that an FSTD has
the normal operating envelope. This been ordered;
determination must be made by a (ii) Within 90 days of the NSPM noti-

pilot(s) meeting the requirements of fication described in paragraph (c)(1)(i)
§ 60.15 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
of this section, requests that the stand- scribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this sec-
ard in effect at the time the order was tion or issues an FSTD Directive as de-
placed be used for the evaluation for scribed in § 60.23(b), which conflicts
initial qualification; and with or supersedes an approved devi-
(iii) The evaluation is conducted ation, the Administrator may termi-
within 24 months following the publica- nate or revise a grant of deviation au-
tion of the change to the existing thority issued under this paragraph.
standard or publication of the new (d) The pilot(s) who contributes to
standard. the confirmation statement required
(2) This notification must include a by paragraph (b) of this section must—
description of the FSTD; the antici- (1) Be designated by the sponsor; and
pated qualification level of the FSTD; (2) Be qualified in—
the make, model, and series of aircraft (i) The aircraft or set of aircraft
simulated; and any other pertinent in- being simulated; or
formation. (ii) For aircraft not yet issued a type
(3) Any tests, tolerances, or other re- certificate, or aircraft not previously
quirements that are current at the operated by the sponsor or not having
time of the evaluation may be used previous FAA-approved training pro-
during the initial evaluation, at the re- grams conducted by the sponsor, an
quest of the sponsor, if the sponsor pro- aircraft similar in size and configura-
vides acceptable updates to the re- tion.
quired qualification test guide. (e) The subjective tests that form the
(4) The standards used for the evalua- basis for the statements described in
tion for initial qualification will be paragraph (b) of this section and the
used for all subsequent evaluations of objective tests referenced in paragraph
the FSTD. (f) of this section must be accom-
(5) An FSTD sponsor or FSTD manu- plished at the sponsor’s training facil-
facturer may submit a request to the ity or other sponsor designated loca-
Administrator for approval of a devi- tion where training will take place, ex-
ation from the QPS requirements as cept as provided for in the applicable
defined in Appendix A through Appen- QPS.
dix D of this part. (f) The person seeking to qualify the
(i) Requests for deviation must be FSTD must provide the NSPM access
submitted in a form and manner ac- to the FSTD for the length of time nec-
ceptable to the Administrator and essary for the NSPM to complete the
must provide sufficient justification required evaluation of the FSTD for
that the deviation meets or exceeds the initial qualification, which includes
testing requirements and tolerances as the conduct and evaluation of objective
specified in the part 60 QPS or will oth- and subjective tests, including general
erwise not adversely affect the fidelity FSTD requirements, as described in the
and capability of the FSTDs evaluated applicable QPS, to determine that the
and qualified under the deviation. FSTD meets the standards in that
(ii) The Administrator may consider QPS.
deviation from the minimum require- (g) When the FSTD passes an evalua-
ments tables, the objective testing tation for initial qualification, the NSPM
bles, the functions and subjective test- issues a Statement of Qualification
ing tables, and other supporting tables that includes all of the following:
and requirements in the part 60 QPS. (1) Identification of the sponsor.
(iii) Deviations may be issued to an (2) Identification of the make, model,
FSTD manufacturer for the initial and series of the aircraft or set of air-
qualification of multiple FSTDs, sub- craft being simulated.
ject to terms and limitations as deter- (3) Identification of the configuration
mined by Administrator. Approved de- of the aircraft or set of aircraft being
viations will become a part of the per- simulated (e.g., engine model or mod-
manent qualification basis of the indi- els, flight instruments, or navigation
vidual FSTD and will be noted in the or other systems).
FSTD’s Statement of Qualification. (4) A statement that the FSTD is
(iv) If the FAA publishes a change to qualified as either a full flight simu-
the existing part 60 standards as de- lator or a flight training device.
10
(5) Identification of the qualification (i) Consisting of all the elements of

level of the FSTD. an initial evaluation for qualification
(6) A statement that (with the excep- in those circumstances where the
tion of the noted exclusions for which NSPM has determined that all the ele-
the FSTD has not been subjectively ments of an initial evaluation for qual-
tested by the sponsor or the NSPM and ification is necessary; or
for which qualification is not sought) (ii) Consisting of those elements of
the qualification of the FSTD includes an initial evaluation for qualification
the tasks set out in the applicable QPS designated as necessary by the NSPM.
appendix relevant to the qualification (b) In making the determinations de-
level of the FSTD. scribed in paragraph (a)(2) of this sec-
(7) A statement referencing any devi- tion, the NSPM considers factors in-
ations that have been granted and including the existing qualification of
cluded in the permanent qualification the FSTD, any modifications to the
basis of the FSTD. FSTD hardware or software that are
(h) After the NSPM completes the involved, and any additions or modi-
evaluation for initial qualification, the fications to the MQTG.
sponsor must update the Qualification (c) The FSTD is qualified for the ad-
Test Guide (QTG), with the results of ditional uses when the NSPM issues an
the FAA-witnessed tests together with amended Statement of Qualification in
the results of all the objective tests de- accordance with § 60.15(h).
scribed in the applicable QPS.
(d) The sponsor may not modify the
(i) Upon issuance of the Statement of
FSTD except as described in § 60.23.
Qualification the updated QTG be-
comes the Master Qualification Test § 60.17 Previously qualified FSTDs.
Guide (MQTG). The MQTG must be
made available to the NSPM upon re- (a) Unless otherwise specified by an
quest. FSTD Directive, further referenced in
the applicable QPS, or as specified in
[Docket No. FAA–2002–12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct.
paragraph (e) of this section, an FSTD
30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA–2014–
0391, Amdt. 60–4, 81 FR 18217, Mar. 30, 2016] qualified before May 31, 2016 will retain
its qualification basis as long as it con-
§ 60.16 Additional qualifications for a tinues to meet the standards, including
currently qualified FSTD. the objective test results recorded in
(a) A currently qualified FSTD is re- the MQTG and subjective tests, under
quired to undergo an additional quali- which it was originally evaluated, re-
fication process if a user intends to use gardless of sponsor. The sponsor of
the FSTD for meeting training, evalua- such an FSTD must comply with the
tion, or flight experience requirements other applicable provisions of this part.
of this chapter beyond the qualifica- (b) For each FSTD qualified before
tion issued for that FSTD. This process May 30, 2008, no sponsor may use or
consists of the following: allow the use of or offer the use of such
(1) The sponsor: an FSTD after May 30, 2014 for flight
(i) Must submit to the NSPM all crewmember training, evaluation or
modifications to the MQTG that are re- flight experience to meet any of the re-
quired to support the additional quali- quirements of this chapter, unless that
fication. FSTD has been issued a Statement of
(ii) Must describe to the NSPM all Qualification, including the Configura-
modifications to the FSTD that are re- tion List and the List of Qualified
quired to support the additional quali- Tasks in accordance with the proce-
fication. dures set out in the applicable QPS.
(iii) Must submit to the NSPM a con- (c) If the FSTD qualification is lost
firmation statement as described in under § 60.27 and—
§ 60.15(c) that a pilot, designated by the (i) Restored under § 60.27 in less than
sponsor in accordance with § 60.15(d), (2) years, then the qualification basis
has subjectively evaluated the FSTD in (in terms of objective tests and subjec-
those areas not previously evaluated. tive tests) for the re-qualification will
(2) The FSTD must successfully pass be those against which the FSTD was
an evaluation— originally evaluated and qualified.
11
§ 60.19 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(ii) Not restored under § 60.27 for two may be amended by an FSTD Direc-
(2) years or more, then the qualifica- tive.
tion basis (in terms of objective tests (2) The sponsor must contact the
and subjective tests) for the re-quali- NSPM to schedule the FSTD for con-
fication will be those standards in ef- tinuing qualification evaluations not
fect and current at the time of re-qual- later than 60 days before the evalua-
ification application. tion is due.
(d) Except as provided in paragraph (3) The sponsor must provide the
(e) of this section, any change in FSTD NSPM access to the objective test re-
qualification level initiated on or after sults in the MQTG and access to the
May 30, 2008 requires an evaluation for FSTD for the length of time necessary
initial qualification in accordance with for the NSPM to complete the required
this part. continuing qualification evaluations.
(e) A sponsor may request that an (4) The frequency of NSPM-conducted
FSTD be permanently downgraded. In continuing qualification evaluations
such a case, the NSPM may downgrade for each FSTD will be established by
a qualified FSTD without requiring the NSPM and specified in the State-
and without conducting an initial eval- ment of Qualification.
uation for the new qualification level.
(5) Continuing qualification evalua-
Subsequent continuing qualification
tions conducted in the 3 calendar
evaluations will use the existing
months before or after the calendar
MQTG, modified as necessary to reflect
month in which these continuing quali-
the new qualification level.
(f) When the sponsor has appropriate fication evaluations are required will
validation data available and receives be considered to have been conducted
approval from the NSPM, the sponsor in the calendar month in which they
may adopt tests and associated toler- were required.
ances described in the current quali- (6) No sponsor may use or allow the
fication standards as the tests and tol- use of or offer the use of an FSTD for
erances applicable for the continuing flight crewmember training or evalua-
qualification of a previously qualified tion or for obtaining flight experience
FSTD. The updated test(s) and toler- for the flight crewmember to meet any
ance(s) must be made a permanent part requirement of this chapter unless the
of the MQTG. FSTD has passed an NSPM-conducted
continuing qualification evaluation
[Doc. No. FAA–2002–12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. within the time frame specified in the
30, 2006; Amdt. 60–2, 72 FR 59599, Oct. 22, 2007, Statement of Qualification or within
as amended by Docket FAA–2014–0391, Amdt.
the grace period as described in para-
60–4, 81 FR 18218, Mar. 30, 2016]
graph (b)(5) of this section.
§ 60.19 Inspection, continuing quali- (c) Maintenance. The sponsor is re-
fication evaluation, and mainte- sponsible for continuing corrective and
nance requirements. preventive maintenance on the FSTD
(a) Inspection. No sponsor may use or to ensure that it continues to meet the
allow the use of or offer the use of an requirements of this part and the appli-
FSTD for flight crewmember training, cable QPS appendix. No sponsor may
evaluation, or flight experience to use or allow the use of or offer the use
meet any of the requirements of this of an FSTD for flight crewmember
chapter unless the sponsor does the fol- training, evaluation, or flight experi-
lowing: ence to meet any of the requirements
(1) Accomplishes all appropriate ob- of this chapter unless the sponsor does
jective tests each year as specified in the following:
the applicable QPS. (1) Maintains a discrepancy log.
(2) Completes a functional preflight (2) Ensures that, when a discrepancy
check within the preceding 24 hours. is discovered, the following require-
(b) Continuing qualification evaluation. ments are met:
(1) This evaluation consists of objec- (i) A description of each discrepancy
tive tests, and subjective tests, includ- is entered in the log and remains in the
ing general FSTD requirements, as de- log until the discrepancy is corrected
scribed in the applicable QPS or as as specified in § 60.25(b).
12
(ii) A description of the corrective by the aircraft manufacturer, but no

action taken for each discrepancy, the later than two years after the issuance
identity of the individual taking the of the interim qualification status, the
action, and the date that action is sponsor must apply for initial quali-
taken is entered in the log. fication in accordance with § 60.15 based
(iii) The discrepancy log is kept in a on the final aircraft data package ap-
form and manner acceptable to the Ad- proved by the aircraft manufacturer,
ministrator and is kept in or adjacent unless the NSPM determines that spe-
to the FSTD. An electronic log that cific conditions warrant otherwise.
may be accessed by an appropriate ter- (d) An FSTD with interim qualifica-
minal or display in or adjacent to the tion may be modified only in accord-
FSTD is satisfactory. ance with § 60.23.
[Docket No. FAA–2002–12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct.
30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA–2014– § 60.23 Modifications to FSTDs.
0391, Amdt. 60–4, 81 FR 18218, Mar. 30, 2016]
(a) Description of a modification. For
§ 60.20 Logging FSTD discrepancies. the purposes of this part, an FSTD is
said to have been modified when:
Each instructor, check airman, or (1) Equipment or devices intended to
representative of the Administrator
simulate aircraft appliances are added
conducting training, evaluation, or
to or removed from FSTD, which
flight experience, and each person con-
change the Statement of Qualification
ducting the preflight inspection who
or the MQTG; or
discovers a discrepancy, including any
missing, malfunctioning, or inoper- (2) Changes are made to either soft-
ative components in the FSTD, must ware or hardware that are intended to
write or cause to be written a descrip- impact flight or ground dynamics;
tion of that discrepancy into the dis- changes are made that impact perform-
crepancy log at the end of the FSTD ance or handling characteristics of the
preflight or FSTD use session. FSTD (including motion, visual, con-
trol loading, or sound systems for
§ 60.21 Interim qualification of FSTDs those FSTD levels requiring sound
for new aircraft types or models. tests and measurements); or changes
(a) A sponsor may apply for and the are made to the MQTG. Changes to the
NSPM may issue an interim qualifica- MQTG which do not affect required ob-
tion level for an FSTD for a new type jective testing results or validation
or model of aircraft, even though the data approved during the initial eval-
aircraft manufacturer’s aircraft data uation of the FSTD are not considered
package is preliminary, if the sponsor modifications under this section.
provides the following to the satisfac- (b) FSTD Directive. When the FAA de-
tion of the NSPM— termines that FSTD modification is
(1) The aircraft manufacturer’s data, necessary for safety of flight reasons,
which consists of at least predicted the sponsor of each affected FSTD
data, validated by a limited set of must ensure that the FSTD is modified
flight test data; according to the FSTD Directive re-
(2) The aircraft manufacturer’s de- gardless of the original qualification
scription of the prediction method- standards applicable to any specific
ology used to develop the predicted FSTD.
data; and (c) Using the modified FSTD. The spon-
(3) The QTG test results. sor may not use, or allow the use of, or
(b) An FSTD that has been issued in- offer the use of, the FSTD with the
terim qualification is deemed to have proposed modification for flight crew-
been issued initial qualification unless member training or evaluation or for
the NSPM rescinds the qualification. obtaining flight experience for the
Interim qualification terminates two flight crewmember to meet any re-
years after its issuance, unless the quirement of this chapter unless:
NSPM determines that specific condi- (1) The sponsor has notified the
tions warrant otherwise. NSPM and the TPAA of their intent to
(c) Within twelve months of the re- incorporate the proposed modification,
lease of the final aircraft data package and one of the following has occurred;
13
§ 60.25 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(i) Twenty-one days have passed chapter for flight crewmember certifi-
since the sponsor notified the NSPM cation or qualification when there is a
and the TPAA of the proposed modi- missing, malfunctioning, or inoper-
fication and the sponsor has not re- ative (MMI) component that is re-
ceived any response from either the quired to be present and correctly oper-
NSPM or the TPAA; ate for the satisfactory completion of
(ii) Twenty-one days have passed that maneuver, procedure, or task.
since the sponsor notified the NSPM (b) Each MMI component as de-
and the TPAA of the proposed modi- scribed in paragraph (a) of this section,
fication and one has approved the pro- or any MMI component installed and
posed modification and the other has required to operate correctly to meet
not responded; the current Statement of Qualification,
(iii) Fewer than twenty-one days must be repaired or replaced within 30
have passed since the sponsor notified calendar days, unless otherwise re-
the NSPM and the TPAA of the pro- quired or authorized by the NSPM.
posed modification and the NSPM and (c) A list of the current MMI compo-
TPAA both approve the proposed modi- nents must be readily available in or
fication; adjacent to the FSTD for review by
(iv) The sponsor has successfully users of the device. Electronic access
completed any evaluation the NSPM to this list via an appropriate terminal
may require in accordance with the or display in or adjacent to the FSTD
standards for an evaluation for initial is satisfactory. The discrepancy log
qualification or any part thereof before may be used to satisfy this require-
the modified FSTD is placed in service. ment provided each currently MMI
(2) The notification is submitted with component is listed in the discrepancy
the content as, and in a form and man- log.
ner as, specified in the applicable QPS.
(d) User notification. When a modifica- § 60.27 Automatic loss of qualification
tion is made to an FSTD that affects and procedures for restoration of
the Statement of Qualification, the qualification.
sponsor must post an addendum to the (a) An FSTD qualification is auto-
Statement of Qualification until such matically lost when any of the fol-
time as a permanent, updated state- lowing occurs:
ment is posted. (1) The FSTD is not used in the spon-
(e) MQTG update. The MQTG must be sor’s FAA-approved flight training pro-
updated with current objective test re- gram in accordance with § 60.7(b)(5) or
sults in accordance with § 60.15(h) and (b)(6) and the sponsor does not obtain
(i) and appropriate objective data in and maintain the written statement as
accordance with § 60.13, each time an described in § 60.7(d)(2).
FSTD is modified and an objective test (2) The FSTD is not inspected in ac-
or other MQTG section is affected by cordance with § 60.19.
the modification. If an FSTD Directive (3) The FSTD is physically moved
is the cause of this update, the direc- from one location and installed in a
tion to make the modification and the different location, regardless of dis-
record of the modification completion tance.
must be filed in the MQTG. (4) The MQTG is missing or otherwise
[Docket No. FAA–2002–12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. not available and a replacement is not
30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA–2014– made within 30 days.
0391, Amdt. 60–4, 81 FR 18218, Mar. 30, 2016] (b) If FSTD qualification is lost
under paragraph (a) of this section,
§ 60.25 Operation with missing, mal- qualification is restored when either of
functioning, or inoperative compo- the following provisions is met:
nents. (1) The FSTD successfully passes an
(a) No person may knowingly use or evaluation:
allow the use of or misrepresent the ca- (i) For initial qualification, in ac-
pability of an FSTD for any maneuver, cordance with §§ 60.15 and 60.17(c) in
procedure, or task that is to be accom- those circumstances where the NSPM
plished to meet training, evaluation, or has determined that a full evaluation

flight experience requirements of this for initial qualification is necessary; or
14
(ii) For those elements of an evalua- days of the date that the sponsor re-
tion for initial qualification, in accord- ceives a notice that some or all of the
ance with §§ 60.15 and 60.17(c), as deter- FSTD is no longer qualified.
mined to be necessary by the NSPM. (2) The sponsor must address its peti-
(2) The NSPM advises the sponsor tion to the Executive Director, Flight
that an evaluation is not necessary. Standards Service, Federal Aviation
(c) In making the determinations de- Administration, 800 Independence Ave.,
scribed in paragraph (b) of this section, SW., Washington, DC 20591.
the NSPM considers factors including (3) A petition for reconsideration, if
the number of continuing qualification filed within the 30-day period, suspends
evaluations missed, the number of the effectiveness of the determination
sponsor-conducted quarterly inspec- by the NSPM that the FSTD is no
tions missed, and the care that had longer qualified unless the NSPM has
been taken of the device since the last found, under paragraph (c) of this sec-
evaluation. tion, that an emergency exists requir-
ing immediate action with respect to
§ 60.29 Other losses of qualification safety in air commerce.
and procedures for restoration of (c) If the NSPM find that an emer-
qualification. gency exists requiring immediate ac-
(a) Except as provided in paragraph tion with respect to safety in air com-
(c) of this section, when the NSPM de- merce that makes the procedures set
termines that the FSTD no longer out in this section impracticable or
meets qualification standards, the fol- contrary to the public interest:
lowing procedure applies: (1) The NSPM withdraws qualifica-
(1) The NSPM notifies the sponsor in tion of some or all of the FSTD and
writing that the FSTD no longer meets makes the withdrawal of qualification
some or all of its qualification stand- effective on the day the sponsor re-
ards. ceives notice of it.
(2) The NSPM sets a reasonable pe- (2) In the notice to the sponsor, the
riod (but not less than 7 days) within NSPM articulates the reasons for its
which the sponsor may submit written finding that an emergency exists re-
information, views, and arguments on quiring immediate action with respect
the FSTD qualification. to safety in air transportation or air
(3) After considering all material pre- commerce or that makes it impracti-
sented, the NSPM notifies the sponsor cable or contrary to the public interest
about the determination with regard to to stay the effectiveness of the finding.
the qualification of the FSTD. (d) FSTD qualification lost under
(4) When the NSPM notifies the spon- paragraph (a) or (c) of this section may
sor that some or all of the FSTD is no be restored when either of the fol-
longer qualified, the action described lowing provisions are met:
in the notification becomes effective (1) The FSTD successfully passes an
not less than 30 days after the sponsor evaluation for initial qualification, in
receives that notice unless— accordance with §§ 60.15 and 60.17(c) in
(i) The NSPM finds under paragraph those circumstances where the NSPM
(c) of this section that there is an has determined that a full evaluation
emergency requiring immediate action for initial qualification is necessary; or
with respect to safety in air commerce; (2) The FSTD successfully passes an
or evaluation for those elements of an ini-
(ii) The sponsor petitions the Execu- tial qualification evaluation, in accord-
tive Director of Flight Standards Serv- ance with §§ 60.15 and 60.17(c), as deter-
ice for reconsideration of the NSPM mined to be necessary by the NSPM.
finding under paragraph (b) of this sec- (e) In making the determinations de-
tion. scribed in paragraph (d) of this section,
(b) When a sponsor seeks reconsider- the NSPM considers factors including
ation of a decision from the NSPM con- the reason for the loss of qualification,
cerning the FSTD qualification, the any repairs or replacements that may
following procedure applies: have to have been completed, the num-
(1) The sponsor must petition for re- ber of continuing qualification evalua-
consideration of that decision within 30 tions missed, the number of sponsor-
15
§ 60.31 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
conducted quarterly inspections § 60.33 Applications, logbooks, reports,

missed, and the care that had been and records: Fraud, falsification, or
taken of the device since the loss of incorrect statements.
qualification. (a) No person may make, or cause to
[Docket No. FAA–2002–12461, 71 FR 63426, Oct. be made, any of the following:
30, 2006, as amended by Docket FAA–2018– (1) A fraudulent or intentionally false
0119, Amdt. 60–5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018] statement in any application or any
amendment thereto, or any other re-
§ 60.31 Recordkeeping and reporting. port or test result required by this
part.
(a) The FSTD sponsor must maintain
(2) A fraudulent or intentionally false
the following records for each FSTD it
statement in or a known omission from
sponsors:
any record or report that is kept,
(1) The MQTG and each amendment made, or used to show compliance with
thereto. this part, or to exercise any privileges
(2) A record of all FSTD modifica- under this chapter.
tions affected under § 60.23 since the (3) Any reproduction or alteration,
issuance of the original Statement of for fraudulent purpose, of any report,
Qualification. record, or test result required under
(3) A copy of all of the following: this part.
(i) Results of the qualification eval- (b) The commission by any person of
uations (initial and each upgrade) since any act prohibited under paragraph (a)
the issuance of the original Statement of this section is a basis for any one or
of Qualification. any combination of the following:
(ii) Results of the objective tests con- (1) A civil penalty.
ducted in accordance with § 60.19(a) for (2) Suspension or revocation of any
a period of 2 years. certificate held by that person that
(iii) Results of the previous three was issued under this chapter.
continuing qualification evaluations, (3) The removal of FSTD qualifica-
or the continuing qualification evaluation and approval for use in a training
tions from the previous 2 years, which- program.
ever covers a longer period. (c) The following may serve as a basis
(iv) Comments obtained in accord- for removal of qualification of an
ance with § 60.9(b) for a period of at FSTD including the withdrawal of ap-
least 90 days. proval for use of an FSTD; or denying
an application for a qualification:
(4) A record of all discrepancies en-
(1) An incorrect statement, upon
tered in the discrepancy log over the
which the FAA relied or could have re-
previous 2 years, including the fol-
lied, made in support of an application
lowing: for a qualification or a request for ap-
(i) A list of the components or equip- proval for use.
ment that were or are missing, mal- (2) An incorrect entry, upon which
functioning, or inoperative. the FAA relied or could have relied,
(ii) The action taken to correct the made in any logbook, record, or report
discrepancy. that is kept, made, or used to show
(iii) The date the corrective action compliance with any requirement for
was taken. an FSTD qualification or an approval
(iv) The identity of the person deter- for use.
mining that the discrepancy has been
corrected. § 60.35 Specific full flight simulator
compliance requirements.
(b) The records specified in this sec-
tion must be maintained in plain lan- (a) No device will be eligible for ini-
guage form or in coded form if the tial or upgrade qualification to a FFS
coded form provides for the preserva- at Level C or Level D under this part
tion and retrieval of information in a unless it includes the equipment and
appliances installed and operating to
manner acceptable to the NSPM.

the extent necessary for the issuance of
an airman certificate or rating.
16
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT Pt. 60, App. A
(b) No device will be eligible for ini- 7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor
tial or upgrade qualification to a FFS (§ 60.9).
at Level A or Level B under this part 8. FFS Use (§ 60.11).
unless it includes the equipment and 9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13).
appliances installed and operating to 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Re-
quirements for Qualification of the FFS
the extent necessary for the training, (§ 60.14).
testing, and/or checking that comprise 11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Re-
the simulation portion of the require- quirements (§ 60.15).
ments for issuance of an airman cer- 12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently
tificate or rating. Qualified FFS (§ 60.16).
13. Previously Qualified FFSs (§ 60.17).
§ 60.37 FSTD qualification on the basis 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification
of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agree- Evaluation, and Maintenance Require-
ment (BASA). ments (§ 60.19).
(a) The evaluation and qualification 15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (§ 60.20).
of an FSTD by a contracting State to 16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New
Airplane Types or Models (§ 60.21).
the Convention on International Civil
17. Modifications to FFSs (§ 60.23).
Aviation for the sponsor of an FSTD 18. Operations With Missing, Malfunctioning,
located in that contracting State may or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25).
be used as the basis for issuing a U.S. 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Pro-
statement of qualification (see applica- cedures for Restoration of Qualification
ble QPS, attachment 4, figure 4) by the (§ 60.27).
NSPM to the sponsor of that FSTD in 20. Other Losses of Qualification and Proce-
accordance with— dures for Restoration of Qualification
(1) A BASA between the United (§ 60.29).
21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31).
States and the Contracting State that
22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and
issued the original qualification; and Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incor-
(2) A Simulator Implementation Pro- rect Statements (§ 60.33).
cedure (SIP) established under the 23. Specific FFS Compliance Requirements
BASA. (§ 60.35).
(b) The SIP must contain any condi- 24. [Reserved]
tions and limitations on validation and 25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilat-
issuance of such qualification by the eral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA)
U.S. (§ 60.37).
Attachment 1 to Appendix A to Part 60—
APPENDIX A TO PART 60—QUALIFICATION General Simulator Requirements.
PERFORMANCE STANDARDS FOR AIR- Attachment 2 to Appendix A to Part 60—FFS
Objective Tests.
PLANE FULL FLIGHT SIMULATORS
llllllllllllllllllllllll Simulator Subjective Evaluation.
BEGIN INFORMATION Sample Documents.
This appendix establishes the standards for
Simulator Qualification Requirements
Airplane FFS evaluation and qualification.
for Windshear Training Program Use.
The NSPM is responsible for the develop-
ment, application, and implementation of
FSTD Directives Applicable to Airplane
the standards contained within this appen-
Flight Simulators.
dix. The procedures and criteria specified in
this appendix will be used by the NSPM, or END INFORMATION
a person assigned by the NSPM, when con-
ducting airplane FFS evaluations. llllllllllllllllllllllll
TABLE OF CONTENTS 1. INTRODUCTION

1. Introduction. llllllllllllllllllllllll
2. Applicability (§§ 60.1 and 60.2).
BEGIN INFORMATION
3. Definitions (§ 60.3).
4. Qualification Performance Standards a. This appendix contains background in-
(§ 60.4). formation as well as regulatory and inform-
5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5). ative material as described later in this sec-
6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements tion. To assist the reader in determining
(§ 60.7). what areas are required and what areas are
17
Pt. 60, App. A 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
permissive, the text in this appendix is di- Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Sys-
vided into two sections: ‘‘QPS Require- tems.
ments’’ and ‘‘Information.’’ The QPS Re- (15) AC 120–57, as amended, Surface Move-
quirements sections contain details regard- ment Guidance and Control System
ing compliance with the part 60 rule lan- (SMGCS).
guage. These details are regulatory, but are (16) AC 150/5300–13, as amended, Airport De-
found only in this appendix. The Information sign.
sections contain material that is advisory in (17) AC 150/5340–1, as amended, Standards
nature, and designed to give the user general for Airport Markings.
information about the regulation. (18) AC 150/5340–4, as amended, Installation
b. Questions regarding the contents of this Details for Runway Centerline Touchdown
publication should be sent to the U.S. De- Zone Lighting Systems.
partment of Transportation, Federal Avia- (19) AC 150/5340–19, as amended, Taxiway
tion Administration, Flight Standards Serv- Centerline Lighting System.
ice, National Simulator Program Staff, (20) AC 150/5340–24, as amended, Runway
AFS–205, P.O. Box 20636, Atlanta, Georgia, and Taxiway Edge Lighting System.
30320. Telephone contact numbers for the (21) AC 150/5345–28, as amended, Precision
NSP are: phone, 404–474–5620; fax, 404–474– Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Systems.
5656. The NSP Internet Web site address is: (22) International Air Transport Associa-
http://www.faa.gov/about/initiatives/nsp/. On tion document, ‘‘Flight Simulation Training
this Web site you will find an NSP personnel Device Design and Performance Data Re-
list with telephone and email contact infor- quirements,’’ as amended.
mation for each NSP staff member, a list of (23) AC 25–7, as amended, Flight Test Guide
qualified flight simulation devices, advisory for Certification of Transport Category Air-
circulars (ACs), a description of the quali- planes.
fication process, NSP policy, and an NSP (24) AC 23–8, as amended, Flight Test Guide
‘‘In-Works’’ section. Also linked from this for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes.
site are additional information sources, (25) International Civil Aviation Organiza-
handbook bulletins, frequently asked question (ICAO) Manual of Criteria for the Quali-
tions, a listing and text of the Federal Avia- fication of Flight Simulation Training De-
tion Regulations, Flight Standards Inspec- vices, as amended.
tor’s handbooks, and other FAA links. (26) Aeroplane Flight Simulation Training
c. The NSPM encourages the use of elec- Device Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as
tronic media for all communication, includ- amended and Volume II, as amended, The
ing any record, report, request, test, or Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK.
statement required by this appendix. The (27) FAA Airman Testing Standards for the
electronic media used must have adequate Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, Type
security provisions and be acceptable to the Ratings, Commercial Pilot Certificate, and
NSPM. The NSPM recommends inquiries on Instrument Ratings.
system compatibility, and minimum system (28) The FAA Aeronautical Information
requirements are also included on the NSP Manual (AIM). An electronic version of the
Web site. AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/
atpubs.
d. Related Reading References.
(29) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) doc-
(1) 14 CFR part 60.
ument number 436, titled Guidelines For Elec-
(2) 14 CFR part 61.
tronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).
(3) 14 CFR part 63. (30) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) doc-
(4) 14 CFR part 119. ument 610, Guidance for Design and Integra-
(5) 14 CFR part 121. tion of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simula-
(6) 14 CFR part 125. tors (as amended).
(7) 14 CFR part 135.
(8) 14 CFR part 141. END INFORMATION
(9) 14 CFR part 142.
llllllllllllllllllllllll
(10) AC 120–28, as amended, Criteria for Ap-
proval of Category III Landing Weather 2. APPLICABILITY (§§ 60.1 AND 60.2)
Minima.
(11) AC 120–29, as amended, Criteria for Ap- llllllllllllllllllllllll
proving Category I and Category II Landing BEGIN INFORMATION
Minima for part 121 operators.
(12) AC 120–35, as amended, Line Oper- No additional regulatory or informational
ational Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight material applies to § 60.1, Applicability, or to
Training, Special Purpose Operational § 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to per-
Training, Line Operational Evaluation. sons who are not sponsors and who are en-
(13) AC 120–40, as amended, Airplane Simu- gaged in certain unauthorized activities.
lator Qualification.
END INFORMATION
(14) AC 120–41, as amended, Criteria for
Operational Approval of Airborne Wind llllllllllllllllllllllll
18
3. DEFINITIONS (§ 60.3) (i) If the FFS was qualified prior to May 30,
2008, the 12-month period begins on the date
of the first continuing qualification evalua-
BEGIN INFORMATION tion conducted in accordance with § 60.19
after May 30, 2008, and continues for each
See Appendix F of this part for a list of subsequent 12-month period;
definitions and abbreviations from part 1 and (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30,
part 60, including the appropriate appendices 2008, will be required to undergo an initial or
of part 60. upgrade evaluation in accordance with
§ 60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation
END INFORMATION
is complete, the first continuing qualifica-
llllllllllllllllllllllll tion evaluation will be conducted within 6
months. The 12-month continuing qualifica-
4. QUALIFICATION PERFORMANCE STANDARDS tion evaluation cycle begins on that date and
(§ 60.4) continues for each subsequent 12-month pe-
llllllllllllllllllllllll riod.
(b) There is no minimum number of hours
BEGIN INFORMATION of FFS use required.
(c) The identification of the specific FFS
No additional regulatory or informational
may change from one 12-month period to the
material applies to § 60.4, Qualification Per-
next 12-month period as long as the sponsor
formance Standards.
sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least
END INFORMATION once during the prescribed period.
(2) Example Two.
llllllllllllllllllllllll (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional num-
ber of FFSs, in its facility or elsewhere.
5. QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (§ 60.5)
Each additionally sponsored FFS must be—
llllllllllllllllllllllll (i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor’s
FAA-approved flight training program for
BEGIN INFORMATION the airplane simulated (as described in
See Appendix E of this part for additional § 60.7(d)(1));
regulatory and informational material re- OR
garding Quality Management Systems. (ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder
in that other certificate holder’s FAA-ap-
END INFORMATION proved flight training program for the air-
plane simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)).
This 12-month period is established in the
6. SPONSOR QUALIFICATION REQUIREMENTS same manner as in example one;
(§ 60.7) OR
(iii) Provided a statement each year from a
llllllllllllllllllllllll qualified pilot (after having flown the air-
plane, not the subject FFS or another FFS,
BEGIN INFORMATION
during the preceding 12-month period), stat-
a. The intent of the language in § 60.7(b) is ing that the subject FFS’s performance and
to have a specific FFS, identified by the handling qualities represent the airplane (as
sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-ap- described in § 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is
proved flight training program for the air- provided at least once in each 12-month pe-
plane simulated during the 12-month period riod established in the same manner as in ex-
described. The identification of the specific ample one.
FFS may change from one 12-month period (b) No minimum number of hours of FFS
to the next 12-month period as long as the use is required.
sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FFS (3) Example Three.
at least once during the prescribed period. (a) A sponsor in New York (in this exam-
No minimum number of hours or minimum ple, a Part 142 certificate holder) establishes
FFS periods are required. ‘‘satellite’’ training centers in Chicago and
b. The following examples describe accept- Moscow.
able operational practices: (b) The satellite function means that the
(1) Example One. Chicago and Moscow centers must operate
(a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, spe- under the New York center’s certificate (in
cific FFS for its own use, in its own facility accordance with all of the New York center’s
or elsewhere—this single FFS forms the practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., in-
basis for the sponsorship. The sponsor uses structor and/or technician training/checking
that FFS at least once in each 12-month pe- requirements, record keeping, QMS pro-
riod in the sponsor’s FAA-approved flight gram).
training program for the airplane simulated. (c) All of the FFSs in the Chicago and Mos-
This 12-month period is established accord- cow centers could be dry-leased (i.e., the cer-
ing to the following schedule: tificate holder does not have and use FAA-
19
approved flight training programs for the (iii) The initial flight conditions.
FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) be- (iv) The airplane configuration, including
cause— weight and center of gravity.
(i) Each FFS in the Chicago center and (v) The data to be gathered.
each FFS in the Moscow center is used at (vi) All other information necessary to
least once each 12-month period by another recreate the flight test conditions in the
FAA certificate holder in that other certifi- FFS.
cate holder’s FAA-approved flight training (2) Appropriately qualified flight test per-
program for the airplane (as described in sonnel.
§ 60.7(d)(1)); (3) An understanding of the accuracy of the
OR data to be gathered using appropriate alter-
(ii) A statement is obtained from a quali- native data sources, procedures, and instru-
fied pilot (having flown the airplane, not the mentation that is traceable to a recognized
subject FFS or another FFS, during the pre- standard as described in Attachment 2, Table
ceding 12-month period) stating that the per- A2E of this appendix.
formance and handling qualities of each FFS (4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisi-
in the Chicago and Moscow centers rep- tion equipment or system(s), including ap-
resents the airplane (as described in propriate data reduction and analysis meth-
§ 60.7(d)(2)). ods and techniques, as would be acceptable
END INFORMATION to the FAA’s Aircraft Certification Service.
b. The data, regardless of source, must be
llllllllllllllllllllllll presented as follows:
(1) In a format that supports the FFS vali-
7. ADDITIONAL RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE
dation process.
SPONSOR (§ 60.9)
(2) In a manner that is clearly readable and
llllllllllllllllllllllll annotated correctly and completely.
(3) With resolution sufficient to determine
BEGIN INFORMATION compliance with the tolerances set forth in
The phrase ‘‘as soon as practicable’’ in Attachment 2, Table A2A of this appendix.
§ 60.9(a) means without unnecessarily dis- (4) With any necessary instructions or
rupting or delaying beyond a reasonable other details provided, such as yaw damper
time the training, evaluation, or experience or throttle position.
being conducted in the FFS. (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or
bias. Data may be corrected to address
END INFORMATION known data calibration errors provided that
llllllllllllllllllllllll an explanation of the methods used to cor-
rect the errors appears in the QTG. The cor-
8. FFS USE (§ 60.11) rected data may be re-scaled, digitized, or
llllllllllllllllllllllll otherwise manipulated to fit the desired
presentation.
BEGIN INFORMATION c. After completion of any additional flight
test, a flight test report must be submitted
No additional regulatory or informational in support of the validation data. The report
material applies to § 60.11, Simulator Use. must contain sufficient data and rationale to
END INFORMATION support qualification of the FFS at the level
requested.
llllllllllllllllllllllll d. As required by § 60.13(f), the sponsor
must notify the NSPM when it becomes
9. FFS OBJECTIVE DATA REQUIREMENTS
aware that an addition to, an amendment to,
(§ 60.13)
or a revision of data that may relate to FFS
llllllllllllllllllllllll performance or handling characteristics is
available. The data referred to in this para-
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS graph is data used to validate the perform-
a. Flight test data used to validate FFS ance, handling qualities, or other character-
performance and handling qualities must istics of the aircraft, including data related
have been gathered in accordance with a to any relevant changes occurring after the
flight test program containing the following: type certificate was issued. The sponsor
(1) A flight test plan consisting of: must—
(a) The maneuvers and procedures required (1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the
for aircraft certification and simulation pro- NSPM of the existence of this data; and
gramming and validation. (2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the
(b) For each maneuver or procedure— NSPM of—
(i) The procedures and control input the (a) The schedule to incorporate this data
flight test pilot and/or engineer used. into the FFS; or

(ii) The atmospheric and environmental (b) The reason for not incorporating this
conditions. data into the FFS.
20
e. In those cases where the objective test plan anticipated for acquiring such data with
results authorize a ‘‘snapshot test’’ or a ‘‘se- the NSPM well in advance of commencing
ries of snapshot tests’’ results in lieu of a the flight tests.
time-history result, the sponsor or other i. The NSPM will consider, on a case-by-
data provider must ensure that a steady case basis, whether to approve supplemental
state condition exists at the instant of time validation data derived from flight data re-
captured by the ‘‘snapshot.’’ The steady cording systems, such as a Quick Access Re-
state condition must exist from 4 seconds corder or Flight Data Recorder.
prior to, through 1 second following, the in-
stant of time captured by the snapshot. END INFORMATION
END QPS REQUIREMENTS
llllllllllllllllllllllll 10. SPECIAL EQUIPMENT AND PERSONNEL RE-
QUIREMENTS FOR QUALIFICATION OF THE
BEGIN INFORMATION FFSS (§ 60.14)
f. The FFS sponsor is encouraged to main- llllllllllllllllllllllll
tain a liaison with the manufacturer of the
aircraft being simulated (or with the holder BEGIN INFORMATION
of the aircraft type certificate for the air- a. In the event that the NSPM determines
craft being simulated if the manufacturer is that special equipment or specifically quali-
no longer in business), and, if appropriate, fied persons will be required to conduct an
with the person having supplied the aircraft evaluation, the NSPM will make every at-
data package for the FFS in order to facili- tempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1)
tate the notification required by § 60.13(f). week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in
g. It is the intent of the NSPM that for advance of the evaluation. Examples of spe-
new aircraft entering service, at a point well cial equipment include spot photometers,
in advance of preparation of the Qualifica- flight control measurement devices, and
tion Test Guide (QTG), the sponsor should sound analyzers. Examples of specially quali-
submit to the NSPM for approval, a descrip- fied personnel include individuals specifi-
tive document (see Table A2C, Sample Vali- cally qualified to install or use any special
dation Data Roadmap for Airplanes) con- equipment when its use is required.
taining the plan for acquiring the validation b. Examples of a special evaluation include
data, including data sources. This document an evaluation conducted after an FFS is
should clearly identify sources of data for all moved, at the request of the TPAA, or as a
required tests, a description of the validity result of comments received from users of
of these data for a specific engine type and the FFS that raise questions about the con-
thrust rating configuration, and the revision tinued qualification or use of the FFS.
levels of all avionics affecting the perform-
ance or flying qualities of the aircraft. Addi- END INFORMATION
tionally, this document should provide other
information, such as the rationale or expla-
nation for cases where data or data param- 11. INITIAL (AND UPGRADE) QUALIFICATION
eters are missing, instances where engineer- REQUIREMENTS (§ 60.15)
ing simulation data are used or where flight
test methods require further explanations. It llllllllllllllllllllllll
should also provide a brief narrative describ-
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS
ing the cause and effect of any deviation
from data requirements. The aircraft manu- a. In order to be qualified at a particular
facturer may provide this document. qualification level, the FFS must:
h. There is no requirement for any flight (1) Meet the general requirements listed in
test data supplier to submit a flight test Attachment 1 of this appendix;
plan or program prior to gathering flight (2) Meet the objective testing requirements
test data. However, the NSPM notes that in- listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix; and
experienced data gatherers often provide (3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjec-
data that is irrelevant, improperly marked, tive tests listed in Attachment 3 of this ap-
or lacking adequate justification for selec- pendix.
tion. Other problems include inadequate in- b. The request described in § 60.15(a) must
formation regarding initial conditions or include all of the following:
test maneuvers. The NSPM has been forced (1) A statement that the FFS meets all of
to refuse these data submissions as valida- the applicable provisions of this part and all
tion data for an FFS evaluation. It is for this applicable provisions of the QPS.
reason that the NSPM recommends that any (2) Unless otherwise authorized through
data supplier not previously experienced in prior coordination with the NSPM, a con-
this area review the data necessary for pro- firmation that the sponsor will forward to
gramming and for validating the perform- the NSPM the statement described in
ance of the FFS, and discuss the flight test § 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no
21
later than 5 business days prior to the sched- (h) The FFS model and manufacturer.
uled evaluation and may be forwarded to the (i) The date of FFS manufacture.
NSPM via traditional or electronic means. (j) The FFS computer identification.
(3) A QTG, acceptable to the NSPM, that (k) The visual system model and manufac-
includes all of the following: turer, including display type.
(a) Objective data obtained from tradi- (l) The motion system type and manufac-
tional aircraft testing or another approved turer, including degrees of freedom.
source. (4) A Table of Contents.
(b) Correlating objective test results ob- (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective
tained from the performance of the FFS as pages.
prescribed in the appropriate QPS. (6) A list of all relevant data references.
(c) The result of FFS subjective tests pre- (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used
scribed in the appropriate QPS. (including sign conventions and units).
(d) A description of the equipment nec- (8) Statements of Compliance and Capa-
essary to perform the evaluation for initial bility (SOCs) with certain requirements.
qualification and the continuing qualifica- (9) Recording procedures or equipment re-
tion evaluations. quired to accomplish the objective tests.
c. The QTG described in paragraph (a)(3) of (10) The following information for each ob-
this section, must provide the documented jective test designated in Attachment 2,
proof of compliance with the simulator ob- Table A2A, of this appendix as applicable to
jective tests in Attachment 2, Table A2A of the qualification level sought:
this appendix. (a) Name of the test.
d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by (b) Objective of the test.
the sponsor, or the sponsor’s agent on behalf (c) Initial conditions.
of the sponsor, to the NSPM for review and (d) Manual test procedures.
approval, and must include, for each objec- (e) Automatic test procedures (if applica-
tive test: ble).
(1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight con- (f) Method for evaluating FFS objective
ditions; test results.
(2) Pertinent and complete instructions for (g) List of all relevant parameters driven
the conduct of automatic and manual tests; or constrained during the automatically con-
(3) A means of comparing the FFS test re- ducted test(s).
sults to the objective data; (h) List of all relevant parameters driven
(4) Any other information as necessary, to or constrained during the manually con-
assist in the evaluation of the test results; ducted test(s).
(5) Other information appropriate to the (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.
qualification level of the FFS. (j) Source of Validation Data (document
e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) and page number).
and (b) of this section, must include the fol- (k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located
lowing: in a separate binder, a cross reference for the
(1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and identification and page number for pertinent
FAA approval signature blocks (see Attach- data location must be provided).
ment 4, Figure A4C, of this appendix for a (l) Simulator Objective Test Results as ob-
sample QTG cover page). tained by the sponsor. Each test result must
(2) [Reserved] reflect the date completed and must be
(3) An FFS information page that provides clearly labeled as a product of the device
the information listed in this paragraph (see being tested.
Attachment 4, Figure A4B, of this appendix f. A convertible FFS is addressed as a sepa-
for a sample FFS information page). For rate FFS for each model and series airplane
convertible FFSs, the sponsor must submit a to which it will be converted and for the
separate page for each configuration of the FAA qualification level sought. If a sponsor
FFS. seeks qualification for two or more models of
(a) The sponsor’s FFS identification num- an airplane type using a convertible FFS,
ber or code. the sponsor must submit a QTG for each air-
(b) The airplane model and series being plane model, or a QTG for the first airplane
simulated. model and a supplement to that QTG for
(c) The aerodynamic data revision number each additional airplane model. The NSPM
or reference. will conduct evaluations for each airplane
(d) The source of the basic aerodynamic model.
model and the aerodynamic coefficient data g. Form and manner of presentation of ob-
used to modify the basic model. jective test results in the QTG:
(e) The engine model(s) and its data revi- (1) The sponsor’s FFS test results must be
sion number or reference. recorded in a manner acceptable to the
(f) The flight control data revision number NSPM, that allows easy comparison of the
or reference. FFS test results to the validation data (e.g.,

(g) The flight management system identi- use of a multi-channel recorder, line printer,
fication and revision level. cross plotting, overlays, transparencies).
22
(2) FFS results must be labeled using ter- k. All other FFSs not covered in subpara-
minology common to airplane parameters as graph ‘‘j’’ must have an electronic copy of
opposed to computer software identifica- the MQTG by May 30, 2014. An electronic
tions. copy of the MQTG must be provided to the
(3) Validation data documents included in NSPM. This may be provided by an elec-
a QTG may be photographically reduced only tronic scan presented in a Portable Docu-
if such reduction will not alter the graphic ment File (PDF), or similar format accept-
scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpre- able to the NSPM.
tation or resolution. l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualifica-
(4) Scaling on graphical presentations tion evaluation conducted by the NSPM, the
must provide the resolution necessary to sponsor must also provide a person who is a
evaluate the parameters shown in Attach- user of the device (e.g., a qualified pilot or
ment 2, Table A2A of this appendix. instructor pilot with flight time experience
(5) Tests involving time histories, data in that aircraft) and knowledgeable about
sheets (or transparencies thereof) and FFS the operation of the aircraft and the oper-
test results must be clearly marked with ap- ation of the FFS.
propriate reference points to ensure an accu-
rate comparison between the FFS and the
airplane with respect to time. Time histories llllllllllllllllllllllll
recorded via a line printer are to be clearly
identified for cross plotting on the airplane BEGIN INFORMATION
data. Over-plots must not obscure the ref- m. Only those FFSs that are sponsored by
erence data. a certificate holder as defined in Appendix F
h. The sponsor may elect to complete the of this part will be evaluated by the NSPM.
QTG objective and subjective tests at the However, other FFS evaluations may be con-
manufacturer’s facility or at the sponsor’s ducted on a case-by-case basis as the Admin-
training facility (or other sponsor designated istrator deems appropriate, but only in ac-
location where training will take place). If cordance with applicable agreements.
the tests are conducted at the manufactur- n. The NSPM will conduct an evaluation
er’s facility, the sponsor must repeat at least for each configuration, and each FFS must
one-third of the tests at the sponsor’s train- be evaluated as completely as possible. To
ing facility in order to substantiate FFS per- ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation,
formance. The QTG must be clearly anno- each FFS is subjected to the general simu-
tated to indicate when and where each test lator requirements in Attachment 1 of this
was accomplished. Tests conducted at the appendix, the objective tests listed in At-
manufacturer’s facility and at the sponsor’s tachment 2 of this appendix, and the subjec-
designated training facility must be con- tive tests listed in Attachment 3 of this ap-
ducted after the FFS is assembled with sys- pendix. The evaluations described herein will
tems and sub-systems functional and oper- include, but not necessarily be limited to the
ating in an interactive manner. The test re- following:
sults must be submitted to the NSPM. (1) Airplane responses, including longitu-
i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the dinal and lateral-directional control re-
MQTG at the FFS location. sponses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix);
j. All FFSs for which the initial qualifica- (2) Performance in authorized portions of
tion is conducted after May 30, 2014, must the simulated airplane’s operating envelope,
have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including to include tasks evaluated by the NSPM in
all objective data obtained from airplane the areas of surface operations, takeoff,
testing, or another approved source (refor- climb, cruise, descent, approach, and landing
matted or digitized), together with corre- as well as abnormal and emergency oper-
lating objective test results obtained from ations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix);
the performance of the FFS (reformatted or (3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and
digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The Attachment 2 of this appendix);
eMQTG must also contain the general FFS (4) Flight deck configuration (see Attach-
performance or demonstration results (refor- ment 1 of this appendix);
matted or digitized) prescribed in this appen- (5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor
dix, and a description of the equipment nec- station functions checks (see Attachment 1
essary to perform the initial qualification and Attachment 3 of this appendix);
evaluation and the continuing qualification (6) Airplane systems and sub-systems (as
evaluations. The eMQTG must include the appropriate) as compared to the airplane
original validation data used to validate simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attach-
FFS performance and handling qualities in ment 3 of this appendix);
either the original digitized format from the (7) FFS systems and sub-systems, includ-
data supplier or an electronic scan of the ing force cueing (motion), visual, and aural
original time-history plots that were pro- (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attach-
vided by the data supplier. A copy of the ment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix);
eMQTG must be provided to the NSPM. and
23
(8) Certain additional requirements, de- during an evaluation, the test may be re-
pending upon the qualification level sought, peated or the QTG may be amended.
including equipment or circumstances that (2) If it is determined that the results of an
may become hazardous to the occupants. The objective test do not support the level re-
sponsor may be subject to Occupational quested but do support a lower level, the
Safety and Health Administration require- NSPM may qualify the FFS at that lower
ments. level. For example, if a Level D evaluation is
o. The NSPM administers the objective and requested and the FFS fails to meet sound
subjective tests, which includes an examina- test tolerances, it could be qualified at Level
tion of functions. The tests include a quali- C.
tative assessment of the FFS by an NSP s. After an FFS is successfully evaluated,
pilot. The NSP evaluation team leader may the NSPM issues a Statement of Qualifica-
assign other qualified personnel to assist in tion (SOQ) to the sponsor. The NSPM rec-
accomplishing the functions examination ommends the FFS to the TPAA, who will ap-
and/or the objective and subjective tests per- prove the FFS for use in a flight training
formed during an evaluation when required. program. The SOQ will be issued at the satis-
(1) Objective tests provide a basis for meas- factory conclusion of the initial or con-
uring and evaluating FFS performance and tinuing qualification evaluation and will list
determining compliance with the require- the tasks for which the FFS is qualified, ref-
ments of this part. erencing the tasks described in Table A1B in
(2) Subjective tests provide a basis for: Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is
(a) Evaluating the capability of the FFS to the sponsor’s responsibility to obtain TPAA
perform over a typical utilization period; approval prior to using the FFS in an FAA-
(b) Determining that the FFS satisfac- approved flight training program.
torily simulates each required task; t. Under normal circumstances, the NSPM
(c) Verifying correct operation of the FFS establishes a date for the initial or upgrade
controls, instruments, and systems; and evaluation within ten (10) working days after
(d) Demonstrating compliance with the re- determining that a complete QTG is accept-
quirements of this part. able. Unusual circumstances may warrant
p. The tolerances for the test parameters establishing an evaluation date before this
listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix re- determination is made. A sponsor may
flect the range of tolerances acceptable to schedule an evaluation date as early as 6
the NSPM for FFS validation and are not to months in advance. However, there may be a
be confused with design tolerances specified delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and
for FFS manufacture. In making decisions completing the evaluation if the sponsor is
regarding tests and test results, the NSPM unable to meet the scheduled date. See At-
relies on the use of operational and engineer- tachment 4 of this appendix, Figure A4A,
ing judgment in the application of data (in- Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Re-
cluding consideration of the way in which instatement Evaluation.
the flight test was flown and the way the u. The numbering system used for objec-
data was gathered and applied), data presen- tive test results in the QTG should closely
tations, and the applicable tolerances for follow the numbering system set out in At-
each test. tachment 2 of this appendix, FFS Objective
q. In addition to the scheduled continuing Tests, Table A2A.
qualification evaluation, each FFS is subject v. Contact the NSPM or visit the NSPM
to evaluations conducted by the NSPM at Web site for additional information regard-
any time without prior notification to the ing the preferred qualifications of pilots used
sponsor. Such evaluations would be accom- to meet the requirements of § 60.15(d).
plished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring w. Examples of the exclusions for which
exclusive use of the FFS for the conduct of the FFS might not have been subjectively
objective and subjective tests and an exam- tested by the sponsor or the NSPM and for
ination of functions) if the FFS is not being which qualification might not be sought or
used for flight crewmember training, testing, granted, as described in § 60.15(g)(6), include
or checking. However, if the FFS were being windshear training and circling approaches.
used, the evaluation would be conducted in a
non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive END INFORMATION
evaluation will be conducted by the FFS
evaluator accompanying the check airman,
instructor, Aircrew Program Designee 12. ADDITIONAL QUALIFICATIONS FOR A
(APD), or FAA inspector aboard the FFS CURRENTLY QUALIFIED FFS (§ 60.16)
along with the student(s) and observing the
operation of the FFS during the training, llllllllllllllllllllllll
testing, or checking activities.
BEGIN INFORMATION
r. Problems with objective test results are
handled as follows: No additional regulatory or informational

(1) If a problem with an objective test re- material applies to § 60.16, Additional Quali-
sult is detected by the NSP evaluation team fications for a Currently Qualified FFS.
24
END INFORMATION f. Each FFS user must obtain approval
from the appropriate TPAA to use any FFS
llllllllllllllllllllllll in an FAA-approved flight training program.
13. PREVIOUSLY QUALIFIED FFSS (§ 60.17) g. The intent of the requirement listed in
§ 60.17(b), for each FFS to have a SOQ within
llllllllllllllllllllllll 6 years, is to have the availability of that
statement (including the configuration list
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS and the limitations to authorizations) to
a. In instances where a sponsor plans to re- provide a complete picture of the FFS inven-
move an FFS from active status for a period tory regulated by the FAA. The issuance of
of less than two years, the following proce- the statement will not require any addi-
dures apply: tional evaluation or require any adjustment
(1) The NSPM must be notified in writing to the evaluation basis for the FFS.
and the notification must include an esti- h. Downgrading of an FFS is a permanent
mate of the period that the FFS will be inac- change in qualification level and will neces-
tive; sitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to re-
(2) Continuing Qualification evaluations flect the revised qualification level, as ap-
will not be scheduled during the inactive pe- propriate. If a temporary restriction is
riod; placed on an FFS because of a missing, mal-
(3) The NSPM will remove the FFS from functioning, or inoperative component or on-
the list of qualified FSTDs on a mutually es- going repairs, the restriction is not a perma-
tablished date not later than the date on nent change in qualification level. Instead,
which the first missed continuing qualifica- the restriction is temporary and is removed
tion evaluation would have been scheduled; when the reason for the restriction has been
(4) Before the FFS is restored to qualified resolved.
status, it must be evaluated by the NSPM. i. The NSPM will determine the evaluation
The evaluation content and the time re- criteria for an FFS that has been removed
quired to accomplish the evaluation is based from active status. The criteria will be based
on the number of continuing qualification on the number of continuing qualification
evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly evaluations and quarterly inspections missed
inspections missed during the period of inac- during the period of inactivity. For example,
tivity. if the FFS were out of service for a 1 year pe-
(5) The sponsor must notify the NSPM of riod, it would be necessary to complete the
any changes to the original scheduled time entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evalua-
out of service; tions would have been missed. The NSPM
b. Simulators qualified prior to May 31, will also consider how the FFS was stored,
2016, are not required to meet the general whether parts were removed from the FFS
simulation requirements, the objective test and whether the FFS was disassembled.
requirements or the subjective test require- j. The FFS will normally be requalified
ments of attachments 1, 2, and 3 of this ap- using the FAA-approved MQTG and the cri-
pendix as long as the simulator continues to teria that was in effect prior to its removal
meet the test requirements contained in the from qualification. However, inactive periods
MQTG developed under the original quali- of 2 years or more will require requalifica-
fication basis. tion under the standards in effect and cur-
c. After May 30, 2009, each visual scene or rent at the time of requalification.
airport model beyond the minimum required
END INFORMATION
for the FFS qualification level that is in-
stalled in and available for use in a qualified llllllllllllllllllllllll
FFS must meet the requirements described
in attachment 3 of this appendix. 14. INSPECTION, CONTINUING QUALIFICATION
d. Simulators qualified prior to May 31, EVALUATION, AND MAINTENANCE REQUIRE-
2016, may be updated. If an evaluation is MENTS (§ 60.19)
deemed appropriate or necessary by the
NSPM after such an update, the evaluation
will not require an evaluation to standards BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS
beyond those against which the simulator
was originally qualified. a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of
e. Other certificate holders or persons de- four evenly spaced inspections throughout
siring to use an FFS may contract with FFS the year. The objective test sequence and
sponsors to use FFSs previously qualified at content of each inspection must be developed
a particular level for an airplane type and by the sponsor and must be acceptable to the
approved for use within an FAA-approved NSPM.
flight training program. Such FFSs are not b. The description of the functional pre-
required to undergo an additional qualifica- flight check must be contained in the spon-
tion process, except as described in § 60.16. sor’s QMS.
25
c. Record ‘‘functional preflight’’ in the ally and should be able to be conducted with-
FFS discrepancy log book or other accept- in approximately one-third (1⁄3) of the allot-
able location, including any item found to be ted FFS time.
missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative. (3) A subjective evaluation of the FFS to
d. During the continuing qualification perform a representative sampling of the
evaluation conducted by the NSPM, the tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appen-
sponsor must also provide a person knowl- dix. This portion of the evaluation should
edgeable about the operation of the aircraft take approximately two-thirds (2⁄3) of the al-
and the operation of the FFS. lotted FFS time.
e. The NSPM will conduct continuing qual- (4) An examination of the functions of the
ification evaluations every 12 months unless: FFS may include the motion system, visual
(1) The NSPM becomes aware of discrep- system, sound system, instructor operating
ancies or performance problems with the de- station, and the normal functions and simu-
vice that warrants more frequent evalua- lated malfunctions of the airplane systems.
tions; or This examination is normally accomplished
(2) The sponsor implements a QMS that simultaneously with the subjective evalua-
justifies less frequent evaluations. However, tion requirements.
in no case shall the frequency of a con-
tinuing qualification evaluation exceed 36 END INFORMATION
months. llllllllllllllllllllllll
END QPS REQUIREMENTS 15. LOGGING FFS DISCREPANCIES (§ 60.20)
BEGIN INFORMATION
BEGIN INFORMATION No additional regulatory or informational
f. The sponsor’s test sequence and the con- material applies to § 60.20. Logging FFS Dis-
tent of each quarterly inspection required in crepancies.
§ 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a
mix from the objective test requirement END INFORMATION
areas listed as follows: llllllllllllllllllllllll
(1) Performance.
(2) Handling qualities. 16. INTERIM QUALIFICATION OF FFSS FOR NEW
(3) Motion system (where appropriate). AIRPLANE TYPES OR MODELS (§ 60.21)
(4) Visual system (where appropriate).
(5) Sound system (where appropriate).
(6) Other FFS systems. BEGIN INFORMATION
g. If the NSP evaluator plans to accom-
plish specific tests during a normal con- No additional regulatory or informational
tinuing qualification evaluation that re- material applies to § 60.21, Interim Qualifica-
quires the use of special equipment or tech- tion of FFSs for New Airplane Types or Mod-
nicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in els.
advance of the evaluation as practical; but
END INFORMATION
not less than 72 hours. Examples of such
tests include latencies, control dynamics, llllllllllllllllllllllll
sounds and vibrations, motion, and/or some
visual system tests. 17. MODIFICATIONS TO FFSS (§ 60.23)
h. The continuing qualification evalua-
tions, described in § 60.19(b), will normally re-
quire 4 hours of FFS time. However, flexi- a. The notification described in § 60.23(c)(2)
bility is necessary to address abnormal situ- must include a complete description of the
ations or situations involving aircraft with planned modification, with a description of
additional levels of complexity (e.g., com- the operational and engineering effect the
puter controlled aircraft). The sponsor proposed modification will have on the oper-
should anticipate that some tests may re- ation of the FFS and the results that are ex-
quire additional time. The continuing quali- pected with the modification incorporated.
fication evaluations will consist of the fol- b. Prior to using the modified FFS:
lowing: (1) All the applicable objective tests com-
(1) Review of the results of the quarterly pleted with the modification incorporated,
inspections conducted by the sponsor since including any necessary updates to the
the last scheduled continuing qualification MQTG (e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Direc-
evaluation. tives) must be acceptable to the NSPM; and
(2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 ob- (2) The sponsor must provide the NSPM
jective tests from the MQTG that provide an with a statement signed by the MR that the
adequate opportunity to evaluate the per- factors listed in § 60.15(b) are addressed by
formance of the FFS. The tests chosen will the appropriate personnel as described in
be performed either automatically or manu- that section.
26
END QPS REQUIREMENTS able to determine the amount of testing re-
quired for requalification.
END INFORMATION
BEGIN INFORMATION
FSTD Directives are considered modifica-
tions of an FFS. See Attachment 4 of this 20. OTHER LOSSES OF QUALIFICATION AND PRO-
appendix for a sample index of effective CEDURES FOR RESTORATION OF QUALIFICA-
FSTD Directives. See Attachment 6 of this TION (§ 60.29)
appendix for a list of all effective FSTD Di-
rectives applicable to Airplane FFSs. llllllllllllllllllllllll
BEGIN INFORMATION
END INFORMATION
If the sponsor provides a plan for how the
FFS will be maintained during its out-of-
18. OPERATION WITH MISSING, MALFUNC- service period (e.g., periodic exercise of me-
TIONING, OR INOPERATIVE COMPONENTS chanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems;
(§ 60.25) routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; con-
trol of the environmental factors in which
BEGIN INFORMATION the FFS is to be maintained) there is a
greater likelihood that the NSPM will be
a. The sponsor’s responsibility with respect able to determine the amount of testing re-
to § 60.25(a) is satisfied when the sponsor fair- quired for requalification.
ly and accurately advises the user of the cur-
rent status of an FFS, including any miss- END INFORMATION
ing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI)
component(s). llllllllllllllllllllllll
b. It is the responsibility of the instructor, 21. RECORDKEEPING AND REPORTING (§ 60.31)
check airman, or representative of the ad-
ministrator conducting training, testing, or llllllllllllllllllllllll
checking to exercise reasonable and prudent
judgment to determine if any MMI compo-
nent is necessary for the satisfactory com- a. FFS modifications can include hardware
pletion of a specific maneuver, procedure, or or software changes. For FFS modifications
task. involving software programming changes,
c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day pe- the record required by § 60.31(a)(2) must con-
riod described in § 60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a sist of the name of the aircraft system soft-
Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend ware, aerodynamic model, or engine model
the deadline until the next business day. change, the date of the change, a summary
d. In accordance with the authorization de- of the change, and the reason for the change.
scribed in § 60.25(b), the sponsor may develop b. If a coded form for record keeping is
a discrepancy prioritizing system to accom- used, it must provide for the preservation
plish repairs based on the level of impact on and retrieval of information with appro-
the capability of the FFS. Repairs having a priate security or controls to prevent the in-
larger impact on FFS capability to provide appropriate alteration of such records after
the required training, evaluation, or flight the fact.
experience will have a higher priority for re-
pair or replacement. END QPS REQUIREMENTS
END INFORMATION
llllllllllllllllllllllll 22. APPLICATIONS, LOGBOOKS, REPORTS, AND
RECORDS: FRAUD, FALSIFICATION, OR INCOR-
19. AUTOMATIC LOSS OF QUALIFICATION AND RECT STATEMENTS (§ 60.33)
PROCEDURES FOR RESTORATION OF QUALI- llllllllllllllllllllllll
FICATION (§ 60.27)
llllllllllllllllllllllll BEGIN INFORMATION

BEGIN INFORMATION material applies to § 60.33, Applications,
If the sponsor provides a plan for how the Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Fal-
FFS will be maintained during its out-of- sification, or Incorrect Statements.
service period (e.g., periodic exercise of me-
23. SPECIFIC FFS COMPLIANCE REQUIREMENTS
chanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems;
(§ 60.35)
routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; con-
trol of the environmental factors in which No additional regulatory or informational

the FFS is to be maintained) there is a material applies to § 60.35, Specific FFS Com-
greater likelihood that the NSPM will be pliance Requirements.
27
24. [RESERVED] airplane FFS. The sponsor should also con-
sult the objective tests in Attachment 2 of
25. FFS QUALIFICATION ON THE BASIS OF A BI- this appendix and the examination of func-
LATERAL AVIATION SAFETY AGREEMENT
tions and subjective tests listed in Attach-
(BASA) (§ 60.37)
ment 3 of this appendix to determine the
No additional regulatory or informational complete requirements for a specific level
material applies to § 60.37, FFS Qualification simulator.
on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety b. The material contained in this attach-
Agreement (BASA). ment is divided into the following cat-
END INFORMATION egories:
(1) General flight deck configuration.
llllllllllllllllllllllll (2) Simulator programming.
ATTACHMENT 1 TO APPENDIX A TO PART 60— (3) Equipment operation.
GENERAL SIMULATOR REQUIREMENTS (4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/
evaluator functions.
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS (5) Motion system.
1. REQUIREMENTS (6) Visual system.
(7) Sound system.
a. Certain requirements included in this
c. Table A1A provides the standards for the
appendix must be supported with an SOC as
General Simulator Requirements.
defined in Appendix F, which may include
objective and subjective tests. The require- d. Table A1B provides the tasks that the
ments for SOCs are indicated in the ‘‘General sponsor will examine to determine whether
Simulator Requirements’’ column in Table the FFS satisfactorily meets the require-
A1A of this appendix. ments for flight crew training, testing, and
b. Table A1A describes the requirements experience, and provides the tasks for which
for the indicated level of FFS. Many devices the simulator may be qualified.
include operational systems or functions e. Table A1C provides the functions that an
that exceed the requirements outlined in instructor/check airman must be able to con-
this section. However, all systems will be trol in the simulator.
tested and evaluated in accordance with this f. It is not required that all of the tasks
appendix to ensure proper operation. that appear on the List of Qualified Tasks
END QPS REQUIREMENTS (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the
initial or continuing qualification evalua-
llllllllllllllllllllllll tion.
BEGIN INFORMATION END INFORMATION
2. DISCUSSION llllllllllllllllllllllll
a. This attachment describes the general
simulator requirements for qualifying an
28
29
ER30MR16.118</GPH>
30
ER30MR16.119</GPH>
31
ER30MR16.120</GPH>
32
ER30MR16.121</GPH>
33
ER30MR16.122</GPH>
34
ER30MR16.123</GPH>
35
ER30MR16.124</GPH>
36
ER30MR16.125</GPH>
37
ER30MR16.126</GPH>
38
ER30MR16.127</GPH>
39
ER30MR16.128</GPH>
40
ER30MR16.129</GPH>
41
ER30MR16.130</GPH>
42
ER30MR16.131</GPH>
43
ER30MR16.132</GPH>
44
ER30MR16.133</GPH>
45
ER30MR16.134</GPH>
46
ER30MR16.135</GPH>
47
ER30MR16.136</GPH>
48
ER30MR16.137</GPH>
TABLE A1B—TABLE OF TASKS VS. SIMULATOR LEVEL

QPS requirements Information
Subjective requirements Simulator levels

In order to be qualified at the simulator qualification level indi-
Entry No. Notes
cated, the simulator must be able to perform at least the
tasks associated with that level of qualification. A B C D
1. Preflight Procedures
1.a. ........... Preflight Inspection (flight deck only) ........................................ X X X X
1.b. ........... Engine Start .............................................................................. X X X X
1.c. ........... Taxiing ....................................................................................... R X X
1.d. ........... Pre-takeoff Checks ................................................................... X X X X
2. Takeoff and Departure Phase
2.a. ........... Normal and Crosswind Takeoff R X X
2.b. ........... Instrument Takeoff .................................................................... X X X X
2.c. ........... Engine Failure During Takeoff .................................................. A X X X
2.d. ........... Rejected Takeoff ....................................................................... X X X X
2.e. ........... Departure Procedure ................................................................ X X X X
3. Inflight Maneuvers
3.a. ........... Steep Turns .............................................................................. X X X X
3.b. High
Angle of
Attack
Maneu-
vers
3.b.1 ......... Approaches to Stall ................................................................... X X X X

3.b.2 ......... Full Stall .................................................................................... X X Stall maneuvers at angles of
attack above the activation
of the stall warning system.
Required only for FSTDs
qualified to conduct full stall
training tasks as indicated
on the Statement of Quali-
fication.
3.c. ........... Engine Failure—Multiengine Airplane ...................................... X X X X
3.d. ........... Engine Failure—Single-Engine Airplane .................................. X X X X
3.e. ........... Specific Flight Characteristics incorporated into the user’s A A A A

FAA approved flight training program.
3.f. ............ Recovery From Unusual Attitudes ............................................ X X X X Within the normal flight enve-
lope supported by applicable
simulation validation data.
3.g. ........... Upset Prevention and Recovery Training (UPRT) ................... X X Upset recovery or unusual atti-
tude training maneuvers
within the FSTD’s validation
envelope that are intended
to exceed pitch attitudes
greater than 25 degrees
nose up; pitch attitudes
greater than 10 degrees
nose down, and bank an-
gles greater than 45 de-
grees.
4. Instrument Procedures
4.a. ........... Standard Terminal Arrival/Flight Management System Arrivals X X X X

Procedures.
49
TABLE A1B—TABLE OF TASKS VS. SIMULATOR LEVEL—Continued


Entry No. Notes
4.b. ........... Holding ...................................................................................... X X X X
4.c. ........... Precision Instrument.
4.c.1. ........ All Engines Operating ............................................................... X X X X e.g., Autopilot, Manual (Flt.
Dir. Assisted), Manual (Raw
Data).
4.c.2. ........ One Engine Inoperative ............................................................ X X X X e.g., Manual (Flt. Dir. As-
sisted), Manual (Raw Data).
4.d. ........... Non-Precision Instrument Approach ......................................... X X X X e.g., NDB, VOR, VOR/DME,
VOR/TAC, RNAV, LOC,
LOC/BC, ADF, and SDF.
4.e. ........... Circling Approach ...................................................................... X X X X Specific authorization required.
4.f. ............ Missed Approach.
4.f.1. ......... Normal ....................................................................................... X X X X
4.f.2. ......... One Engine Inoperative ............................................................ X X X X
5. Landings and Approaches to Landings
5.a. ........... Normal and Crosswind Approaches and Landings .................. R X X
5.b. ........... Landing From a Precision/Non-Precision Approach ................ R X X
5.c. ........... Approach and Landing with (Simulated) Engine Failure—Mul- .... R X X
tiengine Airplane.
5.d. ........... Landing From Circling Approach .............................................. R X X
5.e. ........... Rejected Landing ...................................................................... X X X X
5.f. ............ Landing From a No Flap or a Nonstandard Flap Configuration R X X

Approach.
6. Normal and Abnormal Procedures
6.a. ........... Engine (including shutdown and restart) .................................. X X X X
6.b. ........... Fuel System .............................................................................. X X X X
6.c. ........... Electrical System ...................................................................... X X X X
6.d. ........... Hydraulic System ...................................................................... X X X X
6.e. ........... Environmental and Pressurization Systems ............................. X X X X
6.f. ............ Fire Detection and Extinguisher Systems ................................ X X X X
6.g. ........... Navigation and Avionics Systems ............................................ X X X X
6.h. ........... Automatic Flight Control System, Electronic Flight Instrument X X X X

System, and Related Subsystems.
6.i. ............ Flight Control Systems .............................................................. X X X X
6.j. ............ Anti-ice and Deice Systems ...................................................... X X X X
6.k. ........... Aircraft and Personal Emergency Equipment .......................... X X X X
7. Emergency Procedures
7.a. ........... Emergency Descent (Max. Rate) ............................................. X X X X
50
TABLE A1B—TABLE OF TASKS VS. SIMULATOR LEVEL—Continued


Entry No. Notes
7.b. ........... Inflight Fire and Smoke Removal ............................................. X X X X
7.c. ........... Rapid Decompression ............................................................... X X X X
7.d. ........... Emergency Evacuation ............................................................. X X X X
8. Postflight Procedures
8.a. ........... After-Landing Procedures ......................................................... X X X X
8.b. ........... Parking and Securing ............................................................... X X X X

‘‘A’’—indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or control is simulated in
the FSTD and is working properly.
‘‘R’’—indicates that the simulator may be qualified for this task for continuing qualification training.
‘‘X’’—indicates that the simulator must be able to perform this task for this level of qualification.
TABLE A1C—TABLE OF SIMULATOR SYSTEM TASKS


Entry No. Notes
1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
1.a. ........... Power switch(es) ....................................................................... X X X X
1.b. ........... Airplane conditions .................................................................... X X X X e.g., GW, CG, Fuel loading
and Systems.
1.c. ........... Airports/Runways ...................................................................... X X X X e.g., Selection, Surface,

Presets, Lighting controls.
1.d. ........... Environmental controls ............................................................. X X X X e.g., Clouds, Visibility, RVR,

Temp, Wind, Ice, Snow,
Rain, and Windshear.
1.e. ........... Airplane system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion) .................... X X X X
1.f. ............ Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning .......................................... X X X X
2. Sound Controls
2.a. ........... On/off/adjustment ...................................................................... X X X X
3. Motion/Control Loading System
3.a. ........... On/off/emergency stop .............................................................. X X X X
4. Observer Seats/Stations
4.a. ........... Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system .......................... X X X X
ATTACHMENT 2 TO APPENDIX A TO PART 60— TABLE OF CONTENTS—Continued

FFS OBJECTIVE TESTS
Paragraph No. Title
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Table A2A, Objective Tests.
Paragraph No. Title
3. .................... General.
1. .................... Introduction.
4. .................... Control Dynamics.

2. .................... Test Requirements.
51
TABLE OF CONTENTS—Continued required for FTDs is not necessarily required

for FFSs. Therefore, when a test number (or
Paragraph No. Title series of numbers) is not required, the term
‘‘Reserved’’ is used in the table at that loca-
5. .................... Ground Effect.
tion. Following this numbering format pro-
6. .................... Motion System. vides a degree of commonality between the
two tables and substantially reduces the po-
7. .................... Sound System. tential for confusion when referring to objec-
8. .................... Additional Information About Flight Simulator
tive test numbers for either FFSs or FTDs.
Qualification for New or Derivative Air- c. The reader is encouraged to review the
planes. Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Hand-
book, Volumes I and II, published by the
9. .................... Engineering Simulator—Validation Data. Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK,
10. .................. [Reserved] and AC 25–7, as amended, Flight Test Guide
for Certification of Transport Category Air-
11. .................. Validation Test Tolerances. planes, and AC 23–8, as amended, Flight Test
Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes,
12. .................. Validation Data Roadmap.
for references and examples regarding flight
13. .................. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative En- testing requirements and techniques.
gines Data. d. If relevant winds are present in the ob-
jective data, the wind vector should be clear-
14. .................. Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avi- ly noted as part of the data presentation, ex-
onics (Flight-Related Computers and Con-
trollers).
pressed in conventional terminology, and re-
lated to the runway being used for the test.
15. .................. Transport Delay Testing.
END INFORMATION
16. .................. Continuing Qualification Evaluations—Vali-
dation Test Data Presentation. llllllllllllllllllllllll
17. .................. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS
Instrumentation: Level A and Level B Sim-
ulators Only. 2. TEST REQUIREMENTS
llllllllllllllllllllllll a. The ground and flight tests required for

qualification are listed in Table A2A, FFS
BEGIN INFORMATION Objective Tests. Computer generated simu-
lator test results must be provided for each
1. INTRODUCTION test except where an alternative test is spe-
a. For the purposes of this attachment, the cifically authorized by the NSPM. If a flight
flight conditions specified in the Flight Con- condition or operating condition is required
ditions Column of Table A2A of this appen- for the test but does not apply to the air-
dix, are defined as follows: plane being simulated or to the qualification
(1) Ground—on ground, independent of air- level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., an
plane configuration; engine out missed approach for a single-en-
(2) Take-off—gear down with flaps/slats in gine airplane or a maneuver using reverse
any certified takeoff position; thrust for an airplane without reverse thrust
(3) First segment climb—gear down with capability). Each test result is compared
flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position against the validation data described in
(normally not above 50 ft AGL); § 60.13 and in this appendix. Although use of
(4) Second segment climb—gear up with a driver program designed to automatically
flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position accomplish the tests is encouraged for all
(normally between 50 ft and 400 ft AGL); simulators and required for Level C and
(5) Clean—flaps/slats retracted and gear up; Level D simulators, it must be possible to
(6) Cruise—clean configuration at cruise conduct each test manually while recording
altitude and airspeed; all appropriate parameters. The results must
(7) Approach—gear up or down with flaps/ be produced on an appropriate recording de-
slats at any normal approach position as rec- vice acceptable to the NSPM and must in-
ommended by the airplane manufacturer; clude simulator number, date, time, condi-
and tions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent
(8) Landing—gear down with flaps/slats in variables portrayed in comparison to the val-
any certified landing position. idation data. Time histories are required un-
b. The format for numbering the objective less otherwise indicated in Table A2A. All re-
tests in Appendix A, Attachment 2, Table sults must be labeled using the tolerances
A2A, and the objective tests in Appendix B, and units given.
Attachment 2, Table B2A, is identical. How-
b. Table A2A in this attachment sets out

ever, each test required for FFSs is not nec- the test results required, including the pa-
essarily required for FTDs. Also, each test rameters, tolerances, and flight conditions
52
for simulator validation. Tolerances are pro- annotated (e.g., indicated versus calibrated).
vided for the listed tests because mathe- In addition, the same variables must be used
matical modeling and acquisition and devel- for comparison (e.g., compare inches to
opment of reference data are often inexact. inches rather than inches to centimeters).
All tolerances listed in the following tables g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must
are applied to simulator performance. When clearly describe how the simulator will be
two tolerance values are given for a param- set up and operated for each test. Each simu-
eter, the less restrictive may be used unless lator subsystem may be tested independ-
otherwise indicated. In those cases where a ently, but overall integrated testing of the
tolerance is expressed only as a percentage, simulator must be accomplished to assure
the tolerance percentage applies to the max- that the total simulator system meets the
imum value of that parameter within its prescribed standards. A manual test proce-
normal operating range as measured from dure with explicit and detailed steps for
the neutral or zero position unless otherwise completing each test must also be provided.
indicated. h. For previously qualified simulators, the
c. Certain tests included in this attach- tests and tolerances of this attachment may
ment must be supported with an SOC. In be used in subsequent continuing qualifica-
Table A2A, requirements for SOCs are indi- tion evaluations for any given test if the
cated in the ‘‘Test Details’’ column. sponsor has submitted a proposed MQTG re-
d. When operational or engineering judg- vision to the NSPM and has received NSPM
ment is used in making assessments for approval.
flight test data applications for simulator i. Simulators are evaluated and qualified
validity, such judgment must not be limited with an engine model simulating the air-
to a single parameter. For example, data plane data supplier’s flight test engine. For
that exhibit rapid variations of the measured qualification of alternative engine models
parameters may require interpolations or a (either variations of the flight test engines
‘‘best fit’’ data selection. All relevant param- or other manufacturer’s engines) additional
eters related to a given maneuver or flight tests with the alternative engine models
condition must be provided to allow overall may be required. This attachment contains
interpretation. When it is difficult or impos- guidelines for alternative engines.
sible to match simulator to airplane data j. For testing Computer Controlled Air-
throughout a time history, differences must craft (CCA) simulators, or other highly aug-
be justified by providing a comparison of mented airplane simulators, flight test data
other related variables for the condition is required for the Normal (N) and/or Non-
being assessed. normal (NN) control states, as indicated in
e. It is not acceptable to program the FFS this attachment. Where test results are inde-
so that the mathematical modeling is cor- pendent of control state, Normal or Non-nor-
rect only at the validation test points. Un- mal control data may be used. All tests in
less otherwise noted, simulator tests must Table A2A require test results in the Normal
represent airplane performance and handling control state unless specifically noted other-
qualities at operating weights and centers of wise in the Test Details section following the
gravity (CG) typical of normal operation. CCA designation. The NSPM will determine
Simulator tests at extreme weight or CG what tests are appropriate for airplane sim-
conditions may be acceptable where required ulation data. When making this determina-
for concurrent aircraft certification testing. tion, the NSPM may require other levels of
Tests of handling qualities must include val- control state degradation for specific air-
idation of augmentation devices. plane tests. Where Non-normal control
f. When comparing the parameters listed to states are required, test data must be pro-
those of the airplane, sufficient data must vided for one or more Non-normal control
also be provided to verify the correct flight states, and must include the least aug-
condition and airplane configuration mented state. Where applicable, flight test
changes. For example, to show that control data must record Normal and Non-normal
force is within the parameters for a static states for:
stability test, data to show the correct air- (1) Pilot controller deflections or electroni-
speed, power, thrust or torque, airplane con- cally generated inputs, including location of
figuration, altitude, and other appropriate input; and
datum identification parameters must also (2) Flight control surface positions unless
be given. If comparing short period dynam- test results are not affected by, or are inde-
ics, normal acceleration may be used to es- pendent of, surface positions.
tablish a match to the airplane, but airspeed, k. Tests of handling qualities must include
altitude, control input, airplane configura- validation of augmentation devices. FFSs for
tion, and other appropriate data must also highly augmented airplanes will be validated
be given. If comparing landing gear change both in the unaugmented configuration (or
dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and altitude may failure state with the maximum permitted
be used to establish a match to the airplane, degradation in handling qualities) and the
but landing gear position must also be pro- augmented configuration. Where various lev-
vided. All airspeed values must be properly els of handling qualities result from failure
53
states, validation of the effect of the failure BEGIN INFORMATION
is necessary. Requirements for testing will
be mutually agreed to between the sponsor n. In those cases where the objective test
and the NSPM on a case-by-case basis. results authorize a ‘‘snapshot test’’ or a ‘‘se-
l. Some tests will not be required for air- ries of snapshot tests’’ results in lieu of a
planes using airplane hardware in the simu- time-history result, the sponsor or other
lator flight deck (e.g., ‘‘side stick con- data provider must ensure that a steady
troller’’). These exceptions are noted in Sec- state condition exists at the instant of time
tion 2 ‘‘Handling Qualities’’ in Table A2A of captured by the ‘‘snapshot.’’ The steady
this attachment. However, in these cases, state condition should exist from 4 seconds
the sponsor must provide a statement that prior to, through 1 second following, the in-
the airplane hardware meets the appropriate stant of time captured by the snap shot.
manufacturer’s specifications and the spon- o. For references on basic operating
sor must have supporting information to weight, see AC 120–27, ‘‘Aircraft Weight and
that fact available for NSPM review. Balance;’’ and FAA–H–8083–1, ‘‘Aircraft
m. For objective test purposes, see Appen-
Weight and Balance Handbook.’’
dix F of this part for the definitions of ‘‘Near
maximum,’’ ‘‘Light,’’ and ‘‘Medium’’ gross END INFORMATION
weight.
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llllllllllllllllllllllll be shown that for some airplanes, takeoff,
cruise, and landing configurations have like
BEGIN INFORMATION effects. Thus, one may suffice for another. In
either case, engineering validation or air-
3. GENERAL
plane manufacturer rationale should be sub-
a. If relevant winds are present in the ob- mitted as justification for ground tests or for
jective data, the wind vector should be clear- eliminating a configuration. For FFSs re-
ly noted as part of the data presentation, ex- quiring static and dynamic tests at the con-
pressed in conventional terminology, and re- trols, special test fixtures will not be re-
lated to the runway being used for test near quired during initial and upgrade evalua-
the ground. tions if the QTG shows both test fixture re-
b. The reader is encouraged to review the sults and the results of an alternate ap-
Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Hand- proach (e.g., computer plots that were pro-
book, Volumes I and II, published by the duced concurrently and show satisfactory
Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK, agreement). Repeat of the alternate method
and AC 25–7, as amended, Flight Test Guide during the initial evaluation satisfies this
for Certification of Transport Category Air- test requirement.
planes, and AC 23–8, as amended, Flight Test b. Control Dynamics Evaluation. The dy-
Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes, namic properties of control systems are
for references and examples regarding flight often stated in terms of frequency, damping
testing requirements and techniques. and a number of other classical measure-
ments. In order to establish a consistent
4. CONTROL DYNAMICS means of validating test results for FFS con-
a. General. The characteristics of an air- trol loading, criteria are needed that will
plane flight control system have a major ef- clearly define the measurement interpreta-
fect on handling qualities. A significant con- tion and the applied tolerances. Criteria are
sideration in pilot acceptability of an air- needed for underdamped, critically damped
plane is the ‘‘feel’’ provided through the and overdamped systems. In the case of an
flight controls. Considerable effort is ex- underdamped system with very light damp-
pended on airplane feel system design so that ing, the system may be quantified in terms
pilots will be comfortable and will consider of frequency and damping. In critically
the airplane desirable to fly. In order for an damped or overdamped systems, the fre-
FFS to be representative, it should ‘‘feel’’ quency and damping are not readily meas-
like the airplane being simulated. Compli- ured from a response time history. There-
ance with this requirement is determined by fore, the following suggested measurements
comparing a recording of the control feel dy- may be used:
namics of the FFS to actual airplane meas- (1) For Level C and D simulators. Tests to
urements in the takeoff, cruise and landing verify that control feel dynamics represent
configurations. the airplane should show that the dynamic
(1) Recordings such as free response to an damping cycles (free response of the con-
impulse or step function are classically used trols) match those of the airplane within
to estimate the dynamic properties of specified tolerances. The NSPM recognizes
electromechanical systems. In any case, it is that several different testing methods may
only possible to estimate the dynamic prop- be used to verify the control feel dynamic re-
erties as a result of being able to estimate sponse. The NSPM will consider the merits
true inputs and responses. Therefore, it is of testing methods based on reliability and
imperative that the best possible data be col- consistency. One acceptable method of eval-
lected since close matching of the FFS con- uating the response and the tolerance to be
trol loading system to the airplane system is applied is described below for the under-
essential. The required dynamic control damped and critically damped cases. A spon-
tests are described in Table A2A of this at- sor using this method to comply with the
tachment. QPS requirements should perform the tests
(2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, the as follows:
QPS requires that control dynamics charac- (a) Underdamped response. Two measure-
teristics be measured and recorded directly ments are required for the period, the time
from the flight controls (Handling Quali- to first zero crossing (in case a rate limit is
ties—Table A2A). This procedure is usually present) and the subsequent frequency of os-
accomplished by measuring the free response cillation. It is necessary to measure cycles
of the controls using a step or impulse input on an individual basis in case there are non-
to excite the system. The procedure should uniform periods in the response. Each period
be accomplished in the takeoff, cruise and will be independently compared to the re-
landing flight conditions and configurations. spective period of the airplane control sys-
(3) For airplanes with irreversible control tem and, consequently, will enjoy the full
systems, measurements may be obtained on tolerance specified for that period. The
the ground if proper pitot-static inputs are damping tolerance will be applied to over-
provided to represent airspeeds typical of shoots on an individual basis. Care should be
those encountered in flight. Likewise, it may taken when applying the tolerance to small
105
overshoots since the significance of such
overshoots becomes questionable. Only those T(P0) .......... ±10% of P0
overshoots larger than 5 per cent of the total
END INFORMATION
initial displacement should be considered.
The residual band, labeled T(Ad) on Figure llllllllllllllllllllllll
A2A is ±5 percent of the initial displacement
amplitude Ad from the steady state value of BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENT
the oscillation. Only oscillations outside the
c. Alternative method for control dynam-
residual band are considered significant.
ics evaluation.
When comparing FFS data to airplane data,
(1) An alternative means for validating
the process should begin by overlaying or
control dynamics for aircraft with hydrau-
aligning the FFS and airplane steady state
values and then comparing amplitudes of os- lically powered flight controls and artificial
cillation peaks, the time of the first zero feel systems is by the measurement of con-
crossing and individual periods of oscilla- trol force and rate of movement. For each
tion. The FFS should show the same number axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must
of significant overshoots to within one when be forced to its maximum extreme position
compared against the airplane data. The pro- for the following distinct rates. These tests
cedure for evaluating the response is illus- are conducted under normal flight and
trated in Figure A2A. ground conditions.
(b) Critically damped and overdamped re- (a) Static test—Slowly move the control so
sponse. Due to the nature of critically that a full sweep is achieved within 95 to 105
damped and overdamped responses (no over- seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement
shoots), the time to reach 90 percent of the of the controller from neutral to the stop,
steady state (neutral point) value should be usually aft or right stop, then to the oppo-
the same as the airplane within ±10 percent. site stop, then to the neutral position.
Figure A2B illustrates the procedure. (b) Slow dynamic test—Achieve a full
(c) Special considerations. Control systems sweep within 8–12 seconds.
that exhibit characteristics other than clas- (c) Fast dynamic test—Achieve a full
sical overdamped or underdamped responses sweep within 3–5 seconds.
should meet specified tolerances. In addi- NOTE: Dynamic sweeps may be limited to
tion, special consideration should be given to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. (44.5 daN).
ensure that significant trends are main-
tained. (d) Tolerances
(2) Tolerances. (i) Static test; see Table A2A, FFS Objec-
(a) The following table summarizes the tol- tive Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 2.a.2., and 2.a.3.
erances, T, for underdamped systems, and (ii) Dynamic test—±2 lbs (0.9 daN) or ±10%
‘‘n’’ is the sequential period of a full cycle of on dynamic increment above static test.
oscillation. See Figure A2A of this attach-
ment for an illustration of the referenced END QPS REQUIREMENT
measurements. llllllllllllllllllllllll
T(P0) .......... ±10% of P0.
BEGIN INFORMATION
T(P1) .......... ±20% of P1.
T(P2) .......... ±30% of P2. d. The FAA is open to alternative means
T(Pn) .......... ±10(n + 1)% of Pn. such as the one described above. The alter-
T(An) .......... ±10% of A1. natives should be justified and appropriate
to the application. For example, the method
T(Ad) .......... ±5% of Ad = residual
described here may not apply to all manufac-
band. turers’ systems and certainly not to aircraft
Significant overshoots, First overshoot with reversible control systems. Each case is
and ±1 subsequent overshoots. considered on its own merit on an ad hoc
(b) The following tolerance applies to criti- basis. If the FAA finds that alternative
cally damped and overdamped systems only. methods do not result in satisfactory per-
See Figure A2B for an illustration of the ref- formance, more conventionally accepted
erence measurements: methods will have to be used.
106
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5. GROUND EFFECT to comply with the QPS requirements should

perform the tests as follows:
a. For an FFS to be used for take-off and (1) Level fly-bys. The level fly-bys should
landing (not applicable to Level A simula- be conducted at a minimum of three alti-
tors in that the landing maneuver may not tudes within the ground effect, including one
be credited in a Level A simulator) it should at no more than 10% of the wingspan above
reproduce the aerodynamic changes that the ground, one each at approximately 30%
occur in ground effect. The parameters cho- and 50% of the wingspan where height refers
sen for FFS validation should indicate these to main gear tire above the ground. In addi-
changes. tion, one level-flight trim condition should
(1) A dedicated test should be provided that be conducted out of ground effect (e.g., at
will validate the aerodynamic ground effect 150% of wingspan).
characteristics. (2) Shallow approach landing. The shallow
(2) The organization performing the flight approach landing should be performed at a
tests may select appropriate test methods glide slope of approximately one degree with
and procedures to validate ground effect. negligible pilot activity until flare.
However, the flight tests should be per- c. The lateral-directional characteristics
formed with enough duration near the are also altered by ground effect. For exam-
ground to sufficiently validate the ground- ple, because of changes in lift, roll damping
effect model. is affected. The change in roll damping will
b. The NSPM will consider the merits of affect other dynamic modes usually evalu-
testing methods based on reliability and con- ated for FFS validation. In fact, Dutch roll
sistency. Acceptable methods of validating dynamics, spiral stability, and roll-rate for a
ground effect are described below. If other given lateral control input are altered by
methods are proposed, rationale should be ground effect. Steady heading sideslips will
provided to conclude that the tests per- also be affected. These effects should be ac-
formed validate the ground-effect model. A counted for in the FFS modeling. Several
sponsor using the methods described below tests such as crosswind landing, one engine
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inoperative landing, and engine failure on to pilot reference point with a minimum am-
take-off serve to validate lateral-directional plitude of 5 deg/sec/sec, 10 deg/sec and 0.3 g,
ground effect since portions of these tests respectively, to provide adequate analysis of
are accomplished as the aircraft is descend- the output.
ing through heights above the runway at (2) Recommended output:
which ground effect is an important factor. (a) Actual platform linear accelerations;
the output will comprise accelerations due
6. MOTION SYSTEM to both the linear and rotational motion ac-
a. General. celeration;
(1) Pilots use continuous information sig- (b) Motion actuators position.
nals to regulate the state of the airplane. In d. Objective Motion Cueing Test—Fre-
concert with the instruments and outside- quency Domain
world visual information, whole-body motion (1) Background. This test quantifies the re-
feedback is essential in assisting the pilot to sponse of the motion cueing system from the
control the airplane dynamics, particularly output of the flight model to the motion
in the presence of external disturbances. The platform response. Other motion tests, such
motion system should meet basic objective as the motion system frequency response,
performance criteria, and should be subjec- concentrate on the mechanical performance
tively tuned at the pilot’s seat position to of the motion system hardware alone. The
represent the linear and angular accelera- intent of this test is to provide quantitative
tions of the airplane during a prescribed frequency response records of the entire mo-
minimum set of maneuvers and conditions. tion system for specified degree-of-freedom
The response of the motion cueing system transfer relationships over a range of fre-
should also be repeatable. quencies. This range should be representa-
(2) The Motion System tests in Section 3 of tive of the manual control range for that
Table A2A are intended to qualify the FFS particular aircraft type and the simulator as
motion cueing system from a mechanical set up during qualification. The measure-
performance standpoint. Additionally, the ments of this test should include the com-
list of motion effects provides a representa- bined influence of the motion cueing algo-
tive sample of dynamic conditions that rithm, the motion platform dynamics, and
should be present in the flight simulator. An the transport delay associated with the mo-
additional list of representative, training- tion cueing and control system implementa-
critical maneuvers, selected from Section 1 tion. Specified frequency responses describ-
(Performance tests), and Section 2 (Handling ing the ability of the FSTD to reproduce air-
Qualities tests), in Table A2A, that should be craft translations and rotations, as well as
recorded during initial qualification (but the cross-coupling relations, are required as
without tolerance) to indicate the flight sim- part of these measurements. When simu-
ulator motion cueing performance signature lating forward aircraft acceleration, the sim-
have been identified (reference Section 3.e). ulator is accelerated momentarily in the for-
These tests are intended to help improve the ward direction to provide the onset cueing.
overall standard of FFS motion cueing. This is considered the direct transfer rela-
b. Motion System Checks. The intent of tion. The simulator is simultaneously tilted
test 3a, Frequency Response, and test 3b, nose-up due to the low-pass filter in order to
Turn-Around Check, as described in the generate a sustained specific force. The tilt
Table of Objective Tests, are to demonstrate associated with the generation of the sus-
the performance of the motion system hard- tained specific force, and the angular rates
ware, and to check the integrity of the mo- and angular accelerations associated with
tion set-up with regard to calibration and the initiation of the sustained specific force,
wear. These tests are independent of the mo- are considered cross-coupling relations. The
tion cueing software and should be consid- specific force is required for the perception
ered robotic tests. of the aircraft sustained specific force, while
c. Motion System Repeatability. The in- the angular rates and accelerations do not
tent of this test is to ensure that the motion occur in the aircraft and should be mini-
system software and motion system hard- mized.
ware have not degraded or changed over (2) Frequency response test. This test re-
time. This diagnostic test should be com- quires the frequency response to be measured
pleted during continuing qualification for the motion cueing system. Reference si-
checks in lieu of the robotic tests. This will nusoidal signals are inserted at the pilot ref-
allow an improved ability to determine erence position prior to the motion cueing
changes in the software or determine deg- computations. The response of the motion
radation in the hardware. The following in- platform in the corresponding degree-of-free-
formation delineates the methodology that dom (the direct transfer relations), as well as
should be used for this test. the motions resulting from cross-coupling
(1) Input: The inputs should be such that (the cross-coupling relations), are recorded.
rotational accelerations, rotational rates, These are the tests that are important to
and linear accelerations are inserted before pilot motion cueing and are general tests ap-
the transfer from airplane center of gravity plicable to all types of airplanes.
109
(3) This test is only required to be run once 7. SOUND SYSTEM
for the initial qualification of the FSTD and
a. General. The total sound environment in
will not be required for continuing qualifica-
the airplane is very complex, and changes
tion purposes. The FAA will accept test re-
with atmospheric conditions, airplane con-
sults provided by the FSTD manufacturer as
figuration, airspeed, altitude, and power set-
part of a Statement of Compliance con-
tings. Flight deck sounds are an important
firming that the objective motion cueing
component of the flight deck operational en-
tests were used to assist in the tuning of the
vironment and provide valuable information
FSTD’s motion cueing algorithms.
to the flight crew. These aural cues can ei-
e. Motion Vibrations.
ther assist the crew (as an indication of an
(1) Presentation of results. The char- abnormal situation), or hinder the crew (as a
acteristic motion vibrations may be used to distraction or nuisance). For effective train-
verify that the flight simulator can repro- ing, the flight simulator should provide
duce the frequency content of the airplane flight deck sounds that are perceptible to the
when flown in specific conditions. The test pilot during normal and abnormal oper-
results should be presented as a Power Spec- ations, and comparable to those of the air-
tral Density (PSD) plot with frequencies on plane. The flight simulator operator should
the horizontal axis and amplitude on the carefully evaluate background noises in the
vertical axis. The airplane data and flight location where the device will be installed.
simulator data should be presented in the To demonstrate compliance with the sound
same format with the same scaling. The al- requirements, the objective or validation
gorithms used for generating the flight simu- tests in this attachment were selected to
lator data should be the same as those used provide a representative sample of normal
for the airplane data. If they are not the static conditions typically experienced by a
same then the algorithms used for the flight pilot.
simulator data should be proven to be suffi- b. Alternate propulsion. For FFS with
ciently comparable. As a minimum, the re- multiple propulsion configurations, any con-
sults along the dominant axes should be pre- dition listed in Table A2A of this attachment
sented and a rationale for not presenting the should be presented for evaluation as part of
other axes should be provided. the QTG if identified by the airplane manu-
(2) Interpretation of results. The overall facturer or other data supplier as signifi-
trend of the PSD plot should be considered cantly different due to a change in propul-
while focusing on the dominant frequencies. sion system (engine or propeller).
Less emphasis should be placed on the dif- c. Data and Data Collection System.
ferences at the high frequency and low am- (1) Information provided to the flight simu-
plitude portions of the PSD plot. During the lator manufacturer should be presented in
analysis, certain structural components of the format suggested by the International
the flight simulator have resonant fre- Air Transport Association (IATA) ‘‘Flight
quencies that are filtered and may not ap- Simulator Design and Performance Data Re-
pear in the PSD plot. If filtering is required, quirements,’’ as amended. This information
the notch filter bandwidth should be limited should contain calibration and frequency re-
to 1 Hz to ensure that the buffet feel is not sponse data.
adversely affected. In addition, a rationale (2) The system used to perform the tests
should be provided to explain that the char- listed in Table A2A should comply with the
acteristic motion vibration is not being ad- following standards:
versely affected by the filtering. The ampli- (a) The specifications for octave, half oc-
tude should match airplane data as described tave, and third octave band filter sets may
below. However, if the PSD plot was altered be found in American National Standards In-
for subjective reasons, a rationale should be stitute (ANSI) S1.11–1986;
provided to justify the change. If the plot is (b) Measurement microphones should be
on a logarithmic scale, it may be difficult to type WS2 or better, as described in Inter-
interpret the amplitude of the buffet in national Electrotechnical Commission (IEC)
terms of acceleration. For example, a 1 × 1094–4–1995.
10¥3 g-rms2/Hz would describe a heavy buffet (3) Headsets. If headsets are used during
and may be seen in the deep stall regime. Al- normal operation of the airplane they should
ternatively, a 1 × 10¥6 g-rms2/Hz buffet is al- also be used during the flight simulator eval-
most not perceivable; but may represent a uation.
flap buffet at low speed. The previous two ex- (4) Playback equipment. Playback equip-
amples differ in magnitude by 1000. On a PSD ment and recordings of the QTG conditions
plot this represents three decades (one dec- should be provided during initial evalua-
ade is a change in order of magnitude of 10; tions.
and two decades is a change in order of mag- (5) Background noise.
nitude of 100). (a) Background noise is the noise in the
NOTE: In the example, ‘‘g-rms2 is the math- flight simulator that is not associated with
ematical expression for ‘‘g’s root mean the airplane, but is caused by the flight sim-
squared.’’ ulator’s cooling and hydraulic systems and
110
extraneous noise from other locations in the TABLE A2B—EXAMPLE OF CONTINUING QUALI-
building. Background noise can seriously im- FICATION FREQUENCY RESPONSE TEST TOL-
pact the correct simulation of airplane ERANCE—Continued
sounds and should be kept below the airplane
sounds. In some cases, the sound level of the Continuing
simulation can be increased to compensate Band center Initial results qualification Absolute
for the background noise. However, this ap- frequency (dBSPL) results difference
(dBSPL)
proach is limited by the specified tolerances
and by the subjective acceptability of the 16000 ............... 71.1 71.1 0.0
sound environment to the evaluation pilot.
(b) The acceptability of the background Average .... .................... ...................... 1.1
noise levels is dependent upon the normal
sound levels in the airplane being rep- 8. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION ABOUT FLIGHT
resented. Background noise levels that fall SIMULATOR QUALIFICATION FOR NEW OR DE-
below the lines defined by the following RIVATIVE AIRPLANES
points, may be acceptable:
(i) 70 dB @ 50 Hz; a. Typically, an airplane manufacturer’s
(ii) 55 dB @ 1000 Hz; approved final data for performance, han-
(iii) 30 dB @ 16 kHz dling qualities, systems or avionics is not
(NOTE: These limits are for unweighted 1⁄3 available until well after a new or derivative
octave band sound levels. Meeting these lim- airplane has entered service. However, flight
its for background noise does not ensure an crew training and certification often begins
acceptable flight simulator. Airplane sounds several months prior to the entry of the first
that fall below this limit require careful re- airplane into service. Consequently, it may
view and may require lower limits on back- be necessary to use preliminary data pro-
ground noise.) vided by the airplane manufacturer for in-
(6) Validation testing. Deficiencies in air- terim qualification of flight simulators.
plane recordings should be considered when b. In these cases, the NSPM may accept
applying the specified tolerances to ensure certain partially validated preliminary air-
that the simulation is representative of the plane and systems data, and early release
airplane. Examples of typical deficiencies (‘‘red label’’) avionics data in order to permit
are: the necessary program schedule for training,
(a) Variation of data between tail numbers; certification, and service introduction.
(b) Frequency response of microphones; c. Simulator sponsors seeking qualifica-
(c) Repeatability of the measurements. tion based on preliminary data should con-
sult the NSPM to make special arrange-
TABLE A2B—EXAMPLE OF CONTINUING QUALI- ments for using preliminary data for flight
FICATION FREQUENCY RESPONSE TEST TOL- simulator qualification. The sponsor should
ERANCE also consult the airplane and flight simu-
lator manufacturers to develop a data plan
Continuing
Band center Initial results qualification Absolute and flight simulator qualification plan.
frequency (dBSPL) results difference d. The procedure to be followed to gain
(dBSPL) NSPM acceptance of preliminary data will
50 ..................... 75.0 73.8 1.2 vary from case to case and between airplane
63 ..................... 75.9 75.6 0.3 manufacturers. Each airplane manufactur-
80 ..................... 77.1 76.5 0.6 er’s new airplane development and test pro-
100 ................... 78.0 78.3 0.3 gram is designed to suit the needs of the par-
125 ................... 81.9 81.3 0.6 ticular project and may not contain the
160 ................... 79.8 80.1 0.3 same events or sequence of events as another
200 ................... 83.1 84.9 1.8
manufacturer’s program, or even the same
250 ................... 78.6 78.9 0.3
315 ................... 79.5 78.3 1.2 manufacturer’s program for a different air-
400 ................... 80.1 79.5 0.6 plane. Therefore, there cannot be a pre-
500 ................... 80.7 79.8 0.9 scribed invariable procedure for acceptance
630 ................... 81.9 80.4 1.5 of preliminary data, but instead there should
800 ................... 73.2 74.1 0.9 be a statement describing the final sequence
1000 ................. 79.2 80.1 0.9 of events, data sources, and validation proce-
1250 ................. 80.7 82.8 2.1
dures agreed by the simulator sponsor, the
1600 ................. 81.6 78.6 3.0
2000 ................. 76.2 74.4 1.8 airplane manufacturer, the flight simulator
2500 ................. 79.5 80.7 1.2 manufacturer, and the NSPM.
3150 ................. 80.1 77.1 3.0 NOTE: A description of airplane manufac-
4000 ................. 78.9 78.6 0.3 turer-provided data needed for flight simu-
5000 ................. 80.1 77.1 3.0
6300 ................. 80.7 80.4 0.3
lator modeling and validation is to be found
8000 ................. 84.3 85.5 1.2 in the IATA Document ‘‘Flight Simulator
10000 ............... 81.3 79.8 1.5 Design and Performance Data Require-
12500 ............... 80.7 80.1 0.6 ments,’’ as amended.
111
e. The preliminary data should be the man- versions and the resulting effects on flight
ufacturer’s best representation of the air- simulator qualification should be agreed be-
plane, with assurance that the final data will tween the simulator sponsor and the NSPM.
not significantly deviate from the prelimi- Consultation with the flight simulator man-
nary estimates. Data derived from these pre- ufacturer is desirable throughout the quali-
dictive or preliminary techniques should be fication process.
validated against available sources includ- h. The following describes an example of
ing, at least, the following: the design data and sources that might be
(1) Manufacturer’s engineering report. The used in the development of an interim quali-
report should explain the predictive method fication plan.
used and illustrate past success of the meth- (1) The plan should consist of the develop-
od on similar projects. For example, the ment of a QTG based upon a mix of flight
manufacturer could show the application of test and engineering simulation data. For
the method to an earlier airplane model or data collected from specific airplane flight
predict the characteristics of an earlier tests or other flights, the required design
model and compare the results to final data model or data changes necessary to support
for that model. an acceptable Proof of Match (POM) should
(2) Early flight test results. This data is be generated by the airplane manufacturer.
often derived from airplane certification (2) For proper validation of the two sets of
tests, and should be used to maximum ad- data, the airplane manufacturer should com-
vantage for early flight simulator valida- pare their simulation model responses
tion. Certain critical tests that would nor- against the flight test data, when driven by
mally be done early in the airplane certifi- the same control inputs and subjected to the
cation program should be included to vali- same atmospheric conditions as recorded in
date essential pilot training and certifi- the flight test. The model responses should
cation maneuvers. These include cases where result from a simulation where the following
a pilot is expected to cope with an airplane systems are run in an integrated fashion and
failure mode or an engine failure. Flight test are consistent with the design data released
data that will be available early in the flight to the flight simulator manufacturer:
test program will depend on the airplane
(a) Propulsion;
manufacturer’s flight test program design
(b) Aerodynamics;
and may not be the same in each case. The
(c) Mass properties;
flight test program of the airplane manufac-
(d) Flight controls;
turer should include provisions for genera-
(e) Stability augmentation; and
tion of very early flight test results for
flight simulator validation. (f) Brakes/landing gear.
f. The use of preliminary data is not indefi- i. A qualified test pilot should be used to
nite. The airplane manufacturer’s final data assess handling qualities and performance
should be available within 12 months after evaluations for the qualification of flight
the airplane’s first entry into service or as simulators of new airplane types.
agreed by the NSPM, the simulator sponsor, END INFORMATION
and the airplane manufacturer. When apply-
ing for interim qualification using prelimi- llllllllllllllllllllllll
nary data, the simulator sponsor and the
NSPM should agree on the update program. BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENT
This includes specifying that the final data
9. ENGINEERING SIMULATOR—VALIDATION
update will be installed in the flight simu-
DATA
lator within a period of 12 months following
the final data release, unless special condi- a. When a fully validated simulation (i.e.,
tions exist and a different schedule is accept- validated with flight test results) is modified
able. The flight simulator performance and due to changes to the simulated airplane
handling validation would then be based on configuration, the airplane manufacturer or
data derived from flight tests or from other other acceptable data supplier must coordi-
approved sources. Initial airplane systems nate with the NSPM if they propose to sup-
data should be updated after engineering ply validation data from an ‘‘audited’’ engi-
tests. Final airplane systems data should neering simulator/simulation to selectively
also be used for flight simulator program- supplement flight test data. The NSPM must
ming and validation. be provided an opportunity to audit the engi-
g. Flight simulator avionics should stay neering simulation or the engineering simu-
essentially in step with airplane avionics lator used to generate the validation data.
(hardware and software) updates. The per- Validation data from an audited engineering
mitted time lapse between airplane and simulation may be used for changes that are
flight simulator updates should be minimal. incremental in nature. Manufacturers or
It may depend on the magnitude of the up- other data suppliers must be able to dem-
date and whether the QTG and pilot training onstrate that the predicted changes in air-
and certification are affected. Differences in craft performance are based on acceptable
airplane and flight simulator avionics aeronautical principles with proven success
112
history and valid outcomes. This must in- (4) Use a configuration control system cov-
clude comparisons of predicted and flight ering hardware and software for the oper-
test validated data. ating components of the engineering simu-
b. Airplane manufacturers or other accept- lator/simulation.
able data suppliers seeking to use an engi- (5) Demonstrate that the predicted effects
neering simulator for simulation validation of the change(s) are within the provisions of
data as an alternative to flight-test derived sub-paragraph ‘‘a’’ of this section, and con-
validation data, must contact the NSPM and firm that additional flight test data are not
provide the following: required.
(1) A description of the proposed aircraft d. Additional Requirements for Validation
changes, a description of the proposed sim- Data
ulation model changes, and the use of an in- (1) When used to provide validation data,
tegral configuration management process, an engineering simulator must meet the sim-
including a description of the actual simula- ulator standards currently applicable to
tion model modifications that includes a training simulators except for the data pack-
step-by-step description leading from the age.
original model(s) to the current model(s). (2) The data package used must be:
(2) A schedule for review by the NSPM of
(a) Comprised of the engineering pre-
the proposed plan and the subsequent valida-
dictions derived from the airplane design, de-
tion data to establish acceptability of the
velopment, or certification process;
proposal.
(b) Based on acceptable aeronautical prin-
(3) Validation data from an audited engi-
ciples with proven success history and valid
neering simulator/simulation to supplement
outcomes for aerodynamics, engine oper-
specific segments of the flight test data.
c. To be qualified to supply engineering ations, avionics operations, flight control ap-
simulator validation data, for aerodynamic, plications, or ground handling;
engine, flight control, or ground handling (c) Verified with existing flight-test data;
models, an airplane manufacturer or other and
acceptable data supplier must: (d) Applicable to the configuration of a
(1) Be able to verify their ability able to: production airplane, as opposed to a flight-
(a) Develop and implement high fidelity test airplane.
simulation models; and (3) Where engineering simulator data are
(b) Predict the handling and performance used as part of a QTG, an essential match
characteristics of an airplane with sufficient must exist between the training simulator
accuracy to avoid additional flight test ac- and the validation data.
tivities for those handling and performance (4) Training flight simulator(s) using these
characteristics. baseline and modified simulation models
(2) Have an engineering simulator that: must be qualified to at least internationally
(a) Is a physical entity, complete with a recognized standards, such as contained in
flight deck representative of the simulated the ICAO Document 9625, the ‘‘Manual of Cri-
class of airplane; teria for the Qualification of Flight Simula-
(b) Has controls sufficient for manual tors.’’
flight;
(c) Has models that run in an integrated END QPS REQUIREMENT
manner; llllllllllllllllllllllll
(d) Has fully flight-test validated simula-
tion models as the original or baseline sim- 10. [RESERVED]
ulation models;
(e) Has an out-of-the-flight deck visual sys- 11. VALIDATION TEST TOLERANCES
tem; llllllllllllllllllllllll
(f) Has actual avionics boxes interchange-
able with the equivalent software simula- BEGIN INFORMATION
tions to support validation of released soft-
ware; a. Non-Flight-Test Tolerances
(g) Uses the same models as released to the (1) If engineering simulator data or other
training community (which are also used to non-flight-test data are used as an allowable
produce stand-alone proof-of-match and form of reference validation data for the ob-
checkout documents); jective tests listed in Table A2A of this at-
(h) Is used to support airplane development tachment, the data provider must supply a
and certification; and well-documented mathematical model and
(i) Has been found to be a high fidelity rep- testing procedure that enables a replication
resentation of the airplane by the manufac- of the engineering simulation results within
turer’s pilots (or other acceptable data sup- 40% of the corresponding flight test toler-
plier), certificate holders, and the NSPM. ances.
(3) Use the engineering simulator/simula- b. Background

tion to produce a representative set of inte- (1) The tolerances listed in Table A2A of
grated proof-of-match cases. this attachment are designed to measure the
113
quality of the match using flight-test data as ance material from the airplane validation
a reference. data supplier recommending the best pos-
(2) Good engineering judgment should be sible sources of data to be used as validation
applied to all tolerances in any test. A test data in the QTG. A VDR is of special value
is failed when the results clearly fall outside when requesting interim qualification, quali-
of the prescribed tolerance(s). fication of simulators for airplanes certifi-
(3) Engineering simulator data are accept- cated prior to 1992, and qualification of alter-
able because the same simulation models nate engine or avionics fits. A sponsor seek-
used to produce the reference data are also ing to have a device qualified in accordance
used to test the flight training simulator with the standards contained in this QPS ap-
(i.e., the two sets of results should be ‘‘es- pendix should submit a VDR to the NSPM as
sentially’’ similar). early as possible in the planning stages. The
(4) The results from the two sources may NSPM is the final authority to approve the
differ for the following reasons: data to be used as validation material for the
(a) Hardware (avionics units and flight QTG.
controls); b. The VDR should identify (in matrix for-
(b) Iteration rates; mat) sources of data for all required tests. It
(c) Execution order; should also provide guidance regarding the
(d) Integration methods; validity of these data for a specific engine
(e) Processor architecture; type, thrust rating configuration, and the re-
(f) Digital drift, including: vision levels of all avionics affecting air-
(i) Interpolation methods; plane handling qualities and performance.
(ii) Data handling differences; and The VDR should include rationale or expla-
(iii) Auto-test trim tolerances. nation in cases where data or parameters are
(5) The tolerance limit between the ref- missing, engineering simulation data are to
erence data and the flight simulator results be used, flight test methods require expla-
is generally 40 percent of the corresponding nation, or there is any deviation from data
‘flight-test’ tolerances. However, there may requirements. Additionally, the document
be cases where the simulator models used are should refer to other appropriate sources of
of higher fidelity, or the manner in which validation data (e.g., sound and vibration
they are cascaded in the integrated testing data documents).
loop have the effect of a higher fidelity, than c. The Sample Validation Data Roadmap
those supplied by the data provider. Under (VDR) for airplanes, shown in Table A2C, de-
these circumstances, it is possible that an picts a generic roadmap matrix identifying
error greater than 40 percent may be gen- sources of validation data for an abbreviated
erated. An error greater than 40 percent may list of tests. This document is merely a sam-
be acceptable if simulator sponsor can pro- ple and does not provide actual data. A com-
vide an adequate explanation. plete matrix should address all test condi-
(6) Guidelines are needed for the applications and provide actual data and data
tion of tolerances to engineering-simulator- sources.
generated validation data because: d. Two examples of rationale pages are pre-
(a) Flight-test data are often not available sented in Appendix F of the IATA ‘‘Flight
due to technical reasons; Simulator Design and Performance Data Re-
(b) Alternative technical solutions are quirements.’’ These illustrate the type of
being advanced; and airplane and avionics configuration informa-
(c) High costs. tion and descriptive engineering rationale
used to describe data anomalies or provide
12. VALIDATION DATA ROADMAP an acceptable basis for using alternative
a. Airplane manufacturers or other data data for QTG validation requirements.
suppliers should supply a validation data
END INFORMATION
roadmap (VDR) document as part of the data
package. A VDR document contains guid- llllllllllllllllllllllll
114
115
ER09MY08.002</GPH>
BEGIN INFORMATION stability and control flight instrumentation
package, then the conditions described in
Table A2D in this section should be obtained
13. ACCEPTANCE GUIDELINES FOR ALTERNATIVE from flight testing and presented in the
ENGINES DATA. QTG. Flight test data, other than throttle
calibration data, are not required if the new
a. Background thrust rating is certified on the airplane
(1) For a new airplane type, the majority of without need for a comprehensive stability
flight validation data are collected on the and control flight instrumentation package.
first airplane configuration with a ‘‘base- (6) As a supplement to the engine-specific
line’’ engine type. These data are then used flight tests listed in Table A2D and baseline
to validate all flight simulators representing engine-independent tests, additional engine-
that airplane type. specific engineering validation data should
(2) Additional flight test validation data be provided in the QTG, as appropriate, to fa-
may be needed for flight simulators rep- cilitate running the entire QTG with the al-
resenting an airplane with engines of a dif- ternate engine configuration. The sponsor
ferent type than the baseline, or for engines and the NSPM should agree in advance on
with thrust rating that is different from pre- the specific validation tests to be supported
viously validated configurations. by engineering simulation data.
(3) When a flight simulator with alternate (7) A matrix or VDR should be provided
engines is to be qualified, the QTG should with the QTG indicating the appropriate val-
contain tests against flight test validation idation data source for each test.
data for selected cases where engine dif- (8) The flight test conditions in Table A2D
ferences are expected to be significant. are appropriate and should be sufficient to
b. Approval Guidelines For Validating validate implementation of alternate en-
Alternate Engine Applications gines in a flight simulator.
(1) The following guidelines apply to flight END INFORMATION

simulators representing airplanes with alter-
nate engine applications or with more than llllllllllllllllllllllll
one engine type or thrust rating.
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENT
(2) Validation tests can be segmented into
two groups, those that are dependent on en- c. Test Requirements
gine type or thrust rating and those that are
not. (1) The QTG must contain selected engine-
(3) For tests that are independent of engine specific flight test data sufficient to validate
type or thrust rating, the QTG can be based the alternative thrust level when:
on validation data from any engine applica- (a) the engine type is the same, but the
tion. Tests in this category should be des- thrust rating exceeds that of a previously
ignated as independent of engine type or flight-test validated configuration by five
thrust rating. percent (5%) or more; or
(4) For tests that are affected by engine (b) the engine type is the same, but the
type, the QTG should contain selected en- thrust rating is less than the lowest pre-
gine-specific flight test data sufficient to viously flight-test validated rating by fifteen
validate that particular airplane-engine con- percent (15%) or more. See Table A2D for a
figuration. These effects may be due to en- list of acceptable tests.
gine dynamic characteristics, thrust levels (2) Flight test data is not required if the
or engine-related airplane configuration thrust increase is greater than 5%, but flight
changes. This category is primarily charac-
tests have confirmed that the thrust in-
terized by variations between different en-
crease does not change the airplane’s flight
gine manufacturers’ products, but also in-
characteristics.
cludes differences due to significant engine
design changes from a previously flight-vali- (3) Throttle calibration data (i.e., com-
dated configuration within a single engine manded power setting parameter versus
type. See Table A2D, Alternate Engine Vali- throttle position) must be provided to vali-
dation Flight Tests in this section for a list date all alternate engine types and engine
of acceptable tests. thrust ratings that are higher or lower than
(5) Alternate engine validation data should a previously validated engine. Data from a
be based on flight test data, except as noted test airplane or engineering test bench with
in sub-paragraphs 13.c.(1) and (2), or where the correct engine controller (both hardware
other data are specifically allowed (e.g., en- and software) are required.
gineering simulator/simulation data). If cer-
END QPS REQUIREMENT
tification of the flight characteristics of the
airplane with a new thrust rating (regardless llllllllllllllllllllllll

of percentage change) does require certifi-
cation flight testing with a comprehensive BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENT
116
TABLE A2D—ALTERNATIVE ENGINE VALIDATION FLIGHT TESTS

Alternative Alternative
Entry No. Test description engine type thrust rating 2
1.b.1., 1.b.4. ...................... Normal take-off/ground acceleration time and distance X X
1.b.2. ................................. Vmcg, if performed for airplane certification X X
1.b.5. ................................. Engine-out take-off Either test

1.b.8. ................................. Dynamic engine failure after take-off. may be X
performed.
1.b.7. ................................. Rejected take-off if performed for airplane certification X

1.d.1. ................................. Cruise performance X
1.f.1., 1.f.2. ........................ Engine acceleration and deceleration X X
2.a.7. ................................. Throttle calibration 1 X X
2.c.1. ................................. Power change dynamics (acceleration) X X
2.d.1. ................................. Vmca if performed for airplane certification X X
2.d.5. ................................. Engine inoperative trim X X
2.e.1. ................................. Normal landing X
1 Must be provided for all changes in engine type or thrust rating; see paragraph 13.c.(3).
2 See paragraphs 13.c.(1) through 13.c.(3), for a definition of applicable thrust ratings.
END QPS REQUIREMENT sults, and systems that do not. The following
avionics are examples of contributory sys-
tems for which hardware design changes or
BEGIN INFORMATION software revisions may lead to significant
differences in the aircraft response relative
14. ACCEPTANCE GUIDELINES FOR ALTERNATIVE to the baseline avionics configuration:
AVIONICS (FLIGHT-RELATED COMPUTERS AND Flight control computers and controllers for
CONTROLLERS) engines, autopilot, braking system,
nosewheel steering system, and high lift sys-
a. Background
tem. Related avionics such as stall warning
(1) For a new airplane type, the majority of and augmentation systems should also be
flight validation data are collected on the considered.
first airplane configuration with a ‘‘base- (4) The acceptability of validation data
line’’ flight-related avionics ship-set; (see used in the QTG for an alternative avionics
subparagraph b.(2) of this section). These fit should be determined as follows:
data are then used to validate all flight sim- (a) For changes to an avionics system or
ulators representing that airplane type. component that do not affect QTG validation
(2) Additional validation data may be re-
test response, the QTG test can be based on
quired for flight simulators representing an
validation data from the previously vali-
airplane with avionics of a different hard-
dated avionics configuration.
ware design than the baseline, or a different
software revision than previously validated (b) For an avionics change to a contribu-
configurations. tory system, where a specific test is not af-
(3) When a flight simulator with additional fected by the change (e.g., the avionics
or alternate avionics configurations is to be change is a Built In Test Equipment (BITE)
qualified, the QTG should contain tests update or a modification in a different flight
against validation data for selected cases phase), the QTG test can be based on valida-
where avionics differences are expected to be tion data from the previously-validated avi-
significant. onics configuration. The QTG should include
authoritative justification (e.g., from the
b. Approval Guidelines for Validating airplane manufacturer or system supplier)
Alternate Avionics that this avionics change does not affect the
(1) The following guidelines apply to flight test.
simulators representing airplanes with a re- (c) For an avionics change to a contribu-
vised avionics configuration, or more than tory system, the QTG may be based on vali-
one avionics configuration. dation data from the previously-validated
(2) The baseline validation data should be avionics configuration if no new
based on flight test data, except where other functionality is added and the impact of the
data are specifically allowed (e.g., engineer- avionics change on the airplane response is
ing flight simulator data). small and based on acceptable aeronautical
(3) The airplane avionics can be segmented principles with proven success history and
into two groups, systems or components valid outcomes. This should be supplemented
whose functional behavior contributes to the with avionics-specific validation data from
aircraft response presented in the QTG re- the airplane manufacturer’s engineering
117
simulation, generated with the revised avi- f. Introduced transport delay is measured
onics configuration. The QTG should also in- from the flight deck control input to the re-
clude an explanation of the nature of the action of the instruments and motion and
change and its effect on the airplane re- visual systems (See Figure A2C).
sponse. g. The control input may also be intro-
(d) For an avionics change to a contribu- duced after the airplane controller system
tory system that significantly affects some and the introduced transport delay measured
tests in the QTG or where new functionality directly from the control input to the reac-
is added, the QTG should be based on validation of the instruments, and simulator mo-
tion data from the previously validated avi- tion and visual systems (See Figure A2D).
onics configuration and supplemental avi- h. Figure A2E illustrates the transport
onics-specific flight test data sufficient to delay testing method used on a flight simu-
validate the alternate avionics revision. Ad- lator that uses a software emulated airplane
ditional flight test validation data may not controller system.
be needed if the avionics changes were cer- i. It is not possible to measure the intro-
tified without the need for testing with a duced transport delay using the simulated
comprehensive flight instrumentation pack- airplane controller system architecture for
age. The airplane manufacturer should co- the pitch, roll and yaw axes. Therefore, the
ordinate flight simulator data requirements, signal should be measured directly from the
in advance with the NSPM. pilot controller. The flight simulator manu-
(5) A matrix or ‘‘roadmap’’ should be pro- facturer should measure the total transport
vided with the QTG indicating the appro- delay and subtract the inherent delay of the
priate validation data source for each test. actual airplane components because the real
The roadmap should include identification of airplane controller system has an inherent
the revision state of those contributory avi- delay provided by the airplane manufacturer.
onics systems that could affect specific test The flight simulator manufacturer should
responses if changed. ensure that the introduced delay does not ex-
ceed the standards prescribed in Table A1A.
15. TRANSPORT DELAY TESTING j. Special measurements for instrument
a. This paragraph explains how to deter- signals for flight simulators using a real air-
mine the introduced transport delay through plane instrument display system instead of a
the flight simulator system so that it does simulated or re-hosted display. For flight in-
not exceed a specific time delay. The trans- strument systems, the total transport delay
port delay should be measured from control should be measured and the inherent delay of
inputs through the interface, through each the actual airplane components subtracted
of the host computer modules and back to ensure that the introduced delay does not
through the interface to motion, flight in- exceed the standards prescribed in Table
strument, and visual systems. The transport A1A.
delay should not exceed the maximum allow- (1) Figure A2FA illustrates the transport
able interval. delay procedure without airplane display
b. Four specific examples of transport simulation. The introduced delay consists of
delay are: the delay between the control movement and
(1) Simulation of classic non-computer the instrument change on the data bus.
controlled aircraft; (2) Figure A2FB illustrates the modified
(2) Simulation of computer controlled air- testing method required to measure intro-
craft using real airplane black boxes; duced delay due to software avionics or re-
(3) Simulation of computer controlled air- hosted instruments. The total simulated in-
craft using software emulation of airplane strument transport delay is measured and
boxes; the airplane delay should be subtracted from
(4) Simulation using software avionics or this total. This difference represents the in-
re-hosted instruments. troduced delay and should not exceed the
c. Figure A2C illustrates the total trans- standards prescribed in Table A1A. The in-
port delay for a non-computer-controlled air- herent delay of the airplane between the
plane or the classic transport delay test. data bus and the displays is indicated in fig-
Since there are no airplane-induced delays ure A2FA. The display manufacturer should
for this case, the total transport delay is provide this delay time.
equivalent to the introduced delay. k. Recorded signals. The signals recorded
d. Figure A2D illustrates the transport to conduct the transport delay calculations
delay testing method using the real airplane should be explained on a schematic block
controller system. diagram. The flight simulator manufacturer
e. To obtain the induced transport delay should also provide an explanation of why
for the motion, instrument and visual signal, each signal was selected and how they relate
the delay induced by the airplane controller to the above descriptions.
should be subtracted from the total trans- l. Interpretation of results. Flight simu-
port delay. This difference represents the in- lator results vary over time from test to test
troduced delay and should not exceed the due to ‘‘sampling uncertainty.’’ All flight
standards prescribed in Table A1A. simulators run at a specific rate where all
118
modules are executed sequentially in the system do not run at the same iteration rate,
host computer. The flight controls input can so the output of the host computer to the
occur at any time in the iteration, but these visual system will not always be syn-
data will not be processed before the start of chronized.
the new iteration. For example, a flight sim- m. The transport delay test should account
ulator running at 60 Hz may have a dif- for both daylight and night modes of oper-
ference of as much as 16.67 msec between test ation of the visual system. In both cases, the
results. This does not mean that the test has tolerances prescribed in Table A1A must be
failed. Instead, the difference is attributed to met and the motion response should occur
variations in input processing. In some con- before the end of the first video scan con-
ditions, the host simulator and the visual taining new information.
119
120
ER09MY08.003</GPH>
llllllllllllllllllllllll pared to the results in the MQTG for accept-

ance. The flight simulator operator and the
BEGIN INFORMATION NSPM should look for any change in the
flight simulator performance since initial
16. CONTINUING QUALIFICATION EVALUATIONS—
qualification.
VALIDATION TEST DATA PRESENTATION
b. Continuing Qualification Evaluation Test
a. Background
Results Presentation
(1) The MQTG is created during the initial
(1) Flight simulator operators are encour-
evaluation of a flight simulator. This is the
aged to over-plot continuing qualification
master document, as amended, to which
flight simulator continuing qualification validation test results with MQTG flight
evaluation test results are compared. simulator results recorded during the initial
evaluation and as amended. Any change in a
(2) The currently accepted method of pre-
senting continuing qualification evaluation validation test will be readily apparent. In
test results is to provide flight simulator re- addition to plotting continuing qualification
sults over-plotted with reference data. Test validation test and MQTG results, operators
results are carefully reviewed to determine if may elect to plot reference data as well.
the test is within the specified tolerances. (2) There are no suggested tolerances be-
This can be a time consuming process, par- tween flight simulator continuing qualifica-
ticularly when reference data exhibits rapid tion and MQTG validation test results. In-
variations or an apparent anomaly requiring vestigation of any discrepancy between the
engineering judgment in the application of MQTG and continuing qualification flight
the tolerances. In these cases, the solution is simulator performance is left to the discre-
to compare the results to the MQTG. The tion of the flight simulator operator and the
continuing qualification results are com- NSPM.
121
ER09MY08.004</GPH>
(3) Differences between the two sets of re- (2) The sponsor should coordinate with the
sults, other than variations attributable to NSPM prior to using alternative data
repeatability issues that cannot be ex- sources in a flight test or data gathering ef-
plained, should be investigated. fort.
(4) The flight simulator should retain the e. The NSPM position regarding the use of
ability to over-plot both automatic and man- these alternative data sources, procedures,
ual validation test results with reference and instrumentation is based on the fol-
data. lowing presumptions:
(1) Data gathered through the alternative
END INFORMATION means does not require angle of attack
llllllllllllllllllllllll (AOA) measurements or control surface posi-
tion measurements for any flight test. How-
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS ever, AOA can be sufficiently derived if the
flight test program ensures the collection of
17. ALTERNATIVE DATA SOURCES, PROCE- acceptable level, unaccelerated, trimmed
DURES, AND INSTRUMENTATION: LEVEL A AND flight data. All of the simulator time history
LEVEL B SIMULATORS ONLY tests that begin in level, unaccelerated, and
trimmed flight, including the three basic
a. Sponsors are not required to use the al-
trim tests and ‘‘fly-by’’ trims, can be a suc-
ternative data sources, procedures, and in-
cessful validation of angle of attack by com-
strumentation. However, a sponsor may
parison with flight test pitch angle. (Note:
choose to use one or more of the alternative
Due to the criticality of angle of attack in
sources, procedures, and instrumentation de-
the development of the ground effects model,
scribed in Table A2E.
particularly critical for normal landings and
END QPS REQUIREMENTS landings involving cross-control input appli-
cable to Level B simulators, stable ‘‘fly-by’’
llllllllllllllllllllllll trim data will be the acceptable norm for
normal and cross-control input landing ob-
BEGIN INFORMATION jective data for these applications.)
b. It has become standard practice for ex- (2) The use of a rigorously defined and fully
perienced simulator manufacturers to use mature simulation controls system model
modeling techniques to establish data bases that includes accurate gearing and cable
for new simulator configurations while stretch characteristics (where applicable),
awaiting the availability of actual flight test determined from actual aircraft measure-
data. The data generated from the aero- ments. Such a model does not require con-
dynamic modeling techniques is then com- trol surface position measurements in the
pared to the flight test data when it becomes flight test objective data in these limited ap-
available. The results of such comparisons plications.
have become increasingly consistent, indi- f. The sponsor is urged to contact the
cating that these techniques, applied with NSPM for clarification of any issue regard-
the appropriate experience, are dependable ing airplanes with reversible control sys-
and accurate for the development of aero- tems. Table A2E is not applicable to Com-
dynamic models for use in Level A and Level puter Controlled Aircraft FFSs.
B simulators. g. Utilization of these alternate data
c. Based on this history of successful com- sources, procedures, and instrumentation
parisons, the NSPM has concluded that those (Table A2E) does not relieve the sponsor
who are experienced in the development of from compliance with the balance of the in-
aerodynamic models may use modeling tech- formation contained in this document rel-
niques to alter the method for acquiring ative to Level A or Level B FFSs.
flight test data for Level A or Level B sim- h. The term ‘‘inertial measurement sys-
ulators. tem’’ is used in the following table to include
d. The information in Table A2E (Alter- the use of a functional global positioning
native Data Sources, Procedures, and Instru- system (GPS).
mentation) is presented to describe an ac- i. Synchronized video for the use of alter-
ceptable alternative to data sources for sim- native data sources, procedures, and instru-
ulator modeling and validation and an ac- mentation should have:
ceptable alternative to the procedures and (1) Sufficient resolution to allow mag-
instrumentation traditionally used to gather nification of the display to make appropriate
such modeling and validation data. measurement and comparisons; and
(1) Alternative data sources that may be (2) Sufficient size and incremental mark-
used for part or all of a data requirement are ing to allow similar measurement and com-
the Airplane Maintenance Manual, the Air- parison. The detail provided by the video
plane Flight Manual (AFM), Airplane Design should provide sufficient clarity and accu-
Data, the Type Inspection Report (TIR), Cer- racy to measure the necessary parameter(s)
tification Data or acceptable supplemental to at least 1⁄2 of the tolerance authorized for
flight test data. the specific test being conducted and allow
122
an integration of the parameter(s) in ques- END INFORMATION
tion to obtain a rate of change.
TABLE A2E—ALTERNATIVE DATA SOURCES, PROCEDURES, AND INSTRUMENTATION
QPS REQUIREMENTS Information
The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods described in paragraph
9 of
Appendix A are not used.
Notes
Table of objective tests Sim level Alternative data sources, procedures, and
instrumentation
Test entry number and title A B
1.a.1. Performance. Taxi. Min- X X TIR, AFM, or Design data may be used.
imum Radius turn.
1.a.2. Performance. Taxi Rate X Data may be acquired by using a constant A single procedure may not be
of Turn vs. Nosewheel Steer- tiller position, measured with a pro- adequate for all airplane
ing Angle. tractor or full rudder pedal application steering systems, therefore
for steady state turn, and synchronized appropriate measurement
video of heading indicator. If less than procedures must be devised
full rudder pedal is used, pedal position and proposed for NSPM con-
must be recorded. currence.
1.b.1. Performance. Takeoff. X X Preliminary certification data may be

Ground Acceleration Time used. Data may be acquired by using a
and Distance. stop watch, calibrated airspeed, and
runway markers during a takeoff with
power set before brake release. Power
settings may be hand recorded. If an in-
ertial measurement system is installed,
speed and distance may be derived
from acceleration measurements.
1.b.2. Performance. Takeoff. X X Data may be acquired by using an inertial Rapid throttle reductions at
Minimum Control Speed— measurement system and a syn- speeds near Vmcg may be
ground (Vmcg) using aero- chronized video of calibrated airplane used while recording appro-
dynamic controls only (per ap- instruments and force/position measure- priate parameters. The
plicable airworthiness stand- ments of flight deck controls. nosewheel must be free to
ard) or low speed, engine in- caster, or equivalently freed
operative ground control char- of sideforce generation.
acteristics.
1.b.3. Performance. Takeoff. X X Data may be acquired by using an inertial

Minimum Unstick Speed (Vmu) measurement system and a syn-
or equivalent test to dem- chronized video of calibrated airplane
onstrate early rotation takeoff instruments and the force/position
characteristics. measurements of flight deck controls.
1.b.4. Performance. Takeoff. X X Data may be acquired by using an inertial

Normal Takeoff. measurement system and a syn-
chronized video of calibrated airplane
instruments and force/position measure-
ments of flight deck controls. AOA can
be calculated from pitch attitude and
flight path.
1.b.5. Performance. Takeoff. X X Data may be acquired by using an inertial Record airplane dynamic re-
Critical Engine Failure during measurement system and a syn- sponse to engine failure and
Takeoff. chronized video of calibrated airplane control inputs required to cor-
instruments and force/position measure- rect flight path.
ments of flight deck controls.
1.b.6. Performance. Takeoff. X X Data may be acquired by using an inertial The ‘‘1:7 law’’ to 100 feet (30
Crosswind Takeoff. measurement system and a syn- meters) is an acceptable
chronized video of calibrated airplane wind profile.
123
TABLE A2E—ALTERNATIVE DATA SOURCES, PROCEDURES, AND INSTRUMENTATION—Continued

9 of
Notes
instrumentation
1.b.7. Performance. Takeoff. X X Data may be acquired with a syn-

Rejected Takeoff. chronized video of calibrated airplane
instruments, thrust lever position, en-
gine parameters, and distance (e.g.,
runway markers). A stop watch is re-
quired..
1.c. 1. Performance. Climb. Nor- X X Data may be acquired with a syn-

mal Climb all engines oper- chronized video of calibrated airplane
ating.. instruments and engine power through-
out the climb range.
1.c.2. Performance. Climb. One X X Data may be acquired with a syn-

engine Inoperative Climb. chronized video of calibrated airplane
instruments and engine power through-
out the climb range.
1.c.4. Performance. Climb. One X X Data may be acquired with a syn-

Engine Inoperative Approach chronized video of calibrated airplane
Climb (if operations in icing instruments and engine power through-
conditions are authorized). out the climb range.
1.d.1. Cruise/Descent. Level X X Data may be acquired with a syn-

flight acceleration.. chronized video of calibrated airplane
gine parameters, and elapsed time.
1.d.2. Cruise/Descent. Level X X Data may be acquired with a syn-

flight deceleration.. chronized video of calibrated airplane
1.d.4. Cruise/Descent. Idle de- X X Data may be acquired with a syn-
scent. chronized video of calibrated airplane
1.d.5. Cruise/Descent. Emer- X X Data may be acquired with a syn-

gency Descent. chronized video of calibrated airplane
1.e.1. Performance. Stopping. X X Data may be acquired during landing tests

Deceleration time and dis- using a stop watch, runway markers,
tance, using manual applica- and a synchronized video of calibrated
tion of wheel brakes and no airplane instruments, thrust lever posi-
reverse thrust on a dry run- tion and the pertinent parameters of en-
way. gine power.
1.e.2. Performance. Ground. X X Data may be acquired during landing tests

Deceleration Time and Dis- using a stop watch, runway markers,
tance, using reverse thrust and a synchronized video of calibrated
and no wheel brakes. airplane instruments, thrust lever posi-
tion and pertinent parameters of engine
power.
1.f.1. Performance. Engines. X X Data may be acquired with a syn-

Acceleration. chronized video recording of engine in-
struments and throttle position.
1.f.2. Performance. Engines. X X Data may be acquired with a syn-

Deceleration. chronized video recording of engine in-
struments and throttle position.
124

9 of
Notes
instrumentation
2.a.1.a. Handling Qualities. Stat- X X Surface position data may be acquired For airplanes with reversible
ic Control Checks. Pitch Con- from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor control systems, surface po-
troller Position vs. Force and or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, sig- sition data acquisition should
Surface Position Calibration. nificant column positions (encom- be accomplished with winds
passing significant column position data less than 5 kts.
points), acceptable to the NSPM, using
a control surface protractor on the
ground. Force data may be acquired by
using a hand held force gauge at the
same column position data points.
ic Control Checks. Roll Con- from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor control systems, surface po-
troller Position vs. Force and or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, sig- sition data acquisition should
Surface Position Calibration. nificant wheel positions (encompassing be accomplished with winds
significant wheel position data points), less than 5 kts.
acceptable to the NSPM, using a con-
trol surface protractor on the ground.
Force data may be acquired by using a
hand held force gauge at the same
wheel position data points.
ic Control Checks. Rudder from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor control systems, surface po-
Pedal Position vs. Force and or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, sig- sition data acquisition should
Surface Position Calibration. nificant rudder pedal positions (encom- be accomplished with winds
passing significant rudder pedal position less than 5 kts.
data points), acceptable to the NSPM,
using a control surface protractor on the
ground. Force data may be acquired by
using a hand held force gauge at the
same rudder pedal position data points.
2.a.4. Handling Qualities. Static X X Breakout data may be acquired with a

Control Checks. Nosewheel hand held force gauge. The remainder
Steering Controller Force and of the force to the stops may be cal-
Position. culated if the force gauge and a pro-
tractor are used to measure force after
breakout for at least 25% of the total
displacement capability.
2.a.5. Handling Qualities. Static X X Data may be acquired through the use of
Control Checks. Rudder force pads on the rudder pedals and a
Pedal Steering Calibration. pedal position measurement device, to-
gether with design data for nosewheel
position.
2.a.6. Handling Qualities. Static X X Data may be acquired through calcula-

Control Checks. Pitch Trim In- tions.
dicator vs. Surface Position
Calibration.
2.a.7. Handling qualities. Static X X Data may be acquired by using a syn-

control tests. Pitch trim rate. chronized video of pitch trim indication
and elapsed time through range of trim
indication.
2.a.8. Handling Qualities. Static X X Data may be acquired through the use of
Control tests. Alignment of a temporary throttle quadrant scale to
Flight deck Throttle Lever document throttle position. Use a syn-
Angle vs. Selected engine pa- chronized video to record steady state
rameter. instrument readings or hand-record
steady state engine performance read-

ings.
125

9 of
Notes
instrumentation
2.a.9. Handling qualities. Static X X Use of design or predicted data is accept-

control tests. Brake pedal po- able. Data may be acquired by meas-
sition vs. force and brake sys- uring deflection at ‘‘zero’’ and ‘‘max-
tem pressure calibration. imum’’ and calculating deflections be-
tween the extremes using the airplane
design data curve.
2.c.1. Handling qualities. Longi- X X Data may be acquired by using an inertial

tudinal control tests. Power measurement system and a syn-
change dynamics. chronized video of calibrated airplane
instruments and throttle position.

tudinal control tests. Flap/slat measurement system and a syn-
instruments and flap/slat position.

tudinal control tests. Spoiler/ measurement system and a syn-
speedbrake change dynamics. chronized video of calibrated airplane
instruments and spoiler/speedbrake po-
sition.

tudinal control tests. Gear measurement system and a syn-
instruments and gear position.
2.c.5. Handling qualities. Longi- X X Data may be acquired through use of an

tudinal control tests. Longitu- inertial measurement system and a syn-
dinal trim. chronized video of flight deck controls
position (previously calibrated to show
related surface position) and the engine
instrument readings.
2.c.6. Handling qualities. Longi- X X Data may be acquired through the use of
tudinal control tests. Longitu- an inertial measurement system and a
dinal maneuvering stability synchronized video of calibrated air-
(stick force/g). plane instruments; a temporary, high
resolution bank angle scale affixed to
the attitude indicator; and a wheel and
column force measurement indication.
2.c.7. Handling qualities. Longi- X X Data may be acquired through the use of
tudinal control tests. Longitu- a synchronized video of airplane flight
dinal static stability. instruments and a hand held force
gauge.
2.c.8. Handling qualities. Longi- X X Data may be acquired through a syn- Airspeeds may be cross
tudinal control tests. Stall chronized video recording of a stop checked with those in the
characteristics. watch and calibrated airplane airspeed TIR and AFM.
indicator. Hand-record the flight condi-
tions and airplane configuration.

tudinal control tests. Phugoid measurement system and a syn-
dynamics. chronized video of calibrated airplane
2.c.10. Handling qualities. Lon- X Data may be acquired by using an inertial

gitudinal control tests. Short measurement system and a syn-
period dynamics. chronized video of calibrated airplane

126

9 of
Notes
instrumentation
2.d.1. Handling qualities. Lateral X X Data may be acquired by using an inertial

directional tests. Minimum measurement system and a syn-
control speed, air (Vmca or chronized video of calibrated airplane
Vmci), per applicable airworthi- instruments and force/position measure-
ness standard or Low speed ments of flight deck controls.
engine inoperative handling
characteristics in the air.
2.d.2. Handling qualities. Lateral X X Data may be acquired by using an inertial May be combined with step
directional tests. Roll re- measurement system and a syn- input of flight deck roll con-
sponse (rate). chronized video of calibrated airplane troller test, 2.d.3.
ments of flight deck lateral controls.

directional tests. Roll re- measurement system and a syn-
sponse to flight deck roll con- chronized video of calibrated airplane
troller step input. instruments and force/position measure-
ments of flight deck lateral controls.

directional tests. Spiral sta- measurement system and a syn-
bility. chronized video of calibrated airplane
instruments; force/position measure-
ments of flight deck controls; and a stop
watch.
2.d.5. Handling qualities. Lateral X X Data may be hand recorded in-flight using Trimming during second seg-
directional tests. Engine inop- high resolution scales affixed to trim ment climb is not a certifi-
erative trim. controls that have been calibrated on cation task and should not be
the ground using protractors on the conducted until a safe alti-
control/trim surfaces with winds less tude is reached.
than 5 kts.OR Data may be acquired
during second segment climb (with
proper pilot control input for an engine-
out condition) by using a synchronized
video of calibrated airplane instruments
and force/position measurements of
flight deck controls.

directional tests. Rudder re- measurement system and a syn-
sponse. chronized video of calibrated airplane
ments of rudder pedals.

directional tests. Dutch roll, measurement system and a syn-
(yaw damper OFF). chronized video of calibrated airplane

directional tests. Steady state measurement system and a syn-
sideslip. chronized video of calibrated airplane
Ground track and wind corrected heading
may be used for sideslip angle.
2.e.1. Handling qualities. Land- X Data may be acquired by using an inertial

ings. Normal landing. measurement system and a syn-

127

9 of
Notes
instrumentation

ings. Crosswind landing. measurement system and a syn-

ings. One engine inoperative measurement system and a syn-
landing. chronized video of calibrated airplane
instruments and the force/position
measurements of flight deck controls.
Normal and lateral accelerations may
be recorded in lieu of AOA and sideslip.
2.e.5. Handling qualities. Land- .......... X Data may be acquired by using an inertial
ings. Autopilot landing (if ap- measurement system and a syn-
plicable). chronized video of calibrated airplane
ments of flight deck controls.Normal
and lateral accelerations may be re-
corded in lieu of AOA and sideslip.

ings. All engines operating, measurement system and a syn-
autopilot, go around. chronized video of calibrated airplane
ments of flight deck controls. Normal

ings. One engine inoperative measurement system and a syn-
go around. chronized video of calibrated airplane

ings. Directional control (rud- measurement system and a syn-
der effectiveness with sym- chronized video of calibrated airplane
metric thrust). instruments and force/position measure-

ings. Directional control (rud- measurement system and a syn-
der effectiveness with asym- chronized video of calibrated airplane
metric reverse thrust). instruments and force/position measure-
2.f. Handling qualities. Ground X Data may be acquired by using calibrated

effect. Test to demonstrate airplane instruments, an inertial meas-
ground effect. urement system, and a synchronized
video of calibrated airplane instruments
and force/position measurements of
flight deck controls.
128
END INFORMATION made to that real world airport (e.g., a new
runway, an extended taxiway, a new lighting
system, a runway closure) without a written
ATTACHMENT 3 TO APPENDIX A TO PART 60— extension grant from the NSPM (described in
SIMULATOR SUBJECTIVE EVALUATION paragraph 1.g. of this section), an update to
that airport model must be made in accord-
llllllllllllllllllllllll ance with the following time limits:
(1) For a new airport runway, a runway ex-
tension, a new airport taxiway, a taxiway ex-
1. REQUIREMENTS tension, or a runway/taxiway closure—with-
in 90 days of the opening for use of the new
a. Except for special use airport models, airport runway, runway extension, new air-
described as Class III, all airport models report taxiway, or taxiway extension; or with-
quired by this part must be representations in 90 days of the closure of the runway or
of real-world, operational airports or rep- taxiway.
resentations of fictional airports and must (2) For a new or modified approach light
meet the requirements set out in Tables A3B system—within 45 days of the activation of
or A3C of this attachment, as appropriate. the new or modified approach light system.
b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor (3) For other facility or structural changes
must ensure that navigational aids and all on the airport (e.g., new terminal, relocation
appropriate maps, charts, and other naviga- of Air Traffic Control Tower)—within 180
tional reference material for the fictional days of the opening of the new or changed fa-
airports (and surrounding areas as nec- cility or structure.
essary) are compatible, complete, and accu- g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the
rate with respect to the visual presentation time limit for an update to a visual scene or
of the airport model of this fictional airport. airport model or has an objection to what
An SOC must be submitted that addresses must be updated in the specific airport
navigation aid installation and performance model requirement, the sponsor must pro-
and other criteria (including obstruction vide a written extension request to the
clearance protection) for all instrument ap- NSPM stating the reason for the update
proaches to the fictional airports that are delay and a proposed completion date, or ex-
available in the simulator. The SOC must plain why the update is not necessary (i.e.,
reference and account for information in the why the identified airport change will not
terminal instrument procedures manual and have an impact on flight training, testing, or
the construction and availability of the re- checking). A copy of this request or objec-
quired maps, charts, and other navigational tion must also be sent to the POI/TCPM. The
material. This material must be clearly NSPM will send the official response to the
marked ‘‘for training purposes only.’’ sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM. If
c. When the simulator is being used by an there is an objection, after consultation with
instructor or evaluator for purposes of train- the appropriate POI/TCPM regarding the
ing, checking, or testing under this chapter, training, testing, or checking impact, the
only airport models classified as Class I, NSPM will send the official response to the
Class II, or Class III may be used by the in- sponsor and a copy to the POI/TCPM.
structor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/
definitions of these classifications are found END QPS REQUIREMENTS
in Appendix F of this part. llllllllllllllllllllllll
d. When a person sponsors an FFS main-
tained by a person other than a U.S. certifi- BEGIN INFORMATION
cate holder, the sponsor is accountable for
that FFS originally meeting, and continuing 2. DISCUSSION
to meet, the criteria under which it was a. The subjective tests provide a basis for
originally qualified and the appropriate Part evaluating the capability of the simulator to
60 criteria, including the airport models that perform over a typical utilization period; de-
may be used by instructors or evaluators for termining that the simulator accurately
purposes of training, checking, or testing simulates each required maneuver, proce-
under this chapter. dure, or task; and verifying correct oper-
e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport vis- ation of the simulator controls, instruments,
ual models are required to appear on the and systems. The items listed in the fol-
SOQ, and the method used for keeping in- lowing Tables are for simulator evaluation
structors and evaluators apprised of the air- purposes only. They may not be used to limit
port models that meet Class II or Class III or exceed the authorizations for use of a
requirements on any given simulator is at given level of simulator, as described on the
the option of the sponsor, but the method SOQ, or as approved by the TPAA.
used must be available for review by the b. The tests in Table A3A, Operations
TPAA. Tasks, in this attachment, address pilot

f. When an airport model represents a real functions, including maneuvers and proce-
world airport and a permanent change is dures (called flight tasks), and are divided by
129
flight phases. The performance of these tasks g. The FAA intends to allow the use of
by the NSPM includes an operational exam- Class III airport models when the sponsor
ination of the visual system and special ef- provides the TPAA (or other regulatory au-
fects. There are flight tasks included to ad- thority) an appropriate analysis of the skills,
dress some features of advanced technology knowledge, and abilities (SKAs) necessary
airplanes and innovative training programs. for competent performance of the tasks in
For example, ‘‘high angle-of-attack maneu- which this particular media element is used.
vering’’ is included to provide a required al- The analysis should describe the ability of
ternative to ‘‘approach to stalls’’ for air- the FFS/visual media to provide an adequate
planes employing flight envelope protection environment in which the required SKAs are
functions. satisfactorily performed and learned. The
c. The tests in Table A3A, Operations analysis should also include the specific
Tasks, and Table A3G, Instructor Operating media element, such as the airport model.
Station of this attachment, address the over- Additional sources of information on the
all function and control of the simulator in- conduct of task and capability analysis may
cluding the various simulated environmental be found on the FAA’s Advanced Qualifica-
conditions; simulated airplane system oper- tion Program (AQP) Web site at: http://
ations (normal, abnormal, and emergency); www.faa.gov/educationlresearch/training/aqp/.
visual system displays; and special effects h. The TPAA may accept Class III airport
necessary to meet flight crew training, eval- models without individual observation pro-
uation, or flight experience requirements. vided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an
d. All simulated airplane systems func- acceptable description of the process for de-
tions will be assessed for normal and, where termining the acceptability of a specific air-
appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, port model, outlines the conditions under
abnormal, and emergency operations associ- which such an airport model may be used,
ated with a flight phase will be assessed dur- and adequately describes what restrictions
ing the evaluation of flight tasks or events will be applied to each resulting airport or
within that flight phase. Simulated airplane landing area model. Examples of situations
systems are listed separately under ‘‘Any that may warrant ClasslIII model designa-
Flight Phase’’ to ensure appropriate attention by the TPAA include the following:
tion to systems checks. Operational naviga- (a) Training, testing, or checking on very
tion systems (including inertial navigation low visibility operations, including SMGCS
systems, global positioning systems, or other operations.
long-range systems) and the associated elec- (b) Instrument operations training (includ-
tronic display systems will be evaluated if ing instrument takeoff, departure, arrival,
installed. The NSP pilot will include in his approach, and missed approach training,
report to the TPAA, the effect of the system testing, or checking) using—
operation and any system limitation. (i) A specific model that has been geo-
e. Simulators demonstrating a satisfactory graphically ‘‘moved’’ to a different location
circling approach will be qualified for the and aligned with an instrument procedure
circling approach maneuver and may be ap- for another airport.
proved for such use by the TPAA in the spon- (ii) A model that does not match changes
sor’s FAA-approved flight training program. made at the real-world airport (or landing
To be considered satisfactory, the circling area for helicopters) being modeled.
approach will be flown at maximum gross (iii) A model generated with an ‘‘off-board’’
weight for landing, with minimum visibility or an ‘‘on-board’’ model development tool
for the airplane approach category, and must (by providing proper latitude/longitude ref-
allow proper alignment with a landing run- erence; correct runway or landing area ori-
way at least 90° different from the instru- entation, length, width, marking, and light-
ment approach course while allowing the ing information; and appropriate adjacent
pilot to keep an identifiable portion of the taxiway location) to generate a facsimile of
airport in sight throughout the maneuver a real world airport or landing area.
(reference—14 CFR 91.175(e)). i. Previously qualified simulators with cer-
f. At the request of the TPAA, the NSPM tain early generation Computer Generated
may assess a device to determine if it is ca- Image (CGI) visual systems, are limited by
pable of simulating certain training activi- the capability of the Image Generator or the
ties in a sponsor’s training program, such as display system used. These systems are:
a portion of a Line Oriented Flight Training (1) Early CGI visual systems that are ex-
(LOFT) scenario. Unless directly related to a cepted from the requirement of including
requirement for the qualification level, the runway numbers as a part of the specific
results of such an evaluation would not af- runway marking requirements are:
fect the qualification level of the simulator. (a) Link NVS and DNVS.
However, if the NSPM determines that the (b) Novoview 2500 and 6000.
simulator does not accurately simulate that (c) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and
training activity, the simulator would not be including, VITAL III, but not beyond.
approved for that training activity. (d) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.
130
(2) Early CGI visual systems are excepted generating blue lights. These systems are
from the requirement of including runway not required to have accurate taxi-way edge
numbers unless the runways are used for lighting:
LOFT training sessions. These LOFT airport (a) Redifusion SP1.
models require runway numbers but only for (b) FlightSafety Vital IV.
the specific runway end (one direction) used (c) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT
in the LOFT session. The systems required
(d) XKD displays (even though the XKD
to display runway numbers only for LOFT
image generator is capable of generating
scenes are:
blue colored lights, the display cannot ac-
(a) FlightSafety VITAL IV.
commodate that color).
(b) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.
(c) Link-Miles Image II. END INFORMATION
(3) The following list of previously quali-
fied CGI and display systems are incapable of llllllllllllllllllllllll
131
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TABLE A3C—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS

QPS requirements
Simulator level
Additional airport models beyond minimum required for qualification—Class II airport mod-
Entry No. els A B C D
This table specifies the minimum airport model content and functionality necessary to add airport models to a simulator’s model
library, beyond those necessary for qualification at the stated level, without the necessity of further involvement of the NSPM
or TPAA.
Begin QPS Requirements
1. .................... Airport model management. The following is the minimum airport model management requirements for simula-
tors at Levels A, B, C, and D.
1.a. .......... The direction of strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, run- X X X X
way centerline lights, threshold lights, and touchdown zone lights on the ‘‘in-use’’ runway
must be replicated.
2. .................... Visual feature recognition. The following are the minimum distances at which runway features must be visible
for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D. Distances are measured from runway threshold to an airplane aligned
with the runway on an extended 3° glide-slope in simulated meteorological conditions that recreate the min-
imum distances for visibility. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used
for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing.
2.a. .......... Runway definition, strobe lights, approach lights, and runway edge white lights from 5 sm X X X X
(8 km) from the runway threshold.
2.b. .......... Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) from the runway threshold ..... X X
2.c. .......... Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) from the runway threshold ..... X X
2.d. .......... Runway centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km) from the runway thresh- X X X X
old.
2.e. .......... Threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3 km) from the runway threshold ... X X X X
2.f. ........... Runway markings within range of landing lights for night scenes and as required by the X X X X
surface resolution requirements on day scenes.
2.g. .......... For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade X X X X
into view in a non-distracting manner.
3. .................... Airport model content. The following prescribes the minimum requirements for what must be provided in an air-
port model and identifies other aspects of the airport environment that must correspond with that model for sim-
ulators at Levels A, B, C, and D. The detail must be developed using airport pictures, construction drawings
and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published regulatory material; however, this
does not require that airport models contain details that are beyond the designed capability of the currently
qualified visual system. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for
the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. Only one ‘‘primary’’ taxi route from parking to the
runway end will be required for each ‘‘in-use’’ runway.
3.a. .......... The surface and markings for each ‘‘in-use’’ runway:
3.a.1. Threshold markings .................................................................................................................. X X X X
3.a.2. Runway numbers ...................................................................................................................... X X X X
3.a.3. Touchdown zone markings ....................................................................................................... X X X X
3.a.4. Fixed distance markings ........................................................................................................... X X X X
3.a.5. Edge markings .......................................................................................................................... X X X X
3.a.6. Centerline stripes ...................................................................................................................... X X X X
3.b. .......... The lighting for each ‘‘in-use’’ runway
3.b.1. Threshold lights ........................................................................................................................ X X X X
3.b.2. Edge lights ................................................................................................................................ X X X X
3.b.3. End lights .................................................................................................................................. X X X X

3.b.4. Centerline lights ........................................................................................................................ X X X X
146
TABLE A3C—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS—Continued

QPS requirements
Simulator level
3.b.5. Touchdown zone lights, if appropriate ..................................................................................... X X X X
3.b.6. Leadoff lights, if appropriate ..................................................................................................... X X X X
3.b.7. Appropriate visual landing aid(s) for that runway ..................................................................... X X X X
3.b.8. Appropriate approach lighting system for that runway ............................................................. X X X X
3.c. .......... The taxiway surface and markings associated with each ‘‘in-use’’ runway:
3.c.1. Edge .......................................................................................................................................... X X X X
3.c.2. Centerline .................................................................................................................................. X X X X
3.c.3. Runway hold lines .................................................................................................................... X X X X
3.c.4. ILS critical area markings ......................................................................................................... X X X X
3.d. .......... The taxiway lighting associated with each ‘‘in-use’’ runway:
3.d.1. Edge .......................................................................................................................................... X X
3.d.2. Centerline .................................................................................................................................. X X X X
3.d.3. Runway hold and ILS critical area lights .................................................................................. X X X X
4. .................... Required model correlation with other aspects of the airport environment simulation The
following are the minimum model correlation tests that must be conducted for simulators
at Levels A, B, C, and D.
4.a. .......... The airport model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated X X X X
with operations at the ‘‘in-use’’ runway.
4.b. .......... Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if depicted in the visual scene, must not X X X X
cause distracting or unrealistic effects.
5. .................... Correlation with airplane and associated equipment. The following are the minimum correlation comparisons
that must be made for simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
5.a. ............. Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming ................................................... X X X X
5.b. .......... Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight simulator attitudes ................................... X X X X
5.c. .......... Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings ................................... X X X
5.d. .......... Visual effects for each visible, own-ship, airplane external light(s) ......................................... X X X
6. .................... Scene quality. The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted for simulators at Lev-
els A, B, C, and D.
6.a. .......... Surfaces and textural cues must be free of apparent and distracting quantization (aliasing) X X
6.b. ................. Correct color and realistic textural cues ................................................................................... X X
6.c. ................. Light points free from distracting jitter, smearing or streaking ................................................. X X X X
7. .................... Instructor controls of the following: The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available in
simulators at Levels A, B, C, and D.
7.a. .......... Environmental effects, e.g., cloud base (if used), cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in X X X X
statute miles/kilometers and RVR in feet/meters.
7.b. .......... Airport selection ........................................................................................................................ X X X X
7.c. .......... Airport lighting including variable intensity ............................................................................... X X X X

7.d. .......... Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic .................................................................. X X
147
TABLE A3C—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS—Continued

QPS requirements
Simulator level
End QPS Requirements
Begin Information
8. .................... Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway, but the detail that is pro- X X X X
vided must be correct within the capabilities of the system.
End Information
148
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TABLE A3E—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS

QPS Requirements
Simulator level
Entry No. Sound system
A B C D
The following checks are performed during a normal flight profile with motion system ON.
1. ............... Precipitation .................................................................................................................................... X X
2. ............... Rain removal equipment. ............................................................................................................... X X
3. ............... Significant airplane noises perceptible to the pilot during normal operations ............................... X X
4. ............... Abnormal operations for which there are associated sound cues including, engine malfunc- X X
tions, landing gear/tire malfunctions, tail and engine pod strike and pressurization malfunc-
tion.
5. ............... Sound of a crash when the flight simulator is landed in excess of limitations ............................. X X
155
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TABLE A3G—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS

QPS Requirements
Simulator level
Entry No. Special effects
A B C D
Functions in this table are subject to evaluation only if appropriate for the airplane and/or the system is installed on the specific
simulator.
1. ............... Simulator Power Switch(es) ........................................................................................................... X X X X
2. ............... Airplane conditions
2.a. .... Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading and allocation .......................................................... X X X X
2.b. .... Airplane systems status ................................................................................................................. X X X X
2.c. ..... Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power, push back) .................................................................... X X X X
3. ............... Airports
3.a. .... Number and selection .................................................................................................................... X X X X
3.b. .... Runway selection ........................................................................................................................... X X X X
3.c. ..... Runway surface condition (e.g., rough, smooth, icy, wet) ............................................................ X X
3.d. .... Preset positions (e.g., ramp, gate, #1 for takeoff, takeoff position, over FAF) ............................. X X X X
3.e. .... Lighting controls ............................................................................................................................. X X X X
4. ............... Environmental controls
4.a ..... Visibility (statute miles (kilometers)) .............................................................................................. X X X X
4.b. .... Runway visual range (in feet (meters)) ......................................................................................... X X X X
4.c. ..... Temperature ................................................................................................................................... X X X X
4.d. .... Climate conditions (e.g., ice, snow, rain) ....................................................................................... X X X X
4.e. .... Wind speed and direction .............................................................................................................. X X X X
4.f. ..... Windshear ...................................................................................................................................... X X
4.g. .... Clouds (base and tops) .................................................................................................................. X X X X
5. ............... Airplane system malfunctions (Inserting and deleting malfunctions into the simulator) ............... X X X X
6. ............... Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning
6.a. .... Problem (all) freeze/release ........................................................................................................... X X X X
6.b. .... Position (geographic) freeze/release ............................................................................................. X X X X
6.c. ..... Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases) ........................................................................... X X X X
6.d. .... Ground speed control .................................................................................................................... X X X X
7. ............... Remote IOS ................................................................................................................................... X X X X
8. ............... Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment ................................................................................................ X X X X
9. ............... Motion/Control Loading System
9.a. .... On/off/emergency stop ................................................................................................................... X X X X
10. ............. Observer Seats/Stations. Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system ...................................... X X X X

157
llllllllllllllllllllllll (c) Flight Crew Operating Manuals.
(d) Performance Data for Different Fields.
BEGIN INFORMATION (e) Crew Training Manual.
(f) Normal/Abnormal/Emergency Check-
1. INTRODUCTION
lists.
a. The following is an example test sched- (3) Simulator External Checks.
ule for an Initial/Upgrade evaluation that (a) Appearance and Cleanliness.
covers the majority of the requirements set (b) Stairway/Access Bridge.
out in the Functions and Subjective test re- (c) Emergency Rope Ladders.
quirements. It is not intended that the (d) ‘‘Motion On’’/‘‘Flight in Progress’’
schedule be followed line by line, rather, the Lights.
example should be used as a guide for pre- (4) Simulator Internal Checks.
paring a schedule that is tailored to the air- (a) Cleaning/Disinfecting Towels (for clean-
plane, sponsor, and training task. ing oxygen masks).
b. Functions and subjective tests should be (b) Flight deck Layout (compare with dif-
planned. This information has been orga- ference list).
nized as a reference document with the con- (5) Equipment.
siderations, methods, and evaluation notes (a) Quick Donning Oxygen Masks.
for each individual aspect of the simulator (b) Head Sets.
task presented as an individual item. In this (c) Smoke Goggles.
way the evaluator can design his or her own (d) Sun Visors.
test plan, using the appropriate sections to (e) Escape Rope.
provide guidance on method and evaluation (f) Chart Holders.
criteria. Two aspects should be present in (g) Flashlights.
any test plan structure: (h) Fire Extinguisher (inspection date).
(1) An evaluation of the simulator to deter- (i) Crash Axe.
mine that it replicates the aircraft and per- (j) Gear Pins.
forms reliably for an uninterrupted period
equivalent to the length of a typical training c. Power Supply and APU Start Checks
session. (1) Batteries and Static Inverter.
(2) The simulator should be capable of op- (2) APU Start with Battery.
erating reliably after the use of training de- (3) APU Shutdown using Fire Handle.
vice functions such as repositions or mal- (4) External Power Connection.
functions. (5) APU Start with External Power.
c. A detailed understanding of the training (6) Abnormal APU Start/Operation.
task will naturally lead to a list of objec-
tives that the simulator should meet. This d. Flight deck Checks
list will form the basis of the test plan. Addi-
tionally, once the test plan has been formu- (1) Flight deck Preparation Checks.
lated, the initial conditions and the evalua- (2) FMC Programming.
tion criteria should be established. The eval- (3) Communications and Navigational Aids
uator should consider all factors that may Checks.
have an influence on the characteristics ob- e. Engine Start
served during particular training tasks in
order to make the test plan successful. (1) Before Start Checks.
(2) Battery start with Ground Air Supply
2. EVENTS Unit.
(3) Engine Crossbleed Start.
a. Initial Conditions (4) Normal Engine Start.
(1) Airport. (5) Abnormal Engine Starts.
(2) QNH. (6) Engine Idle Readings.
(3) Temperature. (7) After Start Checks.
(4) Wind/Crosswind.
(5) Zero Fuel Weight /Fuel/Gross Weight f. Taxi Checks
/Center of Gravity. (1) Pushback/Powerback.
(2) Taxi Checks.
b. Initial Checks (3) Ground Handling Check:
(1) Documentation of Simulator. (a) Power required to initiate ground roll.
(a) Simulator Acceptance Test Manuals. (b) Thrust response.
(b) Simulator Approval Test Guide. (c) Nosewheel and Pedal Steering.
(c) Technical Logbook Open Item List. (d) Nosewheel Scuffing.
(d) Daily Functional Pre-flight Check. (e) Perform 180 degree turns.
(2) Documentation of User/Carrier Flight (f) Brakes Response and Differential Brak-
Logs. ing using Normal, Alternate and Emergency.
(a) Simulator Operating/Instructor Man- (g) Brake Systems.

ual. (h) Eye height and fore/aft position.
(b) Difference List (Aircraft/Simulator). (4) Runway Roughness.
158
g. Visual Scene—Ground Assessment. Select 3 (iii) Groundspeed effects.
different airport models and perform the fol- (iv) Engine sounds.
lowing checks with Day, Dusk and Night se- (v) Nosewheel and rudder pedal steering.
lected, as appropriate: (b) During and after rotation, check the
(1) Visual Controls. following:
(a) Daylight, Dusk, Night Scene Controls. (i) Rotation characteristics.
(b) Flight deck ‘‘Daylight’’ ambient light- (ii) Column force during rotation.
ing. (iii) Gear uplock sounds/bumps.
(c) Environment Light Controls. (iv) Effect of slat/flap retraction during
(d) Runway Light Controls. climbout.
(e) Taxiway Light Controls. (6) Crosswind Takeoff (check the fol-
(2) Airport Model Content. lowing):
(a) Ramp area for buildings, gates, (a) Tendency to turn into or out of the
airbridges, maintenance ground equipment, wind.
parked aircraft. (b) Tendency to lift upwind wing as air-
(b) Daylight shadows, night time light speed increases.
pools. (7) Windshear during Takeoff (check the
(c) Taxiways for correct markings, taxi- following):
way/runway, marker boards, CAT I and II/III (a) Controllable during windshear encoun-
hold points, taxiway shape/grass areas, taxi- ter.
way light (positions and colors). (b) Performance adequate when using cor-
(d) Runways for correct markings, lead-off rect techniques.
lights, boards, runway slope, runway light (c) Windshear Indications satisfactory.
positions, and colors, directionality of run- (d) Motion cues satisfactory (particularly
way lights. turbulence).
(e) Airport environment for correct terrain (8) Normal Takeoff with Control Malfunc-
and significant features. tion.
(f) Visual scene quantization (aliasing), (9) Low Visibility T/O (check the fol-
color, and occulting levels. lowing):
(3) Ground Traffic Selection. (a) Visual cues.
(4) Environment Effects. (b) Flying by reference to instruments.
(a) Low cloud scene. (c) SID Guidance on LNAV.
(i) Rain: i. Climb Performance. Select one or several
(A) Runway surface scene. of the following test cases:
(B) Windshield wiper—operation and sound. (1) Normal Climb—Climb while maintain-
(ii) Hail: ing recommended speed profile and note fuel,
(A) Runway surface scene. distance and time.
(B) Windshield wiper—operation and sound. (2) Single Engine Climb—Trim aircraft in a
(b) Lightning/thunder. zero wheel climb at V2.
(c) Snow/ice runway surface scene.
NOTE: Up to 5° bank towards the operating
(d) Fog.
engine(s) is permissible. Climb for 3 minutes
h. Takeoff. Select one or several of the fol-
and note fuel, distance, and time. Increase
lowing test cases:
speed toward en route climb speed and re-
(1) T/O Configuration Warnings.
tract flaps. Climb for 3 minutes and note
(2) Engine Takeoff Readings.
fuel, distance, and time.
(3) Rejected Takeoff (Dry/Wet/Icy Runway)
and check the following: j. Systems Operation During Climb.
(a) Autobrake function. Check normal operation and malfunctions
(b) Anti-skid operation. as appropriate for the following systems:
(c) Motion/visual effects during decelera- (1) Air conditioning/Pressurization/Ven-
tion. tilation.
(d) Record stopping distance (use runway (2) Autoflight.
plot or runway lights remaining). (3) Communications.
Continue taxiing along the runway while (4) Electrical.
applying brakes and check the following: (5) Fuel.
(e) Center line lights alternating red/white (6) Icing Systems.
for 2000 feet/600 meters. (7) Indicating and Recording Systems.
(f) Center line lights all red for 1000 feet/300 (8) Navigation/FMS.
meters. (9) Pneumatics.
(g) Runway end, red stop bars. k. Cruise Checks. Select one or several of
(h) Braking fade effect. the following test cases:
(i) Brake temperature indications. (1) Cruise Performance.
(4) Engine Failure between VI and V2. (2) High Speed/High Altitude Handling
(5) Normal Takeoff: (check the following):
(a) During ground roll check the following: (a) Overspeed warning.
(i) Runway rumble. (b) High Speed buffet.
(ii) Acceleration cues. (c) Aircraft control satisfactory.
159
(d) Envelope limiting functions on Com- (a) Weather radar controls.
puter Controlled Aircraft. (b) Weather radar operation.
Reduce airspeed to below level flight buffet (c) Visual scene corresponds with WXR
onset speed, start a turn, and check the fol- pattern.
lowing: (Fly through storm center, and check the
(e) High Speed buffet increases with G following:)
loading. (d) Aircraft enters cloud.
Reduce throttles to idle and start descent, (e) Aircraft encounters representative tur-
deploy the speedbrake, and check the fol- bulence.
lowing: (f) Rain/hail sound effects evident.
(f) Speedbrake indications. As aircraft leaves storm area, check the fol-
(g) Symmetrical deployment. lowing:
(h) Airframe buffet. (g) Storm effects disappear.
(i) Aircraft response hands off. (6) TCAS (check the following:)
(3) Yaw Damper Operation. Switch off yaw (a) Traffic appears on visual display.
dampers and autopilot. Initiate a Dutch roll (b) Traffic appears on TCAS display(s).
and check the following: As conflicting traffic approaches, take rel-
(a) Aircraft dynamics. evant avoiding action, and check the fol-
(b) Simulator motion effects. lowing:
Switch on yaw dampers, re-initiate a (c) Visual and TCAS system displays.
Dutch roll and check the following: n. Approach and Landing. Select one or sev-
(c) Damped aircraft dynamics. eral of the following test cases while moni-
(4) APU Operation. toring flight control and hydraulic systems
(5) Engine Gravity Feed. for normal operation and with malfunctions
(6) Engine Shutdown and Driftdown Check: selected:
FMC operation Aircraft performance. (1) Flaps/Gear Normal Operation. Check
(7) Engine Relight. the following:
l. Descent. Select one of the following test (a) Time for extension/retraction.
cases: (b) Buffet characteristics.
(1) Normal Descent. Descend while main- (2) Normal Visual Approach and Landing.
taining recommended speed profile and note Fly a normal visual approach and land-
fuel, distance and time. ing—check the following:
(2) Cabin Depressurization/Emergency De- (a) Aircraft handling.
scent. (b) Spoiler operation.
m. Medium Altitude Checks. Select one or (c) Reverse thrust operation.
several of the following test cases: (d) Directional control on the ground.
(1) High Angle of Attack/Stall. Trim the (e) Touchdown cues for main and
aircraft at 1.4 Vs, establish 1 kt/sec 2 decel- nosewheel.
eration rate, and check the following— (f) Visual cues.
(a) System displays/operation satisfactory. (g) Motion cues.
(b) Handling characteristics satisfactory. (h) Sound cues.
(c) Stall and Stick shaker speed. (i) Brake and anti-skid operation.
(d) Buffet characteristics and onset speed. (3) Flaps/Gear Abnormal Operation or with
(e) Envelope limiting functions on Com- hydraulic malfunctions.
puter Controlled Aircraft. (4) Abnormal Wing Flaps/Slats Landing.
Recover to straight and level flight and (5) Manual Landing with Control Malfunc-
check the following: tion.
(f) Handling characteristics satisfactory. (a) Aircraft handling.
(2) Turning Flight. Roll aircraft to left, es- (b) Radio aids and instruments.
tablish a 30° to 45° bank angle, and check the (c) Airport model content and cues.
following: (d) Motion cues.
(a) Stick force required, satisfactory. (e) Sound cues.
(b) Wheel requirement to maintain bank (6) Non-precision Approach—All Engines
angle. Operating.
(c) Slip ball response, satisfactory. (a) Aircraft handling.
(d) Time to turn 180°. (b) Radio Aids and instruments.
Roll aircraft from 45° bank one way to 45° (c) Airport model content and cues.
bank the opposite direction while maintain- (d) Motion cues.
ing altitude and airspeed—check the fol- (e) Sound cues.
lowing: (7) Circling Approach.
(e) Controllability during maneuver. (a) Aircraft handling.
(3) Degraded flight controls. (c) Radio Aids and instruments.
(4) Holding Procedure (check the fol- (d) Airport model content and cues.
lowing:) (e) Motion cues.
(a) FMC operation. (f) Sound cues.

(b) Autopilot auto thrust performance. (8) Non-precision Approach—One Engine
(5) Storm Selection (check the following:) Inoperative.
160
(a) Aircraft handling. (sm)/8-kilometers (km) out and on the glide
(b) Radio Aids and instruments. slope. Check the following:
(c) Airport model content and cues. (3) Airport model content.
(d) Motion cues. (a) Airfield features.
(e) Sound cues. (b) Approach lights.
(9) One Engine Inoperative Go-around. (c) Runway definition.
(a) Aircraft handling. (d) Runway definition.
(b) Radio Aids and instruments. (e) Runway edge lights and VASI lights.
(c) Airport model content and cues. (f) Strobe lights.
(d) Motion cues. Release flight freeze. Continue flying the
(e) Sound cues. approach with NP engaged. Select flight
(10) CAT I Approach and Landing with raw- freeze when aircraft is 3 sm/5 km out and on
data ILS. the glide slope. Check the following:
(a) Aircraft handling. (4) Airport model Content.
(b) Radio Aids and instruments. (a) Runway centerline light.
(c) Airport model content and cues. (b) Taxiway definition and lights.
(d) Motion cues. Release flight freeze and continue flying
(e) Sound cues. the approach with A/P engaged. Select flight
(11) CAT I Approach and Landing with freeze when aircraft is 2 sm/3 km out and on
Limiting Crosswind. the glide slope. Check the following:
(a) Aircraft handling. (5) Airport model content.
(b) Radio Aids and instruments. (a) Runway threshold lights.
(c) Airport model content and cues. (b) Touchdown zone lights.
(d) Motion cues. At 200 ft radio altitude and still on glide
(e) Sound cues. slope, select Flight Freeze. Check the fol-
(12) CAT I Approach with Windshear. lowing:
Check the following: (6) Airport model content.
(a) Controllable during windshear encoun- (a) Runway markings.
ter. Set the weather to Category I conditions
(b) Performance adequate when using cor- and check the following:
rect techniques. (7) Airport model content.
(c) Windshear indications/warnings. (a) Visual ground segment.
(d) Motion cues (particularly turbulence). Set the weather to Category II conditions,
(13) CAT II Approach and Automatic Go- release Flight Freeze, re-select Flight Freeze
Around. at 100 feet radio altitude, and check the fol-
(14) CAT III Approach and Landing—Sys- lowing:
tem Malfunctions. (8) Airport model content.
(15) CAT III Approach and Landing—1 En- (a) Visual ground segment.
gine Inoperative. Select night/dusk (twilight) conditions and
(16) GPWS evaluation. check the following:
o. Visual Scene—In-Flight Assessment. (9) Airport model content.
Select three (3) different visual models and (a) Runway markings visible within land-
perform the following checks with ‘‘day,’’ ing light lobes.
‘‘dusk,’’ and ‘‘night’’ (as appropriate) se- Set the weather to Category III conditions,
lected. Reposition the aircraft at or below release Flight Freeze, re-select Flight Freeze
2000 feet within 10 nm of the airfield. Fly the at 50 feet radio altitude and check the fol-
aircraft around the airport environment and lowing:
assess control of the visual system and (10) Airport model content.
evaluate the Airport model content as de- (a) Visual ground segment.
scribed below: Set WX to a typical ‘‘missed approach?
(1) Visual Controls. weather condition, release Flight Freeze, re-
(a) Daylight, Dusk, Night Scene Controls. select Flight Freeze at 15 feet radio altitude,
(b) Environment Light Controls. and check the following:
(c) Runway Light Controls. (11) Airport model content.
(d) Taxiway Light Controls. (a) Visual ground segment.
(e) Approach Light Controls. When on the ground, stop the aircraft. Set
(2) Airport model Content. 0 feet RVR, ensure strobe/beacon tights are
(a) Airport environment for correct terrain switched on and check the following:
and significant features. (12) Airport model content.
(b) Runways for correct markings, runway (a) Visual effect of strobe and beacon.
slope, directionality of runway lights. Reposition to final approach, set weather
(c) Visual scene for quantization (aliasing), to ‘‘Clear,’’ continue approach for an auto-
color, and occulting. matic landing, and check the following:
Reposition the aircraft to a long, final ap- (13) Airport model content.
proach for an ‘‘ILS runway.’’ Select flight (a) Visual cues during flare to assess sink
freeze when the aircraft is 5-statute miles rate.
161
(b) Visual cues during flare to assess Depth (b) Parking brake operation satisfactory.
perception. (3) Shutdown Checks.
(c) Flight deck height above ground. q. Crash Function.
After Landing Operations. (1) Gear-up Crash.
(1) After Landing Checks.
(2) Excessive rate of descent Crash.
(2) Taxi back to gate. Check the following:
(a) Visual model satisfactory. (3) Excessive bank angle Crash.
162
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ATTACHMENT 4 TO APPENDIX A TO PART 60—FIGURE A4H [RESERVED]

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ATTACHMENT 5 TO APPENDIX A TO PART 60— b. For simulators without windshear warn-

SIMULATOR QUALIFICATION REQUIREMENTS ing, caution, or guidance hardware in the
FOR WINDSHEAR TRAINING PROGRAM USE original equipment, the SOC must also state
llllllllllllllllllllllll that the simulation of the added hardware
and/or software, including associated flight
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS deck displays and annunciations, replicates
the system(s) installed in the airplane. The
1. APPLICABILITY statement must be accompanied by a block
This attachment applies to all simulators, diagram depicting the input and output sig-
regardless of qualification level, that are nal flow, and comparing the signal flow to
used to satisfy the training requirements of the equipment installed in the airplane.
an FAA-approved low-altitude windshear
flight training program, or any FAA-ap- 3. MODELS
proved training program that addresses The windshear models installed in the sim-
windshear encounters. ulator software used for the qualification
2. STATEMENT OF COMPLIANCE AND CAPABILITY evaluation must do the following:
(SOC) a. Provide cues necessary for recognizing
windshear onset and potential performance
a. The sponsor must submit an SOC con- degradation requiring a pilot to initiate re-
firming that the aerodynamic model is based covery procedures. The cues must include all
on flight test data supplied by the airplane of the following, as appropriate for the por-
manufacturer or other approved data pro- tion of the flight envelope:
vider. The SOC must also confirm that any
(1) Rapid airspeed change of at least ±15
change to environmental wind parameters,
knots (kts).
including variances in those parameters for
windshear conditions, once inserted for com- (2) Stagnation of airspeed during the take-
putation, result in the correct simulated per- off roll.
formance. This statement must also include (3) Rapid vertical speed change of at least
examples of environmental wind parameters ±500 feet per minute (fpm).
(4) Rapid pitch change of at least ±5°.
currently evaluated in the simulator (such

as crosswind takeoffs, crosswind approaches, b. Be adjustable in intensity (or other pa-
and crosswind landings). rameter to achieve an intensity effect) to at
174
ER09MY08.019</GPH>
least two (2) levels so that upon encoun- (4) Indicated or radio altitude.
tering the windshear the pilot may identify (5) Angle of attack.
its presence and apply the recommended pro- (6) Elevator position.
cedures for escape from such a windshear. (7) Engine data (thrust, N1, or throttle po-
(1) If the intensity is lesser, the perform- sition).
ance capability of the simulated airplane in (8) Wind magnitudes (simple windshear
the windshear permits the pilot to maintain model assumed).
a satisfactory flightpath; and b. These recordings must be initiated at
(2) If the intensity is greater, the perform- least 10 seconds prior to the initiation point,
ance capability of the simulated airplane in and continued until recovery is complete or
the windshear does not permit the pilot to ground contact is made.
maintain a satisfactory flightpath (crash).
6. EQUIPMENT INSTALLATION AND OPERATION
Note: The means used to accomplish the
‘‘nonsurvivable’’ scenario of paragraph 3.b.(2) All windshear warning, caution, or guid-
of this attachment, that involve operational ance hardware installed in the simulator
elements of the simulated airplane, must re- must operate as it operates in the airplane.
flect the dispatch limitations of the air- For example, if a rapidly changing wind
plane. speed and/or direction would have caused a
c. Be available for use in the FAA-approved windshear warning in the airplane, the simu-
windshear flight training program. lator must respond equivalently without in-
structor/evaluator intervention.
4. DEMONSTRATIONS
7. QUALIFICATION TEST GUIDE
a. The sponsor must identify one surviv-
able takeoff windshear training model and a. All QTG material must be forwarded to
one survivable approach windshear training the NSPM.
model. The wind components of the surviv- b. A simulator windshear evaluation will
able models must be presented in graphical be scheduled in accordance with normal pro-
format so that all components of the cedures. Continuing qualification evaluation
windshear are shown, including initiation schedules will be used to the maximum ex-
point, variance in magnitude, and time or tent possible.
distance correlations. The simulator must be c. During the on-site evaluation, the eval-
operated at the same gross weight, airplane uator will ask the operator to run the per-
configuration, and initial airspeed during the formance tests and record the results. The
takeoff demonstration (through calm air and results of these on-site tests will be com-
through the first selected survivable pared to those results previously approved
windshear), and at the same gross weight, and placed in the QTG or MQTG, as appro-
airplane configuration, and initial airspeed priate.
during the approach demonstration (through d. QTGs for new (or MQTGs for upgraded)
calm air and through the second selected simulators must contain or reference the in-
survivable windshear). formation described in paragraphs 2, 3, 4, and
b. In each of these four situations, at an 5 of this attachment.
‘‘initiation point’’ (i.e., where windshear
onset is or should be recognized), the rec- END QPS REQUIREMENTS
ommended procedures for windshear recov- llllllllllllllllllllllll
ery are applied and the results are recorded
as specified in paragraph 5 of this attach- BEGIN INFORMATION
ment.
c. These recordings are made without in- 8. SUBJECTIVE EVALUATION
serting programmed random turbulence. The NSPM will fly the simulator in at
Turbulence that results from the windshear least two of the available windshear sce-
model is to be expected, and no attempt may narios to subjectively evaluate simulator
be made to neutralize turbulence from this performance as it encounters the pro-
source. grammed windshear conditions.
d. The definition of the models and the re- a. One scenario will include parameters
sults of the demonstrations of all four?(4) that enable the pilot to maintain a satisfac-
cases described in paragraph 4.a of this at- tory flightpath.
tachment, must be made a part of the b. One scenario will include parameters
MQTG. that will not enable the pilot to maintain a
satisfactory flightpath (crash).
5. RECORDING PARAMETERS c. Other scenarios may be examined at the
a. In each of the four MQTG cases, an elec- NSPM’s discretion.
tronic recording (time history) must be made
9. QUALIFICATION BASIS
of the following parameters:
(1) Indicated or calibrated airspeed. The addition of windshear programming to

(2) Indicated vertical speed. a simulator in order to comply with the
(3) Pitch attitude. qualification for required windshear training
175
does not change the original qualification 2. FFSs also require the installation of a
basis of the simulator. visual system that is capable of providing an
out-of-the-flight-deck view of airport mod-
10. DEMONSTRATION REPEATABILITY els. However, historically these airport mod-
For the purposes of demonstration repeat- els were not routinely evaluated or required
ability, it is recommended that the simu- to meet any standardized criteria. This has
lator be flown by means of the simulator’s led to qualified simulators containing air-
autodrive function (for those simulators that port models being used to meet FAA-ap-
proved training, testing, or checking require-
have autodrive capability) during the dem-
ments with potentially incorrect or inappro-
onstrations.
priate visual references.
END INFORMATION 3. To prevent this from occurring in the fu-
ture, by May 30, 2009, except for the airport
llllllllllllllllllllllll model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the
designated level, each certificate holder
ATTACHMENT 6 TO APPENDIX A TO PART 60— must assure that each airport model used for
FSTD DIRECTIVES APPLICABLE TO AIRPLANE training, testing, or checking under this
FLIGHT SIMULATORS chapter in a qualified FFS meets the defini-
tion of a Class II or Class III airport model
FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICE (FSTD)
as defined in Appendix F of this part.
DIRECTIVE
4. These references describe the require-
FSTD Directive 1. Applicable to all Full ments for visual scene management and the
Flight Simulators (FFS), regardless of the minimum distances from which runway or
original qualification basis and qualification landing area features must be visible for all
date (original or upgrade), having Class II or levels of simulator. The airport model must
Class III airport models available. provide, for each ‘‘in-use runway’’ or ‘‘in-use
Agency: Federal Aviation Administration landing area,’’ runway or landing area sur-
(FAA), DOT. face and markings, runway or landing area
Action: This is a retroactive requirement to lighting, taxiway surface and markings, and
have all Class II or Class III airport models taxiway lighting. Additional requirements
meet current requirements. include correlation of the v airport models
llllllllllllllllllllllll with other aspects of the airport environ-
Summary: Notwithstanding the authoriza- ment, correlation of the aircraft and associ-
tion listed in paragraph 13b in Appendices A ated equipment, scene quality assessment
and C of this part, this FSTD Directive re- features, and the control of these models the
quires each certificate holder to ensure that instructor must be able to exercise.
by May 30, 2009, except for the airport 5. For circling approaches, all require-
model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the ments of this section apply to the runway
designated level, each airport model used by used for the initial approach and to the run-
the certificate holder’s instructors or eval- way of intended landing.
uators for training, checking, or testing 6. The details in these models must be de-
under this chapter in an FFS, meets the defi- veloped using airport pictures, construction
nition of a Class II or Class III airport model drawings and maps, or other similar data, or
as defined in 14CFR part 60. The completion developed in accordance with published regu-
of this requirement will not require a report, latory material. However, this FSTD DIREC-
and the method used for keeping instructors TIVE 1 does not require that airport models
and evaluators apprised of the airport mod- contain details that are beyond the initially
els that meet Class II or Class III require- designed capability of the visual system, as
ments on any given simulator is at the op- currently qualified. The recognized limita-
tion of the certificate holder whose employ- tions to visual systems are as follows:
ees are using the FFS, but the method used a. Visual systems not required to have run-
must be available for review by the TPAA way numbers as a part of the specific runway
for that certificate holder. marking requirements are:
Dates: FSTD Directive 1 becomes effective (1) Link NVS and DNVS.
on May 30, 2008. (2) Novoview 2500 and 6000.
(3) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and
SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS: including, VITAL III, but not beyond.
(4) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.
1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be: b. Visual systems required to display run-
a. Sponsored by a person holding or apply- way numbers only for LOFT scenes are:
ing for an FAA operating certificate under (1) FlightSafety VITAL IV.
Part 119, Part 141, or Part 142, or holding or (2) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.
applying for an FAA-approved training pro- (3) Link-Miles Image II.
gram under Part 63, Appendix C, for flight c. Visual systems not required to have ac-
engineers, and curate taxiway edge lighting are:

b. Evaluated and issued an SOQ for a spe- (1) Redifusion SP1.
cific FSTD level. (2) FlightSafety Vital IV.
176
(3) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT 20636, Atlanta, GA 30320; telephone (404) 474–
(4) XKD displays (even though the XKD 5620; email larry.e.mcdonald@faa.gov.
image generator is capable of generating
blue colored lights, the display cannot ac- SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS
commodate that color). 1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be:
7. A copy of this Directive must be filed in a. Sponsored by a person holding or apply-
the MQTG in the designated FSTD Directive ing for an FAA operating certificate under
Section, and its inclusion must be annotated Part 119, Part 141, or Part 142, or holding or
on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives applying for an FAA-approved training pro-
chart. See Attachment 4, Appendices A gram under Part 63, Appendix C, for flight
through D for a sample MQTG Index of Effec- engineers, and
tive FSTD Directives chart. b. Evaluated and issued a Statement of
Qualification (SOQ) for a specific FSTD
FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICE (FSTD) level.
DIRECTIVE 2. The evaluation criteria contained in this
FSTD Directive 2. Applicable to all air- Directive is intended to address specific
plane Full Flight Simulators (FFS), regard- training tasks that require additional eval-
less of the original qualification basis and uation to ensure adequate FSTD fidelity.
qualification date (original or upgrade), used 3. The requirements described in this Di-
to conduct full stall training, upset recovery rective define additional qualification cri-
training, airborne icing training, and other teria for specific training tasks that are ap-
flight training tasks as described in this Di- plicable only to those FSTDs that will be
rective. utilized to obtain training, testing, or check-
Agency: Federal Aviation Administration ing credit in an FAA approved flight training
(FAA), DOT. program. In order to obtain additional quali-
Action: This is a retroactive requirement fication for the tasks described in this Direc-
for any FSTD being used to obtain training, tive, FSTD sponsors must request additional
testing, or checking credit in an FAA ap- qualification in accordance with § 60.16 and
the requirements of this Directive. FSTDs
proved flight training program for the spe-
that are found to meet the requirements of
cific training maneuvers as defined in this
this Directive will have their Statement of
Directive.
Qualification (SOQ) amended to reflect the
Summary: Notwithstanding the authoriza-
additional training tasks that the FSTD has
tion listed in paragraph 13b in Appendix A of
been qualified to conduct. The additional
this Part, this FSTD Directive requires that
qualification requirements as defined in this
each FSTD sponsor conduct additional sub- Directive are divided into the following
jective and objective testing, conduct re- training tasks:
quired modifications, and apply for addi-
tional FSTD qualification under § 60.16 to a. Section I—Additional Qualification Re-
support continued qualification of the fol- quirements for Full Stall Training Tasks
lowing flight training tasks where training, b. Section II—Additional Qualification Re-
testing, or checking credit is being sought in quirements for Upset Prevention and Re-
a selected FSTD being used in an FAA ap- covery Training Tasks
c. Section III—Additional Qualification Re-
proved flight training program:
quirements for Engine and Airframe Icing
a. Recognition of and Recovery from a Full Training Tasks
Stall d. Section IV—Additional Qualification Re-
b. Upset Prevention and Recovery quirements for Takeoff and Landing in
c. Engine and Airframe Icing Gusting Crosswinds
d. Takeoff and Landing with Gusting Cross- e. Section V—Additional Qualification Re-
winds quirements for Bounced Landing Recovery
e. Recovery from a Bounced Landing Training Tasks
The FSTD sponsor may elect to apply for ad- 4. A copy of this Directive (along with all
ditional qualification for any, all, or none of required Statements of Compliance and ob-
the above defined training tasks for a par- jective test results) must be filed in the
ticular FSTD. After March 12, 2019, any MQTG in the designated FSTD Directive
FSTD used to conduct the above training Section, and its inclusion must be annotated
tasks must be evaluated and issued addi- on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives
tional qualification by the National Simu- chart. See Attachment 4, Appendix A for a
lator Program Manager (NSPM) as defined in sample MQTG Index of Effective FSTD Di-
this Directive. rectives chart.
Dates: FSTD Directive No. 2 becomes effec-
tive on May 31, 2016. SECTION I—EVALUATION REQUIREMENTS FOR
FULL STALL TRAINING TASKS
For Further Information Contact: Larry
McDonald, Air Transportation Division/Na- 1. This section applies to previously quali-

tional Simulator Program Branch, AFS–205, fied Level C and Level D FSTDs being used
Federal Aviation Administration, P.O. Box to obtain credit for stall training maneuvers
177
beyond the first indication of a stall (such as c. Objective testing for characteristic mo-
stall warning system activation, stick shak- tion vibrations (Stall buffet—Table A2A,
er, etc.) in an FAA approved training pro- test 3.f.5) is not required where the FSTD’s
gram. stall buffets have been subjectively evalu-
2. The evaluation requirements in this Di- ated by an SME pilot. For previously
rective are intended to validate FSTD fidel- qualified Level D FSTDs that currently
ity at angles of attack sufficient to identify have objective stall buffet tests in their ap-
the stall, to demonstrate aircraft perform-
proved MQTG, the results of these existing
ance degradation in the stall, and to dem-
tests must be provided to the FAA with the
onstrate recovery techniques from a fully
updated stall and stall buffet models in
stalled flight condition.
3. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD being place.
used to obtain credit for full stall training d. As described in Attachment 7 of this Ap-
maneuvers in an FAA approved training pro- pendix, the FAA may accept a statement
gram must be evaluated and issued addi- of compliance from the data provider
tional qualification in accordance with this which confirms the stall characteristics
Directive and the following sections of Ap- have been subjectively evaluated by an
pendix A of this Part: SME pilot on an engineering simulator or
a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section development simulator that is acceptable
2.m. (High Angle of Attack Modeling) to the FAA. Where this evaluation takes
b. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section place on an engineering or development
3.f. (Stick Pusher System) [where applica- simulator, additional objective ‘‘proof-of-
ble] match’’ testing for all flight conditions as
c. Table A2A, Objective Testing Require- described in tests 2.c.8.a. and 3.f.5.will be
ments, Test 2.a.10 (Stick Pusher Force required to verify the implementation of
Calibration) [where applicable] the stall model and stall buffets on the
d. Table A2A, Objective Testing Require- training FSTD.
ments, Test 2.c.8.a (Stall Characteristics)
e. Table A2A, Objective Testing Require- 5. Where qualification is being sought to
ments, Test 3.f.5 (Characteristic Motion conduct full stall training tasks in accord-
Vibrations—Stall Buffet) [See paragraph 4 ance with this Directive, the FSTD Sponsor
of this section for applicability on pre- must conduct the required evaluations and
viously qualified FSTDs] modifications as prescribed in this Directive
f. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Test- and report compliance to the NSPM in ac-
ing Requirements, Test 5.b.1.b. (High Angle cordance with § 60.23 using the NSP’s stand-
of Attack Maneuvers) ardized FSTD Sponsor Notification Form. At
g. Attachment 7, Additional Simulator Qual- a minimum, this form must be accompanied
ification Requirements for Stall, Upset with the following information:
Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and
a. A description of any modifications to the
Airframe Icing Training Tasks (High Angle
FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary
of Attack Model Evaluation)
to meet the requirements of this Directive.
4. For FSTDs initially qualified before May
b. Statements of Compliance (High Angle of
31, 2016, including FSTDs that are initially
Attack Modeling/Stick Pusher System)—
qualified under the grace period conditions
as defined in § 60.15(c): See Table A1A, Section 2.m., 3.f., and At-
tachment 7
a. Objective testing for stall characteristics
c. Statement of Compliance (SME Pilot
(Table A2A, test 2.c.8.a.) will only be re-
Evaluation)—See Table A1A, Section 2.m.
quired for the (wings level) second segment
climb and approach or landing flight condi- and Attachment 7
tions. In lieu of objective testing for the d. Copies of the required objective test re-
high altitude cruise and turning flight sults as described above in sections 3.c.,
stall conditions, these maneuvers may be 3.d., and 3.e.
subjectively evaluated by a qualified sub- 6. The NSPM will review each submission
ject matter expert (SME) pilot and ad- to determine if the requirements of this Di-
dressed in the required statement of com- rective have been met and respond to the
pliance. FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Addi-
b. Where existing flight test validation data tional NSPM conducted FSTD evaluations
in the FSTD’s Master Qualification Test may be required before the modified FSTD is
Guide (MQTG) is missing required param-
placed into service. This response, along
eters or is otherwise unsuitable to fully
with any noted restrictions, will serve as in-
meet the objective testing requirements of
this Directive, the FAA may accept alter- terim qualification for full stall training
nate sources of validation, including sub- tasks until such time that a permanent
change is made to the Statement of Quali-
jective validation by an SME pilot with di-

rect experience in the stall characteristics fication (SOQ) at the FSTD’s next scheduled
of the aircraft. evaluation.
178
SECTION II—EVALUATION REQUIREMENTS FOR Notification Form. At a minimum, this form
UPSET PREVENTION AND RECOVERY TRAIN- must be accompanied with the following in-
ING TASKS formation:
1. This section applies to previously quali- a. A description of any modifications to the
fied FSTDs being used to obtain training, FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary
testing, or checking credits for upset preven- to meet the requirements of this Directive.
tion and recovery training tasks (UPRT) as b. Statement of Compliance (FSTD Valida-
defined in Appendix A, Table A1A, Section tion Envelope)—See Table A1A, Section
2.n. of this part. Additionally, FSTDs being 2.n. and Attachment 7
used for unusual attitude training maneu- c. A confirmation statement that the modi-
vers that are intended to exceed the param- fied FSTD has been subjectively evaluated
eters of an aircraft upset must also be evalu- by a qualified pilot as described in
ated and qualified for UPRT under this sec- § 60.16(a)(1)(iii).
tion. These parameters include pitch atti- 6. The NSPM will review each submission
tudes greater than 25 degrees nose up; pitch to determine if the requirements of this Di-
attitudes greater than 10 degrees nose down, rective have been met and respond to the
and bank angles greater than 45 degrees. FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Addi-
2. The requirements contained in this sectional NSPM conducted FSTD evaluations
tion are intended to define minimum stand- may be required before the modified FSTD is
ards for evaluating an FSTD for use in upset placed into service. This response, along
prevention and recovery training maneuvers with any noted restrictions, will serve as an
that may exceed an aircraft’s normal flight interim qualification for upset prevention
envelope. These standards include the eval- and recovery training tasks until such time
uation of qualified training maneuvers that a permanent change is made to the
against the FSTD’s validation envelope and Statement of Qualification (SOQ) at the
providing the instructor with minimum feed- FSTD’s next scheduled evaluation.
back tools for the purpose of determining if
a training maneuver is conducted within SECTION III—EVALUATION REQUIREMENTS FOR
FSTD validation limits and the aircraft’s op- ENGINE AND AIRFRAME ICING TRAINING TASKS
erating limits. 1. This section applies to previously quali-
3. This Directive contains additional sub- fied Level C and Level D FSTDs being used
jective testing that exceeds the evaluation to obtain training, testing, or checking cred-
requirements of previously qualified FSTDs. its in maneuvers that demonstrate the ef-
Where aerodynamic modeling data or valida- fects of engine and airframe ice accretion.
tion data is not available or insufficient to 2. The requirements in this section are in-
meet the requirements of this Directive, the tended to supersede and improve upon exist-
NSPM may limit additional qualification to ing Level C and Level D FSTD evaluation re-
certain upset prevention and recovery ma- quirements on the effects of engine and air-
neuvers where adequate data exists. frame icing. The requirements define a min-
4. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD being imum level of fidelity required to adequately
used to obtain training, testing, or checking simulate the aircraft specific aerodynamic
credit for upset prevention and recovery characteristics of an in-flight encounter with
training tasks in an FAA approved flight engine and airframe ice accretion as nec-
training program must be evaluated and essary to accomplish training objectives.
issued additional qualification in accordance 3. This Directive contains additional sub-
with this Directive and the following sec- jective testing that exceeds the evaluation
tions of Appendix A of this part: requirements of previously qualified FSTDs.
a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section Where aerodynamic modeling data is not
2.n. (Upset Prevention and Recovery) available or insufficient to meet the require-
b. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Test- ments of this Directive, the NSPM may limit
ing, Test 5.b.3. (Upset Prevention and Re- qualified engine and airframe icing maneu-
covery Maneuvers) vers where sufficient aerodynamic modeling
c. Attachment 7, Additional Simulator Qual- data exists.
ification Requirements for Stall, Upset 4. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD being
Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and used to conduct training tasks that dem-
Airframe Icing Training Tasks (Upset Pre- onstrate the effects of engine and airframe
vention and Recovery Training Maneuver icing must be evaluated and issued addi-
Evaluation) tional qualification in accordance with this
5. Where qualification is being sought to Directive and the following sections of Ap-
conduct upset prevention and recovery train- pendix A of this part:
ing tasks in accordance with this Directive, a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section
the FSTD Sponsor must conduct the re- 2.j. (Engine and Airframe Icing)
quired evaluations and modifications as pre- b. Attachment 7, Additional Simulator Qual-
scribed in this Directive and report compli- ification Requirements for Stall, Upset
ance to the NSPM in accordance with § 60.23 Prevention and Recovery, and Engine and
using the NSP’s standardized FSTD Sponsor Airframe Icing Training Tasks (Engine and
179
Airframe Icing Evaluation; Paragraphs 1, b. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Test-
2, and 3). Objective demonstration tests of ing Requirements, test 3.a.3 (Takeoff,
engine and airframe icing effects (Attach- Crosswind—Maximum Demonstrated and
ment 2, Table A2A, test 2.i. of this Appen- Gusting Crosswind); and
dix) are not required for previously quali- c. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Test-
fied FSTDs. ing Requirements, test 8.d. (Approach and
5. Where continued qualification is being landing with crosswind—Maximum Dem-
sought to conduct engine and airframe icing onstrated and Gusting Crosswind).
training tasks in accordance with this Direc- 4. Where qualification is being sought to
tive, the FSTD Sponsor must conduct the re- conduct gusting crosswind training tasks in
quired evaluations and modifications as pre- accordance with this Directive, the FSTD
scribed in this Directive and report compli- Sponsor must conduct the required evalua-
ance to the NSPM in accordance with § 60.23 tions and modifications as prescribed in this
using the NSP’s standardized FSTD Sponsor Directive and report compliance to the
Notification Form. At a minimum, this form NSPM in accordance with § 60.23 using the
must be accompanied with the following in- NSP’s standardized FSTD Sponsor Notifica-
formation: tion Form. At a minimum, this form must be
a. A description of any modifications to the accompanied with the following information:
FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary a. A description of any modifications to the
to meet the requirements of this Directive; FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary
b. Statement of Compliance (Ice Accretion to meet the requirements of this Directive.
Model)—See Table A1A, Section 2.j., and
b. Statement of Compliance (Gusting Cross-
Attachment 7; and
wind Profiles)—See Table A1A, Section
c. A confirmation statement that the modi-
2.d.3.
fied FSTD has been subjectively evaluated
c. A confirmation statement that the modi-
by a qualified pilot as described in
§ 60.16(a)(1)(iii). fied FSTD has been subjectively evaluated
by a qualified pilot as described in
6. The NSPM will review each submission § 60.16(a)(1)(iii).
to determine if the requirements of this Di-
rective have been met and respond to the 5. The NSPM will review each submission
FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Addi- to determine if the requirements of this Di-
tional NSPM conducted FSTD evaluations rective have been met and respond to the
may be required before the modified FSTD is FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Addi-
placed into service. This response, along tional NSPM conducted FSTD evaluations
with any noted restrictions, will serve as an may be required before the modified FSTD is
interim update to the FSTD’s Statement of placed into service. This response, along
Qualification (SOQ) until such time that a with any noted restrictions, will serve as an
permanent change is made to the SOQ at the interim qualification for gusting crosswind
FSTD’s next scheduled evaluation. training tasks until such time that a perma-
nent change is made to the Statement of
SECTION IV—EVALUATION REQUIREMENTS FOR Qualification (SOQ) at the FSTD’s next
TAKEOFF AND LANDING IN GUSTING CROSSWIND scheduled evaluation.
1. This section applies to previously quali- SECTION V—EVALUATION REQUIREMENTS FOR
fied FSTDs that will be used to obtain train- BOUNCED LANDING RECOVERY TRAINING TASKS
ing, testing, or checking credits in takeoff
and landing tasks in gusting crosswinds as 1. This section applies to previously quali-
part of an FAA approved training program. fied FSTDs that will be used to obtain train-
The requirements of this Directive are appli- ing, testing, or checking credits in bounced
cable only to those Level B and higher landing recovery as part of an FAA approved
FSTDs that are qualified to conduct takeoff training program. The requirements of this
and landing training tasks. Directive are applicable only to those Level
2. The requirements in this section intro- B and higher FSTDs that are qualified to
duce new minimum simulator requirements conduct takeoff and landing training tasks.
for gusting crosswinds during takeoff and 2. The evaluation requirements in this sec-
landing training tasks as well as additional tion are intended to introduce new evalua-
subjective testing that exceeds the evaluation requirements for bounced landing recov-
tion requirements of previously qualified ery training tasks and contains additional
FSTDs. subjective testing that exceeds the evalua-
3. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD that is tion requirements of previously qualified
used to conduct gusting crosswind takeoff FSTDs.
and landing training tasks must be evalu- 3. After March 12, 2019, any FSTD that is
ated and issued additional qualification in used to conduct bounced landing training
accordance with this Directive and the fol- tasks must be evaluated and issued addi-
lowing sections of Appendix A of this part:
tional qualification in accordance with this

a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section Directive and the following sections of Ap-
2.d.3. (Ground Handling Characteristics); pendix A of this Part:
180
a. Table A1A, General Requirements, Section tion angle-of-attack and recovery. Strict
2.d.2. (Ground Reaction Characteristics) time-history-based evaluations against
b. Table A3A, Functions and Subjective Test- flight test data may not adequately validate
ing Requirements, test 9.e. (Missed Ap- the aerodynamic model in an unsteady and
proach—Bounced Landing) potentially unstable flight regime, such as
4. Where qualification is being sought to stalled flight. As a result, the objective test-
conduct bounced landing training tasks in ing requirements defined in Table A2A do
accordance with this Directive, the FSTD not prescribe strict tolerances on any param-
Sponsor must conduct the required evalua- eter at angles of attack beyond the stall
tions and modifications as prescribed in this identification angle of attack. In lieu of
Directive and report compliance to the mandating such objective tolerances, a
NSPM in accordance with § 60.23 using the Statement of Compliance (SOC) will be re-
NSP’s standardized FSTD Sponsor Notifica- quired to define the source data and methods
tion Form. At a minimum, this form must be used to develop the stall aerodynamic model.
accompanied with the following information: 3. Fidelity Requirements: The require-
ments defined for the evaluation of full stall
a. A description of any modifications to the
training maneuvers are intended to provide
FSTD (in accordance with § 60.23) necessary
the following levels of fidelity:
to meet the requirements of this Directive;
and a. Airplane type specific recognition cues of
b. A confirmation statement that the modi- the first indication of the stall (such as the
fied FSTD has been subjectively evaluated stall warning system or aerodynamic stall
by a qualified pilot as described in buffet);
§ 60.16(a)(1)(iii). b. Airplane type specific recognition cues of
an impending aerodynamic stall; and
5. The NSPM will review each submission
c. Recognition cues and handling qualities
to determine if the requirements of this Di-
from the stall break through recovery that
rective have been met and respond to the
are sufficiently exemplar of the airplane
FSTD Sponsor as described in § 60.23(c). Addi-
being simulated to allow successful com-
tional NSPM conducted FSTD evaluations
pletion of the stall recovery training tasks.
may be required before the modified FSTD is
placed into service. This response, along For the purposes of stall maneuver evalua-
with any noted restrictions, will serve as an tion, the term ‘‘exemplar’’ is defined as a
interim qualification for bounced landing re- level of fidelity that is type specific of the
covery training tasks until such time that a simulated airplane to the extent that the
permanent change is made to the Statement training objectives can be satisfactorily ac-
of Qualification (SOQ) at the FSTD’s next complished.
scheduled evaluation. 4. Statement of Compliance (Aerodynamic
Model): At a minimum, the following must
ATTACHMENT 7 TO APPENDIX A TO PART 60— be addressed in the SOC:
ADDITIONAL SIMULATOR QUALIFICATION RE- a. Source Data and Modeling Methods: The
QUIREMENTS FOR STALL, UPSET PREVENTION SOC must identify the sources of data used
AND RECOVERY, AND ENGINE AND AIRFRAME to develop the aerodynamic model. These
ICING TRAINING TASKS data sources may be from the airplane
original equipment manufacturer (OEM),
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS the original FSTD manufacturer/data pro-
vider, or other data provider acceptable to
A. High Angle of Attack Model Evaluation
the FAA. Of particular interest is a map-
(Table A1A, Section 2.m.)
ping of test points in the form of alpha/
1. Applicability: This attachment applies beta envelope plot for a minimum of flaps
to all simulators that are used to satisfy up and flaps down aircraft configurations.
training requirements for stall maneuvers For the flight test data, a list of the types
that are conducted at angles of attack be- of maneuvers used to define the aero-
yond the activation of the stall warning sys- dynamic model for angle of attack ranges
tem. This attachment is not applicable for greater than the first indication of stall
those FSTDs that are only qualified for ap- must be provided per flap setting. In cases
proach to stall maneuvers where recovery is where it is impractical to develop and vali-
initiated at the first indication of the stall. date a stall model with flight-test data
The material in this section is intended to (e.g., due to safety concerns involving the
supplement the general requirements, objec- collection of flight test data past a certain
tive testing requirements, and subjective angle of attack), the data provider is ex-
testing requirements contained within Ta- pected to make a reasonable attempt to de-
bles A1A, A2A, and A3A, respectively. velop a stall model through the required
2. General Requirements: The require- angle of attack range using analytical
ments for high angle of attack modeling are methods and empirical data (e.g., wind-tun-
intended to evaluate the recognition cues nel data);

and performance and handling qualities of a b. Validity Range: The FSTD sponsor must
developing stall through the stall identifica- declare the range of angle of attack and
181
sideslip where the aerodynamic model re- istics, the SME must meet the following re-
mains valid for training. For stall recovery quirements:
training tasks, satisfactory aerodynamic a. Has held a type rating/qualification in the
model fidelity must be shown through at
aircraft being simulated;
least 10 degrees beyond the stall identifica-
tion angle of attack. For the purposes of b. Has direct experience in conducting stall
determining this validity range, the stall maneuvers in an aircraft that shares the
identification angle of attack is defined as same type rating as the make, model, and
the angle of attack where the pilot is given series of the simulated aircraft. This stall
a clear and distinctive indication to cease experience must include hands on manipu-
any further increase in angle of attack lation of the controls at angles of attack
where one or more of the following charac- sufficient to identify the stall (e.g., deter-
teristics occur: rent buffet, stick pusher activation, etc.)
i. No further increase in pitch occurs when through recovery to stable flight;
the pitch control is held at the full aft stop c. Where the SME’s stall experience is on an
for 2 seconds, leading to an inability to ar- airplane of a different make, model, and
rest descent rate; series within the same type rating, dif-
ii. An uncommanded nose down pitch that ferences in aircraft specific stall recogni-
cannot be readily arrested, which may be tion cues and handling characteristics
accompanied by an uncommanded rolling must be addressed using available docu-
motion; mentation. This documentation may in-
iii. Buffeting of a magnitude and severity clude aircraft operating manuals, aircraft
that is a strong and effective deterrent to manufacturer flight test reports, or other
further increase in angle of attack; and documentation that describes the stall
iv. Activation of a stick pusher. characteristics of the aircraft; and
The model validity range must also be capa- d. Must be familiar with the intended stall
ble of simulating the airplane dynamics as training maneuvers to be conducted in the
a result of a pilot initially resisting the FSTD (e.g., general aircraft configurations,
stick pusher in training. For aircraft stall entry methods, etc.) and the cues nec-
equipped with a stall envelope protection essary to accomplish the required training
system, the model validity range must ex- objectives. The purpose of this requirement
tend to 10 degrees of angle of attack be- is to ensure that the stall model has been
yond the stall identification angle of at- sufficiently evaluated in those general air-
tack with the protection systems disabled craft configurations and stall entry meth-
or otherwise degraded (such as a degraded ods that will likely be conducted in train-
flight control mode as a result of a pitot/ ing.
static system failure).
This SOC will only be required once at the
c. Model Characteristics: Within the declared
range of model validity, the SOC must ad- time the FSTD is initially qualified for stall
dress, and the aerodynamic model must in- training tasks as long as the FSTD’s stall
corporate, the following stall characteris- model remains unmodified from what was
tics where applicable by aircraft type: originally evaluated and qualified. Where an
FSTD shares common aerodynamic and
i. Degradation in static/dynamic lateral-di-
flight control models with that of an engi-
rectional stability;
neering simulator or development simulator
ii. Degradation in control response (pitch,
that is acceptable to the FAA, the FAA will
roll, yaw);
accept an SOC from the data provider that
iii. Uncommanded roll acceleration or roll-
confirms the stall characteristics have been
off requiring significant control deflection
to counter; subjectively assessed by an SME pilot on the
iv. Apparent randomness or non-repeat- engineering or development simulator.
ability; An FSTD sponsor may submit a request to
v. Changes in pitch stability; the Administrator for approval of a devi-
vi. Stall hysteresis; ation from the SME pilot experience require-
vii. Mach effects; ments in this paragraph. This request for de-
viii. Stall buffet; and viation must include the following informa-
ix. Angle of attack rate effects. tion:
An overview of the methodology used to ad- a. An assessment of pilot availability that
dress these features must be provided. demonstrates that a suitably qualified
5. Statement of Compliance (Subject Mat- pilot meeting the experience requirements
ter Expert Pilot Evaluation): The sponsor of this section cannot be practically lo-
must provide an SOC that confirms the cated; and
FSTD has been subjectively evaluated by a b. Alternative methods to subjectively
subject matter expert (SME) pilot who is evaluate the FSTD’s capability to provide
knowledgeable of the aircraft’s stall charac- the stall recognition cues and handling
teristics. In order to qualify as an acceptable characteristics needed to accomplish the
SME to evaluate the FSTD’s stall character- training objectives.
182
B. Upset Prevention and Recovery Training cally by comparing the performance of the
(UPRT) Maneuver Evaluation (Table A1A, FSTD against the flight test data through
Section 2.n.) tests incorporated in the QTG and other
flight test data utilized to further extend
1. Applicability: This attachment applies
the model beyond the minimum require-
to all simulators that are used to satisfy
ments. Within this region, there is high
training requirements for upset prevention
confidence that the simulator responds
and recovery training (UPRT) maneuvers. similarly to the aircraft. Note that this re-
For the purposes of this attachment (as de- gion is not strictly limited to what has
fined in the Airplane Upset Recovery Train- been tested in the QTG; as long as the
ing Aid), an aircraft upset is generally de- aerodynamics mathematical model has
fined as an airplane unintentionally exceed- been conformed to the flight test results,
ing the following parameters normally expe- that portion of the mathematical model
rienced in line operations or training: can be considered to be within the flight
a. Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees test validated region.
nose up; b. Wind tunnel and/or analytical region: This
b. Pitch attitude greater than 10 degrees is the region of the flight envelope for
nose down; which the FSTD has not been compared to
c. Bank angles greater than 45 degrees; and flight test data, but for which there has
d. Within the above parameters, but flying at been wind tunnel testing or the use of
airspeeds inappropriate for the conditions. other reliable predictive methods (typi-
FSTDs that will be used to conduct training cally by the aircraft manufacturer) to de-
maneuvers where the FSTD is either reposi- fine the aerodynamic model. Any exten-
tioned into an aircraft upset condition or an sions to the aerodynamic model that have
artificial stimulus (such as weather phe- been evaluated in accordance with the defi-
nomena or system failures) is applied that is nition of an exemplar stall model (as de-
intended to result in a flightcrew entering an scribed in the stall maneuver evaluation
aircraft upset condition must be evaluated section) must be clearly indicated. Within
and qualified in accordance with this sec- this region, there is moderate confidence
tion. that the simulator will respond similarly
2. General Requirements: The general re- to the aircraft.
quirement for UPRT qualification in Table c. Extrapolated: This is the region extrapo-
A1A defines three basic elements required lated beyond the flight test validated and
for qualifying an FSTD for UPRT maneu- wind tunnel/analytical regions. The ex-
vers: trapolation may be a linear extrapolation,
a holding of the last value before the ex-
a. FSTD Training Envelope: Valid UPRT trapolation began, or some other set of val-
should be conducted within the high and ues. Whether this extrapolated data is pro-
moderate confidence regions of the FSTD vided by the aircraft or simulator manu-
validation envelope as defined in para- facturer, it is a ‘‘best guess’’ only. Within
graph 3 below. this region, there is low confidence that
b. Instructor Feedback: Provides the instruc- the simulator will respond similarly to the
tor/evaluator with a minimum set of feed- aircraft. Brief excursions into this region
back tools to properly evaluate the train- may still retain a moderate confidence
ee’s performance in accomplishing an level in FSTD fidelity; however, the in-
upset recovery training task. structor should be aware that the FSTD’s
c. Upset Scenarios: Where dynamic upset response may deviate from the actual air-
scenarios or aircraft system malfunctions craft.
are used to stimulate the FSTD into an
4. Instructor Feedback Mechanism: For the
aircraft upset condition, specific guidance
instructor/evaluator to provide feedback to
must be available to the instructor on the
the student during UPRT maneuver training,
IOS that describes how the upset scenario
additional information must be accessible
is driven along with any malfunction or
that indicates the fidelity of the simulation,
degradation in FSTD functionality that is the magnitude of trainee’s flight control in-
required to stimulate the upset. puts, and aircraft operational limits that
3. FSTD Validation Envelope: For the pur- could potentially affect the successful com-
poses of this attachment, the term ‘‘flight pletion of the maneuver(s). At a minimum,
envelope’’ refers to the entire domain in the following must be available to the in-
which the FSTD is capable of being flown structor/evaluator:
with a degree of confidence that the FSTD a. FSTD Validation Envelope: The FSTD
responds similarly to the airplane. This en- must employ a method to display the
velope can be further divided into three sub- FSTD’s expected fidelity with respect to
divisions (see Appendix 3–D of the Airplane the FSTD validation envelope. This may be
Upset Recovery Training Aid): displayed as an angle of attack vs sideslip
a. Flight test validated region: This is the (alpha/beta) envelope cross-plot on the In-
region of the flight envelope which has structor Operating System (IOS) or other
been validated with flight test data, typi- alternate method to clearly convey the
183
FSTD’s fidelity level during the maneuver. time and also provided in a time history or
The cross-plot or other alternative method equivalent format. At a minimum, the fol-
must display the relevant validity regions lowing parameters must be available to the
for flaps up and flaps down at a minimum. instructor:
This validation envelope must be derived i. Airspeed and airspeed limits, including the
by the aerodynamic data provider or de- stall speed and maximum operating limit
rived using information and data sources airspeed (Vmo/Mmo);
provided by the original aerodynamic data ii. Load factor and operational load factor
provider. limits; and
b. Flight Control Inputs: The FSTD must iii. Angle of attack and the stall identifica-
employ a method for the instructor/eval- tion angle of attack. See section A, para-
uator to assess the trainee’s flight control graph 4.b. of this attachment for additional
inputs during the upset recovery maneu- information concerning the definition of
ver. Additional parameters, such as cock- the stall identification angle of attack.
pit control forces (forces applied by the This parameter may be displayed in con-
pilot to the controls) and the flight control junction with the FSTD validation enve-
law mode for fly-by-wire aircraft, must be lope.
portrayed in this feedback mechanism as
well. For passive sidesticks, whose dis- END QPS REQUIREMENTS
placement is the flight control input, the
BEGIN INFORMATION
force applied by the pilot to the controls
does not need to be displayed. This tool An example FSTD ‘‘alpha/beta’’ envelope
must include a time history or other equiv- display and IOS feedback mechanism are
alent method of recording flight control shown below in Figure 1 and Figure 2. The
positions. following examples are provided as guidance
c. Aircraft Operational Limits: The FSTD material on one possible method to display
must employ a method to provide the in- the required UPRT feedback parameters on
structor/evaluator with real-time informa- an IOS display. FSTD sponsors may develop
tion concerning the aircraft operating lim- other methods and feedback mechanisms
its. The simulated aircraft’s parameters that provide the required parameters and
must be displayed dynamically in real- support the training program objectives.
184
185
ER30MR16.116</GPH>
END INFORMATION 4. Objective Demonstration Testing: The
purpose of the objective demonstration test
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS is to demonstrate that the ice accretion
C. Engine and Airframe Icing Evaluation (Table models as described in the Statement of
A1A, Section 2.j.) Compliance have been implemented cor-
rectly and demonstrate the proper cues and
1. Applicability: This section applies to all effects as defined in the approved data
FSTDs that are used to satisfy training re- sources. At least one ice accretion model
quirements for engine and airframe icing. must be selected for testing and included in
New general requirements and objective re- the Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG).
quirements for simulator qualification have Two tests are required to demonstrate en-
been developed to define aircraft specific
gine and airframe icing effects. One test will
icing models that support training objectives
demonstrate the FSTDs baseline perform-
for the recognition and recovery from an in-
ance without icing, and the second test will
flight ice accretion event.
demonstrate the aerodynamic effects of ice
2. General Requirements: The qualification
of engine and airframe icing consists of the accretion relative to the baseline test.
following elements that must be considered a. Recorded Parameters: In each of the two
when developing ice accretion models for use required MQTG cases, a time history record-
in training: ing must be made of the following param-
a. Ice accretion models must be developed eters:
to account for training the specific skills re- i. Altitude;
quired for recognition of ice accumulation ii. Airspeed;
and execution of the required response. iii. Normal Acceleration;
b. Ice accretion models must be developed iv. Engine Power/settings;
in a manner to contain aircraft specific rec-
v. Angle of Attack/Pitch attitude;
ognition cues as determined with aircraft
OEM supplied data or other suitable analyt- vi. Bank Angle;
ical methods. vii. Flight control inputs;
c. At least one qualified ice accretion viii. Stall warning and stall buffet onset; and
model must be objectively tested to dem- ix. Other parameters as necessary to dem-
onstrate that the model has been imple- onstrate the effects of ice accretions.
mented correctly and generates the correct b. Demonstration maneuver: The FSTD spon-
cues as necessary for training. sor must select an ice accretion model as
3. Statement of Compliance: The SOC as identified in the SOC for testing. The se-
described in Table A1A, Section 2.j. must lected maneuver must demonstrate the ef-
contain the following information to support
fects of ice accretion at high angles of attack
FSTD qualification of aircraft specific ice
from a trimmed condition through approach
accretion models:
to stall and ‘‘full’’ stall as compared to a
a. A description of expected aircraft spe-
cific recognition cues and degradation ef- baseline (no ice buildup) test. The ice accre-
fects due to a typical in-flight icing encoun- tion models must demonstrate the cues nec-
ter. Typical cues may include loss of lift, de- essary to recognize the onset of ice accretion
crease in stall angle of attack, changes in on the airframe, lifting surfaces, and engines
pitching moment, decrease in control effec- and provide representative degradation in
tiveness, and changes in control forces in ad- performance and handling qualities to the
dition to any overall increase in drag. This extent that a recovery can be executed. Typ-
description must be based upon relevant ical recognition cues that may be present de-
source data, such as aircraft OEM supplied pending upon the simulated aircraft include:
data, accident/incident data, or other accept- i. Decrease in stall angle of attack;
able data sources. Where a particular air- ii. Increase in stall speed;
frame has demonstrated vulnerabilities to a
iii. Increase in stall buffet threshold of per-
specific type of ice accretion (due to acci-
dent/incident history) which requires specific ception speed;
training (such as supercooled large-droplet iv. Changes in pitching moment;
icing or tailplane icing), ice accretion mod- v. Changes in stall buffet characteristics;
els must be developed that address the train- vi. Changes in control effectiveness or con-
ing requirements. trol forces; and
b. A description of the data sources uti- vii. Engine effects (power variation, vibra-
lized to develop the qualified ice accretion tion, etc.);
models. Acceptable data sources may be, but The demonstration test may be conducted by
are not limited to, flight test data, aircraft initializing and maintaining a fixed amount
certification data, aircraft OEM engineering
of ice accretion throughout the maneuver in
simulation data, or other analytical methods

order to consistently evaluate the aero-
based upon established engineering prin-
ciples. dynamic effects.
186
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT Pt. 60, App. B
END QPS REQUIREMENTS 22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and
Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incor-
[Doc. No. FAA–2002–12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, rect Statements (§ 60.33).
2008, as amended by Docket FAA–2014–0391, 23. [Reserved]
Amdt. 60–4, 81 FR 18218, 18219, 18240, 18283, 24. Levels of FTD.
18300, and 18303, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 32016 and 25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bilat-
32066, May 20, 2016; Docket FAA–2018–0119, eral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA)
Amdt. 60–5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 60– (§ 60.37).
6, 83 FR 30275, June 27, 2018] Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 60—Gen-
eral FTD Requirements.
APPENDIX B TO PART 60—QUALIFICATION Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60—
PERFORMANCE STANDARDS FOR AIR- Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective
PLANE FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICES Tests.
Attachment 3 to Appendix B to Part 60—
llllllllllllllllllllllll Flight Training Device (FTD) Subjective
Evaluation.
BEGIN INFORMATION Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—
This appendix establishes the standards for Sample Documents.
Airplane FTD evaluation and qualification END INFORMATION
at Level 4, Level 5, or Level 6. The Flight
Standards Service, NSPM, is responsible for llllllllllllllllllllllll
the development, application, and implemen-
1. INTRODUCTION
tation of the standards contained within this
appendix. The procedures and criteria speci- llllllllllllllllllllllll
fied in this appendix will be used by the
NSPM, or a person or persons assigned by BEGIN INFORMATION
the NSPM when conducting airplane FTD a. This appendix contains background in-
evaluations. formation as well as regulatory and inform-
ative material as described later in this sec-
TABLE OF CONTENTS
tion. To assist the reader in determining
1. Introduction what areas are required and what areas are
2. Applicability (§§ 60.1 and 60.2). permissive, the text in this appendix is di-
3. Definitions (§ 60.3). vided into two sections: ‘‘QPS Require-
4. Qualification Performance Standards ments’’ and ‘‘Information.’’ The QPS Re-
(§ 60.4). quirements sections contain details regard-
5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5). ing compliance with the part 60 rule lan-
6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements guage. These details are regulatory, but are
(§ 60.7). found only in this appendix. The Information
7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor sections contain material that is advisory in
(§ 60.9). nature, and designed to give the user general
8. FTD Use (§ 60.11). information about the regulation.
9. FTD Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13). b. Questions regarding the contents of this
10. Special Equipment and Personnel Re- publication should be sent to the U.S. De-
quirements for Qualification of the FTD partment of Transportation, Federal Avia-
(§ 60.14). tion Administration, Flight Standards Serv-
11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Re- ice, National Simulator Program Staff,
quirements (§ 60.15). AFS–205, P.O. Box 20636, Atlanta, Georgia
12. Additional Qualifications for Currently 30320. Telephone contact numbers for the
Qualified FTDs (§ 60.16). NSP are: Phone, 404–474–5620; fax, 404–474–
13. Previously Qualified FTDs (§ 60.17). 5656. The NSP Internet Web site address is:
14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification http://www.faa.gov/about/initiatives/nsp/. On
Evaluation, and Maintenance Require- this Web site you will find an NSP personnel
ments (§ 60.19). list with telephone and email contact infor-
15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (§ 60.20). mation for each NSP staff member, a list of
16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New qualified flight simulation devices, advisory
Airplane Types or Models (§ 60.21). circulars (ACs), a description of the quali-
17. Modifications to FTDs (§ 60.23). fication process, NSP policy, and an NSP
18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning, ‘‘In-Works’’ section. Also linked from this
or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25). site are additional information sources,
19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Pro- handbook bulletins, frequently asked ques-
cedures for Restoration of Qualification tions, a listing and text of the Federal Avia-
(§ 60.27). tion Regulations, Flight Standards Inspec-
20. Other Losses of Qualification and Proce- tor’s handbooks, and other FAA links.
dures for Restoration of Qualification c. The NSPM encourages the use of elec-
(§ 60.29). tronic media for all communication, includ-
21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31). ing any record, report, request, test, or
187
Pt. 60, App. B 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
statement required by this appendix. The (26) FAA Airman Testing Standards for the
electronic media used must have adequate Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, Type
security provisions and be acceptable to the Ratings, Commercial Pilot Certificate, and
NSPM. The NSPM recommends inquiries on Instrument Ratings.
system compatibility, and minimum system (27) The FAA Aeronautical Information
requirements are also included on the NSP Manual (AIM). An electronic version of the
Web site. AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/
d. Related Reading References. atpubs.
(2) 14 CFR part 61. ument number 436, titled Guidelines For Elec-
(3) 14 CFR part 63. tronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended).
(5) 14 CFR part 121. ument 610, Guidance for Design and Integra-
(6) 14 CFR part 125. tion of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simula-
(7) 14 CFR part 135. tors (as amended).
(8) 14 CFR part 141. llllllllllllllllllllllll
(9) 14 CFR part 142.
(10) AC 120–28, as amended, Criteria for Ap- END INFORMATION
proval of Category III Landing Weather
2. APPLICABILITY (§§ 60.1 AND 60.2)
Minima.
(11) AC 120–29, as amended, Criteria for Ap- llllllllllllllllllllllll
proving Category I and Category II Landing
Minima for part 121 operators. BEGIN INFORMATION
(12) AC 120–35, as amended, Line Oper- No additional regulatory or informational
ational Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight material applies to § 60.1, Applicability, or to
Training, Special Purpose Operational § 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to person
Training, Line Operational Evaluation. who are not sponsors and who are engaged in
(13) AC 120–41, as amended, Criteria for certain unauthorized activities.
Operational Approval of Airborne Wind
Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Sys- 3. DEFINITIONS (§ 60.3)
tems.
(14) AC 120–45, as amended, Airplane Flight See appendix F of this part for a list of
Training Device Qualification. definitions and abbreviations from part 1,
(14) AC 120–57, as amended, Surface Move- part 60, and the QPS appendices of part 60.
ment Guidance and Control System 4. QUALIFICATION PERFORMANCE STANDARDS
(SMGCS). (§ 60.4)
(15) AC 150/5300–13, as amended, Airport De-
sign. No additional regulatory or informational
(16) AC 150/5340–1, as amended, Standards material applies to § 60.4, Qualification Per-
for Airport Markings. formance Standards.
(17) AC 150/5340–4, as amended, Installation
Details for Runway Centerline Touchdown 5. QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (§ 60.5)
Zone Lighting Systems. Additional regulatory material and infor-
(18) AC 150/5340–19, as amended, Taxiway mational material regarding Quality Man-
Centerline Lighting System. agement Systems for FTDs may be found in
(19) AC 150/5340–24, as amended, Runway appendix E of this part.
and Taxiway Edge Lighting System.
(20) AC 150/5345–28, as amended, Precision END INFORMATION
Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Systems.
(21) International Air Transport Associa-
tion document, ‘‘Flight Simulation Training 6. SPONSOR QUALIFICATION REQUIREMENTS.
Device Design and Performance Data Re- (§ 60.7).
quirements,’’ as amended.
(22) AC 25–7, as amended, Flight Test Guide llllllllllllllllllllllll
for Certification of Transport Category Air-
BEGIN INFORMATION
planes.
(23) AC 23–8A, as amended, Flight Test a. The intent of the language in § 60.7(b) is
Guide for Certification of Part 23 Airplanes. to have a specific FTD, identified by the
(24) International Civil Aviation Organiza- sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-ap-
tion (ICAO) Manual of Criteria for the Quali- proved flight training program for the air-
fication of Flight Simulation Training De- plane simulated during the 12-month period
vices, as amended. described. The identification of the specific
(25) Aeroplane Flight Simulation Training FTD may change from one 12-month period
Device Evaluation Handbook, Volume I, as to the next 12-month period as long as that
amended and Volume II, as amended, The sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FTD
Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK. at least once during the prescribed period.
188
There is no minimum number of hours or ‘‘satellite’’ training centers in Chicago and
minimum FTD periods required. Moscow.
b. The following examples describe accept- (b) The satellite function means that the
able operational practices: Chicago and Moscow centers must operate
(1) Example One. under the New York center’s certificate (in
(a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, spe- accordance with all of the New York center’s
cific FTD for its own use, in its own facility practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., in-
or elsewhere— this single FTD forms the structor and/or technician training/checking
basis for the sponsorship. The sponsor uses requirements, record keeping, QMS pro-
that FTD at least once in each 12-month pe- gram).
riod in that sponsor’s FAA-approved flight (c) All of the FTDs in the Chicago and Mos-
training program for the airplane simulated. cow centers could be dry-leased (i.e., the cer-
This 12-month period is established accord- tificate holder does not have and use FAA-
ing to the following schedule: approved flight training programs for the
(i) If the FTD was qualified prior to May FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers)
30, 2008, the 12-month period begins on the because—
date of the first continuing qualification (i) Each FTD in the Chicago center and
evaluation conducted in accordance with each FTD in the Moscow center is used at
§ 60.19 after May 30, 2008, and continues for least once each 12-month period by another
each subsequent 12-month period; FAA certificate holder in that other certifi-
(ii) A device qualified on or after May 30, cate holder’s FAA-approved flight training
2008, will be required to undergo an initial or program for the airplane (as described in
upgrade evaluation in accordance with § 60.7(d)(1)); or
§ 60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation (ii) A statement is obtained from a quali-
is complete, the first continuing qualifica- fied pilot (having flown the airplane, not the
tion evaluation will be conducted within 6 subject FTD or another FTD during the pre-
months. The 12 month continuing qualifica- ceding 12-month period) stating that the per-
tion evaluation cycle begins on that date and formance and handling qualities of each FTD
continues for each subsequent 12-month pe- in the Chicago and Moscow centers rep-
riod. resents the airplane (as described in
(b) There is no minimum number of hours § 60.7(d)(2)).
of FTD use required.
END INFORMATION
(c) The identification of the specific FTD
may change from one 12-month period to the llllllllllllllllllllllll
next 12-month period as long as that sponsor
sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least 7. ADDITIONAL RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE
once during the prescribed period. SPONSOR (§ 60.9)
(2) Example Two. llllllllllllllllllllllll
(a) A sponsor sponsors an additional num-
ber of FTDs, in its facility or elsewhere. BEGIN INFORMATION
Each additionally sponsored FTD must be— The phrase ‘‘as soon as practicable’’ in
(i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor’s § 60.9(a) means without unnecessarily dis-
FAA-approved flight training program for rupting or delaying beyond a reasonable
the airplane simulated (as described in time the training, evaluation, or experience
§ 60.7(d)(1)); or being conducted in the FTD.
(ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder
in that other certificate holder’s FAA-ap- 8. FTD USE (§ 60.11)
proved flight training program for the air-
plane simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)). No additional regulatory or informational
This 12-month period is established in the material applies to § 60.11, FTD use.
same manner as in example one; or END INFORMATION
qualified pilot, (after having flown the air- llllllllllllllllllllllll
plane, not the subject FTD or another FTD, 9. FTD Objective Data Requirements
during the preceding 12-month period) stat- (§ 60.13)
ing that the subject FTD’s performance and llllllllllllllllllllllll
handling qualities represent the airplane (as
described in § 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS
provided at least once in each 12-month pe- a. Flight test data used to validate FTD
riod established in the same manner as in ex- performance and handling qualities must
ample one. have been gathered in accordance with a
(b) There is no minimum number of hours flight test program containing the following:
of FTD use required. (1) A flight test plan consisting of:
(3) Example Three. (a) The maneuvers and procedures required

(a) A sponsor in New York (in this exam- for aircraft certification and simulation pro-
ple, a Part 142 certificate holder) establishes gramming and validation.
189
(b) For each maneuver or procedure— (i) The schedule to incorporate this data
(i) The procedures and control input the into the FTD; or
flight test pilot and/or engineer used. (ii) The reason for not incorporating this
(ii) The atmospheric and environmental data into the FTD.
conditions. e. In those cases where the objective test
(iii) The initial flight conditions. results authorize a ‘‘snapshot test’’ or a ‘‘se-
(iv) The airplane configuration, including ries of snapshot test results’’ in lieu of a
weight and center of gravity. time-history result, the sponsor or other
(v) The data to be gathered. data provider must ensure that a steady
(vi) All other information necessary to state condition exists at the instant of time
recreate the flight test conditions in the captured by the ‘‘snapshot.’’ The steady
FTD. state condition must exist from 4 seconds
(2) Appropriately qualified flight test per- prior to, through 1 second following, the in-
sonnel. stant of time captured by the snap shot.
(3) An understanding of the accuracy of the
data to be gathered using appropriate alter- END QPS REQUIREMENTS
native data sources, procedures, and instru-
mentation that is traceable to a recognized
standard as described in Attachment 2, Table BEGIN INFORMATION
B2F of this appendix.
(4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisi- f. The FTD sponsor is encouraged to main-
tion equipment or system(s), including ap- tain a liaison with the manufacturer of the
propriate data reduction and analysis meth- aircraft being simulated (or with the holder
ods and techniques, acceptable to the FAA’s of the aircraft type certificate for the air-
Aircraft Certification Service. craft being simulated if the manufacturer is
b. The data, regardless of source, must be no longer in business), and if appropriate,
presented: with the person having supplied the aircraft
(1) In a format that supports the FTD vali- data package for the FTD in order to facili-
dation process; tate the notification described in this para-
(2) In a manner that is clearly readable and graph.
annotated correctly and completely; g. It is the intent of the NSPM that for
(3) With resolution sufficient to determine new aircraft entering service, at a point well
compliance with the tolerances set forth in in advance of preparation of the QTG, the
Attachment 2, Table B2A, Appendix B; sponsor should submit to the NSPM for ap-
(4) With any necessary guidance informa- proval, a descriptive document (see Appendix
tion provided; and A, Table A2C, Sample Validation Data Road-
(5) Without alteration, adjustments, or map for Airplanes) containing the plan for
bias. Data may be corrected to address acquiring the validation data, including data
known data calibration errors provided that sources. This document should clearly iden-
an explanation of the methods used to cor- tify sources of data for all required tests, a
rect the errors appears in the QTG. The cor- description of the validity of these data for a
rected data may be re-scaled, digitized, or specific engine type and thrust rating con-
otherwise manipulated to fit the desired figuration, and the revision levels of all avi-
presentation. onics affecting the performance or flying
c. After completion of any additional flight qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this
test, a flight test report must be submitted document should provide other information
in support of the validation data. The report such as the rationale or explanation for
must contain sufficient data and rationale to cases where data or data parameters are
support qualification of the FTD at the level missing, instances where engineering sim-
requested. ulation data are used, or where flight test
d. As required by § 60.13(f), the sponsor methods require further explanations. It
must notify the NSPM when it becomes should also provide a brief narrative describ-
aware that an addition to or a revision of the ing the cause and effect of any deviation
flight related data or airplane systems re- from data requirements. The aircraft manu-
lated data is available if this data is used to facturer may provide this document.
program and operate a qualified FTD. The h. There is no requirement for any flight
data referred to in this sub-section are those test data supplier to submit a flight test
data that are used to validate the perform- plan or program prior to gathering flight
ance, handling qualities, or other character- test data. However, the NSPM notes that in-
istics of the aircraft, including data related experienced data gatherers often provide
to any relevant changes occurring after the data that is irrelevant, improperly marked,
type certification is issued. The sponsor or lacking adequate justification for selec-
must— tion. Other problems include inadequate in-
(1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the formation regarding initial conditions or
NSPM of the existence of this data; and test maneuvers. The NSPM has been forced
(2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the to refuse these data submissions as valida-
NSPM of— tion data for an FTD evaluation. It is for
190
this reason that the NSPM recommends that (1) A statement that the FTD meets all of
any data supplier not previously experienced the applicable provisions of this part and all
in this area review the data necessary for applicable provisions of the QPS.
programming and for validating the perform- (2) Unless otherwise authorized through
ance of the FTD and discuss the flight test prior coordination with the NSPM, a con-
plan anticipated for acquiring such data with firmation that the sponsor will forward to
the NSPM well in advance of commencing the NSPM the statement described in
the flight tests. § 60.15(b) in such time as to be received no
i. The NSPM will consider, on a case-by- later than 5 business days prior to the sched-
case basis, whether to approve supplemental uled evaluation and may be forwarded to the
validation data derived from flight data re- NSPM via traditional or electronic means.
cording systems such as a Quick Access Re- (3) Except for a Level 4 FTD, a QTG, ac-
corder or Flight Data Recorder. ceptable to the NSPM, that includes all of
the following:
END INFORMATION (a) Objective data obtained from aircraft
llllllllllllllllllllllll testing or another approved source.
(b) Correlating objective test results ob-
10. SPECIAL EQUIPMENT AND PERSONNEL RE- tained from the performance of the FTD as
QUIREMENTS FOR QUALIFICATION OF THE FTD prescribed in the appropriate QPS.
(§ 60.14). (c) The result of FTD subjective tests pre-
scribed in the appropriate QPS.
llllllllllllllllllllllll (d) A description of the equipment nec-
BEGIN INFORMATION essary to perform the evaluation for initial
qualification and the continuing qualifica-
a. In the event that the NSPM determines tion evaluations.
that special equipment or specifically quali- c. The QTG described in paragraph a(3) of
fied persons will be required to conduct an this section, must provide the documented
evaluation, the NSPM will make every at- proof of compliance with the FTD objective
tempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1) tests in Attachment 2, Table B2A of this ap-
week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in pendix.
advance of the evaluation. Examples of spe- d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by
cial equipment include flight control meas- the sponsor, or the sponsor?s agent on behalf
urement devices, accelerometers, or oscillo- of the sponsor, to the NSPM for review and
scopes. Examples of specially qualified per- approval, and must include, for each objec-
sonnel include individuals specifically quali- tive test:
fied to install or use any special equipment (1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight con-
when its use is required. ditions;
b. Examples of a special evaluation include (2) Pertinent and complete instructions for
an evaluation conducted after: An FTD is conducting automatic and manual tests;
moved; at the request of the TPAA; or as a (3) A means of comparing the FTD test re-
result of comments received from users of sults to the objective data;
the FTD that raise questions about the con- (4) Any other information as necessary to
tinued qualification or use of the FTD. assist in the evaluation of the test results;
(5) Other information appropriate to the
END INFORMATION qualification level of the FTD.
llllllllllllllllllllllll e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3)
and (b) of this section, must include the fol-
11. INITIAL (AND UPGRADE) QUALIFICATION lowing:
REQUIREMENTS (§ 60.15). (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and
FAA approval signature blocks (see Attach-
ment 4, Figure B4C, of this appendix, for a
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENT sample QTG cover page).
(2) [Reserved]
a. In order to be qualified at a particular (3) An FTD information page that provides
qualification level, the FTD must: the information listed in this paragraph, if
(1) Meet the general requirements listed in applicable (see Attachment 4, Figure B4B, of
Attachment 1 of this appendix; this appendix, for a sample FTD information
(2) Meet the objective testing requirements page). For convertible FTDs, the sponsor
listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix must submit a separate page for each con-
(Level 4 FTDs do not require objective tests); figuration of the FTD.
and (a) The sponsor’s FTD identification num-
(3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjec- ber or code.
tive tests listed in Attachment 3 of this ap- (b) The airplane model and series being
pendix. simulated.
b. The request described in § 60.15(a) must (c) The aerodynamic data revision number
include all of the following: or reference.
191
(d) The source of the basic aerodynamic g. The form and manner of presentation of
model and the aerodynamic coefficient data objective test results in the QTG must in-
used to modify the basic model. clude the following:
(e) The engine model(s) and its data revi- (1) The sponsor’s FTD test results must be
sion number or reference. recorded in a manner acceptable to the
(f) The flight control data revision number NSPM, that allows easy comparison of the
or reference. FTD test results to the validation data (e.g.,
(g) The flight management system identi- use of a multi-channel recorder, line printer,
fication and revision level. cross plotting, overlays, transparencies).
(h) The FTD model and manufacturer. (2) FTD results must be labeled using ter-
(i) The date of FTD manufacture. minology common to airplane parameters as
(j) The FTD computer identification. opposed to computer software identifica-
(k) The visual system model and manufac- tions.
turer, including display type. (3) Validation data documents included in
(l) The motion system type and manufac- a QTG may be photographically reduced only
turer, including degrees of freedom. if such reduction will not alter the graphic
(4) A Table of Contents. scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpre-
(5) A log of revisions and a list of effective tation or resolution.
pages. (4) Scaling on graphical presentations
must provide the resolution necessary to
(6) List of all relevant data references.
evaluate the parameters shown in Attach-
(7) A glossary of terms and symbols used
ment 2, Table B2A of this appendix.
(including sign conventions and units).
(5) Tests involving time histories, data
(8) Statements of compliance and capa-
sheets (or transparencies thereof) and FTD
bility (SOCs) with certain requirements.
test results must be clearly marked with ap-
(9) Recording procedures or equipment re- propriate reference points to ensure an accu-
quired to accomplish the objective tests. rate comparison between FTD and airplane
(10) The following information for each ob- with respect to time. Time histories recorded
jective test designated in Attachment 2 of via a line printer are to be clearly identified
this appendix, as applicable to the qualifica- for cross-plotting on the airplane data. Over-
tion level sought: plots may not obscure the reference data.
(a) Name of the test. h. The sponsor may elect to complete the
(b) Objective of the test. QTG objective and subjective tests at the
(c) Initial conditions. manufacturer’s facility or at the sponsor’s
(d) Manual test procedures. training facility (or other sponsor designated
(e) Automatic test procedures (if applica- location where training will take place). If
ble). the tests are conducted at the manufactur-
(f) Method for evaluating FTD objective er’s facility, the sponsor must repeat at least
test results. one-third of the tests at the sponsor’s train-
(g) List of all relevant parameters driven ing facility in order to substantiate FTD per-
or constrained during the automatic test(s). formance. The QTG must be clearly anno-
(h) List of all relevant parameters driven tated to indicate when and where each test
or constrained during the manual test(s). was accomplished. Tests conducted at the
(i) Tolerances for relevant parameters. manufacturer’s facility and at the sponsor’s
(j) Source of Validation Data (document designated training facility must be con-
and page number). ducted after the FTD is assembled with sys-
(k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located tems and sub-systems functional and oper-
in a separate binder, a cross reference for the ating in an interactive manner. The test re-
identification and page number for pertinent sults must be submitted to the NSPM.
data location must be provided). i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the
(l) FTD Objective Test Results as obtained MQTG at the FTD location.
by the sponsor. Each test result must reflect j. All FTDs for which the initial qualifica-
the date completed and must be clearly lation is conducted after May 30, 2014, must
beled as a product of the device being tested. have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including
f. A convertible FTD is addressed as a sepa- all objective data obtained from airplane
rate FTD for each model and series airplane testing, or another approved source (refor-
to which it will be converted and for the matted or digitized), together with corre-
FAA qualification level sought. The NSPM lating objective test results obtained from
will conduct an evaluation for each configu- the performance of the FTD (reformatted or
ration. If a sponsor seeks qualification for digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The
two or more models of an airplane type using eMQTG must also contain the general FTD
a convertible FTD, the sponsor must provide performance or demonstration results (refor-
a QTG for each airplane model, or a QTG for matted or digitized) prescribed in this appen-
the first airplane model and a supplement to dix, and a description of the equipment nec-
that QTG for each additional airplane model. essary to perform the initial qualification
The NSPM will conduct evaluations for each evaluation and the continuing qualification
airplane model. evaluations. The eMQTG must include the
192
original validation data used to validate (7) FTD systems and sub-systems, includ-
FTD performance and handling qualities in ing force cueing (motion), visual, and aural
either the original digitized format from the (sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attach-
data supplier or an electronic scan of the ment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix);
original time-history plots that were pro- and
vided by the data supplier. A copy of the (8) Certain additional requirements, de-
eMQTG must be provided to the NSPM. pending upon the qualification level sought,
k. All other FTDs (not covered in subpara- including equipment or circumstances that
graph ‘‘j’’) must have an electronic copy of may become hazardous to the occupants. The
the MQTG by and after May 30, 2014. An elec- sponsor may be subject to Occupational
tronic copy of the copy of the MQTG must be Safety and Health Administration require-
provided to the NSPM. This may be provided ments.
by an electronic scan presented in a Portable o. The NSPM administers the objective and
Document File (PDF), or similar format ac- subjective tests, which includes an examina-
ceptable to the NSPM. tion of functions. The tests include a quali-
l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualifica- tative assessment of the FTD by an NSP
tion evaluation conducted by the NSPM, the pilot. The NSP evaluation team leader may
sponsor must also provide a person knowl- assign other qualified personnel to assist in
edgeable about the operation of the aircraft accomplishing the functions examination
and the operation of the FTD. and/or the objective and subjective tests per-
formed during an evaluation when required.
END QPS REQUIREMENTS (1) Objective tests provide a basis for meas-
llllllllllllllllllllllll uring and evaluating FTD performance and
determining compliance with the require-
BEGIN INFORMATION ments of this part.
(2) Subjective tests provide a basis for:
m. Only those FTDs that are sponsored by (a) Evaluating the capability of the FTD to
a certificate holder as defined in Appendix F perform over a typical utilization period;
will be evaluated by the NSPM. However, (b) Determining that the FTD satisfac-
other FTD evaluations may be conducted on torily simulates each required task;
a case-by-case basis as the Administrator (c) Verifying correct operation of the FTD
deems appropriate, but only in accordance controls, instruments, and systems; and
with applicable agreements. (d) Demonstrating compliance with the re-
n. The NSPM will conduct an evaluation quirements of this part.
for each configuration, and each FTD must p. The tolerances for the test parameters
be evaluated as completely as possible. To listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix re-
ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation, flect the range of tolerances acceptable to
each FTD is subjected to the general FTD re- the NSPM for FTD validation and are not to
quirements in Attachment 1 of this appen- be confused with design tolerances specified
dix, the objective tests listed in Attachment for FTD manufacture. In making decisions
2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests regarding tests and test results, the NSPM
listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. The relies on the use of operational and engineer-
evaluations described herein will include, ing judgment in the application of data (in-
but not necessarily be limited to the fol- cluding consideration of the way in which
lowing: the flight test was flown and way the data
(1) Airplane responses, including longitu- was gathered and applied), data presen-
dinal and lateral-directional control re- tations, and the applicable tolerances for
sponses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix); each test.
(2) Performance in authorized portions of q. In addition to the scheduled continuing
the simulated airplane’s operating envelope, qualification evaluation, each FTD is subject
to include tasks evaluated by the NSPM in to evaluations conducted by the NSPM at
the areas of surface operations, takeoff, any time without prior notification to the
climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing, sponsor. Such evaluations would be accom-
as well as abnormal and emergency oper- plished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring
ations (see Attachment 2 of this appendix); exclusive use of the FTD for the conduct of
(3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and objective and subjective tests and an exam-
Attachment 2 of this appendix); ination of functions) if the FTD is not being
(4) Flight deck configuration (see Attach- used for flight crewmember training, testing,
ment 1 of this appendix); or checking. However, if the FTD were being
(5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor used, the evaluation would be conducted in a
station functions checks (see Attachment 1 non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive
and Attachment 3 of this appendix); evaluation will be conducted by the FTD
(6) Airplane systems and sub-systems (as evaluator accompanying the check airman,
appropriate) as compared to the airplane instructor, Aircrew Program Designee

simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attach- (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the FTD
ment 3 of this appendix); along with the student(s) and observing the
193
operation of the FTD during the training, END INFORMATION
testing, or checking activities.
r. Problems with objective test results are
handled as follows: 13. PREVIOUSLY QUALIFIED FTDS (§ 60.17).
(1) If a problem with an objective test re-
sult is detected by the NSP evaluation team
during an evaluation, the test may be re- BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS
peated or the QTG may be amended.
a. In instances where a sponsor plans to re-
(2) If it is determined that the results of an
move an FTD from active status for a period
objective test do not support the qualifica-
of less than two years, the following proce-
tion level requested but do support a lower
dures apply:
level, the NSPM may qualify the FTD at a (1) The NSPM must be notified in writing
lower level. For example, if a Level 6 evalua- and the notification must include an esti-
tion is requested, but the FTD fails to meet mate of the period that the FTD will be inac-
the spiral stability test tolerances, it could tive;
be qualified at Level 5. (2) Continuing Qualification evaluations
s. After an FTD is successfully evaluated, will not be scheduled during the inactive pe-
the NSPM issues an SOQ to the sponsor, the riod;
NSPM recommends the FTD to the TPAA, (3) The NSPM will remove the FTD from
who will approve the FTD for use in a flight the list of qualified FTDs on a mutually es-
training program. The SOQ will be issued at tablished date not later than the date on
the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or which the first missed continuing qualifica-
continuing qualification evaluation and will tion evaluation would have been scheduled;
list the tasks for which the FTD is qualified, (4) Before the FTD is restored to qualified
referencing the tasks described in Table B1B status, it must be evaluated by the NSPM.
in Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, The evaluation content and the time re-
it is the sponsor’s responsibility to obtain quired to accomplish the evaluation is based
TPAA approval prior to using the FTD in an on the number of continuing qualification
FAA-approved flight training program. evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly
t. Under normal circumstances, the NSPM inspections missed during the period of inac-
establishes a date for the initial or upgrade tivity.
evaluation within ten (10) working days after (5) The sponsor must notify the NSPM of
determining that a complete QTG is accept- any changes to the original scheduled time
able. Unusual circumstances may warrant out of service;
establishing an evaluation date before this b. FTDs qualified prior to May 31, 2016, and
determination is made. A sponsor may replacement FTD systems, are not required
schedule an evaluation date as early as 6 to meet the general FTD requirements, the
months in advance. However, there may be a objective test requirements, and the subjec-
delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and tive test requirements of Attachments 1, 2,
completing the evaluation if the sponsor is and 3 of this appendix as long as the FTD
unable to meet the scheduled date. See At- continues to meet the test requirements con-
tachment 4, Figure B4A, Sample Request for tained in the MQTG developed under the
Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evalua- original qualification basis.
tion, of this appendix. c. [Reserved]
u. The numbering system used for objec- d. FTDs qualified prior to May 31, 2016,
tive test results in the QTG should closely may be updated. If an evaluation is deemed
follow the numbering system set out in At- appropriate or necessary by the NSPM after
tachment 2, FTD Objective Tests, Table B2A, such an update, the evaluation will not re-
of this appendix. quire an evaluation to standards beyond
v. Contact the NSPM or visit the NSPM those against which the FTD was originally
Web site for additional information regard- qualified.
ing the preferred qualifications of pilots used e. Other certificate holders or persons de-
to meet the requirements of § 60.15(d). siring to use an FTD may contract with FTD
sponsors to use FTDs previously qualified at
w. Examples of the exclusions for which
a particular level for an airplane type and
the FTD might not have been subjectively
approved for use within an FAA-approved
tested by the sponsor or the NSPM and for
flight training program. Such FTDs are not
which qualification might not be sought or
required to undergo an additional qualifica-
granted, as described in § 60.15(g)(6), include
tion process, except as described in § 60.16.
engine out maneuvers or circling approaches.
f. Each FTD user must obtain approval
12. ADDITIONAL QUALIFICATIONS FOR from the appropriate TPAA to use any FTD
CURRENTLY QUALIFIED FTDS (§ 60.16). in an FAA-approved flight training program.
g. The intent of the requirement listed in
No additional regulatory or informational § 60.17(b), for each FTD to have an SOQ with-
material applies to § 60.16, Additional Quali- in 6 years, is to have the availability of that
fications for a Currently Qualified FTD. statement (including the configuration list
194
and the limitations to authorizations) to edgeable about the operation of the aircraft
provide a complete picture of the FTD inven- and the operation of the FTD.
tory regulated by the FAA. The issuance of
the statement will not require any addi- END QPS REQUIREMENTS
tional evaluation or require any adjustment llllllllllllllllllllllll
to the evaluation basis for the FTD.
h. Downgrading of an FTD is a permanent BEGIN INFORMATION
change in qualification level and will neces- e. The sponsor’s test sequence and the con-
sitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to re- tent of each quarterly inspection required in
flect the revised qualification level, as ap- § 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a
propriate. If a temporary restriction is mix from the objective test requirement
placed on an FTD because of a missing, mal- areas listed as follows:
functioning, or inoperative component or on- (1) Performance.
going repairs, the restriction is not a perma- (2) Handling qualities.
nent change in qualification level. Instead, (3) Motion system (where appropriate).
the restriction is temporary and is removed (4) Visual system (where appropriate).
when the reason for the restriction has been (5) Sound system (where appropriate).
resolved. (6) Other FTD systems.
i. The NSPM will determine the evaluation f. If the NSP evaluator plans to accomplish
criteria for an FTD that has been removed specific tests during a normal continuing
from active status for a prolonged period. qualification evaluation that requires the
The criteria will be based on the number of use of special equipment or technicians, the
continuing qualification evaluations and sponsor will be notified as far in advance of
quarterly inspections missed during the pe- the evaluation as practical; but not less than
riod of inactivity. For example, if the FTD 72 hours. Examples of such tests include
were out of service for a 1 year period, it latencies, control sweeps, or motion or vis-
would be necessary to complete the entire ual system tests.
QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations g. The continuing qualification evalua-
would have been missed. The NSPM will also tions described in § 60.19(b) will normally re-
consider how the FTD was stored, whether quire 4 hours of FTD time. However, flexi-
parts were removed from the FTD and bility is necessary to address abnormal situ-
whether the FTD was disassembled. ations or situations involving aircraft with
j. The FTD will normally be requalified additional levels of complexity (e.g., com-
using the FAA-approved MQTG and the cri- puter controlled aircraft). The sponsor
teria that was in effect prior to its removal should anticipate that some tests may re-
from qualification. However, inactive periods quire additional time. The continuing quali-
of 2 years or more will require re-qualifica- fication evaluations will consist of the fol-
tion under the standards in effect and cur- lowing:
rent at the time of requalification. (1) Review of the results of the quarterly
inspections conducted by the sponsor since
END INFORMATION the last scheduled continuing qualification
llllllllllllllllllllllll evaluation.
(2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 ob-
14. INSPECTION, CONTINUING QUALIFICATION, jective tests from the MQTG that provide an
EVALUATION, AND MAINTENANCE REQUIRE- adequate opportunity to evaluate the per-
MENTS (§ 60.19). formance of the FTD. The tests chosen will
be performed either automatically or manu-
ally and should be able to be conducted with-
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENT in approximately one-third (1/3) of the allot-
ted FTD time.
a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of (3) A subjective evaluation of the FTD to
four evenly spaced inspections throughout perform a representative sampling of the
the year. The objective test sequence and tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appen-
content of each inspection in this sequence dix. This portion of the evaluation should
must be developed by the sponsor and must take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of the al-
be acceptable to the NSPM. lotted FTD time.
b. The description of the functional pre- (4) An examination of the functions of the
flight check must be contained in the spon- FTD may include the motion system, visual
sor’s QMS. system, sound system as applicable, instruc-
c. Record ‘‘functional preflight’’ in the tor operating station, and the normal func-
FTD discrepancy log book or other accept- tions and simulated malfunctions of the air-
able location, including any item found to be plane systems. This examination is normally
missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative. accomplished simultaneously with the sub-
d. During the continuing qualification jective evaluation requirements.

evaluation conducted by the NSPM, the h. The requirement established in
sponsor must also provide a person knowl- § 60.19(b)(4) regarding the frequency of
195
NSPM-conducted continuing qualification BEGIN INFORMATION
evaluations for each FTD is typically 12
a. The sponsor’s responsibility with respect
months. However, the establishment and sat- to § 60.25(a) is satisfied when the sponsor fair-
isfactory implementation of an approved ly and accurately advises the user of the cur-
QMS for a sponsor will provide a basis for ad- rent status of an FTD, including any miss-
justing the frequency of evaluations to ex- ing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI)
ceed 12-month intervals. component(s).
b. It is the responsibility of the instructor,
15. LOGGING FTD DISCREPANCIES (§ 60.20)
check airman, or representative of the ad-
No additional regulatory or informational ministrator conducting training, testing, or
material applies to § 60.20. Logging FTD Dis- checking to exercise reasonable and prudent
crepancies. judgment to determine if any MMI compo-
nent is necessary for the satisfactory com-
16. INTERIM QUALIFICATION OF FTDS FOR NEW pletion of a specific maneuver, procedure, or
AIRPLANE TYPES OR MODELS (§ 60.21) task.
c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day pe-
No additional regulatory or informational riod described in 60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a
material applies to § 60.21, Interim Qualifica- Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend
tion of FTDs for New Airplane Types or Mod- the deadline until the next business day.
els. d. In accordance with the authorization de-
scribed in § 60.25(b), the sponsor may develop
END INFORMATION a discrepancy prioritizing system to accom-
llllllllllllllllllllllll plish repairs based on the level of impact on
the capability of the FTD. Repairs having a
17. MODIFICATIONS TO FTDS (§ 60.23) larger impact on the FTD’s ability to pro-
vide the required training, evaluation, or
llllllllllllllllllllllll flight experience will have a higher priority
for repair or replacement.
a. The notification described in § 60.23(c)(2) END INFORMATION
must include a complete description of the llllllllllllllllllllllll
planned modification, with a description of
the operational and engineering effect the 19. AUTOMATIC LOSS OF QUALIFICATION AND
proposed modification will have on the oper- PROCEDURES FOR RESTORATION OF QUALI-
ation of the FTD and the results that are ex- FICATION (§ 60.27)
pected with the modification incorporated. llllllllllllllllllllllll
b. Prior to using the modified FTD:
(1) All the applicable objective tests com- BEGIN INFORMATION
pleted with the modification incorporated, If the sponsor provides a plan for how the
including any necessary updates to the FTD will be maintained during its out-of-
MQTG (e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Direc- service period (e.g., periodic exercise of me-
tives) must be acceptable to the NSPM; and chanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems;
(2) The sponsor must provide the NSPM routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; con-
with a statement signed by the MR that the trol of the environmental factors in which
factors listed in § 60.15(b) are addressed by the FTD is to be maintained) there is a
the appropriate personnel as described in greater likelihood that the NSPM will be
that section. able to determine the amount of testing that
required for requalification.
END INFORMATION
BEGIN INFORMATION
20. OTHER LOSSES OF QUALIFICATION AND PRO-
c. FSTD Directives are considered modi- CEDURES FOR RESTORATION OF QUALIFICA-
fication of an FTD. See Attachment 4 of this TION (§ 60.29)
appendix for a sample index of effective
FSTD Directives. llllllllllllllllllllllll
END INFORMATION BEGIN INFORMATION

FTD will be maintained during its out-of-
18. OPERATION WITH MISSING, MALFUNC-
service period (e.g., periodic exercise of me-

trol of the environmental factors in which
llllllllllllllllllllllll the FTD is to be maintained) there is a
196
greater likelihood that the NSPM will be the flight controls) or may physically rep-
able to determine the amount of testing that licate the aircraft in control operation.
required for requalification. (2) Level 5. A device that may have an open
airplane-specific flight deck area, or an en-
END INFORMATION closed airplane-specific flight deck; generic
llllllllllllllllllllllll aerodynamic programming; at least one op-
erating system; and control loading that is
21. RECORDKEEPING AND REPORTING (§ 60.31) representative of the simulated airplane
llllllllllllllllllllllll only at an approach speed and configuration.
All displays may be flat/LCD panel represen-
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS tations or actual representations of displays
in the aircraft. Primary and secondary flight
a. FTD modifications can include hardware controls (e.g., rudder, aileron, elevator, flaps,
or software changes. For FTD modifications spoilers/speed brakes, engine controls, land-
involving software programming changes, ing gear, nosewheel steering, trim, brakes)
the record required by § 60.31(a)(2) must con- must be physical controls. All other con-
sist of the name of the aircraft system soft- trols, switches, and knobs may be touch sen-
ware, aerodynamic model, or engine model sitive activation.
change, the date of the change, a summary
(3) Level 6. A device that has an enclosed
of the change, and the reason for the change.
airplane-specific flight deck; airplane-spe-
b. If a coded form for record keeping is
cific aerodynamic programming; all applica-
used, it must provide for the preservation
ble airplane systems operating; control load-
and retrieval of information with appro-
ing that is representative of the simulated
priate security or controls to prevent the in-
airplane throughout its ground and flight en-
appropriate alteration of such records after
velope; and significant sound representation.
the fact.
END QPS REQUIREMENTS tations or actual representations of displays
in the aircraft, but all controls, switches,
llllllllllllllllllllllll and knobs must physically replicate the air-
craft in control operation.
22. APPLICATIONS, LOGBOOKS, REPORTS, AND
RECORDS: FRAUD, FALSIFICATION, OR INCOR- END INFORMATION
RECT STATEMENTS (§ 60.33)
(4) Level 7. A Level 7 device is one that has
BEGIN INFORMATION an enclosed airplane-specific flight deck and
aerodynamic program with all applicable
No additional regulatory or informational airplane systems operating and control load-
material applies to § 60.33, Applications, ing that is representative of the simulated
Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Fal- airplane throughout its ground and flight en-
sification, or Incorrect Statements. velope and significant sound representation.
END INFORMATION
tations or actual representations of displays
llllllllllllllllllllllll in the aircraft, but all controls, switches,
and knobs must physically replicate the air-
23. [RESERVED] craft in control operation. It also has a vis-
ual system that provides an out-of-the-flight
24. LEVELS OF FTD.
deck view, providing cross-flight deck view-
llllllllllllllllllllllll ing (for both pilots simultaneously) of a
field-of-view of at least 180° horizontally and
BEGIN INFORMATION 40° vertically.
a. The following is a general description of
25. FTD QUALIFICATION ON THE BASIS OF A BI-
each level of FTD. Detailed standards and
LATERAL AVIATION SAFETY AGREEMENT
tests for the various levels of FTDs are fully
(BASA) (§ 60.37)
defined in Attachments 1 through 3 of this
appendix. llllllllllllllllllllllll
(1) Level 4. A device that may have an open
airplane-specific flight deck area, or an en- BEGIN INFORMATION
closed airplane-specific flight deck and at
least one operating system. Air/ground logic
material applies to § 60.37, FTD Qualification
is required (no aerodynamic programming
on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety
required). All displays may be flat/LCD panel
Agreement (BASA).
representations or actual representations of
displays in the aircraft. All controls, switch- END INFORMATION

es, and knobs may be touch sensitive activa-
tion (not capable of manual manipulation of llllllllllllllllllllllll
197
ATTACHMENT 1 TO APPENDIX B TO PART 60— ment 3 of this appendix to determine the
GENERAL FTD REQUIREMENTS complete requirements for a specific level
FTD.
b. The material contained in this attach-
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS ment is divided into the following cat-
egories:
1. REQUIREMENTS (1) General Flight deck Configuration.
a. Certain requirements included in this (2) Programming.
appendix must be supported with an SOC as (3) Equipment Operation.
defined in Appendix F, which may include (4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/
objective and subjective tests. The require- evaluator functions.
ments for SOCs are indicated in the ‘‘General (5) Motion System.
FTD Requirements’’ column in Table B1A of (6) Visual System.
this appendix. (7) Sound System.
b. Table B1A describes the requirements
c. Table B1A provides the standards for the
for the indicated level of FTD. Many devices
General FTD Requirements.
include operational systems or functions
that exceed the requirements outlined in d. Table B1B provides the tasks that the
this section. In any event, all systems will be sponsor will examine to determine whether
tested and evaluated in accordance with this the FTD satisfactorily meets the require-
appendix to ensure proper operation. ments for flight crew training, testing, and
experience, and provides the tasks for which
END QPS REQUIREMENTS the simulator may be qualified.
e. Table B1C provides the functions that an
instructor/check airman must be able to con-
BEGIN INFORMATION trol in the simulator.
f. It is not required that all of the tasks
2. DISCUSSION that appear on the List of Qualified Tasks
a. This attachment describes the general (part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the
requirements for qualifying Level 4 through initial or continuing qualification evalua-
Level 6 FTDs. The sponsor should also con- tion.
sult the objectives tests in Attachment 2 of END INFORMATION
this appendix and the examination of func-
tions and subjective tests listed in Attach- llllllllllllllllllllllll
198
199
ER20MY16.071</GPH>
200
ER20MY16.072</GPH>
201
ER20MY16.073</GPH>
202
ER20MY16.074</GPH>
203
ER20MY16.075</GPH>
204
ER20MY16.076</GPH>
205
ER20MY16.077</GPH>
206
ER20MY16.078</GPH>
207
ER20MY16.079</GPH>
208
ER20MY16.080</GPH>
209
ER20MY16.081</GPH>
210
ER20MY16.082</GPH>
211
ER20MY16.083</GPH>
212
ER20MY16.084</GPH>
213
ER20MY16.085</GPH>
214
ER20MY16.086</GPH>
215
ER20MY16.087</GPH>
216
ER20MY16.088</GPH>
217
ER20MY16.089</GPH>
218
ER20MY16.090</GPH>
219
ER20MY16.091</GPH>
220
ER20MY16.092</GPH>
221
ER20MY16.093</GPH>
TABLE B1C—TABLE OF FTD SYSTEM TASKS QPS REQUIREMENTS

QPS Requirements Information
Subjective Requirements
In order to be qualified at the FTD qualification FTD level
Entry No. level indicated, the FTD must be able to per- Notes
form at least the tasks associated with that level
of qualification. 4 5 6
1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS).
1.a. ............. Power switch(es) ................................................. X X X
1.b. ............. Airplane conditions .............................................. A X X e.g., GW, CG, Fuel loading, Systems, Ground
Crew.
1.c. ............. Airports/Runways ................................................ X X X e.g., Selection and Presets; Surface and Light-
ing controls if equipped with a visual system.
1.d. ............. Environmental controls ........................................ X X X e.g., Temp, Wind.
1.e. ............. Airplane system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion) A X X
1.f. ............. Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning ..................... X X X
1.g. ............. Sound Controls. (On/off/adjustment) ................... X X X
1.h. ............. Motion/Control Loading System, as appropriate. A A A

On/off/emergency stop.
2. Observer Seats/Stations.
2.a. ............. Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system .... X X X

Note 1: An ‘‘A’’ in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure, although not required to be present, may be exam-
ined if the appropriate system is in the FTD and is working properly.
ATTACHMENT 2 TO APPENDIX B TO PART 60— A2A, and the objective tests in Appendix B,
FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE (FTD) OBJECTIVE Attachment 2, Table B2A, is identical. How-
TESTS ever, each test required for FFSs is not nec-
llllllllllllllllllllllll essarily required for FTDs. Also, each test
required for FTDs is not necessarily required
BEGIN INFORMATION for FFSs. Therefore, when a test number (or
series of numbers) is not required, the term
1. DISCUSSION ‘‘Reserved’’ is used in the table at that loca-
a. For the purposes of this attachment, the tion. Following this numbering format pro-
flight conditions specified in the Flight Con- vides a degree of commonality between the
ditions Column of Table B2A, are defined as two tables and substantially reduces the po-
follows: tential for confusion when referring to objec-
(1) Ground—on ground, independent of air- tive test numbers for either FFSs or FTDs.
plane configuration; c. The reader is encouraged to review the
(2) Take-off—gear down with flaps/slats in Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Hand-
any certified takeoff position; book, Volumes I and II, published by the
(3) First segment climb—gear down with Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK,
flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position and FAA AC 25–7, as amended, Flight Test
(normally not above 50 ft AGL); Guide for Certification of Transport Cat-
(4) Second segment climb—gear up with egory Airplanes, and AC 23–8, as amended,
flaps/slats in any certified takeoff position Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23
(normally between 50 ft and 400 ft AGL);
Airplanes, for references and examples re-
(5) Clean—flaps/slats retracted and gear up;
garding flight testing requirements and tech-
(6) Cruise—clean configuration at cruise
niques.
altitude and airspeed;
(7) Approach—gear up or down with flaps/ d. If relevant winds are present in the ob-
slats at any normal approach position as rec- jective data, the wind vector should be clear-
ommended by the airplane manufacturer; ly noted as part of the data presentation, ex-
and pressed in conventional terminology, and re-
(8) Landing—gear down with flaps/slats in lated to the runway being used for the test.
any certified landing position. e. A Level 4 FTD does not require objective
b. The format for numbering the objective tests and therefore, Level 4 is not addressed
tests in Appendix A, Attachment 2, Table in the following table.
222
END INFORMATION other related variables for the condition
being assessed.
llllllllllllllllllllllll e. It is not acceptable to program the FTD
so that the mathematical modeling is cor-
rect only at the validation test points. Un-
2. TEST REQUIREMENTS less otherwise noted, FTD tests must rep-
resent airplane performance and handling
a. The ground and flight tests required for qualities at operating weights and centers of
qualification are listed in Table B2A Objec- gravity (CG) typical of normal operation.
tive Tests. Computer generated FTD test re- FTD tests at extreme weight or CG condi-
sults must be provided for each test except tions may be acceptable where required for
where an alternate test is specifically au- concurrent aircraft certification testing.
thorized by the NSPM. If a flight condition Tests of handling qualities must include val-
or operating condition is required for the idation of augmentation devices.
test but does not apply to the airplane being f. When comparing the parameters listed to
simulated or to the qualification level those of the airplane, sufficient data must
sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., an engine also be provided to verify the correct flight
out missed approach for a single-engine air- condition and airplane configuration
plane; a maneuver using reverse thrust for changes. For example, to show that control
an airplane without reverse thrust capa- force is within the parameters for a static
bility). Each test result is compared against stability test, data to show the correct air-
the validation data described in § 60.13, and speed, power, thrust or torque, airplane con-
in Appendix B. The results must be produced figuration, altitude, and other appropriate
on an appropriate recording device accept- datum identification parameters must also
able to the NSPM and must include FTD be given. If comparing short period dynam-
number, date, time, conditions, tolerances, ics, normal acceleration may be used to es-
and appropriate dependent variables por- tablish a match to the airplane, but airspeed,
trayed in comparison to the validation data. altitude, control input, airplane configura-
tion, and other appropriate data must also
Time histories are required unless otherwise
be given. If comparing landing gear change
indicated in Table B2A. All results must be
dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and altitude may
labeled using the tolerances and units given.
be used to establish a match to the airplane,
b. Table B2A in this attachment sets out but landing gear position must also be pro-
the test results required, including the pa- vided. All airspeed values must be properly
rameters, tolerances, and flight conditions annotated (e.g., indicated versus calibrated).
for FTD validation. Tolerances are provided In addition, the same variables must be used
for the listed tests because mathematical for comparison (e.g., compare inches to
modeling and acquisition and development of inches rather than inches to centimeters).
reference data are often inexact. All toler- g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must
ances listed in the following tables are ap- clearly describe how the FTD will be set up
plied to FTD performance. When two toler- and operated for each test. Each FTD sub-
ance values are given for a parameter, the system may be tested independently, but
less restrictive may be used unless otherwise overall integrated testing of the FTD must
indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is be accomplished to assure that the total
expressed only as a percentage, the tolerance FTD system meets the prescribed standards.
percentage applies to the maximum value of A manual test procedure with explicit and
that parameter within its normal operating detailed steps for completing each test must
range as measured from the neutral or zero also be provided.
position unless otherwise indicated. h. For previously qualified FTDs, the tests
c. Certain tests included in this attach- and tolerances of this attachment may be
ment must be supported with a SOC. In used in subsequent continuing qualification
Table B2A, requirements for SOCs are indi- evaluations for any given test if the sponsor
cated in the ‘‘Test Details’’ column. has submitted a proposed MQTG revision to
d. When operational or engineering judg- the NSPM and has received NSPM approval.
ment is used in making assessments for i. FTDs are evaluated and qualified with an
flight test data applications for FTD valid- engine model simulating the airplane data
ity, such judgment may not be limited to a supplier’s flight test engine. For qualifica-
single parameter. For example, data that ex- tion of alternative engine models (either
hibit rapid variations of the measured pa- variations of the flight test engines or other
rameters may require interpolations or a manufacturer’s engines) additional tests
‘‘best fit’’ data section. All relevant param- with the alternative engine models may be
eters related to a given maneuver or flight required. This attachment contains guide-
condition must be provided to allow overall lines for alternative engines.
interpretation. When it is difficult or impos- j. Testing Computer Controlled Aircraft
sible to match FTD to airplane data (CCA) simulators, or other highly augmented
throughout a time history, differences must airplane simulators, flight test data is re-
be justified by providing a comparison of quired for the Normal (N) and/or Non-normal
223
(NN) control states, as indicated in this at- l. Some tests will not be required for air-
tachment. Where test results are inde- planes using airplane hardware in the FTD
pendent of control state, Normal or Non-nor- flight deck (e.g., ‘‘side stick controller’’).
mal control data may be used. All tests in These exceptions are noted in Section 2
Table B2A require test results in the Normal ‘‘Handling Qualities’’ in Table B2A of this at-
control state unless specifically noted other- tachment. However, in these cases, the spon-
wise in the Test Details section following the sor must provide a statement that the air-
CCA designation. The NSPM will determine plane hardware meets the appropriate manu-
what tests are appropriate for airplane sim- facturer’s specifications and the sponsor
ulation data. When making this determina- must have supporting information to that
tion, the NSPM may require other levels of fact available for NSPM review.
control state degradation for specific air- m. For objective test purposes, see Appen-
plane tests. Where Non-normal control dix F of this part for the definitions of ‘‘Near
states are required, test data must be pro- maximum,’’ ‘‘Light,’’ and ‘‘Medium’’ gross
vided for one or more Non-normal control weight.
states, and must include the least aug-
mented state. Where applicable, flight test END QPS REQUIREMENTS
data must record Normal and Non-normal llllllllllllllllllllllll
states for:
(1) Pilot controller deflections or electroni- BEGIN INFORMATION
cally generated inputs, including location of
input; and n. In those cases where the objective test
(2) Flight control surface positions unless results authorize a ‘‘snapshot test’’ or a ‘‘se-
test results are not affected by, or are inde- ries of snapshot test results’’ in lieu of a
pendent of, surface positions. time-history result, the sponsor or other
k. Tests of handling qualities must include data provider must ensure that a steady
validation of augmentation devices. FTDs state condition exists at the instant of time
for highly augmented airplanes will be vali- captured by the ‘‘snapshot.’’ The steady
dated both in the unaugmented configura- state condition must exist from 4 seconds
tion (or failure state with the maximum per- prior to, through 1 second following, the in-
mitted degradation in handling qualities) stant of time captured by the snap shot.
and the augmented configuration. Where o. Refer to AC 120–27, ‘‘Aircraft Weight and
various levels of handling qualities result Balance’’ and FAA–H–8083–1, ‘‘Aircraft
from failure states, validation of the effect Weight and Balance Handbook’’ for more in-
of the failure is necessary. Requirements for formation.
testing will be mutually agreed to between
END INFORMATION
the sponsor and the NSPM on a case-by-case
basis. llllllllllllllllllllllll
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llllllllllllllllllllllll use NSP accepted flight test data for com-
parison purposes for those tests.
BEGIN INFORMATION c. Sponsors using the data from Tables B2B
through B2E must comply with the fol-
3. FOR ADDITIONAL INFORMATION ON THE FOL-
lowing:
LOWING TOPICS, PLEASE REFER TO APPENDIX
A, ATTACHMENT 2, AND THE INDICATED PARA- (1) Submit a complete QTG, including re-
GRAPH WITHIN THAT ATTACHMENT
sults from all of the objective tests appro-
priate for the level of qualification sought as
• Control Dynamics, paragraph 4. set out in Table B2A. The QTG must high-
• Motion System, paragraph 6. light those results that demonstrate the per-
• Sound System, paragraph 7. formance of the FTD is within the allowable
• Engineering Simulator Validation Data, performance ranges indicated in Tables B2B
paragraph 9. through B2E, as appropriate.
• Validation Test Tolerances, paragraph (2) The QTG test results must include all
11. relevant information concerning the condi-
• Validation Data Road Map, paragraph 12. tions under which the test was conducted;
• Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative e.g., gross weight, center of gravity, airspeed,
Engines Data, paragraph 13. power setting, altitude (climbing, descend-
• Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative ing, or level), temperature, configuration,
Avionics, paragraph 14. and any other parameter that impacts the
• Transport Delay Testing, paragraph 15. conduct of the test.
• Continuing Qualification Evaluation Val- (3) The test results become the validation
idation Data Presentation, paragraph 16. data against which the initial and all subse-
quent continuing qualification evaluations
END INFORMATION are compared. These subsequent evaluations
llllllllllllllllllllllll will use the tolerances listed in Table B2A.
(4) Subjective testing of the device must be
4. ALTERNATIVE OBJECTIVE DATA FOR FTD performed to determine that the device per-
LEVEL 5 forms and handles like an airplane within
the appropriate set of airplanes.
a. This paragraph (including the following
tables) is relevant only to FTD Level 5. It is BEGIN INFORMATION
provided because this level is required to
simulate the performance and handling char- d. The reader is encouraged to consult the
acteristics of a set of airplanes with similar Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Hand-
characteristics, such as normal airspeed/alti- book, Volumes I and II, published by the
tude operating envelope and the same num- Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK,
ber and type of propulsion systems (engines). and AC 25–7, Flight Test Guide for Certifi-
b. Tables B2B through B2E reflect FTD cation of Transport Category Airplanes, and
performance standards that are acceptable AC 23–8A, Flight Test Guide for Certification
to the FAA. A sponsor must demonstrate of Part 23 Airplanes, as amended, for ref-
that a device performs within these param- erences and examples regarding flight test-
eters, as applicable. If a device does not meet ing requirements and techniques.
the established performance parameters for
END INFORMATION
some or for all of the applicable tests listed
in Tables B2B through B2E, the sponsor may llllllllllllllllllllllll
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END QPS REQUIREMENTS the Airplane Maintenance Manual, the Air-
plane Flight Manual (AFM), Airplane Design
Data, the Type Inspection Report (TIR), Cer-
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS tification Data or acceptable supplemental
flight test data.
5. ALTERNATIVE DATA SOURCES, PROCEDURES, (2) The NSPM recommends that use of the
AND INSTRUMENTATION: LEVEL 6 FTD ONLY alternative instrumentation noted in Table
a. Sponsors are not required to use the al- B2F be coordinated with the NSPM prior to
ternative data sources, procedures, and in- employment in a flight test or data gath-
strumentation. However, a sponsor may ering effort.
choose to use one or more of the alternative e. The NSPM position regarding the use of
sources, procedures, and instrumentation de- these alternative data sources, procedures,
scribed in Table B2F. and instrumentation is based on three pri-
mary preconditions and presumptions re-
END QPS REQUIREMENTS garding the objective data and FTD aero-
llllllllllllllllllllllll dynamic program modeling.
(1) Data gathered through the alternative
BEGIN INFORMATION means does not require angle of attack
b. It has become standard practice for ex- (AOA) measurements or control surface posi-
perienced FTD manufacturers to use such tion measurements for any flight test. AOA
techniques as a means of establishing data can be sufficiently derived if the flight test
bases for new FTD configurations while program insures the collection of acceptable
awaiting the availability of actual flight test level, unaccelerated, trimmed flight data.
data; and then comparing this new data with Angle of attack may be validated by con-
the newly available flight test data. The re- ducting the three basic ‘‘fly-by’’ trim tests.
sults of such comparisons have, as reported The FTD time history tests should begin in
by some recognized and experienced simula- level, unaccelerated, and trimmed flight, and
tion experts, become increasingly consistent the results should be compared with the
and indicate that these techniques, applied flight test pitch angle.
with appropriate experience, are becoming (2) A simulation controls system model
dependably accurate for the development of should be rigorously defined and fully ma-
aerodynamic models for use in Level 6 FTDs. ture. It should also include accurate gearing
c. In reviewing this history, the NSPM has and cable stretch characteristics (where ap-
concluded that, with proper care, those who plicable) that are determined from actual
are experienced in the development of aero- aircraft measurements. Such a model does
dynamic models for FTD application can not require control surface position measure-
successfully use these modeling techniques ments in the flight test objective data for
to acceptably alter the method by which Level 6 FTD applications.
flight test data may be acquired and, when f. Table B2F is not applicable to Computer
applied to Level 6 FTDs, does not com- Controlled Aircraft FTDs.
promise the quality of that simulation. g. Utilization of these alternate data
d. The information in the table that fol- sources, procedures, and instrumentation
lows (Table of Alternative Data Sources, does not relieve the sponsor from compliance
Procedures, and Information: Level 6 FTD with the balance of the information con-
Only) is presented to describe an acceptable tained in this document relative to Level 6
alternative to data sources for Level 6 FTD FTDs.
modeling and validation, and an acceptable
h. The term ‘‘inertial measurement sys-
alternative to the procedures and instrumen-
tem’’ allows the use of a functional global
tation found in the flight test methods tradi-
positioning system (GPS).
tionally accepted for gathering modeling and
validation data. END INFORMATION
(1) Alternative data sources that may be
used for part or all of a data requirement are llllllllllllllllllllllll
TABLE B2F—ALTERNATIVE DATA SOURCES, PROCEDURES, AND INSTRUMENTATION LEVEL 6 FTD
The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix
B are not used.
Objective test reference number Notes

Alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation
and title
1.b.1. ................................................ Data may be acquired through a synchronized video recording of a This test is re-
Performance. stop watch and the calibrated airplane airspeed indicator. Hand- quired only if
Takeoff. record the flight conditions and airplane configuration. RTO is

Ground acceleration time. sought.
281
TABLE B2F—ALTERNATIVE DATA SOURCES, PROCEDURES, AND INSTRUMENTATION LEVEL 6 FTD—

Continued
B are not used.

and title
1.b.7. ................................................ Data may be acquired through a synchronized video recording of a This test is re-
Performance. stop watch and the calibrated airplane airspeed indicator. Hand- quired only if
Takeoff. record the flight conditions and airplane configuration. RTO is
Rejected takeoff. sought.
1.c.1. ................................................ Data may be acquired with a synchronized video of calibrated airplane
Performance. instruments and engine power throughout the climb range.
Climb.
Normal climb all engines operating.
1.f.1. ................................................. Data may be acquired with a synchronized video recording of engine
Performance. instruments and throttle position.
Engines.
Acceleration
1.f.2. ................................................. Data may be acquired with a synchronized video recording of engine
Performance. instruments and throttle position.
Engines.
Deceleration
2.a.1.a. ............................................. Surface position data may be acquired from flight data recorder (FDR) For airplanes
Handling qualities. sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant column positions with reversible
Static control tests. (encompassing significant column position data points), acceptable control sys-
Pitch controller position vs. force to the NSPM, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force tems, surface
and surface position calibration. data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same position data
column position data points. acquisition
should be ac-
complished
with winds
less than 5
kts.
Handling qualities. sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant wheel positions with reversible
Static control tests. (encompassing significant wheel position data points), acceptable to control sys-
Wheel position vs. force and sur- the NSPM, using a control surface protractor on the ground. Force tems, surface
face position calibration. data may be acquired by using a hand held force gauge at the same position data
wheel position data points. acquisition
should be ac-
complished
with winds
less than 5
kts.
Handling qualities. sensor or, if no FDR sensor, at selected, significant rudder pedal po- with reversible
Static control tests. sitions (encompassing significant rudder pedal position data points), control sys-
Rudder pedal position vs. force and acceptable to the NSPM, using a control surface protractor on the tems, surface
surface position calibration. ground. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force position data
gauge at the same rudder pedal position data points. acquisition
should be ac-
complished
with winds
less than 5
kts.
2.a.4. ................................................ Breakout data may be acquired with a hand held force gauge. The re-
Handling qualities. mainder of the force to the stops may be calculated if the force
Static control tests. gauge and a protractor are used to measure force after breakout for
Nosewheel steering force. at least 25% of the total displacement capability.
2.a.5. ................................................ Data may be acquired through the use of force pads on the rudder
Handling qualities. pedals and a pedal position measurement device, together with de-
Static control tests. sign data for nosewheel position.

Rudder pedal steering calibration.
282

Continued
B are not used.

and title
2.a.6. ................................................ Data may be acquired through calculations.

Handling qualities.
Static control tests.
Pitch trim indicator vs. surface posi-
tion calibration.
2.a.8. ................................................ Data may be acquired through the use of a temporary throttle quadrant
Handling qualities. scale to document throttle position. Use a synchronized video to
Static control tests. record steady state instrument readings or hand-record steady state
Alignment of power lever angle vs. engine performance readings.
selected engine parameter (e.g.,
EPR, N1, Torque, Manifold pres-
sure).
2.a.9. ................................................ Use of design or predicted data is acceptable. Data may be acquired
Handling qualities. by measuring deflection at ‘‘zero’’ and at ‘‘maximum.’’
Static control tests.
Brake pedal position vs. force.
2.c.1. ................................................ Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a Power change
Handling qualities. synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments, throttle po- dynamics test
Longitudinal control tests. sition, and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls. is acceptable
Power change force. using the
same data ac-
quisition
methodology.
2.c.2. ................................................ Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a Flap/slat change
Handling qualities. synchronized video of calibrated airplane instruments, flap/slat posi- dynamics test
Longitudinal control tests. tion, and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls. is acceptable
Flap/slat change force. using the
same data ac-
quisition
methodology.
2.c.4. ................................................ Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a Gear change dy-
Handling qualities. synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments, gear posi- namics test is
Longitudinal control tests. tion, and the force/position measurements of flight deck controls. acceptable
Gear change force. using the
same data ac-
quisition
methodology.
2.c.5. ................................................ Data may be acquired through use of an inertial measurement system
Handling qualities. and a synchronized video of flight deck controls position (previously
Longitudinal control tests. calibrated to show related surface position) and engine instrument
Longitudinal trim. readings.
2.c.6. ................................................ Data may be acquired through the use of an inertial measurement sys-
Handling qualities. tem and a synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments;
Longitudinal control tests. a temporary, high resolution bank angle scale affixed to the attitude
Longitudinal maneuvering stability indicator; and a wheel and column force measurement indication.
(stick force/g).
2.c.7. ................................................ Data may be acquired through the use of a synchronized video of the
Handling qualities. airplane flight instruments and a hand held force gauge.
Longitudinal control tests.
Longitudinal static stability
2.c.8. ................................................ Data may be acquired through a synchronized video recording of a Airspeeds may
Handling qualities. stop watch and the calibrated airplane airspeed indicator. Hand- be cross
Longitudinal control tests. record the flight conditions and airplane configuration. checked with
Stall Warning (activation of stall those in the
warning device). TIR and AFM.
283

Continued
B are not used.

and title
2.c.9.a. ............................................. Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a
Handling qualities. synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments and the
Longitudinal control tests. force/position measurements of flight deck controls.
Phugoid dynamics.
2.c.10. .............................................. Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a
Longitudinal control tests. force/position measurements of flight deck controls.
Short period dynamics.
2.c.11. .............................................. May use design data, production flight test schedule, or maintenance
Handling qualities. specification, together with an SOC.
Longitudinal control tests.
Gear and flap/slat operating times.
2.d.2. ................................................ Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a
Lateral directional tests. force/position measurements of flight deck lateral controls.
Roll response (rate).
Lateral directional tests. force/position measurements of flight deck lateral controls.
(a) Roll overshoot.
OR
(b) Roll response to flight deck roll
controller step input.
Handling qualities. synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments; the force/
Lateral directional tests. position measurements of flight deck controls; and a stop watch.
Spiral stability.
2.d.6.a. ............................................. Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system and a
Handling qualities. synchronized video of the calibrated airplane instruments; the force/
Lateral directional tests. position measurements of rudder pedals.
Rudder response.
Lateral directional tests. force/position measurements of flight deck controls.
Dutch roll, (yaw damper OFF).
Lateral directional tests. force/position measurements of flight deck controls.
Steady state sideslip.
ATTACHMENT 3 TO APPENDIX B TO PART 60— each required maneuver, procedure, or task;

FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE (FTD) SUBJECTIVE and verifying correct operation of the FTD
EVALUATION controls, instruments, and systems. The
llllllllllllllllllllllll tasks do not limit or exceed the authoriza-
tions for use of a given level of FTD as de-
BEGIN INFORMATION scribed on the SOQ or as approved by the
TPAA. All items in the following paragraphs
1. DISCUSSION are subject to examination.
a. The subjective tests provide a basis for b. All simulated airplane systems func-
evaluating the capability of the FTD to per- tions will be assessed for normal and, where
form over a typical utilization period. The appropriate, alternate operations. Simulated
items listed in the Table of Functions and airplane systems are listed separately under
Subjective Tests are used to determine ‘‘Any Flight Phase’’ to ensure appropriate
whether the FTD competently simulates attention to systems checks. Operational
284
navigation systems (including inertial navi- evaluation. Such an assessment may include
gation systems, global positioning systems, a portion of a specific operation (e.g., a Line
or other long-range systems) and the associ- Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) scenario)
ated electronic display systems will be eval- or special emphasis items in the sponsor’s
uated if installed. The NSP pilot will include training program. Unless directly related to
in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the a requirement for the qualification level, the
system operation and any system limitation. results of such an evaluation would not af-
c. At the request of the TPAA, the NSP fect the qualification of the FTD.
Pilot may assess the FTD for a special as-
END INFORMATION
pect of a sponsor’s training program during
the functions and subjective portion of an llllllllllllllllllllllll
TABLE B3A—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 6 FTD

QPS requirements
Entry No. Operations tasks
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the airplane system or systems simulated as indicated in the SOQ
Configuration List as defined in Appendix B, Attachment 2 of this part.
1. Preflight
Accomplish a functions check of all installed switches, indicators, systems, and equipment at all crewmembers’
and instructors’ stations, and determine that the flight deck (or flight deck area) design and functions replicate
the appropriate airplane.
2. Surface Operations (pre-takeoff)
2.a. ............ Engine start:
2.a.1. ......... Normal start.
2.a.2. ......... Alternative procedures start.
2.a.3. ......... Abnormal procedures start/shut down.
2.b. ............ Pushback/Powerback (powerback requires visual system).
3. Takeoff (requires appropriate visual system as set out in Table B1A, item 6; Appendix B, Attachment 1.)
3.a. ............ Instrument takeoff:
3.a.1. ......... Engine checks (e.g., engine parameter relationships, propeller/mixture controls).
3.a.2. ......... Acceleration characteristics.
3.a.3. ......... Nosewheel/rudder steering.
3.a.4. ......... Landing gear, wing flap, leading edge device operation.
3.b. ............ Rejected takeoff:
3.b.1. ......... Deceleration characteristics.
3.b.2. ......... Brakes/engine reverser/ground spoiler operation.
3.b.3. ......... Nosewheel/rudder steering.
4. In-Flight Operations
4.a. ............ Normal climb.
4.b. ............ Cruise:
4.b.1. ......... Demonstration of performance characteristics (speed vs. power).
4.b.2. ......... Normal turns.
4.b.3. ......... Demonstration of high altitude handling.
4.b.4. ......... Demonstration of high airspeed handling/overspeed warning.

4.b.5. ......... Demonstration of Mach effects on control and trim.
285
TABLE B3A—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 6 FTD—Continued

QPS requirements
4.b.6. ......... Steep turns.
4.b.7. ......... In-Flight engine shutdown (procedures only).
4.b.8. ......... In-Flight engine restart (procedures only).
4.b.9. ......... Specific flight characteristics.
4.b.10. ....... Response to loss of flight control power.
4.b.11. ....... Response to other flight control system failure modes.
4.b.12. ....... Operations during icing conditions.
4.b.13. ....... Effects of airframe/engine icing.
4.c. ............ Other flight phase:
4.c.1. ......... Approach to stalls in the following configurations:
4.c.1.a. ...... Cruise.
4.c.1.b. ...... Takeoff or approach.
4.c.1.c. ...... Landing.
4.c.2. ......... High angle of attack maneuvers in the following configurations:
4.c.2.a. ...... Cruise.
4.c.2.b. ...... Takeoff or approach.
4.c.2.c. ...... Landing.
4.c.3. ......... Slow flight.
4.c.4. ......... Holding.
5. Approaches
5.a. Non-precision Instrument Approaches:
5.a.1. ......... With use of autopilot and autothrottle, as applicable.
5.a.2. ......... Without use of autopilot and autothrottle, as applicable.
5.a.3. ......... With 10 knot tail wind.
5.a.4. ......... With 10 knot crosswind.
5.b. ............ Precision Instrument Approaches:
5.b.1. ......... With use of autopilot, autothrottle, and autoland, as applicable.
5.b.2. ......... Without use of autopilot, autothrottle, and autoland, as applicable.
5.b.3. ......... With 10 knot tail wind.
5.b.4. ......... With 10 knot crosswind.
6. Missed Approach
6.a. ............ Manually controlled.
6.b. ............ Automatically controlled (if applicable).
7. Any Flight Phase, as appropriate
7.a. ............ Normal system operation (installed systems).

7.b. ............ Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed systems).
286
TABLE B3A—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 6 FTD—Continued

QPS requirements
7.c. ............ Flap operation.
7.d. ............ Landing gear operation.
7.e. ............ Engine Shutdown and Parking.
7.e.1. ......... Systems operation.
7.e.2. ......... Parking brake operation.
8. Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate. Functions in this section are subject to evaluation only if appropriate
for the airplane and/or installed on the specific FTD involved
8.a. ............ Power Switch(es).
8.b. ............ Airplane conditions.
8.b.1. ......... Gross weight, center of gravity, and fuel loading and allocation.
8.b.2. ......... Airplane systems status.
8.b.3. ......... Ground crew functions (e.g., external power, push back).
8.c. ............ Airports.
8.c.1. ......... Selection.
8.c.2. ......... Runway selection.
8.c.3. ......... Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over FAF).
8.d. ............ Environmental controls.
8.d.1. ......... Temperature.
8.d.2. ......... Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).
8.d.3. ......... Wind speed and direction.
8.e. ............ Airplane system malfunctions.
8.e.1. ......... Insertion/deletion.
8.e.2. ......... Problem clear.
8.f. ............. Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
8.f.1. .......... Problem (all) freeze/release.
8.f.2. .......... Position (geographic) freeze/release.
8.f.3. .......... Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases).
8.f.4. .......... Ground speed control.
8.f.5. .......... Remote IOS, if installed.
9. Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment
10. Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/emergency stop.
11. Observer Stations.
11.a. .......... Position.
11.b. .......... Adjustments.

287
TABLE B3B—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 5 FTD

QPS requirements
Operations tasks
Entry No. Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the airplane system or systems simulated as indi-
cated in the SOQ Configuration List as defined in Appendix B, Attachment 2 of this part.
1. Preflight
Accomplish a functions check of all installed switches, indicators, systems, and equipment at all crewmembers’
and instructors’ stations, and determine that the flight deck (or flight deck area) design and functions replicate
the appropriate airplane.
2. Surface Operations (pre-takeoff)
2.a. ............ Engine start (if installed):
2.a.1. ......... Normal start.
2.a.2. ......... Alternative procedures start.
2.a.3. ......... Abnormal/Emergency procedures start/shut down.
3. In-Flight Operations
3.a. ............ Normal climb.
3.b. ............ Cruise:
3.b.1. ......... Performance characteristics (speed vs. power).
3.b.2. ......... Normal turns.
3.c. ............ Normal descent.
4. Approaches
4.a. ............ Coupled instrument approach maneuvers (as applicable for the systems installed).
5. Any Flight Phase
5.a. ............ Normal system operation (Installed systems).
5.b. ............ Abnormal/Emergency system operation (Installed systems).
5.c. ............ Flap operation.
5.d. ............ Landing gear operation
5.e. ............ Engine Shutdown and Parking (if installed).
5.e.1. ......... Systems operation.
5.e.2. ......... Parking brake operation.
6. Instructor Operating Station (IOS)
6.a. ............ Power Switch(es).
6.b. ............ Preset positions—ground, air.
6.c. ............ Airplane system malfunctions (Installed systems).
6.c.1. ......... Insertion/deletion.
6.c.2. ......... Problem clear.

288
TABLE B3C—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 4 FTD

QPS requirements
Operations tasks
Entry No. Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the airplane system or systems simulated as indi-
cated in the SOQ Configuration List as defined in Appendix B, Attachment 2 of this part.
1. ............... Level 4 FTDs are required to have at least one operational system. The NSPM will accomplish a functions check
of all installed systems, switches, indicators, and equipment at all crewmembers’ and instructors’ stations, and
determine that the flight deck (or flight deck area) design and functions replicate the appropriate airplane.
289
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ATTACHMENT 4 TO APPENDIX B TO PART 60— Figure B4D Sample Qualification Test

SAMPLE DOCUMENTS Guide Cover Page
Figure B4E Sample Statement of Qualifica-
tion—Certificate
BEGIN INFORMATION Figure B4F Sample Statement of Qualifica-
tion—Configuration List
TABLE OF CONTENTS Figure B4G Sample Statement of Qualifica-
tion—List of Qualified Tasks
Title of Sample Figure B4H Sample Continuing Qualifica-
Figure B4A Sample Letter, Request for Ini- tion Evaluation Requirements Page
tial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evalua- Figure B4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective
tion FTD Directives
Figure B4B Attachment: FTD Information
Form
Figure B4C Sample Letter of Compliance
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT Pt. 60, App. C
[Doc. No. FAA–2002–12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Docket FAA–2014–0391,

Amdt. 60–4, 81 FR 18306, 18307, 18327, and 18376, Mar. 30, 2016; 81 FR 32087, 32110, 32111, and 32165,
May 20, 2016; Amdt. 60–6, 83 FR 30275, June 27, 2018]
8. FFS Use (§ 60.11).

9. FFS Objective Data Requirements (§ 60.13).
APPENDIX C TO PART 60—QUALIFICATION 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Re-
PERFORMANCE STANDARDS FOR HEL- quirements for Qualification of the FFS
ICOPTER FULL FLIGHT SIMULATORS (§ 60.14).
11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Re-
llllllllllllllllllllllll quirements (§ 60.15).
12. Additional Qualifications for a Currently
BEGIN INFORMATION Qualified FFS (§ 60.16).
13. Previously Qualified FFSs (§ 60.17).
This appendix establishes the standards for
14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification
Helicopter FFS evaluation and qualification.
Evaluation, and Maintenance Require-
The NSPM is responsible for the develop-
ments (§ 60.19).
ment, application, and implementation of
15. Logging FFS Discrepancies (§ 60.20).
the standards contained within this appen-
16. Interim Qualification of FFSs for New
dix. The procedures and criteria specified in
Helicopter Types or Models (§ 60.21).
this appendix will be used by the NSPM, or
17. Modifications to FFSs (§ 60.23).
a person assigned by the NSPM, when con-
18. Operations with Missing, Malfunctioning,
ducting helicopter FFS evaluations.
or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25).
TABLE OF CONTENTS 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Pro-
cedures for Restoration of Qualification
1. Introduction. (§ 60.27).
2. Applicability (§ 60.1) and (§ 60.2). 20. Other Losses of Qualification and Proce-
3. Definitions (§ 60.3). dures for Restoration of Qualification
4. Qualification Performance Standards (§ 60.29).
(§ 60.4). 21. Record Keeping and Reporting (§ 60.31).
5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5). 22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and
6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incor-
(§ 60.7). rect Statements (§ 60.33).

7. Additional Responsibilities of the Sponsor 23. [Reserved]
(§ 60.9). 24. [Reserved]
315
ER09MY08.033</GPH>
Pt. 60, App. C 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
25. FFS Qualification on the Basis of a Bilat- electronic media used must have adequate
eral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) security provisions and be acceptable to the
(§ 60.37). NSPM. The NSPM recommends inquiries on
Attachment 1 to Appendix C to Part 60—Gen- system compatibility, and minimum system
eral Simulator Requirements. requirements are also included on the NSP
Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60—FFS Web site.
Objective Tests. d. Related Reading References.
Attachment 3 to Appendix C to Part 60— (1) 14 CFR part 60.
Simulator Subjective Evaluation. (2) 14 CFR part 61.
Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60— (3) 14 CFR part 63.
Sample Documents. (4) 14 CFR part 119.
Attachment 5 to Appendix C to Part 60—
(5) 14 CFR part 121.
FSTD Directives Applicable to Heli-
(6) 14 CFR part 125.
copter FFSs
(7) 14 CFR part 135.
END INFORMATION (8) 14 CFR part 141.
(9) 14 CFR part 142.
(10) AC 120–35, as amended, Line Oper-
1. INTRODUCTION ational Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight
Training, Special Purpose Operational
llllllllllllllllllllllll Training, Line Operational Evaluation.
BEGIN INFORMATION (11) AC 120–57, as amended, Surface Move-
ment Guidance and Control System
a. This appendix contains background in- (SMGCS).
formation as well as regulatory and inform- (12) AC 120–63, as amended, Helicopter Sim-
ative material as described later in this sec- ulator Qualification.
tion. To assist the reader in determining (13) AC 150/5300–13, as amended, Airport De-
what areas are required and what areas are sign.
permissive, the text in this appendix is di- (14) AC 150/5340–1, as amended, Standards
vided into two sections: ‘‘QPS Require- for Airport Markings.
ments’’ and ‘‘Information.’’ The QPS Re- (15) AC 150/5340–4, as amended, Installation
quirements sections contain details regard- Details for Runway Centerline Touchdown
ing compliance with the part 60 rule lan- Zone Lighting Systems.
guage. These details are regulatory, but are
(16) AC 150/5340–19, as amended, Taxiway
found only in this appendix. The Information
Centerline Lighting System.
sections contain material that is advisory in
(17) AC 150/5340–24, as amended, Runway
nature, and designed to give the user general
and Taxiway Edge Lighting System.
information about the regulation.
b. Questions regarding the contents of this (18) AC 150/5345–28, as amended, Precision
publication should be sent to the U.S. De- Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Systems
partment of Transportation, Federal Avia- (19) AC 150/5390–2, as amended, Heliport De-
tion Administration, Flight Standards Serv- sign
ice, National Simulator Program Staff, (20) International Air Transport Associa-
AFS–205, 100 Hartsfield Centre Parkway, tion document, ‘‘Flight Simulator Design
Suite 400, Atlanta, Georgia, 30354. Telephone and Performance Data Requirements,’’ as
contact numbers for the NSP are: phone, 404– amended.
832–4700; fax, 404–761–8906. The general e-mail (21) AC 29–2, as amended, Flight Test Guide
address for the NSP office is: 9-aso-avr-sim- for Certification of Transport Category
team@faa.gov. The NSP Internet Web site ad- Rotorcraft.
dress is: http://www.faa.gov/safety/pro- (22) AC 27–1, as amended, Flight Test Guide
gramslinitiatives/aircraftlaviation/nsp/. On for Certification of Normal Category Rotor-
this Web Site you will find an NSP personnel craft.
list with telephone and e-mail contact infor- (23) International Civil Aviation Organiza-
mation for each NSP staff member, a list of tion (ICAO) Manual of Criteria for the Quali-
qualified flight simulation devices, ACs, a fication of Flight Simulators, as amended.
description of the qualification process, NSP (24) Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation
policy, and an NSP ‘‘In-Works’’ section. Also Handbook, Volume I, as amended and Vol-
linked from this site are additional informa- ume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical
tion sources, handbook bulletins, frequently Society, London, UK.
asked questions, a listing and text of the (25) FAA Airman Testing Standards for the
Federal Aviation Regulations, Flight Stand- Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, Type
ards Inspector’s handbooks, and other FAA Ratings, Commercial Pilot Certificate, and
links. Instrument Ratings.
c. The NSPM encourages the use of elec- (26) The FAA Aeronautical Information
tronic media for all communication, includ- Manual (AIM). An electronic version of the
ing any record, report, request, test, or AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/
statement required by this appendix. The atpubs.
316
(27) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) doc- BEGIN INFORMATION
ument number 436, titled Guidelines For Elec-
tronic Qualification Test Guide (as amended). a. The intent of the language in § 60.7(b) is
to have a specific FFS, identified by the
(28) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) doc-
sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-ap-
ument 610, Guidance for Design and Integra-
proved flight training program for the heli-
tion of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simula-
copter simulated during the 12-month period
tors (as amended).
described. The identification of the specific
END INFORMATION FFS may change from one 12-month period
to the next 12-month period as long as that
llllllllllllllllllllllll sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FFS
at least once during the prescribed period.
2. APPLICABILITY (§§ 60.1 AND 60.2) There is no minimum number of hours or
llllllllllllllllllllllll minimum FFS periods required.
b. The following examples describe accept-
BEGIN INFORMATION able operational practices:
No additional regulatory or informational (1) Example One.
material applies to § 60.1, Applicability, or to (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, spe-
§ 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to person cific FFS for its own use, in its own facility
who are not sponsors and who are engaged in or elsewhere—this single FFS forms the
certain unauthorized activities. basis for the sponsorship. The sponsor uses
that FFS at least once in each 12-month pe-
END INFORMATION riod in that sponsor’s FAA-approved flight
training program for the helicopter simu-
lated. This 12-month period is established ac-
3. DEFINITIONS (§ 60.3) cording to the following schedule:
(i) If the FFS was qualified prior to May 30,
llllllllllllllllllllllll 2008, the 12-month period begins on the date
of the first continuing qualification evalua-
BEGIN INFORMATION tion conducted in accordance with § 60.19
See Appendix F of this part for a list of after May 30, 2008, and continues for each
definitions and abbreviations from part 1 and subsequent 12-month period;
part 60, including the appropriate appendices (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30,
of part 60. 2008, will be required to undergo an initial or
upgrade evaluation in accordance with
END INFORMATION § 60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation
llllllllllllllllllllllll is complete, the first continuing qualifica-
tion evaluation will be conducted within 6
4. QUALIFICATION PERFORMANCE STANDARDS months. The 12 month continuing qualifica-
(§ 60.4) tion evaluation cycle begins on that date and
continues for each subsequent 12-month pe-
llllllllllllllllllllllll riod.
BEGIN INFORMATION (b) There is no minimum number of hours
of FFS use required.
No additional regulatory or informational (c) The identification of the specific FFS
material applies to § 60.4, Qualification Per- may change from one 12-month period to the
formance Standards. next 12-month period as long as that sponsor
sponsors and uses at least one FFS at least
END INFORMATION once during the prescribed period.
llllllllllllllllllllllll (2) Example Two.
(a) A sponsor sponsors an additional num-
5. QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (§ 60.5) ber of FFSs, in its facility or elsewhere.
llllllllllllllllllllllll Each additionally sponsored FFS must be—
(i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor’s
BEGIN INFORMATION FAA-approved flight training program for
the helicopter simulated (as described in
See Appendix E of this part for additional
§ 60.7(d)(1)); or
regulatory and informational material re-
(ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder
garding Quality Management Systems.
END INFORMATION proved flight training program for the heli-
copter simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)).
llllllllllllllllllllllll This 12-month period is established in the
same manner as in example one; or
6. SPONSOR QUALIFICATION REQUIREMENTS

(§ 60.7)
qualified pilot, (after having flown the heli-
llllllllllllllllllllllll copter, not the subject FFS or another FFS,
317
during the preceding 12-month period) stat- END INFORMATION
ing that the subject FFS’s performance and
handling qualities represent the helicopter
(as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is 9. FFS OBJECTIVE DATA REQUIREMENTS
provided at least once in each 12-month pe- (§ 60.13)
riod established in the same manner as in ex-
ample one. llllllllllllllllllllllll
(b) There is no minimum number of hours BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS
of FFS use required.
(3) Example Three. a. Flight test data used to validate FFS
(a) A sponsor in New York (in this exam- performance and handling qualities must
ple, a Part 142 certificate holder) establishes have been gathered in accordance with a
‘‘satellite’’ training centers in Chicago and flight test program containing the following:
Moscow. (1) A flight test plan consisting of:
(b) The satellite function means that the (a) The maneuvers and procedures required
Chicago and Moscow centers must operate for aircraft certification and simulation pro-
under the New York center’s certificate (in gramming and validation
accordance with all of the New York center’s (b) For each maneuver or procedure—
practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., in- (i) The procedures and control input the
structor and/or technician training/checking flight test pilot and/or engineer used.
requirements, record keeping, QMS pro- (ii) The atmospheric and environmental
gram). conditions.
(c) All of the FFSs in the Chicago and Mos- (iii) The initial flight conditions.
cow centers could be dry-leased (i.e., the cer- (iv) The helicopter configuration, includ-
tificate holder does not have and use FAA- ing weight and center of gravity.
approved flight training programs for the (v) The data to be gathered.
(vi) All other information necessary to
FFSs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) be-
recreate the flight test conditions in the
cause—
FFS.
(i) Each FFS in the Chicago center and
(2) Appropriately qualified flight test per-
each FFS in the Moscow center is used at
sonnel.
least once each 12-month period by another
(3) An understanding of the accuracy of the
FAA certificate holder in that other certifi-
data to be gathered using appropriate alter-
cate holder’s FAA-approved flight training
native data sources, procedures, and instru-
program for the helicopter (as described in
mentation that is traceable to a recognized
§ 60.7(d)(1)); OR
standard as described in Attachment 2, Table
(ii) A statement is obtained from a quali-
C2D of this appendix.
fied pilot (having flown the helicopter, not
(4) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisi-
the subject FFS or another FFS during the
tion equipment or system(s), including ap-
preceding 12-month period) stating that the
propriate data reduction and analysis meth-
performance and handling qualities of each
ods and techniques, acceptable to the FAA’s
FFS in the Chicago and Moscow centers rep-
Aircraft Certification Service.
resents the helicopter (as described in b. The data, regardless of source, must be
§ 60.7(d)(2)). presented:
END INFORMATION (1) In a format that supports the FFS vali-
dation process;
llllllllllllllllllllllll (2) In a manner that is clearly readable and
7. Additional Responsibilities of the Spon- annotated correctly and completely;
sor (§ 60.9). (3) With resolution sufficient to determine
compliance with the tolerances set forth in
BEGIN INFORMATION Attachment 2, Table C2A of this appendix.
The phrase ‘‘as soon as practicable’’ in (4) With any necessary instructions or
§ 60.9(a) means without unnecessarily dis- other details provided, such as Stability
rupting or delaying beyond a reasonable Augmentation System (SAS) or throttle po-
time the training, evaluation, or experience sition; and
being conducted in the FFS. (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or
END INFORMATION known data calibration errors provided that
an explanation of the methods used to cor-
rect the errors appears in the QTG. The cor-
8. FFS USE (§ 60.11) rected data may be re-scaled, digitized, or
otherwise manipulated to fit the desired
llllllllllllllllllllllll presentation.
c. After completion of any additional flight
BEGIN INFORMATION
test, a flight test report must be submitted

No additional regulatory or informational in support of the validation data. The report
material applies to § 60.11, FFS Use. must contain sufficient data and rationale to
318
support qualification of the FFS at the level methods require further explanations. It
requested. should also provide a brief narrative describ-
d. As required by § 60.13(f), the sponsor ing the cause and effect of any deviation
must notify the NSPM when it becomes from data requirements. The aircraft manu-
aware that an addition to, an amendment to, facturer may provide this document.
or a revision of data that may relate to FFS h. There is no requirement for any flight
performance or handling characteristics is test data supplier to submit a flight test
available. The data referred to in this para- plan or program prior to gathering flight
graph is data used to validate the perform- test data. However, the NSPM notes that in-
ance, handling qualities, or other character- experienced data gatherers often provide
istics of the aircraft, including data related data that is irrelevant, improperly marked,
to any relevant changes occurring after the or lacking adequate justification for selec-
type certificate was issued. The sponsor tion. Other problems include inadequate in-
must— formation regarding initial conditions or
(1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the test maneuvers. The NSPM has been forced
NSPM of the existence of this data; and to refuse these data submissions as valida-
(2) Within 45 calendar days, notify the tion data for an FFS evaluation. It is for this
NSPM of— reason that the NSPM recommends that any
(a) The schedule to incorporate this data data supplier not previously experienced in
into the FFS; or this area review the data necessary for pro-
(b) The reason for not incorporating this gramming and for validating the perform-
data into the FFS. ance of the FFS, and discuss the flight test
e. In those cases where the objective test plan anticipated for acquiring such data with
results authorize a ‘‘snapshot test’’ or a ‘‘se- the NSPM well in advance of commencing
ries of snapshot test results’’ in lieu of a the flight tests.
time-history result, the sponsor or other i. The NSPM will consider, on a case-by-
data provider must ensure that a steady case basis, whether to approve supplemental
state condition exists at the instant of time validation data derived from flight data re-
captured by the ‘‘snapshot.’’ The steady cording systems such as a Quick Access Re-
state condition must exist from 4 seconds corder or Flight Data Recorder.
stant of time captured by the snap shot. END INFORMATION
END QPS REQUIREMENTS 10. SPECIAL EQUIPMENT AND PERSONNEL RE-
QUIREMENTS FOR QUALIFICATION OF THE FFS
(§ 60.14)
BEGIN INFORMATION llllllllllllllllllllllll
f. The FFS sponsor is encouraged to main-
tain a liaison with the manufacturer of the BEGIN INFORMATION
aircraft being simulated (or with the holder a. In the event that the NSPM determines
of the aircraft type certificate for the air- that special equipment or specifically quali-
craft being simulated if the manufacturer is fied persons will be required to conduct an
no longer in business), and, if appropriate, evaluation, the NSPM will make every at-
with the person who supplied the aircraft tempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1)
data package for the FFS in order to facili- week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in
tate the notification required by § 60.13(f). advance of the evaluation. Examples of spe-
g. It is the intent of the NSPM that for cial equipment include spot photometers,
new aircraft entering service, at a point well flight control measurement devices, and
in advance of preparation of the QTG, the sound analyzers. Examples of specially quali-
sponsor should submit to the NSPM for ap- fied personnel include individuals specifi-
proval, a descriptive document (see Table cally qualified to install or use any special
C2D, Sample Validation Data Roadmap for equipment when its use is required.
Helicopters) containing the plan for acquir- b. Examples of a special evaluation include
ing the validation data, including data an evaluation conducted after an FFS is
sources. This document should clearly iden- moved, at the request of the TPAA, or as a
tify sources of data for all required tests, a result of comments received from users of
description of the validity of these data for a the FFS that raise questions about the con-
specific engine type and thrust rating continued qualification or use of the FFS.
figuration, and the revision levels of all avi-
onics affecting the performance or flying END INFORMATION
qualities of the aircraft. Additionally, this
document should provide other information, llllllllllllllllllllllll
such as the rationale or explanation for
11. INITIAL (AND UPGRADE) QUALIFICATION
cases where data or data parameters are

REQUIREMENTS (§ 60.15)
missing, instances where engineering sim-
ulation data are used or where flight test llllllllllllllllllllllll
319
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS fication evaluations must be conducted and
any subsequent changes that may be deter-
a. In order to be qualified at a particular
mined by the NSPM in accordance with
qualification level, the FFS must:
§ 60.19. See Attachment 4 of this appendix,
(1) Meet the general requirements listed in
Figure C4G, for a sample Continuing Quali-
Attachment 1 of this appendix;
fication Evaluation Requirements page.
(2) Meet the objective testing requirements
(3) An FFS information page that provides
listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix; and
(3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjec- the information listed in this paragraph (see
tive tests listed in Attachment 3 of this ap- Attachment 4, Figure C4B, of this appendix
pendix. for a sample FFS information page). For
b. The request described in § 60.15(a) must convertible FFSs, the sponsor must submit a
include all of the following: separate page for each configuration of the
(1) A statement that the FFS meets all of FFS.
the applicable provisions of this part and all (a) The sponsor’s FFS identification num-
applicable provisions of the QPS. ber or code.
(2) A confirmation that the sponsor will (b) The helicopter model and series being
forward to the NSPM the statement de- simulated.
scribed in § 60.15(b) in such time as to be re- (c) The aerodynamic data revision number
ceived no later than 5 business days prior to or reference.
the scheduled evaluation and may be for- (d) The source of the basic aerodynamic
warded to the NSPM via traditional or elec- model and the aerodynamic coefficient data
tronic means. used to modify the basic model.
(3) A QTG, acceptable to the NSPM, that (e) The engine model(s) and its data revi-
includes all of the following: sion number or reference.
(a) Objective data obtained from aircraft (f) The flight control data revision number
testing or another approved source. or reference.
(b) Correlating objective test results ob- (g) The flight management system identi-
tained from the performance of the FFS as fication and revision level.
prescribed in the appropriate QPS. (h) The FFS model and manufacturer.
(c) The result of FFS subjective tests pre- (i) The date of FFS manufacture.
scribed in the appropriate QPS. (j) The FFS computer identification.
(d) A description of the equipment nec- (k) The visual system model and manufac-
essary to perform the evaluation for initial turer, including display type.
qualification and the continuing qualifica- (l) The motion system type and manufac-
tion evaluations. turer, including degrees of freedom.
c. The QTG described in paragraph (a)(3) of (4) A Table of Contents.
this section, must provide the documented (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective
proof of compliance with the simulator ob- pages.
jective tests in Attachment 2, Table C2A of (6) List of all relevant data references.
this appendix. (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used
d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by (including sign conventions and units).
the sponsor, or the sponsor’s agent on behalf (8) Statements of compliance and capa-
of the sponsor, to the NSPM for review and bility (SOCs) with certain requirements.
approval, and must include, for each objec- (9) Recording procedures or equipment re-
tive test: quired to accomplish the objective tests.
(1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight con- (10) The following information for each ob-
ditions. jective test designated in Attachment 2 of
(2) Pertinent and complete instructions for this appendix, Table C2A, as applicable to
the conduct of automatic and manual tests. the qualification level sought:
(3) A means of comparing the FFS test re- (a) Name of the test.
sults to the objective data. (b) Objective of the test.
(4) Any other information as necessary, to (c) Initial conditions.
assist in the evaluation of the test results. (d) Manual test procedures.
(5) Other information appropriate to the (e) Automatic test procedures (if applica-
qualification level of the FFS. ble).
e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3) (f) Method for evaluating FFS objective
and (b) of this section, must include the fol- test results.
lowing: (g) List of all relevant parameters driven
(1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and or constrained during the automatically con-
FAA approval signature blocks (see Attach- ducted test(s).
ment 4, Figure C4C, of this appendix, for a (h) List of all relevant parameters driven
sample QTG cover page). or constrained during the manually con-
(2) A continuing qualification evaluation ducted test(s).
schedule requirements page. This page will (i) Tolerances for relevant parameters.
be used by the NSPM to establish and record (j) Source of Validation Data (document
the frequency with which continuing quali- and page number).
320
(k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located erating in an interactive manner. The test
in a separate binder, a cross reference for the results must be submitted to the NSPM.
identification and page number for pertinent i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the
data location must be provided). MQTG at the FFS location.
(l) Simulator Objective Test Results as ob- j. All FFSs for which the initial qualifica-
tained by the sponsor. Each test result must tion is conducted after May 30, 2014, must
reflect the date completed and must be have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including
clearly labeled as a product of the device all objective data obtained from helicopter
being tested. testing, or another approved source (refor-
f. A convertible FFS is addressed as a sepa- matted or digitized), together with corre-
rate FFS for each model and series heli- lating objective test results obtained from
copter to which it will be converted and for the performance of the FFS (reformatted or
the FAA qualification level sought. If a spon- digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The
sor seeks qualification for two or more mod- eMQTG must also contain the general FFS
els of a helicopter type using a convertible performance or demonstration results (refor-
FFS, the sponsor must submit a QTG for matted or digitized) prescribed in this appen-
each helicopter model, or a QTG for the first dix, and a description of the equipment nec-
helicopter model and a supplement to that essary to perform the initial qualification
QTG for each additional helicopter model. evaluation and the continuing qualification
The NSPM will conduct evaluations for each evaluations. The eMQTG must include the
helicopter model. original validation data used to validate
g. Form and manner of presentation of ob- FFS performance and handling qualities in
jective test results in the QTG: either the original digitized format from the
(1) The sponsor’s FFS test results must be data supplier or an electronic scan of the
recorded in a manner acceptable to the original time-history plots that were pro-
NSPM, that allows easy comparison of the vided by the data supplier. A copy of the
FFS test results to the validation data (e.g., eMQTG must be provided to the NSPM.
use of a multi-channel recorder, line printer, k. All other FFSs not covered in subpara-
cross plotting, overlays, transparencies). graph ‘‘j’’ must have an electronic copy of
(2) FFS results must be labeled using ter- the MQTG by May 30, 2014. An electronic
minology common to helicopter parameters copy of the MQTG must be provided to the
as opposed to computer software identifica- NSPM. This may be provided by an elec-
tions. tronic scan presented in a Portable Docu-
(3) Validation data documents included in ment File (PDF), or similar format accept-
a QTG may be photographically reduced only able to the NSPM.
if such reduction will not alter the graphic l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualifica-
scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpre- tion evaluation conducted by the NSPM, the
tation or resolution. sponsor must also provide a person who is a
(4) Scaling on graphical presentations user of the device (e.g., a qualified pilot or
must provide the resolution necessary to instructor pilot with flight time experience
evaluate the parameters shown in Attach- in that aircraft) and knowledgeable about
ment 2, Table C2A of this appendix. the operation of the aircraft and the oper-
(5) Tests involving time histories, data ation of the FFS.
sheets (or transparencies thereof) and FFS
test results must be clearly marked with ap- END QPS REQUIREMENTS
propriate reference points to ensure an accu-
rate comparison between the FFS and the
helicopter with respect to time. Time his- BEGIN INFORMATION
tories recorded via a line printer are to be
clearly identified for cross plotting on the m. Only those FFSs that are sponsored by
helicopter data. Over-plots must not obscure a certificate holder as defined in Appendix F
the reference data. of this part will be evaluated by the NSPM.
h. The sponsor may elect to complete the However, other FFS evaluations may be con-
QTG objective and subjective tests at the ducted on a case-by-case basis as the Admin-
manufacturer’s facility or at the sponsor’s istrator deems appropriate, but only in ac-
training facility. If the tests are conducted cordance with applicable agreements.
at the manufacturer’s facility, the sponsor n. The NSPM will conduct an evaluation
must repeat at least one-third of the tests at for each configuration, and each FFS must
the sponsor’s training facility in order to be evaluated as completely as possible. To
substantiate FFS performance. The QTG ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation,
must be clearly annotated to indicate when each FFS is subjected to the general simu-
and where each test was accomplished. Tests lator requirements in Attachment 1 of this
conducted at the manufacturer’s facility and appendix, the objective tests listed in At-
at the sponsor’s training facility must be tachment 2 of this appendix, and the subjec-
conducted after the FFS is assembled with tive tests listed in Attachment 3 of this ap-
systems and sub-systems functional and op- pendix. The evaluations described herein will
321
include, but not necessarily be limited to the the flight test was flown and way the data
following: was gathered and applied), data presen-
(1) Helicopter responses, including longitu- tations, and the applicable tolerances for
dinal and lateral-directional control re- each test.
sponses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix). q. In addition to the scheduled continuing
(2) Performance in authorized portions of qualification evaluation, each FFS is subject
the simulated helicopter’s operating enve- to evaluations conducted by the NSPM at
lope, to include tasks evaluated by the any time without prior notification to the
NSPM in the areas of surface operations, sponsor. Such evaluations would be accom-
takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and plished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring
landing as well as abnormal and emergency exclusive use of the FFS for the conduct of
operations (see Attachment 2 of this appen- objective and subjective tests and an exam-
dix). ination of functions) if the FFS is not being
(3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and used for flight crewmember training, testing,
Attachment 2 of this appendix). or checking. However, if the FFS were being
(4) Flight deck configuration (see Attach- used, the evaluation would be conducted in a
ment 1 of this appendix). non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive
(5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor evaluation will be conducted by the FFS
station functions checks (see Attachment 1 evaluator accompanying the check airman,
and Attachment 3 of this appendix). instructor, Aircrew Program Designee
(6) Helicopter systems and sub-systems (as (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the FFS
appropriate) as compared to the helicopter along with the student(s) and observing the
simulated (see Attachment 1 and Attach- operation of the FFS during the training,
ment 3 of this appendix). testing, or checking activities.
(7) FFS systems and sub-systems, includ- r. Problems with objective test results are
ing force cueing (motion), visual, and aural handled as follows:
(sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attach- (1) If a problem with an objective test re-
ment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix). sult is detected by the NSP evaluation team
may become hazardous to the occupants. The objective test do not support the level re-
sponsor may be subject to Occupational quested but do support a lower level, the
Safety and Health Administration require- NSPM may qualify the FFS at that lower
ments. level. For example, if a Level D evaluation is
o. The NSPM administers the objective and requested and the FFS fails to meet sound
subjective tests, which includes an examina- test tolerances, it could be qualified at Level
tion of functions. The tests include a quali- C.
tative assessment of the FFS by an NSP s. After an FFS is successfully evaluated,
pilot. The NSP evaluation team leader may the NSPM issues a certificate of qualifica-
assign other qualified personnel to assist in tion (COQ) to the sponsor. The NSPM rec-
accomplishing the functions examination ommends the FFS to the TPAA, who will ap-
and/or the objective and subjective tests per- prove the FFS for use in a flight training
formed during an evaluation when required. program. The COQ will be issued at the satis-
(1) Objective tests provide a basis for meas- factory conclusion of the initial or con-
uring and evaluating FFS performance and tinuing qualification evaluation and will list
determining compliance with the require- the tasks for which the FFS is qualified, ref-
ments of this part. erencing the tasks described in Table C1B in
(2) Subjective tests provide a basis for: Attachment 1 of this appendix. However, it is
(a) Evaluating the capability of the FFS to the sponsor’s responsibility to obtain TPAA
perform over a typical utilization period; approval prior to using the FFS in an FAA-
(b) Determining that the FFS satisfac- approved flight training program.
torily simulates each required task; t. Under normal circumstances, the NSPM
(c) Verifying correct operation of the FFS establishes a date for the initial or upgrade
controls, instruments, and systems; and evaluation within ten (10) working days after
(d) Demonstrating compliance with the re- determining that a complete QTG is accept-
quirements of this part. able. Unusual circumstances may warrant
p. The tolerances for the test parameters establishing an evaluation date before this
listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix re- determination is made. A sponsor may
flect the range of tolerances acceptable to schedule an evaluation date as early as 6
the NSPM for FFS validation and are not to months in advance. However, there may be a
be confused with design tolerances specified delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and
for FFS manufacture. In making decisions completing the evaluation if the sponsor is
regarding tests and test results, the NSPM unable to meet the scheduled date. See At-
relies on the use of operational and engineer- tachment 4, of this appendix, Figure C4A,
ing judgment in the application of data (in- Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Re-
cluding consideration of the way in which instatement Evaluation.
322
u. The numbering system used for objec- c. After May 30, 2009, each visual scene or
tive test results in the QTG should closely airport model beyond the minimum required
follow the numbering system set out in At- for the FFS qualification level that is in-
tachment 2, FFS Objective Tests, Table C2A stalled in and available for use in a qualified
of this appendix. FFS must meet the requirements described
v. Contact the NSPM or visit the NSPM in Attachment 3 of this appendix.
Web site for additional information regard- d. Simulators qualified prior to May 30,
ing the preferred qualifications of pilots used 2008, may be updated. If an evaluation is
to meet the requirements of § 60.15(d). deemed appropriate or necessary by the
w. Examples of the exclusions for which
NSPM after such an update, the evaluation
the FFS might not have been subjectively
will not require an evaluation to standards
tested by the sponsor or the NSPM and for
which qualification might not be sought or
granted, as described in § 60.15(g)(6), include was originally qualified.
takeoffs and landing from slopes and pin- END QPS REQUIREMENTS
nacles.
END INFORMATION
llllllllllllllllllllllll BEGIN INFORMATION
12. ADDITIONAL QUALIFICATIONS FOR A e. Other certificate holders or persons de-

CURRENTLY QUALIFIED FFS (§ 60.16) siring to use an FFS may contract with FFS
sponsors to use FFSs previously qualified at
No additional regulatory or informational a particular level for a helicopter type and
material applies to § 60.16, Additional Quali- approved for use within an FAA-approved
fications for a Currently Qualified FFS. flight training program. Such FFSs are not
required to undergo an additional qualifica-
13. PREVIOUSLY QUALIFIED FFSS (§ 60.17)
llllllllllllllllllllllll f. Each FFS user must obtain approval
from the appropriate TPAA to use any FFS
in an FAA-approved flight training program.
a. In instances where a sponsor plans to re- g. The intent of the requirement listed in
move an FFS from active status for a period § 60.17(b), for each FFS to have an SOQ with-
of less than two years, the following proce- in 6 years, is to have the availability of that
dures apply: statement (including the configuration list
(1) The NSPM must be notified in writing and the limitations to authorizations) to
and the notification must include an esti- provide a complete picture of the FFS inven-
mate of the period that the FFS will be inac- tory regulated by the FAA. The issuance of
tive. the statement will not require any addi-
(2) Continuing Qualification evaluations tional evaluation or require any adjustment
will not be scheduled during the inactive pe- to the evaluation basis for the FFS.
riod.
h. Downgrading of an FFS is a permanent
(3) The NSPM will remove the FFS from
change in qualification level and will neces-
the list of qualified FSTDs on a mutually es-
sitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to re-
tablished date not later than the date on
which the first missed continuing qualifica- flect the revised qualification level, as ap-
tion evaluation would have been scheduled. propriate. If a temporary restriction is
(4) Before the FFS is restored to qualified placed on an FFS because of a missing, mal-
status, it must be evaluated by the NSPM. functioning, or inoperative component or on-
The evaluation content and the time re- going repairs, the restriction is not a perma-
quired to accomplish the evaluation is based nent change in qualification level. Instead,
on the number of continuing qualification the restriction is temporary and is removed
evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly when the reason for the restriction has been
inspections missed during the period of inac- resolved.
tivity. i. The NSPM will determine the evaluation
(5) The sponsor must notify the NSPM of criteria for an FFS that has been removed
any changes to the original scheduled time from active status. The criteria will be based
out of service. on the number of continuing qualification
b. Simulators qualified prior to May 30, evaluations and quarterly inspections missed
2008, are not required to meet the general during the period of inactivity. For example,
simulation requirements, the objective test if the FFS were out of service for a 1 year pe-
requirements, and the subjective test re- riod, it would be necessary to complete the
quirements of attachments 1, 2, and 3, of this entire QTG, since all of the quarterly evalua-
appendix as long as the simulator continues tions would have been missed. The NSPM
to meet the test requirements contained in will also consider how the FFS was stored,
the MQTG developed under the original qual- whether parts were removed from the FFS
ification basis. and whether the FFS was disassembled.
323
j. The FFS will normally be requalified nicians, the sponsor will be notified as far in
using the FAA-approved MQTG and the cri- advance of the evaluation as practical; but
teria that was in effect prior to its removal not less than 72 hours. Examples of such
from qualification. However, inactive periods tests include latencies, control dynamics,
of 2 years or more will require requalifica- sounds and vibrations, motion, and/or some
tion under the standards in effect and cur- visual system tests.
rent at the time of requalification. h. The continuing qualification evalua-
END INFORMATION tions, described in § 60.19(b), will normally re-
quire 4 hours of FFS time. However, flexi-
llllllllllllllllllllllll bility is necessary to address abnormal situ-
14. INSPECTION, CONTINUING QUALIFICATION ations or situations involving aircraft with
EVALUATION, AND MAINTENANCE REQUIRE- additional levels of complexity (e.g., com-
MENTS (§ 60.19) puter controlled aircraft). The sponsor
should anticipate that some tests may re-
quire additional time. The continuing quali-
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS fication evaluations will consist of the fol-
lowing:
a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of
(1) Review of the results of the quarterly
four evenly spaced inspections throughout
the year. The objective test sequence and
content of each inspection must be developed the last scheduled continuing qualification
by the sponsor and must be acceptable to the evaluation.
NSPM. (2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 ob-
b. The description of the functional pre- jective tests from the MQTG that provide an
flight check must be contained in the spon- adequate opportunity to evaluate the per-
sor’s QMS. formance of the FFS. The tests chosen will
c. Record ‘‘functional preflight’’ in the be performed either automatically or manu-
FFS discrepancy log book or other accept- ally and should be able to be conducted with-
able location, including any item found to be in approximately one-third (1/3) of the allot-
missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative. ted FFS time.
d. During the continuing qualification (3) A subjective evaluation of the FFS to
evaluation conducted by the NSPM, the perform a representative sampling of the
sponsor must also provide a person knowl-
tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appen-
edgeable about the operation of the aircraft
dix. This portion of the evaluation should
and the operation of the FFS.
e. The NSPM will conduct continuing qual- take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of the al-
ification evaluations every 12 months unless: lotted FFS time.
(1) The NSPM becomes aware of discrep- (4) An examination of the functions of the
ancies or performance problems with the de- FFS may include the motion system, visual
vice that warrants more frequent evalua- system, sound system, instructor operating
tions; or station, and the normal functions and simu-
(2) The sponsor implements a QMS that lated malfunctions of the simulated heli-
justifies less frequent evaluations. However, copter systems. This examination is nor-
in no case shall the frequency of a con- mally accomplished simultaneously with the
tinuing qualification evaluation exceed 36 subjective evaluation requirements.
months.
END INFORMATION
BEGIN INFORMATION 15. LOGGING FFS DISCREPANCIES (§ 60.20)
f. The sponsor’s test sequence and the con- llllllllllllllllllllllll

tent of each quarterly inspection required in
BEGIN INFORMATION
§ 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a
mix from the objective test requirement No additional regulatory or informational
areas listed as follows: material applies to § 60.20. Logging FFS Dis-
(1) Performance. crepancies.
(2) Handling qualities.
(3) Motion system (where appropriate). END INFORMATION
(4) Visual system (where appropriate).
(5) Sound system (where appropriate). llllllllllllllllllllllll
(6) Other FFS systems.
g. If the NSP evaluator plans to accom- 16. INTERIM QUALIFICATION OF FFSS FOR NEW
HELICOPTER TYPES OR MODELS (§ 60.21)
plish specific tests during a normal con-

tinuing qualification evaluation that re- llllllllllllllllllllllll
quires the use of special equipment or tech-
324
BEGIN INFORMATION pletion of a specific maneuver, procedure, or
task.
c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day pe-
material applies to § 60.21, Interim Qualifica-
riod described in § 60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a
tion of FFSs for New Helicopter Types or
Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend
Models.
the deadline until the next business day.
END INFORMATION d. In accordance with the authorization de-
llllllllllllllllllllllll a discrepancy prioritizing system to accom-
plish repairs based on the level of impact on
17. MODIFICATIONS TO FFSS (§ 60.23) the capability of the FFS. Repairs having a
llllllllllllllllllllllll larger impact on FFS capability to provide
the required training, evaluation, or flight
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS experience will have a higher priority for re-
a. The notification described in § 60.23(c)(2) pair or replacement.
must include a complete description of the END INFORMATION
planned modification, with a description of
the operational and engineering effect the llllllllllllllllllllllll
proposed modification will have on the oper-
19. AUTOMATIC LOSS OF QUALIFICATION AND
ation of the FFS and the results that are ex-
PROCEDURES FOR RESTORATION OF QUALI-
pected with the modification incorporated.
FICATION (§ 60.27)
b. Prior to using the modified FFS:
(1) All the applicable objective tests com- llllllllllllllllllllllll
pleted with the modification incorporated,
including any necessary updates to the BEGIN INFORMATION
MQTG (e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Direc- If the sponsor provides a plan for how the
tives) must be acceptable to the NSPM; and FFS will be maintained during its out-of-
(2) The sponsor must provide the NSPM service period (e.g., periodic exercise of me-
with a statement signed by the MR that the chanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems;
factors listed in § 60.15(b) are addressed by routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; con-
the appropriate personnel as described in trol of the environmental factors in which
that section. the FFS is to be maintained) there is a
greater likelihood that the NSPM will be
END QPS REQUIREMENTS able to determine the amount of testing re-
llllllllllllllllllllllll quired for requalification.

(3) FSTD Directives are considered modi- llllllllllllllllllllllll
fications of an FFS. See Attachment 4 of
20. OTHER LOSSES OF QUALIFICATION AND PRO-
this appendix for a sample index of effective
CEDURES FOR RESTORATION OF QUALIFICA-
FSTD Directives. See Attachment 6 of this
TION (§ 60.29)
appendix for a list of all effective FSTD Di-
rectives applicable to Helicopter FFSs. llllllllllllllllllllllll
llllllllllllllllllllllll If the sponsor provides a plan for how the
FFS will be maintained during its out-of-
18. OPERATION WITH MISSING, MALFUNC- service period (e.g., periodic exercise of me-
llllllllllllllllllllllll trol of the environmental factors in which
the FFS is to be maintained) there is a
BEGIN INFORMATION greater likelihood that the NSPM will be
able to determine the amount of testing re-
a. The sponsor’s responsibility with respect quired for requalification.
to § 60.25(a) is satisfied when the sponsor fair-
ly and accurately advises the user of the cur- END INFORMATION
rent status of an FFS, including any miss-
ing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI) llllllllllllllllllllllll
component(s). 21. RECORD KEEPING AND REPORTING (§ 60.31)
b. It is the responsibility of the instructor,
check airman, or representative of the ad- llllllllllllllllllllllll
ministrator conducting training, testing, or

judgment to determine if any MMI compo- a. FFS modifications can include hardware
nent is necessary for the satisfactory com- or software changes. For FFS modifications
325
involving software programming changes, b. Table C1A describes the requirements
the record required by § 60.31(a)(2) must con- for the indicated level of FFS. Many devices
sist of the name of the aircraft system soft- include operational systems or functions
ware, aerodynamic model, or engine model that exceed the requirements outlined in
change, the date of the change, a summary this section. However, all systems will be
of the change, and the reason for the change. tested and evaluated in accordance with this
b. If a coded form for record keeping is appendix to ensure proper operation.
used, it must provide for the preservation
and retrieval of information with appro- END QPS REQUIREMENTS
priate security or controls to prevent the in-
appropriate alteration of such records after
the fact. BEGIN INFORMATION
END QPS REQUIREMENTS 2. DISCUSSION
llllllllllllllllllllllll a. This attachment describes the general
22. APPLICATIONS, LOGBOOKS, REPORTS, AND simulator requirements for qualifying a heli-
RECORDS: FRAUD, FALSIFICATION, OR INCOR- copter FFS. The sponsor should also consult
RECT STATEMENTS (§ 60.33) the objective tests in Attachment 2 of this
appendix and the examination of functions
llllllllllllllllllllllll and subjective tests listed in Attachment 3
of this appendix to determine the complete
BEGIN INFORMATION
requirements for a specific level simulator.
No additional regulatory or informational b. The material contained in this attach-
material applies to § 60.33, Applications, ment is divided into the following cat-
Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Fal- egories:
sification, or Incorrect Statements. (1) General flight deck configuration.
(2) Simulator programming.
23. [RESERVED]
(3) Equipment operation.
24. [RESERVED] (4) Equipment and facilities for instructor/
evaluator functions.
25. FFS QUALIFICATION ON THE BASIS OF A BI- (5) Motion system.
LATERAL AVIATION SAFETY AGREEMENT (6) Visual system.
(BASA) (§ 60.37) (7) Sound system.
No additional regulatory or informational c. Table C1A provides the standards for the
material applies to § 60.37, FFS Qualification General Simulator Requirements.
on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety d. Table C1B provides the tasks that the
Agreement (BASA). sponsor will examine to determine whether
the FFS satisfactorily meets the require-
END INFORMATION ments for flight crew training, testing, and
llllllllllllllllllllllll experience, and provides the tasks for which
the simulator may be qualified.
ATTACHMENT 1 TO APPENDIX C TO PART 60— e. Table C1C provides the functions that an
GENERAL SIMULATOR REQUIREMENTS instructor/check airman must be able to con-
trol in the simulator.
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS that appear on the List of Qualified Tasks
(part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the
1. REQUIREMENTS initial or continuing qualification evalua-
a. Certain requirements included in this tion.
appendix must be supported with an SOC as g. Table C1A addresses only Levels B, C,
defined in Appendix F of this part, which and D helicopter simulators because there
may include objective and subjective tests. are no Level A Helicopter simulators.
The requirements for SOCs are indicated in
END INFORMATION
the ‘‘General Simulator Requirements’’ col-
umn in Table C1A of this appendix. llllllllllllllllllllllll
TABLE C1A—MINIMUM SIMULATOR REQUIREMENTS

QPS requirements Simulator levels Information
Entry No.
General simulator requirements B C D Notes
1. .............. General Flight Deck Configuration

326
TABLE C1A—MINIMUM SIMULATOR REQUIREMENTS—Continued

Entry No.
1.a. ........... The simulator must have a flight deck that is a X X X For simulator purposes, the flight deck con-
replica of the helicopter being simulated. sists of all that space forward of a cross
The simulator must have controls, equipment, section of the fuselage at the most extreme
observable flight deck indicators, circuit aft setting of the pilots’ seats including addi-
breakers, and bulkheads properly located, tional, required flight crewmember duty sta-
functionally accurate and replicating the heli- tions and those required bulkheads aft of
copter. The direction of movement of con- the pilot seats. For clarification, bulkheads
trols and switches must be identical to that containing only items such as landing gear
in the helicopter. Pilot seats must afford the pin storage compartments, fire axes and ex-
capability for the occupant to be able to tinguishers, spare light bulbs, and aircraft
achieve the design ‘‘eye position’’ estab- documents pouches are not considered es-
lished for the helicopter being simulated. sential and may be omitted.
Equipment for the operation of the flight
deck windows must be included, but the ac-
tual windows need not be operable. Fire
axes, extinguishers, and spare light bulbs
must be available in the FFS but may be re-
located to a suitable location as near as
practical to the original position. Fire axes,
landing gear pins, and any similar purpose
instruments need only be represented in sil-
houette.
1.b. ........... Those circuit breakers that affect procedures X X X

or result in observable flight deck indications
must be properly located and functionally
accurate.
2. .............. Programming
2.a. ........... A flight dynamics model that accounts for var- X X X

ious combinations of air speed and power
normally encountered in flight must cor-
respond to actual flight conditions, including
the effect of change in helicopter attitude,
aerodynamic and propulsive forces and mo-
ments, altitude, temperature, mass, center
of gravity location, and configuration.
An SOC is required
2.b. ........... The simulator must have the computer capac- X X X

ity, accuracy, resolution, and dynamic re-
sponse needed to meet the qualification
level sought.
An SOC is required
2.c. ........... Ground handling (where appropriate) and aer-

odynamic programming must include the fol-
lowing:.
2.c.1. ........ Ground effect .................................................... X X X Applicable areas include flare and touch down
Level B does not require hover programming from a running landing as well as for in-
An SOC is required ground-effect (IGE) hover. A reasonable
simulation of ground effect includes mod-
eling of lift, drag, pitching moment, trim, and
power while in ground effect.
2.c.2. ........ Ground reaction ................................................ X X X Reaction of the helicopter upon contact with
Level B does not require hover programming the landing surface during landing (e.g.,
An SOC is required strut deflection, tire or skid friction, side
forces) may differ with changes in gross
weight, airspeed, rate of descent on touch-
down, and slide slip.
327

Entry No.
2.d. ........... The simulator must provide for manual and X X This may include an automated system, which
automatic testing of simulator hardware and could be used for conducting at least a por-
software programming to determine compli- tion of the QTG tests. Automatic ‘‘flagging’’
ance with simulator objective tests as pre- of out-of-tolerance situations is encouraged.
scribed in Attachment 2 of this appendix.
An SOC is required
2.e. ........... The relative responses of the motion system, The intent is to verify that the simulator pro-
visual system, and flight deck instruments vides instrument, motion, and visual cues
must be measured by latency tests or trans- that are like the helicopter responses within
port delay tests. Motion onset must occur the stated time delays. It is preferable mo-
before the end of the scan of that video tion onset occur before the start of the vis-
field. Instrument response may not occur ual scene change (the start of the scan of
prior to motion onset. Test results must be the first video field containing different infor-
within the following limits: mation). For helicopter response, accelera-
tion in the appropriate corresponding rota-
tional axis is preferred.
2.e.1. ........ Response must be within 150 milliseconds of X

the helicopter response.
2.e.2. ........ Response must be within 100 milliseconds of X X
the helicopter response.
2.f. ............ The simulator must simulate brake and tire X X The simulator should represent the motion (in
failure dynamics (including antiskid failure, if the appropriate axes) and the directional
appropriate). control characteristics of the helicopter when
An SOC is required. .......................................... experiencing simulated brake or tire failures.
2.g. ........... The aerodynamic modeling in the simulator X X See Attachment 2 of this appendix for further
must include:. information on ground effect.
(1) Ground effect,
(2) Effects of airframe and rotor icing (if appli-
cable),
(3) Aerodynamic interference effects between
the rotor wake and fuselage,
(4) Influence of the rotor on control and sta-
bilization systems,
(5) Representations of settling with power, and
(6) Retreating blade stall.
An SOC is required.
2.h. ........... The simulator must provide for realistic mass X X X

properties, including gross weight, center of
gravity, and moments of inertia as a function
of payload and fuel loading.
An SOC is required.
3. .............. Equipment Operation
3.a. ........... All relevant instrument indications involved in X X X

the simulation of the helicopter must auto-
matically respond to control movement or
external disturbances to the simulated heli-
copter; e.g., turbulence or windshear. Nu-
merical values must be presented in the ap-
propriate units.
3.b. ........... Communications, navigation, caution, and X X X See Attachment 3 of this appendix for further
warning equipment must be installed and information regarding long-range navigation
operate within the tolerances applicable for equipment.
the helicopter being simulated.
3.c. ........... Simulated helicopter systems must operate as X X X

the helicopter systems operate under nor-
mal, abnormal, and emergency operating
conditions on the ground and in flight.
328

Entry No.
3.d. ........... The simulator must provide pilot controls with X X X

control forces and control travel that cor-
respond to the simulated helicopter. The
simulator must also react in the same man-
ner as the helicopter under the same flight
conditions.
3.e. ........... Simulator control feel dynamics must replicate X X

the helicopter simulated. This must be deter-
mined by comparing a recording of the con-
trol feel dynamics of the simulator to heli-
copter measurements. For initial and up-
grade evaluations, the control dynamic char-
acteristics must be measured and recorded
directly from the flight deck controls, and
must be accomplished in takeoff, cruise, and
landing conditions and configurations.
4. .............. Instructor/Evaluator Facilities
4.a. ........... In addition to the flight crewmember stations, X X X The NSPM will consider alternatives to this
the simulator must have at least two suitable standard for additional seats based on
seats for the instructor/check airman and unique flight deck configurations.
FAA inspector. These seats must provide
adequate vision to the pilot’s panel and for-
ward windows. All seats other than flight
crew seats need not represent those found
in the helicopter but must be adequately se-
cured to the floor and equipped with similar
positive restraint devices.
4.b. ........... The simulator must have controls that enable X X X

the instructor/evaluator to control all required
system variables and insert all abnormal or
emergency conditions into the simulated hel-
icopter systems as described in the spon-
sor’s FAA-approved training program, or as
described in the relevant operating manual
as appropriate.
4.c. ........... The simulator must have instructor controls for X X X

all environmental effects expected to be
available at the IOS; e.g., clouds, visibility,
icing, precipitation, temperature, storm cells,
and wind speed and direction.
4.d. ........... The simulator must provide the instructor or X X For example, another aircraft crossing the ac-
evaluator the ability to present ground and tive runway and converging airborne traffic.
air hazards.
4.e. ........... The simulator must provide the instructor or X X This is a selectable condition that is not re-
evaluator the ability to present the effect of quired for all operations on or near the sur-
re-circulating dust, water vapor, or snow face.
conditions that develop as a result of rotor
downwash.
5. .............. Motion System
5.a. ........... The simulator must have motion (force) cues X X X For example, touchdown cues should be a
perceptible to the pilot that are representa- function of the rate of descent (RoD) of the
tive of the motion in a helicopter. simulated helicopter.
5.b. ........... The simulator must have a motion (force cue- X

ing) system with a minimum of three de-
grees of freedom (at least pitch, roll, and
heave).
An SOC is required.
329

Entry No.
5.c. ........... The simulator must have a motion (force cue- X X

ing) system that produces cues at least
equivalent to those of a six-degrees-of-free-
dom, synergistic platform motion system
(i.e., pitch, roll, yaw, heave, sway, and
surge).
An SOC is required.
5.d. ........... The simulator must provide for the recording X X X

of the motion system response time.
An SOC is required.
5.e. ........... The simulator must provide motion effects pro-

gramming to include the following:.
(1) Runway rumble, oleo deflections, effects of X X X
ground speed, uneven runway, characteris-
tics.
(2) Buffets due to transverse flow effects.
(3) Buffet during extension and retraction of
landing gear.
(4) Buffet due to retreating blade stall.
(5) Buffet due to vortex ring (settling with
power).
(6) Representative cues resulting from touch-
down.
(7) High speed rotor vibrations.
(8) Tire failure dynamics ................................... X X
(9) Engine malfunction and engine damage
(10) Airframe ground strike
(11) Motion vibrations that result from atmos- X For air turbulence, general purpose disturb-
pheric disturbances. ance models are acceptable if, when used,
they produce test results that approximate
demonstrable flight test data.
5.f. ............ The simulator must provide characteristic mo- X The simulator should be programmed and in-
tion vibrations that result from operation of strumented in such a manner that the char-
the helicopter (for example, retreating blade acteristic buffet modes can be measured
stall, extended landing gear, settling with and compared to helicopter data.
power) in so far as vibration marks an event
or helicopter state, which can be sensed in
the flight deck.
6. .............. Visual System .................................................. Additional horizontal field-of-view capability

may be added at the sponsor’s discretion
provided the minimum field-of-view is re-
tained.
6.a. ........... The simulator must have a visual system pro- X X X

viding an out-of-the-flight deck view.
6.b. ........... The simulator must provide a continuous field- X

of-view of at least 75° horizontally and 30°
vertically per pilot seat. Both pilot seat visual
systems must be operable simultaneously.
The minimum horizontal field-of-view cov-
erage must be plus and minus one-half (1⁄2)
of the minimum continuous field-of-view re-
quirement, centered on the zero degree azi-
muth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. An
SOC must explain the geometry of the in-
stallation.
An SOC is required.
330

Entry No.
6.c. ........... The simulator must provide a continuous vis- X Optimization of the vertical field-of-view may
ual field-of-view of at least 146° horizontally be considered with respect to the specific
and 36° vertically per pilot seat. Both pilot helicopter flight deck cut-off angle. The
seat visual systems must be operable simul- sponsor may request the NSPM to evaluate
taneously. Horizontal field-of-view is cen- the FFS for specific authorization(s) for the
tered on the zero degree azimuth line rel- following:
ative to the aircraft fuselage. The minimum (1) Specific areas within the database needing
horizontal field-of-view coverage must be higher resolution to support landings, take-
plus and minus one-half (1⁄2) of the minimum offs and ground cushion exercises and train-
continuous field-of-view requirement, cen- ing away from a heliport, including elevated
tered on the zero degree azimuth line rel- heliport, helidecks and confined areas.
ative to the aircraft fuselage. (2) For cross-country flights, sufficient scene
An SOC must explain the geometry of the in- details to allow for ground to map navigation
stallation. Capability for a field-of-view in ex- over a sector length equal to 30 minutes at
cess of the minimum is not required for an average cruise speed.
qualification at Level C. However, where (3) For offshore airborne radar approaches
specific tasks require extended fields of view (ARA), harmonized visual/radar representa-
beyond the 146° by 36° (e.g., to accommo- tions of installations.
date the use of ‘‘chin windows’’ where the
accommodation is either integral with or
separate from the primary visual system dis-
play), then the extended fields of view must
be provided. When considering the installa-
tion and use of augmented fields of view,
the sponsor must meet with the NSPM to
determine the training, testing, checking,
and experience tasks for which the aug-
mented field-of-view capability may be re-
quired.
An SOC is required.
6.d. ........... The simulator must provide a continuous vis- X Optimization of the vertical field-of-view may
ual field-of-view of at least 176° horizontally be considered with respect to the specific
and 56° vertically per pilot seat. Both pilot helicopter flight deck cut-off angle.The spon-
seat visual systems must be operable simul- sor may request the NSPM to evaluate the
taneously. Horizontal field-of-view is cen- FFS for specific authorization(s) for the fol-
tered on the zero degree azimuth line rel- lowing:
ative to the aircraft fuselage. The minimum (1) Specific areas within the database needing
horizontal field-of-view coverage must be higher resolution to support landings, take-
plus and minus one-half (1⁄2) of the minimum offs and ground cushion exercises and train-
continuous field-of-view requirement, cen- ing away from a heliport, including elevated
tered on the zero degree azimuth line rel- heliport, helidecks and confined areas.
ative to the aircraft fuselage. An SOC must (2) For cross-country flights, sufficient scene
explain the geometry of the installation. Ca- details to allow for ground to map navigation
pability for a field-of-view in excess of the over a sector length equal to 30 minutes at
minimum is not required for qualification at an average cruise speed.
Level D. However, where specific tasks re- (3) For offshore airborne radar approaches
quire extended fields of view beyond the (ARA), harmonized visual/radar representa-
176° by 56° (e.g., to accommodate the use tions of installations.
of ‘‘chin windows’’ where the accommoda-
tion is either integral with or separate from
the primary visual system display), then the
extended fields of view must be provided.
When considering the installation and use of
augmented fields of view, the sponsor must
meet with the NSPM to determine the train-
ing, testing, checking, and experience tasks
for which the augmented field-of-view capa-
bility may be required.
An SOC is required.
6.e. ........... The visual system must be free from optical X X X Nonrealistic cues might include image ‘‘swim-
discontinuities and artifacts that create non- ming’’ and image ‘‘roll-off,’’ that may lead a
realistic cues. pilot to make incorrect assessments of
speed, acceleration and/or situational
awareness.
331

Entry No.
6.f. ............ The simulator must have operational landing X X X

lights for night scenes.Where used, dusk (or
twilight) scenes require operational landing
lights..
6.g. ........... The simulator must have instructor controls for X X X

the following:
(1) Visibility in statute miles (kilometers) and
runway visual range (RVR) in ft. (meters).
(2) Airport or landing area selection
(3) Airport or landing area lighting
6.h. ........... Each airport scene displayed must include the X X X

following:
(1) Airport runways and taxiways
(2) Runway definition
(a) Runway surface and markings
(b) Lighting for the runway in use, including
runway threshold, edge, centerline, touch-
down zone, VASI (or PAPI), and approach
lighting of appropriate colors, as appropriate
(c) Taxiway lights
6.i. ............ The simulator must provide visual system X X X

compatibility with dynamic response pro-
gramming.
6.j. ............ The simulator must show that the segment of X X X This will show the modeling accuracy of the
the ground visible from the simulator flight scene with respect to a predetermined posi-
deck is the same as from the helicopter tion from the end of the runway ‘‘in use.’’
flight deck (within established tolerances)
when at the correct airspeed and altitude
above the touchdown zone.
6.k. ........... The simulator must provide visual cues nec- X

essary to assess rate of change of height,
height AGL, and translational displacement
and rates during takeoffs and landings.
6.l. ............ The simulator must provide visual cues nec- X X

essary to assess rate of change of height,
height AGL, as well as translational dis-
placement and rates during takeoff, low alti-
tude/low airspeed maneuvering, hover, and
landing.
6.m. .......... The simulator must provide for accurate por- X X X Visual attitude vs. simulator attitude is a com-
trayal of the visual environment relating to parison of pitch and roll of the horizon as
the simulator attitude. displayed in the visual scene compared to
the display on the attitude indicator.
6.n ............ The simulator must provide for quick confirma- X X

tion of visual system color, RVR, focus, and
intensity.
An SOC is required.
6.o. ........... The simulator must be capable of producing at X X

least 10 levels of occulting.
332

Entry No.
6.p. ........... Night Visual Scenes. The simulator must pro- X X X

vide night visual scenes with sufficient
scene content to recognize the airport, the
terrain, and major landmarks around the air-
port. The scene content must allow a pilot to
successfully accomplish a visual landing.
Night scenes, as a minimum, must provide
presentations of sufficient surfaces with ap-
propriate textural cues that include self-illu-
minated objects such as road networks,
ramp lighting, and airport signage, to con-
duct a visual approach, a landing, and air-
port movement (taxi). Scenes must include
a definable horizon and typical terrain char-
acteristics such as fields, roads and bodies
of water and surfaces illuminated by heli-
copter landing lights.
6.q. ........... Dusk (Twilight) Visual Scenes. The simulator X X

must provide dusk (or twilight) visual scenes
with sufficient scene content to recognize
the airport, the terrain, and major landmarks
around the airport. The scene content must
allow a pilot to successfully accomplish a
visual landing. Dusk (or twilight) scenes, as
a minimum, must provide full color presen-
tations of reduced ambient intensity, suffi-
cient surfaces with appropriate textural cues
that include self-illuminated objects such as
road networks, ramp lighting and airport
signage, to conduct a visual approach, land-
ing and airport movement (taxi). Scenes
must include a definable horizon and typical
terrain characteristics such as fields, roads
and bodies of water and surfaces illumi-
nated by representative aircraft lighting (e.g.,
landing lights). If provided, directional hori-
zon lighting must have correct orientation
and be consistent with surface shading ef-
fects. Total scene content must be com-
parable in detail to that produced by 10,000
visible textured surfaces and 15,000 visible
lights with sufficient system capacity to dis-
play 16 simultaneously moving objects.
An SOC is required.
6.r. ............ Daylight Visual Scenes. The simulator must X X

have daylight visual scenes with sufficient
scene content to recognize the airport, the
terrain, and major landmarks around the air-
port. The scene content must allow a pilot to
successfully accomplish a visual landing. No
ambient lighting may ‘‘washout’’ the dis-
played visual scene. Total scene content
must be comparable in detail to that pro-
duced by 10,000 visible textured surfaces
and 6,000 visible lights with sufficient sys-
tem capacity to display 16 simultaneously
moving objects. The visual display must be
free of apparent and distracting quantization
and other distracting visual effects while the
simulator is in motion.
An SOC is required.
6.s ............ The simulator must provide operational visual X X For example: short runways, landing ap-
scenes that portray physical relationships proaches over water, uphill or downhill run-
known to cause landing illusions to pilots. ways, rising terrain on the approach path,
unique topographic features.
333

Entry No.
6.t. ............ The simulator must provide special weather X X

representations of light, medium, and heavy
precipitation near a thunderstorm on takeoff
and during approach and landing. Rep-
resentations need only be presented at and
below an altitude of 2,000 ft. (610 m) above
the airport surface and within 10 miles (16
km) of the airport.
6.u. ........... The simulator must present visual scenes of X X The NSPM will consider suitable alternative ef-
wet and snow-covered runways, including fects.
runway lighting reflections for wet condi-
tions, and partially obscured lights for snow
conditions.
6.v. ........... The simulator must present realistic color and X X

directionality of all airport lighting.
7. .............. Sound System
7.a. ........... The simulator must provide flight deck sounds X X X

that result from pilot actions that correspond
to those that occur in the helicopter.
7.b. ........... Volume control, if installed, must have an indi- X X X

cation of the sound level setting.
7.c. ........... The simulator must accurately simulate the X X

sound of precipitation, windshield wipers,
and other significant helicopter noises per-
ceptible to the pilot during normal and ab-
normal operations, and include the sound of
a crash (when the simulator is landed in an
unusual attitude or in excess of the struc-
tural gear limitations); normal engine
sounds; and the sounds of gear extension
and retraction.
An SOC is required.
7.d. ........... The simulator must provide realistic amplitude X

and frequency of flight deck noises and
sounds. Simulator performance must be re-
corded, compared to amplitude and fre-
quency of the same sounds recorded in the
helicopter, and made a part of the QTG.
TABLE C1B—TABLE OF TASKS VS. SIMULATOR LEVEL

Simulator
Subjective requirements levels
Entry No. The simulator must be able to perform the tasks associated with Notes
that level of qualification. B C D
1.a. ............ Preflight Inspection (Flight deck Only) switches, indicators, sys- X X X
tems, and equipment.
1.b. ............ APU/Engine start and run-up.
1.b.1. ......... Normal start procedures ................................................................ X X X
1.b.2. ......... Alternate start procedures ............................................................. X X X
1.b.3. ......... Abnormal starts and shutdowns (hot start, hung start) ................. X X X
1.c. ............ Taxiing—Ground ............................................................................ X X X
334
TABLE C1B—TABLE OF TASKS VS. SIMULATOR LEVEL—Continued

Simulator
1.d. ............ Taxiing—Hover .............................................................................. X X X
1.e. ............ Pre-takeoff Checks ........................................................................ X X X
2.a. ............ Normal takeoff.
2.a.1. ......... From ground .................................................................................. X X X
2.a.2. ......... From hover .................................................................................... X X
2.a.3. ......... Running .......................................................................................... X X X
2.b. ............ Instrument ...................................................................................... X X X
2.c. ............ Powerplant Failure During Takeoff ................................................ X X X
2.d. ............ Rejected Takeoff ............................................................................ X X X
2.e. ............ Instrument Departure ..................................................................... X X X
3. Climb
3.a. ............ Normal ........................................................................................... X X X
3.b. ............ Obstacle clearance ........................................................................ X X X
3.c. ............ Vertical ........................................................................................... X X X
3.d. ............ One engine inoperative ................................................................. X X X
4. In-flight Maneuvers
4.a. ............ Turns (timed, normal, steep) ......................................................... X X X
4.b. ............ Powerplant Failure—Multiengine Helicopters ................................ X X X
4.c. ............ Powerplant Failure—Single-Engine Helicopters ............................ X X X
4.d. ............ Recovery From Unusual Attitudes ................................................. X X X
4.e. ............ Settling with Power ........................................................................ X X X
4.f. ............. Specific Flight Characteristics incorporated into the user’s FAA A A A
approved flight training program.
5.a. ............ Instrument Arrival ........................................................................... X X X
5.b. ............ Holding ........................................................................................... X X X
5.c. ............ Precision Instrument Approach.
5.c.1. ......... Normal—All engines operating ...................................................... X X X
5.c.2. ......... Manually controlled—One or more engines inoperative ............... X X X
5.d. ............ Non-precision Instrument Approach .............................................. X X X
5.e. ............ Missed Approach.
5.e.1. ......... All engines operating ..................................................................... X X X
5.e.2. ......... One or more engines inoperative .................................................. X X X

5.e.3. ......... Stability augmentation system failure ............................................ X X X
335

Simulator
6.a. ............ Visual Approaches (normal, steep, shallow) ................................. X X X
6.b. ............ Landings.
6.b.1. ......... Normal/crosswind.
6.b.1.a. ...... Running ......................................................................................... X X X
6.b.1.b. ...... From Hover .................................................................................... X X
6.b.2. ......... One or more engines inoperative .................................................. X X X
6.b.3. ......... Rejected Landing ........................................................................... X X X
7.a. ............ Powerplant ..................................................................................... X X X
7.b. ............ Fuel System ................................................................................... X X X
7.c. ............ Electrical System ........................................................................... X X X
7.d. ............ Hydraulic System ........................................................................... X X X
7.e. ............ Environmental System(s) ............................................................... X X X
7.f. ............. Fire Detection and Extinguisher Systems ..................................... X X X
7.g. ............ Navigation and Aviation Systems .................................................. X X X
7.h. ............ Automatic Flight Control System, Electronic Flight Instrument X X X

System, and Related Subsystems.
7.i. ............. Flight Control Systems .................................................................. X X X
7.j. ............. Anti-ice and Deice Systems .......................................................... X X X
7.k. ............ Aircraft and Personal Emergency Equipment ............................... X X X
7.l. ............. Special Missions tasks (e.g., Night Vision goggles, Forward A A X
Looking Infrared System, External Loads and as listed on the
SOQ).
8. Emergency procedures (as applicable)
8.a. ............ Emergency Descent ...................................................................... X X X
8.b. ............ Inflight Fire and Smoke Removal .................................................. X X X
8.c. ............ Emergency Evacuation .................................................................. X X X
8.d. ............ Ditching .......................................................................................... X X X
8.e. ............ Autorotative Landing ...................................................................... X X X
8.f. ............. Retreating blade stall recovery ...................................................... X X X
8.g. ............ Mast bumping ................................................................................ X X X
8.h. ............ Loss of tail rotor effectiveness ....................................................... X X X
8.i. ............. Vortex recovery .............................................................................. X X X
9.a ............. After-Landing Procedures .............................................................. X X X
336

Simulator
9.b. ............ Parking and Securing.
9.b.1. ......... Rotor brake operation .................................................................... X X X
9.b.2. ......... Abnormal/emergency procedures .................................................. X X X

Note: An ‘‘A’’ in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate aircraft system or
control is simulated in the FFS and is working properly
TABLE C1C—TABLE OF TASKS VS. SIMULATOR LEVEL

Simulator
1. ............... Instructor Operating Station (IOS), as appropriate
1.a. ............ Power switch(es) ........................................................................... X X X
1.b. ............ Helicopter conditions ..................................................................... X X X e.g., GW, CG, Fuel loading,
Systems, Ground Crew.
1.c. ............ Airports/Heliports/Helicopter Landing Areas .................................. X X X e.g., Selection, Surface,

Presets, Lighting controls
1.d. ............ Environmental controls. ................................................................. X X X e.g., Clouds, Visibility, RVR,

Temp, Wind, Ice, Snow, Rain,
and Windshear.
1.e. ............ Helicopter system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion) ...................... X X X
1.f. ............. Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning ............................................... X X X
2. ............... Sound Controls.
2.a. ............ On/off/adjustment ........................................................................... X X X
3. ............... Motion/Control Loading System
3.a. ............ On/off/emergency stop .................................................................. X X X
4. ............... Observer Seats/Stations
4.a. ............ Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system ............................... X X X
ATTACHMENT 2 TO APPENDIX C TO PART 60— TABLE OF CONTENTS—Continued

FFS OBJECTIVE TESTS
Paragraph
llllllllllllllllllllllll Title
No.
BEGIN INFORMATION 3. .............. General.
4. .............. Control Dynamics.

TABLE OF CONTENTS
5. .............. [Reserved]
Paragraph Title
No. 6. .............. Motion System.
1. .............. Introduction. 7. .............. Sound System.
2. .............. Test Requirements. 8. .............. Additional Information About Flight Simulator
Qualification for New or Derivative Heli-

Table C2A, Objective Tests. copters.
337
TABLE OF CONTENTS—Continued simulators and required for Level C and

Level D simulators, each test must be able
Paragraph to be accomplished manually while recording
Title
No. all appropriate parameters. The results must
9. .............. Engineering Simulator—Validation Data. be produced on an appropriate recording de-
vice acceptable to the NSPM and must in-
10. ............ [Reserved] clude simulator number, date, time, condi-
tions, tolerances, and appropriate dependent
11. ............ Validation Test Tolerances. variables portrayed in comparison to the val-
12. ............ Validation Data Roadmap.
idation data. Time histories are required un-
less otherwise indicated in Table C2A. All re-
13. ............ Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Engines sults must be labeled using the tolerances
Data. and units given.
b. Table C2A sets out the test results re-
14. ............ Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative Avionics
(Flight-Related Computers and Controllers).
quired, including the parameters, tolerances,
and flight conditions for simulator valida-
15. ............ Transport Delay Testing. tion. Tolerances are provided for the listed
tests because mathematical modeling and
16. ............ Continuing Qualification Evaluations—Validation acquisition/development of reference data
Test Data Presentation. are often inexact. All tolerances listed in the
17. ............ Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and In- following tables are applied to simulator per-
strumentation: Level A and Level B Simula- formance. When two tolerance values are
tors Only. given for a parameter, the less restrictive
value may be used unless otherwise indi-
1. INTRODUCTION cated. In those cases where a tolerance is ex-
pressed only as a percentage, the tolerance
a. If relevant winds are present in the ob- percentage applies to the maximum value of
jective data, the wind vector (magnitude and that parameter within its normal operating
direction) should be clearly noted as part of range as measured from the neutral or zero
the data presentation, expressed in conven- position unless otherwise indicated.
tional terminology, and related to the run- c. Certain tests included in this attach-
way being used for the test. ment must be supported with an SOC. In
b. The NSPM will not evaluate any simu- Table C2A, requirements for SOCs are indi-
lator unless the required SOC indicates that cated in the ‘‘Test Details’’ column.
the motion system is designed and manufac- d. When operational or engineering judg-
tured to safely operate within the simula- ment is used in making assessments for
tor’s maximum excursion, acceleration, and flight test data applications for simulator
velocity capabilities (see Motion System in validity, such judgment may not be limited
the following table). to a single parameter. For example, data
c. Table C2A addresses helicopter simula- that exhibit rapid variations of the measured
tors at Levels B, C, and D because there are parameters may require interpolations or a
no Level A Helicopter simulators. ‘‘best fit’’ data selection. All relevant param-
eters related to a given maneuver or flight
END INFORMATION
condition must be provided to allow overall
llllllllllllllllllllllll interpretation. When it is difficult or impos-
sible to match simulator to helicopter data
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS throughout a time history, differences must
be justified by providing a comparison of
2. TEST REQUIREMENTS
other related variables for the condition
a. The ground and flight tests required for being assessed.
qualification are listed in Table of C2A, FFS e. The FFS may not be programmed so
Objective Tests. Computer-generated simu- that the mathematical modeling is correct
lator test results must be provided for each only at the validation test points. Unless
test except where an alternative test is spe- noted otherwise, simulator tests must rep-
cifically authorized by the NSPM. If a flight resent helicopter performance and handling
condition or operating condition is required qualities at operating weights and centers of
for the test but does not apply to the heli- gravity (CG) typical of normal operation. If
copter being simulated or to the qualifica- a test is supported by helicopter data at one
tion level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., extreme weight or CG, another test sup-
an engine out missed approach for a single- ported by helicopter data at mid-conditions
engine helicopter, or a hover test for a Level or as close as possible to the other extreme
B simulator). Each test result is compared must be included. Certain tests that are rel-
against the validation data described in evant only at one extreme CG or weight con-
§ 60.13 and in this appendix. Although use of dition need not be repeated at the other ex-
a driver program designed to automatically treme. Tests of handling qualities must in-
accomplish the tests is encouraged for all clude validation of augmentation devices.
338
f. When comparing the parameters listed to various levels of handling qualities result
those of the helicopter, sufficient data must from failure states, validation of the effect
also be provided to verify the correct flight of the failure is necessary. For those per-
condition and helicopter configuration formance and static handling qualities tests
changes. For example, to show that control where the primary concern is control posi-
force is within ±0.5 pound (0.22 daN) in a stat- tion in the unaugmented configuration, un-
ic stability test, data to show the correct augmented data are not required if the de-
airspeed, power, thrust or torque, helicopter sign of the system precludes any affect on
configuration, altitude, and other appro- control position. In those instances where
priate datum identification parameters must the unaugmented helicopter response is di-
also be given. If comparing short period dy- vergent and non-repeatable, it may not be
namics, normal acceleration may be used to feasible to meet the specified tolerances. Al-
establish a match to the helicopter, but air- ternative requirements for testing will be
speed, altitude, control input, helicopter mutually agreed upon by the sponsor and the
configuration, and other appropriate data NSPM on a case-by-case basis.
must also be given. All airspeed values must k. Some tests will not be required for heli-
be properly annotated (e.g., indicated versus copters using helicopter hardware in the
calibrated). In addition, the same variables simulator flight deck (e.g., ‘‘helicopter mod-
must be used for comparison (e.g., compare ular controller’’). These exceptions are noted
inches to inches rather than inches to centi- in Table C2A of this attachment. However, in
meters). these cases, the sponsor must provide a
g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must statement that the helicopter hardware
clearly describe how the simulator will be meets the appropriate manufacturer’s speci-
set up and operated for each test. Each simu- fications and the sponsor must have sup-
lator subsystem may be tested independ- porting information to that fact available
ently, but overall integrated testing of the for NSPM review.
simulator must be accomplished to assure
l. In cases where light-class helicopters are
that the total simulator system meets the
being simulated, prior coordination with the
prescribed standards. A manual test proce-
NSPM on acceptable weight ranges is re-
dure with explicit and detailed steps for
quired. The terms ‘‘light’’, ‘‘medium’’, and
completing each test must also be provided.
‘‘near maximum’’, as defined in Appendix F
h. For previously qualified simulators, the
of this part, may not be appropriate for the
tests and tolerances of this attachment may
simulation of light-class helicopters.
be used in subsequent continuing qualifica-
tion evaluations for any given test if the END QPS REQUIREMENTS
sponsor has submitted a proposed MQTG re-
vision to the NSPM and has received NSPM llllllllllllllllllllllll
approval.
i. Motion System Tests: BEGIN INFORMATION
(a) The minimum excursions, accelera-
m. In those cases where the objective test
tions, and velocities for pitch, roll, and yaw
results authorize a ‘‘snapshot test’’ or a ‘‘se-
must be measurable about a single, common
ries of snapshot test results’’ in lieu of a
reference point and must be achieved by
time-history result, the sponsor or other
driving one degree of freedom at a time.
data provider must ensure that a steady
(b) The minimum excursions, accelera-
state condition exists at the instant of time
tions, and velocities for heave, sway, and
captured by the ‘‘snapshot’’. The steady
surge may be measured about different, iden-
state condition must exist from 4 seconds
tifiable reference points and must be
achieved by driving one degree of freedom at
stant of time captured by the snap shot.
a time.
j. Tests of handling qualities must include n. For references on basic operating
validation of augmentation devices. FFSs for weight, see AC 120–27, Aircraft Weight and
highly augmented helicopters will be vali- Balance; and FAA–H–8083–1, Aircraft Weight
dated both in the unaugmented configura- and Balance Handbook.
tion (or failure state with the maximum per-
END INFORMATION
mitted degradation in handling qualities)
and the augmented configuration. Where llllllllllllllllllllllll
339
VerDate Sep<11>2014
TABLE C2A—FULL FLIGHT SIMULATOR (FFS) OBJECTIVE TESTS
13:36 May 19, 2021

Simulator
Test level
Tolerance(s) Flight condition Test details Notes
Entry No. Title B C D
Pt. 60, App. C
Jkt 253047
1. Performance
1.a. ............. Engine Assessment
1.a.1. .......... Start Operations
PO 00000
1.a.1.a ........ Engine start and acceleration Light Off Time—±10% or ±1 Ground with the Rotor Brake Record each engine start X X X
(transient). sec., Torque—±5%, Rotor Used and Not Used, if ap- from the initiation of the
Speed—±3%, Fuel Flow— plicable. start sequence to steady
±10%, Gas Generator state idle and from steady
Frm 00350
Speed—±5%, Power Tur- state idle to operating
bine Speed—±5%, Gas RPM.
Turbine Temp.—±30 °C.
1.a.1.b. ....... Steady State Idle and Oper- Torque—±3%, Rotor Ground ................................... Record both steady state idle X X X
Fmt 8010
ating RPM conditions. Speed—±1.5%, Fuel and operating RPM condi-
340
Flow—±5%, Gas Generator tions. May be a series of
Speed—±2%, Power Tur- snapshot tests.
bine Speed—±2%, Turbine
Gas Temp.—±20 °C.
Sfmt 8002
1.a.2. .......... Power Turbine Speed Trim ... ±10% of total change of Ground ................................... Record engine response to X X X
power turbine speed, or trim system actuation in
±0.5% change of rotor both directions.
speed.
1.a.3. .......... Engine and Rotor Speed Torque—±5%, Rotor Climb and descent ................ Record results using a step X X X
Governing. Speed—1.5%. input to the collective. May
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
be conducted concurrently
with climb and descent per-
formance tests.
PC31
1.b. ............. Surface Operations
1.b.1. .......... Minimum Radius Turn ........... ±3 ft. (0.9m) or 20% of heli- Ground ................................... If brakes are used, brake X X X
copter turn radius. pedal position and brake
system pressure must be
matched to the helicopter
flight test value.
VerDate Sep<11>2014
1.b.2. .......... Rate of Turn vs. Pedal De- ±10% or ±2°/sec. Turn Rate. Ground Takeoff ..................... If brakes are used, brake X X X
flection, Brake Application, pedal position and brake
or Nosewheel Angle, as system pressure must be
13:36 May 19, 2021

applicable. matched to the helicopter
flight test value.
1.b.3. .......... Taxi ........................................ Pitch Angle—±1.5°, Torque— Ground ................................... Record results for control po- X X X
±3%, Longitudinal Control sition and pitch attitude
Position—±5%, Lateral during ground taxi for a
Jkt 253047
Control Position—±5%, Di- specific ground speed,
rectional Control Position— wind speed and direction,
±5%, Collective Control Po- and density altitude.
sition—±5%.
PO 00000
1.b.4. .......... Brake Effectiveness ............... ±10% of time and distance. Ground ................................... X X X
1.c. .............. Takeoff

When the speed range for the following tests is less than 40 knots, the applicable airspeed tolerance may be applied to either airspeed or ground speed, as appropriate.
Frm 00351
1.c.1. ........... All Engines ............................ Airspeed—±3 kt, Altitude— Ground/Takeoff and Initial Record results of takeoff X X X
±20 ft (6.1m), Torque— Segment of Climb. flight path as appropriate to
±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, helicopter model simulated
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (running takeoff for Level

(0.50m/sec) or 10%, Pitch B, takeoff from a hover for
Fmt 8010
Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Atti- Level C and D). For Level
341
tude—±2°, Heading—±2°, B, the criteria apply only to
Longitudinal Control Posi- those segments at air-
tion—±10%, Lateral Control speeds above effective
Position—±10%, Direc- translational lift. Results
Sfmt 8002
tional Control Position— must be recorded from the
±10%, Collective Control initiation of the takeoff to at
Position—±10%. least 200 ft (61m) AGL.
1.c.2. ........... One Engine Inoperative con- Airspeed—±3 kt, Altitude— Ground/Takeoff; and Initial Record takeoff flight path as X X X Because several kinds of
tinued takeoff. ±20 ft (6.1m), Torque— Segment of Climb. appropriate to helicopter takeoff procedures can be
±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, model simulated. Results performed, the specific
Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm must be recorded from the type of takeoff profile
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
(0.50m/sec) or 10%, Pitch initiation of the takeoff to at should be recorded to en-
Attitude—±1.5°, Bank Atti- least 200 ft (61m) AGL. sure the proper takeoff pro-
tude—±2°, Heading—±2°, file comparison test is
PC31
Longitudinal Control Posi- used.
tion—±10% Lateral Control
Position—±10%, Direc-
tional Control Position—
±10%, Collective Control
Position—±10%.
Pt. 60, App. C
VerDate Sep<11>2014
TABLE C2A—FULL FLIGHT SIMULATOR (FFS) OBJECTIVE TESTS—Continued
13:36 May 19, 2021

Simulator
Test level
Pt. 60, App. C
Jkt 253047
1.c.3. ........... One Engine inoperative, re- Airspeed—±3 kt, Altitude— Ground, Takeoff .................... Time history from the take off X X
jected take off. ±20 ft (6.1m), Torque— point to touch down. Test
±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, conditions near limiting per-
Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Roll formance.
angle—±1.5°, Heading—
PO 00000
±2°, Longitudinal Control
Position—±10%, Lateral
Control Position—±10%,
Directional Control Posi-
tion—±10%, Collective
Frm 00352
Distance—±7.5% or ±30m
(100ft).
1.d. ............. Hover
Fmt 8010
Performance .......................... Torque—±3%, Pitch Atti- In Ground Effect (IGE); and Record results for light and X X
342
tude—±1.5°, Bank Atti- Out of Ground Effect heavy gross weights. May
tude—±1.5°, Longitudinal (OGE). be a series of snapshot
Control Position—±5%, tests.
Lateral Control Position—
Sfmt 8002
±5%, Directional Control
Position—±5%, Collective
Control Position—±5%.
1.e. ............. Vertical Climb
Performance .......................... Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm From OGE Hover .................. Record results for light and X X
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
(0.50 m/sec) or ±10%, Di- heavy gross weights. May
rectional Control Position— be a series of snapshot
±5%, Collective Control Po- tests.
sition—±5%.
PC31
1.f. .............. Level Flight
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Performance and Trimmed Torque—±3%, Pitch Atti- Cruise (Augmentation On and Record results for two gross X X X This test validates perform-
Flight Control Positions. tude—±1.5°, Sideslip Off). weight and CG combina- ance at speeds above
Angle—±2°, Longitudinal tions with varying trim maximum endurance air-
13:36 May 19, 2021

Control Position—±5%, speeds throughout the airspeed.
Lateral Control Position— speed envelope. May be a
±5%, Directional Control series of snapshot tests.
Jkt 253047
1.g. ............. Climb
Performance and Trimmed Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm All engines operating; One Record results for two gross X X X
Flight Control Positions. (6.1m/sec) or ±10%, Pitch engine inoperative; Aug- weight and CG combina-
Attitude—±1.5°, Sideslip mentation System(s) On tions. The data presented
PO 00000
Angle—±2°, Longitudinal and Off. must be for normal climb
Control Position—±5%, power conditions. May be a
Lateral Control Position— series of snapshot tests.
Frm 00353
1.h. ............. Descent

1.h.1. .......... Descent Performance and Torque—±3%, Pitch Atti- At or near 1,000 fpm (5 m/ Results must be recorded for X X X
Fmt 8010
Trimmed Flight Control Po- tude—±1.5°, Sideslip sec) rate of descent (RoD) two gross weight and CG
sitions. Angle—±2°, Longitudinal at normal approach speed. combinations. May be a
343
Control Position—±5%, Augmentation System(s) series of snapshot tests.
Lateral Control Position— On and Off.
Sfmt 8002
1.h.2. .......... Autorotation Performance Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Sideslip Steady descents. Augmenta- Record results for two gross X X X
and Trimmed Flight Control Angle—±2°, Longitudinal tion System(s) On and Off. weight conditions. Data
Positions. Control Position—±5%, must be recorded for nor-
Lateral Control Position— mal operating RPM. (Rotor
±5%, Directional Control speed tolerance applies
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
Position—±5%, Collective only if collective control po-
Control Position—±5%, sition is full down.) Data
Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm must be recorded for
or 10%, Rotor Speed— speeds from 50 kts, ±5 kts,
PC31
±1.5%. through at least maximum
glide distance airspeed, or
maximum allowable auto-
rotation airspeed, which-
ever is slower. May be a
series of snapshot tests.
1.i. ............... Autorotation

Pt. 60, App. C
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Simulator
Test level
Pt. 60, App. C
Jkt 253047
Entry ...................................... Rotor Speed—±3%, Pitch At- Cruise or Climb ..................... Record results of a rapid X X
titude—±2°, Roll Attitude— throttle reduction to idle. If
±3°, Yaw Attitude—±5°, the cruise condition is se-
Airspeed—±5 kts., Vertical lected, comparison must be
Velocity—±200 fpm (1.00 made for the maximum
PO 00000
m/sec) or 10%. range airspeed. If the climb
condition is selected, com-
parison must be made for
the maximum rate of climb
airspeed at or near max-
imum continuous power.
Frm 00354
1.j. ............... Landing
When the speed range for tests 1.j.1., 1.j.2., or 1.j.3. is less than 40 knots, the applicable airspeed tolerance may be applied to either airspeed or ground speed, as appro-
priate.
Fmt 8010
1.j.1. ............ All Engines ............................ Airspeed—±3 kts., Altitude— Approach ............................... Record results of the ap- X X X
344
±20 ft. (6.1m), Torque— proach and landing profile
±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, as appropriate to the heli-
Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank copter model simulated
Attitude—±1.5°, Heading— (running landing for Level
Sfmt 8002
±2°, Longitudinal Control B, or approach to a hover
Position—±10%, Lateral for Level C and D). For
Control Position—±10%, Level B, the criteria apply
Directional Control Posi- only to those segments at
tion—±10%, Collective airspeeds above effective
Control Position—±10%. translational lift.
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
1.j.2. ............ One Engine Inoperative. Airspeed—±3 kts., Altitude— Approach ............................... Record results for both Cat- X X X
±20 ft. (6.1m), Torque— egory A and Category B
±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, approaches and landing as
Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank appropriate to helicopter
PC31
Attitude—±1.5°, Heading— model simulated. For Level
±2°, Longitudinal Control B, the criteria apply only to
Position—±10%, Lateral those segments at air-
Control Position—±10%, speeds above effective
Directional Control Posi- translational lift.
VerDate Sep<11>2014
1.j.3. ............ Balked Landing ...................... Airspeed—±3 kts, Altitude— Approach ............................... Record the results for the X X X
±20 ft. (6.1m), Torque— maneuver initiated from a
±3%, Rotor Speed—±1.5%, stabilized approach at the
13:36 May 19, 2021

Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, Bank landing decision point
Attitude—±1.5°, Heading— (LDP).
±2°, Longitudinal Control
Position—±10%, Lateral
Directional Control Posi-
Jkt 253047
1.j.4. ............ Autorotational Landing. Torque—±3%, Rotor Landing .................................. Record the results of an X X Alternative approaches for
Speed—±3%, Vertical Ve- autorotational deceleration acquiring this data may be
PO 00000
locity—±100 fpm (0.50m/ and landing from a sta- acceptable, depending on
sec) or 10%, Pitch Atti- bilized autorotational de- the aircraft as well as the
tude—±2°, Bank Attitude— scent, to touch down. If personnel and the data re-
±2°, Heading—±5°, Longi- flight test data containing cording, reduction, and in-
tudinal Control Position— all required parameters for terpretation facilities to be
Frm 00355
±10%, Lateral Control Posi- a complete power-off land- used, are: (1) a simulated
tion—±10%, Directional ing is not available from autorotational flare and re-
Control Position—±10%, the aircraft manufacturer duction of rate of descent
Collective Control Posi- for this test and other quali- (ROD) at altitude; or (2) a
tion—±10%. fied flight test personnel power-on termination fol-
Fmt 8010
are not available to acquire lowing an autorotational
345
this data, the sponsor may approach and flare.
coordinate with the NSPM
to determine if it is appro-
priate to accept alternative
testing means.
Sfmt 8002
2. Handling Qualities
2.a. ............. Control System Mechanical Characteristics
For simulators requiring Static or Dynamic tests at the controls (i.e., cyclic, collective, and pedal), special test fixtures will not Contact the NSPM for clari-
be required during initial or upgrade evaluations if the sponsor’s QTG/MQTG shows both test fixture results and the results of fication of any issue re-
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
an alternative approach, such as computer plots produced concurrently showing satisfactory agreement. Repeat of the alter- garding helicopters with re-
native method during the initial or upgrade evaluation satisfies this test requirement. For initial and upgrade evaluations, the versible controls or where
control dynamic characteristics must be measured at and recorded directly from the flight deck controls, and must be accom- the required validation data
plished in hover, climb, cruise, and autorotation. is not attainable.
PC31
Pt. 60, App. C
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Simulator
Test level
Pt. 60, App. C
Jkt 253047
2.a.1. .......... Cyclic ..................................... Breakout—±0.25 lbs. (0.112 Ground; Static conditions with Record results for an uninter- X X X Flight Test Data for this test
daN) or 25%; Force—±1.0 the hydraulic system (if ap- rupted control sweep to the does not require the rotor
lb. (0.224 daN) or 10%. plicable) pressurized; sup- stops. (This test does not to be engaged/turning. The
plemental hydraulic pres- apply if aircraft hardware phrase ‘‘if applicable’’ re-
surization system may be modular controllers are garding stability augmenta-
PO 00000
used. Trim On and Off. used.) tion systems means if an
Friction Off Augmentation augmentation system is
(if applicable) On and Off. available and if this system
may be operational on the
ground under static condi-
tions as described here.
Frm 00356
2.a.2. .......... Collective/Pedals ................... Breakout—±0.5 lb. (0.224 Ground; Static conditions with Record results for an uninter- X X X Flight Test Data for this test
daN) or 25%; Force—±1.0 the hydraulic system (if ap- rupted control sweep to the does not require the rotor
lb. (0.224 daN) or 10%. plicable) pressurized; sup- stops. to be engaged/turning. The
plemental hydraulic pres- phrase ‘‘if applicable’’ re-
Fmt 8010
surization system may be garding stability augmenta-
346
used. Trim On and Off. tion system means if a sta-
Friction Off. Augmentation bility augmentation system
(if applicable) On and Off. is available and if this sys-
tem may be operational on
Sfmt 8002
the ground under static
conditions as described
here.
2.a.3. .......... Brake Pedal Force vs. Posi- ±5 lbs. (2.224 daN) or 10%. Ground; Static conditions. X X X
tion.
2.a.4. .......... Trim System Rate (all appli- Rate—±10%. Ground; Static conditions. The tolerance applies to the X X X
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
cable systems). Trim On, Friction Off. recorded value of the trim
rate.
PC31
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.a.5. .......... Control Dynamics (all axes) .. ±10% of time for first zero Hover/Cruise, Trim On, Fric- Results must be recorded for X X Typically, control displace-
crossing and ±10 (N + 1)% tion Off. a normal control displacement of 25% to 50% is
of period thereafter, ±10% ment in both directions in necessary for proper exci-
13:36 May 19, 2021

of amplitude of first over- each axis. tation. Control Dynamics
shoot, 20% of amplitude of for irreversible control sys-
2nd and subsequent over- tems may be evaluated in
shoots greater than 5% of a ground/static condition.
initial displacement, ±1 Additional information on
overshoot. control dynamics is found
Jkt 253047
later in this attachment.
‘‘N’’ is the sequential period
of a full cycle of oscillation.
2.a.6. .......... Control System Freeplay ....... ±0.10 inches (±2.5 mm). Ground; Static conditions; Record and compare results X X X Flight Test Data for this test
PO 00000
with the hydraulic system for all controls. does not require the rotor
(if applicable) pressurized; to be engaged/turning.
supplemental hydraulic
pressurization system may
be used.
Frm 00357
2.b. ............. Low Airspeed Handling Qualities
2.b.1. .......... Trimmed Flight Control Posi- Torque—±3%, Pitch Atti- Translational Flight IGE— Record results for several air- X X
tions. tude—±1.5°, Bank Atti- Sideward, rearward, and speed increments to the
Fmt 8010
tude—±2°, Longitudinal forward flight. Augmenta- translational airspeed limits
347
Control Position—±5%. tion On and Off. and for 45 kts. forward air-
Lateral Control Position— speed. May be a series of
±5%, Directional Control snapshot tests.
Sfmt 8002
2.b.2. .......... Critical Azimuth ..................... Torque—±3%, Pitch Atti- Stationary Hover. Augmenta- Record results for three rel- X X
tude—±1.5°, Bank Atti- tion On and Off. ative wind directions (in-
tude—±2°, Longitudinal cluding the most critical
Control Position—±5%, case) in the critical quad-
Lateral Control Position— rant. May be a series of
±5%, Directional Control snapshot tests.
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
PC31
2.b.3. .......... Control Response
2.b.3.a. ....... Longitudinal ........................... Pitch Rate—±10% or ±2°/ Hover Augmentation On and Record results for a step con- X X This is a ‘‘short time’’ test
sec., Pitch Attitude Off. trol input. The Off-axis re- conducted in a hover, in
Change—±10% or 1.5°. sponse must show correct ground effect, without en-
trend for unaugmented tering translational flight, to
cases. provide better visual ref-
erence.
Pt. 60, App. C
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Simulator
Test level
Pt. 60, App. C
Jkt 253047
2.b.3.b. ....... Lateral .................................... Roll Rate—±10% or ±3°/sec., Hover Augmentation On and Record results for a step con- X X This is a ‘‘short time’’ test
Roll Attitude Change— Off. trol input. The Off-axis re- conducted in a hover, in
±10% or ±3°. sponse must show correct ground effect, without en-
PO 00000
erence.
2.b.3.c. ........ Directional .............................. Yaw Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec., Hover Augmentation On and Record results for a step con- X X This is a ‘‘short time’’ test
Heading Change—±10% or Off. trol input. The Off-axis re- conducted in a hover, in
±2°. sponse must show correct ground effect, without en-
Frm 00358
erence.
2.b.3.d. ....... Vertical ................................... Normal Acceleration—±0.1 g. Hover Augmentation On and Record results for a step con- X X
Fmt 8010
Off. trol input. The Off-axis re-
sponse must show correct
348
trend for unaugmented
cases.
2.c. .............. Longitudinal Handling Qualities
Sfmt 8002
2.c.1. ........... Control Response .................. Pitch Rate—±10% or ±2°/ Cruise Augmentation On and Results must be recorded for X X X
sec., Pitch Attitude Off. two cruise airspeeds to in-
Change—±10% or ±1.5°. clude minimum power re-
quired speed. Record data
for a step control input.
The Off-axis response
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
must show correct trend for
unaugmented cases.
PC31
2.c.2. ........... Static Stability ........................ Longitudinal Control Position: Cruise or Climb. Autorotation. Record results for a minimum X X X
±10% of change from trim Augmentation On and Off. of two speeds on each side
or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or of the trim speed. May be
Longitudinal Control Force a series of snapshot tests.
: ±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or
±10%.
2.c.3. ........... Dynamic Stability

VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.c.3.a. ........ Long-Term Response. ±10% of calculated period, Cruise Augmentation On and For periodic responses, X X X The response may be
±10% of time to 1⁄2 or dou- Off. record results for three full unrepeatable throughout
ble amplitude, or ±0.02 of cycles (6 overshoots after the stated time for certain
13:36 May 19, 2021

damping ratio.For non-peri- input completed) or that helicopters. In these cases,
odic responses, the time sufficient to determine time the test should show at
history must be matched to 1⁄2 or double amplitude, least that a divergence is
within ±3° pitch; and ±5 kts whichever is less. identifiable. For example:
airspeed over a 20 sec pe- The test may be terminated Displacing the cyclic for a
riod following release of the prior to 20 sec. if the test given time normally excites
Jkt 253047
controls. pilot determines that the re- this test or until a given
sults are becoming uncon- pitch attitude is achieved
trollably divergent. and then return the cyclic
to the original position. For
non-periodic responses, re-
PO 00000
sults should show the
same convergent or diver-
gent character as the flight
test data.
Frm 00359
2.c.3.b. ........ Short-Term Response. ±1.5° Pitch or ±2°/sec. Pitch Cruise or Climb. Augmenta- Record results for at least X X X A control doublet inserted at
Rate. ±0.1 g Normal Accel- tion On and Off. two airspeeds. the natural frequency of the
eration. aircraft normally excites
this test. However, while

input doublets are pre-
Fmt 8010
ferred over pulse inputs for
349
Augmentation-Off tests, for
Augmentation-On tests,
when the short-term re-
sponse exhibits 1st-order
Sfmt 8002
or deadbeat characteristics,
longitudinal pulse inputs
may produce a more co-
herent response.
2.c.4. ........... Maneuvering Stability. Longitudinal Control Posi- Cruise or Climb. Augmenta- Record results for at least X X X
tion—±10% of change from tion On and Off. two airspeeds at 30°–45°
trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) roll angle. The force may
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
or Longitudinal Control be shown as a cross plot
Forces—±0.5 lb. (0.223 for irreversible systems.
daN) or ±10%. May be a series of snap-
PC31
shot tests.
2.d. ............. Lateral and Directional Handling Qualities
2.d.1. .......... Control Response

Pt. 60, App. C
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Simulator
Test level
Pt. 60, App. C
Jkt 253047
2.d.1.a ........ Lateral .................................... Roll Rate—±10% or ±3°/sec., Cruise Augmentation On and Record results for at least X X X
Roll Attitude Change— Off. two airspeeds, including
±10% or ±3°. the speed at or near the
minimum power required
airspeed.
PO 00000
Record results for a step con-
trol input. The Off-axis re-
cases.
Frm 00360
2.d.1.b. ....... Directional .............................. Yaw Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec., Cruise Augmentation On and Record data for at least two X X X
Yaw Attitude Change— Off. airspeeds, including the
±10% or ±2°. speed at or near the min-
imum power required air-
speed.
Fmt 8010
Record results for a step con-
350
trol input. The Off-axis re-
cases.
Sfmt 8002
2.d.2. .......... Directional Static Stability. Lateral Control Position— Cruise; or Climb (may use Record results for at least X X X This is a steady heading
±10% of change from trim Descent instead of Climb if two sideslip angles on ei- sideslip test at a fixed col-
or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or desired), Augmentation On ther side of the trim point. lective position.
Lateral Control Force— and Off. The force may be shown
±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or as a cross plot for irrevers-
10%, Roll Attitude—±1.5, ible systems. May be a se-
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
Directional Control Posi- ries of snapshot tests.
tion—±10% of change from
trim or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm)
or Directional Control
PC31
Force—±1 lb. (0.448 daN)
or 10%, Longitudinal Con-
trol Position—±10% of
change from trim or ±0.25
in. (6.3 mm), Vertical Ve-
locity—±100 fpm (0.50m/
sec) or 10%.
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.d.3. .......... Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability
2.d.3.a. ....... Lateral-Directional Oscilla- ±0.5 sec. or ±10% of period, Cruise or Climb. Augmenta- Record results for at least X X X
13:36 May 19, 2021

tions. ±10% of time to 1⁄2 or dou- tion On and Off. two airspeeds. The test
ble amplitude or ±0.02 of must be initiated with a cy-
damping ratio, ±20% or ±1 clic or a pedal doublet
sec of time difference be- input. Record results for six
tween peaks of bank and full cycles (12 overshoots
sideslip. For non-periodic after input completed) or
Jkt 253047
responses, the time history that sufficient to determine
must be matched within time to 1⁄2 or double ampli-
±10 knots Airspeed; ±5°/s tude, whichever is less.
Roll Rate or ±5° Roll Atti- The test may be terminated
tude; ±4°/s Yaw Rate or prior to 20 sec if the test
PO 00000
±4° Yaw Angle over a 20 pilot determines that the re-
sec period roll angle fol- sults are becoming uncon-
lowing release of the controllably divergent.
trols.
Frm 00361
2.d.3.b. ....... Spiral Stability. ±2° or ±10% roll angle. Cruise or Climb. Augmenta- Record the results of a re- X X X
tion On and Off. lease from pedal only or
cyclic only turns for 20 sec.
Results must be recorded

from turns in both direc-
Fmt 8010
tions. Terminate check at
351
zero roll angle or when the
test pilot determines that
the attitude is becoming
uncontrollably divergent.
Sfmt 8002
2.d.3.c. ........ Adverse/Proverse Yaw. Correct Trend, ±2° transient Cruise or Climb. Augmenta- Record the time history of ini- X X X
sideslip angle. tion On and Off. tial entry into cyclic only
turns, using only a mod-
erate rate for cyclic input.
Results must be recorded
for turns in both directions.
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
3. Motion System
3.a. ............. Frequency response
PC31
Based on Simulator Capa- N/A ......................................... Required as part of the X X X
bility. MQTG. The test must dem-
onstrate frequency re-
sponse of the motion sys-
tem as specified by the ap-
plicant for flight simulator
qualification.
Pt. 60, App. C
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Simulator
Test level
Pt. 60, App. C
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3.b. ............. Leg Balance
Leg Balance .......................... Based on Simulator Capa- N/A ......................................... Required as part of the X X X
onstrate motion system leg
PO 00000
balance as specified by the
applicant for flight simulator
qualification.
3.c. .............. Turn Around
Frm 00362
Turn Around .......................... Based on Simulator Capa- N/A ......................................... Required as part of the X X X
onstrate a smooth turn-
around (shift to opposite di-
rection of movement) of the
Fmt 8010
motion system as specified
352
by the applicant for flight
simulator qualification.
3.d. ............. Motion system repeatability
Sfmt 8002
With the same input signal, Accomplished in both the Required as part of the X X X See Paragraph 6.c. in this at-
the test results must be re- ‘‘ground’’ mode and in the MQTG. The test is accom- tachment for additional in-
peatable to within ±0.05g ‘‘flight’’ mode of the motion plished by injecting a mo- formation. Note: if there is
actual platform linear accel- system operation. tion signal to generate no difference in the model
eration in each axis. movement of the platform. for ‘‘ground’’ and ‘‘flight’’
The input must be such operation of the motion
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
that the rotational accelera- system, this should be de-
tions, rotational rates, and scribed in an SOC and will
linear accelerations are in- not require tests in both
serted before the transfer modes.
PC31
from helicopter center of
gravity to the pilot ref-
erence point with a min-
imum amplitude of 5°/sec/
sec, 10°/sec and 0.3g, re-
spectively.
3.e. ............. Motion cueing performance signature

VerDate Sep<11>2014
Required as part of MQTG. See paragraph 6.d., of this
These tests must be run attachment, Motion cueing
with the motion buffet performance signature.
13:36 May 19, 2021

mode disabled.
3.e.1. .......... Takeoff (all engines). As specified by the sponsor Ground ................................... Pitch attitude due to initial X X X Associated to test number
for flight simulator qualifica- climb must dominate over 1.c.1.
tion. cab tilt due to longitudinal
acceleration.
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3.e.2. .......... Hover performance (IGE and As specified by the sponsor Ground ................................... X X Associated to test number
OGE). for flight simulator qualifica- 1.d.
tion.
PO 00000
3.e.3. .......... Autorotation (entry). As specified by the sponsor Flight ...................................... X X Associated to test number 1.i.
for flight simulator qualifica-
tion.
3.e.4. .......... Landing (all engines). As specified by the sponsor Flight ...................................... X X X Associated to test number
Frm 00363
for flight simulator qualifica- 1.j.1.
tion.
3.e.5. .......... Autorotation (landing). As specified by the sponsor Flight ...................................... X X Associated to test number
for flight simulator qualifica- 1.j.4.
Fmt 8010
tion.
353
3.e.6. .......... Control Response
3.e.6.a. ....... Longitudinal ........................... As specified by the sponsor Flight ...................................... X X X Associated to test number
Sfmt 8002
for flight simulator qualifica- 2.c.1.
tion.
3.e.6.b. ....... Lateral. ................................... As specified by the sponsor Ground ................................... X X X Associated to test number
for flight simulator qualifica- 2.d.1.a.
tion.
3.e.6.c. ........ Directional .............................. As specified by the sponsor X X X Associated to test number
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
for flight simulator qualifica- 2.d.1.c.
tion.
PC31
3.f. .............. Characteristic Motion (Vibration) Cues—For all of the following tests, the simulator test results must exhibit the overall appear- .... .... .... Characteristic motion cues
ance and trends of the helicopter data, with at least three (3) of the predominant frequency ‘‘spikes’’ being present within ±2 may be separate from the
Hz. ‘‘main’’ motion system.
Pt. 60, App. C
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Simulator
Test level
Pt. 60, App. C
Jkt 253047
3.f.1. ........... Vibrations—to include 1/Rev + 3db to ¥6db or ±10% of (a) On ground (idle); Characteristic vibrations in- X Correct trend refers to a com-
and n/Rev vibrations nominal vibration level in (b) In flight clude those that result from parison of vibration ampli-
(where ‘‘n’’ is the number flight cruise and correct operation of the helicopter tudes between different
of main rotor blades). trend (see comment). (for example, high air- maneuvers; e.g., if the 1/
speed, retreating blade rev vibration amplitude in
PO 00000
stall, extended landing the helicopter is higher dur-
gear, vortex ring or settling ing steady state turns than
with power) in so far as vi- in level flight this increasing
bration marks an event or trend should be dem-
helicopter state, which can onstrated in the simulator.
be sensed in the flight Additional examples of vi-
Frm 00364
deck. brations may include:
[See Table C1A, table entries (a) Low & High speed transi-
5.e. and 5.f.] tion to and from hover;
(b) Level flight;
(c) Climb and descent (in-
Fmt 8010
cluding vertical climb;
354
(d) Auto-rotation;
(e) Steady Turns.
3.f.2. ........... Buffet—Test against recorded + 3db to ¥6db or ±10% of On ground and in flight. Characteristic buffets include X The recorded test results for
Sfmt 8002
results for characteristic nominal vibration level in those that result from oper- characteristic buffets
buffet motion that can be flight cruise and correct ation of the helicopter (for should allow the checking
sensed in the flight deck. trend (see comment). example, high airspeed, re- of relative amplitude for dif-
treating blade stall, ex- ferent frequencies.
tended landing gear, vortex For atmospheric disturbance,
ring or settling with power) general purpose models
in so far as a buffet marks are acceptable which ap-
an event or helicopter proximate demonstrable
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
state, which can be sensed flight test data.
in the flight deck.
[See Table C1A, table entries
PC31
5.e. and 5.f.]
4. Visual System
4.a. ............. Visual System Response Time: (Choose either test 4.a.1. or 4.a.2. to satisfy test 4.a., Visual System Response Time Test. This test is also sufficient for motion system re-
sponse timing and flight deck instrument response timing.)
4.a.1. .......... Latency

VerDate Sep<11>2014
150 ms (or less) after heli- Takeoff, climb, and descent. One test is required in each X
copter response. axis (pitch, roll and yaw)
for each of the three condi-
13:36 May 19, 2021

tions (take-off, cruise, and
approach or landing).
100 ms (or less) after heli- Climb, cruise, descent, and One test is required in each X X
copter response. hover. axis (pitch, roll and yaw)
for each of the three condi-
Jkt 253047
tions (take-off, cruise, and
approach or landing).
4.a.2. .......... Transport Delay
PO 00000
If Transport Delay is the cho-
sen method to demonstrate
relative responses, the
sponsor and the NSPM will
use the latency values to
ensure proper simulator re-
Frm 00365
sponse when reviewing
those existing tests where
latency can be identified
(e.g., short period, roll re-
Fmt 8010
sponse, rudder response).
355
150 ms (or less) after con- N/A ......................................... A separate test is required in X
troller movement. each axis (pitch, roll, and
yaw).
Sfmt 8002
100 ms (or less) after con- N/A ......................................... A separate test is required in X X
troller movement. each axis (pitch, roll, and
yaw)..
4.b. ............. Field-of-view
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
PC31
Pt. 60, App. C
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Simulator
Test level
Pt. 60, App. C
Jkt 253047
4.b.1. .......... Continuous field-of-view. The simulator must provide a N/A ......................................... An SOC is required and must X Horizontal field-of-view is
continuous field-of-view of explain the geometry of the centered on the zero de-
at least 75° horizontally installation. gree azimuth line relative
and 30° vertically per pilot Additional horizontal field-of- to the aircraft fuselage.
seat or the number of de- view capability may be Field-of-view may be
PO 00000
grees necessary to meet added at the sponsor’s dis- measured using a visual
the visual ground segment cretion provided the min- test pattern filling the entire
requirement, whichever is imum field-of-view is re- visual scene (all channels)
greater. Both pilot seat vis- tained. with a matrix of black and
ual systems must be oper- white 5° squares.
able simultaneously. Wide-
Frm 00366
angle systems providing
cross-flight deck viewing
(for both pilots simulta-
neously) must provide a
minimum field-of-view of at
Fmt 8010
least 146° horizontally and
356
36° vertically. Any geo-
metric error between the
Image Generator eye point
and the pilot eye point
Sfmt 8002
must be 8° or less.
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
PC31
VerDate Sep<11>2014
4.b.2. .......... Continuous field-of-view. The simulator must provide a N/A ......................................... An SOC is required and must X Horizontal field-of-view is
continuous field-of-view of explain the geometry of the centered on the zero de-
at least 146° horizontally installation. gree azimuth line relative
13:36 May 19, 2021

and 36° vertically or the Horizontal field-of-view of at to the aircraft fuselage.
number of degrees nec- least 146° (including not Field-of-view may be
essary to meet the visual less than 73° measured ei- measured using a visual
ground segment require- ther side of the center of test pattern filling the entire
ment, whichever is greater. the design eye point). Addi- visual scene (all channels)
The minimum horizontal tional horizontal field-of- with a matrix of black and
Jkt 253047
field-of-view coverage must view capability may be white 5° squares.
be plus and minus one-half added at the sponsor’s dis-
(1⁄2) of the minimum contin- cretion provided the min-
uous field-of-view require- imum field-of-view is re-
ment, centered on the zero tained.
PO 00000
degree azimuth line relative Vertical field-of-view of at
to the aircraft fuselage. Any least 36° measured from
geometric error between the pilot’s and co-pilot’s
the Image Generator eye eye point.
point and the pilot eye
Frm 00367
point must be 8° or less.
4.b.3. .......... Continuous field-of-view. Continuous field-of-view of at N/A ......................................... An SOC is required and must X The horizontal field-of-view is
least 176° horizontal and explain the geometry of the traditionally described as a
56° vertical field-of-view for installation. 180° field-of-view. How-
Fmt 8010
each pilot simultaneously. Horizontal field-of-view is ever, the field-of-view is
357
Any geometric error be- centered on the zero de- technically no less than
tween the Image Generator gree azimuth line relative 176°. Field-of-view may be
eye point and the pilot eye to the aircraft fuselage. measured using a visual
point must be 8° or less. Horizontal field-of-view test pattern filling the entire
Sfmt 8002
must be at least 176° (in- visual scene (all channels)
cluding not less than 88° with a matrix of black and
either side of the center of white 5° squares.
the design eye point). Addi-
tional horizontal field-of-
view capability may be
added at the sponsor’s dis-
cretion provided the min-
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
imum field-of-view is re-
tained.
Vertical field-of-view must not
PC31
be less than a total of 56°
measured from the pilot’s
and co-pilot’s eye point.
Pt. 60, App. C
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Simulator
Test level
Pt. 60, App. C
Jkt 253047
4.c. .............. Surface contrast ratio. Not less than 5:1. N/A ......................................... The ratio is calculated by di- X Measurements may be made
viding the brightness level using a 1° spot photometer
of the center, bright square and a raster drawn test
(providing at least 2 foot- pattern filling the entire vis-
lamberts or 7 cd/m2) by the ual scene (all channels)
PO 00000
brightness level of any ad- with a test pattern of black
jacent dark square. and white squares, 5 per
square, with a white square
in the center of each chan-
nel. During contrast ratio
testing, simulator aft-cab
Frm 00368
and flight deck ambient
light levels should be zero.
4.d. ............. Highlight brightness. Not less than six (6) foot-lam- N/A ......................................... Measure the brightness of X Measurements may be made
berts (20 cd/m2). the center, white square using a 1° spot photometer
Fmt 8010
while superimposing a and a raster drawn test
358
highlight on that white pattern filling the entire vis-
square. The use of calli- ual scene (all channels)
graphic capabilities to en- with a test pattern of black
hance the raster brightness and white squares, 5 per
Sfmt 8002
is acceptable; however, square, with a white square
measuring light points is in the center of each chan-
not acceptable. nel.
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
PC31
VerDate Sep<11>2014
4.e. ............. Surface resolution. Not greater than two (2) arc N/A ......................................... An SOC is required and must X X When the eye is positioned
minutes. include the appropriate cal- on a 3° glide slope at the
culations and an expla- slant range distances indi-
13:36 May 19, 2021

nation of those calcula- cated with white runway
tions. Level B requires sur- markings on a black run-
face resolution not greater way surface, the eye will
than three (3) arc minutes. subtend two (2) arc min-
utes: (1) A slant range of
6,876 ft with stripes 150 ft
Jkt 253047
long and 16 ft wide,
spaced 4 ft apart. (2) For
Configuration A, a slant
range of 5,157 feet with
stripes 150 ft long and 12 ft
PO 00000
wide, spaced 3 ft apart. (3)
For Configuration B, a slant
range of 9,884 feet, with
stripes 150 ft long and 5.75
ft wide, spaced 5.75 ft
Frm 00369
apart.
4.f. .............. Light point size ...................... Not greater than five (5) arc N/A ......................................... An SOC is required and must X X Light point size may be
minutes. include the relevant cal- measured using a test pat-

culations and an expla- tern consisting of a cen-
Fmt 8010
nation of those calcula- trally located single row of
359
tions. light points reduced in
length until modulation is
just discernible in each vis-
ual channel. A row of 48
Sfmt 8002
lights will form a 4° angle
or less.
4.g. ............. Light point contrast ratio. A 1° spot photometer may be

used to measure a square
of at least 1° filled with light
points (where light point
modulation is just discern-
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
ible) and compare the re-
sults to the measured adja-
cent background. During
PC31
contrast ratio testing, simu-
lator aft-cab and flight deck
ambient light levels should
be zero.
4.g.1. .......... Not less than 10:1 ................. N/A ......................................... An SOC is required and must X
include the relevant cal-
culations.
Pt. 60, App. C
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Simulator
Test level
Pt. 60, App. C
Jkt 253047
4.g.2. .......... Not less than 25:1 ................. N/A ......................................... An SOC is required and must X X
include the relevant cal-
culations.
4.h. ............. Visual ground segment
PO 00000
The visible segment in the Landing configuration, with The QTG must contain ap- X X X Pre-positioning for this test is
simulator must be ±20% of the aircraft trimmed for the propriate calculations and a encouraged, and may be
the segment computed to appropriate airspeed, drawing showing the data achieved via manual or
be visible from the heli- where the MLG are at 100 used to establish the heli- autopilot control to the de-
copter flight deck. This tol- ft (30 m) above the plane copter location and the sired position.
Frm 00370
erance may be applied at of the touchdown zone, on segment of the ground that
the far end of the displayed the electronic glide slope is visible considering de-
segment. However, lights with an RVR value set at sign eye point, the heli-
and ground objects com- 1,200 ft (350 m). copter attitude, flight deck
puted to be visible from the cut-off angle, and a visi-
Fmt 8010
helicopter flight deck at the bility of 1200 ft (350 m)
360
near end of the visible seg- RVR. Simulator perform-
ment must be visible in the ance must be measured
simulator. against the QTG calcula-
tions. The data submitted
Sfmt 8002
must include at least the
following:
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
PC31
VerDate Sep<11>2014
(1) Static helicopter dimen-
sions as follows:
(i) Horizontal and vertical dis-
13:36 May 19, 2021

tance from main landing
gear (MLG) to glideslope
reception antenna.
(ii) Horizontal and vertical dis-
tance from MLG to pilot’s
eyepoint.
Jkt 253047
(iii) Static flight deck cutoff
angle.
(2) Approach data as follows:
(i) Identification of runway.
(ii) Horizontal distance from
PO 00000
runway threshold to
glideslope intercept with
runway.
(iii) Glideslope angle.
(iv) Helicopter pitch angle on
Frm 00371
approach.
(3) Helicopter data for man-
ual testing:
(i) Gross weight.

(ii) Helicopter configuration.
Fmt 8010
(iii) Approach airspeed.
361
If non-homogenous fog is
used to obscure visibility,
the vertical variation in hor-
izontal visibility must be de-
scribed and be included in
Sfmt 8002
the slant range visibility
calculation used in the
computations.
5. ................ Sound system
The sponsor will not be required to repeat the helicopter tests (i.e., tests 5.a.1. through 5.a.8. (or 5.b.1. through 5.b.9.) and
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
5.c., as appropriate) during continuing qualification evaluations if frequency response and background noise test results are
within tolerance when compared to the initial qualification evaluation results, and the sponsor shows that no software
changes have occurred that will affect the helicopter test results. If the frequency response test method is chosen and fails,
PC31
the sponsor may elect to fix the frequency response problem and repeat the test or the sponsor may elect to repeat the hel-
icopter tests. If the helicopter tests are repeated during continuing qualification evaluations, the results may be compared
against initial qualification evaluation results or helicopter master data. All tests in this section must be presented using an
unweighted 1⁄3-octave band format from band 17 to 42 (50 Hz to 16 kHz). A minimum 20 second average must be taken at
the location corresponding to the helicopter data set. The helicopter and flight simulator results must be produced using
comparable data analysis techniques.
5.a. ............. Basic requirements

Pt. 60, App. C
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Simulator
Test level
Pt. 60, App. C
Jkt 253047
5.a.1. .......... Ready for engine start. ±5 dB per 1⁄3 octave band. Ground ................................... Normal condition prior to en- X
gine start. The APU must
be on if appropriate.
5.a.2. .......... All engines at idle; rotor not ±5 dB per 1⁄3 octave band. Ground ................................... Normal condition prior to lift- X
PO 00000
turning (if applicable) and off.
rotor turning.
5.a.3. .......... Hover ..................................... ±5 dB per 1⁄3 octave band. Hover ..................................... X
5.a.4. .......... Climb ..................................... 13

±5 dB per ⁄ octave band. En-route climb ....................... Medium altitude ..................... X
Frm 00372
5.a.5. .......... Cruise .................................... ±5 dB per 1⁄3 octave band. Cruise .................................... Normal cruise configuration. X
5.a.6. .......... Final approach ....................... ±5 dB per 1⁄3 octave band. Landing .................................. Constant airspeed, gear X
Fmt 8010
down.
362
5.b. ............. Special cases
±5 dB per 1⁄3 octave band. As appropriate ....................... X These special cases are
identified as particularly
Sfmt 8002
significant during critical
phases of flight and ground
operations for a specific
helicopter type or model.
5.c. .............. Background noise
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
±3 dB per 1⁄3 octave band. As appropriate ....................... Results of the background X The simulated sound will be
noise at initial qualification evaluated to ensure that
must be included in the the background noise does
MQTG. Measurements not interfere with training,
PC31
must be made with the testing, or checking.
simulation running, the
sound muted, and a
‘‘dead’’ flight deck.
5.d. ............. Frequency response

VerDate Sep<11>2014
±5 dB on three (3) consecu- Applicable only to Continuing X Measurements are compared
tive bands when compared Qualification Evaluations. If to those taken during initial
to initial evaluation; and ±2 frequency response plots qualification evaluation.
13:36 May 19, 2021

dB when comparing the av- are provided for each
erage of the absolute dif- channel at the initial eval-
ferences between initial uation, these plots may be
and continuing qualification repeated at the continuing
evaluation. qualification evaluation with
the following tolerances ap-
Jkt 253047
plied:
(a) The continuing qualifica-
tion 1⁄3 octave band ampli-
tudes must not exceed ±5
dB for three consecutive
PO 00000
bands when compared to
initial results.
(b) The average of the sum
of the absolute differences
between initial and con-
Frm 00373
tinuing qualification results
must not exceed 2 dB
(refer to table C2C in Ap-
pendix C).
Fmt 8010
363
Sfmt 8002
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
PC31
Pt. 60, App. C
llllllllllllllllllllllll those encountered in flight. Likewise, it may
be shown that for some helicopters, hover,
BEGIN INFORMATION climb, cruise, and autorotation have like ef-
fects. Thus, one may suffice for another. If
3. GENERAL
either or both considerations apply, engi-
a. If relevant winds are present in the ob- neering validation or helicopter manufac-
jective data, the wind vector should be clear- turer rationale should be submitted as jus-
ly noted as part of the data presentation, ex- tification for ground tests or for eliminating
pressed in conventional terminology, and re- a configuration. For FFSs requiring static
lated to the runway being used for test near and dynamic tests at the controls, special
the ground. test fixtures will not be required during ini-
b. The reader is encouraged to review the tial and upgrade evaluations if the QTG
Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Hand- shows both test fixture results and the re-
book, Volumes I and II, published by the sults of an alternate approach (e.g., com-
Royal Aeronautical Society, London, UK, puter plots that were produced concurrently
and FAA AC 25–7, as amended, Flight Test and show satisfactory agreement). Repeat of
Guide for Certification of Transport Cat- the alternate method during the initial eval-
egory Airplanes, and AC 23–8, as amended, uation satisfies this test requirement.
Flight Test Guide for Certification of Part 23 b. Control Dynamics Evaluations. The dy-
Airplanes, for references and examples re- namic properties of control systems are
garding flight testing requirements and tech- often stated in terms of frequency, damping,
niques. and a number of other classical measure-
ments. In order to establish a consistent
4. CONTROL DYNAMICS means of validating test results for FFS con-
a. General. The characteristics of a heli- trol loading, criteria are needed that will
copter flight control system have a major ef- clearly define the measurement interpreta-
fect on the handling qualities. A significant tion and the applied tolerances. Criteria are
consideration in pilot acceptability of a heli- needed for underdamped, critically damped
copter is the ‘‘feel’’ provided through the and overdamped systems. In the case of an
flight controls. Considerable effort is ex- underdamped system with very light damp-
pended on helicopter feel system design so ing, the system may be quantified in terms
that pilots will be comfortable and will con- of frequency and damping. In critically
sider the helicopter desirable to fly. In order damped or overdamped systems, the fre-
for an FFS to be representative, it should quency and damping are not readily meas-
‘‘feel’’ like the helicopter being simulated. ured from a response time history. There-
Compliance with this requirement is deter- fore, the following suggested measurements
mined by comparing a recording of the con- may be used:
trol feel dynamics of the FFS to actual heli- (1) For Levels C and D simulators. Tests to
copter measurements in the hover and cruise verify that control feel dynamics represent
configurations. the helicopter should show that the dynamic
(1) Recordings such as free response to an damping cycles (free response of the con-
impulse or step function are classically used trols) match those of the helicopter within
to estimate the dynamic properties of specified tolerances. The NSPM recognizes
electromechanical systems. In any case, it is that several different testing methods may
only possible to estimate the dynamic prop- be used to verify the control feel dynamic re-
erties as a result of only being able to esti- sponse. The NSPM will consider the merits
mate true inputs and responses. Therefore, it of testing methods based on reliability and
is imperative that the best possible data be consistency. One acceptable method of eval-
collected since close matching of the FFS uating the response and the tolerance to be
control loading system to the helicopter sys- applied is described below for the under-
tem is essential. The required dynamic con- damped and critically damped cases. A spon-
trol tests are described in Table C2A of this sor using this method to comply with the
attachment. QPS requirements should perform the tests
(2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, the as follows:
QPS requires that control dynamics charac- (a) Underdamped Response. Two measure-
teristics be measured and recorded directly ments are required for the period, the time
from the flight controls (Handling Quali- to first zero crossing (in case a rate limit is
ties—Table C2A). This procedure is usually present) and the subsequent frequency of os-
accomplished by measuring the free response cillation. It is necessary to measure cycles
of the controls using a step or impulse input on an individual basis in case there are non-
to excite the system. The procedure should uniform periods in the response. Each period
be accomplished in the hover and cruise will be independently compared to the re-
flight conditions and configurations. spective period of the helicopter control sys-
(3) For helicopters with irreversible con- tem and, consequently, will enjoy the full
trol systems, measurements may be obtained tolerance specified for that period. The
on the ground if proper pitot-static inputs damping tolerance will be applied to over-
are provided to represent airspeeds typical of shoots on an individual basis. Care should be
364
taken when applying the tolerance to small (b) The following tolerance applies to criti-
overshoots since the significance of such cally damped and overdamped systems only.
overshoots becomes questionable. Only those See Figure C2B for an illustration of the ref-
overshoots larger than 5 percent of the total erence measurements:
initial displacement should be considered
T(P0) .................... ±10% of P0
significant. The residual band, labeled T(Ad)
on Figure C2A is ±5 percent of the initial dis- END INFORMATION
placement amplitude Ad from the steady
state value of the oscillation. Only oscilla- llllllllllllllllllllllll
tions outside the residual band are consid-
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENT
ered significant. When comparing FFS data
to helicopter data, the process should begin c. Alternative method for control dynam-
by overlaying or aligning the FFS and heli- ics evaluation.
copter steady state values and then com- (1) An alternative means for validating
paring amplitudes of oscillation peaks, the control dynamics for aircraft with hydrau-
time of the first zero crossing, and individual lically powered flight controls and artificial
periods of oscillation. The FFS should show feel systems is by the measurement of con-
the same number of significant overshoots to trol force and rate of movement. For each
within one when compared against the heli- axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must
copter data. The procedure for evaluating be forced to its maximum extreme position
the response is illustrated in Figure C2A. for the following distinct rates. These tests
(b) Critically damped and Overdamped Re- are conducted under normal flight and
sponse. Due to the nature of critically ground conditions.
damped and overdamped responses (no over- (a) Static test—Slowly move the control so
shoots), the time to reach 90 percent of the that a full sweep is achieved within 95–105
steady state (neutral point) value should be seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement
the same as the helicopter within ±10 per- of the controller from neutral to the stop,
cent. The simulator response must be criti- usually aft or right stop, then to the oppo-
cally damped also. Figure C2B illustrates the site stop, then to the neutral position.
procedure. (b) Slow dynamic test—Achieve a full
(c) Special considerations. Control systems sweep within 8–12 seconds.
that exhibit characteristics other than clas- (c) Fast dynamic test—Achieve a full
sical overdamped or underdamped responses sweep in within 3–5 seconds.
should meet specified tolerances. In addi- NOTE: Dynamic sweeps may be limited to
tion, special consideration should be given to forces not exceeding 100 lbs. (44.5 daN).
ensure that significant trends are main-
(d) Tolerances
tained.
(i) Static test—see Table C2A, FFS Objec-
(2) Tolerances.
tive Tests, Entries 2.a.1., 2.a.2., and 2.a.3.
(a) The following summarizes the toler-
(ii) Dynamic test—±2 lbs (0.9 daN) or ±10%
ances, ‘‘T’’ for underdamped systems, and
on dynamic increment above static test.
‘‘n’’ is the sequential period of a full cycle of
oscillation. See Figure C2A of this attach- END QPS REQUIREMENT
ment for an illustration of the referenced
measurements. llllllllllllllllllllllll
T(P0) .................... ±10% of P0 BEGIN INFORMATION
T(P1) .................... ±20% of P1 d. The FAA is open to alternative means
T(P2) .................... ±30% of P2 that are justified and appropriate to the ap-
T(Pn) .................... ±10(n + 1)% of Pn plication. For example, the method described
T(An) .................... ±10% of A1, ±20% here may not apply to all manufacturers sys-
of Subsequent tems and certainly not to aircraft with re-
Peaks versible control systems. Each case is con-
T(Ad) .................... ±5% of Ad = resid- sidered on its own merit on an ad hoc basis.
If the FAA finds that alternative methods do
ual band
not result in satisfactory performance, more
Significant overshoots. First overshoot conventionally accepted methods will have
and ±1 subsequent overshoots to be used.
365

llllllllllllllllllllllll 6. MOTION SYSTEM.
5. [RESERVED] a. General.
(1) Pilots use continuous information sig-
nals to regulate the state of the helicopter.
In concert with the instruments and outside-
world visual information, whole-body motion

feedback is essential in assisting the pilot to
366
ER09MY08.034</GPH>
control the helicopter dynamics, particu- of automated QTG maneuvers during initial
larly in the presence of external disturb- qualification. It is not intended to be a com-
ances. The motion system should meet basic parison of the motion platform accelerations
objective performance criteria, and be sub- against the flight test recorded accelerations
jectively tuned at the pilot’s seat position to (i.e., not to be compared against helicopter
represent the linear and angular accelera- cueing). If there is a modification to the ini-
tions of the helicopter during a prescribed tially qualified motion software or motion
minimum set of maneuvers and conditions. hardware (e.g., motion washout filter, simu-
The response of the motion cueing system lator payload change greater than 10%) then
should be repeatable. a new baseline may need to be established.
(2) The Motion System tests in Section 3 of (2) Test Selection. The conditions identi-
Table C2A are intended to qualify the FFS fied in Section 3.e. in Table C2A are those
motion cueing system from a mechanical maneuvers where motion cueing is the most
performance standpoint. Additionally, the discernible. They are general tests applicable
list of motion effects provides a representa- to all types of helicopters and should be com-
tive sample of dynamic conditions that pleted for motion cueing performance signa-
should be present in the flight simulator. An ture at any time acceptable to the NSPM
additional list of representative, training- prior to or during the initial qualification
critical maneuvers, selected from Section 1, evaluation, and the results included in the
(Performance tests) and Section 2, (Handling MQTG.
Qualities tests) in Table C2A, that should be (3) Priority. Motion system should be de-
recorded during initial qualification (but signed with the intent of placing greater im-
without tolerance) to indicate the flight sim- portance on those maneuvers that directly
ulator motion cueing performance signature influence pilot perception and control of the
have been identified (reference Section 3.e). helicopter motions. For the maneuvers iden-
These tests are intended to help improve the tified in section 3.e. in Table C2A, the flight
overall standard of FFS motion cueing. simulator motion cueing system should have
b. Motion System Checks. The intent of a high tilt co-ordination gain, high rota-
test 3a, Frequency Response, test 3b, Leg tional gain, and high correlation with re-
Balance, and test 3c, Turn-Around Check, as spect to the helicopter simulation model.
described in the Table of Objective Tests, is (4) Data Recording. The minimum list of
to demonstrate the performance of the mo- parameters provided should allow for the de-
tion system hardware, and to check the in- termination of the flight simulator’s motion
tegrity of the motion set-up with regard to cueing performance signature for the initial
calibration and wear. These tests are inde- qualification evaluation. The following pa-
pendent of the motion cueing software and rameters are recommended as being accept-
should be considered robotic tests. able to perform such a function:
c. Motion System Repeatability. The in- (a) Flight model acceleration and rota-
tent of this test is to ensure that the motion tional rate commands at the pilot reference
system software and motion system hard- point;
ware have not degraded or changed over (b) Motion actuators position;
time. This diagnostic test should be com- (c) Actual platform position;
pleted during continuing qualification (d) Actual platform acceleration at pilot
checks in lieu of the robotic tests. This will reference point.
allow an improved ability to determine e. Motion Vibrations.
changes in the software or determine deg- (1) Presentation of results. The char-
radation in the hardware. The following in- acteristic motion vibrations may be used to
formation delineates the methodology that verify that the flight simulator can repro-
should be used for this test. duce the frequency content of the helicopter
(1) Input: The inputs should be such that when flown in specific conditions. The test
rotational accelerations, rotational rates, results should be presented as a Power Spec-
and linear accelerations are inserted before tral Density (PSD) plot with frequencies on
the transfer from helicopter center of grav- the horizontal axis and amplitude on the
ity to pilot reference point with a minimum vertical axis. The helicopter data and flight
amplitude of 5 deg/sec/sec, 10 deg/sec and 0.3 simulator data should be presented in the
g, respectively, to provide adequate analysis same format with the same scaling. The al-
of the output. gorithms used for generating the flight simu-
(2) Recommended output: lator data should be the same as those used
(a) Actual platform linear accelerations; for the helicopter data. If they are not the
the output will comprise accelerations due same then the algorithms used for the flight
to both the linear and rotational motion ac- simulator data should be proven to be suffi-
celeration; ciently comparable. As a minimum the re-
(b) Motion actuators position. sults along the dominant axes should be pre-
d. Motion Cueing Performance Signature. sented and a rationale for not presenting the
(1) Background. The intent of this test is other axes should be provided.
to provide quantitative time history records (2) Interpretation of results. The overall
of motion system response to a selected set trend of the PSD plot should be considered
367
while focusing on the dominant frequencies. vious two examples differ in magnitude by
Less emphasis should be placed on the dif- 1000. On a PSD plot this represents three dec-
ferences at the high frequency and low am- ades (one decade is a change in order of mag-
plitude portions of the PSD plot. During the nitude of 10, and two decades is a change in
analysis, certain structural components of order of magnitude of 100).
the flight simulator have resonant fre-
NOTE: In the example, ‘‘g-rms2’’ is the
quencies that are filtered and may not ap-
mathematical expression for ‘‘g’s root mean
pear in the PSD plot. If filtering is required,
squared.’’
the notch filter bandwidth should be limited
to 1 Hz to ensure that the buffet feel is not f. Table C2B, Motion System Recommenda-
adversely affected. In addition, a rationale tions for Level C and Level D Helicopter
should be provided to explain that the char- Simulators, contains a description of the pa-
acteristic motion vibration is not being ad- rameters that should be present in simulator
versely affected by the filtering. The ampli- motion systems to provide adequate onset
tude should match helicopter data as de- motion cues to helicopter pilots. The infor-
scribed below. However, if the PSD plot was mation provided covers the six axes of mo-
altered for subjective reasons, a rationale tion (pitch, roll, yaw, vertical, lateral, and
should be provided to justify the change. If longitudinal) and addresses displacement,
the plot is on a logarithmic scale it may be velocity, and acceleration. Also included is
difficult to interpret the amplitude of the information about the parameters for initial
buffet in terms of acceleration. For example, rotational and linear acceleration. The pa-
a 1 × 10¥3 g-rms2/Hz would describe a heavy rameters listed in this table apply only to
buffet and may be seen in the deep stall re- Level C and Level D simulators, and are pre-
gime. Alternatively, a 1 × 10¥6 g-rms2/Hz buf- sented here as recommended targets for mo-
fet is almost imperceptable, but may rep- tion system capability. They are not require-
resent a flap buffet at low speed. The pre- ments.
TABLE C2B—MOTION SYSTEM RECOMMENDATIONS FOR LEVEL C AND LEVEL D HELICOPTER

SIMULATORS
a. ........... Motion System Envelope

a.1. ........ Pitch
a.1.a. ..... Displacement ...................................................................... ±25°
a.1.b. ..... Velocity ............................................................................... ±20°/sec
a.1.c. ..... Acceleration ........................................................................ ±100°/sec2
a.2. ........ Roll
a.2.a. ..... Displacement ...................................................................... ±25°
a.2.b. ..... Velocity ............................................................................... ±20°/sec
a.3. ........ Yaw
a.3.a. ..... Displacement ...................................................................... ±25°
a.3.b. ..... Velocity— ............................................................................ ±20°/sec
a.4. ........ Vertical
a.4.a. ..... Displacement ...................................................................... ±34 in.
a.4.b. ..... Velocity ............................................................................... ±24 in.
a.4.c. ..... Acceleration ........................................................................ ±0.8 g.
a.5. ........ Lateral
a.5.b. ..... Velocity ............................................................................... ±28 in/sec.
a.6. ........ Longitudinal
a.6.b. ..... Velocity ............................................................................... ±28 in/sec.
a.7. ........ Initial Rotational Acceleration Ratio.
All axes 300°/ sec2/sec
a.8. ........ Initial Linear Acceleration Ratio.
a.8.a. ..... Vertical ................................................................................ ±6g/sec
a.8.b. ..... Lateral ................................................................................. ±3g/sec
a.8.c. ..... Longitudinal ......................................................................... ±3g/sec
368
7. SOUND SYSTEM figuration, airspeed, altitude, and power set-

tings. Flight deck sounds are an important
a. General. The total sound environment in
component of the flight deck operational en-

the helicopter is very complex, and changes
vironment and provide valuable information
with atmospheric conditions, helicopter con-
369
ER09MY08.035</GPH>
to the flight crew. These aural cues can ei- of the sound environment to the evaluation
ther assist the crew (as an indication of an pilot.
abnormal situation), or hinder the crew (as a (b) The acceptability of the background
distraction or nuisance). For effective train- noise levels is dependent upon the normal
ing, the flight simulator should provide sound levels in the helicopter being rep-
flight deck sounds that are perceptible to the resented. Background noise levels that fall
pilot during normal and abnormal oper- below the lines defined by the following
ations, and that are comparable to those of
points, may be acceptable:
the helicopter. The flight simulator operator
should carefully evaluate background noises (i) 70 dB @ 50 Hz;
in the location where the device will be in- (ii) 55 dB @ 1000 Hz;
stalled. To demonstrate compliance with the (iii) 30 dB @ 16 kHz.
sound requirements, the objective or valida- (NOTE: These limits are for unweighted 1⁄3
tion tests in this attachment were selected octave band sound levels. Meeting these lim-
to provide a representative sample of normal its for background noise does not ensure an
static conditions typically experienced by a acceptable flight simulator. Helicopter
pilot. sounds that fall below this limit require
b. Alternate propulsion. For FFS with careful review and may require lower limits
multiple propulsion configurations, any con- on background noise.)
dition listed in Table C2A in this attachment
(6) Validation testing. Deficiencies in heli-
should be presented for evaluation as part of
copter recordings should be considered when
the QTG if identified by the helicopter man-
ufacturer or other data supplier as signifi- applying the specified tolerances to ensure
cantly different due to a change in propul- that the simulation is representative of the
sion system (engine or propeller). helicopter. Examples of typical deficiencies
c. Data and Data Collection System. are:
(1) Information provided to the flight simu- (a) Variation of data between tail numbers.
lator manufacturer should comply be pre- (b) Frequency response of microphones.
sented in the format suggested by the (c) Repeatability of the measurements.
‘‘International Air Transport Association
(IATA) Flight Simulator Design and Per- TABLE C2C—EXAMPLE OF CONTINUING QUALI-
formance Data Requirements,’’ as amended. FICATION FREQUENCY RESPONSE TEST TOL-
This information should contain calibration
ERANCE
and frequency response data.
(2) The system used to perform the tests Continuing
listed in Table C2A should comply with the Band center Initial results qualification Absolute
following standards: frequency (dBSPL) results difference
(a) The specifications for octave, half oc- (dBSPL)
tave, and third octave band filter sets may
50 ..................... 75.0 73.8 1.2
be found in American National Standards In-
63 ..................... 75.9 75.6 0.3
stitute (ANSI) S1.11–1986. 80 ..................... 77.1 76.5 0.6
(b) Measurement microphones should be 100 ................... 78.0 78.3 0.3
type WS2 or better, as described in Inter- 125 ................... 81.9 81.3 0.6
national Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 160 ................... 79.8 80.1 0.3
1094–4–1995. 200 ................... 83.1 84.9 1.8
(3) Headsets. If headsets are used during 250 ................... 78.6 78.9 0.3
normal operation of the helicopter they 315 ................... 79.5 78.3 1.2
should also be used during the flight simu- 400 ................... 80.1 79.5 0.9
lator evaluation. 500 ................... 80.7 79.8 0.9
(4) Playback equipment. Playback equip- 630 ................... 81.9 80.4 1.5
ment and recordings of the QTG conditions 800 ................... 73.2 74.1 0.9
should be provided during initial evalua- 1000 ................. 79.2 80.1 0.9
tions. 1250 ................. 80.7 82.8 2.1
(5) Background noise. 1600 ................. 81.6 78.6 3.0
(a) Background noise is the noise in the 2000 ................. 76.2 74.4 1.8
flight simulator that is not associated with 2500 ................. 79.5 80.7 1.2
the helicopter, but is caused by the flight 3150 ................. 80.1 77.1 3.0
simulator’s cooling and hydraulic systems 4000 ................. 78.9 78.6 0.3
and extraneous noise from other locations in 5000 ................. 80.1 77.1 3.0
the building. Background noise can seriously 6300 ................. 80.7 80.4 0.3
impact the correct simulation of helicopter 8000 ................. 84.3 85.5 1.2
sounds, and should be kept below the heli- 10000 ............... 81.3 79.8 1.5
copter sounds. In some cases, the sound level 12500 ............... 80.7 80.1 0.6
of the simulation can be increased to com- 16000 ............... 71.1 71.1 0.0
pensate for the background noise. However,

this approach is limited by the specified tol- Average 1.1
erances and by the subjective acceptability
370
8. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION ABOUT FLIGHT manufacturer could show the application of
SIMULATOR QUALIFICATION FOR NEW OR DE- the method to an earlier helicopter model or
RIVATIVE HELICOPTERS predict the characteristics of an earlier
model and compare the results to final data
a. Typically, a helicopter manufacturer’s
for that model.
approved final data for performance, han-
(2) Early flight test results. This data is
dling qualities, systems or avionics is not
often derived from helicopter certification
available until well after a new or derivative
tests and should be used to maximum advan-
helicopter has entered service. However,
tage for early flight simulator validation.
flight crew training and certification often
Certain critical tests that would normally be
begins several months prior to the entry of
done early in the helicopter certification
the first helicopter into service. Con-
program should be included to validate es-
sequently, it may be necessary to use pre-
sential pilot training and certification ma-
liminary data provided by the helicopter
neuvers. These tests include cases where a
manufacturer for interim qualification of
pilot is expected to cope with a helicopter
flight simulators.
failure mode or an engine failure. The early
b. In these cases, the NSPM may accept
data available will depend on the helicopter
certain partially validated preliminary heli-
manufacturer’s flight test program design
copter and systems data, and early release
and may not be the same in each case. The
(‘‘red label’’) avionics data in order to permit
flight test program of the helicopter manu-
the necessary program schedule for training,
facturer should include provisions for gen-
certification, and service introduction.
eration of very early flight tests results for
c. Simulator sponsors seeking qualifica-
flight simulator validation.
tion based on preliminary data should con-
f. The use of preliminary data is not indefi-
sult the NSPM to make special arrange-
nite. The helicopter manufacturer’s final
ments for using preliminary data for flight
data should be available within 12 months
simulator qualification. The sponsor should
after the helicopter first entry into service
also consult the helicopter and flight simu-
or as agreed by the NSPM, the simulator
lator manufacturers to develop a data plan
sponsor, and the helicopter manufacturer.
and flight simulator qualification plan.
When applying for interim qualification
d. The procedure to be followed to gain
using preliminary data, the simulator spon-
NSPM acceptance of preliminary data will
sor and the NSPM should agree on the up-
vary from case to case and between heli-
date program. This includes specifying that
copter manufacturers. Each helicopter man-
the final data update will be installed in the
ufacturer’s new helicopter development and
flight simulator within a period of 12 months
test program is designed to suit the needs of
following the final data release, unless spe-
the particular project and may not contain
cial conditions exist and a different schedule
the same events or sequence of events as an-
is acceptable. The flight simulator perform-
other manufacturer’s program or even the
ance and handling validation would then be
same manufacturer’s program for a different
based on data derived from flight tests. Ini-
helicopter. Therefore, there cannot be a pre-
tial helicopter systems data should be up-
scribed invariable procedure for acceptance
dated after engineering tests. Final heli-
of preliminary data; instead there should be
copter systems data should also be used for
a statement describing the final sequence of
flight simulator programming and valida-
events, data sources, and validation proce-
tion.
dures agreed by the simulator sponsor, the
g. Flight simulator avionics should stay
helicopter manufacturer, the flight simu-
essentially in step with helicopter avionics
lator manufacturer, and the NSPM.
(hardware and software) updates. The per-
NOTE: A description of helicopter manufac- mitted time lapse between helicopter and
turer-provided data needed for flight simu- flight simulator updates should be minimal.
lator modeling and validation is to be found It may depend on the magnitude of the up-
in the ‘‘Royal Aeronautical Society Data date and whether the QTG and pilot training
Package Requirements for Design and Per- and certification are affected. Differences in
formance Evaluation of Rotary Wing Syn- helicopter and flight simulator avionics
thetic Training Devices.’’ versions and the resulting effects on flight
e. The preliminary data should be the man- simulator qualification should be agreed be-
ufacturer’s best representation of the heli- tween the simulator sponsor and the NSPM.
copter, with assurance that the final data Consultation with the flight simulator man-
will not deviate significantly from the pre- ufacturer is desirable throughout the quali-
liminary estimates. Data derived from these fication process.
predictive or preliminary techniques should h. The following describes an example of
be validated by available sources including, the design data and sources that might be
at least, the following: used in the development of an interim quali-
(1) Manufacturer’s engineering report. The fication plan.
report should explain the predictive method (1) The plan should consist of the develop-
used and illustrate past success of the meth- ment of a QTG based upon a mix of flight
od on similar projects. For example, the test and engineering simulation data. For
371
data collected from specific helicopter flight model modifications that includes a step-by-
tests or other flights the required design step description leading from the original
model or data changes necessary to support model(s) to the current model(s).
an acceptable Proof of Match (POM) should (2) A schedule for review by the NSPM of
be generated by the helicopter manufacturer. the proposed plan and the subsequent valida-
(2) For proper validation of the two sets of tion data to establish acceptability of the
data, the helicopter manufacturer should proposal.
compare their simulation model responses (3) Validation data from an audited engi-
against the flight test data, when driven by neering simulator/simulation to supplement
the same control inputs and subjected to the specific segments of the flight test data.
same atmospheric conditions as recorded in c. To be qualified to supply engineering
the flight test. The model responses should simulator validation data, for aerodynamic,
result from a simulation where the following engine, flight control, or ground handling
systems are run in an integrated fashion and models, a helicopter manufacturer or other
are consistent with the design data released acceptable data supplier must:
to the flight simulator manufacturer: (1) Be able to verify their ability to:
(a) Propulsion. (a) Develop and implement high fidelity
(b) Aerodynamics. simulation models; and
(c) Mass properties. (b) Predict the handling and performance
(d) Flight controls. characteristics of a helicopter with suffi-
(e) Stability augmentation. cient accuracy to avoid additional flight test
(f) Brakes/landing gear. activities for those handling and perform-
i. A qualified test pilot should be used to ance characteristics.
assess handling qualities and performance (2) Have an engineering simulator that:
evaluations for the qualification of flight (a) Is a physical entity, complete with a
simulators of new helicopter types. flight deck representative of the simulated
class of helicopter;
END INFORMATION (b) Has controls sufficient for manual
llllllllllllllllllllllll flight;
(c) Has models that run in an integrated
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENT manner;
(d) Had fully flight-test validated simula-
9. ENGINEERING SIMULATOR—VALIDATION tion models as the original or baseline sim-
DATA ulation models;
a. When a fully validated simulation (i.e., (e) Has an out-of-the-flight deck visual sys-
validated with flight test results) is modified tem;
due to changes to the simulated helicopter (f) Has actual avionics boxes interchange-
configuration, the helicopter manufacturer able with the equivalent software simula-
or other acceptable data supplier must co- tions to support validation of released soft-
ordinate with the NSPM to supply validation ware;
data from an ‘‘audited’’ engineering simu- (g) Uses the same models as released to the
lator/simulation to selectively supplement training community (which are also used to
flight test data. The NSPM must be provided produce stand-alone proof-of-match and
an opportunity to audit the use of the engi- checkout documents);
neering simulation or the engineering simu- (h) Is used to support helicopter develop-
lator during the acquisition of the data that ment and certification; and
will be used as validation data. Audited data (i) Has been found to be a high fidelity rep-
may be used for changes that are incre- resentation of the helicopter by the manu-
mental in nature. Manufacturers or other facturer’s pilots (or other acceptable data
data suppliers must be able to demonstrate supplier), certificate holders, and the NSPM.
that the predicted changes in helicopter per- (3) Use the engineering simulator to
formance are based on acceptable aero- produce a representative set of integrated
nautical principles with proven success his- proof-of-match cases.
tory and valid outcomes. This must include (4) Use a configuration control system cov-
comparisons of predicted and flight test vali- ering hardware and software for the oper-
dated data. ating components of the engineering simu-
b. Helicopter manufacturers or other ac- lator.
ceptable data suppliers seeking to use an en- (5) Demonstrate that the predicted effects
gineering simulator for simulation valida- of the change(s) are within the provisions of
tion data as an alternative to flight-test de- sub-paragraph ‘‘a’’ of this section, and con-
rived validation data, must contact the firm that additional flight test data are not
NSPM and provide the following: required.
(1) A description of the proposed aircraft d. Additional Requirements for Validation
changes, a description of the proposed sim- Data
ulation model changes, and the use of an in- (1) When used to provide validation data,
tegral configuration management process, an engineering simulator must meet the sim-
including an audit of the actual simulation ulator standards currently applicable to
372
training simulators except for the data pack- (b) Iteration rates;
age. (c) Execution order;
(2) The data package used must be: (d) Integration methods;
(a) Comprised of the engineering pre- (e) Processor architecture;
dictions derived from the helicopter design, (f) Digital drift, including:
development, or certification process; (i) Interpolation methods;
(b) Based on acceptable aeronautical prin- (ii) Data handling differences;
ciples with proven success history and valid (iii) Auto-test trim tolerances.
outcomes for aerodynamics, engine oper- (5) The tolerance limit between the ref-
ations, avionics operations, flight control ap- erence data and the flight simulator results
plications, or ground handling; is generally 20% of the corresponding
(c) Verified with existing flight-test data; ‘‘flight-test’’ tolerances. However, there may
and be cases where the simulator models used are
(d) Applicable to the configuration of a of higher fidelity, or the manner in which
production helicopter, as opposed to a flight- they are cascaded in the integrated testing
test helicopter. loop have the effect of a higher fidelity, than
(3) Where engineering simulator data are those supplied by the data provider. Under
used as part of a QTG, an essential match these circumstances, it is possible that an
must exist between the training simulator error greater than 20% may be generated. An
and the validation data. error greater than 20% may be acceptable if
(4) Training flight simulator(s) using these the simulator sponsor can provide an ade-
baseline and modified simulation models quate explanation.
must be qualified to at least internationally (6) Guidelines are needed for the applica-
recognized standards, such as contained in tion of tolerances to engineering-simulator-
the ICAO Document 9625, the ‘‘Manual of Cri- generated validation data because:
teria for the Qualification of Flight Simula- (a) Flight-test data are often not available
tors.’’ due to sound technical reasons;
(b) Alternative technical solutions are
END QPS REQUIREMENT
being advanced; and
llllllllllllllllllllllll (c) The costs are high.
10. [RESERVED] 12. VALIDATION DATA ROADMAP
11. VALIDATION TEST TOLERANCES a. Helicopter manufacturers or other data
suppliers should supply a validation data
llllllllllllllllllllllll roadmap (VDR) document as part of the data
package. A VDR document contains guid-
BEGIN INFORMATION
ance material from the helicopter validation
a. Non-Flight-Test Tolerances. If engineer- data supplier recommending the best pos-
ing simulator data or other non-flight-test sible sources of data to be used as validation
data are used as an allowable form of ref- data in the QTG. A VDR is of special value
erence validation data for the objective tests when requesting interim qualification, quali-
listed in Table C2A of this attachment, the fication of simulators for helicopters certifi-
data provider must supply a well-docu- cated prior to 1992, and qualification of alter-
mented mathematical model and testing pro- nate engine or avionics fits. A sponsor seek-
cedure that enables a replication of the engi- ing to have a device qualified in accordance
neering simulation results within 20% of the with the standards contained in this QPS ap-
corresponding flight test tolerances. pendix should submit a VDR to the NSPM as
b. Background early as possible in the planning stages. The
(1) The tolerances listed in Table C2A of NSPM is the final authority to approve the
this attachment are designed to measure the data to be used as validation material for the
quality of the match using flight-test data as QTG. The NSPM and the Joint Aviation Au-
a reference. thorities’ Synthetic Training Devices Advi-
(2) Good engineering judgment should be sory Board have committed to maintain a
applied to all tolerances in any test. A test list of agreed VDRs.
is failed when the results fall outside of the b. The VDR should identify (in matrix for-
prescribed tolerance(s). mat) sources of data for all required tests. It
(3) Engineering simulator data are accept- should also provide guidance regarding the
able because the same simulation models validity of these data for a specific engine
used to produce the reference data are also type, thrust rating configuration, and the re-
used to test the flight training simulator vision levels of all avionics affecting heli-
(i.e., the two sets of results should be ‘‘es- copter handling qualities and performance.
sentially’’ similar). The VDR should include rationale or expla-
(4) The results from the two sources may nation in cases where data or parameters are
differ for the following reasons: missing, engineering simulation data are to
(a) Hardware (avionics units and flight be used, flight test methods require expla-
controls); nation, or where there is any deviation from
373
data requirements. Additionally, the docu- copter application and provide actual data
ment should refer to other appropriate and data sources.
sources of validation data (e.g., sound and vi- d. Two examples of rationale pages are pre-
bration data documents). sented in Appendix F of IATA Flight Simu-
c. The Sample Validation Data Roadmap lator Design and Performance Data Require-
(VDR) for helicopters, shown in Table C2D, ments document. These illustrate the type of
depicts a generic roadmap matrix identifying helicopter and avionics configuration infor-
sources of validation data for an abbreviated mation and descriptive engineering rationale
list of tests. This sample document uses used to describe data anomalies or provide
an acceptable basis for using alternative
fixed wing parameters instead of helicopter
data for QTG validation requirements.
values. It is merely a sample and does not
provide actual data. A complete matrix END INFORMATION
should address all test conditions for heli-
374
375
ER09MY08.036</GPH>
BEGIN INFORMATION fected by the change (e.g., the avionics
change is a Built In Test Equipment (BITE)
update or a modification in a different flight
13. [RESERVED] phase), the QTG test can be based on valida-
tion data from the previously-validated avi-
14. ACCEPTANCE GUIDELINES FOR ALTERNATIVE onics configuration. The QTG should include
AVIONICS (FLIGHT-RELATED COMPUTERS AND authoritative justification (e.g., from the
CONTROLLERS) helicopter manufacturer or system supplier)
that this avionics change does not affect the
a. Background test.
(1) For a new helicopter type, the majority (c) For an avionics change to a contribu-
of flight validation data are collected on the tory system, the QTG may be based on vali-
first helicopter configuration with a ‘‘base- dation data from the previously-validated
line’’ flight-related avionics ship-set; (see avionics configuration if no new
subparagraph b.(2) of this section). These functionality is added and the impact of the
data are then used to validate all flight sim- avionics change on the helicopter response is
ulators representing that helicopter type. based on acceptable aeronautical principles
(2) Additional validation data may be need- with proven success history and valid out-
ed for flight simulators representing a heli- comes. This should be supplemented with
copter with avionics of a different hardware avionics-specific validation data from the
design than the baseline, or a different soft- helicopter manufacturer’s engineering sim-
ware revision than that of previously vali- ulation, generated with the revised avionics
dated configurations. configuration. The QTG should include an
(3) When a flight simulator with additional explanation of the nature of the change and
or alternate avionics configurations is to be its effect on the helicopter response.
qualified, the QTG should contain tests (d) For an avionics change to a contribu-
against validation data for selected cases tory system that significantly affects some
where avionics differences are expected to be tests in the QTG, or where new functionality
significant. is added, the QTG should be based on valida-
tion data from the previously validated avi-
b. Approval Guidelines For Validating onics configuration and supplemental avi-
Alternate Avionics onics-specific flight test data sufficient to
(1) The following guidelines apply to flight validate the alternate avionics revision. Ad-
simulators representing helicopters with a ditional flight test validation data may not
revised avionics configuration, or more than be needed if the avionics changes were cer-
one avionics configuration. tified without the need for testing with a
(2) The baseline validation data should be comprehensive flight instrumentation pack-
based on flight test data, except where other age. The helicopter manufacturer should co-
data are specifically allowed (e.g., engineer- ordinate flight simulator data requirements
ing flight simulator data). in advance with the NSPM.
(3) The helicopter avionics can be seg- (5) A matrix or ‘‘roadmap’’ should be pro-
mented into two groups, systems or compo- vided with the QTG indicating the appro-
nents whose functional behavior contributes priate validation data source for each test.
to the aircraft response presented in the The roadmap should include identification of
QTG results, and systems that do not. The the revision state of those contributory avi-
following avionics are examples of contribu- onics systems that could affect specific test
tory systems for which hardware design responses.
changes or software revisions may lead to
15. TRANSPORT DELAY TESTING
significant differences in the aircraft re-
sponse relative to the baseline avionics con- a. This paragraph describes how to deter-
figuration: Flight control computers and mine the introduced transport delay through
controllers for engines, autopilot, braking the flight simulator system so that it does
system, and nosewheel steering system, if not exceed a specific time delay. The trans-
applicable. Related avionics such as aug- port delay should be measured from control
mentation systems should also be consid- inputs through the interface, through each
ered. of the host computer modules and back
(4) The acceptability of validation data through the interface to motion, flight in-
used in the QTG for an alternative avionics strument, and visual systems. The transport
fit should be determined as follows: delay should not exceed the maximum allow-
(a) For changes to an avionics system or able interval.
component that do not affect QTG validation b. Four specific examples of transport
test response, the QTG test can be based on delay are:
validation data from the previously vali- (1) Simulation of classic non-computer
dated avionics configuration. controlled aircraft;

(b) For an avionics change to a contribu- (2) Simulation of Computer Controlled Air-
tory system, where a specific test is not af- craft using real helicopter black boxes;
376
(3) Simulation of Computer Controlled Air- delay should be measured and the inherent
craft using software emulation of helicopter delay of the actual helicopter components
boxes; subtracted to ensure that the introduced
(4) Simulation using software avionics or delay does not exceed the standards pre-
rehosted instruments. scribed in Table C1A.
c. Figure C2C illustrates the total trans- (1) Figure C2FA illustrates the transport
port delay for a non-computer-controlled delay procedure without helicopter display
helicopter or the classic transport delay test. simulation. The introduced delay consists of
Since there are no helicopter-induced delays the delay between the control movement and
for this case, the total transport delay is the instrument change on the data bus.
equivalent to the introduced delay. (2) Figure C2FB illustrates the modified
d. Figure C2D illustrates the transport testing method required to measure intro-
delay testing method using the real heli- duced delay due to software avionics or re-
copter controller system. hosted instruments. The total simulated in-
e. To obtain the induced transport delay strument transport delay is measured and
for the motion, instrument and visual signal,
the helicopter delay should be subtracted
the delay induced by the helicopter con-
from this total. This difference represents
troller should be subtracted from the total
the introduced delay and should not exceed
transport delay. This difference represents
the standards prescribed in Table C1A. The
the introduced delay and should not exceed
inherent delay of the helicopter between the
the standards prescribed in Table C1A.
data bus and the displays is indicated in fig-
f. Introduced transport delay is measured
ure C2FA. The display manufacturer should
from the flight deck control input to the re-
provide this delay time.
action of the instruments and motion and
visual systems (See Figure C2C). k. Recorded signals. The signals recorded
g. The control input may also be intro- to conduct the transport delay calculations
duced after the helicopter controller system should be explained on a schematic block
input and the introduced transport delay diagram. The flight simulator manufacturer
may be measured directly from the control should also provide an explanation of why
input to the reaction of the instruments, and each signal was selected and how they relate
simulator motion and visual systems (See to the above descriptions.
Figure C2D). l. Interpretation of results. Flight simu-
h. Figure C2E illustrates the transport lator results vary over time from test to test
delay testing method used on a flight simu- due to ‘‘sampling uncertainty.’’ All flight
lator that uses a software emulated heli- simulators run at a specific rate where all
copter controller system. modules are executed sequentially in the
i. It is not possible to measure the intro- host computer. The flight controls input can
duced transport delay using the simulated occur at any time in the iteration, but these
helicopter controller system architecture for data will not be processed before the start of
the pitch, roll and yaw axes. Therefore, the the new iteration. For example, a flight sim-
signal should be measured directly from the ulator running at 60 Hz may have a dif-
pilot controller. The flight simulator manu- ference of as much as 16.67 msec between re-
facturer should measure the total transport sults. This does not mean that the test has
delay and subtract the inherent delay of the failed. Instead, the difference is attributed to
actual helicopter components because the variation in input processing. In some condi-
real helicopter controller system has an in- tions, the host simulator and the visual sys-
herent delay provided by the helicopter man- tem do not run at the same iteration rate, so
ufacturer. The flight simulator manufac- the output of the host computer to the visual
turer should ensure that the introduced system will not always be synchronized.
delay does not exceed the standards pre- m. The transport delay test should account
scribed in Table C1A. for both daylight and night modes of oper-
j. Special measurements for instrument ation of the visual system. In both cases, the
signals for flight simulators using a real hel- tolerances prescribed in Table C1A should be
icopter instrument display system instead of met and the motion response should occur
a simulated or re-hosted display. For flight before the end of the first video scan con-
instrument systems, the total transport taining new information.
377
378
ER09MY08.037</GPH>
16. CONTINUING QUALIFICATION EVALUATIONS— (2) The currently accepted method of pre-
VALIDATION TEST DATA PRESENTATION senting continuing qualification evaluation
test results is to provide flight simulator re-
a. Background sults over-plotted with reference data. Test
(1) The MQTG is created during the initial results are carefully reviewed to determine if
evaluation of a flight simulator. This is the the test is within the specified tolerances.
master document, as amended, to which This can be a time consuming process, par-
flight simulator continuing qualification ticularly when reference data exhibits rapid
evaluation test results are compared. variations or an apparent anomaly requiring
engineering judgment in the application of
379
ER09MY08.038</GPH>
the tolerances. In these cases, the solution is plied with appropriate experience, are de-
to compare the results to the MQTG. The pendable and accurate for the development
continuing qualification results are com- of aerodynamic models for use in Level B
pared to the results in the MQTG for accept- simulators.
ance. The flight simulator operator and the c. Based on this history of successful com-
NSPM should look for any change in the parisons, the NSPM has concluded that those
flight simulator performance since initial who are experienced in the development of
qualification. aerodynamic models for simulator applica-
tion can successfully use these modeling
b. Continuing Qualification Evaluation Test techniques to alter the method for acquiring
Results Presentation flight test data for Level B simulators.
(1) Flight simulator operators are encour- d. The information in Table C2E (Alter-
aged to over-plot continuing qualification native Data Sources, Procedures, and Infor-
validation test results with MQTG flight mation) is presented to describe an accept-
simulator results recorded during the initial able alternative to data sources for simu-
evaluation and as amended. Any change in a lator modeling and validation and an accept-
validation test will be readily apparent. In able alternative to the procedures and in-
addition to plotting continuing qualification strumentation traditionally used to gather
validation test and MQTG results, operators such modeling and validation data.
may elect to plot reference data. (1) Alternative data sources that may be
(2) There are no suggested tolerances be- used for part or all of a data requirement are
tween flight simulator continuing qualifica- the Helicopter Maintenance Manual, the
tion and MQTG validation test results. In- Rotorcraft Flight Manual (RFM), Helicopter
vestigation of any discrepancy between the Design Data, the Type Inspection Report
MQTG and continuing qualification flight (TIR), Certification Data or acceptable sup-
simulator performance is left to the discre- plemental flight test data.
tion of the flight simulator operator and the (2) The sponsor should coordinate with the
NSPM. NSPM prior to using alternative data
(3) Differences between the two sets of re- sources in a flight test or data gathering ef-
sults, other than variations attributable to fort.
repeatability issues that cannot be explained e. The NSPM position on the use of these
should be investigated. alternative data sources, procedures, and in-
(4) The flight simulator should retain the strumentation is based on the use of a rigor-
ability to over-plot both automatic and man- ously defined and fully mature simulation
ual validation test results with reference controls system model that includes accu-
data. rate gearing and cable stretch characteris-
tics (where applicable), determined from ac-
END INFORMATION tual aircraft measurements. The model does
not require control surface position measure-
ments in the flight test objective data in
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS these limited applications.
f. Data may be acquired by using an iner-
17. ALTERNATIVE DATA SOURCES, PROCE- tial measurement system and a synchronized
DURES, AND INSTRUMENTATION: LEVEL B video of the calibrated helicopter instru-
SIMULATORS ONLY ments, including the inclinometer; the force/
position measurements of flight deck con-
a. Sponsors are not required to use the al-
trols; and a clear visual directional reference
ternative data sources, procedures, and in-
for a known magnetic bearing (e.g., a runway
strumentation. However, any sponsor choos-
centerline). Ground track and wind corrected
ing to use alternative sources must comply
heading may be used for sideslip angle.
with the requirements in Table C2E.
g. The sponsor is urged to contact the
END QPS REQUIREMENTS NSPM for clarification of any issue regard-
ing helicopters with reversible control sys-
llllllllllllllllllllllll tems. This table is not applicable to Com-
puter Controlled Aircraft flight simulators.
BEGIN INFORMATION
h. Use of these alternate data sources, pro-
b. It has become standard practice for ex- cedures, and instrumentation does not re-
perienced simulator manufacturers to use lieve the sponsor from compliance with the
such techniques as a means of establishing balance of the information contained in this
data bases for new simulator configurations document relative to Level B FFSs.
while awaiting the availability of actual i. The term ‘‘inertial measurement sys-
flight test data. The data generated from the tem’’ is used in table C2E includes the use of
aerodynamic modeling techniques is then a functional global positioning system
compared to the flight test data when it be- (GPS).
comes available. The results of such com- j. Synchronized video for the use of alter-
parisons have become increasingly con- native data sources, procedures, and instru-
sistent, indicating that these techniques, ap- mentation should have:
380
(1) sufficient resolution to allow mag- least 1⁄2 of the tolerance authorized for the
nification of the display to make appropriate specific test being conducted and allow an
measurement and comparisons; and integration of the parameter(s) in question
(2) sufficient size and incremental marking to obtain a rate of change.
to allow similar measurement and compari-
son. The detail provided by the video should END INFORMATION
provide sufficient clarity and accuracy to
measure the necessary parameter(s) to at llllllllllllllllllllllll
TABLE C2E—ALTERNATIVE DATA SOURCES, PROCEDURES, AND INSTRUMENTATION

[The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods described in paragraph 9 of Appendix C are not used]
Table of objective tests Level

By Alternative data sources, procedures, and instrumentation Notes
Test entry number and title only
1.a.1.a. Performance. En- X Data may be acquired using a synchronized video recording of all
gine Start and Accelera- engine instruments, start buttons, means for fuel introduction and
tions. means for moving from ‘‘idle’’ to ‘‘flight.’’ A stopwatch is nec-
essary.
1.a.1.b. Performance. X Data may be acquired using a synchronized video recording of all
Steady State Idle and engine instruments, and include the status of the means for mov-
Operating RPM Condi- ing from ‘‘idle’’ to ‘‘flight.’’.
tions.
1.a.2. Performance. Power X Data may be acquired using a synchronized video recording of all
Turbine Speed Trim. engine instruments. Speed trim actuator position may be hand re-
corded.
1.a.3. Performance. Engine X Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the cali-
and Rotor Speed Gov- brated helicopter instruments and the force/position measure-
erning. ments of flight deck controls.
1.b.1. Performance. On X TIR, AFM, or Design data may be used.
Surface Taxi. Minimum
Radius Turn.
1.b.2. Performance. On X Data may be acquired by using a constant tiller position (measured A single procedure
Surface Taxi Rate of with a protractor), or full pedal application for steady state turn, may not be ade-
Turn vs. Nosewheel and synchronized video of heading indicator. If less than full quate for all rotor-
Steering Angle. pedal is used, pedal position must be recorded. craft steering sys-
tems. Appropriate
measurement
procedures must
be devised and
proposed for
NSPM concur-
rence.
1.b.3. Performance. Taxi ... X Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the cali-
brated helicopter instruments and the force/position measure-
1.b.4. Performance. Brake X Data may be acquired using a stopwatch and a means for meas-
uring distance such as runway distance markers conforming with
runway distance marker standards.
1.c.1. Performance. Run- X Preliminary certification data may be used. Data may be acquired
ning Takeoff. by using a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instru-
ments and the force/position measurements of flight deck con-
trols. Collective, cyclic, and pedal position time history must be
recorded from the start of collective movement through to normal
climb. Indicated torque settings may be hand recorded at the mo-
ment of lift-off and in a steady normal climb.
1.c.2. Performance. One X Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the cali-
Engine Inoperative (OEI), brated helicopter instruments and the force/position measure-
continued takeoff. ments of flight deck controls. Collective, cyclic, and pedal position
time history must be recorded from the start of collective move-
ment through to normal OEI climb. Indicated torque settings may
be hand recorded at the moment of lift-off and in a steady normal
OEI climb.
1.f. Performance. Level X Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the cali-
Flight. Trimmed Flight brated helicopter instruments and the force/position measure-
Control Positions. ments of flight deck controls.
1.g. Performance. Normal X Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the cali-
Climb. Trimmed Flight brated helicopter instruments and the force/position measure-
1.h.1. Descent Perform- X Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the cali-
ance and Trimmed Flight brated helicopter instruments and the force/position measure-
381
TABLE C2E—ALTERNATIVE DATA SOURCES, PROCEDURES, AND INSTRUMENTATION—Continued


1.h.2. Autorotation Perform- X Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the cali-
ance and Trimmed Flight brated helicopter instruments and the force/position measure-
1.j.1. Performance. Run- X Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the cali-
ning Landing All Engines. brated helicopter instruments and the force/position measure-
1.j.2. Performance. Run- X Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the cali-
ning Landing One Engine brated helicopter instruments and the force/position measure-
Inoperative. ments of flight deck controls.
1.j.3. Performance. Balked X Data may be acquired by using a synchronized video of the cali-
Landing. brated helicopter instruments and the force/position measure-
ments of flight deck controls. The synchronized video must record
the time of the ‘‘balk landing’’ decision.
2.a.1. Handling Qualities. X Control positions can be obtained using continuous control position
Static Control Checks. recordings. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held
Cyclic Controller Position force gauge so that the forces can be cross-plotted against con-
vs. Force. trol position in each of the control axes.
Static Control Checks. recordings. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held
Collective/Pedals vs. force gauge so that the forces can be cross-plotted against con-
Force. trol position in each of the control axes.
2.a.3. Handling Qualities. X Brake pedal positions can be obtained using continuous position re-
Brake Pedal Force vs. cordings. Force data may be acquired by using a hand held force
Position. gauge so that the forces can be cross-plotted against brake pedal
position.
Trim System Rate (all recordings plotted against time to provide rate in each applicable
applicable systems). system.
2.a.6. Handling Qualities. X Data may be acquired by direct measurement.
Control System Freeplay.
2.c.1. Longitudinal Handling X Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a
Qualities. Control Re- synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and
sponse. the force/position measurements of flight deck controls.
Qualities. Static Stability. synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and
the force/position measurements of flight deck controls.
2.c.3.a. Longitudinal Han- X Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a
dling Qualities. Dynamic synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and
Stability, Long Term Re- the force/position measurements of flight deck controls.
sponse.
2.c.3.b. Longitudinal Han- X Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a
dling Qualities. Dynamic synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and
Stability, Short Term Re- the force/position measurements of flight deck controls.
sponse.
Qualities. Maneuvering synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and
stability. the force/position measurements of flight deck controls.
2.d.1.a. Lateral Handling X Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system, a
Qualities. Control Re- synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments and
sponse. the force/position measurements of flight deck controls.
2.d.1.b Directional Handling X Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system
Qualities. Control Re- and a synchronized video of calibrated helicopter instruments and
sponse.. force/position measurements of flight deck directional controls.
2.d.2. Handling Qualities. X Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system
Directional Static Stability. and a synchronized video of calibrated helicopter instruments and
force/position measurements of flight deck directional controls.
2.d.3.a. Handling Qualities. X Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system
Dynamic Lateral and Di- and a synchronized video of the calibrated helicopter instruments,
rectional Stability Lateral- the force/position measurements of flight deck controls, and a
Directional Oscillations. stop watch.
2.d.3.b. Handling Qualities. X Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system
rectional Stability Spiral the force/position measurements of flight deck controls, and a
Stability. stop watch.
382
TABLE C2E—ALTERNATIVE DATA SOURCES, PROCEDURES, AND INSTRUMENTATION—Continued


2.d.3.c. Handling Qualities. X Data may be acquired by using an inertial measurement system
rectional Stability. Ad- the force/position measurements of flight deck controls.
verse/Proverse Yaw.
llllllllllllllllllllllll view has been limited to about 40°–45°. These

limitations result from tradeoffs in optical
BEGIN INFORMATION quality and interference between the display
components and flight deck structures, but
18. VISUAL DISPLAY SYSTEMS.
were sufficient to meet FFS regulatory ap-
a. Basic principles of a FFS collimated dis- proval for Helicopter FFSs. However, recent
play: designs have been introduced with vertical
(1) The essential feature of a collimated fields of view of up to 60° for helicopter appli-
display is that light rays coming from a cations.
given point in a picture are parallel. There b. Basic principles of a FFS dome (or non-
are two main implications of the parallel collimated) display:
rays: (1) The situation in a dome display is
(a) The viewer’s eyes focus at infinity and shown in Figure C2C. As the angles can be
have zero convergence, providing a cue that correct for only one eye point at a time, the
the object is distant; and visual system in the figure has been aligned
(b) The angle to any given point in the pic- for the right seat eye point position. The
ture does not change when viewed from a dif- runway appears to be straight ahead of the
ferent position so the object behaves geo- aircraft for this viewer. For the left seat
metrically as though it were located at a sig- viewer, however, the runway appears to be
nificant distance from the viewer. These somewhat to the right of the aircraft. As the
cues are self-consistent, and are appropriate aircraft is still moving towards the runway,
for any object that has been modeled as the perceived velocity vector will be directed
being at a significant distance from the towards the runway and this will be inter-
viewer. preted as the aircraft having some yaw off-
(2) In an ideal situation the rays are per- set.
fectly parallel, but most implementations
(2) The situation is substantially different
provide only an approximation to the ideal.
for near field objects encountered in heli-
Typically, an FFS display provides an image
copter operations close to the ground. In
located not closer than about 20–33 ft (6–10
those cases, objects that should be inter-
m) from the viewer, with the distance vary-
preted as being close to the viewer will be
ing over the field-of-view. A schematic rep-
misinterpreted as being distant in a col-
resentation of a collimated display is pro-
limated display. The errors can actually be
vided in Figure C2A.
(3) Collimated displays are well suited to reduced in a dome display.
many simulation applications as the area of (3) The field-of-view possible with a dome
interest is relatively distant from the ob- display can be larger than that of a col-
server so the angles to objects should remain limated display. Depending on the configura-
independent of viewing position. Consider tion, a field-of-view of 240° by 90° is possible
the view of the runway seen by the flight and can be exceeded.
crew lined up on an approach. In the real c. Additional display considerations
world, the runway is distant and the light
rays from the runway to the eyes are par- (1) While the situations described above
allel. The runway appears to be straight are for discrete viewing positions, the same
ahead to both crew members. This situation arguments can be extended to moving eye
is well simulated by a collimated display and points produced by the viewer’s head move-
is presented in Figure C2B. Note that the dis- ment. In the real world, the parallax effects
tance to the runway has been shortened for resulting from head movement provide dis-
clarity. If drawn to scale, the runway would tance cues. The effect is particularly strong
be farther away and the rays from the two for relative movement of flight deck struc-
seats would be closer to being parallel. ture in the near field and modeled objects in
(4) While the horizontal field-of-view of a the distance. Collimated displays will pro-
collimated display can be extended to ap- vide accurate parallax cues for distant ob-
proximately 210°–220°, the vertical field-of- jects, but increasingly inaccurate cues for
383
near field objects. The situation is reversed proach provides a completely accurate image
for dome displays. for all possible object distances. The sponsor
(2) Stereopsis cues resulting from the dif- should consider the training role of the FFS
ferent images presented to each eye for ob- when configuring the display system to
jects relatively close to the viewer also pro- make the optimum choice. Factors that
vide depth cues. Again, the collimated and should be considered include relative impor-
dome displays provide more or less accurate tance of training tasks at low altitudes, the
cues depending on the modeled distance of role of the two crew members in the flying
the objects being viewed.
tasks, and the field-of-view required for spe-
d. Training implications cific training tasks.
(1) In view of the basic principles described

above, it is clear that neither display ap-
384
ATTACHMENT 3 TO APPENDIX C TO PART 60— representations of real-world, operational

SIMULATOR SUBJECTIVE EVALUATION airports or representations of fictional air-
ports and must meet the requirements set
out in Tables C3B or C3C of this attachment,
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS as appropriate.
b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor
1. REQUIREMENTS must ensure that navigational aids and all
appropriate maps, charts, and other naviga-

a. Except for special use airport models, all
airport models required by this part must be tional reference material for the fictional
385
ER09MY08.039</GPH>
airports (and surrounding areas as nec- days of the opening of the new or changed fa-
essary) are compatible, complete, and accu- cility or structure.
rate with respect to the visual presentation g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the
and airport model of this fictional airport. time limit for an update to a visual scene or
An SOC must be submitted that addresses airport model or has an objection to what
navigation aid installation and performance must be updated in the specific airport
and other criteria (including obstruction model requirement, the sponsor must pro-
clearance protection) for all instrument ap- vide a written extension request to the
proaches to the fictional airports that are NSPM stating the reason for the update
available in the simulator. The SOC must delay and a proposed completion date or pro-
reference and account for information in the vide an explanation for the objection, ex-
terminal instrument procedures manual and plaining why the identified airport change
the construction and availability of the re- will not have an impact on flight training,
quired maps, charts, and other navigational testing, or checking. A copy of this request
material. This material must be clearly or objection must also be sent to the POI/
marked ‘‘for training purposes only.’’ TCPM. The NSPM will send the official re-
c. When the simulator is being used by an sponse to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/
instructor or evaluator for purposes of train- TCPM; however, if there is an objection,
ing, checking, or testing under this chapter, after consultation with the appropriate POI/
only airport models classified as Class I, TCPM regarding the training, testing, or
Class II, or Class III may be used by the in- checking impact, the NSPM will send the of-
structor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/ ficial response to the sponsor and a copy to
definitions of these classifications are found the POI/TCPM.
in Appendix F of this part.
d. When a person sponsors an FFS main- END QPS REQUIREMENTS
tained by a person other than a U.S. certifi- llllllllllllllllllllllll
cate holder, the sponsor is accountable for
that FFS originally meeting, and continuing BEGIN INFORMATION
to meet, the criteria under which it was
originally qualified and the appropriate Part 2. DISCUSSION
60 criteria, including the visual scenes and a. The subjective tests provide a basis for
airport models that may be used by instruc- evaluating the capability of the simulator to
tors or evaluators for purposes of training, perform over a typical utilization period; de-
checking, or testing under this chapter. termining that the simulator competently
e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport vis- simulates each required maneuver, proce-
ual models are required to appear on the dure, or task; and verifying correct oper-
SOQ, and the method used for keeping ination of the simulator controls, instruments,
structors and evaluators apprised of the air- and systems. The items listed in the fol-
port models that meet Class II or Class III lowing Tables are for simulator evaluation
requirements on any given simulator is at purposes only. They may not be used to limit
the option of the sponsor, but the method or exceed the authorizations for use of a
used must be available for review by the given level of simulator as described on the
TPAA. SOQ or as approved by the TPAA. All items
f. When an airport model represents a real in the following paragraphs are subject to an
world airport and a permanent change is examination.
made to that real world airport (e.g., a new b. The tests in Table C3A, Operations
runway, an extended taxiway, a new lighting Tasks, in this attachment address pilot func-
system, a runway closure) without a written tions, including maneuvers and procedures
extension grant from the NSPM (described in (called flight tasks), and are divided by
paragraph 1.g., of this section), an update to flight phases. The performance of these tasks
that airport model must be made in accord- by the NSPM includes an operational exam-
ance with the following time limits: ination of the visual system and special ef-
(1) For a new airport runway, a runway ex- fects. There are flight tasks included to ad-
tension, a new airport taxiway, a taxiway ex- dress some features of advanced technology
tension, or a runway/taxiway closure—with- helicopters and innovative training pro-
in 90 days of the opening for use of the new grams.
airport runway, runway extension, new air- c. The tests in Table C3A, Operations
port taxiway, or taxiway extension; or with- Tasks, and Table C3G, Instructor Operating
in 90 days of the closure of the runway or Station, in this attachment address the over-
taxiway. all function and control of the simulator in-
(2) For a new or modified approach light cluding the various simulated environmental
system—within 45 days of the activation of conditions; simulated helicopter system op-
the new or modified approach light system. eration (normal, abnormal, and emergency);
(3) For other facility or structural changes visual system displays; and special effects
on the airport (e.g., new terminal, relocation necessary to meet flight crew training, eval-
of Air Traffic Control Tower)—within 180 uation, or flight experience requirements.
386
d. All simulated helicopter systems func- h. The TPAA may accept Class III airport
tions will be assessed for normal and, where models without individual observation pro-
appropriate, alternate operations. Normal, vided the sponsor provides the TPAA with an
abnormal, and emergency operations associ- acceptable description of the process for de-
ated with a flight phase will be assessed dur- termining the acceptability of a specific air-
ing the evaluation of flight tasks or events port model, outlines the conditions under
within that flight phase. Simulated heli- which such an airport model may be used,
copter systems are listed separately under and adequately describes what restrictions
‘‘Any Flight Phase’’ to ensure appropriate will be applied to each resulting airport or
attention to systems checks. Operational landing area model. Examples of situations
navigation systems (including inertial navi- that may warrant Class III model designa-
gation systems, global positioning systems, tion by the TPAA include the following:
or other long-range systems) and the associ- (a) Training, testing, or checking on very
ated electronic display systems will be eval- low visibility operations, including SMGCS
uated if installed. The NSP pilot will include operations.
in his report to the TPAA, the effect of the (b) Instrument operations training (includ-
system operation and any system limitation. ing instrument takeoff, departure, arrival,
e. Simulators demonstrating a satisfactory approach, and missed approach training,
circling approach will be qualified for the testing, or checking) using—
circling approach maneuver and may be ap- (i) A specific model that has been geo-
proved for such use by the TPAA in the spon- graphically ‘‘moved’’ to a different location
sor’s FAA-approved flight training program. and aligned with an instrument procedure
To be considered satisfactory, the circling for another airport.
approach will be flown at maximum gross (ii) A model that does not match changes
weight for landing, with minimum visibility made at the real-world airport (or landing
for the helicopter approach category, and area for helicopters) being modeled.
must allow proper alignment with a landing (iii) A model generated with an ‘‘off-board’’
runway at least 90° different from the instru- or an ‘‘on-board’’ model development tool
ment approach course while allowing the (by providing proper latitude/longitude ref-
pilot to keep an identifiable portion of the erence; correct runway or landing area ori-
airport in sight throughout the maneuver entation, length, width, marking, and light-
(reference—14 CFR 91.175(e)). ing information; and appropriate adjacent
taxiway location) to generate a facsimile of
f. At the request of the TPAA, the NSP
a real world airport or landing area.
Pilot may assess the simulator for a special
i. Previously qualified simulators with cer-
aspect of a sponsor’s training program dur-
tain early generation Computer Generated
ing the functions and subjective portion of
Image (CGI) visual systems, are limited by
an evaluation. Such an assessment may in-
the capability of the Image Generator or the
clude a portion of a Line Oriented Flight
display system used. These systems are:
Training (LOFT) scenario or special empha-
(1) Early CGI visual systems that are ex-
sis items in the sponsor’s training program.
empt from the necessity of including runway
Unless directly related to a requirement for
numbers as a part of the specific runway
the qualification level, the results of such an
marking requirements are:
evaluation would not affect the qualification (a) Link NVS and DNVS.
of the simulator. (b) Novoview 2500 and 6000.
g. This appendix addresses helicopter sim- (c) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and
ulators at Levels B, C, and D because there including, VITAL III, but not beyond.
are no Level A Helicopter simulators. (d) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2.
h. The FAA intends to allow the use of (2) Early CGI visual systems are excepted
Class III airport models on a limited basis from the necessity of including runway num-
when the sponsor provides the TPAA (or bers unless the runway is used for LOFT
other regulatory authority) an appropriate training sessions. These LOFT airport mod-
analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abili- els require runway numbers, but only for the
ties (SKAs) necessary for competent per- specific runway end (one direction) used in
formance of the tasks in which this par- the LOFT session. The systems required to
ticular media element is used. The analysis display runway numbers only for LOFT
should describe the ability of the FFS/visual scenes are:
media to provide an adequate environment (a) FlightSafety VITAL IV.
in which the required SKAs are satisfac- (b) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T.
torily performed and learned. The analysis (c) Link-Miles Image II.
should also include the specific media ele- (3) The following list of previously quali-
ment, such as the visual scene or airport fied CGI and display systems are incapable of
model. Additional sources of information on generating blue lights. These systems are
the conduct of task and capability analysis not required to have accurate taxi-way edge
may be found on the FAA’s Advanced Quali- lighting are:

fication Program (AQP) Web site at: http:// (a) Redifusion SP1 and SP1T.
www.faa.gov/educationlresearch/training/aqp/. (b) FlightSafety Vital IV.
387
(c) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT END INFORMATION
(d) XKD displays (even though the XKD
image generator is capable of generating llllllllllllllllllllllll
blue colored lights, the display cannot ac-
commodate that color).
TABLE C3A—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS
QPS requirements
Simulator
level
B C D
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the helicopter simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration
List or the level of simulator qualification involved. Items not installed or not functional on the simulator and, therefore, not ap-
pearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.
1. Preparation for Flight
1.a. ............................. Flight deck check: Switches, indicators, systems, and equipment ...................................... X X X
2. APU/Engine start and run-up
2.a. ............................. Normal start procedures ....................................................................................................... X X X
2.b. ............................. Alternate start procedures ..................................................................................................... X X X
2.c. ............................. Abnormal starts and shutdowns (e.g., hot start, hung start) ................................................ X X X
2.d. ............................. Rotor engagement ................................................................................................................ X X X
2.e. ............................. System checks ...................................................................................................................... X X X
3. Taxiing—Ground
3.a .............................. Power required to taxi ........................................................................................................... X X X
3.b. ............................. Brake effectiveness ............................................................................................................... X X X
3.c. ............................. Ground handling .................................................................................................................... X X X
3.d. ............................. Water handling (if applicable) ............................................................................................... X X
3.e. ............................. Abnormal/emergency procedures:
3.e.1. .......................... Brake system failure ............................................................................................................. X X X
3.e.2. .......................... Ground resonance ................................................................................................................ X X
3.e.3. .......................... Dynamic rollover ................................................................................................................... X X
3.e.4. .......................... Deployment of emergency floats/water landing .................................................................... X X
3.e.5. .......................... Others listed on the SOQ ..................................................................................................... A X X
4. Taxiing—Hover
4.a. ............................. Takeoff to a hover ................................................................................................................. X X X
4.b. ............................. Instrument response:
4.b.1. .......................... Engine instruments ............................................................................................................... X X X
4.b.2. .......................... Flight instruments .................................................................................................................. X X X
4.b.3. .......................... Hovering turns ....................................................................................................................... X X X
4.c. ............................. Hover power checks:
4.c.1. .......................... In ground effect (IGE) ........................................................................................................... X X X
4.c.2. .......................... Out of ground effect (OGE) .................................................................................................. X X X

4.d. ............................. Crosswind/tailwind hover ...................................................................................................... X X X
388
TABLE C3A—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS—Continued

QPS requirements
Simulator
level
B C D
4.e. ............................. Translating tendency ............................................................................................................. X X X
4.f. .............................. External load operations:
4.f.1. ........................... Hookup .................................................................................................................................. X X
4.f.2. ........................... Release ................................................................................................................................. X X
4.f.3. ........................... Winch operations .................................................................................................................. X X
4.g. ............................. Abnormal/emergency procedures:
4.g.1. .......................... Engine failure ........................................................................................................................ X X X
4.g.2. .......................... Fuel governing system failure ............................................................................................... X X X
4.g.3. .......................... Settling with power (OGE) .................................................................................................... X X X
4.g.4. .......................... Hovering autorotation ............................................................................................................ X X
4.g.5. .......................... Stability augmentation system failure ................................................................................... X X X
4.g.6. .......................... Directional control malfunction .............................................................................................. X X X
4.g.7. .......................... Loss of tail rotor effectiveness (LTE) .................................................................................... X X
4.g.8. .......................... Others listed on the SOQ ..................................................................................................... A X X
4.h. ............................. Pre-takeoff checks ................................................................................................................ X X X
5. Takeoff/Translational Flight
5.a. ............................. Forward (up to effective translational lift) ............................................................................. X X
5.b. ............................. Sideward (up to limiting airspeed) ........................................................................................ X X
5.c. ............................. Rearward (up to limiting airspeed) ........................................................................................ X X
6.a. ............................. Normal ................................................................................................................................... X X X
6.a.1. .......................... From ground .......................................................................................................................... X X X
6.a.2. .......................... From hover ............................................................................................................................ X X X
6.a.2.a. ....................... Cat A ..................................................................................................................................... X X X
6.a.2.b. ....................... Cat B ..................................................................................................................................... X X X
6.a.3. .......................... Running ................................................................................................................................. X X X
6.a.4. .......................... Crosswind/tailwind ................................................................................................................. X X X
6.a.5. .......................... Maximum performance ......................................................................................................... X X X
6.a.6. .......................... Instrument ............................................................................................................................. X X X
6.a.7. .......................... Takeoff from a confined area ................................................................................................ X X X
6.a.8. .......................... Takeoff from a pinnacle/platform .......................................................................................... X X X
6.a.9. .......................... Takeoff from a slope ............................................................................................................. X X X
6.a.10. ........................ External load operations ....................................................................................................... X X
6.b. ............................. Abnormal/emergency procedures: ........................................................................................ X X X

6.b.1. .......................... Takeoff with engine failure after critical decision point (CDP) ............................................. X X X
389

QPS requirements
Simulator
level
B C D
6.b.1.a. ....................... Cat A ..................................................................................................................................... X X
6.b.1.b. ....................... Cat B ..................................................................................................................................... X X
6.c. ............................. Rejected takeoff ....................................................................................................................
6.c.1. .......................... Land ...................................................................................................................................... X X X
6.c.2. .......................... Water (if appropriate) ............................................................................................................ X X X
6.d. ............................. Instrument departure ............................................................................................................. X X X
6.e. ............................. Others as listed on the SOQ ................................................................................................ A X X
7. Climb
7.a. ............................. Normal ................................................................................................................................... X X X
7.b. ............................. Obstacle clearance ............................................................................................................... X X X
7.c. ............................. Vertical .................................................................................................................................. X X
7.d. ............................. One engine inoperative ......................................................................................................... X X X
7.e. ............................. Others as listed on the SOQ ................................................................................................ A X X
8. Cruise
8.a .............................. Performance .......................................................................................................................... X X X
8.b. ............................. Flying qualities ...................................................................................................................... X X X
8.c. ............................. Turns ..................................................................................................................................... X X X
8.c.1. .......................... Timed .................................................................................................................................... X X X
8.c.2. .......................... Normal ................................................................................................................................... X X X
8.c.3. .......................... Steep ..................................................................................................................................... X X X
8.d. ............................. Accelerations and decelerations ........................................................................................... X X X
8.e. ............................. High speed vibrations ........................................................................................................... X X X
8.f. .............................. External Load Operations (see entry 4.f. of this table) ........................................................ X X
8.g. ............................. Abnormal/emergency procedures ......................................................................................... X X X
8.g.1. .......................... Engine fire ............................................................................................................................. X X X
8.g.2 ........................... Engine failure ........................................................................................................................ X X X
8.g.3. .......................... Inflight engine shutdown and restart ..................................................................................... X X X
8.g.4. .......................... Fuel governing system failures ............................................................................................. X X X
8.g.5. .......................... Directional control malfunction .............................................................................................. X X X
8.g.6. .......................... Hydraulic failure .................................................................................................................... X X X
8.g.7. .......................... Stability system failure .......................................................................................................... X X X
8.g.8. .......................... Rotor vibrations ..................................................................................................................... X X X
8.g.9. .......................... Recovery from unusual attitudes .......................................................................................... X X X
9. Descent
9.a. ............................. Normal ................................................................................................................................... X X X
390

QPS requirements
Simulator
level
B C D
9.b. ............................. Maximum rate ....................................................................................................................... X X X
9.c. ............................. Autorotative ...........................................................................................................................
9.c.1. .......................... Straight-in .............................................................................................................................. X X X
9.c.2. .......................... With turn ................................................................................................................................ X X X
9.d. ............................. External Load ........................................................................................................................ X X
10. Approach
10.a. ........................... Non-precision ........................................................................................................................ X X X
10.a.1. ........................ All engines operating ............................................................................................................ X X X
10.a.2. ........................ One or more engines inoperative ......................................................................................... X X X
10.a.3. ........................ Approach procedures: X X X
10.a.3.a. ..................... NDB ....................................................................................................................................... X X X
10.a.3.b. ..................... VOR, RNAV, TACAN ............................................................................................................ X X X
10.a.3.c. ..................... ASR ....................................................................................................................................... X X X
10.a.3.d. ..................... Circling .................................................................................................................................. X X X
10.a.3.e. ..................... Helicopter only ...................................................................................................................... X X X
10.a.4. ........................ Missed approach ................................................................................................................... X X X
10.a.4.a. ..................... All engines operating ............................................................................................................ X X X
10.a.4.b. ..................... One or more engines inoperative ......................................................................................... X X X
10.b. ........................... Precision ................................................................................................................................ X X X
10.b.1. ........................ All engines operating ............................................................................................................ X X X
10.b.2. ........................ Manually controlled—one or more engines inoperative ....................................................... X X X
10.b.3. ........................ Approach procedures: X X X
10.b.3.a. ..................... PAR ....................................................................................................................................... X X X
10.b.3.b. ..................... MLS ....................................................................................................................................... X X X
10.b.3.c. ..................... ILS ......................................................................................................................................... X X X
10.b.3.c. ..................... (1) Manual (raw data) ........................................................................................................... X X X
10.b.3.c. ..................... (2) Flight director only ........................................................................................................... X X X
10.b.3.c. ..................... (3) Autopilot * only ................................................................................................................. X X X
10.b.3.c. ..................... (4) Cat I ................................................................................................................................. X X X
10.b.3.c. ..................... (5) Cat II ................................................................................................................................ X X X
10.b.4. ........................ Missed approach:
10.b.4.a. ..................... All engines operating ............................................................................................................ X X X
10.b.4.b. ..................... One or more engines inoperative ......................................................................................... X X X
10.b.4.c. ..................... Stability system failure .......................................................................................................... X X X

10.c. ........................... Others as listed on the SOQ ................................................................................................ A X X
391

QPS requirements
Simulator
level
B C D
11.a. ........................... Visual Approaches:
11.a.1. ........................ Normal ................................................................................................................................... X X X
11.a.2. ........................ Steep ..................................................................................................................................... X X X
11.a.3. ........................ Shallow .................................................................................................................................. X X X
11.a.4. ........................ Crosswind .............................................................................................................................. X X X
11.a.5. ........................ Category A profile ................................................................................................................. X X
11.a.6. ........................ Category B profile ................................................................................................................. X X
11.a.7. ........................ External Load ........................................................................................................................ X X
11.b. ........................... Abnormal/emergency procedures:
11.b.1. ........................ Directional control failure ...................................................................................................... X X X
11.b.2. ........................ Hydraulics failure ................................................................................................................... X X X
11.b.3. ........................ Fuel governing failure ........................................................................................................... X X X
11.b.4. ........................ Autorotation ........................................................................................................................... X X X
11.b.5. ........................ Stability system failure .......................................................................................................... X X X
11.b.6. ........................ Others listed on the SOQ ..................................................................................................... A X X
11c. ............................ Landings:
11.c.1. ........................ Normal:
11.c.1.a. ..................... Running ................................................................................................................................. X X X
11.c.1.b. ..................... From Hover ........................................................................................................................... X X X
11.c.2. ........................ Pinnacle/platform ................................................................................................................... X X X
11.c.3. ........................ Confined area ........................................................................................................................ X X X
11.c.4. ........................ Slope ..................................................................................................................................... X X
11.c.5. ........................ Crosswind .............................................................................................................................. X X X
11.c.6. ........................ Tailwind ................................................................................................................................. X X X
11.c.7. ........................ Rejected Landing .................................................................................................................. X X X
11.c.8. ........................ Abnormal/emergency procedures:
11.c.8.a. ..................... From autorotation .................................................................................................................. X X
11.c.8.b. ..................... One or more engines inoperative ......................................................................................... X X X
11.c.8.c. ..................... Directional control failure ...................................................................................................... X X X
11.c.8.d. ..................... Hydraulics failure ................................................................................................................... X X X
11.c.8.e. ..................... Stability augmentation system failure ................................................................................... X X X
11.c.9. ........................ Other (listed on the SOQ) ..................................................................................................... A X X
12. Any Flight Phase

12.a.1. ........................ Air conditioning ...................................................................................................................... X X X
392

QPS requirements
Simulator
level
B C D
12.a.2. ........................ Anti-icing/deicing ................................................................................................................... X X X
12.a.3. ........................ Auxiliary power-plant ............................................................................................................. X X X
12.a.4. ........................ Communications .................................................................................................................... X X X
12.a.5. ........................ Electrical ................................................................................................................................ X X X
12.a.6. ........................ Fire detection and suppression ............................................................................................. X X X
12.a.7. ........................ Stabilizer ................................................................................................................................ X X X
12.a.8. ........................ Flight controls ........................................................................................................................ X X X
12.a.9. ........................ Fuel and oil ........................................................................................................................... X X X
12.a.10. ...................... Hydraulic ............................................................................................................................... X X X
12.a.11. ...................... Landing gear ......................................................................................................................... X X X
12.a.12. ...................... Oxygen .................................................................................................................................. X X X
12.a.13. ...................... Pneumatic ............................................................................................................................. X X X
12.a.14. ...................... Powerplant ............................................................................................................................ X X X
12.a.15. ...................... Flight control computers ........................................................................................................ X X X
12.a.16. ...................... Stability and control augmentation ........................................................................................ X X X
12.b. ........................... Flight management and guidance system:
12.b.1. ........................ Airborne radar ....................................................................................................................... X X X
12.b.2. ........................ Automatic landing aids .......................................................................................................... X X X
12.b.3. ........................ Autopilot ................................................................................................................................ X X X
12.b.4. ........................ Collision avoidance system ................................................................................................... X X X
12.b.5. ........................ Flight data displays ............................................................................................................... X X X
12.b.6. ........................ Flight management computers ............................................................................................. X X X
12.b.7. ........................ Heads-up displays ................................................................................................................. X X X
12.b.8. ........................ Navigation systems ............................................................................................................... X X X
12.c. ........................... Airborne procedures:
12.c.1. ........................ Holding .................................................................................................................................. X X X
12.c.2. ........................ Air hazard avoidance ............................................................................................................ X X X
12.c.3. ........................ Retreating blade stall recovery ............................................................................................. X X X
12.c.4. ........................ Mast bumping ........................................................................................................................ X X X
12.c.5 ......................... Loss of directional control ..................................................................................................... X X X
12.c.6. ........................ Loss of tail rotor effectiveness .............................................................................................. X X
12.c.7. ........................ Other (listed on the SOQ) ..................................................................................................... A X X
13. Engine Shutdown and Parking
13.a. ........................... Engine and systems operation ............................................................................................. X X X

13.b. ........................... Parking brake operation ........................................................................................................ X X X
393

QPS requirements
Simulator
level
B C D
13.c. ........................... Rotor brake operation ........................................................................................................... X X X
13.d. ........................... Abnormal/emergency procedures ......................................................................................... X X X

* ‘‘Autopilot’’ means attitude retention mode of operation.
control is simulated in the FFS and is working properly.
TABLE C3B—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS

QPS requirements
Simulator
Visual requirements for qualification at the stated level level
Entry No. class I airport or landing area models
B C D
This table specifies the minimum airport visual model content and functionality to qualify a simulator at the indicated level. This
table applies only to the airport scenes required for simulator qualification; i.e., two helicopter landing area models for Level B
simulators; four helicopter landing area models for Level C and Level D simulators.
1. .............. Functional test content requirements

The following is the minimum airport/landing area model content requirement to satisfy visual capability tests, and
provides suitable visual cues to allow completion of all functions and subjective tests described in this attachment
for simulators at Level B.
1.a. ........... A minimum of one (1) representative airport and one (1) representative helicopter landing area X
model. The airport and the helicopter landing area may be contained within the same model. If
but if this option is selected, the approach path to the airport runway(s) and the approach path to
the helicopter landing area must be different. The model(s) used to meet the following require-
ments may be demonstrated at either a fictional or a real-world airport or helicopter landing area,
but each must be acceptable to the sponsor’s TPAA, selectable from the IOS, and listed on the
SOQ.
1.b. ........... The fidelity of the visual scene must be sufficient for the aircrew to visually identify the airport and/or X
helicopter landing area; determine the position of the simulated helicopter within the visual scene;
successfully accomplish take-offs, approaches, and landings; and maneuver around the airport on
the ground, or hover taxi, as necessary.
1.c. ........... Runways:
1.c.1. ........ Visible runway number ............................................................................................................................ X
1.c.2. ........ Runway threshold elevations and locations must be modeled to provide sufficient correlation with X
helicopter systems (e.g., altimeter).
1.c.3. ........ Runway surface and markings ............................................................................................................... X
1.c.4. ........ Lighting for the runway in use including runway edge and centerline ................................................... X
1.c.5. ........ Lighting, visual approach aid (VASI or PAPI) and approach lighting of appropriate colors .................. X
1.c.6. ........ Representative taxiway lights ................................................................................................................. X
1.d. ........... Other helicopter landing area:
1.d.1. ........ Standard heliport designation (‘‘H’’) marking, properly sized and oriented ............................................ X
1.d.2. ........ Perimeter markings for the Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the Final Approach and Takeoff X
Area (FATO), as appropriate.
1.d.3. ........ Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or the FATO areas, as appropriate ..................................................... X
1.d.4. ........ Appropriate markings and lighting to allow movement from the runway or helicopter landing area to X
another part of the landing facility.
2. .............. Functional test content requirements for Level C and Level D simulators
394
TABLE C3B—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS—Continued

QPS requirements
Simulator
B C D
The following is the minimum airport/landing area model content requirement to satisfy visual capability tests, and
provide suitable visual cues to allow completion of all functions and subjective tests described in this attachment
for simulators at Level C and Level D. Not all of the elements described in this section must be found in a single
airport/landing area scene. However, all of the elements described in this section must be found throughout a com-
bination of the four (4) airport/landing area models described in entry 2.a. The representations of the hazards (as
described in 2.d.) must be ‘‘hard objects’’ that interact as such if contacted by the simulated helicopter. Additionally,
surfaces on which the helicopter lands must be ‘‘hard surfaces.’’ The model(s) used to meet the following require-
ments must be demonstrated at either a fictional or a real-world airport or helicopter landing area, and each must
be acceptable to the sponsor’s TPAA, selectable from the IOS, and listed on the SOQ.
2.a. ........... There must be at least the following airport/helicopter landing areas.
2.a.1. ........ At least one (1) representative airport .................................................................................................... X X
2.a.2. ........ At least three representative non-airport landing areas, as follows:
2.a.2.a ...... At least one (1) representative helicopter landing area situated on a substantially elevated surface X X
with respect to the surrounding structures or terrain (e.g., building top, offshore oil rig).
2.a.2.b. ..... At least one (1) helicopter landing area that meets the definition of a ‘‘confined landing area’’ ........... X X
2.a.2.c. ..... At least one (1) helicopter landing area on a sloped surface where the slope is at least 21⁄2° ............ X X
2.b. ........... For each of the airport/helicopter landing areas described in 2.a., the simulator must be able to pro- X X
vide at least the following:
2.b.1. ........ A night and twilight (dusk) environment. ................................................................................................ X X
2.b.2. ........ A daylight environment ........................................................................................................................... X
2.c. ........... Non-airport helicopter landing areas must have the following:
2.c.1. ........ Representative buildings, structures, and lighting within appropriate distances .................................... X X
2.c.2. ........ Representative moving and static clutter (e.g., other aircraft, power carts, tugs, fuel trucks) ............... X X
2.c.3. ........ Representative depiction of terrain and obstacles as well as significant and identifiable natural and X X
cultural features, within 25 NM of the reference landing area.
2.c.4. ........ Standard heliport designation (‘‘H’’) marking, properly sized and oriented ............................................ X X
2.c.5. ........ Perimeter markings for the Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the Final Approach and Takeoff X X
Area (FATO), as appropriate.
2.c.6. ........ Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or the FATO areas, as appropriate ..................................................... X X
2.c.7. ........ Appropriate markings and lighting to allow movement from the area to another part of the landing X X
facility, if appropriate.
2.c.8. ........ Representative markings, lighting, and signage, including a windsock that gives appropriate wind X X
cues.
2.c.9. ........ Appropriate markings, lighting, and signage necessary for position identification, and to allow move- X X
ment from the landing area to another part of the landing facility.
2.c.10. ...... Representative moving and static ground traffic (e.g., vehicular and aircraft), including the ability to X X
present surface hazards (e.g., conflicting traffic, vehicular or aircraft, on or approaching the land-
ing area).
2.c.11. ...... Portrayal of landing surface contaminants, including lighting reflections when wet and partially ob- X X
scured lights when snow is present, or suitable alternative effects.
2.d. ........... All of the following three (3) hazards must be presented in a combination of the three (3) non-airport landing areas
(described in entry 2.a.2. of this table) and each of these non-airport landing areas must have at least one of the
following hazards:
2.d.1. ........ Other airborne traffic ............................................................................................................................... X X
395

QPS requirements
Simulator
B C D
2.d.2. ........ Buildings, trees, or other vertical obstructions in the immediate landing area ...................................... X X
2.d.3. ........ Suspended wires in the immediate landing area ................................................................................... X X
2.e. ........... Airport applications. Each airport must have the following:
2.e.1. ........ At least one runway designated as ‘‘in-use’’, appropriately marked and capable of being lighted fully X X
2.e.2. ........ Runway threshold elevations and locations must be modeled to provide sufficient correlation with X X X
helicopter systems (e.g., HGS, GPS, altimeter). Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if
depicted in the visual scene, may not cause distracting or unrealistic effects, including pilot eye-
point height variation.
2.e.3. ........ Appropriate approach lighting systems and airfield lighting for a VFR circuit and landing, non-preci- X X
sion approaches and landings, and precision approaches and landings, as appropriate..
2.e.4. ........ Representative taxiway lights ................................................................................................................. X
3. .............. Airport or landing area model management

The following is the minimum visual scene management requirements
3.a. ........... Runway and helicopter landing area approach lighting must fade into view in accordance with the X X X
environmental conditions set in the simulator.
3.b. ........... The direction of strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway cen- X X X
terline lights, threshold lights, touchdown zone lights, and TLOF or FATO lights must be replicated.
4. .............. Visual feature recognition.

The following are the minimum distances at which runway features must be visible. Distances are measured from
runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to a helicopter aligned with the runway or helicopter landing area on
an extended 3° glide-slope in simulated meteorological conditions. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the
runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing
4.a. ........... For runways: Runway definition, strobe lights, approach lights, and runway edge lights from 5 sm (8 X X X
km) of the runway threshold.
4.b. ........... For runways: Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km) ............................................... X X X
4.c. ........... For runways: Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) of the threshold ............... X
4.d. ........... For runways: Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold ............... X X
4.e. ........... For runways: Runway threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3 km) .......................... X X X
4.f. ............ For runways and helicopter landing areas: Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight X X X
scenes and the surface resolution test on daylight scenes, as required.
4.g. ........... For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view X X X
in a non-distracting manner.
4.h. ........... For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5 km) ..... X X X
4.i. ............ For helicopter landing areas: Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights, and the lighted windsock X
from 0.5 sm (750 m).
4.j. ............ Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/yellow cylinders) from TOFL area .................................................. X
5. .............. Airport or helicopter landing area model content

396

QPS requirements
Simulator
B C D
The following prescribes the minimum requirements for an airport/helicopter landing area model and identifies other
aspects of the environment that must correspond with that model for simulators at Level B, Level C, and Level D.
For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended
landing. If all runways or landing areas in a visual model used to meet the requirements of this attachment are not
designated as ‘‘in use,’’ then the ‘‘in use’’ runways/landing areas must be listed on the SOQ (e.g., KORD, Rwys
9R, 14L, 22R). Models of airports or helicopter landing areas with more than one runway or landing area must
have all significant runways or landing areas not ‘‘in-use’’ visually depicted for airport runway/landing area recogni-
tion purposes. The use of white or off-white light strings that identify the runway or landing area for twilight and
night scenes are acceptable for this requirement; and rectangular surface depictions are acceptable for daylight
scenes. A visual system’s capabilities must be balanced between providing visual models with an accurate rep-
resentation of the airport and a realistic representation of the surrounding environment. Each runway or helicopter
landing area designated as an ‘‘in-use’’ runway or area must include the following detail that is developed using
airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with published
regulatory material; however, this does not require that such models contain details that are beyond the design ca-
pability of the currently qualified visual system. Only one ‘‘primary’’ taxi route from parking to the runway end or
helicopter takeoff/landing area will be required for each ‘‘in-use’’ runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.
5.a. ........... The surface and markings for each ‘‘in-use’’ runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
5.a.1. ........ For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed dis- X X X
tance markings, runway edge markings, and runway centerline stripes.
5.a.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Markings for standard heliport identification (‘‘H’’) and TOFL, FATO, X X X
and safety areas.
5.b. ........... The lighting for each ‘‘in-use’’ runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
5.b.1. ........ For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if X X X
applicable), leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or light systems for that runway.
5.b.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: landing direction, raised and flush FATO, TOFL, windsock lighting ....... X X X
5.c. ........... The taxiway surface and markings associated with each ‘‘in-use’’ runway or helicopter landing area must include
the following:
5.c.1. ........ For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical area(s) ..... X X X
5.c.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons ............................................................ X X X
5.d. ........... The taxiway lighting associated with each ‘‘in-use’’ runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
5.d.1. ........ For airports: Runway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas ............... X X X
5.d.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons ............................................................ X X X
5.d.3. ........ For airports: taxiway lighting of correct color .......................................................................................... X
5.e. ........... Airport signage associated with each ‘‘in-use’’ runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
5.e.1. ........ For airports: Signs for runway distance remaining, intersecting runway with taxiway, and intersecting X X X
taxiway with taxiway.
5.e.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: as appropriate for the model used .......................................................... X X X
5.f. ............ Required visual model correlation with other aspects of the airport or helicopter landing environment simulation:
5.f.1. ......... The airport or helicopter landing area model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that X X X
are associated with operations at the ‘‘in-use’’ runway or helicopter landing area.
5.f.2. ......... The simulation of runway or helicopter landing area contaminants must be correlated with the dis- X X
played runway surface and lighting where applicable.
6. .............. Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment

The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made for simulators at Level B, Level C, and
Level D
6.a. ........... Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming ................................................................. X X X
397

QPS requirements
Simulator
B C D
6.b. ........... Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings ................................................. X X X
6.c. ........... Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight simulator attitudes ................................................. X X X
6.d. ........... The visual scene must correlate with integrated helicopter systems (e.g., terrain, traffic and weather X X
avoidance systems and Head-up Guidance System (HGS)).
6.e. ........... Representative visual effects for each visible, own-ship, helicopter external light(s)—taxi and landing X X X
light lobes (including independent operation, if appropriate).
6.f. ............ The effect of rain removal devices ......................................................................................................... X X
7. .............. Scene quality

The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted for simulators at Level B, Level C, and
Level D.
7.a. ........... Surfaces and textural cues must be free from apparent and distracting quantization (aliasing) ........... X X
7.b. ........... System capable of portraying full color realistic textural cues ............................................................... X X
7.c. ........... The system light points must be free from distracting jitter, smearing or streaking .............................. X X X
7.d. ........... Demonstration of occulting through each channel of the system in an operational scene ................... X X X
7.e. ........... Demonstration of a minimum of ten levels of occulting through each channel of the system in an X X
operational scene.
7.f. ............ System capable of providing focus effects that simulate rain. ............................................................... X X
7.g. ........... System capable of providing focus effects that simulate light point perspective growth ....................... X X
7.h. ........... Runway light controls capable of six discrete light steps (0–5) ............................................................. X X X
8. .............. Environmental effects.

The following are the minimum environmental effects that must be available in simulators at Level B, Level C, and
Level D.
8.a. ........... The displayed scene corresponding to the appropriate surface contaminants and include appropriate X
lighting reflections for wet, partially obscured lights for snow, or alternative effects.
8.b. ........... Special weather representations which include:
8.b.1. ........ The sound, motion and visual effects of light, medium and heavy precipitation near a thunderstorm X
on take-off, approach, and landings at and below an altitude of 2,000 ft (600 m) above the sur-
face and within a radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the airport or helicopter landing area.
8.b.2. ........ One airport or helicopter landing area with a snow scene to include terrain snow and snow-covered X
surfaces.
8.c. ........... In-cloud effects such as variable cloud density, speed cues and ambient changes ............................. X X
8.d. ........... The effect of multiple cloud layers representing few, scattered, broken and overcast conditions giv- X X
ing partial or complete obstruction of the ground scene.
8.e. ........... Visibility and RVR measured in terms of distance. Visibility/RVR checked at 2,000 ft (600 m) above X X X
the airport or helicopter landing area and at two heights below 2,000 ft with at least 500 ft of sep-
aration between the measurements. The measurements must be taken within a radius of 10 sm
(16 km) from the airport or helicopter landing area.
8.f. ............ Patchy fog giving the effect of variable RVR .......................................................................................... X
8.g. ........... Effects of fog on airport lighting such as halos and defocus ................................................................. X X
8.h. ........... Effect of own-ship lighting in reduced visibility, such as reflected glare, including landing lights, X X
strobes, and beacons.
8.i. ............ Wind cues to provide the effect of blowing snow or sand across a dry runway or taxiway selectable X
from the instructor station.
398

QPS requirements
Simulator
B C D
8.j. ............ ‘‘White-out’’ or ‘‘Brown-out’’ effects due to rotor downwash beginning at a distance above the ground X
equal to the rotor diameter.
9. .............. Instructor control of the following:

The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available in Level B, Level C, and Level D simula-
tors, as indicated.
9.a. ........... Environmental effects, e.g. cloud base, cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/ kilo- X X X
meters and RVR in feet/meters.
9.b. ........... Airport or helicopter landing area selection ............................................................................................ X X X
9.c. ........... Airport or helicopter landing area lighting, including variable intensity .................................................. X X X
9.d. ........... Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic ................................................................................. X X
End QPS Requirement
Begin Information
10. ............ An example of being able to ‘‘combine two airport models to achieve two ‘‘in-use’’ runways: One runway des-
ignated as the ‘‘in-use’’ runway in the first model of the airport, and the second runway designated as the ‘‘in-use’’
runway in the second model of the same airport. For example, the clearance is for the ILS approach to Runway
27, Circle to Land on Runway 18 right. Two airport visual models might be used: the first with Runway 27 des-
ignated as the ‘‘in use’’ runway for the approach to runway 27, and the second with Runway 18 Right designated
as the ‘‘in use’’ runway. When the pilot breaks off the ILS approach to runway 27, the instructor may change to the
second airport visual model in which runway 18 Right is designated as the ‘‘in use’’ runway, and the pilot would
make a visual approach and landing. This process is acceptable to the FAA as long as the temporary interruption
due to the visual model change is not distracting to the pilot.
11. ............ Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway, but the detail that is provided should be correct
within reasonable limits.
End Information
TABLE C3C—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS

QPS requirements
Simulator
Visual scene content additional airport or landing area models beyond minimum required for quali- level
Entry No. fication
Class II airport or landing area models B C D
This table specifies the minimum airport or helicopter landing area visual model content and functionality necessary to add vis-
ual models to a simulator’s visual model library (i.e., beyond those necessary for qualification at the stated level) without the
necessity of further involvement of the NSPM or TPAA.
1. .............. Airport or landing area model management

The following is the minimum visual scene management requirements for simulators at Levels B, C, and D.
1.a. ........... The installation and direction of the following lights must be replicated for the ‘‘in-use’’ surface:
1.a.1. ........ For ‘‘in-use’’ runways: Strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway X X X
centerline lights, threshold lights, and touchdown zone lights.
1.a.2. ........ For ‘‘in-use’’ helicopter landing areas: ground level TLOF perimeter lights, elevated TLOF perimeter X X X
lights (if applicable), Optional TLOF lights (if applicable), ground FATO perimeter lights, elevated
TLOF lights (if applicable), landing direction lights.
2. .............. Visual feature recognition

The following are the minimum distances at which runway or landing area features must be visible for simulators at
Levels B, C, and D. Distances are measured from runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to an aircraft
aligned with the runway or helicopter landing area on a 3° glide-slope from the aircraft to the touchdown point, in
simulated meteorological conditions. For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial ap-
proach and to the runway of intended landing.
399
TABLE C3C—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS—Continued

QPS requirements
Simulator
Entry No. fication
2.a. ........... For Runways:
2.a.1. ........ Strobe lights, approach lights, and edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold ............................... X X X
2.a.2. ........ Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km) ..................................................................... X X X
2.a.3. ........ Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 3 sm (5 km) of the threshold ..................................... X
2.a.4. ........ Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold ..................................... X X
2.a.5. ........ Threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3 km) ............................................................. X X X
2.a.6. ........ Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the sur- X X X
face resolution test on daylight scenes.
2.a.7. ........ For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view X X X
in a non-distracting manner.
2.b. ........... For Helicopter landing areas:
2.b.1. ........ Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5 km) .................................................... X X X
2.b.2. ........ Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights, and the lighted windsock from 0.5 sm (750 m) .................. X X
2.b.3. ........ Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/yellow cylinders) from TOFL area .................................................. X X
2.b.4. ........ Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the sur- X X X
face resolution test on daylight scenes.
3. .............. Airport or Helicopter landing area model content

The following prescribes the minimum requirements for what must be provided in an airport visual model and iden-
tifies other aspects of the airport environment that must correspond with that model for simulators at Level B, C,
and D. The detail must be developed using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data,
or developed in accordance with published regulatory material; however, this does not require that airport or heli-
copter landing area models contain details that are beyond the designed capability of the currently qualified visual
system. For circling approaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach
and to the runway of intended landing. Only one ‘‘primary’’ taxi route from parking to the runway end or helicopter
takeoff/landing area will be required for each ‘‘in-use’’ runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.
3.a.1. ........ For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed dis- X X X
tance markings, runway edge markings, and runway centerline stripes.
3.a.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Standard heliport marking (‘‘H’’), TOFL, FATO, and safety areas .......... X X X
3.b.1. ........ For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if X X X
applicable), leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or light systems for that runway.
3.b.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction, raised and flush FATO, TOFL, windsock lighting ...... X X X
the following:
3.c.1. ........ For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical area(s) ..... X X X
3.c.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons ........................................................... X X X
3.d.1. ........ For airports: Runway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas ............... X X X
3.d.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons ........................................................... X X X
3.d.3. ........ For airports: Taxiway lighting of correct color ........................................................................................ X
4. .............. Required visual model correlation with other aspects of the airport environment simulation
400
TABLE C3C—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS—Continued

QPS requirements
Simulator
Entry No. fication
The following are the minimum visual model correlation tests that must be conducted for Level B, Level C, and
Level D simulators, as indicated.
4.a. ........... The airport model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated with oper- X X X
ations at the ‘‘in-use’’ runway.
4.b. ........... Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if depicted in the visual scene, must not cause dis- X X X
tracting or unrealistic effects.
5. .............. Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment

The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made for simulators at Level B, C, and D.
5.a. ........... Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming ................................................................. X X X
5.b. ........... Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight simulator attitudes ................................................. X X X
5.c. ........... Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings ................................................. X X X
6. .............. Scene quality

The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted for simulators at Level B, C, and D.
6.a. ........... Light points free from distracting jitter, smearing or streaking ............................................................... X X X
6.b. ........... Surfaces and textural cues free from apparent and distracting quantization (aliasing) ......................... X X
6.c. ........... Correct color and realistic textural cues ................................................................................................. X
7. .............. Instructor controls of the following:

The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available in Level B, Level C, and Level D simula-
tors, as indicated.
7.a. ........... Environmental effects, e.g., cloud base (if used), cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute X X X
miles/kilometers and RVR in feet/meters.
7.b. ........... Airport/Heliport selection ......................................................................................................................... X X X

7.c. ........... Airport lighting including variable intensity .............................................................................................. X X X
7.d. ........... Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic ................................................................................. X X
Begin Information
8. .............. Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway or helicopter landing area, but the de- X X X
tail that is provided must be correct within the capabilities of the system.
End Information
TABLE C3D—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS

Simulator level
Motion system (and special
Entry No. Notes
aerodynamic model) effects B C D
This table specifies motion effects that are required to indicate the threshold at which a flight crewmember must be able to rec-
ognize an event or situation. Where applicable, flight simulator pitch, side loading and directional control characteristics must
be representative of the helicopter.
401
TABLE C3D—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS—Continued

Simulator level
Entry No. Notes
1 ............... Runway rumble, oleo deflection, ground X X X If time permits, different gross weights can
speed, uneven runway, runway and taxi- also be selected as this may also affect the
way centerline light characteristics: associated vibrations depending on heli-
Procedure: After the helicopter has been pre- copter type. The associated motion effects
set to the takeoff position and then released, for the above tests should also include an
taxi at various speeds with a smooth runway assessment of the effects of rolling over
and note the general characteristics of the centerline lights, surface discontinuities of
simulated runway rumble effects of oleo de- uneven runways, and various taxiway char-
flections. Repeat the maneuver with a run- acteristics.
way roughness of 50%, then with maximum
roughness. Note the associated motion vi-
brations affected by ground speed and run-
way roughness
2 ............... Friction Drag from Skid-type Landing Gear: X X

Procedure: Perform a running takeoff or a run-
ning landing and note an increase in a fuse-
lage vibration (as opposed to rotor vibration)
due to the friction of dragging the skid along
the surface. This vibration will lessen as the
ground speed decreases
3. .............. Rotor Out-of-Track and/or Out-of-Balance X X X Does not require becoming airborne. The ab-
condition: normal vibration for Out-of-Track and Out-of-
Procedure: Select the malfunction or condition Balance conditions should be recognized in
from the IOS. Start the engine(s) normally the frequency range of the inverse of the
and check for an abnormal vibration for an period for each; i.e., 1/P for vertical vibra-
Out-of-Track condition and check for an ab- tion, and 1/P for lateral vibration.
normal vibration for an Out-of-Balance con-
dition
4. .............. Bumps associated with the landing gear: X X X When the landing gear is extended or re-
Procedure: Perform a normal take-off paying tracted, motion bumps can be felt when the
special attention to the bumps that could be gear locks into position.
perceptible due to maximum oleo extension
after lift-off
5. .............. Buffet during extension and retraction of X X X

landing gear:
Procedure: Operate the landing gear. Check
that the motion cues of the buffet experi-
enced represent the actual helicopter
6. .............. Failure of Dynamic Vibration Absorber or X X X

similar system as appropriate for the hel-
icopter (e.g., droop stop or static stop):
Procedure: May be accomplished any time the
rotor is engaged. Select the appropriate fail-
ure at the IOS, note an appropriate increase
in vibration and check that the vibration in-
tensity and frequency increases with an in-
crease in RPM and an increase in collective
application
7. .............. Tail Rotor Drive Failure: X X X The tail rotor operates in the medium fre-
Procedure: With the engine(s) running and the quency range, normally estimated by multi-
rotor engaged—select the malfunction and plying the tail rotor gear box ratio by the
note the immediate increase of medium fre- main rotor RPM. The failure can be recog-
quency vibration nized by an increase in the vibrations in this
frequency range.
8. .............. Touchdown cues for main and nose gear: X X X

Procedure: Conduct several normal ap-
proaches with various rates of descent.
Check that the motion cues for the touch-
down bumps for each descent rate are rep-

resentative of the actual helicopter
402

Simulator level
Entry No. Notes
9. .............. Tire failure dynamics: X X The pilot may notice some yawing with a mul-
Procedure: Simulate a single tire failure and a tiple tire failure selected on the same side.
multiple tire failure This should require the use of the pedal to
maintain control of the helicopter. Depend-
ent on helicopter type, a single tire failure
may not be noticed by the pilot and may not
cause any special motion effect. Sound or
vibration may be associated with the actual
tire losing pressure.
10. ............ Engine malfunction and engine damage: X X X

Procedure: The characteristics of an engine
malfunction as prescribed in the malfunction
definition document for the particular flight
simulator must describe the special motion
effects felt by the pilot. Note the associated
engine instruments varying according to the
nature of the malfunction and note the rep-
lication of the effects of the airframe vibra-
tion
11. ............ Tail boom strikes: X X X The motion effect should be felt as a notice-
Procedure: Tail-strikes can be checked by able nose down pitching moment.
over-rotation of the helicopter at a quick
stop or autorotation to the ground
12. ............ Vortex Ring State (Settling with Power): X X When the aircraft begins to shudder, the appli-
Procedure: Specific procedures may differ be- cation of additional up collective increases
tween helicopters and may be prescribed by the vibration and sink rate. One recovery
the Helicopter Manufacturer or other subject method is to decrease collective to enter
matter expert. However, the following infor- vertical autorotation and/or use cyclic inputs
mation is provided for illustrative purposes to gain horizontal airspeed and exit from
* * * To enter the maneuver, reduce power vortex ring state.
below hover power. Hold altitude with aft cy-
clic until the airspeed approaches 20 knots.
Then allow the sink rate to increase to 300
feet per minute or more as the attitude is
adjusted to obtain an airspeed of less than
10 knots
13. ............ Retreating Blade Stall: X X Correct recovery from retreating blade stall re-
Procedure: Specific procedures may differ be- quires the collective to be lowered first,
tween helicopters and may be prescribed by which reduces blade angles and the angle
the Helicopter Manufacturer or other subject of attack. Aft cyclic can then be used to
matter expert. However, the following infor- slow the helicopter.
mation is provided for illustrative purposes:
To enter the maneuver, increase forward
airspeed; the effect will be recognized
through the development of a low frequency
vibration, pitching up of the nose, and a roll
in the direction of the retreating blade. High
weight, low rotor RPM, high density altitude,
turbulence or steep, abrupt turns are all con-
ducive to retreating blade stall at high for-
ward airspeeds
403

Simulator level
Entry No. Notes
14. ............ Translational Lift Effects: X X X

Procedure: From a stabilized in-ground-effect
(IGE) Hover begin a forward acceleration.
When passing through the effective
translational lift range, the noticeable effect
will be a possible nose pitch-up in some hel-
icopters, an increase in the rate of climb,
and a temporary increase in vibration level
(in some cases this vibration may be pro-
nounced). This effect is experienced again
upon deceleration through the appropriate
speed range. During deceleration, the pitch
and rate of climb will have the reverse ef-
fect, but there will be a similar, temporary in-
crease in vibration level
TABLE C3E—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS

QPS Requirements
Simulator level
Entry num- Sound system
ber B C D
The following checks are performed during a normal flight profile, motion system ON.
1. .............. Precipitation. ...................................................................................................................................... X X
2. .............. Rain removal equipment. .................................................................................................................. X X
3. .............. Helicopter noises used by the pilot for normal helicopter operation. ............................................... X X
4. .............. Abnormal operations for which there are associated sound cues, including engine malfunctions, X X
landing gear or tire malfunctions, tail boom.
5. .............. Sound of a crash when the flight simulator is landed in excess of limitations ................................ X X
TABLE C3F—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS

QPS Requirements
Simulator level
Entry num- Special effects
ber B C D
This table specifies the minimum special effects necessary for the specified simulator level.
1. .............. Braking Dynamics: .......................................................................................................................... X X

Representations of the dynamics of brake failure (flight simulator pitch, side-loading, and direc-
tional control characteristics representative of the helicopter), including antiskid and decreased
brake efficiency due to high brake temperatures (based on helicopter related data), sufficient
to enable pilot identification of the problem and implementation of appropriate procedures.
2. .............. Effects of Airframe and Engine Icing: Required only for those helicopters authorized for X X
operations in known icing conditions.
Procedure: With the simulator airborne, in a clean configuration, nominal altitude and cruise air-
speed, autopilot on and auto-throttles off, engine and airfoil anti-ice/de-ice systems deacti-
vated; activate icing conditions at a rate that allows monitoring of simulator and systems re-
sponse.
Icing recognition will include an increase in gross weight, airspeed decay, change in simulator
pitch attitude, change in engine performance indications (other than due to airspeed changes),
and change in data from pitot/static system, or rotor out-of-track/balance. Activate heating,
anti-ice, or de-ice systems independently. Recognition will include proper effects of these sys-
tems, eventually returning the simulated helicopter to normal flight.
404
TABLE C3G—FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS

QPS Requirements
Simulator level
Entry num- Instructor Operating Station (IOS)
ber B C D
Functions in this table are subject to evaluation only if appropriate for the helicopter or the system is installed on the specific
simulator.
1. .............. Simulator Power Switch(es) ........................................................................................................... X X X
2. .............. Helicopter conditions.
2.a. ........... Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading and allocation ............................................................. X X X
2.b. ........... Helicopter systems status ................................................................................................................. X X X
2.c. ........... Ground crew functions ...................................................................................................................... X X X
3. .............. Airports/Heliports.
3.a. ........... Number and selection ....................................................................................................................... X X X
3.b. ........... Runway or landing area selection .................................................................................................... X X X
3.c. ........... Landing surface conditions (rough, smooth, icy, wet, dry, snow) .................................................... X X X
3.d. ........... Preset positions ................................................................................................................................. X X X
3.e. ........... Lighting controls ................................................................................................................................ X X X
4. .............. Environmental controls.
4.a ............ Visibility (statute miles/kilometers) .................................................................................................... X X X
4.b. ........... Runway visual range (in feet/meters) ............................................................................................... X X X
4.c. ........... Temperature ...................................................................................................................................... X X X
4.d. ........... Climate conditions ............................................................................................................................. X X X
4.e. ........... Wind speed and direction ................................................................................................................. X X X
5. .............. Helicopter system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion). .................................................................... X X X
6. .............. Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
6.a. ........... Problem (all) freeze/release .............................................................................................................. X X X
6.b. ........... Position (geographic) freeze/release ................................................................................................ X X X
6.c. ........... Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases) .............................................................................. X X X
6.d. ........... Ground speed control ....................................................................................................................... X X X
7. .............. Remote IOS. ..................................................................................................................................... X X X
8. .............. Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment ................................................................................................. X X X
9. .............. Motion/Control Loading System.
9.a. ........... On/off/emergency stop ...................................................................................................................... X X X
10. ............ Observer Seats/Stations. Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system ...................................... X X X

405
ATTACHMENT 4 TO APPENDIX C TO PART 60— Figure C4D Sample Qualification Test
Figure C4E Sample Statement of Qualifica-
TABLE OF CONTENTS tion—Certificate
Figure C4F Sample Statement of Qualifica-
Title of Sample
Figure C4A Sample Letter, Request for Ini- Figure C4G Sample Statement of Qualifica-
tial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evalua- tion—List of Qualified Tasks
tion. Figure C4H Sample Continuing Qualifica-
Figure C4B Attachment: FFS Information tion Evaluation Requirements Page
Form Figure C4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective
Figure A4C Sample Letter of Compliance FFS Directives
406
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408
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409
ER09MY08.042</GPH>
410
ER09MY08.043</GPH>
411
ER09MY08.044</GPH>
412
ER09MY08.045</GPH>
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418
ER09MY08.051</GPH>
ATTACHMENT 5 TO APPENDIX C TO PART 60— tion of the certificate holder whose employ-
FSTD DIRECTIVES APPLICABLE TO ees are using the FFS, but the method used
HELICOPTER FFSS must be available for review by the TPAA
for that certificate holder.
FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICE (FSTD) Dates: FSTD Directive 1 becomes effective
DIRECTIVE on May 30, 2008.
FSTD Directive 1. Applicable to all FFSs,
SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS:
regardless of the original qualification basis
and qualification date (original or upgrade), 1. Part 60 requires that each FSTD be:
having Class II or Class III airport models a. Sponsored by a person holding or apply-
available. ing for an FAA operating certificate under
Agency: Federal Aviation Administration Part 119, Part 141, or Part 142, or holding or
(FAA), DOT applying for an FAA-approved training pro-
Action: This is a retroactive requirement to gram under Part 63, Appendix C, for flight
have all Class II or Class III airport models engineers, and
meet current requirements. b. Evaluated and issued an SOQ for a spe-
llllllllllllllllllllllll cific FSTD level.
Summary: Notwithstanding the authoriza- 2. FFSs also require the installation of a
tion listed in paragraph 13b in Appendices A visual system that is capable of providing an
and C of this part, this FSTD Directive re- out-of-the-flight-deck view of airport mod-
quires each certificate holder to ensure that els. However, historically these airport mod-
by May 30, 2009, except for the airport els were not routinely evaluated or required
model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the to meet any standardized criteria. This has
designated level, each airport model used by led to qualified simulators containing air-
the certificate holder’s instructors or eval- port models being used to meet FAA-ap-
uators for training, checking, or testing proved training, testing, or checking require-
under this chapter in an FFS, meets the defi- ments with potentially incorrect or inappro-
nition of a Class II or Class III airport model priate visual references.
as defined in 14CFR part 60. The completion 3. To prevent this from occurring in the fu-
of this requirement will not require a report, ture, by May 30, 2009, except for the airport
and the method used for keeping instructors model(s) used to qualify the simulator at the
and evaluators apprised of the airport mod- designated level, each certificate holder
els that meet Class II or Class III require- must assure that each airport model used for
ments on any given simulator is at the op- training, testing, or checking under this
419
ER09MY08.052</GPH>
Pt. 60, App. D 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
chapter in a qualified FFS meets the defini- through D of this part for a sample MQTG
tion of a Class II or Class III airport model Index of Effective FSTD Directives chart.
as defined in Appendix F of this part.
[Doc. No. FAA–2002–12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9,
4. These references describe the require- 2008, as amended by Docket FAA–2018–0119,
ments for visual scene management and the Amdt. 60–5, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018; Amdt. 60–
minimum distances from which runway or 6, 83 FR 30275, June 27, 2018]
landing area features must be visible for all
levels of simulator. The visual scene or air- APPENDIX D TO PART 60—QUALIFICATION
port model must provide, for each ‘‘in-use PERFORMANCE STANDARDS FOR HEL-
runway’’ or ‘‘in-use landing area,’’ runway or ICOPTER FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICES
landing area surface and markings, runway
or landing area lighting, taxiway surface and llllllllllllllllllllllll
markings, and taxiway lighting. Additional
requirements include correlation of the vis- BEGIN INFORMATION
ual scenes or airport models with other as- This appendix establishes the standards for
pects of the airport environment, correlation Helicopter Flight Training Device (FTD)
of the aircraft and associated equipment, evaluation and qualification at Level 4,
scene quality assessment features, and the Level 5, Level 6, or Level 7. The NSPM is re-
extent to which the instructor is able to ex- sponsible for the development, application,
ercise control of these scenes or models. and implementation of the standards con-
5. For circling approaches, all require- tained within this appendix. The procedures
ments of this section apply to the runway and criteria specified in this appendix will be
used for the initial approach and to the run- used by the NSPM, or a person or persons as-
way of intended landing. signed by the NSPM when conducting heli-
6. The details in these scenes or models copter FTD evaluations.
must be developed using airport pictures, TABLE OF CONTENTS
construction drawings and maps, or other
similar data, or be developed in accordance 1. Introduction.
with published regulatory material. How- 2. Applicability (§§ 60.1, 60.2).
ever, FSTD Directive 1 does not require that 3. Definitions (§ 60.3).
airport models contain details that are be- 4. Qualification Performance Standards
yond the initially designed capability of the (§ 60.4).
visual system, as currently qualified. The 5. Quality Management System (§ 60.5).
recognized limitations to visual systems are 6. Sponsor Qualification Requirements
as follows: (§ 60.7).
a. Visual systems not required to have run- 7. Additional Responsibilities of the Spon-
way numbers as a part of the specific runway sor (§ 60.9).
marking requirements are: 8. FTD Use (§ 60.11).
(1) Link NVS and DNVS. 9. FTD Objective Data Requirements
(§ 60.13).
(2) Novoview 2500 and 6000.
10. Special Equipment and Personnel Re-
(3) FlightSafety VITAL series up to, and
quirements for Qualification of the FTD
including, VITAL III, but not beyond. (§ 60.14).
(4) Redifusion SP1, SP1T, and SP2. 11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Re-
b. Visual systems required to display run- quirements (§ 60.15).
way numbers only for LOFT scenes are: 12. Additional Qualifications for Currently
(1) FlightSafety VITAL IV. Qualified FTDs (§ 60.16).
(2) Redifusion SP3 and SP3T. 13. Previously Qualified FTDs (§ 60.17).
(3) Link-Miles Image II. 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification
c. Visual systems not required to have ac- Evaluation, and Maintenance Requirements
curate taxiway edge lighting are: (§ 60.19).
(1) Redifusion SP1. 15. Logging FTD Discrepancies (§ 60.20).
(2) FlightSafety Vital IV. 16. Interim Qualification of FTDs for New
(3) Link-Miles Image II and Image IIT Helicopter Types or Models (§ 60.21).
(4) XKD displays (even though the XKD 17. Modifications to FTDs (§ 60.23).
image generator is capable of generating 18. Operations with Missing, Malfunc-
blue colored lights, the display cannot ac- tioning, or Inoperative Components (§ 60.25).
commodate that color). 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and
Procedures for Restoration of Qualification
7. A copy of this Directive must be filed in
(§ 60.27).
the MQTG in the designated FSTD Directive
20. Other Losses of Qualification and Pro-
Section, and its inclusion must be annotated
cedures for Restoration of Qualification

on the Index of Effective FSTD Directives (§ 60.29).
chart. See Attachment 4, Appendices A 21. Recordkeeping and Reporting (§ 60.31).
420
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT Pt. 60, App. D
22. Applications, Logbooks, Reports, and c. The NSPM encourages the use of elec-
Records: Fraud, Falsification, or Incorrect tronic media for all communication, includ-
Statements (§ 60.33). ing any record, report, request, test, or
23. [Reserved] statement required by this appendix. The
24. Levels of FTD. electronic media used must have adequate
25. FTD Qualification on the Basis of a Bi- security provisions and be acceptable to the
lateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) NSPM. The NSPM recommends inquiries on
(§ 60.37). system compatibility, and minimum system
Attachment 1 to Appendix D to Part 60— requirements are also included on the NSP
General FTD Requirements. Web site.
Attachment 2 to Appendix D to Part 60— d. Related Reading References.
Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective (1) 14 CFR part 60.
Tests. (2) 14 CFR part 61.
Attachment 3 to Appendix D to Part 60— (3) 14 CFR part 63.
Flight Training Device (FTD) Subjective (4) 14 CFR part 119.
Evaluation. (5) 14 CFR part 121.
Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60— (6) 14 CFR part 125.
Sample Documents. (7) 14 CFR part 135.
(8) 14 CFR part 141.
END INFORMATION (9) 14 CFR part 142.
llllllllllllllllllllllll (10) AC 120–28, as amended, Criteria for Ap-
proval of Category III Landing Weather
1. INTRODUCTION Minima.
(11) AC 120–29, as amended, Criteria for Ap-
proving Category I and Category II Landing
BEGIN INFORMATION Minima for part 121 operators.
(12) AC 120–35, as amended, Line Oper-
a. This appendix contains background in- ational Simulations: Line-Oriented Flight
formation as well as regulatory and inform- Training, Special Purpose Operational
ative material as described later in this sec- Training, Line Operational Evaluation.
tion. To assist the reader in determining (13) AC 120–41, as amended, Criteria for
what areas are required and what areas are Operational Approval of Airborne Wind
permissive, the text in this appendix is di- Shear Alerting and Flight Guidance Sys-
vided into two sections: ‘‘QPS Require- tems.
ments’’ and ‘‘Information.’’ The QPS Re- (14) AC 120–57, as amended, Surface Move-
quirements sections contain details regard- ment Guidance and Control System
ing compliance with the part 60 rule lan- (SMGCS).
guage. These details are regulatory, but are (15) AC 120–63, as amended, Helicopter Sim-
found only in this appendix. The Information ulator Qualification.
sections contain material that is advisory in (16) AC 150/5300–13, as amended, Airport De-
nature, and designed to give the user general sign.
information about the regulation. (17) AC 150/5340–1, as amended, Standards
b. Questions regarding the contents of this for Airport Markings.
publication should be sent to the U.S. De- (18) AC 150/5340–4, as amended, Installation
partment of Transportation, Federal Avia- Details for Runway Centerline Touchdown
tion Administration, Flight Standards Serv- Zone Lighting Systems.
ice, National Simulator Program Staff, (19) AC 150/5390–2, as amended, Heliport De-
AFS–205, 100 Hartsfield Centre Parkway, sign.
Suite 400, Atlanta, Georgia 30354. Telephone (20) AC 150/5340–19, as amended, Taxiway
contact numbers for the NSP are: Phone, Centerline Lighting System.
404–832–4700; fax, 404–761–8906. The general e- (21) AC 150/5340–24, as amended, Runway
mail address for the NSP office is: 9-aso-avr- and Taxiway Edge Lighting System.
sim-team@faa.gov. The NSP Internet Web (22) AC 150/5345–28, as amended, Precision
Site address is: http://www.faa.gov/safety/pro- Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Systems.
gramslinitiatives/aircraftlaviation/nsp/. On (23) International Air Transport Associa-
this Web Site you will find an NSP personnel tion document, ‘‘Flight Simulator Design
list with telephone and e-mail contact infor- and Performance Data Requirements,’’ as
mation for each NSP staff member, a list of amended.
qualified flight simulation devices, ACs, a (24) AC 29–2, as amended, Flight Test Guide
description of the qualification process, NSP for Certification of Transport Category
policy, and an NSP ‘‘In-Works’’ section. Also Rotorcraft.
linked from this site are additional informa- (25) AC 27–1, as amended, Flight Test Guide
tion sources, handbook bulletins, frequently for Certification of Normal Category Rotor-
asked questions, a listing and text of the craft.
Federal Aviation Regulations, Flight Stand- (26) International Civil Aviation Organiza-
ards Inspector’s handbooks, and other FAA tion (ICAO) Manual of Criteria for the Quali-
links. fication of Flight Simulators, as amended.
421
(27) Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation agement Systems for FTDs may be found in
Handbook, Volume I, as amended and Vol- Appendix E of this part.
ume II, as amended, The Royal Aeronautical
Society, London, UK. END INFORMATION
(28) FAA Airman Testing Standards for the llllllllllllllllllllllll
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, Type
Ratings, Commercial Pilot Certificate, and 6. SPONSOR QUALIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
Instrument Ratings. (§ 60.7)
(29) The FAA Aeronautical Information llllllllllllllllllllllll
Manual (AIM). An electronic version of the
AIM is on the Internet at http://www.faa.gov/ BEGIN INFORMATION
atpubs.
(30) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) doc- a. The intent of the language in § 60.7(b) is
ument number 436, Guidelines For Electronic to have a specific FTD, identified by the
Qualification Test Guide (as amended). sponsor, used at least once in an FAA-ap-
(31) Aeronautical Radio, Inc. (ARINC) doc- proved flight training program for the heli-
ument 610, Guidance for Design and Integra- copter simulated during the 12-month period
tion of Aircraft Avionics Equipment in Simula- described. The identification of the specific
tors (as amended). FTD may change from one 12-month period
to the next 12-month period as long as that
END INFORMATION sponsor sponsors and uses at least one FTD
at least once during the prescribed period.
llllllllllllllllllllllll There is no minimum number of hours or
2. APPLICABILITY (§ 60.1 AND 60.2) minimum FTD periods required.
b. The following examples describe accept-
llllllllllllllllllllllll able operational practices:
(1) Example One.
BEGIN INFORMATION (a) A sponsor is sponsoring a single, spe-
No additional regulatory or informational cific FTD for its own use, in its own facility
material applies to § 60.1, Applicability, or to or elsewhere—this single FTD forms the
§ 60.2, Applicability of sponsor rules to person basis for the sponsorship. The sponsor uses
who are not sponsors and who are engaged in that FTD at least once in each 12-month pe-
certain unauthorized activities. riod in that sponsor’s FAA-approved flight
training program for the helicopter simu-
END INFORMATION lated. This 12-month period is established ac-
llllllllllllllllllllllll cording to the following schedule:
(i) If the FTD was qualified prior to May
3. DEFINITIONS (§ 60.3) 30, 2008, the 12-month period begins on the
date of the first continuing qualification
llllllllllllllllllllllll evaluation conducted in accordance with
BEGIN INFORMATION § 60.19 after May 30, 2008, and continues for
each subsequent 12-month period;
See Appendix F of this part for a list of (ii) A device qualified on or after May 30,
definitions and abbreviations from part 1, 2008, will be required to undergo an initial or
part 60, and the QPS appendices of part 60. upgrade evaluation in accordance with
§ 60.15. Once the initial or upgrade evaluation
END INFORMATION is complete, the first continuing qualifica-
llllllllllllllllllllllll tion evaluation will be conducted within 6
months. The 12 month continuing qualifica-
4. QUALIFICATION PERFORMANCE STANDARDS tion evaluation cycle begins on that date and
(§ 60.4) continues for each subsequent 12-month pe-
riod.
BEGIN INFORMATION (b) There is no minimum number of hours
No additional regulatory or informational of FTD use required.
material applies to § 60.4, Qualification Per- (c) The identification of the specific FTD
formance Standards. may change from one 12-month period to the
next 12-month period as long as that sponsor
END INFORMATION sponsors and uses at least one FTD at least
once during the prescribed period.
(2) Example Two.
5. QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (§ 60.5) (a) A sponsor sponsors an additional num-
ber of FTDs, in its facility or elsewhere.
llllllllllllllllllllllll Each additionally sponsored FTD must be—
(i) Used by the sponsor in the sponsor’s
BEGIN INFORMATION
FAA-approved flight training program for

Additional regulatory material and infor- the helicopter simulated (as described in
mational material regarding Quality Man- § 60.7(d)(1)); or
422
(ii) Used by another FAA certificate holder END INFORMATION
proved flight training program for the heli-
copter simulated (as described in § 60.7(d)(1)). 8. FTD USE (§ 60.11).
This 12-month period is established in the
same manner as in example one; or llllllllllllllllllllllll
qualified pilot, (after having flown the heli- BEGIN INFORMATION
copter not the subject FTD or another FTD, No additional regulatory or informational
during the preceding 12-month period) stat- material applies to § 60.11, FTD Use.
ing that the subject FTD’s performance and
handling qualities represent the helicopter END INFORMATION
(as described in § 60.7(d)(2)). This statement is
provided at least once in each 12-month pe-
riod established in the same manner as in ex- 9. FTD OBJECTIVE DATA REQUIREMENTS
ample one. (§ 60.13)
(b) There is no minimum number of hours
of FTD use required. llllllllllllllllllllllll
(3) Example Three.
(a) A sponsor in New York (in this exam- BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS
ple, a Part 142 certificate holder) establishes a. Flight test data used to validate FTD
‘‘satellite’’ training centers in Chicago and performance and handling qualities must
Moscow. have been gathered in accordance with a
(b) The satellite function means that the flight test program containing the following:
Chicago and Moscow centers must operate (1) A flight test plan consisting of:
under the New York center’s certificate (in (a) The maneuvers and procedures required
accordance with all of the New York center’s for aircraft certification and simulation pro-
practices, procedures, and policies; e.g., in- gramming and validation.
structor and/or technician training/checking (b) For each maneuver or procedure—
requirements, record keeping, QMS pro- (i) The procedures and control input the
gram). flight test pilot and/or engineer used.
(c) All of the FTDs in the Chicago and Mos- (ii) The atmospheric and environmental
cow centers could be dry-leased (i.e., the cer- conditions.
tificate holder does not have and use FAA- (iii) The initial flight conditions.
approved flight training programs for the (iv) The helicopter configuration, includ-
FTDs in the Chicago and Moscow centers) ing weight and center of gravity.
because— (v) The data to be gathered.
(i) Each FTD in the Chicago center and
(vi) All other information necessary to
each FTD in the Moscow center is used at
recreate the flight test conditions in the
least once each 12-month period by another
FTD.
FAA certificate holder in that other certifi-
(2) Appropriately qualified flight test per-
cate holder’s FAA-approved flight training
sonnel.
program for the helicopter (as described in
(3) Appropriate and sufficient data acquisi-
§ 60.7(d)(1)); or
tion equipment or system(s), including ap-
(ii) A statement is obtained from a quali-
propriate data reduction and analysis meth-
fied pilot (having flown the helicopter, not
ods and techniques, acceptable to the FAA’s
the subject FTD or another FTD during the
Aircraft Certification Service.
preceding 12-month period) stating that the
b. The data, regardless of source, must be
performance and handling qualities of each
presented:
FTD in the Chicago and Moscow centers rep-
(1) In a format that supports the FTD vali-
resents the helicopter (as described in
dation process;
§ 60.7(d)(2)).
(2) In a manner that is clearly readable and
END INFORMATION annotated correctly and completely;
(3) With resolution sufficient to determine
llllllllllllllllllllllll compliance with the tolerances set forth in
7. ADDITIONAL RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE Attachment 2, Table D2A Appendix D;
SPONSOR (§ 60.9) (4) With any necessary guidance informa-
tion provided; and
llllllllllllllllllllllll (5) Without alteration, adjustments, or
BEGIN INFORMATION
known data calibration errors provided that
The phrase ‘‘as soon as practicable’’ in an explanation of the methods used to cor-
§ 60.9(a) means without unnecessarily dis- rect the errors appears in the QTG. The cor-
rupting or delaying beyond a reasonable rected data may be re-scaled, digitized, or

time the training, evaluation, or experience otherwise manipulated to fit the desired
being conducted in the FTD. presentation
423
c. After completion of any additional flight tionally, this document should provide other
test, a flight test report must be submitted information such as the rationale or expla-
in support of the validation data. The report nation for cases where data or data param-
must contain sufficient data and rationale to eters are missing, instances where engineer-
support qualification of the FTD at the level ing simulation data are used, or where flight
requested. test methods require further explanations. It
d. As required by § 60.13(f), the sponsor should also provide a brief narrative describ-
must notify the NSPM when it becomes ing the cause and effect of any deviation
aware that an addition to or a revision of the from data requirements. The aircraft manu-
flight related data or helicopter systems re- facturer may provide this document.
lated data is available if this data is used to h. There is no requirement for any flight
program and operate a qualified FTD. The test data supplier to submit a flight test
data referred to in this sub-section is data plan or program prior to gathering flight
used to validate the performance, handling test data. However, the NSPM notes that in-
qualities, or other characteristics of the air- experienced data gatherers often provide
craft, including data related to any relevant data that is irrelevant, improperly marked,
changes occurring after the type certifi- or lacking adequate justification for selec-
cation is issued. The sponsor must— tion. Other problems include inadequate in-
(1) Within 10 calendar days, notify the formation regarding initial conditions or
NSPM of the existence of this data; and
test maneuvers. The NSPM has been forced
(a) Within 45 calendar days, notify the
to refuse these data submissions as valida-
NSPM of—
tion data for an FTD evaluation. For this
(b) The schedule to incorporate this data
reason the NSPM recommends that any data
into the FTD; or
supplier not previously experienced in this
(c) The reason for not incorporating this
area review the data necessary for program-
data into the FTD.
e. In those cases where the objective test ming and for validating the performance of
results authorize a ‘‘snapshot test’’ or a ‘‘se- the FTD and discuss the flight test plan an-
ries of snapshot tests’’ results in lieu of a ticipated for acquiring such data with the
time-history result, the sponsor or other NSPM well in advance of commencing the
data provider must ensure that a steady flight tests.
state condition exists at the instant of time i. The NSPM will consider, on a case-by-
captured by the ‘‘snapshot.’’ The steady case basis, whether to approve supplemental
state condition must exist from 4 seconds validation data derived from flight data re-
prior to, through 1 second following, the in- cording systems such as a Quick Access Re-
stant of time captured by the snap shot. corder or Flight Data Recorder.
END QPS REQUIREMENTS END INFORMATION

llllllllllllllllllllllll llllllllllllllllllllllll
BEGIN INFORMATION 10. SPECIAL EQUIPMENT AND PERSONNEL RE-
QUIREMENTS FOR QUALIFICATION OF THE FTD
f. The FTD sponsor is encouraged to main-
tain a liaison with the manufacturer of the (§ 60.14).
aircraft being simulated (or with the holder llllllllllllllllllllllll
of the aircraft type certificate for the air-
craft being simulated if the manufacturer is BEGIN INFORMATION
no longer in business), and if appropriate,
with the person having supplied the aircraft a. In the event that the NSPM determines
data package for the FTD in order to facili- that special equipment or specifically quali-
tate the notification described in this para- fied persons will be required to conduct an
graph. evaluation, the NSPM will make every at-
g. It is the intent of the NSPM that for tempt to notify the sponsor at least one (1)
new aircraft entering service, at a point well week, but in no case less than 72 hours, in
in advance of preparation of the QTG, the advance of the evaluation. Examples of spe-
sponsor should submit to the NSPM for ap- cial equipment include flight control meas-
proval, a descriptive document (see Appendix urement devices, accelerometers, or oscillo-
C of this part, Table C2D, Sample Validation scopes. Examples of specially qualified per-
Data Roadmap for Helicopters) containing sonnel include individuals specifically quali-
the plan for acquiring the validation data, fied to install or use any special equipment
including data sources. This document when its use is required.
should clearly identify sources of data for all b. Examples of a special evaluation include
required tests, a description of the validity an evaluation conducted after an FTD is
of these data for a specific engine type and moved; at the request of the TPAA; or as a
thrust rating configuration, and the revision result of comments received from users of
levels of all avionics affecting the perform- the FTD that raise questions about the con-
ance or flying qualities of the aircraft. Addi- tinued qualification or use of the FTD.
424
END INFORMATION e. The QTG described in paragraphs (a)(3)
and (b) of this section, must include the fol-
lowing:
11. INITIAL (AND UPGRADE) QUALIFICATION (1) A QTG cover page with sponsor and
REQUIREMENTS (§ 60.15). FAA approval signature blocks (see Attach-
ment 4, Figure D4C, of this appendix, for a
llllllllllllllllllllllll sample QTG cover page).
(2) A continuing qualification evaluation
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENT requirements page. This page will be used by
a. In order to be qualified at a particular the NSPM to establish and record the fre-
qualification level, the FTD must: quency with which continuing qualification
(1) Meet the general requirements listed in evaluations must be conducted and any sub-
Attachment 1 of this appendix. sequent changes that may be determined by
(2) Meet the objective testing requirements the NSPM in accordance with § 60.19. See At-
listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix tachment 4, Figure D4G, of this appendix for
(Level 4 FTDs do not require objective tests). a sample Continuing Qualification Evalua-
tion Requirements page.
(3) Satisfactorily accomplish the subjec-
tive tests listed in Attachment 3 of this ap- (3) An FTD information page that provides
pendix. the information listed in this paragraph, if
applicable (see Attachment 4, Figure D4B, of
b. The request described in § 60.15(a) must
this appendix, for a sample FTD information
include all of the following:
page). For convertible FTDs, the sponsor
(1) A statement that the FTD meets all of
must submit a separate page for each con-
the applicable provisions of this part and all
figuration of the FTD.
applicable provisions of the QPS.
(a) The sponsor’s FTD identification num-
(2) A confirmation that the sponsor will ber or code.
forward to the NSPM the statement de- (b) The helicopter model and series being
scribed in § 60.15(b) in such time as to be re- simulated.
ceived no later than 5 business days prior to (c) The aerodynamic data revision number
the scheduled evaluation and may be for- or reference.
warded to the NSPM via traditional or elec-
(d) The source of the basic aerodynamic
tronic means.
model and the aerodynamic coefficient data
(3) Except for a Level 4 FTD, a QTG, ac- used to modify the basic model.
ceptable to the NSPM, that includes all of (e) The engine model(s) and its data revi-
the following: sion number or reference.
(a) Objective data obtained from aircraft (f) The flight control data revision number
testing or another approved source. or reference.
(b) Correlating objective test results ob- (g) The flight management system identi-
tained from the performance of the FTD as fication and revision level.
prescribed in the appropriate QPS. (h) The FTD model and manufacturer.
(c) The result of FTD subjective tests pre- (i) The date of FTD manufacture.
scribed in the appropriate QPS. (j) The FTD computer identification.
(d) A description of the equipment nec- (k) The visual system model and manufac-
essary to perform the evaluation for initial turer, including display type.
qualification and the continuing qualifica- (l) The motion system type and manufac-
tion evaluations. turer, including degrees of freedom.
c. The QTG described in paragraph a(3) of (4) A Table of Contents.
this section must provide the documented (5) A log of revisions and a list of effective
proof of compliance with the FTD objective pages.
tests in Attachment 2, Table D2A of this ap- (6) List of all relevant data references.
pendix. (7) A glossary of terms and symbols used
d. The QTG is prepared and submitted by (including sign conventions and units).
the sponsor, or the sponsor’s agent on behalf (8) Statements of Compliance and Capa-
of the sponsor, to the NSPM for review and bility (SOC) with certain requirements.
approval, and must include, for each objec- (9) Recording procedures or equipment re-
tive test: quired to accomplish the objective tests.
(1) Parameters, tolerances, and flight con- (10) The following information for each ob-
ditions. jective test designated in Attachment 2 of
(2) Pertinent and complete instructions for this appendix, as applicable to the qualifica-
conducting automatic and manual tests. tion level sought:
(3) A means of comparing the FTD test re- (a) Name of the test.
sults to the objective data. (b) Objective of the test.
(4) Any other information as necessary to (c) Initial conditions.
assist in the evaluation of the test results. (d) Manual test procedures.
(5) Other information appropriate to the (e) Automatic test procedures (if applica-
qualification level of the FTD. ble).
425
(f) Method for evaluating FTD objective at the manufacturer’s facility, the sponsor
test results. must repeat at least one-third of the tests at
(g) List of all relevant parameters driven the sponsor’s training facility in order to
or constrained during the automatic test(s). substantiate FTD performance. The QTG
(h) List of all relevant parameters driven must be clearly annotated to indicate when
or constrained during the manual test(s). and where each test was accomplished. Tests
(i) Tolerances for relevant parameters. conducted at the manufacturer’s facility and
(j) Source of Validation Data (document at the sponsor’s training facility must be
and page number). conducted after the FTD is assembled with
(k) Copy of the Validation Data (if located systems and sub-systems functional and op-
in a separate binder, a cross reference for the erating in an interactive manner. The test
identification and page number for pertinent results must be submitted to the NSPM.
data location must be provided). i. The sponsor must maintain a copy of the
(l) FTD Objective Test Results as obtained MQTG at the FTD location.
by the sponsor. Each test result must reflect j. All FTDs for which the initial qualifica-
the date completed and must be clearly lation is conducted after May 30, 2014, must
beled as a product of the device being tested. have an electronic MQTG (eMQTG) including
f. A convertible FTD is addressed as a sepa- all objective data obtained from helicopter
rate FTD for each model and series heli- testing, or another approved source (refor-
copter to which it will be converted and for matted or digitized), together with corre-
the FAA qualification level sought. The lating objective test results obtained from
NSPM will conduct an evaluation for each the performance of the FTD (reformatted or
configuration. If a sponsor seeks qualifica- digitized) as prescribed in this appendix. The
tion for two or more models of a helicopter eMQTG must also contain the general FTD
type using a convertible FTD, the sponsor performance or demonstration results (refor-
must provide a QTG for each helicopter matted or digitized) prescribed in this appen-
model, or a QTG for the first helicopter dix, and a description of the equipment nec-
model and a supplement to that QTG for essary to perform the initial qualification
each additional helicopter model. The NSPM evaluation and the continuing qualification
will conduct evaluations for each helicopter evaluations. The eMQTG must include the
model. original validation data used to validate
g. The form and manner of presentation of
FTD performance and handling qualities in
objective test results in the QTG must in-
either the original digitized format from the
clude the following:
data supplier or an electronic scan of the
(1) The sponsor’s FTD test results must be
original time-history plots that were pro-
recorded in a manner acceptable to the
vided by the data supplier. A copy of the
NSPM, that allows easy comparison of the
eMQTG must be provided to the NSPM.
FTD test results to the validation data (e.g.,
k. All other FTDs (not covered in subpara-
use of a multi-channel recorder, line printer,
graph ‘‘j’’) must have an electronic copy of
cross plotting, overlays, transparencies).
the MQTG by and after May 30, 2014. An elec-
(2) FTD results must be labeled using ter-
tronic copy of the MQTG must be provided to
minology common to helicopter parameters
the NSPM. This may be provided by an elec-
as opposed to computer software identifica-
tronic scan presented in a Portable Docu-
tions.
ment File (PDF), or similar format accept-
(3) Validation data documents included in
able to the NSPM.
a QTG may be photographically reduced only
l. During the initial (or upgrade) qualifica-
if such reduction will not alter the graphic
tion evaluation conducted by the NSPM, the
scaling or cause difficulties in scale interpre-
sponsor must also provide a person knowl-
tation or resolution.
edgeable about the operation of the aircraft
(4) Scaling on graphical presentations
and the operation of the FTD.
must provide the resolution necessary to
evaluate the parameters shown in Attach- END QPS REQUIREMENTS
ment 2, Table D2A of this appendix.
(5) Tests involving time histories, data llllllllllllllllllllllll
sheets (or transparencies thereof) and FTD
BEGIN INFORMATION
test results must be clearly marked with ap-
propriate reference points to ensure an accu- m. Only those FTDs that are sponsored by
rate comparison between FTD and helicopter a certificate holder as defined in Appendix F
with respect to time. Time histories recorded of this part will be evaluated by the NSPM.
via a line printer are to be clearly identified However, other FTD evaluations may be con-
for cross-plotting on the helicopter data. ducted on a case-by-case basis as the Admin-
Over-plots may not obscure the reference istrator deems appropriate, but only in ac-
data. cordance with applicable agreements.
h. The sponsor may elect to complete the n. The NSPM will conduct an evaluation
QTG objective and subjective tests at the for each configuration, and each FTD must
manufacturer’s facility or at the sponsor’s be evaluated as completely as possible. To
training facility. If the tests are conducted ensure a thorough and uniform evaluation,
426
each FTD is subjected to the general FTD re- be confused with design tolerances specified
quirements in Attachment 1 of this appen- for FTD manufacture. In making decisions
dix, the objective tests listed in Attachment regarding tests and test results, the NSPM
2 of this appendix, and the subjective tests relies on the use of operational and engineer-
listed in Attachment 3 of this appendix. The ing judgment in the application of data (in-
evaluations described herein will include, cluding consideration of the way in which
but not necessarily be limited to the fol- the flight test was flown and way the data
lowing: was gathered and applied), data presen-
(1) Helicopter responses, including longitu- tations, and the applicable tolerances for
dinal and lateral-directional control re- each test.
sponses (see Attachment 2 of this appendix). q. In addition to the scheduled continuing
(2) Performance in authorized portions of qualification evaluation, each FTD is subject
the simulated helicopter’s operating enve- to evaluations conducted by the NSPM at
lope, to include tasks evaluated by the any time without prior notification to the
NSPM in the areas of surface operations, sponsor. Such evaluations would be accom-
takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach and plished in a normal manner (i.e., requiring
landing, as well as abnormal and emergency exclusive use of the FTD for the conduct of
operations (see Attachment 2 of this appen- objective and subjective tests and an exam-
dix). ination of functions) if the FTD is not being
(3) Control checks (see Attachment 1 and used for flight crewmember training, testing,
Attachment 2 of this appendix). or checking. However, if the FTD were being
(4) Flight deck configuration (see Attach- used, the evaluation would be conducted in a
ment 1 of this appendix). non-exclusive manner. This non-exclusive
(5) Pilot, flight engineer, and instructor evaluation will be conducted by the FTD
station functions checks (see Attachment 1 evaluator accompanying the check airman,
and Attachment 3 of this appendix). instructor, Aircrew Program Designee
(6) Helicopter systems and sub-systems (as (APD), or FAA inspector aboard the FTD
appropriate) as compared to the helicopter along with the student(s) and observing the
simulated (see attachment 1 and attachment operation of the FTD during the training,
3 of this appendix). testing, or checking activities.
(7) FTD systems and sub-systems, includ- r. Problems with objective test results are
ing force cueing (motion), visual, and aural handled as follows:
(sound) systems, as appropriate (see Attach- (1) If a problem with an objective test re-
ment 1 and Attachment 2 of this appendix). sult is detected by the NSP evaluation team
may become hazardous to the occupants. The objective test do not support the qualifica-
sponsor may be subject to Occupational tion level requested but do support a lower
Safety and Health Administration require- level, the NSPM may qualify the FTD at a
ments. lower level.
o. The NSPM administers the objective and s. After an FTD is successfully evaluated,
subjective tests, which include an examina- the NSPM issues an SOQ to the sponsor. The
tion of functions. The tests include a quali- NSPM recommends the FTD to the TPAA,
tative assessment of the FTD by an NSP who will approve the FTD for use in a flight
pilot. The NSP evaluation team leader may training program. The SOQ will be issued at
assign other qualified personnel to assist in the satisfactory conclusion of the initial or
accomplishing the functions examination continuing qualification evaluation and will
and/or the objective and subjective tests per- list the tasks for which the FTD is qualified,
formed during an evaluation when required. referencing the tasks described in Table D1B
(1) Objective tests provide a basis for meas- in Attachment 1 of this appendix. However,
uring and evaluating FTD performance and it is the sponsor’s responsibility to obtain
determining compliance with the require- TPAA approval prior to using the FTD in an
ments of this part. FAA-approved flight training program.
(2) Subjective tests provide a basis for: t. Under normal circumstances, the NSPM
(a) Evaluating the capability of the FTD to establishes a date for the initial or upgrade
perform over a typical utilization period; evaluation within ten (10) working days after
(b) Determining that the FTD satisfac- determining that a complete QTG is accept-
torily simulates each required task; able. Unusual circumstances may warrant
(c) Verifying correct operation of the FTD establishing an evaluation date before this
controls, instruments, and systems; and determination is made. A sponsor may
(d) Demonstrating compliance with the re- schedule an evaluation date as early as 6
quirements of this part. months in advance. However, there may be a
p. The tolerances for the test parameters delay of 45 days or more in rescheduling and
listed in Attachment 2 of this appendix re- completing the evaluation if the sponsor is
flect the range of tolerances acceptable to unable to meet the scheduled date. See At-
the NSPM for FTD validation and are not to tachment 4, of this appendix, Figure D4A,
427
Sample Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Re- b. FTDs and replacement FTD systems
instatement Evaluation. qualified prior to May 30, 2008, are not re-
u. The numbering system used for objec- quired to meet the general FTD require-
tive test results in the QTG should closely ments, the objective test requirements, and
follow the numbering system set out in At- the subjective test requirements of Attach-
tachment 2, FTD Objective Tests, Table D2A ments 1, 2, and 3, respectively, of this appen-
of this appendix. dix as long as the FTD continues to meet the
v. Contact the NSPM or visit the NSPM test requirements contained in the MQTG
Web site for additional information regard- developed under the original qualification
ing the preferred qualifications of pilots used basis.
to meet the requirements of § 60.15(d). c. After (1 year after date of publication of
w. Examples of the exclusions for which the final rule in the FEDERAL REGISTER) each
the FTD might not have been subjectively visual scene and airport model installed in
tested by the sponsor or the NSPM and for and available for use in a qualified FTD must
which qualification might not be sought or meet the requirements described in Attach-
granted, as described in § 60.15(g)(6), include ment 3 of this appendix.
approaches to and departures from slopes d. Simulators qualified prior to May 30,
and pinnacles. 2008, may be updated. If an evaluation is
deemed appropriate or necessary by the
END INFORMATION NSPM after such an update, the evaluation
llllllllllllllllllllllll will not require an evaluation to standards
12. ADDITIONAL QUALIFICATIONS FOR was originally qualified.
CURRENTLY QUALIFIED FTDS (§ 60.16)
BEGIN INFORMATION
BEGIN INFORMATION
material applies to § 60.16, Additional Quali- e. Other certificate holders or persons de-
fications for a Currently Qualified FTD. siring to use an FTD may contract with FTD
sponsors to use FTDs previously qualified at
END INFORMATION a particular level for a helicopter type and
approved for use within an FAA-approved
flight training program. Such FTDs are not
13. PREVIOUSLY QUALIFIED FTDS (§ 60.17) required to undergo an additional qualifica-
llllllllllllllllllllllll f. Each FTD user must obtain approval
from the appropriate TPAA to use any FTD
in an FAA-approved flight training program.
a. In instances where a sponsor plans to re- g. The intent of the requirement listed in
move an FTD from active status for a period § 60.17(b), for each FTD to have an SOQ with-
of less than two years, the following proce- in 6 years, is to have the availability of that
dures apply: statement (including the configuration list
(1) The NSPM must be notified in writing and the limitations to authorizations) to
and the notification must include an esti- provide a complete picture of the FTD inven-
mate of the period that the FTD will be inac- tory regulated by the FAA. The issuance of
tive. the statement will not require any addi-
(2) Continuing Qualification evaluations tional evaluation or require any adjustment
will not be scheduled during the inactive pe- to the evaluation basis for the FTD.
riod. h. Downgrading of an FTD is a permanent
(3) The NSPM will remove the FTD from change in qualification level and will neces-
the list of qualified FTDs on a mutually es- sitate the issuance of a revised SOQ to re-
tablished date not later than the date on flect the revised qualification level, as ap-
which the first missed continuing qualifica- propriate. If a temporary restriction is
tion evaluation would have been scheduled. placed on an FTD because of a missing, mal-
(4) Before the FTD is restored to qualified functioning, or inoperative component or on-
status, it must be evaluated by the NSPM. going repairs, the restriction is not a perma-
The evaluation content and the time re- nent change in qualification level. Instead,
quired to accomplish the evaluation is based the restriction is temporary and is removed
on the number of continuing qualification when the reason for the restriction has been
evaluations and sponsor-conducted quarterly resolved.
inspections missed during the period of inac- i. It is not the intent of the NSPM to dis-
tivity. courage the improvement of existing simula-
(5) The sponsor must notify the NSPM of tion (e.g., the ‘‘updating’’ of a control load-
any changes to the original scheduled time ing system, or the replacement of the IOS
out of service. with a more capable unit) by requiring the
428
‘‘updated’’ device to meet the qualification § 60.19(a)(1) should include a balance and a
standards current at the time of the update. mix from the objective test requirement
Depending on the extent of the update, the areas listed as follows:
NSPM may require that the updated device (1) Performance.
be evaluated and may require that an eval- (2) Handling qualities.
uation include all or a portion of the ele- (3) Motion system (where appropriate).
ments of an initial evaluation. However, the (4) Visual system (where appropriate).
standards against which the device would be (5) Sound system (where appropriate).
evaluated are those that are found in the (6) Other FTD systems.
MQTG for that device. f. If the NSP evaluator plans to accomplish
j. The NSPM will determine the evaluation specific tests during a normal continuing
criteria for an FTD that has been removed qualification evaluation that requires the
from active status for a prolonged period. use of special equipment or technicians, the
The criteria will be based on the number of sponsor will be notified as far in advance of
continuing qualification evaluations and the evaluation as practical; but not less than
quarterly inspections missed during the pe- 72 hours. Examples of such tests include
riod of inactivity. For example, if the FTD latencies and control sweeps.
were out of service for a 1 year period, it g. The continuing qualification evalua-
would be necessary to complete the entire tions described in § 60.19(b) will normally re-
QTG, since all of the quarterly evaluations quire 4 hours of FTD time. However, flexi-
would have been missed. The NSPM will also bility is necessary to address abnormal situ-
consider how the FTD was stored, whether ations or situations involving aircraft with
parts were removed from the FTD and additional levels of complexity (e.g., com-
whether the FTD was disassembled. puter controlled aircraft). The sponsor
k. The FTD will normally be requalified should anticipate that some tests may re-
using the FAA-approved MQTG and the cri- quire additional time. The continuing quali-
teria that was in effect prior to its removal
fication evaluations will consist of the fol-
from qualification. However, inactive periods
lowing:
of 2 years or more will require re-qualifica-
(1) Review of the results of the quarterly
tion under the standards in effect and cur-
rent at the time of requalification.
the last scheduled continuing qualification
END INFORMATION evaluation.
(2) A selection of approximately 8 to 15 ob-
llllllllllllllllllllllll jective tests from the MQTG that provide an
14. INSPECTION, CONTINUING QUALIFICATION, adequate opportunity to evaluate the per-
EVALUATION, AND MAINTENANCE REQUIRE- formance of the FTD. The tests chosen will
MENTS (§ 60.19)
be performed either automatically or manu-
ally and should be able to be conducted with-
llllllllllllllllllllllll in approximately one-third (1/3) of the allot-
ted FTD time.
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENT (3) A subjective evaluation of the FTD to
a. The sponsor must conduct a minimum of perform a representative sampling of the
four evenly spaced inspections throughout tasks set out in attachment 3 of this appen-
the year. The objective test sequence and dix. This portion of the evaluation should
content of each inspection in this sequence take approximately two-thirds (2/3) of the al-
must be developed by the sponsor and must lotted FTD time.
be acceptable to the NSPM. (4) An examination of the functions of the
b. The description of the functional pre- FTD may include the motion system, visual
flight check must be contained in the spon- system, sound system as applicable, instruc-
sor’s QMS. tor operating station, and the normal func-
c. Record ‘‘functional preflight’’ in the tions and simulated malfunctions of the sim-
FTD discrepancy log book or other accept- ulated helicopter systems. This examination
able location, including any item found to be is normally accomplished simultaneously
missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative. with the subjective evaluation requirements.
d. During the continuing qualification h. The requirement established in
evaluation conducted by the NSPM, the § 60.19(b)(4) regarding the frequency of
sponsor must also provide a person knowl- NSPM-conducted continuing qualification
edgeable about the operation of the aircraft evaluations for each FTD is typically 12
and the operation of the FTD. months. However, the establishment and sat-
isfactory implementation of an approved
END QPS REQUIREMENTS QMS for a sponsor will provide a basis for ad-
llllllllllllllllllllllll justing the frequency of evaluations to ex-
ceed 12-month intervals.
BEGIN INFORMATION
END INFORMATION
e. The sponsor’s test sequence and the con-
tent of each quarterly inspection required in llllllllllllllllllllllll
429
15. LOGGING FTD DISCREPANCIES (§ 60.20) 18. OPERATION WITH MISSING, MALFUNC-
TIONING, OR INOPERATIVE COMPONENTS
llllllllllllllllllllllll (§ 60.25)
BEGIN INFORMATION llllllllllllllllllllllll
No additional regulatory or informational BEGIN INFORMATION
material applies to § 60.20. Logging FTD Dis-
crepancies. a. The sponsor’s responsibility with respect
to § 60.25(a) is satisfied when the sponsor fair-
END INFORMATION ly and accurately advises the user of the cur-
rent status of an FTD, including any miss-
llllllllllllllllllllllll ing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI)
component(s).
16. INTERIM QUALIFICATION OF FTDS FOR NEW b. It is the responsibility of the instructor,
HELICOPTER TYPES OR MODELS (§ 60.21) check airman, or representative of the ad-
llllllllllllllllllllllll ministrator conducting training, testing, or
BEGIN INFORMATION judgment to determine if any MMI compo-
nent is necessary for the satisfactory com-
No additional regulatory or informational pletion of a specific maneuver, procedure, or
material applies to § 60.21, Interim Qualifica- task.
tion of FTDs for New Helicopter Types or c. If the 29th or 30th day of the 30-day pe-
Models. riod described in § 60.25(b) is on a Saturday, a
Sunday, or a holiday, the FAA will extend
END INFORMATION the deadline until the next business day.
d. In accordance with the authorization de-
17. MODIFICATIONS TO FTDS (§ 60.23) a discrepancy prioritizing system to accom-
plish repairs based on the level of impact on
llllllllllllllllllllllll the capability of the FTD. Repairs having a
larger impact on the FTD’s ability to pro-
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS vide the required training, evaluation, or
flight experience will have a higher priority
a. The notification described in § 60.23(c)(2)
for repair or replacement.
must include a complete description of the
planned modification, with a description of END INFORMATION
the operational and engineering effect the
proposed modification will have on the oper- llllllllllllllllllllllll
ation of the FTD and the results that are ex-
19. AUTOMATIC LOSS OF QUALIFICATION AND
pected with the modification incorporated.
PROCEDURES FOR RESTORATION OF QUALI-
b. Prior to using the modified FTD: FICATION (§ 60.27)
(1) All the applicable objective tests com-
pleted with the modification incorporated, llllllllllllllllllllllll
including any necessary updates to the BEGIN INFORMATION
MQTG (e.g., accomplishment of FSTD Direc-
tives) must be acceptable to the NSPM; and If the sponsor provides a plan for how the
(2) The sponsor must provide the NSPM FTD will be maintained during its out-of-
with a statement signed by the MR that the service period (e.g., periodic exercise of me-
factors listed in § 60.15(b) are addressed by chanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems;
the appropriate personnel as described in routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; con-
that section. trol of the environmental factors in which
the FTD is to be maintained) there is a
END QPS REQUIREMENTS greater likelihood that the NSPM will be
able to determine the amount of testing that
llllllllllllllllllllllll is required for requalification.
c. FSTD Directives are considered modi- llllllllllllllllllllllll
fication of an FTD. See Attachment 4 of this
appendix, Figure D4H for a sample index of 20. OTHER LOSSES OF QUALIFICATION AND PRO-
effective FSTD Directives. See Attachment 6 CEDURES FOR RESTORATION OF QUALIFICA-
of this appendix for a list of all effective TION (§ 60.29)
FSTD Directives applicable to Helicopter llllllllllllllllllllllll
FTDs.
BEGIN INFORMATION
END INFORMATION
llllllllllllllllllllllll FTD will be maintained during its out-of-
430
service period (e.g., periodic exercise of me- plays may be flat/LCD panel representations
chanical, hydraulic, and electrical systems; or actual representations of displays in the
routine replacement of hydraulic fluid; con- aircraft. All controls, switches, and knobs
trol of the environmental factors in which may be touch sensitive activation (not capa-
the FTD is to be maintained) there is a ble of manual manipulation of the flight con-
greater likelihood that the NSPM will be trols) or may physically replicate the air-
able to determine the amount of testing that craft in control operation.
is required for requalification. (2) Level 5. A Level 5 device is one that
may have an open helicopter-specific flight
END INFORMATION
deck area, or an enclosed helicopter-specific
llllllllllllllllllllllll flight deck and a generic aerodynamic pro-
gram with at least one operating system and
21. RECORD KEEPING AND REPORTING (§ 60.31) control loading representative of the simu-
llllllllllllllllllllllll lated helicopter. The control loading need
only represent the helicopter at an approach
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS speed and configuration. All displays may be
a. FTD modifications can include hardware flat/LCD panel representations or actual rep-
or software changes. For FTD modifications resentations of displays in the aircraft. Pri-
involving software programming changes, mary and secondary flight controls (e.g.,
the record required by § 60.31(a)(2) must con- rudder, aileron, elevator, flaps, spoilers/speed
sist of the name of the aircraft system soft- brakes, engine controls, landing gear,
ware, aerodynamic model, or engine model nosewheel steering, trim, brakes) must be
change, the date of the change, a summary physical controls. All other controls, switch-
of the change, and the reason for the change. es, and knobs may be touch sensitive activa-
b. If a coded form for record keeping is tion.
used, it must provide for the preservation (3) Level 6. A Level 6 device is one that has
and retrieval of information with appro- an enclosed helicopter-specific flight deck
priate security or controls to prevent the in- and aerodynamic program with all applica-
appropriate alteration of such records after ble helicopter systems operating and control
the fact. loading that is representative of the simu-
lated helicopter throughout its ground and
END INFORMATION flight envelope and significant sound rep-
llllllllllllllllllllllll resentation. All displays may be flat/LCD
panel representations or actual representa-
22. APPLICATIONS, LOGBOOKS, REPORTS, AND tions of displays in the aircraft, but all con-
RECORDS: FRAUD, FALSIFICATION, OR INCOR- trols, switches, and knobs must physically
RECT STATEMENTS (§ 60.33) replicate the aircraft in control operation.
llllllllllllllllllllllll (4) Level 7. A Level 7 device is one that has
an enclosed helicopter-specific flight deck
BEGIN INFORMATION and aerodynamic program with all applica-
ble helicopter systems operating and control
No additional regulatory or informational loading that is representative of the simu-
material applies to § 60.33, Applications, lated helicopter throughout its ground and
Logbooks, Reports, and Records: Fraud, Fal- flight envelope and significant sound rep-
sification, or Incorrect Statements resentation. All displays may be flat/LCD
23. [RESERVED] panel representations or actual representa-
tions of displays in the aircraft, but all con-
END INFORMATION trols, switches, and knobs must physically
replicate the aircraft in control operation. It
also has a visual system that provides an
24. LEVELS OF FTD out-of-the-flight deck view, providing cross-
flight deck viewing (for both pilots simulta-
llllllllllllllllllllllll neously) of a field-of-view of at least 146°
horizontally and 36° vertically as well as a
BEGIN INFORMATION
vibration cueing system for characteristic
a. The following is a general description of helicopter vibrations noted at the pilot sta-
each level of FTD. Detailed standards and tion(s).
tests for the various levels of FTDs are fully
defined in Attachments 1 through 3 of this END INFORMATION
appendix.
(1) Level 4. A Level 4 device is one that
may have an open helicopter-specific flight 25. FTD QUALIFICATION ON THE BASIS OF A BI-
deck area, or an enclosed helicopter-specific LATERAL AVIATION SAFETY AGREEMENT
flight deck and at least one operating sys- (BASA) (§ 60.37)

tem. Air/ground logic is required (no aero-
dynamic programming required). All dis- llllllllllllllllllllllll
431
BEGIN INFORMATION Level 7 FTDs. The sponsor should also con-
sult the objectives tests in Attachment 2 of
material applies to § 60.37, FTD Qualification this appendix and the examination of func-
on the Basis of a Bilateral Aviation Safety tions and subjective tests listed in Attach-
Agreement (BASA). ment 3 of this appendix to determine the
complete requirements for a specific level
END INFORMATION FTD.
llllllllllllllllllllllll b. The material contained in this attach-
ment is divided into the following cat-
ATTACHMENT 1 TO APPENDIX D TO PART 60— egories:
GENERAL FTD REQUIREMENTS (1) General Flight Deck Configuration.
llllllllllllllllllllllll (2) Programming.
(3) Equipment Operation.
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS (4) Equipment and Facilities for Instructor/
1. REQUIREMENTS Evaluator Functions.
(5) Motion System.
a. Certain requirements included in this
(6) Visual System.
appendix must be supported with an SOC as
defined in Appendix F, which may include (7) Sound System.
objective and subjective tests. The require- c. Table D1A provides the standards for the
ments for SOCs are indicated in the ‘‘General General FTD Requirements.
FTD Requirements’’ column in Table D1A of d. Table D1B provides the tasks that the
this appendix. sponsor will examine to determine whether
b. Table D1A describes the requirements the FTD satisfactorily meets the require-
for the indicated level of FTD. Many devices ments for flight crew training, testing, and
include operational systems or functions experience.
that exceed the requirements outlined in e. Table D1C provides the functions that an
this section. In any event, all systems will be instructor/check airman must be able to con-
tested and evaluated in accordance with this trol in the simulator.
appendix to ensure proper operation.
END QPS REQUIREMENTS that appear on the List of Qualified Tasks
(part of the SOQ) be accomplished during the
llllllllllllllllllllllll initial or continuing qualification evalua-
BEGIN INFORMATION tion.
2. DISCUSSION END INFORMATION

a. This attachment describes the general llllllllllllllllllllllll
requirements for qualifying Level 4 through
TABLE D1A—MINIMUM FTD REQUIREMENTS
FTD level
Entry No. General FTD requirements Notes
4 5 6 7
1. General Flight Deck Configuration.

432
TABLE D1A—MINIMUM FTD REQUIREMENTS—Continued

FTD level
4 5 6 7
1.a. ............ The FTD must have a flight deck that is a X X For FTD purposes, the flight deck consists of
replica of the helicopter, or set of heli- all that space forward of a cross section of
copters simulated with controls, equipment, the flight deck at the most extreme aft set-
observable flight deck indicators, circuit ting of the pilots’ seats including additional,
breakers, and bulkheads properly located, required crewmember duty stations and
functionally accurate and replicating the those required bulkheads aft of the pilot
helicopter or set of helicopters. The direc- seats. Bulkheads containing only items
tion of movement of controls and switches such as landing gear pin storage compart-
must be identical to that in the helicopter or ments, fire axes and extinguishers, spare
set of helicopters. Crewmember seats must light bulbs, and aircraft documents pouches
afford the capability for the occupant to be are not considered essential and may be
able to achieve the design ‘‘eye position.’’ omitted. If omitted, these items, or the sil-
Equipment for the operation of the flight houettes of these items, may be placed on
deck windows must be included, but the ac- the wall of the simulator, or in any other lo-
tual windows need not be operable. Those cation as near as practical to the original
circuit breakers that affect procedures or reposition of these items.
sult in observable flight deck indications
must be properly located and functionally
accurate. Fire axes, extinguishers, landing
gear pins, and spare light bulbs must be
available, and may be represented in sil-
houette, in the flight simulator. This equip-
ment must be present as near as practical
to the original position
1.b. ............ The FTD must have equipment (i.e., instru- X X

ments, panels, systems, circuit breakers,
and controls) simulated sufficiently for the
authorized training/checking events to be
accomplished. The installed equipment,
must be located in a spatially correct con-
figuration, and may be in a flight deck or an
open flight deck area. Those circuit break-
ers that affect procedures or result in ob-
servable flight deck indications must be
properly located and functionally accurate.
Additional equipment required for the au-
thorized training and checking events must
be available in the FTD but may be located
in a suitable location as near as practical to
the spatially correct position. Actuation of
this equipment must replicate the appro-
priate function in the helicopter. Fire axes,
landing gear pins, and any similar purpose
instruments need only be represented in sil-
houette
2. Programming.
2.a. ............ The FTD must provide the proper effect of X X X

aerodynamic changes for the combinations
of drag and thrust normally encountered in
flight. This must include the effect of
change in helicopter attitude, thrust, drag,
altitude, temperature, and configuration.
Levels 6 and 7 additionally require the ef-
fects of changes in gross weight and center
of gravity.Level 5 requires only generic aer-
odynamic programming.
An SOC is required .........................................
2.b. ............ The FTD must have the computer (analog or X X X X

digital) capability (i.e., capacity, accuracy,
resolution, and dynamic response) needed
to meet the qualification level sought.
433

FTD level
4 5 6 7
2.c. ............ Relative responses of the flight deck instru- X X X The intent is to verify that the FTD provides
ments must be measured by latency tests instrument cues that are, within the stated
or transport delay tests, and may not ex- time delays, like the helicopter responses.
ceed 150 milliseconds. The instruments For helicopter response, acceleration in the
must respond to abrupt input at the pilot’s appropriate, corresponding rotational axis is
position within the allotted time, but not be- preferred.
fore the time that the helicopter or set of
helicopters respond under the same condi-
tions
• Latency: The FTD instrument and, if appli-
cable, the motion system and the visual
system response must not be prior to that
time when the helicopter responds and may
respond up to 150 milliseconds after that
time under the same conditions.
• Transport Delay: As an alternative to the
Latency requirement, a transport delay ob-
jective test may be used to demonstrate
that the FTD system does not exceed the
specified limit. The sponsor must measure
all the delay encountered by a step signal
migrating from the pilot’s control through all
the simulation software modules in the cor-
rect order, using a handshaking protocol, fi-
nally through the normal output interfaces
to the instrument display and, if applicable,
the motion system, and the visual system.
3. Equipment Operation.
3.a. ............ All relevant instrument indications involved in A X X X

the simulation of the helicopter must auto-
matically respond to control movement or
external disturbances to the simulated heli-
copter or set of helicopters; e.g., turbulence
or winds
3.b. ............ Navigation equipment must be installed and A X X X

operate within the tolerances applicable for
the helicopter or set of helicopters. Levels 6
and 7 must also include communication
equipment (inter-phone and air/ground) like
that in the helicopter. Level 5 only needs
that navigation equipment necessary to fly
an instrument approach
3.c. ............ Installed systems must simulate the applica- A X X X

ble helicopter system operation both on the
ground and in flight. At least one helicopter
system must be represented. Systems must
be operative to the extent that applicable
normal, abnormal, and emergency oper-
ating procedures included in the sponsor’s
training programs can be accomplished.
Levels 6 and 7 must simulate all applicable
helicopter flight, navigation, and systems
operation. Level 5 must have functional
flight and navigational controls, displays,
and instrumentation
3.d. ............ The lighting environment for panels and in- X X X X Back-lighted panels and instruments may be
struments must be sufficient for the oper- installed but are not required.
ation being conducted
434

FTD level
4 5 6 7
3.e. ............ The FTD must provide control forces and X X

control travel that correspond to the rep-
licated helicopter or set of helicopters. Con-
trol forces must react in the same manner
as in the helicopter or set of helicopters
under the same flight conditions
3.f. ............. The FTD must provide control forces and X

control travel of sufficient precision to
manually fly an instrument approach. The
control forces must react in the same man-
ner as in the helicopter or set of helicopters
under the same flight conditions
4. Instructor or Evaluator Facilities.
4.a. ............ In addition to the flight crewmember stations, X X X X These seats need not be a replica of an air-
suitable seating arrangements for an in- craft seat and may be as simple as an of-
structor/check airman and FAA Inspector fice chair placed in an appropriate position.
must be available. These seats must pro-
vide adequate view of crewmember’s
panel(s)
4.b. ............ The FTD must have instructor controls that X X X X

permit activation of normal, abnormal, and
emergency conditions, as appropriate.
Once activated, proper system operation
must result from system management by
the crew and not require input from the in-
structor controls.
5. Motion System
5.a. ............ A motion system may be installed in an FTD. X X X X

If installed, the motion system operation
must not be distracting. If a motion system
is installed and additional training, testing,
or checking credits are being sought, sen-
sory cues must also be integrated. The mo-
tion system must respond to abrupt input at
the pilot’s position within the allotted time,
but not before the time when the helicopter
responds under the same conditions. The
motion system must be measured by la-
tency tests or transport delay tests and may
not exceed 150 milliseconds. Instrument re-
sponse must not occur prior to motion
onset
5.b. ............ The FTD must have at least a vibration cue- X May be accomplished by a ‘‘seat shaker’’ or a
ing system for characteristic helicopter vi- bass speaker sufficient to provide the nec-
brations noted at the pilot station(s) essary cueing.
6. Visual System
6.a. ............ The FTD may have a visual system, if de-

sired, although it is not required. If a visual
system is installed, it must meet the fol-
lowing criteria:
6.a.1. ......... The visual system must respond to abrupt X X X
input at the pilot’s position.
6.a.2. ......... The visual system must be at least a single X X X

channel, non-collimated display.

435

FTD level
4 5 6 7
6.a.3. ......... The visual system must provide at least a X X X

field-of-view of 18° vertical/24° horizontal
for the pilot flying.
6.a.4. ......... The visual system must provide for a max- X X X

imum parallax of 10° per pilot.
6.a.5. ......... The visual scene content may not be dis- X X X

tracting.
6.a.6. ......... The minimum distance from the pilot’s eye X X X

position to the surface of a direct view dis-
play may not be less than the distance to
any front panel instrument.
6.a.7. ......... The visual system must provide for a min- X X X

imum resolution of 5 arc-minutes for both
computed and displayed pixel size.
6.b. ............ If a visual system is installed and additional X X X

training, testing, or checking credits are
being sought on the basis of having a vis-
ual system, a visual system meeting the
standards set out for at least a Level A FFS
(see Appendix A of this part) will be re-
quired. A ‘‘direct-view,’’ non-collimated vis-
ual system (with the other requirements for
a Level A visual system met) may be con-
sidered satisfactory for those installations
where the visual system design ‘‘eye point’’
is appropriately adjusted for each pilot’s po-
sition such that the parallax error is at or
less than 10° simultaneously for each pilot.
6.c. ............ The FTD must provide a continuous visual X Optimization of the vertical field-of-view may
field-of-view of at least 146° horizontally be considered with respect to the specific
and 36° vertically for both pilot seats, simul- helicopter flight deck cut-off angle. When
taneously. The minimum horizontal field-of- considering the installation/use of aug-
view coverage must be plus and minus mented fields of view, as described here, it
one-half (1⁄2) of the minimum continuous will be the responsibility of the sponsor to
field-of-view requirement, centered on the meet with the NSPM to determine the train-
zero degree azimuth line relative to the airing, testing, checking, or experience tasks
craft fuselage. Additional horizontal field-of- for which the augmented field-of-view capa-
view capability may be added at the spon- bility may be critical to that approval.
sor’s discretion provided the minimum field-
of-view is retained. Capability for a field-of-
view in excess of these minima is not re-
quired for qualification at Level 7. However,
where specific tasks require extended fields
of view beyond the 146° by 36° (e.g., to ac-
commodate the use of ‘‘chin windows’’
where the accommodation is either integral
with or separate from the primary visual
system display), then such extended fields
of view must be provided.
An SOC is required and must explain the ge-
ometry of the installation.
7. Sound System
436

FTD level
4 5 6 7
7.a. ............ The FTD must simulate significant flight deck X X

sounds resulting from pilot actions that cor-
respond to those heard in the helicopter
Note: An ‘‘A’’ in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate helicopter system
or control is simulated in the FTD and is working properly.
TABLE D1B—MINIMUM FTD REQUIREMENTS

Subjective requirements FTD level

The FTD must be able to perform the tasks
Entry No. Notes
associated with the level of qualification
sought. 4 5 6 7
1.a. ........... Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only) switch- A A X X

es, indicators, systems, and equipment.
1.b. ........... APU/Engine start and run-up.
1.b.1. ........ Normal start procedures .................................. A A X X
1.b.2. ........ Alternate start procedures ............................... A A X X
1.b.3. ........ Abnormal starts and shutdowns (hot start, A A X X

hung start).
1.c. ........... Taxiing—Ground .............................................. X
1.d. ........... Taxiing—Hover ................................................ X
1.e. ........... Pre-takeoff Checks .......................................... A A X X
2.a. ........... Normal takeoff.
2.a.1. ........ From ground .................................................... X
2.a.2. ........ From hover ....................................................... X
2.a.3 ......... Running ............................................................ X
2.b. ........... Instrument ........................................................ X X
2.c. ........... Powerplant Failure During Takeoff .................. X X
2.d. ........... Rejected Takeoff .............................................. X
2.e. ........... Instrument Departure ....................................... X X
3. Climb
3.a. ........... Normal .............................................................. X X
3.b. ........... Obstacle clearance .......................................... X
3.c. ........... Vertical ............................................................. X X
3.d. ........... One engine inoperative .................................... X X
4. In-flight Maneuvers
4.a. ........... Turns (timed, normal, steep) ........................... X X X

4.b. ........... Powerplant Failure—Multiengine Helicopters .. X X
437
TABLE D1B—MINIMUM FTD REQUIREMENTS—Continued


Entry No. Notes
sought. 4 5 6 7
4.c. ........... Powerplant Failure—Single-Engine Heli- X X

copters.
4.d. ........... Recovery From Unusual Attitudes ................... X
4.e. ........... Settling with Power .......................................... X
5.a. ........... Instrument Arrival ............................................. X X
5.b. ........... Holding ............................................................. X X
5.c. ........... Precision Instrument Approach
5.c.1. ........ Normal—All engines operating ........................ X X X
5.c.2. ........ Manually controlled—One or more engines in- X X

operative.
5.d. ........... Non-precision Instrument Approach ................ X X X
5.e. ........... Missed Approach.
5.e.1. ........ All engines operating ....................................... X X
5.e.2. ........ One or more engines inoperative .................... X X
5.e.3. ........ Stability augmentation system failure .............. X X
6.a. ........... Visual Approaches (normal, steep, shallow) ... X X X
6.b. ........... Landings.
6.b.1. ........ Normal/crosswind.
6.b.1.a. ..... Running ............................................................ X
6.b.1.b. ..... From Hover ...................................................... X
6.b.2. ........ One or more engines inoperative .................... X
6.b.3. ........ Rejected Landing ............................................. X
7.a. ........... Powerplant ....................................................... A A X X
7.b. ........... Fuel System ..................................................... A A X X
7.c. ........... Electrical System ............................................. A A X X
7.d. ........... Hydraulic System ............................................. A A X X
7.e. ........... Environmental System(s) ................................. A A X X
7.f. ............ Fire Detection and Extinguisher Systems ....... A A X X
7.g. ........... Navigation and Aviation Systems .................... A A X X
7.h. ........... Automatic Flight Control System, Electronic A A X X

Flight Instrument System, and Related Sub-
systems.
7.i. ............ Flight Control Systems ..................................... A A X X

7.j. ............ Anti-ice and Deice Systems ............................. A A X X
438
TABLE D1B—MINIMUM FTD REQUIREMENTS—Continued


Entry No. Notes
sought. 4 5 6 7
7.k. ........... Aircraft and Personal Emergency Equipment A A X X
7.l. ............ Special Missions tasks (e.g., Night Vision gog- X

gles, Forward Looking Infrared System, Ex-
ternal Loads and as listed on the SOQ.).
8. Emergency procedures (as applicable)
8.a. ........... Emergency Descent ......................................... X X
8.b. ........... Inflight Fire and Smoke Removal .................... X X
8.c. ........... Emergency Evacuation .................................... X X
8.d. ........... Ditching ............................................................ X
8.e. ........... Autorotative Landing ........................................ X
8.f. ............ Retreating blade stall recovery ........................ X
8.g. ........... Mast bumping .................................................. X
8.h. ........... Loss of tail rotor effectiveness ......................... X X
9.a. ........... After-Landing Procedures ................................ A A X X
9.b. ........... Parking and Securing
9.b.1. ........ Rotor brake operation ...................................... A A X X
9.b.2. ........ Abnormal/emergency procedures .................... A A X X

control is simulated in the FTD and is working properly.
TABLE D1C—TABLE OF FTD SYSTEM TASKS


In order to be qualified at the FTD qualification level indi-
Entry No. Notes
cated, the FTD must be able to perform at least the tasks as-
sociate with that level of qualification. 4 5 6 7
1. Instructor Operating Station (IOS)
1.a. ........... Power switch(es) ....................................................................... A X X X
1.b. ........... Helicopter conditions ................................................................. A A X X e.g., GW, CG, Fuel loading,
Systems, Ground. Crew.
1.c. ........... Airports/Heliports/Helicopter Landing Areas ............................. A X X X e.g., Selection, Surface,

Presets, Lighting controls.
1.d. ........... Environmental controls ............................................................. A X X X e.g., Temp and Wind.
1.e. ........... Helicopter system malfunctions (Insertion/deletion) ................. A A X X
1.f. ............ Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning (as appropriate) ................ A X X X
1.g. ........... Sound Controls. (On/off/adjustment) ........................................ X X X
1.h. ........... Motion/Control Loading System, as appropriate. On/off/emer- A X X

gency stop.
2. Observer Seats/Stations
439
TABLE D1C—TABLE OF FTD SYSTEM TASKS—Continued


In order to be qualified at the FTD qualification level indi-
Entry No. Notes
cated, the FTD must be able to perform at least the tasks as-
sociate with that level of qualification. 4 5 6 7
2.a. ........... Position/Adjustment/Positive restraint system .......................... A X X X

Note: An ‘‘A’’ in the table indicates that the system, task, or procedure may be examined if the appropriate simulator system or
control is in the FTD and is working properly.
ATTACHMENT 2 TO APPENDIX D TO PART 60— in § 60.13, and in Appendix B of this part. The
FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE (FTD) OBJECTIVE results must be produced on an appropriate
TESTS recording device acceptable to the NSPM
and must include FTD number, date, time,
conditions, tolerances, and appropriate de-
BEGIN INFORMATION pendent variables portrayed in comparison
to the validation data. Time histories are re-
1. DISCUSSION quired unless otherwise indicated in Table
D2A. All results must be labeled using the
a. If relevant winds are present in the ob- tolerances and units given.
jective data, the wind vector (magnitude and b. Table D2A in this attachment sets out
direction) should be noted as part of the data the test results required, including the pa-
presentation, expressed in conventional ter- rameters, tolerances, and flight conditions
minology, and related to the runway being for FTD validation. Tolerances are provided
used for the test. for the listed tests because mathematical
b. The format for numbering the objective modeling and acquisition and development of
tests in Appendix C of this part, Attachment reference data are often inexact. All toler-
2, Table C2A, and the objective tests in Ap- ances listed in the following tables are ap-
pendix D of this part, Attachment 2, Table plied to FTD performance. When two toler-
D2A, is identical. However, each test re- ance values are given for a parameter, the
quired for FFSs is not necessarily required less restrictive may be used unless otherwise
for FTDs, and each test required for FTDs is indicated. In those cases where a tolerance is
not necessarily required for FFSs. When a expressed only as a percentage, the tolerance
test number (or series of numbers) is not re- percentage applies to the maximum value of
quired, the term ‘‘Reserved’’ is used in the that parameter within its normal operating
table at that location. Following this num- range as measured from the neutral or zero
bering format provides a degree of composition unless otherwise indicated.
monality between the two tables and sub- c. Certain tests included in this attach-
stantially reduces the potential for confu- ment must be supported with an SOC. In
sion when referring to objective test num- Table D2A, requirements for SOCs are indi-
bers for either FFSs or FTDs. cated in the ‘‘Test Details’’ column.
c. A Level 4 FTD does not require objective d. When operational or engineering judg-
tests and is not addressed in the following ment is used in making assessments for
table. flight test data applications for FTD valid-
ity, such judgment must not be limited to a
END INFORMATION
single parameter. For example, data that ex-
llllllllllllllllllllllll hibit rapid variations of the measured pa-
rameters may require interpolations or a
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS ‘‘best fit’’ data section. All relevant param-
eters related to a given maneuver or flight
2. TEST REQUIREMENTS
condition must be provided to allow overall
a. The ground and flight tests required for interpretation. When it is difficult or impos-
qualification are listed in Table D2A Objec- sible to match FTD to helicopter data
tive Evaluation Tests. Computer generated throughout a time history, differences must
FTD test results must be provided for each be justified by providing a comparison of
test except where an alternate test is specifi- other related variables for the condition
cally authorized by the NSPM. If a flight being assessed.
condition or operating condition is required e. The FTD may not be programmed so
for the test but does not apply to the heli- that the mathematical modeling is correct
copter being simulated or to the qualifica- only at the validation test points. Unless
tion level sought, it may be disregarded (e.g., noted otherwise, tests must represent heli-
engine out climb capability for a single-en- copter performance and handling qualities at
gine helicopter). Each test result is com- operating weights and centers of gravity
pared against the validation data described (CG) typical of normal operation. If a test is
440
supported by aircraft data at one extreme for highly augmented helicopters will be
weight or CG, another test supported by air- validated both in the unaugmented configu-
craft data at mid-conditions or as close as ration (or failure state with the maximum
possible to the other extreme is necessary. permitted degradation in handling qualities)
Certain tests that are relevant only at one and the augmented configuration. Where
extreme CG or weight condition need not be various levels of handling qualities result
repeated at the other extreme. The results of from failure states, validation of the effect
the tests for Level 6 are expected to be indic- of the failure is necessary. For those per-
ative of the device’s performance and han- formance and static handling qualities tests
dling qualities throughout all of the fol- where the primary concern is control posi-
lowing: tion in the unaugmented configuration, un-
(1) The helicopter weight and CG envelope. augmented data are not required if the de-
(2) The operational envelope. sign of the system precludes any affect on
(3) Varying atmospheric ambient and envi- control position. In those instances where
ronmental conditions—including the ex- the unaugmented helicopter response is di-
tremes authorized for the respective heli- vergent and non-repeatable, it may not be
copter or set of helicopters. feasible to meet the specified tolerances. Al-
f. When comparing the parameters listed to ternative requirements for testing will be
those of the helicopter, sufficient data must mutually agreed upon by the sponsor and the
also be provided to verify the correct flight NSPM on a case-by-case basis.
condition and helicopter configuration j. Some tests will not be required for heli-
changes. For example, to show that control copters using helicopter hardware in the
force is within the parameters for a static FTD flight deck (e.g., ‘‘helicopter modular
stability test, data to show the correct air- controller’’). These exceptions are noted in
speed, power, thrust or torque, helicopter Section 2 ‘‘Handling Qualities’’ in Table D2A
configuration, altitude, and other appro- of this attachment. However, in these cases,
priate datum identification parameters must the sponsor must provide a statement that
also be given. If comparing short period dy- the helicopter hardware meets the appro-
namics, normal acceleration may be used to priate manufacturer’s specifications and the
establish a match to the helicopter, but air- sponsor must have supporting information to
speed, altitude, control input, helicopter that fact available for NSPM review.
configuration, and other appropriate data k. In cases where light-class helicopters
must also be given. If comparing landing are being simulated, prior coordination with
gear change dynamics, pitch, airspeed, and the NSPM on acceptable weight ranges is re-
altitude may be used to establish a match to quired. The terms ‘‘light,’’ ‘‘medium,’’ and
the helicopter, but landing gear position ‘‘near maximum,’’ may not be appropriate
must also be provided. All airspeed values for the simulation of light-class helicopters.
must be properly annotated (e.g., indicated
versus calibrated). In addition, the same END QPS REQUIREMENTS
variables must be used for comparison (e.g., llllllllllllllllllllllll
compare inches to inches rather than inches
to centimeters). BEGIN INFORMATION
g. The QTG provided by the sponsor must
clearly describe how the FTD will be set up l. In those cases where the objective test
and operated for each test. Each FTD sub- results authorize a ‘‘snapshot test’’ or a ‘‘se-
system may be tested independently, but ries of snapshot test’’ results in lieu of a
overall integrated testing of the FTD must time-history result, the sponsor or other
be accomplished to assure that the total data provider must ensure that a steady
FTD system meets the prescribed standards. state condition exists at the instant of time
A manual test procedure with explicit and captured by the ‘‘snapshot.’’ The steady
detailed steps for completing each test must state condition must exist from 4 seconds
also be provided. prior to, through 1 second following, the in-
h. For previously qualified FTDs, the tests stant of time captured by the snap shot.
and tolerances of this attachment may be m. Refer to AC 120–27, Aircraft Weight and
used in subsequent continuing qualification Balance; and FAA–H–8083–1, Aircraft Weight
evaluations for any given test if the sponsor and Balance Handbook, for more informa-
has submitted a proposed MQTG revision to tion.
the NSPM and has received NSPM approval.
END INFORMATION
i. Tests of handling qualities must include
validation of augmentation devices. FTDs llllllllllllllllllllllll
441
VerDate Sep<11>2014
TABLE D2A—FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE (FTD) OBJECTIVE TESTS
13:36 May 19, 2021

Test FTD level
Tolerances Flight conditions Test details Notes
Entry No. Title 5 6 7
Pt. 60, App. D
1. Performance
Jkt 253047
1.a. ........................ Engine Assessment.
1.a.1. ..................... Start Operations.
PO 00000
1.a.1.a. .................. Engine start and accel- Light Off Time—±10% or ±1 sec. Ground with the Record each engine start from X X
eration (transient). Torque—±5% Rotor Speed— Rotor Brake Used the initiation of the start se-
±3% Fuel Flow—±10% Gas and Not Used. quence to steady state idle and
Generator Speed—±5% Power from steady state idle to oper-
Turbine Speed—±5% Gas Tur- ating RPM.
bine Temp—±30 °C.
Frm 00452
1.a.1.b. .................. Steady State Idle and Torque—±3% Rotor Speed— Ground ..................... Record both steady state idle and X X X
Operating RPM condi- ±1.5% Fuel Flow—±5% Gas operating RPM conditions. May
tions. Generator Speed—±2% Power be a series of snapshot tests.
Turbine Speed—±2% Turbine
Fmt 8010
Gas Temp—±20 °C.
442
1.a.2. ..................... Power Turbine Speed ±10% of total change of power Ground ..................... Record engine response to trim X X
Trim. turbine speed; or ±0.5% system actuation in both direc-
change of rotor speed. tions.
Sfmt 8002
1.a.3. ..................... Engine and Rotor Speed Torque—±5% Rotor Speed— Climb Descent .......... Record results using a step input X X
Governing. ±1.5%. to the collective. May be con-
ducted concurrently with climb
and descent performance tests.
1.b. ........................ Reserved.
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
1.c. ......................... Takeoff.
PC31
VerDate Sep<11>2014
1.c.1. ...................... All Engines .................... Airspeed—±3 kt, Altitude—±20 ft Ground/Takeoff and Record results of takeoff flight X
(6.1 m) Torque—±3%, Rotor Initial Segment of path (running takeoff and take-
Speed—±1.5%, Vertical Veloc- Climb. off from a hover). The criteria
13:36 May 19, 2021

ity—±100 fpm (0.50 m/sec) or apply only to those segments
10%, Pitch Attitude—±1.5°, at airspeeds above effective
Bank Attitude—±2°, Heading— translational lift. Results must
±2°, Longitudinal Control Posi- be recorded from the initiation
tion—±10%, Lateral Control Po- of the takeoff to at least 200 ft
sition—±10%, Directional Con- (61 m) AGL.
Jkt 253047
trol Position—±10%, Collective
1.c.2. through 1.c.3 Reserved.
PO 00000
1.d. ........................ Hover.
Performance .................. Torque—±3%, Pitch Attitude— In Ground Effect Record results for light and heavy X
±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, (IGE); and Out of gross weights. May be a series
Longitudinal Control Position— Ground Effect of snapshot tests.
Frm 00453
±5%, Lateral Control Position— (OGE).
±5%, Directional Control Posi-
tion—±5%, Collective Control
Position—±5%.
Fmt 8010
1.e. ........................ Vertical Climb.
443
Performance .................. Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50 From OGE Hover ..... Record results for light and heavy X
m/sec) or ±10%, Directional gross weights. May be a series
Control Position—±5%, Collec- of snapshot tests.
Sfmt 8002
tive Control Position—±5%.
1.f. ......................... Level Flight.
Performance and Torque—±3% Pitch Attitude— Cruise (Augmentation Record results for two gross X X X This test validates perform-
Trimmed Flight Con- ±1.5° Sideslip Angle—±2° Lon- On and Off). weight and CG combinations ance at speeds above
trol Positions. gitudinal Control Position—±5% with varying trim speeds maximum endurance air-
Lateral Control position—±5% throughout the airspeed enve- speed.
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
Directional Control Position— lope. May be a series of snap-
±5% Collective Control Posi- shot tests.
tion—±5%.
PC31
1.g. ........................ Climb.
Pt. 60, App. D
VerDate Sep<11>2014
TABLE D2A—FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE (FTD) OBJECTIVE TESTS—Continued
13:36 May 19, 2021

Test FTD level
Pt. 60, App. D
Performance and Vertical Velocity—±100 fpm (61 All engines operating Record results for two gross X X X
Jkt 253047
Trimmed Flight Con- m/sec) or ±10% Pitch Atti- One engine inoper- weight and CG combinations.
trol Positions. tude—±1.5° Sideslip Angle— ative. The data presented must be for
±2° Longitudinal Control Posi- Augmentation Sys- normal climb power conditions.
tion—±5% Lateral Control Posi- tem(s) On and Off. May be a series of snapshot
tion—±5% Directional Control tests.
PO 00000
Position—±5% Collective Con-
trol Position—±5%.
1.h. ........................ Descent.
1.h.1. ..................... Descent Performance Torque—±3% Pitch Attitude— At or near 1,000 fpm Record results for two gross X X X
Frm 00454
and Trimmed Flight ±1.5° Sideslip Angle—±2° Lon- (5 m/sec) rate of weight and CG combinations.
Control Positions. gitudinal Control Position—±5% descent (RoD) at May be a series of snapshot
Lateral Control Position—±5% normal approach tests.
Directional Control Position— speed.
±5% Collective Control Posi- Augmentation Sys-
Fmt 8010
tion—±5%. tem(s) On and Off.
444
1.h.2. ..................... Autorotation Perform- Pitch Attitude—±1.5° Sideslip Steady descents. Record results for two gross X X X
ance and Trimmed Angle—±2° Longitudinal Con- Augmentation Sys- weight conditions. Data must
Flight Control Posi- trol Position—±5% Lateral Con- tem(s) On and Off. be recorded for normal oper-
Sfmt 8002
tions. trol Position—±5% Directional ating RPM. (Rotor speed toler-
Control Position—±5% Collec- ance applies only if collective
tive Control Position—±5%. control position is full down.)
Data must be recorded for
speeds from 50 kts, ±5 kts
through at least maximum glide
distance airspeed. May be a
series of snapshot tests.
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
1.i. .......................... Autorotation.
PC31
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Entry .............................. Rotor Speed—±3% Pitch Attitude Cruise; or Climb ....... Record results of a rapid throttle X X
±2° Roll Attitude—±3° Yaw Atti- reduction to idle. If accom-
tude—±5° Airspeed—±5 kts. plished in cruise, results must
13:36 May 19, 2021

Vertical Velocity—±200 fpm be for the maximum range air-
(1.00 m/sec) or 10%. speed. If accomplished in
climb, results must be for the
maximum rate of climb air-
speed at or near maximum
continuous power.
Jkt 253047
1.j. .......................... Landing.
1.j.1. ....................... All Engines .................... Airspeed—±3 kts, Altitude—±20 ft Approach .................. Record results of the approach X
(6.1 m) Torque—±3%, Rotor and landing profile (running
PO 00000
Speed—±1.5%, Pitch Attitude— landing or approach to a
±1.5°, Bank Attitude—±1.5°, hover). The criteria apply only
Heading—±2°, Longitudinal to those segments at airspeeds
Control Position—±10%, Lat- above effective translational lift.
eral Control Position—±10%, Record the results from 200 ft
Frm 00455
Directional Control Position— AGL (61 m) to the landing or to
±10%, Collective Control Posi- where the hover is established
tion—±10%. prior to landing.
1.j.2. through 1.j.3 Reserved.
Fmt 8010
445
Sfmt 8002
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
PC31
Pt. 60, App. D
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Test FTD level
Pt. 60, App. D
1.j.4. ....................... Autorotational Landing .. Torque—±3%, Rotor Speed— Landing ..................... Record the results of an X If flight test data containing
Jkt 253047
±3%, Vertical Velocity—±100 autorotational deceleration and all required parameters
fpm (0.50 m/sec) or 10%, Pitch landing from a stabilized for a complete power-off
Attitude—±2°, Bank Attitude— autorotational descent, to touch landing is not available
±2°, Heading—±5°, Longitu- down. from the aircraft manu-
dinal Control Position—±10%, facturer for this test, and
PO 00000
Lateral Control Position— other qualified flight test
±10%, Directional Control Posi- personnel are not avail-
tion—±10%, Collective Control able to acquire this data,
Position—±10%. the sponsor must coordi-
nate with the NSPM to
determine if it would be
Frm 00456
appropriate to accept al-
ternative testing means.
Alternative approaches to
this data acquisition that
may be acceptable are:
Fmt 8010
(1) A simulated
446
autorotational flare and
reduction of rate of de-
scent (ROD) at altitude;
or (2) a power-on termi-
Sfmt 8002
nation following an
autorotational approach
and flare.
2. Handling Qualities
2.a. ........................ Control System Mechan- Contact the NSPM for clarification
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
ical Characteristics. of any issue regarding heli-
copters with reversible controls.
PC31
2.a.1. ..................... Cyclic ............................. Breakout—±0.25 lbs (0.112 daN) Ground; Static condi- Record results for an uninter- X X X
or 25%. Force—±1.0 lb (0.224 tions. Trim On and rupted control sweep to the
daN) or 10%. Off. Friction Off. stops. (This test does not apply
Augmentation On if aircraft hardware modular
and Off. controllers are used.).
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.a.2. ..................... Collective and Pedals ... Breakout—±0.5 lb (0.224 daN) or Ground; Static condi- Record results for an uninter- X X X
25%. Force—±1.0 lb (0.224 tions. Trim On and rupted control sweep to the
daN) or 10%. Off. Friction Off. stops.
13:36 May 19, 2021

Augmentation On
and Off.
2.a.3. ..................... Brake Pedal Force vs. ±5 lbs (2.224 daN) or 10% .......... Ground; Static condi- ....................................................... X X X
Position. tions.
Jkt 253047
2.a.4. ..................... Trim System Rate (all Rate—±10% ................................. Ground; Static condi- The tolerance applies to the re- X X X
applicable systems). tions. Trim On. corded value of the trim rate.
Friction Off.
2.a.5. ..................... Control Dynamics (all Hover/Cruise Trim Results must be recorded for a X X Control Dynamics for irre-
PO 00000
±10% of time for first zero cross-
axes). ing and ±10 (N + 1)% of period On Friction Off. normal control displacement in versible control systems
thereafter. ±10% of amplitude both directions in each axis, may be evaluated in a
of first overshoot. ±20% of am- using 25% to 50% of full throw. ground/static condition.
plitude of 2nd and subsequent Refer to paragraph 3 of
overshoots greater than 5% of this attachment for addi-
Frm 00457
initial displacement. ±1 over- tional information. ‘‘N’’ is
shoot. the sequential period of a
full cycle of oscillation.
2.a.6. ..................... Freeplay ........................ ±0.10 in. (±2.5 mm) ...................... Ground; Static condi- Record and compare results for X X X
Fmt 8010
tions. all controls.
447
2.b. ........................ Low Airspeed Handling Qualities.
2.b.1. ..................... Trimmed Flight Control Torque ±3% Pitch Attitude ±1.5° Translational Flight Record results for several air- X
Sfmt 8002
Positions. Bank Attitude ±2° Longitudinal IGE—Sideward, speed increments to the
Control Position ±5% Lateral rearward, and for- translational airspeed limits and
Control Position ±5% Direc- ward flight. Aug- for 45 kts. forward airspeed.
tional Control Position ±5% mentation On and May be a series of snapshot
Collective Control Position ±5%. Off. tests.
2.b.2. ..................... Critical Azimuth ............. Torque ±3% Pitch Attitude ±1.5°, Stationary Hover. Record results for three relative X
Augmentation On wind directions (including the
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
Bank Attitude ±2°, Longitudinal
Control Position ±5%, Lateral and Off. most critical case) in the critical
Control Position ±5%, Direc- quadrant. May be a series of
tional Control Position ±5%, snapshot tests.
PC31
Collective Control Position ±5%.
2.b.3. ..................... Control Response.

Pt. 60, App. D
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Test FTD level
Pt. 60, App. D
2.b.3.a. .................. Longitudinal ................... Pitch Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec. Hover. Augmentation Record results for a step control X This is a ‘‘short time’’ test.
Jkt 253047
Pitch Attitude Change—±10% On and Off. input. The Off-axis response
or 1.5°. must show correct trend for un-
augmented cases. This test
must be conducted in a hover,
in ground effect, without enter-
PO 00000
ing translational flight.
2.b.3.b. .................. Lateral ........................... Roll Rate—±10% or ±3°/sec. Roll Hover Augmentation Record results for a step control X This is a ‘‘short time’’ test
Attitude Change—±10% or ±3°. On and Off. input. The Off-axis response conducted in a hover, in
must show correct trend for un- ground effect, without en-
augmented cases. tering translational flight,
Frm 00458
to provide better visual
reference.
2.b.3.c. ................... Directional ..................... Yaw Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec. Hover Augmentation Record results for a step control X This is a ‘‘short time’’ test.
Fmt 8010
Heading Change—±10% or ±2°. On and Off. input. The Off-axis response
448
must show correct trend for un-
augmented cases. This test
must be conducted in a hover,
in ground effect, without enter-
ing translational flight.
Sfmt 8002
2.b.3.d. .................. Vertical .......................... Normal Acceleration ±0.1g ........... Hover Augmentation Record results for a step control X
On and Off. input. The Off-axis response
augmented cases.
2.c. ......................... Longitudinal Handling Qualities.
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
2.c.1. ...................... Control Response ......... Pitch Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec. Cruise Augmentation Results must be recorded for two X X X
Pitch Attitude Change—±10% On and Off. cruise airspeeds to include min-
PC31
or ±1.5°. imum power required speed.
Record data for a step control
input. The Off-axis response
augmented cases.
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.c.2. ...................... Static Stability ................ Longitudinal Control Position: Cruise or Climb. Record results for a minimum of X X X
±10% of change from trim or Autorotation. Aug- two speeds on each side of the
±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Longitu- mentation On and trim speed. May be a series of
13:36 May 19, 2021

dinal Control Force: ±0.5 lb. Off. snapshot tests.
(0.223 daN) or ±10%.
2.c.3. ...................... Dynamic Stability.
Jkt 253047
2.c.3.a. ................... Long Term Response ... ±10% of calculated period. ±10% Cruise Augmentation Record results for three full cy- X X X The response for certain
of time to 1⁄2 or double ampli- On and Off. cles (6 overshoots after input helicopters may be
tude, or ±0.02 of damping ratio. completed) or that sufficient to unrepeatable throughout
For non-periodic responses, the determine time to 1⁄2 or double the stated time. In these
time history must be matched amplitude, whichever is less. cases, the test should
within ±3° pitch; and ±5 kts air- For non-periodic responses, the show at least that a di-
PO 00000
speed over a 20 sec period fol- test may be terminated prior to vergence is identifiable.
lowing release of the controls. 20 sec if the test pilot deter- For example: Displacing
mines that the results are be- the cyclic for a given time
coming uncontrollably diver- normally excites this test
gent. Displace the cyclic for or until a given pitch atti-
Frm 00459
one second or less to excite tude is achieved and
the test. The result will be ei- then return the cyclic to
ther convergent or divergent the original position. For
and must be recorded. If this non-periodic responses,

method fails to excite the test, results should show the
Fmt 8010
displace the cyclic to the pre- same convergent or di-
449
determined maximum desired vergent character as the
pitch attitude and return to the flight test data.
original position. If this method
is used, record the results.
Sfmt 8002
2.c.3.b. ................... Short Term Response ... ±1.5° Pitch or ±2°/sec. Pitch Cruise or Climb. Aug- Record results for at least two air- X X A control doublet inserted
Rate. ±0.1 g Normal Accelera- mentation On and speeds. at the natural frequency
tion. Off. of the aircraft normally
excites this test. How-
ever, while input doublets
are preferred over pulse
inputs for Augmentation-
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
Off tests, for Augmenta-
tion-On cases, when the
short term response ex-
PC31
hibits 1st-order or dead-
beat characteristics, lon-
gitudinal pulse inputs
may produce a more co-
herent response.
Pt. 60, App. D
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Test FTD level
Pt. 60, App. D
2.c.4. ...................... Maneuvering Stability .... Longitudinal Control Position— Cruise or Climb. Aug- Record results for at least two air- X X
Jkt 253047
±10% of change from trim or mentation On and speeds at 30°–45° bank angle.
±0.25 in. (6.3 mm) or Longitu- Off. The force may be shown as a
dinal Control Forces—±0.5 lb. cross plot for irreversible sys-
(0.223 daN) or ±10%. tems. May be a series of snap-
shot tests.
PO 00000
2.d. ........................ Lateral and Directional Handling Qualities.
2.d.1. ..................... Control Response.
2.d.1.a. .................. Lateral ........................... Roll Rate—±10% or ±3°/sec. Roll Cruise Augmentation Record results for at least two air- X X X
Frm 00460
Attitude Change—±10% or ±3°. On and Offd. speeds, including the speed at
or near the minimum power re-
quired airspeed. Record results
for a step control input. The
Off-axis response must show
Fmt 8010
correct trend for unaugmented
450
cases.
2.d.1.b. .................. Directional ..................... Yaw Rate—±10% or ±2°/sec. Cruise Augmentation Record data for at least two Air- X X X
Yaw Attitude Change—±10% or On and Off. speeds, including the speed at
Sfmt 8002
±2°. or near the minimum power re-
quired airspeed. Record results
for a step control input. The
Off-axis response must show
correct trend for unaugmented
cases.
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
PC31
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.d.2. ..................... Directional Static Sta- Lateral Control Position—±10% of Cruise; or Climb Record results for at least two X X X This is a steady heading
bility. change from trim or ±0.25 in. (may use Descent sideslip angles on either side of sideslip test at a fixed
(6.3 mm) or Lateral Control instead of Climb if the trim point. The force may collective position.
13:36 May 19, 2021

Force—±0.5 lb. (0.223 daN) or desired) Aug- be shown as a cross plot for ir-
10%. Roll Attitude—±1.5 Direc- mentation On and reversible systems. May be a
tional Control Position—±10% Off. series of snapshot tests.
of change from trim or ±0.25 in.
(6.3 mm) or Directional Control
Force—±1 lb. (0.448 daN) or
Jkt 253047
10%. Longitudinal Control Posi-
tion—±10% of change from trim
or ±0.25 in. (6.3 mm). Vertical
Velocity—±100 fpm (0.50m/
sec) or 10%.
PO 00000
2.d.3. ..................... Dynamic Lateral and Directional Stability.
2.d.3.a. .................. Lateral-Directional Oscil- ±0.5 sec. or ±10% of period. Cruise or Climb Aug- Record results for at least two air- X X X
lations. ±10% of time to 1⁄2 or double mentation On and speeds. The test must be initi-
Frm 00461
amplitude or ±0.02 of damping Off. ated with a cyclic or a pedal
ratio. ±20% or ±1 sec of time doublet input. Record results
difference between peaks of for six full cycles (12 over-
bank and sideslip. For non-peri- shoots after input completed) or

odic responses, the time history that sufficient to determine time
Fmt 8010
must be matched within ±10 to 1⁄2 or double amplitude,
451
knots Airspeed; ±5°/s Roll Rate whichever is less. The test may
or ±5° Roll Attitude; ±4°/s Yaw be terminated prior to 20 sec if
Rate or ±4° Yaw Angle over a the test pilot determines that
20 sec period roll angle fol- the results are becoming un-
lowing release of the controls. controllably divergent.
Sfmt 8002
2.d.3.b. .................. Spiral Stability ............... ±2° or ±10% roll angle ................. Cruise or Climb. Aug- Record the results of a release X X X
mentation On and from pedal only or cyclic only
Off. turns for 20 sec. Results must
be recorded from turns in both
directions. Terminate check at
zero roll angle or when the test
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
pilot determines that the atti-
tude is becoming uncontrollably
divergent.
PC31
2.d.3.c. ................... Adverse/Proverse Yaw .. Correct Trend, ±2° transient side- Cruise or Climb. Aug- Record the time history of initial X X X
slip angle. mentation On and entry into cyclic only turns,
Off. using only a moderate rate for
cyclic input. Results must be
recorded for turns in both direc-
tions.
3. Reserved
Pt. 60, App. D
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Test FTD level
Pt. 60, App. D
4. Visual System
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4.a. ........................ Visual System Response Time: (Choose either test 4.a.1. or 4.a.2. to satisfy test 4.a., Visual System Response Time Test. .... ....
This test is also sufficient for flight deck instrument response timing.)
4.a.1. ..................... Latency.
PO 00000
150 ms (or less) after helicopter Takeoff, climb, and One test is required in each axis X
response. descent. (pitch, roll and yaw) for each of
the three conditions (take-off,
cruise, and approach or land-
Frm 00462
ing).
4.a.2. ..................... Transport Delay.
150 ms (or less) after controller N/A ........................... A separate test is required in X
Fmt 8010
movement. each axis (pitch, roll, and yaw).
452
4.b. ........................ Field-of-view.
4.b.1. ..................... Reserved.
Sfmt 8002
4.b.2. ..................... Continuous visual field- Minimum continuous field-of-view N/A ........................... An SOC is required and must ex- X Horizontal field-of-view is
of-view. providing 146° horizontal and plain the geometry of the instal- centered on the zero de-
36° vertical field-of-view for lation. Horizontal field-of-view gree azimuth line relative
each pilot simultaneously and must not be less than a total of to the aircraft fuselage.
any geometric error between 146° (including not less than
the Image Generator eye point 73° measured either side of the
and the pilot eye point is 8° or center of the design eye point).
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
less. Additional horizontal field-of-
view capability may be added
at the sponsor’s discretion pro-
PC31
vided the minimum field-of-view
is retained. Vertical field-of-
view: Not less than a total of
36° measured from the pilot’s
and co-pilot’s eye point.
4.b.3. ..................... Reserved.

VerDate Sep<11>2014
4.c. ......................... Surface contrast ratio .... Not less than 5:1 .......................... N/A ........................... The ratio is calculated by dividing X Measurements may be
the brightness level of the cen- made using a 1° spot
ter, bright square (providing at photometer and a raster
13:36 May 19, 2021

least 2 foot-lamberts or 7 cd/ drawn test pattern filling
m2) by the brightness level of the entire visual scene
any adjacent dark square. (all channels) with a test
pattern of black and
white squares, 5 per
square, with a white
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square in the center of
each channel. During
contrast ratio testing,
simulator aft-cab and
flight deck ambient light
PO 00000
levels should be zero.
4.d. ........................ Highlight brightness ....... Not less than three (3) foot-lam- N/A ........................... Measure the brightness of the X Measurements may be
berts (10 cd/m2). center white square while made using a 1° spot
superimposing a highlight on photometer and a raster
Frm 00463
that white square. The use of drawn test pattern filling
calligraphic capabilities to en- the entire visual scene
hance the raster brightness is (all channels) with a test
acceptable, but measuring light pattern of black and

points is not acceptable. white squares, 5 per
Fmt 8010
square, with a white
453
square in the center of
each channel.
4.e. ........................ Surface resolution ......... Not greater than two (2) arc min- N/A ........................... An SOC is required and must in- X When the eye is positioned
Sfmt 8002
utes. clude the relevant calculations. on a 3° glide slope at the
slant range distances in-
dicated with white run-
way markings on a black
runway surface, the eye
will subtend two (2) arc
minutes: (1) A slant
range of 6,876 ft with
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
stripes 150 ft long and 16
ft wide, spaced 4 ft apart.
(2) For Configuration A; a
PC31
slant range of 5,157 feet
with stripes 150 ft long
and 12 ft wide, spaced 3
ft apart. (3) For Configu-
ration B; a slant range of
9,884 feet, with stripes
150 ft long and 5.75 ft
wide, spaced 5.75 ft
apart.
Pt. 60, App. D
VerDate Sep<11>2014
13:36 May 19, 2021

Test FTD level
Pt. 60, App. D
4.f. ......................... Light point size .............. Not greater than five (5) arc-min- N/A ........................... An SOC is required and must in- X Light point size may be
Jkt 253047
utes. clude the relevant calculations. measured using a test
pattern consisting of a
centrally located single
row of light points re-
duced in length until
PO 00000
modulation is just dis-
cernible in each visual
channel. A row of 48
lights will form a 4° angle
or less.
Frm 00464
4.g. ........................ Light point contrast ratio ....................................................... ................................... ....................................................... A 1° spot photometer may
be used to measure a
square of at least 1° filled
with light points (where
light point modulation is
Fmt 8010
just discernible) and
454
compare the results to
the measured adjacent
background. During con-
trast ratio testing, simu-
Sfmt 8002
lator aft-cab and flight
deck ambient light levels
should be zero.
4.g.1. ..................... Reserved.
4.g.2. ..................... ........................................ Not less than 25:1 ........................ N/A ........................... An SOC is required and must in- X
clude the relevant calculations.
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
4.h. ........................ Visual ground segment.
PC31
VerDate Sep<11>2014
The visible segment in the simu- Landing configura- The QTG must contain relevant X Pre-position for this test is
lator must be within 20% of the tion, trimmed for calculations and a drawing encouraged, but may be
segment computed to be visible appropriate air- showing the data used to es- achieved via manual or
13:36 May 19, 2021

from the helicopter flight deck. speed, at 100 ft tablish the helicopter location autopilot control to the
The tolerance(s) may be ap- (30m) above the and the segment of the ground desired position.
plied at either end or at both touchdown zone, that is visible considering de-
ends of the displayed segment. on glide slope with sign eyepoint, helicopter atti-
However, lights and ground ob- an RVR value set tude, flight deck cut-off angle,
jects computed to be visible at 1,200 ft (350m). and a visibility of 1200 ft (350
Jkt 253047
from the helicopter flight deck m) RVR. Simulator perform-
at the near end of the visible ance must be measured
segment must be visible in the against the QTG calculations.
simulator. The data submitted must in-
clude at least the following: (1)
PO 00000
Static helicopter dimensions as
follows: (i) Horizontal and
vertical distance from main
landing gear (MLG) to
glideslope reception antenna.
Frm 00465
(ii) Horizontal and vertical dis-
tance from MLG to pilot’s
eyepoint. (iii) Static flight deck
cutoff angle. (2) Approach data

as follows: (i) Identification of
Fmt 8010
runway. (ii) Horizontal distance
455
from runway threshold to
glideslope intercept with run-
way. (iii) Glideslope angle. (iv)
Helicopter pitch angle on ap-
proach. (3) Helicopter data for
Sfmt 8002
manual testing: (i) Gross
weight. (ii) Helicopter configura-
tion. (iii) Approach airspeed. If
non-homogenous fog is used to
obscure visibility, the vertical
variation in horizontal visibility
must be described and be in-
Q:\14\14V2.TXT
cluded in the slant range visi-
bility calculation used in the
computations.
PC31
5. Reserved
Pt. 60, App. D
llllllllllllllllllllllll which were produced concurrently and show
satisfactory agreement. Repeat of the alter-
BEGIN INFORMATION native method during the initial evaluation
3. CONTROL DYNAMICS satisfies this test requirement.
b. Control Dynamics Evaluations. The dy-
a. The characteristics of a helicopter flight namic properties of control systems are
control system have a major effect on the often stated in terms of frequency, damping,
handling qualities. A significant consider- and a number of other classical measure-
ation in pilot acceptability of a helicopter is ments which can be found in texts on control
the ‘‘feel’’ provided through the flight deck systems. In order to establish a consistent
controls. Considerable effort is expended on
means of validating test results for FTD con-
helicopter feel system design in order to de-
trol loading, criteria are needed that will
liver a system with which pilots will be com-
clearly define the interpretation of the
fortable and consider the helicopter desir-
able to fly. In order for an FTD to be rep- measurements and the tolerances to be ap-
resentative, it too must present the pilot plied. Criteria are needed for both the under-
with the proper feel; that of the respective damped system and the overdamped system,
helicopter. Compliance with this require- including the critically damped case. In the
ment is determined by comparing a record- case of an underdamped system with very
ing of the control feel dynamics of the FFS light damping, the system may be quantified
to actual helicopter measurements in the in terms of frequency and damping. In criti-
hover and cruise configurations. cally damped or overdamped systems, the
(1) Recordings such as free response to an frequency and damping is not readily meas-
impulse or step function are classically used ured from a response time history. There-
to estimate the dynamic properties of fore, some other measurement must be used.
electromechanical systems. It is only pos- (1) Tests to verify that control feel dynam-
sible to estimate the dynamic properties as a ics represent the helicopter must show that
result of only being able to estimate true in- the dynamic damping cycles (free response of
puts and responses. Therefore, it is impera- the control) match that of the helicopter
tive that the best possible data be collected within specified tolerances. The method of
since close matching of the FTD control evaluating the response and the tolerance to
loading system to the helicopter systems is be applied are described below for the under-
essential. Control feel dynamic tests are de- damped and critically damped cases.
scribed in the Table of Objective Tests in (a) Underdamped Response. Two measure-
this appendix. Where accomplished, the free ments are required for the period, the time
response is measured after a step or pulse to first zero crossing (in case a rate limit is
input is used to excite the system. present) and the subsequent frequency of os-
(2) For initial and upgrade evaluations, it cillation. It is necessary to measure cycles
is required that control dynamic characteris-
on an individual basis in case there are non-
tics be measured at and recorded directly
uniform periods in the response. Each period
from the flight deck controls. This procedure
will be independently compared to the re-
is usually accomplished by measuring the
spective period of the helicopter control sys-
free response of the controls using a step or
pulse input to excite the system. The proce- tem and, consequently, will enjoy the full
dure must be accomplished in hover, climb, tolerance specified for that period.
cruise, and autorotation. For helicopters (b) The damping tolerance will be applied
with irreversible control systems, measure- to overshoots on an individual basis. Care
ments may be obtained on the ground. The must be taken when applying the tolerance
procedure should be accomplished in the to small overshoots since the significance of
hover and cruise flight conditions and con- such overshoots becomes questionable. Only
figurations. Proper pitot-static inputs (if ap- those overshoots larger than 5 percent of the
propriate) must be provided to represent air- total initial displacement will be considered
speeds typical of those encountered in flight. significant. The residual band, labeled T(Ad)
(3) It may be shown that for some heli- on Figure 1 of this attachment is ±5 percent
copters, climb, cruise, and autorotation have of the initial displacement amplitude, Ad,
like effects. Thus, some tests for one may from the steady state value of the oscilla-
suffice for some tests for another. If either or tion. Oscillations within the residual band
both considerations apply, engineering vali- are considered insignificant. When com-
dation or helicopter manufacturer rationale paring simulator data to helicopter data, the
must be submitted as justification for process would begin by overlaying or align-
ground tests or for eliminating a configura- ing the simulator and helicopter steady state
tion. For FTDs requiring static and dynamic values and then comparing amplitudes of os-
tests at the controls, special test fixtures cillation peaks, the time of the first zero
will not be required during initial and up- crossing, and individual periods of oscilla-
grade evaluations if the sponsor’s QTG shows tion. To be satisfactory, the simulator must
both test fixture results and the results of an show the same number of significant over-
alternative approach, such as computer plots shoots to within one when compared against
456
the helicopter data. The procedure for evalu- (a) The following summarizes the toler-
ating the response is illustrated in Figure 1 ances, ‘‘T’’ for underdamped systems, and
of this attachment. ‘‘n’’ is the sequential period of a full cycle of
(c) Critically Damped and Overdamped Re- oscillation. See Figure D2A of this attach-
sponse. Due to the nature of critically ment for an illustration of the referenced
damped responses (no overshoots), the time measurements.
to reach 90 percent of the steady state (neu- T(P0) ±10% of P0
tral point) value must be the same as the T(P1) ±20% of P1
helicopter within ±10 percent. The simulator T(P2) ±30% of P2
response must be critically damped also. T(Pn) ±10(n + 1)% of Pn
Figure 2 of this attachment illustrates the
T(An) ±10% of A1
procedure.
T(Ad) ±5% of Ad = residual band
(d) Special considerations. Control systems
Significant overshoots First overshoot and
that exhibit characteristics other than clas-
±1 subsequent overshoots
sical overdamped or underdamped responses
should meet specified tolerances. In addi- (b) The following tolerance applies to criti-
tion, special consideration should be given to cally damped and overdamped systems only.
ensure that significant trends are main- See Figure D2B for an illustration of the ref-
tained. erence measurements:
(2) Tolerances. T(P0) ±10% of P0
457
c. Alternative method for control dynam- trol force and rate of movement. For each
ics evaluation. axis of pitch, roll, and yaw, the control must
(1) An alternative means for validating be forced to its maximum extreme position
control dynamics for aircraft with hydrau- for the following distinct rates. These tests
lically powered flight controls and artificial are conducted under normal flight and
feel systems is by the measurement of con- ground conditions.
458
ER09MY08.053</GPH>
(a) Static test—Slowly move the control so BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS
that a full sweep is achieved within 95–105
seconds. A full sweep is defined as movement 1. REQUIREMENTS
of the controller from neutral to the stop, a. Except for special use airport models, all
usually aft or right stop, then to the oppo- airport models required by this part must be
site stop, then to the neutral position. representations of real-world, operational
(b) Slow dynamic test—Achieve a full airports or representations of fictional air-
sweep within 8–12 seconds. ports and must meet the requirements set
(c) Fast dynamic test—Achieve a full out in Tables D3B or D3C of this attachment,
sweep within 3–5 seconds. as appropriate.
b. If fictional airports are used, the sponsor
NOTE: Dynamic sweeps may be limited to must ensure that navigational aids and all
forces not exceeding 100 lbs. (44.5 daN). appropriate maps, charts, and other naviga-
(d) Tolerances. tional reference material for the fictional
(i) Static test; see Table D2A, Flight Train- airports (and surrounding areas as nec-
ing Device (FTD) Objective Tests, Entries essary) are compatible, complete, and accu-
rate with respect to the visual presentation
2.a.1., 2.a.2., and 2.a.3.
and the airport model of this fictional air-
(ii) Dynamic test—±2 lbs (0.9 daN) or ±10% port. An SOC must be submitted that ad-
on dynamic increment above static test. dresses navigation aid installation and per-
formance and other criteria (including ob-
END QPS REQUIREMENT
struction clearance protection) for all in-
llllllllllllllllllllllll strument approaches to the fictional air-
ports that are available in the simulator.
BEGIN INFORMATION The SOC must reference and account for in-
formation in the terminal instrument proce-
d. The FAA is open to alternative means dures manual and the construction and
that are justified and appropriate to the ap- availability of the required maps, charts, and
plication. For example, the method described other navigational material. This material
here may not apply to all manufacturers’ must be clearly marked ‘‘for training pur-
systems and certainly not to aircraft with poses only.’’
reversible control systems. Each case is con- c. When the simulator is being used by an
sidered on its own merit on an ad hoc basis. instructor or evaluator for purposes of train-
If the FAA finds that alternative methods do ing, checking, or testing under this chapter,
not result in satisfactory performance, more only airport models classified as Class I,
conventionally accepted methods will have Class II, or Class III may be used by the in-
to be used. structor or evaluator. Detailed descriptions/
definitions of these classifications are found
4. FOR ADDITIONAL INFORMATION ON THE FOL- in Appendix F of this part.
LOWING TOPICS, PLEASE REFER TO APPENDIX d. When a person sponsors an FTD main-
C OF THIS PART, ATTACHMENT 2, AND THE tained by a person other than a U.S. certifi-
INDICATED PARAGRAPH WITHIN THAT AT- cate holder, the sponsor is accountable for
TACHMENT that FTD originally meeting, and continuing
to meet, the criteria under which it was
• Additional Information About Flight originally qualified and the appropriate Part
Simulator Qualification for New or Deriva- 60 criteria, including the visual scenes and
tive Helicopters, paragraph 8. airport models that may be used by instruc-
• Engineering Simulator Validation Data, tors or evaluators for purposes of training,
paragraph 9. checking, or testing under this chapter.
• Validation Test Tolerances, paragraph e. Neither Class II nor Class III airport vis-
11. ual models are required to appear on the
SOQ, and the method used for keeping in-
• Validation Data Road Map, paragraph 12.
structors and evaluators apprised of the air-
• Acceptance Guidelines for Alternative port models that meet Class II or Class III
Avionics, paragraph 13. requirements on any given simulator is at
• Transport Delay Testing, paragraph 15. the option of the sponsor, but the method
• Continuing Qualification Evaluation Val- used must be available for review by the
idation Data Presentation, paragraph 16. TPAA.
f. When an airport model represents a real
END INFORMATION world airport and a permanent change is
llllllllllllllllllllllll made to that real world airport (e.g., a new
runway, an extended taxiway, a new lighting
ATTACHMENT 3 TO APPENDIX D TO PART 60— system, a runway closure) without a written
FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE (FTD) SUB- extension grant from the NSPM (described in
JECTIVE EVALUATION paragraph 1.g., of this section), an update to

that airport model must be made in accord-
llllllllllllllllllllllll ance with the following time limits:
459
(1) For a new airport runway, a runway ex- cific airport model, outlines the conditions
tension, a new airport taxiway, a taxiway ex- under which such an airport model may be
tension, or a runway/taxiway closure—with- used, and adequately describes what restric-
in 90 days of the opening for use of the new tions will be applied to each resulting air-
airport runway, runway extension, new airport or landing area model.
port taxiway, or taxiway extension; or with-
in 90 days of the closure of the runway or END QPS REQUIREMENTS
taxiway. llllllllllllllllllllllll
(2) For a new or modified approach light
system—within 45 days of the activation of BEGIN INFORMATION
the new or modified approach light system.
(3) For other facility or structural changes 2. DISCUSSION
on the airport (e.g., new terminal, relocation a. The subjective tests and the examina-
of Air Traffic Control Tower)—within 180 tion of functions provide a basis for evalu-
days of the opening of the new or changed fa- ating the capability of the FTD to perform
cility or structure. over a typical utilization period; deter-
g. If a sponsor desires an extension to the mining that the FTD satisfactorily meets
time limit for an update to a visual scene or the appropriate training/testing/checking ob-
airport model or has an objection to what jectives and competently simulates each re-
must be updated in the specific airport quired maneuver, procedure, or task; and
model requirement, the sponsor must pro- verifying correct operation of the FTD con-
vide a written extension request to the trols, instruments, and systems. The items
NPSM stating the reason for the update in the list of operations tasks are for FTD
delay and a proposed completion date or pro- evaluation purposes only. They must not be
vide an explanation for the objection, ex- used to limit or exceed the authorizations
plaining why the identified airport change for use of a given level of FTD as found in
will not have an impact on flight training, the Practical Test Standards or as approved
testing, or checking. A copy of this request by the TPAA. All items in the following
or objection must also be sent to the POI/ paragraphs are subject to an examination of
TCPM. The NSPM will send the official re- function.
sponse to the sponsor and a copy to the POI/ b. The List of Operations Tasks in Table
TCPM; however, if there is an objection, D3A addressing pilot functions and maneu-
after consultation with the appropriate POI/ vers is divided by flight phases. All simu-
TCPM regarding the training, testing, or lated helicopter systems functions will be as-
checking impact, the NSPM will send the of- sessed for normal and, where appropriate, al-
ficial response to the sponsor and a copy to ternate operations. Normal, abnormal, and
the POI/TCPM. emergency operations associated with a
h. Examples of situations that may war- flight phase will be assessed during the eval-
rant ClasslIII model designation by the uation of maneuvers or events within that
TPAA include the following: flight phase.
(a) Training, testing, or checking on very c. Systems to be evaluated are listed sepa-
low visibility operations, including SMGCS rately under ‘‘Any Flight Phase’’ to ensure
operations. appropriate attention to systems checks.
(b) Instrument operations training (includ- Operational navigation systems (including
ing instrument takeoff, departure, arrival, inertial navigation systems, global posi-
approach, and missed approach training, tioning systems, or other long-range sys-
testing, or checking) using— tems) and the associated electronic display
(i) A specific model that has been geo- systems will be evaluated if installed. The
graphically ‘‘moved’’ to a different location NSP pilot will include in his report to the
and aligned with an instrument procedure TPAA, the effect of the system operation
for another airport. and any system limitation.
(ii) A model that does not match changes d. At the request of the TPAA, the NSP
made at the real-world airport (or landing Pilot may assess the FTD for a special as-
area for helicopters) being modeled. pect of a sponsor’s training program during
(iii) A model generated with an ‘‘off-board’’ the functions and subjective portion of an
or an ‘‘on-board’’ model development tool evaluation. Such an assessment may include
(by providing proper latitude/longitude ref- a portion of a specific operation (e.g., a Line
erence; correct runway or landing area ori- Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) scenario)
entation, length, width, marking, and light- or special emphasis items in the sponsor’s
ing information; and appropriate adjacent training program. Unless directly related to
taxiway location) to generate a facsimile of a requirement for the qualification level, the
a real world airport or landing area. results of such an evaluation would not nec-
These airport models may be accepted by essarily affect the qualification of the FTD.
the TPAA without individual observation e. The FAA intends to allow the use of
provided the sponsor provides the TPAA Class III airport models on a limited basis
with an acceptable description of the process when the sponsor provides the TPAA (or
for determining the acceptability of a spe- other regulatory authority) an appropriate
460
analysis of the skills, knowledge, and abili- ment, such as the visual scene or airport
ties (SKAs) necessary for competent per- model. Additional sources of information on
formance of the tasks in which this par- the conduct of task and capability analysis
ticular media element is used. The analysis may be found on the FAA’s Advanced Quali-
should describe the ability of the FTD/visual fication Program (AQP) Web site at: http://
media to provide an adequate environment www.faa.gov/educationlresearch/training/aqp.
in which the required SKAs are satisfac-
END INFORMATION
torily performed and learned. The analysis
should also include the specific media ele- llllllllllllllllllllllll
TABLE D3A—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 7 FTD
QPS requirements
List or a Level 7 FTD. Items not installed, not functional on the FTD, and not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List, are
not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.
1.a. ........................ Preflight Inspection (Flight Deck Only) switches, indicators, systems, and equipment.
1.b. ........................ APU/Engine start and run-up.
1.b.1. ..................... Normal start procedures.
1.b.2. ..................... Alternate start procedures.
1.b.3. ..................... Abnormal starts and shutdowns (hot start, hung start).
1.b.4. ..................... Rotor engagement.
1.b.5. ..................... System checks.
1.c. ........................ Taxiing—Ground.
1.c.1. ..................... Power required to taxi.
1.c.2. ..................... Brake effectiveness.
1.c.3. ..................... Ground handling.
1.c.4. ..................... Abnormal/emergency procedures, for example:
1.c.4.a. .................. Brake system failure.
1.c.4.b. .................. Ground resonance.
1.c.4.c. .................. Other (listed on the SOQ).
1.d. ........................ Taxiing—Hover.
1.d.1. ..................... Takeoff to a hover.
1.d.2. ..................... Instrument response.
1.d.2.a. .................. Engine instruments.
1.d.2.a. .................. Flight instruments.
1.d.3. ..................... Hovering turns.
1.d.4. ..................... Hover power checks.
1.d.4.a. .................. In ground effect (IGE).
1.d.4.b. .................. Out of ground effect (OGE).
1.d.5. ..................... Crosswind/tailwind hover.
1.d.6. ..................... Abnormal/emergency procedures:

1.d.6.a. .................. Engine failure.
461
TABLE D3A—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 7 FTD—Continued

QPS requirements
1.d.6.b. .................. Fuel governing system failure.
1.d.6.c. .................. Settling with power (OGE).
1.d.6.d. .................. Stability augmentation system failure.
1.d.6.e. .................. Directional control malfunction (including Loss of Tail Rotor Effectiveness, LTE).
1.d.6.f. ................... Other (listed on the SOQ).
1.e. ........................ Pre-takeoff Checks.
2.a. ........................ Normal and Crosswind Takeoff.
2.a.1. ..................... From ground.
2.a.2. ..................... From hover.
2.a.3. ..................... Running.
2.a.4. ..................... Crosswind/tailwind.
2.a.5. ..................... Maximum performance.
2.b. ........................ Instrument.
2.c. ........................ Powerplant Failure During Takeoff.
2.c.1. ..................... Takeoff with engine failure after critical decision point (CDP).
2.d. ........................ Rejected Takeoff.
2.e. ........................ Instrument Departure.
2.f. ......................... Other (listed on the SOQ).
3. Climb
3.a. ........................ Normal.
3.b. ........................ Obstacle clearance.
3.c. ........................ Vertical.
3.d. ........................ One engine inoperative.
3.e. ........................ Other (listed on the SOQ).
4.a. ........................ Performance.
4.b. ........................ Flying qualities.
4.c. ........................ Turns.
4.c.1. ..................... Timed.
4.c.2. ..................... Normal.
4.c.3. ..................... Steep.
4.d. ........................ Accelerations and decelerations.
4.e. ........................ High-speed vibrations.
4.f. ......................... Abnormal/emergency procedures, for example:

4.f.1. ...................... Engine fire.
462

QPS requirements
4.f.2. ...................... Engine failure.
4.f.2.a. ................... Powerplant Failure—Multiengine Helicopters.
4.f.2.b. ................... Powerplant Failure—Single-Engine Helicopters.
4.f.3. ...................... Inflight engine shutdown (and restart, if applicable).
4.f.4. ...................... Fuel governing system failures (e.g., FADEC malfunction).
4.f.5. ...................... Directional control malfunction.
4.f.6. ...................... Hydraulic failure.
4.f.7. ...................... Stability augmentation system failure.
4.f.8. ...................... Rotor vibrations.
4.f.9. ...................... Recovery From Unusual Attitudes.
4.f.10. .................... Settling with Power.
4.g. ........................ Other (listed on the SOQ).
5.a. ........................ Instrument Arrival.
5.b. ........................ Holding.
5.c. ........................ Precision Instrument Approach.
5.c.1. ..................... Normal—All engines operating.
5.c.2. ..................... Manually controlled—One or more engines inoperative.
5.c.3. ..................... Approach procedures:
5.c.3.a. .................. PAR.
5.c.3.b. .................. GPS.
5.c.3.c. .................. ILS.
5.c.3.c.1. ............... Manual (raw data).
5.c.3.c.2. ............... Autopilot * only.
5.c.3.c.3. ............... Flight director only.
5.c.3.c.4. ............... Autopilot * and flight director (if appropriate) coupled.
5.c.3.d. .................. Other (listed on the SOQ).
5.d. ........................ Non-precision Instrument Approach.
5.d.1. ..................... Normal—All engines operating.
5.d.2. ..................... One or more engines inoperative.
5.d.3. ..................... Approach procedures:
5.d.3.a. .................. NDB.
5.d.3.b. .................. VOR, RNAV, TACAN, GPS.
5.d.3.c. .................. ASR.
5.d.3.d. .................. Circling.

5.d.3.e. .................. Helicopter only.
463

QPS requirements
5.d.3.f. ................... Other (listed on the SOQ).
5.e. ........................ Missed Approach.
5.e.1. ..................... All engines operating.
5.e.2. ..................... One or more engines inoperative.
5.e.3. ..................... Stability augmentation system failure.
5.e.4. ..................... Other (listed on the SOQ).
6.a. ........................ Visual Approaches.
6.a.1. ..................... Normal.
6.a.2. ..................... Steep.
6.a.3. ..................... Shallow.
6.a.4. ..................... Crosswind.
6.b. ........................ Landings.
6.b.1. ..................... Normal.
6.b.1.a. .................. Running.
6.b.1.b. .................. From Hover.
6.b.2. ..................... Crosswind.
6.b.3. ..................... Tailwind.
6.b.4. ..................... One or more engines inoperative.
6.b.5. ..................... Rejected Landing.
6.b.6. ..................... Other (listed on the SOQ).
7. Normal and Abnormal Procedures (any phase of flight)
7.a. ........................ Helicopter and powerplant systems operation (as applicable).
7.a.1. ..................... Anti-icing/deicing systems.
7.a.2. ..................... Auxiliary powerplant.
7.a.3. ..................... Communications.
7.a.4. ..................... Electrical system.
7.a.5. ..................... Environmental system.
7.a.6. ..................... Fire detection and suppression.
7.a.7. ..................... Flight control system.
7.a.8. ..................... Fuel system.
7.a.9. ..................... Engine oil system.
7.a.10. ................... Hydraulic system.
7.a.11. ................... Landing gear.
7.a.12. ................... Oxygen.

7.a.13. ................... Pneumatic.
464

QPS requirements
7.a.14. ................... Powerplant.
7.a.15. ................... Flight control computers.
7.a.16. ................... Fly-by-wire controls.
7.a.17. ................... Stabilizer.
7.a.18. ................... Stability augmentation and control augmentation system(s).
7.a.19. ................... Other (listed on the SOQ).
7.b. ........................ Flight management and guidance system (as applicable).
7.b.1. ..................... Airborne radar.
7.b.2. ..................... Automatic landing aids.
7.b.3. ..................... Autopilot.*
7.b.4. ..................... Collision avoidance system.
7.b.5. ..................... Flight data displays.
7.b.6. ..................... Flight management computers.
7.b.7. ..................... Head-up displays.
7.b.8. ..................... Navigation systems.
7.b.9. ..................... Other (listed on the SOQ).
8. Emergency Procedures (as applicable)
8.a. ........................ Autorotative Landing.
8.b. ........................ Air hazard avoidance.
8.c. ........................ Ditching.
8.d. ........................ Emergency evacuation.
8.e. ........................ Inflight fire and smoke removal.
8.f. ......................... Retreating blade stall recovery.
8.g. ........................ Mast bumping.
8.h. ........................ Loss of tail rotor effectiveness.
8.i. ......................... Other (listed on the SOQ).
9.a. ........................ After-Landing Procedures.
9.b. ........................ Parking and Securing.
9.b.1. ..................... Engine and systems operation.
9.b.2. ..................... Parking brake operation.
9.b.3. ..................... Rotor brake operation.
9.b.4. ..................... Abnormal/emergency procedures.
10.a. ...................... Power Switch(es).

10.b. ...................... Helicopter conditions.
465

QPS requirements
10.b.1. ................... Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading and allocation, etc.
10.b.2. ................... Helicopter systems status.
10.b.3. ................... Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power).
10.c. ...................... Airports.
10.c.1. ................... Selection.
10.c.2. ................... Runway selection.
10.c.3. ................... Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over final approach fix).
10.d. ...................... Environmental controls.
10.d.1. ................... Temperature.
10.d.2. ................... Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).
10.d.3. ................... Wind speed and direction.
10.e. ...................... Helicopter system malfunctions.
10.e.1. ................... Insertion/deletion.
10.e.2. ................... Problem clear.
10.f. ....................... Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
10.f.1. .................... Problem (all) freeze/release.
10.f.2. .................... Position (geographic) freeze/release.
10.f.3. .................... Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases).
10.f.4. .................... Ground speed control.
10.g. ...................... Sound Controls.
10.g.1. ................... On/off/adjustment.
10.h. ...................... Control Loading System (as applicable).
10.h.1. ................... On/off/emergency stop.
10.i. ....................... Observer Stations.
10.i.1. .................... Position.
10.i.2. .................... Adjustments.

TABLE D3B—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS AIRPORT OR LANDING AREA CONTENT
REQUIREMENTS FOR QUALIFICATION AT LEVEL 7 FTD
QPS requirements
This table specifies the minimum airport visual model content and functionality to qualify an FTD at the indicated level. This
table applies only to the airport/helicopter landing area scenes required for FTD qualification.
1. .............. Functional test content requirements for Level 7 FTDs. The following is the minimum airport/landing area model
content requirement to satisfy visual capability tests, and provides suitable visual cues to allow completion of all
functions and subjective tests described in this attachment for Level 7 FTDs.
466
REQUIREMENTS FOR QUALIFICATION AT LEVEL 7 FTD—Continued
QPS requirements
1.a. ........... A minimum of one (1) representative airport and one (1) representative helicopter landing area model. The airport
and the helicopter landing area may be contained within the same visual model. If this option is selected, the ap-
proach path to the airport runway(s) and the approach path to the helicopter landing area must be different. The
model(s) used to meet the following requirements may be demonstrated at either a fictional or a real-world air-
port or helicopter landing area, but each must be acceptable to the sponsor’s TPAA, selectable from the IOS,
and listed on the SOQ.
1.b. ........... Fidelity of the Visual Scene. The fidelity of the visual scene must be sufficient for the aircrew to visually identify the
airport and/or helicopter landing area; determine the position of the simulated helicopter within the visual scene;
successfully accomplish take-offs, approaches, and landings; and maneuver around the airport and/or helicopter
landing area on the ground, or hover taxi, as necessary.
1.b.1. ........ For each of the airport/helicopter landing areas described in 1.a., the FTD visual system must be able to provide at
least the following:
1.b.1.a. ..... A night and twilight (dusk) environment.
1.b.1.b. ..... A daylight environment.
1.c. ........... Runways:
1.c.1. ........ Visible runway number.
1.c.2. ........ Runway threshold elevations and locations must be modeled to provide sufficient correlation with helicopter sys-
tems (e.g., altimeter).
1.c.3. ........ Runway surface and markings.
1.c.4. ........ Lighting for the runway in use including runway edge and centerline.
1.c.5. ........ Lighting, visual approach aid (VASI or PAPI) and approach lighting of appropriate colors.
1.c.6 ......... Taxiway lights.
1.d. ........... Helicopter landing area.
1.d.1. ........ Standard heliport designation (‘‘H’’) marking, properly sized and oriented.
1.d.2. ........ Perimeter markings for the Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) or the Final Approach and Takeoff Area (FATO),
as appropriate.
1.d.3. ........ Perimeter lighting for the TLOF or the FATO areas, as appropriate.
1.d.4. ........ Appropriate markings and lighting to allow movement from the runway or helicopter landing area to another part of
the landing facility.
2. .............. Visual scene management.

The following is the minimum visual scene management requirements for a Level 7 FTD.
2.a. ........... Runway and helicopter landing area approach lighting must fade into view appropriately in accordance with the en-
vironmental conditions set in the FTD.
2.b. ........... The direction of strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline lights,
threshold lights, touchdown zone lights, and TLOF or FATO lights must be replicated.

The following are the minimum distances at which runway features must be visible. Distances are measured from
runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to a helicopter aligned with the runway or helicopter landing area
on an extended 3° glide-slope in simulated meteorological conditions. For circling approaches, all tests apply to
the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing.
3.a. ........... For runways: Runway definition, strobe lights, approach lights, and edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.
3.b. ........... For runways: Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km).
3.c. ........... For runways: Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.
3.d. ........... For runways: Runway threshold lights and touchdown zone from 2 sm (3 km).
467
QPS requirements
3.e. ........... For runways and helicopter landing areas: Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight scenes and the
surface resolution test on daylight scenes, as required.
3.f. ............ For circling approaches: The runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-dis-
tracting manner.
3.g. ........... For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 1 sm (1.5 km).
3.h. ........... For helicopter landing areas: Flush mounted FATO lights, TLOF lights, and the lighted windsock from 0.5 sm (750
m).
4. .............. Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Model Content.

The following prescribes the minimum requirements for an airport/helicopter landing area visual model and identi-
fies other aspects of the environment that must correspond with that model for a Level 7 FTD. For circling ap-
proaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended landing. If all
runways or landing areas in a visual model used to meet the requirements of this attachment are not designated
as ‘‘in use,’’ then the ‘‘in use’’ runways/landing areas must be listed on the SOQ (e.g., KORD, Rwys 9R, 14L,
22R). Models of airports or helicopter landing areas with more than one runway or landing area must have all
significant runways or landing areas not ‘‘in-use’’ visually depicted for airport/runway/landing area recognition
purposes. The use of white or off white light strings that identify the runway or landing area for twilight and night
scenes are acceptable for this requirement; and rectangular surface depictions are acceptable for daylight
scenes. A visual system’s capabilities must be balanced between providing visual models with an accurate rep-
resentation of the airport and a realistic representation of the surrounding environment. Each runway or heli-
copter landing area designated as an ‘‘in-use’’ runway or area must include the following detail that is developed
using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance with
published regulatory material; however, this does not require that such models contain details that are beyond
the design capability of the currently qualified visual system. Only one ‘‘primary’’ taxi route from parking to the
runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area will be required for each ‘‘in-use’’ runway or helicopter takeoff/land-
ing area.
4.a.1. ........ For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed distance markings,
runway edge markings, and runway centerline stripes.
4.a.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Markings for standard heliport identification (‘‘H’’) and TLOF, FATO, and safety areas.
4.b.1. ........ For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if applicable),
leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or light systems for that runway.
4.b.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction, raised and flush FATO, TLOF, windsock lighting.
the following:
4.c.1. ........ For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical area(s).
4.c.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
4.d.1. ........ For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas.
4.d.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
4.d.3. ........ For airports: Taxiway lighting of correct color.
4.e. ........... Airport signage associated with each ‘‘in-use’’ runway or helicopter landing area must include the following:
4.e.1. ........ For airports: Signs for runway distance remaining, intersecting runway with taxiway, and intersecting taxiway with
taxiway.
4.e.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: As appropriate for the model used.
4.f. ............ Required visual model correlation with other aspects of the airport or helicopter landing environment simulation:
468
QPS requirements
4.f.1. ......... The airport or helicopter landing area model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated
with operations at the ‘‘in-use’’ runway or helicopter landing area.
4.f.2. ......... The simulation of runway or helicopter landing area contaminants must be correlated with the displayed runway
surface and lighting, if applicable.
5. .............. Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment.

The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made for a Level 7 FTD.
5.a. ........... Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming.
5.b. ........... Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings.
5.c. ........... Accurate portrayal of environment relating to FTD attitudes.
5.d. ........... The visual scene must correlate with integrated helicopter systems, where installed (e.g., terrain, traffic and weath-
er avoidance systems and Head-up Guidance System (HGS)).
5.e. ........... Representative visual effects for each visible, own-ship, helicopter external light(s)—taxi and landing light lobes (in-
cluding independent operation, if appropriate).
5.f. ............ The effect of rain removal devices.
6. .............. Scene quality.

The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted for a Level 7 FTD.
6.a. ........... System light points must be free from distracting jitter, smearing and streaking.
6.b. ........... Demonstration of occulting through each channel of the system in an operational scene.
6.c. ........... Six discrete light step controls (0–5).
7. .............. Special weather representations, which include visibility and RVR, measured in terms of distance.
Visibility/RVR checked at 2,000 ft (600 m) above the airport or helicopter landing area and at two heights below
2,000 ft with at least 500 ft of separation between the measurements. The measurements must be taken within a
radius of 10 sm (16 km) from the airport or helicopter landing area.
7.a. ........... Effects of fog on airport lighting such as halos and defocus.
7.b. ........... Effect of own-ship lighting in reduced visibility, such as reflected glare, including landing lights, strobes, and bea-
cons.
8. .............. Instructor control of the following:

The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available in a Level 7 FTD.
8.a. ........... Environmental effects: E.g., cloud base, cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/kilometers and RVR
in feet/meters.
8.b. ........... Airport or helicopter landing area selection.
8.c. ........... Airport or helicopter landing area lighting, including variable intensity.
8.d. ........... Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic.
End QPS Requirement
Begin Information
9. .............. An example of being able to combine two airport models to achieve two ‘‘in-use’’ runways: One runway designated
as the ‘‘in-use’’ runway in the first model of the airport, and the second runway designated as the ‘‘in-use’’ run-
way in the second model of the same airport. For example, the clearance is for the ILS approach to Runway 27,
Circle to Land on Runway 18 right. Two airport visual models might be used: The first with Runway 27 des-
ignated as the ‘‘in use’’ runway for the approach to runway 27, and the second with Runway 18 Right designated
as the ‘‘in use’’ runway. When the pilot breaks off the ILS approach to runway 27, the instructor may change to
the second airport visual model in which runway 18 Right is designated as the ‘‘in use’’ runway, and the pilot
would make a visual approach and landing. This process is acceptable to the FAA as long as the temporary
interruption due to the visual model change is not distracting to the pilot.
469
QPS requirements
10. ............ Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway, but the detail that is provided should be correct
within reasonable limits.
End Information
TABLE D3C—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 7 FTD VISUAL REQUIREMENTS
ADDITIONAL VISUAL MODELS BEYOND MINIMUM REQUIRED FOR QUALIFICATION CLASS II AIRPORT
OR HELICOPTER LANDING AREA MODELS
QPS requirements
This table specifies the minimum airport or helicopter landing area visual model content and functionality necessary to add vis-
ual models to an FTD’s visual model library (i.e., beyond those necessary for qualification at the stated level) without the ne-
cessity of further involvement of the NSPM or TPAA.
1. .............. Visual scene management.

The following is the minimum visual scene management requirements.
1.a. ........... The installation and direction of the following lights must be replicated for the ‘‘in-use’’ surface:
1.a.1. ........ For ‘‘in-use’’ runways: Strobe lights, approach lights, runway edge lights, visual landing aids, runway centerline
lights, threshold lights, and touchdown zone lights.
1.a.2. ........ For ‘‘in-use’’ helicopter landing areas: Ground level TLOF perimeter lights, elevated TLOF perimeter lights (if appli-
cable), Optional TLOF lights (if applicable), ground FATO perimeter lights, elevated TLOF lights (if applicable),
landing direction lights.

The following are the minimum distances at which runway or landing area features must be visible. Distances are
measured from runway threshold or a helicopter landing area to an aircraft aligned with the runway or helicopter
landing area on a 3° glide-slope from the aircraft to the touchdown point, in simulated meteorological conditions.
For circling approaches, all tests apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of intended
landing.
2.a. ........... For Runways.
2.a.1. ........ Strobe lights, approach lights, and edge lights from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.
2.a.2. ........ Centerline lights and taxiway definition from 3 sm (5 km).
2.a.3. ........ Visual Approach Aid lights (VASI or PAPI) from 5 sm (8 km) of the threshold.
2.a.4. ........ Threshold lights and touchdown zone lights from 2 sm (3 km).
2.a.5. ........ Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the surface resolution
test on daylight scenes.
2.a.6. ........ For circling approaches, the runway of intended landing and associated lighting must fade into view in a non-dis-
tracting manner.
2.b. ........... For Helicopter landing areas.
2.b.1. ........ Landing direction lights and raised FATO lights from 2 sm (3 km).
2.b.2. ........ Flush mounted FATO lights, TOFL lights, and the lighted windsock from 1 sm (1500 m).
2.b.3. ........ Hover taxiway lighting (yellow/blue/yellow cylinders) from TOFL area.
2.b.4. ........ Markings within range of landing lights for night/twilight (dusk) scenes and as required by the surface resolution
test on daylight scenes.
470
OR HELICOPTER LANDING AREA MODELS—Continued
QPS requirements
3. .............. Airport or Helicopter Landing Area Model Content.

The following prescribes the minimum requirements for what must be provided in an airport visual model and iden-
tifies other aspects of the airport environment that must correspond with that model. The detail must be devel-
oped using airport pictures, construction drawings and maps, or other similar data, or developed in accordance
with published regulatory material; however, this does not require that airport or helicopter landing area models
contain details that are beyond the designed capability of the currently qualified visual system. For circling ap-
proaches, all requirements of this section apply to the runway used for the initial approach and to the runway of
intended landing. Only one ‘‘primary’’ taxi route from parking to the runway end or helicopter takeoff/landing area
will be required for each ‘‘in-use’’ runway or helicopter takeoff/landing area.
3.a.1. ........ For airports: Runway threshold markings, runway numbers, touchdown zone markings, fixed distance markings,
runway edge markings, and runway centerline stripes.
3.a.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Standard heliport marking (‘‘H’’), TOFL, FATO, and safety areas.
3.b.1. ........ For airports: Runway approach, threshold, edge, end, centerline (if applicable), touchdown zone (if applicable),
leadoff, and visual landing aid lights or light systems for that runway.
3.b.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Landing direction, raised and flush FATO, TOFL, windsock lighting.
the following:
3.c.1. ........ For airports: Taxiway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, and ILS critical area(s).
3.c.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
3.d.1. ........ For airports: Runway edge, centerline (if appropriate), runway hold lines, ILS critical areas.
3.d.2. ........ For helicopter landing areas: Taxiways, taxi routes, and aprons.
4. .............. Required visual model correlation with other aspects of the airport environment simulation.
The following are the minimum visual model correlation tests that must be conducted for Level 7 FTD.
4.a. ........... The airport model must be properly aligned with the navigational aids that are associated with operations at the
‘‘in-use’’ runway.
4.b. ........... Slopes in runways, taxiways, and ramp areas, if depicted in the visual scene, must not cause distracting or unreal-
istic effects.
5. .............. Correlation with helicopter and associated equipment.

The following are the minimum correlation comparisons that must be made.
5.a. ........... Visual system compatibility with aerodynamic programming.
5.b. ........... Accurate portrayal of environment relating to flight simulator attitudes.
5.c. ........... Visual cues to assess sink rate and depth perception during landings.
6. .............. Scene quality.

The following are the minimum scene quality tests that must be conducted.
6.a. ........... Light points free from distracting jitter, smearing or streaking.
6.b. ........... Surfaces and textural cues free from apparent and distracting quantization (aliasing).
7. .............. Instructor controls of the following.

The following are the minimum instructor controls that must be available.
7.a. ........... Environmental effects, e.g., cloud base (if used), cloud effects, cloud density, visibility in statute miles/kilometers
and RVR in feet/meters.
471
OR HELICOPTER LANDING AREA MODELS—Continued
QPS requirements
7.b. ........... Airport/Heliport selection.
7.c. ........... Airport/Heliport lighting including variable intensity.
7.d. ........... Dynamic effects including ground and flight traffic.
Begin Information
8. .............. Sponsors are not required to provide every detail of a runway or helicopter landing area, but the detail that is pro-
vided must be correct within the capabilities of the system.
End Information
TABLE D3D—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 6 FTD

QPS requirements
List or for a Level 6 FTD. Items not installed or not functional on the FTD and not appearing on the SOQ Configuration List,
are not required to be listed as exceptions on the SOQ.
1.b.3. ..................... Abnormal starts and shutdowns.
1.b.4. ..................... Rotor engagement.
1.b.5 ...................... System checks.
2.a. ........................ Instrument.
2.b. ........................ Takeoff with engine failure after critical decision point (CDP).
3. Climb
3.a. ........................ Normal.
3.b. ........................ One engine inoperative.
4.a. ........................ Performance.
4.b. ........................ Flying qualities.
4.c. ........................ Turns.
4.c.1. ..................... Timed.
4.c.2. ..................... Normal.
4.c.3. ..................... Steep.

4.d. ........................ Accelerations and decelerations.
472
TABLE D3D—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 6 FTD—Continued

QPS requirements
4.e. ........................ Abnormal/emergency procedures:
4.e.1. ..................... Engine fire.
4.e.2. ..................... Engine failure.
4.e.3. ..................... In-flight engine shutdown (and restart, if applicable).
4.e.4. ..................... Fuel governing system failures (e.g., FADEC malfunction).
4.e.5. ..................... Directional control malfunction (restricted to the extent that the maneuver may not terminate in a landing).
4.e.6. ..................... Hydraulic failure.
4.e.7. ..................... Stability augmentation system failure.
5.a. ........................ Holding.
5.b. ........................ Precision Instrument Approach.
5.b.1. ..................... All engines operating.
5.b.2. ..................... One or more engines inoperative.
5.b.3. ..................... Approach procedures:
5.b.4. ..................... PAR.
5.b.5. ..................... ILS.
5.b.6. ..................... Manual (raw data).
5.b.7. ..................... Flight director only.
5.b.8. ..................... Autopilot* and flight director (if appropriate) coupled.
5.c. ........................ Non-precision Instrument Approach.
5.c. ........................ Normal—All engines operating.
5.c. ........................ One or more engines inoperative.
5.c. ........................ Approach procedures:
5.c.1. ..................... NDB.
5.c.2. ..................... VOR, RNAV, TACAN, GPS.
5.c.3. ..................... ASR.
5.c.4. ..................... Helicopter only.
5.d. ........................ Missed Approach.
5.d.1. ..................... All engines operating.
5.d.2. ..................... One or more engines inoperative.
5.d.3. ..................... Stability augmentation system failure.
6.a. ........................ Helicopter and powerplant systems operation (as applicable).
6.a.1. ..................... Anti-icing/deicing systems.
6.a.2. ..................... Auxiliary power-plant.

6.a.3. ..................... Communications.
473

QPS requirements
6.a.4. ..................... Electrical system.
6.a.5. ..................... Environmental system.
6.a.6. ..................... Fire detection and suppression.
6.a.7. ..................... Flight control system.
6.a.8. ..................... Fuel system.
6.a.9. ..................... Engine oil system.
6.a.10. ................... Hydraulic system.
6.a.11 .................... Landing gear.
6.a.12. ................... Oxygen.
6.a.13. ................... Pneumatic.
6.a.14. ................... Powerplant.
6.a.15. ................... Flight control computers.
6.a.16. ................... Stability augmentation and control augmentation system(s).
6.b. ........................ Flight management and guidance system (as applicable).
6.b.1. ..................... Airborne radar.
6.b.2. ..................... Automatic landing aids.
6.b.3. ..................... Autopilot.*
6.b.4. ..................... Collision avoidance system.
6.b.5. ..................... Flight data displays.
6.b.6. ..................... Flight management computers.
6.b.7. ..................... Navigation systems.
7.a. ........................ Parking and Securing.
7.b. ........................ Engine and systems operation.
7.c. ........................ Parking brake operation.
7.d. ........................ Rotor brake operation.
7.e. ........................ Abnormal/emergency procedures.
8.a. ........................ Power Switch(es).
8.b.1. ..................... Helicopter conditions.
8.b.2. ..................... Gross weight, center of gravity, fuel loading and allocation, etc.
8.b.3. ..................... Helicopter systems status.
8.b.4. ..................... Ground crew functions (e.g., ext. power).
8.c. ........................ Airports and landing areas.
8.c.1. ..................... Number and selection.

8.c.2. ..................... Runway or landing area selection.
474

QPS requirements
8.c.3. ..................... Preset positions (e.g., ramp, over FAF).
8.c.4. ..................... Lighting controls.
8.d. ........................ Environmental controls.
8.d.1 ...................... Temperature.
8.d.2. ..................... Climate conditions (e.g., ice, rain).
8.d.3. ..................... Wind speed and direction.
8.e. ........................ Helicopter system malfunctions.
8.e.1. ..................... Insertion/deletion.
8.e.2. ..................... Problem clear.
8.f. ......................... Locks, Freezes, and Repositioning.
8.f.1. ...................... Problem (all) freeze/release.
8.f.2. ...................... Position (geographic) freeze/release.
8.f.3. ...................... Repositioning (locations, freezes, and releases).
8.f.4. ...................... Ground speed control.
8.g. ........................ Sound Controls. On/off/adjustment.
8.h. ........................ Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/emergency stop.
8.i. ......................... Observer Stations.
8.i.1. ...................... Position.
8.i.2. ...................... Adjustments.

TABLE D3E—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 5 FTD

QPS requirements
2. Climb
2.a. ........................ Normal.
3.a. ........................ Performance.

3.b. ........................ Turns, Normal.
475
TABLE D3E—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 5 FTD—Continued

QPS requirements
4.a. ........................ Coupled instrument approach maneuvers (as applicable for the systems installed).
5.a. ........................ Normal system operation (installed systems).
5.b. ........................ Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed systems).
6.d. ........................ Rotor brake operation.
6.e. ........................ Abnormal/emergency procedures.
7.a. ........................ Power Switch(es).
7.b. ........................ Preset positions (ground; air)
7.c. ........................ Helicopter system malfunctions.
7.c.1. ..................... Insertion/deletion.
7.c.2. ..................... Problem clear.
7.d. ........................ Control Loading System (as applicable) On/off/emergency stop.
7.e. ........................ Observer Stations.
7.e.1. ..................... Position.
7.e.2. ..................... Adjustments.
TABLE D3F—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 4 FTD

QPS requirements
2.a. ........................ Normal system operation (installed systems).

2.b. ........................ Abnormal/Emergency system operation (installed systems).
476
TABLE D3F—TABLE OF FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS LEVEL 4 FTD—Continued

QPS requirements
4.a. ........................ Power Switch(es).
4.b. ........................ Preset positions (ground; air)
4.c. ........................ Helicopter system malfunctions.
4.c.1. ..................... Insertion/deletion.
4.c.2. ..................... Problem clear.
ATTACHMENT 4 TO APPENDIX D TO PART 60— Figure D4D Sample Qualification Test

Figure D4E Sample Statement of Qualifica-
TABLE OF CONTENTS tion—Certificate
Figure D4F Sample Statement of Qualifica-
Figure D4A Sample Letter, Request for Ini-
tial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evalua-
Figure D4G Sample Statement of Qualifica-
tion
tion—List of Qualified Tasks
Figure D4B Attachment: FTD Information Figure D4H Sample Continuing Qualifica-
Form tion Evaluation Requirements Page
Figure A4C Sample Letter of Compliance Figure D4I Sample MQTG Index of Effective
FTD Directives
477
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ER09MY08.065</GPH>
Pt. 60, App. E 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
[Doc. No. FAA–2002–12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 60–6, 83 FR 30276,
June 27, 2018]
cluding any required adjustments. Within 6

months of the notification of acceptability,
APPENDIX E TO PART 60—QUALIFICATION the sponsor must implement the program,
PERFORMANCE STANDARDS FOR conduct internal audits, make required pro-
QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS FOR gram adjustments as a result of any internal
FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DE- audit, and schedule the NSPM initial audit.
VICES c. The Director of Operations for a Part 119
certificate holder, the Chief Instructor for a
llllllllllllllllllllllll Part 141 certificate holder, or the equivalent
for a Part 142 or Flight Engineer School
BEGIN QPS REQUIREMENTS sponsor must designate a Management Rep-
a. Not later than May 30, 2010, each current resentative (MR) who has the authority to
sponsor of an FSTD must submit to the establish and modify the sponsor’s policies,
NSPM a proposed Quality Management Sys- practices, and procedures regarding the QMS
tem (QMS) program as described in this ap- program for the recurring qualification and
pendix. The NSPM will notify the sponsor of the daily use of each FSTD.
the acceptability of the program, including d. The minimum content required for an
any required adjustments. Within 6 months acceptable QMS is found in Table E1. The
of the notification of acceptability, the spon- policies, processes, or procedures described
sor must implement the program, conduct in this table must be maintained in a Qual-
internal audits, make required program ad- ity Manual and will serve as the basis for the
justments as a result of any internal audit, following:
and schedule the NSPM initial audit. (1) The sponsor-conducted initial and re-
b. First-time FSTD sponsors must submit curring periodic assessments;
to the NSPM the proposed QMS program no (2) The NSPM-conducted initial and recur-
later than 120 days before the initial FSTD

ring periodic assessments; and
evaluation. The NSPM will notify the spon-
sor of the acceptability of the program, in-
490
ER09MY08.066</GPH>
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT Pt. 60, App. E
(3) The continuing surveillance and anal- (6) A table showing the essential functions,
ysis by the NSPM of the sponsor’s perform- processes, and procedures that relate to the
ance and effectiveness in providing a satis- required QMS components and a cross-ref-
factory FSTD for use on a regular basis. erence to each represented task.
e. The sponsor must conduct assessments i. Additional Information.
of its QMS program in segments. The seg- (1) In addition to specifically designated
ments will be established by the NSPM at QMS evaluations, the NSPM will evaluate
the initial assessment, and the interval for the sponsor’s QMS program as part of regu-
the segment assessments will be every 6 larly scheduled FSTD continuing qualifica-
months. The intervals for the segment as- tion evaluations and no-notice FSTD evalua-
sessments may be extended beyond 6 months tions, focusing in part on the effectiveness
as the QMS program matures, but will not be and viability of the QMS program and its
extended beyond 12 months. The entire QMS contribution to the overall capability of the
program must be assessed every 24 months. FSTD to meet the requirements of this part.
f. The periodic assessments conducted by (2) The sponsor or MR may delegate duties
the NSPM will be conducted at intervals not associated with maintaining the qualifica-
less than once every 24 months, and include tion of the FSTD (e.g., corrective and pre-
a comprehensive review of the QMS program. ventive maintenance, scheduling and con-
These reviews will be conducted more fre- ducting tests or inspections, functional pre-
quently if warranted. flight checks) but retain the responsibility
and authority for the day-to-day qualifica-
END QPS REQUIREMENTS tion of the FSTD. One person may serve as
llllllllllllllllllllllll the sponsor or MR for more than one FSTD,
but one FSTD may not have more than one
BEGIN INFORMATION sponsor or MR.
(3) A QMS program may be applicable to
g. An example of a segment assessment— more than one certificate holder (e.g., part
At the initial QMS assessment, the NSPM 119 and part 142 or two part 119 certificate
will divide the QMS program into segments holders) and an MR may work for more than
(e.g., 6 separate segments). There must be an one certificate holder (e.g., part 119 and part
assessment of a certain number of segments 142 or two part 119 certificate holders) as
every 6 months (i.e., segments 1 and 2 at the long as the sponsor’s QMS program require-
end of the first 6 month period; segments 3 ments and the MR requirements are met for
and 4 at the end of the second 6 month period each certificate holder.
(or one year); and segments 5 and 6 at the (4) Standard Measurements for Flight Sim-
end of the third 6 month period (or 18 ulator Quality: A quality system based on
months). As the program matures, the inter- FSTD performance will improve and main-
val between assessments may be extended to tain training quality. See http://www.faa.gov/
12 months (e.g., segments 1, 2, and 3 at the safety/programslinitiatives/aircraftlaviation/
end of the first year; and segments 4, 5, and nsp/sqms/ for more information on measuring
6 at the end of the second year). In both FSTD performance.
cases, the entire QMS program is assessed at j. The FAA does not mandate a specific
least every 24 months. QMS program format, but an acceptable
h. The following materials are presented to QMS program should contain the following:
assist sponsors in preparing for an NSPM (1) A Quality Policy. This is a formal writ-
evaluation of the QMS program. The sample ten Quality Policy Statement that is a com-
documents include: mitment by the sponsor outlining what the
(1) The NSPM desk assessment tool for ini- Quality System will achieve.
tial evaluation of the required elements of a (2) A MR who has overall authority for
QMS program. monitoring the on-going qualification of as-
(2) The NSPM on-site assessment tool for signed FSTDs to ensure that all FSTD quali-
initial and continuing evaluation of the re- fication issues are resolved as required by
quired elements of a QMS program. this part. The MR should ensure that the
(3) An Element Assessment Table that de- QMS program is properly implemented and
scribes the circumstances that exist to war- maintained, and should:
rant a finding of ‘‘non-compliance,’’ or ‘‘non- (a) Brief the sponsor’s management on the
conformity’’; ‘‘partial compliance,’’ or ‘‘par- qualification processes;
tial conformity’’; and ‘‘acceptable compli- (b) Serve as the primary contact point for
ance,’’ or ‘‘acceptable conformity.’’ all matters between the sponsor and the
(4) A sample Continuation Sheet for addi- NSPM regarding the qualification of the as-
tional comments that may be added by the signed FSTDs; and
sponsor or the NSPM during a QMS evalua- (c) Oversee the day-to-day quality control.
tion. (3) The system and processes outlined in
(5) A sample Sponsor Checklist to assist the QMS should enable the sponsor to mon-
the sponsor in verifying the elements that itor compliance with all applicable regula-
comprise the required QMS program. tions and ensure correct maintenance and
491
performance of the FSTD in accordance with (c) Routine maintenance of the FSTD and
part 60. performance of the QTG tests with adequate
(4) A QMS program and a statement ac- staffing to cover FSTD operating periods.
knowledging completion of a periodic review (d) A planned internal assessment schedule
by the MR should include the following: and a periodic review should be used to
(a) A maintenance facility that provides verify that corrective action was complete
suitable FSTD hardware and software tests and effective. The assessor should have ade-
quate knowledge of FSTDs and should be ac-
and maintenance capability.
ceptable to the NSPM.
(b) A recording system in the form of a
(5) The MR should receive Quality System
technical log in which defects, deferred de- training and brief other personnel on the
fects, and development projects are listed, procedures.
assigned and reviewed within a specified
time period. END INFORMATION
TABLE E1—FSTD QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

Information
Entry No. QPS requirement (reference)
E1.1. ...................... A QMS manual that prescribes the policies, processes, or procedures outlined § 60.5(a).
in this table.
E1.2. ...................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will identify defi- § 60.5(b).
ciencies in the QMS.
E1.3. ...................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will document § 60.5(b).
how the QMS program will be changed to address deficiencies.
E1.4. ...................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will address pro- § 60.5(c).
posed program changes (for programs that do not meet the minimum re-
quirements as notified by the NSPM) to the NSPM and receive approval
prior to their implementation.
E1.5. ...................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will document that § 60.7(b)(5).
at least one FSTD is used within the sponsor’s FAA-approved flight training
program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month
period following the initial or upgrade evaluation conducted by the NSPM
and at least once within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter.
E1.6. ...................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will document that § 60.7(b)(6).
at least one FSTD is used within the sponsor’s FAA-approved flight training
program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month
period following the first continuing qualification evaluation conducted by
the NSP and at least once within each subsequent 12-month period there-
after.
E1.7. ...................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will obtain an an- § 60.5(b)(7) and
nual written statement from a qualified pilot (who has flown the subject air- § 60.7(d)(2).
craft or set of aircraft during the preceding 12-month period) that the per-
formance and handling qualities of the subject FSTD represents the subject
aircraft or set of aircraft (within the normal operating envelope). Required
only if the subject FSTD is not used in the sponsor’s FAA-approved flight
training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the
preceding 12-month period.
E1.8. ...................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how independent feedback (from § 60.9(b)(1).
persons recently completing training, evaluation, or obtaining flight experi-
ence; instructors and check airmen using the FSTD for training, evaluation,
or flight experience sessions; and FSTD technicians and maintenance per-
sonnel) will be received and addressed by the sponsor regarding the FSTD
and its operation.
E1.9. ...................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how and where the FSTD SOQ will § 60.9(b)(2).
be posted, or accessed by an appropriate terminal or display, in or adjacent
to the FSTD.
E1.10. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor’s management § 60.9(c) and Appendix E,
representative (MR) is selected and identified by name to the NSPM. paragraph (d).
E1.11. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying the MR authority and responsibility § 60.9(c)(2), (3), and (4).
for the following:
492
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT Pt. 60, App. E
TABLE E1—FSTD QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM—Continued

Information
E1.11.a. ................. Monitoring the on-going qualification of assigned FSTDs to ensure all matters
regarding FSTD qualification are completed as required by this part.
E1.11.b. ................. Ensuring that the QMS is properly maintained by overseeing the QMS poli-
cies, practices, or procedures and modifying as necessary.
E1.11.c. .................. Regularly briefing sponsor’s management on the status of the on-going FSTD
qualification program and the effectiveness and efficiency of the QMS.
E1.11.d. ................. Serving as the primary contact point for all matters between the sponsor and
the NSPM regarding the qualification of assigned FSTDs.
E1.11.e. ................. Delegating the MR assigned duties to an individual at each of the sponsor’s
locations, as appropriate.
E1.12. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will: § 60.13; QPS Appendices
A, B, C, and D.
E1.12.a. ................. Ensure that the data made available to the NSPM (the validation data pack-
age) includes the aircraft manufacturer’s flight test data (or other data ap-
proved by the NSPM) and all relevant data developed after the type certifi-
cate was issued (e.g., data developed in response to an airworthiness di-
rective) if the data results from a change in performance, handling qualities,
functions, or other characteristics of the aircraft that must be considered for
flight crewmember training, evaluation, or experience requirements.
E1.12.b. ................. Notify the NSPM within 10 working days of becoming aware that an addition
to or a revision of the flight related data or airplane systems related data is
available if this data is used to program or operate a qualified FSTD.
E1.12.c. .................. Maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or
with the holder of the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated
if the manufacturer is no longer in business), and if appropriate, with the
person who supplied the aircraft data package for the FFS for the purposes
of receiving notification of data package changes.
E1.13. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will make avail- § 60.14.
able all special equipment and qualified personnel needed to conduct tests
during initial, continuing qualification, or special evaluations.
E1.14. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will submit to the § 60.15(a)–(d); § 60.15(b);
NSPM a request to evaluate the FSTD for initial qualification at a specific § 60.15(b)(i);
level and simultaneously request the TPAA forward a concurring letter to § 60.15(b)(ii);
the NSPM; including how the MR will use qualified personnel to confirm the § 60.15(b)(iii).
following:
E1.14.a. ................. That the performance and handling qualities of the FSTD represent those of
the aircraft or set of aircraft within the normal operating envelope.
E1.14.b. ................. The FSTD systems and sub-systems (including the simulated aircraft sys-
tems) functionally represent those in the aircraft or set of aircraft.
E1.14.c. .................. The flight deck represents the configuration of the specific type or aircraft
make, model, and series aircraft being simulated, as appropriate.
E1.15. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the subjective and objective § 60.15(e).
tests are completed at the sponsor’s training facility for an initial evaluation.
E1.16. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will update the § 60.15(h).
QTG with the results of the FAA-witnessed tests and demonstrations to-
gether with the results of the objective tests and demonstrations after the
NSPM completes the evaluation for initial qualification.
E1.17. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will make the § 60.15(i).
MQTG available to the NSPM upon request.
E1.18. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will apply to the § 60.16(a);
NSPM for additional qualification(s) to the SOQ. § 60.16(a)(1)(i); and

§ 60.16(a)(1)(ii).
493

Information
E1.19. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor completes all re- § 60.19(a)(1) QPS Appen-
quired Attachment 2 objective tests each year in a minimum of four evenly dices A, B, C, or D.
spaced inspections as specified in the appropriate QPS.
E1.20. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor completes and § 60.19(a)(2) QPS Appen-
records a functional preflight check of the FSTD within the preceding 24 dices A, B, C, or D.
hours of FSTD use, including a description of the functional preflight.
E1.21. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor schedules con- § 60.19(b)(2).
tinuing qualification evaluations with the NSPM.
E1.22. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor ensures that the § 60.19(b)(5)–(6).
FSTD has received a continuing qualification evaluation at the interval de-
scribed in the MQTG.
E1.23. .................... A policy, process, or procedure describing how discrepancies are recorded in § 60.19(c);
the FSTD discrepancy log, including: § 60.19(c)(2)(i);
§ 60.19(c)(2)(ii).
E1.23.a. ................. A description of how the discrepancies are entered and maintained in the log
until corrected.
E1.23.b. ................. A description of the corrective action taken for each discrepancy, the identity
of the individual taking the action, and the date that action is taken.
E1.24. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the discrepancy log is kept in § 60.19(c)(2)(iii).
a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator and kept in or adjacent
to the FSTD. (An electronic log that may be accessed by an appropriate
terminal or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory.).
E1.25. .................... A policy, process, or procedure that requires each instructor, check airman, or § 60.20.
representative of the Administrator conducting training, evaluation, or flight
experience, and each person conducting the preflight inspection, who dis-
covers a discrepancy, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative
components in the FSTD, to write or cause to be written a description of
that discrepancy into the discrepancy log at the end of the FSTD preflight
or FSTD use session.
E1.26. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will apply for ini- § 60.21(c).
tial qualification based on the final aircraft data package approved by the
aircraft manufacturer if operating an FSTD based on an interim qualification.
E1.27. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor determines § 60.23(a)(1)–(2).
whether an FSTD change qualifies as a modification as defined in § 60.23.
E1.28. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will ensure the § 60.23(b).
FSTD is modified in accordance with any FSTD Directive regardless of the
original qualification basis.
E1.29. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will notify the § 60.23(c)(1)(i), (ii), and
NSPM and TPAA of their intent to use a modified FSTD and to ensure that (iv).
the modified FSTD will not be used prior to:
E1.29.a. ................. Twenty-one days since the sponsor notified the NSPM and the TPAA of the
proposed modification and the sponsor has not received any response from
either the NSPM or the TPAA; or
E1.29.b. ................. Twenty-one days since the sponsor notified the NSPM and the TPAA of the
proposed modification and one has approved the proposed modification
and the other has not responded; or
E1.29.c. .................. The FSTD successfully completing any evaluation the NSPM may require in
accordance with the standards for an evaluation for initial qualification or
any part thereof before the modified FSTD is placed in service.
E1.30. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how, after an FSTD modification is § 60.23(d)–(e).
approved by the NSPM, the sponsor will:
E1.30.a. ................. Post an addendum to the SOQ until as the NSPM issues a permanent, up-
dated SOQ.
494
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT Pt. 60, App. F

Information
E1.30.b. ................. Update the MQTG with current objective test results and appropriate objective
data for each affected objective test or other MQTG section affected by the
modification.
E1.30.c. .................. File in the MQTG the requirement from the NSPM to make the modification
and the record of the modification completion.
E1.31. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will track the § 60.25(b)–(c), and QPS
length of time a component has been missing, malfunctioning, or inoper- Appendices A, B, C, or
ative (MMI), including: D.
E1.31.a. ................. How the sponsor will post a list of MMI components in or adjacent to the
FSTD.
E1.31.b. ................. How the sponsor will notify the NSPM if the MMI has not been repaired or re-
placed within 30 days.*
E1.32. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will notify the § 60.27(a)(3).
NSPM and how the sponsor will seek requalification of the FSTD if the
FSTD is moved and reinstalled in a different location.
E1.33. .................... A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will maintain con- § 60.31.
trol of the following: (The sponsor must specify how these records are
maintained in plain language form or in coded form; but if the coded form is
used, the sponsor must specify how the preservation and retrieval of infor-
mation will be conducted.).
E1.33.a. ................. The MQTG and each amendment.
E1.33.b. ................. A record of all FSTD modifications required by this part since the issuance of
the original SOQ.
E1.33.c. .................. Results of the qualification evaluations (initial and each upgrade) since the
issuance of the original SOQ.
E1.33.d. ................. Results of the objective tests conducted in accordance with this part for a pe-
riod of 2 years.
E1.33.e. ................. Results of the previous three continuing qualification evaluations, or the con-
tinuing qualification evaluations from the previous 2 years, whichever cov-
ers a longer period.
E1.33.f. .................. Comments obtained in accordance with § 60.9(b);
E1.33.g. ................. A record of all discrepancies entered in the discrepancy log over the previous
2 years, including the following:
E1.33.g.1. .............. A list of the components or equipment that were or are missing, malfunc-
tioning, or inoperative.
E1.33.g.2. .............. The action taken to correct the discrepancy.
E1.33.g.3. .............. The date the corrective action was taken.
E1.33.g.4. .............. The identity of the person determining that the discrepancy has been cor-
rected.
* Note: If the sponsor has an approved discrepancy prioritization system, this item is satisfied by describing how discrepancies
are prioritized, what actions are taken, and how the sponsor will notify the NSPM if the MMI has not been repaired or replaced
within the specified timeframe.
[Doc. No. FAA–2002–12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 2008]
APPENDIX F TO PART 60—DEFINITIONS

AND ABBREVIATIONS FOR FLIGHT
SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES
495
Pt. 60, App. F 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
BEGIN INFORMATION Altitude—pressure altitude (meters or feet)
unless specified otherwise.
1. SOME OF THE DEFINITIONS PRESENTED BELOW Angle of Attack—the angle between the air-
ARE REPEATED FROM THE DEFINITIONS FOUND plane longitudinal axis and the relative wind
IN 14 CFR PART 1, AS INDICATED PAR- vector projected onto the airplane plane of
ENTHETICALLY symmetry.
END INFORMATION Automatic Testing—FSTD testing where all
stimuli are under computer control.
llllllllllllllllllllllll Bank—the airplane attitude with respect
to or around the longitudinal axis, or roll
angle (degrees).
2. DEFINITIONS Breakout—the force required at the pilot’s
primary controls to achieve initial move-
1st Segment—the portion of the takeoff pro- ment of the control position.
file from liftoff to gear retraction. Certificate Holder—a person issued a certifi-
2nd Segment—the portion of the takeoff cate under parts 119, 141, or 142 of this chap-
profile from after gear retraction to initial ter or a person holding an approved course of
flap/slat retraction. training for flight engineers in accordance
3rd Segment—the portion of the takeoff pro- with part 63 of this chapter.
file after flap/slat retraction is complete.
Closed Loop Testing—a test method where
Aircraft Data Package—a combination of
the input stimuli are generated by control-
the various types of data used to design, pro-
lers that drive the FSTD to follow a pre-de-
gram, manufacture, modify, and test the
fined target response.
FSTD.
Airspeed—calibrated airspeed unless other- Computer Controlled Aircraft—an aircraft
wise specified and expressed in terms of nau- where all pilot inputs to the control surfaces
tical miles per hour (knots). are transferred and augmented by com-
Airport Model— puters.
Class I. Whether modeling real world or fic- Confined Area (helicopter operations)—an
tional airports (or landing areas for heli- area where the flight of the helicopter is lim-
copters), these airport models (or landing ited in some direction by terrain or the pres-
areas for helicopters) are those that meet ence of natural or man-made obstructions
the requirements of Table A3B or C3B, found (e.g., a clearing in the woods, a city street,
in attachment 2 of Appendix A or C, as ap- or a road bordered by trees or power lines are
propriate, are evaluated by the NSPM, and regarded as confined areas).
are listed on the SOQ. Control Sweep—movement of the appro-
Class II. Whether modeling real world or priate pilot controller from neutral to an ex-
fictional airports (or landing areas for heli- treme limit in one direction (Forward, Aft,
copters), these airport models (or landing Right, or Left), a continuous movement back
areas for helicopters) are those models that through neutral to the opposite extreme po-
are in excess of those used for simulator sition, and then a return to the neutral posi-
qualification at a specified level. The FSTD tion.
sponsor is responsible for determining that Convertible FSTD—an FSTD in which hard-
these models meet the requirements set out ware and software can be changed so that the
in Table A3C or C3C, found in attachment 2 FSTD becomes a replica of a different model,
of Appendix A or C, as appropriate. usually of the same type aircraft. The same
Class III. This is a special class of airport FSTD platform, flight deck shell, motion
model (or landing area for helicopters), used system, visual system, computers, and pe-
for specific purposes, and includes models ripheral equipment can be used in more than
that may be incomplete or inaccurate when one simulation.
viewed without restriction, but when appro- Critical Engine Parameter—the parameter
priate limits are applied (e.g., ‘‘valid for use that is the most accurate measure of propul-
only in visibility conditions less than 1⁄2 stat- sive force.
ute mile or RVR2400 feet,’’ ‘‘valid for use Deadband—the amount of movement of the
only for approaches to Runway 22L and input for a system for which there is no reac-
22R’’), those features that may be incomplete tion in the output or state of the system ob-
or inaccurate may not be able to be recog- served.
nized as such by the crewmember being Distance—the length of space between two
trained, tested, or checked. Class III airport points, expressed in terms of nautical miles
models used for training, testing, or check- unless otherwise specified.
ing activities under this Chapter requires the Discrepancy—as used in this part, an aspect
certificate holder to submit to the TPAA an of the FSTD that is not correct with respect
appropriate analysis of the skills, knowl- to the aircraft being simulated. This in-
edge, and abilities necessary for competent cludes missing, malfunctioning, or inoper-
performance of the task(s) in which this par- ative components that are required to be
ticular model is to be used, and requires present and operate correctly for training,
TPAA acceptance of each Class III model. evaluation, and experience functions to be
496
creditable. It also includes errors in the doc- Flight Training Device (FTD)—a replica of
umentation used to support the FSTD (e.g., aircraft instruments, equipment, panels, and
MQTG errors, information missing from the controls in an open flight deck area or an en-
MQTG, or required statements from appro- closed aircraft flight deck replica. It in-
priately qualified personnel). cludes the equipment and computer pro-
Downgrade—a permanent change in the grams necessary to represent aircraft (or set
qualification level of an FSTD to a lower of aircraft) operations in ground and flight
level. conditions having the full range of capabili-
Driven—a test method where the input ties of the systems installed in the device as
stimulus or variable is positioned by auto- described in part 60 of this chapter and the
matic means, usually a computer input. qualification performance standard (QPS) for
Electronic Copy of the MQTG—an electronic a specific FTD qualification level. (Part 1)
copy of the MQTG provided by an electronic Free Response—the response of the FSTD
scan presented in a format, acceptable to the after completion of a control input or dis-
NSPM. turbance.
Electronic Master Qualification Test Guide— Frozen—a test condition where one or more
an electronic version of the MQTG (eMQTG), variables are held constant with time.
where all objective data obtained from air- FSTD Approval—the extent to which an
plane testing, or another approved source, FSTD may be used by a certificate holder as
together with correlating objective test re- authorized by the FAA.
sults obtained from the performance of the
FSTD Directive—a document issued by the
FSTD and a description of the equipment
FAA to an FSTD sponsor requiring a modi-
necessary to perform the evaluation for the
fication to the FSTD due to a safety-of-flight
initial and the continuing qualification eval-
issue and amending the qualification basis
uations is stored, archived, or presented in
for the FSTD.
either reformatted or digitized electronic
format. FSTD Latency—the additional time for the
Engine—as used in this part, the appliance FSTD to respond to input that is beyond the
or structure that supplies propulsive force response time of the aircraft.
for movement of the aircraft: i.e., The tur- FSTD Performance—the overall perform-
bine engine for turbine powered aircraft; the ance of the FSTD, including aircraft per-
turbine engine and propeller assembly for formance (e.g., thrust/drag relationships,
turbo-propeller powered aircraft; and the re- climb, range) and flight and ground han-
ciprocating engine and propeller assembly dling.
for reciprocating engine powered aircraft. Full Flight Simulator (FFS)—a replica of a
For purposes of this part, engine failure is specific type, make, model, or series aircraft.
the failure of either the engine or propeller It includes the equipment and computer pro-
assembly to provide thrust higher than idle grams necessary to represent aircraft oper-
power thrust due to a failure of either the ations in ground and flight conditions, a vis-
engine or the propeller assembly. ual system providing an out-of-the-flight
Evaluation—with respect to an individual, deck view, a system that provides cues at
the checking, testing, or review associated least equivalent to those of a three-degree-
with flight crewmember qualification, train- of-freedom motion system, and has the full
ing, and certification under parts 61, 63, 121, range of capabilities of the systems installed
or 135 of this chapter. With respect to an in the device as described in part 60 of this
FSTD, the qualification activities for the de- chapter and the QPS for a specific FFS qual-
vice (e.g., the objective and subjective tests, ification level. (Part 1)
the inspections, or the continuing qualifica- Gate Clutter—the static and moving ground
tion evaluations) associated with the re- traffic (e.g., other airplanes; tugs; power or
quirements of this part. baggage carts; fueling, catering, or cargo
Fictional Airport—a visual model of an air- trucks; pedestrians) presented to pose a po-
port that is a collection of ‘‘non-real world’’ tential conflict with the simulated aircraft
terrain, instrument approach procedures, during ground operations around the point
navigation aids, maps, and visual modeling where the simulated airplane is to be parked
detail sufficient to enable completion of an between flights
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate or Type Generic Airport Model—a Class III visual
Rating. model that combines correct navigation aids
Flight Experience—recency of flight experi- for a real world airport with a visual model
ence for landing credit purposes. that does not depict that same airport.
Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD)—a Grandfathering—as used in this part, the
full flight simulator (FFS) or a flight train- practice of assigning a qualification basis for
ing device (FTD). (Part 1) an FSTD based on the period of time during
Flight Test Data—(a subset of objective which a published set of standards governed
data) aircraft data collected by the aircraft the requirements for the initial and con-
manufacturer or other acceptable data sup- tinuing qualification of FSTDs. Each FSTD
plier during an aircraft flight test program. manufactured during this specified period of
497
time is ‘‘grandfathered’’ or held to the stand- setup, and all modules of the simulation are
ards that were in effect during that time pe- active.
riod. The grandfathered standards remain Master Qualification Test Guide (MQTG)—
applicable to each FSTD manufactured dur- the FAA-approved Qualification Test Guide
ing the stated time period regardless of any with the addition of the FAA-witnessed test
subsequent modification to those standards results, applicable to each individual FSTD.
and regardless of the sponsor, as long as the Medium—the normal operational weight for
FSTD remains qualified or is maintained in a given flight segment.
a non-qualified status in accordance with the National Simulator Program Manager
specific requirements and time periods pre- (NSPM)—the FAA manager responsible for
scribed in this part. the overall administration and direction of
Gross Weight—For objective test purposes: the National Simulator Program (NSP), or a
Basic Operating Weight (BOW)—the empty person approved by that FAA manager.
weight of the aircraft plus the weight of the Near Limiting Performance—the perform-
following: Normal oil quantity; lavatory ance level the operating engine must be re-
servicing fluid; potable water; required crew- quired to achieve to have sufficient power to
members and their baggage; and emergency land a helicopter after experiencing a single
equipment. engine failure during takeoff of a multien-
Light Gross Weight—a weight chosen by the gine helicopter. The operating engine must
sponsor or data provider that is not more be required to operate within at least 5 per-
than 120% of the BOW of the aircraft being cent of the maximum RPM or temperature
simulated or the minimum practical oper- limits of the gas turbine or power turbine, or
ating weight of the test aircraft. operate within at least 5 percent of the max-
Medium Gross Weight—a weight chosen by imum drive train torque limits. Near lim-
the sponsor or data provider that is within iting performance is based on the existing
10% of the average of the numerical values of combination of density altitude, tempera-
the BOW and the maximum certificated ture, and helicopter gross weight.
gross weight. Nominal—the normal operating configura-
Near Maximum Gross Weight—a weight cho- tion, atmospheric conditions, and flight pa-
sen by the sponsor or data provider that is rameters for the specified flight segment.
not less than the BOW of the aircraft being Non-Normal Control—a term used in ref-
simulated plus 80% of the difference between erence to Computer Controlled Aircraft. It is
the maximum certificated gross weight (ei- the state where one or more of the intended
ther takeoff weight or landing weight, as ap- control, augmentation, or protection func-
propriate for the test) and the BOW. tions are not fully working. Note: Specific
Ground Effect—the change in aerodynamic terms such as ALTERNATE, DIRECT, SEC-
characteristics due to of the change in the ONDARY, or BACKUP may be used to define
airflow past the aircraft caused by the prox- an actual level of degradation.
imity of the earth’s surface to the airplane. Normal Control—a term used in reference to
Hands Off—a test maneuver conducted Computer Controlled Aircraft. It is the state
without pilot control inputs. where the intended control, augmentation,
Hands On—a test maneuver conducted with and protection functions are fully working.
pilot control inputs as required. Objective Data—quantitative data, accept-
Heave—FSTD movement with respect to or able to the NSPM, used to evaluate the
along the vertical axis. FSTD.
Height—the height above ground level (or Objective Test—a quantitative measurement
AGL) expressed in meters or feet. and evaluation of FSTD performance.
‘‘In Use’’ Runway—as used in this part, the Pitch—the airplane attitude with respect
runway that is currently selected, able to be to, or around, the lateral axis expressed in
used for takeoffs and landings, and has the degrees.
surface lighting and markings required by Power Lever Angle (PLA)—the angle of the
this part. Also known as the ‘‘active’’ run- pilot’s primary engine control lever(s) on the
way. flight deck. This may also be referred to as
Integrated Testing—testing of the FSTD so THROTTLE or POWER LEVER.
that all aircraft system models are active Predicted Data—estimations or extrapo-
and contribute appropriately to the results. lations of existing flight test data or data
With integrated testing, none of the models from other simulation models using engi-
used are substituted with models or other al- neering analyses, engineering simulations,
gorithms intended for testing only. design data, or wind tunnel data.
Irreversible Control System—a control sys- Protection Functions—systems functions de-
tem where movement of the control surface signed to protect an airplane from exceeding
will not backdrive the pilot’s control on the its flight maneuver limitations.
flight deck. Pulse Input—a step input to a control fol-
Locked—a test condition where one or more lowed by an immediate return to the initial
variables are held constant with time. position.

Manual Testing—FSTD testing conducted Qualification Level—the categorization of
without computer inputs except for initial an FSTD established by the NSPM based on
498
the FSTDs demonstrated technical and oper- symmetry. (Note: this definition replaces the
ational capabilities as prescribed in this current definition of ‘‘sideslip.’’)
part. Simulation Quality Management System
Qualification Performance Standard (QPS)— (SQMS)—the elements of a quality manage-
the collection of procedures and criteria used ment system for FSTD continuing qualifica-
when conducting objective and subjective tion.
tests, to establish FSTD qualification levels. Snapshot—a presentation of one or more
The QPS are published in the appendices to variables at a given instant of time.
this part, as follows: Appendix A, for Air- Special Evaluation—an evaluation of the
plane Simulators; Appendix B, for Airplane FSTD for purposes other than initial, up-
Flight Training Devices; Appendix C, for Hel- grade, or continuing qualification. Cir-
icopter Simulators; Appendix D, for Heli- cumstances that may require a special eval-
copter Flight Training Devices; Appendix E, uation include movement of the FSTD to a
for Quality Management Systems for Flight different location, or an update to FSTD
Simulation Training Devices; and Appendix software or hardware that might affect per-
F, for Definitions and Abbreviations for formance or flying qualities.
Flight Simulation Training Devices. Sponsor—a certificate holder who seeks or
Qualification Test Guide (QTG)—the pri- maintains FSTD qualification and is respon-
mary reference document used for evalu- sible for the prescribed actions as prescribed
ating an aircraft FSTD. It contains test rein this part and the QPS for the appropriate
sults, statements of compliance and capa- FSTD and qualification level.
bility, the configuration of the aircraft sim- Statement of Compliance and Capability
ulated, and other information for the eval- (SOC)—a declaration that a specific require-
ment has been met and explaining how the
uator to assess the FSTD against the appli-
requirement was met (e.g., gear modeling ap-
cable regulatory criteria.
proach, coefficient of friction sources). The
Quality Management System (QMS)—a flight
SOC must also describe the capability of the
simulation quality-systems that can be used
FSTD to meet the requirement, including
for external quality-assurance purposes. It is
references to sources of information for
designed to identify the processes needed, de-
showing compliance, rationale to explain
termine the sequence and interaction of the
how the referenced material is used, mathe-
processes, determine criteria and methods
matical equations and parameter values
required to ensure the effective operation
used, and conclusions reached.
and control of the processes, ensure the
Step Input—an abrupt control input held at
availability of information necessary to sup-
a constant value.
port the operation and monitoring of the
Subjective Test—a qualitative assessment of
processes, measure, monitor, and analyze the
the performance and operation of the FSTD.
processes, and implement the actions nec- Surge—FSTD movement with respect to or
essary to achieve planned results. along the longitudinal axis.
Real-World Airport—as used in this part in Sway—FSTD movement with respect to or
reference to airport visual models, a com- along the lateral axis.
puter generated visual depiction of an exist- Tf—Total time of the flare maneuver.
ing airport. Ti—Total time from initial throttle move-
Representative—when used as an adjective ment until a 10% response of a critical en-
in this part, typical, demonstrative, or char- gine parameter.
acteristic of, the feature being described. For Tt—Total time from initial throttle move-
example, ‘‘representative sampling of tests’’ ment to an increase of 90% of go around
means a sub-set of the complete set of all power or a decrease of 90% from maximum
tests such that the sample includes one or take-off power.
more of the tests in each of the major cat- Time History—a presentation of the change
egories, the results of which provide the of a variable with respect to time.
evaluator with an overall understanding of Training Program Approval Authority
the performance and handling characteris- (TPAA)—a person authorized by the Adminis-
tics of the FSTD. trator to approve the aircraft flight training
Reversible Control System—a control system program in which the FSTD will be used.
in which movement of the control surface Training Restriction—a temporary condition
will backdrive the pilot’s control on the where an FSTD with missing, malfunc-
flight deck. tioning, or inoperative (MMI) components
Roll—the airplane attitude with respect to, may continue to be used at the qualification
or around, the longitudinal axis expressed in level indicated on its SOQ, but restricted
degrees. from completing the tasks for which the cor-
Set of Aircraft—aircraft that share similar rect function of the MMI component is re-
handling and operating characteristics, simi- quired.
lar operating envelopes, and have the same Transport Delay or ‘‘Throughput’’—the total
number and type of engines or powerplants. FSTD system processing time required for
Sideslip Angle—the angle between the rel- an input signal from a pilot primary flight
ative wind vector and the airplane plane of control until motion system, visual system,
499
or instrument response. It is the overall time kPa KiloPascal (Kilo Newton/Meters2). 1 psi
delay incurred from signal input to output = 6.89476 kPa.
response. It does not include the char- kts Knots calibrated airspeed unless other-
acteristic delay of the airplane simulated. wise specified, 1 knot = 0.5148 m/sec or 1.689
Update—an improvement to or moderniza- ft/sec.
tion of the quality or the accuracy of the lb(s) pound(s), one (1) pound = 0.44
FSTD without affecting the qualification decaNewton.
level of the FSTD. LDP Landing decision point.
Upgrade—the improvement or enhance- MQTG Master Qualification Test Guide
ment of an FSTD for the purpose of achiev- M,m Meters, 1 Meter = 3.28083 feet.
ing a higher qualification level. Min(s) Minute, minutes.
Validation Data—objective data used to de- MLG Main Landing Gear.
termine if the FSTD performance is within Mpa MegaPascals (1 psi = 6894.76 pascals).
the tolerances prescribed in the QPS. ms millisecond(s).
Validation Test—an objective test where N NORMAL CONTROL Used in reference to
FSTD parameters are compared to the rel- Computer Controlled Aircraft.
evant validation data to ensure that the nm Nautical Mile(s) 1 Nautical Mile = 6,080
FSTD performance is within the tolerances feet.
prescribed in the QPS. NN NON-NORMAL CONTROL Used in ref-
Visual Data Base—a display that may in- erence to Computer Controlled Aircraft.
clude one or more airport models. N1 Low Pressure Rotor revolutions per
Visual System Response Time—the interval minute, expressed in percent of maximum.
from a control input to the completion of the N2 High Pressure Rotor revolutions per
visual display scan of the first video field minute, expressed in percent of maximum.
containing the resulting different informa- N3 High Pressure Rotor revolutions per
tion. minute, expressed in percent of maximum.
Yaw—the airplane attitude with respect to, NSPM National Simulator Program Man-
or around, the vertical axis expressed in de- ager.
grees. NWA Nosewheel Angle (degrees).
3. Abbreviations OGE Out of ground effect.
AFM Airplane Flight Manual. PAPI Precision Approach Path Indicator
AGL Above Ground Level (meters or feet). System.
AOA Angle of Attack (degrees). Pf Impact or Feel Pressure, often expressed
APD Aircrew Program Designee. as ‘‘q.’’
CCA Computer Controlled Aircraft. PLA Power Lever Angle.
cd/m2 candela/meter2, 3.4263 candela/m2 = 1 PLF Power for Level Flight.
ft-Lambert. psi pounds per square inch.
CFR Code of Federal Regulations. QPS Qualification Performance Standard.
cm(s) centimeter, centimeters. QTG Qualification Test Guide.
daN decaNewtons, one (1) decaNewton = 2.27 RAE Royal Aerospace Establishment.
pounds. R/C Rate of Climb (meters/sec or feet/min).
deg(s) degree, degrees. R/D Rate of Descent (meters/sec or feet/
DOF Degrees-of-freedom. min).
eMQTG Electronic Master Qualification REIL Runway End Identifier Lights.
Test Guide. RVR Runway Visual Range (meters or
EPR Engine Pressure Ratio. feet).
FAA Federal Aviation Administration s second(s).
(U.S.). sec(s) second, seconds.
FATO Final Approach and Take Off area sm Statute Mile(s) 1 Statute Mile = 5,280
fpm feet per minute. feet.
ft foot/feet, 1 foot = 0.304801 meters. SMGCS Surface Movement Guidance and
ft-Lambert foot-Lambert, 1 ft-Lambert = Control System.
3.4263 candela/m2. SOC Statement of Compliance and Capa-
g Acceleration due to Gravity (meters or bility.
feet/sec2); 1g = 9.81 m/sec2 or 32.2 feet/sec2. SOQ Statement of Qualification.
G/S Glideslope. TIR Type Inspection Report.
IATA International Airline Transport Asso- TLOF Touchdown and Loft Off area.
ciation. T/O Takeoff.
ICAO International Civil Aviation Organi- VASI Visual Approach Slope Indicator Sys-
zation. tem.
IGE In ground effect. VGS Visual Ground Segment.
ILS Instrument Landing System. V1 Decision speed.
IOS Instructor Operating Station. V2 Takeoff safety speed.
IQTG International Qualification Test Vmc Minimum Control Speed.
Guide. Vmca Minimum Control Speed in the air.

km Kilometers; 1 km = 0.62137 Statute Vmcg Minimum Control Speed on the
Miles. ground.
500
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT Pt. 61
Vmcl Minimum Control Speed—Landing. 61.35 Knowledge test: Prerequisites and
Vmu The speed at which the last main passing grades.
landing gear leaves the ground. 61.37 Knowledge tests: Cheating or other
VR Rotate Speed. unauthorized conduct.
VS Stall Speed or minimum speed in the 61.39 Prerequisites for practical tests.
stall. 61.41 Flight training received from flight
WAT Weight, Altitude, Temperature. instructors not certificated by the FAA.
61.43 Practical tests: General procedures.
END QPS REQUIREMENTS 61.45 Practical tests: Required aircraft and
equipment.
[Doc. No. FAA–2002–12461, 73 FR 26490, May 9, 61.47 Status of an examiner who is author-
2008] ized by the Administrator to conduct
practical tests.
PART 61—CERTIFICATION: PILOTS, 61.49 Retesting after failure.
FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND 61.51 Pilot logbooks.
61.52 Use of aeronautical experience ob-
GROUND INSTRUCTORS tained in ultralight vehicles.
61.53 Prohibition on operations during med-
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO. ical deficiency.
73 61.55 Second-in-command qualifications.
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO. 61.56 Flight review.
100–2 61.57 Recent flight experience: Pilot in com-
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO. mand.
118–2 61.58 Pilot-in-command proficiency check:
Operation of an aircraft that requires
Subpart A—General more than one pilot flight crewmember
or is turbojet-powered.
Sec. 61.59 Falsification, reproduction, or alter-
61.1 Applicability and definitions. ation of applications, certificates,
61.2 Exercise of Privilege. logbooks, reports, or records.
61.3 Requirement for certificates, ratings, 61.60 Change of address.
and authorizations.
61.4 Qualification and approval of flight Subpart B—Aircraft Ratings and Pilot
simulators and flight training devices. Authorizations
61.5 Certificates and ratings issued under
this part. 61.61 Applicability.
61.7 Obsolete certificates and ratings. 61.63 Additional aircraft ratings (other than
61.8 Inapplicability of unmanned aircraft for ratings at the airline transport pilot
operations. certification level).
61.9 [Reserved] 61.64 Use of a flight simulator and flight
61.11 Expired pilot certificates and training device.
reissuance. 61.65 Instrument rating requirements.
61.13 Issuance of airman certificates, rat- 61.66 Enhanced Flight Vision System Pilot
ings, and authorizations. Requirements.
61.14 [Reserved] 61.67 Category II pilot authorization re-
61.15 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs. quirements.
61.16 Refusal to submit to an alcohol test or 61.68 Category III pilot authorization re-
to furnish test results. quirements.
61.17 Temporary certificate. 61.69 Glider and unpowered ultralight vehi-
61.18 [Reserved] cle towing: Experience and training re-
61.19 Duration of pilot and instructor cer- quirements.
tificates and privileges. 61.71 Graduates of an approved training pro-
61.21 Duration of a Category II and a Cat- gram other than under this part: Special
egory III pilot authorization (for other rules.
than part 121 and part 135 use). 61.73 Military pilots or former military pi-
61.23 Medical certificates: Requirement and lots: Special rules.
duration. 61.75 Private pilot certificate issued on the
61.25 Change of name. basis of a foreign pilot license.
61.27 Voluntary surrender or exchange of 61.77 Special purpose pilot authorization:
certificate. Operation of a civil aircraft of the United
61.29 Replacement of a lost or destroyed air- States and leased by a non-U.S. citizen.
man or medical certificate or knowledge
test report. Subpart C—Student Pilots
61.31 Type rating requirements, additional
training, and authorization require- 61.81 Applicability.

ments. 61.83 Eligibility requirements for student
61.33 Tests: General procedure. pilots.
501
Pt. 61 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
61.85 Application. 61.158 [Reserved]
61.87 Solo requirements for student pilots. 61.159 Aeronautical experience: Airplane
61.89 General limitations. category rating.
61.91 [Reserved] 61.160 Aeronautical experience—airplane
61.93 Solo cross-country flight require- category restricted privileges.
ments. 61.161 Aeronautical experience: Rotorcraft
61.94 Student pilot seeking a sport pilot cer- category and helicopter class rating.
tificate or a recreational pilot certifi- 61.163 Aeronautical experience: Powered-lift
cate: Operations at airports within, and category rating.
in airspace located within, Class B, C, 61.165 Additional aircraft category and class
and D airspace, or at airports with an ratings.
operational control tower in other air- 61.167 Airline transport pilot privileges and
space. limitations.
61.95 Operations in Class B airspace and at 61.169 Letters of authorization for institu-
airports located within Class B airspace. tions of higher education.
61.170–61.171 [Reserved]
Subpart D—Recreational Pilots
Subpart H—Flight Instructors Other Than
61.96 Applicability and eligibility require-
ments: General. Flight Instructors With a Sport Pilot Rating
61.97 Aeronautical knowledge. 61.181 Applicability.
61.98 Flight proficiency. 61.183 Eligibility requirements.
61.99 Aeronautical experience. 61.185 Aeronautical knowledge.
61.100 Pilots based on small islands. 61.187 Flight proficiency.
61.101 Recreational pilot privileges and lim- 61.189 Flight instructor records.
itations. 61.191 Additional flight instructor ratings.
61.193 Flight instructor privileges.
Subpart E—Private Pilots 61.195 Flight instructor limitations and
61.102 Applicability. qualifications.
61.103 Eligibility requirements: General. 61.197 Renewal requirements for flight in-
61.105 Aeronautical knowledge. structor certification.
61.107 Flight proficiency. 61.199 Reinstatement requirements of an ex-
61.109 Aeronautical experience. pired flight instructor certificate.
61.110 Night flying exceptions. 61.201 [Reserved]
61.111 Cross-country flights: Pilots based on
small islands. Subpart I—Ground Instructors
61.113 Private pilot privileges and limita-
61.211 Applicability.
tions: Pilot in command.
61.213 Eligibility requirements.
61.115 Balloon rating: Limitations.
61.215 Ground instructor privileges.
61.117 Private pilot privileges and limita-
61.217 Recent experience requirements.
tions: Second in command of aircraft re-
quiring more than one pilot.
61.118–61.120 [Reserved]
Subpart J—Sport Pilots
61.301 What is the purpose of this subpart
Subpart F—Commercial Pilots and to whom does it apply?
61.121 Applicability. 61.303 If I want to operate a light-sport air-
61.123 Eligibility requirements: General. craft, what operating limits and endorse-
61.125 Aeronautical knowledge. ment requirements in this subpart must
61.127 Flight proficiency. I comply with?
61.129 Aeronautical experience. 61.305 What are the age and language re-
61.131 Exceptions to the night flying requirements for a sport pilot certificate?
quirements. 61.307 What tests do I have to take to obtain
61.133 Commercial pilot privileges and limi- a sport pilot certificate?
tations. 61.309 What aeronautical knowledge must I
61.135–61.141 [Reserved] have to apply for a sport pilot certifi-
cate?
Subpart G—Airline Transport Pilots 61.311 What flight proficiency requirements
must I meet to apply for a sport pilot
61.151 Applicability. certificate?
61.153 Eligibility requirements: General. 61.313 What aeronautical experience must I
61.155 Aeronautical knowledge. have to apply for a sport pilot certifi-
61.156 Training requirements: Airplane cat- cate?
egory—multiengine class rating or air- 61.315 What are the privileges and limits of
plane type rating concurrently with air- my sport pilot certificate?

line transport pilot certificate. 61.317 Is my sport pilot certificate issued
61.157 Flight proficiency. with aircraft category and class ratings?
502
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT Pt. 61, SFAR No. 73
61.319 [Reserved] 45102–45103, 45301–45302; Sec. 2307 Pub. L. 114–
61.321 How do I obtain privileges to operate 190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note).
an additional category or class of light-
SOURCE: Docket No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr.
sport aircraft?
4, 1997, unless otherwise noted.
61.323 [Reserved]
61.325 How do I obtain privileges to operate
a light-sport aircraft at an airport with-
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION
in, or in airspace within, Class B, C, and NO. 73—ROBINSON R–22/R–44 SPECIAL
D airspace, or in other airspace with an TRAINING AND EXPERIENCE REQUIRE-
airport having an operational control MENTS
tower?
61.327 Are there specific endorsement re- Sections
quirements to operate a light-sport air- 1. Applicability.
craft based on VH? 2. Required training, aeronautical experi-
ence, endorsements, and flight review.
Subpart K—Flight Instructors With a Sport 3. Expiration date.
Pilot Rating 1. Applicability. Under the procedures pre-
scribed herein, this SFAR applies to all per-
61.401 What is the purpose of this subpart? sons who seek to manipulate the controls or
61.403 What are the age, language, and pilot act as pilot in command of a Robinson model
certificate requirements for a flight in- R–22 or R–44 helicopter. The requirements
structor certificate with a sport pilot stated in this SFAR are in addition to the
rating? current requirements of part 61.
61.405 What tests do I have to take to obtain 2. Required training, aeronautical experi-
a flight instructor certificate with a ence, endorsements, and flight review.
sport pilot rating? (a) Awareness Training:
61.407 What aeronautical knowledge must I (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of
have to apply for a flight instructor cer- this section, no person may manipulate the
tificate with a sport pilot rating? controls of a Robinson model R–22 or R–44
61.409 What flight proficiency requirements helicopter after March 27, 1995, for the pur-
must I meet to apply for a flight instruc- pose of flight unless the awareness training
tor certificate with a sport pilot rating? specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section is
61.411 What aeronautical experience must I completed and the person’s logbook has been
have to apply for a flight instructor cer- endorsed by a certified flight instructor au-
tificate with a sport pilot rating? thorized under paragraph (b)(5) of this sec-
61.412 Do I need additional training to pro- tion.
vide instruction on control and maneu- (2) A person who holds a rotorcraft cat-
vering an airplane solely by reference to egory and helicopter class rating on that
the instruments in a light-sport aircraft person’s pilot certificate and meets the expe-
based on VH? rience requirements of paragraph (b)(1) or
61.413 What are the privileges of my flight paragraph (b)(2) of this section may not ma-
instructor certificate with a sport pilot nipulate the controls of a Robinson model R–
rating? 22 or R–44 helicopter for the purpose of flight
61.415 What are the limits of a flight in- after April 26, 1995, unless the awareness
structor certificate with a sport pilot training specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this
rating? section is completed and the person’s log-
61.417 Will my flight instructor certificate book has been endorsed by a certified flight
with a sport pilot rating list aircraft cat-
instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5)
egory and class ratings?
of this section.
61.419 How do I obtain privileges to provide
(3) Awareness training must be conducted
training in an additional category or
by a certified flight instructor who has been
class of light-sport aircraft?
endorsed under paragraph (b)(5) of this sec-
61.421 May I give myself an endorsement?
tion and consists of instruction in the fol-
61.423 What are the recordkeeping require-
lowing general subject areas:
ments for a flight instructor with a sport
(i) Energy management;
pilot rating?
(ii) Mast bumping;
61.425 How do I renew my flight instructor
(iii) Low rotor RPM (blade stall);
certificate?
(iv) Low G hazards; and
61.427 What must I do if my flight instruc-
(v) Rotor RPM decay.
tor certificate with a sport pilot rating
(4) A person who can show satisfactory
expires?
completion of the manufacturer’s safety
61.429 May I exercise the privileges of a
course after January 1, 1994, may obtain an
flight instructor certificate with a sport
endorsement from an FAA aviation safety
pilot rating if I hold a flight instructor
inspector in lieu of completing the aware-
certificate with another rating?
ness training required in paragraphs (a)(1)

AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, and (a)(2) of this section.
44701–44703, 44707, 44709–44711, 44729, 44903, (b) Aeronautical Experience:
503
Pt. 61, SFAR No. 73 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(1) No person may act as pilot in command have had at least 20 hours of dual instruction
of a Robinson model R–22 unless that person: in a Robinson R–22 helicopter prior to oper-
(i) Has had at least 200 flight hours in heli- ating it in solo flight. In addition, the person
copters, at least 50 flight hours of which must obtain an endorsement from a certified
were in the Robinson R–22; or flight instructor authorized under paragraph
(ii) Has had at least 10 hours dual instruc- (b)(5) of this section that instruction has
tion in the Robinson R–22 and has received been given in those maneuvers and proce-
an endorsement from a certified flight in- dures, and the instructor has found the ap-
structor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) of plicant proficient to solo a Robinson R–22.
this section that the individual has been This endorsement is valid for a period of 90
given the training required by this para- days. The dual instruction must include at
graph and is proficient to act as pilot in least the following abnormal and emergency
command of an R–22. Beginning 12 calendar procedures flight training:
months after the date of the endorsement, (i) Enhanced training in autorotation pro-
the individual may not act as pilot in com- cedures,
mand unless the individual has completed a (ii) Engine rotor RPM control without the
flight review in an R–22 within the preceding use of the governor,
12 calendar months and obtained an endorse- (iii) Low rotor RPM recognition and recov-
ment for that flight review. The dual in- ery, and
struction must include at least the following (iv) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper
abnormal and emergency procedures flight recovery procedures.
training: (4) A person who does not hold a rotorcraft
(A) Enhanced training in autorotation pro- category and helicopter class rating must
cedures, have had at least 20 hours of dual instruction
(B) Engine rotor RPM control without the in a Robinson R–44 helicopter prior to oper-
use of the governor, ating it in solo flight. In addition, the person
(C) Low rotor RPM recognition and recov- must obtain an endorsement from a certified
ery, and flight instructor authorized under paragraph
(D) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper (b)(5) of this section that instruction has
recovery procedures. been given in those maneuvers and proce-
(2) No person may act as pilot in command dures, and the instructor has found the ap-
of a Robinson R–44 unless that person— plicant proficient to solo a Robinson R–44.
(i) Has had at least 200 flight hours in heli- This endorsement is valid for a period of 90
copters, at least 50 flight hours of which days. The dual instruction must include at
were in the Robinson R–44. The pilot in com- least the following abnormal and emergency
mand may credit up to 25 flight hours in the procedures flight training:
Robinson R–22 toward the 50 hour require- (i) Enhanced training in autorotation pro-
ment in the Robinson R–44; or cedures,
(ii) Has had at least 10 hours dual instruc- (ii) Engine rotor RPM control without the
tion in a Robinson helicopter, at least 5 use of the governor,
hours of which must have been accomplished (iii) Low rotor RPM recognition and recov-
in the Robinson R–44 helicopter and has re- ery, and
ceived an endorsement from a certified flight (iv) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper
instructor authorized under paragraph (b)(5) recovery procedures.
of this section that the individual has been (5) No certificated flight instructor may
given the training required by this para- provide instruction or conduct a flight re-
graph and is proficient to act as pilot in view in a Robinson R–22 or R–44 unless that
command of an R–44. Beginning 12 calendar instructor—
months after the date of the endorsement, (i) Completes the awareness training in
the individual may not act as pilot in com- paragraph 2(a) of this SFAR.
mand unless the individual has completed a (ii) For the Robinson R–22, has had at least
flight review in a Robinson R–44 within the 200 flight hours in helicopters, at least 50
preceding 12 calendar months and obtained flight hours of which were in the Robinson
an endorsement for that flight review. The R–22, or for the Robinson R–44, has had at
dual instruction must include at least the least 200 flight hours in helicopters, 50 flight
following abnormal and emergency proce- hours of which were in Robinson helicopters.
dures flight training— Up to 25 flight hours of Robinson R–22 flight
(A) Enhanced training in autorotation pro- time may be credited toward the 50 hour re-
cedures; quirement.
(B) Engine rotor RPM control without the (iii) Has completed flight training in a
use of the governor; Robinson R–22, R–44, or both, on the fol-
(C) Low rotor RPM recognition and recov- lowing abnormal and emergency proce-
ery; and dures—
(D) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper (A) Enhanced training in autorotation pro-
recovery procedures. cedures;

(3) A person who does not hold a rotorcraft (B) Engine rotor RPM control without the
category and helicopter class rating must use of the governor;
504
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT Pt. 61, SFAR No. 100–2
(C) Low rotor RPM recognition and recov- (c) An expired written test report to show
ery; and eligibility to take a practical test required
(D) Effects of low G maneuvers and proper under part 65 or an expired inspection au-
recovery procedures. thorization to show eligibility for renewal
(iv) Has been authorized by endorsement under § 65.93.
from an FAA aviation safety inspector or au- 2. Eligibility. A person is eligible for the re-
thorized designated examiner that the in-
lief described in paragraph 1 of this SFAR if:
structor has completed the appropriate
training, meets the experience requirements (a) The person served in a U.S. military or
and has satisfactorily demonstrated an abil- civilian capacity outside the United States
ity to provide instruction on the general sub- in support of the U.S. Armed Forces’ oper-
ject areas of paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR, ation during some period of time from Sep-
and the flight training identified in para- tember 11, 2001, to termination of SFAR 100–
graph 2(b)(5)(iii) of this SFAR. 2;
(c) Flight Review: (b) The person’s flight instructor certifi-
(1) No flight review completed to satisfy cate, airman written test report, or inspec-
§ 61.56 by an individual after becoming eligi- tion authorization expired some time be-
ble to function as pilot in command in a tween September 11, 2001, and 6 calendar
Robinson R–22 helicopter shall be valid for months after returning to the United States
the operation of R–22 helicopter unless that or termination of SFAR 100–2, whichever is
flight review was taken in an R–22. earlier; and
(2) No flight review completed to satisfy
(c) The person complies with § 61.197 or
§ 61.56 by individual after becoming eligible
§ 65.93 of this chapter, as appropriate, or com-
to function as pilot in command in a Robin-
son R–44 helicopter shall be valid for the op- pletes the appropriate practical test within 6
eration of R–44 helicopter unless that flight calendar months after returning to the
review was taken in the R–44. United States, or upon termination of SFAR
(3) The flight review will include a review 100–2, whichever is earlier.
of the awareness training subject areas of 3. Required documents. The person must
paragraph 2(a)(3) of this SFAR and the flight send the Airman Certificate and/or Rating
training identified in paragraph 2(b) of this Application (FAA Form 8710–1) to the appro-
SFAR. priate Flight Standards office. The person
(d) Currency Requirements: No person may must include with the application one of the
act as pilot in command of a Robinson model following documents, which must show the
R–22 or R–44 helicopter carrying passengers date of assignment outside the United States
unless the pilot in command has met the and the date of return to the United States:
recency of flight experience requirements of (a) An official U.S. Government notifica-
§ 61.57 in an R–22 or R–44, as appropriate. tion of personnel action, or equivalent docu-
3. Expiration date. This SFAR No. 73 shall
ment, showing the person was a civilian on
remain in effect until it is revised or re-
official duty for the U.S. Government out-
scinded.
side the United States and was assigned to a
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as U.S. Armed Forces’ operation some time be-
amended by SFAR 73–1, 63 FR 666, Jan. 7, tween September 11, 2001, to termination of
1998; 68 FR 43, Jan. 2, 2003; Amdt. 61–120, 73 SFAR 100–2;
FR 17246, Apr. 1, 2008; Amdt. SFAR 73–2, 74 (b) Military orders showing the person was
FR 25650, May 29, 2009] assigned to duty outside the United States
and was assigned to a U.S. Armed Forces’ op-
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION
eration some time between September 11,
NO. 100–2—RELIEF FOR U.S. MILI- 2001, to termination of SFAR 100–2 ; or
TARY AND CIVILIAN PERSONNEL WHO
(c) A letter from the person’s military
ARE ASSIGNED OUTSIDE THE UNITED commander or civilian supervisor providing
STATES IN SUPPORT OF U.S. ARMED the dates during which the person served
FORCES OPERATIONS outside the United States and was assigned
to a U.S. Armed Forces’ operation some time
1. Applicability. Flight Standards offices are
authorized to accept from an eligible person, between September 11, 2001, to termination
as described in paragraph 2 of this SFAR, the of SFAR 100–2.
following: 4. Expiration date. This Special Federal
(a) An expired flight instructor certificate Aviation Regulation No. 100–2 is effective
to show eligibility for renewal of a flight in- until further notice.
structor certificate under § 61.197, or an ex-
[Doc. No. FAA–2009–0923, 75 FR 9766, Mar. 4,
pired written test report to show eligibility
2010, as amended by Docket FAA–2018–0119,
under part 61 to take a practical test;
Amdt. 61–141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]
(b) An expired written test report to show

eligibility under §§ 63.33 and 63.57 to take a
practical test; and
505
Pt. 61, SFAR 118–2 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION (D) A flight to transport essential goods

NO. 118–2—RELIEF FOR CERTAIN and medical supplies to support public
PERSONS DURING THE NATIONAL health needs;
(3) For operations conducted under part 91,
EMERGENCY CONCERNING THE NOVEL subpart K, and part 125 of this chapter, per-
CORONAVIRUS DISEASE (COVID–19) sons who are serving as flight attendant
PUBLIC HEALTH EMERGENCY crewmembers, check pilots, and flight in-
structors; and
1. Applicability. This Special Federal Avia- (4) Operations conducted under part 107 of
tion Regulation (SFAR) applies to— this chapter by a person who holds a remote
(a) Certain persons who are unable to meet pilot certificate issued under part 107 of this
the following requirements during some pe- chapter.
riod between March 1, 2020 and January 31, (b) This Part.
2021— (1) Second-in-command qualifications of
(1) Training, recency, testing and checking § 61.55. (i) Airmen requirements. (A) Notwith-
requirements specified in parts 61, 91, 107, standing the period specified in § 61.55(c), a
and 125 of this chapter, and SFAR No. 73 of person who is required to complete the sec-
this part; and ond-in-command familiarization and cur-
(2) Duration and renewal requirements rency requirements under § 61.55(b)(1) and (2)
specified in parts 61, 63, 65, and 141 of this between March 1, 2020 and September 30, 2020
chapter, and SFAR No. 100–2 of this part; and for purposes of maintaining second-in-com-
(b) Certain air carriers and operators who mand privileges may complete the require-
are unable to obtain special flight permits ments of § 61.55(b)(1) and (2) in the month be-
with a continuing authorization under part fore or three months after the month in
21 of this chapter for the purpose of flying which they are required, provided the pilot
the aircraft to a point of storage. meets the requirements of paragraph
2. Training, recency, testing, and checking re- 2.(b)(1)(ii) of this SFAR.
quirements. (B) Notwithstanding the period specified in
(a) Applicability. The relief provided by § 61.55(c), a person who is required to com-
paragraph 2 of this SFAR applies to— plete the second-in-command familiarization
(1) Operations conducted for compensation and currency requirements under § 61.55(b)(1)
or hire under parts 91, 125, 133, and 137 of this and (2) between October 1, 2020 and January
chapter by persons who are exercising the 31, 2021 for purposes of maintaining second-
privileges of at least a commercial pilot cer- in-command privileges may complete the re-
tificate issued under this part; quirements of § 61.55(b)(1) and (2) in the
month before or two months after the month
(2) Operations conducted by persons who
in which they are required, provided the
are exercising the privileges of a private
pilot meets the requirements of paragraph
pilot certificate issued under this part, pro-
2.(b)(1)(ii) of this SFAR.
vided the person meets one of the following
(C) A pilot who meets the requirements of
paragraphs—
§ 61.55(b)(1) and (2) in accordance with para-
(i) The person is conducting a charitable
graph 2.(b)(1)(i)(A) or paragraph 2.(b)(1)(i)(B)
medical flight for a volunteer pilot organiza-
of this SFAR will be considered to have com-
tion pursuant to an exemption issued under
pleted the requirements in the month in
part 11 of this chapter, and the flight in-
which they were due.
volves only the carriage of persons consid- (ii) Qualification requirements. To complete
ered essential for the flight; the requirements of § 61.55(b)(1) or (2) within
(ii) The person is conducting an agricul- the period specified in paragraph
tural aircraft operation under a private agri- 2.(b)(1)(i)(A) or paragraph 2.(b)(1)(i)(B) of this
cultural aircraft operating certificate issued SFAR, the person—
in accordance with § 137.19 of this chapter; (A) Must review and become familiar with
(iii) The person has at least 500 hours of the following information for the specific
total time as a pilot, that includes at least type of aircraft for which second-in-com-
400 hours as a pilot in command and at least mand privileges are sought—
50 hours that were accrued within the pre- (1) Operational procedures applicable to
ceding 12 calendar months, and the person is the powerplant, equipment, and systems;
conducting one of the following operations (2) Performance specifications and limita-
consistent with the compensation or hire ex- tions;
ceptions specified in § 61.113: (3) Normal, abnormal, and emergency oper-
(A) A flight incidental to that person’s ating procedures;
business or employment; (4) Flight manual; and
(B) A flight in support of family medical (5) Placards and markings; and
needs or to transport essential goods for per- (B) Prior to serving as second-in-command,
sonal use; must have logged at least three takeoffs and
(C) A flight necessary to fly an aircraft to landings to a full stop as the sole manipu-
a location in order to meet a requirement of lator of the flight controls within the 180
this chapter; or days preceding the date of the flight.
506
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT Pt. 61, SFAR 118–2
(2) Flight review requirements of § 61.56. A under simulated conditions using a view-lim-
person who has not completed a flight review iting device; and
within the previous 24 calendar months in (B) Within the 9 calendar months preceding
accordance with § 61.56 may continue to act the month of the flight, performed and
as pilot in command of an aircraft, provided logged the tasks required by § 61.57(c)(1).
the following requirements are met— (ii) Grace period. Between April 30, 2020 and
(i) Airmen requirements. The person was cur- September 30, 2020, a person who meets the
rent to act as pilot in command of an air- qualification requirements of paragraph
craft in March 2020 and, to maintain cur- 2.(b)(3)(i) of this SFAR may act as pilot in
rency, is required to complete a flight review command under IFR or in weather condi-
under § 61.56 between March 1, 2020 and Janu- tions less than the minimums prescribed for
ary 31, 2021. VFR.
(ii) Qualification requirements. To act as (iii) Instrument currency after September 30,
pilot in command of an aircraft during the 2020. Before acting as pilot in command
period specified in paragraph 2.(b)(2)(iii)(A) under IFR or in weather conditions less than
or paragraph 2.(b)(2)(iii)(B) of this SFAR, the the minimums prescribed for VFR after Sep-
person must have— tember 30, 2020, the person must comply with
(A) Within the 12 calendar months pre- § 61.57(c).
ceding the month in which the flight review (4) Pilot in command proficiency check re-
is due, logged at least 10 hours of flight time quirements of § 61.58. (i) Airmen requirements.
(A) Notwithstanding the period specified in
as pilot in command in an aircraft for which
§ 61.58(i), a pilot who is required to take a
that pilot is rated; and
pilot in command proficiency check under
(B) Since January 1, 2020 and preceding the
§ 61.58(a)(1) or (2) between March 1, 2020 and
date of flight, completed online Wings
September 30, 2020 for purposes of maintain-
courses for pilots from the FAA Safety Team
ing pilot in command privileges may com-
website, available at www.faasafety.gov. The
plete the check in the month before or three
online training courses must total at least 3 months after the month in which it is re-
Wings credits. quired, provided the pilot meets the require-
(iii) Grace period. (A) A person who is re- ments of paragraph 2.(b)(4)(ii) of this SFAR.
quired to complete a flight review under (B) Notwithstanding the period specified in
§ 61.56 between March 1, 2020 and September § 61.58(i), a pilot who is required to take a
30, 2020 may act as pilot in command of an pilot in command proficiency check under
aircraft for a duration of three calendar § 61.58(a)(1) or (2) between October 1, 2020 and
months from the month in which the flight January 31, 2021 for purposes of maintaining
review was due. Before acting as pilot in pilot in command privileges may complete
command of an aircraft in the fourth month the check in the month before or two months
after the month in which the flight review after the month in which it is required, pro-
was due, the person must satisfactorily com- vided the pilot meets the requirements of
plete a flight review in accordance with paragraph 2.(b)(4)(ii) of this SFAR.
§ 61.56. (C) A pilot who completes the proficiency
(B) A person who is required to complete a check within the period prescribed by this
flight review under § 61.56 between October 1, paragraph 2.(b)(4)(i)(A) or paragraph
2020 and January 31, 2021 may act as pilot in 2.(b)(4)(i)(B) of this SFAR will be considered
command of an aircraft for a duration of two to have completed the check in the month in
calendar months from the month in which which it was required.
the flight review was due. Before acting as (ii) Qualification requirements. To complete
pilot in command of an aircraft in the third the pilot in command proficiency check re-
month after the month in which the flight quired by § 61.58(a)(1) or (2) within the period
review was due, the person must satisfac- specified in paragraph 2.(b)(4)(i)(A) or para-
torily complete a flight review in accordance graph 2.(b)(4)(i)(B) of this SFAR, the per-
with § 61.56. son—
(3) Instrument experience requirements of (A) Must meet the flight experience re-
§ 61.57. A person who has not performed and quirements of § 61.57 that are applicable to
logged the tasks required by § 61.57(c)(1) the operation to be conducted; and
within the 6 calendar months preceding the (B) Within the 3 calendar months preceding
month of the flight may continue to act as the month of the flight, must have reviewed
pilot in command under IFR or in weather the following information for the specific
conditions less than the minimums pre- type of aircraft for which pilot in command
scribed for VFR, provided the following re- privileges are sought—
quirements are met— (1) Operational procedures applicable to
(i) Qualification requirements. The person the powerplant, equipment, and systems;
has— (2) Performance specifications and limita-
(A) Within the 6 calendar months pre- tions;
ceding the month of the flight, performed (3) Normal, abnormal, and emergency oper-
and logged at least three instrument ap- ating procedures;
proaches in actual weather conditions, or (4) Flight manual; and
507
(5) Placards and markings. chapter may continue to use that type of ap-
(5) Flight Crewmember Requirements of Part proach procedure, provided the following re-
91, Subpart K, of this Chapter. quirements are met—
(i) Testing and checking Requirements. (A) (1) Airmen requirements. The person was cur-
Notwithstanding the period specified in rent under § 91.1069(c) of this chapter to use
§ 91.1071(a) of this chapter, a crewmember that type of precision instrument approach
who is required to take a test or a flight procedure in March 2020, and is required to
check under § 91.1065(a), § 91.1065(b), § 91.1067, demonstrate that type of precision instru-
§ 91.1069(a), or § 91.1069(b) of this chapter be- ment approach procedure between March 1,
tween March 1, 2020 and September 30, 2020 2020 and January 31, 2021.
for purposes of maintaining qualification
(2) Grace period. (i) For a person who is re-
may complete the test or check in the month
quired to demonstrate that type of precision
before or three months after the month it is
instrument approach procedure between
required, provided the requirements of para-
March 1, 2020 and September 30, 2020, the per-
graph 2.(b)(5)(vi) of this SFAR are met.
(B) Notwithstanding the period specified in son satisfactorily demonstrates that type of
§ 91.1071(a) of this chapter, a crewmember precision instrument approach procedure
who is required to take a test or a flight within three months after the month in
check under § 91.1065(a), § 91.1065(b), § 91.1067, which it was required.
§ 91.1069(a), or § 91.1069(b) of this chapter be- (ii) For a person who is required to dem-
tween October 1, 2020 and January 31, 2021 for onstrate that type of precision instrument
purposes of maintaining qualification may approach procedure between October 1, 2020
complete the test or check in the month be- and January 31, 2021, the person satisfac-
fore or two months after the month it is re- torily demonstrates that type of precision
quired, provided the requirements of para- instrument approach procedure within two
graph 2.(b)(5)(vi) of this SFAR are met. months after the month in which it was re-
(C) A crewmember who completes a test or quired.
check in accordance with paragraph (3) Safety mitigations. The management
2.(b)(5)(i)(A) or paragraph 2.(b)(5)(i)(B) of this specification holder satisfies paragraph
SFAR will be considered to have completed 2.(b)(5)(vi) of this SFAR.
the test or check in the month in which it (B) Non-precision instrument approaches. A
was required. pilot who has not satisfactorily dem-
(ii) Recurrent training requirements. (A) Not- onstrated either the type of non-precision in-
withstanding the period specified in strument approach procedure to be used, or
§ 91.1073(b) of this chapter, a crewmember any other two different types of non-preci-
who is required to complete recurrent train- sion approach procedures, within the pre-
ing under § 91.1099 or § 91.1107(c) of this chap- vious six months in accordance with
ter between March 1, 2020 and September 30, § 91.1069(c) of this chapter may continue to
2020 for purposes of maintaining qualifica- use that type of non-precision instrument
tion may complete that training in the approach procedure, provided the following
month before or three months after the
requirements are met—
month in which it is required, provided the
(1) Airmen requirements. The person was cur-
requirements of paragraph 2.(b)(5)(vi) of this
rent under § 91.1069(c) of this chapter to use
SFAR are met.
(B) Notwithstanding the period specified in that type of non-precision instrument ap-
§ 91.1073(b) of this chapter, a crewmember proach procedure in March 2020, and is re-
who is required to complete recurrent train- quired to demonstrate that type of non-pre-
ing under § 91.1099 or § 91.1107(c) of this chap- cision instrument approach procedure, or
ter between October 1, 2020 and January 31, any other two different types of non-preci-
2021 for purposes of maintaining qualifica- sion instrument approach procedures, be-
tion may complete that training in the tween March 1, 2020 and January 31, 2021.
month before or two months after the month (2) Grace period. (i) For a person who is re-
in which it is required, provided the require- quired to demonstrate that type of non-pre-
ments of paragraph 2.(b)(5)(vi) of this SFAR cision instrument approach procedure be-
are met. tween March 1, 2020 and September 30, 2020,
(C) A crewmember who completes recur- the person satisfactorily demonstrates that
rent training in accordance with this para- type of non-precision instrument approach
graph 2.(b)(5)(ii)(A) or paragraph procedure within three months after the
2.(b)(5)(ii)(B) will be considered to have com- month in which it was required.
pleted the training in the month in which it (ii) For a person who is required to dem-
was required. onstrate that type of non-precision instru-
(iii) Instrument experience. ment approach procedure between October 1,
(A) Precision instrument approaches. A pilot 2020 and January 31, 2021, the person satisfac-
who has not satisfactorily demonstrated the torily demonstrates that type of non-preci-
type of precision instrument approach proce- sion instrument approach procedure within
dure to be used within the previous six two months after the month in which it was
months in accordance with § 91.1069(c) of this required.
508
(3) Safety mitigations. The management ance with this paragraph 2.(b)(5)(v) will be
specification holder satisfies paragraph considered to have completed the check in
2.(b)(5)(vi) of this SFAR. the month it which it was due.
(iv) Check pilot (simulator) and flight instruc- (vi) Safety mitigations. The management
tor (simulator) requirements. (A) Notwith- specification holder must provide an accept-
standing the period specified in §§ 91.1089(g) able plan to the responsible Flight Standards
and 91.1091(g) of this chapter, a check pilot office that contains the following informa-
(simulator) or flight instructor (simulator) tion—
who is required to complete the flight seg- (A) A safety analysis and corresponding
ments or line-observation program under risk mitigations to be implemented by the
§ 91.1089(f) or § 91.1091(f) of this chapter be- management specification holder; and
tween March 1, 2020 and September 30, 2020 (B) The method the management specifica-
for purposes of maintaining qualification tion holder will use to ensure that each
may complete the flight segments or line-ob- crewmember complying with paragraph
servation program requirements in the 2.(b)(5) of this SFAR remains adequately
month before or three months after the tested and currently proficient for each air-
month they are required, provided the re- craft, duty position, and type of operation in
quirements of paragraph 2.(b)(5)(vi) of this which the person serves.
SFAR are met. (6) Mitsubishi MU–2B Series Special Training,
(B) Notwithstanding the period specified in Experience, and Operating Requirements of Part
§§ 91.1089(g) and 91.1091(g) of this chapter, a 91, Subpart N, of this Chapter.
check pilot (simulator) or flight instructor
(i) Recurrent training. (A) Notwithstanding
(simulator) who is required to complete the
the period specified in § 91.1705(e) of this
flight segments or line-observation program
chapter, a person who is required to com-
under § 91.1089(f) or § 91.1091(f) of this chapter
plete recurrent training under § 91.1703(e) of
between October 1, 2020 and January 31, 2021
this chapter between March 1, 2020 and Sep-
for purposes of maintaining qualification
tember 30, 2020 for purposes of complying
may complete the flight segments or line-ob-
servation program requirements in the with § 91.1705(a) and (b) may complete the re-
month before or two months after the month current training in the month before or
they are required, provided the requirements three months after the month the recurrent
of paragraph 2.(b)(5)(vi) of this SFAR are training is required, provided the require-
met. ments of paragraph 2.(b)(6)(iii) of this SFAR
(C) A check pilot (simulator) or flight in- are met.
structor (simulator) who completes the (B) Notwithstanding the period specified in
flight segments or line-observation program § 91.1705(e) of this chapter, a person who is re-
requirements in accordance with this para- quired to complete recurrent training under
graph 2.(b)(5)(iv) will be considered to have § 91.1703(e) of this chapter between October 1,
completed the requirements in the month in 2020 and January 31, 2021 for purposes of com-
which they were due. plying with § 91.1705(a) and (b) may complete
(v) Check pilot and flight instructor observa- the recurrent training in the month before
tion check requirements. (A) Notwithstanding or two months after the month the recurrent
the period specified in §§ 91.1093(b) and training is required, provided the require-
91.1095(b) of this chapter, a check pilot or ments of paragraph 2.(b)(6)(iii) of this SFAR
flight instructor who is required to complete are met.
an observation check under § 91.1093(a)(2) or (C) A person who completes the recurrent
§ 91.1095(a)(2) of this chapter between March training in accordance with this paragraph
1, 2020 and September 30, 2020 for purposes of 2.(b)(6)(i) will be considered to have com-
maintaining qualification may complete the pleted the training in the month it was re-
observation check in the month before or quired.
three months after the month it is required, (ii) Flight review. A person who has not
provided the requirements of paragraph completed a flight review in accordance with
2.(b)(5)(vi) of this SFAR are met. §§ 61.56 and 91.1715(c) of this chapter in a
(B) Notwithstanding the period specified in Mitsubishi MU–2B series airplane or an MU–
§§ 91.1093(b) and 91.1095(b) of this chapter, a 2B Simulator approved for landings with an
check pilot or flight instructor who is re- approved course conducted under part 142 of
quired to complete an observation check this chapter may continue to act as pilot in
under § 91.1093(a)(2) or § 91.1095(a)(2) of this command of a Mitsubishi MU–2B series air-
chapter between October 1, 2020 and January plane, providing the following requirements
31, 2021 for purposes of maintaining qualifica- are met—
tion may complete the observation check in (A) Airmen requirements. The person was—
the month before or two months after the (1) Current to act as pilot in command of a
month it is required, provided the require- Mitsubishi MU–2B series airplane in March
ments of paragraph 2.(b)(5)(vi) of this SFAR 2020 and, to maintain currency, is required to
are met. complete a flight review in a Mitsubishi MU–

(C) A check pilot or flight instructor who 2B series airplane between March 1, 2020 and
completes an observation check in accord- January 31, 2021; and
509
(2) The requirements of paragraph (3) The limitations, procedures, aircraft
2.(b)(6)(iii) of this SFAR are met. performance, and MU–2B Cockpit Checklist
(B) Grace period. (1) A person who is re- procedures applicable to the MU–2B model to
quired to complete a flight review in a be flown, which are contained in the flight
Mitsubishi MU–2B series airplane between training curriculum required by § 91.1705(h)(2)
March 1, 2020 and September 30, 2020 may act of this chapter; and
as pilot in command of a Mitsubishi MU–2B (4) The current general operating and
series airplane for a duration for three cal- flight rules of part 91 of this chapter.
endar months from the month in which the (7) Aeronautical Knowledge Recency Require-
flight review was due. Before acting as pilot ments of § 107.65 of this Chapter. A person who
in command of an aircraft in the fourth has not satisfied the aeronautical knowledge
month after the month in which the flight recency requirements of § 107.65(a) or (b) of
review was due, the person must satisfac- this chapter within the previous 24 calendar
torily complete a flight review in accordance months may operate a small unmanned air-
with §§ 61.56 and 91.1715(c) of this chapter in a craft system under part 107 of this chapter,
Mitsubishi MU–2B series airplane or an MU– provided that person meets the following re-
2B Simulator approved for landings with an quirements—
approved course conducted under part 142 of (i) Airmen requirements. The person was cur-
this chapter. rent to exercise the privileges of a remote
(2) A person who is required to complete a pilot certificate in March 2020 and, to main-
flight review in a Mitsubishi MU–2B series tain aeronautical currency, is required to
airplane between October 1, 2020 and January
meet the aeronautical recency requirements
31, 2021 may act as pilot in command of a
in § 107.65(a) or (b) of this chapter between
Mitsubishi MU–2B series airplane for a dura-
April 1, 2020 and September 30, 2020.
tion for two calendar months from the
(ii) Qualification requirements. The person
month in which the flight review was due.
must have completed an FAA-developed ini-
Before acting as pilot in command of an air-
tial or recurrent online training course,
craft in the third month after the month in
which the flight review was due, the person available at www.faasafety.gov, covering the
must satisfactorily complete a flight review areas of knowledge specified in § 107.74(a) or
in accordance with §§ 61.56 and 91.1715(c) of (b) of this chapter. Each person is eligible to
this chapter in a Mitsubishi MU–2B series take an online training course specified in
airplane or an MU–2B Simulator approved this paragraph 2.(b)(7)(ii) one time for the
for landings with an approved course con- purpose of obtaining the six calendar month
ducted under part 142 of this chapter. period specified in paragraph 2.(b)(7)(iii) of
(iii) Qualification requirements. To complete this SFAR;
the recurrent training during the period pro- (iii) Grace period. The person may operate a
vided under paragraph 2.(b)(6)(i)(A) or para- small unmanned aircraft system under part
graph 2.(b)(6)(i)(B) of this SFAR or to com- 107 of this chapter for a duration of six cal-
plete the flight review during the period pro- endar months from the month in which the
vided under paragraph 2.(b)(6)(ii)(A) or para- person completed the online training course
graph 2.(b)(6)(ii)(B) of this SFAR, the person specified in paragraph 2.(b)(7)(ii) of this
must— SFAR. Before operating a small unmanned
(A) Within the 12 calendar months pre- aircraft system under part 107 in the seventh
ceding the month the recurrent training or month after the month in which the person
flight review is due, logged at least 10 hours completed the online training course, the
of flight time in an MU–2B series airplane person must satisfy § 107.65 of this chapter.
that includes at least 3 hours of flight time (8) Flight Crewmember Requirements of Part
in the 3 calendar months preceding the 125 of this Chapter.
month in which the recurrent training or (i) Recent experience requirements. A person
flight review is due; who has not satisfied the recent experience
(B) Since January 1, 2020, completed online requirements of § 125.285(a) of this chapter
Wings courses for pilots from FAA Safety may be used by a certificate holder (or hold-
Team website, available at er of an A125 letter of deviation authority),
www.faasafety.gov. The online training and may serve as a required pilot flight
courses must total at least 3 Wings credits; crewmember, in operations conducted under
and part 125 of this chapter, provided the fol-
(C) Prior to manipulating the controls of lowing requirements are met—
an MU–2B series airplane, completed three (A) Grace period. (1) For flights between
hours of self-study, since January 1, 2020 and March 1, 2020 and September 30, 2020, the per-
preceding the date of the flight, on the fol- son has made at least three takeoffs and
lowing subjects— landings, within the preceding 150 days, in
(1) The ground training curriculum re- the type of airplane in which that person is
quired by § 91.1705(h)(1) of this chapter; to serve.
(2) The Special Emphasis Items listed in the (2) For flights between October 1, 2020 and
approved MU–2B training program that the January 31, 2021, the person has made at
pilot last completed; least three takeoffs and landings, within the
510
preceding 120 days, in the type of airplane in as appropriate, between March 1, 2020 and
which that person is to serve. January 31, 2021.
(B) Safety Mitigations. The certificate hold- (ii) Qualification requirements. The person
er complies with paragraph 2.(b)(8)(iii) of must—
this SFAR. (A) Satisfy the qualification requirements
(ii) Testing and checking requirements. (A) specified in paragraph 2.(b)(2)(ii) of this
Notwithstanding the period specified in SFAR, except
§ 125.293(a) of this chapter, a crewmember (1) The 10 hours of flight time as pilot in
who is required to take a test or check under command must be obtained in a Robinson
§ 125.287(a), § 125.287(b), § 125.289, or § 125.291(a) model R–22 or R–44 helicopter, as appropriate
of this chapter between March 1, 2020 and to the privileges sought;
September 30, 2020 for purposes of maintain- (2) At least 3 hours of flight time must be
ing qualifications may complete the test or obtained within the 3 calendar months pre-
check in the month before or three months ceding the month in which the flight review
after the month it is required, provided the is due; and
requirements of paragraph 2.(b)(8)(iii) of this (3) The courses required by paragraphs
SFAR are met. 2.(b)(9)(ii)(C) and (D) of this SFAR may count
(B) Notwithstanding the period specified in towards the 3 Wings credits.
§ 125.293(a) of this chapter, a crewmember (B) Complete three hours of self-study,
who is required to take a test or check under since January 1, 2020 and preceding the date
§ 125.287(a), § 125.287(b), § 125.289, or § 125.291(a) of flight, on the following subjects—
of this chapter between October 1, 2020 and (1) The awareness training subject areas
January 31, 2021 for purposes of maintaining specified in paragraphs 2.(a)(3)(i) through (v)
qualifications may complete the test or of SFAR No. 73 of this part;
check in the month before or two months (2) The current general operating and
after the month it is required, provided the flight rules of part 91 of this chapter;
requirements of paragraph 2.(b)(8)(iii) of this (3) Robinson R–22 or R–44 Maneuvers
SFAR are met. Guide, as applicable to the model(s) in which
(C) A crewmember who completes the test the airmen holds pilot in command privi-
or check in accordance with this paragraph leges;
2.(b)(8)(ii) will be considered to have com- (C) Complete Course ALC–103: Helicopter
pleted the test or check in the month in Weight and Balance, Performance at
which it was required. www.faasafety.gov; and
(iii) Safety mitigations. The certificate hold- (D) Complete Course ALC–104: Helicopter—
er (or holder of an A125 letter of deviation General and Flight Aerodynamics at
authority) must provide an acceptable plan www.faasafety.gov.
to its assigned principal operations inspector (iii) Grace period. (A) A person who is re-
that contains the following information— quired to complete a flight review under
(A) A safety analysis and corresponding § 61.56 between March 1, 2020 and September
risk mitigations to be implemented by the 30, 2020 may act as a pilot in command of a
certificate holder (or holder of an A125 letter Robinson model R–22 or R–44 helicopter, as
of deviation authority); and appropriate, for a duration of three calendar
(B) The method the certificate holder (or months from the month in which the flight
holder of an A125 letter of deviation author- review was due. Before acting as pilot in
ity) will use to ensure that each crewmember command of an aircraft in the fourth month
complying with paragraph 2.(b)(8) of this after the month in which the flight review
SFAR remains adequately tested and cur- was due, the person must satisfactorily com-
rently proficient for each aircraft, duty posi- plete a flight review in a Robinson model R–
tion, and type of operation in which the per- 22 or R–44 helicopter, as appropriate to the
son serves. privileges sought, in accordance with para-
(9) Robinson R–22/R–44 Special Training and graph 2(c) of SFAR No. 73 of this part and
Experience Requirements of SFAR No. 73 of this § 61.56.
Part. A person who has not completed a (B) A person who is required to complete a
flight review in a Robinson model R–22 or R– flight review under § 61.56 between October 1,
44 helicopter, as appropriate, within the pre- 2020 and January 31, 2021 may act as a pilot
ceding 24 calendar months in accordance in command of a Robinson model R–22 or R–
with paragraph 2(c) of SFAR No. 73 and 44 helicopter, as appropriate, for a duration
§ 61.56, may continue to act as pilot in com- of two calendar months from the month in
mand of a Robinson model R–22 or R–44 heli- which the flight review was due. Before act-
copter, as appropriate, providing the fol- ing as pilot in command of an aircraft in the
lowing requirements are met— third month after the month in which the
(i) Airmen requirements. The person was cur- flight review was due, the person must satis-
rent to act as pilot in command of a Robin- factorily complete a flight review in a Rob-
son model R–22 or R–44 helicopter, as appro- inson model R–22 or R–44 helicopter, as ap-
priate, in March 2020 and, to maintain cur- propriate to the privileges sought, in accord-
rency, is required to complete a flight review ance with paragraph 2(c) of SFAR No. 73 of
in a Robinson model R–22 or R–44 helicopter, this part and § 61.56.
511
3. Duration and renewal requirements. passed between October 1, 2018 and January
(a) This Part. 31, 2019; or
(1) Extension of medical certificate duration (iv) Within the 62-calendar month period
requirements. (i) The expiration date of a preceding the month the applicant completes
first-, second-, or third-class medical certifi- the practical test for those applicants who
cate that expires between March 31, 2020 and complete the airline transport pilot certifi-
January 31, 2021 is extended three calendar cation training program in § 61.156 and pass
months from the duration established in the knowledge test for an airline transport
§ 61.23(d) of this part as follows: pilot certificate with a multiengine class
(A) For first-, second-, and third-class med- rating, provided the knowledge test was
ical certificates that expire between March passed between October 1, 2015 and January
31, 2020 and September 30, 2020, the expira- 31, 2016.
tion date is extended for three calendar (3) Extension of renewal requirements for
months; flight instructor certification. The holder of a
(B) Except as provided in paragraph flight instructor certificate that expires be-
3.(a)(1)(i)(C) of this SFAR, for first-, second- tween March 31, 2020 and May 31, 2020 may
, and third-class medical certificates that ex- renew his or her flight instructor certificate
pire between October 31, 2020 and January 31, by submitting a completed and signed appli-
2021, the expiration date is extended for two cation to the FAA and satisfactorily com-
calendar months; and pleting one of the renewal requirements
(C) For first-, second-, and third-class med- specified in § 61.197(a)(2)(i) through (iv) before
ical certificates that expire between October June 30, 2020.
31, 2020 and January 31, 2021, the expiration (b) Part 63 of this Chapter.
date is extended for three calendar months if (1) Extension of medical certificate duration
the holder of the medical certificate resides requirements. (i) For a person acting as a
in or serves as a pilot of an aircraft in the flight engineer of an aircraft, the expiration
State of Alaska. date of a second-class (or higher) medical
(ii) A certificate extended under this para- certificate that expires between March 31,
graph 3.(a)(1) is considered valid under 2020 and September 30, 2020 is extended 3 cal-
§ 61.2(a)(5). endar months from the original expiration
(iii) Unless otherwise prohibited by a for- date.
eign country, a person may operate outside (ii) Except as provided in paragraph
of the United States under this paragraph 3.(b)(1)(iii) of this SFAR, for a person acting
3.(a)(1) if the person— as a flight engineer of an aircraft, the expira-
(A) Has access to this SFAR when outside tion date of a second-class (or higher) med-
the United States; and ical certificate that expires between October
(B) Presents a copy of this SFAR for in- 31, 2020 and January 31, 2021 is extended 2 cal-
spection upon request by a foreign Civil endar months from the original expiration
Aviation Authority in accordance with the date.
Convention on International Civil Aviation (iii) For a person acting as a flight engi-
(Chicago Convention), and its Annexes. neer of an aircraft, the expiration date of a
(2) Extension of knowledge test duration re- second-class (or higher) medical certificate
quirements in § 61.39. An applicant for a cer- that expires between October 31, 2020 and
tificate or rating issued under part 61 of this January 31, 2021 is extended 3 calendar
chapter may satisfy the eligibility require- months from the original expiration date if
ment in § 61.39(a)(1) by passing the required the flight engineer resides in or serves as a
knowledge test: flight engineer in an aircraft in the State of
(i) Within the 27-calendar month period Alaska.
preceding the month the applicant completes (iv) Unless otherwise prohibited by a for-
the practical test, if a knowledge test is re- eign country, a person may operate outside
quired, provided the knowledge test was of the United States under this paragraph
passed between March 1, 2018 and September 3.(b)(1) if the person:
30, 2018; (A) Has access to this SFAR when outside
(ii) Within the 63-calendar month period the United States; and
preceding the month the applicant completes (B) Presents a copy of this SFAR for in-
the practical test for those applicants who spection upon request by a foreign Civil
complete the airline transport pilot certifi- Aviation Authority in accordance with the
cation training program in § 61.156 and pass Convention on International Civil Aviation
the knowledge test for an airline transport (Chicago Convention), and its Annexes.
pilot certificate with a multiengine class (2) Extension of written test duration require-
rating, provided the knowledge test was ments in § 63.35 of this chapter. (i) An appli-
passed between March 1, 2015 and September cant for a flight engineer certificate or rat-
30, 2015; ing may satisfy the knowledge requirement
(iii) Within the 26-calendar month period in § 63.35(d) of this chapter by passing the re-
preceding the month the applicant completes quired written test within the 27-calendar
the practical test, if a knowledge test is re- month period preceding the month the appli-
quired, provided the knowledge test was cant completes the practical test, provided
512
the written test was passed between March 1, of determining eligibility under § 65.93 of this
2018 and September 30, 2018. chapter.
(ii) An applicant for a flight engineer cer- (ii) Inspection authorization privileges after
tificate or rating may satisfy the knowledge June 2020. If the inspection authorization
requirement in § 63.35(d) of this chapter by holder does not complete one of the five ac-
passing the required written test within the tivities in § 65.93(a)(1) through (5) of this
26-calendar month period preceding the chapter by June 30, 2020, the inspection au-
month the applicant completes the practical thorization holder may not exercise inspec-
test, provided the written test was passed be- tion authorization privileges after June 30,
tween October 1, 2018 and January 31, 2019. 2020. The inspection authorization holder
(c) Part 65 of this Chapter. may resume exercising inspection authoriza-
(1) Extension of knowledge test duration re- tion privileges only after passing an oral test
quirements in § 65.55 of this chapter. (i) An ap- from an FAA inspector in accordance with
plicant for an aircraft dispatcher certificate § 65.93(c) of this chapter.
may satisfy the knowledge requirement in (4) Military riggers or former military riggers:
§ 65.55(b) of this chapter by presenting satis- Special certification rule of § 65.117 of this chap-
factory evidence that the applicant passed ter. A person may satisfy the requirements of
the knowledge test within the 27-calendar § 65.117(a) and (b) of this chapter for a senior
month period preceding the month the appli- parachute rigger certificate by presenting
cant completes the practical test, provided satisfactory documentary evidence that the
the knowledge test was passed between person was honorably discharged or released
March 1, 2018 and September 30, 2018. from any status covered by § 65.117(a) of this
(ii) An applicant for an aircraft dispatcher chapter between March 2019 and June 2019,
certificate may satisfy the knowledge re- and has served as a parachute rigger for an
quirement in § 65.55(b) of this chapter by pre- Armed Force within the 15 months before the
senting satisfactory evidence that the appli- date of application.
cant passed the knowledge test within the (d) Relief for U.S. Military and Civilian Per-
26-calendar month period preceding the sonnel Who are Assigned Outside the United
month the applicant completes the practical States in Support of U.S. Armed Forces Oper-
test, provided the knowledge test was passed ations. Notwithstanding the six calendar
between October 1, 2018 and January 31, 2019. month period specified in paragraph 2 of
(2) Extension of testing period in § 65.71 of this SFAR No. 100–2 of this part, a person may ex-
chapter. (i) A person may show eligibility for ercise the relief specified in paragraph 1 of
a mechanic certificate or rating under § 65.71 SFAR No. 100–2 for a duration of nine cal-
of this chapter by passing all the prescribed endar months after returning to the United
tests of part 65, subpart D, of this chapter States, provided the person—
within a period of 27 months, provided the (i) Is eligible in accordance with paragraph
testing period began between March 1, 2018 2 of SFAR No. 100–2 of this part;
and September 30, 2018. (ii) Complies with the documentation re-
(ii) A person may show eligibility for a me- quirements specified in paragraph 3 of SFAR
chanic certificate or rating under § 65.71 of No. 100–2 of this part; and
this chapter by passing all the prescribed (iii) Returned to the United States from
tests of part 65, subpart D, of this chapter deployment between October 2019 and March
within a period of 26 months, provided the 2020.
testing period began between October 1, 2018 (e) Part 141 of this Chapter.
and January 31, 2019. (1) Pilot school certificate requirements of
(3) Renewal of inspection authorizations in § 141.5 of this chapter.
§ 65.93 of this chapter. (i) Provisional pilot school. Notwithstanding
(i) Grace period for meeting renewal require- the period specified in § 141.5 of this chapter,
ments. Notwithstanding the requirement in a provisional pilot school may apply for, and
§ 65.93(c) of this chapter, an inspection au- the FAA may issue, a pilot school certificate
thorization holder who did not complete one with the appropriate ratings if the following
of the activities in § 65.93(a)(1) through (5) of requirements are met—
this chapter by March 31, 2020 of the first (A) The provisional pilot school must sat-
year may still be eligible for renewal of an isfy the requirements of § 141.5(a) through (e)
inspection authorization for a 2-year period of this chapter before December 31, 2020;
in March 2021. To be eligible for renewal, the (B) The provisional pilot school certificate
inspection authorization holder must show must expire between April 2020 and June
completion of one of the five activities in 2020; and
§ 65.93(a)(1) through (5) of this chapter by (C) The provisional pilot school meets the
June 30, 2020, and completion of the one of requirements of paragraph 3.(e)(1)(ii) of this
the five activities in § 65.93(a)(1) through (5) SFAR.
of this chapter during the second year of the (ii) Safety mitigations.
2-year period. A person who completes one of (A) The provisional pilot school must no-
the five activities by June 30, 2020 will be tify its responsible Flight Standards office
considered to have completed the activity by that it is applying for a pilot school certifi-
March 31, 2020 of the first year for purposes cate in accordance with this SFAR.
513
§ 61.1 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(B) Each provisional pilot school must in- 6. Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
clude in its notification an acceptable plan control number. The Paperwork Reduction
that explains the method to meet the re- Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501–3520) requires the
quirements of § 141.5(d) and (e) of this chap- FAA to get approval from OMB for our infor-
ter, including— mation collection activities. The OMB con-
(1) Ensuring each instructor used for trol number assigned to the FAA’s informa-
ground or flight training is current and pro- tion collection associated with this SFAR is
ficient; and 2120–0788.
(2) Evaluating students to determine if
[Doc. No. FAA–2020–0446; Amdt. 61–147, 85 FR
they are assigned to the proper stage of the
62966, Oct. 6, 2020]
training course and if additional training is
necessary. EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Doc. No. FAA–
(2) Renewal of certificates and ratings in 2020–0446; Amdt. No. 61–147, 85 FR 62966, Oct.
§ 141.27 of this Chapter. 6, 2020S, FAR 118–2 to part 61 was added, ef-
(i) Pilot school. A pilot school may apply for fective Oct. 1, 2020 through Apr. 30, 2021.
renewal of its pilot school certificate and
ratings after the expiration of its pilot
schools certificate, provided the school ap-
Subpart A—General
plies for renewal before December 31, 2020
and the following requirements are met—
§ 61.1 Applicability and definitions.
(A) The pilot school must meet § 141.27(a)(2) (a) Except as provided in part 107 of
of this chapter before December 31, 2020; this chapter, this part prescribes:
(B) The pilot school certificate must expire (1) The requirements for issuing
between April 2020 and June 2020; and pilot, flight instructor, and ground in-
(C) The pilot school meets the require-
ments of paragraph 3.(e)(2)(ii) of this SFAR.
structor certificates and ratings; the
(ii) Safety mitigations. conditions under which those certifi-
(A) Each pilot school must submit to the cates and ratings are necessary; and
responsible Flight Standards office notifica- the privileges and limitations of those
tion that it will renew its pilot school cer- certificates and ratings.
tificate in accordance with this SFAR. (2) The requirements for issuing
(B) Each pilot school must include in its pilot, flight instructor, and ground in-
notification an acceptable plan that explains structor authorizations; the conditions
the method to regain currency, including—
under which those authorizations are
(1) Ensuring each instructor used for
ground or flight training is current and pro- necessary; and the privileges and limi-
ficient; and tations of those authorizations.
(2) Evaluating students to determine if (3) The requirements for issuing
they are assigned to the proper stage of the pilot, flight instructor, and ground in-
training course and if additional training is structor certificates and ratings for
necessary. persons who have taken courses ap-
4. Other relief for special flight permits issued proved by the Administrator under
under § 21.197(c) of this chapter. In addition to other parts of this chapter.
the purposes specified in § 21.197(c) of this
chapter, notwithstanding §§ 119.5(l) and (b) For the purpose of this part:
91.1015(a) of this chapter, a special flight per- Accredited has the same meaning as
mit with a continuing authorization may be defined by the Department of Edu-
issued under § 21.197(c) of this chapter cation in 34 CFR 600.2.
through March 31, 2021, for aircraft that may Aeronautical experience means pilot
not meet applicable airworthiness require- time obtained in an aircraft, flight
ments, but are capable of safe flight for the simulator, or flight training device for
purpose of flying the aircraft to a point of
meeting the appropriate training and
storage, provided the following requirements
are met— flight time requirements for an airman
(a) The air carrier or operator must hold a certificate, rating, flight review, or
special flight permit with continuing author- recency of flight experience require-
ization to conduct a ferry flight program ments of this part.
issued under § 21.197(c) of this chapter; and Authorized instructor means—
(b) The certificate holder or management (i) A person who holds a ground in-
specification holder must notify the respon- structor certificate issued under part
sible Flight Standards office each time the
special flight permit is used for the purpose
61 of this chapter and is in compliance
of flying the aircraft to a point of storage. with § 61.217, when conducting ground
training in accordance with the privi-
5. Expiration date. This SFAR is effective

until April 30, 2021. The FAA may amend, re- leges and limitations of his or her
scind, or extend the SFAR as necessary. ground instructor certificate;
514
(ii) A person who holds a flight in- under § 61.101 (c), time acquired during
structor certificate issued under part a flight—
61 of this chapter and is in compliance (A) Conducted in an appropriate air-
with § 61.197, when conducting ground craft;
training or flight training in accord- (B) That includes a point of landing
ance with the privileges and limita- that was at least a straight-line dis-
tions of his or her flight instructor cer- tance of more than 50 nautical miles
tificate; or from the original point of departure;
(iii) A person authorized by the Ad- and
ministrator to provide ground training (C) That involves the use of dead
or flight training under part 61, 121, 135, reckoning, pilotage, electronic naviga-
or 142 of this chapter when conducting tion aids, radio aids, or other naviga-
ground training or flight training in tion systems to navigate to the landing
accordance with that authority. point.
Aviation training device means a train- (iii) For the purpose of meeting the
ing device, other than a full flight sim- aeronautical experience requirements
ulator or flight training device, that for a sport pilot certificate (except for
has been evaluated, qualified, and ap- powered parachute privileges), time ac-
proved by the Administrator. quired during a flight conducted in an
Complex airplane means an airplane appropriate aircraft that—
that has a retractable landing gear, (A) Includes a point of landing at
flaps, and a controllable pitch pro- least a straight line distance of more
peller, including airplanes equipped than 25 nautical miles from the origi-
with an engine control system con- nal point of departure; and
sisting of a digital computer and asso- (B) Involves, as applicable, the use of
ciated accessories for controlling the dead reckoning; pilotage; electronic
engine and propeller, such as a full au- navigation aids; radio aids; or other
thority digital engine control; or, in navigation systems to navigate to the
the case of a seaplane, flaps and a con- landing point.
trollable pitch propeller, including sea- (iv) For the purpose of meeting the
planes equipped with an engine control aeronautical experience requirements
system consisting of a digital computer for a sport pilot certificate with pow-
and associated accessories for control- ered parachute privileges or a private
ling the engine and propeller, such as a pilot certificate with a powered para-
full authority digital engine control. chute category rating, time acquired
during a flight conducted in an appro-
Cross-country time means—
priate aircraft that—
(i) Except as provided in paragraphs (A) Includes a point of landing at
(ii) through (vi) of this definition, time least a straight line distance of more
acquired during flight— than 15 nautical miles from the origi-
(A) Conducted by a person who holds nal point of departure; and
a pilot certificate; (B) Involves, as applicable, the use of
(B) Conducted in an aircraft; dead reckoning; pilotage; electronic
(C) That includes a landing at a point navigation aids; radio aids; or other
other than the point of departure; and navigation systems to navigate to the
(D) That involves the use of dead landing point.
reckoning, pilotage, electronic naviga- (v) For the purpose of meeting the
tion aids, radio aids, or other naviga- aeronautical experience requirements
tion systems to navigate to the landing for any pilot certificate with a rotor-
point. craft category rating or an instrument-
(ii) For the purpose of meeting the helicopter rating, or for the purpose of
aeronautical experience requirements exercising recreational pilot privileges,
(except for a rotorcraft category rat- in a rotorcraft, under § 61.101(c), time
ing), for a private pilot certificate (ex- acquired during a flight—
cept for a powered parachute category (A) Conducted in an appropriate air-
rating), a commercial pilot certificate, craft;
or an instrument rating, or for the pur- (B) That includes a point of landing
pose of exercising recreational pilot that was at least a straight-line dis-

privileges (except in a rotorcraft) tance of more than 25 nautical miles
515
§ 61.1 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
from the original point of departure; ceived from an authorized instructor

and under actual or simulated instrument
(C) That involves the use of dead conditions.
reckoning, pilotage, electronic naviga- Knowledge test means a test on the
tion aids, radio aids, or other naviga- aeronautical knowledge areas required
tion systems to navigate to the landing for an airman certificate or rating that
point. can be administered in written form or
(vi) For the purpose of meeting the by a computer.
aeronautical experience requirements Nationally recognized accrediting agen-
for an airline transport pilot certifi- cy has the same meaning as defined by
cate (except with a rotorcraft category the Department of Education in 34 CFR
rating), time acquired during a flight— 600.2.
(A) Conducted in an appropriate air- Night vision goggles means an appli-
craft; ance worn by a pilot that enhances the
(B) That is at least a straight-line pilot’s ability to maintain visual sur-
distance of more than 50 nautical miles face reference at night.
from the original point of departure; Night vision goggle operation means
and the portion of a flight that occurs dur-
(C) That involves the use of dead ing the time period from 1 hour after
reckoning, pilotage, electronic naviga- sunset to 1 hour before sunrise where
tion aids, radio aids, or other naviga- the pilot maintains visual surface ref-
tion systems. erence using night vision goggles in an
(vii) For a military pilot who quali- aircraft that is approved for such an
fies for a commercial pilot certificate operation.
(except with a rotorcraft category rat-
Pilot time means that time in which a
ing) under § 61.73 of this part, time ac-
person—
quired during a flight—
(i) Serves as a required pilot flight
(A) Conducted in an appropriate air-
crewmember;
craft;
(B) That is at least a straight-line (ii) Receives training from an author-
distance of more than 50 nautical miles ized instructor in an aircraft, full
from the original point of departure; flight simulator, flight training device,
and or aviation training device;
(C) That involves the use of dead (iii) Gives training as an authorized
reckoning, pilotage, electronic naviga- instructor in an aircraft, full flight
tion aids, radio aids, or other naviga- simulator, flight training device, or
tion systems. aviation training device; or
Examiner means any person who is (iv) Serves as second in command in
authorized by the Administrator to operations conducted in accordance
conduct a pilot proficiency test or a with § 135.99(c) of this chapter when a
practical test for an airman certificate second pilot is not required under the
or rating issued under this part, or a type certification of the aircraft or the
person who is authorized to conduct a regulations under which the flight is
knowledge test under this part. being conducted, provided the require-
Flight training means that training, ments in § 61.159(c) are satisfied.
other than ground training, received Practical test means a test on the
from an authorized instructor in flight areas of operations for an airman cer-
in an aircraft. tificate, rating, or authorization that
Ground training means that training, is conducted by having the applicant
other than flight training, received respond to questions and demonstrate
from an authorized instructor. maneuvers in flight, in a flight simu-
Institution of higher education has the lator, or in a flight training device.
same meaning as defined by the De- Set of aircraft means aircraft that
partment of Education in 34 CFR 600.4. share similar performance characteris-
Instrument approach means an ap- tics, such as similar airspeed and alti-
proach procedure defined in part 97 of tude operating envelopes, similar han-
this chapter. dling characteristics, and the same
Instrument training means that time number and type of propulsion sys-
in which instrument training is re- tems.
516
Student pilot seeking a sport pilot cer- ical certificate is surrendered, sus-
tificate means a person who has re- pended, revoked or expired according
ceived an endorsement— to the duration standards set forth in
(i) To exercise student pilot privi- § 61.23(d).
leges from a certificated flight instruc- (6) Use an official government issued
tor with a sport pilot rating; or driver’s license to meet any require-
(ii) That includes a limitation for the ments of part 61 related to holding that
operation of a light-sport aircraft spec- driver’s license, if the driver’s license
ified in § 61.89(c) issued by a certifi- is surrendered, suspended, revoked or
cated flight instructor with other than expired.
a sport pilot rating. (b) Currency. No person may:
Technically advanced airplane (TAA) (1) Exercise privileges of an airman
means an airplane equipped with an certificate, rating, endorsement, or au-
electronically advanced avionics sys- thorization issued under this part un-
tem. less that person meets the appropriate
Training time means training re- airman and medical recency require-
ceived— ments of this part, specific to the oper-
(i) In flight from an authorized ination or activity.
structor; (2) Exercise privileges of a foreign
(ii) On the ground from an authorized pilot license within the United States
instructor; or to conduct an operation described in
(iii) In a flight simulator or flight § 61.3(b), unless that person meets the
training device from an authorized inappropriate airman and medical
structor. recency requirements of the country
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; that issued the license, specific to the
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40893, July 30, 1997 as operation.
amended by Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44864, July
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–26661, 74 FR 42546, Aug.
27, 2004; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42546, Aug. 21,
21, 2009]
2009; Amdt. 61–128, 76 FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011;
Amdt. 61–130, 78 FR 42372, July 15, 2013;
Amdt. 61–137, 81 FR 42208, June 28, 2016;
§ 61.3 Requirement for certificates,
Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018]
ratings, and authorizations.
(a) Required pilot certificate for oper-
§ 61.2 Exercise of Privilege. ating a civil aircraft of the United States.
(a) Validity. No person may: No person may serve as a required pilot
(1) Exercise privileges of a certifi- flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of
cate, rating, endorsement, or author- the United States, unless that person:
ization issued under this part if the (1) Has in the person’s physical pos-
certificate, rating or authorization is session or readily accessible in the air-
surrendered, suspended, revoked or ex- craft when exercising the privileges of
pired. that pilot certificate or authoriza-
(2) Exercise privileges of a flight in- tion—
structor certificate if that flight in- (i) A pilot certificate issued under
structor certificate is surrendered, sus- this part and in accordance with § 61.19;
pended, revoked or expired. (ii) A special purpose pilot authoriza-
(3) Exercise privileges of a foreign tion issued under § 61.77;
pilot certificate to operate an aircraft (iii) A temporary certificate issued
of foreign registry under § 61.3(b) if the under § 61.17;
certificate is surrendered, suspended, (iv) A document conveying tem-
revoked or expired. porary authority to exercise certificate
(4) Exercise privileges of a pilot cer- privileges issued by the Airmen Certifi-
tificate issued under § 61.75, or an au- cation Branch under § 61.29(e);
thorization issued under § 61.77, if the (v) When engaged in a flight oper-
foreign pilot certificate relied upon for ation within the United States for a
the issuance of the U.S. pilot certifi- part 119 certificate holder authorized
cate or authorization is surrendered, to conduct operations under part 121 or
suspended, revoked or expired. 135 of this chapter, a temporary docu-
(5) Exercise privileges of a medical ment provided by that certificate hold-
certificate issued under part 67 to meet er under an approved certificate

any requirements of part 61 if the med- verification plan;
517
§ 61.3 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(vi) When engaged in a flight oper- (c)(2) of this section provides certain
ation within the United States for a exceptions to the requirement to hold a
fractional ownership program manager medical certificate.
authorized to conduct operations under (2) A person is not required to meet
part 91, subpart K, of this chapter, a the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of
temporary document provided by that this section if that person—
program manager under an approved (i) Is exercising the privileges of a
certificate verification plan; or student pilot certificate while seeking
(vii) When operating an aircraft with- a pilot certificate with a glider cat-
in a foreign country, a pilot license egory rating, a balloon class rating, or
issued by that country may be used. glider or balloon privileges;
(2) Has a photo identification that is (ii) Is exercising the privileges of a
in that person’s physical possession or student pilot certificate while seeking
readily accessible in the aircraft when a sport pilot certificate with other
exercising the privileges of that pilot than glider or balloon privileges and
certificate or authorization. The photo holds a U.S. driver’s license;
identification must be a: (iii) Is exercising the privileges of a
(i) Driver’s license issued by a State, student pilot certificate while seeking
the District of Columbia, or territory a pilot certificate with a weight-shift-
or possession of the United States; control aircraft category rating or a
(ii) Government identification card powered parachute category rating and
issued by the Federal government, a holds a U.S. driver’s license;
State, the District of Columbia, or a (iv) Is exercising the privileges of a
territory or possession of the United sport pilot certificate with glider or
States; balloon privileges;
(iii) U.S. Armed Forces’ identifica-
(v) Is exercising the privileges of a
tion card;
sport pilot certificate with other than
(iv) Official passport;
glider or balloon privileges and holds a
(v) Credential that authorizes
U.S. driver’s license. A person who has
unescorted access to a security identi-
applied for or held a medical certificate
fication display area at an airport reg-
may exercise the privileges of a sport
ulated under 49 CFR part 1542; or
pilot certificate using a U.S. driver’s li-
(vi) Other form of identification that
cense only if that person—
the Administrator finds acceptable.
(b) Required pilot certificate for oper- (A) Has been found eligible for the
ating a foreign-registered aircraft within issuance of at least a third-class air-
the United States. No person may serve man medical certificate at the time of
as a required pilot flight crewmember his or her most recent application; and
of a civil aircraft of foreign registry (B) Has not had his or her most re-
within the United States, unless— cently issued medical certificate sus-
(1) That person’s pilot certificate or pended or revoked or most recent Au-
document issued under § 61.29(e) is in thorization for a Special Issuance of a
that person’s physical possession or Medical Certificate withdrawn.
readily accessible in the aircraft when (vi) Is holding a pilot certificate with
exercising the privileges of that pilot a balloon class rating and is piloting or
certificate; and providing training in a balloon as ap-
(2) Has been issued in accordance propriate;
with this part, or has been issued or (vii) Is holding a pilot certificate or a
validated by the country in which the flight instructor certificate with a
aircraft is registered. glider category rating, and is piloting
(c) Medical certificate. (1) A person or providing training in a glider, as ap-
may serve as a required pilot flight propriate;
crewmember of an aircraft only if that (viii) Is exercising the privileges of a
person holds the appropriate medical flight instructor certificate, provided
certificate issued under part 67 of this the person is not acting as pilot in
chapter, or other documentation ac- command or as a required pilot flight
ceptable to the FAA, that is in that crewmember;
person’s physical possession or readily (ix) Is exercising the privileges of a

accessible in the aircraft. Paragraph ground instructor certificate;
518
(x) Is operating an aircraft within a (iv) Endorse a logbook for solo oper-
foreign country using a pilot license ating privileges.
issued by that country and possesses (3) A flight instructor certificate
evidence of current medical qualifica- issued under this part is not nec-
tion for that license; essary—
(xi) Is operating an aircraft with a (i) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this sec-
U.S. pilot certificate, issued on the tion, if the training is given by the
basis of a foreign pilot license, issued holder of a commercial pilot certificate
under § 61.75, and holds a medical cer- with a lighter-than-air rating, provided
tificate issued by the foreign country the training is given in accordance
that issued the foreign pilot license, with the privileges of the certificate in
which is in that person’s physical pos- a lighter-than-air aircraft;
session or readily accessible in the air- (ii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this sec-
craft when exercising the privileges of tion, if the training is given by the
that airman certificate; holder of an airline transport pilot cer-
(xii) Is a pilot of the U.S. Armed tificate with a rating appropriate to
Forces, has an up-to-date U.S. military the aircraft in which the training is
medical examination, and holds mili- given, provided the training is given in
tary pilot flight status; accordance with the privileges of the
(xiii) Is exercising the privileges of a certificate and conducted in accord-
student, recreational or private pilot ance with an approved air carrier
certificate for operations conducted training program approved under part
under the conditions and limitations 121 or part 135 of this chapter;
set forth in § 61.113(i) and holds a U.S. (iii) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this
driver’s license; or section, if the training is given by a
(xiv) Is exercising the privileges of a person who is qualified in accordance
flight instructor certificate and acting with subpart C of part 142 of this chap-
as pilot in command for operations ter, provided the training is conducted
conducted under the conditions and in accordance with an approved part
limitations set forth in § 61.113(i) and 142 training program;
holds a U.S. driver’s license. (iv) Under paragraphs (d)(2)(i),
(d) Flight instructor certificate. (1) A (d)(2)(ii)(C), and (d)(2)(iii) of this sec-
person who holds a flight instructor tion, if the training is given by the
certificate issued under this part must holder of a ground instructor certifi-
have that certificate, or other docu- cate in accordance with the privileges
mentation acceptable to the Adminis- of the certificate; or
trator, in that person’s physical posses- (v) Under paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this
sion or readily accessible in the air- section, if the training is given by an
craft when exercising the privileges of authorized flight instructor under
that flight instructor certificate. § 61.41 of this part.
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (e) Instrument rating. No person may
(d)(3) of this section, no person other act as pilot in command of a civil air-
than the holder of a flight instructor craft under IFR or in weather condi-
certificate issued under this part with tions less than the minimums pre-
the appropriate rating on that certifi- scribed for VFR flight unless that per-
cate may— son holds:
(i) Give training required to qualify a (1) The appropriate aircraft category,
person for solo flight and solo cross- class, type (if required), and instru-
country flight; ment rating on that person’s pilot cer-
(ii) Endorse an applicant for a— tificate for any airplane, helicopter, or
(A) Pilot certificate or rating issued powered-lift being flown;
under this part; (2) An airline transport pilot certifi-
(B) Flight instructor certificate or cate with the appropriate aircraft cat-
rating issued under this part; or egory, class, and type rating (if re-
(C) Ground instructor certificate or quired) for the aircraft being flown;
rating issued under this part; (3) For a glider, a pilot certificate
(iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show with a glider category rating and an
training given; or airplane instrument rating; or
519
§ 61.3 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(4) For an airship, a commercial pilot (ii) Holds an airline transport pilot
certificate with a lighter-than-air cat- certificate with category and class rat-
egory rating and airship class rating. ings for that aircraft; or
(f) Category II pilot authorization. Ex- (iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of
cept for a pilot conducting Category II foreign registry, is authorized by the
operations under part 121 or part 135, a country of registry to act as second in
person may not: command of that aircraft during Cat-
(1) Act as pilot in command of a civil egory III operations.
aircraft during Category II operations (h) Category A aircraft pilot authoriza-
unless that person— tion. The Administrator may issue a
(i) Holds a Category II pilot author- certificate of authorization for a Cat-
ization for that category or class of egory II or Category III operation to
the pilot of a small aircraft that is a
aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if ap-
Category A aircraft, as identified in
plicable; or
§ 97.3(b)(1) of this chapter if:
(ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of (1) The Administrator determines
foreign registry, is authorized by the that the Category II or Category III op-
country of registry to act as pilot in eration can be performed safely by that
command of that aircraft in Category pilot under the terms of the certificate
II operations. of authorization; and
(2) Act as second in command of a (2) The Category II or Category III
civil aircraft during Category II oper- operation does not involve the carriage
ations unless that person— of persons or property for compensa-
(i) Holds a pilot certificate with cat- tion or hire.
egory and class ratings for that air- (i) Ground instructor certificate. (1)
craft and an instrument rating for that Each person who holds a ground in-
category aircraft; structor certificate issued under this
(ii) Holds an airline transport pilot part must have that certificate or a
certificate with category and class rat- temporary document issued under
ings for that aircraft; or § 61.29(e) in that person’s physical pos-
(iii) In the case of a civil aircraft of session or immediately accessible when
foreign registry, is authorized by the exercising the privileges of that certifi-
country of registry to act as second in cate.
command of that aircraft during Cat- (2) Except as provided in paragraph
egory II operations. (i)(3) of this section, no person other
(g) Category III pilot authorization. Ex- than the holder of a ground instructor
cept for a pilot conducting Category III certificate, issued under this part or
operations under part 121 or part 135, a part 143, with the appropriate rating on
person may not: that certificate may—
(i) Give ground training required to
(1) Act as pilot in command of a civil
qualify a person for solo flight and solo
aircraft during Category III operations
cross-country flight;
unless that person—
(ii) Endorse an applicant for a knowl-
(i) Holds a Category III pilot author- edge test required for a pilot, flight in-
ization for that category or class of structor, or ground instructor certifi-
aircraft, and the type of aircraft, if ap- cate or rating issued under this part; or
plicable; or (iii) Endorse a pilot logbook to show
(ii) In the case of a civil aircraft of ground training given.
foreign registry, is authorized by the (3) A ground instructor certificate
country of registry to act as pilot in issued under this part is not nec-
command of that aircraft in Category essary—
III operations. (i) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this sec-
(2) Act as second in command of a tion, if the training is given by the
civil aircraft during Category III oper- holder of a flight instructor certificate
ations unless that person— issued under this part in accordance
(i) Holds a pilot certificate with cat- with the privileges of that certificate;
egory and class ratings for that air- (ii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this sec-
craft and an instrument rating for that tion, if the training is given by the
category aircraft; holder of a commercial pilot certificate
520
with a lighter-than-air rating, provided service passes through the airspace

the training is given in accordance over the territory of more than one
with the privileges of the certificate in country.
a lighter-than-air aircraft; (ii) ‘‘International air transpor-
(iii) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this tation,’’ as used in this paragraph (j),
section, if the training is given by the means air transportation performed in
holder of an airline transport pilot cer- airplanes for the public transport of
tificate with a rating appropriate to passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the
the aircraft in which the training is service passes through the airspace
given, provided the training is given in over the territory of more than one
accordance with the privileges of the country.
certificate and conducted in accord- (k) Special purpose pilot authorization.
ance with an approved air carrier Any person that is required to hold a
training program approved under part special purpose pilot authorization,
121 or part 135 of this chapter; issued in accordance with § 61.77 of this
(iv) Under paragraph (i)(2) of this sec- part, must have that authorization and
tion, if the training is given by a per- the person’s foreign pilot license in
son who is qualified in accordance with that person’s physical possession or
subpart C of part 142 of this chapter, have it readily accessible in the air-
provided the training is conducted in craft when exercising the privileges of
accordance with an approved part 142 that authorization.
training program; or (l) Inspection of certificate. Each per-
(v) Under paragraph (i)(2)(iii) of this son who holds an airman certificate,
section, if the training is given by an temporary document in accordance
authorized flight instructor under with paragraph (a)(1)(v) or (vi) of this
§ 61.41 of this part. section, medical certificate, documents
(j) Age limitation for certain operations. establishing alternative medical quali-
(1) Age limitation. No person who holds fication under part 68 of this chapter,
a pilot certificate issued under this authorization, or license required by
part may serve as a pilot on a civil air- this part must present it and their
plane of U.S. registry in the following photo identification as described in
operations if the person has reached his paragraph (a)(2) of this section for in-
or her 60th birthday or, in the case of spection upon a request from:
operations with more than one pilot, (1) The Administrator;
his or her 65th birthday: (2) An authorized representative of
(i) Scheduled international air serv- the National Transportation Safety
ices carrying passengers in turbojet- Board;
powered airplanes; (3) Any Federal, State, or local law
(ii) Scheduled international air serv- enforcement officer; or
ices carrying passengers in airplanes (4) An authorized representative of
having a passenger-seat configuration the Transportation Security Adminis-
of more than nine passenger seats, ex- tration.
cluding each crewmember seat; [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
(iii) Nonscheduled international air Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40894, July 30, 1997;
transportation for compensation or Amdt. 61–111, 67 FR 65861, Oct. 28, 2002; Amdt.
hire in airplanes having a passenger- 61–110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61–
seat configuration of more than 30 pas- 123, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 61–124, 74
senger seats, excluding each crew- FR 42546, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61–124A, 74 FR
member seat; or 53644, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61–131, 78 FR 56828,
Sept. 16, 2013; Amdt. 61–134, 80 FR 33400, June
(iv) Scheduled international air serv-
12, 2015; Docket FAA–2010–1127, Amdt. 61–135,
ices, or nonscheduled international air 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016; Doc. No. FAA–2016–
transportation for compensation or 9157, Amdt. 61–140, 82 FR 3164, Jan. 11, 2017;
hire, in airplanes having a payload ca- Amdt. 60–6, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018]
pacity of more than 7,500 pounds.
(2) Definitions. (i) ‘‘International air § 61.4 Qualification and approval of
service,’’ as used in this paragraph (j), flight simulators and flight training
means scheduled air service performed devices.
in airplanes for the public transport of (a) Except as specified in paragraph

passengers, mail, or cargo, in which the (b) or (c) of this section, each flight
521
§ 61.5 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
simulator and flight training device (ii) Rotorcraft.

used for training, and for which an air- (iii) Glider.
man is to receive credit to satisfy any (iv) Lighter-than-air.
training, testing, or checking require- (v) Powered-lift.
ment under this chapter, must be (vi) Powered parachute.
qualified and approved by the Adminis- (vii) Weight-shift-control aircraft.
trator for— (2) Airplane class ratings—
(1) The training, testing, and check- (i) Single-engine land.
ing for which it is used; (ii) Multiengine land.
(2) Each particular maneuver, proce- (iii) Single-engine sea.
dure, or crewmember function per- (iv) Multiengine sea.
formed; and (3) Rotorcraft class ratings—
(3) The representation of the specific (i) Helicopter.
category and class of aircraft, type of (ii) Gyroplane.
aircraft, particular variation within (4) Lighter-than-air class ratings—
the type of aircraft, or set of aircraft (i) Airship.
for certain flight training devices. (ii) Balloon.
(b) Any device used for flight train- (5) Weight-shift-control aircraft class
ing, testing, or checking that has been ratings—
determined to be acceptable to or ap- (i) Weight-shift-control aircraft land.
proved by the Administrator prior to (ii) Weight-shift-control aircraft sea.
August 1, 1996, which can be shown to (6) Powered parachute class ratings—
function as originally designed, is con- (i) Powered parachute land.
sidered to be a flight training device, (ii) Powered parachute sea.
provided it is used for the same pur- (7) Aircraft type ratings—
poses for which it was originally ac- (i) Large aircraft other than lighter-
cepted or approved and only to the ex- than-air.
tent of such acceptance or approval. (ii) Turbojet-powered airplanes.
(c) The Administrator may approve a (iii) Other aircraft type ratings speci-
device other than a flight simulator or fied by the Administrator through the
flight training device for specific pur- aircraft type certification procedures.
poses. (iv) Second-in-command pilot type
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; rating for aircraft that is certificated
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997] for operations with a minimum crew of
at least two pilots.
§ 61.5 Certificates and ratings issued (8) Instrument ratings (on private
under this part. and commercial pilot certificates
(a) The following certificates are only)—
issued under this part to an applicant (i) Instrument—Airplane.
who satisfactorily accomplishes the (ii) Instrument—Helicopter.
training and certification requirements (iii) Instrument—Powered-lift.
for the certificate sought: (c) The following ratings are placed
(1) Pilot certificates— on a flight instructor certificate when
(i) Student pilot. an applicant satisfactorily accom-
(ii) Sport pilot. plishes the training and certification
(iii) Recreational pilot. requirements for the rating sought:
(iv) Private pilot. (1) Aircraft category ratings—
(v) Commercial pilot. (i) Airplane.
(vi) Airline transport pilot. (ii) Rotorcraft.
(2) Flight instructor certificates. (iii) Glider.
(3) Ground instructor certificates. (iv) Powered-lift.
(b) The following ratings are placed (2) Airplane class ratings—
on a pilot certificate (other than stu- (i) Single-engine.
dent pilot) when an applicant satisfac- (ii) Multiengine.
torily accomplishes the training and (3) Rotorcraft class ratings—
certification requirements for the rat- (i) Helicopter.
ing sought: (ii) Gyroplane.
(1) Aircraft category ratings— (4) Instrument ratings—

(i) Airplane. (i) Instrument—Airplane.
522
(ii) Instrument—Helicopter. (3) A pilot certificate with a lighter-

(iii) Instrument—Powered-lift. than-air or free-balloon rating issued
(5) Sport pilot rating. before July 1, 1945.
(d) The following ratings are placed (c) An airline transport pilot certifi-
on a ground instructor certificate when cate that was issued after April 30, 1949,
an applicant satisfactorily accom- and that bears an expiration date but
plishes the training and certification does not contain a horsepower limita-
requirements for the rating sought: tion, may have that airline transport
(1) Basic. pilot certificate re-issued without an
(2) Advanced. expiration date.
(3) Instrument. (d) A private or commercial pilot cer-
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as tificate that was issued after June 30,
amended by Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44864, July 1945, and that bears an expiration date,
27, 2004; Amdt. 61–113, 70 FR 45271, Aug. 4, may have that pilot certificate re-
2005] issued without an expiration date.
(e) A pilot certificate with a lighter-
§ 61.7 Obsolete certificates and rat- than-air or free-balloon rating that was
ings.
issued after June 30, 1945, and that
(a) The holder of a free-balloon pilot bears an expiration date, may have
certificate issued before November 1, that pilot certificate reissued without
1973, may not exercise the privileges of an expiration date.
that certificate.
(b) The holder of a pilot certificate [Doc. No. FAA–2006–26661, 74 FR 42547, Aug.
21, 2009]
that bears any of the following cat-
egory ratings without an associated § 61.13 Issuance of airman certificates,
class rating may not exercise the privi- ratings, and authorizations.
leges of that category rating:
(1) Rotorcraft. (a) Application. (1) An applicant for
(2) Lighter-than-air. an airman certificate, rating, or au-
(3) Helicopter. thorization under this part must make
(4) Autogyro. that application on a form and in a
manner acceptable to the Adminis-
§ 61.8 Inapplicability of unmanned air- trator.
craft operations. (2) An applicant must show evidence
Any action conducted pursuant to that the appropriate fee prescribed in
part 107 of this chapter cannot be used appendix A to part 187 of this chapter
to meet the requirements of this part. has been paid when that person applies
for airmen certification services ad-
[FAA–2020–1067, Amdt. Nos. 61-148, 85 FR
ministered outside the United States.
79825, Dec. 11, 2020]
(3) An applicant who is neither a cit-
§ 61.9 [Reserved] izen of the United States nor a resident
alien of the United States may be re-
§ 61.11 Expired pilot certificates and fused issuance of any U.S. airman cer-
re-issuance. tificate, rating or authorization by the
(a) No person who holds an expired Administrator.
pilot certificate or rating may act as (4) Except as provided in paragraph
pilot in command or as a required pilot (a)(3) of this section, an applicant who
flight crewmember of an aircraft of the satisfactorily accomplishes the train-
same category or class that is listed on ing and certification requirements for
that expired pilot certificate or rating. the certificate, rating, or authorization
(b) The following pilot certificates sought is entitled to receive that air-
and ratings have expired and will not man certificate, rating, or authoriza-
be reissued: tion.
(1) An airline transport pilot certifi- (b) Limitations. (1) An applicant who
cate issued before May 1, 1949, or an cannot comply with certain areas of
airline transport pilot certificate that operation required on the practical test
contains a horsepower limitation. because of physical limitations may be
(2) A private or commercial pilot cer- issued an airman certificate, rating, or

tificate issued before July 1, 1945. authorization with the appropriate
523
§ 61.14 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
limitation placed on the applicant’s (d) Application during suspension or

airman certificate provided the— revocation. (1) Unless otherwise author-
(i) Applicant is able to meet all other ized by the Administrator, a person
certification requirements for the air- whose pilot, flight instructor, or
man certificate, rating, or authoriza- ground instructor certificate has been
tion sought; suspended may not apply for any cer-
(ii) Physical limitation has been re- tificate, rating, or authorization dur-
corded with the FAA on the applicant’s ing the period of suspension.
medical records; and (2) Unless otherwise authorized by
(iii) Administrator determines that the Administrator, a person whose
the applicant’s inability to perform the pilot, flight instructor, or ground in-
particular area of operation will not structor certificate has been revoked
adversely affect safety. may not apply for any certificate, rat-
(2) A limitation placed on a person’s ing, or authorization for 1 year after
airman certificate may be removed, the date of revocation.
provided that person demonstrates for
an examiner satisfactory proficiency in [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997, as
amended by Amdt. 61–116, 72 FR 18558, Apr.
the area of operation appropriate to
12, 2007; Amdt. 61–132, 78 FR 77572, Dec. 24,
the airman certificate, rating, or au- 2013]
thorization sought.
(c) Additional requirements for Cat- § 61.14 [Reserved]
egory II and Category III pilot authoriza-
tions. (1) A Category II or Category III § 61.15 Offenses involving alcohol or
pilot authorization is issued by a letter drugs.
of authorization as part of an appli- (a) A conviction for the violation of
cant’s instrument rating or airline any Federal or State statute relating
transport pilot certificate. to the growing, processing, manufac-
(2) Upon original issue, the author- ture, sale, disposition, possession,
ization contains the following limita- transportation, or importation of nar-
tions: cotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant
(i) For Category II operations, the or stimulant drugs or substances is
limitation is 1,600 feet RVR and a 150- grounds for:
foot decision height; and
(1) Denial of an application for any
(ii) For Category III operations, each certificate, rating, or authorization
initial limitation is specified in the au- issued under this part for a period of up
thorization document.
to 1 year after the date of final convic-
(3) The limitations on a Category II tion; or
or Category III pilot authorization may
(2) Suspension or revocation of any
be removed as follows:
certificate, rating, or authorization
(i) In the case of Category II limita-
issued under this part.
tions, a limitation is removed when the
(b) Committing an act prohibited by
holder shows that, since the beginning
of the sixth preceding month, the hold- § 91.17(a) or § 91.19(a) of this chapter is
er has made three Category II ILS ap- grounds for:
proaches with a 150-foot decision (1) Denial of an application for a cer-
height to a landing under actual or tificate, rating, or authorization issued
simulated instrument conditions. under this part for a period of up to 1
(ii) In the case of Category III limita- year after the date of that act; or
tions, a limitation is removed as speci- (2) Suspension or revocation of any
fied in the authorization. certificate, rating, or authorization
(4) To meet the experience require- issued under this part.
ments of paragraph (c)(3) of this sec- (c) For the purposes of paragraphs
tion, and for the practical test required (d), (e), and (f) of this section, a motor
by this part for a Category II or a Cat- vehicle action means:
egory III pilot authorization, a flight (1) A conviction after November 29,
simulator or flight training device may 1990, for the violation of any Federal or
be used if it is approved by the Admin- State statute relating to the operation

istrator for such use. of a motor vehicle while intoxicated by
524
alcohol or a drug, while impaired by al- (1) Denial of an application for any
cohol or a drug, or while under the in- certificate, rating, or authorization
fluence of alcohol or a drug; issued under this part for a period of up
(2) The cancellation, suspension, or to 1 year after the date of the motor
revocation of a license to operate a vehicle action; or
motor vehicle after November 29, 1990, (2) Suspension or revocation of any
for a cause related to the operation of certificate, rating, or authorization
a motor vehicle while intoxicated by issued under this part.
alcohol or a drug, while impaired by al-
cohol or a drug, or while under the in- § 61.16 Refusal to submit to an alcohol
fluence of alcohol or a drug; or test or to furnish test results.
(3) The denial after November 29, A refusal to submit to a test to indi-
1990, of an application for a license to
cate the percentage by weight of alco-
operate a motor vehicle for a cause re-
hol in the blood, when requested by a
lated to the operation of a motor vehi-
law enforcement officer in accordance
cle while intoxicated by alcohol or a
with § 91.17(c) of this chapter, or a re-
drug, while impaired by alcohol or a
fusal to furnish or authorize the re-
drug, or while under the influence of
alcohol or a drug. lease of the test results requested by
(d) Except for a motor vehicle action the Administrator in accordance with
that results from the same incident or § 91.17(c) or (d) of this chapter, is
arises out of the same factual cir- grounds for:
cumstances, a motor vehicle action oc- (a) Denial of an application for any
curring within 3 years of a previous certificate, rating, or authorization
motor vehicle action is grounds for: issued under this part for a period of up
(1) Denial of an application for any to 1 year after the date of that refusal;
certificate, rating, or authorization or
issued under this part for a period of up (b) Suspension or revocation of any
to 1 year after the date of the last certificate, rating, or authorization
motor vehicle action; or issued under this part.
(2) Suspension or revocation of any
certificate, rating, or authorization § 61.17 Temporary certificate.
issued under this part. (a) A temporary pilot, flight instruc-
(e) Each person holding a certificate tor, or ground instructor certificate or
issued under this part shall provide a rating is issued for up to 120 days, at
written report of each motor vehicle which time a permanent certificate
action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Se- will be issued to a person whom the Ad-
curity Division (AMC–700), P.O. Box ministrator finds qualified under this
25810, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, not part.
later than 60 days after the motor vehi-
(b) A temporary pilot, flight instruc-
cle action. The report must include:
tor, or ground instructor certificate or
(1) The person’s name, address, date
rating expires:
of birth, and airman certificate num-
ber; (1) On the expiration date shown on
(2) The type of violation that re- the certificate;
sulted in the conviction or the admin- (2) Upon receipt of the permanent
istrative action; certificate; or
(3) The date of the conviction or ad- (3) Upon receipt of a notice that the
ministrative action; certificate or rating sought is denied or
(4) The State that holds the record of revoked.
conviction or administrative action;
and § 61.18 [Reserved]
(5) A statement of whether the motor
vehicle action resulted from the same § 61.19 Duration of pilot and instructor
certificates and privileges.
incident or arose out of the same fac-
tual circumstances related to a pre- (a) General. (1) The holder of a certifi-
viously reported motor vehicle action. cate with an expiration date may not,
(f) Failure to comply with paragraph after that date, exercise the privileges
(e) of this section is grounds for: of that certificate.
525
§ 61.21 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(2) Except for a certificate issued exercise the privileges of that certifi-
with an expiration date, a pilot certificate after March 31, 2010.
cate is valid unless it is surrendered, [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as
suspended, or revoked. amended by Amdt. 61–118, 73 FR 10668, Feb.
(b) Paper student pilot certificate. A 28, 2008; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42547, Aug. 21,
student pilot certificate issued under 2009; Amdt. 61–124A, 74 FR 53644, Oct. 20, 2009;
this part prior to April 1, 2016 expires: Docket FAA–2010–1127, Amdt. 61–135, 81 FR
1306, Jan. 12, 2016]
(1) For student pilots who have not
reached their 40th birthday, 60 calendar § 61.21 Duration of a Category II and a
months after the month of the date of Category III pilot authorization (for
examination shown on the medical cer- other than part 121 and part 135
tificate. use).
(2) For student pilots who have (a) A Category II pilot authorization
reached their 40th birthday, 24 calendar or a Category III pilot authorization
months after the month of the date of expires at the end of the sixth calendar
examination shown on the medical cer- month after the month in which it was
tificate. issued or renewed.
(b) Upon passing a practical test for a
(3) For student pilots seeking a glider
Category II or Category III pilot au-
rating, balloon rating, or a sport pilot thorization, the authorization may be
certificate, 60 calendar months after renewed for each type of aircraft for
the month of the date issued, regard- which the authorization is held.
less of the person’s age. (c) A Category II or Category III pilot
(c) Pilot certificates. (1) A pilot certifi- authorization for a specific type air-
cate (including a student pilot certifi- craft for which an authorization is held
cate issued after April 1, 2016 issued will not be renewed beyond 12 calendar
under this part is issued without a spe- months from the month the practical
cific expiration date. test was accomplished in that type air-
(2) The holder of a pilot certificate craft.
issued on the basis of a foreign pilot li- (d) If the holder of a Category II or
cense may exercise the privileges of Category III pilot authorization passes
that certificate only while that per- the practical test for a renewal in the
son’s foreign pilot license is effective. month before the authorization ex-
pires, the holder is considered to have
(d) Flight instructor certificate. Except
passed it during the month the author-
as specified in § 61.197(b), a flight in- ization expired.
structor certificate expires 24 calendar
months from the month in which it § 61.23 Medical certificates: Require-
was issued, renewed, or reinstated, as ment and duration.
appropriate. (a) Operations requiring a medical cer-
(e) Ground instructor certificate. A tificate. Except as provided in para-
ground instructor certificate is issued graphs (b) and (c) of this section, a per-
without a specific expiration date. son—
(f) Return of certificates. The holder of (1) Must hold a first-class medical
any airman certificate that is issued certificate:
under this part, and that has been sus- (i) When exercising the pilot-in-com-
pended or revoked, must return that mand privileges of an airline transport
certificate to the FAA when requested pilot certificate;
to do so by the Administrator. (ii) When exercising the second-in-
command privileges of an airline trans-
(g) Duration of pilot certificates. Ex-
port pilot certificate in a flag or sup-
cept for a temporary certificate issued
plemental operation in part 121 of this
under § 61.17 or a student pilot certifi- chapter that requires three or more pi-
cate issued under paragraph (b) of this lots; or
section, the holder of a paper pilot cer- (iii) When serving as a required pilot
tificate issued under this part may not flightcrew member in an operation
conducted under part 121 of this chap-
ter if the pilot has reached his or her

60th birthday.
526
(2) Must hold at least a second class (5) When exercising the privileges of
medical certificate when exercising: a flight instructor certificate if the
(i) Second-in-command privileges of person is not acting as pilot in com-
an airline transport pilot certificate in mand or serving as a required pilot
part 121 of this chapter (other than op- flight crewmember;
erations specified in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) (6) When exercising the privileges of
of this section); or a ground instructor certificate;
(ii) Privileges of a commercial pilot (7) When serving as an Examiner or
certificate; or check airman and administering a
(3) Must hold at least a third-class practical test or proficiency check for
medical certificate— an airman certificate, rating, or au-
(i) When exercising the privileges of a thorization conducted in a glider, bal-
private pilot certificate, recreational loon, flight simulator, or flight train-
pilot certificate, or student pilot cer- ing device;
tificate, except when operating under (8) When taking a practical test or a
the conditions and limitations set proficiency check for a certificate, rat-
forth in § 61.113(i); ing, authorization or operating privi-
(ii) When exercising the privileges of lege conducted in a glider, balloon,
a flight instructor certificate and act- flight simulator, or flight training de-
ing as the pilot in command or as a re- vice; or
quired flightcrew member, except when (9) When a military pilot of the U.S.
operating under the conditions and Armed Forces can show evidence of an
limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); up-to-date medical examination au-
(iii) When taking a practical test in thorizing pilot flight status issued by
an aircraft for a recreational pilot, pri- the U.S. Armed Forces and—
vate pilot, commercial pilot, or airline (i) The flight does not require higher
transport pilot certificate, or for a than a third-class medical certificate;
flight instructor certificate, except and
when operating under the conditions (ii) The flight conducted is a domes-
and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); tic flight operation within U.S. air-
or space.
(iv) When performing the duties as an (c) Operations requiring either a med-
Examiner in an aircraft when admin- ical certificate or U.S. driver’s license. (1)
istering a practical test or proficiency A person must hold and possess either
check for an airman certificate, rating, a medical certificate issued under part
or authorization. 67 of this chapter or a U.S. driver’s li-
(b) Operations not requiring a medical cense when—
certificate. A person is not required to (i) Exercising the privileges of a stu-
hold a medical certificate— dent pilot certificate while seeking
(1) When exercising the privileges of sport pilot privileges in a light-sport
a student pilot certificate while seek- aircraft other than a glider or balloon;
ing— (ii) Exercising the privileges of a
(i) A sport pilot certificate with glid- sport pilot certificate in a light-sport
er or balloon privileges; or aircraft other than a glider or balloon;
(ii) A pilot certificate with a glider (iii) Exercising the privileges of a
category rating or balloon class rating; flight instructor certificate with a
(2) When exercising the privileges of sport pilot rating while acting as pilot
a sport pilot certificate with privileges in command or serving as a required
in a glider or balloon; flight crewmember of a light-sport air-
(3) When exercising the privileges of craft other than a glider or balloon;
a pilot certificate with a glider cat- (iv) Serving as an Examiner and ad-
egory rating or balloon class rating in ministering a practical test for the
a glider or a balloon, as appropriate; issuance of a sport pilot certificate in a
(4) When exercising the privileges of light-sport aircraft other than a glider
a flight instructor certificate with— or balloon;
(i) A sport pilot rating in a glider or (v) Exercising the privileges of a stu-
balloon; or dent, recreational or private pilot cer-

(ii) A glider category rating; tificate if the flight is conducted under
527
§ 61.23 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
the conditions and limitations set (C) Complete the medical education
forth in § 61.113(i); or course set forth in § 68.3 of this chapter
(vi) Exercising the privileges of a during the 24-calendar months before
flight instructor certificate and acting acting as pilot in command in an oper-
as the pilot in command or as a re- ation conducted under § 61.113(i) and re-
quired flight crewmember if the flight tain a certification of course comple-
is conducted under the conditions and tion in accordance with § 68.3(b)(1) of
limitations set forth in § 61.113(i). this chapter;
(2) A person using a U.S. driver’s li-
(D) Receive a comprehensive medical
cense to meet the requirements of
paragraph (c) while exercising sport examination from a State-licensed
pilot privileges must— physician during the 48 months before
(i) Comply with each restriction and acting as pilot in command of an oper-
limitation imposed by that person’s ation conducted under § 61.113(i) and
U.S. driver’s license and any judicial or that medical examination is conducted
administrative order applying to the in accordance with the requirements in
operation of a motor vehicle; part 68 of this chapter; and
(ii) Have been found eligible for the (E) If the individual has been diag-
issuance of at least a third-class air- nosed with any medical condition that
man medical certificate at the time of may impact the ability of the indi-
his or her most recent application (if vidual to fly, be under the care and
the person has applied for a medical treatment of a State-licensed physi-
certificate); cian when acting as pilot in command
(iii) Not have had his or her most re- of an operation conducted under
cently issued medical certificate (if the § 61.113(i).
person has held a medical certificate)
(ii) The most recently issued medical
suspended or revoked or most recent
Authorization for a Special Issuance of certificate—
a Medical Certificate withdrawn; and (A) May include an authorization for
(iv) Not know or have reason to know special issuance;
of any medical condition that would (B) May be expired; and
make that person unable to operate a (C) Cannot have been suspended or
light-sport aircraft in a safe manner. revoked.
(3) A person using a U.S. driver’s li- (iii) The most recently issued Au-
cense to meet the requirements of thorization for a Special Issuance of a
paragraph (c) while operating under Medical Certificate cannot have been
the conditions and limitations of withdrawn; and
§ 61.113(i) must meet the following re- (iv) The most recent application for
quirements—
an airman medical certificate sub-
(i) The person must—
mitted to the FAA cannot have been
(A) Comply with all medical require-
ments or restrictions associated with completed and denied.
his or her U.S. driver’s license; (d) Duration of a medical certificate.
(B) At any point after July 14, 2006, Use the following table to determine
have held a medical certificate issued duration for each class of medical cer-
under part 67 of this chapter; tificate:
And on the
date of
examination And you are conducting an operation Then your medical certificate expires, for that
If you hold for your most requiring operation, at the end of the last day of the
recent med-
ical certificate
you were
(1) A first-class (i) Under age an airline transport pilot certificate for pilot-in- 12th month after the month of the date of ex-
medical cer- 40. command privileges, or for second-in-com- amination shown on the medical certificate.
tificate. mand privileges in a flag or supplemental
operation in part 121 requiring three or
more pilots.
528
And on the
date of
examination And you are conducting an operation Then your medical certificate expires, for that
If you hold for your most requiring operation, at the end of the last day of the
recent med-
ical certificate
you were
(ii) Age 40 or an airline transport pilot certificate for pilot-in- 6th month after the month of the date of ex-
older. command privileges, for second-in-com- amination shown on the medical certificate.
mand privileges in a flag or supplemental
operation in part 121 requiring three or
more pilots, or for a pilot flightcrew member
in part 121 operations who has reached his
or her 60th birthday..
(iii) Any age .. a commercial pilot certificate or an air traffic 12th month after the month of the date of ex-
control tower operator certificate. amination shown on the medical certificate.
(iv) Under a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot 60th month after the month of the date of ex-
age 40. certificate, a flight instructor certificate amination shown on the medical certificate.
(when acting as pilot in command or a re-
quired pilot flight crewmember in operations
other than glider or balloon), a student pilot
certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when
not using a U.S. driver’s license as medical
qualification).
(v) Age 40 or a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot 24th month after the month of the date of ex-
older. certificate, a flight instructor certificate amination shown on the medical certificate.
qualification).
(2) A second- (i) Any age ... an airline transport pilot certificate for second- 12th month after the month of the date of ex-
class med- in-command privileges (other than the oper- amination shown on the medical certificate.
ical certifi- ations specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this
cate. section), a commercial pilot certificate, or
an air traffic control tower operator certifi-
cate.
(ii) Under age a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot 60th month after the month of the date of ex-
40. certificate, a flight instructor certificate amination shown on the medical certificate.
qualification).
(iii) Age 40 or a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot 24th month after the month of the date of ex-
qualification).
(3) A third- (i) Under age a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot 60th month after the month of the date of ex-
class med- 40. certificate, a flight instructor certificate amination shown on the medical certificate.
ical certifi- (when acting as pilot in command or a re-
cate. quired pilot flight crewmember in operations
qualification).
(ii) Age 40 or a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot 24th month after the month of the date of ex-
qualification).
529
§ 61.25 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40895, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61–
110, 69 FR 44864, July 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–121, 73 FR 43064, July 24, 2008; Amdt.
61–121, 73 FR 48125, Aug. 18, 2008; Amdt. 61–123, 74 FR 34234, July 15, 2009; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR
42547, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61–129, 76 FR 78143, Dec. 16, 2011; Amdt. 61–129A, 77 FR 61721, Oct.
11, 2012; Amdt. 61–130, 78 FR 42372, July 15, 2013; Docket FAA–2016–9157, Amdt. 61–140, 82 FR
3164, Jan. 11, 2017]
§ 61.25 Change of name. a request online to Airmen Services at

http://www.faa.gov, and must be accom-
(a) An application to change the
panied by acceptable form of payment
name on a certificate issued under this
for the appropriate fee.
part must be accompanied by the appli-
cant’s: (b) A request for the replacement of a
(1) Airman certificate; and lost or destroyed medical certificate
must be made:
(2) A copy of the marriage license,
court order, or other document (1) By letter to the Department of
verifying the name change. Transportation, FAA, Aerospace Med-
(b) The documents in paragraph (a) of ical Certification Division, P.O. Box
this section will be returned to the ap- 26200, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and
plicant after inspection. must be accompanied by a check or
money order for the appropriate fee
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as payable to the FAA; or
amended by Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. (2) In any other manner and form ap-
21, 2009]
proved by the Administrator and must
§ 61.27 Voluntary surrender or ex- be accompanied by acceptable form of
change of certificate. payment for the appropriate fee.
(c) A request for the replacement of a
(a) The holder of a certificate issued
lost or destroyed knowledge test report
under this part may voluntarily sur-
must be made:
render it for:
(1) By letter to the Department of
(1) Cancellation;
Transportation, FAA, Airmen Certifi-
(2) Issuance of a lower grade certifi-
cation Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Okla-
cate; or
homa City, OK 73125, and must be ac-
(3) Another certificate with specific
companied by a check or money order
ratings deleted.
for the appropriate fee payable to the
(b) Any request made under para-
FAA; or
graph (a) of this section must include
(2) In any other manner and form ap-
the following signed statement or its
equivalent: ‘‘This request is made for
be accompanied by acceptable form of
my own reasons, with full knowledge
payment for the appropriate fee.
that my (insert name of certificate or
rating, as appropriate) may not be re- (d) The letter requesting replacement
issued to me unless I again pass the of a lost or destroyed airman certifi-
tests prescribed for its issuance.’’ cate, medical certificate, or knowledge
test report must state:
§ 61.29 Replacement of a lost or de- (1) The name of the person;
stroyed airman or medical certifi- (2) The permanent mailing address
cate or knowledge test report. (including ZIP code), or if the perma-
(a) A request for the replacement of a nent mailing address includes a post of-
lost or destroyed airman certificate fice box number, then the person’s cur-
issued under this part must be made: rent residential address;
(1) By letter to the Department of (3) The certificate holder’s date and
Transportation, FAA, Airmen Certifi- place of birth; and
cation Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Okla- (4) Any information regarding the—
homa City, OK 73125, and must be ac- (i) Grade, number, and date of
companied by a check or money order issuance of the airman certificate and
for the appropriate fee payable to the ratings, if appropriate;
FAA; or (ii) Class of medical certificate, the
(2) In any other manner and form ap- place and date of the medical exam,
proved by the Administrator including name of the Airman Medical Examiner
530
(AME), and the circumstances con- (3) The person shows that compliance
cerning the loss of the original medical with paragraph (a) of this section is
certificate, as appropriate; and impracticable for the flight or series of
(iii) Date the knowledge test was flights; and
taken, if appropriate. (4) The flight—
(e) A person who has lost an airman (i) Involves only a ferry flight, train-
certificate, medical certificate, or ing flight, test flight, or practical test
knowledge test report may obtain, in a for a pilot certificate or rating;
form or manner approved by the Ad- (ii) Is within the United States;
ministrator, a document conveying (iii) Does not involve operations for
temporary authority to exercise cer- compensation or hire unless the com-
tificate privileges from the FAA pensation or hire involves payment for
Aeromedical Certification Branch or the use of the aircraft for training or
the Airman Certification Branch, as taking a practical test; and
appropriate, and the: (iv) Involves only the carriage of
(1) Document may be carried as an flight crewmembers considered essen-
airman certificate, medical certificate, tial for the flight.
or knowledge test report, as appro- (5) If the flight or series of flights
priate, for up to 60 days pending the cannot be accomplished within the
person’s receipt of a duplicate under time limit of the authorization, the
paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, Administrator may authorize an addi-
unless the person has been notified tional period of up to 60 days to accom-
that the certificate has been suspended plish the flight or series of flights.
or revoked. (c) Aircraft category, class, and type
(2) Request for such a document must ratings: Limitations on the carriage of
include the date on which a duplicate persons, or operating for compensation or
certificate or knowledge test report hire. Unless a person holds a category,
was previously requested. class, and type rating (if a class and
type rating is required) that applies to
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; the aircraft, that person may not act
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40896, July 30, 1997; as pilot in command of an aircraft that
Amdt. 61–121, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008; is carrying another person, or is oper-
Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009;
ated for compensation or hire. That
Amdt. 61–131, 78 FR 56828, Sept. 16, 2013]
person also may not act as pilot in
§ 61.31 Type rating requirements, addi- command of that aircraft for com-
tional training, and authorization pensation or hire.
requirements. (d) Aircraft category, class, and type
ratings: Limitations on operating an air-
(a) Type ratings required. A person
craft as the pilot in command. To serve
who acts as a pilot in command of any
as the pilot in command of an aircraft,
of the following aircraft must hold a
a person must—
type rating for that aircraft:
(1) Hold the appropriate category,
(1) Large aircraft (except lighter- class, and type rating (if a class or type
than-air). rating is required) for the aircraft to be
(2) Turbojet-powered airplanes. flown; or
(3) Other aircraft specified by the Ad- (2) Have received training required by
ministrator through aircraft type cer- this part that is appropriate to the
tificate procedures. pilot certification level, aircraft cat-
(b) Authorization in lieu of a type rat- egory, class, and type rating (if a class
ing. A person may be authorized to op- or type rating is required) for the air-
erate without a type rating for up to 60 craft to be flown, and have received an
days an aircraft requiring a type rat- endorsement for solo flight in that air-
ing, provided— craft from an authorized instructor.
(1) The Administrator has authorized (e) Additional training required for op-
the flight or series of flights; erating complex airplanes. (1) Except as
(2) The Administrator has deter- provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this sec-
mined that an equivalent level of safe- tion, no person may act as pilot in
ty can be achieved through the oper- command of a complex airplane, unless

ating limitations on the authorization; the person has—
531
§ 61.31 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(i) Received and logged ground and ance airplane, or in a full flight simu-
flight training from an authorized in- lator or flight training device that is
structor in a complex airplane, or in a representative of a high-performance
full flight simulator or flight training airplane prior to August 4, 1997; or
device that is representative of a com- (ii) The person has received ground
plex airplane, and has been found pro- and flight training under an approved
ficient in the operation and systems of training program and has satisfactorily
the airplane; and completed a competency check under
(ii) Received a one-time endorsement § 135.293 of this chapter in a high per-
in the pilot’s logbook from an author- formance airplane, or in a full flight
ized instructor who certifies the person simulator or flight training device that
is proficient to operate a complex air- is representative of a high performance
plane. airplane which must be documented in
(2) The training and endorsement re- the pilot’s logbook or training record.
quired by paragraph (e)(1) of this sec- (g) Additional training required for op-
tion is not required if— erating pressurized aircraft capable of op-
(i) The person has logged flight time erating at high altitudes. (1) Except as
as pilot in command of a complex air- provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this sec-
plane, or in a full flight simulator or tion, no person may act as pilot in
flight training device that is represent- command of a pressurized aircraft (an
ative of a complex airplane prior to Au- aircraft that has a service ceiling or
gust 4, 1997; or maximum operating altitude, which-
(ii) The person has received ground ever is lower, above 25,000 feet MSL),
and flight training under an approved unless that person has received and
training program and has satisfactorily logged ground training from an author-
completed a competency check under ized instructor and obtained an en-
§ 135.293 of this chapter in a complex dorsement in the person’s logbook or
airplane, or in a full flight simulator or training record from an authorized in-
flight training device that is represent- structor who certifies the person has
ative of a complex airplane which must satisfactorily accomplished the ground
be documented in the pilot’s logbook or training. The ground training must in-
training record. clude at least the following subjects:
(f) Additional training required for op- (i) High-altitude aerodynamics and
erating high-performance airplanes. (1) meteorology;
Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) (ii) Respiration;
of this section, no person may act as (iii) Effects, symptoms, and causes of
pilot in command of a high-perform- hypoxia and any other high-altitude
ance airplane (an airplane with an en- sickness;
gine of more than 200 horsepower), un- (iv) Duration of consciousness with-
less the person has— out supplemental oxygen;
(i) Received and logged ground and (v) Effects of prolonged usage of sup-
flight training from an authorized in- plemental oxygen;
structor in a high-performance air- (vi) Causes and effects of gas expan-
plane, or in a full flight simulator or sion and gas bubble formation;
flight training device that is represent- (vii) Preventive measures for elimi-
ative of a high-performance airplane, nating gas expansion, gas bubble for-
and has been found proficient in the op- mation, and high-altitude sickness;
eration and systems of the airplane; (viii) Physical phenomena and inci-
and dents of decompression; and
(ii) Received a one-time endorsement (ix) Any other physiological aspects
in the pilot’s logbook from an author- of high-altitude flight.
ized instructor who certifies the person (2) Except as provided in paragraph
is proficient to operate a high-perform- (g)(3) of this section, no person may act
ance airplane. as pilot in command of a pressurized
(2) The training and endorsement re- aircraft unless that person has received
quired by paragraph (f)(1) of this sec- and logged training from an authorized
tion is not required if— instructor in a pressurized aircraft, or
(i) The person has logged flight time in a full flight simulator or flight
as pilot in command of a high-perform- training device that is representative
532
of a pressurized aircraft, and obtained ceived an endorsement in the person’s

an endorsement in the person’s logbook logbook from an authorized instructor
or training record from an authorized who found the person proficient in the
instructor who found the person pro- operation of a tailwheel airplane. The
ficient in the operation of a pressurized flight training must include at least
aircraft. The flight training must in- the following maneuvers and proce-
clude at least the following subjects: dures:
(i) Normal cruise flight operations (i) Normal and crosswind takeoffs
while operating above 25,000 feet MSL; and landings;
(ii) Proper emergency procedures for (ii) Wheel landings (unless the manu-
simulated rapid decompression without facturer has recommended against such
actually depressurizing the aircraft; landings); and
and (iii) Go-around procedures.
(iii) Emergency descent procedures. (2) The training and endorsement re-
(3) The training and endorsement required by paragraph (i)(1) of this sec-
quired by paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of tion is not required if the person logged
this section are not required if that pilot-in-command time in a tailwheel
person can document satisfactory ac- airplane before April 15, 1991.
complishment of any of the following (j) Additional training required for op-
in a pressurized aircraft, or in a full erating a glider. (1) No person may act
flight simulator or flight training de- as pilot in command of a glider—
vice that is representative of a pressur- (i) Using ground-tow procedures, un-
ized aircraft: less that person has satisfactorily ac-
(i) Serving as pilot in command be- complished ground and flight training
fore April 15, 1991; on ground-tow procedures and oper-
(ii) Completing a pilot proficiency ations, and has received an endorse-
check for a pilot certificate or rating ment from an authorized instructor
before April 15, 1991; who certifies in that pilot’s logbook
(iii) Completing an official pilot-in- that the pilot has been found proficient
command check conducted by the mili- in ground-tow procedures and oper-
tary services of the United States; or ations;
(iv) Completing a pilot-in-command (ii) Using aerotow procedures, unless
proficiency check under part 121, 125, that person has satisfactorily accom-
or 135 of this chapter conducted by the plished ground and flight training on
Administrator or by an approved pilot aerotow procedures and operations, and
check airman. has received an endorsement from an
(h) Additional aircraft type-specific authorized instructor who certifies in
training. No person may serve as pilot that pilot’s logbook that the pilot has
in command of an aircraft that the Ad- been found proficient in aerotow proce-
ministrator has determined requires dures and operations; or
aircraft type-specific training unless (iii) Using self-launch procedures, un-
that person has— less that person has satisfactorily ac-
(1) Received and logged type-specific complished ground and flight training
training in the aircraft, or in a full on self-launch procedures and oper-
flight simulator or flight training de- ations, and has received an endorse-
vice that is representative of that type ment from an authorized instructor
of aircraft; and who certifies in that pilot’s logbook
(2) Received a logbook endorsement that the pilot has been found proficient
from an authorized instructor who has in self-launch procedures and oper-
found the person proficient in the operations.
ation of the aircraft and its systems. (2) The holder of a glider rating
(i) Additional training required for op- issued prior to August 4, 1997, is consid-
erating tailwheel airplanes. (1) Except as ered to be in compliance with the
provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this sec- training and logbook endorsement re-
tion, no person may act as pilot in quirements of this paragraph for the
command of a tailwheel airplane unless specific operating privilege for which
that person has received and logged the holder is already qualified.
flight training from an authorized in- (k) Additional training required for
structor in a tailwheel airplane and re- night vision goggle operations. (1) Except
533
§ 61.31 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
as provided under paragraph (k)(3) of isfactory completion of any of the fol-

this section, a person may act as pilot lowing pilot proficiency checks using
in command of an aircraft using night night vision goggles in an aircraft:
vision goggles only if that person re- (i) A pilot proficiency check on night
ceives and logs ground training from vision goggle operations conducted by
an authorized instructor and obtains a the U.S. Armed Forces.
logbook or training record endorse- (ii) A pilot proficiency check on
ment from an authorized instructor night vision goggle operations under
who certifies the person completed the part 135 of this chapter conducted by
ground training. The ground training
an Examiner or Check Airman.
must include the following subjects:
(i) Applicable portions of this chapter (iii) A pilot proficiency check on
that relate to night vision goggle limi- night vision goggle operations con-
tations and flight operations; ducted by a night vision goggle manu-
(ii) Aeromedical factors related to facturer or authorized instructor, when
the use of night vision goggles, includ- the pilot—
ing how to protect night vision, how (A) Is employed by a Federal, State,
the eyes adapt to night, self-imposed county, or municipal law enforcement
stresses that affect night vision, effects agency; and
of lighting on night vision, cues used to (B) Has logged at least 20 hours as
estimate distance and depth perception pilot in command in night vision gog-
at night, and visual illusions; gle operations.
(iii) Normal, abnormal, and emer- (l) Exceptions. (1) This section does
gency operations of night vision goggle not require a category and class rating
equipment; for aircraft not type-certificated as air-
(iv) Night vision goggle performance planes, rotorcraft, gliders, lighter-
and scene interpretation; and than-air aircraft, powered-lifts, pow-
(v) Night vision goggle operation ered parachutes, or weight-shift-con-
flight planning, including night terrain
trol aircraft.
interpretation and factors affecting
terrain interpretation. (2) The rating limitations of this sec-
(2) Except as provided under para- tion do not apply to—
graph (k)(3) of this section, a person (i) An applicant when taking a prac-
may act as pilot in command of an air- tical test given by an examiner;
craft using night vision goggles only if (ii) The holder of a student pilot cer-
that person receives and logs flight tificate;
training from an authorized instructor (iii) The holder of a pilot certificate
and obtains a logbook or training when operating an aircraft under the
record endorsement from an authorized authority of—
instructor who found the person pro- (A) A provisional type certificate; or
ficient in the use of night vision gog- (B) An experimental certificate, un-
gles. The flight training must include less the operation involves carrying a
the following tasks: passenger;
(i) Preflight and use of internal and (iv) The holder of a pilot certificate
external aircraft lighting systems for with a lighter-than-air category rating
night vision goggle operations;
when operating a balloon;
(ii) Preflight preparation of night vi-
sion goggles for night vision goggle op- (v) The holder of a recreational pilot
erations; certificate operating under the provi-
(iii) Proper piloting techniques when sions of § 61.101(h); or
using night vision goggles during the (vi) The holder of a sport pilot cer-
takeoff, climb, enroute, descent, and tificate when operating a light-sport
landing phases of flight; and aircraft.
(iv) Normal, abnormal, and emer- [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40896, July 30, 1997, as
gency flight operations using night vi- amended by Amdt. 61–104, 63 FR 20286, Apr.
sion goggles. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44865, July 27,
(3) The requirements under para-
2004; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21, 2009;

graphs (k)(1) and (2) of this section do Amdt. 61–128, 76 FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011;
not apply if a person can document sat- Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, 2018]
534
§ 61.33 Tests: General procedure. (b) The Administrator shall specify

the minimum passing grade for the
Tests prescribed by or under this part
knowledge test.
are given at times and places, and by
persons designated by the Adminis- [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as
trator. amended by Amdt. 61–104, 63 FR 20286, Apr.
23, 1998; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21,
§ 61.35 Knowledge test: Prerequisites 2009; Amdt. 61–130, 78 FR 42373, July 15, 2013;
and passing grades. Amdt. 61–130B, 78 FR 77573, Dec. 24, 2013]
(a) An applicant for a knowledge test § 61.37 Knowledge tests: Cheating or

must have: other unauthorized conduct.
(1) Received an endorsement, if re- (a) An applicant for a knowledge test
quired by this part, from an authorized may not:
instructor certifying that the applicant (1) Copy or intentionally remove any
accomplished the appropriate ground- knowledge test;
training or a home-study course re- (2) Give to another applicant or re-
quired by this part for the certificate ceive from another applicant any part
or rating sought and is prepared for the or copy of a knowledge test;
knowledge test; (3) Give assistance on, or receive as-
(2) After July 31, 2014, for the knowl- sistance on, a knowledge test during
edge test for an airline transport pilot the period that test is being given;
certificate with an airplane category (4) Take any part of a knowledge test
multiengine class rating, a graduation on behalf of another person;
certificate for the airline transport (5) Be represented by, or represent,
pilot certification training program another person for a knowledge test;
specified in § 61.156; and (6) Use any material or aid during the
(3) Proper identification at the time period that the test is being given, un-
of application that contains the appli- less specifically authorized to do so by
cant’s— the Administrator; and
(i) Photograph; (7) Intentionally cause, assist, or par-
(ii) Signature; ticipate in any act prohibited by this
(iii) Date of birth, which shows: paragraph.
(A) For issuance of certificates other (b) An applicant who the Adminis-
than the ATP certificate with an air- trator finds has committed an act pro-
plane category multiengine class rat- hibited by paragraph (a) of this section
ing, the applicant meets or will meet is prohibited, for 1 year after the date
the age requirements of this part for of committing that act, from:
the certificate sought before the expi- (1) Applying for any certificate, rat-
ration date of the airman knowledge ing, or authorization issued under this
test report; chapter; and
(B) Prior to August 1, 2014, for (2) Applying for and taking any test
issuance of an ATP certificate with an under this chapter.
airplane category multiengine class (c) Any certificate or rating held by
rating under the aeronautical experi- an applicant may be suspended or re-
ence requirements of §§ 61.159 or 61.160, voked if the Administrator finds that
the applicant is at least 21 years of age person has committed an act prohib-
at the time of the knowledge test; and ited by paragraph (a) of this section.
(C) After July 31, 2014, for issuance of
an ATP certificate with an airplane § 61.39 Prerequisites for practical
category multiengine class rating ob- tests.
tained under the aeronautical experi- (a) Except as provided in paragraphs
ence requirements of §§ 61.159 or 61.160, (b), (c), and (e) of this section, to be eli-
the applicant is at least 18 years of age gible for a practical test for a certifi-
at the time of the knowledge test; cate or rating issued under this part,
(iv) If the permanent mailing address an applicant must:
is a post office box number, then the (1) Pass the required knowledge test:
applicant must provide a current resi- (i) Within the 24-calendar-month pe-
dential address. riod preceding the month the applicant
535
§ 61.39 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
completes the practical test, if a chapter at the time of the practical

knowledge test is required; or test and has satisfactorily accom-
(ii) Within the 60-calendar month pe- plished that operator’s approved pilot-
riod preceding the month the applicant in-command training or checking pro-
completes the practical test for those gram; or
applicants who complete the airline (2) As a flightcrew member by a part
transport pilot certification training 119 certificate holder conducting oper-
program in § 61.156 and pass the knowl- ations under part 121 of this chapter at
edge test for an airline transport pilot the time of the practical test and has
certificate with a multiengine class satisfactorily accomplished that opera-
rating after July 31, 2014; tor’s approved initial training pro-
(2) Present the knowledge test report gram; or
at the time of application for the prac- (3) By the U.S. Armed Forces as a
tical test, if a knowledge test is re- flight crewmember in U.S. military air
quired; transport operations at the time of the
(3) Have satisfactorily accomplished practical test and has completed the
the required training and obtained the pilot in command aircraft qualification
aeronautical experience prescribed by training program that is appropriate to
this part for the certificate or rating the pilot certificate and rating sought.
sought, and if applying for the prac- (c) An applicant for an airline trans-
tical test with flight time accom- port pilot certificate with a rating
plished under § 61.159(c), present a copy other than those ratings set forth in
of the records required by paragraph (b) of this section may take
§ 135.63(a)(4)(vi) and (x) of this chapter; the practical test for that certificate or
(4) Hold at least a third-class medical rating with an expired knowledge test
certificate, if a medical certificate is report, provided that the applicant is
required; employed:
(5) Meet the prescribed age require- (1) As a flightcrew member by a part
ment of this part for the issuance of 119 certificate holder conducting oper-
the certificate or rating sought; ations under parts 125 or 135 of this
(6) Have an endorsement, if required chapter at the time of the practical
by this part, in the applicant’s logbook test and has satisfactorily accom-
or training record that has been signed plished that operator’s approved pilot-
by an authorized instructor who cer- in-command training or checking pro-
tifies that the applicant— gram; or
(i) Has received and logged training (2) By the U.S. Armed Forces as a
time within 2 calendar months preflight crewmember in U.S. military air
ceding the month of application in transport operations at the time of the
preparation for the practical test; practical test and has completed the
(ii) Is prepared for the required prac- pilot in command aircraft qualification
tical test; and training program that is appropriate to
(iii) Has demonstrated satisfactory the pilot certificate and rating sought.
knowledge of the subject areas in (d) In addition to the requirements in
which the applicant was deficient on paragraph (a) of this section, to be eli-
the airman knowledge test; and gible for a practical test for an airline
(7) Have a completed and signed ap- transport pilot certificate with an air-
plication form. plane category multiengine class rat-
(b) An applicant for an airline trans- ing or airline transport pilot certifi-
port pilot certificate with an airplane cate obtained concurrently with an air-
category multiengine class rating or an plane type rating, an applicant must:
airline transport pilot certificate with (1) If the applicant passed the knowl-
an airplane type rating may take the edge test after July 31, 2014, present the
practical test with an expired knowl- graduation certificate for the airline
edge test only if the applicant passed transport pilot certification training
the knowledge test after July 31, 2014, program in § 61.156, at the time of appli-
and is employed: cation for the practical test;
(1) As a flightcrew member by a part (2) If applying for the practical test
119 certificate holder conducting oper- under the aeronautical experience re-
ations under parts 125 or 135 of this quirements of § 61.160(a), the applicant
536
must present the documents required (ii) A foreign contracting State to

by that section to substantiate eligi- the Convention on International Civil
bility; and Aviation.
(3) If applying for the practical test (2) A flight instructor who is author-
under the aeronautical experience re- ized to give such training by the licens-
quirements of § 61.160(b), (c), or (d), the ing authority of a foreign contracting
applicant must present an official tran- State to the Convention on Inter-
script and certifying document from an national Civil Aviation, and the flight
institution of higher education that training is given outside the United
holds a letter of authorization from the States.
Administrator under § 61.169. (b) A flight instructor described in
(e) A person is not required to com- paragraph (a) of this section is only au-
ply with the provisions of paragraph thorized to give endorsements to show
(a)(6) of this section if that person: training given.
(1) Holds a foreign pilot license issued
by a contracting State to the Conven- § 61.43 Practical tests: General proce-
tion on International Civil Aviation dures.
that authorizes at least the privileges (a) Completion of the practical test
of the pilot certificate sought; for a certificate or rating consists of—
(2) Is only applying for a type rating; (1) Performing the tasks specified in
or the areas of operation for the airman
(3) Is applying for an airline trans- certificate or rating sought;
port pilot certificate or an additional (2) Demonstrating mastery of the air-
rating to an airline transport pilot cer- craft by performing each task success-
tificate in an aircraft that does not re- fully;
quire an aircraft type rating practical (3) Demonstrating proficiency and
test. competency within the approved stand-
(f) If all increments of the practical ards; and
test for a certificate or rating are not (4) Demonstrating sound judgment.
completed on the same date, then all (b) The pilot flight crew complement
the remaining increments of the test required during the practical test is
must be completed within 2 calendar based on one of the following require-
months after the month the applicant ments that applies to the aircraft being
began the test. used on the practical test:
(g) If all increments of the practical
(1) If the aircraft’s FAA-approved
test for a certificate or rating are not
flight manual requires the pilot flight
completed within 2 calendar months
crew complement be a single pilot,
after the month the applicant began
then the applicant must demonstrate
the test, the applicant must retake the
single pilot proficiency on the prac-
entire practical test.
tical test.
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; (2) If the aircraft’s type certification
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997, as data sheet requires the pilot flight
amended by Amdt. 61–104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. crew complement be a single pilot,
23, 1998; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42548, Aug. 21,
2009; Amdt. 61–130, 78 FR 42373, July 15, 2013;
then the applicant must demonstrate
Amdt. 61–130B, 78 FR 77573, Dec. 24, 2013; single pilot proficiency on the prac-
Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR 30726, June 27, 2018] tical test.
(3) If the FAA Flight Standardization
§ 61.41 Flight training received from Board report, FAA-approved aircraft
flight instructors not certificated by flight manual, or aircraft type certifi-
the FAA. cation data sheet allows the pilot
(a) A person may credit flight train- flight crew complement to be either a
ing toward the requirements of a pilot single pilot, or a pilot and a copilot,
certificate or rating issued under this then the applicant may demonstrate
part, if that person received the train- single pilot proficiency or have a copi-
ing from: lot on the practical test. If the appli-
(1) A flight instructor of an Armed cant performs the practical test with a
Force in a program for training mili- copilot, the limitation of ‘‘Second in
tary pilots of either— Command Required’’ will be placed on

(i) The United States; or the applicant’s pilot certificate. The
537
§ 61.45 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
limitation may be removed if the appli- (ii) Has a standard airworthiness cer-
cant passes the practical test by dem- tificate or special airworthiness certifi-
onstrating single-pilot proficiency in cate in the limited, primary, or light-
the aircraft in which single-pilot privi- sport category.
leges are sought. (2) At the discretion of the examiner
(c) If an applicant fails any area of who administers the practical test, the
operation, that applicant fails the applicant may furnish—
practical test. (i) An aircraft that has an airworthi-
(d) An applicant is not eligible for a ness certificate other than a standard
certificate or rating sought until all airworthiness certificate or special air-
the areas of operation are passed. worthiness certificate in the limited,
(e) The examiner or the applicant primary, or light-sport category, but
may discontinue a practical test at any that otherwise meets the requirements
time: of paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
(1) When the applicant fails one or (ii) An aircraft of the same category,
more of the areas of operation; or class, and type, if applicable, of foreign
(2) Due to inclement weather condi- registry that is properly certificated by
tions, aircraft airworthiness, or any the country of registry; or
other safety-of-flight concern. (iii) A military aircraft of the same
(f) If a practical test is discontinued, category, class, and type, if aircraft
the applicant is entitled credit for class and type are appropriate, for
those areas of operation that were which the applicant is applying for a
passed, but only if the applicant: certificate or rating, and provided—
(1) Passes the remainder of the prac-
(A) The aircraft is under the direct
tical test within the 60-day period after
operational control of the U.S. Armed
the date the practical test was discon-
Forces;
tinued;
(B) The aircraft is airworthy under
(2) Presents to the examiner for the
the maintenance standards of the U.S.
retest the original notice of dis-
Armed Forces; and
approval form or the letter of dis-
continuance form, as appropriate; (C) The applicant has a letter from
(3) Satisfactorily accomplishes any his or her commanding officer author-
additional training needed and obtains izing the use of the aircraft for the
the appropriate instructor endorse- practical test.
ments, if additional training is re- (b) Required equipment (other than con-
quired; and trols). (1) Except as provided in para-
(4) Presents to the examiner for the graph (b)(2) of this section, an aircraft
retest a properly completed and signed used for a practical test must have—
application. (i) The equipment for each area of op-
eration required for the practical test;
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as
(ii) No prescribed operating limita-
amended by Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42549, Aug.
21, 2009; Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR 30276, June 27, tions that prohibit its use in any of the
2018] areas of operation required for the
practical test;
§ 61.45 Practical tests: Required air- (iii) Except as provided in paragraphs
craft and equipment. (e) and (f) of this section, at least two
(a) General. Except as provided in pilot stations with adequate visibility
paragraph (a)(2) of this section or when for each person to operate the aircraft
permitted to accomplish the entire safely; and
flight increment of the practical test (iv) Cockpit and outside visibility
in a flight simulator or a flight train- adequate to evaluate the performance
ing device, an applicant for a certifi- of the applicant when an additional
cate or rating issued under this part jump seat is provided for the examiner.
must furnish: (2) An applicant for a certificate or
(1) An aircraft of U.S. registry for rating may use an aircraft with oper-
each required test that— ating characteristics that preclude the
(i) Is of the category, class, and type, applicant from performing all of the
if applicable, for which the applicant is tasks required for the practical test.
applying for a certificate or rating; and However, the applicant’s certificate or
538
rating, as appropriate, will be issued passenger carriage and flight in a sin-

with an appropriate limitation. gle-seat light-sport aircraft only.’’
(c) Required controls. Except for light- [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
er-than-air aircraft, and a glider with- Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997;
out an engine, an aircraft used for a Amdt. 61–104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt.
practical test must have engine power 61–110, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61–
controls and flight controls that are 124, 74 FR 42549, Aug. 21, 2009]
easily reached and operable in a con- § 61.47 Status of an examiner who is
ventional manner by both pilots, unauthorized by the Administrator to
less the Examiner determines that the conduct practical tests.
practical test can be conducted safely (a) An examiner represents the Ad-
in the aircraft without the controls ministrator for the purpose of con-
easily reached by the Examiner. ducting practical tests for certificates
(d) Simulated instrument flight equip- and ratings issued under this part and
ment. An applicant for a practical test to observe an applicant’s ability to per-
that involves maneuvering an aircraft form the areas of operation on the
solely by reference to instruments practical test.
must furnish: (b) The examiner is not the pilot in
(1) Equipment on board the aircraft command of the aircraft during the
that permits the applicant to pass the practical test unless the examiner
areas of operation that apply to the agrees to act in that capacity for the
rating sought; and flight or for a portion of the flight by
(2) A device that prevents the appli- prior arrangement with:
(1) The applicant; or
cant from having visual reference out-
(2) A person who would otherwise act
side the aircraft, but does not prevent
as pilot in command of the flight or for
the examiner from having visual ref- a portion of the flight.
erence outside the aircraft, and is oth- (c) Notwithstanding the type of air-
erwise acceptable to the Adminis- craft used during the practical test, the
trator. applicant and the examiner (and any
(e) Aircraft with single controls. A other occupants authorized to be on
practical test may be conducted in an board by the examiner) are not subject
aircraft having a single set of controls, to the requirements or limitations for
provided the: the carriage of passengers that are
(1) Examiner agrees to conduct the specified in this chapter.
test; [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
(2) Test does not involve a dem- Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997]
onstration of instrument skills; and
(3) Proficiency of the applicant can § 61.49 Retesting after failure.
be observed by an examiner who is in a (a) An applicant for a knowledge or
position to observe the applicant. practical test who fails that test may
(f) Light-sport aircraft with a single reapply for the test only after the ap-
seat. A practical test for a sport pilot plicant has received:
certificate may be conducted in a (1) The necessary training from an
light-sport aircraft having a single seat authorized instructor who has deter-
provided that the— mined that the applicant is proficient
(1) Examiner agrees to conduct the to pass the test; and
(2) An endorsement from an author-
test;
ized instructor who gave the applicant
(2) Examiner is in a position to ob-
the additional training.
serve the operation of the aircraft and (b) An applicant for a flight instruc-
evaluate the proficiency of the appli- tor certificate with an airplane cat-
cant; and egory rating or, for a flight instructor
(3) Pilot certificate of an applicant certificate with a glider category rat-
successfully passing the test is issued a ing, who has failed the practical test
pilot certificate with a limitation ‘‘No due to deficiencies in instructional pro-
ficiency on stall awareness, spin entry,

spins, or spin recovery must:
539
§ 61.51 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(1) Comply with the requirements of (iii) Simulated instrument conditions

paragraph (a) of this section before in flight, a full flight simulator, flight
being retested; training device, or aviation training
(2) Bring an aircraft to the retest device.
that is of the appropriate aircraft cat- (iv) Use of night vision goggles in an
egory for the rating sought and is cer- aircraft in flight, in a full flight simu-
tificated for spins; and lator, or in a flight training device.
(3) Demonstrate satisfactory instruc- (c) Logging of pilot time. The pilot
tional proficiency on stall awareness, time described in this section may be
spin entry, spins, and spin recovery to used to:
an examiner during the retest.
(1) Apply for a certificate or rating
§ 61.51 Pilot logbooks. issued under this part or a privilege au-
thorized under this part; or
(a) Training time and aeronautical ex-
(2) Satisfy the recent flight experi-
perience. Each person must document
ence requirements of this part.
and record the following time in a
manner acceptable to the Adminis- (d) Logging of solo flight time. Except
trator: for a student pilot performing the du-
(1) Training and aeronautical experi- ties of pilot in command of an airship
ence used to meet the requirements for requiring more than one pilot flight
a certificate, rating, or flight review of crewmember, a pilot may log as solo
this part. flight time only that flight time when
(2) The aeronautical experience re- the pilot is the sole occupant of the
quired for meeting the recent flight ex- aircraft.
perience requirements of this part. (e) Logging pilot-in-command flight
(b) Logbook entries. For the purposes time. (1) A sport, recreational, private,
of meeting the requirements of para- commercial, or airline transport pilot
graph (a) of this section, each person may log pilot in command flight time
must enter the following information for flights-
for each flight or lesson logged: (i) Except when logging flight time
(1) General— under § 61.159(c), when the pilot is the
(i) Date. sole manipulator of the controls of an
(ii) Total flight time or lesson time. aircraft for which the pilot is rated, or
(iii) Location where the aircraft de- has sport pilot privileges for that cat-
parted and arrived, or for lessons in a egory and class of aircraft, if the air-
full flight simulator or flight training craft class rating is appropriate;
device, the location where the lesson (ii) When the pilot is the sole occu-
occurred. pant in the aircraft;
(iv) Type and identification of air- (iii) When the pilot, except for a
craft, full flight simulator, flight train- holder of a sport or recreational pilot
ing device, or aviation training device,
certificate, acts as pilot in command of
as appropriate.
an aircraft for which more than one
(v) The name of a safety pilot, if re-
pilot is required under the type certifi-
quired by § 91.109 of this chapter.
cation of the aircraft or the regula-
(2) Type of pilot experience or train-
ing— tions under which the flight is con-
(i) Solo. ducted; or
(ii) Pilot in command. (iv) When the pilot performs the du-
(iii) Second in command. ties of pilot in command while under
(iv) Flight and ground training re- the supervision of a qualified pilot in
ceived from an authorized instructor. command provided—
(v) Training received in a full flight (A) The pilot performing the duties of
simulator, flight training device, or pilot in command holds a commercial
aviation training device from an au- or airline transport pilot certificate
thorized instructor. and aircraft rating that is appropriate
(3) Conditions of flight— to the category and class of aircraft
(i) Day or night. being flown, if a class rating is appro-

(ii) Actual instrument. priate;
540
(B) The pilot performing the duties of (5) A commercial pilot or airline
pilot in command is undergoing an ap- transport pilot may log all flight time
proved pilot in command training pro- while acting as pilot in command of an
gram that includes ground and flight operation in accordance with § 135.99(c)
training on the following areas of oper- of this chapter if the flight is con-
ation— ducted in accordance with an approved
(1) Preflight preparation; second-in-command professional devel-
(2) Preflight procedures; opment program that meets the re-
(3) Takeoff and departure; quirements of § 135.99(c) of this chapter.
(4) In-flight maneuvers; (f) Logging second-in-command flight
(5) Instrument procedures; time. A person may log second-in-com-
(6) Landings and approaches to land- mand time only for that flight time
ings; during which that person:
(7) Normal and abnormal procedures; (1) Is qualified in accordance with the
(8) Emergency procedures; and second-in-command requirements of
(9) Postflight procedures; § 61.55, and occupies a crewmember sta-
(C) The supervising pilot in command tion in an aircraft that requires more
holds— than one pilot by the aircraft’s type
(1) A commercial pilot certificate and certificate;
flight instructor certificate, and air- (2) Holds the appropriate category,
craft rating that is appropriate to the class, and instrument rating (if an in-
category, class, and type of aircraft strument rating is required for the
being flown, if a class or type rating is flight) for the aircraft being flown, and
required; or more than one pilot is required under
(2) An airline transport pilot certifi- the type certification of the aircraft or
cate and aircraft rating that is appro- the regulations under which the flight
priate to the category, class, and type is being conducted; or
of aircraft being flown, if a class or (3) Serves as second in command in
type rating is required; and operations conducted in accordance
(D) The supervising pilot in command with § 135.99(c) of this chapter when a
logs the pilot in command training in second pilot is not required under the
the pilot’s logbook, certifies the pilot type certification of the aircraft or the
in command training in the pilot’s log- regulations under which the flight is
book and attests to that certification being conducted, provided the require-
with his or her signature, and flight in- ments in § 61.159(c) are satisfied.
structor certificate number. (g) Logging instrument time. (1) A per-
(2) If rated to act as pilot in com- son may log instrument time only for
mand of the aircraft, an airline trans- that flight time when the person oper-
port pilot may log all flight time while ates the aircraft solely by reference to
acting as pilot in command of an oper- instruments under actual or simulated
ation requiring an airline transport instrument flight conditions.
pilot certificate. (2) An authorized instructor may log
(3) A certificated flight instructor instrument time when conducting in-
may log pilot in command flight time strument flight instruction in actual
for all flight time while serving as the instrument flight conditions.
authorized instructor in an operation if (3) For the purposes of logging in-
the instructor is rated to act as pilot in strument time to meet the recent in-
command of that aircraft. strument experience requirements of
(4) A student pilot may log pilot-in- § 61.57(c) of this part, the following in-
command time only when the student formation must be recorded in the per-
pilot— son’s logbook—
(i) Is the sole occupant of the aircraft (i) The location and type of each in-
or is performing the duties of pilot of strument approach accomplished; and
command of an airship requiring more (ii) The name of the safety pilot, if
than one pilot flight crewmember; required.
(ii) Has a solo flight endorsement as (4) A person may use time in a full
required under § 61.87 of this part; and flight simulator, flight training device,
(iii) Is undergoing training for a pilot or aviation training device for acquir-
certificate or rating. ing instrument aeronautical experience
541
§ 61.51 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
for a pilot certificate or rating pro- (i) That exceed 50 nautical miles
vided an authorized instructor is from the airport at which training was
present to observe that time and signs received;
the person’s logbook or training record (ii) Within airspace that requires
to verify the time and the content of communication with air traffic con-
the training session. trol;
(5) A person may use time in a full (iii) Conducted between sunset and
flight simulator, flight training device, sunrise; or
or aviation training device for satis- (iv) In an aircraft for which the pilot
fying instrument recency experience
does not hold an appropriate category
requirements provided a logbook or
or class rating.
training record is maintained to speci-
fy the training device, time, and the (5) A flight instructor with a sport
content. pilot rating must carry his or her log-
(h) Logging training time. (1) A person book or other evidence of required au-
may log training time when that per- thorized instructor endorsements on
son receives training from an author- all flights when providing flight train-
ized instructor in an aircraft, full ing.
flight simulator, flight training device, (j) Aircraft requirements for logging
or aviation training device. flight time. For a person to log flight
(2) The training time must be logged time, the time must be acquired in an
in a logbook and must: aircraft that is identified as an aircraft
(i) Be endorsed in a legible manner by under § 61.5(b), and is—
the authorized instructor; and (1) An aircraft of U.S. registry with
(ii) Include a description of the train- either a standard or special airworthi-
ing given, the length of the training ness certificate;
lesson, and the authorized instructor’s (2) An aircraft of foreign registry
signature, certificate number, and cer- with an airworthiness certificate that
tificate expiration date. is approved by the aviation authority
(i) Presentation of required documents. of a foreign country that is a Member
(1) Persons must present their pilot State to the Convention on Inter-
certificate, medical certificate, log- national Civil Aviation Organization;
book, or any other record required by (3) A military aircraft under the di-
this part for inspection upon a reason- rect operational control of the U.S.
able request by— Armed Forces; or
(i) The Administrator;
(4) A public aircraft under the direct
(ii) An authorized representative operational control of a Federal, State,
from the National Transportation Safe-
county, or municipal law enforcement
ty Board; or
agency, if the flight time was acquired
(iii) Any Federal, State, or local law
by the pilot while engaged on an offi-
enforcement officer.
cial law enforcement flight for a Fed-
(2) A student pilot must carry the
eral, State, County, or Municipal law
following items in the aircraft on all
enforcement agency.
solo cross-country flights as evidence
of the required authorized instructor (k) Logging night vision goggle time. (1)
clearances and endorsements— A person may log night vision goggle
(i) Pilot logbook; time only for the time the person uses
(ii) Student pilot certificate; and night vision goggles as the primary vis-
(iii) Any other record required by ual reference of the surface and oper-
this section. ates:
(3) A sport pilot must carry his or her (i) An aircraft during a night vision
logbook or other evidence of required goggle operation; or
authorized instructor endorsements on (ii) A full flight simulator or flight
all flights. training device with the lighting sys-
(4) A recreational pilot must carry tem adjusted to represent the period
his or her logbook with the required beginning 1 hour after sunset and end-
authorized instructor endorsements on ing 1 hour before sunrise.

all solo flights—
542
(2) An authorized instructor may log ging pilot time in aircraft as specified
night vision goggle time when that per- in § 61.51;
son conducts training using night vi- (3) Obtain the aeronautical experi-
sion goggles as the primary visual ref- ence in a category and class of vehicle
erence of the surface and operates: corresponding to the rating or privilege
(i) An aircraft during a night goggle sought; and
operation; or (4) Provide the FAA with a certified
(ii) A full flight simulator or flight copy of his or her ultralight pilot
training device with the lighting sys- records from an FAA-recognized ultra-
tem adjusted to represent the period light organization, that —
beginning 1 hour after sunset and end- (i) Document that he or she is a reg-
ing 1 hour before sunrise. istered ultralight pilot with that FAA-
(3) To log night vision goggle time to recognized ultralight organization; and
meet the recent night vision goggle ex- (ii) Indicate that he or she is recog-
perience requirements under § 61.57(f), a nized to operate the category and class
person must log the information re- of aircraft for which sport pilot privi-
quired under § 61.51(b). leges are sought.
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; [Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44865, July
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40897, July 30, 1997; 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR
Amdt. 61–104, 63 FR 20286, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 5220, Feb. 1, 2010]
61–110, 69 FR 44865, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61–
124, 74 FR 42549, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61–128, 76 § 61.53 Prohibition on operations dur-
FR 54105, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR ing medical deficiency.
30277, June 27, 2018]
(a) Operations that require a medical
§ 61.52 Use of aeronautical experience certificate. Except as provided for in
obtained in ultralight vehicles. paragraph (b) of this section, no person
(a) Before January 31, 2012, a person who holds a medical certificate issued
may use aeronautical experience ob- under part 67 of this chapter may act
tained in an ultralight vehicle to meet as pilot in command, or in any other
the requirements for the following cer- capacity as a required pilot flight
tificates and ratings issued under this crewmember, while that person:
part: (1) Knows or has reason to know of
(1) A sport pilot certificate. any medical condition that would
(2) A flight instructor certificate make the person unable to meet the re-
with a sport pilot rating; quirements for the medical certificate
(3) A private pilot certificate with a necessary for the pilot operation; or
weight-shift-control or powered para- (2) Is taking medication or receiving
chute category rating. other treatment for a medical condi-
(b) Before January 31, 2012, a person tion that results in the person being
may use aeronautical experience ob- unable to meet the requirements for
tained in an ultralight vehicle to meet the medical certificate necessary for
the provisions of § 61.69. the pilot operation.
(c) A person using aeronautical expe- (b) Operations that do not require a
rience obtained in an ultralight vehicle medical certificate. For operations pro-
to meet the requirements for a certifi- vided for in § 61.23(b) of this part, a per-
cate or rating specified in paragraph son shall not act as pilot in command,
(a) of this section or the requirements or in any other capacity as a required
of paragraph (b) of this section must— pilot flight crewmember, while that
(1) Have been a registered ultralight person knows or has reason to know of
pilot with an FAA-recognized ultra- any medical condition that would
light organization when that aero- make the person unable to operate the
nautical experience was obtained; aircraft in a safe manner.
(2) Document and log that aero- (c) Operations requiring a medical cer-
nautical experience in accordance with tificate or a U.S. driver’s license. For op-
the provisions for logging aeronautical erations provided for in § 61.23(c), a per-
experience specified by an FAA-recog- son must meet the provisions of—
nized ultralight organization and in ac- (1) Paragraph (a) of this section if
cordance with the provisions for log- that person holds a medical certificate
543
§ 61.55 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
issued under part 67 of this chapter and (i) Three takeoffs and three landings
does not hold a U.S. driver’s license. to a full stop as the sole manipulator of
(2) Paragraph (b) of this section if the flight controls;
that person holds a U.S. driver’s li- (ii) Engine-out procedures and ma-
cense. neuvering with an engine out while
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as executing the duties of pilot in com-
amended by Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44866, July mand; and
27, 2004; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, (iii) Crew resource management
2009] training.
(c) If a person complies with the re-
§ 61.55 Second-in-command qualifica- quirements in paragraph (b) of this sec-
tions.
tion in the calendar month before or
(a) A person may serve as a second- the calendar month after the month in
in-command of an aircraft type certifi- which compliance with this section is
cated for more than one required pilot required, then that person is consid-
flight crewmember or in operations re- ered to have accomplished the training
quiring a second-in-command pilot and practice in the month it is due.
flight crewmember only if that person (d) A person may receive a second-in-
holds: command pilot type rating for an air-
(1) At least a private pilot certificate craft after satisfactorily completing
with the appropriate category and the second-in-command familiarization
class rating; and
training requirements under paragraph
(2) An instrument rating or privilege
(b) of this section in that type of air-
that applies to the aircraft being flown
craft provided the training was com-
if the flight is under IFR; and
pleted within the 12 calendar months
(3) At least a pilot type rating for the
before the month of application for the
aircraft being flown unless the flight
SIC pilot type rating. The person must
will be conducted as domestic flight
operations within the United States comply with the following application
airspace. and pilot certification procedures:
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (1) The person who provided the
(e) of this section, no person may serve training must sign the applicant’s log-
as a second-in-command of an aircraft book or training record after each les-
type certificated for more than one re- son in accordance with § 61.51(h)(2) of
quired pilot flight crewmember or in this part. In lieu of the trainer, it is
operations requiring a second-in-com- permissible for a qualified management
mand unless that person has within the official within the organization to sign
previous 12 calendar months: the applicant’s training records or log-
(1) Become familiar with the fol- book and make the required endorse-
lowing information for the specific ment. The qualified management offi-
type aircraft for which second-in-com- cial must hold the position of Chief
mand privileges are requested— Pilot, Director of Training, Director of
(i) Operational procedures applicable Operations, or another comparable
to the powerplant, equipment, and sys- management position within the orga-
tems. nization that provided the training and
(ii) Performance specifications and must be in a position to verify the ap-
limitations. plicant’s training records and that the
(iii) Normal, abnormal, and emer- training was given.
gency operating procedures. (2) The trainer or qualified manage-
(iv) Flight manual. ment official must make an endorse-
(v) Placards and markings. ment in the applicant’s logbook that
(2) Except as provided in paragraph states ‘‘[Applicant’s Name and Pilot
(g) of this section, performed and Certificate Number] has demonstrated
logged pilot time in the type of aircraft the skill and knowledge required for
or in a flight simulator that represents the safe operation of the [Type of Air-
the type of aircraft for which second- craft], relevant to the duties and re-
in-command privileges are requested, sponsibilities of a second in com-

which includes— mand.’’
544
(3) If the applicant’s flight experience must be in a position to verify the ap-
and/or training records are in an elec- plicant’s training records and that the
tronic form, the applicant must training was given.
present a paper copy of those records (2) The trainer or qualified manage-
containing the signature of the trainer ment official must make an endorse-
or qualified management official to a ment in the applicant’s logbook that
Flight Standards office or Examiner. states ‘‘[Applicant’s Name and Pilot
(4) The applicant must complete and Certificate Number] has demonstrated
sign an Airman Certificate and/or Rat- the skill and knowledge required for
ing Application, FAA Form 8710–1, and the safe operation of the [Type of Air-
present the application to a Flight craft], relevant to the duties and re-
Standards office or to an Examiner. sponsibilities of a second in com-
(5) The person who provided the mand.’’
ground and flight training to the appli- (3) If the applicant’s flight experience
cant must sign the ‘‘Instructor’s Rec- and/or training records are in an elec-
ommendation’’ section of the Airman tronic form, the applicant must pro-
Certificate and/or Rating Application, vide a paper copy of those records con-
FAA Form 8710–1. In lieu of the trainer, taining the signature of the trainer or
it is permissible for a qualified man- qualified management official to a
agement official within the organiza- Flight Standards office, an Examiner,
tion to sign the applicant’s FAA Form or an Aircrew Program Designee.
8710–1. (4) The applicant must complete and
(6) The applicant must appear in per- sign an Airman Certificate and/or Rat-
son at a Flight Standards office or to ing Application, FAA Form 8710–1, and
an Examiner with his or her logbook/ present the application to a Flight
training records and with the com- Standards office or to an Examiner or
pleted and signed FAA Form 8710–1. to an authorized Aircrew Program Des-
(7) There is no practical test required ignee.
for the issuance of the ‘‘SIC Privileges (5) The person who provided the
Only’’ pilot type rating. ground and flight training to the appli-
(e) A person may receive a second-in- cant must sign the ‘‘Instructor’s Rec-
command pilot type rating for the type ommendation’’ section of the Airman
of aircraft after satisfactorily com- Certificate and/or Rating Application,
pleting an approved second-in-com- FAA Form 8710–1. In lieu of the trainer,
mand training program, proficiency it is permissible for a qualified man-
check, or competency check under sub- agement official within the organiza-
part K of part 91, part 125, or part 135, tion to sign the applicant’s FAA Form
as appropriate, in that type of aircraft 8710–1.
provided the training was completed (6) The applicant must appear in per-
within the 12 calendar months before son at a Flight Standards office or to
the month of application for the SIC an Examiner or to an authorized Air-
pilot type rating. The person must crew Program Designee with his or her
comply with the following application logbook/training records and with the
and pilot certification procedures: completed and signed FAA Form 8710–
(1) The person who provided the 1.
training must sign the applicant’s log- (7) There is no practical test required
book or training record after each les- for the issuance of the ‘‘SIC Privileges
son in accordance with § 61.51(h)(2) of Only’’ pilot type rating.
this part. In lieu of the trainer, it is (f) The familiarization training re-
permissible for a qualified management quirements of paragraph (b) of this sec-
official within the organization to sign tion do not apply to a person who is:
the applicant’s training records or log- (1) Designated and qualified as pilot
book and make the required endorse- in command under subpart K of part 91,
ment. The qualified management offi- part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter in
cial must hold the position of Chief that specific type of aircraft;
Pilot, Director of Training, Director of (2) Designated as the second in com-
Operations, or another comparable mand under subpart K of part 91, part
management position within the orga- 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter in that
nization that provided the training and specific type of aircraft;
545
§ 61.56 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(3) Designated as the second in compart 135 for the particular type of air-
mand in that specific type of aircraft craft.
for the purpose of receiving flight
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
training required by this section, and Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997;
no passengers or cargo are carried on Amdt. 61–109, 68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003;
the aircraft; or Amdt. 61–113, 70 FR 45271, Aug. 4, 2005; Amdt.
(4) Designated as a safety pilot for 61–109, 70 FR 61890, Oct. 27, 2005; Amdt. 61–124,
purposes required by § 91.109 of this 74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61–128, 76 FR
54105, Aug. 31, 2011; Amdt. 61–130, 78 FR 42374,
chapter. July 15, 2013; Docket FAA–2018–0119, Amdt.
(g) The holder of a commercial or air- 61–141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]
line transport pilot certificate with the
appropriate category and class rating § 61.56 Flight review.
is not required to meet the require- (a) Except as provided in paragraphs
ments of paragraph (b)(2) of this sec- (b) and (f) of this section, a flight re-
tion, provided the pilot: view consists of a minimum of 1 hour
(1) Is conducting a ferry flight, air- of flight training and 1 hour of ground
craft flight test, or evaluation flight of training. The review must include:
an aircraft’s equipment; and (1) A review of the current general
(2) Is not carrying any person or operating and flight rules of part 91 of
property on board the aircraft, other this chapter; and
than necessary for conduct of the (2) A review of those maneuvers and
flight. procedures that, at the discretion of
(h) For the purpose of meeting the re- the person giving the review, are nec-
quirements of paragraph (b) of this sec- essary for the pilot to demonstrate the
tion, a person may serve as second in safe exercise of the privileges of the
command in that specific type aircraft, pilot certificate.
provided: (b) Glider pilots may substitute a
(1) The flight is conducted under day minimum of three instructional flights
VFR or day IFR; and in a glider, each of which includes a
(2) No person or property is carried flight to traffic pattern altitude, in
on board the aircraft, other than nec- lieu of the 1 hour of flight training re-
essary for conduct of the flight. quired in paragraph (a) of this section.
(i) The training under paragraphs (b) (c) Except as provided in paragraphs
and (d) of this section and the training, (d), (e), and (g) of this section, no per-
proficiency check, and competency son may act as pilot in command of an
check under paragraph (e) of this sec- aircraft unless, since the beginning of
tion may be accomplished in a flight the 24th calendar month before the
simulator that is used in accordance month in which that pilot acts as pilot
with an approved training course con- in command, that person has—
ducted by a training center certificated (1) Accomplished a flight review
under part 142 of this chapter or under given in an aircraft for which that
pilot is rated by an authorized instruc-
subpart K of part 91, part 121 or part 135
tor and
of this chapter.
(2) A logbook endorsed from an au-
(j) When an applicant for an initial
thorized instructor who gave the re-
second-in-command qualification for a
view certifying that the person has sat-
particular type of aircraft receives all isfactorily completed the review.
the training in a flight simulator, that
(d) A person who has, within the pe-
applicant must satisfactorily complete riod specified in paragraph (c) of this
one takeoff and one landing in an air- section, passed any of the following
craft of the same type for which the need not accomplish the flight review
qualification is sought. This require- required by this section:
ment does not apply to an applicant (1) A pilot proficiency check or prac-
who completes a proficiency check tical test conducted by an examiner, an
under part 121 or competency check approved pilot check airman, or a U.S.
under subpart K, part 91, part 125, or Armed Force, for a pilot certificate,
rating, or operating privilege.
546
(2) A practical test conducted by an aircraft or set of aircraft for which the
examiner for the issuance of a flight in- pilot is rated.
structor certificate, an additional rat-
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
ing on a flight instructor certificate, Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997;
renewal of a flight instructor certifi- Amdt. 61–104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt.
cate, or reinstatement of a flight in- 61–124, 74 FR 42550, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61–
structor certificate. 131, 78 FR 56828, Sept. 16, 2013]
(e) A person who has, within the pe-
riod specified in paragraph (c) of this § 61.57 Recent flight experience: Pilot
section, satisfactorily accomplished in command.
one or more phases of an FAA-spon- (a) General experience. (1) Except as
sored pilot proficiency award program provided in paragraph (e) of this sec-
need not accomplish the flight review tion, no person may act as a pilot in
required by this section. command of an aircraft carrying pas-
(f) A person who holds a flight in- sengers or of an aircraft certificated
structor certificate and who has, with- for more than one pilot flight crew-
in the period specified in paragraph (c) member unless that person has made at
of this section, satisfactorily com- least three takeoffs and three landings
pleted a renewal of a flight instructor within the preceding 90 days, and—
certificate under the provisions in (i) The person acted as the sole ma-
§ 61.197 need not accomplish the one nipulator of the flight controls; and
hour of ground training specified in (ii) The required takeoffs and land-
paragraph (a) of this section. ings were performed in an aircraft of
(g) A student pilot need not accom- the same category, class, and type (if a
plish the flight review required by this type rating is required), and, if the air-
section provided the student pilot is craft to be flown is an airplane with a
undergoing training for a certificate tailwheel, the takeoffs and landings
and has a current solo flight endorse- must have been made to a full stop in
ment as required under § 61.87 of this an airplane with a tailwheel.
part. (2) For the purpose of meeting the re-
(h) The requirements of this section quirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this
may be accomplished in combination section, a person may act as a pilot in
with the requirements of § 61.57 and command of an aircraft under day VFR
other applicable recent experience re- or day IFR, provided no persons or
property are carried on board the air-
quirements at the discretion of the au-
craft, other than those necessary for
thorized instructor conducting the
the conduct of the flight.
flight review.
(3) The takeoffs and landings re-
(i) A flight simulator or flight train-
quired by paragraph (a)(1) of this sec-
ing device may be used to meet the
tion may be accomplished in a full
flight review requirements of this sec-
flight simulator or flight training de-
tion subject to the following condi-
vice that is—
tions:
(i) Approved by the Administrator for
(1) The flight simulator or flight landings; and
training device must be used in accord-
(ii) Used in accordance with an ap-
ance with an approved course con-
proved course conducted by a training
ducted by a training center certificated center certificated under part 142 of
under part 142 of this chapter. this chapter.
(2) Unless the flight review is under- (b) Night takeoff and landing experi-
taken in a flight simulator that is ap- ence. (1) Except as provided in para-
proved for landings, the applicant must graph (e) of this section, no person may
meet the takeoff and landing require- act as pilot in command of an aircraft
ments of § 61.57(a) or § 61.57(b) of this carrying passengers during the period
part. beginning 1 hour after sunset and end-
(3) The flight simulator or flight ing 1 hour before sunrise, unless within
training device used must represent an the preceding 90 days that person has
made at least three takeoffs and three
547
§ 61.57 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
landings to a full stop during the pe- conditions. A person may complete the
riod beginning 1 hour after sunset and instrument experience in any combina-
ending 1 hour before sunrise, and— tion of an aircraft, full flight simu-
(i) That person acted as sole manipulator, flight training device, or avia-
lator of the flight controls; and tion training device.
(ii) The required takeoffs and land- (3) Maintaining instrument recent
ings were performed in an aircraft of experience in a glider.
the same category, class, and type (if a (i) Within the 6 calendar months pre-
type rating is required). ceding the month of the flight, that
(2) The takeoffs and landings re- person must have performed and logged
quired by paragraph (b)(1) of this sec- at least the following instrument cur-
tion may be accomplished in a full rency tasks, iterations, and flight
flight simulator that is— time, and the instrument currency
(i) Approved by the Administrator for must have been performed in actual
takeoffs and landings, if the visual sys- weather conditions or under simulated
tem is adjusted to represent the period weather conditions—
described in paragraph (b)(1) of this (A) One hour of instrument flight
section; and time in a glider or in a single engine
(ii) Used in accordance with an ap- airplane using a view-limiting device
proved course conducted by a training while performing interception and
center certificated under part 142 of tracking courses through the use of
this chapter. navigation electronic systems.
(c) Instrument experience. Except as (B) Two hours of instrument flight
provided in paragraph (e) of this sec- time in a glider or a single engine air-
tion, a person may act as pilot in com- plane with the use of a view-limiting
mand under IFR or weather conditions device while performing straight
less than the minimums prescribed for glides, turns to specific headings, steep
VFR only if: turns, flight at various airspeeds, navi-
(1) Use of an airplane, powered-lift, hel- gation, and slow flight and stalls.
icopter, or airship for maintaining instru- (ii) Before a pilot is allowed to carry
ment experience. Within the 6 calendar a passenger in a glider under IFR or in
months preceding the month of the weather conditions less than the mini-
flight, that person performed and mums prescribed for VFR, that pilot
logged at least the following tasks and must—
iterations in an airplane, powered-lift, (A) Have logged and performed 2
helicopter, or airship, as appropriate, hours of instrument flight time in a
for the instrument rating privileges to glider within the 6 calendar months
be maintained in actual weather condi- preceding the month of the flight.
tions, or under simulated conditions (B) Use a view-limiting-device while
using a view-limiting device that in- practicing performance maneuvers,
volves having performed the fol- performance airspeeds, navigation,
lowing— slow flight, and stalls.
(i) Six instrument approaches. (d) Instrument proficiency check. (1)
(ii) Holding procedures and tasks. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of
(iii) Intercepting and tracking this section, a person who has failed to
courses through the use of navigational meet the instrument experience re-
electronic systems. quirements of paragraph (c) of this sec-
(2) Use of a full flight simulator, flight tion for more than six calendar months
training device, or aviation training de- may reestablish instrument currency
vice for maintaining instrument experi- only by completing an instrument pro-
ence. A pilot may accomplish the re- ficiency check. The instrument pro-
quirements in paragraph (c)(1) of this ficiency check must consist of at least
section in a full flight simulator, flight the following areas of operation:
training device, or aviation training (i) Air traffic control clearances and
device provided the device represents procedures;
the category of aircraft for the instru- (ii) Flight by reference to instru-
ment rating privileges to be main- ments;
tained and the pilot performs the tasks (iii) Navigation systems;
and iterations in simulated instrument (iv) Instrument approach procedures;
548
(v) Emergency operations; and mand is in compliance with §§ 135.243

(vi) Postflight procedures. and 135.247 of this chapter.
(2) The instrument proficiency check (4) Paragraph (b) of this section does
must be— not apply to a pilot in command of a
(i) In an aircraft that is appropriate turbine-powered airplane that is type
to the aircraft category; certificated for more than one pilot
(ii) For other than a glider, in a full crewmember, provided that pilot has
flight simulator or flight training de- complied with the requirements of
vice that is representative of the air- paragraph (e)(4)(i) or (ii) of this sec-
craft category; or tion:
(iii) For a glider, in a single-engine (i) The pilot in command must hold
airplane or a glider. at least a commercial pilot certificate
(3) The instrument proficiency check with the appropriate category, class,
must be given by— and type rating for each airplane that
(i) An examiner; is type certificated for more than one
(ii) A person authorized by the U.S. pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks
Armed Forces to conduct instrument to operate under this alternative, and:
flight tests, provided the person being (A) That pilot must have logged at
tested is a member of the U.S. Armed least 1,500 hours of aeronautical experi-
Forces; ence as a pilot;
(iii) A company check pilot who is (B) In each airplane that is type cer-
authorized to conduct instrument tificated for more than one pilot crew-
flight tests under part 121, 125, or 135 of member that the pilot seeks to operate
this chapter or subpart K of part 91 of under this alternative, that pilot must
this chapter, and provided that both have accomplished and logged the day-
the check pilot and the pilot being time takeoff and landing recent flight
tested are employees of that operator experience of paragraph (a) of this sec-
or fractional ownership program man- tion, as the sole manipulator of the
ager, as applicable; flight controls;
(iv) An authorized instructor; or (C) Within the preceding 90 days prior
(v) A person approved by the Admin- to the operation of that airplane that
istrator to conduct instrument prac- is type certificated for more than one
tical tests. pilot crewmember, the pilot must have
(e) Exceptions. (1) Paragraphs (a) and accomplished and logged at least 15
(b) of this section do not apply to a hours of flight time in the type of air-
pilot in command who is employed by a plane that the pilot seeks to operate
part 119 certificate holder authorized under this alternative; and
to conduct operations under part 125 (D) That pilot has accomplished and
when the pilot is engaged in a flight logged at least 3 takeoffs and 3 land-
operation for that certificate holder if ings to a full stop, as the sole manipu-
the pilot in command is in compliance lator of the flight controls, in a tur-
with §§ 125.281 and 125.285 of this chap- bine-powered airplane that requires
ter. more than one pilot crewmember. The
(2) This section does not apply to a pilot must have performed the takeoffs
pilot in command who is employed by a and landings during the period begin-
part 119 certificate holder authorized ning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1
to conduct operations under part 121 hour before sunrise within the pre-
when the pilot is engaged in a flight ceding 6 months prior to the month of
operation under part 91 or 121 for that the flight.
certificate holder if the pilot in com- (ii) The pilot in command must hold
mand complies with §§ 121.436 and at least a commercial pilot certificate
121.439 of this chapter. with the appropriate category, class,
(3) This section does not apply to a and type rating for each airplane that
pilot in command who is employed by a is type certificated for more than one
part 119 certificate holder authorized pilot crewmember that the pilot seeks
to conduct operations under part 135 to operate under this alternative, and:
when the pilot is engaged in a flight (A) That pilot must have logged at
operation under parts 91 or 135 for that least 1,500 hours of aeronautical experi-
certificate holder if the pilot in com- ence as a pilot;
549
§ 61.57 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(B) In each airplane that is type cer- (iv) Three tasks of transitioning from
tificated for more than one pilot crew- aided night flight (aided night flight
member that the pilot seeks to operate means that the pilot uses night vision
under this alternative, that pilot must goggles to maintain visual surface ref-
have accomplished and logged the day- erence) to unaided night flight (unaided
time takeoff and landing recent flight night flight means that the pilot does
experience of paragraph (a) of this sec- not use night vision goggles) and back
tion, as the sole manipulator of the to aided night flight.
flight controls; (v) Three night vision goggle oper-
(C) Within the preceding 90 days prior ations, or when operating helicopters
to the operation of that airplane that or powered-lifts, six night vision goggle
is type certificated for more than one operations.
pilot crewmember, the pilot must have (2) A person may act as pilot in com-
accomplished and logged at least 15 mand using night vision goggles only
hours of flight time in the type of air- if, within the 4 calendar months pre-
plane that the pilot seeks to operate ceding the month of the flight, that
under this alternative; and person performs and logs the tasks list-
(D) Within the preceding 12 months ed in paragraph (f)(1)(i) through (v) of
prior to the month of the flight, the this section as the sole manipulator of
pilot must have completed a training the controls during a night vision gog-
program that is approved under part gle operation.
142 of this chapter. The approved train- (g) Night vision goggle proficiency
ing program must have required and check. A person must either meet the
the pilot must have performed, at least night vision goggle experience require-
6 takeoffs and 6 landings to a full stop ments of paragraphs (f)(1) or (f)(2) of
as the sole manipulator of the controls this section or pass a night vision gog-
in a full flight simulator that is rep- gle proficiency check to act as pilot in
resentative of a turbine-powered air- command using night vision goggles.
plane that requires more than one pilot The proficiency check must be per-
crewmember. The full flight simula- formed in the category of aircraft that
tor’s visual system must have been ad- is appropriate to the night vision gog-
justed to represent the period begin- gle operation for which the person is
ning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 seeking the night vision goggle privi-
hour before sunrise. lege or in a full flight simulator or
(f) Night vision goggle operating experi- flight training device that is represent-
ence. (1) A person may act as pilot in ative of that category of aircraft. The
command in a night vision goggle oper- check must consist of the tasks listed
ation with passengers on board only if, in § 61.31(k), and the check must be per-
within 2 calendar months preceding the formed by:
month of the flight, that person per- (1) An Examiner who is qualified to
forms and logs the following tasks as perform night vision goggle operations
the sole manipulator of the controls on in that same aircraft category and
a flight during a night vision goggle class;
operation— (2) A person who is authorized by the
(i) Three takeoffs and three landings, U.S. Armed Forces to perform night vi-
with each takeoff and landing includ- sion goggle proficiency checks, pro-
ing a climbout, cruise, descent, and ap- vided the person being administered
proach phase of flight (only required if the check is also a member of the U.S.
the pilot wants to use night vision gog- Armed Forces;
gles during the takeoff and landing (3) A company check pilot who is au-
phases of the flight). thorized to perform night vision goggle
(ii) Three hovering tasks (only re- proficiency checks under parts 121, 125,
quired if the pilot wants to use night or 135 of this chapter, provided that
vision goggles when operating heli- both the check pilot and the pilot
copters or powered-lifts during the hov- being tested are employees of that op-
ering phase of flight). erator;
(iii) Three area departure and area (4) An authorized flight instructor
arrival tasks. who is qualified to perform night vision
550
goggle operations in that same aircraft factory completion of one of the fol-
category and class; lowing:
(5) A person who is qualified as pilot (1) A pilot-in-command proficiency
in command for night vision goggle op- check conducted by a person author-
erations in accordance with paragraph ized by the Administrator, consisting
(f) of this section; or of the aeronautical knowledge areas,
(6) A person approved by the FAA to areas of operations, and tasks required
perform night vision goggle proficiency for a type rating, in an aircraft that is
checks. type certificated for more than one
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40898, July 30, 1997] powered;
EDITORIAL NOTE: For FEDERAL REGISTER ci-
(2) The practical test required for a
tations affecting § 61.57, see the List of CFR type rating, in an aircraft that is type
Sections Affected, which appears in the certificated for more than one required
Finding Aids section of the printed volume pilot flight crewmember or is turbojet-
and at www.govinfo.gov. powered;
(3) The initial or periodic practical
§ 61.58 Pilot-in-command proficiency test required for the issuance of a pilot
check: Operation of an aircraft that
requires more than one pilot flight examiner or check airman designation,
crewmember or is turbojet-pow- in an aircraft that is type certificated
ered. for more than one required pilot flight
crewmember or is turbojet-powered;
(a) Except as otherwise provided in
this section, to serve as pilot in com- (4) A pilot proficiency check adminis-
mand of an aircraft that is type certifi- tered by a U.S. Armed Force that
cated for more than one required pilot qualifies the military pilot for pilot-in-
flight crewmember or is turbojet-pow- command designation with instrument
ered, a person must— privileges, and was performed in a mili-
(1) Within the preceding 12 calendar tary aircraft that the military requires
months, complete a pilot-in-command to be operated by more than one pilot
proficiency check in an aircraft that is flight crewmember or is turbojet-pow-
type certificated for more than one re- ered;
quired pilot flight crewmember or is (5) For a pilot authorized by the Ad-
turbojet-powered; and ministrator to operate an experimental
(2) Within the preceding 24 calendar turbojet-powered aircraft that pos-
months, complete a pilot-in-command sesses, by original design or through
proficiency check in the particular modification, more than a single seat,
type of aircraft in which that person the required proficiency check for all
will serve as pilot in command, that is of the experimental turbojet-powered
type certificated for more than one re- aircraft for which the pilot holds an
quired pilot flight crewmember or is authorization may be accomplished by
turbojet-powered. completing any one of the following:
(b) This section does not apply to (i) A single proficiency check, con-
persons conducting operations under ducted by an examiner authorized by
subpart K of part 91, part 121, 125, 133, the Administrator, in any one of the
135, or 137 of this chapter, or persons experimental turbojet-powered aircraft
maintaining continuing qualification for which the airman holds an author-
under an Advanced Qualification pro- ization to operate if conducted within
gram approved under subpart Y of part the prior 12 months;
121 of this chapter. (ii) A single proficiency check, con-
(c) The pilot-in-command proficiency ducted by an examiner authorized by
check given in accordance with the the Administrator, in any experi-
provisions of subpart K of part 91, part mental turbojet-powered aircraft (e.g.,
121, 125, or 135 of this chapter may be if a pilot acquires a new authorization
used to satisfy the requirements of this to operate an additional experimental
section. turbojet-powered aircraft, the check
(d) The pilot-in-command proficiency for that new authorization will meet
check required by paragraph (a) of this the intent), if conducted within the
section may be accomplished by satis- prior 12 months;
551
§ 61.58 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(iii) Current qualification under an and approved for each omitted maneu-
Advanced Qualification Program (AQP) ver.
under subpart Y of part 121 of this (2) If the flight simulator used pursu-
chapter; ant to paragraph (g) of this section is
(iv) Any proficiency check conducted not qualified and approved for circling
under subpart K of part 91, part 121, or approaches—
part 135 of this chapter within the prior (i) The applicant’s record must in-
12 months if conducted in a turbojet- clude the statement, ‘‘Proficiency in
powered aircraft; or circling approaches not demonstrated’’;
(v) Any other § 61.58 proficiency and
check conducted within the prior 12 (ii) The applicant may not perform
months if conducted in a turbojet-pow- circling approaches as pilot in com-
ered aircraft. mand when weather conditions are less
(e) The pilot of a multi-seat experi- than the basic VFR conditions de-
mental turbojet-powered aircraft who scribed in § 91.155 of this chapter, until
has not received a proficiency check proficiency in circling approaches has
within the prior 12 months in accord- been successfully demonstrated in a
ance with this section may continue to
flight simulator qualified and approved
operate such aircraft in accordance
for circling approaches or in an aircraft
with the pilot’s authorizations. How-
to a person authorized by the Adminis-
ever, the pilot is prohibited from car-
riage of any persons in any experi- trator to conduct the check required
mental turbojet-powered aircraft with by this section.
the exception of those individuals au- (3) If the flight simulator used pursu-
thorized by the Administrator to con- ant to paragraph (g) of this section is
duct training, conduct flight checks, or not qualified and approved for land-
perform pilot certification functions in ings, the applicant must—
such aircraft, and only during flights (i) Hold a type rating in the airplane
specifically related to training, flight represented by the simulator; and
checks, or certification in such air- (ii) Have completed within the pre-
craft. ceding 90 days at least three takeoffs
(f) This section will not apply to a and three landings (one to a full stop)
pilot authorized by the Administrator as the sole manipulator of the flight
to serve as pilot in command in experi- controls in the type airplane for which
mental turbojet-powered aircraft that the pilot-in-command proficiency
possesses, by original design, a single check is sought.
seat, when operating such single-seat (h) For the purpose of meeting the
aircraft. pilot-in-command proficiency check re-
(g) A check or test described in para- quirements of paragraph (a) of this sec-
graphs (d)(1) through (5) of this section tion, a person may act as pilot in com-
may be accomplished in a flight simu- mand of a flight under day VFR condi-
lator under part 142 of this chapter, tions or day IFR conditions if no per-
subject to the following: son or property is carried, other than
(1) Except as provided for in para- as necessary to demonstrate compli-
graphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section, if ance with this part.
an otherwise qualified and approved
(i) If a pilot takes the pilot-in-com-
flight simulator used for a pilot-in-
mand proficiency check required by
command proficiency check is not
qualified and approved for a specific re- this section in the calendar month be-
quired maneuver— fore or the calendar month after the
(i) The training center must anno- month in which it is due, the pilot is
tate, in the applicant’s training record, considered to have taken it in the
the maneuver or maneuvers omitted; month in which it was due for the pur-
and pose of computing when the next pilot-
(ii) Prior to acting as pilot in com- in-command proficiency check is due.
mand, the pilot must demonstrate pro- (j) A pilot-in-command of a turbojet
ficiency in each omitted maneuver in powered aircraft that is type certifi-

an aircraft or flight simulator qualified cated for one pilot does not have to
552
comply with the pilot-in-command pro- permanent mailing address includes a

ficiency check requirements in para- post office box number, then the hold-
graphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section er’s current residential address.
until October 31, 2012.
(k) Unless required by the aircraft’s Subpart B—Aircraft Ratings and
operating limitations, a pilot-in-com- Pilot Authorizations
mand of an experimental turbojet-pow-
ered aircraft does not have to comply § 61.61 Applicability.
with the pilot-in-command proficiency This subpart prescribes the require-
check requirements in paragraphs ments for the issuance of additional
(a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section until Oc- aircraft ratings after a pilot certificate
tober 31, 2012. is issued, issuance of a type rating con-
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40899, July 30, 1997, as currently with a pilot certificate, and
amended by Amdt. 61–109, 68 FR 54559, Sept. the requirements for and limitations of
17, 2003; Amdt. 61–112, 70 FR 54814, Sept. 16, pilot authorizations issued by the Ad-
2005; Amdt. 61–128, 76 FR 54106, Aug. 31, 2011; ministrator.
76 FR 63184, Oct. 12, 2011]
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–26661, 76 FR 78143, Dec.
§ 61.59 Falsification, reproduction, or 16, 2011]
alteration of applications, certifi-
cates, logbooks, reports, or records. § 61.63 Additional aircraft ratings
(other than for ratings at the air-
(a) No person may make or cause to line transport pilot certification
be made: level).
(1) Any fraudulent or intentionally (a) General. For an additional aircraft
false statement on any application for rating on a pilot certificate, other than
a certificate, rating, authorization, or for an airline transport pilot certifi-
duplicate thereof, issued under this cate, a person must meet the require-
part; ments of this section appropriate to
(2) Any fraudulent or intentionally the additional aircraft rating sought.
false entry in any logbook, record, or (b) Additional aircraft category rating.
report that is required to be kept, A person who applies to add a category
made, or used to show compliance with rating to a pilot certificate:
any requirement for the issuance or ex- (1) Must complete the training and
ercise of the privileges of any certifi- have the applicable aeronautical expe-
cate, rating, or authorization under rience.
this part; (2) Must have a logbook or training
(3) Any reproduction for fraudulent record endorsement from an authorized
purpose of any certificate, rating, or instructor attesting that the person
authorization, under this part; or was found competent in the appro-
(4) Any alteration of any certificate, priate aeronautical knowledge areas
rating, or authorization under this and proficient in the appropriate areas
part. of operation.
(b) The commission of an act prohib- (3) Must pass the practical test.
ited under paragraph (a) of this section (4) Need not take an additional
is a basis for suspending or revoking knowledge test, provided the applicant
any airman certificate, rating, or au- holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-
thorization held by that person. lift, weight-shift-control aircraft, pow-
ered parachute, or airship rating at
§ 61.60 Change of address. that pilot certificate level.
The holder of a pilot, flight instruc- (c) Additional aircraft class rating. A
tor, or ground instructor certificate person who applies for an additional
who has made a change in permanent class rating on a pilot certificate:
mailing address may not, after 30 days (1) Must have a logbook or training
from that date, exercise the privileges record endorsement from an authorized
of the certificate unless the holder has instructor attesting that the person
notified in writing the FAA, Airman was found competent in the appro-
Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, priate aeronautical knowledge areas
Oklahoma City, OK 73125, of the new and proficient in the appropriate areas
permanent mailing address, or if the of operation.
553
§ 61.63 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(2) Must pass the practical test. the certificate holder’s approved
(3) Need not meet the specified train- ground and flight training program.
ing time requirements prescribed by (e) Aircraft not capable of instrument
this part that apply to the pilot certifi- maneuvers and procedures. (1) An appli-
cate for the aircraft class rating cant for a type rating or a type rating
sought; unless, the person only holds a in addition to an aircraft category and/
lighter-than-air category rating with a or class rating who provides an aircraft
balloon class rating and is seeking an that is not capable of the instrument
airship class rating, then that person maneuvers and procedures required on
must receive the specified training the practical test:
time requirements and possess the ap- (i) May apply for the type rating, but
propriate aeronautical experience. the rating will be limited to ‘‘VFR
(4) Need not take an additional only.’’
knowledge test, provided the applicant (ii) May have the ‘‘VFR only’’ limita-
holds an airplane, rotorcraft, powered- tion removed for that aircraft type
lift, weight-shift-control aircraft, pow- after the applicant:
ered parachute, or airship rating at (A) Passes a practical test in that
that pilot certificate level. type of aircraft in actual or simulated
(d) Additional aircraft type rating. Ex- instrument conditions;
cept as provided under paragraph (d)(6) (B) Passes a practical test in that
of this section, a person who applies for type of aircraft on the appropriate in-
an aircraft type rating or an aircraft strument maneuvers and procedures in
type rating to be completed concur- § 61.157; or
rently with an aircraft category or (C) Becomes qualified under § 61.73(d)
class rating— for that type of aircraft.
(1) Must hold or concurrently obtain (2) When an instrument rating is
an appropriate instrument rating, ex- issued to a person who holds one or
cept as provided in paragraph (e) of more type ratings, the amended pilot
this section. certificate must bear the ‘‘VFR only’’
(2) Must have a logbook or training limitation for each aircraft type rating
record endorsement from an authorized that the person did not demonstrate in-
instructor attesting that the person is strument competency.
competent in the appropriate aero- (f) Multiengine airplane with a single-
nautical knowledge areas and pro- pilot station. An applicant for a type
ficient in the appropriate areas of oper- rating, at other than the ATP certifi-
ation at the airline transport pilot cer- cation level, in a multiengine airplane
tification level. with a single-pilot station must per-
(3) Must pass the practical test at the form the practical test in the multi-
airline transport pilot certification seat version of that airplane, or the
level. practical test may be performed in the
(4) Must perform the practical test in single-seat version of that airplane if
actual or simulated instrument condi- the Examiner is in a position to ob-
tions, except as provided in paragraph serve the applicant during the prac-
(e) of this section. tical test and there is no multi-seat
(5) Need not take an additional version of that multiengine airplane.
knowledge test if the applicant holds (g) Single engine airplane with a single-
an airplane, rotorcraft, powered-lift, or pilot station. An applicant for a type
airship rating on the pilot certificate. rating, at other than the ATP certifi-
(6) In the case of a pilot employee of cation level, in a single engine airplane
a part 121 or part 135 certificate holder with a single-pilot station must per-
or of a fractional ownership program form the practical test in the multi-
manager under subpart K of part 91 of seat version of that single engine air-
this chapter, the pilot must— plane, or the practical test may be per-
(i) Meet the appropriate require- formed in the single-seat version of
ments under paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(3), that airplane if the Examiner is in a
and (d)(4) of this section; and position to observe the applicant dur-
(ii) Receive a flight training record ing the practical test and there is no
endorsement from the certificate hold- multi-seat version of that single engine
er attesting that the person completed airplane.
554
(h) Aircraft category and class rating (1) Hold a type rating in a turbojet
for the operation of aircraft with an ex- airplane of the same class of airplane
perimental certificate. A person holding for which the type rating is sought, and
a recreational, private, or commercial that type rating may not contain a su-
pilot certificate may apply for a cat- pervised operating experience limita-
egory and class rating limited to a spe- tion;
cific make and model of experimental (2) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in
aircraft, provided— two different turbojet airplanes of the
(1) The person logged 5 hours flight same class of airplane for which the
time while acting as pilot in command type rating is sought;
in the same category, class, make, and (3) Have been appointed by the U.S.
model of aircraft. Armed Forces as pilot in command in a
(2) The person received a logbook en- turbojet airplane of the same class of
dorsement from an authorized instruc- airplane for which the type rating is
tor who determined the pilot’s pro- sought;
ficiency to act as pilot in command of (4) Have 500 hours of flight time in
the same category, class, make, and the same type of airplane for which the
model of aircraft. type rating is sought; or
(3) The flight time specified under (5) Have logged at least 2,000 hours of
paragraph (h)(1) of this section was flight time, of which 500 hours were in
logged between September 1, 2004 and turbine-powered airplanes of the same
August 31, 2005. class of airplane for which the type rat-
(i) Waiver authority. An Examiner ing is sought.
who conducts a practical test may (c) Except as provided in paragraph
waive any task for which the FAA has (f) of this section, if an airplane is not
provided waiver authority. used during the practical test for a
type rating for a turbo-propeller air-
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–26661, 74 FR 42552, Aug. plane (except for preflight inspection),
21, 2009, as amended by Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR an applicant must accomplish the en-
5220, Feb. 1, 2010] tire practical test in a Level C or high-
er flight simulator and the applicant
§ 61.64 Use of a flight simulator and
flight training device. must—
(1) Hold a type rating in a turbo-pro-
(a) Use of a flight simulator or flight peller airplane of the same class of air-
training device. If an applicant for a cer- plane for which the type rating is
tificate or rating uses a flight simu- sought, and that type rating may not
lator or flight training device for train- contain a supervised operating experi-
ing or any portion of the practical test, ence limitation;
the flight simulator and flight training (2) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in
device— two different turbo-propeller airplanes
(1) Must represent the category, of the same class of airplane for which
class, and type (if a type rating is ap- the type rating is sought;
plicable) for the rating sought; and (3) Have been appointed by the U.S.
(2) Must be qualified and approved by Armed Forces as pilot in command in a
the Administrator and used in accord- turbo-propeller airplane of the same
ance with an approved course of train- class of airplane for which the type rat-
ing under part 141 or part 142 of this ing is sought;
chapter; or under part 121 or part 135 of (4) Have 500 hours of flight time in
this chapter, provided the applicant is the same type of airplane for which the
a pilot employee of that air carrier op- type rating is sought; or
erator. (5) Have logged at least 2,000 hours of
(b) Except as provided in paragraph flight time, of which 500 hours were in
(f) of this section, if an airplane is not turbine-powered airplanes of the same
used during the practical test for a class of airplane for which the type rat-
type rating for a turbojet airplane (ex- ing is sought.
cept for preflight inspection), an appli- (d) Except as provided in paragraph
cant must accomplish the entire prac- (f) of this section, if a helicopter is not
tical test in a Level C or higher flight used during the practical test for a
simulator and the applicant must— type rating in a helicopter (except for
555
§ 61.65 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
preflight inspection), an applicant removed from the pilot certificate if

must accomplish the entire practical the applicant complies with the fol-
test in a Level C or higher flight simu- lowing—
lator and the applicant must meet one (1) Performs 25 hours of flight time in
of the following requirements— an aircraft of the category, class, and
(1) Hold a type rating in a helicopter type for which the limitation applies
and that type rating may not contain under the direct observation of the
the supervised operating experience pilot in command who holds a cat-
limitation; egory, class, and type rating, without
(2) Have been appointed by the U.S. limitations, for the aircraft;
Armed Forces as pilot in command of a (2) Logs each flight and the pilot in
helicopter; command who observed the flight at-
(3) Have 500 hours of flight time in tests in writing to each flight;
the type of helicopter; or
(3) Obtains the flight time while per-
(4) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in
forming the duties of pilot in com-
two different types of helicopters.
mand; and
(e) Except as provided in paragraph
(f) of this section, if a powered-lift is (4) Presents evidence of the super-
not used during the practical test for a vised operating experience to any Ex-
type rating in a powered-lift (except aminer or Flight Standards office to
for preflight inspection), an applicant have the limitation removed.
must accomplish the entire practical [Doc. No. FAA–2006–26661, 76 FR 78143, Dec.
test in a Level C or higher flight simu- 16, 2011, as amended by Docket FAA–2018–
lator and the applicant must meet one 0119, Amdt. 61–141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]
of the following requirements—
(1) Hold a type rating in a powered- § 61.65 Instrument rating require-
lift without a supervised operating ex- ments.
perience limitation; (a) General. A person who applies for
(2) Have been appointed by the U.S. an instrument rating must:
Armed Forces as pilot in command of a (1) Hold at least a current private
powered-lift; pilot certificate, or be concurrently ap-
(3) Have 500 hours of flight time in plying for a private pilot certificate,
the type of powered-lift for which the with an airplane, helicopter, or pow-
rating is sought; or ered-lift rating appropriate to the in-
(4) Have 1,000 hours of flight time in strument rating sought;
two different types of powered-lifts.
(2) Be able to read, speak, write, and
(f) If the applicant does not meet one
understand the English language. If the
of the experience requirements of para-
applicant is unable to meet any of
graphs (b)(1) through (5), (c)(1) through
these requirements due to a medical
(5), (d)(1) through (4) or (e)(1) through
(4) of this section, as appropriate to the condition, the Administrator may
type rating sought, then— place such operating limitations on the
(1) The applicant must complete the applicant’s pilot certificate as are nec-
following tasks on the practical test in essary for the safe operation of the air-
an aircraft appropriate to category, craft;
class, and type for the rating sought: (3) Receive and log ground training
Preflight inspection, normal takeoff, from an authorized instructor or ac-
normal instrument landing system ap- complish a home-study course of train-
proach, missed approach, and normal ing on the aeronautical knowledge
landing; or areas of paragraph (b) of this section
(2) The applicant’s pilot certificate that apply to the instrument rating
will be issued with a limitation that sought;
states: ‘‘The [name of the additional (4) Receive a logbook or training
type rating] is subject to pilot in com- record endorsement from an authorized
mand limitations,’’ and the applicant instructor certifying that the person is
is restricted from serving as pilot in prepared to take the required knowl-
command in an aircraft of that type. edge test;
(g) The limitation described under (5) Receive and log training on the
paragraph (f)(2) of this section may be areas of operation of paragraph (c) of
556
this section from an authorized in- (6) Procurement and use of aviation
structor in an aircraft, full flight simu- weather reports and forecasts and the
lator, or flight training device that elements of forecasting weather trends
represents an airplane, helicopter, or based on that information and personal
powered-lift appropriate to the instru- observation of weather conditions;
ment rating sought; (7) Safe and efficient operation of air-
(6) Receive a logbook or training craft under instrument flight rules and
record endorsement from an authorized conditions;
instructor certifying that the person is (8) Recognition of critical weather
prepared to take the required practical situations and windshear avoidance;
test;
(9) Aeronautical decision making and
(7) Pass the required knowledge test judgment; and
on the aeronautical knowledge areas of
(10) Crew resource management, in-
paragraph (b) of this section; however,
an applicant is not required to take an- cluding crew communication and co-
other knowledge test when that person ordination.
already holds an instrument rating; (c) Flight proficiency. A person who
and applies for an instrument rating must
(8) Pass the required practical test on receive and log training from an au-
the areas of operation in paragraph (c) thorized instructor in an aircraft, or in
of this section in— a full flight simulator or flight train-
(i) An airplane, helicopter, or pow- ing device, in accordance with para-
ered-lift appropriate to the rating graph (g) of this section, that includes
sought; or the following areas of operation:
(ii) A full flight simulator or a flight (1) Preflight preparation;
training device appropriate to the rat- (2) Preflight procedures;
ing sought and for the specific maneu- (3) Air traffic control clearances and
ver or instrument approach procedure procedures;
performed. If an approved flight train- (4) Flight by reference to instru-
ing device is used for the practical test, ments;
the instrument approach procedures (5) Navigation systems;
conducted in that flight training device (6) Instrument approach procedures;
are limited to one precision and one
(7) Emergency operations; and
nonprecision approach, provided the
(8) Postflight procedures.
flight training device is approved for
the procedure performed. (d) Aeronautical experience for the in-
(b) Aeronautical knowledge. A person strument-airplane rating. A person who
who applies for an instrument rating applies for an instrument-airplane rat-
must have received and logged ground ing must have logged:
training from an authorized instructor (1) Except as provided in paragraph
or accomplished a home-study course (g) of this section, 50 hours of cross-
on the following aeronautical knowl- country flight time as pilot in com-
edge areas that apply to the instru- mand, of which 10 hours must have
ment rating sought: been in an airplane; and
(1) Federal Aviation Regulations of (2) Forty hours of actual or simu-
this chapter that apply to flight oper- lated instrument time in the areas of
ations under IFR; operation listed in paragraph (c) of this
(2) Appropriate information that ap- section, of which 15 hours must have
plies to flight operations under IFR in been received from an authorized in-
the ‘‘Aeronautical Information Man- structor who holds an instrument-air-
ual;’’ plane rating, and the instrument time
(3) Air traffic control system and pro- includes:
cedures for instrument flight oper- (i) Three hours of instrument flight
ations; training from an authorized instructor
(4) IFR navigation and approaches by in an airplane that is appropriate to
use of navigation systems; the instrument-airplane rating within
(5) Use of IFR en route and instru- 2 calendar months before the date of
ment approach procedure charts; the practical test; and
557
§ 61.65 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(ii) Instrument flight training on (1) Except as provided in paragraph

cross country flight procedures, includ- (g) of this section, 50 hours of cross-
ing one cross country flight in an air- country flight time as pilot in com-
plane with an authorized instructor, mand, of which 10 hours must have
that is performed under instrument been in a powered-lift; and
flight rules, when a flight plan has (2) Forty hours of actual or simu-
been filed with an air traffic control fa- lated instrument time in the areas of
cility, and that involves— operation listed under paragraph (c) of
(A) A flight of 250 nautical miles this section, of which 15 hours must
along airways or by directed routing have been received from an authorized
from an air traffic control facility; instructor who holds an instrument-
(B) An instrument approach at each powered-lift rating, and the instrument
airport; and time includes:
(C) Three different kinds of ap- (i) Three hours of instrument flight
proaches with the use of navigation training from an authorized instructor
systems. in a powered-lift that is appropriate to
(e) Aeronautical experience for the in- the instrument-powered-lift rating
strument-helicopter rating. A person who within 2 calendar months before the
applies for an instrument-helicopter date of the practical test; and
rating must have logged: (ii) Instrument flight training on
(1) Except as provided in paragraph cross country flight procedures, includ-
(g) of this section, 50 hours of crossing one cross country flight in a pow-
country flight time as pilot in com- ered-lift with an authorized instructor
mand, of which 10 hours must have that is performed under instrument
been in a helicopter; and flight rules, when a flight plan has
(2) Forty hours of actual or simu- been filed with an air traffic control fa-
lated instrument time in the areas of cility, that involves—
operation listed under paragraph (c) of (A) A flight of 250 nautical miles
this section, of which 15 hours must along airways or by directed routing
have been with an authorized instruc- from an air traffic control facility;
tor who holds an instrument-helicopter
(B) An instrument approach at each
rating, and the instrument time in-
airport; and
cludes:
(i) Three hours of instrument flight (C) Three different kinds of ap-
training from an authorized instructor proaches with the use of navigation
in a helicopter that is appropriate to systems.
the instrument-helicopter rating with- (g) An applicant for a combined pri-
in 2 calendar months before the date of vate pilot certificate with an instru-
the practical test; and ment rating may satisfy the cross-
(ii) Instrument flight training on country flight time requirements of
cross country flight procedures, includ- this section by crediting:
ing one cross country flight in a heli- (1) For an instrument-airplane rating
copter with an authorized instructor or an instrument-powered-lift rating,
that is performed under instrument up to 45 hours of cross-country flight
flight rules and a flight plan has been time performing the duties of pilot in
filed with an air traffic control facil- command with an authorized instruc-
ity, and involves— tor; or
(A) A flight of 100 nautical miles (2) For an instrument-helicopter rat-
along airways or by directed routing ing, up to 47 hours of cross-country
from an air traffic control facility; flight time performing the duties of
(B) An instrument approach at each pilot in command with an authorized
airport; and instructor.
(C) Three different kinds of ap- (h) Use of full flight simulators or flight
proaches with the use of navigation training devices. If the instrument time
systems. was provided by an authorized instruc-
(f) Aeronautical experience for the in- tor in a full flight simulator or flight
strument-powered-lift rating. A person training device—
who applies for an instrument-powered- (1) A maximum of 30 hours may be

lift rating must have logged: performed in that full flight simulator
558
or flight training device if the instru- training appropriate to the category of

ment time was completed in accord- aircraft for which the person is seeking
ance with part 142 of this chapter; or the EFVS privilege.
(2) A maximum of 20 hours may be (2) The ground training must include
performed in that full flight simulator the following subjects:
or flight training device if the instru- (i) Those portions of this chapter
ment time was not completed in ac- that relate to EFVS flight operations
cordance with part 142 of this chapter. and limitations, including the Airplane
(i) Use of an aviation training device. A Flight Manual or Rotorcraft Flight
maximum of 10 hours of instrument Manual limitations;
time received in a basic aviation train- (ii) EFVS sensor imagery, required
ing device or a maximum of 20 hours of aircraft flight information, and flight
instrument time received in an ad- symbology;
vanced aviation training device may be (iii) EFVS display, controls, modes,
credited for the instrument time re- features, symbology, annunciations,
quirements of this section if— and associated systems and compo-
(1) The device is approved and au- nents;
thorized by the FAA; (iv) EFVS sensor performance, sensor
(2) An authorized instructor provides limitations, scene interpretation, vis-
the instrument time in the device; and ual anomalies, and other visual effects;
(3) The FAA approved the instrument (v) Preflight planning and oper-
training and instrument tasks per- ational considerations associated with
formed in the device. using EFVS during taxi, takeoff, climb,
(j) Except as provided in paragraph cruise, descent and landing phases of
(h)(1) of this section, a person may not flight, including the use of EFVS for
credit more than 20 total hours of in- instrument approaches, operating
strument time in a full flight simu- below DA/DH or MDA, executing
lator, flight training device, aviation missed approaches, landing, rollout,
training device, or a combination to- and balked landings;
wards the instrument time require- (vi) Weather associated with low visi-
ments of this section. bility conditions and its effect on
EFVS performance;
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
(vii) Normal, abnormal, emergency,
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997;
Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42554, Aug. 21, 2009; and crew coordination procedures when
Amdt. 61–127, 76 FR 19267, Apr. 7, 2011; Amdt. using EFVS; and
61–128, 76 FR 54106, Aug. 31, 2011; Docket (viii) Interpretation of approach and
FAA–2015–1846, Amdt. 61–136, 81 FR 21460, runway lighting systems and their dis-
Apr. 12, 2016] play characteristics when using an
EFVS.
§ 61.66 Enhanced Flight Vision System (b) Flight training. (1) Except as pro-
Pilot Requirements. vided under paragraph (h) of this sec-
(a) Ground training. (1) Except as pro- tion, no person may manipulate the
vided under paragraphs (f) and (h) of controls of an aircraft or act as pilot in
this section, no person may manipulate command of an aircraft during an
the controls of an aircraft or act as EFVS operation under § 91.176(a) or (b)
pilot in command of an aircraft during of this chapter unless that person—
an EFVS operation conducted under (i) Receives and logs flight training
§ 91.176(a) or (b) of this chapter, or serve for the EFVS operation under a train-
as a required pilot flightcrew member ing program approved by the Adminis-
during an EFVS operation conducted trator; and
under § 91.176(a) of this chapter, unless (ii) Obtains a logbook or training
that person— record endorsement from an authorized
(i) Receives and logs ground training training provider certifying the person
under a training program approved by is proficient in the use of EFVS in the
the Administrator; and category of aircraft in which the train-
(ii) Obtains a logbook or training ing was provided for the EFVS oper-
record endorsement from an authorized ation to be conducted.
training provider certifying the person (2) Flight training must include the
satisfactorily completed the ground following tasks:
559
§ 61.66 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(i) Preflight and inflight preparation (h) of this section, no person may ma-
of EFVS equipment for EFVS oper- nipulate the controls of an aircraft
ations, including EFVS setup and use during an EFVS operation or act as
of display, controls, modes and associ- pilot in command of an aircraft during
ated systems, and adjustments for an EFVS operation unless, within 6
brightness and contrast under day and calendar months preceding the month
night conditions; of the flight, that person performs and
(ii) Proper piloting techniques associ- logs six instrument approaches as the
ated with using EFVS during taxi, sole manipulator of the controls using
takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, landing, an EFVS under any weather conditions
and rollout, including missed ap- in the category of aircraft for which
proaches and balked landings; the person seeks the EFVS privilege.
(iii) Proper piloting techniques for The instrument approaches may be
the use of EFVS during instrument ap- performed in day or night conditions;
proaches, to include operations below and
DA/DH or MDA as applicable to the (1) One approach must terminate in a
EFVS operations to be conducted, full stop landing; and
under both day and night conditions; (2) For persons authorized to exercise
(iv) Determining enhanced flight vis- the privileges of § 91.176(a), the full stop
ibility; landing must be conducted using the
(v) Identifying required visual ref- EFVS.
erences appropriate to EFVS oper-
(e) EFVS refresher training. (1) Except
ations;
as provided in paragraph (h) of this sec-
(vi) Transitioning from EFVS sensor
tion, a person who has failed to meet
imagery to natural vision acquisition
the recent flight experience require-
of required visual references and the
ments of paragraph (d) of this section
runway environment;
for more than six calendar months may
(vii) Using EFVS sensor imagery, re-
reestablish EFVS currency only by sat-
quired aircraft flight information, and
isfactorily completing an approved
flight symbology to touchdown and
EFVS refresher course in the category
rollout, if the person receiving training
will conduct EFVS operations under of aircraft for which the person seeks
§ 91.176(a) of this chapter; and the EFVS privilege. The EFVS re-
(viii) Normal, abnormal, emergency, fresher course must consist of the sub-
and crew coordination procedures when jects and tasks listed in paragraphs
using an EFVS. (a)(2) and (b)(2) of this section applica-
(c) Supplementary EFVS training. A ble to the EFVS operations to be con-
person qualified to conduct an EFVS ducted.
operation under § 91.176(a) or (b) of this (2) The EFVS refresher course must
chapter who seeks to conduct an addi- be conducted by an authorized training
tional EFVS operation for which that provider whose instructor meets the
person has not received training training requirements of this section
must— and, if conducting EFVS operations in
(1) Receive and log the ground and an aircraft, the recent flight experi-
flight training required by paragraphs ence requirements of this section.
(a) and (b) of this section, under a (f) Military pilots and former military
training program approved by the Ad- pilots in the U.S. Armed Forces. (1) The
ministrator, appropriate to the addi- training requirements of paragraphs (a)
tional EFVS operation to be con- and (b) of this section applicable to
ducted; and EFVS operations conducted under
(2) Obtain a logbook or training § 91.176(a) of this chapter do not apply
record endorsement from the author- to a military pilot or former military
ized training provider certifying the pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces if that
person is proficient in the use of EFVS person documents satisfactory comple-
in the category of aircraft in which the tion of ground and flight training in
training was provided for the EFVS op- EFVS operations to touchdown and
eration to be conducted. rollout by the U.S. Armed Forces.
(d) Recent flight experience: EFVS. Ex- (2) The training requirements in
cept as provided in paragraphs (f) and paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section
560
applicable to EFVS operations con- recent flight experience requirements

ducted under § 91.176(b) of this chapter of paragraph (d) of this section, pro-
do not apply to a military pilot or vided another individual is serving as
former military pilot in the U.S. pilot in command of the aircraft during
Armed Forces if that person documents the EFVS operation and that indi-
satisfactory completion of ground and vidual meets the requirements in this
flight training in EFVS operations to section to perform the EFVS operation
100 feet above the touchdown zone ele- in the category of aircraft in which the
vation by the U.S. Armed Forces. flight is being conducted.
(3) A military pilot or former mili- (iii) During an EFVS operation per-
tary pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces formed in the course of completing
may satisfy the recent flight experi- EFVS refresher training in accordance
ence requirements of paragraph (d) of with paragraph (e) of this section, pro-
this section if he or she documents sat- vided the instructor providing the re-
isfactory completion of an EFVS pro- fresher training meets the require-
ficiency check in the U.S. Armed ments in this section to perform the
Forces within 6 calendar months pre- EFVS operation in the category of air-
ceding the month of the flight, the craft for which the training is being
check was conducted by a person au- conducted.
thorized by the U.S. Armed Forces to (2) The requirements of paragraphs
administer the check, and the person (a) and (b) of this section do not apply
receiving the check was a member of if a person is conducting a flight or se-
the U.S. Armed Forces at the time the ries of flights in an aircraft issued an
check was administered. experimental airworthiness certificate
(g) Use of full flight simulators. A level under § 21.191 of this chapter for the
C or higher full flight simulator (FFS) purpose of research and development or
equipped with an EFVS may be used to showing compliance with regulations,
meet the flight training, recent flight
provided the person has knowledge of
experience, and refresher training re-
the subjects specified in paragraph
quirements of this section. The FFS
(a)(2) of this section and has experience
must be evaluated and qualified for
with the tasks specified in paragraph
EFVS operations by the Adminis-
(b)(2) of this section applicable to the
trator, and must be:
EFVS operations to be conducted.
(1) Qualified and maintained in ac-
cordance with part 60 of this chapter, (3) The requirements specified in
or a previously qualified device, as per- paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section do
mitted in accordance with § 60.17 of this not apply to a pilot who:
chapter; (i) Is employed by a part 119 certifi-
(2) Approved by the Administrator cate holder authorized to conduct oper-
for the tasks and maneuvers to be con- ations under part 121, 125, or 135 when
ducted; and the pilot is conducting an EFVS oper-
(3) Equipped with a daylight visual ation for that certificate holder under
display if being used to meet the flight part 91, 121, 125, or 135, as applicable,
training requirements of this section. provided the pilot conducts the oper-
(h) Exceptions. (1) A person may ma- ation in accordance with the certifi-
nipulate the controls of an aircraft cate holder’s operations specifications
during an EFVS operation without for EFVS operations;
meeting the requirements of this sec- (ii) Is employed by a person who
tion in the following circumstances: holds a letter of deviation authority
(i) When receiving flight training to issued under § 125.3 of this chapter
meet the requirements of this section when the pilot is conducting an EFVS
under an approved training program, operation for that person under part
provided the instructor meets the re- 125, provided the pilot is conducting
quirements in this section to perform the operation in accordance with that
the EFVS operation in the category of person’s letter of authorization for
aircraft for which the training is being EFVS operations; or
conducted. (iii) Is employed by a fractional own-
(ii) During an EFVS operation per- ership program manager to conduct op-
formed in the course of satisfying the erations under part 91 subpart K when
561
§ 61.67 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
the pilot is conducting an EFVS oper- (i) Issuance or renewal of a Category

ation for that program manager under II pilot authorization; and
part 91, provided the pilot is con- (ii) The addition of another type air-
ducting the operation in accordance craft to the applicant’s Category II
with the program manager’s manage- pilot authorization.
ment specifications for EFVS oper- (2) To be eligible for the practical
ations. test for an authorization under this
(4) The requirements of paragraphs section, an applicant must—
(a) and (b) of this section do not apply (i) Meet the requirements of para-
if a person is conducting EFVS oper- graphs (a) and (b) of this section; and
ations under § 91.176(b) of this chapter
(ii) If the applicant has not passed a
and that person documents that prior
practical test for this authorization
to March 13, 2018, that person satisfac-
during the 12 calendar months pre-
torily completed ground and flight
training on EFVS operations to 100 feet ceding the month of the test, then that
above the touchdown zone elevation. person must—
(A) Meet the requirements of
[Docket FAA–2013–0485, Amdt. 61–139, 81 FR § 61.57(c); and
90170, Dec. 13, 2016, as amended by Docket
FAA–2013–0485, Amdt. 61–139, 81 FR 90172,
(B) Have performed at least six ILS
Dec. 13, 2016] approaches during the 6 calendar
months preceding the month of the
§ 61.67 Category II pilot authorization test, of which at least three of the ap-
requirements. proaches must have been conducted
(a) General. A person who applies for without the use of an approach coupler.
a Category II pilot authorization must (3) The approaches specified in para-
hold: graph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section—
(1) At least a private or commercial (i) Must be conducted under actual or
pilot certificate with an instrument simulated instrument flight condi-
rating or an airline transport pilot cer- tions;
tificate; (ii) Must be conducted to the decision
(2) A type rating for the aircraft for height for the ILS approach in the type
which the authorization is sought if aircraft in which the practical test is
that aircraft requires a type rating; to be conducted;
and (iii) Need not be conducted to the de-
(3) A category and class rating for cision height authorized for Category
the aircraft for which the authoriza- II operations;
tion is sought. (iv) Must be conducted to the deci-
(b) Experience requirements. An appli- sion height authorized for Category II
cant for a Category II pilot authoriza-
operations only if conducted in a flight
tion must have at least—
simulator or flight training device; and
(1) 50 hours of night flight time as
pilot in command. (v) Must be accomplished in an air-
(2) 75 hours of instrument time under craft of the same category and class,
actual or simulated instrument condi- and type, as applicable, as the aircraft
tions that may include not more in which the practical test is to be con-
than— ducted or in a flight simulator that—
(i) A combination of 25 hours of simu- (A) Represents an aircraft of the
lated instrument flight time in a flight same category and class, and type, as
simulator or flight training device; or applicable, as the aircraft in which the
(ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument authorization is sought; and
flight time if accomplished in an ap- (B) Is used in accordance with an ap-
proved course conducted by an appro- proved course conducted by a training
priately rated training center certifi- center certificated under part 142 of
cated under part 142 of this chapter. this chapter.
(3) 250 hours of cross-country flight (4) The flight time acquired in meet-
time as pilot in command. ing the requirements of paragraph
(c) Practical test requirements. (1) A (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section may be used
practical test must be passed by a per- to meet the requirements of paragraph

son who applies for— (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.
562
(d) Practical test procedures. The prac- 100 feet AGL including at least one
tical test consists of an oral increment landing and one missed approach.
and a flight increment. (iii) All approaches performed during
(1) Oral increment. In the oral incre- the flight increment must be made
ment of the practical test an applicant with the use of an approved flight con-
must demonstrate knowledge of the trol guidance system, except if an ap-
following: proved auto approach coupler is in-
(i) Required landing distance; stalled, at least one approach must be
(ii) Recognition of the decision hand flown using flight director com-
height; mands.
(iii) Missed approach procedures and (iv) If a multiengine airplane with
techniques using computed or fixed at- the performance capability to execute
titude guidance displays; a missed approach with one engine in-
(iv) Use and limitations of RVR; operative is used for the practical test,
the flight increment must include the
(v) Use of visual clues, their avail-
performance of one missed approach
ability or limitations, and altitude at
with an engine, which shall be the
which they are normally discernible at
most critical engine, if applicable, set
reduced RVR readings;
at idle or zero thrust before reaching
(vi) Procedures and techniques re-
the middle marker.
lated to transition from nonvisual to (v) If a multiengine flight simulator
visual flight during a final approach or multiengine flight training device is
under reduced RVR; used for the practical test, the appli-
(vii) Effects of vertical and hori- cant must execute a missed approach
zontal windshear; with the most critical engine, if appli-
(viii) Characteristics and limitations cable, failed.
of the ILS and runway lighting system; (vi) For an authorization for an air-
(ix) Characteristics and limitations craft that requires a type rating, the
of the flight director system, auto ap- practical test must be performed in co-
proach coupler (including split axis ordination with a second in command
type if equipped), auto throttle system who holds a type rating in the aircraft
(if equipped), and other required Cat- in which the authorization is sought.
egory II equipment; (vii) Oral questioning may be con-
(x) Assigned duties of the second in ducted at any time during a practical
command during Category II ap- test.
proaches, unless the aircraft for which
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
authorization is sought does not re-
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997]
quire a second in command; and
(xi) Instrument and equipment fail- § 61.68 Category III pilot authorization
ure warning systems. requirements.
(2) Flight increment. The following re- (a) General. A person who applies for
quirements apply to the flight incre- a Category III pilot authorization must
ment of the practical test: hold:
(i) The flight increment must be con- (1) At least a private pilot certificate
ducted in an aircraft of the same cat- or commercial pilot certificate with an
egory, class, and type, as applicable, as instrument rating or an airline trans-
the aircraft in which the authorization port pilot certificate;
is sought or in a flight simulator (2) A type rating for the aircraft for
that— which the authorization is sought if
(A) Represents an aircraft of the that aircraft requires a type rating;
same category and class, and type, as and
applicable, as the aircraft in which the (3) A category and class rating for
authorization is sought; and the aircraft for which the authoriza-
(B) Is used in accordance with an ap- tion is sought.
proved course conducted by a training (b) Experience requirements. An appli-
center certificated under part 142 of cant for a Category III pilot authoriza-
this chapter. tion must have at least—
(ii) The flight increment must con- (1) 50 hours of night flight time as
sist of at least two ILS approaches to pilot in command.
563
§ 61.68 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(2) 75 hours of instrument flight time and type, as applicable, as the aircraft
during actual or simulated instrument in which the practical test is to be con-
conditions that may include not more ducted or in a flight simulator that—
than— (A) Represents an aircraft of the
(i) A combination of 25 hours of simu- same category and class, and type, as
lated instrument flight time in a flight applicable, as the aircraft for which the
simulator or flight training device; or authorization is sought; and
(ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument (B) Is used in accordance with an ap-
flight time if accomplished in an approved course conducted by a training
proved course conducted by an appro- center certificated under part 142 of
priately rated training center certifi- this chapter.
cated under part 142 of this chapter. (4) The flight time acquired in meet-
(3) 250 hours of cross-country flight ing the requirements of paragraph
time as pilot in command. (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section may be used
(c) Practical test requirements. (1) A to meet the requirements of paragraph
practical test must be passed by a per- (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.
son who applies for— (d) Practical test procedures. The prac-
(i) Issuance or renewal of a Category tical test consists of an oral increment
III pilot authorization; and and a flight increment.
(ii) The addition of another type of (1) Oral increment. In the oral incre-
aircraft to the applicant’s Category III ment of the practical test an applicant
pilot authorization. must demonstrate knowledge of the
(2) To be eligible for the practical following:
test for an authorization under this (i) Required landing distance;
section, an applicant must—
(ii) Determination and recognition of
(i) Meet the requirements of para-
the alert height or decision height, as
graphs (a) and (b) of this section; and
applicable, including use of a radar al-
(ii) If the applicant has not passed a
timeter;
practical test for this authorization
(iii) Recognition of and proper reac-
during the 12 calendar months pre-
tion to significant failures encountered
ceding the month of the test, then that
prior to and after reaching the alert
person must—
height or decision height, as applica-
(A) Meet the requirements of
ble;
§ 61.57(c); and
(B) Have performed at least six ILS (iv) Missed approach procedures and
approaches during the 6 calendar techniques using computed or fixed at-
months preceding the month of the titude guidance displays and expected
test, of which at least three of the ap- height loss as they relate to manual
proaches must have been conducted go-around or automatic go-around, and
without the use of an approach coupler. initiation altitude, as applicable;
(3) The approaches specified in para- (v) Use and limitations of RVR, in-
graph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section— cluding determination of controlling
(i) Must be conducted under actual or RVR and required transmissometers;
simulated instrument flight condi- (vi) Use, availability, or limitations
tions; of visual cues and the altitude at which
(ii) Must be conducted to the alert they are normally discernible at re-
height or decision height for the ILS duced RVR readings including—
approach in the type aircraft in which (A) Unexpected deterioration of con-
the practical test is to be conducted; ditions to less than minimum RVR
(iii) Need not be conducted to the de- during approach, flare, and rollout;
cision height authorized for Category (B) Demonstration of expected visual
III operations; references with weather at minimum
(iv) Must be conducted to the alert conditions;
height or decision height, as applica- (C) The expected sequence of visual
ble, authorized for Category III oper- cues during an approach in which visi-
ations only if conducted in a flight bility is at or above landing minima;
simulator or flight training device; and and
(v) Must be accomplished in an air- (D) Procedures and techniques for

craft of the same category and class, making a transition from instrument
564
reference flight to visual flight during the flight increment must include the
a final approach under reduced RVR. performance of one missed approach
(vii) Effects of vertical and hori- with the most critical engine, if appli-
zontal windshear; cable, set at idle or zero thrust before
(viii) Characteristics and limitations reaching the middle or outer marker;
of the ILS and runway lighting system; (v) If a multiengine flight simulator
(ix) Characteristics and limitations or multiengine flight training device is
of the flight director system auto ap- used, a missed approach must be exe-
proach coupler (including split axis cuted with an engine, which shall be
type if equipped), auto throttle system the most critical engine, if applicable,
(if equipped), and other Category III failed;
equipment; (vi) For an authorization for an air-
(x) Assigned duties of the second in craft that requires a type rating, the
command during Category III oper- practical test must be performed in co-
ations, unless the aircraft for which ordination with a second in command
authorization is sought does not re- who holds a type rating in the aircraft
quire a second in command; in which the authorization is sought;
(xi) Recognition of the limits of ac- (vii) Oral questioning may be con-
ceptable aircraft position and flight ducted at any time during the practical
path tracking during approach, flare, test;
and, if applicable, rollout; and (viii) Subject to the limitations of
(xii) Recognition of, and reaction to, this paragraph, for Category IIIb oper-
airborne or ground system faults or ab- ations predicated on the use of a fail-
normalities, particularly after passing passive rollout control system, at least
alert height or decision height, as ap- one manual rollout using visual ref-
plicable. erence or a combination of visual and
(2) Flight increment. The following re- instrument references must be exe-
quirements apply to the flight incre- cuted. The maneuver required by this
ment of the practical test— paragraph shall be initiated by a fail-
(i) The flight increment may be con- passive disconnect of the rollout con-
ducted in an aircraft of the same cat- trol system—
egory and class, and type, as applica- (A) After main gear touchdown;
ble, as the aircraft for which the au- (B) Prior to nose gear touchdown;
thorization is sought, or in a flight (C) In conditions representative of
simulator that— the most adverse lateral touchdown
(A) Represents an aircraft of the displacement allowing a safe landing
same category and class, and type, as on the runway; and
applicable, as the aircraft in which the (D) In weather conditions anticipated
authorization is sought; and in Category IIIb operations.
(B) Is used in accordance with an ap- [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
proved course conducted by a training Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40900, July 30, 1997]
center certificated under part 142 of
this chapter. § 61.69 Glider and unpowered ultra-
(ii) The flight increment must con- light vehicle towing: Experience
sist of at least two ILS approaches to and training requirements.
100 feet AGL, including one landing and (a) No person may act as pilot in
one missed approach initiated from a command for towing a glider or
very low altitude that may result in a unpowered ultralight vehicle unless
touchdown during the go-around ma- that person—
neuver; (1) Holds a private, commercial or
(iii) All approaches performed during airline transport pilot certificate with
the flight increment must be made a category rating for powered aircraft;
with the approved automatic landing (2) Has logged at least 100 hours of
system or an equivalent landing sys- pilot-in-command time in the aircraft
tem approved by the Administrator; category, class and type, if required,
(iv) If a multiengine aircraft with the that the pilot is using to tow a glider
performance capability to execute a or unpowered ultralight vehicle;
missed approach with one engine inop- (3) Has a logbook endorsement from
erative is used for the practical test, an authorized instructor who certifies
565
§ 61.71 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
that the person has received ground (2) Logged at least 10 flights as pilot
and flight training in gliders or in command of an aircraft while towing
unpowered ultralight vehicles and is a glider or unpowered ultralight vehi-
proficient in— cle.
(i) The techniques and procedures es- (d) If the pilot described in paragraph
sential to the safe towing of gliders or (a)(4) of this section holds only a pri-
unpowered ultralight vehicles, includ- vate pilot certificate, then that pilot
ing airspeed limitations; must have—
(ii) Emergency procedures; (1) Logged at least 100 hours of pilot-
(iii) Signals used; and in-command time in airplanes, or 200
(iv) Maximum angles of bank. hours of pilot-in-command time in a
(4) Except as provided in paragraph combination of powered and other-
(b) of this section, has logged at least than-powered aircraft; and
three flights as the sole manipulator of (2) Performed and logged at least
the controls of an aircraft while towing three flights within the 12 calendar
a glider or unpowered ultralight vehi- months preceding the month that pilot
cle, or has simulated towing flight pro- accompanies or endorses the logbook of
cedures in an aircraft while accom- a person seeking towing privileges—
panied by a pilot who meets the re- (i) In an aircraft while towing a glid-
quirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of er or unpowered ultralight vehicle ac-
this section. companied by another pilot who meets
(5) Except as provided in paragraph the requirements of this section; or
(b) of this section, has received a log- (ii) As pilot in command of a glider
book endorsement from the pilot, de- or unpowered ultralight vehicle being
scribed in paragraph (a)(4) of this sec- towed by another aircraft.
tion, certifying that the person has ac- [Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44866, July
complished at least 3 flights in an air- 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR
craft while towing a glider or 42555, Aug. 21, 2009]
unpowered ultralight vehicle, or while
simulating towing flight procedures; § 61.71 Graduates of an approved
and training program other than under
(6) Within 24 calendar months before this part: Special rules.
the flight has— (a) A person who graduates from an
(i) Made at least three actual or sim- approved training program under part
ulated tows of a glider or unpowered 141 or part 142 of this chapter is consid-
ultralight vehicle while accompanied ered to have met the applicable aero-
by a qualified pilot who meets the re- nautical experience, aeronautical
quirements of this section; or knowledge, and areas of operation re-
(ii) Made at least three flights as quirements of this part if that person
pilot in command of a glider or presents the graduation certificate and
unpowered ultralight vehicle towed by passes the required practical test with-
an aircraft. in the 60-day period after the date of
(b) Any person who, before May 17, graduation.
1967, has made and logged 10 or more (b) A person may apply for an airline
flights as pilot in command of an air- transport pilot certificate, type rating,
craft towing a glider or unpowered or both under this part, and will be
ultralight vehicle in accordance with a considered to have met the applicable
certificate of waiver need not comply requirements under § 61.157, except for
with paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this the airline transport pilot certification
section. training program required by § 61.156,
(c) The pilot, described in paragraph for that certificate and rating, if that
(a)(4) of this section, who endorses the person has:
logbook of a person seeking towing (1) Satisfactorily accomplished an
privileges must have— approved training curriculum and a
(1) Met the requirements of this sec- proficiency check for that airplane
tion prior to endorsing the logbook of type that includes all the tasks and
the person seeking towing privileges; maneuvers required by §§ 121.424 and

and 121.441 of this chapter to serve as pilot
566
in command in operations conducted erating rules, and accident reporting

under part 121 of this chapter; and rules.
(2) Applied for an airline transport (3) Presents official U.S. military
pilot certificate, type rating, or both records that show compliance with one
within the 60-day period from the date of the following requirements—
the person satisfactorily accomplished (i) Before the date of the application,
the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) for passing an official U.S. military pilot
that airplane type. and instrument proficiency check in a
(c) A person who holds a foreign pilot military aircraft of the kind of aircraft
license and is applying for an equiva- category, class, and type, if class or
lent U.S. pilot certificate on the basis type of aircraft is applicable, for the
of a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agree- ratings sought; or
ment and associated Implementation (ii) Before the date of application,
Procedures for Licensing may be con- logging 10 hours of pilot time as a mili-
sidered to have met the applicable tary pilot in a U.S. military aircraft in
aeronautical experience, aeronautical the kind of aircraft category, class, and
knowledge, and areas of operation re- type, if a class rating or type rating is
quirements of this part. applicable, for the aircraft rating
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; sought.
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997; (c) A military pilot in the Armed Forces
Amdt. 61–128, 76 FR 54107, Aug. 31, 2011; of a foreign contracting State to the Con-
Amdt. 61–130, 78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013; vention on International Civil Aviation. A
Amdt. 61-144, 85 FR 10920, Feb. 25, 2020] person who is a military pilot in the
Armed Forces of a foreign contracting
§ 61.73 Military pilots or former mili- State to the Convention on Inter-
tary pilots: Special rules.
national Civil Aviation and is assigned
(a) General. Except for a person who to pilot duties in the U.S. Armed
has been removed from flying status Forces, for purposes other than receiv-
for lack of proficiency or because of a ing flight training, may apply for a
disciplinary action involving aircraft commercial pilot certificate and rat-
operations, a U.S. military pilot or ings under paragraph (a) of this sec-
former military pilot who meets the re- tion, provided that person—
quirements of this section may apply, (1) Presents evidentiary documents
on the basis of his or her military pilot described under paragraph (h)(4) of this
qualifications, for: section that show the person is a mili-
(1) A commercial pilot certificate tary pilot in the Armed Forces of a for-
with the appropriate aircraft category eign contracting State to the Conven-
and class rating. tion on International Civil Aviation,
(2) An instrument rating with the ap- and is assigned to pilot duties in the
propriate aircraft rating. U.S. Armed Forces, for purposes other
(3) A type rating. than receiving flight training.
(b) Military pilots and former military (2) Has passed the military com-
pilots in the U.S. Armed Forces. A person petency aeronautical knowledge test
who qualifies as a military pilot or on the appropriate parts of this chapter
former military pilot in the U.S. for commercial pilot privileges and
Armed Forces may apply for a pilot limitations, air traffic and general op-
certificate and ratings under paragraph erating rules, and accident reporting
(a) of this section if that person— rules.
(1) Presents evidentiary documents (3) Presents official U.S. military
described under paragraphs (h)(1), (2), records that show compliance with one
and (3) of this section that show the of the following requirements:
person’s status in the U.S. Armed (i) Before the date of the application,
Forces. passed an official U.S. military pilot
(2) Has passed the military com- and instrument proficiency check in a
petency aeronautical knowledge test military aircraft of the kind of aircraft
on the appropriate parts of this chapter category, class, or type, if class or type
for commercial pilot privileges and of aircraft is applicable, for the rat-
limitations, air traffic and general op- ings; or
567
§ 61.73 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(ii) Before the date of the applica- (2) Holds an instrument rating, or has
tion, logged 10 hours of pilot time as a instrument privileges, on the pilot cer-
military pilot in a U.S. military air- tificate that is appropriate to the
craft of the kind of category, class, and flight instructor rating sought; and
type of aircraft, if a class rating or (3) Presents the following documents:
type rating is applicable, for the air- (i) A knowledge test report that
craft rating. shows the person passed a knowledge
(d) Instrument rating. A person who is test on the aeronautical knowledge
qualified as a U.S. military pilot or areas listed under § 61.185(a) appro-
former military pilot may apply for an priate to the flight instructor rating
instrument rating to be added to a sought and the knowledge test was
pilot certificate if that person— passed within the preceding 24 calendar
(1) Has passed an instrument pro- months prior to the month of applica-
ficiency check in the U.S. Armed tion. If the U.S. military instructor
Forces in the aircraft category for the pilot or pilot examiner already holds a
instrument rating sought; and flight instructor certificate, holding of
(2) Has an official U.S. Armed Forces a flight instructor certificate suffices
record that shows the person is instru- for the knowledge test report.
ment pilot qualified by the U.S. Armed (ii) An official U.S. Armed Forces
record or order that shows the person
Forces to conduct instrument flying on
is or was qualified as a U.S. Armed
Federal airways in that aircraft cat-
Forces military instructor pilot or
egory and class for the instrument rat-
pilot examiner for the flight instructor
ing sought.
rating sought.
(e) Aircraft type rating. An aircraft (iii) An official U.S. Armed Forces
type rating may only be issued for a record or order that shows the person
type of aircraft that has a comparable completed a U.S. Armed Forces’ in-
civilian type designation by the Ad- structor pilot or pilot examiner train-
ministrator. ing course and received an aircraft rat-
(f) Aircraft type rating placed on an ing qualification as a military instruc-
airline transport pilot certificate. A per- tor pilot or pilot examiner that is ap-
son who is a military pilot or former propriate to the flight instructor rat-
military pilot of the U.S. Armed Forces ing sought.
and requests an aircraft type rating to (iv) An official U.S. Armed Forces
be placed on an existing U.S. airline record or order that shows the person
transport pilot certificate may be passed a U.S. Armed Forces instructor
issued the rating at the airline trans- pilot or pilot examiner proficiency
port pilot certification level, provided check in an aircraft as a military in-
that person: structor pilot or pilot examiner that is
(1) Holds a category and class rating appropriate to the flight instructor
for that type of aircraft at the airline rating sought.
transport pilot certification level; and (h) Documents for qualifying for a pilot
(2) Has passed an official U.S. mili- certificate and rating. The following doc-
tary pilot check and instrument pro- uments are required for a person to
ficiency check in that type of aircraft. apply for a pilot certificate and rating:
(g) Flight instructor certificate and rat- (1) An official U.S. Armed Forces
ings. A person who can show official record that shows the person is or was
U.S. military documentation of being a a military pilot.
U.S. military instructor pilot or U.S. (2) An official U.S. Armed Forces
military pilot examiner, or a former record that shows the person graduated
instructor pilot or pilot examiner may from a U.S. Armed Forces under-
apply for and be issued a flight instruc- graduate pilot training school and re-
tor certificate with the appropriate ceived a rating qualification as a mili-
ratings if that person: tary pilot.
(1) Holds a commercial or airline (3) An official U.S. Armed Forces
transport pilot certificate with the ap- record that shows the pilot passed a
propriate aircraft category and class pilot proficiency check and instrument
rating, if a class rating is appropriate, proficiency check in an aircraft as a

for the flight instructor rating sought; military pilot.
568
(4) If a person is a military pilot in (2) Holds a foreign pilot license, at

the Armed Forces from a foreign con- the private pilot license level or high-
tracting State to the Convention on er, that does not contain a limitation
International Civil Aviation and is ap- stating that the applicant has not met
plying for a pilot certificate and rat- all of the standards of ICAO for that li-
ing, that person must present the fol- cense;
lowing: (3) Does not hold a U.S. pilot certifi-
(i) An official U.S. Armed Forces cate other than a U.S. student pilot
record that shows the person is a mili- certificate;
tary pilot in the U.S. Armed Forces; (4) Holds a medical certificate issued
(ii) An official U.S. Armed Forces under part 67 of this chapter or a med-
record that shows the person is as- ical license issued by the country that
signed as a military pilot in the U.S. issued the person’s foreign pilot li-
Armed Forces for purposes other than cense; and
receiving flight training; (5) Is able to read, speak, write, and
(iii) An official record that shows the understand the English language. If the
person graduated from a military un- applicant is unable to meet one of
dergraduate pilot training school from these requirements due to medical rea-
the Armed Forces from a foreign con- sons, then the Administrator may
tracting State to the Convention on place such operating limitations on
International Civil Aviation or from that applicant’s pilot certificate as are
the U.S. Armed Forces, and received a necessary for the safe operation of the
qualification as a military pilot; and aircraft.
(iv) An official U.S. Armed Forces (c) Aircraft ratings issued. Aircraft
record that shows that the person ratings listed on a person’s foreign
passed a pilot proficiency check and in- pilot license, in addition to any issued
strument proficiency check in an air- after testing under the provisions of
craft as a military pilot in the U.S. this part, may be placed on that per-
Armed Forces. son’s U.S. pilot certificate for private
pilot privileges only.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–26661, 74 FR 42555, Aug. (d) Instrument ratings issued. A person
21, 2009] who holds an instrument rating on the
foreign pilot license issued by a con-
§ 61.75 Private pilot certificate issued tracting State to the Convention on
on the basis of a foreign pilot li-
cense. International Civil Aviation may be
issued an instrument rating on a U.S.
(a) General. A person who holds a for- pilot certificate provided:
eign pilot license at the private pilot (1) The person’s foreign pilot license
level or higher that was issued by a authorizes instrument privileges;
contracting State to the Convention on (2) Within 24 months preceding the
International Civil Aviation may apply month in which the person applies for
for and be issued a U.S. private pilot the instrument rating, the person
certificate with the appropriate ratings passes the appropriate knowledge test;
if the foreign pilot license meets the and
requirements of this section. (3) The person is able to read, speak,
(b) Certificate issued. A U.S. private write, and understand the English lan-
pilot certificate issued under this sec- guage. If the applicant is unable to
tion must specify the person’s foreign meet one of these requirements due to
license number and country of medical reasons, then the Adminis-
issuance. A person who holds a foreign trator may place such operating limi-
pilot license issued by a contracting tations on that applicant’s pilot cer-
State to the Convention on Inter- tificate as are necessary for the safe
national Civil Aviation may be issued a operation of the aircraft.
U.S. private pilot certificate based on (e) Operating privileges and limitations.
the foreign pilot license without any A person who receives a U.S. private
further showing of proficiency, pro- pilot certificate that has been issued
vided the applicant: under the provisions of this section:
(1) Meets the requirements of this (1) May act as pilot in command of a
section; civil aircraft of the United States in
569
§ 61.77 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
accordance with the pilot privileges (i) Scheduled international air serv-
authorized by this part and the limita- ices in turbojet-powered airplanes of
tions placed on that U.S. pilot certifi- U.S. registry;
cate; (ii) Scheduled international air serv-
(2) Is limited to the privileges placed ices in airplanes of U.S. registry having
on the certificate by the Adminis- a configuration of more than nine pas-
trator; senger seats, excluding crewmember
(3) Is subject to the limitations and seats;
restrictions on the person’s U.S. cer- (iii) Nonscheduled international air
tificate and foreign pilot license when transportation in airplanes of U.S. reg-
istry having a configuration of more
exercising the privileges of that U.S.
than 30 passenger seats, excluding
pilot certificate in an aircraft of U.S.
crewmember seats; or
registry operating within or outside
(iv) Scheduled international air serv-
the United States; and
ices, or nonscheduled international air
(f) Limitation on licenses used as the transportation, in airplanes of U.S.
basis for a U.S. certificate. A person may registry having a payload capacity of
use only one foreign pilot license as a more than 7,500 pounds.
basis for the issuance of a U.S. pilot (b) Eligibility. To be eligible for the
certificate. The foreign pilot license issuance or renewal of a special pur-
and medical certification used as a pose pilot authorization, an applicant
basis for issuing a U.S. pilot certificate must present the following to a Flight
under this section must be written in Standards office:
English or accompanied by an English (1) A foreign pilot license issued by
transcription that has been signed by the aeronautical authority of a con-
an official or representative of the for- tracting State to the Convention on
eign aviation authority that issued the International Civil Aviation that con-
foreign pilot license. tains the appropriate aircraft category,
(g) Limitation placed on a U.S. pilot class, type rating, if appropriate, and
certificate. A U.S. pilot certificate instrument rating for the aircraft to be
issued under this section can only be flown;
exercised when the pilot has the for- (2) A certification by the lessee of the
eign pilot license, upon which the aircraft—
issuance of the U.S. pilot certificate (i) Stating that the applicant is em-
was based, in the holder’s possession or ployed by the lessee;
readily accessible in the aircraft. (ii) Specifying the aircraft type on
which the applicant will perform pilot
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as duties; and
amended by Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42556, Aug. (iii) Stating that the applicant has
21, 2009]
received ground and flight instruction
§ 61.77 Special purpose pilot author- that qualifies the applicant to perform
ization: Operation of a civil aircraft the duties to be assigned on the air-
of the United States and leased by a craft.
non-U.S. citizen. (3) Documentation showing when the
applicant will reach the age of 65 years
(a) General. The holder of a foreign (an official copy of the applicant’s
pilot license issued by a contracting birth certificate or other official docu-
State to the Convention on Inter- mentation);
national Civil Aviation who meets the (4) Documentation the applicant
requirements of this section may be meets the medical standards for the
issued a special purpose pilot author- issuance of the foreign pilot license
ization by the Administrator for the from the aeronautical authority of
purpose of performing pilot duties— that contracting State to the Conven-
(1) On a civil aircraft of U.S. registry tion on International Civil Aviation;
that is leased to a person who is not a and
citizen of the United States, and (5) A statement that the applicant
(2) For carrying persons or property does not already hold a special purpose
for compensation or hire for operations pilot authorization; however, if the ap-
in— plicant already holds a special purpose
570
pilot authorization, then that special (2) Scheduled international air serv-
purpose pilot authorization must be ices carrying passengers in airplanes
surrendered to either the Flight Stand- having a passenger-seat configuration
ards office that issued it, or the Flight of more than nine passenger seats, ex-
Standards office processing the appli- cluding each crewmember seat;
cation for the authorization, prior to (3) Nonscheduled international air
being issued another special purpose transportation for compensation or
pilot authorization. hire in airplanes having a passenger-
(c) Privileges. A person issued a spe- seat configuration of more than 30 pas-
cial purpose pilot authorization under senger seats, excluding each crew-
this section— member seat; or
(1) May exercise the privileges pre- (4) Scheduled international air serv-
scribed on the special purpose pilot au- ices, or nonscheduled international air
thorization; and transportation for compensation or
(2) Must comply with the limitations hire, in airplanes having a payload ca-
specified in this section and any addi- pacity of more than 7,500 pounds.
tional limitations specified on the spe- (f) Definitions. (1) International air
cial purpose pilot authorization. service, as used in paragraph (e) of this
(d) General limitations. A special pur- section, means scheduled air service
pose pilot authorization may be used performed in airplanes for the public
only— transport of passengers, mail, or cargo,
(1) For flights between foreign coun- in which the service passes through the
tries or for flights in foreign air com- air space over the territory of more
merce within the time period allotted than one country.
on the authorization. (2) International air transportation, as
(2) If the foreign pilot license re- used in paragraph (e) of this section,
quired by paragraph (b)(1) of this sec- means air transportation performed in
tion, the medical documentation re- airplanes for the public transport of
quired by paragraph (b)(4) of this sec- passengers, mail, or cargo, in which
tion, and the special purpose pilot au- service passes through the air space
thorization issued under this section over the territory of more than one
are in the holder’s physical possession country.
or immediately accessible in the air- (g) Expiration date. Each special pur-
craft. pose pilot authorization issued under
(3) While the holder is employed by this section expires—
the person to whom the aircraft de- (1) 60 calendar months from the
scribed in the certification required by month it was issued, unless sooner sus-
paragraph (b)(2) of this section is pended or revoked;
leased. (2) When the lease agreement for the
(4) While the holder is performing aircraft expires or the lessee termi-
pilot duties on the U.S.-registered air- nates the employment of the person
craft described in the certification re- who holds the special purpose pilot au-
quired by paragraph (b)(2) of this sec- thorization;
tion. (3) Whenever the person’s foreign
(5) If the holder has only one special pilot license has been suspended, re-
purpose pilot authorization as provided voked, or is no longer valid; or
in paragraph (b)(5) of this section. (4) When the person no longer meets
(e) Age limitation. No person who the medical standards for the issuance
holds a special purpose pilot authoriza- of the foreign pilot license.
tion issued under this part may serve (h) Renewal. A person exercising the
as a pilot on a civil airplane of U.S. privileges of a special purpose pilot au-
registry in the following operations if thorization may apply for a 60-cal-
the person has reached his or her 60th endar-month extension of that author-
birthday or, in the case of operations ization, provided the person—
with more than one pilot, his or her (1) Continues to meet the require-
65th birthday: ments of this section; and
(1) Scheduled international air serv- (2) Surrenders the expired special
ices carrying passengers in turbojet- purpose pilot authorization upon re-

powered airplanes; ceipt of the new authorization.
571
§ 61.81 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(i) Surrender. The holder of a special § 61.87 Solo requirements for student
purpose pilot authorization must sur- pilots.
render the authorization to the Admin- (a) General. A student pilot may not
istrator within 7 days after the date operate an aircraft in solo flight unless
the authorization terminates. that student has met the requirements
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40901, July 30, 1997, as of this section. The term ‘‘solo flight’’
amended by Amdt. 61–123, 74 FR 34234, July as used in this subpart means that
15, 2009; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42557, Aug. 21, flight time during which a student
2009; Amdt. 61–134, 80 FR 33401, June 12, 2015; pilot is the sole occupant of the air-
Docket FAA–2018–0119, Amdt. 61–141, 83 FR
9170, Mar. 5, 2018] craft or that flight time during which
the student performs the duties of a
pilot in command of a gas balloon or an
Subpart C—Student Pilots airship requiring more than one pilot
§ 61.81 Applicability. flight crewmember.
(b) Aeronautical knowledge. A student
This subpart prescribes the require- pilot must demonstrate satisfactory
ments for the issuance of student pilot aeronautical knowledge on a knowl-
certificates, the conditions under edge test that meets the requirements
which those certificates are necessary,
of this paragraph:
and the general operating rules and
(1) The test must address the student
limitations for the holders of those cer-
pilot’s knowledge of—
tificates.
(i) Applicable sections of parts 61 and
§ 61.83 Eligibility requirements for stu- 91 of this chapter;
dent pilots. (ii) Airspace rules and procedures for
To be eligible for a student pilot cer- the airport where the solo flight will be
tificate, an applicant must: performed; and
(a) Be at least 16 years of age for (iii) Flight characteristics and oper-
other than the operation of a glider or ational limitations for the make and
balloon. model of aircraft to be flown.
(b) Be at least 14 years of age for the (2) The student’s authorized instruc-
operation of a glider or balloon. tor must—
(c) Be able to read, speak, write, and (i) Administer the test; and
understand the English language. If the (ii) At the conclusion of the test, re-
applicant is unable to meet one of view all incorrect answers with the
these requirements due to medical rea- student before authorizing that stu-
sons, then the Administrator may dent to conduct a solo flight.
place such operating limitations on (c) Pre-solo flight training. Prior to
that applicant’s pilot certificate as are conducting a solo flight, a student
necessary for the safe operation of the pilot must have:
aircraft. (1) Received and logged flight train-
ing for the maneuvers and procedures
§ 61.85 Application. of this section that are appropriate to
An applicant for a student pilot cer- the make and model of aircraft to be
tificate: flown; and
(a) Must make that application in a (2) Demonstrated satisfactory pro-
form acceptable to the Administrator; ficiency and safety, as judged by an au-
and thorized instructor, on the maneuvers
(b) Must submit the application to a and procedures required by this section
Flight Standards office, a designated in the make and model of aircraft or
pilot examiner, an airman certification similar make and model of aircraft to
representative associated with a pilot be flown.
school, a flight instructor, or other (d) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-
person authorized by the Adminis- solo flight training in a single-engine air-
trator. plane. A student pilot who is receiving
[Docket FAA–2010–1127, Amdt. 61–135, 81 FR training for a single-engine airplane
rating or privileges must receive and
1306, Jan. 12, 2016, as amended by Docket

FAA–2018–0119, Amdt. 61–141, 83 FR 9170, Mar. log flight training for the following
5, 2018] maneuvers and procedures:
572
(1) Proper flight preparation proce- (10) Stall entries from various flight
dures, including preflight planning and attitudes and power combinations with
preparation, powerplant operation, and recovery initiated at the first indica-
aircraft systems; tion of a stall, and recovery from a full
(2) Taxiing or surface operations, install;
cluding runups; (11) Emergency procedures and equip-
(3) Takeoffs and landings, including ment malfunctions;
normal and crosswind; (12) Ground reference maneuvers;
(4) Straight and level flight, and (13) Approaches to a landing area
turns in both directions; with simulated engine malfunctions;
(5) Climbs and climbing turns; and
(6) Airport traffic patterns, including (14) Go-arounds.
entry and departure procedures; (f) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-
(7) Collision avoidance, windshear solo flight training in a helicopter. A stu-
avoidance, and wake turbulence avoid- dent pilot who is receiving training for
ance; a helicopter rating must receive and
(8) Descents, with and without turns, log flight training for the following
using high and low drag configurations; maneuvers and procedures:
(9) Flight at various airspeeds from (1) Proper flight preparation proce-
cruise to slow flight; dures, including preflight planning and
(10) Stall entries from various flight preparation, powerplant operation, and
attitudes and power combinations with aircraft systems;
recovery initiated at the first indica- (2) Taxiing or surface operations, in-
tion of a stall, and recovery from a full cluding runups;
stall; (3) Takeoffs and landings, including
(11) Emergency procedures and equip- normal and crosswind;
ment malfunctions; (4) Straight and level flight, and
(12) Ground reference maneuvers; turns in both directions;
(13) Approaches to a landing area (5) Climbs and climbing turns;
with simulated engine malfunctions;
(6) Airport traffic patterns, including
(14) Slips to a landing; and
entry and departure procedures;
(15) Go-arounds.
(7) Collision avoidance, windshear
(e) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-
avoidance, and wake turbulence avoid-
solo flight training in a multiengine air-
ance;
plane. A student pilot who is receiving
training for a multiengine airplane rat- (8) Descents with and without turns;
ing must receive and log flight training (9) Flight at various airspeeds;
for the following maneuvers and proce- (10) Emergency procedures and equip-
dures: ment malfunctions;
(1) Proper flight preparation proce- (11) Ground reference maneuvers;
dures, including preflight planning and (12) Approaches to the landing area;
preparation, powerplant operation, and (13) Hovering and hovering turns;
aircraft systems; (14) Go-arounds;
(2) Taxiing or surface operations, in- (15) Simulated emergency proce-
cluding runups; dures, including autorotational de-
(3) Takeoffs and landings, including scents with a power recovery and
normal and crosswind; power recovery to a hover;
(4) Straight and level flight, and (16) Rapid decelerations; and
turns in both directions; (17) Simulated one-engine-inoper-
(5) Climbs and climbing turns; ative approaches and landings for mul-
(6) Airport traffic patterns, including tiengine helicopters.
entry and departure procedures; (g) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-
(7) Collision avoidance, windshear solo flight training in a gyroplane. A stu-
avoidance, and wake turbulence avoid- dent pilot who is receiving training for
ance; a gyroplane rating or privileges must
(8) Descents, with and without turns, receive and log flight training for the
using high and low drag configurations; following maneuvers and procedures:
(9) Flight at various airspeeds from (1) Proper flight preparation proce-
cruise to slow flight; dures, including preflight planning and
573
§ 61.87 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
preparation, powerplant operation, and (11) Emergency procedures and equip-

aircraft systems; ment malfunctions;
(2) Taxiing or surface operations, in- (12) Ground reference maneuvers;
cluding runups; (13) Approaches to a landing with
(3) Takeoffs and landings, including simulated engine malfunctions;
normal and crosswind; (14) Go-arounds;
(4) Straight and level flight, and (15) Approaches to the landing area;
turns in both directions; (16) Hovering and hovering turns; and
(5) Climbs and climbing turns;
(17) For multiengine powered-lifts,
simulated one-engine-inoperative ap-
proaches and landings.
(7) Collision avoidance, windshear
(i) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-
avoidance, and wake turbulence avoid-
solo flight training in a glider. A student
ance;
pilot who is receiving training for a
(8) Descents with and without turns;
glider rating or privileges must receive
(9) Flight at various airspeeds;
and log flight training for the following
(10) Emergency procedures and equip-
maneuvers and procedures:
ment malfunctions;
(11) Ground reference maneuvers; (1) Proper flight preparation proce-
(12) Approaches to the landing area; dures, including preflight planning,
(13) High rates of descent with power preparation, aircraft systems, and, if
on and with simulated power off, and appropriate, powerplant operations;
recovery from those flight configura- (2) Taxiing or surface operations, in-
tions; cluding runups, if applicable;
(14) Go-arounds; and (3) Launches, including normal and
(15) Simulated emergency proce- crosswind;
dures, including simulated power-off (4) Straight and level flight, and
landings and simulated power failure turns in both directions, if applicable;
during departures. (5) Airport traffic patterns, including
(h) Maneuvers and procedures for pre- entry procedures;
solo flight training in a powered-lift. A (6) Collision avoidance, windshear
student pilot who is receiving training avoidance, and wake turbulence avoid-
for a powered-lift rating must receive ance;
and log flight training in the following (7) Descents with and without turns
maneuvers and procedures: using high and low drag configurations;
(1) Proper flight preparation proce- (8) Flight at various airspeeds;
dures, including preflight planning and (9) Emergency procedures and equip-
preparation, powerplant operation, and ment malfunctions;
aircraft systems; (10) Ground reference maneuvers, if
(2) Taxiing or surface operations, in- applicable;
cluding runups; (11) Inspection of towline rigging and
(3) Takeoffs and landings, including review of signals and release proce-
normal and crosswind; dures, if applicable;
(4) Straight and level flight, and
(12) Aerotow, ground tow, or self-
turns in both directions;
launch procedures;
(5) Climbs and climbing turns;
(13) Procedures for disassembly and
assembly of the glider;
(7) Collision avoidance, windshear (14) Stall entry, stall, and stall recov-
avoidance, and wake turbulence avoid- ery;
ance; (15) Straight glides, turns, and spi-
(8) Descents with and without turns; rals;
(9) Flight at various airspeeds from (16) Landings, including normal and
cruise to slow flight; crosswind;
(10) Stall entries from various flight (17) Slips to a landing;
attitudes and power combinations with (18) Procedures and techniques for
recovery initiated at the first indica- thermalling; and
tion of a stall, and recovery from a full (19) Emergency operations, including
stall; towline break procedures.
574
(j) Maneuvers and procedures for pre- training for a powered parachute rat-
solo flight training in an airship. A stu- ing or privileges must receive and log
dent pilot who is receiving training for flight training for the following ma-
an airship rating or privileges must re- neuvers and procedures:
ceive and log flight training for the fol- (1) Proper flight preparation proce-
lowing maneuvers and procedures: dures, including preflight planning and
(1) Proper flight preparation proce- preparation, preflight assembly and
dures, including preflight planning and rigging, aircraft systems, and power-
preparation, powerplant operation, and plant operations.
aircraft systems; (2) Taxiing or surface operations, in-
(2) Taxiing or surface operations, including run-ups.
cluding runups; (3) Takeoffs and landings, including
(3) Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind.
normal and crosswind; (4) Straight and level flight, and
(4) Straight and level flight, and turns in both directions.
turns in both directions; (5) Climbs, and climbing turns in
(5) Climbs and climbing turns; both directions.
(6) Airport traffic patterns, including (6) Airport traffic patterns, including
entry and departure procedures; entry and departure procedures.
(7) Collision avoidance, windshear (7) Collision avoidance, windshear
avoidance, and wake turbulence avoid- avoidance, and wake turbulence avoid-
ance; ance.
(8) Descents with and without turns; (8) Descents, and descending turns in
(9) Flight at various airspeeds from both directions.
cruise to slow flight; (9) Emergency procedures and equip-
(10) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions.
ment malfunctions; (10) Ground reference maneuvers.
(11) Ground reference maneuvers; (11) Straight glides, and gliding turns
(12) Rigging, ballasting, and control- in both directions.
ling pressure in the ballonets, and (12) Go-arounds.
superheating; and (13) Approaches to landing areas with
(13) Landings with positive and with a simulated engine malfunction.
negative static trim. (14) Procedures for canopy packing
(k) Maneuvers and procedures for pre- and aircraft disassembly.
solo flight training in a balloon. A stu- (m) Maneuvers and procedures for pre-
dent pilot who is receiving training in solo flight training in a weight-shift-con-
a balloon must receive and log flight trol aircraft. A student pilot who is re-
training for the following maneuvers ceiving training for a weight-shift-con-
and procedures: trol aircraft rating or privileges must
(1) Layout and assembly procedures; receive and log flight training for the
(2) Proper flight preparation proce- following maneuvers and procedures:
dures, including preflight planning and (1) Proper flight preparation proce-
preparation, and aircraft systems; dures, including preflight planning and
(3) Ascents and descents; preparation, preflight assembly and
(4) Landing and recovery procedures; rigging, aircraft systems, and power-
(5) Emergency procedures and equip- plant operations.
ment malfunctions; (2) Taxiing or surface operations, in-
(6) Operation of hot air or gas source, cluding run-ups.
ballast, valves, vents, and rip panels, as (3) Takeoffs and landings, including
appropriate; normal and crosswind.
(7) Use of deflation valves or rip pan- (4) Straight and level flight, and
els for simulating an emergency; turns in both directions.
(8) The effects of wind on climb and (5) Climbs, and climbing turns in
approach angles; and both directions.
(9) Obstruction detection and avoid- (6) Airport traffic patterns, including
ance techniques. entry and departure procedures.
(l) Maneuvers and procedures for pre- (7) Collision avoidance, windshear
solo flight training in a powered para- avoidance, and wake turbulence avoid-
chute. A student pilot who is receiving ance.
575
§ 61.89 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(8) Descents, and descending turns in (4) Endorsed the student pilot’s log-
both directions. book for the specific make and model
(9) Flight at various airspeeds from aircraft to be flown, and that endorse-
maximum cruise to slow flight. ment remains current for solo flight
(10) Emergency procedures and equip- privileges, provided an authorized in-
ment malfunctions. structor updates the student’s logbook
(11) Ground reference maneuvers. every 90 days thereafter.
(12) Stall entry, stall, and stall recov-
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
ery. Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997;
(13) Straight glides, and gliding turns Amdt. 61–104, 63 FR 20287, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt.
in both directions. 61–110, 69 FR 44866, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61–
(14) Go-arounds. 124, 74 FR 42557, Aug. 21, 2009; Docket FAA–
(15) Approaches to landing areas with 2010–1127, Amdt. 61–135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12,
a simulated engine malfunction. 2016]
(16) Procedures for disassembly.
(n) Limitations on student pilots oper- § 61.89 General limitations.
ating an aircraft in solo flight. A student (a) A student pilot may not act as
pilot may not operate an aircraft in pilot in command of an aircraft:
solo flight unless that student pilot has (1) That is carrying a passenger;
received an endorsement in the stu- (2) That is carrying property for com-
dent’s logbook for the specific make pensation or hire;
and model aircraft to be flown by an (3) For compensation or hire;
authorized instructor who gave the (4) In furtherance of a business;
training within the 90 days preceding (5) On an international flight, except
the date of the flight. that a student pilot may make solo
(o) Limitations on student pilots oper- training flights from Haines, Gustavus,
ating an aircraft in solo flight at night. A or Juneau, Alaska, to White Horse,
student pilot may not operate an air- Yukon, Canada, and return over the
craft in solo flight at night unless that province of British Columbia;
student pilot has received: (6) With a flight or surface visibility
(1) Flight training at night on night of less than 3 statute miles during day-
flying procedures that includes take- light hours or 5 statute miles at night;
offs, approaches, landings, and go- (7) When the flight cannot be made
arounds at night at the airport where with visual reference to the surface; or
the solo flight will be conducted; (8) In a manner contrary to any limi-
(2) Navigation training at night in tations placed in the pilot’s logbook by
the vicinity of the airport where the an authorized instructor.
solo flight will be conducted; and (b) A student pilot may not act as a
(3) An endorsement in the student’s required pilot flight crewmember on
logbook for the specific make and any aircraft for which more than one
model aircraft to be flown for night pilot is required by the type certificate
solo flight by an authorized instructor of the aircraft or regulations under
who gave the training within the 90- which the flight is conducted, except
day period preceding the date of the when receiving flight training from an
flight. authorized instructor on board an air-
(p) Limitations on flight instructors au- ship, and no person other than a re-
thorizing solo flight. No instructor may quired flight crewmember is carried on
authorize a student pilot to perform a the aircraft.
solo flight unless that instructor has— (c) A student pilot seeking a sport
(1) Given that student pilot training pilot certificate must comply with the
in the make and model of aircraft or a provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of
similar make and model of aircraft in this section and may not act as pilot in
which the solo flight is to be flown; command—
(2) Determined the student pilot is (1) Of an aircraft other than a light-
proficient in the maneuvers and proce- sport aircraft;
dures prescribed in this section; (2) At night;
(3) Determined the student pilot is (3) At an altitude of more than 10,000
proficient in the make and model of feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever
aircraft to be flown; and is higher;
576
(4) In Class B, C, and D airspace, at craft for which solo cross-country

an airport located in Class B, C, or D privileges are sought;
airspace, and to, from, through, or on (ii) Have demonstrated cross-country
an airport having an operational con- proficiency on the appropriate maneu-
trol tower without having received the vers and procedures of this section to
ground and flight training specified in an authorized instructor;
§ 61.94 and an endorsement from an au- (iii) Have satisfactorily accomplished
thorized instructor; the pre-solo flight maneuvers and pro-
(5) Of a light-sport aircraft without cedures required by § 61.87 of this part
having received the applicable ground in the make and model of aircraft or
training, flight training, and instructor similar make and model of aircraft for
endorsements specified in § 61.327 (a) which solo cross-country privileges are
and (b). sought; and
(d) The holder of a student pilot cer- (iv) Comply with any limitations in-
tificate may act as pilot in command cluded in the authorized instructor’s
of an aircraft without holding a med- endorsement that are required by para-
ical certificate issued under part 67 of graph (c) of this section.
this chapter provided the student pilot (3) A student pilot who seeks solo
holds a valid U.S. driver’s license, cross-country flight privileges must
meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), have received ground and flight train-
and the operation is conducted con- ing from an authorized instructor on
sistent with the requirements of para- the cross-country maneuvers and pro-
graphs (a) and (b) of this section and cedures listed in this section that are
the conditions of § 61.113(i). Where the appropriate to the aircraft to be flown.
requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) (b) Authorization to perform certain
of this section conflict with § 61.113(i), a solo flights and cross-country flights. A
student pilot must comply with para- student pilot must obtain an endorse-
graphs (a) and (b) of this section. ment from an authorized instructor to
make solo flights from the airport
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as
amended by Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44867, July
where the student pilot normally re-
27, 2004; Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; ceives training to another location. A
Docket FAA–2016–9157, Amdt. 61–140, 82 FR student pilot who receives this en-
3165, Jan. 11, 2017] dorsement must comply with the re-
quirements of this paragraph.
§ 61.91 [Reserved] (1) Solo flights may be made to an-
other airport that is within 25 nautical
§ 61.93 Solo cross-country flight re- miles from the airport where the stu-
quirements. dent pilot normally receives training,
(a) General. (1) Except as provided in provided—
paragraph (b) of this section, a student (i) An authorized instructor has
pilot must meet the requirements of given the student pilot flight training
this section before— at the other airport, and that training
(i) Conducting a solo cross-country includes flight in both directions over
flight, or any flight greater than 25 the route, entering and exiting the
nautical miles from the airport from traffic pattern, and takeoffs and land-
where the flight originated. ings at the other airport;
(ii) Making a solo flight and landing (ii) The authorized instructor who
at any location other than the airport gave the training endorses the student
of origination. pilot’s logbook authorizing the flight;
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (iii) The student pilot has a solo
(b) of this section, a student pilot who flight endorsement in accordance with
seeks solo cross-country flight privi- § 61.87 of this part;
leges must: (iv) The authorized instructor has de-
(i) Have received flight training from termined that the student pilot is pro-
an instructor authorized to provide ficient to make the flight; and
flight training on the maneuvers and (v) The purpose of the flight is to
procedures of this section that are ap- practice takeoffs and landings at that
propriate to the make and model of air- other airport.
577
§ 61.93 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(2) Repeated specific solo cross-coun- (iii) State that any limitations re-
try flights may be made to another air- quired by the student’s authorized in-
port that is within 50 nautical miles of structor are met.
the airport from which the flight origi- (d) Limitations on authorized instruc-
nated, provided— tors to permit solo cross-country flights.
(i) The authorized instructor has An authorized instructor may not per-
given the student flight training in mit a student pilot to conduct a solo
both directions over the route, includ- cross-country flight unless that in-
ing entering and exiting the traffic pat- structor has:
terns, takeoffs, and landings at the air- (1) Determined that the student’s
ports to be used; cross-country planning is correct for
(ii) The authorized instructor who the flight;
gave the training has endorsed the stu- (2) Reviewed the current and forecast
dent’s logbook certifying that the stu- weather conditions and has determined
dent is proficient to make such flights; that the flight can be completed under
(iii) The student has a solo flight en- VFR;
dorsement in accordance with § 61.87 of (3) Determined that the student is
this part; and proficient to conduct the flight safely;
(iv) The student has a solo cross (4) Determined that the student has
country flight endorsement in accord- the appropriate solo cross-country en-
ance with paragraph (c) of this section; dorsement for the make and model of
however, for repeated solo cross coun- aircraft to be flown; and
try flights to another airport within 50 (5) Determined that the student’s
nautical miles from which the flight solo flight endorsement is current for
originated, separate endorsements are the make and model aircraft to be
not required to be made for each flight. flown.
(c) Endorsements for solo cross-country (e) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-
flights. Except as specified in paragraph country flight training in a single-engine
(b)(2) of this section, a student pilot airplane. A student pilot who is receiv-
must have the endorsements prescribed ing training for cross-country flight in
in this paragraph for each cross-coun- a single-engine airplane must receive
try flight: and log flight training in the following
(1) A student pilot must have a solo maneuvers and procedures:
cross-country endorsement from the (1) Use of aeronautical charts for
authorized instructor who conducted VFR navigation using pilotage and
the training that is placed in that per- dead reckoning with the aid of a mag-
son’s logbook for the specific category netic compass;
of aircraft to be flown. (2) Use of aircraft performance charts
(2) A student pilot must have a solo pertaining to cross-country flight;
cross-country endorsement from an au- (3) Procurement and analysis of aero-
thorized instructor that is placed in nautical weather reports and forecasts,
that person’s logbook for the specific including recognition of critical weath-
make and model of aircraft to be flown. er situations and estimating visibility
(3) For each cross-country flight, the while in flight;
authorized instructor who reviews the (4) Emergency procedures;
cross-country planning must make an (5) Traffic pattern procedures that in-
endorsement in the person’s logbook clude area departure, area arrival,
after reviewing that person’s cross- entry into the traffic pattern, and ap-
country planning, as specified in para- proach;
graph (d) of this section. The endorse- (6) Procedures and operating prac-
ment must— tices for collision avoidance, wake tur-
(i) Specify the make and model of bulence precautions, and windshear
aircraft to be flown; avoidance;
(ii) State that the student’s preflight (7) Recognition, avoidance, and oper-
planning and preparation is correct and ational restrictions of hazardous ter-
that the student is prepared to make rain features in the geographical area
the flight safely under the known con- where the cross-country flight will be
ditions; and flown;
578
(8) Procedures for operating the in- (8) Procedures for operating the in-
struments and equipment installed in struments and equipment installed in
the aircraft to be flown, including rec- the aircraft to be flown, including rec-
ognition and use of the proper oper- ognition and use of the proper oper-
ational procedures and indications; ational procedures and indications;
(9) Use of radios for VFR navigation (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation
and two-way communication, except and two-way communications;
that a student pilot seeking a sport (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing
pilot certificate must only receive and procedures, including short-field, soft-
log flight training on the use of radios field, and crosswind takeoffs, ap-
installed in the aircraft to be flown; proaches, and landings;
(10) Takeoff, approach, and landing (11) Climbs at best angle and best
procedures, including short-field, soft- rate; and
field, and crosswind takeoffs, ap- (12) Control and maneuvering solely
proaches, and landings; by reference to flight instruments, in-
(11) Climbs at best angle and best cluding straight and level flight, turns,
rate; and descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and
(12) Control and maneuvering solely ATC directives.
by reference to flight instruments, in- (g) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-
cluding straight and level flight, turns, country flight training in a helicopter. A
descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and student pilot who is receiving training
ATC directives. For student pilots for cross-country flight in a helicopter
seeking a sport pilot certificate, the must receive and log flight training for
provisions of this paragraph only apply the following maneuvers and proce-
when receiving training for cross-coun- dures:
try flight in an airplane that has a VH (1) Use of aeronautical charts for
greater than 87 knots CAS. VFR navigation using pilotage and
(f) Maneuvers and procedures for cross- dead reckoning with the aid of a mag-
country flight training in a multiengine netic compass;
airplane. A student pilot who is receiv- (2) Use of aircraft performance charts
ing training for cross-country flight in pertaining to cross-country flight;
a multiengine airplane must receive (3) Procurement and analysis of aero-
and log flight training in the following nautical weather reports and forecasts,
maneuvers and procedures: including recognition of critical weath-
(1) Use of aeronautical charts for er situations and estimating visibility
VFR navigation using pilotage and while in flight;
dead reckoning with the aid of a mag- (4) Emergency procedures;
netic compass; (5) Traffic pattern procedures that in-
(2) Use of aircraft performance charts clude area departure, area arrival,
pertaining to cross-country flight; entry into the traffic pattern, and ap-
(3) Procurement and analysis of aero- proach;
nautical weather reports and forecasts, (6) Procedures and operating prac-
including recognition of critical weath- tices for collision avoidance, wake tur-
er situations and estimating visibility bulence precautions, and windshear
while in flight; avoidance;
(4) Emergency procedures; (7) Recognition, avoidance, and oper-
(5) Traffic pattern procedures that in- ational restrictions of hazardous ter-
clude area departure, area arrival, rain features in the geographical area
entry into the traffic pattern, and ap- where the cross-country flight will be
proach; flown;
(6) Procedures and operating prac- (8) Procedures for operating the in-
tices for collision avoidance, wake tur- struments and equipment installed in
bulence precautions, and windshear the aircraft to be flown, including rec-
avoidance; ognition and use of the proper oper-
(7) Recognition, avoidance, and operational procedures and indications;
ational restrictions of hazardous ter- (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation
rain features in the geographical area and two-way communications; and
where the cross-country flight will be (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing
flown; procedures.
579
§ 61.93 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(h) Maneuvers and procedures for cross- (2) Use of aircraft performance charts
country flight training in a gyroplane. A pertaining to cross-country flight;
student pilot who is receiving training (3) Procurement and analysis of aero-
for cross-country flight in a gyroplane nautical weather reports and forecasts,
must receive and log flight training in including recognition of critical weath-
the following maneuvers and proce- er situations and estimating visibility
dures: while in flight;
(1) Use of aeronautical charts for (4) Emergency procedures;
VFR navigation using pilotage and (5) Traffic pattern procedures that in-
dead reckoning with the aid of a mag- clude area departure, area arrival,
netic compass; entry into the traffic pattern, and ap-
(2) Use of aircraft performance charts proach;
pertaining to cross-country flight; (6) Procedures and operating prac-
(3) Procurement and analysis of aero- tices for collision avoidance, wake tur-
nautical weather reports and forecasts, bulence precautions, and windshear
including recognition of critical weath- avoidance;
er situations and estimating visibility (7) Recognition, avoidance, and oper-
while in flight; ational restrictions of hazardous ter-
(4) Emergency procedures; rain features in the geographical area
(5) Traffic pattern procedures that in- where the cross-country flight will be
clude area departure, area arrival, flown;
entry into the traffic pattern, and ap- (8) Procedures for operating the in-
proach; struments and equipment installed in
(6) Procedures and operating prac- the aircraft to be flown, including rec-
tices for collision avoidance, wake tur- ognition and use of the proper oper-
bulence precautions, and windshear ational procedures and indications;
avoidance; (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation
(7) Recognition, avoidance, and oper- and two-way communications;
ational restrictions of hazardous ter- (10) Takeoff, approach, and landing
rain features in the geographical area procedures that include high-altitude,
where the cross-country flight will be steep, and shallow takeoffs, ap-
flown; proaches, and landings; and
(8) Procedures for operating the in- (11) Control and maneuvering solely
struments and equipment installed in by reference to flight instruments, in-
the aircraft to be flown, including rec- cluding straight and level flight, turns,
ognition and use of the proper oper- descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and
ational procedures and indications; ATC directives.
(9) Use of radios for VFR navigation (j) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-
and two-way communication, except country flight training in a glider. A stu-
that a student pilot seeking a sport dent pilot who is receiving training for
pilot certificate must only receive and cross-country flight in a glider must
log flight training on the use of radios receive and log flight training in the
installed in the aircraft to be flown; following maneuvers and procedures:
and (1) Use of aeronautical charts for
(10) Takeoff, approach, and landing VFR navigation using pilotage and
procedures, including short-field and dead reckoning with the aid of a mag-
soft-field takeoffs, approaches, and netic compass;
landings. (2) Use of aircraft performance charts
(i) Maneuvers and procedures for cross- pertaining to cross-country flight;
country flight training in a powered-lift. (3) Procurement and analysis of aero-
A student pilot who is receiving train- nautical weather reports and forecasts,
ing for cross-country flight training in including recognition of critical weath-
a powered-lift must receive and log er situations and estimating visibility
flight training in the following maneu- while in flight;
vers and procedures: (4) Emergency procedures;
(1) Use of aeronautical charts for (5) Traffic pattern procedures that in-
VFR navigation using pilotage and clude area departure, area arrival,
dead reckoning with the aid of a mag- entry into the traffic pattern, and ap-
netic compass; proach;
580
(6) Procedures and operating prac- (9) Use of radios for VFR navigation
tices for collision avoidance, wake tur- and two-way communication, except
bulence precautions, and windshear that a student pilot seeking a sport
avoidance; pilot certificate must only receive and
(7) Recognition, avoidance, and oper- log flight training on the use of radios
ational restrictions of hazardous ter- installed in the aircraft to be flown;
rain features in the geographical area (10) Control of air pressure with re-
where the cross-country flight will be gard to ascending and descending flight
flown; and altitude control;
(8) Procedures for operating the in- (11) Control of the airship solely by
struments and equipment installed in reference to flight instruments, except
the aircraft to be flown, including rec- for a student pilot seeking a sport pilot
ognition and use of the proper oper- certificate; and
ational procedures and indications; (12) Recognition of weather and upper
(9) Landings accomplished without air conditions conducive for the direc-
the use of the altimeter from at least tion of cross-country flight.
2,000 feet above the surface; and (l) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-
(10) Recognition of weather and upper country flight training in a powered para-
air conditions favorable for cross-coun- chute. A student pilot who is receiving
try soaring, ascending and descending training for cross-country flight in a
flight, and altitude control. powered parachute must receive and
(k) Maneuvers and procedures for cross- log flight training in the following ma-
country flight training in an airship. A neuvers and procedures:
student pilot who is receiving training (1) Use of aeronautical charts for
for cross-country flight in an airship VFR navigation using pilotage and
must receive and log flight training for dead reckoning with the aid of a mag-
the following maneuvers and proce- netic compass, as appropriate.
dures: (2) Use of aircraft performance charts
pertaining to cross-country flight.
(1) Use of aeronautical charts for
(3) Procurement and analysis of aero-
VFR navigation using pilotage and
nautical weather reports and forecasts,
dead reckoning with the aid of a mag-
including recognizing critical weather
netic compass;
situations and estimating visibility
(2) Use of aircraft performance charts
while in flight.
pertaining to cross-country flight;
(4) Emergency procedures.
(3) Procurement and analysis of aero- (5) Traffic pattern procedures that in-
nautical weather reports and forecasts, clude area departure, area arrival,
including recognition of critical weath- entry into the traffic pattern, and ap-
er situations and estimating visibility proach.
while in flight; (6) Procedures and operating prac-
(4) Emergency procedures; tices for collision avoidance, wake tur-
(5) Traffic pattern procedures that in- bulence precautions, and windshear
clude area departure, area arrival, avoidance.
entry into the traffic pattern, and ap- (7) Recognition, avoidance, and oper-
proach; ational restrictions of hazardous ter-
(6) Procedures and operating prac- rain features in the geographical area
tices for collision avoidance, wake tur- where the cross-country flight will be
bulence precautions, and windshear flown.
avoidance; (8) Procedures for operating the in-
(7) Recognition, avoidance, and oper- struments and equipment installed in
ational restrictions of hazardous ter- the aircraft to be flown, including rec-
rain features in the geographical area ognition and use of the proper oper-
where the cross-country flight will be ational procedures and indications.
flown; (9) If equipped for flight with naviga-
(8) Procedures for operating the in- tion radios, the use of radios for VFR
struments and equipment installed in navigation.
the aircraft to be flown, including rec- (10) Recognition of weather and upper
ognition and use of the proper oper- air conditions favorable for the cross-
ational procedures and indications; country flight.
581
§ 61.94 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(11) Takeoff, approach and landing § 61.94 Student pilot seeking a sport
procedures. pilot certificate or a recreational
(m) Maneuvers and procedures for pilot certificate: Operations at air-
cross-country flight training in a weight- ports within, and in airspace lo-
cated within, Class B, C, and D air-
shift-control aircraft. A student pilot space, or at airports with an oper-
who is receiving training for cross- ational control tower in other air-
country flight in a weight-shift-control space.
aircraft must receive and log flight
(a) A student pilot seeking a sport
training for the following maneuvers
pilot certificate or a recreational pilot
and procedures:
certificate who wants to obtain privi-
(1) Use of aeronautical charts for
leges to operate in Class B, C, and D
VFR navigation using pilotage and airspace, at an airport located in Class
dead reckoning with the aid of a mag- B, C, or D airspace, and to, from,
netic compass, as appropriate. through, or at an airport having an
(2) Use of aircraft performance charts operational control tower, must re-
pertaining to cross-country flight. ceive and log ground and flight train-
(3) Procurement and analysis of aero- ing from an authorized instructor in
nautical weather reports and forecasts, the following aeronautical knowledge
including recognizing critical weather areas and areas of operation:
situations and estimating visibility (1) The use of radios, communica-
while in flight. tions, navigation systems and facili-
(4) Emergency procedures. ties, and radar services.
(5) Traffic pattern procedures that in- (2) Operations at airports with an op-
clude area departure, area arrival, erating control tower, to include three
entry into the traffic pattern, and ap- takeoffs and landings to a full stop,
proach. with each landing involving a flight in
(6) Procedures and operating prac- the traffic pattern, at an airport with
tices for collision avoidance, wake tur- an operating control tower.
bulence precautions, and windshear (3) Applicable flight rules of part 91
avoidance. of this chapter for operations in Class
(7) Recognition, avoidance, and oper- B, C, and D airspace and air traffic con-
ational restrictions of hazardous ter- trol clearances.
rain features in the geographical area (4) Ground and flight training for the
where the cross-country flight will be specific Class B, C, or D airspace for
flown. which the solo flight is authorized, if
(8) Procedures for operating the in- applicable, within the 90-day period
struments and equipment installed in preceding the date of the flight in that
the aircraft to be flown, including rec- airspace. The flight training must be
ognition and use of the proper oper- received in the specific airspace area
for which solo flight is authorized.
ational procedures and indications.
(5) Ground and flight training for the
(9) If equipped for flight using navi-
specific airport located in Class B, C, or
gation radios, the use of radios for VFR
D airspace for which the solo flight is
navigation.
authorized, if applicable, within the 90-
(10) Recognition of weather and upper day period preceding the date of the
air conditions favorable for the cross- flight at that airport. The flight and
country flight. ground training must be received at
(11) Takeoff, approach and landing the specific airport for which solo
procedures, including crosswind ap- flight is authorized.
proaches and landings. (b) The authorized instructor who
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; provides the training specified in para-
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997; graph (a) of this section must provide a
Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44867, July 27, 2004; logbook endorsement that certifies the
Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42557, Aug. 21, 2009; student has received that training and
Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Docket is proficient to conduct solo flight in
FAA–2010–1127, Amdt. 61–135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. that specific airspace or at that spe-
12, 2016] cific airport and in those aeronautical
582
knowledge areas and areas of operation tificate or a recreational pilot certifi-

specified in this section. cate.
[Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44867, July [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
27, 2004] Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997;
Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44868, July 27, 2004]
§ 61.95 Operations in Class B airspace
and at airports located within Class Subpart D—Recreational Pilots
B airspace.
(a) A student pilot may not operate § 61.96 Applicability and eligibility re-
quirements: General.
an aircraft on a solo flight in Class B
airspace unless: (a) This subpart prescribes the re-
(1) The student pilot has received quirement for the issuance of rec-
both ground and flight training from reational pilot certificates and ratings,
an authorized instructor on that Class the conditions under which those cer-
B airspace area, and the flight training tificates and ratings are necessary, and
was received in the specific Class B air- the general operating rules for persons
space area for which solo flight is au- who hold those certificates and ratings.
thorized; (b) To be eligible for a recreational
(2) The logbook of that student pilot pilot certificate, a person who applies
has been endorsed by the authorized infor that certificate must:
structor who gave the student pilot (1) Be at least 17 years of age;
flight training, and the endorsement is (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and
dated within the 90-day period pre- understand the English language. If the
ceding the date of the flight in that applicant is unable to meet one of
Class B airspace area; and these requirements due to medical rea-
sons, then the Administrator may
(3) The logbook endorsement speci-
place such operating limitations on
fies that the student pilot has received
that applicant’s pilot certificate as are
the required ground and flight train-
necessary for the safe operation of the
ing, and has been found proficient to
aircraft;
conduct solo flight in that specific
(3) Receive a logbook endorsement
Class B airspace area.
from an authorized instructor who—
(b) A student pilot may not operate (i) Conducted the training or re-
an aircraft on a solo flight to, from, or viewed the applicant’s home study on
at an airport located within Class B the aeronautical knowledge areas list-
airspace pursuant to § 91.131(b) of this ed in § 61.97(b) of this part that apply to
chapter unless: the aircraft category and class rating
(1) The student pilot has received sought; and
both ground and flight training from (ii) Certified that the applicant is
an instructor authorized to provide prepared for the required knowledge
training to operate at that airport, and test.
the flight and ground training has been (4) Pass the required knowledge test
received at the specific airport for on the aeronautical knowledge areas
which the solo flight is authorized; listed in § 61.97(b) of this part;
(2) The logbook of that student pilot (5) Receive flight training and a log-
has been endorsed by an authorized in- book endorsement from an authorized
structor who gave the student pilot instructor who—
flight training, and the endorsement is (i) Conducted the training on the
dated within the 90-day period pre- areas of operation listed in § 61.98(b) of
ceding the date of the flight at that this part that apply to the aircraft cat-
airport; and egory and class rating sought; and
(3) The logbook endorsement speci- (ii) Certified that the applicant is
fies that the student pilot has received prepared for the required practical
the required ground and flight train- test.
ing, and has been found proficient to (6) Meet the aeronautical experience
conduct solo flight operations at that requirements of § 61.99 of this part that
specific airport. apply to the aircraft category and class
(c) This section does not apply to a rating sought before applying for the
student pilot seeking a sport pilot cer- practical test;
583
§ 61.97 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(7) Pass the practical test on the use, data on takeoff and landing dis-
areas of operation listed in § 61.98(b) tances, weather reports and forecasts,
that apply to the aircraft category and and fuel requirements; and
class rating; (ii) How to plan for alternatives if
(8) Comply with the sections of this the planned flight cannot be completed
part that apply to the aircraft category or delays are encountered.
and class rating; and
(9) Hold either a student pilot certifi- [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]
cate or sport pilot certificate.
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; § 61.98 Flight proficiency.
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997;
(a) General. A person who applies for
Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009]
a recreational pilot certificate must re-
§ 61.97 Aeronautical knowledge. ceive and log ground and flight train-
ing from an authorized instructor on
(a) General. A person who applies for
the areas of operation of this section
a recreational pilot certificate must re-
that apply to the aircraft category and
ceive and log ground training from an
class rating sought.
authorized instructor or complete a
(b) Areas of operation. (1) For a single-
home-study course on the aeronautical
engine airplane rating: (i) Preflight
knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of
preparation;
this section that apply to the aircraft
category and class rating sought. (ii) Preflight procedures;
(b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) (iii) Airport operations;
Applicable Federal Aviation Regula- (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-
tions of this chapter that relate to rec- arounds;
reational pilot privileges, limitations, (v) Performance maneuvers;
and flight operations; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
(2) Accident reporting requirements (vii) Navigation;
of the National Transportation Safety (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
Board; (ix) Emergency operations; and
(3) Use of the applicable portions of (x) Postflight procedures.
the ‘‘Aeronautical Information Man- (2) For a helicopter rating: (i) Preflight
ual’’ and FAA advisory circulars; preparation;
(4) Use of aeronautical charts for (ii) Preflight procedures;
VFR navigation using pilotage with (iii) Airport and heliport operations;
the aid of a magnetic compass;
(iv) Hovering maneuvers;
(5) Recognition of critical weather
situations from the ground and in (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-
flight, windshear avoidance, and the arounds;
procurement and use of aeronautical (vi) Performance maneuvers;
weather reports and forecasts; (vii) Ground reference maneuvers;
(6) Safe and efficient operation of air- (viii) Navigation;
craft, including collision avoidance, (ix) Emergency operations; and
and recognition and avoidance of wake (x) Postflight procedures.
turbulence; (3) For a gyroplane rating: (i) Preflight
(7) Effects of density altitude on preparation;
takeoff and climb performance; (ii) Preflight procedures;
(8) Weight and balance computations; (iii) Airport operations;
(9) Principles of aerodynamics, pow- (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-
erplants, and aircraft systems; arounds;
(10) Stall awareness, spin entry, (v) Performance maneuvers;
spins, and spin recovery techniques, if (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
applying for an airplane single-engine (vii) Navigation;
rating;
(viii) Flight at slow airspeeds;
(11) Aeronautical decision making
(ix) Emergency operations; and
and judgment; and
(12) Preflight action that includes— (x) Postflight procedures.
(i) How to obtain information on run- [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
way lengths at airports of intended Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]
584
§ 61.99 Aeronautical experience. with the requirements of that section.

However, if other airports that permit
(a) A person who applies for a rec-
civil operations are available to which
reational pilot certificate must receive
a flight may be made without flying
and log at least 30 hours of flight time
over water for more than 10 nautical
that includes at least—
miles from the nearest shoreline, the
(1) 15 hours of flight training from an
applicant must show completion of a
authorized instructor on the areas of
dual flight between two airports, which
operation listed in § 61.98 that consists
must include three landings at the
of at least:
other airport.
(i) Except as provided in § 61.100, 2
(b) An applicant who complies with
hours of flight training en route to an
paragraph (a) of this section and meets
airport that is located more than 25
all requirements for the issuance of a
nautical miles from the airport where
recreational pilot certificate, except
the applicant normally trains, which
the requirements of § 61.99(a)(1) of this
includes at least three takeoffs and
part, will be issued a pilot certificate
three landings at the airport located
with an endorsement containing the
more than 25 nautical miles from the
following limitation, ‘‘Passenger car-
airport where the applicant normally
rying prohibited on flights more than
trains; and
10 nautical miles from (the appropriate
(ii) Three hours of flight training
island).’’ The limitation may be subse-
with an authorized instructor in the
quently amended to include another is-
aircraft for the rating sought in prepa-
land if the applicant complies with the
ration for the practical test within the
requirements of paragraph (a) of this
preceding 2 calendar months from the
section for another island.
month of the test.
(c) Upon meeting the requirements of
(2) Three hours of solo flying in the
§ 61.99(a)(1) of this part, the applicant
aircraft for the rating sought, on the
may have the limitation(s) in para-
areas of operation listed in § 61.98 that
graph (b) of this section removed.
apply to the aircraft category and class
rating sought. § 61.101 Recreational pilot privileges
(b) The holder of a sport pilot certifi- and limitations.
cate may credit flight training re-
(a) A person who holds a recreational
ceived from a flight instructor with a
pilot certificate may:
sport pilot rating toward the aero-
(1) Carry no more than one pas-
nautical experience requirements of
senger; and
this section if the following conditions
(2) Not pay less than the pro rata
are met:
share of the operating expenses of a
(1) The flight training was accom-
flight with a passenger, provided the
plished in the same category and class
expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport
of aircraft for which the rating is
expenses, or aircraft rental fees.
sought;
(b) A person who holds a recreational
(2) The flight instructor with a sport
pilot certificate may act as pilot in
pilot rating was authorized to provide
command of an aircraft on a flight
the flight training; and
within 50 nautical miles from the de-
(3) The flight training included train-
parture airport, provided that person
ing on areas of operation that are re-
has—
quired for both a sport pilot certificate
(1) Received ground and flight train-
and a recreational pilot certificate.
ing for takeoff, departure, arrival, and
[Docket FAA–2016–6142, Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR landing procedures at the departure
30277, June 27, 2018 airport;
(2) Received ground and flight train-
§ 61.100 Pilots based on small islands. ing for the area, terrain, and aids to
(a) An applicant located on an island navigation that are in the vicinity of
from which the flight training required the departure airport;
in § 61.99(a)(1) of this part cannot be ac- (3) Been found proficient to operate
complished without flying over water the aircraft at the departure airport
for more than 10 nautical miles from and the area within 50 nautical miles
the nearest shoreline need not comply from that airport; and
585
§ 61.101 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(4) Received from an authorized in- (3) Received from an authorized in-
structor a logbook endorsement, which structor a logbook endorsement, which
is carried in the person’s possession in is carried on the person’s possession or
the aircraft, that permits flight within readily accessible in the aircraft, that
50 nautical miles from the departure certifies the person has received and
airport. been found proficient in those aero-
(c) A person who holds a recreational nautical knowledge areas and areas of
pilot certificate may act as pilot in operation specified in paragraph (d)(1)
command of an aircraft on a flight that of this section.
exceeds 50 nautical miles from the de- (e) Except as provided in paragraphs
parture airport, provided that person (d) and (i) of this section, a rec-
has— reational pilot may not act as pilot in
(1) Received ground and flight train- command of an aircraft—
ing from an authorized instructor on (1) That is certificated—
the cross-country training require- (i) For more than four occupants;
ments of subpart E of this part that (ii) With more than one powerplant;
apply to the aircraft rating held; (iii) With a powerplant of more than
(2) Been found proficient in cross- 180 horsepower, except aircraft certifi-
country flying; and cated in the rotorcraft category; or
(3) Received from an authorized in- (iv) With retractable landing gear;
structor a logbook endorsement, which (2) That is classified as a multiengine
is carried on the person’s possession in airplane, powered-lift, glider, airship,
the aircraft, that certifies the person balloon, powered parachute, or weight-
has received and been found proficient shift-control aircraft;
in the cross-country training require- (3) That is carrying a passenger or
ments of subpart E of this part that property for compensation or hire;
apply to the aircraft rating held. (4) For compensation or hire;
(d) A person who holds a recreational (5) In furtherance of a business;
pilot certificate may act as pilot in (6) Between sunset and sunrise;
command of an aircraft in Class B, C, (7) In Class A, B, C, and D airspace, at
and D airspace, at an airport located in an airport located in Class B, C, or D
Class B, C, or D airspace, and to, from, airspace, or to, from, through, or at an
through, or at an airport having an airport having an operational control
operational control tower, provided tower;
that person has— (8) At an altitude of more than 10,000
(1) Received and logged ground and feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever
flight training from an authorized in- is higher;
structor on the following aeronautical (9) When the flight or surface visi-
knowledge areas and areas of oper- bility is less than 3 statute miles;
ation, as appropriate to the aircraft (10) Without visual reference to the
rating held: surface;
(i) The use of radios, communica- (11) On a flight outside the United
tions, navigation system and facilities, States, unless authorized by the coun-
and radar services. try in which the flight is conducted;
(ii) Operations at airports with an op- (12) To demonstrate that aircraft in
erating control tower to include three flight as an aircraft salesperson to a
takeoffs and landings to a full stop, prospective buyer;
with each landing involving a flight in (13) That is used in a passenger-car-
the traffic pattern at an airport with rying airlift and sponsored by a chari-
an operating control tower. table organization; and
(iii) Applicable flight rules of part 91 (14) That is towing any object.
of this chapter for operations in Class (f) A recreational pilot may not act
B, C, and D airspace and air traffic con- as a pilot flight crewmember on any
trol clearances; aircraft for which more than one pilot
(2) Been found proficient in those is required by the type certificate of
aeronautical knowledge areas and the aircraft or the regulations under
areas of operation specified in para- which the flight is conducted, except

graph (d)(1) of this section; and when:
586
(1) Receiving flight training from a (3) Has found that the recreational
person authorized to provide flight pilot is competent to make solo flights
training on board an airship; and in accordance with the logbook en-
(2) No person other than a required dorsement.
flight crewmember is carried on the (k) A recreational pilot may act as
aircraft. pilot in command of an aircraft with-
(g) A person who holds a recreational out holding a medical certificate issued
pilot certificate, has logged fewer than under part 67 of this chapter provided
400 flight hours, and has not logged the pilot holds a valid U.S. driver’s li-
pilot-in-command time in an aircraft cense, meets the requirements of
within the 180 days preceding the flight § 61.23(c)(3), and the operation is con-
shall not act as pilot in command of an ducted consistent with this section and
aircraft until the pilot receives flight the conditions of § 61.113(i). Where the
training and a logbook endorsement requirements of this section conflict
from an authorized instructor, and the with § 61.113(i), a recreational pilot
instructor certifies that the person is must comply with this section.
proficient to act as pilot in command [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as
of the aircraft. This requirement can amended by Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44868, July
be met in combination with the re- 27, 2004; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21,
quirements of §§ 61.56 and 61.57 of this 2009; Docket FAA–2016–9157, Amdt. 61–140, 82
part, at the discretion of the author- FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017]
ized instructor.
(h) A recreational pilot certificate Subpart E—Private Pilots
issued under this subpart carries the
notation, ‘‘Holder does not meet ICAO § 61.102 Applicability.
requirements.’’ This subpart prescribes the require-
(i) For the purpose of obtaining addi- ments for the issuance of private pilot
tional certificates or ratings while certificates and ratings, the conditions
under the supervision of an authorized under which those certificates and rat-
instructor, a recreational pilot may fly ings are necessary, and the general op-
as the sole occupant of an aircraft: erating rules for persons who hold
(1) For which the pilot does not hold those certificates and ratings.
an appropriate category or class rat-
ing; § 61.103 Eligibility requirements: Gen-
(2) Within airspace that requires eral.
communication with air traffic con- To be eligible for a private pilot cer-
trol; or tificate, a person must:
(3) Between sunset and sunrise, pro- (a) Be at least 17 years of age for a
vided the flight or surface visibility is rating in other than a glider or bal-
at least 5 statute miles. loon.
(j) In order to fly solo as provided in (b) Be at least 16 years of age for a
paragraph (i) of this section, the rec- rating in a glider or balloon.
reational pilot must meet the appro- (c) Be able to read, speak, write, and
priate aeronautical knowledge and understand the English language. If the
flight training requirements of § 61.87 applicant is unable to meet one of
for that aircraft. When operating an these requirements due to medical rea-
aircraft under the conditions specified sons, then the Administrator may
in paragraph (i) of this section, the rec- place such operating limitations on
reational pilot shall carry the logbook that applicant’s pilot certificate as are
that has been endorsed for each flight necessary for the safe operation of the
by an authorized instructor who: aircraft.
(1) Has given the recreational pilot (d) Receive a logbook endorsement
training in the make and model of air- from an authorized instructor who:
craft in which the solo flight is to be (1) Conducted the training or re-
made; viewed the person’s home study on the
(2) Has found that the recreational aeronautical knowledge areas listed in
pilot has met the applicable require- § 61.105(b) of this part that apply to the
ments of § 61.87; and aircraft rating sought; and
587
§ 61.105 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(2) Certified that the person is pre- procurement and use of aeronautical
pared for the required knowledge test. weather reports and forecasts;
(e) Pass the required knowledge test (7) Safe and efficient operation of air-
on the aeronautical knowledge areas craft, including collision avoidance,
listed in § 61.105(b) of this part. and recognition and avoidance of wake
(f) Receive flight training and a log- turbulence;
book endorsement from an authorized (8) Effects of density altitude on
instructor who: takeoff and climb performance;
(1) Conducted the training in the (9) Weight and balance computations;
areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b) of (10) Principles of aerodynamics, pow-
this part that apply to the aircraft rat- erplants, and aircraft systems;
ing sought; and (11) Stall awareness, spin entry,
(2) Certified that the person is pre- spins, and spin recovery techniques for
pared for the required practical test. the airplane and glider category rat-
(g) Meet the aeronautical experience ings;
requirements of this part that apply to (12) Aeronautical decision making
the aircraft rating sought before apply- and judgment; and
ing for the practical test. (13) Preflight action that includes—
(h) Pass a practical test on the areas (i) How to obtain information on run-
of operation listed in § 61.107(b) of this way lengths at airports of intended
part that apply to the aircraft rating use, data on takeoff and landing dis-
sought. tances, weather reports and forecasts,
(i) Comply with the appropriate sec- and fuel requirements; and
tions of this part that apply to the air- (ii) How to plan for alternatives if
craft category and class rating sought. the planned flight cannot be completed
(j) Hold a U.S. student pilot certifi- or delays are encountered.
cate, sport pilot certificate, or rec- [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
reational pilot certificate. Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997]
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as
amended by Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. § 61.107 Flight proficiency.
21, 2009] (a) General. A person who applies for
a private pilot certificate must receive
§ 61.105 Aeronautical knowledge. and log ground and flight training from
(a) General. A person who is applying an authorized instructor on the areas
for a private pilot certificate must re- of operation of this section that apply
ceive and log ground training from an to the aircraft category and class rat-
authorized instructor or complete a ing sought.
home-study course on the aeronautical (b) Areas of operation. (1) For an air-
knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of plane category rating with a single-en-
this section that apply to the aircraft gine class rating:
category and class rating sought. (i) Preflight preparation;
(b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) (ii) Preflight procedures;
Applicable Federal Aviation Regula- (iii) Airport and seaplane base oper-
tions of this chapter that relate to pri- ations;
vate pilot privileges, limitations, and (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-
flight operations; arounds;
(2) Accident reporting requirements (v) Performance maneuvers;
of the National Transportation Safety (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
Board; (vii) Navigation;
(3) Use of the applicable portions of (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
the ‘‘Aeronautical Information Man- (ix) Basic instrument maneuvers;
ual’’ and FAA advisory circulars; (x) Emergency operations;
(4) Use of aeronautical charts for (xi) Night operations, except as pro-
VFR navigation using pilotage, dead vided in § 61.110 of this part; and
reckoning, and navigation systems; (xii) Postflight procedures.
(5) Radio communication procedures; (2) For an airplane category rating
(6) Recognition of critical weather with a multiengine class rating:
situations from the ground and in (i) Preflight preparation;

flight, windshear avoidance, and the (ii) Preflight procedures;
588
(iii) Airport and seaplane base oper- (xiii) Postflight procedures.

ations; (6) For a glider category rating:
(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go- (i) Preflight preparation;
arounds; (ii) Preflight procedures;
(v) Performance maneuvers; (iii) Airport and gliderport oper-
(vi) Ground reference maneuvers; ations;
(vii) Navigation; (iv) Launches and landings;
(viii) Slow flight and stalls; (v) Performance speeds;
(ix) Basic instrument maneuvers; (vi) Soaring techniques;
(x) Emergency operations; (vii) Performance maneuvers;
(xi) Multiengine operations; (viii) Navigation;
(xii) Night operations, except as pro- (ix) Slow flight and stalls;
vided in § 61.110 of this part; and (x) Emergency operations; and
(xiii) Postflight procedures. (xi) Postflight procedures.
(3) For a rotorcraft category rating (7) For a lighter-than-air category
with a helicopter class rating: rating with an airship class rating:
(i) Preflight preparation; (i) Preflight preparation;
(ii) Preflight procedures; (ii) Preflight procedures;
(iii) Airport and heliport operations; (iii) Airport operations;
(iv) Hovering maneuvers; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-
(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go- arounds;
arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers;
(vi) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
(vii) Navigation; (vii) Navigation;
(viii) Emergency operations; (viii) Emergency operations; and
(ix) Night operations, except as pro- (ix) Postflight procedures.
vided in § 61.110 of this part; and (8) For a lighter-than-air category
(x) Postflight procedures. rating with a balloon class rating:
(4) For a rotorcraft category rating (i) Preflight preparation;
with a gyroplane class rating: (ii) Preflight procedures;
(i) Preflight preparation; (iii) Airport operations;
(ii) Preflight procedures; (iv) Launches and landings;
(iii) Airport operations; (v) Performance maneuvers;
(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go- (vi) Navigation;
arounds; (vii) Emergency operations; and
(v) Performance maneuvers; (viii) Postflight procedures.
(vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (9) For a powered parachute category
(vii) Navigation; rating—
(viii) Flight at slow airspeeds; (i) Preflight preparation;
(ix) Emergency operations; (ii) Preflight procedures;
(x) Night operations, except as pro- (iii) Airport and seaplane base oper-
vided in § 61.110 of this part; and ations, as applicable;
(xi) Postflight procedures. (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-
(5) For a powered-lift category rat- arounds;
ing: (v) Performance maneuvers;
(i) Preflight preparation; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
(ii) Preflight procedures; (vii) Navigation;
(iii) Airport and heliport operations; (viii) Night operations, except as pro-
(iv) Hovering maneuvers; vided in § 61.110;
(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go- (ix) Emergency operations; and
arounds; (x) Post-flight procedures.
(vi) Performance maneuvers; (10) For a weight-shift-control air-
(vii) Ground reference maneuvers; craft category rating—
(viii) Navigation; (i) Preflight preparation;
(ix) Slow flight and stalls; (ii) Preflight procedures;
(x) Basic instrument maneuvers; (iii) Airport and seaplane base oper-
(xi) Emergency operations; ations, as applicable;
(xii) Night operations, except as pro- (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-
vided in § 61.110 of this part; and arounds;
589
§ 61.109 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(v) Performance maneuvers; (ii) One solo cross country flight of

(vi) Ground reference maneuvers; 150 nautical miles total distance, with
(vii) Navigation; full-stop landings at three points, and
(viii) Slow flight and stalls; one segment of the flight consisting of
(ix) Night operations, except as pro- a straight-line distance of more than 50
vided in § 61.110; nautical miles between the takeoff and
(x) Emergency operations; and landing locations; and
(xi) Post-flight procedures. (iii) Three takeoffs and three land-
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as ings to a full stop (with each landing
amended by Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44868, July involving a flight in the traffic pat-
27, 2004] tern) at an airport with an operating
control tower.
§ 61.109 Aeronautical experience. (b) For an airplane multiengine rating.
(a) For an airplane single-engine rat- Except as provided in paragraph (k) of
ing. Except as provided in paragraph this section, a person who applies for a
(k) of this section, a person who applies private pilot certificate with an air-
for a private pilot certificate with an plane category and multiengine class
airplane category and single-engine rating must log at least 40 hours of
class rating must log at least 40 hours flight time that includes at least 20
of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an au-
hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo
thorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation
flight training in the areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(2) of this part, and
listed in § 61.107(b)(1) of this part, and the training must include at least—
the training must include at least— (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight
(1) 3 hours of cross-country flight training in a multiengine airplane;
training in a single-engine airplane; (2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of
(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of this part, 3 hours of night flight train-
this part, 3 hours of night flight training in a multiengine airplane that in-
ing in a single-engine airplane that includes—
cludes— (i) One cross-country flight of over
(i) One cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total distance; and
100 nautical miles total distance; and (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a
(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (with each landing involving a
full stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an air-
flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport.
port. (3) 3 hours of flight training in a mul-
(3) 3 hours of flight training in a sin- tiengine airplane on the control and
gle-engine airplane on the control and maneuvering of an airplane solely by
maneuvering of an airplane solely by reference to instruments, including
reference to instruments, including straight and level flight, constant air-
straight and level flight, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a
speed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual flight
heading, recovery from unusual flight attitudes, radio communications, and
attitudes, radio communications, and the use of navigation systems/facilities
the use of navigation systems/facilities and radar services appropriate to in-
and radar services appropriate to instrument flight;
strument flight; (4) 3 hours of flight training with an
(4) 3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a multiengine
authorized instructor in a single-en- airplane in preparation for the prac-
gine airplane in preparation for the tical test, which must have been per-
practical test, which must have been formed within the preceding 2 calendar
performed within the preceding 2 cal- months from the month of the test;
endar months from the month of the and
test; and (5) 10 hours of solo flight time in an
(5) 10 hours of solo flight time in a airplane consisting of at least—
single-engine airplane, consisting of at (i) 5 hours of solo cross-country time;
least— (ii) One solo cross country flight of

(i) 5 hours of solo cross-country time; 150 nautical miles total distance, with
590
full-stop landings at three points, and log at least 40 hours of flight time that
one segment of the flight consisting of includes at least 20 hours of flight
a straight-line distance of more than 50 training from an authorized instructor
nautical miles between the takeoff and and 10 hours of solo flight training in
landing locations; and the areas of operation listed in
(iii) Three takeoffs and three land- § 61.107(b)(4) of this part, and the train-
ings to a full stop (with each landing ing must include at least—
involving a flight in the traffic pat- (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight
tern) at an airport with an operating training in a gyroplane;
control tower. (2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of
(c) For a helicopter rating. Except as this part, 3 hours of night flight train-
provided in paragraph (k) of this sec- ing in a gyroplane that includes—
tion, a person who applies for a private (i) One cross-country flight of over 50
pilot certificate with rotorcraft cat- nautical miles total distance; and
egory and helicopter class rating must (ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a
log at least 40 hours of flight time that full stop (with each landing involving a
includes at least 20 hours of flight flight in the traffic pattern) at an air-
training from an authorized instructor port.
and 10 hours of solo flight training in (3) 3 hours of flight training with an
the areas of operation listed in authorized instructor in a gyroplane in
§ 61.107(b)(3) of this part, and the train- preparation for the practical test,
ing must include at least— which must have been performed with-
(1) 3 hours of cross-country flight in the preceding 2 calendar months
training in a helicopter; from the month of the test; and
(2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of
(4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a
this part, 3 hours of night flight train-
gyroplane, consisting of at least—
ing in a helicopter that includes—
(i) 3 hours of cross-country time;
(i) One cross-country flight of over 50
nautical miles total distance; and (ii) One solo cross country flight of
(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a 100 nautical miles total distance, with
full stop (with each landing involving a landings at three points, and one seg-
flight in the traffic pattern) at an air- ment of the flight being a straight-line
port. distance of more than 25 nautical miles
(3) 3 hours of flight training with an between the takeoff and landing loca-
authorized instructor in a helicopter in tions; and
preparation for the practical test, (iii) Three takeoffs and three land-
which must have been performed with- ings to a full stop (with each landing
in the preceding 2 calendar months involving a flight in the traffic pat-
from the month of the test; and tern) at an airport with an operating
(4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a control tower.
helicopter, consisting of at least— (e) For a powered-lift rating. Except as
(i) 3 hours cross-country time; provided in paragraph (k) of this sec-
(ii) One solo cross country flight of tion, a person who applies for a private
100 nautical miles total distance, with pilot certificate with a powered-lift
landings at three points, and one seg- category rating must log at least 40
ment of the flight being a straight-line hours of flight time that includes at
distance of more than 25 nautical miles least 20 hours of flight training from an
between the takeoff and landing loca- authorized instructor and 10 hours of
tions; and solo flight training in the areas of op-
(iii) Three takeoffs and three land- eration listed in § 61.107(b)(5) of this
ings to a full stop (with each landing part, and the training must include at
involving a flight in the traffic pat- least—
tern) at an airport with an operating (1) 3 hours of cross-country flight
control tower. training in a powered-lift;
(d) For a gyroplane rating. Except as (2) Except as provided in § 61.110 of
provided in paragraph (k) of this sec- this part, 3 hours of night flight train-
tion, a person who applies for a private ing in a powered-lift that includes—
pilot certificate with rotorcraft cat- (i) One cross-country flight of over
egory and gyroplane class rating must 100 nautical miles total distance; and
591
§ 61.109 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(ii) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a less than 10 launches and landings

full stop (with each landing involving a being performed.
flight in the traffic pattern) at an air- (2) If the applicant has logged at
port. least 40 hours of flight time in a heav-
(3) 3 hours of flight training in a pow- ier-than-air aircraft, the applicant
ered-lift on the control and maneu- must log at least 3 hours of flight time
vering of a powered-lift solely by ref- in a glider in the areas of operation
erence to instruments, including listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, and
straight and level flight, constant air- that flight time must include at least—
speed climbs and descents, turns to a (i) 10 solo flights in a glider in the
heading, recovery from unusual flight areas of operation listed in § 61.107(b)(6)
attitudes, radio communications, and of this part; and
the use of navigation systems/facilities (ii) 3 training flights with an author-
and radar services appropriate to in- ized instructor in a glider in prepara-
strument flight; tion for the practical test that must
(4) 3 hours of flight training with an have been performed within the pre-
authorized instructor in a powered-lift ceding 2 calendar months from the
in preparation for the practical test, month of the test.
which must have been performed with- (g) For an airship rating. A person who
in the preceding 2 calendar months applies for a private pilot certificate
from the month of the test; and with a lighter-than-air category and
airship class rating must log at least:
(5) 10 hours of solo flight time in an
(1) 25 hours of flight training in air-
airplane or powered-lift consisting of
ships on the areas of operation listed in
at least—
§ 61.107(b)(7) of this part, which consists
(i) 5 hours cross-country time; of at least:
(ii) One solo cross country flight of (i) 3 hours of cross-country flight
150 nautical miles total distance, with training in an airship;
full-stop landings at three points, and (ii) Except as provided in § 61.110 of
one segment of the flight consisting of this part, 3 hours of night flight train-
a straight-line distance of more than 50 ing in an airship that includes:
nautical miles between the takeoff and (A) A cross-country flight of over 25
landing locations; and nautical miles total distance; and
(iii) Three takeoffs and three land- (B) Five takeoffs and five landings to
ings to a full stop (with each landing a full stop (with each landing involving
involving a flight in the traffic pat- a flight in the traffic pattern) at an
tern) at an airport with an operating airport.
control tower. (2) 3 hours of flight training in an air-
(f) For a glider category rating. (1) If ship on the control and maneuvering of
the applicant for a private pilot certifi- an airship solely by reference to instru-
cate with a glider category rating has ments, including straight and level
not logged at least 40 hours of flight flight, constant airspeed climbs and de-
time as a pilot in a heavier-than-air scents, turns to a heading, recovery
aircraft, the applicant must log at from unusual flight attitudes, radio
least 10 hours of flight time in a glider communications, and the use of navi-
in the areas of operation listed in gation systems/facilities and radar
§ 61.107(b)(6) of this part, and that flight services appropriate to instrument
time must include at least— flight;
(i) 20 flights in a glider in the areas of (3) Three hours of flight training
operations listed in § 61.107(b)(6) of this with an authorized instructor in an air-
part, including at least 3 training ship in preparation for the practical
flights with an authorized instructor in test within the preceding 2 calendar
a glider in preparation for the practical months from the month of the test;
test that must have been performed and
within the preceding 2 calendar months (4) 5 hours performing the duties of
from the month of the test; and pilot in command in an airship with an
(ii) 2 hours of solo flight time in a authorized instructor.
glider in the areas of operation listed (h) For a balloon rating. A person who
in § 61.107(b)(6) of this part, with not applies for a private pilot certificate
592
with a lighter-than-air category and volving a flight in the traffic pattern)

balloon class rating must log at least at an airport;
10 hours of flight training that includes (3) Three hours of flight training
at least six training flights with an au- with an authorized instructor in a pow-
thorized instructor in the areas of op- ered parachute in preparation for the
eration listed in § 61.107(b)(8) of this practical test, which must have been
part, that includes— performed within the preceding 2 cal-
(1) Gas balloon. If the training is endar months from the month of the
being performed in a gas balloon, at test;
least two flights of 2 hours each that (4) Three hours of solo flight time in
consists of— a powered parachute, consisting of at
(i) At least one training flight with least—
an authorized instructor in a gas bal-
(i) One solo cross-country flight with
loon in preparation for the practical
a landing at an airport at least 25 nau-
test within the preceding 2 calendar
tical miles from the departure airport;
months from the month of the test;
and
(ii) At least one flight performing the
duties of pilot in command in a gas bal- (ii) Twenty solo takeoffs and land-
loon with an authorized instructor; and ings to a full stop (with each landing
(iii) At least one flight involving a involving a flight in a traffic pattern)
controlled ascent to 3,000 feet above at an airport; and
the launch site. (5) Three takeoffs and landings (with
(2) Balloon with an airborne heater. If each landing involving a flight in the
the training is being performed in a traffic pattern) in an aircraft at an air-
balloon with an airborne heater, at port with an operating control tower.
least— (j) For a weight-shift-control aircraft
(i) At least two training flights of 1 rating. A person who applies for a pri-
hour each with an authorized instruc- vate pilot certificate with a weight-
tor in a balloon with an airborne heat- shift-control rating must log at least 40
er in preparation for the practical test hours of flight time that includes at
within the preceding 2 calendar months least 20 hours of flight training with an
from the month of the test; authorized instructor and 10 hours of
(ii) One solo flight in a balloon with solo flight training in the areas of op-
an airborne heater; and eration listed in § 61.107(b)(10) and the
(iii) At least one flight involving a training must include at least—
controlled ascent to 2,000 feet above (1) Three hours of cross-country
the launch site. flight training in a weight-shift-con-
(i) For a powered parachute rating. A trol aircraft;
person who applies for a private pilot (2) Except as provided in § 61.110, 3
certificate with a powered parachute hours of night flight training in a
category rating must log at least 25 weight-shift-control aircraft that in-
hours of flight time in a powered para- cludes—
chute that includes at least 10 hours of
(i) One cross-country flight of over 75
flight training with an authorized in-
nautical miles total distance that in-
structor, including 30 takeoffs and
landings, and 10 hours of solo flight cludes a point of landing that is a
training in the areas of operation listed straight-line distance of more than 50
in § 61.107 (b)(9) and the training must nautical miles from the original point
include at least— of departure; and
(1) One hour of cross-country flight (ii) Ten takeoffs and landings (with
training in a powered parachute that each landing involving a flight in the
includes a 1-hour cross-country flight traffic pattern) at an airport;
with a landing at an airport at least 25 (3) Three hours of flight training
nautical miles from the airport of de- with an authorized instructor in a
parture; weight-shift-control aircraft in prepa-
(2) Except as provided in § 61.110, 3 ration for the practical test, which
hours of night flight training in a pow- must have been performed within the
ered parachute that includes 10 take- preceding 2 calendar months from the
offs and landings (with each landing in- month of the test;
593
§ 61.110 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a (1) The flight training was accom-
weight-shift-control aircraft, con- plished in the same category and class
sisting of at least— of aircraft for which the rating is
(i) Five hours of solo cross-country sought;
time; and (2) The flight instructor with a sport
(ii) One solo cross-country flight over pilot rating was authorized to provide
100 nautical miles total distance, with the flight training; and
landings at a minimum of three points, (3) The flight training included ei-
and one segment of the flight being a ther—
straight line distance of at least 50 (i) Training on areas of operation
nautical miles between takeoff and that are required for both a sport pilot
landing locations; and certificate and a private pilot certifi-
(5) Three takeoffs and landings (with cate; or
each landing involving a flight in the (ii) For airplanes with a VH greater
traffic pattern) in an aircraft at an air- than 87 knots CAS, training on the con-
port with an operating control tower. trol and maneuvering of an airplane
(k) Permitted credit for use of a full solely by reference to the flight instru-
flight simulator or flight training device. ments, including straight and level
(1) Except as provided in paragraphs flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of
(k)(2) of this section, a maximum of 2.5 radio aids, and ATC directives, pro-
hours of training in a full flight simu- vided the training was received from a
lator or flight training device rep- flight instructor with a sport pilot rat-
resenting the category, class, and type, ing who holds an endorsement required
if applicable, of aircraft appropriate to by § 61.412(c).
the rating sought, may be credited to-
ward the flight training time required [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997, as
by this section, if received from an au- amended by Amdt. 61–104, 63 FR 20287, Apr.
thorized instructor. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44868, July 27,
2004; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009;
(2) A maximum of 5 hours of training
Amdt. 61–124A, 74 FR 53645, Oct. 20, 2009;
in a flight simulator or flight training Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt.
device representing the category, class, 61–142, 83 FR 30278, June 27, 2018]
and type, if applicable, of aircraft ap-
propriate to the rating sought, may be § 61.110 Night flying exceptions.
credited toward the flight training
(a) Subject to the limitations of
time required by this section if the
paragraph (b) of this section, a person
training is accomplished in a course
is not required to comply with the
conducted by a training center certifi-
night flight training requirements of
cated under part 142 of this chapter.
this subpart if the person receives
(3) Except when fewer hours are ap-
flight training in and resides in the
proved by the Administrator, an appli-
State of Alaska.
cant for a private pilot certificate with
an airplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift (b) A person who receives flight
rating, who has satisfactorily com- training in and resides in the State of
pleted an approved private pilot course Alaska but does not meet the night
conducted by a training center certifi- flight training requirements of this
cated under part 142 of this chapter, section:
need only have a total of 35 hours of (1) May be issued a pilot certificate
aeronautical experience to meet the re- with a limitation ‘‘Night flying prohib-
quirements of this section. ited’’; and
(l) Permitted credit for flight training (2) Must comply with the appropriate
received from a flight instructor with a night flight training requirements of
sport pilot rating. The holder of a sport this subpart within the 12-calendar-
pilot certificate may credit flight month period after the issuance of the
training received from a flight instruc- pilot certificate. At the end of that pe-
tor with a sport pilot rating toward the riod, the certificate will become in-
aeronautical experience requirements valid for use until the person complies
of this section if the following condi- with the appropriate night training re-
tions are met: quirements of this subpart. The person
594
may have the ‘‘Night flying prohib- land if the applicant complies with the
ited’’ limitation removed if the per- requirements of paragraph (b) of this
son— section for another island.
(i) Accomplishes the appropriate (d) Upon meeting the cross-country
night flight training requirements of training requirements of § 61.109 of this
this subpart; and part, the applicant may have the limi-
(ii) Presents to an examiner a log- tation in paragraph (c) of this section
book or training record endorsement removed.
from an authorized instructor that [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
verifies accomplishment of the appro- Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997]
priate night flight training require-
ments of this subpart. § 61.113 Private pilot privileges and
(c) A person who does not meet the limitations: Pilot in command.
night flying requirements in (a) Except as provided in paragraphs
§ 61.109(d)(2), (i)(2), or (j)(2) may be (b) through (h) of this section, no per-
issued a private pilot certificate with son who holds a private pilot certifi-
the limitation ‘‘Night flying prohib- cate may act as pilot in command of an
ited.’’ This limitation may be removed aircraft that is carrying passengers or
by an examiner if the holder complies property for compensation or hire; nor
with the requirements of § 61.109(d)(2), may that person, for compensation or
(i)(2), or (j)(2), as appropriate. hire, act as pilot in command of an air-
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; craft.
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997; (b) A private pilot may, for com-
Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004] pensation or hire, act as pilot in com-
mand of an aircraft in connection with
§ 61.111 Cross-country flights: Pilots any business or employment if:
based on small islands. (1) The flight is only incidental to
(a) Except as provided in paragraph that business or employment; and
(b) of this section, an applicant located (2) The aircraft does not carry pas-
on an island from which the cross- sengers or property for compensation
country flight training required in or hire.
§ 61.109 of this part cannot be accom- (c) A private pilot may not pay less
plished without flying over water for than the pro rata share of the oper-
more than 10 nautical miles from the ating expenses of a flight with pas-
nearest shoreline need not comply with sengers, provided the expenses involve
the requirements of that section. only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or
(b) If other airports that permit civil rental fees.
operations are available to which a (d) A private pilot may act as pilot in
flight may be made without flying over command of a charitable, nonprofit, or
water for more than 10 nautical miles community event flight described in
from the nearest shoreline, the appli- § 91.146, if the sponsor and pilot comply
cant must show completion of two with the requirements of § 91.146.
round-trip solo flights between those (e) A private pilot may be reimbursed
two airports that are farthest apart, infor aircraft operating expenses that are
cluding a landing at each airport on directly related to search and location
both flights. operations, provided the expenses in-
(c) An applicant who complies with volve only fuel, oil, airport expendi-
paragraph (a) or paragraph (b) of this tures, or rental fees, and the operation
section, and meets all requirements for is sanctioned and under the direction
the issuance of a private pilot certifi- and control of:
cate, except the cross-country training (1) A local, State, or Federal agency;
requirements of § 61.109 of this part, or
will be issued a pilot certificate with (2) An organization that conducts
an endorsement containing the fol- search and location operations.
lowing limitation, ‘‘Passenger carrying (f) A private pilot who is an aircraft
prohibited on flights more than 10 nau- salesman and who has at least 200
tical miles from (the appropriate is- hours of logged flight time may dem-
land).’’ The limitation may be subse- onstrate an aircraft in flight to a pro-

quently amended to include another is- spective buyer.
595
§ 61.115 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(g) A private pilot who meets the re- § 61.115 Balloon rating: Limitations.
quirements of § 61.69 may act as a pilot
(a) If a person who applies for a pri-
in command of an aircraft towing a
glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle. vate pilot certificate with a balloon
(h) A private pilot may act as pilot in rating takes a practical test in a bal-
command for the purpose of conducting loon with an airborne heater:
a production flight test in a light-sport (1) The pilot certificate will contain
aircraft intended for certification in a limitation restricting the exercise of
the light-sport category under § 21.190 the privileges of that certificate to a
of this chapter, provided that— balloon with an airborne heater; and
(1) The aircraft is a powered para- (2) The limitation may be removed
chute or a weight-shift-control air- when the person obtains the required
craft; aeronautical experience in a gas bal-
(2) The person has at least 100 hours loon and receives a logbook endorse-
of pilot-in-command time in the cat- ment from an authorized instructor
egory and class of aircraft flown; and who attests to the person’s accomplish-
(3) The person is familiar with the
ment of the required aeronautical ex-
processes and procedures applicable to
the conduct of production flight test- perience and ability to satisfactorily
ing, to include operations conducted operate a gas balloon.
under a special flight permit and any (b) If a person who applies for a pri-
associated operating limitations. vate pilot certificate with a balloon
(i) A private pilot may act as pilot in rating takes a practical test in a gas
command of an aircraft without hold- balloon:
ing a medical certificate issued under (1) The pilot certificate will contain
part 67 of this chapter provided the a limitation restricting the exercise of
pilot holds a valid U.S. driver’s license, the privilege of that certificate to a
meets the requirements of § 61.23(c)(3), gas balloon; and
and complies with this section and all (2) The limitation may be removed
of the following conditions and limita- when the person obtains the required
tions: aeronautical experience in a balloon
(1) The aircraft is authorized to carry with an airborne heater and receives a
not more than 6 occupants, has a max- logbook endorsement from an author-
imum takeoff weight of not more than
ized instructor who attests to the per-
6,000 pounds, and is operated with no
son’s accomplishment of the required
more than five passengers on board;
and aeronautical experience and ability to
(2) The flight, including each portion satisfactorily operate a balloon with an
of the flight, is not carried out— airborne heater.
(i) At an altitude that is more than
18,000 feet above mean sea level; § 61.117 Private pilot privileges and
(ii) Outside the United States unless limitations: Second in command of
aircraft requiring more than one
authorized by the country in which the pilot.
flight is conducted; or
(iii) At an indicated airspeed exceed- Except as provided in § 61.113 of this
ing 250 knots; and part, no private pilot may, for com-
(3) The pilot has available in his or pensation or hire, act as second in com-
her logbook— mand of an aircraft that is type certifi-
(i) The completed medical examina- cated for more than one pilot, nor may
tion checklist required under § 68.7 of that pilot act as second in command of
this chapter; and such an aircraft that is carrying pas-
(ii) The certificate of course comple- sengers or property for compensation
tion required under § 61.23(c)(3). or hire.
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as
amended by Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44869, July [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
27, 2004; Amdt. 61–115, 72 FR 6910, Feb. 13, Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997]
2007; Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR 5220, Feb. 1, 2010;
3165, Jan. 11, 2017]
596
§§ 61.118–61.120 [Reserved] aircraft category and class rating

sought;
Subpart F—Commercial Pilots (h) Hold at least a private pilot cer-
tificate issued under this part or meet
§ 61.121 Applicability. the requirements of § 61.73; and
This subpart prescribes the require- (i) Comply with the sections of this
ments for the issuance of commercial part that apply to the aircraft category
pilot certificates and ratings, the con- and class rating sought.
ditions under which those certificates
and ratings are necessary, and the gen- § 61.125 Aeronautical knowledge.
eral operating rules for persons who (a) General. A person who applies for
hold those certificates and ratings. a commercial pilot certificate must re-
§ 61.123 Eligibility requirements: Gen- ceive and log ground training from an
eral. authorized instructor, or complete a
home-study course, on the aeronautical
To be eligible for a commercial pilot
certificate, a person must: knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of
(a) Be at least 18 years of age; this section that apply to the aircraft
(b) Be able to read, speak, write, and category and class rating sought.
understand the English language. If the (b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1)
applicant is unable to meet one of Applicable Federal Aviation Regula-
these requirements due to medical rea- tions of this chapter that relate to
sons, then the Administrator may commercial pilot privileges, limita-
place such operating limitations on tions, and flight operations;
that applicant’s pilot certificate as are (2) Accident reporting requirements
necessary for the safe operation of the of the National Transportation Safety
aircraft. Board;
(c) Receive a logbook endorsement (3) Basic aerodynamics and the prin-
from an authorized instructor who: ciples of flight;
(1) Conducted the required ground (4) Meteorology to include recogni-
training or reviewed the person’s home tion of critical weather situations,
study on the aeronautical knowledge windshear recognition and avoidance,
areas listed in § 61.125 of this part that and the use of aeronautical weather re-
apply to the aircraft category and class ports and forecasts;
rating sought; and
(5) Safe and efficient operation of air-
(2) Certified that the person is pre-
pared for the required knowledge test craft;
that applies to the aircraft category (6) Weight and balance computations;
and class rating sought. (7) Use of performance charts;
(d) Pass the required knowledge test (8) Significance and effects of exceed-
on the aeronautical knowledge areas ing aircraft performance limitations;
listed in § 61.125 of this part; (9) Use of aeronautical charts and a
(e) Receive the required training and magnetic compass for pilotage and
a logbook endorsement from an author- dead reckoning;
ized instructor who: (10) Use of air navigation facilities;
(1) Conducted the training on the (11) Aeronautical decision making
areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b) of and judgment;
this part that apply to the aircraft cat- (12) Principles and functions of air-
egory and class rating sought; and craft systems;
(2) Certified that the person is pre-
(13) Maneuvers, procedures, and
pared for the required practical test.
(f) Meet the aeronautical experience emergency operations appropriate to
requirements of this subpart that apply the aircraft;
to the aircraft category and class rat- (14) Night and high-altitude oper-
ing sought before applying for the prac- ations;
tical test; (15) Procedures for operating within
(g) Pass the required practical test the National Airspace System; and
on the areas of operation listed in (16) Procedures for flight and ground
§ 61.127(b) of this part that apply to the training for lighter-than-air ratings.
597
§ 61.127 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
§ 61.127 Flight proficiency. (v) Performance maneuvers;

(a) General. A person who applies for (vi) Ground reference maneuvers;
a commercial pilot certificate must re- (vii) Navigation;
ceive and log ground and flight train- (viii) Flight at slow airspeeds;
ing from an authorized instructor on (ix) Emergency operations; and
the areas of operation of this section (x) Postflight procedures.
that apply to the aircraft category and (5) For a powered-lift category rat-
class rating sought. ing:
(b) Areas of operation. (1) For an air- (i) Preflight preparation;
plane category rating with a single-en- (ii) Preflight procedures;
gine class rating: (iii) Airport and heliport operations;
(i) Preflight preparation; (iv) Hovering maneuvers;
(ii) Preflight procedures; (v) Takeoffs, landings, and go-
(iii) Airport and seaplane base oper- arounds;
ations; (vi) Performance maneuvers;
(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go- (vii) Navigation;
arounds; (viii) Slow flight and stalls;
(v) Performance maneuvers; (ix) Emergency operations;
(vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (x) High-altitude operations;
(vii) Navigation; (xi) Special operations; and
(viii) Slow flight and stalls; (xii) Postflight procedures.
(ix) Emergency operations; (6) For a glider category rating:
(x) High-altitude operations; and (i) Preflight preparation;
(xi) Postflight procedures. (ii) Preflight procedures;
(2) For an airplane category rating (iii) Airport and gliderport oper-
with a multiengine class rating: ations;
(i) Preflight preparation; (iv) Launches and landings;
(ii) Preflight procedures; (v) Performance speeds;
(iii) Airport and seaplane base oper- (vi) Soaring techniques;
ations; (vii) Performance maneuvers;
(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go- (viii) Navigation;
arounds; (ix) Slow flight and stalls;
(v) Performance maneuvers; (x) Emergency operations; and
(vi) Navigation; (xi) Postflight procedures.
(vii) Slow flight and stalls; (7) For a lighter-than-air category
(viii) Emergency operations; rating with an airship class rating:
(ix) Multiengine operations; (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
(x) High-altitude operations; and (ii) Technical subjects;
(xi) Postflight procedures. (iii) Preflight preparation;
(3) For a rotorcraft category rating (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver
with a helicopter class rating: to be performed in flight;
(i) Preflight preparation; (v) Preflight procedures;
(ii) Preflight procedures; (vi) Airport operations;
(iii) Airport and heliport operations; (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-
(iv) Hovering maneuvers; arounds;
(v) Takeoffs, landings, and go- (viii) Performance maneuvers;
arounds; (ix) Navigation;
(vi) Performance maneuvers; (x) Emergency operations; and
(vii) Navigation; (xi) Postflight procedures.
(viii) Emergency operations; (8) For a lighter-than-air category
(ix) Special operations; and rating with a balloon class rating:
(x) Postflight procedures. (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
(4) For a rotorcraft category rating (ii) Technical subjects;
with a gyroplane class rating: (iii) Preflight preparation;
(i) Preflight preparation; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver
(ii) Preflight procedures; to be performed in flight;
(iii) Airport operations; (v) Preflight procedures;
(iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go- (vi) Airport operations;

arounds; (vii) Launches and landings;
598
(viii) Performance maneuvers; preparation for the practical test with-

(ix) Navigation; in the preceding 2 calendar months
(x) Emergency operations; and from the month of the test.
(xi) Postflight procedures. (4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as single engine airplane or 10 hours of
amended by Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42558, Aug. flight time performing the duties of
21, 2009] pilot in command in a single engine
airplane with an authorized instructor
§ 61.129 Aeronautical experience. on board (either of which may be cred-
(a) For an airplane single-engine rat- ited towards the flight time require-
ing. Except as provided in paragraph (i) ment under paragraph (a)(2) of this sec-
of this section, a person who applies for tion), on the areas of operation listed
a commercial pilot certificate with an under § 61.127(b)(1) that include—
airplane category and single-engine (i) One cross-country flight of not
class rating must log at least 250 hours less than 300 nautical miles total dis-
of flight time as a pilot that consists of tance, with landings at a minimum of
at least: three points, one of which is a straight-
(1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of line distance of at least 250 nautical
which 50 hours must be in airplanes. miles from the original departure
(2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command
point. However, if this requirement is
flight time, which includes at least—
being met in Hawaii, the longest seg-
(i) 50 hours in airplanes; and
(ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of ment need only have a straight-line
which at least 10 hours must be in air- distance of at least 150 nautical miles;
planes. and
(3) 20 hours of training on the areas (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions
of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(1) of with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with
this part that includes at least— each landing involving a flight in the
(i) Ten hours of instrument training traffic pattern) at an airport with an
using a view-limiting device including operating control tower.
attitude instrument flying, partial (b) For an airplane multiengine rating.
panel skills, recovery from unusual Except as provided in paragraph (i) of
flight attitudes, and intercepting and this section, a person who applies for a
tracking navigational systems. Five commercial pilot certificate with an
hours of the 10 hours required on in- airplane category and multiengine
strument training must be in a single class rating must log at least 250 hours
engine airplane; of flight time as a pilot that consists of
(ii) 10 hours of training in a complex at least:
airplane, a turbine-powered airplane, (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of
or a technically advanced airplane which 50 hours must be in airplanes.
(TAA) that meets the requirements of (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command
paragraph (j) of this section, or any flight time, which includes at least—
combination thereof. The airplane (i) 50 hours in airplanes; and
must be appropriate to land or sea for
(ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of
the rating sought;
which at least 10 hours must be in air-
(iii) One 2-hour cross country flight
in a single engine airplane in daytime planes.
conditions that consists of a total (3) 20 hours of training on the areas
straight-line distance of more than 100 of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(2) of
nautical miles from the original point this part that includes at least—
of departure; (i) Ten hours of instrument training
(iv) One 2-hour cross country flight using a view-limiting device including
in a single engine airplane in night- attitude instrument flying, partial
time conditions that consists of a total panel skills, recovery from unusual
straight-line distance of more than 100 flight attitudes, and intercepting and
nautical miles from the original point tracking navigational systems. Five
of departure; and hours of the 10 hours required on in-
(v) Three hours in a single-engine air- strument training must be in a multi-

plane with an authorized instructor in engine airplane;
599
§ 61.129 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(ii) 10 hours of training in a multien- craft category and helicopter class rat-
gine complex or turbine-powered airing must log at least 150 hours of flight
plane; or for an applicant seeking a time as a pilot that consists of at least:
multiengine seaplane rating, 10 hours (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of
of training in a multiengine seaplane which 50 hours must be in helicopters.
that has flaps and a controllable pitch (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command
propeller, including seaplanes equipped flight time, which includes at least—
with an engine control system con- (i) 35 hours in helicopters; and
sisting of a digital computer and asso- (ii) 10 hours in cross-country flight in
ciated accessories for controlling the helicopters.
engine and propeller, such as a full au- (3) 20 hours of training on the areas
thority digital engine control; of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(3) of
(iii) One 2-hour cross country flight this part that includes at least—
in a multiengine airplane in daytime
(i) Five hours on the control and ma-
conditions that consists of a total
neuvering of a helicopter solely by ref-
straight-line distance of more than 100
erence to instruments using a view-
nautical miles from the original point
limiting device including attitude in-
of departure;
strument flying, partial panel skills,
(iv) One 2-hour cross country flight
recovery from unusual flight attitudes,
in a multiengine airplane in nighttime
and intercepting and tracking naviga-
conditions that consists of a total
tional systems. This aeronautical expe-
straight-line distance of more than 100
rience may be performed in an aircraft,
nautical miles from the original point
full flight simulator, flight training de-
of departure; and
vice, or an aviation training device;
(v) Three hours in a multiengine air-
plane with an authorized instructor in (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in
preparation for the practical test with- a helicopter in daytime conditions that
in the preceding 2 calendar months consists of a total straight-line dis-
from the month of the test. tance of more than 50 nautical miles
(4) 10 hours of solo flight time in a from the original point of departure;
multiengine airplane or 10 hours of (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight
flight time performing the duties of in a helicopter in nighttime conditions
pilot in command in a multiengine air- that consists of a total straight-line
plane with an authorized instructor (ei- distance of more than 50 nautical miles
ther of which may be credited towards from the original point of departure;
the flight time requirement in para- and
graph (b)(2) of this section), on the (iv) Three hours in a helicopter with
areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(2) an authorized instructor in preparation
of this part that includes at least— for the practical test within the pre-
(i) One cross-country flight of not ceding 2 calendar months from the
less than 300 nautical miles total dis- month of the test.
tance with landings at a minimum of (4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a
three points, one of which is a straight- helicopter or 10 hours of flight time
line distance of at least 250 nautical performing the duties of pilot in com-
miles from the original departure mand in a helicopter with an author-
point. However, if this requirement is ized instructor on board (either of
being met in Hawaii, the longest seg- which may be credited towards the
ment need only have a straight-line flight time requirement under para-
distance of at least 150 nautical miles; graph (c)(2) of this section), on the
and areas of operation listed under
(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions § 61.127(b)(3) that includes—
with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with (i) One cross-country flight with
each landing involving a flight with a landings at a minimum of three points,
traffic pattern) at an airport with an with one segment consisting of a
operating control tower. straight-line distance of at least 50
(c) For a helicopter rating. Except as nautical miles from the original point
provided in paragraph (i) of this sec- of departure; and
tion, a person who applies for a com- (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions
mercial pilot certificate with a rotor- with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with
600
each landing involving a flight in the (i) One cross-country flight with
traffic pattern). landings at a minimum of three points,
(d) For a gyroplane rating. A person with one segment consisting of a
who applies for a commercial pilot cer- straight-line distance of at least 50
tificate with a rotorcraft category and nautical miles from the original point
gyroplane class rating must log at of departure; and
least 150 hours of flight time as a pilot (ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions
(of which 5 hours may have been ac- with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with
complished in a full flight simulator or each landing involving a flight in the
flight training device that is represent- traffic pattern).
ative of a gyroplane) that consists of at (e) For a powered-lift rating. Except as
least: provided in paragraph (i) of this sec-
(1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of tion, a person who applies for a com-
which 25 hours must be in gyroplanes. mercial pilot certificate with a pow-
(2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command ered-lift category rating must log at
flight time, which includes at least—
least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot
(i) 10 hours in gyroplanes; and
that consists of at least:
(ii) 3 hours in cross-country flight in
gyroplanes. (1) 100 hours in powered aircraft, of
(3) 20 hours of training on the areas which 50 hours must be in a powered-
of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(4) of lift.
this part that includes at least— (2) 100 hours of pilot-in-command
(i) 2.5 hours on the control and ma- flight time, which includes at least—
neuvering of a gyroplane solely by ref- (i) 50 hours in a powered-lift; and
erence to instruments using a view- (ii) 50 hours in cross-country flight of
limiting device including attitude in- which 10 hours must be in a powered-
strument flying, partial panel skills, lift.
recovery from unusual flight attitudes, (3) 20 hours of training on the areas
and intercepting and tracking naviga- of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(5) of
tional systems. This aeronautical expe- this part that includes at least—
rience may be performed in an aircraft, (i) Ten hours of instrument training
full flight simulator, flight training de- using a view-limiting device including
vice, or an aviation training device; attitude instrument flying, partial
(ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in panel skills, recovery from unusual
a gyroplane in daytime conditions that flight attitudes, and intercepting and
consists of a total straight-line dis- tracking navigational systems. Five
tance of more than 50 nautical miles hours of the 10 hours required on in-
from the original point of departure; strument training must be in a pow-
(iii) Two hours of flight training dur- ered-lift;
ing nighttime conditions in a gyro- (ii) One 2-hour cross country flight in
plane at an airport, that includes 10
a powered-lift in daytime conditions
takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop
that consists of a total straight-line
(with each landing involving a flight in
distance of more than 100 nautical
the traffic pattern); and
miles from the original point of depar-
(iv) Three hours in a gyroplane with
ture;
an authorized instructor in preparation
for the practical test within the pre- (iii) One 2-hour cross country flight
ceding 2 calendar months from the in a powered-lift in nighttime condi-
month of the test. tions that consists of a total straight-
(4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a line distance of more than 100 nautical
gyroplane or 10 hours of flight time miles from the original point of depar-
performing the duties of pilot in com- ture; and
mand in a gyroplane with an author- (iv) 3 hours in a powered-lift with an
ized instructor on board (either of authorized instructor in preparation
which may be credited towards the for the practical test within the pre-
flight time requirement under para- ceding 2 calendar months from the
graph (d)(2) of this section), on the month of the test.
areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(4) (4) Ten hours of solo flight time in a
that includes— powered-lift or 10 hours of flight time
601
§ 61.129 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
performing the duties of pilot in com- calendar months from the month of the
mand in a powered-lift with an author- test; and
ized instructor on board (either of (ii) 5 solo flights in a glider on the
which may be credited towards the areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6)
flight time requirement under para- of this part.
graph (e)(2) of this section, on the areas (g) For an airship rating. A person who
of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(5) that applies for a commercial pilot certifi-
includes— cate with a lighter-than-air category
(i) One cross-country flight of not and airship class rating must log at
less than 300 nautical miles total dis- least 200 hours of flight time as a pilot,
tance with landings at a minimum of which includes at least the following
three points, one of which is a straight- hours:
line distance of at least 250 nautical (1) 50 hours in airships.
miles from the original departure (2) Thirty hours of pilot in command
point. However, if this requirement is flight time in airships or performing
being met in Hawaii the longest seg- the duties of pilot in command in an
ment need only have a straight-line airship with an authorized instructor
distance of at least 150 nautical miles; aboard, which consists of—
and (i) 10 hours of cross-country flight
(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions time in airships; and
with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with (ii) 10 hours of night flight time in
each landing involving a flight in the airships.
traffic pattern) at an airport with an (3) Forty hours of instrument time to
operating control tower. include—
(f) For a glider rating. A person who (i) Instrument training using a view-
applies for a commercial pilot certifi- limiting device for attitude instrument
cate with a glider category rating must flying, partial panel skills, recovery
log at least— from unusual flight attitudes, and
(1) 25 hours of flight time as a pilot in intercepting and tracking navigational
a glider and that flight time must in- systems; and
clude at least 100 flights in a glider as (ii) Twenty hours of instrument
pilot in command, including at least— flight time, of which 10 hours must be
(i) Three hours of flight training in a in flight in airships.
glider with an authorized instructor or (4) 20 hours of flight training in air-
10 training flights in a glider with an ships on the areas of operation listed in
authorized instructor on the areas of § 61.127(b)(7) of this part, which includes
operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) of this at least—
part, including at least 3 training (i) Three hours in an airship with an
flights in a glider with an authorized authorized instructor in preparation
instructor in preparation for the prac- for the practical test within the pre-
tical test within the preceding 2 cal- ceding 2 calendar months from the
endar months from the month of the month of the test;
test; and (ii) One hour cross country flight in
(ii) 2 hours of solo flight that include an airship in daytime conditions that
not less than 10 solo flights in a glider consists of a total straight-line dis-
on the areas of operation listed in tance of more than 25 nautical miles
§ 61.127(b)(6) of this part; or from the point of departure; and
(2) 200 hours of flight time as a pilot (iii) One hour cross country flight in
in heavier-than-air aircraft and at an airship in nighttime conditions that
least 20 flights in a glider as pilot in consists of a total straight-line dis-
command, including at least— tance of more than 25 nautical miles
(i) Three hours of flight training in a from the point of departure.
glider or 10 training flights in a glider (5) 10 hours of flight training per-
with an authorized instructor on the forming the duties of pilot in command
areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(6) with an authorized instructor on the
of this part including at least 3 train- areas of operation listed in § 61.127(b)(7)
ing flights in a glider with an author- of this part, which includes at least—
ized instructor in preparation for the (i) One cross-country flight with
practical test within the preceding 2 landings at a minimum of three points,
602
with one segment consisting of a training center certificated under part

straight-line distance of at least 25 142 of this chapter may:
nautical miles from the original point (i) Credit a maximum of 50 hours to-
of departure; and ward the total aeronautical experience
(ii) 5 hours in night VFR conditions requirements for an airplane or pow-
with 10 takeoffs and 10 landings (with ered-lift rating, provided the aero-
each landing involving a flight in the nautical experience was obtained from
traffic pattern). an authorized instructor in a full flight
(h) For a balloon rating. A person who simulator or flight training device that
applies for a commercial pilot certifi- represents that class of airplane or
cate with a lighter-than-air category powered-lift category and type, if ap-
and a balloon class rating must log at plicable, appropriate to the rating
least 35 hours of flight time as a pilot, sought; and
which includes at least the following (ii) Credit a maximum of 25 hours to-
requirements: ward the total aeronautical experience
(1) 20 hours in balloons; requirements of this section for a heli-
(2) 10 flights in balloons; copter rating, provided the aero-
(3) Two flights in balloons as the nautical experience was obtained from
pilot in command; and an authorized instructor in a full flight
(4) 10 hours of flight training that in- simulator or flight training device that
cludes at least 10 training flights with represents a helicopter and type, if ap-
an authorized instructor in balloons on plicable, appropriate to the rating
the areas of operation listed in sought.
§ 61.127(b)(8) of this part, which consists (2) An applicant who has accom-
of at least— plished the training required by this
(i) For a gas balloon— section in a course conducted by a
(A) Two training flights of 2 hours training center certificated under part
each in a gas balloon with an author- 142 of this chapter may:
ized instructor in preparation for the (i) Credit a maximum of 100 hours to-
practical test within the preceding 2 ward the total aeronautical experience
calendar months from the month of the requirements of this section for an air-
test; plane and powered-lift rating, provided
(B) 2 flights performing the duties of the aeronautical experience was ob-
pilot in command in a gas balloon with tained from an authorized instructor in
an authorized instructor on the appro- a full flight simulator or flight train-
priate areas of operation; and ing device that represents that class of
(C) One flight involving a controlled airplane or powered-lift category and
ascent to 5,000 feet above the launch type, if applicable, appropriate to the
site. rating sought; and
(ii) For a balloon with an airborne (ii) Credit a maximum of 50 hours to-
heater— ward the total aeronautical experience
(A) Two training flights of 1 hour requirements of this section for a heli-
each in a balloon with an airborne copter rating, provided the aero-
heater with an authorized instructor in nautical experience was obtained from
preparation for the practical test with- an authorized instructor in a full flight
in the preceding 2 calendar months simulator or flight training device that
from the month of the test; represents a helicopter and type, if ap-
(B) Two solo flights in a balloon with plicable, appropriate to the rating
an airborne heater on the appropriate sought.
areas of operation; and (3) Except when fewer hours are ap-
(C) One flight involving a controlled proved by the FAA, an applicant for
ascent to 3,000 feet above the launch the commercial pilot certificate with
site. the airplane or powered-lift rating who
(i) Permitted credit for use of a flight has completed 190 hours of aero-
simulator or flight training device. (1) Ex- nautical experience is considered to
cept as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of have met the total aeronautical experi-
this section, an applicant who has not ence requirements of this section, pro-
accomplished the training required by vided the applicant satisfactorily com-

this section in a course conducted by a pleted an approved commercial pilot
603
§ 61.131 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
course under part 142 of this chapter valid for use until the person complies
and the approved course was appro- with the appropriate night flight train-
priate to the commercial pilot certifi- ing requirements of this subpart. The
cate and aircraft rating sought. person may have the ‘‘night flying pro-
(j) Technically advanced airplane. Un- hibited’’ limitation removed if the per-
less otherwise authorized by the Ad- son—
ministrator, a technically advanced (i) Accomplishes the appropriate
airplane must be equipped with an elec- night flight training requirements of
tronically advanced avionics system this subpart; and
that includes the following installed (ii) Presents to an examiner a log-
components: book or training record endorsement
(1) An electronic Primary Flight Dis- from an authorized instructor that
play (PFD) that includes, at a min- verifies accomplishment of the appro-
imum, an airspeed indicator, turn coor- priate night flight training require-
dinator, attitude indicator, heading in- ments of this subpart.
dicator, altimeter, and vertical speed
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
indicator;
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997]
(2) An electronic Multifunction Dis-
play (MFD) that includes, at a min- § 61.133 Commercial pilot privileges
imum, a moving map using Global Po- and limitations.
sitioning System (GPS) navigation
(a) Privileges—(1) General. A person
with the aircraft position displayed;
who holds a commercial pilot certifi-
(3) A two axis autopilot integrated
cate may act as pilot in command of an
with the navigation and heading guid-
aircraft—
ance system; and
(i) Carrying persons or property for
(4) The display elements described in
compensation or hire, provided the per-
paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section
son is qualified in accordance with this
must be continuously visible.
part and with the applicable parts of
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; this chapter that apply to the oper-
Amdt. 61–101, 62 FR 16892, Apr. 8, 1997; Amdt. ation; and
61–103, 62 FR 40904, July 30, 1997; Amdt. 61– (ii) For compensation or hire, pro-
104, 63 FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. 61–124, 74
vided the person is qualified in accord-
FR 42558, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61–124A, 74 FR
53645, Oct. 20, 2009; Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR 30278, ance with this part and with the appli-
June 27, 2018] cable parts of this chapter that apply
to the operation.
§ 61.131 Exceptions to the night flying (2) Commercial pilots with lighter-than-
requirements. air category ratings. A person with a
(a) Subject to the limitations of commercial pilot certificate with a
paragraph (b) of this section, a person lighter-than-air category rating may—
is not required to comply with the (i) For an airship—(A) Give flight and
night flight training requirements of ground training in an airship for the
this subpart if the person receives issuance of a certificate or rating;
flight training in and resides in the (B) Give an endorsement for a pilot
State of Alaska. certificate with an airship rating;
(b) A person who receives flight (C) Endorse a pilot’s logbook for solo
training in and resides in the State of operating privileges in an airship;
Alaska but does not meet the night (D) Act as pilot in command of an
flight training requirements of this airship under IFR or in weather condi-
section: tions less than the minimum pre-
(1) May be issued a pilot certificate scribed for VFR flight; and
with the limitation ‘‘night flying pro- (E) Give flight and ground training
hibited.’’ and endorsements that are required for
(2) Must comply with the appropriate a flight review, an operating privilege
night flight training requirements of or recency-of-experience requirements
this subpart within the 12-calendar- of this part.
month period after the issuance of the (ii) For a balloon—(A) Give flight and
pilot certificate. At the end of that pe- ground training in a balloon for the
riod, the certificate will become in- issuance of a certificate or rating;
604
(B) Give an endorsement for a pilot authorized instructor who attests to

certificate with a balloon rating; the person’s accomplishment of the re-
(C) Endorse a pilot’s logbook for solo quired aeronautical experience and
operating privileges in a balloon; and ability to satisfactorily operate a bal-
(D) Give ground and flight training loon with an airborne heater.
and endorsements that are required for
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
a flight review, an operating privilege, Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997; Dock-
or recency-of-experience requirements et FAA–2010–1127, Amdt. 61–135, 81 FR 1306,
of this part. Jan. 12, 2016]
(b) Limitations. (1) A person who ap-
plies for a commercial pilot certificate §§ 61.135–61.141 [Reserved]
with an airplane category or powered-
lift category rating and does not hold Subpart G—Airline Transport Pilots
an instrument rating in the same cat-
egory and class will be issued a com- § 61.151 Applicability.
mercial pilot certificate that contains
This subpart prescribes the require-
the limitation, ‘‘The carriage of pas-
ments for the issuance of airline trans-
sengers for hire in (airplanes) (pow-
port pilot certificates and ratings, the
ered-lifts) on cross-country flights in
conditions under which those certifi-
excess of 50 nautical miles or at night
cates and ratings are necessary, and
is prohibited.’’ The limitation may be
the general operating rules for persons
removed when the person satisfactorily
who hold those certificates and ratings.
accomplishes the requirements listed
in § 61.65 of this part for an instrument § 61.153 Eligibility requirements: Gen-
rating in the same category and class eral.
of aircraft listed on the person’s com-
mercial pilot certificate. To be eligible for an airline transport
(2) If a person who applies for a com- pilot certificate, a person must:
mercial pilot certificate with a balloon (a) Meet the following age require-
rating takes a practical test in a bal- ments:
loon with an airborne heater— (1) For an airline transport pilot cer-
(i) The pilot certificate will contain a tificate obtained under the aero-
limitation restricting the exercise of nautical experience requirements of
the privileges of that certificate to a §§ 61.159, 61.161, or 61.163, be at least 23
balloon with an airborne heater. years of age; or
(ii) The limitation specified in para- (2) For an airline transport pilot cer-
graph (b)(2)(i) of this section may be tificate obtained under the aero-
removed when the person obtains the nautical experience requirements of
required aeronautical experience in a § 61.160, be at least 21 years of age.
gas balloon and receives a logbook en- (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and
dorsement from an authorized instruc- understand the English language. If the
tor who attests to the person’s accom- applicant is unable to meet one of
plishment of the required aeronautical these requirements due to medical rea-
experience and ability to satisfactorily sons, then the Administrator may
operate a gas balloon. place such operating limitations on
(3) If a person who applies for a com- that applicant’s pilot certificate as are
mercial pilot certificate with a balloon necessary for the safe operation of the
rating takes a practical test in a gas aircraft;
balloon— (c) Be of good moral character;
(i) The pilot certificate will contain a (d) Meet at least one of the following
limitation restricting the exercise of requirements:
the privileges of that certificate to a (1) Holds a commercial pilot certifi-
gas balloon. cate with an instrument rating issued
(ii) The limitation specified in para- under this part;
graph (b)(3)(i) of this section may be (2) Meet the military experience re-
removed when the person obtains the quirements under § 61.73 of this part to
required aeronautical experience in a qualify for a commercial pilot certifi-
balloon with an airborne heater and re- cate, and an instrument rating if the
ceives a logbook endorsement from an person is a rated military pilot or
605
§ 61.155 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
former rated military pilot of an person’s airline transport pilot certifi-

Armed Force of the United States; or cate lists the aircraft category and
(3) Holds either a foreign airline class rating that is appropriate to the
transport pilot license with instrument type rating sought.
privileges, or a foreign commercial (c) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1)
pilot license with an instrument rat- Applicable Federal Aviation Regula-
ing, that— tions of this chapter that relate to air-
(i) Was issued by a contracting State line transport pilot privileges, limita-
to the Convention on International tions, and flight operations;
Civil Aviation; and (2) Meteorology, including knowledge
(ii) Contains no geographical limita- of and effects of fronts, frontal charac-
tions. teristics, cloud formations, icing, and
(e) After July 31, 2014, for an airline upper-air data;
transport pilot certificate with an air- (3) General system of weather and
plane category multiengine class rat- NOTAM collection, dissemination, in-
ing or an airline transport pilot certifi- terpretation, and use;
cate obtained concurrently with an air- (4) Interpretation and use of weather
plane type rating, receive a graduation charts, maps, forecasts, sequence re-
certificate from an authorized training ports, abbreviations, and symbols;
provider certifying completion of the (5) National Weather Service func-
airline transport pilot certification tions as they pertain to operations in
training program specified in § 61.156 the National Airspace System;
before applying for the knowledge test (6) Windshear and microburst aware-
required by paragraph (g) of this sec- ness, identification, and avoidance;
tion; (7) Principles of air navigation under
(f) Meet the aeronautical experience instrument meteorological conditions
requirements of this subpart that apply in the National Airspace System;
to the aircraft category and class rat- (8) Air traffic control procedures and
ing sought before applying for the prac- pilot responsibilities as they relate to
tical test; en route operations, terminal area and
(g) Pass a knowledge test on the radar operations, and instrument de-
aeronautical knowledge areas of parture and approach procedures;
§ 61.155(c) of this part that apply to the (9) Aircraft loading, weight and bal-
aircraft category and class rating ance, use of charts, graphs, tables, for-
sought; mulas, and computations, and their ef-
(h) Pass the practical test on the fect on aircraft performance;
areas of operation listed in § 61.157(e) of (10) Aerodynamics relating to an air-
this part that apply to the aircraft cat- craft’s flight characteristics and per-
egory and class rating sought; and formance in normal and abnormal
(i) Comply with the sections of this flight regimes;
subpart that apply to the aircraft cat- (11) Human factors;
egory and class rating sought. (12) Aeronautical decision making
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; and judgment;
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40905, July 30, 1997; (13) Crew resource management to in-
Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42559, Aug. 21, 2009; clude crew communication and coordi-
Amdt. 61–130, 78 FR 42374, July 15, 2013] nation; and
(14) After July 31, 2014, for airplane
§ 61.155 Aeronautical knowledge. category multiengine class rating or
(a) General. The knowledge test for airplane type rating, the content of the
an airline transport pilot certificate is airline transport pilot certification
based on the aeronautical knowledge training program in § 61.156.
areas listed in paragraph (c) of this sec- (d) An applicant who successfully
tion that are appropriate to the air- completes the knowledge test for an
craft category and class rating sought. airline transport pilot certificate prior
(b) Aircraft type rating. A person who to August 1, 2014, must successfully
is applying for an additional aircraft complete the practical test within 24
type rating to be added to an airline months from the month in which the
transport pilot certificate is not re- knowledge test was successfully com-
quired to pass a knowledge test if that pleted. An applicant who passes the
606
knowledge test prior to August 1, 2014, crew resource management, and safety
but fails to successfully complete the culture.
airplane category with a multiengine (b) FSTD training. The applicant for
class rating practical test within 24 the knowledge test must receive at
months must complete the airline least 10 hours of training in a flight
transport pilot certification training simulation training device qualified
program specified in § 61.156 and retake under part 60 of this chapter that rep-
the knowledge test prior to applying resents a multiengine turbine airplane.
for the airplane category with a multi- The training must include the fol-
engine class rating practical test. lowing:
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as
(1) At least 6 hours of training in a
amended by Amdt. 61–130, 78 FR 42374, July Level C or higher full flight simulator
15, 2013; Docket FAA–2010–0100, Amdt. 61– qualified under part 60 of this chapter
130C, 81 FR 2, Jan. 4, 2016] that represents a multiengine turbine
airplane with a maximum takeoff
§ 61.156 Training requirements: Air- weight of 40,000 pounds or greater. The
plane category—multiengine class training must include the following
rating or airplane type rating con- areas:
currently with airline transport
pilot certificate. (i) Low energy states/stalls;
(ii) Upset recovery techniques; and
After July 31, 2014, a person who ap- (iii) Adverse weather conditions, in-
plies for the knowledge test for an air- cluding icing, thunderstorms, and
line transport pilot certificate with an crosswinds with gusts.
airplane category multiengine class (2) The remaining FSTD training
rating must present a graduation cer- may be completed in a Level 4 or high-
tificate from an authorized training er flight simulation training device.
provider under part 121, 135, 141, or 142 The training must include the fol-
of this chapter certifying the applicant lowing areas:
has completed the following training in (i) Navigation including flight man-
a course approved by the Adminis- agement systems; and
trator. (ii) Automation including autoflight.
(a) Academic training. The applicant
(c) Deviation authority. The Adminis-
for the knowledge test must receive at
trator may issue deviation authority
least 30 hours of classroom instruction
from the weight requirement in para-
that includes the following:
graph (b)(1) of this section upon a de-
(1) At least 8 hours of instruction on termination that the objectives of the
aerodynamics including high altitude training can be met in an alternative
operations; device.
(2) At least 2 hours of instruction on
meteorology, including adverse weath- [Doc. No. FAA–2010–0100, 78 FR 42375, July 15,
er phenomena and weather detection 2013]
systems; and
(3) At least 14 hours of instruction on § 61.157 Flight proficiency.
air carrier operations, including the (a) General. (1) The practical test for
following areas: an airline transport pilot certificate is
(i) Physiology; given for—
(ii) Communications; (i) An airplane category and single
(iii) Checklist philosophy; engine class rating.
(iv) Operational control; (ii) An airplane category and multi-
(v) Minimum equipment list/configu- engine class rating.
ration deviation list; (iii) A rotorcraft category and heli-
(vi) Ground operations; copter class rating.
(vii) Turbine engines; (iv) A powered-lift category rating.
(viii) Transport category aircraft (v) An aircraft type rating.
performance; (2) A person who is applying for an
(ix) Automation, navigation, and airline transport pilot practical test
flight path warning systems. must meet—
(4) At least 6 hours of instruction on (i) The eligibility requirements of

leadership, professional development, § 61.153; and
607
§ 61.157 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(ii) The aeronautical knowledge and (v) Instrument procedures;

aeronautical experience requirements (vi) Landings and approaches to land-
of this subpart that apply to the air- ings;
craft category and class rating sought. (vii) Normal and abnormal proce-
(b) Aircraft type rating. Except as pro- dures;
vided in paragraph (c) of this section, a (viii) Emergency procedures; and
person who applies for an aircraft type (ix) Postflight procedures.
rating to be added to an airline trans- (2) For an airplane category—multi-
port pilot certificate or applies for a engine class rating:
type rating to be concurrently com- (i) Preflight preparation;
pleted with an airline transport pilot (ii) Preflight procedures;
certificate: (iii) Takeoff and departure phase;
(1) Must receive and log ground and (iv) In-flight maneuvers;
flight training from an authorized in- (v) Instrument procedures;
structor on the areas of operation (vi) Landings and approaches to land-
under this section that apply to the ings;
aircraft type rating; (vii) Normal and abnormal proce-
(2) Must receive a logbook endorse- dures;
ment from an authorized instructor (viii) Emergency procedures; and
that certifies the applicant completed
(ix) Postflight procedures.
the training on the areas of operation
(3) For a powered-lift category rat-
listed under paragraph (e) of this sec-
ing:
tion that apply to the aircraft type rat-
(i) Preflight preparation;
ing; and
(ii) Preflight procedures;
(3) Must perform the practical test in
actual or simulated instrument condi- (iii) Takeoff and departure phase;
tions, except as provided under para- (iv) In-flight maneuvers;
graph (g) of this section. (v) Instrument procedures;
(c) Exceptions. A person who applies (vi) Landings and approaches to land-
for an aircraft type rating to be added ings;
to an airline transport pilot certificate (vii) Normal and abnormal proce-
or an aircraft type rating concurrently dures;
with an airline transport pilot certifi- (viii) Emergency procedures; and
cate, and who is an employee of a cer- (ix) Postflight procedures.
tificate holder operating under part 121 (4) For a rotorcraft category—heli-
or part 135 of this chapter, does not copter class rating:
need to comply with the requirements (i) Preflight preparation;
of paragraph (b) of this section if the (ii) Preflight procedures;
applicant presents a training record (iii) Takeoff and departure phase;
that shows completion of that certifi- (iv) In-flight maneuvers;
cate holder’s approved training pro- (v) Instrument procedures;
gram for the aircraft type rating. (vi) Landings and approaches to land-
(d) Upgrading type ratings. Any type ings;
rating(s) and limitations on a pilot cer- (vii) Normal and abnormal proce-
tificate of an applicant who completes dures;
an airline transport pilot practical test (viii) Emergency procedures; and
will be included at the airline trans- (ix) Postflight procedures.
port pilot certification level, provided (f) Proficiency and competency checks
the applicant passes the practical test conducted under part 121, part 135, or
in the same category and class of air- subpart K of part 91. (1) Successful com-
craft for which the applicant holds the pletion of any of the following checks
type rating(s). satisfies the flight proficiency require-
(e) Areas of operation. (1) For an air- ments of this section for the issuance
plane category—single engine class rat- of an airline transport pilot certificate
ing: and/or the appropriate aircraft rating:
(i) Preflight preparation; (i) A proficiency check under § 121.441
(ii) Preflight procedures; of this chapter.
(iii) Takeoff and departure phase; (ii) Both a competency check under
(iv) In-flight maneuvers; § 135.293(a)(2) and § 135.293(b) of this
608
chapter and pilot-in-command instru- iner is in a position to observe the ap-

ment proficiency check under § 135.297 plicant during the practical test in the
of this chapter. case where there is no multi-seat
(iii) Both a competency check under version of that multiengine airplane.
§ 91.1065 of this chapter and a pilot-in- (i) Single engine airplane with a single-
command instrument proficiency pilot station. An applicant for a type
check under § 91.1069 of this chapter. rating, at the ATP certification level,
(2) The checks specified in paragraph in a single engine airplane with a sin-
(f)(1) of this section must be conducted gle-pilot station must perform the
by one of the following: practical test in the multi-seat version
(i) An FAA Aviation Safety Inspec- of that single engine airplane. The
tor. practical test may be performed in the
(ii) An Aircrew Program Designee single-seat version of that airplane if
who is authorized to perform pro- the Examiner is in a position to ob-
ficiency and/or competency checks for serve the applicant during the prac-
the air carrier whose approved training tical test in the case where there is no
program has been satisfactorily com- multi-seat version of that single engine
pleted by the pilot applicant. airplane.
(iii) A Training Center Evaluator (j) Waiver authority. An Examiner
with appropriate certification author- who conducts a practical test may
ity who is also authorized to perform waive any task for which the FAA has
the portions of the competency and/or provided waiver authority.
proficiency checks required by para- [Doc. No. FAA–2006–26661, 74 FR 42560, Aug.
graph (f)(1) of this section for the air 21, 2009; Amdt. 61–124A, 74 FR 53647, Oct. 20,
carrier whose approved training pro- 2009; Amdt. 61–130, 78 FR 42375, July 15, 2013]
gram has been satisfactorily completed
by the pilot applicant. § 61.158 [Reserved]
(g) Aircraft not capable of instrument
maneuvers and procedures. An applicant § 61.159 Aeronautical experience: Air-
may add a type rating to an airline plane category rating.
transport pilot certificate with an air- (a) Except as provided in paragraphs
craft that is not capable of the instru- (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a person
ment maneuvers and procedures re- who is applying for an airline transport
quired on the practical test under the pilot certificate with an airplane cat-
following circumstances— egory and class rating must have at
(1) The rating is limited to ‘‘VFR least 1,500 hours of total time as a pilot
only.’’ that includes at least:
(2) The type rating is added to an air- (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight
line transport pilot certificate that has time.
instrument privileges in that category (2) 100 hours of night flight time.
and class of aircraft. (3) 50 hours of flight time in the class
(3) The ‘‘VFR only’’ limitation may of airplane for the rating sought. A
be removed for that aircraft type after maximum of 25 hours of training in a
the applicant: full flight simulator representing the
(i) Passes a practical test in that class of airplane for the rating sought
type of aircraft on the appropriate in- may be credited toward the flight time
strument maneuvers and procedures in requirement of this paragraph if the
§ 61.157; or training was accomplished as part of
(ii) Becomes qualified in § 61.73(d) for an approved training course in parts
that type of aircraft. 121, 135, 141, or 142 of this chapter. A
(h) Multiengine airplane with a single- flight training device or aviation train-
pilot station. An applicant for a type ing device may not be used to satisfy
rating, at the ATP certification level, this requirement.
in a multiengine airplane with a sin- (4) 75 hours of instrument flight time,
gle-pilot station must perform the in actual or simulated instrument con-
practical test in the multi-seat version ditions, subject to the following:
of that airplane. The practical test (i) Except as provided in paragraph
may be performed in the single-seat (a)(4)(ii) of this section, an applicant

version of that airplane if the Exam- may not receive credit for more than a
609
§ 61.159 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
total of 25 hours of simulated instru- chapter when a second pilot is not re-
ment time in a full flight simulator or quired under the type certification of
flight training device. the aircraft or the regulations under
(ii) A maximum of 50 hours of train- which the flight is being conducted,
ing in a full flight simulator or flight and the following requirements are
training device may be credited toward met—
the instrument flight time require- (1) The experience must be accom-
ments of paragraph (a)(4) of this sec- plished as part of a second-in-command
tion if the training was accomplished professional development program ap-
in a course conducted by a training proved by the Administrator under
center certificated under part 142 of § 135.99 of this chapter;
this chapter. (2) The flight operation must be con-
(iii) Training in a full flight simu- ducted in accordance with the certifi-
lator or flight training device must be cate holder’s operations specification
accomplished in a full flight simulator for the second-in-command profes-
or flight training device, representing
sional development program;
an airplane.
(3) The pilot in command of the oper-
(5) 250 hours of flight time in an air-
plane as a pilot in command, or when ation must certify in the pilot’s log-
serving as a required second in com- book that the second-in-command pilot
mand flightcrew member performing time was accomplished under this sec-
the duties of pilot in command while tion; and
under the supervision of a pilot in com- (4) The pilot time may not be logged
mand, or any combination thereof, as pilot-in-command time even when
which includes at least— the pilot is the sole manipulator of the
(i) 100 hours of cross-country flight controls and may not be used to meet
time; and the aeronautical experience require-
(ii) 25 hours of night flight time. ments in paragraph (a)(5) of this sec-
(6) Not more than 100 hours of the tion.
total aeronautical experience require- (d) A commercial pilot may log the
ments of paragraph (a) of this section following flight engineer flight time
or § 61.160 may be obtained in a full toward the 1,500 hours of total time as
flight simulator or flight training de- a pilot required by paragraph (a) of this
vice provided the device represents an section and the total time as a pilot re-
airplane and the aeronautical experi- quired by § 61.160:
ence was accomplished as part of an ap- (1) Flight-engineer time, provided the
proved training course in parts 121, 135, time—
141, or 142 of this chapter. (i) Is acquired in an airplane required
(b) A person who has performed at to have a flight engineer by the air-
least 20 night takeoffs and landings to plane’s flight manual or type certifi-
a full stop may substitute each addi- cate;
tional night takeoff and landing to a (ii) Is acquired while engaged in oper-
full stop for 1 hour of night flight time ations under part 121 of this chapter for
to satisfy the requirements of para-
which a flight engineer is required;
graph (a)(2) of this section; however,
(iii) Is acquired while the person is
not more than 25 hours of night flight
time may be credited in this manner. participating in a pilot training pro-
(c) A commercial pilot may log sec- gram approved under part 121 of this
ond-in-command pilot time toward the chapter; and
aeronautical experience requirements (iv) Does not exceed more than 1 hour
of paragraph (a) of this section and the for each 3 hours of flight engineer
aeronautical experience requirements flight time for a total credited time of
in § 61.160, provided the pilot is em- no more than 500 hours.
ployed by a part 119 certificate holder (2) Flight-engineer time, provided the
authorized to conduct operations under flight time—
part 135 of this chapter and the second- (i) Is acquired as a U.S. Armed
in-command pilot time is obtained in Forces’ flight engineer crewmember in
operations conducted for the certifi- an airplane that requires a flight engi-
cate holder under part 91 or 135 of this neer crewmember by the flight manual;
610
(ii) Is acquired while the person is (2) An official U.S. Armed Forces
participating in a flight engineer crew- record that shows the person graduated
member training program for the U.S. from a U.S. Armed Forces under-
Armed Forces; and graduate pilot training school and re-
(iii) Does not exceed 1 hour for each ceived a rating qualification as a mili-
3 hours of flight engineer flight time tary pilot.
for a total credited time of no more (b) A person may apply for an airline
than 500 hours. transport pilot certificate with an air-
(e) An applicant who credits time plane category multiengine class rat-
under paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this ing or an airline transport pilot certifi-
section is issued an airline transport cate concurrently with an airplane
pilot certificate with the limitation, type rating with a minimum of 1,000
‘‘Holder does not meet the pilot in hours of total time as a pilot if the per-
command aeronautical experience re- son:
quirements of ICAO,’’ as prescribed (1) Holds a Bachelor’s degree with an
under Article 39 of the Convention on aviation major from an institution of
International Civil Aviation. higher education, as defined in § 61.1,
(f) An applicant is entitled to an air- that has been issued a letter of author-
line transport pilot certificate without ization by the Administrator under
the ICAO limitation specified under § 61.169;
paragraph (e) of this section when the (2) Completes 60 semester credit
applicant presents satisfactory evi- hours of aviation and aviation-related
dence of having met the ICAO require- coursework that has been recognized
ments under paragraph (e) of this sec- by the Administrator as coursework
tion and otherwise meets the aero- designed to improve and enhance the
nautical experience requirements of knowledge and skills of a person seek-
this section. ing a career as a professional pilot;
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; (3) Holds a commercial pilot certifi-
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997; cate with an airplane category and in-
Amdt. 61–104, 63 FR 20288, Apr. 23, 1998; Amdt. strument rating if:
61–109, 68 FR 54560, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 61– (i) The required ground training was
124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61–130, 78 completed as part of an approved part
FR 42375, July 15, 2013; Admt. 61–130A, 78 FR
44874, July 25, 2013; Amdt. 61–130B, 78 FR 141 curriculum at the institution of
77573, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR 30278, higher education; and
June 27, 2018] (ii) The required flight training was
completed as part of an approved part
§ 61.160 Aeronautical experience—air- 141 curriculum at the institution of
plane category restricted privileges. higher education or at a part 141 pilot
(a) Except for a person who has been school that has a training agreement
removed from flying status for lack of under § 141.26 of this chapter with the
proficiency or because of a disciplinary institution of higher education; and
action involving aircraft operations, a (4) Presents official transcripts or
U.S. military pilot or former U.S. mili- other documentation acceptable to the
tary pilot may apply for an airline Administrator from the institution of
transport pilot certificate with an air- higher education certifying that the
plane category multiengine class rat- graduate has satisfied the require-
ing or an airline transport pilot certifi- ments in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3)
cate concurrently with an airplane of this section.
type rating with a minimum of 750 (c) A person may apply for an airline
hours of total time as a pilot if the transport pilot certificate with an air-
pilot presents: plane category multiengine class rat-
(1) An official Form DD–214 (Certifi- ing or an airline transport pilot certifi-
cate of Release or Discharge from Ac- cate concurrently with an airplane
tive Duty) indicating that the person type rating with a minimum of 1,250
was honorably discharged from the hours of total time as a pilot if the per-
U.S. Armed Forces or an official U.S. son:
Armed Forces record that shows the (1) Holds an Associate’s degree with
pilot is currently serving in the U.S. an aviation major from an institution

Armed Forces; and of higher education, as defined in § 61.1,
611
§ 61.161 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
that has been issued a letter of author- line transport pilot certificate under
ization by the Administrator under this section.
§ 61.169; (g) An airline transport pilot certifi-
(2) Completes at least 30 semester cate obtained under this section is sub-
credit hours of aviation and aviation- ject to the pilot in command limita-
related coursework that has been rec- tions set forth in § 61.167(b) and must
ognized by the Administrator as contain the following limitation, ‘‘Re-
coursework designed to improve and stricted in accordance with 14 CFR
enhance the knowledge and skills of a 61.167.’’ The pilot is entitled to an air-
person seeking a career as a profes- line transport pilot certificate without
sional pilot; the limitation specified in this para-
(3) Holds a commercial pilot certifi- graph when the applicant presents sat-
cate with an airplane category and in- isfactory evidence of having met the
strument rating if: aeronautical experience requirements
(i) The required ground training was of § 61.159 and the age requirement of
completed as part of an approved part § 61.153(a)(1).
141 curriculum at the institution of (h) An applicant who meets the aero-
higher education; and nautical experience requirements of
(ii) The required flight training was paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d) of this
completed as part of an approved part section is issued an airline transport
141 curriculum at the institution of pilot certificate with the limitation,
higher education or at a part 141 pilot ‘‘Holder does not meet the pilot in
school that has a written training command aeronautical experience re-
agreement under § 141.26 of this chapter quirements of ICAO,’’ as prescribed
with the institution of higher edu- under Article 39 of the Convention on
cation; and International Civil Aviation if the ap-
(4) Presents official transcripts or plicant does not meet the ICAO re-
other documentation acceptable to the quirements contained in Annex 1 ‘‘Per-
Administrator from the institution of sonnel Licensing’’ to the Convention
higher education certifying that the on International Civil Aviation. An ap-
graduate has satisfied the require- plicant is entitled to an airline trans-
ments in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) port pilot certificate without the ICAO
of this section. limitation specified under this para-
(d) A graduate of an institution of graph when the applicant presents sat-
higher education who completes fewer isfactory evidence of having met the
than 60 semester credit hours but at ICAO requirements and otherwise
least 30 credit hours and otherwise sat- meets the aeronautical experience re-
isfies the requirements of paragraph (b) quirements of § 61.159.
may apply for airline transport pilot
certificate with an airplane category [Doc. No. FAA–2010–0100, 78 FR 42375, July 15,
multiengine class rating or an airline 2013]
transport pilot certificate concurrently
§ 61.161 Aeronautical experience:
with an airplane type rating with a Rotorcraft category and helicopter
minimum of 1,250 hours of total time as class rating.
a pilot.
(e) A person who applies for an air- (a) A person who is applying for an
line transport pilot certificate under airline transport pilot certificate with
the total flight times listed in para- a rotorcraft category and helicopter
graphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section class rating, must have at least 1,200
must otherwise meet the aeronautical hours of total time as a pilot that in-
experience requirements of § 61.159, ex- cludes at least:
cept that the person may apply for an (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight
airline transport pilot certificate with time;
200 hours of cross-country flight time. (2) 100 hours of night flight time, of
(f) A person who has 1,500 hours total which 15 hours are in helicopters;
time as a pilot, 200 hours of cross-coun- (3) 200 hours of flight time in heli-
try flight time, and otherwise meets copters, which includes at least 75
the aeronautical experience require- hours as a pilot in command, or as sec-

ments of § 61.159 may apply for an air- ond in command performing the duties
612
of a pilot in command under the super- applicant presents satisfactory evi-

vision of a pilot in command, or any dence of having met the ICAO require-
combination thereof; and ments under paragraph (d) of this sec-
(4) 75 hours of instrument flight time tion and otherwise meets the aero-
in actual or simulated instrument me- nautical experience requirements of
teorological conditions, of which at this section.
least 50 hours are obtained in flight
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
with at least 25 hours in helicopters as Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997;
a pilot in command, or as second in Amdt. 61–104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998; Dock-
command performing the duties of a et FAA–2016–6142, Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR 30279,
pilot in command under the super- June 27, 2018]
vision of a pilot in command, or any
combination thereof. § 61.163 Aeronautical experience: Pow-
(b) Training in a full flight simulator ered-lift category rating.
or flight training device may be cred- (a) A person who is applying for an
ited toward the instrument flight time airline transport pilot certificate with
requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this a powered-lift category rating must
section, subject to the following: have at least 1,500 hours of total time
(1) Training in a full flight simulator as a pilot that includes at least:
or a flight training device must be ac- (1) 500 hours of cross-country flight
complished in a full flight simulator or time;
flight training device that represents a (2) 100 hours of night flight time;
rotorcraft.
(3) 250 hours in a powered-lift as a
(2) Except as provided in paragraph
pilot in command, or as a second in
(b)(3) of this section, an applicant may
command performing the duties of a
receive credit for not more than a total
pilot in command under the super-
of 25 hours of simulated instrument
vision of a pilot in command, or any
time in a full flight simulator and
combination thereof, which includes at
flight training device.
least—
(3) A maximum of 50 hours of train-
(i) 100 hours of cross-country flight
ing in a full flight simulator or flight
time; and
training device may be credited toward
the instrument flight time require- (ii) 25 hours of night flight time.
ments of paragraph (a)(4) of this sec- (4) 75 hours of instrument flight time
tion if the aeronautical experience is in actual or simulated instrument con-
accomplished in an approved course ditions, subject to the following:
conducted by a training center certifi- (i) Except as provided in paragraph
cated under part 142 of this chapter. (a)(4)(ii) of this section, an applicant
(c) Flight time logged under may not receive credit for more than a
§ 61.159(c) may be counted toward the total of 25 hours of simulated instru-
1,200 hours of total time as a pilot re- ment time in a flight simulator or
quired by paragraph (a) of this section flight training device.
and the flight time requirements of (ii) A maximum of 50 hours of train-
paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (4) of this ing in a flight simulator or flight train-
section, except for the specific heli- ing device may be credited toward the
copter flight time requirements. instrument flight time requirements of
(d) An applicant who credits time paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the
under paragraph (c) of this section is training was accomplished in a course
issued an airline transport pilot certifi- conducted by a training center certifi-
cate with the limitation, ‘‘Holder does cated under part 142 of this chapter.
not meet the pilot in command aero- (iii) Training in a flight simulator or
nautical experience requirements of flight training device must be accom-
ICAO,’’ as prescribed under Article 39 plished in a flight simulator or flight
of the Convention on International training device that represents a pow-
Civil Aviation. ered-lift.
(e) An applicant is entitled to an air- (b) Not more than 100 hours of the
line transport pilot certificate without total aeronautical experience require-
the ICAO limitation specified under ments of paragraph (a) of this section
paragraph (d) of this section when the may be obtained in a flight simulator
613
§ 61.165 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
or flight training device that rep- (1) Meet the eligibility requirements
resents a powered-lift, provided the of § 61.153 of this part;
aeronautical experience was obtained (2) After July 31, 2014, successfully
in an approved course conducted by a complete the airline transport pilot
training center certificated under part certification training program speci-
142 of this chapter. fied in § 61.156;
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
(3) Pass a knowledge test for an air-
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997; plane category multiengine class rat-
Amdt. 61–104, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998] ing or type rating on the aeronautical
knowledge areas of § 61.155(c);
§ 61.165 Additional aircraft category (4) Comply with the requirements in
and class ratings. § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate;
(a) Rotorcraft category and helicopter (5) Meet the aeronautical experience
class rating. A person applying for an requirements of § 61.159 or § 61.160; and
airline transport certificate with a (6) Pass the practical test on the
rotorcraft category and helicopter areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(2) of
class rating who holds an airline trans- this part.
port pilot certificate with another air- (d) Powered-lift category. A person ap-
craft category rating must: plying for an airline transport pilot
(1) Meet the eligibility requirements certificate with a powered-lift category
of § 61.153 of this part; rating who holds an airline transport
(2) Pass a knowledge test on the aero- certificate with another aircraft cat-
nautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) egory rating must:
of this part; (1) Meet the eligibility requirements
(3) Comply with the requirements in of § 61.153 of this part;
§ 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate; (2) Pass a required knowledge test on
(4) Meet the applicable aeronautical the aeronautical knowledge areas of
experience requirements of § 61.161 of § 61.155(c) of this part;
this part; and (3) Comply with the requirements in
(5) Pass the practical test on the § 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate;
areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(4) of (4) Meet the applicable aeronautical
this part. experience requirements of § 61.163 of
(b) Airplane category rating with a sin- this part; and
gle-engine class rating. A person apply- (5) Pass the required practical test on
ing for an airline transport certificate the areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(3) of
with an airplane category and single- this part.
engine class rating who holds an air- (e) Additional class rating within the
line transport pilot certificate with an- same aircraft category. Except as pro-
other aircraft category rating must: vided in paragraph (f) of this section, a
(1) Meet the eligibility requirements person applying for an airline trans-
of § 61.153 of this part; port pilot certificate with an addi-
(2) Pass a knowledge test on the aero- tional class rating who holds an airline
nautical knowledge areas of § 61.155(c) transport certificate in the same air-
of this part; craft category must—
(3) Comply with the requirements in (1) Meet the eligibility requirements
§ 61.157(b) of this part, if appropriate; of § 61.153, except paragraph (g) of that
(4) Meet the applicable aeronautical section;
experience requirements of § 61.159 of (2) Comply with the requirements in
this part; and § 61.157(b) of this part, if applicable;
(5) Pass the practical test on the (3) Meet the applicable aeronautical
areas of operation of § 61.157(e)(1) of experience requirements of subpart G
this part. of this part; and
(c) Airplane category rating with a mul- (4) Pass a practical test on the areas
tiengine class rating. A person applying of operation of § 61.157(e) appropriate to
for an airline transport certificate with the aircraft rating sought.
an airplane category and multiengine (f) Adding a multiengine class rating or
class rating who holds an airline trans- airplane type rating to an airline trans-
port certificate with another aircraft port pilot certificate with a single engine
category rating must: class rating. A person applying to add a
614
multiengine class rating or airplane (2) A person who holds an airline

type rating to an airline transport transport pilot certificate and has met
pilot certificate with an airplane cat- the aeronautical experience require-
egory single engine class rating must— ments of § 61.159 or § 61.161, and the age
(1) Meet the eligibility requirements requirements of § 61.153(a)(1) of this
of § 61.153; part may instruct—
(2) After July 31, 2014, pass a required (i) Other pilots in air transportation
knowledge test on the aeronautical service in aircraft of the category,
knowledge areas of § 61.155(c), as appli- class, and type, as applicable, for which
cable to multiengine airplanes; unless the airline transport pilot is rated and
a pilot can present valid airline trans- endorse the logbook or other training
port pilot knowledge test results from record of the person to whom training
a test taken prior to August 1, 2014. has been given;
(3) Comply with the requirements in (ii) In flight simulators, and flight
§ 61.157(b), if applicable; training devices representing the air-
(4) Meet the applicable aeronautical craft referenced in paragraph (a)(2)(i)
experience requirements of § 61.159; and of this section, when instructing under
(5) Pass a practical test on the areas the provisions of this section and en-
of operation of § 61.157(e)(2).
dorse the logbook or other training
(g) Category class ratings for the oper-
record of the person to whom training
ation of aircraft with experimental certifi-
has been given;
cates. Notwithstanding the provisions
of paragraphs (a) through (f) of this (iii) Only as provided in this section,
section, a person holding an airline except that an airline transport pilot
transport certificate may apply for a who also holds a flight instructor cer-
category and class rating limited to a tificate can exercise the instructor
specific make and model of experi- privileges under subpart H of this part
mental aircraft, provided— for which he or she is rated; and
(1) The person has logged at least 5 (iv) In an aircraft, only if the aircraft
hours flight time while acting as pilot has functioning dual controls, when in-
in command in the same category, structing under the provisions of this
class, make, and model of aircraft that section.
has been issued an experimental cer- (3) Excluding briefings and
tificate; debriefings, an airline transport pilot
(2) The person has received a logbook may not instruct in aircraft, flight
endorsement from an authorized in- simulators, and flight training devices
structor who has determined that he or under this section—
she is proficient to act as pilot in com- (i) For more than 8 hours in any 24-
mand of the same category, class, consecutive-hour period; or
make, and model of aircraft for which (ii) For more than 36 hours in any 7-
application is made; and consecutive-day period.
(3) The flight time specified in para- (4) An airline transport pilot may not
graph (g)(1) of this section must be instruct in Category II or Category III
logged between September 1, 2004 and operations unless he or she has been
August 31, 2005. trained and successfully tested under
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Category II or Category III operations,
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40906, July 30, 1997; as applicable.
Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; (b) Limitations. A person who holds an
Amdt. 61–130, 78 FR 42376, July 15, 2013; airline transport pilot certificate and
Amdt. 61–130B, 78 FR 77574, Dec. 24, 2013;
Docket FAA–2010–0100, Amdt. 61–130C, 81 FR
has not satisfied the age requirement
2, Jan. 4, 2016] of § 61.153(a)(1) and the aeronautical ex-
perience requirements of § 61.159 may
§ 61.167 Airline transport pilot privi- not:
leges and limitations. (1) Act as pilot in command in oper-
(a) Privileges. (1) A person who holds ations conducted under part 121,
an airline transport pilot certificate is § 91.1053(a)(2)(i), or § 135.243(a)(1) of this
entitled to the same privileges as a chapter, or
person who holds a commercial pilot (2) Serve as second in command in

certificate with an instrument rating. flag or supplemental operations in part
615
§ 61.169 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
121 of this chapter requiring three or (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and
more pilots. understand the English language. If the
[Doc. No. FAA–2010–0100, 78 FR 42376, July 15, applicant is unable to meet one of
2013, as amended by Amdt. 61–130B, 78 FR these requirements due to medical rea-
77574, Dec. 24, 2013; Amdt. 61–130C, 81 FR 2, sons, then the Administrator may
Jan. 4, 2016] place such operating limitations on
that applicant’s flight instructor cer-
§ 61.169 Letters of authorization for in- tificate as are necessary;
stitutions of higher education.
(c) Hold either a commercial pilot
(a) An institution of higher education certificate or airline transport pilot
that is accredited, as defined in § 61.1, certificate with:
may apply for a letter of authorization (1) An aircraft category and class rat-
for the purpose of certifying its grading that is appropriate to the flight in-
uates for an airline transport pilot cer- structor rating sought; and
tificate under the academic and aero-
(2) An instrument rating, or privi-
nautical experience requirements in
leges on that person’s pilot certificate
§ 61.160. The application must be in a
that are appropriate to the flight in-
form and manner acceptable to the Ad-
structor rating sought, if applying
ministrator.
(b) An institution of higher education for—
must comply with the provisions of the (i) A flight instructor certificate with
letter of authorization and may not an airplane category and single-engine
certify a graduate unless it determines class rating;
that the graduate has satisfied the re- (ii) A flight instructor certificate
quirements of § 61.160, as appropriate. with an airplane category and multien-
(c) The Administrator may rescind or gine class rating;
amend a letter of authorization if the (iii) A flight instructor certificate
Administrator determines that the in- with a powered-lift rating; or
stitution of higher education is not (iv) A flight instructor certificate
complying or is unable to comply with with an instrument rating.
the provisions of the letter of author- (d) Receive a logbook endorsement
ization. from an authorized instructor on the
[Doc. No. FAA–2010–0100, 78 FR 42377, July 15, fundamentals of instructing listed in
2013] § 61.185 of this part appropriate to the
required knowledge test;
§§ 61.170–69.171 [Reserved] (e) Pass a knowledge test on the
areas listed in § 61.185(a)(1) of this part,
Subpart H—Flight Instructors Other unless the applicant:
than Flight Instructors With a (1) Holds a flight instructor certifi-
Sport Pilot Rating cate or ground instructor certificate
issued under this part;
§ 61.181 Applicability. (2) Holds a teacher’s certificate
This subpart prescribes the require- issued by a State, county, city, or mu-
ments for the issuance of flight in- nicipality that authorizes the person to
structor certificates and ratings (ex- teach at an educational level of the 7th
cept for flight instructor certificates grade or higher; or
with a sport pilot rating), the condi- (3) Is employed as a teacher at an ac-
tions under which those certificates credited college or university.
and ratings are necessary, and the lim- (f) Pass a knowledge test on the aero-
itations on those certificates and rat- nautical knowledge areas listed in
ings. § 61.185(a)(2) and (a)(3) of this part that
[Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44869, July are appropriate to the flight instructor
27, 2004] rating sought;
(g) Receive a logbook endorsement
§ 61.183 Eligibility requirements. from an authorized instructor on the
To be eligible for a flight instructor areas of operation listed in § 61.187(b) of
certificate or rating a person must: this part, appropriate to the flight in-
(a) Be at least 18 years of age; structor rating sought;
616
(h) Pass the required practical test (k) Comply with the appropriate sec-
that is appropriate to the flight in- tions of this part that apply to the
structor rating sought in an: flight instructor rating sought.
(1) Aircraft that is representative of [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
the category and class of aircraft for Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997;
the aircraft rating sought; or Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009]
(2) Flight simulator or approved
§ 61.185 Aeronautical knowledge.
flight training device that is represent-
ative of the category and class of air- (a) A person who is applying for a
craft for the rating sought, and used in flight instructor certificate must re-
accordance with a course at a training ceive and log ground training from an
center certificated under part 142 of authorized instructor on:
(1) Except as provided in paragraph
this chapter.
(b) of this section, the fundamentals of
(i) Accomplish the following for a instructing, including:
flight instructor certificate with an (i) The learning process;
airplane or a glider rating: (ii) Elements of effective teaching;
(1) Receive a logbook endorsement (iii) Student evaluation and testing;
from an authorized instructor indi- (iv) Course development;
cating that the applicant is competent (v) Lesson planning; and
and possesses instructional proficiency (vi) Classroom training techniques.
in stall awareness, spin entry, spins, (2) The aeronautical knowledge areas
and spin recovery procedures after pro- for a recreational, private, and com-
viding the applicant with flight train- mercial pilot certificate applicable to
ing in those training areas in an air- the aircraft category for which flight
plane or glider, as appropriate, that is instructor privileges are sought; and
certificated for spins; and (3) The aeronautical knowledge areas
for the instrument rating applicable to
(2) Demonstrate instructional pro-
the category for which instrument
ficiency in stall awareness, spin entry,
flight instructor privileges are sought.
spins, and spin recovery procedures. (b) The following applicants do not
However, upon presentation of the en- need to comply with paragraph (a)(1) of
dorsement specified in paragraph (i)(1) this section:
of this section an examiner may accept (1) The holder of a flight instructor
that endorsement as satisfactory evi- certificate or ground instructor certifi-
dence of instructional proficiency in cate issued under this part;
stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and (2) The holder of a current teacher’s
spin recovery procedures for the prac- certificate issued by a State, county,
tical test, provided that the practical city, or municipality that authorizes
test is not a retest as a result of the ap- the person to teach at an educational
plicant failing the previous test for de- level of the 7th grade or higher; or
ficiencies in the knowledge or skill of (3) A person employed as a teacher at
stall awareness, spin entry, spins, or an accredited college or university.
spin recovery instructional procedures. [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
If the retest is a result of deficiencies Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]
in the ability of an applicant to dem-
onstrate knowledge or skill of stall § 61.187 Flight proficiency.
awareness, spin entry, spins, or spin re- (a) General. A person who is applying
covery instructional procedures, the for a flight instructor certificate must
examiner must test the person on stall receive and log flight and ground train-
awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin ing from an authorized instructor on
recovery instructional procedures in an the areas of operation listed in this
airplane or glider, as appropriate, that section that apply to the flight instruc-
tor rating sought. The applicant’s log-
is certificated for spins;
book must contain an endorsement
(j) Log at least 15 hours as pilot in from an authorized instructor certi-
command in the category and class of fying that the person is proficient to
aircraft that is appropriate to the pass a practical test on those areas of

flight instructor rating sought; and operation.
617
§ 61.187 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(b) Areas of operation. (1) For an air- (i) Fundamentals of instructing;

plane category rating with a single-en- (ii) Technical subject areas;
gine class rating: (iii) Preflight preparation;
(i) Fundamentals of instructing; (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver
(ii) Technical subject areas; to be performed in flight;
(iii) Preflight preparation; (v) Preflight procedures;
(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver (vi) Airport operations;
to be performed in flight; (vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-
(v) Preflight procedures; arounds;
(vi) Airport and seaplane base oper- (viii) Fundamentals of flight;
ations; (ix) Performance maneuvers;
(vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go- (x) Flight at slow airspeeds;
arounds; (xi) Ground reference maneuvers;
(viii) Fundamentals of flight; (xii) Emergency operations; and
(ix) Performance maneuvers; (xiii) Postflight procedures.
(x) Ground reference maneuvers; (5) For a powered-lift category rat-
(xi) Slow flight, stalls, and spins; ing:
(xii) Basic instrument maneuvers; (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
(xiii) Emergency operations; and (ii) Technical subject areas;
(xiv) Postflight procedures. (iii) Preflight preparation;
(2) For an airplane category rating (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver
with a multiengine class rating: to be performed in flight;
(i) Fundamentals of instructing; (v) Preflight procedures;
(ii) Technical subject areas; (vi) Airport and heliport operations;
(iii) Preflight preparation; (vii) Hovering maneuvers;
(viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go-
(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver
arounds;
to be performed in flight;
(ix) Fundamentals of flight;
(v) Preflight procedures;
(x) Performance maneuvers;
(vi) Airport and seaplane base oper-
(xi) Ground reference maneuvers;
ations;
(xii) Slow flight and stalls;
(vii) Takeoffs, landings, and go- (xiii) Basic instrument maneuvers;
arounds; (xiv) Emergency operations;
(viii) Fundamentals of flight; (xv) Special operations; and
(ix) Performance maneuvers; (xvi) Postflight procedures.
(x) Ground reference maneuvers; (6) For a glider category rating:
(xi) Slow flight and stalls; (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
(xii) Basic instrument maneuvers; (ii) Technical subject areas;
(xiii) Emergency operations; (iii) Preflight preparation;
(xiv) Multiengine operations; and (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver
(xv) Postflight procedures. to be performed in flight;
(3) For a rotorcraft category rating (v) Preflight procedures;
with a helicopter class rating: (vi) Airport and gliderport oper-
(i) Fundamentals of instructing; ations;
(ii) Technical subject areas; (vii) Launches and landings;
(iii) Preflight preparation; (viii) Fundamentals of flight;
(iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver (ix) Performance speeds;
to be performed in flight; (x) Soaring techniques;
(v) Preflight procedures; (xi) Performance maneuvers;
(vi) Airport and heliport operations; (xii) Slow flight, stalls, and spins;
(vii) Hovering maneuvers; (xiii) Emergency operations; and
(viii) Takeoffs, landings, and go- (xiv) Postflight procedures.
arounds; (7) For an instrument rating with the
(ix) Fundamentals of flight; appropriate aircraft category and class
(x) Performance maneuvers; rating:
(xi) Emergency operations; (i) Fundamentals of instructing;
(xii) Special operations; and (ii) Technical subject areas;
(xiii) Postflight procedures. (iii) Preflight preparation;
(4) For a rotorcraft category rating (iv) Preflight lesson on a maneuver

with a gyroplane class rating: to be performed in flight;
618
(v) Air traffic control clearances and tificate is not required to pass the
procedures; knowledge test on the areas listed in
(vi) Flight by reference to instru- § 61.185(a)(1) of this part.
ments; [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
(vii) Navigation aids; Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997]
(viii) Instrument approach proce-
dures; § 61.193 Flight instructor privileges.
(ix) Emergency operations; and
(a) A person who holds a flight in-
(x) Postflight procedures.
structor certificate is authorized with-
(c) The flight training required by
in the limitations of that person’s
this section may be accomplished:
flight instructor certificate and ratings
(1) In an aircraft that is representa-
to train and issue endorsements that
tive of the category and class of air-
are required for:
craft for the rating sought; or
(1) A student pilot certificate;
(2) In a flight simulator or flight
(2) A pilot certificate;
training device representative of the
(3) A flight instructor certificate;
category and class of aircraft for the
(4) A ground instructor certificate;
rating sought, and used in accordance
(5) An aircraft rating;
with an approved course at a training (6) An instrument rating;
center certificated under part 142 of (7) A flight review, operating privi-
this chapter. lege, or recency of experience require-
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; ment of this part;
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997; (8) A practical test; and
Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009] (9) A knowledge test.
(b) A person who holds a flight in-
§ 61.189 Flight instructor records. structor certificate is authorized, in a
(a) A flight instructor must sign the form and manner acceptable to the Ad-
logbook of each person to whom that ministrator, to:
instructor has given flight training or (1) Accept an application for a stu-
ground training. dent pilot certificate or, for an appli-
(b) A flight instructor must maintain cant who holds a pilot certificate
a record in a logbook or a separate doc- (other than a student pilot certificate)
ument that contains the following: issued under part 61 of this chapter and
(1) The name of each person whose meets the flight review requirements
logbook that instructor has endorsed specified in § 61.56, a remote pilot cer-
for solo flight privileges, and the date tificate with a small UAS rating;
of the endorsement; and (2) Verify the identity of the appli-
(2) The name of each person that in- cant; and
structor has endorsed for a knowledge (3) Verify that an applicant for a stu-
test or practical test, and the record dent pilot certificate meets the eligi-
shall also indicate the kind of test, the bility requirements in § 61.83 or an ap-
date, and the results. plicant for a remote pilot certificate
(c) Each flight instructor must retain with a small UAS rating meets the eli-
the records required by this section for gibility requirements in § 107.61 of this
at least 3 years. chapter.
[Docket No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as [Docket FAA–2010–1127, Amdt. 61–135, 81 FR
amended by Docket FAA–2010–1127, Amdt. 61– 1306, Jan. 12, 2016, as amended by Docket
135, 81 FR 1306, Jan. 12, 2016] FAA–2015–0150, Amdt. 61–137, 81 FR 42208,
June 28, 2016]
§ 61.191 Additional flight instructor
ratings. § 61.195 Flight instructor limitations
(a) A person who applies for an addi- and qualifications.
tional flight instructor rating on a A person who holds a flight instruc-
flight instructor certificate must meet tor certificate is subject to the fol-
the eligibility requirements listed in lowing limitations:
§ 61.183 of this part that apply to the (a) Hours of training. In any 24-con-
flight instructor rating sought. secutive-hour period, a flight instruc-
(b) A person who applies for an addi- tor may not conduct more than 8 hours
tional rating on a flight instructor cer- of flight training.
619
§ 61.195 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(b) Aircraft ratings. Except as pro- any limitations listed in the student’s
vided in paragraph (c) of this section, a logbook that the instructor considers
flight instructor may not conduct necessary for the safety of the flight.
flight training in any aircraft unless (2) Student pilot’s logbook for a solo
the flight instructor: cross-country flight, unless that flight
(1) Holds a flight instructor certifi- instructor has determined the stu-
cate with the applicable category and dent’s flight preparation, planning,
class rating; equipment, and proposed procedures
(2) Holds a pilot certificate with the are adequate for the proposed flight
applicable category and class rating; under the existing conditions and with-
and in any limitations listed in the logbook
(3) Meets the requirements of para- that the instructor considers necessary
graph (e) of this section, if applicable. for the safety of the flight;
(c) Instrument rating. A flight instruc- (3) Student pilot’s logbook for solo
tor may conduct instrument training flight in a Class B airspace area or at
for the issuance of an instrument rat- an airport within Class B airspace un-
ing, a type rating not limited to VFR, less that flight instructor has—
or the instrument training required for (i) Given that student ground and
commercial pilot and airline transport flight training in that Class B airspace
pilot certificates if the following re- or at that airport; and
quirements are met: (ii) Determined that the student is
(1) Except as provided in paragraph proficient to operate the aircraft safe-
(c)(2) of this section, the flight instruc- ly.
tor must hold an instrument rating ap-
(4) Logbook of a recreational pilot,
propriate to the aircraft used for the
unless that flight instructor has—
instrument training on his or her flight
instructor certificate, and— (i) Given that pilot the ground and
(i) Meet the requirements of para- flight training required by this part;
graph (b) of this section; or and
(ii) Hold a commercial pilot certifi- (ii) Determined that the recreational
cate or airline transport pilot certifi- pilot is proficient to operate the air-
cate with the appropriate category and craft safely.
class ratings for the aircraft in which (5) Logbook of a pilot for a flight re-
the instrument training is conducted view, unless that instructor has con-
provided the pilot receiving instrument ducted a review of that pilot in accord-
training holds a pilot certificate with ance with the requirements of § 61.56(a)
category and class ratings appropriate of this part; or
to the aircraft in which the instrument (6) Logbook of a pilot for an instru-
training is being conducted. ment proficiency check, unless that in-
(2) If the flight instructor is con- structor has tested that pilot in ac-
ducting the instrument training in a cordance with the requirements of
multiengine airplane, the flight in- § 61.57(d) of this part.
structor must hold an instrument rat- (e) Training in an aircraft that requires
ing appropriate to the aircraft used for a type rating. A flight instructor may
the instrument training on his or her not give flight instruction, including
flight instructor certificate and meet instrument training, in an aircraft
the requirements of paragraph (b) of that requires the pilot in command to
this section. hold a type rating unless the flight in-
(d) Limitations on endorsements. A structor holds a type rating for that
flight instructor may not endorse a: aircraft on his or her pilot certificate.
(1) Student pilot’s logbook for solo (f) Training received in a multiengine
flight privileges, unless that flight in- airplane, a helicopter, or a powered-lift. A
structor has— flight instructor may not give training
(i) Given that student the flight required for the issuance of a certifi-
training required for solo flight privi- cate or rating in a multiengine air-
leges required by this part; and plane, a helicopter, or a powered-lift
(ii) Determined that the student is unless that flight instructor has at
prepared to conduct the flight safely least 5 flight hours of pilot-in-com-

under known circumstances, subject to mand time in the specific make and
620
model of multiengine airplane, heli- hours of flight training as a flight in-

copter, or powered-lift, as appropriate. structor.
(g) Position in aircraft and required (3) A flight instructor who serves as a
pilot stations for providing flight training. flight instructor in an FAA-approved
(1) A flight instructor must perform all course for the issuance of a flight in-
training from in an aircraft that com- structor rating must hold a flight in-
plies with the requirements of § 91.109 structor certificate with the appro-
of this chapter. priate rating and pass the required ini-
(2) A flight instructor who provides tial and recurrent flight instructor pro-
flight training for a pilot certificate or ficiency tests, in accordance with the
rating issued under this part must pro- requirements of the part under which
vide that flight training in an aircraft the FAA-approved course is conducted,
that meets the following require- and must—
ments—
(i) Meet the requirements of para-
(i) The aircraft must have at least
graph (h)(2) of this section; or
two pilot stations and be of the same
category, class, and type, if appro- (ii) Have trained and endorsed at
priate, that applies to the pilot certifi- least five applicants for a practical test
cate or rating sought. for a pilot certificate, flight instructor
(ii) For single-place aircraft, the pre- certificate, ground instructor certifi-
solo flight training must have been cate, or an additional rating, and at
provided in an aircraft that has two least 80 percent of those applicants
pilot stations and is of the same cat- passed that test on their first attempt;
egory, class, and type, if appropriate. and
(h) Qualifications of the flight instruc- (A) Given at least 400 hours of flight
tor for training first-time flight instructor training as a flight instructor for
applicants. (1) The ground training pro- training in an airplane, a rotorcraft, or
vided to an initial applicant for a flight for a powered-lift rating; or
instructor certificate must be given by (B) Given at least 100 hours of flight
an authorized instructor who— training as a flight instructor, for
(i) Holds a ground or flight instructor training in a glider rating.
certificate with the appropriate rating, (i) Prohibition against self-endorse-
has held that certificate for at least 24 ments. A flight instructor shall not
calendar months, and has given at make any self-endorsement for a cer-
least 40 hours of ground training; or tificate, rating, flight review, author-
(ii) Holds a ground or flight instruc- ization, operating privilege, practical
tor certificate with the appropriate test, or knowledge test that is required
rating, and has given at least 100 hours by this part.
of ground training in an FAA-approved (j) Additional qualifications required to
course. give training in Category II or Category
(2) Except for an instructor who III operations. A flight instructor may
meets the requirements of paragraph not give training in Category II or Cat-
(h)(3)(ii) of this section, a flight in-
egory III operations unless the flight
structor who provides training to an
instructor has been trained and tested
initial applicant for a flight instructor
in Category II or Category III oper-
certificate must—
ations, pursuant to § 61.67 or § 61.68 of
(i) Meet the eligibility requirements
this part, as applicable.
prescribed in § 61.183 of this part;
(ii) Hold the appropriate flight in- (k) Training for night vision goggle op-
structor certificate and rating; erations. A flight instructor may not
(iii) Have held a flight instructor cer- conduct training for night vision gog-
tificate for at least 24 months; gle operations unless the flight instruc-
(iv) For training in preparation for tor:
an airplane, rotorcraft, or powered-lift (1) Has a pilot and flight instructor
rating, have given at least 200 hours of certificate with the applicable cat-
flight training as a flight instructor; egory and class rating for the training;
and (2) If appropriate, has a type rating
(v) For training in preparation for a on his or her pilot certificate for the
glider rating, have given at least 80 aircraft;
621
§ 61.197 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(3) Is pilot in command qualified for pired may renew that flight instructor
night vision goggle operations, in ac- certificate by—
cordance with § 61.31(k); (1) Passing a practical test for—
(4) Has logged 100 night vision goggle (i) One of the ratings listed on the
operations as the sole manipulator of current flight instructor certificate; or
the controls; (ii) An additional flight instructor
(5) Has logged 20 night vision goggle rating; or
operations as the sole manipulator of (2) Submitting a completed and
the controls in the category and class, signed application with the FAA and
and type of aircraft, if aircraft class satisfactorily completing one of the
and type is appropriate, that the train- following renewal requirements—
ing will be given in; (i) A record of training students
(6) Is qualified to act as pilot in com- showing that, during the preceding 24
mand in night vision goggle operations calendar months, the flight instructor
under § 61.57(f) or (g); and has endorsed at least 5 students for a
(7) Has a logbook endorsement from practical test for a certificate or rating
an FAA Aviation Safety Inspector or a and at least 80 percent of those stu-
person who is authorized by the FAA to dents passed that test on the first at-
provide that logbook endorsement that tempt.
states the flight instructor is author- (ii) A record showing that, within the
ized to perform the night vision goggle preceding 24 calendar months, the
pilot in command qualification and re- flight instructor has served as a com-
cent flight experience requirements pany check pilot, chief flight instruc-
under § 61.31(k) and § 61.57(f) and (g). tor, company check airman, or flight
(l) Training on control and maneu- instructor in a part 121 or part 135 oper-
vering an aircraft solely by reference to ation, or in a position involving the
the instruments. A flight instructor may regular evaluation of pilots.
conduct flight training on control and (iii) A graduation certificate showing
maneuvering an airplane solely by ref- that, within the preceding 3 calendar
erence to the flight instruments, pro- months, the person has successfully
vided the flight instructor— completed an approved flight instruc-
(1) Holds a flight instructor certifi- tor refresher course consisting of
cate with the applicable category and ground training or flight training, or a
class rating; or combination of both.
(2) Holds an instrument rating appro- (iv) A record showing that, within
priate to the aircraft used for the the preceding 24 months from the
training on his or her flight instructor month of application, the flight in-
certificate, and holds a commercial structor passed an official U.S. Armed
pilot certificate or airline transport Forces military instructor pilot or
pilot certificate with the appropriate pilot examiner proficiency check in an
category and class ratings for the air- aircraft for which the military instruc-
craft in which the training is con- tor already holds a rating or in an air-
ducted provided the pilot receiving the craft for an additional rating.
training holds a pilot certificate with (b) The expiration month of a re-
category and class ratings appropriate newed flight instructor certificate
to the aircraft in which the training is shall be 24 calendar months from—
being conducted. (1) The month the renewal require-
ments of paragraph (a) of this section
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997;
Amdt. 61–103, 62 FR 40907, July 30, 1997;
are accomplished; or
Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42561, Aug. 21, 2009; Dock- (2) The month of expiration of the
et FAA–2010–1127, Amdt. 61–135, 81 FR 1307, current flight instructor certificate
Jan. 12, 2016; Docket FAA–2016–6142, Amdt. provided—
61–142, 83 FR 30729, June 27, 2018] (i) The renewal requirements of para-
graph (a) of this section are accom-
§ 61.197 Renewal requirements for plished within the 3 calendar months
flight instructor certification. preceding the expiration month of the
(a) A person who holds a flight in- current flight instructor certificate,
structor certificate that has not ex- and
622
(ii) If the renewal is accomplished be exchanged for a similar rating or a

under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this sec- flight instructor certificate.
tion, the approved flight instructor re- (2) The holder of a flight instructor
fresher course must be completed with- rating or a limited flight instructor
in the 3 calendar months preceding the rating on a pilot certificate may be
expiration month of the current flight issued a flight instructor certificate
instructor certificate. with the current ratings, but only if
(c) The practical test required by the person passes the required knowl-
paragraph (a)(1) of this section may be edge and practical test prescribed in
accomplished in a full flight simulator this subpart for the issuance of the cur-
or flight training device if the test is rent flight instructor certificate and
accomplished pursuant to an approved rating.
course conducted by a training center (c) Certain military instructors and ex-
certificated under part 142 of this chap- aminers. The holder of an expired flight
ter. instructor certificate issued prior to
October 20, 2009, may apply for rein-
[Doc. No. 25910, 63 FR 20289, Apr. 23, 1998, as
statement of that certificate by pre-
21, 2009; Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR 30279, June 27, senting the following:
2018] (1) A record showing that, since the
date the flight instructor certificate
§ 61.199 Reinstatement requirements was issued, the person passed a U.S.
of an expired flight instructor cer- Armed Forces instructor pilot or pilot
tificate. examiner proficiency check for an ad-
(a) Flight instructor certificates. The ditional military rating; and
holder of an expired flight instructor (2) A knowledge test report that
certificate who has not complied with shows the person passed a knowledge
the flight instructor renewal require- test on the aeronautical knowledge
ments of § 61.197 may reinstate that areas listed under § 61.185(a) appro-
flight instructor certificate and ratings priate to the flight instructor rating
by filing a completed and signed appli- sought and the knowledge test was
cation with the FAA and satisfactorily passed within the preceding 24 calendar
completing one of the following rein- months prior to the month of applica-
statement requirements: tion.
(1) A flight instructor certification (d) Expiration date. The requirements
practical test, as prescribed by of paragraph (c) of this section will ex-
§ 61.183(h), for one of the ratings held on pire on August 26, 2019.
the expired flight instructor certifi- [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as
cate. amended by Amdt. 61–104, 63 FR 20289, Apr.
(2) A flight instructor certification 23, 1998; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21,
practical test for an additional rating. 2009; Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR 30279, June 27, 2018]
(3) For military instructor pilots,
provide a record showing that, within § 61.201 [Reserved]
the preceding 6 calendar months from
the date of application for reinstate- Subpart I—Ground Instructors
ment, the person—
(i) Passed a U.S. Armed Forces in- § 61.211 Applicability.
structor pilot or pilot examiner pro- This subpart prescribes the require-
ficiency check; or ments for the issuance of ground in-
(ii) Completed a U.S. Armed Forces’ structor certificates and ratings, the
instructor pilot or pilot examiner conditions under which those certifi-
training course and received an addi- cates and ratings are necessary, and
tional aircraft rating qualification as a the limitations upon those certificates
military instructor pilot or pilot exam- and ratings.
iner that is appropriate to the flight
instructor rating sought. § 61.213 Eligibility requirements.
(b) Flight instructor ratings. (1) A (a) To be eligible for a ground in-
flight instructor rating or a limited structor certificate or rating a person
flight instructor rating on a pilot cer- must:

tificate is no longer valid and may not (1) Be at least 18 years of age;
623
§ 61.215 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(2) Be able to read, write, speak, and (3) A recommendation for a knowl-
understand the English language. If the edge test required for the issuance of a
applicant is unable to meet one of sport pilot certificate, recreational
these requirements due to medical rea- pilot certificate, or private pilot cer-
sons, then the Administrator may tificate under this part.
place such operating limitations on (b) A person who holds an advanced
that applicant’s ground instructor cer- ground instructor rating is authorized
tificate as are necessary; to provide:
(3) Except as provided in paragraph (1) Ground training on the aero-
(b) of this section, pass a knowledge nautical knowledge areas required for
test on the fundamentals of instructing the issuance of any certificate or rat-
to include— ing under this part except for the aero-
(i) The learning process; nautical knowledge areas required for
(ii) Elements of effective teaching; an instrument rating.
(iii) Student evaluation and testing; (2) The ground training required for
(iv) Course development; any flight review except for the train-
(v) Lesson planning; and ing required for an instrument rating.
(vi) Classroom training techniques. (3) A recommendation for a knowl-
(4) Pass a knowledge test on the aero- edge test required for the issuance of
nautical knowledge areas in— any certificate or rating under this
part except for an instrument rating.
(i) For a basic ground instructor rat-
(c) A person who holds an instrument
ing §§ 61.97, 61.105, and 61.309;
ground instructor rating is authorized
(ii) For an advanced ground instruc-
to provide:
tor rating §§ 61.97, 61.105, 61.125, 61.155,
(1) Ground training in the aero-
and 61.309; and
nautical knowledge areas required for
(iii) For an instrument ground in-
the issuance of an instrument rating
structor rating, § 61.65.
under this part;
(b) The knowledge test specified in (2) Ground training required for an
paragraph (a)(3) of this section is not instrument proficiency check; and
required if the applicant: (3) A recommendation for a knowl-
(1) Holds a ground instructor certifi- edge test required for the issuance of
cate or flight instructor certificate an instrument rating under this part.
issued under this part; (d) A person who holds a ground in-
(2) Holds a teacher’s certificate structor certificate is authorized, with-
issued by a State, county, city, or mu- in the limitations of the ratings on the
nicipality that authorizes the person to ground instructor certificate, to en-
teach at an educational level of the 7th dorse the logbook or other training
grade or higher; or record of a person to whom the holder
(3) Is employed as a teacher at an ac- has provided the training or rec-
credited college or university. ommendation specified in paragraphs
[Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as (a) through (c) of this section.
amended by Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44869, July [Doc. No. 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997, as
27, 2004; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21, amended by Amdt. 61–110, 69 FR 44869, July
2009] 27, 2004; Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR 42562, Aug. 21,
2009]
§ 61.215 Ground instructor privileges.
(a) A person who holds a basic ground § 61.217 Recent experience require-
instructor rating is authorized to pro- ments.
vide— The holder of a ground instructor
(1) Ground training in the aero- certificate may not perform the duties
nautical knowledge areas required for of a ground instructor unless the per-
the issuance of a sport pilot certificate, son can show that one of the following
recreational pilot certificate, private occurred during the preceding 12 cal-
pilot certificate, or associated ratings endar months:
under this part; (a) Employment or activity as a
(2) Ground training required for a ground instructor giving pilot, flight
sport pilot, recreational pilot, and pri- instructor, or ground instructor train-
vate pilot flight review; and ing;
624
(b) Employment or activity as a (b) Other provisions of this part

flight instructor giving pilot, flight in- apply to the logging of flight time and
structor, or ground instructor ground testing.
or flight training; (c) This subpart applies to applicants
(c) Completion of an approved flight for, and holders of, sport pilot certifi-
instructor refresher course and receipt cates. It also applies to holders of rec-
of a graduation certificate for that reational pilot certificates and higher,
course; or as provided in § 61.303.
(d) An endorsement from an author- [Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44869, July
ized instructor certifying that the per- 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR
son has demonstrated knowledge in the 5221, Feb. 1, 2010]
subject areas prescribed under
§ 61.213(a)(3) and (a)(4), as appropriate. § 61.303 If I want to operate a light-
sport aircraft, what operating limits
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–26661, 74 FR 42562, Aug. and endorsement requirements in
21, 2009] this subpart must I comply with?
(a) Use the following table to deter-
Subpart J—Sport Pilots mine what operating limits and en-
dorsement requirements in this sub-
SOURCE: Docket No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR part, if any, apply to you when you op-
44869, July 27, 2004, unless otherwise noted. erate a light-sport aircraft. The med-
ical certificate specified in this table
§ 61.301 What is the purpose of this must be in compliance with § 61.2 in re-
subpart and to whom does it apply? gards to currency and validity. If you
(a) This subpart prescribes the fol- hold a recreational pilot certificate,
but not a medical certificate, you must
lowing requirements that apply to a
comply with cross country require-
sport pilot certificate:
ments in § 61.101 (c), even if your flight
(1) Eligibility.
does not exceed 50 nautical miles from
(2) Aeronautical knowledge. your departure airport. You must also
(3) Flight proficiency. comply with requirements in other
(4) Aeronautical experience. subparts of this part that apply to your
(5) Endorsements. certificate and the operation you con-
(6) Privileges and limits. duct.
If you hold And you hold Then you may operate And
(1) A medical certificate ........... (i) A sport pilot certificate, ...... (A) Any light-sport aircraft for (1) You must hold any other
which you hold the en- endorsements required by
dorsements required for its this subpart, and comply
category and class with the limitations in
§ 61.315.
(ii) At least a recreational pilot (A) Any light-sport aircraft in (1) You do not have to hold
certificate with a category that category and class, any of the endorsements
and class rating, required by this subpart,
nor do you have to comply
with the limitations in
§ 61.315.
(iii) At least a recreational (A) That light-sport aircraft, (1) You must comply with the
pilot certificate but not a only if you hold the en- limitations in § 61.315, ex-
rating for the category and dorsements required in cept § 61.315(c)(14) and, if
class of light sport aircraft § 61.321 for its category a private pilot or higher,
you operate, and class, § 61.315(c)(7).
(2) Only a U.S. driver’s license (i) A sport pilot certificate, (A) Any light-sport aircraft for (1) You must hold any other
which you hold the en- endorsements required by
dorsements required for its this subpart, and comply
category and class. with the limitations in
§ 61.315.
(ii) At least a recreational pilot (A) Any light-sport aircraft in (1) You do not have to hold
certificate with a category that category and class, any of the endorsements
and class rating, required by this subpart,
but you must comply with
the limitations in § 61.315.
625
§ 61.305 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
If you hold And you hold Then you may operate And
(iii) At least a recreational (A) That light-sport aircraft, (1) You must comply with the
pilot certificate but not a only if you hold the en- limitations in § 61.315, ex-
rating for the category and dorsements required in cept § 61.315(c)(14) and, if
class of light-sport aircraft § 61.321 for its category a private pilot or higher,
you operate, and class, § 61.315(c)(7).
(3) Neither a medical certificate (i) A sport pilot certificate, (A) Any light-sport glider or (1) You must hold any other
nor a U.S. driver’s license balloon for which you hold endorsements required by
the endorsements required this subpart, and comply
for its category and class with the limitations in
§ 61.315.
(ii) At least a private pilot cer- (A) Any light-sport glider or (1) You do not have to hold
tificate with a category and balloon in that category and any of the endorsements
class rating for glider or class required by this subpart,
balloon, nor do you have to comply
with the limitations in
§ 61.315.
(iii) At least a private pilot cer- (A) Any light-sport glider or (1) You must comply with the
tificate but not a rating for balloon, only if you hold the limitations in § 61.315, ex-
glider or balloon, endorsements required in cept § 61.315(c)(14) and, if
§ 61.321 for its category a private pilot or higher,
and class § 61.315(c)(7).
(b) A person using a U.S. driver’s li- speak, write, and understand English
cense to meet the requirements of this because of medical reasons, the FAA
paragraph must— may place limits on your certificate as
(1) Comply with each restriction and are necessary for the safe operation of
limitation imposed by that person’s light-sport aircraft.
U.S. driver’s license and any judicial or
administrative order applying to the § 61.307 What tests do I have to take to
operation of a motor vehicle; obtain a sport pilot certificate?
(2) Have been found eligible for the
To obtain a sport pilot certificate,
issuance of at least a third-class air-
man medical certificate at the time of you must pass the following tests:
his or her most recent application (if (a) Knowledge test. You must pass a
the person has applied for a medical knowledge test on the applicable aero-
certificate); nautical knowledge areas listed in
(3) Not have had his or her most re- § 61.309. Before you may take the
cently issued medical certificate (if the knowledge test for a sport pilot certifi-
person has held a medical certificate) cate, you must receive a logbook en-
suspended or revoked or most recent dorsement from the authorized instruc-
Authorization for a Special Issuance of tor who trained you or reviewed and
a Medical Certificate withdrawn; and evaluated your home-study course on
(4) Not know or have reason to know the aeronautical knowledge areas list-
of any medical condition that would ed in § 61.309 certifying you are pre-
make that person unable to operate a pared for the test.
light-sport aircraft in a safe manner. (b) Practical test. You must pass a
[Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44869, July practical test on the applicable areas
27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR of operation listed in §§ 61.309 and
42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR 5221, 61.311. Before you may take the prac-
Feb. 1, 2010]
tical test for a sport pilot certificate,
§ 61.305 What are the age and lan- you must receive a logbook endorse-
guage requirements for a sport ment from the authorized instructor
pilot certificate? who provided you with flight training
(a) To be eligible for a sport pilot cer- on the areas of operation specified in
tificate you must: §§ 61.309 and 61.311 in preparation for
(1) Be at least 17 years old (or 16 the practical test. This endorsement
years old if you are applying to operate certifies that you meet the applicable
a glider or balloon). aeronautical knowledge and experience
(2) Be able to read, speak, write, and requirements and are prepared for the
understand English. If you cannot read, practical test.
626
§ 61.309 What aeronautical knowledge (2) How to plan for alternatives if the
must I have to apply for a sport planned flight cannot be completed or
pilot certificate? if you encounter delays.
To apply for a sport pilot certificate [Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44869, July
you must receive and log ground train- 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR
ing from an authorized instructor or 5221, Feb. 1, 2010]
complete a home-study course on the
§ 61.311 What flight proficiency re-
following aeronautical knowledge quirements must I meet to apply for
areas: a sport pilot certificate?
(a) Applicable regulations of this To apply for a sport pilot certificate
chapter that relate to sport pilot privi- you must receive and log ground and
leges, limits, and flight operations. flight training from an authorized in-
(b) Accident reporting requirements structor on the following areas of oper-
of the National Transportation Safety ation, as appropriate, for airplane sin-
Board. gle-engine land or sea, glider, gyro-
(c) Use of the applicable portions of plane, airship, balloon, powered para-
the aeronautical information manual chute land or sea, and weight-shift-con-
and FAA advisory circulars. trol aircraft land or sea privileges:
(d) Use of aeronautical charts for (a) Preflight preparation.
VFR navigation using pilotage, dead (b) Preflight procedures.
reckoning, and navigation systems, as (c) Airport, seaplane base, and
appropriate. gliderport operations, as applicable.
(e) Recognition of critical weather (d) Takeoffs (or launches), landings,
situations from the ground and in and go-arounds.
flight, windshear avoidance, and the (e) Performance maneuvers, and for
procurement and use of aeronautical gliders, performance speeds.
(f) Ground reference maneuvers (not
weather reports and forecasts.
applicable to gliders and balloons).
(f) Safe and efficient operation of air-
(g) Soaring techniques (applicable
craft, including collision avoidance, only to gliders).
and recognition and avoidance of wake (h) Navigation.
turbulence. (i) Slow flight (not applicable to
(g) Effects of density altitude on lighter-than-air aircraft and powered
takeoff and climb performance. parachutes).
(h) Weight and balance computa- (j) Stalls (not applicable to lighter-
tions. than-air aircraft, gyroplanes, and pow-
(i) Principles of aerodynamics, powered parachutes).
erplants, and aircraft systems. (k) Emergency operations.
(j) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, (l) Post-flight procedures.
and spin recovery techniques, as appli- [Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44869, July
cable. 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR
(k) Aeronautical decision making 5221, Feb. 1, 2010]
and risk management.
§ 61.313 What aeronautical experience
(l) Preflight actions that include— must I have to apply for a sport
(1) How to get information on runway pilot certificate?
lengths at airports of intended use,
Use the following table to determine
data on takeoff and landing distances,
the aeronautical experience you must
weather reports and forecasts, and fuel have to apply for a sport pilot certifi-
requirements; and cate:
627
§ 61.313 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
If you are applying for a sport pilot certifi- Then you must log at least . . . Which must include at least . . .
cate with . . .
(a) Airplane category and single-engine (1) 20 hours of flight time, including at (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training,
land or sea class privileges, least 15 hours of flight training from an (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full
authorized instructor in a single-engine stop (with each landing involving a
airplane and at least 5 hours of solo flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport,
flight training in the areas of operation (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at
listed in § 61.311, least 75 nautical miles total distance,
with a full-stop landing at a minimum
of two points and one segment of the
flight consisting of a straight-line dis-
tance of at least 25 nautical miles be-
tween the takeoff and landing loca-
tions, and (iv) 2 hours of flight training
with an authorized instructor on those
areas of operation specified in
§ 61.311 in preparation for the practical
months from the month of the test.
(b) Glider category privileges, and you (1) 10 hours of flight time in a glider, in- (i) Five solo launches and landings, and
have not logged at least 20 hours of cluding 10 flights in a glider receiving (ii) at least 3 training flights with an au-
flight time in a heavier-than-air aircraft, flight training from an authorized in- thorized instructor on those areas of
structor and at least 2 hours of solo operation specified in § 61.311 in prep-
flight training in the areas of operation aration for the practical test within the
listed in § 61.311, preceding 2 calendar months from the
month of the test.
(c) Glider category privileges, and you (1) 3 hours of flight time in a glider, in- (i) Three solo launches and landings,
have logged 20 hours flight time in a cluding five flights in a glider while re- and (ii) at least 3 training flights with
heavier-than-air aircraft, ceiving flight training from an author- an authorized instructor on those
ized instructor and at least 1 hour of areas of operation specified in
solo flight training in the areas of oper- § 61.311 in preparation for the practical
ation listed in § 61.311, test within the preceding 2 calendar
(d) Rotorcraft category and gyroplane (1) 20 hours of flight time, including 15 (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training,
class privileges, hours of flight training from an author- (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full
ized instructor in a gyroplane and at stop (with each landing involving a
least 5 hours of solo flight training in flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport,
the areas of operation listed in (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at
§ 61.311, least 50 nautical miles total distance,
of two points, and one segment of the
tween the takeoff and landing loca-
tions, and (iv) 2 hours of flight training
with an authorized instructor on those
(e) Lighter-than-air category and airship (1) 20 hours of flight time, including 15 (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training,
class privileges, hours of flight training from an author- (ii) Three takeoffs and landings to a
ized instructor in an airship and at full stop (with each landing involving a
least 3 hours performing the duties of flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport,
pilot in command in an airship with an (iii) One cross-country flight of at least
authorized instructor in the areas of 25 nautical miles between the takeoff
operation listed in § 61.311, and landing locations, and (iv) 2 hours
of flight training with an authorized in-
structor on those areas of operation
specified in § 61.311 in preparation for
the practical test within the preceding
2 calendar months from the month of
the test.
(f) Lighter-than-air category and balloon (1) 7 hours of flight time in a balloon, in- (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training,
class privileges, cluding three flights with an authorized and (ii) 1 hours of flight training with
instructor and one flight performing the an authorized instructor on those
duties of pilot in command in a balloon areas of operation specified in
with an authorized instructor in the § 61.311 in preparation for the practical
areas of operation listed in § 61.311, test within the preceding 2 calendar
628
If you are applying for a sport pilot certifi- Then you must log at least . . . Which must include at least . . .
cate with . . .
(g) Powered parachute category land or (1) 12 hours of flight time in a powered (i) 1 hour of cross-country flight training,
sea class privileges, parachute, including 10 hours of flight (ii) 20 takeoffs and landings to a full
training from an authorized instructor stop in a powered parachute with each
in a powered parachute, and at least 2 landing involving flight in the traffic pat-
hours of solo flight training in the areas tern at an airport; (iii) 10 solo takeoffs
of operation listed in § 61.311 and landings to a full stop (with each
landing involving a flight in the traffic
pattern) at an airport, (iv) One solo
flight with a landing at a different air-
port and one segment of the flight con-
sisting of a straight-line distance of at
least 10 nautical miles between takeoff
and landing locations, and (v) 1 hours
of flight training with an authorized in-
structor on those areas of operation
specified in § 61.311 in preparation for
the practical test within the preceding
2 calendar months from the month of
the test.
(h) Weight-shift-control aircraft category (1) 20 hours of light time, including 15 (i) 2 hours of cross-country flight training,
land or sea class privileges, hours of flight training from an author- (ii) 10 takeoffs and landings to a full
ized instructor in a weight-shift-control stop (with each landing involving a
aircraft and at least 5 hours of solo flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport,
flight training in the areas of operation (iii) One solo cross-country flight of at
listed in § 61.311, least 50 nautical miles total distance,
of two points, and one segment of the
tween takeoff and landing locations,
and (iv) 2 hours of flight training with
an authorized instructor on those
[Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44869, July 27, 2004; Amdt. 61–124A, 74 FR 53647, Oct. 20, 2009;
Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR 5221, Feb. 1, 2010]
§ 61.315 What are the privileges and (7) In Class B, C, and D airspace, at
limits of my sport pilot certificate? an airport located in Class B, C, or D
(a) If you hold a sport pilot certifi- airspace, and to, from, through, or at
cate you may act as pilot in command an airport having an operational con-
of a light-sport aircraft, except as spec- trol tower unless you have met the re-
ified in paragraph (c) of this section. quirements specified in § 61.325.
(b) You may share the operating ex- (8) Outside the United States, unless
penses of a flight with a passenger, pro- you have prior authorization from the
vided the expenses involve only fuel, country in which you seek to operate.
oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental Your sport pilot certificate carries the
fees. You must pay at least half the op- limit ‘‘Holder does not meet ICAO re-
erating expenses of the flight. quirements.’’
(c) You may not act as pilot in com- (9) To demonstrate the aircraft in
mand of a light-sport aircraft: flight to a prospective buyer if you are
(1) That is carrying a passenger or an aircraft salesperson.
property for compensation or hire. (10) In a passenger-carrying airlift
(2) For compensation or hire. sponsored by a charitable organization.
(3) In furtherance of a business. (11) At an altitude of more than 10,000
(4) While carrying more than one pas- feet MSL or 2,000 feet AGL, whichever
senger. is higher.
(5) At night. (12) When the flight or surface visi-

(6) In Class A airspace. bility is less than 3 statute miles.
629
§ 61.317 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(13) Without visual reference to the § 61.319 [Reserved]

surface.
(14) If the aircraft: § 61.321 How do I obtain privileges to
(i) Has a VH greater than 87 knots operate an additional category or
class of light-sport aircraft?
CAS, unless you have met the require-
ments of § 61.327(b). If you hold a sport pilot certificate
(ii) Has a VH less than or equal to 87 and seek to operate an additional cat-
knots CAS, unless you have met the re- egory or class of light-sport aircraft,
quirements of § 61.327(a) or have logged you must—
flight time as pilot in command of an (a) Receive a logbook endorsement
airplane with a VH less than or equal to from the authorized instructor who
87 knots CAS before April 2, 2010. trained you on the applicable aero-
nautical knowledge areas specified in
(15) Contrary to any operating limi-
§ 61.309 and areas of operation specified
tation placed on the airworthiness cer-
in § 61.311. The endorsement certifies
tificate of the aircraft being flown. you have met the aeronautical knowl-
(16) Contrary to any limit on your edge and flight proficiency require-
pilot certificate or airman medical cer- ments for the additional light-sport
tificate, or any other limit or endorse- aircraft privilege you seek;
ment from an authorized instructor. (b) Successfully complete a pro-
(17) Contrary to any restriction or ficiency check from an authorized in-
limitation on your U.S. driver’s license structor other than the instructor who
or any restriction or limitation im- trained you on the aeronautical knowl-
posed by judicial or administrative edge areas and areas of operation speci-
order when using your driver’s license fied in §§ 61.309 and 61.311 for the addi-
to satisfy a requirement of this part. tional light-sport aircraft privilege you
(18) While towing any object. seek;
(19) As a pilot flight crewmember on (c) Complete an application for those
any aircraft for which more than one privileges on a form and in a manner
pilot is required by the type certificate acceptable to the FAA and present this
of the aircraft or the regulations under application to the authorized instruc-
which the flight is conducted. tor who conducted the proficiency
check specified in paragraph (b) of this
[Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44869, July section; and
27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR (d) Receive a logbook endorsement
5221, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61–125A, 75 FR 15610, from the instructor who conducted the
Mar. 30, 2010]
proficiency check specified in para-
§ 61.317 Is my sport pilot certificate graph (b) of this section certifying you
issued with aircraft category and are proficient in the applicable areas of
class ratings? operation and aeronautical knowledge
areas, and that you are authorized for
Your sport pilot certificate does not the additional category and class light-
list aircraft category and class ratings. sport aircraft privilege.
When you successfully pass the prac-
tical test for a sport pilot certificate, § 61.323 [Reserved]
regardless of the light-sport aircraft
privileges you seek, the FAA will issue § 61.325 How do I obtain privileges to
you a sport pilot certificate without operate a light-sport aircraft at an
airport within, or in airspace with-
any category and class ratings. The in, Class B, C, and D airspace, or in
FAA will provide you with a logbook other airspace with an airport hav-
endorsement for the category and class ing an operational control tower?
of aircraft in which you are authorized If you hold a sport pilot certificate
to act as pilot in command. and seek privileges to operate a light-
[Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44869, July sport aircraft in Class B, C, or D air-
27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR space, at an airport located in Class B,
5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61–125A, 75 FR 15610, C, or D airspace, or to, from, through,
Mar. 30, 2010] or at an airport having an operational

control tower, you must receive and
630
log ground and flight training. The au- are not required if you have logged
thorized instructor who provides this flight time as pilot in command of an
training must provide a logbook en- airplane with a VH less than or equal to
dorsement that certifies you are pro- 87 knots CAS prior to April 2, 2010.
ficient in the following aeronautical
knowledge areas and areas of oper- [Doc. No. FAA–2007–29015, 75 FR 5222, Feb. 1,
2010; Amdt. 61–125A, 75 FR 15610, Mar. 30,
ation:
2010]
(a) The use of radios, communica-
tions, navigation system/facilities, and
radar services. Subpart K—Flight Instructors With a
(b) Operations at airports with an op- Sport Pilot Rating
erating control tower to include three
takeoffs and landings to a full stop, SOURCE: Docket No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR
with each landing involving a flight in 44875, July 27, 2004, unless otherwise noted.
the traffic pattern, at an airport with
an operating control tower. § 61.401 What is the purpose of this
(c) Applicable flight rules of part 91 subpart?
of this chapter for operations in Class (a) This part prescribes the following
B, C, and D airspace and air traffic con-
requirements that apply to a flight in-
trol clearances.
structor certificate with a sport pilot
§ 61.327 Are there specific endorse- rating:
ment requirements to operate a (1) Eligibility.
light-sport aircraft based on VH? (2) Aeronautical knowledge.
(a) Except as specified in paragraph (3) Flight proficiency.
(c) of this section, if you hold a sport (4) Endorsements.
pilot certificate and you seek to oper- (5) Privileges and limits.
ate a light-sport aircraft that is an air- (b) Other provisions of this part
plane with a VH less than or equal to 87 apply to the logging of flight time and
knots CAS you must— testing.
(1) Receive and log ground and flight
training from an authorized instructor [Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44875, July
in an airplane that has a VH less than 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR
or equal to 87 knots CAS; and 5222, Feb. 1, 2010]
(2) Receive a logbook endorsement
§ 61.403 What are the age, language,
from the authorized instructor who
and pilot certificate requirements
provided the training specified in para- for a flight instructor certificate
graph (a)(1) of this section certifying with a sport pilot rating?
that you are proficient in the operation
of light-sport aircraft that is an air- To be eligible for a flight instructor
plane with a VH less than or equal to 87 certificate with a sport pilot rating
knots CAS. you must:
(b) If you hold a sport pilot certifi- (a) Be at least 18 years old.
cate and you seek to operate a light- (b) Be able to read, speak, write, and
sport aircraft that has a VH greater understand English. If you cannot read,
than 87 knots CAS you must— speak, write, and understand English
(1) Receive and log ground and flight because of medical reasons, the FAA
training from an authorized instructor may place limits on your certificate as
in an aircraft that has a VH greater are necessary for the safe operation of
than 87 knots CAS; and light-sport aircraft.
(2) Receive a logbook endorsement (c) Hold at least a sport pilot certifi-
from the authorized instructor who cate with category and class ratings or
provided the training specified in para- privileges, as applicable, that are ap-
graph (b)(1) of this section certifying
propriate to the flight instructor privi-
that you are proficient in the operation
leges sought.
of light-sport aircraft with a VH great-
er than 87 knots CAS. [Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44875, July
(c) The training and endorsements re- 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR
quired by paragraph (a) of this section 42562, Aug. 21, 2009]
631
§ 61.405 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
§ 61.405 What tests do I have to take to glider. If you have not failed a prac-
obtain a flight instructor certificate tical test based on deficiencies in your
with a sport pilot rating? ability to demonstrate knowledge or
To obtain a flight instructor certifi- skill in these areas and you provide the
cate with a sport pilot rating you must endorsement required by paragraph
pass the following tests: (b)(1)(ii) of this section, an examiner
(a) Knowledge test. Before you take a may accept the endorsement instead of
knowledge test, you must receive a log- the demonstration required by this
book endorsement certifying you are paragraph. If you are taking a test be-
prepared for the test from an author- cause you previously failed a test based
ized instructor who trained you or on not meeting the requirements of
evaluated your home-study course on this paragraph, you must pass a prac-
the aeronautical knowledge areas list- tical test on stall awareness, spin
ed in § 61.407. You must pass knowledge entry, spins, and spin recovery instruc-
tests on— tional competency and proficiency in
(1) The fundamentals of instructing
the applicable category and class of
listed in § 61.407(a), unless you meet the
requirements of § 61.407(c); and aircraft that is certificated for spins.
(2) The aeronautical knowledge areas § 61.407 What aeronautical knowledge
for a sport pilot certificate applicable must I have to apply for a flight in-
to the aircraft category and class for structor certificate with a sport
which flight instructor privileges are pilot rating?
sought.
(b) Practical test. (1) Before you take (a) Except as specified in paragraph
the practical test, you must— (c) of this section you must receive and
(i) Receive a logbook endorsement log ground training from an authorized
from the authorized instructor who instructor on the fundamentals of in-
provided you with flight training on struction that includes:
the areas of operation specified in (1) The learning process.
§ 61.409 that apply to the category and (2) Elements of effective teaching.
class of aircraft privileges you seek. (3) Student evaluation and testing.
This endorsement certifies you meet (4) Course development.
the applicable aeronautical knowledge (5) Lesson planning.
and experience requirements and are (6) Classroom training techniques.
prepared for the practical test;
(b) You must receive and log ground
(ii) If you are seeking privileges to
provide instruction in an airplane or training from an authorized instructor
glider, receive a logbook endorsement on the aeronautical knowledge areas
from an authorized instructor indi- applicable to a sport pilot certificate
cating that you are competent and pos- for the aircraft category and class in
sess instructional proficiency in stall which you seek flight instructor privi-
awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin leges.
recovery procedures after you have re- (c) You do not have to meet the re-
ceived flight training in those training quirements of paragraph (a) of this sec-
areas in an airplane or glider, as appro- tion if you—
priate, that is certificated for spins; (1) Hold a flight instructor certificate
(2) You must pass a practical test— or ground instructor certificate issued
(i) On the areas of operation listed in under this part;
§ 61.409 that are appropriate to the cat- (2) Hold a teacher’s certificate issued
egory and class of aircraft privileges by a State, county, city, or munici-
you seek; pality; or
(ii) In an aircraft representative of
(3) Are employed as a teacher at an
the category and class of aircraft for
accredited college or university.
the privileges you seek;
(iii) In which you demonstrate that [Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44875, July
you are able to teach stall awareness, 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR
spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 42562, Aug. 21, 2009]
procedures if you are seeking privileges

to provide instruction in an airplane or
632
§ 61.409 What flight proficiency re- (g) Fundamentals of flight.

quirements must I meet to apply for (h) Performance maneuvers and for
a flight instructor certificate with a gliders, performance speeds.
sport pilot rating? (i) Ground reference maneuvers (ex-
You must receive and log ground and cept for gliders and lighter-than-air).
flight training from an authorized in- (j) Soaring techniques.
structor on the following areas of oper- (k) Slow flight (not applicable to
ation for the aircraft category and lighter-than-air and powered para-
class in which you seek flight instruc- chutes).
tor privileges: (l) Stalls (not applicable to lighter-
(a) Technical subject areas. than-air, powered parachutes, and gy-
(b) Preflight preparation. roplanes).
(c) Preflight lesson on a maneuver to (m) Spins (applicable to airplanes
be performed in flight. and gliders).
(d) Preflight procedures. (n) Emergency operations.
(e) Airport, seaplane base, and (o) Tumble entry and avoidance tech-
gliderport operations, as applicable. niques (applicable to weight-shift-con-
(f) Takeoffs (or launches), landings, trol aircraft).
and go-arounds. (p) Post-flight procedures.
§ 61.411 What aeronautical experience must I have to apply for a flight instructor
certificate with a sport pilot rating?
Use the following table to determine the experience you must have for each air-
craft category and class:
If you are applying for a
flight instructor certificate Then you must log at least . . . Which must include at least . . .
with a sport pilot rating
for . . .
(a) Airplane category and (1) 150 hours of flight time as a pilot, ................ (i) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command
single-engine class privi- in powered aircraft,
leges, (ii) 50 hours of flight time in a single-engine air-
plane,
(iii) 25 hours of cross-country flight time,
(iv) 10 hours of cross-country flight time in a
single-engine airplane, and
(v) 15 hours of flight time as pilot in command
in a single-engine airplane that is a light-sport
aircraft.
(b) Glider category privi- (1) 25 hours of flight time as pilot in command
leges, in a glider, 100 flights in a glider, and 15
flights as pilot in command in a glider that is
a light-sport aircraft, or.
(2) 100 hours in heavier-than-air aircraft, 20
flights in a glider, and 15 flights as pilot in
command in a glider that is a light-sport air-
craft.
(c) Rotorcraft category and (1) 125 hours of flight time as a pilot, ................ (i) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command
gyroplane class privi- in powered aircraft,
leges, (ii) 50 hours of flight time in a gyroplane,
(iv) 3 hours of cross-country flight time in a gy-
roplane, and
in a gyroplane that is a light-sport aircraft.
(d) Lighter-than-air category (1) 100 hours of flight time as a pilot, ................ (i) 40 hours of flight time in an airship,
and airship class privi- (ii) 20 hours of pilot in command time in an air-
leges, ship,
(iv) 5 hours of cross-country flight time in an
airship, and
in an airship that is a light-sport aircraft.
(e) Lighter-than-air category (1) 35 hours of flight time as pilot-in-command, (i) 20 hours of flight time in a balloon,
and balloon class privi- (ii) 10 flights in a balloon, and
leges,
633
§ 61.412 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
If you are applying for a

flight instructor certificate Then you must log at least . . . Which must include at least . . .
with a sport pilot rating
for . . .
(iii) 5 flights as pilot in command in a balloon

that is a light-sport aircraft.
(f) Weight-shift-control air- (1) 150 hours of flight time as a pilot, ................ (i) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command
craft category privileges, in powered aircraft,
(ii) 50 hours of flight time in a weight-shift-con-
trol aircraft,
weight-shift-control aircraft, and
in a weight-shift-control aircraft that is a light-
sport aircraft.
(g) Powered-parachute cat- (1) 100 hours of flight time as a pilot, ................ (i) 75 hours of flight time as pilot in command in
egory privileges, powered aircraft,
(ii) 50 hours of flight time in a powered para-
chute,
powered parachute, and
in a powered parachute that is a light-sport
aircraft.
§ 61.412 Do I need additional training descents, climbs, use of radio naviga-

to provide instruction on control tion aids, and ATC directives.
and maneuvering an airplane solely
by reference to the instruments in a [Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018]
light-sport aircraft based on VH?
§ 61.413 What are the privileges of my
To provide flight training under flight instructor certificate with a
§ 61.93(e)(12) on control and maneu- sport pilot rating?
vering an airplane solely by reference (a) If you hold a flight instructor cer-
to the flight instruments for the pur- tificate with a sport pilot rating, you
pose of issuing a solo cross-country en- are authorized, within the limits of
dorsement under § 61.93(c)(1) to a stu- your certificate and rating, to provide
dent pilot seeking a sport pilot certifi- training and endorsements that are re-
cate, a flight instructor with a sport quired for, and relate to—
pilot rating must: (1) A student pilot seeking a sport
(a) Hold an endorsement required by pilot certificate;
§ 61.327(b); (2) A sport pilot certificate;
(b) Receive and log a minimum of 1 (3) A flight instructor certificate
hour of ground training and 3 hours of with a sport pilot rating;
flight training from an authorized in- (4) A powered parachute or weight-
structor in an airplane with a VH great- shift-control aircraft rating;
er than 87 knots CAS or in a full flight (5) Sport pilot privileges;
simulator, flight training device, or (6) A flight review or operating privi-
aviation training device that replicates lege for a sport pilot;
an airplane with a VH greater than 87 (7) A practical test for a sport pilot
knots CAS; and certificate, a private pilot certificate
(c) Receive a one-time endorsement with a powered parachute or weight-
in his or her logbook from an instruc- shift-control aircraft rating or a flight
tor authorized under subpart H of this instructor certificate with a sport pilot
part who certifies that the person is rating;
proficient in providing training on con- (8) A knowledge test for a sport pilot
trol and maneuvering solely by ref- certificate, a private pilot certificate
erence to the flight instruments in an with a powered parachute or weight-
airplane with a VH greater than 87 shift-control aircraft rating or a flight
knots CAS. This flight training must instructor certificate with a sport pilot
include straight and level flight, turns, rating; and
634
(9) A proficiency check for an addi- (c) You may not conduct more than 8
tional category or class privilege for a hours of flight training in any 24-con-
sport pilot certificate or a flight in- secutive-hour period.
structor certificate with a sport pilot (d) You may not endorse a:
rating. (1) Student pilot’s logbook for solo
(b) A person who holds a flight inflight privileges, unless you have—
structor certificate with a sport pilot (i) Given that student the flight
rating is authorized, in a form and training required for solo flight privi-
manner acceptable to the Adminis- leges required by this part; and
trator, to: (ii) Determined that the student is
(1) Accept an application for a stu- prepared to conduct the flight safely
dent pilot certificate or, for an appli- under known circumstances, subject to
cant who holds a pilot certificate any limitations listed in the student’s
(other than a student pilot certificate) logbook that you consider necessary
for the safety of the flight.
issued under part 61 of this chapter and
(2) Student pilot’s logbook for a solo
meets the flight review requirements
cross-country flight, unless you have
specified in § 61.56, a remote pilot cer-
determined the student’s flight prepa-
tificate with a small UAS rating;
ration, planning, equipment, and pro-
(2) Verify the identity of the appli- posed procedures are adequate for the
cant; and proposed flight under the existing con-
(3) Verify that an applicant for a stu- ditions and within any limitations list-
dent pilot certificate meets the eligi- ed in the logbook that you consider
bility requirements in § 61.83. necessary for the safety of the flight.
[Docket FAA–2010–1127, Amdt. 61–135, 81 FR (3) Student pilot’s logbook for solo
1307, Jan. 12, 2016, as amended by Docket flight in Class B, C, and D airspace
FAA–2015–0150, Amdt. 61–137, 81 FR 42208, areas, at an airport within Class B, C,
June 28, 2016] or D airspace and to from, through or
on an airport having an operational
§ 61.415 What are the limits of a flight control tower, unless you have—
instructor certificate with a sport (i) Given that student ground and
pilot rating? flight training in that airspace or at
If you hold a flight instructor certifi- that airport; and
cate with a sport pilot rating, you may (ii) Determined that the student is
only provide flight training in a light- proficient to operate the aircraft safe-
sport aircraft and are subject to the ly.
following limits: (4) Logbook of a pilot for a flight re-
(a) You may not provide ground or view, unless you have conducted a re-
flight training in any aircraft for view of that pilot in accordance with
which you do not hold: the requirements of § 61.56.
(e) You may not provide training to
(1) A sport pilot certificate with ap-
operate a light-sport aircraft in Class
plicable category and class privileges
B, C, and D airspace, at an airport lo-
or a pilot certificate with the applica-
cated in Class B, C, or D airspace, and
ble category and class rating; and
to, from, through, or at an airport hav-
(2) Applicable category and class ing an operational control tower, un-
privileges for your flight instructor less you have the endorsement speci-
certificate with a sport pilot rating. fied in § 61.325, or are otherwise author-
(b) You may not provide ground or ized to conduct operations in this air-
flight training for a private pilot cer- space and at these airports.
tificate with a powered parachute or (f) You may not provide training in a
weight-shift-control aircraft rating un- light-sport aircraft that is an airplane
less you hold: with a VH less than or equal to 87 knots
(1) At least a private pilot certificate CAS unless you have the endorsement
with the applicable category and class specified in § 61.327 (a), or are otherwise
rating; and authorized to operate that light-sport
(2) Applicable category and class aircraft.
privileges for your flight instructor (g) You may not provide training in a
certificate with a sport pilot rating. light-sport aircraft with a VH greater
635
§ 61.417 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
than 87 knots CAS unless you have the category or class of light-sport aircraft
endorsement specified in § 61.327 (b), or you must—
are otherwise authorized to operate (a) Receive a logbook endorsement
that light-sport aircraft. from the authorized instructor who
(h) You may not provide training on trained you on the applicable areas of
the control and maneuvering of an air- operation specified in § 61.409 certifying
craft solely by reference to the instru- you have met the aeronautical knowl-
ments in a light sport airplane with a edge and flight proficiency require-
Vh greater than 87 knots CAS unless ments for the additional category and
you meet the requirements in § 61.412. class flight instructor privilege you
(i) You must perform all training in seek;
an aircraft that complies with the re- (b) Successfully complete a pro-
quirements of § 91.109 of this chapter. ficiency check from an authorized in-
(j) If you provide flight training for a structor other than the instructor who
certificate, rating or privilege, you trained you on the areas specified in
must provide that flight training in an § 61.409 for the additional category and
aircraft that meets the following: class flight instructor privilege you
(1) The aircraft must have at least seek;
two pilot stations and be of the same (c) Complete an application for those
category and class appropriate to the privileges on a form and in a manner
certificate, rating or privilege sought. acceptable to the FAA and present this
(2) For single place aircraft, pre-solo application to the authorized instruc-
flight training must be provided in an tor who conducted the proficiency
aircraft that has two pilot stations and check specified in paragraph (b) of this
is of the same category and class ap- section; and
propriate to the certificate, rating, or (d) Receive a logbook endorsement
privilege sought. from the instructor who conducted the
proficiency check specified in para-
[Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44875, July graph (b) of this section certifying you
27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR
are proficient in the areas of operation
5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61–125A, 75 FR 15610,
Mar. 30, 2010; Docket FAA–2010–1127, Amdt. and authorized for the additional cat-
61–135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016; Amdt. 61–142, egory and class flight instructor privi-
83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018] lege.
§ 61.417 Will my flight instructor cer- § 61.421 May I give myself an endorse-
tificate with a sport pilot rating list ment?
aircraft category and class ratings? No. If you hold a flight instructor
Your flight instructor certificate certificate with a sport pilot rating,
does not list aircraft category and you may not give yourself an endorse-
class ratings. When you successfully ment for any certificate, privilege, rat-
pass the practical test for a flight in- ing, flight review, authorization, prac-
structor certificate with a sport pilot tical test, knowledge test, or pro-
rating, regardless of the light-sport air- ficiency check required by this part.
craft privileges you seek, the FAA will
issue you a flight instructor certificate § 61.423 What are the recordkeeping
with a sport pilot rating without any requirements for a flight instructor
with a sport pilot rating?
category and class ratings. The FAA
will provide you with a logbook en- (a) As a flight instructor with a sport
dorsement for the category and class of pilot rating you must:
light-sport aircraft you are authorized (1) Sign the logbook of each person to
to provide training in. whom you have given flight training or
ground training.
§ 61.419 How do I obtain privileges to (2) Keep a record of the name, date,
provide training in an additional and type of endorsement for:
category or class of light-sport air- (i) Each person whose logbook you
craft? have endorsed for solo flight privileges.
If you hold a flight instructor certifi- (ii) Each person for whom you have
cate with a sport pilot rating and seek provided an endorsement for a knowl-
to provide training in an additional edge test, practical test, or proficiency
636
check, and the record must indicate tificate. The FAA will reinstate any
the kind of test or check, and the re- privilege authorized by the expired cer-
sults. tificate.
(iii) Each person whose logbook you
have endorsed as proficient to oper- § 61.429 May I exercise the privileges
ate— of a flight instructor certificate
with a sport pilot rating if I hold a
(A) An additional category or class of flight instructor certificate with an-
light-sport aircraft; other rating?
(B) In Class B, C, and D airspace; at
an airport located in Class B, C, or D If you hold a flight instructor certifi-
airspace; and to, from, through, or at cate, a commercial pilot certificate
an airport having an operational con- with an airship rating, or a commercial
trol tower; pilot certificate with a balloon rating
(C) A light-sport aircraft that is an issued under this part, and you seek to
airplane with a VH less than or equal to exercise the privileges of a flight in-
87 knots CAS; and structor certificate with a sport pilot
(D) A light-sport aircraft with a VH rating, you may do so without any fur-
greater than 87 knots CAS. ther showing of proficiency, subject to
(iv) Each person whose logbook you the following limits:
have endorsed as proficient to provide (a) You are limited to the aircraft
flight training in an additional cat- category and class ratings listed on
egory or class of light-sport aircraft. your flight instructor certificate, com-
mercial pilot certificate with an air-
(b) Within 10 days after providing an
ship rating, or commercial pilot cer-
endorsement for a person to operate or
tificate with a balloon rating, as appro-
provide training in an additional cat-
priate, when exercising your flight in-
egory and class of light-sport aircraft
structor privileges and the privileges
you must—
specified in § 61.413.
(1) Complete, sign, and submit to the
(b) You must comply with the limits
FAA the application presented to you
specified in § 61.415 and the record-
to obtain those privileges; and
keeping requirements of § 61.423.
(2) Retain a copy of the form.
(c) If you want to exercise the privi-
(c) You must keep the records listed
leges of your flight instructor certifi-
in this section for 3 years. You may
cate in a category or class of light-
keep these records in a logbook or a
sport aircraft for which you are not
separate document.
currently rated, you must meet all ap-
[Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44875, July plicable requirements to provide train-
27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR ing in an additional category or class
5222, Feb. 1, 2010; Amdt. 61–125A, 75 FR 15610, of light-sport aircraft specified in
Mar. 30, 2010; Docket FAA–2010–1127, Amdt. § 61.419.
61–135, 81 FR 1307, Jan. 12, 2016]
[Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44875, July
§ 61.425 How do I renew my flight in- 27, 2004, as amended by Amdt. 61–124, 74 FR
structor certificate? 42562, Aug. 21, 2009; Amdt. 61–125, 75 FR 5222,
Feb. 1, 2010]
If you hold a flight instructor certifi-
cate with a sport pilot rating you may
renew your certificate in accordance PART 63—CERTIFICATION: FLIGHT
with the provisions of § 61.197. CREWMEMBERS OTHER THAN PI-
LOTS
§ 61.427 What must I do if my flight in-
structor certificate with a sport
pilot rating expires? SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO.
100–2 [NOTE]
You may exchange your expired SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO.
flight instructor certificate with a 118–2
sport pilot rating for a new certificate
with a sport pilot rating and any other Subpart A—General
rating on that certificate by passing a Sec.
practical test as prescribed in § 61.405(b)
63.1 Applicability.
or § 61.183(h) for one of the ratings list- 63.2 Certification of foreign flight crew-
ed on the expired flight instructor cer- members other than pilots.
637
Pt. 63, SFAR No. 100–2, Nt. 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
63.3 Certificates and ratings required. SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION
63.11 Application and issue. NO. 118–2—RELIEF FOR CERTAIN
63.12 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs. PERSONS DURING THE NATIONAL
63.12a Refusal to submit to an alcohol test EMERGENCY CONCERNING THE NOVEL
or to furnish test results. CORONAVIRUS DISEASE (COVID–19)
63.12b [Reserved] PUBLIC HEALTH EMERGENCY
63.13 Temporary certificate.
63.14 [Reserved] For the text of SFAR No. 118–2, see part 61
63.15 Duration of certificates. of this chapter.
63.15a [Reserved] [Doc. No. FAA–2020–0446, Amdt. No. 63–45, 85
63.16 Change of name; replacement of lost FR 62975, Oct. 6, 2020]
or destroyed certificate.
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Doc. No. FAA–
63.17 Tests: General procedure. 2020–0446, Amdt. No. 63–45, 85 FR 62975, Oct. 6,
63.18 Written tests: Cheating or other unau- 2020, SFAR 118–2 to part 63 was added, effec-
thorized conduct. tive Oct. 1, 2020 through Apr. 30, 2021.
63.19 Operations during physical deficiency.
63.20 Applications, certificates, logbooks,
reports, and records; falsification, repro-
Subpart A—General
duction, or alteration.
63.21 Change of address. SOURCE: Docket No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug.
63.23 Special purpose flight engineer and 10, 1962, unless otherwise noted.
flight navigator certificates: Operation
of U.S.-registered civil airplanes leased § 63.1 Applicability.
by a person not a U.S. citizen. This part prescribes the requirements
for issuing flight engineer and flight
Subpart B—Flight Engineers navigator certificates and the general
operating rules for holders of those cer-
63.31 Eligibility requirements; general.
tificates.
63.33 Aircraft ratings.
63.35 Knowledge requirements. § 63.2 Certification of foreign flight
63.37 Aeronautical experience requirements. crewmembers other than pilots.
63.39 Skill requirements.
63.41 Retesting after failure.
A person who is neither a United
63.42 Flight engineer certificate issued on States citizen nor a resident alien is
basis of a foreign flight engineer license. issued a certificate under this part
63.43 Flight engineer courses. (other than under § 63.23 or § 63.42) out-
side the United States only when the
Subpart C—Flight Navigators Administrator finds that the certifi-
cate is needed for the operation of a
63.51 Eligibility requirements; general. U.S.-registered civil aircraft.
63.53 Knowledge requirements.
63.55 Experience requirements. (Secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of
1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and
63.57 Skill requirements.
1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation
63.59 Retesting after failure. Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent
63.61 Flight navigator courses. Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C.
APPENDIX A TO PART 63—TEST REQUIREMENTS 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transpor-
FOR FLIGHT NAVIGATOR CERTIFICATE tation Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C.
APPENDIX B TO PART 63—FLIGHT NAVIGATOR 1159(b)))
TRAINING COURSE REQUIREMENTS
[Doc. No. 22052, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 18, 1982]
APPENDIX C TO PART 63—FLIGHT ENGINEER
TRAINING COURSE REQUIREMENTS § 63.3 Certificates and ratings re-
AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, quired.
44701–44703, 44707, 44709–44711, 45102–45103, (a) Except as provided in paragraph
45301–45302. (c) of this section, no person may act
as a flight engineer of a civil aircraft of
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION U.S. registry unless that person has in
NO. 100–2 his or her physical possession or read-
ily accessible in the aircraft:
EDITORIAL NOTE: For the text of SFAR No. (1) A current flight engineer certifi-
100–2, see part 61 of this chapter. cate with appropriate ratings issued to
that person under this part;
638
(2) A document conveying temporary Safety Board, or of any Federal, State,

authority to exercise certificate privi- or local law enforcement officer.
leges issued by the Airman Certifi- [Amdt. 60–6, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018]
cation Branch under § 63.16(f); or
(3) When engaged in a flight oper- § 63.11 Application and issue.
ation within the United States for a (a) An application for a certificate
part 119 certificate holder authorized and appropriate class rating, or for an
to conduct operations under part 121 of additional rating, under this part must
this chapter, a temporary document be made on a form and in a manner
provided by that certificate holder prescribed by the Administrator. Each
under an approved certificate person who applies for airmen certifi-
verification plan. cation services to be administered out-
(b) A person may act as a flight engi- side the United States for any certifi-
neer of an aircraft only if that person cate or rating issued under this part
holds a current second-class (or higher) must show evidence that the fee pre-
medical certificate issued to that per- scribed in appendix A of part 187 of this
son under part 67 of this chapter, or chapter has been paid.
other documentation acceptable to the (b) An applicant who meets the re-
FAA, that is in that person’s physical quirements of this part is entitled to
possession or readily accessible in the an appropriate certificate and appro-
aircraft. priate class ratings.
(c) When the aircraft is operated (c) Unless authorized by the Adminis-
within a foreign country, a current trator, a person whose flight engineer
flight engineer certificate issued by the certificate is suspended may not apply
for any rating to be added to that cer-
country in which the aircraft is oper-
tificate during the period of suspen-
ated, with evidence of current medical
sion.
qualification for that certificate, may
(d) Unless the order of revocation
be used. Also, in the case of a flight en- provides otherwise, a person whose
gineer certificate issued under § 63.42, flight engineer or flight navigator cer-
evidence of current medical qualifica- tificate is revoked may not apply for
tion accepted for the issue of that cer- the same kind of certificate for 1 year
tificate is used in place of a medical after the date of revocation.
certificate.
(Secs. 313, 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of
(d) No person may act as a flight nav-
1958, as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and
igator of a civil aircraft of U.S. reg- 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of Transportation
istry unless that person has in his or Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent
her physical possession a current flight Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C.
navigator certificate issued to him or 483(a)); sec. 28, International Air Transpor-
her under this part and a second-class tation Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C.
(or higher) medical certificate issued 1159(b)))
to him or her under part 67 of this [Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as
chapter within the preceding 12 amended by Amdt. 63–3, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23,
months. However, when the aircraft is 1965; Amdt. 63–7, 31 FR 13523, Oct. 20, 1966;
Amdt. 63–22, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982; Amdt.
operated within a foreign country, a 63–35, 72 FR 18558, Apr. 12, 2007 ]
current flight navigator certificate
issued by the country in which the air- § 63.12 Offenses involving alcohol or
craft is operated, with evidence of cur- drugs.
rent medical qualification for that cer- (a) A conviction for the violation of
tificate, may be used. any Federal or state statute relating to
(e) Each person who holds a flight en- the growing, processing, manufacture,
gineer or flight navigator certificate, sale, disposition, possession, transpor-
medical certificate, or temporary docu- tation, or importation of narcotic
ment in accordance with paragraph drugs, marihuana, or depressant or
(a)(3) of this section shall present it for stimulant drugs or substances is
inspection upon the request of the Ad- grounds for—
ministrator or an authorized represent- (1) Denial of an application for any

ative of the National Transportation certificate or rating issued under this
639
§ 63.12a 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
part for a period of up to 1 year after § 63.14 [Reserved]

the date of final conviction; or
(2) Suspension or revocation of any § 63.15 Duration of certificates.
certificate or rating issued under this (a) Except as provided in § 63.23 and
part. paragraph (b) of this section, a certifi-
(b) The commission of an act prohib- cate or rating issued under this part is
ited by § 91.17(a) or § 91.19(a) of this effective until it is surrendered, sus-
chapter is grounds for— pended, or revoked.
(1) Denial of an application for a cer- (b) A flight engineer certificate (with
tificate or rating issued under this part any amendment thereto) issued under
for a period of up to 1 year after the § 63.42 expires at the end of the 24th
date of that act; or month after the month in which the
(2) Suspension or revocation of any certificate was issued or renewed. How-
ever, the holder may exercise the privi-
certificate or rating issued under this
leges of that certificate only while the
part.
foreign flight engineer license on which
[Doc. No. 21956, 50 FR 15379, Apr. 17, 1985, as that certificate is based is effective.
amended by Amdt. 63–27, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, (c) Any certificate issued under this
1989] part ceases to be effective if it is sur-
rendered, suspended, or revoked. The
§ 63.12a Refusal to submit to an alco- holder of any certificate issued under
hol test or to furnish test results. this part that is suspended or revoked
A refusal to submit to a test to indi- shall, upon the Administrator’s re-
cate the percentage by weight of alco- quest, return it to the Administrator.
hol in the blood, when requested by a (d) Except for temporary certificate
law enforcement officer in accordance issued under § 63.13, the holder of a
with § 91.11(c) of this chapter, or a re- paper certificate issued under this part
fusal to furnish or authorize the re- may not exercise the privileges of that
lease of the test results when requested certificate after March 31, 2013.
by the Administrator in accordance (Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655; secs. 313,
with § 91.17 (c) or (d) of this chapter, is 601, 602, Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as
grounds for— amended (49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421, and 1422); sec.
6(c), Department of Transportation Act (49
(a) Denial of an application for any
U.S.C. 1655(c)); Title V, Independent Offices
certificate or rating issued under this Appropriations Act of 1952 (31 U.S.C. 483(a));
part for a period of up to 1 year after sec. 28, International Air Transportation
the date of that refusal; or Competition Act of 1979 (49 U.S.C. 1159(b)))
(b) Suspension or revocation of any [Doc. No. 8846, 33 FR 18613, Dec. 17, 1968, as
certificate or rating issued under this amended by Amdt. 63–22, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16,
part. 1982; Amdt. 63–36, 73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, 2008]
[Doc. No. 21956, 51 FR 1229, Jan. 9, 1986, as § 63.15a [Reserved]

amended by Amdt. 63–27, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18,
1989] § 63.16 Change of name; replacement
of lost or destroyed certificate.
§ 63.12b [Reserved]
(a) An application for a change of
§ 63.13 Temporary certificate. name on a certificate issued under this
part must be accompanied by the appli-
A certificate effective for a period of cant’s current certificate and the mar-
not more than 120 days may be issued riage license, court order, or other doc-
to a qualified applicant, pending review ument verifying the change. The docu-
of his application and supplementary ments are returned to the applicant
documents and the issue of the certifi- after inspection.
cate for which he applied. (b) A request for a replacement of a
lost or destroyed airman certificate
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as
issued under this part must be made:
amended by Amdt. 63–19, 43 FR 22639, May 25,
1978]
Transportation, Federal Aviation Ad-
ministration, Airman Certification
640
Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Okla- cerning the loss of the original medical
homa City, OK 73125 and must be ac- certificate, as appropriate; and
companied by a check or money order (iii) Date the knowledge test was
for the appropriate fee payable to the taken, if appropriate.
FAA; or (f) A person who has lost an airman
(2) In any other form and manner ap- certificate, medical certificate, or
proved by the Administrator including knowledge test report may obtain in a
a request to Airman Services at http:// form or manner approved by the Ad-
www.faa.gov, and must be accompanied ministrator, a document conveying
by acceptable form of payment for the temporary authority to exercise cer-
appropriate fee. tificate privileges from the FAA
(c) A request for the replacement of a Aeromedical Certification Branch or
lost or destroyed medical certificate the Airman Certification Branch, as
must be made: appropriate, and the—
(1) By letter to the Department of (1) Document may be carried as an
Transportation, FAA, Aerospace Med- airman certificate, medical certificate,
ical Certification Division, P.O. Box or knowledge test report, as appro-
26200, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, and priate, for a period not to exceed 60
must be accompanied by a check or days pending the person’s receiving a
money order for the appropriate fee duplicate under paragraph (b), (c), or
payable to the FAA; or (d) of this section, unless the person
(2) In any other manner and form ap- has been notified that the certificate
proved by the Administrator and must has been suspended or revoked.
be accompanied by acceptable form of (2) Request for such a document must
payment for the appropriate fee. include the date on which a duplicate
(d) A request for the replacement of a certificate or knowledge test report
lost or destroyed knowledge test report was previously requested.
must be made: [Amdt. 60–6, 83 FR 30280, June 27, 2018]
Transportation, FAA, Airmen Certifi- § 63.17 Tests: General procedure.
cation Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Okla- (a) Tests prescribed by or under this
homa City, OK 73125, and must be ac- part are given at times and places, and
companied by a check or money order by persons, designated by the Adminis-
for the appropriate fee payable to the trator.
FAA; or (b) The minimum passing grade for
(2) In any other manner and form ap- each test is 70 percent.
be accompanied by acceptable form of § 63.18 Written tests: Cheating or other
payment for the appropriate fee. unauthorized conduct.
(e) The letter requesting replacement (a) Except as authorized by the Ad-
of a lost or destroyed airman certifi- ministrator, no person may—
cate, medical certificate, or knowledge (1) Copy, or intentionally remove, a
test report must state: written test under this part;
(1) The name of the person; (2) Give to another, or receive from
(2) The permanent mailing address another, any part or copy of that test;
(including ZIP code), or if the perma- (3) Give help on that test to, or re-
nent mailing address includes a post of- ceive help on that test from, any per-
fice box number, then the person’s cur- son during the period that test is being
rent residential address; given.
(3) The certificate holder’s date and (4) Take any part of that test in be-
place of birth; and half of another person;
(4) Any information regarding the— (5) Use any material or aid during the
(i) Grade, number, and date of period that test is being given; or
issuance of the airman certificate and (6) Intentionally cause, assist, or par-
ratings, if appropriate; ticipate in any act prohibited by this
(ii) Class of medical certificate, the paragraph.
place and date of the medical exam, (b) No person who commits an act
name of the Airman Medical Examiner prohibited by paragraph (a) of this sec-
(AME), and the circumstances con- tion is eligible for any airman or
641
§ 63.19 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
ground instructor certificate or rating § 63.23 Special purpose flight engineer

under this chapter for a period of 1 and flight navigator certificates:
year after the date of that act. In addi- Operation of U.S.-registered civil
tion, the commission of that act is a airplanes leased by a person not a
basis for suspending or revoking any U.S. citizen.
airman or ground instructor certificate (a) General. The holder of a current
or rating held by that person. foreign flight engineer or flight navi-
[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]
gator certificate, license, or authoriza-
tion issued by a foreign contracting
§ 63.19 Operations during physical de- State to the Convention on Inter-
ficiency. national Civil Aviation, who meets the
No person may serve as a flight engi- requirements of this section, may hold
neer or flight navigator during a period a special purpose flight engineer or
of known physical deficiency, or inflight navigator certificate, as appro-
crease in physical deficiency, that priate, authorizing the holder to per-
would make him unable to meet the form flight engineer or flight navigator
physical requirements for his current duties on a civil airplane of U.S. reg-
medical certificate. istry, leased to a person not a citizen of
the United States, carrying persons or
§ 63.20 Applications, certificates, property for compensation or hire. Spe-
logbooks, reports, and records; fal- cial purpose flight engineer and flight
sification, reproduction, or alter- navigator certificates are issued under
ation. this section only for airplane types
(a) No person may make or cause to that can have a maximum passenger
be made— seating configuration, excluding any
(1) Any fraudulent or intentionally flight crewmember seat, of more than
false statement on any application for 30 seats or a maximum payload capac-
a certificate or rating under this part; ity (as defined in § 135.2(e) of this chap-
(2) Any fraudulent or intentionally ter) of more than 7,500 pounds.
false entry in any logbook, record, or (b) Eligibility. To be eligible for the
report that is required to be kept, issuance, or renewal, of a certificate
made, or used, to show compliance under this section, an applicant must
with any requirement for any certifi- present the following to the Adminis-
cate or rating under this part; trator:
(3) Any reproduction, for fraudulent (1) A current foreign flight engineer
purpose, of any certificate or rating or flight navigator certificate, license,
under this part; or or authorization issued by the aero-
(4) Any alteration of any certificate nautical authority of a foreign con-
or rating under this part. tracting State to the Convention on
(b) The commission by any person of International Civil Aviation or a fac-
an act prohibited under paragraph (a) simile acceptable to the Adminis-
of this section is a basis for suspending trator. The certificate or license must
or revoking any airman or ground in- authorize the applicant to perform the
structor certificate or rating held by flight engineer or flight navigator du-
that person. ties to be authorized by a certificate
issued under this section on the same
[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]
airplane type as the leased airplane.
§ 63.21 Change of address. (2) A current certification by the les-
see of the airplane—
Within 30 days after any change in (i) Stating that the applicant is em-
his permanent mailing address, the ployed by the lessee;
holder of a certificate issued under this (ii) Specifying the airplane type on
part shall notify the Department of which the applicant will perform flight
Transportation, Federal Aviation Ad- engineer or flight navigator duties; and
ministration, Airman Certification (iii) Stating that the applicant has
Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Okla- received ground and flight instruction
homa City, OK 73125, in writing, of his which qualifies the applicant to per-
new address. form the duties to be assigned on the

[Doc. No. 10536, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970] airplane.
642
(3) Documentation showing that the (iii) The limitation: ‘‘Issued under,
applicant currently meets the medical and subject to, § 63.23 of the Federal
standards for the foreign flight engi- Aviation Regulations.’’
neer or flight navigator certificate, li- (iv) The limitation: ‘‘Subject to the
cense, or authorization required by privileges and limitations shown on the
paragraph (b)(1) of this section, except holder’s foreign flight (engineer or nav-
that a U.S. medical certificate issued igator) certificate, license, or author-
under part 67 of this chapter is not evi- ization.’’
dence that the applicant meets those (3) Any additional limitations placed
standards unless the State which on the certificate which the Adminis-
issued the applicant’s foreign flight en- trator considers necessary.
gineer or flight navigator certificate, (e) Termination. Each special purpose
license, or authorization accepts a U.S. flight engineer or flight navigator cer-
medical certificate as evidence of med- tificate issued under this section ter-
ical fitness for a flight engineer or minates—
flight navigator certificate, license, or (1) When the lease agreement for the
authorization. airplane described in the certification
(c) Privileges. The holder of a special required by paragraph (b)(2) of this sec-
purpose flight engineer or flight navi- tion terminates;
gator certificate issued under this sec- (2) When the foreign flight engineer
tion may exercise the same privileges or flight navigator certificate, license,
as those shown on the certificate, li- or authorization, or the medical docu-
cense, or authorization specified in mentation required by paragraph (b) of
paragraph (b)(1) of this section, subject this section is suspended, revoked, or
to the limitations specified in this sec- no longer valid; or
tion. (3) After 24 months after the month
(d) Limitations. Each certificate in which the special purpose flight en-
issued under this section is subject to gineer or flight navigator certificate
the following limitations: was issued.
(1) It is valid only— (f) Surrender of certificate. The certifi-
(i) For flights between foreign coun- cate holder shall surrender the special
tries and for flights in foreign air com- purpose flight engineer or flight navi-
merce; gator certificate to the Administrator
(ii) While it and the certificate, li- within 7 days after the date it termi-
cense, or authorization required by nates.
paragraph (b)(1) of this section are in (g) Renewal. The certificate holder
the certificate holder’s personal posses- may have the certificate renewed by
sion and are current; complying with the requirements of
(iii) While the certificate holder is paragraph (b) of this section at the
employed by the person to whom the time of application for renewal.
airplane described in the certification
(Secs. 313(a), 601, and 602, Federal Aviation
required by paragraph (b)(2) of this sec- Act of 1958; as amended (49 U.S.C. 1354(a),
tion is leased; 1421, and 1422); sec. 6(c), Department of
(iv) While the certificate holder is Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)))
performing flight engineer or flight
[Doc. No. 19300, 45 FR 5672, Jan. 24, 1980]
navigator duties on the U.S.-registered
civil airplane described in the certifi-
cation required by paragraph (b)(2) of Subpart B—Flight Engineers
this section; and
(v) While the medical documentation AUTHORITY: Secs. 313(a), 601, and 602, Fed-
required by paragraph (b)(3) of this sec- eral Aviation Act of 1958; 49 U.S.C. 1354, 1421,
tion is in the certificate holder’s per- 1422.
sonal possession and is currently valid. SOURCE: Docket No. 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov.
(2) Each certificate issued under this 23, 1965, unless otherwise noted.
section contains the following:
(i) The name of the person to whom § 63.31 Eligibility requirements; gen-
the U.S.-registered civil airplane is eral.
leased. To be eligible for a flight engineer

(ii) The type of airplane. certificate, a person must—
643
§ 63.33 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(a) Be at least 21 years of age; (3) Airplane systems.

(b) Be able to read, speak, and under- (4) Airplane loading.
stand the English language, or have an (5) Airplane procedures and engine
appropriate limitation placed on his operations with respect to limitations.
flight engineer certificate; (6) Normal operating procedures.
(c) Hold at least a second-class med- (7) Emergency procedures.
ical certificate issued under part 67 of
(8) Mathematical computation of en-
this chapter within the 12 months be-
gine operations and fuel consumption.
fore the date he applies, or other evi-
dence of medical qualification accepted (c) Before taking the written tests
for the issue of a flight engineer cer- prescribed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of
tificate under § 63.42; and this section, an applicant for a flight
(d) Comply with the requirements of engineer certificate must present satis-
this subpart that apply to the rating he factory evidence of having completed
seeks. one of the experience requirements of
§ 63.37. However, he may take the writ-
(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655) ten tests before acquiring the flight
[Doc. No. 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, as training required by § 63.37.
amended by Amdt. 63–9, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, (d) An applicant for a flight engineer
1968] certificate or rating must have passed
the written tests required by para-
§ 63.33 Aircraft ratings.
graphs (a) and (b) of this section since
(a) The aircraft class ratings to be the beginning of the 24th calendar
placed on flight engineer certificates month before the month in which the
are— flight is taken. However, this limita-
(1) Reciprocating engine powered; tion does not apply to an applicant for
(2) Turbopropeller powered; and a flight engineer certificate or rating
(3) Turbojet powered. if—
(b) To be eligible for an additional (1) The applicant—
aircraft class rating after his flight en-
(i) Within the period ending 24 cal-
gineer certificate with a class rating is
endar months after the month in which
issued to him, an applicant must pass
the applicant passed the written test,
the written test that is appropriate to
is employed as a flight crewmember or
the class of airplane for which an addi-
mechanic by a U.S. air carrier or com-
tional rating is sought, and—
mercial operator operating either
(1) Pass the flight test for that class
under part 121 or as a commuter air
of aircraft; or
(2) Satisfactorily complete an ap- carrier under part 135 (as defined in
proved flight engineer training pro- part 298 of this title) and is employed
gram that is appropriate to the addi- by such a certificate holder at the time
tional class rating sought. of the flight test;
(ii) If employed as a flight crew-
§ 63.35 Knowledge requirements. member, has completed initial train-
(a) An applicant for a flight engineer ing, and, if appropriate, transition or
certificate must pass a written test on upgrade training; and
the following: (iii) Meets the recurrent training re-
(1) The regulations of this chapter quirements of the applicable part or,
that apply to the duties of a flight en- for mechanics, meets the recency of ex-
gineer. perience requirements of part 65; or
(2) The theory of flight and aero- (2) Within the period ending 24 cal-
dynamics. endar months after the month in which
(3) Basic meteorology with respect to the applicant passed the written test,
engine operations. the applicant participated in a flight
(4) Center of gravity computations. engineer or maintenance training pro-
(b) An applicant for the original or gram of a U.S. scheduled military air
additional issue of a flight engineer transportation service and is currently
class rating must pass a written test participating in that program.
for that airplane class on the following: (e) An air carrier or commercial op-
(1) Preflight. erator with an approved training pro-

(2) Airplane equipment. gram under part 121 of this chapter
644
may, when authorized by the Adminis- gineering school; at least 6 calendar

trator, provide as part of that program months of practical experience in
a written test that it may administer maintaining multiengine aircraft with
to satisfy the test required for an addi- engines rated at least 800 horsepower
tional rating under paragraph (b) of each, or the equivalent in turbine en-
this section. gine powered aircraft; and at least 5
hours of flight training in the duties of
(Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655; secs.
313(a), 601 through 605 of the Federal Avia-
a flight engineer.
tion Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1354(a), 1421 (4) At least a commercial pilot cer-
through 1425); sec. 6(c), Department of Trans- tificate with an instrument rating and
portation Act (49 U.S.C. 1655(c)); and 14 CFR at least 5 hours of flight training in the
11.49) duties of a flight engineer.
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7969, Aug. 10, 1962, as (5) At least 200 hours of flight time in
amended by Amdt. 63–17, 40 FR 32830, Aug. 5, a transport category airplane (or in a
1975; Doc. No. 63–21, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982] military airplane with at least two en-
gines and at least equivalent weight
§ 63.37 Aeronautical experience re- and horsepower) as pilot in command
quirements. or second in command performing the
(a) Except as otherwise specified functions of a pilot in command under
therein, the flight time used to satisfy the supervision of a pilot in command.
the aeronautical experience require- (6) At least 100 hours of flight time as
ments of paragraph (b) of this section a flight engineer.
must have been obtained on an air- (7) Within the 90–day period before he
plane— applies, successful completion of an ap-
(1) On which a flight engineer is re- proved flight engineer ground and
quired by this chapter; or flight course of instruction as provided
(2) That has at least three engines in appendix C of this part.
that are rated at least 800 horsepower (Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)
each or the equivalent in turbine-pow- [Doc. No. 6458, 30 FR 14559, Nov. 23, 1965, as
ered engines. amended by Amdt. 63–5, 31 FR 9047, July 1,
(b) An applicant for a flight engineer 1966; Amdt. 63–17, 40 FR 32830, Aug. 5, 1975]
certificate with a class rating must
present, for the class rating sought, § 63.39 Skill requirements.
satisfactory evidence of one of the fol- (a) An applicant for a flight engineer
lowing: certificate with a class rating must
(1) At least 3 years of diversified pass a practical test on the duties of a
practical experience in aircraft and air- flight engineer in the class of airplane
craft engine maintenance (of which at for which a rating is sought. The test
least 1 year was in maintaining multi- may only be given on an airplane speci-
engine aircraft with engines rated at fied in § 63.37(a).
least 800 horsepower each, or the equiv- (b) The applicant must—
alent in turbine engine powered air- (1) Show that he can satisfactorily
craft), and at least 5 hours of flight perform preflight inspection, servicing,
training in the duties of a flight engi- starting, pretakeoff, and postlanding
neer. procedures;
(2) Graduation from at least a 2-year (2) In flight, show that he can satis-
specialized aeronautical training factorily perform the normal duties
course in maintaining aircraft and air- and procedures relating to the air-
craft engines (of which at least 6 cal- plane, airplane engines, propellers (if
endar months were in maintaining appropriate), systems, and appliances;
multiengine aircraft with engines and
rated at least 800 horsepower each or (3) In flight, in an airplane simulator,
the equivalent in turbine engine pow- or in an approved flight engineer train-
ered aircraft), and at least 5 hours of ing device, show that he can satisfac-
flight training in the duties of a flight torily perform emergency duties and
engineer. procedures and recognize and take ap-
(3) A degree in aeronautical, elec- propriate action for malfunctions of
trical, or mechanical engineering from the airplane, engines, propellers (if ap-
a recognized college, university, or en- propriate), systems and appliances.
645
§ 63.41 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
§ 63.41 Retesting after failure. (c) Ratings issued. Aircraft class rat-
ings listed on the applicant’s foreign
An applicant for a flight engineer flight engineer license, in addition to
certificate who fails a written test or any issued to him after testing under
practical test for that certificate may the provisions of this part, are placed
apply for retesting— on the applicant’s flight engineer cer-
(a) After 30 days after the date he tificate. An applicant without an air-
failed that test; or craft class rating on his foreign flight
(b) After he has received additional engineer license may be issued a class
practice or instruction (flight, syn- rating if he shows that he currently
thetic trainer, or ground training, or meets the requirements for exercising
any combination thereof) that is nec- the privileges of his foreign flight engi-
essary, in the opinion of the Adminis- neer license on that class of aircraft.
trator or the applicant’s instructor (if (d) Privileges and limitations. The hold-
the Administrator has authorized him er of a flight engineer certificate issued
to determine the additional instruction under this section may act as a flight
necessary) to prepare the applicant for engineer of a civil aircraft of U.S. reg-
retesting. istry subject to the limitations of this
part and any additional limitations
§ 63.42 Flight engineer certificate placed on his certificate by the Admin-
issued on basis of a foreign flight istrator. He is subject to these limita-
engineer license. tions while he is acting as a flight engi-
(a) Certificates issued. The holder of a neer of the aircraft within or outside
current foreign flight engineer license the United States. However, he may
issued by a contracting State to the not act as flight engineer or in any
Convention on International Civil other capacity as a required flight
Aviation, who meets the requirements crewmember, of a civil aircraft of U.S.
of this section, may have a flight engi- registry that is carrying persons or
neer certificate issued to him for the property for compensation or hire.
operation of civil aircraft of U.S. reg- (e) Renewal of certificate and ratings.
istry. Each flight engineer certificate The holder of a certificate issued under
issued under this section specifies the this section may have that certificate
number and State of issuance of the and the ratings placed thereon renewed
foreign flight engineer license on which if, at the time of application for re-
it is based. If the holder of the certifi- newal, the foreign flight engineer li-
cate cannot read, speak, or understand cense on which that certificate is based
the English language, the Adminis- is in effect. Application for the renewal
trator may place any limitation on the of the certificate and ratings thereon
certificate that he considers necessary must be made before the expiration of
for safety. the certificate.
(b) Medical standards and certification. (Sec. 6, 80 Stat. 937, 49 U.S.C. 1655)
An applicant must submit evidence [Doc. No. 8846, 33 FR 18614, Dec. 17, 1968, as
that he currently meets the medical amended by Amdt. 63–20, 45 FR 5673, Jan. 24,
standards for the foreign flight engi- 1980]
neer license on which the application
for a certificate under this section is § 63.43 Flight engineer courses.
based. A current medical certificate An applicant for approval of a flight
issued under part 67 of this chapter will engineer course must submit a letter
be excepted as evidence that the appli- to the Administrator requesting ap-
cant meets those standards. However, a proval, and must also submit three
medical certificate issued under part 67 copies of each course outline, a descrip-
of this chapter is not evidence that the tion of the facilities and equipment,
applicant meets those standards out- and a list of the instructors and their
side the United States unless the State qualifications. An air carrier or com-
that issued the applicant’s foreign mercial operator with an approved
flight engineer license also accepts flight engineer training course under
that medical certificate as evidence of part 121 of this chapter may apply for
the applicant’s physical fitness for his approval of a training course under
foreign flight engineer license. this part by letter without submitting
646
the additional information required by the test, that the applicant has com-
this paragraph. Minimum requirements plied with this section.
for obtaining approval of a flight engi-
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as
neer course are set forth in appendix C amended by Amdt. 63–19, 43 FR 22639, May 25,
of this part. 1978]
Subpart C—Flight Navigators § 63.55 Experience requirements.

(a) An applicant for a flight navi-
AUTHORITY: Secs. 313(a), 314, 601, and 607; 49 gator certificate must be a graduate of
U.S.C. 1354(a), 1355, 1421, and 1427. a flight navigator course approved by
the Administrator or present satisfac-
SOURCE: Docket No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug.
tory documentary evidence of—
(1) Satisfactory determination of his
§ 63.51 Eligibility requirements; gen- position in flight at least 25 times by
eral. night by celestial observations and at
least 25 times by day by celestial obser-
To be eligible for a flight navigator
vations in conjunction with other aids;
certificate, a person must—
and
(a) Be at least 21 years of age;
(2) At least 200 hours of satisfactory
(b) Be able to read, write, speak, and flight navigation including celestial
understand the English language; and radio navigation and dead reck-
(c) Hold at least a second-class med- oning.
ical certificate issued under part 67 of
A pilot who has logged 500 hours of
this chapter within the 12 months be-
cross-country flight time, of which at
fore the date he applies; and
least 100 hours were at night, may be
(d) Comply with §§ 63.53, 63.55, and credited with not more than 100 hours
63.57. for the purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of
this section.
§ 63.53 Knowledge requirements.
(b) Flight time used exclusively for
(a) An applicant for a flight navi- practicing long-range navigation meth-
gator certificate must pass a written ods, with emphasis on celestial naviga-
test on— tion and dead reckoning, is considered
(1) The regulations of this chapter to be satisfactory navigation experi-
that apply to the duties of a flight nav- ence for the purposes of paragraph (a)
igator; of this section. It must be substan-
(2) The fundamentals of flight navi- tiated by a logbook, by records of an
gation, including flight planning and armed force or a certificated air car-
cruise control; rier, or by a letter signed by a certifi-
(3) Practical meteorology, including cated flight navigator and attached to
the application.
analysis of weather maps, weather re-
ports, and weather forecasts; and § 63.57 Skill requirements.
weather sequence abbreviations, sym-
bols, and nomenclature; (a) An applicant for a flight navi-
(4) The types of air navigation facili- gator certificate must pass a practical
ties and procedures in general use; test in navigating aircraft by—
(5) Calibrating and using air naviga- (1) Dead reckoning;
tion instruments; (2) Celestial means; and
(6) Navigation by dead reckoning; (3) Radio aids to navigation.
(7) Navigation by celestial means; (b) An applicant must pass the writ-
ten test prescribed by § 63.53 before tak-
(8) Navigation by radio aids;
ing the test under this section. How-
(9) Pilotage and map reading; and ever, if a delay in taking the test under
(10) Interpretation of navigation aid this section would inconvenience the
identification signals. applicant or an air carrier, he may
(b) A report of the test is mailed to take it before he receives the result of
the applicant. A passing grade is evi- the written test, or after he has failed
dence, for a period of 24 months after the written test.
647
§ 63.59 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(c) The test requirements for this APPENDIX A TO PART 63—TEST REQUIRE-
section are set forth in appendix A of MENTS FOR FLIGHT NAVIGATOR CER-
this part. TIFICATE
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as (a) Demonstration of skill. An applicant will
amended by Amdt. 63–19, 43 FR 22639, May 25, be required to pass practical tests on the pre-
1978] scribed subjects. These tests may be given by
FAA inspectors and designated flight navi-
§ 63.59 Retesting after failure. gator examiners.
(b) The examination. The practical exam-
(a) An applicant for a flight navi- ination consists of a ground test and a flight
gator certificate who fails a written or test as itemized on the examination check
practical test for that certificate may sheet. Each item must be completed satisfac-
apply for retesting— torily in order for the applicant to obtain a
(1) After 30 days after the date he passing grade. Items 5, 6, 7 of the ground test
failed that test; or may be completed orally, and items 17, 22, 23,
34, 36, 37, 38, and 39 of the flight test may be
(2) Before the 30 days have expired if completed by an oral examination when a
the applicant presents a signed state- lack of ground facilities or navigation equip-
ment from a certificated flight navi- ment makes such procedure necessary. In
gator, certificated ground instructor, these cases a notation to that effect shall be
or any other qualified person approved made in the ‘‘Remarks’’ space on the check
by the Administrator, certifying that sheet.
that person has given the applicant ad- (c) Examination procedure. (1) An applicant
will provide an aircraft in which celestial ob-
ditional instruction in each of the sub- servations can be taken in all directions.
jects failed and that person considers Minimum equipment shall include a table for
the applicant ready for retesting. plotting, a drift meter or absolute altimeter,
(b) A statement from a certificated an instrument for taking visual bearings,
flight navigator, or from an operations and a radio direction finder.
official of an approved navigator (2) More than one flight may be used to
course, is acceptable, for the purposes complete the flight test and any type of
flight pattern may be used. The test will be
of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, for
conducted chiefly over water whenever prac-
the written test and for the flight test. ticable, and without regard to radio range
A statement from a person approved by legs or radials. If the test is conducted chief-
the Administrator is acceptable for the ly over land, a chart should be used which
written tests. A statement from a su- shows very little or no topographical and
pervising or check navigator with the aeronautical data. The total flight time will
United States Armed Forces is accept- cover a period of at least four hours. Only
able for the written test and for the one applicant may be examined at one time,
and no applicant may perform other than
practical test.
navigator duties during the examination.
(c) If the applicant failed the flight (3) When the test is conducted with an air-
test, the additional instruction must craft belonging to an air carrier, the naviga-
have been administered in flight. tion procedures should conform with those
set forth in the carrier’s operations manual.
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as Items of the flight test which are not per-
amended by Amdt. 63–19, 43 FR 22640, May 25, formed during the routine navigation of the
1978] flight will be completed by oral examination
after the flight or at times during flight
§ 63.61 Flight navigator courses. which the applicant indicates may be used
An applicant for approval of a flight for tests on those items. Since in-flight
weather conditions, the reliability of the
navigator course must submit a letter
weather forecast, and the stability of the air-
to the Administrator requesting ap- craft will have considerable effect on an ap-
proval, and must also submit three plicant’s performance, good judgment must
copies of the course outline, a descrip- be used by the agent or examiner in evalu-
tion of his facilities and equipment, ating the tests.
and a list of the instructors and their (d) Ground test. For the ground test, in the
qualifications. Requirements for the order of the numbered items on the examina-
course are set forth in appendix B to tion check sheet, an applicant will be re-
this part. quired to:
(1) Identify without a star identifier, at

least six navigational stars and all planets
available for navigation at the time of the
648
examination and explain the method of iden- (10) Demonstrate the proper use of a flux
tification. gate compass or gyrosyn compass (when
(2) Identify two additional stars with a star available), with special emphasis on the cag-
identifier or sky diagrams and explain iden- ing methods and the location of switches,
tification procedure. circuit breakers, and fuses. If these com-
(3) Precompute a time-altitude curve for a passes are not part of the aircraft’s equip-
period of about 20 minutes and take 10 single ment, an oral examination will be given.
observations of a celestial body which is ris- (11) Be accurate and use good judgment
ing or setting rapidly. The intervals between when setting and altering headings. Erro-
observations should be at least one minute. neous application of variation, deviation, or
Mark each observation on the graph to show drift correction, or incorrect measurement
accuracy. All observations, after corrections, of course on the chart will be graded as un-
shall plot within 8 minutes of arc from the satisfactory.
time-altitude curve, and the average error (12) Demonstrate or explain the use of
shall not exceed 5 minutes of arc. characteristics of various chart projections
(4) Take and plot one 3-star fix and 3 LOP’s used in long-range air navigation, including
of the sun. Plotted fix or an average of LOP’s the plotting of courses and bearings, and the
must fall within 5 miles of the actual posi- measuring of distances.
tion of the observer. (13) Demonstrate ability to identify des-
(5) Demonstrate or explain the compensa- ignated landmarks by the use of a sectional
tion and swinging of a liquid-type magnetic or WAC chart.
compass.
(14) Use a computer with facility and accu-
(6) Demonstrate or explain a method of
racy for the computation of winds, drift cor-
aligning one type of drift meter.
rection and drift angles, ground speeds,
(7) Demonstrate or explain a method of
ETA’s, fuel loads, etc.
aligning an astro-compass or periscopic sex-
tant. (15) Determine track, ground speed, and
(e) Flight test. For the flight test, in the wind by the double drift method. When a
order of the numbered items on the examina- drift meter is not part of the aircraft’s equip-
tion check sheet, an applicant will be re- ment, an oral examination on the use of the
quired to: drift meter and a double drift problem shall
(1) Demonstrate his ability to read weather be completed.
symbols and interpret synoptic surface and (16) Determine ground speed and wind by
upper air weather maps with particular em- the timing method with a drift meter. When
phasis being placed on winds. a drift meter is not part of the aircraft’s
(2) Prepare a flight plan by zones from the equipment, an oral examination on the pro-
forecast winds or pressure data of an upper cedure and a problem shall be completed.
air chart and the operator’s data. (17) Demonstrate the use of air plot for de-
(3) Compute from the operator’s data the termining wind between fixes and for plot-
predicted fuel consumption for each zone of ting pressure lines of position when using
the flight, including the alternate. pressure and absolute altimeter compari-
(4) Determine the point-of-no-return for sons.
the flight with all engines running and the (18) Give ETA’s to well defined check
equitime point with one engine inoperative. points at least once each hour after the sec-
Graphical methods which are part of the ond hour of flight. The average error shall
company’s operations manual may be used not be more than 5 percent of the inter-
for these computations. vening time intervals, and the maximum
(5) Prepare a cruise control (howgozit) error of any one ETA shall not be more than
chart from the operator’s data. 10 percent.
(6) Enter actual fuel consumed on the (19) Demonstrate knowledge and use of D/F
cruise control chart and interpret the vari- equipment and radio facility information.
ations of the actual curve from the predicted Grading on this item will be based largely on
curve. the applicant’s selection of those radio aids
(7) Check the presence on board and oper- which will be of most value to his naviga-
ating condition of all navigation equipment. tion, the manner with which he uses equip-
Normally a check list will be used. This ment, including filter box controls, and the
check will include a time tick or chronom- precision with which he reads bearings. The
eter comparison. Any lack of thoroughness aircraft’s compass heading and all compass
during this check will justify this item being corrections must be considered for each bear-
graded unsatisfactory. ing.
(8) Locate emergency equipment, such as, (20) Use care in tuning to radio stations to
the nearest fire extinguisher, life preserver, insure maximum reception of signal and
life rafts, exits, axe, first aid kits, etc. check for interference signals. Receiver will
(9) Recite the navigator’s duties and sta- be checked to ascertain that antenna and
tions during emergencies for the type of air- BFO (Voice-CW) switches are in correct posi-
craft used for the test. tions.
649
(21) Identify at least three radio stations radio or visual fix, a celestial fix under fa-
using International Morse code only for iden- vorable conditions should plot within 10
tification. The agent or examiner will tune miles of the actual position.
in these stations so that the applicant will (38) Select celestial bodies for observation,
have no knowledge of the direction, distance, when possible, whose azimuths will differ by
or frequency of the stations. approximately 120° for a 3-body fix and will
(22) Take at least one radio bearing by differ by approximately 90° for a 2-body fix.
manual use of the loop. The agent or exam- The altitudes of the selected bodies should be
iner will check the applicant’s bearing by between 25° and 75° whenever practicable.
taking a manual bearing on the same station (39) Have POMAR and any other required
immediately after the applicant. reports ready for transmission at time of
(23) Show the use of good judgment in eval- schedule, and be able to inform the pilot in
uating radio bearings, and explain why cer- command promptly with regard to the air-
tain bearings may be of doubtful value. craft’s position and progress in comparison
(24) Determine and apply correctly the cor- with the flight plan.
rection required to be made to radio bearings (40) Keep a log with sufficient legible en-
before plotting them on a Mercator chart, tries to provide a record from which the
and demonstrate the ability to plot bearings flight could be retraced.
accurately on charts of the Mercator and (41) Note significant weather changes
Lambert conformal projections. which might influence the drift or ground
(25) Compute the compass heading, ETA,
speed of the aircraft, such as, temperature,
and fuel remaining if it is assumed that the
‘‘D’’ factors, frontal conditions, turbulence,
flight would be diverted to an alternate air-
etc.
port at a time specified by the agent or ex-
(42) Determine the wind between fixes as a
aminer.
(26)–(28) [Reserved] regular practice.
(29) Demonstrate the ability to properly (43) Estimate the time required and aver-
operate and read an absolute altimeter. age ground speed during a letdown, under
(30) Determine the ‘‘D’’ factors for a series conditions specified by the pilot in com-
of compared readings of an absolute altim- mand.
eter and a pressure altimeter. (44) Work with sufficient speed to deter-
(31) Determine drift angle or lateral dis- mine the aircraft’s position hourly by celes-
placement from the true headingline by ap- tial means and also make all other observa-
plication of Bellamy’s formula or a variation tions and records pertinent to the naviga-
thereof. tion. The applicant should be able to take
(32) Interpret the altimeter comparison the observation, compute, and plot a celes-
data with respect to the pressure system tial LOP within a time limit of 8 minutes;
found at flight level. From this data evalu- observe the absolute and pressure altimeters
ate the accuracy of the prognostic weather and compute the drift or lateral displace-
map used for flight planning and apply this ment within a time limit of 3 minutes.
analysis to the navigation of the flight. (45) Be accurate in reading instruments
(33) Interpret single LOP’s for most prob- and making computations. Errors which are
able position, and show how a series of single made and corrected without affecting the
LOP’s of the same body may be used to indi- navigation will be disregarded unless they
cate the probable track and ground speed. cause considerable loss of time.
Also, show how a series of single LOP’s (ce- An uncorrected error in computation (in-
lestial or radio) from the same celestial body cluding reading instruments and books)
or radio station may be used to determine which will affect the reported position more
position when the change of azimuth or bear- than 25 miles, the heading more than 3°, or
ing is 30° or more between observations. any ETA more than 15 minutes will cause
(34) Select one of the celestial LOP’s used this item to be graded unsatisfactory.
during the flight and explain how to make a (46) Be alert to changing weather or other
single line of position approach to a point se- conditions during flight which might affect
lected by the agent or examiner, giving head- the navigation. An applicant should not fail
ings, times, and ETA’s. to take celestial observations just prior to
(35) Demonstrate the proper use of an encountering a broken or overcast sky condi-
astro-compass or periscopic sextant for tak- tion; and he should not fail to take a bearing
ing bearings. on a radio station, which operates at sched-
(36) Determine compass deviation as soon uled intervals and which would be a valuable
as possible after reaching cruising altitude aid to the navigation.
and whenever there is a change of compass (47) Show a logical choice and sequence in
heading of 15° or more. using the various navigation methods ac-
(37) Take celestial fixes at hourly intervals cording to time and accuracy, and check the
when conditions permit. The accuracy of positions determined by one method against
these fixes shall be checked by means of a positions determined by other methods.

radio or visual fix whenever practicable. (48) Use a logical sequence in performing
After allowing for the probable error of a the various duties of a navigator and plan
650
work according to a schedule. The more im- Classroom
Subject
portant duties should not be neglected for hours
others of less importance. To include:
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as Basic weather principles.
amended by Docket FAA–2017–0733, Amdt. 63– Temperature.
39, 82 FR 34398, July 25, 2017] Pressure.
Winds.
Moisture in the atmosphere.
APPENDIX B TO PART 63—FLIGHT NAVI-
Stability.
GATOR TRAINING COURSE REQUIRE- Clouds.
MENTS Hazards.
Air masses.
(a) Training course outline—(1) Format. The Front weather.
ground course outline and the flight course Fog.
outline shall be combined in one looseleaf Thunderstorms.
binder and shall include a table of contents, Icing.
divided into two parts—ground course and World weather and climate.
flight course. Each part of the table of con- Weather maps and weather reports.
tents must contain a list of the major sub- Forecasting.
jects, together with hours allotted to each International Morse code:
subject and the total classroom and flight Ability to receive code groups of letters and
numerals at a speed of eight words per
hours.
minute
(2) Ground course outline. (i) It is not man- Navigation instruments (exclusive of radio and
datory that a course outline have the subject radar) ................................................................ 20
headings arranged exactly as listed in this To include:
paragraph. Any arrangement of general Compasses.
headings and subheadings will be satisfac- Pressure altimeters.
tory provided all the subject material listed Airspeed indicators.
here is included and the acceptable min- Driftmeters.
imum number of hours is assigned to each Bearing indicators.
subject. Each general subject shall be broken Aircraft octants.
down into detail showing items to be cov- Instrument calibration and alignment.
Charts and pilotage ............................................. 15
ered.
To include:
(ii) If any agency desires to include addi-
Chart projections.
tional subjects in the ground training cur- Chart symbols.
riculum, such as international law, flight hy- Principles of pilotage.
giene, or others which are not required, the Dead reckoning ................................................... 30
hours allotted these additional subjects may To include:
not be included in the minimum classroom Air plot.
hours. Ground plot.
(iii) The following subjects with classroom Calculation of ETA.
hours are considered the minimum coverage Vector analysis.
for a ground training course for flight navi- Use of computer.
gators: Search.
Absolute altimeter with:
Classroom Applications ......................................................... 15
Subject hours To include:
Principles of construction.
Federal Aviation Administration ........................... 5 Operating instructions.
To include Parts 63, 91, and 121 of this Use of Bellamy’s formula.
chapter.
Flight planning with single drift correc-
Meteorology ......................................................... 40
tion.
Radio and long-range navigational aids .............. 35
To include:
Principles of radio transmission and re-
ception.
Radio aids to navigation.
Government publications.
Airborne D/F equipment.
Errors of radio bearings.
Quadrantal correction.
Plotting radio bearings.
ICAO Q code for direction finding.

Celestial navigation ............................................. 150
651
Classroom ratio in excess of 20 to 1 will be considered

Subject hours unsatisfactory.
(2) At least one ground instructor must
To include:
hold a valid flight navigator certificate, and
The solar system.
The celestial sphere. be utilized to coordinate instruction of
The astronomical triangle. ground school subjects.
Theory of lines of position. (3) Each instructor who conducts flight
Use of the Air Almanac. training must hold a valid flight navigator
Time and its applications. certificate.
Navigation tables. (d) Revision of training course. (1) Requests
Precomputation.
Celestial line of position approach. for revisions to course outlines, facilities,
Star identification. and equipment shall follow procedures for
Corrections to celestial observations. original approval of the course. Revisions
Flight planning and cruise control ....................... 25 should be submitted in such form that an en-
To include: tire page or pages of the approved outline
The flight plan. can be removed and replaced by the revi-
Fuel consumption charts.
Methods of cruise control.
sions.
Flight progress chart. (2) The list of instructors may be revised at
Point-of-no-return. any time without request for approval, pro-
Equitime point. vided the minimum requirement of para-
Long-range flight problems .................................. 15 graph (e) of this section is maintained.
(e) Credit for previous training and experi-
Total (exclusive of final examinations) .. 350
ence. (1) Credit may be granted by an oper-
ator to students for previous training and ex-
(3) Flight course outline. (i) A minimum of perience which is provable and comparable
150 hours of supervised flight training shall to portions of the approved curriculum.
be given, of which at least 50 hours of flight When granting such credit, the approved
training must be given at night, and celes- course operator should be fully cognizant of
tial navigation must be used during flights the fact that he is responsible for the pro-
which total at least 125 hours. ficiency of his graduates in accordance with
(ii) A maximum of 50 hours of the required subdivision (i) of paragraph (3) of this sec-
flight training may be obtained in accept- tion.
able types of synthetic flight navigator (2) Where advanced credit is allowed, the
training devices. operator shall evaluate the student’s pre-
(iii) Flights should be at least four hours in vious training and experience in accordance
length and should be conducted off civil air- with the normal practices of accredited tech-
ways. Some training on long-range flights is nical schools. Before credit is given for any
desirable, but is not required. There is no ground school subject or portion thereof, the
limit to the number of students that may be student must pass an appropriate examina-
trained on one flight, but at least one tion given by the operator. The results of the
astrodrome or one periscopic sextant mount- examination, the basis for credit allowance,
ing must be provided for each group of four and the hours credited shall be incorporated
students. as a part of the student’s records.
(iv) Training must be given in dead reck- (3) Credit up to a maximum of 50 hours to-
oning, pilotage, radio navigation, celestial ward the flight training requirement may be
navigation, and the use of the absolute al- given to pilots who have logged at least 500
timeter. hours while a member of a flight crew which
(b) Equipment. (1) Classroom equipment required a certificated flight navigator or
shall include one table at least 24″ × 32″ in di- the Armed Forces equivalent. A similar cred-
mensions for each student. it may also be given to a licensed deck offi-
(2) Aircraft suitable for the flight training cer of the Maritime Service who has served
must be available to the approved course op- as such for at least one year on ocean-going
erator to insure that the flight training may vessels. One-half of the flight time credited
be completed without undue delay. under the terms of this paragraph may be ap-
The approved course operator may contract plied toward the 50 hours of flight training
or obtain written agreements with aircraft required at night.
operators for the use of suitable aircraft. A (f) Students records and reports. Approval of
copy of the contract or written agreement a course shall not be continued in effect un-
with an aircraft operator shall be attached less the course operator keeps an accurate
to each of the three copies of the course out- record of each student, including a chrono-
line submitted for approval. In all cases, the logical log of all instruction, subjects cov-
approved course operator is responsible for ered and course examinations and grades,
the nature and quality of instruction given and unless he prepares and transmits to the
during flight. responsible Flight Standards office not later
(c) Instructors. (1) Sufficient classroom in- than January 31 of each year, a report con-
structors must be available to prevent an ex- taining the following information for the
cessive ratio of students to instructors. Any previous calendar year:
652
(1) The names of all students graduated, responsible Flight Standards office at any
together with their school grades for ground time within 60 days before to the expiration
and flight subjects. date. Renewal of approval will depend upon
(2) The names of all students failed or the course operator meeting the current con-
dropped, together with their school grades ditions for approval and having a satisfac-
and reasons for dropping. tory record as an operator.
(g) Quality of instruction. Approval of a
course shall not be continued in effect unless [Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7970, Aug. 10, 1962, as
at least 80 percent of the students who apply amended by Amdt. 63–6, 31 FR 9211, July 6,
within 90 days after graduation are able to 1966; Amdt. 63–28, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989;
qualify on the first attempt for certification Docket FAA–2017–0733, Amdt. 63–39, 82 FR
as flight navigators. 34398, July 25, 2017; Docket FAA–2018–0119,
(h) Statement of graduation. Each student Amdt. 63–40, 83 FR 9170, Mar. 5, 2018]
who successfully completes an approved
flight navigator course shall be given a APPENDIX C TO PART 63—FLIGHT ENGI-
statement of graduation. NEER TRAINING COURSE REQUIRE-
(i) Inspections. Approved course operations MENTS
will be inspected by authorized representa-
tives of the Administrator as often as (a) Training course outline—(1) Format. The
deemed necessary to insure that instruction ground course outline and the flight course
is maintained at the required standards, but outline are independent. Each must be con-
the period between inspections shall not ex- tained in a looseleaf binder to include a table
ceed 12 months. of contents. If an applicant desires approval
(j) Change of ownership, name, or location— of both a ground school course and a flight
(1) Change of ownership. Approval of a flight school course, they must be combined in one
navigator course shall not be continued in looseleaf binder that includes a separate
effect after the course has changed owner- table of contents for each course. Separate
ship. The new owner must obtain a new ap- course outlines are required for each type of
proval by following the procedure prescribed airplane.
for original approval. (2) Ground course outline. (i) It is not man-
(2) Change in name. An approved course datory that the subject headings be arranged
changed in name but not changed in owner- exactly as listed in this paragraph. Any ar-
ship shall remain valid if the change is re- rangement of subjects is satisfactory if all
ported by the approved course operator to
the subject material listed here is included
the responsible Flight Standards office. A
and at least the minimum programmed
letter of approval under the new name will
hours are assigned to each subject. Each gen-
be issued by the responsible Flight Stand-
eral subject must be broken down into detail
ards office.
showing the items to be covered.
(3) Change in location. An approved course
shall remain in effect even though the ap- (ii) If any course operator desires to in-
proved course operator changes location if clude additional subjects in the ground
the change is reported without delay by the course curriculum, such as international
operator to the responsible Flight Standards law, flight hygiene, or others that are not re-
office, which will inspect the facilities to be quired, the hours allotted these additional
used. If they are found to be adequate, a let- subjects may not be included in the min-
ter of approval showing the new location will imum programmed classroom hours.
be issued by the responsible Flight Stand- (iii) The following subjects and classroom
ards office. hours are the minimum programmed cov-
(k) Cancellation of approval. (1) Failure to erage for the initial approval of a ground
meet or maintain any of the requirements training course for flight engineers. Subse-
set forth in this section for the approval or quent to initial approval of a ground train-
operation of an approved flight navigator ing course an applicant may apply to the Ad-
course shall be considered sufficient reason ministrator for a reduction in the pro-
for cancellation of the approval. grammed hours. Approval of a reduction in
(2) If an operator should desire voluntary the approved programmed hours is based on
cancellation of his approved course, he improved training effectiveness due to im-
should submit the effective letter of ap- provements in methods, training aids, qual-
proval and a written request for cancellation ity of instruction, or any combination there-
to the Administrator through the respon- of.
sible Flight Standards office.
Classroom
(l) Duration. The authority to operate an Subject hours
approved flight navigator course shall expire
24 months after the last day of the month of Federal Aviation Regulations .............................. 10
issuance. To include the regulations of this chapter
(m) Renewal. Application for renewal of au- that apply to flight engineers
thority to operate an approved flight navi- Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics .................... 10
gator course may be made by letter to the Airplane Familiarization ....................................... 90
653
Classroom SUBJECT
Subject hours
NORMAL DUTIES, PROCEDURES AND OPERATIONS
To include as appropriate:
Specifications. To include as appropriate:
Construction features. Airplane preflight.
Flight controls. Engine starting, power checks, pretakeoff,
Hydraulic systems. postlanding and shut-down procedures.
Pneumatic systems.
Power control.
Electrical systems.
Anti-icing and de-icing systems. Temperature control.
Pressurization and air-conditioning sys- Engine operation analysis.
tems. Operation of all systems.
Vacuum systems. Fuel management.
Pilot static systems. Logbook entries.
Instrument systems. Pressurization and air conditioning.
Fuel and oil systems.
Emergency equipment. RECOGNITION AND CORRECTION OF IN-FLIGHT
Engine Familiarization ......................................... 45
MALFUNCTIONS
Specifications. To include:
Construction features.
Analysis of abnormal engine operation.
Lubrication.
Ignition. Analysis of abnormal operation of all sys-
Carburetor and induction, super- tems.
charging and fuel control systems Corrective action.
Accessories.
Propellers. EMERGENCY OPERATIONS IN FLIGHT
Instrumentation.
Emergency equipment. To include as appropriate:
Normal Operations (Ground and Flight) .............. 50 Engine fire control.
To include as appropriate: Fuselage fire control.
Servicing methods and procedures. Smoke control.
Operation of all the airplane systems. Loss of power or pressure in each system.
Operation of all the engine systems.
Engine overspeed.
Loading and center of gravity computa-
tions. Fuel dumping.
Cruise control (normal, long range, Landing gear, spoilers, speed brakes, and
maximum endurance) flap extension and retraction.
Power and fuel computation. Engine shut-down and restart.
Meteorology as applicable to engine Use of oxygen.
operation (iv) If the Administrator finds a simulator
Emergency Operations ........................................ 80
or flight engineer training device to accu-
Landing gear, brakes, flaps, speed rately reproduce the design, function, and
brakes, and leading edge devices control characteristics, as pertaining to the
Pressurization and air-conditioning. duties and responsibilities of a flight engi-
Portable fire extinguishers. neer on the type of airplane to be flown, the
Fuselage fire and smoke control. flight training time may be reduced by a
Loss of electrical power. ratio of 1 hour of flight time to 2 hours of
Engine fire control.
Engine shut-down and restart.
airplane simulator time, or 3 hours of flight
Oxygen. engineer training device time, as the case
may be, subject to the following limitations:
Total (exclusive of final tests) ........ 235 (a) Except as provided in subdivision (b) of
this paragraph, the required flight instruc-
The above subjects, except Theory of tion time in an airplane may not be less than
Flight and Aerodynamics, and Regulations 5 hours.
must apply to the same type of airplane in (b) As to a flight engineer student holding
which the student flight engineer is to re- at least a commercial pilot certificate with
ceive flight training. an instrument rating, airplane simulator or
(3) Flight Course Outline. (i) The flight a combination of airplane simulator and
training curriculum must include at least 10 flight engineer training device time may be
hours of flight instruction in an airplane submitted for up to all 10 hours of the re-
specified in § 63.37(a). The flight time required flight instruction time in an airplane.
quired for the practical test may not be cred- However, not more than 15 hours of flight en-
ited as part of the required flight instruc- gineer training device time may be sub-
tion. stituted for flight instruction time.
(ii) All of the flight training must be given (v) To obtain credit for flight training
in the same type airplane. time, airplane simulator time, or flight engi-
(iii) As appropriate to the airplane type, neer training device time, the student must
the following subjects must be taught in the occupy the flight engineer station and oper-
flight training course: ate the controls.
654
(b) Classroom equipment. Classroom equip- results of the test, the basis for credit allow-
ment should consist of systems and proce- ance, and the hours credited as part of the
dural training devices, satisfactory to the student’s records.
Administrator, that duplicate the operation (g) Records and reports. (1) The course oper-
of the systems of the airplane in which the ator must maintain, for at least two years
student is to receive his flight training. after a student graduates, fails, or drops
(c) Contracts or agreements. (1) An approved from a course, a record of the student’s
flight engineer course operator may contract training, including a chronological log of the
with other persons to obtain suitable air- subject course, attendance examinations,
planes, airplane simulators, or other train- and grades.
ing devices or equipment. (2) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of
(2) An operator who is approved to conduct this section, the course operator must sub-
both the flight engineer ground course and mit to the Administrator, not later than
the flight engineer flight course may con- January 31 of each year, a report for the pre-
tract with others to conduct one course or vious calendar year’s training, to include:
the other in its entirety but may not con- (i) Name, enrollment and graduation date
tract with others to conduct both courses for of each student;
the same airplane type. (ii) Ground school hours and grades of each
(3) An operator who has approval to con- student;
duct a flight engineer ground course or flight (iii) Flight, airplane simulator, flight engi-
course for a type of airplane, but not both neer training device hours, and grades of
courses, may not contract with another per- each student; and
son to conduct that course in whole or in
(iv) Names of students failed or dropped,
part.
together with their school grades and rea-
(4) An operator who contracts with another
sons for dropping.
to conduct a flight engineer course may not
(3) Upon request, the Administrator may
authorize or permit the course to be con-
ducted in whole or in part by a third person. waive the reporting requirements of para-
(5) In all cases, the course operator who is graph (2) of this section for an approved
approved to operate the course is responsible flight engineer course that is part of an ap-
for the nature and quality of the instruction proved training course under subpart N of
given. part 121 of this chapter.
(6) A copy of each contract authorized (h) Quality of instruction. (1) Approval of a
under this paragraph must be attached to ground course is discontinued whenever less
each of the 3 copies of the course outline sub- than 80 percent of the students pass the FAA
mitted for approval. written test on the first attempt.
(d) Instructors. (1) Only certificated flight (2) Approval of a flight course is discon-
engineers may give the flight instruction re- tinued whenever less than 80 percent of the
quired by this appendix in an airplane, simu- students pass the FAA practical test on the
lator, or flight engineer training device. first attempt.
(2) There must be a sufficient number of (3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2)
qualified instructors available to prevent an of this section, approval of a ground or flight
excess ratio of students to instructors. course may be continued when the Adminis-
(e) Revisions. (1) Requests for revisions of trator finds—
the course outlines, facilities or equipment (i) That the failure rate was based on less
must follow the procedures for original ap- than a representative number of students; or
proval of the course. Revisions must be sub- (ii) That the course operator has taken sat-
mitted in such form that an entire page or isfactory means to improve the effectiveness
pages of the approved outline can be removed of the training.
and replaced by the revisions. (i) Time limitation. Each student must apply
(2) The list of instructors may be revised at for the written test and the flight test within
any time without request for approval, if the 90 days after completing the ground school
requirements of paragraph (d) of this appen- course.
dix are maintained. (j) Statement of course completion. (1) The
(f) Ground school credits. (1) Credit may be course operator shall give to each student
granted a student in the ground school who successfully completes an approved
course by the course operator for comparable flight engineer ground school training
previous training or experience that the stu- course, and passes the FAA written test, a
dent can show by written evidence: however, statement of successful completion of the
the course operator must still meet the qual- course that indicates the date of training,
ity of instruction as described in paragraph the type of airplane on which the ground
(h) of this appendix. course training was based, and the number of
(2) Before credit for previous training or hours received in the ground school course.
experience may be given, the student must (2) The course operator shall give each stu-
pass a test given by the course operator on dent who successfully completes an approved
the subject for which the credit is to be flight engineer flight course, and passed the
given. The course operator shall incorporate FAA practical test, a statement of successful
655
completion of the flight course that indi- (2) Application for renewal may be made to
cates the dates of the training, the type of the Administrator at any time after 60 days
airplane used in the flight course, and the before the termination date.
number of hours received in the flight (p) Course operator approvals. An applicant
course. for approval of a flight engineer ground
(3) A course operator who is approved to course, or flight course, or both, must meet
conduct both the ground course and the all of the requirements of this appendix con-
flight course may include both courses in a cerning application, approval, and con-
single statement of course completion if the tinuing approval of that course or courses.
provisions of paragraphs (1) and (2) of this (q) Practical test eligibility. An applicant for
section are included. a flight engineer certificate and class rating
(4) The requirements of this paragraph do under the provisions of § 63.37(b)(6) is not eli-
not apply to an air carrier or commercial op- gible to take the practical test unless he has
erator with an approved training course successfully completed an approved flight
under part 121 of this chapter providing the engineer ground school course in the same
student receives a flight engineer certificate type of airplane for which he has completed
upon completion of that course. an approved flight engineer flight course.
(k) Inspections. Each course operator shall [Doc. No. 6458, 30 FR 14560, Nov. 23, 1965, as
allow the Administrator at any time or amended by Amdt. 63–15, 37 FR 9758, May 17,
place, to make any inspection necessary to 1972]
ensure that the quality and effectiveness of
the instruction are maintained at the re-
quired standards. PART 65—CERTIFICATION: AIRMEN
(l) Change of ownership, name, or location. OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREW-
(1) Approval of a flight engineer ground MEMBERS
course or flight course is discontinued if the
ownership of the course changes. The new
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO.
owner must obtain a new approval by fol-
100–2 [NOTE]
lowing the procedure prescribed for original
approval.
103
(2) Approval of a flight engineer ground SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO.
course or flight course does not terminate 118–2
upon a change in the name of the course that
is reported to the Administrator within 30 Subpart A—General
days. The Administrator issues a new letter
of approval, using the new name, upon re- Sec.
ceipt of notice within that time. 65.1 Applicability.
(3) Approval of a flight engineer ground 65.3 Certification of foreign airmen other
course or flight course does not terminate than flight crewmembers.
upon a change in location of the course that 65.11 Application and issue.
is reported to the Administrator within 30 65.12 Offenses involving alcohol or drugs.
days. The Administrator issues a new letter 65.13 Temporary certificate.
of approval, showing the new location, upon 65.14 [Reserved]
receipt of notice within that time, if he finds 65.15 Duration of certificates.
the new facilities to be adequate. 65.16 Change of name: Replacement of lost
(m) Cancellation of approval. (1) Failure to or destroyed certificate.
meet or maintain any of the requirements of 65.17 Tests: General procedure.
this appendix for the approval of a flight en- 65.18 Written tests: Cheating or other unau-
gineer ground course or flight course is rea- thorized conduct.
son for cancellation of the approval. 65.19 Retesting after failure.
(2) If a course operator desires to volun- 65.20 Applications, certificates, logbooks,
tarily terminate the course, he should notify reports, and records: Falsification repro-
the Administrator in writing and return the duction, or alteration.
last letter of approval. 65.21 Change of address.
(n) Duration. Except for a course operated 65.23 [Reserved]
as part of an approved training course under
subpart N of part 121 of this chapter, the ap- Subpart B—Air Traffic Control Tower
proval to operate a flight engineer ground Operators
course or flight course terminates 24 months
after the last day of the month of issue. 65.31 Required credentials, certificates, and
(o) Renewal. (1) Renewal of approval to op- ratings or qualifications.
erate a flight engineer ground course or 65.33 Eligibility requirements: General.
flight course is conditioned upon the course 65.35 Knowledge requirements.

operator’s meeting the requirements of this 65.37 Skill requirements: Operating posi-
appendix. tions.
656
65.39 Practical experience requirements: 65.115 Senior parachute rigger certificate:
Facility rating. Experience, knowledge, and skill require-
65.41 Skill requirements: Facility ratings. ments.
65.43 [Reserved] 65.117 Military riggers or former military
65.45 Performance of duties. riggers: Special certification rule.
65.46–65.46b [Reserved] 65.119 Master parachute rigger certificate:
65.47 Maximum hours. Experience, knowledge, and skill require-
65.49 General operating rules. ments.
65.50 Currency requirements. 65.121 Type ratings.
65.123 Additional type ratings: Require-
Subpart C—Aircraft Dispatchers ments.
65.125 Certificates: Privileges.
65.51 Certificate required. 65.127 Facilities and equipment.
65.53 Eligibility requirements: General. 65.129 Performance standards.
65.55 Knowledge requirements. 65.131 Records.
65.57 Experience or training requirements. 65.133 Seal.
65.59 Skill requirements. APPENDIX A TO PART 65—AIRCRAFT DIS-
65.61 Aircraft dispatcher certification PATCHER COURSES
courses: Content and minimum hours.
65.63 Aircraft dispatcher certification AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113,
courses: Application, duration, and other 44701–44703, 44707, 44709–44711, 45102–45103,
general requirements. 45301–45302.
65.65 Aircraft dispatcher certification SOURCE: Docket No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug.
courses: Training facilities. 10, 1962, unless otherwise noted.
65.67 Aircraft dispatcher certification
courses: Personnel. SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION
65.70 Aircraft dispatcher certification NO. 100–2
courses: Records.
EDITORIAL NOTE: For the text of SFAR No.
Subpart D—Mechanics
100–2, see part 61 of this chapter.
65.71 Eligibility requirements: General.
65.73 Ratings. SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION
65.75 Knowledge requirements. NO. 103—PROCESS FOR REQUESTING
65.77 Experience requirements. WAIVER OF MANDATORY SEPARATION
65.79 Skill requirements. AGE FOR A FEDERAL AVIATION AD-
65.80 Certificated aviation maintenance MINISTRATION AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL
technician school students. SPECIALIST IN FLIGHT SERVICE STA-
65.81 General privileges and limitations. TIONS, ENROUTE OR TERMINAL FA-
65.83 Recent experience requirements.
CILITIES, AND THE DAVID J. HURLEY
65.85 Airframe rating; additional privileges.
65.87 Powerplant rating; additional privi- AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SYSTEM COM-
leges. MAND CENTER
65.89 Display of certificate.
1. To whom does this SFAR apply? This Spe-
65.91 Inspection authorization.
cial Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) ap-
65.92 Inspection authorization: Duration.
plies to you if you are an air traffic control
65.93 Inspection authorization: Renewal.
specialist (ATCS) employed by the FAA in
65.95 Inspection authorization: Privileges
flight service stations, enroute facilities,
and limitations.
terminal facilities, or at the David J. Hurley
Air Traffic Control System Command Center
Subpart E—Repairmen
who wishes to obtain a waiver of the manda-
65.101 Eligibility requirements: General. tory separation age as provided by 5 U.S.C.
65.103 Repairman certificate: Privileges and section 8335(a).
limitations. 2. When must I file for a waiver? No earlier
65.104 Repairman certificate—experimental than the beginning of the twelfth month be-
aircraft builder—Eligibility, privileges fore, but no later than the beginning of the
and limitations. sixth month before, the month in which you
65.105 Display of certificate. turn 56, your official chain-of-command must
65.107 Repairman certificate (light-sport receive your written request asking for a
aircraft): Eligibility, privileges, and lim- waiver of mandatory separation.
its. 3. What if I do not file a request before six
months before the month in which I turn 56? If
Subpart F—Parachute Riggers your official chain-of-command does not re-
ceive your written request for a waiver of

65.111 Certificate required. mandatory separation before the beginning
65.113 Eligibility requirements: General. of the sixth month before the month in
657
which you turn 56, your request will be de- c. The senior executive manager in the re-
nied. gional chain-of-command will make a writ-
4. How will the FAA determine if my request ten recommendation that the Administrator
meets the filing time requirements of this SFAR? either approve or deny your request. If the
a. We consider your request to be filed in a senior executive manager recommends ap-
timely manner under this SFAR if your offi- proval of your request, he or she will certify
cial chain-of-command receives it or it is in writing the accuracy of the information
postmarked: you have provided as evidence of exceptional
i. After 12 a.m. on the first day of the skills and experience.
twelfth month before the month in which d. The senior executive manager in the re-
you turn 56; and gional chain-of-command will then forward
ii. Before 12 a.m. of the first day of the his or her recommendation with a copy of
sixth month before the month in which you your request to the appropriate Vice Presi-
turn 56. dent at FAA Headquarters. Depending on the
b. If you file your request by mail and the facility in which you are employed, the re-
postmark is not legible, we will consider it quest will be forwarded to either the Vice
to comply with paragraph a.2 of this section President for Flight Services, the Vice Presi-
if we receive it by 12 p.m. of the fifth day of dent for Enroute and Oceanic Services, the
the sixth month before the month in which Vice President for Terminal Services or the
you turn 56. Vice President for Systems Operations. For
c. If the last day of the time period speci- example, if you work at a flight service sta-
fied in paragraph a.2 or paragraph b falls on tion at the time that you request a waiver,
a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, we the request will be forwarded to the Vice
will consider the time period to end at 12 President for Flight Services.
p.m. of the next business day. e. The appropriate Vice President will re-
5. Where must I file my request for waiver and view your request and make a written rec-
what must it include? ommendation that the Administrator either
a. You must file your request for waiver of approve or deny your request, which will be
mandatory separation in writing with the forwarded to the Administrator.
Air Traffic Manager in flight service sta- f. The Administrator will issue the final
tions, enroute facilities, terminal facilities, decision on your request.
or the David J. Hurley Air Traffic Control 7. If I am granted a waiver, when will it ex-
System Command Center in which you are pire?
employed. a. Waivers will be granted for a period of
b. Your request for waiver must include all one year.
of the following: b. No later than 90-days prior to expiration
i. Your name. of a waiver, you may request that the waiver
ii. Your current facility. be extended using the same process identi-
iii. Your starting date at the facility. fied in section 6.
iv. A list of positions at the facility that c. If you timely request an extension of the
you are certified in and how many hours it waiver and it is denied, you will receive a 60-
took to achieve certification at the facility. day advance notice of your separation date
v. Your area of specialty at the facility. simultaneously with notification of the de-
vi. Your shift schedule. nial.
vii. [Reserved] d. If you do not request an extension of the
viii. A list of all facilities where you have waiver granted, you will receive a 60-day ad-
worked as a certified professional controller vance notice of your separation date.
(CPC) including facility level and dates at e. Action to separate you from your cov-
each facility; ered position becomes effective on the last
ix. Evidence of your exceptional skills and day of the month in which the 60-day notice
experience as a controller; and expires.
x. Your signature. 8. Under what circumstances may my waiver
6. How will my waiver request be reviewed? be terminated?
a. Upon receipt of your request for waiver, a. The FAA/DOT may terminate your waiv-
the Air Traffic Manager of your facility will er under the following circumstances:
make a written recommendation that the i. The needs of the FAA; or
Administrator either approve or deny your ii. If you are identified as a primary con-
request. If the manager recommends ap- tributor to an operational error/deviation or
proval of your request, he or she will certify runway incursion.
in writing the accuracy of the information b. If the waiver is terminated for either of
you provided as evidence of your exceptional the reasons identified in paragraph 1 of this
skills and experience as a controller. section, the air traffic control specialist will
b. The Air Traffic Manager will then for- receive a 60-day advance notice.
ward the written recommendation with a c. Action to separate you from your cov-
copy of your request to the senior executive ered position becomes effective on the last
manager in the Air Traffic Manager’s re- day of the month in which the 60-day notice
gional chain-of-command. expires.
658
9. Appeal of denial or termination of waiver side the United States or for any cer-
request: The denial or termination of a waiv- tificate or rating issued under this part
er of mandatory separation request is nei- must show evidence that the fee pre-
ther appealable nor grievable.
scribed in appendix A of part 187 of this
[Doc. No. FAA–2004–17334, 70 FR 1636, Jan. 7, chapter has been paid.
2005, as amended by Amdt. 65–55, 76 FR 12, (b) Except for FAA Credential hold-
Jan. 3, 2011]
ers with tower ratings, an applicant
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION who meets the requirements of this
NO. 118–2—RELIEF FOR CERTAIN part is entitled to an appropriate cer-
PERSONS DURING THE NATIONAL tificate and rating.
EMERGENCY CONCERNING THE NOVEL (c) Unless authorized by the Adminis-
CORONAVIRUS DISEASE (COVID–19) trator, a person whose air traffic con-
PUBLIC HEALTH EMERGENCY trol tower operator, mechanic, or para-
chute rigger certificate is suspended
For the text of SFAR No. 118–2, see part 61 may not apply for any rating to be
of this chapter. added to that certificate during the pe-
[Doc. No. FAA–2020–0446; Amdt. No. 65–62, 85 riod of suspension.
FR 62975, Oct. 6, 2020]] (d) Unless the order of revocation
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Doc. No. FAA– provides otherwise—
2020–0446, Amdt. No. 65–62, 85 FR 62975, Oct. 6, (1) A person whose air traffic control
2020, SFAR 118–2 to part 65 was added, effec- tower operator, aircraft dispatcher, or
tive Oct. 1, 2020 through Apr. 30, 2021. parachute rigger certificate is revoked
may not apply for the same kind of cer-
Subpart A—General tificate for 1 year after the date of rev-
ocation; and
§ 65.1 Applicability. (2) A person whose mechanic or re-
This part prescribes the requirements pairman certificate is revoked may not
for issuing the following certificates apply for either of those kinds of cer-
and associated ratings and the general tificates for 1 year after the date of
operating rules for the holders of those revocation.
certificates and ratings:
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
(a) Air-traffic control-tower opera- amended by Amdt. 65–9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20,
tors. 1966; Amdt. 65–28, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982;
(b) Aircraft dispatchers. Amdt. 65–49, 72 FR 18559, Apr. 12, 2007; Amdt.
(c) Mechanics. 65–56, 79 FR 74611, Dec. 16, 2014]
(d) Repairmen.
(e) Parachute riggers. § 65.12 Offenses involving alcohol or
drugs.
§ 65.3 Certification of foreign airmen
other than flight crewmembers. (a) A conviction for the violation of
any Federal or state statute relating to
A person who is neither a U.S. citizen the growing, processing, manufacture,
nor a resident alien is issued a certifi- sale, disposition, possession, transpor-
cate under subpart D of this part, out- tation, or importation of narcotic
side the United States, only when the drugs, marihuana, or depressant or
Administrator finds that the certifi- stimulant drugs or substances is
cate is needed for the operation or con- grounds for—
tinued airworthiness of a U.S.-reg- (1) Denial of an application for any
istered civil aircraft. certificate or rating issued under this
[Doc. No. 65–28, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982] part for a period of up to 1 year after
the date of final conviction; or
§ 65.11 Application and issue. (2) Suspension or revocation of any
(a) Application for a certificate and certificate or rating issued under this
appropriate class rating, or for an addi- part.
tional rating, under this part must be (b) The commission of an act prohib-
made on a form and in a manner pre- ited by § 91.19(a) of this chapter is
scribed by the Administrator. Each grounds for—
person who applies for airmen certifi- (1) Denial of an application for a cer-
cation services to be administered out- tificate or rating issued under this part
659
§ 65.13 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
for a period of up to 1 year after the made by letter to the Department of

date of that act; or Transportation, Federal Aviation Ad-
(2) Suspension or revocation of any ministration, Airman Certification
certificate or rating issued under this Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Okla-
part. homa City, OK 73125. The letter must—
[Doc. No. 21956, 50 FR 15379, Apr. 17, 1985, as
(1) Contain the name in which the
amended by Amdt. 65–34, 54 FR 34330, Aug. 18, certificate was issued, the permanent
1989] mailing address (including zip code),
social security number (if any), and
§ 65.13 Temporary certificate. date and place of birth of the certifi-
A certificate and ratings effective for cate holder, and any available informa-
a period of not more than 120 days may tion regarding the grade, number, and
be issued to a qualified applicant, pend- date of issue of the certificate, and the
ing review of his application and sup- ratings on it; and
plementary documents and the issue of (2) Be accompanied by a check or
the certificate and ratings for which he money order for $2, payable to the Fed-
applied. eral Aviation Administration.
(c) An application for a replacement
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
of a lost or destroyed medical certifi-
1978] cate is made by letter to the Depart-
ment of Transportation, Federal Avia-
§ 65.14 [Reserved] tion Administration, Aerospace Med-
ical Certification Division, Post Office
§ 65.15 Duration of certificates. Box 26200, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, ac-
(a) Except for repairman certificates, companied by a check or money order
a certificate or rating issued under this for $2.00.
part is effective until it is surrendered, (d) A person whose certificate issued
suspended, or revoked. under this part or medical certificate,
(b) Unless it is sooner surrendered, or both, has been lost may obtain a
suspended, or revoked, a repairman telegram from the FAA confirming
certificate is effective until the holder that it was issued. The telegram may
is relieved from the duties for which be carried as a certificate for a period
the holder was employed and certifi- not to exceed 60 days pending his re-
cated. ceiving a duplicate certificate under
(c) The holder of a certificate issued paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, un-
under this part that is suspended, re- less he has been notified that the cer-
voked, or no longer effective shall re- tificate has been suspended or revoked.
turn it to the Administrator. The request for such a telegram may be
(d) Except for temporary certificates made by prepaid telegram, stating the
issued under § 65.13, the holder of a date upon which a duplicate certificate
paper certificate issued under this part was requested, or including the request
may not exercise the privileges of that for a duplicate and a money order for
certificate after March 31, 2013. the necessary amount. The request for
[Doc. No. 22052, 47 FR 35693, Aug. 16, 1982, as a telegraphic certificate should be sent
amended by Amdt. 65–51, 73 FR 10668, Feb. 28, to the office prescribed in paragraph
2008] (b) or (c) of this section, as appropriate.
However, a request for both at the
§ 65.16 Change of name: Replacement same time should be sent to the office
of lost or destroyed certificate. prescribed in paragraph (b) of this sec-
(a) An application for a change of tion.
name on a certificate issued under this [Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as
part must be accompanied by the appli- amended by Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11,
cant’s current certificate and the mar- 1967; Amdt. 65–16, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970;
riage license, court order, or other doc- Amdt. 65–17, 36 FR 2865, Feb. 11, 1971; Amdt.
ument verifying the change. The docu- 65–52, 73 FR 43065, July 24, 2008]
ments are returned to the applicant
after inspection. § 65.17 Tests: General procedure.
(b) An application for a replacement (a) Tests prescribed by or under this

of a lost or destroyed certificate is part are given at times and places, and
660
by persons, designated by the Adminis- § 65.20 Applications, certificates,

trator. logbooks, reports, and records: Fal-
(b) The minimum passing grade for sification, reproduction, or alter-
each test is 70 percent. ation.
(a) No person may make or cause to
§ 65.18 Written tests: Cheating or other be made—
unauthorized conduct. (1) Any fraudulent or intentionally
(a) Except as authorized by the Ad- false statement on any application for
ministrator, no person may— a certificate or rating under this part;
(2) Any fraudulent or intentionally
(1) Copy, or intentionally remove, a
false entry in any logbook, record, or
written test under this part;
report that is required to be kept,
(2) Give to another, or receive from made, or used, to show compliance
another, any part or copy of that test; with any requirement for any certifi-
(3) Give help on that test to, or re- cate or rating under this part;
ceive help on that test from, any per- (3) Any reproduction, for fraudulent
son during the period that test is being purpose, of any certificate or rating
given; under this part; or
(4) Take any part of that test in be- (4) Any alteration of any certificate
half of another person; or rating under this part.
(5) Use any material or aid during the (b) The commission by any person of
period that test is being given; or an act prohibited under paragraph (a)
(6) Intentionally cause, assist, or par- of this section is a basis for suspending
ticipate in any act prohibited by this or revoking any airman or ground in-
paragraph. structor certificate or rating held by
that person.
(b) No person who commits an act
prohibited by paragraph (a) of this sec- [Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965]
tion is eligible for any airman or
§ 65.21 Change of address.
ground instructor certificate or rating
under this chapter for a period of 1 Within 30 days after any change in
year after the date of that act. In addi- his permanent mailing address, the
tion, the commission of that act is a holder of a certificate issued under this
basis for suspending or revoking any part shall notify the Department of
airman or ground instructor certificate Transportation, Federal Aviation Ad-
or rating held by that person. ministration, Airman Certification
Branch, Post Office Box 25082, Okla-
[Doc. No. 4086, 30 FR 2196, Feb. 18, 1965] homa City, OK 73125, in writing, of his
new address.
§ 65.19 Retesting after failure.
[Doc. No. 10536, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, 1970]
An applicant for a written, oral, or
practical test for a certificate and rat- § 65.23 [Reserved]
ing, or for an additional rating under
this part, may apply for retesting— Subpart B—Air Traffic Control
(a) After 30 days after the date the Tower Operators
applicant failed the test; or
(b) Before the 30 days have expired if SOURCE: Docket No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug.
the applicant presents a signed state- 1, 1970, unless otherwise noted.
ment from an airman holding the cer-
tificate and rating sought by the appli- § 65.31 Required credentials, certifi-
cates, and ratings or qualifications.
cant, certifying that the airman has
given the applicant additional instruc- No person may act as an air traffic
tion in each of the subjects failed and control tower operator at an air traffic
that the airman considers the appli- control tower in connection with civil
cant ready for retesting. aircraft unless he or she—
(a) Holds an FAA Credential with a
[Doc. No. 16383, 43 FR 22640, May 25, 1978] tower rating or an air traffic control
tower operator certificate issued under

this subpart;
661
§ 65.33 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(b) Holds a facility rating for that (f) Air navigation, and aids to air
control tower issued under this sub- navigation; and
part, or has qualified for the operating (g) Aviation weather.
position at which he or she acts and is
under the supervision of the holder of a § 65.37 Skill requirements: Operating
facility rating for that control tower; positions.
and No person may act as an air traffic
(c) Except for a person employed by control tower operator at any oper-
the FAA or employed by, or on active ating position unless he has passed a
duty with, the Department of the Air practical test on—
Force, Army, or Navy or the Coast (a) Control tower equipment and its
Guard, holds at least a second-class use;
medical certificate issued under part 67 (b) Weather reporting procedures and
of this chapter. use of reports;
(c) Notices to Airmen, and use of the
[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as
Airman’s Information Manual;
amended by Amdt. 65–25, 45 FR 18911, Mar. 24,
1980; Amdt. 65–31, 52 FR 17518, May 8, 1987; (d) Use of operational forms;
Amdt. 65–56, 79 FR 74611, Dec. 16, 2014] (e) Performance of noncontrol oper-
ational duties; and
§ 65.33 Eligibility requirements: Gen- (f) Each of the following procedures
eral. that is applicable to that operating po-
To be eligible for an air traffic con- sition and is required by the person
trol tower operator certificate a person performing the examination:
must— (1) The airport, including rules,
(a) Be at least 18 years of age; equipment, runways, taxiways, and ob-
(b) Be of good moral character; structions.
(2) The terrain features, visual check-
(c) Be able to read, write, and under-
points, and obstructions within the lat-
stand the English language and speak
eral boundaries of the surface areas of
it without accent or impediment of
Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E
speech that would interfere with two-
airspace designated for the airport.
way radio conversation;
(3) Traffic patterns and associated
(d) Except for a person employed by
procedures for use of preferential run-
the FAA or employed by, or on active
ways and noise abatement.
duty with, the Department of the Air
(4) Operational agreements.
Force, Army, or Navy or the Coast
(5) The center, alternate airports,
Guard, hold at least a second-class
and those airways, routes, reporting
medical certificate issued under part 67
points, and air navigation aids used for
of this chapter within the 12 months
terminal air traffic control.
before the date application is made;
(6) Search and rescue procedures.
and (7) Terminal air traffic control proce-
(e) Comply with § 65.35. dures and phraseology.
[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as (8) Holding procedures, prescribed in-
amended by Amdt. 65–25, 45 FR 18911, Mar. 24, strument approach, and departure pro-
1980; Amdt. 65–31, 52 FR 17518, May 8, 1987] cedures.
(9) Radar alignment and technical op-
§ 65.35 Knowledge requirements. eration.
Each applicant for an air traffic con- (10) The application of the prescribed
trol tower operator certificate must radar and nonradar separation stand-
pass a written test on— ard, as appropriate.
(a) The flight rules in part 91 of this [Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1991, as
chapter: amended by Amdt. 65–36, 56 FR 65653, Dec. 17,
(b) Airport traffic control procedures, 1991]
and this subpart:
(c) En route traffic control proce- § 65.39 Practical experience require-
dures; ments: Facility rating.
(d) Communications operating proce- Each applicant for a facility rating
dures; at any air traffic control tower must

(e) Flight assistance service; have satisfactorily served—
662
(a) As an air traffic control tower op- §§ 65.46–65.46b [Reserved]

erator at that control tower without a
facility rating for at least 6 months; or § 65.47 Maximum hours.
(b) As an air traffic control tower op- Except in an emergency, a certifi-
erator with a facility rating at a dif- cated air traffic control tower operator
ferent control tower for at least 6 must be relieved of all duties for at
months before the date he applies for least 24 consecutive hours at least once
the rating. during each 7 consecutive days. Such
an operator may not serve or be re-
However, an applicant who is a member quired to serve—
of an Armed Force of the United States (a) For more than 10 consecutive
meets the requirements of this section hours; or
if he has satisfactorily served as an air (b) For more than 10 hours during a
traffic control tower operator for at period of 24 consecutive hours, unless
least 6 months. he has had a rest period of at least 8
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as hours at or before the end of the 10
amended by Amdt. 65–19, 36 FR 21280, Nov. 5, hours of duty.
1971]
§ 65.49 General operating rules.
§ 65.41 Skill requirements: Facility rat- (a) Except for a person employed by
ings. the FAA or employed by, or on active
Each applicant for a facility rating duty with, the Department of the Air
at an air traffic control tower must Force, Army, or Navy, or the Coast
Guard, no person may act as an air
have passed a practical test on each
traffic control tower operator under a
item listed in § 65.37 of this part that is
certificate issued to him or her under
applicable to each operating position
this part unless he or she has in his or
at the control tower at which the rather personal possession an appropriate
ing is sought. current medical certificate issued
under part 67 of this chapter.
§ 65.43 [Reserved]
(b) Each person holding an air traffic
§ 65.45 Performance of duties. control tower operator certificate shall
keep it readily available when per-
(a) An air traffic control tower oper- forming duties in an air traffic control
ator shall perform his duties in accord- tower, and shall present that certifi-
ance with the limitations on his cer- cate or his medical certificate or both
tificate and the procedures and prac- for inspection upon the request of the
tices prescribed in air traffic control Administrator or an authorized rep-
manuals of the FAA, to provide for the resentative of the National Transpor-
safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of tation Safety Board, or of any Federal,
air traffic. State, or local law enforcement officer.
(b) An operator with a facility rating (c) A certificated air traffic control
may control traffic at any operating tower operator who does not hold a fa-
position at the control tower at which cility rating for a particular control
he holds a facility rating. However, he tower may not act at any operating po-
may not issue an air traffic clearance sition at the control tower concerned
for IFR flight without authorization unless there is maintained at that con-
from the appropriate facility exer- trol tower, readily available to persons
cising IFR control at that location. named in paragraph (b) of this section,
a current record of the operating posi-
(c) An operator who does not hold a
tions at which he has qualified.
facility rating for a particular control
(d) An air traffic control tower oper-
tower may act at each operating posi-
ator may not perform duties under his
tion for which he has qualified, under certificate during any period of known
the supervision of an operator holding physical deficiency that would make
a facility rating for that control tower. him unable to meet the physical re-
quirements for his current medical cer-
[Doc. No. 10193, 35 FR 12326, Aug. 1, 1970, as

amended by Amdt. 65–16, 35 FR 14075, Sept. 4, tificate. However, if the deficiency is
1970] temporary, he may perform duties that
663
§ 65.50 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
are not affected by it whenever another § 65.53 Eligibility requirements: Gen-

certificated and qualified operator is eral.
present and on duty. (a) To be eligible to take the aircraft
(e) A certificated air traffic control dispatcher knowledge test, a person
tower operator may not control air must be at least 21 years of age.
traffic with equipment that the Admin- (b) To be eligible for an aircraft dis-
istrator has found to be inadequate. patcher certificate, a person must—
(f) The holder of an air traffic control (1) Be at least 23 years of age;
tower operator certificate, or an appli- (2) Be able to read, speak, write, and
cant for one, shall, upon the reasonable understand the English language;
request of the Administrator, cooper- (3) Pass the required knowledge test
ate fully in any test that is made of prescribed by § 65.55 of this part;
him. (4) Pass the required practical test
prescribed by § 65.59 of this part; and
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
(5) Comply with the requirements of
1987] § 65.57 of this part.
§ 65.50 Currency requirements. § 65.55 Knowledge requirements.
The holder of an air traffic control (a) A person who applies for an air-
craft dispatcher certificate must pass a
tower operator certificate may not per-
knowledge test on the following aero-
form any duties under that certificate
nautical knowledge areas:
unless—
(1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regu-
(a) He has served for at least three of lations of this chapter that relate to
the preceding 6 months as an air traffic airline transport pilot privileges, limi-
control tower operator at the control tations, and flight operations;
tower to which his facility rating ap- (2) Meteorology, including knowledge
plies, or at the operating positions for of and effects of fronts, frontal charac-
which he has qualified; or teristics, cloud formations, icing, and
(b) He has shown that he meets the upper-air data;
requirements for his certificate and fa- (3) General system of weather and
cility rating at the control tower con- NOTAM collection, dissemination, in-
cerned, or for operating at positions for terpretation, and use;
which he has previously qualified. (4) Interpretation and use of weather
charts, maps, forecasts, sequence re-
Subpart C—Aircraft Dispatchers ports, abbreviations, and symbols;
(5) National Weather Service func-
tions as they pertain to operations in
SOURCE: Docket No. FAA–1998–4553, 64 FR
68923, Dec. 8, 1999, unless otherwise noted.
the National Airspace System;
(6) Windshear and microburst aware-
§ 65.51 Certificate required. ness, identification, and avoidance;
(7) Principles of air navigation under
(a) No person may act as an aircraft instrument meteorological conditions
dispatcher (exercising responsibility in the National Airspace System;
with the pilot in command in the oper- (8) Air traffic control procedures and
ational control of a flight) in connec- pilot responsibilities as they relate to
tion with any civil aircraft in air com- enroute operations, terminal area and
merce unless that person has in his or radar operations, and instrument de-
her personal possession an aircraft dis- parture and approach procedures;
patcher certificate issued under this (9) Aircraft loading, weight and bal-
subpart. ance, use of charts, graphs, tables, for-
(b) Each person who holds an aircraft mulas, and computations, and their ef-
dispatcher certificate must present it fect on aircraft performance;
for inspection upon the request of the (10) Aerodynamics relating to an air-
Administrator or an authorized rep- craft’s flight characteristics and per-
resentative of the National Transpor- formance in normal and abnormal
tation Safety Board, or of any Federal, flight regimes;

State, or local law enforcement officer. (11) Human factors;
664
(12) Aeronautical decision making cant must demonstrate skill in apply-

and judgment; and ing the areas of knowledge and topics
(13) Crew resource management, in- specified in appendix A of this part to
cluding crew communication and co- preflight and all phases of flight, in-
ordination. cluding abnormal and emergency pro-
(b) The applicant must present docu- cedures.
mentary evidence satisfactory to the
[Docket FAA–2016–6142, Amdt. 65–58, 83 FR
administrator of having passed an air- 30281, June 27, 2018
craft dispatcher knowledge test within
the preceding 24 calendar months. § 65.61 Aircraft dispatcher certifi-
cation courses: Content and min-
§ 65.57 Experience or training require- imum hours.
ments.
(a) An approved aircraft dispatcher
An applicant for an aircraft dis- certification course must:
patcher certificate must present docu- (1) Provide instruction in the areas of
mentary evidence satisfactory to the knowledge and topics listed in appen-
Administrator that he or she has the dix A of this part;
experience prescribed in paragraph (a) (2) Include a minimum of 200 hours of
of this section or has accomplished the instruction.
training described in paragraph (b) of (b) An applicant for approval of an
this section as follows: aircraft dispatcher course must submit
(a) A total of at least 2 years experi- an outline that describes the major
ence in the 3 years before the date of topics and subtopics to be covered and
application, in any one or in any com- the number of hours proposed for each.
bination of the following areas: (c) Additional subject headings for an
(1) In military aircraft operations aircraft dispatcher certification course
as a— may also be included, however the
(i) Pilot; hours proposed for any subjects not
(ii) Flight navigator; or listed in appendix A of this part must
(iii) Meteorologist. be in addition to the minimum 200
(2) In aircraft operations conducted course hours required in paragraph (a)
under part 121 of this chapter as— of this section.
(i) An assistant in dispatching air (d) For the purpose of completing an
carrier aircraft, under the direct super- approved course, a student may sub-
vision of a dispatcher certificated stitute previous experience or training
under this subpart; for a portion of the minimum 200 hours
(ii) A pilot; of training. The course operator deter-
(iii) A flight engineer; or mines the number of hours of credit
(iv) A meteorologist. based on an evaluation of the experi-
(3) In aircraft operations as— ence or training to determine if it is
(i) An Air Traffic Controller; or comparable to portions of the approved
(ii) A Flight Service Specialist. course curriculum. The credit allowed,
(4) In aircraft operations, performing including the total hours and the basis
other duties that the Administrator for it, must be placed in the student’s
finds provide equivalent experience. record required by § 65.70(a) of this
(b) A statement of graduation issued part.
or revalidated in accordance with
§ 65.70(b) of this part, showing that the § 65.63 Aircraft dispatcher certifi-
person has successfully completed an cation courses: Application, dura-
approved aircraft dispatcher course. tion, and other general require-
ments.
§ 65.59 Skill requirements. (a) Application. Application for origi-
An applicant for an aircraft dis- nal approval of an aircraft dispatcher
patcher certificate must pass a prac- certification course or the renewal of
tical test given by the Administrator, approval of an aircraft dispatcher cer-
with respect to any one type of large tification course under this part must
aircraft used in air carrier operations. be:
To pass the practical test for an air- (1) Made in writing to the Adminis-
craft dispatcher certificate, the appli- trator;
665
§ 65.65 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(2) Accompanied by two copies of the grounds for withdrawal of approval of

course outline required under § 65.61(b) the course. A course operator may re-
of this part, for which approval is quest cancellation of course approval
sought; by a letter to the Administrator. The
(3) Accompanied by a description of operator must forward any records to
the equipment and facilities to be used; the FAA as requested by the Adminis-
and trator.
(4) Accompanied by a list of the in- (f) Change in ownership. A change in
structors and their qualifications. ownership of a part 65, appendix A-ap-
(b) Duration. Unless withdrawn or proved course does not terminate that
canceled, an approval of an aircraft aircraft dispatcher certification course
dispatcher certification course of study approval if, within 10 days after the
expires: date that any change in ownership of
(1) On the last day of the 24th month the school occurs:
from the month the approval was (1) Application is made for an appro-
issued; or priate amendment to the approval; and
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (2) No change in the facilities, per-
(f) of this section, on the date that any sonnel, or approved aircraft dispatcher
change in ownership of the school oc- certification course is involved.
curs. (g) Change in name or location. A
(c) Renewal. Application for renewal change in name or location of an ap-
of an approved aircraft dispatcher cer- proved aircraft dispatcher certification
tification course must be made within course does not invalidate the approval
30 days preceding the month the ap- if, within 10 days after the date that
proval expires, provided the course op- any change in name or location occurs,
erator meets the following require- the course operator of the part 65, ap-
ments: pendix A-approved course notifies the
(1) At least 80 percent of the grad- Administrator, in writing, of the
uates from that aircraft dispatcher cer- change.
tification course, who applied for the
practical test required by § 65.59 of this § 65.65 Aircraft dispatcher certifi-
part, passed the practical test on their cation courses: Training facilities.
first attempt; and An applicant for approval of author-
(2) The aircraft dispatcher certifi- ity to operate an aircraft dispatcher
cation course continues to meet the re- course of study must have facilities,
quirements of this subpart for course equipment, and materials adequate to
approval. provide each student the theoretical
(d) Course revisions. Requests for ap- and practical aspects of aircraft dis-
proval of a revision of the course out- patching. Each room, training booth,
line, facilities, or equipment must be or other space used for instructional
in accordance with paragraph (a) of purposes must be temperature con-
this section. Proposed revisions of the trolled, lighted, and ventilated to con-
course outline or the description of fa- form to local building, sanitation, and
cilities and equipment must be sub- health codes. In addition, the training
mitted in a format that will allow an facility must be so located that the
entire page or pages of the approved students in that facility are not dis-
outline or description to be removed tracted by the instruction conducted in
and replaced by any approved revision. other rooms.
The list of instructors may be revised
at any time without request for ap- § 65.67 Aircraft dispatcher certifi-
proval, provided the minimum require- cation courses: Personnel.
ments of § 65.67 of this part are main- (a) Each applicant for an aircraft dis-
tained and the Administrator is noti- patcher certification course must meet
fied in writing. the following personnel requirements:
(e) Withdrawal or cancellation of ap- (1) Each applicant must have ade-
proval. Failure to continue to meet the quate personnel, including one instruc-
requirements of this subpart for the ap- tor who holds an aircraft dispatcher
proval or operation of an approved air- certificate and is available to coordi-

craft dispatcher certification course is nate all training course instruction.
666
(2) Each applicant must not exceed a (3) Have passed all of the prescribed
ratio of 25 students for one instructor. tests within a period of 24 months; and
(b) The instructor who teaches the (4) Comply with the sections of this
practical dispatch applications area of subpart that apply to the rating he
the appendix A course must hold an seeks.
aircraft dispatchers certificate (b) A certificated mechanic who ap-
§ 65.70 Aircraft dispatcher certifi- plies for an additional rating must
cation courses: Records. meet the requirements of § 65.77 and,
within a period of 24 months, pass the
(a) The operator of an aircraft dis-
tests prescribed by §§ 65.75 and 65.79 for
patcher course must maintain a record
the additional rating sought.
for each student, including a chrono-
logical log of all instructors, subjects [Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
covered, and course examinations and amended by Amdt. 65–6, 31 FR 5950, Apr. 19,
results. The record must be retained 1966]
for at least 3 years after graduation.
The course operator also must prepare, § 65.73 Ratings.
for its records, and transmit to the Ad- (a) The following ratings are issued
ministrator not later than January 31 under this subpart:
of each year, a report containing the (1) Airframe.
following information for the previous (2) Powerplant.
year:
(b) A mechanic certificate with an
(1) The names of all students who
aircraft or aircraft engine rating, or
graduated, together with the results of
both, that was issued before, and was
their aircraft dispatcher certification
courses. valid on, June 15, 1952, is equal to a me-
(2) The names of all the students who chanic certificate with an airframe or
failed or withdrew, together with the powerplant rating, or both, as the case
results of their aircraft dispatcher cer- may be, and may be exchanged for such
tification courses or the reasons for a corresponding certificate and rating
their withdrawal. or ratings.
(b) Each student who successfully
completes the approved aircraft dis- § 65.75 Knowledge requirements.
patcher certification course must be (a) Each applicant for a mechanic
given a written statement of gradua- certificate or rating must, after meet-
tion, which is valid for 90 days. After 90 ing the applicable experience require-
days, the course operator may revali- ments of § 65.77, pass a written test cov-
date the graduation certificate for an ering the construction and mainte-
additional 90 days if the course oper- nance of aircraft appropriate to the
ator determines that the student re- rating he seeks, the regulations in this
mains proficient in the subject areas subpart, and the applicable provisions
listed in appendix A of this part. of parts 43 and 91 of this chapter. The
basic principles covering the installa-
Subpart D—Mechanics tion and maintenance of propellers are
included in the powerplant test.
§ 65.71 Eligibility requirements: Gen- (b) The applicant must pass each sec-
eral.
tion of the test before applying for the
(a) To be eligible for a mechanic cer- oral and practical tests prescribed by
tificate and associated ratings, a per- § 65.79. A report of the written test is
son must— sent to the applicant.
(1) Be at least 18 years of age;
(2) Be able to read, write, speak, and [Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
understand the English language, or in amended by Amdt. 65–1, 27 FR 10410, Oct. 25,
the case of an applicant who does not 1962; Amdt. 65–6, 31 FR 5950, Apr. 19, 1966]
meet this requirement and who is em-
§ 65.77 Experience requirements.
ployed outside of the United States by
a U.S. air carrier, have his certificate Each applicant for a mechanic cer-
endorsed ‘‘Valid only outside the tificate or rating must present either
United States’’; an appropriate graduation certificate
667
§ 65.79 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
or certificate of completion from a cer- to, or alteration of, instruments), and

tificated aviation maintenance techni- may perform additional duties in ac-
cian school or documentary evidence, cordance with §§ 65.85, 65.87, and 65.95.
satisfactory to the Administrator, of— However, he may not supervise the
(a) At least 18 months of practical ex- maintenance, preventive maintenance,
perience with the procedures, prac- or alteration of, or approve and return
tices, materials, tools, machine tools, to service, any aircraft or appliance, or
and equipment generally used in con- part thereof, for which he is rated un-
structing, maintaining, or altering air- less he has satisfactorily performed the
frames, or powerplants appropriate to work concerned at an earlier date. If he
the rating sought; or has not so performed that work at an
(b) At least 30 months of practical ex- earlier date, he may show his ability to
perience concurrently performing the do it by performing it to the satisfac-
duties appropriate to both the airframe tion of the Administrator or under the
and powerplant ratings. direct supervision of a certificated and
appropriately rated mechanic, or a cer-
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
amended by Amdt. 65–14, 35 FR 5533, Apr. 3,
tificated repairman, who has had pre-
1970] vious experience in the specific oper-
ation concerned.
§ 65.79 Skill requirements. (b) A certificated mechanic may not
Each applicant for a mechanic cer- exercise the privileges of his certificate
tificate or rating must pass an oral and and rating unless he understands the
a practical test on the rating he seeks. current instructions of the manufac-
The tests cover the applicant’s basic turer, and the maintenance manuals,
skill in performing practical projects for the specific operation concerned.
on the subjects covered by the written [Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
test for that rating. An applicant for a amended by Amdt. 65–2, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23,
powerplant rating must show his abil- 1964; Amdt. 65–26, 45 FR 46737, July 10, 1980]
ity to make satisfactory minor repairs
to, and minor alterations of, propellers. § 65.83 Recent experience require-
ments.
§ 65.80 Certificated aviation mainte- A certificated mechanic may not ex-
nance technician school students. ercise the privileges of his certificate
Whenever an aviation maintenance and rating unless, within the preceding
technician school certificated under 24 months—
part 147 of this chapter shows to an (a) The Administrator has found that
FAA inspector that any of its students he is able to do that work; or
has made satisfactory progress at the (b) He has, for at least 6 months—
school and is prepared to take the oral (1) Served as a mechanic under his
and practical tests prescribed by § 65.79, certificate and rating;
that student may take those tests dur- (2) Technically supervised other me-
ing the final subjects of his training in chanics;
the approved curriculum, before he (3) Supervised, in an executive capac-
meets the applicable experience re- ity, the maintenance or alteration of
quirements of § 65.77 and before he aircraft; or
passes each section of the written test (4) Been engaged in any combination
prescribed by § 65.75. of paragraph (b) (1), (2), or (3) of this
[Doc. No. 9444, 35 FR 5533, Apr. 3, 1970] section.
§ 65.81 General privileges and limita- § 65.85 Airframe rating; additional

tions. privileges.
(a) A certificated mechanic may per- (a) Except as provided in paragraph
form or supervise the maintenance, (b) of this section, a certificated me-
preventive maintenance or alteration chanic with an airframe rating may ap-
of an aircraft or appliance, or a part prove and return to service an air-
thereof, for which he is rated (but ex- frame, or any related part or appliance,
cluding major repairs to, and major al- after he has performed, supervised, or
terations of, propellers, and any repair inspected its maintenance or alteration
668
(excluding major repairs and major al- § 65.89 Display of certificate.

terations). In addition, he may perform
Each person who holds a mechanic
the 100-hour inspection required by certificate shall keep it within the im-
part 91 of this chapter on an airframe, mediate area where he normally exer-
or any related part or appliance, and cises the privileges of the certificate
approve and return it to service. and shall present it for inspection upon
(b) A certificated mechanic with an the request of the Administrator or an
airframe rating can approve and return authorized representative of the Na-
to service an airframe, or any related tional Transportation Safety Board, or
part or appliance, of an aircraft with a of any Federal, State, or local law en-
special airworthiness certificate in the forcement officer.
light-sport category after performing
[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as
and inspecting a major repair or major amended by Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11,
alteration for products that are not 1967]
produced under an FAA approval pro-
vided the work was performed in ac- § 65.91 Inspection authorization.
cordance with instructions developed (a) An application for an inspection
by the manufacturer or a person ac- authorization is made on a form and in
ceptable to the FAA. a manner prescribed by the Adminis-
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as trator.
amended by Amdt. 65–10, 32 FR 5770, Apr. 11, (b) An applicant who meets the re-
1967; Amdt. 65–45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004] quirements of this section is entitled
to an inspection authorization.
§ 65.87 Powerplant rating; additional (c) To be eligible for an inspection
privileges. authorization, an applicant must—
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (1) Hold a currently effective me-
(b) of this section, a certificated mechanic certificate with both an air-
chanic with a powerplant rating may frame rating and a powerplant rating,
approve and return to service a power- each of which is currently effective and
plant or propeller or any related part has been in effect for a total of at least
3 years;
or appliance, after he has performed,
supervised, or inspected its mainte- (2) Have been actively engaged, for at
least the 2-year period before the date
nance or alteration (excluding major
he applies, in maintaining aircraft cer-
repairs and major alterations). In addi-
tificated and maintained in accordance
tion, he may perform the 100-hour in- with this chapter;
spection required by part 91 of this
(3) Have a fixed base of operations at
chapter on a powerplant or propeller, which he may be located in person or
or any part thereof, and approve and by telephone during a normal working
return it to service. week but it need not be the place where
(b) A certificated mechanic with a he will exercise his inspection author-
powerplant rating can approve and re- ity;
turn to service a powerplant or pro- (4) Have available to him the equip-
peller, or any related part or appliance, ment, facilities, and inspection data
of an aircraft with a special airworthi- necessary to properly inspect air-
ness certificate in the light-sport cat- frames, powerplants, propellers, or any
egory after performing and inspecting related part or appliance; and
a major repair or major alteration for (5) Pass a written test on his ability
products that are not produced under to inspect according to safety stand-
an FAA approval, provided the work ards for returning aircraft to service
was performed in accordance with in- after major repairs and major alter-
structions developed by the manufac- ations and annual and progressive in-
turer or a person acceptable to the spections performed under part 43 of
FAA. this chapter.
An applicant who fails the test pre-
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as

amended by Amdt. 65–10, 32 FR 5770, Apr. 11, scribed in paragraph (c)(5) of this sec-
1967; Amdt. 65–45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004] tion may not apply for retesting until
669
§ 65.92 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
at least 90 days after the date he failed (1) Performed at least one annual in-
the test. spection for each 90 days that the ap-
plicant held the current authority; or
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
amended by Amdt. 65–5, 31 FR 3337, Mar. 3, (2) Performed at least two major re-
1966; Amdt. 65–22, 42 FR 46279, Sept. 15, 1977; pairs or major alterations for each 90
Amdt. 65–30, 50 FR 15700, Apr. 19, 1985] days that the applicant held the cur-
rent authority; or
§ 65.92 Inspection authorization: Dura- (3) Performed or supervised and ap-
tion. proved at least one progressive inspec-
(a) Each inspection authorization ex- tion in accordance with standards pre-
pires on March 31 of each odd-num- scribed by the Administrator; or
bered year. However, the holder may (4) Attended and successfully com-
exercise the privileges of that author- pleted a refresher course, acceptable to
ization only while he holds a currently the Administrator, of not less than 8
effective mechanic certificate with hours of instruction; or
both a currently effective airframe rat- (5) Passed an oral test by an FAA in-
ing and a currently effective power- spector to determine that the appli-
plant rating. cant’s knowledge of applicable regula-
(b) An inspection authorization tions and standards is current.
ceases to be effective whenever any of (b) The holder of an inspection au-
the following occurs: thorization that has been in effect:
(1) The authorization is surrendered, (1) for less than 90 days before the ex-
suspended, or revoked. piration date need not comply with
paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this
(2) The holder no longer has a fixed
section.
base of operation.
(2) for less than 90 days before March
(3) The holder no longer has the
31 of an even-numbered year need not
equipment, facilities, and inspection
comply with paragraphs (a)(1) through
data required by § 65.91(c) (3) and (4) for
(5) of this section for the first year of
issuance of his authorization. the 2-year inspection authorization pe-
(c) The holder of an inspection au- riod.
thorization that is suspended or re- (c) An inspection authorization hold-
voked shall, upon the Administrator’s er who does not complete one of the ac-
request, return it to the Adminis- tivities set forth in § 65.93(a) (1)
trator. through (5) of this section by March 31
[Doc. No. 12537, 42 FR 46279, Sept. 15, 1977, as of the first year of the 2-year inspec-
amended by Amdt. 65–50, 72 FR 4404, Jan. 30, tion authorization period may not ex-
2007] ercise inspection authorization privi-
leges after March 31 of the first year.
§ 65.93 Inspection authorization: Re- The inspection authorization holder
newal. may resume exercising inspection au-
(a) To be eligible for renewal of an in- thorization privileges after passing an
spection authorization for a 2-year pe- oral test from an FAA inspector to de-
riod an applicant must present evi- termine that the applicant’s knowledge
dence during the month of March of of the applicable regulations and stand-
each odd-numbered year, at the respon- ards is current. An inspection author-
sible Flight Standards office, that the ization holder who passes this oral test
applicant still meets the requirements is deemed to have completed the re-
of § 65.91(c) (1) through (4). In addition, quirements of § 65.93(a) (1) through (5)
during the time the applicant held the by March 31 of the first year.
inspection authorization, the applicant [Doc. No. FAA–2007–27108, 72 FR 4404, Jan. 30,
must show completion of one of the ac- 2007, as amended by Docket FAA–2018–0119,
tivities in § 65.93(a) (1) through (5) Amdt. 65–57A, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018]
below by March 31 of the first year of
the 2-year inspection authorization pe- § 65.95 Inspection authorization: Privi-
riod, and completion of one of the five leges and limitations.
activities during the second year of the (a) The holder of an inspection au-
2-year period: thorization may—
670
(1) Inspect and approve for return to certificated commercial operator or

service any aircraft or related part or certificated air carrier, that is required
appliance (except any aircraft main- by its operating certificate or approved
tained in accordance with a continuous operations specifications to provide a
airworthiness program under part 121 continuous airworthiness maintenance
of this chapter) after a major repair or program according to its maintenance
major alteration to it in accordance manuals;
with part 43 [New] of this chapter, if (4) Be recommended for certification
the work was done in accordance with by his employer, to the satisfaction of
technical data approved by the Admin- the Administrator, as able to satisfac-
istrator; and torily maintain aircraft or compo-
(2) Perform an annual, or perform or nents, appropriate to the job for which
supervise a progressive inspection ac- he is employed;
cording to §§ 43.13 and 43.15 of this chap- (5) Have either—
ter. (i) At least 18 months of practical ex-
(b) When he exercises the privileges perience in the procedures, practices,
of an inspection authorization the inspection methods, materials, tools,
holder shall keep it available for in- machine tools, and equipment gen-
spection by the aircraft owner, the me- erally used in the maintenance duties
chanic submitting the aircraft, repair, of the specific job for which the person
or alteration for approval (if any), and is to be employed and certificated; or
shall present it upon the request of the (ii) Completed formal training that is
Administrator or an authorized rep- acceptable to the Administrator and is
resentative of the National Transpor- specifically designed to qualify the ap-
tation Safety Board, or of any Federal, plicant for the job on which the appli-
State, or local law enforcement officer. cant is to be employed; and
(c) If the holder of an inspection au- (6) Be able to read, write, speak, and
thorization changes his fixed base of understand the English language, or, in
operation, he may not exercise the the case of an applicant who does not
privileges of the authorization until he meet this requirement and who is em-
has notified the responsible Flight ployed outside the United States by a
Standards office or International Field certificated repair station, a certifi-
Office for the area in which the new cated U.S. commercial operator, or a
base is located, in writing, of the certificated U.S. air carrier, described
change. in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, have
this certificate endorsed ‘‘Valid only
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
amended by Amdt. 65–2, 29 FR 5451, Apr. 23, outside the United States.’’
1964; Amdt. 65–4, 30 FR 3638, Mar. 14, 1965; (b) This section does not apply to the
Amdt. 65–5, 31 FR 3337, Mar. 3, 1966; Amdt. 65– issuance of a repairman certificate (ex-
9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966; 32 FR 5769, Apr. perimental aircraft builder) under
11, 1967; Amdt. 65–35, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25, § 65.104 or to a repairman certificate
1989; Amdt. 65–41, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; (light-sport aircraft) under § 65.107.
Docket FAA–2018–0119, Amdt. 65–57A, 83 FR
9171, Mar. 5, 2018] [Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
amended by Amdt. 65–11, 32 FR 13506, Sept.
27, 1967; Amdt. 65–24, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979;
Subpart E—Repairmen Amdt. 65–27, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt.
65–45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, 2004; 72 FR 7739,
§ 65.101 Eligibility requirements: Gen- Feb. 20, 2007]
eral.
(a) To be eligible for a repairman cer- § 65.103 Repairman certificate: Privi-
tificate a person must— leges and limitations.
(1) Be at least 18 years of age; (a) A certificated repairman may per-
(2) Be specially qualified to perform form or supervise the maintenance,
maintenance on aircraft or components preventive maintenance, or alteration
thereof, appropriate to the job for of aircraft or aircraft components ap-
which he is employed; propriate to the job for which the re-
(3) Be employed for a specific job repairman was employed and certifi-
quiring those special qualifications by cated, but only in connection with du-
a certificated repair station, or by a ties for the certificate holder by whom
671
§ 65.104 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
the repairman was employed and rec- authorized representative of the Na-
ommended. tional Transportation Safety Board, or
(b) A certificated repairman may not of any Federal, State, or local law en-
perform or supervise duties under the forcement officer.
repairman certificate unless the repair-
[Doc. No. 7258, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, 1966, as
man understands the current instruc- amended by Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11,
tions of the certificate holder by whom 1967]
the repairman is employed and the
manufacturer’s instructions for contin- § 65.107 Repairman certificate (light-
ued airworthiness relating to the spe- sport aircraft): Eligibility, privi-
cific operations concerned. leges, and limits.
(c) This section does not apply to the (a) Use the following table to deter-
holder of a repairman certificate mine your eligibility for a repairman
(light-sport aircraft) while that repair- certificate (light-sport aircraft) and ap-
man is performing work under that propriate rating:
certificate.
To be eligible for You must
[Doc. No. 18241, 45 FR 46738, July 10, 1980, as
amended by Amdt. 65–45, 69 FR 44879, July 27, (1) A repairman certificate (i) Be at least 18 years old,
2004] (light-sport aircraft). (ii) Be able to read, speak,
write, and understand
§ 65.104 Repairman certificate—experi- English. If for medical rea-
mental aircraft builder—Eligibility, sons you cannot meet one
privileges and limitations. of these requirements, the
FAA may place limits on
(a) To be eligible for a repairman cer- your repairman certificate
tificate (experimental aircraft builder), necessary to safely per-
form the actions authorized
an individual must— by the certificate and rat-
(1) Be at least 18 years of age; ing,
(2) Be the primary builder of the air- (iii) Demonstrate the requisite
craft to which the privileges of the cer- skill to determine whether
a light-sport aircraft is in a
tificate are applicable; condition for safe oper-
(3) Show to the satisfaction of the ation, and
Administrator that the individual has (iv) Be a citizen of the United
the requisite skill to determine wheth- States, or a citizen of a for-
eign country who has been
er the aircraft is in a condition for safe lawfully admitted for per-
operations; and manent residence in the
(4) Be a citizen of the United States United States.
or an individual citizen of a foreign (2) A repairman certificate (i) Meet the requirements of
(light-sport aircraft) with an paragraph (a)(1) of this
country who has lawfully been admit- inspection rating. section, and
ted for permanent residence in the (ii) Complete a 16-hour train-
United States. ing course acceptable to
the FAA on inspecting the
(b) The holder of a repairman certifi- particular class of experi-
cate (experimental aircraft builder) mental light-sport aircraft
may perform condition inspections on for which you intend to ex-
the aircraft constructed by the holder ercise the privileges of this
rating.
in accordance with the operating limi- (3) A repairman certificate (i) Meet the requirements of
tations of that aircraft. (light-sport aircraft) with a paragraph (a)(1) of this
(c) Section 65.103 does not apply to maintenance rating section, and
the holder of a repairman certificate (ii) Complete a training
course acceptable to the
(experimental aircraft builder) while FAA on maintaining the
performing under that certificate. particular class of light-
sport aircraft for which you
[Doc. No. 18739, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9, 1979] intend to exercise the privi-
leges of this rating. The
§ 65.105 Display of certificate. training course must, at a
minimum, provide the fol-
Each person who holds a repairman lowing number of hours of
certificate shall keep it within the im- instruction:
mediate area where he normally exer- (A) For airplane class privi-
leges—120-hours,
cises the privileges of the certificate
(B) For weight-shift control

and shall present it for inspection upon aircraft class privileges—
the request of the Administrator or an 104 hours,
672
To be eligible for You must thereof unless that person has pre-
viously performed the work concerned
(C) For powered parachute
class privileges—104 satisfactorily. If that person has not
hours, previously performed that work, the
(D) For lighter than air class person may show the ability to do the
privileges—80 hours,
(E) For glider class privi-
work by performing it to the satisfac-
leges—80 hours. tion of the FAA, or by performing it
under the direct supervision of a cer-
(b) The holder of a repairman certifi- tificated and appropriately rated me-
cate (light-sport aircraft) with an in- chanic, or a certificated repairman,
spection rating may perform the an- who has had previous experience in the
nual condition inspection on a light- specific operation concerned. The re-
sport aircraft: pairman may not exercise the privi-
(1) That is owned by the holder; leges of the certificate unless the re-
(2) That has been issued an experi- pairman understands the current in-
mental certificate for operating a structions of the manufacturer and the
light-sport aircraft under § 21.191(i) of maintenance manuals for the specific
this chapter; and operation concerned.
(3) That is in the same class of light-
[Doc. No. FAA–2001–11133, 69 FR 44879, July
sport-aircraft for which the holder has 27, 2004]
completed the training specified in
paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
(c) The holder of a repairman certifi- Subpart F—Parachute Riggers
cate (light-sport aircraft) with a main- § 65.111 Certificate required.
tenance rating may—
(1) Approve and return to service an (a) No person may pack, maintain, or
aircraft that has been issued a special alter any personnel-carrying parachute
airworthiness certificate in the light- intended for emergency use in connec-
sport category under § 21.190 of this tion with civil aircraft of the United
chapter, or any part thereof, after per- States (including the reserve parachute
forming or inspecting maintenance (to of a dual parachute system to be used
include the annual condition inspec- for intentional parachute jumping) un-
tion and the 100-hour inspection re- less that person holds an appropriate
quired by § 91.327 of this chapter), pre- current certificate and type rating
ventive maintenance, or an alteration issued under this subpart and complies
(excluding a major repair or a major with §§ 65.127 through 65.133.
alteration on a product produced under (b) No person may pack any main
an FAA approval); parachute of a dual-parachute system
(2) Perform the annual condition in- to be used for intentional parachute
spection on a light-sport aircraft that jumping in connection with civil air-
has been issued an experimental cer- craft of the United States unless that
tificate for operating a light-sport air- person—
craft under § 21.191(i) of this chapter; (1) Has an appropriate current certifi-
and cate issued under this subpart;
(3) Only perform maintenance, pre- (2) Is under the supervision of a cur-
ventive maintenance, and an alteration rent certificated parachute rigger;
on a light-sport aircraft that is in the (3) Is the person making the next
same class of light-sport aircraft for parachute jump with that parachute in
which the holder has completed the accordance with § 105.43(a) of this chap-
training specified in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) ter; or
of this section. Before performing a (4) Is the parachutist in command
major repair, the holder must complete making the next parachute jump with
additional training acceptable to the that parachute in a tandem parachute
FAA and appropriate to the repair per- operation conducted under § 105.45(b)(1)
formed. of this chapter.
(d) The holder of a repairman certifi- (c) No person may maintain or alter
cate (light-sport aircraft) with a main- any main parachute of a dual-para-
tenance rating may not approve for re- chute system to be used for intentional
turn to service any aircraft or part parachute jumping in connection with
673
§ 65.113 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
civil aircraft of the United States un- § 65.115 Senior parachute rigger cer-
less that person— tificate: Experience, knowledge,
(1) Has an appropriate current certifi- and skill requirements.
cate issued under this subpart; or Except as provided in § 65.117, an ap-
(2) Is under the supervision of a cur- plicant for a senior parachute rigger
rent certificated parachute rigger; certificate must—
(d) Each person who holds a para- (a) Present evidence satisfactory to
chute rigger certificate shall present it the Administrator that he has packed
for inspection upon the request of the at least 20 parachutes of each type for
Administrator or an authorized rep- which he seeks a rating, in accordance
with the manufacturer’s instructions
resentative of the National Transpor-
and under the supervision of a certifi-
tation Safety Board, or of any Federal, cated parachute rigger holding a rating
State, or local law enforcement officer. for that type or a person holding an ap-
(e) The following parachute rigger propriate military rating;
certificates are issued under this part: (b) Pass a written test, with respect
(1) Senior parachute rigger. to parachutes in common use, on—
(2) Master parachute rigger. (1) Their construction, packing, and
(f) Sections 65.127 through 65.133 do maintenance;
not apply to parachutes packed, main- (2) The manufacturer’s instructions;
tained, or altered for the use of the (3) The regulations of this subpart;
armed forces. and
(c) Pass an oral and practical test
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as showing his ability to pack and main-
amended by Amdt. 65–9, 31 FR 13524, Oct. 20, tain at least one type of parachute in
1966; 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11, 1967; Amdt. 65–42, 66 common use, appropriate to the type
FR 23553, May 9, 2001; Amdt. 65–54, 75 FR
rating he seeks.
31285, June 3, 2010]
[Doc. No. 10468, 37 FR 13251, July 6, 1972]
§ 65.113 Eligibility requirements: Gen-
eral. § 65.117 Military riggers or former
military riggers: Special certifi-
(a) To be eligible for a parachute rig- cation rule.
ger certificate, a person must—
In place of the procedure in § 65.115,
(1) Be at least 18 years of age; an applicant for a senior parachute rig-
(2) Be able to read, write, speak, and ger certificate is entitled to it if he
understand the English language, or, in passes a written test on the regulations
the case of a citizen of Puerto Rico, or of this subpart and presents satisfac-
a person who is employed outside of tory documentary evidence that he—
the United States by a U.S. air carrier, (a) Is a member or civilian employee
and who does not meet this require- of an Armed Force of the United
ment, be issued a certificate that is States, is a civilian employee of a reg-
valid only in Puerto Rico or while he is ular armed force of a foreign country,
employed outside of the United States or has, within the 12 months before he
by that air carrier, as the case may be; applies, been honorably discharged or
and released from any status covered by
(3) Comply with the sections of this this paragraph;
subpart that apply to the certificate (b) Is serving, or has served within
and type rating he seeks. the 12 months before he applies, as a
(b) Except for a master parachute parachute rigger for such an Armed
Force; and
rigger certificate, a parachute rigger
(c) Has the experience required by
certificate that was issued before, and
§ 65.115(a).
was valid on, October 31, 1962, is equal
to a senior parachute rigger certificate, § 65.119 Master parachute rigger cer-
and may be exchanged for such a cor- tificate: Experience, knowledge,
responding certificate. and skill requirements.
An applicant for a master parachute
rigger certificate must meet the fol-

lowing requirements:
674
(a) Present evidence satisfactory to which he seeks a rating, in accordance

the Administrator that he has had at with the manufacturer’s instructions
least 3 years of experience as a para- and under the supervision of a certifi-
chute rigger and has satisfactorily cated parachute rigger holding a rating
packed at least 100 parachutes of each for that type or a person holding an ap-
of two types in common use, in accord- propriate military rating; and
ance with the manufacturer’s instruc- (b) Pass a practical test, to the satis-
tions— faction of the Administrator, showing
(1) While a certificated and appro- his ability to pack and maintain the
priately rated senior parachute rigger; type of parachute for which he seeks a
or rating.
(2) While under the supervision of a
certificated and appropriately rated [Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
amended by Amdt. 65–20, 37 FR 13251, July 6,
parachute rigger or a person holding
1972]
appropriate military ratings.
An applicant may combine experience § 65.125 Certificates: Privileges.
specified in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of (a) A certificated senior parachute
this section to meet the requirements rigger may—
of this paragraph. (1) Pack or maintain (except for
(b) If the applicant is not the holder major repair) any type of parachute for
of a senior parachute rigger certificate, which he is rated; and
pass a written test, with respect to
(2) Supervise other persons in pack-
parachutes in common use, on—
ing any type of parachute for which
(1) Their construction, packing, and
that person is rated in accordance with
maintenance;
§ 105.43(a) or § 105.45(b)(1) of this chap-
(2) The manufacturer’s instructions;
ter.
and
(3) The regulations of this subpart. (b) A certificated master parachute
(c) Pass an oral and practical test rigger may—
showing his ability to pack and main- (1) Pack, maintain, or alter any type
tain two types of parachutes in com- of parachute for which he is rated; and
mon use, appropriate to the type rat- (2) Supervise other persons in pack-
ings he seeks. ing, maintaining, or altering any type
of parachute for which the certificated
[Doc. No. 10468, 37 FR 13252, July 6, 1972] parachute rigger is rated in accordance
with § 105.43(a) or § 105.45(b)(1) of this
§ 65.121 Type ratings.
chapter.
(a) The following type ratings are (c) A certificated parachute rigger
issued under this subpart: need not comply with §§ 65.127 through
(1) Seat. 65.133 (relating to facilities, equipment,
(2) Back. performance standards, records, recent
(3) Chest. experience, and seal) in packing, main-
(4) Lap. taining, or altering (if authorized) the
(b) The holder of a senior parachute main parachute of a dual parachute
rigger certificate who qualifies for a pack to be used for intentional jump-
master parachute rigger certificate is ing.
entitled to have placed on his master
parachute rigger certificate the ratings [Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
that were on his senior parachute rig- amended by Amdt. 65–20, 37 FR 13252, July 6,
ger certificate. 1972; Amdt. 65–42, 66 FR 23553, May 9, 2001]
§ 65.123 Additional type ratings: Re- § 65.127 Facilities and equipment.

quirements. No certificated parachute rigger may
A certificated parachute rigger who exercise the privileges of his certificate
applies for an additional type rating unless he has at least the following fa-
must— cilities and equipment available to
(a) Present evidence satisfactory to him:
the Administrator that he has packed (a) A smooth top table at least three
at least 20 parachutes of the type for feet wide by 40 feet long.
675
§ 65.129 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(b) Suitable housing that is ade- (6) The results of any drop tests made
quately heated, lighted, and ventilated with it.
for drying and airing parachutes. (b) Each person who makes a record
(c) Enough packing tools and other under paragraph (a) of this section
equipment to pack and maintain the shall keep it for at least 2 years after
types of parachutes that he services. the date it is made.
(d) Adequate housing facilities to (c) Each certificated parachute rigger
perform his duties and to protect his who packs a parachute shall write, on
tools and equipment. the parachute packing record attached
to the parachute, the date and place of
[Doc. No. 1179, 27 FR 7973, Aug. 10, 1962, as
the packing and a notation of any de-
amended by Amdt. 65–27, 47 FR 13316, Mar. 29,
1982] fects he finds on inspection. He shall
sign that record with his name and the
§ 65.129 Performance standards. number of his certificate.
No certificated parachute rigger § 65.133 Seal.
may—
Each certificated parachute rigger
(a) Pack, maintain, or alter any para-
must have a seal with an identifying
chute unless he is rated for that type;
mark prescribed by the Administrator,
(b) Pack a parachute that is not safe
and a seal press. After packing a para-
for emergency use;
chute he shall seal the pack with his
(c) Pack a parachute that has not
seal in accordance with the manufac-
been thoroughly dried and aired;
turer’s recommendation for that type
(d) Alter a parachute in a manner of parachute.
that is not specifically authorized by
the Administrator or the manufac-
turer;
(e) Pack, maintain, or alter a para- APPENDIX A TO PART 65—AIRCRAFT
chute in any manner that deviates DISPATCHER COURSES
from procedures approved by the Ad-
ministrator or the manufacturer of the Overview
parachute; or This appendix sets forth the areas of
(f) Exercise the privileges of his cer- knowledge necessary to perform dispatcher
tificate and type rating unless he un- functions. The items listed below indicate
derstands the current manufacturer’s the minimum set of topics that must be cov-
instructions for the operation involved ered in a training course for aircraft dis-
and has— patcher certification. The order of coverage
is at the discretion of the approved school.
(1) Performed duties under his cer-
tificate for at least 90 days within the I. Regulations
preceding 12 months; or A. Subpart C of this part;
B. Parts 1, 25, 61, 71, 91, 121, 139, and 175, of
(2) Shown the Administrator that he
this chapter;
is able to perform those duties. C. 49 CFR part 830;
D. General Operating Manual.
§ 65.131 Records. II. Meteorology
(a) Each certificated parachute rig- A. Basic Weather Studies
ger shall keep a record of the packing, (1) The earth’s motion and its effects on
maintenance, and alteration of para- weather.
(2) Analysis of the following regional
chutes performed or supervised by him.
weather types, characteristics, and
He shall keep in that record, with re- structures, or combinations thereof:
spect to each parachute worked on, a (a) Maritime.
statement of— (b) Continental.
(1) Its type and make; (c) Polar.
(2) Its serial number; (d) Tropical.
(3) The name and address of its (3) Analysis of the following local weather
types, characteristics, and structures or
owner;
combinations thereof:
(4) The kind and extent of the work (a) Coastal.
performed;
(b) Mountainous.
(5) The date when and place where (c) Island.
the work was performed; and (d) Plains.
676
(4) The following characteristics of the at- (b) Terminal Forecasts.
mosphere: (c) Significant En route Reports and Fore-
(a) Layers. casts.
(b) Composition. (i) Pilot Reports.
(c) Global Wind Patterns. (ii) Area Forecasts.
(d) Ozone. (iii) Sigmets, Airmets.
(5) Pressure: (iv) Center Weather Advisories.
(a) Units of Measure. (d) Weather Imagery.
(b) Weather Systems Characteristics. (i) Surface Analysis.
(c) Temperature Effects on Pressure. (ii) Weather Depiction.
(d) Altimeters. (iii) Significant Weather Prognosis.
(e) Pressure Gradient Force. (iv) Winds and Temperature Aloft.
(f) Pressure Pattern Flying Weather. (v) Tropopause Chart.
(6) Wind: (vi) Composite Moisture Stability Chart.
(a) Major Wind Systems and Coriolis (vii) Surface Weather Prognostic Chart.
Force. (viii) Radar Meteorology.
(b) Jetstreams and their Characteristics. (ix) Satellite Meteorology.
(c) Local Wind and Related Terms. (x) Other charts as applicable.
(7) States of Matter: (e) Meteorological Information Data Col-
(a) Solids, Liquid, and Gases. lection Systems.
(b) Causes of change of state. (2) Data Collection, Analysis, and Forecast
(8) Clouds: Facilities.
(a) Composition, Formation, and Dissipa- (3) Service Outlets Providing Aviation
tion. Weather Products.
(b) Types and Associated Precipitation. C. Weather Related Aircraft Hazards
(c) Use of Cloud Knowledge in Forecasting. (1) Crosswinds and Gusts.
(9) Fog: (2) Contaminated Runways.
(a) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation. (3) Restrictions to Surface Visibility.
(b) Types. (4) Turbulence and Windshear.
(10) Ice: (5) Icing.
(a) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation. (6) Thunderstorms and Microburst.
(b) Types. (7) Volcanic Ash.
(11) Stability/Instability: III. Navigation
(a) Temperature Lapse Rate, Convection. A. Study of the Earth
(b) Adiabatic Processes. (1) Time reference and location (0 Lon-
(c) Lifting Processes. gitude, UTC).
(d) Divergence. (2) Definitions.
(e) Convergence. (3) Projections.
(12) Turbulence: (4) Charts.
(a) Jetstream Associated. B. Chart Reading, Application, and Use.
(b) Pressure Pattern Recognition. C. National Airspace Plan.
(c) Low Level Windshear. D. Navigation Systems.
(d) Mountain Waves. E. Airborne Navigation Instruments.
(e) Thunderstorms. F. Instrument Approach Procedures.
(f) Clear Air Turbulence. (1) Transition Procedures.
(13) Airmasses: (2) Precision Approach Procedures.
(a) Classification and Characteristics. (3) Non-precision Approach Procedures.
(b) Source Regions. (4) Minimums and the relationship to
(c) Use of Airmass Knowledge in Fore- weather.
casting. G. Special Navigation and Operations.
(14) Fronts: (1) North Atlantic.
(a) Structure and Characteristics, Both (2) Pacific.
Vertical and Horizontal. (3) Global Differences.
(b) Frontal Types. IV. AIRCRAFT
(c) Frontal Weather Flying. A. Aircraft Flight Manual.
(15) Theory of Storm Systems: B. Systems Overview.
(a) Thunderstorms. (1) Flight controls.
(b) Tornadoes. (2) Hydraulics.
(c) Hurricanes and Typhoons. (3) Electrical.
(d) Microbursts. (4) Air Conditioning and Pressurization.
(e) Causes, Formation, and Dissipation. (5) Ice and Rain protection.
B. Weather, Analysis, and Forecasts (6) Avionics, Communication, and Naviga-
(1) Observations: tion.
(a) Surface Observations. (7) Powerplants and Auxiliary Power
(i) Observations made by certified weather Units.

observer. (8) Emergency and Abnormal Procedures.
(ii) Automated Weather Observations. (9) Fuel Systems and Sources.
677
C. Minimum Equipment List/Configuration (i) Air Traffic Control (ATC) activities and
Deviation List (MEL/CDL) and Applica- workload.
tions. (ii) Flightcrew activities and workload.
D. Performance. (iii) Maintenance activities and workload.
(1) Aircraft in general. (iv) Operations Control Staff activities and
(2) Principles of flight: workload.
(a) Group one aircraft. B. Applied Dispatching.
(b) Group two aircraft. (1) Briefing techniques, Dispatcher, Pilot.
(3) Aircraft Limitations. (2) Preflight:
(4) Weight and Balance. (a) Safety.
(5) Flight instrument errors. (b) Weather Analysis.
(6) Aircraft performance: (i) Satellite imagery.
(a) Take-off performance. (ii) Upper and lower altitude charts.
(b) En route performance. (iii) Significant en route reports and fore-
(c) Landing performance. casts.
V. Communications (iv) Surface charts.
A. Regulatory requirements. (v) Surface observations.
B. Communication Protocol. (vi) Terminal forecasts and orientation to
C. Voice and Data Communications. Enhanced Weather Information System
D. Notice to Airmen (NOTAMS). (EWINS).
E. Aeronautical Publications. (c) NOTAMS and airport conditions.
F. Abnormal Procedures. (d) Crew.
VI. Air Traffic Control (i) Qualifications.
A. Responsibilities. (ii) Limitations.
B. Facilities and Equipment.
(e) Aircraft.
C. Airspace classification and route struc-
(i) Systems.
ture.
(ii) Navigation instruments and avionics
D. Flight Plans.
systems.
(1) Domestic.
(iii) Flight instruments.
(2) International.
(iv) Operations manuals and MEL/CDL.
E. Separation Minimums.
(v) Performance and limitations.
F. Priority Handling.
G. Holding Procedures. (f) Flight Planning.
H. Traffic Management. (i) Route of flight.
VII. Emergency and Abnormal Procedures 1. Standard Instrument Departures and
A. Security measures on the ground. Standard Terminal Arrival Routes.
B. Security measures in the air. 2. En route charts.
C. FAA responsibility and services. 3. Operational altitude.
D. Collection and dissemination of infor- 4. Departure and arrival charts.
mation on overdue or missing aircraft. (ii) Minimum departure fuel.
E. Means of declaring an emergency. 1. Climb.
F. Responsibility for declaring an emer- 2. Cruise.
gency. 3. Descent.
G. Required reporting of an emergency. (g) Weight and balance.
H. NTSB reporting requirements. (h) Economics of flight overview (Perform-
VIII. Practical Dispatch Applications ance, Fuel Tankering).
A. Human Factors. (i) Decision to operate the flight.
(1) Decisionmaking: (j) ATC flight plan filing.
(a) Situation Assessment. (k) Flight documentation.
(b) Generation and Evaluation of Alter- (i) Flight plan.
natives. (ii) Dispatch release.
(i) Tradeoffs and Prioritization. (3) Authorize flight departure with concur-
(ii) Contingency Planning. rence of pilot in command.
(c) Support Tools and Technologies. (4) In-flight operational control:
(2) Human Error: (a) Current situational awareness.
(a) Causes. (b) Information exchange.
(i) Individual and Organizational Factors. (c) Amend original flight release as re-
(ii) Technology-Induced Error. quired.
(b) Prevention. (5) Post-Flight:
(c) Detection and Recovery. (a) Arrival verification.
(3) Teamwork:
(b) Weather debrief.
(a) Communication and Information Ex-
(c) Flight irregularity reports as required.
change.
(b) Cooperative and Distributed Problem- [Doc. No. FAA–1998–4553, 64 FR 68925, Dec. 8,
Solving. 1999, as amended by Docket FAA–2016–6142,
(c) Resource Management. Amdt. 65–58, 83 FR 30281, June 27, 2018]
678
PART 67—MEDICAL STANDARDS SOURCE: Docket No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar.

AND CERTIFICATION
Subpart A—General Subpart A—General
Sec. § 67.1 Applicability.
67.1 Applicability.
67.3 Issue. This part prescribes the medical
67.4 Application. standards and certification procedures
67.7 Access to the National Driver Register. for issuing medical certificates for air-
men and for remaining eligible for a
Subpart B—First-Class Airman Medical
medical certificate.
Certificate
67.101 Eligibility. § 67.3 Issue.
67.103 Eye. A person who meets the medical
67.105 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium.
67.107 Mental.
standards prescribed in this part, based
67.109 Neurologic. on medical examination and evaluation
67.111 Cardiovascular. of the person’s history and condition,
67.113 General medical condition. is entitled to an appropriate medical
67.115 Discretionary issuance. certificate.
Subpart C—Second-Class Airman Medical [Doc. No. FAA–2007–27812, 73 FR 43065, July
Certificate 24, 2008]
67.201 Eligibility. § 67.4 Application.

67.203 Eye.
67.205 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium. An applicant for first-, second- and
67.207 Mental. third-class medical certification must:
67.209 Neurologic. (a) Apply on a form and in a manner
67.211 Cardiovascular. prescribed by the Administrator;
67.213 General medical condition.
67.215 Discretionary issuance. (b) Be examined by an aviation med-
ical examiner designated in accordance
Subpart D—Third-Class Airman Medical with part 183 of this chapter. An appli-
Certificate cant may obtain a list of aviation med-
ical examiners from the FAA Office of
67.301 Eligibility.
67.303 Eye. Aerospace Medicine homepage on the
67.305 Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium. FAA Web site, from any FAA Regional
67.307 Mental. Flight Surgeon, or by contacting the
67.309 Neurologic. Manager of the Aerospace Medical Edu-
67.311 Cardiovascular. cation Division, P.O. Box 26200, Okla-
67.313 General medical condition.
67.315 Discretionary issuance.
homa City, Oklahoma 73125.
(c) Show proof of age and identity by
Subpart E—Certification Procedures presenting a government-issued photo
identification (such as a valid U.S.
67.401 Special issuance of medical certifi-
cates.
driver’s license, identification card
67.403 Applications, certificates, logbooks, issued by a driver’s license authority,
reports, and records: Falsification, repro- military identification, or passport). If
duction, or alteration; incorrect state- an applicant does not have govern-
ments. ment-issued identification, he or she
67.405 Medical examinations: Who may per- may use non-photo, government-issued
form?
67.407 Delegation of authority. identification (such as a birth certifi-
67.409 Denial of medical certificate. cate or voter registration card) in con-
67.411 [Reserved] junction with photo identification
67.413 Medical records. (such as a work identification card or a
67.415 Return of medical certificate after student identification card).
suspension or revocation.
[Doc. No. FAA–2007–27812, 73 FR 43065, July
AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701–

24, 2008]
44703, 44707, 44709–44711, 45102–45103, 45301–
45303.
679
§ 67.7 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
§ 67.7 Access to the National Driver that may reasonably be expected to be

Register. aggravated by flying.
At the time of application for a cer- (f) Bifoveal fixation and vergence-
tificate issued under this part, each phoria relationship sufficient to pre-
person who applies for a medical cer- vent a break in fusion under conditions
tificate shall execute an express con- that may reasonably be expected to
sent form authorizing the Adminis- occur in performing airman duties.
trator to request the chief driver li- Tests for the factors named in this
paragraph are not required except for
censing official of any state designated
persons found to have more than 1
by the Administrator to transmit in-
prism diopter of hyperphoria, 6 prism
formation contained in the National
diopters of esophoria, or 6 prism
Driver Register about the person to the
diopters of exophoria. If any of these
Administrator. The Administrator
values are exceeded, the Federal Air
shall make information received from
Surgeon may require the person to be
the National Driver Register, if any,
examined by a qualified eye specialist
available on request to the person for
to determine if there is bifoveal fixa-
review and written comment.
tion and an adequate vergence-phoria
relationship. However, if otherwise eli-
Subpart B—First-Class Airman gible, the person is issued a medical
Medical Certificate certificate pending the results of the
examination.
§ 67.101 Eligibility.
To be eligible for a first-class airman § 67.105 Ear, nose, throat, and equi-
librium.
medical certificate, and to remain eli-
gible for a first-class airman medical Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium
certificate, a person must meet the re- standards for a first-class airman med-
quirements of this subpart. ical certificate are:
(a) The person shall demonstrate ac-
§ 67.103 Eye. ceptable hearing by at least one of the
Eye standards for a first-class airman following tests:
medical certificate are: (1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an
(a) Distant visual acuity of 20/20 or average conversational voice in a quiet
better in each eye separately, with or room, using both ears, at a distance of
without corrective lenses. If corrective 6 feet from the examiner, with the back
lenses (spectacles or contact lenses) turned to the examiner.
are necessary for 20/20 vision, the per- (2) Demonstrate an acceptable under-
son may be eligible only on the condi- standing of speech as determined by
tion that corrective lenses are worn audiometric speech discrimination
while exercising the privileges of an testing to a score of at least 70 percent
airman certificate. obtained in one ear or in a sound field
(b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, environment.
Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches in each (3) Provide acceptable results of pure
eye separately, with or without correc- tone audiometric testing of unaided
tive lenses. If age 50 or older, near vi- hearing acuity according to the fol-
sion of 20/40 or better, Snellen equiva- lowing table of worst acceptable
lent, at both 16 inches and 32 inches in thresholds, using the calibration stand-
each eye separately, with or without ards of the American National Stand-
corrective lenses. ards Institute, 1969 (11 West 42d Street,
New York, NY 10036):
(c) Ability to perceive those colors
necessary for the safe performance of 500 1000 2000 3000
Frequency (Hz)
airman duties. Hz Hz Hz Hz
(d) Normal fields of vision. Better ear (Db) ................................. 35 30 30 40
(e) No acute or chronic pathological Poorer ear (Db) ............................... 35 50 50 60
condition of either eye or adnexa that
interferes with the proper function of (b) No disease or condition of the
an eye, that may reasonably be ex- middle or internal ear, nose, oral cav-
pected to progress to that degree, or ity, pharynx, or larynx that—
680
(1) Interferes with, or is aggravated (B) Manifestation of withdrawal

by, flying or may reasonably be ex- symptoms;
pected to do so; or (C) Impaired control of use; or
(2) Interferes with, or may reason- (D) Continued use despite damage to
ably be expected to interfere with, physical health or impairment of so-
clear and effective speech communica- cial, personal, or occupational func-
tion. tioning.
(c) No disease or condition mani-
(b) No substance abuse within the
fested by, or that may reasonably be
preceding 2 years defined as:
expected to be manifested by, vertigo
or a disturbance of equilibrium. (1) Use of a substance in a situation
in which that use was physically haz-
§ 67.107 Mental. ardous, if there has been at any other
Mental standards for a first-class air- time an instance of the use of a sub-
man medical certificate are: stance also in a situation in which that
(a) No established medical history or use was physically hazardous;
clinical diagnosis of any of the fol- (2) A verified positive drug test re-
lowing: sult, an alcohol test result of 0.04 or
(1) A personality disorder that is se- greater alcohol concentration, or a re-
vere enough to have repeatedly mani- fusal to submit to a drug or alcohol
fested itself by overt acts. test required by the U.S. Department
(2) A psychosis. As used in this sec- of Transportation or an agency of the
tion, ‘‘psychosis’’ refers to a mental U.S. Department of Transportation; or
disorder in which: (3) Misuse of a substance that the
(i) The individual has manifested de- Federal Air Surgeon, based on case his-
lusions, hallucinations, grossly bizarre tory and appropriate, qualified medical
or disorganized behavior, or other com- judgment relating to the substance in-
monly accepted symptoms of this con- volved, finds—
dition; or
(i) Makes the person unable to safely
(ii) The individual may reasonably be
perform the duties or exercise the
expected to manifest delusions, hallu-
cinations, grossly bizarre or disorga- privileges of the airman certificate ap-
nized behavior, or other commonly ac- plied for or held; or
cepted symptoms of this condition. (ii) May reasonably be expected, for
(3) A bipolar disorder. the maximum duration of the airman
(4) Substance dependence, except medical certificate applied for or held,
where there is established clinical evi- to make the person unable to perform
dence, satisfactory to the Federal Air those duties or exercise those privi-
Surgeon, of recovery, including sus- leges.
tained total abstinence from the sub- (c) No other personality disorder,
stance(s) for not less than the pre- neurosis, or other mental condition
ceding 2 years. As used in this sec- that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on
tion— the case history and appropriate, quali-
(i) ‘‘Substance’’ includes: Alcohol; fied medical judgment relating to the
other sedatives and hypnotics; condition involved, finds—
anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous (1) Makes the person unable to safely
system stimulants such as cocaine, am- perform the duties or exercise the
phetamines, and similarly acting privileges of the airman certificate ap-
sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; plied for or held; or
phencyclidine or similarly acting
(2) May reasonably be expected, for
arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis;
the maximum duration of the airman
inhalants; and other psychoactive
medical certificate applied for or held,
drugs and chemicals; and
(ii) ‘‘Substance dependence’’ means a to make the person unable to perform
condition in which a person is depend- those duties or exercise those privi-
ent on a substance, other than tobacco leges.
or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g.,
[Doc. No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as

caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by— amended by Amdt. 67–19, 71 FR 35764, June
(A) Increased tolerance; 21, 2006]
681
§ 67.109 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
§ 67.109 Neurologic. (c) An electrocardiogram will satisfy

Neurologic standards for a first-class a requirement of paragraph (b) of this
airman medical certificate are: section if it is dated no earlier than 60
(a) No established medical history or days before the date of the application
clinical diagnosis of any of the fol- it is to accompany and was performed
lowing: and transmitted according to accept-
(1) Epilepsy; able standards and techniques.
(2) A disturbance of consciousness
without satisfactory medical expla- § 67.113 General medical condition.
nation of the cause; or The general medical standards for a
(3) A transient loss of control of nerv- first-class airman medical certificate
ous system function(s) without satis- are:
factory medical explanation of the (a) No established medical history or
cause. clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus
(b) No other seizure disorder, disturb- that requires insulin or any other
ance of consciousness, or neurologic hypoglycemic drug for control.
condition that the Federal Air Sur- (b) No other organic, functional, or
geon, based on the case history and ap- structural disease, defect, or limitation
propriate, qualified medical judgment
that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on
relating to the condition involved,
the case history and appropriate, quali-
finds—
fied medical judgment relating to the
(1) Makes the person unable to safely
perform the duties or exercise the condition involved, finds—
privileges of the airman certificate ap- (1) Makes the person unable to safely
plied for or held; or perform the duties or exercise the
(2) May reasonably be expected, for privileges of the airman certificate ap-
the maximum duration of the airman plied for or held; or
medical certificate applied for or held, (2) May reasonably be expected, for
to make the person unable to perform the maximum duration of the airman
those duties or exercise those privi- medical certificate applied for or held,
leges. to make the person unable to perform
those duties or exercise those privi-
§ 67.111 Cardiovascular. leges.
Cardiovascular standards for a first- (c) No medication or other treatment
class airman medical certificate are: that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on
(a) No established medical history or the case history and appropriate, quali-
clinical diagnosis of any of the fol- fied medical judgment relating to the
lowing: medication or other treatment in-
(1) Myocardial infarction; volved, finds—
(2) Angina pectoris; (1) Makes the person unable to safely
(3) Coronary heart disease that has perform the duties or exercise the
required treatment or, if untreated, privileges of the airman certificate ap-
that has been symptomatic or clini- plied for or held; or
cally significant;
(4) Cardiac valve replacement;
(5) Permanent cardiac pacemaker im-
plantation; or
to make the person unable to perform
(6) Heart replacement;
(b) A person applying for first-class
medical certification must dem- leges.
onstrate an absence of myocardial in-
§ 67.115 Discretionary issuance.
farction and other clinically signifi-
cant abnormality on electrocardio- A person who does not meet the pro-
graphic examination: visions of §§ 67.103 through 67.113 may
(1) At the first application after apply for the discretionary issuance of
reaching the 35th birthday; and a certificate under § 67.401.
(2) On an annual basis after reaching

the 40th birthday.
682
Subpart C—Second-Class Airman certificate pending the results of the

Medical Certificate examination.
§ 67.201 Eligibility. § 67.205 Ear, nose, throat, and equi-

librium.
To be eligible for a second-class air-
man medical certificate, and to remain Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium
eligible for a second-class airman med- standards for a second-class airman
ical certificate, a person must meet the medical certificate are:
requirements of this subpart. (a) The person shall demonstrate ac-
ceptable hearing by at least one of the
§ 67.203 Eye. following tests:
Eye standards for a second-class air- (1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an
man medical certificate are: average conversational voice in a quiet
(a) Distant visual acuity of 20/20 or room, using both ears, at a distance of
better in each eye separately, with or 6 feet from the examiner, with the back
without corrective lenses. If corrective turned to the examiner.
lenses (spectacles or contact lenses) (2) Demonstrate an acceptable under-
are necessary for 20/20 vision, the per- standing of speech as determined by
son may be eligible only on the condi- audiometric speech discrimination
tion that corrective lenses are worn testing to a score of at least 70 percent
while exercising the privileges of an obtained in one ear or in a sound field
airman certificate. environment.
(b) Near vision of 20/40 or better, (3) Provide acceptable results of pure
Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches in each tone audiometric testing of unaided
eye separately, with or without correc- hearing acuity according to the fol-
tive lenses. If age 50 or older, near vi- lowing table of worst acceptable
sion of 20/40 or better, Snellen equiva- thresholds, using the calibration stand-
lent, at both 16 inches and 32 inches in ards of the American National Stand-
each eye separately, with or without ards Institute, 1969:
corrective lenses.
500 1000 2000 3000
(c) Ability to perceive those colors Frequency (Hz) Hz Hz Hz Hz
necessary for the safe performance of
airman duties. Better ear (Db) ................................. 35 30 30 40
Poorer ear (Db) ............................... 35 50 50 60
(d) Normal fields of vision.
(e) No acute or chronic pathological
condition of either eye or adnexa that (b) No disease or condition of the
interferes with the proper function of middle or internal ear, nose, oral cav-
an eye, that may reasonably be ex- ity, pharynx, or larynx that—
pected to progress to that degree, or (1) Interferes with, or is aggravated
that may reasonably be expected to be by, flying or may reasonably be ex-
aggravated by flying. pected to do so; or
(f) Bifoveal fixation and vergence- (2) Interferes with, or may reason-
phoria relationship sufficient to pre- ably be expected to interfere with,
vent a break in fusion under conditions clear and effective speech communica-
that may reasonably be expected to tion.
occur in performing airman duties. (c) No disease or condition mani-
Tests for the factors named in this fested by, or that may reasonably be
paragraph are not required except for expected to be manifested by, vertigo
persons found to have more than 1 or a disturbance of equilibrium.
prism diopter of hyperphoria, 6 prism
diopters of esophoria, or 6 prism § 67.207 Mental.
diopters of exophoria. If any of these Mental standards for a second-class
values are exceeded, the Federal Air airman medical certificate are:
Surgeon may require the person to be (a) No established medical history or
examined by a qualified eye specialist clinical diagnosis of any of the fol-
to determine if there is bifoveal fixa- lowing:
tion and an adequate vergence-phoria (1) A personality disorder that is se-
relationship. However, if otherwise eli- vere enough to have repeatedly mani-

gible, the person is issued a medical fested itself by overt acts.
683
§ 67.209 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)

disorder in which: (3) Misuse of a substance that the
dition; or (i) Makes the person unable to safely
(ii) The individual may reasonably be perform the duties or exercise the
expected to manifest delusions, hallu- privileges of the airman certificate ap-
cinations, grossly bizarre or disorga- plied for or held; or
nized behavior, or other commonly ac- (ii) May reasonably be expected, for
cepted symptoms of this condition. the maximum duration of the airman
(3) A bipolar disorder. medical certificate applied for or held,
(4) Substance dependence, except to make the person unable to perform
where there is established clinical evi- those duties or exercise those privi-
dence, satisfactory to the Federal Air leges.
Surgeon, of recovery, including sus- (c) No other personality disorder,
tained total abstinence from the sub- neurosis, or other mental condition
stance(s) for not less than the pre- that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on
ceding 2 years. As used in this sec- the case history and appropriate, quali-
tion— fied medical judgment relating to the
(i) ‘‘Substance’’ includes: Alcohol; condition involved, finds—
other sedatives and hypnotics; (1) Makes the person unable to safely
anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous perform the duties or exercise the
system stimulants such as cocaine, am- privileges of the airman certificate ap-
phetamines, and similarly acting plied for or held; or
sympathomimetics; hallucinogens; (2) May reasonably be expected, for
phencyclidine or similarly acting the maximum duration of the airman
arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis; medical certificate applied for or held,
inhalants; and other psychoactive to make the person unable to perform
drugs and chemicals; and those duties or exercise those privi-
(ii) ‘‘Substance dependence’’ means a leges.
condition in which a person is depend- [Doc. No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as
ent on a substance, other than tobacco amended by Amdt. 67–19, 71 FR 35764, June
or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g., 21, 2006]
caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by—
(A) Increased tolerance; § 67.209 Neurologic.
(B) Manifestation of withdrawal Neurologic standards for a second-
symptoms; class airman medical certificate are:
(C) Impaired control of use; or (a) No established medical history or
(D) Continued use despite damage to clinical diagnosis of any of the fol-
physical health or impairment of so- lowing:
cial, personal, or occupational func- (1) Epilepsy;
tioning. (2) A disturbance of consciousness
(b) No substance abuse within the without satisfactory medical expla-
preceding 2 years defined as: nation of the cause; or
(1) Use of a substance in a situation (3) A transient loss of control of nerv-
in which that use was physically haz- ous system function(s) without satis-
ardous, if there has been at any other factory medical explanation of the
time an instance of the use of a sub- cause;
stance also in a situation in which that (b) No other seizure disorder, disturb-
use was physically hazardous; ance of consciousness, or neurologic
(2) A verified positive drug test re- condition that the Federal Air Sur-
sult, an alcohol test result of 0.04 or geon, based on the case history and ap-
greater alcohol concentration, or a re- propriate, qualified medical judgment
fusal to submit to a drug or alcohol relating to the condition involved,

test required by the U.S. Department finds—
684
(1) Makes the person unable to safely privileges of the airman certificate ap-
perform the duties or exercise the plied for or held; or
privileges of the airman certificate ap- (2) May reasonably be expected, for
plied for or held; or the maximum duration of the airman
(2) May reasonably be expected, for medical certificate applied for or held,
the maximum duration of the airman to make the person unable to perform
medical certificate applied for or held, those duties or exercise those privi-
to make the person unable to perform leges.
leges. § 67.215 Discretionary issuance.
§ 67.211 Cardiovascular. A person who does not meet the pro-
visions of §§ 67.203 through 67.213 may
Cardiovascular standards for a sec- apply for the discretionary issuance of
ond-class medical certificate are no es- a certificate under § 67.401.
tablished medical history or clinical
diagnosis of any of the following:
(a) Myocardial infarction; Subpart D—Third-Class Airman
(b) Angina pectoris; Medical Certificate
(c) Coronary heart disease that has
required treatment or, if untreated, § 67.301 Eligibility.
that has been symptomatic or clini- To be eligible for a third-class air-
cally significant; man medical certificate, or to remain
(d) Cardiac valve replacement; eligible for a third-class airman med-
(e) Permanent cardiac pacemaker im- ical certificate, a person must meet the
plantation; or requirements of this subpart.
(f) Heart replacement.
§ 67.303 Eye.
§ 67.213 General medical condition.
Eye standards for a third-class air-
The general medical standards for a man medical certificate are:
second-class airman medical certificate
(a) Distant visual acuity of 20/40 or
are:
better in each eye separately, with or
(a) No established medical history or
without corrective lenses. If corrective
clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus
lenses (spectacles or contact lenses)
that requires insulin or any other
are necessary for 20/40 vision, the per-
hypoglycemic drug for control.
son may be eligible only on the condi-
(b) No other organic, functional, or
tion that corrective lenses are worn
structural disease, defect, or limitation
while exercising the privileges of an
that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on
airman certificate.
fied medical judgment relating to the (b) Near vision of 20/40 or better,
condition involved, finds— Snellen equivalent, at 16 inches in each
(1) Makes the person unable to safely eye separately, with or without correc-
perform the duties or exercise the tive lenses.
privileges of the airman certificate ap- (c) Ability to perceive those colors
plied for or held; or necessary for the safe performance of
(2) May reasonably be expected, for airman duties.
the maximum duration of the airman (d) No acute or chronic pathological
medical certificate applied for or held, condition of either eye or adnexa that
to make the person unable to perform interferes with the proper function of
those duties or exercise those privi- an eye, that may reasonably be ex-
leges. pected to progress to that degree, or
(c) No medication or other treatment that may reasonably be expected to be
that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on aggravated by flying.
fied medical judgment relating to the § 67.305 Ear, nose, throat, and equi-
medication or other treatment in- librium.
volved, finds— Ear, nose, throat, and equilibrium
(1) Makes the person unable to safely standards for a third-class airman med-
perform the duties or exercise the ical certificate are:
685
§ 67.307 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(a) The person shall demonstrate ac- nized behavior, or other commonly ac-
ceptable hearing by at least one of the cepted symptoms of this condition.
following tests: (3) A bipolar disorder.
(1) Demonstrate an ability to hear an (4) Substance dependence, except
average conversational voice in a quiet where there is established clinical evi-
room, using both ears, at a distance of dence, satisfactory to the Federal Air
6 feet from the examiner, with the back Surgeon, of recovery, including sus-
turned to the examiner. tained total abstinence from the sub-
(2) Demonstrate an acceptable under- stance(s) for not less than the pre-
standing of speech as determined by ceding 2 years. As used in this sec-
audiometric speech discrimination tion—
testing to a score of at least 70 percent (i) ‘‘Substance’’ includes: alcohol;
obtained in one ear or in a sound field other sedatives and hypnotics;
environment. anxiolytics; opioids; central nervous
(3) Provide acceptable results of pure system stimulants such as cocaine, am-
tone audiometric testing of unaided phetamines, and similarly acting
hearing acuity according to the fol- sympathomimetics; hallucinogens;
lowing table of worst acceptable
phencyclidine or similarly acting
thresholds, using the calibration stand-
arylcyclohexylamines; cannabis;
ards of the American National Stand-
inhalants; and other psychoactive
ards Institute, 1969:
drugs and chemicals; and
Frequency (Hz) 500 1000 2000 3000 (ii) ‘‘Substance dependence’’ means a
Hz Hz Hz Hz
condition in which a person is depend-
Better ear (Db) ................................. 35 30 30 40 ent on a substance, other than tobacco
Poorer ear (Db) ............................... 35 50 50 60 or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g.,
caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by—
(b) No disease or condition of the (A) Increased tolerance;
middle or internal ear, nose, oral cav- (B) Manifestation of withdrawal
ity, pharynx, or larynx that— symptoms;
(1) Interferes with, or is aggravated
(C) Impaired control of use; or
by, flying or may reasonably be ex-
pected to do so; or (D) Continued use despite damage to
(2) Interferes with clear and effective physical health or impairment of so-
speech communication. cial, personal, or occupational func-
(c) No disease or condition mani- tioning.
fested by, or that may reasonably be (b) No substance abuse within the
expected to be manifested by, vertigo preceding 2 years defined as:
or a disturbance of equilibrium. (1) Use of a substance in a situation
in which that use was physically haz-
§ 67.307 Mental. ardous, if there has been at any other
Mental standards for a third-class time an instance of the use of a sub-
airman medical certificate are: stance also in a situation in which that
(a) No established medical history or use was physically hazardous;
clinical diagnosis of any of the fol- (2) A verified positive drug test re-
lowing: sult, an alcohol test result of 0.04 or
(1) A personality disorder that is se- greater alcohol concentration, or a re-
vere enough to have repeatedly mani- fusal to submit to a drug or alcohol
fested itself by overt acts. test required by the U.S. Department
disorder in which— (3) Misuse of a substance that the
dition; or (i) Makes the person unable to safely
(ii) The individual may reasonably be perform the duties or exercise the
expected to manifest delusions, hallu- privileges of the airman certificate ap-

cinations, grossly bizarre or disorga- plied for or held; or
686
(ii) May reasonably be expected, for § 67.311 Cardiovascular.

Cardiovascular standards for a third-
class airman medical certificate are no
to make the person unable to perform
established medical history or clinical
diagnosis of any of the following:
leges.
(a) Myocardial infarction;
(c) No other personality disorder,
neurosis, or other mental condition (b) Angina pectoris;
that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on (c) Coronary heart disease that has
the case history and appropriate, quali- required treatment or, if untreated,
fied medical judgment relating to the that has been symptomatic or clini-
condition involved, finds— cally significant;
(1) Makes the person unable to safely (d) Cardiac valve replacement;
perform the duties or exercise the (e) Permanent cardiac pacemaker im-
privileges of the airman certificate ap- plantation; or
plied for or held; or (f) Heart replacement.
the maximum duration of the airman § 67.313 General medical condition.
medical certificate applied for or held, The general medical standards for a
to make the person unable to perform third-class airman medical certificate
those duties or exercise those privi- are:
leges. (a) No established medical history or
[Doc. No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus
amended by Amdt. 67–19, 71 FR 35764, June that requires insulin or any other
21, 2006] hypoglycemic drug for control.
(b) No other organic, functional, or
§ 67.309 Neurologic. structural disease, defect, or limitation
Neurologic standards for a third-class that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on
airman medical certificate are: the case history and appropriate, quali-
(a) No established medical history or fied medical judgment relating to the
clinical diagnosis of any of the fol- condition involved, finds—
lowing: (1) Makes the person unable to safely
(1) Epilepsy; perform the duties or exercise the
(2) A disturbance of consciousness privileges of the airman certificate ap-
without satisfactory medical expla- plied for or held; or
nation of the cause; or (2) May reasonably be expected, for
(3) A transient loss of control of nerv- the maximum duration of the airman
ous system function(s) without satis- medical certificate applied for or held,
factory medical explanation of the to make the person unable to perform
cause. those duties or exercise those privi-
(b) No other seizure disorder, disturb- leges.
ance of consciousness, or neurologic (c) No medication or other treatment
condition that the Federal Air Sur- that the Federal Air Surgeon, based on
geon, based on the case history and ap- the case history and appropriate, quali-
propriate, qualified medical judgment fied medical judgment relating to the
relating to the condition involved, medication or other treatment in-
finds— volved, finds—
(1) Makes the person unable to safely (1) Makes the person unable to safely
perform the duties or exercise the perform the duties or exercise the
privileges of the airman certificate ap- privileges of the airman certificate ap-
plied for or held; or plied for or held; or
(2) May reasonably be expected, for (2) May reasonably be expected, for
the maximum duration of the airman the maximum duration of the airman
medical certificate applied for or held, medical certificate applied for or held,
to make the person unable to perform to make the person unable to perform
those duties or exercise those privi- those duties or exercise those privi-
leges. leges.
687
§ 67.315 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
§ 67.315 Discretionary issuance. aviation medical examiner to issue a

medical certificate of a specified class
A person who does not meet the pro-
if the examiner finds that the condi-
visions of §§ 67.303 through 67.313 may
tion described on its face has not ad-
apply for the discretionary issuance of
versely changed.
a certificate under § 67.401.
(c) In granting an Authorization or
SODA, the Federal Air Surgeon may
Subpart E—Certification consider the person’s operational expe-
Procedures rience and any medical facts that may
affect the ability of the person to per-
§ 67.401 Special issuance of medical form airman duties including—
certificates. (1) The combined effect on the person
(a) At the discretion of the Federal of failure to meet more than one re-
Air Surgeon, an Authorization for Spe- quirement of this part; and
cial Issuance of a Medical Certificate (2) The prognosis derived from profes-
(Authorization), valid for a specified sional consideration of all available in-
period, may be granted to a person who formation regarding the person.
does not meet the provisions of sub- (d) In granting an Authorization or
parts B, C, or D of this part if the per- SODA under this section, the Federal
son shows to the satisfaction of the Air Surgeon specifies the class of med-
Federal Air Surgeon that the duties ical certificate authorized to be issued
authorized by the class of medical cer- and may do any or all of the following:
tificate applied for can be performed (1) Limit the duration of an Author-
without endangering public safety dur- ization;
ing the period in which the Authoriza- (2) Condition the granting of a new
tion would be in force. The Federal Air Authorization on the results of subse-
Surgeon may authorize a special med- quent medical tests, examinations, or
ical flight test, practical test, or med- evaluations;
ical evaluation for this purpose. A med- (3) State on the Authorization or
ical certificate of the appropriate class SODA, and any medical certificate
may be issued to a person who does not based upon it, any operational limita-
meet the provisions of subparts B, C, or tion needed for safety; or
D of this part if that person possesses a (4) Condition the continued effect of
valid Authorization and is otherwise an Authorization or SODA, and any
eligible. An airman medical certificate second- or third-class medical certifi-
issued in accordance with this section cate based upon it, on compliance with
shall expire no later than the end of a statement of functional limitations
the validity period or upon the with- issued to the person in coordination
drawal of the Authorization upon with the Director of Flight Standards
which it is based. At the end of its or the Director’s designee.
specified validity period, for grant of a (e) In determining whether an Au-
new Authorization, the person must thorization or SODA should be granted
again show to the satisfaction of the to an applicant for a third-class med-
Federal Air Surgeon that the duties ical certificate, the Federal Air Sur-
authorized by the class of medical cer- geon considers the freedom of an air-
tificate applied for can be performed man, exercising the privileges of a pri-
without endangering public safety dur- vate pilot certificate, to accept reason-
ing the period in which the Authoriza- able risks to his or her person and
tion would be in force. property that are not acceptable in the
(b) At the discretion of the Federal exercise of commercial or airline trans-
Air Surgeon, a Statement of Dem- port pilot privileges, and, at the same
onstrated Ability (SODA) may be time, considers the need to protect the
granted, instead of an Authorization, safety of persons and property in other
to a person whose disqualifying condi- aircraft and on the ground.
tion is static or nonprogressive and (f) An Authorization or SODA grant-
who has been found capable of per- ed under the provisions of this section
forming airman duties without endan- to a person who does not meet the ap-
gering public safety. A SODA does not plicable provisions of subparts B, C, or

expire and authorizes a designated D of this part may be withdrawn, at
688
the discretion of the Federal Air Sur- tion, shall be surrendered to the Ad-
geon, at any time if— ministrator upon request.
(1) There is adverse change in the [Doc. No. 27940, 61 FR 11256, Mar. 19, 1996, as
holder’s medical condition; amended by Amdt. 67–20, 73 FR 43066, July 24,
(2) The holder fails to comply with a 2008; Amdt. 67–21, 77 FR 16668, Mar. 22, 2012]
statement of functional limitations or
operational limitations issued as a con- § 67.403 Applications, certificates,
dition of certification under this sec- logbooks, reports, and records: Fal-
tion; sification, reproduction, or alter-
(3) Public safety would be endangered ation; incorrect statements.
by the holder’s exercise of airman (a) No person may make or cause to
privileges; be made—
(4) The holder fails to provide med- (1) A fraudulent or intentionally false
ical information reasonably needed by statement on any application for a
the Federal Air Surgeon for certifi- medical certificate or on a request for
cation under this section; or any Authorization for Special Issuance
(5) The holder makes or causes to be of a Medical Certificate (Authoriza-
made a statement or entry that is the tion) or Statement of Demonstrated
basis for withdrawal of an Authoriza- Ability (SODA) under this part;
tion or SODA under § 67.403. (2) A fraudulent or intentionally false
(g) A person who has been granted an entry in any logbook, record, or report
Authorization or SODA under this sec- that is kept, made, or used, to show
tion based on a special medical flight compliance with any requirement for
or practical test need not take the test any medical certificate or for any Au-
again during later physical examina- thorization or SODA under this part;
tions unless the Federal Air Surgeon (3) A reproduction, for fraudulent
determines or has reason to believe purposes, of any medical certificate
that the physical deficiency has or may under this part; or
have degraded to a degree to require (4) An alteration of any medical cer-
another special medical flight test or tificate under this part.
practical test. (b) The commission by any person of
(h) The authority of the Federal Air an act prohibited under paragraph (a)
Surgeon under this section is also exer- of this section is a basis for—
cised by the Manager, Aeromedical (1) Suspending or revoking all air-
Certification Division, and each Re- man, ground instructor, and medical
gional Flight Surgeon. certificates and ratings held by that
(i) If an Authorization or SODA is person;
withdrawn under paragraph (f) of this (2) Withdrawing all Authorizations or
section the following procedures apply: SODA’s held by that person; and
(1) The holder of the Authorization or (3) Denying all applications for med-
SODA will be served a letter of with- ical certification and requests for Au-
drawal, stating the reason for the ac- thorizations or SODA’s.
tion; (c) The following may serve as a basis
(2) By not later than 60 days after the for suspending or revoking a medical
service of the letter of withdrawal, the certificate; withdrawing an Authoriza-
holder of the Authorization or SODA tion or SODA; or denying an applica-
may request, in writing, that the Fed- tion for a medical certificate or re-
eral Air Surgeon provide for review of quest for an authorization or SODA:
the decision to withdraw. The request (1) An incorrect statement, upon
for review may be accompanied by sup- which the FAA relied, made in support
porting medical evidence; of an application for a medical certifi-
(3) Within 60 days of receipt of a re- cate or request for an Authorization or
quest for review, a written final deci- SODA.
sion either affirming or reversing the (2) An incorrect entry, upon which
decision to withdraw will be issued; the FAA relied, made in any logbook,
and record, or report that is kept, made, or
(4) A medical certificate rendered in- used to show compliance with any re-
valid pursuant to a withdrawal, in ac- quirement for a medical certificate or

cordance with paragraph (a) of this sec- an Authorization or SODA.
689
§ 67.405 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
§ 67.405 Medical examinations: Who ation by the Federal Air Surgeon. A

may perform? certificate issued by an aviation med-
(a) First-class. Any aviation medical ical examiner is considered to be af-
examiner who is specifically designated firmed as issued unless an FAA official
for the purpose may perform examina- named in this paragraph (authorized
tions for the first-class medical certifi- official) reverses that issuance within
cate. 60 days after the date of issuance. How-
(b) Second- and third-class. Any avia- ever, if within 60 days after the date of
tion medical examiner may perform ex- issuance an authorized official requests
aminations for the second-or third- the certificate holder to submit addi-
class medical certificate. tional medical information, an author-
ized official may reverse the issuance
[Doc. No. FAA–2007–27812, 73 FR 43066, July within 60 days after receipt of the re-
24, 2008] quested information.
(d) The authority of the Adminis-
§ 67.407 Delegation of authority. trator under 49 U.S.C. 44709 to re-exam-
(a) The authority of the Adminis- ine any civil airman to the extent nec-
trator under 49 U.S.C. 44703 to issue or essary to determine an airman’s quali-
deny medical certificates is delegated fication to continue to hold an airman
to the Federal Air Surgeon to the ex- medical certificate, is delegated to the
tent necessary to— Federal Air Surgeon and his or her au-
(1) Examine applicants for and hold- thorized representatives within the
ers of medical certificates to determine FAA.
whether they meet applicable medical
standards; and § 67.409 Denial of medical certificate.
(2) Issue, renew, and deny medical (a) Any person who is denied a med-
certificates, and issue, renew, deny, ical certificate by an aviation medical
and withdraw Authorizations for Spe- examiner may, within 30 days after the
cial Issuance of a Medical Certificate date of the denial, apply in writing and
and Statements of Demonstrated Abil- in duplicate to the Federal Air Sur-
ity to a person based upon meeting or geon, Attention: Manager, Aeromedical
failing to meet applicable medical Certification Division, AAM–300, Fed-
standards. eral Aviation Administration, P.O. Box
(b) Subject to limitations in this 26080, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73126,
chapter, the delegated functions of the for reconsideration of that denial. If
Federal Air Surgeon to examine appli- the person does not ask for reconsider-
cants for and holders of medical certifi- ation during the 30-day period after the
cates for compliance with applicable date of the denial, he or she is consid-
medical standards and to issue, renew, ered to have withdrawn the application
and deny medical certificates are also for a medical certificate.
delegated to aviation medical exam- (b) The denial of a medical certifi-
iners and to authorized representatives cate—
of the Federal Air Surgeon within the (1) By an aviation medical examiner
FAA. is not a denial by the Administrator
(c) The authority of the Adminis- under 49 U.S.C. 44703.
trator under 49 U.S.C. 44702, to recon- (2) By the Federal Air Surgeon is
sider the action of an aviation medical considered to be a denial by the Admin-
examiner is delegated to the Federal istrator under 49 U.S.C. 44703.
Air Surgeon; the Manager, (3) By the Manager, Aeromedical Cer-
Aeromedical Certification Division; tification Division, or a Regional
and each Regional Flight Surgeon. Flight Surgeon is considered to be a de-
Where the person does not meet the nial by the Administrator under 49
standards of §§ 67.107(b)(3) and (c), U.S.C. 44703 except where the person
67.109(b), 67.113(b) and (c), 67.207(b)(3) does not meet the standards of
and (c), 67.209(b), 67.213(b) and (c), §§ 67.107(b)(3) and (c), 67.109(b), or
67.307(b)(3) and (c), 67.309(b), or 67.313(b) 67.113(b) and (c); 67.207(b)(3) and (c),
and (c), any action taken under this 67.209(b), or 67.213(b) and (c); or
paragraph other than by the Federal 67.307(b)(3) and (c), 67.309(b), or 67.313(b)
Air Surgeon is subject to reconsider- and (c).
690
(c) Any action taken under § 67.407(c) PART 68—REQUIREMENTS FOR OP-
that wholly or partly reverses the issue ERATING CERTAIN SMALL AIR-
of a medical certificate by an aviation CRAFT WITHOUT A MEDICAL
medical examiner is the denial of a CERTIFICATE
medical certificate under paragraph (b)
of this section. Sec.
(d) If the issue of a medical certifi- 68.1 Applicability.
cate is wholly or partly reversed by the 68.3 Medical education course requirements.
Federal Air Surgeon; the Manager, 68.5 Comprehensive medical examination.
Aeromedical Certification Division; or 68.7 Comprehensive medical examination
checklist.
a Regional Flight Surgeon, the person 68.9 Special Issuance process.
holding that certificate shall surrender 68.11 Authority to require additional infor-
it, upon request of the FAA. mation.
AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 44701–44703, sec.
§ 67.411 [Reserved]
2307 of Pub. L. 114–190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C.
44703 note).
§ 67.413 Medical records.
SOURCE: Docket FAA–2016–9157, Amdt. 68–1,
(a) Whenever the Administrator finds 82 FR 3165, Jan. 11, 2017, unless otherwise
that additional medical information or noted.
history is necessary to determine
whether you meet the medical stand- § 68.1 Applicability.
ards required to hold a medical certifi- This part prescribes the medical edu-
cate, you must: cation and examination requirements
(1) Furnish that information to the for operating an aircraft under
FAA; or § 61.113(i) of this chapter without hold-
(2) Authorize any clinic, hospital, ing a medical certificate issued under
physician, or other person to release to part 67 of this chapter.
the FAA all available information or
§ 68.3 Medical education course re-
records concerning that history. quirements.
(b) If you fail to provide the re-
(a) The medical education course re-
quested medical information or history
quired to act as pilot in command in an
or to authorize its release, the FAA
operation under § 61.113(i) of this chap-
may suspend, modify, or revoke your
ter must—
medical certificate or, in the case of an (1) Educate pilots on conducting med-
applicant, deny the application for a ical self-assessments;
medical certificate. (2) Advise pilots on identifying warn-
(c) If your medical certificate is sus- ing signs of potential serious medical
pended, modified, or revoked under conditions;
paragraph (b) of this section, that sus- (3) Identify risk mitigation strategies
pension or modification remains in ef- for medical conditions;
fect until you provide the requested in- (4) Increase awareness of the impacts
formation, history, or authorization to of potentially impairing over-the-
the FAA and until the FAA determines counter and prescription drug medica-
that you meet the medical standards tions;
set forth in this part. (5) Encourage regular medical exami-
nations and consultations with pri-
[Doc. No. FAA–2007–27812, 73 FR 43066, July mary care physicians;
24, 2008]
(6) Inform pilots of the regulations
pertaining to the prohibition on oper-
§ 67.415 Return of medical certificate
after suspension or revocation. ations during medical deficiency and
medically disqualifying conditions; and
The holder of any medical certificate (7) Provide the checklist developed
issued under this part that is sus- by the FAA in accordance with § 68.7.
pended or revoked shall, upon the Ad- (b) Upon successful completion of the
ministrator’s request, return it to the medical education course, the fol-
Administrator. lowing items must be electronically

provided to the individual seeking to
691
§ 68.5 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
act as pilot in command under the con- (1) Complete the individual’s section
ditions and limitations of § 61.113(i) of of the checklist described in § 68.7; and
this chapter and transmitted to the (2) Provide the completed checklist
FAA— to the State-licensed physician per-
(1) A certification of completion of forming the medical examination.
the medical education course, which (b) The physician must—
shall be retained in the individual’s (1) Conduct the medical examination
logbook and made available upon rein accordance with the checklist set
quest, and shall contain the individ- forth in § 68.7,
ual’s name, address, and airman certifi- (2) Check each item specified during
cate number; the examination; and
(2) A release authorizing single ac- (3) Address, as medically appropriate,
cess to the National Driver Register every medical condition listed and any
through a designated State Depart- medications the individual is taking.
ment of Motor Vehicles to furnish to
the FAA information pertaining to the § 68.7 Comprehensive medical exam-
individual’s driving record; ination checklist.
(3) A certification by the individual The comprehensive medical examina-
that the individual is under the care tion required to conduct operations
and treatment of a physician if the in- under § 61.113(i) must include a check-
dividual has been diagnosed with any list containing the following:
medical condition that may impact the (a) A section, for the individual to
ability of the individual to fly, as re- complete that contains—
quired under § 61.23(c)(3) of this chap- (1) Boxes 3 through 13 and boxes 16
ter; through 19 of the FAA Form 8500–8 (3–
(4) A form that includes— 99); and
(i) The name, address, telephone (2) A signature line for the individual
number, and airman certificate number to affirm that—
of the individual; (i) The answers provided by the indi-
(ii) The name, address, telephone vidual on that checklist, including the
number, and State medical license individual’s answers regarding medical
number of the physician performing history, are true and complete;
the comprehensive medical examina- (ii) The individual understands that
tion; he or she is prohibited under FAA regu-
(iii) The date of the comprehensive lations from acting as pilot in com-
medical examination; and mand, or any other capacity as a re-
(iv) A certification by the individual quired flight crew member, if he or she
that the checklist described in § 68.7 knows or has reason to know of any
was followed and signed by the physi- medical deficiency or medically dis-
cian during the medical examination qualifying condition that would make
required by this section; and the individual unable to operate the
(5) A statement, which shall be aircraft in a safe manner; and
signed by the individual certifying that (iii) The individual is aware of the
the individual understands the existing regulations pertaining to the prohibi-
prohibition on operations during med- tion on operations during medical defi-
ical deficiency by stating: ‘‘I under- ciency and has no medically disquali-
stand that I cannot act as pilot in com- fying conditions in accordance with ap-
mand, or any other capacity as a re- plicable law;
quired flight crew member, if I know or (b) A section with instructions for
have reason to know of any medical the individual to provide the completed
condition that would make me unable checklist to the State-licensed physi-
to operate the aircraft in a safe man- cian performing the comprehensive
ner.’’. medical examination required under
§ 68.5; and
§ 68.5 Comprehensive medical exam- (c) A section, for the physician to
ination. complete, that instructs the physi-
(a) Prior to the medical examination cian—
required by § 61.23(c)(3) of this chapter, (1) To perform a clinical examination

an individual must— of—
692
(i) Head, face, neck, and scalp; this checklist with the individual dur-
(ii) Nose, sinuses, mouth, and throat; ing my examination, discussed any
(iii) Ears, general (internal and ex- medications the individual is taking
ternal canals), and eardrums (perfora- that could interfere with his or her
tion); ability to safely operate an aircraft or
(iv) Eyes (general), ophthalmoscopic, motor vehicle, and performed an exam-
pupils (equality and reaction), and ocu- ination that included all of the items
lar motility (associated parallel move- on this checklist. I certify that I am
ment, nystagmus); not aware of any medical condition
(v) Lungs and chest (not including that, as presently treated, could inter-
breast examination); fere with the individual’s ability to
(vi) Heart (precordial activity, safely operate an aircraft.’’; and
rhythm, sounds, and murmurs); (5) To provide the date the com-
(vii) Vascular system (pulse, ampli- prehensive medical examination was
tude, and character, and arms, legs, completed, and the physician’s full
and others); name, address, telephone number, and
(viii) Abdomen and viscera (including State medical license number.
hernia);
(ix) Anus (not including digital ex- § 68.9 Special Issuance process.
amination);
(x) Skin; (a) General. An individual who has
(xi) G–U system (not including pelvic met the qualifications to operate an
examination); aircraft under § 61.113(i) of this chapter
(xii) Upper and lower extremities and is seeking to serve as a pilot in
(strength and range of motion); command under that section must have
(xiii) Spine and other musculo- completed the process for obtaining an
skeletal; Authorization for Special Issuance of a
(xiv) Identifying body marks, scars, Medical Certificate for each of the fol-
and tattoos (size and location); lowing:
(xv) Lymphatics; (1) A mental health disorder, limited
(xvi) Neurologic (tendon reflexes, to an established medical history or
equilibrium, senses, cranial nerves, and clinical diagnosis of—
coordination, etc.); (i) A personality disorder that is se-
(xvii) Psychiatric (appearance, be- vere enough to have repeatedly mani-
havior, mood, communication, and fested itself by overt acts;
memory); (ii) A psychosis, defined as a case in
(xviii) General systemic; which an individual—
(xix) Hearing; (A) Has manifested delusions, hallu-
(xx) Vision (distant, near, and inter- cinations, grossly bizarre or disorga-
mediate vision, field of vision, color vi- nized behavior, or other commonly ac-
sion, and ocular alignment); cepted symptoms of psychosis; or
(xxi) Blood pressure and pulse; and (B) May reasonably be expected to
(xxii) Anything else the physician, in
manifest delusions, hallucinations,
his or her medical judgment, considers
grossly bizarre or disorganized behav-
necessary;
ior, or other commonly accepted symp-
(2) To exercise medical discretion to
toms of psychosis;
address, as medically appropriate, any
medical conditions identified, and to (iii) A bipolar disorder; or
exercise medical discretion in deter- (iv) A substance dependence within
mining whether any medical tests are the previous 2 years, as defined in
warranted as part of the comprehensive § 67.307(a)(4) of this chapter.
medical examination; (2) A neurological disorder, limited
(3) To discuss all drugs the individual to an established medical history or
reports taking (prescription and non- clinical diagnosis of any of the fol-
prescription) and their potential to lowing:
interfere with the safe operation of an (i) Epilepsy;
aircraft or motor vehicle; (ii) Disturbance of consciousness
(4) To sign the checklist, stating: ‘‘I without satisfactory medical expla-
certify that I discussed all items on nation of the cause; or
693
§ 68.11 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(iii) A transient loss of control of (d) Special rule for neurological condi-
nervous system functions without sat- tions. (1) In the case of an individual
isfactory medical explanation of the with a clinically diagnosed neuro-
cause. logical condition, the ability to oper-
(3) A cardiovascular condition, lim- ate an aircraft under § 61.113(i) of this
ited to a one-time special issuance for chapter shall not apply if—
each diagnosis of the following: (i) In the judgment of the individual’s
(i) Myocardial infarction; State-licensed medical specialist, the
(ii) Coronary heart disease that has condition—
required treatment; (A) Renders the individual unable to
(iii) Cardiac valve replacement; or safely perform the duties or exercise
(iv) Heart replacement. the airman privileges required to oper-
ate an aircraft under § 61.113(i) of this
(b) Special rule for cardiovascular con-
chapter; or
ditions. In the case of an individual
(B) May reasonably be expected to
with a cardiovascular condition, the
make the individual unable to perform
process for obtaining an Authorization
the duties or exercise the privileges re-
for Special Issuance of a Medical Cer-
quired to operate an aircraft under
tificate shall be satisfied with the suc-
§ 61.113(i) of this chapter; or
cessful completion of an appropriate
(ii) The individual’s driver’s license
clinical evaluation without a manda-
is revoked by the issuing agency as a
tory wait period.
result of a clinically diagnosed neuro-
(c) Special rule for mental health condi- logical condition.
tions. (1) In the case of an individual (2) Subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this
with a clinically diagnosed mental section, an individual clinically diag-
health condition, the ability to operate nosed with a neurological condition
an aircraft under § 61.113(i) of this chap- shall certify every 2 years, in conjunc-
ter shall not apply if— tion with the certification under
(i) In the judgment of the individual’s § 68.3(b)(3), that the individual is under
State-licensed medical specialist, the the care of a State-licensed medical
condition— specialist for that neurological condi-
(A) Renders the individual unable to tion.
safely perform the duties or exercise
the airman privileges required to oper- § 68.11 Authority to require additional
ate an aircraft under § 61.113(i) of this information.
chapter; or (a) If the Administrator receives
(B) May reasonably be expected to credible or urgent information, includ-
make the individual unable to perform ing from the National Driver Register
the duties or exercise the privileges re- or the Administrator’s Safety Hotline,
quired to operate an aircraft under that reflects on an individual’s ability
§ 61.113(i) of this chapter; or to safely operate an aircraft under
(ii) The individual’s driver’s license § 61.113(i) of this chapter, the Adminis-
is revoked by the issuing agency as a trator may require the individual to
result of a clinically diagnosed mental provide additional information or his-
health condition. tory so that the Administrator may de-
(2) Subject to paragraph (c)(1) of this termine whether the individual is safe
section, an individual clinically diag- to continue operating under that sec-
nosed with a mental health condition tion.
shall certify every 2 years, in conjunc- (b) The Administrator may use cred-
tion with the certification under ible or urgent information received
§ 68.3(b)(3), that the individual is under under paragraph (a) to request an indi-
the care of a State-licensed medical vidual to provide additional informa-
specialist for that mental health condition or to take actions under 49 U.S.C.
tion. 44709(b).
694
SUBCHAPTER E—AIRSPACE
PART 71—DESIGNATION OF CLASS routes; and reporting points can be

A, B, C, D, AND E AIRSPACE found in FAA Order 7400.11E, Airspace
AREAS; AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE Designations and Reporting Points,
ROUTES; AND REPORTING dated July 21, 2020. This incorporation
by reference was approved by the Di-
POINTS rector of the Federal Register in ac-
Sec. cordance with 5 U.S.C. 552 (a) and 1
CFR part 51. The approval to incor-
97 [NOTE] porate by reference FAA Order 7400.11E
71.1 Applicability. is effective September 15, 2020, through
71.3 [Reserved] September 15, 2021. During the incorpo-
71.5 Reporting points. ration by reference period, proposed
71.7 Bearings, radials, and mileages.
71.9 Overlapping airspace designations.
changes to the listings of Class A, B, C,
71.11 Air Traffic Service (ATS) routes. D, and E airspace areas; air traffic
71.13 Classification of Air Traffic Service service routes; and reporting points
(ATS) routes. will be published in full text as pro-
71.15 Designation of jet routes and VOR posed rule documents in the FEDERAL
Federal airways.
REGISTER. Amendments to the listings
Subpart A—Class A Airspace of Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace
areas; air traffic service routes; and re-
71.31 Class A airspace. porting points will be published in full
71.33 Class A airspace areas.
text as final rules in the FEDERAL REG-
Subpart B—Class B Airspace ISTER. Periodically, the final rule
amendments will be integrated into a
71.41 Class B airspace. revised edition of the Order and sub-
Subpart C—Class C Airspace mitted to the Director of the Federal
Register for approval for incorporation
71.51 Class C airspace. by reference in this section. Copies of
FAA Order 7400.11E may be obtained
Subpart D—Class D Airspace
from Airspace Policy Group, Federal
71.61 Class D airspace. Aviation Administration, 800 Independ-
ence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591,
Subpart E—Class E Airspace (202) 267–8783. An electronic version of
71.71 Class E airspace. the Order is available on the FAA
website at http://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/
Subparts F–G [Reserved] publications. Copies of FAA Order
7400.11E may be inspected in Docket
Subpart H—Reporting Points
No. FAA–2020–0702; Amendment No. 71–
71.901 Applicability. 52, on http://www.regulations.gov. A copy
AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, of FAA Order 7400.11E may be inspected
40113, 40120, E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, at the National Archives and Records
1959–1963 Comp., p. 389. Administration (NARA). For informa-
SOURCE: Amdt. 71–14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, tion on the availability of FAA Order
1991, unless otherwise noted. 7400.11E at NARA, email:
fedreg.legal@nara.gov or go to https://
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-
NO. 97 locations.html.
EDITORIAL NOTE: For the text of SFAR No. [Docket No. FAA–2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85
97, see part 91 of this chapter. FR 50780, Aug. 18, 2020]
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Docket FAA–
§ 71.1 Applicability.
2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18,

A listing for Class A, B, C, D, and E 2020, § 71.1 was revised, effective Sept. 15,
airspace areas; air traffic service 2020, through Sept. 15, 2021.
695
§ 71.3 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
§ 71.3 [Reserved] (4) Class D airspace is more restric-

tive than Class E or Class G airspace;
§ 71.5 Reporting points. and
The reporting points listed in subpart (5) Class E is more restrictive than
H of FAA Order 7400.11E(incorporated Class G airspace.
by reference, see § 71.1) consist of geo-
graphic locations at which the position § 71.11 Air Traffic Service (ATS)
of an aircraft must be reported in ac- routes.
cordance with part 91 of this chapter. Unless otherwise specified, the fol-
[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as lowing apply:
amended by Amdt. 71–40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, (a) An Air Traffic Service (ATS)
2008; Amdt. 71–41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; route is based on a centerline that ex-
Amdt. 71–42, 75 FR 55268, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt.
tends from one navigation aid, fix, or
71–43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71–44,
77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71–45, 78 FR intersection, to another navigation aid,
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71–46, 79 FR 51888, fix, or intersection (or through several
Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71–47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. navigation aids, fixes, or intersections)
27, 2015; Docket FAA–2016–8926, Amdt. 71–48, specified for that route.
81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Docket FAA–2017–
(b) An ATS route does not include
0798, Amdt. 71–49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017;
Docket FAA–2018–0770, Amdt. 71–50, 83 FR the airspace of a prohibited area.
43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Docket FAA–2019–0627, [Doc. No. FAA–2003–14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8,
Amdt. 71–51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Dock- 2003, as amended by Amdt. 71–33, 70 FR 23004,
et FAA–2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, May 3, 2005]
Aug. 18, 2020]
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Docket FAA– § 71.13 Classification of Air Traffic
2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, Service (ATS) routes.
2020, § 71.5 was amended by removing the
words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11D’’ and adding, in Unless otherwise specified, ATS
their place, the words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11E’’, routes are classified as follows:
effective Sept. 15, 2020, through Sept. 15, 2021. (a) In subpart A of this part:
(1) Jet routes.
§ 71.7 Bearings, radials, and mileages.
(2) Area navigation (RNAV) routes.
All bearings and radials in this part (b) In subpart E of this part:
are true and are applied from point of
(1) VOR Federal airways.
origin and all mileages in this part are
stated as nautical miles. (2) Colored Federal airways.
(i) Green Federal airways.
§ 71.9 Overlapping airspace designa- (ii) Amber Federal airways.
tions. (iii) Red Federal airways.
(a) When overlapping airspace des- (iv) Blue Federal airways.
ignations apply to the same airspace, (3) Area navigation (RNAV) routes.
the operating rules associated with the
more restrictive airspace designation [Doc. No. FAA–2003–14698, 68 FR 16947, Apr. 8,
apply. 2003]
(b) For the purpose of this section—
§ 71.15 Designation of jet routes and
(1) Class A airspace is more restric- VOR Federal airways.
tive than Class B, Class C, Class D,
Class E, or Class G airspace; Unless otherwise specified, the place
(2) Class B airspace is more restric- names appearing in the descriptions of
tive than Class C, Class D, Class E, or airspace areas designated as jet routes
Class G airspace; in subpart A of FAA Order 7400.11E, and
(3) Class C airspace is more restric- as VOR Federal airways in subpart E of
tive than Class D, Class E, or Class G FAA Order 7400.11E, are the names of
airspace; VOR or VORTAC navigation aids. FAA
696
Order 7400.11E is incorporated by ref- § 71.33 Class A airspace areas.

erence in § 71.1.
(a) That airspace of the United
[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as States, including that airspace over-
amended by Amdt. 71–40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, lying the waters within 12 nautical
2008; Amdt. 71–41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous
Amdt. 71–42, 75 FR 55268, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. States, from 18,000 feet MSL to and in-
71–43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71–44,
cluding FL600 excluding the states of
77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71–45, 78 FR
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71–46, 79 FR 51888, Alaska and Hawaii.
Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71–47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. (b) That airspace of the State of
27, 2015; Docket FAA–2016–8926, Amdt. 71–48, Alaska, including that airspace over-
81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Docket FAA–2017– lying the waters within 12 nautical
0798, Amdt. 71–49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; miles of the coast, from 18,000 feet MSL
Docket FAA–2018–0770, Amdt. 71–50, 83 FR to and including FL600 but not includ-
43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Docket FAA–2019–0627, ing the airspace less than 1,500 feet
Amdt. 71–51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Dock-
above the surface of the earth and the
et FAA–2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780,
Aug. 18, 2020] Alaska Peninsula west of longitude
160°00′00″ West.
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Docket FAA– (c) The airspace areas listed as off-
2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18,
shore airspace areas in subpart A of
words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11D’’ and adding, in FAA Order 7400.11E (incorporated by
their place, the words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11E.’’, reference, see § 71.1) that are designated
effective Sept. 15, 2020, through Sept. 15, 2021. in international airspace within areas
of domestic radio navigational signal
Subpart A—Class A Airspace or ATC radar coverage, and within
which domestic ATC procedures are ap-
§ 71.31 Class A airspace. plied.
The airspace descriptions contained [Amdt. 71–14, 56 FR 65654, Dec. 17, 1991]
in § 71.33 and the routes contained in EDITORIAL NOTE: For FEDERAL REGISTER ci-
subpart A of FAA Order 7400.11E (incor- tations affecting § 71.33, see the List of CFR
porated by reference, see § 71.1) are des- Sections Affected, which appears in the
ignated as Class A airspace within Finding Aids section of the printed volume
which all pilots and aircraft are subject and at www.govinfo.gov.
to the rating requirements, operating EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Docket FAA–
rules, and equipment requirements of 2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18,
part 91 of this chapter. 2020, § 71.33(c) was amended by removing the
words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11D’’ and adding, in
[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as
their place, the words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11E’’,
amended by Amdt. 71–40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15,
effective Sept. 15, 2020, through Sept. 15, 2021.
2008; Amdt. 71–41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009;
Amdt. 71–42, 75 FR 55268, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt.
71–43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71–44, Subpart B—Class B Airspace
77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71–45, 78 FR
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71–46, 79 FR 51888, § 71.41 Class B airspace.
Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71–47, 80 FR 51937, Aug.
27, 2015; Docket FAA–2016–8926, Amdt. 71–48,
The Class B airspace areas listed in
81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Docket FAA–2017– subpart B of FAA Order 7400.11E (incor-
0798, Amdt. 71–49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; porated by reference, see § 71.1) consist
Docket FAA–2018–0770, Amdt. 71–50, 83 FR of specified airspace within which all
43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Docket FAA–2019–0627, aircraft operators are subject to the
Amdt. 71–51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Dock- minimum pilot qualification require-
et FAA–2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, ments, operating rules, and aircraft
Aug. 18, 2020]
equipment requirements of part 91 of
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Docket FAA– this chapter. Each Class B airspace
2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, area designated for an airport in sub-
2020, § 71.31 was amended by removing the part B of FAA Order 7400.11E (incor-

porated by reference, see § 71.1) con-
their place, the words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11E’’,
effective Sept. 15, 2020, through Sept. 15, 2021.
tains at least one primary airport
697
§ 71.51 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
around which the airspace is des- their place, the words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11E’’,
ignated. effective Sept. 15, 2020, through Sept. 15, 2021.
[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as

amended by Amdt. 71–40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, Subpart D—Class D Airspace
2008; Amdt. 71–41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009;
Amdt. 71–42, 75 FR 55268, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. § 71.61 Class D airspace.
71–43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71–44, The Class D airspace areas listed in
77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71–45, 78 FR subpart D of FAA Order 7400.11E (incor-
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71–46, 79 FR 51888,
porated by reference, see § 71.1) consist
Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71–47, 80 FR 51937, Aug.
27, 2015; Docket FAA–2016–8926, Amdt. 71–48, of specified airspace within which all
81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Docket FAA–2017– aircraft operators are subject to oper-
0798, Amdt. 71–49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017; ating rules and equipment require-
Docket FAA–2018–0770, Amdt. 71–50, 83 FR ments specified in part 91 of this chap-
43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Docket FAA–2019–0627, ter. Each Class D airspace area des-
Amdt. 71–51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Dock- ignated for an airport in subpart D of
et FAA–2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780,
FAA Order 7400.11E (incorporated by
Aug. 18, 2020]
reference, see § 71.1) contains at least
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Docket FAA– one primary airport around which the
2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, airspace is designated.
words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11D’’ and adding, in [Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as
their place, the words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11E’’, amended by Amdt. 71–40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15,
effective Sept. 15, 2020, through Sept. 15, 2021. 2008; Amdt. 71–41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009;
Amdt. 71–42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt.
Subpart C—Class C Airspace 71–43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71–44,
77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71–45, 78 FR
§ 71.51 Class C airspace. 52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71–46, 79 FR 51888,
Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71–47, 80 FR 51937, Aug.
The Class C airspace areas listed in 27, 2015; Docket FAA–2016–8926, Amdt. 71–48,
subpart C of FAA Order 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Docket FAA–2017–
7400.11DE(incorporated by reference, 0798, Amdt. 71–49, 82 FR 40069, Aug. 24, 2017;
see § 71.1) consist of specified airspace Docket FAA–2018–0770, Amdt. 71–50, 83 FR
within which all aircraft operators are 43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Docket FAA–2019–0627,
subject to operating rules and equip- Amdt. 71–51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Dock-
et FAA–2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780,
ment requirements specified in part 91 Aug. 18, 2020]
of this chapter. Each Class C airspace
area designated for an airport in sub- EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Docket FAA–
part C of FAA Order 7400.11E (incor- 2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18,
porated by reference, see § 71.1) con-
tains at least one primary airport their place, the words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11E’’,
around which the airspace is des- effective Sept. 15, 2020, through Sept. 15, 2021.
ignated.
[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as Subpart E—Class E Airspace
2008; Amdt. 71–41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; § 71.71 Class E airspace.
Amdt. 71–42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt.
71–43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71–44, Class E Airspace consists of:
77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71–45, 78 FR (a) The airspace of the United States,
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71–46, 79 FR 51888, including that airspace overlying the
Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71–47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. waters within 12 nautical miles of the
27, 2015; Docket FAA–2016–8926, Amdt. 71–48, coast of the 48 contiguous states and
81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Docket FAA–2017– Alaska, extending upward from 14,500
0798, Amdt. 71–49, 82 FR 40068, Aug. 24, 2017;
feet MSL up to, but not including 18,000
43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Docket FAA–2019–0627, feet MSL, and the airspace above
Amdt. 71–51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Dock- FL600, excluding—
et FAA–2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, (1) The Alaska peninsula west of lon-
Aug. 18, 2020] gitude 160°00′00″ W.; and
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Docket FAA– (2) The airspace below 1,500 feet
above the surface of the earth.
2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18,

2020, § 71.51 was amended by removing the (b) The airspace areas designated for
words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11D’’ and adding, in an airport in subpart E of FAA Order
698
7400.11E (incorporated by reference, see plied. Unless otherwise specified, each

§ 71.1) within which all aircraft opera- airspace area extends upward from a
tors are subject to the operating rules specified altitude up to, but not includ-
specified in part 91 of this chapter. ing, 18,000 feet MSL.
(c) The airspace areas listed as do-
[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as
mestic airspace areas in subpart E of
FAA Order 7400.11E (incorporated by 2008; Amdt. 71–41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009;
reference, see § 71.1) which extend up- Amdt. 71–42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt.
ward from 700 feet or more above the 71–43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71–44,
surface of the earth when designated in 77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71–45, 78 FR
conjunction with an airport for which 52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71–46, 79 FR 51888,
an approved instrument approach pro- Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71–47, 80 FR 51937, Aug.
cedure has been prescribed, or from 27, 2015; Docket FAA–2016–8926, Amdt. 71–48,
1,200 feet or more above the surface of 81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Docket FAA–2017–
0798, Amdt. 71–49, 82 FR 40069, Aug. 24, 2017;
the earth for the purpose of
transitioning to or from the terminal 43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Docket FAA–2019–0627,
or en route environment. When such Amdt. 71–51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Dock-
areas are designated in conjunction et FAA–2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780,
with airways or routes, the extent of Aug. 18, 2020]
such designation has the lateral extent
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Docket FAA–
identical to that of a Federal airway 2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18,
and extends upward from 1,200 feet or 2020, paragraphs (b) through (f) of § 71.71 were
higher. Unless otherwise specified, the amended by removing the words ‘‘FAA Order
airspace areas in the paragraph extend 7400.11D’’ and adding, in their place, the
upward from 1,200 feet or higher above words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11E’’, effective Sept.
the surface to, but not including, 14,500 15, 2020, through Sept. 15, 2021.
feet MSL.
(d) The Federal airways described in Subparts F–G [Reserved]
subpart E of FAA Order 7400.11E (incor-
porated by reference, see § 71.1).
(e) The airspace areas listed as en
Subpart H—Reporting Points
route domestic airspace areas in sub- § 71.901 Applicability.
part E of FAA Order 7400.11E (incor-
porated by reference, see § 71.1). Unless Unless otherwise designated:
otherwise specified, each airspace area (a) Each reporting point listed in sub-
has a lateral extent identical to that of part H of FAA Order 7400.11E (incor-
a Federal airway and extends upward porated by reference, see § 71.1) applies
from 1,200 feet above the surface of the to all directions of flight. In any case
earth to the overlying or adjacent con- where a geographic location is des-
trolled airspace. ignated as a reporting point for less
(f) The airspace areas listed as off- than all airways passing through that
shore airspace areas in subpart E of point, or for a particular direction of
FAA Order 7400.11E (incorporated by flight along an airway only, it is so in-
reference, see § 71.1) that are designated dicated by including the airways or di-
in international airspace within areas rection of flight in the designation of
of domestic radio navigational signal geographical location.
or ATC radar coverage, and within (b) Place names appearing in the re-
which domestic ATC procedures are ap- porting point descriptions indicate
699
VOR or VORTAC facilities identified § 73.3 Special use airspace.

by those names. (a) Special use airspace consists of
[Doc. No. 29334, 73 FR 54495, Sept. 22, 2008, as airspace of defined dimensions identi-
amended by Amdt. 71–40, 73 FR 60940, Oct. 15, fied by an area on the surface of the
2008; Amdt. 71–41, 74 FR 46490, Sept. 10, 2009; earth wherein activities must be con-
Amdt. 71–42, 75 FR 55269, Sept. 10, 2010; Amdt. fined because of their nature, or where-
71–43, 76 FR 53329, Aug. 26, 2011; Amdt. 71–44,
in limitations are imposed upon air-
77 FR 50908, Aug. 23, 2012; Amdt. 71–45, 78 FR
52848, Aug. 27, 2013; Amdt. 71–46, 79 FR 51888, craft operations that are not a part of
Sept. 2, 2014; Amdt. 71–47, 80 FR 51937, Aug. those activities, or both.
27, 2015; Docket FAA–2016–8926, Amdt. 71–48, (b) The vertical limits of special use
81 FR 55372, Aug. 19, 2016; Docket FAA–2017– airspace are measured by designated
0798, Amdt. 71–49, 82 FR 40069, Aug. 24, 2017; altitude floors and ceilings expressed
Docket FAA–2018–0770, Amdt. 71–50, 83 FR as flight levels or as feet above mean
43757, Aug. 28, 2018; Docket FAA–2019–0627, sea level. Unless otherwise specified,
Amdt. 71–51, 84 FR 45652, Aug. 30, 2019; Dock-
the word ‘‘to’’ (an altitude or flight
et FAA–2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780,
Aug. 18, 2020] level) means ‘‘to and including’’ (that
altitude or flight level).
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Docket FAA– (c) The horizontal limits of special
2020–0702, Amdt. 71–52, 85 FR 50780, Aug. 18, use airspace are measured by bound-
2020, in § 71.901, paragraph (a) was amended
by removing the words ‘‘FAA Order 7400.11D’’
aries described by geographic coordi-
and adding, in their place, the words ‘‘FAA nates or other appropriate references
Order 7400.11E’’, effective Sept. 15, 2020, that clearly define their perimeter.
through Sept. 15, 2021. (d) The period of time during which a
designation of special use airspace is in
PART 73—SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE effect is stated in the designation.
§ 73.5 Bearings; radials; miles.
Subpart A—General
(a) All bearings and radials in this
Sec. part are true from point of origin.
73.1 Applicability. (b) Unless otherwise specified, all
73.3 Special use airspace. mileages in this part are stated as stat-
73.5 Bearings; radials; miles.
ute miles.
Subpart B—Restricted Areas
Subpart B—Restricted Areas
73.13 Restrictions. § 73.11 Applicability.
73.15 Using agency.
73.17 Controlling agency.
This subpart designates restricted
73.19 Reports by using agency. areas and prescribes limitations on the
operation of aircraft within them.
Subpart C—Prohibited Areas
§ 73.13 Restrictions.
No person may operate an aircraft
73.83 Restrictions.
73.85 Using agency. within a restricted area between the
designated altitudes and during the
AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, time of designation, unless he has the
40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, advance permission of
1959–1963 Comp., p. 389.
(a) The using agency described in
SOURCE: 46 FR 779, Jan. 2, 1981, unless oth- § 73.15; or
erwise noted. (b) The controlling agency described
in § 73.17.
Subpart A—General
§ 73.15 Using agency.
§ 73.1 Applicability. (a) For the purposes of this subpart,
The airspace that is described in sub- the following are using agencies;
part B and subpart C of this part is des- (1) The agency, organization, or mili-
ignated as special use airspace. These tary command whose activity within a
parts prescribe the requirements for restricted area necessitated the area
the use of that airspace. being so designated.
700
(b) Upon the request of the FAA, the (3) State the number of hours daily,
using agency shall execute a letter es- the days of the week, and the number
tablishing procedures for joint use of a of weeks during the year that the area
restricted area by the using agency and was used.
the controlling agency, under which (4) For restricted areas having a
the using agency would notify the con- joint-use designation, also state the
trolling agency whenever the control- number of hours daily, the days of the
ling agency may grant permission for week, and the number of weeks during
transit through the restricted area in the year that the restricted area was
accordance with the terms of the let- released to the controlling agency for
ter. public use.
(c) The using agency shall— (5) State the mean sea level altitudes
(1) Schedule activities within the re- or flight levels (whichever is appro-
stricted area; priate) used in aircraft operations and
(2) Authorize transit through, or the maximum and average ordinate of
flight within, the restricted area as surface firing (expressed in feet, mean
feasible; and sea level altitude) used on a daily,
(3) Contain within the restricted area weekly, and yearly basis.
all activities conducted therein in ac- (6) Include a chart of the area (of op-
cordance with the purpose for which it tional scale and design) depicting, if
was designated. used, aircraft operating areas, flight
patterns, ordnance delivery areas, sur-
§ 73.17 Controlling agency. face firing points, and target, fan, and
impact areas. After once submitting an
For the purposes of this part, the appropriate chart, subsequent annual
controlling agency is the FAA facility charts are not required unless there is
that may authorize transit through or a change in the area, activity or alti-
flight within a restricted area in ac- tude (or flight levels) used, which
cordance with a joint-use letter issued might alter the depiction of the activi-
under § 73.15. ties originally reported. If no change is
to be submitted, a statement indi-
§ 73.19 Reports by using agency.
cating ‘‘no change’’ shall be included in
(a) Each using agency shall prepare a the report.
report on the use of each restricted (7) Include any other information not
area assigned thereto during any part otherwise required under this part
of the preceding 12-month period ended which is considered pertinent to activi-
September 30, and transmit it by the ties carried on in the restricted area.
following January 31 of each year to (c) If it is determined that the infor-
the Manager, Air Traffic Division in mation submitted under paragraph (b)
the regional office of the Federal Avia- of this section is not sufficient to
tion Administration having jurisdic- evaluate the nature and extent of the
tion over the area in which the re- use of a restricted area, the FAA may
stricted area is located, with a copy to request the using agency to submit
the Program Director for Air Traffic supplementary reports. Within 60 days
Airspace Management, Federal Avia- after receiving a request for additional
tion Administration, Washington, DC information, the using agency shall
20591. submit such information as the Pro-
(b) In the report under this section gram Director for Air Traffic Airspace
the using agency shall: Management considers appropriate.
(1) State the name and number of the Supplementary reports must be sent to
restricted area as published in this the FAA officials designated in para-
part, and the period covered by the re- graph (a) of this section.
port. (Secs. 307 and 313(a), Federal Aviation Act of
(2) State the activities (including av- 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1348 and 1354(a)))
erage daily number of operations if ap-
[Doc. No. 15379, 42 FR 54798, Oct. 11, 1977, as
propriate) conducted in the area, and amended by Amdt. 73–5, 54 FR 39292, Sept. 25,
any other pertinent information con-
1989; Amdt. 73–6, 58 FR 42001, Aug. 6, 1993;

cerning current and future electronic Amdt. 73–8, 61 FR 26435, May 28, 1996; Amdt.
monitoring devices. 73–8, 63 FR 16890, Apr. 7, 1998]
701
§ 73.81 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
EDITORIAL NOTE: The restricted areas for- 77.15 Scope.
merly carried as §§ 608.21 to 608.72 of this title 77.17 Obstruction standards.
were transferred to part 73 as §§ 73.21 to 73.72 77.19 Civil airport imaginary surfaces.
under subpart B but are not carried in the 77.21 Department of Defense (DOD) airport
Code of Federal Regulations. For FEDERAL imaginary surfaces.
REGISTER citations affecting these restricted 77.23 Heliport imaginary surfaces.
areas, see the List of CFR Sections Affected,
which appears in the Finding Aids section of Subpart D—Aeronautical Studies and
the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov. Determinations
Subpart C—Prohibited Areas 77.27 Initiation of studies.
77.29 Evaluating aeronautical effect.
77.31 Determinations.
This subpart designates prohibited 77.33 Effective period of determinations.
areas and prescribes limitations on the 77.35 Extensions, terminations, revisions
operation of aircraft therein. and corrections.
§ 73.83 Restrictions. Subpart E—Petitions for Discretionary

Review
No person may operate an aircraft
within a prohibited area unless author- 77.37 General.
ization has been granted by the using 77.39 Contents of a petition.
agency. 77.41 Discretionary review results.
AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106 (g), 40103, 40113–
§ 73.85 Using agency. 40114, 44502, 44701, 44718, 46101–46102, 46104.
For the purpose of this subpart, the SOURCE: Docket No. FAA–2006–25002, 75 FR
using agency is the agency, organiza- 42303, July 21, 2010, unless otherwise noted.
tion or military command that estab-
lished the requirements for the prohib-
ited area.
Subpart A—General
EDITORIAL NOTE: Sections 73.87 through § 77.1 Purpose.
73.99 are reserved for descriptions of des- This part establishes:
ignated prohibited areas. For FEDERAL REG- (a) The requirements to provide no-
ISTER citations affecting these prohibited
areas, see the List of CFR Sections Affected,
tice to the FAA of certain proposed
which appears in the Finding Aids section of construction, or the alteration of exist-
the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov. ing structures;
(b) The standards used to determine
PART 75 [RESERVED] obstructions to air navigation, and
navigational and communication fa-
cilities;
PART 77—SAFE, EFFICIENT USE, (c) The process for aeronautical stud-
AND PRESERVATION OF THE ies of obstructions to air navigation or
NAVIGABLE AIRSPACE navigational facilities to determine the
effect on the safe and efficient use of
Subpart A—General navigable airspace, air navigation fa-
Sec. cilities or equipment; and
77.1 Purpose. (d) The process to petition the FAA
77.3 Definitions. for discretionary review of determina-
tions, revisions, and extensions of de-
Subpart B—Notice Requirements terminations.
77.5 Applicability.
77.7 Form and time of notice.
§ 77.3 Definitions.
77.9 Construction or alteration requiring For the purpose of this part:
notice. Non-precision instrument runway
77.11 Supplemental notice requirements. means a runway having an existing in-
strument approach procedure utilizing
Subpart C—Standards for Determining Ob-
air navigation facilities with only hori-
structions to Air Navigation or Naviga-
zontal guidance, or area type naviga-
tional Aids or Facilities

tion equipment, for which a straight-in
77.13 Applicability. non-precision instrument approach
702
procedure has been approved, or submitted to the FAA by competent

planned, and for which no precision ap- authority.
proach facilities are planned, or indi-
cated on an FAA planning document or Subpart B—Notice Requirements
military service military airport plan-
ning document. § 77.5 Applicability.
Planned or proposed airport is an air-
(a) If you propose any construction
port that is the subject of at least one
or alteration described in § 77.9, you
of the following documents received by
must provide adequate notice to the
the FAA:
FAA of that construction or alteration.
(1) Airport proposals submitted under
(b) If requested by the FAA, you
14 CFR part 157.
must also file supplemental notice be-
(2) Airport Improvement Program re-
fore the start date and upon comple-
quests for aid.
tion of certain construction or alter-
(3) Notices of existing airports where
ations that are described in § 77.9.
prior notice of the airport construction
(c) Notice received by the FAA under
or alteration was not provided as re-
this subpart is used to:
quired by 14 CFR part 157.
(4) Airport layout plans. (1) Evaluate the effect of the pro-
(5) DOD proposals for airports used posed construction or alteration on
only by the U.S. Armed Forces. safety in air commerce and the effi-
(6) DOD proposals on joint-use (civil- cient use and preservation of the navi-
military) airports. gable airspace and of airport traffic ca-
(7) Completed airport site selection pacity at public use airports;
feasibility study. (2) Determine whether the effect of
Precision instrument runway means a proposed construction or alteration is
runway having an existing instrument a hazard to air navigation;
approach procedure utilizing an Instru- (3) Determine appropriate marking
ment Landing System (ILS), or a Pre- and lighting recommendations, using
cision Approach Radar (PAR). It also FAA Advisory Circular 70/7460–1, Ob-
means a runway for which a precision struction Marking and Lighting;
approach system is planned and is so (4) Determine other appropriate
indicated by an FAA-approved airport measures to be applied for continued
layout plan; a military service ap- safety of air navigation; and
proved military airport layout plan; (5) Notify the aviation community of
any other FAA planning document, or the construction or alteration of ob-
military service military airport plan- jects that affect the navigable air-
ning document. space, including the revision of charts,
Public use airport is an airport avail- when necessary.
able for use by the general public with-
out a requirement for prior approval of § 77.7 Form and time of notice.
the airport owner or operator. (a) If you are required to file notice
Seaplane base is considered to be an under § 77.9, you must submit to the
airport only if its sea lanes are out- FAA a completed FAA Form 7460–1,
lined by visual markers. Notice of Proposed Construction or Al-
Utility runway means a runway that teration. FAA Form 7460–1 is available
is constructed for and intended to be at FAA regional offices and on the
used by propeller driven aircraft of Internet.
12,500 pounds maximum gross weight (b) You must submit this form at
and less. least 45 days before the start date of
Visual runway means a runway in- the proposed construction or alteration
tended solely for the operation of air- or the date an application for a con-
craft using visual approach procedures, struction permit is filed, whichever is
with no straight-in instrument ap- earliest.
proach procedure and no instrument (c) If you propose construction or al-
designation indicated on an FAA-ap- teration that is also subject to the li-
proved airport layout plan, a military censing requirements of the Federal
service approved military airport lay- Communications Commission (FCC),

out plan, or by any planning document you must submit notice to the FAA on
703
§ 77.9 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
or before the date that the application (c) Any highway, railroad, or other
is filed with the FCC. traverse way for mobile objects, of a
(d) If you propose construction or al- height which, if adjusted upward 17 feet
teration to an existing structure that for an Interstate Highway that is part
exceeds 2,000 ft. in height above ground of the National System of Military and
level (AGL), the FAA presumes it to be Interstate Highways where over-
a hazard to air navigation that results crossings are designed for a minimum
in an inefficient use of airspace. You of 17 feet vertical distance, 15 feet for
must include details explaining both any other public roadway, 10 feet or
why the proposal would not constitute the height of the highest mobile object
a hazard to air navigation and why it that would normally traverse the road,
would not cause an inefficient use of whichever is greater, for a private
airspace. road, 23 feet for a railroad, and for a
(e) The 45-day advance notice re- waterway or any other traverse way
quirement is waived if immediate con- not previously mentioned, an amount
struction or alteration is required be- equal to the height of the highest mo-
cause of an emergency involving essen- bile object that would normally tra-
tial public services, public health, or verse it, would exceed a standard of
public safety. You may provide notice paragraph (a) or (b) of this section.
to the FAA by any available, expedi- (d) Any construction or alteration on
tious means. You must file a completed any of the following airports and heli-
FAA Form 7460–1 within 5 days of the ports:
initial notice to the FAA. Outside nor- (1) A public use airport listed in the
mal business hours, the nearest flight Airport/Facility Directory, Alaska
service station will accept emergency Supplement, or Pacific Chart Supple-
notices. ment of the U.S. Government Flight
§ 77.9 Construction or alteration re- Information Publications;
quiring notice. (2) A military airport under construc-
tion, or an airport under construction
If requested by the FAA, or if you
that will be available for public use;
propose any of the following types of
(3) An airport operated by a Federal
construction or alteration, you must
agency or the DOD.
file notice with the FAA of:
(a) Any construction or alteration (4) An airport or heliport with at
that is more than 200 ft. AGL at its least one FAA-approved instrument ap-
site. proach procedure.
(b) Any construction or alteration (e) You do not need to file notice for
that exceeds an imaginary surface ex- construction or alteration of:
tending outward and upward at any of (1) Any object that will be shielded
the following slopes: by existing structures of a permanent
(1) 100 to 1 for a horizontal distance and substantial nature or by natural
of 20,000 ft. from the nearest point of terrain or topographic features of equal
the nearest runway of each airport de- or greater height, and will be located
scribed in paragraph (d) of this section in the congested area of a city, town,
with its longest runway more than or settlement where the shielded struc-
3,200 ft. in actual length, excluding hel- ture will not adversely affect safety in
iports. air navigation;
(2) 50 to 1 for a horizontal distance of (2) Any air navigation facility, air-
10,000 ft. from the nearest point of the port visual approach or landing aid,
nearest runway of each airport de- aircraft arresting device, or meteoro-
scribed in paragraph (d) of this section logical device meeting FAA-approved
with its longest runway no more than siting criteria or an appropriate mili-
3,200 ft. in actual length, excluding hel- tary service siting criteria on military
iports. airports, the location and height of
(3) 25 to 1 for a horizontal distance of which are fixed by its functional pur-
5,000 ft. from the nearest point of the pose;
nearest landing and takeoff area of (3) Any construction or alteration for
each heliport described in paragraph which notice is required by any other

(d) of this section. FAA regulation.
704
(4) Any antenna structure of 20 feet navigation that may affect the safe and
or less in height, except one that would efficient use of navigable airspace and
increase the height of another antenna the operation of planned or existing air
structure. navigation and communication facili-
ties. Such facilities include air naviga-
§ 77.11 Supplemental notice require- tion aids, communication equipment,
ments.
airports, Federal airways, instrument
(a) You must file supplemental no- approach or departure procedures, and
tice with the FAA when: approved off-airway routes.
(1) The construction or alteration is (b) Objects that are considered ob-
more than 200 feet in height AGL at its structions under the standards de-
site; or scribed in this subpart are presumed
(2) Requested by the FAA. hazards to air navigation unless fur-
(b) You must file supplemental no- ther aeronautical study concludes that
tice on a prescribed FAA form to be re- the object is not a hazard. Once further
ceived within the time limits specified
aeronautical study has been initiated,
in the FAA determination. If no time
the FAA will use the standards in this
limit has been specified, you must sub-
subpart, along with FAA policy and
mit supplemental notice of construc-
guidance material, to determine if the
tion to the FAA within 5 days after the
structure reaches its greatest height. object is a hazard to air navigation.
(c) If you abandon a construction or (c) The FAA will apply these stand-
alteration proposal that requires sup- ards with reference to an existing air-
plemental notice, you must submit no- port facility, and airport proposals re-
tice to the FAA within 5 days after the ceived by the FAA, or the appropriate
project is abandoned. military service, before it issues a final
(d) If the construction or alteration determination.
is dismantled or destroyed, you must (d) For airports having defined run-
submit notice to the FAA within 5 days ways with specially prepared hard sur-
after the construction or alteration is faces, the primary surface for each run-
dismantled or destroyed. way extends 200 feet beyond each end of
the runway. For airports having de-
Subpart C—Standards for Deter- fined strips or pathways used regularly
mining Obstructions to Air for aircraft takeoffs and landings, and
Navigation or Navigational designated runways, without specially
Aids or Facilities prepared hard surfaces, each end of the
primary surface for each such runway
§ 77.13 Applicability. shall coincide with the corresponding
This subpart describes the standards end of the runway. At airports, exclud-
used for determining obstructions to ing seaplane bases, having a defined
air navigation, navigational aids, or landing and takeoff area with no de-
navigational facilities. These standards fined pathways for aircraft takeoffs
apply to the following: and landings, a determination must be
(a) Any object of natural growth, ter- made as to which portions of the land-
rain, or permanent or temporary con- ing and takeoff area are regularly used
struction or alteration, including as landing and takeoff pathways. Those
equipment or materials used and any determined pathways must be consid-
permanent or temporary apparatus. ered runways, and an appropriate pri-
(b) The alteration of any permanent mary surface as defined in § 77.19 will
or temporary existing structure by a be considered as longitudinally cen-
change in its height, including appur- tered on each such runway. Each end of
tenances, or lateral dimensions, includ- that primary surface must coincide
ing equipment or material used there- with the corresponding end of that run-
in. way.
(e) The standards in this subpart
§ 77.15 Scope. apply to construction or alteration
(a) This subpart describes standards proposals on an airport (including heli-

used to determine obstructions to air ports and seaplane bases with marked
705
§ 77.17 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
lanes) if that airport is one of the fol- off or landing area itself will be consid-
lowing before the issuance of the final ered an obstruction.
determination: (b) Except for traverse ways on or
(1) Available for public use and is near an airport with an operative
listed in the Airport/Facility Direc- ground traffic control service furnished
tory, Supplement Alaska, or Supple- by an airport traffic control tower or
ment Pacific of the U.S. Government by the airport management and coordi-
Flight Information Publications; or nated with the air traffic control serv-
(2) A planned or proposed airport or ice, the standards of paragraph (a) of
an airport under construction of which this section apply to traverse ways
the FAA has received actual notice, ex- used or to be used for the passage of
cept DOD airports, where there is a mobile objects only after the heights of
clear indication the airport will be these traverse ways are increased by:
available for public use; or, (1) 17 feet for an Interstate Highway
(3) An airport operated by a Federal that is part of the National System of
agency or the DOD; or, Military and Interstate Highways
(4) An airport that has at least one where overcrossings are designed for a
FAA-approved instrument approach. minimum of 17 feet vertical distance.
(2) 15 feet for any other public road-
§ 77.17 Obstruction standards. way.
(a) An existing object, including a (3) 10 feet or the height of the highest
mobile object, is, and a future object mobile object that would normally tra-
would be an obstruction to air naviga- verse the road, whichever is greater,
tion if it is of greater height than any for a private road.
of the following heights or surfaces: (4) 23 feet for a railroad.
(1) A height of 499 feet AGL at the (5) For a waterway or any other tra-
site of the object. verse way not previously mentioned,
(2) A height that is 200 feet AGL, or an amount equal to the height of the
above the established airport ele- highest mobile object that would nor-
vation, whichever is higher, within 3 mally traverse it.
nautical miles of the established ref-
erence point of an airport, excluding § 77.19 Civil airport imaginary sur-
faces.
heliports, with its longest runway
more than 3,200 feet in actual length, The following civil airport imaginary
and that height increases in the pro- surfaces are established with relation
portion of 100 feet for each additional to the airport and to each runway. The
nautical mile from the airport up to a size of each such imaginary surface is
maximum of 499 feet. based on the category of each runway
(3) A height within a terminal obsta- according to the type of approach
cle clearance area, including an initial available or planned for that runway.
approach segment, a departure area, The slope and dimensions of the ap-
and a circling approach area, which proach surface applied to each end of a
would result in the vertical distance runway are determined by the most
between any point on the object and an precise approach procedure existing or
established minimum instrument planned for that runway end.
flight altitude within that area or seg- (a) Horizontal surface. A horizontal
ment to be less than the required ob- plane 150 feet above the established air-
stacle clearance. port elevation, the perimeter of which
(4) A height within an en route obsta- is constructed by SW.inging arcs of a
cle clearance area, including turn and specified radii from the center of each
termination areas, of a Federal Airway end of the primary surface of each run-
or approved off-airway route, that way of each airport and connecting the
would increase the minimum obstacle adjacent arcs by lines tangent to those
clearance altitude. arcs. The radius of each arc is:
(5) The surface of a takeoff and land- (1) 5,000 feet for all runways des-
ing area of an airport or any imaginary ignated as utility or visual;
surface established under § 77.19, 77.21, (2) 10,000 feet for all other runways.
or 77.23. However, no part of the take- The radius of the arc specified for each
706
end of a runway will have the same ar- (1) The inner edge of the approach
ithmetical value. That value will be surface is the same width as the pri-
the highest determined for either end mary surface and it expands uniformly
of the runway. When a 5,000-foot arc is to a width of:
encompassed by tangents connecting (i) 1,250 feet for that end of a utility
two adjacent 10,000-foot arcs, the 5,000- runway with only visual approaches;
foot arc shall be disregarded on the (ii) 1,500 feet for that end of a runway
construction of the perimeter of the other than a utility runway with only
horizontal surface. visual approaches;
(b) Conical surface. A surface extend- (iii) 2,000 feet for that end of a utility
ing outward and upward from the pe- runway with a non-precision instru-
riphery of the horizontal surface at a ment approach;
slope of 20 to 1 for a horizontal distance
(iv) 3,500 feet for that end of a non-
of 4,000 feet.
precision instrument runway other
(c) Primary surface. A surface longitu-
than utility, having visibility mini-
dinally centered on a runway. When
mums greater that three-fourths of a
the runway has a specially prepared
hard surface, the primary surface ex- statute mile;
tends 200 feet beyond each end of that (v) 4,000 feet for that end of a non-
runway; but when the runway has no precision instrument runway, other
specially prepared hard surface, the than utility, having a non-precision in-
primary surface ends at each end of strument approach with visibility
that runway. The elevation of any minimums as low as three-fourths stat-
point on the primary surface is the ute mile; and
same as the elevation of the nearest (vi) 16,000 feet for precision instru-
point on the runway centerline. The ment runways.
width of the primary surface is: (2) The approach surface extends for
(1) 250 feet for utility runways having a horizontal distance of:
only visual approaches. (i) 5,000 feet at a slope of 20 to 1 for
(2) 500 feet for utility runways having all utility and visual runways;
non-precision instrument approaches. (ii) 10,000 feet at a slope of 34 to 1 for
(3) For other than utility runways, all non-precision instrument runways
the width is: other than utility; and
(i) 500 feet for visual runways having (iii) 10,000 feet at a slope of 50 to 1
only visual approaches. with an additional 40,000 feet at a slope
(ii) 500 feet for non-precision instru- of 40 to 1 for all precision instrument
ment runways having visibility mini- runways.
mums greater than three-fourths stat- (3) The outer width of an approach
ute mile. surface to an end of a runway will be
(iii) 1,000 feet for a non-precision in- that width prescribed in this sub-
strument runway having a non-preci- section for the most precise approach
sion instrument approach with visi- existing or planned for that runway
bility minimums as low as three-
end.
fourths of a statute mile, and for preci-
sion instrument runways. (e) Transitional surface. These sur-
faces extend outward and upward at
(iv) The width of the primary surface
of a runway will be that width pre- right angles to the runway centerline
scribed in this section for the most pre- and the runway centerline extended at
cise approach existing or planned for a slope of 7 to 1 from the sides of the
either end of that runway. primary surface and from the sides of
(d) Approach surface. A surface longi- the approach surfaces. Transitional
tudinally centered on the extended surfaces for those portions of the preci-
runway centerline and extending out- sion approach surface which project
ward and upward from each end of the through and beyond the limits of the
primary surface. An approach surface conical surface, extend a distance of
is applied to each end of each runway 5,000 feet measured horizontally from
based upon the type of approach avail- the edge of the approach surface and at
able or planned for that runway end. right angles to the runway centerline.
707
§ 77.21 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
§ 77.21 Department of Defense (DOD) ginning. The width of this surface at

airport imaginary surfaces. the runway end is the same as the pri-
(a) Related to airport reference points. mary surface, it flares uniformly, and
These surfaces apply to all military the width at 50,000 is 16,000 feet.
airports. For the purposes of this sec- (4) Transitional surfaces. These sur-
tion, a military airport is any airport faces connect the primary surfaces, the
operated by the DOD. first 200 feet of the clear zone surfaces,
(1) Inner horizontal surface. A plane and the approach clearance surfaces to
that is oval in shape at a height of 150 the inner horizontal surface, conical
feet above the established airfield ele- surface, outer horizontal surface or
vation. The plane is constructed by other transitional surfaces. The slope
scribing an arc with a radius of 7,500 of the transitional surface is 7 to 1 out-
feet about the centerline at the end of ward and upward at right angles to the
each runway and interconnecting these runway centerline.
arcs with tangents.
(2) Conical surface. A surface extend- § 77.23 Heliport imaginary surfaces.
ing from the periphery of the inner (a) Primary surface. The area of the
horizontal surface outward and upward primary surface coincides in size and
at a slope of 20 to 1 for a horizontal dis- shape with the designated take-off and
tance of 7,000 feet to a height of 500 feet landing area. This surface is a hori-
above the established airfield ele- zontal plane at the elevation of the es-
vation. tablished heliport elevation.
(3) Outer horizontal surface. A plane, (b) Approach surface. The approach
located 500 feet above the established surface begins at each end of the heli-
airfield elevation, extending outward port primary surface with the same
from the outer periphery of the conical width as the primary surface, and ex-
surface for a horizontal distance of tends outward and upward for a hori-
30,000 feet. zontal distance of 4,000 feet where its
(b) Related to runways. These surfaces width is 500 feet. The slope of the ap-
apply to all military airports. proach surface is 8 to 1 for civil heli-
(1) Primary surface. A surface located ports and 10 to 1 for military heliports.
on the ground or water longitudinally (c) Transitional surfaces. These sur-
centered on each runway with the same faces extend outward and upward from
length as the runway. The width of the the lateral boundaries of the primary
primary surface for runways is 2,000 surface and from the approach surfaces
feet. However, at established bases at a slope of 2 to 1 for a distance of 250
where substantial construction has feet measured horizontally from the
taken place in accordance with a pre- centerline of the primary and approach
vious lateral clearance criteria, the surfaces.
2,000-foot width may be reduced to the
former criteria.
(2) Clear zone surface. A surface lo- Subpart D—Aeronautical Studies
cated on the ground or water at each and Determinations
end of the primary surface, with a
length of 1,000 feet and the same width
as the primary surface. (a) This subpart applies to any aero-
(3) Approach clearance surface. An in- nautical study of a proposed construc-
clined plane, symmetrical about the tion or alteration for which notice to
runway centerline extended, beginning the FAA is required under § 77.9.
200 feet beyond each end of the primary (b) The purpose of an aeronautical
surface at the centerline elevation of study is to determine whether the
the runway end and extending for 50,000 aeronautical effects of the specific pro-
feet. The slope of the approach clear- posal and, where appropriate, the cu-
ance surface is 50 to 1 along the runway mulative impact resulting from the
centerline extended until it reaches an proposed construction or alteration
elevation of 500 feet above the estab- when combined with the effects of
lished airport elevation. It then con- other existing or proposed structures,
tinues horizontally at this elevation to would constitute a hazard to air navi-

a point 50,000 feet from the point of be- gation.
708
(c) The obstruction standards in sub- (b) If you withdraw the proposed con-
part C of this part are supplemented by struction or alteration or revise it so
other manuals and directives used in that it is no longer identified as an ob-
determining the effect on the navigable struction, or if no further aeronautical
airspace of a proposed construction or study is necessary, the FAA may ter-
alteration. When the FAA needs addi- minate the study.
tional information, it may circulate a
study to interested parties for com- § 77.31 Determinations.
ment. (a) The FAA will issue a determina-
tion stating whether the proposed con-
§ 77.27 Initiation of studies.
struction or alteration would be a haz-
The FAA will conduct an aero- ard to air navigation, and will advise
nautical study when: all known interested persons.
(a) Requested by the sponsor of any (b) The FAA will make determina-
proposed construction or alteration for tions based on the aeronautical study
which a notice is submitted; or findings and will identify the fol-
(b) The FAA determines a study is lowing:
necessary. (1) The effects on VFR/IFR aero-
§ 77.29 Evaluating aeronautical effect. nautical departure/arrival operations,
air traffic procedures, minimum flight
(a) The FAA conducts an aero- altitudes, and existing, planned, or pro-
nautical study to determine the impact posed airports listed in § 77.15(e) of
of a proposed structure, an existing which the FAA has received actual no-
structure that has not yet been studied tice prior to issuance of a final deter-
by the FAA, or an alteration of an ex- mination.
isting structure on aeronautical oper- (2) The extent of the physical and/or
ations, procedures, and the safety of electromagnetic effect on the oper-
flight. These studies include evaluation of existing or proposed air navi-
ating: gation facilities, communication aids,
(1) The impact on arrival, departure, or surveillance systems.
and en route procedures for aircraft op-
(c) The FAA will issue a Determina-
erating under visual flight rules;
tion of Hazard to Air Navigation when
(2) The impact on arrival, departure,
the aeronautical study concludes that
and en route procedures for aircraft op-
the proposed construction or alteration
erating under instrument flight rules;
will exceed an obstruction standard
(3) The impact on existing and
and would have a substantial aero-
planned public use airports;
nautical impact.
(4) Airport traffic capacity of exist-
ing public use airports and public use (d) A Determination of No Hazard to
airport development plans received be- Air Navigation will be issued when the
fore the issuance of the final deter- aeronautical study concludes that the
mination; proposed construction or alteration
(5) Minimum obstacle clearance alti- will exceed an obstruction standard but
tudes, minimum instrument flight would not have a substantial aero-
rules altitudes, approved or planned in- nautical impact to air navigation. A
strument approach procedures, and de- Determination of No Hazard to Air
parture procedures; Navigation may include the following:
(6) The potential effect on ATC radar, (1) Conditional provisions of a deter-
direction finders, ATC tower line-of- mination.
sight visibility, and physical or elec- (2) Limitations necessary to mini-
tromagnetic effects on air navigation, mize potential problems, such as the
communication facilities, and other use of temporary construction equip-
surveillance systems; ment.
(7) The aeronautical effects resulting (3) Supplemental notice require-
from the cumulative impact of a pro- ments, when required.
posed construction or alteration of a (4) Marking and lighting rec-
structure when combined with the ef- ommendations, as appropriate.
fects of other existing or proposed (e) The FAA will issue a Determina-
structures. tion of No Hazard to Air Navigation
709
§ 77.33 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
when a proposed structure does not ex- quiring an FCC construction permit
ceed any of the obstruction standards may be granted extensions for up to 18
and would not be a hazard to air navi- months, provided that:
gation. (1) You submit evidence that an ap-
plication for a construction permit/li-
§ 77.33 Effective period of determina- cense was filed with the FCC for the as-
tions. sociated site within 6 months of
(a) The effective date of a determina- issuance of the determination; and
tion not subject to discretionary re- (2) You submit evidence that addi-
view under 77.37(b) is the date of tional time is warranted because of
issuance. The effective date of all other FCC requirements; and
determinations for a proposed or exist- (3) Where the FCC issues a construc-
ing structure is 40 days from the date tion permit, a final Determination of
of issuance, provided a valid petition No Hazard to Air Navigation is effec-
for review has not been received by the tive until the date prescribed by the
FAA. If a valid petition for review is FCC for completion of the construc-
filed, the determination will not be- tion. If an extension of the original
come final, pending disposition of the FCC completion date is needed, an ex-
petition. tension of the FAA determination
(b) Unless extended, revised, or ter- must be requested from the Obstruc-
minated, each Determination of No tion Evaluation Service (OES).
Hazard to Air Navigation issued under (4) If the Commission refuses to issue
this subpart expires 18 months after a construction permit, the final deter-
the effective date of the determination, mination expires on the date of its re-
or on the date the proposed construc- fusal.
tion or alteration is abandoned, which-
ever is earlier. Subpart E—Petitions for
(c) A Determination of Hazard to Air Discretionary Review
Navigation has no expiration date.
§ 77.37 General.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–25002, 75 FR 42303, July
21, 2010, as amended by Amdt. 77–13–A, 76 FR (a) If you are the sponsor, provided a
2802, Jan. 18, 2011] substantive aeronautical comment on a
proposal in an aeronautical study, or
§ 77.35 Extensions, terminations, revi- have a substantive aeronautical com-
sions and corrections. ment on the proposal but were not
(a) You may petition the FAA official given an opportunity to state it, you
that issued the Determination of No may petition the FAA for a discre-
Hazard to Air Navigation to revise or tionary review of a determination, re-
reconsider the determination based on vision, or extension of a determination
new facts or to extend the effective pe- issued by the FAA.
riod of the determination, provided (b) You may not file a petition for
that: discretionary review for a Determina-
(1) Actual structural work of the pro- tion of No Hazard that is issued for a
posed construction or alteration, such temporary structure, marking and
as the laying of a foundation, but not lighting recommendation, or when a
including excavation, has not been proposed structure or alteration does
started; and not exceed obstruction standards con-
(2) The petition is submitted at least tained in subpart C of this part.
15 days before the expiration date of
the Determination of No Hazard to Air § 77.39 Contents of a petition.
Navigation. (a) You must file a petition for dis-
(b) A Determination of No Hazard to cretionary review in writing and it
Air Navigation issued for those con- must be received by the FAA within 30
struction or alteration proposals not days after the issuance of a determina-
requiring an FCC construction permit tion under § 77.31, or a revision or ex-
may be extended by the FAA one time tension of the determination under
for a period not to exceed 18 months. § 77.35.
(c) A Determination of No Hazard to (b) The petition must contain a full

Air Navigation issued for a proposal re- statement of the aeronautical basis on
710
which the petition is made, and must § 77.41 Discretionary review results.
include new information or facts not
(a) If discretionary review is granted,
previously considered or presented dur- the FAA will inform the petitioner and
ing the aeronautical study, including the sponsor (if other than the peti-
valid aeronautical reasons why the de- tioner) of the issues to be studied and
termination, revisions, or extension reviewed. The review may include a re-
made by the FAA should be reviewed. quest for comments and a review of all
(c) In the event that the last day of records from the initial aeronautical
the 30-day filing period falls on a week- study.
end or a day the Federal government is (b) If discretionary review is denied,
closed, the last day of the filing period the FAA will notify the petitioner and
is the next day that the government is the sponsor (if other than the peti-
open. tioner), and the FCC, whenever a FCC-
(d) The FAA will inform the peti- related proposal is involved, of the
tioner or sponsor (if other than the pe- basis for the denial along with a state-
titioner) and the FCC (whenever an ment that the determination is final.
FCC-related proposal is involved) of (c) After concluding the discre-
the filing of the petition and that the tionary review process, the FAA will
determination is not final pending dis- revise, affirm, or reverse the deter-
position of the petition. mination.
711
SUBCHAPTER F—AIR TRAFFIC AND GENERAL OPERATING
RULES
PART 91—GENERAL OPERATING 91.125 ATC light signals.

91.126 Operating on or in the vicinity of an
AND FLIGHT RULES airport in Class G airspace.
91.127 Operating on or in the vicinity of an
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO. airport in Class E airspace.
50–2 91.129 Operations in Class D airspace.
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO. 91.130 Operations in Class C airspace.
60 91.131 Operations in Class B airspace.
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO. 91.133 Restricted and prohibited areas.
97 91.135 Operations in Class A airspace.
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO. 91.137 Temporary flight restrictions in the
104 vicinity of disaster/hazard areas.
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO. 91.138 Temporary flight restrictions in na-
118–2 tional disaster areas in the State of Ha-
waii.
Subpart A—General 91.139 Emergency air traffic rules.
91.141 Flight restrictions in the proximity
Sec. of the Presidential and other parties.
91.1 Applicability. 91.143 Flight limitation in the proximity of
91.3 Responsibility and authority of the space flight operations.
pilot in command. 91.144 Temporary restriction on flight oper-
91.5 Pilot in command of aircraft requiring ations during abnormally high baro-
more than one required pilot. metric pressure conditions.
91.7 Civil aircraft airworthiness. 91.145 Management of aircraft operations in
91.9 Civil aircraft flight manual, marking, the vicinity of aerial demonstrations and
and placard requirements. major sporting events.
91.11 Prohibition on interference with crew- 91.146 Passenger-carrying flights for the
members. benefit of a charitable, nonprofit, or
91.13 Careless or reckless operation. community event.
91.15 Dropping objects. 91.147 Passenger carrying flights for com-
91.17 Alcohol or drugs. pensation or hire.
91.19 Carriage of narcotic drugs, marihuana, 91.148–91.149 [Reserved]
and depressant or stimulant drugs or
substances. VISUAL FLIGHT RULES
91.21 Portable electronic devices. 91.151 Fuel requirements for flight in VFR
91.23 Truth-in-leasing clause requirement in conditions.
leases and conditional sales contracts. 91.153 VFR flight plan: Information re-
91.25 Aviation Safety Reporting Program: quired.
Prohibition against use of reports for en- 91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums.
forcement purposes. 91.157 Special VFR weather minimums.
91.27–91.99 [Reserved] 91.159 VFR cruising altitude or flight level.
91.161 Special awareness training required
Subpart B—Flight Rules for pilots flying under visual flight rules
within a 60-nautical mile radius of the
GENERAL Washington, DC VOR/DME.
91.101 Applicability. 91.162–91.165 [Reserved]
91.103 Preflight action.
INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES
91.105 Flight crewmembers at stations.
91.107 Use of safety belts, shoulder har- 91.167 Fuel requirements for flight in IFR
nesses, and child restraint systems. conditions.
91.109 Flight instruction; Simulated instru- 91.169 IFR flight plan: Information required.
ment flight and certain flight tests. 91.171 VOR equipment check for IFR oper-
91.111 Operating near other aircraft. ations.
91.113 Right-of-way rules: Except water op- 91.173 ATC clearance and flight plan re-
erations. quired.
91.115 Right-of-way rules: Water operations. 91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.
91.117 Aircraft speed. 91.176 Straight-in landing operations below
91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: General. DA/DH or MDA using an enhanced flight
91.121 Altimeter settings. vision system (EFVS) under IFR.

91.123 Compliance with ATC clearances and 91.177 Minimum altitudes for IFR oper-
instructions. ations.
712
91.179 IFR cruising altitude or flight level. 91.323 Increased maximum certificated
91.180 Operations within airspace des- weights for certain airplanes operated in
ignated as Reduced Vertical Separation Alaska.
Minimum airspace. 91.325 Primary category aircraft: Operating
91.181 Course to be flown. limitations.
91.183 IFR communications. 91.326 [Reserved]
91.185 IFR operations: Two-way radio com- 91.327 Aircraft having a special airworthi-
munications failure. ness certificate in the light-sport cat-
91.187 Operation under IFR in controlled egory: Operating limitations.
airspace: Malfunction reports.
91.328–91.399 [Reserved]
91.189 Category II and III operations: Gen-
eral operating rules.
91.191 Category II and Category III manual. Subpart E—Maintenance, Preventive
91.193 Certificate of authorization for cer- Maintenance, and Alterations
tain Category II operations.
91.195–91.199 [Reserved] 91.401 Applicability.
91.403 General.
Subpart C—Equipment, Instrument, and 91.405 Maintenance required.
Certificate Requirements 91.407 Operation after maintenance, preven-
tive maintenance, rebuilding, or alter-
91.201 [Reserved] ation.
91.203 Civil aircraft: Certifications required. 91.409 Inspections.
91.205 Powered civil aircraft with standard 91.410 [Reserved]
category U.S. airworthiness certificates: 91.411 Altimeter system and altitude report-
Instrument and equipment requirements. ing equipment tests and inspections.
91.207 Emergency locator transmitters.
91.413 ATC transponder tests and inspec-
91.209 Aircraft lights.
tions.
91.211 Supplemental oxygen.
91.213 Inoperative instruments and equip- 91.415 Changes to aircraft inspection pro-
ment. grams.
91.215 ATC transponder and altitude report- 91.417 Maintenance records.
ing equipment and use. 91.419 Transfer of maintenance records.
91.217 Data correspondence between auto- 91.421 Rebuilt engine maintenance records.
matically reported pressure altitude data 91.423–91.499 [Reserved]
and the pilot’s altitude reference.
91.219 Altitude alerting system or device: Subpart F—Large and Turbine-Powered
Turbojet-powered civil airplanes. Multiengine Airplanes and Fractional
91.221 Traffic alert and collision avoidance Ownership Program Aircraft
system equipment and use.
91.223 Terrain awareness and warning sys- 91.501 Applicability.
tem. 91.503 Flying equipment and operating in-
91.225 Automatic Dependent Surveillance- formation.
Broadcast (ADS–B) Out equipment and 91.505 Familiarity with operating limita-
use. tions and emergency equipment.
91.227 Automatic Dependent Surveillance-
91.507 Equipment requirements: Over-the-
Broadcast (ADS–B) Out equipment per-
top or night VFR operations.
formance requirements.
91.228–91.299 [Reserved] 91.509 Survival equipment for overwater op-
erations.
Subpart D—Special Flight Operations 91.511 Communication and navigation
equipment for overwater operations.
91.301 [Reserved] 91.513 Emergency equipment.
91.303 Aerobatic flight. 91.515 Flight altitude rules.
91.305 Flight test areas. 91.517 Passenger information.
91.307 Parachutes and parachuting. 91.519 Passenger briefing.
91.309 Towing: Gliders and unpowered ultra- 91.521 Shoulder harness.
light vehicles.
91.523 Carry-on baggage.
91.311 Towing: Other than under § 91.309.
91.313 Restricted category civil aircraft: Op- 91.525 Carriage of cargo.
erating limitations. 91.527 Operating in icing conditions.
91.315 Limited category civil aircraft: Oper- 91.529 Flight engineer requirements.
ating limitations. 91.531 Second in command requirements.
91.317 Provisionally certificated civil air- 91.533 Flight attendant requirements.
craft: Operating limitations. 91.535 Stowage of food, beverage, and pas-
91.319 Aircraft having experimental certifi- senger service equipment during aircraft
cates: Operating limitations. movement on the surface, takeoff, and
91.321 Carriage of candidates in elections. landing.
713
91.537–91.599 [Reserved] 91.859 Modification to meet Stage 3, Stage
4, or Stage 5 noise levels.
Subpart G—Additional Equipment and Op- 91.861 Base level.
erating Requirements for Large and 91.863 Transfers of Stage 2 airplanes with
Transport Category Aircraft base level.
91.865 Phased compliance for operators with
91.601 Applicability. base level.
91.603 Aural speed warning device. 91.867 Phased compliance for new entrants.
91.605 Transport category civil airplane 91.869 Carry-forward compliance.
weight limitations. 91.871 Waivers from interim compliance re-
91.607 Emergency exits for airplanes car- quirements.
rying passengers for hire. 91.873 Waivers from final compliance.
91.609 Flight data recorders and cockpit 91.875 Annual progress reports.
voice recorders. 91.877 Annual reporting of Hawaiian oper-
91.611 Authorization for ferry flight with ations.
one engine inoperative. 91.879–91.880 [Reserved]
91.613 Materials for compartment interiors. 91.881 Final compliance: Civil subsonic jet
91.615–91.699 [Reserved] airplanes weighing 75,000 pounds or less.
91.883 Special flight authorizations for jet
Subpart H—Foreign Aircraft Operations airplanes weighing 75,000 pounds or less.
and Operations of U.S.-Registered Civil 91.884–91.899 [Reserved]
Aircraft Outside of the United States;
and Rules Governing Persons on Board Subpart J—Waivers
Such Aircraft 91.901 [Reserved]
91.701 Applicability. 91.903 Policy and procedures.
91.702 Persons on board. 91.905 List of rules subject to waivers.
91.703 Operations of civil aircraft of U.S. 91.907–91.999 [Reserved]
registry outside of the United States.
91.705 [Reserved] Subpart K—Fractional Ownership
91.706 Operations within airspace designed Operations
as Reduced Vertical Separation Min-
imum Airspace.
91.1002 Compliance date.
91.707 Flights between Mexico or Canada
91.1003 Management contract between
and the United States.
owner and program manager.
91.709 Operations to Cuba.
91.1005 Prohibitions and limitations.
91.711 Special rules for foreign civil air-
91.1007 Flights conducted under part 121 or
craft.
part 135 of this chapter.
91.713 Operation of civil aircraft of Cuban
91.1009 Clarification of operational control.
registry.
91.1011 Operational control responsibilities
91.715 Special flight authorizations for for-
and delegation.
eign civil aircraft.
91.1013 Operational control briefing and ac-
91.717–91.799 [Reserved]
knowledgment.
Subpart I—Operating Noise Limits 91.1014 Issuing or denying management
specifications.
91.801 Applicability: Relation to part 36. 91.1015 Management specifications.
91.803 Part 125 operators: Designation of ap- 91.1017 Amending program manager’s man-
plicable regulations. agement specifications.
91.805 Final compliance: Subsonic airplanes. 91.1019 Conducting tests and inspections.
91.807–91.813 [Reserved] 91.1021 Internal safety reporting and inci-
91.815 Agricultural and fire fighting air- dent/accident response.
planes: Noise operating limitations. 91.1023 Program operating manual require-
91.817 Civil aircraft sonic boom. ments.
91.819 Civil supersonic airplanes that do not 91.1025 Program operating manual contents.
comply with part 36. 91.1027 Recordkeeping.
91.821 Civil supersonic airplanes: Noise lim- 91.1029 Flight scheduling and locating re-
its. quirements.
91.823–91.849 [Reserved] 91.1031 Pilot in command or second in com-
91.851 Definitions. mand: Designation required.
91.853 Final compliance: Civil subsonic air- 91.1033 Operating information required.
planes. 91.1035 Passenger awareness.
91.855 Entry and nonaddition rule. 91.1037 Large transport category airplanes:
91.857 Stage 2 operations outside of the 48 Turbine engine powered; Limitations;
contiguous United States. Destination and alternate airports.

91.858 Special flight authorizations for non- 91.1039 IFR takeoff, approach and landing
revenue Stage 2 operations. minimums.
714
91.1041 Aircraft proving and validation 91.1111 Maintenance training.
tests. 91.1113 Maintenance recordkeeping.
91.1043 [Reserved] 91.1115 Inoperable instruments and equip-
91.1045 Additional equipment requirements. ment.
91.1047 Drug and alcohol misuse education 91.1411 Continuous airworthiness mainte-
program. nance program use by fractional owner-
91.1049 Personnel. ship program manager.
91.1050 Employment of former FAA employ- 91.1413 CAMP: Responsibility for airworthi-
ees. ness.
91.1051 Pilot safety background check. 91.1415 CAMP: Mechanical reliability re-
91.1053 Crewmember experience. ports.
91.1055 Pilot operating limitations and pair- 91.1417 CAMP: Mechanical interruption
ing requirement. summary report.
91.1057 Flight, duty and rest time require- 91.1423 CAMP: Maintenance organization.
ments; All crewmembers. 91.1425 CAMP: Maintenance, preventive
91.1059 Flight time limitations and rest re- maintenance, and alteration programs.
quirements: One or two pilot crews. 91.1427 CAMP: Manual requirements.
91.1061 Augmented flight crews. 91.1429 CAMP: Required inspection per-
91.1062 Duty periods and rest requirements: sonnel.
Flight attendants. 91.1431 CAMP: Continuing analysis and sur-
91.1063 Testing and training: Applicability veillance.
and terms used. 91.1433 CAMP: Maintenance and preventive
91.1065 Initial and recurrent pilot testing maintenance training program.
requirements. 91.1435 CAMP: Certificate requirements.
91.1067 Initial and recurrent flight attend- 91.1437 CAMP: Authority to perform and ap-
ant crewmember testing requirements. prove maintenance.
91.1069 Flight crew: Instrument proficiency 91.1439 CAMP: Maintenance recording re-
check requirements. quirements.
91.1071 Crewmember: Tests and checks, 91.1441 CAMP: Transfer of maintenance
grace provisions, training to accepted records.
standards. 91.1443 CAMP: Airworthiness release or air-
91.1073 Training program: General. craft maintenance log entry.
91.1075 Training program: Special rules.
91.1077 Training program and revision: Ini- Subpart L—Continued Airworthiness and
tial and final approval. Safety Improvements
91.1079 Training program: Curriculum.
91.1081 Crewmember training requirements. 91.1501 Purpose and definition.
91.1083 Crewmember emergency training. 91.1503 [Reserved]
91.1085 Hazardous materials recognition 91.1505 Repairs assessment for pressurized
training. fuselages.
91.1087 Approval of aircraft simulators and 91.1507 Fuel tank system inspection pro-
other training device. gram.
91.1089 Qualifications: Check pilots (air-
craft) and check pilots (simulator). Subpart M—Special Federal Aviation
91.1091 Qualifications: Flight instructors Regulations
(aircraft) and flight instructors (simu-
lator). 91.1603 Special Federal Aviation Regulation
91.1093 Initial and transition training and No. 112—Prohibition Against Certain
checking: Check pilots (aircraft), check Flights in the Tripoli Flight Information
pilots (simulator). Region (FIR) (HLLL).
91.1095 Initial and transition training and 91.1605 Special Federal Aviation Regulation
checking: Flight instructors (aircraft), No. 77—Prohibition Against Certain
flight instructors (simulator). Flights in the Baghdad Flight Informa-
91.1097 Pilot and flight attendant crew- tion Region (FIR) (ORBB).
member training programs. 91.1607 Special Federal Aviation Regulation
91.1099 Crewmember initial and recurrent No. 113—Prohibition Against Certain
training requirements. Flights in Specified Areas of the
91.1101 Pilots: Initial, transition, and up- Dnipropetrovsk Flight Information Re-
grade ground training. gion (FIR) (UKDV).
91.1103 Pilots: Initial, transition, upgrade, § 91.1609 Special Federal Aviation Regula-
requalification, and differences flight tion No. 114—Prohibition Against Cer-
training. tain Flights in the Damascus Flight In-
91.1105 Flight attendants: Initial and transi- formation Region (FIR) (OSTT).
tion ground training. 91.1611 Special Federal Aviation Regulation
91.1107 Recurrent training. No. 115—Prohibition Against Certain

91.1109 Aircraft maintenance: Inspection Flights in Specified Areas of the Sanaa
program. Flight Information Region (FIR) (OYSC).
715
Pt. 91, SFAR No. 50–2 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
91.1613 Special Federal Aviation Regulation MSL within an area bounded by a line begin-
No. 107—Prohibition Against Certain ning at lat. 36°09′30″ N., long. 114°03′00″ W.;
Flights in the Territory and Airspace of northeast to lat. 36°14′00″ N., long. 113°09′50″
Somalia. W.; thence northeast along the boundary of
91.1615 Special Federal Aviation Regulation the Grand Canyon National Park to lat.
No. 79—Prohibition Against Certain 36°24′47″ N., long. 112°52′00″ W.; to lat. 36°30′30″
Flights in the Pyongyang Flight Infor- N., long. 112°36′15″ W. to lat. 36°21′30″ N., long.
mation Region (FIR) (ZKKP). 112°00′00″ W. to lat. 36°35′30″ N., long. 111°53′10″
91.1617 Special Federal Aviation Regulation W., to lat. 36°53′00″ N., long. 111°36′45″ W. to
No. 117—Prohibition Against Certain lat. 36°53′00″ N., long. 111°33′00″ W.; to lat.
Flights in the Tehran Flight Information 36°19′00″ N., long. 111°50′50″ W.; to lat. 36°17′00″
Region (FIR) (OIIX). N., long. 111°42′00″ W.; to lat. 35°59′30″ N.,
long. 111°42′00″ W.; to lat. 35°57′30″ N., long.
Subpart N—Mitsubishi MU–2B Series Spe- 112°03′55″ W.; thence counterclockwise via the
cial Training, Experience, and Oper- 5 statute mile radius of the Grand Canyon
ating Requirements Airport airport reference point (lat. 35°57′09″
N., long. 112°08′47″ W.) to lat. 35°57′30″ N.,
91.1701 Applicability. long. 112°14′00″ W.; to lat. 35°57′30″ N., long.
91.1703 Compliance and eligibility. 113°11′00″ W.; to lat. 35°42′30″ N., long.
91.1705 Required pilot training. 113°11′00″ W.; to 35°38′30″ N.; long. 113°27′30″
91.1707 Training program hours. W.; thence counterclockwise via the 5 stat-
91.1709 Training program approval. ute mile radius of the Peach Springs
91.1711 Aeronautical experience. VORTAC to lat. 35°41′20″ N., long. 113°36′00″
91.1713 Instruction, checking, and evalua- W.; to lat. 35°55′25″ N., long. 113°49′10″ W.; to
tion. lat. 35°57′45″ N., 113°45′20″ W.; thence north-
91.1715 Currency requirements and flight re- west along the park boundary to lat. 36°02′20″
view. N., long. 113°50′15″ W.; to 36°00′10″ N., long.
91.1717 Operating requirements. 113°53′45″ W.; thence to the point of begin-
91.1719 Credit for prior training. ning.
91.1721 Incorporation by reference. Section 3. Aircraft operations: general. Ex-
APPENDIX A TO PART 91—CATEGORY II OPER- cept in an emergency, no person may operate
ATIONS: MANUAL, INSTRUMENTS, EQUIP- an aircraft in the Special Flight Rules, Area
MENT, AND MAINTENANCE under VFR on or after September 22, 1988, or
APPENDIX B TO PART 91—AUTHORIZATIONS TO under IFR on or after April 6, 1989, unless the
EXCEED MACH 1 (§ 91.817) operation—
APPENDIX C TO PART 91 [RESERVED] (a) Is conducted in accordance with the fol-
APPENDIX D TO PART 91—AIRPORTS/LOCA- lowing procedures:
TIONS: SPECIAL OPERATING RESTRICTIONS NOTE: The following procedures do not re-
APPENDIX E TO PART 91—AIRPLANE FLIGHT lieve the pilot from see-and-avoid responsi-
RECORDER SPECIFICATIONS bility or compliance with FAR 91.119.
APPENDIX F TO PART 91—HELICOPTER FLIGHT (1) Unless necessary to maintain a safe dis-
RECORDER SPECIFICATIONS tance from other aircraft or terrain—
APPENDIX G TO PART 91—OPERATIONS IN RE- (i) Remain clear of the areas described in
DUCED VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMUM
Section 4; and
(RVSM) AIRSPACE (ii) Remain at or above the following alti-
AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40101, tudes in each sector of the canyon:
40103, 40105, 40113, 40120, 44101, 44111, 44701, Eastern section from Lees Ferry to North
44704, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715, 44716, 44717, Canyon and North Canyon to Boundary
44722, 46306, 46315, 46316, 46504, 46506–46507, Ridge: as prescribed in Section 5.
47122, 47508, 47528–47531, 47534, Pub. L. 114–190, Boundary Ridge to Supai Point
130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); articles 12 (Yumtheska Point): 10,000 feet MSL.
and 29 of the Convention on International Western section from Diamond Creek to
Civil Aviation (61 Stat. 1180), (126 Stat. 11). the Grant Wash Cliffs: 8,000 feet MSL.
(2) Proceed through the four flight cor-
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION ridors describe in Section 4 at the following
NO. 50–2—SPECIAL FLIGHT RULES IN altitudes unless otherwise authorized in
writing by the responsible Flight Standards
THE VICINITY OF THE GRAND CANYON
office:
NATIONAL PARK, AZ
Northbound
Section 1. Applicability. This rule prescribes
special operating rules for all persons oper- 11,500 or
ating aircraft in the following airspace, des- 13,500 feet MSL
ignated as the Grand Canyon National Park
Southbound
Special Flight Rules Area:

That airspace extending upward from the >10,500 or
surface up to but not including 14,500 feet >12,500 feet MSL
716
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT Pt. 91, SFAR No. 50–2
(b) Is authorized in writing by the respon- 35°59′30″ N., Long. 112°04′00″ W.; thence coun-
sible Flight Standards office and is con- terclockwise via the 5 statute mile radius of
ducted in compliance with the conditions the Grand Canyon Airport point (Lat.
contained in that authorization. Normally 35°57′09″ N., Long. 112°08′47″ W.) to Lat.
authorization will be granted for operation 36°01′30″ N., Long. 112°11′00″ W.; to Lat.
in the areas described in Section 4 or below 36°06′15″ N., Long. 112°12′50″ W.; to Lat.
the altitudes listed in Section 5 only for op- 36°14′40″ N., Long. 112°08′50″ W.; to Lat.
erations of aircraft necessary for law en- 36°14′40″ N., Long. 111°57′30″ W.; to Lat.
forcement, firefighting, emergency medical 36°12′30″ N., Long. 111°53′50″ W.; to the point
treatment/evacuation of persons in the vicin- of origin; but not including the airspace at
ity of the Park; for support of Park mainte- and above 10,500 feet MSL within 1 mile of
nance or activities; or for aerial access to the eastern boundary between the southern
and maintenance of other property located boundary and Lat. 36°04′50″ N. or the airspace
within the Special Flight Rules Area. Au- at and above 10,500 feet MSL within 2 miles
thorization may be issued on a continuing of the northwest boundary. The area bounded
basis. by the Bright Angel and Shinumo Flight-
(c)(1) Prior to November 1, 1988, is con- Free Zones is designated the ‘‘Dragon Cor-
ducted in accordance with a specific author- ridor.’’
ization to operate in that airspace incor- (c) Shinumo Flight-Free Zone. Within an
porated in the operator’s part 135 operations area bounded by a line beginning at Lat.
specifications in accordance with the provi- 36°04′00″ N., Long. 112°16′40″ W.; northwest
sions of SFAR 50–1, notwithstanding the pro- along the park boundary to a point at Lat.
visions of Sections 4 and 5; and 36°12′47″ N., Long. 112°30′53″ W.; to Lat.
(2) On or after November 1, 1988, is con- 36°21′15″ N., Long. 112°20′20″ W.; east along the
ducted in accordance with a specific author- park boundary to Lat. 36°21′15″ N., Long.
ization to operate in that airspace incor- 112°13′55″ W.; to Lat. 36°14′40″ N., Long.
porated in the operated in the operator’s op- 112°11′25″ W.; to the point of origin. The area
erations specifications and approved by the between the Thunder River/Toroweap and
responsible Flight Standards office in ac- Shinumo Flight Free Zones is designated the
cordance with the provisions of SFAR 50–2.
‘‘Fossil Canyon Corridor.’’
(d) Is a search and rescue mission directed
(d) Toroweap/Thunder River Flight-Free
by the U.S. Air Force Rescue Coordination
Zone. Within an area bounded by a line be-
Center.
(e) Is conducted within 3 nautical miles of ginning at Lat. 36°22′45″ N., Long. 112°20′35″
Whitmore Airstrip, Pearce Ferry Airstrip, W.; thence northwest along the boundary of
North Rim Airstrip, Cliff Dwellers Airstrip, the Grand Canyon National Park to Lat.
or Marble Canyon Airstrip at an altitudes 36°17′48″ N., Long. 113°03′15″ W.; to Lat.
less than 3,000 feet above airport elevation, 36°15′00″ N., Long. 113°07′10″ W.; to Lat.
for the purpose of landing at or taking off 36°10′30″ N., Long. 113°07′10″ W.; thence east
from that facility. Or along the Colorado River to the confluence
(f) Is conducted under an IFR clearance of Havasu Canyon (Lat. 36°18′40″ N., Long.
and the pilot is acting in accordance with 112°45′45″ W.;) including that area within a 1.5
ATC instructions. An IFR flight plan may nautical mile radius of Toroweap Overlook
not be filed on a route or at an altitude that (Lat. 36°12′45″ N., Long. 113°03′30″ W.); to the
would require operation in an area described point of origin; but not including the fol-
in Section 4. lowing airspace designated as the ‘‘Tuckup
Section 4. Flight-free zones. Except in an Corridor’’: at or above 10,500 feet MSL within
emergency or if otherwise necessary for safe- 2 nautical miles either side of a line extend-
ty of flight, or unless otherwise authorized ing between Lat. 36°24′47″ N., Long. 112°48′50″
by the responsible Flight Standards office W. and Lat. 36°17′10″ N., Long. 112°48′50″ W.; to
for a purpose listed in Section 3(b), no person the point of origin.
may operate an aircraft in the Special Flight Section 5. Minimum flight altitudes. Except
Rules Area within the following areas: in an emergency or if otherwise necessary
(a) Desert View Flight-Free Zone. Within for safety of flight, or unless otherwise au-
an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. thorized by the responsible Flight Standards
35°59′30″ N., Long. 111°46′20″ W. to 35°59′30″ N., office for a purpose listed in Section 3(b), no
Long. 111°52′45″ W.; to Lat. 36°04′50″ N., Long. person may operate an aircraft in the Spe-
111°52′00″ W.; to Lat. 36°06′00″ N., Long. cial Flight Rules Area at an altitude lower
111°46′20″ W.; to the point of origin; but not than the following:
including the airspace at and above 10,500 (a) Eastern section from Lees Ferry to
feet MSL within 1 mile of the western bound- North Canyon: 5,000 feet MSL.
ary of the zone. The area between the Desert (b) Eastern section from North Canyon to
View and Bright Angel Flight-Free Zones is Boundary Ridge: 6,000 feet MSL.
designated the ‘‘Zuni Point Corridor.’’ (c) Boundary Ridge to Supai (Yumtheska)
(b) Bright Angel Flight-Free Zone. Within Point: 7,500 feet MSL.
an area bounded by a line beginning at Lat. (d) Supai Point to Diamond Creek: 6,500
35°59′30″ N., Long. 111°55′30″ W.; to Lat. feet MSL.
717
(e) Western section from Diamond Creek to celled under this SFAR at a high density
the Grand Wash Cliffs: 5,000 feet MSL. traffic airport will be considered to have
Section 9. Termination date. Section 1. Ap- been operated for purposes of part 93 of the
plicability, Section 4, Flight-free zones, and Federal Aviation Regulations.
Section 5. Minimum flight altitudes, expire 4. The Director may activate the National
on April 19, 2001. Air Traffic Reduced Complement Operations
NOTE: [Removed] Plan at any time he finds that it is necessary
for the safety and efficiency of the National
[66 FR 1003, Jan. 4, 2001, as amended at 66 FR Airspace System. Upon activation of the
16584, Mar. 26, 2001; 72 FR 9846, Mar. 6, 2007; RCOP and notwithstanding any provision of
Docket FAA–2018–0119, Amdt. 91–350, 83 FR the FAR to the contrary, the Director is au-
9171, Mar. 5, 2018] thorized to suspend or modify any airspace
designation.
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION 5. Notice of restrictions, prohibitions, pro-
NO. 60—AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SYS- cedures and other actions taken by the Di-
TEM EMERGENCY OPERATION rector under this regulation with respect to
the operation of the Air Traffic Control sys-
1. Each person shall, before conducting any tem will be announced in Notices to Airmen
operation under the Federal Aviation Regu- issued pursuant to § 91.139 of the Federal
lations (14 CFR chapter I), be familiar with Aviation Regulations.
all available information concerning that op- 6. The Director may delegate his authority
eration, including Notices to Airmen issued under this regulation to the extent he con-
under § 91.139 and, when activated, the provi- siders necessary for the safe and efficient op-
sions of the National Air Traffic Reduced eration of the National Air Traffic Control
Complement Operations Plan available for System.
inspection at operating air traffic facilities
and Regional air traffic division offices, and (Authority: 49 U.S.C. app. 1301(7), 1303, 1344,
the General Aviation Reservation Program. 1348, 1352 through 1355, 1401, 1421 through
No operator may change the designated air- 1431, 1471, 1472, 1502, 1510, 1522, and 2121
port of intended operation for any flight con- through 2125; articles 12, 29, 31, and 32(a) of
tained in the October 1, 1990, OAG. the Convention on International Civil Avia-
2. Notwithstanding any provision of the tion (61 stat. 1180); 42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.; E.O.
Federal Aviation Regulations to the con- 11514, 35 FR 4247, 3 CFR, 1966–1970 Comp., p.
trary, no person may operate an aircraft in 902; 49 U.S.C. 106(g))
the Air Traffic Control System: [Doc. No. 26351, 55 FR 40760, Oct. 4, 1990, as
a. Contrary to any restriction, prohibition, amended by Amdt. 91–227, 56 FR 65652, Dec.
procedure or other action taken by the Di- 17, 1991]
rector of the Office of Air Traffic Systems
Management (Director) pursuant to para- SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION
graph 3 of this regulation and announced in NO. 97—SPECIAL OPERATING RULES
a Notice to Airmen pursuant to § 91.139 of the
FOR THE CONDUCT OF INSTRUMENT
Federal Aviation Regulations.
b. When the National Air Traffic Reduced FLIGHT RULES (IFR) AREA NAVIGA-
Complement Operations Plan is activated TION (RNAV) OPERATIONS USING
pursuant to paragraph 4 of this regulation, GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEMS
except in accordance with the pertinent pro- (GPS) IN ALASKA
visions of the National Air Traffic Reduced
Complement Operations Plan. Those persons identified in Section 1 may
3. Prior to or in connection with the imple- conduct IFR en route RNAV operations in
mentation of the RCOP, and as conditions the State of Alaska and its airspace on pub-
warrant, the Director is authorized to: lished air traffic routes using TSO C145a/
a. Restrict, prohibit, or permit VFR and/or C146a navigation systems as the only means
IFR operations at any airport, Class B air- of IFR navigation. Despite contrary provi-
space area, Class C airspace area, or other sions of parts 71, 91, 95, 121, 125, and 135 of
class of controlled airspace. this chapter, a person may operate aircraft
b. Give priority at any airport to flights in accordance with this SFAR if the fol-
that are of military necessity, or are medical lowing requirements are met.
emergency flights, Presidential flights, and
Section 1. Purpose, use, and limitations
flights transporting critical Government em-
ployees. a. This SFAR permits TSO C145a/C146a
c. Implement, at any airport, traffic man- GPS (RNAV) systems to be used for IFR en
agement procedures, that may include reduc- route operations in the United States air-
tion of flight operations. Reduction of flight space over and near Alaska (as set forth in
operations will be accomplished, to the ex- paragraph c of this section) at Special Min-
tent practical, on a pro rata basis among and imum En Route Altitudes (MEA) that are
between air carrier, commercial operator, outside the operational service volume of
and general aviation operations. Flights can- ground-based navigation aids, if the aircraft
718
operation also meets the requirements of that meets the performance requirements of
sections 3 and 4 of this SFAR. TSO C145a/C146a navigation systems certified
b. Certificate holders and part 91 operators for IFR en route operations.
may operate aircraft under this SFAR pro- Route segment. Route segment is a portion
vided that they comply with the require- of a route bounded on each end by a fix or
ments of this SFAR. NAVAID.
c. Operations conducted under this SFAR Special MEA. Special MEA refers to the
are limited to United States Airspace within minimum en route altitudes, using required
and near the State of Alaska as defined in navigation systems, on published routes out-
the following area description: side the operational service volume of
From 62°00′00.000″ N, Long. 141°00′00.00″ W.; ground-based navigation aids and are de-
to Lat. 59°47′54.11″ N., Long. 135°28′38.34″ W.; picted on the published Low Altitude and
to Lat. 56°00′04.11″ N., Long. 130°00′07.80″ W.; High Altitude En Route Charts using the
to Lat. 54°43′00.00″ N., Long. 130°37′00.00″ W.; color blue and with the suffix ‘‘G.’’ For ex-
to Lat. 51°24′00.00″ N., Long. 167°49′00.00″ W.; ample, a GPS MEA of 4000 feet MSL would be
to Lat. 50°08′00.00″ N., Long. 176°34′00.00″ W.; depicted using the color blue, as 4000G.
to Lat. 45°42′00.00″ N., Long. ¥162°55′00.00″ E.;
Standard MEA. Standard MEA refers to the
to Lat. 50°05′00.00″ N., Long. ¥159°00′00.00″ E.;
to Lat. 54°00′00.00″ N., Long. ¥169°00′00.00″ E.; minimum en route IFR altitude on published
to Lat. 60°00 00.00″ N., Long. ¥180°00′ 00.00″ E; routes that uses ground-based navigation
to Lat. 65°00′00.00″ N., Long. 168°58′23.00″ W.; aids and are depicted on the published Low
to Lat. 90°00′00.00″ N., Long. 00°00′0.00″ W.; to Altitude and High Altitude En Route Charts
Lat. 62°00′00.000″ N, Long. 141°00′00.00″ W. using the color black.
(d) No person may operate an aircraft Station referenced. Station referenced refers
under IFR during the en route portion of to radio navigational aids or fixes that are
flight below the standard MEA or at the spe- referenced by ground based navigation facili-
cial MEA unless the operation is conducted ties such as VOR facilities.
in accordance with sections 3 and 4 of this Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS).
SFAR. WAAS is an augmentation to GPS that cal-
culates GPS integrity and correction data on
Section 2. Definitions and abbreviations the ground and uses geo-stationary satellites
For the purposes of this SFAR, the fol- to broadcast GPS integrity and correction
lowing definitions and abbreviations apply. data to GPS/WAAS users and to provide
Area navigation (RNAV). RNAV is a method ranging signals. It is a safety critical system
of navigation that permits aircraft oper- consisting of a ground network of reference
ations on any desired flight path. and integrity monitor data processing sites
Area navigation (RNAV) route. RNAV route to assess current GPS performance, as well
is a published route based on RNAV that can as a space segment that broadcasts that as-
be used by suitably equipped aircraft. sessment to GNSS users to support en route
Certificate holder. A certificate holder through precision approach navigation.
means a person holding a certificate issued Users of the system include all aircraft ap-
under part 119 or part 125 of this chapter or plying the WAAS data and ranging signal.
holding operations specifications issued
under part 129 of this chapter. Section 3. Operational Requirements
Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS). To operate an aircraft under this SFAR,
GNSS is a world-wide position and time de- the following requirements must be met:
termination system that uses satellite rang-
a. Training and qualification for oper-
ing signals to determine user location. It en-
ations and maintenance personnel on re-
compasses all satellite ranging technologies,
quired navigation equipment used under this
including GPS and additional satellites.
SFAR.
Components of the GNSS include GPS, the
Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite Sys- b. Use authorized procedures for normal,
tem, and WAAS satellites. abnormal, and emergency situations unique
Global Positioning System (GPS). GPS is a to these operations, including degraded navi-
satellite-based radio navigational, posi- gation capabilities, and satellite system out-
tioning, and time transfer system. The sys- ages.
tem provides highly accurate position and c. For certificate holders, training of flight
velocity information and precise time on a crewmembers and other personnel authorized
continuous global basis to properly equipped to exercise operational control on the use of
users. those procedures specified in paragraph b of
Minimum crossing altitude (MCA). The min- this section.
imum crossing altitude (MCA) applies to the d. Part 129 operators must have approval
operation of an aircraft proceeding to a high- from the State of the operator to conduct op-
er minimum en route altitude when crossing erations in accordance with this SFAR.
specified fixes. e. In order to operate under this SFAR, a

Required navigation system. Required navi- certificate holder must be authorized in op-
gation system means navigation equipment erations specifications.
719
Section 4. Equipment Requirements SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION
a. The certificate holder must have prop- NO. 118–2—RELIEF FOR CERTAIN
erly installed, certificated, and functional PERSONS DURING THE NATIONAL
dual required navigation systems as defined EMERGENCY CONCERNING THE NOVEL
in section 2 of this SFAR for the en route op- CORONAVIRUS DISEASE (COVID–19)
erations covered under this SFAR. PUBLIC HEALTH EMERGENCY
b. When the aircraft is being operated
under part 91, the aircraft must be equipped For the text of SFAR No. 118–2, see part 61
with at least one properly installed, certifi- of this chapter.
cated, and functional required navigation
[Docket No. FAA–2020–0446, Amdt. No. 91–360,
system as defined in section 2 of this SFAR
85 FR 62975, Oct. 6, 2020]]
for the en route operations covered under
this SFAR. EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: By Docket No.
FAA–2020–0446, Amdt. No. 91–360, 85 FR 62975,
Section 5. Expiration date Oct. 6, 2020, SFAR 118–2 to part 91 was added,
This Special Federal Aviation Regulation effective Oct. 1, 2020 through Apr. 30, 2021.
will remain in effect until rescinded.
[Doc. No. FAA–2003–14305, 68 FR 14077, Mar. Subpart A—General
21, 2003]
SOURCE: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug.
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION 18, 1989, unless otherwise noted.
NO. 104—PROHIBITION AGAINST CER-
TAIN FLIGHTS BY SYRIAN AIR CAR- § 91.1 Applicability.
RIERS TO THE UNITED STATES (a) Except as provided in paragraphs
1. Applicability. This Special Federal Avia- (b), (c), (e), and (f) of this section and
tion Regulation (SFAR) No. 104 applies to §§ 91.701 and 91.703, this part prescribes
any air carrier owned or controlled by Syria rules governing the operation of air-
that is engaged in scheduled international craft within the United States, includ-
air services. ing the waters within 3 nautical miles
2. Special flight restrictions. Except as proof the U.S. coast.
vided in paragraphs 3 and 4 of this SFAR No. (b) Each person operating an aircraft
104, no air carrier described in paragraph 1
in the airspace overlying the waters be-
may take off from or land in the territory of
the United States.
tween 3 and 12 nautical miles from the
3. Permitted operations. This SFAR does not coast of the United States must com-
prohibit overflights of the territory of the ply with §§ 91.1 through 91.21; §§ 91.101
United States by any air carrier described in through 91.143; §§ 91.151 through 91.159;
paragraph 1. §§ 91.167 through 91.193; § 91.203; § 91.205;
4. Emergency situations. In an emergency §§ 91.209 through 91.217; § 91.221, § 91.225;
that requires immediate decision and action §§ 91.303 through 91.319; §§ 91.323 through
for the safety of the flight, the pilot in com- 91.327; § 91.605; § 91.609; §§ 91.703 through
mand of an aircraft of any air carrier de-
91.715; and § 91.903.
scribed in paragraph 1 may deviate from this
SFAR to the extent required by that emer- (c) This part applies to each person
gency. Each person who deviates from this on board an aircraft being operated
rule must, within 10 days of the deviation, under this part, unless otherwise speci-
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal fied.
holidays, submit to the responsible Flight (d) This part also establishes require-
Standards office a complete report of the op- ments for operators to take actions to
erations or the aircraft involved in the devi- support the continued airworthiness of
ation, including a description of the devi-
each airplane.
ation and the reasons therefor.
5. Duration. This SFAR No. 104 will remain (e) This part does not apply to any
in effect until further notice. aircraft or vehicle governed by part 103
of this chapter, or subparts B, C, or D
[Doc. No. FAA–2004–17763, 69 FR 31719, June 4,
of part 101 of this chapter.
2004, as amended by Docket FAA–2018–0119,
Amdt. 91–350, 83 FR 9171, Mar. 5, 2018] (f) Except as provided in §§ 107.13,
107.27, 107.47, 107.57, and 107.59 of this
chapter, this part does not apply to any
720
aircraft governed by part 107 of this placards, or as otherwise prescribed by

chapter. the certificating authority of the coun-
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as
try of registry.
amended by Amdt. 91–257, 64 FR 1079, Jan. 7, (b) No person may operate a U.S.-reg-
1999; Amdt. 91–282, 69 FR 44880, July 27, 2004; istered civil aircraft—
Amdt. 91–297, 72 FR 63410, Nov. 8, 2007; Amdt. (1) For which an Airplane or Rotor-
91–314, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010; Docket craft Flight Manual is required by § 21.5
FAA–2015–0150, Amdt. 91–343, 81 FR 42208, of this chapter unless there is available
June 28, 2016] in the aircraft a current, approved Air-
plane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual or
§ 91.3 Responsibility and authority of the manual provided for in § 121.141(b);
the pilot in command.
and
(a) The pilot in command of an air- (2) For which an Airplane or Rotor-
craft is directly responsible for, and is craft Flight Manual is not required by
the final authority as to, the operation § 21.5 of this chapter, unless there is
of that aircraft. available in the aircraft a current ap-
(b) In an in-flight emergency requir- proved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight
ing immediate action, the pilot in com- Manual, approved manual material,
mand may deviate from any rule of markings, and placards, or any com-
this part to the extent required to bination thereof.
meet that emergency. (c) No person may operate a U.S.-reg-
(c) Each pilot in command who devi- istered civil aircraft unless that air-
ates from a rule under paragraph (b) of craft is identified in accordance with
this section shall, upon the request of part 45 of this chapter.
the Administrator, send a written re- (d) Any person taking off or landing
port of that deviation to the Adminis- a helicopter certificated under part 29
trator. of this chapter at a heliport con-
(Approved by the Office of Management and structed over water may make such
Budget under control number 2120–0005) momentary flight as is necessary for
takeoff or landing through the prohib-
§ 91.5 Pilot in command of aircraft re- ited range of the limiting height-speed
quiring more than one required envelope established for the helicopter
pilot. if that flight through the prohibited
No person may operate an aircraft range takes place over water on which
that is type certificated for more than a safe ditching can be accomplished
one required pilot flight crewmember and if the helicopter is amphibious or
unless the pilot in command meets the is equipped with floats or other emer-
requirements of § 61.58 of this chapter. gency flotation gear adequate to ac-
complish a safe emergency ditching on
§ 91.7 Civil aircraft airworthiness. open water.
(a) No person may operate a civil air-
craft unless it is in an airworthy condi- § 91.11 Prohibition on interference
tion. with crewmembers.
(b) The pilot in command of a civil No person may assault, threaten, in-
aircraft is responsible for determining timidate, or interfere with a crew-
whether that aircraft is in condition member in the performance of the
for safe flight. The pilot in command crewmember’s duties aboard an air-
shall discontinue the flight when un- craft being operated.
airworthy mechanical, electrical, or
structural conditions occur. § 91.13 Careless or reckless operation.
(a) Aircraft operations for the purpose
§ 91.9 Civil aircraft flight manual, of air navigation. No person may oper-
marking, and placard requirements. ate an aircraft in a careless or reckless
(a) Except as provided in paragraph manner so as to endanger the life or
(d) of this section, no person may oper- property of another.
ate a civil aircraft without complying (b) Aircraft operations other than for
with the operating limitations speci- the purpose of air navigation. No person
fied in the approved Airplane or Rotor- may operate an aircraft, other than for
craft Flight Manual, markings, and the purpose of air navigation, on any
721
§ 91.15 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
part of the surface of an airport used by paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of

by aircraft for air commerce (including this section.
areas used by those aircraft for receiv- (2) Whenever the FAA has a reason-
ing or discharging persons or cargo), in able basis to believe that a person may
a careless or reckless manner so as to have violated paragraph (a)(1), (a)(2), or
endanger the life or property of an- (a)(4) of this section, on request of the
other. FAA, that person must furnish to the
FAA the results, or authorize any clin-
§ 91.15 Dropping objects.
ic, hospital, or doctor, or other person
No pilot in command of a civil air- to release to the FAA, the results of
craft may allow any object to be each test taken within 4 hours after
dropped from that aircraft in flight acting or attempting to act as a crew-
that creates a hazard to persons or member that indicates an alcohol con-
property. However, this section does centration in the blood or breath speci-
not prohibit the dropping of any object men.
if reasonable precautions are taken to
(d) Whenever the Administrator has a
avoid injury or damage to persons or
reasonable basis to believe that a per-
property.
son may have violated paragraph (a)(3)
§ 91.17 Alcohol or drugs. of this section, that person shall, upon
request by the Administrator, furnish
(a) No person may act or attempt to
the Administrator, or authorize any
act as a crewmember of a civil air-
clinic, hospital, doctor, or other person
craft—
(1) Within 8 hours after the consump- to release to the Administrator, the re-
tion of any alcoholic beverage; sults of each test taken within 4 hours
(2) While under the influence of alco- after acting or attempting to act as a
hol; crewmember that indicates the pres-
(3) While using any drug that affects ence of any drugs in the body.
the person’s faculties in any way con- (e) Any test information obtained by
trary to safety; or the Administrator under paragraph (c)
(4) While having an alcohol con- or (d) of this section may be evaluated
centration of 0.04 or greater in a blood in determining a person’s qualifica-
or breath specimen. Alcohol concentra- tions for any airman certificate or pos-
tion means grams of alcohol per deci- sible violations of this chapter and
liter of blood or grams of alcohol per may be used as evidence in any legal
210 liters of breath. proceeding under section 602, 609, or 901
(b) Except in an emergency, no pilot of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958.
of a civil aircraft may allow a person
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as
who appears to be intoxicated or who
amended by Amdt. 91–291, June 21, 2006]
demonstrates by manner or physical
indications that the individual is under § 91.19 Carriage of narcotic drugs,
the influence of drugs (except a med- marihuana, and depressant or stim-
ical patient under proper care) to be ulant drugs or substances.
carried in that aircraft.
(c) A crewmember shall do the fol- (a) Except as provided in paragraph
lowing: (b) of this section, no person may oper-
(1) On request of a law enforcement ate a civil aircraft within the United
officer, submit to a test to indicate the States with knowledge that narcotic
alcohol concentration in the blood or drugs, marihuana, and depressant or
breath, when— stimulant drugs or substances as de-
(i) The law enforcement officer is au- fined in Federal or State statutes are
thorized under State or local law to carried in the aircraft.
conduct the test or to have the test (b) Paragraph (a) of this section does
conducted; and not apply to any carriage of narcotic
(ii) The law enforcement officer is re- drugs, marihuana, and depressant or
questing submission to the test to in- stimulant drugs or substances author-
vestigate a suspected violation of State ized by or under any Federal or State
or local law governing the same or sub- statute or by any Federal or State
stantially similar conduct prohibited agency.
722
§ 91.21 Portable electronic devices. the parties thereto regarding the air-
(a) Except as provided in paragraph craft’s status of compliance with appli-
(b) of this section, no person may oper- cable maintenance and inspection re-
ate, nor may any operator or pilot in quirements in this part for the oper-
command of an aircraft allow the operation to be conducted under the lease
ation of, any portable electronic device or contract of conditional sale.
on any of the following U.S.-registered (2) The name and address (printed or
civil aircraft: typed) and the signature of the person
(1) Aircraft operated by a holder of responsible for operational control of
an air carrier operating certificate or the aircraft under the lease or contract
an operating certificate; or of conditional sale, and certification
(2) Any other aircraft while it is op- that each person understands that per-
erated under IFR. son’s responsibilities for compliance
(b) Paragraph (a) of this section does with applicable Federal Aviation Regu-
not apply to— lations.
(1) Portable voice recorders; (3) A statement that an explanation
(2) Hearing aids; of factors bearing on operational con-
(3) Heart pacemakers; trol and pertinent Federal Aviation
(4) Electric shavers; or Regulations can be obtained from the
(5) Any other portable electronic de- responsible Flight Standards office.
vice that the operator of the aircraft (b) The requirements of paragraph (a)
has determined will not cause inter- of this section do not apply—
ference with the navigation or commu- (1) To a lease or contract of condi-
nication system of the aircraft on tional sale when—
which it is to be used. (i) The party to whom the aircraft is
(c) In the case of an aircraft operated furnished is a foreign air carrier or cer-
by a holder of an air carrier operating tificate holder under part 121, 125, 135,
certificate or an operating certificate, or 141 of this chapter, or
the determination required by para- (ii) The party furnishing the aircraft
graph (b)(5) of this section shall be is a foreign air carrier or a person oper-
made by that operator of the aircraft ating under part 121, 125, and 141 of this
on which the particular device is to be chapter, or a person operating under
used. In the case of other aircraft, the part 135 of this chapter having author-
determination may be made by the ity to engage in on-demand operations
pilot in command or other operator of with large aircraft.
the aircraft. (2) To a contract of conditional sale,
when the aircraft involved has not been
§ 91.23 Truth-in-leasing clause require- registered anywhere prior to the execu-
ment in leases and conditional sales tion of the contract, except as a new
contracts. aircraft under a dealer’s aircraft reg-
(a) Except as provided in paragraph istration certificate issued in accord-
(b) of this section, the parties to a ance with § 47.61 of this chapter.
lease or contract of conditional sale in- (c) No person may operate a large
volving a U.S.-registered large civil civil aircraft of U.S. registry that is
aircraft and entered into after January subject to a lease or contract of condi-
2, 1973, shall execute a written lease or tional sale to which paragraph (a) of
contract and include therein a written this section applies, unless—
truth-in-leasing clause as a concluding (1) The lessee or conditional buyer, or
paragraph in large print, immediately the registered owner if the lessee is not
preceding the space for the signature of a citizen of the United States, has
the parties, which contains the fol- mailed a copy of the lease or contract
lowing with respect to each such air- that complies with the requirements of
craft: paragraph (a) of this section, within 24
(1) Identification of the Federal Avia- hours of its execution, to the Aircraft
tion Regulations under which the air- Registration Branch, Attn: Technical
craft has been maintained and in- Section, P.O. Box 25724, Oklahoma
spected during the 12 months preceding City, OK 73125;
the execution of the lease or contract (2) A copy of the lease or contract
of conditional sale, and certification by that complies with the requirements of
723
§ 91.25 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
paragraph (a) of this section is carried porting Program (or information de-
in the aircraft. The copy of the lease or rived therefrom) in any enforcement
contract shall be made available for reaction except information concerning
view upon request by the Adminis- accidents or criminal offenses which
trator, and are wholly excluded from the Program.
(3) The lessee or conditional buyer, or
the registered owner if the lessee is not §§ 91.27–91.99 [Reserved]
a citizen of the United States, has noti-
fied by telephone or in person the re- Subpart B—Flight Rules
sponsible Flight Standards office. Un-
less otherwise authorized by that of-
fice, the notification shall be given at SOURCE: Docket No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug.
least 48 hours before takeoff in the case
of the first flight of that aircraft under
GENERAL
that lease or contract and inform the
FAA of— § 91.101 Applicability.
(i) The location of the airport of de-
parture; This subpart prescribes flight rules
(ii) The departure time; and governing the operation of aircraft
(iii) The registration number of the within the United States and within 12
aircraft involved. nautical miles from the coast of the
(d) The copy of the lease or contract United States.
furnished to the FAA under paragraph
(c) of this section is commercial or fi- § 91.103 Preflight action.
nancial information obtained from a Each pilot in command shall, before
person. It is, therefore, privileged and beginning a flight, become familiar
confidential and will not be made with all available information con-
available by the FAA for public inspec- cerning that flight. This information
tion or copying under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) must include—
unless recorded with the FAA under
(a) For a flight under IFR or a flight
not in the vicinity of an airport,
(e) For the purpose of this section, a
lease means any agreement by a person weather reports and forecasts, fuel re-
to furnish an aircraft to another person quirements, alternatives available if
for compensation or hire, whether with the planned flight cannot be com-
or without flight crewmembers, other pleted, and any known traffic delays of
than an agreement for the sale of an which the pilot in command has been
aircraft and a contract of conditional advised by ATC;
sale under section 101 of the Federal (b) For any flight, runway lengths at
Aviation Act of 1958. The person fur- airports of intended use, and the fol-
nishing the aircraft is referred to as lowing takeoff and landing distance in-
the lessor, and the person to whom it is formation:
furnished the lessee. (1) For civil aircraft for which an ap-
(Approved by the Office of Management and proved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight
Budget under control number 2120–0005) Manual containing takeoff and landing
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as
distance data is required, the takeoff
amended by Amdt. 91–212, 54 FR 39293, Sept. and landing distance data contained
25, 1989; Amdt. 91–253, 62 FR 13253, Mar. 19, therein; and
1997; Amdt. 91–267, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; (2) For civil aircraft other than those
Docket FAA–2018–0119, Amdt. 91–350, 83 FR specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this sec-
9171, Mar. 5, 2018]
tion, other reliable information appro-
§ 91.25 Aviation Safety Reporting Pro- priate to the aircraft, relating to air-
gram: Prohibition against use of re- craft performance under expected val-
ports for enforcement purposes. ues of airport elevation and runway
The Administrator of the FAA will slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind
not use reports submitted to the Na- and temperature.
tional Aeronautics and Space Adminis-

tration under the Aviation Safety Re-
724
§ 91.105 Flight crewmembers at sta- fore November 2, 1987) must occupy an

tions. approved seat or berth with a safety
(a) During takeoff and landing, and belt and, if installed, shoulder harness,
while en route, each required flight properly secured about him or her dur-
crewmember shall— ing movement on the surface, takeoff,
(1) Be at the crewmember station un- and landing. For seaplane and float
less the absence is necessary to per- equipped rotorcraft operations during
form duties in connection with the op- movement on the surface, the person
eration of the aircraft or in connection pushing off the seaplane or rotorcraft
with physiological needs; and from the dock and the person mooring
(2) Keep the safety belt fastened the seaplane or rotorcraft at the dock
while at the crewmember station. are excepted from the preceding seat-
(b) Each required flight crewmember ing and safety belt requirements. Not-
of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, withstanding the preceding require-
during takeoff and landing, keep his or ments of this paragraph, a person may:
her shoulder harness fastened while at (i) Be held by an adult who is occu-
his or her assigned duty station. This pying an approved seat or berth, pro-
paragraph does not apply if— vided that the person being held has
(1) The seat at the crewmember’s sta- not reached his or her second birthday
tion is not equipped with a shoulder and does not occupy or use any re-
harness; or straining device;
(2) The crewmember would be unable (ii) Use the floor of the aircraft as a
to perform required duties with the seat, provided that the person is on
shoulder harness fastened. board for the purpose of engaging in
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as
sport parachuting; or
amended by Amdt. 91–231, 57 FR 42671, Sept. (iii) Notwithstanding any other re-
15, 1992] quirement of this chapter, occupy an
approved child restraint system fur-
§ 91.107 Use of safety belts, shoulder nished by the operator or one of the
harnesses, and child restraint sys- persons described in paragraph
tems. (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section provided
(a) Unless otherwise authorized by that:
the Administrator— (A) The child is accompanied by a
(1) No pilot may take off a U.S.-reg- parent, guardian, or attendant des-
istered civil aircraft (except a free bal- ignated by the child’s parent or guard-
loon that incorporates a basket or gon- ian to attend to the safety of the child
dola, or an airship type certificated be- during the flight;
fore November 2, 1987) unless the pilot (B) Except as provided in paragraph
in command of that aircraft ensures (a)(3)(iii)(B)(4) of this action, the ap-
that each person on board is briefed on proved child restraint system bears one
how to fasten and unfasten that per- or more labels as follows:
son’s safety belt and, if installed, (1) Seats manufactured to U.S. stand-
shoulder harness. ards between January 1, 1981, and Feb-
(2) No pilot may cause to be moved ruary 25, 1985, must bear the label:
on the surface, take off, or land a U.S.- ‘‘This child restraint system conforms
registered civil aircraft (except a free to all applicable Federal motor vehicle
balloon that incorporates a basket or safety standards’’;
gondola, or an airship type certificated (2) Seats manufactured to U.S. stand-
before November 2, 1987) unless the ards on or after February 26, 1985, must
pilot in command of that aircraft en- bear two labels:
sures that each person on board has (i) ‘‘This child restraint system con-
been notified to fasten his or her safety forms to all applicable Federal motor
belt and, if installed, his or her shoul- vehicle safety standards’’; and
der harness. (ii) ‘‘THIS RESTRAINT IS CER-
(3) Except as provided in this para- TIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHI-
graph, each person on board a U.S.-reg- CLES AND AIRCRAFT’’ in red let-
istered civil aircraft (except a free bal- tering;
loon that incorporates a basket or gon- (3) Seats that do not qualify under
dola or an airship type certificated be- paragraphs (a)(3)(iii)(B)(1) and
725
§ 91.109 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(a)(3)(iii)(B)(2) of this section must § 91.109 Flight instruction; Simulated

bear a label or markings showing: instrument flight and certain flight
(ii) That the seat was manufactured tests.
under the standards of the United Na- (a) No person may operate a civil air-
tions; craft (except a manned free balloon)
(iii) That the seat or child restraint that is being used for flight instruction
device furnished by the operator was unless that aircraft has fully func-
approved by the FAA through Type tioning dual controls. However, instru-
Certificate or Supplemental Type Cer- ment flight instruction may be given
tificate; or in an airplane that is equipped with a
(iv) That the seat or child restraint single, functioning throwover control
device furnished by the operator, or wheel that controls the elevator and
one of the persons described in para- ailerons, in place of fixed, dual con-
graph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section, was trols, when—
approved by the FAA in accordance (1) The instructor has determined
with § 21.8(d) of this chapter or Tech- that the flight can be conducted safely;
nical Standard Order C–100b or a later and
version. The child restraint device (2) The person manipulating the con-
manufactured by AmSafe, Inc. trols has at least a private pilot certifi-
(CARES, Part No. 4082) and approved cate with appropriate category and
by the FAA in accordance with class ratings.
§ 21.305(d) (2010 ed.) of this chapter may (b) An airplane equipped with a sin-
continue to bear a label or markings gle, functioning throwover control
showing FAA approval in accordance wheel that controls the elevator and
ailerons, in place of fixed, dual controls
with § 21.305(d) (2010 ed.) of this chapter.
may be used for flight instruction to
(4) Except as provided in
conduct a flight review required by
§ 91.107(a)(3)(iii)(B)(3)(iii) and § 61.56 of this chapter, or to obtain re-
§ 91.107(a)(3)(iii)(B)(3)(iv), booster-type cent flight experience or an instrument
child restraint systems (as defined in proficiency check required by § 61.57
Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard when—
No. 213 (49 CFR 571.213)), vest- and har- (1) The airplane is equipped with op-
ness-type child restraint systems, and erable rudder pedals at both pilot sta-
lap held child restraints are not ap- tions;
proved for use in aircraft; and (2) The pilot manipulating the con-
(C) The operator complies with the trols is qualified to serve and serves as
following requirements: pilot in command during the entire
(1) The restraint system must be flight;
properly secured to an approved for- (3) The instructor is current and
ward-facing seat or berth; qualified to serve as pilot in command
(2) The child must be properly se- of the airplane, meets the requirements
cured in the restraint system and must of § 61.195(b), and has logged at least 25
not exceed the specified weight limit hours of pilot-in-command flight time
for the restraint system; and in the make and model of airplane; and
(3) The restraint system must bear (4) The pilot in command and the in-
the appropriate label(s). structor have determined the flight can
(b) Unless otherwise stated, this sec- be conducted safely.
tion does not apply to operations con- (c) No person may operate a civil air-
ducted under part 121, 125, or 135 of this craft in simulated instrument flight
chapter. Paragraph (a)(3) of this sec- unless—
tion does not apply to persons subject (1) The other control seat is occupied
to § 91.105. by a safety pilot who possesses at least:
(i) A private pilot certificate with
[Doc. No. 26142, 57 FR 42671, Sept. 15, 1992, as
amended by Amdt. 91–250, 61 FR 28421, June
category and class ratings appropriate
4, 1996; Amdt. 91–289, 70 FR 50906, Aug. 26, to the aircraft being flown; or
(ii) For purposes of providing train-
2005; Amdt. 91–292, 71 FR 40009, July 14, 2006;

Amdt. 91–317, 75 FR 48857, Aug. 12, 2010; ing for a solo cross-country endorse-
Amdt. 91–332, 79 FR 28812, May 20, 2014] ment under § 61.93 of this chapter, a
726
flight instructor certificate with an ap- flight rules or visual flight rules, vigi-
propriate sport pilot rating and meets lance shall be maintained by each per-
the requirements of § 61.412 of this son operating an aircraft so as to see
chapter. and avoid other aircraft. When a rule of
(2) The safety pilot has adequate vi- this section gives another aircraft the
sion forward and to each side of the right-of-way, the pilot shall give way
aircraft, or a competent observer in the to that aircraft and may not pass over,
aircraft adequately supplements the vi- under, or ahead of it unless well clear.
sion of the safety pilot; and (c) In distress. An aircraft in distress
(3) Except in the case of lighter-than-
has the right-of-way over all other air
air aircraft, that aircraft is equipped
traffic.
with fully functioning dual controls.
However, simulated instrument flight (d) Converging. When aircraft of the
may be conducted in a single-engine same category are converging at ap-
airplane, equipped with a single, func- proximately the same altitude (except
tioning, throwover control wheel, in head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to
place of fixed, dual controls of the ele- the other’s right has the right-of-way.
vator and ailerons, when— If the aircraft are of different cat-
(i) The safety pilot has determined egories—
that the flight can be conducted safely; (1) A balloon has the right-of-way
and over any other category of aircraft;
(ii) The person manipulating the con- (2) A glider has the right-of-way over
trols has at least a private pilot certifi- an airship, powered parachute, weight-
cate with appropriate category and shift-control aircraft, airplane, or
class ratings. rotorcraft.
(d) No person may operate a civil air- (3) An airship has the right-of-way
craft that is being used for a flight test over a powered parachute, weight-shift-
for an airline transport pilot certifi-
control aircraft, airplane, or rotor-
cate or a class or type rating on that
craft.
certificate, or for a part 121 proficiency
flight test, unless the pilot seated at However, an aircraft towing or re-
the controls, other than the pilot being fueling other aircraft has the right-of-
checked, is fully qualified to act as way over all other engine-driven air-
pilot in command of the aircraft. craft.
(e) Approaching head-on. When air-
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as
craft are approaching each other head-
31, 2011; Amdt. 61–142, 83 FR 30281, June 27, on, or nearly so, each pilot of each air-
2018] craft shall alter course to the right.
(f) Overtaking. Each aircraft that is
§ 91.111 Operating near other aircraft. being overtaken has the right-of-way
(a) No person may operate an aircraft and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft
so close to another aircraft as to create shall alter course to the right to pass
a collision hazard. well clear.
(b) No person may operate an aircraft (g) Landing. Aircraft, while on final
in formation flight except by arrange- approach to land or while landing, have
ment with the pilot in command of the right-of-way over other aircraft in
each aircraft in the formation. flight or operating on the surface, ex-
(c) No person may operate an air- cept that they shall not take advan-
craft, carrying passengers for hire, in tage of this rule to force an aircraft off
formation flight.
the runway surface which has already
§ 91.113 Right-of-way rules: Except landed and is attempting to make way
water operations. for an aircraft on final approach. When
(a) Inapplicability. This section does two or more aircraft are approaching
not apply to the operation of an air- an airport for the purpose of landing,
craft on water. the aircraft at the lower altitude has
(b) General. When weather conditions the right-of-way, but it shall not take
permit, regardless of whether an oper- advantage of this rule to cut in front of

ation is conducted under instrument
727
§ 91.115 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
another which is on final approach to at an indicated airspeed of more than

land or to overtake that aircraft. 200 knots (230 mph).
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as (d) If the minimum safe airspeed for
amended by Amdt. 91–282, 69 FR 44880, July any particular operation is greater
27, 2004] than the maximum speed prescribed in
this section, the aircraft may be oper-
§ 91.115 Right-of-way rules: Water op- ated at that minimum speed.
erations.
[Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34292, Aug. 18, 1989, as
(a) General. Each person operating an amended by Amdt. 91–219, 55 FR 34708, Aug.
aircraft on the water shall, insofar as 24, 1990; Amdt. 91–227, 56 FR 65657, Dec. 17,
possible, keep clear of all vessels and 1991; Amdt. 91–233, 58 FR 43554, Aug. 17, 1993]
avoid impeding their navigation, and
shall give way to any vessel or other § 91.119 Minimum safe altitudes: Gen-
aircraft that is given the right-of-way eral.
by any rule of this section. Except when necessary for takeoff or
(b) Crossing. When aircraft, or an air- landing, no person may operate an air-
craft and a vessel, are on crossing craft below the following altitudes:
courses, the aircraft or vessel to the (a) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if
other’s right has the right-of-way. a power unit fails, an emergency land-
(c) Approaching head-on. When airing without undue hazard to persons or
craft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are property on the surface.
approaching head-on, or nearly so, each (b) Over congested areas. Over any
shall alter its course to the right to congested area of a city, town, or set-
keep well clear. tlement, or over any open air assembly
(d) Overtaking. Each aircraft or vessel of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet
that is being overtaken has the right- above the highest obstacle within a
of-way, and the one overtaking shall horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the
alter course to keep well clear. aircraft.
(e) Special circumstances. When air- (c) Over other than congested areas. An
craft, or an aircraft and a vessel, ap- altitude of 500 feet above the surface,
proach so as to involve risk of colli- except over open water or sparsely pop-
sion, each aircraft or vessel shall pro- ulated areas. In those cases, the air-
ceed with careful regard to existing craft may not be operated closer than
circumstances, including the limita- 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle,
tions of the respective craft. or structure.
§ 91.117 Aircraft speed. (d) Helicopters, powered parachutes,
and weight-shift-control aircraft. If the
(a) Unless otherwise authorized by operation is conducted without hazard
the Administrator, no person may op- to persons or property on the surface—
erate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL
(1) A helicopter may be operated at
at an indicated airspeed of more than
less than the minimums prescribed in
250 knots (288 m.p.h.).
paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, pro-
(b) Unless otherwise authorized or re-
vided each person operating the heli-
quired by ATC, no person may operate
copter complies with any routes or al-
an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above
titudes specifically prescribed for heli-
the surface within 4 nautical miles of
copters by the FAA; and
the primary airport of a Class C or
(2) A powered parachute or weight-
Class D airspace area at an indicated
shift-control aircraft may be operated
airspeed of more than 200 knots (230
at less than the minimums prescribed
mph.). This paragraph (b) does not
in paragraph (c) of this section.
apply to any operations within a Class
B airspace area. Such operations shall [Doc. No. 18334, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as
comply with paragraph (a) of this sec- amended by Amdt. 91–311, 75 FR 5223, Feb. 1,
tion. 2010]
(c) No person may operate an aircraft
in the airspace underlying a Class B § 91.121 Altimeter settings.
airspace area designated for an airport (a) Each person operating an aircraft
or in a VFR corridor designated shall maintain the cruising altitude or

through such a Class B airspace area, flight level of that aircraft, as the case
728
may be, by reference to an altimeter response to a traffic alert and collision

that is set, when operating— avoidance system resolution advisory.
(1) Below 18,000 feet MSL, to— However, except in Class A airspace, a
(i) The current reported altimeter pilot may cancel an IFR flight plan if
setting of a station along the route and the operation is being conducted in
within 100 nautical miles of the air- VFR weather conditions. When a pilot
craft; is uncertain of an ATC clearance, that
(ii) If there is no station within the pilot shall immediately request clari-
area prescribed in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of fication from ATC.
this section, the current reported al- (b) Except in an emergency, no per-
timeter setting of an appropriate avail- son may operate an aircraft contrary
able station; or to an ATC instruction in an area in
(iii) In the case of an aircraft not which air traffic control is exercised.
equipped with a radio, the elevation of (c) Each pilot in command who, in an
the departure airport or an appropriate emergency, or in response to a traffic
altimeter setting available before de- alert and collision avoidance system
parture; or resolution advisory, deviates from an
(2) At or above 18,000 feet MSL, to ATC clearance or instruction shall no-
29.92″ Hg. tify ATC of that deviation as soon as
(b) The lowest usable flight level is possible.
determined by the atmospheric pres- (d) Each pilot in command who
sure in the area of operation as shown (though not deviating from a rule of
in the following table: this subpart) is given priority by ATC
in an emergency, shall submit a de-
Lowest
usable tailed report of that emergency within
Current altimeter setting flight 48 hours to the manager of that ATC
level facility, if requested by ATC.
29.92 (or higher) ...................................................... 180 (e) Unless otherwise authorized by
29.91 through 29.42 ................................................ 185 ATC, no person operating an aircraft
29.41 through 28.92 ................................................ 190 may operate that aircraft according to
28.91 through 28.42 ................................................ 195
28.41 through 27.92 ................................................ 200 any clearance or instruction that has
27.91 through 27.42 ................................................ 205 been issued to the pilot of another air-
27.41 through 26.92 ................................................ 210 craft for radar air traffic control pur-
poses.
(c) To convert minimum altitude pre-
scribed under §§ 91.119 and 91.177 to the (Approved by the Office of Management and
minimum flight level, the pilot shall Budget under control number 2120–0005)
take the flight level equivalent of the [Doc. No. 18834, 54 FR 34294, Aug. 18, 1989, as
minimum altitude in feet and add the amended by Amdt. 91–227, 56 FR 65658, Dec.
appropriate number of feet specified 17, 1991; Amdt. 91–244, 60 FR 50679, Sept. 29,
below, according to the current re- 1995]
ported altimeter setting: § 91.125 ATC light signals.
Adjust- ATC light signals have the meaning
Current altimeter setting ment
factor shown in the following table:
29.92 (or higher) ...................................................... None Meaning with re- Meaning with re-
Color and type of
29.91 through 29.42 ................................................ 500 spect to aircraft on spect to aircraft in
signal
29.41 through 28.92 ................................................ 1,000 the surface flight
28.91 through 28.42 ................................................ 1,500
Steady green ........ Cleared for takeoff Cleared to land.
28.41 through 27.92 ................................................ 2,000
Flashing green ...... Cleared to taxi ...... Return for landing
27.91 through 27.42 ................................................ 2,500
(to be followed
27.41 through 26.92 ................................................ 3,000
by steady green
at proper time).
Steady red ............ Stop ...................... Give way to other
§ 91.123 Compliance with ATC clear- aircraft and con-
ances and instructions. tinue circling.
(a) When an ATC clearance has been Flashing red .......... Taxi clear of run- Airport unsafe—do
way in use. not land.
obtained, no pilot in command may de- Flashing white ...... Return to starting Not applicable.
viate from that clearance unless an point on airport.
amended clearance is obtained, an Alternating red and Exercise extreme Exercise extreme
green. caution. caution.
emergency exists, or the deviation is in
729
§ 91.126 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
§ 91.126 Operating on or in the vicinity fails while in flight under IFR, the
of an airport in Class G airspace. pilot must comply with § 91.185.
(a) General. Unless otherwise author- [Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as
ized or required, each person operating amended by Amdt. 91–239, 59 FR 11693, Mar.
an aircraft on or in the vicinity of an 11, 1994; Amdt. 91–282, 69 FR 44880, July 27,
2004]
airport in a Class G airspace area must
comply with the requirements of this § 91.127 Operating on or in the vicinity
section. of an airport in Class E airspace.
(b) Direction of turns. When approach- (a) Unless otherwise required by part
ing to land at an airport without an op- 93 of this chapter or unless otherwise
erating control tower in Class G air- authorized or required by the ATC fa-
space— cility having jurisdiction over the
(1) Each pilot of an airplane must Class E airspace area, each person op-
make all turns of that airplane to the erating an aircraft on or in the vicinity
left unless the airport displays ap- of an airport in a Class E airspace area
proved light signals or visual markings must comply with the requirements of
indicating that turns should be made § 91.126.
to the right, in which case the pilot (b) Departures. Each pilot of an air-
must make all turns to the right; and craft must comply with any traffic pat-
terns established for that airport in
(2) Each pilot of a helicopter or a
powered parachute must avoid the flow
(c) Communications with control tow-
of fixed-wing aircraft. ers. Unless otherwise authorized or re-
(c) Flap settings. Except when nec- quired by ATC, no person may operate
essary for training or certification, the an aircraft to, from, through, or on an
pilot in command of a civil turbojet- airport having an operational control
powered aircraft must use, as a final tower unless two-way radio commu-
flap setting, the minimum certificated nications are maintained between that
landing flap setting set forth in the ap- aircraft and the control tower. Commu-
proved performance information in the nications must be established prior to 4
Airplane Flight Manual for the appli- nautical miles from the airport, up to
cable conditions. However, each pilot and including 2,500 feet AGL. However,
in command has the final authority if the aircraft radio fails in flight, the
and responsibility for the safe oper- pilot in command may operate that
ation of the pilot’s airplane, and may aircraft and land if weather conditions
use a different flap setting for that air- are at or above basic VFR weather
plane if the pilot determines that it is minimums, visual contact with the
necessary in the interest of safety. tower is maintained, and a clearance to
(d) Communications with control tow- land is received. If the aircraft radio
ers. Unless otherwise authorized or re- fails while in flight under IFR, the
pilot must comply with § 91.185.
quired by ATC, no person may operate
an aircraft to, from, through, or on an [Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as
airport having an operational control amended by Amdt. 91–239, 59 FR 11693, Mar.
11, 1994]
tower unless two-way radio commu-
nications are maintained between that § 91.129 Operations in Class D air-
aircraft and the control tower. Commu- space.
nications must be established prior to 4 (a) General. Unless otherwise author-
nautical miles from the airport, up to ized or required by the ATC facility
and including 2,500 feet AGL. However, having jurisdiction over the Class D
if the aircraft radio fails in flight, the airspace area, each person operating an
pilot in command may operate that aircraft in Class D airspace must com-
aircraft and land if weather conditions ply with the applicable provisions of
are at or above basic VFR weather this section. In addition, each person
minimums, visual contact with the must comply with §§ 91.126 and 91.127.
tower is maintained, and a clearance to For the purpose of this section, the pri-
land is received. If the aircraft radio mary airport is the airport for which
the Class D airspace area is designated.
730
A satellite airport is any other airport operating a large or turbine-powered

within the Class D airspace area. airplane must enter the traffic pattern
(b) Deviations. An operator may devi- at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet
ate from any provision of this section above the elevation of the airport and
under the provisions of an ATC author- maintain at least 1,500 feet until fur-
ization issued by the ATC facility hav- ther descent is required for a safe land-
ing jurisdiction over the airspace con- ing.
cerned. ATC may authorize a deviation (2) Each pilot operating a large or
on a continuing basis or for an indi- turbine-powered airplane approaching
vidual flight, as appropriate. to land on a runway served by an in-
(c) Communications. Each person oper- strument approach procedure with
ating an aircraft in Class D airspace vertical guidance, if the airplane is so
must meet the following two-way radio equipped, must:
communications requirements: (i) Operate that airplane at an alti-
(1) Arrival or through flight. Each per- tude at or above the glide path between
son must establish two-way radio com- the published final approach fix and
munications with the ATC facility (in- the decision altitude (DA), or decision
cluding foreign ATC in the case of for- height (DH), as applicable; or
eign airspace designated in the United (ii) If compliance with the applicable
States) providing air traffic services distance-from-cloud criteria requires
prior to entering that airspace and glide path interception closer in, oper-
thereafter maintain those communica- ate that airplane at or above the glide
tions while within that airspace. path, between the point of interception
(2) Departing flight. Each person— of glide path and the DA or the DH.
(i) From the primary airport or sat- (3) Each pilot operating an airplane
ellite airport with an operating control approaching to land on a runway
tower must establish and maintain served by a visual approach slope indi-
two-way radio communications with cator must maintain an altitude at or
the control tower, and thereafter as in- above the glide path until a lower alti-
structed by ATC while operating in the tude is necessary for a safe landing.
Class D airspace area; or
(4) Paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this
(ii) From a satellite airport without
section do not prohibit normal brack-
an operating control tower, must es-
eting maneuvers above or below the
tablish and maintain two-way radio
glide path that are conducted for the
communications with the ATC facility
purpose of remaining on the glide path.
having jurisdiction over the Class D
airspace area as soon as practicable (f) Approaches. Except when con-
ducting a circling approach under part
after departing.
97 of this chapter or unless otherwise
(d) Communications failure. Each per-
required by ATC, each pilot must—
son who operates an aircraft in a Class
D airspace area must maintain two- (1) Circle the airport to the left, if op-
way radio communications with the erating an airplane; or
ATC facility having jurisdiction over (2) Avoid the flow of fixed-wing air-
that area. craft, if operating a helicopter.
(1) If the aircraft radio fails in flight (g) Departures. No person may oper-
under IFR, the pilot must comply with ate an aircraft departing from an air-
§ 91.185 of the part. port except in compliance with the fol-
(2) If the aircraft radio fails in flight lowing:
under VFR, the pilot in command may (1) Each pilot must comply with any
operate that aircraft and land if— departure procedures established for
(i) Weather conditions are at or that airport by the FAA.
above basic VFR weather minimums; (2) Unless otherwise required by the
(ii) Visual contact with the tower is prescribed departure procedure for that
maintained; and airport or the applicable distance from
(iii) A clearance to land is received. clouds criteria, each pilot of a turbine-
(e) Minimum altitudes when operating powered airplane and each pilot of a
to an airport in Class D airspace. (1) Un- large airplane must climb to an alti-
less required by the applicable dis- tude of 1,500 feet above the surface as
tance-from-cloud criteria, each pilot rapidly as practicable.
731
§ 91.130 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
(h) Noise abatement. Where a formal structed by ATC while operating in the
runway use program has been estab- Class C airspace area; or
lished by the FAA, each pilot of a large (ii) From a satellite airport without
or turbine-powered airplane assigned a an operating control tower, must es-
noise abatement runway by ATC must tablish and maintain two-way radio
use that runway. However, consistent communications with the ATC facility
with the final authority of the pilot in having jurisdiction over the Class C
command concerning the safe oper- airspace area as soon as practicable
ation of the aircraft as prescribed in after departing.
§ 91.3(a), ATC may assign a different (d) Equipment requirements. Unless
runway if requested by the pilot in the otherwise authorized by the ATC hav-
interest of safety. ing jurisdiction over the Class C air-
(i) Takeoff, landing, taxi clearance. No space area, no person may operate an
person may, at any airport with an op- aircraft within a Class C airspace area
erating control tower, operate an air- designated for an airport unless that
craft on a runway or taxiway, or take aircraft is equipped with the applicable
off or land an aircraft, unless an appro- equipment specified in § 91.215, and
priate clearance is received from ATC. after January 1, 2020, § 91.225.
[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as (e) Deviations. An operator may devi-
amended by Amdt. 91–234, 58 FR 48793, Sept. ate from any provision of this section
20, 1993; Amdt. 91–296, 72 FR 31678, June 7, under the provisions of an ATC author-
2007; 77 FR 28250, May 14, 2012] ization issued by the ATC facility hav-
ing jurisdiction over the airspace con-
§ 91.130 Operations in Class C air- cerned. ATC may authorize a deviation
space.
on a continuing basis or for an indi-
(a) General. Unless otherwise author- vidual flight, as appropriate.
ized by ATC, each aircraft operation in
Class C airspace must be conducted in [Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65659, Dec. 17, 1991, as
compliance with this section and amended by Amdt. 91–232, 58 FR 40736, July
30, 1993; Amdt. 91–239, 59 FR 11693, Mar. 11,
§ 91.129. For the purpose of this section, 1994; Amdt. 91–314, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010]
the primary airport is the airport for
which the Class C airspace area is des- § 91.131 Operations in Class B air-
ignated. A satellite airport is any other space.
airport within the Class C airspace
area. (a) Operating rules. No person may op-
(b) Traffic patterns. No person may erate an aircraft within a Class B air-
take off or land an aircraft at a sat- space area except in compliance with
ellite airport within a Class C airspace § 91.129 and the following rules:
area except in compliance with FAA (1) The operator must receive an ATC
arrival and departure traffic patterns. clearance from the ATC facility having
(c) Communications. Each person oper- jurisdiction for that area before oper-
ating an aircraft in Class C airspace ating an aircraft in that area.
must meet the following two-way radio (2) Unless otherwise authorized by
communications requirements: ATC, each person operating a large tur-
(1) Arrival or through flight. Each per- bine engine-powered airplane to or
son must establish two-way radio com- from a primary airport for which a
munications with the ATC facility (in- Class B airspace area is designated
cluding foreign ATC in the case of for- must operate at or above the des-
eign airspace designated in the United ignated floors of the Class B airspace
States) providing air traffic services area while within the lateral limits of
prior to entering that airspace and that area.
thereafter maintain those communica- (3) Any person conducting pilot
tions while within that airspace. training operations at an airport with-
(2) Departing flight. Each person— in a Class B airspace area must comply
(i) From the primary airport or sat- with any procedures established by
ellite airport with an operating control ATC for such operations in that area.
tower must establish and maintain (b) Pilot requirements. (1) No person
two-way radio communications with may take off or land a civil aircraft at
the control tower, and thereafter as in- an airport within a Class B airspace
732
area or operate a civil aircraft within a Broadcast Out equipment specified in

Class B airspace area unless— § 91.225.
(i) The pilot in command holds at [Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65658, Dec. 17, 1991, as
least a private pilot certificate; amended by Amdt. 91–282, 69 FR 44880, July
(ii) The pilot in command holds a 27, 2004; Amdt. 91–296, 72 FR 31678, June 7,
recreational pilot certificate and has 2007; Amdt. 91–314, 75 FR 30193, May 28, 2010]
met—
(A) The requirements of § 61.101(d) of § 91.133 Restricted and prohibited
areas.
this chapter; or
(B) The requirements for a student (a) No person may operate an aircraft
pilot seeking a recreational pilot cer- within a restricted area (designated in
tificate in § 61.94 of this chapter; part 73) contrary to the restrictions
(iii) The pilot in command holds a imposed, or within a prohibited area,
sport pilot certificate and has met— unless that person has the permission
of the using or controlling agency, as
(A) The requirements of § 61.325 of
appropriate.
this chapter; or
(b) Each person conducting, within a
(B) The requirements for a student restricted area, an aircraft operation
pilot seeking a recreational pilot cer- (approved by the using agency) that
tificate in § 61.94 of this chapter; or creates the same hazards as the oper-
(iv) The aircraft is operated by a stu- ations for which the restricted area
dent pilot who has met the require- was designated may deviate from the
ments of § 61.94 or § 61.95 of this chapter, rules of this subpart that are not com-
as applicable. patible with the operation of the air-
(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of craft.
paragraphs (b)(1)(ii), (b)(1)(iii) and
(b)(1)(iv) of this section, no person may § 91.135 Operations in Class A air-
take off or land a civil aircraft at those space.
airports listed in section 4 of appendix Except as provided in paragraph (d)
D to this part unless the pilot in com- of this section, each person operating
mand holds at least a private pilot cer- an aircraft in Class A airspace must
tificate. conduct that operation under instru-
(c) Communications and navigation ment flight rules (IFR) and in compli-
equipment requirements. Unless other- ance with the following:
wise authorized by ATC, no person may (a) Clearance. Operations may be con-
operate an aircraft within a Class B ducted only under an ATC clearance re-
airspace area unless that aircraft is ceived prior to entering the airspace.
equipped with— (b) Communications. Unless otherwise
(1) For IFR operation. An operable authorized by ATC, each aircraft oper-
VOR or TACAN receiver or an operable ating in Class A airspace must be
and suitable RNAV system; and equipped with a two-way radio capable
of communicating with ATC on a fre-
(2) For all operations. An operable
quency assigned by ATC. Each pilot
two-way radio capable of communica-
must maintain two-way radio commu-
tions with ATC on appropriate fre- nications with ATC while operating in
quencies for that Class B airspace area. Class A airspace.
(d) Other equipment requirements. No (c) Equipment requirements. Unless
person may operate an aircraft in a otherwise authorized by ATC, no per-
Class B airspace area unless the air- son may operate an aircraft within
craft is equipped with— Class A airspace unless that aircraft is
(1) The applicable operating trans- equipped with the applicable equip-
ponder and automatic altitude report- ment specified in § 91.215, and after Jan-
ing equipment specified in § 91.215 (a), uary 1, 2020, § 91.225.
except as provided in § 91.215 (e), and (d) ATC authorizations. An operator
(2) After January 1, 2020, the applica- may deviate from any provision of this
ble Automatic Dependent Surveillance- section under the provisions of an ATC
authorization issued by the ATC facil-

ity having jurisdiction of the airspace
733
§ 91.137 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
concerned. In the case of an inoper- (1) The aircraft is participating in

ative transponder, ATC may imme- hazard relief activities and is being op-
diately approve an operation within a erated under the direction of the offi-
Class A airspace area allowing flight to cial in charge of on scene emergency
continue, if desired, to the airport of response activities.
ultimate destination, including any in- (2) The aircraft is carrying law en-
termediate stops, or to proceed to a forcement officials.
place where suitable repairs can be (3) The aircraft is operating under
made, or both. Requests for deviation
the ATC approved IFR flight plan.
from any provision of this section must
be submitted in writing, at least 4 days (4) The operation is conducted di-
before the proposed operation. ATC rectly to or from an airport within the
may authorize a deviation on a con- area, or is necessitated by the imprac-
tinuing basis or for an individual ticability of VFR flight above or
flight. around the area due to weather, or ter-
rain; notification is given to the Flight
[Doc. No. 24458, 56 FR 65659, Dec. 17, 1991, as
Service Station (FSS) or ATC facility
amended by Amdt. 91–314, 75 FR 30193, May
28, 2010] specified in the NOTAM to receive
advisories concerning disaster relief
§ 91.137 Temporary flight restrictions aircraft operations; and the operation
in the vicinity of disaster/hazard does not hamper or endanger relief ac-
areas. tivities and is not conducted for the
(a) The Administrator will issue a purpose of observing the disaster.
Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) desig- (5) The aircraft is carrying properly
nating an area within which temporary accredited news representatives, and,
flight restrictions apply and specifying prior to entering the area, a flight plan
the hazard or condition requiring their is filed with the appropriate FAA or
imposition, whenever he determines it ATC facility specified in the Notice to
is necessary in order to— Airmen and the operation is conducted
(1) Protect persons and property on above the altitude used by the disaster
the surface or in the air from a hazard relief aircraft, unless otherwise author-
associated with an incident on the sur- ized by the official in charge of on
face; scene emergency response activities.
(2) Provide a safe environment for
(d) When a NOTAM has been issued
the operation of disaster relief aircraft;
under paragraph (a)(3) of this section,
or
(3) Prevent an unsafe congestion of no person may operate an aircraft
sightseeing and other aircraft above an within the designated area unless at
incident or event which may generate a least one of the following conditions is
high degree of public interest. met:
(1) The operation is conducted di-
The Notice to Airmen will specify the rectly to or from an airport within the
hazard or condition that requires the area, or is necessitated by the imprac-
imposition of temporary flight restric- ticability of VFR flight above or
tions. around the area due to weather or ter-
(b) When a NOTAM has been issued
rain, and the operation is not con-
under paragraph (a)(1) of this section,
ducted for the purpose of observing the
no person may operate an aircraft
incident or event.
within the designated area unless that
aircraft is participating in the hazard (2) The aircraft is operating under an
relief activities and is being operated ATC approved IFR flight plan.
under the direction of the official in (3) The aircraft is carrying incident
charge of on scene emergency response or event personnel, or law enforcement
activities. officials.
(c) When a NOTAM has been issued (4) The aircraft is carrying properly
under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, accredited news representatives and,
no person may operate an aircraft prior to entering that area, a flight
within the designated area unless at plan is filed with the appropriate FSS
least one of the following conditions or ATC facility specified in the

are met: NOTAM.
734
(e) Flight plans filed and notifica- charge of on-scene emergency response
tions made with an FSS or ATC facil- activities.
ity under this section shall include the (5) The aircraft is operating in ac-
following information: cordance with an ATC clearance or in-
(1) Aircraft identification, type and struction.
color. (c) A NOTAM issued under this sec-
(2) Radio communications fre- tion is effective for 90 days or until the
quencies to be used. national disaster area designation is
(3) Proposed times of entry of, and terminated, whichever comes first, un-
exit from, the designated area. less terminated by notice or extended
(4) Name of news media or organiza- by the Administrator at the request of
tion and purpose of flight. the Governor of the State of Hawaii or
(5) Any other information requested the Governor’s designee.
by ATC.
[Doc. No. 26476, 56 FR 23178, May 20, 1991, as
§ 91.138 Temporary flight restrictions amended by Amdt. 91–270, 66 FR 47377, Sept.
in national disaster areas in the 11, 2001]
State of Hawaii.
§ 91.139 Emergency air traffic rules.
(a) When the Administrator has de-
termined, pursuant to a request and (a) This section prescribes a process
justification provided by the Governor for utilizing Notices to Airmen
of the State of Hawaii, or the Gov- (NOTAMs) to advise of the issuance
ernor’s designee, that an inhabited and operations under emergency air
area within a declared national dis- traffic rules and regulations and des-
aster area in the State of Hawaii is in ignates the official who is authorized
need of protection for humanitarian to issue NOTAMs on behalf of the Ad-
reasons, the Administrator will issue a ministrator in certain matters under
Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) desig- this section.
nating an area within which temporary (b) Whenever the Administrator de-
flight restrictions apply. The Adminis- termines that an emergency condition
trator will designate the extent and du- exists, or will exist, relating to the
ration of the temporary flight restric- FAA’s ability to operate the air traffic
tions necessary to provide for the pro- control system and during which nor-
tection of persons and property on the mal flight operations under this chap-
surface. ter cannot be conducted consistent
(b) When a NOTAM has been issued in with the required levels of safety and
accordance with this section, no person efficiency—
may operate an aircraft within the des- (1) The Administrator issues an im-
ignated area unless at least one of the mediately effective air traffic rule or
following conditions is met: regulation in response to that emer-
(1) That person has obtained author- gency condition; and
ization from the official in charge of (2) The Administrator or the Asso-
associated emergency or disaster relief ciate Administrator for Air Traffic
response activities, and is operating may utilize the NOTAM system to pro-
the aircraft under the conditions of vide notification of the issuance of the
that authorization. rule or regulation.
(2) The aircraft is carrying law en-
forcement officials. Those NOTAMs communicate informa-
(3) The aircraft is carrying persons tion concerning the rules and regula-
involved in an emergency or a legiti- tions that govern flight operations, the
mate scientific purpose. use of navigation facilities, and des-
(4) The aircraft is carrying properly ignation of that airspace in which the
accredited newspersons, and that prior rules and regulations apply.
to entering the area, a flight plan is (c) When a NOTAM has been issued
filed with the appropriate FAA or ATC under this section, no person may oper-
facility specified in the NOTAM and ate an aircraft, or other device gov-
the operation is conducted in compli- erned by the regulation concerned,
ance with the conditions and restric- within the designated airspace except
tions established by the official in in accordance with the authorizations,
735
§ 91.141 14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–21 Edition)
terms, and conditions prescribed in the § 91.145 Management of aircraft oper-

regulation covered by the NOTAM. ations in the vicinity of aerial dem-
onstrations and major sporting
§ 91.141 Flight restrictions in the prox- events.
imity of the Presidential and other (a) The FAA will issue a Notice to
parties. Airmen (NOTAM) designating an area
No person may operate an aircraft of airspace in which a temporary flight
over or in the vicinity of any area to be restriction applies when it determines
visited or traveled by the President, that a temporary flight restriction is
the Vice President, or other public fig- necessary to protect persons or prop-
ures contrary to the restrictions estab- erty on the surface or in the air, to
lished by the Administrator and pub- maintain air safety and efficiency, or
lished in a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM). to prevent the unsafe congestion of air-
craft in the vicinity of an aerial dem-
§ 91.143 Flight limitation in the prox- onstration or major sporting event.
imity of space flight operations. These demonstrations and events may
include:
When a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) is (1) United States Naval Flight Dem-
issued in accordance with this section, onstration Team (Blue Angels);
no person may operate any aircraft of (2) United States Air Force Air Dem-
U.S. registry, or pilot any aircraft onstration Squadron (Thunderbirds);
under the authority of an airman cer- (3) United States Army Parachute
tificate issued by the Federal Aviation Team (Golden Knights);
Administration, within areas des- (4) Summer/Winter Olympic Games;
ignated in a NOTAM for space flight (5) Annual Tournament of Roses
operation except when authorized by Football Game;
ATC. (6) World Cup Soccer;
(7) Major League Baseball All-Star
[Doc. No. FAA–2004–19246, 69 FR 59753, Oct. 5,
Game;
2004]
(8) World Series;
§ 91.144 Temporary restriction on (9) Kodak Albuquerque International
flight operations during abnormally Balloon Fiesta;
high barometric pressure condi- (10) Sandia Classic Hang Gliding
tions. Competition;
(11) Indianapolis 500 Mile Race;
(a) Special flight restrictions. When any (12) Any other aerial demonstration
information indicates that barometric or sporting event the FAA determines
pressure on the route of flight cur- to need a temporary flight restriction
rently exceeds or will exceed 31 inches in accordance with paragraph (b) of
of mercury, no person may operate an this section.
aircraft or initiate a flight contrary to (b) In deciding whether a temporary
the requirements established by the flight restriction is necessary for an
Administrator and published in a No- aerial demonstration or major sporting
tice to Airmen issued under this sec- event not listed in paragraph (a) of this
tion. section, the FAA considers the fol-
(b) Waivers. The Administrator is au- lowing factors:
thorized to waive any restriction (1) Area where the event will be held.
issued under paragraph (a) of this sec- (2) Effect flight restrictions will have
tion to permit emergency supply, on known aircraft operations.
transport, or medical services to be de- (3) Any existing ATC airspace traffic
livered to isolated communities, where management restrictions.
the operation can be conducted with an (4) Estimated duration of the event.
(5) Degree of public interest.
acceptable level of safety.
(6) Number of spectators.
[Amdt. 91–240, 59 FR 17452, Apr. 12, 1994; 59 FR (7) Provisions for spectator safety.
37669, July 25, 1994] (8) Number and types of participating
aircraft.
(9) Use of mixed high and low per-

formance aircraft.
736
(10) Impact on non-participating air- surface but will not be greater than the
craft. minimum airspace necessary for the
(11) Weather minimums. management of aircraft operations in
(12) Emergency procedures that will the vicinity of the specified area.
be in effect. (f) A NOTAM issued under this sec-
(c) A NOTAM issued under this section will be issued at least 30 days in
tion will state the name of the aerial advance of an aerial demonstration or
demonstration or sporting event and a major sporting event, unless the FAA
specify the effective dates and times, finds good cause for a shorter period
the geographic features or coordinates, and explains this in the NOTAM.
and any other restrictions or proce- (g) When warranted, the FAA Admin-
dures governing flight operations in istrator may exclude the following
the designated airspace. flights from the provisions of this sec-
(d) When a NOTAM has been issued in tion:
accordance with this section, no person (1) Essential military.
may operate an aircraft or device, or (2) Medical and rescue.
engage in any activity within the des- (3) Presidential and Vice Presi-
ignated airspace area, except in accord- dential.
ance with the authorizations, terms, (4) Visiting heads of state.
and conditions of the temporary flight (5) Law enforcement and security.
restriction published in the NOTAM, (6) Public health and welfare.
unless otherwise authorized by: [Doc. No. FAA–2000–8274, 66 FR 47378, Sept.
(1) Air traffic control; or 11, 2001]
(2) A Flight Standards Certificate of
Waiver or Authorization issued for the § 91.146 Passenger-carrying flights for
demonstration or event. the benefit of a charitable, non-
(e) For the purpose of this section: profit, or community event.
(1) Flight restricted airspace area for an (a) Definitions. For purposes of this
aerial demonstration—The amount of section, the following definitions
airspace needed to protect persons and apply:
property on the surface or in the air, to Charitable event means an event that
maintain air safety and efficiency, or raises funds for the benefit of a chari-
to prevent the unsafe congestion of air- table organization recognized by the
craft will vary depending on the aerial Department of the Treasury whose do-
demonstration and the factors listed in nors may deduct contributions under
paragraph (b) of this section. The re- section 170 of the Internal Revenue
stricted airspace area will normally be Code (26 U.S.C. Section 170).
limited to a 5 nautical mile radius Community event means an event that
from the center of the demonstration raises funds for the benefit of any local
and an altitude 17000 mean sea level or community cause that is not a char-
(for high performance aircraft) or 13000 itable event or non-profit event.
feet above the surface (for certain Non-profit event means an event that
parachute operations), but will be no raises funds for the benefit of a non-
greater than the minimum airspace profit organization recognized under
necessary for the management of air- State or Federal law, as long as one of
craft operations in the vicinity of the the organization’s purposes is the pro-
specified area. motion of aviation safety.
(2) Flight restricted area for a major (b) Passenger carrying flights for the
sporting event—The amount of airspace benefit of a charitable, nonprofit, or
needed to protect persons and property community event identified in para-
on the surface or in the air, to main- graph (c) of this section are not subject
tain air safety and efficiency, or to pre- to the certification requirements of
vent the unsafe congestion of aircraft part 119 or the drug and alcohol testing
will vary depending on the size of the requirements in part 120 of this chap-
event and the factors listed in para- ter, provided the following conditions
graph (b) of this section. The restricted are satisfied and the limitations in

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Title 14

Aeronautics and Space

Revised as of January 1, 2021

Containing a codification of documents

Published by the Office of the Federal Register

Legal Status and Use of Seals and Logos

Use of ISBN Prefix

U.S. GOVERNMENT PUBLISHING OFFICE

U.S. Superintendent of Documents • Washington, DC 20402–0001

Phone: toll-free (866) 512-1800; DC area (202) 512-1800

Chapter I—Federal Aviation Administration, Department of

Table of CFR Titles and Chapters ....................................................... 947

Alphabetical List of Agencies Appearing in the CFR ......................... 967

List of CFR Sections Affected ............................................................. 977

To cite the regulations in

lishing in the CFR are also included in this volume.

Title 14—AERONAUTICS AND SPACE is composed of five volumes. The parts in

CHAPTER I—Federal Aviation Administration, Department

71 Designation of class A, B, C, D, and E airspace

91 General operating and flight rules .......................... 712

103 Ultralight vehicles .................................................. 927

PART 60—FLIGHT SIMULATION APPENDIX E TO PART 60—QUALIFICATION PER-

APPENDIX D TO PART 60—QUALIFICATION PER-

is an applicant for, an approved flight fication evaluation conducted by the

the Statement of Qualification that result of continually meeting the re-

determination must be made by a (ii) Within 90 days of the NSPM noti-

(5) Identification of the qualification (i) Consisting of all the elements of

(ii) A description of the corrective by the aircraft manufacturer, but no

plished to meet training, evaluation, or has determined that a full evaluation

conducted quarterly inspections § 60.33 Applications, logbooks, reports,

manner acceptable to the NSPM.

TABLE OF CONTENTS 1. INTRODUCTION

flight test pilot and/or engineer used. into the FFS; or

or reference. FFS test results to the validation data (e.g.,

handled as follows: No additional regulatory or informational

llllllllllllllllllllllll BEGIN INFORMATION

trol of the environmental factors in which No additional regulatory or informational

TABLE A1B—TABLE OF TASKS VS. SIMULATOR LEVEL

Subjective requirements Simulator levels

1.a. ........... Preflight Inspection (flight deck only) ........................................ X X X X

1.b. ........... Engine Start .............................................................................. X X X X

1.c. ........... Taxiing ....................................................................................... R X X

1.d. ........... Pre-takeoff Checks ................................................................... X X X X

2. Takeoff and Departure Phase

2.a. ........... Normal and Crosswind Takeoff R X X

2.b. ........... Instrument Takeoff .................................................................... X X X X

2.c. ........... Engine Failure During Takeoff .................................................. A X X X

2.d. ........... Rejected Takeoff ....................................................................... X X X X

2.e. ........... Departure Procedure ................................................................ X X X X

3.a. ........... Steep Turns .............................................................................. X X X X

3.b.1 ......... Approaches to Stall ................................................................... X X X X

3.d. ........... Engine Failure—Single-Engine Airplane .................................. X X X X

3.e. ........... Specific Flight Characteristics incorporated into the user’s A A A A

4.a. ........... Standard Terminal Arrival/Flight Management System Arrivals X X X X

TABLE A1B—TABLE OF TASKS VS. SIMULATOR LEVEL—Continued

Subjective requirements Simulator levels

4.b. ........... Holding ...................................................................................... X X X X

4.c. ........... Precision Instrument.

4.e. ........... Circling Approach ...................................................................... X X X X Specific authorization required.

4.f. ............ Missed Approach.

4.f.1. ......... Normal ....................................................................................... X X X X

4.f.2. ......... One Engine Inoperative ............................................................ X X X X

5. Landings and Approaches to Landings

5.a. ........... Normal and Crosswind Approaches and Landings .................. R X X