Test Date: 11/11/2020 Phase-I

C
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs FINAL TEST SERIES (ONLINE) MM : 300

for JEE (Main) - 2021

Test – 2
Topics covered
Physics : Electric Charges and Field, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance, Current Electricity.
Chemistry : The Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics and Nuclear Chemistry, Surface
Chemistry.
Mathematics : Basic of Mathematics (Sets, Wavy Curve Method and Inequalities), Relations and Functions (XI &
XII) (Including Transformation of Graphs), Inverse Trigonometric Functions, Matrices, Determinants.

General Instructions:
1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
2. The Test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 25 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.
(i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-II : This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a
numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative
marking for wrong answer.

. PART – A : PHYSICS
SECTION - I R
is carved out of it, as shown, the ratio
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 2
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 | EA |
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY of magnitude of electric field EA and
ONE is correct. | EB |
EB respectively, at points A and B due to the
1. In the given circuit diagram, a wire is joining
remaining portion is:
points B and D. The current in this wire is:

(1) 0.4 A (2) 4 A

18 18
(3) 2 A (4) Zero (1) (2)
34 54
2. Consider a sphere of radius R which carries a 21 17
uniform charge density . If a sphere of radius (3) (4)
34 54
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Test-2_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I

3. In the network shown, points A, B and C are the capacitor C2 is 4 times that of C1. If these
at potentials of 70 V, zero and 10 V capacitors are connected in series, their
respectively. Then effective capacitance will be :
(1) 1.6 F (2) 3.2 F
(3) 4.2 F (4) 8.4 F
8. A small electric dipole of dipole moment p is
placed perpendicular to an infinitely long wire
of linear charge density . The centre of
dipole is at a distance r from the wire as
shown. The electric force on the dipole is
(1) Point D is at a potential of 20 V
(2) The current in section AD, DB, DC are in
the ratio 1 : 2 : 3
(3) The network draws a total power of 100 W
(4) The network draws a total power of 200 W
4. Two capacitors of capacitance 3 F and 6 F
respectively are charged to a potential of 12 V
each. They are connected to each other such
that the positive plate of one is joined to the p p
(1) (2)
negative plate of the other. The potential 60 r 2
40 r 2
difference across each capacitor will now be
p p
(1) Zero (2) 3 V (3) (4)
20 r 2
0 r 2
(3) 4 V (4) 6 V 9. Two plates of a capacitor of capacitance C
5. In the circuit shown in the figure, current are given charges q1 and q2. This capacitor is
through the resistance R3 is connected across a resistance R as shown.
Key is closed at t = 0. Find the total charge on
each plate after time t.

(1) Zero (2) 2 A

3  q + q2   q1 + q2 
(3) 3 A (4) A (1)  1 ,  
2  2   2 
6. The length of a potentiometer wire is 1200 cm –t –t
 q – q2  RC  q1 – q2  CR
and it carries a current of 60 mA. For a cell of (2)  1 e , –  e
 2   2 
emf 5 V and internal resistance of 20 , the
–2t
null point on it is found to be at 1000 cm. The  q – q2   q1 – q2  CR
(3)  1 + e ,
resistance of whole wire is :  2   2 
–2t
(1) 80  (2) 100   q1 + q2   q1 – q2  CR
 – e
 2   2 
(3) 60  (4) 120 
–t
 q + q2   q1 – q2  CR
7. Effective capacitance of parallel combination (4)  1 + e ,
 2   2 
of two capacitors C1 and C2 is 10 F. When
–t
these capacitors are individually connected to  q1 + q2   q1 – q2  CR
 – e
a voltage source of 1 V, the energy stored in  2   2 

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FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I Test-2_ (Code-C)
10. When the resistance of the left gap and the 13. The potential difference between points M
right gap of a meter bridge are 111.56  and and N of the system shown below, if emf is
equal to  = 110 V and capacitance ratio
1  and the null point is found at 99.8 cm.
C1 1
When the resistances are interchanged in the = .
C2 2
gaps, the null point is at 0.3 cm. The end
corrections of the bridge wire are

(1) 0.2 cm, 0.3 cm (2) 0.27 cm, 0.42 cm

(3) 0.60 cm, 0.70 cm (4) 1.52 cm, 0.87 cm

11. A system consists of two metallic spheres of

radii r1 and r2 connected by a thin long wire (1) 10 V (2) 20 V
and a switch S as shown. Initially S is open (3) 30 V (4) 40 V
and spheres carry charges q1 and q2 14. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a
respectively. If the switch is closed, the battery of emf V. Battery is now disconnected
and plates are moved apart slowly to increase
potential of the system is
the separation to 2d. Work done by external
agent is

1 q1q2
(1) V =
40 r1r2 1 0 AV 2 20 AV 2
(1) (2)
2 d d
1  q1 + q2 
(2) V = 5 0 AV 2 3 0 AV 2
40  r1 + r2  (3) (4)
2 d 2 d
15. If the current in the coil decreases to zero
1  q1 q2 
(3) V = +
40  r1 r2 
uniformly during the time interval T, then the
amount of heat generated in a coil of
resistance R due to charge q passing through
1  q1 + q2 
(4) V = it, is
40  r1r2 
4q 2 R  q 2R 
(1) (2) ln  
12. Five 1  resistances are connected as shown 3T  2T 
in figure. The equivalent resistance between 2q 2R  2T 
(3) (4) ln  2 
A and B is 3T q R
16. The potential difference (in V) between points
A and B shown in figure.

1
(1) 2  (2) 
2
(1) 6 V (2) 2 V
1
(3) 4  (4)  (3) 4 V (4) 5 V
4
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17. A point charge q is placed at a distance d 15 5

(1) A (2) A
from centre of a uniformly charged conducting 7 4
spherical shell of radius R and having charge
Q as shown. Magnitude of electric field 36
(3) A (4) 2 A
intensity at point P just inside the shell due to 7
charge on shell is
SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 5 questions. The answer to each question
is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question,
enter the correct numerical value (in decimal
notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
(1) Zero (2)
Q decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30,
40R 2 30.27, −27.30) using the mouse and the on-screen
q q virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to
(3) (4)
40d 2
40 (d – R )2 enter the answer.

18. A semi-infinite wire of uniform linear charge 21. A ring of radius R is uniformly charged with a
density  is placed as shown in figure. The positive charge Q. The maximum electric field
conical surface is of radius R and height h.
Q
The electric flux through the curved surface of on the axis of the ring is . The
the cone is 6 N 0R 2
value of N is _________.
22. The series combination of two batteries, both
of the same emf 10 V, but different internal
R R resistance of 20  and 5 , is connected to
(1) (2)
0 20 the parallel combination of two resistors
R 2 R 30  and R . The voltage difference across
(3) (4)
4 0 30 the battery of internal resistance 20  is
19. Two infinitely long straight wires of linear zero, the value of R (in ) is _______.
charge densities 1 and 2 are placed
23. Four resistances of 15 , 12 , 4  and
mutually perpendicular at perpendicular
separation of d. The electric force of 10  respectively in cyclic order to form
interaction between them is Wheatstone’s network. The resistance that is
  to be connected in parallel with the
(1) 1 2 (2) 1 2
0 20 resistance of 10  to balance the network is
1 2 12 _________ .
(3) (4)
20 40
24. In a meter bridge experiment S is a standard
20. Twelve wires, each of resistance 10  are
resistance. R is a resistance wire. It is found
joined to form a cube and an ideal battery of
emf 30 V is also connected (In series with that balancing length is l = 25 cm. If R is
one of resistance of cube) as shown in figure. replaced by a wire of half length and half
The current through the battery is diameter that of R of same material, then the
balancing distance l (in cm) will now be
_______.

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FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I Test-2_ (Code-C)

25. An electric field E = 4xiˆ − ( y 2 + 1) jˆ N/C

passes through the box shown in figure. The

flux of the electric field through surfaces

ABCD and BCGF are marked as I and II

respectively. Find value of (I + II)

(in Nm2/C) ______.

PART – B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I 30. Which among the following does not exhibit
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains Frenkel defect?
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 (1) AgBr (2) ZnS
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE (3) AgI (4) KCl
is correct. 31. The reaction takes place in three steps with

26. A and B form ideal solution that has vapour activation energy E A1 = x kJ/mol, EA2 = y
pressure 400 mm Hg at 27°C. The mole kJ/mol, and EA3 = z kJ/mol respectively. Overall
fraction of A in liquid phase is (at 27°C vapour
1/5
pressure of A and B in pure state is 800 mm Hg  k × k2 
rate constant of the reaction is k =  1  .
and 200 mmHg respectively)  k3 
(1) 0.67 (2) 0.5 The activation energy of the reaction will be
(3) 0.7 (4) 0.33
1 1
27. Select the correct statement regarding the (1) ( x + y –z ) (2) ( x – y +z )
5 2
adsorption.
1 1
(1) Rate of adsorption always increases with (3) ( x + y –z ) (4) ( x – y +z )
2 5
time
(2) Rate of adsorption always increases with 32. What is the cell potential of lead storage battery
temperature at pH = 5 and 0.1 M SO42– at 25°C?
(3) Enthalpy of chemisorption is higher than 2.303 RT
Given : Eocell = 1.97 V, = 0.06
that of physisorption (magnitude only) F
(4) Physisorption is highly specific in nature (1) 2.63 V (2) 2.15 V
28. Strong electrolytes are given (3) 1.50 V (4) 1.31 V
NaOH, KOH, NaCl, CH3COONa, BaCl2
33. Distance between two neighbouring atoms is
A B C D E minimum in (assume edge length of unit cell is
Molar conductivity of Ba(OH)2 at infinite dilution same in all the cases)
can be determined with the help of molar (1) Simple cubic
conductivity at infinite dilution of
(2) BCC lattice
(1) A, B and D (2) A, C and D
(3) Rock salt structure
(3) A, C and E (4) B, C and D
(4) FCC lattice
29. On mixing 10 mL of acetone with 40 mL of
34. Cheese is an example of
chloroform, the total volume of the solution is
(1) < 50 mL (1) Solid in gas colloid
(2) > 50 ml (2) Liquid in gas colloid
(3) = 50 mL (3) Solid in solid colloid
(4) Cannot be predicted (4) Liquid in solid colloid

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Test-2_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I

35. Consider the following electrochemical data. (3) Heat must be absorbed in order to produce
the solution at 35°C
EoA 2 + |A = −2 V EBo 2 + |B = −1 V
(4) CS2 and acetone are less attracted to each
EoC2 + |C = −0.5 V other than to themselves

Select the correct statement. 40. Molar conductivity of 0.1 M CH3COOH at

certain temperature is 256.62 S cm2 mol–1. What
(1) B can reduce A2+
is its pH?
(2) A can reduce B2+
[ Ho + = 349.6 S cm2 mol–1, Br
o 2 –1
– = 78.1 S cm mol ]
(3) C can reduce both B2+ and A2+
(4) B can reduce both A2+ and C2+ (1) 4.2 (2) 3.85
(3) 2.5 (4) 1.22
36. For the reaction
41. Consider the following plots of rate constant
2H2 (g) + 2NO(g) → N2 (g) + 2H2O(g)
1
versus for four different reactions. Which of
the observed rate expression is, T
rate = kf[NO]2[H2]. The rate expression for the the following orders is correct for the activation
reverse reaction is : energies of these reactions?

(1) kb[N2][H2O]2/[NO] (2) kb[N2][H2O]

(3) kb[N2][H2O]2 (4) kb[N2][H2O]2/[H2]

37. Two open beakers one containing a solvent

and the other containing a mixture of that
solvent with a non volatile solute are together
sealed in a container. Over time:
(1) Eb > Ea > Ed > Ec
(1) The volume of the solution and the solvent
does not change (2) Ec > Ea > Ed > Eb

(2) The volume of the solution increases and (3) Ea > Ec > Ed > Eb
the volume of the solvent decreases
(4) Eb > Ed > Ec > Ea
(3) The volume of the solution does not change
and the volume of the solvent decreases 42. As per Hardy-Schulze formulation, the
flocculation values of the following for ferric
(4) The volume of the solution decreases and
hydroxide sol are in the order
the volume of the solvent increases.
(1) AlCl3 > K3[Fe(CN)6] > K2CrO4 > KBr = KNO3
38. Given that the standard potentials (E°) of
Cu2+/Cu and Cu+/ Cu are 0.34 V and 0.522 V (2) K3[Fe(CN)6] < K2CrO4 < KBr = KNO3 = AlCl3
respectively, the E° of Cu2+/Cu+ is:
(3) K3[Fe(CN)6] > AlCl3 > K2CrO4 > KBr > KNO3
(1) +0.158 V (2) –0.158 V
(4) K3[Fe(CN)6] < K2CrO4 < AlCl3 < KBr < KNO3
(3) –0.182 V (4) 0.182 V
43. The rate of a certain biochemical reaction at
39. At 35°C, the vapour pressure of CS 2 is 512 mm
physiological temperature (T) occurs 106 times
Hg and that of acetone is 344 mm Hg. A
faster with enzyme than without. The change in
solution of CS2 in acetone has a total vapour
the activation energy upon adding enzyme is
pressure of 600 mm Hg. The false statement
amongst the following is (1) – 6RT

(1) Raoult’s law is not obeyed by this system (2) + 6RT

(2) A mixture of 100 mL CS2 and 100 mL (3) + 6(2.303)RT

acetone has a volume < 200 mL (4) – 6(2.303)RT

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FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I Test-2_ (Code-C)

44. The following data is given at 27°C for the SECTION - II

reaction xA + yB → product. Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
−1 contains 5 questions. The answer to each question
Trial [A] mol/L [B] mol/L Rate ms
1 0.01 0.01 10 −6 is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter
the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
2 0.01 0.02 2  10 −6
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place;
3 0.04 0.02 32  10 −6 e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 30.27, −27.30)
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
If reaction is elementary, then select the correct
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
relation.
46. Half life of a first order reaction is 10 hours.
(1) x = y + 2 (2) y = x + 2
Calculate the time (in hours) in which 87.5% of
(3) x = y (4) x = y + 1
initial concentration of reactant has been
45. During electrolysis the amount of product consumed.
liberated at electrode is plotted against charge
47. Solid PQ has NaCl type structure. If all atoms
in faraday. The correct graph is
along a body diagonal are removed, then
Slope = Eq. wt. of sub. crystal become charged. How many Q atoms
W(g)
from corner should be removed (hypothetically)
so that crystal becomes electrically neutral? (P
(1)
is cation)

No. of faraday 48. AgBr(s) Ag+(aq) + Br–(aq);E° = –0.72 V

If the value of Ksp at 25°C is 10–b then the value

W(g)
2.303 RT
of b is (Use, = 0.06 )
(2) F
49. The flocculation value of HCl for arsenic
No. of faraday
sulphide sol. is 30 m mol L–1. If H2SO4 is used
for the flocculation of arsenic sulphide, the
W(g) Slope = – Eq. wt. of sub.
amount, in grams, of H2SO4 in 250 ml required

(3) for the above purpose is ______.

(molecular mass of H2SO4 = 98 g/mol)
No. of faraday
50. During the nuclear explosion, one of the
products is 90Sr with half life of 6.93 years. If
W(g)
1 g of 90Sr was absorbed in the bones of a
newly born baby in place of Ca, how much time,
(4)
in years, is required to reduce it by 90% if it is
No. of faraday
not lost metabolically _________.

PART – C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I 51. If f(x) = –x3, then all the solutions of the
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains equation f(x) = f –1(x) lie on the line

20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 (1) y = x

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY (2) y = 0

ONE is correct. (3) x = 0

(4) y = –x

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Test-2_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I

52. The function f : R– → R– defined by f(x) = 58. Let [ ] represents the greatest integer function
and [x3 + x2 + 1 + x] = [x3 + x2 + 1] + x. The
10 x − 10 x is (where || represents modulus
number of solution(s) of the equation ln|[x]| =
function)
2 – |[x]| is
(1) One-one-onto function
(1) 1 (2) Zero
(2) One-one into function
(3) 3 (4) 2
(3) Many-one onto function
59. Let a – 2b + c = 1.
(4) Many one into function
x + a x + 2 x +1
1 1 2  If f ( x ) = x + b x + 3 x + 2 , then
53. If the matrices A = 1 3 4  , B = adj A and x +c x +4 x +3
1 −1 3 
(1) f(50) = 1 (2) f(–50) = 501
| adj B |
C = 3A, then is equal to (3) f(–50) = –1 (4) f(50) = –501
|C |
60. The inverse function of
(1) 16 (2) 2
82 x − 8−2x
(3) 72 (4) 8 f (x) = , x  ( −1,1), is
82 x + 8−2 x
2018 x − 2019
54. If f(x) = and f(f(x)) = x, then  1  1− x 
x+ loge 
(1) 
is equal to
4  1+ x 

1+ x 
(log8 e ) loge 
(1) 2018 (2) 2019 1
(2) 
4  1− x 
(3) –2019 (4) –2018
55. The following system of linear equations 1  1+ x 
(3) loge  
4  1− x 
7x + 6y – 2z = 0
1− x 
(log8 e ) loge 
1
3x + 4y + 2z = 0 (4) 
4  +x
1
x – 2y – 6z = 0, has
2 2   1 0
(1) Infinitely many solutions, (x, y, z) 61. If A=  and I =  –1
 , then 10A is
9 4  0 1
satisfying x = 2z
equal to
(2) No solution
(1) 6I – A (2) 4I – A
(3) Only the trivial solution
(3) A – 4I (4) A – 6I
(4) Infinitely many solutions, (x, y, z)
62. The solution of inequality
satisfying y = 2z
( x − 1)2 ( x + 1)2 ( x − 2)
 2x   2    0 is
–1 1– x ( x − 3)
56. If tan–1  2 
+ cot   = ; x 
 1– x   2x
  3
(1) x  ( −, 2)  (3, )
 1 
(0, 1), then  x 4 + 4  is equal to
 x  (2) x  ( −, 2]  (3, )

(1) 194 (2) 196 (3) x  (−, 2)  (3, ) − {−1, 1}

(3) 192 (4) 200 (4) x  R

57. A relation S is defined on the set of real 63. The number of possible subsets of
numbers such that S = {(a, b) : a3 + a – ba2 – {1, 2, 3,.....10} which contain ‘1’ as one of its
b  0}, then R is elements, is

(1) Equivalence (2) Symmetric (1) 28 (2) 29

(3) Not transitive (4) Reflexive (3) 28 – 1 (4) 28 + 1

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FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I Test-2_ (Code-C)

64. The value of x for which sin{cot–1(1 + x)} 70. If n(A) = 2 then n(P(P(A)) is
= cos{tan–1x} is
(1) 2 (2) 4
1
(1) (2) 1 (3) 8 (4) 16
2
SECTION - II
1
(3) 0 (4) − Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
2
contains 5 questions. The answer to each question
65. The system of linear equations
is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question,
x + 2y + 2z = 5
enter the correct numerical value (in decimal
2x + 3y + 5z = 8 notation, truncated/rounded off to the second
4 x + y + 6z = 10 has decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30,

(1) Infinitely many solutions when  = 2 30.27, −27.30) using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to
(2) No solution when  = 8
enter the answer.
(3) A unique solution when  = –8
71. Consider that n(S) represents the number of
(4) No solution when  = 2
elements in set S. If n( A  B  C ) = 40 ,
66. If g(x) = x2 + x – 1 and (gof)(x) = 4x2 – 10x +
n( A  B '  C ') = 5 , n(B  A '  C ') = 10 ,
5
5, then f   is equal to:
4 n(C  B '  A ') = 6 then number of elements
which belongs to at least two of the sets is__
1 3
(1) – (2)
2 2 cos2 x sin2 x cos2 x
1 3 72. If determinant sin2 x cos2 x sin2 x is
(3) (4) –
2 2 cos x2 2
sin x − cos x
2

67. Let x, y  N and R = {(x, y) : x  y}, then expanded as a function of sin2x, then the
(1) R is reflexive and symmetric absolute value of constant term in expansion
(2) R is symmetric and transitive of function is ___

(3) R is an equivalence relation 73. Let p, q, r  N and if the system of equations

(4) R is reflexive and transitive but not px + 2qy + 3rz = 0

symmetric 2qx + 3ry + pz = 0
68. Let A = [aij] and B = [bij] be two 3 × 3 real 3rx + py + 2qz = 0
matrices such that bij = (3)(i + j – 2)aji, where i, j has non-trivial solutions and p + 2q + 3r  0,
= 1, 2, 3. If the determinant of B is 81, then then the minimum value of p + q + r is ___
the determinant of A is 74. The number of distinct real roots of the
(1) 1/9 (2) 1/81 cosec sec  sec 
(3) 3 (4) 1/3 equation sec  cosec sec  = 0 in the
69. The set A and set B are defined as, sec  sec  cosec

  
A = ( x, y ) : x − 3  1 and y − 3  1 interval  − ,  is ___
 4 4
 
B = ( x, y ) : 4 x 2 + 9 y 2 − 32 x − 54 y + 109  0 , 75. The number of all 3  3 matrices A, with
then entries from the set {–1, 0, 1} such that the
sum of the diagonal elements of AAT is 3,
(1) A = B (2) A  B
k
(3) B  A (4) A  B =  is k then is ___
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