GATE 2020 Trishna Solutions

Engineering
Mechanics U
Chapter 1 Introduction – Forces,
Equilibrium1.3
Chapter 2 Free Body Diagrams – Trusses
Chapter 3 F
riction, Centre of Gravity,
Moment of Inertia
1.6
1.12
n
i
Chapter 4 Rectilinear Motion 1.18
Chapter 5 Curvilinear Motion 1.24
t
1
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1.2 | Engineering Mechanics
Unit 01.indd 2
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Hints/Solutions | 1.3
CHapter 1 introduCtion – ForCes, equilibrium
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 R3 W
=R =
8. Consider the free body diagram of cylinder with centre cos 62.18 sin 62.18
o2
R = 1.130W, R3 = 0.52W
Consider the free body diagram of the big cylinder with
R3 o2 centre o1
R2
62.18° 62.18°
R = 1.13W
W o1 R1
R
62.18°
R3
2W
W R cos 62.18 = R1
Applying Lams’ Theorem 1.13W cos 62.8 = R1
R3 R1 = 0.528W.
R W
= = Hence, the correct option is (B).
sin 90 sin (90 + 62.18) sin (180 − 62.18)
Practice Problems 2 Since the forces are equal, R = 2P cos a/2

1. Given force P = 100 N  60 
40 3 = 2 P cos  
Force Q = 200 N  2 
Angle between the two forces a = 30° 3 3
The magnitude of the resultant R is given = 2 P cos 30 = 2 P × = 2P × =P 3
2 2
40 3
Q =P = 40 N
R 3
a q
P Magnitude of each force = 40 N
Hence, the correct option is (B).
R = P 2 Q 2 2 PQ cos α 3. Given weight at C = 1900 N
= 100 2 + 200 2 + 2 × 200 × 100 × cos 30° Length, AC = 4 m
Length, BC = 3 m
= 50000 + 40000 cos 30° = 84641 N Length, AB = 5 m
In triangle ABC,
Q sin θ 200 sin 30
tan θ = = AC2 + BC2 = 42 + 32 = 16 + 9 = 25
P + Q cos θ 3
100 + 200 AB2 = 52 = 25, AB2 = AC2 + BC2
2
q = 20° A
D
B
a b
Inclination with the reference plane is 35°. T1 T2
Hence, the correct option is (A). 4m q1 q2 3m
2. Given angle between forces a = 60°
C
Resultant is 40 3 1900 N
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| Part III • Unit 1
1.4 | Engineering
3.6 • Engineering Mechanics
Mechanics
Triangle ABC is a right angled triangle in which ∠ACB H = R1cosq1 + R2cosq2 + R3cosq3 + R4cosq4
= 90° 3 1  1
Applying Lams’ theorem = 20 + 30 × + 40 × 0 + 80 ×  − 
2 2  2
1900 T1 T2
= = 20 3 30
sin 90 sin (90 + α ) sin (90 + β ) = + – 40 = 10 3 – 25 = 17.3 – 25 = –7.679
2 2
T1 T
1900 = = 2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
cos α cos β
7. Negative sign shows that H is acting along OX′ as
From the figure cos a = 4/5 shown in figure.
cos b = 3/5
V = 145.26
T1 = 1900 × 4/5 = 380 × 4 = 1520 N a = 93.03
q
T2 = 1140.
H = 7.679
Hence, the correct option is (D).
4. R1 = 80 kN q1 = 60° V = R1 sin q1 + R2 sin q2 + R3 sin q3 + R4 sin q4
R2 = 30 kN q2 = 120° = 20 × 1/2 + 30 × 0.866 + 40 × 1 + 80 × 0.866
R3 = 40 kN q3 = 240° = 50 + 1110 × 0.866 = 145.26
The sum of components of all forces along x-axis is V 145.26
given by equation: tan θ = = = −18.91 = −86°97 or 93.03°
H −7.679
H = R1cosq1 + R2cosq2 + R3cosq3 from positive side of x-axis(a).
Now, 80 cos 60° + 30 cos 120° + 40 cos 240° Hence, the correct option is (A).
Putting the value, 8. Given span AB = 10 m
1  1  1 Load at C = 10 kN
80 × + 30  −  + 40  −  = 40 – 15 – 20 = 5 kN
2  2  2 Distance AC = 4 m
Distance BC = 10 - 4 = 6 m
The resultant component along y-axis is given by
Let RA = Reaction at A
V = R1sin q1 + R2sin q2 + R3sin q3
RB = Reaction at B
3 3 − 3 As the beam is in equilibrium, the clockwise moments
= 80 × + 30 × + 40 ×
2 2 2 of all forces about any point must be equal to anti clock-
= 40 3 + 15 3 – 20 3 = 35 3 kN wise moments about that point. Also resultant force in
any direction must be zero.
Magnitude of the resultant force is given by
Taking moments about A
R H 2 + V 2 = 52 + (35 × 3 ) 2 = 25 + 60.622 Clockwise moments = Anti-clock wise moments
= 60.82 kN 10 kN × 4 = RB × 10
Hence, the correct option is (A). 10 × 4
RB = = 4 kN
5. The direction of the resultant force is given by equation 10
V 60.62 RA + RB = 10 kN
tan θ = = = 12.124
H 5 RA = 6 kN
q = 85.28° Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 9. Given force along AB = 20 N
6. Given Force along BC = 40 N
R1 = 20 kN and q1 = 30° Force along CD = 60 N
R2= 30 kN and q2 = 60° Force along DA = 40 N
R3 = 40 kN and q3 = 90° The net force in the horizontal direction is given by
R4 = 80 kN and q4 = 120° H = 20 - 60 = -40 N
The resultant component along x-axis is given as The net force in the vertical direction
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R = H 2 + V 2 = ( −40) 2 + −( 40) 2 H −20
= 1600 + 1600 = 2 × 1600 = 400 2 N 225° with the direction of 20 N force.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (B).
Previous Years’ Questions W = 600 •

Chapter 1 N Introduction – Forces, Equilibrium
Hints/Solutions | | 1.5
3.7
1. T AB Taking moments about B,
V = 40 - 80 = -40
T
N 10. RDirection
× 3 = Wof× the
2 resultant force is given by
90° AC A
The resultant force is given by equation
V −20
150°
Rtan = × 2= = 400=N
θ 600 1
120°2 A =
R = H + V = ( −40) + −( 40) 3H −20
2 2 2
= 1600 + 1600 = 2 × 1600 = 400 2 N Considering

225° with thehorizontal
direction forces SHforce.
of 20 N =0
600 - P =the
RHence, 0 correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (A). A
By Lami’s theorem ⇒ P = RA = 400 N
TAB TAC 600 Hence, the correct option is (399 to 401).
= o
= o
sin 120Years’
Previous sin 150 sin 90 o
Questions 3. W =T1600 N
1. T AB 600 × sin 120 o 30º about B,
Taking moments
∴ TAB = o
= 519.6 ~ 520 N
90° sin 90
T AC RA × 3 = W × 2 F
600 × sin 150 o
600 × 2
AC =
T150° 120°
= 300 N RA = 100 N = 400 N
sin 90 o 3
Hence, the correct option is (A). cos 30 = 100
TConsidering horizontal forces SH = 0
600 TR= -115.47
P=0
2. R A A
A
By Lami’s theorem T⇒sin = R=A F
P 30 = 400 N
2.5
TAB TAC 600 = 57.73
FHence, the correct option is (399 to 401).
= 3 o
= o
sin 120 sin 150 sin 90 o 3. Hence, the correct option is 57.5 – 58.0.1
2.5 T1
W
600 × sin 120 o B 4. T1 + T2 = 10030ºN
∴ TAB = 4 90 o
= 519
P .6 ~ 520 N
sin RB L L
TF2 × = 100 ×
600 × sin 150 o 2 2
TAC = = 300 N
Chapter 1 • sin
Introduction – Forces, Equilibrium
90 o | 3.7 T
100 N
2
= 100 N
Hence, the correct option is (A). T T cos 30 = 100 = 0 N
10. Direction of the resultant force is given by 1
T = 115.47
ion 2. R A Hence, the correct option is (A).
AV −20 T sin 30 = F
tan θ = 2.5= =1 5. Given X1 and X2 are independent normal random
H −20 F = 57.73
variables.
3 Hence, the correct
0 2N 225° with the direction
2.5 of 20 N force. Also given m = m option
1
= 1, s is
2
= 57.5
1, s –=58.0.1
1
2 2
Hence, the correct
W option
B is (B). Given Y = X1 – X2
P
4 RB So, Y is normally distributed.
Mean of Y = E(Y) = E(X1 – X2)
W = 600 N = E(X1) – E(X2) = m1 – m2 = 0
Taking moments about B,
Variance of Y = Var(Y)
RA × 3 = W × 2
= Var (X1 – X2)
600 × 2
RA = = 400 N = Var (X1) + Var (X2)
3
Considering horizontal forces SH = 0 ( X1 and X2 are independent)
RA - P = 0
⇒ P = RA = 400 N = σ 12 + σ 22 = 12 + 22 = 5
Hence, the correct option is (399 to 401). Hence, the correct option is (B).
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3. T1
30º
0N
F
100 N
T cos 30 = 100
T = 115.47
T sin 30 = F
F = 57.73
2:51:55 Unit 01.indd 5
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CHapter 2 Free Body diagrams – trusses
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 This force is acting at the midpoint of QR. From FBD
we get that at P and S reactions are acting, because
1. T PQ T PR
of the roller supports, in the upward direction. Under
90° equilibrium conditions,
60° 30°
Upward forces = Downward forces
90° 90°
RP + RS = FB (1)
And taking the moment about P,
500 N
We solve the problem using Lami’s theorem. Here three  B
FB ×  B +  = RS ( B + B + B)
forces are given. Applying Lami’s theorem, we have  2
500 TPQ TPR 3 FB
= = FB × B = RS × 3 B ⇒ RS =
sin 90 sin(90 + 30) sin(90 + 60) 2 2
500 TPQ TPR Substituting the value of RS in equation (1),
= =
1 3 1 FB
We get, RP + = FB
2 2 2
3 FB FB
TPQ = 500 × = 250 3 N RP = FB − =
2 2 2
500 At point P, we use the principle of resolution of forces
=
TPR = 250 N .
2 in the y direction ∑ Fy = 0
∴ FPQ sin45° = RP = FB/2
2. Q R
FB 1 FB FB
FPQ = × = × 2=
U 2 sin 45° 2 2
T
P S FB 1 FB
FPU = FPQ cos 45° = × =
2 kN 2 kN 2 2 2
RP RS
The reactions at the hinged support will be in the verti- At U no external forces are acting so
cal direction only because the external loads are verti- FB
cal. Now consider the FBD of the entire truss. Taking F=
UT F=
PU
2
equilibrium of forces,
Hence, the correct option is (A).
RP + Rs = 2 + 2 = 4 kN (1)
4. The forces which are acting on the truss ABC is shown
Taking moment about point P we get in the figure below
Rs × 3L = 2 × L + 2 × 2L = 6L A F
Rs = 2 kN
∴ From equation (1), RP = 4 × 2 = 2 kN a
Hence, the correct option is (A). 45° 30°
B C
3. F xB D
a 1.73 a
Q R
B
B B We draw a perpendicular from the point A that inter-
B B B sects BC at D.
P S
U T Let AD = a. From geometry of the figure,
RP RS
BD = AD = a.
Given UT = PU = TS = UQ = TR = QR = B Let RB and RC be the reactions acting at point B and C
respectively.
On the member QR, the uniform distributed load acting AD
is given as F/unit length. Now, from the triangle ADC , tan30° =
DC
So the total load acting on the element QR of length a
∴ DC = = 3a = 1.73 a
B = load per unit length × total length of element = Fx 1
B = FB 3
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Chapter 2 • Free Body Diagrams – Trusses | | 1.7
Hints/Solutions 3.9
Taking the moment about point B, Pr = 500 N

Rc × (a + 1.73a) = F × a But, Pr = mR = 0.1R
aF R = 5000 N
=Rc = 0.366 F
2.73a P P
From equilibrium of forces, we have x x
RC + RB = F 200 mm
RB = F - RC = F - 0.366 F = 0.634 F
pin
FACsin 30 = 0.366 F Pr Pr
0.366 F 100 mm
= FAC = 0.732 F
0.5
y y
3 R R
FCB = FAC cos 30 = 0.732 F × = 0.634 F
2
5. T PQ 1000 N
135° Taking moments about the pin of the tong,
45°
60°
F P × 200 = R × 100
120°
5000 × 100
TPR
P = = 2500 N
200
From above figure three forces are acting on a common Hence, the correct option is (D).
point. Hence by Lami’s theorem,
9. RAB × sin 60° = 20 ⇒ RAB = 23.1 kN (Tension)
F TPQ TPR RBC
= = B
sin105 sin120 sin135 RAB
60°
T PR 60° R
F 1 RBD 60° AB
= = D
RAD
A
sin135 sin105 sin105 A
20 kN D
TPR = 0.7320 kN
Now, RBD sin 60° = RAB sin 60° = 23.1 sin 60°
Hence vertical reaction at R,
∴ RBD = RAB = 23.1 kN
Ry = TPR cos 30 = 0.732 × cos 30 = 0.634 kN
RBC = RABcos 60° + RBDcos 60°
Hence, the correct option is (C). RBC = (23.1 × 0.5) + (23.1 × 0.5)
F TPQ RBC = 23.1 kN
6. From previous question =
sin105 sin120 Hence, the correct option is (A).
sin120 10. 10 kN 5 kN
TPQ = × F = 0.8965 F
sin105 D C
TPQ > TPR (because, TPR = 0.732 F)

2.5 m
smax = 100 Pa (given)
A B q
F=s×A HA
∴ Fmax = smax × A (for fixed value of A) VA VB
5m 5m
TPQ = 100 × 200
To find support reactions, consider the equilibrium of
0.8965F = 100 × 200
the frame with respect to the external loads,
100 × 200
= = 22308.9 = 22.3 kN. VA + VB = 15 kN
0.8965
Taking moments about A,
-5 × 10 – 10 × 5 + VB × 5 = 0. ∴ 5VB = 100
7. Bar PQ is subjected to bending and bar QR is under
tension VB = 20 kN
Hence, the correct option is (A). ∴ VA = -5 kN (downwards)
8. For vertical equilibrium of forces on the subject, we have, 2.5
Consider joint C, tan=
θ = 0.5
2Pr = 1000. 5
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| Part III • Unit
1.8 | Engineering
3.10 1 • Engineering Mechanics
Mechanics
θ = 26.560 Consider joint B,

FBC sin 26.56 = 5 At B, FDB = 20 - FCB sin 26.56
∴ FBC = 11.18 kN = 20 – 11.18 sin 26.56 = 15 kN.
Force on CD, FCD = FBC cos 26.56 = 10 kN Hence, the correct option is (C).
Practice Problems 2 5R2 = 2P2 + 2Q2

1. The system of forces reduce to 2R2 = - P2 + 2Q2
600 N 5R2 - 2P2 - 2Q2 = 0
30° 2R2 + P2 - 2Q2 = 0
600 N
R2 P2 Q2
Resultant, = =
4 + 2 −4 + 10 5 + 4
R = 600 2 + 600 2 + 2 × 600 × 600 × cos 60° = 1342 N R2 P2 Q2
= =
Hence, the correct option is (C). 6 6 9
R P Q
2. If θ is the angle made by the resultant with the former = =
6 6 3
600 sin 30°
forces, then tan θ = ∴P :Q : R = 6 :3: 6 = 2 : 3 : 2
600 + 600 cos 30°
∴ θ = 15° Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 6. Given Force F = 200 N
3. The system of forces reduce to Angle made by F with the horizontal θ = 30°
Let Fx be the component of F along the x–axis and Fy
800 N 800 N
= be the component of F along the y–axis. Then
30° 30°
400 N 400 N Fx = F cos θ = 200 cos 30° = 200 × 0.866 = 173.2 N
Resultant, R Fy = F sin θ = 200 sin 30° = 200 × 0.5 = 100 N
= 400 2 + 800 2 + 2 × 400 × 800 × cos 30° = 1164 N Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (D). 7. Given weight of the block W = 200 N
4. When two equal forces act at 120°, the resultant is Inclination of plane, θ = 30°
numerically one of the forces acting along the bisection W is acting vertically downwards through the centre of
of the angle. That is, if two forces of magnitude P act gravity of the block.
on a body with an angle of 120° between them, then
R = P 2 + P 2 + 2 × P × P × cos 120°
= 2 P 2 + 2 × P 2 × ( −0.5) = P 30°
60°
∴ The required force is = 500 N 30°

5. If the R is the resultant of the forces P and Q, then W
R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2PQcos α (1) Component of the weight perpendicular to the plane =
When Q is doubled, then W cos 30° = 200 × 0.866 = 173.2 N
4R2 = P2 + 4Q2 + 4PQcos α (2) Hence, the correct option is (B).
When Q is reversed, then 8. Component of the weight parallel to the inclined plane
4R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2PQcos (180 - α) = W sin 30° = 200 sin 30° = 100 N
4R2 = P2 + Q2 - 2PQcos α (3) Hence, the correct option is (D).
Adding Eqs. (1) and (3), we get 9. P
v
5R2 = 2P2 + 2Q2 60°
30°
Multiplying the Eq. (2) by the factor of 2 and then sub- O v
tracting the resulting equation from (1), we get
2R2 = - P2 + 2Q2
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Chapter 2 • Free Body Diagrams – Trusses || 3.11
Hints/Solutions 1.9
Magnitude of velocity at point 0.2
= v + v + 2v cos 60° = v 2 + 2 cos 60°

2 2 2 ∫ dE = ∫ 0
300 x 2 dx
= v=3 3v 0.2
x3
Hence, the correct option is (A). E = 300 × = 0.8 Joule
3 0
10. Rate of change of energy stored, dE = Fxdx
Hence, the correct option is (C).
dE = 300 x2dx
Previous Years’ Questions 3. F AC
1. L 45°
F KL F ML F = 1 kN
F BC
60°
B
F LN FBC F 1
= =
Σfx = 0 ⇒ FKL = FML sin 135° sin 105° sin 105°
sin 135°
and ΣFy = 0 ⇒ FLN = 0 FBC =
sin 105°
No load acting on member LN.
FBC = 0.732 kN
2. F
P
F BC sin 60° = F V
x 60°
x sin45°
45° 30° FV = 0.732 sin 60°
Q R
S = 0.63 kN
x cos45° [x sin45°/ tan30°] Hence, the correct option is (A).
RQ RR 4. Maximum force in a member = s . A
= 100 × 100
 sin 45°  = 10, 000 N
F × x 
RQ =  tan 30°  = 0.63 F = 10 kN
 sin 45° 
 x cos 45° + x By Lamis theorem
 tan 30° 
FAC FBC F
= =
F QP sin 120° sin 135° sin 105°
10 ⋅ sin 105°
45° If FAC = 10 KN, F =
Q F QR sin 120°
= 11.15 kN
10 × sin 105°
RR = 0.63 F If FBC = 10 KN, F =
sin 135°
Free body diagram of pin Q. = 13.66 kN
So F = 11.15 kN
ΣF y = 0
∴ 0.63F = FQP × sin 45° Hence, the correct option is (B).
5. A 1m
⇒ FQP = 0.891F B
q
Now ΣFx = 0 10 kN
⇒ FQP cos 45° = FQR 0.5 m
⇒ FQR = 0.891F × cos 45° = 0.634F

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| Part III • Unit
1.10 | Engineering
Mechanics
AC 0.5 ΣFy = 0 ⇒ TAB Cos 30º + TBC Cos 30º = 100 N

θ =
tan= = 0.5
AB 1 ⇒ TAB Cos 30º + TAB Cos 30º = 100 N
Considering equilibrium of point B ⇒ 2 TAB Cos 30º = 100 N
FBC sin θ = 10 (1) ⇒ TAB = 100 N
FBC cos θ = FAB (2) Hence, the correct answer is 100.
(1) ÷ (2) 8.
10 10 Free Body Diagram of truss
tan θ = ⇒ FAB = = 20.
FAB 0.5 100 kN
100 sin60°
Hence, the correct option is 18 to 22. 60°
100 cos60° P
6. F1 F2
3
P Q R
4m
2 Q 45°
QH R
4m
1.5 S
T QV RR
F1 = 9 kN, F2 = 3 kN Taking moment about Q,

2 MQ = [100 cos 60º × 4] – [RR × 4] = 0
tanθ =
1.5 ⇒ RR = 50 kN [Support reaction at R]
⇒ cos θ = 0.6; sin θ = 0.8 Free Body Diagram of pin at R
Considering joint P FPR
P F PQ
q 45°
FQR
50 kN
F PS
9 kN
ΣFy = 0
ΣFv = 0
⇒ FPR × sin 45º = 50 ⇒ FPR = 70.71 kN
FPS sin θ = –F1
[Force in member PR]
⇒ FPS × 0.8 = –9
⇒ FPS = 11.25 kN (Compressive)
Considering joint S 9.
30 kN
F PS F QS
W V S R
b b
FST 1m
S
ΣFv = 0 P Q
1m U 1m T 1m
FPS sin β = –FQS sin β RP R
⇒ FQS = –FPS = 11.25 kN (Tensile) Taking moment about P, MP = 0
Ra × 3 – (30 × 2) = 0 ⇒ RQ = 20 kN
7. TAB
TBC RRQ
30° B 30°
RTQ Q
100
ΣFx = 0 ⇒ TAB Cos 30º = TBC Cos 30º

RQ = 20 kN
⇒ TAB = TBC
ΣFy = 0
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Chapter 2 • Free Body Diagrams – Trusses | | 1.11
Hints/Solutions 3.13
⇒ RRQ = 20 kN TPQ + TQR cos θ =0

R
RRS W + TQR sin θ =0
45°
−W −W
TQR = = = −2W
sin θ 0.5
RRT
RRQ = 20 kN (Assume directions are opposite)
TPQ = –TQR cos θ
RRT sin 45° = 20
= 2W × 3/2 = 3W
20
⇒ RRT =
sin 45° ∴ TPQ = 3W tensile
and RRT cos 45° = RRS TQR = 2W compressive.

20
or RRS = × cos 45° = 20 kN 12.
sin 45°
∴ Force on member SR, RRS = 20 kN. 60º
Hence, the correct option is (C). F
T2 T1 500
10. = o
= o
Sin 150 Sin 120 Sin 90 o
⇒ T1 = 500 × sin 120°
⇒ T1 = 433 N and T2 = 500 × sin 150°
∴ T2 = 250 N
T1
T2
90° F.B.D = 60º
150° F
120°
Ry
500 N
Hence, the correct option is (A). Rx

M
11. Considering the equilibrium of Pin joint Q.
TPQ All supports have to be isolated in F.B.D.
θ Resolving Hence, the correct option is (A).
forces
TQR W
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CHapter 3 FriCtion, Centre oF Gravity, MoMent oF inertia
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 Braking moment
 1 
1. Let the tensions in the belt be T1 and T2 as shown in the = 0.25( 2 × 200) 1 −  = 85.96 ⋅ NM
figure. Since the weight W2 just checks the tendency of  7.12 
weight W1 to move down, tension on the side of W1 is Hence, the correct option is (B).
larger. 3. W = 1000 N, l = 70 cm, d = 5 cm, p = 1 cm
That is T1 > T2 µ = 0.15, f = tan-1µ = 8.53
µ = 0.25, b = p p 1
Helix angle, tan θ = = = 0.0637
W1 = 2000 N πd π ×5
T1 q = 3.64°
= e µβ = 2.718 ( )
π 0.25
T2 Force required (Friction present)

T1 Force P required at the circumference of the screw
= 2.193, But T1 = W1 P = W tan (q + f) = 1000 tan (3.64 + 8.53) = 215.66 N
T2
1 Force required at the end of the handle
T2 = 2000 d
2.193 F × = P×
T2 = 911.9 2
d
W2 = T2 = 911.9 N. P× 
F=  2  = 215.66 × 0.025
0.70
2. Let T1 and T2 be the tension on the two sides angle of F = 7.702 N
lap b = 180°+45° = 225°
Force required (Ideal case)
225 × π radians
β= 2π 2π × 0.7
180 VR = = = 439.82
p 0.01
µ = 0.5
T1 225.π MA W
= e 0.5 180 η= = 1, MA = 439.82 = , ∴ p = 2.273 N
T2 VR P
T1 Force required at the handle
= 7.12
T2 P = 2.273 N
Considering the free body diagram of the lever and tak- Hence, the correct option is (B).
ing moments about B 4. Considering the equilibrium
A B C ∑Fy = 0, RA + RB - W = 0 (1)
T1 T2
T2 ∑MA = 0, RB(2a) - W(a) = 0 (2)
W
T1 r Solving (1) and (2)
r W
R=A R=B N.
2
5.
∑mB = 0
T1 × 0.25 - W(0.5) = 0 P
b
T1 = 2 W f f
T1 = (2 × 200) = 400 N a a
Considering the free body diagram of the pulley and RA RB
taking moments about O. When pulling wagons, let the friction force be f at each
Applied moment M = (T1r - T2r) point of contact. Writing the equations of equilibrium
 1  ∑Fy = 0, RA + RB - W = 0 (3)
Braking moment, = r (T1 − T2 ) = rT1 1 − 
 7.12  ∑MA = 0, RB × (2a) - Wa - P(b) = 0 (4)
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Chapter 3 • Friction, Centre of Gravity, Moment of Inertia | | 1.13
Wa + Pb P = 1000 N.
RB = Hence, the correct option is (B).
2a
Substituting in (3) 8. When the block just starts moving down ∑(perpendicu-
Wa − Pb lar forces) with respect to the plane = 0
RA =
2a R = 600 cos q
Hence, the correct option is (A). F = µ R = µ 600 cos q
6. Free body diagram is as shown below F = 600µ cos q.
q
9. When the block just starts moving down ∑(parallel
1m
G forces) = 0
F + 200 - 600 sin q = 0
µNB Or µ 600 cos q +200 – 600 sin q = 0
NB
When the block just starts moving up the plane
0.25 m q µNA
∑(perpendicular forces) = 0
NA
R = 600 cos q, F = 600µ cos q
0.5 m
mg Also ∑ parallel forces = 0
∑Fx = 0; µNA + µNB - mgsin q = 0 300 - F - 600 sin q = 0
(along inclined plane) 300 - µ 600 cos q - 600 sin q = 0
Adding above equations
or 0.3 (NA + NB) = 2000g sin q (1)
600 N
∑Fy = 0; NA + NB - mgcos q = 0 q 200 N
NA + NB = 2000 gcos q
Dividing (1) by (2)
F
tanq = 0.3, q = tan-1 0.3
R
0 = 16.7°. q
7. A weight 2000 N and the force P can do work. For 500 - 1200 sin q = 0
virtual downward displacement d y of the force P, the q = 24.6°.
corresponding virtual displacement of the load W is Hence, the correct option is (C).
δy
upwards. 10. Substituting, q = 24.6° in
2
The principle of virtual work gives 300 - µ 600 cos q - 600 sin q = 0
δ y  300 - 600µ cos 24.6° - 600 sin 24.6° = 0
−W   + Pδ y = 0 50.23 = 600µ cos 24.6
 2 
2000 µ = 0.092.
−P =0
2 Hence, the correct option is (A).
Practice Problems 2 3 3 1
1. 600 + × W = W
R 600 N 5 2 2
μR W (0.5 - 0.3) = 600
W = 3000 N
q
Wsinq Wcosq
30° W 2. In the limiting condition
1
600 + µR = W sin q µ = tan θ = tan 30° =
3
R = W cos q
3
600 + W cos 30° = W sin 30° 3. ∑Fx = 0; µ RA - RB = 0
5
∑Fy = 0; RA + µ RB - 60 - 15 = 0
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12:52:18
| Part III • Unit
1.14 | Engineering
Mechanics
RA + µ 2 RA - 75 = 0 P = 5000 / 314.15 = 15.9 N

RA (1+ µ 2) = 75 Hence, the correct option is (A).
μR B
6.
RB 20
P
f
60 N
70 N
RA
f
15 N f
Q
A μR A
Free body diagram shows P and Q forces acting at f

75 75 with respective normals n and n to the wedge surfaces
RA = = = 70.58 N
1 + (0.25) 2 (1 + 0.0625) above and below it.
Resultant reaction at From µ = 0.4 = tan f ; f = 21.8°
A = (70.58) 2 + ( µ RA ) 2 = (70.58) 2 + 311.346 By equilibrium
P sin (f + 20) + Q sin f - 70 = 0 (1)
= 4981.53 + 311.346 P cos (f + 20) + Q cos f = 0 (2)
= 72.75 N Substituting f = 21.8° and solving for P and Q.
Hence, the correct option is (D). P = 72.76 N, Q = 58.2 N
4. The velocity ratio of the simple screw jack is given by The vertical component of
the ratio of the distance moved by the point of applica- P is - 72.76 cos 41.8° = -54.24 N
tion of the effort i.e., 2p × 0.50 = p m and the distance
The vertical component of
moved by the load is 0.01 m if the arm is turned by one
revolution Q is 58.2 cos 21.8° = 54.0 N
π Hence, the correct option is (A).
Velocity Ratio = = 314.15
0.01 7. From the definition of the pitch of a screw
Mechanical advantage W/P = Velocity Ration × η = P 1.25
tan α = =
314.15 × 0.45 = 141.37 2π r 2π × 5
W 5000 a = 2.28°
=P = = 35.36 N
141.37 141.37 µ = 0.25 = tan f
Hence, the correct option is (D). f = 14.04°
5. If the jack is converted into differential screw jack, the The force required at the end of 50 cm long lever is
distance moved by the point of application of the effort given by
over one revolution remains same, but the correspond- F = W tan(α + φ ) r/2
ing distance through which the load moves becomes
6000 × 9.81 tan ( 2.28 + 14.04) × 5 / 50 = 1723.4 N
0.01 - 0.007 = 0.003 m
Velocity Ratio becomes
tan α 0.04
π 8. Efficiency of the jack µ = = wer
= 1047.1 tan (α + φ ) 0.293
0.003
= 0.137 = 13.7%
Mechanical advantage = W / P = 1047.1× 0.3 = 314.15
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Previous Years’ Questions 5. For moving block S relative movement has to take place
between R and S and between the floor and S.
1. For both masses,
Initial velocity, vi = v m/s (0.4 × 100 × 9.81) (100 × 9.81)
Final velocity, vf = 0
Initial kinetic energy S
F
1 2 1 2
KE1 = mv + mv = mv 2 (150 × 9.81)
2 2
Final kinetic energy (0.4 × 250 × 9.81) (100 + 150) × 9.81
KEf = 0
Force F needed = frictional forces to be overcome at the
Power = Rate of change of KE surfaces
d ( KE ) ( KE )i − ( KE ) f = 100 × 9.81 × 0.4 + (100 + 150) × 9.81 × 0.4
= =
dt t = 1373.4 N = 1.3734 kN.
mv 2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
=
t
6. P = 10t
Hence, the correct option is (C). 200 N
2. The given statement is the principle of virtual work
according to which the partial derivative of total potential
energy with respect to each independent variable is zero. µs = 0.4, µk = 0.2
Hence, the correct option is (B). Static frictional force 200 × 0.4 = 80 N
3. ∑ f x = 0 Time required to overcome static friction
0.2R = 100 N ⇒ R = 500 N 10 t = 80 ⇒ t = 8 secs
T
Force acting after movement of block
= 10t - 200 × 0.2
= 10t - 40 = mass × acceleration
200
⇒ 10t − 40 = ×a
100 N 9.81
9.81
0⋅2 R ⇒ a = (10t − 40 ) ×
R 200
= 0.04905 × (10t - 40)
dv
a= ⇒ dv = adt
mg dt

On integrating ⇒ v = ∫adt.
∑ fx = 0
Since the body is in motion from 8th to 10th second
T + R = mg 10
⇒ T = (981 - 500) N ⇒ T = 481 N = ∫ 0.04905 × (10t − 40) dt

8
= 0.04905 × [5t 2 − 40t ]10
8 = 4.905 m / s
4.
9.8
Hence, the correct option is (4.8 to 5).
7.
0.8 N M
μR R
45°
0.8 N = F
Mg
9.8 N
45°
F = 0.8 N
Hence, the correct option is (B). M = 10 kg
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| Part III • Unit
1.16 | Engineering
Mechanics
Dynamic friction coefficient µ = 0.5 10.

u = 0, v = 20 m/s 1
R = Mg cos 45 30
During sliding, Mg sin 45 - µR = M × a 2
120 30
where a = acceleration of the body G2
30
or Mg sin45 - µ Mg cos 45 = M × a
X X
⇒ a = g sin 45 - µg cos 45
30
= 9.81[sin45 - 0.5cos 45] 3
30
= 9.81 × 0.707[1 - 0.5] G3
30
= 3.468 m/s2
60
V2 = u2 + 2as where,
s = distance travelled Moment of inertia of the section about x-x axis, IXX =
i.e., v = 0 + 2as
2 [I1 – (I2 + I3)]X-X
or 202 = 2 × 3.468 × s Due to symmetry, I2 = I3 = IG + Ah2 where IG =
Moment of inertia about center of gravity A = Area of
⇒ s = 57.67 m
cross-section.
Hence, the correct option is (56 to 59). h = Distance between center of gravity and X-X axis.
8. 2m bd 3 60 ×1203
Now, (I)X-X = =
12 12
bd 3  30 × 303 
P (I2)X-X = + Ah2 =   + [30 × 30 × 30 ]
2
4m 12  12 
2m
mg
1m
 60 ×1203    30 4 
μR = F (I2)X-X =   − 2 ×  + 30 4 
•  12    12 
R Q IXX = 6.8850 × 106 mm4.
Mass m = 100 kg
Let force required to tip about Q be P
P × 2 = mg × 1 = 100 × 9.81 11. Given µ = 0.25; Tmax = 20 N
⇒ P = 490.5 N cos q = 0.8; sin q = 0.6
Frictional force F = µR where, R = mg
∑H = 0 T
F.B.D
F = P or µmg = P Fractional force
P 490.5
⇒ µ= = = 0.5 m
mg 100 × 9.81
θ
mg sin θ
∴ P = 490.5 and µ = 0.5
Hence, the correct option is (A). T + µ mg cos q = mg sin q
9. Mass moment of inertia is a function of mass and the 20 + 0.25 g (0.8 m) = mg 0.6
radial distance from the rotating axis. In the wheel, the
20 = mg [0.6 – 0.25 × 0.8]
mass is distributed at a greater distance than the other
solids. Therefore, the mass moment of inertia of the ⇒m = 5 kg
wheel is higher. Hence, the correct option is 5.
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12. Solution: By using Parallel Axis theorem, 13. Rate of change of angular momentum of system about
 10 × 10 3  d
AI =  + 10 × 10 × 52  G = Σ i ( mvr )
dt
 12 
d
 π  = Σi ( mi ri ρi )
 dt
−  × 84  + π × 4 2 × 52 
  64   = Σ i mi ri ρi
= 3333.33 – 1457.69 Hence, the correct option is (B).
= 1875.63 mm4
Hence, the correct option is 1873 to 1879.
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CHapter 4 reCtilinear Motion
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 For the vertical fall, let the time taken be T, then
1. Let the second car overtake the first car t seconds after h = 1/2 gT2
the start of the first car. As the second car overtakes
the first car, it would have already travelled for a time 2h
T=
period of (t - 5) seconds. The distance covered by g
the second car at the time of overtaking is = (t - 5)u t
= (t - 5)20 m (1) ∴ T = t sin θ = t sin 30° =
2
Distance travelled by the first car at the time of over- Hence, the correct option is (B).
taking is,
4. Let t1 be the time taken by the stone to reach the water
s = ut + 1/2 at2 surface and t2 be the time for sound to travel to the top.
= 0 + 1/2 2t2 = t2 (2) Then
Equating (1) and (2), we have t1 + t2 = 3.63
t2 = 20(t - 5) Let h be the required depth, then
t2 – 20t + 100 = 0 1
h = gt12 (1)
(t - 10)2 = 0 2
Since the velocity of sound is 331 m/s.
\ t = 10 sec
331 × t2 = h (2)
\ The time taken by the second car to overtake the first
1 2
car is = 10 – 5 = 5 sec. \ gt1 = 331t2 = 331 (3.63 – t1)
2
4.905 t12 + 331 t1 - 1201.5 = 0
2. Let u be the initial velocity and a be the acceleration.
t1 = 3.45 sec
s4 = u + a (4 – 1/2)
1
20 = u + 3.5a (1) \ h = gt12 = 4.905 × 3.452 = 58.39 m
2
s8 = u + a(8 – 1/2)
30 = u + 7.5a (2)
From (1) and (2), we have 5. Constant speed of the car
4a = 10 or a = 2.5 m/s2 120 × 1000
= 120 km/h = = 33.33 m/s
u = 11.25 m/s 3600
\ s10 = u + a(10 – 1/2) If t is the time taken by the motor cycle to cross the car,
= 11.25 + 2.5 × 9.5 = 35 m the time of travel of car is (t + 2) seconds.
Hence, the correct option is (B). At the point of overtaking, distance covered by car =
33.33 (t + 2) = 66.66 + 33.33 t (1)
3.
Distance covered by motor cycle, accelerating
1
h
s1 = 6 t12
gsinθ 2
gcosθ
g θ But v = u + at1
θ = 30° 150 × 1000
= 6 × t1 = 41.667
3600
1
s = ut + at2 41.667
2 ∴ t1 = = 6.944 sec
1 6
s = g sin θ t2 1
2 \ s1 = × 6 × 6.9442 = 144.678 m
h 1 2
= g sin θ t 2 s2 = distance travelled without acceleration
sin θ 2
= 41.667 (t - 6.944)
2h 1
∴t = ⋅ Total distance travelled by the motor cycle = 144.678
g sin θ + 41.667 (t – 6.944)
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Chapter 4 • Rectilinear Motion | | 1.19
This is equated to Eq. (1) T = 2000 – 400 × 1.25 = 2000 – 500 = 1500 N
144.678 + 41.667t – 289.335 = 66.66 + 33.33t Between the carts,
\ t = 25.35 sec Cart A
t T
Required distance is = 66.66 + 33.33 × 25.35 = 912 m
6. Considering the change of momentum in the direction T – t = 800 × 1.25
of motion of the car
\ t = 1500 - 800 × 1.25 = 500 N which is the force
((m + wt)v)2 – (mv)1 = wtv between the carts.
(m0 + wt)v – m0v = (wt)v Hence, the correct option is (C).
because v is constant. This must be equal to the impulse. 9. Given, weight of the body = 200 N
Ft = wtv Horizontal force applied P = 80 N
F = wv Limiting force of friction, F = P = 80 N
in the direction of motion. Let m be the coefficient of friction.
Hence, the correct option is (B). The normal reaction of the body is given as R = W
= 200 N
7. In the gun shell system momentum must be conserved
in the horizontal direction because there is no external F = mR
horizontal force. F 80
µ= = = 0.4
\ 10 × 800 × cos 30° + 2000 × v = 0 R 200
Recoil velocity, v = -3.46 m/s Hence, the correct option is (D).
Applying impulse momentum principle in vertical 10. Weight of the body, W = 400 N
direction, Inclination of the plane, α = 30°
10 × 800 × sin30° - 0 = F × 10 × 1000 Coefficient of friction, m = 0.25
\ F = 400 kN Distance travelled = 10 m
Hence, the correct option is (A). Let force required be = P
8. Tractive force is developed but it acts on the truck by The body is in equilibrium under the action of forces.
virtue of the friction at the wheels of the truck. Wheels of Resolving forces along the plane,
the carts merely roll. Therefore no extra frictional force
P = W sin 30° + m R = 400 × 0.5 + 0.25 × R
comes into play.
For the trucks and the carts, F = ma, i.e., P = 200 + 0.25 × R (1)
2000 = (400 + 800 + 400)a Resolving forces normal to the plane,
a = 1.25 m/s R = Wcos30° = 400 × 0.866 = 346.4 N
Between the truck and the cart A, Substituting the value of R in Eq. (1),
P = 200 + 0.25 × 346.4 = 286.6 N
Truck
T Work done by the body = Force × distance travelled in
2 kN
the direction of force = 286.6 × 10 = 2866 J
Practice Problems 2 v1 = 0.365 km/min

1. Let v1 be the velocity of the boat and v2 be the velocity v2 = 0.4 – 0.365 = 0.035 km/min = 2 km/h
of the stream in km/min. Then, Hence, the correct option is (D).
(v1 + v2)75 = 30 2. Given, s = t3 – 3t2 – 9t + 12
(v1 - v2)90 = 30 ds
= v = 3t 2 − 6t − 9
\ v1 + v2 = 0.4 dt
when v = 0,
v1 - v2 = 0.33
3t2 – 6t – 9 = 0
2v1 = 0.73 t2 – 2t – 3 = 0
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| Part III • Unit
1.20 | Engineering
Mechanics
(t + 1)(t - 3) = 0 7. Velocity of pile and hammer becomes zero when they

or t = -1 or 3 reach position 3.
t ≠ -1 \ t = 3 \ Kinetic energy at position 3 is zero.
acceleration is a = dv/dt = 6t – 6 Hence, the correct option is (A).
when t = 3, a = 6 × 3 – 6 = 12 m/s 8. Mass of the gun, mg = 2000 kg
Hence, the correct option is (D). Mass of the shell, ms = 50 kg
3. 10 sec 8 sec
Let vg and vs be the final velocities of the gun and shell
× × ×
100 m 100 m respectively.
P Q R
Initial velocity of the gun and shell = 0
Let vP and vQ be the velocities at P and Q.
\ Initial momentum of the gun and shell = 0
100 = vP × 10 + 1/2 a × 100
Final momentum of the gun and shell = mgvg + msvs
10 = vP + 5a (1)
From conservation of momentum,
Also between P and R,
0 = mgvg + msvs
200 = 18 vP + 1/2 a × 182
0 = 2000 vg + 50 × 300
100 = 9 vP + 81 a (2)
50 × 300
Multiplying Eq. (1) by 9, and substituting the value of vP, vg = = −7.5 m/s
from the resulting equation, in Eq. (2), we get −2000
10 = 36 a, ∴ a = m/s 2
10 9. The gun having velocity -7.5 m/s is brought to rest in a
Substituting the value of a in Eq. (1), distance of 0.6 m.
5 Here, v2 – u2 = 2as
10 = vP + 5 ×
18 0 – (-7.5)2 = 2a × 0.6
c = 8.61 m/s
−56.25
vQ = vP + a × t = 8.61 + 5/18 × 10 = 11.38 m/s a= = −46.87 m/s 2
2 × 0.6
Hence, the correct option is (A) Force required to stop the gun = mass × a
4. v2 = u2 + 2as = 2000 × 46.87 = 46875 N
At the starting point, velocity = zero. Hence, the correct option is (B).
v 2 − u 2 8.612 − 0
∴s = = = 133.43 ≈ 134 m 10. Ball having a velocity of 40 m/s and is going up the
2a 5
2× trajectory, while subjected to g = 9.81 m/s2 downwards.
18 This acceleration can be resolved into a normal and a
tangential component.
5. Elevation is 1500 m. an = gcos30° = 8.5 m/s2
Time taken by the bomb to fall down 1500 m is
1 at = -gsin30° = -4.9 m/s2
h = gt2
2
1 40 m/s
1500 = × 9.81 × t2
2 at
t = 17.48 sec
30°
The horizontal velocity of the plane is 1000 km/h 30°
1000 × 1000 g an
= = 277.77 m/s
3600
\ Horizontal distance = 277.77 × 17.48 = 4855.5 m
= 4.855 km
Hence, the correct option is (C). In terms of path coordinates,
2
1  M 2 gh  v2
an = = 8.5 m/s 2
6. Work done = ( m + M )   ρ
2  M + m 
600 × 800 2 40 2
= × 2 × 9.81× 1.2 = 6278.4 = 6.2784 kj ρ = = 188.2 m
1200 2 8.5
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (A).
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Previous Years’ Questions 6.

m
1. According to law of conservation of linear momentum,
m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2
F 10°
(1 × 10) + (20 × 0) = (m1 + m2)v2 Truck
⇒ 10 = 21 × v2 mg N
10 10°
⇒ v2 =
21
10
v2 = ω r ⇒ ω = rad/sec m = 100 kg
21× 1
⇒ ω = 0.4762 rad/sec Normal force on the crate surface
1 N = mg cos10°
Which is approximately rad/sec
3 Maximum frictional force,
Hence, the correct option is (B). F = m × mg cos10°
2. During inelastic collision of two particles, only total = 0.3 × 100 × 9.81 × cos10°
linear momentum is conserved.
= 289.8 N
Component of weight of crate opposing the frictional
3. Ry
force = mg sin10
m mg cos θ P = 100 × 9.81 × sin10°

ma = 170.35 N
θ mg sin θ
mg cos θ Maximum permissible inertia force when truck is accel-
mg erated upwards
y
θ ma = 289.8 - 170.35
Q ⇒ a = 1.1945 m/s2
x
ΣFx = 0 Hence, the correct option is 1 to 1.3
Ry = mg cos θ 7. u1 = 5 m/s

ΣFx = ma u2 = 0
-m mg cos θ + mg sin θ = ma After collision v1 and v2 are equal
a = [-mg cos θ + g sin θ]
Coefficient of restitution
Since acceleration is constant, so
v2 − v1 0
1 e= = = 0.
S = ut + at 2 u1 − u2 5
2
1 Hence, the correct option is (D).
⇒ S = 0 + [ g Sinθ − µ g cosθ ]t 2
2 8. When swimming along the flow of water (Vf) the rela-
1 tive velocity of the swimmer is = V + Vf km/hr
⇒ S = [ g cosθ (tan θ − µ )]t 2
2 V = Velocity of swimmer
2S When swimming against the flow, velocity = V – Vf km/hr
or t =
g cos θ (tan θ − µ ) \ Time taken while swimming along the flow
Hence, the correct option is (A). 10
2= ⇒ V + Vf = 5 (1)
4. Hence, the correct option is (B). V +V f
Time taken while swimming against the flow
5. 0 < e < I
10
e = 1 elastic 5 = V −V ⇒V −V f = 2 (2)
f
e = 0 perfectly plastic
From (1) and (2)
V = 3.5 m/s.
Hence, the correct answer is 3.5.
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| Part III • Unit
1.22 | Engineering
Mechanics
9. Energy at the height of 1 m = mgh = 1 × 1 × 9.81 = 9.81 J ⇒ V = 29.633 m/s

(at A) Hence, the correct answer is 29.5 to 29.7.
A
12. Assume that the loss of energy while travelling in the
barrel is nil.
C Velocity of the bullet = 20 m/s.
1m
1 turn of helix has a length of 0.5 m i.e., the bullet turns
1 rotation in a length of 0.5 m.
0.5
B Time taken to travel 0.5 m = = 0.025 sec.
20
This energy is completely converted into kinetic energy ∴ The bullet turns 1 rotation in 0.025 sec.
at B. 1
1 2 Spinning speed = = 40 rot/sec = 40 × 2p rad/sec
∴ mv = 9.81 ⇒ V = 2 × 9.81 = 4.43 m s 0.025
2
= 251.327 rad/sec
20% of velocity is reduced ⇒ VB = 0.8 × 4.43 Hence, the correct answer is 251 to 252.
VB = 3.543 m/s 13.
\ The available kinetic energy after the reduction of
velocity is completely converted into potential energy
at point C. V
1
\ mg hc = mVB2
2 θ
2
V
\ hC = B
= 0.64 m Velocity of approach = V sin θ
2g
Let ‘u’ be the rebound velocity of the point mass mak-
ing an angle ‘α’ with the vertical axis.
10. For perfectly elastic impact, coefficient of restitution is 1.
v2 - v1
e=1=
u1 - u2 α
u1, u2 – initial and final velocities of mass 1 kg. u
v1, v2 – initial and final velocities of mass 2 kg. Then, u cos α = –V sin θ
u1 = 12 m/s, v1 = 0 Total change in momentum,
∴ u1 – u2 = v2 – v1 ∆P = M(V2 – V1)
12 – u2 = v2 ⇒ u2 = 12 – v2 = M(–V sin θ – V sin θ)
Conservation of kinetic energy: = –2MV sin θ
1 1 1 1 Hence, the correct option is (D).
m1 u12 + m2 v12 = m1u22 + m2 v22
2 2 2 2 14. (see figure)
⇒ u12 = u22 + 2v22 ⇒ 122 = (12 – v2)2 + 2 v22
∴ v2 = 8 m/s.
Hence, the correct answer is 7.8 to 8.2.
11. u = 40 m/s and V = Final Velocity 200 N
a
a = –0.1 V
t V
dV dV dV
We know that a = or dt = ⇒ ∫ dt = − ∫
dt a 0 u
0.1V
−1 100 N
⇒t = [ln V ]Vu
0.1
Let ‘a’ be the acceleration of system.
⇒ –0.1t = [ln V – ln u]
‘g’ be acceleration due to gravity.
At t = 3 seconds
T be the tension.
– (0.1 × 3) = [ln V – ln 40]
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12:52:34 M04_
200 Solving Equations

After second (1) and (2), we have
collision,
T – 200 = a (1)
g u T = 133.33 N= 0.8 × 3.2 = 2.56 m/s
2
100 Hence, the correct answer is 133–134.

T – 100 =− a (2) v2 = u2 + at2
Chapter
g 4 • Rectilinear Motion | 3.25
t2 = 0.256 s
Solving Equations (1) and (2), we have Total time = 2[t + t1 + t2 + … 0]
(1)
T = 133.33 N = 2[0.4 + 0.32 + 0.256 + …]
Hence, the correct answer is 133–134.
(2) 0.4
=2× = 4 s .
1 − 0.8
15. Distance covered is area of V–t diagram, Distance cov-
ered from t = 0 to t = 5. Hence, the correct option is (C).
1 1 1 17. D B
= × 1 × 1 + 12 + 12 + × 1 × 3 + 22 + × 2 × 2
2 2 2
1 3
= +1+1+ + 4 + 2
2 2
1m 1m
S = 10 m
Hence, the correct answer is 10.

45°
16. u = 4 m/s, g = 10 m/s2
A C
V = u + at
0 = 4 – 10t BC = sin 45°
AB
⇒ t = 0.4 s
After first collision, BC 1
AB = = = 1.4142 m
sin 45° sin 45°
u1 = 0.8 × 4 = 3.2 m/s
Total travel, OA + AB
v1 = u1 + at1 = 1 + 1.4142 = 2.414 m
3.2 Hence, the correct answer is 2.414.
t1 = = 0.32 s
10
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CHapter 5 Curvilinear Motion
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 5. Applying the moment of momentum equation with the

origin chosen at the mass centre of the ring and real-
1. The force F = 2t N
T
izing that r, v, and m are mutually perpendicular
Impulse = ∫0 Fdt d d d (ω ) 2
T= ( rmv ) = ( r 2 mω ) = r m
dt dt dt
20  2.0t 2  20
= ∫ 2.0tdt =   = 400 Ns. 300 N
0
 2  0 2m
Hence, the correct option is (A). C
2. Impulse = Change in momentum 200 × 9.81
400 = m (V2 − V1) = 200 (V2 − 0)

V2 = 2 m/s d (ω ) T
= 2 , where T is the torque
Hence, the correct option is (B). dt r m
3. Force = rate of change of momentum 300 × 2
= = 0.75 rad/s 2
= 200 (2 − 0)/20 = 20 N 22 × 200
This must be the equivalent average force. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Impulse 400 6. The acceleration of the mass centre may be determined
Average force = = = 20 N. by applying Newtons’ law
Time 20
Hence, the correct option is (C). F = mac
4. 300
Then ac = = 1.5 m/s 2
200
mg 5 7. r = 500 m
1
q 108 × 1000
v = 108 km/hr = = 30 m/s
Work energy equation states that 3600
W = ∫ Fdr = KE 2 − KE1 Total acceleration = ( an ) 2 + ( at ) 2
1 at = 4 m/s2 (given)
sinθ = = 0.2;
5 v 2 30 2
an = = = 1.8 m/s 2
θ = 11.54° r 500
Weight of the car is mg = 1500 × 9.8 and the component a = 16 + 3.24 = 4.38 m/s 2
of the weight along the incline is 1500 × 9.81 × sinθ
= 2943.7 N Hence, the correct option is (A).
The frictional resistance is 300 N in addition to brak- 8. The PE of the cylinder at the top of the inclined plane
ing force P which makes the net force down the incline is converted into KE of translation and rotation as the
as F = 2943.7 – 300 − P = 2643.7 − P cylinder rolls down. At the bottom of the incline all the
PE has been converted to KE
Work done W = (2643.7 − P) × 50 J
2
Δ EP = Δ EK
1500  80 × 1000 
KE1 = ×  = 370370 J 1 2 1 2
2  3600  mgh = mv + Ιω
2 2
KE2 = 0 v 1
ω = and Ι = mR 2
= (2643.7 − P) 50 = 0 − 370370 R 2
2
370370 + 2643.7 × 50 1 2 11  v 3
P= = 10051.1 = 10 kN mgh = mv +  mR 2  2 = v 2 .
50 2 22  R 4
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (C).
Unit 01.indd 24
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Chapter 5 • Curvilinear Motion | | 1.25
3 2 10. Newton’s second law when applied to rotation

9. From the relation mgh = mv
4 ΣT = Ι α
4 gh 4 × 9.8 × 2 In this case T = Fd = mgd
v= = = 26.16
3 3 = ( 4 kg)(10 m/s 2 )( 4 m) = 160 Nm, g = 10 m/s 2
Linear Speed v = 5.1 m/s 1 1

I= MR 2 = 80 kg( 4 m) 2 = 640 kgm 2
Angular speed, 2 2
v 5.1 T 160 1
ω= = = 12.75 rad/s. Also α = = = rad/s 2
R 0.4 I 640 4
Practice Problems 2 2. Maximum range in the case of an inclined plane is

gx 2 given by
1. From equation, z = x tan α −
2v0 2 cos 2α u
2
R= 2
[sin( 2α − β ) − sin β ],
From the two points P1 and P2 g cos β
9.81× 30 2 4415 where α = angle of projection and b = angle of the

20 = 30 tan α − = 30 tan α − 2 inclined plane to the horizontal.
2v0 2 cos 2 α v0 cos 2 α
For range to be maximum, sin(2α − b) should be
9.81× 180 2 158922 maximum.
20 = 180 tan α − = 180 tan α − 2
2v0 2 cos 2 α v0 cos 2 α or, 2α – b = 90°
α = 45 + 0.5 b
We can determine both α and v0 by taking v02 cos2α as a
parameter p. Hence, the correct option is (C).
4415 3. With maximum initial velocity of 40 m/s the horizontal
i.e., 20 = 30 tan α − range of 40 m on requires that
p
40 2 × sin 2α
158922 40 =
20 = 180 tan α − 9.81
p
sin 2α = 0.245
4415 2α = 14.19
or = 30 tan α − 20 (1)
p α = 7.095°
158922 2u sin α 2 × 40 × sin 7.095
= 180 tan α − 20 (2) T= = = 1 sec
p g 9.81
Dividing (2) by (1), we have Hence, the correct option is (B).
158922 180 tan α − 20
= 5. m
4415 30 tan α − 20
i.e., 36(30 tan α – 20) = 180 tan α – 20 r
F
tan α = 0.778
α = 37.87°
F = ma (1)
4415
From (1), = 30 × 0.778 − 20 = 3.34 Fr = Iα
p
Fr = 1/2 mr2α (2)
∴ p = 1321.86 Substituting for F from equation (1) in equation (2),
i.e., v02cos2α = 1321.86 mar = 1/2 mr2α
1321.86 a = 1/2 rα
v0 2 =
0.623 But the acceleration of the centre of mass is the sum of
∴ v0 = 46.1 m/s the accelerations of linear and angular accelerations.
Hence, the correct option is (D). A = a + rα
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| Part III • Unit
1.26 | Engineering
Mechanics
3 Mass of the unrolled carpet portion

= 1/ 2rα + rα = rα
2 α (radius of the unrolled carpet portion)
2A m r2
∴α = ∴ =
3r M R2
Hence, the correct option is (A). M g r3

∴ PE 2 =
R2
6. Initial velocity in the vertical direction
Vy = 200 sin 30° = 100 m/s Kinetic energy of the unrolled carpet portion at the
instant of the reduced radius,
To find maximum height attained by the bullet consider
vertical motion of the bullet using. 1 1
KE = mVc 2 + ΙW 2
1 2 2
200 2 ×
v 2 sin 2 θ Vy sin θ
2 2
h= = = 4 = 509.68 m 63 g R
2g 2g 19.62 Now Vc =
3
1 Mr 2 63 1 Mr 2 r 2 63gR  V 
∴ KE = gR + × 2 
∵w = c 
7. Initial velocity in the horizontal direction 2
2 R 3 2
2 R 2 3r  r 
Vx = 200 cos 30° = 173.2 m/s
63 Mr 2 g
Horizontal component of the velocity V of the bullet =
remains constant. Vertical velocity of the bullet when it 4 R
hits the target can be found using v2 – u2 = 2as Now KE = release in PE = PE1 – PE2
u = 100 m/s 63 Mr 2 g Mgr 3
∴ = Mgr − 2
V = Vy 4 R R
a = –9.81 m/s2
r 3 63 r 2
s = –60 m + =R (1)
R2 4 R
(Vy ) 2 − (100) 2 = −2 × 9.81 × 60,
The roots of equation (1) are the roots of a cubic equa-
Vy = 105.72 m/s tion. Instead of solving for the cubic equation, we
can plug in the options and determine which the right
Velocity at which the bullet hit the target
answer is. Plugging option (c) satisfies equation (1) and
V = (Vx ) 2 + (Vy ) 2 R
hence is the right answer, i.e., r =
4
= 173.22 + 105.722 = 202.92 m/s Hence, the correct option is (B).
10. Let m and r be the mass and radius of the sphere
Hence, the correct option is (A). respectively.
8. Let t be the time required to hit the target. At point A, KE1 = 0, PE1 = 8.3mg
v = u + at At point C, PE2 = 2mg
–105.72 = 100 – gt KE2 = 1/2 mv2 + 1/2 I w2,
100 + 105.72 where v is the horizontal velocity of the sphere at point C
t= = 20.97 sec
9.81 2
2 v 7
KE 2 = 1 / 2 mv 2 + 1 / 2  mr 2  2 = mv 2
Hence, the correct option is (B). 5 r 10
9. Let the radius of the carpet, at which the horizontal From the conservation of energy,
velocity of the axis of the cylindrical part of the carpet KE1 + PE1 = KE2 + PE2
63
is gr , be r. 7
3 i.e., 0 + 8.3 mg = mv 2 + 2 mg
10
Initial potential energy of the center of mass of the
carpet PE1 = MgR. v=3 g
Potential energy of the center of mass of the carpet At point C, the sphere will move forward as a projectile
when the radius is reduced, PE2 = mgr. projected horizontally with a velocity = v
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Chapter 5 • Curvilinear Motion | | 1.27
Let t be the time taken by the sphere to reach the Let z be the horizontal distance travelled by the sphere
ground, then with respect to the point B. Then,
2 = 1/2 gt2 2
=
z vt= 3 g =6m
2 g
t= secs
g
Previous Years’ Questions πtρ

= ( R2 2 − R12 )( R2 2 + R12 )
1. 60° 2
P V
T m 2
r = ( R2 + R12 )
2
30° R
O V m 5
R 30° V = [( 2 R) 2 + R 2 ] = mR 2
120° 30° 2 2
60° Q S
v 2
1 1 5 V 
I ∴ KE = mV 2 + × mR 2 ×  
2 2 2  2R 
Let R be the velocity at point P.
1  5 1
Here, point I is the instantaneous center of rotation = mV 2 1 + × 
for the shown plane motion of the circular disc, which 2  2 4
at the instant has zero velocity. Point P is having pure 1 13  13
rotation w.r.t point I. = mV 2   = mV 2
2  8  16
Rotating velocity of disc from center O = v
Translation velocity of disc = v Hence, the correct option is (C).
From the ∆PQS 3.
R v
= ⇒ R = 3v
sin 120° sin 30° x
0.01
1.0 m
0.02
2. y
R2 R1
V Lowers Euler critical buckling load, Pcr
π2 E I min
Pcr =
L2
1 1 0.02 × 0.013 0.01× 0.023

Kinetic energy KE = mv 2 + I ω 2 IXX = and I YY =
2 2 12 12
0.02 × 0.013
V V V Imin = IXX = = 2 ×10 −8 m4
Where ω = = = 12
R2 2 R1 2 R
π 2 × 200 × 10 9 × 2 × 10 −8
m = π ( R2 − R )t ρ
2 2 ∴ Pcr = = 3289.87 N
1 12
m2 R2 2 m1 R12 Hence, the correct answer is 3285 to 3295.
I= − 1
2 2 4. MgH = Mv 2
2
πtρ
= ( R2 4 − R14 )
2 or, v = 2gH
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12:52:48
= 14.1 kJ V1
Hence, the correct answer is 14.1 to 14.3. φ
6. m = 1 kg
Applying Conservation of energy V1 = 1 + 4 = 5 m/s
V1 makes an angle tan–1 (2) or 63.43° with x-axis.
| Part III • Unit
1.28 | Engineering
Mechanics \ f = 63.43° – 45°
30 m
= 18.43°
5. For rod 1AB to2 be 1rigid,
1
V = mv + × mr 2 ω2
V1 cos f2 = V22 cos245°
2m V2 = 3m/s1 1 2 3 2
= +  mv = mv
1 2 1 Hence, the
2 correct
4  answer 4 is 3.
mgh = mv + ( I o ) ω2
2 2
4 gh d θ
v 1= rw = t2
8. V
3 dt
T
v = 20 m/sdr
2000 kg Vr = =2×t=2×2
Hence, thedtcorrect answer is 20.
v 2
ω = = = 2 rad/s, h = 0.5 m 7. (see figure)
r 1 Vr = 4
V2
45º
1 2 1
Net energy = mgh + mv + I ω 2 V = Vr2 + Vt 2 = 42 + 42
2 2
= 14.1 kJ V = 32 V1
Hence, the correct answer is 14.1 to 14.3. φ
1 1
( 32 )
2
6. m = 1 kg KE = mV2 = × 1 ×
Applying Conservation of energy V1 = 1 +2 4 = 5 2m/s
KE V1 makes an angle tan–1 (2) or 63.43° with x-axis.
= 16.
\ f = 63.43° – 45°
30 m Hence, the correct option is (C).
= 18.43°
9. Moment
For rod ABof to
inertia of disk A = I A = mR 2
be rigid,
V
V1 cos f = V cos 45° mR 2
Moment of inertia2 of disk B = I B =
V2 = 3 m/s 2
1 2 1 Hence,
1 the2 correct
1 answer 1 is 3. 1
g Mechanics mgh = mv + ( I o ) ω2 mVA + I A ω A2 = mVB2 + I B ωB 2
2 2 2 2 2 2
2 2 2
1 2 1 1 2 2 mVA 1 V mVb 1 mR 2 VB2
= mv + × mr ω + mR 2 × A2 = + × 2
2 2 2 2 2 R 2 2 2 R
2 2
VA VA VB VB 2 2
1 1 3 + = +
=  +  mv 2 = mv 2 2 2 2 4
 2 4  4
3
4 gh VA2 = VB2
v = 4
M05_TRIS7308_C05.indd 30 3 VA 3 27/04/2017 12:52:49
=
v = 20 m/s VB 4
7. (see figure)
V2 10. m = 2 kg, g = 10 m/s2
45º
2 mv 2
N – mg =
R
V1 mv 2
N = mg +
14.3. φ R
2 × 20 × 20
N = 2 × 10 + = 420 N.
V1 = 1 + 4 = 5 m/s 2
V1 makes an angle tan–1 (2) or 63.43° with x-axis. Hence, the correct answer is 420 N.
\ f = 63.43° – 45° 11. F = 100 N, m = 10 kg
= 18.43° r=1m
For rod AB to be rigid,
V
V1 cos f = V2 cos 45°
V2 = 3 m/s
Unit 01.indd 28
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12:52:49
mr ×α ma
fs = =
2 2
Substituting in Equation (i), we get
fs ma
100 – = 10 × a
2
100 – fs = m × a
10 a
100 – fs = 10 × a(i) 100 – = 10 a
2
Since the disk is rolling, 15 a = 100
T = Ia
a = 6.6 m/s2
mr 2
fs × r = xα Hence, the correct answer is 6.66.
2
Unit 01.indd 29 4/26/2019 4:41:22 PM

test
Hints/solutions
1. Hence, the correct option is (D). 4(25 + 24 cosa) = 73 + 48 cosa
2. Hence, the correct option is (A). 100 + 96 cosa = 73 + 48 cosa
3. Hence, the correct option is (C). 100 - 73 = -48 cosa
1 −27
4. Area = π r 2 cos α = = −0.562
2 48
4r = 124.19°
Xe = r; ye =
3π Hence, the correct option is (B).
13. P P
5. Law of machine is P = mw + c B
√3
C
When P = 10 Kg; w = 200 Kg 120°
2P √3
P = 12 Kg; w = 300 Kg
Then we get, 60° 60°
A D
P √3
10 = m × 200 + c
12 = m × 300 + c P P
Solving we get, T sin60° = P
2 P 2P
= 2 1= 00 mm = T =
100 3 3
1 2
P= w + 5 and c = 6
50 2P 1
550 T cos 60° = ×
=
For w 500= ,P 3 2
50 P
= = 0.577 P (compressive)
500 3
w = 500, P = +6p
50 Hence, the correct option is (C).
= 16 Kg. 14. For equilibrium
Hence, the correct option is (A). P sin 45° + R = W = 500 N (1)
6. Hence, the correct option is (A). mR = P cos45° (2)
7. Hence, the correct option is (D). P
R
8. Hence, the correct option is (D). 45°
9. Hence, the correct option is (B).
10. Hence, the correct option is (C).
12
11. cos θ =
13 W
150
p cos θ = = 50 From (1) and (2)
3
1
13 R = 500 − 100 2 × = 400
p = 50 × = 54.16 kN. 2
12
R = 400 N.
12. R2 = (4p)2 + (3p)2 + 2 × 4p ⋅ 3p cosa
15. mR = Pcos 45 from (2)
= 16p2 + 9p2 + 24p2cosa
1
= 25p2 + 24p2cosa µ × 400 = 100 2 ×
2
Now, 100
2R2 = (8p)2 + 3p2 + 2 × 3p × 3p cos a Then, µ = = 0.25
400
= 64p2 + 9p2 + 48p2cos a m = 0.25.
4R2 = 73p2 + 48p2cos a Hence, the correct option is (C).
Unit 01.indd 30
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12:52:55 Z01_
3.32 | Part III • Unit 1 • Engineering Mechanics Hints/Solutions | 1.31
16. Component of mass M2 along the plane = M2sinq 20. A

If the mass M1 move downward with acceleration 60° TAC
a and T is the tension in the string, then equation of
motion for the two masses are 600 N 90° C
M1g - T = M1a (1)
30°
T - M2g sinq = M2a (2) B
From equations (1) and (2) we get,
TBC TAC 600
( M1 − M 2 sin θ ) g = =
a= sin 60 sin 30 sin 90
M1 + M 2
= =
TBC 300 3 519.6.
(5 − 5 × sin θ × 9.81)
1.5 = Hence, the correct option is (A).
5+5
or sinq = 0.692 21. The tension in the wire AC will be
q = 43.96° TAC = 600 sin30 = 300 N.
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (B).
22. Assuming slipping to impend, draw a free body dia-
17. The tension T in the string is
gram of the ladder
T = M1(g - a)
μRB
5(9.81 - 1.5) = 41.55
RB B
18. If each mass is doubled, their acceleration
( 2 M1 − 2 M 2 sin 43.96) × 9.81 RA
a=
2 ( M1 + M 2 ) q
W
μRA A
( 2 × 5 − 2 × 5 × sin 43.96)
a= × 9.81
2 × (5 + 5)
Applying Sfx = 0 = RB - mRA (1)
= 1.5 m/s2. SFy = 0 = RA – W + mRB (2)
Hence, the correct option is (C). SMB = 0
1
19. 0 = −W l cos θ + RA l cos θ − µ RA l sin θ (3)
F = μmg cosqt 2
Equation (1) gives = RB = mRA
Substituting this value in equation (2)
mg sinq mg cosq
We have,
q = 30° RA - W + m(mRA) = 0
W µW
RA (1 + µ 2 ) = W , RA = , RB =
g 1+ µ 2
1+ µ2
mg sin 30 − F = ma; a =
4 Substituting this value in equation (3), we get
mg
mg sin θ − µ mg cos θ = l  W 
4 −W cos θ +   I cos θ
1+ µ
2
2 
1
sin30 − µ cos30 =  W 
4 = −µ  I sin θ = 0,
2 
1 3 1 1+ µ 
−µ =−
2 2 4 µW W W
= sin θ = cos θ − cos θ
3 1 1+ µ2 1+ µ2 2
µ =
2 4 µ cos θ cos θ
= sin θ = −
2 1 1+ µ 2
1+ µ2 2
µ= = .
4 3 2 3 1+ µ2  1 1
tan θ =  − 
Hence, the correct option is (D). µ  1 + µ 2
2
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1.32 | Engineering Mechanics Test | 3.33
1 1+ µ2 F
= − ∴ T sin 30 = VB =
µ 2µ 1+ 3
2 − 1− µ2 2F
= ∴T = = 0.732.
2µ 1+ 3
1− µ2 Hence, the correct option is (A).
= .
2µ 25. Force in member QR = T cos30
Hence, the correct option is (A). 2F 3
= .
23. Since the rod turn about ‘0’ subjected to force P 1+ 3 2
2L
Torque P × = I 0α 3F
3 = = 0.633 F.
2
1+ 3
2 L ML
Or, P × = ×α Hence, the correct option is (A).
3 3
26. Breaking torque
2 PL 2 P
∴α = = T1 T1
ML2 ML 600 N
2L 2P 4 P
Now, a = rα = × =
3 mL 3m T2 T2
4P 4P
∴ P + R = + ma = + m =+
3m 3
(T1 – T2)R
4P P
∴R = −P = . T
3 3 T1 = 600 1 = e µθ
T2
m = 0.25, q = p T2 = 274
24. F 0.6
P ∴ BT = (600 − 274) ×
2
I
= BT = 97.8 N.
I Hence, the correct option is (A).
2
45° 30° 27. X2 + (0.8)2 = 22
Q R
M =4
VA VB
X = 4 - 0.64
2
q
Let PR = l X = 1.83 2m
3l 0.8
RM = θ = sin −1 ⋅
2 2
l l = 23.57
1.83
PM = ∴ QM = W T 0.8
2 2 =
l 3l sin(90 + 23.57) sin 90
∴ QR = + 0.200 200 N
2 2 =
l 0.91
= (1 + 3 )
2 T = 219.78.
VA + VB = F Hence, the correct option is (A).
Taking moment about Q
28. C
l l F
VB × (1 + 3 ) = F × ∴VB =
2 2 1+ 3 √125 + 275 = 302
125
F 3F
VB = F − =
1+ 3 1+ 3 A
275
B
Let T be the force in member PR 50 N
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12:53:00 Z01_
3.34 | Part III • Unit 1 • Engineering Mechanics Hints/Solutions | 1.33
T 1187.35 × sin 65.6 = 1081.3 N.

R
29. R = (10) + (5) + 2 × 10 × 5 cos 120

2 2
h = 100 + 25 + 100 cos 120

125
cos θ = = 0.413
302 = 125 + 100 × −0.5
q = 65.6
= =
75 8.66 N.
Resolving force vertically, we get
50 × 9.81 = T cos 65.6 Hence, the correct option is (D).
50 × 9.81
T= = 1187.35 N 5 R 8.66
0.413 30. = = = 9.99
sin α sin 60 120
Ry = 0
Resolving horizontally sina × 9.99 = 5
T sin 65.6 = Rx a = 30°.
0.91 = Rx Hence, the correct option is (B).
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Unit 01.indd 34 4/26/2019 4:41:28 PM
Strength
of Materials U
Chapter 1 Simple Stresses and Strains
Chapter 2
Compound Stresses, Shear
Force and Bending Moments
Chapter 3 S
tresses in Beams, Cylinders
and Spheres
2.3
2.11
2.19
n
i
Chapter 4 Deflection of Beams 2.27
Chapter 5
Torsion of Shafts and
Springs Columns 2.37
t
2
Unit 02.indd 1 4/26/2019 5:46:20 PM
2.2 | Strength of Materials
Unit 02.indd 2
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12:54:58 M01_
CHapter 1 simple stresses and strains
Hints/solution
Practice Problems 1 Increase in length = αctL − δc

1. For equilibrium = αstL + δs
− 100 + 80 − 60 + P4 = 0 or δs + δc = αctL − αstL (1)
P4 = 80 kN If Pc′ and Ps′ are the forces developed in the strip, 2P′s
= P′c
From (1)
2. Force acting at a cross–section in portion 1 = 100 kN
(tensile) Ps′L Pc′L
+ = (α c − α s )tL
AEs AEc
100 Ps′ 2P ′
1 100 kN or + s = (α c − α s )t
AEs AEc
Ps′  1 2 
⇒ +
100 80 20 kN 100  2 × 10 1 × 105 
 5
1 2
= (1.8 − 1.2)10 −5 × 50
In portion 2, 20 kN (tensile)
i.e., Ps′ = 1200 N and Pc′ = 2400 N
80 2 80 kN
1 3
100 60 10 × 103
4. σ 1 = = 0.5 N/mm 2
200 × 100
In portion 3, 100 • 80 + 60 = 80 KN (Tensile)
20 × 103
Total elongation = (Sum of) elongation of portions 1, 2 σ2 = = 0.667 N/mm 2
300 × 100
and 3
PL PL PL 15 × 103
= 1 1‘ + 2 2 + 3 3 σ3 = = 0.25 N/mm 2
A1 E A2 E A3 E 300 × 200
103 100 × 600 20 × 800 80 × 1000  Hence, the correct option is (B).
= × + +
2 × 10 5
 1600 900 400  5. Volumetric strain
= 1.276 mm. δv 1
= (σ 1 + σ 2 + σ 3 )(1 − 2 µ )
Hence, the correct option is (A). v E
3. 1
= (0.5 + 0.667 + 0.25)(1 − 2 × 0.25)
2 × 105
5 5 5
S C S 1
= × 1.417 × 0.5
2 × 105
2M = 0.35 × 10−5
Change in volume
δ v = 0.354 × 10 −5 × 300 × 200 × 100
At normal temperature = 21.24 mm−3
α stl
After rise in
α ctl
δs δc temperature PL
6. δ L =
AE
Free expansion of copper strip = αctL AE
⇒ L= δL
Free expansion of steel strip = αctL P
After rise in temperature, steel is subjected to tensile π (1.25) 2
stress and copper is subjected to compressive stress. ⇒ A= = 1.227 cm 2
4
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3.38 | Part III • ofUnit 2
2.4 | Strength Materials
• Strength of Materials
E = 2 × 10 4 kN/cm 2 If P is the support reaction, then

PLa PLs
δ L = 0.3 cm 1.41 = +
Aa Ea As Es
P = 7.5 kN
 1000 3000 
1.227 × 2 × 10 4 × 0.3 = P + 
∴ L= = 982 cm  600 × 70 × 1000 300 × 200 × 1000 
7.5
 1 1 
Hence, the correct option is (D). = P + 
 42000 20, 000 
= P × 7.381 × 10−5
W  2 AEh  ∴ P = 0.19103 × 105
7. p = 1 + 1 + 
A  WL  = 19,103 N
800  1 + 2 × 1.227 × 2000 × 10 4 × 8  π
= 1 +  11. Area of steel, As = × 30 2 × 8 = 5655 mm 2
1.227  800 × 982  4
Area of concrete, Ac = 450 × 450 − 5,655
800 = 1,96,845 mm2
= [1 + 1 + 499.8 ]
1.227 Let stresses in steel and concrete are
= 15, 242 N/cm 2 σs and σc, respectively.
σs × As + σc × Ac = 9,00,000 N
Hence, the correct option is (B). ∴ σs × 5,655 + σc × 1,96,845 = 9,00,000
σs + 34.81σc = 159.15 (1)
8. G = 0.5 × 105 N/mm 2
Also, strain in steel = strain in concrete
K = 0.8 × 105 N/mm 2 σ σ
i.e., s = c
E s Ec
We know that
σs σc
E = 2G (1 + µ) = 3K (1 − 2µ) ⇒ =
2.1× 10 5
1.4 × 10 4
3K (1 − 2µ) = 2G (1 + µ)
or σs = 15σc (2)
⇒ 3 × 0.8 × 105 (1 − 2µ) = 2 × 0.5 × 105 (1 + µ)
Solving Eqs. (1) and (2)
⇒ 2.4 (1 − 2µ) = 1 + µ
15σc + 34.81σc = 3.195 N/mm2
⇒ 2.4 = 1 + µ + 4.8µ
∴ σs = 3.195 × 15 = 47.93 N/mm2
⇒ 1.4 = 5.8µ
1.4
∴ µ= = 0.24 12. Since the bar is rigid it will be straight even after load-
5.8 ing. The brass rod will be under tension and steel rod
Hence, the correct option is (C). will be under compression.
9. Elongation at the elastic limit Pb 15 kN

A 1m B 1m
50, 000 C 0.5 D
= 0.005 × = 0.00625 cm Δb m
40, 000 Ps Δs
1
Proof resilience = × 50, 000 × 0.00625
2
= 156.25 Ncm.
From the figure it can be seen that
Hence, the correct option is (D). ∆b ∆s
= (1)
10. Free expansion due to temperature rise 1 2
Let Pb and Ps be the forces acting at B and C, respec-
= αat La + αst Ls tively after loading taking moments about A
= 11 × 10−6 × 30 × 1000 + 12 × 10−6 × 30 × 3000 Pb × 1 + Ps × 2 = 15 × 103 × 2.5
= 1.41 mm ⇒ Pb + 2Ps = 37,500 (2)
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Chapter 1 • Simple Stresses and Strains
Hints/Solutions || 3.39
2.5
From (1) we get 65000 − P

Stress in BC =
PsLs PbLb A2
∆s = 2 ∆b or = 2×
AsEs AbEb 38494
= = 122.5 N/mm 2
Lb As Es 314.16
or Ps = 2 × × × × Pb
Ls Ab Eb Hence, the correct option is (A).
1 600 2 14. Cross–sectional area of 20 mm diameter
= 2× × × × Pb π
2 1000 1 Portion = ( 20) 2 = 314.16 mm 2
= 1.2 Pb 4
Substituting in (2) Cross-sectional area of 16 mm diameter Portion
π
(1 + 2 × 1.2) Pb = 37,500 = (16) 2
4
or Pb = 11,029.41 N = 201.06 mm2
p2 p2
Pb 11029.41 Strain energy stored = 1 × V1 + 2 × V2
Stress in brass rod = = 2E 2E
1000 1000 where
= 11.029 N/mm2 p1 = stress in 20 mm diameter portions
= 11.03 N/mm2 V1 = volume of 20 mm diameter portion
Hence, the correct option is (C). p2 = stress in 16 mm diameter portion
13. V2 = volume of 16 mm diameter portion
D
C 15000
A B p1 = = 47.75 N/mm 2
65 kN 314.16
1 10 2 20
15000
1500 p2 = = 74.60 N/mm 2
2500 201.06
1 mm
∴ Strain energy stored
E = 20 × 106 N/cm2 1
= [47.752 × 314.16( 200 + 200) +
= 2 × 105 N/mm2 2 × 2 × 105
π (10) 2 74.60 2 × 201.06 × 400]
A1 = = 78.54 mm 2 = 1,835.24 Nmm
4
π ( 20) 2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
A2 = = 314.16 mm 2 15. Work done due to the fall of the weight (W)
4
Let P be the reaction after application of 65 kN at A = [h + δL] W
For portion AB,  pL 
= h + W
P P  E 
This is equal to the strain energy stored
p2
AL
For portion BC, 2E
65000 − P 65000 − P where A = area of cross section of rod
p = stress
AL = volume
∴ Force in AB is P Newton tensile and in BC is π
(65,000 − P) compressive. = × 20 2 × 400
4
= 125,664 mm3
PL1 (65000 − P ) L2 p = 250 N/mm2
Total elongation = −
A1 E A2 E Equating work done to strain energy,
= 1 mm  250 × 400  ( 250) 2
 h + × 50 = × 125, 664
⇒ P×
1500 P × 2500 65000 × 2500
+ −  2 × 2 × 105  2 × 2 × 105
78.54 314.16 314.16 50000 39270000
⇒ h+ =
= 2 × 10 × 1
5
105 105
⇒ P × 27.06 = 7,17,252 ∴ h = 392.2 mm
⇒ P = 26,506 N Hence, the correct option is (A).
2:55:06 Unit 02.indd 5

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Practice Problems 2 δ
5. Longitudinal strain =
1. Free expansion for the temperature change = αtL L
= 12 × 10−6 × (40 − 24) × 12,000 0.3
= = 8.57 × 10 −4
PL 350
= 2.304 − 1.500 = 0.804 mm =
AE
δD
Lateral strain =
0.804 × E P D
∴ p= , where p =
L A
0.0045
=
0.804 × 2 × 105
30
= = 13.4 N/mm 2
12, 000 = 1.5 × 10− 4
Hence, the correct option is (C). lateral strain
Poisson′s ratio µ =
2. Length, L =1.5 m Linear strain
Thickness, t = 8 mm 1.5 × 10 −4
=
Width at top, b1 = 100 mm 8.57 × 10 −4
Width at bottom, b2 = 50 mm = 0.175
Axial load, P = 800 kN Hence, the correct option is (B).
PL b
δL = n 1 PL
tE (b1 − b2 ) b2 6. E =
A×δ L
100
800 × 103 × 1500 × n
50 120 × 103 × 350
= =
8 × 2 × 105 (100 − 50) π 2 
 4 30 × 0.3 
 
= 10.4 mm
Hence, the correct option is (C). = 1.9806 × 105 N/mm 2
π Hence, the correct option is (A).
3. Area of C.S. ( A) = (60) 2
4
= 2,827.4 mm2 7. E = 3K (1 − 2µ)
PL 120 × 1000 × 5000 ⇒ 1.9806 × 105 = 3K (1 − 2 × 0.175)
Elongation δ = =
AE 2827.4 × 2 × 105 = 3K × 0.65
= 1.061 mm ∴ K = 1.016 × 105 N/mm 2
δ
Longitudinal strain = Hence, the correct option is (C).
L
1.061 8. There is no stress in the bar as the expansion is not
= blocked.
5000
= 2.12 × 10−4
Hence, the correct option is (D). W 2 AEh 
9. p = 1 + 1 + 
4. Change in diameter A WL 
= Original diameter × lateral strain W = 50 N
Lateral strain
π
= Longitudinal strain × Poisson’s ratio A= ( 20) 2 mm 2 = 314.16 mm 2
4
= 2.12 × 10−4 × 0.25 = 5.3 × 10−5
∴ Change in diameter = 60 × 5.3 × 10−5 E = 2 × 105 N/mm 2
= 3.18 × 10−3 mm h = 50 mm
Hence, the correct option is (A). L = 300 mm
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12:55:14 M01_
Chapter 1 • Simple Stresses and Strains
2.7
50  1 + 2 × 314.16 × 2 × 105 × 50  10. Extension produced =

pL
∴ p= × 1 +  E
314.16  50 × 300 
103.17 × 300
= = 0.155 mm
2 × 105
= 103.17 N/mm 2
Previous Years’ Questions = –1 × 10–5 m

1. We know that = –10 µm
E = 2G(1 + µ) Hence, the correct option is (B).
E 3. Since there is no prevention in radial and longitudinal
∴ = 2(1 + µ ) direction,
G
Hence, the correct option is (A). ∴ σ r = 0 and σ z = 0
2. Total change, δ = δKL + δLM + δMN Hence, the correct option is (A).
PL
R× L 4. Elongation of bar, ∆L =
δ= AE
AE
200 × 103 × 2
K L M N =
(0.04) 2 × 200 × 10 9
250 N 200 N
100 N 50 N
= 1.25 mm
500 800 400 Hence, the correct option is (A).
MN: 5.
50 N
RX
63 kN 35 kN 49 kN 21 kN
Rx = 50 N
50 × 0.4
δ MN =
AE x
LN: R y = 28 kN 49 kN 21 kN
200 N 50 N
RX
400 N
Ry ( 28 × 103 )
Rx = –150 N σ= ⇒ σ = N/mm 2
A (700)
150 × 0.8 ⇒ σ = 40 MPa
δ LM = −
AE Hence, the correct option is (A).
KL: 6. Due to rise in temperature of steel rod of length L, there
RX will be increase in length
100 N
ΔL = α × L × ΔT
Rx = 100 N Since both ends are fixed, thermal stresses will be
produced.
100 × 0.5 δ L α L∆T
δ KL = Strain, ∈= = = α∆T σ = E∈ = αEΔT
AE L L
∴ δ = [(50 × 0.4) − (150 × 0.8) + (100 × 0.5)] × 7. Volume of block = (0.2 × 0.1 × 0.05) m
AE
Hydrostatic pressure = 15 MPa
−50
⇒ δ= δ V (1 − 2 µ )
−5
( 2.5 × 10 × 200 × 10 9 ) = (σ x + σ y + σ z )
V E
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12:55:20
∵ Hydrostatic pressure means equal intensity of pres- ∴ Strain in x-direction

sure at any point
σx σ y σ 
= −α ( ∆T ) = −ν  + z 
Fx P × Ax E
σx = = =P E E
Ax Ax
σx =σy =σz =σ
Fy P × Ay
σy = = =P α ( ∆T ) E
Ay Ay ∴ σ =−
(1 − 2ν )
Fz P × Az Hence, the correct option is (A).
σz = = =P
Az Az
P
11. Stress depends on area i.e., not material property.
δ V (1 − 2 × 0.3) A
∴ = × (15 + 15 + 15) × 106
V 200 × 10 9 Hence, the correct option is (A).
δV 12. Due to heating there is increase in length which is equal

⇒ = 9 × 10 −5 to αΔTL.
V
∴ Strain = αΔT
⇒ δV = 9 × 10–5 × 0.2 × 0.1 × 0.05
But as it is a free expansion stress developed is zero.
= 9 × 10–8 m3
or δV = 90 mm3
Hence, the correct option is (B). 13. L = 500 mm
D = 50 mm
PL
8. δ L = ΔL = 0.5 mm
AE
ΔD = 0.015 mm
δL P Lateral strain
∈L = = Poisson’s ratio µ =
L AE L Linear strain
∆D 0.015
δD 
 D  = D = 50 = 0.3.
µ = −  ∆L 0.5
δL P
L 500
L
Hence, the correct answers is 0.29 to 0.31.
δL 14.
⇒ δD = µ ×D
L
200 mm
P
⇒ δD = µ× × D and E = 2G (1 + µ )
AE
∴ To calculate the resulting change in diameter, both L = 200 mm
Young’s modulus and shear modulus is required.
ΔT = 250°C
E = 200 GPa = 2 × 1011 Pa
9. = 2 × 105 MPa
1 KNm
α = 1 × 10−5/°C
P Q
δL
RP 1° m RQ δ L = α∆tL ⇒ = α∆T
L
RQ × 1 = 1 ⇒ RQ = 1 kN↑ σ δL
=e= = α∆t
RP = 1 kN↓ E L
Hence, the correct option is (A). ∴ σ = EαΔt = 2 × 105 × 10−5 × 250
10. Since the cube is uniformly constrained to expand, the = 500 MPa
stress produced in all three directions will be same. Hence, the correct answers is 499 to 501.
Unit 02.indd 8
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12:55:24 M01_
Chapter 1 • Simple Stresses and Strains | 3.43
15. As it is free expansion, no stress is developed. T1 cos 45 = P cos 45

= P = 1 N • Simple Stresses and Strains
TChapter 1 Hints/Solutions || 3.43
2.9
16. Poisson’s ratio µ = 0.4 T 1
sin 45 = P sin 45 – T2
15. As it is free expansion, no stress is developed. TT12 cos= 45 0 = P cos 45
E = 2G(1 + µ)
Hence, the correct option is (A). = P Tension
TSince = 1 N in link AB (T2) is zero, hence stress will
where E = Young’s modulus and G = Modulus of 1
Talsosin be45zero.
= P sin 45 – T2
rigidity ratio µ = 0.4
16. Poisson’s 1
G 1 1 THence, = 0 the correct answer is 0.

E∴= 2G(1 = + µ) = 2
E 2(1 + µ ) 2(1 + 0.4) 21. Solution:
Since Tension in link AB (T2) is zero, hence stress will
where E = Young’s modulus and G = Modulus of
= 0.357 L = 250
also be zero.mm, ∆T = 200oC, a = 10–5/oC
rigidity
Hence,
G the correct
1 answer
1 is 0.35 to 0.36. dl = a ∆TL
∴ = =
17. TwoEindependent constants
2(1 + µ ) 2(1 + 0.4) either E or G; either G or K; 21. = 0.5 mm
Solution:
=either
0.357E or K. = 250
L(dl) net
0.5 –∆T
= mm, 0.2==200
0.3oC, a = 10–5/oC
Hence, thethe correct
correct answer
answer isis 0.35
1.29 toto 0.36.
2.1.
Hence, dl = a (∆TL δl ) net 0.3
17. Two independent σ
constants 200
either E or G; either G or K; ST==0.5 mm =
18. Young’s modulus, E = = = 200 GPa L 250
either E or K. ∈ 0.001
(dl)net = 0.5 – 0.2 = 0.3
E = 2G(1
Hence, the+correct
µ) ⇒ 200 = 2G(1
answer is 1.29+ 0.3)
to 2.1. σT = E∈T
⇒ G = 76.923 GPa σ 200 ( δl ) 3 0.30.3
18. Young’s modulus, E = = = 200 GPa ST = = 200 ×net10= ×
Hence, the correct answer ∈ is0.76 001to 78. L 250250
19. E = 2G(1 + µ) ⇒ 200 = 2G(1 + 0.3) σ=T 240= E∈ MPa
T
⇒ G = 76.923 GPa Hence, 0.3
= 200the correct
× answer is 240.
A B C
× 10 3
RA
Hence, the correct P 22. P = 250 MPa d = 0.001 m 250
3Eanswer is 76 E to 78. F
19. =E240= 200 MPa GPa L = 2 m
L L
A B C εx = 28
R
Considering
A the equilibriumP of forces. 22. P = 250 MPa d = 0.001 m
3E E F
RA + P = F (1) E = 200 GPa L = 2 m
dC = 0 L L
εx = 28
P
Considering the equilibrium of forces.
RA L ( RA + P ) L
RA + P = + F =0 (2)
(1)
A (3 E ) AE L
dC = 0
RA ( RA + P ) P
+
3 A L + (1RA + P ) L = 0
R =0
(2)
A (3=E –3P
4R ) AE L
A
(R + P)
RAA = -3/4P (3) σx µ σy 1
+ A =0 εx = − ⇒ [σ x − µσ y ]
3 1
Substitute Equation (3) in Equation (1) E ∈ E
4R
1/4P = –3P = F; P/F = 4 2 × 0.001 1
A
= µ σ9 × 250 × 106 [1 − µ ]
= -3/4P
RHence,
A the correct answer is 4. (3) 2 ε = σ200 x × 10 y
−
1
⇒ [σ x − µσ y ]
20. Substitute
Free body Equation
diagram, (3) in Equation (1)
x
E ∈ E
0.8 = 1 – µ ⇒ µ = 0.2
1/4P = F; P/F = 4 T1 2 × 0.001
Hence, the=correct1 answer is 0.2.
9
× 250 × 106 [1 − µ ]
Hence, the correct answer is 4. 2 200 × 10
23. For an incompressible material, change in volume is zero
45º
20. Free body diagram, 0.8 = 1 – µ ⇒ µ = 0.2
ΔV ⎛ Px + Py + Pz ⎞
P T1 = (1 −
Hence, the correct 2 μ) ⎜ is 0.2.
answer ⎟⎠
T2 V ⎝ E
45º ⇒ 1− 2μ = 0
P 1
∴μ=
T2 2
Chapter 1 • Simple Stresses and Strains | 3.43
developed. T1 cos 45 = P cos 45
24. In stress–strain curve for mild steel, ultimate tensile
T1 = P = 1 N strength is maximum stress
T1 sin 45 = P sin 45 – T2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
T2 = 0
M01_TRIS7308_C01.inddSince Tension in link AB (T2) is zero, hence stress will
G = Modulus of 43 27/04/2017 12:55:36
also be zero.
2:55:24 Unit 02.indd 9
21. Solution:
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25. Thermal stress = α ΔTE 28. Thermal stress induced in bar due to ΔT increase in
temperature is given as
π 2 EI
Buckling load P =
Leff 2 σ = α E ΔT = 11 × 10 −6 × 200 × 103 × 100
= 220 MPa
P
Buckling load σ = Hence, the correct answer is 218 to 222.
A
πd 4 29. True strain is given as ∈t = ln (1± ∈) ‘+’ sign for
π2 × E ×
64 stretched and ‘-‘ sign for compressed
σ=
πd 2 change in length 10
L2eff × ∈= = = 0.5
4 original length 20
π 2 Ed 2
σ= ∴ True strain = ln (1 − 0.5) = −0.693
16 L2eff
Equating thermal and buckling stress Hence, the correct option is (B).
π 2 Ed 2 30. L/2 L/2
αE ΔT =
16 L2eff
∴ ΔT ∝ d 2 Steel P Aluminium
Ps PAl
Ps + PAl = P
26. Considering impact loading
δimpact = δstatic × impact factor ΔS + ΔAl = 0
WL 100 × 10 × 1000 L L
δstatic = = Ps × ( Ps − P )
AE 100 × 1000 × 103 2+ 2 =0
δstatic = 0.1 mm AEs AEAI
2h
impact factor = 1 + 1 + Ps P −P
δstatic + s =0
210 70
20
= 1+ 1+ 3P
0.1 Ps =
= 15.178 4
Maximum compression of bar L

Ps ×
= 0.1 × 15.178 = 1.5178 mm Δs = 2
AEs
27. E ( x ) = 100e − x GPa ∈s =
Ps
=
3P
x AEs 4 AEs
PL
Elongation δ L = ∫ dx
AE ( x ) Es × 4 × A × ∈s
0 P =
PL
x
1 3
δL = ∫
A 0 100e − x
dx
10 −6 × 4 × 1× 2.10 × 109
=
PL
1
dx 3
100 A ∫0 e − x
=
P = 280 kN
=
PL
100 × A
(
e1 − e 0 ) Hence, the correct option is (D).
δL =
(
10 × 103 × e1 − e 0 )
−6
100 × 10 × 100 × 109
δ L = 1.718 mmm
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CHapter 2 Compound stresses, sHear ForCe and Bending moments
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1  px − p y 
2
4. qmax =   +q
2
1. px = 120 N/mm 2  2 
py = 0, q = 0
Py = −100 N/mm 2 2
p  p
Let q be the shearing stress. So, qmax =  x = x
 2  2
Then
2
px + p y  px − p y 
p1 = +   +q
2 5.
2  2  20 kN/M
40 kN B
A C
2 2m 4m
120 − 100  120 + 100  RA RB
∴ 150 =   +q
2
2  2 
Moments at simply supported ends will be zero.
or 140 = 110 2 + q 2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
6. RA + RB = 40 + 20 × 4 = 120 kN
or q = 86.6 N/mm 2 Taking moments about A
40 × 2 + 20 × 4 × 7 − RB × 9 = 0
⇒ RB × 9 = 640
2.
⇒ RB × 9 = 640
50 kN ⇒ RB = 71.11 kN
A C B
1.5 m 3.5 m ∴ RA = 120 − 71.11 = 48.89 kN
RA RB
Taking moment about A 7.
50 × 1.5 = RB × 5 2000 N/M
2000 x
50 × 1.5 L
RB = = 15 kN
5
A B
5m x
RA + RB = 50 RB
RA = 50 − RB
Taking moments about A,
= 50 − 15 = 35 kN
2000 × L L
Hence, the correct option is (C). RB × L = ×
2 3
3. At x = 2 m from free end F = 40 kN
At x = 5 m from free end F = 100 kN 2000 L 2000 × 5
⇒ RB = = = 1667 N
6 6
3m 2m 2000 × 5
RA + RB = = 5000
40 2
100
⇒ RA = 5,000 − RB
= 5,000 − 1,667
F = kx = 3,333 N
40 = k × 2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
k = 20 8. Consider a section at a distance x from B.
∴ There is a UDL of 20 kN/m over the entire span. 2000 x x x
M X = RB × x − × ×
L 2 3
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2.12 | Strength of Materials Chapter 2 • Compound Stresses, Shear Force and Bending Moments | 3.45
200 3 Direct stress or normal tensile stress

= 1667 x − x
3 20000 × 4
=σ = N/cm 2
At x = 3, π d2
200 × 33 σ
M = 1667 × 3 − Maximum shear stress =
3 2
= 3,201 Nm i.e., 5000 = 20000 × 4
Hence, the correct option is (B). π d2 × 2
9. Shear force at x, ∴ d = 1.596 cm
2000 x x Hence, the correct option is (C).
F= × − RB = 200 x 2 − 1667 13. The normal stress is given by,
L 2
p1 + p2 p1 − p 2
Bending moment is maximum when shear force is pn = + cos 2θ
zero. 2 2
i.e., 200x2 − 1667 = 0 1000 + 400 1000 − 400
= + cos 96
⇒ 200x2 = 1667 2 2
1667 = 700 + 300 (−0.1045)
⇒ x =
2
200 = 668.64 N/cm2

∴ x = 2.887 m from B
14. Tangential stress is given by,
10. Bending moment at x,
p1 − p2
200 3 pt = sin 2θ
M x = 1667 x − x 2
3
1000 − 400
Maximum bending moment is when = sin 96
2
x = 2.887
200 = 300 × 0.9945
M max = 1667 × 2.887 − × ( 2.887)3
3 = 298.36 N/cm2
= +3,208.5 Nm Resultant stress
Hence, the correct option is (C). pr = pn2 + pt2
11.
50 MPa = 668.64 2 + 298.36 2
C
E = 732.19 N/cm2
30° Hence, the correct option is (D).
100 MPa 15. RA + RB = 2 + 3 + 2 = 7 kN
A B ⇒ MA = 0.
50 MPa RB × 5 + 1 = 1 + 2 × 3 + 3 × 2 + 2 × 1
The normal stress is given by =1+6+6+2
1 1 = 15
Pn = ( px + p y ) + ( px − p y ) cos 2θ + q sin 2θ
2 2 ⇒ RB × 5 = 14
100 + 50 100 − 50 ⇒ RB = 2.8 kN
= + cos 60 + 0 ∴ RA = 7 − 2.8
2 2
= 75 + 25 + 0.5 = 4.2 kN
= 87.5 MPa Bending moment at E,
Hence, the correct option is (B). = RA × 2 − 2 × 1 − 1
12. P = 20 kN = 20,000 N = 4.2 × 2 − 2 − 1
Maximum shear stress = 5,000 N/cm2 = 5.4 kNm
Let d be the diameter of the bar. Hence, the correct option is (C).
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3.46 | Part III • Unit 2 • Strength of Materials Hints/Solutions | 2.13
Practice Problems 2 RA + RB = 5 kN
1. Maximum shear stress is given by radius of Mohr’s RB × 11 = 5 × 4.5, RB = 2.045 N
circle Shear force at point D will be
 px − p y 
2 = RB = 2.045 N
=   +q
2
 2 
6.
2
 200 − 100  5 kN 1 kN/m
=   + 100
2
5 kN
 2 
A B
2
 100  2M
=   + 100
2
3m FB
 2  C
7m
1  10 m
= 100  + 1
4 
RC = 0
100
= 5 RA + FB = 5 + 1 × 4 + 5 = 14 kN
2
= 50 5 5 × 3 + 4 × 5 + 5 × 7 − FB × 10 = 0
Hence, the correct option is (B). or FB × 10 = 15 + 20 + 35
2. Mohr’s circle will become a point when radius or FB = 7 kN
2
 px − p y  Hence, the correct option is (C).
 +q =0
2

 2  7. RA = 14 − FB = 14 − 7 = 7 kN
This happens when q = 0 and when px and py are equal.
8. For a simply supported beam with uniformly varying
load the maximum bending moment is
px + p y
3. Mmax = 0.064 w2
2
Hence, the correct option is (C). = 0.064 × 1000 × 52
4. = 1,600 Nm
M Hence, the correct option is (C).
A B 9.
L 8 sin 30° 8 sin 45°
8 cos 30° 4 kN 8 cos 45°
a 6 sin 30°
15 kNm
A C G D E F 6 cos 30°
Taking moments about A B
R 2 1 1 1.5 3.5 1
RB xL = M AV
RS
M RAH
RB =
L 10m
At any section shear force will be

∑MA = 0
M
RB = . i.e., RB × 10 = (6 sin 30° × 9) + (8 sin 45°) × 5.5 + (4 × 4)
L + 15 + (8 sin 30° × 2)
Hence, the correct option is (C). ⇒ RB × 10 = 27 + 31.11 + 16 + 15 + 8
5. = 97.11
1 kN/m
∴ RB = 9.711 kN
B RAV + RB = 4 + 4 + 3 + 5.657 = 16.657
B
C D
5M M →m or RAV = 6.946 kN
4M
2M
RAH = 8 cos 30° + 6 cos 30° − 8 cos 45°
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= 6.298 + 5.196 − 5.657 10. MD = 9.711 × 6 − 3 (5) − 8 sin 45 (1.5)

= 6.467 kN = 58.28 − 15 − 8.5 = 34.78
RA = ( RAH ) 2 + ( RAV ) 2 = 9.49 kN Mmax = 34.78 kNm
Previous Years’ Questions 6. Maximum bending moment occurs at midspan.

1.5 kN/m
σ x −σ y +100 − ( −20)
1. Radius = =
2 2
6m
⇒ Radius = 60
(1.5 × 6) (1.5 × 6)
Hence, the correct option is (C). R 1 = ⎯⎯⎯⎯ = 4.5 kN R 2 = ⎯⎯⎯⎯ = 4.5 kN
2 2
2. Bending moment is maximum at midspan. ∴ BMmax = (4.5 × 3) − (1.5 × 3 × 1.5) = 6.75 kNm
wL2 120 × 152
( BM ) max = = wL2 1.5 × 6 2
8 8 or BM max = = = 6.75 kNm
8 8
= 3,375 kNm Hence, the correct option is (none).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 7.
0.5 m 0.5 m
3. Since B is hinged therefore,
100 N
P/2 P
A R1 R2
B C
0.1 m
B
L/2 L /2 100 N
L P/2 P/2
0.5 m • 0.5 m
=
R1 10 Nm R2
P
Bending moment at A = × L
2
PL 100
= R2 = + 10 = 60 N
2 2
Hence, the correct option is (B). R1 + R2 = 100 N ⇒ R1 = 40 N
Maximum bending moment occurs at midspan of the
4. We know that
beam.
dM dF d 2 M
F= or = = wo 100 N
dx dx dx 2
Here UVL acting on cantilever for which the variation
of bending moment will be cubic in nature.
40 N 10 Nm 60 N
5. By maximum shear stress theory for yielding 30 Nm
σ x −σ y σ yp 20 N-m BMD
τ max = =
2 2
O O
σ max = Yield strength
∴ σ yp = σ x − σ p = −10 − ( −100)
∴ Maximum BM = (60 × 0.5)
⇒ σ yp = 90 MPa
= 30 Nm
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (B).
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8. B (q = 180°)
(67.9,56.6)
T = 600 × 0.5 = 300 Nm
2q
600 N
0.3m (q = 0) A
(0,56.6) txy
P 2τ xy 2 × 56.6
tan 2θ = =
σ x −σ y 67.9
Point P is subjected to twisting moment of magnitude
300 Nm and shear load of 600 N due to which bending  2 × 56.6 
⇒ 2θ = tan −1   = 59.04°
occurs.  67.9 
Bending moment at P(M) = 600 × 0.3 = 180 Nm ⇒ θ = 29.52°
My M or θ = –29.52° (opposite orientation)
Normal stress at P, σ b = =
I Z Hence, the correct option is (D).
π π 10.
Z= × d 3 = × 0.033 = 2.651× 10 −6 m3
32 32
•
180
∴ σb = = 67.9 MPa
2.651× 10 −6
T × r T 16T
Shear stress at P, τ = = =
J Z π d3
16T 16 × 300
τ= =
π d 3 π × 0.033
= 56.6 MPa F F
At point P, axial stress (σa) = = 2
( 2b) × ( 2b) 4b
My
9. Stress element at P Bending stress (σ b ) =
I
M = Bending moment = F(L – b)
sy = 0
2b
=
y = b
txy 2
( 2b) 4 4b 4
sx = 67.9 MPa
=I =
12 3
F ( L − b) × b × 3
txy = 56.6 MPa ∴ σb =
4b 4
3F ( L − b)
Maximum principle stress, σ 1 ⇒ σb =
4b 3
σx +σ y   σ x −σ y 
2 ∴ Total axial stress = σa + σb
σ1 =  +   + τ xy
2
2 2 F 3F ( L − b)
    = 2
+
4b 4b 3
2
 67.9 + 0   67.9 − 0  Fb + 3FL − 3Fb F [3L − 2b]
= +   + 56.6
2
= =
 2   2  4b 3 4b3
= 99.95 ~ 100 MPa Hence, the correct option is (D).
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11. When a hydrostatic force (same pressure in all direc- At section X–X , SF = 1,500 – 3,000(x – 2)
tion) acts on a fluid element, the Mohr’s circle is For maximum BM, SF = 0
reduced to a point on σ-axis.
∴ 1,500 – 3,000(x – 2) = 0
Since hydrostatic force is equal in all direction,
⇒ 1,500 – 3,000x – 6,000 = 0
∴ σx = σy
sy
⇒ x = 2.5 m
∴ Maximum BM occurs at 2,500 mm to the right of A.
t sx sx
15. σxx = 40 MPa
s •
s1 = s2 σyy = 100 MPa
sy
τxy = 40 MPa
2 2
 σ x −σ y  σ xx + σ yy  σ xx − σ yy 
τ=   + τ xy = 0
2
σ 1, 2 = ±   + (τ xy )
2
 2  2  2 
Hence, the correct option is (B). 2
 40 + 100   100 − 40 
σ 1 − σ 2 100 − 40 = ±   + ( 40)
2
12. τ max = =  2   2 
2 2
⇒ τmax = 30 MPa  140 
=  ± (30) + ( 40)
2 2
Hence, the correct option is (C).  2 

13. Given σX= –200 MPa ; σY = 100 MPa; = 70 ± 900 + 1600
τXY = 100 MPa
= 70 ± 2500
Maximum shear stress
2
= 70 ± 50
 σ x −σ y  σ1 = 120 MPa
(τ max ) =   + τ xy
2
 2  σ2 = 20 MPa
2 σ 1 − σ 2 100
 −200 − 100  R= =
=   + 100
2
2 2
 2 
= 50 MPa
= 180.277 MPa
~ 180.3 MPa
Hence, the correct option is (C). 16. σx = −6 MPa
14. σy = 4 MPa
τxy = −8 MPa
6000 N
X Maximum tensile stress
3000 N/m
A B = Major principal stress
C
2
2m 2m σx +σ y  σ x −σ y 
= +   + τ xy
2
X
2  2 
X
RA = 1500 N RC = 4500 N 2
 −6 + 4   −6 − 4 
=  +   + ( −8)
2
 2   2 
6000 × 1
RA = = 1500 N
4 = −1 + ( −5) 2 + ( −8) 2
RA + RC = 6,000 N
= 8.43 MPa
⇒ RC = 4,500 N
Hence, the correct option is (8.4 to 8.5 Mpa).
Maximum bending moment occurs when shear force is
equal to zero. 17. The correct option is (A).
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18. d M X −X
10 kN = 0 ⇒ 10 − 10 x = 0 ⇒ x = 1 m
dx
O P Q ∴ In AB, maximum bending moment
2m 1m 1
RQ (MAB)max = 10 × 1 – 10 × = 5 kN-m
2
10 kN
At B, MB = 10(4) – 10 ( 4 ) = – 40 kN-m
2
P Q 2
0.5 m 0.5 m
5 kN-m
RP RQ
B
Ma = 0 A
⇒ RP × 1 – 10 × 0.5 = 0
⇒ RP = 5 kN
P −40 W-m
O
2m
Magnitude of maximum bending moment = 40 kN-m.

RP Hence, the correct answer is 40
RP = 5 kN 21. The shaft is subjected to pure twisting moment, thus σx
Bending moment at O, Mo = σy = 0
Mo = 5 × 2 = 10 kN-m σx + σy
2
 σx − σy 
( )
2
Hence, the correct option is (C). σ1,2 = ±   + τ xy
2  2
19. Given: σx = 20 MPa, σy = 80 MPa, τxy = 40 MPa
2
σ1,2 = ±τxy
 σx − σ y 
2
 20 − 80 
τmax = 
 2   + τ 2xy = 
 2 
+ 40 2
τmax =
σ1 − σ 2 τ xy − − τ xy
=
( ) = τxy
2 2
⇒ τmax = 50 MPa.
τ max τ xy
Hence, the correct option is (C). ∴ = =1
σ1 τ xy
20.
10 kN/m 20 kN Hence, the correct option is (B).
B 22. (see figure)
A C
4m 2m τyy
RA = 10 kN RB = 50 kN τxy
P
P
RA + RB = (10 × 4) + 20 = 60 (1) τxx
ΣMC = 0 ⇒ RA × 6 – 40 × 4 + RB + 2 = 0
⇒ 6RA + 2RB = 160 (2)
P P
From equation (1) and (2) we get RA = 10 kN and RB =
50 kN
x 20 kN
10 kN/m
B
A C
x
x Given principal stresses are equal and opposite and act-
10 kN 50 kN
ing at a plane inclined at θ = 45o to x-axis.
MX–X = 10x – 10 × x Which is a pure shear state of stress.
2
Maximum bending moment in section AB. So, τxy = p, τyy = τxx = 0
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23. 25. Given condition

wL4 is a state of pure shear where τxy =
w/m =
Maximum tensile stress (1)
8 EI
∴ Maximum tensile stress = 50 MPa
A Upward deflection due to simple support at B
B Hence, the correct answer is 49.9 to 50.1.
RB L3
26. Given:
= (2)
L 3EI
x = (2)
Equating (1)Mand 5 x 2 + 10 x
Let RB be
pter 2 • Compound Stresses, reaction
Shear at B.and Bending Moments | 3.51
Force
∂M x
We have RBV=x 3/8wL
Deflection due to U.D.L = = 10 x + 10
∂x
wL4 Hence, the correct option is (B).
m = (1) V10 = (10 × 10 ) + 10 = 110 N
8 EI
Upward deflection due to simple support at B
B σ -σ
RB L3 27. Maximum shear stress = 1 3
= (2) 2
3EI
Equating (1) and (2) 28. sx = 100 kPa
We have RB = 3/8wL
txy = 50 kPa
Minimum principal stress
24. Y
2
σx +σ y ⎛ σ x −σ y ⎞
R(4, 3) = − ⎜ ⎟ + τ xy
S(0, 3) 2
u 2 ⎝ 2 ⎠
2
100 + σ y ⎛ 100 − σ y ⎞
10 = − ⎜ ⎟ + 50
2
2 ⎝ 2 ⎠
P(0, 0) Q(4, 0) X
2
4 σy ⎛ 50 − σ y ⎞
tan θ = ⇒ θ = 53.13 40 + = ⎜ ⎟ + 50
2
3 2 ⎝ 2 ⎠
cos 2θ = −0.2799
Squaring on both sides, we get
sin 2θ = 0.96
σ y2 σ y2
1600 + + 40σ y = 2500 + − 50σ y + 2500
Strain on oblique plane is 4 4
⎛ γ xy ⎞ 900sy = 3400
1 1
ε= ⎡⎣ ε xx + ε yy ⎤⎦ + ⎡⎣ ε xx − ε yy ⎤⎦ cos 2θ + ⎜ sin 2θ
2 2 ⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ sy = 37.78 MPa
1 1 Hence, the correct option is (C).
ε=
2
[ 0.001 + 0.002] + [0.001 − 0.002][ −0.2799]
2 29. Maximum bending moment:
⎛ 0.003 ⎞ WL2 10 × 16
+⎜
⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
(0.96) M= = = 20 kNm
8 8
ε = 0.00308 Maximum bending stress:
Change in length of diagonal
= 0.00308 m 20 × 103
original length σ max = ymax = × 0.1
1 ⎛ 0.1× 0.23 ⎞
Change in length of diagonal = 5 × 0.00308 = 0.0154 mm ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 12 ⎠
Deformed length of elongated diagonal = 5 + 0.0154
= 5.0154 mm smax = 30 × 106 N/m2 = 30 MPa
Hence, the correct answer is 5.013 to 5.015. Hence, the correct answer is 30.
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CHapter 3 stresses in Beams, Cylinders and spHeres
Hints/solution
Practice Problems 1 δd 1.5 × 800  0.25 

i.e., = 1−
ESteel 2 × 10 5 800 2 × 12 × 2 × 105  2 
1. Modular ratio, m = = = 20
ETimber 1× 10 4 ∴ δ d = 0.175 mm.
150
150 5. δ v = volumetric strain × original volume
10
 δd δI πd
2
=  2× + ×I
 d I  4
200 7.5
 0.175 0.1125  π × 800
2
=  2× + × 1800
 800 1800  4
= 452.39 cm3
10
The timber portion of size 150 × 200 mm can be con- 6. Let w be the UDL the beam can carry in kN/m
verted to steel portion of following size: wL w × 5
Maximum shear force F = = = 2.5w
150 2 2
= = 7.5 mm
width
20 wL2
Maximum bending moment =
depth = 200 mm 8
Stress in steel plate at junction with timber fj = maxi- w × 25
= = 3.125w kN/m
mum stress in timber × m 8
= 7 × 20 = 140 N/mm2 Considering bending moment, M = fbz
y 100 × 200 2
Maximum stress in steel plate = f j × max 3.125w = 12 ×
yj 6 × 106
110
= 140 × = 154 N/mm 2 . ∴ w = 2.56 kN/m
100
Considering the shear force, Vmax = 1.5 F
Hence, the correct option is (B). bd
2. y for transformed section 1.5 × F
0.8 =
200 + 10 + 10 100 × 200
= = 110 mm
2 or F = 10,667 N
Moment of inertia, but F = 2w kN = 2,000 w N
150 × 2203 150 × 2003 7.5 × 2003 i.e., 2,000w = 10,667
I= − +
12 12 12 ⇒ w = 5.33 kN/m
= 38.1 × 106 mm4 Considering both cases the maximum load the beam
Hence, the correct option is (C). can carry is 2.56 kN/m.
3. Moment of resistance of transformed section Hence, the correct option is (B).
I 7. Let yt be the distance of the CG from the top of the
= Maximum stress in steel ×
y flange.
154 × 38.1× 106 80 × 12 × 6 + 12 × 88 × ( 44 + 12)
= Then yt =
110 80 × 12 + 88 × 12
= 53.34 × 106 Nmm = 32.19 mm
Hence, the correct option is (A). Moment of inertia about the neutral axis,
1
δI pd  I  I = × 80 × 123 + 80 × 12 × (32.19 − 6) 2
4. = −µ
2tE  2
12
I 
1
δl 1.5 × 800  1  + × 12 × 883 + 12 × 88 × (56 − 32.19) 2
= − 0.25  12
1800 2 × 12 × 2 × 105  2
i.e.,

= 19,50,134 mm4
∴ δ I = 0.1125 mm Shear force at the bottom of the flange,
δ d pd  µ  F
= 1−  q = ay
d 2tE  2 bI
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Hints/Solutions| 3.PB
2.20 | Strength of Materials Chapter 3 • Stresses in Beams, Cylinders and Spheres | 3.53
Flange area a = 80 × 12 = 960 mm2 My

Maximum stress σ =
y = Distance of CG of area a from NA I
= 32.19 – 6 = 26.19 mm π
I = (7.24 − 6 4 )
F = Shear force = 20 kN 64
20000 × 960 × 26.19 = 68.3 mm4
∴ q= = 3.223 N/mm 2
80 × 1950,134 7.2
=
Y = 3.6
Hence, the correct option is (D). 2
pdI  1  600.39 × 3.6
8. Change in length, δ I = −µ ∴ σ=

2tE  2 68.3

p × 250 × 1000  1  = 31.65 N/mm2
δI =  − 0.3  = 0.0125 p
2 × 10 × 2 × 105  2  Hence, the correct option is (B).
pd 2  µ  12.
Change in diameter, δ d = 1− 
2tE  2 2 kN 2 kN 2 kN
F C E D B
p × 2502
 0.3  A
⇒ δd = 5 
1− = 0.01328 p
2 × 10 × 2 × 10  2  0.75 m
Hence, the correct option is (A). 1m 1m 1m 1m
π 2 π
9. Original volume, V = d ⋅ I = 250 2 × 1000
4 4 60
= 4,90,87,385 mm3 240
δ v 2δ d δ I
Volumetric strain, = +
v d I
100
40 × 103 2 × 0.0138 p 0.0125 p
= +
49087385 250 1000 RA + RB = 6 kN
= 1.1874×10 p –4
Due to symmetry,
∴ p = 6.86 N/mm2 RA = RB = 3 kN
Hence, the correct option is (C). Shear force at F = 3 kN
pd 6.86 × 250 Bending moment at F = 3,000 × 750
10. Hoop stress f c = =
2t 2 × 10 = 2250 × 103 N/mm
= 85.75 N/mm2 bd 3 100 × 2403
Moment of inertia = =
Hence, the correct option is (B). 12 12
π = 1152 × 105 mm4
11. Area of steel section = (7.22 − 6 2 ) Bending stress at F at 60 mm
4
= 12.44 mm2 My
from NA =
π I
Area of mercury section = (6 ) 2
4 2250 × 103 × 60
=
= 28.274 mm2 1152 × 105
Weight of steel tube with mercury = 1.172 N/mm2
= 7.7 × 10–5 × 12.44 + 1.36 × 10–4 × 28.274 Hence, the correct option is (A).
= 480.314 × 10–5 N/mm 13. Shearing stress at F at 60 mm
Maximum bending moment F
above NA = ay
wL2 bI
M max =
8 3000 × (60 × 100) × 90
=
−5
480.314 × 10 × (1000) 2 100 × 1152 × 105
=
8 = 0.141 N/mm2
= 600.39 Nmm Hence, the correct option is (C).
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3.PB | Strength of Materials
pd i.e., 75 = 2b (1)
14. Hoop stress = −a
2tη L (160)3
pd and at x = 320 mm, px = 0
Longitudinal stress =
4tηc 2b
i.e., 0 = −a (2)
Considering hoop stress and longitudinal joint (320)3
efficiency, From (1) and (2)
pd 2 × 1500 1 1
t= = 75 = 2b −
2 f η L 2 × 150 × 0.85 160 3203
3
= 11.76 mm 3203 − 1603

=
Considering longitudinal stress and circumferential 1603 × 3203
joint efficiency, = (2.136 × 10–7)2b
pd 75
t= ⇒ 2b =
4 f ηc 2.136 × 10 −7
2 × 1500 = 351.086 × 106
=
4 × 150 × 0.4 or b = 175.543 × 106
= 12.5 mm 351.086 × 106
∴ a=
So, the boiler should have a plate thickness of 12.5 mm. (320)3
Hence, the correct option is (B). = 10.714
15. For thick spherical shells radial pressure and hoop Hoop stress at outer surface or at
stress at any radial distance are given by r = 320 mm.
2b b
px = − a and = 3 +a
x3 x
b 175.543 × 106
fx = +a = + 10.714
x3 (320)3
The inner radius = 160 mm = 5.357 + 10.714

Outer radius = 320 mm = 16.071 N/mm2
Now, at x = 160 mm, px = 75 N/mm2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Practice Problems 2 32 M
3
σc 32a3 32  a 
= πd =
3
1. Let d = diameter of circular cross-section and a = side =  
of square cross-section σs 6M 6π d 3 6π  d 
3
a
Since the cross-sectional areas are same, 3
32  π  2
π 2 a π = >1
d = a 2 or = 6π  4 
4 d 4 ∴ σc > σs
For circular cross-section,
d
M y M 2 32 M =
2. Internal radius r
400
= 200 mm
σc = = = 2
I π d4 π d3
Outside diameter R = r + t = 200 + 100
64
= 300 mm
For square section,
p1 = 80 N/mm 2
a
My 6M
M p2 = 0 N/mm2
σs = = 42 = 3 b
From Lami’s equation, px = 2 − a
I a a x
12 at x = 200 mm, px = 80 N/mm2
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b 6. Maximum hoop stress occurs at inner surface of the

or 80 = −a (1)
200 2 vessel.
at x = 300 mm, px = 0 N/mm2 i.e., at ri = 80 mm
b b
or 0 = −a (2) f1 = +a
300 2 x2
Solving equations (1) and (2), we get b
b = 57,60,000 and a = 64 ∴ 40 = 2 + a (1)
80
Hoop stress is given by Radial pressure variation is
b b
fx = 2 + a px = 2 − a
x x
5760000 At x = ri = 80 mm
Maximum hoop stress = + 64
200 2 pi = 10 N/mm2
= 208 N/mm2 b
5760000 ∴ 10 = −a (2)
Minimum hoop stress = + 64 80 2
300 2 Solving equations (1) and (2), we get
= 128 N/mm2 b = 1,60,000 and a = 15
Hence, the correct option is (A). Lami’s constants are 15 and 1,60,000.
3. 15 kN/m Hence, the correct option is (B).
30 kN
b
7. px = −a
4m x2
250 160000
= − 15
x2
250 at x = 80, px = 10
at x = ro, px = 0
500
i.e., 0 = 160000 − 15
ro2
or ro = 103.28 mm
15 × 4
2
Thickness = ro − ri = 103.28 – 80
M max = 30 × 4 + = 240 kNm
2 = 23.28 mm
It occurs at the fixed end. Hence, the correct option is (C).
bd 3 200 × 5003
Moment of inertia = = 8. Maximum shear F = 50 kN
12 12
= 2.604 × 109 mm4 = 50,000 N
Hence, the correct option is (C). Average shear stress
M f F
= qav =
4. cross − sectional area
I y
50, 000 × 4
M 240 × 106 × 250 =
f max = ymax = π ( 2000) 2
I 2.604 × 10 9
= 23.041 N/mm2 = 1.5915 N/mm 2
Hence, the correct option is (A). For the circular section, maximum shear stress
5. Hoop stress is given by 4
pd = qav
fc = 3
2t
4
15 × 1200 = 1.5915 ×
i.e., 150 = 3
2t
= 2.12 N/mm .
2
∴ t = 60 mm
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9. Distance of neutral axis from top fibre of the section pd

10. f =
4t
[80 × 20 × 10 + 200 × 20(100 + 20) +
0.8 × 2
120 × 20( 20 + 200 + 10)] = = 40 MPa
yt = 4 × 10 × 10 −3
80 × 20 + 200 × 20 + 120 × 20
Circumferential strain
= 131 mm δd f f f
= − µ = (1 − µ )
Shear stress at bottom of top flange d E E E
F 40(1 − 0.25)
= ay = = 0.15 × 10 −3
bI 200 × 10 3
Change in diameter
40 × 1000 δd = d × 0.15 × 10−3
= × 80 × 20(131 − 10)
80 × 65 × 106
= 2,000 × 0.15 × 10−3
= 1.489 N/mm2 = 0.3 mm
Previous Years’ Questions 2. Maximum bending stress, σ b

1. ( BM ) max
10 N σb =
Z
A B C
π π
Z= × d 3 = × 0.0753 = 4.142 × 10 −5 m3
1m 1m 32 32
0 0 6.75 × 103
(−) ∴ σb = = 162.96 MPa
4.142 × 10 −5
60 MPa
3.
0.01 m P P
0.01 m A L B 2L C L D
Section BC:
Bending moment (M) = 0 X X
P P
My
∴ Bending stress, σ b = =0
I Total strain energy, U = UAB + UBC + UCD
Section AB: Section AB:
Bending moment (M) at A = 10 × 1 Bending moment, M = Px
= 10 Nm
L M 2 dx 2
L ( Px ) dx
M at B = 0 U AB = ∫ =∫
My 0 2 EI 0 2 EI
∴ Bending system σ b at A =
I P 2 L3
10 × 0.005 ⇒ U AB = U BC =
= = 60 MPa 6 EI
 0.014 
  Section BC:
 12 
Bending moment, M = Px – P(x – L)
Since shear force is constant between A and B, there-
fore bending moment has linear variation and hence ⇒ M = PL
bending stress also has linear variation. 3L ( PL) 2 dx
∴ U BC = ∫
Hence, the correct option is (A). L 2 EI
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P 2 L2 6. Maximum bending stress,

⇒ U BC = [3L − L]
2 EI ( BM ) max y ( BM ) max
(σ b ) max = =
P 2 L3 I Z
⇒ U BC =
EI   x−2 
2
∴ Utotal = 2 UAB + UBC ⇒ ( BM ) max = 1500 x − 3000   

  2   at x = 2.5 m
P 2 L3 P 2 L3 ⇒ (BM)max = 3375 Nm
= 2× +
6 EI EI
3375
4 P 2 L3 ∴ (σ b ) max = = 67.5 MPa
⇒ U total = 0.03 × 0.12
3EI
6
4.
7. Max deflection
P 3 P 3
δ= =
2 2 EI
× 3EI
2m 3
1m P 3 6 P 3
⇒ δ= =
bt 3
Ebt 3
2E ×
12
t
R pr
8. σ 1 =
2t
p × 1.01r
σ2 =
2 × 0.99t
Top view = 1.0202 σ1
σ1 = 100%
Force applied on bottom of container, F = ρ × Area
σ2 = 102.02%
= ρh × π × R2
σ2 – σ1 = 2.02%
= 1000 × 10 × 2 × π × 12
= 62.83 kN
F 62.83 pd
Axial stress, σ a = = σ
9. h = 2t = 2
A 2×π × R × t
σi pd
62.83 4t
⇒ σa = = 10 MPa
2π × 1× 0.001 Hence, the correct option is (C).
PD  3π x 
Circumferential stress, σ c =
L
10. Area = ∫ sin  dx
2t 0
 L 
(1000 × 10 × 1) × 2
= = 10 MPa 3px
sin 
2 × 0.001 L

dx
1
5. Axial strain, ∈a = [σ a − µσ c ]
E
R1 R2
1
= [(10 × 106 ) − (0.3 × 10 × 106 )] L
(100 × 10 9 )
L
= 7 × 10–5  −L  3π x   −L 2L
=  cos   = [−1 − 1] =
Hence, the correct option is (C).  3π  L 0 3π 3π
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R1 = R2 = R bd 2 2h3 h3
=
Z = =
2L L 6 6 3
∴ 2R = ∴ R=
3π 3π
12.5 Ph P
Hence, the correct option is (B). ∴ σ max = = 37.5 2
h3 h
11. 3
ιmax 0.375
R W = mg = = 0.01.
σ max 37.5
When the force is removed, the rod oscillates about the Hence, the correct option is (D).
hinge, the angular acceleration α is given by
13. Internal radius = 100 mm
L Diameter, d = 200 mm
Iα = W ×
2
Maximum permissible working stress,
W L2 WL
⇒ ×α = σ = 100 MPa
g 3 2
Internal pressure, p = 10 MPa
3g pd
∴ α= σ=
2L 2t
Linear acceleration of cantilever mass,
L 3g 3 10 × 200
a= × = g ∴ 100 =
2 2L 4 2×t
⇒ t = 10 mm
3g 3 3
The force offered by mass = m × = mg × = W Hence, the correct answer is 9.8. to 10.6.
4 4 4
∴ Reaction R = W − 3/4 W 14. Given:
W D = 14 m, t = 0.05 m, P = 2 MPa
=
4 PD
σ1 = σh =
Hence, the correct option is (B). 2t
12. P PD
σ2 = σL =
4t
L
__
σ1 − σ 2
2 Maximum inplane shear stress, τmax =
L __
P 2
__
P 2
2 b = 2h PD 2 ×14
L = 50h ⇒ τmax = =
8t 8 × 0.05
d =h
⇒ τmax = 70 MPa
P σ1 PD
Shear force = Absolute shear stress, (τmax)abs = =
2 P 2 4t
Average shear stress =
2× A 2 × 14
⇒ (τ max )abs = = 140 MPa
P P 4 × 0.05
= = 2
2 × 2h 2
4h Hence, the correct option is (C).
Maximum shear stress 15. Given:
imax = 1.5 × iav P = 500 kPa, D = 4 m, t = 0.01 m
P P PD
= 1.5 × = 0.375 2 Maximum inplane shear stress, τmax =
4h 2
h 8t
M 500 × 4
Maximum bending stress σ max = ⇒ τmax = ⇒ τ max = 25 MPa.
Z 8 × 0.01
where M = maximum bending moment
P × 50 h
M= = 12.6 Ph
4
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Chapter 3 • Stresses in Beams, Cylinders and Spheres | 3.59
16. B.M.D Moment at A = –RB (1.5 L) + P × 0.5 L

P
2.26 | Strength of Materials P Chapter 3 • Stresses in Beams,
= –P/3 (1.5 L) + P ×and
Cylinders 0.5 Spheres
L | 3.59
= 0 N.m
A at A = –R
B
16. B.M.D Moment
So, no bending stress
B actsL)at+point
(1.5 P × 0.5
A. L
Rb P P Rc
Hence, = –P/3
the correct (1.5 L)
answer is +0.P × 0.5 L
L L = 0 N.m σ
B A 17. For a thin cylindrical pressure vessel, h = 2.
RB + RC = 0 RB = –RC So, no bending stress acts at point A. σ
l
Rb Rc Hence, the correct option
answerisis(D).
0.
L L 18. Let square side = a cm σ
17. For a thin cylindrical pressure vessel, h = 2.
RB + RC = 0 RB = –RC Circular diameter = d cm σl
Moment at B, RC × 3L – P × 2L + P × L = 0
Hence, the correct πoption is (D).
RC = P/3 a2 == a cmd2 (Given) equal area.
18. Let square side 4
RB = –P/3
Moment at B, RC × 3L – P × 2L + P × L = 0 Circular rigidity ==EId cm
Flexural diameter
RC = P/3 π 24
+ Ia1 2 = d a π 2 equal
64 (Given) π area.
= 4 = × =
B RB = –P/3 C I2 πd 4 12 π 16 3
–
A Hints/Solutions| 3.PB Flexural rigidity =12EI× 64
+ I1
Hence, the correct a4 64 π2 π
p  L = option is4 (C).
= × =
B  3
C I2 πd 12 π 16 3
A 12 ×
– I I 64
1 9. = =y
Z I the correct option is (C).
Hence,
Chapter 3 • Stresses in Beams,
p L Cylinders and Spheres | 3.59
 3 y
Moment at A = –RB (1.5 L) + P × 0.5 L y = d/2 for solid circular cross section.
= –P/3 (1.5 L) + P × 0.5 L Hence, the correct option is (A).
= 0 N.m
So, no bending stress acts at point A.
Rc Hence, the correct answer is 0.
L σh
17. For a thin cylindrical pressure vessel, = 2.
σl
18. Let square side = a cm
×L=0 Circular diameter = d cm
π 2
a2 = d (Given) equal area.
4
Flexural rigidity = EI
I1 a4 64 π2 π
= = × =
C I2 πd4 12 π 16 3
12 ×
64
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CHapter 4 DefleCtion of Beams
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 x = 0.422 l

1. = 0.422 × 5 = 2.11 m from B
15 N/m Hence, the correct option is (B).
X
3.
A B
25 kN
X a=4m C b=2m
5M A B
X ymax
X yc
If prop is not provided, the downward deflection at the 6m
wL4
free end will be = −
8 EI Wa 2 b 2 25 × 103 × 4 2 × 22
Deflection due to prop alone at the free end yc = =
3E Ι L 3 × 200 × 10 9 × 55 × 10 −6 × 6
PL3
=+ = 8.08 mm
3EI
PL3 wL4
∴ − =0
3EI 8 EI L2 − b 2
4. Maximum deflection occurs at x =
3wL 3
Reaction at the prop= P= 6 2 − 22
8 = = 3.266 m.
3
3 × 15 × 5
= Hence, the correct option is (D).
8
= 28.125 N 5.
Hence, the correct option is (D). 20 kN
2
wx B1m C
2. Bending moment at XX = + Px − a=3m
2 A y1
2 2 2 qB y2
d y wx 3wlx wx
Thit is, EI 2
= Px − = −
dx 2 8 2
wa3
dy 3wlx 2
wx 3 Deflection at B y1 =
Integrating, EI = − + C1 3EI
dx 16 6
20 × 103 × 30003
dy = = 4.5 mm
=
At x l =
, 0 3 × 2 × 105 × 2 × 108
dx
Portion BC remains straight
3wl 3 wl 3 ∴ y2 = (L - a)θB
∴ 0= − + C1
16 6
wa 2 20 × 103 × 3000 2
3
wl 3wl wl3 3 θB = = = 22.5 × 10 −4
C1 = − =− 2 EI 2 × 2 × 105 × 2 × 108
6 16 48
y2 = 1000 × 22.5 × 10-4 = 2.25 mm
dy 3wlx 2 wx 3 wl 3
∴ EI = − − Deflection at C, the free end = y1 + y2
dx 16 6 48
= 4.5 + 2.25 = 6.75 mm
dy Hence, the correct option is (C).
Maximum deflection occurs where =0
dx
2 3 3 6. Given W = 4 kN
i.e., 0 = 3wlx − wx − wl
16 6 48 Span L = 3 m
or 91x - 8x - l = 0
2 3 3
E = 20 × 106 N/cm2
Solving the above equation we get I = 800 cm4
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2.28 | Strength of Materials Chapter 4 • Deflection of Beams | 3.61
4 kN Let θ be the slope at 1 m from free end.

A B 100 × 100 2 100 × 300 2
1.5 EI θ = − +
2 2
3m
= 40,00,000
wL 2
6 × 143
Slope at A, θ A = − I= = 1372 cm 4
16 EI 12
4 × 103 × 300 2 4000000

=− ∴ θ= radian = 0.002915 radian
16 × 20 × 106 × 800 106 × 1372
= -0.0806° 180
= 0.002915 × = 0.16°.
Slope at B, θB = + 0.0806° π
7. Given I = 3,000 cm4 9. L = 3,000 mm
L=5m b = 50 mm
d = 30 cm d = 25 mm
E = 20 × 106 N/cm2 bd 3 50 × 253
Moment of inertia I = =
f = 5,000 N/cm 2
12 12
Let w be the UDL. = 65,104 mm4
wL2 w × 500 2 E = 70 × 103 N/mm2
M max = = = 31250 wN − cm
8 8 wL4
y=
max = 1.5 mm
M 8 EI
But f = ×y
I w × 3000 4
i.e., = 1.5
fI f I 5000 × 3000 8 × 70 × 103 × 65104
or M = = =
y d 30 ∴w = 6.75 × 10-4 N/mm
2 2 Hence, the correct option is (A).
5000 × 3000 10. X
i.e., 31250W = 10 kN
15
or w = 32 N/cm A B
4m 6m
For uniformly distributed load X
dy wlx 2 wx 3 wl 3 RA RB
EI = − − X
dx 4 6 24 RA + RB = 10 kN
At x = 2 m = 200 cm, RB × 10 = 10 × 4
32 × 500 × 200 2 32 × 2003 32 × 5003 ∴ RB = 4 kN
θc = − −
4 6 24 RA = 10 - 4 = 6 kN
= -49.33 × 106 Bending moment at section XX is
49.33 × 106 Mx = RAx - 10(x - 4)
⇒ θc = − = −0.000822 rad
20 × 106 × 3000 d2 y
or EI = 6 x – 10( x − 4) (1)
= -0.047° dx 2
Integrating
dy
8. Slope EI = 3 x 2 – 5( x − 4) 2 + C1 (2)
dx
2 2
dy wx wl Integrating
EI =− +
dx 2 2 5
EIy = x 3 − ( x − 4)3 + C1 x + C2 (3)
x = 1 m = 100 cm 3
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12:56:46 M04_
Applying boundary conditions Deflection is given by

at A, x = 0, y = 0 WL3 1000 × ( 240)3
y1 = =
Substituting in (3), 3EI 12 × 243
0 = 0 + C1 × 0 + C2 3E ×
12
(negative term omitted)
106
∴ C2 = 0 =
3E
At B, x = 10 m, y = 0
Substituting in (3), For simply supported beam, loaded at centre, deflection
is given by,
5
0 = 103 − (6)3 + 10C1 + 0 WL3 1000 × L3 .0241L3
3 y2 = = =
∴ C1 = -64 48 EI 6 × 12 3
E
48 E ×
Maximum deflection occurs when slope is zero. 12
dy when y1 = y2
i.e., =0
dx 106 0.0241L3
=
∴ From equation (2) 3E E
0 = 3x2 - 5(x - 4)2 - 64 L3 = 13.831×106
⇒ x2 - 20x + 72 = 0 L = 240 mm
+20 ± 20 2 − 288 Hence, the correct option is (B).
⇒ x= = 15.29 or 4.71
2 13. For cantilever beam loaded at the free end, maximum
deflection is given by
So maximum deflection occurs at
x = 4.71 m. PL3
Ymax =
Hence, the correct option is (B). 3EI
11. Deflection at the free end of a cantilever loaded at free Here, as the cross-section is varying, the moment of
end is given by inertia at the centroid of the beam is to be considered.
WL3 Width at centroid
y= 2
3EI = b× mm
3
WL3
i.e., = 1.5 cm 2 d 3 bd 3
3EI I= b× =
3 12 18
W 1.5 × 3
= = 0.036 10 × ( 4000)3 × 18
EI (5)3 ∴ Ymax =
3 × 1.2 × 105 × 200 × (30)3
For the above, slope at the free end is
= 5.926 mm
WL2
= Hence, the correct option is (B).
2 EI
14. Taking moments about D
W L2 Vc × 4 - 30 × 6 + 20 × 2 = 0
= ×
EI 2 ⇒ Vc × 4 = 180 - 40
52 ⇒ Vc = 35 kN
= 0.036 ×
2 VD = 30 + 20 - 35 = 15 kN
= 0.45 radian Moment at section at a distance X from A
Hence, the correct option is (A). Mx = -30x + 35(x - 2) + 15(x - 6)
12. d2 y
⇒ EI = −30 x + 35( x − 2) + 15( x − 6)
1 kN dx 2
dy ( x − 2) 2 ( x − 6) 2
⇒ EI = C 1 −15 x 2 + 35 + 15
240 mm dx 2 2
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15 x 3 35 ( x − 2)3 15 ( x − 6)3 EIyA = -293.34

⇒ EIy = C2 + C1x − + + Now, E = 200GPa
3 2 3 2 3
At x = 2, y = 0 = 200 × 109 N/m2
15 3 = 200 × 106 kN/m2
∴ 0 = C2 + 2C1 − 2 I = 50 × 106 mm4
3
= 50 × 106 × 10-12 m4
i.e., C2 + 2C1 = 40 (1)
= 50 × 10-6 m4
Also at x = 6, y = 0
EI = 200 × 50
15 × 63 35 ( 4)3
∴ 0 = C2 + 6C1 − + = 10,000 kNm2
3 2 3
−293.34
YA = m
= C2 + 6C1 - 1080 + 373.33 10000
or C2 + 6C1 = 706.67 (2) = -29.334 mm
From (1) and (2) = 29.334 (downwards)
4C1 = 666.67 Hence, the correct option is (C).
C1 = 166.67 15. Deflection at point E.
C2 = 40 - 2C1 = 40 - 2 × 166.67 At point E, x = 4 m
= -293.34 15 3 35 3
EIyE = −293.34 + 166.67 × 4 − ×4 + ×2
∴ The deflection equation is 3 6
= 100
15 35
Ely = -293.34 +166.67x - x 3 + ( x − 2)3 100
15 3 6 YE = m
+ ( x − 6)3 10000
6
= 10 mm (upwards)
Deflection at point A
i.e., when x = 0
Practice Problems 2 10C1 = -1000

1. RA + Rc = 20 kN C1 = -100
Rc × 10 = 20 × 7 EIy = x3 - 100x
Deflection at point B
⇒ Rc = 20 × 7 = 14 kN
10 i.e., when x = 7 m
RA = 20 - 14 = 6 kN EIy = (7000)3 - 100 × 7,000
Mxx = RAx = 6x (7000)3 − 7, 00, 000
y=
2
200 × 2 × 108
i.e., EI d y = 6 x
dx 2 = 8.57 mm
dy 6 x 2
EI = + C1 2.
dx 2
x M1
3
x x
⇒ EIy = 3 + C1 x + C2
3 3m
When x = 0, y = 0 R
x R
0 = 0 + 0 + C2
i.e., C2 = 0 The applied moment M1 can be held in equilibrium
only by the action of another couple. So reactions at the
when x = 10, y = 0 end of the beam is equal and opposite as shown in the
0 = (10)3 + C1 × 10 + 0 figure.
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For equilibrium, = −0.064 M1 L2

∑M = 0
= 0.064 M1L2 (deflection downward)
i.e., -M1 + RL = 0
Ymax is given as 6 mm.
M1
⇒ R=
L EIY max
M1 =
Bending moment at any section xx 0.064 L2
M1
M=
x =
Rx x bd 3 (0.05) 4 4
L =I = m
12 12
2
i.e., EI d y = M1 x L=3M
dx 2 L
E = 200 × 109 N/m2
Integrating
dy M1 x 2 200 × 10 9 × (0.05) 4 × 0.006
EI = + C1 M1 =
dx L 2 0.064 × 32 × 12
M1 x3 = 1,085 Nm
EIy = + C1 x + C2
L 6 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Applying boundary conditions, when x = 0,
4. The slope equation is found by differentiating the
y=0 deflection equation
∴ 0 = 0 + 0 + C2
5
i.e., C2 = 0 EIy = x 3 − ( x − 4)3 − 64 x
3
when x = L, y = 0
L2 dy
∴ 0 = M1 + C1 L + 0 ⇒ EI = 3 x 2 − 5( x − 4) 2 − 64
6 dx
M1 L2 dy
⇒ C1 L = − when x = 0; EI = −64
6 dx
M1 L −64 −64
⇒ C1 = − Slope = =
6 EI 10, 000
The deflection equation becomes
= -0.0064 radian
M ML
EIy = 1 x 3 − 1 x 180
6L 6 = −0.0064 ×
π
dy = -0.36°
For maximum deflection =0
dx Slope at the other end
M1 x 2 M1 L i.e., when x = 10 m
0= −
2L 6 dy
EI = 3 × 10 2 − 5(10 − 4) 2 − 64
dx
L 3
∴=
x = = 3 m. = 300 - 180 - 64 = 56
3 3
Hence, the correct option is (C). dy 56
3. For the maximum deflection ⇒ dx = 10, 000 = 0.0056 radian = 0.32°.
M1 L3 ML L Hence, the correct option is (B).

EIYmax = ⋅ − 1 ⋅
6L 3 3 6 3 5. Deflection of the beam when spring support
 1 1  ω L4
= M1 L2  − 
6×3 3 6 3  is not provided =
8 EI
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1.5 kN/m Deflection due to the concentrated load

A
wL3 10 × 33 90
B = = =
3EI 3EI EI
5M
1
Total deflection = (33.33 + 90)
Taking moments about A EI
L× L 123.33
RB × L = 1.5 × =
2 36, 000
1.5 L = 3.425 × 10-3 m
⇒=
RB = 0.75 L
2 = 3.425 mm
Load on spring = 3.75 kN = RB Hence, the correct option is (C).
Deflection of spring
8. RA + RB = 50 + 10 = 60
δ = Deflection of the beam end
∑MA = 0
ω L4
= i.e., RB × 4 - 50 × 2 - 10 × 6 = 0
8 EI
⇒ RB × 4 = 100 + 60 = 160
RB
= Stiffness of the spring = ⇒ RB = 40 kN
δ
3.75 × 8 EI ∴ RA = 60 - 40 = 20 kN
=
ω L4 Measuring x from A
Now, EI = 200 × 60 × 106 kNm2 d2 y
EI = 20 x − 50( x − 2) + 40( x − 4)
= 12,000 kNm2 dx 2
3.75 × 8 × 12, 000
Stiffness of spring = dy
1.5 × 54 EI = 10 x 2 − 25( x − 2) 2 + 20( x − 4) 2 + C1
= 384 kN/m dx
= 384 N/mm 10 3 25 20
Hence, the correct option is (D). EIy = x − ( x − 2)3 + ( x − 4)3 + C1 x + C2
3 3 3
6. For the loading of one half of the beam let the deflec-
tion be Yc. Instead of this if the other half is loaded the At x = 0, y = 0
deflection will be same. So fully loading will be 2Yc. i.e., 0 = 0 + 0 + C2 (negative terms omitted)
In the case of a fully uniformly distributed loading, i.e., C2 = 0
the maximum deflection is At x = 4, y = 0
5
= ω L4 10 3 25 3
384 i.e., 0 = × 4 − × 2 + 4C1
3 3
So, for half loading the displacement is
5 5 ⇒ 4C1 = 66.67 - 213.33 = -146.67
= ω L4 = ω L4 ⇒ C1 = -36.67
384 × 2 768
Hence, the correct option is (B). Deflection point C
7. Deflection at the free end due to the UDL i.e., when x = 2m
ω a4 ω a3 10 3
= + ( L − a) EIYc = × 2 − 36.67 × 2
8 EI 6 EI 3
(where a = the loaded length and = -46.67
EI = flexural rigidity) − 46.67
Yc =
1 10 × 24 (3 − 2)10 × 23  36, 000
=  + 
EI  8 6  = -1.296 × 10-3m
33.33 = -1.296 mm
=
EΙ Hence, the correct option is (A).
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9. The loading of the beam is equivalent to a force 20 10 × 23

kN and a moment of 10 kNm acting at point C. The 0 = 53 − + 5 × 22 + C1 × 5
3
moment is having a clockwise direction.
20 kN 10 × 23
⇒ 5C1 = −5 + − 5 × 22
3
3
10 kN/m
A
⇒ C1 = -23.67
B
C E Ι yC = 33 − 23.67 × 3
3m 2m
RA RB = -44.01
Taking moment about B, − 44.01

⇒ Yc = m = − 4.401 mm
10, 000
RA × 5 + 10 - 20 × 2 = 0
⇒ RA × 5 = 20 × 2 - 10
10. The loading can be treated as a combination of a UDL
⇒ RA = 6 kN
of 10 N/m acting downwards and uniformly varying
d2y load 10 N/m at fixed end to zero at free end acting
EI = 6 × x + 10 − 20( x − 3)
dx 2 upwards.
= 6 x − 20( x − 3) + 10( x − 3)° So the downward deflection at point B is
wL4 wL4 wL4  1 1 
dy x2 ( x − 3) 2 − = −
EI = 6 − 20 + 10( x − 3) + C1 8 EI 30 EI EI  8 30 
dx 2 2
11 wL4
( x − 3)3 =
EIy = x − 10
3
+ 5( x − 3) 2 + C1 x + C2 120 EI
3
11 10 × 34
At x = 0, y = 0 = × = 7.425 × 10 −3 m
120 10, 000
0 = 0 + C2
i.e., C2 = 0 = 7.425 mm
At x = 5 m, y = 0 Hence, the correct option is (A).
=
Previous Years’ Questions
1. Maximum deflection is at centre of beam M
L
R1 R2
5WL3
δ max =
384 EI →
Σ Fy = 0 ⇒ R1 + R2 = pL (1)
5 × 120 × 10 × 15 × 15
3 3
=
0.12 × 0.753 Deflection at free end due to UDL = Deflection at force
384 × 200 × 10 9 ×
12 end due to load R2
= 93.75 mm qL4 R2 L3 3qL
⇒ = ; ⇒ R2 =
Hence, the correct option is (A). 8 EI 3EI 8
2. Since both the cantilevers are attached by a single From equation (1), we get
roller, hence deflection is same for both the cantilevers 3qL 5qL
but due to different loads and reactions, the slope will R1 = qL − =
8 8
not be equal.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Taking moment about fixed end
3. qL2
R2 L − = −M
q 2
L 3qL2 qL2
⇒ −M = −
R2 8 2
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qL2 6.
⇒ M= M
8
L
5qL 3qL qL2
∴ R1 = , R2 = ,M=
8 8 8
d2 y
Hence, the correct option is (A). EI = M , by integrating twice
dx 2
4. C ML2
y=
2 EI
7. For cantilever end loaded with concentrated
L PL2
load P, slope at the free end =
X
2EΙ
P
PL
B For loaded with moment M =
A 2
L
ML PL2
slope at the free end = =
EΙ 2EΙ
Let vertical deflection at B is δ.
1 PL2 PL2 PL2
P ×δ
∴ [U AB + U AC ] = So, total deflection = + = .
2 2EΙ 2EΙ EΙ
U = Maximum strain energy Hence, the correct option is (B).
L M 2 dx 2
L ( Px ) dx
U AB = ∫ =∫ 8. W N/m
0 2 EI 0 2 EI
• • B
P 2 L3 A
⇒ U AB = L
6 EI
L M 2 dx 2
L ( PL ) dx
U BC = ∫ =∫
0 2 EI 0 2 EI G •
BMD
P 2 L3 3L /4
⇒ U BC =
2 EI WL 2

2
4 P 2 L3 1
U AB + U BC = = P ×δ
6 2 EI 2 Here maximum deflection takes place at B. considering
origin as B and reference point as A we get
4 PL3
∴ δ = 1
3EI YB – Y A = [ AX ] and maximum bending moment
EI
WL2
5. =
2

A = Area of BMD; X = Distance between centroid of
P BMD from the origin
1 WL3 3L 
∴ YB − Y A =  × 
bt 3 EI  6 4 
MI = for rectangular section at a distance x from
12
bt 3 x bxt 3 WL4
free end is ⋅ = or =
YB Y=
max .
12 12 8 EI
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9. P 11.
500 N
B
L A θB 0.05 m 0.05 m C
M A
YB Q YC 1
Equivalent loading is as given above where M = P(L - x) P θB YC

YC 2
For displacement of A to be zero,
R
deflection due to P = deflection due to M
Deflection at C, YC = YC1 + YC2 or YC = YB + YC2
PL3 ML2 P ( L − x ) L2
i.e., = = YC 2
3EI 2 EI 2 EI Now tan θB = {From ∆PQR} or YC2 = 0.050 tan θB
0.050
L ( L − x) or YC2 = 0.050 (θB)
or =
3 2 ∴ YC = YB + 0.050 (θB)
2L = 3L - 3x Where YB = Deflection at B
⇒ L = 3x θB = Slope at B
⇒ x = 0.33L W
10. A B
C L
WL3 WL2
YB = and θ B =
L 3EI 2 EI
500 × 0.053 500 × 0.052
∴ YC = + 0.05 ×
A 3EI 2 EI
B 500 × 0.053 1 1  −4
X P ⇒ YC =  3 + 2  = 2.6 ×10 m
200  
For AB, moment at a distance from A = Px
or YC = 0.26 mm
For BC, moment at end = PL
L ( Px ) 2 2
L ( PL ) dx
Total strain energy = ∫0 dx + ∫ 12.
2 EI 0 2 EI
2 kN
L L
P x  P L x
2 3 2 2 Q 0.08
O P
=  +  0.02 m
 6 EI  0  2 EI  0
0.02 m C
P 2 L3 P 2 L3 A
= + BMD
6 EI 2 EI
4 P 2 L3 B
= D 0.16 kN-m
6 EI 0.2 kN-m
E
1 Bending moment at O = 2 × 0.1 = 0.2 kN-m
Now, total strain energy = Pδ
2
Bending moment at Q = 2 × 0.08 = 0.16 kN-m
Taking C as origin, A as reference and denoting θ as
4 P 2 L3 slope.
=
6 EI 1
∴ θC – θA = [Area of Bending moment diagram
EI
4 PL3
⇒ δ= between C and A]
3 EI
Hence, the correct option is (D). Now slope at fixed end A, θA = 0
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15. P
∴ θC =
1
[Area of {BDE + ACDB}] bd 3 a 4
I= = X (b = d = a)
EI 12 12
⇒ θC = 12Wl 3
∴ y =
3E ( a )
4
1×10 3
 1   X
4 
× ( 0.2 − 0.16 ) × 0.02  + {0.02 × 0.16} X
0.006   2  
210 ×10 9 × Now,
At = 1.19aon cantilever beam,
anya1section
12
(a1)4 = 2a4 Mx = Px
⇒ θC = 0.15873 radians.
Hence, the correct answer is 0.15 to 0.17. Now, strain 12Wl 2 is given as
energy
Thus, y1 = = y/2
13. For a cantilever beam, deflection 3E ( 2a 4 ) L M 2 dx
U =∫
Wl 3 2 EI
y = Chapter 4 • Deflection of Beams | 3.69 Hence, the correct option
0 is (D).
3EI 14. Hence, the correct
L option
U =∫
( Px )2 dxis=(C).
L 2 2
P x dx
}] I=
bd 3 a 4
= (b = d = a) 2 EI ∫ 2 EI
0 0
12 12
12Wl 3 L
∴ y = P2 ⎡ x3 ⎤ P 2 L3
  3E ( a )
4 = ⎢ ⎥ =
02  + {0.02 × 0.16} 2 EI ⎣ 3 ⎦0 6 EI
 
Now, a1 = 1.19a Hence, the correct option is (A).
(a ) = 2a
1 4 4
0.17. 12Wl 2
Thus, y1 = = y/2
3E ( 2a 4 )
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CHapter 5 torsion of sHafts and springs Columns
Hints/solution
16 × 7162, 000
Practice Problems 1 So, d 3 =
π × 60
1. Both portions are subjected to same torque. d = 84.7 mm
Brass portion T Gθ
Also, =
J = 402 cm4 J L
T qs π
qs = 80 kN/mm 2 = 8000 kN/cm 2 = 1× 105 ×
J R 7162 × 103 180
⇒ =
J  π d4  2000
⇒ T = qs ×  
R  32 
8000 × 402 ⇒ d4 = 83,596,299
= = 804000 Ncm
4 ⇒ d = 95.62 mm
Steel portion The larger diameter is selected
10, 000 × 127 i.e., d = 95.62 mm
T= = 423, 333 Ncm
∴ Maximum torque that can be applied is 4233 Nm. p × 60 6000 × 60 240
4. T = = = = 38.197 N/mm
Hence, the correct option is (C). 2π N 1500 × 2π 2π
2. T = 4233 Nm π d3
T = fs ∴ d = 13.45 mm
T Gθ 16
=
J L π do3 (1 − k 4 )
Also T = f s do = 14.08 m
TL 16
⇒ θ=
GJ Di = 8.45 mm
Angle of twist at free end = θ1 + θ2 % saving of weight =
 L L  π π
=T 1 + 2  × 13.452 − [14.082 − 8.452 ]
 G1 J1 G2 J 2  4 4 = 29.88%
π
× 13.452
4233  0.8 × 108 1× 108  4
=  + 
10 9  40 × 402 80 × 127  Hence, the correct option is (C).
= 0.063 radian 5. Given: Stiffness = 1 N/cm (Compression)
= 3.59° W=5N
Hence, the correct option is (B). q = 12500 N/cm2
3. Power transmitted = 150 kW Solid length = 4.5 cm
G = 42 × 105 N/cm2
2π NT
= 64 wR3 n
60 Deflection δ =
Gd 4
150 × 1000 × 60
Torque, T =
2π 200 where w = Stiffness
= 7,162 Nm δ
= 7162,000 Nmm w
δ= =w
T fs 1
=
J r n = Number of turns
πd 3 solidlength
⇒ T= × fs =
16 diameter
16T 4.5
⇒ d3 = =
π fs d
Given that fs = 60 N/mm2 R = Mean radius of the spring
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2.38 | Strength of Materials Chapter 5 • Torsion of Shafts and Springs Columns | 3.71
π d 3q = 0.5 × 4.5 = 2.25 m

=
16 w I π ( D 4 − (0.6 D ) 4 )
k= =
3 A 64 0.5027 D 2
64Wn  π d 3 q  π 3 d 5 nq3
δ= ×  = = D 0.08499
Gd 4  16w  64GW 2
= 0.2915 D
64GW 2δ Hence, the correct option is (B).
d5 =
π 3 nq3
3
64 × 42 × 10 × 5 × 5 × d
5 2 9. δ = WL
= 48 EI
π 3 × (12500)3 × 4.5 10 × (5000)3
⇒ 10 =
d4 = 1.0233 × 10-4 48 × EI
⇒ d = 0.105 cm = 1.05 mm 3
(5000)
Hence, the correct option is (B). ⇒ EI =
48
6. Given:
For pin ended column
d = 1 cm
L=l=5m
n = 15
= 5,000 mm
Dm = 10 cm
π 2 EI
Rm = 5 cm Euler’s load = .
L2
W = 100 N
3
G = 8.16 × 106 N/cm2 (5000) 1
=π2× ×
64WRm 3 n 48 5000 2
δ=
Gd 4 = 1,028.8 N
64 × 100 × 5 × 153 Hence, the correct option is (C)
= = 1.47 cm
8.16 × 106 × 14 10. Total Area = 3,671 + 2 × 10 × 140 = 6,471 mm2
w It can be seen that
Stiffness of the spring =
δ Iyy is less than Ixx
100 I = Iyy = Iyy of the I section + Iyy of plates
=
1.47
1
= 68 N/cm = 3.288 × 106 + 2 × × 10 × 140 3
12
= 78,61,333 mm4
ID 1
7. Let=k = I 7861, 333
OD 2 =
k = = 34.85 mm
fh 1 16 A 6471
= = = 1.067
fs 1 − k 4
15 Effective length = Actual length = 4 m = 4,000 mm
⇒ fh = 1.067 fs L 4000
= = 114.78
 D T Js D 4
1  k 34.85
f = × = = 4 =  Applying Rankine’s formula,
 2 J J h D − ( KD ) 4
1− k 4 
Hence, the correct option is (D). fcA
PCr = 2
8. d = 0.6 D L
1+ a 
π 2 π k
A= ( D − d 2 ) = ( D 2 − 0.6 D 2 )
4 4 315 × 6471
=
π 2 1+
1
(114.78) 2
= D (1 − 0.6 2 )
4 7500
= 0.5027 D2 2038, 365
= = 7.39, 451 N
For both ends fixed effective length l = 0.5 L 2.7566
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Pcr 32 × 10 × 106
Safe load = =
Factor of safety π (150)3
739, 451 = 30.18 N/mm2 (tensile)
= fB = -30.18 N/mm2 (compressive)
4
= 1,84,862 N Axial thrust = 150 kN
150 × 1000
= 184.862 kN Axial stress due to thrust =
π
× 150 2
11. Let M be the bending moment and T be twisting = 8.49 N/mm2
moment. Shearing stress at A and B
Bending stress and shearing stress is produced due to T 16T
these. q= R=
J π d3
M 32 M
f = y= = px 16 × 20 × 106
I π d3 = = 30.18 N/mm 2
π 1503
T 16T Combined bending and axial stress
q= R=
J π d3 At A, px = 30.18 - 8.49 = 21.69
Substituting these in principal stress formula At B, px = -30.18 - 8.49 = -38.67
py = 0, at A and B
px + 0 px − 0 Maximum stress is given by
p1 = + + q2
2 2 2
 px − p y 
16 qmax =   +q
2
p1 = [M + M 2 + T 2 ]  2 
π d3
px is maximum at point B
16
= [4 + 4 2 + 82 ] × 106 N/mm 2 qmax at point B is greater than that at A
π × 1003
2
= 65.92 N/mm2  −38.18 
∴ qmax point =   + 30.18
2

= 35.71 N/mm2
When a shaft of diameter d is subjected to bending
moment M and twisting moment (torque) T, principal Hence, the correct option is (A).
stresses produced are 13. Applying Euler’s formula for both end hinged
16 π 2 EI
p= [M ± M 2 + T 2 ] PCr =
πd 3 L2
Maximum shear stress is This is equal to Fcos 45°
F π 2 EI
16 i.e., =
qmax = M +T
2 2
2 L2
π d3
π 2 EI
⇒ F= 2
12. L2
E = 2 × 105 N/mm2
B
π d 4 π (60) 4
I= = mm 4
64 64
L = 2,500 mm
2 xπ 2 × 2 × 105 π (60) 4
A ∴ F= ×
( 2500) 2 64
Bending stress at A = 2.8414 × 10 N 5
My 32 M = 284.14 kN
fA = =
I π d3 Hence, the correct option is (B).
2:57:21 Unit 02.indd 39

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T Gθ TL = 0.01295 radian
14. = ,θ=
J L GJ = 0.742°
θ = θBC + θCD + θ DE
2π NT
TAB = 0 15. Power transmitted =
60
TBC = TCD = 150 Nm
As power and speed are same for both cases, torque T
TDE = 150 + 300 = 450 Nm also is same.
π π D3
J BC = (30) 4 = 79, 521.6 × 10 −12 m 4 For hollow shaft, T = f s [I − k 4 ]
32 16
π π Ds3
TCD = TDE = (80) 4 For solid shaft, T = f s
32 16
fs is same.
= 4021, 238.6 × 10 −12 m 4
So, D3 [I - k4] =Ds3
Rotation of free end
( 210)3 2103
θ = θBC + θCD + θDE ⇒ D3 = =
  1 4  0.9375
1  150 × 0.5 I −   
= 6    2  
80000 × 10  79521.6 × 10 −12
⇒ D = 214.57 mm
150 × 1 450 × 0.5 
+ −12
+ −12  Hence, the correct option is (D).
4021, 238.6 × 10 4021, 238.6 × 10 
Practice Problems 2 δ ×G × d4
∴ W =
1. L = 5 m 8D 3 n
q = 75 MPa
120 × 8 × 10 4 × 30 4
3×π = = 4050 N.
θ = 3° = radian 8 × 2003 × 30
180 Hence, the correct option is (B).
G = 83 GPa
4. Work done by drop weight
Gθ 2q
= = Drop weight × (h + δ)
L d
= 1.5 × 103 (h + 120)
2qL 2 × 75 × 106 × 5 × 180
⇒ d= = = 0.1726 m Energy stored due to gradually falling weight
Gθ 83 × 109 × 3π
= 17.26 cm 1
= × 4050 × 120
Hence, the correct option is (C). 2
4050 × 120
T 2q Equating, 1.5 × 103(h + 120) =
2. = 2
J d
H + 120 = 162
2qJ π
⇒ T= = q d3 h = 42 mm
d 16
75 × 106 × π × (0.1726)3
= 2π NT mean
16 5. Power transmitted =
= 0.0757 × 106 Nm 60
= 75.7 × 106 Nmm = 600 kW
Hence, the correct option is (D). 600 × 1000 × 60
Tmean = = 52087 Nm
3. When the load is applied gradually, 2π × 110
8WDn3 Tmax = 52,087 × 1.2 = 62,504.49 Nm
δ=
Gd 4 = 62,50,449 Ncm
Unit 02.indd 40
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Let D and d be outside and inside diameters of the shaft.

8. I x = 1 × 400 × 3003
3 12
d= D
5
T q 1
Applying torque equation, = Iy = × 300 × 4003
J R 12
2q e1 = 25 cm
=
D e2 = 20 cm
2qJ P = 500 kN = 5,00,000 N
⇒ D=
T P M My
f = + x y+ x
π  4 81D 4  A Ix Iy
But J = D −  = 0.0854 D
4
32  625 
P Pe2 Pe
2 × 6300 × 0.0854 D 4 = + y+ 1 x
∴ D= A Ιx Iy
6250449
500, 000 500, 000 × 20 y
6250449 = +
⇒ D = 3
300 × 400 1
2 × 6300 × 0.0854 × 400 × 3003
12
⇒ D = 17.98 cm
500, 000 × 25 x
Hence, the correct option is (B). +
1
q 2q Gθ × 300 × 4003
6. = = 12
R D L
500, 000  12 × 20 y 12 × 25 x 
2qL 1.4 × π = 1+ +
D= where θ = 300 × 400  300 2 400 2 
Gθ 180
= 0.0244 radian = 4.17[1 + 2.67 × 10 −3 y + 1.88 × 10 −3 x ]
2 × 6300 × 300 At point D, x = 200, y = -150
=
84 × 105 × 0.0244
f d = 4.17[1 − 0.4 + 0.38] = 4.087 N/mm 2 .
= 18.44 cm
7. Given, n = 15, R = 9 cm, U = 58 Nm 9. Effective length = Actual length = 2 m
= 5,800 Ncm E = 12 Gpa = 12,000 N/mm2
δ =5 fc = 12 Mpa= 12 N/mm2
G = 8.5 × 106 N/cm2 π 2 EI
 1  PCr =
Total energy stored U = 2 W × δ  L2
 
critical load
1 Working load = = 100 kN
⇒ 5800 = W × 5 FS
2 FS = 3
5800 × 2
⇒ w= = 2320 N π 2 EI
5 100 kN =
3
3L2
Also, we have δ = 64WRn Let ‘a’ be the size of square-section
Gd 4
a4
1  64WRn  32w 2 R3 n
3
Then, I =
U = W × 4 
= 12
2  Gd  Gd 4
32 × 2320 2 × 93 × 15 π 2 × 12000 × a 4
or 5800 = 100, 000 =
8.5 × 106 × d 4 12 × 3 × 2000 2
32 × 2320 2 × 93 × 15 a = 105 mm
d4 =
5800 × 8.5 × 106 Considering direct crushing,
⇒ d = 38.203
4 fc × A = 1,00,000
⇒ d = 2.49 cm ⇒12 × a2 = 1,00,000
Hence, the correct option is (A). i.e., a = 91.3 mm
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Select the larger, k = 64.031 mm

i.e., a = 105 mm using Euler’s formula Rankine’s critical load
Hence, the correct option is (B)
f cA
10. D = 200 mm PR = 2
L
Thickness = 20 mm 1+ a  
K
Inner diameter = d = 200 - 20 × 2 = 160 mm
π 550 × 11309.74
I= ( 200 4 − 160 4 ) = 4, 63, 69908 mm 4 = 2
64 1  2250 
1+
For both ends fixed, effective length 1600  64.03 
Actual Length 4.5 = 3,510,850 N
L= = = 2.25 m
2 2
PR 3510850
= 2,250 mm Safe load =
FS 3
π
A= ( 200 2 − 160 2 ) = 11309.734 mm 2 = 1,170,283 N
4
= 1,170.3 kN
l 4, 6, 3, 69, 908
k=
2
=
A 11, 309.734 Hence, the correct option is (D).ww
Previous Years’ Questions Since AB and BC are connected in parallel

T ∴ TA + TC = T
1. Torsional stiffness, q = and θAB = θBC
θ
Since shafts are connected in series  TL   TL 
∴ TMN = TNO = TOP = 10 and θMN + θNO + θOP = θMP  GJ  =  GJ 
  AB   BC
T = Torque (Nm) = LAB L=
Since BC , G AB GBC and
θ = Angular deflection (radians)
π
TMN 10 × d4
J AB 32 1
Given: θ = 20 ⇒ θ MN = 20 =
π
=
J BC 16
MN
× ( 2d ) 4
32
TNO 10
= 30 ⇒ θ NO = 1
θ NO 30 ∴ TA = × TC ⇒ TC = 16TA
16
TOP 10
= 60 ⇒ θOP = Hence, the correct option is (C).
θOP 60
3. According to Euler’s criterion of buckling load, the
 10 10 10  critical buckling load is given by
θ MP =  + +  = 1 radian
 20 30 60  π 2 EI min nπ 2 EI min
Pcr = or
Hence, the correct option is (B). L2e L2
For pin ended or hinged, n = 1
2.
n = End fixity coefficient
TA T TC
Imin = Minimum second moment of cross-section area.
E = Young’s modulus of material
Le = Effective length of column  Le = L 
d 2d
L = Length of column  n
L B L C
Unit 02.indd 42
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4.  TL   TL 
∴   = 
A B T = 10 N.m  GJ  AO  GJ  BO
50 mm 25 mm ∵ G AO = GBO and J AO = J BO
L 3L
C ⇒ TA × = TB ×
4 4
∴ TA = 3TB (2)
0.1 m 0.1 m From (1) and (2) we get
Series connection: TO
3TB + TB = TO ⇒ TB =
TAB = TBC = T = 10 Nm 4
Total strain energy, U = UAB + UBC 3TO
∴ TA =
4
 T 2L   T 2L  Maximum torque is at section AO,
⇒ U =  + 
 2GJ  AB  2GJ  BC 3TO
TA =
∴ TAB = TBC = T; LAB = LBC; GAB = GBC 4
 3T 
T 2L  1 1  16 ×  o 
∴ U=  +  ∴ τ max =  4 
2G  J AB J BC  π d3
10 × 0.1  32 32  12To
⇒ U + ⇒ τ max =
2 × 80 × 10  π × .05 π × .0254 
9  4
π d3
⇒ U = 1.73 × 10-3 Nm Hence, the correct option is (B).
or U = 1.73 Nmm 7. A column has a rectangular cross section of 10 mm ×
Hence, the correct option is (C). 20 mm and a length of 1 m.
5. Free body diagram of pin Q The slenderness ratio of the column is close to 346.
FPQ bt 3
I bt 3
45° F
r=
2
= 12 =
A bt 12bt
20(10)3
⇒ r2 = = 8.33
12 × 20 × 10
⇒ r = 2.89
ΣFx = 0 ⇒ FPQ cos45o = F
1000
F ∴ = = 346
⇒ FPQ = = Bucking load ( Pcr ) r 2.89
cos 45°
F π 2 EI min π 2 EI min
⇒ = ⇒ F=
 
cos 45° L2 2 L2 8. θ = TL = T  L1 + L2 
GJ G  J1 J 2 
6. π 4 π
J1 = d , J 2 = ( 2d ) 4
TO 32 32
TA TB
A B
• L
O =L1 = , L2 L
2
L/4 3L / 4 18TL
By substituting d 4 =
πθ G
16(T ) maximum
Maximum shear stress, τ max = 1
π d3  18TL  4
⇒ d = 
To = TA + TB . . . (1) {Parallel connection}  πθ G 
and θAB = θAO = θOB Hence, the correct option is (B).
2:57:33 Unit 02.indd 43

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4π 2 EI ( r4 = r2 + x, r3 = r1 + y )
Pcr1 = if both ends clamped.
2 J2
\ >1
Pcr1 4π EI ×
2 2 J1
= =4
Pcr2 2 π 2 EI Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 13. k does not depend on material strength.
16T Hence, the correct option is (B).
10. Maximum shear stress τ = 14. Torque (τ) = P × 2L
π 2 EI
9. Pcr2 = 2 if both ends hinged.
π d3 ( r2 + x )2 + ( r1 + y )2
1 T = Gθ
1 = r22 + r12
∴ τ ∝ 3 or ι ∝ 3 for same torque J L
4πd2 EI R ( r4 = r2 + x, r3 = r1 + y )
Pcr1 = 2
if both ends clamped. TL
3 θ =J2
τ R  JG> 1
∴ 2 = 2 1  =223 = 8 \
Pcr1 τ 1 4π R EI2  × J1
= =4 Deflection = L θ
Pcr2 2 π 2 EI Hence, the correct 2option is (A).
Hence, the correct answer is 7.9 to 8.1. TL
11. Hence,
Given: theL =correct
1 m, Poption = 30iskW, (C).N = 700 rpm, θ = 1°
13. \ Deflection
k does not depend= on material strength.
JG
= 0.0174533 radians, di = 0.7 16dTo, G = 80 GPa Hence, the correct option is2(B).
10. Maximum shear stress τ = 14. Torque (τ) =
( P × 2=LP) L× 2L
2 π NT 30 × 60000 π d3
P= ⇒T = π
60000 1 2 × π1× 700 T
=
Gθ ( 2 R )4 × G
∴ τ ∝ 3 or ι ∝ 3 for same torque 32
⇒ T = 409.256 N-m R J L
d 4 PL3
T Gθ 3 TL TL =
Nowτ = R ⇒  J= θ = πR 4G
∴ 2J
=  L  = 2 G=θ8
1 3 JG
τ 1  R2  Hence, the correct option is (D).
π 409.256 × 1
∴  do4 − di4  = Given JSolid == LJHollow
15. Deflection θ
32 80 × 10 9
×
Hence, the correct answer is 7.9 to 8.1. 0 . 0174533 2
T \Solid = THollow = TL
Deflection
11. Given:4 L = 1 m, P = 30 kW, -6N = 700 rpm, θ = 1°
⇒ do – (0.7do) = 2.9856 × 10
4
LSolid = LHollow JG
= 0.0174533 radians, di = 0.7 do, G = 80 GPa
⇒ do = 0.04452 m or do = 44.52 mm
Materialhollow = Material( P × 2 Lsolid
) L2
Hence,2 π NT 30 × 60000 =
P = the correct ⇒ T = answer is 43 to 45. π
60000 2 × π × 700 ( 2 R )4 × G
12. Given, r4 > r2; T τ G θ 32
r⇒ T>=r409.256 N-m = =
J r L 4 PL3
3 1
T Gθ TL =
( ) (
Now r42 =− r32 ⇒= J r=22 − r12
and,
J L Gθ
) ⇒ τ ∝ r πR 4G
\ rH > rS ⇒ τH > τS
4 4 2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
J 2π r4 − r34 r4 +409r32 .256r42 ×−1r32 θ = Jθhollow= J
∴ = do4 − di 4 == 2 × 15. Given
solid
r2 ×+10r12 × 0r.220174533
9
J132 r2 − r1 80 − r12 Solid Hollow
TSolid = Tthe
Hence, correct
Hollow
option is (D).
⇒ do4 – (0.7do)4 = 2.9856 × 10-6 LSolid = LHollow
⇒ do = 0.04452 m or do = 44.52 mm 16. Power P = 40 kW
Materialhollow = Materialsolid
Hence, the correct answer is 43 to 45. 2 π NT
P= = 40000
60
12. Given, r4 > r2; T τ Gθ
= = 60 × 40000
r3 > r1 J r L T=
2 π × 500
2
( 2
and, r4 − r3 = r2 − r1 ) ( 2
) 2 ⇒ τ ∝ r T = 763.95 N − m
\ rH > rS ⇒ τH > τ16 S T
J2 r44 − r34 r42 + r32 r42 − r32 θsolid = θhollow τ =
= 4 of
Chapter 5 • Torsion =Shafts and × Springs Columns | 3.77 πd3
J1 r2 − r14 r22 + r12 r22 − r12 16 × 763.95
Hence, the correct τ =option is (D).
π (0.04 )
3
( r2 + x ) + ( r1 + y )
2 2
= τ = 60.792 MPa
r2 + r2
2 1
( r4 = r2 + x, r3 = r1 + y ) Hence, the correct answer is 60 to 61.

J2 17. Shear stress ( τ ) for spring is given as
\
M05_TRIS7308_C05.indd 77 >1 27/04/2017 12:57:41
J1 8 PD
τ=
Hence, the correct option is (A). πd3
13. k does not depend on material strength. where, P = load, d = wire diameter, D = coil mean diameter.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Both wire diameter and mean coil diameter are doubled.
14. Torque (τ) = P × 2L
T Gθ
orque =
J L
TL
θ =
Unit 02.indd 44
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12:57:41
8P (2 D ) 2 8 PD 1 1 20. For a pinned – pinned slender column load

τ1 = = × = × τ = × 24
π ( 2d ) 8 πd3 4
3 4 π 2 EI
P=
= 6 MPa L
Hence, the correct answer is 6. Hence, the correct option is (B).
18. For simply supported at both ends, GI
21. Torsional stiffness =
π 2 EI min L
Load P =
L2 π
150 × 109 × ⎡⎣0.04 4 − 0.024 ⎤⎦
= 32
15 × 103
π 2 × 200 × 103 × 1
P = 12 = 35.342 kNm/rad
1500 2
P = 1096.62 N = 1.096 kN
22. Angular twist q is equal in both sections.
Hence, the correct answer is 1.096. q1 = q2
19. Stiffness of helical spring:
T1 L1 T2 L2
Gd 4 =
K= GJ GJ
64 R3 n
T1 × 100 = T2 × 200
K ∝ d4
d – Spring wire diameter T1 = 2T2
4
K1 ⎛ d1 ⎞ Torques in both sections, T1 + T2 = T
=⎜ ⎟
K 2 ⎝ d2 ⎠ T1 + T2 = 150
4
⎛ 1.02d ⎞
K2 = ⎜ ⎟ × K1 3T2 = 150
⎝ d ⎠
K2 = 1.08243 K1 T2 = 50 Nm
% increase in stiffness
K − K1 T1 = 100 Nm
= 2 × 100 = 8.243%
K Hence, the correct option is (C).
Unit 02.indd 45 4/26/2019 5:47:43 PM

test
Hints/solutions
1. Poisson’s ratio δv
12. = ev = ex + e y + ez = 3e
Hence, the correct option is (C). v
2. Endurance limit Since stress is same in all directions
Hence, the correct option is (C). δ 0.0075
∴ v = −3 ×
3. True stress v 50
Hence, the correct option is (B). 0.0075
δ v = −3 × × (100 × 80 × 50)
4. Proof resilience 50
Hence, the correct option is (D). = -180.00
5. Normal stress is maximum and shear stress is zero Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (D). 13. Maximum tensile stress will be the principal stress
2
p − p2  px + p y   px − p y 
That is, p1 =  +   + qxy
2
6. 1
2  2   2 
Hence, the correct option is (C). As px and py are zero,
7. Maximum shear stress p1 = q =15 N/mm2
 px − p y 
2
=   +q
2
2
 2  px + p y  px − p y 
14. p1 , p2 = ±   + qxy
2
2
2  2 
p 
=  x −0  + 0 2
 2  110 + 30  110 − 30 
= ±   + 30
2
2  2 
px
= .
2 = 70 ± 40 2 + 30 2
Hence, the correct option is (C). = 70 ± 50
8. Point at which bending moment changes sign. = 120, 20
δL 2.5
Wl 2 15. Linear strain = =
9. L 2500
6 E = 2G(1 + m)
Hence, the correct option is (A). E
(1 + µ ) =
4 2G
10. qav
3 110
=
Hence, the correct option is (C). 2 × 42
11. p = 150 Mpa = 150 N/mm2 = 1.31
E = 200 Gpa = 200 ´ 103 N/mm2 m = 0.31
m = 0.4 = Poisson’s ratio
p lateral strain
=E That is, = 0.31
e linear strain
2.5
 pL  lateral strain = × 0.31
δ L = −  (1 − 2 µ )  2500
E 
δd
 150 × 50  =
= − (1 − 2 × 0.4)  d
 200 × 10
3

2.5 × 0.31× 40
\δd = = 0.0124 mm
= -0.0075 mm 2500
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (C).
Unit 02.indd 46
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12:57:50 Z01_
Test | | 2.47
16. Increase in length = 2.55 × 10-4 × 0.25

= a tL δd
=
= 6.5 × 10-6 × 50 × 4000 d
= 1.3 mm \dd = 50 × 2.55 × 10-4 × 0.25
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 3.18 × 10-3 mm
17. The stress induced = Eat Hence, the correct option is (C).
= 2 × 107 × 6.5 × 10-6 × 50 N/cm2 22. The instantaneous stress produced is given by
= 6500 N/cm 2 W  2 AEh 
Hence, the correct option is (C) P= 1 + 1 + 
A  WL 
18. d = 30 mm
l=1m W = 100 N
h = 100 mm
lateral strain 1
= = 0.5 = m π ( 20) 2
longitudinal strain 2 A= = 100π
4
E = 2G (1 + 0.5)
L = 300 mm
2
⇒ G = × 105 E = 2 × 105 N/mm2
3
100  1 + 2 × 100π × 2 × 105 × 100 
= 0.67 × 105 N/mm2 ∴ p= 1 + 
100π  100 × 300 
19. Maximum principal stress = 206.33 N/mm2
2×5 5−5
= +   +5
2
23. 50 kN
2  2 
30 kN/m
=5+5 3m
= 10
6m
20. Maximum bending moment
= 0.06415 WL2 I = 1.34 × 109 mm4
= 0.06415 × 2 × 25 kNm Yb= 290 mm
= 3207.5 Nm My
f =
= 3200 Nm I
Hence, the correct option is (B). WL wl 2
Maximum bending moment = +
21. d = 50 mm 4 8
L= 6000 mm 50 × 6 30 × 6 2
= + kNm
P = 100 kN 4 8
E = 2 × 105 N/mm2 = 210 kNm
m = 0.25 = 210 × 106 N/mm
δL P 210
= f = × 290 × 106 N/mm 2
L AE 1.34 × 10 9
100000 × 4 = 45.4 N/mm2

=
π (50) 2 × 2 × 105 Hence, the correct option is (B).
= 2.55 × 10-4 24. Distance of neutral axis from top of the top flange
= linear strain [80 × 20 × 10 + 20 × 200 × 120 + 120 × 20 × 230]
yt =
lateral strain = linear strain × m 80 × 20 + 20 × 200 + 120 × 20
2:57:50 Unit 02.indd 47

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2.48 | Strength
3.80 of Materials
| Part III • Unit 2 • Strength of Materials
1048000 28. SFx = 0

=
8000 -50 + 200 + P + 20 = 0
= 131 mm ⇒ P = -170 kN
F Hence, the correct option is (B).
q at web top ay
bI
40000 × 80 × 20 × (131 − 10) 29. A B 200
170
50
20 × 65 × 106 50 50 20
C D
= 5.96 N/mm2
Hence, the correct option is (D). 150 150
π 2
25. A1 = d1 C D
4 20 20
π E F
= ( 40) 2 = 1256.64 mm 2
4
dL = dLab + dLcp + dLEF
π
A2 = (30) 2 = 706.86 mm 2
4 PL 50 × 103 × 1000
δL = =
P = 30,000 N AE 100 × 200 × 103
pL1 pL2 −150 × 103 × 1000

Total extension = + δ Lcd =
A1 E1 A2 E2 200 × 200 × 103
30000  400 800 
= + 20 × 103 × 1000
10 1256.64 × 2 706.86 × 1 
5  δ LEF =
25 × 200 × 103
= 0.387 mm
Hence, the correct option is (C). 103 × 1000  50 150 20 
δL = − +
26. Increase in length is same for both steel and copper 200 × 103 100 200 25 
wire = 2.75 mm
PL PL Hence, the correct option is (C).
δL = c c = s c
Ac Ec As Es
σx +σ y σ x −σ y
Ps As Es 30. σ θ = + cos 2θ + τ sin 2θ
= 2 2
Pc Ac Ec
150 + 100 150 − 100
as Lc= Ls = + cos 90 + 40 sin 90
2 2
Ps 1× 2 1
That is, = = = 125 + 40 = 165
Pc 2 × 1.2 1.2
Pc = Ps × 1.2 σ x −σ y
τθ = sin 2θ − τ cos 2θ
Ps + Pc = 8,000 N 2
or Ps + Ps × 1.2 = 8,000
150 − 100
⇒ 2.2Ps = 8000 = sin 90 − 40 cos 90 = 25
2
8000
⇒= Ps = 3636.4 N
2.2 σ R = 1652 + 252 = 166.88
25
27. Pc = Ps × 1.2 tan θ =
165
= 3,636.4 × 1.2
= 4,363.7 ⇒ q = 8.62°
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (A).
Unit 02.indd 48
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Theory of
Machine, Vibrations
and Design
U
Chapter 1 Kinematics and Dynamics
of Mechanisms
Chapter 2 Flywheels and Gear Trains3.19

3.3
n
i
Chapter 3 Vibrations 3.31
Chapter 4 Theories of Failure,

Static and Dynamic Loading 3.48
Chapter 5 Design of Machine Elements 3.62
t
3
Unit 03.indd 1 4/27/2019 10:56:52 AM
3.2 | Theory of Machine, Vibrations and Design
Unit 03.indd 2 & Solutions.indd

M01_TRIS7308_C01.indd
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12:54:58
12:59:35 Chap
CHapter 1 KinematiCs and dynamiCs of meCHanisms

Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 Length of extension, q = 150 mm
Major axis = 2P = 2 × 250 = 500 mm
1. Both statements are true.
Minor axis = 2q = 2 × 150 = 300 mm
2. The relative motion between A and B can be purely slid-
ing or purely rotational or both. Hence, relative motion is 9. F
incompletely constrained. As the relative motion is possible
between A and B when they are connected, they form a kin-
α
ematic pair. T
Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct. T
Hence, the correct option is (B). T
P α α T
3. L = 9; P1 = 10; P2 = 0
∴ F = 3(L − 1) − 2P1 − P2
2T sina = F
= 3(9 − 1) − 2 × 10 − 0 = 4.
Hence, the correct answer is 4. T cosa = P
F
4. O1A = 60 mm, O1O2 = 240 mm, ⇒ 2 tana = ⇒ F = 2P tana
P
O2B = 160 mm Hence, the correct option is (D).
AB = (240)2 + (160 − 60)2 Note: This is the Toggle mechanism.
10. O2
= (240)2 + (100)2
C
= 260 mm β
2
∴ s + = 60 + 260 = 320 mm
A
p + q = 240 + 160 = 400 mm
⇒ s + < p + q → Grashoff ’s rule is fulfilled
The link adjacent to the smallest link is fixed.
⇒ crank-rocker mechanism.
O1
5. O1A and O2B are parallel
→
⇒ VA parallel to VB
→
 b O A 5
cos   = 2 = = 0.5
→ →
 2  O1O2 10
⇒ VA along AB = VB along AB
b
VA cosa = VB cosa, where a = angle made ⇒ = cos −1 0.5 = 60°
2
( )
→ →
by VA or VB with link AB. ∴ b = 2 × 60° = 120°
a (360° − b ) (360° − 120°)
→
⇒ VA (or VB ) with link AB ∴ QRR = = =
⇒ VA = VB ⇒ (O1A)w = (O2B)w2 b b 120°
= 2.
⇒ w2 =
(O A)w = 60 × 8 = 3 rad s
1 −1 Hence, the correct option is (D).
O2 B 160
rw
∴ Angular velocity of link O2B at that instant is 3 rad s−1. 11. Vc = wc (O1C) = ,
Hence, the correct option is (B). (d + r )
6. If there are n links at a joint, it is equivalent to (n − 1) binary where r = O2A = 5 cm
joints. So a quarternary joint = (4 − 1) = 3 binary joints. d = O1O2 = 10 cm
Hence, the correct option is (C). = O1C = 20 cm
7. Geneva mechanism produces intermittent rotary motion from w = 5 rad s−1
continuous rotary motion.
5 × 5 × 20
Hence, the correct option is (C). ⇒ VC = cm/s
(10 + 5)
8. Here length of link tracing ellipse,
5 × 5 × 20 1
P = (100 + 150) = = cm/s.
15 × 100 3
= 250 mm
2:59:35
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3.84 | Part III of
3.4 | Theory • Machine, Vibrations
Unit 3 • Theory of and Design
Machine, Vibrations and Design
12. n1 = no. of binary links = 4 = 20 mm × (w2 + w3) = 20 × (14 + 8)

n2 = no. of ternary links = 1 = (3 − 1) = 440 mm/s
= 2 binary links = 0.44 m/s.
n3 = no. of quarternary links = 1 Hence, the correct option is (D).
= (4 − 1) = 3 binary links
19.
∴ n = n1 + n2 + n3 = 4 + 2 + 3 = 9
C
= effective number of binary links
γ
n ( n − 1) 8
∴N= = 9 × = 36. B
2 2 0° = θ
13. Oldham’s coupling has 2 sliding pairs and 2 revolute pairs → A D
inversion of double slider crank chain
→ (ii) is correct Extended dead centre position is shown. Angle q between
It is used to connect two parallel shafts offset by − small dis- links AB and BC is 0°
tance ⇒ (iii) is correct ⇒ toggle position
Hence, (ii) and (iii) are correct. ⇒ Mechanical advantage is infinite (∞)
We have AC = AB + BC = 5 + 20 = 25 cm
14. (VA)N = Velocity of A normal to AB CD = 10 cm; AD = 18 cm
1
= VA sin30° = 10 × = 5 ms−1 AD2 = AC2 + CD2 − 2 AC × CD × cosg
2
(anti clockwise sense) AC 2 + CD 2 − AD 2
⇒ cos g =
(VB)N = Velocity of B normal to AB 2 AC × CD
1 252 + 10 2 − 182
= VB sin30° = 10 × = 5 ms−1 =
2 2 × 25 × 10
(clockwise)
∴ VBA = Velocity of B relative to A 401
= = 0.802
500
= (VB)N − (VA)N = 5 − (−5)
∴ g = cos−1(0.802) = 36.68°
= 10 ms−1 (clockwise)
Hence, the correct option is (B). ∴ Transmission angle is 36.68° and mechanical advantage is ∞.
VBA 10 ms −1 20. We have for pure rolling, instantaneous
15. wBA = = = 5 rad s −1
AB 2m
centre of rotation is point P (Point of contact)
∴ VCM = Rw ⇒ 10 = 2 × w
16. A = I12, B is I23. As per
10
Kennedy’s theorem, I13 will lie on ⇒w= = 5 rad s−1
2
AB extended aCM = Ra ⇒ 2 = 2 × a
D is I14, C is I34 and as per Kennedy’s theorem, I13 will lie on 2
⇒ a = = 1 rad s−2
DC extended. Hence, E (common point) represents I13 which 2
is same as I31. ac

17. VB = (AB) w21, treating B as a point on link 2
aT P aCM
Also, VB = (EB) w31, treating B as a point on link 3
∴ (EB)w31 = (AB)w21 [Angular velocity ratio theorem] For point P, aT = Ra = 2 × 1 = 2 ms−2 (towards left)
aCM = aP = 2 ms−2 (towards right)
∴ w31 =
( AB ) .w aC = centripetal acceleration
21
EB
= w2R = 52 × 2
2 = 50 ms−2 towards centre O
= × 14
3.5 Net acceleration of P is only ac = 50 ms−2
= 8 rad s−1 counter clockwise Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 21. Centripetal acceleration, ac = Rw2 = 2 × 32 = 18 ms−2 towards O.
18. Rubbing velocity at B Tangential acceleration, aT = Ra = 2 × 3 = 6 ms−2 perpen-
= pin radius at B × relative angular velocity of link 2 and 3 dicular to AO, towards right
Coriolis acceleration, acoriolis = 2 Vw
Unit 03.indd
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Chapter 1 • Kinematics and Dynamics of Mechanisms
3.5
= 2 × 5 × 3 = 30 ms−2, perpendicular to AO, towards left   0.866  

= 9.4248 0.866 + 
a′T = Net tangential acceleration
  10  
= aT − acoriolis = 30 − 6 = 24 ms−2
= 9.4248 × 0.9526
Perpendicular to AO towards left
= 8.978 ms−1, is the velocity of piston
( )
2
∴ Acceleration of P = ac 2 + aT ′
Angular velocity of connecting rod,
= 182 + 24 2 = 30 ms−2.
w cos q 157.08 × cos 60°
Hence, the correct option is (A). wc = =
n − sin q
2 2
52 − sin 2 60°
22. In a double-Hooke’s joint, the driving shaft and the driven
shaft will rotate at the same speed (i.e. the angular velocity 157.08 × 0.5 78.54
= = = 15.95 rad s−1
ratio = 1), if 25 − 0.75 4.924
(i) the driving shaft and the driven shaft are equally inclined
∴ The velocity of piston is 8.98 ms−1 and angular velocity of
to the intermediate shaft and
connecting rod is 15.95 rad s−1.
(ii) the two forks on the intermediate shaft lie in the same Hence, the correct option is (C).
plane.
Hence, the correct option is (B). 25. Torque on crank, T = 50 Nm
23. When N coincides with O, NO is zero → acceleration of pis- Radius of crank, r = 0.1 m
ton is zero → only option (A) or (D) to be considered. When T 50
∴ crank effort, Ft = = = 500 N
N coincides with O, crank has rotated through q = 90°, ⇒ r 0.1
velocity of piston is maximum ⇒ only (D) is correct. If F * is the piston effort, we have
sin (q + f )
Ft = F* ,
Note: If = n is very large, piston executes SHM cos f
r
VMAX = rw at q = 90° and where
a = 0 at q = 90°. f = angle made by connecting rod with piston line of travel
q = angle through which crank has rotated
24. N = 1500 rpm
2pN 2p × 1500 = 90° − 30° = 60°
⇒ Angular velocity, w = =
60 60
Ft cos f
= 50 p ∴ F* =
= 157.08 rad s−1 sin (q + f )
Radius of crank, r = 60 mm = 0.06 m 500 × cos 30°
= = 433.013 N
Length of connecting rod, = 300 mm sin (60° + 30°)
= 0.3 m The normal thrust on wall (normal reaction),
300
∴n= = =5 FN = F* tan f
r 60
= 433.013 × tan 30° = 250 N
q = 60° ⇒ 2q = 120°.
∴ Frictional force, F = μFN
 sin 2q 
We have VP = rw sin q + = 0.08 × 250 = 20 N
 2n 
 sin120° 
= 0.06 × 157.08 sin 60° +
 2 × 5 
Practice Problems 2 Aliter − 1

J = effective number of binary joints
1. No. of links, L = 11
There are 2 quarternary joints (B, G) and 4 ternary joints
No. of lower pairs, P = 7
(A, C, E, F) and 1 binary joint (D)
(A, B, C, D, E, F, G)
∴ J = 1 + 4(3 − 1) + 2(4 − 1) = 1 + 8 + 6 = 15
2P − 4 = 2 × 7 − 4 = 10
3 3
L > 2P − 4 L − 2 = × 11 − 2 = 14.5
2 2
⇒ Locked chain i.e. structure. 3
Hence, the correct option is (C). j > L − 2 ⇒ Locked chain.
2

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3.86 | Part III of
2. No. of links, L = 10 P2 = no. of higher pair joints (dof = 2)

No. of lower pairs, = 2 (Per data)
P = 7(A, B, C, D, E, F, G) F=1
2P − 4 = 2 × 7 − 4 = 10 ⇒ 1 = 3(L − 1) − 2P1 − 2
∴ L = 2P − 4 = 3L − 5 − 2P1
⇒ completely constrained kinematic chain ⇒ 2P1 = 3L − 6
Hence, the correct option is (B). 3L − 6
P1 = -----(Equation 1)
By fixing any one link, it can be converted into a mechanism 2
P1 must be an integer and L must be even (then only P1 will
of degree of freedom,
become an integer)
F = 1. ∴ Lminimum = 4.
Aliter − 1 Hence, the correct option is (B).
There are no quaternary joints 8. There are 11 links → L = 11
No. of ternary joints = 6 (A, B, C, E, F, G) There are 7 binary joints (A, E, F, G, I, J, K)
No. of binary joints = 1(D) There are 4 ternary joints (B, C, D, H)
∴ Effective number of binary joints P1 = effective number of binary joints
J = 1 + 6(3 − 1) = 13 = 7 × 1 + 4 × (3 − 1) = 15
3 3 P2 = higher pair joints = 0
L − 2 = × 10 − 2 = 13
2 2 Degree of freedom F = 3(L − 1) − 2P1 − P2
3 = 3(11 − 1) − 2 × 15 − 0
∴J= L−2
2 = 30 − 30
⇒ completely constrained kinematic chain. =0
Hence, the correct option is (B). F=0
3. The planar system has 3 degrees of freedom (2 translational → This is a statically determinate structure.
and 1 rotational) Hence, the correct option is (A).
9. Inversion (1) → Elliptical trammel; Inversion (2) → Oldham
4. 4 links, 4 turning pairs form 4-bar linkage, which is com- coupling.
pletely constrained Hence, the correct option is (A).
→ P matches with 1 10. e = eccentricity of shafts
3 links, 3 turning pairs form structure → Q matches with 3
= diameter of circle in which centre of disc with tongue
5 links, 5 turning pairs → Incomplete constraint → R matches moves
with 4 = 55 mm
Footstep bearing → successful constraint → S matches with 2.
2pN 2p × 150
Hence, the correct option is (D). w= = = 15.71 rad s−1
60 60
5. All are inversions of single-slider crank chain Vmax = maximum peripheral speed of disc
a → compressor or IC engine i.e. (a) matches with 2
= we
b → Witworth quick return mechanism or Rotating cylinder
engine → i.e. (b) matches with 3 = 15.71 × 0.055 m/s
c → crank and slotted link quick return mechanism or oscil- = 0.864 m/s
lating cylinder engine → i.e. (c) matches with 4 This is the maximum speed of sliding of tongue in groove.
d → Hand pump or pendulum pump → (d) matches with 1. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 11. If w1 is the speed of driver shaft and w2 is the speed of the
6. Hart mechanism is an exact straight line mechanism having driven shaft, q = angle turned by driver shaft, a = angle
only revolute joints → P matches with 3 between axes of driver and driven shafts, then for Hooke’s
Pantograph is a copying mechanism → Q matches with 2 w cos a
joint, 2 =
Whitworth mechanism is a quick return mechanism → R w1 1 − cos 2 q sin 2 a
matches with 1
When w2 = w1, then above equation becomes 1 − cos2q sin2a
Scotch yoke converts rotational motion into SHM → S = cosa
matches with 4
⇒ cos2q sin2a = (1 − cosa)
7. Degree of freedom, F = 1 ⇒ cos2q =
(1 − cos a ) = (1 − cos a )
Using Kutzback criteria for planar mechanism,
sin 2 a (1 − cos 2 a )
F = 3(L − 1) − 2P1 − P2, where 1
=
P1 = no. of lower pair joints (dof = 1) 1 + cosa
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3.7
=
(sin 2 q + cos2 q ) = cos2 q [tan 2 q + 1] 16. Let the length of link AB be x cm. Then, the length of link CD
= (x + 30) cm. Link BC is horizontal.
(1 + cos a ) (1 + cos a )
∴ Velocity of end B of link BC = velocity of end C of link BC
⇒ 1 + cosa = tan2q + 1
VB = VC
⇒ tan2q = cosa
(AB)wAB = (CD)wCD
⇒ tanq = ± cosa .
Hence, the correct option is (C). ⇒ x × 5 = (x + 30) × 2
12. For fig. (i), L = 3, P1 = 2; P2 = 1 ⇒ 5x − 2x = 60

60
(∵ 1 higher pair) ⇒x= = 20 cm
3
⇒ F = 3(L − 1) − 2P1 − P2 ∴ Length of link AB = 20 cm.
= 3(3 − 1) − 2 × 2 − 1 = 1 Hence, the correct option is (B).
For fig. (ii) L = 5, P1 = 4, P2 = 3 17. I12 is at A, I23 is at B, I34 is at infinity, perpendicular to BD.
(∵ 3 higher pairs) Swivel trunnion 4 is rotating about the fixed link 1. Hence, I41
lies at the centre of the swivel trunnion.
F = 3(5 − 1) − 2 × 4 − 3 = 12 − 11 = 1
For fig. (iii), L = 3, P1 = 2, P2 = 1
n ( n − 1) n ( n − 1)
∴ F = 3(3 − 1) − 2 × 2 − 1 = 6 − 5 = 1 18. N = ⇒ 21 =
2 2
For fig. (iv), L = 4, P1 = 3, P2 = 1
⇒ 42 = n2 − n ⇒ n2 − n − 42 = 0
∴ F = 3(4 − 1) − 2 × 3 − 1 = 9 − 6 − 1 = 2
∴ (n + 6) (n − 7) = 0
For the mechanism in Fig. (iv) only,
⇒ n = −6 (not possible) or n = 7 (Possible)
DOF = 2
∴ Number of links is 7.
Note: Figure 4 shows an epi-cyclic gear train, which has degree
of freedom equal to 2. All other gear trains (simple gear train 2pN 2p × 120
19. w = = = 4p rads −1
and compound gear trains) have degree of freedom equal to 1. 60 60
13. Lower kinematic pairs have surface contact. They can be acoriolis = 2Vw
revolute, prismatic (sliding) or helical, which have 1 degree = 2 × 20 × 4p = 160 p cm/s2.
of freedom. They can also be cylindrical, (dof = 2), spherical
(dof = 3) or planar (dof = 3). Hence, statement 1 is wrong. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Ball and socket joints have surface contact and hence they 20. VQ = (TQ)wQR
are not higher pairs → statement 2 is wrong. Scott − Russel ⇒ 0.75 = (0.25)wQR
mechanism is an exact straight line mechanism and it has 3 0.75
revolute pairs and one sliding pair → statement 3 is correct. ⇒ wQR = = 3 rad s−1
0.25
VR = (TR)wQR = 0.1 × 3 = 0.3 ms−1
14. In pure rolling, the I-centre lies at the point of contact at any
given instant. ∴ Velocity of point R is 0.3 ms−1
In pure sliding, the I-centre lies at infinity in a direction per- Hence, the correct option is (A).
pendicular to the path of motion of slider. As per Kennedy’s 21. Links 3 and 4 form sliding pair, so I34 is at ∞, perpendicular
three centre’s in line theorem, when there is both rolling and to BE → (1) is true.
sliding motion, the I-centre lies in between the point of contact Links 4 and 5 form revolute pair, so I45 is at C → (4) is true,
and infinity along a direction normal to the point of contact. (2) is false
Hence, the correct option is (B). Links 1 and 7 form sliding pair, so I71 is at infinity, perpen-
15. Acceleration of centre of mass, aCM = ra exists for all points. dicular to surface on which link 7 slides
At the point of contact, the tangential acceleration aT = ra ∴ Statements 1 and 4 are correct.
cancels this, leaving only the centripetal acceleration for the
point of contact. Hence, the correct option is (B).
ac = rw2 22. VF = (GF)w = 50 × 2 = 100 mm/s
VF = VD (∵ FD is a rigid horizontal link)
VD 100 mm /s
∴wED = = = 2 rads −1
ED 50 mm
O aCM = rα
aC = r ω 2 ∴VC = wED × EC = 2 × (ED + DC)
= 2 × 100 = 200 mm/s
aT = rα P aCM = rα VB = VC (∵ BC is a rigid horizontal link)
Hence, the correct option is (D) ∴ VB = 200 mm/s

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3.88 | Part III of
B rotates about hinge A. Hence, B has centripetal acceleration. 29. Relative tangential acceleration of S with respect to R, aSR
t
=
VB 2 (200) 2 ( )
ast − − aRt [∵ they are in opposite directions]
∴ aB = = = 400 mm/s2 = 300 − (−150)
AB 100
= 450 mm/s2
∴ Velocity and acceleration of point B are 200 mm/s and 400
mm/s2 respectively. Angular acceleration of RS, [SR = 90 mm]
at 450
Hence, the correct option is (C). aRS = =
SR
= 5 rad s−2.
w SR 90
23. cot f − cot q = is the condition for correct steering.Hence, Hence, the correct option is (A).
L
the correct option is (B). 30. Force = mass of reciprocating parts ×
24. Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false because Ackermann acceleration of reciprocating parts
steering gear fulfills the fundamental equation for cor-
rect steering for only three positions. Statement 3 is true.  cos 2q 
= m × rw 2 cos q + ,
Statement 4 is false because Davis steering gear has slid-  n 
ing parts and hence not an inversion of Quadric cycle chain where
(4-bar linkage which has only revolute pairs). Because of r = crank radius = 0.05 m
sliding parts, there is more wear in Davis steering gear and it
becomes inaccurate after some time → statement 5 is false. 2pN 2p × 900
w= = = 94.25 rad s−1
Hence, correct statements are 1 and 3 only. 60 60
Hence, the correct option is (D). q = angular displacement of crank from
25. ΔOCD represents the velocity triangle of slider-crank mecha- IDC
nism, rotated through 90° in a direction opposite to the direc- 200
tion of rotation of crank. n= = =4
r 50
∴ OC represents velocity of crank pin Fmax = mamax (amax occurs at q = 0°)
∴ OD represents velocity of piston
 1
CD represents velocity of piston with respect to crank pin. = mrw 2 1 + 
Hence, the correct option is (C).  n
 1
= 1.2 × 0.05 × (94.25)2 1 +  = 666 N.
Note: Angular velocity of connecting rod will be obtained by  4
dividing CD with the length of connecting rod.
26. acoriolis = 2 (w × v )
→ → →
r
→
acoriolis exists for Fig(i) 31. n = = =1
r r
→
For Fig(ii), w = zero for link OR as link PQ ⊥ to link OR ⇒  
n2 − 1
No Coriolis acceleration for figure (ii) ac = −w2sinq  
→  ( n2 − sin 2 q ) 2 
3
For Fig(iii), slider is at instantaneous rest. i.e. V = zero  
→
⇒ acoriolis does not exist when n = 1, ac = 0 for all values of q
→ Hence, the correct option is (D).
∴ acoriolis exists only for fig(i).
Hence, the correct option is (A). Aliter
27. P matches with 3 w cos q w cos q
wc = = (∵ n = 1)
Q matches with 4 n2 − sin 2 q 1 − sin 2 q
R matches with 1 (Kutzback criterion) w cos q
= = w = constant
S matches with 2 cos q
dw c
w ∴ ac = = 0 (∵ w is constant)
28. cotf − cotq = for correct steering dt
L
Given f = 30°, w = 140 cm and L = 280 cm 32. Velocity of A, VA = (OA)w = (100 mm)w
 w VA makes an angle of 90° with OA, hence it makes an angle of
∴ cot q = cot f −   (150° − 90°) = 60° with link AB.
 L
 140  Component of velocity of A along link AB
= cot 30° − 
 280  = VA cos60°
= 1.732 − 0.5 1
= (100)w × = 50 w
= 1.232 2
∴ q = cot−1 1.232. This is equal to the component of velocity of B along AB
Hence, the correct option is (C). = VB = (∵ CB is ⊥ to AB)
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3.9
∴ 50 w = VB = (CB) wCB Connecting rod has centripetal acceleration and tangential

= (200)wCB acceleration. So the acceleration of connecting rod is at an
angle with the connecting rod
50w w → inertial force of connecting rod acts at an angle with con-
∴ wCB = =
200 4 necting rod (i.e. FW)
If ti is the input torque, input power, → R matches with 2.
Pi = tiw Hence, the correct option is (C).
If t0 is the output torque, output power, 36. Mass of connecting rod, m = 0.5 kg
w
Po = t0 The total mass of 2 mass system also
4
must be equal to 0.5 kg
P0
= h = 0.7 Angular acceleration, a = 2 × 104 rad s−2
Pi
k = radius of gyration through CG of
w
⇒ t0 = 0.7t iw connecting rod = 5 cm = 0.05 m
4
∴ Inertial torque of connecting rod
to w × 0.7 Ti = Ia = mk2a
⇒ = = 2.8
ti w k1 = Radius of gyration of 2 mass system
 
4
= 6 cm = 0.06 m
t0
But = mechanical advantage Tr = Torque due to 2 − mass system
ti
= I1 a
∴ Mechanical advantage = 2.8.
= mk12 a > Ti
Hence, a correction couple is needed
t0
33. M.A = = 2.8 For equilibrium, TC + Ti = TR
ti
⇒ TC = (TR − Ti)
⇒ t0 = 2.8 ti = mk12a − mk2a
= 2.8 × 210 = 588 Nm
⇒ TC = m(k12 − k2)a
∴ TC = 0.5 [0.062 − 0.052] × 2 × 104 Nm
 sin 2q  = 11 Nm.
34. VP = wr sin q +
 n  Hence, the correct option is (A).
→ P matches with 4 37. uniform rotation → no angular acceleration
dVP  cos 2q  uniform rotation → radial acceleration exists
aP = = rw 2 cos q +
dt  n  Piston sliding inside rotating cylinder
→ Q matches with 2 → Coriolis acceleration exists
w cos q Hence, the correct option is (A).
wc = ; when q is small, sin2q is negligible
n2 − sin 2 q 38. P is the instantaneous centre and velocity
of P = zero
w cos q
⇒ wc = → R matches with 1 Let (x, y) be the co-ordinates of A, considering origin (0, 0) at
n
point P.
 n2 − 1 
Similarly ac = −w2sinq   3
∴ x = R cos 30° = R
 [ n2 − sin 2 q ] 2 
3
2
 
3R
−w 2 sin q y = R + R sin 30° =
= , when n > >1 2
n
d = distance PA = x2 + y2
→ S matches with 3.
Hence, the correct option is (C). 3 2 9 2
= R + R
35. Piston side thrust is normal to line of travel of piston, which 4 4
is FQ as per figure → P matches with 4.
12 2
Inertia force of reciprocating mass acts along the line of = R = 3R
4
travel of piston, which is FR as per figure → Q matches with 1
Crank effort is normal to crank, which is FC as per figure → S VA = (PA)w = 3Rw , perpendicular to PA in clockwise sense.
matches with 3 Hence, the correct option is (B).

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3.90
3.10 | Theory ofUnit 3
| Part III • Machine, Vibrations
• Theory and Design
of Machine, Vibrations and Design
39. A link need not be a rigid body but must be a resistant body.  b  r 120
Fluids can transmit compressive force, forming fluid links. cos   = = = 0.4
 2  d 300
b
40. ⇒ = cos −1 (0.4 ) = 66.42°
2
360° − 2 × 66.42° 227.16°
∴QRR = = = 1.71
α
(2 × 66.42°) 132.84
r wmax for slotted lever occurs during return stroke, when slider
β is in between the two hinges on the same vertical line.
rw
d ∴ rw = (d − r)wmax ⇒ wmax =
(d − r )
120 × 10
∴ wmax = = 6.67 rad s−1
(300 − 120)
QRR =
(a w ) = a = (360° − b ) Hence, the correct option is (C).
b  b b
 w
Previous Years’ Questions For I24

24 → 21 + 14
Velocity of driver
1. Mechanical advantage = 24 → 23 + 34
Velocity of driven
I21 = ∞ and I14 = ∞
1 2
At the given toggle position, the driven link (slider) starts to

slide in negative x direction. At that moment the velocity of
slider is zero.
4 3
V
∴ Mechanical advantage = = ∞
0 Intersection point of (I21 + I14) line and (I23 + I34) line meets at
Hence, the correct option is (D). N. Hence, I24 is at N.
2. Sliding velocity of link 1 wrt link 2 is Hence, the correct option is (C).
Vsliding = 12 m/s 4. Scott-Russell mechanism – Straight line motion.
 2p N 
Angular velocity of link 2, w =   rad s
−1
Geneva mechanism – Intermittent motion
 60 
Off-set slider crank mechanism – Quick return motion
2 p ×120
= = 4 p rad s−1 Scotch yoke mechanism – Simple Harmonic motion.Hence,
60
Coriolis acceleration = 2 × Vsliding × w the correct option is (C).
= 2 × 12 × 4p 5. Revolute – Five
= 301.6 m/s 2 Cylinder – Four
~ 302 m/s2 Spherical – Three

3. ∞ 6. Length of link AB = 240 2 + 100 2
I23
2 = 260 mm
1 ∞
N Shortest link is O2A = 60 mm
3 (l
O2 A )(
+ l AB < lO B + lO O
4 2 4
) {Grashoff’s law}
The mechanism satisfied the Grashoff’s law and adjacent link
90° 4 of shortest link is fixed. Therefore it will act as crank-rocker
I34 mechanism.
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3.91
7. For rotation of 360o by any link, there should be continuous

B relative motion.
260 mm
(S + L) ≤ P + Q
A 22.62° Hence, the correct option is (A).
160 mm
13. When ∠O4 O2 P = 180o
60 mm
ω I43 2
1
O2 O4
240 mm 3 4
Velocity diagram
a a
67.38° O2a I23 2 I14 or I13 4 3
I12 1
I12, I23
b, a O2, O4 I13
O4a
I14, I43
w3(I13 I23) = w2(I23 I12)

From Velocity diagram, ⇒ w3(2a) = 2(a)
VAO = VBO ⇒ w3 = 1 rad s−1
2 4
⇒ (w O A × AO4) = (w O B × BO4) Hence, the correct option is (C).

2 4
14. R
⇒ (8 × 60) = w O B Forward stoke Return stoke
4
⇒ w O B = 3 rad s −1
4
O
8. Joint reaction at O2 at the same instant cannot be determined
from the given data.
β
Hence, the correct option is (D). O
9. Toggle position of 4-bar linkage occurs when output link RS
is in extreme position and its velocity becomes zero. α/2 α/2
R S
Q
ω RS 30°
ω PQ
P S
PQ is driver and RS is driven. P
At the time of toggle position, wRS = 0 Time during forward stroke

Quick return ratio =
Time for return stroke
Driver velocity
Mechanical advantage = 360 − a
Driven velocity ⇒ =2
w a
= =∞ a
0 ∴ = 60
2
In ΔOSP
10. Number of inversions = Number of link ∠OSP = 90o (Extreme condition)
Slider crank mechanism has 4 links. ∠OPS = 30o
∴ Number of inversions = 4 OS OS
∴sin 30 = =
Hence, the correct option is (C). OP 500
11. Higher kinematic pair − Line contact ⇒ OS = 500 × Sin 30o
Lower kinematic pair – Surface contact = 250 mm
Quick return mechanism – Shaper
15. Maximum speed during forward stroke occurs when
Mobility of a linkage – Grubler’s equation
RQ ⊥ QP.
∴ V = 250 × 2 = 750 × wPQ
12. According to Grashof law, in a 4-bar linkage, the summation
of shortest and longest link should not be greater than the sum- 500 2
wPQ = =
mation of other two links for the continuous relative motion 750 3
between the links in mechanism. Hence, the correct option is (B).

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3.92
16. Number of links, L = 8 21. Grashof’s rule states that for a planar 4-bar mechanism, the
Number of rotary joints, J = 10 sum of shortest and longest link lengths should always be less
than or equal to the summation of remaining two link lengths,
Degree of freedom, F = 3(L – 1) – 2J – h
for the continuous relative motion between the links in the
F = 3(8 – 1) – (2 × 10) – 0 mechanism
F=1 p+q≥s+L
17. Q
22. D B on slider
P Q E on link CD
(assume)
O1 O1
α
2 P
60°
A C
O2 O2 AB = 250
BC = 250 3
AC = 500
Given : Forward to return ratio = 2 : 1
250 3 500
O1P = 125 mm =
sin 60 sin( ∠ABC )
Time of forward stroke 360 − a 2
= = ∴∠ABC = 90°
Time of return stroke a 1
Velocity Diagram
a

∴ = 60 VEB = be = ba = VBA
2
Let us consider extreme position of the crank (O, P) as shown VEB = relative sliding velocity of slider wrt link CD
in figure
b
∠O1 O2 P = 180 – (90 + 60) = 30°
ba
O1P
Sin 30° =
O1O2
be
125
∴ O1 O2 = d = = 250 mm
sin 30 a, c, e
19. Indeterminate structure is also known as super structure ∴ VEB = VBA = w × BA = (10 × 0.25) m/s = 2.5 m/s
which is made for more strength. Therefore mobility or Hence, the correct option is (D).
degree of freedom for statically indeterminate structure is 23. F = 3(L – 1) – 2 j – h
always less than zero
= 3(5 – 1) – 2(5) – 1 = 1
i.e. degree of freedom (F) < 0
or F should be negative
24. wAB = 1 rad s−1
∴From option, (A) is the only negative F ≤ –1
wAB rAB = WDC rDC
1 × rAB 2
20. wDC = = rad s −1
1.5 rDC 3
Q
Planar rigid VQ Hence, the correct option is (D).
body
25.
P VQ
VP
Q
Relative velocity = VPQ = VP − VQ {⊥ to PQ} therefore relative
R
velocity of two points P and Q should always be perpendicu- 25
lar to PQ P 45 s 5O
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3.93
V2 = w × SR ∴ IP = sin 65
IQ sin 70
PQ = 50 − 25 = 43.3 mm
2 2
sin 65
5 5 ∴ VP = = 0.964.
SR = PQ × = 43.3 × = 4.33 mm sin 70
50 50 Hence, the correct option is (D).
∴ VQ = 1 × 4.33 = 4.33 mm/s 0.2
30. m = 10 kg, r = = 0.1 m
VQ 4.33 2
wPQ = = = 0.1 rad s−1 w = 10 rad s−1
PQ 43.3
Revolving mass B = 6 kg
Radial distance of revolving mass b = 0.1 m
26. q = 30°
R
2.5 Unbalanced force normal to the slider axis
S = B w2b sinq = 6 × 102 × 0.1 × sin30 = 30 N
Hence, the correct answer is 29 to 31.
3
2.7
31. 40
20 10 mm
P Q θ θ
2
When ‘RS’ i.e. the link opposite to the shortest link is fixed,
the link adjacent to the fixed link will oscillate.Hence, the The slider will be at the extreme position when crank and
correct option is (C). connecting rod are in a line as shown
27. 10
sinq = = 0.1667
(20 + 40)
V
⇒ q = 9.594 ⇒ 2q = 19.19°
r 180 + 2q 180 + 19.19
QRR = = = 1.238
180 − 2q 180 − 19.19
I
32. By Grashoff’s law, if the sum of shortest and largest links are
Circular object of radius ‘r’ rolling without slipping has the less than or equal to the sum of the remaining two links there
point of contact between the object and the floor as instantane- can be continuous relative motion between two links
ous centre. The two points of contact on the two bodies have i.e., S + L ≤ P + Q
the same linear velocity and thus there is no relative motion. 20 + 60 < 50 + 40
Hence, the velocity is zero. Hence, the correct option is (A).
80 < 90
28. Hence, the correct option is (D).
As the smallest link is fixed, both links can execute full circu-
29. I lar motion.
VQ = 1 m/s
45° 33.
60° 90° 240°
45° 45° ω θ
65°
Q
w = 10 rad s−1
70° r = 60 mm
L = 240 mm
20°
VP P l 240
n= = =4
r 60
Refer to the figure 240
sin q = = 0.97
I is the instantaneous centre 240 2 + 60 2
Angular velocities wQI = wPI sin 2q = 0.47
VQ VP velocity of slider
∴ =
IQ IP  sin 2q 
V = wr sin q + 
IP IP  2 × n2 − sin 2 q 
VP = VQ × =1×
IQ IQ  0.47 
= 10 × 0.06 0.97 + = 0.618 m/s
2 
IP IQ  2 4 2
− 0 . 97 
From the triangle PQI, =
sin 65 sin 70 Hence, the correct answer is 0.54 to 0.68.

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3.94
34. Q ⇒ (a)maximum = 0.3 × 142 × 2

V
⇒ (a)maximum = 117.6 m/s2
r
P V = 10 m/s 37. Solution: The magnitude of coriolis component of
r acceleration = 2vw = 2w2.VQ/p
Direction of the coriolis component of acceleration is
derived by rotating the linear velocity vector by 90° in
I
the sense of the angular velocity. Direction of angular
I is the instantaneous center and about I, the wheel is velocity is clockwise, by rotating the linear velocity vec-
rolling without slipping. tor VQ/p in the clockwise sense by 90° the direction of
10 coriolis acceleration is obtained.
VP = wr ⇒ 10 = wr ⇒ w =
r Hence, the correct option is (A).
10 38. Solution: Let O2 B = rB and O2 A = rA
Velocity of Q, VQ = w(2r) = × 2r
r Now VA = w2 rA
⇒ VQ = 20 m/s
VA V
Hence, the correct answer is 20. ⇒ w2 = and VB = w2rB ⇒ w2 = B
rA rB
35. To define the position of any gear or arm in the system
of planetary gears completely the rotation of one gear
and the arm are required. ω2
∴ The degree of freedom = 2
A B
Hence, the correct option is (C). O2
36.
r l
ω VA VB 80 140
∴ = ⇒ = ⇒ 80 rB – 140 rA = 0 (1)
rA rB rA rB
rB – rA = 300 mm (2) [Given]
l From equation (1) and (2) we get rB = 700 mm
w = 14 rad/s, r = 0.3 m = l, n = =1 ⇒ Diameter of the wheel, D = 2 rB = 2 × 700
r
Acceleration of the piston, ∴ D = 1400 mm
 cos 2θ  Hence, the correct answer is 1390 to 1410.
a = rω 2 cos θ +
 n  39. No. of links = 6 (n)
da No. of binary joints = 7 (P)
for maximum acceleration, = 0.
dθ Degrees of freedom = 3(n – 1) – 2P
2 sin 2θ =3×5–2×7=1
∴ − sin θ − =0
n Hence, the correct option is (C).
⇒ sin θ + 2 sin θ cos θ = 0 20
40. wP = v/R = = 0.2 rad/s
⇒ sin θ[1 + 2(cos)θ] = 0 100
∴ When sin θ = 0, θ = 0° and w = 100 rad/s
1 I = 10 kg-m2
1 + 2cos θ = 0, θ = cos-1  
2 TC = Iw wP
∴ Acceleration will be maximum when θ = 0° = 10 × 100 × 0.2
 cos 0°  = 200 Nm
∴ (a)maximum = 0.3 × 14 2 × cos 0° +
 n 
Unit 03.indd
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3.95
41. 445.
6. I24
I14
Fconnecting rod m m1
θ
A e1
800 mm e
200 mm
N = 600 rpm 3m 4m
90º
B
A θ
5 kN(F) O
b5 m a
Given r = 200 mm e1 I12 I34
L = 800 mm Applying Kennedy theorem, m

F = 5 kN ω2 × ( I 24 Ia12 ) = VA = 1
m1
F 1
Turning moment on crank = sin (90 + θ) r ω2 e×=( 50 I12 ) =e 1= 20 mm, b = 0.3 m, a = 2 m,
I 24mm,
cos θ Given m = 1 kg, 1
F cos θ a1 = 2.5 m, m1 = ? 1 1
(r) = ω2 = =
cos θ For dynamic balance,I 24 I12couple
OB on θ plane should be
tan any
zero. 1
= Fr; = 5 × 103 × 0.2 = = 0.266 rad/S
MA = 0 3
= 1000 N.m 5×
⇒ meb + m1 e1 a1 = m4(a + b) e
≈ 1 kNm
Hence,
⇒ m1 e1the = mea answer is 0.26 to 0.29.
a1 correct
1 × 50 × 2
42. The correct answer is 0.95 to 1.05. 47. Given: = 2 = 100 mm
m1 = length of crank
43. VQP will have one component perpendicular to PQ. 20 × 2. 5
Length of connecting rod = 160 mm
Hence, the correct option is (D). By
m1 =applying
2 kg angular velocity theorem
44. D.O.F = 3(n – 1) – 2j.
Chapter 1 • Kinematics and Dynamics of Mechanisms | 3.95 ( I I is) 2.
Hence, the correctωanswer =V 2 24 12 c
Hence, the correct option is (B). I23
B I14 at ∞
45.
m m1 3
2
v2
A 4
e1 I12
e
I34
1 1
For I 24
A
5 kN(F) a 1 2
b
e1
m
4 3
m1
a1 So, I 24 will be the intersection point of lines I12 I14
in (90 + θ) r
Given m = 1 kg, e = 50 mm, e1 = 20 mm, b = 0.3 m, a = 2 m, and I 23 I 34 . So, it will lie at I 23
a1 = 2.5 m, m1 = ?
(r) ∴ ω2 ( I 24 I12 ) = Vc
For dynamic balance, couple on any plane should be
zero. ⇒ ω2 ( I 23 I12 ) = Vc
5 × 103 × 0.2
MA = 0
.m ⇒ 10 (0.1) = Vc
⇒ meb + m1 e1 a1 = m (a + b) e
⇒ Vc = 1.0 m/s
⇒ m1 e1 a1 = mea
1 × 50 × 2
m1 = =2 48. As point P is sliding on a link, which is rotating about
ndicular to PQ. 20 × 2.5
point O, so, coriolis acceleration component will be
m1 = 2 kg present. Secondly, centipital acceleration will also act
Hence, the correct answer is 2. on point P so,

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acp 50. Let the length of the ladder is l
P
aR
P
a
l
G
aPcp
coriolis acc component acp ( )

acp = 2v ω = 2 × 6 × 2 = 240 m/s mg
and centripetal acceleration acp ( ) Let α = α(t ); At t = 0, α = θ

l
acp Velocity of centre of mass (G ) = VG = α

p = r ω = 0.1 × 20 = 40 m/s
2 2
2
so, net acceleration on point P Total kinetic energy of rod at angle a is
2
( ) ( ) 1 1 1 ⎛l ⎞ 1
2 2
a Rp = acp + acp T= mVG2 + I G α
2 = m ⎜ α⎟ + ml 2 α
2
p
2 2 2 ⎝2 ⎠ 24
= 240 2 + 40 2 1
= ml 2 α
2
= 243.310 m/s2 6
Hence, the correct answer is 243 to 244. As energy is conserved = K.E + P.E = Total initial
energy.
49. It is clear figure that all masses are in same plane. To
find reaction at bearing ‘B’ first find net force. 1 2 2 l l
⇒ ml α
+ mg cos α = mg cos θ
6 2 2
FR = ∑ Fx2 + ∑ Fy2 3g
from which α
=
2
(cos θ − cos α)
where, l
∑ Fx = ∑ mr ω2 cos θ where, q -initial angle with vertical

By differentiating with respect to t,
∑ Fy = ∑ mr ω2 sin θ 3g 3g
2 αα
= sin α ⋅ α α=
⇒ sin α
Finding ∑ Fx − l 2l
by putting value
∑ Fx = m1r1ω 2 cos 0° − m2 r2ω 2 cos 60° − m3r3ω 2 cos 60° 3 × 10 sin 45o
α=
= 7.5 rad/s 2
⎡ ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ ⎤ 2× 2
= ⎢(10 × 0.1) − ⎜ 5 × 0.2 × ⎟ − ⎜ 2.5 × 0.4 × ⎟ ⎥ ω 2
⎣ ⎝ 2⎠ ⎝ 2⎠ ⎦ Hence, the correct answer is 7.5 to 7.75.
=0
51. B
∑ y = 0 + m2 r2 ω2 sin 60° − m3r3 ω2 sin 60°
F p = 200 mm
⎡⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞⎤ A
= ⎢⎜ 5 × 0.2 × 3 ⎟ − ⎜ 2.5 × 4 × 3 ⎟ ⎥ ω2 = 0 q = 300 mm
⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦
∴ FR = 0 2 + 0 2 = 0 s = 100 mm
As resulted force is zero, there will not be any reaction D C

at bearing ‘B’ = 350 mm
Hence, the correct answer is 0. s = 100 mm, p = 200 mm
Unit 03.indd 16 4/27/2019 10:57:13 AM

l = 350 mm, q = 300 mm Point ‘Q’ becomes the centre of rotation as it is hinged
s + l < p + q (Grashof’s law) 16 4
tanq = =
100 + 450 < 200 + 300 12 3
450 < 500 q = 53.13°, a = 36.86°
aRP = rw2 = Centripetal acceleration
Hence, Grashof’s law is satisfied. The link adjacent to
fixed link (s = 100 mm) is a crank which can rotate 10 = 20w2 ⇒ w2 = 0.5
fully. aR = (QR) w2 = 16 × 0.5
Hence, the correct answer is 1. aR = 8 m/s2
52. Ft
Angle = 180 + a = 180 + 36.86
= 217°
(θ + β )
aR = 8∠217°
FcR Hence, the correct option is (D).
45° β 54.
40 N = F
Q I
l = 70 mm
r = 30 mm
V
q = 45°
r sinq = lsinb
U = 5 m/s
sin 45°× 30
= 45°
70 P
tanb = 0.303, b = 16.8° I = Instantaneous centre

V = IQ × w
FCR cosb = F, Ft = FCR sin (q + b)
U = IP × w
Torque = Ft × r
V IQ L cos 45°
= =
=
F
sin(θ + β ) × r U IP L sin 45°

cos β V = U = 5 m/s
= sin( 45 + 16.85) ×
cos 16.85 1000
55. During constant acceleration motion,
0.8817 × 30 × 40
Torque = 1 2
0.957 × 1000 S = ut + at
2
T = 1.10 N-m. 1 2
S = at
Hence, the correct answer is 1.10. 2
53. 2S
ap a =
t2
θ h
20 where S = ,
2
12 q = wt
180°
α δ
= ωt
16 10 2
θ m/
s2 δ
t =
aR 2ω
Unit 03.indd 17 4/27/2019 10:57:16 AM

⎛h⎞ 4 hωθ
2⎜ ⎟ U =
⎝2⎠ δ2
a = 2
⎛ δ ⎞ q = 0, U = 0
⎜ 2ω ⎟
⎝ ⎠
δ 4 hω δ
4 hω 2 q= , U = Umax = 2 ×
a = 2 δ 2
δ2
When the acceleration is constant, the velocity is linear. Umax = 2hω
δ
ds
U = = at Hence, the correct option is (C).
dt
4 hω 2 θ
U = ×
δ2 ω
Unit 03.indd 18 4/27/2019 10:57:19 AM Chap

CHapter 2 FlywHeels and Gear trains

Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 5. d = 30 mm
t = 15 mm
1 2
1. Kinetic energy = Iw Number of holes = 30/min
2
Energy required = 6 J/mm2
1 p 2 mr 2
= × × × N2 Punching time/hole = 0.2 s
2 900 2
N1= 160 rpm
1 p 2 25 × ( 0.25)
2
= × × × 900 2 N2 = 140 rpm

2 900 2
k=1m
= 3469.78 J
2. I = 15 kg m2 E1 = Energy required to punch a hole
N1 − N2 = 30 rpm = 6 × shear area in mm2
= 6 × p dt = 6 × p × 30 × 15
Δ E = 2467 J
= 8482.3 J
Δ E = I w (w1 − w2)
P = Power of the motor = Number of holes/s ×
p2
= × I × N ( N1 − N 2 ) energy/ hole
900
30
p2 = × 8482.3 J/s
⇒ 2467 = × 15 × N × 30 60
900
⇒ N = 500 rpm. = 4241.15 J/s
Hence, the correct option is (B). E2 = Energy supplied by the motor during punching = Pt
3. w1 = 250 rad/s = 4241.15 × 0.2 = 848.23 J
w2 = 240 rad/s Hence, maximum fluctuation of energy
Δ E = 420 J Δ E = E1 − E2
1 = 8482.3 − 848.23
Δ E = I (w12 − w 2 2 )
2 = 7634.07 J
1 N1 + N 2
i.e., 420 = I ( 250 2 − 240 2 ) Mean speed =
2 2
⇒ I = 0.1714 kg m2. 160 + 140
=
4. N = 250 rpm = 150 rpm
power = 80 Kw Now,
p2
Number of working strokes/s ΔE= mk 2 N ( N1 − N 2 ) i.e.
900
N 250 500
= ×2 = ×2 = p2
60 60 60 7634.07 = × m × 12 × 150 (160 − 140 )
900
time ( s )
Work done per stroke = Power × ⇒ m = 232 kg.
stroke
60
= 80000 × = 9600 J 6. Total number of gear is 7 = odd number, all having external
500
meshing
(∵ there are 2 strokes per revolution)
⇒ driver and driven will rotate in same sense i.e. driven
1 rotates clockwise (CW).
Δ E = 9600 ×
= 3200 J
DA + DB
Coefficient of fluctuation of speed 7. d = distance between centres =
Cs = 0.01 × 2 2
⇒ 115 × 2 = DA + DB
= 0.02
⇒ DA + DB = 230 mm → (1)
Δ E = I w2Cs
DA = 46 mm (given)
p2 2
= mk 2 N Cs ∴ Pitch circle diameter of B, DB = 230 − 46
900
= 184 mm
p2
∴ 3200 = m × 0.62 × × 250 2 × 0.02 DA 46
900 TA = No. of teeth on A = = = 23
m = 648.46 kg m 2
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13:00:17
3.20 | Theory of Machine, Vibrations and Design Chapter 2 • Flywheels and Gear Trains | 3.97
DB 184 i.e. T1 + T2 = 48p → (1)

TB = No. of teeth on B = = = 92
m 2
360 T
1 speed ratio = = 3 = 2 ⇒ T2 = 3T1
∴ Train value = 120 T1
speed ratio
1 ∴ (1) ⇒ T1 + 3T1 = 48p
=
 No. of teeth on driven  48p
  ⇒ T1 = = 12
=p 37.7
 No. of teeth on driver  4
No. of teeth on A = 38 (no. of teeth is an integer)
=
No. of teeth of B
∴ T2 = 3T1 = 3 × 38 = 114
23 1
= = .
92 4 38 × 25
D1 = = 302.39 mm
Hence, the correct option is (C). p
pD 114 × 25
8. Circular pitch P = , D2 = = 907.18 mm
T p
where D = pcd and T = no. of teeth
D1 + D2
T1P T2 P ∴ Exact centre distance =
∴ D1 = and D2 = 2
p p
302.39 + 907.18
D1 + D2 =
= 600 (approximate centre distance) 2
2
p = 604.79 mm
(T + T ) = 600
2p 1 2 ∴ (i) No. of teeth on driver, T1 = 38
P = 25 mm (given) (ii) No. of teeth on driven, T2 = 114
(iii) Pitch circle diameter of driver, D1 = 302.39 mm
600 × 2p 600 × 2p
⇒ T1 + T2 = = = 48p (iv) Exact centre distance between shafts = 604.79 mm.
p 25
9.
Revolution of elements
Sl. No. Operation
Planet carrier C Sun wheel S Planet wheel P Internal gear E
TS TS TP −TS
1. Carrier C is fixed and sun wheel S is given +1 0 +1 − − × =
TP TP TE TE
rotation (CCW)
2. Carrier C is fixed and sun wheel S is given +x 0 +x TS x TS x

− −
rotation (CCW) TP TE
3. +y rotation (CCW) is given to all +y +y +y +y
4. Resultant motion (sum of rows 2 and 3) +y x+y TS x TS x

− +y − =y
TP TE
1 x+ y Pitch circle radius of E = Pitch circle radius of S + pitch circle

Given Nc = N ⇒y=
4 s 4 diameter of P
⇒ 3y = x → (1) DE DS
Tx ⇒ = + DP
Also given NE = 0 ⇒ − S + y = 0 → (2) 2 2
TE
mTE mTS
3TS y ⇒ = + mTP
i.e. − + y = 0 (∵3y = x ) 2 2
TE (∵ D = mT, where m = module, same for S, P and E)
3TS TS 1 ∴ TE = TS + 2TP
⇒− +1 = 0 ⇒ = T − TS 54 − 18
TE TE 3 ⇒ TP = E = = 18.
Assume minimum number of teeth on TS = 18 (data) 2 2
∴ TE = 3TS = 3 × 18 = 54 Hence, the correct option is (D).
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3.98 | Part III • Unit 3 • Theory of Machine, Vibrations and Design Hints/Solutions | 3.21
10. Mi = Input torque = 80 N m 13. m1 = 1 mm (for meshing gears 1 and 2)

Mr = resisting torque on driven wheel m2 = 1.5 mm (for meshing gears 3 and 4)
(i.e. on planet carrier C) m3 = 2.0 mm (for meshing gears 5 and 6)
Mr wr = −Miwi (−, because wi and wr are in opposite directions) ∴ d = distance between shaft 1 and shaft 6
M iw i  2pN s 2pN c  = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4 + R5 + R6
∴ Mr = − ∵w i = and wr = 
wr  60 60  D1 + D2 D3 + D4 D5 + D6
= + +
 2pN s  2 2 2
−M i  
 60  m1 (T1 + T2 ) + m2 (T3 + T4 ) + m3 (T5 + T6 )
= =
 2pN c  2
 
 60  1( 25 + 60 ) + 1.5 ( 39 + 100 ) + 2 ( 20 + 65)
=
N   Ns  2
= Mi  s  ∵ = 4 per data 
N   85 + 208.5 + 170 463.5
 c  Nc  = =
= Mi 4 2 2
= 231.75 mm.
= −80 × 4 = −320 N m
If Mh is the holding torque on gear E,
Mi + Mr + Mh = 0 (condition for equilibrium) 14. For reverted gear train, the axes of gear 1 and gear 4 coincide;
∴ Mh = −Mi − Mr gears 2 and 3 are mounted on same shaft.
= −80 − (−320) = 240 N m ∴ d = distance between axes

∴ Holding torque on internal gear  D + D2   D4 − D3 
= 1 = 
E = 240 N m.  2   2 
Hence, the correct option is (B). m (T1 + T2 ) m (T4 − T3 )
= =
N5 N5 N3 2 2
11. = × (∵ N3 = N4 as they are on same shaft) ⇒ T1 + T2 = T4 − T3
N2 N4 N2
T4 −T2 ⇒ T1 = T4 − T3 − T2
=− ×
T5 T3 = 98 − (22 + 57)
15 20 = 19
=+ × Hence number of teeth on gear 1 = 19.
30 40
=+
4 N4 N4 N2
15. We have = × (∵ N3 = N2)
1200 CCW
N2 N1 N3 N1
∴ N5 = + =
4 4
T3 T1
= 300 rpm, CCW =+ ×−
T4 T2
 N4 T 
N6 N6 N4 N2 ∵ = + 3 due to internal mesh 
12.
N1
=
N5
×
N3
×
N1
(∵N 5
= N 4 and N3 = N2)  N 3
T4


T5 T3 T1  N2 T 
=− ×− ×−  = + 1 due to internal mesh 

T6 T4 T2  N1 T2 
−T5 × T3 × T1 T3 × T1 22 × 19 −11
= =− =− =
T6 × T4 × T2 T4 × T2 98 × 57 147
11 N1 11
20 × 39 × 25 1 ∴N4 = − =− × 735 rpm CW
=− =− 147 147
65 × 100 × 60 20
N1
= −55 rpm CW (∵−CW = CCW)
1320 rpm, CW
∴ N6 = − =− = 55 rpm, CCW
20 20
(−CW means counter clockwise, CCW) ∴ Gear 4 rotates at 55 rpm in the counter clockwise
= 66 rpm, CCW. sense.

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Practice Problems 2 20.4 × 103

×2
MN =
p
1. Δ E = 52 kJ = 52 × 1000 J
m = 5000 kg = 12987 N m
k = 1.8 m MT = MN − NT
N = 120 rpm = 12987 − 955
N1 + N 2 = 12032 N m
= N = 120 rpm 2
2  MT 
Δ E = 20.4 × 103 ×  
N1 + N2 = 120 × 2  MN 
∆E  MT  
2
= 240 rpm → (1) (∵ Area ∝ (height)2, =  

E  MN  
p2 2
ΔE= mk2N (N1−N2)  12032 
900 = 20.4 × 103 ×  
 12987 
p2 = 17510 J
∴52 × 103 = × 5000 × 1.82 × 120 × (N1 − N2)
900 3. Motor power P = 3 Kw
N1 − N2 = 2.4392 → (2) m = 150 kg
From (1) and (2) k = 0.5 m
2 N1= 242.44
N1 = 300 rpm
N1 = 121.22 rpm.
Energy required for one rivetting operation of 1s = 9000 J
Energy supplied by motor
2. A1= 0.45 × 10−3 m2
= 3 KW × 1 s
A2 = 1.7 × 10−3 m2
= 3000 J/s × 1 s = 3000 J
A3 = 6.8 × 10−3 m2
A4 = 0.65 × 10−3 m2 Energy supplied by flywheel (maximum fluctuation of
energy)
Net positive area during working cycle
Δ E = 9000 − 3000 = 6000 J
= A3 − (A1 + A2 + A4)
1
= 6.8 × 10−3 − (0.45 + 1.7 + 0.65) × 10−3 Δ E = mk2 (w12 − w22)
2
= 4 × 10−3 m2 1 p2
Network done during the cycle = × mk 2 ( N12 − N 2 2 )
2 900
= 4 × 10−3 × 3 × 106 Where N2= speed immediately after rivetting
= 12 × 103 J p2
×150 × ( 0.5) ( 300 2 − N 2 2 )
2
∴ 6000 =
Net work done 12 × 103 J 1800
Tmean = = = 955 N m
Crank angle 4p rad ⇒ N2 = 246.6 rpm.
M 4. Number of working strokes/min
n = 20
t = 20 mm = 0.02 m
Tmean X Y
T d = 30 mm = 0.03 m
τu = 300 MPa = 300 × 106 N/m2
R S
2π N 3π hm = 95%
Cs = 0.1
Maximum fluctuation of energy (Δ E) is represented by the Energy required per stroke
shaded area M × Y
Work done during expansion cycle = area RMS =
(pdt × t ) × t = pdt t
u
2
u
2 2
= 6.8 × 10−3 × 3 × 106 p
× 0.03 × ( 0.02 ) × 300 × 106
2
=
= 20.4 × 10 J 3 2
= 5654.87 J
1
= × MN × p Energy required/min
2
1 = 5654.87 × n
(∵ Area of triangle = × base × height)
2 = 5654.87 × 20 J/min
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Power required for the motor 1

1 = 2 cos q ⇒ cosq =
5654.87 × 20 2
= J/s i.e. q = +60° and +300° (i.e. another 2 times)
hm × 60
∴ Total number of times the torque are equal is at
5654.87 × 20 q = 0°, 60°, 180° and 300°
=
0.95 × 60 i.e., at 4 times in a cycle.
= 1984.16 W
= 1.984 Kw
8. ΔE = Emax − Emin
5. k = 0.7 m
9. The area below the torque- crank angle diagram gives the
Energy per stroke = 5654.87 J th work done.
1
Punching operation takes place during of the revolution. Hence, the correct option is (C).
th 10
9 1 1
Therefore energy is stored during revolution of the crank 10. E1 = I w 2 = MR12w 2
shaft 10 2 1 2
∴ Maximum fluctuation of energy 1 1
E2 = I w 2 = MR22w 2
9 2 2 2
ΔE= × 5654.87 2
10 1  R1  2 1  1  1
M   w =  MR12w 2  = E1
=
= 5089.38 J 2  2 42  4
Mean speed of flywheel 1
∴ Energy stored in latter = of energy stored in former
N = n × 10 (considering one stroke per revolution of 4
crankshaft) Hence, the correct option is (C).
= 20 × 10 = 200 rpm
2pN1 2p × 1200
Δ E = mk2w2Cs 11. w1 = = = 40p rad/s
60 60
p2 Cs = 0.04
= mk 2 N 2Cs
900
1
ΔE1 = Iw 12Cs
p 2m w
1
5089.38 = × 0.72 × 200 2 × 0.1

900 w2 = 1
2
m = 236.78 kg. Cs
Cs 0=
= .02 1

2
 w  Cs
2
M ∴ΔE2 = I 2w 22Cs = I 2  1  . 1
6. The flywheel is made up of a rim of mass and radius R

2  2  22
M w12Cs
(treated as a thin ring of mass and radius R) and a thin
2 = I2 1
M R 8
uniform disk of mass and radius , concentric with the w12Cs
2 2
rim. Give ΔE1 = ΔE2 ⇒ I w12Cs = I 2 1
8 1
M 2 R22 ⇒ I2 = 8I
∴ Iflywheel = Irim + Idisk = M 1R12 +
2
M  M 1 R s
=   R2 + ⋅ ⋅ 12. v = or rv2 = s
2
  2 2  2  r
MR 2 MR 2 (8 + 1) MR 2 9 Hence, the correct option is (D).
= + = = MR 2
2 16 16 16 1 2
9 9 13. Energy stored in flywhee L = Iw
∴ aMR2 = MR 2 ⇒ a = = 0.5625 2
16 16 Larger the value of I (moment of inertia about axis of rotation),
∴ a = 0.5625 larger will be the energy stored. When mass of flywheel is con-
7. For equality of torques of machine and engine, centrated at the rim, its moment of inertia about axis of rotation
increases → energy stored increases.
200 + 20 sin q = 200 + 20 sin 2q
⇒ sin q = sin 2q = 2 sin q cos q
∴ when sin q = 0, torques are equal s
14. V = ; r = 7820 kg/m3
i.e. q = 0° and q = 180° (2 times) r
Also, if sin q p 0, torque will be equal, when s = 24.8 × 106 N/m2;

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24.8 × 106 450 × 2

v= = 56.31 m/s
m/s ⇒ TP + TG = = 180 → (2) → (2)
7820 5
Hence, the correct option is (B). Using (1), (2) → TP + 5TP = 180
15. Owing to large number of buckets, the torque on the shaft of 180
→ 6TP = 180 → TP = = 30
a Pelton wheel will be more or less constant, and hence Pelton 6
wheel the has least variation in turning moment ∴ Number of teeth on pinion = 30
Hence, the correct option is (D). 22. TG = no of teeth on gear = 120; TP = no of teeth on pinion = 40
R D w −T −120
16. K = = (for uniform disc) Speed ratio = P = G = = −3
2 2 2 wG TP 40
D Considering 100% efficiency, Input power = output power
=
8 τi wi = τ0 w0 (τi = τp, τ0 = τG)
17. The variation of turning moment diagram for multi-cylinder
(
⇒ τpwP = τG wG ∵t p = 20 Nm, given )
engines is considerably less than the variation in turning t Pw P
∴τa = = 20 × −3 = −60 N m
moment diagram for single cylinder engine. Hence, fluctua- wG
tion of energy is less for multi cylinder engines → multi- (− shows opposite sense to τp)
cylinder engines need smaller flywheels compared to single ∴ Torque transmitted by gear is 60 N m
cylinder engines.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (D).
18. Given power P = 150 kW = 150 × 103 W speed of driver N p

23. Speed ratio = =
speed of driven N G
2pNTm
we have P = (for 4 stroke engine) N
120 ⇒ NG = speed of gear = P
10
120 P 1440
⇒ Tm = (T = mean torque) = = 144 rpm
2pN m 10
120 × 150 × 103 τG = torque on gear = 56.36 N m(data)
= = 28, 647.9 N m
2p × 100  2pN G 
Energy developed, E = mean torque × Angular displacement ∴ Output power, P0 = τG wG ∵w G = 
 60 
= 28647.9 × 4p (∵ q = 4p radian/cycle for 4 stroke engine)
2pN G
= 360,000 J = 360 kJ = 56.36 ×
60
∴ Fluctuation of energy = ΔE = 0.58E 56.36 × 2p × 144
=
= 0.58 × 360 60
= 208.8 kJ = 849.9 W
Hence, the correct option is (D). = 0.8499 KW
19. Statement (iii) is not correct for an engine. Speed variations Input power, Pi = 1 KW(data)
due to load is controlled by governor and not flywheel. ∴Mechanical efficiency,
Hence, the correct option is (C). P 0.8499
h= 0 = × 100 ≈ 85%
20. During compression stroke, work is done by engine on gas. Pi 1
Hence negative work is done → turning moment diagram is
negative throughout
Hence, the correct option is (B). speed of first driver
24. Velocity ratio =
speed of last follower
21. Let the number of teeth on pinion be TP and on gear be TG
T product of teeth on the followers
speed ratio = 5 = G ⇒ TG = 5TP → (1) → (1) =
TP product of teeth on the drivers
D p + DG Hence, the correct option is (D).

Centre distance, d =
2 25. Reverted gear trains are used in clocks
m Hence, the correct option is (A).
= TP + TG 
2
speed of last follower
(∵ D = mT ) 26. Train vale =
speed of first driver
Given d = 450 mm, m = 5 mm, 1
=
5 speed ratio
⇒ 450 = T + TG 
2 P Hence, the correct option is (C).
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27. If at least one of the gear axes is moving with respect to 18 × 20 × 7

frame, the gear train is called epicyclic gear train. ⇒ TD = = 36
70
Hence, the correct option is (B). ∴ Let module of gears C and D be m2
28. In reverted gear trains, the output shaft and input shaft are m T + TD 
co-axial Then d = 2  C
2
Hence, the correct option is (B). 2d 2 × 54 mm
⇒ m2 = = = 2 mm
29. Mating gears must have same module (A and B do not match,
C and D do not match)
(TC + TD ) (18 + 36 )
∴ Module of gear D is 2 mm.
Leaves only options (b) A and D and (c) B and C
Mating gear must have same pressure angle. Only
(b) A and D matches. 33. Idler wheels change the centre distance between the driver and
driven shafts in a simple gear train. They do not affect the speed
Hence answer to the question is A and D achieve a gear ratio 3.
ratio but only affect the direction of rotation.
30. Distance between shafts = d mm
speed of driver A
d = RA + RB = RC + RD 34. Overall speed ratio =
speed of follower F
DA + DBD + DD NA
⇒ = C =
2 2 NF
⇒ m1[TA + TB] = m2[TC + TD]
Product of number of teeth on followers
m1 =
⇒ T + TB  − TC = TD Product of number of teeth on drrivers
m2  A
TF × TD × TB 45 × 75 × 36
3 = = = 18.
⇒ [ 20 + 44] − 18 = TD TE × TC × TA 25 × 15 × 18
4
⇒ TD = × 64 − 18 = 48 − 18 = 30
4 NA T TB 84
∴ Number of teeth on gear D = 30 35. = 4= B ⇒ TA = = = 21
NB TA 4 4
Hence, the correct option is (D). DA + DB
∴ Centre distance d =
2 2
N P 156 TQTS T 
31. = = = Q m
N S 100 TPTR  TP  = TA + TB 
2
(∵ TQ = TS and TP = TR) 2.5
=
2
[21 + 84] = 131.25 mm
TQ 156
⇒ = = 1.249 Pitch line velocity = RAwA = RBwB
TP 100
DB  2pN B 
NQ 1 TP = ⋅ 
∴ =− =− 2  60 
NP TQ 1.249
 2pN B 
−156 NP ∵w B = 
 60 
⇒ NQ = − = = −124.9 rpm
1.249 1.249 mTB 2pN B
= ⋅
∴ Speed of gear Q is nearly 125 rpm 2 60
Hence, the correct option is (A). 2.5 × 84 × 2p × 400
=
32. Modules of gear A and gear B are same as they are in mesh 2 × 60
∴ mA = mB = m1 = 1.2 mm = 4,398.2 mm/s
= 4.3982 m/s.
d = distance between shafts = RA + RB
m1 TA + TB  D
= [D = mT and R =  N A − N arm TB 39 1
2 2 36. =− =− =−
N B − N arm TA 117 3
1.2 TA + 70  108
∴ 54 = ⇒ − 70 = TA Given NA = 0 and Narm = +1 (CCW)
2 1.2
∴ TA = 90 − 70 = 20 0 −1 1
⇒ =−
NB − 1 3
NA 2100 rpm T ×T T × 70
= =7= D B = D ⇒ −3 = −NB + 1
ND 300 rpm TC × TA 18 × 20
NB = 3 + 1 = 4

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∴ Gear B (smaller gear) makes 4 rotations in the counter Radius of wheel C = Radius of A + Diameter of B
clockwise direction.
DC DA
Hence, the correct option is (B). ⇒ = + DB
2 2
37.
mTC mTA
B ⇒ = + mTB (∵ D = mT )
D C 2 2
⇒ TC − 2TB = TA (∵ m is same for all mating gears)
A ∴ TA = TC − 2TB
= 150 − 2 × 60 = 30.
38.
Rotations of element
Sl. No. Operation
Arm D Sun gear A Planet B An C
1. Arm is fixed and sun gear A is given +1 0 +1 TA 30 1 TA TB T −30 1

− =− =− − × =− A = =−
TB 60 2 TB TC TC 150 5
rotation (CCW)
2. 0 x x
Arm is fixed and sun gear A is given +x +x − −
rotations (CCW) 2 5
3. All elements are given +y rotation (CCW) +y +y +y +y
x x
4. Resultant motion (sum of rows 2 and 3) y x+y − +y − +y
2 5
Given A is fixed → x + y = 0 → (1) 1 1 T

Diametral pitch, PD = = =
Arm D is given 5 rotations CW→ y = −5 → (2) D
m   D
T 
From (1) and (2) x = + 5  
x 5 p p
NC = − + y = − 5 = −4 ∴ PD = = = 0.1257 per mm
5 5 PC 25
∴ Annular ring c makes 4 rotations clockwise.
1 25
Hence, the correct option is (D). Module m = = mm
PD p
39. For simple gear train, train value
speed of follower 25
= ∴ Diameter, D = mT = × 40 = 318.31 mm
speed of driver p
= 0.3183 m
T 20 2  D   2pN 
= first
= = Pitch line velocity, V = Rw =    
Tlast 70 7  2   60 
0.3183 2p × 150
1 7 = ×
Speed ratio = = . 2 60
Train value 2
= 2.499 m/s
= 2.5 m/s.
pD
40. Circular pitch PC = Hence, the correct option is (A).
T
Previous Years’ Questions ⇒ Ng = 400 rpm

Now we know that, Power = constant
Np Tg
1. = 2pN g t g 2p N p t p
Ng Tp ∴ =
60 60
1200 120 Np
⇒ = ⇒t g = ×t p
Ng 40 Ng
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1200 6. Given: T2 = 20, T3 = 40, T5 = 100

⇒t g = × 20
400 N2 = 50 rpm (CCW)
⇒ τg = 60 N m
Arm Gear
Hence, the correct option is (D). Action Gear – 3 Gear – 5
–4 –2
w max − w min
2. Coefficient of speed fluctuation, C f = Arm is fixed and 0 (fix) +x 20 x 20 40
−x × =− −x × ×
w mean fixed gear is free. 40 2 40 100
w max − w min x
or C f = Given +x rotation =−
w max + w min to Gear – 2 5
2 x x
Adding +y y x+y − +y − +y
⇒ wmax Cf + wmin Cf revolutions 2 5
= 2 wmax − 2wmin
x
⇒ (2 + Cf)wmin Given that, x + y = − 60 and − + y = 0
5
= wmax(2 – Cf) x
∴y=+
w max 2+Cf 5
⇒ = x
w min 2−C f x+ − 60 ⇒ 6 x = −300
5
Hence, the correct option is (D). ⇒ x = – 50 rpm
3. and y = – 10 rpm
Type of Gear
Gear 2 Gear 3 Gear 4
Carrier ∴ Speed of arm = y = 10 rpm (CCW)
motion 1 5
1. Carrier 5
is fixed 7. Given w2 = 100 rad/s (CW)
and gear warm = 80 rad/s (CCW)
1 is given T T ×T
T1 −x 1 x 1 3
+x rpm x −x 0
T2 T2 T2 × T4 3
(cw) Action Arm Gear – 2 Gear – Gear – 5
4
20 5 32 20 x
Arm is fixed 0 x − x =− x − × ×=−
and gear 2 24 6 80 24 3
is given ‘x’
2. Add +y T1 T1 T1 × T3 revolution
rpm to x+y y −x y −x y +x y
T2 T2 T2 × T4 −5 −x
each Adding ‘y’ y x+y x +y +y
6 3
Now
w1 − w 5
=
( x + y) − y =
T2 × T4 w2 = x + y = + 100
w 4 − w5 T ×T  T1 × T3 and warm = y = – 80 rad/s
y + x 1 3  − y
 T2 × T4  ∴ x = 180 rad/s
w − w 5 45 × 40 −x −180
⇒ 1 = =6 w5 = +y= − 80
w 4 − w 5 13 × 20 3 3
w5 = – 140 rad/s
or w5 = 140 rad/s (CCW)
4. w1 = +60 rpm (CW) Hence, the correct option is (C).
w4 = −120 rpm (CCW)
mR 2
w1 − w 5 8. I =
=6 2
w 4 − w5 1
= (20) (0.2)2 = 0.4 kg m2
60 − w 5 2
⇒ =6
−120 − w 5 N = 600 rpm
2p × 600
⇒ w5 = −156 rpm (CCW) w= = 20p rad/s
60
Hence, the correct option is (D). 1 1
KE = I w2 = × 0.4 × (20p )2 = 790 kJ
1 1 2 2
5. Change in kinetic energy, ΔK.E = I (w12 − w 22 ); ⇒ I[2102
2 2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
– 190 ] = 400
2
⇒ I = 0.10 kg–m2 9. dR = m × tR = 2 × 15 = 30
Hence, the correct option is (A). dQ = 2 × dR = 2 × 30 = 60

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13:00:47
dP tP 20 p2
= = dP = × 60 = 30 2600 = I × × 200 2 × 0.01
dQ tQ 40 900
dR tR tR ⇒ I = 592.73 kg m2.
30 × 20
= ⇒ dS = dR × = = 40
dS tR tR 15 Hence, the correct answer is 590 to 595.
14.
dQ d R d S
dP (20T)
Centre distance = + + + 2
2 2 2 2 +
= 15 + 30 + 15 + 20 = 80.
4 (15T) (30T)
10. E = Iw2CS + +
E 400
I= = = 25 kg m 2
w 2CS 20 2 × 0.04
3 (40T)
11. module m = 5 N5 N5 N4
d1 + d 2 = ×
Centre distanc E = = 450 mm N2 N4 N2
2
d1 + d2 = 900 mm N5 N3
= = {∵ N4 = N3}
d1 + d2 = m(T1 + T2) = 900 N4 N2
900 T4 T2 15 20 1
or T1 + T2 = = 180 → (1) = = × =
5 T5 T3 30 40 4
Now,
N2
1200
N5 = = = 300 CCW.
N1 T2 4 4
= = 5 or T2 = 5T1 → (2)
N 2 T1 Hence, the correct option is (A).
∴From equation (1) and (2) 15.
∴ T1 + 5T1 = 180
⇒ T1 = 30 20 rad/s
10 rad/s
M
12. Mass of ring like rim =
2
0 π π 3π 2π
Rim radius = R
M 2 2
Mass of concentric disc =
2 p
R Considering the movement from to p, mean speed
Disc radius = 2
2 20 + 10
2 w= = 15 rad/s
M 2 M R 1 2
Moment of inertia = R +   ×
2 2 2 2 p
p-
=
M 2  1 1 9
R 1 + ×  = MR 2 Time taken = 2 = p s
2  4 2  16 15 30
= 0.5625 MR2 = a MR2 20 − 10

Angular acceleration a =
⇒ a = 0.5625 p 
 30 
Hence, the correct answer is 0.55 to 0.57.  
13. ΔE = 2600 J ⇒ N = 200 rpm
300
Fluctuation of speed = ±0.5% = rad/s 2
p
Coefficient of fluctuation of speed
Torque during the period T = 3000 Nm
0.5 + 0.5
Cs = = 0.01 T = I a where I = moment of inertia
100
300
2 ∴ 3000 = I × ⇒ I = 31.4 kg m2
 2pN  p
ΔE = I w × CS = I 
2
 × CS
 60  Hence, the correct answer is 30 to 32.
Unit 03.indd
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13:00:51 Chap
Hence, the correct option is (C). Without arm −60 −60 20
π 1 ×
1 speed 20 20 100
17. Tmean = ∫ Td θ
π0
(x ) 60 20
π x rev x − x(60/20) ×
1 20 100
⇒ Tmean = ∫ [1000 + 1000 sin 2θ − 1200 cos 2θ ] d θ
π0
6x
π With arm speed y+x y – 3x y−
3.106 | Part1 III • Unit 1000
3 • Theory 1200 of Machine,  Vibrations and Design | 3.29
Hints/Solutions 10
⇒ Tmean = 10000 θ − cos 2θ − sin 2θ 
π 2 2 0
N2 N2 N3 N4 N5 Given y + x = 0 (1)
TheT speed
16. ⇒ = ratio =N-m=
10000 × × × but, N3 = N4
mean N6 N3 N4 N5 N6 Gear 2 is 3fixed
10000 × 2π × 100 y − rpmx = 100 (2)
T3 N 4 PT=5 TN×5 w T=6
PowerNdeveloped, N4 = 100 5 C.C.W
= =
and
2
, , = 60
N 3 T2 N 5 T4 N 6 T5 N5 =solving
On, ? Equations (1) and (2), we get
∴ P = 104.719 kW
N 2 T3 T5 T6 T3 ⋅ T6 y = 62.5; x =angular
Let x be the –62.5 speed of gear 2.
Hence,
∴ the
= correct
× ×answer = is 104 to 105.
N T T T T ⋅T Let y be
speed of the
armangular speedC.C.W.
(N ) = 62.5 of arm.
6 2 4 5 2 4 5
18.
∴ Gear 5 does not have any effect on the speed ratio. It GearHence, the correct option
2 is (C).
3 4
is an idler. 4 1Teeth
9. S – Sun, P – Planet,60O – Outer20ring 100
2
Hence, the correct option is (C). 3 Without
Motion armArm S(50) P(25)
−60 O(100)
−60 20
π 1 ×
1 speed 20 50 20 50 10025
17. Tmean = ∫ Td θ Arm is 0 x
−x × −x × ×
π0 5 fixed sun 25 25 100
(x−)x60 20
π xrotates
rev by x − x(60/20)
= −2x
= 20 × 100
1 x r.p.m
⇒ Tmean =
π ∫0
[1000 + 1000 sin 2θ − 1200 cos 2θ] dθ 2
With arm: y (y + x) (y – 2x) ⎛ 6xx⎞
With
arm atarm
y speed y+x y – 3x ⎜⎝yy−− ⎟⎠
π 2
1 1000 1200  r.p.m 10
⇒ Tmean = 10000 θ − cos 2θ − sin 2θ 
π  2 2 0
Given y + x = 0 y + x = 100 → (1) (1)
⇒ Tmean = 10000 N-m x
3 y − = 0 → ( 2)
10000 × 2π × 100 y − x = 100 2 (2)
Power developed, P = T × w = 5
60 From (1) and ( 2)
On, solving Equations (1) and (2), we get
∴ P = 104.719 kW 200 100
x=
y = 62.5; x = –62.5 ,y=
Hence, the correct answer is 104 to 105. 3 3
speed of arm (N5) = 62.5 C.C.W.
18. Angular velocity of planet
ω p = −2 x + y
4
2
3 200 100
= −2 ×
+
3 3
ω p = −100
5
100
Angular velocity of carrier arm ωc = y =
Machine, Vibrations and Design 3
Given ωp −100
N5 = =3
4
× but, N3 = N4 ωc 100
5 N6 Gear 2 is fixed
N4 = 100 rpm C.C.W 3
N5 = ?
Chapter 02_Hints & Solutions.indd 106 20. Here, gear R is not part of mechanism and gear Q is27/04/2017 13:00:53
Let x be the angular speed of gear 2.
idle so
Let y be the angular speed of arm.
N pT p = N sTs
n the speed ratio. It Gear 2 3 4 N pT p 400 × 24
Ns = = = 120
Teeth 60 20 100 Ts 80
Without arm −60 −60 20
1 × Hence, the correct answer is 119 to 121.
speed 20 20 100
21. TA = 20, TB = 30, TD = 20
(x ) 60 20
x rev x − x(60/20) × Tc (inner) = 80
20 100
0 cos 2θ ] d θ
Tc (outer) = 100
6x
π With arm speed y+x y – 3x y− Considering clockwise direction as positive,
200  10
NA = +300
sin 2θ 
2 0
Given y + x = 0 (1)
3
0 × 2π × 100 y− x = 100 (2)
5
60
On, solving Equations (1) and (2), we get
02_Hints 4/27/2019 10:57:47
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13:00:53
−300 × 20 100
NB = = −200 ND = +75 × = +375
30 20
Nc = –200 × = −75
80
Chap
Unit 03.indd 30 4/27/2019 10:57:49 AM

CHapter 3 Vibrations
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1
1. S1 = S2 = 20 × 103 N/m For dynamic equilibrium of free oscillation,

m = 100 kg zi + zr = 0
Springs are connected in parallel. d 2q mg
⇒ I + q =0
∴ Seff = S1 + S2 = 2 × 20 × 10 3 dt 2 2
= 40 × 103 N/m
d 2q  mg   mg × 3 
Seff ⇒ = −  q = −  2.m 2  q
fn =
1 dt 2  2I   
2p m
d 2q  3g 
1 40 × 103 20 10 ⇒ = −   q ⇒ SHM
= = = Hz dt 2  2 
2p 100 2p p
Hence, the correct option is (C). ∵ This is of the form a = −w n2q
2. x + w n2 x = 0 represents SHM of circular frequency wn 3g

∴wn =
Given equation is x + 36p2x = 0 2
⇒ w n2 = 36p 2 ⇒ w n = 36p 2 = 6p rad /s wn 1 3g
fn = =
w n 6p 2p 2p 2
∴ fn = = = 3 Hz Hence, the correct option is (D).
2p 2p
Hence, the correct option is (C). 6.
1 k θ m = 1 Kg;
3. N = L=1m
2p m
k ×k k O k = 300 N/m
When connected in series, keff = =
(k + k ) 2
1 keffk 1
N
∴ N′ = == When the system has moved from its equilibrium position by
2p
m 2m 2p2 a small angle q, the angular acceleration of rod
Hence, the correct option is (C). d 2q
a=
1 dt 2
4. meff = mass of block + of mass of spring
3 Mass moment of inertia of rod about hinge O,
 ms 
= m +  mL2 1 × 12 1
 3  I= = = kgm 2
12 12 12
k k a
∴ wn = = ∴ Inertial torque zi = Ia =
meff ms 12
m+
3
L q
Hence, the correct option is (C). Compression of spring, x =   q =
2
  2
5. O (∵ L = 1 m)
q
Spring force, Fs = kx = 300 × =150q
/2 θ 2
∴ Torque due to spring force, ts = Fs  
L
2
1
= 150q  
mg
2
= 75q
For dynamic equilibrium, ti + ts = 0
A
a
⇒ + 75q = 0
I = moment of inertia of rod about hinge o 12
m 2 ⇒ a = – 75 × 12q = –900q → SHM
=
3 d 2q
Inertial torque, zi = Ia = I 2 ∴ wn = 900 = 30 rad /s .
dt Hence, the correct option is (C).
Restoring torque,
 mg q 7. I = mass moment of inertia of system about hinge O = mL2
zr = mg   sinq =
2
  2 For a small angular displacement q from mean position,
(∵ sinq = q for small angle) angular acceleration
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Unit 03.indd 31 4/27/2019 10:57:51 AM

3.108 | Part III of
3.32 | Theory • Machine, Vibrations and Design
Unit 3 • Theory of Machine, Vibrations and Design
d 2q f n2 f n2
a= ⇒ f n2 = 1 2
dt 2 f n2 + f n2
x = Extension of spring = (2L)q = 2Lq 1 2
Spring force, Fs = kx = 2kLq fn fn 100 × 200

⇒ fn = 1 2
=
Torque due to spring force, ts = Fs(2L) f +f
2
n1
2
n2
100 2 + 200 2
= 4L2kq
2 × 10 4
Inertial torque, ti = Ia = mL a 2 = = 89.44 Hz
50000
For dynamic equilibrium, ti + ts = 0 = 89.44 × 60 rpm
⇒ mL2a + 4L2kq = 0 = 5366.4 rpm
 4k  ∼ 5367 rpm.
⇒ a =−  q ⇒ SHM
m  Hence, the correct option is (A).
4k
wn = . s
m 10. wc = wn = , when s = stiffness of shaft and m = mass.
m
8. Let the system be displaced by a small angle q from the mean
MgL3
position. 11. d = is the maximum deflection at centre.
48EI
W
g 48EI p 4
wc = w
= = = ;I d
k
n
d ML3 64
b
1 1
⇒ wc ∝ d2 ; wc ∝ ; wc ∝
a M L3
O Out of the given choices, increasing the mass of rotor (M),
decreases the critical speed of shaft.
Extension of spring, x = aq g 10
12. wc = wn = =
∴ Spring force, Fs = kx = kaq d 4 × 10 −3
Torque about O due to spring force, 100
= = 50 rad s–1
ts = Fsa = ka2q (CCW) 2
Inertial torque, ti = I0 a (CCW)
Torque due to weight, tw = Wbsinq 13.
= Wbq (CW) x
O O
= –Wbq
x
For dynamic equilibrium, ti + ts + tw = 0
I0 a + ka2q – Wbq = 0
− ( ka2 − W b )q
⇒a= ⇒ SHM
I0
∴wn =
( ka2 − W b )
I0
Mass of liquid, m = volume × density
fn =
1 ( ka 2
−Wb) = as
2p I0 d 2x
Acceleration of liquid, a =
dt 2
For fn to exist, ka2 > Wb
Inertial force on liquid Fi = ma
Or Wb < ka2
ka2 d 2x
⇒b< = as
W dt 2
Hence, the correct option is (A). Restoring force on liquid, Fr = weight of 2x column of liquid
9. Given f n = 100 Hz , f n = 200 Hz = a(2x) sg = 2axsg
1 2
Using Dunkerley’s formula, For dynamic equilibrium, Fi + FR = 0

1 1 1 d 2x
= + ⇒ as + 2ax sg = 0
f n2 f n2 f n2 dt 2
1 2
Unit 03.indd
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Chapter 3 Hints/Solutions
• Vibrations || 3.109
3.33
d 2x  2g  → SHM 12 × 9.81 78.36

⇒ = − = +
x 2 2
dt 2  l 
= 58.86 + 39.18
2g
∴ w n2 = = 98.04 N

Also, s = mw n2
2g
⇒ wn = 18. The standard differential equation for free-damped vibration
sx = 0
is m x+ c x+
Comparing coefficients, m = 16 kg
14. Two nodes were observed → mode n = 3
c = 5 Ns/m
∴ f3 = n2f0 = 32 × f0
1233 s = 4 N/m
⇒ 1233 = 9f0 → f0 = = 137 rpm
9 ∴ cc = 2 ms = 2 × 16 × 4 = 16 Ns /m
For 1 node, mode, n = 2 c 5
Damping ratio (x) = =
⇒ f2 = 22f0 = 4 × 137 = 548 rpm cc 16
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (B).
p 4 p
× ( 30 × 10 −3 )
4
15. I of shaft = d = 19. S = 32 N/m; m = 2 kg
64 64
= 3.976 × 10–8 m4 cc = 2 ms = 2 2 × 32 = 16 Ns /m
mgL3 12 × 9.81 × 13 c 18 9
d= = x= = = >1
48EI 48 × 2 × 1011 × 3.976 × 10 −8 cc 16 8
= 3.084 × 10– 4 m ⇒ system is over damped
= 0.3084 mm Hence, the correct option is (A).
g 20. m = 12.5 kg, s = 1000 N/m
wn =
d c = 15 Ns/m
9.81 ∴ cc = 2 ms = 2 × 12.5 × 1000
= = 178.35 rad s −1
3.084 × 10 −4 = 223.6 Ns/m.
16. e = 0.11 mm (data)
c 15
2pN 2p × 2500 21. Damping factor (x) == = 0.067
w= = = 261.80 rad /s cc 223.6
60 60 Logarithmic decrement
w > wn → y will become negative
e 2px 2p × 0.067
Amplitude of oscillation, y = d= = = 0.4219
 wn 
2
1− x2 1 − 0.0672
  −1 ∴ Logarithmic decrement = 0.42
w 
0.11
= 2
mm 22. Given
 178.35 
 261.80  − 1 X
X1 = 0 ; m = 200 kg; s = 40 × 103 N /m
 
50
0.11 s 40 × 103
= = −0.2053 mm ∴wn = =
0.4641 − 1 m 200
∴ Amplitude of oscillation = 0.2053 mm
= 14.14 rad /s; x = 0.22 ( data )
W mg 48EI X0
17. Stiffness of shaft, s = = = = e x w T , where T = time taken (in second)
n
d d L3 X1
⇒ 50 = e0.22 × 14.14 x T
48 × 2 × 1011 × 3.976 × 10 −8
= n(50)
13 ⇒T= = 1.258 s
= 381, 696 N/m 0.22 × 14.14
Dynamic force on bearing, F = –sy = 1.26 s
= –381, 696 × (–0.2053 × 10– 3) Time period of damped oscillation,
= 78.36 N 2p
Td =
Hence, the correct option is (D). wd
Note: The total load on each bearing 2p
W F =
= + wn 1 − x 2
2 2

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13:01:20
3.110 | Part III of
2p c 300
= x
= = = 0.194
14.14 1 − 0.22 2 cc 1549.19
= 0.456 s Magnification factor,
T 1.26
Number of oscillations, N = = A 1
Td 0.456 MF = =
d 2
  w    w 2
2
= 2.76 1 −    +  2x 
Hence, the correct option is (C).   w n    w n 
 
23. Coming to initial position in shortest possible time → criti- 1
cally damped. =
2
Hence, the correct option is (D).   30  2
  30 
2
1 −    +  2 × 0.194 ×
24. In the steady state, w = 2 rad/s (same as w of applied force)   38.73    38.73 
2p 2p
⇒ T = = = p = 3.14 s 1 1 1
w 2 = = =
In the transient state, wd = w n 1 − x 2 0.16 + 0.09 0.25 0.5
= 2
2p 2p
Td = = ∴ Amplitude A = 2d = 2 × 26.7 = 53.4 mm
wd w n 1 − x 2
s 21 w 
wn = = = 7 = 2.6458 rad /s
m 3 2x  
w
cc = 2mwn = 2 × 3 × 2.6458 28. tanf =  n 
 w 
2

= 15.8748 Ns/m 1 −   
  w n  
c 10  
=x= = 0.63
cc 15.8748  30 
2 × 0.194 ×  
2p  38.73 
⇒ Td = = 3.06 s =
2.6458 1 − 0.632   30   2
Hence, the correct option is (D). 1 −   

  38.73  
2
 w  0.3005
1 +  2x  = = 0.75125
 w n  0.4000
25. Transmissibility, e =
 w 2
2
  w 2 ∴ f = tan −1 ( 0.75125 )
 
1 −    +  2x 
  w n    w n 
= 36.92°.
  Hence, the correct option is (D).
w
When = 2 29. Seffective = 4 × 350 (∵ parallel connection)
wn
= 1400 kN/m = 1400 × 103 N/m
1 + 8x 2
1400 × 103
Seff
e= = 1 for all values of x ∴ wn = =
1 + 8x 2
m 700
= 44.72 rad/s
∴Ans 2
N = 4500 rpm
26. L1 I1 = L2 I2
2pN 2p × 4500
In a two-rotor system, the node is located between the rotors w = = = 471.24 rad /s
60 60
and nearer to the rotor having larger mass moment of inertia
x = 0.25
(which is I2 in this case) 2
Hence, the correct option is (B).  w 
1 +  2x 
27. Static deflection  w
 n 
Transmissibility, e = 2
F0 800  w 
2
  w 
2
d
= = = 0= .0267 m 26.7 mm 1 −    +  2x 
s 30000   w n    w n 
w = 30 rad s– 1  
s 30000
wn = = = 38.73 rad s −1  471.24 
2
m 20 1 +  2 × 0.25 ×
 44.72 
cc = 2 ms = 2 20 × 30000 =
2
  471.24  2   471.24 
2
= 1549.19 Ns/m 1 −    +  2 × 0. 25 ×
  44.72    44.72 
Unit 03.indd
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13:01:23 Chap
3.35
1 + 27.76 N
= G = 80 × 10 9
12108.9 + 27.76 m2
Total torsional stiffness of rotor, q = q1 + q2
28.76 5.36 GJ GJ
= = = +
12136.66 110.17 1 2
= 0.049
Hence, the correct option is (A). 1 1 
= GJ  + 
30. FT = F0 × transmissibility  1 2 
= 700 × 0.049  1 1
= 80 × 109 × 6.136 × 10–7  + 
= 34.3 N  0.8 1 
= 110, 448 Nm/rad
Natural frequency of torsional vibration,
31. I = mass moment of inertia of disc
= mk2 1 q
fn =
2p Ι
= 150 × 0.52
= 37.5 kg m2 1 110448
= Hz
J = polar moment of inertia of shaft 2p 37.5
p 4 1
= d = × 54.27
32 2p
p = 8.64 Hz
× ( 50 × 10 −3 ) = 6.136 × 10 −7 m 4
4
=
Practice Problems 2 For equilibrium, Tw = Ts

1. Keff = K + K = 2K (∵ springs are connected in parallel) ⇒ 45 q = 0.09 k q
= 2 × 20 × 10 3 45
⇒k= = 500 N /m
0.09
= 40 × 103 N/m
m = 1 kg Hence, the correct option is (C).
2px
1 k eff 1 40 × 103 x1 x2 x3
fn = = 3. = = =e 1− x 2
= constant
2p m 2p 1 x2 x3 x4
= 31.83
∴ x1, x2, x3, x4 etc are in geometric progression
= 32 Hz
2. 0.3 θ
k
4. N =
Fs m
k 1 k N
0.15 θ N′ = = =
2 × 2m 2 m 2
W 5. m = 1 kg;
θ
s = 0.7 × 103 N/m;
cc = 2 ms = 2 1 × 0.7 × 103
= 52.92 N s/m
From the vertical equilibrium position, let the rod get
displaced through a small angular displacement q. 6. Force in spring 2, F2 = W = mg
Spring stretches by (0.15 + 0.15) q = 0.3 q L
Force in spring 1, F1 = W
The CG moves horizontally by 0.15 q a
Torque due to weight, Tw = W × 0.15 q (∵ F1a = F2L for equilibrium)
= 300 × 0.15 q mgL
=
= 45q (counter clockwise) a
Spring force Fs = kx = 0.3 kq
Total deflection of mass, d = deflection of spring 2 + (deflec-
Torque due to spring force, Ts = Fs × 0.3
= 0.32 kq L
tion of spring 1)  
= 0.09 kq (clockwise) a

03_Hints 4/27/2019 10:58:05
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13:01:25
3.112 | Part III of
L  F0 
mg    
⇒ d = mg +  L  a s
When w = wn, X0 =   ⇒ X 0 ∝
1
k2  a  k1 2x x
 1  L 2 1 
= mg  +    10. Maximum static deflection at centre,
 k 2  a  k 1 
mgL3
d= , for a simply supported massless beam, having a
 L 
2
48 EI
 k1 + k 2    mass m at centre of spam.
= mg  a 
 k 1k 2  g g × 48 EI  48 EI 
1
2
  wn = = = 
  d mgL3  mL3 
g Hence, the correct option is (C).
wn =
d 11. Nodes represent points of zero angular displacement.
k 1k 2
= 12. e = 190 micron
 L
2

m k 1 + k 2    w = 0.9 wc = 0.9 wn (∵ wc = wn)
 a 
y 1 1 1
2 = = =
a e  w 2  1 
2
0.2346
k 1k 2  
  − 1  0.9  − 1
c
= L w   
 a 
2
= 4.2631
m k 2 + k 1   
  L   ∴ y = 4.2631 e = 4.2631 × 190
2
= 809.9 = 810 micron
a
k 1k 2   Hence, the correct option is (A).
1 1 L
∴ fn = × wn = d 2x dx
2p 2p  a 
2
13. m +c + sx = F0 coswt represents a forced-damped
m k 2 + k 1    dt 2 dt
  L  
vibrating system. Comparing coefficients, m = 4 kg,
Hence, the correct option is (A). Ns
c= 8 , s = 15 N /m
7. Raylegh’s method gives an over-estimated frequency. m
Hence, the correct option is (A). F0 = 20 N; w = 4 rad s–1
8. L = 110 cm F0
A=
s − mw 2  + (cw )
2 2
N
20
L1 L2 =
15 − 4 × 4 2  + (8 × 4 )
2 2
I1
I2
20
I1 = 10 kg m2 =
( −49 ) + ( 32 )
2 2
I2 = 100 kg m2
L = 110 cm; L2 = (L – L1) 20
= = 0.3417 m
We have L1 I1 = L2 I2 3425
I  I = 34.2 cm
⇒ L1 = L2  2  = L − L1 2 ( ) Hence, the correct option is (C).
 I1  I1 ( )
100 14. m = 250 kg; s = 80 × 103 N/m;
∴ L1 = (110 – L1) ×
10 Ns
= 1100 – 10 L1 c = 1280
m
⇒ 11 L1 = 1100 ⇒ L1 = 100 cm
Hence, the correct option is (C). s 80 × 103
wn = = = 17.89 rad /s
 F0  m 250
 
9. X0 =  s 
2
cc = 2 ms = 2 × 250 × 80 × 103
 w 
2
  w 
2
1 −    +  2x    Ns
  w n    w n = 8944.27
     m
Unit 03.indd
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13:01:28 Chap
3.37
(Alternately, Cc = 2mwn)  w 1 
 Note : ≠ 1 as x < 
c 1280  wn 2
x=
= = 0.1431
cc 8944.27
1
wd = w n 1 − x 2 ∴ MF =
1 − (1 − 2x 2 )  + 4x 2 (1 − 2x 2 )
2
= 17.89 1 − 0.14312
1
= 17.706 rad/s =
4x 4 + 4x 2 − 8x 4
w 17.706
= d
fd = = 2.82 Hz .
2p 2p 1 1
= =
Hence, the correct option is (A). 4x 2 − 4x 4 2x 1 − x 2
d 2x
15. m + sx = 0 represents free undamped vibrations of 1 1
dt 2 = =
s 2 × 0.2 1 − 0.22 0.4 × 0.96
wn =
m
= 2.552
2p m Hence, the correct option is (B).
→ Tn = = 2p 1
wn s Note: If 1 > x ≥ , w = w n and
2
12
∴ Tn = 2p
= 0.69 s 1
100 MF = = 2.5 only
2x
16. m = 10 kg; s = 156.25 N/mm 18. We have w = wr = w n 1 − 2x 2
= 156.25 × 103 N/m w
Ns ⇒ = 1 − 2x 2
c = 500 wn
m
w 
s 156.25 × 103 2x  
wn = = = 125 rad /s w 2x 1 − 2x 2
m 10 tan f =  n  =
 w 
2
 1 − (1 − 2x 2 ) 
cc = 2 ms = 2 10 × 156.25 × 103 1 −   
  w n  
Ns  
= 2500
m 2x 1 − 2x 2
=
c 500 2x 2
x == = 0.2
cc 2500
1 − 2x 2 1 − 2 × 0.22
1 = =
as x < , resonance (or maximum amplitude of oscilla- x 0.2
2 = 4.7958
tion) will occur at a frequency wr less than wn.
∴ f = tan–1(4.7958) = 78.22°
 1  Hence, the correct option is (C).
wr = w n 1 − 2x 2  when x < 
 2
1
= 125 1 − 2 × 0.22 Note: If 1 > x ≥ , w r = w n and f = 90°
2
= 125 × 0.9592
2
= 119.9 rad/s  w 
1 +  2x 
Hence, for maximum amplitude of oscillation,  w
 n 
19 . e =
w = wr = 119.9 rad/s 2
  w 2   w 2
Hence, the correct option is (B). 1 −    +  2x 
1   w n    w n 
Note: If 1 > x ≥ , w = w nfor maximum amplitude.  
2 2
1 +  2x 1 − 2x 2 
1  
17. MF = =
( ) 
2 2
  w 2   w 
2 1 − 1 − 2x 2
2
+  2x 1 − 2x 2 
2
1 −    +  2x    
  w n    w n 
  1 + 4x 2 (1 − 2x 2 )
w wr =
Here = = 1 − 2x 2 1 − (1 − 2x 2 )  + 4x 2 (1 − 2x 2 )
2
wn wn

03_Hints 4/27/2019 10:58:13
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13:01:32
3.114 | Part III of
1 + 4x 2 − 8x 4 wd = wn 1 − x 2
=
4x 4 + 4x 2 − 8x 4
= 20.4939 1 − ( 0.1265 )
2
1 + 4x 2 − 8x 4
= = 20.3293 rad/s
2x 1 − x 2
2p 2p
∴ Td = =
= 1 + 4 × 0.2 − 8 × 0.2
2 4
w d 20.3293
2 × 0.2 1 − 0.22 = 0.309 s
1.071 Hence, the correct option is (C).
= = 2.73
0.3919 24. Critically damped → c = cc
 s = 100 × 103 N /m 
1 = 2 ms  
Note: If 1 > x ≥ , w = w n and  c = 1000 Ns /m 
2 r
(1000 )
2
c2
1 + 2x ⇒m= =
e= = 2.96 4s 4 × 100 × 103
2x
= 2.5 kg
20. FT = e F0
s 100 × 103
= 2.73 × 1000 wn = =
m 2.5
= 2730 N. = 200 rad/s
Hence, the correct option is (A). w 200
1 ∴ fn = n = = 31.83 Hz
Note: If 1 > x ≥ , 2p 2p
2 ≈ 32 Hz
FT = 2.96 ×1000 = 2960 N
 2pxn  2px c c
x1 
 1− x 2

 25. d = , where x = =
21. =e   ; x1 = 60 mm, x2 = 12 mm, 1− x2 cc 2 ms
xn
n=2 m ’ m m ’ m
when s → 2s and m → , cc = 2 .2s , cc = 2 .2s
x 1 60 2 2 2 2
⇒ = = 5 = 2 ms = cc
x 2 12
 2px × 2 
∴ No change in x → no change in logarithmic decrement.
 
 1− x 2  Hence, the correct option is (C).
⇒5= e  
26. For multiple-rotor torsional vibration systems, Number of

4px 4px
⇒ n5 = ⇒ 1.6094 = nodes = number of rotors minus one
1− x2 1− x2
⇒ (1.6094)2 (1 – x2) = 16p2 x2 27. The envelope represents the amplitude Xe
− xw t
n
of the
⇒ 2.59 – 2.59 x = 157.91x 2 2
equation.
(157.91 + 2.59)x2 = 2.59 Hence, the correct option is (D).
2.59 28.
⇒ x2 = = 0.016
160.5
x = 0.016 = 0.1265
Hence, the correct option is (B). •O
k
22. seff = s1 + s2 + s3 (∵ springs are in parallel)
= 12 + 14 + 16 P
= 42 N/mm
P is the point of contact. The mass moment of inertia about P
= 42 × 103 N/m
is Ip + m × (distance of O from P)2
mass, m = 100 kg
= mR2 + mR2
∴ cc = 2 m seff = 2 100 × 42 × 103
= 2mR2 (∵ Io = mR2, for thin ring)
= 4098.78 N s/m
If shell undergoes a small angular displacement q about P,
c = xcc = 0.1265 × 4098.78 d 2q
a= =q
= 518.5 N s/m dt 2
Hence, the correct option is (D). Inertial torque Ti = Ipa = 2mR2 q
seff 42 × 103 The spring stretches by Rq so that spring force, Fs = k Rq
23. wn = = = 20.4939 rad /s
m 100 Torque due to spring force, Ts = Fs R = k R2q
Unit 03.indd
03_Hints 4/27/2019 10:58:17
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13:01:36 Chap
3.39
For dynamic equilibrium, Ti + Ts = 0 150 2 × 250 2

∴ f n2 =
⇒ 2mR2 q + kR 2q = 0 150 2 + 250 2
 k  150 × 250
⇒ q = −   q → SHM ⇒ fn =
 2m  150 2 + 250 2
⇒ w2 =
k = 128.624 Hz
n 2m = 128.624 × 60
k ∼ 7717 rpm
wn =
2m Hence, the correct option is (D).
38. y = 1
29. Based on conservation of energy
e  w 2
  −1
c
30. As x increases, e is greater than 1 w 

w Hence, the correct option is (B).
when < 2 but becomes less than 1
wn 39. Amplitude = 1.25 cm → P matches with 2 frequency =
w w 5
when > 2 ⇒ (iii ) is not correct = cycles / s → Q matches with 1.
wn 2p 2p
p
Hence, the correct option is (B). Initial phase angle = rad → R matches with 4
6
31. Critical damping and over damping will not result in periodic
motion. 1 2p
Time period = = → S matches with 3
Hence, the correct option is (A). frequency 5
32. Fd = cv ⇒ Fd ∝ velocity Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 40. Given W = 4000 N
33. This is a case of forced vibration with exciter frequency (= W 4000
→m= = = 407.75 kg
engine frequency) being 80 rad/s. Hence, the system will g 9.81
vibrate at the exciter frequency of 80 rad/s
Hence, the correct option is (A). d = 90 mm = 0.09 m
34. The bar can be treated as a spring of mass Ms. For longitudinal L = 1200 mm = 1.2 m
rd
G = 0.8 ×105 N/mm2 = 0.8 × 105× 106 N/m2
vibration, 1 of the mass of spring is to be considered.
3 = 80 × 109 N/m2
k = 300 mm = 0.3 m
35. The standard equation is mx + cx + sx = 0
p p
J = d 4 = × ( 0.09 )
4
Ns 32 32
⇒ m = 3 kg, c = 9 , s = 27 N /m
m = 6.441 × 10– 6 m4
Ns
cc = 2 ms = 2 × 3 × 27 = 18 q = torsional stiffness of shaft
m
c 9 GJ
x = = = 0.5 =
cc 18 L
80 × 10 9 × 6.441 × 10 −6
2px 2p × 0.5 =
d= = 1.2
1− x2 1 − 0.52
= 429, 400 N m/rad
p
= = 3.63 I = mass moment of inertia
0.75
Hence, the correct option is (C). = mk2
36. wc = wn for transverse vibrations = 407.75 × 0.32
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 36.6975 kg m2
37. f n = 150 Hz;
1 q 1 429400
∴ fn = = = 17.22 Hz
1
f n = 250 Hz 2p I 2p 36.6975
2
As per Dunkerley’s rule; Hence, the correct option is (B).

1 1 1 1 1
2
= 2 + 2 = +
f n f n f n 150 2
250 2
1 2

03_Hints 4/27/2019 10:58:21
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13:01:39
3.116 | Part III of
Previous Years’ Questions We know that, C = 2xw

n
1. Given: x=0 M
∴ Critically damped i.e., x = 1
w C
= 0.5 ∴ = 2xw n
wn M
Transmissibility, ⇒ C = 20 × 2 × 31.25
2
= 1250 Ns/m
 2xw  Hence, the correct option is (A).
1+ 
 w 
 n  4. Hence, the correct option is (C).
∈=
  w    2xw 
2
2
2 5. Given: Mass, m = 0.1 kg
1 −    +  Stiffness, k = 100 N/m
  w n    w n 
  Damped frequency, wd = 0.9wn
⇒ ∈ = 1 4 We know that, w d = 1 − x 2 w n
=
1 − (0.5) 2 3 x = Damping factor
wn = Natural frequency ⇒ x =0.436
2. C
k We know that = 2xw n
y F M
C = Damping coefficient
150 mm 1000
∴ C = 2 × 0.436 × 0.1 × = 8.7 NS
F = Force (N) 0.1 m
x
W k = Stiffness (N/m) Hence, the correct option is (C).
θ 150 mm 6. x
W 2 kg δ = [x + 100 mm]
h 200 mm
O k 22 kg
100 mm
Let us consider the rod in deflected condition.
From similar ∆ we get
Let h be the free length of spring and k be the stiffness of the
x y y
= ⇒ =2 spring.
150 300 x
Taking moment from O we get Force (F) = Deflection (d ) × stiffness (k)
W × x = F × 0.3 When 2 kg pan resting on spring
∴ Force = Stiffness × Deflection F = 2 × 9.81 = 19.62 N
∴F=k×y F = x × k ⇒ 19.62 = x × k → (1)
∴ W × x = k × y × 0.3 When 20 kg mass is placed on the pan, total mass on spring is
x 1 (2 + 20) kg
⇒ k = 300 × ×
y 0.3 F = (22 × 9.81) = 215.82 N
⇒ k = 500 N/m F = d × k ⇒ 215.82 = (x + 0.1) × k
Hence, the correct option is (C). 19.62
From equation (1), k =
g x
3. We know that wn = 1.962
∆ ∴ ( x + 0.1) × = 215.82
x
MgL3
Here, ∆ = 1.962
2El ⇒ 19.62 + = 215.82
x
0.0254
I= ⇒ x = 0.01 m = 10 mm
12
∴ Underformed length = h = 200 + 10
20 × 9.81 × 13 × 12
∴∆= = 0.01 m = 210 mm
3 × 200 × 10 9 × 0.0254
1.962 N
9.81 =
From equation (1), k = 1962
∴w n = = 31.25 rad /sec x m
0.01 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Unit 03.indd
03_Hints 4/27/2019 10:58:25
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13:01:42 Chap
3.41
7. x 15
y ⇒x = = 0.0671
2 1000 × 12.5
k 2p × 0.0671
m ∴d = = 0.422
1 − 0.06712
Differential equation governing the above vibration system is Hence, the correct option is (None).
given by 11. For under-damped harmonic oscillator, resonance occurs when
md 2 x  dx dy  wd = wn
+ c  −  + kx = 0
dt 2  dt dt  Hence, the correct option is (C).
. . 12. Equivalent stiffness of the system
⇒ mx¨ + c [ x − y ] + kx = 0
1 1 1
Hence, the correct option is (C). = +
k eq k k k
8. Given: Mass, m = 250 kg +
2 2
Stiffness, k = 100 × 103 N/m ⇒ keq = k/2
Speed, N = 3600 rpm k eq
k
Natural frequency, wn = =
Damping factor, x = 0.15 m 2m
k 100 × 103 13. Hence, the correct option is (A).
wn = = = 20 rad /sec
m 250
14. Springs are in parallel combination.
2p N 2p × 3600 ∴ keq = k1 + k2 = (4000 + 1600) N/m
w= = = 377 rad /s
60 60 ⇒ keq = 5600 N/m
Transmissibility ratio, 1 K eq
Natural frequency, f =
2
2p m
 2xw 
1+ 
 w  ⇒f =
1 5600
 n  2p 1.4
∈=
2 2
 w   2xw  ⇒ f = 10 Hz
1 −    +   Hence, the correct option is (B).
  w n    w n 
15. 1m
2
 2 × 0.15 × 377  O
1+  
 20 
⇒∈= 2 2
  377    2 × 0.15 × 377  k = 300 N/m
1 −  20   +  20 
    
⇒ ∈ = 0.0162 Static Free body diagram

9. Given: m = 12.5 kg Nm-1 Nm-1
s = 1000 N/m
C = 15 N - s/m
C Fs = Spring force and mg = weight of the rod
We know that, = 2xw n
m →
Critical damping means x = 1 ∑F y
= 0 ⇒ [Fs – mg] = 0
∴ Critical damping coefficient, Cc = 2m × wn ΣMo = 0 ⇒ Fs = 0 __________ (1)
1000 Dynamic Free body diagram
⇒ Cc = 2 × 12.5 ×
12.5 Fs + 0.5k θ
⇒ Cc = 223.6 N-s/m
Hence, the correct option is (D). 0.5 m O 0.5 m
10. Logarithmic decrement, d = In (e xw n Td

) 0.5 θ
..
2px mg θ .
or d = θ
1 − x2
ΣMo = Io a
C C
Now x = ⇒x = ⇒ (0.5kq) × 0.5 = Io(– q )
2 mw n 2 sm
⇒ 0.52 kq + I q = 0
o

03_Hints 4/27/2019 10:58:28
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13:01:45
3.118 | Part III of
0.52 k 0.52 × 300 ×12 Fo

∴w n = = A= s
Io 1×13
 w 
2

1 −   
⇒ wn = 30 rad/s   w n 
Hence, the correct option is (C).   
16. At w = wn, the deflection is infinitely large (resonance occurs) S 3000
wn = =
and the speed w is the critical speed m m
g 9.81 F = F0 cos (wt) N; F = 100 cos (100t) N
∴ wC = wN = =
∆ ( × 10−3 )
1 . 8 ∴ F0 = 100 N; w = 100 rad/sec
⇒ wC = 73.8241 rad/sec 100 / 3000
0.05 =
  100 m  2 
2pN 1 −   
= wc   3000  
60  
73.8241 × 60 m = 0.1 kg
⇒N= = 705 rpm
2×p Hence, the correct option is (A).
20. m = 1 kg
17. Given S = 3.6 kN/m
K=k+k=2k
C = 400 N-s/m
= 2 × 20000 N/m
m = 50 kg
= 40,000 N/m
Damping factor,
1 40000
C 400 f= = 32 Hz
d= = 2p 1
2 Sm 2 3.6 × 103 × 50
⇒ d = 0.4714
1 2 1 1
Natural frequency, 21. Energy, E = kx + mv 2 + I w 2
2 2 2
S 3.6 × 103
wn = = = 8.4853 rad 1 2 1 1  mr 2  v 2
m 50 sec ⇒E= kx + mv 2 +  ×
2 2 2  2  r 2
Damped natural frequency,
1 2 3
wd =  1 − d 2  w n ⇒E= kx + mv 2
  2 4
⇒ w d =  1 − 0.4714 2  × 8.4853 dE 1 dx 3 dv
  = 0 ⇒ k ( 2x ) + m ( 2v ) =0
dt 2 dt 4 dt
⇒ wd = 7.4833 rad
sec 1 3 dv  dx 
⇒ k ( 2x ) + m ( 2 ) = 0 ∴V = 
w 7.4833 2 4 dt  dt 
= d
or fd= = 1.19 Hz
2p 2p 3
⇒ mx¨ + kx = 0
18. Natural frequency does not depend on acceleration due to 1 2k
∴w n =
gravity (g) 2p 3m
s Hence, the correct option is (C).
wn =
m
s = spring constant (N/m) 22.
F = kx
m = mass (kg)
∴Natural frequency of spring mass system in moon is same
as of in earth Lθ θ
2 Lθ
(wn)earth = (wn)moon = wn
Fo Energy is constant
19. Amplitude = s
PE + KE = Constant
2
  w  2   2xw  2
1 −    +  1 1
  w n    w n  k ( 2Lq)2 + m(L q )2 = C
  2 2
1
No damping ; z = 0 2 kL q +
2 2
mL2 q 2 = C
2
Unit 03.indd
03_Hints 4/27/2019 10:58:33
27/04/2017 AM
13:01:48 Chap
3.43
By differentiating 1
27. Transmissibility, T =
1    
2
= 2 k L2 ( 2q q ) + mL2 (2 q q ) = 0 ± 1 −  w  
1
2   w n  
2 k L2 2q . q = mL2 2 q q
2 w 
2
4 kL2 q = m L2 q For small excitation   tends to zero.

w
∴T is nearly unity  n 
4kq = m q
w
4k When = 2 ⇒ T = 1.
q = q wn
m
w
4k When = 1 ⇒ T = ∞.
w = wn
m Hence, the correct option is (B).
28.
23. As these are two nodes it is the case of fundamental frequen-
1800 k1
cies of =
2 k2
= 900 rpm.
p2 m
24. K.E = where p = momentum.
2m
P = F × t = 5000 × 10–4 = 0.5 N sec.
p2 1 2
= kx ; m = 1
2m 2
∴ (0.5)2 = kx2, x = 5 mm The system is equivalent to the system shown above
Hence, the correct option is (C). Equivalent stiffness of the springs ke = k1 + k2
ke
26. Natural frequency = rad/s
m
k k1 + k 2
= .
m
k Hence, the correct option is (D).
A L/3
x1 θ C 2L/3 29. The vector diagram is as follows
θ x2
B
kx F0 x
Lq 2L
x1 = , x2 = q φ
3 3
cωx ωt
Lq 2kLq
F1 = k , F2 =
3 3 mω 2x
L L 2L 2L
Torque T = kq × + kq ×
3 3 3 3
The phase angle of displacement with respect to exiting force is
1 4  5
= kq L2  +  = k qL2 Cw
9 9 9 f = tan–1
k − mw 2
2
mL 2
L L mL2 mL2 mL2 At resonance, vector diagram becomes a rectangle. F0 com-
I0 = + m −  = + = pletely balances the damping force cw x and f becomes 90°.
12  2 3  12 36 9
mL2 5 2  5k 
q + kL q = 0 ⇒ q +  q = 0 C C
9 9 m  30. Damping ratio = =
C C 2 mw n
5k 5k
∴wn2 = ⇒ wn = . =
C 25
= 1.25
m m =
2 sm 2 100 × 1
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (1.24 to 1.25).

03_Hints 4/27/2019 10:58:37
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13:01:52
3.120 | Part III of
31. Maximum acceleration

••  kr 2 
amax = Aw2 ⇒ θ+ θ=0
 m ( 2r ) 
2
where A = amplitude
••
w = angular velocity = 2pf
Comparing with equation x + ω 2n x = 0
∴ amax = A(2pf)2
10 kr 2 400
= ( 2p × 4 )
2
∴ ωn = =
1000 m × 4r 2 4
= 6.32 m/s2
Hence, the correct option is (6.3 to 6.4). Hence, the correct option is (D).
32. Mass m = 2 kg 34. Given:
Stiffness s = 8 N/m f = 60 Hz or w = (2p × 60) rad/sec
Viscous damping ratio x = 0.02 Transmissibility, ∈ = 0.05; mass, m = 1 kg
Exitation frequency w = 1.5 rad/s No damping therefore ξ = 0
∴
Natural frequency wn =
s
=
8
= 2 rad/s
1
Now ∈ =
m 2   ω 2

Magnification factor (MF) ± 1 −   
  ω n  
1
=
(1 − r ) + ( 2xr )
2 2 2
1
⇒ 0.05 =
  ω 2
w 1.5
where r = = = 0.75 − 1 −   
wn 2   ω n  
1
∴ MF =
⇒ − 1+
( 2π × 60)2 = 1
(1 − 0.75 ) + ( 2 × 0.02 × 0.75)
2 2 2
ω 2
n 0.05
= 2.28
S
⇒ ω 2n = ( 2π × 60) 21⇒ ω 2n =
2
Hence, the correct option is (2 to 2.4). = 6767.73
m
33. Static Free Body Diagram
Fs
⇒ S = 6767.73 × m
r O 2r ⇒ S = 6767.73 N/m
Hence, the correct answer is [6750 to 7150].
mg 35. Critical damping coefficient, CC = 2 × wn × m
ΣMo = 0 ⇒ mg(2r) + FS(r) = 0 (1) or CC = 2 km = 0.1 kg/s
Dynamic Free Body Diagram Now m1 = 2m, k1 = 8k
Fs  k(θr) (CC)1 = 2 k1m1 = 2 2m ( 8k )
θ O 2r
r θ
⇒ (CC)1 = (2 km ) × 4 = 4 CC
. ⇒ (CC)1 = 4 × 0.1 = 0.4 kg/s
θ ..
θ Hence, the correct answer is 0.38 to 0.42.
mg
36. Given: F0 = 10 N, k = 150 N/m, ξ = 0.2,
  ••
 •• wn = 10w
ΣMo = I  − θ ⇒ [FS = k(θr)]r + mg(2r) = I  − θ
   
Fo k
Amplitude, A =
 •• 2 2 2
⇒ FS(r) + kr2(θ) + mg(2r) = I  − θ
    ω    2ξω 
1 −    + 
  10ω    ω n 
From equation (1), FS(r) + mg(2r) = 0
10 150
•• ⇒ A=
∴ I θ + (kr2) θ = 0 2
  ω  2   2 × 0.2 × ω  2
•• 1 −    + 
⇒ m (2r)2 θ + Kr2 θ = 0   10ω    10ω 
Unit 03.indd
03_Hints 4/27/2019 10:58:43
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13:01:56 Chap
3.45
10 150 ⇒ m(2a)2 ••
θ + k(a ) θ = 0
2
⇒ A=
2 2
 1   2 × 0.2 
1 − 100  +  10   ka 2 
    ⇒ ••
θ  4 ma 2  θ = 0
+
⇒ A = 0.067 m or A = 0.07 m  
Hence, the correct option is (B). ∴ wn = k or f = 1 k
37. Critical damping brings the system to the posi- 4m
n
2 π 4 m
tion of rest in the shortest possible time without any Hence, the correct option is (A).
oscillations. 39. At resonance, w = wn
2πξ
Logarithmic decrement is given by d =
1− ξ2 Fo K
It depends only on damping ratio. Xo =
2
Frictional force is in the opposite direction of the rela-   ω 2  ω 
2
1−   + 2 ξ
tive motion and is given by F = µR   ω n    ω 
n
Where R is the resisting force.
In an viscous damping system with laminar flow, piston 100 10 4
=
rod with small dia, perfect fluid, laminar flow in the 2 × 0.25
clearance and piston and cylinder being concentric the
damping coefficient, is given by = 0.02 m
12µ AP l = 20 mm
C = . Hence, the correct answer is 20.
π Dm e 3
µ = coefficient of viscosity of the fluid. 40.
M, J
e = clearance
l = length of piston
d
AP = Area of flat side of the piston.
Hence, the correct option is (C). a θ y
38. Static free body diagram
FS
I
O P
a Q a Solid disc rotates about point, applying torque equation.
mg
Let θ be angular deflection of disc
ΣMo = 0 ⇒ –mg(2a) + Fs(a) = 0 (1) x = rθ; r = a + d
Dynamic free body diagram
I = ma 2 /2 + ma 2 = 3/2ma 2
FS + k θ (a)
O
a a I
θ + kxy = 0
θ
3 2
ma θ + k ( a + d ) 2 θ = 0
2
θ θ
2k ( a + d )
2
mg
wn =
ΣMo = Io  − θ ⇒ -mg(2a) + [FS + kθ(a)]a
••
3ma 2
 
= Io  − θ
••
41. For critically damped system q = qc = 2 km.
 
  ••
⇒ mg(2a) + FS(a) + kθ(a2) = Io  − θ
  42. (see figure)
 ••

⇒ 0 + Io  θ + k θ(a ) = 0 [From equation (1)]
2
Using energy method
 

03_Hints 4/27/2019 10:58:47
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13:02:00
2 2 2
1  Mr 2  2 1 1 wn = k/m
= θ + m ( rθ ) 2 = k ( rθ) 2
2  2  2 2 magnification factor
dE 1  Mr 1
) + kr 2 ( 2θθ ) 
2
=  + mr 2 ( 2θθ
× 2θθ =
dt 2 2   ω 2
2 2
1 − +  2ξ ω 
3.122 = 0 of
| Part III
Unit 3 • Theory of Machine, Vibrations and Design   ωn    ωn 
 
Mr 2 43. m = 1 kg
dE θ + mr 2
θ + kr 2 θ = 0 1 1
2= 0 =± =±
dt S = 1 mm 2 1 − 3
= 1 2−  ω 
 M  g 10 m/s  ω n
m+ θ + kθ = 0 r B
 2 wn = ?
= 1/2
k 1500 g
(Neglecting 10 sign)
–ve
wn = ω n = = wn = = = 100 rad/s
m + M/2k 5 + 10 × 10 −3 answer is 0.5.
δ the 1correct
Hence,
= 10 rad/s A 45. For a viscously
Hence, damped
the correct answerspring
is 100.mass system g overned
Hence, the correct answer is 10. by equation
44. Given w = 3k/m
d2x dx
1 1 1 k m 2 + c + kx = F (t )
E = I ω 2 + mv 2 + kx 2 dt dt M F sin ωt
2 o 2 2 Damping ratio,
1  Mr 2  2 1 1 wn = k/m C
= θ + m ( rθ ) 2 = k ( rθ) 2 ∑=
2  2  2 2 2mωn
magnification factor
dE 1  Mr k 1
) + kr 2 ( 2θθ ) 
2
=  + mr 2 ( 2θθ
× 2θθ = ωn =
dt 2 2   ω 2
m 2 2
1 − +  2ξ ω 
C
 ∑ = ω n   ωn 
=0   
2 2 km
Mr
θ + mr 2
θ + kr 2 θ = 0 Hence, the correct 1 option is (B). 1
2 =± =±
46. Take mass moment 2
of 1
inertia− 3
about point “0”,
1−  ω 
 M  Ml 2 ω n ⎛ l l⎞
2
⎛ 2l ⎞
2
m+ θ + kθ = 0 I= + M ⎜ − ⎟ + m⎜ ⎟
 2 ⎝ 2 3⎠ ⎝ 3⎠
= 1/2 12
k 1500 Ml 2 Ml 2 M 4l 2
wn = ω n = = (Neglecting
= –ve+ sign) + ×
m + M/2 5 + 10 Hence, the correct answer4 is 0.5.
12 36 9
2 2
4 Ml 2
Ml Ml
= 10 rad/s = + +
f Machine, Vibrations and Design 122 36 36
2 Ml 2
43. m = 1 kg I=
9
S = 1 mm Torque balance about O,
g = 10 m/s2 2 L ⎛ 2 Lθ ⎞ L ⎛ Lθ ⎞
Iα= k × ×⎜ ⎟ + k × × ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
wn = ? 3 ⎝ 3 ⎠ 3 3
g 10 4 L2 k θ kL2 θ
wn = = = 100 rad/s Iα= +
δ 1× 10 −3 9 9
Chapter 03_Hints & Solutions.indd 122
5 L2 k θ 27/04/2017 13:02:03
Hence, the correct answer is 100. Iα=

9
44. Given w = 3k/m 2 ML d 2 θ 5 L2 k θ
2
k × 2 =
M F sin ωt 9 dt 9
d 2 θ 5k θ
=
1 wn = k/m dt 2 2 M
k ( rθ) 2
2 magnification factor 5k
ω2n θ = θ
1 2M
 =
+ kr 2 ( 2θθ )  5k
  ω 2
2 2 ∴ ωn =
 ω  2M
 1 −  ω n   +  2ξ ω n 
  Hence, the correct option is (B).
1 1
=± =±
2 1− 3
1−  ω 
 ωn 
= 1/2
(Neglecting –ve sign)
Unit 03.indd
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13:02:03
47. As springs are in parallel x = 0 [ No damping]

K eq = K1 + K 2 = K + K = 2 K Transmissibility:
2
K eq 2K ⎛ 2ξω ⎞
∴ω = = 1+ ⎜ ⎟
m m ⎝ ωn ⎠
T =
2
Hence, the correct option is (A) ⎡ ⎛ ω ⎞2 ⎤ ⎡ 2ξω ⎤ 2
48. ⎢1 − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ +⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎝ ωn ⎠ ⎥⎦ ⎣ ωn ⎦

a
1
u T =
2
G ⎡ ⎛ ω ⎞2 ⎤
⎢1 − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎝ ωn ⎠ ⎥⎦

mg
1 1
T = =
By displacing rod by small angle θ in clockwise
2 1
⎛ 1⎞ 1−
direction ⎜1 − 4 ⎟ 4
⋅⋅ ⎝ ⎠
I θ + mga sin θ = 0
4
As θ is small so sin θ ≅ θ T =
3
⋅⋅
∴ I θ + mgaθ = 0 Ft
T =
Comparing with standard equation F0

mga mga ga 9.81 × 0.25 4
ω2n = = = = Ft = 50 × = 66.666 N
I mk 2 k 2 (0.1)2 3
Force from each mount
rad
⇒ ω2n = 245.25 ⇒ ωn = 15.66 Ft 66.666
s = = = 33.33 N
Hence, the correct answer is 15 to 16. 2 2
49. Mx + Kx = Fcos(wt) Hence, the correct answer is 33.33.
K 48. Transmissibility,
Resonance occurs when w = wn =
M
⎛ 2ξω ⎞
Hence, the correct option is (D). 1+ ⎜ ⎟
⎝ ωn ⎠
50. m = 200 kg, K = 10 kN/m ∈=
2
⎡ ⎡ ω ⎤ 2 ⎤ ⎡ 2ξω ⎤ 2
K = 10000 N/m ⎢1 − ⎢ ⎥ ⎥ + ⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎣ ωn ⎦ ⎥⎦ ⎣ ωn ⎦
Keq = K + K = 10000 + 10000
Keq = 20000 N/m If additional damper is added parallelly,
F(t) = 50cos5t Then damping will increase.
Transmissibility x will increase.
F0 = 50N
w = 5 rad/s wd = 1 − ξ 2 × ωn
K eq 20000 wd will decrease because x 2 will increase.
wn = =
m 200
2π
T=
wn = 100 = 10 rad/s ωd
ω 5 1 \ Time period will increase.

= =
ωn 10 2 Hence, the correct option is (C).

Unit 03.indd 47 4/27/2019 10:58:58 AM

CHapter 4 tHeories of failure, statiC and dynamiC loading
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 (Se)a = 0.8 Se = 0.8 (158.26) = 126.6 N/mm2
1. Sut = 600 N/mm2, Syt = 450 N/mm2 (S )e a

=
126.6
= 63.5 N/mm 2
sa =
Se = 225 N/mm , smax = 95 N/mm
2 2 FOS 2
smin = 45 N/mm2 Hence, the correct option is (B).

The mean stress is p 
8. Pa =  d 2  s a
( 95 + 45) 4 
sm = = 70 N/mm 2
2 p 
100 × 103 =  d 2  63.5
Hence, the correct option is (B). 4 
Diameter of the rod, d = 44.78 mm.
2. Stress amplitude = sa
= ( 95 − 45) = 25 N/mm2
2 9. 10 mm thick
3. Sa = n, sa = 25 n
Sm = n, sm = 70 n
10 kN
where n is the factor of safety. 40 mm
10 kN
Using Gerber theory, 10 mm φ
2
sa  sm  1
+  n=
Se  Sut  n
10 × 103
2 Nominal stress = = 25 N/mm2
25  70 n  40 × 10
n+  =1
225  600  But Kt = 2.5
n + 8.16 n – 73.47 = 0
2 ∴ Maximum stress = 25 × 2.5 = 62.5 MPa.
Solving the above quadratic equation Hence, the correct option is (A).
n = 5.41. 10. In static loading, the stress concentration is very serious for
Hence, the correct option is (A). brittle materials and is less serious for ductile materials owing
4. FOS by Soderberg line to relief of stress concentration by plastic flow. In cyclic load-
ing, stress concentration is very serious for ductile materials.
sa sm 1
+ = Hence, the correct option is (B).
Se S yt n
 25 n   70 n  2000 − 800
11. Mean torque is = 600 Nm
  +  =1 2
225   450 
n = 3.75. = 600 × 103 N mm
Hence, the correct option is (C). ∴Mean shear stress
5. FOS by Goodman line 16Tm 16 × 600 × 103
fm = = = 24.5 N/mm2
sa sm 1 pd 3 p × 503
+ =
Se S ut n 2000 + 800
Variable torque is
 25 n   70 n  2
  +  =1 = 1400 N m = 1400 × 103 Nmm
225   600 
n = 4.39. The variable shear stress is
Hence, the correct option is (D). 16Tv 16 × 1400 × 103
fv = = = 57 N/mm2.
6. Given Pa = ± 100 kN pd 3
p × ( 50 )
3
Sut = 550 N/mm2

FOS = 2 R = 95%
12. According to Soderberg relation
Endurance limit stress of the rod
sm k fsv 1
S ′e = 0.5 Sut = 0.5 (550) = 275 N/mm2 + =
Sy Se FOS
Ka = 0.78, Kb = 0.85, Kc = 0.868
Se = Ka Kb Kc × S ′e 24.5 1.32 × 57 1
+ =
= 0.78 × 0.85 × 0.868 × 275 = 158.26 N/mm . 2 510 0.25 × 630 FOS
i.e. 0.048 + 0.478 =
7. Permissible stress amplitude FOS
Unit 03.indd 48 4/27/2019 10:59:05 AM Chap

sm sv 1
∴ FOS = 1.90 18. Goodman’s relation is + =
Su Se FOS
13. Given sm = 150 MPa, sv = 50 MPa,
⇒
0.03819 P
750
+
0.0229 P
=
330 × 0.9 × 0.85 1.3
1
(
∵ Se = ka kb Se′ )
Su = 630 MPa, Se = 150 MPa, Sy = 350 MPa 1
5.09 × 10−5 P + 9.07 × 10−5 P = ,
sm sv 1.3
1 1
As per Goodman’s line, + = 14.16 × 10−5 P =
Su Se FOS 1.3
150 50 1
+ = ∴ P = 5432 N = 5.432 kN
630 150 FOS
1
i.e. 0.238 + 0.333 =
FOS sm sv 1
19. Soderberg criterion is + =
∴ FS = 1.75. Sy Se FOS
Hence, the correct option is (B). 0.03819 P 0.0229 P 1
+ = ,
14. Soderberg criteria 600 330 × 0.9 × 0.85 1.3
1
sm sv 1 150 50 1 i.e. 6.365 × 10−5 P + 9.07 × 10−5 P =
+ = ; + = 1.3
Sy Se FOS 350 150 FOS 1
i.e. 15.435 × 10−5 P = , P = 4984 N
1 1.3
i.e. 0.428 + 0.333 = ; FOS = 1.3.
FOS = 4.984 kN
2a 
sm sv 1 20. sm = s 1 +  , when a is transverse to direction of stress
15. + = ;  b 
Sy Se × 0.89 × 0.85 FOS
and b is along direction of stress
1
0.428 + 0.440 = , FOS = 1.15  b
FOS ∴ sm = s 1 + 2  for the given loading as per figure.
 a
Hence, the correct option is (C).  a
 a 
WL 1 + 2 33 
16. BM = = s 1 + 2 a 
4  a

 
4 P × 750  2 5
BMmax = = 750 P = s 1 +  = s
4  3 3
P × 750 sm 5
BMmin = = 187.5 P = Kt =
4 s 3
750 P + 187.5 P
Mean BM(Mm) = = 468.75 P 21. kf = 1 + q (kt −1)
2
= 1 + 0.8(2.35 – 1) = 2.08
750 P − 187.5 P k a × kb × k c
Variable BM(Mv) = = 281.25 P. Se = Permissible stress = Se′ ×
2 k f × FOS
Mean bending stress
0.67 × 0.85 × 0.897
= 0.5 × 440 ×
Mm468.75 P P 2.08 × 2
sm = = = 0.03819 P =
Z pd 3 26 P
= 27.02 MPa =
32 (b − d ) t
Hence, the correct option is (D). 15 × 103
=
17. sv = Variable bending stress (60 − 12) × t
⇒ t = 11.57 mm
Mv 281.25 P
= = Hence, the correct answer is 12 mm.
Z d3 P
p
32 22. Tensile stress s =
A
P 40 × 103
= 0.0229 P = =
( 20 )
2
43 p×
400
= = 127.32 N/mm 2
p
3:02:30
Unit 03.indd
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13:02:34
3.50 | Theory of Machine, Vibrations and Design • Theories of Failure, Static and Dynamic Loading | 3.125
Chapter 4
16T Equivalent stresses

Shear stress t =
pd 3 sme = s 12m + s 22m − s 1ms 2 m
16T
= = 6.37 × 10 −4 T N/mm 2
( 250 ) × 2 − ( 250 )
2 2
p × ( 20 ) =
3
Maximum shear stress = 250 MPa
s 
2 s ae = s 1a 2 + s 2 a 2 − s 1a .s 2 a
tmax =   + t 2
2 = 100 2 × 2 − 100 2 = 100 MPa
2 As per Goodman’s equation,
 127.32 
 + ( 6.37 × 10 ) T
−4 2 2
=  s ae s me 1
 2  + =
Se Sut FOS
S yt
2 (As per maximum shear stress theory) 100 250 1
= + =
FOS 400 800 FOS
310 ⇒ FOS = 1.778
= 2 = 77.5 N/mm2
2 25. For the same stress, area of cross section will be same.
∴ 4052.6 + 40.58 × 10–8 T 2 = (77.5)2 p ( 50 )
2
⇒ T = 6.94 × 104 N mm = 69.4 N m ∴ a2 =

4
Hence, the correct answer is 69.4 N m. ⇒ a = 44.31 mm
23. s = 60 MPa Hence, the correct option is (A).
t = 40 MPa; Syt = 320 MPa
26. q =
(k f
−1 )
Maximum principal stress
(k t
− 1)
s s 
2
= +   +t2
2 2 27. When subjected pure torsional moment,
2 s1 = t 2 = t
60  60 
+   + ( 40 ) = 80 MPa
2
=
2  2  s 2 = − t 2 = −t
S yt tmax = t 2 = t
= (As per maximum principal stress theory)
FOS Applying Von-mises theory.
320 Sy
∴ = 80 = s 12 + s 22 − s 1s 2
FOS N
320 where N = FOS
⇒ FOS = =4
80
300
(120 ) + ( −120 ) + (120 ) = 207.85
2 2 2
Hence, the correct option is (D). =
N
24. For thin spherical vessel, 300
⇒N= = 1.443.
pd 207.85
s1 = s2 = Hence, the correct option is (A).
4t
s1 max = s 2 max 28. For brittle materials, the most appropriate theory of failure is
the maximum principal stress theory.
7 × 200 Hence, the correct option is (B).
= = 350 N/mm2
4 ×1
29. p = 700 N/cm2
= 350 MPa
= 7 N/mm2
s1 min = s2 min
Syt = 23000 N/cm2
3 × 200 = 230 N/mm2
= = 150 MPa
4 ×1 d = 250 mm
350 + 150 FOS = 2.5
Mean stress, s1m = = 250 MPa = s2m
2 permissible stress
(350 − 150) S yt 230
Similarly, s1a = s2a = = 100 MPa s= = = 92 N/mm2
2 FOS 2.5
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13:02:37 Chap
pd Joint efficiency h = 75%

wall thickness t =
2s
= 0.75
7 × 250
= = 9.51 mm ≈ 10 mm pd
2 × 92 For spherical vessel, t =
4sh
1.5 × 1200
30. d = 1.2 m = 1200 mm =
4 × 62.5 × 0.75
p = 1.5 MPa
= 9.6 mm ≈ 10 mm.
= 1.5 N/mm2
Permissible stress s = 62.5 N/mm2
Practice Problems 2 16 × 106 

= 50 + 50 2 + 10 2 
pd 3 pd 3  
1. Torque carrying capacity (T ) = t
16 514.33884 × 106
= N/mm2
∝d 3
d3
pd 2 According to maximum principal stress theory,
Weight (W) = ×L×w
4
∝d 2 514.33884 × 106 S 200
= yt =
T d3 d3 FOS 2
∴ ∝ 2
W d ⇒ d3 = 5.1433884 × 106
T ⇒ d = 172.6 mm.
i.e. ∝d
W
2. Let t be the thickness of the plate 5. Minimum principal stress is
Cross section area along the centre of the hole = (100 − 10)t 16 
p2 = M − M2 +T2 
= 90 t pd 3  
Nominal stress at the minimum cross section 16 
= 50 × 106 − 106 50 2 + 10 2 
100 t pd 3  
s = 90 × = 100 N/mm2
90 t 16 × 106
Stress concentration factor kt = 1 +
2a = [50 − 50.99]
pd 3
b
=1+2=3 −16 × 0.99 × 106
=
(For circle a = b) pd 3
s max −5.0420285 × 106
kt = = N/mm2
s d3
∴ s max = s × kt p − p2
Maximum shear stress is 1
= 100 × 3 = 300 N/mm2 2
= 300 MPa 259.6904 × 106
=
Hence, the correct option is (C). d3
3. Maximum working stress as per distortion energy theory in According to maximum shear stress theory,
biaxial stress system
 S yt   200 
s max = s 12 + s 2 2 − s 1s 2    
259.6904 × 10  2 = 2 
6
=
= 350 2 + 140 2 − 350 × 140 = 305.12 MPa d 3
FOS 2
Hence, the correct option is (B). ⇒ d = 173 mm
4. The maximum principal stress Hence, the correct option is (A).
16  6. Maximum strain energy theory states that
p1 = M + M2 +T2 
pd 3   2
 S 
16 p12 + p22 − 2 μ p1 p2 =  yt 
= 3 50 × 106 + 106 50 2 + 10 2   FOS 
pd  

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Chapter 4
2 2
 514.33884 × 106   −5.0420285 × 106  1  900 450  200
= + ∴ − = = 6.75 mm
 d 3 
  d3  2  t t  2 × 3
514.33884 × 106 −5.0420285 × 106
−2 × 0.25 × × 11. According to maximum shear strain theory
d 3
d3
2
2  S 
 200  s + s2
2 2
− s 2s 2 =  yt 
=  1
 2   FOS 
2 2
1012  900   450   900 450 
  +  − ×
⇒
d6
[264544.44 + 25.4220513 +  t   t   t t 
2
40000  200 
0.5 × 2593.31] = = 
4  3 
1012 1
⇒ 6 [265866.5171] = 10000 i.e. [9002 + 4502 − 900 × 450]
d t2
⇒ d 6 = 108 [265866.5171] 40000
=
⇒ d = 172.76 mm 9
= 173 mm ⇒ t = 11.7 mm.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (C).
1
K f −11.42 − 1 0.42 12. M + M 2 + T 2  = M eq
7. q = = = = 0.67 2 
K t − 1 1.63 − 1 0.63
Hence, the correct option is (C). 13. Endurance limit
2A Hence, the correct option is (D).
8. kt = 1 +
B pd pr
14. Principal stresses s 1 = =
= 1 + 2 × 2 = 5. 2t t
Hence, the correct option is (D). pd pr
s2 = =
9. Let t be the thickness of the plate in mm. 4t 2t
s − s2
Circumferential stress, Maximum shear stress = 1
2
pd 1.5 × 1200
s c = s1 = =  pr pr  1 pr
2t 2t = − × = .
900  t 2t  2 4t
= N/mm2
t Hence, the correct option is (D).
Longitudinal stress
dD f1 1 f 2
pd 1.5 × 1200 15. = −
s = s2 = = D E m E
4t 4t
450 pD pD pD  1
= N/mm 2 = − =  2− 
t 2tE 4tEm 4tE  m
Allowable stress in simple tension Hence, the correct option is (D).
200
s= MPa 16. Original area of specimen
3
According to maximum principal stress theory p
A = × 252 = 490.875 mm 2
s1 = s 4
900 200 Extension under load of 15 kN
= , t = 0.0135 mm d L = 0.045 mm
t 3
⇒ t = 13.5 mm PL
But dL =
Hence, the correct option is (A). AE
S yt 15 × 300
200 0.045 =
10. Allowable shear stress = = 490.875 × E
2FOS 2×3
s1 − s 2 15 × 300
Maximum shear stress = ⇒E= kN/mm 2
2 0.045 × 490.875
1  900 450  = 203.7 kN/mm2.
= −
2  t t  Hence, the correct option is (A).
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13:02:46 Chap
17. Load at yield point = 127.65 kN 1

s ya = (80 − 10 ) = 35 N/mm 2
Tensile stress (s) at yielding 2
=
load sm = (s 2
xm
− s xms ym + s 2 ym )
Cross sectional area
127.65 = [70]2 − 70 × 45 + [452 ]
= kN/ mm 2 = 0.26 kN/mm2.
490.875 = 61.44 N/mm 2.
18. Ultimate stress
23. s a = s 2 xa − s xas ya + s 2 ya
maximum load
=
original sectional area = 30 2 + 352 − 30 × 35 = 32.79 N/mm2
208.6 Hence, the correct option is (A).
= = 0.425 kN/mm 2
490.875 s 
24. Stress ratio, Rx =  min 
Hence, the correct option is (B). s 
 max  x
19. Percentage elongation 40
=
= 0.4
L−  100
= × 100  %
Where L = Length of specimen at failure and
= original length of specimen s 
25. Stress ratio, Ry =  min 
s 
375 − 300  max  y
= × 100
300 10
=
= 0.125
75 × 100 80
= = 25%
Hence, the correct option is (B). sa
26. Amplitude ratio =
20. Percentage reduction in area sm
 A − A′  32.79
= × 100  % → (ii) =
= 0.534
 A  61.44
d 2 − d ′2
= × 100
d2 27. Teq = M2 +T2
where d ′ = neck diameter
 252 − 17.752 
=
252  × 100 = 49.59%. 150 + 50
  28. Mean stress sm =
= 100 N/mm2
maximum load
21. Maximum stress = Variable stress or stress amplitude
Cross sectional area
150 − 50
208.6 sa = = 50 N/mm2
= kN/mm 2 = 0.425 kN/mm2 2
490.875 200
FOS = 2 Endurance limit Se =
1.29
maximum stress
Hence safe stress = = 155 N/mm2
2
0.425 Applying Soderberg criterion,
= = 0.212 kN/mm 2
2 sa sm 1
+ =
Hence, the correct option is (D). Se S yt FOS
1 50 100 1
22. s xm = (100 + 40 ) = 70 N/mm 2 ∴ + =
2 155 300 FOS
1 ⇒ FOS = 1.5246 = 1.525.
s xa = (100 − 40 ) = 30 N/mm 2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
2
1 29. Central load on the shaft W
s ym = (80 + 10 ) = 45 N/mm 2 = 1000 + 500 = 1500 N
2

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Chapter 4
Maximum bending moment FB AF

=
WL 1500 × 400 EC AE
= = = 150000 N mm
4 4 FB 2.732 − 2.623 0.109
= =
Bending stress s =
32M (6 − 3) 2.732 − 2.447 0.285
pd 3 ⇒ FB = 1.1474
32 × 150000
= log Nx = log (3 + 1.474)
pd 3
1527.88 × 103 = log 4.474
=
d3 ⇒ Nx = 29785 cycles.
Se Hence, the correct option is (B).
= s × Stress concentration factor
FOS 32. Carbon steel fails by brittle fracture.
280 1527.88 × 103 Hence, the correct option is (A).
⇒ = × 1.85
3 d3 33. Square
⇒ d = 31.17 mm Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct answer is 32 mm. 34. According to distortion energy theory, the maximum stress is
30. log 0.9 × 600 A
10 s = s 12 + s 22 − s 1s 2
= 400 2 + 150 2 − 400 × 150

B
= 350 MPa
log10 Sfx
F Maximum permissible stress
s 350
= = = 116.67 MPa
logSf
FOS 3
log10280 C Hence, the correct option is (B).
E D
35. As per Euler’s equation, crippling load for one end fixed and
other end hinged column is
O 2p 2 EI
3 6
Pcr =
L2
(log10103) (log10106)
log10 200 × 103 where I = moment of inertia
pd 4 p × ( 30 )
4
logN
= =
log10Se = log10280 64 64
= 2.447 E = 200 GPa = 200 × 103 N/mm2
p ( 30 )
4
log 0.9 × Sut = log10 0.9 × 600 = 2.732 2 × p 2 × 200 × 103
∴ Pcr = ×
(800 )
2
log10 200 × 103 = 5.301 64
From similar triangles = 245, 264 N
BDC and AEC, = 245.264 kN
BD DC crippling load
= Factor of safety =
AE EC working load
BD 6 − 5.301 245.264
= = = 6.13
2.732 − 2.447 6−3 40
⇒ BD = 0.0664 Hence, the correct option is (B).
OF = OE +FE 36. As the shaft is rotating, a completely reversed load is acting.
= OE + BD smax = +120 MPa
= 2.447 + 0.0664 = 2.5134 ∴smin = −120 MPa
= log Sfx 120 + ( −120 )
sm = =0
Sfx = 326.14 MPa 2
Hence, the correct option is (A). 120 − ( −120 )
sa = = 120 MPa
31. If Sfx = 420 MPa 2
log Sfx = log 420 As per Soderberg criterien,
= 2.623 sm sa 1
+ =
From similar triangles AFB and AEC Sy Se FOS
Unit 03.indd
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13:02:53 Chap
120 1 Equation of straight line ACB

i.e., 0 + =
200 FOS
y − 1.903 2.699 − 1.903
⇒ FOS = 1.67 = = −0.2653
x−6 3−6
when y = log10100 = 2;
37. Principal stress due to pure torsion
2 − 1.903
s1 = t 2 = t = 150 MPa = −0.2653
x−6
s2 = − t 2 = −t = −150 MPa ⇒ x − 6 = −0.3656
As per maximum distortion energy theory, ⇒ x = 5.6344 = log10N
2
 sy 
(s 12 + s 22 − s 1 s 2 ) =  FOS  Hence, the correct answer is N = 430900 cycles.
 
2
40. Pmin = 15 kN
 320 
= 1502 + 1502 + 1502 =   Pmax = 90 kN
 FOS 
FOS = 1.23 Syt = 240 MPa
Se = 160 MPa
38. As it is a ductile material, Soderberg equation can be applied.
FOS = 2.5
t t 1
i.e., a + m = (15 + 90 )
Se S y FOS sm = where A = area of cross section in mm2
2A
Sy = 300 N/mm2 52.5
200 = kN/mm 2
Se = N/mm2 A
1.3
( 90 − 15)
150 − 50 sa =
ta = = 50 N/mm 2 2A
2
37.5
150 + 50 = kN/mm 2
tm = = 100 N/mm 2 A
2 According to Soderberg principle,
50 100 1
∴ + = sm sa
 200  300 FOS 1
  + =
 1.3  S yt Se FOS
⇒ FOS = 1.519
52.5 × 103 37.5 × 103 1
Hence, the correct option is (B) ∴ + =
A × 240 A × 160 2.5
39. For the completely reversed load,
sa = smax ⇒ A = 1132.8 mm2
= 100 MPa pd 2
=
4
Fatigue strength for 106 cycles
Se = 80 MPa Hence, the correct answer is d ≈ 38 mm.
Fatigue strength for 1000 cycles = 500 MPa s P
41. Longitudinal strain = =
log10 80 = 1.903 E AE
log10 500 = 2.699 60 × 103
=
p
log10 1000 = 3 (122 ) × 2 × 105
4
log10 106 = 6
= 2.6526 × 10−3
log10 100 = 2
lateral strain
Poisson’s ratio =
longitudinal strain
A  dd 
2.699  
i.e., 0.3 =  d 
2.6526 × 10 −3
y C
dd × 103
=
12 × 2.6526
B
1.903 ⇒ dd (change in diameter)
= 9.55 × 10−3 mm
Hence, the correct answer is 9.55 × 10−3 mm.
3 x 6

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Chapter 4
s1 − s 2
42. tmax =
2
200 − ( −100 )
= = 150 MPa
2
Tensile yield strength Syt = 600 MPa
100 m Yield strength in shear
S yt
Ssy = = 300 MPa
2
S sy 300
∴ Factor of safety = = =2
t max 150
2 kN
Total elongation = Elongation due to self weight + Elongation d 1

45. k = =
due to the load D 2
W1L WL For hollow shaft,
= +
2 AE AE 16 Te
tmax =
W = 2 kN = 2000 N pD (1 − k 4 )
3
W1 = weight of the wire

16 M 2 + T 2
=
pd pD 3 (1 − k 4 )
2
= × L × unit weight
4
p 62 16 15000 2 + 25000 2
= × 100 × 10 −6 × 7.7 × 10 4 = 217.71 N =
4   1 4 
pD 3 1 −   
L W1    2  
∴ Total elongation =  +W 
AE  2  16 × 29155
=
pD 3 × 0.9375
100 × 103  217.71 
=  2 + 2000  = 37.3 mm 158384
p
  2 5   =
  6 × 2 × 10 D3
4
S sy
Hence, the correct answer is 37.3 mm. =
FOS
M E
43. = where M = bending moment 158384 350 × 106
I R ∴ =
I = moment of inertia D3 2
100 × 123 ⇒ D = 0.0967 m = 96.7 mm

I= Hence, the correct answer is 96.7 mm.
12
= 14400 mm4 46. For ductile materials maximum shear stress theory is the most
R = 10 m = 10 × 10 mm 3 appropriate.
E = 2 × 105 N/mm2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
M 2 × 105 47. General equation is

=
14400 10 × 103
1
(s 1 − s 2 ) + (s 2 − s 3 ) + (s 3 − s 1 ) +
2 2 2
⇒ M = 288 × 103 N mm = 288 N m Sy 

= 2 
N
Hence, the correct answer is 288 N m. 6 (t 12 + t 2 2 + t 32 ) 
44. Principle stress
s1 = 200 MPa When s2 = s3 = 0 and t2 = t3 = 0
s2 = −100 MPa Sy
= s 2 + 3t 2 .
s3 = 0 N
Maximum shear stress Hence, the correct option is (A).
Unit 03.indd
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13:03:00 Chap
Previous Years’ Questions log10(103) = 3 and log10(106) = 6

1. We know that Let x be the estimated life in cycles which is subjected to an
kf = 1 + q(kt – 1) alternating stress of 100 MPa
k f −1 log10 (106 ) − log10 (103 ) log10 (s ut ) − log10 ( Se )
∴q = ∴ =
k t −1 log10 ( x ) − log10 (103 ) log (s ut ) − log10 (s )
6−3 2.69 − 1.845
2. =
100 SN curve for steel log10 ( x ) − 3 2.69 − 2
ultimate tensile stress)
Failure stress (% of
80 ⇒ log10(x) = 5.45
60 Steel ⇒ x = 105.45 = 281914 cycles

40
Aluminium
6. According to Von-Mises theory, the distortion energy for 3-D
20
state of stress is.
0 1 
(s − s ) + (s 2 − s 3 ) + (s 3 − s 1 ) 
2 2 2
103 104 105 106 107 108 U=
(Number of cycle to failure) 12G  1 2
Hence, the correct option is (C). E
3. 2G =
1+ m
F τ = f (y)
τ=0 (1+ m ) s 12 + s 22 − 2s 1s 2 + s 22 + s 32 
h ∴U =  
h 2 τmax
6 E  − 2 s 2 s 3 + s 32 + s 12 − 2s 3 s 1 
x
(1+ m ) s 1 + s 2 + s 3 − 
2 2 2
b τ=0
⇒U =  
Shear stress (t) is given by 3E (s 1s 2 + s 3s 2 + s 1s 3 ) 
F  h2  Hence, the correct option is (C).

t= − y 2  {Parabolic equation for rectangular cross-
2 I  4  PD
section} 7. Circumferential stress, s c =
4t
t is maximum at y = 0 and P × 0.2
= = 50 P
h 4 × 0.001
t is zero at y =
2 As internal pressure varies from 4 to 8 MPa
F h2
tmax = ∴ s max = ( 50 × 8) = 400 MPa
8I
∴ Transverse shear stress in a beam of rectangular cross s min = ( 50 × 4 ) = 200 MPa
section, subjected to a transverse shear load is variable with
s max + s min 400 + 200
maximum on the neutral axis. Mean stress, s m = =
2 2
⇒ s m = 100 MPa
s max − s min 400 − 200
5. (Stress)σ Amplitude, s a = =
log10(σut) 2 2
⇒ sa = 100 MPa
According to Goodman’s relation
log10(σ) s s  1
 m + a=
log10(Se) s
 ft S 
e 
FOS
 300 100 
= 1 FOS =  + 
log10 (103) log10(x) log10(106) N(Life)  800 400 
⇒ FOS = 1.6
log10 (s ut ) = log10 ( 490 ) = 2.69 Hence, the correct option is (B).
log10 ( Se ) = log10 ( 70 ) = 1.845 Pmax 160

8. s = = = 226.3537 MPa
max
A p
log10 (s) = log10(100) = 2 × 0.032
4

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Chapter 4
Pmin
−40 According to the Soderberg principle
s min = = = −56.6 MPa
p
A s
× 0.32 s  1
4  m + a=
s
 yp S e 
 FOS
Soderberg criterion
sm s  120 × 103 80 × 103  1
+ a =1 ⇒ + =
Sy Se  A × 24010
6
A × 160 × 106  2
FOS FOS ⇒ A = 1000 mm2
sm = Mean stress Hence, the correct option is (D).
s max + s min 226.3537 + ( −56.6 ) 11. In plane Couette flow, shear stress is given by
= =
2 2 u 1 ∂p
t0 = m − b
⇒ sm = 84.9 MPa b 2 ∂x
∂p
sa = Amplitude pressure gradient =0
∂x
s max − s min 226.3537 − ( −56.6 ) u
= = ∴ t0 = m
2 2 b
Ns
⇒ sa = 141.5 MPa m = 0.1 kg/ms = 0.1
m2
 84.9 141.5  u = 10 m/s
∴FOS  + =1
 420 240  d = 100 mm = 0.1 m
⇒ FOS = 1.263 b = 2 mm = 0.002 m
Hence, the correct option is (A). L = 100 mm = 0.1 m
9. P. Maximum Normal stress Frictional resisting force = t0 × A
σ2 u
= m × pdL
b
0.1 × 10
σ1 = × p × 0.1 × 0.1
0.002
= 5p = 15.7 N
Q. Max. Distortion energy 12. Maximum stress amplitude
σ2 s a = 100 MPa
Syt = 300 MPa
σ1 Sut = 500 MPa
Se = 200 MPa
As it is a reversed stress mean stress sm = 0
R. Max. Shear stress As per Soderberg criterian,
σ2 sa sm 1
+ =
Se S yt FOS
σ1 100 1
∴ +0=
200 FOS
⇒ FOS = 2
P – M, Q – N, R – L 13. Maximum shear stress (tmax) = 100 MPa
Hence, the correct option is (C). sx = 0, sy = 0
100 × 103 20 × 103 sx −sy 
2
10. smax = , smin =
A A tmax =   + t 2
 2 
s max + s min
Mean stress, sm = ⇒ t = tmax = 100 MPa
2
120 × 103 sx +sy sx −sy 
2
⇒ sm = s1 = +   + t 2
A 2  2
 
s − s min 80 × 103
Aptitude, sa = max =
2 A =0+ 0 + t 2 = t = 100 MPa
Unit 03.indd
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13:03:07 Chap
2 S ys 100
sx +sy sx −sy  Strength is tension, Syt = =
s2 = −  + t 2 = −t 0.5 0.5
2  2 
⇒ Syt = 200 MPa
= −100 MPa According to Tresca’s maximum shear stress theory,
As per maximum distorsion theory
 σ1 − σ 2  S yt
(s − s 2 ) + (s 2 − s 3 ) + (s 3 − s 1 )
2 2 2
 2  = 2 FOS
1 ( )
2 σ1 = Maximum principal stress and σ2 = Minimum
= Syt /FOS principal stress
2
( 200 ) + (100 ) + ( −100 )  σx + σ y   σx − σ y 
2 2 2
300
= σ1,2 = ±  2  + τ xy
2
2 FOS  2 
⇒ FOS = 1.732
2
Hence, the correct answer is 1.7 to 1.8.  80 + 20   80 − 20 
⇒ σ1, 2 =  ±  2  + 40
2
 2 
14. As per distortion energy criterion, failure condition is
⇒ σ1 = 100 MPa, σ2 = 0
(s ) + (s ) + (s )
2 2 2
x
−sy y
−sz z
−sx = 2f 2
 100 − 0  200
i.e. shear stress is not considered ∴   = ⇒ FOS = 2
 2  2 ( FOS )
As the tensile stresses are identical, both yield
simultaneously
19. According to Von-mises theory
15. Hence, the correct option is (D). Syt = σ12 − σ1σ 2 + σ 22 and, σ1 = –σ2 = τxy and σ3= 0
16. Putting value of σ1 and σ2 we get
1 Soderber
Syt = 3 τ 2xy
2 Goodma
σy
3 Gerber ⇒ Syt = 3τ xy
σe σe − A − σy − Modified Replacing τxy by Ssy we get
A 3
S yt 300
2 Ssy = = = 173.2
1
3 3
σy σu
20.
The most conservative criterion is Soderberg criterion.
MPa
17. Free body diagram of mobile phone σmax
m 1 e ω2
P 0.06 m 0.03 m
σmin
mg
Time
Taking moment about P and equating to zero.
∴ MP = 0 ⇒ (mg × 0.06) – (m1ew2) × 0.09 = 0 σmax = 250 MPa, σmin = 50 MPa
⇒ (0.09 × 9.81 × 0.06) = (0.002 × 0.00219 × w2) × 0.09 σ max − σ min 250 − 50
stress amplitude = = = 100 MPa
2πN 2 2
⇒ w = 366.584 rad/s =
60 σ min 50
Stress ratio = = = 0.2
⇒ N = 3500.6 rpm σ max 250
18. Given: 21. Given
σx = 80 MPa, σy = 20 MPa, txy = 40 MPa, Sys = 100 MPa σ1 = 100 MPa; σ2 = 100 MPa;

04_Hints 4/27/2019 11:00:21
27/04/2017 AM
13:03:10
100 ≤ 200/nT – (1) Sa S
According to Von Mises theory + m =1
200 400
(σ1 – σ2)2 + (σ2 – σ3)2 + (σ3 – σ1)2
2Sa + Sm = 400 (1)
2 2
 S yT   S yT  Equation of line OX,
= 2  = 2 ( σ1 ) 2 = 2 
 nV   nV 
Sa
3.60 | Theory of Machine, Vibrations and Design • Theories of Failure, Static and Dynamic Loading
Chapter 4 = tan θ = 0.5 | 3.135
(2)
= σ1 = SyT /nV (2) Sm
From Equations (1) and (2), we observe
σ3 = 0; SyT = 200 MPa In solving of
Equation Equation
line AB,(1) and (2)
nT = nV
According to Tresca’s theory Sa = 100 MPa, Sa S
Hence, the correct option is (C). S = 200 MPa + m =1
σ1 ≤ SyT /N m Se Sut
22. σmin = 50 MPa
100 ≤ 200/nT – (1) S Sa S
σmax = 150 MPa Now, σa = a + m =1
According to Von Mises theory ( fos) 200 400
σ(σ 1 = 2
)2 +− (σ
– σ150 50 – σ )2 + (σ – σ )2
2 = 503 MPa 3 S 100
= 2Sa=+2Sm = 400 (1)
1 a
a
2 fos =
S 
2
 S yT 
2 σ 50
Equationa of line OX,
150 +yT50 2
σm == 2  n  = =100 2 (σ 1) = 2 
MPa  nV   Hence, the correct option is (D).
2V Sa
= tan θ = 0.5 (2)
Se = 200= σ1MPa,
= SyT /nV (2) 23. Von-mises criterion: Sm
SFrom= 300Equations
MPa (1) and (2), we observe In solving Equation
( σ1 − σ2 )(1)+ and
( σ2 (2)
− σ3 ) + ( σ3 − σ1 )
yt 2 2 2
( )
2
Sut = 400 MPa n = n =
T V Sa =S100
yt MPa,
2
Hence, the σa correct option is (C). Sm = 200 MPa
tan θ = MPa
22. σmin = 50 σm
= 0.5
S yt =
(180 + 100) + (100)2 + (180)2
2
S
σmax = 150 MPa Now, σa = a 2
σa
(
S yt = 245.fos 76 )MPa
150 − 50
σa = = 50 MPa Sa 100
2 θ σa fos Hence, = the = =2
σm
σ a correct
50 answer is 245 to 246.
150 + 50
σmSe =A = 100 MPa Su = 600
24. Hence, theN/mm
2
correct option is (D).
2 x
Sa B Sen = 250 N/mm 2
Se = 200 MPa,
Syt = 300 MPa θ Sen = 250 N/mm2
SutO= 400 MPaSm S yt Sut σ log10S

m
σa log10(0.8Sm) A
tan θ = = 0.5
σm
E (4, log10S)
σa log10(S)
θ σa
σm B
log10Se C D (6, log S )
Se A 10 e
x (4, log10Se)
Sa B
θ
Chapter 4 • Theories of Failure, Static and Dynamic Loading
O Sm S yt Sut σ|m 3.135
3 4 6 log10N
Equation of line AB, = 10 4 , log10 10 4 =4

For N
Sa S
+ m =1 Point C ( 4, log10 Se )
Se Sut
From similar triangles, ΔABD, ΔECD
Sa S
+ m =1 AB BD
Chapter 04_Hints & Solutions.indd 135 200 400 = 27/04/2017 13:03:12
EC CD
2Sa + Sm = 400 (1) log10 (0.8Su ) − log10 ( Se ) 6−3

2
Equation of line OX, =
T log10 S − log10 ( Se ) 6−4

Sa log10 480 − log10 250
= tan θ = 0.5 (2) = 1.5
Sm log10 S − log10 250
rve 0.2833
In solving Equation (1) and (2) = 1.5
log10 S − 2.397
Sa = 100 MPa,
0.2833
Sm = 200 MPa log10 S = + 2.397
1.5
Sa log10 S = 2.58586
Now, σa =
( fos)
Unit 03.indd
04_Hints S = 10 2.58586 4/27/2019 11:00:31
27/04/2017 AM
13:03:12
AB BD
=
EC CD
log10 (0.8Su ) − log10 ( Se ) 6−3
=
log10 S − log10 ( Se ) 6−4
log10 480 − log10 250 Hints/Solutions | 3.61
= 1.5
log10 S − log10 250
0.2833 t = 2 × sin60° = 1.73 MPa
= 1.5
log10 S − 2.397 Hence, the correct option is (C).
0.2833 29. σmax = 1100 N–0.15
log10 S = + 2.397
1.5
= 1100 × (105)–0.15
log10 S = 2.58586
1100
S = 10 2.58586 =
5.62
S = 385.4 N/mm 2 σmax = 195.61 MPa
Hence, the correct answer is 370 to 390. Hence, the correct answer is 195.61.
25. Given data: PR
30. σh =
σmin = –50 MPa t
σmax = 50 MPa PR + 50
σl =
σe = 100 MPa 2t
σh = σl
σy = 300 MPa
σmax − σmin PR PR + 50
Average stress ( σa ) = = MPa
2 t 2t
50 − ( −50 ) PR
= = 50 MPa = 50
2 2t
σ + σmin 50 − 50
Mean stress ( σm ) = max = =0 50 × 2 × 5
2 2 P = = 5 MPa
Using soderberg equation, 100
σa σm 1 Hence, the correct answer is 5.
+ =
σe σ y FOS 31. syt = 480 MPa

50 1 sut = 600 MPa
⇒ +0 = ⇒ FOS = 2
100 FOS se = 150 MPa
Hence, the correct answer is 1.99 to 2.01. 90 − 10
26. According to max shear stress theory Pm = 60 + = 100 KN
2
σ yt
τ max = → (1) 90 − ( −10)
2 × FOS PV = = 50 KN
2
Where, According to Goodman’s criterion,
σ max − σ min σ1 − σ 3
τ max = = σm σv 1
2 2 + =
σ ut σ e 2
60 − ( −40 )
= = 50 MPa
2 100 × 103 50 × 103 1
+ =
∴ using equation (1) a 2 × 600 a 2 × 150 2
200
50 = ⇒ FOS = 2
2 × FOS ⎡100 × 103 50 × 103 ⎤
a2 = 2 ⎢ + ⎥
Hence, the correct option is (B). ⎣ 600 150 ⎦

27. In Oldham coupling, torsional load and rotation is a2 = 1000 mm
transferred along shaft axis.
a = 31.62 mm
28. Normal stress s = sxcos2q
s = 4 × cos230 = 3 MPa
σx
Shear stress t = sin 2θ
2
Unit 03.indd 61 4/27/2019 11:00:39 AM

CHapter 5 Design of MaCHine eleMents
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 6. M1 = (T1 − T2) R
 1  Given, friction Torque M1 = 1500 Nm
1. For ball bearing, life ∝  
 equivalent radial load  ∴1500 = (T1 − T2) × 0.150
3 T1 - T2 = 10000 N → (1)
 P   P1 
3
L2
∴ = 1 =  = (4)3
( )
 270 p 
T1
L1  P2   P1 / 4  By = e mq = e
 0.25 ×
 180 

= e1.178 = 3.248
T2
L2 = 64L1 T1 = 3.248 T2 → (2)
i.e. life increases 64 times. from equation (2) into equation (1)
Hence, the correct option is (D). 3.248 T2 - T2 = 10000
2
mN s T2 = 4448 N
2. Sommerfield number S =   ×
r
c P T1 = 3.248 × 4448 = 14447 N
Where r is radius of journal μ is viscosity of lubricant, Ns is = 14.45 kN.
number of revolution per second, p is the bearing pressure, c
is the radial clearance.
7. Dynamic load carrying capacity
d
r = = 27.5 mm; c = 50 × 10 −3 mm C = 20 kN
2
W 2500 L10h = 8000 hours
p= = = 0.826 N/mm 2
d × L 55 × 55 N = 600 rpm
2
 27.5  20 × 20 × 10 −3 60 NL10 h60 × 600 × 8000
∴S =   × 0.826 × 106 = 0.146 L10 = =
 50 × 10 −3  106 106
Hence, the correct option is (B). = 288 million rev
p
mT p mTw C 
3. + = 330; m = 6 mm L10 =  
2 2 P
10
Tp + Tw = 110 where p = for roller bearing
3
Tp 3 10
But =  20 
3
Tw 8 288 =  
8  p
∴Tp + T p = 110 10
3 10 20 3
∴ Tp = 30. ⇒p 3 = = 75.4
288
Hence, the correct option is (A). ⇒ P = 3.658 kN.
4. f = 20° FD involute; m = 4 mm, Z = 21, P = 20 kW; Hence, the correct option is (A).
N = 1000 rpm, b = 25 mm
6
103 8. Primary shear load Pp = = 3 kN
Ft = P 2
V
Pp
d = mZ = 4 × 21 = 84 mm Pp , Ps
pdN p × 84 × 1000
V= = = 4.398 m/s Ps Q
60 × 103 103 × 60 6 kN
103 × 20
Ft = = 4547.5 N ≈ 4550 N . = 1.7 + 0.1 + 0.2 = 2 m
4.398
Hence, the correct option is (C). C = P × = 6 × 2 = 12 kNm
2 Ps × 0.2 = 12
5. Y = 0.32, Cs = 1.5
12
Feff = sd bym P s= = 30 kN.
0.4
4547.5 × 1.5 = sd × 25 × 0.32 × 4 Hence, the correct option is (C).
⇒s d = 213.16 MPa 9. Resultant load in bolt Pr = Ps − Pp
≈ 213.2 MPa = 30 − 3 = 27 kN
Hence, the correct option is (C). Resultant shear stress on bolt P,
Unit 03.indd 62 4/27/2019 11:00:48 AM Chap

Chapter 5 • Design of Machine Elements || 3.137
4 Pr 4 × 27 × 103 Diameter of shaft d

tp = =
pd 2
p × 122 Torque transmitted = S
= 238.73 MPa. Force acting on circumference of shaft
Hence, the correct option is (C). S 2S
F= =
10. For uniform pressure theory d /2 d
2 × d
2 ( R0 3 − Ri 3 ) 2 (1003 − 503 ) A = Resisting area =
Rm= = 4
3 ( Ro 2 − R12 ) 3 (100 2 − 50 2 ) Average shear stress
= 77.77 78 mm F 2S 4 8S
t= = × = .
A d 2d 2d 2
11. Throat in fillet weld has minimum thickness Hence, the correct option is (C).
A T1  T1 
=
14. e=
mq
ie 3 e mp ∵ = 3,q = p 
T2 T
 2 
D
n3 = μp
12 mm
μ = 0.35
B Hence, the correct option is (D).
O 16 mm 15. Sommerfeld number
2
1 mN  D 
OD is the shortest distance from O to AB. Area of D AOB = S=
2 p  C 
OA × OB
1 It is also characteristics number where μ = Abs. Viscosity of
= × OD × AB lubricant
2
OA × OB = OD × AB N = Speed (Revolutions/second)
p = Bearing pressure on projected bearing area
OA × OB
OD = D = diameter of journal
AB
C = Clearance diameter.
OA × OB 12 × 16
= = Hence, the correct option is (A).
(OA) 2 + (OB) 2 122 + 16 2
12 × 16 192 16. Pinion Gear
= = = 9.6 mm
20 20
Hence, the correct option is (C). C2
12. According to uniform pressure theory

p = 2 N/mm2; P = 6 × 103 W; N = 2500 rpm
2p 2pN g
Power transmitted P = Tw = T × N Power transmitted P = Tg
60 60
60 × 6 × 10 3
T= = 22.9 Nm 2pN pT p
2p × 2500 =
2 60
T = × mp p ( r13 − r23 )
3 NP ZG
2 NGTG = NpTp and =
22.9 × 103 = × 0.25 × 2 ( r13 − 253 ) × p NG Zp
3
⇒ r1 = 33.47 mm where T = Torque and
Hence, the correct option is (B). Z = number of teeth
13. 1100 120
=
Ng 50
⇒Ng = 458 rpm
d
4 Hence 458 × TG = 1100 × 20
2 TG = 48 Nm
d
3:03:36
Unit 03.indd
05_Hints 4/27/2019 11:00:57
27/04/2017 AM
13:03:38
3.138 | Part III of
Unit 3 • Theory and Design
17. Tightening force = 2500 N d 55

Width of key w = = = 13.75 mm
Pitch = 0.004 m 4 4
Pitch ∼ 14 mm
Torque = Tightening force ×
2p
330
0.004 Shearing strength Ssy = = 165 N/mm2
= 2500 × = 1.59 Nm 2
2p
Hence, the correct option is (B). Considering shearing of the key,
Ssy Pt
18. PpFw = 0.707t × Le× t s (For parallel fillet weld) =
FOS w×
15 × 103
ts = = 37.9 MPa 165 34727.3
0.707 × 8 × 70 ∴ =
4 14 ×
Given strength of the material
= 200 MPa ⇒ = 60.133 mm ∼ 60 mm
200 Considering crushing of the key,

FOS = = 5.28
37.9 Suc
Pt = ( × t ′ ) ×
Hence, the correct option is (B). FOS
19. log10 500 = 2.699 t 630  t
34727.3 = 60 × × ∴ t′ = 
log10 100 = 2.000 2 4  2
log10 80 = 1.903 ⇒ t = 7.35 mm.
S − N curve Hence, the correct answer is l = 60 mm, t = 8 mm.
log Sf 2pNT
A 22. Power =
2.699 60
2p × 1500 × T
E F 25 × 103 =
2.000 60
B ⇒ T = 159.154 Nm = 159154 N mm
1.903 D
C Bending moment M = 100 Nm
= 100 × 103 N mm
3 6 log N Equivalent twisting moment
Log10 (1000) Log10106
(k × M ) + ( kt × T )
2 2
Te =
DB × AE m
EF =
AD
(1.5 × 100 × 103 ) + (1.2 × 159154 )
2 2
=
=
(6 − 3) × ( 2.699 − 2.000 ) = 2.63
2.699 − 1.903 = 242848 N mm
log10 N − 3 = 2.63 Syt = 300 MPa
log10 N = 5.63
300
N = 426579.5 cycles. Ssy = = 150 MPa (As per maximum shear stress theory)
2
Ssy 16 Te
20. 6 × 19 wire rope designates 6 strands with 19 wires in each =
strand. FOS pd 3
Hence, the correct option is (C). 150 16 × 242848
=
2pNT 3 p × d3
21. Power transmitted P =
60
⇒ d = 29.137 mm
2p × 300 × T
∴ 30 × 10 = 3 Hence, the correct answer is 30 mm.
60
⇒ T = 954.93 Nm ∼ 955 × 103 N mm T t Gq
23. = =
Let the tangential force on the key is Pt J r
40 0.8 × 105 × 0.01
T 955 × 103 ∴ = = 500 mm.
Pt = = = 34727.3 N 25
d/2 55 /2
Hence, the correct answer is 500 mm
Unit 03.indd
05_Hints 4/27/2019 11:01:05
27/04/2017 AM
13:03:41 Chap
30000 Then taking moments about fulcrum,

24. Primary load on each bolt P1 =
4 P × a − N × b − μN × c = 0
= 7500 N i.e. P × 1 − 2083.33 × 0.4 − 0.3 × 2083.33 × 0.05 = 0
P1 ⇒ P = 2083.33[0.4 + 0.3 × 0.05]
P2 = 864.58 N
P2 B
27. Drum diameter = 300 mm = 0.3 m
P1 P1
p
Angle of lap q = 270° = 270 ×
A
180
CG C
= 1.5 p radian
Forces on lever OA are as follows
P2 P1 P
T1
P2
D
T2 A
Taking moment about the CG of bolts O
10
150 110 mm
30 × 103 × 300 = 4 × P2 ×
2
For anticlockwise rotation of drum, T1 is the tension on the
⇒ P2 = 30 × 103 N = 30000 N
tight side and T2 on the slack side
Maximum load is on bolt C as P1 and P2 are in same direction.
T1
Total load = P1 + P2 = e mq = e 0.3×1.5p = 4.11
T2
= 7500 + 30000
= 37500 N T1
⇒ T2 = → (1)
4.11
37500
Total shear stress = 2pNT
p 2 Power absorbed P = where
4d  60
 
= Permissible shear stress T = torque
37500 2p × 500T
∴ = 37.5 30 × 103 =
p 2 60
d T = 572.96 Nm
⇒
4
4000 Torque T = (T1 − T2)R
⇒ d2 =
p 0.3
⇒ d = 35.7 mm. 572.96 = (T1 − T2) ×
2
Hence, the correct answer is 35.7 mm. ⇒ T1 − T2 = 3819.72 → (2)
25. N
P ⇒ T1 = T2 + 3819.72
µN T1
O c = + 3819.72
4.11
b
a ⇒ 4.11 T1 − T1 = 15699
⇒ T1 = 5047.9 N
Forces acting on the lever are as shown above Taking moments about O,
Torque T = μNR P × 110 = T1 × 10 = 5047.9 × 10
i.e. 250 = 0.3 × N × 0.4 ⇒ P = 458.9 N.
⇒ N = 2083.33 N Hence, the correct answer is 458.9 N.
Taking moments about the fulcrum O, 28. P = 0.707 s × t

P × a − N × b + μN × c = 0 where s = size of weld
i.e. P × 1 − 2083.33 × 0.4 + 0.3 × 2083.33 × 0.05 = 0 t = allowable shear stress
⇒ P = 2083.33 [0.4 − 0.3 × 0.05] = 802.08 N = total length of weld
Hence, the correct answer is 802.08 N. ∴ 60 × 103 = 0.707 × s × (80 + 80 + 70) × 80
26. For anticlockwise rotation of the drum, the tangential force ⇒ s = 4.612 mm.
μN will be in the opposite direction, i.e. towards right. Hence, the correct answer is 4.612 mm.

05_Hints 4/27/2019 11:01:14
27/04/2017 AM
13:03:43
3.140 | Part III of
5.66 M Considering a small element subtending angle dq,

29. For circular fillet welds, s max =
D 2ph Length of the element = r dq
where M = bending moment applied 2p
D = diameter
Torque T = ∫ t × 0.707hr dq
0
2
h = size of weld = tr 2 0.707h × 2p

5.66 M = 70 × (25)2 × 0.707 × 4 × 2p
∴ 80 =
(50 )
2
p ×4 = 777,387 N mm
⇒ M = 444041 N mm = 777.387 Nm
= 444.041 Nm Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (C). Aliter
30. T 2.83Tmax
(ts)max =
r dθ pD 2 h
Weld pD 2 ht s
⇒ Tmax =
r 2.83
p × 50 2 × 4 × 70
= = 777,072 Nmm
2.83
= 777.072 Nm
Practice Problems 2
2pNT 5. Torque = Force × radius
1. Power P =
60 =t×A×r
∴P ∝ T V
p = μ × 2pr × r
tD 3 C
PA TA 16 A wr
= = =μ× × 2pr 2
p
PB TB t (1.5 DA )
3
C
16 μ = 20 × 10−3 Pa s, w = 20 rad/s;
3
1
=  
2 r = 25 mm = 0.025 m;
=
(1.5)
3
3 C = 0.02 mm = 0.02 × 10−3 m
8 = 50 mm = 0.05 m
=
27 20 × 0.025
× 2p × ( 0.025) × 0.05
2
∴ T = 20 × 10 −3 ×
Hence, the correct option is (B). 0.02 × 10 −3
20 × ( 0.025)
3
2. Axial tensile or compressive force.
= 20 × × 2p × 0.05 = 0.098 Nm.
60 NLH Hence, the correct option is (C).
3. L =
106 6. Given P = 250 kN, t = 70 N/mm2, h = 10 mm, ∴size of weld
60 × 600 × 2200 = 10 mm
= Total length of the weld required to with stand the load
106
250 kN = P = 0.707 ht or 250 × 103 = 0.707 (10) (70),
= 79.2 million rev.
3 = 505.15 mm
C 
L=  1y1 = 2 y2 or 1(200 − 71.8)
P
= 2 (71.8)
203
i.e. 79.2 = 3 128.21 = 71.8 2 → (1)
P
⇒ P = 4.66 kN. Also 1 + 2 = = 505.15 mm → (2)
Hence, the correct option is (A). From (1) and (2)
4. Mean value zero → Reversed stress 1 = 181.35 mm and 2 = 323.8 mm.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (D).
Unit 03.indd
05_Hints 4/27/2019 11:01:23
27/04/2017 AM
13:03:46 Chap
7. If ‘s’ is the size and ‘d’ is the diameter of the shaft, Primary shear stress in the weld is given by
2.83T P 50000 62.5
The allowable shear stress = t=
= = N/mm2.
psd 2 A 800 t t
2.83 × 3000 × 1000
70 = Hence, the correct option is (B).
p × s × 652
14. Bending stress.
(∵ T = 3 kN m = 3 × 106 N mm)
The moment of inertia of two welds about the x axis is given
s = 9.2 mm ≈ 10 mm by
Hence, the correct option is (A).  ( 400 )3 
8. As permissible shear stress for the weld material is I = 2 t  = 10.67 × 106 t mm4
 12 
100 N/mm2,
 454  Mb y 50 × 103 × ( 300 ) 200
 t  = 100 or t = 4.54 or 5 mm sb = =
  I (10.67 × 106 t )
(Thickness of the plate = size of weld)
281.16
Hence, the correct option is (D). = = N/mm2.
t
9. Base circle. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 15. Maximum shear stress. The maximum principal stress in the
2 weld is given by
10. 2 × s ×t = P
2 2
P s 
t= . t max =  b  + t 2
2 s  2 
Hence, the correct option is (C).  281.16   62.5 
2 2
=   + 
11. Tearing strength of the plate  2t   t 
P = 40 × 8 × 400 N = 128 × 103 N 153.85
= N/mm2.
Thickness of the plate is 8 mm t
∴weld size = 8 mm
16. Size of the weld for the permissible shear stress in the weld is
Resisting area = 21 × 0.707 × 8
153.85
Resisting force = 21 × 0.707 × 8 × 75 ∴ = 100 or
t
∴ 21 × 0.707 × 8 × 75 = 128 × 103
t = 1.538 mm
= 150.9 mm ∼ 151 mm
1
t 1.538
permitting the provision for welding start and end, h = = = 2.18
0.707 0.707
1 = 151 + 12.5 = 163.5 mm.
say 2.5 mm
12.
Mt 2500 × 1000
17. t = =
2ptr 2 2pt × ( 25)
2
´´´´´´´´´´´
637 N
=
t mm 2
18. Size of the weld
 637 
If weld is provided along the 40 mm side alone strength of the =  = 140; ∴ t = 4.55 mm
weld is  t 
= 8 × 0.707 × 40 × 75 N t 4.55
h = = = 6.43 or 7 mm.
0.707 0.707
= 16.968 kN ≈ 16.97 kN.
19. P = 15 kN; t = 60 N/mm2
13. P = 50 kN, t = 100 N/mm2
Primary shear force
Primary shear stress
P 15 × 103
Total throat area of two vertical welds is given by P ′1 = P ′2 = = = 7500 N
2 2
A = 2(400 t) = (800 t)mm2 Hence, the correct option is (A).

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3.142 | Part III of
20. P2′′ 27. For double fillet weld, throat area

B×L
.G = B × L sin 45° =
2
P1′′
Tensile force
Secondary shear force. Shear stress =
Total throat area
By symmetry the centre of gravity of two rivets
P 2P
e = 50 mm = = .
 B×L B×L
r1 = r2 = 50 mm  
 2 
C=
Pe
=
(15 × 103 ) 50 = 150 Hence, the correct option is (A).
r + r2
1
2 2
(50 2 + 502 ) 28. Total length of the weld
P ″1 = P ″2 = Cr1 = 150 (50) = 7500 N. = 100 + 2
Hence, the correct option is (A). Allowable shear load is 300 N/mm
21. Resultant shear force 150 × 103
∴ 300 =
P1 = P ′1 + P ″1 = 7500 + 7500 =15000 N (100 + 2 )
Hence, the correct option is (B). ⇒ = 200 mm.
22. Diameter of the single revet to take the shear load Hence, the correct option is (B).
p
P1 = d 2t 29. Strength of weld in tension is greater than in shear.
4
p 2
or 15000 = d ( 60 ) F
4 30. Primary force =
3
d = 17.84 or 18 mm.
20000
Hence, the correct option is (C). = = 6666.7 N
3
23. The bending moment is will act equally on each bolt
= 5000 × 200 N mm 6666.7
Stress at B = = 120.3 MPa
= 10 × 105 N mm p
× (8.4 )
2
5.66 M 4
The stress allowable =
psd 2 (∵ dc = 0.84 × 10 = 8.4 mm)
5.66 × 10 × 105 At bolt B, there will be no secondary shear force.
100 =
p × s × 50 2 Balancing moment Fs × (40 + 40) = F × e
5.66 × 10 4 566
s= = = 7.2 mm.
p × 2500 25p c Fs
Hence, the correct option is (B). F
24. Pitch circle diameter. 3 40
Hence, the correct option is (B). b
P F
25. s t =
h× 3 40
Hence, the correct option is (B). a
Fs
26. R = R + R2 + 2 R1R2 Cosq

1
2 2
if q < 90°, cos q > 0 F

3
if q > 90°, cos q < 0
F ×e
Secondary force Fs =
R2 40 + 40
Q 20 × 150
P = = 37.50 kN
R2 R1 • R2 40 + 40
R1
R At bolt A resultant force
S
R1 R1
Fs 2 + ( F /3)
R2 2
Fr =
Q and R heavily stressed.
Hence, the correct option is (B). = 37500 2 + 6666.72 = 38088.0 N
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p 37. Throat thickness = 6 × 0.707 mm

Shear stress at A = 38088.0/ × 8.4 2
4 Shear stress induced in the fillet weld
= 38088.0/55.42 = 687.3 MPa 12 × 103
=
50 × 6 × 0.707
= 56.577 N/mm2
Pitch circle diameter (in mm) Shear strength
31. Module = Factor of safety =
Number of teeth working stress
= = 3.535.
C 
3 56.577
32. For ball bearing, L10 =   Hence, the correct option is (C).
3
P
1 38. Core area of the bolts
∴L∝ 
p p
P = ( dc ) = (8.4 )
2 2
L1 P 
3
4 4
= 2 = 55.4 mm2
L2  P1 
L1
3 Primary force in each bolt
2
When load P is doubled, =
L2  1  PP =
10 × 103
= 3333.3 N
L1 3
⇒ L2 = PSA
8
Pp
33. For self locking of the differential band brake
T1 × a = T2 × b
T1 b Pp
⇒ = PSC
T2 a
Pp
34. Based on shear strength.
The centre of gravity of the bolt system is at bolt B. Owing to
the applied force, a clockwise moment is acting about G, on
35. Tearing efficiency the bolts
=
( P − d ) ×100% = 70 %
The secondary forces,
PSA = PSC
P
P−d And PSB = 0
∴ = 0.7
P ∴ PSA (50 + 50) = 10 × 103 × 200
d ⇒ PSA = 20 × 103 N
1 − = 0.7
p Resultant force on A
d
⇒ = 0.3
(3333.3) + ( 20000 )
2 2
p =
Hence, the correct option is (C). = 20,275.87 N
36. For hollow shaft Maximum shear stress on A
p  4 4 2 20, 275.87
TH = d − ( kd )  t =
32  d 55.4
p 3 = 365.99 N/mm2
= d t (1 − k 4 )
16 ≈ 366 MPa
1
where k = Maximum shear stress on bolt B
3
3333.3
For solid shaft, =
p 3 55.4
Ts = dt
16 = 60.16 MPa.
Th Hence, the correct option is (A).
= (1 − k 4 )
Ts 39. PSA
100 100
 1 4
 80
= 1 −   =
A B
  3   81
CG
Hence, the correct option is (D). PPA PSB

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3.144 | Part III of
A clockwise moment acts on bolts due to the applied load. 43. Maximum shear stress is given by
P × e = PSA × rA + PSB × rB 2
s 
t max =   + (t )
2
rA = rB = 100 mm 2
PSA = PSB 2
 143.24 
 + ( 3.183) = 71.69 MPa.
2
∴ 2000 × (1400 + 100) = (PSA × 100) × 2 = 
 2 
⇒ PSA = 15000 N
Hence, the correct option is (D)
= 15 kN (upwards) 1
Hence, the correct option is (B). 44. Strain energy stored U = P ×d
2
40. The primary shear load is equally shared by bolts A and B 1 PL
= P×
2000 2 AE
PPA = = 1000 N (downwards) P2L
2 =
Resultant shear load on A 2 AE
U1
RA = 15,000 − 1,000 =3
U2
= 14,000 N upwards P 2 L 3P 2 L
i.e. =
14, 000 2 A1E 2 A2 E
Resultant shear stress =
p
(12) 1 1
2
4 ⇒ 2 =3 2
d1 d2
= 123.787 N/mm 2
⇒ d22 = 3d12 = 3 × (10)2
⇒ d2 = 17.32 mm.
41. The primary shear load is equally shared by all the 4 bolts.
p Hence, the correct answer is 17.32 mm.
Area of cross section of bolt = (10 ) = 78.54 mm2
2
p
45. P = 4 × ( dr ) × t s
2
4
So, primary stress or direct shear stress on each bolt 4
1000 where dr = rivet diameter
t= = 3.183 N/mm2 or MPa
4 × 78.54 = p × (10)2 × 100
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 3.14 × 104 N
= 3.14 kN
42.
2
46. P = 4 × drt × s c
75 mm sc = crushing or bearing stress
= 4 × 10 × 6 × 150
1
25 mm = 36,000 N
A B = 36 kN
Tensile forces on the bolts are proportional to the distance
from tilting edge AB. So forces on bolts in row 1 47. P = (w − 4 dh) × t × s t
= k × 25 and forces on bolts in row 2 = k × 75 = (260 − 4 × 11) × 6 × 200

Taking moments about the tilting edge, = 259200 N = 259.2 kN
1000 × 30 = 2 × k × 25 + 2 × k × 75 Hence, the correct option is (D).
= 200 k 48. Strength of weld

P = ( 1 + 2 + 3 ) × 0.707s × t
⇒ k = 150 N/mm
Forces on most heavily loaded bolt = (50 + 40 + 50) × 0.707 × 4 × 60
= k × 75 = 23,755.2 N
= 150 × 75 Hence, the correct answer is 23.755 kN.
= 11250 N 49. TP = 18
11250 Tg = 38
Tensile stress s =
78.54 m=5
= 143.24 N/mm2 or MPa D
m = or D = T × m
Hence, the correct option is (D). T
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∴ DP = 18 × 5 = 90 mm Shear force on shaft

Dg = 38 × 5 = 190 mm F = t × area
190 + 90 = 4.71 × 103 × pD × L
∴ centre distance = = 140 mm
2
= 4.71 × 103 × p × 60 × 10−3 × 30 × 10−3
= 26.63 N
50. Tangential velocity of shaft
pDN D
u= Torque T = F ×
60 2
p × 60 × 1500 60
= × 10 −3 = 4.71 m/s = 26.63 × × 10 −3
60 2
60.06 − 60 = 0.7989 Nm
Radial clearance y = = 0.03 mm
2 2pNT 2p × 1500 × 0.7989
du Power loss = =
Shear stress t = m 60 60
dy
0.03 × 4.71 = 125.5 W.
=
0.03 × 10 −3 Hence, the correct option is (D).
= 4.71 × 103 N/m2
Previous Years’ Questions Power = T × w
Pitch Let Tp be the torque applied by pinion (motor) and Tg be

1. Torque, T = Tightening force × the torque applied by gear.
2p
0.004 Power transmission = 80%
∴ T = 2200 ×
2×p 2Tg w g
∴T p w p =
⇒ T = 1.4 N-m 0.8
Hence, the correct option is (C). Now Torque = Force × radius = F × r
16T 2× F × r w g
2. Minimum shear stress, t = ∴Tp = ×
p d3 0.8 wp
16 ×1600
⇒t = mt  D 2r 
p × 0.063 2 × 500 × m = t = t 
= 2 ×wg
⇒ t = 37.72 MPa  
0.8 wp ⇒ r = mt 
Hence, the correct option is (A).  2 
3. Bevel gears - Non-parallel, intersecting shafts 0.002 × 40
1000 ×
Worm gears - Non-parallel, non-intersecting shafts 2 1
= ×
Herring bone gears - Parallel shafts 0.8 4
Hypoid gears - Non-parallel off-set shafts. ⇒ Tp = 25 N-m
4. 500 N 500 N 5. P cosq = F

Gear 500
⇒P=
Cos 20 o
⇒ P = 532 N
T = 80 T = 80 Hence, the correct option is (C).
6. Sommerfeld number, (S)
Pinion 2
 mN  D 
S =   C 
T = 20  P  d 
w p N p t g 80 μ = Absolute viscosity of lubricant
= = = = 4 N = Speed (rpm)
w g N g t p 20
P = Bearing pressure
1000 N force is applied by both the gears. Hence each gear
carry 500 N. D = Diameter of journal

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3.146 | Part III of
Cd = Diametrical clearance 11. Centre distance = Rg + Rp

Hence, the correct option is (A). Dg D
= + p
7. 2 2
270°
mTg mT p
= +
2 2
T2 T1 m
100 N = Tg + T p 
T1 2
O 5
1m = [19 + 37] = 140 mm
2
2m Hence, the correct option is (A).
 p 
T2 0.5 × 270 × 180  12. Given:- Length, = 60 mm
= e mq ⇒ T2 = T1 e  
T1 Size of weld or thickness, h = 6 mm
⇒ T2 = 10.55 T1 → (1) Shear strength, t = 200 MPa
Load, P = 15 × 103 N
SMO = 0 ⇒ (100 × 2) = (T1 × 1)
It is a case of parallel fillet weld
⇒ T1 = 200 N P = 0.707 h tw
From eq (1) T2 = 200 × 10.55 15 ×103
tw = = 58.94 MPa
= 2110 N 0.707 × 6 × 60
Hence, the correct option is (B). t 200
Factor of safety, F = = = 3.4
8. Maximum wheel torque, T t w 58.94
T = (T1 - T2) × r Hence, the correct option is (B).
= (2110 - 200) × 0.2 C 
3
13. L10 =   mr {For ball bearing}

= 382 N-m F
Hence, the correct option is (B). L10 = Life of bearing in million revolution for 90% reliability.
t T C = Dynamic load rating
9. =
r J F = Radial load
Shear stress (t) is maximum at the wall surface i.e., at 1
∴L10 ∝
r = R (R = Radius of circular shaft) F3
T ×R 1
∴t max = When F is doubled, L10 ∝
J 8F3
p p 8000
J = 2I = 2× × d 4 = × d 4 ⇒ L10 = =1000 hours
64 32 8
T × d 2 16T Hence, the correct option is (D).
t max = =
p 32 × d 4 p d 3 14. Bearing diameter, D = 50 mm
Hence, the correct option is (C). Length = 50 mm
10. Power, P = 5 kW Speed, N ′ = 20 rps
Speed, N = 2000 rpm Load, W = 2000 N
Coefficient of friction, μ = 0.25 Viscosity, μ = 20 ×10-3 Pa-sec
Bore radius, Ri = 25 mm = 0.025 m Radial clearance, Cr = 50 × 10-6 m
2
Uniform pressure, P = 1 ×106 Pa  mN ′   D 

Sommerfield number, S =   
2 p NT 2 p × 2000 ×T  P   Cd 
P= ⇒ 5 ×103 =
60 60 W
P = Bearing pressure =
∴ Torque, T = 23.873 N-m LD
According to uniform pressure theory 2000
⇒P= = 800 kPa
2 0.05 × .05
T = [nμPp] × ×  Ro3 − Ri3  2
3  20 × 10 −3 × 20   0.05 
2 ∴S =  × 
⇒ 23.873 = 1 × 0.25 × 1 × 106 × p × ×  Ro3 − 0.0253   800 × 103   2 × 50 × 10 −6 
3
⇒ Ro = 0.0394 m = 39.4 mm ⇒ S = 0.125
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15. C Taking moment from O.

PC′
PC
400 × 0.6 = R × 0.2
0.4 m = 2
B
⇒ R = 1200 N
0.4 m = 1 PB F×e
μR = 0.25 × 1200 = 300 N
A
PA′ PA Braking torque = [μR × 0.15] N-m
e = 0.15 m
= (300 × 0.15) N-m
F = 10 kN
= 45 N-m
Primary shear force Hence, the correct option is (C).
10 17. Assuming guided end to be fixed and other end as hinged.

on rivet A, PA = kN The crippling load according to Euler’s equation
3
10 2p 2 Elmin
on rivet B, PB = kN Pcr =
3 L2
Secondary shear force 2p 2 × 200 × 10 9 × p × 0.024
⇒ Pcr =
F × e × 1 64 × 0.72
on rivet A, PA =
12 + 22 + 23  ⇒ Pcr = 63.28 kN
10 × 0.15 × 0.04 Crippling load 63.28

⇒ PA′ = {∴ 3 = 0} Factor of safety = =
( 0.042 + 0.042 ) Working load 10
⇒ FOS = 6.3
⇒ PA′ = 18.75 kN
on rivet B, PB′ = 0 Most appropriate answer is 5.62.
Resultant force on A, Hence, the correct option is (C).
2 18. O2 (gear)
 10 
RA = PA2 + PA′2 =   + 18.752
 3 R
⇒ RA = 19.044 kN Pitch circle
10
and Resultant force on B, RB = kN
3 Pitch circle
RA
Maximum shear stress, tA = r
p
×d
4
d = diameter of rivet = 10 mm O1 (pinion)
19.044 × 10 3
d+D
⇒ tA = = 242.5 MPa Centre distance = O1O2 = r + R =
p 2
× 0.012
4 Given: module, m = 5 mm
10 Gear teeth, T = 40
and tB = 3 = 42.5 MPa
p Pinion teeth, t = 20
× 0.012
4 D
m= ⇒ D = 5 × 40 = 200 mm
Hence, the correct option is (A). t
d
16. 0.2 m 0.4 m 400 N m= ⇒ d = 5 × 20 = 100 mm
t
200 + 100
∴ Centre distance = = 150 mm
O 2
µR Hence, the correct option is (B).
R Arcof contact
19. Contact ratio =
Circular pitch
µR
Length of line of action
0.15m Arc of contact =
Cosf
19
= = 20.22 mm
Cos 20°

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3.148 | Part III of
Circular pitch = p m = p × 5 ⇒ s1 = 81.797 ~ 82 MPa

= 15.708 mm Hence, the correct option is (B).
20.22 du mu
∴ Contact ratio = = 1.29 22. Shear stress, t = m
15.708 dy y
μ = 20 mPa.s
20. Fr FN = 20 × 10–3 Pa.s
φ u = w r = 20 × 0.02
Ft y = 0.02 mm
20 × 10 −3 × 20 × 0.02
⇒ t = = 400 N /m 2
0.02 × 10 −3
F
= 400 ⇒ F = 400 × p × 0.04 × 0.04
A
⇒ F = 2.01 N {∴ A = p DL}
2pNT ′ T=F×r
Power, P = (on Pinion)
60 × 1000 = 2.01 × 0.02 = 0.04 N-m
Where T′ = torque Hence, the correct option is (A).
20 × 60 × 1000 23. Given: Do = 100 mm
⇒ T′ = = 106.1 N − m
2 × p × 30 × 60 Di = 40 mm
T ′ = Ft × R (on gear) P = 2 MPa
D mT 5 × 20 μ = 0.4
m= ⇒R= = = 50 mm
T 2 2 2  R3 − Ri3 
T = mP × p ×  o 
or R = 0.05 m 3 1 
106.1 2
∴ Ft = = 2122 N (on gear) ⇒ T = 0.4 × 2 × 106 × p × × [0.053 - 0.023]
0.05 3
F 2122 ⇒ T = 196 Nm
FN = Resultant force = t =
Cos f Cos 20° Hence, the correct option is (B).
⇒ FN = 2258.2 N
24. Given: m = 3 mm
Hence, the correct option is (C). T = 16 teeths
b = 36 mm
21.
P f = 20o
P = 3 kW
10 kNm
N = 20 rev/sec
Velocity factor, X = 1.5
σa σa Form factor, y = 0.3
Ft
τxy Stress, s =
ym
Tr 10 × 103 × 0.05 × 32 Power, P = 2p NT
txy = =
J p × 0.14
3 × 103
⇒T = = 23.873N-m
⇒ txy = 50.929 ~ 51 MPa ( 2 × p × 20)
and sa = 50 MPa (Given) 23.873
and T = Ft × r ⇒ Ft =
r
∴ Maximum principal stress, s1
D
 sa 2  Now, m = ⇒ D = 2r = m × T
 sa  T
s 1 =  +   + t xy2 
 2  2   mT 3 × 16
  ⇒r= = = 24 mm
 50 2  2 2
 50 
s 1 =  +   + 512  23.873
2  2   ∴ Ft = = 994.72 N
  0.024
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994.72 4
∴s = ⇒ PP = = 2kN
(0.036 × 0.3 × 0.003) 2
⇒ s = 30.7 MPa Secondary shear load on bolt P, PS
sactual = (X × s) ( P1 × e × P )
PS =
⇒ sactual = 1.5 × 30.7  2 + 2 
 P Q
= 46.05 MPa
4 ×103 × 2 × 0.2
Hence, the correct option is (B). ⇒ PS = = 20 kN
( 0.22 + 0.22 )
25. The correct option is (A).
26. Given: m = 4 mm, T = 32
28. Resultant shear stress on bolt P, t
Circular pitch, PC = p × m = p × 4
Presultant
= 12.566 mm t=
A
Assumption: The gear tooth and the corresponding tooth
Presultant = PS - PP = (20 - 2) = 18 kN
space make equal intercept on pitch circumference.
∴ Pc = Tooth width + tooth space p
A = Area = × 0.0122 {∴ M 12 bolt} {∴ d = 12 mm}
⇒ PC = a + a = 2a 4
12.566 = 1.131 × 10-4 m2

∴a = = 6.283 mm
2 18 ×103
∴t = =159.15 MPa
1.131×10-4
S
m Hence, the correct option is (B).
b T
Pitch circle 29. T
U R
Q
d
φ M M
For a shaft subjected to bending moment (M) and twisting

P moment (T), the equivalent torque is
360° Teq = M 2 + T 2
∵f = = 2.8°
32 × 4 Induced shear stress is
D = mT = 128 mm 16Teq 16 
t= = M2 +T2 
=
D
r = 64 mm pd 3 pd 3  
2
SSy
b = m + (TP - PU) For safe designing t ″
N
PU = 64 × cos2.8o = 63.923 mm
Torsional yield strength
and TP = PR = r = 64 mm or
Factor of safety
∴ b = 4 + (64 - 63.923) Hence, the correct option is (C).
b = 4.1 mm 30. Given module, m = 4 mm
Hence, the correct option is (D). Number of teeth, T = 21
27. P Power, P = 15 kW at N = 960 rpm
P Q 1.8 m Face width, b = 25 mm
2pN t
G Power, P = {t = Torque transmitted}
P P1e Q 60 ×1000
PP 4 kN 60 × 1000 × 15
∴t =
PP PS
2 × p × 960
⇒ t = 149.21 N.m
C = (1.8 + 0.2) = 2 m {∴ P = Q = 0.2 m} Torque, t = Tangential force (Ft) × pitch radius (r)
P1 D
Primary shear load on bolt P, PP = m= ⇒ D = Pitch diameter = m × T
n T

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3.150 | Part III of
D mT 4 × 21 35. Power loss = t × A × u

⇒ r= = = = 42 mm
2 2 2 Given D = 0.05 m
t 149.21 L = 0.02 m
∴=
Ft = = 3552.56 N
r 0.042 N = 1200 rpm
Hence, the correct option is (A). μ = 0.03 Pa-sec
31. Tooth geometry factor, y = 0.32 h = radial clearance
Stress intensifying or dynamic factor, X = 1.5 50.05 − 50
Minimum allowable stress, sa is = = 0.025 × 10 −3 m
2
Ft p DN p × 0.05 × 1200 m
s= {Lewis equation} u =
60
=
60
=p
s
bym
3552.56 mdu mu
s= t = =
0.025 × 0.32 × .004 dy h
⇒ s = 111.02 MPa p
⇒ t = 0.03 × = 3.77 kN
∴sa = s × X = 111.02 × 1.5 (0.025 × 10 −3 )
⇒sa = 166.53 MPa Power loss = 3.77 × 103 × 2p × 0.025 × 0.02 × p = 37.2 W
32. Interference is a phenomenon in which the addendums tip of 36. Load at P = 30 kN
the gear undercuts into the dedendum tip or base circle of Load at Q = 45 kN
pinion. This tooth interference can be reduced by different 3
methods such as increasing number of teeth above a certain LP  45  27
= =
minimum number, increasing pressure angle, increasing cen- LQ  30  8
tre distance and increasing module
37. D1 = 80 mm
T1 a1 = 30°
33. = e mq
T2 D2 = 120 mm
a2 = 22.5°
N1 = 1440 rpm
O R
N2 = ?
R T1
N2 D1 cos a1
T2 =
N1 D2 cos a 2
 p 
⇒ T1 = T2 × e
 0.25× 270 ×


180  N2 80 cos 30ϒ
=
1440 120 cos 22.5ϒ
⇒ T1 = 3.25 T2 → (1)
N2 = 900 rpm
Torque, T = (T1 - T2) R = 1000 N-m
⇒ T1 -T2 = 8000 → (2)
38. The maximum allowable transverse load
From solving equation 1 and 2 we get
1
T1 = 11.56 kN F= × 94 × 10 × 30
2
T2 = 3.56 kN = 19940 N
∴Maximum tension = T1 = 11.56 kN = 19.94 kN
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (C).
p 3
1000 39. d tallow = T
34. Primary shear force on each rivet P = = 250 N 16
4
P T = 50 Nm
direct shear stress, t =
A = 50 × 103 Nmm
250 t = 140 N/mm2
⇒t= = 8.8 MPa
p FS = 2
× 0.006 2
4 140
t allow = = 70 N/mm2
Unit 03.indd
05_Hints 4/27/2019 11:03:04
27/04/2017 AM
13:04:12 Chap
p 3 2
d × 70 = 50 × 103 2000 (0.04) 2  40 
= 0.03 × ×
2000  40 × 10 −3 
16
60
50 × 103 × 16
d3 = (0.04) 2
70p = 0.03 × × 106 = 0.8
60
d = 16 mm
44. Stress amplitude
s 2A
40. (Strain Energy)A = × volume → (1) maximumstress − Minimumstress
2E =
s2 2
(Strain Energy)B = 4 B × volume → (2) 400 − 200
2E = = 100 MPa
s A2 s2 2
Given: 4 × volume = a B × volume Hence, the correct answer is 99 to 101.
2E 2E
45. Shear yield strength Ssy = 200 MPa
s A2 × volume = 4 s B2 × volume
FOS = 2
P2
× p DA2 × ( L) 200 3pd 2
p
2
∴ × = 19 × 103 N
2 
 4 ( DA )  2 4
 
⇒ d = 8.98 mm
P2 So, minimum metric specification is M10 with 10 mm nomi-
= 4 2
× pD × L
2
B
p 2  nal diameter.
 4 DB 
1 1 46. μ = 0.3
=4 2
DA2 DB
Pmax = 1.5 MPa
DB2 = 4 DA2 D = 200 mm or R = 100 mm
⇒ DB = 4 × 144 = 2 × 12 = 24 mm d = 100 mm or r = 50 mm
Hence, the correct option is (B). For uniform wear P × r = C
41. Crushing area for 3 rivets = d × t × n = 10 × 5 × 3 = ∴ Pmax × r = C
150 mm2 = 1.5 × 50
sc = 150 MPa = 75 N/mm
Load = sc × crushing area = 150 × 150 Maximum Axial force F = 2pC(R − r)
= 22500 N = 22.5 kN = 2p × 75(100 − 50)
Hence, the correct option is (C). = 23561.9449 N
42. tearing Area = (w - 3dh) × t = (200 − 33) × 5 R+r
Maximum torque = F × μ  
load = (200 − 33) × 5 × 200  2 
= 167000 N = 167 kN (100 + 50)

= 23561.9449 × 0.3 ×
= 530143 N mm
43. P = 2000 N, L = 0.04 m, d = 0.04 m = 530.143 Nm
2000 2000 Hence, the correct answer is 529 to 532.
p= = N /m 2
0.04 × 0.04 (0.04) 2 47. Diameter, D = 50 mm, Pressure angle, f = 20°.
N = 2000 rpm Power, P = 3 × 103 W and w = 200 rad/s.
2000 P
Ns = rps WT = × C s
60 V
Radial clearance = 20 μm pDN
(service factor is considered as 1) v = ,
= 20 × 10−3 mm 60
Diametral clearance C = 40 × 10−3 mm 2pN 30w
w= ⇒N=
60 p
μ = 0.03 Pa.s
mN s  d 
2
pD 30w 50 × 10 −3 × 200)
Sommerfeld number = ∴V = ⋅ = = 5 m /s.
p  c  60 p 2

05_Hints 4/27/2019 11:03:16
27/04/2017 AM
13:04:15
3.152 | Part III of
•• ••
3 × 103 ⇒ t1 = I1 θ1 + F1 r1 ⇒ t1 = I1 θ1 + F2 r1 (1)
∴WT = = 600 N
5
W From law of gearing, V1 = V2 ⇒ r1w1 = r2w2 or
600
Resultant force = T = = 638.5 N
cos f cos 20 • • ••  r  ••
r1 θ1 = r2 θ 2 or θ 2 =  1  θ1 (2)
Hence, the correct answer is 638 to 639.  r2 
48. In a rack and pinion gear system rotational motion of the pin- •• I 2 ••
ion is converted to linear motion of the rack. and F2 r2 = I 2 θ 2 ⇒ F2 = θ2
r2
L1 P 
2 I 2  r1  ••
⇒ F2 = θ1 {from equation (2)}
49. For ball bearings = 2
L2  P1  r2  r2 
where L = life and P = load Putting the value of F2 in equation (1) we get
Load rating for a life of 106 rev = 16 kN ••  I  r  •• 
For design load of 2kN, life = P × 106 rev. t1 = I1 θ1 +  2  1  θ1  r1
3  r2  r2  
P ×106  16 
∴ =   = 83   r1   ••
2
106  2
⇒ P = 512.
⇒ t1 =  I1 + I 2    θ1
  r2  
50. Major diameter d = 12 mm  r  ••
and F2 = I 2  12  θ1
Area of cross section of unthreaded portion  r2 
pd 3 p × 122 Hence, the correct option is (B).
A1 = = = 113.1 mm2
4 4 53.
Length of unthreaded portion L1 = 8 mm P 11
Length of threaded portion L2 = 30 mm 0.04 m
1 2
Area of threaded portion A2 = 84.3 mm 2
P1 L1 P2 P 12
Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa L2
= 2 × 105 N/mm2 0.04 m 0.04 m

L4 G L3
AE 1 1 1 P 41 Pe
Stiffness k = = +
L k k1 k2 4 3
0.04 m
8 30 0.4266
+ = P4 P3
113.1E 84.3E 2 × 105 P 31
⇒ k = 468,817 N/mm
= 468.817 MN/m
Hence, the correct answer is 460 to 470. L3
51. Angle of twist at B z Angle of twist at C
TL 10 × 0.5 45°
(θ) B = =
GJ π 0.02 m
77 × 10 9 × × 0.024
32
P = 400 N, e = 0.5 m
⇒ qB = 4.1339 × 10-3 radians
L = L1 = L2 = L3 = L4 = 0.02/cos 45º = 0.0283 m
180
⇒ qB = 4.1339 × 10 −3 × degrees Primary shear force:
π
400
or qB = qC = 0.2368 degrees. P1 = P2 = P3 = P4 = = 100 N
4
Secondary shear force:
52. F1 = F2 [Same force will transmit from pinion to the
PeL
gear] P11 = P21 = P31 = P41 = 2 2
•• L1 + L2 + L23 + L24
Resultant torque = I1 θ1
400 × 0.5 × 0.0283
••
⇒ P11 = P21 = P31 = P41 = =1766.784 N
∴ t1 – F1 r1 = I1 θ1 4 × 0.02832
Unit 03.indd
05_Hints 4/27/2019 11:03:27
27/04/2017 AM
13:04:20 Chap
The worst loaded rivet is 2 or 3. F1
∴ Resultant force, 57. = e µθ
F2
R = 100 2 + 1766.784 2 + ( 2 × 100 × 1766.784 × cos 45° ) θ = 3π/2, μ = 0.25
⇒ R = 1838.85 N  3π 
F1  0.5 × 
\ = e 2
3 F2
= 3.246
The worst loaded
45° rivet is 2 or 3. 45°
1766.784 FF21 = 1 µθN
1766.784
∴ Resultant force, 57. =e
100 100 \ FF12 = 3.246 N
R = 100
Hence, the +correct
2
1766.784 2
+ ( 2is×1835
answer 100 ×to1766 .784 × cos 45° )
1845. θ = (F1 –μ F=2)0.25
T = 3π/2, R
= (3.246 – 1) × 1
54. ⇒ R = =1838.85
Power Torque N × Angular speed  3π 
.5 × 
F=1 2.246 0Nm
⇒ 10 × 10 = T × 400
3
= 2 
\ e
3 F
Hence,2 the correct answer is 2.2 to 2.3.
⇒ T = 25 N-m
= 3.246 of the element XY will be at severe stress,
58. Outer fibers
45° 45° location
F = 1 NX will be stressed more than location Y as
55. FL1/3 =1766.784
K 1766.784 2
movement of X is restricted.
\ F1 = 3.246 N
F1 = 2 kN, L1 = 540 100Mrev 100
T = (F1 – F2) R
L 2
= 1 Mrev
Hence, ⇒ (2
the correct × 103).(540
answer is 1835× to ) =K
101845.
6 1/3
59. When the moment of frictional force (µN) is in the same
= × = (3.246 – 1) × 1
54. ⇒ K = 1628650.57
Power Torque Angular speed direction as that of the applied force (F), the brake is
⇒
∴ F10 ×1/10
3 3 = T × 400 said =to2.246 Nm
be self-energizing.
2
.L2 = K
⇒ T = 25 N-m Hence,
Thus, inthe thecorrect answer
given case, theis brake
2.2 to will
2.3. be self energiz-
∴ F2 = K. L−21 / 3 Outer
58. ing fibers
when theofrotation
the element
of the XY willis be
drum at severe stress,
clockwise.
F2 = 16.286 kN location X will be stressed
Hence, the correct option is (A). more than location Y as
55. FL 1/3
=K movement of X is restricted.
Hence, the correct answer is 15 to 17. 60. Cylindrical roller bearing should not be subjected to
F1 = 2 kN, L1 = 540 Mrev Hence,loads.
the correct option is (C).
56. Primary shear force: 3 thrust
L2 = 1 Mrev 9⇒ (2 × 10 ).(540 × 106)1/3 = K When the
59. Hence, themoment
correct of frictional
option force (µN) is in the same
is (C).
⇒1 =K P=3 1628650.57
P = P2 = = 3 kN
3 direction as that of the applied force (F), the brake is
61. Given T = 200 N-m
∴ F2. L12/ 3 = shear
K said to be self-energizing.
Secondary force: A = 25 mm2
Thus, in the given case, the brake will be self energiz-
∴1F2 = 1K. L Pe (
−1 / 3L or L
) = when
ning 4
P1 = P3 = 2 2 1 2 3 the rotation of the drum is clockwise.
F2 = 16.286 kN (
L1 + L3 ) THence,
= n × the
A ×correct
PCD
tmax × option is (A).
Hence, the correct 2
9 × 0.answer
25 × 0.03is 15 to 17. 60. Cylindrical roller bearing should not be subjected to
⇒ P11 + P31 = = 37.5 kN thrust 100
56. Primary shear force: 2 × 0.032 200 × loads.
103 = 4 × 25 × ×t
9 Hence, the correct option is 2 (C). max
= P3 = Pforce
Resultant
P = on = 3critical
kN rivet,
1 2 3 200 × 103 × 4 × 2
R = 37.5 + 3 = 37.62 kN
2 2
tmax = T = 200 N-m
61. Given = 40 N/mm2
Secondary shear force: A = 25 mm 225 × 100
R
Maximum Pe ( L1 or
shear L3 ) tmax =
stress, n = 4 the correct answer is 40.
Hence,
P11 = P31 = A
L( 2
37.62 × 10
1 + L 2
3) 3
T = n × load
62. Tensile A × tacross
PCD
× the row
∴ tmax = = 332.632 MPa max
2
π /4 × 9 ×0.0012
2
.25 × 0.03
⇒ P1 + P3 =
1 1
= 37.5 kN d) × t × S f
F = ( w − 2100
Hence, the correct 2 ×answer
0.032 is 332 to 494. 200 × 103 = 4 × 25 × × tmax
F 2
Resultant force on critical rivet, t=
200 × 103 ×S f4(×w 2− 2d )
R = 37.52 + 32 = 37.62 kN tmax = = 40 N/mm2
25 × 100
R Hence, the correct option is (A).
Maximum shear stress, tmax =
A 63. Hence, the correct
Direct shear load onanswer is is
bolt ‘c’ 40.
37.62 × 103 6
∴ tmax = = 332.632 MPa P1 = = 2 kN
π / 4 × 0 .012 2
Chapter 5 • Design of Machine Elements | 3.153 3
Hence, the correct answer is 332 to 494. Moment at bolt B is
F1 µθ
57. =e m = 6 × 250 = 1500 kN-mm
F2
1766.784 × cos 45° ) θ = 3π/2, μ = 0.25 This moment will be resist by bolt A and C
∴1500 = ( P2 × 50 ) × 2 {bolts A and C are at same
Chapter 05_Hints & Solutions.indd 153  3π  27/04/2017 13:04:22
F1  0 .5 ×  distance from B}
\ = e 2 
F2 1500
∴ P2 = = 15 kN
= 3.246 100
1766.784 F2 = 1 N
\ F1 = 3.246 N
o 1845. T = (F1 – F2) R
= (3.246 – 1) × 1
05_Hints 4/27/2019 11:03:49
27/04/2017 AM
13:04:22
= 2.246 Nm
65. C = 35 kN
Net shear load on bolt ‘C’ = P1 + P2 = 2 + 15 = 17 kN
Pc = 45 kN
3 3
64. As friction coefficient is not constant, we have to start ⎛ C ⎞ ⎛ 35 ⎞
from basic principle L90 = ⎜ ⎟ = ⎜ ⎟
⎝ Pc ⎠ ⎝ 45 ⎠
L90 = 0.4705
dr Hence, the correct option is (A).
r 66. Taking moments over point ‘X’.
F × 300 + f × 300 = R × 200
100 × 300 + mR × 300 = R × 200
100 × 300 + 0.3 × R × 300 = R × 200
Ri 1.1R = 300
Ro R = 272.72 N
Area of elemental ring (dA) = 2πrdr Braking torque = mR × r
Normal load on ring (dw) = 2pπrdr
= 0.3 × 272.72 × 0.1
Frictional force on element (dF)
T = 8.18 Nm
dF = μdw = 2 p μπ rdr
Frictional torque on element (dT) = dF × r 67. T = 100 N-m
Rf
T1 12 N
N2 = N1 × = N1 × = 1
Total frictional torque (T) = ∫ dT T2 48 4
Ri
Rf N3 and N2 rotates at same speed.
T= ∫ 2 p πμr 2 dr
N4 = N3 ×
T3 N
= 1 ×
12 N
= 1
Ri T4 4 60 20
Using uniform pressure theory
T1 × N1 = T4 × N4
Rf
T = 2 π p ∫ μr 2 dr T1 × N1
Ri T4 =
N1
∵ μ = 0.01r 20
Rf
T4 = 20T1 = 2000 N-m
∴ T = 2 π p ∫ (0.01) r 3 dr
Ri Hence, the correct option is (D).
Rf
68. Pre-tensioning of bolt increases stiffness of the bolted
⎡ R 4 − Ri 4 ⎤ joint.
= 2 π p × 0.01 ∫ r 3 dr = 0.02 p π ⎢ o ⎥
Ri ⎣ 4 ⎦ Hence, the correct option is (C).
by putting value of torque and R0 and R1
18.85 × 103 × 4
P= = 0.5 N/mm 2 or MPa
(
0.02 × π × 40 4 − 20 4 )
Test_
Unit 03.indd 80 4/27/2019 11:04:01 AM

test
Hints/solutions
1 2
2. Energy stored by the flywheel is = Iw , 9. VQ = Vs
2
‘w’ the angular velocity being constant. PQ × 3 = RS × 1 but RS − PQ = 30
E a I; I = MR 2 PQ × 3 = (PQ + 30)1
I1 a R12 3 PQ = PQ + 30
I2 a R2 2 2 PQ = 30 cm
I1 R12 I1 PQ = 15 cm
= 2
= 4 ∴I 2 = PQ = 15 cm
I2 1  4
 2 R1  Rs = 45 cm
 
Hence, the correct choice is (D). Hence, the correct choice is (B).
3. According to Kutzback criterion, the number of mobility 10. Shear area for one hole =
p d × t = p × 25 × 32 = 2512 mm2.
n = 3 ( − 1) − 2j − h
Energy required per hole = 8 × 2512 N − m
where,  = no. of links
= 20096 N − m.
j = no. of binary joints
But one hole is punched in 10 Sec
h = no. of higher pairs
20096
n = 3 (5 − 1) − 2 × 6 − 0 ∴ Energy/Sec = = 2009.6 N − m/sec
10
=3×4−2×6=0 = 2 KW.
Hence, the correct choice is (A). Hence, the correct Choice is (D).
4. Grubbler’s criterion is nothing but Kutzback criterion with 11. As the gear ratio is very large, worm gearing is suitable
unit mobility.
Hence, the correct choice is (C).
N = 3 ( − 1) − 2g
14. In the case of simply supported beam with central load W,
1 = 3 − 3 − 2g
W3
\ 3  − 2g − 4 = 0 d=
48 EI
Hence, the correct choice is (B).
10 × ( 5000 )
3
1
7. K.E. of the flywheel is I w 2. 10 =
48 × EI
2
(5000 ) .
3
w1 − w 2 ∴ EI =
Cs = 48
w
p EI p × ( 5000 )
2 3
2
1 1
I w12 − I w 2 2 Perippliry = 2 = = 1028 N.
48 × ( 5000 )
2
Ce = 2 2
E
1 Hence, the correct choice is (C).
I {w1 + w 2 }{w1 − w 2 }
15. A 200 mm diameter shaft holding a load (transverse) of
Ce = 2
E 15 KN rotating at 1400 rpm is supported by a bearing whose
length is twice the diameter of the shaft. The coefficient of
Iw (w1 − w 2 ) friction is = 0.02.
Ce =
E d = 200 mm
I w  w1 − w 2  I w
2 2 L = 400 mm
Ce =  = C
E  w  E s Projected area = 8 × 104 mm2
ECe 1 ECe Load = 15 × 103 N
= Iw 2 ∴ Iw 2 = Bearing
Cs 2 2Cs
Shaft
Hence, the correct choice is (D). °
1
8. For rack and pinion, in the case of full depth 14 teeth pro-
2
file, the minimum number of teeth required in the pinion to
W = 15 KN
avoid interference shall be
2 2 15 × 103 15 3
t= = = 32. Bearing Pressure = = = = 0.19 N / mm 2
sin 2 f sin 2 14.5° 8 × 10 4 80 16
Hence, the correct choice is (A). Hence, the correct choice is (D).
Test_Hints & Solutions.indd 154 27/04/2017 13:04:47
Unit 03.indd 81 4/27/2019 11:04:06 AM

3.82 | Theory of Machine, Vibrations and Design Test | 3.155
16. mt =
( p − d ) ft = p−d fn =
2
225 × 2500
p × ft p 34
1 ∴ f n = 129 c /s
= 1 − d /p = 1 −= 75%
4 Hence, the correct choice is (C).
17. Critical damping coefficient is 21. m = 4 kg K = 5000 N/m
CC = 2 mk x1 x2 x3 x4 x5
. . . . =4
x2 x3 x4 x5 x6
= 2 1 × 1 × 103
5
N  x1 
= 2=
1000 63.25   =4
m/s  x2 
Hence, the correct choice is (A). x  (4)
log  1  = d = n = 0.277.
 x2  5
1 2 1 2
18. mv = Kx 2pe
2 2 but d = where e = c
1− e2 cc
400 × 103 10 × 103 2
× 25 = x 0.2772 (1 − e 2) = 4 p 2 e 2
9.81 2 × 10 −3
0.0767 = 0.0767 e 2 + 39.478 e 2 = 39.556 e 2
40 1000 2
× 25 = x ∴ e = 0.044
9.81 2 c = 0.044
2000 cc
= 1000 x 2
9.81 C = 0.044 × 2 mk
x = 2/9.81 ∴x = 45 cms.
2 = 0.044 × 2 4 × 5000
Hence, the correct choice is (D). = 0.044 × 2 × 10 2 2

= 0.088 × 100 2
m 1
19. T = 2p . m being constant, T ∝ N
k k = 12.45
m/s
In the second case, the effective stiffness is (4K) 4 = 16K. Hence, the correct choice is (B).
This is because, when a spring is cut into two equal pieces,
the stiffness of each will become 2K. Therefore, when cut into 64p 2
x+
22. The equation is x=0
4 pieces, the stiffness of a single pieces, is 4K. When they are 9
arranged in parallel, the effective stiffness is 4 × 4K = 16K. 64p 2
w2 =
1 9
t1 = C 8p
K w=
1 3
t2 = C w 8p 4
16 K fn = = = = 1.33 Hz .
2p 3 × 2p 3
t2 1 Hence, the correct choice is (D).
= .
t1 4 23. Velocity of rotation =
Hence, the correct choice is (B). pDN p × 0.15 × 2990
V= = = 23.48 m/sec
60 60
1 1 1
20. = + Normal reaction is = R = 40 × 103 N
fn2
f1 f2
2 2
Frictional force = μR = 0.008 × 4.0 × 103 = 320 N

1 1 1 Heat generated = 320 × V = 320 × 23.48 = 7515 watts.
= +
f n 150 2 250 2
2 Hence, the correct choice is (B).
1 1 24. Summerfield No. = 0.08
= +
225 × 10 2 625 × 10 2 2
ZN  d 
1  1 1  0.08 =  
= 2 +  P  dc 
10  225 625  2
z × 1020  200 
0.08 =
1 1 1  1  34  50 × 103  0.4 
=  + =   60 ×
25 × 10 2  9 25  2500  225  0.2 × 0.2
Unit 03.indd& Solutions.indd

Test_Hints 82 155 4/27/2019 11:04:14
27/04/2017 AM
13:04:50 Test_
3.156 | Part III • Unit 3 • Theory of Machine,Vibrations and Design Hints/Solutions | 3.83
Z × 17 × 0.04 5 N −S
0.08 = (500)2 Z=
68 × 25
= 0.0235
m2
.
50 × 103
Z × 17 × 4 × 10 −2 × 25 × 10 4
= 25. Bearing Pressure
50 × 103
Z × 68 × 25 × 10 2 W 50 × 103
= = = N/mm
50 × 103 l×d 200 × 200
Z × 68 × 25 = 1.25 MPa
=
4.500 Hence, the correct choice is (A).
3:04:50 Unit 03.indd& Solutions.indd

Test_Hints 83 156 4/27/2019 11:04:21
27/04/2017 AM
13:04:51
Unit 03.indd 84 4/27/2019 11:04:21 AM
Fluid Mechanics
U
Chapter 1
Fluid Properties and
Manometry4.3
Chapter 2 Fluid Pressure and Buoyancy
Chapter 3 F
luid Kinematics and
Dynamics4.20
4.11 n
i
Chapter 4
Viscous Flow of
Incompressible Fluids 4.40
Chapter 5 Turbo Machinery 4.59
t
4
Unit 04.indd 1 4/27/2019 12:03:50 PM
4.2 | Fluid Mechanics
Unit 04.indd
Chapter 2 & Solutions.indd
01_Hints 4
36
158 82 4/27/2019 12:03:51
27/04/2017 PM
12:51:53
12:54:58
12:59:35
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CHapter 1 Fluid properties and ManoMetry
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 2 =
( 2.616 − 2) × 40
0.4
1. Resultant hydrostatic force acting on the bottom of the
disc, = 61.6 seconds
FR = (ρ0 + ρgh*) A (ρ is density of water = 1000 kg/m3) ≈ 62 seconds
Here ρ0 can be set to zero and h* = 2– 0.5 = 1.5 m ∴ After a time duration of 62 seconds, the gate will
π open.
Area of the disc, A = × d 2 (d is diameter of disc) Hence, the correct option is (C).
4
3. Let t be the time duration after which the partition
π breaks. When the partition breaks,
= × (0.6) 2 = 0.2827 m 2
4 (a) In the right partition volume, base area, a1 = 2 × 5 =
∴ FR = 1000 × 9.81 ×1.5 × 0.2827 10 m2
= 4160 N Volume of liquid, V1 = 2.5 × t m3
The disc will remain in a horizontal stationary position V1
Height of the liquid, = h1 = 0.25 tM
when the forces F and FR are equal and their lines of a
action are on the same line. Area of the partition exposed to the liquid, A1 = 5 × h1 =
1.25t m2
x
F Vertical distance of the centroid of the area, exposed to
disc
h1
= =
the liquid, from the liquid surface, hG1 0.125t m
A 2
B Resultant hydrostatic force acting on the area exposed
FR
d to the liquid, FR1 = ρ × g × A1hG1
2 = 0.125 t × 1500 × 9.81 × 1.25 t
⇒ F = FR = 4160 N = 2299.21875 t2 N
d (b) In the left partition volume base area, a2 = 4 × 5 =
And =x = 0.3 m (∵ the disc is a horizontal surface 20 m2
2
with which the fluid is in contact with) Volume of liquid, V2 = 10 × t m3
Hence, the correct option is (D). V2
Height of liquid, h2 = 0.5 t m
2. Let h be the height of the water in the tank when the a2
gate opens. Area of the partition exposed to the liquid, A2 = 5 × h2 =
Considering the gate PR, 2.5 t m2
HG = h – 2.2 Vertical distance of the centroid of the area, exposed to
The gate will open when the resultant hydrostatic force h2
the liquid, from the liquid surface, hG=
2 = 0.25 tm.
acts above the point q, 2
Resultant hydrostatic force acting on the area exposed
When hydrostatic force acts at point q., then
to the liquid,
hCP = h – 2
FR = hG × ρ × g × A2
And we have 2 2
= 0.25 t × 1000 × 9.81 × 2.5 t

I XG
hCP = ha + (∵ ρ can be set to zero) = 6131.25 t2 N
hG × A
Net resultant hydrostatic force acting on the partition
1× 1 FR = FR – FR
i.e., h − 2 = h − 2.2 +
12 × ( h − 2.2) × 1× 1 2 1
= 6131.25 t2 – 2299.21875 t2
or, h = 2.616 m
= 3832.03125 t2 N
The time duration taken for the resultant hydrostatic
Given, FR = 1533 × 103 N
force to reach the point q from its earlier position
i.e., 3832.03125 t2 = 1533 × 103
( h − 2) × 40
= t = 20 secs
0.4
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3.160
| Part III • Unit 4 • Fluid Mechanics
a For the bottom of the liquid layer.

4. The slope is tan θ = I XG
g hCP 3 = hG 3 +
 ( ρ + ρ2 ) × b × g 
2  hG 3 + 1 A
tan θ = = 0.203  ρ3 × g 
9.81
1 3
∴ tan θ = 0.2 b ×
h 12
Hence, the correct option is (A). = +
2  b ( ρ1 + ρ2 ) × b 
5.  + × b ×
2 ρ3 
h1 hCP! It is given that ρ3 = 2 × ρ2

CP1
•
h2 17b
∴ hCP 3 =
CP2 hCP2 30
•
h3 17b 77b
hCP# ∴ h3 = b + b + = (3)
CP3 30 30
•
From equation 2 and 3, we have

h2 95
=
Let the length of the tank side considered be  metres. h3 154
Since the pressure at the top liquid surface acts on all Hence, the correct option is (B).
sides of the tank surfaces, it can be ignored in the fol- 6. Diameter of the hatch, d = 2.5 m
lowing calculations.
Area of the hatch, A = π d
2
For the top liquid layer,

4
I XG = 4.9087 m2
hCP1 = hG1 +
hG1 × A The atmospheric pressure above the ocean surface, P0 =
1 101325 Pa.
b 12 × b ×
3
Vertical distance of the centroid of the gate surface,
i.e., h1 = + exposed to the sea water, from the ocean surface,
2 b
× b×
2 2.5 sin 30
hG = 20 + = 20.625 m
(∵ A = b × ) 2
Total pressure force acting on the hatch surface exposed
2 (1) to the sea water,
i.e., h1 = b
3 FRS = [Po+hGρg] × A (ρ is the density of the ocean
For the middle liquid layer, water)
I XG = (101325 + 20.625 × 1.03 × 1000 × 9.81) × 4.9087
hCP2 = hG 2 +
 b × ρ1 × g  = 1520352.937 N
 hG 2 + A
 ρ2 × g  Let the air pressure required to open the hatch be P.
∴ Total pressure force acting on the hatch surface
1 3
b b × exposed to the air,
= + 12
2  b b × ρ1  FRA = P × A
 + × b × = 4.9087 P.N
2 ρ2 
Vertical distance of the centre of pressure on the hatch
It is given that ρ2 = 2 × ρ1
surface exposed to the sea water, from the ocean
7b surface,
∴ hCP2 =
12 I sin 2 θ
76 hCPS = hG + XG
 P 
∴ h2 = b + hCP 2 = b +  hG + o  A
12 ρg 

19
= b (2)
12 Where θ = 30°
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Chapter 1 • Fluid Properties and Manometry | 3.161
π hG = h1 – d sin 30°
20.625 +
× ( 2.5) 4 × (sin 30°) 2
4 h1 − h2
∴ hCPS = Now, sin 30°=
 101325  h
 20.625 + × 4.9087
 1.03× 1000 × 9.81 h1 − h1
= 20.676 m 1
= 3
2 h
20 m
3
i.e., h1 = h
4
B
FRS 3 4 1
0.676 m ∴ hG = h − h×
A θ 4 9 2
FRA 19
= h
36
Note: Since the hatch surface exposed to the air will be
subjected to a uniform pressure distribution, the result- 19
ant hydrostatic force will act at the hatch centre. =m
18
Taking moments of the forces FRS and FRA, about the Let ρbe the density of the liquid. The liquid surface
hinge, for equilibrium, we have pressure acts on both sides of the plate and hence can
( hCPS − 20) be ignored for the further calculations.
FRS × = FRA × 1.25
sin θ The total pressure force acting, on the top surface of the
plate,
( 20.676 − 20)
i.e.,1520352.937 × FR = hGρg × A
sin 30 o
= 4.9087 P + 1.25 FR
i.e., = hG ρg
= 335 kPa A
Hence, the correct option is (C). F
Given R = 9319.5 N
7. A
∵ hG ρg = 9319.5
h230° 18 1
h1 hG ∵ ρ = 9319.5× ×
19 9.81
a = 900 Kg/m3
• G 8. The correct option is (A).
b d h 9. For an inclined (or vertical or even horizontal) sub-
merged plate, total pressure force acting on the top
surface.
Given, h1 = 3h2, = 150 × 103 × 10 = 1.5 mN
b = 2a and Hence, the correct option is (B).
h=2m 10. Let the width of the rectangular side considered to be
b meters. Area of the rectangular side exposed to the
Distance of the centroid of the top surface of the plate
fluid, A = h × b
from base (bottom edge),
h
h 2a + b  Here, hG = and
d=   2
3 a + b 
I
hCP = hG + XG (∵ Fluid surface pressure is ignored)
h 2a + 2a  hGA
=  
3 a + 2a 
h 1 h3 × b × 2
= + ×
4 2 12 h × h × b
= h
9 2h
=
Vertical distance of the centroid from the liquid surface, 3
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3.162
hG h 3 3 π 70 
2
∴ = × = =   × 1× 0.7 × 1000 × 9.81
hCP 2 2h 4 4  100 
Hence, the correct option is (D). = 2642.73 N
11. Hence, the correct option is (C). Vertical resultant force,
12. Let the length of the tank into the plane of the paper be FV = FY + W
meters.
= 7000 + 2642.73
Let w be the specific weight of the fluid.
= 9642.73 N
Horizontal component of the total pressure force, FR,
FH = (h + r) × w × 2r × X1 Fy
Vertical component of the force FR is B
C
FV = weight of the fluid in the semicircular bulge
X3
πr2 FV
= × × w
2 X2
The angle made by the force FR with the horizontal,θ is
given by
FV A W
tan θ ≥
FH
70 1
πr2 Here x1 = × = 0.35 m
× w 100 2
= 2
( h + r ) × w × 2r × 4r 70 1
x2 = = 4× ×
π 1 3π 100 3π
=
4 h  = 0.297 m
 + 1
 r  The value of x3 can be determined by taking moments
 h of the forces about the point A for equilibrium.
When the value of h and r are tripled, the ratio   is
 r Hence, Fy × x1 + W × x2
unchanged and hence the value of θ will be unchanged
= FV × x3
7000 × 0.35 + 2642.73× 0.297
13. The correct option is (B). ∴ x3 =
9642.73
14. Absolute pressure at the surface of the liquid, ρo = 150
+ 100 = 250 kPa (Assuming atmospheric pressure is = 0.335 m
100 kPa) Hence, the correct option is (D).
Absolute pressure at the bottom be of curved surface 15.
AB, PB = 150 kPa
Hence net absolute pressure at the surface of the liquid, x B F
Pnet = P0 – PB = 250 – 150 = 100 kPa O
Assume the tank to have a unit depth in to the plane of

the paper. W
Fx
Hydrostatic force acting on curved surface AB due to
y
air,
A
Fg = Pnet × ACB
70 Horizontal hydrostatic force acting on surface AB,

= 100 × 103 × ×1 FX = (hG × ρ × g) × AOA
100
= 7000 N  7
=  × 0.9 × 1000 × 9.81× (7 × 50)
Weight of the liquid acting on the curved surface AB,  2
πr2 = 10815525 N
W= × 1× ρ× g
4 Weight of the liquid is acting on the surface AB.
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 π × 72  Taking a force balance on the drum, we get

W = × 50 × 0.9 × 1000 × 9.81 FB = Wd + Ww
 4 
i.e., 1926.19 = 20 + 1348.33 h
= 16988986.94 N
h = 141.37 cm
1
Here, y = × 7 = 2.33 m Since h > height of the drum, the drum will still be
3 floating (i.e., never will be submerged) even if it is full
4 of wine.
X= × 7 = 2.97 m
3π Hence, the correct option is (A).
Considering the moments of the forces about the point 18. Let the length of the pole immersed in the liquid be x
A for equilibrium, we have metres. Buoyant force acting on the immersed pole,
FX × y + W × x = F × 7 FB = x × 0.01 × 1200 × 9.81
= 117.72 x
10815525× 2.33+ 16988986.94 × 2.97
or F = A force balance on the immersed pole gives
7
T + FB = Wp (1)
≈ 10.81 m N
When the pole is completely lifted out, a force balance
Hence, the correct option is (C). on the pole gives
16. Let w be the width of the block and be the length of 2.06T = Wp (2)
the block into the plane of the paper.
From equation (1) and (2), we get
Given, ρ1 = 800 Kg /m3
1.06 WP = 2.06 FB
ρ2 = 9000 Kg /m3
Now, WP = (7 + x) × 0.01 × 700 × 9.81
ρ = 7000 Kg /m3
= 480.69 + 68.67x
Where ρ is the density of the block.
∴ 1.06 (480.69 +68.67x) = 2.06 × 117.72x
For static equilibrium,
Force of buoyancy acting on the block = weight of the i.e., x = 3 m
block. So length of the pole = 7 + x = 7 +3
i.e., (xwρ1 + ywρ2) × g = Buoyance = 10 m
= (x + y) wρg = weight of the block. Hence, the correct option is (B).
x ( ρ− ρ2 ) 19. Weight of the cylinder,
or =
y ( ρ1 − ρ) W = A2h2ρ2g
Let h3 be the height of the cylinder submerged in the
x (7000 − 9000) liquid. Weight of the liquid displaced,
i.e., =
y (800 − 7000)
Wd = A2h3ρ1g
10 Now, W = Wd
=
31 i.e., A2 h2 ρ2 g = A2h3ρ1g
h2 ρ2
17. Let the drum be just submerged in the water, when it is or h3 =
ρ1
filled with wine up to a depth of ‘h’ metres.
Weight of the drum, Wd = 20 N Increment in the initial volume of the tank = volume of
cylinder submerged.
Weight of the water displaced by the submerged drum,
i.e., Dh × A1 = h3 × A2,
π
FB = × (0.5) 2 × 1× 1000 × 9.81 Where Dh is the rise in the liquid level,
4
A2
= 1926.19 N or Dh = h3 ×
A1
Weight of the wine in the drum
h2 ρ2 A2
(0.5) 2 =
Ww = 700 × 9.81× π × ×h ρ1 A1
4
= 1348.33 h Given, A2 = 0.5 A1
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ρ2 = 2ρ1 ∴ GM = BM – BG
h × 2 ρ1 × 0.5 A1
i.e., Dh = 2 3 r2 3 3
ρ1 A1 = − × 60 + h
4 h 4 4
= h2 Note: For the right circular cone, we can write
r 30
20. Let the length of an edge of the block be x metres. =
h 60
Weight of the block, 3 30 3 3 60 × r
W = x × x × x × 0.85 × 1000 × 9.81 ∴ GM = × × r − × 60 + ×
4 60 4 4 30
= 8338.5x3 N For the cone to be unstable, GM should be negative,
Buoyant force on the block when it is immersed com- i.e., GM < 0
pletely in the liquid, 30 60
FB = x × x × x ×1.2 × 1000 × 9.81 or r+ r < 60
60 30
= 11772x3 N or r < 24 cm
A force balance of the completely immersed block Hence, the correct option is (D).
gives, 24. Let us consider a hollow cylinder in general which has
W + 2800 × 9.81 = FB a length L metres and a length of metres submerged
i.e., 8338.5x3 +27468 = 11772x3 in the liquid. Buoyant force experienced.
i.e., x = 2 m = weight of the cylinder.
After the concrete weight is removed, Let the height of π
(0.82 − 0.322 ) × × 0.9 × 1000
the block submerged in the liquid be h metres. A force 4
balance on the floating block gives π
= (0.82 − 0.322 ) × L × 800
h × x × x × 1.2 × 1000 × 9.81 4
= x × x × x × 0.85 × 1000 × 9.81 8
x × 0.85 = L (1)
∴ h= 9
1.2 π
2 × 0.85 Here, I = (0.84 − 0.324 )
= 64
1.2
= 1.42 m π
VS = (0.82 − 0.322 ) ×
∴ Height of the block is protruding outside of the liq- 4
uid surface. I
∴ BM =
= 2 – h = 2 – 1.42 VS
= 0.58 m π
(0.84 − 0.324 )
21. The correct option is (C). π
(0.82 − 0.322 )
4
0.0464
23. Let h (in cm) is the height of the cone that is submerged =
in the liquid.
3 3 L
Here, BG = × 60 − h BG = −
4 4 2 2
π GM = BM – BG
I = r4
4 0.0464  L 
1 2 = − − 
vs = π h  2 2
3
π 4 Substituting for from equation (1) in the above equa-
I r tion, we have
BM = = 4
VS 1 2 0.0522  L 4 L 
πr h GM = − − 
3 L 2 9 
3 r2 0.0522 L
= = −
4 h L 18
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For the cylinder to be stable, 0.1 0.1

∴ GM = + (0.9 − 1)
GM > 0 12 × 0.9 2
0.0522 L = 0.00425 m
i.e., >
L 18 For cube B,
i.e., L < 0.9693 m
= 0.2 m
Or L < 96.93 cm
S = 0.8
After the length extension, cylinder A and B will have
the length of 90 cm and 80 cm which is less than 96.93 0.2 0.2
∴ GM = + (0.8 − 1)
cm. Hence cylinders A and B will be stable. 12 × 0.8 2
Hence, the correct option is (B). = 0.00083 m
25. Let the height of the cylinder immersed in water be h. Since the metacentric height is higher for cube A,
Buoyant force experienced = weight of the cylinder. Cube A is more stable than cube B.
π r2h × 1000 × g = π R2 H × 0.9 × 1000 × g Hence, the correct option is (B).
i.e., h = 0.9 H 28. The correct option is (A).
29. Given T = 0.5 min
π 4
Here, I = R = 30 sec
4
VS = π R2 h W = 25000 × 103 N
π 4 w = 10.1 × 103 N
I R
I = 2000 m4
∴ BM = = 4 2
VS π R h BM = 3.5 m
R2 R2 BG = 1.5 m
= = ∴ GM = BM – BG
4h 3.6 H
= 3.5 – 1.5 = 2 m
H h
BG = −
2 2 k2
T = 2π
GM = BM – BG (GM ) g
R2  H h 
= − −  k2
3.6 H  2 2  i.e., 30 = 2 π
2 × 9.81
R 2  H 0.9 H  k = 21.15 m
= − − 
3.6 H  2 2  Hence, the correct option is (A).
30. Given
R2
= − 0.05 H
3.6 H k= xg
For the cylinder to be stable
k2
R 2 Now T = 2 π
> 0.05 H xg
3.6 H
R xg
or > 0.42426 = 2π
H xg
Hence, the correct option is (C). = 2π seconds
26. The correct option is (D). ∴ The time taken to complete 3 oscillations = 3 × 2π =
27. For cube A, 6π seconds
= 0.1 m = 0.1 π minutes.
S = 0.9 Hence, the correct option is (D).
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 dy  y= 0.5 mm  dy 
 0.5 − 0  200 mm
= 7.4 × 10− 7 × 880 ×  −3  Oil
 (0.5× 10 ) − 0 
Water
= 0.6512 Pa A
Hence, the correct option is (B). 100 mm

3.166
2. For| Part III
Newtonian • Unit 4
fluid • Fluid Mechanics B
µdu du
Previous or τ ∝’ Questions
τ = Years 3. For
PA – incompressible
roil g (0.2) – rair flow field+ rcontinuity equation is
g (0.08) water
dy dy ∂u g∂(0.38)
v ∂w= P
1. Given: ∂ = 7.4 × 10-7 m2/sec + + = B0 or ∇⋅ V = 0.
τ = shear stress Plates ∂x∴ P∂By – P∂A z= 2.199 kPa
μ = fluid viscosity answerisis(A).
Hence, the correct option –2.2 kPa.
0.5 m/s
du 4. r = 800 kg/m3; rwater = 1000 kg/m3
= Rate
0.5 mm of shear strain Velocity profile 5. Voil= 2 gx
dy
rair = 1.16 kg/m3
where,
Hence, the correct option is (C). ⎛ ρ ⎞
x = h ⎜1 − air ⎟ Air
S = 0.88 ⇒ ρ = 880 kg/m3 ⎝ ρwater ⎠

Shear stress on surface of top plate
⎛ 1 ⎞ 999h
 du  = h ⎜1 − =
⎝ 1000 ⎟⎠ 1000
 du  80 mm
( τ) y= 0.5 mm = µ  = ϑ× ρ×  
 dy  y= 0.5 mm  dy 
999h
 0.5 − 0  ∴ 20 = 2 × 9.81 × 200 mm
= 7.4 × 10− 7 × 880 ×  −3  Oil 1000
 (0.5× 10 ) − 0 
Water
400 × 1000
= 0.6512 Pa ⇒
A h= = 20.40 mm
2 × 9.81 × 999
Hence, the correct option is (B). 100 mm
2. For Newtonian fluid B
6. Terminal velocity is constant velocity.
µdu du Hence,
PA – roilnet acceleration
g (0.2) is zero.
– rair g (0.08) + rwater
τ= or τ ∝
dy dy Shearg force due
(0.38) = P to oil film = Weight of block
B
τ = shear stress ∴ PB – tPAA = 2.199
mg kPa
μ = fluid viscosity Hence,
μVthe correct answer is –2.2 kPa.
× A = mg
du h
= Rate of shear strain
dy
chanics mgh 2 × 10 × 0.15 × 10 −3
Hence, the correct option is (C). V= =
μA 7 × 10 −3 × 0.04
3. For incompressible flow field continuity equation is
V = 10.714 m/s
∂u ∂v ∂w
+ + = 0 or ∇⋅ V = 0.
Plates ∂x ∂y ∂z Hence, the correct answer is 10.714.
0.5 m/s Hence, the correct option is (A).
ocity profile 4. roil = 800 kg/m3; rwater = 1000 kg/m3

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rair = 1.16 kg/m3
Air
 du  80 mm
 
 dy 
0.5 − 0  200 mm
−3  Oil
× 10 ) − 0 
Water
A
100 mm
B
PA – roil g (0.2) – rair g (0.08) + rwater

g (0.38) = PB
∴ PB – PA = 2.199 kPa
Hence, the correct answer is –2.2 kPa.
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CHapter 2 Fluid pressure and BuoyanCy
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 Where ρ is the density of the liquid.
1. Let the length of the gate into the plane of the paper be With regard to the centre of pressure,
l meters. I XG
hcp = hG +
The pressure P0 (= atmospheric pressure) acts on all hG A
surfaces of the gate.
1
R × 53 × 7
R F hCP = 7.5 + 12 = 7.78 m
RQ
7.5 × 5 × 7
hRQ h
P Q Let the horizontal reaction of the hinge be RH
FPQ
1m hPQ Taking moments of the forces about Q for equilibrium,
we have
0.3 m FR × (10 − 7.78) = RH × 5
2575.125 ρ × 2.22 = RH × 5 (1)
For liquid A, the resultant hydro static force acting on The hinge breaks when
0.3 RH = 1029 × 103 N
PQ, FPQ = (h – 1) × ρA × g × l × 0.3 and , hPQ = = 0.15 m
2
The resultant hydrostatic force acting on the area of RQ Substituting the value of RH in equation (1), we get
exposed to the fluid, ρ = 899.98 ≈ 900 kg/m3
 h −1  Hence, the correct option is (B).
FRQ =   ρ A × g × l × ( h − 1)
 2  3. Pressure P0 (= atmospheric pressure) acts on both sides
For the vertical surface RQ, it can be shown that of the gate. Hence,
 h −1  1 ( h − 1)3 × l × 2
h – 1 - hRQ =   + ×
 2  12 ( h − 1) × ( h − 1) × l 2m
1
i.e., hRQ = ( h − 1) FR2 1.5 m
3 FRI
Taking the moments of the forces about point Q for
equilibrium, we have
FPQ × hPQ = FRQ × hRQ
Resultant hydrostatic force acting on the gate from the
i.e., ( h − 1) ρ A g × l × 0.3 × 0.15 down stream side,
 h −1   h −1  FRI = hG ρgA
=  ρ A g × l ( h − 1) ×  
 2   3  1.5
= × 900 × 9.81× 1.5 × 3
h = 1.52 m 2
i.e., hA = h = 1.52 m = 29797 ⋅ 875 N
It can be seen that the value of h is independent of the Resultant hydrostatic force acting on the gate from the
density of the fluid, hence upstream side,
HB = hA = 1.52 m FR2 = hG ρ gA
Hence, the correct option is (D).  1.5 
= 2+ × 1500 × 9.81× 1.5 × 3
2. Considering the gate PQ,  2 
5 = 182098 ⋅125 N
hQ = 10 – 5 + = 7.5 m
2 Distance between the line of action of FR and the hinge,
Since P0 (= atmospheric pressure) acts on both sur-
faces of the gate, resultant hydrostatic force acting on  I 
the gate is the total pressure on the gate due to the body hRI = 1.5 −  hG + XG 
 hGA 
of the liquid.
FR = hGρgA 1.5 1 (1.5)3 × 3 × 2 
= 1.5 −  + × 
= 7.5 ρ × 9.51 × 5 × 7  2 12 1.5 × 1.5 × 3 
= 2575⋅125ρ, = 0.5 m
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3.168
Distance between the line of action of FR2 and the hinge, Pressure at the surface of the bottom layer of liquid (not
including the pressure PO)
 I 
hR2 = 3.5 −  hG + XG  PO2 = h1 × ρ1 × g
 hG A 
0.6 × 0.7 × 1000 × 9.81
  = 4120.2
 1.5  (1.5) × 3
3 
 h 
= 3.5 –  2 +  +  ∴ FR2 =  4120.2 + × 0.9 × 1000 × 9.81 × h × 2
 2   1.5    2 
 12 ×  2 +  × 1.5 × 3 
  2   = 8240.4 h + 8829 h2
= 0.6818 m It is given that,
Let the distance of the line of action of the resultant FR1 + FR2 = FR = 4502.8
hydrostatic force i.e., 2472.12 + 8240.4 h + 8829 h2 = 4502.8
FR (resultant of FR1 and FR2) from the hinge be hR. Or, 8829 h2 + 8240.4 h = 2030.68
Now FR = FR2 – FR1
(8240.4) 2 + 4 × 2030.68 × 8829
= 152300. 25 N Now h = −8240.4 ±
2 × 8829
Taking moments of the forces FR, FR1 and FR2 about the
hinge for equilibrium, we have: = 0.202 m
FR × hR + FR1 × hR1 = FR2 × hR2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
152300.25 × hR + 29797.875 × 0.5 5. Let hCP be the vertical distance of the centre of pressure
from the top liquid surface.
= 182098.125 × 0.6818
Centre of pressure depth with respect to the top liquid
hR = 0.7174 m layer
I ×G
4. Let the thickness of the bottom liquid layer be h metres. hcp1 = hG ! +
hG1 × A1
0.6 1 (0.6)3 × 2 × 2
0.6 m = + × = 0.4 m
2 12 0.6 × 0.6 × 2
ρ = 0.7 × 1000 hm
Centre of pressure depth, with respect to the bottom
ρ = 0.9 × 1000 2m liquid layer.
2m
I ×G
hCP 2 = hG 2 +
The top fluid surface pressure acts on all sides of the  P 
tank surfaces and hence can be ignored in all calcula-  hG 2 + O 2  A2
 ρ2 g 
tions. The resultant hydrostatic force, due to the less
dense liquid acting on one side of the tank, 1
× (0.202) 2 × 2
FR1 = hG1 × ρ1 × g × A1 0.202 12
+
2  0.202 4120.2 
A B  2 + 0.9 × 1000 × 9.81  × 0.202 × 2
 
h G1 H cp1
0.6 FR!
= 0.1306 m
h G2 H cp2 Taking moments about B of the forces FR1, FR2 and FR
h FR2 for equilibrium, we have:
2m FR × hCP = FR1 × hCP1 + FR2 × (0.6 + hCP2)
4502. hCP = 2472.12 × 0.4 + 8240.4 × 0.202 + 8829 ×
0.6 (0.202)2 × (0.6 + 0.1306)
× 0.7 × 1000 × 9.81× 0.6 × 2
2 hCP = 0.548 m
= 2472.12 N Hence, the correct option is (B).
The resultant hydrostatic force, due to the more dense 6. Area of the gate, A = 4 × 4 = 16 m2
liquid, acting on one side of the tank,
Ignoring the atmospheric pressure acting at the out side
FR2 = (PO2 + hG2 × P2 × g) × A2 surface of the gate, we have,
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Chapter 2 • Fluid Pressure and Buoyancy
4.13
Pressure at the interface between the liquid layers PI Area of the annular plate,
= – 1000 + 2 × 0.5 × 1000 × 9.81 π
A = (D2 − d 2 )
∴ PI = – 190 N/m2 4
Vertical distance of the centroid of the gate area from Given, D = 2d
the interface between the liquid layers,
3π d 2
4 × sin 45° ∴ A=
hG = 2 + 4
2
Hence the vertical distance of the centroid of the top
= 3.414 m D
The total pressure force acting on the gate, FR = (-190 surface, hg = h2 + sin θ
2
+ 3.414 × 0.8 × 1000 × 9.81) × 16
D h
= 425649.152 N Or hG = h2 + × ( K − 1) 2
2 D
Vertical distance of the centre of pressure from the ( K + I )h2
interface between the liquid layers, Or hG =
2
I ×G sin 2 θ I sin 2 θ
hCP = hG + Now, h = hG + XG .
 PI  hG A
 hG + A
 ρg  π  ( K − I )h2 
2
(D4 − d 4 ) ×  
1 ( K + 1)h2 64  D 
× 43 × 4 × (sin 45 ) 2 h= +
= 3.414 + 12 2 ( K + 1)h2 π
 190  × (D − d )
2 2
 3.414 − 0.8 × 1000 × 9.81  × 16 2 4

  h 16( K + I ) + 5( K − 1)
2 2
or =
= 3.6107 m h2 32( K + I )
Let F be required vertical pull force h 69
Taking moments of the foces FR and F, about the hinge, With the substitution = , the above equation
h2 32
for equilibrium, we have: reduces to
F × (3.6107 − 2) 21 k2 – 47 K – 48 = 0
F × 4 × cos 45° = R
cos 45° 47 ± ( 47) 2 + 4 × 48 × 21
Or K =
425649.152 × 1.6107 2 × 21
F=
4 × cos 45° Or K = 3
= 342.8 kN Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 8. Let us consider the free body diagram of the dam as
7. Let θ be the angle of intersection between the plane, shown below.
containing the top surface of the annular plate, and the r
water surface. FR
B
θ O
h2
h1
G
•
CP
•
D r
FX •
d W C
h1 − h2 If P0 is the pressure at the fluid surface, then

Hence, sin θ =
D Fy = Po × AOB’
Given, h1 = Kh2 Where AOB is the area of the planar surface OB,
h2 Since PO acts also at the bottom of the curved surface
∴ sin θ = ( K − 1)
D AB, it can be neglected.
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3.170
Hence, Fy can be neglected. Pipe

D C
∴ Vertical component of the total pressure force FR,
FV = W 2m 5m
It is known that FV could then act through the centroid
4r
of the water above the dam, i.e., metres to the right
3≠ 3m
of the point A. Hemisphere
A
Also it can be shown that Fx could act at a distance of 6m B
2
r from the point O.
3 Where WC is the weight of the water in the imaginary
A concluding diagram can then be drawn as follows. cylinder ABCDA, WHS is the weight of the water in the
30 m hemisphere and
FR WP is the weight of the water in the pipe.
B
O
WC = π × (3)2 × 8 × 1000 × 9.81
W
= 2218969.723 N
FX G E 30 m 2
WHS = π × (3)3 × 1000 × 9.81
D 3
C
A = 554742.43 N
2
2
From the above explanation, WP = π ×   × 5 × 1000 × 9.81
4 2
Length of GE, LGE = × 30 = 154095.12 N
3π
∴ FV = 2218969.723 – 554742.43 – 154.95.12
= 12.73 m
2 = 1510132.173 N
Length of OG, LOG = × 30
3 The net vertical hydrostatic force after deducting the
= 20 m weight of the hemispherical dome (acting downwards)
is,
∴ Length of OE = LOE = ( LGE ) 2 + ( LOG ) 2
FV = 1510132.173 – 40 × 103
= 23.7 m = 1470132.173 N
From similarity of triangle ∆ OGE and ∆ ODC, we Number of bolts required
have
L 1470132.173
Length of DC, LDC = OC × LGE =
LOE 183.8 × 103
≈8
30
= × 12.73 Hence, the correct option is (C).
23.71
10. The free body diagram is as follows
= 16.11 m
i.e., x = 16.11 m C
D
LOC
Length of OD, LOD = × LOG A
LOE FR1 hCP
30
= × 20 = 25.3 m F FR2
23.71 B
Length of DA = LOA – LOD
= 30 – 25.3 Let w be the specific weight of the fluid.
= 4.7 m Surface AC
i.e., y = 4.7 m Total pressure force, FR!,, acting on the surface will pass
through the point D (hinge) and hence is not required
for moment calculation about the hinge as carried out
9. Hydrostatic force acting vertically upwards FV = WC – below. So for this problem FR1 need not be calculated
WHS – WP, at all.
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4.15
Surface AB 4
(1 − x ) π × 1.53 × 1800 × 9.81
Total pressure force acting on the surface, 3
FR2 = hG × w × A 4
= π × 1.53 × 1.1× 1000 × 9.81 + 6000
h h 3 3
Hence, hG = + = h
2 4 4 (1 – x) 249507.54 = 152476.83 + 6000 = 158476.83
 h h (1 – x) = 0.635
And A =  h −  × b = × b
 2 2 x = 0.365
3 h = 36.5%
∴ FR2 = h × w × × b
3 12. Let the length of the beam that is submerged in the liq-
= wh2 b
8 uid be L metres (< 10 m).
Vertical distance of the centre of pressure from the Weight of the beam,
point D, Wb = 0.015 × 0.015 × 10 × 800 × 9.81
I
hCP = hG + XG (fluid surface pressure is ignored). = 17.658 N
hG A
Buoyant force acting on the beam,
3
1 h Fb = 0.015 × 0.015 × L × 1100 × 9.81 = 2.428 L
× ×b
3 12  2  Taking the moments of the forces about the point P for
= h+
4 3 h equilibrium, we get
h× × b
4 2 10
28 Wb × × cos θ
= h 2
36
 L
Taking moments of the forces about the point D for = Fb × 10 −  cos θ
equilibrium, we have  2
F × h = FR2 × hCP i.e., 17.658 × 5 = 2.428 L × (10– 0.5 L)
3 28 i.e., 1.214 L2 – 24.28 L + 88.29 = 0
F × h = wh2 b × h
8 36 Or L = 4.78 m
7 From the figure in question,
= wh2 b
24 0.11 0.11
F 7 2 sin θ = =
∴ = hb 5 − L 5 − 4.78
w 24
∴ θ = 30°
11. The free body diagram is
13. Let the height of the cylinder be h and let its cross-
B sectional area be A.
Weight of the liquid A displaced by the cylinder,
• WA = x × A × ρA × g
W
Weight of the liquid B displaced by the cylinder,
WB = (h – x) × A × ρB × g
T
h− x
Given = 2, h − x = 2 x
The buoyant force is balanced by the weight and ten- x
sion in the string, considering the equilibrium of the Or h = 3x
sphere.
∴ WB = 2xA × ρB × g
Weight of the sphere = B = T + W or 1.1 × 1000 N
Weight of the cylinder, = Wc = h × A × ρ × g
4 = 3x × A × ρ × g
π × 1.53 × 1.1× 1000 × 9.81 N
3 Writing the force balance equation of the cylinder, we get,
4
= (1 − x ) × π × 1.53 × 1.8 × 1000 × 9.81 N WC – WA – WB = Patm × A (atmospheric pressure acts on
3 the top of the cylinder.
But B = W + T or 3x × A × ρ × g – x × A × ρA × g
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3.172
– 2x × A × ρB × g = Patm × A (1) 15. Let the equal submerged height for both the cones be
Given ρ = 2ρA and ρB = 2 PA h1 metres. Let the radius of the circle formed by the
intersection of the floating cones and the liquid surface
Hence, from equation (1), we get
be r1 metres.
Patm
x= Let r and h (both in metres) be the radius and height of
ρAg the cones respectively
Hence, the correct option is (D). For cone B, equating the experienced buoyant force and
14. Let the density of the cylinder be ρS. the cone’s weight we get
When the gate is about to open 1 2
π r1 × h1 × 1.2 × 1000 × 9.81
Area of the gate exposed to water, A = 3 × 3 = 9 m2 3
Total pressure force acting on the gate, 1
= π r 2 × h × ρ B × 9.81
3 3
FR = × 1000 × 9.81× 9
2
i.e., r12 × h1 × 1.2 × 1000
= 132435 N (fluid surface pressure ignored)
= r2 × h × ρB (1)
Let T be the tension in the rope.
For cone A, equating the experienced buoyant force and
Gate
T
the cone’s weight (including the additional weight) we
get
1 2
5m
π r1 × h1 × 1.2 × 1000 × 9.81
3
FR
hR
1
= π r12 × 1× ρ A 9.81 + 31.429.81
A
3
3 Or r12 h1 × 1.2 × 1000

It can be shown that hR=
= 1m
3 31.42 × 3
∴ Taking moments at point A, = r2 × h × ρA + (2)
π
T × 5 = FR × 1 From equations > (1) and (2) we get,
132435 3
=
or T = 26487 N r 2 × h × ρ B = r 2 × h × PA + 31.42 ×
5 π
T
Given, r = 1 m
Cylinder
h=3m
W
∴ The above equation becomes
FB ρB = 10 + ρA
16. Buoyant force experienced = cylinder weight
π r 2 b ρ g = π r 2 h ρ S g
Weight of the cylinder, bρ
i.e., h = (1)
π ρS
W = × ( 2) 2 × 4 × ρ s × g
4 Here, VS = πr2 b
= 123.276 ρS N. π
Buoyant force, Ι = r4
4
π I π r4 r2
FB = (3 − 1) × × ( L) 2 × 1000 × 9.81 BM = = =
4 VS 4 × π r 2 b 4b
= 61638.048 N h b
BG = −
A force balance on the cylinder gives 2 2
T = W – FB GM = BM – BG
i.e., 26487 = 123.276 ρS – 61638.048 r2 h b
= − +
Or ρS ≈ 715 Kg /m3 4b 2 2
Hence, the correct option is (B). Since the cylinder is neutrally stable, GM = 0
Unit 04.indd 16
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4.17
r2 h b 18. Specific gravity = 0.6

i.e., = − (2)
4b 2 2
Equation (1) in equation (2) gives •G 1m
•B
r 2 b( ρ − ρ S ) 0.2 m
= O
2b ρS Specific gravity = 7
r 2 ρS
∴ ρ − ρ S = Let h be the height of the cube that is submerged is
2b 2
water. About the point O,
17. Let the specific gravity of the cylinder be ϒ. Moment of the centre of mass of the cube = sum of the
moments of the parts of the cube with different specific
Specific gravity of oil = 1.5 ϒ gravities.
Let L be the length of the cylinder and bethe length
of the cylinder that is submerged in the liquid.   0.8  
1× 1× 0.8 × 0.6 × 1000 ×  0.2 + 
Buoyant force experienced by the cylinder = weight of  2  
∴ OG = 
the cylinder.  0.2 
 +1× 1× 0.2 × 7 × 1000 × 
 2 
i.e., π × (0.752 − 0.32 ) × × 1.5γ
4 (1× 1× 0.8 × 0.6 × 1000 + 1× 1× 0.2 × 7 × 1000)
π
= × (0.752 − 0.32 )L × γ i.e., OG = 0.8 × 0.6 × = 0.2276 m
4
Buoyant force = weight of the cube experienced
i.e., L = 1.5 l (1)
1 × 1 × h × 1000 × 9.81
π
Here, I = (0.754 − 0.34 ) = 1 × 1 [0.2 × 7 + 0.8 × 06] × 1000 × 9.81
64
i.e., h = 1.88 m = OB
π
Vs = (0.752 − 0.32 ) × I4 I 4
4 Here, =
I = m
12 12
π
(0.754 − 0.34 ) VS = 1 × 1 × 1.88 = 1.88 m3
I 64
BM = =
VS π I 1
(0.752 − 0.32 ) ∴ BM = =
4 VS 12 × 1.88
(0.752 + 0.32 )
= 0.044326 m
16
1.88
L = =
BG OG – OB 0.2276 –
BG = − 2
2 2
= – 0.7124
GM = BM – BG
GM = BM – BG
0.752 + 0.32  L 
− −  = 0.044326 + 0.7124
16  2 2
= 0.757 M
For the cylinder to be stable,
GM > 0
0.752 + 0.32 L 19. The correct option is (C).
Or > −
16 2 2 20. Given, BG = 1.5 m
L I = 9000 m4
Now = (from equation (1)
1.5 K=5m
L L 1.5(0.75 + 0.3 )
2 2
T = 7 secs
i.e., − <
2 3 16 L W = 10.2 kN/m3
Or L < 0.6058 M Let W be the weight of the ship
Hence, the correct option is (A). Volume of sea water displaced, V
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3.174
W i.e., k 2 × 4π 2
= m3 GM =
10.2 × 103 g ×T 2
I 9000 × 10.2 × 103 52 × 4 × π 2

BM = = =
V W 9.81× 49
9000 × 10.2 × 103 25 × 4 × π 2

9000 × 10.2 × 103 or − 1.5 =
GM = BM – BG = − 1.5 W 9.81× 49
W
W = 25837 kN.
k2
Now, T = 2π Hence, the correct option is (B).
(G ⋅ M ) g
Previous Year’s Questions  1× 53 

+  × sin 30
2
1. A body is going to displaced slightly when floating and  12 

is supposed to oscillate with respect to a point which is = 1.25
(5 × 1× 1.25)
known as metacentre. This is the point of the intersec-
= 1.67 m
tion of the centre of buoyancy and centre of gravity line
to the new line of up thrust under a small tilt given to 1.67 = 3.34 m
O sin 30°
the body. When metacentre is above centre of gravity, 2.5 × cos 30°
2.5 m
it creates a couple which is opposite to the applied cou- = 2.168 m
ple and therefore the body comes in the stable previous
position. F
mg
mg Taking moment is about hinge O.

•
M
G•
F × 3.34 = mg × 2.165
G
FB ⇒ 61.312 × 103 × 3.34 = m × 9.81 × 2.165
B
mg
FB ⇒ m = 9642 kg
∴ Answer is close to option (D)
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (D).
2.
•
4. Acceleration is given by
2.5 m
− du du du du
− x a=u +v +w +
y • dx dy dz dt
2.5 m
G CP
•
du
The term corresponds to local acceleration and is
dt
G → centroid of gate, CP = centre of pressure where equal to zero for steady flow. The remaining term repre-
hydrostatic force is acting. sent convective acceleration. For uniform flow velocity at
a given time does not change with respect to space. So the
x = 2.5 × sin 30° = 1.25 m given flow field is non uniform and steady.
Force exerted by fluid on gate, F = ρ gxA Hence, the correct option is (C).
⇒ F = 1000 × 9.81 × 1.25 × 5 × 1 5. Solution: For a floating body, buoyant force acts at
= 61.312 kN the center of buoyance which is the centroid of liquid
I sin 2 θ displaced.
Now, y = x + G Hence, the correct option is (D).
Ax
6. Solution:
Unit 04.indd 18
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Chapter 2 • Fluid Pressure and Buoyancy | 3.175
7. Solution: Neglecting mass of plug,

4.19
(rV)body = (rV)water + (rV)oil Net Buoyancy force = Sg(Vnet)
7. Solution:
rb V = (1000) (0.55) V + 700 × (0.45) V Neglecting mass of plug, πR 2 L
Vnet = ( 2 R × L) R −
(rV)body
rb = 550
(rV)+water
315 + (rV)oil Net Buoyancy force = Sg(Vnet
2)
= 865 kg/m 3
rb V = (1000) (0.55) V + 700 × (0.45) V π  πR 2 L
2 
Vnet == 2( 2RR L× L1)−R4−
Hence,
rthe
b
correct
= 550 + 315 answer is 865.
2
8. = 865 kg/m3  π π 
∴ FB = 2 R 2 Lρ g1 − 1− 
Hence, the correct answer is 865.   4  4 
8. R R
π  π 
FBB = 2FR=2 L2ρρgR21gL
∴ F − 1 −
 4  4 
R R Hence, the correct option π
is (A).
F FB = F = 2ρ R 2 gL  1 − 
  meta centre must be
For stability of a floating body,4the
9.
above the center of gravity.
Chapter 2 • Fluid Pressure and Buoyancy | 3.175 Hence, the correct option is (A).
F Hence, the correct option is (D).
Neglecting mass of plug,
Net Buoyancy force = Sg(Vnet)
(0.45) V πR 2 L
Vnet = ( 2 R × L) R −
2
 π
= 2 R2 L  1 − 
 4
 π
∴ FB = 2 R 2 Lρ g  1 − 
 4
π
FB = F = 2ρ R 2 gL  1 − 
 4
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CHapter 3 Fluid KinematiCs and dynamiCs
Hints/solution
1. From the velocity field description,
s = ( h − h)i + (C + c) j + ( d − d )k
u=xt
= 2cĵ
v = −m y
It is given that
given V = 5
s = (c + 4 x + 6 y ) j
i.e., a2 + v 2 = 5 i.e., 2 c = 4x + 6y + c
c = 4x + 6y
or x 2 t 2 + m 2 y 2 = 5,
Here, at (1, 1, 1)
At t = 2 secs, x = 2 m and y = 1 m
c = 4 × 1 + 6 × 1 = 10.
i.e., 22 × 22 + m 2 × 1 = 5 Hence, the correct option is (D).
or m = 3 4. A steady uniform flow is assumed. If a control volume
∴ v = −3 y is considered cutting across the jet and including the
Convective acceleration in the y − direction, splashed liquid, then the pressure acting on all sides is
the atmospheric pressure and hence can be neglected.
∂U ∂U
ay = U +V The momentum flow contraction factor is unity as a
∂x ∂y
uniform flow is assumed.
= x t × 0 + (−3 y) × (−3)
2 Plate
=9y
At y = 1 m, ay = 9 m/s2.
Hence, the correct option is (B). 1 F
2. From the velocity field description, we have Liquid jet

U = −x t, 3
Control volume
V = (6 − y) t
For a stream line, The force exerted by the jet is numerically equal to the
dy dx rate of change of momentum.
= −3
v u ∴ F = ρ( AV ) × v = 800 × 100 × 10 × 10
dy dx = 800 N
=
(6− y )t − xt 5. Uniform flow is assumed and hence the momentum flu
correction factors are unity.
dy dx
or = V1
( y − 6) x θ
1 w
Integrating we have
Control volume
ln (y − 6) = in (x) + ln c, T
Where C is a constant
or (y − 6) = x c R
At the point (1, 3), we have
(3 − 6) = 1 × c The force exerted by concrete
or C = −3 = ρ AV 2
i.e., y − 6 = −3 x π × 0.12
= 2200 × × 2× 2 N
or y + 3 x = 6 is the required equation of the streamline. 4
= 69.115 N.
θ
3. Vorticity vector,
69.115 3560
 ∂ω ∂v  ˆ  ∂u ∂ω  ˆ  ∂v ∂u  ˆ Cable T
ς=  − i +  −  j+ − k
 ∂y ∂z   ∂z ∂x   ∂x ∂y  3620
From the given relationships for u, v and w, we get
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Chapter 3 • Fluid Kinematics and Dynamics || 3.177
Considering the equilibrium of the cart, Discharge from each nozzle

69.115 sinθ + 3560 = 3620 4 × 10− 4 m3
60 = = 2 × 10− 4
sinθ = = 0.868 2 s
69.115
π  7 
2
θ = 60.2° Area of the nozzle = × 

4  1000 
From the figure T = 69.115 Cos 60.2
= 3.898 × 10−5 m2
T = 34.34 N
Relative velocity of flow
2 × 10− 4
6. Since one dimensional flow is considered, the velocity Let the nozzle Vr =
of the fluid can be represented by 3.848× 10− 5
= 5.196 m/s
V = uiˆ
Let the torque applied to make the sprinkler stationery
The fluid acceleration component in the x−direction
be Ma. When the sprinkler is stationery, the net torque
is
acting on the sprinkler is zero.
∂u ∂u (x denotes the distance from the inlet)
ax = +u i.e., MA + rA MA Vr (A) − rB MB V (B) = 0
∂t ∂x
i.e., MA = rB MB V (B) − rA MA V (A)
Since flow is steady, ∂u = 0
∂t = 0.7 × 1000 × 2 × 10−4 × 5.196
∂u (Note that Vr (B) = Vr (A) = Vr)
∴ ax = u
∂x ∴ MA = 0.41568 Nm.
Let the subscript 1 and 2 denote the inlet and outlet Hence, the correct option is (D).
respectively. 8. Points 1 and 2 are selected as shown in the following fig-
For a linear velocity distribution, we have ure to apply Bernoulli’s equation. When selecting such
(u − u1 ) x
u = u1 + 2
1 m 900 kg/m3
3 m 1000 kg/m3
Where l is the length of the nozzle? x
h 1 1100 kg/m3
x
∂u  (u − u1 )  (u2 − u1 )
∴ u =  u1 + 2 x 2
∂x  
u1 (u2 − u1 ) (u2 − u1 ) 2 x
or ax = + two points it is necessary to ensure that they are in the
2 same continuous mass of fluid.
Here, u1 = 10 m/s Here P1 = Patm + 1 × 900 × 9.81 + 3 × 1000 × 9.81
u2 = 20 m/s P2 = Patm
l = 100 m Also Z1 − Z2 = h
∴ at x = 25 m The Bernoulli’s equation can be written as
10( 20 − 10) ( 20 − 10) 2 P1 V12 P V2
ax = + × 25 + + gZ1 ± 2 + 2 + gz2
100 (100) 2 ρ 2 ρ 2
1.25 m/s2. V1 = ≈ 0
Hence, the correct option is (C). V22 (900 + 3× 1000)
7. ∴ = 9.81× h + 9.81×
2 1100
A B It is given that V2 = 12.95 m/sh = 5 m
9.
P2A2 V2
0.3 m 0.7 m
rA rB Section 2
Total discharge from the nozzle V1 45°
= 4 × 10−4 m3/s P1A1 FX
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3.178
Given V1 = 15 m/s From Bernoulli’s equation, we have:

P1 = 90 kN/m2 P1 V12 P V2
+ + gz1 = 2 + 2 + gZ 2 (1)
A1 = 2 m2 ρ 2 ρ 2
A2 = 1.5 m2 Here Z2 − Z1 = 7 sin 30° = 3.5
ρ = 950 kg/m2 Equation (1) with the substitution of valves for the vari-
Let Fx be the horizontal component of the force required ables becomes,
to hold the duct in position. The flow is assumed to 30837 0.52 22
be steady and to be uniform across any given cross– = − + 9.81× 3.5
ρ 2 2
section of the duct.
∴ρ = 950 kg/m3.
From the continuity equation, we get A1 V1 = A2V2
2 × 15 m
∴ V2 = = 20 11. Let us consider a point of the water surface in the tank
1.5 s as point 1 and let us consider a point on the discharge
Applying Bernoulli’s equation (assuming no frictional exit of the pipe as point 2.
losses) at sections 1 and 2, we get
given Q = 0.03 m3/s
P1 V12 P V2 Z2 − Z1 = 3 m
+ + gz1 = 2 + 2 + gz2 (1)
ρ 2 ρ 2
π  5 
2
−3
Here Z1 = Z2 and hence equation (1) becomes A2 = ×  = 1.963× 10 m
2
4  100 
9 × 103 152 P 20 2
+ = 2 + Q 0.03 m
950 2 950 2 ∴ V2 = = −3
= 15.282
A2 1.963× 10 s
P2 = 6.875 kPa
Since gauge pressures are considered we have P2 = 0
Applying linear momentum equation in the horizontal
N/m2
direction, we have
The cross–sectional area of the tank will be very much
−Fx + P1A1 − P2 A2 cos 45°
greater than the cross–sectional area of the pipe dis-
= m (V2 cos 45°− V1 ) charge exit.
−Fx + 90 × 103 × 2 − 6.875 × 103 × 1.5 × cos 45° i.e., A1 >>> A2
= 950 × 2 × 15 × (20 × cos 45° − 15) Assuming the flow to be steady from continuity equa-
tions we have:
∴ Fx = 197157.1 N.
A1 V1 = A2 V2
10. Let the subscript 1 and 2 denote the inlet and outlet V2
V1 = A2 0
respectively A
From Bernoulli’s equation, we have
π 150 
2
Here, A1 =   P1 V12 P V2
4  1000  + + gz1 = 2 + 2 + gz2
ρ 2 ρ 2
π 300 
2
A2 =   P1 (15.282) 2
4  1000  = + 9.81× 3
1000 2
V2 = 0.5 m/s P1 = 146.2 K N/m2. (gauge).
P1 − P2 = 30837 N/m2 Hence, the correct option is (A).
The flow is assumed to be steady. From the continuity, 12. Given PA = 50 × 103 Pa
we have
PB = 20 × 103 Pa
A1 V1 = A2 V2
Q = 0.1 m3/s
A2
V1 = V2 × Average velocity at section A,
A1
0.1 m
VA = = 5.66
π  150 
2
 300  2
s
= 0.5×   × 
 150  4  1000 
2 m/s Average velocity at section B,
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0.1 m Discharge between the stream lines

VB = = 0.63
π  450 
2
s = ψ(2, 3) − ψ(1, 2) = 10 units.
× 
4  1000  Hence, the correct option is (A).
Section A is considered as the datum plane and hence 14. ψ = x y
ZA = 0 ∂ψ
u= = x
ZB = 3 m ∂x
Also given ρ = 0.8 × 1000 = 800 kg/m3. Assuming the − ∂ψ
V= =−y
flow to be steady and to be from A to B the energy equa- ∂x
tion between the two sections, we have Now magnitude of the velocity,

PA αAVA2 V = u2 + u2
+ + Z A + hp
ρg 2g
=x2 + y2
PB α V 2

= + B B
+ Z B + ht + hL (1) Given V = 10
ρg 2g
Since no pump or turbine is involved, we have
∴ 10 = x2 + y2
hp = ht = 0
or x2 + y2 = 100 (1)
The kinetic energy correction factors are assumed to be
u
unity, i.e., aA = aB = 1 Given tan120°=
u
∴ Equation (1) becomes −y
− 3=
50 × 10 3
(5.66) 2 x
+ (2)
800 × 9.81 2 × 9.81 y = 3x
20 × 103 (0.63) 2 Equation (2) in (1) gives
= + + 3+ hL x2 + 3 x2 = 100
800 × 9.81 2 × 9.81
hL = 2.435 m or x = 5
From the above calculations, we see that the energy And y = 5 3.
at section A is greater than that at section B (hL > 0); Hence, the correct option is (D).
hence flow would be from A to B as assumed.
π  350  2
2
Hence, the correct option is (D). 15. A1 = ×  m

4  1000 
13. φ = 10 xy
π  150  2
2
dφ A2 = ×  m
u= = 10 y 4  1000 
dx Given P1 − PL = 177 × 103 Pa
∂φ Since the venturimeter would be horizontal,
V= = 10 x
∂y Z1 = Z2
P P
∂Ψ ∂Ψ Differential head h = 1 − 2 + Z1 − Z 2
dΨ = × dx + dy ρg ρg
∂x ∂y
177 × 103
= −Vdx + udy = = 18.043 m
1000 × 9.81
= −10 xdx + 10 ydy 4
Head lost h f = ×h
Integrating, we get 100
ψ = −5x2 + 5 y2 + c 4
= × 18.043 = 0.72172 m
Where c is integration constant at point (2, 3) 100
ψ(2, 3) = − 5 × 22 + 5 × 32 + c h − hf
Cd =
= 25 + c h
At point (1, 2) 18.043− 0.72172
=
ψ(1, 2) = −5 × 12 + 5 × 22 + c 18.043
= 15 + c = 0.96
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3.180
But h = 18.043 Substituting equation (2) in (1), we get

A1 A2 V12 ( ρ − ρ)
Qactual = C D × 2 g ( h) = h m
A12 − A22 2g ρ
Q = 0.3247 m3/s. ( ρm − ρ)
or V1 = 2 gh
Hence, the correct option is (C). ρ
16. CC = 0.62 Q = A1 V1
Cr = 1.0 π 2 ( ρ − ρ)
= D × 2 gh m .
Cd = CC × Cr = 0.62 × 1 = 0.62 4 ρ
π  150 
Ao = ×  = 0.01767 m
2
18. If U is the velocity of the jet, then the horizontal com-
4  1000 
ponent is U cosθ and the vertical component is U sinθ
π  250 
2
A1 = ×  = 0.04909 m
2 Let t be the time taken by the jet to leave the nozzle
4  1000  and strike the ground
Since the pipe is horizontal Horizontal distance traversed = 5 m
Z1 = Z2 ∴ 5 = U cosθ × t
 ρ  ∴ 5 = U cos 45° × t
2 g m − 1 ∆ h
 ρ  5 = 0.707Ut (1)
Q = Cd Ao
C C2 A02 Vertical distance traversed = −2 m
1−
A12 −1
∴ − 2 = U sin θt × g× t2
Here we know that 2
 ρm  −1
i.e.,− 2 = U sin 450 t × 9.81× t 2
 − 1 ∆ h = Difference in head 2
 ρ 
−2 = 0.70711 ut − 4.905 t2 (2)
P1 P Substituting the value of Ut from equation (1) in equa-
= + z − 2 − Z2
ρg 1 ρg tion (2), we get
P1 − P2 −2 = 0.70711 × 7.0711 − 4.905 t2
= ,
ρg ∴ t = 1.195 seconds
2( P1 − P2 ) 7.0711 m
∴ Q = Cd Ao (1) ∴ U= = 5.917
 C 2 A2  1.195 s
ρ 1− C 2 o  If H is the pressure head of the nozzle, then
 A1 
U = Cr 2 gH
Here Q = 0.02 m3/s
i.e., 5.917 = 0.96 × 2 × 9.81× H
Substituting the value of the known variables, we get
P1 − P2 = 1583.38 Pa. H = 1.936 m
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (A).
17. From the Bernoulli equation we have 19.
r2
P1 V12 P V2
+ + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z 2 •2
ρg 2 g ρg 2 g
Here Z1 = Z2 = 0
2m
V2 = 0 (stagnation point) 1.5 m
P1 V12 P 1
∴ + = 2 (1) ω•
ρg 2 g ρg
From the manometric reading, we have Let the radius of the cylinder be r2. The points 1 and 2
P1 + h1ρg + hρmg = P2 + h1ρg + hρg are chosen as shown in the figure.
P2 − P1 ( ρ − ρ) ω2 r22
= h m (2) Hence Z = Z 2 − Z1 = (1)
ρg ρ 2g
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When the axial depth is zero, The flow field in a tornado (except near the centre) is
Z=2m simulated as a vertex flow.
2 π N 2 π × 100 Here V1 r1 = V2 r2, where
ω= =
60 60 V1 = Vθ (r = 3), V2 = Vθ (r = 20)
∴ from equation (1), we have r1 = 3 m and r2 = 20 m
 2 π × 100 2 2 100 × 3 m
So, V2 = = 15
  r 20 s
 60  2
2= For a free vortex
2 × 9.81
P2 − P1 V12 − V22
r2 = 0.598 ≈ 0.6 m =
ρ 2
∴ Diameter of the cylinder = 0.6 × 2 = 1.2 m  100 2 − 152 
Hence, the correct option is (B). ∴ P2 = 1.2 ×  + 94.66 × 103
 2 
20. Given Vθ (r = 3) = 100 m/s = 1005525 = 100.525 kPa.
P(r = 3) = 94.66 × 103 Pa Hence, the correct option is (C).
Practice Problems 2 ∂v ∂v ∂v
and +u +v = 0 (2)
1. From the velocity field description, ∂t ∂x ∂y
u=x+y−m From the velocity field representation,
V = 5 + 2x − 3y u = t (m − 3) and
At a stagnation point, velocity vector is zero, i.e. v = 2 (n − 4 y + x)
u=0 Hence from equation (1) we get
V=0 m−3=0
or x + y − m = 0 (1) or m = 3
5+2x−3y=0 (2) Note: The flow is steady and hence u and v cannot be
Eliminating y from equation (2) using equation (1), we get function of time. Here u is a function of time and to
make it time invariant, m should be equal to 3.
3m=5+5x (3)
Hence from equation (2), we get
It is given that at x = 2 m, the stagnation point is found
2 (n − 4 y + x) × (2(−4) = 0
and hence from equation (3), we get
or n = 4 y − x
m=5
at x = 2 m and y = 3 m
∴u=x+y−5 n = 4 × 3 − 2 = 10.
Convective acceleration in the x–direction Hence, the correct option is (C).
∂u ∂u
ax = u +v 3. For an irrotational flow, ∇× ∇ = 0
∂x ∂y
 ∂ω ∂v   ∂u ∂ω   ∂v ∂u 
(x + y − 5) × 1 + (5 + 2 x − 3 y) × 1 i.e.,  −  iˆ +  −  ˆj +  −  kˆ = 0
 ∂y ∂z   ∂z ∂x   ∂x ∂y 
= 3x − 2y
At x = 2 m and y = 3 m, or ∂ω ∂v
=
ax = 3 × 2 − 2 × 3 ∂y ∂z
= 0 m/s2. ∂u ∂ω
And =
Hence, the correct option is (A). ∂z ∂x
2. For a steady uniform flow, the total acceleration is zero,
i.e., And ∂v = ∂u .
∂x ∂y

DV Hence, the correct option is (D).
= 0
Dt 4. Equation of the streamline is given by yx3 = C (1)
i.e., ∂u + u ∂u + v ∂u = 0 (1) ⇒ y=
C
∂t ∂x ∂y x3
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3.182
dy − 3c Average velocityoV2 = 10 m/s

∴ = 4 (2)
dx x Mass flow rate, m = ρA2V2
Substituting for C in equation (2) from equation (1), we = 800 × 0.01 × 10
have = 80 kg/s
dy − 3 From continuity equation,
= × yx 3
dx x 4 A1 V1 = A2 V2
− 3y 0.01× 10 m
= ∴ V1 = = 2
x 0.05 s
dy v The atmospheric pressure acts on the sides of the con-
Now =
dx u trol volume and hence It is subtracted out and gauge
V − 3y pressure are used for the calculations
∴ = Hence gauge pressure P1 = 200 × 103 N/m2
u x
It is given that u = −2x3 and P2 = 0 N/m2. Let the force required to hold the
(− 3 y ) × (− 2 x 3 ) elbow in place be R and let RH and Rv be the magni-
i.e., V = tudes of the respective
x horizontal and vertical compo-
= 6 x2 y. nents of the force R. The linear momentum equation,
assuming the momentum flux correction factors to be
unity written in the x−direction yields.
5. For fluid particle A,
u = xy3, V = x3y ∑F x

= m(V2 , x − V1 , x )
Vorticity vector at point (2, 2) o
i.e., P1 A1 − RH = m (0 − V1)
 ∂v ∂u 
= −  k̂ or RH = 200 × 103 × 0.05 + 80 × 2
 ∂x ∂y 
= 10160 N
= (3 x 2 y − 3 xy 2 )k The linear momentum equation written in the
= 0 k̂ y−direction similarly yields.
∴ Fluid particle A is rotating. ∑F y

= m(V2 , y − V1 , y ) −
For fluid particle B,
i.e., P2A2 − Rv = m (-V2 − 0)
u = 4y2, V = 3x2
or Rv = 0 × 0.01 + 80 × 10
Vorticity vector at point (2, 2)
= 800 N
 ∂v ∂u 
= −  k̂ If a is the angle made by the force R with the horizon-
 ∂x ∂y  tal, then
= (6 x − 8 y )k tan α = v
R
RH
= (6 × 2 − 8× 2)k = − 4 k
∴ Fluid particle B is not rotating.  800 
or α = tan− 1  = 4.5°.
6. Here uniform flow is assumed at the inlet and outlet Hence, the correct option is (A).
and the weight of the elbow and the liquid (incompress- 7. A steady uniform flow is assumed. Pressure forces are
ible) in it is neglected. The subscripts 1 and 2 are used neglected since it is the atmospheric pressure that acts
to denote the inlet and out let respectively. on all sides. The momentum flux correction factor is
RH unity. The weight of the water and the plate in the con-
1 R R
V1 V trol volume is neglected.
P1A1 2 Plate
y
2
x
P2A2 V2 1 F
Given the cross−sectional areas Liquid jet

y
A1 = 0.05 m2 3
A2 = 0.01 m2 Control volume x
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When the plate is stationary

The linear momentum equation in the x−direction yields
∑F x = m(− V1 , x )

∑f x

= m(V2 , x + V3 , x − V1 , x )

Ffric − FB = m(− (− V1 cos 60°))
∴ F = A1 V1 ρ (0 + 0 − V1) µR − FB = mV1Cos60°

π
∴ F = × (0.1) 2 × 15× 1000 × 15
mV1 cos 60°+ FB
4 ∴ R=
When the plate is moving µ
Here the control volume is moving with a velocity of ρ AV
1 1 cos 60°+ FB
2
=
10 m/s and hence is C moving control volume. µ
∴ Vcv = −10 m/s (∵ from right to left) π
900 × × (0.2) 2 × 32 × cos 60°+ 100
The linear momentum equation in the x–direction for a 4
=
moving control volume yields. 0.227
= 1001.033 N
∑F x

= m(Vr 2 , x + Vr 3 , x − Vr1 , x ) (1)
Linear momentum equation in the vertical direction
Here VR denotes the relative fluid velocity. (y – direction)
Vr2, x = V2, x − Vcv, x similarly Vr3, x and Vr1, x are defined.
∑F y

= m(− V1 , y )
Since there is no horizontal component of the velocity

at the outlets (2) and (3), R − w = m(− (− V1 sin 60°))
Vr2, x = Vr3, x = 0 ∴ w = R − ρ AV
1 1 sin 60°
2
∴ From equation (1), we get π

= 1001.033− 900 × × (0.2) 2 × 32 × sin60°
− Fm = m(− (V1 , x − Vcv , x )) 4
− Fm = A1 V1 ρ × (− (V1 − Vcv)) = 780.656 N.
π 9. Since one–dimensional flow is considered, the velocity
− Fm = × (0.1) 2 × 15× 1000 × (− (15 + 10)) of the fluid can be represented by
4
F V = uiˆ
or Fm = × 25
15 The fluid acceleration component in the x–direction
is
5F
= . ∂u ∂u
3 ax = +u (x denotes the distance from the inlet)
∂t ∂x
∂u
8. Since flow is steady, = 0
∂t
60° V1
1 ∂u
∴ ax = u
∂x
60° control
volume Let the subscript 1 and 2 denote the inlet an outlet
w y respectively.
FB
Finc = µR R x For a linear velocity distribution, we have
Let FB be the force exerted by the tank on the stop block, (u − u1 ) x
u = u1 + 2
R be the reaction force exerted on the tank by the ground,
W be the weight of the tank and its contents and Ffric be Where l is the length of the nozzle
the frictional force between the tank and the ground. ∂u
Given FB = 100 N. ∴ ax = u
∂x
Uniform flow is assumed and hence the momentum u1 (u2 − u1 ) (u2 − u1 ) 2 x
flux correction factors are unity. = +
2
Note: That the pressure forces are neglected as they
u1 (u2 − u1 ) (u2 − u1 ) 2 × 30
are due to only atmospheric pressure which acts on all Now, a30 ( x = 30) = +
sides of the control volume. 2
Linear momentum equation in the horizontal direc- u1 (u2 − u1 ) (u2 − u1 ) 2 × 10
a10 ( x = 10) = +
tion (x−direction) 2
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3.184
Given a30 − a10 = 4.05 m/s2 Points 1 and 2 are chosen as shown in the above figure
ux = 2.5 m/s Here P2 = 101325 Pa
P1 = 2 × 101325 + 2 × 900 × 9.81
A2 1
= = 220308 Pa
A1 10
Here V1 ≈ 0 as the cross–sectional areas A1 >>>> A2
From the continuity equation we have
Here Z1 − Z2 = 3 m
A1 u1 = A2 u2
From the Bernoulli’s equation, we have
Au
∴ u2 = 1 1 = 10 × 2.5 P1 V12 P V2
AL + + gz1 = 2 + 1 + gz2
ρ 2 ρ 2
= 25 m/s2
Where ρ = 1200 kg/m 3
( 25 − 2.5) 2
∴ a30 − a10 = 4.05 = × (30 − 10) V22 220308 − 101325
2 i.e., = + 9.81× 3
∴ l = 50 m. 2 1200
Hence, the correct option is (A). or V2 = 16.04 m/s.
10. Let Vr be the relative velocity of the water flowing out Hence, the correct option is (C).
of the nozzles and let w be the angular velocity of the 12.
sprinkler P2A2 V2
2π N
Now, ω =
60 V1 45°
2 × π × 95.493
= = 10 rad /sec P1A1 FX
60
Considering the free rotation of the sprinkler with no Given V1 = 10 m/s
friction, with no external torque applied on the sprin- A1 = 2 m2
kler and with the moment of the momentum of the A2 = 1.5 m2
water entering the sprinkler being zero, then from the
angular momentum equation (in scalar form) one can P1 = 95 KN/m2
write P2 = 52271.105 N/m2
(Vr cos 60°− r ω)
− mr Let Fy be the vertical component of the force required
to hold the duct in position. The flow is assumed to
(Vr cos 60°− r ω) = 0
− mr (1)
be steady and to be uniform across any given cross–
When r = 0.5 m is the arm length and m is the mass section of the duct.
flow rate through a nozzle. From the continuity equation, we get A1 V1 = A2 V2
From equation (1), we get
2 × 10 m
rω 0.5× 10 m ∴ V2 = = 13.33
Ur = = = 10 1.5 s
cos 60° cos 60° s Applying Bernoulli’s equation (assuming no frictional
If ma is the torque applied to hold the sprinkler station- losses) at sections 1 and 2, we get
ery, then.
P1 V12 P V2

ma = m rVr cos 60°+ m rVr cos 60° + + gz1 = 2 + 2 + gz2 (1)
ρ 2 ρ 2
= 2 ρ ArVr2 cos 60° Here Z1 = Z2 and hence equation (1) becomes
π  5 
2
= 2 × 1000 ××  × 0.5× 10 × cos 60°

2 95× 103 10 2 52271.105 13.332
4  100  + = +
ρ 2 ρ 2
= 98.175 Nm.
ρ = 1100 kg/m3
Hence, the correct option is (A). Applying linear momentum equation in the vertical
11. direction, we have

Fy − P2 A2 sin 45°= m(V2 sin 45°− 0)
• Fy − 52271.105 × 1.5 × sin 45°
1
• = 1100 × 2 × 10 × (13.33 × sin 45° − 0)
2 = 262808 N.
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13. Let the subscripts 1 and 2 denote the inlet and outlet 15. Hence, the correct option is (D).
respectively 16. In a cross−section of the circular pipe, consider an ele-
mentary area dA in the form of a ring at a radius (R − r)
π  600 
2
Here, A1 = ×  and of thickness dr.

4  1000 
π  400 
2
A2 = × 
4  1000  dr
 P1 − P2 
 = 8
 ρg  R
r
Z1 = 0
Z2 = 2 m Then, dA = 2p(R − r) × d r
The flow is assumed to be steady. From continuity Flow rate through the ring = dQ.
equation, we have dQ = elemental area × local velocity
A1 V1 = A2 V2 = 2p (R − r) dr × u
A1  600 2
or V2 = V1 × = V1 ×   ∫
R
A2  400  Total flow, Q =
o
2 π ( R − r )dr × u
1
V2 = 2.25 V1 (1)  r 7
∫
R
From Bernoulli’s equation, we have 2 π ( R − r )dr × Vmax ×  
o  R
P1 V12 P V2
+ + gz1 = 2 + 2 + gz2 49 (1)
ρ 2 ρ 2 Q= πV R 2
60 max
P1 − P2 V12 V22 Let Vavg be the average velocity, then Q = pR2 × Vavg
or + = + Z 2 − Z1
ρg 2g 2g From equation (1), we have
V12 V22 49
8+ = +2 (2) πV R 2 = π R 2 × Vavg
2 × 9.81 2 × 9.81 60 max
Substituting equation (1) in (2), we get 49
V1 = 5.383 m/s Vavg = V .
60 max
Volumetric flow rate, Hence, the correct option is (B).
π  600 
2
Q = V1 A1 = 5.383× ×  
1  V 
2
4  1000 
17. β = ∫   dA
= 1.522 m3/s. A  Vavg 
1  60  R 2  r  7
2
14. Let point 2 denote any point in the siphon. =   ∫ V   × 2 π ( R − r )dr = 1.02.
π R 2  49Vmax  o max R 
Applying Bernoulli’s equation between the points 1 and
2, we have Hence, the correct option is (B).
P1 V12 P V2 18. Assuming the flow to be from section A to B, the energy
+ + gz1 = 2 + 2 + gz2 (1) equation can be written as
ρ 2 ρ 2
Here, PA V2
+ α A A + Z A + hp
V1 = V2 (from continuity equation) ρg 2g
P1 = Patm PB V2
= + αB B + Z B + ht + hL (1)
∴ Equation (1) becomes ρg 2g
P2 Patm The kinetic energy correction factors are assumed to be
= − g ( z2 − z1 )
ρ ρ unity, i.e., aA = aB = 1
P2 is lowest when Z2 is maximum. It can be shown that Since no pump or turbine is involved,
P2 = Pmin when (Z2 − Z1) = L + H hp = ht = 0
∴ Pmin = Patm − ρg(L + H) Since the pipe has a constant diameter,
Hence, the correct option is (B). VA = VB
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∴ Equation (1) becomes Hence the flow is rotational.

PA P Hence, the correct option is (B).
+ Z A = B + Z B + hL
ρg ρg 21. φ = 72xy − 48x
i.e., 3.5 + 0 = 2.5 + 3 + hL Velocity component in the x−direction,
hL = −2 m ∂φ
u= = 72 y − 48
Since hL is negative, the assumed flow direction is wrong. ∂x
Hence the flow is from section B to A as energy at sec- Velocity component in the y direction
tion B is greater than section A and also hL = 2 m(> 0). ∂φ
v= = 72 x.
Hence, the correct option is (B). ∂y
19. Let us consider two points 1 and 2 such that point 1 Hence, the correct option is (C).
is at the water surface in the tank and point 2 is in the 22. u = 72y − 48
cross–section of the discharge pipe exit.
v = 72x
∴ P1 = P2 = 0 (gauge pressure)
∂ψ ∂ψ
Z1 = 20 m, Z2 = 0 dψ= dx + dy
∂x ∂y
Since the tank is large,
= −vdx + udy
V1 = ≈ 0
6V 2 = −72 xdx + (72y − 48)dy
Since hL = Integrating, we get
2g
hp = 20 − 5 Q2 ψ = −36 x2 + 36 y2 − 48 y + c
Assuming the flow to be steady, writing an energy balance Where Q = 0 at the origin (0, 0)
between the two points yields the following equation. C=0
P1 α1V12 ∴ ψ = −36 x2 + 36y2 − 48 y
+ + Z1 + hp
ρg 2g At point P1
P2 α2V22 ψ = −36 × 52 + 36 × 82 − 48 × 8
= + + Z 2 + ht + hL ((1)
ρg 2g = 1020 units.
Since no turbine is involved, ht = 0. The kinetic energy Hence, the correct option is (B).
correction factors are assumed to be unity, i.e., a1 = a2 = 1
23. Given V1 = 5 m/s
Equation (1) becomes
∆h = 1.2 m
V22 6V22
20 + 20 − 5Q 2 = + CD = 0.96
2g 2g
π
Here A1 = × (0.15) 2 m 2
7  Q
2
4
= × 
2 g  A2  π
A2 = × (0.1) 2 m 2
  2 4
  A2
7  Q  V1 = × 2 g ( h1* − h2* )
= × 2
2g   A − A22
2
 π ×  100   1
 4  1000  
(0.1) 2
⇒ Q = 0.0831 m /s. 3 5= × 2 × 9.81× ( h1* − h2* )
(0.15) 4 − (0.1) 4
20. From the velocity field description, ∴ h1* − h2* = 5.1764 m
u=x+6y  ρ 
v=7+y Now h1* − h2* = ∆ h m − 1
 ρ 
∂u ∂v
+ = 1+ 1 = 2 ≠ 0  ρ 
∂x ∂y 5.1764 = 1.2 ×  m − 1
Hence the flow is compressible  1000 
∂u ∂u ρm = 5313.73 kg/m3.
− = 0− 6 = − 6 ≠ 0
∂x ∂y Hence, the correct option is (A).
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24. The coefficient of discharge depends generally on 27.

the ratio of the orifice to the duct or pipe area and the
Reynolds number of flow.
h
Hence, the correct option is (B). 1.5 m
25. From the Bernoulli’s equation we have y

2 2
P1 V P V x
+ + z = 2 +
1
+ z2 2
ρg 2 g 1 ρg 2 g
Let the time required by the jet to strike the ground
Here Z1 = Z2
from the orifice in the tank be ‘t’ seconds. Horizontal
V2 = 0 (stagnation point) Velocity of the jet at the orifice,
P1 V12 P u= 2 gh
∴ + = 2 (1)
ρg 2 g ρg ∴ x = u× t = 2 gh × t
P1 P 1
But, = h1 and 2 = h1 + h2 Also y = − gt 2 (vertical velocity at the orifice is
ρg ρg zero) 2
P2 P 1  x 2
∴ − 1 = h2 (2)
y = − g ×  
ρg ρg 2  2 gh 
Equation (2) in equation (1), we have
x2 (1)
V 2 =−
= h2
1 4h
2g Now h + y = 1.5 (2)
or V1 = 2 gh2 . Substituting for y in equation (1) using equation (2) we
get
x2
26. From the Bernoulli equation, we have 1.5 − h = −
4h
P1 V12 P V2
+ + z1 = 2 + 2 + z2 x2 = 4 h (h − 1.5) (3)
ρg 2 g ρy 2g
Here Z1 = Z2 For x to be maximum, dx = 0
dh
V1 = 0 (Stagnation point)
dx
P1 P V2 Differentiating equation (3), we get 2 x = 8 h− 6
∴ = 2+ 2 (1) dh
ρy ρy 2g
From the monometric reading, we have Putting dx = 0, we get.
dh
P1 + (x + h) × 1.2 × 9.81 = P2 + x × 1.2 × 9.81 + h × 0.85 ×
1000 × 9.81 6
=
h = 0.75 m
8
P1 × P2 = 8326.278 h (2)
Substituting (2) in equation (1), we have
2π N
8326.728 h V22 28. Angular speed ω =
= 60
1.2 × 9.81 2 × 9.81
2 π × 250 rad
13877.88 h = V22 (3) = = 26.18
60 s
It is given that Q = 1.004 m3/s height of the paraboloid formed when the tank is rotated,
A2 VL = 1.004 ω2 R 2
Z= where R is the radius of the vessel
1.004 2g
V2 = = 127.8333
π  100 
2
×  ( 26.18) 2 × (0.1) 2
4  1000  =
2 × 9.81
Substituting the value of VL in equation (3) we get
= 0.3493 m
h = 1.177 m . Volume of liquid spilled during rotation
Hence, the correct option is (C). = Volume of the paraboloid formed during the rotation
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1 30. Given for a free vortex flow,

= π × R 2 × z = 0.005487m3
2 Vθ = 2 m/s when r = 1 m
Volume of liquid left in the vessel ∴ Vθ × r = C
= volume of the vessel − volume of liquid spilled The constant C = 2 × 1 = 2m2/s
= p × (0.1)2 × 0.5 − 0.005487 Let the tangential velocities at radial locations r1 and r2
be denoted by V1 and V2 respectively
= 0.01022 m3.
For a free vortex, we have
29. The total pressure force exerted by the liquid on the top P2 − P1 V22
= ,
of the vessel, ρ 2
ρ 2 4 C2 1 1
Ftop = ω πR =  2− 2
4 2  r1 r2 
The total pressure force exerted by the liquid on the For a forced vortex, we have
2
bottom of the vessel, P2 − P1 V2− V12
=
Fbottom = Ftop + ρ g p R2H ρ 2
given Fbottom = 2 Ftop ω2 2
= (r − r2 )
⇒ 2 Ftop = Ftop + ρ g p R2H 2 2 1
Given that the pressure differences at the same radial
Ftop = ρ g p R2H
locations r1 and r2 in both the free and forced vortices
are the same
ρ 2 4
ω π R = ρg π R 2 H 1 1
4 i.e., C 2 − 2
2
r1 r2
4
ω2 = × gH ω2 ( r22 − r12 )
R2
C
4 × 9.81× 0.5 or r1 = r
ω= ω 2
(0.1) 2 2
= = 0.2 m.
= 44.29 rad/s. 5× 2
Previous Year’s Questions ⇒ 2x – y = 0

1. V = axi + ay j Hence, the correct option is (C).
u = ax, v = ay 2.
u ν
Equation of stream line: =
dx dy
dx dy dx dy
or = ⇒∫ = ∫
u ν x y (outlet)
1
log(x) = log(y) + C
(inlet)
At (x, y) = (1, 2)
C = log (1) – log (2) Q = A1V1 = A2V2 = constant
 1 Q Q
⇒ C = log  ∴ V1 = and V2 =
 2 π R12
π R22
 1 dV
∴ log( x ) = log( y ) + log  Acceleration is given by, a =
 2 dt
 y dV dx VdV
⇒ log( x ) = log  = × =
 2 dt dx dx
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dV = (V2 – V1) 4. If continuity equation satisfies, then only flow is

V (V2 − V1 )
∴ a= {dx = L} possible.
L
∂u ∂v
V (V − V1 ) ∴ + = 0
Acceleration at exit, a = 2 2 ∂x ∂y
L
∂u ∂v
Q  Q 1 1  ⇒ =−
⇒ a=   2 − 2  ∂x ∂y
π R2 L π  R2 R1  
2
Q 2  R12 − R22  5.
⇒ a=   1
π 2 R22 L R12 R22  2
Q 2  ( R1 + R2 )( R1 − R2 ) 
⇒ a=  
π 2 R22 L R12 R22 
Considering limiting case i.e., R1 → R2, then D2 = 20 mm
D1 = 40 mm
Q  2 R2 ( R1 − R2 ) 
2
a=   From continuity equation we get
π R22 L
2
R24 
A1 V1 = A2 V2
2Q 2 ( R1 − R2 )
⇒a = ⇒ D12V1 = D22V2 ⇒V2 = 4V1 (1)
π 2 R25 L
Applying Bernoulli’s equation we get
P1 V12 P V2
3. + = 2 + 2 {∴ Z1 = Z2}
ρg 2 g ρg 2 g
( P1 − P2 ) (V2 − V1 )
imaginary 2 2
r ⇒ =
ω y ρ 2
H N 30 × 1000 ( 4V1 ) 2 − V12
oil H
⇒ = {From equation (1)}
1000 2
R
r dr ⇒ V1 = 2 m/s
Vr  60 × 103   2 π r 
Let us assume that the cylinder is open and while rotat- 6. = − ×  
ing considers an imaginary water at the top of cylinder Vθ  2 π r   300 × 103 
such that the weight of water in imaginary causes the Vr 1
vertical top force on the cylinder. ⇒ =−
Vθ 5
Fbottom – Ftop = Weight of liquid in cylinder Vθ
Force at N, dF = Pressure × Area ⇒ Vr = −
5
⇒ dF = ρg y × 2pr dr dr dθ
∵ Vr = and Vθ = ωr = r
ω2 r 2 dt dt
⇒ ∫ dF = ∫
R
ρg × 2 π rdr dr r dθ
0 2g ∴ =−
dt 5 dt
ρω2 π R 4
⇒F = = Ftop dr − 1 π
∫ ∫ dθ
r
4 ⇒ =
r
120 5 0
ρω2 π R 2 π
Fbottom = ρg × π R 2 H + ⇒ [ln r ]120
r
=−
4 5
 ρω2 R 2  π
⇒ ln( r ) − ln(120) = −
⇒ Fbottom = π R 2 + ρgH  5
 4 
⇒ r = 64 m
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7. For 2 – D total acceleration along x direction is given as

11. Continuity equation, ∇⋅ V = 0
∂u ∂u ∂u ∂u ∂v ∂w
ax = +u +v ⇒ + + = 0
∂t ∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y ∂z
∂u ∂u Multiplying by density
Convective acceleration = u +v
∂x ∂y  ∂u ∂v ∂w 
Hence, the correct option is (A). ρ + + = 0
 ∂x ∂y ∂z 
8. u = x2 t, v = −2xyt
Hence, the above expression shows incompressible flow.
Equation of stream line
u v
= 12.
dx dy
R
⇒ ∫ x tdy =
2
∫ − 2 xy t dx r
V
⇒ x 2 yt = − x 2 yt + constant h VR
⇒ x2y t = constant
If‘t’ is constant, then the equation of stream line is x2y = Continuity equation
constant. If‘t’ varies then it is not possible to determine VR × 2p × r × h = V × pr2
equation of stream line.
Vr
Hence, the correct option is (D). ⇒ VR =
2h
9. V = uo (1 + 3x/L) i
dx dx
V= ⇒ dt =  ∂V   ∂V 
dt V 13. ar = Vr  r  + Vz  r 
 ∂r   ∂z 
dx
∫ ∫
t L
⇒ dt = ∂Vr
0 0  3x  ∵ h( z − axis) = constant and = 0
uo 1+ ∂z
 L 
 ∂V  V  V 
  3x  
L
∴ ar = Vr  r  = r  
 ln 1+   ∂r  2 h 2 h 
1  L  
⇒ t= ×
 uo 3  V 2r
  ⇒ ar =
L 4h2
0
V 2R
 3L  =
At r =
R, ar
L ln 1+ 4h2
 L  L ln( 4)
⇒ t= ⇒ t= Hence, the correct option is (B).
3uo 3uo
14. Given: flow → steady, incompressible and irrotational.
Fluid vapour pressure, PV = 50 kPa, specific weight
10. Forced vortex flow is flows where streamlines are con-
centric circles and tangential velocity is directly pro- kN
γ= 5
portional to the radius of curvature. m3
Vθ = wr and Vr = 0 upstream
downstream
∂Vθ 1 ∂Vr Vθ d1 = 20 cm
Vorticity, Ω = − +
∂r r ∂θ r P1 = 150 kPa d2 = 10 cm
P2 = 50 kPa
= w – 0 + w = 2w ②
①
Hence vorticity is not zero rather it is rotational flow
with constant vorticity 2w.
For no cavitation in the reducer during flow, the mini-
Also shear stress is not zero at all points and total mum pressure inside the reducer at any section should
mechanical energy is constant in the entire flow field. be equal to or greater than the vapuor pressure of the
Hence, the correct option is (B). fluid.
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∴ For maximum discharge ωx = 0, ω y = 0,

(P) Minimum = (P) 2 = 50 kPa
1 ∂(0) ∂(3 xy )  − 3 x
Continuity equation ωz =  − = ≠ 0 (Rotational)
2 ∂x ∂y  2
A1V1 = A2V2 ⇒ d12 x V1 = d22 x V2
R: u = –2x, v = 2y
 10 2 V
⇒ V1 =   × V2 ⇒V1 = 2 ∂(− 2 x ) ∂( 2 y )
 20  4 + = − 2 + 2 = 0 (Incompressible)
∂x ∂y
Bernoulli’s equation between section 1 and 2
ωx = 0, ω y = 0,
P1 V12 P V2
+ + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z 2 + hL 1 ∂( 2 y ) ∂(− 2 x ) 
γ 2g γ 2g ωz =  −  = 0 (Irrotational)
2 ∂x ∂y 
Assuming Z1 = Z2 and hL = 0 (no friction loss)
P V2 P V2
∴ 1+ 1 = 2+ 2 16. Given; V = 2 xyi − x 2 z j
γ 2g γ 2g

Here u = 2 xy, v = − x 2 z , w = 0
150 V12 50 V22
⇒ + = + = 20 × 2 × 9.81 = V22 − V12 Rotation vector,
5 2g 5 2g j
i k
1 ∂ ∂ ∂
V − V = 392.4
2
2
1
2
(2) ω=
2 ∂x ∂y ∂z
From eq 1 and 2 u v w
( 4V1 ) − V = 392.4 1 ∂w ∂v  1
2 2
x2
⇒ ωx =  −  i = [0 − (− x 2 )]i =
1
i
m 2 ∂y ∂z  2 2
⇒ 16V12 − V12 = 392.4 ⇒ V1 = 5.1147
s 1 ∂w ∂u  1
ωy =  −  i = [0 − 0 ] j = 0
Maximum discharge, Q = A1 V1 2 ∂x ∂z  2
π
= × 0.22 × 5.1147 1 ∂v ∂u  1
4 ωz =  −  k = [− 2 xz − 2 x ]k = ( 2 xz + 2 x )k
2 ∂x ∂y  2
m3
Q = 0.16 x 2
sec ω = ωx + ω y + ωz = i − ( 2 xz + 2 x )k
2
 x2 
15. For the flow to be incompressible, continuity equation Vorticity vector, Ω = 2 ω = 2 i − ( 2 xz + 2 x )k 
should satisfy.  2 
∂u ∂v
+ = 0 ⇒ Ω = x 2 i − 4( xz + z )k
∂x ∂y
At (1,1,1), Ω = i − 4 k
And for the flow to be irrotational
1 ∂v ∂u 
ωz =  −  = 0, ωx = 0 and ω y = 0 17. A stream and an equipotential line in a flow field are
2 ∂x ∂y  perpendicular to each other.
P: u = 2y, v = –3x Hence, the correct option is (B).
∂
(2 y) +
∂
(− 3 x ) = 0 + 0 = 0 (Incompressible) 18. V = 2 gh m
∂x ∂y s
ρw
1 ∂(− 3 x ) ∂( 2 y )  h = x×
ωx = 0, ω y = 0, ωz =  −  ρa
2 ∂x ∂y 
10 1000
1 = ×
ωz = [− 3− 2] ≠ 0 (Rotational) 1000 1.2
2 = 8.333 m
Q: u = 3xy, v = 0 V = 2 × 9.81× 8.333
∂(3 xy ) ∂(0) = 12.8 m/s
+ = 3 y ≠ 0 (Compressible)
∂x ∂y Hence, the correct option is (C).
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3.192
ρ2 h2 ρ h 25. V = (a1x + a2y + a3z)i + (b1x + b2y + b3z)j + (c1x + c2y +

19. h = h3 + h3 ⋅ + h3 . 1 1 c3z)k
ρ3 h3 ρ3 h3
For an incompressible flow to be possible, continuity
V= 2 gh equation is to be
→
 ρ h ρ h ∴ ∇.V = 0
= 2 gh3 1+ 2 2 + 1 1 
 ρ3 h3 ρ3 h3  ∂u ∂v ∂w
or + + =0
Hence, the correct option is (A). ∂x ∂y ∂z
20. Applying Bernoulli’s equation ∂u ∂
= [a1x + a2y + a3z] = 11
∂x ∂x
p1 v2 p v2
+ 1 + z1 = 2 + 2 + z2 ∂v ∂
ρg 2 g ρg 2 g = [b x + b2y + b3z] = b2 and
p1 = p2 = 0 (atmospheric gauge) ∂y ∂y 1
z1 = 0.5, z2 = 0 ∂w ∂
= [c x + c2y + c3z] = c3
2 2
v 2 ∂z ∂z 1
+ 0.5 = 2
19.62 2g ∴ a1 + b2 + c3 = 0 ⇒ 2 + b2 – 4 = 0
∴ v2 = 3.71618 m/s ⇒ b2 = 2
a1v1 = a2v2 Hence, the correct answer is 1.9 to 2.1.
π 2 π 26.
d v = d 2 v and d = 20 mm (given)
4 1 1 4 2 2 1
∴ d2 = 14.67 mm ∼ 15 mm
21. For incompressible flow field continuity equation is 2
∂u ∂v ∂w 1 d 2 = 0.04 m
+ + = 0 or P2 = 130 kPa
∂x ∂y ∂z d 1 = 0.08 m
P1 = 400 kPa
∇⋅ V = 0.
Continuity equation:
A1 V1 = A2 V2
π π
23. V = K ( yi + xk ) ∴ × 0.082 × V1 = × 0.04 2 × V2
4 4
∴ u = Ky
⇒ V2 = 4V1
v=0
Bernouli’s equation:
w = Kx
∂v ∂u P1 V12 P2 V22
Vorticity Ω z = − = 0− K = − K + = +
∂x ∂y ρg 2 g ρg 2 g
Hence, the correct option is (A). P −P 
⇒  1 2  × 2 g = V22 − V12
24. Incompressible continuity equation is given by  ρg 
∂u ∂v →
 400 − 130 
+ = 0 or ∇. V = 0 where V = f (u, v) ∴   × 2 × 9.81 = (4V1) – V1
2 2
∂x ∂y  9.81 
→ ⇒ V1 = 6 m/s
∂V
Steady flow → =0 Hence, the correct answer is 6.
∂t
→
27. The fluid velocity for the potential flow
→
Irrotational flow → Curl V = 0 or ∇ ×V = 0 =V (x, y) = u(x, y) i + v (x, y) j
→
DV As V is irrotational, there exists a scalar point function
Zero acceleration of fluid → =0 ϕ (x, y) such that
Dt
Hence, the correct option is (C). V = ∇ϕ
Unit 04.indd 36
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Chapter 3 • Fluid Kinematics and Dynamics | 3.193
∂φ ∂φ δψ
⇒ u(x, y) i + v (x, y) j = i + j = f 1(x) – y2
∂x ∂y δx
∂φ ∂φ F1(x) = 0 ⇒ F(x) = constant
⇒ = u and =v (2)
∂x ∂y Chapter
⇒ Ψ = 3 xy
2
= constant.
• Fluid Kinematics and Dynamics || 3.193
Where ϕ(x, y) = c are known as potential lines Hence, the correct option is (B).
∂φ ∂φ  ∂φ  δψ figure)
33. (see
⇒ u(x, y) i + v (x, y) j = i + j −  = f 1(x) – y2
∂x ∂y
dy  ∂x  − u δx
The slope of the potential line = = = .
∂φ ∂φ dx  ∂φ  v F1(x) = 0 ⇒ F(x) = constant
⇒ = u and =v  ∂y  (2)
∂x ∂y ⇒ Ψ = xy2 = constant.
6.2 m
Where ϕ(x, y) = c are known as potential lines Hence, the correct option is (B).
28. Velocity of water = C 2 gh = 2 gh [∴ C∂=φ 1] 33. (see figure)
− 
 Sg  10  line = dy =  ∂x  = −u .
h = xslope
The  −
of1 =
the 10 −
potential
1  1 = 90mm or h = 0.09 m
 Sw    dx  ∂φ  v h = 6.2 m
 ∂y 
Velocity of water = 2 × 9.81× 0.09 = 1.3288 m/s Force exerted6.2byma set of water striking fixed wall is
Hence, the correct option is (B). given by
28. Velocity of water = C 2 gh = 2 gh [∴ C = 1] = rav2 = 103 × p/4 × 0.32 × V 2
29. For fluctuating velocity, time average is always zero.
 Sg  10 h = 6.2 m
hHence,
= x  the−1correct option is (C).
 =10  −1 = 90mm or h = 0.09 m
30.  Sw between
Difference   1two stream
 functions give volumet- Velocity of jet h==V6.2= m 2 gh
ric flow rate, i.e.
Velocity of water = 2 × 9.81× 0.09 = 1.3288 m/s Force exerted by = 10 × p/4
a 3set of × 0.32 ×
water 2 × 10 fixed
striking × 6.2 wall is
= | Ψ1is– 1.30
Ψ2|. to 1.34. given by
Hence, the correctqanswer = 8.76 kN
Hence, the correct =answer
= rav 103 × p/4 × 0.32 × V 2
2
Hence,
29. For the correct
fluctuating optiontime
velocity, is (D).
average is always zero. is 8.7–8.8.
31. Hence,
(see figure)
the correct option is (C). 34. u = x/x2 + hy2= 6.2 m
30. Difference between two stream functions 300 give
mm volumet- Velocity ofy jet = V = 2 gh
V = 2
ric flow rate, i.e. x + y 2 = 103 × p/4 × 0.32 × 2 × 10 × 6.2
450 mm
q3 = | Ψ1 – Ψ2|. u δu = δ8.76
u kN
0.9 m /s ax = +V
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, theδx correct δy answer is 8.7–8.8.
31. (see figure) 200 mm
34. uδ=u x/x +y y2 − x 2
2 2
δv x2 − y2
3 m/s = 2 , =
300 mm δx ( x y+ y 2 ) 2 δy ( x 2 + y 2 ) 2
Equating mass flow rate 0.9 = 0.3 V + 0.2 × 3 V = 2 2
450 mm δu x + −2yxy
V = 1 m/s = 2
δy u( δx u + y 2 )δ2u
3
0.9 manswer
Hence, the correct /s is 1. ax = +V
δx δy
−x
32. V = 2 yxiˆ − y 2 ˆj a = 2 2
200 mm δu x ( xy2 +− yx2 ) 2 δv x2 − y2
Ψ =? 3 m/s = 2 , =
δx ( x + y 2 ) 2 δy ( x 2 + y 2 ) 2
δψ mass flow
Equating δψ rate 0.9 = 0.3 V + 0.2 × 3 δu δv
–u = ,V = − δu δx +
also, −2 xy = 0
δy δx V = 1 m/s = 2 δy2 2
δy (x + y )
= dΨ
–2xy dythe
Hence, correct answer is 1. Flow is steady and incompressible.
Ψ == –xy
2 yxiˆ+−F(x)
2
y 2 ˆj Hence, the−correct
x option is (B).
32. V ax = 2 2 2
(x + y )
Ψ =? 35. For the flow to be incompressible
δψ δψ δu δv
–u = ,V = − also, ∂u +∂v = 0
δy δx δx+ δy= 0
∂x ∂y
–2xy dy = dΨ Flow is steady and incompressible.
Chapter 3 2• Fluid Kinematics and Dynamics | 3.193 ∂ ∂
Ψ = –xy + F(x) Hence, (the5 +correct y ) + is( 4(B).
a1 x + b1option + a2 x + b2 y ) = 0
∂x ∂x
φ δψ a1 + b2 = 0
j = f 1(x) – y2
y δx
F1(x) = 0 ⇒ F(x) = constant
(2)
⇒ Ψ = xy2 = constant. ( )
36. v = − x 3 + 3 y ↑ + ( 2 xy ) ˆj

Hence, the correct option is (B). ˆ ˆ
= axi + j
ential lines M03_TRIS7308_C03.indd 193 a 27/04/2017 13:42:35
 ∂φ  33. (see figure) ∂u ∂u
−  ax = u + v
 ∂x  − u ∂x ∂y
= = .
 ∂φ  v ∂v ∂v
 ∂y  ay = u + v
6.2 m ∂x ∂y
u = − x 3 + 3 y, v = 2 xy
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[∴ C = 1]
Mechanics
4.38 | Fluid
a = axiˆ + ˆj
∂u ∂u
ax = u +v
∂x ∂y h
∂v ∂v Free jet
ay = u + v
∂x ∂y 1m
u = − x + 3 y, v = 2 xy
3
0.5 m y
( )
ax = − x 3 + 3 y ( −2 x ) + ( 2 xy )(3)
a(1, −1) = ( −1 − 3) ( −2) + ( −2)(3)
X
= 8−6 = 2
1 2
( )
a y = − x 2 + 3 y ( −2 x ) + ( 2 xy )( 2 x ) y=
2
gt
a(1, −1) = ( −1 − 3) ( −2) + ( −2)( 2) t = time taken for the liquid to travel from the opening
= 8−4 = 4 to the ground
1
Magnittude of acceleration = 22 + 4 2 = 2 5 y = 0.5 = gt 2
2
2 × 0.5
37. Horizontal force(F) = momentumin – momentumout t2 =
9.81
)in − ( mv
= ( mv )out
t = 0.319 m/s
= ρ ⎡⎣( AV .V )in − ( AV .V )out ⎤⎦ x = Vt = 3.3132 × 0.319
As Vin = Vout = 20 m/s x = 1.05 m/s
∴ F = ρV 2 [ Ain − Aout ] Hence, the correct option is (B).
dx
⎡π ⎤
(
= 1000 × 400 ⎢ 0.06 2 − 0.04 2 ⎥
⎣4 ⎦
) 40. u =
dt
= − kx0 e − kt
= 628.33 N dy
V= = −ky0 e kt
dt
V = uiˆ + vjˆ
38. u = Ax iˆ − Ay ˆj
dx dy = –kx0e–kt iˆ + ky0 e kt ˆj
Stream line equation is =
u u
du dv
dx dy + =0
= dx dy
Ax − Ay
d d
ln x = –ln y + ln c
dx
(
−kx0 e − kt + )
dy
(
ky0 e kt = 0 )
ln xy = ln c Since x0, y0 and k are constants continuity equation is
xy = c satisfied.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, flow is 2 – D.
39. Velocity of free jet: du
= k 2 x0 e − kt ≠ 0
dt
V = 2gh
dv
= k 2 x0 e kt ≠ 0
V = 2 × 9.81× 05 dt
Hence, flow is unsteady.
V = 3.3132 m/s
Unit 04.indd 38 4/27/2019 12:05:09 PM

41. By SFEE 42. A1V1 = A2V2

P1 V12 P V2 ⎛A ⎞
+ + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z 2 V2 = ⎜ 1 ⎟V1
ρ g 2g ρ g 2g ⎝ A2 ⎠
 Z1 = Z 2 P1 V12 P V2
+ + z1 = 2 + 2 + z2
ρ g 2g ρ g 2g
P1 V12 P2 V22
+ = + ⎡ 100 × 10 ⎤
ρ g 2g ρ g 2g ⎢ Patm + 10 −2 ⎥ V12
⎢ ⎥+ + 0.5
π ⎢ ρg ⎥ 2g
A1 = × 0.4 2 = 0.1256 m 2 ⎢⎣ ⎥⎦
4
Patm A12 V12
A2 = π × 0.22 = 0.0314 m 2 = + ×
ρ g A22 2 g
4
P2 − P1 V12 − V22 1000 ⎛ A12 ⎞ V12

+ + 0 . 5 = ⎜ − 1 ⎟⋅
ρg 2g 10 −2 × 100 × 10 ⎝ A2
2
⎠ 2g
Q = A1V1 = A2V2 (continuity equation) V12
(10 2 − 1) = 10.5
2g
2 2
⎛Q⎞ ⎛Q ⎞
⎜ ⎟ −⎜ ⎟ 10.5 × 2 × 10
P2 − P1 ⎝ A1 ⎠ ⎝ A2 ⎠ V12 = = 2.12
= 99
ρ 2
V1 = 1.456 m/s
1.2 ⎡⎛ 1.5 ⎞ ⎛ 1.5 ⎞ ⎤
2 2
P2 – P1 = ⎢⎜ − ⎥
2 ⎢⎣⎝ 0.1256 ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ 0.0314 ⎟⎠ ⎥⎦ Hence, the correct answer is 1.456.
P2 – P1 = –1.28 kPa
Unit 04.indd 39 4/27/2019 12:05:14 PM

CHapter 4 VisCous Flow oF inCompressible Fluids
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 ∴
80
=
200
0.01 R
1. Given R = 0.02 m
L = 50 m ⇒ R = 0.025 m
DP = 2000 × 103 N/m2 R 2  ∆P   r2 
u( r ) =   1 − 2 
Wall shear stress 4µ  L   R 
∆P R  ∆P  r
τω = × now τ = 
L 2 
 L 2
2000 × 103 0.02 ∆P 2τ
= × ∴ =
50 2 L r
= 400 N/m2 ∆P 2 × 80 N
= = 16000 2
Frictional drag, FD = tw × curved surface area of the L 0.01 m
pipe
Here y = R - r
= tw × 2 p R L
0.01 = 0.025 - r
= 400 × 2 × p × 0.02 × 50
r = 0.025 - 0.01 = 0.015
= 2513.27 N
Velocity at y = 0.01 (i.e., r = 0.015) is:
0.0252  0.0152 
2. Given Q = 2.64 litre/ sec u= × 16000 × 1 − 2 
4 × 0.8  0.025 
Q = Vavg × p R2
= 2 m/s
2.64 × 10 −3 Hence, the correct option is (B).
⇒ Vavg =
π × (0.02) 2
∆PL
4. hL =
= 2.1 m/s. ρg
Power required to maintain the flow, It is presumed that the assumptions required for DPL to
P = FD × Vavg be equal to DP are valid
= 2513.27 × 2.1 ∆P  ∆P  1
Hence hL = = × ×L
= 5277.87 W ρ g  L  ρ g
= 16000 × ×L
3. y 900 × 9.81
r
= 1.812 L
x
U −1  ∂P 
5. u( y ) = y+ (by − y 2 )
b 2µ  ∂x 
 du 
Given   = 250 S −1 U U
 dy  y = 0 = y + 2 × K × (by − y 2 )
b b
m = 0.8 Pa.sec du( y )
For the velocity to be maximum or minimum, =0
 du  dy
∴ τω = µ  
 dy  y = 0 U U
i.e., + K (b − 2 y ) = 0
b b2
= 0.8 × 250 = 200 N/m2
b + bk
τ or y =
now τ = ω 2k
r R
Where R is the radius of the pipe d 2 u( y )
will be -ve
At r = 0.01 m, t = 80 N/m2 dy 2
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Chapter 4 • Viscous Flow of Incompressible Fluids || 3.195
\ The value of y indicates maximum. A 8f

\ At K = 1 =
a D
2b
=
y = b Where A is cross–sectional area of pipe D, the diameter
2
of the pipe, a, the cross–sectional area of nozzle: L, the
\ At b.
length of pipe and f the coeff of friction.
U U
u= × b + 2 × 1(b 2 − b 2 ) = U
b b π × 120 2 8 × 0.02 × 500 × 103
=
4×a 120
11, 309.7
6. 2 = 25.82
a
1 \ a = 438 mm2
π d2
30°
= 438 mm 2
L 4
d = 24 mm
The energy balance equation with suitable assumption
can be reduced to the following equation for this flow.
P1 P 8. The pressure rise due to the closure of a valve in a line
+ Z1 = 2 + Z 2 + hL (1) is a function of the density of the fluid, flow velocity of
ρg ρg
the fluid and the speed of the pressure wave.
∆PL ∆P
Here hL = = ( ∆PL = ∆P assumed ) The pressure rise in N is given by
ρg ρg
m2
It can be derived for a flow between horizontal parallel
plates that ∆P = V ρVP
−b 2  ∂P  Where V = Flow of velocity

Vavg =
12 µ  ∂x  r = density of the fluid
 −∂P  ∆P 12 µVavg VP = velocity of pressure wave
Or  = =
 ∂x  L b2 = 5 × 1000 × 1500
12 µVavg × L = 5000 × 1500 N2/m2
Or ∆P = 2
b = 7500000 N/m 2
12 µVavg × L
∴ hL = (Applicable for horizontal flows) = 7.5 MN/m 2
ρ gb 2
 3 × 1000 
12 × 3 × 10 −3 ×  × 15
 1000 × 20  Q 0.03
= 2
= 0.0229 m 9. V = =
 20  π π
900 × 9.81×   ×d 2
× (0.5) 2
 1000  4 4
The daturn line is considered to be at Z1 0.1527 m/s
\ Z2 - Z1 = 15 × sin 30°
ρVd
= 7.5 m Re =
µ
\ from equation (1), we have
P1 - P2 = r g (Z2 - Z1 + hL ) 1000 × 0.1527 × 0.5
=
= 900 × 9.81 × (7.5 + 0.0229) 0.001
= 66419.68 N/m2. = 76350
∈ 0.2
7. In order to get the maximum power out of the jet, the = = 0.0004
D 500
nozzle area of cross–section and pipe area of cross sec-
tion are related to the equation. From the given table, we get
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3.196
f = 0.0207 11. Let the discharge in the main line pipe A and pipe B be
2 Q, QA and QB respectively
L v
hL = f But QA = QB
D 2g
i.e. DB2 × VB = DA2 VA
250 (0.1527) 2 (0.277)2 × VB = (0.3)2VA
= 0.0207 × ×
0.5 2 × 9.81 VB = 1.173 VA
= 0.0123 m Now , head losses in pie A and pipe B will be same.
Power required = r × Q × g × hL Considering the head loss due to friction and the head
loss due to the valve, we have:
= 1000 × 0.03 × 9.81 × 0.0123
LA V A 2 V2
= 3.62 W fA × +K A
DA 2 g 2g
LB VB 2
m2 = fB ×
10. q = 0.01× 10 −3 per ‘m’ length DB 2 g
s
150 VA2 V2
\ Q2 = q × 10 × 103 0.02 × × +K A
0.3 2 g 2g
= 0.01 × 10-3 × 10 × 103
= 0.1 m3/s 150 (1.173VA ) 2
= 0.015 × ×
Q2 4 × 0.1 0.277 2g
V2 = =
π D22 π × (0.1) 2 = 1.176
4 Hence, the correct option is (D)
= 12.732 m/s 12. For the closed loop, we can write
Loss of head in pipe MQ, Q22R2 + Q32 R3 - Q12R1 = 0
1 L V2 Comparing the above equation with the equation 16 R2 +
hL ( MQ ) = × f × 2 × 2 R3 - 36 R1 = 0, we get:
3 D2 2 g
Q2 = 4
1 10 × 103 (12.732) 2
= × 0.015 × × Q3 = 1
3 0.1 2 × 9.81
Q1 = 6
∴ hL( MQ ) = 4131.086 We know that hf = RQ2
Q1 4 × Q1 ∴ h f1 : h f2 : h f3
V1 = =
π 2 π × (0.1) 2 = Q12 R1: Q22r2: Q32 R3
D1
4 = 36: 32: 3.
= 127.324 Q1 m/s Hence, the correct option is (B).
Loss of head in pipe mN, 13. Energy thickness
hL( MN ) = head loss due to friction + exit head loss δ u u2 
δe = ∫ 1 − 2  dy
L1 V12 V12
o U U 
= f +
D1 2 g 2 g δ y y2 
=∫  1 −  dy
o δ  δ2 
0.015 × 10 × 103 (127.324Q1 ) 2 (127.324Q1 ) 2
× + δ
0.1 2 × 9.81 2 × 9.81 =
4
= 1240230.014 Q12
Displacement thickness,
Loss of head in the parallel pipes M N and MO are
δ u 
equal δ * = ∫ 1 − d
i.e., 1240230.014 Q12 = 4131.081
o
 U 
Q1 = 0.0577 m3/s δ y δ
= ∫ 1 − dy =
Hence, the correct option is (B). o
 δ  2
Unit 04.indd 42
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δ*  ∂u 
∴ = 2. τω = µ  
δe  ∂y  y = 0
µ uπ
Hence, the correct option is (D) τω =
2δ
14. Momentum thickness,
4.795 x
δ u u Now δ =
θ =∫  1 −  dy Re x
o U U
µ uπ Re x
δ y y δ τω =
=∫ 1− dy = 2 × 4.795 x
o δ  δ  6
1
i.e., τ ωα
θ 4 2 x
∴ = =
δe 6 3 τω , 1 x2
∴ =
Hence, the correct option is (C) τω , 2 x1
15. u = a + by + cy2 1.5 3.5
=
Since the above polynomial represents the velocity dis- τω , 2 1.5
tribution in a boundary layer, the following boundary N
conditions must be satisfied. τ ω , 2 = 0.982
m2
(a) At y = 0, u = 0 Hence, the correct option is (C).
du
(b) At y = δ , =0 u
dy 18. Given τ ω = 0.327 µ Re x
x
At y = 0, u = 0 Drag force on one side of the plate,
⇒ a=0 L
FD = ∫ τ ω × B × dx
du o
At y = δ , =0 L ρU
dy = ∫ 0.327 µu × B × dx
o xµ
0⇒ b + 2 c d = 0 (2)
=Average coefficient of drag,
b FD
∴ = −2δ CD =
c 1 2
Au
16. Let x be the distance traversed by the person from the Where, Area of the late A = L × B
leading edge of the plate. L ρU
5x ∫ o
0.327 µ u
xµ
× B × dx
δ= CD =
Rex 1
× L × B × u2
2
5x 1 1.31
= = 1.31× =
ρ ux ρUL Re L
µ µ
i.e., δα x Hence, the correct option is (D).
At location x, d = 1 mm 19. The length (x) of the plate from the leading edge up to
\ At location 2 x, δ = 2 × 1 mm which the boundary layer is laminar is given by
Rex = 5 × 105
= 2 mm
ux ρ
Hence, the correct option is (A). or = 5 × 105
µ
u π y 5 × 1.21χ
17. Given sin   = = 5 × 105
U  2δ  1.45 × 10 −5
From Newton’s law of viscosity, we can write: x = 1.198 m
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3.198
Average coefficient of drag, 1.328

C D1 =
1.328 Re 0.5 L
CD =
Re L Now, Re0.5 L = 0.5 ReL
Here ReL is taken to be equal to 5 × 105 C D1 Re L
∴ =
1.328 CD Re 0.5 L
∴ CD = = 1.878 × 10 −3
5 × 10 5
∴ C D1 = 2C D
Total drag force on both sides of the plate,
Drag force total plate,
1
FD = 2 × C D × ρ Au 2 1
2 FD = C D × ρ × L × B × u 2 (∴ A = L × B)
2
Here A corresponds to the area of the plate where the Drag force on the front half of the plate,
boundary layer is laminar
1 L  L 
\ A = 1.198 × 4 = 4.792 m2 FD1 = C D1 × × ρ × × B × u 2 ∴ A = × B 
2 2  2 
1
∴ FD = 2 × 1.87810 −3 × × 1.21× 4.792 × (5) 2 =
1
FD
2
2
= 0.2722 N
Drag force on the rear half of the plate,
 2 −1 
20. Average coefficient of drag for the total plate, FD2 = FD − FD1 = 
 2  D
F
1.328  
CD = FD1
Re L 1
∴ = = 2.414
FD2 2 −1
Average coefficient of drag for the front half of the
plate, Hence, the correct option is (A).
Practice Problems 2 Re 2 ρ1 2 D ×V µ
∴ = × 1 1× 1
1. From Buckingham’s P – theorem, the model equation Re1 2 × µ1 ρ1 × D14 V1
containing m variables with K primary or fundamental
1
dimension can be written in terms of (m - k) dimension- =
less variables or parameter. \ The number of dimen- 4
sionless variables or parameter is = m - k Choice (A) 1200
=
Re 2 = 300.
2. Hence, the correct option is (D) 4
3. Subscript 1 denotes the condition before the modifica- Hence, the correct option is (B).
tions are made and subscript 2 denotes the conditions
4. Given d = 0.032
after the modifications are made. From continuity
equation, We know that for a fully, developed laminar flow in a
pipe,
A1 V1 = AL VL
or D12 V1 = D22 V2 64
f =
Given D2 = 2 D1 Re
⇒ D12 V1 = 4D12 VL 64
∴ Re = = 2000
V1 0.032
V2 =
4 inertia force
Re =
Re 2 ρ 2 D2V2 × µ1 Viscous force
=
Re1 µ 2 × ρ1 D1V1 4000
∴ Viscous force = =2N
µ2 µ 2000
Given = 2× 1
ρ2 ρ1 Hence, the correct option is (B).
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 2r 2  32 µ LVavg
5. Given u( r ) = um  0.5 − 2  Now ∆P =
 D  D2
um  4r 2  ∆PA LA Vavg , A DB 2
∴ u( r ) = 1 − 2  = × ×
2 D  ∆PB LB Vavg , B DA2

\ The velocity is maximum when r = 0 Vavg , A 20 1
⇒ = 4× ×
um Vavg , B 10 64
umax =
2 1
=
 4r  2
8
As u( r ) = umax 1 − 2 
 D  Re A DA × Vavg1 A
Now =
The average velocity for the flow, Re B DB × Vavg1 B
umax um
=
V = 1 1 1
avg
2 4 = × = .
8 8 64
we know that
Hence, the correct option is (C)
∆P 32 µVavg
= 7. Given r = 900 kg/m3
L D2
m = 0.1 Pa.sec
32 × µ × um Q = 0.016493 m3/s
=
D2 × 4 Re = 1890
8µ um D P = 1344 Pa
=
D2 Let the average velocity of flow be V and let the diam-
Wall shear stress, eter of the pipe be D.
ρVD
∆P R Re =
τω = × ( R is the radius of the pipe) µ
L 2
∆P D VD
= × 1890 = 900 ×
L 4 0.1
8µ um D VD = 0.21 (1)
= ×
D2 4 π 2
Now Q = D ×V
4
2 µ um
= . π
D 0.016493 = D 2 × V
4
6. Given LA = 10 m D 2 × V = 0.021 (2)
LB = 20 m Equation (2) divided by equation gives
D PA = 4 D PB 0.021
=D = 0.1 m
The maximum shear stress refers to the wall shear 0.21
stress. 0.21 m
∴ V = = 2.1
∴ τ ω ( A) = τ ω ( B) 0.1 s
τ ω1 ( A) ∆PA RA LB 2 32 µ LV
= × × =1 Now ∆P =
τ ω1 ( B) LA 2 ∆PB RB D2
32 × 0.1× L × 2.1
1344 =
4 R (0.1) 2
1= × 20 × A
10 RB
\ L = 2 m.
RB = 8 RA (1) Hence, the correct option is (B).
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3.200
U −1  ∂P  (100 − 300) × 103

8. u( y ) = y+ (by − y 2 ) ∴ hf = − 1.5
b 2µ  ∂x  1400 × 9.81
U U = -16.062 m
= y + 2 K (by − y 2 )
b b Since hf is negative, flow occurs in the downward direc-
tion and the copper plate moves in the upward direction.
For the velocity to be maximum or minimum,
Now for the flow between the parallel plates (plates
du( y ) horizontal or inclined),
=0
dy
 ∂P  −∆P −∆P −h f ρ g
U U  ∂x  = L = L = L
i.e., + K (b − 2 y ) = 0  
b b2 −16.062 × 1400 × 9.81
b + bk =
or y = 1.5 2
2k (Flow considered downward)
At this value of y, the velocity is maximum or minimum. = 103989.72 N/m
- 3
d u( y ) −2uk
2
The velocity distribution is given by (for coquette flow)
Now = 2
dy 2 b U 1  ∂P 
u( y ) = y− (by − y 2 )
d 2 u( y ) b 2 µ  ∂x 
When K = − 2, > 0,
dy 2 Note that U was defined as the velocity of the upper
plate in the direction of flow.
b + bk b So here u = -2.5 m/s
Which means that when K = -2, at y = = , the
2k 4 −2.5 y 1
velocity is maximum. ∴ u( y ) = − × ( −103989.72) × (0.015 y − y 2 )
0.015 2 × 0.8
Minimum velocity,
= -166.67 y + 974.9 y - 64993.575 y2
b = 808.23 y - 64993.575 y2
umin = U at y =
4 At y = 0.005 m,
U b 2U  b2 b2  u = 808.23 × 0.005 - 64993.575 × (0.005)2
u( y ) = × − × − 
b 4 b2  4 16  = 2.42 m/s.
−U Hence, the correct option is (C).
= 10. Given R = 0.05 m
8
N = 955 r.p.m
Hence, the correct option is (D). d = 0.005 m
9. 2 m = 0.01 Pa.sec
r = 750 kg/m3
1 R × 2π N
1.5 m
u = Rω =
60
0.05 × 2 × π × 955
45° =
60
Given m = 0.8 kg/ms = 5 m/s
r = 1400 kg/m3 ud 750 × 5 × 0.005
Re = ρ =
b = 0.015 m µ 0.01
P1 = 100 kN/m2 = 1875
P2 = 300 kN/m2 Since Re > 500, flow is turbulent
Z2 - Z1 = 1.5 m Hence, the correct option is (B).
The energy balance equation with suitable assumption 11. Reynolds stresses or turbulent stresses should be zero
can be reduced to the following equation for this flow. at the pipe wall due to the no – slip condition which
requires the fluid velocity at the wall to be zero.
P1 P Turbulent shear stress is zero.
+ Z1 = 2 + Z 2 + h f
ρg ρg Hence, the correct option is (D).
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12. Given D = 0.15 m f ρv 2L

tw = 70 N/m2 ∆PL =
2 Dh
umax = 3 m/s
f ρ v 2 8b × 3
The total shear stress at the radius 35 mm is Here, ∆PL =
2 × 4b
τω × 2 × r
τ total = = 3 f ρv 2
D
70 × 2 × 35 N i.e., 1485 = 3 × f × 900 × (10)2
= = 32.67 2
150 m i.e., f = 0.0055.
1
Now, u  r 7
= 1 −  2
umax  R l Vavg
14. hL = f
 −6  D 2g
−du umax  r  7 
= 1
 R−
dr 7R   Q
Vavg =
π 2
The laminar shear stress at the radius 35 mm is D
4
−du
τ lam = r = 0.035  4Q  1
2
dr hL = f × ×
2 
D πD  2g
r = 0.035
−6
3  35  7 8 Q2
= × 1 −  = f
7 × 0.075  75  π 2 D5 g
N The diameter D changes along the length  of the

= 9.794 section. Given, D = 0.4 m when  = 0 m and D = 0.2
m2
when  = L = 4 m
τ turb τ − τ lam
= \ A linear relation between D and l would be
τ lam τ lam
0.2 − 0.4
32.67 − 9.794 D − 0.4 = ( − 0)
= 4−0
9.794
D − 0.4 = −0.05
= 2.335.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Or D = 0.4 - 0.05  : If dh is the elemental head loss
for a length d,
13. Let a, b and L be the width, height and length of the
rectangular duct. 8 Q2 d
dhL = f ×
Given a = 2 b and π 2
g (0.4 − 0.05)5
L=8b Integration
4A
Hydraulic diameter, Dh = hL 8 Q2 4 d
Pω ∫o
dhL =
π2
f
g ∫
o (0.4 − 0.05)5
4×a×b
=
2( a + b) 8 0.02 × (0.1) 2
∴ hL = × × 2929.6875
2× a×b π2 9.81
=
( a + b) = 0.0484 m.
2 × 2b × b Hence, the correct option is (A).
=
( 2b + b)
15. 1 2
4
= b 40 mm 25 mm
3
1 2
It can be shown that the pressure loss due to friction for
turbulent flow in a rectangular duct is given by; Q = 0.001 m /sec 3
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3.202
Q1 0.001 V = 7.8492 h + 78.4929

V1 = =
A1 π
× (0.040) 2 Let us consider a differential motion of the liquid sur-
4
face such that it falls by dh meters in dt seconds. Then,
= 0.79 m/s
 −dh 
0.001 m 20 × 10 ×  =Q
V2 = = 2.04  dt 
π sec
× (0.025) 2 π
4 = × (0.2) 2 × V
4
Applying Bernoulli’s equation
π
P1 V2 P V2 = × (0.2) 2 × 7.8492 h + 78.4929
+ + z1 + hE = 2 + 2 + Z z 4
ρg 2 g ρg 2g
−dh
= 1.57 × 10 −4 dt
P1 − P2 V 2 − V12 2.04 2 − 0.792 7.8492 h + 78.4929
+ LE = 2 = = 0.18 m
ρg 2g 2g
Integrating the above equation:
When hE = energy supplied by pump = 15 m o −dh
P1 − P2 ∫7 1
− 0.18 − 15 (7.8492 h + 78.4929) 2
ρg
t
P − P2 = ∫ 1.57 × 10 −4 dt
∴ 1 = 15 − 0.18 = 13.82 m o
ρg t = 436 secs.
P1 - P2 = 13.82 × rg Hence, the correct option is (B).
= 13.82 × 1600 × 9.81 N/m2 18. Given D1 = D3
= 216918 N/m2 And D2 = 0.5 D1
= 216.9 kN/m2. Head loss due to friction in all the three pipes,
2 hL = hL1 + hL2 + hL3
4 f V 2 4 × 0.015 × p500  4Q 
16. H = =  2 
2 gd 2 gd πd  L1 V12 L V2 L V2
=4f +4f 2 2 +4f 3 3
D1 2 g P2 2 g D3 2 g
0.06 × 1500 16Q 2
20 = ×
2 g × 0.15 π 2 0.154 Using the continuity equation, it can be shown that V1 =
V3 and V1 = 0.25 V2
90 × 16 Q2
20 = ×
0.3 g × π 2
0.154 4 f V12
∴ hL = ( L1 + 32 L2 + L3 )
D1 2 g
Q2 = 2.0423 × 10-4
Writing an energy balance equation between the liquid
\ Q = 0.0143 m3/s.
surfaces, with suitable assumptions, we get:
H = hL
17. Consider a liquid surface of a height h. Writing an
energy balance between a point on this liquid surface 4 f V12
= ( L1 + 32 L2 + L3 ).
and a point of the pipe exit, with suitable assumption, D1 2 g
we have, Hence, the correct option is (C).
v 2 0.5v 2 L V2 19. Equivalent length for 500 mm diameter pipe of length
h + 10 = + + f
2g 2g D 2g 30 m, Le1 = 30 m
Equivalent length for the bend,
Where v is the average flow velocity in the pipe.
kD 0.5 × 0.5
v2  0.02 × 10  LeL = = = 11.9 m
h + 10 =  1 + 0.5 + f 0.021
2g  0.2 
Velocity of flow in the 250 mm diameter pipe
= 0.1274 V2 2
 0.5  m
Note: In the above equation head loss due to exit is not =  ×2 = 8
considered.  0.25  S
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Head loss due to contraction 6704.82

⇒ Q1 =
V2 2
hc = 0.5 2 (Since CC is not known)
2g
= 57.9
0.5 × 82 At junction A,
= = 1.631 m
2 × 9.81 100 = Q1 + Q4
Let Le3 be the equivalent length for the sudden contraction. Q4 = 100 - 57.9 = 42.1
Then,
(Flow is from A to D)
Le3 V12 At junction B,
=fe = 1.631
De 2 g
Q1 = 20 + Q5 + Q2
1.631× 0.5 × 2 × 9.81 \ Q2 = 57.9 - 20 - 20.6
i.e., Le3 =
0.021× ( 2) 2 = 17.3
= 190.48 m (Flow is from B to C)
Equivalent length for the 200 mm diameter pipe, For the closed loop ABCD, we have
fL ( De)5 h f1 + Q22 R2 − Q32 R3 − Q42 R4 = 0
Le4 = 5 ×
D fe
6704.82 + (17.3)2 × R2 - (32.7)2 × 1 - (42.1)2 × 4 = 0
0.02 × 50 (0.5)5
= × R2 = 5.91.
(0.2)5 0.021
4650.3 m
22. The sum of the discharges in the parallel pipes = the
Total equivalent length discharge in the equivalent pipe. Hence,
= Le1 + Le2 + Le3 + Le4
D12V1 + D22V2 = De2Ve (1)
= 30 + 11.9 + 190.48 + 4650.3
The head loss in the parallel pipes is equal,
4883 m.
i.e., h f1 = h f2
Now, h f1 and h f2 are equal to the head loss in the equiva-
20. QA = QB
lent pipe
Now head loss in pipe A = head loss in pipe B
So h=
f1 h=
f2 h fe = h f (say )
L V2 L V2
i.e., f A A × A = f B B × B L1 V12
DA 2 g DB 2 g ∴ f1 = hf
D1 2 g
LA L
fA 5
× QA2 = f B B5 × QB2 h f D1 2 g
DA DB V1 =
f1 L1
Also given fA = fB = 0.025
LA = 110 m Similarly,
DA = 0.55 m h f D2 2 g
LB = 850 V2
f 2 L2
110 850
i.e., 5
= 5 h f De 2 g
(0.55) DB And Ve =
f e Le
DB = 0.8278 m
Substituting the relations for V1, V2 and Ve in equation
= 82.78 cm.
(1), we get
Hence, the correct option is (B). 1 1 1
21. Given h f1 = 6704.82  D15  2  D25  2  De5  2

  +  = 
R1 = 2  f1 L1   f 2 L2   f e Le 
Now, h f1 = Q1 R1
2
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23. Displacement thickness, At y = 0, u = 0

 δu ⇒ a=0
δ * = ∫ 1 − dy
o
 U  At y = d, u = U
 1
 ⇒ bd + cd3 = U (1)
δ
  y 7 
= ∫ 1 −   dy du
o 
δ   At y = δ , =0
  dy
δ ⇒ b + 3cd2 = 0
=
8 or b = -3cd2
Momentum thickness, Substituting the value of b in equation (1), we get
δ u  u  −U
θ =∫ 1 − U  dy C=
o U   2δ 3
1
 1
 3U
δ  y 7   y 7  And hence b =
=∫ 1 −
 δ    δ   dy 2δ
o
   
  \ The polynomial will have the form
7
= δ 3U U
72 u= y − 3 y3
2δ 2δ
δ 72 9
Slope factor S = = = Note: This velocity distribution is called Prandtl’s
8 7δ 7 velocity distribution.
9
∴ K= and n = 0. Hence, the correct option is (A).
7
26. Since the Reynolds number (Rex) is less than 5 × 105,
Hence, the correct option is (D). the boundary layer is laminar.
24. Energy thickness, Given, at Rex = 1000, d = 2 mm
 δ u u2  5x
δe = ∫ 1 − 2  dy Now δ =
 Re x
o
 U  U
δ y
0.22
  y 0.44  2 5x
= ∫   1 −    dy i.e., = (1)
1000
    δ  
o δ 1000
Now at a location (x1) where Re = 4000, we observe
= 0.217 d that x1 = 4 x.
Energy loss per meter length of the spill way, \ at Rex = 4000,
1 5 x1
EL = ( ρδ e u ) × u 2 δ=
2 Re x
But energy loss / m length of spillway is given as 325.64 ×
103 5× 4x
=
\ 325.64 × 103 4000
1 70 5x
= × 1000 × 0.217 × × u3 = 2×
2 1000 1000
\or u = 35 m/s.
From equation (1), we get
25. u = a + by + ey3 2
δ = 2× = 4 mm.
If the above polynomial represents the velocity distri- 1000
bution in a boundary layer, then the following bound- Hence, the correct option is (C).
ary conditions must be satisfied.
27. Given
(a) At y = 0, u = 0
2
(b) At y = d, u = U u 2y  y 
= −
du U δ  δ 
(c) At y = δ , =0
dy From Newton’s law of viscosity
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 ∂u  δ  3 y 1  y 3 
τ = µ  = ∫ ρ × U  −    dy
 ∂y  o
 2δ 2  δ  
 ∂u  5
⇒ τω = µ   = ρ uδ
 ∂y  y = 0 8
2U Mass entrainment between the location x2 and x1 is
=µ
δ = m2 - m1
µ 2U 5
= × Re x = ρU × (δ 2 − δ1 )
5.48 x 8
3
ρµ 5 (8.17 − 6.45)
= 0.365U 2 = × 1.19 × 2 ×
x 8 1000
N = 2.56 × 10-3 kg/s.

At x = 1.5 m,τ ω = 1.644 Hence, the correct option is (A)
m2
30. Average coefficient of drag for the total plate,
3
ρ × 0.01 0.072
⇒ 1.644 = 0.3653 × (1.5) 2 CD =
1.5 (Re L )0.2
r = 900.164 kg/m3. Average coefficient of drag for the front half of the
Hence, the correct option is (D) plate,
28. The maximum thickness of the laminar boundary layer 0.072
C D1 =
takes place at (0.5 Re L )0.2
Rex = 5 × 105 C D1 1
∴ =
5x CD (0.5)0.2
δ=
Re x Drag force on total plate,
1
2.652 × 5 × 105 FD = C D × ρ × L × B × U 2
∴ =x 2
5
Drag force on the front half of the plate,
x = 375 mm at which the laminar boundary layer has
the maximum thickness. 1 L
FD1 = C D1 × × ρ × × B × U 2
2 2
Rex = 5 × 105
1
Ux = × FD
= 5 × 105 2 × (0.5)0.2
y
Drag force on the rear half of the plate, FD2 = FD − FD1
U × 0.375
= 5 × 105
0.15 × 10 −4  2 × (0.5)0.2 − 1 
=  FD
U = 20 m/s.  2 × (0.5)
0.2

Hence, the correct option is (B) FD2
∴ = 2 × (0.5)0.2 − 1
29. The mass flow rate at any location x where the bound- FD1
ary layer thickness is d is given by
δ = 0.7411.
m = ∫ ρ udy Hence, the correct option is (C)
o
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Previous Year’s Questions 3. We know that, maximum velocity in fully developed

laminar flow in a pipe of radius R is:
1. Given U∝ = 2 m/s
1  dP  2 P1 P2
J = 1.5 × 10-5 m2/sec uo = − R
4 µ  dx 
r = 1.23 kg/m3 x1 L
ρU ∞ x 1  dP  2
Reynolds number, Rex = ⇒ uo = − D x2
µ 16 µ  dx 
{x = 1 m} x2 16 µ uO P2
2 ×1
⇒ ∫ x1 D 2
dx = ∫ −dP
P1
= = 1.33 × 105
1.5 × 10-5 16 µ uo ( x2 − x1 )
⇒ ( P1 − P2 ) =
4.64 x 4.64 × 1 D2
δ= =
Rex 1.33 × 105 {\ x2 – x1 = L}
⇒ d = 0.127 m 16 µ uo L
=
 3 y 1  y 3  D2
U = U∞  −    {Given} Hence, the correct option is (D).
 2 δ 2  δ  
4. P
du
Shear stress, τ = µ h1
dy
1
h2
du  3 3y  2
(h2 – h1)
= U∞  − 3 
dy  2δ 2δ  2
Atmosphere
At wall, y = 0
du 3U ∞ P1 = 0 (Atmospheric pressure)
∴ = V1 = 0 (reservoir)
dy y =0
2δ
P2 = 0 (Atmospheric pressure)
du Applying Bernoulli’s equation between (1) and (2):
\ Shear stress at wall, τ o = µ
dy y =0 P1 V12 P V2
+ + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z 2 ( base)
 3U  ρg 2 g ρg 2 g
⇒ τ o = 1.5 × 10 −5 × 1.23 ×  ∞ 
 2δ  V22
⇒ ( h2 − h1 ) =
3× 2 2g
= 1.5 × 10 −5 × 1.23 ×
2 × 0.0127 ⇒ V2 = ( h2 − h1 )2 g
= 4.36 × 10 N/m -3 2
Applying continuity equation between P and (2)
AP VP = A2 V2
2. Head loss due to friction V p = V2 = ( h2 − h1 )2 g
fLV 2
hf = (\ Ap = A2)
2 gd
0.01× 4000 × 22 5. q r
=
2 × 9.81× 0.2
U dy u δ
= 40.78 m
y
Pressure at this head = rg[hf + h + hatm] p s
= 1000 × 9.81[40.78 + 5 + 10.3] Given:
= 5.50 × 105 N/m2 U = 10 m/s, drs = 10 mm
= 5.50 bar kg
Width, b = 1 m, ρ gas = 1 3
Hence, the correct option is (B). m
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u y L
Velocity distribution, = (at section rs) ( FD ) ∝
U δ x=
L
2
2
Mass flow rate at qp, mqp = r × (Area) qp × U
L
= 1 × (d × b) × U (F )’
D x=
L = L−
2
2
⇒ mqp = 1 × 0.01 × 1 × 10 = 0.1 kg/sec
Mass flow rate at rs, dmrs = r × (dy × b) × u  1 
= 1 −  L
y  2
⇒ dmrs = ρ × dy × 1× U ×
δ L
δ U ( FD ) 2 1
⇒ mrs = ∫ ρ × × y dy F= = =
o δ (F ) ’
D

1 −
1 
 L
( 2 − 1)
 2 
10  δ 2  10 0.012
= 1×  = × \ F = 2.414 > 1
0.01  2  0.01 2
\F>1
⇒ mrs = 0.05 kg/sec Hence, the correct option is (D).
\ Mass flow rate across qr, mqr = mqp - mrs
Inertia force
⇒ mqr = (0.1 – 0.05) kg/sec 8. Reynolds number = =5
Viscous force
⇒ mqr = 0.05 kg/sec
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (A)
6. Initial momentum at pq = m × U 9. Applying continuity equation between A and B
= 0.1 × 10 = 1 N H × uo × width = Vm × (H - 2d) × width
Final momentum, δ
(i) At rs = [r (dy × b) ×u] × u U0 H VM (H−2δ)
δ   Uy   2
=∫ 1× 1×   dy  δ
o
  δ  
δ Vm H
U 2  y3  10 2  0.013  ∴ =
= 2   = ×  uo ( H − 2δ )
δ  3  o 0.012  3 
Vm 1
= 0.33 N ⇒ =
uo δ 
1− 2 
(ii) At qr = m × U = (0.05 × 10) N H
= 0.5 N
\ Force on plate between p-s = [Initial momentum –
Final momentum] 10. Applying Bernoulli’s equation between A and B:
= [1 – 0.33 – 0.5] = 0.17 N PA VA2 P V2
+ = B + B
Hence, the correct option is (C). ρg 2 g ρg 2 g
1 PA − PB VB2 − VA2
7. Drag force, FD = C fx × AV
2 ⇒ =
2 ρg 2g
1.328 1 ( PA − PB ) Vm2 − uo2
⇒ FD = × × ρ × b × L ×V 2 ⇒ =
Re 2 ρ 2
X
2
1.328 1 ( PA − PB )  Vm 
⇒ FD = × × ρ × b × x ×V 2 ⇒ =   −1
1 2  uo 
ρVx 2 ρ uo
2
µ
Vm 1
Using value of = we get:
i.e., FD ∝ x or ( FD ) x = L ∝ L uo δ 
1− 2 
Now drag force on front half H 
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3.208
PA − PB 1 0.0225 × 500 × (6.37) 2

= −1 hf =
1 2  δ 
2
2 × 9.81× 0.2
ρ uo
2 1 − 2 H 
  = 116.18 m
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (A).
fLV 2 fLQ 2 15. d1 = 1mm
11. Head loss= h=
L or
2 gD 12 D 5 5x
δ1 =
0.02 × 1000 × 0.07 2 Rex
∴ hL =
12 × 0.25 5x
δ1 = =1
hL = 25.52 m ρVL
µ
Pumping power required to maintain the flow
P = rg QhL 5x
δ2 =
= 9.81 × 0.07 × 25 .52 = 17.52 kW ρ 4VL
Hence, the correct option is (B). µ
12. Velocity profile of a fully developed laminar flow in a δ2 1 1
= =
circular pipe is: δ1 4 2
 r2  d2 = 0.5 mm
u( r ) = U max 1 − 2 
 R  Hence, the correct option is (C).
∂p  R 
16. τ ω =
r R
r
u ∂x  2 
Umax
x ∆p  D 
τω =
L  4 
1  ∂P  2 ( ∆p) D
U max = − R τω =
4 µ  ∂x  4L
U max Hence, the correct option is (A)
Average velocity, V =
2 17. r = 10 mm = 0.01 m
{For circular pipes} d = 0.02 m
R 2  ∂P  kg 36 × 10 −3 m3 m3
∴ V =−
8µ  ∂x  Q = 36
hr
=
3600 s
= 10 −5
s
Hence, the correct option is (A). m = 0.001 kg/ms
U max 3 Q Q 10 −5 1
13. = {For parallel plates} V= = 2 = =
U max 2 A πr π × (0.01) 2 10π
6 ρVd 1 0.02
⇒ U mean = =4 Re = = 1000 × ×
1.5 µ 10π 0.001
= 636.62
14. d = 200 mm = 0.2 m
f = 0.0225
18. d = 10 cm = 0.1 m
L = 500 m
V = 0.1 m/s
Q = AV = 0.2 m3/s
g = 9.81 m/s2 n = 10-5 m2/s
Vd 0.1× 0.1
fLV 2 Re = = = 1000
hf = ν 10 −5
2 gD
Q 0.2 m 64 64
V= = = 6.37 Darcy friction factor, =
f = = 0.064
A π s Re 1000
(0.2) 2
4 Hence, the correct answer is 0.06 to 0.07.
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19. d = 10 mm = 0.01 m 23. a = 25 mm

L = 250 m
u = 0.1 m/s b = 15 mm
r = 997 kg/m3
m = 855 × 10-6 Ns/m2
2ab
ρ ud Diameter equivalent d =
Reynolds number Re = ( a + b)
µ
997 × 0.1× 0.01 2 × 25 × 15
= =
855 × 10 −6 25 + 15
= 1166 < 2000 = 18.75 mm or 0.01875 m
(Laminar flow)
Pressure drop for laminar flow For laminar flow, pressure drop, Dp will be:
32 µ uL
p1 − p2 = 32 µVL
d2 ∆p =
D2
32 × 855 × 10 −6 × 0.1× 250
= = 6840 Pa 32 × 2 × 10 −5 × 1× 1
(0.01) 2 =
0.018752
Hence, the correct answer 6800 to 6900.
⇒ Dp = 1.82 Pa
20. Length of flat plate = 1m
Hence, the correct answer is 1.7 to 2
δ ∝ x Where x = distance from leading edge.
f LV 2
δ x1 24. Head loss due to friction, hf =
∴ 1 = 2 gD
δ2 x2 ∞
m, ρ, f are constant
8 0.25 0.75 • •
= ⇒ δ2 = 8 = 13.856 mm ∞ m m×4
δ2 0.75 0.25 Now m = ρAV ⇒ V = =
ρA ρ π D 2
Hence, the correct answer is 13.5 to 14.2. 2
21. Hence, the correct answer is (D)  • 
fL m×4
∴ hf = × 
22. 2 gD  ρ π D 
2
 
P
• • 2
16 f L m
⇒ hf =
ZP 2 gρ2 π 2 D 5
R
ZR In the above equation, all terms are constant
except D and L.
Applying Bernoulli’s’ theorem
L
⇒ hf ∝ 5
p V2 D
+ + z = constant.
ρg 2 g When D is halved and L is doubled then
Considering points P and R: ( 2 L) 64 L
⇒ hf ∝ =
pP = pR = atmospheric pressure D
5
D5
VP = 0 2
 
VR 2 ∴ Head loss will increase by a factor of 64.
∴ 0 + ZP = + ZR Hence, the correct option is (D).
2g
25. Blausius equation
⇒ VR = 2 g ( Z P − Z R )
∂ψ ∂ 2 ψ ∂ψ ∂ 2 ψ ∂3 ψ
− = v
Hence, the correct option is (B). ∂y ∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y 2 ∂y 3
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3.210
∂ψ ∂ψ  ∂ P
Where Ux = and U y = −
∂y ∂x  ∂ x  = –10 Pa/m
The above equation is third-order non linear ordinary Parabolic velocity

Profile
differential equation.
U
Hence, the correct option is (D). R
r Umax
2   r 3 
R
U m R 2 ∫0
26. Tm = C1 2 1 − 
C   rdr
  R   x
2C1 C2 R
 r 
4
1  ∂P  2
⇒ Tm =
U m R2 ∫ r − R
0
3

dr Umax = − −
4µ  ∂x 
R
 r 2 r 5  2C1 C2
2 C1 C2
R
 R2 R2  −1
⇒ Tm =  − 3 =  −  ρ Umax = × (–10) × 0.052
U m R2
 2 5R  0 U m R
2
 2 5  ( 0.001)
4 ×
0.6 C1 C2 ρ Umax = 6.25 m/s

⇒ Tm =
Um U  r2 
Now velocity profile is = 1 − 2 
U max  R 
Since, u(r, x) = C1 which is constant, therefore Um = C1.
ρ Tm = 0.6 C2  0.0022 
ρ (U)r = 0.002m = 6.25 × 1 − 2 
Hence, the correct options is (C).  0.05 
27. Assumption made in Bernoulli’s equation ρ (U)r = 0.002m = 6.24 m/s
(a) The flow is ideal i.e., viscosity is zero. Hence, the correct answer is 6.2 to 6.3.
(b) The flow is steady. 31.
(c) The flow is incompressible.
Q1, hL1
(d) The flow is irrotational.
If any one of the assumption is not satisfied then the Q2, hL2
Bernoulli’s equation does not hold. Q Q
In boundary layer, the flow is viscous or not ideal and
hence Bernoulli’s equation does not hold.
Q2, hL3
28. Emissive power (P) is proportional to the heat transfer Total flow rate, Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3 and frictional head loss,
ρ P ρρT 4 fLV 2
h= h= hL3 =
As emissivity of the surface is constant L1 L2
2y D
0.25
P1 T14 T  500  Hence, the correct option is (B).
= ⇒ 1 =  = 0.803 .
P2 T24 T2  1200  32. Given uoil = 1 × 10–5 m2/s
Hence, the correct option is (C). doil = 0.5 m
f LV 1
2
Voil = 10 m/s
29. h1 =
2 g D1 uwater = 0.89 × 10–6 m2/s
f L ( 2V1 )
2
Now V2 = 2V1 and D2 = D1/2 then h2 = and dwater= 0.02 m

2 g ( D1 / 2 )
Flow through pipe, equating Reynolds number
h2 4 f LV12 × 2 2 gD1 Voil doil V d
= × = water water
h1 2 g D1 f LV12 υoil υ water
h2 0.5 × 10 Vwater × 0.02
⇒ =8 ⇒ =
h1 −5
10 0.89 × 10 −6
Vwater = 22.25 m/s
30. Given: µ = 0.001 Pa-s, R = 0.05 m
Hence, the correct answer is 22 to 22.5.
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33. = 0.44
36. As the µpipe is ofkg/m.s
uniform diameter and a flow is steady
m incompressible, discharge remains constant. As diam-
b d uo
eter isFconstant, µV 0.44 × 3
= τ = average
= velocity is constant.
Hence, the correct option0.is05(B).
A y
uo
δ = 26.4 N/mΔP 2
37. Head loss hL =
Hence, the correct ρganswer is 26.4.
35. Given µ, R, UR/2 = U1
a c 100 × 1000
twall = kµ uh1L/R= .
m ab = ρuo δ (Taking unit depth) 1000 × 9.81
δ ( 2
u = umax h1L−=r 10.19
R 2
m
)
∫ ρuo  2( y/δ ) − ( y/δ )  dy
2
m cd = Pump Power = mgh L
0 U1 = 3/4umax = 1 × 9.81 × 10.19
= ρuo [δ − δ/3] P = 100 W
du
twall = µ = µ umax 2r/R 2
= 2/3ρuo δ dr
∴ m bd = 1/3ρuo δ , = 2m umax/R
U µ⎛ π y⎞
As m ab = m cd + m bd 38. = 2sin ⎜× 4 ⎟ u1
U∞ R ⎝ 2 δ3⎠
m bd 1 Local= displacement
8/3m u1/R thickness
∴ = ≈ 0.333 ∴ k = 8/3 = 2.667δ
m ab 3 ⎛ U ⎞
δ* = ∫ ⎜answer
Hence, the correct 1− ⎟ dy
is 2.6 – 2.7.
Hence, the correct answer is 0.32 – 0.34. 0
⎝ U ∞⎠
δ
34. ⎛ ⎛ π y⎞⎞
δ* = ∫ ⎜1 − sin ⎜ dy
V = 3 m/s
⎝ ⎝ 2 δ ⎟⎠ ⎟⎠
0
δ
⎡ 2δ ⎛ π y⎞ ⎤
δ* = ⎢ y + cos ⎜
⎝ 2 δ ⎟⎠ ⎥⎦ 0
y = 50 mm
⎣ π
2δ
Chapter 4 • Viscous Flow of Incompressible Fluids | 3.211 δ* = δ + 0 − 0 −
π
y = 50 mm
δ* 2
µ = 0.44 kg/m.s = 1−
δ π
d uo F µV 0.44 × 3 Hence, the correct option is (B).
= τ= =
A y 0.05 ρgh f 1
ΔP1
39. =
= 26.4 N/m 2
ΔP2 ρgh f 2
f1lv12 f1θ2
35. Given µ, R, UR/2 = U1
c 2 gd1 d5
twall = kµ u1/R = 12
h) 2
f 2 lv2 f2 θ
dy
(
u = umax 1 − r
2
R2 )
2 gd2 d25
K ( Re )
5 −n
U1 = 3/4umax ⎛d ⎞
= ⎜ 2⎟ ×
K ( Re )
⎝ d1 ⎠ −n
du
twall = µ = µ umax 2r/R 2
dr −n
⎛ ρV1d1 ⎞
= 2m umax/R 5 ⎜⎝ μ ⎟⎠
⎛d ⎞
µ 4 = ⎜ 2⎟ × −n
=2 × u ⎝ d1 ⎠ ⎛ ρV2 d2 ⎞
R 3 1
⎜⎝ μ ⎟⎠
= 8/3m u1/R
∴ k = 8/3 = 2.667 π 2 1
θ= D ×V ⇒ V ∝ 2
Hence, the correct answer is 2.6 – 2.7. 4 D
0.34.
= 3 m/s
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−n LZdh = 2 × Uavg × d × zdt

⎛ 1 ⎞
5 × d1
ΔP1 ⎛ d2 ⎞ ⎜ d 2 ⎟
= ⎜ ⎟ ×⎜ 1 ⎟ L × U 1× 0.01 ⎡ dh ⎤
ΔP2 ⎝ d1 ⎠ ⎜ 1 Uavg = = = 0.05 m/s ⎢∵ dt = U ⎥
⎟ 2d 2 × 0.1 ⎣ ⎦
⎜⎝ d 2 × d2 ⎟⎠
2
Hence, the correct answer is 0.05 m/s.
5 −n
⎛d ⎞ ⎛d ⎞ 42.
= ⎜ 2⎟ ×⎜ 2⎟
⎝ d1 ⎠ ⎝ d1 ⎠
5− n δL
ΔP1 ⎛ d2 ⎞
=
ΔP2 ⎜⎝ d1 ⎟⎠
Hence, the correct option is (A). L

40. Given data Given L2 = 2L
For laminar flow,
ρ = 100 kg/m3 , D1 = 100 mm,
5x
v1 = 2 m/s, C f 1 = 0.5, D2 = 200 mm δ=
R ex
For dynamically similar conditions
Re1 = Re 2 and C f 1 = C f 2 δ1 ∝ x1/2

ρ1U1 D1 ρ2U 2 D2 δ1 δ2
⇒ = ⇒ U1 D1 = U 2 D2 =
μ1 μ2 x1 x2

⇒ 2 × 100 = U 2 × 200 ⇒ U 2 = 1 m/s x2
δ2 = × δ1
x1
F1 F2
∵C f 1 = C f 2 ⇒ =
ρ1U1 D1
2 2
ρ2U 22 D22
2L
δ2 = × δ1
L
⇒ F1 = F2
∴ F1 = F2 = C f ρ1U12 D12 = 0.5 × 1000 × 22 × (0.1) 2 = 20 N δ2 = 2 × δ1
Hence, the correct answer is 19.9 to 20.1. δ2

= 1.414
41. L = 1 m δ1

U = 0.01 m/s
1.414 − 1
% change = × 100
D = 0.1 m 1
Let length of plate be Z.
= 41.4%
Rates of mass through plate = Rate of mass displaced
between plates and wall. Hence, the correct answer is 41.4.
LZ × dh = 2 × Uavg × d × Zdt
Unit 04.indd 58 4/27/2019 12:06:49 PM M05_

CHapter 5 turbo MaCHinery
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 ρQ 2 × 2 D
=
1. The Curtis turbine is a velocity compounded impulse πd 2
steam turbine while the Rateau turbine is a pressure 1000 × 0.04 2 × 2 × 1.5
compounded impulse turbine. The Francis turbine is an =
π × 0.12
inward flow reaction turbine.
= 152.8 Nm.
2. Given N = 1600 rpm
4. Given, H = 180 m
V1 – u = 60 m/s
Cv = 0.97
Q = 0.15 m3/s
k = 0.895
Pr = 1.0616 × 106 w
u = 28 m/s
Since the angle of deflection is not given, it is taken to
Heat lost in the nozzle
be 165°
φ = 180° – angle of deflection (V1, th ) 2 − v12
H LN =
= 180° –165° 2g
= 15° Where v1, th is the theoretical jet velocity and v1 is the
actual jet velocity
Since the flow is assumed to be ideal,
k=1 Now v1, th = 2 gH
Pr = ρQ (v1 – u) u (1 + k cos φ) v1
Cv =
⇒ 1.0616 × 106 = 1000 × 0.15 × 60 × u v1, th
× (1 + cos 15°) ∴ v1 = Cv 2 gH
u = 60 m/s ∴ hLN = (1 – Cv2) H
π DN = (1 – 0.972) × 180
u=
60 = 10.638 m
60 × 60 Head lost in the buckets,
∴ D=
π × 1600
Vr21 − Vr22
= 0.71619 m hLB =
2g
= 716.2 mm.
(Cv 2 gH − u ) 2
Hence, the correct option is (C). = (1− k 2 )
2g
3. Given Q = 0.04 m3/s
Cv = 1 (frictionless nozzle) (0.97 × 2 × 9.81× 180 − 28) 2 (1− 0.8952 )
=
d = 0.1 m 2 × 9.81
m = 15 = 8.91 m
vω = 0 ∴ hLN + hLB = 10.63 + 8.91
= 19.54 m.
2
D
Now, m =
d Hence, the correct option is (B).
⇒ D = m × d = 15 × 0.1 = 1.5 m 5. Given Ps = 15 × 106 w
D H = 1000 m
τ = ρQ × × ( vω1 + vω2 )
2 m = 16
D
= ρQ vω1 u = 60 m/s
2
D v1 = 137.27 m/s
= ρQ v1 η0 = 0.85
2
D Q N = 770 rpm
= ρQ ×
2 πd 2 Ps
Now, η0 =
4 ρQgH
Unit 04.indd 59
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4.60 | Fluid Mechanics Chapter 5 • Turbo Machinery | 3.213
Ps d2 = 3 m
⇒ Q= ηd = 0.75
η0 ρgH
pa p
15× 106 − 2 ≤ 4.5 m
= ρg ρg
0.85× 1000 × 9.81× 1000
= 1.7988 m3/s p2 p V2
Now, = a − Hs − ηd 2
π DN ρg ρg 2g
u= 2
60 pa p v
− 2 = H s + ηd 2
π mdN ρg ρg 2g
=
60 v22
⇒ H s + ηd ≤ 4.5
∴ Diameter of the jet, d = 60 × u 2g
π mN
v22
60 × 60 H s ≤ 4.5 − ηd
= = 0.093 m 2g
π × 16 × 770
× Q2
Total discharge ≤ 4.5 − 0.75
Number of jets required = π 2 × d24
discharge of one jet × 2 × 9.81
16
Q 1.7988 ≤ 4.5 – 0.000765Q 2
= =
d2
(0.093) 2 Pas
π × v1 π× × 137.27 Now, η0 =
4 4 ρQgH
≈ 2. Ps 2.5× 106
Hence, the correct option is (B). ∴ Q= =
ρgH η0 1000 × 9.81× 5× 0.88
p2 p  v 2 − v32  = 57.9186 m3/s
6. = a − Hs −  2 − hg  ∴ Hs ≤ 4.5 – 0.000765Q2
ρg ρg  2g 
≤ 1.9337 m.
pa v2
= − H s − ηd × 2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
ρg 2g
pa 8. Given, QP = 4 m3/s
Considering gauge pressures we have, = 0
ρg QQ = 1 m3/s
p2 HQ = 16 HP
∴ − H s − ηd C
ρg NP = 2NQ
v22 N P
Where C = is a constant as Q and d2 are unchanged. Now, specific speed N s = 5
2g H4
Let the superscript m indicate the modified conditions.
N η0 × ρgQ × H
Given, Hs = 5 m = 5
ηd = 0.6 H4
1
H s = Hs +1 = 6 m
m
N ( η0 × ρgQ ) 2
=
ηmd = 0.72 5
H4
p2 m 1 3
− H sm − ηmd C N SP N  Q 2  HQ 4
ρg ∴ = P  P  ×  
= –6 – 0.72 C N SQ N Q  QQ   H P 
1 3
= –5 –0.6 C –1 – 0.12 C
= 2 × ( 4) 2 × (16) 4 = 32.
p 0.2 p2
= 2+ . Hence, the correct option is (D).
ρg pg N1 3
Hence, the correct option is (A). 9. Given N = 1
2
7. Given, H = 5 m 1
η0 = 0.88 N 1  H1  2
= 
Ps = 2.5 × 106w N2  H2 
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3.214 | Part III • Unit 4 • Fluid Mechanics Hints/Solutions | 4.61
H1  N 1 
2
QH N 3 D5
=  = 9 ∴ 3 5
× = constant
H2  N2  N D P
QH
3
⇒ = constant
P1  H1  2 3
p
=  = (9) 2 = 27
P2  H 2  Qp Pp Hm
∴ = ×
Hence, the correct option is (D). Qm Hp pm
H 1
10. Given, A = Pp 4
HB 9 Given, =
pm 1
qB
= 9 Hp 4
qA =
Hm 1
nB = 2
1
Qp 4 1
1
∴ = × =1
QA  H A  2  1  2 1 Qm 1 4
=  =  =
QB  H B   9  3
mp Qp
nA × q A 1 =
Now, m = 1.
⇒ = m mp
nB × qB 3
1  D p  20
∴ nA = × 9 × 2 = 6.
3 13. Given,  =
 Dm  1
Pm = 3.8 × 102 w
N
11. N u = Hm = 2 m
H
Qm = 0.2 m3/s
Q
Qu = Pm
H Now, ηm =
ρgQm H m
N P N ρgQH η0
Ns = = 3.8× 103
5 5 =
H 4
H 4 1000 × 9.81× 0.2 × 2
QH = 0.9684
= 1000 × 9.81× 0.87 × N × 5 From Moody’s formula
H 4
1− ηp  D 0.2
1
= m
92.38× N × Q 2
1− ηm  D p 
= 3
H4 ⇒ ηp = 0.9826 = 98.26%.
N Q 2
= 92.38× 1
× 1
14. Given, P = 15 × 103 w
H 2
H4 Hs = 2.925 m
σ = 1.1 σc
= 92.38× N u × Qu .
patm
Hence, the correct option is (B). = 10 m
ρg
H pv
12. = constant = 0.2 m
N 2 D2 ρg
Q H = 50 m
= constant
ND 3 patm pv
− − Hs
QH ρg ρg
∴ = constant = σ
N 3 D5 H
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= 1.1 σc Q = πD1B1vf1
= 1.1 × 6.55 × 10-6 (Ns)2 = πD12 × 0.1 × vf1
 2 0.47
N P ⇒ D1 =
= 1.1× 6.55× 10− 6 
π × 0.1× 6
 5 
 H4  = 0.5 m
N 2P Since the discharge of water at inlet and outlet tips is
= 7.205× 10− 6 5 same,
H2 πD1B1vf1 = πD2B2vf2 (kt1 = kt2 = 1)
∴ N = 149.968
B2 D1
≈ 150 rpm ⇒ =
B1 D2
0.5
15. Given, P = 10 × 103 kw =
0.25
H = 40 m
= 2.
N = 55 rpm
N P 18. Given, vf1 = vf2
Specific speed, N s = 5
H4 P = 670 w
o
55× 10 × 103 m = 1.2 kg/s
= 5 vw1 = 25 m/s
( 40) 4 u2 = 0.5u1
= 54.67 rpm α = 15°
Since 50 < Ns < 250, a Francis turbine would be suitable. Since the water leaves radially,
Hence, the correct option is (C). vw2 = 0
16. Given, kf = 0.18 vf 2
tan φ =
H = 20 m u2

α = 15° P = m vw1u1
v f 1 = k f 2 gH P m
⇒ u1 = = 22.33
= 3.566 m/s m v w1 s
Since the runner blades at inlet are radial, ∴ u2 = 11.165 m/s
vf1
θ = 90°, u1 = vω1 tan α =
vf1 vf1 v w1
tan α = = ∴ vf1 = vw1tanα
vω1 u1
= 6.7 m/s
vf1 m
∴ u1 = = 13.3 vf2 = vf1 = 6.7 m/s
tan α s vf 2
Hydraulic efficiency, tan φ =
u2
vω1u1
ηh = or φ = 31° .
gH
u12
= = 0.9016. 19. Given, P = 5 × 106w
gH
H=8m
u = 18 m/s
17. Given, Q = 0.47 m3/s
uf = 8.6 m/s
vf1 = 6 m/s Db = 0.38 D0
B1 N = 100 rpm
= 0.1
D1 60 × u
D0 =
D2 = 0.25 m πN
= 3.44 m
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P vf
η0 = Now, vw1 =
ρgQH tan α
P
= ∴ vw1 = 16.52 m/s
π 2
ρg ( D − Db2 ) v f H
4 0 uw 1 u
P ηh =
= gH
π
ρg ( D02 − (0.38 D0 ) 2 ) v f H ηh × gH
4 u=
v w1
= 0.9316.
Hence, the correct option is (C). = 11.365 m/s
20. Given, ηh = 0.87 Since vw2 = 0,  vf 
Outlet vane angle, φ = tan  
1
H = 22 m  u
vf = 12 m/s
= 46.56°.
vw2 = 0
α = 36°
Practice Problems 2 m′  m
15 + = 2 15 + 
1. The Kaplan turbine is an inward flow reaction turbine 2  2
while the Parson’s turbine is a steam turbine. m′ = 30 + 2m
Hence, the correct option is (C). ⇒ m = 10
2. Hence, the correct option is (B). D
Now m =
3. Given, D = 1.5 m d
N = 1500 rpm Given d = 0.15 m
V1 = 188.48 m/s ⇒ D = d × m = 0.15 × 10 = 1.5 m
Pr = 1.5 × 106 w Hence, the correct option is (D).
π DN π × 1.5× 1500 5. Given u = 22.24 m/s
u= =
60 60 K = 0.9
= 117.81 m/s φ = 20°
Since the flow is assumed ideal, the blade coefficient K Cv = 0.98
is taken to be 1.
P = 1030 × 103 N/m2
Here φ = 180° – jet deflection angle
P = ρgH
= 180°– 120° = 60°
P 1030 × 103
Pr = ρQ (1+ k cosφ) (v1 – u) u ∴ gH = = = 1030
C 1000
1.5 × 106 = 1000 × Q × (1 + cos 60°)
× (188.48 – 117.81) × 117.81 V1 = Cv 2 gH
Q = 0.12 m3/s. = 0.98 2 × 1030
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 44.48 m/s
4. Let the superscript 1 denote the conditions after the 2( v1 − u )(1+ k cos φ )u
increase of the jet ratio ηH =
v12
Given, Z′ = 2z
m′ = 5 m 2 × ( 44.48 − 22.24)(1+ 0.9 × cos 20 ) × 22.24
=
m 44.482
Now, Z = 15 + = 92.28%.
2
Z′ = 2z Hence, the correct option is (A).
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6. Consider two points with the point being at the water For draft tube A,
surface while the other being at the centre of the nozzle ηd = 1 – 1.4 × (0.56)4 = 0.86
outlet. The pressures at both the points are atmospheric.
For draft tube B,
The velocity at the water surface, considering the lake
to be reservoir, can be approximated to zero. ηd = 1 – 1.4 × (0.71)4 = 0.64
Writing the Bernoulli’s equation between the two con- Note: This problem can be solved without calculating
sidered points, we have: the efficiencies. For the same inlet diameter, draft tube
A will have the higher outlet diameter. Thus for the
v2
h = 1 + hL same discharge through the tubes, the velocity at the
2g outlet will be lower for draft tube A. Hence head loss
Where v1 is the actual jet velocity and hL is the head due to friction will be lesser for draft tube A and thus it
losses in the penstock and nozzle. will be more efficient.
L v2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Head loss in the penstock, hLp = f
D 2g 8. Given, Ps = 2 × 106 w
Where v is the velocity of water in the pipeline. H=6m
From continuity equation, we have: η0 = 0.8
d2v1 = D2v d2 = 2.5 m
L d 4 v12 Hs = 2 m
∴ hLp = f 5
D 2g ηd = 0.7
Head loss in the nozzle, hL = 0
v2  1  ps
H LN = 1  2 − 1 η0 =
2 g CV  ρgQH
∴ hL = hLP + hLN ps
∴ Q=
v2  1 fLd 4  ρgH η0
= 1  2 − 1+ 
2 g C v D5 
2 × 106
=
v  1
2
fLd  4
1000 × 9.81× 6 × 0.8
∴ h= 1
 2+ 
2 g C v D5  = 42.474 m3/s
Q 4 × 42.474
v2 = =
2 gh Hd22
π × ( 2.5) 2
or v1 =
 1 fLd 4  4
 2+ 
 Cv D5  = 8.653 m/s
Hence, the correct option is (B). v22 − v32
− hL
v32 2g
7. Given, hL = 0.4 ηd =
v22
2g
2g
v22 − v32
− hL v22 − v32 v2 0.7 × 8.6532
2g ∴ = ηd × 2 =
ηd = 2g 2g 2 × 9.81
v22
= 2.671 m
2g
p2 p  v − v32
2 
v22 − v32 v2 = a − Hs −  2 − hL 
− 0.4 3 ρg ρg  2g 
2g 2g
=
v22 = 0 –2 – 2.671
2g = –4.671 m
 v3 2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
= 1− 1.4 
 v2  N P
9. N s = 5
d  2
H4
= 1 – 1.4 2 
 d3  Shaft power of one turbine,
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5
Dp 5
N 2H 2 12. Given, =
Pt = s 2 × 1000 w Dm 1
N
If Q is the discharge and H is the net head available to the Hp 25
=
turbine operating with an overall efficiency of η0, then Hm 1
Shaft power (in watts) P = ρgQH × η0
mp Qp  N p  D p 3
P = =  
No of turbines, n = mm Qm  N m  Dm 
Pt
ρgQH η0 × N 2  N p  D p   D p 2
= 5
=  ×  
N s2 H 2 × 1000  N m  Dm   Dm 
If na and nb are the number of turbines in the hydroelec- 1
 H p  2  D p 2
tric station A and B respectively. =  × 
 H m   Dm 
 2
Then, na =  N a N sb  1
nb  N b N sa  = ( 25) 2 × (5) 2
Nb 6 = 5 × 25 = 125
Given, =
Na 1 Hence, the correct option is (A).
N sb 2 Hp 4
= 13. Given, =
N sa 1 Hm 1
na = 2
Dp 3
2  1 2
2
=
∴ = ×  Dm 1
nb  6 1 
nb = 18 Hp Hm
2 2
=
Hence, the correct option is (A). N D
p p N m2 Dm2
Q1 1 Pp pm
10. Given, = 3 5
=
Q2 7 N D
p p N m3 Dm5
1
Pp  N p D p 3 D p 2
Q1  H1  2 =  
=  Pm  N m Dm   Dm 
Q2  H 2 
1 3
1  H 2  H p  2  D p 2
= 1 =  × 
7  H2   H m   Dm 
3
H1 1
∴ = = ( 4) 2 × (3) 2
H2 7
= 72
P1 Q1 H1 1 1 1
= × = × = Hence, the correct option is (A).
P2 Q2 H 2 7 7 7 7
14. Given, Np = Nm
u = ku 2 gH
11. Given, H1 = 20 m
1
H 2 = 20 +
700
× 20 = 160 m u (k )  H  2
100 ∴ m = u m  m 
u p ( ku ) p  H p 
N1 H1 20 1
= = = For geometrically similar machines, it is assumed that
N2 H2 160 2 2 ku is the same.
Percentage increase in the speed, i.e., (ku)m = (ku)p
 N 2 − N1 
Hm  um 
2
 × 100 = ( 2 2 − 1) × 100 = 182.84% = 
 N1  Hp  u p 
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For the model and prototype the specific speeds will be  η   N 3  D 5

same. or Pp = pm ×  p ×  p  ×  p 
 ηm   N m   Dm 
N m pm N p pp
∴ 5
= 5 When the engineer calculates without considering the
(Hm ) 4
(H p )4 scale effect, it is implicit that he had assumed ηp = ηm
5  N p 3 D p 5
Pp  H p  2  u p 5 ∴ Pm ×    = 15× 106 w
=  =   m m
N D
pm  H m   um 
From Moody’s formula:
15. Given, Hm = 100 m 1− ηp  D 0.2
= m
Nm = 200 rpm 1− ηm  D p 
Hp = 400 m
Given, ηm = 0.82
Np = 200 rpm
ρp Dp 10
= 0.993 =
ρm Dm 1
Hp Hm ∴ ηp = 0.8864
2 2
= After considering scale effects, the corrected value of
N D p p N m2 Dm2
Pp would be
Dp H p Nm  ηp 
∴ = Pp =  × 15× 106
Dm Hm N p η
 m
400 200  0.8864 

= × = × 15× 10
6
100 100  0.82 

=2 = 16.21 mw
Now, P = ρgQHη Hence, the correct option is (C).
Assuming η to be constant between the model and pro- 17. Given, σc = 0.1144
totype we have:
H = 80 m
P
= constant Patm = 101.043 × 103 Pa
ρQH
Pv = 2.943 × 103 Pa
H Hs, A = 0.5 m
but 2 2 = constant
N D
Hs, B = 0.6 m
Q patm pv
and = constant − − H s, A
ND 3 ρg ρg
σA =
P H
∴ = constant
ρN 3 D 5 = 0.11875
ρp  N p   Dp 
3 5
Pp patm pv
or =   ×  − − H s, B
Pm ρm  N m   Dm  ρg ρg
σB =
H
 200 3 = 0.1175
= 0.993×   × ( 2)
5
 200  Since σA and σB are both greater than σc, cavitation

= 31.776 occurs in neither of the turbine.
16. Now, P = ρgQHη 18. P = 10 × 103 kW
P H = 40 m
∴ = constant N1 = 52 r. p. m
ηN 3 D 5
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N2 = 9 r. p. m
∴ v1 = v22 + ηh gH
N p
Ns = 5
= 52 + 0.98× 9.81× 15
H4
= 13 m/s
N1 P Hence, the correct option is (D).
=
Hence N s,1 = 5
51.69 rpm
H 4
u1
Since 50 < Ns,1 < 250, suitable turbine for dam site Ι 21. Given = 2.5
u2
would be a Francis turbine.
N2 P B1
=
Hence N s, 2 = 8.94 rpm. = 0.2
5 D1
H4
Since Ns,2 < 50, suitable turbine for dam site ΙΙ would be Since the discharge (Q) at the inlet and outlet tips is the
a Pelton wheel. same, we have
Hence, the correct option is (D). πD1B1vf1 = πD2B2vf2 (kt1 = kt2 = 1)
19. Given η0 = 0.85 Since flow velocity through the runner is constant,
N = 2 × 60 = 120 rpm vf1 = vf2
H = 130 m ⇒ D1B1 = D2B2
Q = 0.9225 m3/s
B2 D1
P = ηρgQH or =
B1 D2
= 0.85 × 1000 × 9.81 × 0.9225 × 130
B2 B B D
= 1 × 103 kw = 2× 1× 1
D2 B1 D1 D2
N P
=
Ns = 8.64 rpm
B1  D1 
5 2
H 4
= × 
Since, Ns < 50, the turbines would be pelton wheels. D1  D2 
Hence, the correct option is (B). u1 π D1 N 60 D
Now = = 1
20. Given, H = 15 m u2 60 × π D2 N D2
nh = 0.98
D1
v2 = 5 m/s ∴ = 2.5
D2
Since the runner vanes are radial at inlet,
B2
θ = 90° and vω1 = u1 ∴ = 0.2 × ( 2.5) 2
D2
vw1u1 u12
ηh = = = 1.25
gH gH
∴ u12 = ηhgH
22. Given, φ = 30°
Since the discharge is radial,
vf2 = 6 m/s
b = 90°, vw2 = 0
vω2 = 0
∴ v2 = uf2
vω1 = 28 m/s
Since the flow of velocity through the runner is
constant, D1
= 2
vf2 = vf1 D2
∴ v2 = vf1 m = 1.5 kg/s
= vr1 Since vω2 = 0
uf 2
= v12 − vω21 tan φ =
u2
= v12 − u12 uf 2 m
∴ u2 = = 10.392
= v − ηh gH
2
1
tan φ s
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u1 π D1 N 60 P
= × =
u2 60 π D2 N π 2
ρg( D − Db2 ) v f H
4 0
D1
= = 2 ∴ D0 = 5.532 m
D2
⇒ u1 = 20.784 m/s 60 × u
∴ N=
Power developed by the turbine, π D0
P = ρQ (vw1u1 + vw2u2) = 69 rpm
°
= m( vw1u1 ) Hence, the correct option is (A).
= 1.5 × 28 × 20.784 25. Given, ηh = 0.86
= 873 w H = 20 m
Hence, the correct option is (B). vf = 11 m/s
23. Given, Q = 120 m3/s α = 35°
vf
Dp = 5 m Now, vω1 =
tan α
Power, Pw = 70 × 106w
= 15.71 m/s
P
= 58 m vω1u
pg ηh =
gH
z=5m
η0 = 0.9581 ηh × g × H
∴ u=
output power vω1
η0 =
input power = 10.74 m/s
Pw Inlet vane angle,
=
ρgQH  vf 
Pw θ = tan 1 
⇒ H=  uω1 − u 
ρgQ η0 = 65.69°
= 62.06 m Hence, the correct option is (D).
Net head (H) = Head at entry to the runner – kinetic
26. For an axial flow machine,
energy in tail race
P v2 v2 u1 = u2
H= + + z− t For an impulse machine,
ρg 2 g 2g
Where vt is the velocity of water in the tail race. R (degree of reaction) = 0
 2 i.e., u12 – u22 + (ω2 – ω12) = 0
 120  1
⇒ 62.06 = 58 +   × ⇒ ω2 = ω1
π
 × ( 5)  2 × 9.81
2
ω2
 4  or =1
ω1
vt2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
+ 5−
2 × 9.81
vt = 7.5 m/s 27. For a reaction turbine,
Hence, the correct option is (C). cot α
R = 1−
2(cot α− cot θ)
24. Given, P = 10 × 106w
H=7m Given, α = 12°
u = 20 m/s When R = 0, we have
vf = 8 m/s 1
cot θ = cot α
Db = 0.36 D0 2
η0 = 0.87 or θ = tan–1 (2tanα)
P = tan–1 (2 × tan12°) = 23°
η0 = Hence, the correct option is (B).
ρgQH
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28. The superscript 1 refers to the conditions after the Given φ = 180° –160° = 20° and
modifications.
k = 0.48
Given v1′ = 2v1
v 2
k′u = 1.1 ku ∴ ω1 =
vω2 0.48× ( 2 − 1) cos 20* − 1
u ku 2 g H
= = –3.64
v1 Cv 2 g H
vω1
kv ∴ = 3.64
u= u 1 vω 2
Cv
u′ ku′ v1′ Cv
∴ = × 1
u Cv′ ku v1 30. Given =
v f 1 v=
f2 u
4 1
The coefficient of velocity is assumed to be unchanged Given, θ = 90°
due to the modifications.
∴ vω1 = u1
∴ C′v = Cv
vf1
∴ u′ = 1.1 × 2u = 2.2u ∴ tan α =
u1
u′− u 2.2u − u
∴ = = 1.2 u1
u u
or cot α = = 4
or u has increased by 120% vf1
29. At maximum power, Given, v2 = vf2
v1 v1 ⇒ b = 90°
= u = or 2
2 u ∴ cot b = 0
vω1 v1 Now, blade efficiency is given by
Now =
vω2 vr 2 cos φ − u
2v 2f 1 cot α(cot α− cot β)
v1 ηb =
= v 2f 2 + 2v 2f 1 cot α(cot α− cot β)
kvr1 cos φ − u
v1 2 × (cot α) 2
= =
k ( v1 − u ) cos φ − u 1+ 2(cot α) 2
v1 2× 42
u = = 96.97%
= 1+ 2 × 4 2
 v1 
k − 1 u cos φ − 1 Hence, the correct option is (A).
 u 
Previous Years’ Questions 4 × 60 × 2185

= 5
= 205.8
1. Head, H = 24.5 m ( 24.5) 4
Flow rate, Q = 10.1 m3/sec Hence Francis turbine is suitable.

Speed, N = 4 rps Hence, the correct option is (A).
Overall efficiency, ηov = 0.9 2. Reciprocating pump – positive displacement
SP Axial flow pump – High flow rate, low pressure ratio
η0v =
wQH Microhydel plant – Power output between 100 kW to
1 MW
SP Backward curved vanes – Centrifugal pump impeller.
0.9 =
9.81× 10.1× 24.5 Hence, the correct option is (B).
⇒ SP = 2185 kW 3. Degree of reaction, DOR
Specific speed, N s =
N P ( u12 − u22 ) + ( w22 − w12 )
5 =
(H ) 4 ( u12 − u22 ) + ( w22 − w12 ) + ( C12 − C22 )
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From diagram, 6. Net pressure difference = 200 – (–25)

w1 = C2 symmetry = 225 kPa = 2.25 bar
C1 = w2
2.25× 10.33
u1 = u2 = = 22.95 m of water
1.013
( C12 − C22 ) Static head = 1 m
∴ DOR =
( C12 − C22 ) + ( C12 − C22 ) ∴ Total net positive suction head (NPSH)
⇒ DOR = 0.5 = pressure head + static head
Hence it is reaction or impulse reaction turbine = (22.95 + 1) = 23.95 m of water
∴ 0 < DOR < 1 ~ 24 m of water
4. b = Blade angle = 180o – 120o = 60o 7. u1 = VW1
Power developed by Pelton wheel,
90° u1
P = ρQ[Vw − Vw ]× u V1 Vr1 = Vf1 =
2
1 2
 →  → →  →
⇒ P = ρQ V1−  u2 − Vr cos β  u Inlet triangle
  2 
u1 = u2 = u = 10 m/s, Q = 0.1 m3/sec
Vr2 u
V2 = Vf2 = 1
→ m 2
V1 = 25
s u2 = u1
→ → → → m
Vr1 = Vr2 = V1− u = ( 25 − 10) = 15 Outlet triangle
s
∴ P = 1000 × 0.1[25 – (10 – 15 × cos 60o)] × 10 V12 = Vw21 + Vr12
⇒ P = 22500 W or 22.5 kW
u12 5 2
Hence, the correct option is (C). ⇒ V12 = u12 + = u1
4 4
5. Prototype Model
u12
Power, P = 300 kW P =? And V22 =
4
Speed, N = 1000 rpm
5 2 u12
Head, H = 40 m H = 10 m V −V u −
2 2
Blade efficiency, η= = 4 1
1 4 = 4
2
 gH   gH  V12 5 2 5
u
=
 N 2 D 2 P  N 2 D 2 m 4 1
or η = 80%
DP2 H Hence, the correct option is (C).
Nm = 2
× N P2 × m
Dm HP Hp
8. Given, H m =
10 4
⇒ Nm = ( 4) 2 × 1000 2 × Dp
40 Dm =
⇒ Nm = 2000 rpm 2
 gH   gH 
 P   P   2 2 = 2 2
Now 3 5  =  3 5   N D m  N D  P
N D m N D P
 N 3  D 5 H m  DP 
2
⇒ Pm = Pp ×  m  ×  m  Nm = ×  × N P2
 N p   Dp  H p  Dm 
 2000 3  1
5
1
⇒ Pm = 300 ×   ×  ∴ Nm = × ( 2) 2 × N 2
 1000   4 4
⇒ Pm = 2.34 kW ∴ Nm = N
Unit 04.indd 70
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13:44:31 M05_
9. CentrifugalCompressor Surging jet speed(V1 )

13. Bucket speed (u ) =
Centrifugal pump Priming 2
Pelton wheel Tangential flow or Hence, the correct option is (B).
Pure impulse
14. Q = 0.05 m3/s
Kaplan turbine Axial flow
F = 1000 N
F = ρQV where V = velocity of jet
10. Force exerted by jet on bucket in direction of motion, Fx:
∴ 1000 = 1000 × 0.05 × V ⇒ V = 20 m/s
Fx = ρA (V – u) [(V – u) – {– (V – u) Cos θ}]
Q = aV, where a = cross sectional area of jet
⇒ Fx = m (V – u) (1 + Cos θ)
πd 2
Fx a= , where d = diameter of jet
or = (V − u )(1+ cos θ) 4
m πd 2
∴ 0.05 = × 20 ⇒ d = 0.0564 m
(V − u) Sin60°
4
(V − u) = 56.4 mm
(V − u) Cos60° 120° Hence, the correct option is (56 to 57).
(V − u)
15. Nozzle angle α = 20°
For symmetrical blading
Given → V = 10 m/s, u = ω r = 10 × 0.5 = 5 m/s
(Inlet and outlet blade angle equal),
θ = 60o
Maximum blade efficiency = cos2α
F N
∴ x = (10 − 5)(1+ cos 60°) = 7.5 = cos2 20 = 0.883
m kg
sec = 88.3%
Torque exerted by the water on the wheel, T Hence, the correct option is (85.1 to 89.9).
T=F×r
16.
N− m
⇒ T = 7.5× 0.5 = 3.75
kg V1
sec
Vr1 α
Hence, the correct option is (D). u
   
 P   P 
11. =
 3  3
 H 2 1  H 2 2 u
1000 P
3
= 3
40 2 20 2
⇒ P = 353.55 kW
or P ~ 354 kW Vr2
V2
Hence, the correct option is (B). β
12. Degree of reaction is given by: u
(U 2
2 −U 1
2
) + (W 1
2
−W
2
2
) = =
V1 100
m
;Vr1 78
m
DOR =
(V2
2
−V 1
2
) + (U 2
2 −U 1
2
) + (W 1
2
− W22 ) s s
α = 25°; u = 25 m/s; V2 = 58.6 m/s
From velocity triangles
m
V2 = W1, V1 = W2 and U1 = U2 Vr2 = 78
s
(W12 − W22 ) Axial velocity components:
∴ DOR =
(W12 − W22 ) + (W12 − W22 ) V f1 = V1 sin 25
⇒ DOR = 0.5
Hence, the correct option is (C). V f2 = V2 sin β
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At this local pressure (less than or equal to vapour pres- 300 m/s 65º
sure), cavitation and boiling of liquid starts.
α V r2 θ
N P V r1 V1 V2
19. NS = ; N s H 5/4 = N P β V
ෘ
54 F1
H
NS1 = NS2, H1 = H2 (given)
4.72 | Fluid Mechanics Chapter
V w1 5 • Turbo Machinery
Vw2 | 3.225
\ ( N P )1 = ( N P ) 2 u
V f1‘ = V f2 20. (see
Vw2 =figure)
V2 sin θ = 150 sin 32.3 = 80.15 m/s
N1 P2
⇒ sin N β=
= sin
100
P1
25
= 0.7212
Given
Sp. work (
a ==65Vo, u +=V150 m/s
ω1 u ω2 )
2
58.6 V1 = 300 m/s, V2 = 150 m/s
2 2 = (272 + 80.15)150
⇒P1 cosb N 
= 0.6927  1 VF1 = VF2
=  2  =   = 0.25 J = 52.82 kJ/kg
P2  N
Specific 1
work= (VW21 + VW2 )u V1 cos a = V2 cos θ
kg Hence, the correct answer is 50–54.
300 cos 65 = 150 cos θ
Hence, the correct answer is 0.25. 21. Jet pump is not a rotating machine
Where, VW1 = V1 cos α and VW2 = V2 cos β θ = 32.3°
= (100 cos 25 + 58.6 × 0.6927) × 25 Vw1 = V1 sin a = 300 sin 65 = 272 m/s
22. Kaplan turbine is an axial flow reaction turbine, Francis
= 3280.6 J/kg turbine is reaction turbine andu = pelton
150 m/sturbine is impulse
Hence, the correct option is (3250 to 3300). turbine.
17. Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (D).
18. When cavitation parameter, σ = 0 then P ≤ Pvapour 23. For maximum efficiency in Pelton 150wheel,
m/s
At this local pressure (less than or equal to vapour pres- 300 m/s 65º U 1
sure), cavitation and boiling of liquid starts. η max = = = 0.5 .
V1 2
α V r2 ෘ θ
N P V1 V2
19. NS = ; NsH 5/4
= N P 24. VV1 r1 β V F1 V2
54
H
NS1 = NS2, H1 = H2 (given) Vw2
Q/2 V w1 ω Q/2
\ ( N P )1 = ( N P ) 2 u
Vw2 = V2 sin θ = 150 sin 32.3 = 80.15 m/s
N1 P2
= Sp. workr1= (Vω1 + Vω 2 ) u
10 cm 20 cm
P1 r2
N2
2 2 Given: Q == (272
1 lit/sec = 10–3 m3/sec
+ 80.15)150
P1 N   1
=  2  =   = 0.25 Area of each nozzle
= 52.82 A1 = A2
kJ/kg
P2  N1   2
Chapter 5 • Turbo Machinery | 3.225 Hence, the correct
A = A2 = 1answer
cm2 = is
1050–54.
–4
m2
1
20. (see figure) Q/2 10 −3
\ V1 = V2 = = = 5 m/ s
Given a = 65o, u = 150 m/s A 2 × 10 −4
V1 = 300 m/s, V2 = 150 m/s Let w = angular speed in rad/sec
VF1 = VF2 Absolute velocity:
M05_TRIS7308_C05.indd V225cos a = V cos θ 27/04/2017 13:44:35
1 2 Vu1 = V1 + r1 w = 5 + 0.1 w
300 cos 65 = 150 cos θ
Vu2 = V2 – r2 w = 5 – 0.2 w
os β θ = 32.3°
Torque = rQ (Vu2 r2) – rQ (Vu1 r1)
0.6927) × 25 Vw1 = V1 sin a = 300 sin 65 = 272 m/s
T = rQ[(v2 – r2w)r2 – (V1 + rw)r1] = 0
u = 150 m/s
o 3300). (5 – 0.2w) 0.2 – (5 + 0.1w) 0.1 = 0
1 – 0.04w = 0.5 + 0.01w
en P ≤ Pvapour 150 m/s
0.5 = 0.05w
qual to vapour pres- 300 m/s 65º
d starts. w = 10 rad/sec
α V r2 1 Dm
V r1 β V
V1 ෘ θ V2 25. Scale ratio: Cr = =
F1 5 Dp
Head: H = 2 m
Vw2
V w1 Discharge: Q = 1 m3/sec
u
Vw2 = V2 sin θ = 150 sin 32.3 = 80.15 m/s
Sp. work = (Vω1 + Vω 2 ) u
= (272 + 80.15)150
Unit 04.indd 72
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13:44:35
Speed: Nm = 450 rpm Speed of prototype = 348.56 rpm

Power of model: P
Also, 5 3 = Constant
Pm = rgQH = 103 × 10 × 1 × 2 = 0.02 MW D N
⎛ P ⎞ ⎛ P ⎞
H
= Constant ⎜ 5 3⎟ =⎜ 5 3⎟
⎝ D N ⎠m ⎝ D N ⎠p
ND
5 2
⎛ H ⎞ ⎛ H ⎞ ⎛ Dp ⎞ ⎛ N p ⎞
⎜ 2 2 ⎟ =⎜ 2 2 ⎟ Pp = ⎜ ⎟ ×⎜ ⎟ × Pm
⎝ D N ⎠m ⎝ D N ⎠p ⎝ Dm ⎠ ⎝ N m ⎠

3
⎛D ⎞
2 ⎛ 348.56 ⎞
Hp Pp = 52 × ⎜ ⎟ × 0.02
Np2 = ×⎜ m ⎟⎟ × N m 2 ⎝ 450 ⎠
H m ⎜⎝ Dp ⎠
Pp = 29.047 MW
2
30 ⎛ 1 ⎞
= × × ( 450) 2 Hence, the correct answer is 29.05.
2 ⎜⎝ 5 ⎟⎠
Unit 04.indd 73 4/27/2019 12:08:42 PM

test
Hints/solutions
1. Let the reading in the pressure gauge be PG After the load is placed on the buoy increase in the
\ PG + 1.2 × 1.0 × 1000 × 9.81 buoyant force = weight of the load:
= (4 - 3.89) × 13.6 × 1000 × 9.81 π
h× × d 2 × 1015 × 7.81 = 62563
\ PG = 2903.76 Pa 4
Hence, the correct option is (B). \h=2m
2. Hence, the correct option is (D). \ Height of cylinder imposed = 4 - 2
3. Hence, the correct option is (D). = 2 m.
4. Let the two ideal gases be A and B: Hence, the correct option is (A).
ρ A m TA 1 y A
= > = =
12. v = ,u
ρ B 1 TB r x 2
x
Isothermal bulk modulus of an ideal gas, Slope of streamline passing through point (x, y) is:
K=P dy v y
= =
= rRT dx u Ax
K A ρ A TA m
∴ = × = . From streamline equation, y = 5x,
K B ρ B TB r
dy
Hence, the correct option is (A). =5
dx
5. Hence, the correct option is (C). y
i.e., =5
6. Hence, the correct option is (B). Ax
7. Let rf and rm be the densities of the liquid flowing and 5x
the manometric liquid. If h is the manometric reading, = 5= or A 1
Ax
then:
dx A 1 dx 1
PA - PB = h (rf - rm) g =u == = ;
dt x x dt x
PA − PB 588.6 \ x dx = dt. Integrating between the limits
∴ ρ f − ρm = =
hg 0.3 × 9.81 x1 to x2.
= 200 kg/m3. x 2 − x12
Integrating we have 2 =t
3 −1
2 2
8. Hence, the correct option is (B). or t = = 4 seconds.

2
10. u = 6 (y + z)
v = 7 y2 13.
Y X
w = (a + 6 - 14 y) z
For incompressibility, yc
A
→ yr
∇.V = 0
G
∂ ∂ ∂ Cp
or u + u + w = 0
∂x ∂ y ∂z
FR
0 + 14y + a + 6 - 14y = 0
The points G and CP correspond to the centre of gravity
⇒ a = -6.
and centre of pressure respectively.
4
11. Let d be the diameter of the buoy. Before the load is yC = + 1 = 6.66 m
placed on the buoy, Buoyant force = weight of buoy = sin 45°
π Ι xc
(10 - 4) × × d 2 × 1015 × 9.81= 187.7 × 103 yr − yc =
4 yc A
d2 = 4 m2
Let the additional depth of immersion of the buoy, due 4 × 23
= = 0.05 m
to the load placement, be h. 12 × 6.66 × 4 × 2
Unit 04.indd 74
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Test || 3.227
Taking moments about the hinge, 17. Let u = u (x) be the velocity distribution and let L be the
FR × (1 + 0.05) = FB × 2 × sin 45° length of the nozzle.
(4 + 1 sin 45°) × 1000 × 9.81 × 1.05 (5 − 1)
u( x ) = 1 + x
= FB × 2 × sin 45° L
FB = 34284.5 N. 4x
u( x ) = 1 +
Hence, the correct option is (B). L
14. Let ‘h’ be the equivalent liquid height of the air gauge ∂u( x ) 4
=
pressure that is estimate without accounting for surface ∂x L
tension corrections. Then the true gauge pressure. →
DV ∂u( x )
 2σ cos θ  ax = =u
PG = hρ g −  × ρg Dt ∂x
 ρ gr 
4  4x 
2σ cos θ ax = + 1
= hρ g − L  L 
r
L
22 2 × 0.082 × cos 0 =
At x = , ax 0.8 m/s 2
= × 1200 × 9.81 − 2
100 0.0005
4
= 2261.84 Pa. ax = [ 2 + 1]
L
15. Let m1 and m2 be the masses on the smaller and larger 4
0.8 = ×3
pistons respectively. Let d1 and d2 be the diameters of L
the smaller and larger pistons respectively. 12 120
=
L = = 15 m.
m1 g mg 0.8 8
= 2
π 2 π 2 Hence, the correct option is (A).
d1 d2
4 4 18. Drop in height of the mercury level in the sump
0.5 M1 g + 1000 M 2 g
= (0.1) 2
π 2 π 2 = 0.15 × = 0.006 m
d1 d2 (0.5) 2
4 4
m g 1000 m2 g Vertical rise of the mercury in the inclined leg = 0.15
0.5 1 + = × sin 30° = 0.075 m
π 2 π 2 π 2
d1 d1 d1 \ Gauge pressure = (0.075 + 0.006) × 13.6 × 1000
4 4 4
2
× 9.81 = 10806.7 Pa.
d  1 1
m2 = 1000 ×  2  × × Hence, the correct option is (B).
 d1  0.5 9.81
19. Let the resultant hydrostatic force acting on the gate
3
2
1 1 be R.
= 1000 ×   × ×
1
  0. 5 9. 81 Let RH and RV be the horizontal and vertical compo-
nents of the force R. Let the length of the gate into the
= 1834.86 kg. paper be 1 metre.
7
2σ RH = × 1000 × 9.81× 7 × 1
16. For the water drop let, Pi − Po = 2
r
= 240345 N
Let R be the radius of the water bubble. Then for the
bubble. Let area of the segment MON be A.
4σ Rn = A × 1 × 1000 × 9.81
Pi − P0 =
R = 9810 A N
2σ 4σ R 9810 A
⇒ = tan (8.13°) = V =
r R RH 240345
or R = 2r. A = 3.5 m2
Hence, the correct option is (C). \ Rn = 34335 N
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3.228
V2 = 300 y
∴ R = Rv2 + RH2
dv
2V = 300
= 343352 + 24034522 dy
= 242785.1 N. dv 300
=
Hence, the correct option is (C). dy 2 × 300 y
20. f = 2xy + y2 - x2 dv
τ =µ
∂ψ ∂ϕ dy
= = 2 y − 2x
∂y ∂x 1 300
= 0.9 × ×
\ y = y2 - 2xy + f (x) + C1 (1) 2 y
∂ψ −∂ϕ at the upper plate,
= = −2 x − 2 y
∂x ∂y y = 0.03 m
\ y = -x2 - 2xy + f (y) + C2 (2) \ shear stress at the upper plate.
From equation (1) and (2)
1 300
⇒ f(x) + C1 = -x2 + C2 τ = 0.9 × × = 45 N/m 2
2 0.03
or y = y 2 - 2xy - x2 + C2 Hence, the correct option is (A).
or y = y 2 - 2xy - x2 + C. 24. Let T be the tension in the chord and r be the density of
Hence, the correct option is (C). the liquid. Force balance around the sphere gives
21. Weight of the blade = Vertical component of the surface T + 0.15 × r × g = 0.15 × 3000 × g
tension forces. Force balance around the buoy gives
3 × 10-3 × 9.81 = 7.3 × 10-2 × 0.35 × sin q T + 2 × 500 × g = 1.05 × r × g
0.02943 = 0.02555× sin q ⇒ 0.15 × 3000 × g - 0.15 rg
Since the maximum value of sin q is 1, the surface ten- = 1.05 × r × g - 2 × 500 × g
sion force cannot balance the blade’s weight and hence
the blade will sink. r = 1208.33 kg/m3.
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (D).
dp 25. Let the discharge (per unit width of the duct into the
22. = ρg plane of the paper) be Q, Qm and Qp for the main duct,
dh duct m and duct p respectively,
= r0 (1 + h) g
Qm ψ 1 −ψ 2
Integrating, ∴ =
Q ψ 1 −ψ 4
 h2  Q p ψ 3 −ψ 4
P = ρ0 g  h + 
 2  =
Q ψ 1 −ψ 4
ρ gh2
P − P0 = 0 . Qm 6.4 − 4.9 15
2 ∴ = = .
Q p 3.8 − 2.2 16
23. When a linear velocity profile is assumed, Hence, the correct option is (C).
dv 3−0 26. Let the horizontal force applied be F
= = 100
dy 0.03 − 0
dv Gate
τ =µ yC
dy yR
3.5 m
90 = m × 100 20 m
F
\ m = 0.9 Pas 3.5 m
FR
When a parabolic velocity profile is assumed,
V2 = ay where a is some constant, O
At y = 0.03, v = 3 m/s The resultant hydrostatic force acting on the gate,

(3) 2 FR = (20 - 3.5) × 1000 × 9.81 = 161865 N
∴ a= = 300
0.03 Yc = 20 - 3.5 = 16.5 m
Unit 04.indd 76
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Test || 3.229
Ι xc 29. d
YR = + yc
yc A
π 4
D
= 64 + 16.5
π
16.5 × × D 2 35 cm M
4 G
= 16.69 m 25 cm B
Taking moments of the forces about the hinge ‘O’

assuming the gate’s weight to be negligible, we have
FR × (20 - yR) = F × 3.5 O
\ F = 153078 N. Let, M, G and B be the metacentre centre of gravity and

Hence, the correct option is (B). centre of buoyancy of the cone.
27. A linear velocity distribution is assumed.
3
dv OG = × 0.35 = 0.2625 m
τ =µ 4
dy
3
( v − 0) OB = × 0.25 = 0.1875 m
=µ 4
( 2 × 10 −3 − 0)
\ BG = OG - OB = 0.075 m.
0.7 d 
= ×  ×ω  Hence, the correct option is (A).
2 × 10 −3  2 
30. d = 2 × 0.25 × tan 30°
0.7 0.6
= −3
× × 42 = 0.2887 m
2 × 10 2
= 4410 π d4
Ι 64
If T is the torque, then BM = =
V 1  d 2
T 2T π × 0.25
= = 4410 3  2 
π dL
d π d2L
2 = 0.06251
4410 × π × 0.2 × (0.6) 2 OM = OB + BM
∴ T=
2
= 498.75 Nm. = 0.1875 + 0.06251
Hence, the correct option is (A) = 0.25 m
28. T = 498. 75 Nm Now OG = 0.2625 m
Power = Tw The centre of gravity is above the metacentre. Hence
= 498.25 × 42 = 20.95 kw. the cone will be in unstable equilibrium.
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13:44:53
Unit 04.indd 78
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13:44:53
Heat Transfer
Chapter 1 Conduction5.3
U
n
Chapter 2 Forced Convection 5.17
Chapter 3 Natural Convection

and Mass Transfer 5.25
Chapter 4 Radiation and Heat Transfer 5.31
Chapter 5 H
eat Exchanger, Boiling
i
and Condensation 5.41
t
5
Unit 05.indd 1 4/27/2019 12:48:08 PM
5.2 | Heat Transfer
Unit 05.indd
01_Hints 4
36
158
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CHapter 1 ConduCtion
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 7. For steady state condition since external temperatures

are maintained constant the heat flow through the
1. Heat gain = heat conducted material 1 is the same as that through material 2. From
Using the rate equation for hollow cylinder, noting that Fourier conduction law
length is 1m
T1 − T2 T −T
T −T [T − ( −40)]2π × 0.1× 1 K1 = K2 2 3
65.5 = 1 2 = 1 x1 x2
ln( r2 /r1 )  0.08 
ln   K1 (T − T )
2π kL  0.06  = 2× 2 3
K2 (T1 − T2 )
Therefore, the outside temperature
(T2 − T3 )
T1 = –10°C = 263 K <1
(T1 − T2 )
K1
2. L L 2L <1
+ = ; ( R = R1 + R2 ) 2k 2
k1 A k2 A KA
K1< 2K2
L  k1 + k2  2L
=  = Hence, the correct option is (B).
A  k1k2  KA
8. 2 kJ/mhk
2k k
K= 1 2 150 kJ/mhk
k1 + k2
Glass
Hence, the correct option is (D). wool MS
MS
1 1 t 1 1 0.115 1
3. = + + = + + ; h = 1 : 33
h hi K ho 2.5 1.15 4
Heat lost per hour = hA (θ2 – θ1) × 3600/s 1 δ δ δ 1
R= + 1 + 2 + 1 +
= 1.33 × 40 (30 - 10) × 3600 = 3830 KJ Lo A K1 A K 2 A K1 A L1 A
Hence, the correct option is (D). 1 0.003 0.006
= + +
50 × 3.06 150 × 3.06 2 × 3.06
dT d 2T
4. = −10 + 40 x + 30 x 2 and 0.003 1
dx dx 2 + +
= 40 + 60x 150 × 3.06 40 × 3.06
d 2T = 15.7 × 10-3 K/hr/kJ.
At x = 1 = 40 + 60 = 100
dx 2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
d 2T 1 dT dT α d 2T 9. Conductance = 1/R
= or =
dx 2 α dt dt dx 2 = 15.70 kJ/okGr = 63.7.
dT Hence, the correct option is (A).
= 2 × 10 –3 × 100 = 0.2° C/h
dt 10. Total heat transfer
Hence, the correct option is (B). 25 − 6.5 18.5
= = = 1.178 × 103
5. Heat loss from plate = (2A) h (T2 – T1) total resistance 15.7 × 10 −3
= (2 × 50 × 80 × 10–4) × 25 × (220 – 20) = 4000 W 1178 × 103 1192 = LoA (25 - T)
Hence, the correct option is (D). 1178 = 50 × 3.06 (25 - T) = 25 - T
1 1 1
6. ∆T1 : ∆T2 : ∆T3 = : : 7.69 = 25 - T ∴ T = 25 - 7.69 = 17.31°C
k1 k2 k3
1 1 1
: :
1 2 4 A(T1 − T4 )
11. Q =
or 4 : 2 : 1 ∆x1 ∆x2
+
Hence, the correct option is (B). k1 k2
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5.4 | Heat
3.234 Transfer
| Part III • Unit 5 • Heat Transfer
(T1 − T4 ) 15. Total resistance

∞
∆x1 ∆x2 1 0.25 0.1 0.15 1
+ = + + + +
Ak1 Ak2 30 1.7 1.49 9.5 15
Hence, the correct option is (D). = 0.33 cm2/W
∆T Over all heat transfer = coefficient
12. Heat flow = Q = ; 1
L / km U= = 3.03 W/m 2 K.
R
  500 + 70  
km = 0.6925 × 1 + 9.747 × 10 −4   Hence, the correct option is (D).
  2 
16. Heat Transfer.
= 0.885 W/mK
500 − 70
Q= = 1268.5 W/m 2 .
0.3 × .885
(500 − T4 ) k1 k2 k3
126.5 = 0.6925(1 + 9.74 × 10 −4 )
0.15
= 6.536 × 10 −3 + 6.536 × 10 −6 + 9.80 × 10 −4 t1 t2 t3
+ 6.536 × 10 −6 + 8.17 × 10 −3 ∆T 1 1
Q = UA∆T = or UA = or ΣR =
T4 = 1268.5. ΣR ΣR UA
Hence, the correct option is (A). 1 t1 t 2 t3
∴ = + +
K 0.17 U k1 k2 k3
=
13. Critical radius rc =
ho 4.0 Hence, the correct option is (C).
= 0.425 M = 4.25 cm
17. Since kinetic energy is converted to internal energy of
the liquid mV = m1 (C p )1 ∆T
2
14. KA = 1.7 W/mk ? K = 9.5 W/mK 2

1
1230° Or × 800 × 50 2 = 20 × 4000 ∆T
2
1080°C T1 ∆T = 12.5°
h 2 = 15 W/m2K
h1 = 28 W/m2K T2 Value of Cp = 4000 J/kg°C is used because the units on
left hand side are joules
0.25 m 0.1 m 0.15 m
120°C 30°C Hence, the correct option is (D).
Q 18. Casting
1080°C T1 T2 T3 T r = 0.4 m
T • • • Soil
• • • •
1200°C RC1 RA RB RC RC 2 30°C
For unit area of heat flow K = 0.6 W/mK
Q = 30(1200 - 1080) = 3600 W Shape factor is 2πr

∴ 3600 Q = 0.6 × 2π × 0.4(1000 – 50) = 1432 W
1200 − 30 Hence, the correct option is (B).
=
1 0.25 0.1 0.15 1 19. The wall areas are
+ + + +
30 1.7 K B 9.5 15 2 × 1 × 1.2 + 2 × 1.2 × 1.5 + 2 × 1 × 1.5 m2 = 9 m2
1170 A
= Shape factor for walls = ( L − thickness)
 1  L
 0.03 + 0.147 + + 0.0157 + .06  Heat flow through walls
 K B 
1170 360 9
= = 1170 = 3600 × 0.263 + = 0.45 × (1000 − 80) W
0.1 KB 0.25
0.263 +
KB 920 × 9 0.45
= × = 14.9 kW
kB = 1.61 W/mK. 1000 0.25
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Chapter 1 • Hints/Solutions
Conduction | 3.235
| 5.5
kA(T1 − T2 ) δ1 1
20. Q = = = .
δ1 δ2 2
(T1 − T2 )2 kA Hence, the correct option is (C).
=
δ2
Practice Problems 2 A0 = Cross-sectional area

1. The quantity of heat transfer is directly proportional to π
= (5 × 10 3 ) 2
the thermal conductivity, provided all the dimensional 4
factors are identical for two rods more heat will flow = 19.63 × 10–6 m2
in the case of copper for which thermal conductivity is K = 398 W/m°K
high. Higher the thermal conductively, lower will be the h = 125 W/m2°K
temperature difference. Therefore tip temperature will
Perimeter = πD
be higher for copper rod
Hence, the correct option is (B). π × 5 × 10–3
= 15.71 × 10–3
2. Thermal diffusivity is the ratio of thermal conductivity
k q = 125 × 15.7 × 10 −3 × 398 × 19.63 × 10 −6 × 70
to heat capacity of a material is the unit is m2/s
tCp
= 1.03 W
dT1 dT dT 7.
3. =
K1 = K 2 2 = K3 3
L L L
k1 = 1.2 k 2 = 0.2 k 3 = 0.15
K1(dT1) = K2(dT2) = K3(dT3)
But K1: K2 : K3 = 1 : 2 : 4 Q
4
K1(dT1) = 2(k1dT2) = k1(dT3) 1200°
∴ dT1 = 2dT2 = 4dT3

dT1: dT2: dT3 = 8:4:2 0.3 0.15
0.2
1 1 T1 − T2
= 4=
: 2 :1 1: : q=
2 4 X
Hence, the correct option is (C). KA
KAdT 1000 − T2
4. Q = = 40 W/mK × m 2 1280 =
dx 0.3
10 1.2 × 1
= 6666.66 W/m 2
0.06 m T2 = 680°C
q − K (T2 − T1 ) 8.
5. = = 50 t0
A dx k1 h1
k2 k3
K (50 − 20) 30
= →K t1
0.05 0.05
h0
50
K= = 0.0833 W/ °mK
600 x
1 1 x x 1
Hence, the correct option is (C). = + 1+ 2+ 3+
U ho ho k1 k2 k3 h1
6. Heat loss q = hpKA0 ( ∆T ) 1 0.23 0.08 0.015 1
+ + + +
∆T = 100 – 30 = 70°C 12 0.92 0.02 0.15 30
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5.6 | Heat
3.236 Transfer
i Based on inside area

= 4.4007 m 2 °K/W
U Q 1612.37
= = = 22.7 W/m 2 K
U = 0.2242 W/m °K 2 ∆TA1 70.9
Q = UA (t0 – t1) Hence, the correct option is (A).
0.224 × 90[[22 - (–2)] = 483.84 W 13. Interface temperature
Hence, the correct option is (B). Tα 1 − T1
Q=
1
x
9. R1 + R2 = 1 + 1 ( 2π × 0.01× 40 × 2)
ho k1
Tα1 = T1 = 321.1
1 0.23
= + = 0.330 T1 = 600 – 321.1 = 279°C.
12 0.92
483.08 × 0.330
= t0 – t 2 = = 1.773°C
90 14.
t2 = 22 – 1.773 = 20.227°C Ta = 200°C
hb K = 8.5 W/mK
2m
∂ 2T ∂ 2T δ 2T 1 ∂T a = 0.36 m2
10. + + =
∂x 2 ∂y 2 δ z 2 α ∂T
T = x2 – 2y2 + z2 – xy + 2yz (Internal convection is absent)
∂ ∂ ∂ 1 ∂T 1  1 1.08a π 
( 2 x − y ) + ( −4 y − x + 2 z ) + ( 2 z + 2 y ) = R=  ln + 
dx ∂y ∂z α ∂Z 2π K 2r 2hb a 
1 ∂T ∂T 1  1 1.08 × .36 π 
= 2–4+2 = = =0 R= × ln +
α ∂Z ∂x 2π × 5  8.5 0.2 2 × 35 × 0.36 
0.0064616°C/W
−3
11. Contact resistance = 1× 10 m /W°C 2
∆T 200 − 30
Q= = = 26316 W
R 0.006461
1
= 0.004973592°C/W Hence, the correct option is (D).
2π × 0.016 × 2m 2
Area = (2π × 0.016 × 2m2) T1 − T2 200
15. Q = =
Tα 1 − Tα 2 1 r2 1 5
Q= log log
1 ln r2 /r1 ln r3 /r3 1 2π KL r1 2π × 70.1 2.5
+ + +
2π r1h1 2π k1 2π k2 2π r3 h2 62.8 × 7 × 200
= 126841.74 = 126.84 kW/m
+ Contacct Resistance 5
log
600 − 35 2.5
= r
0.16 0.022 log
ln ln r1
1 0 .01 0 .016 T = T1 – (Ti – T0 )
+ + r0
( 2π × 0.01× 40 × 2) 2π × 30 × 2 2π × 45 × 2 log
1 r1
+ + 0.004974 2.5 + 5
( 2π × 0.022 × 252) R= = 3.75
2
= 1612.37 W 3.75
log
T = 300 − (100)
5
12. Tα1 Tα2 log
• • 2.5
Rc1 R1 Rs1 R2 Rc2
= 300 - 100 × 0.58 = 300 - 58 = 242°C
Over all heat transfer coefficient Hence, the correct option is (A).
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Conduction | 3.237
| 5.7
T1 − T2 250 T1 = 200, T = 90°C

16. =
1 1 90 − 30
−90×.4×.4
(r − r ) (0.15 − .05) = e 9000×382× 4×10
−4
t
4π kr1r0 0 1 4π × 50 × 0.1× .05
200 − 30
7.5 × .05 60 −0.0105t
= 250 × 12.56 × = 11.77 kW e = 0.352 = −0.01050 t = 1.044
0.1 170
r0  r − r1 
T = T1   T1 − T0 t = 99.428.sec
r  r0 − r1  Hence, the correct option is (C).
0.15  0.075 − 0.05 
= 300 − × 250 − hAt
0.075  0.15 − 0.05  19.

T − Ta ρVC p
e
T1 − Ta
0.15  025  − hAt
T = 300 × 250 30 − 25
0.075  01  eVC
=e p
90 − 25
= 300 – 125.0 = 175
Given ρV = 0.1 kg
T = 105
Q  T −T  − h×.0.004 t
5 −0.42 h
17. = km  1 2  =e 0.1×350
= = e 35 = e −0.012 h
A  L  65
km = k0(1 + βt), but k0 = 0.813 1
= e −0.012 h
 0.000582T  13
km = 0.813 1 +
 0.813  Ln 13 = 0.012h
 0.000582T  2.56
km = 0.813 1 + =h = 213.33.
 0.813  0.012
= 0.813(1 + 0007158t) Hence, the correct option is (A).
T1 + T2 20. T = 60 – 50x+12x2 + 20x3 + 15x4

t= = 600
2  ∂T 
km = (0.813(1 + .0007158 × 600)  ∂x  = −50
  x =0
= 0.813(1 + 07158 × 6)
∂T
km = 0.813(1.429) = 1.1617 W/mK Heat entering = –KA x=0
∂x
Q  1000 − 200  1.1617 × 800 = –1.2 × 5 × (–50) = 300 W
= km   = W/m 2
A  0.2  0.2
∂ 
= 4.65 kW/m2. Heat leaving = −kA  T  x = 50 cm
Hence, the correct option is (A).  ∂x 
x = 0.5 cm
volume 40 × 40 × 0.5 0.5
18. δ = = =  ∂T 
 = −50 + 24 x + 60 x − 60 x
2 3
area 2 × 40 × 40 2  ∂x
 
2.5 × 10–3m
1 1 1
hδ 90 × 2.5 × 10 −3 = −50 + 24 × + 60 × − 60 ×
B1 = = 2 4 8
k 370
= -50 + 12 + 15 - 7.5 = -30.5 - 1.2 × 5(-30.5)
= 6.1 × 10 −4 ≤ 0.1 for lumped heat transfer
Heat leaving = -6 × 30.5 = 183 W
 − hAt 
T − Ta  
 ρ vC  Rate of heat storage = 300 w - 183 W
= e p 
T1 − Ta = 117 W
Ta = 30°C Hence, the correct option is (A).
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5.8 | Heat
3.238 Transfer
21. It is not a very long fin ln(r2/r1) ln(r3/r2) ln(r4/r3)

fin 2π lk1 2π lk2 2π lk3
Equivalent resistance
Rth = Rpipe + Rinsu + Rins
r2 r r
1m
ln ln 3 ln 4
r1 r2 r3
= + +
1m 2π k1 2π k2 2π k3
 85   115   165 
ln   ln  ln 
 80   85  
 115 
= + +
2π × 1× 40 2π × 1× 0.15 2π × 1× 0.07
1.27 × 10−2m = 2.41× 10 4 + 0.32 + 0.82
= 1.1402 Ω
tanh( mL) + h/mk
Q = hPkAθ 0 Heat lost per meter length
1 + h/mK tanh( mL)
T1 − T4 [300 − 50] 250
Q= = = = 219.26
hP 17 × 2 Rth 1.1402 1.1402
m= =
KA 120 × 0.76 × 10 −3 w = 789 kJ/hr.
P = 1 + 1 + 2 × 0.76 × 10–3 = 2 m
A = 1 × 0.76 × 10–3 m = 19.31 T1 − T2 300 − T2
23. Q = = = 219.26
mL = 19.31 × 1.27 × 10–2 = 0.245 Rpipe 2.39 × 10 −4
tanh (mL) = 0.2402 = 219.26 × 2.39 × 10–4 = 300 – T2
17 T2 = 300°C
h/mK = = 0.007336
120 × 19.31 T2 − T3 300 − T3
Q= =
tanh( mL) + h /mK Rinsu 0.318
Q = hPKAθ 0
1 + h /mK tanh( mL) 219.26 × 0.318 = 300 – T3
T3 = 231°C
= 1.76 × (100 – 45)
2402 + .007336
= 24. Heat transfer rate,
1 + 007336 × 0.2402
Qf = hPkAc (To − Tα ) × tanh( mL)
= 45.7 W/fin
Hence, the correct option is (B). hp
ml = l
KAc
22. r1 = 80 mm, r2 = 85 mm,
p = 2w = 2 × 1 = m × 2 and
r3 = 85 + 30 = 115 mm
Ac = w × t = 1 × 3.5 × 10–3 = 3.5 × 10–3m2
r4 = 115 + 50 mm = 165 mm
T1 = 300°C 12 × 2
ml = 2.5 × 10 −2
k1 = 40 W/mK, K2 = 0.15W/mK 200 × 3.5 × 10 −3
= 0.146
k3 = 0.07 W/mK l = 1 m T4 = 50°C
Insulation
Insulation
t
r1 T0
r4 w
r3 Q
r2
T1
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Conduction | 3.239
| 5.9
Qf = (12 × 2 × 200 × 3.5 × 10 −3 )( 420 − 40) hp 22 × 4 × 0.012

m= =
× tanh (0.14) = 225 W kA 51.9 × 0.012 × 0.012
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 11.89
To find end temperature x = L
25. Fin efficiency:
TL − 35 1
tan th( ml ) tanh(0.146) =
=mf = = 99.30% 200 − 35 cosh(11.89 × 0.159)
ml 0.146
= 0.295
TL = 83.82°C
26. • 60°C 12 mm sq
T? • 28. The fin is 80 mm long and end face convection exists
x k = 51.9 W/mk T − T∞
= cosh m( L − x )
Tl − T∞
Long fin model will suit the problem
T − T∞ 60 − 35 +( hL/km) sinh m( L − x )
= = e − mx cosh( mL) + ( hL/km ) sinh mL
To − T∞ 200 − 35
as x = L thus reduces to
The distance x is to be calculated
TL − 35 1
hP 22 × 4 × 0.012 =
m= = 200 − 35 [cosh(11.89 × 0.08)
kA 51.9 × 0.012 × 0.012
= 11.89 + ( 22 /(51.9 × 11.89)) sinh(11.89 × 0.08)]
Taking logarithm and solving TL = 143.1°C
x = 0.159 m = 159 mm Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 29. (T - 35)/200 -35 = e-11.89 × 0.08
27. For short fin T = 98.74°C.
T − Tα cosh m( L − x ) Hence, the correct option is (C).
=
To − Tα cosh mL 30. The correct option is (C).
Previous Years’ Questions  2.5   5.5 

ln   ln  
 1  +  2.5 
1. 3-dimensional unsteady state heat transfer equation for ΣR =
a sphere is 2π × 19 × L 2π × 0.2 × L
1 ∂  2 ∂T  1 ∂  k ∂T  0.63511
kr + 2 ⇒ ΣR =
r ∂r 
2  ∂r  r sin θ ∂φ  ∂φ 
 L
1 ∂  ∂T  ( ∆T ) 600
+ 2 k sin θ Heat transfer, q = =

r sin θ ∂θ  ∂θ  ΣR 0 .63511
L
∂T q
q = ρCρ ⇒ = 944.72 W/m
∂T L
1-D Hence, the correct option is (C).
1 ∂  2 ∂T  q 1 ∂T 3. Given: h = 400 W/m2-K
r + =
r 2 ∂r  ∂r  k α ∂t k = 20 W/m-K
Hence, the correct option is (B). C = 400 J/kg-K
2. 1 cm
0.706
ρ = 8500 kg/m3 , r = = 0.353 m
2
3 cm
hL 400 × ∀
Biot number, Bi = =
2.5 cm k k×A
Asbestos 400 × 0.353 × 10 −3
⇒ Bi =
Steel tube 20 × 3
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5.10 | Heat
3.240 Transfer
 4 3  Thermal conductivity, K = 400 W/m-K

 ∀ 3 π r r  Density, ρ = 9000 kg/m3
 = = 
 A 4π r
2
3 Specific heat, C = 385 J/kg-K
  Heat transfer coefficient,
⇒ Bi = 0.00235 h = 250 W/m2 – K
∵ Bi < 0.1 Volume ∀ D 0.005
= = = = 8.33 × 10 −4
Lumped system analysis can be used Area A 6 6
 hAt 
T − T∞ −  T − T∞ t
− hA
= e  ρC∀  = e ρ c∀
Ts − T∞ Ts − T∞
 400×3×t  − hA
298 − 300 − −3  dT −hA ρ c∀
t
= e  2500× 400×0.353×10  = (TS − T∞ )e e

30 − 300 dt ρ C ∀
⇒ t = 4.9 sec dT 250 × 200
∴ =+
Hence, the correct option is (B). dt t =0 9000 × 385 × 8.3 × 10 −4
4. One dimensional heat conduction equation = 17.3 K/s
∂ T ρ C P ∂T
2
=
∂x 2 k ∂t
7.
∂T ∂ 2T T1 k2
∴ ∝ 2 k1
∂t ∂x
Tinter
5. L2 2b b T2
k 2A 2
L1
k 1A 1 R2 T1 + T2
• • • •
Given: Tinter =
2
R1 R3
∵ Heat transfer, q is constant throughout the slab
L3
k 3A 3 (Tinter − T1 ) (T2 − Tinter )
∴ =
2b b
L1 0.5 k1 A k2 A
R1 = = = 25
k1 Al 0.02 × 1× 1
k1  T1 T2   T1 T2 
L 0.25 ⇒  2 + 2 − T1  = k2 T2 − 2 − 2 
R2 = 2 = =5 2    
k2 A2 0.10 × 0.5 × 1
⇒ k1 = 2k2
L 0.25 Hence, the correct option is (D).
R3 = 3 = = 12.5
k3 A3 0.04 × 0.5 × 1
8. h (Fluid at T∞)
Equivalent Resistance, Insulation (K )
 RR  ro ri
Re = R1 +  2 3  Ti
 R2 + R3 
 5 × 12.5 
= 25 +   L
 5 + 12.5 
= 28.6 K/W q
• • •
Hence, the correct option is (C). Ti ⎠
⎞
T∞
r ⎯⎯⎯⎯1
n o
⎟
6. Given: Surface temperature, Ts = 500 K ri ⎟⎠
⎞ (2π roL)h
Oil bath temperature, T∞ = 300 K 2πkL
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Chapter 1 • Conduction || 3.241
(Ti − T∞ ) ⇒ C2 = 160
q= Putting value of C2 in equation (2)
r 
ln  o  2
qx
 ri  + 1 T+ = C1 x + 160
2π kL 2π ro L × h 2k
Increasing in thickness of insulation means to increase (2) At x = 0.02 m, T = 120°C

outside diameter (ro). The surface area increases and q (0.02) 2
heat loss due to convection increases. Increase in 120 + = C1 (0.02) + 160
2k
wall thickness causes reduction in heat loss due to .
conductions. q = 80 × 106 W/m3
Hence, the correct option is (A). Given: k = 200 W/m-K
9. Given: A = 0.1 m2 80 × 106 × 0.022
m = 4 kg ∴ 120 + = C1 (0.02) + 160
2 × 200
Cp = 2.5 kJ/kg-K C1 = 2000
Ts = 225°C, T∞ = 25°C From equation (2)
 hA 
2
qx
T − T∞ −
ρC ∀
t
T+ = 2000 x + 160 (3)
= e  p  2k
TS − T∞
 hA  dT
− t
 mC p 
At maximum temperature, =0
⇒ T = T∞ + (TS − T∞ )e dx
 hA  80 × 106 × x
dT  hA  −  mC p  t ∴ From equation (1) 0 + = 200
= (TS − T∞ ) ×  − ×e 200
dt  mC p  ⇒ x = 5 × 10 m
-3
Or x = 5 mm
At any instant, t = 0 Hence, the correct option is (C).
dT  −h × 0.1  11. Putting value of x = 5 mm in equation 3 we get Tmax
= ( 225 − 25) ×  3
dt t =0  4 × 2.5 × 10 
80 × 106 × 0.0052
 h × 0.1  ∴ Tmax + = ( 2000 × 0.005) + 160
⇒ − 0.02 = 200 ×  − 2 × 200
 4 × 2.5 × 103 
⇒ Tmax = 165°C
∴ h = 10 W/m2-K
10. Steady one-dimensional heat conduction equation 12. Heat generated throughout the volume
q = (100 × volume) W
⇒ q = 100 × 2 × 2 × 1 = 400 W
Heat transfer through PQRS = Heat generated
160°C x ∆T
120°C ∴ 400 =
 1 
x=0
 hA 
x = 0.2 m  
d T q
2
1
+ =0 ⇒ ∆T = Ts − T∞ = 400 ×
dx 2 k 10 × 4

dT qx (1) ⇒ Ts – 30 = 10 ⇒ Ts = 40°C
+ = C1
dx k Hence, the correct option is (D).
2
qx 13. Direction of heat flow is normal to surface of constant
T+ = C1 x + C2 (2)
2k temperature.
Boundary conditions ∂T
∴ For surface P , =0
(1) At x = 0, T = 160°C ∂x
q(0) From energy conservation
∴160 + = C1 (0) + C2
2k Heat rate at P = Heat rate at Q
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5.12 | Heat
3.242 Transfer
 ∂T   ∂T  ∴ q = 0.07025 × (100) × tanh (8.944 × 0.1)

0.1× 1×   = 0.1× 2 ×   ⇒ q=5W
 ∂y P  ∂y Q
∂T
∴ = 2 × 10 = 20 K/m 16. Insulation
∂y
f25
∆T
14. Rate of heat transfer, q = = constant
Rth
Adding the insulation will reduce the heat loss.
q Τ∞i − Τ∞O   q Hence, the correct option is (C).
∴ q′ = = Heat flux = 
A ARth  A x
17. Rcond =
k
1 L L 1
Rth = + 1 + 2 + 1
hi A k1 A k2 A hO A Rconve =
h
1 0.3 0.15 1 h = 5 W/m2-K and
⇒ Rth = + + +
20 A 20 A 50 A 50 A k = 20 W/m-K
11 ∴ Rcond << Rconvective
⇒ Rth =
125 A Hence, the correct option is (D).
18. The maximum temperature inside the wall must be
q [20 − ( −2)] 22 × 125
⇒ q′ = = = = 250 W/m 2 greater than 100°C.
A 11 11
A Hence, the correct option is (B).
125
19. Conductivity increases along with ‘x’
∵ q′ = constant
dT
(T − Tα0 ) k = Constant
250 = {T = Interface temperature} dx
Rth dT
As k increases, decreases.
[T − ( −2)] dx
⇒ = 250 W/m 2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
 L2 1  1
 + ×
 k2 h  A T − T∞ −
 hA 
t
20. = e  ρCV 
 0.15 1  Ts − T∞
⇒ (T + 2°C) = 250 ×  + 
 50 50  A 4π r 2 6
For sphere, = =
⇒ T = 3.75°C V 4 3 D
πr
 −20×6 
15. Heat lost from the fin is 430 − 30  t
∴ = e  7800×0.06×600 
q = hpkA × (TS − T∞ ) × tanh( mL) 1030 − 30
⇒ t = 2144 sec.
W W
h = 40 2 , k = 400 2 , P =πd Hence, the correct option is (D).
m −K m −K
21. The correct option is (B).
π d2
A= , d = 0.005 m, L = 0.1 m T1 − T2
4 22. q = W/m 2
L 1
hP 40 × 4 +
M= = = 8.944 k h
kA 400 × 0.005
T1 − 25
π ⇒ 1× 105 = ⇒ T1 = 625°C
hPkA = 40 × π × 0.005 × 400 × × 0.0052 0.03 1
+
4 15 250
= 0.07025 Hence, the correct option is (620°C- 630°C).
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23. 20 1 20 Heat flow per unit area

Q 600 − 300 300 200
500 K 360 K = = = (1)
A L L 3L L
+
q = 10 kW/m2 K 2K 2K K
Considering first section alone,
Q 600 − Ti (2)
=
A L
T1 − T2
q= K
L1 L2 L 200 600 − Ti
+ + Equating (1) and (2) =
Ks Ks K L L
500 − 360 K K
10 × 103 = ⇒ Ti = 400 K.
0.02 × 2 0.001
+ Hence, the correct option is (339 to 401).
10 K
26. Thermal conductivity of a gas at a temperature T is
0.001
+ 0.004 = 0.014 given by
K
K = K0(1 + αT)
⇒ K = 0.1 W/mK
So thermal conductivity increase when temperature
Hence, the correct option is (0.09 to 0.11). increases.
24. Hence, the correct option is (A).
ro
27. Thermal conductivity K = 1.15 W/mK
ri
T1 = 1100°C, T2 = 350°C
Q
= 2500 W/m 2
A
dT dT Q − K (T2 − T1 )
Q = −kA = −k 2π rL = , where t = wall thickness
dx dr A t
dr 1.15(1100 − 350)
Q = −k 2π LdT That is, 2500 =
r t
r  ⇒ t = 0.345 m.
On integrating, Q ln  o  = k 2π L(Ti − To ) Hence, the correct option is (0.33 to 0.35).
 ri 
k 0.08
(Ti − To ) 28. Critical radius, rc =
= = 0.008 m
⇒ Q= h 10
 ro  ⇒ rc = 8 mm
 
r
ln  i  Here rc > ro [r0 = 5 mm]
2π kL
r 
ln  o  Q max
r
That is, thermal resistance =  i  .
2π kL
25. 600 K Ti 300 K
Q
ro < rc rc ro > rc
K 2K
∴ Addition of further insulation increases the critical
radius and increases heat loss to a maximum and
then decrease heat loss.
L L
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5.14 | Heat
3.244 Transfer
k Since ro < rcr

29. The critical radius of insulation = rc = Thus, heat transfer will increase due to addition of plas-
h
Where, k = 0.1 W/m-K and h = 2 W/m2–k tic cover.
∴ rc = = 0.05 m = 5 cm 33. Given d = 10 mm
2
Hence, the correct answer is 4.9 to 5.1. T0 = 1000 K
30. Let Ts be the surface temperature and T∞ be the tem- T1 = 350 K
perature of liquid T∞ = 300 K
r h = 1000 W/m2-K
TS k = 40 W/m-K
t = 16 s
L h = 1000 W/m2-K
T¥ = 25°C ρVC
t = = 16 s
hA
T0 − T∞
•
= e( hA/ρVC ) t
Heat generation q T1 − T∞
= 3 = 4 × 10 7 W m3
Volume m
1000 − 300
∞ ⇒ = e t/16
∴ q = 4 × 107 × p × r2 × L W 350 − 300
∞
t = 42.22 sec
⇒ q = 4 × 107 × p × 0.0052 × L = 1000p L W
Hence, the correct answer is 42 – 43.
∞ ∆T TS − T∞
q= ⇒ 1000p L = 34. Rth for hollow cylinder
(1 hA) 1
ln ( r2 r1 )
1000 ( 2πrL) =
2π kL
1
∴ TS – 298 = 1000p L × Hence, the correct option is (A).
1000 × 2π r L
⇒ TS = 398 K 35. Temperature at the centre of cylinder of radius r,
Hence, the correct option is (B). θ  ατ  k
= erf  2  where a =
31. θi r  ρC
θ
27° C is constant for both shafts.
θi
(rC)A = 2 × 106 J/m3K,
(rC)B = 2 × 107 J/m3K
−5° C
h = 20 W/m2-k  ατ   ατ 
k = 0.9 W/m2-k
\  2 = 2
 r 1  r  2
Q ∆T ∆T t2 = 2.5 hours
= =
Q = L 1 A L 1 Hence, the correct answer is 2.5.
+  k + h
kA hA   36. (see figure)
Q 27 − ( −5 )
⇒ = =128W m 2 K A = 20
A  0.18 1  130ºC
2
 0.9 + 20 
3 30ºC
  1
K B = 100
32. rcr = k/ho 0.1
0.3
0.5
= × 1000 = 6 mm Q13 = Q12 = Q23
25
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130 − 30 130 − T2 39. k = 43 W/mK

= efficency ofoC
fin
0.1 0.3 0.1 T = 300
1
+ Heat loss from fin
20 100 20 = t=?
Heat loss from
To − T∞ fin whent entire fin surface at base temp
⇒ T2 = 67.5oC = e hA/ρAC
Hence, the correct answer is 67.5. ∴ Heat T1 −loss
T∞ from fin keeping the entire fin surface at
base temperature
37. d = 0.01; L = 0.2  π 
A = πdL, v = d 2 L6
T0 = 750 C
o  4=  = 8 W
0.75
250 π dL × 4
T∞ = 100oC Hence,750 −the100correct7801
answer 2
t to 8.1.
is 7.9
= e × πd L × 473
h = 250 W/m2-K 40. We300
know− 100
that
s = 7801 kg/m3 t = 43.49 sec ⎛ hA ⎞
Chapter 1 • Conduction | 3.245 ⎜ VC ⎟ τ
c = 473 J/K Ti − T∞
Hence, the correct answer = eis⎝ ρ42–45.
p⎠
k = 43 W/mK T − T∞
T1 = 300oC Where
t=? Ti = intial Temp = 220°C
To − T∞ t T∞ = surrounding temp = 20°C
= e hA/ρAC
T1 − T∞ C p = specific heat = 400 J/kgK
 π  k = thermal conductivity = 400 W/mK

A = πdL, v = d 2 L
 4 
h = heat transfer coefficient = 200 W/m 2 K
250 π dL × 4
750 − 100 2
t
A 4 π R2 3 3
= e 7801× πd L × 473 = = =
300 − 100 V 4 R 0.03
π R3
t = 43.49 sec 3
Hence, the correct answer is 42–45. t = time = 90 sec, ϑ = 9000 kg/m3
By putting values
38.
⎛ 200 × 3 ⎞
Ts = Tsurface 220 − 20 ⎜ ⎟ × 90
= e ⎝ 9000 × 0.03× 400 ⎠
T − 20
r
–10 mm 220 − 20
q = 4 × 107 w/m3 = e 0.5 ⇒ T = 141.3°C
T − 20
Ts = Surface temperature 41.
To = Temperature at centre
Temperature difference in a cylindrical rod with a uni- T∞ = 45°C

form heat generation is
h = 10 W/m2K k = 2.5 W/mK TQ = 25°C
qR ⎡ ⎛ r ⎞ ⎤
2 2
T − Ts = ⎢1 − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ L = 20 cm
4 k ⎢⎣ ⎝ R ⎠ ⎥⎦ TP
At center, T = To , r = 0
qR 2
∴ To − Ts = 1 1
4k hA kA
4 × 107 × (0.005)
2
Let the heat transfer area be constant.
To − Ts =
4 × 25 T∞ − TQ 45 − 25
To − Ts = 10°C q = =
1 L 1 20 × 10 −2
+ +
Hence, the correct answer is 10. h k 10 2.5
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5.16 | Heat Transfer
20 q 111.11
q = = 111.11 w/m 2 TP = T∞ – = 45 −
0.1 + 0.06 h 10
T∞ − TP TP = 33.88°C
q = = h (T∞ − TP )
1
h Hence, the correct answer is 33.88°.

Unit 05.indd 16 4/27/2019 12:48:29 PM M02_

CHapter 2 ForCed ConveCtion
Hints/solution
13.6 × 1000 × 9.81× 0.6
Practice Problems 1 = = 0.9856 kg/m3
287 × ( 273 + 10)
uα x 2 × 0.4
1. Re = = = 9639, laminar VL
x
v 83 × 10 −6 Reynold Number =
dx = 5 x/Re 0.5 = 0.02037 m = 20.37 mm ν
x
236 × 8
dtx = dx Pr-1/3 = 20.37 × 1050-0.333 = = 133 × 106
14.16 × 10 −6
= 2 mm
Hence flow is turbulent Nusselt number
Nu = 0.036 × Re0.8 Pr0.33
2. As n = 19.42 × 10–6
Nu = 10122.6
K = 0.02593 W/mK, Pr = 0.695
hD
u L 4 × 1.2 = 10122.6
Re = α = = laminar flow K
ν 19.42 × 10 −6
10122.6 × 2.511× 10 −2
Convection coefficient = Nu = 0.453 [Re Pr]0.5 h=
0.5
x x 8
 4 × 1.2 × 0.695  317.7 W/m2K. Say 318
= 0.453  −6 
= 187.75
 19.42 × 10  Hence, the correct option is (D).
187.75
hX = × .02926 = 4.58 W/m2K 7. Heat losses from the plane surface to air is convection
1.2 heat factor.
h = 9.16 W/m 2 K. Heat loss from plane Q = hADT
Total area = 1.5 × 8 × 2 = 24 m2 as heat transfer taken
9x N K place on both the side of plate
3. Tω − Tα = as h = U
KN ux x Q = 318 × 24 × (20 - 0)
800 × 1.2 = 153 kW.
= ; Tω = Ta + 174.75
0.02926 × 187.75
\Tw = 194.75 (195°C)
Hence, the correct option is (D). 8. Grashof number
4. Thermal boundary layer region where flow temperature L3 β g ∆T D 3 β g ∆t
Gr = =
of fluid changes from the free stream value to the value v2 v2
at the surface. (1.5 × 10 −2 )3 × 2.86 × 10 −3 × 9.81× (385 − 320)
=
d = dt(Pr)1/3 ( 2.076 × 10 −5 ) 2
1
 30 × 10 −3 × 2  3 = 14281.3.
= 0.5  
 0.05  Hence, the correct option is (A).
= 0.5 × (1.2)1/3 = 0.53. 9. Q = h A D2 T
Hence, the correct option is (B). = h × 4p r (T2 - T1)
5. Over all heat transfer coefficient, hd 1
We know N u = = 2 + 0.43 × ( Ra ) 4
1 1 K
U= =
1 t 1 1 0.05 1 = 2 + 0.43 × (Gr × Pr)1/4
+ + + +
h1 k h2 15 1 20 Ra = Gr × Pr
1 Nu = 2 + 0.43 (14281.3 × 0.697)1/4 = 6.295
= = 6.02 W/m 2 K
.066 + 0.05 + 0.05
hd
K
20 + 0
6. Average temperature = = 10°C = 283 K 6.295 × .03
2 h= = 12.59 W/m 2 K
Speed of areoplane 1.5 × 10 −2
5 Q = 4pr2hDT
= 850 Km/h = 850 × m/s = 236 m/s
18 4p (.75 × 10-2)2 × 12.59 (385 - 320)
P ρ gh = 0.578 W.
Density of air = =
RTa Rt a Hence, the correct option is (A).
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5.18 | Heat Transfer Chapter 2 • Forced Convection | 3.247
d 2T qg 1 qg 2 995 × 1.814 × 2.4 × 10 −2

10. + = 0; T = x +C1 x + C2 = 0 (1) =
dx 2
K 2K 7.65 × 10 −4
When x = 0, T = 433 K which gives C2 = 433 At x = 0.02, = 5.6 × 104
T = 393 K; which gives C1 = 2000 Re = 4000, flow in turbulent
For maximum temperature µC p 7.65 × 10 −4 × 4.174 × 103
Pr = =
dT qg K 0.623
=0 ∴ x + C1 = 6
dx K = 5.125
x = 5 × 10-3 m = 5 mm Nu = 0.023 Re0.8 Pr0.4
Hence, the correct option is (C). = 0.023 × (5.6 × 10-4)0.8 × (5.125)0.4 = 278.07
11. Putting x = 5 × 10-3 in equation (1) hDequ
Nu =
We get maximum temperature = 165°C K

12. m = ρ Aν h × ( 2.4 × 10 −2 )
278.07 =
π 0.623
m = ρ × D 2ν h = 7218.3 W/m2K
4
π Heat transfer
5 = ρ × × .06 2 × .ν
4 Q = m Cp D T = 1.083 × 4174 × (80 - 20) = 271.226 kw
1768.4 ρVD Q=hADT
ν= , Re =
ρ µ  20 + 80 
= 7218.3 × 2 × (.03 + .02)L × 100 −
Substituting,  2 
Re= 78595 = 36.09 L KW = 271.226
Nu = 4.82 + 0.0185 (Re Pr)0.83 L = 7.51 m.
= 4.82 + .0185 (78595 × .011)0.83 = 9.886 Hence, the correct option is (D).
hD 0.06 14. Heat gained Q = m Cp D T
Nu = = 9.886 = h ×
K 16
m = Density × volume
h = 2636.27 W/m2K
π d2
HT by convection Q = hA(Ts - Ta) = ρ× ×3
4
h p DL(Ts - Ta) 2
(0.01)
p × 2636.27 × 0.06 × L × 30 m = 865 × π × 3 = 0.204 kg/s
4
= 14907.75 L Q = 0.204 × 1.75 × 103 × (60 – 45)
Heat transfer by convection must be equal to change in Q = 5355 W.
internal energy
Qc = m.Cp (T0 - T1)
uD 3 × 1× 10 −2
= 14907.75 L = 5 × 150 (450 - 400) 15. Re = = = 3333
ν 9 × 10 −6
L = 2.5 m.
µC p 865 × 9 × 10 −6 × 1.75 × 103
Hence, the correct option is (A). Pr = = = 113.5
K 0.12
65
=
13. m 65 = kg/min kg/s Nu = 0.023 (Re)0.8 (Pr)0.3
60
= 0.023 (3333.3)0.8 (113.53)0.3
= 1.083 kg/s
Nu = 0.023 × 658.9 × 4.135 = 62.5.
The equivalent diameter
4A 4 ab 2 × 3× 2
Deq = = = = 2.4 cm 16. N
hD
P 2( a + b) 3+ 2 = u = 62.5

K
m = ρ AV Nu K
h=
1.083 = 995 (6 × 10-4) V D
V = 1.8141 m/s 62.5 × 0.12
ρVD = = 750 W/m 2 K.
Re = 0.01
µ Hence, the correct option is (D).
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3.248 | Part III • Unit 5 • Heat Transfer Hints/Solutions | 5.19
UD ρUD 19. Mass flow rate mw = Density × volume

17. Re = = π d2
ν µ ρ× ×v
12870 × 0.9 × 2.5 × 10 −2 4
= = 1.809 × 105 990 × π ( 2.2 × 10 −2 ) 2
0.0016 = ×2
µC p 0.0016 × 0.135 × 103 4
Pr = = = mW = 0.753 kg/s
K 12
= 0.018 Heat gained by water
N u = 0.023Re.8 Pr.33 Q = mwCpw (T0 - T1)
= 0.023 (1.809 × 105)0.8 × (0.018).33 = 0.753 × 4.2 × 103 (60 - 15)
= 98.15. = 142317 W
hDh 4A 20. Re= PDV/m
=
18. N u = , Dh
K P
990 × 0.022 × 2
A = ( 0.01 × 0.01 sin 60)/2m2 =
700 × 10 −6
P = 3 × 0.01 = 6.2 × 104
Dh = 5.77 × 10-3 m µC p 700 × 10 −6 × 4.2 × 103
K = 0.521 W/m2K Pr = =
K 0.5418
2.47 × 0.521 = 5.43
h= = 223.03 W/m 2 K
5.77 × 10 −3
Q = 0.03 × 1 × 223.03 (55 – 25) N u = .023(6.2 × 10 4 )0.8 × (5.45)0.4
= 200.6 W/m. = 308.71
Practice Problems 2 Boundary layer thickness (d)

1. The rate of heat transfer and convective heat transfer 4.64 4.64
= x= × 0.3 × 1000
vary along the surface that is why hx is local heat trans- Rex 70869
fer co-efficient and average heat transfer coefficient is = 5.228 mm.
1 L
h = ∫ hx d x Hence, the correct option is (A).
L O
Where L is length of plate. 4. Local friction coefficient
1
−
Hence, the correct option is (C). C f x = 0.664 × ( Re x ) 2
2. Thermal boundary layer is a flow region where the tem- 0.664

perature of fluid changes from free stream value to the = = 2.494 × 10 −3.
70869
value at the surface of the palte
1
1
 µC p  3 where ‘d’ is hydrodynamic 5. Average friction coefficient (Cf )
δ = δ t ( Pr ) = δ t 
3
 a
 k  Cf = 2Cf = .004988.
a x
boundary layer thickness and dt the thermal boundary Hence, the correct option is (B).
layer thickness.
1 6. Local heat transfer coefficient
 25 × 10 −3 × 2  3 1 1
0.6   = 0.6 mm. N U x = 0.332( R e x ) 2 × ( Pr ) 3
 0.05  1 1
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 0.332(70869) 2 × (0.7) 3 = 78.4
3. Re = (where x = 0.3 m) 78.4 × 0.237
x
ρ × U 1.128 × 0.3 × 4 hx = = 6.19 W/m 2 K.
= 0.3
µ 19.1× 10 −6 Hence, the correct option is (A).
= 70869 7. Average shear stress
µC p 19.1× 10 −6 × 1007 U2
Pr = = = 0.7 τ x = C fx × ρ
K 0.0273 2
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.002494 × 1.128 × 16 1
= = 0.0225 kg/m 2 C f × ρ Auα2
2 2
= 0.220 N/m 2 = τ a = 2τ x = 0.045 Nm 2 . 1
2.3 × 10 −3 × × 1.2 × ( 2.5) 2 × 1× 2
2
Hence, the correct option is (C). = 0.01725 N.
8. Thickness of thermal boundary layer Hence, the correct option is (D).
δ 5.228
δt = = 1
1 1  25 × 10 −3 × 2  3
( Pr ) 3 0.7 3 17. δ = 0.5   = 0.5 mm
 0.05 
= 5.88 mm.
18. For constant heat flux as per Bayley
9. Total heat loss for the length of the plate 30 cm
1.0  K
Q = haA (Tw - Ta) h = 4.364 × = 43.64 W/m 2 K  hi 4.364 ×  
0.1  L 
= 12.38 × (0.3 × 0.3) (60 - 20) And for constant wall surface temperature, h = 3.66
= 44.56 W. K 1.0
= 3.66 × = 36.6 W/m2K
Hence, the correct option is (C). D 0.1
10. Total drag force Hence, the correct option is (B).
τ a A = 0.1208 × 0.09 19. If Pr > 1, then hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness
> thermal boundary layer thickness
= 0.0109 N.
− 1 L
11. Total mass flow through the boundary 20. Average heat transfer co-efficient h = ∫ h( x ) ⋅ d x
5 L O
τ m = ρU (δ 2 − δ1 ) 1 L X
8 = ∫ Co ⋅ e L ⋅ d x
d1 = 0 at x = 0 L O
L
5 6.05 1  X
m = × 1.128 × 4 × = Co ⋅ L  e L 
8 1000 L  O
= 0.01706 kg/sec = 61.4 kg/h
= Co (e – 1) = 1.71 Co
=
If Co 0= .5, h 0.85.
12. Average heat transfer coefficient 12.38 W/m2K.
21. At steady state, heat transfer at plate surface = Heat
13. Hence, the correct option is (D). passing through P
14. Hence, the correct option is (C). (T − T ρ )
hA(T∞ − Ts ) = KA s
vL vL 2.5 × 2 t
15. Re = ρ or =
µ ν 15 × 10 −6 h = 1.71 Co = 1.71× 15 = 25.65 W/m 2 K
= 33.33 × 10 4
10 × (50 − TP )
Flow laminar as Re< 5 × 105 25.65 × ( 250 − 50) =
0.02
Boundary layer thickness TP = 39.74°C.
5x 5× 2
δ= = 0.01732 m Hence, the correct option is (C).
Re x 33.33 × 10 4 84 + 30 114
22. Tm = = = 57°C
We know 2 2
δ 1 1
Tm = 57 + 273 = 330°K
= ( Pr ) 3 = (0.69) 3 = 0.88
δt 1 1 −
3
β= = = 3.03 × 10 K
0.01732 Tm 330
δt = = 1.96 cm.
0.88 23. Here L is taken 0.8 m because air blows along the width
Hence, the correct option is (D). of the plate
1.328 Re < 5 × 105 (Flow laminar)
16. C f = = 2.3 × 10 −3
Re L ρ vL
Re = = 8.59 × 10 4
As total drag force µ
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1 1 1 1
28. N= ha L
N u 0.664( Re ) 2 ( Pr ) 3 ua = 0.664 Re2 Pr3
K
hL
= ; h = 6.11 W/m 2 K K 1 1
K ha = (0.664) Re2 Pr3

Rate of heat dissipation Q = hA (Ts - Ta) L
0.02749
= × (0.664) X
0.4
t 1 1
( 469268) 2 (0.7) 3 = 27.76 W/m 2 K
Q = h3A (Tw - Ta) = 27.76 × (0.4 × 1) (60 - 27) = 366.432
v
t W/s
b 366 × 3600
= 1318 kJ/hr.
1000
A = b × L = 0.8 × 2 = 1.6 m2
\ Q = 6.11 × 1.6 × 60 = Q = 586.56 W
29. Re = LV = 2×3
For both sides of the plate = 2 × 586.56 = 1173 W.
υ 15.06 × 10 −6
= 3.98 × 105 < 5 × 105
24. Heat transfer from the plate = Change in internal energy
Flow laminar
of plate 1 1
m CPD T = rbtCPDT N u = 0.664( Re ) 2 Pr3

1 1
= 3000 × 2 × 0.8 × .003 × 700 × DT
= 0.664(3.98 × 105 ) 2 × (0.703) 3 = 372.5
= 100800 D Tj/K
= Qt = 1173 t ha L
=
Nu = 372.5
∆T K
\ (100800) = 1173
t 372.5 K 372.5 10 −2
ha = × = × 2.59 ×
∆T 1173 1 L 1 2
= = 0.0116°C/s.
t 100800 = 4.82 W/m2°C
Hence, the correct option is (C). Q = haA (Tw - Ta)
25. qs × p DL = mCP(Tm - Tm1) = 4.82 × 1.2 × 2 (80 - 20) = 694 W
o
2000 × π × 0.05 × = 0.01× 4.187 × 1000(80 − 20) Hence, the correct option is (B).
=8m
LV 1× 80
Hence, the correct option is (A). 30. Re = =
υ 14.6 × 10 −6
q
26. h (Ts − T m ) = = 5.48 × 106 > 5 × 105
0 0
A
q Pattern of flow in the boundary is turbulent. The mean
Ts 0 = + Tm 0 heat transfer coefficient is given by
Ah
 q 1 2000 Nua = 0.032 (Re)0.8
=   + Tm0 = + 80 = 121.06°C.
 A h 48.7 Nua = 0.032 (5.48 × 106)0.8 = 7874
K 7874 × 2.51× 10
ha = Nua =
27. ρ = P = 10 × 1 = 1.16 kg/m3
5
L 1
RT 287 × 300 = 198 W/m2 C
at (300°K) The local thickness of the turbulent hydrodynamic
ρ LU 1.16 × 0.4 × 2 boundary layer is given by
Re x = = = 469268
µ 1.98 × 10 −6 0.37 x 0.37 × 1.0
4.64 x 4.64 × 0.4 δ= =
δ x ( x = 0.4 ) = − 5 R
ex
5
5.48 × 106
Re x 469268
= 0= .0027 0.27 cm. = 0.0166 m = 1.66 cm.
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Previous Years’ Questions Temperature profile: T = 30 + 70e–y

ρVLe At y = 0, Qconduction = Q convection
1. We know that, Reynolds Number ( Re ) =
µ dT
Given: r = 1.2 kg/m3 −kA = hA(Ts − T∞ )
V = 10 m/s dy y =0
m = 18 ×10–6 Pa-s d
4 A 4(1× 0.5) −1x [30 + 70e − y ] = h(100 − 30)
Le = = dy y =0
P 2(1 + 0.5)
+70 (e – y)y = 0 = h × 70
⇒ Le = 0.667 m
70  1 
1.2 × 10 × 0.667 h= x
\ Re = = 4.44 × 105 70  e y  y = 0
18 × 10 −6
Hence, the correct option is (C). h = 1 W/m 2 -K
2. Nu = 0.023 Re0.8 Pr0.33 Hence, the correct option is (B).
 Re > 3 × 105, flow is turbulent δh 1 1
hL 5.   = = ( Pr ) 3
= 0.023 × ( 4.44 × 105 )0.8 × (0.73)0.33  δ t P 2
k
h × 0.667 δh
⇒ = 683.1731  δt  = 2
0.025  Q
⇒ h = 25.61 W/m2-K For Q,
1
Heat transfer rate, q = hAs(T – T∞) Pr 3 = 2
Total surface area, As = 2(1 × L) + 2(0.5 × L) Pr = (2)3 = 8
L = Length of duct Re = 104
\ As = 3L Or
⇒ q = 25.61 × 3L × (30 – 20) (Nu)P = 35
q 1
⇒ = 768.3 W ( Pr )Q =
L 8
~ 769 W 1 1
Hence, the correct option is (D). N u ∝ R e 2 × Pr 3
1 1
hL ∂T ∗  R e  2  Pr  3
3. Nu = = ∗ ( N u )Q
k ∂y y∗ = 0
=  Q  × Q 
(N u )P  R e P   Pr P 
T − Tw y
T∗ = and y ∗ = Nu = 35 × 4 = 140.
T∞ − Tw δ Q

 T − Tw  3 ∗ 1 ∗3 6. Heat flux qw = 2500x, Average
T∗ =   = y − (y )
 T∞ − Tw  2 2
0 + 2500 × 3
∂T ∗ = = 3750 W/m 2
3 3  2
⇒ Nu = =  − ( y ∗ )2 
∂y ∗ y ∗ = 0 2 2 y ∗ =0 \ 3750 × p d L = 0.01 × 4180 (T – 20)
3 Bulk mean temperature = 62.2°C
⇒ Nu = = 1.5
y 7. When qw = 5000 W/m2
4. Profile The temperature of Water is 5000 × p × 0.05 × 3 = 0.01
× 4180 × DT
T = 30 + 70 e−y
DT = 56.36°C
\ Water temp = 56.36 + 20 = 76.36°C
T ∞ = 30°C Also 5000 = h (TP – 76.36)
5000 = 1000 (TP – 76.36)
x \ Wall temperature is 76.56 + 5 = 81°C
Ts = 100°C
Unit 05.indd 22
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2
hd
8. Tw − T = a + b  y  + c  y  But N u =
Tw − T∞ L L k
Where, T = temperature at height y from surface i.e., hd = 184.55
Tw = Wall temperature k
T∞ = ambient temperature where h = conventive heat transfer coefficient
 184.55 × 0.625
y 
2
\ Tw − T = (Tw − T∞)  a + b   + c   
y \ h= −3
= 4613.67 W/m 2 K
25 × 10
  L   L  
Hence, the correct option is (4600 to 4625).
dT  b 2c 
= −(Tw − T∞ )  + 2 y  T α → T∞ 11.
dy L L  T∞ T∞
dT  −b
 = (Tw − T∞ )
dy  y = 0 L
dT b y
Q = −kA = kA (Tw − T∞ )
dy y =0
L
T∞ x T
Q b
q′′ = = k (Tw − T∞ ) If the fluid temperature is the same as the plate temper-
A L
q′′L ature, then TS = T∞ and hence no temperature gradient
⇒ k= will occur. Therefore thermal boundary layer will not
b(Tw − T∞ )
be formed at all.
q′′ L Hence, the correct option is (D).
Nu = ×
Tw − T∞ k
δ
q′′ L 12. = Pr1 3 ⇒ d = (0.7)1/3 dt
= ⋅ δt
(Tw − T∞ ) ′′ L
q (Tw − T∞ ) ⇒ d = 0.8879 dt
b
= b. ∴ d < dt
9. For laminar forced convection Momentum diffusivity
13. Prandtl number, Pr =
N u = CRe 0.5 Pr 0.4 Thermal diffusivity
0.4
0.5
 µC p  ϑ µC P
i.e., hL = C  ρ vL    ⇒ Pr = =
∝ k
K  µ   K 
\ h∝ V
14.
=h1 K=
v1 , h 2 K v2 = K 2v1
400 K
q = 1000 W
h2
= =
2 or h2 2h1 .
h1
300 K
10. d = 25 mm
u = 1.0 m/s
Irreversibility, I = To(∆S)universe ⇒ I = To(∆Ssys + ∆Ssurr)
r = 1000 kg/m3
 1000 1000 
m = 7.25 × 10-4 Ns/m2 ⇒ I = (25 + 273)  − + 
 400 300 
k = 0.625 W/mK
Pr = 4.85 ⇒ I = 248.34 W
ρ ud 1000 × 1× 25 × 10 −3
Re = = = 34, 483. 15. Pr = 1
µ 7.25 × 10 −4
T∞ = 500 K; Tw = 300 K
Nu = 0.023 Re0.8 Pr0.4
V∞ = 10 m/s; u = 30 × 10–6 m2/s
= 0.23 × (34483)0.8 × (4.85)0.4 = 184.55
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Chapter 2 • Forced Convection | 3.253
δ th so the flow is laminar.

= (Pr)–1/3 Hydrodynamic boundary layer at 0.5
δ
5x 5 × 0.5
5.24 | Heat Transfer =
Chapter = • Forced Convection | 3.253
2
Rex 1.6667 × 105

δ th 1.5 m so the flow ≈is6.12
laminar.
× 10–3 m
= (Pr)–1/3 Hydrodynamic boundary
δ Vd 10 × 0.5 d = 6.12 mm layer at 0.5
Rc = = = 0.1667 × 106 th
υ 30 × 10 −6
Hence, the = 5 x answer 5is×60to
correct .5 6.25.
=
Rex 1.66672×τ 105
≈ 1.6667 × 105, 0.664 ω
1 6. We know that C fx = =
1.5 m m ρU ∞2
≈ 6.12 × 10–3Rex
Vd 10 × 0.5 dth = 6.12 mm
1
Rc = = = 0.1667 × 106 Which gives τ ω ∝
υ 30 × 10 −6 Hence, the correct answer
x is 6 to 6.25.
Chapter 2 • Forced Convection | 3.253
≈ 1.6667 × 105, ∴ τ ω2 < τ ω1
so the flow is laminar. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hydrodynamic boundary layer at 0.5
5x 5 × 0.5
= =
Rex 1.6667 × 105

≈ 6.12 × 10–3 m
dth = 6.12 mm
106
Hence, the correct answer is 6 to 6.25.
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CHapter 3 natural ConveCtion and Mass transfer
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 1
ha1 L1 Gr 1  L 3  4
1 1 = =  1  
1. β= = ha2 L2 Gr 2  L2  
60 + 273 333°K −1 −1
−6  L 4 34
ha 1
µCp 20 × 10 × 1008 = 1  = 
Pr = = = 0.72 ha 2  L2  2
K 0.028
1
β gL3 ∆θ = = ; ha 2 1.105ha 1
Gr = 1.105
v2
So in the second case when height is 2 m the heat car-
1 9.81× 23 × 80
= × = 0.0525 × 1012 ried is 1.105 when the plate is 3 m.
333 (18.97 × 10 −6 ) 2
Gr.Pr = 0.0525 × 1012 × 0.72 = 3.77 × 1010 µC p(0.798 × 10 −3 )4180
1 1 4. Pr = = = 5.42
K 0.615
N u = 0.12(Gr Pr ) 3 = 0.12(3.77 × 1010 ) 3 = 402
β gL3 ∆θ
Gr =
402 × 0.028 ν2
h= = 5.63 W/m 2 K
2 4.15 × 10 −4 × 9.81× (0.15)3 × 35
=
h = 5.63 W/m2K (0.805 × 10 −6 ) 2
20 = 7.42 × 108
Q = Ah( ∆T ) = π × × 2 × 5.63 × 80
100 GrPr = 5.42 × 7.42 × 108 = 4.02 × 109
= 566 W. We can use the following formula for finding heat
Hence, the correct option is (A). transfer co-efficient
1
ha L
1 1 =Nu = 0.13(Gr Pr ) 3
2. β= = K K
160 + 273 433 = 0.13(4.02 × 109)1/3 = 205
µC p 24.24 × 10 −6 × 1019 205 × 0.615
Pr = = = 0.705 ha = = 841 W/m 2 K
K 0.035 0.15
Q = Aha (Tw − T f )
β gd 3 ∆θ 1 9.81× 0.33 × (300 − 20)
Gr = = × 8 15
ν2 433 (30.09 × 10 −6 ) 2 =π × × × 841× 35
100 100
Gr = 1.9 × 10 8
= 1109.7 W.
GrPr = 1.9 × 108 × 0.705 = 1.34 × 108
Using the following equation of heat transfer
5. Quantity of the heat generated by the body must be
Nu = 0.1(GrPr)1/3 = 0.1(1.34 × 108)1/3 = 50.4
equal to the heat lost from the body to the surrounding
ha D air for maintaining the body temperature.
=
Nu = 50.4
K 1 1
β= = K
50.4 × 0.035 25 + 273 298
ha = = 5.88 W/mK
0.3 97.7 F = 36.5°C
µC p 1.82 × 10 −5 × 1006
Q = AhΔT = π × 0.3 × 1 × 5.88 × 280 = 1551.7. Pr = =
Hence, the correct option is (C). K 0.0256
= 0.715
3. Heat is lost only by natural convection
β gL3 ( ∆T ) 1 9.81× (1.6)3 × 23
Nu1 C ( Pr 1 Gr 1 ) n Gr = = ×
= v2 298 (15.46 × 10 −6 ) 2
Nu 2 C ( Pr 2 Gr 2 ) n = 12.98 × 109
GrPr = 12.98 × 109 × 0.715
As properties remain the same in both the cases = 9.28 × 109
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5.26 | Heat Transfer Chapter 3 • Natural Convection and Mass Transfer | 3.255
Nu = 0.12(GrPr)1/3 Using the equation of heat transfer co-efficient

= 0.12(9.38 × 109)1/3 Nu = 0.023Re0.8 × Pr0.4
= 252 hL
= 0.023(8.36 × 10 4 )0.8 × (3)0.4 = 309
252 × 0.0256 K
h= = 4 W/m 2 K
1.6 309 × 0.65
h= = 4017 W/m 2 K
Q = Ah(ΔT) = π × 0.3 × 1.6 × 4 × 23 0.05
= 140 W.
8. Properties at mean temperature and wall temperature
4 1
hx x are taken given
6. N ux = = 0.0288( Re x ) 5 × Pr 3
k Nu = Prf = 3.6 at 5°C
4
 V 5
1 −1 Prw = 2.50 at 70°C
hx = 0.0288 K   Pr 3 ( x ) 5 LV 0.05 × 0.8
ν  Re f = = = 72000
v 0.556 × 10 −6
Average heat transfer co-efficient is given by 0.25
1 L  3.6 
h = ∫ hx dx N u = 0.021(72000) × (3.6)
0.8 0.42
× 
L 0  2.6 
0.8 1 −1 = 0.021 × 7688 × 1.71 × 1.08 = 298
1 V  L
= × 0.0288 K   Pr 3 ∫ ( x ) 5 dx
L ν  0 298 × 0.557
h= = 3320 W/m 2 K
0.8
0.05
4
1 V  5
= × 0.0288 K   Pr 0.33 × ( L) 5 Q = A.h.ΔT = π × 0.05 × 3320 × 20 = 10425 W/m
L ν  4
K
= × 0.0288 × 1.25 µC p (0.55 × 10 −3 ) × 4182 
L 9. Pr = =  = 4.13
K  0.557 
( Re L )0.8 ( Pr )0.33 (1)
LV
150 × 1000 Re =
V= = 44.6 m/sec v
3600
For finding the velocity of water
0.5 × 44.6
Re L = = 1.1× 106 π 2 6000
18.97 × 10 −6 d ×V × ρ =
4 3600
µC p 20.03 × 10 −6 × 1008
Pr = = = 0.708 6000 4 1 1
K 0.0285 V= × × ×
3600 π (0.05) 988.1
2
Substituting the values of Pr and ReL in eq (1)

= 0.859 m/sec
0.0285
ha = × 0.0288 × 1.25 0.05 × 0.859
0.5 Re = −6
= 0.772 × 105
0.556 × 10
(1.1 × 106)0.8 × (0.708)0.33
Nu = 0.023Re0.5Pr0.4
= 99.54 × 1.25 = 124.4 W/m2K
= 0.023(0.772 × 105)0.5 × (4.13)0.4
Q = AhΔT = 0.5 × 0.3 × 124.4 × 80
= 11.27
= 1492.6 W.
Hence, the correct option is (D). 11.27 × 0.557
ha = = 125.55 W/m 2 K.
0.05
µC p 0.467 × 10 −3 × 4148
7. Pr = = =3 Hence, the correct option is (C).
K 0.65
10. The film temperature = 50°C.
LV 0.05 × 0.8 Property values are
Re = =
ν 0.478 × 10 −6 n = 17.95 × 10-6m2/s
= 8.36 × 104 Pr = 0.698
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 0.6 × 0.6 sin 60  17. KA(Tb − Tt )

Q=
A  2 
 x
L= =
P 3 × 0.6 20 × (0.5 × 1)(Tb − Tt )
= 0.0866 219.2 =
0.01
9.81 60 × 0.08663
Gr = × 219.2 × 0.01
323 (17.95 × 10 −6 ) 2 \ = Tb − Tt
20 × 0.5
= 3.67 × 106
Using value for Nu = 0.27 × (GrPr)0.25 = 10.8 219.2 × 0.01
\ Tb = Tt +
h = 3.5 W/m2K. 10
Hence, the correct option is (B). = 100 + 0.2192 = 100.22°C
11. Equivalent length Where Tt is the top surface temperature and Tb is the
bottom surface temperature.
4 Ac b
Le =
P
1 1 1
a
18. β = = =
T 70 + 273 343
4 × ab 2ab
= = . µC p ρν C p
2( a + b) a + b Pr = =
K K
12. Hence, the correct option is (C). 1.03 × 20.02 × 10 −6 × 1005
= = 0.797
13. Reynold No. 2.6 × 10 −2
VL 2 ×1
= = = 10.54 × 10 4 β g ( ∆θ ) L3 1 9.81× (110 − 30)(0.25) 3
ν 18.97 × 10 −6 Gr = = ×
ν 2
343 ( 20.02 × 10 −6 ) 2
Pr = 0.71
\ Nu = 0.332 × (10.54 × 104)0.5⋅ (0.71)0.33 = 96. 1 9.81× 80 × 0.253
= × −6 2
= 8.919 × 1012 × 10 −5
Hence, the correct option is (C). 343 ( 20.02 × 10 )
hL = 8.9 × 107 \ GrPr = 8.9 × 107 × 0.797

=
14. N u 96= ; 96
K = 7.10 × 10-7.
96 × K 96 × 0.0285 Hence, the correct option is (D).
h= = = 2.74
L 1
19. The average Nusselt No.
h = 2.74 W/m2K
(Nu)a = 0.56(GrPr)1/3
\ Average heat transfer coefficient = 2h = 5.48 W/m2K
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 0.56 × (7.1 × 107)1/3 = 0.56 × 414 = 232
15. The heat lost by convection hL
= 232
Q = hA∆θ K
100 50 232 × 2.6 × 10 −2

= 2.74 × 2 × × (100 − 20) h= = 24.12 W/m 2 K.
100 100 0.25
= 219.2 W. Hence, the correct option is (D).
20. Q = 2 h A (T1 - T2)
16. The heat conducted through the plate is numerically
= 2 × 24.12 × 0.25 × 0.5(80)
equal to the heat lost by convection because the tem-
perature of the plate is maintained constant. = 482 W.
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5.28 | Heat Transfer Chapter 3 • Natural Convection and Mass Transfer | 3.257
Practice Problems 2 8. Prandtl number does not change Pr = 2.545

1 1 β g ∆θ L3 6.2 × 10 −4 × 9.81× 100 × 0.33
1. β = = Gr = =
T 408 ν2 (0.415 × 10 −6 ) 2
g β∆θ L3 9.81 210 × 0.33 = 953.51 × 108
Gr = = ×
ν 2
408 ( 26.25 × 10 −6 ) 2 \ GrPr = 953.51 × 108 × 2.545
0.1363 = 2426.7 × 108.
= = 1.978 × 108
( 26.25 × 10 −6 ) 2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
9. We have Nu = 0.13(GrPr)1/3
Pr = 0.7
= 0.13(2426.7 × 108)1/3 = 810.8
\ GrPr = 1.38 × 108.
hL
K
2. We have Nu = 0.53(GrPr)0.25 810.8 × 0.66
\ h= = 1783.8 W/m 2 K
= 0.53[1.38 × 108]0.25 = 57.44 0.3
hL Hence, the correct option is (B).
= 57.44
k 10. Q = 2h × 0.4 × 0.3 × 100
= 2 × 1783.8 × 0.12 × 100
57.44 × 0.034
L= = 6.5 W/m 2 K = 42.81 kW.
0.3
1 1 1
3. Q = L (pd × 1) × (240 - 30) 11. β = = =
T  ( 273 − 30) + ( 273 + 40)  278
= 6.5(p × 0.3 × 1) (210) W  
 2 
= 1286.5 W.
1 9.81× 70 × (0.01)3
Hence, the correct option is (D). Gr = × −6 2
= 8.96 × 105
278 (16.6 × 10 )
\ GrPr = 8.96 × 105 × 0.69 = 6.18 × 105 << 109
µC p 0.4 × 10 −3 × 4200
5. Pr = = = 2.545 1
k 0.66  70  4
h = 1.32 ×   = 12 W/m K
2
β g ∆θ L3 6.2 × 10 −4 × 9.81× 100 × 0.43  0.01 

Gr = = Hence, the correct option is (D).
ν2 (0.415 × 10 −6 ) 2
12. Q = hA (T1 - T2) = 12 × π × 0.01 × 3 × 70 = 79 W.
= 2260 × 108 Hence, the correct option is (A).
GrPr = 2260 × 108 × 2.545 = 5752 × 108. 4 A 4π ( D 2 − d 2 )
13. Le = =
Hence, the correct option is (C). P 4π ( D + d )
= D - d.
6. Given Nu = 0.13 (GrPr)1/3
= 0.13 (5752 × 108)1/3
= 0.13 × 17.92 × 464.16 d
= 1081.3
hL 1081.3 × 0.66
= 1081.3, h =
K 0.4 D
= 1784.15 W/m2K. Hence, the correct option is (A).

Hence, the correct option is (A). 14. Hence, the correct option is (A).
7. Q = 2 × A × h(T1 - T2) 15. Hence, the correct option is (B).
= 2 × 1784.15 × 0.4 × 0.3 × 100 W 16. Q = hADT
= 42.82 kW. 600 = 285.3 × 0.09 × (T2 - 37) T2 = 60.5°C
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17. 600 = 8.5 × .09 × (T2 - 37) = 0.2704 m = 270.4 mm.

T2 = 821°C. Hence, the correct option is (A).
ν 0.65 × 10 −4
18. This is a situation of diffusion into stationary medium 24. Pr = = = 902.78
α 7.2 × 10 −8
DP P − Pb2 δ
mL = A n ∂lh =
RaT ( x2 − x1 ) P − Pb1 1
Pr
3
8315
= j/kgk , T = 298 K ( x2 − x1 ) = 40 m = 0.02798 m = 27.98 mm
18
π × 92
A= , P = 105 N/m 2 9.81× 0.410 × 10 −3 × 0.23 × 40
4 25. Gr =
(.657 × 10 −6 ) 2
π × 92 2.58 × 10 −5 × 18 1051 − 0.5 × 0.03169 = 2.98 × 109
ma = × × n
4 8315 × 2980 105 (1 − 0.03169) Nu = 2 + 0.43(2.98 × 109 × 4.34)0.25
= 4.84 × 10 -7 kg/s (low because of large depth) = 147.03
(gas constant is used instead of universal gas constant). h = 461.7 W/m2K.
19. r1 = 5 cm 1 (60 − 0) × 43
26. Gr = 9.81× ×
r2= 6 cm 303 (16 × 10 −6 ) 2
= 4.86 × 1011
 1 1 r  1  Nu = 0.021 (GrPr)0.4
ΣR =  + n 2   +
 2π rlh 2π kl  r 
 1  1   2π r2 h2  = 861, h = 5.76 W/m2K.
Hence, the correct option is (b).
 1 1 6 9.81× 1× 40 × .43
= + n +
 2 × π 0.05 × 12000 2 × 450 × 1 3 27. Gr =
333 × (18.97 × 10 −6 ) 2
1  = 2.096 × 108
= 0.147°/W.
2π × 0.06 × 1× 18  GrPr = 1.459 × 108
Nu = 0.53 (GrPr)1/4
= 58.24
110 − 25
20. Heat loss Q = h = 4.22 W/m2K.
0.147
578.236 W/m.
Hence, the correct option is (C). .0253
28. Gr = 9.81 × 6.944 × 10-4 × 80 × = 1236.12
21. Q = h A Δ T (83 × 10 −6 ) 2
8.4 × 103 = h × 1.5(300 - 20) 1

0.36 + 0.518(Gr Pr ) 4
8400 Nu = = 17.733
=h = 20 W/m 2 K. 4
1.5( 280)  
9 9
1 +  0.559  
16
22. As temperature increases, the viscosity of the air also   Pr  

increases. Hence the kinematic viscosity of air is more  
than 1.6 × 10–5 m2/sec at 70 °C. h = 99.8 W/m2K.
u 0.1× 4.5 29. The characteristic length is given by
23. Re = = = 6923
ν .65 × 10 −4 1 1 1 1 1
= + = +
5x 5 × 4.5 L LH Lv 0.2 0.1
δ= =
Re x 6923 L = 0.067 m
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Chapter 3 • Natural Convection and Mass Transfer | 3.259
9.81× 460 × 0.0673
Gr Pr = 30. Characteristic length = L = 0.3 + 0.3 = 0.6 m
( 273 + 250)( 40.61× 10 −6 ) 2
9.81× 20 × .63
= 0.677 = 1.05 × 106 Gr Pr = × .703
293 × (15.06 × 10 −6 ) 2
Nu = 0.52 (GrPr)0.25
= 16.74 = 4.48 ×108
h = 10.60 W/m2K Nu = 0.52 (GrPr)0.25
Heat loss = h A Δ T = (10.6) × (4 × 0.2 × 0.1 = 75.666
+ 2 × 0.2 × 0.2) × 460 h = 3.27 W/m2K
= 780.3 W. Q = 2 × 0.6 × 3.27(30 - 10)
Hence, the correct option is (D). = 78.48 W/m.

2. Grashof number
= ratio of buoyancy force to viscous force.
g β∆ TL3
Gr = 2
υ
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CHapter 4 radiation and Heat transfer
Hints/solution
Practice Problems 1 In this case F1-2 = 1 as all radiation from plate goes to
room
1. Wien’s displacemental law
λmT = b(b = 2829µm-K ) σ (T14 − T24 ) σ (T14 − T24 )
Q= = as all heat
1 − ε1 1 1 − ε 2 1 − ε 2  1
2829 + +  +
T = µm-K A1ε1 A1 A2ε 2 A ε A F
0.5  2 2 1 1− 2
= 5668 K is absorbed by the wall.

Stefan–Boltzman law Given A1 = 10 × 10-4 m2 = 10-3 m2
C = σT 4 T1 = 700 k , ε1 = .6
= 5.67 × 10-8 × (5658)4 = 58.107 × 106 W/m2. T1 = 300 k , ε 2 = 0.3
= 58.107 MW/m2 A2 = 100 m2
Hence, the correct option is (A). 5.67 × 10 −8 (700 4 − 300 4 )
2. A = π dL \ Q= = 7.892
1 1 1  1 − 03 
× +  
= 3.14 × 0.12 × 10-3 × 0.05 10 −3 0.6 100  0.3 
1.885 × 10-5 m2 Heat loss from 2 surfaces = 2Q = 2 × 7.892
(
Q = σ A T14 − T24 ) = 15.784.
100 = 5.67 × 10 × 1.885 × 10-5
-8
(T14 − 350 4 ) 5. Shield T2
T1
T1 = 3110.24 K.
3. Cylindrical Cavity
F1-1 + F1-2 = 1 or F1-1 = 1 - F1-2 (1)
And F2-1 + F2-2 = 1
F2-2 = 0, F2-1 = 1 Without Shield
Being flat surface and because all radiation emitted by σ (T14 − T24 ) σ (T14 − T24 ) σ (T14 − T24 )
the black surface 2 is intercepted by enclosing surface Q1 = = =
1 1 1 1 3
1. + −1 + −1
ε1 ε 2 0.5 0.5
A1F1-2 = A2F2-1 (by reciprocity theory)
When there is a shield
F1− 2
A A
= 2 F2 −1 = 2 σ (T14 − T24 )
A1 A1 Q2 =
1 1 1 1
+ −1+ + −1
A2 ε1 ε s εs ε2
F1−1 = 1 − F1− 2 = 1 −
A1 σ (T14 − T24 ) σ (T14 − T24 )
= =
π 2 1 1 2 1 1 2
d + + −2 + + −2
4 d d + 4h − d ε1 ε 2 ε s 0.5 0.5 0.25
F1−1 = 1 − = 1− =
π 2 d + 4h 4h + d
d + π dh σ (T14 − T24 ) Q2 3
4 = or =
4h 10 Q1 10
= .
4h + d 3
Q2 = Q1 .
10
4. Heat radiation transfer between two gray bodies is as
6. Without shield
σ (T14 − T24 ) σ (T14 − T24 )
Q1− 2 = Q12 =
1 − ε1 1 1− ε2 α
+ +
A1ε1 A1 F1− 2 A2ε 2 ε p −1
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5.32 | Heat Transfer Chapter 4 • Radiation and Heat Transfer | 3.261
With n shield 10. Now heat exchange between 1 and 2 is

σ (T − T
1
4
2
4
) 1 (
Q1− 2 σ T1 − T2
4 4
)
Q1− 2 = =
1− ε p 1− εs  1− ε p A 1 1
+ 2n  + + ( n + 1) + −1
εp  εs  εp ε1 ε 2
Q with shield  800  4  400  4 

  −  
= (1- 0.99) Q without shield  100   100  
5.67
1− ε p   1 − ε1   2  1 1
2  + 2n   + ( n + 1) = 100  − 1 + −1
 ε 0.8 0.7
 p   εs  εp 
= 12.97 kW/m2.
ε p = 0.8, ε s = 0.05
We get, 0.5 + 38n + n + 1 = 150
11. As per Wien’s displacement law
148.5
n= 4. 2900 2900
39 T= = = 5577 K
λ max 0.52
Emissive power of the sun is given by
(
7. Q1 = A1 F12σ T14 − T24 )  5577 
4
E = σ T 4 = 5.67  
π  100 
Q1 = (0.5) 2 × 0.06 × 5.67 × 10 −8 (800 4 − 400 4 )
4
= 5.485 × 107 W/m2
256 × 3600 Hence, the correct option is (A).
Q = 256 J/s = = 923 kJ/h
1000
12. The maximum monochromatic emissive power of sun’s
Hence, the correct option is (D). surface is given by
Q1 F21
(
8. Q2 = A1 F12σ T14 − T24 = ) ×
1 F12
Eλ max = 12.873 × 10 −6 (T 5 )
5 5
T   5577 
= 1.287   = 1.287  
923 × 0.34  10   10 
= 5230.33 kJ/h
0.06 = 6.9 × 1013 N/m 2
9. Irradiation is total radiation incident upon the surface 13. T1 = 1600 k T2 = 1900 K
per unit area per unit time.
The net heat lost by the furnace
TA (A) Black Q = Q13 + Q23
= 527 + 273
= 800 k
•
( ) (
∴ Q = A1 F13σ T14 − T34 + A2 F23σ T24 − T34 ) (1)
Where T3 = 300 K
•
B Gray R2 0.4
For = = 0.5
H 8
Tb = 273 + 127 = 400 K H 8
and = = 2
Q1 = εσ AT24 R3 4
Q2 = AT14 (1 − ε )σ F23 = 0.15 (from figure of shape factor for two parallel
circular plates)
Q1 + Q2
A
(
= σ T14 + ε T24 − T14  ) Using summation rule
F21 + F23 = 1
 800  4  400  4  800 
4
 \ F21 = 1- 0.15 = 0.85
= 5.67   + 0. 7   −  
 100   100   100   Using reciprosity rule A1 F12 = A2 F21
= 7.98 kW/m2 A2 π R2 R
∴ F12 = F21 = = × F21
Hence, the correct option is (D). A1 π 2R × H 2H
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4 \ (Gr Pr)0.25 = (10.47×104×0.684)0.25 = 16.36

= × .85 = 0.106
2 × 16 .035
h= × 0.53 × 16.36 = 12.14 W/m 2 K
.025
By symmetry
Qc = hπ d × ( 250 − 30) × 1
F13 = F12 = 0.106
Substituting values in equation (a) = 12.14 × p × 0.25 × 220 = 210 W/m
Q = [π (0.08 × 0.16)] × 0.106 × 5.67(16 4 − 34 ) (
Qr = σε As Ts4 – Ta 4 )
+ p (0.04)2 × 0.15 × 5.67 (194- 34) 5.67 × 0.95 × π (0.025) × 1)[5.234 − 3.034 ]
= 0.0242 (65536 - 81) + 0.00428 (130321 - 81) = 281 W/m
= 1584 + 557.4 = 2141.4 W Qt = Qc + Qr = 210+281 = 491
14. When radiating surfaces are not enclosed by the adi- 17. When the air flowing over the pipe surfaces then the
abatic wall, the radiation heat flow is given by heat transfer coefficient is given by
σ A1 (T14 − T24 ) hd
= 0.023( R e)0.8 p r.4
Q= k
1 − ε1 1 A 1− ε2  vd 20 × 0.025
+ + 1  Re = =
ε1 F12 A2  ε 2  v 27.8 × 10 −6
A1 = A2 and ε1 = ε 2 = 1 = 17986
(All are black surfaces) hd
= 0.023(17986).8 (.684).4 = 50
(
Q = σ A1 F12 T14 − T24 ) K
50 × 0.035
 1773  4  573  4  h= = 70 W/m 2 K
5.67 × 6 × 0.5  .025
 −  
 100   100   Qc = h(π d × 1)(Ts − Ta )
= 1662.5 × 103 W = 1662.5 kW = 70 × π × 0.025 × 220
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 1209 W
15. When the radiating surfaces are enclosed by a black Qt = Qr + Qc = 281 + 1209
adiabatic wall then for the given problem, heat transfer
is given by =1490 W
(
Q = σ A1 F12 T14 − T24 ) Hence, the correct option is (D).
18. We have to find F21
2 2 As F12 = 1
Where F12 = = = 1.33 and ε1 = ε 2 = ε 3 = 1
1 + F12 1 + 0.5 A1 F12 = A2F21
\ Q =1662.5 × 103 × 0.5 = 4433.3× 103 W
16. When pipe is passing through still air D2 2
Qu = hA (Ts - Ta) D7
Where h is given by
hd 1
= 0.53(G r Pr )0.25
K
2 2
d 3 β g (Ts − Ta ) A D   5 
Gr = ∴ F21 = 1 =  1  =  
v2 A2  D2   25 
1 = 0.04
Where β = = 2.4 × 10 −3
140 + 273 Therefore 4% of the energy emitted by 2 falls on 1.
Gr = (0.025)3 × 2.4 × 10–3 × For the surface 2, we can write
( 250 − 30) F21 + F22 = 1
9.81 = 10.47 × 10 4
( 27.8 × 10 −6 ) 2 \ F22 = 1 – 0.04 = 0.96
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This indicates that 96% of energy emitted by 2 falls on e1

2 only. The net exchange of energy between two sur- E B λ ( λT ) =
 e C2 
faces is given by λ5  
2  λT − 1 
 2.5 
( )
Q = A1σ T14 − T24 F12 = 4   × 5.67]
 100  C1, C2 being constant
 550  4  280 
4
 C1 = 3.74177 × 108 wmm4/m2
  −   × 1 = 38 W
 100   100   C2 = 1.43878 × 104 mmk.
19. Plank’s law gives the emissive power of a black body at 20. The correct option is (A).
T k per unit is per unit wavelength.
Practice Problems 2 0.25

 T   600 
1. qq = σε T and qb = σ T , qg − qb
4 4  100  =  5.67 × 0.8  = 3.39
g b    
4
T   800  4 T = 339 K
Then ε =  b  =   = 0.197
T When surfaces are polished
 g   1200 
4
Hence, the correct option is (C).  T 
5.67 × 0.07   = 750 × 0.07
2. qg = q b × 0.9  100 
.25
σε Tg4 = 0.9σ Tb4  T   750 
 100  =  5.67  = 3.39
.25    
 0.9 
Tg =   × Tb
 0.197  \ T = 339 K.
= 1.46×1200 Tb = 1754 K Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (D). 6. λmT = b(b = 2829 µmK )
3. Eb = σ T 4
2829
4
=T = 4715
 2100  0.6
= 5.67 ×   = 1102.7 kW/m
2
 100  Stefan–Boltzmann law

Hence, the correct option is (D). Eb = σ T 4
4. As per Wien’s displacement law 5.67 × 10-8 (4715)4 = 28.02 × 106 W/m2
λmax = = λmax = = 1.38 µm
T 2100
7. A = pdL = 3.14 × 0.12 × 10-3 × 0.05
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 1.885 × 10–5 m2
4
 T  Q = σ A(T14 − T24 )
5. E g = σε T 4 = 5.67 × 0.8 ×   (a)
 100 
Energy absorbed per unit area 100 = 5.67 × 10–8 × 1.885 × 10–5
= α × Incident radiation (T14 - 3504)
= 0.8 × 750 = 600 as α = ε T14 = (350)4 = 9.36×1013
T1 = 3110.24 K
Equaling (a) and (b) for thermal equilibrium because
absorbed energy Hence, the correct option is (C).
= energy emitted. Radiation absorbed
4
8. (a) α =
 T  total radiation incident
5.67 × 0.8   = 600
 100  Q = 0.7 × 0.2 × 1000 = 140 W
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(b) Rate of heat emission The given enclosure involves 9 shape factors but we
= (σ AT 4 ) × ε need to determine only 3.
As α = ε = 0.7 As F11 + F22 = F33 = 0
Q = 5.67 × 10–8 × 0.2 (200 + 273)4 × 0.7 (All surfaces are flat) remaining six shape factors can be
determined by the use of summation and reciprocity rules.
= 397 W
F11 + F12 + F13 = 1
F21 + F22 + F23 = 1
9. We have to find out F21
F31 + F32 + F33 = 1
As F12 = 1 and A1 F12 = A2F21
2
Using the equation (a) and multiplying first, second and
2
A D   5  third equations by A1, A2, A3 we get
F21 = 1 =  1  =   = 0.04
A2  D2   25  A1 F12 + A1F13 + A1
Therefore 4% of the energy emitted by 2 falls on 1. For A2 F22 + A2F23 = A2
the surface 2 we can write A3 F13 + A2F23 = A3
F21 + F22 = 1 Now using reprocity rule
F22 = 1- 0.04 = 0.96 A1 F12 = A2F21, A1F13 = A1F31
That indicates that 96% of the energy emitted by 2 falls And A2 F23 = A3F32
on 2 only.
And substituting these in equations 4, 5, 6 we get
Net exchange of energy between two surfaces is given
A1 F12 + A1F13 = A1
by
A1 F12 + A2F23 = A2
( )
Q = A1σ T14 − T24 F12
A1 F13 + A2F23 = A3
2
 650  4  280  4  These three unknowns are can be find out solving
 2.5 
4π ×   × 5.67 ×   −   ×1 A + A2 − A3 a1 + a2 − a3
 100   100   100   F12 = 1 =
2 A1 2a1
= 0.0445 × 1723.5 = 76.7 W.
A1 + A3 − A2 a1 + a3 − a2
Hence, the correct option is (C). F13 = =
2 A1 2a1
10. For radiation leaving the base, ring shape factor of F1
ring to be determined. A2 + A3 − A1 a2 + a3 − a1
F23 = =
F13 = F12 + F1 ring 2 A2 2a2
F1 ring = F13 - F12 (a) (b) If the values of a1 = 5 cm, a2 = 7 cm and
F13 and F12 are the shape factors between two circular a3 = 10 cm. Find the values of F12, F13, and F23. F12
discs located at a distance H = 0.2, F13 = 0.8 and F23 = 0.857.
F12 = 0.11 Hence, the correct option is (A).
F13 = 0.28 12. The heat transfer between the two discs is given by
Substituting values in equation (a) we get F1 ring σ A1 (T14 − T24 )
= 0.28 - 0.11 = 0.17 Q=
1 − ε1 1 1 − ε 2 A1
+ +
That means 17% of total radiation. ε1 F1− 2 ε 2 A2
Hence, the correct option is (D). The shape factor F1-2 is given by
11. Solution D2 4
Surface - (1) → 12451 F1− 2 = =
4L + D2 4 × 4 + 4
2
Surface – (2) → 24632 = 0.2 as D = 2 m and L = 2 m

Surface – (3) → 15631 2
 5  4
5.67 × π   (7 − 5 )
4
 100 
6 Q= 2
3 1 − 0.8 1 1 − 0.6  10 
a3 + + ×
0.6  200 
2
1 5
0.8 0.2
3 a2 1 4
a1 = 15.04 W
z Hence, the correct option is (B).
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13. The shape factor F12 for a given diameter and height 15. Heat transfer between two spheres is given by
F12 = 0.1
Q=
(
A1σ T14 − T24 )
We can use the following equation for finding heat flow. 2
1  d1   1 
σ A1 (T14 − T24 ) +    − 1
Q= ε 1  d2   ε 2 
1  A1  1  ( A1 + A2 − 2 A1 F12 )
 − 1 +  − 1 + Where suffix I and 2 denotes inner and outer spheres.
ε
 1  A ε
2  2  A2 − A1 F122
4π (0.2) 2 × 5.67 × 10 −8
As A1 = A2 Q= 2 (
× ( −153 + 273) 4 − (300) 4 )
1  20   1 
σ A1 (T − T
4 4
) + −1
Q=
1 2
0.04  30   .04 
1   1   2 
 − 1 +  − 1 +   0.16π × 5.67 × [1.24 − 34 ]
 ε1   ε 2   1 + F12  × = −6.3 J/sec
25 + 10.67
5.67 × π (0.3) 2 (10 4 − 74 ) = 22.68 kJ/h
=
 1   1   2  22.68
 0.8 − 1 +  0.7 − 1 +  1 + 0.1  Rate of evaporation = = 0.1085 kg/h
      209
= 4876 W Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 16. The area of the radiator A = 2(2 × 1) + 2(1 × 0.2) +
14. Heat loss from cylinder 1 to 2 = Heat loss from cylinder 2 2(0.2 × 2) = 5.2 m2
to 3. Radiant heat transfer co-efficient is given by
Q1− 2 = Q2 −3 =
A1σ T14 − T24( ) (
hr = σε (T1 + T2 ) T12 + T22 )
1 − ε1 1 1 − ε 2 A1
+ + = 5.67 × 10 × 1(333 + 291)(3332 + 2912)
–8
ε1 F1− 2 ε 2 A2
 333  2  291  2  −4
= 5.67 × 624 ×   +  100   × 10
=
(
A2σ T24 − T34 )   100    
1− ε2 1 1 − ε 3 A2
+ + = 6.9 J/m2s k = 6.9 W/m2K
ε2 F2 −3 ε 2 A2
The convection heat transfer co-efficient is given by
2 2
A1 d12  1  A2 d22  2  hc = 1.3 (60 - 18)1/3 = 4.5 J/m2sK
= = and = =
A2 d22  2  A3 d32  3  = 4.5 W/m 2 K
F1–2 = F2–3 = 1 Total heat lost given by the radiator by convection and
radiations is given by
  Q = h1A (Tr - Ta) + hc × 2.5 A (Tr - Ta)
A1  T14 − T24  T24 − T34
 = = A (Tr - Ta) (hr + 2.5hc)
A2  1 1 − ε 2 A1   1 1 − ε 3 A2 
ε + ε A   +  5.2 × (60 - 18) (6.9 + 2.5 × 4.5) = 5.2 × .42 × 18.2
 1 2 2  ε2 ε 3 A3 
3964 × 3600
= = 14270 kJ/hr = 14.3 MJ/h
  T     T   300  
4 4 4 1000
 10 −  2     2  −
4
2   Hence, the correct option is (D).
1   100   =   100   100  
2 
  1 1 − 0.05  1    1
2
1 − 0.05  2  
2 (
17. Q = A1 F1− 2σ T14 − T24 )
 +   + 
 0.05 0.05  2    0.05 0.05  3   F1–2 = 0.06 for given configuration
π
4 4 x = Q1 = × (0.5) 2 × .06 × 5.67 × 10 −8 × (1000) 4 − (500) 4
 T   T2  4
10 4 −  2    −3
4
 100  =  100  626 × 3600

= 626 j/s = = 2260 kJ/h
99 28.44 1000
 T2 
 100  = 2295 18. When discs are connected by cylindrical
 
surface the shape factor for the given configuration can
Solving T2 = 692 K be calculated as
Hence, the correct option is (A). F1–2 = 0.34
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(
Q2 = A1 F11− 2σ T14 − T24 )  2
1000  −1

 0.5  3 × 103
Q1 F1− 2 2260 × .34 Q1 = = = 600 W/m 2
= = = 12800 kJ/h 1 1 5
+ −1
1 F1− 2 0.06 0.5 0.25
19. The suffix 1 and 2 refer to the outer surface of inner
spheres and inner surface of outer sphere as shown. 27. For steady state condition of heat transfer from the sat-
ellite surface, the amount of radiant energy absorbed
by the satellite must be equal to the amount of energy
Surface 2
emitted by it to the space heat gained by radiation =
Heat lost by radiation
Surface 1 4
1  T 
Ein As p × α = Cb As   ×ε
 100 
As = Surface area of the satellite
Asp = Projected area of satellite on the plane normal to
As their surface is concave one incident radiation.
F1-1 = 0 As p π r 2 1
=
F1-2 = 1 As 4π r 2
4
We have to find out F2-1 Where r is radius of satellite.
As only two bodies are taking part in heat transfer From equation (1)
4
A1F1-2= A2F2-1  T  As p α 1 Ein α 1
 100  = Ein As ε Cb = 4 × ε × C
  b
A1
F2 −1 = F1− 2 = F1− 2 1
A1  E α 1 4
T = 100  in × × 
2  4 ε Cb 
 π d2  d
 2 
= F1− 2   1
πD  D 1550 α

= 100  × ×
1 4
 4 ε 5.67 
1
20. Hence, the correct option is (B).  α 4
= 288 ×   (2)
21. Hence, the correct option is (B). ε 
For a given value of
22. Hence, the correct option is (D). α = 0.2, ε = 0.1
23. Hence, the correct option is (C). 1 1
 0.2  4  02  4
24. Radiocity is defined as total radiation leaving a surface T = 288   = 288  01 
 0. 1   
per unit area per unit time.
= 288 × 1.189 = 343 K = 343 - 273 = 70°C.
As ρ + τ + α = 1. For opaque τ = 0. ρ + α − 1 Hence, the correct option is (A).
28. If the satellite surface is considered gray then α = ε
By Kirchtoff’s law (α = ε ) ρ =1−ε =1− 0.5 = 0.5
T = 288 - 273 = 15°C
Radiocity = 600 + 0.5 × 1200 = 1200 W/ m2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 29. For the given temperature
T = 30 + 273 = 303 K
1
2 1  α  4 α  303 
4
 +  −1 303 = 288   ; = = (105) 4 = 1.22

1 Q1  ε1 ε1  ε  ε  288 
25. Qα , ∴ = ,
R Q2  1 1  Hence, the correct option is (D).
 + − 1
 ε1 ε 2  30. Hence, the correct option is (A).
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Previous Years’ Questions or J = E2 + (1− ∈) Eb1{∵ α = ∈}

1. The correct diagram according to Wein’s displacement J = σ ∈ T24 + (1− ∈)σ T14 
law \
T1 ⇒ J = [(0.7 × 500 4 ) + (1 − 0.7) × 1000 4 ] × 5.67 × 10 −8
T2 ⇒ J =19.49 kW/m2
T1 > T2 > T3
T3
↑
4.
Ebλ 1 ___________ ∈ = 0.8
2 ___________ ∈ = 0.7
λ (m m )→
q
=
(
σ T14 − T24 )
λmT = constant A 1− ∈1 1 1− ∈2 
As λm increases, T will decrease  + + 
 ∈1 F12 ∈2 
q (5.67 × 10 −8 ) × (1000 4 − 500 4 )
2. ⇒ = {∵ F12 = 1}
A 1 − 0.8 1 1 − 0.7
Surface − 1 + +
0.8 1 0.7
Surface − 2 q
⇒ = 31.7 kW/m 2
A
F22 = ? 5. a + ρ+ t = 1
F11 + F12 = 1 t = 0 (for opaque)
∵ F11 = 0 ⇒ F12 = 1 a+ρ=1
A1 F12 = A2 F21 Hence, the correct option is (C).
6. F12 = 1
( 2π r1 L) × ( 2π r2 L) × F21
2
r1 1 1
⇒ F21 = = = 0.5
r2 2
F21 + F22 = 1⇒ F22 = 1 – 0.5 = 0.5

A1
3. T1 = 1000 K A1 F12 = A2 F21 ⇒ F21 = F12
A2
1
Black surface, ∈= 1 F21 + F22 = 1
F22 = 1 – F21
Ebi E2 r Eb1
A1
= 1− F12
Gray surface, ∈ = 0.7 A2
2
π D1 L
= 1− F12
T2 = 500 K π D2 L
Energy incident on plate 1 (Irradiation) = D1
Radiosity of plate 2 = 1−
D2
\ Radiosity of plate 2 = J = E2 + ρEb1
ρ = Refectivity of plate 2
ρ+a+t=1 σ (T14 − T24 )
7. q =
{for opaque, t = transmissivity = 1} 1− εl 1 1− ε2
+ +
\ ρ = (1 - a) {a = Absorptivity} A1ε1 A1 F12 A2ε 2
\ J = E2 + (1 - a) Eb1 ∵ A1 = A2 and F12 = 1
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∴
q σ (T14 − T24 )
= Q1 =
(
Aσ T14 − T24 )
A 1 1 2  2 
+ −1
ε1 ε 2  ∈ − 1 +  ∈ − 1
   
Net heat exchange without radiation shield
q 5.67 × 10 −8 ( 400 4 − 300 4 )
⇒
A
=
 1 1  Q2 =
(
Aσ T14 − T24 )
 0.8 + 0.8 − 1 2 
 
 ∈ − 1
 
q
⇒ = 0.66 kW/m 2 2 
A
Q1  ∈ − 1 1
Hence, the correct option is (A). =   = .
Q2 2  2
2  − 1
8. ∈ 
2
1 11.
Radius r = 1 m
T1 = 600 K, T2 = 800 K 1 2
2r
∈1 = 0.5, ∈2 = 1
s = 5.668 × 10-8 W/m2 K4
1 8r
∈=
1 Al  1  F11 + F12 = 1 ⇒ F12 = 1 [∴F11 = 0]
+  − 1
∈1 A2  ∈2  A1 F12 = A2 F21 ⇒ 4p (r) × F12 = 3p(4r) × F21
2 2
⇒ ∈ = 0.5
4 πr 2 1
∴ F21 = =
(
Q2 −1 =∈ A1σ T − T 2
4
1
4
) 3π × 16 r 2 12
= 0.5 × (p × 12) × 5.668 × 10-8 (8004 - 6004) Hence, the correct option is (A).
= 24929.17 W 12. Given
= 24.93 kW T1 = T3 = 1200 K
Hence, the correct option is (24 – 25.2). T2 = T4 = 800 K
9. r2 F12 = 0.26
T3
r1
Applying reciprocity theorem, T4 T2 0.4 m

A1 F1-2 = A2 F2-1
∵ F1-2 = 1
2
A1 r 
\ F2 −1 = ×1 =  1  T1
A1  r2  0.5
2
 20  4 Based on symmetry
=  = .
 30  9 F12 = F14 = 0.26
Hence, the correct option is (B). F13 = 1 – 2F12
10. Let T1 and T2 be the temperature of the infinite parallel = 1 – 2 × 0.26
plates and ∈, the emissivity.
F13 = 0.48
Net heat exchange between plates with radiation shield
Radiative heat exchange between 1 and 2, and 1 and 4
is same.
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∴ Q12 + Q14 = 2F12 ε σ (T14 − T24 ) 15. AB = 5 m, BC = 6 m, F12 = 0.5

14.
A1 F12 = A2 F21
=2 × 0.26 × 5.67 × 10–8
6 × 0.5 = 5 × F21
[12004 – 8004]
F21 + F22 + F23 = 1
= 49061.376 W/m2
F23 + 0.6 = 1
Q13 = F13 ε σ [T14 − T34 ] = 0
F23 = 0.4
QNET × 0.5 = 49061.376 × 0.5 W/m
(
q = F23 × σ × A2 × T2 4 − Ts 4 )
=24530.688 W/m
( )
10 mm
q = 0.4 × 5 × 5.67 × 10 −8 600 4 − 300 4
Hence, the correct answer is 24528 – 24532. T1 = 1000 K; T2 = 400 K
q = 13.778 kW
13. F11 = 0 ε1 = 0.5
F11 + F12 = 1 Hence,
ε2 = 0.25
the correct answer is Marks awarded to all.
∴ F12 = 1 16. According to σ ( T14 − T24 law,
Kirchoff’s )
Reciprocity theorem, Q=
1 1
+power− (1P ) ∝ T 4
F12 A1 = F21 A2 ε1 ε 2
P P1
F21 =
A1 2 π Ri L
= 5.67∴× 104−8=(100044 −\ 400 4 )
A2 2 π Ro L = T
1 (21T )
+ −1
Ri 0.5P1 =0.16
⇒ 25P
=
Ro = 11049.69
Hence, the correct option is2 (D).
F22 = 1 – F21 ≈ 11.049 kW/m
17. λ1T1 = λ2T2
Ri Hence, the correct answer is 10.9–11.2.
=1− 1.45 × 2000 = T2 × 2.90
Ro
Chapter 4 • Radiation and Heat Transfer | 3.269 2000
Hence, the correct option is (D). T2 = = 1000 K
2
14.
8
18. 0.2 m
[12004 – 8004]
0
300 K Vacuum Vacuum 400 K
m
10 mm
– 24532. T1 = 1000 K; T2 = 400 K
ε1 = 0.5
qplate – cold surface = ( T24 − T04 ) σ
ε2 = 0.25
σ ( T14 − T24 ) ⎡⎛ T ⎞ 4 ⎛ T ⎞ 4 ⎤
Q= = 5.67 × ⎢⎜ 2 ⎟ − ⎜ 0 ⎟ ⎥
1 1
+ −1 ⎢⎣⎝ 100 ⎠ ⎝ 100 ⎠ ⎥⎦
ε1 ε 2
5.67 × 10 −8 (1000 4 − 400 4 ) ⎡⎛ 350 ⎞ ⎛ 300 ⎞

4 4⎤
= = 5.67 × ⎢⎜ ⎟ −⎜ ⎟ ⎥
1 1 ⎢⎣⎝ 100 ⎠ ⎝ 100 ⎠ ⎥⎦
+ −1
0.5 0.25
= 391.58 W/m2
= 11049.69
≈ 11.049 kW/m2 Hence, the correct answer is 391.58.
Hence, the correct answer is 10.9–11.2.
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CHapter 5 Heat exCHanger, Boiling and Condensation
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 5. Outlet temperature of hot water
1. Q = mw Cp (Tc - Tc ) Th = Th (e (Th - Tc ))
o i i
w
= 100 × 0.8(100 - 20) = 36°C.
2 1
= mo Cp (Th - Th )
o 1 2
= mw × 4.18(80 - 20) = 0.8 × 2.5 × (120 - 40) Hence, the correct option is (B).
160 6. Outlet temperature of cold water

= mω = = 0.638 kg/s.
250.8 Cmin
Tco = Tci + ε (Thi − Tci )
Hence, the correct option is (B). Cmax
UA UA = 20 + 0.8 × 0.5 × (100 - 20)

2. NTU = =
Cmin m0 × C po = 52°C.
1600 × A Hence, the correct option is (D).
4=
0.8 × 2.5 × 1000 7. The correct option is (D).
A = 5 m2. 8. Here mhCh = 1030 × 5.25
3. Effectiveness of heat exchanger mcCc = 4180 × 2 = 8360
Th − Th1 UA 200 × 32.5
= 2 NTU = =
Th1 − Tc1 mhCh 5405.7
120 − 40 Since mhCh= Cmin = 1.2.
= = 0.8.
120 − 20 Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 9. Ch = mh Cph = heat capacity Cph = 3.3
4. Tci = 20°C mh = 2.5 kg/s
20000
Thi = 100°C, mc = 5 kg/s, A = 23m2, =
mh = 5.56 kg/s
3600
U = 1000W/m2K
Thi = 60°C
Chot = mhCph = 2.5 × 4200 = 10500 W/K
Ccool = mc Cp c = 5 × 4200 = 21000 W/K 50000
=
mC = 13.88
3600
Comparing of the two heat capacities = Chot = Cmin
Cmin 10500 Ch = mhCph = 18.35 kJ/K
= = 0.5
Cmax 21000 Cc = mcCpc = 13.88 × 4.186
= 58.14 kJ/K
Number of transfer units
Since Ch < Cc
AU 1000 × 23
= = 2.19 Cmin = Ch = 18.35
Cmin 10500
UA 1050 × 10
Effectiveness of heat exchanger in counter flow NTU = = = 0.572
Cmin 18.35 × 1000
1 − e − NTU (1 − c)
ε= Cmin 18.35
1 − Ce − NTU (1 − c) =R = = 0.316
Cmax 58.14
1 − e −2.19 (1 − 0.5)
= Effectiveness/parallel flow
1 − 0.5 × e −2.19 (1 − 0.5)
1 − e − NTU (1 + R)
= 0.8 ε=
(1 + R)
Heat transfer Q = e Cmin (Th - Tc ) i i
= 0.8 × 10500 × (100 - 20) 1 − e − 0.572(1 + 0.316)

= = 0.402.
= 672 × 103W = 672 KW. (1 + 0.316)
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5.42 | Heat Transfer Chapter 5 • Heat Exchanger, Boiling and Condensation | 3.271
10. Th = outlet temperature of chemical and Tc = out let

0 o
= 0.01825
temperature of water U0 = 54.8 W/m2°C
Ch (Th1 − Th0 ) Q = Uo As (LMTD)
ε=
Cmin (Th1a − Tc1 ) = Uo (p doL) LMTD
6
100 − Th0 833.3 = 54.8 × π × × Li × 127.3
= 0.402 = 100
100 − 30
833.3 × 100
or Th = 71.8°C L= = 0.633 m
0 54.8 × 6π × 127.3
11. From energy balance on the hot oil and cold (water 14. Heat lost by hot fluid = Heat gained by cold fluid
fluids)
mh. Cp (Th - Th )
mcCc (Tc – Tc ) = mhch (th - th ) h 1 0
2 1 2 1
= mc Cpc(Tc - Tc )
mh ch Tc2 − Tc1 60 − 25
o 1
= = = 0.5 10 × 4.18 (70 - 50) = 25 × 4.18 (Tc - 25)

mc Cc Th2 − Th1 150 − 80
0
10 × 20
Tc0 = 25 + = 25 + 8 = 33°C
Apparently hot fluid has minimum thermal capacity 25
C θ − θ0 45 − 17 28
and min = 0.5 LMTD = i = = = 28.8°C
Cmax θ  45 0.973
log  i  log e
Ch (Th1 − Th2 ) 17
Effectiveness ε =  θ0 
Cmin (Th1 − Tc1 ) hi ho 60 × 60
U= = = 30 W/m 2 °C
150 − 80 hi + ho 60 + 60
= = .0.56.
150 − 25 Q = mh Cp (Th - Th ) = UAs (LMTD)
h 1 0

× 4.18 × 1000 × (70 − 50)
12. In terms of capacity ratio and number of transfer units 60
1 − e − NTU (1+ R ) = 30 × As × 28.8
10 × 4.18 × 1000(70 − 50)
1+ R As =
60 × 30 × 28.8
1 − e − NTU (1.5)
0.56 = = 16.1 m2
1.5
∴ NTU = 1.221
1 − e1− NTU (1− R )
Hence, the correct option is (B). 15. ε =
1 − Re − NTU (1− R )
3000 × 1000 R = 0.25, NTU = 2.5
13. Q = = 833.3 W
3600 1 − e −2.5(.75)
ε= = 0.88
(Th1 − Tc1 ) − (Tho − Tc1 ) 1 − 0.25e −2.5( 0.75)
(LMTD) parallel = (Th1 − Tc1 )
log 16. DT1 = (70 – 50)
(Th0 − Tc0 )
DT1 = 20°C
(300 − 40) − (150 − 100)
= DT2 = (40 – 30) = 10°C
(300 − 40) 70°C
log e
(150 − 100)
50°C
40°C
260 − 50 210
= = 127.3°C 30°C
260 260
log e log e
50 50
∆T1 − ∆T2 20 − 10
1 1 d 1 1 6 1 LMTD = = = 14.43°C
= + 0⋅ = + ⋅  ∆T1   20 
U 0 h0 d1 h1 160 5 100 In   In  10 
 ∆T2   
= 0.00625 + 0.012 Hence, the correct option is (B).
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17. The correct option is (D). 19. Ch= M1 Cr = 1 × 1 = 1 kJ/ks

∆T1 + ∆T2 Cc = M2C2 = 1 × 4 = 4 kJ/ks
18. AMTD = Since Cc > Ch
2
∆T1 − ∆T2 Th = Tc
LMTD =
2 1
∆T For, maximum heat transfer rate

n 1
∆T2 Ch (Th1 − Th2 )
ε=
5 Ch (Th1 − Tc1 )
Given AMTD = LMTD + LMTD ×
100 ( 420 − Th2 )
∆T1 + ∆T2 ∆T1 − ∆T2 0.75 =
= × 1.05 ( 420 − 20)
2 ∆T
ln 1 Th = 120°C
∆T2 2
Heat transfer rate = 1 × (420 - 120)

 ∆T1   ∆T1  = 300 kW.
 + 1  − 1
∆T ∆ T
∆T2  2  = ∆T  2  × 1.05 Hence, the correct option is (B).
2
2
∆T1 20. By energy balance
ln
∆T2 Ch (Th - Th ) = (Tc - Tc ) Cc, 1 × 30 = 4(To - 20)
1 2 2 1 2
∆T1 300
= 2.2. + 20 = To 2
∆T2 4
Hence, the correct option is (B). Tc = 95°C.
2
Practice Problems 2 Since Chc, therefore effectiveness

1. 56°C C pc (Tc 0 − Tc1 )
ε=
C ph (Th1 − Tci )
75°C 45°C
(Tc 0 − 20)
0.75 = 4 = Tco = 95°C
25°C 1× ( 420 − 20)
Effectiveness of heat exchanger Exit temperature of fluid B 95°C
Heat transfered Hence, the correct option is (B).
=
Max possible Heat Transfer 3. Heat transfer rate
Q = Ce = (Tc = Tc ) = 4(95 – 20) = 300 kW
ms(56 − 25) 31 0 i
= = = 0.62. Hence, the correct option is (B).

ms(75 − 25) 50
4. Th 95°1 65°
Th0
2. Th1 = 420°C 3d 5
Tc 0 = 60
Tc0 Tc 1 30
Th0
Tc 1 = 20°C For both fluid, Cp = 4.2 kJ/kgk

Heat loss by hot fluid
Gives Th = 400°C Tc = 20°C. Since mass flow rate of
i i
Q = mh Cph (Th – Th ) i 0
fluid A and B are equal

40, 000 × 4200(95 − 65) × 10 −3
Mh = mc = 1 kg/sec = = 1400 kW
3600
For fluid A, Ch = mh Cph = 1 × 1 = 1 kJ/K Since flow rate and specific heat are the same
For fluid B, Ce = mcc pc = 1 × 4 = 4 kJ/K Th - Th = Tc - Tc
1 2 2 1
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95 - 65 = Tc - Tc 2 1
Now Q = AU (DTm)
30 + 30 = Tc 660000
2
A= = 20.33 m 2 .
θ −θ (Th − Tci ) − (Th0 − Tc0 ) 100 × 324.7
LMTD = 1 0 = i
θ (Th − Tc1 ) Hence, the correct option is (B).
Cn 1 ln 1
θ0 Tho − co
UA 100 × 20.33
(95 − 30) − (65 − 60) 7. NTU = = = 0.462.
= = 234. Cmin 4400
 65 
ln   Hence, the correct option is (A).
 5 
8. When hot fluid has minimum heat capacity there
Thi − Th2
5. Heat transfer area required A is given by Q = uA Effectiveness ε =
(LMTD) Thi − Tci
1400 × 103 = 2270 × A × 23.4 105 − 30
= = 0.833.
A = 26.3 m2. 105 − 20
6. Th = 850°C
1
9. The mass flow rate of water can be determined from an
Tc 0 = 500°C Th energy balance on the two fluids, as heat lost by oil =
0
heat gained by water
Tc = 400°C mhCh (Th – Th ) = mc Cc (Tc – Tc )
1
i 2 2 1
Hot gas entering temperature 850°C 2000 × 2.5 (105 – 30) = mc × 4.18 (70 – 20)
Mass flow rate, mh = 4 kg/sec 2000 × 2.5 × 75
mc = = 1794.3 kg/h
Mc = 6 kg/sec 4.18 × 50
Overall heat transfer coefficient = U = 100 W/m2 kK Thermal capacity of water stream (coolant)
Specific heats Ccool = mcCc = 1794.3 × 4.18 = 7500 kg/hK
Cph = 1100 J/kg°K Cpc Thermal capacity of the oil (not fluid)
= 1100 J/kg°K, Tc = 400°C i Chot = mh Ch
Tc = 500°C
0
= 2000 × 2.5 = 5000 kJ/h K
Now Cc = mc Cpc = 6 × 1100 = 6600 J/°K
Cm in = 5000 kJ/h K
Ch = mc Cph = 4 × 1100 = 4400 J/K
Cmax = 7500 kJ/h K
Ch < Ce
Cmin = Ch = 4400 J/°K 5000
R = Capacity Ratio
= = 0.667
Since heat lost from hot fluid Heat gain by cold fluid 7500
Mh Cp (Th – Th ) = mc Cp (Tc – Tc )
h i 0 c 0 i
NTU (the number of transfer units can be computed
4 × 1100 (850 – Th ) = 6 × 1100 (500 – 400) from the following expression for effectiveness of
counter flow heat exchanger is
0
= Th = 700°C 0
Q = 6 × 1100 (500 - 400) = 660000 J/sec 1 − e − NTU (1− R )

ε= but R = 0.667
θ1 − θ 0 (Thi − Tc0 )(Th0 − Tc1 ) 1 − Re − NTU (1− R )
LMTD = =
θ1 (Thi Tc0 ) ∴ ε − Rε e − NTU (1− R ) = 1 − e − NTU (1− R )
ln ln
θ0 (Th0 − Tci )
i.e., e − NTU (1− R ) [1 − ε R] = 1 − ε
(850 − 500) − (700 − 400)
=
(850 − 500) 1− ε
ln ∴ e − NTU (1− R ) = but we have effectiveness is 0.833
(700 − 400) 1− ε R
350 − 300 50 1 − 0.833
= = = 324.7 e − NTU (1− 0.667 ) = = 0.4063
350 350 1 − 0.667 × 0.833
ln ln
300 300
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1 θi − θ 0
∴ e NTU ( 0.333) = = 2.461 13. LMTD =
0.4063 θ 
ln  i 
0.9  θ0 
=
NTU = 2.7
0.333 q1 = Th - Tc
i 0
= 350 - 100 = 250

UA 1.5 × A
But NTU = = q2 = Th - Tc = 150 - 50 = 100
Cmin 5000 × 3600 0 i
150 − 100 150

1.5 × 3600 A LMTD = =
2.7 = 250 0.916
5000 ln
100
2.7 × 5000 = LMTD = 163.7°C
∴A= = 2.5 m 2 .
1.5 × 3600
Ua = 54.8 W/min
Hence, the correct option is (B). Q = AUo (LMTD) = (p d0L) U0 (LMTD)
θi − θ o 8000 = p × 6 ×  × 54.8 × 163.7 × 10-2
10. LMTD =
θ   = 4.6 m = 4.7 m.
ln  i 
 θ0  Hence, the correct option is (B).
qi = Th - Tc = 350 - 50 = 300°C 14. Ch = mh C ph =
4
i i × 4.2 × 1000 = 280
q0 = Th - Tc = 150 - 100 = 50°C 60
o 0
8
300 − 50 Cc = mc C pc = × 2.5 × 1000 = 333
LMTD = 60
 300 
ln   Cmin = 280
 50 
Cmax = 333
Cmin 280
Thi 350°C = = 0.84
150°C
Cmax 333
Th0 Effectiveness for the parallel flow
 C 
Tc 0 − 1+ min  NTU
C
100°C 1 − e  max 
ε=
Tci  Cmin 
50°C
1 + 
Length  Cmax 
Effectiveness will be maximum when NTU
LMTD = 140°.
= a (infinite)
1 − e −α 1− 0
11. Overall heat transfer coefficient ε= = = 0.545.
Cmin 1 + 0.84
1+
1 d 1 1 Cmax
= o +
U 0 dt h1 h0 Hence, the correct option is (C).
6 1 1 15. For counter flow
= × + = 0.01825 W/mm  C 
5 100 160 − 1− min  NTU
 Cmax
1− e 
U0 = 54.8 W/m2K. ε=  Cmin 

− 1−
C C
 NTU
Hence, the correct option is (D). 1 − min e  max 
Cmax
12. For length of the tube
Q = Au0 (LMTD) = p (doL) U0 (LMTD) NTU = a for maximum
8000 = p × 6 × L × 54.8 × 140 × 10-2 1 − e −∞ 1 − 0
ε= = =1
L = 5.5 m. 1 − e −∞ 1 − 0
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16. Cpc = 2100 J/kgK 19. Given Nu = 0.664 Re1/2 Pr1/3

Cph = 4200 J/kgK ρ vd vd 3 × 0.4
Re = = = = 6.315 × 10 4
Cc = mc = 3 × 2100 = 6300 µ ν 19 × 10 −6
Ch = mh Cph = 1 × 4200 = 4200 Pr = 0.7
Cmin = 4200 Cmax = 6300 ∴ Nu = 0.664 × (6.315 × 104)1/2 (0.7)1/3
Capacity heat flow = 0.664 × 251.29 × 0.889
Cmin 4200 hL
=
C = = 0.67 = 148.33
Cmax 6300 K
UA 450 × 8 0.025
NTU = = ∴ h= × 148.33 = 9.27 W/m 2 K.
Cmin 4200 0.4
NTU = 0.857.
20. Quantity of heat loss
Q = hA (T2 - T1)
1 − e − (1− c ) NTU = 9.27 × 0.4 × 0.2(90 - 30)
17. ε =
1 − Ce − (1− c ) NTU = 44.5 W.
1 − e − (1−.67 ) 0 .86 Hence, the correct option is (D).
= = 0.495
1 − 0.67e (1− 0.67 ).86 21. If air flows parallel to 20 cm : side,
QActual Ch (Thi − Th0 ) vd 3 × 0.2
ε= = Re = = = 3.157 × 10 4
Cmin (Tco − Tc1 ) Cmin (Thi − Tci ) ν 19 × 10 −6
Pr = 0.7
Cc (Tc0 − Tci )
= ∴ Nu = 0.664 × (3.157 × 104)1/2 (0.7)1/3
Cmin (Thi − Tci ) = 0.664 × 177.67 × 0.889
6300 (Tco − 300) hL
0.495 = × = 104.87
4200 (365 − 300) K
0.025
= Th = 321.45°C. h = 104.87 × = 13.1 W/m 2 K
0.2
Heat loss/sec = hA (T1 - T2)
18. At the given wall temperature, the fluid properties are
= 13.1 × 0.4 × 0.2 (90 - 30) = 62.92 W.
m = 0.0011, e = 10000 kJ/m3, Cp = 0.14 kJ/kJK, n = 1.5
m/s. The inside diameter of the pipe is 3 cm
Given Nu = 0.023 (Re)0.8 (Pr)0.33 22. The correct option is (C).
3 Q 1.5 × 10 −3 × 4
10000 × 1.5 × 23. Velocity of flow = =
ρ vd 100 = 409090 A 60 × π × ( 2 × 10 −2 ) 2
Re = =
µ 0.0011 6 × 10 −3
= = 0.079 m/s
µC p 0.0011× 0.14 × 103 0.0754
Pr = = = 0.0128 vd 0.079 × 0.02
k 12 Re = =
ν 10 −6
∴ Nu = 0.023 (409090)0.8 (0.0128)0.33
= 1.58 × 10-3 × 106 = 1580
= 0.023 × 30864.2 × 0.2373 = 168.48 Pr = 6
hL ∴ Nu = 0.664 (1580)0.5 (6)0.33 = 47.674
= 168.48
k hL
= 47.674
k 12 K
L 168.48 = × 168.48 = 67392 W/m 2 K
d 3 / 100 0.45
∴h = × 47.674
= 67.39 kW/m2K. 0.02
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 1072.6 W/m2K
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24. Since inlet and outlet temperature of water is given, the 27. Latent heat is utilized for heating water
heat absorbed is 600
Heat absorbed by water is × 4.18(50 − 25)
Q = mCp(T2 - T1) = 0.3 × 4187(115 - 15) 60
= 125610 W = 10 × 4.18 × 25
LMTD D T1 = 120 - 15 = 105 Latent heat = 2325 kJ/kg = 1045 kJ/sec
D T2 = 120 - 115 = 5 1045
∴ Steam flow rate = kg/sec
105 − 5 2325
LMTD = = 32.84
105 = 27 kg/mt.
log
Q = LA LMTD 28. LMTD DT1 = 80 - 25 = 55
= 125610 = 800 × A × 32.84 DT2 = 80 - 50 = 30
∴ A = 4.78 m2
55 − 30
∴ pdL = 4.78 ∴ LMTD = = 41.24°C
 55 
2.5 ln  
π× × L = 4.78  30 
100
Q = UA (LMTD) but Q = the heat flow rate for a steam
∴ L = 61 m.
Hence, the correct option is (A). flow rate 27 kg/sec
60
ν d 2.5 × 6 × 10 −2 27
25. Re = = = 0.882 × 10 4 × 2325 × 103 = U (π × 2.5 × 10 −2 × 10 × 12) LMTD
ν 17 × 10 −6 60
Nu = 0.024 (Re)0.8 = 0.024 (0.882 × 104)0.8
27 2325 × 103
= 34.410 ∴U= × = 2.69 kW/m 2 K.
60 388.67
hd
= 34.40 Hence, the correct option is (D).
k
34.4 × 0.0275 UA 2.69 × 103 × π × 2.5 × 10 −2 × 10 × 12
∴ h= = 15.76 W/m 2 K. 29. NTU = =
0.06 Cmin 600
× 4180
1
26. Q = hA (55 - 25) = 0.61; ε = 1 − e − NTU = 1 − 0.61 = 0.456.
e
= 15.76 × p × 0.06 × 1(30)
= 89.12 W. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (D). 30. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Previous Years’ Questions dT = 80°C – 30°C = 50°C

Hot fluid U = 2000 W/m2-K
1. 120°C
120°C θ1 − θ 2
80°C ∆Tm = LMTD =
θ 
ln  1 
Cold fluid  θ2 
q1 = 120°C – 30°C = 90°C
30°C
q2 = 120°C – 80°C = 40°C
S ∴DTm = 61.66°C
q = mCdT = UA DTm 1500
∴ × 4.187 × 103 × 50
1500 3600
= =
m 1500 kg/h kg/sec = 2000 × A × 61.66
3600
⇒ A = 0.707 m2
C = 4.187 × 103 J/kg-K Hence, the correct option is (A).
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2. For parallel flow θ1

Let =r
80°C θ2
θ 2 ( r − 1)
50°C ∴ LMTD = ∆Tm = lim
q1 = 50°C q2 = 10°C r →1 ln( r )
40°C
30°C Solving for limit, we get
DTm = q2 = q1 = (60 – 30) = 30°C
θ1 − θ 2 50 − 10 Hence, the correct option is (B).
LMTD = =
 θ1   50  4. T1 T2
ln   ln  
 θ2   10  (Inside) (Outside)
21°C = T¥1 T¥2 = −23°C
LMTD = 24.85°C
h = 8 W/m2 -K
Here LMTD < 26°C L h = 23 W/m2 -K
For counter flow

(t) To prevent condensation, the inner wall surface tem-
80°C perature should be more than dew point temperature.
q1 = 40°C ∴ T1 = 10.17°C
40°C 50°C
q2 = 20°C q
Heat flux = = h(T∞1 − T1 )
30°C A
q
⇒ = 8[21 − 10.17]
θ1 − θ 2 A
40 − 20
LMTD = = q
θ   40  ⇒ = 86.64 W/m 2
ln  1  ln   A
 θ2   20 
q
LMTD = 28.85°C To find T2 , = h[T2 − T∞2 ]
A
Here LMTD > 26°C 86.64 = 23[T2 + 23]
Hence cross flow is better for given problem. ⇒ T2 = -19.233°C
Hence, the correct option is (D). To determine minimum thickness of wall (L)
3. Given m = 1 kg/sec, m c = 2 kg/sec q (T1 − T2 ) (10.17 + 19.233)
ch = 10 kJ/kgK, cC = 5 kJ/kgK = ⇒ 86.64 =
A L L
T k 1.2
Th1 = 60°C ⇒ L = 0.407 m
Hot fluid Hence, the correct option is (B).
q1
Th 2 5. Th1 = 100°C
Tc = 30°C q2
2
Cold fluid Hot fluid
Tc1 Th
2
Tc 2
L Cold fluid
Tc 1 = 20°C
mhch(Th – Th ) = mccc(Tc – Tc )
1 2 2 1
Here mhch = mccc = 10 kJ/sec-K

Energy balance
∴ (Th – Th ) = (Tc – Tc )
1 2 2 1
mh ch (Th 1 − Th2 ) = mc cc (Tc2 − Tc1 )
or (Th – Tc ) = (Th – Tc )
⇒ (Th1 − Th2 ) = (Th2 − Tc1 )
1 2 2 1
q1 = q2
θ1 − θ 2 {∵ mh = mc /2 and ch = 2cc }
LMTD = ∆Tm = or (Th1 − Th2 ) = (Th2 − Tc1 )
θ 
ln  1 
 θ2  or θ1 = θ 2 {θ1 = Th1 − Tc2 and θ 2 = Th2 − Tc1}
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θ1 − θ 2 1 − exp( −2 × 1.25)
LMTD = = 20°C {Given} ∴∈= = 0.46
 θ1  2
ln  
Maximum heat transfer,
 θ2 
Qmax = Cmin (Th1 − Tc1 )
θ 
θ 2  1 − 1
θ ⇒ Qmin = 4 x (102 – 15) = 348 kW
or LMTD =  2 
θ  Actual heat transfer, Q = ∈ Qmax
ln  1 
Q = 0.46 × 348
 θ2 
Q = 160.08 kW
θ1
Taking =r Q = Cc (Tc – Tc ) ⇒ 160.8 = 4 [Tc – 15]
θ2 2 1 2
⇒ Tc = 55°C
θ 2 ( r − 1)
2
LMTD = Hence, the correct option is (B).

ln( r )
7. In the condenser of a power plant, the steam condenser
θ 2 ( r − 1) is at a temperature of 60°C. The cooling water enters at
LMTD = lim 30°C and leaves at 45°C. The logarithmic mean tem-
r →1 ln( r )
perature difference (LMTD) of the condenser is
By L’Hospital rule
60°C
t
LMTD = q2 = q1 = 20°C
45°C
∴ Th1 − Tc2 = 20°C
⇒ Tc2 = (100 − 20) 30°C
A
⇒ Tc2 = 80°C
Dt1 = 30°C, Dt2 = 15°C
6. Given Tn1 = 102°C ∆T1 − ∆T2 30 − 15
LMTD = = = 21.6°C
 ∆T1   30 
Tn1 = 15°C Ln   Ln 
 ∆T2   15 
Th 1 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Th 2
8. 80°C
Tc 2 mh
Tc 1 tc2 th 2
mc
Parallel flow Heat Exchanger 30°C
.
mh = 1 kg/s
m h = 0.5 kg/s
cp = 4kJ/kg-K
h
m c = 2.09 kg/s
A = 5 m2
U = 1 kW/m2-K hpn = 4 .18 kJ/kg-K
hpc = 1 kJ/kg-K
The heat exchanger is characterized by
Q = mhch (th – th ) = mccc (tc2 − tc1 )
1 − exp( −2 NTU ) 1 2
2 ∈ = 1 − exp( −2 NTU ) ∈ = = 0.5 × 4.18(80 − t h2 ) = 2.09 × 1× (tc2 − 30)

2
Heat capacity rates of the hot and cold fluid are equal. = 80 – th = tC2 – 30
2
(1)
∴ mhcph = mccpc = 1 × 4 = 4 kW/K mc cc (t h1 − t h2 )
Heat transfer, Qh = Qc ε=
mh ch (t h1tc1 )
M h c ph (Th1 − Th2 ) = mc c pc (Tc2 − Tc1 )
80 − t h 2
⇒ (Th1 − Th2 ) = (Tc2 − Tc1 ) 0.8 =
80 − 30
AU 5 × 1 80 − t h 2
NTU = = = 1.25 0.8 =
Cmin 4 50
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80 – th2 = 40 ⇒ Th = 24.72°C
o
Similarly th2 = 40°C q1 = 24.72 - 10 = 14.72°C

tc2 = 70°C q2 = 46 - 38 = 8°C
q1 = 80 – 70 = 10°C θ1 − θ 2 14.72 − 8
LMTD = =
q2 = 40 – 30 = 10°C ln(θ1 / θ 2 )  14.72 
ln  
LMTD = 10°C  8 
Hence, the correct option is (C). = 11.02
9. Hence, the correct option is 10.8 to 11.2.
∆T1 12. Given: do = 2di, P = 20 kW, N = 3000 RPM, τmax =
30 MPa
τ T T × do 2
∆T2 Now = or τmax =
r J π
 d 4 − di4 
32  o
∆T1 = ∆T2 is possible only in the case of a counter flow 2πNT 20 × 60000
and P = ⇒T =
heat exchanger. 60000 2 × π × 3000
Hence, the correct option is (C). ⇒ T = 63.662 N-m
63.662 × ( 2di ) 2
10. 100°C Oil ∴ τmax = 30 × 106 =
π 
50°C
( 2d )4 − di 
32  i
42°C
Water
63.662 × 32
⇒ di = 3
π × 30 × 106 × 15
25°C
⇒ di = 0.01129 m
∴ do = 2di = 2 × 0.01129 = 0.02258 m or do = 22.58 mm
Th = 100°C, Th = 50°C
1 2
Tc = 25°C, Tc = 42°C
1 2
13. Energy balance equation
=m h 1=kg/s, C ph 2130 J/kg K
Energy lost = Energy gained
m c = 1.5 kg/s, C pc = 4178 J/kg K
∴ m1 CP(Tf – T1) = m2 CP (T2 – Tf)
Ch = m h ⋅ c ph = 1× 2130 = 2130 J/kg K 0.4 × 1000 × [Tf – 280] = 0.4 × 1000 × [300 – Tf]
⇒ Tf = 290 K
Cc = m c ⋅ c pc = 1.5 × 4178 = 6267 J/kg K
Ch (Th1 − Th2 ) 14. Throughout condenser, the hot fluid (steam) remains at
Effectiveness = constant temperature. Hence Cmax is ∞ and Cmin is for
Cmin (Th1 − Tc1 )
cold fluid.
100 − 50 Cmin
[∵ Cmin = Ch ] = 0.6667 ∴ =0
100 − 25 Cmax
Hence, the correct option is 0.65 to 0.67. For parallel flow →
11. 1 − exp  − NTU {1 − Cmin Cmax }

46°C = Thi ∈=
1 + [Cmin Cmax ]
38°C = Tco Th0
For counter flow →
Tci = 10°C 1 − exp  − NTU {1 − Cmin Cmax }
∈ = 1− C
{ min Cmax } exp  − NTU {1 − Cmin Cmax }
L
Cmin
∴For = 0, ∈ = 1 – exp(–NTU).
Heat transfer rate = r Qc (Tc - Tc ) o i Cmax
= r Qh(Th - Th ) i o
∴ 19 × (38 - 10) = 25(46 - Th ) o
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Cmin 1 3 1 − exp ( −0T.s5 NTU )

15. R = = = 0.5 =T
Cmax 2 7 1 − 0.5 exp ( −0.5 NTU ) Tco
(Specific heats of cold and hot stream are same)
(NTU)C = 0.637
1 − exp ( − NTU (1 + R ) ) T
∈P = UA ci
1+ R NTU =
Cmin L
Th1 − Th2
80 − 50 Hence,
Also, ∈P.C = = UC the
= Ucorrect
P
answer is 63.5 to 64.
Th1 − Tc1 80 − 10
18. θi =NTU
( 120 −)C80 = 40
AC
°C
3 \
θ0 = 60 − 40 = 20°C
∈P,C =
7
(∈P = ∈C = ∈P,C) ( NTU ) P AP
Thi = 120°C
3 1 − exp ( − NTU × 1.5 ) ⇒
AC
=
0.637
= 0.928
= AP 0.686
7 1.5
Tho = 60°C
(NTU)P = 0.686 Tco = 80°C=
0.93
1 − exp ( − NTU (1 − R ) ) Hence, the correct answer is 0.93.
∈c = 16. Qmax = (∆T)max Cmin Tci = 40°C
fer 1 − R exp ( − NTU (1 − R ) )
3 1 − exp ( −0.5 NTU )
= Now Q = UAθm
7 1 − 0.5 exp ( −0.5 NTU )
where
m are same)
(NTU)C = 0.637
θi − θ0 40 − 20
θm = = = 28.86°C
UA ⎛ θi ⎞ 40
NTU = ln ⎜ ⎟ ln
Cmin ⎝ θ0 ⎠ 20

UC = UP ∴ Q = UA × 28.86
( NTU )C AC ⇒ mc cc (Tc 0 − Tci ) = UA × 28.86
\ =
(∈P = ∈C = ∈P,C) ( NTU ) P AP
⇒ 1.5 × 4.2 × 103 × (80 − 40 ) = UA × 28.86

AC 0.637
⇒ = = 0.928 1.5 × 4.2 × 103 × 40
AP 0.686 ⇒ A=
400 × 28.86
{
U = 400 W/m 2 − k }

= 0.93
⇒ A = 21.83 m 2

) Hence, the correct answer is 0.93.
16. Qmax = (∆T)max Cmin
)) 19.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Thi
Steam
The
17. For a condenser θ2
θ − θ2 Tce
LMTD = 1 θ1
⎛θ ⎞
ln ⎜ 1 ⎟
⎝ θ2 ⎠
Tci
θ1 = TS − Tc1 = 100 − 20 = 80
θ2 = TS − Tc0 = 100 − 50 = 50 Thi = 30°C, Tci = 14°
80 − 50 The = 30°C, Tce = 22°

LMTD = = 63.82
⎛ 80 ⎞ θ1 = Thi – Tci = 16°C
ln ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 50 ⎠
θ2 = The – Tce = 8°C
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Heat transfer θ = UA LMTD

θ −θ 16 − 8
LMTD = 1 2 = θ = 2000 × 50 × 11.54
⎛θ ⎞ ⎛ 16 ⎞
ln ⎜ 1 ⎟ ln ⎜ ⎟
θ
⎝ 2⎠ ⎝ 8 ⎠ = 1.154 MW
LMTD = 11.54°C Hence, the correct answer is 1.154.
Unit 05.indd 52 4/27/2019 12:50:31 PM Z01_

test
Hints/solutions
1. Hence, the correct option is (D). 2π (120 − 25)
=
2. Hence, the correct option is (C). 1 1 17 1
+ ln +
3. Hence, the correct option is (A).  15  72 15  17 
 1000  × 500  1000  × 13
   
596.9
5. Hence, the correct option is (A). =
0.1333 + 1.738 × 10 −3 + 4.525
= 128.09 W/m.
9. Hence, the correct option is (D). 14. When insulation is provided with 13.5mm,
10. Hence, the correct option is (A). r3 = 30.5 mm
T2 − T1 2π (ti − to )
11. T = T1 + ×x q=
L 1 1 r 1 r 1
+ ln 2 + ln 3 +
T −T r1h1 ksteel r1 kins r2  r3 
T = T1 + 2 1 × 0.2  1000  ho
L  
40 − 100
= 100 + × 0.2 2π (120 − 25)
0.3 =
1 1 17 1 r 1
60 × 2 + ln + ln 3 +
= 100 − = 100 − 40 15 72 15 0.3 17 r3
3 × 500 × 13
1000 1000
= 60°C.
596.9
Hence, the correct option is (A). =
r3 76.92
0.1333 + 1.738 × 10 −3 + 3.33 ln +
0.84(1325 − 1200) 17 r3
12. q =
a × 10 −3 596.9
= = 126.95
0.16(1200 − 25) 30.5 79.92
= 0.135 + 3.33 ln +
(320 − a) × 10 −3 17 30.5
Say 127.
0.84 × 125 0.16 × 1175
= = Hence, the correct option is (A).
a 320 − a
a = Thickness of fire brick 15. Mass flow rate of condensation
q 128.09 × 3600
33.6 × 103 = = 0.2 kg/h.
= = 114.7 mm. h fq 2300 × 103
293
13. 34 mm 16. Outer radius of metal tube = 0.01 m
K ins 0.07
=
Critical radius of insulation =
r1 ho 4
= 0.0175 m
r 2¬
= rcr
Critical thickness of insulation
15 mm = rcr - r1 = 0.0175
0.01 = 0.0075 m = 0.75 cm.
17 mm
When pipe is not insulated for unit length
17. r2 = 0.01 + 0.002 = 0.012 m
2π (ti − to )
q= 1 r r 1
1 1 r 1 = 2 ln 2 +
+ ln 2 + U o K ins r1 ho
r1hi K steel r1 r2 h0
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3.282
0.012 0.012 1 21. Surrounding fin in insulated at end

= ln + = 0.2813
0.07 0.01 4 Perimeter = 2 (100 + 5) = 210 mm
Uo = 3.555 W/m2K = 210 × 10-3m
Q = AoUoDt = (2pr2 ) × Uo (to - ti) A = 5 × 100 × 10-6 m2
(2p × 0.012 × 1) × 3.555 (400 - 300) = 500 × 10-6 m2
= 26.8 W/m. height = 50 mm × 10-3m
Hence, the correct option is (B). = 0.05 m
hP
18. r2 = rcr = 0.0175 m Parameter m =
KA
1 0.0175 0.0175 1
= ln + = 0.2813
Uo 0.07 0.01 4 42 × ( 210 × 10 −3 )
= = 9.165 m
210 × 500 × 10 −6
Uo = 2.565 W/m2K
Q = 2p × 0.0175 × 2.565 × 100 qo = excess temperature
= 28.2 W/m 80° - 20° = 60°C
Hence, the correct option is (A). Qtn = hPKAθ o tanh (cm/s)
19. r2 = 0.01 + 0.05 = 0.06 m
42 × 210 × 10 −3 × 210 × 500 × 10 −6
1 0.06 0.06 1
= ln + ×60 tanh(9.165 × 0.05)
U o 0.07 0.01 4
= 24.75 kJ/h.
Uo = 0.56 W/m2K.
22. The temperature at the tip tL is
20. to = 25°C temperature after 5 seconds
t L − 20 1
t(t) = 198°C =
θo cosh( ml )
Environment temperature ta = 200°C
θo 60
density of copper r = 8940 kg/m3 tL = + 20 = + 20
cosh( ml ) cosh(9.165 × 0.05)
Cp = 384. J/kg K, h = 400 W/m2K
= 74.2°C.
k = 390 W/mK
V 4 r d
= π r3 = =
A 3 3 6 U∞ x 3 × 0.28
23. Rex = = (at x = 280 mm)
4π r 2 ν 16.768 × 10 −6
= 5.0 × .104
Volume area ratio of spherical thermo couple. Assuming
lump heat problem. Since Rex < 5 × 105
Flow is laminar
− hA
t (τ ) − tα τ
Boundary layer thickness at x = 0.28 m,
= e ρ cv
to − tα 5x 5 × 0.28
δ= =
198 − 200
− hA
τ Rex 5 × 10 4
= e ρ cv
25 − 200 = 6.261 × 10-3 m
= 0.01142857 = 6.261 mm.
hA h 6 Hence, the correct option is (A).
τ = 4.47164 = × ×τ
ρ cv ρc d 24. Thickness of thermal boundary layer dth
6 hτ 6 × 400 × 5 δ 6.261
d= = δ th = 1
= 1
4.47164 ρ c 4.471× 8940 × 384 ( Pr ) 3
(0.7) 3
= 7.817 × 10-4 = 0.7817 mm. = 7.051 mm .
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Test || 3.283
25. Local convective heat transfer coefficient, hx Q = hA∆t = h (π D 2 )(120 − 30)

1 1
k = 9.634 (p × (0.052) × 90
hx = 0.332 ( Rex ) Pr2 3
x = 6.81 W.
1 1
0.02732 Hence, the correct option is (B).
= 0.332 × × (5 × 10 4 ) 2 × (0.7) 3
0.28 29. % heat loss
= 6.432 W/m2°C. 6.81
Hence, the correct option is (B). × 100 = 11.35%.
60
26. Average convective heat transfer coefficient h Hence, the correct option is (A).
1 1
0.02732 30. L = 500 mm = 0.5 m, width B = 1 m, and
h = 0.664 × (5 × 10 −4 ) 2 × (.7) 3
0.28 ts = 30°C, tsat = 100°C at atmospheric pressure.
= 12.863 W/m2°C. 1
Hence, the correct option is (A).  ( ρ − ρν )k 3 gh fg  4

h = 0.943  ρ 
27. Rate of heat transfer  µ L(tsat − t s ) 
Qconv = hA∆t = 12.863 × (0.28 × 0.28) × (56 - 20) 1
= 36.3 W.  ρ 2 K 3 gh fg  4
= 0.943  
Hence, the correct option is (C).  µ L(t sat − t s ) 
120 + 30
28. Film temperature t f =
2 neglecting ρν , given ρν << ρ )
= 75°C = 348 K h = 0.943
1 1 1
β= = = /K 1
t f + 273 75 + 273 348  (980.3) 2 × (66.4 × 10 −2 )3 × 9.81× 2257 × 103  4
× 
Characteristic length D = 50 mm = 0.05 m  434 × 10 −6 × 0.5 × (100 − 30) 
1 = 4499.3 W/M2°C
9.81× × (120 − 30) × 0.053
β∆tD 3 348
Gr = g = Rate of heat transfer/m width
ν2 ( 20.76 × 10 −6 ) 2
Q = hA∆t = h × ( L × B ) × (t sat − t s )
= 735.847 × 103
hD = 4499.3 × (0.5 × 1) × (100 - 30)
N u = 0.60(Gr Pr )0.25 =
K = 157475 W
0.6 K
h= (Gr Pr )0.25 157475 × 3600
D = = 566.9 × 103 kg/h
100
0.6 × 0.03
= × (735.847 × 103 × 0.697)0.25 = 566.9 × 103 kJ/h.
0.05
= 9.634 W/m2K
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Thermodynamics
Chapter 1
Basic Concepts of
U
n
Thermodynamics and First Law
of Thermodynamics 6.3
Chapter 2
Second Law of
Thermodynamics6.14
Chapter 3 P
roperties of Pure
Substances6.27
i
Chapter 4
Internal Combustion
Engines6.32
Chapter 5 Thermodynamic Cycle 6.36
Chapter 6 Refrigeration and

Air Conditioning 6.52
t
6
Unit 06.indd 1 4/27/2019 4:47:57 PM
6.2 | Thermodynamics
Unit 06.indd
01_Hints 4
36
158
232
286 82 4/27/2019
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12:54:58
12:59:35
13:41:03
13:46:07
14:00:14 M01_
CHapter 1 BasiC ConCepts of tHermodynamiCs
and first law of tHermodynamiCs
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1
∫ δ Q = ∫ δ W
1. Scale T °(x) = 2 (T °C) + 100
150.1
At 27 °C T °(x) = 2 (27) + 100 =
Power developed = 2.5 kW
60
= 154 °x Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 4. During the process 1–2,
2. We know that, Q1–2 = dU + W1 – 2
T2  700 6000 
T2
h2 − h1 = ∫ C p dT = ∫  45 + + 310 = (U2 – U1) + 0
 dT
T1 T1
 T T  (during constant volume process, W = 0)
 1 1
 T  Hence U2 – U1 = 310 kJ
= 45(T2 − T1 ) − 700 × 2  T2 2 − T1 2  + 6000 log  2  ⇒ U2 = 310 + U1 = 310 + 400
   T1 
⇒ U2 = 710 kJ
 1 1
 During the process 2 – 3,
= 45(1000 − 300) − 1400 1000 2 − 300 2 
  Q2–3 = U3 – U2 + W2 – 3
–350 = (U3 – U2) – 100
 1000 
+ 6000n   = 17660 kJ/kg mole ⇒ (U3 – U2) = –250 kJ
 300 
⇒ U3 = –250 + U2 = –250 + 710 = 460 kJ
17660
( h2 − h1 ) = = 551.87 kJ/kg During adiabatic process 3 – 1, Q = 0
32
Also ∫ δ Q = ∫ δ W
–30 = 0 + (–100) + W3–1
3. For process AB,
⇒ W3-1 = 70 kJ
Q = ΔU + W; 220 = 136.3 + W, W = 220.0 – 136.3 =
83.7 kg/min
5.
Similarly for process BC,
0.9 m
– 44.3 = 32 + ΔU; DU = – 76.3 kJ/min
For process CD, Q = – 11.6 – 13.4 = –25.0 kJ/min
For process DE, Q = + 7.0 – 28.8 = –21.8 kJ/min P = 101.325 kPa
For process EF, 30 = –10.0 + ΔU
⇒ ΔU = 40.0 kJ/min
For the cycle ∫ ∆U = 0
\ (ΔU)FA + 136.3 – 76.3 – 13.4 – 28.8 + 40.0 = 0 W1
Sink
⇒ (ΔU)FA = –57.8 kJ/min
Now for process FA, –8.8 + W = –57.8 W
⇒ W = 49.0 kJ/min
Work done by the stirring device upon the system
The table is reproduced below with values for blank
spaces W1 = 2p NT = 2p × 1.5 × 12,000 = 113.09 kJ
This is negative work for the system.
Process Q kJ/min W kJ/min ΔU kJ/min
Work done by the system upon the surroundings
AB +220 +83.7 +136.3
BC –44.3 +32.0 –76.3 W2 = (PA) × L
CD –25.0 –11.6 –13.4 π
DE –21.8 7.0 –28.8 = 101.325 × × (1) 2 × 0.9 = 71.622 kJ
EF +30.0 –10.0 +40.0
4
FA –8.8 49.0 –57.8
This is positive work for the system.
Hence, the network transfer for the system
ΣQ = 150.1 ΣW = 150.1 Σ∆U = 0 W = W1 + W2 = –113.09 + 71.622
For a cyclic process, according to the first law of = –41.46 kJ
thermodynamics Hence, the correct option is (B).
4:00:14
3:46:07
3:41:03
2:59:35
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3.288 | Part III • Unit 6 • Thermodynamics
6. The displacement work done by air 10. g = 1.67, M = 40; P1 = 2 Mpa, T1 = 300 K
Wd = ∫ PdV + ∫free-air PdV P2 = 0.4 Mpa, T2 = ?
Bottle
boundary
Universal gas constant (Ro) = 8.314 kJ/mole K
= 0 + PΔV
Characteristic constant
= 101.325 kN/m2 × 0.8 m3 = 81.06 kJ
Ro 8.314
Hence, the correct option is (D). (R) == = 0.20785 kJ/kg K
M 40
1
1 1 − P2V2
PV mR(T1 − T2 )
Work done = =
γ γ −1
P γ −1 1.67 −1
T2  P2  γ
 0.4  1.67
PV 1.3 = C
=   0.2  = 1.32
T1  p1   
3 2 T2 = (300) × 1.32 = 396.18 K
0.20785 × (300 − 396.18)
V Work done =
1.67 − 1
7. P1 = 25 atm = –29.83 kJ/kg
= 25 × 1.01325 Hence, the correct option is (D).
= 25.33125 bar 11. Work done = Area of network diagram ABCD
V1 = 0.05 m3 ; V2 = 2V1 = 0.1 m3 = Area of Δle ABE + Area of rectangle BCDE
n 1.3
V  1 1
P2 =  1  ⋅ P1 =   × 25.33125 = ( AE ) × CD + BC × CD
 V2  2 2
= 10.287 bar From the figure
PV − P V 100[25.33 × 0.05 − 10.287 × 0.1] CD = V2 – V1 = AI
W1 − 2 = 1 1 2 2 =
n −1 0.3 = (0.25) × 0.35 = 0.0875 m3
100[1.266 − 1.0287] 1
= = 79.26 kJ Work done = (1500) × 0.0875 + 200 × 0.0875
0.3 2
= 65.625 + 17.5 = 83.125 kJ
W2-3 = P2(V2 – V1) = –100(10.287) (0.1 – 0.05)
⇒ W2-3 = –51.435
12. Heat loss Q = 0
Work in the cycle = 79.26 – 51.435 = 27.825 kJ
Work done W = 0
If nozzle is horizontal Z1 = Z2
8. m1 = 0.25 u1 = 300 kJ/kg
Enthalpies are h1 = 3022 kJ/kg, h2 = 2788 kJ/kg
m2 = 0.75 u2 = 400 kJ/kg
Velocity C1 = 61 m/s
U(m1+ m2) = m1 u1 + m2 u2
According to SFEE
m1u1 + m2 u2 (0.25)(300) + (0.75)( 400) C2 C2
⇒ U= = h1 + 1 = h2 + 2
( m1 + m2 ) 0.25 + 0.75 2 2
(61) 2 C2
0.25 kg ⇒ (1000 × 3022) + = (1000 × 2788) + 2
2 2
300 kJ/kg
⇒ C2 = 686.82 m/s
0.75 kg
400 kg
13. The rate of flow,
\ U = 375 kJ/kg
velocity of flow
Hence, the correct option is (A). m = Area of cross – section ×
specific volume
9. Mc(ΔT) = mgh
9.81× 5 × 1000 929 × 10 −4 × 61
∆T = = 50.05 K m= = 30.14 kg/s
0.98 × 1000 0.188
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Chapter 1 • Basic Concepts of Thermodynamics and First Law of Thermodynamics | 3.289
14. For steady flow conditions, mx V2 = A2 C2 = 18.39 m/s

m × V2 Exit velocity 18.39
A2 = Velocity ratio = = = 1.2
C2 Inlet velocity 17.68
30.14 × 0.6 Hence, the correct option is (C).
⇒ A2 = = 0.02633 m 2
686.82
= 263.33 cm2 18.
1
Q
15. Suction V1 = 12 m3; P1 = 1.0 bar Turbine
V1 = 0.32 m3/kg Shaft
P2 = 6.0 bar, V2 = 0.15 m3/kg Work
2
Volume of air at discharge V2 = mass flow rate x spe-
cific volume
volume at suction Neglecting potential energy changes, the SFEE
Mass flow rate of air =
specific volume C12 C2
(U1 + PV
1 1) + + q = (U 2 + P2V2 ) + 2 + W
12 Z Z
= = 37.5 kg/min
0.32
U1 = 2800 kJ/kg C1 = 120 m/s
= 0.625 kg/s
U2 = 2893 kJ/kg C2 = 200 m/s
Volume of air at discharge V2 = 37.5 × 0.15 = 5.625 m3
P1 = 18.5 bar J1 = 0.21 m3/kg
\ Change in flow work between the boundaries
P2 = 0.5 bar J2 = 15.5 m3/kg1
P2 V2 – P1 V1 = (6 × 5.625 – 1 × 12) × 100
= 2175 kJ (120) 2
( 2800) + 18.5 × 100 × 0.21 + – 37.6
Hence, the correct option is (A). 2 × 1000
16. Mass flow rate of air = 0.625 kg/s ( 200) 2
= 2093 + 0.1 × 100 × 15.5 + + 10
Hence, the correct option is (B). 2 × 1000
volume at suction
17. Velocity at entrance = ⇒ 2800 + 388.5 + 7.2 – 37.6 = 2093 + 155 + 20 + W
area of suction pipe
\ W = 890.1 kJ/kg
12 Shaft work output = 890.1 kJ/kg
= = 1061 m/min
π Hence, the correct option is (C).
(0.120) 2
4
= 17.68 m/s power/hour 120 × 3600
19. Steam flow rate = =
volume at exit shaft work per kg 890.1
Velocity at exit =
area of discharge pipe = 485.33 kg/h
5.625
= = 1103.47 m/min
π 20. T2 = gT1 = (1.4) 500 = 700 K
× (0.075) 2
Practice Problems 2 2. P
P1 n
1. Scale T°(V) = 2(T°C) + 1000
At 30°C, T°(V) = 20(30) + 1000
= 600 + 1000 = 1600°(V) P2
n >g n = g n <g n = 1
V
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Governing law of thermodynamic process is PVn = c. 6. Net heat transfer SQ = –340 kJ/cycle
Where n is the value of index which always increases in = –340 × 200 kJ/min
clockwise direction. = – 68000 kJ/min
\ Maximum work will develop in isothermal pro- For process 1 – 2:
cess. Hence, c < b < d < a
dQ = du + dW
⇒ 0 = 4340 + dW
3. Work done = ∫ PdV
\ dW = –4340
0.4  4  Process 2 – 3:
= ∫ 3+ 2  dV × 10
2
0.1
 v  dQ = du + dW
0.4
  1  ⇒ 42,000 = 0 + dW
= 3v + 4  −   × 10 2
  V   0.1 \ dW = 42,000 kJ/min
Process 3 – 4:
  1 1 
= 3(0.4 − 0.1) − 4  −   × 10
2
–4200= (–73200) + dW
  0 .4 0 .1  
= 0.9 + 30 = 30.9 × 102 ⇒ dW = 69,000 kJ/min
Process 4 – 1:
(dQ)4-1 = (du) 4-1 + (dW) 4-1
4. Since the container is insulated,
SQ = Q1-2 + Q2-3 + Q3-4 + Q4-1 = –68,000
dQ = 0
Q4-1 = –68,000 + 4200 – 42,000
dU = I2R
= –1,05,800 kJ/min
= (10)2 × 25
but (Sw) cycle = (SQ) cycle
= 100 × 25 = 2.5 kW
4340 + 0 + 69,000 + W4-1
dQ = du + dW
= 0 + 4,2000 – 4200 – 1,05,800
0 = 2.5 + dW
⇒ w4-1 = –141340 kJ/min
dW = –2.5 kW
\ Q 4-1 = (du)4-1 = W4-1
(dU)4-1 = Q4-1 – W4-1 = –1,05,800 + 1,41,340
= 35,540 kJ/min
7. Net work transfer (Sw) cycle = (SQ) cycle
= –68,000 kJ/min
Hence, the correct option is (B). = – 1133.3 kW
5. PVn = C Hence, the correct option is (B).
where n = index of the process
8. According SFEE.
a. When n = ∞, PV∞ = C
C12 C2
 ∞1  h1 + + Z1 g + q = h2 + 2 + Z 2 g + W
P V  =C 2 2
 
C12 C2
V = C, i.e., constant volume process h1 + = h2 + 2
2 2
b. When n = 1.4; Pug = cj; adiabatic process
c. When n = 1.0; PV = c; isothermal process C12 C2
C pT1 + = C pT2 + 2
d. When n = 0; PV0 = C ; P = C, i.e., constant pressure 2 2
process
150 2 C2
Hence a – 4 (1.005)(500) + = 1.005 × 510 + 2
2000 2000
b–3
C2 = 48.9 m/s
c–2
Since velocity is decreased it is diffuser.
d–1
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9. (160) 2
3500 × 103 + + 9.81× 12
Process 3 – 1: Process 2 – 3: 2
P1 × V1 = P3 × V3 P2 × V2n = P3 × V3n (100) 2

= 2500 × 103 + + 9.81× 5 + W
2
PV 4 P 
V3 = 1 1
= × 1 = 4 m3 V2n =  3  × V3n W = 3512917.72 – 2505049.05
P3 1  P2  = 1007868.67 = 1007.868 kJ/kg
1 The power output of the turbine = mass flow rate x
 P 1.4 work done
V2 =  3  × V3
 P2  = 15 × 1007.868 kJs = 15.11 MW
1
 1 1.4 13.
V2 =   × 4 T
4
1 P = 5 Mpa
= 1.486 m3 1
4
10. According to first law of thermodynamics
3 2 P2 = 65 Mpa
∫ δ Q = ∫ δW S
= W1-2 + W2–3 + W3–1 h1+ q = h2 + WT
P2V2 − PV V  ⇒ 3500 = 2500 + WT
= P2 (V2 − V1 ) + 3 3
+ p1v1 log  1  ⇒ WT = 3500 – 2500 = 1000 kJ/kg
n −1  V3 
The specific work supplied to the pump is
400 × 1.486 − 100 × 4 1
= 400(1.486 − 1) + + 400 × 1n   Wp = ∫ VdP = V ( P1 − P2 )
0.4 4
= 194 – 41 kJ + 486 kJ – 554.51 kJ P1 − P2 5000 − 65
= = = 4.935 kJ/kg
= 126 kJ ρ 1000
11. 14.
γ γ
1 1 = P2V2
PV
1 1 = mRT
PV P 1 = 0.8 Bar
T 1 = 67° C Diffuser P 2 = 1.5 Bar
 P2  γ  m  P1 C 1 = 220 m/s A 2 = 0.6 m 2
ρ 2γ =   × ρ1  = A 1 = 0.4 m2
 P1   V1  RT
1
 P 2 3 × 105 Mass flow rate m = r1A1C1 = r2A2C2
ρ2 =  2  ρ1 =
 P1  0.287 × 1000 × 400 For ideal gas PV = mRT
= 2.6132 Kg/m3 m P 0.8 × 100

ρ1 =   = = = 0.8198 kg/m3
 v  RT 0.287 × 340
1
 50 1.4 m = r1 A1 C1 = 0.8198 × 0.4 × 220 = 72.14 kg/s
ρ2 =   × 2.6132 = 0.7266 kg/m
3
 300  Hence, the correct option is (D).

γ −1 1.4 −1
T P  γ
 1.5  1.4
15. 2 =  2  =  = 1.1967
12. Applying steady flow energy equation (SFEE) T1  P1   0.8 
V12 V2 T2 = 406.89 K
h1 + + gz1 + q = h2 + 2 + gz2 + W
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du  du   dm 
16. = 0=
, W 0, me he = 0 ⇒   =  hi
dt  dt Cv  dt Cv
du ⇒ (dU)C = (dm)C
= mi hi + Q − me he = W v v
dt ⇒ U2 – U1 = (m2 – m1) hi
0 = mhi + Q \ m2 u2 = m2 hi
⇒ mhi = –Q = –(–2500) = 2500 As the tank is initially evacuated m1 = 0
2500 \ m2 = U2 = m2 hi
=m = 0.7649 kg
3268 U2 = hi
Hence, the correct option is (D). For ideal gas CvT2 = CpTi
17. For unsteady flow process T2 = Ti = (1.4) × 400 = 560 K
 du  Hence, the correct option is (A).
 dt  = mi hi = Q − me he − W Cp
 C v
35. Given: Cv = 5 cal/mol °K and = 1.4
Q = 0 as the vessel is insulated Cv
W = 0, expansion against vacuum ⇒ Cp = 1.4Cv and Cp – Cv = 1.4Cv – Cv
me = 0; no mass crossing the vessel ⇒ Cp – Cv = 0.4Cv = 0.4 × 5
 du  ⇒ Cp – Cv = 2 cal/mol °K
∴   = mi hi Hence, the correct option is (B).
 dt Cv
Previous Years’ Questions Because volume of room is constant

1. Work required, dW = –5000 kJ Q = m Cv(T2 – T1)
Heat interaction, dQ = –2000 kJ Density of air, r = 1.2 kg/m3
1st law of thermodynamics: Volume of room, V = (2.5 × 3 × 3) = 22.5 m3
dQ = dW + dU Mass of air, m = r × V = (1.2 × 22.5) kg = 27 kg
dU = dQ - dW Cv or air = 718 J/kg K
= –2000 – (–5000) \ 8640000 = 27 × 718 × (T2 – 20)
= 3000 kJ ⇒ T2 = 465.7 K
Hence, the correct option is (C). Most appropriate option is (D).
2. For isothermal process Hence, the correct option is (D).
4. Both heat and work are inexact differential and it is
 a   a 
 P1 + 2  V1 =  P2 + 2  V2 depend on the path, i.e., work or heat involved in any
 V1   V2  process of a system (changing from state 1 to state 2)
depends on the path it follows.
PV a a
⇒ P2 = 1 1
+ −
V2 V1V2 V22 Work Heat
10 × 1   1 1
⇒ P2 =   +a − 2 System System
 2  1 × 2 2 
a
⇒ P2 = 5 + and a > 0 Work Heat
4 (negative) (positive)
Therefore, the final pressure will be slightly more than
5 bar. Both work and heat are boundary phenomenon.
3. At the end of 24 hours, heat liberated by bulb, 5. Given:
Q = 100 × 24 × 3600 J P1 = (1 + 1.013) bar (absolute)
= 86,40,000 J = 2.013 × 105 Pa
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T1 = (15 + 273) = 288 K \ T2 > 350°C

T2 = (5 + 273) = 278 K Hence, the correct option is (A).
Volume = Constant = 2500 × 10-6 m3 10. W = − ∫
outlet
VdP is valid for any reversible process.
inlet
Volume is constant therefore dW = 0
First law of thermodynamics
11. Given: P1 = 0.08 MPa, V1 = 0.015 m3
dQ = dU ⇒ dQ = mCv dT
V2 = 0.03 m3
Now, P1V1 = mRT1
Process: PV = constant
201.3 × 2500 × 10 −6
⇒ m= = 6.088 × 10 −3 Work output = P1 V1
0.287 × 288
V2 0.03
\ dQ = 6.088 × 10–3 × 0.718 × (10) kJ ln = 800 × 0.015 × ln
V1 0.015
⇒ dQ = 43.7 J
= 8.32 kJ
Now, V = C
P P PT Hence, the correct option is (A).
∴ 1 = 2 ⇒ P2 = 1 2 12. Reversible steady flow process
T1 T2 T1
Specific work required (W)
2.013 × 278
⇒ P2 = = 1.943 bar W = ∫ VdP
288
or P2 = 0.943 bar (gauge) P
2
6. V = constant
P1 P2 2.013 × 288 1
= ⇒ P1 =
T1 T2 278
{ P2 = 1 bar (gauge) or 2.013 bar (absolute)} V2 V1 V
\ P1 = 2.0854 bar (absolute)

or P1 = 1.072 bar (gauge)
13. Given: ga =1.67; M = 40
P1 = 0.1 MPa, T1 = 300 K
7. For a reversible process undergone by a closed system
P2 = 0.2 MPa
dW = PdV
Process PVg = constant
First law of thermodynamics, dQ = dU + PdV
R 8.314
Hence, the correct option is (D). R= = ⇒ R = 0.20785 kJ/mol-K
M 40
8. The balloon containing an ideal gas ruptured and the
gas filled the evacuated and insulated room. It is a case 1 1 − P2V2
PV MR(T1 − T2 )
WD = =
of free expansion process. γ −1 γ −1
dW = 0 (Free expansion → evacuated room) γ −1 0.67
dQ = 0 (Insulated room) T P  γ
 0.2  1.67
Now, 2 =  2  ⇒ T2 = 300 ×  
First law of thermodynamics T1  P1   0.1 
dQ = dW + dU ⇒ dU = 0
⇒ T2 = 396.181 K
or U1 = U2
0.20785 × (300 − 396.181)
or T1 = T2 (Ideal gas) ∴ WD =
(0.67)
U = f(T) and h = f(T) for an ideal gas
\ h1 = h2 WD = 29.7 kJ/kg (Compression)
9. Final temperature inside the tank, T2 = gT1 14. Heat and work are dependent on path and are called
⇒ T2 = 1.4 × (350 + 273) path functions.
⇒ T2 = 872.2 K ⇒ T2 = 599.2 °C Hence, the correct option is (D).
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15. W = I2R P2 100

ρ2 = =
= 102 × 23 = 2300 W = 2.3 kW RT2 0.287 × 484
W = –2.3 kW, = 0.72 kg/m3
Q=0 2.09 × 80 × 10 = 0.72 × A2 × 180
Q = W + ΔU 2.09 × 80 × 10
A2 =
ΔU = 2.3 kW 0.72 × 180
I A2 = 12.9 cm2
18. Volume V1 = 5 m3, Pressure P1 = 1 bar
P2 = 5 bar
Hence, the correct option is (A).  V2   V2 
Work done = PV 1 1 ln   = 100 × 5 ln  
16.  V1   V1 
Q=0 But P1 V1 = P2 V2
2
1 PV 5 ×1
V2 = 1 1
= = 1 m3
P2 5
1
\ Work done = 500 ln   = −804.7 kJ
P1 = 300 kPa P2 = 100 kPa 5
T1 = 500 K V2 = 180 m/s Negative sign shows that work is required for the
V1 = 10 m/s process.
a1 = 80 cm2 Hence, the correct option is (A).
CP = 1008 J/kgK 19. d = 10 m
T2 = ?
V12 V2
h1 + = h2 + 2
2 2
V22 V12
⇒ h1 − h2 = −
2 2
180 2 10 2 10
C P (T1 − T2 ) = = Radius, =
r = 5m
2 2 2
⇒ 1008 (500 – T2) = 16200 – 50 = 16150 4 4
Volume of balloon, V = π r 3 = × π × 53 = 523.6 m3
16150 3 3
⇒ 500 − T2 = T = 15 °C = 288 K, P = 100 kPa
1008
PV
⇒ 500 – T2 = 16 m=
RT
⇒ T2 = 500 – 16
100 × 523.6
= 484 K Mass of helium, mH =
2.08 × 288
= 87.41 kg
17. r1 A1 V1 = r2 A2 V2
100 × 523.6
P1 V1 = m R T1 Mass displaced air, ma =
0.289 × 288
P1 = r1 R T1
= 629.1 kg
P1 Let Wb be the weight of balloon material and rope.
ρ1 =
RT1 For equilibrium Wb + mH × g = ma × g
300 or Wb + 87.41 × 9.81 = 629.1 × 9.81
=
0.287 × 500 ⇒ Wb = 5314 N
r1 = 2.09 kg/m3 Hence, the correct option is (5300 to 5330).
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Chapter 1 • Basic Concepts of Thermodynamics and First Law of Thermodynamics
6.11
1 2 For ideal gas, u = f (T)

20. P
∴ mCv(T2 – T) = 628.318
PV 100 ×1
3 P1V1 = mRT1 ⇒ T1 = 1 1 ⇒ T1 =
V
mR 1× ( C P − CV )
PV PV 100
1 1
= 2 2 ⇒ T1 = = 500 K
T1 T2 0.2
But P1 = P2 ∴ 1 × 0.8 × (T2 – 500) = 628.318
⇒ T2 = 1285.4 K
V1 V2 V3
So = = [∵ V2 = V3 ] Hence, the correct answer is 1283.4 to 1287.4.
T1 T2 T2
 a
 3T1  24.  p + 2  (ν − b ) = RT
 4   ν 
V T
⇒ 3 = 2 =  = 0.75 SI Units:
Vl T1 T1
p = kN/m2, ν = m3/kg
Hence, the correct option is (B). T = k, R = kJ/kg-K
21. For ideal gas, enthalpy is the function of temperature. a (ν − b )
Now p(ν – b) + = RT
h = f (T) ν2
Hence for calculation of specific enthalpy, it is suffi-
⇒ 2 ×
3
kN  m3  a m kg kJ ( )
cient to know only the temperature. + 3 = ×K
(
kg − K )
2
m  kg  m kg
22. Given: a
∴ The unit of should be equal to kJ/kg
V = 2 m3, T = 288 K (m 3
kg )
Gauge pressure, Pg = 70 cm of mercury or a kJ a kN − m
Pg = (13.6 × 0.70 × 9.81) kPa = ⇒ 3 =
⇒ Pg = 93.3912 kPa
( m3 kg ) kg (
m kg kg )
Absolute pressure P = (93.3912 + 101.325) kPa kN − m m kN − m 43
⇒a= × =
⇒ P = 194.71 kPa kg kg kg 2
Ro  m  m4 m5
Characteristic gas constant, R = or a =  kg × 2  × 2 ⇒ a =
Molecular weight  s  kg kg − s 2
8.314 Hence, the correct option is (C).
⇒R= ⇒ R = 0.29693 kJ/kg-K
28 25. Given: C1 = 10 m/s, C2 = 20 m/s, z2 – z1 = 20 m, T2 – T1
PV = mRT ⇒ (194.71 × 2) = (m × 0.29693 × 288) =1K
⇒ m = 4.554 kg CV = 100 J/kg-K, g = 10 m/s2, dQ = 0
Hence, the correct answer is 4.4 to 4.6. Assuming compressible fluid with g = 1
23. dQ = 0 [Insulated] CP
∴ = 1 ⇒ CP = 100 J/kg-K
dW = –(2p × 1000 × 100) = 628.318 kJ CV
1st law of thermodynamics SFEE:
dQ = dW + dU  C2 gz   C2 gz 
m  h1 + 1 + 1  = m  h2 + 2 + 2  + δW
⇒ 0 = –628.318 + dU  2000 1000   2000 1000 
⇒ dU = 628.318 kJ  C 2 − C22 g ( z1 − z2 ) 
dW = m C P (T1 − T2 ) + 1 + 
 2000 1000 
W  (2 πNT )J

⇒ δW = 10 0.1( −1) + +
(
10 2 − 20 2 10 ( −20) 

)
 2000 1000 

Ideal gas
V1  1 m3 ⇒ dW = – 4.5 kJ
P1  100 kPa
On the system, dW = 4.5 kJ
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26. 30. u = f (T)

1 where, T is temperature.
Q = 50 kJ/kg
h1 = 2750 kJ/kg
31. For isothermal process, work done,
∼ V2
W = P1 V1 ln V
1
26. 2 h2 = 226 kJ/kg 30. u = f (T) 0.1
1 = 100 × 0.4 ln
where, T is temperature. kJ
Q = 50 kJ/kg 0.4
Neglecting ∆K.E and ∆P.E, SFEE is
h1 = 2750 kJ/kg
Hence, the correct
= –55.45option
kJ is (D).
h1 + Q = h2 + W ⇒ W = (h1 – h2) + Q 31. Hence,
For isothermal process,
the correct work
answer done,to –55.4.
is –55.6
∼ V2
∴ W = (2750 – 226) – 50 = 2717 kJ/kg 32. W = P1 V1 ln V
Hence, the correct answer is 2717. 1
2 h2 = 226 kJ/kg
100 0.1
27. Average molar mass, M = s = 30.233 = 100 × 0.4 ln kJ
60 30 10 0.4
+ + h 1 = 100 kJ/kg
Neglecting ∆K.E and ∆P.E,28 SFEE 32is 44 = –55.45 kJ V 2 = 200 m/s
h1 + Q = h2 + W ⇒ W = (h1 – h2)R+o Q 8314 V 1 = 100 m/s h2 = ?
Hence, the correct answer is –55.6 to –55.4.
Characteristic gas constant, R = =
∴ W = (2750 – 226) – 50 = 2717MkJ/kg 30.233 32.
Hence,
∴ R = 274.99 J/kg–K
the correct answer is 2717.
Hence, the correct answer is 274100to 276.
27. Average molar mass, M = s = 30.233 h1 + V12 /L = h2 + V22 /L
60 30 10
28.= ∫ dW = W1–2 + + h 1 = 100 kJ/kg
28 32 44 V 2 = 200 m/s
100 2 − 200 2
= ∫ dQ = Q1–2 Ro 8314 1 = 100 +
V⇒ 100 m/s = h2 h 2 = ?
Characteristic gas constant, R = = 2000
M 30.233 h2 = 85 kJ/kg
∴ Both
R =work andJ/kg–K
274.99 heat are path function, boundary phe-
nomena and inexact differential. Hence, the correct answer is 85.
Hence, the correct option is (B). P
33. Given 4 = 0 h1 + V12 /L = h2 + V22 /L
29. ∫ dW = W1–2
=
28. P1
2 2
P P 1 = 100
⇒ 100kPa + 100 − 200 = h
= ∫ dQ = Q1–2
For 3-stage compression
2000 2
200 kPa 2
h2 = 85 kJ/kg
Both work and heat are path function, boundary phe- P2 P3 P4
nomena and inexact differential. = the
Hence, =correct= constant
answer is 85.
P1 P2 P3
Hence, the correct option is (B). 1 P4
100 kPa 33. Given =0
P2/P1 = P10 1/3
29. 1
P P3/P
P = 10kPa
= 1100
2/3
1
2 ∴ = P1 ×compression
ForP3-stage
3
102/3
200 kPa
0.1 0.2 V
P2 =P100 ×P102/3
= 3 = 4 = constant
R = 0.275 kJ/kg-K P1 =P464 kPa
P3
2
Work
100done
kPa is area under the curve11, 2 Hence, the correct answer is 460–470.
P2/P1 = 101/3
= 1/2 × 100 × 103 × 0.1 + 100 × 103 × 0.1
= 10=2/3R
34. PC3p/P−1 C
=15000 J v
Hence, the correct answer is 15. ∴ P3 = P1 × 102/3

0.1 0.2 V C p = 2.5 R 2/3+R
= 100 × 10
R = 0.275 kJ/kg-K p = 3kPa
C 464
= .5 × R
Work done is area under the curve 1, 2 Hence,C the p = correct
3.5 × 8.314
answer is 460–470.
= 1/2 × 100 × 103 × 0.1 + 100 × 103 × 0.1 C p = 29.099
=15000 J dh = C p dT = 29.099 × 100
ynamics
Hence, the correct answer is 15. dh = C p dT = 2909.9 J/mol
30. u = f (T)
50 kJ/kg
where, T is temperature. Hence, the correct answer is 2908 to 2911.
Hence, the correct option is (D). 35. Except option (C), all option represents the work done
31. For isothermal process, work done, in the process. As option (A) and option (D) are same,
∼ V2 option (B) can be marked as correct option.
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W = P1 V1 ln V Hence, the correct option is (B).
1
2 = 226 kJ/kg 0.1

= 100 × 0.4 ln kJ
0.4
= –55.45 kJ
Q Hence, the correct answer is –55.6 to –55.4.
/kg Unit 06.indd 1232.
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36. As velocity at inlet and outlet are same so applying 38. The pressure of air inside the cylinder when p iston will
SFEE, begin to move is equal to P0 = P∞ + Pressure due to
piston weight
Energy at inlet = Work produced + Energy loss +
Energy at outlet 25 × 10
P0 = 100 +
100 × 10 −4 × 103
i = 4.6 × 106 + 300 × 103 + mCT
mCT 0
⇒ m × 1000 (1100 − 400 ) = 4.9 × 106 = 100 +25 = 125 kPa
4.9 × 106 Let T0 be the corresponding temperature and the pro-

⇒ m = = 7 kg/s
1000 × 700 cess should be constant volume.
P0 Pi
37. Given data: =
T0 Ti
V = 2.87 m3
T = 300 K P0
∴ T0 = × Ti
Pi
R = 287 J/kg.K
P = 0.5 + 1 = 1.5 bar = 150 kPa 125
T0 = × 673 = 420.625 K
For ideal gas 200
PV 150 × 2.87
PV = mRT ⇒ m = = = 5 kg T0 = 147.625°C
RT 0.287 × 300
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct answer is 147.62.
Unit 06.indd 13 4/27/2019 4:48:10 PM

CHapter 2 seCond law of tHermodynamiCs
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 T1
1. Heat removal from the water Q1
Q2 = mw Cpw (0 - 25°C) + (-335 × 2) + miCpi (-5 - 0) HE W = Q1 − Q 2
= -2 × 4.18 × 25 - 335 × 2 - 2 × 2.09 × 5 h= W
Q2 Q1
= -209 - 670 - 20.9 = -899.9 kJ
T2
COP of a heat pump working as a refrigerator is,
T2 268
COP = = = 8.93 W
T1 − T2 298 − 268 0.328 =
33.33
Minimum work,
W = 10.93 kW
Q2 899.9
Wmin = = = 100.77 kJ Hence, the correct option is (B).
(C.O.P) max 8.93
4. 800 K
Hence, the correct option is (A). 600 K
2. Solar radiation, 2000 kJ/m2.h. Q2 7 kJ
Q1
8 kJ
Heat source Solar collector
T1 = 373 K HE
Q3
Heat engine Wnet = 1 kW
200 K
Atmosphere
Heat sink
T2 = 293 K δQ
\ For reversible engine ∫ T
=0
T2 293 Q1 Q2 Q3
Maximum efficiency η max = 1 − = 1− + − =0
T1 373 T1 T2 T3
The efficiency of any actual heat engine operating
between these temperature limits would be less than 8 7 Q
⇒ + − 3 =0
this efficiency. 600 800 200
wnet
Minimum heat supplied Qmin = Q1 = ⇒ Q3 = 4.41 ≈ 4.5 kJ
nmax
Work done
1 Efficiency (η ) =
= = 4.66 kW = 4.66 × 3600 kJ/h Heat supplied
0.2144
= 16785 kJ/h. Heat Supplied − Heat rejected Q1 + Q2 − Q3
= =
Heat supplied Q1 + Q2
The minimum area required for the solar collector is
16785 8 + 7 − 4.5
Amin = = 8.3925 m 2 . = = 70%
2000 8+7
3.
5. Source T1
Q1 W
η% =  
S. No (kJ/s) Q2 (kJ/s) W (kJ/s)  Q1  Q1
1 25 16.80 8.20 32.8 HE W
2 26.66 17.92 8.75 32.8
3 28.33 19.03 9.30 32.8
Q2 = 0.4 Q1
4 30 20.15 9.85 32.8
5 33.33 ? ? 32.8 Sink T2
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3.298 | Part III • Unit 6 • Thermodynamics Hints/Solutions | 6.15
T2 = 27 + 273 = 300 K
T1
Q2 = 40% of Q1 = 0.4 Q1
Q1
Q Q
For a Cannot engine 1 = 2 HE 1 kW W net
T1 T2
Q2
Q1 0.4Q1
= T2
T1 300
300 Q1 = 1.496 kW
T1 = = 750 K = 477°C
0.4 \ Amount of heat rejected
Hence, the correct option is (B). Q2 = Q1 - W = 1.496 - 1.0 = 0.496 kW
6. W1 = W2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
8. T1 T3
 T   T 
Q1 1 − 2  = Q2 1 − 3  Q1 Q3
 T1   T2 
H.E. H.P.
Q1 Q (T − T ) W
⇒ (T1 − T2 ) = 2 2 3 Q4
T1 T2 Q2
T2 T4
Q Q Solar collector
For reversible engine 1 = 2
T1 T2 Efficiency of the Engine
\ T1 - T2 = T2 - T3 Q2 W
η = 1− =
⇒ 2T2 = T1 + T3 Q1 Q1
⇒ T2 = (T1 + T3)/2 T2 W
1− =
463 + 298 T1 Q1
= = 380.5 K = 107°C
2
 T  W  T2 
W = Q1 1 − 2  ⇒ = 1 −  (1)
 T1  Q1  T1 
T1
Q3 Q3 T3
Q1 COP of heat pump = = =
W Q3 − Q4 T3 − T4
W1
Q2 W + Q4 T3
=
T2 W T3 − T4
Q2 Q4 T3
W2
⇒ 1+ =
W T3 − T4
Q3
Q4 T3 T −T +T
Q2 ⇒ = −1 = 3 3 4
W T3 − T4 T3 − T4
Hence, the correct option is (B). Q4 T4
⇒ = (2)
7. Source temp T1 = 610°C = 610 + 273 = 883 K W T3 − T4
Sink temp T2 = 20 + 273 = 293 K Multiplying (1) and (2)

Q4 W T4 (T − T )
T −T 883 − 293 × = × 1 2
η= 1 2 = = 0.6681 W Q4 (T3 − T4 ) T1
T1 883
Q4 T4  T1 − T2 
⇒ =  
Wnet 1 kw Q1 T1  T3 − T4 
but η = , Q1 =
Q1 η
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6.16 | Thermodynamics Chapter 2 • Second Law of Thermodynamics | 3.299
9. Source 12. According to Clausius inequality

Source 75° C
δQ
Q1 = 100 kW Q4 = ?
for any cyclic process ∫ T
≤0
HE δQ
W = Q1 − Q 2 = 50 kW
HP
∫ T
< 0; process is possible but irreversible
Q3 = ?
Q 2 = 50 K δQ
17° C
∫ T
= 0; process is possible and reversible
Sink
δQ
W = Q1 - Q2 = 50 kW
∫ T
> 0; process is impossible
Q3 T3 δ Q 1130 630
=
Q4 T4
for reversible heat pump ∫ T
= −
565 315
= 0, hence reversible process.

Q3 290
⇒ = 13. The heat transfer Q = 10 × 3600 = kJ
Q4 348
Q3 = 0.833 Q4; Q4 = 1.2 Q3 Q 36000
Change in entropy ( ds) = = = 120.8 kJ/K
T 298
but for heat pump
Q3 + W = Q4
14. The law of compression is P1V11.33 = P2V21.33 P1 = 1.2
⇒ W = Q4 - Q3
bar, P2 = 22 bar T1 = 273 + 25 = 298 K
⇒ 50 kW = (1 - 0.833) Q4 R = CP - GS = 0.287 kJ/kgK
⇒ Q4 = 299.40 K = 300 K
P
Constant
2.2 volume
10. For equal efficiencies of both engines (i.e., η1 = η2)
Polytropic
intermediate temp T2 = T1 × T3 = 973 × 300
PV 1.33 = C
= 540 K
1.2 1
T1 = 973 K 3
Q1
2
E1 W1
P1V1 = MRT1
Q2
1.2 × 105V1
= 4 × 0.287 × 298 V1 = 2.85 m3
1000
Q2 1.33
For polytrophic process  V2  =
P1
E2 W2
 
 V1  P2
Q3 1.33
 V2  1.2
T3 = 300 K  2.5  = = 0.0545
  22
n −1
T P  n
11. For equal work of both engines (i.e., W1 = W2) ⇒ V2 = 0.3199 m ⇒ 2 =  2  3
T1  P1 
T1 + T3 973 + 300 1.33 −1
T2 = =
⇒ T2 =  22 
1.33
2 2 × ( 298) = 613.05 K = 340°C.
= 636.5 K  1.2 
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15. Change of entropy during polytropic compression is 19. For a perfect gas
V  PV = RT, du = Cv . dT
S2 − S1 = m(C p − nC y ) log e  1 =4 Tds = du + pdv = Cv .dT + Pdv
 V2 
dT P dT R dv
 2.85  ds = Cv + dv = Cv +
(1.005 − 1.33 × 0.718) log e   T T T 1 v
 0.8199 
For a constant volume process, dv = 0
S2 - S1 = 0.43
dT
ds = Cv ⋅
 n−γ  T  T
S2 − S1 = m × Cv   log e  2 
 n −1  but CV = 0.45 + 0.009 T
 T1 
dT dT
 1.33 − 1.4   613.05  ds = (0.45 + 0.009 T ) = 0.45 + 0.009 dT
= 4 × 0.718  T T
−  logc  298 
 1 .33 1    T2 dT T2
S2 − S1 = 0.45∫ + 0.009 ∫ dT
= -0.4393 kJ/K T1 T T1
Hence, the correct option is (B). T2

S2 − S1 = 0.45 log e + 0.009(T2 − T1 )
16. Change of entropy during constant volume cooling T1
process
 473 
T  = 0.45 log e   + 0.009[473 − 423)
S2 − S1 = m × Cv log e  2   423 
 T3  = 0.5003 kJ/kgK
 613.05  Entropy change for 4.5 kg of gas
= 4 × 0.718ln   = 2.023 kJ/k
 273 + 30  S2 - S1 = 4.5 × 0.5003 = 2.251 kJ/k
20. Wmax useful = b1 - b2
17. Tds = dh - vdp
= (h1 - T0S1) - (h2 - T0S2)
T   P2 
ds = cp/n  2  − Rn   = (h1 - h2) - T0 (S1 - S2)
 T1   P1 
= (2818 - 2030) - (273 + 15) (12.15 - 10.50)
Since adiabatic reversible process ds = 0 = 788 - 475.2 = 312.8 kJ/kg
 TQ   PQ  The effectiveness of the process is
Cpln   − Rln   = 0
 TP   PP  Wactual ⋅ useful 200
ξ= = = 63.9%
Wmax ⋅ useful 312.8
 TQ   PQ 
Cpln   = Rln   Hence, the correct option is (A).
 TP   PP  21. The irreversibility per unit mass of the fluid is
 300   PQ  i = Wmax.useful - Wactual.useful
1.005 ln   = 0.287 ln  
 350   150  = 312.8 - 200 = 112.8 kJ/kg
PQ = 87.43 kPa
22. Available energy AE = Q -T0(DS) system
Q = mcp DT = (2000) (0.5) × (1250 - 450)
18. By using Tds = dh - Vdp
= 80,0000 kJ
 TQ   PQ  T   1250 
( SQ − SP ) = C p ln   R ln   ( ∆S ) system = mc p ln  1  = 2000(0.5)ln  
 TP   PP   T2   450 
= 1021.6512
 300   50 
= 1.005 ln   − 0.287 ln   AE = Q -T0 (DS) system
 350   150 
= 800000 - 303 × 1021.6512
= 0.160 kJ/kgK = 490.434 MJ
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23. Flow through a very small opening is called throttling. P  P 

For throttling process Q = 0; W = 0; h = constant, i.e., h1 = − R ln  2  = R ln  1 
 P1   P2 
= h2
CpT1 = CpT2 ( ideal gas) P 
I = T0 R ln  1 
\ Irreversibility I = T0 ((ds) system + (ds) surroundings)  P2 
Since Q = 0; (ds)sur = 0  8 
= 298 × 0.287 × ln  
\ I = T0 (ds)system  1.2 
T  P  \ I = 162.25
( ds)system = c p ln  2  R ln  2 
 T1   P1  Hence, the correct option is (A).
δ Q 420 210
Practice Problems 2 (1)
∫ T
= −
600 300 K
=0
δ Q 100 × 103 50 × 103 60 × 103

1. ∫ T
=
1000
+
500
−
300
=0
(2) ∫
δ Q 420 105
= − = 0.35
T 600 300
\ Cyclic process is a reversible heat engine. δ Q 420 315
Hence, the correct option is (A). (3) ∫T
= −
600 300
= −0.35.

2. (COP) HP = Q1 = T1
W T1 − T2 5. T1 = 730 + 273 = 1003 K
T2 = 27 + 273 = 300 K
50, 000 293
= T1 − T2 1003 − 300
W 293 − 253 ηcarnot = = = 0.70 = 70%
T1 1003
\ W = 6825.93 kJ/hr
= 1.89 kW
730° C T1
3. Q1 = 210 kJ
T1 = 373 K E W
T2 = 273 K
T  273
Q2 = Q1  2  = 210 × = 153 J 27° C T2
 T1  373
W = Q1 - Q2 = 210 - 153 = 57 Hence, the correct option is (B).
W 57 6. Irreversibility in a process in which entropy change is
η= = = 0.27 = 27% high
Q1 210
δ Q −2500 2500
Hence, the correct option is (B). \ ( ds)1 = ∫ = + = 1.041 kJ/kg
T 1200 800
4. 327° C 1200 800
Q1 Q. 2500 Q. 2000
R W 800 500
Q2
−2000 2000
( ds) 2 = + = 1.5 kJ/kg
800 500
(ds)2 > (ds)1
δ Q Q1 Q2
∫ T = T1 − T2 Process II is more irreversible
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7. 600° C 40° C energy of the system is zero; let tf be the final tempera-
T1 = 873 k T4 = 313 k ture then m1cp (t1 - tf) m2 = cp (tf - t2)
where Cp is the specific heat of water.
Q1 Q4
2 × 4.18 (95 - tf) = 3 × 4.18 (tf - 10)
E R ⇒ 190 - 2tf = 3tf - 30
Wnet = W1 − W2
Q2 Q 3 (Cooling effect) 190 + 300
= 370 kJ ⇒tf = = 44°C.
T2 = 313 − 18° C 5
40° C T3 = 255 k Hence, the correct option is (D).
10. Change of entropy (DS) = (DS)1 + (DS)2
Q T3 255
COP of refrigerator = 3 = = = 4.39  Tf   Tf 
W2 T4 − T3 313 − 255 = m1C p ln   + m2Cpln  
 T1   T2 
Q3
= 4.39; Q3 = 4.39 W2  317   317 
W2 = 2 × 4.18ln   + 3 × 4.18ln  
 368   283 
Wnet = W1 - W2 = 4.39 W2 = -1.2471 + 1.422 = 0.1756 kJ/k
but W1 = Q1 - Q2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
W1 = 2100 - Q2 11. Take cp = 1.005, Cv = 0.715 kJ/kg k.
Q1 T1 2100 873 P2 2 PV
1.25
=C
For reversible engine = ⇒ =
Q2 T2 Q2 313
W 1-2
2100 × 313
Q2 = = 752.92
873
P1 ●1
W1 = Q1 - Q2 = 2100 - 752.92
= 1348 kJ
V2 V1 V
Wnet = W1 - W2, W2 = +1348 - 370 W2 = 978 K
Cooling effect, Q3 = 4.39 W2 = 4.39 × 978 = 4293.42 kJ
Hence, the correct option is (C). T 2
P2 = 17 bar
δ Q 1600 T2
8. ( ds)gen = S2 − S1 − ∫ = =4
T 400 Q 1-2
δ Q 1600
∫ T
=
800
=2
T1
P1 = 1.03 bar
(ds)gen = 4 - 2 = 2
S2 r S
Note: Entropy generation should be positive
Hence, the correct option is (C). For a process pv1.25 = C
0.25
9. P  n −1  17  1.25
T2 = T1  2  = 288  
2 kg 3 kg  P1  n  1.03 
Water Water = 504.56 K.

10° C
12. Work done during polytrophic process
1 1 − P2V2
PV R(T1 − T2 ) cp − cv
W = = = (T1 − T2 )
Adiabatic enclosure ( n − 1) n −1 n −1
There is no heat and work interaction with the sur- 1.005 − 0.715
= (504.56 − 288) = −251.72 kJ/kg
roundings. Hence from first law, the charge of internal 0.25
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Heat interaction during the process is  T P 

γ −n Wmax ⋅ useful = C p (T1 − T2 ) − T0  C p log e 1 − Rln 1 
Q= × work done  T2 P2 
γ −1
C P 1.005 V12 − V22
γ = = = 1.405 +
CV 0.715 2
1.405 − 1.25 T1 = 273 + 72 = 345 K; T2 = 273 + 10 = 283 K
\ Q= × ( −251.72) = −96.33 kJ/kg
1.405 − 1 Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K, P1 = 6 bar
Heat rejected, Q = 96.33 kJ/kg P2 = 1.05 bar
Hence, the correct option is (C). V1 = 100 m/s, V2 = 55 m/s
13. The entropy change during polytrophic process per kg
1 T0 = 273 + 27 = 300 K
γ −n V   V2   T1  n −1 Wmax.useful = 1.005 (345 - 283) - 300
of fluid is S2 − S1 = Rln  2 ;   =  
γ −1  V1   V1   T2 
  345   6   100 − 55
2 2
γ −n T   (1 .005) ln  283  − 0. 287 ln +

 1.05   2 × 1000
\ S −S = Rln  1      
2 1
(γ − 1)( n − 1)  T2 
= 62.31 + 90.34 + 3.4875
1.405 − 1.25  288 
= 0.29ln   = 156.1375 kJ/kg
(1.405 − 1)(1.25 − 1)  504.56 
= -0.2489 kJ/kg.K.
Hence, the correct option is (B). 15. Actual work done
14. W ⋅ useful = b − b + V1 − V2
2 2
V12 − V22
max 1 2
Wactual = ( h1 − h2 ) +
2 2
V12 − V22 100 2 − 552
= ( h1 − T0 S1 ) − ( h2 − T0 S2 ) + = 1.005(345 − 283) +
2 2000
For perfect gas, h = cpT = 62.31 + 3.2 = 65.51 kJ/kg
V 2 − V22 Actual work as a% of maximum useful work
= C p (T1 − T2 ) − T0 ( S1 − S2 ) + 1
2
65.51
T  P  = × 100 = 41.95%
S1 − S2 = C p ln  1  − Rln  1  156.137
 T2   P2 
Previous Years’ Questions For Q1 = 1 kJ
1. Q2 = 5 × 0.7 = 3.5 kJ
Q1
2. Solar radiation
E R
W 0.6 kW/m2
Q2
350 K
Solar collector Q1
W HE Wmax = 2.5 kW
Given: η E = 0.7 =
Q1
⇒ W = 0.7Q1
315 K
Q
(COP) R = 5 =
W
or Q2 = 5 × 0.7 × Q1 Energy of fluid = 0.6 × 1000 × 0.5 W/m 2 = 300 W/m2
Unit 06.indd 20
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Energy required for 2.5 kW power, Q1 5. Constraints

W (1) One isothermal process
Q1 =
η (2) One isentropic process
(3) Pressures are fixed
2.5 × 103  T2 
or Q1 = ∵ η = 1 −  (4) Polytropic process are not allowed
 315   T1 
1 − 350 
  (A)
⇒ Q1 = 25000 W P
\ Minimum area of the solar collector required Isentropic process
25000
= = 83.33 m 2 Isothermal process
300
Hence, the correct option is (A). V
(B) Isothermal process
3. 2000 kg
P
1250 K 450 K
Isentropic process
Q1
V
E W maximum
(C) Isothermal process
P
Q2
adiabatic process
303 K
Q1 = Total energy available V
Q2 = Unavailable energy (D)
Wmax = Available energy P
Isothermal process
Wmax = Q1 - Q2
Q1 = mCdT
adiabatic process
= 2000 × 0.5 × (1250 - 450)
V
= 800 MJ
For maximum work Two cycle from VP = C process, (A) and (B) and two
cycle from P = C process, (C) and (D). Total four cycles
(DS)universe = 0 = (DS)system + (DS)surrounding are possible.
T2 Q2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
⇒ mC ln + =0
T1 To
6. T2 T3
450 Q 2 300 K 3 400 K
⇒ 2000 × 0.5 ln =− 2
1250 303
Q2
\ Q2 = 309.56 MJ
\ Wmax or Available energy = Q1 - Q2
Q3
= (800 - 309.56)
Q1
= 490.44 MJ
Hence, the correct option is (A). 1 250 K
T1
4. From 1st law of thermodynamics
δQ = δW + dU Refrigeration effect T1
COP = =
But dU = 0 (closed cycle) Work done T1 − T2
\ δQ = δW 100 250
⇒ =
Hence equal area are enclosed by figures (1) and (2) Work 300 − 250
Hence, the correct option is (A). ⇒ Work = 20 W
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To supply this work, heat is taken from reservoir 3 and 2 – 3: Constant volume process (V = C)
rejected to sink 2. Slope of constant volume line on T-S plot
T2 Work  dT  T
Efficiency, η = 1 − =  dS  =
T3 Q3  V =C CV
3 – 1: PVg = constant → Reversible Adiabatic process
300 20
η = 1− = or DS = 0
400 Q3
 dT   dT 
\ Q3 = 80 W ∴   >  {∵ C P > CV }
 dS V =C  dS  P =C
7. 350 K 3
T
Q = 100 kJ
V=C g
PV = C
1
HT Heat Transformer
2 P=C
Q1 Q2 S
400 K 300 K Hence, the correct option is (C).
Let Q1 be the maximum heat transfer to 400 K reservoir  1 

γ  k γ − 1
Q = Q1 + Q2  
100 = Q1 + Q2 9. Thermal efficiency, η = 1 − {cycle is Lenoir
k −1
cycle}
Clausius equality equation
P3 400
Q Q1 Q2 K= = =4
= + P2 100
T T1 T2
g = specific heat ratio = 1.4
100 Q1 [100 − Q1 ]  1 
⇒ = + 1.4  41.4 − 1
350 400 300
∵ η = 1−   = 21.05%
100  1 1  100 4 −1
⇒ = Q1  −  + 300
350  400 300  Hence, the correct option is (A).
⇒ Q1 = 57.14 kJ 10. Adiabatic process, dQ = 0
Hence, the correct option is (D). and dS = dQ = 0

∫T
8. P
3
11. Given: Process → P = C = 300 kPa
g dV = 0.01 m3
PV = constant
Patm = 100 kPa (ambient)
1 Maximum work utilized from the process is
2
V W = Wmax - Watm = (PdV)max - (PdV)atm
⇒ W = 300(0.01) - 100(0.01)
1 – 2: Constant pressure process (P = C)
⇒ W = 2 kJ
Slope of constant pressure line on T-S plot
 dT  T 12. (DS)universe = 0 → Reversible cycle
 dS  =
  P =C C P (DS)universe > 0 → Irreversible cycle
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(DS)universe < 0 → Not possible 17. P Q

(DS)universe = (DS)system + (DS)surrounding
100 50 60
⇒ ( ∆S ) universe = 0 − − +
1000 500 300 P1 = 150 kPa T2 = 300 K
⇒ (DS)universe = 0 → (Reversible cycle) T1 = 350 K
γ −1
and ∵ Qadd > Qrej, it is a heat engine.
T2  P2  γ
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 

T1  P1 
13. For any irreversible process, 0.4
300  P2  1.4
(DS) universe = (DS) system - (DS) surrounding > 0 ⇒ =
350  150 
(DS) universe > 0 1.4
= 3.5
But (DS) systems can increase, decrease or zero. P  300  0.4
⇒ 2 =
Hence, the correct option is (D). 150  350 
3.5
14. P2  300 
T4 = 348 K ⇒ = = 0.583
150  350 
T1
Q1 = 100 kW Q4
\ P2 = 87.45 kPa
HE HP
W Hence, the correct option is (B).
Q 2 = 50 kW Q3
18. If P2 = 50 kPa
T2 T3 = 290 K T2 P
SQ − S P = C p I n
− RI n 2
T1 P1
WHE = Q1 - Q2 = (100 - 50) = 50 kW 300 50
⇒ SQ − SP = 1.005 I n − 0.287 I n
350 150
Q4 T4 348
(COP) HP = = = ⇒ SQ - SP = -0.155 + 0.315 = 0.16 kJ/kg K
Q4 − Q3 T4 − T3 348 − 290
⇒ (COP)HP = 6
19. Tds = dU + PdV
Q Isothermal process dU = 0
\ (COP) HP = 4 =6
W P
⇒ Q4 = 6 × 50 = 300 kW ds = dV
T
Hence, the correct option is (C). P R
PV = RT , =
T V
15. Entropy change of universe is given by R
ds = dv
(DS)universe = (DS)system + (DS)surrounding V
(DS)universe is always positive for every irreversible V
ds = Rln 2
process. V1
Hence, the correct option is (D). P
S2 − S1 = mRln 1
P2
16. Process - I: (DS) universe
2500 2500
=− + = 1.042 kJ/K 20. Neglecting potential energy,
1200 800
V2
Availability = ( h − ho ) − To ( s − so ) +
Process - II: (DS) universe 2
The entropy s = CplnT - RlnP
2000 2000
=− + = 1.5 kJ/K h = CpT
800 500
Irreversibility I = T0 (DS)universe \ Available energy
= Cp(T - To) -
[(DS)universe]I < [(DS)universe]II
Therefore, process II is more irreversible than process I.  T  P  V 2
To C p ln   R ln   +
Hence, the correct option is (B).   To   Po   2000
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= 1.005(500 - 300) - T1 = 500 K

  500   5   (50)
2 T2 = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K
300 1.005 ln   − 0.287 ln    +
  300   1   2000 W T1 − T2
⇒ =
= 187 kJ/kg Q1 T1
Hence, the correct option is (B). W 500 − 300
i.e., =
21. The correct option is (C). 1000 500
22. ⇒ W = 400 kJ
T1 = 1000 K T2 = 800
Q1 = 2 kJ Q2
25.
RH W net 100 kW
Q 3 = 1 kJ T1 T2
T3 = 400
The arrangement is equivalent to two reversible heat

engine rejecting heat
T1 = 127°C = 127 + 273
Q3′ + Q3″ = Q3 = 1 kJ = 400 K
T3 T2 = 27°C = 27 + 273
400
Q3′ = × Q1 = × 2 = 0.8 kJ = 300 K
T1 1000
Entropy generated due to heat transfer
Q3″ = 1 - 0.8 = 0.2 kJ
δQ δQ
Q2 T2 800 = −
= = =2 T2 T1
Q3′′ T3 400
 1 1 
= 100 × 103  − W
⇒ Q2 = 0.2 × 2 = 0.4 kJ  300 400 
Total work done = 83.33 W/K
 T −T   T −T 
=  1 3  Q1 +  2 3  Q2 26. T2
T
 1   T2 
 1000 − 400   800 − 400  Q2

=  ×2+  × 0.4
 1000   800  R W
= 1.4
Hence, the correct option is (C). Q1
δQ
23. As per Clausius inequality ∫ < 0 for irreversible T1
heat engine and δQ > 0. T T1 = -5°C
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 268 K
24. T2 = 35°C
T1 = 500 K Q1 = 2.5 kJ/s
= 2.5 × 103 W
Q1 = 1000
K.I T1 Refrigeration effect
W
COP = =
T2 − T1 Work done
\ 268 2.5 × 103

=
35 − ( −5) W
T2 = 27° C ⇒ W = 373 W
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27. M Tf
30. Tds = dU + p dV
313 K
T V
or ∆S = m CV ln 2 + mR ln 2
T1 V1
0.6
∆S = 0 + 1 × 287 × ln
R W 0.9
⇒ ∆S = –116.37 J/kg-K
Hence, the correct answer is –117 to –115.
31.
L 313 K 293 K
T1
Q1 T1 > T2
For the reversible refrigerator, entropy generated is zero.
W
\ Change in entropy of block L + Change in entropy of R
block M = 0
Q2
 Tf   293 
i.e., mC ln   + mC ln  =0 T2
 313   313 
Q2 = 7.2 kW
 T f × 293  T f × 293
⇒ ln  2 
=0 ⇒ =1 W = 1.8 kW
 (313)  (313) 2
Q2 Q
⇒ Tf = 334.37 K (COP)R = = 2
Q2 − Q1 W
28. For CE-1 7.2
= =4
Q1 Q2 1.8
=
TA TB Hence, the correct answer is 4.0.
150 × 500 32. T1 T2
∴Q2 = = 83.34 MJ W
900
Q1 Q2
T A = 900 K HE
Q 1 = 150 MJ
Q3
CE 1 W1
T3
Q2
Q1 = 40 kJ; Q2 = 37 kJ
T B = 500 K T1 = 127 + 273 = 400 K
Q2 T2 = 97 + 273 = 370 K
T3 = 47 + 273 = 320 K
CE 2 W2
Since cycle is reversible,
Q2 Q1 Q2 Q
+ = 3
T C = 300 K
T1 T2 T3
40 37 Q
For CE-2 + = 3
Q2 Q3 400 370 320
= Q3
TB TC = 0.2
320
83.34 × 300
∴ Q3 = = 50 MJ Q3 = 320 × 0.2
500
= 64 kJ
Hence, the correct Answer is 50.
( 37 + 273)
29. Cop = = 10
( 37 + 273) − ( 6 + 273) 
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33. Q1 25
COP = = R = 0.287 kJ/kg ⋅ K
Q1 − Q2 15
Now
Q1 = Q2 + w = 25 kW
Tf Pf
25 Δs = C p ln − R ln
COP = = 1.67 Ti Pi
15
2
= 0 − 287 ln
300 K 1
= −198.93 J/kg ⋅ K

Hence, the correct answer is –201 to –197.
Q1
3 6. T1 = 300 K, P1 = 100 kPa
T2 = 600 K, P2 = 500 kPa
HP W = 15 kW Cp = 1kJ/kg – K, CV = 0.7 kJ/kg-K
T2 P
Q2 = 10 kW
Ds = S2 – S1 = Cp ln − R ln 2
T1 P1

600 500
S2 – S1 = 1 × ln − 0.3 ln
250 K 300 100
S2 – S1 = 0.21 kJ/kg-K
34. m = 1 kg, R = 400 J/kg K Hence, the correct answer is 0.21.
37. Volume of tank V = 0.05 m3
cv = 1000 J/kg K Mass of specific entropy of mixture:
P1 = 1 bar, T1 = 300 K , W = 100 kJ s = sf + xsfg
Given adiabatic process
mV
Q=0 x =
mV + mL
∴W + ΔU = 0
+100 × 10 = + mcv (T2 − T1 )
3 V = VL + Vv
100 × 103 V = mV × ϑV + mL × ϑL
T2 = T1 +
mcv 0.05 = 8 × 0.001157 + mv × Jv
T2 = 400 K
mv = 0.04074
Entropyy of system 0.12736
⎡ T V ⎤ mv = 0.3198 kg
Δs = m ⎢cv ln 2 + R ln 2 ⎥
⎣ T1 V1 ⎦ 0.3198
x =
⎡ 400 ⎤ 0.3198 + 8
= 1 × ⎢1000 ln
⎣ 300 ⎥⎦ x = 0.0384
Δs = 287.682 J/K
s = 2.3309 + 0.0384 × 4.1054
s = 2.488 kJ/kg.K.
35. Given data:
C p = 1.005 kJ/kgK
⎛T ⎞ ⎛P ⎞
Ti = 300 K = T f 38. Ds = Cp ln ⎜ 2 ⎟ – R ln ⎜ 2 ⎟
T
⎝ 1⎠ ⎝ P1 ⎠
Pi = 1 bar Hence, the correct option is (A).

Pf = 2 bar

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CHapter 3 properties of pure substanCes
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 7. x = 0.75, νg = 0.227 m3/kg
1. Let x be the dryness fraction of steam 1 1
∴ Density = = = 5.87 kg/m3
Total heat = m (hf + x hfg) xv g 0.75 × 0.227
11000 = 4.7 (640.2 + x × 2108.5) ∴ Mass of 0.1 m3 = 5.87 × 0.1 = 0.587 kg
x = 0.806 Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 8. According to Charles’s law
2. x = 0.88, hf = 716.5 kJ/kg Vg Vsup
=
hfg = 2051.6 kJ/kg) Tg Tsup
h = hf + x hfg = 716.5 + (0.88) (2051.6) ( 295 + 273)
Vsup = 0.0996 × = 0.1165 m3 /kg
= 2521.908 kJ/kg ( 212.4 + 273)
The amount of heat contained by one kg of water at
25°C = Cp(Dt) = 4.18 (25 – 0) = 104.5 kJ/kg Volume of steam flowing through the pipe per hour
∴ Net heat required = 2521.908 – 104.5 = 0.1165 × 500 = 58.27 m3/h
= 2417.408 kJ/kg ∴ Let d is the diameter of pipe
58.27 π 2
Hence, the correct option is (B). = d × 120
3600 4
3. x = 1, h = hg = 2768.1 kJ
Net heat required to be supplied = 2768.1 – 104.5 Volume flow rate = C/S Area × velocity
= 2663. kJ/kg d = 0.01310 m
Hence, the correct option is (B). = 13.105 mm
4. Cp = 2.5, tsat = 169.4, tsup = 270°C Hence, the correct option is (A).
hsup = hg + Cp (tsat – tsat) 9. P = 10 bar, Vg = 0.194 m3/kg, x = 0.9; hfg = 2015.3 kJ/kg
= 2768.1 + 2.5 (270 – 169.4) External work done = P × Vg = 105 × 10 × 0.9 × 0.194
= 3019.6 kJ/kg = 174600 kJ/kg = 174.6 kJ/kg
Net heat required to be supplied = 3019.6 – 104.5 = Internal latent heat, hfg = xhfg – external work done
2915.1 kJ/kg = 0.9 × 2015.3 – 174.6 = 1639.KJ/kg
5. PQ → constant pressure heating at around 0.5 Kpa 10. Total heat h = hf + x hfg
CD → constant temperature compressor at around When x = 1, h = hf + hfg = 561.6 + 2163.8
400°C h = 2725.4 kJ/kg
Hence, the correct option is (A). Internal energy u = h – xpvg
6. Super heat temperature tsap = tsat + 130°C = h – pvg = 2725.4 – 3 × 102 × 0.606 = 2543.6 kJ/kg
= 201.4 + 130°C = 331.4°C Hence, the correct option is (B).
= 604.4 K
11. X = 0.8
Heat required to convert 8 kg of water at 35°C into super
heated steam = 8(3104 – 35 × 4.187) = 23659.64 kJ Total heat h = hf + x hfg
hs = hg + Cp (tsap – tsat) = 561.6 + 0.8 (2163.8) = 2292.64 kJ/kg
3104 = 2794 + Cp (130) Internal energy u = h – px vg
Cp = 2.385 kJ/kg k = 2292.64 – 3 × 102 × 0.8 × 0.606 = 2147.2 kJ/kg
Vsup Vg Hence, the correct option is (C).
=
Tsup Tg 12. When the expansion process is adiabatic; entropy
From Charles’s law remains constant during the adiabatic process
Vg 0.124 ∴ S1 = S2
Vsup = tsup = × 604.4 = 0.157 m3 /kg
tg 474.4  T  x1h fg T x2 h fg 2
Cp n   + = Cpn 2 +
Hence, the correct option is (D).  273  T1 273 T2
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 170.4 + 273  0.95 × 2048 15. T Critical point

⇒ 4.187 × n   + 170.4 + 273
 273 
 115.2 + 273  x2 × 2211.2 Enthalpy of

= 4.187 × n   + 115.2 + 273a evaporation
 273 
Triple point
⇒ 2.03 + 4.387 = 1.47 + x2 (5.696) S
∴ x2 = 0.868 The enthalpy of evaporation decreases with the increase

in temperature.
At critical point enthalpy of evaporation is zero.
13. When the expansion is throttling
During the throttling process h1 = h2 16. From the first law,
hf 1 + x1hfg1 = hf 2 + x2hfg2 Q = (U2 – U1) + W = (U2 – U1) + P2 (V2 – V1) × m
⇒ 721.1 + 0.95 × 2048.0 = 483.2 + x2 (2211.2) Since there is no steam in the cylinder in the beginning
hence U1 = 0 V1 = 0, Q = mh1
⇒ x2 = 0.987
Q = V2 + P2V2 m
= mu2 + P2V2 m
14. Mass of water mw = 1.2 kg = m (V2 + P2V2)
Mass of steam ms = 4.8 kg = m (h2)
mh1 = mh2
ms 4.8
Dryness fraction x = = = 80% T1 = T2
ms + mw 4.8 + 1.2
∴ T2 = 300°C
1 P1
Practice Problems 2
h
v 2 t1
1. Initial mass of steam in the vessel = =
xv g 0.95 × 0.163
= 12.915 kg P2
Total heat before blowing = Total heat after blowing hf 1 21
+ x1 hfg1 = hf 2 + x2 hfg2 2
s
798.6 + 0.95 × 1986.2 = 640.2 + x2 × 2108.5 x2 = 0.97
v 2 The actual work done = W1–21 = (h1 – h21) kJ/kg
∴ Mass of steam after blowing = =
x2 v g 0.97 × 0.375 The isentropic work done = (h1 – h2) kJ/kg
= 5.498 kg At 16 bar and 250°C, h1 = hsup1 = 2920.8 kJ/kg
At 0.6 bar for dry and saturated steam,
h21 = 2653 kJ/kg
2. Dryness fraction after cooling
∴ W1–21 = 2920.8 – 2653 = 267.8 kJ/kg
ν 2 Hence, the correct option is (A).
= = = 0.785
m × v g 5.498 × 0.463
4. For isentropic flow,
Hence, the correct option is (C). h2 = hf 2 + x2hfg2
3. At 0.6 bar, hf2 = 360 kJ/kg, hfg2 = 2293 kJ/kg
Steam inlet
For isentropic expansion S1 = S2
At 16 bar and 250°C, S1 = Ssup1 = 6.6782
Steam
turbine S2 = Sf 2 + x2Sfg2
W
At 0.6 bar, Sf 2 = 1.145 kJ/kg k, Sfgz = 6.386 kJ/kg k
Steam outlet
S1 = S2
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Chapter 3 • Properties of Pure Substances
6.29
6.6782 = 1.145 + x2 × 6.386; x2 = 0.866  10 

ln  
h2 = hf 2 + x2 hfg2  1.8  = 1.714 = 1.23
⇒ n=
= 360 + 0.8664 × 2293 = 2346.65 kJ/kg  0.7816  1.3934
ln  
∴ Work done in isentropic expansion process  0.194 
W1–2 = h1 – h2 = 2920.8 – 2346.65 = 574.15 kJ/kg Hence, the correct option is (C).
∴ Work lost due to irreversibility 9. Work done in polytropic process
= W1–2 – W1–21 = 574.15 – 267.8 = 306.35 kJ/kg 1 1 − P2V2
PV 10 2 (10 × 0.194 − 108 × 0.7816)
= =
For 5 kg = 5 × 306.35 = 1531.75 kJ/kg n −1 (1.23 − 1)
Hence, the correct option is (D). = 231.791 kJ/kg
Vw 0.1× 1 Hence, the correct option is (A).
5. Mass of liquid ( mw ) = = = 100 kg
Vf 0.001 10. Mass of dry and saturated steam = ms = 85 kg
Vs 0.9 × 1 Mass of water in suspension = mw = 3 kg
Mass of steam ( ms ) = = = 0.5294 kg
Vg 1.7 ms 85 85
∴ Dryness fraction = = = = 0.965
ms 0.5294 ms + mw 85 + 3 88
Dryness fraction ( x ) = =
ms + mw (100 + 0.5294) Hence, the correct option is (B).
= 5.266 × 10 –3
11. Wetness fraction = 1 – Dryness fraction
Hence, the correct option is (B). ms
= 1−
6. Pressure is constant at triple point ms + mw
3063 3754 mw
∴ 15.16 − = 18.70 − = ⇒ 1 − 0.965 = 0.035
T T ms + mw
3754 − 3063
⇒ = 18.70 − 15.16 T = 195.19 K Hence, the correct option is (D).
T
⇒ T = 195.19 K 12. From separating calorimeter
Hence, the correct option is (D). M
x=
7. Specific volume in the sub-cooled region does not M +m
change with pressure as water is incompressible.
M = 5 kg/min
∴ At 100 bar and 41.5°C,
m = 0.5 kg/min
h = U41.5c + P V
5 5
where U and V are at 41.5°C x= = = 0.909
5 + 0.5 5.5
U41.5°c = (hf)41.5°c – P(Vf) 41.5°c Hence, the correct option is (C).
= 173.9 – 0.080 × 103 × 0.001008 = 173.819 kJ/kg 13. P G
Fusion curve Critical point
∴ 150 bar (h) 41.5°c = (U )41.5°c + P(Vf) 41.5°c
Solid Liquid D
= 173.819 + 100 × 100 × 0.001008
= 183.89 kJ/kg Sublimation Vaporization
curve E curve
Hence, the correct option is (B). Vapour
8. At 10 bar, v1 = vg = 0.194 m3/kg Triple point
F
At 108 bar, Vg2 = 0.977 m3/kg T
V2 = x2 Vg2 = (0.8) 0.977 = 0.7816 m3/kg Hence, the correct option is (B).
∴ P1 V1n = P2 V2n 14. T
1
ln(P1) + n ln(V1) = lnP2 + nln(V2) 5 Mpa
⇒ ln(P1) – ln(P2) = n (ln(V2) – ln(V1)
P 
ln  1  60 Kpa
ln( P1 ) − ln( P2 )  P2 
⇒ n= = 2
ln(V2 ) − ln(V1 ) V 
ln  2 
 V1  S
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Minimum dryness fraction is obtained in the isentropic m1h1 + m2h2 = m3h3

expansion process m1(359.9) + 1000(3179.5) = (1000 + m1) (359.9
∴ S1 = S2; Ssup = Sf2 + x (Sg2 – Sf 2) + 0.9 ([2653.5 – 359.9)
⇒ 8.087 = 0.521 + x (8.33 – 0.52D = (1000) × 2064.24 + m1 × 2064.24
⇒ x = 0.968 = 96.8% 1000(3179.5 – 2064.24) = m1(2064.24 – 359.9)
Hence, the correct option is (D). (1115.26) 1000 = m1(1704.34)
15. m1 = 654.364 kg/hr
Saturated (m1)
m3 (saturated) 23. mv + mL = 1 kg and mv = 0.8 kg
Super heated
mv 0.8
(m2) Dryness fraction, x = = = 0.8
1000 (kg/hr) mv + mL 1
Previous Years’ Questions Since it is a constant volume process, point 2 will touch
the saturated liquid line and hence the mass of liquid
1. See saturated ammonia table for thermodynamic increases because from point 1 to 2 dryness fraction
properties. will decrease. Therefore the liquid level will rise.
2. (hf)40°C = (h)20°C 5. For reversible adiabatic process only, the entropy of
⇒ 371.43 =  h f + xh f g  a system which is undergoing a process remains con-
  −20°C stant. Only the process be reversible is not sufficient.
⇒ 371.43 = 89.05 + x(1418 – 89.05) Therefore Q is wrong.
⇒ x = 0.212 For an adiabatic process, δQ = 0
Hence, the correct option is (B). 1st law, δQ = δW + dU
3. For a given saturation pressure, if temperature is lower ⇒ δW = -dU (point function)
than the saturation temperature then it is compressed Hence, Q is wrong and R is right. Only option is (A).
liquid or sub-cooled liquid. For 150 bar pressure, satu- Hence, the correct option is (A).
ration temperature is 342.24°C, but at 150 bar pressure
45°C temperature is lower than that of 342.24°C. Thus 6.
it is compressed liquid at 45°C and its specific enthalpy V=C P=C
would be 188.45 kJ/kg (saturated liquid). 1. 3.
2.
4. Critical specific volume of water,
ν c = 0.003155 m3 /kg
System System System
0.025
Specific volume of mixture at 0.1 MPa =
10 p1 = 100 kPa p 2 = 200 kPa p 3 = 200 kPa
Q
V1 V1 = V2 V3 = 1.5V1
= 0.0025 m /kg
3
Here (v)mixture < (ν)critical

Tank is slowly heated means reversible and constant mv 0.03
x1 = = = 0.029126
volume process. mv + m 1 + 0.03
C ν1 = [vf + x1 vf g] 100 kPa

2
⇒ ν1 = 0.001 + 0.029126 (0.1 – 0.001)
P
⇒ ν1 = 3.8835 × 10-3 m3/kg
0.1 MPa
1 V1 = (mv + mℓ) × ν1
= (1 + 0.03) × 3.8835 × 10-3
V = 4 × 10-3 m3
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⇒ 6 × 10-3 = 0.0015 + X3(0.002 – 0.0015) water is a mixture of saturated liquid and saturated
vapor.
∴ x3 = 9
or X3 > 1 → (superheated Vapour State)
10. Given, Tsat = 25°C
hence, the Correct Option is (a).
7. w1-3 = W1-2 + W2-3 dPs
= 0.189 kPa/K;
⇒ w1-3 = 0 + P3[v3 – V1] dTs
Chapter 3 • Properties of Pure Substances
6.31
= 200[0.5v1] u = 43.38 m3/kg
= 200V3×=0.5
now 1.5v × 14=×1.5
10-3× 4 × 10 M
-3 3
⇒ 0.5 = dP0.00106
s =
h+fgx(0.8908 – 0.00106)
(Here, vg = vfg)
⇒0.4vKj
= 3
= 6 × 10-3m3 ⇒ x = 0.56dTs Tsat Vg
now V3the
hence, = [vCorrect
f
+ X3 VOption
]
fg 200 Kpa is (d).
Since dryness fraction, h fg x < 1, therefore the state of
⇒ -3
= 0.0015 +
6 × 10 Generated X3(0.002 0.189 × 10 =
water is a mixture
3 of saturated liquid and saturated
8. net Entropy During the –Process,
0.0015)
298 × 43.38
vapor.
∴ x3 == (∆s)
(∆s) 9 + (∆s)reservoir
gen system Hence, thehcorrect= 2443.24
optionkJ/kg
is (C).
or X3 > 1 → (superheated Vapour State) fg
10. Hence,
Given, Tthe = 25°C
sat correct answer is 2400–2500.
hence,J/k
= 8.5 the Correct Option is (a).
11. Critical pointdPs is used to specifically denote the vapor-
7. w1-3 = Wthe
Hence, + W2-3 option is (C).
1-2 correct = 0.189 kPa/K;
liquid critical
dTs point of a material, above which distinct
9. ⇒ w1-3m=3,0m+ =P31[vkg,
V1 = 0.5 3
–ϑV1]= 0.00106 m3/kg, liquid and gas phases do3 not exist.
=
f
u = 43.38 m /kg
ϑg200[0.5v
= 0.89081]m /kg 3
= 200V × 0.5 dPs h fg
0.5× 4 × 10-3 = vapour, (Here, vg = vfg)
ϑ1 = 1 = = ϑf + xϑfg 12. For superheated
= 0.4mKj 1 dTs Tsat Vg
P < Psat at a given T
hence, the Correct Option is (d). h fg
T0.189 > Tsat ×at10
a 3given
= P
8. net Entropy Generated During the Process, J > Jg at a given298 P or× 43T .38
(∆s)gen = (∆s)system + (∆s)reservoir h > hg at a hgiven P or T. kJ/kg
= 2443.24
fg
Hence,
Hence, the the correct
correct option
answerisis(A).
2400–2500.
= 8.5 J/k 111.
3. Given that:
Critical point is used to specifically denote the vapor-
Hence, the correct option is (C). m liquid critical point=of0.1 kg/s
a material, above which distinct
9. V1 = 0.5 m3, m = 1 kg, ϑf = 0.00106 m3/kg, Q liquid and gas phases = 5do not exist.
kW
ϑg = 0.8908 m3/kg h Hence, the correct1 option= 2500iskJ/kg
(C).
V 0.5
Chapter 3
ϑ1 = 1 = • Properties of Pure Substances
= ϑf + xϑfg | 3.313 c1 = 0 m/s
m 1 h2 = 2350 kJ/kg
⇒ 0.5 = 0.00106 + x(0.8908 – 0.00106)
According to SFEE,
⇒ x = 0.56
Since dryness fraction, x < 1, therefore the state of ⎛ c2 ⎞ ⎛ c2 ⎞
m ⎜ h1 + 1 ⎟ + Q = m ⎜ h2 + 2 ⎟
0.0015) water is a mixture of saturated liquid and saturated ⎝ 2000 ⎠ ⎝ 2000 ⎠
vapor.
Hence, the correct option is (C). 0.1 × 2500 + 0 – 5
ate)
10. Given, Tsat = 25°C c22
= 0.1 × 2350 + × 0.1
2000
dPs
= 0.189 kPa/K; c2 = 447.21 m/s.
dTs
u = 43.38 m3/kg Hence, the correct answer is 447.2.
dPs h fg
= (Here, vg = vfg)
dTs Tsat Vg
h fg
0.189 × 103 =
rocess, 298 × 43.38
hfg = 2443.24 kJ/kg
Hence, the correct answer is 2400–2500.
11. Critical point is used to specifically denote the vapor-
M03_TRIS7308_C03.indd 313 27/04/2017 14:01:24
liquid critical point of a material, above which distinct
m3/kg, liquid and gas phases do not exist.
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CHapter 4 internal Combustion (iC) engines
Hints/solutions
Compression ratio ( r ) = Vc + Vs = 0.001 + 7.853 × 10
−3
Practice Problems 1
= 8.853 Vc 0.001
1. Volumetric efficiency = actual volume
Va swept volume 1
= = 0.9 Air-standard efficiency ηotto = 1 − ∞−1
Vs (r)
Va = 0.9 Vs 1
= 1− = 0.582 = 58.2%
Mass of air ma = ρair Va (8.553)0.4
mf = 0.06 × 0.9 Vs = 0.054 Vs Hence, the correct option is (C)
Pmep × LAN 6. When cylinder 1 is not firing then power is 2102 kW
η thermal = and when all cylinders are firing then power is 3037 kW
m f × C .V .
Hence power supplied by cylinder No. 1 = 3037 – 2102
Pmep × Vs
0.25 = = 935 kW
0.054Vs × 50 × 106
Similarly power supplied by cylinder No. 2 = 3037 –
\ Pmep = 0.675 × 106 = 6.75 bar 2102 = 935 kW
Hence, the correct option is (B) Power supplied by cylinder No. 3 = 3037 - 2100 = 937
2. Volumetric efficiency kW
actual mass of air induced by the engine Power supplied by cylinder No. 4 = 3037 – 2098 = 939
= kW
Theoritical mass of air
3037 3037
volume of mixture taken η mech = = = 0.8107
0.90 = 935 + 935 + 937 + 939 3746
320 cc ηmech = 81.07%
\ Actual volume of mixture taken in to the cyclinder Hence, the correct option is (A)
= 0.90 × 320 = 288 cc BP
7. Mechanical efficiency η m =
Hence, the correct option is (A) IP
B.P 12 35
3. ηbth = 0.28 = =
0.85 = IP 41.17 kW
m f c.v m f ( 45, 000) IP
12 Frictional power FP = IP – BP = 41.17 – 35 = 6.17 kW

mf = = 9.523 × 10 −4 kg/s = 3.428 kg/hr At 60% of rated load
0.28 × 45, 000
Hence, the correct option is (D) BP = 0.6 × 35 = 21 kW
4. Let Vc = clearance volume = 8% of swept volume IP = FP + BP = 6.17 + 21 = 27.17 kW
Vc = 0.08 Vs BP 21
1 η mech = = = 77.29%
IP 27.17
Efficiency of Otto cycle, ηotto = 1 −
( r )γ −1 Hence, the correct option is (D)
Vc + Vs 8. Output = 3.5 kW
Where r = compression ratio =
γ −1
Vc Input = 10 kW
 Vc  output 3.5
ηotto = 1−   η th = = = 0.35 = 35%
 Vc + Vs  input 10
1.4 −1 Hence, the correct option is (A)
 0.08Vs 
= 1−   = 64.69% 9. Bore D = 25 cm = 0.25 m
 0.08Vs + Vs 
Stroke L = 35 cm = 0.35 m
π
5. Stroke (L) = 250 mm Swept volume, Vs = D 2 L
4
Bore (D) = 200 mm π
= (0.25) × 0.35 = 0.01718 m3
2
Clearance volume Vc = 0.001 m3 4
π 0.0146 400
Swept volume Vs = D 2 × L Volume of gas used per minute Vg = ×
4 4 +1 2
π = 0.584 m at NTP/min
3
= (0.2) × 0.25 = 7.853 × 10 −3
2
4 Heat input = 7.5 × 1000 × 0.584 = 4380 kJ/min
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Chapter 4 • Internal CombustionHints/Solutions
(IC) Engines || 3.315
6.33
Brake power = ηbth × Heat input 6.5 × L × A × 80 × 1× 105

43.75 × 1000 =
0.30 × 4380 60
= = 21.9 kW
60 L × A = 0.05048 m3
Hence, the correct option is (B) Let diameter of piston is d
10. Speed N = 2000 rpm \ L=2dm
Torque T = 10 N – m π
2d × d 2 = 0.05048
IP = 4 kW 4
2π NT 2π × 2000 × 10 ⇒ d = 0.3179 m
BP = = = 2.094 kW
60 60, 000 ⇒ d = 317.93 mm
Hence, the correct option is (A)
Frictional power FP = IP – BP = 4 – 2.094 = 1.905 kW 13. The indicated thermal efficiency of the engine ηith
Percentage of loss = 1.905 × 100 = 47.625% IP
=
4 m f × CV
Mass of fuel consumed per hour = 0.45 × 30 = 13.5
Cda Aa ρ a
11. Air-fuel ratio = kg/h
Cdf Af ρ t
IP 35
\ ηith = = = 0.219 = 21.9%
2
m f × CV 13.5
= 1  25  2 × 42500
1 2  900 3600
= (12.5) 2 ⋅ 1 14. The brake thermal efficiency of the engine
= 7.3656
450 BP 30
Hence, the correct option is (C) ηith = = = 0.188 = 18.8%
m f × CV  13.5 
 3600  × 42500
35  
12. Indicated power =
IP = 43.75 kW
0.8 Hence, the correct option is (C)
BP 30
Pm LANK 15. Mechanical efficiency of the engine ηonech = =
but IP = = 85.71% IP 35
60
Practice Problems 2 \ IP of one cylinder = 20 – 13.19 = 6.8 kW

Pmep × LAN Total IP for 4 cylinders = 6.8 × 4 = 27.22 kW
1. Indicated power IP =
60 0.25 × 20
For 2-stroke engine n = N = 750 Fuel used per minute, m f = = 0.083 kg
60
N 1500
For 4-stroke engine = n = = 7500 \ Indicated thermal efficiency
2 2
\ (IP)1 = (IP)2
IP 27.22 × 60
Hence, the correct option is (C) ηith = = = 0.468 = 46.8%
m f × CV 0.083 × 42000
2. Time of injection = 1.52 milliseconds = 1.52 × 10–3 sec
Let θ be the angle turned per injection. Corresponding Hence, the correct option is (D)
time is 1.52 × 103 4. Diesel knock is generated during the period of BC.
θ 60 Hence, the correct option is (B)
∴ 1.52 × 103 = ×
360 N
5.
⇒ θ = 18.24°
Hence, the correct option is (C) Operation A/F ration
Idling 9
3. When all cylinders working BP = 20 kW
Cold starting 4
When one cylinder is cut out BP for 3 cylinders Cruising 16
2π NT 2π × 1200 × 105 Full throttle 13
= = = 13.19 kW
60 × 1000 60 × 1000 Hence, the correct option is (D)
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6. Average piston speed = 2 LN 11. Stoichio metric

mixture
Where L = length of stroke Air standard
N = engine speed Theory
P × 105 LAN Thermal
Indicated power = m kW
Fuel – air theory
1000 × 60
7.5 × 105 π N ( L) Actual variation
6= (0.1) 2 ×
1000 4 60 Mixture strength (f)
LN = 61.11 m/s Hence, the correct option is (C).
\ Average piston speed = 2 LN = 122.23 m/s
12. The normal range of volumetric efficiency for S.I.
Hence, the correct option is (B) engines is 80 – 85%
7. Stroke L = 2 × Crank radius = 2 × 100 = 200 mm For C.I. engines is 85 – 90%
π π
Area of piston = d 2 = (0.1) 2 = 7.854 × 10 −3 m 2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
4 4
rpm 2400 13. (a) Ignition quality of petrol – Octane number
No of power strokes per second ( n) = =
2 × 60 2 × 60 (b) Heterogeneous combustion – I.C. engine
2400
= = 20 (c) Morse test – Multicylinder engine
2 × 60
Indicated power = mep.Aln (d) Supercharging – Aircraft engine
= 100 × 103 × 7.854 × 10–3 × 0.2 × 20 = 3.14 kW Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 14. Total clearance volume = 9225 cm3
BP Clearance volume of a single cylinder
8. η mech = , BP = 0.8 × 3.14 = 2.512 KW
IP 9225
= Vc = 1537.5 cm3
9. Let mf = mass of fuel consumed = specific fuel con- π 2
BP 2.51 Swept volume = Vs = d L
sumption × = 315 × = 0.219 kg/s 4
3600 3600
BP 2.5 π
ηbth = = = 0.253 = 25.3% = (17) 2 × 30 = 6809.402 cm 2
m f × CV 0.219 × 45 4
Hence, the correct option is (B). Vs
\ Compression ratio r = 1 +
Vc
1
10. r = 6, Cycle efficiency; η air = 1 −
( r )γ −1 = 1+
6809.402
= 5.42
1
= 1− = 51.16% 1537.5
(6)1.4 −1 Hence, the correct option is (D)
ηbth 25.3
\ Relative efficiency, η r = = = 49.45% 15. Correct firing order is 1 – 3 – 4 – 2.
η air 51.16
Previous Years’ Questions Power supplied by cylinder 1 = Total power – Power

supplied with cylinder 1 not working.
1. At time of starting, engine requires more power to heat = (3037 – 2102) kW = 935 kW
up and hence rich mixture is required. In idling condi- Similarly power supplied by cylinder
tions also, the engine required rich mixture due to the 2 = 3037 – 2102 = 935 kW
existing pressure conditions within the combustion Cylinder 3 = 3037 – 2100
chamber and the intake manifold which causes exhaust = 937 kW
gas dilution of the fresh charge. Cylinder 4 = 3037 – 2098
Hence, the correct option is (D). = 939 kW
2. When all cylinders are working 3037
η mech = = 81.07%
Power = 3037 kW (935 + 935 + 935 + 939)
When cylinder 1 is not working, Power = 2102 kW Hence, the correct option is (C).
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Chapter 4 • Internal CombustionHints/Solutions
(IC) Engines || 3.317
6.35
ρU ∞ x U ∞ x 7. γ = 1.4 flow is characterized by steady, in compress-

4. Couette
3. Reynold Number, Rex = = ible, laminar flow between one fixed plate and the other
µ ϑ P = 70 kW
moving with constant velocity.
2 × 2.5 mf = 10.3 kg/hr
⇒ ( Rex ) x = 2.5 m = = 2.5 ×105 Hence, the correct option is (D).
2 ×10 −5 10.3 + 4H O
5. C3H8 + 4.5O2 → CO=+ 2CO 2kg/sec2
1.328 3600
∴ Cf = ⇒ C f = 2.656 × 10 −3 1
2 × 10 5
Volume %value
Calorific of COCv = 44000
× 100kJ/kg
7
FD 1 70
Cf = ⇒ FD = Cf × × r × L × b ×U ∞2 ηcycle= =14.28%
1 2 10.3
ρ AU ∞2 Hence, the correct answer is×14.244000
to 14.3.
2 3600
1 ηcycle = 0.55
⇒ FD = 2.656 × 10-3 × × 1.2 × 2.5 × 1 × 22
2
1
⇒ F4D =•0.015936
Chapter Internal N
Combustion (IC) Engines | 3.317 1− = 0.55
r γ −1
1
x 4. Couette flow is characterized by steady, in compress- = 0.44556
r γ −1
ible, laminar flow between one fixed plate and the other
moving with constant velocity. 1
r γ −1 =
Hence, the correct option is (D). 0.44556
5. C3H8 + 4.5O2 → CO + 2CO2 + 4H2O 1
⎛ 1 ⎞1.4 −1
10 −3 r= ⎜ ⎟
1 ⎝ 0.44556 ⎠
Volume % of CO = × 100
7
r = 7.6
L × b ×U ∞2 = 14.28%
6. CH 4 + 3 (O 2 + 3.76 N 2 ) → CO 2 + 2H 2 O + O 2 + 3.76 × 3N 2
× 1 × 22
CH 4 + 3 (O 2 + 3.76 N 2 ) → CO 2 + 2H 2 O + O 2 + 3.76 × 3N 2
3 × 3.76
%N2 =
to 0.0162. (3 × 3.76) + 2 + 1
% N 2 = 73.8%
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CHapter 5 tHermodynamiC CyCle
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 V1
⇒ = 10 + 1 = 11
1. 3 T 3 V2
P
Compression ratio r = 11
4 2 1 1
ηotto 1 − γ −1 = 1 − = 0.616 = 61.7%
2 4 (r) (11)1.4 −1
1 1
V S
3. r = 8.5
Diameter D = 12 cm
1 1
Stroke L = 16 cm ηotto 1 − γ −1 = 1 − = 57.5%
(r) (8.5)1.4 −1
γ = 1.4 Hence, the correct option is (A).
Clearance volume Vc = 300 cm3 4. a – 2, b – 3, c – 4, d – 1
Heat supplied Q = 2000 kJ/kg Hence, the correct option is (B).
work done 5. P2
Efficiency =
heat supplied T 21
2 •
•
1
η = 1 − γ −1 P1
(r)
•
Where r = compression ratio 1
S
Vs π
r = 1+ ; Vs = D 2 × L
Vc 4 P2
= 4=
, T1 300 K
π P1
= (12) 2 × (16) = 1809.55 cm3 For process 1 – 2
4
1809.55  T2  γ −1 γ −1 0.4
∴ r = 1+ = 1 + 6.03 = 7.031   = ( rp ) = T2 = T2 ( rp ) = 300 × ( 4) 1.4
300  T1  γ γ
1 = 445.79 k
η = 1− = 0.5416 = 54.16%
(7.031)δ −1 Efficiency of the compressor
Work done = ηotto × heat supplied = 0.5416 × 2000 = (T2 − T1 )
1803.30 kJ/kg ηc =
(T21 − T1 )
(T2 − T1 )
∴ T21 = T1 +
2. P 3 ηc
2
( 445.79 − 300)
2 = 300 + = 482.23 K
4
0.80
2 ∴ Compressor work required Wc = Cp (T21 – T1)
1 = (1) (482.23 – 300) = 182.23 kJ/kg
V
V V2 V1
V1
Clearance Swept volume 6. Compression ratio =
r = 16
volume (V2) (V1 − V2)
V2
P1 = 1 bar, T1 = 27°C = 300 K
10
V2 = (V1 + V2 ) T3 = 1427 + 273 = 1700 k.
100
Thermal efficiency of diesel cycle is
V  1  α cγ − 1 
⇒ 10 =  1 − 1 ηth = 1 −  
 V2  ( r )γ −1  γ (α c − 1) 
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Chapter 5 • Thermodynamic Cycle || 3.319
V3 1500 − T41
where α c = = cut of ratio 0.94 = ; T41 = 796.28 k
V2 1500 − 751.37
γ −1 ∴ Turbine work = Cp (T3 – T41)
T2  V1 
=  = ( r )γ −1 = 16 0.4 = 3.03 = 0.98 (1500 – 796.28) = 689.64 kg/kg
T1  V2 
T2 = 300 × 3.03 = 909.42 k 10. 3
P 2
From constant pressure heat addition process 2 –3
V2 V3
=
T2 T3
4
V T 1700
αc = 3 = 3 = = 1.869
V2 T2 909.42 1
V
1  (1.869)1.4 − 1  1
ηth = 1 − 0.4   (V3 − V2 ) = (V1 − V2 )
16 1.4(1.869 − 1)  15
1.150 V3 1 V  1 1
= 1− = 0.620 = 62% ⇒ − 1 =  1 − 1 = ( r − 1) = (16 − 1) = 1
3.03 V2 15  V2  15 15
Hence, the correct option is (C). V3
7. Given: Tmin = 303 k ⇒ =ρ =2
V2
Tmax = 1073 k But compression ratio (r) = expansion ratio × cut-off
( )
2
(Wnet ) max = C p Tmax − Tmin ratio
r = re . ρ
= 1.005( 1073 − 303 ) 2 = 236.79 kJ/kg r 16
Hence, the correct option is (C) ∴ re = = =8
ρ 2
1 T Hence, the correct option is (B).
8. ηcycle = 1 − = 1 − min
γ −1 Tmax 11. 1 – 2: P = C, compression and temperature will increase
( rp )
γ
Scope of L = C line is greater than P = C line in T–S
∴
303 diagram
= 1− = 0.468 = 46.8%
1073 T
3
9. 3 P2
•
T 2
21 1
2
P1 S
• •1
4 4 Hence, the correct option is (C).
1
S 12.  γ1 
 α − 1
Given: P1 = 1 bar, P2 = 20 bar T3 = 1500 k  
η th = 1 − (γ )  
CP 0.98 (α − 1)
γ = = = 1.3
CV 0.7538 Where γ = specific heat ratio = 1.4
ηisen = 0.94 P3 500
α= = =5
γ −1 0.3 P2 100
T3  P2  γ
 20  1.3
=  =  T4 = 751.36 k  11.4 
T4  P1   1   5 − 1
T3 − T41 η = 1 − (1.4)   = 0.245 = 24.5%
η turbine = 5 −1
T3 − T4 Hence, the correct option is (B).
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13. m = 0.2 kg/s P2 = 0.1 MN/m2 ( 2426 − 168) × 2000

17. me = = 2000 kg/hr
P1 = 0.4 MN/m2 T2 = 285 k 2258
γ −1 1.4 −1 Hence, the correct option is (C).
T2  P2  γ
 0.1  1.4
18. Overall efficiency (ηo) = ηboiler × ηTurbine × ηmah × ηgen ×
=  =  = 0.6729
T1  P1   0.4  ηaux
ηo = 0.93 × 0.95 × 0.94 × 0.43 × 0.95 = 0.339 = 33.9%
T2 285
=T1 = = 423.53 K Hence, the correct option is (A)
0.6729 0.6729
Hence, the correct option is (A). 19. h1 = 3092.5 kJ/kg
S1 = 6.5821 kJ/kg
14. Power developed = m Cp (T1 – T2)
Network output of the turbine WT = Cp (T1 – T21) =
= 0.2 (1) (423.53 – 285) = 27.7 KW
h1 – h21
T 4
15. 2 Qin 3
P
4 3 2 Z1
2 Qout
1 S
V but S1 = S2
V3 V3 V1 6.5821 = 0.7549 + (x2) (8.0085 – 0.7549)
Cut-off ratio α c = = ×
V2 V4 V2 ⇒ 5.8272 = x2 (7.2536) x2 = 0.803
h2 = hf2 + x2 (hgz – hfz)
V1
Compression ratio =
r = 20 = 225.94 + 0.803 (2599.1 – 225.94) = 2131.58 kJ/kg
V2
h − h1
ηTurbine = 1 2
V4 h1 − h2
Expansion ratio =
re = 10
V3 h1 – h21 = 0.9(h1 – h2)
= 0.9(3092 – 2131.58)
r 20
∴ Cut-off ratio= = =2 = 864.828 kJkg
re 10
= Turbine work (WT)
Pump work Wp = V(Pboil – Pconder)
16. The air-standard efficiency of diesel cycle is
= 0.001014 (4000 – 15) = 4.04 kJ/kg
1  α cγ − 1 
ηair standard = 1 −   ∴ Network done = WT – Wp = 864.828 – 4.04 =
( r )δ −1  γ (α c − 1)  860.78 kJ/kg
1  21.4 − 1 
= 1−   20. Wp = h4 – h3
( 20)1.4 −1 1.4( 2 − 1) 
h4 = h3 + Wp = 225.94 + 4.04 = 229.98 kJ/kg
1.17 Heat supplied Q = h1 – h4 = 3092.5 – 229.98
= 1− = 0.647 = 64.7%
3.371 = 2862.52 kJ/kg
Practice Problems 2 Work done per minute = (η) × heat supplied = 0.5833 ×
4200 = 2450 kJ/min
1. T1 = 927 + 273 = 1200 K
∴ Power developed = 40.83 KW
T2 = 227 + 273 = 500 K
T Hence, the correct option is (B).
Carnot efficiency, ηc = 1 − 2
T1 2. Air standard efficiency of Otto cycle
500 1
= 1− = 58.33% = 1−
1200 ( r )γ −1
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Percentage increase in efficiency ρ −1 9 ρ −1

= ; = 0.09
 1   1  r − 1 100 14 − 1
1 − γ −1  − 1 −  ρ = 2.17
r2   (η )γ −1 
= × 100
  1  1  ργ 
1 − 1 − η2 = 1 −  
γ −1  
 ( r )γ −1
  ( r1 )    γ ( ρ − 1) 
 1  1  2.171.4 − 1 
1 − (8)1.4 −1   0.564 
= 1−  
= − 1 × 100 =  − 1 × 100 = 10.3% (14)0.4 1.4( 2.17 − 1) 
1− 1   0.511 
 1.4 − 1  1 1.9583 
= 1− = 58.38%
Hence, the correct option is (C). 2.873  1.638 
1 ∴ Loss in the ideal efficiency = 60.4 – 58.38 =
3. η = 1 − 02.02%
( r )γ −1
otto

1 6. The efficiency of Carnot cycle and Stirling cycle is
0.485 = 1 −
( r )1.4 −1 equal when a regenerator is employed.
1 Hence, the correct option is (B)
−0.515 = 7. Adiabatic enthalpy drop h1 – h2 = 850 kJ/kg
( r )0.4
r = 5.25 ≈ 6 Enthalpy of steam supplied h1 = 3000 kJ/kg
Hence, the correct option is (B) Useful work done = 850 kJ/kg
3600
4. The condition for maximum work is ∴ Specific steam consumption =
Wnet
T= T= T1T3 3600
2 4
= = 4.235 kg/kwh
850
T2 = T4 = 1600 × 400 = 800 k
Work done W = Cv ((T3 – T2) – (T2 – T1)
8. Tangential force (FT) = m (Vw1 + Vw2)
= 0.718 [(1600 – 800) – (800 – 400)]
= (1) (950) = 950 N
= 287.2 kJ/kg
Axial thrust (Fa) = m (Vf1 + Vf2) = (1) (5) = 5N
Power developed = me (w) = 0.33 × 287.2 = 94.7 kW ≈
95 kW
Hence, the correct option is (A) 9. Vw 1
Vw 2 U
5. Compression ratio r = 14 ab
f q
when fuel is cut-off at 6%
V2
Vf 2
ρ −1 6 Vr2 Vr 1
Vf 1
∴ =
r − 1 100 V1
ρ −1
= 0.06; ρ = 1.78
14 − 1 Vw1 − u
cos θ =
1  ργ  Vr1
η = 1−
 
( r )γ −1  γ ( ρ − 1)  Vw1 − 200
⇒ cos 30° =
350
1  1.781.4 − 1  ⇒ Vw1 = 503.108 m/sec
= 1−  
(14)0.4  (1.4)(1.78 − 1)  Vr 2
=K = ; Vr1Vr2 350 m/s
1 1.2417  Vr1
η1 = 1 − = 60.4%
2.873  1.092  Vw 2 + u Vw 2 + 200
cos( β ) = =
When the fuel is cut off at 9% Vr 2 350
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Vw 2 + 200 = 0.4344 = 43.44%

⇒ cos( 25) =
⇒ Vw2 = 117.20 m/s 14.
∴ Work done = u (Vw1 + Vw2) P 2 3
= 200 (503.108 + 117.20) = 124.063 kJ/kg
10. Turbine work, WT = Cp (T3 – T4) + Cp (T5 – T6) 1
4
= Cp (1000 – 650) + Cp (800 – 550) V
WT = (350 + 250) Cp = 600 Cp
3 P2
Compressor work, Wc = Cp (T2 – T1)
T
= Cp (400 – 250) = 150 Cp kJ/kg 2
Heat supplied, Q = Cp (T3 – T2) + Cp (T5 – T4) P1
= Cp (1000 – 400) + (800 – 650) 1

4
= Cp (750) kJ/kg S
W − Wc 600C p − 150C p 3
∴ Efficiency = T = = = 60% P1 = 1 bar, P2 = 6 bar
Q 750C p 5
T1 = 37°C = 37 + 273 = 310 K = Tmin
T3 = 1027°C = 1027 + 273 = 1300 k = Tmax
π DN π × 1× 2500
11. Blade velocity u = = = 130.89 m/s
Maximum work done (Wmax ) = Cp( Tmax − Tmin )
2
60 60
u = 1.005( 1300 − 310 ) 2 = 342 KJ/kg
Blade speed ratio = Hence, the correct option is (C)
v1
Tmin 310
u u 130.89 m/s 15. η brayton = 1 − = 1− = 0.5116 = 51.16%
=
0.4 = V1 = = 327.24 m/s Tmax 1300
v1 0.4 0.4
Tmin 310
Hence, the correct option is (B) ηcarnot = 1 − = 1− = 0.761 = 76.15%
Tmax 1300
12. Given that Tmin = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K
Tmax = 927°C = 1200 K ηcarnot 0.761
∴ = = 1.488
γ 1.4 η brayton 0.5116
1.75
 T  2( γ −1)  1200  2(1.4 −1)  12000 
( rp ) max =  max  =  =  Hence, the correct option is (D)
 Tmin   300   300 
30. T1 = 727 °C = 1000 K
= 11.3137
T2 = 227 °C = 500 K
T2 500
13. rp1 = 0.65 × 11.3137 = 7.35 η =1– =1– = 0.5
T1 1000
1 1 Hence, the correct option is (A)
Efficiency η = 1 − δ −1
= 1− 0.4
( rp ) δ (7.35) 1.4
Previous Years’ Questions π

Vs = swept volume = × D2 × L
1. 3 4
P
π
4 = × 10 2 × 15
2 P=C 4
2
= 1178.097 cm3
V
Compression ratio, r = 1
V V2
VC VS
VC + VS V
= = 1+ S
Vc = clearance volume = V1 = 196.3 cm3 VC VC
Unit 06.indd 40
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1178.097 Similarly T2 = T1 × (rp)γ-1/γ

= 1+ =7
196.3 Substituting the above equation in Wnet
1 1 Wnet = Cp[T3 – (T3 × rp-(γ-1)/γ) – (T1 × rp(γ-1)/γ) + T1]
ηair std = 1 − γ −1
= 1 − 1.4 −1 = 0.541 For (rp)opt
(r) (7)
Work output   γ − 1   −1+  γ  −1 
 1 
and ηair std =  −T3  −  rp 

Heat supplied dWnet   γ  
= Cp  =0
∴ Work output = 0.541 × 1800 drp  1 
  γ − 1  1− γ  −1 
= 973.5 kJ  −T1   rp 
  γ  
Hence, the correct option is (D) 1 −1
 γ − 1   γ  −1  γ −1  γ
⇒ T3   rp = T1   rp
2. 5  γ   γ 
3 1 1
T −  −  + 2 T3
⇒ rp  γ  γ 
=
T1
2 γ
4  T  2( γ −1)
⇒ ( rp )opt = 3 
1
6  T1 
γ
S
 T  2( γ −1)
or ( rp )opt =  max 
Wnet  Tmin 
Thermal efficiency, ηth =
Qadd Hence, the correct option is (A)
( h3 − h4 ) + ( h5 − h6 ) 5. Efficiency of Otto cycle and Brayton cycle (air-stand-
⇒ η th = ard cycle) is given by ηo = ηB
( h3 − h1 ) + ( h5 − h4 )
 T 
(3095 − 2609) + (3170 − 2165) = 1 − 1 
=  T2 
(3095 − 29.3) + (3170 − 2609)
T1 = 300 K, T2 = 450 K
= 0.4111 = 41.11%
300
Hence, the correct option is (B) ⇒ ηo = η B = 1 −
450
3. Enthalpy at exit of pump must be greater than enthalpy 1
at inlet of pump, i.e., h2 should be greater than h1 = 29.3 ⇒ ηo = η B = = 0.33
3
kJ/kg. Therefore from option only one option is greater
than 29.3 kJ/kg that is (D). Hence, the correct option is (B)
Hence, the correct option is (D) 6. Qad 3
T V=C
4. T
2
3 g
PV = C 4
V=C
P=C
Qrej
2 1
g 4 S
PV = C
P=C Otto Cycle
1
S
T Qad 3
Wnet = CP[(T3 – T4) – (T2 – T1)] P=C
where, T3 = Tmax and T1 = Tmin
2
γ −1 P=C 4
T γ  P2 P3 
Now, 3 = ( rp ) rp = =  Qrej
T4 P1 P4  1

S
⇒ T4 = T3 × rp–(γ – 1)γ Brayton Cycle
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Wotto = Qadd – Qrej 8. Condenser is an essential equipment in a steam turbine

power plant because it cools the steam back to saturated
= Cv(T3 – T2) – Cv(T4 – T1) water condition. For same mass flow rate and the same
pressure rise, water pump required less power than
γ −1 steam (vapour) compressor because specific volume of
T2 T3  V1 
Now, = =  {∵ V2 = V3 and V1 = V4 } water is very less than specific volume of vapour.
T1 T4  V2 
P=C
T3 × T1 300 × 600 9. T 1
∴ T4 = = = 400 K Qa
T2 450 5
4
∴ Wotto = Cv[(T3 – T2) – (T4 – T1)] P=C
= Cv[(600 – 450) – (400 – 300)] 3 2
Qr
= 50 Cv
Rankine cycle S
Now, in case of Brayton cycle,
V=C
WB = Qadd - Qrej P 3 V=C
= CP[(T3 – T2) – (T4 – T1)]
Qa 4
γ −1
2
T2 T3  P2  γ Qr
Here = =  {∵ P2 = P3 and P4 = P1} 1
T1 T4  P1 
V
T ×T 300 × 550 Otto Cycle
∴ T4 = 1 3 = 3
T2 450 T Qa
⇒ T4 = 366.67 K P=C
2
∴ WB = CP[(550 – 450) – (366.67 – 300)] = 33.33 CP P=C
4
Now Wotto = 50Cv = 50

1
Qr
WB 33.33C p 33.33 × 1.4
Brayton cycle S
Wotto g
PV = c
⇒ = 1.072 1
Qa
WB P
2
∴ Wotto > WB PV = c
4
Hence, the correct option is (A) PV = c
Qr 3
7. V
T 1
9 Carnot Cycle
8
6 P Qa
7 3
4 2 P=C
5 V=C
3 2 4
S Qr
1
h1 − h8 Diesel cycle V
(Tm) with regeneration =
S1 − S8 Hence, the correct option is (A)
1
h1 − h4 10. Air-standard efficiency, η th = 1 −
(Tm) without regeneration = ( rc )γ −1
S1 − S4
V1
rc = Compression ratio =
(Tm) with regeneration > (Tm) without regeneration V2
Vc + Vs V
 Trej  rc = = 1+ s
∴ (η ) reg > (η )simple η = 1 −  Vc Vc
 Tm 
π
or VS = × D2 × L
Hence, the correct option is (A) 4
Unit 06.indd 42
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π π 13. From regenerative cycle

= × 0.22 × 0.25 = m3
4 400 m1h1 + m2h2 = (m1 + m2)h3
m = (m1 + m2)
P 3
m1 = 0.2 × m and m2 = 0.8 × m
4
2 ∴ 0.2 m h1 + 0.8 m h2 = m h3
⇒ (0.2 × 2800) + (0.8 × 200) = h3
1
V
⇒ h3 = 720 kJ/kg
VC VS
14. P 3
VC = 0.001 m3
4
π 2
400 1
∴ rc = 1 + = 8.854; ∴ η th = 1 − 1
0.001 (8.854)0.4
V2 V1 V
1
⇒ η th = 1 − = 58.20% V1
(8.854)0.4 Given: = 10, P1 = 100 kPa, T1 = 27° = 300 K
V2
Qadded = 1500 kJ/kg, Qrejected = 700 kJ/kg
11. T R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K
1 3
7 P1 V1 = mRT1
6 2
0.287 × 300
5 8 4
⇒ V1 = = 0.861 m3 /kg
100
S
V1 0.861
∴ V= = = 0.0861 m3 /kg
1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6 – 7 → Reheat Rankine cycle (RRC) 2
10 10
1 – 8 – 5 – 6 – 7 → Simple Rankine cycle (RC) Swept volume = V1 – V2 = 0.861 – 0.0861
WTurbine for RRC = (h1 – h2) + (h3 – h4)
⇒ Vs = 0.7749 m3 /kg
and WTurbine for RC = (h1 – h8)
Mean effective pressure,
Here (WT ) RRC > (WT ) RC and Wpump is same for both
Work net
∴ (Wnet ) RRC > (Wnet ) RC Pm =
Swept volume
Dryness fraction of steam at condenser inlet
For RRC = x4 Qadd − Qrej
⇒ Pm =
For RC = x8 Vs
x4 > x8
1500 − 700
Thermal efficiency of Rankine cycle ⇒ Pm =
0.7749
Wnet ⇒ Pm = 1032.4 kPa
η th =
Qadd
For RRC → Wnet increases and heat addition also 15. SFEE:
increases. Hence ηth will not always increase.
Hence, the correct option is (B)  V2 gz 
m  h1 + 1 + 1  + Q
 2000 1000 
12. Intake process is constant volume heat addition process
and exhaust process is constant volume heat rejection
process.  v22 gz 
= m  h2 + + 2  +W
Hence, the correct option is (B)  2000 1000 
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Q=0 [Adiabatic turbine] h1 = 3092.5 kJ/kg, h3 = 225.94 kJ/kg,

 160 9.81× 10 
2
∴ 20 3200 + +  S1 = 6.5821 kJ/kg,
 2000 1000 
 100 2 9.81× 6  S1 = S2 =  S f + xS fg 
at 15 kpa
= 20  2600 + +  +W
 2000 1000 
⇒ 6.5821 = 0.7549 + x(8.0085 – 0.7549)
W = 12.157 MW ⇒ x = 0.80335
∴ h2 =  h f + xh fg  at 15 kpa
16. T
∴ h2 = [225.94 + 0.80335( 2599.1 − 225.94)]
1 3 MPa h2 = 2132.418 kJ/kg,

5
4 h1 − h2 3092.5 − h2
η turbine = ⇒ 0.9 =
3 2
7 MPa h1 − h2 3092.5 − 2132.418
S h2 = 2228.4262 kJ/kg,
Pump work, Wp (h4 – h3)
h4 − h3 = V f3 [ P4 − P3 ] ⇒
or
h4 − 225.94 = 0.001014( 4000 − 15)
Wp = Vb3 [P4 – P3]
1 h4 = 229.981 kJ/kg,
⇒ Wp = [3000 − 70]
1000 Net work output, Wnet = [( h1 − h2 ) − ( h4 − h3 )]
⇒ W p = 2.930 kJ/kg
Wnet = [(3092.5 − 2228.4262) − ( 229.981 − 225.94)]
17. Brake mean effective pressure is given by Wnet = 860 kJ/kg,
60000 × bp Hence, the correct option is (C)
Pbm =
LAnK
19. Heat supplied, Q = ( h1 − h4 )
bp = Brake power (kW) ⇒ Q = (3092.5 – 729.981)
N = Speed in revolutions per minute (rpm) ⇒ Q = 2862.58 kJ/kg
n = Number of power strokes Hence, the correct option is (C)
L x A = displaced volume (m3)
K = Number of cylinders 20. h1 = 2800 kJ/kg
(1)
For 4-stroke and one cylinder engine T
N 2200
=
n = = 1100 rpm (2)
2 2 h2 = 1800 kJ/kg
K=1
(60000 × 950) W = (h1 – h2) = 1000 kJ/kg
∴ Pbm =
(0.0259 × 1100 × 1) 1
Steam consumption = kg/kJ
⇒ Pbm = 2 × 106 N/m 2 = 2 MPa 100
Specific steam consumption
3600
18. = kg /kWh
4 MPa 1000
1
350°C
1 kWhr = 3600 kJ = 3.6
∴
4 15 kPa Hence, the correct option is (A)

T
21. = 2r = 2 × 60 = 120 mm
3 2′ 2
S d = 80 mm
Unit 06.indd 44
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π 2 π P2v2 = mRT2
Vs = d = × 80 2 × 120 mm3
4 4 ⇒ P2 = ρ2RT2
= 603 cm3 P2 50
Hence, the correct option is (D) ⇒ ρ 2 = RT = 0.287 × 240
2
22. W p = ∫ vdp ⇒ ρ2 = 0.727 kg/m3

3000 1
=∫ × dP 25. m = ρ AV
100 990
1 V = 2000( h1 − h2 )
= (3000 − 100)
990
= 2000( 400 − 240)1.005
= 2.93 kJ/kg = 567 m/s
Hence, the correct option is (D) = 0.727 × 0.005 × 567
m = 2.06 kg/sec
23. 6 bar 1 bar
2 26.
T 1
4 T WT
1
S
2
T1 = 300 K
T3 = 1500 K h1 = 3251 kJ/kg
γ −1
x2 = 0.9
T2  P2  γ 0.4
h2 = 225.94 + 0.9 (2598.3 – 225.94)
=   = (6) 1.4
T1  P1  = 2361 kJ/kg
= 1.67 m = 10 kg/s
T2 = 1.67 × 300 = 500 K W = m (h1 – h2)
1500 = 10 ( 3251 – 2361)
=
T4 = 900 k = 8900 kW
1.67
= 8.9 MW
24. 2 2
27. h1 + v1 + Q = h2 + v2 + W
2000 2000
Exit
(180 − 5 )2 2
W = (3250 − 2360) + −5
2000
T1 = 400 K A = 0.005 m2
= 901.2 kW
P1 = 3 bar P2 = 50 kPa Hence, the correct option is (A)
R = 0.287 kJ /kg. K; γ = 1.4 28. T

γ −1 0.4
T2  P2  γ
 50  1.4 3
=  = 
T1  P1   300  2′
2
T2
⇒ = 0.6
T1 4′
4
1
⇒ T2 = 400 × 0.6 = 240 K S
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T1 = 300 K 30. Pump work WP = h2 − h1 kJ/kg

T3 = 1400 K p2 − p1
= v( p2 − p1 ) kJ/kg= kJ/kg
0.4
ρ
T2  P2  1.4 0.4
=  ⇒ T2 = 300(8) 1.4 where v = specific volume
T1  P1 
ρ = density and p1 and p2 in kPa
T2 = 543.434 K
Considering efficiency,
T −T 543.434 − 300
0.8 = 2 1 ⇒ 0.8 = p2 − p1
T2′ − T1 T2′ − 300 Specific work =
ρη
T2′ = 604.3 K
3 × 103 − 80
∴ Power for compressor = C p (T2′ − T1 ) =
1000 × 0.85
= 1 × (604.3 − 300) = 304.3 kW/kg
= 3.435 kJ/kg.
29. T1 = 300 K, T1 = 1400 K
31. 3
P2 P3
= = 8
P1 P4 P 4
From 1 – 2 2
r −1
1
T2  P3  r
=  V
T1  P1 
1.4 −1 P1 = 0.1 MPa
= 8 1.4
T1 = 308 K
= 1.8114 γ = 1.4
T2 = 543.44 R = 288.8 J/kg K
T2 − T1 V1
= 0.8 =
r = 8
T2′ − T1 V2
∴ T ′2 = 604.3 K T3 = 2660 K
Heat supplied Qin = Cp(T3 – T2′)
R 288.8
= 1(1400 – 604.3) Cv = = = 722 J/kg K
γ −1 0.4
= 795.7 kJ/kg
γ −1
From 3 – 4 T2  V1 
=   = 80.4
T3 T1  V2 
= 1.8114
T4 ⇒ T2 = 707.598 K
T4 = 772.86 K Heat supplied = CV(T3 − T2) J/kg
Turbine work WT = Cp(T3 – T4′) = 722(2660 − 707.598)
= Cp(T3 – T4) × 0.8 = 1409,634 J/kg
= 1(1400 – 772.86) × 0.8
= 1409.634 kJ/kg
= 501.712 kJ/kg
Hence, the correct option is 1400 to 1420
Pump work, Wp = 304.3 kJ/kg
WT − WP 32.
Thermal efficiency = 1 3
Qin 8 MPa 500°C
4 MPa
 501.712 − 304.3  6 2
= 
795.7  × 100 T 10 kPa
 
5 4
= 24.8%
Hence, the correct option is (A) S
Unit 06.indd 46
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14:02:02 M05_
Given: V1
h2 = 3185 kJ/kg Compression ratio =
r = 17
V2
h4 = 2247 kJ/kg
(V3 − V2) = 0.1 × (V1 − V2)
h6 = 191 kJ/kg
From table, V3 V 
h1 = 3399 kJ/kg ⇒ − 1 = 0.1×  1 − 1
V2  V2 
h3 = 3446 kJ/kg
Work done = 0.1 × (17− 1) = 1.6
Cycle efficiency =
Heat added
( h1 − h2 ) + ( h3 − h4 ) V3
= ⇒ = ρ = 1.6 + 1 = 2.6
( h1 − h6 ) + ( h3 − h2 ) V2
(3399 − 3185) + (3446 − 2247) 1  ρ γ − 1

= Air-standard efficiency = 1 −  
(3399 − 191) + (3446 − 3185) γ r γ −1  ρ −1 
= 0.4073
= 40.73% 1  2.61.4 − 1 
= 1−  
Hence, the correct option is 40 to 42 1.4 × 170.4  2.6 − 1 
33. Hence, the correct option is (D) = 0.596 = 59.6%
34. Cp/Cv = r = 1.4 Hence, the correct answer is 58 to 62
Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K
37. T 1
T 3 10 kg/s
8 bar 1.5 kg/s 10 kg/s = m1

2 2
8.5 kg/s = m2
1 bar 4 3
1
S
S
h1 = 3214 kJ/kg
T1 = 300 K, T3 = 1280 K h2 = 2920 kJ/kg
γ −1
 0.4 
h3 = 2374 kJ/kg
T2  p2  γ  
=  =8  1.4 
Net power output of turbine
T1  p1 
= m 1 ( h1 − h2 ) + m 2 ( h2 − h3 )
⇒ T2 = 543.43 K
= 10(3214 − 2920) + (10 − 1.5)
m × C p × (T3 − T2 ) = 80 MW
(2920 − 2374)
i.e., m × 1.005 × (1280 − 543.43) = 7581 kW
= 80 × 103 kW Hence, the correct answer is 7580 to 7582
⇒ m = 108.07 kg/s 38. P1 = 1 bar
Hence, the correct answer is (105 to 112) P2 = 32.42 bar
35. The correct option is (A) For compression ignition engine, diesel cycle is used
36.
2 3
2 3
P P
4 4
1 1
V V
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V4 40. T 1
Expansion ratio, =8
V3 100 kg/s
100 kg/s
1
 
Compression ratio, r = V1 =  P2 
γ
V2  P1  20 kg/s
1
2
(=
= 32.42) 12 1.4 80 kg/s 80 kg/s
3
V3 V3 V4
Cut-off ratio, ρ = = × ∞ ∞
V2 V4 V2 Work output, W = m1 (h1 – h2) + m 2 (h2 – h3)
1 ⇒ W = 100(3486 – 2776) + 80(2776 – h3)
= × 12[∵ V4 = V1 ] = 1.5
8 Now S1 = S2 = S3 = 6.6 = [Sf + x3 Sfg] 9 kPa
1  ρ γ − 1 ⇒ 6.6 = 0.6 + x3(8.1 – 0.6)
Air-standard efficiency = 1 −   ⇒ x3 = 0.8
γ × r γ −1  ρ −1 
∴ h3 = [hf + x3 hfg] 9 kpa = 174 + 0.8(2574 – 174)
1 1.51.4 − 1 
= 1−   ⇒ h3 = 2094 kJ/kg
1.4 × 120.4  1.5 − 1 
∴ W = 100(3486 – 2776) + 80(2776 – 2094)
= 0.596 = 59.6 %
⇒ W = 125560 kW ⇒ W = 125.56 MW
Hence, the correct answer is 59 to 61
39.
41.
P 2 3 T
1 3
1 2
v2 v1 V 6
Given: 5 4
21
ρair = 1.0 kg/m3 S
V V x4 > x2 → Dryness fraction increases at turbine exit.
1
r = 1 = 21⇒V2 = 1
V2 21 Therefore drier steam at the turbine exit and there is
∞ increase in average temperature of heat addition.
mair = 30 × 10-3 kg/s
Wnet = 15 kW
•
42. For same peak pressure, peak temperature and heat
mair 30 × 10 −3 rejection, the P-V plot is
Now V1 = = = 0.03 m3 / s
ρair 1.0 P
2 311 3
Wnet
Mean Effective pressure, pm =
Swept volume
Wnet Wnet
or pm = = 211
(V1 − V2 ) V 4
V1 − 1 21
21 1
21× Wnet 21× 15 V
⇒ pm = =
20V1 20 × 0.03
1 – 2 – 3 – 4 → Diesel cycle
⇒ pm = 525 kPa 1 – 21 – 3 – 4 → Otto cycle
Hence, the correct answer is 525. 1 – 211 – 311 – 4 → Dual cycle.
Here (Wnet)diesel > (Wnet)dual > (Wnet)otto
Unit 06.indd 48
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∴ ηdiesel > ηdual > ηotto 47. 3 MPa, 350ºC 2

T
43. Wnet = (3159 – 2187) – 2= 970 kJ/kg 3
∴ Specific steam consumption, SSC
3600 3600 kg 4
= = = 3.711
Wnet 970 kW − h
5 75 kPa 1
44. Brayton Cycle:
S
Two isentropic processes and two constant pressure
Given
processes.
T hf1 = h5 = 384.39 kJ/kg
2
u5 = 0.001037 m3/kg
p=c
Sf1 = 1.213 kJ/kg K
3 1
p=c h2 = 3115.3 kJ/kg
4
S2 = 6.7428 kJ/kg-K
S Process 1–2 is isentropic process
Anticlockwise cycle, Hence it is a reverse Brayton S2 = S1
cycle. S2 = Sf1 + x Sfg
Hence, the correct option is (B). x = 0.886
45. h1 = h f1 + xh fg1
QS
P
2 3 =384.39 + 0.886 × 2278.6
=2403.23 kJ/kg
h2 − h1 3115.3 − 2403.23
4 η = =
h2 − h5 3115.3 − 384.39
Q
1 Q =0.2607
V η = 26.07%
QS - QR Hence, the correct answer is 25.8 to 26.1.
η=
QS 48. Without regeneration,
⇒ η=
( h3 − h2 ) − (h4 − h1 ) ηBrayton = 1 −
1
( h3 − h2 ) (r )
γ −1
γ
mC P (T3 − T2 ) − mCV (T4 − T1 )
⇒ η= where, r = 6, γ = 1.4
mC P (T3 − T2 )
∴ ηBrayton = 0.4
mCV (T4 − T1 ) With regeneration,
⇒ η =1−
mC P (T3 − T2 ) T
γ −1
γ
ηBrayton =1− 1 r
⇒ η =1−
(T − T )
4 1
T3
g (T − T )
3 2 T1
= 0.3 (given)
Hence, the correct option is (B). T3
46. Adiabatic mixing of two fluids is always irreversible. In ∴ ηBrayton = 0.5
the regenerative heat exchanger two fluids are mixed.
So, it increases the irreversibility. 0.4
Thus, ratio = = 0.8
0.5
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49. where,
Heat rejected to atmosphere
Wnet = WT –= W m (h2 – h3)
P
3 2 = 0.05(272.05 – 93.42)
= (2803 – 1800) – (124 – 121)
= 8.93 kW
ynamics = 100 kJ/kg
4 1 Hence, the correct answer is 8.9 to 8.95.
3600
Heat rejected to atmosphere ∴ Specific steam consumption = = 3.6 kg/kWh
1000
= m (h2 – h3) Hence, the correct answer is 3.5 to 3.7.
2 = 0.05(272.05 – 93.42) 52. Air standard Otto cycle:
= 8.93 kW P1 = 0.1 MPa, T1 = 35°C = 308 K
Hence, the correct answer is 8.9 to 8.95. r = 8, qs = 500 kJ/kg
p p Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg.K,
5 0. Pressure ratio = 2 = 3 = 10
p1 p4
CV = 0.718 kJ/kg.K
c p = 1040 kJ/kgK
R = 0.287 kJ/kg.K
T3 = 1200 K T
3 Tmax 3
21 S=C
2 V=C
2
S=C 4
T
41 V=C
4 1
S
1 γ −1
T2 ⎛ V1 ⎞
=⎜ ⎟
T1 ⎝ V2 ⎠
S
γ −1
T4 ⎛ V3 ⎞
γ −1 =⎜ ⎟
T3 ⎛ P3 ⎞ r T3 ⎝ V4 ⎠
=
T4 ⎜⎝ P4 ⎟⎠ T3 ⎛ V4 ⎞
γ −1
T3 ⇒ =⎜ ⎟
T4 = T4 ⎝ V4 ⎠
γ −1
⎛ P3 ⎞ γ
⎜⎝ P ⎟⎠ T2 T3 γ −1
4
= (r)
T1 T4
1200
T4 = 0.4 Cp
(10)1.4 g = = 1.4
Cv
T4 = 621.53K
T2 = (8)1.4 –1 × 308
Isentropic Efficiency
T2 = 707.598 K
T − T1
η isentropic = 3 4 Heat supplied qs = Cv(T3 –T2)
T3 − T4
500 = 0.718 (T3 – 707.598)
1200 − T41
0.9 =
1200 − 621.53 0.718T3 = 1008.055
T41 = 679.4 K T3 = 1403.97°C
Hence, the correct answer is 675 to 684. Hence, the correct answer is 1403.97.
51. We know that 53. For a 50% reaction stage in a steam turbine, absolute
3600 exit flow angle is equal to inlet angle of rotor blade.
Specific steam consumption = Hence, the correct option is (D).
Wnet
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54.
C 1
650 Work output = × AB × AC
2
P(kPa) 1
= × (650 – 400) × (2.5 – 2)
2
400 = 62.5 kJ
A B
2 2.5
V(m3)
Unit 06.indd 51 4/27/2019 4:49:45 PM

CHapter 6 refrigeration and air Conditioning
Hints/solutions
pv
Practice Problems 1 ⇒ 0.01666 = 0.622
pv pv 95 − pv
1. Relative humidity φ = 0.75 = =
pϑsat 0.05622 pv
⇒ = 0.02679
Pv = 0.75 × 0.05622 = 0.04216 bar 95 − pv
pv 0.622 Pϑ
Specific humidity, w = 0.622 = ∴ pv = 2.4786 KPa
pa Pb − Pϑ
pv 2.4786
0.04216 Relative humidity (φ ) = =
= 0.622 × Psat 3.17
(1.013 − 0.04216)
= 78.19%
= 0.027 kg/kg of dry air Hence, the correct option is (D)
Hence, the correct option is (B) 6. P. 0 – 1 : Sensible heating
2. Q 0–2 : Chemical dehumidification
80%
RH
R. 0 – 3 : Cooling and dehumidification
DPT WBT S. 0 – 4 : Humidification with steam
injection
T. 0 – 5 : Humidification with water
injection
DBT P - 1, Q - 2, R - 3, S - 5, T - 4
The dew point temperature is less than wet bulb Hence, the correct option is (C)
temperature. 7. T1 = 20 + 273 = 293 K; T2 = – 5 + 273 = 268K
Hence, the correct option is (B) T2 268
COP = = = 10.72
3. (Wet bulb depression) exit = 0.27 (wet bulb depression) T1 − T2 293 − 268
inlet.
Heat to be extracted per kg of water
DBTexit − WBT = 0.27 (DBTinlet – WBT)
= (0 − (−5) × 2.095 + 335 + (20 − 0) × 4.187
DBTexit = 0.27 (42 – 25) + 25
= 10.475 + 335 + 83.74
= 29.57°C ≈ 30°C
= 429.215 kJ/kg
Hence, the correct option is (C) Desired effect
pv COP = KJ/Kg
4. Specific humidity w = 0.622 wnet
patm − pv
429.215
pv =
Wnet = 40.03 KJ/Kg
⇒ −3
12 × 10 = 0.622 10.72
90 − pv
500 × 40.03
pv Power = = 5.55 kW
⇒ 0.01929 = 3600
90 − pv
∴ 1.7363 – 0.01929 Pγ = Pϑ
8. T1 = 25 + 273 = 298 K; T2 = −4 + 273 = 269 K
Pv = 1.703 Kpa
COP of Carnot refrigerator
Relative humidity
pv 1.703 T1 269
= = = 0.3406(100 KPa = 1 bar ) = = = 9.275
psat 5 T1 − T2 298 − 269
= 34.06% 9.275 × 30
COP of the refrigerating plant = = 2.78
Hence, the correct option is (A) 100
mv 0.5 Work supplied by the motor = 70 × 1 kJ/S = 4200 kJ/min
5. Specific humidity ( w
= ) = = 0.01666
ma 30 Re frigerating effect
COP =
pv work done
W = 0.622
patm − pv RE = COP × WD = 2.78 × 4200 = 11678 kJ/min
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∴ Refrigerating capacity of the plant in tons Considering process 1 – 21

11678 S1 = S21
= = 55.33 tons
211  T1 
s f1 + x1 s fg = S g2 + C pg ln  2 
Hence, the correct option is (B)  T1 
40 − 28 ⇒ 0.435 + x1 (5.543 – 0.435)
9. By pass factor = = 0.5217
40 − 17  75 + 273 
= 4.995 + 2082 ln  
 28 + 273 
Efficiency of the coil = 1 – BPF
⇒ 0.435 + x1 5.108 = 5.404
η = 1 – 0.5217 =
⇒ x1 = 0.972
= 0.47826 = 47.826%
∴ h1 = hf1 + x1 hfg1
= 109.5 + 0.972 (1420.5 – 109.5)
10. h1 = 1384.82 kJ/kg
T
3
∴ Work done = h21 – h1
285 2
= 1587.54 – 1384.82
= 202.71 kJ/kg
223 Refrigerator effect = h1 – hf3
4 1
= 1384.82 – 318.2
= 1066.62 kJ/kg
T – S diagram S
Refrigeration effect
COP
For isentropic process 1 – 2 work supplied
S1 = S2 1066.62
= = 5.261
1.0225 = 0216 + X1 (1.1564 – 0.216) 202.71
⇒ 0.8065 = 0.9404 X1 Hence, the correct option is (C)
∴ X1 = 0.8576 13. Displacement of the compressor
Hence, the correct option is (B) = mr (x1 Vg1)
11. The Refrigeration effect = (5)(0.972)(0.504)
Rn = h1 – h4 = h1 – hf3 = 2.449 m3 / min
h1 = hf1 + x1 (hg1 – hg) Hence, the correct option is (A)
= 45.32 + 0.8576 (300.56 – 45.32) = 264.21 kJ/kg 14.
hf3 = 141.56 KJ/kg
T 25°C
∴ Rn = h1 – hf3 = 264.21 – 141.56 = 122.65 kJ/kg 3 2
12. 21
T 28° C 4 1
3 −15°C
2
S
h2 = 131.921 kJ/kg and h3 = h4 = 380.74 kJ/kg

Refrigeration effect = mass of ice/sec × Latent heat
4 −14° C 1 15 × 1000
= × 335 = 58.16 KJ/S
T – S diagram S 24 × 3600
= 58.16 KW
h21 = h2 + Cp (Tsat – Tsat) Refrigeration effect per kg of refrigerant = h1 – h4
= 1455 + 2.82 (75 − 28) = 1587.54 kJ/Kg For process 1 – 2,
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6.54 | Thermodynamics Chapter 6 • Refrigeration and Air Conditioning | 3.335
Sf1 + x1 (Sg1 – Sf1) = Sg2 Re quired Re frigeration effect ( kW )

=
− 0.2134 + x1 (5.0585 – (− 0.2134)) = 4.4894 Actual COP
x1 = 0.892 58.16
h1 = −54.56 + 0.892 [1304.99 − (-54.56)] =
2= 20.06 kW
.898
= 1158.2 kJ/kg Hence, the correct option is (B)
∴ Refrigeration effect = 1158.2 – 380.74 15. Mass flow rate
= 777.46 kJ/kg Required Refrigeration effect
h1 − h4 1158.2 − 380.74 Refrigeration effect per kg of refrigerant
COP = = = 4.83
h2 − h1 1319.21 − 1158.2
58.16
Actual COP = 4.83 × 0.60 = 2.898 = = 0.0748 Kf/sec = 4.45 kg/min
777.46
∴ Power required
Practice Problems 2 0.622 Pv 0.622 × 0.01479

w1 = w2 = w = =
1. DPT is the temperature at which condensation begins PL − Pv 1.033 − 0.01479
when the air is cooled at constant entropy. = 9.034 × 10–3 Kg/kg air
Hence, the correct option is (B) ∴ h1 = CpaT + W (2500 + 1.88 T)
0.622 Pν
2. Specific humidity ( w ) = = 1 × 15 + 9.034 × 10–3 (2500 + 1.88 × 15)
Pt − Pv
= 37.839 kJ/kg of dry air
⇒ 0.622 Pν For air at 22°C DBT
0.015 =
1 − Pv h2 = 22 + 9.034 × 10–3(2500 + 1.88 × 22)
⇒ Pv 0.015 – 0.015 Pv = 0.622 Pv = 44.9586 kJ/kg of dry air
⇒ (0.637) Pv = 0.015 Amount of heat added per minute
∴ Pv = 0.02354 bar = ma (h2 – h1)
3. The relative humidity is given by Pa v ( Pb − Pv ) (1.033 − 0.01479) × 100 × 105
ma = = =
RT RT 287 × ( 273 + 15)
Pν 0.02354
φ= = = 0.729 = 123.186 Kg/min
Pvs 0.03243
∴ Q = 123.186 (44.95 – 37.83)
= 72.9% = 877.08 kJ/min
Hence, the correct option is (A) Hence, the correct option is (B)
4. 5. Relative humidity in %
P 0.01479
φ= v = = 50.3%
Pvs 0.0294
Sensible heating w Hence, the correct option is (D)
6. P
3 2
1.35
15°C 22°C DBT 1.25
Pv = C
Pv = C
For air at 15°C and 85% RH
f = 85%
1
4
P
0.85 = v ; Pv = 0.0174 × 0.85
( Pvs ) J
= 0.01479 bar For process 1 −2,
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1.35 −1 γ −1
T2  P2  1.35 T1 P  γ
=  For process 1 − 2 , 2 =  2  = (6)0.286
1
T1  P1  T1  P1 
T2 = (17 + 273) × (5)0.26 = 440.6 K T2 = (267)(6)
1 0.286
= 445.72 K
T −T
1
445.72 − 267
1.25 −1
ηc = 2 1 ; 0.85 =
T3  P2  1.25 T2 − T1 T2 − 267
= 
T4  P1 
T2 = 477.25 K
 γ −1 
T3 ( 27 + 273) 300 T  P 

γ 

T4 = = = For process 3 − 4 , 31 =  2 
1
(5)0.2 (5)0.2 1.379 T4  P1 
= 217.43 K = (6) 0.286
Heat absorbed in the refrigerator per kg of air
T3 − T4
= Cp (T1 − T4) = (1) (290 – 217.43) ηe =
T3 − T41
= 72.57 kJ/kg
R = Cp − Cv = 1 – 0.7 = 0.3 kJ/kgK 298 − T4
0.90 =
Work done 298 − 178.51
n1  n2  T4 = 190.45 k
= ( P2V2 − PV
1 1) −  3 3 − P4V4 )
 ( PV
n1 − 1 Net work done on the system = Cp[(T2 –T1) – (T3−T4)]
 n2 − 1 
= (1) [(477.25 − 267 − (298 −190.45)]
n n = 102.7 kJ/kg
= 1 R(T2 − T1 ) − 2 (T3 − T4 )
n1 − 1 n2 − 1 Refrigeration effect per kg of air
 1.35 1.25  = Cp (T1 − T4)
= 0.3  ( 440.3 − 290) − (300 − 217.43) 
= (1) (267 – 190.45)
 0 . 35 0 . 2 
= 0.3 ((579.72) − (516.06)) = 76.55 kJ/kg
= 19.1 kJ/kg Refrigeration capacity of the system = 76.55
35 1
72.57 × × = 12.75 tons
∴ =
COP = 3.8 60 3.5
19.1
9. Required kW to run the compressor,
20
72.57 × Compressor work per kg
7. Refrigeration capacity = 60
3.5 35
= 6.911 tons = 102.7 × KJ/sec
60
= 59.9 kW 60 kW
8. 2
T 21
10. COP of the system
76.55
= = 0.7453
102.7
3
11. P1 = 1 bar, T1 = 12°C = 12 + 273 = 285 k
4
41 MRT
= =
PV MRT;V = 10
P
S
50 × 287 × 285
T1 = − 6 + 273 = 267 K, P1 = 1 bar =
105
P2 = 5 bar
T3 = 25 + 273 = 298 K = 40.89 m3 /min
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The volume v sucked by the compressor per minute is 14. T
π 2 2
given by v = d × L ×η v × N
4 3
2
π  d  105 d
40.89 = × × 0.85 × 300
4  100  4 1
100
3
⇒ π d  S
40.89 =  × 105 × 0.85 × 300
4  100 
d h2 = 285 kJ/kg
⇒ × 0.514; d = 51.43 cm
100 h3 = h4 = 115 kJ/kg
L = 1.5 d = 77.15 cm h1 = 235 kJ/kg
h −h 235 − 115
Hence, the correct option is (A) COP = 1 4 =
h2 − h1 285 − 235
187 − 87
12. COP = = 4.76 = 2.4
208 − 187
Hence, the correct option is (D) 15. T2 = − 25 + 273
13. Volume (V) = 25 × 35 × 10 = 8750 m3 T1 = 30 + 273 = 303
Mass of air per hour = density × volume = ρv T2 248
(COP ) max = = = 4.5
Per hour = 1.2 × 8750 = 10500 kg of dry air T1 − T2 303 − 248
mC p ∆T Actual COP = (0.85) (C.O.P)max
Sensible heat load =
3600 = (0.85) .4.5 = 3.83
Desired effect
10500 × 1.02(50 − 25) COP =
= work supplied
3600 ∴ Desired effect = 3.83 × 2
= 74.375 kW = 7.66 kW
Hence, the correct option is (A) Hence, the correct option is (A)
Previous Years’ Questions ∴ C = 2, H = 2, F = 4

F F
1. Chemical dehumidification or heating and dehumidifi-
–
–
cation or Adiabatic desaturation. H–C–C–H ⇒ C2H2 Tetrafluoroe

–
–
F F
thane

3. DPT = 18°C
1 w1
DBT = 30°C
w2
2 PV = 0.02062 bar
DBT1 DBT2 PS = 0.04241 bar
( h fg )0 oc = 2500 kJ/kg
2. R – 134a or R(F)(m – 1)(n + 1)(P) Pv
Specific humidity, ω = 0.622
Here (m – 1) = 1 ⇒ m = 2 P − PV
(n – 1) = 3 ⇒ n = 2 0.02062
= 0.622 ×
P=4 1.013 − 0.2062
Notation: CmHnFpCla = 0.01292 kg/kg of dry air
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h = Cpa(DBT – 0°C) + 7. 2
T
3
ω ( h f g )0°C + C pv ( DBT − 0°C ) 
 
= 1.005[30 − 0] + 0.01292[2500 + 1.88(30 − 0)]
= 63.18 kJ/kg of dry air 4 1
Hence, the correct option is (B) h
4. Given: C = 0.03, RE = 2 tons

n = 1.15 Process → 2 – 3 → Constant pressure line in T–h or
ν1 = 0.1089 m3/kg T–S plane
Actual volume, V = mν Process → 3 – 4 → Constant enthalpy process, h3 = h4.
Hence T–h plane.
Now, RE = m ( h1 − h4 )
2 × 3.5167 = m (176 − 65)
⇒ m = mass flow rate = 0.06336 kg/sec 8.

∴ V = (0.06336 × 0.1089) m /sec 3
RH
= 6.9 × 10 m /sec
-3 3 5 w (kg / kg)
1 4 (Specific humidity)
1
 
Now, ηoverall = 1 + C − C  P2 
n 0
3 2
 P1  t(°C)
1
(Dry bulb temperature)
 7.45 1.15
= 1 + 0.03 − 0.03  
 1.50  0–1 t increases and ω is constant. Hence sensible
= 0.90911 heating
Vswept Vs
and ηoverall = = 0–2 t increases and ω decreases at constant enthalpy
Vactual V line. Hence it is heating and dehumidification
∴ Vs = ηoverall × Vactual process or chemical dehumidification.
= 0.90911 × 6.9 × 10-3 0–3 t decreases and ω also decreases. Hence it is
cooling and dehumidification process.
= 6.3 × 10-3 m3/sec
Hence, the correct option is (A) 0–4 t decreases and ω increases. Hence it is humidi-
fication with water injection.
5. From psychometric chart
0–5 t increases and ω also increases. Hence it is
humidification with steam injection.
• w = 0.027 Hence, the correct option is (B)
RH = 75% (Specific
humidity) 9. Dew point temperature is the temperature at which
condensation begins when the air is cooled at constant
• pressure.
DBT = 35° C

6. Sprayed water temperature into air = 42°C P =C
T
DBT 1
DBT of air = 40°C
WBT of air = 20°C DPT
Condensation starts after 2
2
∴(T)spray > DBT
S
∴ Air gets heated and water is sprayed, i.e.,
humidification.
Hence, the correct option is (B) Hence, the correct option is (C)
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10. Constant relative = [67 kJ/kg] × 33 × 10 −3 (kg/sec ) 

(humidity curve not
line uphill to right)
+ [(85 − 43) kJ /kg] × 3( kg / sec) 

= 128.211 kW
Constant enthalpy Hence, the correct option is (C)
lines (downhill straight
lines to right) 13. Saturated at the exit of the after cooler means that
Constant specific volume line PV
=
RH = 1
(downhill straight lines to right) PS
or PV = PS
(1) Constant RH curves (not line) are uphill to right.
At 35°C, PV = PS = 5.628 kPa (Given)
(2) Constant WBT lines are downhill straight lines to
the right. PV
ω = 0.622
(3) Constant specific volume lines are downhill P − PV
straight lines to the right.
(4) Constant H lines do not coincide with WBT lines. 5.628 kg of wv
⇒ ω = 0.622 × = 7.081× 10 −3
Hence, the correct option is (A) 500 − 5.628 kg of da
Before compressor
11. Pv = Partial pressure of water at temperature 20°C.
PV
Ps = Saturation pressure of water at 20°C ω = 7.081× 10 −3 = 0.622
100 − PV
From table: Ps = 2.34 kPa
PV PV
= 0=
Now, RH .5 ⇒ 0.0113842 =
PS 100 − PV
⇒ Pv = 0.05 × 2.34 = 0.117 kPa ⇒ 1.13842 – 0.0113842 PV = P2
From table, the temperature at which Pv becomes satu- ⇒ PV = 1.1256 ~ 1.13 kPa
rated pressure will be in between –15°C and –10°C. Hence, the correct option is (B)
Hence only option (C) is in between –15°C and –10°C.
14. DBT = 40°C, WBT = 20°C
Wet bulb depression, WBD = DBT – WBT
= 40°C – 20°C
12. Cooling and dehumidifying
= 20°C
Inlet Outlet
(WBD)exit = 25% (WBD)inlet
ma , w 1 ma , w2 (DBT)exit – 20 = 0.25(20) ⇒ (DBT)exit
= 25°C
ma(w1 − w2) Condensate water
15.
2
Inlet mass of water vapour = ma ω1 T
= 3(kg/sec) × (19 × 10-3) 3
−3
= 57 × 10 kg/sec
Outlet mass of water vapour = ma ω2
4 1
= 3(kg/sec) × (8 × 10-3)
= 24 × 10-3 kg/sec S
Mass of water condensed = ma(ω1 – ω2)
= (57 – 24) × 10-3 Given:
= 33 × 10-3 kg/sec h2 = 283 kJ/kg
Required cooling capacity = Change in enthalpy of
condensed water + change in enthalpy of dry air h=
3 h=
4 116 kJ/kg
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h1 = 232 kJ/kg 19. The power required for the compresses is

W = m ( h2 − h1 )
RE ( h1 − h4 )
COP = = = 0.2 (276.45 – 237)
W ( h2 − h1 )
= 7.9 kW
232 − 116 Hence, the correct option is (C)
⇒ COP = = 2.27
283 − 232
Pv Pv
Hence, the correct option is (A) 20. RH = ⇒ 0.7 =
Pvs 4.25
16. If the mass of moist air in an air tight vessel is heated
to a higher temperature then relative humidity of air ⇒ Pv = 2.975 kPa
decreases. Pv
Hence, the correct option is (D) Sp. humidity = 0.622
P − Pv
0.622 Pv
17. ω = 2975
P − Pv = 0.622 × = 0.0191
105 − 2975
P = 100 kPa Hence, the correct option is (C)
0.5 21. R-502 is azeotropic mixture of 48.8% R-22 and 51.2%
ω= = 0.0143 kg/kg dry air R-115 which are CFC refrigerants.
35
0.622 Pv
0.0143 = 22.
100 − Pv 2
Pv = 2.247 kPa 3
4 25°C
Pv
φ= T
Ps 1
−20°
Ps = 3.17 kPa
S
2.247
φ=
3.17 S2 = S1 = 1.7841 kJ/kg – K
= 0.71 = 71% S3 = 1.7183 kJ/kg–K, T3 = 25 + 273 = 298
Hence, the correct option is (D) T2
K S2 − S3 = C p ln
T3
18.
2 T2 T
3
i.e., 0.0658 = 0.98 ln ⇒ ln 2 = 0.06714
298 298
T
4 1 T2
S
⇒ = 1.0694 ⇒ T2 = 318.696 K
298
h2 = 276.45 kJ/kg
h2 = h3 + Cp(T2 − T3)
h1 = 237kJ/kg
h3 = 95.5 kJ/kg = h4 = 413.02 + 0.98(318.696 − 298)
m = 0.2 kg/sec = 433.3 kJ/kg

Q = m ( h − h )
R 1 4 Hence, the correct answer is 430 to 440
= 0.2 (237 – 95.5) 23. Total pressure pb = 85 kPa
= 28.3 kW Saturation vapour pressure ps = 4.24 kPa
Hence, the correct option is (A) Relative humidity = 65%
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Chapter 6 • Refrigeration and Air Conditioning | 3.341
i.e., pv × 100 = 65 h3 = h4 = 237 kJ/kg

ps R.E h1 − h4 402 − 237
6.60 | Thermodynamics Chapter 6 = =
COP =• Refrigeration and Air Conditioning | 3.341
65 W h2 − h1 432 − 402
⇒ pv = 4.24 × = 2.756 kPa
p
i.e., v × 100 = 65100 h∴3 =COP
h4 ==237
5.5 kJ/kg
ps Hence, the h − hanswer
R.Ecorrect 402is− 237
5.5.
0.622 × pv COP = = 1 4=
Specific humidity = W PV h2 − h1 432 − 402
65 pb − pv 27. RH = 0.6 = ⇒ PV = 0.6 × 5.63
⇒ pv = 4.24 × = 2.756 kPa PS
100 ∴ COP = 5.5
0.622 × 2.756 Hence, the correct
⇒ Panswer
= 3.378 kPa
= V is 5.5.
85 − 2.756 0.622 × pv
Specific humidity = PV PV 3.378
= 0.02084 kg of wv/kgpdryb − air
pv 27. RH = 0.6 =ratio,
Humidity ⇒ωP= V0.622
= 0.6 × 5.63= 0.622 ×
PS P PV 100 − 3.378
= 20.84
0.622gm× 2.of
756wv/kg da
= ∴ ω = 0.0217457⇒ kg/kg
PV = 3.378
of drykPa
air
85 −the
Hence, correct answer is 19 to 22
2.756 or ω = 21.7457 gram/kg of dryP air. 3.378
24. = 0.02084 kg of wv/kgRHdry
= 100%
air Humidity ratio, ω = 0.622 V = 0.622 ×
Hence, the correct answer is 21.7
P PV to 21.9. 100 − 3.378
= 20.84 gm of wv/kg da
Φ =
28. ∴ ω0.7= 0.0217457 kg/kg of dry air
Hence, the correct answer
1 is 19 to 22 w Pv
w1
ω =
Φ = P21.7457 gram/kg of dry air.
or
24. RH = 100% (Specific
2 w2 humidity)
Hence,vsthe correct answer is 21.7 to 21.9.
Φ =
28. P vs
=0.7
Pv/Φ
1 Pv kPa
= 2.285
Φ = P
w
25°C 35°C w1
(Specific
2 (° C)
DBT
vs P 5304
w2 humidity) ln s = 14.317 −
Pvs = Pv/Φ Po Ts
Keeping relative humidity 100%, when dry bulb tem-
perature is decreased25°C water
35°C condenses and specific
= 2.285 kPa2.285 5304
ln = 14.317 −
humidity comes down. DBT (° C)the device is dehumidifier.
So P
101.325s 5304
T
ln = 14.317 − s
Hence, the correct option is (B) Po Ts
Keeping relative humidity 100%, when dry bulb tem- Ts = 292.9 K
25. m1w1 + m2w2 = m3w3 2.285 = 19.9oC 5304
perature is decreased water condenses and specific
⇒ (10.1 ×comes + (0.1 × = (10.1 ln = 14.317 −
humidity 0.01) down. So1)the device+ is0.1) × w3
dehumidifier. 101.325
Hence, the correct answer is 19.9. Ts
⇒ w
Hence, = 0.0197 kg/kg dry air
3 the correct option is (B)
29. PTotal = 750 mm of Hg
Ts = 292.9 K
25. or w
m1w13 +~ m
0.02
w kg/kg
= m3wdry air
2 2 3 Pv = 20 mm of Hg = 19.9oC
Hence,
⇒ (10.1the correct
× 0.01) answer
+ (0.1 × 1)is=0.02.
(10.1 + 0.1) × w 3 w = ? the correct answer is 19.9.
Hence,
26.
⇒ w3 = 0.0197 kg/kg dry air
T 29. w
PTotal 750 mm Pof
= 0=.622 v Hg
= 0.622 ×
20
or w3 ~ 0.02 kg/kg dry air 2
50°C Pv = 20 mmPof Hg− Pv
Total 750 − 20
3 w=? 20
26. 30°C = 0.622 ×
T 730Pv 20
2 w = 0.622 = 0.622 ×
50°C ≈ 0.01704 PTotal
kg/kg − Pdry
v air 750 − 20
3 = 17.04 g/kg20dry air
30°C = 0.622 ×
−10°C Hence, the correct
730 answer is 16.9–17.1.
4 1
30.
Data insufficient.
≈ 0.01704 kg/kg dry air
S 31. Total pressure = 100
= 17.04 g/kgP dry air kPa
Given: Temperature T = 30°C
−10°C Hence, the correct answer is 16.9–17.1.
h1 = 402 kJ/kg, h2 = 4324kJ/kg, 1 P
30. Relative
humidity ϕ = v
Data insufficient.
S PvS
Given: Pv
= 0.55
Chapter 6 • Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
h1 = 402 kJ/kg, h2 = 432 kJ/kg, | 3.341 4246
Pv = 2335.3 Pa
h3 = h4 = 237 kJ/kg Mass of water vapour per kg of dry air is
R.E h1 − h4 402 − 237 0.622 Pv
COP = = = ω=
W h2 − h1 432 − 402 P − Pv
∴ COP = 5.5 0.622 × 2335.3
ω=
Hence, the correct answer is 5.5. (100 × 103 ) − 2335.3 27/04/2017 14:02:38
P ω = 14.872 g per kg off dry air

27. RH = 0.6 = V ⇒ PV = 0.6 × 5.63
PS
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0.622 Pv Hints/Solutions | 6.61
ω=
P − Pv
Wactual = m × Wactual = 0.1 × 100
0.622 × 2335.3
ω=
(100 × 103 ) − 2335.3 Compressor power P = 10 kw
ω = 14.872 g per kg off dry air
Hence, the correct answer is 14.7 to 15.1. 34. Dry bulb temperature:
32. As the vessel is closed, specific humidity will remain DBT = 30°C
constant and relative humidity will decrease.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Pvs = 4.24 kPa
33. Refrigerating capacity = 15 kW
Pv
f=
m(h1 – h4) = 15 kW Pvs

m(400 – 250) = 15 Pr = 0.6 × 4.24
m = 0.1 kg/sec
Pr = 2.544 kPa
Wisentropic, compressor = h1 – h2
Pv
Specific humidity, w = 0.622 ×
Wisen, comp = 4 + 5 – 40 = 75 kJ/kg Patm − Pv
Wisentropic,comp 2.544
hcompressor = w = 0.622 ×
Wactual 100 − 2.544

w = 16.236 gram/kg of dry air
75
Wactual = = 100 kJ/kg
0.75 Hence, the correct answer is 16.23.
Unit 06.indd 61 4/27/2019 4:50:28 PM

test
Hints/solutions
13. Q123 = U13 + W123 18. 2
P
100 = U13 + 60 PV1.3 = C
U13 = 100 − 60 = 40 kJ
1
Q143 = U13 + W143
V
= 40 + 20 = 60 kJ
Hence, the correct option is (D). TdS = dH − VdP
14. dQ = dU + dW For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy dS =
0
= dU + PdV
dH = VdP
84 × 103 = dU + 1 × 106 (0.06 − 0.03) = dU + 30
P1 = 0.5 MPa
84 = dU + 30
V1 = 0.2 m3
dU = 84 − 30 = 54 kJ
V2 = 0.05 m3
P1V1n = P2V2n
15. dQ = dU + dW
n
dW = ∫ PdV = 5(V2 − V1 )
3
V   0.2 
P2 = P1  1  = 0.5  
U2 − U1 = 20 kJ  V2   0.05 
dQ = mCPΔT
= 3.0305 MPa
25 = 5 (10 − V1)
P1V1 = P2V2 = PVn
n n
5 = 10 − V1
V1 = 10 − 5 = 5 m3 1
 PV n  n
T2 = 327 + 273 = 600°K V = 1 1 
 P 
PV PV
1 1
= 2 2 1
T1 T2 P2  PV 
n n
H 2 − H1 = ∫ 
1 1
 dP
5 × 600 P1
 P 
T1 = = 300°K
10
 1− 1n 1− 
1
Q = 20 + 25 = 45 kJ 1
P
 2 − P 1
n

 
C(600 − 300) = 45 kJ = PV(
1 1
n
) n
1
45 1−
C= KJ/K n
300
n( P2V2 − PV
1 1)
= 0.15 kJ/K = 150 J/K =
n −1
1.3(3030.5 × 0.5 − 500 × 0.2)
17. T1 = = 223.3 KJ
Q1 1.3 − 1
R W Hence, the correct option is (D).
Q 2 = 2KW/min 19. H2 − H1 = (u2 + P2V2) − (u1 + P1V1)
T2 = (u2 − u1) + (P2V2 − P1V1)
T1 = 300°K u2 − u1 = (H2 − H1) − (P2V2 − P1V1)
T2 = 200°K
= 223.3 − 51.3 = 171.77 kJ
T2 200 200
COP = = = =2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
T1 − T2 300 − 200 100
T2
Q1 2 20. Q = ∫ C P dT
=
W = = 1 KW/min T1
COP 2
513  18 
=∫  0.4 + T + 40  dT
 
Unit 06.indd 62
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Test || 3.343
 513 + 40  25. Increase in availablility = ϕ2 − ϕ1

= 0.4(513 − 283) + 18 ln  
 283 + 40  = (E2 − E1) − T0 (S2 − S1)
= 101.68 kJ/kg  T 
= m CV (T2 − T1 ) − T0 CV ln 2 
Hence, the correct option is (B).  T1 
V2
21. Work done = P ∫ dV = P (V2 − V1 )  378.3 
V1 = 2 × 0.718 (378.3 − 100) − 300 ln
= 105 (0.45 − 0.25)  300 
= 21 kJ/kg = 12.54 kJ
22. Heat supplied AV AV
27. 1 1
= 2 2
1700 × 10 3 v1 v2
QA = J/sec
60
A1 0.95 5
= × = 3.57
W = 9 × 103 A2 0.19 7
W 9 × 103 × 60
ηth = = d1
QA 1700 × 103 = =
3.57 1.89
d2
= 31.76%

23. QR = QA − W 28. dW = −m (u2 − u1 ) + ( P2V2 − PV
1 1)
dτ 
1700 × 103
= − 9 × 103  V 2 − V12   dQ
60 + 2  + ( z2 − z1 ) g  +
 2   dτ
= 9.333 kJ/sec
Hence, the correct option is (C). 
= −0.5 90 + (7 × 0.19 − 1× 0.95) 100

24. Irreversibility I = T0 (ΔSsystem + ΔSsurr)
5 − 72
2
1 
where + × + 0  − 58
2 1000 
T0 = Temperature of surroundings °K
= 300°K = −0.5 [90 + 38 − 0.012] − 58 = −122 KW
ΔSsurr = 0
I = T0ΔSsystem
29. W = RT ln P1
I 100 1 2 1
P2
∆Ssystem = = = 0.333 KJ/K
T0 300
V2
= RT1 ln
 T V  V1
Also, ∆Ssystem = m CV ln 2 + R ln 2 
 T1 V1 
1
Here V1 = V2 = 0.287 × 313 ln
10
T2
∆Ssystem = mCV ln = −206.8 kJ/kg
T1
T2 30. 1Q2 = 1W2 = −206.8 kJ
0.333 = 2 × 0.718 ln
300
206.8
S2 − S1 = −
T2 = 378.3°K 313
= 105.3°C = −0.6608 kJ/kg°K
4:02:45 Unit 06.indd 63

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Unit 06.indd 64
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14:02:47
Manufacturing
Technology U
Chapter 1 Structure and Properties
of Materials
Chapter 2 Metal Casting and

Forming7.7
Chapter 3 Sheet Metal Working

7.3
n
i
Joining Processes 7.18
Chapter 4 Machining and Machine

Tool Operations 7.26
Chapter 5 Metrology and Inspection

Computer Integrated
t
Manufacturing7.43
7
Unit 07.indd 1 4/27/2019 4:03:32 PM
7.2 | Manufacturing Technology
Unit 07.indd
01_Hints 4
36
158
232
286
346 82 4/27/2019
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12:51:53
12:54:58
12:59:35
13:41:03
13:46:07
14:00:14
14:04:32 M01_
CHapter 1 struCture and properties of Materials
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1
1. Choice B 2. Choice C 3. Choice D 4. Choice A 5. Choice C 6. Choice C 7. Choice C
8. Choice A 9. Choice C 10. Choice B 11. Choice C 12. Choice C 13. Choice D 14. Choice D
15. Choice C 16. Choice A 17. Choice A 18. Choice A 19. Choice D 20. Choice A
Practice Problems 2
P PA
10. Stiffness = = E× A/ L
r δ eL
So stiffness increases with young’s modulus
Choice (A)
2r
1. • a 11. Choice (A)
12. Choice (C)
r 13. Choice (C)
a 14. Choice (B)
2a = ( 4 r )
2 2
15. Choice (C)
2
( 4r ) 16. Choice (B)
a2 =
2 17. Choice (B)
4r 18. Choice (D)
a=
2
19. Choice (A)
4 × 0.144
= 20. Choice (B)
2
= 0.407 Choice (B) 21. Choice (C)
22. Choice (C)
2. Choice (C)
23. Choice (A)
3. Choice (A)
24. Choice (B)
4. APF for FCC = 0.74
25. Choice (B)
APF for BCC = 0.68 Choice (B)
26. Choice (D)
5. Choice (D)
6. Choice (B) 27. Choice (A)
7. Choice (B) 28. Choice (A)
8. Choice (B) 29. Choice (D)
9. Choice (C) 30. Choice (C)

1. In gray CI, percentage of carbon is about 4. Spheroidizing is a special type of tempering given
3 to 4%. Choice (C) to high carbon steels in which the specimen is
2. Tempering – Both hardness and brittleness are reduced reheated to just below the lower critical tempera-
ture. By this process, the carbide in the steel is
Austempering – Austenite is converted into Bainite.
transformed into globular form and this improves the
Martempering – Austenite is converted into martensite. machinability. Choice (D)
Choice (C)
5. Charpy test – Toughness
3. When temperature of solid metal increases, it start
Knoop test – Micro hardness
moving towards the liquid state and hence strength
decreases. Its ductility increases as metal soften after Spiral test – Fluidity
heating. Choice (A) Cupping test – Formability Choice (D)
4:04:32
4:00:14
3:46:07
3:41:03
2:59:35
2:54:58
2:51:53 Unit 07.indd 3
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6. 0 ≤ C ≤ 0.83 → Hypoeutectoid steel 11. Toughnes is the ability to absorb energy upto the frac-
0.83 < C ≤ 2.1 → Hyperutectoid steel ture point.
C | > Part III
3.348
7.4 | Manufacturing
2.1 → Cast ironTechnology
• Unit 7 • Manufacturing Technology
Choice (B) Ability to store energy upto elastic limit - is known as
resilience.
7.
6. 0 ≤ C ≤ 0.83 → Hypoeutectoid steel
No. of Fracture
0.83 < CNo. of
≤ 2.1 No. of
→ Hyperutectoid
atomssteel Total no. of
atoms atoms
at atoms
C > 2.1at→corner
Cast iron
at face Choice (B) Stress (σ)
centre
7.
Simple 1
8 0 0 of
No. 8× =1
cubic No. of No. of 8
atoms Total no. of Strain (ε)
atoms atoms
Body at atoms
1
at corner
8 at face
0 1 8 × +1 = 2 Choice (B)
centered centre 8
Simple 1 12. Choice (A)
Face 8 0 0 18 × =11
cubic 8 6 0 8× + 68× = 4
centered 8 2 13. Initial length = L0
Body
8×
1
+1 = 2
Lt = L0 (1 + t2)
8 0 1
Simple cubic
centered 8
A   L
True strain ∈T = ln  0  = ln  
Face
8 6 0
1 1
8 × +6 × = 4  A  L0 
centered 8 2
 L (1 + t ) 
2
Simple cubic = ln  0 
 L0 
= ln(1 + t 2 )
Body centered
d ∈T d
True strain rate = = ln(1 + t 2 )
dt dt
2t
= min −1
Body centered 1+ t2
True stain rate when t = 1
2 ×1
Face centered = = 1 min −1 Choice 0.9 to 1.1
1 + 12
A  L
14. True strain ∈T = ln  0  = ln  1 
 A1   L0 
Face centered
 L +δ L 
= ln  0 
 L0 
Choice (B)
 δL
8. Choice (D) = ln 1 + 
 L0 
9. The crystal structure of Austenite is FCC.
Choice (B) = ln(1+ ∈E ) Choice (C)
Choice (B) 15. Choice (C)
10. In Normalizing the specimen is heated above the upper
8. Choice temperature
critical (D) and cooled in still air. Choice (C) 16. Choice (B)
9. The crystal structure of Austenite is FCC. 17. For Brittle materials there will not be any indication of
Choice (B) yielding and the failure is catastrophic which is repre-
10. In Normalizing the specimen is heated above the upper sented by:
critical temperature and cooled in still air. Choice (C) σ
11. Toughnes is the ability to absorb energy upto the frac-

ture point.
Ability to store energy upto elastic limit - is known as ε
resilience.
Choice (D)
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Vatoms 1+2+3+4+5
VUC = Volume of unit cell 1 0.2 0.4 0.2
= × × 100 + × 100 + × 130
Vatoms = Volume of atoms in a unit cell 2 100 100 100
In BCC (body center cubic), 1 0.2 1 0.4
+ × 10 × + × 40 ×
No. of atoms per unit cell = 2 2 100 2 100
4 • = 0.85 MJ/m3
Edge length of cube, a = r Chapter 1 Structure and Properties of Materials Hints/Solutions | 3.349
| 7.5
3 Choice 0.85.
Where r is the radius of the atom.V Maximum =solubility
22. Toughness Area under the curve
occurs at point c.
18. APF = Atomic Packing Factor =  4UC  3
V 1+2+3+4+5 Choice (C).
a3  atomsr 
V = Volume of unit cell 3 1 0 . 2 0 . 4 0 . 2
∴UC APF of BCC = = = 0.68 23. ∈T == ln× (for
L × 100 +
tension) × 100 + × 130
Vatoms = Volume of atoms 4 8 3 2 L100 100 100
2 × inπar 3unit cell πr o
3 3 1 0.2 1 0.4
In BCC (body center cubic),
Choice 0.66 to 0.69. where Lo is original + × 10length × + × 40 ×
No. of atoms per unit cell = 2 2 100 2 100
19. E = 200 GPa 1
4 Given, =0.85L = MJ/m L 3
Edge length of cube, a = r 2 o
∆l 5 3
Strain = = = 0.05 Choice 0.85.
1
Where r is lthe 100radius of the atom. 22. Maximum
= ln
∴ ∈T solubility occurs at point c.
True strain ∈t = ln(1 + ∈) = ln(1.05) 2
 4 = 0.0488
3
r Choice (C).
0.1
∴ Stress = σ = 500 ×∈ ta3 = 369.67  MPa = –ln 2
3 
∴ APF of BCC = = = 0.68 23. ∈T = ln = (for
L
–0.69 tension) Choice (B)
σ 1046 πr 3
369.67 2× × 8 3
πr −3 L
E = ⇒ ∈= = 1 .8483 × 10 24. Using lever rule, o
∈ 200 × 106 3 3
Choice 0.66 to 0.69. where
Wa + W Lo is = 1original length (1)
∴ Change in length after removal of load = 0.18483 mm L
19. E = 200 GPa +W 1

∴ Final dimension of the block = 95 + 0.18483 =
Wa Ca L
Given, = L CLLo= Co
∆l 5 Wa (0.7) + W 2 (0.2) = 0.4 (2)
95.18483
Strain = mm = = 0.05 L
l 100 Solving Equations 1 (1) and (2)
Choice 95.14 to 95.20. ∴ ∈T = ln
True strain ∈t = ln(1 + ∈) = ln(1.05) = 0.0488
20. Jominy test is used to find hardenability. W a
= 0.4, WL = 20.6
0.1
∴ Stress = σ = 500 ×∈ t = 369.67 MPa Choice (B). Thus, fraction = –lnof2solid = 0.4
21. σ 369.67 × 106 −3

where, Wa=is–0.69 fraction of solid and WL is fraction Choice
of (B)
liq-
E = ⇒ ∈= = 1 .8483 × 10 24. uid,
Using C is
lever composition.
rule,
(MPa) ∈ 200 × 10 (0.6, 140)
6
Wa + WL = 1 Choice (A).
(1)
∴ Change in length after removal 4 load = 0.18483 mm
of
5 25. W e a=C0.1/100
+ WL CL = Co
∴ Final dimension of the block = 95 + 0.18483 (0.8, 130) =
a
(0.2, 100) ε = ?
WTa (0.7) + WL(0.2) = 0.4 (2)
95.18483 mm
Strain
Solving
εT =Equations
ln (1 + e) (1) = lnand
(1 + 0.001)
(2)
Choice 95.14 to 95.20.
Wa = 0.4, = ln W(1.001)
= 0.6
20. Jominy test is used to find hardenability. L
=
Thus, fraction ×9.99 of10
–4
solid = 0.4
1 2 3 Choice (B).
where, W = 9.99 × 10–2 %
is fraction of solid and WL is fraction of liq-
21. a
(MPa) (0.6, (%)
140)
uid, C is= composition.
0.099% Choice (C)
Engg strain
Choice (A).
4
5 26. eThe
25. crystal structure of aluminum is FCC
= 0.1/100
(0.8, 130) εHence,
(0.2, 100)
T
= ? the correct option is (B).
Strain
2 7. Given:
εT =Atomic
ln (1 +weighte) = lnof = 56
(1 F+e 0.001)
Atomic=weight ln (1.001) of C = 12
∴ Total= 9.99 weight× 10of –4
Fe3C = (56 × 3) + 12 = 180
1 2 3
= 9.99 × 10 % –2
12
Chapter 1 • Structure and Properties of Materials | 3.349 ∴ Weight= percentage
0.099% of carbon = 180 × 100 =Choice 6.67%(C)
Engg strain (%)
Toughness = Area under the curve
C
28. σ
ms
1+2+3+4+5
1 0.2 0.4 0.2
= × × 100 + × 100 + × 130
ll 2 100 100 100
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1 0.2 1 0.4
+ × 10 × + × 40 × Y
2 100 2 100
=0.85 MJ/m3
Choice 0.85. ∈
5:05 PM 22. Maximum solubility occurs at point c.
3
 Choice (C).
r

= 0.68 23. ∈T = ln
L
(for tension)
πr 3 Lo
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True stress beyond initial yielding increases linearly 30. Eutectoid reaction is
with true strain for linearly hardening plastic material.
M1 → M2 + M3
29. For FCC, the number of atoms per unit cell = 4 g – iron → α – ferrite + cementite
Number of slip systems = 12 Hence, the correct option is (A).
Unit 07.indd 6 4/27/2019 4:03:38 PM M02_

CHapter 2 Metal Casting and ForMing
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 4. Choice (C)
5. Choice (D)
1. 6. Choice (D)
7. Choice (A)
100 8. Choice (C)
9. Choice (B)
10. Choice (D)
50
20 11. Choice (C)
Machining allowance = 2 mm 12. Choice (C)
Shrinkage allowance = 2% 13. Average roll gap pressure
After providing machining allowance,
Height = 20 + 4 = 24 mm h  µL 
p= e − 1 σ p
Top and bottom = 54 × 104. µ L  h 
After giving draft allowance top dimension increases ∆h = 4 − 3 = 1 mm
bottom dimension and height remain same. 4+3
h= = 3.5 mm
After giving shrinkage allowance, 2
Bottom dimensions are  ∆h 
2
L = R2 −  R −
54 × 1.02 and 104 × 1.02  2 
i.e, 55.1 and 106.1
≈ R∆h
height = 25 × 1.02
= 150 × 1 = 12.25
= 24.5 Choice (D)
1 1 = A2V2
2. AV 3.5  0.08 × 12.25 
p= e − 1 × 140
A2 V1 h1 0.08 × 12.25  3.5 
= =
A1 V2 h2 = 161.56 MPa Choice (A)
60
= 14. Roll separating force
60 + 180
F = 161.56 × 12.25 × 10-3 × 450
60
= = 0.5 = 890.63 kN Choice (D)
240
A2 = A1 × 0.5 15. Shrinkage allowance for gray cast iron
= 7 to 10.5 mm/m
d22 = d12 × 0.5
Shrinkage allowance for the wooden pattern
= 20 2 × 0.5 = 16 + (7 to 10.5)
d2 = 14.14 = 23 to 26.5
≈ 14.15 mm Choice (B) = 26 mm/m Choice (C)
3. m = 0.08
16. Choice (B)
t1 = 350 mm
17. Choice (A)
D = 650 mm
18. Choice (B)
Or R = 325 mm
19. Choice (C)
Maximum possible reduction = m2 R
20. Choice (A)
= (0.08)2 × 325
= 2.08 mm Choice (D)
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7.8 | Manufacturing Technology Chapter 2 • Metal Casting and Forming | 3.351
Practice Problems 2  3π 2 / 3 r 2 
= 2 
1. Choice (B)  2π r 
2. Choice (B) 9π 4 / 3
= = 1.05
3. Choice (C) 4π 2 Choice (B)
4. Choice (A)
5. Choice (B) 1
600 mm2
6. Choice (C)
7. D1 = 100 mm
h1 = 50 mm 12. 200
h2 = 25 mm
V1 = V2
2
i.e, D12 h1 = D22 h2
h1 Q= 6 × 105 mm3/s
D22 = D12 g = 104 mm/s2
h2
50 Applying Bernoulli’s theorm.
= (100) 2 ×
25 V12 V22
h+ =
D2 = 141.42 mm 2g 2g
Percentage change in diameter Q = AV
1 1
D2 − D1 Q 6 × 105
= × 100 V1 = = = 1000 mm /s
D1 A1 600
41.42 (100) 2 V22
= × 100 200 + =
100 Choice (B) 2 × 10 4 10 4
= 41.42% 200 + 5
8. Choice (C) V2 2
=
9. Choice (B) 2 × 10 4
10. Choice (A) 2 V2 = 250 × 2 × 10 4
2
V 
11. Cooling time = C   V2 = 2236.07 mm /s
 A
Volume of the cylinder (1) Q = A2V2
= p r2 × h 6 × 105
A2 =
= p r2 × r = p r3 2236.07
Surface area of cylinder = 268.3 mm 2 Choice (D)
= 2 p r 2 + 2p r × r 13. Shrinkage during solid state is not compensated by
= 4 p r2 riser
Volume of cube = L3 \ metal compensated by riser
Surface area of cube = 6 L2 = 3.5 + 4.5 = 8% Choice (C)
Volume of cylinder = Volume of cube 14. t1 =30 mm
i.e, p r3 = L3
t2 = 25 mm
or L = p1/3 r
Cylinder to cube cooling time ratio R = 350 mm
N = 100 rpm
2
t1 ⎛ A2 ⎞ ∆t
= ⎜ ⎟ from (1) cos θ = 1 −
t 2 ⎝ A1 ⎠ D
⎛ 612 ⎞
2 (30 − 25)
=⎜ = 1−
2 ⎟ 700
⎝ 4π r ⎠
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3.352 | Part III • Unit 7 • Manufacturing Technology Hints/Solutions | 7.9
= 0.9929 Stock length = 50 mm

q = 6.85° π
Stock volume = 100 2 × 50
= 0.1196 radian 4
Contact length = qR = 392500
= 0.1196 × 350 Work done in deformation
= 41.86 mm Choice (C) W = sf × stock volume
A = 80 × 392500 N mm
15. Force required for extrusion = KA1 ln  1  = 31400 Nm Choice (A)
 A2 
18. If 10 kN drop hammer is used , then height of fall of
where k = extrusion cons tan t
hammer
= 250 × 106 N / m 2
π 31400
A1 = (01) 2 =
4 10 × 103
= 3.14 m Choice (C)
= 7.854 × 10 −3 m 2
π 19. Length of sprue h = 25 cm
A2 = (006) 2
4 = 0.25 cm
= 2.82 × 103 m 2 Area at base A = 1.5 cm2
Extrusion force P Volume of mould cavity = 1200 cm3
 7.854  V = 2 gh
= 250 × 106 × 7.854 × 10 −3 × ln  
 2.82  = 2 × 9.81 × 0.25
= 2.01× 106 N = 2.215 m /s
= 2.01 MN Choice (B)
2.215 × 1.5
16. D1= 12 mm Flow rate AV =
10 4
D2 = 10 mm
s0 = 400 MPa Volume of mould cavity = 1200 ×10-6 AVt
Ignoring friction and redundant work means m = 0, 1500 × 10 −6 × 10 4
b=0 t=
2.215 × 1.5
r  15
Hence σ d = 2σ 0 ln  1  =
 r2  2.215 × 1.5
15
6 =
= 2 × 400 × ln   2.215 × 1.5
5
= 4.51 sec Choice (C)
= 145.86 MPa ( N /mm 2 )
Ideal force = 146.86 × π 22 20. t1 = 25 mm
= 145.86 × π × (5) 2 t2 = 20 mm
= 11456 N W = 100 mm = 0.1 m
R = 300 mm = 0.3 m
11.46 kN Choice (B) N = 10 rpm
Flowstress s0 = 300 MPa
17. Diameter of forged rod = 300 N/mm2
Force = s0 × L × W
π 2 π
D × 50 = (100) 2 × 60
4 4 Where L = R∆t
100 2 × 60 ∆t = t1 − t 2 = 5 mm
D2 =
50 5
= 300 × 106 0.3 × × 0.1
D = 109.5 mm 1000
= 1162 kN
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Power = Force × velocity 24. Choice (B)

2π RN 25. Choice (C)
= 1162 × 103 ×
60 26. Choice (D)
2π 0.3 27. Choice (B)
= 1162 × 10 ×
3
× 10
60 28. For gray cast iron casting, mass less than 450 kg
= 365 × 103 watts  T 
t = k 1.41 + W sec
365 kW Choice (A)  14.59 
fluidity in inches
21. Volume of the cube = 603 where k =
40
Volume after solidification shrinkage and solid T = Average section thickness (mm)
contraction W = mass in Kg
= 603 × 0.97 × 0.95 \optimum pouring time
Side of the cube = 603 × 0.97 × 0.95 28  15 
t= 1.41 + 20
= 58.39 mm 40  14.59 
Choice (D)
= 7.632 secs. Choice (A)
22. Choice D
29. Choice (C)
23. Choice A
30. Choice (A)
Previous Years’ Questions 6. Sprue length, h = 20 cm = 0.2 m

Area at base of sprue, A = 1 × 10-4 m2
1. Misrun is a casting defect occurs due to insufficient Volume of mould cavity, ∀
super heat and fluidity of the molten metal and starts = 1 × 10-3 m3
freezing before reaching the farthest point of the mould
Let t be the time required to fill the mould cavity and V
cavity. Choice (B)
be the velocity of molten metal at the base of sprue.
2. Cast iron expands during cooling from solid to melting
\ Volume of cavity (m3), ∀ = A V t
point to solid at room temperature.
Velocity at base of sprue, V = 2gh
\ Negative allowance is given to pattern.
\ Volume of pattern = [200 – (0.9 × 200)] × [100 – (04 = 2 × 9.81 × 0.2
× 100)] × [10 – 10.9 × 10] = 198 × 99 × 9.9 ∴ ∀ = 1 × 10 4 × 2 × 9.81 × 0.2 × t
volume of pattern 198 × 99 × 9.9
= = 0.97 ⇒ 1 × 10 −3 = 1 × 10 4 × 2 × 9.81 × 0.2 × t
volume of casting 200 × 100 × 10
⇒ t = 5.05 sec Choice (B)
ti − t f 7. Bend allowance = a (R + kt)
3. Draft , θ =
R R = radius of bend = 100 mm
25 − 20 a = bend angle = 1 radian
= = 0.1291 radian
300 k = stretch factor = 0.5
Roll strip contact length, L = q × R t = thickness of sheet = 2 mm
= 0.1291 × 300 = 38.73 mm \ Bend allowance = 1 × [100 + 0.5 × 2]
~ 39 mm Choice (B) = 101 mm Choice (C)
4. Molded luggage–Transfer molding
8. Expendable pattern is used in investment casting.
Packaging container for liquid–Blow Molding Usually wax or plastic is used to make pattern.
Long structural shapes–Hot rolling
Choice (D)
Collapsible tubes–Impact extrusion Choice (B)
9. Time taken to fill the mould with top gates, tA
5. Hot chamber machine–Die casting
Muller–Sand mixing AH
tA =
Dielectric baker–Core making Ag 2 ght
Sand Blaster–Cleaning Choice (D)
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Given, ht = H 12. Hot chamber process is used for low melting

temperature alloys such as zinc, tin, lead. Choice (D)
A H 13. VC = VS
∴tA =
Ag 2 g Surface area of cube = 6l2
Pouring basin Surface area of sphere = 4pr 2
h1 2
V 
Solidificationtime, t = γ  
ht  A
Sprue {Caine’s relation}
Area = Agof gate Mould
2 2
tc  As   4π r 2 
Area of mould = A H =  = 
t s  Ac   6l 2 
Time taken to fill the mould with bottom gates, tB 2 4
t  4π   r 
⇒ c =
tB =
A 2
ht − ht − H  t s  6   l  Choice (D)
Ag g
14. True strain = ln(1 + ∈)
Pouring basin l1 − l 2 l1
Mould area = A ∈= = −1
l2 l2
ht Sprue
h2 H No barreling effect means volume of disc remains
unchanged after the process.
Area of gate = Ag π 2 π
D1 × l1 = × D22 × l 2
Given, ht = H 4 4
l1 D22 0.4 2
A 2 = = =4
tB = h l 2 D12 0.22
Ag g
∈= 4 − 1 − 3
t B A 2 h Ag 2 g
= × True strain = ln(3 + 1) = 1.386 Choice (C)
tA Ag g A H
15. Given: t1 = 16 mm
⇒ t B = 2t A Choice (B) t2 = 10 mm
10. Given: Thickness of sheet, t1 = 4 mm D = 400 mm
Roll diameter, D = 300 mm t1 − t 2
Coefficient of friction, μ = 0.1 Bite angle, θ
R
(ti – tf)maximum = m2 R
16 − 10
(4 – tf) = 0.12 × 150 = = 0.1732 radius
200
tf = 2.5 mm Choice (C)
180
or θ = 0.1732 × = 9.93deg rees Choice (D)
11. Given: Di = 10 mm π
Do = 8 mm
16. Given: Metal flow rate, Q = 6.5 × 105 mm3/sec
Mean stress, s0= 400 MPa
g = 104 mm/sec2
π
Force required , P = σ d × × DO2 A1 = 650 mm2
4
Continuity equation
D 
Drawing force, σ d = 2 × σ O × ln  i  Q = A1V1 = A2V2 (1)
 DO 
Q
10  ∴V1 =
∴ σ d = 2 × 400 × ln   = 178.515 MPa A1
8
π
∴ P = 178.515 × × 82
4
⇒ P = 8.97 kN Choice (B)
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V1(motten metal)
 π DN 
Power required , P = F ×  
1  60 
 π × 0.5 × 10 
Sprue
⇒ P = 670.8 ×  
 60 
200 mm ⇒ P = 1775.6 kW Choice (None)
2 19. Cold shut

V2 The liquid metal due to insufficient superheat, start
freezing before reaching the farthest point of the mould
6.5 × 105
⇒ V1 = = 1000 mm/sec cavity .This defect is known as misrun. For a casting
650 with gates at its two sides, the misrun show up at the
Applying Bernoulli’s equation between section (1) and center of casting and known as cold shut
(2) of the sprue
Gate Gate
P1 V12 P V2
+ + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z 2
ρ g 2g ρ g 2g Choice (A)
Here P1 = P2 = 0 (Atmospheric guage)
20. Choice (D)
Z2 = Base 21. Gating ratio refers to the proportion of the cross-
V12 V22 sectional areas between, the sprue, the runner and
⇒ Z1 + = ingates. Generally it denoted as
2g 2g
 1000 2  Sprue area: Runner area: Ingates area
⇒ V22 = 2 × 10 4 ×  + 200  1:2:4 Choice (A)
 2 × 10
4

22. The maximum possible draft in cold rolling of sheet
⇒ V2 = 2236.068 mm/ sec
increases with the increase in coefficient of friction.
From equation (1) Choice (A)
Q = A2V2 23. Green sand mould indicates that mould contains
6.5 × 105 moisture. Choice (D)
⇒ A2 = = 290.7 mm 2
2236.068 Choice (C) 24. Side of cube after solidification shrinkage
17. Riser compensates for shrinkage during liquid stage = 3 0.96 × 503 = 49.32 mm
and phase transition stage only and not for solid state Side of cube after contraction
shrinkage. Hence volume of metal compensated from
the riser is 3 + 4 = 7% Choice (B) = 3 0.94 × 49.323
18. Given: ti = 20 mm = 48.32 mm Choice (A)
tf = 18 mm 25. Initial volume = Final volume

b = 100 mm π π
(100) 2 × 50 = ( D ) 2 × 25
R = 250 mm 4 4
so = 300 MPa D = 141.4 mm
The percentage change in diameter

Length of contact, L = R(ti − t f )
= 141.4–100
= 0.25(0.02 − 0.018) = 41.4 Choice (D)
= 0.02236 m ∆t
26. R(1 − cos α ) =
2
Average Force ( F ) t1 = 8 mm
σO = ⇒ F = σO × A
Area ( A)
t2 = 8 × 0.9 = 7.2 mm
⇒ F = 300 × 106 × 0.1× 0.02236 Dt = t1–t2
⇒ F = 670.8 kN = 0.8 mm
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0.8  (10 × 72) 

2
210 (1 − cos a ) = 1.36 = C 
2  ⇒C =3
 2(10 × 7 + 10 × 2 + 2 × 7) 
0.8
1 − cos a =  π 2 
2 × 210  d h 
For the riser , t = 3  4 
cos α = 0.998
2
 2π d + π dh 
 4 
α = 3.54°
π  6 3

α = 3.54 ×  4 
180 = 3 2 =3
= 0.062 radians  6 + 62 
Choice (C)  2 
27. Solidification time Choice (B)
Choice 2.5 to 4.5
28. compression and shear Choice (C)
36. Rails are manufactured using rolling because of large
29. Net buoyancy force
lengths. Engine crankshaft can be made by forging.
= weight of liquid displaced - weight of the core Aluminum channels are made using extrusion. Water
π d2L bottles are made by blow mounding operation.
= × g[ ρ1 = ρ 2 ] Choice (B)
4
π × 0.12 × 0.1 37. Insulated cube: V = a , A = 5a
3 2
= × 9.81[2600 − 1600]
4 Ratio of solidification time for insulated cube to the
= 7.7 N Choice 7 to 8 other
2 2
V  V   a   a 
2 2 3 3
30. Choice (B) =  :   = 2  :  2 
31. D = 500 mm  A  I  A   5a   6 a 
t2 2 a2 a2
= = : = 36:25 Choice (B)
t1 3 25 36
b2 38.
⇒ = 1.02 O
b1 R
A θ
A1V1 = A2V2 C
or b1t1V1 = b2t2V2 B
b1 t1
⇒ V2 = × × V1
b2 t 2 q = Angle of bite, m = 0.1
1 3 ∆hmax µ 2 R
= × × 10 CB = =
1.02 2 2 2
= 14.7 m/min. Choice 14.6 to 14.8 From ∆le OAC
32. Choice (B) OB − CB R − u 2 R 2 2 − µ 2
cos q = OC/OA = = =
33. Choice (C) OA R 2
34. Maximum possible draft is given by ∴ cos q = 0.995 ⇒ q = 5.7317º Choice 5.6 to 5.8
Dh = m2R 2
where m = Coefficient of friction and V 
39. Solidification time t = k  
R = Roller radius S
So maximum draft depends on coefficient of friction V = Volume, S = Surface area, k = Material constant
and roll diameter. Choice (B)
Cube of 1000 cm3 ⇒ Side of cube = a = 10 cm
V 
2
\ S = 6 × 102 = 600 cm2
35. Solidification time t = C   2
 A  1000  36
For the plate, \ tcube = 4 = k ⇒ k = sec/ m 2 .
 600  25
2
tsphere = k.  
V
S
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4 3 TCu = solidification time of cubic casting

V = 1000 cm3 = πr ⇒ r = 6.203 cm. 2 2 2
3  a3   a   a  a 2
=  2  =  =  =
S = 4πr2 = 483.597 cm2.  6 a   6   6  36
36  1000 
2 h2
a = 2h \ TCu =
∴ tsphere = ×  = 6.157 sec
25  483.597  9
Choice 6.0 to 6.3 \ TCy:TCu = 9:16 = 0.5625 Choice 0.5 to 0.6

∆A 45. By Naval Research Laboratory method shape fac-
40. First stage, = 0.4 Length + Width 25 + 15 40
A0 tor, SF = = = = 8 for a SF
thickness 5 5
A0 − A1 A
= 0.4 ⇒ 1 = 0.6 . = 8 the volume ratio = 0.5.
A0 A0
riser volume
Second stage ∴ = 0.5
casting volume
∆A A1 − A2 A
= = 0.3 ⇒ 2 = 0.7 π 3
A1 A1 A1 d
4 = 0.5 ⇒ d = 10.6 cm
A0 − A2 A Choice 10.5 to 10.7
Overall fractional reduction = =1 − 2 25 × 15 × 5
A0 A0
A2 A2 A1 46. Choke regulates rate of pouring of molten metal.
= × = 0.7 × 0.6 = 0.42
A0 A1 A0 Choice (C).
A2 47. Given m = 2 kg
\ 1– = 1 – 0.42 = 0.58 Choice (B) Q = 10 kW
A0
Total Heat removed during phase change
41. Strain hardening exponent (n) is a material constant.
The value of n lies in between 0 to 1. = 10 × 10 = 100 kJ
0 means it’s a perfectly plastic material. As time is 10 sec
1 means it’s a perfectly elastic material. Latented heat
Stainless steel 304 has a n value of 0.44. Choice (C) 100
kJ/kg = = 50 kJ/kg
42. Full mould process also called the lost foam process 2
uses a pattern with the complete gates and risers. The Hence, the correct answer is 50.
pattern material used is expanded polystyrene (EPS).
48. dcasting = 200 mm
The Molten metal gasifies the pattern, progressive dis-
hcasting = 100 mm
placement of the pattern material takes place.
driser = hriser
Choice (A)
43. Change in thickness (∆h) = 25 – 20 = 5 mm (V/S.A)riser = 1.2 (V/S.A)casting
Roll diameter = 500 mm ⇒ R = 250 mm
π 2 
\ ∆h = m2 R  driser hriser 
4
\ 5 = m2 250 ⇒ m = 1 = 0.141 Choice 0.10 to 0.15 2
πdriser hriser + π/4driser
50
2
2 π/4 dcasting hcasting
= 1.2
44. Solidification time ∝  
V 2
πdcasting hcasting + 2 π/4 dcasting
 SA 
Tcy = solidification time of cylinder casting 3
4 hriser 1.2 × 200 2 × 100 × 2
 πr h 2

2
2 2 =
= 4 πhriser + πhriser 2 π 200 × 100 + π × 200 2
 2πr 2 + 2πrh 
hriser = 150 mm Choice (A).
2 2
 πr 3   r  h2 49. t1 = 300 mm
r = h \ TCy = =  =
 4 πr 2   4  16 r = 300 mm
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µ = 0.08 Volume ofhbpattern v1

∴ = 1.09
t2 = ? Volume of casting
t1 – t2 = µ2 R = max. possible reduction H
Choice 1.08 to 1.10.
h
= 0.08 × 300
2
51. a = thermal diffusivity = k/ρC
= 1.92 mm k = Thermal conductivity
Choice 1.9 – 1.94 mm. r = density v2
50. Shrinkage allowance = 3% = 0.03 C = specific heat

V1 = 2 ghb
401 −3
Volume of casting acopper = ( k/ρC )copper
V12 = 3439 0.52 × 10
hg = =
4  2 g 2 × 9.81
= (100 × 50 × 10) −  π × 23  ≈ 0.1166 × 10–3 m2/s
3  hg = 0.012742 m −3
60.5 × 10
= 49966.5 mm3 asteel = ( k/ρC )steel =
V2 = 2 gH 3400
Volume of pattern
H =×h10
≈ 0.0177 + h–3b m
=2/s
0.2 + 0.012742
= (100 × 1.03) × (50 × 1.03) × (10 × 1.03)
H = 0.212742 m
4 aAluminum = ( k/ρC ) Aluminum
− π (2 × 1.03)3 V2 = 2 × 9.81 × 0.212742
3 = 237 /2430 × 10 −3
uring Technology V2 = 2.04 m/s
= 54599.65 mm3 ≈ 0.1119 × 10–3 m2/s Choice (C).
Volume of pattern Hence, the correct answer is 2.04 to 2.07.
∴ = 1.09
Volume of casting 54. Metal forming is done to get highest strength of the
on product
Choice 1.08 to 1.10.
51. a = thermal diffusivity = k/ρC
k = Thermal conductivity 55.
F
ice 1.9 – 1.94 mm. r = density a
0
C = specific heat 12
401
acopper = ( k/ρC )copper = × 10 −3
3439 8 V0

 ≈ 0.1166 × 10 m /s
–3 2 7.2
−3
60.5 × 10 Projected length
asteel = ( k/ρC )steel =
3400
≈ 0.0177 × 10–3 m2/s
( Lp ) = RΔh = 150 × 0.8 = 10.95mm
(10 × 1.03)
aAluminum = ( k/ρC ) Aluminum Projected area = L p × b = 10.95 × 120
= 1314.48 mm 2
= 237 /2430 × 10 −3
≈ 0.1119 × 10–3 m2/s Choice (C). Roll seperating force ( F ) = P × L p × b
= 200 × 1314.48
52. d = d 2 + 4 dh
= 262.896 kN
D = 152 + 4 × 15 × 10
Length ( a ) = 0.5 L p (assuming hot working )
D = 28.723 mm
= 0.5 × 10.955 = 5.475 mm
53. d = 20 mm, h = 200 mm = 0.2 m = 1439.4 N − m
v
V1 = 0.5 m/s Power per roller = T ×
r
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Here, velocity (V) is average velocity at neutral plane. L1

True strain = ∈T = ln
Using continuity equation L2

hi bi vi = h f b f v f ⇒ 8 × 120 × vi = 7.2 × 120 × 30 ⎡ L1 ⎤
⎢ ⎥ 1
⇒ vi = 27 m/min ∈T = ln ⎢ 2 ⎥ = ln
2
vi + v f ⎢ L1 ⎥
27 + 30 ⎣ ⎦
∴ Average Velocity v = = = 28.5 m/min
2 2 ∈T = –0.693

28.5 1 Magnitude of strain is 0.693.
∴ Power per roller = 1439.4 × × = 4.558 kW
60 0.15 Hence, the correct answer is 0.693.
Total power = 2 × power per roller 59. Rate of solidification is high at surface of mould during
solidification of pure molten metal. Hence, the grains
= 2 × 4.558 = 9.116 kW
produced are fine and randomly oriented.
Hence, the correct answer is 8.5 to 10.
56. For perfect plastic material strain hardening coefficient
n=0 60. Toothpaste tube – Impact extrusion
Metallic pipes – Centrifugal Casting
R = 1 – e–(0 + 1) Plastic bottles – Blow moulding
1 Threaded bolts – Rolling
R = 1 – e–1 = 1 –
e Hence, the correct option is (C).
R = 0.632 61. σ = 1020 ∈0.4
Hence, the correct option is (D). Necking begins when true strain is equal to strain hard-
ening exponent.
57. σ (MPa) ∈ = n = 0.4
A
500
A0
ln =∈
Af
E 500 – 100
100
ln = 0.4
θ Af
100 C
B 100
Af = = 67.03 mm2
ε
e 0.4
εB 0.5
σ 62. di = 10 mm
E= = tan θ
E df = 7.5 mm
The slope of the stress – strain curve is E. a = 5°
(sy)avg = 350 mPa
(500 −100)
\ tanq = = tan θ = E 2 μ cot α ⎤
0.5 −∈B 1 ⎫⎡ ⎛ df ⎞

⎧
sf = (sy)avg ⎨1 + ⎬ ⎢1- ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
400 ⎩ μ cot α ⎭ ⎢⎣ ⎝ di ⎠ ⎥
⎦
= 2 × 105
0.5− ∈B
1 ⎤ ⎡ ⎛ 7.5 ⎞
2×0.1cot 5 ⎤
⎡
400 sf = 350 ⎢1 + ⎥ ⎢1 − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
0.5 – ∈B = ⎣ 0.1 cot 5 ⎦ ⎢⎣ ⎝ 10 ⎠ ⎥⎦
2 × 105
= 316.28 MPa
∈B = 0.498
Hence, the correct answer is 316.28 MPa.
Hence, the correct answer is 0.498. 2
58. L2 = Final length τ R ⎛ mR ⎞
63. =⎜ ⎟
τ C ⎝ mC ⎠
L1 = Initial length
L 80 × 120 × 20
L2 = 1 mC =
2 2[(80 × 120) + (120 × 20) + (80 × 20)]

Unit 07.indd 16 4/27/2019 4:03:57 PM

mC = 7.05 d
= 1.5
For side riser, 6 × 7.05
d d = 51.8
mR =
6
mR
= 1.5
mC

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CHapter 3 sHeet Metal Working Joining proCesses
Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 = 0.0078 gm/mm3
Mass of material (m)
1. d = 105 mm = 40 × 0.0078
r = 6 mm = 0.312 gm
h = 25 mm Q = Cm DT
d
= 17.5 Temperature rise DT = ∆T = Q
r Cm
800
If d is between 15 and 20 =
r 0.46 × 0.312
= 5574 °C
D = d 2 + 4 dh − 0.5r Choice (D)
= 105 + 4 × 105 × 25 − 0.5 × 3
2 6. Varc = 20 + 5 L
= 146.7 L = 5 mm, Varc = 45 V
≈ 147 L = 7 mm, Varc = 55 V
V
Diameter of blank V = V0 − 0 I
Is
= 147 + trimming allowance
= 147 + 3 V0 = open circuit voltage
= 150 mm Choice (C) Is = short circuit current
2. t = 450 N/mm2 V0
45 = V0 − × 500
t = 4 mm Is
d = 10 mm V
55 = V0 − 0 × 400
Shear on punch t1= 2 mm Is
Solving,
Penetration p = 0.4
 tp  V0 = 95 W
Blanking force = π dtI   Is = 950 amp Choice (C)
 t1 
= p × 10 × 4 ×450 × 10-3 7. Thickness of sheet t = 1.5 mm
= 45.24 kN Choice (B) Current I = 10000 A
3. Power input by heat source = VI Resistance R = 200 mW
= 20 × 200 Heat developed = H = I 2 RT
= 4000 W 5
= (10000) 2 × 200 × 10 −6 ×
Heat input to work piece 50
=VI × heat tansfer efficiency = 2000 J.
= 4000 × 0.85 Nugget diameter dn = 6 t
= 3400 W = 6 1.5
Heat required to melt the work piece
= 7.35 mm
= 10 J/mm3 Height of nugget
= 10 × 20 × 5 J/sec h = 2 × t (1– indentation)
= 1000 W
= 2 × 1.5 (1 – 0.1)
Melting efficiency = 1000
3400 = 2.7 mm
= 29.4% Choice (A) Volume of fused metal
4. Q = I Rt
2 π
= dn2 h
= 100002 × 100 × 10-6 × 0.08 4
π
= 800 J Choice (B) = × (75) 2 × 2.7
4
5. Nugget can be taken as a cylinder of 5 mm diameter
and 2 mm height. = 114.56 mm3
π 114.56 × 8
Volume of material is = × 25 × 2 mass =
4 10000
~ 40 mm3
= 0.916 gm
Density of steel = 7800 kg/mm3
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Heat required = 0.916 × 1380 Clearance C = 0.0032 × t × t

= 1264.73 J
= 0.0032 × 2 × 295
Percentage heat utilization for making the nugget
= 0.1099 mm ≅ 0.1 mm
1264.73 × 100
= Punch size = Die Size – 2C
2000
= 25 – 0.2
= 63.24% Choice (D)
= 24.8 mm.
8. Hole diameter = 20 mm
12. As it is a punching operation, shear is to be provided on
Sheet thickness = 3 mm the punch.
3
Clearance C = 3 × Maximum punching load
100
Fmax = L t t
Punch diameter = 20 –2C
3 = p × 100 × 6 × 550
= 20 − 2 × × 3 = 19.82 mm Choice (C) = 1036.725 kN
100
Total work done in punching
9. Force = τ × 2( L + W ) × t
= 1036.725 × 6 × 0.4
1
= 2900 × 2( 25 + 25) × = 2488.14 J
10
Let S be the shear provided in mm.
= 2900 kgf
Work done with 250 kN press
= 2900 × 9.81 N
= 250 (0.4 × 6 + s) = 2488.14
= 28.42 kN Choice (C)
600+250s = 2488.14
10. Fmax = π dtσ u 2488.14 − 600
S=
D = d 2 + 4 dh 250
= 7.55 mm
= 752 + 4 × 75 × 40 = 133 mm
Assuming balanced shear,
D 133
= = 1.773 Shear angle
d 75
So it can be assumed that the cup can be drawn in one  7.55 
= tan −1  
operation.  50 
Fmax = p dtsu = 8.59°
75 2 13. Choice (D)
=π × × × 3000
10 10 14. Choice (B)
= 14137 kgf
15. Choice (A)
= 138.68 kN Choice (A)
16. Choice (C)
11. For blanking, 17. Choice (D)
Die size = blank size = 25 mm
18. Choice (A)
19. Choice (C)
20. Choice (B)
Practice Problems 2 6. Choice (C)

7. Choice (C)
1. Choice (D)
8. d = 100 mm
2. Choice (B)
h = 90 mm
3. Choice (B)
r = 4 mm
4. Heat generated
= I 2 Rt d 100
∴ = = 25
r 4
= 45002 × 250 × 10 – 6 × 0.2
d
= 1012.5 Joules Choice (A) When − > 20
r
5. Choice (B)
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7.20 | Manufacturing Technology Chapter 3 • Sheet Metal Working Joining Processes | 3.361
Blank diameter 12. Fmax = 250 × 250 × 3

D = d 2 + 4 hd F = 0.6 Fmax
= 100 2 + 4 × 90 × 100 ( Fmax − F )

S= pt
= 214.47 mm F
Choice (D)
0.4
= × 0.3 × 3
9. Power input = VI 0.6
= 25 × 300 = 0.6 mm Choice (B)
= 7500 W. 13. Let the shear be 5 mm
n = 8 mm/s ( Fmax − Fs )
h t = 0.9 S= pt
Fs
Net heat input in J/mm
S = 1, p = 0.3, t = 3
7500 ×ηt
= i.e. F − Fs
ν I = max pt
Fs
7500 × 0.9
= Fmax − Fs 1 1
8 = =
= 843.9 Choice (C) Fs 0.3 × 3 0.9
0.9 Fmax– 0.9Fs = Fs
10. Power source characteristic
0.9 Fmax = 1.9 Fs
80
V = 80 − I Fs = 0.4737 Fmax
800
% of reduction = 52.63 % Choice (B)
I
= 80 − 14. Voltage – arc length characteristic.
10 (1)
Let voltage – arc length characteristic be V = 20 + 40 L (1)
V = a + BL (2) Power source characteristic
From (1) and (2) ocv
V = ocv − I (2)
I ISC
A + bL = 80 −
10 L1 = 3 mm, I1 = 400 A
When arc length L 7 mm L2 = 5 mm, I2 = 500 A
I = 460 A V1 = 20 + 40 L,
And L = 5 mm, I = 500 A = 20 + 40 × 3 = 140 V
Substituting V2 = 20 + 40 L2
500 = 20 + 40 × 5 = 220 V
a + 5b = 80 −
10 ocv
460 V1 = ocv − I
a + 7b = 80 − ISC
10 ocv
140 = ocv − 500 (3)
Solving, ISC
b = 2, a = 20 ocv
220 = ocv − 400 ( 4)
V = 20 + 2 L Choice (C) ISC
11. Balancing force (3)
Fb α d × t (44)
Fb2 d2 × t 2 140 500 400
= =I− I−
Fb1 d1 × t1 220 ISC ISC
d2 t 2
FB2 = Fb1 × 140 (ISC – 400) = 220 (ISC – 500)
d1t1
ISC = 675 A
1.5d × 0.4t
= 6× From (3)
d ×t
= 3.6 kN Choice (A)
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 500  = 0.233 gm
140 = OCV 1 −
 675  Heat required = 0.233 × 1380 = 321 J
321
OCV = 540 V Choice (A) Efficiency = × 100
1000
15. Diameter of punch = Blank diameter Choice (C)
= 32.1%
– 2C – die allowance 19. I 2Rt = nugget volume × density × Latent heat
= 25 – 2 × 0.06 – 0.05 i e.
24.83 mm Choice (D) I 2 × 200 × 10-6 × 0.1=
16. For punching operation π 2
punch size = blank size = 25 mm 5 × 1.5 × 10 −9 × 8000 × 1400 × 1000
4
Clearance = 0.0032 × t T I 2 = 164.93 ×105
= 0.0032 × 2 × 290 I = 164.93 × 105
= 0.109 mm I = 4061 A Choice (C)
= 0.11 mm 20. Let s be the welding speed (mm/s)
Die size = punch size + 2c
Input power × hw × ht
= 25 +2 × 0.11
= volume of weld × heat absorbed per sec
= 25.22 mm Choice (A)
i.e. 2000 × 0.5 × 0.7 = 5 × 5 × 10
17. Power input = VI
s = 14 mm/s Choice (A)
= 20 × 230
= 4600 W or J/s 21. Total heat supplied
Volume of weld is 10
= I 2 Rt = (10000) 2 × 500 × 10 −6 ×
= CS area × travel speed. 100
= 20 × 4 = 500 J
= 80 mm3/S Mass of nugget = 4 π 2 × 10 −3 × 7000
( )
3
Heat requirement for melting = 80 × 12 = 960 J/s 3

Power input × ht × hm = 960 J/s = 2.346 × 10 −4
i.e. 4600 × ht × 0.4 = 960 Total heat for melting
Heat transfer efficiency = mL + mCp (Tm – Ta )
960 = 2.346 × 10 –4 [300 × 103 + 800 (1793 – 293)]
ηt = = 0.52
460 × 04 = 351.9 J
= 52% Choice (B) Melting efficiency = 351.9 × 100
500
18. Sheet thickness = 1 mm
= 70.38%
Current I = 10000 A
Choice (C)
Resistance R = 100 mW
22. Choice (C)
Welding time t = 0.15
23. Choice (C)
Heat developed H = I2 Rt
24. Choice (B)
= (10000)2 × 100 × 10-6 × 0.1
25. Choice (C)
= 1000 J
26. Choice (D)
Volume of fused metal
27. Choice (D)
π
= d2 × h 28. Choice (A)
4
π 2 29. Choice (C)
= × 5 × 1.5 mm3
4 30. Choice (B)
π
Mass = × 25 × 1.5 × 0.0079 gm
4
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Previous Years’ Questions 6375 6375

or P = (J/mm) = = 797 J/mm Choice (B)
ν 8
1. Heat generated = I 2 Rt 6.
= 50002 ×200 × 10-6 × 0.2
Gas tungsten arc Arc is maintained. Metal melts due to
= 1000 Joules Choice (D) welding high temperature (liquid state joining
2. Given: d = 10 mm process)
t = 3 mm Resistance spot Interface of two joining metal melts

welding over a spot (liquid state joining
t = 400 N/mm2 process)
p = 0.4 Friction welding Interface is heated up due to friction
t1 = 2 mm but never melts. (solid state joining
Blanking force with shear F will be process)
F(tp + t1) = Fmax × t × p Submerged arc Arc is maintained underneath a

welding mass of fusible, granular flux. Liquid
Fmax = Force without shear = Ltt weld pool occurs (liquid state joining
Fmax = pd × t × t {L = td} process)
Fmax = p × 10 × 3 × 400 Choice (C)
= 37.7 kN 7. Power source characteristic is linear
∴ F[(3 × 0.4) + 2] = 37.7 × 3 × 0.4 Open circuit voltage (OCV ) = 80 V
⇒F = 14.14 kN Choice (None) Short circuit current (SCC ) = 800 A
3. Given: Density, ρ = 8000 kg/m 3
 OCV 
Time of current, t = 0.1 sec E = OCV −  I
 SCC 
Volume of nugget, V = pr 2 h 80
⇒ E = 80 − I
= p × 0.00252 × 0.0015 800
= 2.945 × 10-8 m3
Linear voltage(E)–arc length(L) characteristic of
Latent heat of fusion of steel, L = 1400 kJ/kg welding arc be
Resistance = 200 × 10-6 Ω E = a + bL (2)
Heat required = L × ρ × V Where a, b are constants and L = arc length
= [1400 × 8000 × 2.945 × 10-8] kJ For arc current (I ) = 500 A, arc length ( L) = 5 mm
= 329.84 J 80
From (1) E = 80 − (500)
∵ Heat generated = heat required 800
⇒E = 80 – 50 = 30 V
∴ I 2Rt = 329.84
329.84 From (2) E = a + 5b
⇒I = From above a + 5b = 30 (3)
0.1× 200 × 10 −6
⇒ I = 4061 A Choice (C) For arc current (I ) = 460 A, arc length (L) = 7 mm
4. Wrinkling – Insufficient blank holding force 80
From (1) E = 80 − ( 460) = 34 V
Orange peel – Large grain 800
Stretcher strain – Yield point elongation From (2) E = a + 7b
From above a + 7b = 34 (4)
Earing – Anisotropy Choice (D)
From equation (3) and (4)
5. Given: Voltage, V = 25 V
a = 20 and b = 2
Current, I = 300 A
∴ Equation (2) becomes E = 20 + 2L Choice (A)
Heat transfer efficiency, hH = 0.85
8. Total heat supplied, Qs = I Rt
2
Welding speed, n = 8 mm/s

⇒ Qs = (10 × 103)2 × 500 × 10-6 × 10 × 10-3
Power generated due to arc, P = VI = 25 × 300 J/sec
⇒ Qs = 500 J
= 7500 J/sec
Total heat required for melting, Qm
Power utilized as heat, P = hH × VI
Qm = mL + mCP (Tm - T∞)
= 0.85 × 7500 = 6375 J/sec
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CP = specific heat = 800 J/kg – K 15. ts = 300 MPa

Tm = 1793 K, T∞ = 293 K F = τ S π Dt
L = Latent heat of fusion = 300 kJ/kg 300 × π 100 × 1.5
=
m = mass = (density × volume) 1000
or m = ρ × V = 141 kN Choice (C)
4 16. Choice (A)
⇒ m = 7000 × π r 3
3 17. D = 25 mm
4 Diameter of the punch = 25 – diametral clearance – die
⇒ m = 7000 × × π × 0.0023
3 allowance
= 2.346 × 10 −4 kg = 25 – ( 0.06)2 – 0.05
= 25 – 0.12 – 0.05
Qm = [2.346 × 10-4 × 300 × 103] + [2.346 ×10-4 × 800 × = 24.83 mm Choice (A)
(1793 – 293)] 18. V = 20 + 5
⇒ Qm = 351.9 J = 5 mm
Qm 351.9 V = 20 + 25 = 45
Melting efficiency = = = 70.38% Choice (C)
QS 500 = 7 mm
9. Blanking – Shear stress (deformation) V = 20 + 35 = 55
Strech forming – Tension (stretching) I V
+ =1
Coining – Compression I 0 V0
Deep drawing – Tension and compression Choice (D) 500 45
+ =1
10. Blanking Force, F = L t t I 0 V0
L = length of cut = pd (for circular blank) 400 55
+ =1
t = sheet thickness I 0 V0
t = shear strength of metal sheet 500 45
∴ F1 = pd t t = 5 kN (given) = 1−
I0 V0
and F2 = p (1.5d)(0.4t)t 400 55
F1 = 0.6(pd t t) = 1−
I0 V0
F2 = 0.6 F1 = 0.6 × 5
1 1  55 
⇒ F2 = 3 kN Choice (A) = 1 − 
I 0 400  V0 
11. Let the speed of welding be V mm/sec
Volume of weld/sec = (5 × V ) mm3/sec 1  55  45
= 500 × 1 −  = 1 −
Energy required to melt the metal 400  V0  V0
= 10 × 5 × V = 50V  55  45
Welding power supplied = 2000 (J/sec) × hm × hHT 1.25 1 −  = 1 −
 V0  V0
∵ Energy required = power supplied
68.75 45
∴ 10 × 5 × V = 2000 × 0.5 × 0.7 = 1.25 − = 1−
V0 V0
⇒ V = 14 mm/sec Choice (B)
68.75 − 45
12. Wrinkle up around the periphery (flauge) during deep = 0.25
Vo
drawing of cups is due to buckling of plates because of
circumferential compression. By increasing the blank 68.75 − 45
V0 =
holder pressure, it can prevent. Choice (A) 0.25
13. The operation in which oil is permeated into the = 95 V
pores of a powder metallurgy product is known as I 0 = 950 A Choice (C)
impregnation. Choice (C)
19. P – 4, Q – 3. R – 1, S – 2 Choice (A)
14. Nonconsumable electrodes is used in tungsten inert gas
welding or gas tungsten arc welding. Choice (C) 20. Choice (A)
21. Choice (B)
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22. Hole size = 100 mm × 50 mm L

t= , L = length of weld, u = welding speed.
Thickness = 5 mm u
Shear area, A = Perimeter × t I L I L
∴ Q1 = Q2 ⇒ 1 1 = 2 2
= (100 + 50) × 2 × 5 u1 u2
= 1500 mm2 Taking L1 = L2
Shear strength, Ssy = 300 MPa 50 I 2
∴ = ⇒ I2 = 40 Amp Choice (A)
= 300 N/mm2 150 120
Punching force = Ssy × A 28. Autogeneous processes do not have a filler material.
= 300 × 1500 In tungsten inert gas welding and electroslag welding
filler material is provided. Choice (A)
= 450,000 N
29. Twelding > Tbrazing > Twelding. Choice (D)
= 450 kN Choice (B)
30. Submerged arc welding (SAW) uses blanket of fusible
23. I =10,000 A
granular flux. Choice (B)
R =0.0002 Ω
31. V = 100 + 40l
t = 0.2 s
V I
Heat dissipated = 1000 J + =1
Voc I sc
Heat required for melting = 20 J/mm3
Heat input = I 2RT J  I 
V = Voc  1−
Let V be the volume of nugget  I sc 
20 × V + 1000 = (10,000)2 × 0.0002 × 0.2 l1 = 1 mm, I1 = 250 A
⇒ V = 150 mm3 Choice 140 to 160 l2 = 2 mm, I2 = 200 A
24. Choice (A) V1 = 140 V, V2 = 180 V
25. Syt = 500 m pa  250 
We get, 140 = Voc  1 − (1)
Sut = 700 m pa
 I sc
t = 8 mm
 200 
width w = 20 mm 180 = Voc  1 − (2)
 I sc 
under cut = 3 mm
effective thickness t ′ = 8 - 3 = 5 mm On solving,
Maximum tensile load carrying capacity  200  250
0.777  1 −  =1−
= Sut × t ′ × w = 700 × 5 × 20  I SC  I sc
= 70 kN Choice 68 to 72
Isc = 424 A Choice 423 to 428
26. V0 = 80 V and IS = 300 A
32.
V I
+ =1 (power source characteristic) 2 mm
V0 I 0
V I 1
∴ + =1⇒ 7.5V + 2 I = 600 ⇒V = ( 600 − 2 I )
80 300 7.5 I = 4000 A R = 200 × 10–6 Ω
1 t = 0.2 sec r = 8000 kg/m3
P = Power = VI = (600 – 2I).I
7.5 dn = 5 mm L.H = 1400 kJ/kg
∂P tnugget = ?
For maximum power; =0
∂I
π 2
∂P 1 Volume of nugget = d ×t
= ( 600 − 4 I ) = 0 4 n nugget
∂ I 7.5 Heat supplied
∴ I = 150 Amps Choice 149 to 151 = I 2 Rt = 40002 × 0.2 × 200 × 10–6 = 640 J
27. Heat input and voltage are same for both processes Heat required to melt
Q = VIt = L.H × r × volume
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= 1400 × 103 × 8000 × p/4 × 25 × 10–6 × tnugget × 10–3 = 2 mm;the

tConsider
33. d =rectangle
10 mm ABCD which repeats again on
= 219.8tnugget the strip of sheet,
ts = 80 MPa; SyT = 100 MPa
640 A F = pdt × tTs == Total
p × 2area
× 10 × 80
uring Technology So, tnugget = = 2.911 mm Choice 2.85 to 2.95.
219.8 = 5.026 kN Choice 4.9–5.1
⎛ D D D D ⎞⎛ D D D ⎞
0–6 × tnugget × 10–3 33. t = 2 mm; d = 10 mm = ⎜ + + + ⎟⎜ + + ⎟
⎝ 5 2 2 5 ⎠⎝ 2 2 2 ⎠
ts = 80 MPa; SyT = 100 MPa
F = pdt × ts = p × 2 × 10 × 80 7 6 42 2
Choice 2.85 to 2.95. AT = D× D = D
= 5.026 kN Choice 4.9–5.1 5 5 25
3 4. In arc welding, Heat required for producing π 2

AB = Blanking area = D
Weld bead = Cross sectional area of weld bead × speed 4
× heat required per mm3 AT − AB
1 % of scrap = ×100%
Cross sectional area α AT
speed
CS1 S2 ⎡ ⎛π ⎞ ⎤
= ⎢ ⎜4⎟⎥
CS2 S1 = ⎢1 − ⎝ ⎠ ⎥ × 100
CS ⎢ ⎛ 42 ⎞ ⎥
CS2 = 1 ⎢ ⎜⎝ 25 ⎟⎠ ⎥
2 ⎣ ⎦
= 53.25%
∴ Area is reduced by 50%
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct answer is 53.25.
35. 37. Voltage = 30 V
Current = 100 A
Cross-sectional area A = 20 mm2
Specific energy of melting = 14 J/mm3
ηthermal = 70%
Power = ηth ×VI
The shaded region represents fillet type of weld. = 0.7 × 30 × 100
= 2100 J/S
36. A B Power
Specific energy =
D/5 D/5 A ×V
Power
V =
D/2 Specific energy× A

D/2 D/5 2100
D/2 D/2 =
14 × 20
D/5 D/5 V = 7.5 mm/s
C D Hence, the correct answer is 7.5 V.
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CHapter 4 MaCHining and MaCHinetool operations
Hints/solutions
0.26
Practice Problems 1  120 
 180  = 0.9
1. V = 100 m/min  
V3 = 0.9 V1
T = 40 min
= 0.9 × 45 = 40.5 m/min Choice (C)
n = 0.12 F
5. Coefficient of friction µ =
VTn = C N
where F = Ft cos a + Fc sin a
log V + n log T = log C
= 50 cos 10 + 150 sin 10
log 100 + 0.12 log 40 = log C
= 49.24 + 26.047
C = 155.7
= 75.28 kgf
Taylor’s equation is VTn = 155.7
a N = Fc cos a – Ft sin a
Tool life for a cutting speed of 75 m/min
= 150 cos 10 – 50 sin 10
75 × T0.12 = 155.7
155.7 = 139.4 kgf
T 0.12 = 75.28
75 \ m = = 0.54 Choice (A)
139.3
T = 440 min Choice (B)
6. Feed = 0.5 mm/rev
2. n = 0.5
No. of revolution for a cut of
C = 350
300
VTn = C 300 mm = = 600
0.5
V1 T10.5 = 350
Cutting speed = 30 m/min
0.80 V1(T2)0.5 = 350
0.5
= p DN where N = rpm
 T1  1
  = 30 30
0.80 ∴N = =
 T2  π D π × 0.05
T1 Time required for a cut of 300 mm
= 1.56
T2 600
= min
T1 − T2 N
= 0.56
T1 600
= × π × 0.05
Increase in tool life = 56% Choice (A) 30
3. V1 = 45 m/min = 3.14 min Choice (C)
T1 = 120 min 7. Depth of cut = 2.5 mm
N = 0.26 Cutting speed = 25 m/min
V2 = 1.25 V1 Feed = 0.3 mm/rev
V1 T1n = V2 T2n Step 1
V1 T10.26 = 1.25V1 T20.26 Reducing 90 mm length to 40 mm diameter this can be
0.26
done in two cuts only as depth of cut should not exceed
 T2  1 2.5 mm.
  = = 1.25
 T1  1.25 25 × 1000
N1 = = 159.15 rpm
π × 50
T2
= 0.424 L 90
T1 t1 = 1 = min = 1.88 min
fN1 0.3 × 159.15
T2 = 120 × 0.424
= 50.9 min Choice (B) rpm for 2nd cut
4. V1 T1n = V3 T3n 25000
n N1′ = = 176.84
V3  T1  π × 45
=  90
V1  T3  T1′ = = 1.696 min
0.3 × 176.84
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Step 2 Facing
Reducing 40 mm length from 40 mm dia to 30 mm dia. The job length is to be reduced from
25000 170 mm to 166 mm
N2 =
π × 40 Total depth to be faced = 170 - 166 = 4 mm
40 × π × 40 4
T2′ = = 0.67 min \ No. of facing operation required = = 2
0.3 × 25000 2
25000 L 25
N 2′ = Time for facing one pass = = = 0.185 min
π × 35 fN 0.3 × 450
40 × π × 35 Total time for facing
T2′ = = 0.586 min
0.3 × 25000 = 2 × 0.185
Total machining time = 0.370 min
= 1.88 + 1.696 + 0.67 + 0.586 Total time for machining
= 4.832 min Choice (B) = Turning time + facing time
8. L = 150 mm = 3.89 + 0.370 = 4.26 min
D1 = 12 mm Choice (B)
D2 = 10 mm 11. D = 10 mm
N = 500 rpm V = 31.42 m/min
Cutting speed = p DN mm/min L = 100 mm
π × 12 × 500 f = 0.7 mm/rev
= = 18.85 m/min Choice (D)
1000
V 31.42 × 1000
9. Material removal rate (MRR) N= = = 1000 rpm
πD π × 10
p D1 × feed rate × rpm × depth of cut
Tool life T from Taylor’s expression
Feed rate = 200 mm/min
200 VTn = 180
= mm/min
500 31.42 × T1.2 = 180
12 − 10 180
Depth of cut = = 1 mm T 1.2 =
2 31.42
\ MRR = p × 12 × 200 × 1 T = 4.28 min
= 7540 mm3/min Choice (A) Machining time for one piece
10. L = 170 mm L 100
= = = 0.14286 min
fN 0.7 × 1000
D1 = 60 mm
D2 = 50 mm Machining time for 1000 pieces = 142.86 min
N = 450 rpm No. of sharpening required
f = 0.3 mm/rev 142.86
=
d = 2 mm T
142.86
Turning = = 33.278 = 33 Choice (C)
4.28
Total length of tool travel = 170 + 5 = 175 mm
60 − 50 12. f = 0.25 mm/rev
Depth to be cut = =5
2 Depth of cut d = 1 mm
As the maximum depth of cut is 2 mm, 3 passes of turn- rpm No. of components per cutting tool
ing operation will be required. N1 = 50 x1 = 500/10
L
Maximum time for one cut = N2 = 80 x2 = 122/10
fN
N3 = 60 x3
175
= = 1.296 min Taylor’s equation VTn = C
0.3 × 450
V a N, rpm
Total turning time = 1.296 × 3 = 3.89 min
Tool life T a x
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7.28 | Manufacturing Technology Chapter 4 • Machining and Machine Tool Operations | 3.369
\ Nxn = C Return time 1

=
N1x1n = N2 x2n Cutting time 2
N 1  x2 
n
42
=  No. of strokes = = 140
N 2  x1  0.3
540 × 140
50  122 
n Cutting time = = 9.45 min
= 8 × 1000
80  500  9.45
1 Return time = = 4.73 min
n= 2
3 1
Total machining time = 9.45 + 4.73 = 14.18 min
N1  x3  3 Choice (C)
= 
N 3  x1  19. d = 10 mm
1
50  x3  3 t = 25 mm
=
60  50  120
3 α= = 60°
 50  x3 2
 60  = 50
  f = 0.2 mm/rev
x3 = 28.9 Choice (A) Break through distance
13. VT1 = C n d 10
A= = = 2.89 mm
90.T 0.12 = 130 2 tan α 2 tan 60
1
\ T1 = 21.42 min Total length of tool travel

C2 = 130 × 1.08 = 140.4 L=t+A+2
.
90 T2 = 140.4
0.12 25 + 2.89 + 2 = 29.89
T2 = 40.68 min Time for drilling
% increase in tool life L 29.89
= = = min
T −T fN 0.2 × 300
= 2 1 × 100
T1 = 29.89 sec
40.68 − 21.42
= × 100 30 sec Choice (D)
21.42
20. f = feed rate
= 89.9 % Choice (B) Peak–valley ht
14. Choice (C) f
h=
15. Choice (B) tan (SCEA ) + cot ( ECEA )
16. Choice (C) where SCEA = side cutting edge angle = 15°
17. Choice (A) ECEA = end cutting edge angle = 8°
18. Length of stroke = 500 + 2 × 20 = 540 mm f
∴h =
Cutting speed V = 8 m/min tan 15° + cot 8
Feed rate f = 0.3 mm/stroke f
=
Width of plate b = 42 mm 0.269 + 7.1154
= 0.135 f mm Choice (A)
Practice Problems 2 8n
=1
1. Taylor’s tool life equation is 2
VTn = constant 1
8n =
\ V1 T1n = V2T2n 2
V1 1
× (8T1 ) n n= Choice (C)
2 3
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2. VTn = C = t1 = feed × sin c

V1 T1 = V2 T2
n n
= 0.25 × sin 90
n
V1  T2  = 0.25] Choice (B)
= 
V2  T1  6. 2f + l - a = 90°
V1 T For l = a
log = n log 2
V2 T1 f = 45° Choice (B)
7. t1 = 0.5 mm
60 35
log = n log V = 18 m/min
90 80
a = 15°
0.176
n= = 0.49 Width of cut W = 5 mm
0.359
t2 = 0.7 mm
60 × 800.49 = C Ft = 200 N
i.e. C = 513.6 Choice (D) Fc = 1200 N
T2 V t 0.5
3. n log = log 1 ϒ = 1 = = 0.714
T1 V2 t 2 0.7
T2 60 r cos α
0.49 log = log tan f =
80 30 1 − r sin α
T2 0.714 cos 15
log = 0.6143 =
80 1 − 0.714 sin 15
T2 = 0.846
= 4.115
80 f = 40.2°
T2 = 329.18 Shear strain = cot f + tan (f - a)
Percentage increased in tool life = cot 40.2 + tan (40.2 – 15)
329.18 − 80 × 100 = 1.183 + 0.4705
= = 311.5% Choice (B)
80 = 1.65 Choice (C)
4. Coefficient of friction F Fc sin α + FT cos α
F 8. µ = =
µ= N Fc cos α − FT sin α
N 1200 sin 15 + 200 cos 15
F sin α + Ft cos α =
= c 1200 cos 15 + 200 sin 15
Fc cos α − Ft sin α 503.77
= = 0.455 Choice (A)
900 sin 6 + 450 cos 6 1107.37
= 9. Frictional force FR
900 cos 6 + 450 sin 6
= Fc sin a + F1 cos a
541.6
= = 0.639 = 1200 sin15 + 200 cos 15
848.03
= 503.8
b = tan-1 (0.639) = 32.6° Choice (A)
Velocity of chip
r cos α V sin ϕ
5. tan f = Vc = = 0.713 V
1 − r sin α cos(ϕ − α)
t 0.25 Power consumption due to friction = F .V
r= 1 = = 0.5 R c
t2 0.5 = 503.8 × 0.713 V
a=0 = 359.21 × V
0.5 cos 0 Total power consumption = Fc × V = 1200 × V
∴ tan f = = 0.5
1− 0 Percentage of energy dissipated due to friction
f = 26.56° 359.21
= × 100 = 30% Choice (D)
[c = 90° 1200
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10. Where V = cutting velocity m/sec

w = width of cut
α
Fc = feed/rev
λ−α
FT d = depth of cut
α
Cutting force = Fc = Vc × w × d × 1000
λ Fc = 2.5 × 0.2 × 2 × 1000
= 1000 N Choice (A)
t
r= = 0.5 13. By Taylor’s equation
tc
VTn = C
r cos α
tan f = Let V be the speed above which tool A will have a
1 − r sin α
higher tool life than 100 B
0.5 cos 6 i.e., when VA = VB = V
=
1 − 0.5 sin 6 TA = TB
0.4973 VTA0.4 = 90
= = 0.5247
0.9477 VTB0.3 = 60
f = 27.69° log V + 0.4 log TA = log 90
τ ft log V + 0.3 log TB = log 60
Shear force =
sin ϕ log V − log 90
= log TA
260 × 0.2 × 3 0.4
=
sin 27.69° log V − log 60
= log TB
= 335.71 N Choice (A) 0.3
11. 2 f + l – a = 90° As TA = TB
l = 90 + a - 2f log V − log 90  log V − log 60 
− 0
= 90 + 6 - 2 × 27.69 0.4  0.3 
= 40.62° log V log V
− 4.886 − + 5.927 = 0
Resultant machining force 0.4 0.3
Fs log V log V
R= − = −1.041
cos( ϕ + λ − α ) 0.4 0.3
335.71  1 1 
= log V  − = −1.041
cos( 27.69 + 40.62 − 6)
 0. 4 0.3 
336
= = 723 N log V × (-0.833) = -1.041
0.4647
log V = 1.2797
Thrust force = Ft = R sin (l - a)
V = 17.77 m/min Choice (B)
= 723 sin (40.6 – 6)
14. Choice (C)
= 410.6 N
15. Choice (D)
Cutting force = Fc = R cos (l - a)
16. Choice (D)
= 723 sin (40.6 – 6)
17. h = peak to valley height
= 595 N
f
Frictional force F = Fc sin a + Ft cos a =
tan Cs + cot Ce
= 595 sin 6 + 411 cos 6
where f = feed rate
= 471 N Choice (B)
Cs = side cutting edge angle
12. Specific energy consumption is energy consumption
per unit volume of material. Ce = end cutting edge angle
Fc × V f
Vc = hp =
w × d × V ×1000 tan 20 + cot 7
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f Time required for the 3 cuts

hq =
tan 30 + cot 8 40 × π
= [45 + 40 + 35]
hp tan 30 + cot 8 0.3 × 25000
=
hq tan 20 + cot 7 = 2.01 min
0.5774 + 7.1154 Total time required
= = 1.88 + 2.01
0.3640 + 8.1443
7.693 = 3.89 min Choice (A)
=
8.508 21. MRR = pD × d × f × N
=V×d×f
= 0.904 Choice (C)
where f = feed/revolution
Distance covered
18. Drilling time = fN = feed/min
Speed
= 200 mm/min
45 + 3 × 2 + 8 cot 59
Given D = 20 mm
0.2 × 500
20 − 18
d= = 1mm
= 0.558 min 2
33.5 sec Choice (A) 20 × 1000
N=
19. Length of travel = 600 + 2 × 20 πD
= 640 mm
20000 1000
640 = = 318 rpm
Time per cutting stroke = min π × 20 π
8000
Total cutting time/piece V = 20 m/min
640 30 = pDN
= × \ MRR = p × 20 × 1 × 200
8000 0.3
= 12566 mm3 /min Choice (D)
= 8 min
22. L1 = 170 mm, L2 = 166 mm
8
Total return time/piece = =4 D1 = 60 mm, D2 = 50 mm
2
N = 450 rpm
Total time required per piece
F = 0.3 mm /rev
= Total maching time + set up time
d = 2 mm
= 8 + 4 + 3 = 15 min
Facing
Time for 3 pieces = 15 × 3 = 45 min Choice (B)
Total depth to be faced
20. Step 1
= 170 - 166 = 4 mm
90 mm length is to be turned from 50 mm to 45 mm
4
diameter. This can be done in a single cut. No. of facing operation = = 2
2
25 × 1000
N1 = Time for facing one pass
π × 50
30
= 159.15 rpm = = 0.22 min
0.3 × 450
L1
T1 = Total time for facing = 2 × 0.222 = 0.44 min
fN1
Turning
90 Total length of tool travel = 166 + 5 = 171 mm
=
0.3 × 159.15
60 − 50
Depth to be cut = =5
= 1.88 min 2
Step 2
5
Reducing 40 mm length from 45 mm diameter to No. of passes = = 2.5 3
2
30 mm diameter. This requires 3 cuts of 2.5 mm depth.
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Machining time for one cut Z = 18

L 171 V = 30 m/min
= = = 1.267 min
fN 0.3 × 450 Feed per tooth = 0.1 mm
Total turning time = 1.267 × 3 pDN = V
= 3.8 min V
N=
Total time for machining πD
= 0.444 + 3.8 30000
= = 95.49 rpm
= 4.244 min Choice (B) π × 100
23. D = 10 mm, f = 0.2 mm/rev 96 rpm
N = 800 rpm Feed rate f = F × Z × N
 π D2  = 0.1 × 18 × 96
MRR =   fN
 4  = 173 mm/min
π (10) 2 Length of cut
= × 0.2 × 800
4 L = Lj + L1 + approach and over travel
= 12,566 mm3/min Choice (C) Where L = d ( D − d )

24. Time for drilling one piece
L‘1 = 5(100 − 5) = 22 mm
L
=
fN \ L = 300 + 22 + 50 = 372 mm
(100 + 20)
= L 372
0.5 × 200 Milling time = = = 2.15 min
f 173
= 1.5 min = 2.2 min Choice (B)
No. of components in 8 hrs 27. Taylor’s equation
8 × 60
= = 320 Nos Choice (A) VTn = constant
1.5
V1 T1n = V2T2n
25. Job length = 600 m
= (1.2 V1) ( 0.5 T1)n
w = 800 mm
= 1.2 × 0.5n × V1 T1n
V = 8 m/min
1 i.e. 1.2 × 0.5n = 1
m=
4 0.5n = 0.833
F = 2 mm/stroke n log 0.5 = log 0.833 = 0.264 Choice (C)
Clearance c = 75 mm 28. Tool life = 1500 sec
Length of stroke L = 600 + 75 × 2 L
Machining time per piece =
= 750 mm fN
Lw (1 + m) π DL
t= =
1000 Vf fV
π × 50 × 80
750 × 800 × 1.25 = = 251.33 sec
= = 46.9 min 0.1× 0.5 × 1000
1000 × 8 × 2
Choice (D) 1500
No. of pieces per tool life = = 5.96
251.33
26. Lj = length of job = 300 mm
w = 25 mm Choice (A)
D = 100 mm 29. Choice (D)
d = 5 mm 30. Choice (D)
Approach and over travel = 50 m
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Previous Years’ Questions = 24.89 ~ 25 sec Choice (B)

1. EDM mechanism uses melting and evaporation. There Fc sin α + FT cos α
4. tan λ =
is no cavitation and corrosion occurs while removing Fc cos α − FT sin α
metal by EDM. Choice (A) ( 900 × sin 5° ) + ( 450 × cos 5° )
= tan λ =
2. Setup time = fixed cost (F) ( 900 × cos 5° ) − ( 450 × sin 5° )
Machining time = variable cost (V) ⇒ tanl = 0.61436
For standard machine tool, ⇒ l = 31.56° Choice (B)
200
F =` × 30 = `100 5. V1T1 = C
n
60
200 T
V =` × 22 = ` 73.34 When V2 = 2V1 , then T2 = 1
60 n 8
T 
∴ 2V1  1  = V1T1n
Total cost (TC)1 = F + xV 8
1
x = units produced ⇒ 2 × n (V1T1n ) = (V1T1n )
8
\ TC1 = 100 + (x × 73.34)
⇒ 2 = 8n
For automatic machine tool,
1
800 ⇒ log 2 = n log 8; ⇒ n = Choice (C)
F =` × 2 = `1600 3
1 6. Deburring (internal surface) - Abrasive flow machining
800 Die sinking - Electric discharge machining
V =` × 5 = ` 66.67
60 Fine hole drilling in thin sheets - Laser beam machining
Total cost (TC)2 = F + xV Tool sharpening - Electrochemical grinding
Choice (D)
= 1600 + (66.67 × x)
7. Zigzag cavity in a block of high strength alloy can be
At break even, TC1 = TC2
machined by electric discharge machining.
\ 100 + 73.34x = 1600 + 66.67x Choice (A)
⇒ x = 225 units Choice (D) 8. In 3-2-1 principle, only three translation is permitted.
3. Given: d = 10 mm \ Degree of freedom (DOF) = 3
t = 20 mm Degree of freedom restricted = 12 - 3
N = 300 rpm =9 Choice (C)
f = 0.2 mm/rev 9. 1 – Machining cost
a = 60° 2 – Non-productive cost
5 mm
3 – Tool-changing cost
Total cost
Cost per price →
③
60° h
②
20 mm Cutting speed →
Choice (A)
5
h = break through distance tan 60° = 10.
h
20 mm
⇒ h = 2.89 mm
Total length of travel = (20 + 2.89 + 2) mm = 24.89 mm
L 640 mm
Time for drilling =
fN
 24.89 
= × 60  sec 20 mm
 0.2 × 300  30 mm
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Tool total travel = (600 + 20 + 20) mm 15. According to Merchant’s theory

= 640 mm 2f + l – a = 90°
0.64
Time required to travel = 0.64 m = \ 2(40.2) + l - 15 = 90°
8
\ l = 24.6°
= 0.08 min
Time to return tan l = m = tan 24.6° = 0.46 Choice (B)
Given, = 0.5
Time to cut 16. Total power consumption = FC × V
\ Time required to return = 0.5 × 0.08 = 1200 V
= 0.04 min Power consumption due to friction
Time required for (one cut + one return) = FR × VC
= (0.08 + 0.04) min Now, FR = FC sin a + FT cos a
= 0.12 min = 1200 sin15° + 200 cos15°
Total time required for machining = 503.8 N
30
= × 0.12 = 12 min Choice (B) V sin φ V sin( 40.2)°
0.3 Vc = = = 0.713V
11. Tool P: 5° – 5° – 6° – 6° – 8° – 30° – 0 cos(φ − α) cos( 40.2° − 15°)
Side cutting edge angle ψs = 30° \ FR × VC = 503.8 × 0.713V = 360 V
End cutting edge angle ψe = 8° Percentage of energy dissipated due to friction
f f 360 V
hp = = = × 100 = 30%
tanψ s + cotψ e tan 30° + cot 8° 120 V Choice (A)
Tool Q: 5° – 5° – 7° – 7° – 8° – 15° – 0
17. Given: Feed = t1 = 0.24 mm/rev
ψs = 15° and ψe = 8°
Depth = d = 2 mm
f f
hQ = = t2 = 0.48 mm
tanψ s + cotψ e tan 15° + cot 8°
t1 0.24
hP tan 15° + cot 8° α = 0, =r= = 0.5
∴ = t2 0.48
hQ tan 30° + cot 8° Choice (B)
r cos α 0.5 cos 0°
12. Large negative rake angle, low shear angle and high tan φ = =
cutting speed is required in tool for common grinding 1 − r sin α 1 − 0.5 sin 0°
operations. Choice (A) ⇒ f = tan-1(0.5) = 26.56° Choice (B)
13. Order of maximum material removal rate 18. In EDM, if k of tool is high and the specific heat of
LBM < EBM < USM < EDM < ECM work piece is low then tool wear rate will be and mate-
Process Maximum MRR (approx) rial removal rate will be high. Choice (D)
ECM 10000 mm3/min 19. Specific machining energy
EDM 5000 mm3/min
Power(P )
USM 100 mm3/min =
Material removal rate (MRR)
EBM 10 mm3/min
LBM 5 mm3/min and MRR = VC × (bt1)
P = FC × VC
Choice (D)
t 0.5 FC
14. r = 1 = = 0.7143 ∴E =
t 2 0.7 bt1
r cos α 0.7143 × cos (15° ) FC = cutting force in N
tan φ = =
1 − r sin α 1 − ( 0.7143 × sin 15° ) b = width of chip = depth of cut = 2 mm
\ f = 40.2°
t1 = chip thickness = feed = 0.2 mm/rev
Shear strain g = cotf + tan(f – a)
= cot(40.2°) + tan(40.2° – 15°) N-mm
E = 2000
= 1.65 Choice (D) mm3
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Fc Machining time, t
∴ 2000 = L 0.63
( 2 × 0.2) = =
fN ( 97
⇒ FC = 800 N Choice (D) 0.2 × 10 ) ×
−3
π × 0.147
20. Given Cutting force = FC = 1000 N ⇒ t = 14.997 ~ 15 min Choice (C)
Feed force FT = 800 N 24. Choice (C)
Rake angle a = 0° 25. Choice (A)
Shear angle f = 25° 26. Given: Density of alloy r = 6000 kg/m = 6 gm/cm3
3
Merchant’s theory: 2f + l - a = 90°

56
2(25°) + l = 90° Equivalent weight of iron e1 = = 28
2
F l = 40°
tan λ = µ = 24
N Equivalent weight of metal P e2 = =6
F 4
∴ µ = = tan 40° = 0.84
N Faraday’s constant = 96500 coulomb/mole
OR MRR = 50 mm3/sec
F FC sin α + FT cos α
µ= = = 50 × 10-3 cm3/sec
N FC cos α − FT sin α
I = 2000 A
1000 sin 0° + 800 cos 0° 800 el e × 2000
= = = 0.8 Choice (C) MRR = ⇒ 50 × 10 −3 =
1000 cos 0° − 800 sin 0° 1000 F 96500 × 6
21. Computer chip – Photo chemical machining ⇒ e = 14.475
Metal forming dies and moulds – Electro discharge Now, let % of iron in alloy is x1 and % of metal P be x2.
machining
Turbine blade – Electrochemical machining 100 x1 x2
= + and x1 + x2 = 100
Glass – Ultrasonic machining Choice (A) e e1 e2
22. VT = C
n
100 x x
∴ = 1 + 2 (1)
90 × (24)n = C (1) 14.475 28 6
120 × (12) = C
n
(2) and 100 = x1 + x2 (2)
Solving equation (1) and (2) we get From solving equations (1) and (2) we get x2 = 25.483%.
90 × (24)n = 120 × (12)n Choice (B)
4 27. Choice (C)
2n = ⇒ n = 0.415
3 28. Choice (C)
From equation (1) we get 29. Given: VC = 180 m/min
C = 90 × (24)0.415 = 336.535 f = t1 = 0.20 mm/rev
When T = 20, d = b = 3 mm
V × (20)0.415 = 336.535 t
r = 1 = 0.5
⇒ V = 97 m/min Choice (B) t2
23. Given: Diameter d = 147 mm = 0.147 m a = 7°
Length L = 630 mm = 0.63 m r cos α
tan f =
Feed f = 0.2 mm/rev 1 − r sin α
= (0.2 × 10-3) m/rev  0.5 × cos 7° 
⇒ f = tan −1 
For T = 20 min, cutting velocity, 1 − (0.5 × sin 7°) 
Vc = 97 m/min ⇒ f = 27.856° ~ 28°
Vc = pdN
bt
97 Shear force, FS = τ S ×
⇒N = sin ϕ
πd
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250 × 106 × 0.003 × 0.0002 π

⇒ FS = \ Shear strain (g) is minimum at f =
sin 28° 4
π π
γ = cot + tan = 2 Choice (D)
⇒ Fs = 321 N Choice (D) 4 4
30. According to Merchant’s theory Al
33. Material removal rate M =
2f + l – a = 90° ZF
Given:
l = 90° - (2 × 28°) + 7°
L = 0.2 mm
l = 41°
V = 12 V
FS
φ Specific resistance, RS = 2 W cm
FC (λ–α)
FN (90–λ) = 20 W mm
• α Atomic weight of iron A = 55.85
FT
R
Valency Z = 2
F
λ Faraday’s constant F = 96540 C
N Area = 20 × 20 mm2
L 20 × 0.2
Resistance = RS × =
cos ( λ − α ) A 20 × 20
Cutting force FC = FS ×
cos (ϕ + λ − α ) ⇒ R = 0.01 W
cos ( 41° − 7° ) V 12
⇒ FC = 320 × Current I = = = 1200 A
cos ( 28° + 41° − 7 ) R 0.01
Al 55.85 × 1200
⇒ FC = 565 N M= =
F ZF 2 × 96540
tan ( λ − α ) = T ⇒ M= 0.3471 g/s Choice (A)
FC
34. Taylor’s tool life equation
⇒ FC = FC × tan(l - a)
VTn = constant (K)
= 565 × tan(41° - 7°)
60(81)n = K
= 381 N Choice (B)
90 (36)n = K
31. Friction at the tool chip interface reduced with increase
n log 81 = log K - log 60 (1)
in cutting speed. Choice (D)
n log 36 = log K - log 90 (2)
32. During orthogonal machining
(1) – (2)
Shear strain g = cot f + tan (f - a)
n[log 81 - log 36] = log 90 - log 60
Rake angle a = 0°
⇒ n = 0.5
\ g = cot f + tan f
\ 60 (81)0.5 = K
For minimum value of shear strain
dγ d ⇒ K = 540 Choice (A)
= [ cot f + tan f ] = 0 35. VTn = K
df df
60(81)0.25 = 540
⇒ – cosec2 f + sec2 f = 0
1 1 When cutting speed is halved then
⇒ − =0
cos 2 f sin 2 f 60
V= = 30 m/min
sin 2 f − cos 2 f 2
⇒ =0
sin 2 f cos 2 f Let T1 be the tool life in minutes when the velocity of
cutting is halved.
π 3π
cos 2f = 0 = cos = cos \ 30(T1)0.25 = 540
2 2
π ⇒ T1 = 324
⇒f =
4 \ Percentage increase in tool life is
d2y π T1 − T 324 − 81
at f = > 0 × 100 = × 100 = 300%
df 2 4 T 81 Choice (C)
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36. Taylor’s tool life equation 42.

C (100,100)
VTn = K
V is the speed at which TA = TB
Above V, TA > TB
A
(0,0) B
VTA0.145 = 90 and VTB0.3 = 60
1 1
AC = 100 2 + 100 2 = 141.42 mm
 90  0.45  60  0.3
⇒ TA =   and TB =  
V  V  Feed rate = 50 mm/min
141.42
1 1 Milling time (t ) =
 90  0.45  60  0.3 50
AtV ,   = 
V  V  60
⇒ V = 26.7 m/min Choice (A) = 170 sec Choice (B)
37. Energy required = work done = fmax × t × p r cos α
43. tan f =
Fmax = maximum force required for penetration 1 − r sin α
Fmax = L × t × t 0.4 × cos(10°)
⇒ tan f = ; ∴ f = 22.944°
L = perimeter of cut = 200 mm 1 − [ 0.4 × sin(10°) ]
t = thickness of sheet = 5 mm Vc × cos α
Shear strain rate =
t = ultimate shear strength = 100 MPa cos(φ − α) × t m
p = penetration to thickness ratio = 0.2 2.5 × cos(10°)
=
\W.D = (0.2 × 0.005 × 100 × 106 × 0.005 × 0.2) cos( 22.944° − 10°) × 25 × 10 −6
W.D. = 100 J Choice (A)
= 1.01048 × 105 s-1 Choice (C)
200 d/2
38. Amount of shear, S = 20 × = 10 mm 44.
400
Let F be the maximum force with shear
\ F(tp + S) = 100 x
59°
{Energy required with provision of shear}
= F [(0.005 × 0.2) + 0.01] = 100
F = 9091 N or 10 kN Choice (B) d 15
t1 0.81 tan 59° = 2 ⇒ x = 2
39. r = t = 1.8 = 0.45 x tan 59°
2
r cos α 0.45 cos 12° ⇒ x = 4.5 mm

tan f = =
1 − r sin α 1 − 0.45 sin 12° Total length of travel L = 50 + 2 + 2 + 4.5
f = 26° Choice (B) = 58.5 mm
40. Chemical – Corrosion L
Total drill time t =
ECM – Ion displacement fN
EDM – Fusion and vaporisation 58.5 × 60
= = 35.1 sec Choice (A)
UM – Erosion 0.2 × 500
P2, Q3, R4, S1 Choice (A) 2π N
45. MRR = VC × d × f = ×r×d× f
41. In abrasive jet machining 60
π × 200 × 4 × 0.25 × 160
= = 1675.5 mm3/s
60
MRR Choice (D)
Al 0.9 × 48 × 2000
46. The material removal rate = =
Distance FZ 3 × 96500
Choice (D) = 0.3 gm/s Choice (C)
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Chapter 4 • Machining and Machine Tool Operations | 3.379
47. VT = 3000
1.6
VT0.6 = 200 55. t = 40 mm

1.6 d = 20 mm
VT 3000
= N = 400 rpm
VT 0.6 200
Feed f = 0.1 mm/rev
⇒ T = 15 min
Length of travel L
For carbide tool: VT1.6 = 3000
= t + approach and over run
⇒ V × (15)1.6 = 3000
d
⇒ V = 39.4 m/min =t+ = 40 + 10 = 50 mm
2
Therefore carbide tool will provide higher tool life if
L 50
the cutting speed will exceed 39.4 m/min. Choice (B) Drilling time = = = 1.25 min
fN 0.1× 400
48.
Fc = 1500 Choice (B)
56. Choice (D)
57. Feed f = 0.2 mm/rev
1500 d = 0.5 mm
Side cutting edge angle Cs = 60°
\ Rake angle a = 0 Choice (A) Uncut chip thickness t = f sin(90 - Cs)
49. Cutting force perpendicular to the tool chip interface = 0.2 sin(90 - 60)
= 1500 N. Choice (B) = 0.1 mm
50. Cutting force Fc = 400 N Choice 0.08 to 0.12
Depth of cut d = 2 mm 58. Choice (C)
Feed f = 0.1 mm/rev
F 400 Ao SS cos( β − α)
Specific cutting pressure = C = 59. Cutting force, FC =
fd 0.1 × 2 sin f cos(f + β − α)
where b = friction angle
= 2000 N/mm2 Choice (B)
a = rake angle
51. Chip thickness tc = 0.5 mm
f = shear plane angle
Rake angle a = 0
cos( β − α)
Feed f = 0.2 mm/rev ∴FC ∝
sin f . cos( f + β − α)
For pure orthogonal turning f = t,
But for minimum cutting force
The uncut chip thickness
t 0.2 2f + b - a = 90° (1)
Chip thickness ratio r = = = 0.4
tC 0.5 Or f + b - a = (90 - f)
r cos α cos( β − α)
tan f = =r i.e. FC ∝
1 − r sin α sin f . cos( 90 − f )
where f = shear plane angle cos( β − α)

∝
Shear strain = cot f + tan(f - a) sin 2 f
= cot f + tan f From (1), decrease in b means increase in f
1 \ Reduction in friction angle decreases cutting force.
= + 0.4 = 2.9 Choice 2.8 to 3.0
0.4 t1 sin f
52. Tool life for maximum production Chip thickness ratio r = =
t 2 cos(f − α )
1 
=  − 1 tc where t1 = depth of cut
n 
t2 = chip thickness
 1 
= − 1 × 1.5 = 6 min. Choice 5.9 to 6.1 f = shear plane angle
 0.2 
53. Choice (C) So increase in shear plane angle causes reduction in
54. Choice (D) chip thickness
Unit 07.indd 38 4/27/2019 4:04:42 PM M04_

\ From (1) reduction in friction angle causes reduc- 0.4 × 1000

tion in chip thickness ∴ t= = 1 mm
400
So statements Q and S are correct. Choice (D)
t 1
60. Ratio of maximum uncut thickness \ Chip thickness = =
tc 3
t1 d1 d1 1
= = = = r cos α
t2 d2 2d1 2 Shear angle is, tan φ = = 0.342
1 − r sin α
= 0.707 Choice 0.70 to 0.72 \ φ = 18.88º Choice 18.5 to 19
61. Choice (B) 67. In electrochemical machining is the reverse process of
62. Choice (A) electroplating. Due to high rate of electrolyte move-
63. Length L = 200 mm ment in between the tool work piece gap the metal ions
are washed away. Choice (C)
Depth of cut d = 4 mm
68. Power consumption = Fc × V
Feed f = 0.25 mm/rev
Fc = cutting force, Ft = thrust force = 490 N
Principal cutting edge angle l = 30°
Part of Merchant’s circle is:
Cutting strokes/min N = 60
Tan b = m = 0.7
Specific energy = 1.49 J/mm3
Chip volume/min = LNfd ⇒ b = 35°
Fc
= 200 × 60 × 0.25 × 4 = 12000 mm3/min
Power consumption = 1.49 × 12000 J/min
β
1.49 × 12000
= = 298 J/s = 298 W Ft R
60 F
Choice 295 to 305 β N

64. Let V1 = V and T1 = T
T
V2 = 2V T2 = \ FC = Ft /Tan b = 490/0.7 = 700 N
16
By Taylor’s tool life equation 180
Power consumption = 700 × = 2100 W = 2.1 kW
60
VT n = C ⇒ V1 T1n =V2T2n
Choice 2.0 to 2.2
n
T  69. Discharge Voltage, Vd = 100 V
V.T = 2V   ⇒ 16n = 2 ⇒ 24n = 2
n
 16  Cycle time, t = 25 ms
1 Pavg = 1kW , capacitance = C
\ 4n = 1 ⇒ n = = 0.25
4 1 1
E= C Vd2 = × C × 1002
Choice 0.25 2 2
65. Heat input Q = CVI E
L P=
C = fraction of time during which arc is on = t
v
L = Length of weld, v = welding speed 1
× C × 100 2
Q VI 1 1000 = 2 ⇒ C = 5 mF Choice (B)
∴ = ⇒Q∝ Choice (C) 25 × 10 −6
L v v 70. The generation of flat surfaces is done by traversing a
straight line (Generatrix) G, in a perpendicular direc-
66. N = 300 rpm, f = 0.4 m/min
tion (Directrix) D as shown in the figure.
Radial depth = 5 mm,Chip thickness, tc = 3 mm
a = rake angle = 5º
In turning operation the uncut thickness is given by D G
f
t = , f in mm/min and N in rpm
N G D
Choice (C)
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71. Rake angle, a = 10°, feed = 0.14 mm/rev ⇒ T10.14 = 1.25 × 1.250.7 × 1.250.4T20.14
Chip thickness, tc = 0.28 mm
30
The initial thickness of the chip in turning is given by \ T2 = ≈ 1.055
the feed i.e., t = 0.14 mm (1.25 )2.1/0.14
t 0.14
\ r == = 0.5 ≈ 1.06 Choice (B)
tC 0.28
76. L = 900 mm; D = 200 mm
sin ϕ f = 0.25 mm2/rev
r = = 0.5
cos (ϕ − α )
V = 300 m/min
cos ϕ cos α + sin ϕ sin α
⇒ =2 πDL
sin ϕ t =
1000 f V
\ cot j cos a + sin a = 2 Here D and L are in mm
\ j = 28.33°
π × 200 × 900
Shear strain = δ = cot j + tan (j – a) t=
1000 × 0.25 × 300
=cot (28.33) + tan (28.33 – 10)
=2.186 Choice (A) t = 7.536 min Choice 7.5 to 7.6
72. The angle by which the axis of rotation is shifted is 77.
equal to the half angle of taper in tailstock set over
method.
D = 80 mm, d = 65 mm and taper length = 55 mm (l)
MRR
D − d 80 − 65 3
tan a = = ⇒ a = tan-1   = 15.25°
2l 55  11 
D-d
The set over is given by = S = L × Feed Force
2l
L = overall length of shaft = 90 mm Choice (D)
80 − 65 78. VT 0.25
= 150
\ S = 90 × =12.27 mm Choice (A)
2 × 55 18C
Ct =
73. Electron beam machining requires vacuum. V
Choice (A) 270C
Cm =
F TV
74. tan(β – a) = t
Fc Total cost = Ct + Cm
a=0
Ft 250 18 × 150 270 × 150
\ tan β = = = 0.5 = +
Fc 500 V (150 )4
×V
µ = tan β = 0.5 Choice 0.5 V4
75. VT 0.14 f 0.7 d 0.4 = C
V1 = 45 m/min
2700
=
V
(
+ 8 × 10 −5 V 3 )
f1 = 0.35 mm dCTotal
=0
dV
d1 = 2 mm
−2700
T1 = 30 min + 3 × 8 × 10–5 V2
V2
V2 = 1.25 V1 =0
f2 = 1.25 f1 V = 57.91 m/min Choice 57.8 to 58
d1 = 1.25 d1 79. Total gap (yc) = 3 × 10–6 + 6 × 10–6
T2 = ? = 9 × 10–6 m
V1T10.14 f10.7 d10.4 = V2T20.14 f 20.7 d20.4 = 9 × 10–4 cm
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r = 7860 kg/m3 L = 200(B)

87. Choice
80. mm, D = 34 mm, d = 2 m, f =18 mm/min
= 7.86 g/cm3 81. Internal gears are=manufactured
Given, approach overtranel by shaping with Pinion
C = 0.02 ohm–1 mm–1 = 0.2 ohm–1 cm–1 cutter. Choice (B)
= d ( D − d ) = 2 × 32
∆V = 1.5 V 82. ao = 220; t2 = 0.8; t1 = 0.4
= 8 mm
V = 12 V k = chip reduction coefficient = t2/t1 = 2
Total length
A = 55.85 gm Time = 22
cos α oper passcos
tan θ = = feed
= 0.57
Z = 2, F = 96500 Coulomb k − sin α o 2 − sin
L 22
+ AP + OR
Maximum feed rate, =
θ = 29.70 feed Choice (B)
CA (V − ∆V ) 83. Given V2 = V1/2; n = 0.25= 20 0 + 8 + 8
fmax = m/sec 18
ρZFye = V1T1n = V2T2n
Time per pass = 12 min
0.2 × 55.85 × (12 − 1.5 ) = V1T10.25 = V1/2 T20.25 ⇒ T2/T1 = 16
= Hence, the correct answer is 11.95 to 12.05.
7.86 × 2 × 96500 × 9 × 10 −4 Choice 16
88. Tool 1: VT 0.1 = 150
= 0.0852 cm/sec
uring Technology Tool 2: VT 0.3 = 300
= 51.12 mm/min Choice 51 to 52
80. Choice (B) VT 0.3 300
=
81. Internal gears are manufactured by shaping with Pinion VT 0.1 150
m–1 cutter. Choice (B) T 0.2 = 2 ⇒ T = 32
82. ao = 22 ; t2 = 0.8; t1 = 0.4
0
V × 320.1 = 150
k = chip reduction coefficient = t2/t1 = 2 V = 106 m/min
cos α o cos 22 Hence, the correct answer is 105 to 107.
tan θ = = = 0.57
k − sin α o 2 − sin 22 89. USM uses a slurry comprising abrasive particle and
water.
θ = 29.70 Choice (B)
83. Given V2 = V1/2; n = 0.25
90. Taylor’s tool life equation is
= V1T1n = V2T2n
VT n = C ⇒ V1T1n = V2T2 n
= V1T10.25 = V1/2 T20.25 ⇒ T2/T1 = 16
−4
Choice 16 π DN1 n π DN 2 n
T1 = T2
84. Electrical Discharge machining – Machining of electri- 60 60
Choice 51 to 52 cally conductive materials ⇒ N1T1n = N 2T2 n ⇒ 400 × 20 n = 200 × 60 n
Ultrasonic machining – Machining of glass ⇒ n = 0.631

Chemical machining – No residual stress
Ion beam machining – Nano machining Now, N1T1n = N 3T3n ⇒ 400 × 200.631 = 300 × T30.631

Speed of driver Pitch to be cut on Job ⇒ 2648 = 300 × T30.631
85. =
Speed of follover Pitch on lead screw ⇒ T30.631 = 8.826 ⇒ T3 = 31.54 min

N LS 0.8
= Hence, the correct option is (B).
NS 1.5
91. We know that
N S × 0.8 1500 × 0.8
N LS = = r cos α
1.5 1.5 tan ϕ =
N LS = 800 rpm 1 − sin α
⎛ 0.2 ⎞
Hence, the correct answer is 800. ⎜⎝ ⎟ cos 9
0.5 ⎠
86. Central line average surface roughness is ∴ tan ϕ1 = = 0.9032
⎛ 0.2 ⎞
H 20 1− ⎜ sin 9
Ra = max = =5 ⎝ 0.25 ⎟⎠
4 4
Hence, the correct option is (A). ⇒ ϕ1 = 42.087

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0.5 cos 9 95. Feed rate f = ft × N × Z

similiarly tan ϕ 2 = = 0.5357 ft = feed per tooth
1 − 0.5 sin 9
z = number of teeth in cutter
⇒ ϕ 2 = 28.18
N = rpm
ϕ1 42.087 Hence, the correct option is (C).
∴ = = 1.493
ϕ2 28.18
96. Diameter D = 100 mm
a = 15°
92. V1T1n V2T2n
t = 0.5 mm
V1T10.5 = V2T20.5
tc = 1.25 mm
0.5
⎛ T2 ⎞ V1 V1 r cos α
⎜ ⎟ = = =2 tanf =
⎝ T1 ⎠ V2 V1 1− r sin α
2 t
T2 1/.05 r = = 0.4
=2 =4 tc

T1
0.4 cos 15°
Hence, the correct option is (A). tanf =
1 − 0.4 sin 15°
93. Grinding ratio =
⎛ 0.4 cos 15 ⎞
Volume of work material removed (Vm ) f = tan −1 ⎜ ⎟
Volume of wheel wear (Vm ) ⎝ 1 − 0.4 sin 15 ⎠
f = 23.31°
Vm
= 200
Vm Hence, the correct answer is 23.31°.
97. Taylors tool life equation is VT n = Constant
Vm
Vw = = 0.005Vm Given that:
200
Hence, the correct option is (B). V1 = 150 rpm, T1 = 300 holes
94. t = 0.01 mm V2 = 300 rpm, T2 = 200 holes
V = 130 m/min V3 = 200 rpm
a = 150° V1T1n = V2T2n
B = 6 mm 150 × 300n = 300 × 200n
tc = 0.015 mm 1.5n = 2
ln 2
Fc = 60 N n = = 1.7
ln 1.5
FT = 25 N
200 × T3n = 150 × 300n
F = Fc sina + FTcosa
n
⎛ T3 ⎞ 150 3
= 60 sin15 + 25 cos15 ⎜ 300 ⎟ = 200 = 4
⎝ ⎠
F = 39.672 1
Ration of frictional energy to total energy, ⎛ 3 ⎞1.7

T3 = 300 × ⎜ ⎟
F Vc F t ⎝4⎠
= × = ×
Fc V Fc tc T3 = 253.29 holes

39.672 0.01 Hence, the correct answer is 253.29.
= ×
60 0.015
= 0.4408
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CHapter 5 Metrology and inspeCtion CoMputer Hints/Solutions | 7.43
integrated ManufaCturing
Hints /solutions
Practice Problems 1 5.
Shaft
Zero line
1. Bush
0.050
0.05 0.12
0.075
Zero line
Hole
Shaft 60 mm
Lower limit of hole (bush) = 60 + 0.075 = 60.075 mm Shaft tolerance = Hole tolerance =
( 0.12 − 0.05)
2
Upper limit of hole = 60.075 + 0.050 = 60.125 = 0.035 mm
+0.125
Dimension of hole of bush = 60
+0.075
mm HL of hole = 100 - 0.035 - 05 = 99.915 mm
Hence, the correct option is (B). LL of hole = 99.915 - 0.035 = 99.88 mm
2. Hole : HL = 30.04 LL = 30.00 Tolerance = 0.04 mm Hence, the correct option is (D).
Shaft HL = 30.06 LL = 30.04 6. For H8 hole lower limit is same as the basic size.
Tolerance = 30.06 - 30.04 = 0.02 mm i.e., LL = 25.000 mm
Allowance = LL of hole - HL of shaft = 30.00 - 30.06 HL = 25.030 mm
= -0.06 mm \ Tolerance = 25.030 - 25.000 = 0.030
LL of shaft - HL of Hole = 30.04 - 30.04 = 0 Gauge maker’s Tolerance = 0.030 × 0.1 = 0.003 mm
It is an interference fit Since the tolerance is less than 0.09 mm, wear allow-
Hence, the correct option is (C). ance need not be considered. +0.003
3. LL of hole = 30.000 mm Dimensions of GO plug gauge = 25.000 −0.000 mm

HL of shaft = 30.000 - 0.040 = 29.960 mm Since basic size of GO plug gauge is = LL of hole
(MMC)
LL of shaft = 30.000 - 0.070
= 25.000 mm
= 29.930
MML = HL for shaft = 29.960 mm
7. Low limit of hole = 30.000 - 0.030 = 29.97 mm
LML = LL for shaft = 29.930 mm
High limit of hole = 30 + 0.05 = 30.05 mm
Tolerance = 30.05 - 29.97 = 0.08 mm
4. In shaft basis system HL of shaft is same as the basic
Gauge tolerance = Wear allowance
size.
= Work tolerance × 0.1
\ HL of shaft = 50 mm = 0.08 × 0.1
= 0.008 mm
Hole
30.05 NO GO
0.15 0.05
0.008
Shaft 50 mm
29.92 0.008 GO
Let T be the shaft tolerance Upper limit of GO gauge = 29.97 + 0.008 + 0.008
0.15 = T + 0.05 + 1.5T = 29.986 mm
2.5T = 0.1 = 30 - 0.014 mm
T = 0.1 = 0.04 mm Lower limit of GO gauge = 29.97 + 0.008
2.5
Hole tolerance = 1.5 × 0.04 = 0.06 mm = 29.978
= 30 - 0.022 mm
LL of hole = 50.00 + 0.05 = 50.05 −0.014
HL of hole = 50.05 + 0.06 = 50.11 mm \ Size of NO gauge = 30 −0.022 mm

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| Part III • Unit 7 • Manufacturing Technology
8. Hole basic size = 30 mm Shaft tolerance = 40i (IT 9) = 40 × 0.0020965 = 0.08386

LL of H hole = Basic size = 30 mm mm
D = 18 × 30 = 23.24 mm Gauge tolerance = 0.08386 × 0.1 = 0.00839 mm
Wear allowance = 0.00839 × 0.1 = 0.00084 mm
i = 0.45 3 23.24 + 0.001× 23.4 = 1.3074 microns
Shaft fundamental Deviation = -11 × 89.50.41
Tolerance IT7 = 16i = 20.918 microns @ 21 microns
= 0.021 mm = -11 × 6.23 microns
HL of hole = 30.000 + 0.021 = 30.021 mm = -0.06853 mm
HL of shaft = 90.000 - 0.0685 = 89.9315
0.0021 HL of GO gauge = 89.9315 - 0.0008
NO GO
LL of GO gauge = 89.9315 - 0.0008 - 0.0084
= 89.9315 - 0.0092
−0.0008
0.021 \ Size of GO gauge = 89.9315 −0.0092 mm
−0.0693
= 90 −0.0777 mm
11.
0.0021
GO
30.000 mm 89.9315
Gauge tolerance = 0.021 × 0.1 = 0.0021 mm
+0.021
Limits of hole = 30 +0.000
IT9
Upper limit of NO GO
Plug gauge = 30.021 + 0.0021 (general type) = 30.0231 89.8476 mm
LL of the NO GO gauge = 30.021mm
+0.0231
+0.0210
\ Limits of the NO GO gauge = 30 mm NO GO gauge Gauge tolerance
Hence, the correct option is (C). IT9 = 0.08386 mm
9. Maximum size of shaft = 50.01mm Gauge tolerance = 0.08386 × 0.1 = 0.00839 mm
Minimum size of shaft = 49.99 mm Upper limit of NO gauge = 89.9315 - 0.08386
Shaft = 89.8476 mm
50.01
Lower limit of NO GO gauge = 89.8476 - 0.0084
49.99
\ size of the NO GO gauge = 89.8476 −0.0084
−0.000
0.07
0.01
= 90 −−0.1524
0.1608 mm
Hole Hence, the correct option is (B).

Maximum size of hole = 49.99- 0.01 = 49.98 mm 12. i = 0.45 3 D ± 0.001D microns
Minimum size of hole = 50.01- 0.07 = 49.94 mm Where D = 30 × 50 = 38.7 mm
Tolerance of hole = 49.98 - 49.94 = 0.04 mm ∴ i = 0.45 3 38.7 + 0.001× 38.7
Hence, the correct option is (A). = 1.5597 microns
10. = 0.00156 mm
90.00
Fundamental deviation of f shaft = -5.5D0.41
0.0685
= -5.5 × 38.70.41
Wear allowance
= -0.0245 mm
GO gauge Tolerance IT 7 = 16i = 16 × 0.00156 = 0.02496 mm
IT 09 0.0084
−0.0245
Dimension 40 f 7 = 40 −0.0245−0.02496 = 40 −0.0494 mm
−0.0245

D = 80 × 100 = 89.5 mm 13. Dimension of hole length Q can be maintained to
0.100 −0.000
i = 0.45 3 89.5 + 0.001× 89.5 microns 0.100 0.00 0.100
75 0.000 − 40 −0.009 = = 35 0.000−( −0.009) = 35 +0.009 mm
= 0.0020945 mm Hence, the correct option is (D).
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Chapter 5 • Metrology and Inspection Computer Integrated Manufacturing
7.45
+0.08−( − 0.02+ 0.03) =(160 + 90 + 180 + 50 + 95 + 65 + 170 + 150)

14. Dimension R = ( 35 − 12 − 9.99 ) −0.08−( − 0.02− 0.03)
1
× = 0.8 mm
= 13.01−0.03 0.8 × 15000 × 100
+0.03
= 13.00 −0.02
+0.04 Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 18. For the given problem
15. Maximum size of the shaft = 30 + 0.040 Milled
2.0
Minimum size of the hole = 30 + 0.020
Maximum interference = (30 + 0.040)-(30 + 0.020) 5.0 =
= 0.020 mm = 20 microns 5.0

height difference The symbol represents material removal.
16. No. of bands The surface roughness is given as 2.0 and machining
half wavelength
allowance is given as 0.5. The symbol ‘=’ represents
(1.015 − 1.000 ) 2 parallel to plane of projection.
=
= 5.09 = 5 fringes 19. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 20. Distance between centers = 100 mm. (L)
∑ A× 1 × 1 height by slip gauges = 54.464 mm (h)
17. CLA =
L VS HS h 54.464
Angle θ is given by sinθ = L = 100 ⇒ θ = 33° .
Where VS = vertical scale
HS = horizontal scale Hence, the correct option is (C).
Practice Problems 2 2. HL of hole = 25.02

LL of hole = 25.00 - 0.02 = 24.98 mm
1. Fundamental deviation is zero for H holes and f shafts.
30 mm lies in the diameter step of 18 to 30 mm. Allowance = LL of hole - HL of shaft = 0.01 mm
∴ D = 18 × 30 = 23.2 mm HL of shaft = LL of hole - 0.01 = 24.98 - 0.01 = 24.97 mm
Maximum clearance = 0.08
i = 0.45 3 D + 0.001D i.e., HL of hole -LL of shaft = 0.08
= 0.45 3 23.2 + 0.001× 23.2 = 1.308 microns LL of shaft = HL of hole - 0.08 = 25.02 - 0.08 = 24.94 mm
Tolerance IT 7 = 16i Tolerance on shaft = 24.97 - 24.94 = 0.03 mm
16 × 1.308 Hence, the correct option is (C).
= mm
1000 3. D = 50 × 80 = 63.2 mm
= 0.021 mm
i = 0.45 3 D + 0.001D
Minimum size of hole = 30.00 mm
= 0.45 3 63.2 + 0.001× 63.2
Maximum size of shaft = 30.00 mm
= 1.8532 microns
Allowance (minimum clearance) = 30 -30 = 0 mm = 0.00185 mm
Maximum size of hole = 30.00 + 0.021 = 30.021 mm Fundamental deviation for hole H = 0
IT 8 for shaft = 25i Fundamental deviation for shaft C = (-95 + 0.8 D)
= 25 × 1.308 microns = -95 + 0.8 × 63.2 = -0.14556 mm
= 0.0033 mm Tolerance IT8 = 25i = 25 × 0.00185 = 0.0462 mm
Minimum size of shaft = 30.000 - 0.0033 = 29.9967 mm Minimum size of hole = 50 mm
Maximum clearance = 30.04 - 29.9967 = 0.0054 mm Maximum size of shaft = 50.000 - 0.1456 = 49.8544 mm
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3.386
4. D = 80 × 100 = 89.5 mm 7. D = 50 × 80 = 63.2 mm
i = 0.45 3 89.5 + 0.001× 89.5 i = 0.45 3 D + 0.001D
= 0.45 × 4.46 + 0.0895 microns = 0.45 3 63.2 + 0.001× 63.2 microns

= 0.0020965 mm = 0.00185 mm
Hole tolerance 25i = 25 × 0.0020965 = 0.0524 mm For H hole fundamental deviation = 0
Fundamental deviation for H type hole is zero. IT 7 = 16i = 16 × 0.00185 mm
LL of hole = 90.000 mm = 0.0296 mm
HL of hole = 96.000 + 0.0524 = 96.0524 mm \ Maximum size of hole = 60 + 0.0296 = 60.0296 mm
Fundamental deviation for ‘e’ type shaft = -11D0.41 Fundamental deviation for shaft = + (IT 7 - IT6)
= + (16i -10i) = 6i = 6 × 0.00185 = 0.0111 mm
= -11 × 89.50.41 = -0.06853 mm
\ Maximum size of shaft = 90.000 - 0.06853 60.0296 mm
= 89.9315 mm H7 60.0296 mm
Shaft tolerance = 40i = 40 × 0.0020965 = 0.08386 mm

60 mm
\ Minimum size of shaft = 89.9315 - 0.0839
= 89.8476 mm Minimum size of shaft
Hence, the correct option is (D). Basic shaft + FD = 60 + 0.0111 m = 60 .0111 mm
5. Gauge tolerance for hole = 10% of 0.0524 Shaft tolerance = 10i = 0.00185 × 10 = 0.0185 mm
= 0.00524 mm @ 0.0052 mm HL of shaft = 60.0111 + 0.0185 = 60.0296 mm
Wear allowance of hole = 0.000524 mm @ 0.0005 mm Since shaft tolerance is within the hole tolerance it will
be a transition fit
NO GO
GO gauge 0.0052
+0.08
(
8. Dimension T = 118.3 −0.09 − 10.0 −0.01 + 25.2 −0.02
+0.02 +0.01
+0.01 +0.02
0.0005 +30.4 −0.01 + 32.7 −0.02 )
90.000
+ 0.08−( 0.02+ 0.01+ 0.01+ 0.02 )
0.0005+ 0.0052
= 20 − 0.09−( −0.01−0.02−0.01−0.02)
+0.0057
\ GO gauge size = 90 +0.005 = 90 +0.0005 mm +0.08−0.06
= 20.0 −0.09+0.06
Hence, the correct option is (B). +0.02
= 20.0 −0.03 mm
6.
0.0052 NO GO gauge
9. Minimum hole size = 20 mm
NO GO Maximum shaft size = 20 - 0.010 = 19.99
Minimum clearance = 20.00 - 19.99 = 0.01 mm
= 10 microns
0.0524
10.
90.000 20.05 Hole 0.004
GO NO GO
Plug gauge
20.01 0.004
Gauge tolerance = 0.0052 GO
0.01 mm
Hole tolerance = 0.0524
LL of NO plug gauge = 90.00 + 0.0524 Hole tolerance = 20.05- 20.01 = 0.04 mm
HL of NO GO plug gauge = 90.000 + 0.0524 + 0.0052 Gauge tolerance = 10% of 0.04 = 0.004 mm
= 90 + 0.0576 Size of GO plug gauge = 20+ 0.01+ 0.004 = 20.014 mm
+0.0526
Size of NO GO plug gauge = 90 +0.0524 mm Size of NO GO gauge = 20.05 + 0.004 = 20.054 mm
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7.47
11. Wavelength l = 0.509 mm

( )
Sum of areas mm2 ×1000
microns
No. of fringes = 4.75 18. Ra value =
λ Sampling length ×VM×HM
Difference in height = × No. of fringes
2 Where VM = Vertical magnification
0.509 HM = Horizontal magnification
= × 4.75 = 1.2 mm
2
Hence, the correct option is (C). (150 + 80 + 170 + 40 + 80 + 60 + 150 + 20 ) ×1000
=
12. 2θ = 60° 0.8 × 10000 × 100
= 1.06 µ m
θ = 30°
Pitch P = 2 mm
19. CLA value ∑ =
P h 578
Wire diameter = sec θ = 29 microns.
2 n 20
2
= sec 30 = 1.155 mm
2
20. RMS value =
∑h 2
Hence, the correct option is (A). n

13. Hence, the correct option is (D). 352 + 252 + ......352 + 20 2
14. =
20
40.000
= 29.32 microns.
−0.008 Hence, the correct option is (A).
−0.025
 ∑ 5 peak values − ∑ 5 valley hts 
21. Rz value =
5
Fundamental deviation = deviation nearest to zero line 1
= -0.008
=
5
{[ 45 + 42 + 40 + 35 + 35]
Tolerance = HL - LL − [30 + 25 + 25 + 24 + 18]}
= (-0.008 ) - (-0.025) 1
= [197 − 122]
= + 0.017 5
= = 15 µ m
15. 5
Hole Hence, the correct option is (A).
Shaft
+0.018 +0.012
22. For readings deviation from average value is minimum.
9.000 +0.001
So the instrument is precise. For an instrument to be
Transition Fit
accurate, the average value should be closer to true
Hence, the correct option is (C). value. So the instrument is not accurate.
16. Diameter step of 30 mm is 18 and 30 Hence, the correct option is (A).
∴ D = 18 × 30 = 23.24 mm 23. Hence, the correct option is (D).
i = 0.45 3 23.24 + 0.001(23.24) 24. Hence, the correct option is (C).
= 1.31 microns 25. Hence, the correct option is (C).
IT 7 = 16i = 16 × 1.31 microns
27. Pitch P = 2 mm
= 20.96 microns
Effective diameter = 14.701 mm
= 0.021 mm
Thread = M16 d = 1.155 mm
LL of shaft = 30.000 - 0.021 = 29.079 mm
Angle of thread = 60° (For metric)
For h shafts fundamental deviation and hence
S = E + 2 {AO+ OB]
HL is zero
\ HL of shaft = 30.000 1.155 1.155 
= 14.701 + 2  cos 60 +
Hence, the correct option is (A).  2 2 
17. Hence, the correct option is (D). = 18.166 mm
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3.388
d1 = 30 mm
B
d2 = 15 mm
O θ AB
sin =
Q A P 2 AC
( 30 − 15)
x
= 2
E S 1
( 2.5 + 50 ) − ( 30 − 15)
2
θ
Hence, the correct option is (C). = 0.1667 = 9.6° = 10° θ = 20°
2
28. Considering maximum values. Hence, the correct option is (B).
P + Q + R + T = 18.83 +15.12 + 18.225 + 0.125 = 52.3 30.
= S = 52.35 + x
i.e., 52.35 + x = 52.3 33 microns
x = -0.05 mm
25.000
29. 40 microns
2.5 mm
33 microns
A B
d1
50 mm
IT8 = 33 microns
q Tolerance for hole and shaft
2
Maximum clearance = 33 + 40 + 33
d2
C = 106 microns
Previous Years’ Questions \ Hole tolerance = 20.05 - 20.01 = 0.04 mm

1. Minimum shaft size = 25.0000 - 0.040 = 24.96 mm \ Gauge tolerance = 10% of 0.04 = 0.004 mm
Maximum hole size = 25.0000 + 0.02 = 25.02 mm \ Size of Go gauge = 20 + 0.01 + 0.004 = 20.014 mm
Size of No-Go = 20.05 + 0.004 = 20.054 mm
\ Maximum possible clearance = maximum size of
hole - minimum size of shaft Hence, the correct option is (D).
= (25.02 - 24.96) mm 4. Given P1(15, 10) and P2(10, 15)
= 0.060 mm = 60 microns
2. X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 will produce circular interpolation
P2(10, 15)
motion and G02 will produce clockwise motion.
3. For ISO system of guage
P1(15, 10)
20.05 mm
0.004 mm ← No-Go
Center of arc is having radius 5

20.01 mm
0.004 mm ← No-Go Coordinates is (15, (10 + 5)) = (15, 15)
0.01 mm
5. Pitch and angle errors of screw thread - Sine bar
Reference line
20 mm Flatness error of a surface plate - Optical interferometer
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7.49
Alignment error of a machine slideway - Auto collimator 1 1

Profile of a cam - Tool makers microscope. Movement of lead screw = ×
200 4
= revolution of lead screw
6. In the interference fit, minimum permissible diam- 800
eter of the shaft is larger than the maximum allowable 1 1
diameter of hole. Movement of table = ×4 = = 5 micron
800 200
7. N010 → Start of the profile 14. BLU = Revolution of motor × Gear ratio × Pitch
G02 → Circular interpolation \ By reducing gear ratio we can increase BLU to 10
X10 Y10 → Final coordinates micron without changing speed of table.
X5 Y5 → Starting coordinates Hence, the correct option is (D).
R5 → Radius 15. vertices → edges → faces → solid parts
⇒ N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5 Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 16. M05 - Spindle stop
8. Hence, the correct option is (B). G01 - Linear interpolation
9. NC contouring is a continuous path positioning sys- G04 - Dwell
tem. Its function is to synchronize the axes of motion G90 - Absolute coordinate system
to generate a predetermined path, generally a line or a Hence, the correct option is (C).
circular arc. It provides additional requirement for path
trajectory control. 17. Given: Dmin = 50 mm
Hence, the correct option is (A). Dmax = 80 mm
10. Ring gauge is used to measure outside diameter not the Fundamental tolerance unit (i) is
roundness. i = 0.45D1/3 + 0.001D
A ring gauge is a cylindrical ring of steel whose inside Tolerance value for IT8 = 25i
diameter is finished to gauge tolerance and is used to Fundamental deviation for ‘f’ shaft (FD) = - 5.5 D0.41
measure the external diameter of cylindrical object. So, geometric mean diameter
= Dmin × Dmax
11. Stepper motor is not used in spindle drives of CNC
machine tools.
= 50 × 80 = 63.246 mm
Fundamental tolerance
12. Low limit of hole = 40 mm
i = (0.45D1/3 + 0.001D) mm
High limit of hole = 40.000 + 0.050 = 40.050 mm
= (0.45 x 63.2461/3 + 0.001 x 63.246)
High limit of shaft = 40.000 - 0.01 = 39.990 mm
= 1.856 mm = 0.001856 mm
Low limit of shaft = 39.990 - 0.04 = 39.950 mm
Tolerance = 25i = 0.0464 mm
40.050 FD = - 55 (63.246) = - 0.030115 mm
40.000 Hole Upper limit = Basic size + FD = 60 - 0.030115
39.990 = 59.97 mm
39.950 Shaft Lower limit = Upper limit - Tolerance
= 59.97 - 0.0464
Maximum clearance = 40.050 - 39.950 = 0.10 mm = 59.924 mm
13. In a CNC machine BLU represents the smallest 18.
distance.
1
Revolution of motor in one step = rev/step
200 0.009
Movement from motor is transferred to gear box. 0.025
1
Gear ratio, G =
4
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3.390
Tolerance = upper deviation - lower deviation = -0.009 28. Hence, the correct option is (D).
- (-0.025) = 0.016 29. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Fundamental deviation = lower deviation = -0.019 30.
Hence, the correct option is (D). y
2
20. Hence, the correct option is (A). Q (2, 5)
21.
Hole, φmax = 9.015 mm
φmin = 9.0 mm 5
Q’
Shaft φmin = 9.01 mm
2
H φmax − Sφmax = 9015 − 901
−5 P(0, 0) x
= +5 × 10 −3 mm
H φmin − Sφ min = 9 − 9.001
Coordinates of Q at the new position Q’ is (-5, 2).
= −1× 10 −3 mm Hence, the correct option is (B).
Ans: Transition fit
32.
22. The maximum interference is = 25.04 - 25.02 = 0.02 mm
= 0.02 × 103 = 20 microns.
H1
Hence, the correct option is (C). H2
p α 
23. The diameter of the best size wire = sec   d1 = 40
2 2 C
2  60 
= sec   = 1.154 mm . d2 = 60
2  2  A
R B
24. 25.084 Hence, the correct option is (D).
25.
D
P (5, 10) y=x

•
d1 + d2 60 + 40
AC = = = 50 mm
2 2
•  d   d 
P1(x1, y1) CB =  H 2 2  −  H1 + 1 
 2  2
45°
= (35.55 + 30) − (20.55 + 20)
10 − y1
P1 is the image Slope of PP1 = = 25
5 − x1
Since the line y = x is ^r to PP1
AB = R = AC 2 − CB 2
10 − Y − 1
× 1 = −1 = 50 2 − 252 = 43.3 mm
5 − x1
10 − y1 = −5 + x1  d d2 
D R+ 1 
15 = x1 + y1  
The values satisfying this equation is (10, 5) = 43.3 + 50
93.3 mm
27. Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct answer is (92 to 94).
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7.51
33. 25 + 0.015 No Go P1(0, 0, 0)

P2(1, 1, 0)
Work tolerance P3(1, 1, 1)
In the ∆le P1, P2, P3,
Gauge tolerance P1 P2 is ⊥ to P2 P3
Wear allowance 1 1
25 − 0.015 Go
∴ Area = . ( P1 P2 ) . ( P2 P3 ) = . 2 .1
2 2
Hole tolerance = ± 0.015 mm 1
= = 0.707
Work tolerance = 0.015 + 0.015 = 0.030 2
Gauge tolerance = 0.030 × 0.1 = 0.003
Wear allowance = 0
38.
Lower limit of gauge dimension
= 25.000 - 0.015
= 24.985 mm
Go
No Go
Dimension of GO plug gauge
Plug gage
= 24.985+0.003− 0.000
Hence, the correct option is (D). • Plug gage is used to measure holes. The Go
A
gage measures the lower limit and the No Go gage
34.
measures the upper limit.
Hole Shaft
min 25.02 24.992
max 25.04 25.005
39.
0 12 30 40
As the maximum shaft diameter is less than minimum 0 12 19 11 30 40
10
hole diameter the fit is a clearance fit. 1 3 5 6
Minimum clearance = (Hole)min – (shaft)max

14 12 9
= 25.02 – 25.005
Maximum = 0.015 mm 7
2 4
35. Interpolator is a control system used for linear, circu- 14 21
lar, parabolic and cubic interpolation in CNC machine. The minimum duration for completion is the critical
This tool/workpiece is made to move by making small path time = 40 days
increments between the prescribed points. Hence, the correct answer is 39 to 40.
Hence, the correct option is (B). 40. The point P(3, 5) is considered as origin and the coor-
36. Basic size of L4 = L1 – (L2 + L3) dinates of point Q(7, 12) WRT the new origin is:
( )
+0.005 +0.005
+ Q = (7, 12) – (3, 5) = ([7 – 3], [12 – 5])
= 22+−00..01
01 – 10 −0.005 10 −0.005
Q = (4, 7)
= 22+−00..01 (
+0.01
)
01 − 20 −0.01 = 2 −0.01− ( +0.01)
0.01− ( −0.01)
= 2+−00..02 41. From the given points, (20, 20) to (10, 10) with centre
02 = 2
± 0.02
at (20, 10), the radius of the circular arc is 10. The tool
starts at (20, 20) and traverse counter clockwise with a
37. z radius 10 and centre at (20, 10) upto the point (10, 10).
1
The sequence number is 5 ⇒ N05
P3 1 Incremental input ⇒ G91
P1
x
Counter clockwise circular interpolation ⇒ G03.
1
P2
y
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Y x = D – (R + r)
(20, 20)
( R + r )2 − ( D − ( R + r ) )
2
y=
(10, 10)
(20, 10) = 2D ( R + r ) − D 2
H=R+r+y
O X
H = (R + r) + 2 D ( R + r ) − D
2
The tool being at point (20, 20) take it as origin. The
end point (10, 10) is given by X – 10, Y – 10. Hence, the correct option is (D).
\ The command is 45. G–01–linear interpolation, G 03, Circular Interpolation,
NO5 G91 G03 X–10 Y–10 R10 ACW.
Hence, the correct option is (B). M–03–Spindle rotation, CW; M05, spindle stop.
P. Feeler gauge III. Clearance between 46. Given l1 = 450 mm
components (∆h)1 = 1 mm
Q. Fillet gauge I. Radius of an
object. (∆h)2 = 1.5 mm
R. Snap gauge II. Diameter within by ∆h = n l/2
comparison limits ( ∆h )1 λ1
S. Cylindrical IV. Inside diameter of =
plug gauge straight
( ∆h )2 λ2
hole 1 450
⇒ =
Hence, the correct option is (A). 1.5 λ2
43. First translating the point P to origin
⇒ l2 = 675 mm
New coordinates at P are (0, 0)
New coordinates of Q are (3, 2)
47. After translation and then angular rotation final point is
Now rotating PQ about P by q (–6, 3, –9).
So, new coordinates of Q are Hence, the correct option is (A).
X1 = xQ cos q + yQ sin q
=3 × 0.8 + 2 × 0.6 = 3.6 USL − LSL
48. C p =
Y = –XQ sin q + yQ cos q
1
6σ
=–3 × 0.6 + 2 × 0.8 = –0.2 15.02 − 14.98
Cp =
Now, again translating P to original condition, So, Q 6 × 0.004
becomes (3.6 + 1, 3 – 0.2) = (4.6, 2.8) C p = 1.667
44. D 49. Given dimension,
N60 G01 X30 Y55 Z-5 F50
r
B
N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20
A
N80 G01 Z5
H y
R
O
(30, 55)
20
r=
B x
A (30, 35) (50, 35)
y
(R + r)
x
O
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Co-ordinates of centre of circular arc are (30,35) Energy Required

Hence, the correct option is (D). Volume of metal
=
50. From root sum square model, Specify removal rate × efficiency
n 3600
=
s= ∑ σi2 3.44 × 10 −2 × 0.9
i =1
104651.162
s= σ2P + σQ2 =
0.9
s= 32 + 4 2 Energy required = 116279.07 As
Given time = 2 min = 120 s
s = 5 mm.
Current required:
116279.07
51. Go ring gauge will check upper limit of shaft I =
120
∴ UL of ring after platting
I = 968.992
= 25.02 + ( 2.005 × 2) = 29.030 mm
55. In electric discharge machining, electric spark is
52. Interpolar provides two functions: the source by which material removal takes place by
(i) It computes individual axis velocities to drive the melting and vaporization.
tool along the programmed path at the given feed Hence, the correct option is (B).
rate. 56. Four jaw chuck is used for holding irregular shaped
(ii) It generates intermediate coordinate positions workpiece in a centre lathe.
along the programmed path. Hence, the correct option is (D).
57. MRR = 4 × 104 × IT–1.23
53. q = 27°321
MRR = 4 × 104 × 300 (1600)–1.23
32
27 + = 27.533° = 1374.40 mm3/min
60
π 2
H H Volume required to remove = D L
sinq = sinq = 4
L 125
π
H = 57.782 mm = × 252 × 20
4
Hence, the correct answer is 57.782. = 9817.477 mm3
54. Volume of metal to be removed 9817.477
Time required = = 7.1431 min
= 10 × 30 × 12 1374.4
= 3600 mm3 Hence, the correct answer is 7.1431.
4:06:21 Unit 07.indd 53 4/27/2019 4:05:36 PM

test
Hints/solutions
less. In this case Rt for tool A is high and Rt for tool B

5. Diameter of the blank required, D = d + 4 dh
2
is less. \ Tool B gives better surface finish. Choic (A)
D = 30 2 + 4 × 30 × 150 FC tan α + Fr 450
20. µ = = = 0.47 Choice (D)
= 900 + 120 × 150 = 900 + 18000 = 137.5 mm FC + Fr tan α 950
Limiting draw ratio = 1.8 21. Let T1 minute be the life of first tool. Then cutting speed
137.5 is 80T1
∴ d1 = = 76.4 mm > 30
1.8 \ Tool life equation is 80T1 · T10.2 = c
76.4 80T11.2 = c
d2 = = 42.4 mm > 30 C
1.8 T11.2 = − (1)
80
42.4
d3 = = 23.5 mmm < 30 Let T2 minute be the tool life of second tool. Then the
1.8 cutting speed = 100T2
\ No. of draws required is 3 Choice (B) Tool life equation is 100T2 · T20.25 = c
7. As the amount of cold working increases, recrystallis- C
T11.25 =
tion temperature reduces Choice (B) 100
8. R = 400, m = 0.15 Let C = 800
D H per pass = m2 R = 0.152 × 400 = 9 mm. Then for 1st tool T11.2 = 10
Total reduction required = 150 – 100 = 50 mm For second tool T22.5 = 8
50 T1 = 6.812 m T2 = 5.28 m
No. of passes = =6 Tool A Choice (A)
9
6 passes Choice (C) 22. r cos α 0.4 cos 12
tan φ = =
10. The size of the pattern can be found by allowing the 1 − r sin α 1 − 0.4 sin 12
machining allowance first and then the shrinkage f = 23.1° Choice (A)
allowance or by allowing the shrinkage allowance first
and then the machining allowance. 24. Let ‘d’ be the diameter of the forged piece – since
volume remains the same
Machining allowance π 2 π
D = 100 + 2 + 2 = 104 mm d × 40 = × 120 2 × 60
4 4
L = 150 + 2 + 2 = 154 mm
60
Shrinkage allowance d = 120 ×
2 2
∴ d = 147 mm
40
2
D = 104 + × 104 = 108.16 mm π
(147 ) × 40 = 678240 mm3
2
50 The volume of stock =
100 4
2
L =154 + × 154 = 160.16 Flow stress s = 75 N/mm2
50 Choice (C)
2 mm 2 mm \ work of deformation = s × stock volume
11. When the gate size is less than the runner size, the gat- \ work of deformation = 678240 × 75
ing system is pressurised Choice (A) = 50868000 N mm
= 51 kN m. Choice (A)
r cos α cos 12 25. Work of deformation is 51 kN m
13. tan φ = = Weight of the hammer = 16 kN.
1 − r sin α 1 − sin 12
Work of deformation = w × h where ‘h’ is height of fall.
\ f = 51° Choice (B) 51 = 16 h
51
f ∴h = = 3.2 m
18. Rt = . When Rt is more surface finish is 16 Choice (B)
tan CS + cot Ce
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Industrial
Engineering U
n
Chapter 1
Work Study8.3
Chapter 2 Production Planning and

Control8.7
Chapter 3 Material Requirement

Planning and Inventory
i
Control 8.13
Chapter 4 Operations Research-1 8.23
Chapter 5 Network Analysis and

Queuing Theory 8.36
t
8
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8.2 | Industrial Engineering
Unit 08.indd
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Chapter-101_Hints
Hints Solutions.indd
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36
158
232
286
346 396
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16:07:43 Chap
CHapter 1 Work study

Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 11. Normal time = 10 mts.
Percentage allowance = 20%
1. Standard time is basically,
10
normal time + allowances. Standard time =
1 − 0.2
normal time = 12.5 mts.
That is,
1 − allowance fraction
or normal time (1 + allowance fraction),
s
whichever is larger. 12. Coefficient of variation is × 100%
x
Hence, the correct option is (C). s = 0.3 mts;
2. It is the queuing up of machines or processes. It is a situation 40
occurring when one has to attend more than one process or x= = 2 mts.
20
equipment at a time.
0.3
Hence, the correct option is (A). ∴ CV = = 0.15 = 15%.
2
3. It is usually done for highly repetitive, short duration jobs. It
uses high speed camera films. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (D). 13. The correct option is (A).
4. The correct option is (C). 14. The correct option is (C).
5. Performance rating denotes the variability of individuals in 15. P = 0.2
relation to the performance of a job.
Hence, the correct option is (B). 4 P (1 − P )
We have, LP =
N
6. Factors considered for PMTS are MTM and work factor
system. 4 P (1 − P ) 4 × 0.2 × 0.8
N= = = 6400.
Hence, the correct option is (C). L2 P 2 (0.05) 2 × (0.2) 2
7. The correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (C).
8. It is μ ±1.96s, that is, 1.96 ≈ 2. For 99.73% confidence level 16. Average time for assembly = 15 mts
it is 3s.
Performance rating = 105%
For 68.27% confidence level it is 1s.
Normal time = 15.75 mts
15.75
25 Standard time = = 17 mts.
9. Probability = = 0.25 1 − 0.08
100
4 p ( I − p)
We have LP = 17. The correct option is (B).
N
18. The correct option is (C).
4 P ( I − p)
N= 19. The correct option is (A).
L2 p 2
L = 0.05 112
20. P = = 0.112
4 × 0.75 × 0.25 1000
N= = 4800.
0.0025 × 0.0625
Hence, the correct option is (B). P (1 − P ) P (1 − P )
LP = because LP = k
N N
10. In a time study, the average time
=
20 + 22 + 24 + 21 + 25
= 22.4 1 × P (1 − P ) (1 − P )
N= = 2
5 L2 P 2 LP
Performance rating is 120%
∴ Normal time = 22.4 × 1.2 = 26.88 mts. 0.888
= = 3170.
Allowance is 15% 0.112 × 0.0025
26.88 As the confidence limit is 68.27,
∴ Standard time = = 31.6 mts.
1 − 0.15 K = 1.
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3.398
| Part III • Unit 8 • Industrial Engneering
Practice Problems 2 10. Normal time for operation = machine time + observed man-
ual time × performance rating.
1. Work study means
= 8 + 6 × 1.2
method study and work measurement.
= 8 + 7.2 = 15.2
∴ Normal time for operation is 15.2
2. The purpose of method study is the scientific reduction of
work content in an operation. Rest allowance is 10%
15.2 15.2
Hence, the correct option is (C). ∴ Standard time is = = 16.9 mts.
1 − 0.1 0.9
3. It can be both ways depending on the situation.
11. The number of observations to be taken is given by
4. It shows what happens to the material or the changes taking
place to the material at a location. ( Z s ) 2 (1.96 s ) 2
n= = where, Z is the standard normal
Hence, the correct option is (D). ( L x )2 ( L x )2
variate corresponding to 95% confidence limit ≈ 1.96
5. String diagram is specifically required when the flow diagram
is very complicated with repetitive motion. 1
∑ x2 − (x )
2
s=
Hence, the correct option is (A). n
6. SIMCO chart – gives the relative motion of right and left But, the value of s is directly given as 2.04
hands. The time scale is represented in Winks.
h is the accuracy limit 10% = 0.1
x = the average
7. Standard time is given as
(1.96 × 2.04) 2
normal time ∴n = = 47
Standard time = (0.1 × 5.83) 2
(1 − fraction of allowance )
The number of total observations required is 47.
If no allowance is granted,
normal time = standard time.
12. The total time operator spends = 600 mts
No of units produced is 450
8. Performance rating = 120 600
Normal time ∴ Time spent/unit Production = mts.
= performance rating 450
Observed time But, he works only for 85% of the time.
Normal time ∴ The actual time taken by the operator per unit production
That is = 1.2
20 600 × 0.85
is = 1.13 mts.
∴ Normal time for the job is 20 × 1.2 = 24 mts 450
normal time This is the observed time.
∴Standard time =
(1 − allowance fraction ) But, performance rating is 120.
24 ∴ Normal time = 1.13 × 1.2 = 1.36 mts.
= = 24.8 mts
1 − 0.03 Rest allowance is 15%
1.36
9. The standard time for the job is 18 mts. The rest allowance is ∴ Standard time = = 1.6 mts.
0.85
5%.
normal time
That is = 18
1 − 0.05 13. The probability = 0.35
∴ Normal time = 18 (1 – 0.05) = 17.1 mts. We have
But performance rating is 4 P (1 − P )
LP =
normal time N
= 0.8
observed time Required to find N,
normal time L = 0.05 P = 0.35
∴ Observed time =
0.8 4 × 0.35 × 0.65
0.05 × 0.35 =
17.1 N
= = 21.4 mts.
0.8 4 × 0.35 × 0.65
N= = 2972.
The person would take a time equal to 21.4 mts. 0.352 × 0.052
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Work Study | 3.399
| 8.5
14. The correct option is (B). where, for 95% confidence limit Z = 2, n1 in this case = 10.
15. Work study consists of method study and work measurement. The average x = 7.2 mts
As a part of method study, it is required to develop a standard ∑ x2 = 526
method and as a part of work measurement, it is required to
establish the standard time for the job.  4 × 10 52.6 − 7.22 
2
Hence, the correct option is (C). N = 

 7.2 
16. Observed time = 10 mts
Rating factor = 120 2
 40 0.76 
Normal time =  = 23.
= 1.2  7.2 
Observation
Normal time = 1.2 × 10 = 12 mts Number of readings required is 23.
The allowance factor = 8% Hence, the correct option is (D).
12 21. The correct option is (B).
Standard time = = 13 mts
1 − 0.08 22. The correct option is (B).
Number of pieces turned in an 8 hour shift 23. We have,
8 × 60 4 P (1 − P )
= = 36 pieces. 0.3 × 0.01 =
13 N
4 × 0.3 × 0.7
17. The observed times are 12, 11, 12, 14, 10, 12, 12, 13, 11, 13. (0.3) 2 (0.01) 2 =
N
The average observed time is = 12 mts
N = 3733.
Performance rating = 0.9
Normal time
= 0.9 24. The average of the observed time is
Observed time
3+ 4 +3+5+ 4 +5+ 4 +3+5+ 4
Normal time = 0.9 × 12 = 10.8 mts = 4 mts
10
Personal allowance is 10%
Normal time
10.8 = 0.7
∴ Standard time = Observed time
1 − 0.1
10.8 ∴ Normal time = 2.8 mts
= 12 mts
0.9 2.8
S tandard time = = 3.3 mts.
Hence, the correct option is (B). 1 − 0.15
18. Normal time of the composite job is the sum of normal times Hence, the correct option is (B).
of the elemental jobs. 25. In an 8 hr shift, the number of products that he can produce is
8 + 7.8 + 8.2 = 24 8 × 60
= = 145 nos.
19. Average of the time elements is
8+6+8+7+8+8+6+6+8+7
= 7.2 mts 26. The correct option is (A).
10
Observed time = 7.2 mts
28. Average of 10 observations
Performance rating = 120%
Normal time = 7.2 × 1.2 = 8.64 mts 0.05 + 0.06 + 0.05 + 0.05 + 0.05
Personal allowance 12% + 0.06 + 0.06 + 0.05 + 0.06 + 0.06
= = 0.055 mts.
8.64 10
Standard time = = 9.8 mts.
1 − 0.12 Normal time = observed time × performance rating
Hence, the correct option is (C). 0.055 × 1.2 = 0.066.
20. If the observed average is to be within ±5% of the true aver- Hence, the correct option is (A).
age with 95% probability, the number of observations to be 29. The number of observations required is
taken is given by the formula 2
 
 Σx 2   40 ∑x −x 
2
2
− x2 
N =  n  N = N 
 Z × n1
2 1
  x 
 x 

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3.400
 0.0305  30. Average of 13 readings = 0.0554

 40 − (0.055) 2 
10 Normal time = 0.0554 × 1.2 = 0.066.
= 
 0.055  Hence, the correct option is (D).
= ≈13.
Previous Years’ Questions 3. Actual time = 8 min

Performance rating = 120
1. Given: Total time, TT = 16 hours
∴ Rating factor = 1.2
= 16 × 60 min
Normal time = rating factor × actual time
= 960 min
= 1.2 × 8 = 9.6 min
Actual time = 0.9 × 960 = 864 min
10% allowance is provided. That is
Normal time = actual time × rating factor
standard time = normal time + allowance
= 864 × 1.2 = 1036.7 min
Standard time = Normal time + Allowances 10
= 9.6 + × 9.6
= 1036.8 + (0.2 × 1036.8) 100
= 1.2 × 1036.8 min
= 10.56 min
= 1244.16 min
∴ Standard production rate
1244.16
Standard time per joint = 8 × 60
108 = ~ 45 units.
10.56
= 11.52 min
~ 12 min. Hence, the correct option is (A).
4. A product layout arranges activities in line according to the
2. An assembly activity is represented by the symbol O on an sequence of operations for a particular product or service.
operation process chart.
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CHapter 2 produCtion planning and Controls

Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 Σxy = aΣ x + bΣ x2

22 = 10b ∴ b = 2.2
1. As regular production can be upto 850, the excess demand ∴ y = 7.8 + 2.2x
can be met by regular production in period 1. The year 2003 denotes x = 3.
Hence, the correct option is (C). y = 7.8 + 2.2 × 3
2. The correct option is (B). = 7.8 + 6.6 = 14.4.
3. The correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (B).
4. For A, 7. Let ‘p’ be the purchase cost. If x% is the depreciation scrap

18 value, S = p(1– x)L when L is the life of the machine.
Interest on the investment = 400000 ×
100 s
p = (1 − x )
L
= ` 72000
Operating cost = ` 7200/hrs 1
Operating hrs = 4000  sL

∴ = 1− x
 p 
Total cost = 800000 + 72000 1
= ` 872000  s2
∴ x = 1−  
Total units produced  p
= 60 × 4000 1
= 240000  1500  8
= 1− 
 10000 
∴ Cost/unit = ` 3.63.
For B x = 21.2%.
Interest on investment = 600000 × = 108000
100 8. Percentage reduction in its value is nothing but the deprecia-
Operating cost = 4000 × 120 tion rate ‘x’.
= 480000 1
 sL
Total cost = ` 588000 x = 1−  
 p
Total units produced = 4000 × 75 1
= ` 300000  8000  18
= 1−  = 9.5%.
 48000 
Cost/unit = ` 1.96.
B is desirable. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 9. In 5 months, by moving average method, we have to take the
average of the latest 5 demand values.
5. Fixed Cost = 10000
Variable cost is: 40/unit 115 + 120 + 118 + 119 + 123
The forecast is
No. of units produced is 400. 5
∴ Total cost = 10000 + 40 × 400 595
= = 119
5
= 10000 + 16000
The forecast value is 119.
` = 26000
Revenue = 400 × 65 = 26000
10. The total time used is
Net profit is zero.
= 10 + 8 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 14 = 65
X y x2 xy
But, maximum of the cycle time = 14 × 6 = 84
6. 65
–2 3 4 –6 Line efficiency is = 77.4%.
84
–1 6 1 –6
0 8 0 0
1 10 1 10 11. Exponential smoothing constant = 0.3
2 12 4 24 Forecast demand = 350
0 39 10 22 Actual demand = 384
Forecast for the next month,
y = a + bx
Σy = na + bΣx, Σx = 0 Ft+1 = Ft + a [Dt – Ft]
39 = 5a . a = 7.8 = 350 + 0.3 [384 - 350]

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3.402
= 350 + 0.3 × 34 16. Standard time is 1090 mts

= 350 + 10.2 Time available = 20 × 60 = 1200
= 360.2. 1090
Efficiency of operation = = 90.8% .
12. It is the time table for work. Hence, the correct option is (C).
17. Fixed cost/month = `8000
13. Cost of production by automatic machine for ‘x’ units to
Variable cost = `3/unit
produce,
 65 6  Let ‘x’ be the break even quantity.
 60 + 60 x  750. Then, cost of production
 
Cost of production by conventional machine for ‘x’ units to 8000 + 3x
produce, Revenue = 8x
 20 30  At break even condition,
 60 + 60 x  250,
  8000 + 3x = 8x
At break even condition. 5x = 8000
 65 6   20 30  x = 1600.
 60 + 60 x  750 =  60 + 60 x  250
    Hence, the correct option is (D).
[1.083 + 0.1x] 750 = [0.333 + 0.5x] 250 18. When the quantity produced is 1000 units,
812.25 + 75 x = 83.32 + 125 x the loss is 8000 + 3x - 8x,
729 = 50x
where x = 1000
∴ x ≈ 15 pieces.
8000 + 3 × 1000 - 8 × 1000
`3000.
14. Fixed cost = ` 25000
Let ‘x’ be the break even quantity. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Then total cost = 25000 + x × 85 19. Profit required is `3000
Total revenue = 125x 8x - [8000 + 3x] = 3000
Equating 25000 + 85 x = 125x 5x - 8000 = 3000
Equating 25000 + 85x = 125x 5x = 11000
∴ 40x = 25000 x = 2200.
∴ x = 625 units. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 20. According to exponential smoothing method, we have
15. Set up time = 40 mts Ft+1 = Ft + a (Dt - Ft)
Turning time for 70 jobs = 70 × 15 mts 60 = 58 + a (62 - 58)
= 1050 mts 60 = 58 + a (4)
Standard time for turning 70 jobs 2
∴ 4a = 2 ∴a= = 0.5.
= 1050 + 40 4
= 1090 mts. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Practice Problems 2 Operating cost: 3600 × 12 = 43200

Total cost = 61200
Total production = 28,800
61200
3. The correct option is (B). Cost/unit = = 2.13.
28800
4. The correct option is (B).
For machine L,
5. The correct option is (D). Interest on the investment = 12000
6. The correct option is (C). Operating cost = 3600 × 9 = 32400
7. The correct option is (A). Total cost = 44400
8. For machine A. Total production = 3600 × 6 = 21600
Interest on the investment = 18000 Cost/unit = 2.05
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Chapter 2 • Production Planning and Controls | 3.403
Machine ‘L’ is desirable. 1

 10000  25
= 1− 
Hence, the correct option is (B).  50000 
9. The cost function is 12000 + 50x.
= 6. 23%.
But x = 800
Cost = 12000 + 40000 = 52000
13. For 3 months, moving average of the latest 3 months demand,
Revenue = 800 × 80 = 64000
62 + 64 + 63 189
Profit = `12000 only. = = 63
3 3
Therefore, the forecast for the sixth month is 63.
10.
Year 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
14. Cycle time = 90
Demand 12 13 11 10 12
Total cycle time for all work stations = 90 × 8 = 720 mts.
x y xy x2 The actual task time is
–2 12 –24 4 45 + 65 + 50 + 85 + 90 + 70 + 75 + 65 = 545 mts.
–1 13 –13 1 545
Line efficiency is = 75.7% .
0 11 0 0 720
1 10 10 1 Hence, the correct option is (A).
2 12 24 4
15. a = 0.4
0 58 –3 10
We know that,
Ft+1 = Ft + a (Dt - Ft)
y = a + bx Ft+1 = 128 + 0.4 (118 - 128)
Σy = na + bΣx ; 58 = 5a = 128 + 0.4 (–10)
a = 11.6 = 124.
Σxy = aΣx + bΣx2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
-3 = 10b ∴ b = -0.3 16. Gantt chart is the graphical representation of production
y = 11.6 - 0.3x schedule.
For the year 2000, x = 3 Hence, the correct option is (D).
y = 11.6 - 0.3 × 3 17. For the standard machine: Let ‘x’ be the number of pieces
= 11.6 - 0.9 = 10.7. produced. The cost of production is
Hence, the correct option is (D). ⎛ 45 35 ⎞
`⎜ + x ⎟ 300.
11. An equipment is purchased for `25000/. Its scrap values after ⎝ 60 60 ⎠
10 years of use is `5000. The rate of depreciation in percent- The cost of production for automatic machine is
age is
S = P (1 – x)L  12 
1.5 + x 850.
60 
where s = scrap value, P = purchase value, x = rate of
depreciation. At break even condition,
1
s L  45 35   12 
∴ x = 1−    + x 300 = 1.5 + x  850
 p 60 60   60 
1 (0.75 + 0.583x) 300 = (1.5 + 0.2x) 850
 5000  10 225 + 174.9x = 1275 + 170x
= 1− 
 25000 
4.9x = 1050
 1
0.1 x = 215 units.
= 1−   = 14.86% . Hence, the correct option is (B).
 5
Hence, the correct option is (A). 18. Fixed cost = `50000
Total cost if the break even quantity is ‘x’,
12. Required to find the depreciation rate, 50000 + 125x = 250x
1 ∴ 125x = 50000
 sL 50000
x = 1−   x= = 400 units.
 p 125

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3.404 | Part III • Engineering
8.10 | Industrial Unit 8 • Industrial Engneering
The break even value is = 400 × 250 The cost of production is

` 100000 /-. = 21000 + 20 × 650
= 34000
Loss = 34000 - 32500
19. Fixed cost = 6000
= `1500.
Variable cost = `2/unit
If ‘x’ is the break even volume,
6000 + 2x = Total cost 24. Break even point is 500 units.
Total revenue = 7x Cost of production for producing 600 units
∴ 6000 + 2x = 7x = 15000 + 600 × 20
∴ x = 1200/month. = 15000 + 12000

Hence, the correct option is (A). = `27000.
20. Quantity produced = 1400 Revenue = 600 × 50
Then, cost = 6000 + 1400 × 2 = `30000
= 6000 + 2800 Profit = 30000 - 27000
= 8800 = `3000.
Revenue = 1400 × 7 = 9800 Hence, the correct option is (D).
Profit = 9800 - 8800 = `1000. 25. We know that,
Hence, the correct option is (C). Ft+1 = Ft + a [Dt - Ft]
21. Let ‘x’ be the quantity to be produced. 90 = 86 + a [96 - 86]
Then profit is 4 = a [10] ∴ a = 0.4.
7x - (6000 + 2x) = 4000 Hence, the correct option is (B).
5x - 6000 = 4000 26. Given, Fixed Cost = 25000/-
5x = 10000 Variable Cost = `45/unit
x = 2000. Break even quantity is ‘x’
Hence, the correct option is (B). Then, 25000 + x × 45 = p × x
22. In the case of purchasing one machine, the break even quan- 25000
tity is ∴x =
p − 45
12000 12000
Q1 = = But Px = 81250
50 − 20 30 25000 × P
= 400 units. ∴ Px =
P − 45
If two machines are purchased the break even quantity is 25000 P
81250 =
15000 P − 45
Q2 = = 500 units. 81250 × 45 = (81250 - 25000) P
50 − 20
∴ P = 65.
If three machine are purchased, the break even quantity is
∴ Selling price is `65/unit
21000
Q3 = = 700 units. or
50 − 20
Break even value is
In the case of one machine, the break even point exceeds the
F
range of production. So, it is not feasible. =
v
In the case of two machines, the break even quantity is 500. 1−
p
But it can produce up to 600. It is feasible.
To meet a demand 650, if the decision is to purchase 25000
81250 =
3 machines; the firm will end up in loss because the break 45
1−
even quantity is 700, which is more than the demand range. p
∴ The correct decision is to purchase 2 machines. Solving, P = `65.
23. The break even quantity is 700 units. 27. Percentage utilisation
∴ The revenue if 650 units are produced Actual production
= = 0.72
= `650 × 50 = 32500 Designed production
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Chapter 2 • Production Planning and Controls
8.11
Actual production 29. The total cycle time is

= = 0.72
75000 5 + 25 + 30 + 55 = 115 mts/unit.
∴Actual production of the plant = 54000 tones. 1
No. of units/mts =
But the efficiency of production is 115
Actual production No. of units in an 8 hrs shift
0.9 =
Effective production 1
= × 480 ≈ 4 units.
115
54000
i.e., 0.9 = Hence, the correct option is (C).
Effective production
∴ Effective production is 30. If ‘x’ is the % depreciation,
1
=
54000  sL
0.9 x = 1 −  p
 
= 60000 tonnes.
1
Hence, the correct option is (D).  4000  15
0.12 = 1 − 
28. Total machine hours per week  p 
= 6 × 8 × 2 × 12 = 1152 hrs. 1
But the percentage utilisation of time is 70%.  4000  15
i.e,  = 0.88
∴ Actual working hours  p 
= 1152 × 0.7 = 807 hrs.
4000
System efficiency is 85% ∴P= = 27, 230 /-
0.1469
∴ Rated output = 807 × 0.85
= 686 hrs. P = `27230/-.
Previous Years’ Questions 3. For fifth year,

880 + 870 + 890
1. FJan = aDDec + (1 - a)FDec Ft+1 = a(Dt) + (1 - a) Ft =
3
= (0.2 × 20) + [(1 - 0.2) × 25] ⇒ a (890) + (1 − a )(876) = 880
= 24. 2
⇒a =
2. Setup time = Fixed cost (F) Hence, the correct option is (C).
Machining time = Variable cost (V) 4. Number of pieces produced, x = 100
200 Now, total cost (T) = F + xV
For standard machine tool, F = ` × 30 =`100.
60 F = Fixed cost
200 V = Variable cost
V=` × 22 = `73.34.
60 For process 1, T1 = 20 + (3 × 100) = `320
Total cost (TC)1 = F + xV
For process 2, T2 = 50 + (1 × 100) = `150
x = units produced
For process 3, T3 = 40 + (2 ×100) = `240
∴ TC1 = 100 + (x × 73.34).
For process 4, T4 = 10 + (4 × 100) = `410
For automatic machine tool,
Hence, process-II is having minimum total cost and is eco-
800 nomic than other processes.
F =` × 2 = `1600
1
800
V =` × 5 = ` 66.67
60 5. In forecasting using moving average, the number of weeks
should be considered over which the moving averages are
Total Cost (TC )2 = F + xV
taken.
= 1600 + (66.67 × x).
Higher value of m → Greater smoothing, lower responsiveness.
At break even, TC1 = TC2
Lower value of m → Lesser smoothing, more responsiveness.
∴ 100 + 73.34x = 1600 + 66.67 x
More the period (m) over which the moving average is calcu-
⇒ x = 225 units. lated, less is the susceptible forecast to random variations.
Hence, the correct option is (D). but it is less responsive to change.

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The large value of m is appropriate if the underlying pattern FMar = 568.75 units
of demand is stable.
A smaller value of m is appropriate if the underlying pat-
13. The two approaches of computer aided process plan-
terns are changing or if it is important to identify short term
fluctuations. ning are:
As m1 is greater than m2, F2 will be more responsive to change 1) Variant
and hence attain value d2 earlier. 2) Generative
Hence, the correct option is (D). Variant approach involves retrieving existing plan for a
6. Exponential smoothing method of forecasting takes a fraction similar part and making modifications.
of forecast error into account for the next period forecast. Generative approach involves generation of new pro-
Ft+1 = aDt + (1 - a) Ft cess plans by means of decision logic and process
Dt = Actual demand at time t knowledge.
Ft = Forecast at time t Hence, the correct option is (B).
Ft+1 = Forecast at time (t + 1) 14. As the trend is increasing, regression will forecast a
a = Smoothing constant. higher value than the moving average.
7. Ft+1 = aDt + (1 - a) Ft 15. Fixed cost per month = `50,000 (FC)
or Fmarch = aDfeb + (1 - a) Ffeb Variable cost per unit = `200 (V)
Fmarch = (0.25 × 12000) + (1 - 0.25) × 10275 = 10706. Selling price per unit = `300 (S)
Hence, the correct option is (C). Production capacity = 1500 units/month
8. Scheduling of machines is not to be taken during the aggre-
Production = 80% of rated capacity.
gate production planning stage.
Hence, the correct option is (A). ∴ Production = 1500 × 0.8 = 1200 units/month
9. 1.0. ∴ Selling price = S = 1200 × 300 = `360,000
Hence, the correct option is (D). Variable cost = V = 1200 × 200 = `240,000
10. The correct option is (B). ∴ Profit = S – (V + FC)
11. Forecast for February using 4 months moving average = = 360,000 – (240,000 + 50,000)
Average sales for 4 months just before February Profit = `70,000
280 + 250 + 190 + 240 Hence, the correct answer is 68,000 to 72,000.
=
4
= 240 units. 16.
Hence, the answer is 239 to 241. Demand Forecast
12. April 900 850
Demand Jan Feb Mar May 1030
Actual 500 600
Forecast 400 FMay = FApril + a [DApril – FApril]
a = 0.75 = 850 + 0.6[50] = 880
Ft+1 = aDt + (1 – a) Ft FJune = FMay + a [DMay – FMay]
∴ FFeb = 0.75 × DJan + (1 – 0.75)FJan = 880 + 0.6[1030 – 880] = 970
= 0.75 × 500 + 0.25 × 400 Hence, the correct option is (D).
FFeb = 475
FMar = 0.75 DFeb + 0.25 FFeb
= 0.75 × 600 + 0.25 × 475
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CHapter 3 Material requireMent planning and inventory Control

Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 19 + 41 + 77 60 + 77
= =
1. The correct option is (C). 7 7
2. Arrange the jobs in the ascending order of processing time. 137
= = 19.57 days.
7
Job 5 3 6 4 1 2
Processing time (hrs) 5 7 8 9 12 18 Hence, the correct option is (A).
Weightage 3 2 1 1 1 1 7. Arrange the jobs according to the shortest processing time.
Flow time 5 12 20 29 41 59
Processing Flow Due
Weighted flow time 15 24 20 29 41 59 Job Lateness
time time date
Mean flow time 4 2 2 5 
15 + 24 + 20 + 29 + 41 + 59 3 3 5 4 1
=
3 + 2 +1+1+1+1 1 4 9 12 
188 5 6 15 18 
= = 18.8 hrs.
10 2 7 22 20 2
Hence, the correct option is (A). 6 9 31 25 6
3. It is ‘vital, essential, desirable’, Therefore, the classification 31 84
is based on the criticality of the item.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Total flow time
Least flow time =
4. Maximum time is 13 mts. Number of jobs
No. of jobs are 4. 84
= = 14 days.
∴ Total available time = 13 × 4 = 52 mts. 6
Delay of each job with respect to the job of maximum Hence, the correct option is (B).
duration,
8. The average lateness is
13 – 12, 13 – 10, 13 – 9
i.e, 1, 3, 4. Total lateness
=
8 Number of jobs
∴ The delay in assembly time is = 0.1538
52 8 4
= 15.38%. = = = 1.3 days.
6 3
5. The system inefficiency is
9. The average number of jobs at the work shop any point of
1 – 0.96 × 0.97 × 0.93 × 0.8 = 30.7%. time is given by
It is not equal to 0.048 × 0.03 × 0.07× 0.2 = 0.00002016. Total flowtime
=
Hence, the correct option is (C). Total completion time
6.
84
Job 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 = = 2.7 jobs.
31
Processing time (days) 9 7 11 4 2 6 5
Arranging the jobs according to the ascending order of short- 10. For every job remaining in the work shop, the work shop
est processing time. incurs a cost of `150/day/job. In order to minimise the cost,
the jobs are to be cleared from the work shop as early as
Job 5 4 7 6 2 1 3 possible.
Process time 2 4 5 6 7 9 11 ∴ Arrange the job in the ascending order of processing time.
Flow Time 2 6 111 177 244 333 444
Processing
The least mean flow time is Job Due date Flow time Lateness
time
Total flow time 6 3 12 3 
=
Number of jobs 2 4 11 7 
2 + 6 + 11 + 17 + 24 + 33 + 44 3 5 15 12 
=
7 (Continued)

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7 6 20 18  Processing Flow Due

Job Tardiness
time time date
5 9 30 27 3
3 7 7 32 -
1 11 35 38 3
2 8 15 24 -
4 12 40 50 10
6 9 24 40 -
155 16
1 10 34 12 22
4 11 45 8 37
The total flow time is = 155 days.
5 12 57 15 42
Flow time means the number of days for which the jobs are in
57 182 101
the shop (for each job added).
∴ Total cost = total flow time × cost = 155 × 150 Average lateness
= ` 23,250 Total lateness 101

= = = 16.83 days.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Number of jobs 6
11. Arranging the jobs according to the shortest processing Hence, the correct option is (C).
time. 13. The average number of jobs with the work shop at any point
of time
Processing Flow Due Total flowtime
Job Tardiness =
time time date Total completion time
4 3 3 2 1 182
8 4 7 7 
= = 3.19.
57
7 5 12 10 2
2 6 18 20 
14. The jobs are arranged according to the ascending order of the
3 7 25 21 4 due dates.
6 8 33 37 
5 11 44 40 4 Processing Flow Due
Job Tardiness
time time date
1 12 56 60 
4 11 11 8 3
56 198
1 10 21 10 11
5 12 33 15 18
Tardiness t1 = 11.
2 8 41 24 17
Arranging the jobs according to the earliest
3 7 48 32 16
due date,
6 9 57 40 17
Due Processing Flow 57 211 82
Job Tardiness
date time time
4 2 3 3 1 82
Average tardiness = = 13.67 days.
8 7 4 7 - 6
7 10 5 12 2 Note that tardiness is reduced when scheduled as per the ear-
lier due date.
2 20 6 18 -
3 21 7 25 4
15. Average number of jobs in the system
6 37 8 33 -
5 40 11 44 4
Total flowtime 211
= =
Total completion 57
1 60 12 56 -
= 3.7 jobs.
11
Tardiness t2 = 11 16. r1 = 85, 000 tonnes.
Ordering cost C1= ` 1500/order.
t1
∴ = 1. Inventory carrying cost = ` 60/t/year.
t2
Then, economic order quantity
2 C1r
12. Arranging the jobs according to the shortest processing EOQ =
C2
time.
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Chapter 3 • Material Requirement Planning and Inventory Control
8.15
2 × 1500 × 85, 000 18. Number of orders per year is

= 2400
60 = 5.
500
= 2061 tonnes/order.
19. Given r = 5000.
17. Consider the low price ` 9. EOQ for the given data is, Set up cost = ` 12.
Inventory carrying cost = 0.25/unit/year.
2 × 100 × 2400
EOQ = = 471 nos.
0.24 × 9 2C1r 2 × 12 × 5000
∴ EOQ = =
C2 0.25
This is less than 500. Now, let us try the other option.
= 693 nos.
2 × 100 × 2400 ∴ No. of production runs per annum = 8.
EOQ =
10 × 0.24 Hence, the correct option is (C).
= 447 nos.
20. The re-order level is
Let the ordering quantity be 500. Total cost in this case is = buffer stock + lead time consumption.
Buffer stock or safety stock is
= 2C1C2 r + 2400 × 9
(maximum lead time – minimum lead time) × daily consumption
= (18 – 13) × daily consumption
= 2 × 100 × 0.24 × 9 × 2400 + 9 × 2400
5000
= ` 22, 618.23 → (1) = 5× = 70.
12 × 30
This is when the ordered quantity is 500, only then can the
16 + 14 + 18 + 13 + 14
unit price be ` 9/unit. Average lead time = = 15.
5
When ordered quantity is less than 500, the total cost is
50000
2C1C2 r + 2400 × 10 = ` 25073.32. It is greater than (1). Lead time consumption, 15 × = 209.
12 × 30
∴ EOQ = 500 nos. ∴ Re-order level = 70 + 209 = 279 units.
1. 1 – 0.95 × 0.95 × 0.95 x Population y Demand xy x2
1 – 0.857 ≈ 0.15 5 9 45 25
7 12 84 49
= 15%.
8 11 88 64
11 14 154 121
14 18 252 196
3. Arrange the job in the ascending order of processing.
45 64 623 455
Job 5 2 4 1 3 Let the trend be given by
Processing time 4 5 6 8 9 y = a + bx
Weightage 3 2 1 1 2 Sy = na + bSx → (1)
Total flow time 4 9 15 23 32 xy = ax + bx 2
Flow time with weightage 12 18 15 23 64 Sxy = aSx + bSx2 → (2)

(1) and (2) become,
Mean flow time is
64 = 5a + 45b
12 + 18 + 15 + 23 + 64
623 = 45a + 455b Solving 
3 + 2 +1+1+ 2 
576 = 45a + 405b 
132 47 = 506
= = 14.67.
9 ∴ b = 0.94.
Hence, the correct option is (D). 64 = 5a + 42.3

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21.7 = 5a ∴ a = 4.34. 9. The average number of jobs in the system is given by

∴ y = 434 + 0.94x. The total flow time
=
∴ When x = 10, Total completion time
y = 4.34 + 9.4 125
= = 3.57.
= 13.74 thousands. 35
10. Arranging the jobs according to the earliest due date,
5. y = 4.34 + 0.94x.
Put x = 20, Processing Flow Due
Jobs Lateness
y = 4.34 + 18.8 time time date
6 4 4 6 
= 23.14.
5 6 10 12 
3 7 17 19 
6. The minimum lateness can be achieved if we schedule the
job according to the increasing order of their due date. 2 8 25 27 
Accordingly, the optimum sequence is 4 9 34 30 4
1 1 35 32 3
Job 2 3 4 1 5 6 7 35 125 7
Processing time 8 6 7 10 12 14 18
Due date 10 11 12 15 17 24 28 In this case, the average job lateness remains the same
7
∴ The sequence is 2 – 3 – 4 – 1 – 5 – 6 – 7. = = 1.16.
6
7.
Processing Flow Due 11. The average number of jobs at hand also remains the same as
Job Lateness in the previous case.
time time date
2 8 8 10  Total flow time
It is =
3 6 14 11 3 Total completion time
4 7 21 12 9 125
1 10 31 15 16 = = 3.57.
35
5 12 43 17 26
6 14 57 24 33
12.
7 18 73 28 45
Job 1 2 3 4 5
The maximum lateness is 45 days.
Processing time 9 7 5 11 6
Due date 16 20 25 15 40
8.
Processing Flow Due
Job Lateness Processing Flow Due
time time date Job Lateness
time time date
6 4 4 6 
3 5 5 25 
5 6 10 12 
5 6 11 40 
3 7 17 19 
2 7 18 20 
2 8 25 27 
1 9 27 16 11
4 9 34 30 4
1 1 35 32 3 4 11 38 15 23
35 125 7 38 99 34
Arranging the jobs according to SPT (shortest processing time) . Arranging the jobs according to the shortest processing time
All the jobs except 4 and 1 are completed before the due date. schedule,
Total lateness Total lateness
Average job lateness = Average lateness =
Number of jobs Number of jobs
7 34
=
= 1.16 days. = = 6.8 days.
6 5
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8.17
13. As per shortest processing time schedule, the average number 18. Average number of jobs in the system
of jobs in the system Total flow time
=
Total flow time Total flow of completion
=
Total completion time 79
= = 2.72 jobs.
99 29
= = 2.6 jobs.
Hence, the correct option is (B). 19. The cost will be minimum when the jobs are arranged accord-
ing to the shortest processing time.
14. Arranging the jobs according to the earliest due date,
Process Completion Due
Processing Flow Due Jobs Lateness
Job Lateness time time date
time time date
4 2 2 9 
4 11 11 15 
2 3 5 12 
1 9 20 16 4
1 5 10 10 
2 7 27 20 7
5 6 16 7 9
3 5 32 25 7
3 8 24 18 6
5 6 38 40 –
6 9 33 9 24
128 18
33 90
Total lateness The schedule for minimum cost = 4 – 2 – 1 – 5 – 3 – 6.
Average job lateness =
Number of jobs Hence, the correct option is (A).
18 20. The total cost incurred in this case is –
= = 3.6.
5 Total flow time × Cost/day = 90 × 100 = ` 9000.
15. Based on the data above, Total lateness
21. The average tardiness =
Average no. of jobs in the system Number of jobs
Total flow time 39
= == 6.5 days.
Total completion time 6
= = 3.37.
38 22. The average no. of jobs at hand
Hence, the correct option is (D). Total flow time
=
Total time of completion
16. The average flow time will be minimised when the jobs are
arranged in the shorter processing time schedule. When the 90
= = 2.72 jobs.
jobs are arranged in this way, 33
Processing Flow Due Hence, the correct option is (B).
Jobs Lateness
time time date 23. In ABC analysis, consideration is the cost of the item. High
2 2 2 21  cost item is ‘A’ item. The ‘C’ items are the item of lowest cost.
5 3 5 15  Hence, the correct option is (C).
1 4 9 17  24. Demand r = 800000
4 5 14 12 2 Ordinary cost C1 = 1200
6 6 20 24  Holding cost C2 = 120
3 9 29 5 24 2C1r
∴ EOQ =
79 C2
the optimum schedule is 2 – 5 – 1 – 4 – 6 – 3. 2 × 1200 × 800000
120
17. Total lateness = 26
= 20 × 800000
No. of jobs = 6
26 = 16000000 = 4000
Average lateness = = 4.33 days.
6 = 4000 pieces.

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25. In an assembly line, there are seven workers doing the job.
The maximum time taken is 25 mts. = 2 × 300 × 0.15 × 60 × 10000
∴ Maximum time of the assembly line = 25 × 7 = 175 mts. = 600 × 9 × 10000

Delay with each is ` 7349/-.
25 – 20, 25 – 17, 25 – 18, 25 – 22, 25 – 19, 25 – 21. Hence, the correct option is (D).
The balance delay time for the assembly line is 29. r = 300
5 + 8 + 7 + 3 + 6 + 4 33 C1 = ` 30
= = = 18.8%.
25 × 7 175 C2 = ` 6
Hence, the correct option is (A). 2 × 30 × 300
EOQ = = 3000
26. For item X, 6
r = 10000 55 Annual demand is 300/year

300
C1 = ` 400 No. of batches = ≈ 6.
55
C2 = 15% of 60. Hence, the correct option is (C).
2 × 400 × 10000 30. Given r = 10000

∴ EOQ =
0.15 × 60 Ordering cost = ` 200
= 943 nos. Carrying cost = ` 20% of 100

Hence, the correct option is (B). Penalty cost Cp = ` 150
27. For item Y, 2C1r

ECQ =
r = 20000  Cp 
C2  
C1 = ` 400  Cp + C2 
C2 = 15% of 80
2 × 200 × 10000
2 × 400 × 20000 =
∴ EOQ =  150 
0.15 × 80 20  
150 + 20 
= 1155 nos.
4000 × 10000 × 170
20 × 150
28. The minimum total cost for X is = 476.
= 2C1C2 r Hence, the correct option is (B).

2DF 2DCo  CS 
1. (EOQ)P = =
Ch  
Ch  Ch + CS 
2 ×100 × 50 2 × 1000 × 100  400 

= = 50 units. = 100 + 400 
4 100  
2 DF 2 × 400 × 50 Hence, the correct option is (C).

( EOQ )Q = = = 200.
3. Average lead time demand
Ch 1
= (80 × 0.2) + (100 × 0.25) + (120 × 0.30) + (140 × 0.25)
( EOQ )P 50 1 = 112.
= =
( EOQ )Q 200 4 As the re-order point is 1.25 of the lead time demand,
Hence, the correct option is (C). reorder value = 1.25 × 112 = 140.
2. Given: Demand, D = 1000 units As the maximum demand is 140 and reorder value is 140,
service level = 100%.
Ordering cost, Co = ` 100/order
Carrying cost, Ch = ` 100/unit/year
4. In a MRP system, the component demand is calculated by the
Stock out cost, Cs = ` 400 MRP system from the master production schedule.
Optimum level of the stock-out Hence, the correct option is (C).
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8.19
5. 7. P = Profit for each unit used or sold

Jobs M1 M2
P 15 6 1 L = Loss for each unit sold
Q 32 19 5 S = Supply
R 8 13 3
S 27 20 0 Profit for unit sold, P = ` (90 – 70) = 20
T 11 14 4 Loss for unit sold, L = ` (70 – 50) = 20
U 16 17 2
P
By applying Johnson’s algorithm, the sequencing of jobs is P ( S − 1) < ≤ P (S )
P+L
R T S Q U P P 20
∴ = = 0.5.
Options sequence – R T S Q U P
( P + L) 20 + 20
Demand (in units) 2 3 4 5

Job M1 M2
Probability 0.1 0.35 0.35 0.20
In Out In Out
Cumulative probability 0.1 0.45 0.8 1
R 0 8 8 21
T 8 19 21 35 ∴ P(3) < 0.5 ≤ P(4)
S 19 46 46 66 For maximum profit, optimum stock level = 4 units.
Q 46 78 78 97 Hence, the correct option is (B).
U 78 94 97 104 8.
P 94 109 109 115 Excess/short
Month Production Demand
from
∴ Optimal make span time = 115 hrs.
Regular Overtime Total Regular Total
1 100 20 120 90 10 30
6. (a) When unit price (C) is ` 10, the order quantity (Q) < 500
units. 2 100 20 120 130 –30 –10
2 × D × Co 3 80 40 110 110 –30 10
Economic ordered quantity, EOQ =
Ch
As there is an excess supply of 30 units in the first month,
D = Demand in units/year there is no need to use overtime because the cost as well as
Co = Ordering cost in ` /order the inventory cost will increase. But a total of 100 units (10
unit extra in normal time) needs to be produced so that a
Ch = Holding cost in ` /unit/year
shortfall of 10 units is compensated in month 2.
2 × 2500 × 100 In the third month, there is a gap of 30 units in production
EOQ = = 447 units.
(0.25 × 10) (regular time) and demand. This gap will be compensated by
producing 30 units in overtime.
∴ EOQ < 500
D Q So, 30 units need to be produced in overtime in the third
Total cost (TC ) = (D × C) + × Co + C h month so that the total inventory cost is minimum and hence
Q 2
the plan cost.
 2500   447 
TIC = ( 2500 × 10 ) +  × 100  +  × (0.25 × 10 ) Hence, the correct option is (B).
 447   2  9.
Qmax = 100 Unit
TIC = ` 26118.
(b) When C is ` 9, Q ≥ 500
2 × 2500 × 100
EOQ = 471.4 units. Q one cycle
(0.25 × 9)
Here, EOQ < 500 units (condition not satisfied)
∴ Taking EOQ = 500 units.
t = 1.5 month = 0.125 years
⎡ 2500 ⎤ ⎡ 500 ⎤
TC = ( 2500 × 9 ) + ⎢ × 100 ⎥ + ⎢ × 0.25 × 9 ⎥ Total annual cost = Annual carrying cost + Annual
⎣ 500 ⎦ ⎣ 2 ⎦
ordering cost
= ` 23562.
From both the cases, option (b) is optimum because the total Annual carrying cost (C)
cost is less as compared with the total cost of option (a). Q
C= × Ch Q = Maximum inventory = 100 units
Therefore, optimal order quantity is 500 units. 2
Hence, the correct option is (C). Ch = Holding cost = ` 10/unit/month

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= ` 120/unit/year 13. Shortest processing time

100 Jobs Processing time Job flow time
∴C = × 120 = ` 6000.
2 I 4 0+4=4
Annual ordering cost (O) III 5 4+5=9
The inventory becomes zero over 1.5 months or 0.125 years. V 6 9 + 6 = 15
Hence, the order is placed at the completion of 0.125 years. VI 8 15 + 8 = 23
Therefore for 1 year,
II 9 23 + 9 = 32
1 IV 10 32 + 10 = 42
Number of orders = =8
0.125
Total job flow time = 4 + 9 + 15 + 23 + 32 + 42 = 125 days
∴ O = 8 × Co Number of jobs = 6
Co = Ordering cost = ` 100/order 125
Average flow time = = 20.83.
⇒ O = 8 × 100 = ` 800 6
∴ Total annual cost = C + O
14. Given
= ` (6000 + 800) = ` 6800.
Demand (D) = 10000
Frame cost (C) = ` 200
10.
Q = 1000 units = tp × p
Ordering cost (Co) = ` 300/order
Holding cost (Ch) = ` 40/frame/year
2 × D × Co
Economic ordered quality, Q =
Ch
Qmax = tp (p − d)
2 × 10000 × 300
⇒Q= = 387 frames.
p 40
d Total cost = Purchase cost + Ordering cost + Holding cost
For Q = 387 frames.
(p − d)
D  Q 
TC = [ D × C ] +  × Co  +  × Ch 
 Q   2 
tp 10000   387 
TC = [10000 × 200] +  × 300  +  × 40 
T = 1 month  387   2 
Here, p = Production rate = 1000/month TC = ` 2015492.
d = Consumption rate = 500/month For Q = 1000 frames
Lot size of production = Q = 1000 units C = 0.98 × 200 = ` 196.
10000  1000 
Maximum inventory level, Qmax = tp(p – d) TC = [10000 × 196] +  × 300  +  × 40 
 1000   2 
tp = Production cycle time
TC = ` 1983000.
Q
tp = For Q = 2000 frames
p
C = 0.96 × 200 = ` 192
Q
Qmax = ( p − d) 10000   2000 
p TC = [10000 × 192] +  × 300  +  × 40 
 1000   2 
1000
=
1000
[1000 − 500] = 500 units. TC = ` 1961500.
∴Minimum total cost occurs when Q = 2000 frames. Hence
Hence, the correct option is (B). the retailer should accept 4% discount.
11. By giving 2 orders, Hence, the correct option is (C).
First 50 and second after 2 days 55 15. Earliest due date (EDD) rule.
100 + 0 + 100 + 40 + 20 = 260. Processing Due Job flow
Job Tardiness
Hence, the correct option is (D). time date time
12. The total inventory cost in minimised when the average job 1 4 6 0+4=4 0
flow time will be minimum. Least job flow time should be 2 7 9 4 + 7 = 11 2
acquired by shortest processing time method i.e., the job with
4 8 17 11 + 8 = 19 2
least processing time should be done first.
Hence, the correct option is (A). 3 2 19 19 + 2 = 21 2
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8.21
Number of jobs delayed = 3 (Job 2, 3 and 4). = 74.55.

Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is 74 to 75.
16. Shortest processing time (SPT) rule. 22. D = 50,000 units/year
Ordering cost Co = `7000/ order
Processing Due Job flow
Job Tardiness
time date time EOQ = q = 10,000 units
3 2 19 0+2=2 0 For optimal annual inventory cost
1 4 6 2+4=6 0 D 50000
2 7 9 4
Inventory holding cost = Co = × 7000
6 + 7 = 13 q 10000
4 8 17 13 + 8 = 21 4
= `35,000
Total tardiness = 0 + 0 + 4 + 4 = 8. Hence, the correct answer is `34,000 to 36,000.
Hence, the correct option is (D). 23. Annual requirement D = 2000 kg
17. Kanban is related to just in time production.
Unit cost = `25/kg
Carrying cost = CC = 9% of unit cost
18. Process Total cost
20 + 3 × 100 = 320 9
I = × 25 = `2.25/unit/year
II 50 + 1 × 100 = 150 100
III 40 + 2 × 100 = 240 Ordering cost = Co = `100/order
IV 10 + 4 × 100 = 410 2 DCo 2 × 2000 ×100
q = optimum order quantity = =
So, the most economical process is process II. CC 2.25
= 421.64 kg
2DF
19. Economic ordered quantity, EOQ = D 2000
C ∴ No. of orders = = = 4.743
q 421.64
2 × 100000 × 30
⇒ EOQ = = 2000 units. 365
1.5 Cycle length = = 76.948 ⇒ 77 days
Total number of economic orders per year 4.743
D 100000 Hence, the correct answer is 76 to 78.
= = = 50.
EOQ 2000 24. D = 10000
Hence, the answer is 49 to 51. C = `100

20. Production rate p = 12000/day Ch = 0.144 × 10
Demand rate d = 8000/day Co = `2000
Cost of holding Ch = 0.2/month = 2.4/year Co 2 × 10000 × 2000
Set up cost Cs = ` 500. EOQ = 2D
Ch
=
0.144 × 100
Economic production quantity
2Cs D = 1666.6667
EPQ = 10000
 d No. of orders = =6
Ch 1 − 
 p 1666.6667
where D = Annual demand. Time between order
2 × 500 × 8000 × 300 No. of month in a year 12
∴ EPQ = = 54, 772.25 = = =2
 8000  No. of orders 6
2.4 1 −
 12000 
54772.25
Frequency of production run = 25. D = 25000 kg
8000
= 6.8 days. Co = `500/order
Hence, the correct option is (C). i = 20% = 0.2
21. Expected demand
2DCo
(50 × 0.15) + (70 × 0.14) + EOQ =
Cu × i
=
(75 × 0.21) + (80 × 0.20) + (85 × 0.30)
0.15 + 0.14 + 0.21 + 0.20 + 0.30 Cu is unit price

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For Cu = `70/kg 17. On for Cu =to

According shortest
`65, EOQ processing timethe given quantity
is lying within
band,
2 × 25000 × 500 Job In Out Flow Time
(TVC)65 = 2 DC0Cui = `18027.75
(EOQ)70 = Q 0 9 9
70 × 0.2
S D9 Q 12 21
= 1336.30 kg (TVC)60 =   6 + × (Cui )
P  21
Q 2 15 36
For Cu = `65/kg R 36 22 58
= `17333.33 where, Q = 1500
2 × 25000 × 500 Total 124
(EOQ)65 = (TVC)60 < (TVC)65
65 × 0.2
∴ EOQ 1500 flow time = 124 = 31
Shortest =average
= 1386.75 kg 4
For Cu = `60/kg Hence, the correct answer is 31.
18. D = 9600
2 × 25000 × 500
(EOQ)60 = Cn = ` 16/year
60 × 0.2
Engneering C0 = ` 75/order
= 1443.37 kg
On for Cu = `65, EOQ is lying within the given quantity 2DC 2 × 9600 × 75
band, EOQ = =
Ch 16
(TVC)65 = 2 DC0Cui = `18027.75
 D Q = 1200 × 75 = 300
(TVC)60 =   6 + × (Cui )
 Q 2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
= `17333.33 where, Q = 1500
(TVC)60 < (TVC)65
∴ EOQ = 1500
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CHapter 4 operations researCH -1

Hints/solutions
Practice Problems I
1. In linear programming problem, the value assigned to one Y = 50
unit of the capacity is known as the shadow price.
Y = 45 A
2. The corner points are indicating basic feasible solutions. One
among them can be an optimal solution.
B
3. It depends on the shape of the feasible region. The optimum 0
solution can be anywhere in the feasible region. X = 30
OAB is the feasible region.
Z at A = 5 × 0 + 3 × 45 = 145
5. Modified distribution method is otherwise known as ‘MODI’
Z at B = 5 × 30 + 3 × 0 = 150
method. It is applicable to transportation problems.
Hence, the correct option is (B). ∴Zmax = 150.
6. The corner points are well below the new constraints. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Therefore, the new constraints do not affect the feasible 9. Maximise Z = 2x + y,
region. Therefore the maximum value is Subjected to x + y ≤ 12
Z = x1 + x2 = 4 + 4 = 8 units. 2x + y ≤ 18
Hence, the correct option is (A). Dual: Minimise Z = 12x + 18y
7. Subjected to : x + 2y ≥ 2 and x + y ≥ 1.
11.
24 x
x
14 x
A
B x + y = 10
x
x x
O 8 c 42 x + 3y = 42
3x + y = 24
Z = 5x + 3y x x
6
x + 3y ≤ 42
3x + y ≤ 24
x + y ≤ 10 There is no feasible region satisfying the constraints.
The feasible region is OABC. ∴ No solution.

The point B is
12.
3x + y = 24 2x = 14 X2
x + y = 10 x=7 (12.5, 35)
60
y = 3, B (7, 3)
B X2 = 35
Z at A = 30
A
Z at B = 5 × 7 + 3 × 3 X1 = 25
= 35 + 9 = 44
C
Z at C = 5 × 8 + 0 = 40
Zmax = 44. B (50)
Hence, the correct option is (B). O D 30
8. The objective fn is Z = 5x + 3y. X1
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Point B, The point B is

x1 35 4x + 2y = 60
+ =1
30 60 2x + 4y = 48
x1 35 25 4x + 2y = 60
= 1− =
30 60 60 4x + 8y = 96
x1 = 12.5 6y = 36, y = 6
2x1 + x2 ≤ 60 2x + 24 = 48
x1 x2 2x = 24 ∴x = 12
+ ≤ = 1.
30 60 ∴ B (12, 6).
OABC is the feasible region, The value of Z at A = 8x + 6y
Z = 60 x1 + 40 x2 = 0 + 6 × 12 = 72
Z at A = 40 × 35 = 1400 The value of Z at B
Z at B = 60 × 12.5 + 40 × 35 = 750 + 1400 = 8 × 12 + 6 × 6
= 2150 = 96 + 36 = 132
Z at C = 60 × 25 + 40 × 10 = 1500 + 400 Value of Z at C is
= 1900 = 8 × 12 + 6 × 6
Zmax = 2150. = 96 + 36 = 132
Point C, Value of Z at C is
x1 x2 = 8 × 15 + 0 = 120
+ =1
30 60 Zmax = 132.
25 x2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
+ =1
30 60 14.
X Y Z
x2 25 5 5 3 2
= 1− = P 30 (1)
60 30 30
x 2 = 10: C (25, 10). Q 2 5 4
40 (2)
6 1 5
13. If Z = 8x + 6y, then Zmax subjected to R 10 70 (4)
4x + 2y ≤ 60 50 10 90
2x + 4y ≤ 48, x, y ≥ 0
(3) (2) (2)
X Z
5 2
30 x P 30 30 (3)
2 4
Q 40 (2)
A 6 5
x
12 R 70 (1)
B
50 60 140
x (3) (2)
O 15 24
C
X Z
2 4
Q 40 40 (2)
x y 6 5
+ =1
15 30 R
x y 10 60 70 (1)
+ =1
24 12
50 10 60 110
OABC is the feasible region. (4) (1)
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Chapter 4 • Operations Research -1
8.25
Consolidating the allocation, M1 M2 M3

4 2 8
X Y Z F1
5 3 2 60 10 (2)
- - 30 (0) 3 5 4
30
3 -2 F2 20 (1)
2 5 4
Q 40 - - 40 (-1)
2 3 5
-3 1 F3
6 1 5 50 (1)
R 10 10 60 80 (3)
20 60 60 40
50 10 90 150 (1) (1) (0)
(3) (-2) (2)
Checking optimisation, M1 M3
No. of occupied cells = 5 10 3 8 10 (4)
F1
M+n–1=6–1=5
It is satisfied. 3 4 20 (1)
F2
All the cells have zero or negative penalty cost. Therefore, the
solution is optimum.
2 5 50 (3)
Least cost = 30 × 2 + 40 × 2 + 10 × 6 + 10 × 1 + 60 × 5 F3
= 60 + 80 + 60 +10 + 300
= 200 + 310 10 60 80
= ` 510. (1) (1)
15. It is an unbalanced transportation problem. To make it bal- M1 M3

anced, provide one more destination of capacity 20, cost val- 3 4 20 (1)
F1
ues of transportation being zero.
20
M1 M2 M3 M4 M5 2 5 50 (3)
F3
4 2 8 7 0 10 40
F1 70 (2) 10 60 70
(1) (1)
3 5 4 1 0
Consolidating the allocation,
F2 40 40 (1)
2 3 5 6 0 M1 M2 M3 M4 M5
F3 50 (2) 4 2 8 7 0
20 20 60 40 20 F1 10 60 − − 70 (0)
7 4 3
(1) (1) (1) (5) (0) 3 5 4 1 0
M1 M2 M3 M5
F2 1 − −1 − 20 40 20 80 (−3)
2 3 5 40 6 0
4 2 8 0
40
F1 70 (2) 10 0 − 2 − 1 + 50 (−2)
3 5 4 0 20 60 60 40 20
F2 20 20 (3) (4) (2) (7) (4) (3)
2 3 5 6
F3 50 (2) Check for optimality,
20 60 60 20 160 (3) No. of occupied cells = 7

(1) (1) (1) (0) m + n –1 = 5 + 3 – 1 = 7

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Providing row numbers and column numbers. G1 G2 G3 G4

All the real cells have zero or negative penalty cost. 13 11 16 20
∴ Least cost is F1 2 - + - - 2 (0)
12 10 7
10 × 4 + 60 × 2 + 20 × 4 + 40 × 1+ 10 × 2 + 40 × 5 17 14 12 13
= 160 + 120 + 220 = 280 + 220 F2 - 3 3 6 (2)
- + -
500 = ` 500. 9
15
Hence, the correct option is (D). 18 18 15 12
F3 1 - 1 5 7 (5)
16. + 17 -
G1 G2 G3 G4 3 3 4 5 15
(13) (12) (10) (7)
13 11 16 20
F1 2 (2) G1 G2 G3 G4
2
13 11 16 20
17 14 12 13 1
F2 F1 1 - - 2 (0)
6 (1) 9 7
17 14 12 13
18 18 15 12
F3 7 (3) 2 4
F2 - - 6 (3)
1 3 4 5 15 16 10
(4) (3) (3) (1) 18 18 15 12
F3 2 - - 5 7 (5)
116 14
G1 G2 G3 G4 15
3 3 4 5
17 14 13 (13) (11) (9) (7)
12
F2 3 3 (4)
All the cells have zero or negative penalty cost. The solution
is optimum.
18 18 15 12
F3 Least cost is
7 (3)
1 × 13 + 1 × 11 +2 × 14 + 4 × 12 + 2 × 18 + 5 × 12
1 3 4 5 13 = 13 + 11 + 28 + 48 + 36 + 60
(1) (4) (3) (1)
= 24 + 76 + 96
G1 G3 G4 = 100 + 96 = 196.
17 12 13 3 (1) Hence, the correct option is (A).
F2 17. Z = 2x + 3y
3
x + y ≤ 30
18 15 12
y ≥ 3, x – y ≥ 0
F3 X2 (3)
5 z ≥ 0 ; y ≤ 12
1 4 5 10 (3) x1 ≥ 0 ; x1 ≤ 20
y
G1 G3
17 12 30
u −y = 0
F2
3 3 (5)
18 15
F3 x = 20
2 (3) B C y = 12
1 1
D
1 1 15 E y=3
(1) (3) A
x
Consolidating the allocation, 30
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8.27
There are five points to be considered in the feasible region. Impressed cost in the cell (QB) is
A (3, 3), B (12, 12), C (18, 12), D (20, 10) and E (20, 3) = –15 – 12 = -27 which is –ve
Z at C is maximum = 72. ∴ The arrangement is optimum.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Least cost is
18. 190 × 40 + 110 × 15 + 230 × 10
= 7600 + 1650 + 2300 = ` 11150.
9 x Hence, the correct option is (C).
Feasible region 20. Given,
3x P1 P2 P3
A x J1 2 20 11
J2 8 23 9
x x
3 9 J3 34 15 14
x y P1 P2 P3
x + 3y ≥ 9 ; + = 1; 3x + y ≥ 9
9 3 J1 0 18 9
x y
+ = 1; the point A is J2 0 15 1
3 9
x + 3y = 9 J3 20 1 0
3x + y = 9
3x + 9y = 27
P1 P2 P3
9
8y = 18 y= J1 0 17 9
4
27 9
x =9− = J2 0 14 1
4 4
 9 9 J3 20 0 0
A , 
 4 4
9 9
Minimise 8x + 8y = 8 × + 8 × = 36.
4 4 Minimum no. of lines required to cover all the zeros = 2
Hence, the correct option is (B). ∴ It is not optimum.
19. A B
P1
P P2
P P3
P
40 15 1 2 3
0 17 99
P - 300 + 300 (0) JJ11 0 17
JJ22 00 14
14 11
10 12
Q 120 110 230 (-30)
+ JJ33 20
20 00 00
-
420 110
(40) (42)
PP1 PP2 P3
P
Impressed in the cost in the cell (PB) is 42. 1 2 3
∴ Penalty = 42 – 15 JJ11 00 16
16 88
= 27 which is +ve JJ22 00 13

13 00
∴ The arrangement is not optimum.
Revising, JJ33
21
21 00 00
A B
P1
40 15 ∴ JJJ11 P
P13
J22 P
P JJ33 P32
P
190 110 300 (0) 2
10 12
Q 230 230 (−30) The least cost is = 2 + 14 + 15
+ −
= ` 31.
420 110 530
(40) (42) Hence, the correct option is (A).

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Practice Problems 2 x y x y
+ = 1 → (1) and + = 1 → ( 2)
1. The correct option is (A). 7 5 6 24
2. The correct option is (D). y
3. Maximise Z = x + y A (24, 0)
24
3x + 7y ≥ 21 and 4x + 3y ≥ 12, x, y > 0
y y
+ =1 (1)
7 3
y y
+ =1 (2)
3 4 5
(5, 0)
y
7
c
6
5
4 6 7 x
(1)
3 (2)
2
1 It has a unique solution.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 x
6. Maximise, Z = 2x1 + 4x2
(1)
Subjected to: x1 + 2x2 ≤ 20
(2)
2x1 + x2 ≤ 12
The solution is unbounded and there is no optimal solution. x1 + x2 ≤ 8, x1 ≥ 0, x2 ≥ 0
4. Maximise, Z = 2x – y x1 x2 x1 x2 x1 x2
+ = 1 → (1) + = 1 → ( 2) + = 1 → (3)
Subjected to : x – 2y ≤ 10, x ≤ 12, x, y ≥ 0 20 10 6 12 8 8
x2
y x − 2y = 10
12
A
(12, 1)
10
10 C 8 C (0, 8)
B 12 x
x = 12 A (4, 4)
−5
B (6, 0)
x1
x = 12 and 12 – 2y = 10 ⇒ y = 1 6 8 20
∴ At A(2, 1), Z = 2(12) – (1) = 23 (2) (3) (1)
At B(10, 0), Z = 2(10) – 0 = 20

From equation (2) and (3), x1 = 4, x2 = 4
At C(12, 0), Z = 2(12) – 0 = 24
∴ A (4, 4).
Maximum Z = 24.
Hence, the correct option is (D). At C, Z = 2 (0) + 4 (8) = 32
5. Maximise, Z = 4x + 3y At A, Z = 2 (4) + 4 (4) = 24
Subjected to: 5x + 7y ≥ 35 At B, Z = 2 (6) + 0 = 12

4x + y ≤ 24 Maximum = Z = 32.
x, y ≥ 0 Hence, the correct option is (B).
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8.29
7. Maximise, Z = 3x1 + 2x2 ∴Cost for transportation = (1 × 21) + (3 × 13) + (3 × 13)

Subjected to: 6x1 + x2 ≤ 30 + (2 × 2) + (2 × 12) + (2 × 17)
+ (4 × 2)
2x1 + 3x2 ≤ 15; x1, x2 ≥ 0
= 169.
Dual to Z = 30a + 15b Hence, the correct option is (A).
Subjected to 6a + 2b ≥ 3 11.
a + 3b ≥ 2, a, b ≥ 0. 4 2 3 2 6 0 8/4/0 [2] [0] [0] [1] [1]
(4) (4)
Hence, the correct option is (A). 5 4 5 2 1 0 12/4/0
(4) (8) [1] [1] [2] [3]
8. Let the variables be x and y.
6 5 4 7 3 0
Section 1 Section 2 (4) (6) (4) 14/10/6/0 [3] [1] [1] [1] [2]
A 2 hrs 6 hrs 4 4 6 8 8 4
0 0 0 4 0 0
B 4 hrs 3 hrs 0
Time available 200 hrs 220 hrs [1] [2] [1] [0] [2] [0]
[2] [1] [4]
∴ Constraints: 2x + 4y ≤ 200
Total number of allocations = 7 = (m + n – 1)
6x+ 3y ≤ 220
∴Cost for transportation = (2 × 4) + (2 × 4) + (2 × 4)
Maximise Z = 12x + 14y.
+ (1 × 8) + (6 × 4) + (4 × 6)
Hence, the correct option is (B). + (0 × 4)
9. = 80.
6 4 1 5 14/4/0 [3] [1] [2] [2] Hence, the correct option is (C).
(4) (10)
12. Step 1: Subtracting the smallest element of each row from every
8 9 2 7 16/1/0 [5] [1] [1] [1] row from every element of the corresponding row.
(1) (15)
40 20 0
4 3 6 2 5/1/0 [1] [1] [1]
(1) (4) 0 10 30
6 10 15 4 0 30 10
5 0 0 0 AQ
1
Step 2: Subtracting the smallest element of each column from th
0
every element.
[2] [1] [1] [3]
[2] [1] [2] 40 10 0
[2] [1]
[2] [5] 0
X 0 30
Total number of allocations = 6 = (m + n – 1) 0 20 10
∴ Cost of transportation = (6 × 4) + (4 × 10)
+ (8 × 1) + (2 × 15) + 4 ∴ Assignment : A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
× 1 + (2 × 4) Least time = 80 + 90 + 110 = 280 mts.
= 24 + 40 + 8 + 30 + 4 + 8 = 114.
13. Z = 5x1 – 2x2
10.
Subjected to 2x1 + 3x2 ≥ 1 ; x1, x2 ≥ 0
1 5 3 3
(21) (13) 34/13/0 [2] [0] [2] [2] X2
3 3 1 2
(13) (2) 15/13/0 [1] [1] [1] [1] [1]
0 2 2 2 12/0 [2] [0] [0] [0] [0]
(12)
2 7 2 4
(17) (2) 19/2/0 [0] [2] [3]
21 25 17 17
0 13 0 15 (0,1/3)
13 2
B
0
[1] [1] [1] [0]
[1] [1] [0]
[1] [0]
[1] [0]
[0] (1/2, 0) X1
[1]
A
Total number of allocations = 7 = (m + n – 1)

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From 2x1 + 3x2 = 1 15.

8 7 3
x1 x (60) 60/0 [4] [4]
+ 2 =1 3 8 9
 1   1
    (50) (20) 70/20/0 [5] [1] [1]
2 3
11 3 5
The minimum value of z occurs at B. (80) 80/0 [2] [2] [2]
 1 2 50 80 80
i.e., z = 5.(0) – 2   = – .
 3 3 0 0 20
0
Hence, the correct option is (D). [5] [4] [2]
[4] [2]
14. Maximum, Z = 3x1 + 4x2
[5] [4]
Subjected to x1 – x2 ≤ – 1 → (1)
No. of allocations = 4 ≠ m + n – 1 (optimality test cannot be
– x1 + x2 ≤ 0 → (2); x1, x2 ≥ 0 performed).
Total cost of transportation
x2
= (3 × 60) + (3 × 50) + (9 × 20) + (3 × 80) = ` 750.
line1
line2 16.
0 7 10 0 3 10
0 8 6 0 4 6
2 4 0 2 0 0
x1
0 0 7
0 1 3
5 0 0
Least cost of the assignment problem

Unbounded solution. = 27 + 10 + 12 = 49.
Previous Years’ Questions At point A, profit = (3 × 800) + (5 × 600)

= 5400
1. P + 2Q ≤ 2000
Hence for maximum profit, production quantities of P and Q
P + Q ≤ 1500
are 1000 and 500.
Q ≤ 600
Profit, Zmax = 3P + 5Q
2.
Q S1 S2
(0,1500) D1 (20 − 40)

B = (1000, 500)
P+Q = 1000 A = (800, 600)
D2 ≥ 20
(0,1000)
Q = 600 50 40
(0, 600)
D A B (1000, 500)
(800, 600) For transportation problem,
number of supply points = (m + n – 1)
P+2Q = 2000 m = number of demand centres
C n = number of supply centres
(1500, 0) (2000, 0) P ∴ Number of supply points = (2 + 2 – 1) = 3
Number of demand points = 4
At point B, profit = (3 × 1000) + (5 × 500) Total supply = 50 + 40 = 90.
= 5500 Hence, the correct option is (C).
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8.31
3. Step 5: Mark all the columns which have zeros in the marked
row and then mark the row which has an assignment
(0, 5) in the marked column.
X X
(0, 2)
4 4
,
3 3
X
(0,0) (2,0) (5,0)
Step 6: Draw minimum number of lines through the
As there is no change in the feasible region after adding new unmarked row and the marked column to cover all
constraint, the corner points will remain the same. the zeros.
 4 4
So, the optimal solution is  ,  . 0 0 0
 3 3
0 15 5
0 10 20
4. The correct option is (D).
5. Step 7: Select the smallest element (5) that does not have a line
S1 S2 S3 through it. Subtract it from all the elements that do not
P 110 120 130 have a line through them and add it to every element
that lies at the intersection of the two lines and leave the
Q 115 140 140
remaining element of the matrix unchanged.
R 125 145 165
X
Step 1: Subtracting the smallest element of each column
from every element of the corresponding column.
S1 S2 S3
P 0 0 0 Thus, the final assignment is
Q 5 20 10 Items Suppliers Cost
R 15 25 35 P S2 120
Step 2: Subtracting the smallest element of each row from Q S3 140

every element of the corresponding row. R S1 125
S1 S2 S3 Minimum cost = 120 + 140 + 125 = ` 385.

P 0 0 0 Hence, the correct option is (C).
Q 0 15 5 6. Degeneracy arises if the number of allocations are less than
m + n – 1.
R 0 10 20
Step 3: Making assignments, 7. As zero appears in the optimal solution below a non-basic
variable, there are alternate solutions.
0
X 0 0
X The LP has an optimal solution that is not unique.
0 15 5 Hence, the correct option is (B).
8. Dual is given by,
0
X 10 20
Min Z = BT Y
As third row and third column have no assignments u 
Min Z = [6 6]  
and the total assignments (2) which are less than v 
n = 3, we proceed to find the minimum number of ⇒ Min Z = 6u + 6v
horizontal and vertical lines necessary to cover all
the zeros atleast once. ATY ≥ CT
Step 4: Mark all the rows in which the assignments have not  3 2  u   4 
 2 3  v  ≥  6 
been made.     
X X ⇒ 3u + 2v ≥ 4
2u + 3v ≥ 6
u, v ≥ 0.
X 20 Hence, the correct option is (A).

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9. Maximise Z = 3x1 + 3x2 y

Subject to : x1 ≤ 4 → (1) D (0, 50)
x2 ≤ 6 → (2)
3x1 +2x2 ≤ 18 → (3)
(0, 45)B
x1 ≥ 0, x2 ≥ 0
Using graphical method.
x2
C
0 (30, 0) A (100, 0) x
9
8 x1 = 4
7
S R(2, 6) 3x + 2y = 90
6 x2 = 6
x + 2y = 100
5
Region OAB is the feasible region, CD is redundant. The criti-
4
cal points are (30, 0) and (0, 45).
3
Q (4, 3) Objective function
2
z = 2000x + 3000y
1 P (4, 0)
x1 z = 60000 at (30, 0)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
z = 135000 at (0, 45).
The objective function has a slope same as constraint (3) i.e., Hence, the correct option is (B).
objective function is parallel to the constraints.
13.
Therefore, the LPP has multiple optimal solutions.
(0, 1.43)
Maximum Z at Q = 3(4) + 2(3) = 18.
Hence, the correct option is (D). 3x + 7y = 10
10. The simplex method of solving linear programming prob-
lem uses only the corner points of the feasible region. These 4x + 6y = 8
(0, 1.33)
points are maximum and minimum points of the problem.
The optimal solution lies at one of these corner points.
Hence, the correct option is (B). (2, 0) (3.33, 0)
11. Number of units of ‘y’ to be produced is 45 and the profit is
` 135000. Hence, the correct option is (B).
135000
Unit worth of R2 = = ` 3000/unit 14. The correct option is (C).
45
Price/kg = 3000/2 = ` 1500. 15. The correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 16. Maximum Z = 3x1 + 2x2
12. Subject to –2x1 + 3x2 ≤ 9
P1 P2 x1 – 5x2 ≥ –20
R1 3 2 90 x1, x2 ≥ 0
R2 1 2 100 the constraints are,
2000(P) 3000(P) –2x1 + 3x2 ≤ 9 (1)
Let x and y be the quantities of P1 and P2 to be produced for – x1 + 5x2 ≤ 20 (2)
optimum profit. x x
From equation (1) 1 + 2 ≤ 1
3x + 2y ≤ 90 −4.5 3
x + 2y ≤ 100 x1 x2
From equation (2) + ≤ 1.
−20 4
Chap
Unit 08.indd
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Chapter 4
Chapter 4 •
• Operations Research -1
Hints/Solutions ||| 3.427
Operations Research -1 8.33
3.427
x2
x2
9
9
8
8
7
7
Chapter 4 • Operations Research -1 | 3.427 6
6
4 5
4 5
4
4
3 3
9 3 3
2
8 2
1
7 − 20 1
6 − 20 x1
− 4.5 x1 1 1 2 3
3
4
4
5 6
6
7 8
8
9 10 11 12
10 11 12
5 − 4.5 1 1 2 5 7 9
2
4 2
3
3 shaded region represents the
The solution
solution of
of the
the given
3
The 4
2 shaded region represents the given 4
problem which
problem
1 which is
is unbounded.
unbounded. 5
5
Hence, 6
Hence, the
x1
correct option is (A). 6
the
1 correct
2 3 option
4 5 is6(A). 7 8 9 10 11 12 7
1 7
17. Maximize Z = 15X1 + 20X2 8
17. Maximize
2 Z = 15X1 + 20X2 8
9
12X1 + 4X2 ≥ 12X1 + 6X2 ≥
Subject to
olution of the given
3
Subject4
to 12X + 4X
1
≥ 36;
36; 12X
2
+ 6X ≥ 36
36 1 2
9
\
5 \ The
The region
region is
is unbounded.
unbounded.
Hence,
Hence, the correct option
the correct
6 option is
is (B).
(B).
7
18. 8
18. 9
6X2 ≥ 36 Y
Y
\ The region is unbounded.
1000
1000
Hence, the correct option is12x
(B).++ 6y ≤ 6000
900 12x 6y ≤ 6000
900
800
800
700
700
600
600
500
≤ 6000 500
400
400 2x + 3y ≤ 1800
300 2x + 3y ≤ 1800
300
200 A
200 A
100 4x + 10y ≤ 4000
100 4x + 10y ≤ 4000
X
O 400 500 600 700 800 900 1000 1100 X
O 100 200 300
100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900 1000 1100
2x + 3y ≤ 1800
Let 19. 2X + 3Y ≤ 1800
A Let parts
parts be
be XX and
and YY a + 3Y ≤ 1800
2X
Z=
50
= 40X
40X ++4x100Y Objective
Objective function maximizes
maximizes at A (375,
(375, 250)
Z + 10y ≤ 4000
100Y function
A(0, 40)
at A 250)
6Y ≤
Constraints = =
Constraints 12X
12X ++ 6Y ≤ 6000
X Z 40 × 375 + 250 × 100 40000/-
0 300 400 500 600 700 800 900 1000 1100
6000 Zmax
max
= 40 × 375 + 250 × 100 = 40000/-
40
4X + 10Y ≤ 4000 Hence,
4X + 10Y ≤ 4000 Hence, the
the correct
correct answer
answer is
is 40000.
40000.
30
2X + 3Y ≤ 1800 B(15, 25)
Objective function maximizes at A (375, 250) 20
Zmax = 40 × 375 + 250 × 100 = 40000/- 10 C(30, 0)

10 20 30 40 50
P
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profit, Z = 100 P + 80Q 23. Consider:

5 P + 3Q ≤ 150 (i) 3x + 5y ≤ 15
P + Q ≤ 40 3x + 5y = 15
P Q P Q At, x = 0, y = 3
+ = 1, + =1
30 50 40 40 x = 5, y = 0
Substituting points A, B, C
3 (0, 3)
Z(A) = 3200, Z(B) = 3500, Z(C) = 3000,
Maximum at B, P = 15, Q = 25
20. 2
10 7
7
3 4
1 8
1 (0.1)
X = (10 × 7) + (3 × 1) + (4 × 8) = 105. (0, 8/9) (0.02, 0.88)
Using MODI’s Method,
10 7
7 (2, 0) (5, 0)
3 4 0 (2/13, 0) 1 2 3 4 5
8 1
Consider:
Y = (7 × 7) + (4 × 1) + (3 × 8) = 77 (ii) 4x + 9y ≤ 8
∴ X – Y = 105 – 77 = 28. 4x + 9y = 8
8
Hence, the correct answer is Marks awarded to all. x = 0, y =
9
21. Z max = 5 x1 + 3 x2
x = 2, y = 0
x1 + 2 x2 + s1 = 10
Consider:
x1 − x2 + s2 = 8
(iii) 13x + 2y ≤ 2
Now writing simplex tableau
13x + 2y = 2
ei Basic x1 x2 s1 s2 bi qi
x = 0, y = 1
0 s1 1 2 1 0 10 10
2
0 s2 1 –1 0 1 8 8 x= ,y=0
xj 5 3 0 0
13
0 0 0 0 Comparing (ii) and (iii), we get
Z j = ∑ ei .aij
4x + 9y = 8
Δ = cj − Z j 5 3 0 0
13x + 2y = 2
Second simplex tableau 8 − 9y
x =
ei Basic x1 x2 s1 s2 bi qi
4
0 s1 0 3 1 –1 2 13 (8 − 9 y )
+ 2y = 2
5 x1 1 –1 0 1 8 4

cj 5 3 0 0
104 – 117y + 8y = 8
Zj 5 –5 0 5
Dj 0 8 0 -5 109y = 96
So, value of z is z = 5 × 8 = 40 ⇒ y = 0.88, x = 0.02
⎛ 8⎞ ⎛8⎞
22. Moving average method gives equal weightage to each z ⎜ 0, ⎟ = 3(0) + 5 ⎜ ⎟ = 4.44
⎝ 9 ⎠ ⎝9⎠
of the most recent observations.
Hence, the correct option is (A). z (0.02, 0.88) = 3(0.02) + 5(0.88) = 4.46
Unit 08.indd 34 4/27/2019 4:44:02 PM

25. Z = X1 – X2,
⎛2 ⎞ ⎛2⎞
z ⎜ , 0 ⎟ = 3 ⎜ ⎟ + 5(0) = 0.46 Consider,
⎝ 13 ⎠ ⎝ 13 ⎠ X1 + X2 = ≤ 10
z(0, 0) = 0 X1 + X2 = 10
\ z = 0 is minimum value X1 = 0, X2 = 10
X1 = 10, X2 = 0
24. By SPT rule, we get
X1 = 5, X2 = 5
Job Processing Due Flow Tardiness
(0, 10)
Time Date Time
10
A 3 8 0+3=3 0
7.5
C 4 8 3+4=7 3
(5, 5)
E 5 17 7 + 5 = 12 0 5
B 7 16 12 + 7 = 19 3
D 9 18 19 + 9 = 28 10 2.5
F 13 19 28 + 13 = 41 22
38 2.5 5 7.5 (10, 0)
Z (0, 5) = 0 – 5 = –5
Total Tardiness = 38
Z (5, 5) = 5 – 5 = 0
Total tardiness
Average tardiness per job = Z (10, 0) = 10 – 0 = 10
Number of jobs
38 Z max = 10 at (10, 10)
= = 6.33 days Hence, the correct option is (B).
6
Unit 08.indd 35 4/27/2019 4:44:03 PM

CHapter 5 network analysis and Queuing tHeory

Hints/solutions
Practice Problems 1 Activity Variance (s2)
1. The correct option is (A). 1–3 1
2. The correct option is (B). 3–5 4
3. The correct option is (A). 5–6 4

5. The correct option is (D).
∴ Standard deviation along the critical path = •s 2
cp
6. t o = tp = t (given) = 1 + 4 + 4 = 3 days
te = tm = 1 week Hence, the correct option is (A).
t 0 + 4t m + t p
te = TS − TE 17 − 17
6 9. z = = =0
s 3
2t + 4
∴1= ⇒ t = 1 week P(z) = P(0) = 50%
6
7. 10. Scheduled time, Ts = 40 days and variance = 25
∴ Standard deviation, σ = 25 = 5
Time estimates (days)
Most TS − TE
Activity Optimistic Pessimistic Expected z= and P(z) = 99.99%
likely s
1–2 1 1 7 2 ∴z=5
1–3 1 4 7 4
TS − 40
1–4 2 2 8 3 ∴5= ⇒ TS = 65 days.
5
2–5 1 1 1 1
3–5 2 5 14 6
4–6 2 5 8 5 11.
5–6 3 6 15 7 4 4 6 16
2
t 0 + 4t m + t p 2 3
3
te = 4 19 19
6 6
1
The network is 1 6 8 20 20
4 9
2 0 0
10
10 10 10 5
9
10 2
1 7
2 5 5 7 9 10
2 7
2 3
6
4
0 1
4 17
0 4 6 Expected time to complete the project = 20 months.
17
3 5
12. Standard deviation σ = 1 + 2 + 5 + 1

4 ⇒ σ = 3.
12
13. Expected cost = ` [5000 + 9000 +20000 + 4000] = ` 38000.
The expected duration of the project is 17 days. Hence, the correct option is (A).
14. Total float of 3 – 6
8. The critical path is 1 – 3 – 5 – 6.
3
Variance for the critical path activities 3 6
2
t −t 
σ2 =  p 0  6 16 9 19
 6 
 
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Chapter 5 • Network Analysis and Queuing Theory || 3.429
Total float = LFT – EFT = 19 – 9 = 10. 1

17. Arrival rate, λ = customer/min
15. Arrival rate, λ = 10 person/hour 1
Service rate, µ = customer/min
15
1
Service rate, µ = × 60 = 12 customer/hour 2
5  1 
l2  20 
Length of the system = 3 customers Queue length = =   = 2.25 units
m (m − l ) 1 1 1 
Probability that there will be more than 3 customers in −
15 15 20 
3 +1 4
l  10 
the system =   =   = 0.48. Hence, the correct option is (A).
m
   12 
18. Waiting time for the system = = = 60 min.
m−l 1 1
l 10 −
16. Waiting time in the queue = = 15 20
m ( m − l ) (12 −10 )12
5
= hrs = 25 min
12
20
2
1. Dummy activity does not consume any time or resource, it 20 36 46
12 4 5
indicates only the precedence. 20
0 36 10 46
0
2. Events are represented by circles and activities by arrows. 25 30
6
3
3. Free float is part of the total float that is available for an The path along which float is zero or the longest path is the
activity to be used without delaying the project duration. critical path. In this case the critical path is
Hence, the correct option is (A). 1 − 2 − 3 − 4 − 5.
4. Total float is LFT − EFT or LST − EST. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct option is (C). 7. Duration is the time consumed along the critical path. It is
5. equal to
= 20 + 10 + 6 + 10 = 46 days.
10 d 17
a 2 4 Hence, the correct option is (C).
10 7 17 33
10 6 8. The total float of activity 2 − 4
0 e 33
12 = allowable time − actual time
1 4
0 = (36 − 20) − 12
b 21 = 16 − 12 = 4 days.
10 c 5
17 4
9. The expected time of completion for each activity can be
found out using the formula
The duration of the project is 33 days. to + 4 t m + t p
te =
6
Common data for Questions 6 to 8: The following table gives
the activities of a construction project and their durations: Activity Exp. time of completion (days)
1−2 2
Activity 1−2 1−3 2−3 2−4 3−4 4−5 1−3 4
Duration (days) 20 25 10 12 6 10 1−4 3
(Continued)

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2−5 1 3−5 11
3−5 6 4−5 7
4−6 5 6−7 11
5−6 7 5−8 4
7−8 18
The network is
2 21
2 3
9 21
2 1 7 14 11
2 32
0 7 5
10 32
1 4 5 7
0 3 12
4 10 0 5 4 7
4 6 1 4
7 17 25
6 0 36
8
3 17 36
3 5
4 6
17 18
12 6 7
6 18
7 11
The critical path is
1 − 3 − 5 − 7. The critical path is 1 − 2 − 3 − 5 − 8.
The duration of the project is = 17 days. the duration is 36 days.
10. The activities along the critical path are 13. The activities along the critical path are
1 − 3, 3 − 5, 5 − 6. 1 − 2, 2 − 3, 3 − 5, 5 − 8.
2
 t p − to  Variances are
The variance of each activity is 
 6  2
   15 − 3 
V1 − 2 =   =4
2  6 
 7 −1 
V1 − 3 =   =1 2
 6   30 − 6 
V2 − 3 =   = 16
2  6 
 14 − 2 
V3 − 5 =  =4
 6 
2
 17 − 5 
V3 − 5 =   =4
2  6 
 15 − 3 
V5 − 6 =  = 2 2 = 4.
 6 
2
 7 −1 
V5 − 8 =   = 1.
Total variance 4 + 4 + 1 = 9.  6 
∴standard deviation is 9 = 3 Total variance of the critical path is
Hence, the correct option is (A). 4 + 16 + 4 + 1 = 25.
11. The total float of the activity 4 − 6 ∴ Standard Deviation = 25 = 5 .

= allowable time − actual time Hence, the correct option is (C).
= (17 − 3) − 5 = 9 days. 14. Total float of the activity is 7 − 8.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Available time − actual time
12. The expected time of completion of each activity can be cal- (37 − 18 ) − 18 = 1 day.
to + 4tm + t p Hence, the correct option is (A).
culated using the formula te =
6 15. The probability that the project will be complete in 42 days is.
Job Exp. time of completion (days) c − m 42 − 36
Z = =
1−2 7 s 5
6
1−6 6 = = 1.2
5
2−3 14
Z value is positive, corresponding probability from the chart
2−4 5
= 0.3849.
(Continued)
Unit 08.indd
Chapter 38
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14:12:30 Chap
0.3849 19. Duration of the project is 380 days,

standard deviation = 196 = 14 days.
Area under the normal (standard) curve is 0.6 − 0.5 = 0.1.
corresponding to 0.1, Z value = 0.25
c − m c − 380
z=0 1.2 = = 0.25
s 14
∴ Required probability = 0.5 + 0.3849 = c − 380 = 3.5
= 0.8849 = 0.88. c = 384 days.
16. Mean duration of completion
20. Project duration = 380 days, standard deviation = 14 days.
= 85 days = μ.
Standard duration = 18 days. c − m 360 − 380
Z = =
s 14
The probability of completion is 75 days.
−20
c − m 75 − 85 −10 Z = = − 1.42.
Z= = = = − 0.55 14
s 18 18
From the table, the corresponding area is 0.4222.
∴Required probability = 0.5 − 0.4222
= 0.0778
= 7.8% ≈ 8%.
z = -0.55 21. In the given specification, (M /M /I: FIFO).
Required probability is 0.5 − 0.2088 M − indicates Poisson’s distribution for arrival and service
= 0.5 − 0.2088 1 − indicates single service channel
= 0.2912 ∞ − indicates infinite population
Required probability = 0.29. FIFO − indicates first in, first out
17. Given that the project duration = 60 weeks, 22. Queuing theory does not solve the problem of minimisation
variance = 9. of waiting time and service costs, but gives information based
∴standard deviation = 3. on which the management can make decisions
The Required probability must be 95%, Hence, the correct option is (B).
Z value will be that 23. The arrival rate is 5 vehicles/hr
corresponding to 0.95 − 0.5 = 0.45. 5
= / mt
From the table, Z = 1.65 60
c −m 1
=1.65
s λ= per minute
12
c − 60 1
= 1.65 μ = service rate = vehicle/mt.
3 10
c = 60 + 4.95
l 1
= 65 weeks. the traffic intensity is = × 10
m 12
18. Duration = 60, 10
= = 0.83.
standard deviation = 3. 12
The required probability is 42%, Hence, the correct option is (B).
n
Z value l
24. Probability that the queue size is at least ‘n’ is  
= 0.42 − 0.5 = –0.08. m
Here, λ = 20/day
Z value is corresponding to the area = 0.08
20 1
c − m c − 60 = = / mt.
−0.2 = = 24 × 60 72
s 3
−0.6 = c − 60 = 59.4 weeks. 1
Service rate = /mt

Chapter 39
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14:12:31
l 1 7 l
∴ = × 42 = Average waiting time is given by = 0.
m 72 12 m[ m − l ]
8
 7 Hence, the correct option is (D).
∴ the required probability is   = 0.013
 12  29. The required probability is equivalent to the case of at least
one in the queue i.e.
Hence, the correct option is (D). 1− po = p1
l
25. The probability that at least one train is there is the queue =
m l
1
l 7 5 But =  
∴ Probability of an empty queue is 1− = 1− = m
m 12 12
Hence, the correct option is (B). λ = 6 per hour, because 10 mts/person
26. The arrival rate of lorries in a day in 10/shift = λ. 1

which means, person/mt
12
10
Rate of loading is = m. 60
shift persons/hr = 6 persons/hour
10
l 5
∴ Traffic intensity = 10
= No of calls
m 12 6 m= = i.e. 3mts/call
hr
Average number of lorries in the system 1
∴ × 60 = 20 calls/hour
l 10 10 3
= = = 5 nos.
m − l 12 − 10 2 l 6 3
= = =
Hence, the correct option is (D). m 20 10
= 0.3.
27. Average waiting time in the system is
= = = 0.5 mts.
m − l 12 − 10 2
30. Expected length of a non − empty queue is the same as the
Hence, the correct option is (C). length of the queue that forms from time to time. The prob-
30 ability is
28. The arrival rate is
hr l 6 6 3
= = =
30 1 m − l 20 − 6 14 7
= = /sec,
3600 120
service rate = sec.
120
Previous Years’ Questions P0 + ρP0 + ρ2 P0 + ρ3 P0 +….+ ρ10P0 = 1

1. In PERT analysis, a critical activity has zero float. P0[1 + ρ + ρ2 + ρ3 +….+ ρ10] = 1
Hence, the correct option is (B). P0[1 + 1 + 1 +……+1] = 1
1
2. Arrival rate, λ = 3/day. ∴ P0 =
11
Service rate, μ = 6/day.
Probability that a person who comes and leaves without join-
Mean waiting time for an item to be served ing the queue,
l 3 1 1
P11 = r11P0 = (1) ×
11
= = = day.
m ( m − l ) 6 ( 6 − 3) 6 11
⇒ P11 =
3. Poisson’s arrival, λ = 4/hour. 11
Hence, the correct option is (A),
Exponential service, μ = 4/hour.
4. Three activities need to be crashed to reduce the project dura-
l 4
r= = = 1. tion by 1 day.
m 4
10
Now, ∑P =1 5. Arrival rate, λ = 8/hour.
n =1 60
Service rate, μ = = 10/hour.
∴ P0 + P1 + P2 + ….. + P10 = 1 6
Unit 08.indd
Chapter 40
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14:12:34 Chap
Average number of customers in the queue, e 36

l2
8 2
f 9
Lq = = = 3.2.
m ( m − l ) 10 (10 − 8)
Total variance = 25 + 81 + 36 + 9 = 151 days.
Standard deviation = total variance
6. Expected completion time of the project = 155 days.
= 151 days.
3 8. The correct option is (C).
30 30 40 d
b 25 9. There are two ways to reach G from P:
30 2 f
1 5 1. P≥Q≥G
a 6 155 155
60 45 20
0 0 SG = SQ + dQG
c
e 135135
4 2. P≥R≥G
90 90 SG = SR + dRG
Hence, the correct option is (D). Shortest path,
SG = minimum of (SG + dQG, SR + dRG).
7. Critical path = a – c – e – f.
Task Variance
t o + 4t + t p
a 25 10. te =
6
c 81
(Continued)
11.
2
t o + 4t m + t p ⎛t −t ⎞
Activity to tm tp tE = σ2 = ⎜ p o ⎟
6 ⎝ 6 ⎠
1–2 1 2 3 2 1
9
1–3 5 6 7 6 1
9
1–4 3 5 7 5 4
9
2–5 5 7 9 7 4
9
3–5 2 4 6 4 4
9
5–6 4 5 6 5 1
9
4–7 4 6 8 6 4
9
6–7 2 3 4 3 1
9
2 3
2
2 7
5 10 10
6 s
0 0 1 3 4 5 6
6 6 15 15
5
3
4 7 18 18
6
5 12
Critical path duration of the network = 18 days.


Chapter 41
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14:12:36
12. Standard deviation of the critical path, 13. Little’s law relationship,
L = λW
1 4 1 1
s =  + + +  L = average number of customers in a stable system
9 9 9 9
λ = average arrival rate
σ = 0.88. W = average time a customer spends in the system.
Hence, the correct option is (None). Hence, the correct option is (B).
14.
3 4 16 22
1 4
P R T V
3 5 2
7
Q
0 0 0 3 6 24 24
4 5 U 10
9 9
Q S W
5
2 5
4 4 14 14
Critical path → Q – S – U –W. l 50 5

18. = = × 60 = 5 minutes
m ( m − l ) 60 ( 60 − 50 ) 60
l 5
15. ρ = = 19. The correct option is (B).
m 6
20. Arrival rate in 8 hrs, λ = 5.
λ = 5/hr, μ = 6/hr Average service time = 40 minutes.
r 56 8 × 60
Waiting time = = Service rate in 8 hrs, μ = = 12.
m −l 6−5 40
5 Proportion of time for which the facility is engaged,

= × 60 = 50 min. l 5
6 r= =
m 12
Proportion of idle time = 1 − ρ
16.
5 7
7 = 1− =
e 6 12 12
2 9 18
g h
4 5 7 14
3 Idle time in 8 hrs = 8 × = hours
b 2 12 3
3 c 16
9
a
4
f 21.
d P Q
7 3 7
S
R 5
4
Critical path = a – d – f – h.
Project duration is 18 days
Critical path, P − R − S.
17. If ‘f ’ alone is changed from 9 to 10 days, then the critical
Normal duration = 3 + 4 + 5
path remains the same and the total duration to complete the
project is 19 days (A). = 12 days
Unit 08.indd
Chapter 42
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14:12:37 Chap
For crashing to 9 days, Total float (TF) of an activity

activity Q has to be crashed by 1 day and activity S (lower = (latest time of head event − earliest time of tail event) −
cost slope than R) is to be crashed by 3 days. activity duration
∴ Crashing lost = 100 × 1 + 200 × 3 = ` 700. TF for e = (7 − 4) − 2 = 1 day.
Overhead cost for 9 days = 9 × 200 = ` 1800. TF for f = (12 − 4) − 4 = 4 days.
Normal cost = ` 10,000. Hence, the correct option is (B).
∴ Total cost = 10,000 + 1800 + 700 = ` 12500. 25. Arrival rate λ = 5/min.
The correct answer is 12490 to 12510 1
Service time = min.
8
22. The correct option is (B). 1 8
Service rate μ = = .
23. 1 min
8
l
3 3 5 5 Number of jobs in the system =
2 m−l
2 5 5
3 = = 1.67 .
0 0 3 13 13 8−5
2 5 5 The correct answer is 1.62 to 1.7.
1 3 6 7
26.
2 3 8 8 2
4 5
2
2
4 3
2
2 4 0 6 2 8
1 3 5
0 6 8
3
From forward and backward pass calculations, 3
4
project duration = 13.
4
Free float of activity 4 − 6 3
= total float − slack of event 6 3
= [latest time of event 6 − earliest time of event 4 − activity Critical path: 1 – 4 – 3 – 5

duration] − slack of event 6 Hence, the correct option is (B).
= (8 − 2 − 4) − 0 27. λ = 12/hour
= 2. µ = 24/hour
λ
24. Wq =
µ (µ − λ )
2 3 4 5
c 12 1
2 4
2 = = hour
24 ( 24 − 12 ) 24
a f
0 0 2 12 12
4
1 6 1
2 e = × 60 = 2.5 min
g
24
4 b 5
d
3 5
3
4 4 7 7

Chapter 43
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14:12:38
3.436 | Part III • Unit 8 • Industrial Engneering

8.44 | Industrial
28.
Unit 8 • Industrial Engneering
E(4)
3 10
28. E(4)
3 10 M(3)
J(2)
B(3) 6 8 M(3)
Engneering K(3)
J(2)
B(3) F(2) 6 8
K(3) L(2) N(2)
E(4) 9 11 12
3 10 A(2) C(4) F(2)
1 2 4 L(2) N(2)
9 11 12
M(3)
A(2) C(4)
1 2 4 G(4) I(5)
J(2)
6 8 H(4)
K(3) D(2) G(4) I(5)
7
L(2) N(2)
D(2)
H(4)
9 11 12
7
5
G(4) I(5)
5
H(4)
Critical path is 1 – 2 – 4 – 7 – 9 – 11 – 12 So, minimum completion time of project = 4 + 3 + 14
29. In Pert activity time distribution is Beta distribution.
7
+ 9 = 30 days
Critical time = 19 days Hence, the correct option is (D).
Critical path is 1 – 2 – 4 – 7 – 9 – 11 – 12 In Pert activity
29. Hence,
timeanswer
the correct distribution
is 30. is Beta distribution.
Latest finish time for node 10
5 Critical time = 19 days Hence, the
33. Arrival rate,correct option is (D).
= 19 – (2 + 3) = 14 days
Latest finish time for node 10
Hence, the correct answer is 14. λ = 30/hour
= 19 – (2 + 3) = 14 days 1
1 – 12 29. In Pert activity
Hence, timeanswer
the correct distribution
is 14. is Beta distribution. λ = min
2
Hence, the correct option is (D). P = 1 – e–λt
31. Arrival rate = 12 per hour 1
−
For steady state finite queue length P(1) = 1 – e 2 = 0.393
Arrival rate < service rate 3
−
∴ service rate = 24 per hour P(3) = 1 – e 2 = 0.7768
P(1 ≤ T ≤ 3 min) = 0.7768 – 0.393
32. The given project is
= 0.383
B D Hence, the correct answer is 0.383.
3 14 34. Shortest path is:
4 A F 1–2–5–4–6
9 The shortest path length is 7.
C E Hence, the correct answer is 7.
7 4
Path A – B – D – F take maximum time to complete, i.e

critical path.
Chapter 05_Hints.indd 436 27/04/2017 14:12:38 Test_
Unit 08.indd
Chapter 44
05_Hints.indd 436 4/27/2019
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14:12:38
test
Hints/solutions
1. The correct choice is (C). Predicted demand = 112
2. The correct choice is (B). Smoothing Constant : 0.4
3. The correct choice is (B). ∴ Forecast for the next period
Actual Output 280 = predicted value + ∝ (actual − predicted)
4. System effectiveness = = = 90.6%.
System Capacity 309 = 112 + 0.4 (118 − 112)
Hence, the correct choice is (C). = 112 + 0.4 × 6 = 112 + 2.4
5. The correct choice is (D). = 114.4 ≈ 115.
6. The correct choice is (A). Hence, the correct choice is (A).
7. Observed time = 13.2 min
2C1 R
Normal time = 13.2 × 1.05 = 13.86 15. EOQ =
13.86 C2
Std. time = = 15.4 min
1 − 0.1 where, R = Annual demand
Hence, the correct choice is (B). C1 = Ordering Cost/Order
8. Let the break even quantity be ‘x’. C2 = Inventory carrying cost/year/item
Then the total cost is 900000 + 50x R = Annual demand = 52x
Total revenue = 250x. C1 = y; C2 = 12z
∴900000 + 50x = 250x
2 × 52 x × y 52 xy 8.67 xy
∴ x = 4500 nos. EOQ = = =
12 z 6z z
∴ Break even amount = 4500 × 250 = 1,12,5000/-
16. The correct choice is (B).
9. The fixed cost is ` 12,00,000/- for a break even quantity ‘x’
17. In a single channel, if the weighting time in the system is ts
the variable cost is 60x. The selling price is ` 300/unit
1
∴ 12,00,000 + 60x = 300x and weighing time in the queue is tq then, t s − t q =
m
12, 00, 000 1
∴x = = 5000 units. 60 − 30 =
240 m
But the turnover should be ` 1,800,000/- 1
30 =
∴ Quantity to be produced m
18, 00, 000 1 . per 2
= 6000 units = m =
300 30 min hr
But the break-even quantity is 5000 watts. Hence, the correct choice is (A).
∴ Profit anticipated 1000 × (300 − 60) = ` 240,000/- 2C1r
18. EOQ = When C1 is increased 4 times, the EOQ will
Hence, the correct choice is (B). C2
10. Selling price of the machine is ` 2,40,000/-. be increased twice.
If ‘C’ is the cost price, Hence, the correct choice is (B).
C × 1.2 = 2,40,000 19. Objective function is 80x + 60y, where ‘x’ is the quantity of
2, 40, 000 ‘A’ produced, and ‘y’ is the quantity of B produced.
∴C = = 2, 00, 000 /-
1.2 The constraints are 8x + 4y ≤ 32
Gain is ` 40,000/- 4x + 6y ≤ 26
For the second machine, the loss is 7x + 5y ≤ 35.
18 Changing the constraints into equations,
× 2, 00, 000 = ` 36,000/-
100 4x + 6y = 24
∴ Gain is ` 4,000/- 7x + 5y = 35.
Hence, the correct choice is (B). Representing the constraints in the x − y plane, 8x + 4y = 32;
when x = 0, y = 8, when y = 0, x = 4
s 40 min
11. Co-efficient of variation is here s = 0.3, x = =2 ∴ (4, 0) → (0, 8)
x 20 cycle
0.3 4x + 6y = 24, when x = 0, y = 4, when y = 0 x = 6
C=
.V = 0.15
2 (6, 0) → (0, 4)
Hence, the correct choice is (D). 7x + 5y = 35, when x = 0, y = 7, when y = 0, x = 5
12. The correct choice is (C). (5, 0) → (0, 7)
13. The correct choice is (D). Solving 8x + 4y = 32
14. Actual demand is 118. 4x + 6y = 24
Test_Hints & Solutions.indd 437 27/04/2017 14:13:28
4:12:38 Unit 08.indd 45 4/27/2019 4:44:21 PM

x = 3, y = 2 22. The total cost is 800000 + 250x

At P 80x + 60y = 80 × 0 + 60 × 4 = 240 For break − even, 800000 + 250x = 270x
At Q 80x + 60y = 80 × 3 + 60 × 2 = 360 ∴ 20x = 800000 ∴ x = 40,000 units
At R 80x + 60y = 80 × 4 + 60 × 0 = 320 Hence, the correct choice is (B).
The maximum occurs at (3, 2)
23. In the net work, optimistic, pessimistic and most likely time
∴ x = 3, y = 2 GA = 3, B = 2. are related by the equation.
y t O + 4t m + t p
te =
8x + 4y = 32 6
y
(0,8)
6 + 4t m + 16
(0, 4) 9= ∴ tm = 8 months
P 6
7x + 5y = 35
Q (3, 2)
(0,3) Hence, the correct choice is (A).
4x + 6y = 24 x 24. Factor productivity =

(0,4) (0, 0) R (4, 0)
P Gross production − Materials & Service Purchased
Labor + Capital input
Q
R 5000 − [800 + 200 + 500 + 300 ]

x =
(0, 0) (4, 0) (5, 0) (6.0) 800 + 1400
5000 − [1800 ] 3200
= = = 1.45
2200 2200
Hence, the correct choice is (D). Hence, the correct choice is (A).
20. The correct choice is (D).
Gross Production
6 25. Total productivity =
21. Arrival rate = min Total input
60
5000
1 =
∴l= min 800 + 1400 + 200 + 500 + 300
10
1 l 1 8 5000
m= min P = = × = 0.8 = = 1.56
8 m 10 1 3200
2 0.64 Hence, the correct choice is (B).
One length = = = 3.2
1 − 1 − 0.8
Hence, the correct choice is (A).
Unit 08.indd& Solutions.indd

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Engineering

Chapter 2 Free Body Diagrams – Trusses

Chapter 5 Curvilinear Motion 1.24

Practice Problems 2 Since the forces are equal, R = 2P cos a/2

2:51:53 Unit 01.indd 3

Previous Years’ Questions W = 600 •

= 1600 + 1600 = 2 × 1600 = 400 2 N Considering

Taking the moment about point B, Pr = 500 N

TPQ > TPR (because, TPR = 0.732 F)

2:52:02 Unit 01.indd 7

θ = 26.560 Consider joint B,

Practice Problems 2 5R2 = 2P2 + 2Q2

Hence, the correct option is (B).

Magnitude of velocity at point 0.2

= v + v + 2v cos 60° = v 2 + 2 cos 60°

Previous Years’ Questions 3. F AC

⇒ FQR = 0.891F × cos 45° = 0.634F

2:52:06 Unit 01.indd 9

AC 0.5 ΣFy = 0 ⇒ TAB Cos 30º + TBC Cos 30º = 100 N

F1 = 9 kN, F2 = 3 kN Taking moment about Q,

ΣFx = 0 ⇒ TAB Cos 30º = TBC Cos 30º

⇒ RRQ = 20 kN TPQ + TQR cos θ =0

and RRT cos 45° = RRS TQR = 2W compressive.

Hence, the correct option is (A). Rx

2:52:10 Unit 01.indd 11

T2 Force required (Friction present)

2:52:17 Unit 01.indd 13

RA + µ 2 RA - 75 = 0 P = 5000 / 314.15 = 15.9 N

Free body diagram shows P and Q forces acting at f

⇒ T = (981 - 500) N ⇒ T = 481 N = ∫ 0.04905 × (10t − 40) dt

2:52:20 Unit 01.indd 15

Dynamic friction coefficient µ = 0.5 10.

2:52:23 Unit 01.indd 17

Practice Problems 2 v1 = 0.365 km/min

2:52:28 Unit 01.indd 19

(t + 1)(t - 3) = 0 7. Velocity of pile and hammer becomes zero when they

Previous Years’ Questions 6.

m mg cos θ P = 100 × 9.81 × sin10°

2:52:30 Unit 01.indd 21

9. Energy at the height of 1 m = mgh = 1 × 1 × 9.81 = 9.81 J ⇒ V = 29.633 m/s

200 Solving Equations

100 Hence, the correct answer is 133–134.

Hence, the correct answer is 10.

2:52:34 Unit 01.indd 23

Practice Problems 1 5. Applying the moment of momentum equation with the

400 = m (V2 − V1) = 200 (V2 − 0)

3 2 10. Newton’s second law when applied to rotation

Linear Speed v = 5.1 m/s 1 1

Practice Problems 2 2. Maximum range in the case of an inclined plane is

9.81× 30 2 4415 where α = angle of projection and b = angle of the

2:52:40 Unit 01.indd 25

3 Mass of the unrolled carpet portion

Hence, the correct option is (A). M g r3

Previous Years’ Questions πtρ

1 1 0.02 × 0.013 0.01× 0.023

Hence, the correct option is (C).

2:52:45 Unit 01.indd 27

Unit 01.indd 29 4/26/2019 4:41:22 PM

16. Component of mass M2 along the plane = M2sinq 20. A

2:52:55 Unit 01.indd 31

Let T be the force in member PR 50 N

T 1187.35 × sin 65.6 = 1081.3 N.

29. R = (10) + (5) + 2 × 10 × 5 cos 120

Chapter 2 Free Body Diagrams – Trusses

Chapter 5 Curvilinear Motion 1.24