REASONING

Directions for Q1 to Q10: In the question given below, are two statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even
if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding the commonly known facts.
Give answer
(A)If only conclusion I follows
(B)If only conclusion II follows
(C)If either conclusion I or II follows
(D)If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(E)If both conclusions I and II follow
01
Statements:

Some leaders are great people.

All talented people are leaders.
Conclusions:
I.No great people is talented.
II. Some talented people are great.
(a) D (b) C (c) E (d) B
Ans (b)
02
Statements:

Some colleges are schools.

All schools are universities.
Conclusions:
I.Some colleges are universities.
II. All universities are colleges.
(a) A (b) E (c) B (d) C
Ans (a)
03
Statements:

All branches are creepers.

All creepers are roots.
Conclusions:
I.All branches are roots.
II. Some roots are branches.
(a) A (b) E (c) B (d) C
Ans (b)
04
Statements:

All photos are snaps.

All snaps are notes.
 Conclusions:
I.All photos are notes.
II. All notes are photos.
(a) C (b) B (c) A (d) E
Ans (c)
05
Statements:

All boys are men.

No man is a girl.
Conclusions:
I.No boy is a girl.
II. No girl is a boy.
(a) A (b) E (c) C (d) D
Ans (b)

06
Statements:

All flutes are instruments.

Some instruments are guitars.
Conclusions:
I.No guitar is an instrument.
II. Some guitars are flutes.
(a) D
Ans (a)
07
Statements:

All cities are countries.

Some towns are cities.
Conclusion:
I.No country is a town.
II. All countries are town.
(a) B
Ans (b)
08
Statements:

No officer is a liar.
No liar is a women.
Conclusions:
I.No women is an officer.
II. Some women are officers.

Ans (A)
09 Statements:
 Some bangles are bags.
No purse is a bangle.
Conclusions:
I.Some purses are bags.
II. No bag is a purse.

Ans (d)
10
Statements:

All the poets are goats.

Some goats are trees.
Conclusions:
I.Some poets are trees.
II. Some trees are goats.

Ans (a)
11 A college has 63 students studying Political
Science, Chemistry and Botany. 33 students
study Political Science, 25 Chemistry and 26
Botany. 10 study Political Science and
Chemistry, 9 study Botany and Chemistry
while 8 study both Political Science and
Botany. Same number of students study all
three subjects as those who learn none of the
three.
How many students study all the three
subjects?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
Ans (b)
12 A college has 63 students studying Political
Science, Chemistry and Botany. 33 students
study Political Science, 25 Chemistry and 26
Botany. 10 study Political Science and
Chemistry, 9 study Botany and Chemistry
while 8 study both Political Science and
Botany. Same number of students study all
three subjects as those who learn none of the
three.
How many students study only one of the three
subjects?
(a) 21 (b) 30 (c) 39 (d) 42
Ans (c)
13 In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6
persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi
and 6 can speak Gujarati. In that group, none
can speak any other language. If 2 persons in
the group can speak two languages and one
person can speak all the three languages, then
how many persons are there in the group?
(a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24
 Ans (c)
14 In a town of 500 people, 285 read Hindu and
212 read Indian Express and 127 read Times of
India, 20 read only Hindu and Times of India
and 29 read only Hindu and Indian Express
and 35 read only Times of India and Indian
express. 50 read no newspaper.
Then how many read only one paper?
(a) 123 (b)231 (c) 312 (d) 321
Ans (d)
15 Out of 120 students in a school, 5% can play all
the three games Cricket, Chess and Caroms. If
so happens that the number of players who
can play only two games is 30. The number of
students who can play the Cricket alone is 40.
What is the total number of those who can play
Chess alone or Caroms alone?
(a) 45 (b) 44 (c) 46 (d) 24
Ans (b)
01 If 10Cx = 1, then what is the value of x, if x ≠ 0?
(a) 1 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 18
Ans (c)
02 How many five digit positive integers that are
divisible by 3 can be formed using the digits 0,
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without any of the digits getting
repeated?
(a) 15 (b) 96 (c) 216 (d) 120
Ans (c)
03 Ramesh, Abhijeet and Ajay are eligible to be
the captain of the cricket team. Shaid, John,
Shisir and Nitin are eligible to be the co-
captain. How many possible outcomes are
there for choosing captain and a co-captain?
(a) 12 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 16
Ans (a)
04 If we permute 5 letters of the word ‘mango’,
the number of permuted words with ‘n’ at the
second place are
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 24
Ans (d)
05 In how many ways can a group consisting of 5
girls and 4 boys be formed from a class of 8
girls and 5 boys?
(a) 260 (b) 270 (c) 280 (d) 290
Ans (c)
06 What is the value of 15C13?
(a) 30 (b) 15 (c) 210 (d) 105
Ans (d)
07 In how many ways can three leads be selected
out of 5 males and 4 females if at least one
female must be selected?
(a) 9P3 (b) 9C3 (c) 4C2 . 5C1 (d) 74
Ans (d)
08 A written exam consists of 6 questions with the
answer options as yes/no/none. In how many
ways can the examinees select the answers?
(a) 6P3 ways (b) 6C3 (c)3C1×3C1×3C1 (d)(3C1)6
ways ×3C1 ×3C1
Ans (d)
09 What are the number of ways of selecting 7
files out of 14 distinct files if one is always
selected?
(a)14C7 (b)13C6 (c) 1 (d)14P7
Ans (b)
10 If I have kept six different books on a shelf, in
how many different ways can I arrange them?
(a) 6 (b) 24 (c) 120 (d) 720
Ans (d)
11 There are 3 main steps of completion of a
project
- Development, Review and Roll out. After
development, there are 4 people who can
independently work and lead the process to
the next step i.e. Review. Further ahead, there
are 5 people who can work independently and
lead to the next step i.e. Roll-out. In how many
ways can a project manager complete the
project?
(a) 20 (b) 9 (c) 15 (d) 25
Ans (a)
12 How many three digits numbers can be formed
using 2, 3, 4 and 5 with none of the digits being
repeated?
(a) 20 (b) 45 (c) 24 (d) 10
Ans (c)
13 In designing a new keyboard, sample
keyboards are prepared by rearranging the
alphabet keys. What is the possible number of
keyboards formed?
(a) 26! (b)26P1 (c)26C1 (d)26
Ans (a)
14 How many 4 digit numbers can be made using
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 with none of the digits
being repeated?
(a)7! (b) 840 (c)4! (d) 42
Ans (b)
15 What is the value of 15C15?
(a) 30 (b) 15 (c) 210 (d) 1
Ans (d)
16 A detergent powder company is having a
contest. Each pack of 1 kg contains one of the
letters B, A, M and O. If in every 20 packs, there
are four Bs, five As, ten Ms and one O. What is
the probability that a pack will have a B?
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/5 (d) 1/20
Ans (c)
17 In a game show there are 5 prize cards and 20
blank cards. A contestant is asked to choose a
card at random. What is the probability that he
won a prize?
(a) 3/5 (b) 2/5 (c) 1/5 (d) 4/5
Ans (c)
18 A manufacturing plant produces a batch of 10
containers out of which 4 are defective. In a
quality inspection test, 3 containers are chosen
at random. What is the probability that at least
one would be defective?
(a) ¼ (b) (c) 5/6 (d) 3/4
3/10
Ans (c)
19 A box contains 5 red, 4 white and 3 green balls.
In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from
the box, without replacement, so that at least 2
of them are green?
(a) 18 (b) 28 (c) 27 (d) 9
Ans (b)
20 A box contains 10 balls numbered 1 through
10. Anuj, Anisha and Amit pick a ball each, one
after the other, each time replacing the ball.
What is the probability that Anuj picks a ball
numbered less than that picked by Anisha, who
in turn picks a lesser numbered ball than Amit?
(a) 3/25 (b) 1/6 (c) 4/25 (d)
81/400
Ans (a)
21 In a quiz competition, the host asked a
question and provided three possible answers.
What is the probability that the answer choice
which Rohit selects for a question is wrong?
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/2 (c) 2/3 (d) 4/5
Ans (c)
22 Probability of one of the power plants over
heating is 0.15 per day and the probability of
failure of back cooling system is 0.11. If these
events are independent, what is the probability
of ‘big trouble’ (i.e. both events taking place)?
(a) 0.35 (b) (c) 0.0165 (d) 0.26
0.0185
Ans (c)
23 ABCD is a square. PQRS is a rhombus lying
inside the square such that P, Q, R and S are the
mid-points of AB, BC, CD and DA respectively.
A point is selected at random in the square.
Find the probability that it lies in the rhombus.
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/2 (c) 2/3 (d) 3/4
Ans (b)
24 Five students have not been absent for the
entire first semester. They are asked to draw
one pass each from a bag that has 5 movie
 passes and 5 meal passes. Parul and Mini are
the first two students to draw the pass
simultaneously. What is the probability that
they both draw movie passes?
(a) 5/6 (b) ½ (c) 2/9 (d) 3/7
Ans (c)
25 A single letter is drawn at random from the
word, "ASPIRATION". What is the probability
that it is a vowel?
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/2 (c) 3/5 (d) 2/5
Ans (b)
26 Ritu has 3 shirts in shades of red, 4 in yellow
shades and 5 in green shades. Three shirts are
picked at random. The probability that all of
these are in red shades is
(a) 1/12 (b) (c) 1/66 (d)
1/220 1/110
Ans (b)
27 If a coin with both heads is tossed, then the
probability of obtaining a tail is
(a) 0 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 1
Ans (a)
28 Find the chance of throwing more than 9 in
one throw with 2 dice.
(a) 2/3 (b) (c) 5/18 (d) 1/6
5/36
Ans (d)
29 In an interview, there are 6 candidates who
have been shortlisted for the content team- 4
PhDs and 2 MBAs. If 2 candidates are chosen at
random for the final round, what is the
probability that both will be MBAs?
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/15 (d) 2/3
Ans (c)
30 A multiplex conducted a random survey of the
movie-goers to determine their preference in
movies. Of the 50 people surveyed, 35
preferred comedies. What is the probability
that any given movie-goer will buy a ticket of
the comedy movie?
(a) 7/10 (b) (c) 4/10 (d) 2/5
3/10
Ans (a)
31 The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 72
√ 3 cm. Find its height.
(a) 63 cm (b) 24 (c) 18 cm (d) 36
cm cm
Ans (d)
32 The perimeter of a sector of a circle of radius
5.7 cm is 27.2 cm. Find the area of the sector.
(a) 90.06 cm2 (b) (c) 45 cm2 (d) 40
135.09 cm2
cm2
 Ans (c)
33 A rectangular tank 11 m in length, 4 m in width
and 4m in height is half filled with water. Find
the volume of water in the tank.
(a) 176 m3 (b) 88 (c) 105 m3 (d) 352
m3 m3
Ans (b)
34 The areas of the three adjacent faces of a
cuboidal box are 120 cm2, 72 cm2 and 60 cm2.
Find the volume of the box.
(a) 720 cm3 (b) 864 (c) 7200 cm3 (d)
cm3 (72)2
cm3
Ans (a)
35 Find the volume of the cube whose diagonal is
4√ 3 cm.
(a) 8 cm3 (b) 16 (c) 27 cm3 (d) 64
cm3 cm3
Ans (d)
36 If each edge of a cube is increased by 25%, find
the percentage increase in the surface area.
(a) 25% (b) (c) 50% (d)
48.75% 56.25%
Ans (d)
37 The capacity of a cylindrical tank is 246.4
litres. If the height is 4 m, find the diameter of
the base.
(a) 1.4 m (b) 2.8 (c) 14 cm (d) 28
m cm
Ans (d)
38 What is the value of ‘a’?

(a) 15 (b) 60 (c) 75 (d) 135

Ans (b)
39 What is the value of Angle h?
 (a) 35 (b) 60 (c) 85 (d) 95
Ans (c)
40 Find the length of S.

(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 15 (d) 8

Ans (b)
41 What is the X value in the following similar
figures?

(a) 10 ft (b) 6 ft (c) 4 ft (d)

None of
these
Ans (c)
42 Find the value of M, if M = 330 – (∠e + ∠d) in
the below figure.

(a) 210 (b) (c) 90 (d) 140

120
Ans (a)
43 The value of B & C if A = 3 in the below figure.
 (a) 6, 4.21 (b) 7, (c) 5, 4.37 (d) 6,
6.82 5.19
Ans (d)
44 Find the value of X in the given figure.

(a) 45 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 120

Ans (b)
45 The rectangle below is made up of 12
congruent (same size) squares. Find the
perimeter of the rectangle if the area of the
rectangle is equal to 768 square cm.

(a) 84 cm (b) 112 (c) 98.6 cm (d) 56

cm cm
Ans (b)
46 If the sides of a triangle are 26 cm, 24 cm and
10 cm, what is its area?
(a) 120 sq.cm (b) 130 (c) 312 sq.cm (d) 315
sq.cm sq.cm
Ans (a)
47 Find 49 % of the sum of all the exterior angles
of a cyclic quadrilateral.
(a) 176.4 (b) (c) 33.6 (d) 90
44.1
Ans (a)
48 Which of the following is a Pythagorean
triplet?
 (a) 11 , 40 , 21 (b) 26, (c) 3, 4, 8 (d) 33,
25, 31 56, 65
Ans (d)
49 A piece of wire when bent to form a circle will
have a radius of 112 cm. If the wire is bent to
form a square, the length of a side of the
square is
(a) 168 cm (b) 176 (c) 184 cm (d) 200
cm cm
Ans (b)
50 Length and breadth of a rectangular plot is
16m & 8m respectively. Find the square root of
the difference between Area and Perimeter?
(a) 80 (b) 40 (c) 4√ 5 (d) 16
√5
Ans (c)

51 If log103 = 0.477, then the value of log109 is

(a) 1 (b) (c) 0.954 (d)
0.477 0.523
Ans (c)
52 If log32x + log32(1/8) = 1/5, then the value of x
is equal to
(a) 8 (b) 5 (c) 16 (d) 32
Ans (c)
53 Find the value of log1 + log 2 + log 3.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d)
None of
these
Ans (d)
54 The value of logabc a3b3c3 is
(a) a (b) abc (c) 3 (d) 37
Ans (c)
55 Evaluate log327 + log7(1/343)
(a) 3 (b) – 3 (c) 0 (d) 7
Ans (c)
56 If Mini downloads three more songs in her mobile, she will have songs worth 512
MB in her mobile. If on an average each song is 4 MB, how many songs did she
initially have in her phone before downloading?
(a) 125 (b) 128 (c) 140 (d) 150
Ans (a)
57 Rahul played well in this season. His current batting average is 51. If he scores 78
runs in today's match, his batting average will become 54. How many matches
had he played in this season?
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 6
Ans (a)
58 In a class of 50 students, the average age of girls is 12.3 years and that of boys is
12.5 years. If the average age of the class is 12.42 years, then the number of boys
and girls respectively in the class are
(a)(25, 25) (b)(20, 30) (c)(30, 20) (d)(35, 15)
Ans (c)
59 A field person of a customer care department of a company on an average attends
to 3 complaints. If customer care receives about 200 complaints daily, and have
45 field persons to attend to these, how many complaints are to be out sourced?
(a) 145 (b) 135 (c) 85 (d) 65
Ans (d)
60 The average of 7 numbers is 50. The average of first three of them is 40, while the
average of the last three is 60. What must be the remaining number?
(a) 65 (b) 60 (c) 50 (d) 55
Ans (c)
61 Find the 10th element in the series 5, 15, 35, 45 .....
(a) 95 (b) 85 (c) 65 (d) Cannot be
determined
Ans (d)
62 Find the sum of the first 14 terms for a sequence starting with 2, ending with 120
and common difference 2.
(a) 210 (b) 854 (c) 800 (d) 472
Ans (a)
63 Find the 7th term in the series 4, 8, 16 …
(a) 512 (b) 256 (c) 64 (d) 128
Ans (b)
64 Find the sum of the first 5 terms in 3, 9, 27…
(a) 363 (b) 121 (c) 242 (d) 112
Ans (a)
65 A man saves Rs.16,500 in 10 years. If he increases savings amount every year by
Rs.100, then, what will be his savings amount during the first year?
(a)Rs.1200 (b)Rs.500 (c)Rs.1500 (d)Rs.1700
Ans (a)

SOFT SKILLS

01 An interview, in which you ask about a candidate's behaviour in a certain given situation is
(a) situational (b) situational test (c) behavioural tests (d) job related
interview questions
Ans (a)
02 A group of interviewers, asking questions to an interviewee is called
(a) panel interview (b) mass interview (c) computer (d) None of these
interview
Ans (a)
03 Questions related to working experiences are raised in
(a) situational (b) situational test (c) behavioural tests (d) job related
interview questions
Ans (d)
04 Why do you want to enter this career? What will be the suitable answer for this question
from the given options?
(a) Because I have a long standing interest in this field.
(b) Because I have the following skills to offer.
 (c) My careers adviser suggested it would be suitable for me.
(d) Because I think that this career will offer me better salary packages.
Ans (b)
05 What is the reality check in the question “Where do you see yourself in 5 years”?
(a) Candidates (b) Candidates (c) Work efficiency (d) All of these
commitment to the career growth
company
Ans (a)
06 During an interview, what will be the best answer for this question – “Do you have any
questions you would like to ask us?”
(a) No! I've read your very informative brochure which has answered all my questions.
(b) Yes! I would like to ask you about training and career development
(c) Yes! I have lots of questions I wish to ask.
(d) None of these
Ans (b)
07 You are planning your outfit for an upcoming interview. What is the most appropriate
attire?
(a) If you are a male, a suit and tie is best. If you're a female, a dress of a solid color is
preferred.
(b) The most appropriate outfit will depend on the type of occupation or industry for
which you are attending the interview.
(c) A readily identifiable designer shoe or designer logo implies that you have good taste.
(d) Wear your best aftershave or cologne/perfume and jewelry, one that your friends have
complimented you on.
Ans (b)
08 You are preparing to talk about your job skills. What might be three important general
categories on which you have to concentrate?
(a) Communication skills, interviewing skills, presentation skills
(b) Technology skills, computer skills, resolving conflict skills
(c) Communication skills, interpersonal skills, technology skills
(d) Listening skills, presentation skills, writing skills
Ans (c)
09 Which one of the following option is generally ignored when it comes to grooming?
(a) Dress code (b) Hair do (c) Accessories (d) Smile
Ans (d)
10 Which among the following options is the best answer for the question “Why should I hire
you”?
(a) Personal (b) Networking (c) USP (d) All of these
branding
Ans (c)

11 What is considered to be the essential part of your job search tool kit?
(a) Job searching (b) Power dressing (c) Resume building (d) Time
websites Management skills
Ans: [c]
12 Which among these four choices does not relate to the use of a Template in a Resume?
(a) Resume is (b) Professionalism (c) Resume is Style (d) None of these
Colourful and elegant
Ans: [a]
13 What is not the specific use of a Resume-builder?
 (a) Eases your time (b) Opportunity to (c) Able to access a (d) Can copy
fill in blanks variety of templates another style of
resume
Ans: [d]
14 What is the specific advantage of a resume template?
(a) It boosts your (b) It’s a quick and (c) It enhances your (d) It gives an added
self confidence level easy way to create a readability skill. advantage over
resume. other candidates.
Ans: [b]
15 What is the specific disadvantage of a resume template?
(i) It saves time
(ii) It is easier
(iii) It improves quality of your application
(iv) Its helps in grabbing attention
(v) It helps to avoid mistakes

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv) (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) (d) None of these
only only only
Ans: [d]
16 What isn’t the most appropriate method to layout your resume?

(a) Creative (b) Unique (c) Interesting (d) Cluttered

Ans: [d]
17 What are the reasons for not using a resume template?
(i) It’s same as everyone else.
(ii) A lot of the templates out there are substandard
(iii) You are selling yourself short

(a) (i), (ii) only (b) (ii), (iii) only (c) (i), (ii), (iii) (d) None of these
Ans: [c]
18 Which of the following is not mandatory in a resume?
(a) educational (b)mail id (c) contact number (d) favourite food
qualification
Ans: [d]
19 Which of the following is not an appropriate reason for avoiding a Resume template?
(a) The resume is (b) Many templates (c) Template can be (d) The template
same as everyone out there are used to sell yourself looks professional
else substandard short
Ans: [d]
20 Below are the contents of a resume, select the best combination for making it a perfect
resume?
(i) Career objective
(ii) Academic Qualification
(iii) Skills set
(iv) Projects , Training and Internships
(v) Extra/Co-curricular activities
(vi) Achievements
(vii) Personal details

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (b)(i), (ii), (iii), (v), (c) (i), (iv), (v), (vi), (d) (iii), (iv), (v),
(v), (vi), (vii ) (vi), (vii) (vii) (vi), (vii)
Ans: [a]
21 What is the process of using symbols to communicate thoughts and ideas?
(a) Speaking (b) Doodling (c) Debaing (d) Writing
Ans: [d]
22 What is the error in sentence formation in content called?
(a) Contextual Error (b) Grammatical (c) Logical Error (d) Factual Error
Error
Ans: [b]
23 What are the key points penned down during a seminar/lecture called?
(a) Notes (b) Answers (c) Question (d) Essay
Ans: [a]
24 What is the diagram that displays information visually?
(a) Flowchart (b) Timeline chart (c) Graphic chart (d) Mind map
Ans: [d]
25 What is a well organised document which defines, analyses a subject and its problem?
(a) Document (b) Article (c) Report (d) Review
Ans: [c]
26 What are the two types of reports?
(a) Formal & (b) Formal & (c) Direct & Formal (d) Formal &
Informal Detailed Illustrative
Ans: [a]
27 What is the final step in reporting without which it is considered incomplete?
(a) Presentation (b) Statistical data (c) Analysing data (d) Reviewing
Ans: [d]
28 What is the goal of Product Description?
(a) Makes the (b) Makes the (c) Makes the (d) Makes the
customer dislike the customer to customer review the customer buy the
product recommend the product product
product
Ans: [d]
29 What is the main focus of a Product Description?
(a) Only the product (b) Only the features (c) Product, features (d) The aesthetics of
of the product and target audience the product
Ans: [c]
30 What is the activity that is quite related to product description?
(a) Public Speaking (b) Poetry writing (c) Story Telling (d) Elocution
Ans: [c]

31. Which of the following is the trait of a good listener?

(a) Being evaluative (b) Reflecting (c) Non-Paraphrasing (d) Responding verbally
implications
Ans (b)
32. Which of the following defines hearing?
(a) An active process (b) An ability to (c) An action in which a (d) None of these
with much effort. accurately receive and sound is perceived by the
interpret messages. ear.
Ans (c)
33. What is the benefit of focused listening?
(a) Critically analyse (b) Not to reflect on what (c) Contribution for (d) Taking less effort
one’s thinking process. one has understood. enhanced listening skill. than partial listening.
Ans (a)
34. Which among the following options should be considered when deciding between the casual listening and
focused listening?
 (a) Purpose (b) Platform (c) Resources (d) All of these
Ans (d)
35. Which is the most important part of giving an oral presentation?
(a) Hearing (b) Voice (c) Both of these (d) None of these
Ans (b)
36. Which of the following is a trait of an expressive voice?
(a) Does not Pause (b) Does not carry (c) Modulation in voice (d) No modulation in
emotions voice
Ans (c)
37. What should the listeners focus on while listening to a voice?
(a) Focus on the timbre (b) Volume changes (c) Catch the pitch (d) All of these
Ans (d)
38. Which of the following is to be remembered when interpreting the messages?
(a) Analyse the evidence (b) Not asking questions (c) Jump immediately to (d) Hearing to what
conclusions people say
Ans (a)
39. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the non-verbal communication?
(a) No use of words (b) Not culturally (c) Vague and imprecise (d) Largely unconscious
determined
Ans (b)
40. What is the key component of verbal communication?
(a) Debating (b) Stimulating thought (c) Creating new (d) Clarification
relations
Ans (d)
41. From the given options which is not the function of non-verbal communication?
(a) Communicating (b) Reflecting personality (c) Helps to clarify (d) Supporting verbal
interpersonal misunderstandings interactions
relationships
Ans (c)
42. When is verbal communication enhanced in a person?
(a) When a person is an (b) When a person does (c) When a person is (d) None of these
effective listener. not have to articulate multi-tasking.
themselves.
Ans (a)
43. The ability to pay attention and effectively interpret what other people are saying is called
(a) Speaking (b) Listening (c) Reading (d) Writing
Ans (b)
44. Hearing means
(a) Referring to sounds (b) Use to comprehend (c) Listening (d) None of these
usually we hear what we hear
Ans (a)
45. Listening means
(a) You hear and (b) Also called as hearing (c) Sounds you hear (d) Physical reaction to
comprehend sounds
Ans (a)
46. If you are the manager of the company and when your subordinate approaches you with the problem you
should
(a) Be arrogant (b) React (c) Respond (d) Ignore
Ans (c)
47. Once Buddha said “if you open your mouth, you are not learning.” It means you should be a good
 (a) Speaker (b) Listener (c) Writer (d) Reader
Ans (b)
48. To avoid conflict and learn more valuable information we require
(a) Listening skill (b) Writing skill (c) Reading skill (d) None of these
Ans (a)
49. You are not listening, your mind is somewhere else, and you are pretending to be interested. It is called
(a) Cosmetic listening (b) Conversational (c) Active listening (d) Deep listening
listening
Ans (a)
50. If you are engaged in talking and thinking. It is called
(a) Cosmetic listening (b) Conversational (c) Active listening (d) Deep listening
listening
Ans (b)
51. You are very focused on the other self, aware of both the content and music, listening for ‘foreground’ and
‘background’. It is called
(a) Cosmetic listening (b) Conversational (c) Active listening (d) Deep listening
listening
Ans (d)
52. You are focused on what the other person is saying. It is called
(a) Cosmetic listening (b) Conversational (c) Active listening (d) Deep listening
listening
Ans (c)
53. _______________ is the process of receiving, constructing meaning from, and responding to spoken/or non-verbal
messages.
(a) Listening (b) Speaking (c) Writing (d) Reading
Ans (a)
54. Distinction is made between the sounds of the voices of the parents – the voice of the father sounds different
to that of the mother. It is called
(a) discriminative (b) comprehensive (c) active listening (d) deep listening
listening listening
Ans (a)
55. “To put yourself into the speaker’s shoes and share their thoughts”. It is called_____________
(a) empathic listening (b) comprehensive (c) active listening (d) conversational
listening listening
Ans (a)
56. ______________ is helping a friend talk through a problem, and is critical as a base for building strong
interpersonal relationships.
(a) Empathic listening (b)Relationship listening (c)Active listening (d)Conversational
listening
Ans (b)
57. Which type of listening you need to ask yourself, “What is the speaker actually trying to say?”
(a) Empathic listening (b) Critical listening (c) Active listening (d) Conversational
listening
Ans (b)
58. ______________enables you to acquire facts so that you can make decisions that benefit your business.
(a) Listening (b) Speaking (c) Writing (d)Decision making
Ans (a)
59. Listening is essential to building trust. If one member of a team doesn’t listen to instructions, an entire project
might fail. To develop trust we require good
(a) Speaking skills (b) Writing skills (c) Listening skills (d) Thinking skills
Ans (c)
60. ______________learning through conversation and an engaged interchange of ideas and information in which we
actively seek to learn more about the person and how they think.
(a) Dialogic (b) Therapeutic listening (c) Empathetic (d) Sympathetic
Ans (a)
61. What part of the mind is involved during process of listening?
(a) Conscious psyche (b) Unconscious psyche (c) Sub-conscious psyche (d) None of these
Ans (a)
62. Hearing is______________process.
(a) voluntary (b) involuntary (c) reflexive (d) non reflexive
Ans (b)
63. Listening is ______________ process.
(a) voluntary (b) involuntary (c) reflexive (d) non reflexive
Ans (a)
64. Listening is ______________act.
(a) psychological (b) physiological (c) biological (d) behavioural
Ans (a)
65. Hearing is ______________act.
(a) psychological (b) physiological (c) biological (d) behavioural
Ans (b)

66 Choose the most appropriate option

_______ skills are the mental processes that we apply when we seek to make sense
of experience.
(a) Thinking (b) Listening (c) Writing (d) Reading
Ans (a)
67 Choose the most appropriate option
In order to tackle a problem, you need to_______.
(a) Ignore the problem
(b) Know the root cause of the problem
(c) Just identify what the problem is
(d) Keep thinking about the problem
Ans (b)
68 Choose the most appropriate option
Problem solving involves overcoming the _______ or obstacles that prevent the
immediate achievement of goals.
(a) objectives (b) aims (c) barriers (d) focus
Ans (c)
69 Choose the most appropriate option
The steps taken towards solving problems must be focused more towards _______.
(a) hibernating the pro
(b) temporarily stopping the problem
(c) curbing it altogether
(d) finding solutions for another problem
Ans (c)
70 Choose the most appropriate option
The Simplex process is a robust creative _______ process.
 (a) brainstorming (b) mathematical (c) analogical (d) problem –
solving
Ans (d)
71 Choose the most appropriate option
The Simplex process is known to work in a _______ manner when dealing with
issues.
(a) holistic (b) step by step (c) division (d) forceful
Ans (b)
72 Choose the most appropriate option
_______ is one of the primary steps in the Simplex process.
(a) Fact finding (b) Elucidation (c) Failure (d) Data
restoration
Ans (a)
73 Choose the most appropriate option
When you plan on solving a problem, you must start finding ways to _______ it.
(a) lay (b) stop (c) execute (d) delay
Ans (c)
74 Choose the most appropriate option
_______skills help in laying out the actions for problem - solving.
(a) Change (b) Thinking (c) Improving (d) Time
management management
Ans (a)
75 Choose the most appropriate option
_______ helps explore where things could go wrong.
(a) Risk analysis (b) Force field (c) Thinking hats (d) Selling ideas
analysis
Ans (a)
76 Choose the most appropriate option
________ is the process of making important choices.
(a) Logical (b) Decision (c) Routsis (d) Evaluation
thinking making
Ans (b)
77 Choose the most appropriate option
________ perspective is the decision – making process regarded as a continuous
process integrated in the interaction with the environment.
(a) Normative (b) Psychological (c) Cognitive (d)
Communicative
Ans (c)
78 Choose the most appropriate option
In Logical decision – making which is an important part of all science - based
professions, specialists apply their _____
(a) analysis (b) diagnosis (c) intuition (d) knowledge
Ans (d)
79 Choose the most appropriate option
________ is using the facts and figures in front of you to make decisions.
(a) Reasoning (b) Ratiocination (c) Proposition (d) Validity
Ans (a)
80 Choose the most appropriate option
MCDA is________.
 (a) Multiple – (b) Multi- Critical (c) Monastic (d) Montreal
criteria decision Diagnostic Chastity diabolic Charity for Dialysis
analysis Analysis academy Ability
Ans (a)
81 Choose the most appropriate option
_______ can be regarded as a problem solving activity terminated by solution
deemed to be optimal.
(a) Discussion (b) Meditation (c) Decision – (d) Questioning
forum making
Ans (c)
82 Choose the most appropriate option
____________ is a method for approaching a problem or a challenge in an imaginative
and innovative way.
(a) Simple (b) Creative (c) Rational (d) None of these
problem solving problem solving problem solving
Ans (b)
83 Choose the most appropriate option
_______ is using one’s ‘gut feeling’ about possible courses of action.
(a) Execution (b) Criticism (c) Results (d) Intuition
Ans (d)
84 Choose the most appropriate option
Which one of the following hinders effective decision making?
(a) Adequate (b) Highly skilled (c) Lack of (d)
information workers information Understandable
employees
Ans (c)
85 Choose the most appropriate option
Before implementing a decision, which one among the following can be considered
the most important one?
(a) Find out the correct time to do it
(b) Double check the outcome of that particular decision
(c) Spreading out certain information about the decision
(d) All of these
Ans (b)

VERBAL ABILITY

1. Read the passage and answer the question that follow.

The number of people diagnosed with dengue fever (which is contracted from the bite of an infected
mosquito) in North India this year is twice the number diagnosed last year. The authorities have concluded
that measures to control the mosquito population have failed in this region.
All of the following, if true, would cast doubt on the authorities conclusion except
(a)more cases are now (b)a very high proportion (c)the disease is (d)the incidence
reported because of of the cases were in prevalent only in some (number of cases per
 increases in administrative people who had recently industrialized areas thousand) of malaria,
efficiency. returned from which have shown a also contracted from
neighbouring countries. dramatic increase in mosquito bites, has
population due to increased.
migration.
Ans: [d]
2. Read the passage and answer the question that follow.
Red is a color which has powerful effects on human beings as well as animals. A group of psychologists carried
out an experiment which confirms the subconscious effects of this color on human behavior. They provided
selected sports teams at school and college level with either red or blue shorts and recorded the outcome of
the games. The teams wearing red won in a disproportionate number of matches. The psychologists suggested
that either the teams wearing red subconsciously felt themselves more powerful, or that the non-red teams
were subconsciously intimidated by the red color.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the psychologists’ suggestion?
(a)Each team wore red in (b)The colour blue has (c) The effect was only (d)Red signifies danger
some matches and blue in the subconscious effect of observed if all the team in some cultures
others. making human beings members wore white whereas it signifies
less competitive. shirts. happiness in others.
Ans: [b]
3. Read the passage and answer the question that follow.
It is strange that in Sentacity there are so many corner shops selling food items. After all there are many
supermarkets in the city which sell food at cheaper prices, and many of these supermarkets are open 24-
hours.
Which of the following, if true, would be of least help in explaining the paradoxical observation?
(a) The corner shops are (b) The supermarkets are (c) The main business of (d)The corner shops
selling specialist food mostly located on the the local shops is are willing to make
items not available in the outskirts of the city and newspaper distribution home deliveries.
supermarkets. require residents to use and food items represent
cars or public transport to a small part of their
reach them. turnover.
Ans: [d]

4 Answer the question based on the given information.

During the past 20 years, computer scientists focused increasingly on starting and running
successful businesses. However, since businesses must be profitable, computer scientists
must focus on developing products that generate profit. Consequently, computer science
has lost its creative aspect.
Which of the following assumption is most necessary in order for the conclusion above to
be drawn from the argument above?
(a) All computer programs must lack creativity in order to be well received.
(b) Some computer scientists entirely disregarded creativity and chose instead to pursue
profit.
(c) A program cannot be both creative and profitable.
(d) Computer scientists are obsessed with the profitability of their work.
(e) Non-profit institutions use large amounts of software.
Ans (c)
5 Answer the question based on the given information.
After thousands of miles of use, the tread on many bike tires wears down. One common
theory about why tires wear down contends that the perpetual friction and heat generated
by the contact between the tire and pavement erode the material on the surface of the tire.
However, a local scientist who is also an avid cyclist proposed a new theory for why bike
tires wear down. This scientist contended that chemicals from the road's composition and
 chemicals from rain residue wore down the surface of the tire.
Which of the following would best evaluate the veracity of the scientist's proposed theory?
(a) Ride a road bike aggressively through spring rain storms.
(b) Place chemicals from rain water and pavement on a bike's idle tires.
(c) Ascertain whether chemicals from the road's composition also reside within the
bike's frame.
(d) Ascertain whether the bike's frame is made of rust-resistant components.
(e) Determine the number of miles that a bike tire can be used on a wet road before
wearing down
Ans (b)
6 Answer the question based on the given information.
For years, a considerable number of students on West County High School's track team
complained about shin splints (medial tibial syndrome). However, during the most recent
season, the number of students who complained about shin splints dropped significantly.
School officials assert that this reduction in complaints occurred entirely as a result of the
school's decision to build a new running track that provided a softer running surface,
which absorbed much of the shock on the knees and shins that occurs when running and
causes shin splints.
Which of the following, if true, most severely weakens the school officials' explanation for
the decrease in complaints about shin splints?
(a) As a result of West County High School's adoption of better medical staff and new
medical scanning devices, many students whose complaints would have been
diagnosed in years past as an instance of shin splints are now diagnosed with a
different condition.
(b) West County High School built its track after a number of neighboring schools with
similar track teams built new tracks and each school saw the number of
complaints about shin splints drop.
(c) This past season, members of West County High School's track team received and
wore new and highly acclaimed shoes designed to soften the impact of running on
the shin and knee.
(d) This past season, the total number of students who complained of pain while running
rose.
(e) The maker of the new track claims that on average, complaints about shin splints fall
25% when its tracks are implemented
Ans (c)
7 Answer the question based on the given information.
Based upon the results of a recent study, the net value of assets held by young adults or for
the benefit of young adults exceeds the net value of assets held by middle-age working
professionals with children. The common notion that young adults or so-called "twenty
somethings" are bigger spenders and smaller savers than middle-age adults is, therefore,
false.
The argument is primarily flawed for which of the following reasons?
(a) The argument does not properly consider the impact of the debt financing of assets.
(b) The argument never discusses the effects of filing for bankruptcy and twenty
somethings' proclivity for deficit spending leading to bankruptcy.
(c) The argument never discusses the role that the country's tax code, which encourages
financial investment on the part of twenty somethings, plays.
(d) The argument does not specify the exact amounts of saving and spending on the part
of each age group.
(e) The argument never considers that the study compares assets held both by or for
the benefit of young adults with assets held by working adults
Ans (e)
8 Answer the question based on the given information.
Authors writing detective stories frequently include a brilliant detective and an
incompetent investigator who embark on separate paths in an attempt to solve a crime.
The separate accounts frequently consist of the incompetent investigator becoming
distracted by the criminals' well-planned attempts and the competent detective solving
the case after a violent confrontation. Many literary analysts believe authors often choose
this storyline in an attempt to provide readers additional complexity and challenge in
solving the investigation.
Which of the following most logically follows from the statements above?
(a) A well-written detective story consists of an investigation being undertaken by a
competent and incompetent investigator.
(b) Some authors use an incompetent investigator to show the complexities of an
investigation.
(c) Authors never write stories with incompetent investigators who solve a case
correctly.
(d) Authors can use the separate investigative accounts to make predicting the correct
outcome of the investigation more difficult.
(e) Authors write stories with competent and incompetent investigators to show the
complexity of real life.
Ans (d)
9 Answer the question based on the given information.
After studying a random sample of 1024 individuals who had smoked daily for at least
three years and comparing the results of this study with the results of a study of 1024
individuals who had never smoked, a group of researchers concluded that habitual
smoking causes increased difficulties in concentrating.
Which of the following, if true, most severely weakens the researchers' conclusion?
(a) The addiction to smoking and the cravings this addiction engenders is often on the
mind of habitual smokers.
(b) Some non-smokers with attention deficit disorder (ADD), which causes an inability to
concentrate, display even less ability to concentrate than some smokers.
(c) A separate research study found that smokers and non-smokers exhibited
statistically significant differences in their incarceration rates.
(d) After developing a severe addiction to smoking for fifteen years, the ability of many
individuals to concentrate is decreased.
(e) A separate research study found that individuals with preexisting attention and
concentration disorders exhibited significantly higher rates of trying cigarettes and
subsequently becoming addicted to smoking.
Ans (e)
10 Answer the question based on the given information.
Virtually all health experts agree that second-hand smoke poses a serious health risk.
After the publication of yet another research paper explicating the link between exposure
to second-hand smoke and a shorter life span, some members of the State House of
Representatives proposed a ban on smoking in most public places in an attempt to
promote quality of life and length of lifespan.
Which of the following, if true, provides the most support for the actions of the State
Representatives?
(a) The amount of damaging chemicals and fumes released into the air by cigarette
smoke is far less than the amount released from automobiles, especially from
older models.
(b) Banning smoking in most public places will not considerably reduce the percent of
the population in the state in question that smokes.

(c) The state whose legislators are proposing the tough smoking legislation has a
 relatively high percent of its population that smoke.
(d) Another state that enacted a similar law a decade ago saw a statistically significant
drop in lung-cancer rates among non-smokers.
(e) A nearby state up-wind has the highest number of smokers in the country.
Ans (d)
11 Answer the question based on the given information.
Wine Company Representative: The corks of red wine bottles pose a threat to the
environment because they are treated with chemicals that are especially toxic in landfills.
However, the new cork that our company developed, which will be adopted by the entire
red wine industry, represents a solution. Since the new cork is natural and not treated
with chemicals, when the industry completes its transition to the new cork, there will no
longer be any threat to landfills from red wine corks.
Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument above?
(a) The industry's transition to the new red wine corks will take years, allowing
thousands of old corks to pollute landfills.
(b) Even after the industry's transition to new corks, a large number of wine bottles with
old corks will continue to be consumed.
(c) The new corks take considerably longer to produce.
(d) Production of the new cork emits more toxic fumes than were emitted in the
production of the old cork.
(e) The new corks are more expensive than the old corks.
Ans (b)
12 Answer the question based on the given information.
A political party considered by many citizens extreme and incompetent is working hard at
overcoming what it perceives as an unfair and prejudiced public image. The group
believes it is stereotyped simply because it opposes any preemptive military action, which
is unpopular, and calls for a 50% reduction in carbon emissions, a cut far more severe
than most citizens want.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the party's belief about the source of
its poor public image?
(a) The current ruling political party, whose popularity is at near record levels, launched
a preemptive military strike against a neighboring country three weeks ago.
(b) A neighboring country recently suffered a surprise attack that devastated its country
and polluted its environment.
(c) A popular rival party bans unilateral attacks to defend the homeland and
unconditionally supports a 60% reduction in carbon emissions.
(d) A recent poll showed that a party whose most prominent candidate supports
preemptive war and minimal carbon restrictions is quite popular.
(e) Twenty years ago, a pacifist party successfully and popularly ruled the country
Ans (c)
13 Answer the question based on the given information.
Net Neutrality stipulates that Internet service providers (ISP) cannot partition their
bandwidth such that different types of Internet communications have different maximum
bandwidth capacities. For example, an ISP cannot relegate high bandwidth voice-over-IP
(VoIP) traffic to a separate tunnel in an attempt to ensure that users of low-bandwidth
functions such as plain-text email are not slowed down by the high-bandwidth users.
Some individuals support implementing Net Neutrality on the principle that one group
(i.e., users of high-bandwidth services) should not be effectively penalized for the actions
of another group (i.e., users of slow-bandwidth services, who have a special traffic lane
carved out for them, thereby slowing high-bandwidth users).
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument of the supporters of
Net Neutrality mentioned above?
(a) The jobs of many high-bandwidth users require these individuals to use high-
 bandwidth services.
(b) Placing no restrictions on the bandwidth of individuals who use high-bandwidth
services would force ISPs to purchase massive amounts of expensive additional
bandwidth, disproportionately increasing the price of access for low-bandwidth
users.
(c) A strong and well respected lobbying firm recently revealed it has been hired by large
telecommunications firms to oppose Net Neutrality on the grounds that it
infringes upon a private company's ability to do business.
(d) One country that mandated Net Neutrality saw a decrease in satisfaction of Internet
users.
(e) A recent court ruling upheld the principle that technology companies cannot
discriminate in whom they serve or how they serve users.
Ans (d)

14 Answer the question based on the given information.

It is often thought that our own modern age is unique in having a large number of
people who live into old age. It has frequently been assumed that plagues, wars, and
harsh working conditions killed off most people in previous ages before they could reach
old age. However, recent research shows that in 17th century Europe, for example,
people over sixty comprised 10 percent of the population. The studies also revealed that
although infant mortality remained high until the 20th century in Europe, people who
survived to adulthood could expect to live to be old.
The portions in boldface play which of the following roles in the argument above?
(a) The first is a conclusion that the author supports. The second is data that contradicts
that conclusion.
(b) The first is a finding that the author contests. The second is a finding that the author
accepts.
(c) The first is an assumption that the author thinks is invalid. The second is data that
validates that assumption.
(d) The first is a position that the author opposes. The second is a finding that supports
the author’s position.
(e) The first is a position that the author opposes. The second is an assumption which, if
valid, negates the author’s view.
Ans (d)
15 Answer the question based on the given information.
The Dean claimed that, as a result of continued cutbacks in the budget for pure science
research, fewer students are choosing a career in physics, and therefore the number of
postgraduate students studying physics is likely to decline.
Which of the following, if true, casts most doubt on the Dean’s conclusion?
(a) The number of students majoring in physics at the undergraduate level has been
increasing steadily over the years, a trend that is expected to continue.
(b) The number of students studying chemistry declined even before cutbacks in
research funding were noted.
(c) Most postgraduate students of physics move to careers in computer science and
engineering.
(d) The Dean’s own university has recently increased the number of staff members
teaching physics.
(e) The budget cutbacks are less severe for the pure sciences than for applied sciences
Ans (c)
16 Answer the question based on the given information.
A nature conservancy expert found little support for his campaign to protect toads. He
suggested that, even though the campaign highlighted the vital role the toads played in the
ecology of the region, people were unenthusiastic about saving toads as these animals are
perceived as unpleasant creatures, and people seldom feel passionate about animals with
which they have no positive feelings.
The expert’s opinion would be most strengthened by which of the following observations?
(a) Ecological conservation is an increasingly important concern in the region.
(b) A recent campaign to save bats achieved a measure of success only after a cartoon bat
was adopted as the mascot of the local football team.
(c) Snakes and lizards also need protection in this region as a result of human activity.
(d) The campaign to protect toads has been in existence for over five years and yet the
toad population continues to decline.
(e) The children in the local schools were found to have a greater aversion to toads than
to snakes.
Ans (b)
17 Answer the question based on the given information.
Many people report that exposure to certain foods such as cheese, red wine, and chocolate,
are associated with the onset of migraine headaches. Other people report that exposure to
certain smells (especially strong perfumes) seems to trigger a migraine headache, and
some note that exposure to bright and flickering lights can be followed by a migraine. It
would seem that a person with a tendency to get migraines should try to find which of
these situations is associated with the onset of the headache and then avoid this stimulus.
All of the following, if true, would indicate potential problems with the recommendation
belowexcept
(a) the time delay between the trigger and the onset of the headache can make it
exceptionally difficult to identify the trigger
(b) the presence of a known trigger doesn’t always cause a migraine
(c) in many cases an internal hormonal change triggers a migraine
(d) in a high proportion of cases the patients report multiple triggers for their headaches
(e) most of the known triggers are common and almost unavoidable features of modern
life
Ans (b)
18 Answer the question based on the given information.
It is strange that in Sentacity there are so many corner shops selling food items. After all
there are many supermarkets in the city which sell food at cheaper prices, and many of
these supermarkets are open 24-hours.
Which of the following, if true, would be of least help in explaining the paradoxical
observation?
(a) The corner shops are selling specialist food items not available in the supermarkets.
(b) The supermarkets are mostly located on the outskirts of the city and require
residents to use cars or public transport to reach them.
(c) The main business of the local shops is newspaper distribution and food items
represent a small part of their turnover.
(d) The corner shops are mainly family-owned businesses and have been there for much
longer than the supermarkets and are perceived as an important feature of the
community.
(e) The corner shops are willing to make home deliveries
Ans (e)