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Criminal Jurisprudence Reviewer
Criminal Jurisprudence Reviewer
Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery B. Direct Bribery
killed his father. C. Corruption of Public Officials
What was the crime committed? D. Qualified Bribery
A. Murder Answer: D
B. Parricide
C. Homicide 6. Which of the following is the exemption to the
D. Qualified Homicide hearsy rule made
Answer: B under the consciousness of an impending death?
A. Parol Evidence
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against B. Ante mortem statement
the latter’s will C. Suicide note
on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms D. Dead man statute
in his home. What was the crime committed by
PO3 Bagsik? Answer: D
A. Trespass to Dwelling
B. Violation of Domicile 7. Factum probans means __.
C. Usurpation Of Authority A. preponderance of evidence
D. Forcible Trespassing B. ultimate fact
Answer: B C. evidentiary fact
D. sufficiency of evidence
3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 Answer: C
months.They
live together with the children of Lea from her first 8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted
husband. from one
Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year generation to another.
old daughter of A. inheritance
Lea.Jane loves Charlie very much.What was the B. heritage
crime committed C. pedigree
by Charlie? D. culture
A. Simple Seduction Answer: C
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Consented Abduction 9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the
D. Rape case in the
Answer: B first instance.
A. Appellate Jurisdiction
B. General Jurisdiction
4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his C. Original Jurisdiction
students, Lito. When D. Exclusive Jurisdiction
the two met the following day, Lito slapped Answer: C
Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime
committed by Lito? 10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute
A. Corruption of Public Officials litigants.
B. Direct Assault A. Counsel de officio
C. Slight Physical Injuries B. Attorney on record
D. Grave Coercion C. Attorney at law
Answer: B D. Special counsel Answer: A
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the 11. Which of the following is not covered by the
killing of his Rules on Summary
parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest Procedure?
him,Fred gave him 1 A. Violation of rental laws
million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang B. Violation of traffic laws
refrained in arresting C. The penalty is more than six months of
Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 imprisonment
Tapang? D. The penalty does not exceed six months
A. Indirect Bribery imprisonment
Answer: C C. sedition
D. scandal
12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of Answer: B
the court is to
be exercised. 18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who
A. jurisdiction compels another
B. jurisprudence person to change his residence.
C. venue A. violation of domicile
D. bench B. arbitrary detention
Answer: C C. expulsion
D. direct assault
13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law. Answer: C
A. RA 6425
B. RA 8353 19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty
C. BP.22 of another
D. RA 6975 person without legal grounds.
Answer: C A. illegal detention
B. arbitrary detention
14. The taking of another person’s personal property, C. forcible abduction
with intent to D. forcible detention
gain, by means of force and intimidation. Answer: A
A. qualified theft
B. robbery 20. An offense committed by a married woman
C. theft through carnal
D. malicious mischief knowledge with a man not her husband who
Answer: B knows her to be
married, although the marriage can be later
15. Felony committed when a person compels declared void.
another by means of A. concubinage
force, violence or intimidation to do something B. bigamy
against his will, C. adultery
whether right or wrong. D. immorality
A. grave threat Answer: C
B. grave coercion
C. direct assault
D. slander by deed
Answer: B 21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the
commission of a crime.
A. 15-18 years old
16. These are persons having no apparent means of B. 18-70 years old
subsistence but C. 9 years old and below
have the physical ability to work and neglect to D. between 9 and 15 years old
apply himself or Answer: C
herself to lawful calling.
A. Pimps 22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the
B. prostitutes execution of
C. gang members the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
D. vagrants A. Accomplices
Answer: D B. Suspects
C. principal actors
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade D. accessories
of discordant Answer: A
noises designed to annoy and insult.
A. Tumultuous 23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the
B. charivari government to execute
the final sentence after the lapse of a certaintime D. cruelty
fixed by law. Answer: B
A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution 29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall
C. prescription of judgement have acted
D. prescription of penalty together in the commission of a crime.
Answer: D A. gang
B. conspiracy
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the C. band
execution of penalty D. piracy
is suspended. Answer: C
A. Pardon
B. commutation 30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one
C. amnesty is bound to.
D. reprieve A. Negligence
Answer: D B. imprudence
C. omission
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed D. act
to secure a Answer: C
more orderly regulation of the affairs of the
society. 31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of
A. mala prohibita trapping and
B. mala in se capturing the law breaker in the execution of his
C. private crimes criminal plan.
D. public crimes A. Misfeasance
Answer: A B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation Answer:
B
26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees
to commit an
act in consideration of a gift and this act is 32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for
connected with the reasons of
discharge of his public duties. public policy and sentiment there is no penalty
A. qualified bribery imposed.
B. direct bribery A. impossible crimes
C. estafa B. aggravating circumstances
D. indirect bribery C. absolutory causes
Answ D. Complex Crimes
er: B Answ
er: C
27. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood
under oath of 33. One of the following is an alternative
affirmation, administered by authority of law on a circumstance.
material matter. A. Insanity
A. libel B. intoxication
B. falsification C. passion or obfuscation
C. perjury D. evident premeditation
D. slander Answer: B
Answer: C
34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution. conditional plea of guilty,
A. Treachery what shall be entered for him?
B. evident premeditation A. a plea of not guilty
C. ignominy B. a plea of guilty
C. a plea of mercy D. Judgment
D. a plea of surrender Answer: D
Answer: A
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of
35. At what time may the accused move to quash determining
the complaint or whether there is sufficient ground to engender a
information? well founded
A. at any time before his arrest belief that an offense has been committed and the
B. only after entering his plea offender is
C. any time before entering his plea probably guilty thereof and should be held for
D. Monday morning trial.
A. pre-trial
Answer: C B. arraignment
C. preliminary investigation
36. The process whereby the accused and the D. plea bargaining
prosecutor in a Answer: C
criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory
disposition on the case subject to court approval. 41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same
A. Arraignment state of facts.
B. plea bargaining A. secondary evidence
C. preliminary investigation B. prima facie evidence
D. trial C. corroborative evidence
Answer: B D. best evidence
Answer: C
37. The security given for the release of a person in
custody, 42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or
furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned uncontradicted is
upon his sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
appearance before any court as required under the A. secondary evidence
conditions B. prima facie evidence
specified by law. C. corroborative evidence
A. Subpoena D. best evidence
B. recognizance Answer: B
C. bail
D. warrant 43. A form of evidence supplied by written
Answer: C instruments or derived
from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, which ideas are represented on material
according to the substances.
laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for A. documentary evidence
the purpose B. testimonial evidence
of determining such issue. C. material evidence
A. Trial D. real evidence
B. Arraignment
C. pre-trial Answer: A
D. judgment
44. When the witness states that he did not see or
Answer: A know the
39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is occurrence of a fact.
guilty or is not A. positive evidence
guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition B. corroborative evidence
of the proper C. secondary evidence
penalty and D. negative evidence
A. trial Answer: D
B. Pre-trial
C. Arraignment 45. Personal property that can be subjects for search
and seizure. 50. The RPC was based on the
A. used or intended to be used as means in A. Spanish penal code
committing an B. English penal code
offense C. American penal code
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or D. Japanese penal code
fruits of the
offense Answer: A
C. subject of the offense
D. all of the above 51. An act or omission which is a result of a
Answer: D misapprehension of facts
that is voluntary but not intentional.
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can A. impossible crime
make known B. mistake of facts
their perception to others. C. accidental crime
A. Suspects D. complex crime
B. witnesses Answer: B
C. victims
D. informers 52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not
Answer: B more than….
A. 36 hours
47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth B. 24 hours
prematurely, of C. 48 hours
human fetus before the natural time of birth which D. 72 hours
results in
death. Answer: D
A. abortion
B. infanticide 53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from
C. murder compliance therewith.
D. parricide A. ignorantia legis non excusat
Answer: A B. parens patriae
C. res ipsa loquitur
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or D. dura lex sed lex
wounded during the
confusion attendant to a quarrel among several Answer: A
persons not 54. An act which would be an offense against persons
organized into groups and the parties responsible or property if
cannot be it was not for the inherent impossibility of its
ascertained. accomplishment.
A. alarm and scandal A. compound crime
B. mysterious homicide B. impossible crime
C. death under exceptional circumstances C. complex crime
D. tumultuous affray D. accidental crime
Answer: B
Answer: D
55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.
49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of A. RA 5425
which is the B. RA 8553
logical antecedent of the issue involved in said C. RA 7659
case and the D. RA 8551
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
A. legal question Answer: C
B. juridical question 56. One who is deprived completely of reason or
C. prejudicial question discernment and
D. judicial question freedom of the will at the time of the commission
Answer: C of the crime.
A. discernment
B. insanity B. special laws
C. epilepsy C. common laws
D. imbecility D. statutory laws
Answer: D Answer: C
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to 62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the
a person as its agent of the
owner or author crime any of all the conditions that would make
A. responsibility an act voluntary and hence, though there is no
B. duty criminal liability
C. guilt there is civil liability.
D. imputability A. Exempting
Answer: D B. alternative
C. justifying
58. Something that happen outside the sway of our D. aggravating
will, and Answer: A
although it comes about through some acts of our
will, 63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are
lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable in accordance
consequences. with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and
A. fortuitous event civil liability.
B. fate A. exempting
C. accident B. alternative
D. destiny C. justifying
Answer: C D. aggravating
Answer: C
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with
an 64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making
offense,subscribed by the offended party, any his victim
peace suffers slowly and gradually, causing him
officer or other public officer charged with the unnecessary physical
enforcement of pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
the law violated. A. Ignominy
A. subpoena B. cruelty
B. information C. treachery
C. complaint D. masochism
D. writ
Answer: C Answer: B
60. This right of the accused is founded on the 65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime
principle of justice shall have been
and is intended not to protect the guilty but to previously convicted by final judgment of another
prevent as far as crime embraced
human agencies can the conviction of an innocent in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
person. A. Recidivism
A. right to due process of law B. habitual delinquency
B. presumption of innocence C. reiteracion
C. right to remain silent D. quasi-recidivism
D. right against self-incrimination Answer: A
Answer: B
66. Alevosia means
61. Known in other countries as the body of A. Craft
principles, B. treachery
practices,usages and rules of action which are not C. evident premeditation
recognized in our country. D. cruelty
A. penal laws Answer: B
C. Criminal Procedure
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon D. Criminal Jurisprudence
inquiry and Answer: C
render judgment after a fair trial.
A. ex post facto law 73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable
B. equal protection of the law by death.
C. rule of law A. 20 years
D. due process of law B. 15 years
Answer: D C. 10 years
D. 40 years
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the Answer: A
date of his
release or last conviction of the crime of serious or 74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a
less serious crime.
physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or A. Accomplices
falsification, he is B. Accessories
found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time C. Instigators
or oftener. D. Principals
A. Recidivist Answer: D
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinquent 75. A crime against honor which is committed by
D. hardened criminal performing any act
Answer: C which casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon
another
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or person.
overcome. A. libel
A. Primary B. slander by deed
B. Best C. incriminating innocent person
C. Secondary D. intriguing against honor
D. Conclusive Answer: B
Answer: D 76. The improper performance of some act which
might lawfully be
70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or done.
overcome. A. misfeasance
A. Primary B. malfeasance
B. Best C. nonfeasance
C. Secondary D. dereliction
D. Conclusive Answer: B
Answer: D
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath
71. These questions suggest to the witness the before an
answers to which an authorized magistrate or officer.
examining party requires. A. subpoena
A. leading B. writ
B. misleading C. warrant
C. stupid D. affidavit
D. hearsay Answer: D
Answer: A
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and to himself
prosecution of without authority of law.
persons alleged to have committed a crime, and A. alias
or their punishment in case of conviction B. common name
A. Criminal Law C. fictitious name
B. Criminal Evidence D. screen name
D. coup d’ etat
Answer: C Answer: A
79. A special aggravating circumstance where a 85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest
person, after having and comfort.
been convicted by final judgment, shall commit a A. sanctuary
new felony B. prison
before beginning to serve such sentence, or while C. jail
serving D. dwelling
the same. Answer: D
A. quasi-recidivism
B. recidivism 86. The mental capacity to understand the difference
C. reiteracion between right
D. charivari and wrong.
Answer: A A. treachery
B. premeditation
80. Which of the following is not a person in C. recidivism
authority? D. discernment
A. Municipal mayor Answer: D
B. Private School Teacher
C. Police Officer 87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable
D. Municipal Councilor under the law.
Answer: C A. Estafa
B. Murder
81. In its general sense, it is the raising of C. Rebellion
commotions or D. Rape
disturbances in the State. Answer: C
A. Sedition
B. Rebellion 88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than
C. Treason that which is
D. Coup d’ etat intended.
Answer: A A. Aberratio ictus
B. Error in personae
82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its C. Dura Lex Sed lex
date. D. Praeter Intentionem
A. 30 days Answer: D
B. 15 days
C. 10 days 89. It means mistake in the blow.
D. 60 days A. Aberratio Ictus
Answer: C B. Error in Personae
C. Dura lex sed lex
83. The detention of a person without legal grounds D. Praeter Intentionem
by a public Answer: A
officer or employee.
A. illegal detention 90. A stage of execution when all the elements
B. arbitrary detention necessary for its
C. compulsory detention execution and accomplishment are present.
D. unauthorized detention A. Attempted
Answer: B B. Frustrated
C. Consummated
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, D. Accomplished
committed by a person
who owes allegiance to it. answer:
A. treason C
B. espionage
C. rebellion 91. An act or omission which is the result of a
misapprehension of
facts that is voluntary but not intentional. Answer: A
A. Absolutory Cause
B. Mistake of facts 98. The taking of a person into custody in order that
C. Conspiracy he may be
D. Felony bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
Answer: B A. Search
B. Seizure
92. Crimes that have three stages of execution. C. Arrest
A. Material D. Detention
B. Formal Answer: C
C. Seasonal
D. Continuing 99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime
Answer: A committed?
A. Robbery
93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the B. Farm Theft
offender are C. Qualified Theft
malicious. D. Simple Theft
A. Culpable Answer: C
B. Intentional
C. Deliberate 100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse
D. Inculpable with her 11 year
Answer: B old girlfriend without threat, force or
intimidation. What was
94. It indicates deficiency of perception. the crime committed?
A. Negligence A. Child rape
B. Diligence B. Qualified Rape
C. Imprudence C. Statutory Rape
D. Inference D. None of these
Answer: A Answer: C