Introductory topics

*Which of the listed terms is described by: “All the chemical processes that take place in the organelles
and cytoplasm the cells of the body”?*

A. Metabolism

B. Cellular respiration

C. Homeostasis

D. Physiology

*The sum of all chemical reactions taking place within a cell is called:*

A. Thermoregulation

B. Osmoregulation

C. Metabolism

D. Isomerism

*Which one of the following is an example of anabolic process?*

A. Respiration

B. Digestion

C. Photosynthesis

D. Both A and B

C
*Which of the following is the best definition of physiology?*

A. The microscopic study of tissues and cells

B. The study of how the body works.

C. All the chemical processes that take place in the organelles of the body’s cells.

D. The body’s automatic tendency to maintain a relatively constant internal environment.

Answer is B: physiology is indeed the study of how the (healthy) body functions.

*To which of the following does the “tissue level” of structural organisation refer?*

A. atoms, ions, molecules and electrolytes

B. mitochondria, ribosomes, nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum

C. nephron, alveolus, villus, lobule

D. muscle, nervous, connective, epithelial

Answer is D: the listed structures are the four major tissue types.

*What does the process known as anabolism refer to?*

A. the use of energy for producing chemical substances.

B. the breaking down phase of metabolism.

C. all the chemical process that take place in the organelles of the cells.

D. the supply of nutrients to the body’s cells.

Answer is A: anabolism refers to the process of constructing/building molecules (think anabolic

steroids). B refers to catabolism. C refers to metabolism.
Cell and its components

*Cellular digestion is associated with which organelle:*

A. Mitochondria

B. Plastids

C. Golgi bodies

D. Lysosomes

Membrane proteins perform the following functions EXCEPT one. Which One?

A. form the glycocalyx

B. act as receptor proteins
C. form pores to allow the passage of small solutes

D. behave as enzymes.

Answer is A: the glycocalyx refers to molecules in the plasma membrane that have a carbohydrate chain
attached (prefi x “glyco-”).

*Which of the following is a component of the plasma membrane of a cell?*

A. plasma
B. glycolipid
C. plasma proteins

D. cholesterol

Answer is D: despite the term “plasma” A & C are wrong. And it is phospholipids, not glycolipids that
occur in the membrane.
*Which of the following statements about “leak channels” in the plasma membrane is correct?*

A. Proteins that form these channels bind to solutes to allow them to pass into the cell.
B. They are passageways formed by proteins to allow water and ions to move passively through the
membrane.

C. They allow small ions and molecules to move between adjacent cells.

D. They are formed by glycoprotein and proteoglycans to allow hormones to enter cells.

Answer is B: this is the defi nition of leak channels. They may be “gated” which means shut until
stimulated to open. J refers to facilitated diffusion.

*Why does the plasma membrane of a cell present a barrier to the movement of electrolytes through it?
*

A. There are no channels in the membrane for the passage of electrolytes.

B. Electrolytes are not soluble in the lipid of the membrane.

C. Electrolytes are too large to pass through membrane channels.

D. Membrane proteins electrically repel charged particles.
Answer is B: electrolytes, being charged particles are not able to dissolve their way through the lipid
plasma membrane (which is non-polar). Hence it is a barrier to them.

*Which one of the following terms best describes the structure of the cell membrane:*
A. fl uid mosaic model
B. static mosaic model

C. quaternary structure

D. multilayered structure
 Answer is A: “fl uid” implies the structure can move and change (not like a brick wall); mosaic refers to
the presence of proteins scattered among the glycolipids.

*Which one of the following terms best describes a phospholipid. It consists of a:*

A. polar head and polar tail

B. non-polar head and a polar tail

C. polar head and non-polar tail

D. non-polar head and a non-polar tail

Answer is C: polar = hydrophilic head of phosphate (which can dissolve in the aqueous extracellular
solution because water molecules are polar); non-polar = hydrophobic tails of lipid, which being non-
polar, cannot dissolve in aqueous solutions.

*One of the functions of integral proteins in cell membranes is to:*

A. maintain the rigid structure of the cell

B. support mechanically the phospholipids
C. interact with the cytoplasm
D. form channels for transport functions
Answer is D: some proteins form channels which allow molecules and ions to enter the cell.

*Which one of the following best describes what a cell membrane consists of?*
A. lipids, proteins, ribosomes

B. lipids, cholesterol, proteins

C. cholesterol, proteins, cytoplasm

D. lipids, proteins, cytoplasm

Answer is B: these are the three major constituents. Ribosomes and cytoplasm are found inside the cell

*Which of the following is the smallest living structural unit of the body?*

A. atom

B. molecule
C. organelle

D cell
Answer is D: the cell is smallest structural unit that is deemed to be alive.

*Which of the following is NOT one of the organelles within a cell?*

A. desmosome

B. endoplasmic reticulum

C. mitochondrion
D. golgi apparatus

Answer is A: desmosome (despite having the suffi x “-some”) are not within the cell. They are structures
that join adjacent plasma membranes to each other

*Which of the following is NOT part of the plasma membrane of a cell?*

A. phospholipid

B. glycoprotein

C. chromatin

D. cholesterol

Answer is C: chromatin makes up chromosomes.

*Which of the following is NOT found in the plasma membrane?*

A. proteins
B. cholesterol

C. endoplasmic reticulum

D. phospholipids

Answer is C: endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle and found within the cell.

*What is a role performed by mitochondria?*

A. contain enzymes capable of digesting molecules

B. produce ATP

C. synthesise proteins

D. synthesise fatty acids, phospholipids & cholesterol

Answer is B: mitochondria produce ATP. The other tasks are performed by lysosomes, ribosomes and
endoplasmic reticulum respectively.

* A major role for mitochondria is to*

A. transcribe the information in DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

B. produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate)

C. synthesise proteins from amino acids

D. use enzymes to lyse molecules

Answer is B: ATP is only produced within the mitochondria.

*The plasma membrane of a cell contains molecules that have a hydrophobic end and a hydrophilic end
What are they called?*
A. phospholipids

B. cholesterol

C. integral proteins
D. glycoproteins
Answer is A: the phosphate end is hydrophilic (water soluble) while the lipid end is hydrophobic
(insoluble in water).

*What do fi broblasts, chondroblasts, osteoblasts and haemocytoblasts have in common?*

A. they are all types of white blood cell.

B. they are all macrophages.

C. they are all immature cells.
D. they are all types of epithelial cell.
Answer is C: the suffi x “-blast” implies that these cells have not yet fi nished their differentiation. That is
are immature.

*Active transport across the plasma membrane may be described by which statement?*

A. active transport requires energy from ATP.

B. active transport is also known as endocytosis.

C. active transport moves molecules along their concentration gradient.

D. active transport is the movement of lipid-soluble molecules through the plasma membrane.

Answer is A: this is the only correct answer. The others are not true.

*What are lysosomes, centrosomes and ribosomes example of?*

A.) stem cells

B.) organelles within a cell

C.) sensory receptors in the dermis

D.)exocrine glands

*Which of the following organelles are exclusively present in plant cells?"

(A) Lysosomes

B) Ribosomes
C) Glyoxisomes

D) Peroxisomes

*Which cell organelles contain an acidic environment capable of digesting a wide variety of molecules?*

A.) Lysosomes

B.)Ribosomes

C.)Centrosomes

D.)Golgi complex

*Which cell organelles are involved in apoptosis ?*

A.) lysosomes

B.) ER

C ) Golgi

D.) mitochondria

*Which of the following cell have no mitochondria?*

A. Viruses

B. RBCs

C. Nerve cells

D. Muscle cell
B

*Name a self-replicating organelle:*

A. Mitochondria

B. Peroxisomes

C. Phagosomes

D. Golgi bodies

*Which of these is incorrect about prokaryotes?*

A. No organelles present

B. Cell wall present

C. Nucleus absent

D. Chromatin present

. *The following is the metabolic function of ER:*

a) RNA processing

b) Fatty acid oxidation

c) Synthesis of plasma protein

d) ATP-synthesis

*In biologic membranes, integral proteins and lipids interact mainly by:*
a) Covalent bond

b) Both hydrophobic and covalent bond

c) Hydrogen and electrostatic bond

d) None of the above

*Plasma membrane is made up of:*

a) Lipid bilayer

b) Protein bilayer

c) Carbohydrate bilayer

d) Lipid single layer

*Which statement about the plasma membrane is INCORRECT ?*

A. It is selectively permeable.
B. It is composed of two layers of glycoprotein molecules.
C. It contains receptors for specifi c signalling molecules.

D. The plasma membranes of adjacent cells are held together by desmosomes.

Answer is B: The PM is indeed made of two layers, but they are phospholipid (not glycoprotein)
molecules.

*What is the name of the mechanism that ensures that there is a higher concentration of sodium ions in
the extracellular fl uid than in the intracellular fl uid?*

A. Facilitated diffusion
B. The sodium-potassium pump
C. Secondary active transport
D. Osmosis
Answer is B: The “pump” (or ATPase) transports Na + out and K + into the cell.
 *What are lysosomes, centrosomes and ribosomes example of?*

A. stem cells
B. organelles within a cell
C. sensory receptors in the dermis

D. exocrine glands
Answer is B: the suffi x “–some” refers to small body or organelle within a cell.

*What is the function of phospholipids in the plasma membrane?*

A. to maintain the intracellular fl uid at a similar composition to that of the interstitial fl uid.

B. to form channels to selectively allow passage of small molecules.

C. to act as receptors for signalling chemicals.

D. to present a barrier to the passage of water-soluble molecules.
Answer is D: molecules that are soluble in water cannot pass through lipid (fat). So the phospholipids
are a barrier. The functions described by B. & C. are performed by other molecules in the plasma
membrane.

*Which of the following is NOT part of the plasma membrane of a cell?*

A. integral proteins
B. glycoproteins
C. plasma proteins
D. peripheral proteins
Answer is C: as the name implies, plasma proteins are found in the blood plasma. Not to be confused
with the plasma membrane

*Select the subcellular component involved in the formation of ATP:*

a) Nucleus
b) Plasma membrane

c) Mitochondria

d) Golgi apparatus

*Mitochondrial DNA is:*

a) Maternal inherited

b) Paternal inherited

c) Maternal and paternal inherited

d) None of the above

*All of the following statements about the nucleus are true, except:*

a) Outer nuclear membrane is connected to ER

b) It is the site of storage of genetic material

c) Nucleolus is surrounded by a bilayer membrane

d) Outer and inner membranes of nucleus are connected at nuclear pores

C
*Golgi apparatus is present in all of the following except:*

a) RBC

b) Parenchymal cells

c) Skeletal muscle cells

d) Pancreatic cell

*Peroxisomes arise from:*

a) Golgi membrane

b) Lysosomes

c) Mitochondria

d) Pre-existing peroxisomes and budding off from the smooth ER

*Na+ - K+ ATPase is the marker enzyme of:*

a) Nucleus

b) Plasma membrane

c) Golgi bodies

d) Cytosol

B
*Which molecule readily diffuses into the plasma membrabe?*

A. CO2

B. Proteins

C Lipids

D DNA

Blood
*A patient has AB+ blood. Which of the following blood types, if transfused would

cause agglutination?*
A) None

B) O+

C) B+

D) AB+

*How many blood corpuscles do we have?*

A)3

B)1

C)2

D)4

*What are red blood cells primarily composed of?*

A. alpha- and beta- globulins

B. albumin

C. mitochondria

D. haemoglobin

Answer is D: About one third of the mass of a rbc is haemoglobin. Choices A & B are plasma proteins and
are not in rbc.

*Which is the LEAST common type of white blood cell?*

A.lymphocyte

B. basophil
C. thrombocyte

D. neutrophil

Answer is B: Less than 1 % of wbc are basophils. Neutrophils are the most common. Thrombocytes are
not wbc, or even cells.

*When temperature of body increases then affinity of hemoglobin to bind with oxygen:*

A) Decrease

B) Increase

C) Remains constant

D) Initially decrease then increase

*95% of cytoplasm of RBCs contains a protein called:*

A) Myoglobin

B) Haemoglobin

C) Antibodies

D) Albumin

*The major constituent of blood plasma is:*

A. Protein
B. Water

C. NaCl

D. Organic molecules

Homeostasis
*What hormone controls salt in the body?*

A)Aldosterone

B)Antidiuretic hormone

C)Insulin

D)Adrenaline

*Plasma proteins act as*

(A) Buffers

(B) Immunoglobulins

(C) Reserve proteins

(D) All of these

D

*Type of kidney stone having highest incidence rate is:*

A) Calcium oxalate

B) Calcium phosphate

C) Uric acid

D) Cholesterol

*Maximum reabsorption of water from glomerular filtrate occurs at:*

A) Proximal convoluted tubule

B) Loop of Henle

C) Distal convoluted tubule

D) Collecting duct

*Homeostasis refers:*

A) Normal body physiology

B) Abnormal body physiology

C) Sick condition
D) Shrinkage of cell

*All substances are filtered through glomerulus except:*

A) Water

B) Salts

C) Proteins

D) Glucose

*Antidiuretic hormone helps in reabsorption of water by changing permeability of:*

A) Proximal tubule

B) Distal tubule

C) Collecting tubule

D) Loop of Henle

*The hypothalamus and core thermoreceptors notice if body temp too low. The hypothalamus signals
smooth muscle in blood vessels to vasoconstrict and skeletal muscle to shiver. This activity causes body
temp to rise, which is again noticed by hypothalamus & core thermoreceptors, so the hypothalamus
turns off these heat gain mechanisms. In this scenario, which of the following statements is correct?*

A. The scenario describes positive feedback in action.

B. The core thermoreceptors are the effector organs.

C. The hypothalamus is the control centre.

D. Skeletal muscle is the efferent pathway to the effector organ.

_Answer is C: The hypothalamus interprets the sensory input and determines the response. Choice A is
wrong as this is negative feedback. The effector organs are the skeletal muscles (which are not a
“pathway”)._

*Some of the body’s homeostatic responses rely on “negative feedback”. Which of the following
happens in negative feedback?*

A. The body ignores changes in a physiological variable that are directed towards the set point for that
variable.

B. The body ignores changes in a physiological variable that are directed away from the set point for
that variable

C. The body’s response acts to oppose the change in the physiological variable.

D. The body’s response acts to enhance the change in the physiological variable

_Answer is C: “Negative” refers to the response being in the opposite direction to the stimulus. Thus if a
variable is increasing, then the body’s response is to produce a change that causes the variable to
decrease. The body does not “ignore” stimuli._

*Which of the following is a correct definition of “positive feedback”?*

A. The process by which the body maintains homeostasis.

B. A mechanism in which the body’s response to a stimulus, opposes the stimulus.

C. A mechanism whereby the body responds to a stimulus by acting to enhance the stimulus.

D. The dynamic equilibrium maintained by an integrating centre which causes an effector to respond to
the stimulus received by the receptor.
 _Answer is C: When the stimulus is enhanced, the feedback is termed
“positive”._

*Synthesis and release of most hormones is regulated by negative feedback. Negative feedback means*

A. A rise in hormone levels affects the target organ which acts to inhibit further hormone release

B. A rise in hormone levels affects the target organ which acts to stimulate further hormone release

C. The effect of hormones on target cells does not control further release of hormone

D. Neural stimuli result in the release of oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone from the hypothalamus

_Answer is A: When the response opposes a change, it is negative feedback._

*During the delivery of a baby the baby’s head is pushing against the cervix causing the cervix wall to
stretch. This stretching causes nerve impulses to be sent to the hypothalamus which directs the
posterior pituitary to release oxytocin in the blood. Oxytocin stimulates the uterus to contract which
pushes the baby’s head deeper into the cervix, stretching it further. This situation is a description of
which of the following?*

A. negative feedback

B. positive feedback

C. homeostasis

D. an afferent pathway to an integrating centre

_Answer is B: The stimulus (cervical stretching) causes the integrating centre (the hypothalamus) to
respond by enhancing the stimulus – releasing oxytocin so that the uterus contracts. Enhancing the
stimulus is an example of positive feedback. The feedback stops when the cervix is no longer being
stretched, that is when the baby is delivered._

*Which of the following statements about positive feedback and homeostasis is correct?*
A. They are regulation mechanisms that control most fl uctuations in the internal environment of the
body.

B. The response to the stimulus serves to exaggerate the feedback effect.

C. This type of feedback response only involves an effector not a specifi c stimulus receptor site.

D. This feedback mechanism involves adjustments at the organ level but not at the cellular level.

_Answer is B: Positive feedback causes the stimulus to increase in magnitude which in turn elicits a
more exaggerated response._

Choose one answer below that completes the sentence so that it makes a true statement: Positive
feedback:

A. is the way the body maintains homeostasis

B. is a response that opposes a stimulus

C. is a response that maintains a dynamic state of equilibrium

D. is a response that enhances a stimulus

Answer is D: “Positive” feedback will reinforce the stimulus, making it greater or more insistent.

The human body’s ability to maintain a relatively constant internal temperature is an example of what?

A. Respiratory heat loss

B. Homeostasis

C. Vasodilation and evaporative heat loss

D. Positive feedback

Answer is B: Homeostasis is derived from words that mean remaining similar and standing still and
refers to physiological conditions remaining more or less the same.

In homeostasis, what is it that produces the response that moves the physiological variable back
towards the middle of its healthy range?

A. the effector

B. the receptor

C. the integrating centre

D. the efferent pathway

Answer is A: The effector produces the effect that it is directed to by the integrating centre. That
direction is passed along the efferent (or outgoing) pathway

The “afferent pathway” in the description of a feedback loop in homeostasis, refers to the:
A. circulating blood.

B. pathway from the integrating centre to the effector.

C. outgoing signal.

D. path taken by the signal produced by a stimulus.

Answer is D: The afferent signal is incoming from the receptor to the integrating centre. It may be via
the blood, but may be via a nerve.

Homeostasis usually returns the body to a healthy state after stressful stimuli by

A. negative feedback

B. positive feedback

C. means of the immune system

D. means of the nervous system

Answer is A: Negative feedback is far more common in maintaining homeostasis than is positive
feedback.
What does the word “homeostasis” refer to?

A. the steps leading to repair of a blood vessel and the coagulation of blood

B. the maintenance of internal body conditions within narrow limits

C. the controlled response that opposes the influence that caused it.

D. the production of blood cells in active bone marrow

Answer is B: This is the best definition. Choice C refers to negative feedback only.

How does homeostasis return the body to a healthy state after stressful stimuli? By producing a

A. responses that oppose the stress

B. learned behaviour

C. reflex action

D. buffering mechanism

Answer is A: Refers to negative feedback. Positive feedback is also possible (but rare), nevertheless
choice A is the best answer.

What causes the body to maintain a relatively constant internal environment?

A. positive feedback

B. homeostasis

C. reflexes

D. pH buffers

Answer is B: Homeostasis matches the defi nition in the question.

Homeostasis relies on feedback to achieve its aims. “Negative” feedback refers to which situation
below? The body’s response:

A. travels from the effector to the integrating centre via the afferent pathway.

B. opposes the stressful stimulus.

C. is to decrease the set point.

D. enhances the stressful stimulus.

Answer is B: “Negative” refers to the opposing nature of the response.

The term “homeostasis” is described by which one of the following statements? “The body’s ability to:

A. respond to a stimulus or stress in such a way as to enhance the stress.

B. maintain a relatively constant internal temperature.

C. respond to a stimulus or stress in such a way as to reduce the stress.

D. maintain a relatively constant internal environment.

Answer is D: Choice A refers to positive feedback. Choice C refers to negative feedback. Choice B is an
example of homeostasis.

Which of the following is a correct definition of “negative feedback”?

A. The process by which the body maintains homeostasis.

B. A mechanism in which the body’s response opposes the stimulus.

C. A mechanism whereby the body responds to a stimulus by acting to enhance the stimulus.

D. The dynamic equilibrium maintained by an integrating centre which causes an effector to respond to
the stimulus received by the receptor.

Answer is B: When an action is taken to cause the stimulus to be reduced, the feedback is termed
“negative”.
Homeostasis refers to maintaining :

A. a constant internal body environment through negative feedback.

B. body conditions relatively constant within a narrow range through negative and positive feedback.

C. adequate concentrations of respiratory gases.

D. blood glucose level within the healthy range.

Answer is B: The maintenance of body conditions through feedback which is usually negative but is
positive in some rare situations.

What does the term “homeostasis” refer to?

A. the chemical processes that take place in the organelles of the cells.

B. the body’s tendency to maintain a relatively constant internal environment.

C. the body’s use of energy to produce chemical substances and parts for

growth.

D. any body response that opposes the stimulus that initiated the response.
Answer is B: This is the best defi nition of homeostasis. Choice D refers to

negative feedback.

The body returns to a healthy state after stressful stimuli thanks to which of the following?

A. positive feedback

B. metabolism

C. anabolism

D. negative feedback

Answer is D: Negative feedback is more common than positive feedback.

Which of the following would be a negative feedback response by the body to hyperthermia?

A. Shivering

B. Sweating

C. Vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the dermis

D. An increase in metabolic rate

Answer is B: Hyperthermia is an increase on body temperature above 38

°C. Negative feedback would be a response that opposed the temperature rise. Allowing perspiration to
evaporate from the skin would cool the skin and lead to a decrease in body temperature. The effect of
the other choices would be to increase body temperature

How would the hypothalamus respond if its osmoreceptors noticed an increase in plasma osmotic
pressure? It would send a message to:

A. the posterior pituitary to release more ADH

B. the posterior pituitary to release less ADH

C. the adrenal cortex to release less aldosterone

D. the atria to release more ANP

Answer is A: The hypothalamus would respond in a way that opposed the rise in osmotic pressure.
Releasing more ADH would make the distal convoluted tubules of the nephrons to become more
permeable to water. This would allow more water to be reclaimed from the filtrate which would act
against the osmotic pressure of the plasma from rising further. It would also stimulate thirst.
Hemostasis
*In the process of haemostasis, which phase involves the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?*

A.the platelet phase

B. the clot lysis phase

C. the vascular phase

D. the coagulation phase

Answer is D: The clotting (coagulation phase) has these two pathways.

*In haemostasis, which molecule polymerises to become the insoluble blood clot?*

A. factor X

B. thrombin
C. fibrin

D. plasmin

Answer is C: Fibrin is a monomer that polymerises to form a “soft clot”, then crosslinking between fibrin
produces a stable, web-like “hard clot”.

*Which enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin?*

A. serotonin

B. thrombin

C. renin

D. secretin

Answer is B: Thrombin is the enzyme. It is not present until prothrombinase converts prothrombin to
thrombin.
A mammalian cell contains 1.1 percentage:

A. Protein

B. Water

C. DNA
D. RNA

Most abundant organic compounds of a cell are:

A. Water

B. Proteins

C. Carbohydrates

D. Lipids

*Cells without nucleoli die because they do not possess:*

A. Centrioles, and are unable to undergo cell division

B. Lysosomes, and are unable to destroy worn out organelles

C. Mitochondria, and are unable to obtain energy

D. Ribosomes, and are unable to manufacture proteins

*Cytoplasmic streaming movement causes flow of all except:*

A. Endoplasmic reticulum

B. Lysosomes

C. Mitochondria

D. Glucose and salts

*Which one always passes through nuclear membrane from nucleoplasm to cytoplasm?*

A. Proteins

B. DNA nucleotides

C. Enzymes
D. RNA

*Movement of Na+ across axon membrane via Na-K+ pump is an example of*

A. Active transport

B. Diffusion

C. Passive transport

D. Osmosis

*Which of these is not a part of murein?*

A. Polysaccharides

B. Glycans

C. Amino acid chains

D. Proteins

*It is synthesized by free floating ribosomes of cytoplasm in humans:*

A. Pancreatic lipase

B. Salivary amylase

C. Insulin

D. DNA helicase

*These play vital role in defense activity of macrophages:*

A. Mitochondria

B. Lysosomes

C. Lysozymes

D. Ribosomes

*Damage to one of the following immediately kills the cell whether its prokaryotic or eukaryotic:*

A. Mitochondria

B. Cell membrane

C. Cell wall
D. Golgi apparatus

*They help to detoxify the harmful drugs:*

A. Ribosomes

B. SER

C. RER

D. Golgi bodies

*Nucleolus contains:*

A. Ribosomal precursor

B. Polysome

C. Protein precursor

D. Lipid precursor

*If size of a particle is large or it has polarity, the suitable method of transportation will be:*

A. OsmosIs

B. Facilitated diffusion

C. Diffusion

D. Passive transport

*Which one is always unicellular?*

A. Mycoplasma

B.Protists

C.Virus

D,. Algae

*Endoplasmic reticulum is absent in:*

A. Animal cells

B. Plant cells

C. Prokaryotic cells
D. Protists and Fungal cells

*It is mismatched with reference to mitochondrial membrane*

A. Outer membrane- Smooth

B. Inner membrane Fi particles

D. Inner membrane-Increases surface area

C. Outer membrane-Chemiosmosis

*Which of the following cell types would you expect to be abundant with endoplasmic reticulum and
Golgi bodies?*

I.Plasma B cells (produce antibodies)

II. Adipose cells (store fats)

III. Islet of Langerhans cells (secrete insulin)

IV. Red blood cells (transport oxygen)

A. I and II only

B. I and II only

C. III and IV only

D. II and Il only

*Which of the following is a protective structure in bacterial cells?*

A. Cell wall

B. Protoplasm

C. Cellulose

D. Nuclei

*Plant cells are distinguishable from animal cells in containing:*

A. Mitochondria

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Cell wall

C. Ribosomes
*In prokaryotic cell, wall strengthening material is:*

A. Cellulose

B. Chitin

C. Silica

D. Peptidoglycan

*Cell secretions are actually produced at _______then transported to outside through________

and_______*

A. Ribosomes, RER, SER

B. RER, Golgi apparatus, Lysosomes

C. Ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, SER

D. Ribosomes, ER, Golgi apparatus

*Types of ribosome present in the cytosol and organelles of the eukaryotic cell are respectively:*

A. 60S and 40S

B. 80S and 70S

C. 70S and 80S

D. 80S and 80S

*Transport of glucose into the cell with the help of insulin is an example of:*

A. Osmosis

B. Facilitated diffusion

C. Active transport

D. Endocytosis

*Lysosomes are most abundant in:*

A. Plant cells having phagocytic activity

B. Protozoa

C. Bacteria with additional DNA plasmids

D. Animal cells having phagocytic activity

*All of the following are single membranous organelles except:*

A. Mitochondria

B. Glyoxysomes

C. Lysosomes

D. Peroxisomes

*Which of the following organelle is involved in autophagy?*

A. Lysosomes

B. Glyoxysomes

C. Peroxisomes

D. Microsomes

*The exact replica of the chromosome is:*

A. Centromere

B. Chromatid

C. Kinetochores

D. Nucleosomes

*The functional units or Golgi apparatus are:*

A. Thylakoids

B. Cristae

C. Oxysomes

D. Cisternae

*Which one is a self-replicating organelle?*

A. Ribosome

B. Centriole

D. Mitochondrion

C. Lysosome
*The vesicles which diffuse to form stack of cisternae sacs are derived from:*

A. Golgi Apparatus

B. SER

C. RER

D. Lysosomes

*What is a polysome?*

A. Group of mRNAs and one ribosome

B. Many ribosomes and many mRNAs

C. mRNA +rRNA + tRNA + ribosome

D. One mRNA and many ribosomes

*The entire cell wall of bacteria is often regarded as a single huge molecule or molecular complex
called:*

A. Capsule

B. Slime capsule

C. Secondary wall

D. Sacculus

*Secretory granules bud off from:*

A. Golgi bodies

B. Vacuoles

C. SER

D. Nucleus

*The ratio of RNA and protein in a ribosome is:*

A. 1.1

B. 4:7

C. 2:3

D. 3.1
*Part of cell membrane which is in contact with external and internal environment is:*

A. Hydrophobic

B. Hydrophilic and hydrophobic

C. Hydrophilic

D. Neutral

*Outer and inner membranes of mitochondria are:*

A. Structurally and functionally similar

B. Structurally similar but functionally different

C. Structurally and functionally different

D. Structurally different but functionaly similar

*Which substances can cross plasma membrane more easily?*

A. Ions

B. Lipid soluble

C. Proteins

D.Starch

*The absence of an enzyme that is involved in the catabolism of lipids results in:*

A. Tay-Sach's disease

B. Glycogenosis type II

C. Glycogenosis type l

D. Phenylketonuria

*Organelles involved in organic molecule synthesis and organic molecule breakdown respectively*

A. Mitochondria and ribosomes

B. Chloroplast and mitochondria

C. Chloroplast and ribosomes

D. Mitochondria and chloroplast

*Which of the following function is not performed by the cell membrane of a plant cell?*

A. Regulation of material

B. Active transport

C. Transport of material

D. Phagocytosis

*Peptidoglycan cell wall is present in?*

A. Penicillium

B. Adiantum

C. Bacterium

D. Polytrichum

*The function of nucleolus is to make:*

A. rDNA

B. RNA

C. Ribosomes

D. Chromosomes

*Plastids are only found in the:*

A. Animals and Plants

B. Plants

C. Animals

D. Viruses

*Tay Sach's disease mostly affects which of the followings organ in human body:*

A. Liver

B. Kidneys
C. Brain

D. Muscles

*The lysosomes which eat parts of their own cells or cellular components during cellular starvation are
called:*

A. Primary Iysosomes

B. Secondary lysosomes

C. Tertiary lysosomes

D. Autophagosome

*Interior of chloroplast is divided into heterogeneous structure, embedded in the matrix known as:*

A. Grana

B. Thylakoids

C. Stroma

D. Cisternae

*Plasma membrane is chemically composed of Lipids and Carbohydrates*

A. Phospholipids only

B. Lipids and carbohydrates

C. Lipids and proteins

D. Glycoproteins

*The ribosomal RNA is synthesized and stored in:*

A. Endoplasmic reticulum

B. Golgi complex

C. Nucleolus

D. Chromosomes

*The enzymes of lysosomes are synthesized on:*

A. RER

B. Chloroplast
C. SER

D. Golgi apparatųs

*The size and number of mitochondria in a cell depends upon which factor?*

A. Size and shape of the cell

B. Genetic makeup

C. Physiological activities

D. Evolutionary history

*The process by which unwanted substances within the cell are engulfed and digested within the
lysosome is known as*

A. Endocytosis

B. Hydrolysis

C. Exocytosis

D. Autophagy

*Which organelle in eukaryotic cell functionally resemble with mesosomes of prokaryotic cell?*

A. Golgi apparatus

B. Cell membrane

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Mitochondria

*An organelle having its own DNA, ribosomes and protein formation indicate that organelle is:*

A. Self-replicating

B. Self-twisting

C. Self-indicating

D. Self-reproducing

*Which type of molecule will make channels for movement of neutral substances down concentration
gradient?*

A. Phospholipids
B. Nucleic acid

C. Protein

D. Carbohydrates

*Under which of the following conditions, would you expect to find a cell with a predominance of free
ribosomes?*

A. A cell that is secreting proteins

B. A cell that digesting food particles

C. A cell producing cytoplasmic enzymes

D. A cell that enlarging its vacuole

*Cell secretions are the products of:*

A. Ribosomes

B. Lysosomes

C. Golgi apparatus

D. Mitochondria

*Mitochondria have enzyme for all of these process except:*

A. Replication of DNA

B. Fatty acid metabolism

C. Krebs cycle

D. Fermentation

*Which of the following feature is common between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?*

A. A membrane bounded nucleus

B. A cell wall made up cellulose

C. Presence of ribosomes

D. Linear genome

*Concerning entry of substances through plasma membrane, which statement is correct?*

A. Only passive transport needs energy

B. Phagocytosis is passive transport

C. Only active transport needs energy

D. Passive and active transport need energy

Physiology questions

*1.) What is the name of the mechanism that ensures that there is a higher concentration of sodium
ions in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid?*
A.) Facilitated diffusion

B.) The sodium-potassium pump

C.) Secondary active transport

D.) Osmosis

*2.) What are lysosomes, centrosomes and ribosomes example of?*

A.) stem cells

B.) organelles within a cell

C.) sensory receptors in the dermis

D.)exocrine glands

*3.)Which of the following is NOT an example of a cell?*

A.) macrophages

B.) lysosomes

C.) plasmocytes

D.) chondroblasts

*4.) Which cell organelles contain an acidic environment capable of digesting a wide variety of
molecules?*

A.) Lysosomes
B.)Ribosomes

C.)Centrosomes

D.)Golgi complex

*5.) Which form of transport through the plasma membrane requires the expenditure of energy by the
cell?*

A.) Facilitated diffusion

B.) Osmosis

C.) Active transport

D.)Diffusion

*6.) In which part of a cell does the process of making ATP from oxygen and glucose take place?*

A.) lysosomes

B.) ribosomes

C.) mitochondria

D.) golgi apparatus

*7.) Some cells in the body can maintain an electric potential across their cell membrane. How do they
do this?*

A.)By using the sodium-potassium pump to continually eject positive sodium and potassium ions from
the cell.

B.) By allowing negative chloride ions to enter the cell along their concentration gradient.
C.) By trapping large cations inside the cell membrane.

D.) By keeping unequal concentrations of various ions on each side of the cell membrane.

*8.)When we say that the cell membrane is polarised we mean that*

A.) the outside of the cell is negative with respect to the inside

B.)the inside of the cell is negative with respect to the outside

C.)there are more Na + ions and less K + ions inside the cell than outside.

D.) Na + ions have moved out of the cell and K + ions have moved in.

*9.)When is an action potential initiated? When*

A. the resting membrane potential changes from −70 mV to +30 mV.

B. a nerve impulse has caused some muscle action to be produced.

C. the potassium ‘gates’ in the cell membrane open and potassium ions flood into the cell.

D. a stimulus, which is above the threshold level, is applied to a receptor.

*10.)The sequence of events that constitute an action potential is correctly described by which of the
following? Resting potential of…..*

A. +35 mV, stimulus above the threshold, Na + move into cell, depolarisation to −70 mV, K + move out
of cell, repolarisation to +35 mV.
B. −70 mV, stimulus above the threshold, K + move into cell, depolarisation to −35 mV, Na + move out
of cell, repolarisation to −70 mV.

C. +35 mV, stimulus above the threshold, K + move into cell, depolarisation to −70 mV, Na + move out
of cell, repolarisation to +35 mV.

D. −70 mV, stimulus above the threshold, Na + move into cell, depolarisation to +35 mV, K + move out
of cell, repolarisation to −70 mV.

*11.) What term refers to the sudden movement of potassium ions across the cell membrane to the
outside of a nerve cell?*

A.)Repolarisation

B.)Depolarisation

C.) The action potential

D.)The potassium pump

*12.) What part of the neurone carries the “action potential”?*

A.) the cell body

B.) the dendrites

C.) the synaptic knobs

D.) the axon

*13.) What event during the action potential causes the resting membrane potential to change from
about −70 mV to about +30 mV?*

A. K + ions moving into the cell

B. K + ions moving out of the cell

C. Na + ions moving into the cell

D. Na + ions moving out of the cell

*14.)What is an “action potential”? It is:*

A. when the resting potential changes from −70 mV to +30 mV and then back again.

B. the name given to the difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of the plasma
membrane of a neurone.

C. the name given to the stimulus that changes the resting potential from −70 to −50 mV.

D. the voltage produced by a stimulus which causes a nerve impulse to be generated.

*15.) What name is given to the cells in the nervous system that produce nerve impulses?*

A.) neurotransmitters

B.) nerves

C.) neurons

D.) neuroglia

*16.) In the peripheral nervous system, which cells form the myelin sheath?*

A.) Ependymal cells

B.) Schwann cells

C.) Astrocytes

D.) Oligodendrocytes

B
*17.) What is the purpose of the myelin sheath around an axon?*

A. To control the chemical environment around the nerve cell.

B. To phagocytose microbes

C. To prevent movement of ions through the nerve cell membrane

D. To reduce the AP passing through

*18.)What is the effect of the movement of Na + into a nerve cell followed very soon by the movement
of K + out of the nerve cell?*

A. this establishes the resting membrane potential

B. these movements are known as depolarisation and repolarisation

C. these movements repolarise the cell

D. it changes the membrane potential from about −70 mV to about −50 mV

*19.) To which of following would the term “white cell” NOT be applied?*

A. erythrocyte

B. leucocyte

C. lymphocyte

D. monocyte

*20.)The blood group known as the ABO system is based on the presence of what proteins on blood
cells?*
A.)antibodies

B. antigens

C. agglutinins

D. immunoglobulins

*21.) What is found in blood serum that is also in blood plasma?*

A. blood cells

B. platelet

C. plasma proteins

D. clotting factors

*22.)What is the term “formed elements” used to mean in a description of blood?*

A. white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets

B. blood plasma

C. blood serum

D.) the clotting factors in blood

*23.) What is the SECOND step in the three phases of haemostasis listed below?*

A. The vascular phase

B. The intrinsic pathway

C. The extrinsic pathway

D. The platelet phase

*24.) What is the first process that occurs after a blood vessel is damaged?*

A. coagulation

B. platelet plug formation

C. vasoconstriction

D. haemolysis

*25.) Which blood cells are involved in protecting the body from pathogens and foreign cells?*

A.erythrocytes

B. leucocytes

C. platelets

D. haemoglobin

*26.) Which individuals can receive any type of blood and are considered universal recipients?*

A) A+

B.) O−

C.) AB+

D.) B−

*27.) Which is the most abundant plasma protein?*

A.)alpha- and beta- globulins

B.) albumin

C.)mitochondria

D.)haemoglobin

*28.)Which characteristic of blood refers to the concentration of solutes?*

A. salinity

B. pH

C. osmolality

D.viscosity

*29.) Which type of white blood cell is responsible for engulfing pathogens during phagocytosis?*

A.thrombocyte

B. neutrophil

C. erythrocyte

D. basophil

*30.) What does “Rhesus positive” refer to?*

A. The presence of antigen D on the surface of red blood cells

B. The final factor involved in blood clotting

C. The presence of the rhesus antibody/agglutinin in the blood

D. A deficiency of Factor VIII that results in haemophilia

C

*31.) What are red blood cells primarily composed of?*

A. alpha- and beta- globulins

B. albumin

C. mitochondria

D. haemoglobin

*32.)In the process of haemostasis, which phase involves the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?*

A. the platelet phase

B. the clot lysis phase

C. the vascular phase

D. the coagulation phase

*33.) In haemostasis, which molecule polymerises to become the insoluble blood clot?*

A. factor X

B. thrombin

C. fibrin

D. plasmin

*34.) Which enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin?*

A. serotonin

B. thrombin

C. renin

D. secretin

*35.) What can be said about a person who has the “A” antigen on their red blood cells?*

A. their blood contains anti-B agglutinins

B. their blood contains anti-A agglutinins

C. their blood contains anti-A and anti-B agglutinins

D. their blood contains neither anti-A nor anti-B agglutinins

*36.) Which one of the following is NOT a plasma protein?*

A. keratin

B. albumin

C. ferritin

D. globulin

*37.) What substance is produced by the first step in the blood clotting (coagulation) process?*

A. thrombin

B. prothrombin

C. factor X
D.prothrombinase

*38.) Which statement about neutrophils is correct?*

A. they have no nucleus

B. they contain haemoglobin

C. they function as a body defence mechanism

D. eosinophils are one type of neutrophil

*39.) A person’s blood group is determined by:*

A. the agglutinogens circulating in their plasma

B. the antigens on the surface of their red blood cells

C. the antibodies on the surface of their red blood cells

D. the agglutinins circulating in their plasma

*40.) If a blood sample is taken for DNA testing, which of the following would be examined?*

A. leucocytes

B. erythrocytes

C. thrombocytes

D.plasma proteins