THE MOST POPULAR DEFENCE EXAM APP OF ALL TIME BEST FEATURES DETAILED LECTURES PYQAs & TEST SERIES ERSS-] =1 0 r-Tot 4 a etre Sareea Ree aoc Q) SMART ANALYTICSCDS (0) EXAM:2018 Wa ae areal ae weer feat Gite wt A wet WIE aa aa A Uh Saal. : GTHY-S-XGK utter gfectert stqara er eT ama: udterot afeetent 0204653 STAT AT aa quite : 100 oe ata year me A Req me ates A sina rear orgs ayant 2 adhere ree BA A eT are ory Fetter afer At agaTeT ora ax Sf ge wy frat OT, wT aT EET JON Ye sree seater ont vA ae er, oh FA A wT Glee Bee Si . Bu cara va fk OM set-ure & afera ears ater ae site ter ye SEH A, B, Cm D at era & 1 fen feet ae ot frdait & wet oth Gere Se AM feta salicare oh 31 feet vt sea cht aan /fereiah ft featt a amare fea ax fear ore) frat 81 stem year w ste ye a fea wa aie gfe 4 120 wei (wea) eq me El wets were feet ste side eet A oo Bi wee we A aK wegTT (am) fu me 81 ee ae we FH , fa a oes & if SOT Tea 2) aie sree ten at fH oH a afi arg aA, sae weg aA sehen ae AD ara tia AA aedey were fore Soa gH ge 5. Sma SH AA AE steer B fle me ss ew iPr aS EL saw A eq me Ree Al . ae rail & sis wa &1 Fae wed Pe soe ham Yen & la wie eg sea aia aT TR aE, ome wa Ow & a Sita gta & agen go Pacer awe 2 FI . amt st a mea aA ar Awe Ss are wer able wa Bae sae sees at ais Z) ovat om a veer ya ST A eaATA BI . aed am fry aa, adler yferar Hart A dem EI 10. rea ait & fry we : areghty merci aatteere gre Req me rena Swe & Ferm eve Feat aE! (@) woke we Rhee a Sere aa sestcae ar wea en Fore Ree wee era ee fore wea Bg Pear Pe ay sia a -fteng ws Be A om TET (i ae AE setae ee A ae ee Bem 8, A AA er eT HAT aTET, TU fee Me aed Aa eH oH aE HB, foc oh sa oe re sefemgar G seh ate a ewe fe STE i tee ro A eB Pot ee wa Fe 8 ow fe To a Rear sre Wa am onal we Ue gear Gea al aA Hel WM da aH A Gt2. aR aA ews yore F a) otras te & gage soa BE tH oh at afi wt 28 818 sift wr at wa 8? (a) wet sik egies sre (b) Milian arate sit eregtacitites set () 3 ain stator (@) ara ait ag wregiactiite ara 2, A8 fu Te ant % agar CH, % 2-0 Fra FO, % 2-0 ata a afi at a CO % ‘faa ret sim fae oT wae 8? CH(e)+302 > CO+2Hy (a) 20 @) 05 @ 25 (ad) +0 3. Rafefar #8 fea a ofenst S aa safifiear sregisn fe sera ath? (a) Frifira sik eregracitites srt ) wa sit ag aes srt (o) Fiera arate sik eregiacitice srt (a) sea otk argh sree GTHY-S-XGK/41A. 4, fofetea 4 & Aaa sft wegen, age, siefisn sit ari sresange # adfta (air) 8? (q@) Aah frogs é1 (b) PRE TI HA wi Aa a1 () Awheie (@) ah A afiirarticn ca 1 5. aif C7H;NO, 4 eM 8? (a) FH ry F 17 Fe (bo) wera agen c sit Hare ay, (c) 7 Tas St gee A atte eerysit a ae xe (@) wags Tas A gen A ae eras a ety aT 6. age eegiards & fore frafefad #8 aaa aaea ae 8? (2) CrHon+2 (6) CrHon-2 (€) CrHons1 (@) CrHon-11. Two reactants in a flask at room 4. Which of the following characteristics is temperature are producing bubbles of common to hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen a gas that turn limewater milky. The and carbon dioxide? reactants could be (a) They are all diatomic. (a) zinc and hydrochloric acid (b) They are all gases at room (o) magnesium carbonate and hydrochloric acid teripexatize: (c) methane and oxygen (c) They are all coloured. (@) copper and dilute hydrochloric acid (@) They all have same reactivity. 2. How many moles of CO can be obtained by reacting 20 mole of CH, with 5. The compound C7H7NO, has 2:0 mole of Op according to the equation given below? (a) 17 atoms in a molecule of the compound CH,(e) +30, + CO+2H, (6) equal molecules of C and H by mass (a 20 = (c) twice the mass of oxygen atoms () 0: compared to nitrogen atoms 25 @ (d) twice the mass of nitrogen atoms (a 40 compared to hydrogen atoms 3. Reaction between which of the following two reactants will produce hydrogen Which of the following is the general formula for saturated hydrocarbons? gas? (a) Magnesium and hydrochloric acid (@) CrHony2 (b) Copper and dilute nitric acid (0) CyHop-2 () Calcium carbonate and hydro- C,H, pooecnnge lt (0 CaHlan 1 (da) Zinc and nitric acid (a) CrHon-1 GTHY-S-XGK/41A 3 [P.T.0.7. ww am Ram Stren @ GAA HOTS aT tie tar a afte 2) oad ae A Ga 4 o3 ats & dee Bead a often afk ‘arren 8? (a) 11% (b) 22% () 33% (a) 44% 8. a aan ona fig fia saci A otk P, ara @ Rowe sat at fren fear ae, ot za fram an aaa aa aT? P+ (a) 2 2P,Po () R+P, 2P, P, (o) ae. -P, APs (d) (@) R+P, 9, Pett or ar Fafa afer F = 27h 4 3t9+48 81 ca afte anv ait cam a ame: wef Fert a? (a) xy St zea % war (ob) yore Sit o-feem aa (oc) yo-teR oit y-fean & war (a) xy-de 7 she oc-feen & sar GTHY-S-XGK/41A 10. @ aft a gore Al oH Tat at Aft eT Hwee qe 8 20 kg HUH FUR Tah neafeg mt va fear (ema) are 8; free formed weft aft dia a frafera a sit 21 wal a oe 8 chen ae & fee saa waa fat 8 (g= 10m /s?)? (a) 200 N (b) 20N () 10N (a) sre: aE 11. frafefad 4 8 ata-a we fgg Saf a war oat F eciatea wet aeer/ach 2? (a) smart (b) weetn seasie Srats (co) cae (a) 2chifasa Bz 12. fefefea A a ae-a/a wed w/e ae raiser sin 8/3? (a) Fae ae (o) Fa TH (0) Fast ag se wt (d) 3g, 7h atk awe (are)7. A particle moves with uniform acceleration along a straight line from rest. The percentage increase in displacement during sixth second compared to that in fifth second is about (a) 11% (b) 22% () 33% (a) 44% 8. If two miscible liquids of same volume but different densities P, and P, are mixed, then the density of the mixture is given by oy (b) im @ oe 9. The position vector of a particle is 7 = 278+ 3tg+42 Then the instantaneous velocity 3 and acceleration @ respectively lie (a) on xyplane and along z-direction (b) on yz-plane and along x-direction () on yz-plane and along y-direction (a) on xyplane and along x-direction GTHY-S-XGK/41A 10. Two persons are holding a rope of negligible mass horizontally. A 20 kg mass is attached to the rope at the midpoint; as a result the rope deviates from the horizontal direction. The tension required to _ completely straighten the rope is (g = 10 m/s?) (@ 200N (b) 20N () 10N (4) infinitely large 11. Which one of the following does not convert electrical energy into light energy? (a) A candle (b) A light-emitting diode (co) A laser (@) A television set 12. Which of the following is/are the main absorbing organ/organs of plants? (a) Root only (b) Leaf only (c) Root and leaf only (d) Root, leaf and bark [P.7.0.13. frafefas 4 a aaa wm @ va (Gi) aT ratte ard at 2? (a) sien a Frater () tet an fae () 3a a aE (@) tra otk aa a ae 14. w ‘anata’ oa frafafad 4 @ feed ffs aime? (a) 3a ge a a Geren af sen 8 atk Um Fal F fared tat & (o) wa yr ar Fae ee UH Get aha ert (o) Fa we A weft gu & Aaa ae Rae (@) a gH #1 Fact sierra wet F PeenferT are 15, fraftitaa 4 & fea oe mtkBrarme aia # cred & iff arr at wa H rer 8? (a) arettcesta 0) Fg aa wm (a) a GTHY-S-XGK/41A, 16. a8 Tey sree at aiPrea: sex aK fear ar, ca vey ar Raffa 4 8 ae ae senfaa een? (a) Fae 3a a ae (o) set atk fact an afte (o) act Pact ar sate (@) Adan afr 17. Prafafad 4 8 sha-ar arcs teil & sehtois arr wett & wade 8 aver wet ee? (a) TH (b) we () (a) wa 18, fgq-garhia San a ee wr ete & (a) 3A () sata () Fen (@) va18. Which of the following is not a primary 16. If the xylem of a plant is mechanically function of a green leaf? blocked, which of the, following functions of the plant will be affected? (a) Manufacture of food (a) Transport of water only (b) Interchange of gases hal Tadhabteetion at eater (b) Transport of water and solutes {d) Conduction of food and water a Eee, (d) Transport of gases 14. Which one of the following denotes a ‘true’ fruit? jJ"When’ only. the, thalarans “of the 17. Which one of the following agents does Rape, Grovavend develone iatote: not contribute to propagation of plants fruit through seed dispersal? (6) When only the receptacle of the (a) Wind flower develops into a fruit Fungus (c) When fruit originates only from the sndpatis calyx of a flower (c) Animal (4) When only the ovary of the flower grows into a fruit (a) Water 15. In which one of the following physiological processes, excess water 18. The visible portion of the electromagnetic escapes in the form of droplets from a spectrum is plant? (a) infrared (a) Transpiration (b) Guttation (b) radiowave (c) Secretion (c) microwave (a) Excretion (d) light GTHY-S-XGK/41A 7 [P.7.0.19, Prafafad 4 8 ata-a wm 2011 A aT SRK Teal HI, SH SeT saa H ate um, Bet oleh sige 8? (a) sere yen—fafen fst —fearsat wear () sora we — Fister fear wear () friars wearers wet fate @) wore wea—fera wera frie 20. Prfafiad af sit # 2001-2011 % are an wien gm ax 3 wa ae are (1991-2001) # gem # frase sng 2, ferara (a) arora % @) Ras fo) Tae @) sieves 21, vara fafa a af & faea & Patera weit Ha ahaa us wel wet 2? (a) Yar aeevia sea FH vata & aT Gea a (o) 1 23°C-25°C & da & oo ae A marae a 81 () 7 food venta sa A stage ae 2, 550 Het @ oftre men 4 a (@) A vera-aetor F wera % fore wyE rat 4 ag & were At saga ae 21 GTHY-S-XGK/41A 22) 2011 @ saw & agen fre oF aqafaa safe A sade A aera (Tea At ga seen 4 agafaa wife A sade & aftr & organ) aaa siftrs 87 (@) 3K eT (b) feearaet weat () wa (@) sim art 23, Prafefad 4 8 fra cea i a 8 oie oq ‘acum 8? (a) FeRTy (b) fam art (c) sifear (a) aftorg 24. Ball), # Gael we & (Rem go 8 PH Ba WI WAM HK 137-3 8) (a) 85-7 (b) 1373 fo) 154-3 (a) 171-319. Which one of the following is the correct 22. As per Census 2011, the concentration ascending sequence of States in terms of Scheduled Caste population (going of their population density as per by percentage of Scheduled Caste Census 2011? population to total population of the State) is the highest in the State of (a) Arunachal Pradesh—Sikkim— Mizoram—Himachal Pradesh Fi a (@) Uttar Pradesh (>) Arunachal Pradesh--Mizoram— Sikkim—Himachal Pradesh () Himachel Pradesh (c) Mizoram—Arunachal —_Pradesh— Himachal Pradesh—Sikkim (c) Punjab (d@) Arunachal — Pradesh—Himachal Pradesh—Sikkim—Mizoram Chyeseaee 20. The rate of population growth during 2001-2011 decade declined over the 23. Which one of the following States has previous decade (1991-2001) in all of more than two major ports? the following States, except (a) Tamil Nadu ay ene (o) Kerala (b) West Bengal en (c) Odisha (a) Andhra Pradesh (@) Tamil Nadu 21. Which one of the following statements with regard to growth of coral reefs is Tipe carted? 24, The equivalent weight of Ba(OH) is (eg coal rl ggerdtei lentigo eh: (given, atomic weight of Ba is 137-3) water. (a) 85:7 (b) It requires warm water between 23 °C-25 °C. (b) 137-3 (c) It requires shallow saltwater, not deeper than 50 metres. (ce) 154-3 (a) Wt requires plenty of sunlight to aid photosynthesis. (@ 1713 GTHY-S-XGK/41A 9 [P.7.0.28. frafefad 4 8 fra adie sivas 4 argc 28. 9a a suo da fet ag ar ares viata aaa sitter ateetaner sae 8? weet &, ah sa aeg stk see wife & che Al rar fl feat 3% ara eet 87 (a) NO (a) Tate de A ote et (b) NO, bo) sa sre aa A cree a A 1 Fao (b) eA ah ian Ree. () Sa swe daA sen gi A ar HH (@) sas aa A see go A ort 26. Fea % a wy} at F fea ei we ore a, frafefan 4 @ ata 2 ok iil 29, 4-78 % fat ta me grata as A eer (a) 7e dorge 8 wa sien BI arene: fea ay Hf fafée Al are 87 (b) wae ards A seh A sfeeran aie 2, (a) &a feera ‘Farertt fe donee #1 () ® are roe 8 one fe gern 8 cm eae ; fe) Rea ste ba sma Be (a) wa ards 8 ards Ht ao ash feerait A sre aret Beh 21 (@) aan Afra wea 27, frafafan 4 8 fea wm afifrr # H,0/0, 30. fet viva #5 A aa oH a am tle are af % 1g a saad GA TH, Ae A uftvar 4 100 w-220 Vv % afte & afte corftrarars rar ara Beit 7 fr aca aefara 3a a aaiat 4 Si oT THA 8 (@) CH, +H,0>C0+3H, (a) 20 (b) CO+H,0+CO, +H, (b) 15 1 () CH, +502 > CO+2Hy a a (d) CyQHp4 +60, 1200+ 12H, (a) 10 GTHY-S-XGK/41A 1025. Which one of the following nitrogen 28. When a convex lens produces a real oxides has the highest oxidation state of image of an object, the minimum nitrogen? distance between the object and image is equal to (a) NO (a) the focal length of the convex lens (b) NOg (b) twice the focal length of the convex (9 N,0 lens (c) four times the focal length of the (a) N205 convex lens (d) one half of the focal length of the F 26. Which one of the following is not true for Se a the form of carbon known as diamond? (a) It is harder than graphite. 29, The direction of magnetic field at any location on the earth’s surface is (b) It contains the same percentage of commonly specified in terms of carbon as graphite. (@) field declination () It is a better electric conductor than graphite. (b) field inclination (d) It has different carbon to carbon () both field declination and field distance in all directions. inclination (a) horizontal component of the field 27. In which one of the following reactions, the maximum quantity of Hy gas is oo : : produced by the decomposition of 1 g of SO Seemeenes, Tee cee ee compound by H,0/0,? of 5 A. What is the maximum number of Be ania 100 W-220 V bulbs that can be safely ected i lel in the circuit? (@) CH, +H,0-4C0+ aH, connected in parallel in the circuit (a 20 (b) CO+H,0 CO, +H i (b) 15 (c) CHy +302 > CO+2H, @ (d) CygHoq +602 -» 12C0+ 12H (a 10 GTHY-S-XGK/41A, uu [P.7.0.31. freafafar 4 8 fad srr at wad sett ger ‘on Beret 8? (a) fret st (b) Sa ae () Hae (a) 3 32, Prfitan 4 & fad son A aft gor era aaet & Hr ae act? (a) Fae He (o) RR ste waa ae yar (co) aen-wg ant sik arg ar aera (@) ara % aq 4 ora ware SA ar aes, & aha Al wag ar a 33. frafefaar 4 8 ata um cam wey at ‘watcen aI oH tr 8? (@) sng ‘sta? a gen aT () are aes er eT STAT (co) Feca Sye ar aT aT (@) Ra Te ar oT aT GTHY-S-XGK/41A, 12 34. ana & wa da A aig, ype, warm ote atez i aa frets % & ahaa r/c Pet at 8/87 @) Geer ok qari a ater (b) Gaarysit ar afters sit seh nfiettera (co) Ypres sit apprsit Ft afeetterar (@) Fae URTsHt A after 38. frafafiss #8 staat om fate vaR a at St ga fren are are # sera aher & ste we ama 3 aaara irq # uff wae a Frefarr ae & fore sirard aren 8? (a) fry oH He we H ae eH Tea (b) Sart au (giftrrra fires) (c) 7aEr (#ateR) (@) ahsing qa 36, firafafaa #8 atm we ar RNA fiery Hu oF at seat seated a otk chat ‘faeera fh caren axa 8? (a) DNA 4 get # RNA Stared fe a (6) frmy Fan wet A sifea atfirer a FR A afta A wa 21 (o) Pray sare arent ser et a (a) Feary ara ry ae sere te BHA EL31. Which one of the following can extinguish 34, Which of the following roles is/are played fire more quickly? by epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles and prostate in male (a) Cold water reproductive system of human? (a) Spermatogenesis and maturation of (b) Boiling water sperms ae as (b) Maturation and motility of sperms (c) Spermatogenesis and motility of (@) Ice sperms (a) Motility of sperms only 32. In which of the following, heat loss is 35. Which one of the following is the special primarily not due to convection? type of milk produced by a lactating mother, essential for the development of ) Bollngwater immune response of newborn baby in human? (b) Land and sea breeze (a) Breast milk produced after a month of childbirth (c) Circulation of air around blast furnace (b) Transitional milk (c) Colostrum (d) Heating of glass surface of a bulb due to current in filament (@) Mineralized milk 36. Which one of the following statements explains higher mutation rate and faster r ee i 33. Which one of the following features is an EENGGshep cay en Oeiea indication for modification of stem of a plant? (a) RNA is relatively unstable compared to DNA. (a) Presence of ‘eye’ on potato : ee (6) Virus can multiply only within the living cell of a host. (b) ‘Scale’ found in onion () Metabolic processes are absent in (c) Tendril’ found in pea virus. (@) Virus can remain latent for a long (a) ‘Hair’ present in carrot period. GTHY-S-XGK/41A 13 [P.T.0.37. wed seen (2011) Ft sferrant 3% eta F frafafad 4 8 saa wm ost ar al arte age a? (a) aierrg—fsiea—aea—aere (6) tian —fiste rere art fo) Rare — ee —Fasite—aite (a) Pietra 38. fefefad #8 sita-a we eam vite ar Het ora? (@ to) ra () & (a) wee 39. afi srafz sit crag sre anfife: auf ar 50 sive & site frefafar 4 8 fea we a wm art @? (a) =feoh-aferht arg () Sai-eT aS (o) Sher artes At arret Ft ret erat (dy vf aed 40, irs Pash Bet eafeiRaa HA Rowell yee ate a (a) Area et arctan B (b) werd a area & () 3ear A Paar diy ang a (a) Wu age SRT a GTHY-S-XGK/41A, 14 41. qu A git & wa gies Af otk afeeat & aa fee ay ge ar we a ae oT fr: wha wha (era ar orffer) (sate) A. steitfirs ae 1. farmer B. wae ae 2. freng C. GAT 3. faerie D. Ae ore 4. Sree We: @a EB cp a stile ogi wl ga Bros 2 su ma @a s. ¢,.*D Sas. ae 2 @ a Be! a A + Bee, 42. ana & yft-sein Rafe & fea a Refit wort HS ataan/a wel 2/8? 1, wae aa a ae & siete aa A od ah ang 81 2. th-pft sein sia a art F wa & ail fo ufi-aein oe Aa wad afte 21 3. wet aaf § fhe 3a fe aor si aan wat aft, aremet % sila Ba sit ge A Geet Fat org 1 a feu mu ag a Fe a ae THE GAIT (a) ¥741 (o) ¥ae 1 3 2 () Fam 2 sik 3 (a) 1, 23R339. South Arcot 40. The 37. Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of States with regard to percentage of urban population (2011)? (a) Tamil Nadu—Mizoram--Goa— Maharashtra (b) Goa—Mizoram—Maharashtra— Kerala (c). Maharashtra—Kerala—Mizoram— Goa (a) Mizoram—Goa—Maharashtra— Kerala 38. Which one of the following places does not fall on leeward slope? (@) Pune () (C] (@ Bengaluru Leh Mangaluru and Ramanathapuram receive over 50 percent of their annual rainfall from which one of the following? (@ ® © South-west monsoon North-east monsoon Bay of Bengal branch of summer monsoon (a) Western disturbances Eight Degree Channel separates which of the following? (a) (b) () (a) India from Sri Lanka Lakshadweep from Maldives Andaman from Nicobar Islands Indira Point from Indonesia GTHY-S-XGK/41A 15 41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I ListHl (Classification of Town) (Example) A. Industrial Town 1. Vishakhapatnam B. Transport Town 2, Bhilai C. Mining Town 3. Singrauli D. Garrison 4. Ambala Cantonment Town Code : ‘ase BP "= Dp 2 ' 3 4 (oy A. “BY G4 D 2 3 1 4 @eA “B.ED 4 3 1 2 Qk Bex p 4 1 3 2 42. Which of the following statements with regard to the land-use situation in India is/are correct? 1s There has been a tremendous decline in area under forest in recent years. ‘The rate of increase in land use in recent years is the highest in case of area under non-agricultural use. Land use such as barren and wasteland, area under pastures and tree crops have experienced decline in recent years. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) () () (@) 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 [P-10.43. eadaa & acaret ae aN A Gar & sere 46, 22) tad sia a1 Gear sel fra 8? al age & faq ana ween am aga A (@ RE (srr) ht arhifeal a1 ce sie Praferfiad 48 ara we agi on? (b) we wa ea A ea om ¢ (a) Fe a a ora a (a) wat () @h aa ae sik wef yh wR ste 47. Pafafad 48 aad we ai za A wee (oft) & stats car act at ara aa wal set 8? al ae (a) at () 3a fear ate fest (HYV) & ast aT (bo) Get sein eT (co) sae (@) 768 wat & aa 7 ae sai A a ea ait (4 3k fara) 48. aha a ga & om gifea Fhe afk afetl & fa faq me ee a en aR a oT 44, Prefafad 43 aaah oe a aim Hite er: wed 87 wh win (a) wert (sa aie) (aa) (hy et A. eth ate 1. Rea sta B. afer arn af 2. afrerg (c) gem C. Beran afr 3. ates (a) er D. ig ate 4. Re : 45. are umm feat aftifera 87 ak B-o ‘Db " Bh Bie (a) sig \-efirenfess sage A der rar ye fe ore (0) 3ie)-oRrntes saga A a-=r ra Fiat the, (Giky B. Gy .,D (co) ati-fread ga At sad sre re 0 ie | ah jf A BG" D (d) Arh-feeach get At aren raat eT nny ee GTHY-S-XGK/41A 1643. Which one of the following was not a part of the strategies followed by the Government of India to increase food grain production in India immediately after Independence? (a) Intensification of cropping over already cultivated land Increasing cultivable area by bringing cultivable and fallow land under plough (e) (c) Using high-yielding varieties (HYV) seeds (a) Switching over from cash crops to food crops 44, Which one of the following is a west- flowing river? (a) Mahanadi (6) Godavari () Krishna (a) Narmada 48. Khasi language is included in Munda branch of Austro-Asiatic sub-family (a) Mon-Khmer branch of Austro- Asiatic sub-family 0) North Assam branch of Sino- Tibetan family () (a) Assam-Myanmari branch of Sino- Tibetan family GTHY-S-XGK/41A 17 46. The headquarters of Metro Railway Zone is located in (a) (b) (co) @ New Delhi Mumbai Kolkata Chennai 47. Which one among the following is not a tributary of river Luni? (a) Khari (6) Suri () (a) Jawai Banas 48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List (Major Dam) List (State) A. Cheruthoni Dam 1. Madhya Pradesh B. Indira Sagar Dam 2. Tamil Nadu C. Krishnarajasagar 3. Karnataka Dam Mettur Dam 4. Kerala Code (uk a CoD Ci ee | fa 8 o D a Avs cD 434 0 # @séA-8 GO D | || [P-7.0.49. ane % Prafetad da osa-aai a fee oe ‘udta caarit Ft ciarg waa eH 8? (a) <éirg to) Fee () wa sik da (a) zea at am wach 80, frafefad 4 & aaa ue ad cern at aera @ sitar 8? (@) Waa &) aie (co) WARK (a) He Si. ced & fim (ora) a uncta ford dem are fie ay vdtaat rer 3 sagan Ysira ad fies 1 afta 2? (a) ante Preera () a smeff hk ae (c) wet Fare (a) oer GTHY-S-XGK/41A 18 52. faa a Fi ain fasta fed, 2018 % agar Prefer 4 8 fea Ga a /frr dat a aed & Seiten % 2017 A ger # 2018 4 gUR ET a 1. a ar prea eT 2. Reanferarad ar Pere aca 3. SHIR sry oT 4. fase ma aor ae fea me ez a we ae ae oR BARC (a) Fara 1 (b) Faw 1 2 () 1,239%3 (@) 2,33%4 83. steed fan one A ced at an-mnftell & fac & fem frafafiad wreet (tufted) at raf mera feu 8 : 1. ST oi 2. ae 3. sHeifertia vada 4, dart wade sacl a sah wee & orem we sate wa 4 crater fire (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 1-243 () 1-3-2-4 (@) 43-2149. Which one among the following Union 52. According to the World Bank’s Doing Territories of India shares the shortest Business Report, 2018, India’s ranking length of National Highways? has improved in 2018 as compared to 2017 in which of the following areas? (a) Chandigarh 1. Paying taxes 2. Resolving insolvency (b) Delhi 3. Starting a business 4. Getting electricit (c) Daman and Diu . % Select the correct answer using the code (@ Dadra and Nagar Haveli given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 50. Which one among the following passes links Lhasa with Ladakh? (c) 1,2 and 3 (a) Lanak La (a) 2,3 and 4 (6) Burzil 53. The Fourteenth Finance Commission assigned different weights to the following parameters for distribution of tax proceeds to the States : () Babusar (a) Khyber 1, Income distance 2. Population 3. Demographic changes 51. According to the latest Reserve Bank of 4. Area India study on State finances, capital % = spending is maximum on Arrange the aforesaid parameters in descending order in terms of their weights. (a) rural development (a) 1-2-34 (b) water supply and sanitation (b) 1-243 (c) urban development (9 1-3-2-4 (d) education (@) 4-3-2-1 GTHY-S-XGK/41A 19 [P.7.0.84, diame A meter ce mrERe A Reema BB. age A orga afRent Prafeitea H @ fea ‘fat Ht ah? ‘Ofa a aiaft srfsia ax ward 87 (a) fieea stata (@ ate (b) Yo waqo fea (b) Feat (co) 4 Wo Fra (a) sito so feratt fe) Pre-fre (@) scare 55. Feo wae we fish, sa eer & Prefefaa I 2 fra nya waar & asia 87 (a) een 59. us safaga ak ga & fier wenn % aig ah % fea idan freferfiaa 48 Pre ate a — fred & () thet aifsgra Pert (a) rere 8 (bo) eRe ere 86. alég ora en feee sar H fore met ht? (6) sige Frere (a) Epa to) Fe pas (c) afte (@ aie 60. eH vated Feat F Frraferfad HB aa-eh oH ag tm a Req Sr are ria frais Am wet of? 87. aftr am sal & agen Peafefiad 48 a ad ai SBrerh @ a7 (a) rch firs (me) (a) reste 1 (bo) sermieh (aTeTs) (o) Ser fo) sifome () wi (zieetgwate) (a) Aeprer (d) sre GTHY-S-XGK/41A54. The natural rate of unemployment 58. According to the Manusmriti, women can hypothesis was advocated by acquire wealth through which of the following means? (a) Milton Friedman (0) A.W. Phillips (a) Purchase () J. M. Keynes (6) Investment (a) R. G. Lipsey (co) Token of affection 55. The Harappan site at Kot Diji is close to (@) Inheritance which one of the following major sites of that civilization? (a) Harappa 59. The dialogue on Varna between king (b) Mohenjo-daro Avantiputta and Kachchana, a disciple of Buddha, appears in which one of the (c) Lothal following Buddhist texts? (d) Kalibanj i. a (a) Majjhima Nikaya 86. The story Gandatindu Jataka was written (6) Samyutta Nikaya in which language? () Anguttara Nikaya (a) Sanskrit (6) Telugu (a) Ambattha Sutta () Tamil (@) Pali 60. In the first century AD, which among the following was not a major item of Indian 57. According to the Tamil Sangam texts, exports to Rome? who among the following were the large landowners? (a) Pepper Gahapatis ny il (b) Spikenard (b) Uzhavars (c) Adimais (c) Tortoiseshell (d) Vellalars (d) Nutmeg GTHY-S-XGK/41A, 21 [P.7.0.61, una wan afefian, i858 % din Frrafeatan seri 4 & ata-a1/a ae 8/8? 1. fafee ae 3 fee afer seh @ ar oe ‘eager seo Ft eft 2. fafen dae 3 ana % mea % fore weer cag fate ra ener rer & an saftirratir Pen em 3. 7 afer ta caer Ft fear feet cafe aenftie ara Riga anise Priam % frais @ safeenftre et fe a me gz & iT an a SR GAEL (a) *aa 1 3k 2 (b) *aa2 () 1,233 (a) Fa 1 ss 62, urea vite sfifian (gaa araftca tae), 1861 % dau 4 Prefer at Ha wera /8 we B/E? 1. ge often 3 vepit-srrer At ere afte, 4 fae well at afta a ‘ciefieaan a we ye set TI 2, Beet at amfiée fear sar a ger Aa aril at sia ea a a aur wend & Fran aa Sifts ax fee ren em Sit aTerhe- SAS SRT ga BAT TE STA 3. Tarra & we sweet faerie ae ft fe fee 1a ag ar war aR ae TH GAL (a) ¥aat 1 2 @) FMI | () 1,233 (a) aa 1 GTHY-S-XGK/41A, 22 63. afer aH ae sitiga Utertrs seeat % Her & dae § feafetad wert 4-8 ate-a1/a wet ae 1, Seat & wer 3 oe wht oral awit a ‘far & saftaio a agsntirt fea 2. ae Fact UH wera Gai on, afer wm thn, we ae dacs ott ww ofa at 3. Rem dem a safes ah ver ‘fem 9 Req ae ae ar wat ax ae SA GAZI (a) Faw 1 32 (b) Faw 1 () 1,239R3 (@) *at 233 64, fart 2018 4 aga 2+2 feueiia dare fa aa gon? (q) wna % fata set a en HA a HH SRA aR aT (b) He % fara set a en A aT TH Se armel & arr (We % ew a wn a a a afer armatt % are (@) wea % fee wt awn at a He cnfereart were & areWhich of the following statements relating to the Government of India Act, 1858 is/are correct? 1. The British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company. 2. The British Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British. 3.. This Act was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only () 1,2and3 (a) 1 and 3 only 62. Which of the following statements relating to the Indian Councils Act, 1861 is/are correct? 1, The Act introduced a grain of popular element by including non-official members in the Governor-General’s Executive Council. 2. The members were nominated and their functions were confined exclusively to consideration of legislative proposals placed before it by the Governor-General. 3. The Governor-General did not have effective legislative power. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (6) 2 and 3 only () 1,2 and3 (a) 1 only GTHY-S-XGK/41A, 63. Which relating to the of the following statements historic Objectives Resolution, which was adopted by the Constituent Assembly, is/are correct? fl, ‘The Objectives Resolution inspired the shaping of the Constitution through all its subsequent stages. It was not just a resolution, but a declaration, a firm resolve and a pledge. It provided the underlying philosophy of our Constitution. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) 0) ) (@ 1 and 2 only 1 only 1,2 and 3 2 and 3 only 64. The 2+2 Bilateral Dialogue was held in September 2018 between @ () (c) (a) External Affairs and Defence Ministers of India with their US counterparts Finance and Defence Ministers of India with their Russian counterparts Home and Defence Ministers of India and their counterparts in Pakistan External Affairs and Defence Ministers of India with their counterparts in Pakistan [P-7.0.65, site 2018 4 fea van ator afte a orem 68. § 2017 4 vam siarera arr tan Ba Hanis (Gaia) az 87 santero ofa atta nf eh amit wftartt anf & arery & settee & fare Hater (a) wernt ao sfifiatta ax at Fo fefefa 4 a ahaa aa ag 8? Pima Sma (a) a (anfSa =) (o) tan tat (b) Fam aA ai Betta (a) aeter mRE (co) Wg (@) Fea Gam ae a Ae Tas oH 66. ‘ava’ Freifefiad i @ free aH 8? 69, aftaoff wre ‘CAATSA’ frrafefiad 4 8 fra ea (a) qo aes be ‘ara siftfatiia fauna at Pike aca 87 (o) are vagal (a) anaes fore (bo) Hae Ts arate (6) Fa yas aE () a (@) Far aes (d@) wR 67, dora i orgare eaassagihea wet 3 sects 70. Sn HR ANT Sara sHfaR % gti afte vat aa 4 aa fateh Rae fated Fe GOT Sa ST FT MET aA ay ‘tea ef a srg 2? Fara 2017 4 niga ‘and aa’ ar datas Ga aare (a) 26 sferera (a) Free ares (b) 74 sierra (b) Bea weet fo) 51 fered (o) sire He (@) 49 sftera (a) Arh fen GTHY-S-XGK/41A 24THE MOST POPULAR DEFENCE EXAM APP OF ALL TIME BEST FEATURES DETAILED LECTURES PYQAs & TEST SERIES ERSS-] =1 0 r-Tot 4 a etre Sareea Ree aoc Q) SMART ANALYTICS65. Who is the Chairman of the Defence 68. The policy on strategic partnerships in Planning Committee set up in defence was approved by the Ministry of April 2018? Defence in May 2017. Which of the following is not among the four (a) The Prime Minister segments identified by the Ministry for acquisition through the __ strategic artnership route? (b) The National Security Advisor = e (a) Artillery guns (c) The Defence Minister (6) Fighter aircraft and helicopters (d) The Chief of the Army Staff '@). Batons (d) Armoured fighting vehicles and main battle tanks 66. ‘Tejas’ is the name of which one of the following? 69. The acronym ‘CAATSA’ refers to a piece of (a) Main battle tank legislation enacted by which one of the following countries? (6) Nuclear submarine neta (c) Light combat aircraft (b) United States of America (d) Aircraft carrier (c) Russia (@) India 67. As per the extant policy, Foreign Direct is Tagoutinnn ip ipubaditteetantnis stots 70. Who among the following is the Convener sector under the automatic route up to of the “Task Force’ set up in November which one of the following limits? 2017 by the Government of India to review the Income-tax Act and draft a ian new direct tax law? (a) percent (@) Girish Ahuja (b) 74 percent (6) Mukesh Patel () 51 percent (c) Arbind Modi (a) 49 percent (@) Mansi Kedia GTHY-S-XGK/41A 25 [P.7.071. Jae 2018 4 africa % fofa & dae FH frafeatan 4 & fra wa weet % fee aA aad yea (MSP) 4 gfe A oferta sift rid (a) san (HR) (b) ART (oc) 7 (a) daria Pras: frafafad an (4) seat Fat ae %, eT ok wea IL. Set wert ar raartigdes ada Ase sie AA Re me ee a wer ae BET Se BAL ae: (a) Si se sremr-sret we & ait we TL, wer Lar wet eretaaeeT & ) Wt we seme a %, ey ea UL, Fe 1 aT ae Sota eT e (oc) Hr Lad @, fag eer ea 8 (@) Fr ee @, fg eer ae 72, HAL: and # 2017-2018 % én wail # ga caer oer aman tat at 3 afer FRBM tt & St 3 SK AT TT! GTHY-S-XGK/41A 73. 14. 75. er I: fata ah & ot a feta oa 2016-2017 A gem F 2017-2018 4 after $8 ee ofa TAT wr: 2007-2008 @% 2015-2016 % ae nda reoraean Hare =H aa fae BE BI eer: vita, she arate wa Hi Pree 1 wr: ana # ogden 4 fiat fae, adafrs Past age aire 3 (wm) &1 wee I: aa A agen ARR HF fesfaere grrr or 8 we tee Pr wT: wre 3 pf anf of ga doe Ht aT aT ‘fre @1 wer I: una # eft Saran A sfeacan fang aah act ae eI71. With regard to the cabinet decision in July 2018, the percentage increase in Minimum Support Price (MSP) is maximum in which one of the following crops? (a) (b) (c) Maize @ Jowar (Hybrid) Bajra Soya bean Directions : The following four (4) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement I. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. Code : (a) Both the statements = are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (6) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement | is false but Statement II is true 72. Statement I : ‘The overalll fiscal deficit of the States in India during 2017-2018 stayed above the FRBM threshold level of 3 percent for the third successive year. GTHY-S-XGK/41A, 27 Statement II : Special Category States had run up a higher level of fiscal deficit in 2017-2018 compared to 2016-2017. 73. Statement I : ‘There has been a sharp decline in savings rate in Indian economy between 2007-2008 to 2015-2016. Statement II : ‘There has been a fall in household and public savings. 74, Statement I : Private investments in research have severely lagged public investments in India. Statement II : Universities play a relatively small role in the research activities of the country. 78. Statement I : Agriculture in India still accounts for a substantial share in total employment. Statement Il : There has been no decline in volatility of agricultural growth in India. [P.T.0.76. aa a wh eh ae ea 79. gala GR, WH afore ale, fea Te aE aft ana 4 at aa 7a? ar aeia Bras en? (a) gant are (a) HR &) we (b) seer (e) tare (co) Weatier (a) afte (a) me ser 77. Foam 4 am wae a at Prafetar #8 80. 18di ware 4 sau ar waa EMT Far aae ‘rae eel sara car 2? aa? (a) ata a afer (a) ar ERTS (b) atte sider (Rafa) shart (b) Fara ware sieht a () eva () Fara ysT-se-eeT (a) Sar ariet (@) Fara Bare GA 738. sa wera % fae ww sept ate 81. widtdl aot taht & agen 174 mare anta-v-sread oe at & e Pert Fa 2a arr a sifterae Hae Pre’ sare se ‘eat are fered met ah? a? (a) sates aeaerdt (a) 4 ain im (wea) (o) ware ara (b) TR sk TE (EH) (6) sage aR sere (oc) are ate eR (a) Frame sere (a) & ate ae GTHY-S-XGK/41A, 2876. Who among the following European 79. The aristocrat Mugarrab Khan was a travellers never returned to Europe and great favourite of which Mughal settled down in India? Emperor? (a) Duarte Barbosa (a) Akbar (6) Manucci (6) Jahangir (c) Tavernier (c) Farrukhsiyar (4) Bernier (a) Shah Alam 77. The class of Amar Nayakas in Vijayanagara is a reference to which of the following? 80. Who was the first Nawab Wazir of Awadh in the 18th century? (a) Village Chieftains Ge) Bevratipatccions (6) Senior Civil Servants ib) Newel Saaaat pH REED () Tributary Chiefs (c) Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula (d) Military Commanders (a) Nawab Sadat Khan 78. The important source for Akbar’s reign, 81. According to the French traveller Tarikhi-Akbari was written by which Tavernier, the majority of houses in one of the following Persian language Varanasi during the 17th century were scholars? made of (@) Arif Qandahari (@) brick and mud (6) Bayazid Bayat (b) stone and thatch () Abdul Qadir Badauni (¢) wood and stone (d) Nizamuddin Ahmad (@) brick and stone GTHY-S-XGK/41A 29 [P.1.0.82, Tee & adel & fava 4 freaferfiaa seri # a a-a/a ae 8/8? 1. we} date ge} ef oe & ade due 4 vedi a val an fava veh al 2. set use sei afafug @ ada we a aif fiela da @ am set ae conf aurea 2 aia usa 3 yea ardarer ae x arf aon 8, aef sah ard dae ant dicta & orig wa B1 AS fee me ae ar vein aR we Se GAC (a) Fat 1 (b) a 2 () 13%e2 et (2) AwM1, 782 83. um % dem a fefefad #8 ah- agede orem trea & Ferg fade sade @ dara tg (a) 8ge82 371A (b) 34-82 371B (c) 4ye 371C (a) 3H82 371D 84. una & dieu & frfefaa 4 a fea syede & ady aaa Tea WH SP] BT 8? (a) Fae 238 () sq 370 (o) SiGe 371 (@) sy 3716 GTHY-S-XGK/41A 85. ua & deen A frfefaa A a a-dt aah earereret Pron afer A eae a aay ari 87 (a) tad agqst (b) teh sa (oe) sect saat (a) wal aR 86, frifiad 7 a fea wm med F sits 2018 F ‘DEFEXPO 2018’ #44 ga? (a) mira (b) Fates (6) aibrerTg (@) sia xe 87. 2018 % ase wre H fora Het gre sift St eet atriire atte frafafad i a fea aeat t mee (a) after ak afara aire (6) ‘ara ai efearon (co) Tra ate mer (ay sae stk aPreTTg82. Which of the following statements 85. Which one of the following Schedules relating to the duties of the Governor to the Constitution of India provides is/are correct? for setting up of Autonomous District 1. The duties of the Governor as a Councils? constitutional Head of the State do not become the subject matter (@) Third Schedule of questions or debate in the Parliament. 2. Where the Governor takes a (b) Fourth Schedule decision independently of his Council of Ministers or where he (c) Fifth Schedule acts as the Chief Executive of the State under President’s rule, his + (a) Sixth Schedule actions are subject to scrutiny by the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code vet, belows 86. In which one of the following States was (a) 1 only ‘DEFEXPO 2018? held in April 2018? (b) 2 only fa) Gon () Both 1 and 2 (@) Neither 1 nor 2 (6) Keenatitin: 83. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the special provision with respect to the State of Assam? (@) Andhra Pradesh () Tamil Nadu (a) Article 3714 (6) Article 371B (o) Article 371¢ 87. The two defence industrial corridors ' announced by the Finance Minister in ee his 2018 Budget speech are coming up in which of the followi: States? 84, Provisions of which one of the following ee re ore Articles of the Constitution of India apply to the State of Jammu and (a) Odisha and West Bengal Kashmir? (a) Article 238 (b) Punjab and Haryana (b) Article 370 () Article 371 (a) Article 371G (a) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu (c) Gujarat and Maharashtra GTHY-S-XGK/41A 31 [P.T.0.88, UNA FT Tes See aga ares (IAC) fee am @ a ST 8? (a) axia (b) fare () ama (a) we go. ‘agy’ vfviser & sieia eis 155-mm atatd afer dist & saa # feaferfad 9 a ‘fea we fanfare ere aT 8? (a) vier eeagihrae fates (b) attra treba () ana srenfiae ferftes (a) Fra eng Fee 90. ffefad 4 & ea-a wH ai 2020 strates Geli a softies qian 8? fa) agnin (ge) () Rae St ate (o) acter, yt sre, si agar (a) Prete GTHY-S-XGK/41A 32 91. ate maa 9 srereffa favre arian “Frere aeattar ae a A fea ar ye Fear Ta? (a) “retreat (b) ha aa aR (o) Sera arate (@) yada Perea 92. 3 aes ate we falar eit a fe wrk Serer arer een fen aT aT? (a) ait tee (b) aid wiarfera (co) trad Aaah (a) Faferean ate 93. ae sigreia sfreratn a %, fret Lodi adh & ana 4 fe-seitteeer At siftrereon aac 4 gare-titees amt waa steel (aa) a ‘aaa fan 8? (a) Ata Te (bo) 3a gan arr (co) Berar erat (a) er wha88, What is India’s first Indigenous Aircraft 91. Mission Satyanishtha’, a programme Carrier (IAC) called? on ethics in public governance, was launched recently by the (@) Vikrant (a) Indian Railways (b) Virat (b) Central Bureau of Investigation (ce) Vaibhav (c) Supreme Court (2) Varaba; (a) Enforcement Directorate 89. Which one of the following manufacturers 92. The College of Fort William was is engaged in upgradation of the established by which one of the Swedish 155-mm Bofors Howitzer under following Governor-Generals? the project Dhanush’? (a) Warren Hastings (2) Bharat Electronics Limited (2) Lord Cornwallis (b) Ordnance Factory Board () Richard Wellesley (c) Bharat Dynamics Limited (@) William Bentinck (a) Mishra Dhatu Nigam 93. The Economic historian, who has used the data collected by Buchanan- Hamilton to support the thesis of deindustrialization in the 19th century India, is 90. Which one of the following is the official mascot of Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games? (a) Soohorang (a) Tirthankar Roy (6) Vinicius de Moraes (b) Amiya Kumar Bagchi (c) The Hare, the Polar Bear and the Leopard (c) Sabyasachi Bhattacharya (d) Miraitowa (a) Irfan Habib GTHY-S-XGK/41A 33 [P.7.0.94, 194f ad A ana ara sien Pee ava war a? (a) Ses Sa b) Fae (oc) wad tea (a) Tad atta 9s. gmt az aa 4 Pefafad 4 a fea ar A “crag few Yeah” as fem a? (aA () sia (co) wt (@) waft 96. fra usrits cai 7 6 WH, 1946 F Bfate fier car at shears wa & ean ax fora, fe doy afer Ay ai al sect AT fen en? (a) fea mere (o) tie (oy ee efi (a) aprae Ta 97. afar aida fra aT, fret aon frraret (1944) 4 @, an fraifaa sree a aT? (a) eerie weet (b) fertar wra (o) sy wa yeaa (a) Fa GTHY-S-XGK/41A 34 9s, ramet fren vieg & fala aeeit A vaafa % at 9 fafatad #3 sha we et (a) Frater A arta a ota at (o) Pater % are sfeq ft seam tow Ft Pruftca fafa & ota a () wa Ten A atta 8 ve at (@) Ratan ft anita & we at 99, frafefad 4 @ a4 caracenet fren stk ata afer A Af At sane FAY carte aan? (a) are a Pea att mercer woes (b) wR Bea ane Aafera sree SearH (o) Ta Bee % Sear (a) FE A aria rare 100, warrant fret ot ata oieet & feat hte dared & after sree Freier A eR Pea oH? (a) WIT (o) Teste () Ta yer (a) sarRet94. ‘Tea growing in India in the 19th century 98. Which one of the following regarding was made possible by the tenure of the elected members of the Autonomous District Council is (a) Joseph Banks correct? ae cc (a) Five years from the date of election (c) Robert Fortune (b) Five years from the date appointed (a) Robert Owen for the first meeting of the Council after the election 95, Subhas Chandra Bose started the ‘Azad () Six years from the date of Hind Radio’ in which of the following administration of Oath countries? (a) Six years from the date of election (a) Japan oe 99. Who among the following shall cause the () Germany accounts of the Autonomous District and Regional Council Funds to be (d) Malaysia audited? (a) The Comptroller and Auditor 96. Which political party formally accepted Genireltdt tnd the Cabinet Mission Plan on 6th June, 1946, which had rejected the (b) The Chartered Accountant demand for a sovereign Pakistan? empanelled by the Government of India (a) The Hindu Mahasabha (b) The Congress (c) The State Government Auditors (etpMtoe fiaticn Leeimas (@) Any Chartered Accountant (d) The Unionist Party 100. Who has the power of annulment or suspension of Acts and Resolutions of the Autonomous District and Regional Councils? 97. The elected President of the All India Kisan Sabha, which met in Vijayawada (1944), was (a) Sahajananda Saraswati Gras Gorenne (b) Vinoba Bhave (b) The President (c) Achyut Rao Patwardhan (c) The Chief Minister of the State (d) Narendra Dev (d) The Prime Minister GTHY-S-XGK/41A 35 [P.7.0.101. da A sari % dau Found & Peas ok mereka dias At Gravatar sft at fe wre Pear aren? (a) wesfe (o) ae on eae (o) weit (a) srt 102. fafafad 4 a sa-a cea A aft a ‘Wafers ae 8? (a) TAs ait Ga aia () Fara & Rafe Baie () wa Rar eH A sigd (AAA) oT, eafita aor atte sit eT (@) 4% faq am, wfacie, fro seat after ver a Ft afte 103. dae 4 sien ott eet deren fan % at F Prafeftad i 8 stam cH wet ae Re? (@) 133% are sal eT ) aaah sift sik aqafa sania, ager & ae # gta wa & wa at a wal aot (o) Wa wen & fri & ois fet sor 4 fee maar & fet & get x zat ar (ay shee aftrest A abit a car BY eich aa % sai ee GTHY-S-XGK/41A 104, fafafaa 4 & a ana & fafer odin ‘ara site afteat & sels wet 2? (a) Prafaes arerach AB Aone ar aie, faders ote Pea aT (o) We % ok vas Tea A fae aT | Frater at art (o) Teste we sreenhe & wal & foxy Praise aT (@ faba arin A, sa at a ai & fer 4 aera at % fee ate ara ot Fras eT 108, Fay ane & snes ey HF Frahes fo frafefad #8 aa-w as Sra wet? (q) Pai sa arenes % arte & es an-d-an ota ad () Pet sa are & afta} aH an-8-an we at (oc) wefe A va A ow creunfte =arafag, @ weaftia wee & wa anton aha at101. The audit reports of the Comptroller and 104. Which of the following is not under the Auditor General of India relating to the Powers and functions of the Election accounts of the Union shall be Commission of India? submitted to (a) the President (@) Superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of (e) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha electoral rolls () the Prime Minister (®) Conduct of elections to the (@) the Vice President Parliament and to the Legislature of each State 102. Which of the following is not related $ to the powers of the Governor? () Conduct of election to the office of the President and ~—the (a) Diplomatic and military powers Vice President (b) Power to appoint Advocate General (@) Appointment of the Regional (c) Summoning, proroguing and Commissioners to assist the dissolving State Legislature Election Commission in the performance of the functions (a) Power to grant pardons, reprieves, conferred on the Commission respites or remission _ of punishments 103. Which one of the following regarding the procedure and conduct of business in the Parliament is not correct? 105. Which one of the following criteria is not required to be qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court? (a) To discuss State matters (biiriTa; daacusetiies yen htc nie Cease (a) At least five years as a Judge of a police force in suppressing the High! Court Scheduled Caste and Scheduled ‘Tribe communities (b) At least ten years as an Advocate of (c) To discuss issues in dealing enact with violent disturbances in an Undertaking under the control of (c) In the opinion of the President, a the Union Government distinguished Jurist (d) To discuss issues for putting down the demands of the industrial (d) At least twenty years as a Sub- labour Judicial Magistrate GTHY-S-XGK/41A 37 [P.7.0.106. frafefan 4a aa eH Gert & ade F wei 2? fq we % ame & weer a dati rifts wei fiokdl she famae & vert Aur} wee a defer =r ) wt % yaa & die A cea a adi ng qaat ote fore & vedi a ‘Syee T (o) wats whiter Hea weet afr aifrafeey wih Poh a aah at daft eT (@) ae cere ter are, at 8a Peet are aa, fre x feet set are Ficta fern et @ Peg fiat are fran ae Pear eT 8, diet, & rarod sega oT 107. frefefad 4 3 fea ost 4 faereica a7 arr wat aT Set 87 (a) Tea (b) Fra at () fram site (a) yore GTHY-S-XGK/41A 108. THIMTa A Hee oT ae Al afte & aH Praferiad 4 er wel wet 2? (a) ae Radcoretta ats wei 1 (bo) wera Pet of wer were a aa a wen el (o) wearer Safe ar eT at Peat aT wae *, sa frurnisa wa Fae a (a) seat sie (aia) wer fee Bat Al wer ik were A Sra AE Bh 2 109. arate A arbifis str % day F Prafetard seri 4 @ staan wel et 8? (a) Hae Te TET 3 After % are ai 10 Rar, 1948 a sive frat am (6) ae %& fae A wfenfia Fifer after & afiva sudu aranttient A wrdvities chao % sadet % wart 8) ( Fea at afer, arated A ‘arebtftes eitaon ar fear ae 21 (a) ara, aerate A ards shoo ar WH RTA eI106. Which one of the following is not among the duties of the Chief Minister? (a) To communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation () To furnish information relating to the administration of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for (c) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State in the monthly report (@) To submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but has not been considered by the Council, if the Governor so requires 107. Which one of the following is not considered a part of the Legislature of States? (a) The Governor (b) The Legislative Assembly (c) The Legislative Council (a) The Chief Minister GTHY-S-XGK/41A 39 108. Which one of the following regarding the ordinance-making power of the Governor is not correct? (a) (6) () (a It is not a discretionary power. ‘The Governor may withdraw the ordinance anytime. The ordinance power can be exercised when the Legislature is not in session. ‘The aid and advice of ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance. 109. Which one of the following statements regarding the Universal Declaration of Human Rights is not correct? (a) (b) (o) (@ The UN General Assembly adopted the Human Rights Charter on 10th December, 1948. Some of the provisions of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India are similar to the provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The Right to Property is not a part of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. India is a signatory to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. [P-7.0,110, arate vite & at ft Peafefad seri aa aaa wel set 8? (a) we Hig Ty saan & vin, das TE wh weet & oar wm simt-corhta Fray 2 @) 7 R fa a wh anata & ae at en & fre Bredan 1 () A yee saw og Arafat aT wan fer 2) (a) 78 Hap UE % 47 wee at a aT ee ‘frat dae Te Fara aT Pattee fer ara 21 111, se tugic, the dive fee Ga 4 ga ‘faerdt 87 (a) acter a (er at) (o) sen a (Safer at) (co) tien % (aifege at) (a) se ta (ferret) 112. 2017 & are faa dam ated & agen AE faa A od aad ag aorren aa te Fene (GDP) & sven H) 21 Ffefad Fa aa Sar aT S srt ae RP (a) sare (b) Ae %o (c) ie (a) wt GTHY-S-XGK/41A 113. ‘ara aq’ & fess 4 Peafefad A 2 ate wae? (a) 78 GST & daftta ards aaa oer sepemt oe we & fee ue feelaf a (b) Wrage ta % ver Bae wt FH sate aprara Y re eran () 7e wm dan arhtife %, at qaart wr we wd at aarmenl & otaes aa & for aftrefera At 7h 81 (@) %e Regie wef aT srt sik fata steonait & sar a gat (wa) aaa @1 114. ‘ei (SWAYAM)’ #12? (a) w te Feak 2%, Fae sea afm (feaeatia) sepuer A feet a Aen shy saftrat At figure Fiera (Sle =) ‘tan HET e (b) Tia ea oe oes A sire TERT (MOOCs) #1 GH vet (co) Fran 4 cefeat A aiefierdt ae % fore, we aarhiaet as (4) Ge Reh ase, st cath Rr ord cay & faq Ream avai (Rene) warren ae &111. Ace athlete 110. Which one of the following statements regarding the Human Rights Council is not correct? (a) It is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system made up of all members of the UN. (6) It is responsible for the promotion and protection of all human rights around the globe. (c) It replaced the former United Nations Commission on Human Rights. (@) It is made up of 47 UN Member States which are elected by the UN General Assembly. Neeraj Chopra is accomplished player in an (a) Hammer throw (b) Javelin throw () (a) Shot put throw Discus throw 112, According to the updated World Bank data for 2017, India is the sixth biggest economy of the world (in terms of GDP). Which one of the following is not ahead of India? (a) (b) () (a) Japan UK France Germany GTHY-S-XGK/41A, 41 113. Which one of the following is correct about ‘Aaykar Setu’? (a) (b) (o) (a) (a) () () (a) It is a mechanism for achieving excellence in public sector delivery related to GST. With the use of a mobile app, it facilitates online payment of taxes. It is a communication strategy designed to collect information and build a database of tax defaulters. It enables electronic filing and processing of import and export declarations. 114, SWAYAM is a network that aims to tap the talent pool of scientists and entrepreneurs towards —_ global excellence @ Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) initiative on a national platform an empowerment scheme for advancing the participation of girls in education a scheme that supports differently abled children to pursue technical education [P.7.0.115, PRASAD vie eA & sienfa Prater HA ae, ‘geT aT arya way’ afiraraa fw fra mH wet a we otis ome & er F setter (citi) % area Get gor 87 facora % fore safeties ae fren en 8? piecutoads (a) sreetin gereret wae eee (bo) aia Wea Pere Pe (orate (qa) pts eri see (a) Aeeh (afrerng) (a) wa % shite daw (GI) 116. 3a vnedia fete feenst ar am sare, fae 119. 1921-1922 4 sau 4 afte an ae fae Te Icc fete % ea ate Sr 4 (Geng 2018 “van Hite’ a an Ha a feet a fer? a) wan wet fren 81 (a) war eR (a) Re aA fo iter (bo) Fert ort (oy afer ego (c) Ara THR (a) afta Fae (a) me aH Be 117. ag & wfaerarh & fern wa of ata oat 120. . 1915 4 efter gy ton H fire ares A yes amit 3 frafafaa 4 2 fea den (ert) F e are wm Beaters aT fear 8? ae (q) eri fe) a ae ) ER yer (o) Beate () area wT (a) ree (a) fey rere GTHY-S-XGK/41A, 42115. Under the PRASAD Tourism Scheme, 118. The tagline ‘Invaluable Treasures of which one of the following has not Incredible India’ is associated with the been identified as a religious site for logo for development? (a) Archaeological Survey of India (a) Ajmer (Rajasthan) (b) India Tourism —_ Development (®) Haridwar (Uttarakhand) Corporation () Somnath (Gujarat) (c) Geological Survey of India (d) Velankanni (Tamil Nadu) (d) Geographical Indications (Gl) of India 116. Name the Indian cricketer who is not inducted to the ICC Cricket Hall of 149, Who took over the ‘Eka Movement’ Fame (till July 2018). started by the Congress in Awadh during 1921-1922? (a) Rahul Dravid (a) Bhagwan Ahir (6) Sunil Gavaskar (6) Madari Pasi (c) Sachin Tendulkar a aon eae (c) Baba Ramchandra ble (d@) Shah Naeem Ata 117. The Central Water Commission has recently entered into a collaborative agreement with which one of the 120. Which organization was started at the following entities for flood forecasting? Haridwar Kumbh Mela in 1915? (a) Skymet (a) Sanatan Dharma Sabha (6) Google (b) Dev Samaj (c) MetService () Brahmin Sabha (d) AccuWeather (@) Hindu Mahasabha GTHY-S-XGK/41A 43 [P.T.0.SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK GTHY-S-XGK/41A 44SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK GTHY-S-XGK/41A 45 [P.7.0.SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK GTHY-S-XGK/41A. 46SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK GTHY-S-XGK/41A 47 BS9—2"*37*408DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : GTHY-S-XGK Test Booklet Series Serial No. Se TEST BOOKLET o20a653 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 100 INSTRUCTIONS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. This Test Booklet contains 120 ‘tems (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response. mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet All items carry equal marks. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (i) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct’ and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SOTHE MOST POPULAR DEFENCE EXAM APP OF ALL TIME BEST FEATURES DETAILED LECTURES PYQAs & TEST SERIES ERSS-] =1 0 r-Tot 4 a etre Sareea Ree aoc Q) SMART ANALYTICS