10/11/2022

BIOLOGY GROUP
PROJECT
[Document subtitle]
 Principles of
inheritance
and
variations

P prepared by

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 MCQ's

1.How many types of gametes are produced by a trihybrid?

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16

Answer: 4
2. A dihybrid heterozygous tall plant with round seed is crossed with
a similar genotype, what percentage of plants should posses Tt Rr
genotype? (A) 6.25%
(B) 12.5%
(C) 25%
(D) 75%

Answer: 25%
3. A cross by changing the source of ovum is
(A) Back cross
(B) Test cross
(C) Monohybrid
(D) Reciprocal cross

Answer: Electrical and chemical

4. When the phenotypic and genotypic ratios resemble in the F2
generation it is an example of (A) Independent assortment
(B) Qualitative inheritance
(C) Segregation
(D) Incomplete dominance

Answer: Qualitative inheritance

5. In what situation, the phenotype of a dihybrid cross would exhibit
parental combination of characters in more than the expected value and
recombination in less than the expected value?
(A) When genes are in mitochondria
(B) When duplicate genes are present
(C) When genes are linked
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(D) When supplementary genes are present

Answer: When genes are in mitochondria

6. When the dihybrid Tt rr plants are self-fertilized, what percentage of
descendants would be heterozygous for one character and homozygous
for another? (A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%

Answer: 100%
7. In a double heterozygous plant, (Eg: Aa Bb) four types of gametes
are produced .This illustrate the law of
(A) Dominance
(B) Segregation
(C) Purity of gametes
(D) Independent assortment

Answer: Independent assortment

8. Back cross with recessive parent is called
(A) Monohybrid cross
(B) Multiple cross
(C) Single cross
(D) Test cross

Answer: Test cross

9. If a gene has multiple effects, it is called
(A) Multiple allelism
(B) Pleiotropism
(C) Polygeny(D) Epistasis

Answer: Pleiotropism
10. Maize has 10 pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
should it possess
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 20

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(D) 40

Answer: 10
11. When F1 plants heterozygous for tallness are selfed F2, generation
has both tall and dwarf plants. This proves the principle of:
(A) Dominance
(B) Blended inheritance
(C) Law of segregation
(D) Law of independent assortment

Answer: Law of segregation

12. Mendel’s formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of:
(A) Test cross
(B) Back cross
(C) Monohybrid cross
(D) Dihybrid cross

Answer: Monohybrid cross

13. tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic of offspring:
(A) 75% Ineffective
(B) 50% Uneffective
(C) 25% Uneffective(D) All Effective

Answer: 50% Uneffective

14. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division Cycle result
in the gain or loss of a chromosome (s) is called :
(A) Female heterogamety
(B) Male heterogamety
(C) Aneuploidy
(D) None of these
Answer: Female heterogamety
15. Exception of Mendel’s law is:
(A) Dominance
(B) Purity of gametes
(C) Linkage
(D) Independent assortment

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Answer: Linkage 16.
Haemophilia is a:
(A) Mendelian disorder
(B) Chromosomal disorder
(C) Can be (a) or (b)
(D) None of the above

Answer: Mendelian disorder

17. Down’s syndrome is a:
(A) Mendelian disorder
(B) Chromosomal disorder
(C) Can be both
(D) None of the above

Answer: Chromosomal disorder

18. Mendel worked on :
(A) Edible pea
(B) Wild pea
(C) Garden Pea
(D) None of these

Answer: Edible pea

19. A gamete contains which of the following :
(A) Both alleles of a gene
(B) Only one allele of a gene
(C) Al allele of a gene
(D) No allele

Answer: Only one allele of a gene

20. Name the scientist who discovered the law of Heredity : (A) Gregor
Mendel
(B) Newton
(C) Piinnett
(D) None of these

Answer: Gregor Mendel

21. Linked genes may be separated by

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(A) Gene mutation
(B) Polyploidy
(C) Segregation
(D) Crossing over

Answer: Segregation
22. Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for
(A) Recombination of linked gene
(B) Segregation of alleles
(C) Dominance of genes
(D) Linkage between genes

Answer: Segregation of alleles

23. Crossing over takes place between
(A) Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(B) Non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(C) Sisters of non-homologous chromosomes(D) DNA and RNA

Answer: Non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes 24.

If the distance between genes on a chromosome is more , the
linkage strength is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Unaffected
(D) More in somatic cells

Answer: Less
25. Drosophila melanogaster has
(A) 2 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes
(B) 3 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes
(C) 1 pair of autosomes and 3 pairs of sex chromosomes
(D) 2 pairs of autosomes and 2 pairs of sex chromosomes

Answer: 2 pairs of autosomes and 2 pairs of sex chromosomes

26. A trisomic individual has a chromosomal number of
(A) 2n -1

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(B) 2n +2
(C) 2n + 1
(D) 2n + 3

Answer: 2n +2
27. Among the following which one is the best chemical for inducing
the polyploidy? (A) Ethylene
(B) Colchicine
(C) Acridines
(D) Mustard gas

Answer: Ethylene
28. Down’s syndrome is an example of
(A) Monosomy
(B) Trisomy
(C) Triploidy
(D) Eupolyploidy

Answer: Trisomy
29. Which of the following is 6x (hexaploid) wheat?
(A) Triticum durum
(B) T. monococcum
(C) T.aestivum(D) Triticale

Answer: T.aestivum
30. The holandric genes are located on
(A) Mitochondria
(B) X- chromosome
(C) Y-chromosome
(D) Polytene chromosome

Answer: X- chromosome
31. Who put forward the crossing theory of recombination
(A) Gregor Mendel
(B) Wiliam Bateson
(C) Janssen
(D) T.H.Morgan

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Answer: Gregor Mendel
32. In honeybees
(A) The males have only one set of chromosomes
(B) The males have single sex chromosomes
(C) Males produce progeny by parthenogenesis(D) Both (a) and (c)

Answer: Both (a) and (c)

33. First child of a normal couple is phenylketonurics. The probability of
second male child is affected will be
(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%

Answer: 0%
34. Mutation of any single gene maybe
(A) Micromutation
(B) Point mutation
(C) Gene mutation(D) All of these

Answer: Gene mutation

35. A normal man whose father was haemophilic marries a woman
whose father was haemophilic. They have their first child as a daughter.
What is the chance that this could be
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 0%
(D) 100%

Answer: 0%
36. Thalassemia beta is located on
(A) 11th chromosome
(B) 16th chromosome
(C) 9th chromosome
(D) 12th chromosome

Answer: 11th chromosome

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37. Choose the sex influenced trait
(A) Ovary in female
(B) Hypertrichosis
(C) Haemophilia
(D) Pattern baldness

Answer: Haemophilia
38. Clotting factors VIII is absent in
(A) Haemophilia A
(B) Haemophiia B
(C) Thalassemia beta(D) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: Thalassemia beta

39. Pedigree analysis is useful for
(A) Study of inheritance when arranged mating is not possible
(B) Study of sex linked inheritance in man
(C) Study of Mendelian disorders in man(D) All of these

Answer: Study of inheritance when arranged mating is not possible

40. Choose the incorrect statement regarding haemophilia
(A) It is x –linked
(B) It is dominant in male
(C) it inherit from father to daughter
(D) A single protein in cascade of several proteins involved in clotting
isaffected

Answer: it inherit from father to daughter

41. First artificial mutation was induced in
(A) Barley
(B) Maize
(C) Drosophila
(D) Neurospora

Answer: Drosophila
42. Hemophilic person marries a girl having no history of the disease in
her pedigree. What is the chance that a haemophilic child is born to them
(A) 0%

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(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%

Answer: 0%
43. If a hybrid expresses a character, it is called _________
(A) Epistasis
(B) Dominant
(C) Co-dominant
(D) Recessive

Answer: Dominant
44. A plant having the genotype AABbCC will produce ______ kinds of
gametes
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2

Answer: 2
45. Colour blindness is an _________ linked recessive trait
(A) Z chromosome
(B) Y chromosome
(C) X chromosome
(D) None of the above

Answer: X chromosome
46. In most species, mitochondrial DNA is passed down from
(A) DNA
(B) Mother and Father
(C) Father
(D) Mother

Answer: Mother
47. Where are the genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants located?
(A) Chloroplast genome
(B) Mitochondrial genome

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(C) Cytosome
(D) None of the above

Answer: Mitochondrial genome

48. _________ is a type of trait whose phenotype is influenced by more
than one gene (A) Oncogenic Trait
(B) Monogenic trait
(C) Polygenic trait
(D) None of the above

Answer: Polygenic trait

49. An individual’s collection of genes is called ______
(A) Genotype
(B) Phenotype
(C) Trait
(D) None of the above

Answer: Genotype
50. A man marries a woman and both do not show any apparent traits
of inherited disease. Five sons and two daughters are born, and three of
their sons suffer from a disease. However, none of the daughters is
affected. The following mode of inheritance for the disease is
(A) Sex-linked recessive
(B) Sex-linked dominant
(C) Autosomal dominant
(D) None of the above

Answer: Sex-linked recessive

51. How many type of phenotypes possible for ABO blood group
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Answer: 1
52. A person affected with phenylketonuria , lacks an enzyme that
converts the amino acid phenylalanine into

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(A) Valine
(B) Proline
(C) Histidine
(D) Tyrosine

Answer: Valine
53. Haemophilia in man is due to
(A) Sex-linked inheritance
(B) Sex-limited inheritance
(C) Sex-influenced inheritance
(D) Primary non-disjunction

Answer: Primary non-disjunction

54. In XO type of sex determination
(A) Females produce two different types of gametes
(B) Males produce two different types of gametes
(C) Females produce gametes with Y chromosome
(D) Males produce single type of gametes

Answer: Males produce two different types of gametes

55. Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of
Mendel’s Law of Dominance?
(A) Factors occur in pairs
(B) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
(C) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant , and the other
recessive(D) Alleles do not show any blending and both the
characters recover as such in F2 generation

Answer: The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a

factor
56. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be
determined by : (A) Back cross
(B) Test cross
(C) Dihybrid cross
(D) Pedigree analysis

Answer: Pedigree analysis

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57. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the
manner of determining the sex in the given example?
(A) XO condition in humans as found in Turner syndrome ,
determinesfemale sex
(B) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila
(C) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
(D) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds

Answer: Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in

Drosophila
58. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and
phenotypic ratios are the same as 1:2:1. It represents a case of
(A) Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
(B) Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
(C) Co-dominance(D) Dihybrid cross

Answer: Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance

59. Alleles which can express only in pair with similar allele is
(A) Dominant
(B) Recessive
(C) Co dominant(D) Lethal

Answer: CNS
60. Among the following traits that Mendel studied , choose
the recessive one (A) Yellow pods
(B) Axile flower
(C) Terminal flower(D) Green seed

Answer: Axile flower

61. An lndividual with into identical alleles is:
(A) Hybrid
(B) Dominant
(C) Homozygous
(D) Heterozygous

Answer: Homozygous

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62. Mendal’s law can be applicable only when:
(A) Characters are linked
(B) Parents are pore breed
(C) F1 generation in monohybrid cross show 2 type of individuals
(D) Onepair of contrasting characters depends on another pair

Answer: Characters are linked

63. A true hybrid condition is:
(A) tt Rr
(B) Tt rr
(C) tt rr
(D) Tt Rr

Answer: tt rr
64. The allele which is unable to express its effect in the presence of
another is called :
(A) Co-dominant
(B) Supplementary
(C) Complementary
(D) Recessive

Answer: Recessive
65. Most of the mutations are:
(A) Recessive
(B) Harmful
(C) Germinal
(D) All of these

Answer: Recessive
66. Smallest segment of genetic material affected by mutation is :
(A) Recon
(B) Cistron
(C) Muton
(D) Exon

Answer: Muton
67. Genes located on V-chromosome are:

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(A) Mutant genes
(B) Autosomal genes
(C) Holandric genes
(D) Sex-linked genes

Answer: Sex-linked genes

68. A strong mutagen is:
(A) Cold
(B) Heat
(C) Water
(D) X-rays

Answer: X-rays
69. A point mutation is:
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Sickel-cell anaemia
(C) Down’s syndrome(D) Nightblindness

Answer: Sickel-cell anaemia

70. Mendel’s second law is of the law of:
(A) Segregation
(B) Dominance
(C) Polygenic inheritance
(D) Independent assortment

Answer: Independent assortment

71. When a dominant ‘AA’ and a recessive ‘aa’ are crossed percentage
of the progenies showing the parental genotypes will be
(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%

Answer: 100%
72. A normal visioned man whose father was colour blind ,marries a
woman whose father is also colour blind . They have their first child as a
daughter . What are the chances that this child would be colour blind?

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(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 100%
(D) 0%

Answer: 50%
73. The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is
(A) It is a recessive disease
(B) It is sex linked disease
(C) It is a dominant disease
(D) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected

Answer: A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected

74. Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient
because he has
(A) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma
(B) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma
(C) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies in the plasma
(D) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma

Answer: Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma

75. A patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood
transfusion. The group that can be donated will be
(A) Blood group O
(B) Blood group AB
(C) Blood group A
(D) Blood group B

Answer: Blood group A

76. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1
generation resembles both parents
(A) Incomplete dominance
(B) Inheritance of 1 gene
(C) Co-dominance
(D) Multiple allelism

Answer: Co-dominance

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77. An F2 hybrid generation will have
(A) 4 types of genotypes
(B) 7 types of genotypes
(C) 9 types of genotypes
(D) 16 types of genotypes

Answer: 16 types of genotypes

78. Who among the following is not concerned with re-discovery of
Mendelism
(A) Von Tschermak
(B) Carl Correns
(C) Theodre Bovery
(D) Hugo De Vries
Answer: Hugode Vries
79. The diploid number of drosophila melanogaster
(A) 8
(B) 10 (C) 11
(D) 12

Answer: 8
80. Linkage phenomenon explained first by
(A) William Batson
(B) T.H.Morgan
(C) Alfsed Sturtevent(D) Johanson

Answer: William Batson

81. A trait that “overpowers” and hide another trait is called
(A) Overpowering trait
(B) Complex trait
(C) Recessive trait
(D) Dominant Trait

Answer: Dominant Trait

82. Why is haemophilia a disease that is more commonly seen in males?
(A) The disease is Y- linked
(B) The disease is X- linked
(C) Both (1) and (2)

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(D) None of the above

Answer: The disease is X- linked

83. Success of mendal is
(A) Selection of Peaplant
(B) Studied of free characters
(C) More Characters selection(D) Pea is Bisexual

Answer: Selection of Peaplant

84. Loss of Melanin pigment cause for:
(A) Colourblindness
(B) Depigmentation
(C) Phenyl Ketoneuria
(D) Alkaptoneuria

Answer: Depigmentation
85. Genetic identification of male human is:
(A) By Nucleus
(B) By cells
(C) By Autosome
(D) By Sex-chromosome

Answer: By Sex-chromosome
86. Rh+ individual gene may be:
(A) rr
(B) TT
(C) Rr
(D) Both (a) and (c)

Answer: Rr
87. Cause of chromosomal mutation:
(A) Euploidy
(B) Polyploidy
(C) Physical effect
(D) All of these

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Answer: All of these 88.
Mendal was born in:
(A) 17th century
(B) 18th century
(C) 19th century
(D) 8th century

Answer: 17th century

89. Two genes very close on a chromosome will show:
(A) No crossing over
(B) High crossing over
(C) Hardly an crossing over
(D) Only double crossing overy

Answer: No crossing over

90. First geneticist/father of genetics was:
(A) de Vries
(B) Mendel
(C) Darwin
(D) Morgan

Answer: Mendel
91. Choose the wrong statement
(A) Mental retardation can be the effect of phenyl pyruvic acid
(B) Thalassemia is a quantitative problem
(C) Sickle cell anemia person produce abnormal Hb(D) Cystic fibrosis is
quantitative

Answer: Sickle cell anemia person produce abnormal Hb

92. Which of the following cannot be detected in developing foetus by
amniocentesis (A) Klinefelter syndrome
(B) Sex of the foetus
(C) Down syndrome(D) Jaundice

Answer: Down syndrome

93. Which mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1
generation resembles both the parents?

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(A) Incomplete dominance
(B) Law of dominance
(C) Inheritance of one gene(D) Co- dominance

Answer: Co- dominance

94. If both parents are carriers of thalassemia , which is an autosomal
recessive disorder , what are the chance of pregnancy resulting in an
affected child?
(A) No chance
(B) 50%
(C) 25%
(D) 100%

Answer: 50%
95. A human female with Turner’s syndrome
(A) Has one additional X chromosome
(B) Exhibits male characters
(C) Is able to produce children with normal husband(D) Has 45
chromosomes with XO

Answer: Exhibits male characters

96. Which of the following cannot be expected on the basis of Mendel’s
law of dominance
(A) It explains the expression of one of the parental traits in F 1
(B) It explain expression of both traits in F 2
(C) It explains the 3:1 ratio in F 2
(D) It explains the formation of functional enzyme by dominant allele

Answer: It explain expression of both traits in F 2

97. When heterozygous yellow round seed plants and self-fertilized, the
frequency of occurrence of RrYY genotype among the offspring’s is
(A) 1/16
(B) 3/16
(C) 2/16
(D) 4/16

Answer: 1/16

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98. A person homozygous for autosomal loci ‘a’ and ‘b’ and
heterozygous for gene ‘p’ shall produce how many types of gametes in
respect of these loci
(A) 1 type
(B) 2 types
(C) 3 types
(D) 4 types

Answer: 2 types
99. Experimental proof for chromosome theory of inheritance is given by
(A) Sutton
(B) Sutton and Bovery
(C) T H Morgan(D) Sturtevent

Answer: Sturtevent
100. The nuclear structure observed by Henking in 50% of the sperms
in the testes of a insect was termed
(A) X-body
(B) Bar body
(C) Polar body
(D) Chromatin

Answer: Polar body

101. If the haploid number of chromosomes in a plant is 12,then the
number of chromosomes in monosomic is
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 25
(D) 26

Answer: 23
Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the pattern of inheritance where F1phenotype
(i) resembles only one of the two parents.

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(ii) does not resemble either of the two parents and is in between the
two. (All India 2019)
Or
Name the respective pattern of inheritance, where F1 phenotype
(i) does not resemble either of the two parents and is in between the
two.
(ii) resembles only one of the two parents. (All India 2012) Answer:
(i) Dominance
(ii) Incomplete dominance
Or
(i) Incomplete dominance
(ii) Dominance.

Question 2.
British geneticist RC Punnett developed a graphical representation of a
genetic cross called ‘Punnett Square’. Mention the possible result this
representation predicts of the genetic cross carried. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Punnett square helps to predict the probability of all the possible
genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross.

Question 3.
Name the type of cross that would help to find the genotype of a pea
plant bearing violet flowers. (All India 2017) Answer:
To find the genotype of a pea plant bearing violet flowers, test cross
would be carried out in which the plant with dominant trait, i.e. violet
flowers, will be crossed with its recessive parent.

Question 4.
State a difference between a gene and an allele. (All India 2016)
Answer:
A unit of inheritance which is passed down from parent to offspring
through the gametes over successive generations is known as gene.
Genes consist of a pair of contrasting forms for a character that are
known as alleles.

Question 5.
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Give an example of polygenic trait in humans. (Delhi 2016C)
Or
On what basis is the skin colour in humans considered polygenic?
(Delhi
2016)
Answer:
An example of a polygenic trait in humans is skin colour.
Or
Skin colour is considered to be a polygenic trait because it is under the
control of many genes.

Question 6.
A geneticist interested in studying variations and patterns of inheritance
in living beings prefers to choose organisms for experiments with
shorter life cycle. Provide a reason. (Delhi 2015) Answer:
A geneticist interested in studying variations and patterns of inheritance
in living beings prefers to choose organisms with shorter life cycle,
because it enables the geneticist to study many generations of the
organism in a short time period.

Question 7.
Mention any two contrasting traits with respect to seeds in pea plant that
were studied by Mendel. (All India 2014) Answer:
Two contrasting seed traits studied by Mendel
are Seed shape Round and wrinkled. Seed
colour Yellow and green.

Question 8.
What are ‘true-breeding lines’ that are used to study inheritance
pattern of traits in plants. (Delhi 2014) Answer:
True-breeding lines are those plants, which have undergone continuous
self-pollination and show stable trait inheritance and expression for
several generations.

Question 9.
How many kinds of phenotype would you expect in F2-generation in a
monohybrid cross exhibiting codominance? (All India 2014) Answer:

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In codominance, alleles are able to express themselves independently
when present together. Thus, in a monohybrid cross there would be
three kinds of phenotype in the F2-generation showing codominance.

Question 10.
Name the stage of cell division where segregation of an independent
pair of chromosomes occurs. (All India 2014)
Or
Name the event during cell division cycle that results in the gain and
loss of chromosomes. (Delhi 2011) Answer:
During meiotic anaphase-I of cell division, the separation of independent
pair of chromosomes occurs.
Or
Non-disjunction of chromosomes during anaphase-I of meiosis results in
the gain or loss of chromosomes.

Question 11.
A garden pea plant (A) produced inflated yellow pod and another
plant (B) of the same species produced constricted green pods.
Identify the dominant traits. (Delhi 2012) Answer:
The dominant trait in the pea plant is inflated green pods while the
recessive trait is constricted yellow pod?

Question 12.
A garden pea plant produced axial white flowers another of the same
species produced terminal violet flowers. Identify the dominant traits.
(All India 2012) Answer:
The dominant trait in the pea plant is axial violet flowers, while the
recessive trait is terminal white flowers.

Question 13.
In a dihybrid cross, when would the proportion of parental gene
combinations be much higher than non-parental types, as
experimentally shown by Morgan and his group? (All India 2012)
Answer:
The proportion of parental gene combination is much higher than non-
parental types, when the two genes show linkage and are inherited
together.
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Question 14.
Write possible genotypes Mendel got when he crossed F1 tall plant with
a dwarf pea plant. (Foreign 2012) Answer:
Tt and tt (in ratio of 1:1) genotypes were obtained on crossing F1 tall
plant with a dwarf parent plant. It is a test cross.

Question 15.
Garden pea plant produced round, green seed. Another of same
species produced wrinkled yellow seeds. Identify dominant traits.
(Foreign 2012) Answer:
The dominant trait in pea plant is round and green seeds, while the
recessive trait is wrinkled and yellow seeds.

Question 16.
Mention two contrasting flower related traits studied by Mendel in pea
plant experiments. (All India 2011C) Answer:
The two contrasting flower traits in pea plant are

Violet flowers and white flowers.

Axial flowers and terminal flowers.

Question 17.
Name the contrasting pod related traits studied by Mendel in his pea
plant experiment. (All India 2011C) Answer:
The two contrasting pod related traits in pea plant are
Inflated/Constricted shape. Green/Yellow colour.

Question 18.
Mention the type of allele that expresses itself only in homozygous state
in an organism. (Foreign 2011) Answer:
Recessive allele expresses itself only in homozygous condition because
in the presence of a dominant allele its effect is masked.

Question 19.
Pea flowers produce assured seed sets. Give a reason. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Pea flowers produce assured seed sets because they have
cleistogamous flowers, which undergo natural self-pollination.
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Question 20.
Explain polygenic inheritance with the help of an example. (All India
2019)
Answer:
Refer to text ‘Polygenic Inheritance, on page no. 94 and 95.

Question 21.
Name the scientists who rediscovered the Mendel’s work.
Ans: Hugo DeVries, Carl Correns and Tschermak.

Question 22.
Write the karyotype of Klinefelter’s Syndrome and Turner’s syndrome.
Ans: 47, XXY and 45 with X0 Question 23.
Give an example of XO type of sex determination.
Ans: Grasshopper

Question 24.
Who observed that during spermatogenesis only 50 % of insect sperm
received a specific structure, whereas 50 % sperm did not receive it?
Also mention the name of that specific structure.
Ans: Henking, X-body

Question 25.
What is the cross known as when the F1 progeny is crossed with
homozygous recessive parent? Write one advantage of such cross.
Ans: The cross is a test cross.
It is advantageous to determine the genotype of the parent plant.

Question 26.
Write the Dihybrid cross ratio when self-cross is carried out between two
heterozygous gametes. Ans: 9:3:3:1

Question 27.
Name any one plant that shows the phenomenon of incomplete
dominance during the inheritance of its flower colour. Ans: Dog
flower (Snapdragon or Antirrhinum sp.)

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Question 28.
For which types of reproduction Mendel's laws of inheritance are
applicable?
Ans: Sexual reproduction

Question 29.
What term used in which there are extra set of chromosome is present.
Ans: aneuploidy

Question 30.
A haemophilic man marries a normal homozygous woman. What is the
probability that their daughter will be haemophilic?
Ans: no chance (0%), she will be carrier only
Question 31.
Do you think Mendel’s Laws of inheritance would have been different in
the characters that he chose were located on the same chromosome.
Ans: If the characters are present on the same chromosome they would
not assort independently as they are linked on the same chromosome.
Percentage of linkage depends on the distance between the genes.
With linkage no conclusive laws can be drown.

Question 32.
How are alleles of particular gene differ from each other? Explain its
significance.
Ans: Alleles are polymorphs that differ in their nucleotide sequence
resulting in contrasting phenotype expression. Alleles are the
alternative forms of a same gene for, e.g., genes for height have two
allele, one for dwarfness (t) and one for tallness (T).
Significance
(i) A character may have two or more contrasting phenotypic
expression,thus resulting variation in the population.
(ii) These are used in the studies of inheritance and in
understandingtheir behaviour.

Question 33.
A person has to perform crosses for the purpose of studying inheritance
of a few traits/characters. What should be the criteria for selecting the
organisms?
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Ans: The criteria for selecting the organism to study inheritance are
(i) Easily visible and different traits
(ii) Short life span
(iii) Simple pollination procedure
(iv) Organisms must be true breeds
(v) Mating of gametes has to be random
(vi) Can be easily manipulated

Question 34:
What is point mutation? Give one example.
Ans:Point mutation is a change in a single base pair of DNA by
substitution,deletion, or insertion of a single nitrogenous base. An
example of point mutation is sickle cell anaemia. It involves mutation in
a single base pair in the beta-globin chain of haemoglobin pigment of
the blood. Glutamic acid in short arm of chromosome II gets replaced
with valine at the sixth position.

Question 35:
Who had proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance?
Ans:Sutton and Boveri proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance
in 1902. They linked the inheritance of traits to the chromosomes.

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 Case-based Questions

Question 1:
Study the flowchart given below and answer the questions that follow.

(i) What is a mutagen? Name a physical factor that can be mutagen.

(ii) What is point mutation? Give one example.
(iii) Mention two causes of frame-shift mutation.
Answer
(i) All the physical and chemical factors that induce mutation are
calledmutagens. UV radiation and X-rays are physical mutagens.
(ii) Mutation arising due to change in a single base pair of DNA is
calledpoint mutation.
(iii) Insertion and deletion of three bases or multiples of three
basescause frame-shift mutation because the reading frame remains
unaltered from that point onwards

Question 2:
During a study on the inheritance of two genes, the teacher asked
students to perform an experiment. The students crossed white-eyed,
yellow-bodied female Drosophila with a red-eyed, brown-bodied male
Drosophila (i.e., wild). They observed that progenies in F2 generation

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had 1.3 percent recombinants and 98.7 percent parental type
combinations. The experimental cross with results is shown in the given
figure.[Note: Dominant wild-type alleles are represented with (+) sign in
superscript.]

(i) By conducting the given experiment, the teacher can conclude that
A. Genes for eye color and body color are linked
B. Genes for eye color and body color show complete linkage
C. Linked genes remain together and are inherited
(a) A and B only
(b) B only
(c) A and C only
(d) A, B and C
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Answer: (c) A and C only

(ii)Teacher asked to conduct an experiment on Drosophila because

(a) the male and female flies are easily distinguishable
(b) it completes its life cycle in about two weeks
(c) a single mating could produce a large number of progeny flies(d) all
of these.
Answer: (d) all of these.

(iii) Genes white-eyed and yellow-bodied located very close to one

another on the same chromosome tend to be transmitted together and
are called (a) allelomorphs
(b) identical genes
(c) linked genes
(d) recessive genes
Answer: (c) linked genes

(iv) Select the correct statement regarding the given experiment. (a) The
physical distance between two genes determines the strength of linkage
(b) The physical distance between two genes determines the
frequencyof crossing over
(c) The two linked genes always segregate independently of each other
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (a) The physical distance between two genes determines the
strength of linkage

(v) Assertion: When yellow-bodied, white-eyed Drosophila females were

hybridized with brown-bodied, red-eyed males; and FI progeny was
intercrossed, the F2 ratio deviated from 9: 3: 3: 1.
Reason: When two genes in a dihybrid are on the same chromosome,
the proportion of parental gene combinations is much higher than in the
non-parental type.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
correctexplanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the
correctexplanation of the assertion
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
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Answer: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

Question 3:
Prateek was rushed to a nearby hospital after an accident, which had
caused too much blood loss. The hospital failed to supply O negative
blood for transfusion. Asif, who was attending a patient there, heard
about the situation and agreed to donate blood as he had the same
blood group. Prateek’s mother initially refused but was later convinced
by her daughter’s view.
(i) Why cannot O positive blood be transfused into Prateek’s body?
(ii) Human blood grouping is an example of?
(iii) What values do you find in Prateek’s sister and Asif?
Answer:
(i) O+ blood group contains antigen for Rh factor. Rh– blood lacks
theantigen, so if the two blood mix, it will lead to clotting and thus,
death of the patient.
(ii) Multiple allelism.
(iii) Prateek’s sister shows understanding of science and Asif believes
inhelping a person in need without thinking about which religion or
caste he belongs to.

Question 4:
Study the pedigree chart showing the pattern of inheritance of blood
group character in a family.

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(a) Give the genotypes oftbe parents in generation I.
(b) State the possible genotypes of the individuals.
(i) X in generation II.
(ii) Y in generation III.
(c) How does the inheritance of this blood group explain codominance?
Answer:
(a) Father - IAi, Mother IBi
(b) (i) -IBi
(ii) IAi or ii
(C) (i) The alleles IAand IBof the blood group character are equally
dominant and both of them express themselves when present together,
resulting in blood group AB.

Question 5:
Turner's syndrome is an example of mono somy. It is formed by the
union of an allosome free egg and a normal 'X' containing sperm or a
normal egg and an allosome free sperm. The individual has 2n = 45
chromosomes (44 + XO) instead of 46. Such individuals are sterile
females who have rudimentary ovaries, under developed breasts, small
uterus, short stature, webbed neck and abnormal intelligence. They may
not menstruate or ovulate. This disorder can be treated by giving female
sex hormone to the women from the age of puberty to make them
develop breasts and have menstruation. This makes them feel more
normal.
(i) Number of Barr body present in a female with Turner's syndrome
is(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) < 2.
Answer: (a) : Barr body is a structure consisting of a condensed X
chromosome that is found in nondividing nuclei of female mammals.
The presence of Barr body is used to confirm the sex of athletes in sex
determination tests. It is named after the Canadian anatomist M.L. Barr,
who identified it. The number of Barr bodies is one less than total
number of X chromosomes. In Turner's syndrome genotype is 45 +
X0,so, the number of Barr body is O.

(ii) Turner's syndrome is an example of

(a) aneuploidy (b) euploidy

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(c) polyploidy (d) autosomal abnormality
Answer:(a) : Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division
result in the gain or loss of a chromosomes called aneuploidy. For
example, Turner's syndrome results due to loss of X chromosome in
human females.

(iii) Turner's syndrome is a/an

(a) autosomal recessive Mendelian disorder
(b) autosomal dominant Mendelian disorder
(c) sex linked Mendelian disorder
(d) chromosomal disorder
Answer:(d) : Turner's syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that occurs
due to absence of one chromosome.

(iv) Which of the following statements regarding Turner's syndrome is

incorrect?
(a) It is a case of monosomy of chromosomes
(b) The suffering individual is a sterile female having one
'X'chromosome missing in the cells
(c) The problem is due to an extra chromosome
(d) The individual are of short stature
Answer:(c) : In Turner's syndrome individual lacks one X chromosome.
This situation is known as monosomy.

(v) Assertion : Turner's syndrome is caused due to absence of anyone

of the X and Y sex chromosome.
Reason : Individuals suffering from Turner's syndrome show masculine
as well as feminine development
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correctexplanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correctexplanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
Answer: (d): Turner's syndrome occurs due to absence of X
chromosome. Individuals having a single X chromosome 22A + X0 (45)
have female sexual differentiation but ovaries are rudimentary. Other
associated phenotypes of this condition are short stature, webbed-neck,
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broad chest, lack of secondary sexual characteristics and sterility. Thus,
any imbalance in the copies of the sex chromosomes may disrupt the
genetic information necessary for normal sexual development.

Question 6:
Haemophilia is a sex linked disease which is also known as bleeder's
disease as the patient will continue to bleed even from a minor cut since
he or she does not possess the natural phenomenon of blood clotting
due to absence of anti-haemophilic globulin or factor VIII and plasma
thromboplastin factor IX essential for it.As a result of continuous
bleeding the patient may die of blood loss. Colour blindness is another
type of sex linked trait in which the eye fails to distinguish red and green
colours. Vision is however, not affected and the colour blind can, lead a
normal life, reading, writing and driving (distinguishing traffic lights by
their position).

(i) If a haemophilic man marries a woman whose father was haemophilic

and mother was normal then which of the following holds true for their
progenies?
(a) Of the total number of daughters, 50% daughters are carrier and
50%are haemophilic
(b) All the daughters are haemophilic.
(c) All sons are haemophilic and all daughters are normal.
(d) All sons are normal, all daughters are carriers.
Answer:(a) : When a haemophilic man (Xhy) marries a woman whose
father was haemophilic and mother was normal i.e., carrier woman
(XXh), then 50% daughters are carriers and 50% are haemophilic. This
can be explained as follows:

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(ii) A man whose father was colourblind and mother was normal marries
a woman whose father was haemophilic and mother was normal. Which
of the following is true for their progenies? [Note: Percentage is from the
total number of progenies.
(a) 25% female progenies carry the gene for both haemophilia
andcolourblindness
(b) 25% male progenies carry only the gene of colourblindness(c)
25% female progenies carry only the gene of colourblindness. (d) 25%
male progenies and 25% female progenies carry the gene of
haemophilia
Answer: (d) : When a man whose father was colourblind and mother
was normal (i.e., normal man XY) marries a woman whose father was
haemophilic and mother was normal (i.e., carrier haemophilic woman
XhX), then 25% male progenies and 25% female progenies carry the
gene of haemophilia.

(iii) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding

haemophilia?
(a) It is a dominant disease
(b) A single protein involved in clotting of blood is affected
(c) It is recessive disease (d) It is Mendelian disorder
Answer:(a) : Haemophilia is sex linked recessive Mendelian disorder.

(iv) Anup is having colourblindness and is married to Soni who is

normal.
What is the chance that their son will have the disease?
(a) 100% (b) 50% (c) 25% (d) 0%
Answer:(d) : When Anup who is colourblind (Xcy) marries Soni who is
normal (XX) then 0%, chances that their son will have colourblindness.

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(v)Refer to the given cross

Select the correct option regarding 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(a) 1. Colourblind carrier female
2. Colourblind haemophilic female
3. Normal male
4. Haemophilic male
(b) 1.Colourblind people
2.Haemophilic female
3.Normal male
4..Haemophilic male
(c) 1. Colourblind female
2. Colourblind and haemophilic female
3. Normal male
4. Normal male
(d) 1.Colourblind carrier female
2.Normal female
3.Normal male
4.Haemophilic male
Answer: (a)

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Question 7:
A relevant portion of β-chain of haemoglobin of a normal human is as
follows

The codon for the sixth amino acid is GAG. The sixth codon GAG
mutates to GAA as a result of mutation X and into GUG as a result of
mutation Y.

(i) Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(a) Mutation X carries no change in shape of red blood cells.
(b) Mutation Y causes change in shape of red blood cell shape(c)
Both mutations X and Y causes change in shape of red blood cell
shape.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:(C) : Due to mutation X, GAG mutates to GAA. But both GAG
and GAA code for glutamic acid and hence there is no change in shape
of RBC whereas in mutation Y, GUG is substituted by GAA that codes
for valine and so the RBCs become sickle shaped.

(ii) Due to mutation Y the shape of RBCs under oxygen tension will be
(a) biconcave disc like (b) elongated and curve
(c) circular (d) spherical
Answer:(b) : Mutation Y causes sickle cell anaemia and the mutant
haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerisation under low oxygen
tension causing the change in the shape of RBC from biconcave disc to
elongated sickle cell like.

(iii) GUG is code for

(a) valine (b) proline (c) glutamic acid (d) leucine
Answer:(a) : Due to mutation X, GAG mutates to GAA. But both GAG
and GAA code for glutamic acid and hence there is no change in shape
of RBC whereas in mutation Y, GUG is substituted by GAA that codes
for valine and so the RBCs become sickle shaped.

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(iv) Which of the following genotype shows diseased phenotype due to
mutation Y?
(a) Hbs Hbs (b) HbA Hbs(c) HbA HbA (d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:(a) : Mutation Y causes sickle cell anaemia that is controlled by
a single pair of allele, HbA and HbS Out of three possible genotypes only
homozygous individuals for HbS (HbS HbS) show the diseased
phenotype.

(v) Study the given pedigree chart for sickle-cell anaemia and select the
most appropriate option for the genotypes.

Genotypes of parents Genotypes of 1st and 3rd child in F1

(a) HbA HbS, HbA HbA HbAHbA, HbA HbS

(b) HbA HbS, HbA HbS HbA HbA, HbA HbA

(c) HbAHbA, HbA HbS HbA HbA, HbS HbS

(d) HbA Hbs, HbA Hbs HbA HbS, HbS HbS
Answer:(d) : Given pedigree chart for sickle-cell anaemia can be
illustrated as:

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