UNIQUE MENTORS

PRACTISE SESSION 2 2020

Total Questions : 50 Total Marks : 50 Total Time : 100
minutes

Question 1 Mark 1
Which of the following is observed by the therapist if a patient is correctly
S
performing an anterior pelvic tilt in standing position?
2T
OR
1 ) Hip flexion and lumbar
E N ) Hip flexion and lumbar flexion.
extension E M 3 ) Hip extension and lumbar
Q U
N I extension.
U
4 ) Hip extension and lumbar
flexion.
Correct answer : Hip flexion and lumbar extension
Explanation :
Choice , Hip flexion and lumbar extension  is the correct answer.  Choice , -
Hip extension and lumbar flexion is a posterior pelvic tilt.

Question 2 Mark 1
If the line of gravity is posterior to the hip joint Sin standing, on what does
the body first rely to keep the trunk from moving
T OR into excessive lumbar
extension?
M EN
1 ) Iliopsoas muscle activity U E 2 ) Abdominal muscle activity
N IQ
U and
3 ) Anterior pelvic ligaments
the hip joint capsule
Correct answer : Anterior pelvic ligaments and the hip joint capsule

Question 3 Mark 1
What portion of the adult knee meniscus is vascularized?
O RS
1 ) The entire meniscus is vascular 2T) Outer edges
E N
3 ) Inner edges
E M 4 ) The entire meniscus is
U
IQ
N
avascular
U
Correct answer : Outer edges
Explanation :
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Only the edges of the adult meniscus are vascularized by the capillaries
from the synovial membrane and joint capsule.

Question 4 Mark 1
What is the most likely cause of anterior pelvic tilt during initial contact (heel
strike)? RS
N TO
1 ) Weak abdominals
M E 2 ) Weak abductors
3 ) Tight hamstrings U E 4 ) Back pain
N IQ
U
Correct answer : Weak abdominals
Explanation :
Abdominal muscles attach to the lower border of the ribs and the superior
surface of the pelvis.  Strong abdominals prevent excessive anterior
rotation of the pelvis during gait.

Question 5 Mark 1
At what age does a human have the greatest amount of fluid in the
S
intervertebral disc? OR T
1 ) 10 years E N
E M 2 ) 7 years
3 ) 1 year
Q U 4 ) 4 years
N I
Correct answer : 1 year U
Explanation :
The intervertebral disc has the greatest amount of fluid at the time of birth. 
The fluid content decreases as a person ages.

Question 6 Mark 1
In what position should the therapist place the upper extremity to palpate
the supraspinatus tendon? S R
T O
1 ) B. Full abduction, full flexion N
2 ) Full adduction, full external
ME rotation, and full extension
UE
and full internal rotation
NI Q
3 ) Full adduction, full internal 4 ) Full abduction, full flexion and
rotation and full extension
U full external rotation
Correct answer : Full adduction, full internal rotation and full extension
Explanation :
The supraspinatus tendon is best palpated by placing the patient’s involved
upper extremity behind the back in full internal rotation
/
Question 7 Mark 1
What ligament is most involved in sustaining the longitudinal arch of the
foot?
O RS
1 ) Anterior talofibular ligament 2T) Plantar calcaneocuboid
M ENligament
U E
3 ) Long plantar ligament
N IQ 4 ) Plantar calcaneonavicular
U ligament
Correct answer : Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament
Explanation :
The plantar calcaneonavicular ligament originates on the sustentaculum tali
of the calcaneus and inserts on the navicular.  This ligament along with the
long plantar ligament, plantar aponeurosis, and the short plantar ligament,
gives support to the longitudinal arch of the foot.  Choice , Plantar
calcaneonavicular ligament  is the most important ligament.

Question 8 Mark 1
Which of the following are tests for peripheral arterial involvement in a
S
patient with complaints of calf musculature pain?
T OR
1 ) Claudication time E N
2 ) Homan’s sign
3 ) Percussion test E M 4 ) None of the above
QU
I
UN time
Correct answer : Claudication
Explanation :
Claudication is a lack of blood flow.  This test is performed by having a
patient walk on a treadmill and recording how long the patient can walk
before the onset of claudication.  Homan’s sign is a test performed to see
whether a patient may have a deep vein thrombosis.  The percussion test is
designed to assess the integrity of the greater saphenous vein.

Question 9 Mark 1
S
CORF is an abbreviation for which of the following
R
T O
1 ) Certified Owner of a
E N
2 ) Control Organization for
Rehabilitation Facility E M Rehabilitation Facilities.
U
3 ) Certified Outpatient N IQ
Rehabilitation Facility
U
Correct answer : Certified Outpatient Rehabilitation Facility
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Question 10 Mark 1

O RS
How often does the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
Organizations (JCAHO) survey hospitals? T
M EN
1 ) Every 2 years
U E 2 ) Every 3 years
3 ) Every 1 years N IQ
U
Correct answer : Every 3 years

Question 11 Mark 1
When should a physical therapist begin discharge
RS planning for a patient
T O
admitted to a rehabilitation unit with a diagnosis of a recent stroke?
E N
1 ) Two weeks before discharge E M 2 ) At the first team meeting
Q U
N I
3 ) After the initial evaluation by
the physical therapist. U
Correct answer : After the initial evaluation by the physical therapist.

Question 12 Mark 1
What is the best way to first exercise the postural (or extensor) musculature
S
when it is extremely weak to facilitate muscleRcontrol?
N T) O
1 ) Concentrically.
M E Eccentrically.
2
3 ) Is kinetically. U E 4 ) Isometrically.
N IQ
Correct answer : Isometrically.
U
Explanation :
Isometric exercises in the shortest range of the extensor muscle are used to
begin strengthening.  In contract, weak flexor muscles should be
strengthened in the middle-to-lengthened range, because they most often
work near their end range.

Question 13 Mark 1
RS and fastest?
Which of the following neural fibers are the largest
N T) O
1 ) A and C are equal
M E None of the above
2
3 ) A fibers U E 4 ) C fibers
Correct answer : A fibers N IQ
U
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Question 14 Mark 1
The therapist is treating a patient who has suffered a recent stroke. There is
a significant lack of dorsiflexion
O RS
E NT
in the involved lower extremity and a significant amount of medial/lateral
ankle instability. The therapist
E M
U (AFO) would be beneficial. Which of the
believes than an ankle foot orthosis
Q
N I
following is an appropriateUAFO?
1 ) Solid AFO 2 ) A or C
3 ) Posterior leaf spring AFO 4 ) Hinged solid AFO
Correct answer : A or C

Question 15 Mark 1
Which of the following is used to treat a patientSreferred to physical therapy
with a diagnosis of Dupuytren’s contracture?OR
E NT
1 ) Work simulator set for
E M 2 ) A two-pound dumb bell
squatting activities. Q U 3 ) Knee continuous passive
N I
U motion (CPM)
4 ) Hand splint.
Correct answer : Hand splint.

Question 16 Mark 1
A therapist working in an outpatient physical therapy clinic evaluates a
patient with a diagnosis of rotator cuff bursitis. The physician’s order is to
evaluate and treat. During the evaluation the following facts are revealed:
Active shoulder flexion = 85o with pain; Passive shoulder flexion = 177 o ;
Active shoulder abduction = 93 o with pain; Passive shoulder abduction =
181 o ; Active external rotation = 13 o ; Passive external rotation = 87 o ;
Drop arm test = positive; Impingement testO =R S
negative; Biceps tendon
T
subluxation test = negative; Sulcus sign =Nnegative. Of the following, which is
the best course of action? ME
E
Q U
N I
1 ) Treat the patient for 1 week 2 ) Treat the patient for 1 week
U
with ultrasound, strengthening, with a home exercise program,
and ice. Then suggest to the strengthening, passive range of
patient that he or she return to motion by the therapist, and ice.
the physician if there are no Then suggest to the patient that
positive results.
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 he or she return to the physician
if there are no positive results.
3 ) Treat the patient for 1 week 4 ) Treat the patient for 1 week
with moist heat application, joint with strengthening, a home
mobilization, and strengthening. exercise program, and ice. Then
then suggest to the patient that suggest to the patient that he or
he or she return to the physician she return to the physician if
if there are no positive results. there are no positive results.
Correct answer : Treat the patient for 1 week with strengthening, a home
exercise program, and ice. Then suggest to the patient that he or she return
to the physician if there are no positive results.
Explanation :
The patient most likely has a rotator cuff tear. Choices A and B are incorrect
because there is no need for heating modalities. Choice C is wrong because
the patient has full passive range of motion; thus there is no need for
stretching provided by the therapist at this point.

Question 17 Mark 1
A local plant asks a therapy team to perform a study of its workers. The
study needs to determine the frequency of lung cancer in workers who

O RS
insulate the inside area of an electrical oven appliance. Using company files,
the therapy team studies all past employees
N T with this job description. The
E
employees were initially free of lung cancer, as determined by a routine
physician’s examination requiredUby EM the plant. The team records from these
files the frequency with which I Q
N each one of the employees developed lung
U
cancer. What type of study is the therapy team performing?
1)A&B 2 ) Historical prospective
3 ) Historical cohort 4 ) Case control
Correct answer : A & B
Explanation :
A and B are the same type of study. The records of the factory are used to
determine the frequency of disease. In a case-control study the people are
selected based on whether or not they have a disease, then the frequency
of the possible cause of the disease in the past is studied

Question 18 Mark 1
The therapist is crutch training a 26-year-old man who underwent right
knee arthroscopy 10 hours ago. The patient’s weight bearing status is toe-
touch weight-bearing on the right lower extremity. If the patient is going up
S
OR
/
 S
OR
steps, which of the following is the correct sequence of verbal instructions?
E NT
1 ) “Have someone stand above
E M 2 ) “Have someone stand below
U
you while going up, bring the
N IQleft you while going up, bring the right
U and
leg up first, then the crutches leg up first, then the crutches and
the right leg”. left leg”.
3 ) Have someone stand below 4 ) “Have someone stand above
you while going up, bring the left you while going up, bring the right
leg up first, then the crutches and leg up first, then the crutches and
the right leg”. the right leg”
Correct answer : Have someone stand below you while going up, bring the
left leg up first, then the crutches and the right leg”.
Explanation :
Choice A is the correct gait sequence for ascending stairs in the given
scenario. A caregiver should stand below the patient because the patient is
most likely to fall down the stairs. This same rule holds true for descending
stairs.

Question 19 Mark 1
A 35-year-old woman with a diagnosis of lumbar strain has a physician’s
prescription with a frequency and duration of 3 sessions/week for 6 weeks.
The physical therapy evaluation reveals radiculopathy into the L5
dermatome of the right lower extremity, increased radiculopathy with
S
lumbar flexion, decreased radiculopathy withRlumbar extension, poor
O
NT at 60o. What is the best course
posture, and hamstring tightness bilaterally
E
of treatment? M
E
1 ) McKenzie style lumbar IQ
U 2 ) McKenzie style lumbar
UN
extensions, a posture program, extensions, a posture program,
hamstring stretching, home hamstring stretching, and a home
program, hot packs, and exercise program
ultrasound. 3 ) Lumbar traction, hot packs,
ultrasound, and hamstring
stretching
4 ) Lumbar traction, hot packs,
and ultrasound.
Correct answer : McKenzie style lumbar extensions, a posture program,
hamstring stretching, and a home exercise program
Explanation :
Hot packs are no indicated because there is no mention of abnormal
muscle tone. The entire lumbar area is too much surface area for
ultrasound. An argument could be made for lumbar traction, but it is paired
/
with heating modalities all of the answers.

Question 20 Mark 1
A therapist is examining a 3-year-old child who is positioned as follows:
supine, hips flexed to 90 o , hips fully adducted, and knees flexed. The
therapist passively abducts and raises the thigh, applying an anterior shear
RS is noted by the therapist.
force to the hip joint. A click at 30 o of abduction
O
E NT
What orthopedic test is the therapist performing, and what is its
significance?
E M
Q U
U NI
1 ) McMurray test – cartilage 2 ) Piston test – hip dislocation.
damage 3 ) Ortolani’s test – hip dislocation
4 ) Apley’s
compression/distraction test –
cartilage damage
Correct answer : Ortolani’s test – hip dislocation
Explanation :
Ortolani’s test is used to detect a congenitally dislocated hip in an infant.
Choices B and C are common meniscus damage tests for the knee. Choice
D is performed by placing the infant in supine position with the hip at 90o
of flexion and slight abduction and knee flexed to 90o. The examiner then
moves the infant’s hip anterior and posterior in an effort to detect
abnormal joint mobility.

Question 21 Mark 1
A teenager comes to an outpatient facility with complaints of pain at the
tibial tubercle when playing basketball. The therapist notices that the
RS knees. What condition
tubercles are abnormally pronounced on bilateral
O
does the patient most likely have?
ENT
1 ) Jumper’s knees. E M 2 ) Osgood-Schlatter disease.
Q U
I
UN
3 ) Anterior cruciate ligament 4)A&C
sprain.
Correct answer : Osgood-Schlatter disease.
Explanation :
Osgood-Schlatter disease is severe tendinitis of the patellar tendon. It is
characterized by pronounced tibial tubercles. The increased size of the
tubercles is attributed to the patella tendon pulling away from its insertion.
Jumper’s knees (or normal patella tendinitis) does not necessarily present
with tubercle enlargement.

/
Question 22 Mark 1
A patient presents to physical therapy with complaints of pain in the right
hip due to osteoarthritis. Which of the following is not true about this type
of arthritis? RS
N TO
1 ) Mainly involves weight-bearing E 2 ) Not usually more painful in the
joints U EM morning
3 ) Causes pain usually NI
Q 4 ) This type of arthritis commonly
U
symmetrically because it is a involves the distal interphalangeal
systemic condition. joint.
Correct answer : Causes pain usually symmetrically because it is a systemic
condition.
Explanation :
Choice A describes rheumatoid arthritis, a systemic condition. All of the
other choices are signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis (OA). Sometimes OA
can involve symmetrical joints, but it is not systemic.

Question 23 Mark 1
The therapist receives a referral to evaluate a patient with a boutonniere
deformity. With this injury, the involved finger usually presents in the
S
position of OR
T
E N
1 ) Flexion of the proximal
E M 2 ) Extension of the PIP joint and
interphalangeal (PIP) joint and U flexion of the DIP joint.
N IQ
flexion of the distal U 3 ) Flexion of the PIP joint and
interphalangeal (DIP) joint extension of the DIP joint.
4 ) Extension of the PIP joint and
extension of the DIP joint.
Correct answer : Flexion of the PIP joint and extension of the DIP joint.
Explanation :
Answer B describes a swan-neck deformity.

Question 24 Mark 1
Which of the following is the most important to assess first during an
evaluation of a patient with a recent stroke?
O RS
1 ) Sensory status 2T) Motor control
3 ) Mental status. M EN
4 ) Ambulation potential
U E
N IQ
U /
 U
Correct answer : Mental status.
Explanation :
Mental status is the first item to assess. A therapist must first determine
whether the patient is able to provide a reliable subjective history. It is also
important to know whether the patient can follow a 1 or 2-step command
beginning a formal evaluation. The other choices should be assessed later
in the evaluation.

Question 25 Mark 1
A therapist receives an order to evaluate a 72-year-old woman who has
suffered a recent stroke. The therapist needs to
RS focus on pregait activities.
Which of the proprioceptive neuromuscularOfacilitation (PNF) diagonals best
T
encourages normal gait?
MEN
1 ) D1 U E 2 ) D2
N IQ
U
3 ) Pelvic PNF patterns only. 4 ) PNF is contraindicated
Correct answer : D1
Explanation :
The therapist would use a PNF D1 diagonal to encourage the combined
movements of hip flexion, adduction, and knee flexion. The diagonal also
encourages the combined movements of hip adduction and extension. This
is a combination of muscle activity most needed for gait.

Question 26 Mark 1
A therapist receives an order to evaluate and treat a 76-year-old woman
who was involved in a motor vehicle accident 2 days ago. The patient’s
RS The patient has normal
vehicle was struck in the rear by another vehicle.
O
T
sensation and strength in bilateral lowerNextremities but paralysis and loss
M E
of sensation in bilateral upper extremities. Bowel and bladder function are
E
U what type of spinal cord injury?
normal. The patient most likelyQhas
UNI
1 ) Central cord syndrome. 2 ) Brown-Sequard syndrome.
3 ) Anterior cord syndrome. 4 ) There is no evidence of an
incomplete spinal cord lesion.
Correct answer : Central cord syndrome.
Explanation :
This scenario describes a central cord lesion. It is common in the geriatric
population after cervical extension injuries (such as whiplash).

Question 27 Mark 1
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A patient living in a nursing home with Medicare Part A as the source of
reimbursement is treated by physical therapy only.
S What is the required
O R
minimal frequency of physical therapy treatment?
E NT
1 ) Three times a week
E M 2 ) There is no required time
Q U frame.
I
3 ) Once a week UN 4 ) Five times a week
Correct answer : Five times a week
Explanation :
Medicare requires that a patient living in a nursing home with Part A as the
main source of reimbursement receive 5 days/week of skilled treatment. In
this scenario, the physical therapist must see the patient 5 days/week
because it is the only skilled service required by the patient

Question 28 Mark 1
At what point in the gait cycle is the center of gravity
S the lowest?
R
1 ) Midstance 2T
N )O
Deceleration.
E
M 4 ) Double support.
3 ) Terminal swing. E
Q U
I
Correct answer : Double support.
N
Explanation :
U
The lowest point in the gait cycle occurs when both lower extremities are in
contact with the ground (double support)

Question 29 Mark 1
An 87-year-old woman presents to an outpatient physical therapy clinic
complaining of pain in the left sacroiliac joint. The examination reveals
higher left anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)O RS the right ASIS, shorter leg
than
length on the left side (measured in supineE NT position), and left side posterior
superior iliac spine (PSIS) lower thanE Mthe right PSIS. In what position should
you place the patient to perform Q Uthe correct sacroiliac mobilization of the
I
left innominate? UN
1 ) Right sidelying 2 ) Supine
3 ) None of the above 4 ) Prone
Correct answer : None of the above
Explanation :
The answer is none of the above because the sacroiliac joint of an 87-year-
old woman is most often fused

/
Question 30 Mark 1
The home health physical therapist arrives late at the home of a patient for
a treatment session just as the occupational therapist has finished. The
patient is angry because the sessions are so close together. The patient
becomes verbally abusive toward the physical therapist. The most
appropriate response to the patient is: S
T OR
N
ME purposefully come so close
1 ) “I’m sorry I’m late, but you 2 ) “The OT and I did not
must try to understand that I amE
U
extremely busy”. N IQ together. I apologize, please let’s
U
now begin therapy”.
3 ) “I know you are aggravated. It 4 ) “You have to expect visits at
is inconvenient when someone any time of the day with home
does not show up when expected. health”.
Let’s just do our best this session
and I will make an effort to see
that we do not have PT and OT
scheduled so close together from
now on”.
Correct answer : “I know you are aggravated. It is inconvenient when
someone does not show up when expected. Let’s just do our best this
session and I will make an effort to see that we do not have PT and OT
scheduled so close together from now on”.
Explanation :
Answer B is the most empathetic response. It also lets the patient know that
the therapists will make an effort to prevent the problem from recurring.

Question 31 Mark 1
Which of the following is not an acceptable long-term goal for a patient with
a complete C7 spinal cord injury?
1 ) Driving an automobile. 2)O R S
Balance a wheelchair for 30
N T
M E seconds using a “wheelie”.
UE
3 ) Independence with performing 4 ) Independence with dressing
a manual cough. N IQ
U
Correct answer : Balance a wheelchair for 30 seconds using a “wheelie”.
Explanation :
C. Answer A is incorrect because the patient should be able to learn how to
be independent with activities of daily living. Answer B is incorrect because
the patient can learn to drive an automobile independently with the assist

/
of hand control. Answer C is the correct answer because the patient may
use momentum to negotiate a curb. Total balance of a wheelchair using a
wheelie is an unrealistic goal.

Question 32 Mark 1
A 17-year-old football player is referred to the outpatient physical therapy
clinic with a diagnosis of a recent third-degree medial collateral ligament
sprain of the knee. The patient wishes to return to playing football as soon
as possible. Which of the below is the best protocol?
1 ) Fit the patient with a brace that S fit the patient with a
2 ) Do not
R
prevents him from actively
N TO Prescribe general lower
brace.
moving the knee into the last
E ME extremity strengthening with the
available 20o of extension. IQU exception of sidelying hip
Prescribe general lower U
N
extremity adduction
strengthening with the exception 3 ) Do not fit the patient with a
of sidelying hip adduction. brace. All lower extremity
strengthening exercises are
indicated.
4 ) Fit the patient with a brace that
prevents him from actively
moving the knee into the last
available 20o of extension. Avoid
all open-chain strengthening for
the lower extremity.
Correct answer : Fit the patient with a brace that prevents him from actively
moving the knee into the last available 20o of extension. Prescribe general
lower extremity strengthening with the exception of sidelying hip
adduction.
Explanation :
The screw home mechanism that is present in the last few degrees of
terminal knee extension stresses the MCL. Sidelying hip adduction also
places the MCL in position of stretch.

Question 33 Mark 1
The therapist is working in a nursing home. The company for which the
therapist works requires that therapists be at least 75% efficient. The
therapist realizes that he or she cannot effectively treat the patients in the
given time frame. What is the best course of action?
S
OR
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 1 ) Go to the immediate
RS
O with the patients until
2 )TWork
N 75% limit is up and complete
Ethe
supervisor in an attempt to
E M
alleviate the problem. Q U paperwork for the rest of the 8
I
UN hour working day.
3 ) Quit the job and find a 4 ) Work until the 75% limit is up
company that does not require and cease treatment.
the 75% limit.
Correct answer : Go to the immediate supervisor in an attempt to alleviate
the problem.
Explanation :
Answer A is incorrect because any way to solve this problem without
denying needed therapy needs to be explored first. Answer B is incorrect
because the therapist may be donating a considerable amount of time. This
solution is not profitable for the therapist and is likely to cause an
uncomfortable working atmosphere. Answer C is incorrect because the
matter may be resolved without quitting. Answer D is correct because the
immediate supervisor may be able to assist the therapist in coming to an
agreement between the therapist and the company that employs them.

Question 34 Mark 1
In an attempt to establish a home exercise program the therapist gives a
patient written exercises. After 1 week, the patient returns and has not

O RisSthe best course

performed any of the exercises. After further questioning, the therapist

N T
determines that the patient is illiterate. What of action?
E
1 ) Give a copy of the exercises to M 2 ) All of the above.
E
a literate family member IQU 3 ) Go over the exercises in a one-
U N
on-one review session.
4 ) Give the patient a picture of
the exercises.
Correct answer : All of the above.
Explanation :
This answer is correct because patients need a written home program with
diagrams and instructions. One-on-one teaching is also necessary to ensure
that the patient understands the program. Bringing in another family
member is also definitely advisable to assist the patient with program at
home.

Question 35 Mark 1
What is the closed-packed position of the shoulder?
S
OR
/
 RS
1 ) External rotation and )O
2T External rotation and
adduction M EN
abduction
3 ) Internal rotation and UE 4 ) Internal rotation and
I Q
adduction UN abduction
Correct answer : External rotation and abduction
Explanation :
The area of contact between the humerus and the glenoid fossa is maximal
in this position.

Question 36 Mark 1
A 42-year-old receptionist presents to an outpatient physical therapy clinic
complaining of low back pain. The therapist decides that postural
modification needs to be part of the treatment
O RSplan. What is the best
T patient is sitting?
position for the lower extremities while the
N
M E
E
1 ) 90o of hip flexion, 90o of knee 2 ) 60o of hip flexion, 90o of knee
NI QU
flexion, and 10o of dorsiflexion flexion, and 0o of dorsiflexion
U
3 ) 90o of hip flexion, 90o of knee 4 ) 110o of hip flexion, 80o of
flexion, and 0o of dorsiflexion. knee flexion, and 10o of
dorsiflexion
Correct answer : 90o of hip flexion, 90o of knee flexion, and 0o of
dorsiflexion.
Explanation :
This position places the least amount of stress on the lumbar spine in the
sitting position.

Question 37 Mark 1
The therapist works in a cardiac rehabilitation setting. Which of the
S harmful to a 64-year-old
following types of exercises are most likely toRbe
O
NT
man with a history of myocardial infarction?
E
1 ) Eccentric E M 2 ) Aerobic
U
3 ) Isometric N IQ 4 ) Concentric
U
Correct answer : Isometric
Explanation :
Performing isometric exercises places too much load on the left ventricle of
the heart for many cardiac patients.

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Question 38 Mark 1
A 50-year-old man has a persistent cough, purulent sputum, abnormal
dilation of bronchi, more frequent involvement
O RSof the left lower lobe than
the right, hemoptysis, and reduced forced
E NTvital capacity. What is the most
likely pulmonary dysfunction? M
E
Q U
1 ) Bronchiectasis N I 2 ) Emphysema
3 ) Asthma
U 4 ) Chronic bronchitis
Correct answer : Bronchiectasis
Explanation :
These are signs and symptoms of patient with bronchiectasis.

Question 39 Mark 1
The following is a long-term goal for a patient with spinal cord injury:
independence in performing a manual cough without applying pressure to
O
the abdomen. This goal is the most challenging RSand obtainable for a patient
with a complete lesion at which of the E NT
following spinal cord levels?
E M
QU
1 ) T10 2 ) C5
I
3 ) C7 UN 4 ) T2
Correct answer : C7
Explanation :
A patient with a spinal cord injury at the C5 level would apply pressure to
the abdomen to perform a cough. A patient with an injury in the T2 level
and T10 level should be able to perform a cough independently, but this
goal would be most challenging and obtainable for a patient an injury at the
level of C7.

Question 40 Mark 1
When ordering a customized wheelchair for a patient, the therapist
RS
determines that the pelvic belt needs to be positioned so that it allows
active anterior pelvic tilt. What is the best T O
position for the pelvic belt in
relation to the sitting surface? E N
E M
1 ) 60o U 2 ) 45o
N IQ
3 ) 90o U 4 ) 30o
Correct answer : 30o
Explanation :
A belt that angled at 90o with the sitting surface limits the patient’s
involuntary efforts to extend the trunk because of increased tone. This
angle also allows the patient to actively tilt the pelvis anteriorly, which is a
functional movement that does not need to be restricted.
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Question 41 Mark 1
A patient with a diagnosis of a rotator cuff tear has just begun active range
of motion. The therapist is strengthening the rotator cuff muscles to
O RSshear of the deltoid. Which
increase joint stability and oppose the superior
of the rotator cuff muscles participate E NT in opposing the superior shear
least
force of the deltoid?
UEM
1 ) Supraspinatus N IQ 2 ) Subscapularis
U
3 ) Infraspinatus 4 ) Teres minor
Correct answer : Supraspinatus
Explanation :
The subscapularis, teres minor, and infraspinatus muscles oppose the
superior pull of the deltoid muscle. The supraspinatus does not oppose the
pull of the deltoid but is important because (along with other cuff muscles),
it provides a compression force to the glenohumeral joint.

Question 42 Mark 1
Which of the following is an example of a policy in a physical therapy clinic?
RS
1 ) No shorts worn in the clinic 2T O
) A and C
E N
3 ) The clinic will open at 8:00 AMM 4 ) The correct way to accept a
UE
N IQ telephone referral
Correct answer : A and C U
Explanation :
Policies can be viewed as the rules, and procedures are the ways in which
the rules are carried out.

Question 43 Mark 1
A 14-year-old girl with right thoracic scoliosis is referred to physical therapy.
The therapist should expect which of the following findings?
O RS
1 ) Left shoulder low, right scapula 2T) Left shoulder high, left scapula
prominent, and left hip high
EN
M prominent, and right hip high
E
3 ) Right shoulder low, right IQU 4 ) Right shoulder high, right
scapula prominent, andU
N
left hip scapula prominent, and right hip
high high
Correct answer : Left shoulder low, right scapula prominent, and left hip
high
/
Explanation :
The patient probably has a low left shoulder, prominent right scapula and
high left hip.

Question 44 Mark 1
To treat effectively most patients with Parkinson’s disease, the therapist
O RS
should emphasize which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)
pattern for the upper extremities? N T
M E
1 ) D2 extension
U E 2 ) D1 extension
3 ) D2 flexion N IQ 4 ) D1 flexion
U
Correct answer : D2 flexion
Explanation :
D2 flexion patterns support upper trunk extension, which is important for
patients with Parkinson’s disease who tend to develop excessive kyphosis.

Question 45 Mark 1
The therapist is asked to evaluate a baseball pitcher’s rotator cuff
S appropriate?
isokinetically. Which isokinetic evaluation is most
R
T O
1 ) 60o /second, 120o /second, N
2 ) 30o /second, 60o /second, and
ME 90o /second
UE
and 180o /second
NI Q
3 ) 190o/second, 180o/second, 4 ) 180o /second, 240o /second,
and 240o/second
U and 360o /second
Correct answer : 190o/second, 180o/second, and 240o/second
Explanation :
The fastest settings are appropriate for isokinetic testing. A pitcher’s
throwing motion is quite fast. It is better to evaluate with isokinetic speed
as close as possible to the speed of the tested activity

Question 46 Mark 1
A patient presents to a clinic with decreased tidal volume (TV). What is the
RS
most likely cause of this change in normal pulmonary function?
N TO
1 ) Restrictive lung dysfunction
M E 2 ) None of the above
3 ) Chronic pulmonary diseaseUE 4 ) Both of the above
N IQ
U
Correct answer : Restrictive lung dysfunction
Explanation :
/
A decreased tidal volume is caused by a restrictive lung dysfunction. An
increased tidal volume is caused by an obstructive lung dysfunction.

Question 47 Mark 1
The patient is referred by a physician to begin outpatient cardiac
RS
rehabilitation. Which of the following is not a contraindication to enter an
outpatient program?
N TO
1 ) Resting ST displacement less ME 2 ) Third-degree atrioventricular
Q UE
than 1 mm. I block
3 ) Acute fever UN 4 ) Resting systolic blood pressure
of 210 mmHg
Correct answer : Resting ST displacement less than 1 mm.
Explanation :
ST segment displacement greater than 3 mm is a contraindication. Resting
systolic pressure above 200 mmHg is a contraindication.

Question 48 Mark 1
In order to determine if an exercise session should be terminated, the
S the Borg Rating of
patient is asked to assess level of exertion using
R
O
Perceived Exertion Scale (RPE). The patientTrates the level of exertion as 9
EN to which of the following?
on the 6-19 scale. A rating of 9 corresponds
M
E
1 ) Somewhat hard D. I QU 2 ) Very, very light
3 ) Hard UN 4 ) Very light
Correct answer : Very, very light
Explanation :
A rating of 9 corresponds with “very light”. A rating of 7 is “very, very light”. A
rating of 13 is “somewhat hard”. A rating of 15 is “hard”. A rating of 17 is
“very hard”. A rating of 19 is “very, very hard”.

Question 49 Mark 1
The therapist is treating a new patient with a diagnosis of lateral
RS
epicondylitis. The therapist decides to use iontophoresis driving
dexamethasone. Dexamethasone is an _________
T O and is administered with
the ______. EN
M
1 ) Anti-inflammatory, anodeQ U E 2 ) Analgesic, anode.
I
3 ) Analgesic, cathode UN 4 ) Anti-inflammatory, cathode.
/
Correct answer : Anti-inflammatory, cathode.
Explanation :
Dexamethasone is a common anti-inflammatory drug driven with the
negative electrode. Lidocaine is a commonly used analgesic driven with the
positive electrode.

Question 50 Mark 1
During the opening of a patient’s mouth, a palpable and audible click is
discovered in the left temporomandibular joint. The physician informs the
therapist that the patient has anteriorly dislocated disk. This click most likely
signifies: RS
N TO
1 ) the condyle is sliding posterior
M E 2 ) the condyle is sliding posterior
UE
to obtain normal relationship with and losing normal relationship
N IQ
the disk. U with the disk
3 ) the condyle is sliding anterior 4 ) the condyle is sliding anterior
to obtain normal relationship with and losing normal relationship
the disk. with the disk
Correct answer : the condyle is sliding anterior to obtain normal
relationship with the disk.
Explanation :
A. In the case of reciprocal click, the initial click is created by the condyle
slipping back into the correct position under the disk with opening of the
mouth. In this disorder, the condyle is resting posterior to the disk before
jaw opening. With closing the click is caused by the condyle slipping away
from the disk.