1.

What biomolecules are considered the most abundant and functionally diverse in the living
system?
A. Proteins
B. Carbohydrates
C. Nucleic acid
D. Fatty acid
E. Terpenoids

2. Which of the following statements is correct about protein structure?

I. The primary structure of a protein involves alpha-helics, beta-sheets and other types of
folding patterns that occur due to a regular repeating pattern of hydrogen bond formation.
II. The secondary structure consist of the amino acids sequence along the chain.
III. The tertiary structure involves electrostatic and hydrophobic interations, van der waals
interaction, and hydrogen and disulfide bonds,
IV. Quaternary structure refers to the interaction of one or more subunits to form a
functional protein, using the same force that stabilize the tertiary structure.
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and IV
E. III and IV

3. Accumulated misfolded proteins occur in variety of disease. Which of the following

proteins is misfolded in patients with Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Prion protein
B. Alpha-synuclein
C.Glutamine stretches
D. Beta-amyloid
E. None of these

4. Hemoglobinopathies result from mutations that produce alterations in the structure of

hemoglobin. One common mutation result is sickle cell anemia, in which a mutated form of
hemoglobin distorts the RBC into a crescent shape at low oxygen levels. Sickle cell anemia
happens when:
A. Valine is being substituted by glutamine at codon number 6
B. Glutamic acid is being substituted by valine at position number 6
C. Glutamine is intercalated by histidine at codon number 6
D. Gene transcription is distrupted
E. None of these
5. Acid-base disturbances occur under a variety of conditions. Which of the following is the result
of hyperventilation due to retention of carbon dioxide in the lungs.
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
E. Lactic acidosis

6. In amino acids, the pH at whioch the number of positive charges equals the number of
negative charge is termed as ?
A. Chirality
B. Amphoteric property
C. Optical activity
D. Isoelectric point
E. Zwitterions

7. Molecules that contain an equal number of ionizable groups of opposite charge and that
therefore bear no net charge are termed as
A. Chirality
B. Amphoteric property
C. Optical activity
D. Isoelectric point
E. Zwitterions

8. Problems associated with connective tissues and structural protein are present in a number of
disease. In scurvy, hydroxylation of proline residues is decrease and an unstable form of
collagen is produced. Bones, teeth, blood vessels and other structures rich in collagen develop
abnormally. Bleeding gums and poor wound healing are often observed. Which of the
following vitamin deficiencies is associated to scurvy?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin K

9. Which of the following is true about insulin functions

I. Insulin is release form the pancreas when blood glucose levels are elevated
II. Insulin promotes the transport of glucose into muscle and fat cells
III. Insulin promotes the storage of energy
IV. Insulin increases glycogen catabolism in the liver and muscles
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I only
 E. !, !!, !!!, and IV

10. The enzyme kinetics can be described by what equation?

A. Noyes-Whitney Equations
B. Henderson- Hasselbach Equation
C. Arrhenius Equation
D.Van Slyke Equation
E. Michaelis-Menten Equation

11. Evaluate the given statements. (1) Competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for binding
at the allosteric site of the enzyme. (2) Noncompetitive inhibitors bind to the enzyme or the
enzyme substrate complex at the active site.
A. Only I is correct
B. Only II is correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I and II are incorrect

12. In phenylketonuria, the enzyme phenylalanine hy6droxylase ios deficient. Which of the
following statements is not true about the condition?
A. Phenylketonuria happens as a result of accumulated phenylalanine in the body
B. Tyrosine becomes a essential amino acid among phenylketonuric patients
C. Aspartame is recommended for phenylkotenuric patients
D. Phenylalanine non metabolism leads to mental retardation.
E. None of these

13. Which of the following is not a basic amino acid?

A. Histidine
B. Leucine
C. Lysine
D. Arginine
E. None of these

14. What are the amide linkages between the alpha-carbonyl group of one amino acid and alpha
amino group of another?
A. Peptide bonds
B. Disulfide bonds
C. Hydrogen bonds
D. Hydrophobic bonds
E. Ionic bonds

15. Edman’s reagent is used to label the amino terminal residue under mildly alkaline
conditions. What is the component of this reagent?
A. Monosodium glutamate
B. Alpha-naphthol
C. Picric acid
 D. Phenylisothiocyanate
E. None of these

16. Several different polypeptide helices are found in nature, but the alpha-helix is the most
common. What bond stabilizes this helix?
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Peptide bond
C. Phosphodiester bond
D. Hydrophobic bond
E.Ionic bond

17. What protein structures reverse the direction of a polypeptide chain, helping it form a
compact, globular shape?
A. alpha-helices
B. beta-sheets
C. Beta-bends
D. All of these
E. Ionic bond

18. What specialized group are required for the proper folding of many species of proteins?
A. Chaperones
B. Heat shockproteins
C. Beta bends
D. A and B
E. A and C

19. Many proteins consist of a single polypeptide chain, and are defined as monomeric proteins.
However, others may consist of two or more polypeptide chains that may be structurally
identical or totally unrelated. These statements describe what protein structure?
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Quaternary structure
E. None of these

20. What protein is misfolded in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

A. Prion
B. Glutamine stretches
C. Beta-globin
D. Beta-amyloid
E. None of these

21. What are the two most abundant hemeproteins in humans?

A. Hemoglobin and myogobin
 B. Hemoglobin and cytochrome oxidase
C. Hemoglobin and catalase
D. Cytochrome and catalase
E. All of these

22. The complex of protoporphyrin IX and ferrous iron is termed as ?

A. Heme
B. Hemoglobin
C. Transferin
D. Ferritin
E. Myoglobin

23. What is the hemeprotein found in heart and skeletal muscles which functions both as a
reservoir for oxygen and as an oxygen carrier that increases the rate of transport of oxygen
within the muscle cell?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Myoglobin
C. Actin
D. Myosin
E. Keratin

24. This is found exclusively in red blood cells (RBCs) where its main function is to transport
oxygen (O2) from the lungs to the capiliaries of the tissues.
A. Myoglobin
B. Keratin
C. Collagen
D. Hemoglobin
E. Myosin

25. The major hemoglobin in adults compromising of four polypeptide chains held together by
noncovalent interaction.
A. Hemoglobin A
B. Hemoglobin T
C.Hemoglobin R
D. Hemoglobin F
E. Hemoglobin C

26. These are hereditary hemolytic disease in which an imbalance occurs in the synthesis of
globin chains.
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Iron deficiency anemia
E.Hyperchromic anemia
27. Oxidation of the heme component of hemoglobin to the ferric ion (fe3+) state forms:
A. Carboxyhemoglobin
B. Methemoglobin
C. Ferritin
D. Transferrin
E. Porphyrin

28. Collagen and elastin are examples of:

A. Fibrous proteins
B. Globular proteins
C. Albumins
D. Mettalloproteins
E. Enzymes

29. What is the most abundant protein in the human body?

A. Keratin
B.Elastin
C. Collagen
D. Hemoglobin
E. Myoglobin

30. Fibril forming collagen, EXCEPT:

A. Type I
B. TYPE II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. None of these

31. Which of the following pairs is correct about collagen types?

A. type I: Fibril associated collagen
B. Type II: Network forming collagen
C. Type III: Fibril-forming collagen
D. Type IV: Fibril forming collagen
E. Type IX: Network forming collagen

32. Collagen is rich in and , both of which are important in the formation of the
triple-stranded helix.
A. Proline and leucine
B. Proline and isoleucine
C. Proline and glycine
D.Proline and histamine
E. Proline and tyrosine

33. A heterogenous group of generalized connective tissues disorders that result from
inheritable defects in the metabolism of fibrillar collagen molecules, and can result from
a deficiency of collagen processing enzymes (for example, lysyl hydroxylase or or procollagen
peptidase), or from mutations in the amino acids sequences of collagen types I,III or V.
A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
B. Von Gierke’s syndrome
C. Osteogenesis imperfect
D. Huntington’s disease
E. Hurler’s syndrome

34. A connective tissue protein with rubber like properties in tissues such as the lung.
A. Collagen
B. Keratin
C. Elastin
D. Albumin
E. Hemoglobin

35. A connective tissue disorder that characterize by impaired structural integrity in the
skeleton, the eye, and the cardiovascular system.
A. Hurler’s disease
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Rheumatiod arthritis
D. Gaucher’s disease
E. Huntington’s disease

36. Lactate pyruvate conversion is possible due to the presence of lactic

dehydrogenase. What enzyme category does lactic dehydrogenase belong?
A. Hydrolase
B. Oxidoreductase
C. Transferases
D. Lyases
E. Isomerases

37. Which of the following pairs is incorrect about the intacellular location of the
biochemical pathways?
A. Lysosome: Macromolecular degradation
B. Nucleus: Protein synthesis
C. Cytosol: Glycolysis
D. Mitochondria: Fatty acid oxidation
E. Cytosol: HMG shunt

38. What is the process of recycling protein into their constituent amino acid, for reuse by the
cell?
A. Protein catabolism
B. Protein turnover
C. Protein synthesis
D. Protein denaturation
E. Protein degradation

39. A large protein that may contain two or more regions of the polypeptide chain that
individual individually have a compact folded structure is called .
A. Domains
B. Chaperones
C. Residues
D. Proteasome
E. None of these

40. The following are true about amino acid, EXCEPT:

A. They may polymerized to form polypeptides
B. They serve as precursors for other small biomolecules
C. They may be oxidized to serve as an energy source for the cell
D. They act as building blocks of fatty acids
E. None of these

41. Of the 20 impotant amino acids, which is considered optically active?

A. Proline
B. Lysine
C. Arginine
D. Leucine
E. Glycine

42. The following amino acids contain sulfur on their structure, EXCEPT:
A. Cysteine
B. Methionine
C. Tyrosine
D. Leucine
E. Glycine

43. Which of the following amino acids does not contain benzene ring on its structure?
A.Tyrosine
B. Phenylalanine
C. Trytophan
D. All of these
E. None of these

44. RNAs with catalytic activity are called

A. Apoenzymes
B. Zymogens
C. Proenzymes
D. Ribozymes
E. Holoenzymes
45. The number of molecules of substrate converted to product per enzyme molecule per
second
A. Bloom strength
B. Turnover number
C. Saponification number
D. Conformational change
E. None of these

46. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

A. Holoenzyme: active enzyme
B. Apoenzyme: inactive enzyme
C. Cofactor: inorganic molecule
D. Coenzyme: Small organic molecule
E. Prosthetic group: transiently associated with the enzyme

47. Which of the following is false about the kinetic order of enzyme?
A. When the substrate concentration [S] is much lesser than the Km, the rate of reaction is first
order.
B. When [S] is much greater than Km, the velocity is constant and equal to Vmax.
C. When [S] is much less than Km, the velocity of the reaction is approximately
proportional to the substrate concentration.
D. When the substrate concentration [S] is greater than the Km, the rate of reaction is zero
order.
E. None of these

48. Irreversible inhibitors bind to enzymes through what bond?

A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Hydrophobic bond
E. Sigma and pie bonds

49. Which of the following is true about competitive inhibitions?

A. The reaction of the substrate and inhibitor is irreversible
B. Substrate binds to active site, inhibitor binds to allosteric site
C. Inhibitor is covalently bonded to the enzyme
D. The reaction is not surmountable
E.None of these

50. This occurs when inhibitor and substrate bind at different site on the enzyme.
A. Competitive inhibition
B. Non-competitive inhibition
C. Functional inhibition
D. Chemical inihibition
 E. Physiological inhibition

51. Enzyme are often measured in clinical diagnosis. Which of the following is
correlatable to an elevated alanine aminotransferase?
A. Brain tumor
B. Hepatic damage
C. Prostate cancer
D. Colon cancer
E. Eye injury

52. ADH requires NAD+ for catalytic activity. In the reaction catalyzed by ADH, an
alcohol is oxidized to an aldehyde as NAD+ is reduced and dissociates from the enzyme.
The NAD+ is functioning as a (an):
A. Apoenzyme
B.Coenzyme-cosubstrate
C. coenzyme-prosthetic group
D. cofactor
E. Eye injury

53. Which of the following is not true about the digestion of protein?
A. Protein digestion begins in the mouth
B. The digestion of protein may be due gastric acid secretion
C. Pancreatic enzyme aid in the digestion of protein
D. Aminopeptidases digest oligopeptides in the small intestine
E. None of these

54. What is most common genetic error of amino acid transport?

A. Phenylketonuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Cystinuria
D. Methemoglobinemia
E. Pellagra

55. A disease of malabsorption resulting from immune-mediated damage to the small

intestine in the response to ingestion of gluten
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Celiac disease
C. Ulcerative disease
D. Crohn’s disease
E. Conn’s disease

56. What is the first step of metabolic catabolism?

A. Conjugation
B. Transamination
C.Transpetidation
D. Hydrolysis
E. Reduction

57. All amino acids participate in transamination at some point in their catabolism, EXCEPT:
A. Lysine
B. Threonine
C. Trytophan
D. A and B
E. A and C

58. What is the only amino acid that undergoes rapid oxidative deamination?
A. Lysine
B. Tyrosine
C. Glutamate
D. Trytophan
E. Ornithine

59. In the transport of ammonia from the peripheral tissues to the liver, which of the following
,mechanism is true?
A. Glutamine is transported in the blood to the liver where it is cleaved by glutaminase to
produce glutamate and free ammonia
B. Alanine is transported by the blood to the liver, where it is converted to pyruvate by
transamination
C. Transamination of pyruvate to alanine is required to allow transport of alanine to the liver.
D. A and B
E. All of these

60. Where is the production and excretion site?

A. Liver for production, kidney for excretion
B. Muscle for production, kidney for excetion
C. Liver for production, mammary gland for excretion
D. Liver for both production and excretion
E. None of these

61. What amino acid is the immediate precursor of both ammonia and aspartate nitrogen?
A. Glutamate
B. Aspartate
C. Pyruvate
D. Oxaloacetate
E. Lactate

62. The synthesis of urea is located on which cell site?

A. Mitochondria
B. Cytosol
C. DNA
D. A and B
C. All of these

63. Ammonia is produced by all tissues during the metabolism of a variety of compounds.
However, The level of ammonia in the blood must be kept really low, because even slightly
elevated concentrations (Hypoammonemia) are toxic to what part of the body system?
A. Autonomic nervous system
B. Central nervous system
C. Integumentary system
D. Skeletal system
E. Digestive system

64. The following are potential sources of ammonia, EXEPT

A. Glutamine
B. Monoamines
C. Purines
D. Pyrimidines
E. Resorcinol

65. What two nitrogen-containing compounds are incorporated in the urea cycle?
A. Alanine and glutamate
B. Glutamine and alanine
C. Aspartate and ammonia
D. Ammonia and aspartate
E. Alanine and arginine

66. Evaluate the two statements. (1.) Essential amino acids must be obtained from diet in order for
normal protei synthesis to occur (2.) Essential amino acids are produced from the intermediates of
metabolism of protein.
A. Only 1 is correct
B. Only 2 is correct
C. Both are correct
D. Both are incorrect

67. Amino acids whose catabolism yields either acetoacetate or one of its precursors (Acetyl CoA or
acetoacetyl CoA) are termed as. . .
A. Glucogenic amino acids
B. Ketogenic amino acids
C. Metabotropic compounds
D. Amphoteric amino acids
E. Zwitterionic amino acids

68. Which of the following amino acids doesn’t belong to the group?
A. Tyrosine
B. Isoleucine
C. Phenylalanine
D. Lysine
E. Tryptophan

69. The amino acids leucine, isoleucine and valine are:

A. Branched-chain amino acids
B. Essential amino acids
C. Aromatic amino acids
D. A and B
E. C and D

70. Succinyl CoA, A Kreb’s cycle intermediate may be derived from the degration of the
following, EXCEPT
A. Valine
B. Isoleucine
C. Theonine
D. Aspargine
E. None of these

71. The most common clinically encountered inborn error of amino acid metabolism
A. Tyrosinemia type I
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Albinism
D. Maple syrup urine disease
E. Pellagra

72. Tyrosine is needed in the synthesis of the following, EXCEPT:

A. Tissue protein
B. Melanin
C. Catecholamines
D. Fumarate
E. Phenylacetate

73. The following are clinical characteristics of classical phenylketonuria:

A. Elevated phenylalanine
B. CNS symptoms
C. Hypopigmentation
D. Blue eyes
E. All of these

74. A disease which is characteristic by feeding problems, vomiting, dehydration, severe

metabolic acidosis. This condition is due to partial or complete deficiency in the branched- chain
alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase.
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Maple syrup urine disease
C. Pellagra
D. Albinism
E. Hypopigmentation

75. Albinism refers to a group of conditions in which a defect in tyrosine metabolism results in a
deficiency in the production of
A. Melatonin
B. Melanin
C. Melanocyte
D. All of these
E. None of these

76. The homocystinurias are a group of disorders involving defects in the metabolism of homocysteine.
The most common cause of homocystinuria is a defect in the enzyme cystathionine beta-synthase.
Patients can be responsive (or nonresponsive) to oral administration of vitamin coenzyme of
crystathionine beta-synthase. What vitamin is referred to in this condition?
A. Thiamine
B. Niacin
C. Panthotenic acid
D. Pyridoxine
E. Biotin

77. Which of the following amino acid should be avoided of by patients with alkaptonuria?
A.Phenylalanine
B. Tyrosine
C.Alanine
D. A and B
E. B and C

78. Which of the following pairs (precursor  product) is incorrect?

A. Histidine -> histamine
B. Trytophan -> serotonin
C.Arginine -> nitric oxide
D. Methionine -> purine/pyrimidine
E. Tyrosine -> dopamine

79. Which one of the following statements concerning a 1 week old male infant with
undetected classic phenylketonuria is correct?
A. Tyrosine is a nonessential amino acid for
the infant
B. High levels of phenylpyruvate appear in his urine
C. Theraphy must begin within the first year of life
D. A diet devoid of phenylalanine should be initiated immediately
E. When the infant reaches adulthood, it is recommended that diet theraphy be discontinued
80. The structure of porphyrin is shown below. Which cyclic organic molecule is present on th
structure?
A. Indole
B. Pyrrole
C. Quinolone
D. Pyridine
E. Piperidine

81. The most prevalent metalloporphyrin in humans is heme. It serves as a prosthetic group for:
A.Cytochrome
B.Hemoglobin
C. Peroxidase
D. All of these
E. A and B

82. Inherited (or occasionally acquired) defect is heme synthesis may result to:
A. Porphyria
B. Phenylketonuria
C.Methemoglobinemia
D. Lead poisoning
E.Albinism

83. What is the approximate number of days of red blood cells to be in the circulation before
degradation?
A. 40 days
B. 80 days
C. 120 days
D. 150 days
E. 365 days

84. Bilirubin and biliverdin are examples of:

A. Bile salts
B. Bile pigments
C.Bile duct
D. All of these
E. None of these

85. Certain anionic drugs, such as salicylates and sulfonamides, can displace bilirubin from albumin,
permitting bilirubin to enter the central nervous system. This cause the potential ffor neural damage in
infants known as:
A. Saint Louis Encephalitis
B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
C.Steven-johnson’s syndrome
D. Kernicterus
E. All of these

86. Van de Bergh reaction determines the concentration o:

A. Protein
B. Bilirubin
C. Heme
D. Glucose
E. Cholesterol

87. The following are atecholamines, EXCEPT:

A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Dopamine
E. None of these

88. What organic polymer protects underlying cell from the harmful effects of sunlight?
A. Melanin
B. Keratin
C. Collagen
D. Catecholamines
E. Heme

89. The 4D symptoms of pellagra include: diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia and death. This is due to
the deficiency of:
A. Niacin
B. Tyrosine
C. Trytophan
D. A and C
E. A and B

90. Trytophan
i. One-letter representation is “T”
ii. Non polar molecule
iii. Deficiency of which can cause Hartup disease
iv. The structure contains phenol side chain
A. I & II are correct
B. I,II, and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. I,II,III and IV are correct
E.I,II,III and IV incorrect

91. What is the isoelectric point (pl) of arginine? A.

7.87
B. 5.55
C. 10.75
D. 7.3
E. 11.8

92. Estimate the isoelectic point of the structure (reaction mechanism) given below.
A. 2
B. 9
C. 6
D. 5
E. 7

93. Which of the following secondary derived proteins have highest molecular weight
characteristic?
A. Proteoses
B. Peptones
C. Peptides
D.A and B
E. B and C

94. Tyrosine can be detected by:

A Xanthoproteic test
B. Millon’s test
C. Sakaguchi test
D. A,B and C
E. A and B

95. Hopkin’s cole reaction gives positive result in:

A. Gelatin
B. Collagen
C. Tryptophan
D. A and B
E. B and C

96. Which of the following is an essential amino acid in man?

A. Tyrosine
B. Proline
C. Aspartate
D. Threonine
E. Serine

97: Which of the following amino acids is NOT basic?

A. Lysine
B. Arginine
C. Ornithine
D. Glutamine
E.Histidine

98. Which of the following bonds is not affected by denaturation due to its high stability?
A. Disulfide bond
B. Peptide bond
C.Hydrogen bond/
D. Ionic bond
E. None of these

99. Arginine and histidine are:

A. Essential amino acid
B. Non essential amino acid
C. Semi-essential amino acid
D. Acidic amino acid
E. Aromatic amino acid

100. A tripeptide involved in cellular oxidation-reduction, and is required for maintaining the
integrity of RBC and lens of eyes.
A. Glutathione
B. Vasopressin
C. Encephalin
D. Oxytocin
E. Retinol

101. Which of the following is true about the central dogma of molecular biology?
A. Genetic information found in DNA is copied and transmitted to daughter cells through DNA
replication.
B. Transcription is involved in RNA synthesis
C. The code contained in the nucleotide sequence of messenger RNA molecules is translated to
complete gene expression.
D. All of these
E. A and B

102. Which of the following not true about DNA structure?

A. Phosphodiester bonds stabilize the DNA structure
B. In the double helix, the chains are paired in a parallel manner
C. Uracil is always paired with a thymine and a cytosine is always paired with a guanine
D. A and B
E. B and C

103. A rule which states that "in any sample of DNA, the amount of adenine equals the amount of
thymine, the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine, and the total amount of purines equals
the total amount of pyrimidines.”
A. Zaitsev’s rule
B. Hund’s rule
C. VSEPR rule
D. Chargaff’s rule
E. Markovnikov’s rule

104. Which of the following structural forms of DNA is right handed?

A. B-DNA
B. Z-DNA
C. A-DNA
D. A and B
E. A and C

105. Most species of bacteria also contain small, circular, extrachromosomal DNA molecules called
plasmids, which may carry genes that convey
A. Antibiotic resistance
B. Antibaterial effect
C. Mutagenic effect
D Antigenicity
E. Transcription

106. When the two strands of the DNA double helix is separated, each can serve as a template
for the replication of a new complementary strand. This produces two daughter molecules, each
of which contains two DNA strands with an antiparallel orientation. This describes:
A. Conservative replication
B. Semiconservative replication
C. Dispersive replication
D. Antigenicity
E. Transcription

107. Human topoisomerase II is targeted by:

A. Etoposide
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Penicillin
D. Vancomycin
E. Chloramphenicol

108. The strand that is being copied in the direction away from the replication fork, and is
synthesize discountinuously, with small fragments of DNA being copied near the replication fork.
A. Leading strand
B. Lagging strand
C. RNA primer
D. Single strand
E. Double strand

109. Which of the following rRNA size particles is not present in prokaryotes?
A. 23S
B. 15S
C. 5S
D. 40S
E. 50S

110. Which nitrogenous base is not present in RNA structure?

A. Cytosine
B. Uracil
C. Thymine
D. Adenine
E. Guanine

111. Ribonucletotide contains:

A. Ribose
B. Nitrogenous base
C. Phosphate
D. All of these
E. None of these

112. Which of the consequence of point mutation is expected to happen in the codon transition of UCA
to UCU? Use the genetic code table below for your reference.
A. Silent mutation
B. Missense mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Spontaneous mutation
E. Frameshift mutation

113. A hereditary disease that primarily affects the pulmonary and digestive systems, most commonly
caused by deletion of three nucleotides from the coding region of a gene, resulting in the loss of
phenylalanine at the 508th position in the protein encoded by that gene.
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Crohn’s disease
C. H.pylori infection
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

114. This states that the first (5’) base of the anticodon is not as spatially defined as the other two bases.
Movement of that first base allows nontraditional base-pairing with the last (3’) base of the codon, thus
allowing a single tRNA to recognize more than one codon for a specific amino acid
A. Chargaff’s rule
B. Wobble hypothesis
C. Shine-Dalgamo sequence
D. Semiconservative
E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

115. Many antimicrobials inhibits protein translation. Which of the following antimicrobials is
correctly paired with is mechanism of action?
A. Tetracyclines – inhibits peptidyltransferase
B. Diphtheria toxin – binds to the 30S subunits
C. Puromycin – inactivates EF-2
D. Erythromycin – binds with 50S ribosomal subunits
E. Clindamycin – binds to the 30S ribosomal subunits

116. The movement of the uncharged tRNA from the P to the E site (before being released), and
movement of the peptidyl tRNA from the A to the P site is termed as:
A. Transcription
B. Translation
C. Translocation
D. Transformation
E. Transferin

117. Thymine structure

118. In DNA double helix, which of the following is not true?

A. Guanine base pairs with cytosine
B. Adenine on one chain forms a base pair with uracil on the other chain
C. The chains are antiparallel
D. Each DNA molecule is composed of twi polynucleotide chain joined by hydrogen bonds
between bases
E. The double-stranded molecule is twisted to form a helix with major and minor grooves

119. Which of the following statements regarding DNA denaturation is incorrect?

A. Alkali can cause DNA breakage
B. Heat can cause DNA separation
C. Heat and alkali can break phosphodiester bonds
D. A and B
E. All of these

120. In DNA replication, what enzyme acts to prevent the extreme supercoiling of the parental helix
that would result as consequence of unwinding at a replication fork?
A. Topoisomerase
B. RNA polymerase
C. Helicases
D. Isomerases
E. Proteolytic enzymes
121. Phase of eukaryotic cell cycle involving DNA (replication) synthesis
A. G1 phase
B. G2 phase
C. G0 phase
D. S phase
E. M phase

122. The deficiency results in an inability to salvage hypoxanthine or guanine, from which
excessive amounts of uric acid are produced
A. Hurler syndrome/
B. Sanfilippo syndrome
C. Gaucher’s disease
D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
E. Forbes’ disease

123. Uric acid

A. May be derived from hypoxanthine
B. May be derived from guanine
C. The end product of protein metabolism/
D. A and B
E. A, B and C

124. What ribosomal tRNA acts as a binding site of an incoming amoniacyl-tRNA?

A. E site
B. P site
C. A site
D. A and C are correct
E. B and C are correct

125. Where is the cellular location of ribosomes?

A. Cytosol
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. A and B
E. B and C

126. A rare hereditary defect of the enzyme system where the cells cannot repair the damage DNA,
resulting in extensive accumulation of mutation and, consequently, early and numerous skin cancers.
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Psoriasis
C. Xeroderma pigmentosum
D. Necrotizing fascilitis
E. Lepromatosus leprosy
127. Which of the following statements best describes carbohydrates?
A. Least abundant organic molecules in nature
B. Provide a significant fraction of the dietary calories for most organisms
C. Structural component of many organisms
D. All of these
E. B and C

128. Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

A. Sucrose
B. Trehalose
C. Cellobiose
D. Mannose
E. Lactose

129. Which of the following are isomers?

A. Fructose and glucose
B. Glucose and mannose
C. Mannose and galactose
D. All of these
E. A and C

130. The D- and an L-sugar designation of monosaccharide are:

A. Tautomers
B. Enantiomers
C. Monomers
D. Epimers
E. Anomers

131. Alpha-D-glucopyranose and beta-D-glucopyranose are:

A. Enantiomers
B. Diasteromers
C. Anomers
D. A and C
E. B and C

132. Which of the following polysaccharides is/are derived from plant sources?
A. Cellulose
B. Glycogen
C. Starch
D. All choices are correct
E. A and C

133. Which of the following is not true about lactose?

A. Reducing sugar
B. With alpha-1,4 glycosidic linkage
C. Contains fructose and galactose
D. A and B
E. B and C

134. The final product of carbohydrate digestion is:

A. Glucose
B. Galactose
C. Fructose
D. All of these
E. A and B

135. Which of the following statements is true?

I. Digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth
II. Further digestion of carbohydrate by pancreatic enzyme can occur on the small intestine
III. Final carbohydrate digestion by enzymes synthesized by the intestinal mucosa cells
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I,II and III

136. Lactose intolerance is present among:

A. Lactase-deficient people
B. Sucrase-deficient people
C. Isomaltase-deficient people
D. All of these
E. None of these

137. Disaccharides, oligosaccharides and polysaccharides contains monomer sugar units which
are linked by what bond?
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Phosphodiester bond
C. Glycosidic bond
D. Disulfide bond
E. Hydrophobic bond

138. Which of the following statements best describes glucose?

A. It is a ketose and usually exists as a furanose ring
B. It is a C-4 epimer of galactose
C. It is utilized in biological systems only in the L-isometric form
D. It is a product from dietary starch by the action of alpha-amylase
E. Homopolysaccharides of glucose, formed by the action of glycosyltransferase, are always
branched molecules that contain only beta-glycosidic linkages
139. Clinitest is a nonspecific test that produce a change in color id urine is positive in reducing
substances. Which of the following sugars is not detected by this test?
A. Xylulose
B. Fructose
C. Sucrose
D. Galactose
E. Glucose

140. What effect should drugs like acarbose and miglitol have on the digestion of lactose?
A. Lactose intolerant
B. Diarrhea
C. Lactose digestion
D. A and B
E. None of these

141. Catabolic reaction

I. Breakdown of complex molecules
II. Exergonic reactions
III. Exemplified by glycolysis and glycogenolysis
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. I, II and III
E. II and III

142. Evaluate the two statements: (I) Pyruvate is the end product of glycolysis in cells with
mitochondria and an adequate supply of oxygen. (II) the conversion of glucose to lactate is called
anaerobic glycolysis because it can occur without the participation of oxygen.
A. Only I is correct
B. Only II is correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I and II are incorrect

143. The enzyme that may add or remove phosphate group of sugar is called:
A. Hexokinase
B. PFK
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. All of these
E. A and C

144. The enzyme that function as a glucose sensor in the maintenance of blood glucose
homeostasis.
A. Glucokinase
B. Hexokinase D
C. Fructokinase
D. A and B
E. All of these

145. Glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate conversion requires:

A. Isomerization
B. Carbon removal
C. Water removal
D. Carbon division
E. A and C

146. Cleavage of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is made by:

A. Hexokinase
B. Aldolase
C. Enolase
D. Isomerase
E. Pyruvate kinase

147. Which of the following involves oxidation-reduction reaction?

A. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to 1,3-biphosphoglycerate
B. PEP to pyruvate
C. Glucose to glucose 6-phosphate
D. DHA to glyceraldehydes
E. Glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate

148. The kinase enzyme in glycolysis are physiologically reversible, EXCEPT:

A. Hexokinase
B. Type IV hexokinase
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Phosphoglycerate kinase
E. Phosphofructokinase

149. In glycolysis, what is the role of phosphoglycerate mutase?

A. Shift of the phosphate group from carbon 3 to carbon 2
B. Dehydration of 2-phosphoglycerate
C. Formation of pyruvate producing ATP
D. Oxidation of glyceraldehyde 3 –phosphate
E. Isomerization of dihydroxyacetone phosphate

150. What is the second most common cause of enzyme deficiency related non-spherocytic
hemolytic anemia?
A. Pyuvate dehydrogenase deficiency
B. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
C. Morquio syndrome
D. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
E. Sickle cell anemia
151. Anaerobic glycolysis:
I. Pyruvate is the end product
II. Generates 2 ATP per glucose
III. Produces 1 NADH
A. Only I is correct
B. Only II is correct
C. Only III is correct
D. I and III are correct
E. I,II and III are correct

152. What is the major fuel for the TCA cycle?

A. Pyruvate
B. Acetyl CoA
C. PEP
D. Lactate
E. Oaloacatate

153. A person in a fasting state has

I. Increase of blood glucose
II. Increase of release of glucagon
III. Decrease of insulin
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III only
E. I, II and III

154. What is the final pathway where the oxidative metabolism of carbohydrates, amino acids and
fatty acids take place?
A. Kreb’s cycle
B. Glycolysis
C. Urea cycle
D. HMP shunt
E. Oxidative phosphorylation

155. Aldol condensation of acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate yields

A. Citrate
B. Isocitrate
C. Fumarate
D. Malate
E. Succinate

156. The conversion of citrate to isocitrate requires. . .

A. Dehydroganese
B. Aconitase
C. Fumarase
D. Aldolase
E. Kinase

157. How much NADH are produced in TCA cycle?

A. 1 NADH
B. 2 NADH
C. 3 NADH
D. 12 NADH
E. 6-8 NADH

158. How many ATP molecules are produced from the oxidation of one molecule of acetyl CoA?
A. 6-8 ATPs
B. 12 ATPs
C. 24 ATPs
D. 36-38 ATPs
E. 129 ATPs

159. Which of the following reactions produce NADH?

A. Oxidation and decarboxylation of isocitrate
B. Oxidative decarboxylation of a-ketoglutarate
C. Oxidation of Malate
D. A and B
E. All of these

160. In Kreb’s cycle, How many NADH, FADH2 and GTP are produced in one round of cycle?
A. 2 NADH, 2 FADH2, and 2 GTP
B. 1 NADH, 3 FADH2, and 3 GTP
C. 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP
D. 3 NADH, 2 FADH2. and 1 GTP
E. 4 NADH, 0 FADH2, and 2 GTP

161. Oxidation of acetyl CoA yields. . .

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water
C. Glucose
D. A and B
E. A and C

162. The lactid cycle is also known as:

A. Kreb’s cycle
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Cori’s cycle
D. Urea cycle
E. Water cycle

163. Which of the following may serve as precursor for gluconeogenesis?

A. Lactate
B. Glycerol
C. Glucogenic amino acid
D. A and C
E. All of these

164. Seven glycolytic reactions are reversible and are used in the synthesis of glucose from lactate or
pyruvate. In glyconeogenesis, however, some reactions are irreversible and must be circumveted by
alternate reactions that are energetically favor the synthesis of glucose. This gluconeogenesis reactions
include:
I. Carboxylation of pyruvate
II. Decarboxylation of oxaloatate
III. Dephosphorylation of fructose 1,6-biosphate
IV. Dephosphorylation of gluvose 6-biosphate
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II, III, and I
E. II, III, and IV

165. The synthesis of glucose from pyruvate by gluconeogenesis:

A. Occurs exclusively in the cytosol
B. In inhibited by an elevated level of glucagon
C. Requires participation of biotin
D. Involves lactate as an intermediate
E. Requires the oxidation/reduction of FAD

166. Which one of the following reactions is unique to gluconeogenesis?

A. Lactate – Pyruvate
B. Phosphoenolpyruvate – pyruvate
C. Oxaloacetate – phosphoenolpyruvate
D. Glucoso 6-phosphate – fructose 6-phosphate
E. 1,3-bis-phosphoglycerate – 3-phosphoglycerate

167. The main stores of glycogen in the body are found in the:
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. A and B
E. B and C
168. Glycogen is a branched-chain polysaccharide made exclusively from a-D-glucose.
Glucose units are mainly linked by:
A. a(1-4) Linkage
B. a(1-6) Linkage
C. B(1-4) Linkage
D. A and B
E. B and C

169. Evaluate the two statements (1) Glycogenesis is synthesis of glycogen (2) Glycosis is
degration of glycogen.
A. Only I is correct
B. Only II is correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I and II are incorrect

170. Evaluate the two statements (1) Glycogenesis accelerates during periods when the body has been
well fed (2) Glycogenesis accelerates during periods of fasting.
A. Only I is correct
B. Only II is correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I and II are incorrect

171. An elevated insulin level results in:

I. Increased glycogenesis
II. Decreased glycogenesis
III. Elevated glucagon (or epinephrine)
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III

172. Pompe’s disease is

A. Lysosomal storage disease
B. Glycogen storage disease
C. Type II GSD
D. All of these
E. B and C

173. Increased ingestion of glucose leads to:

I. Increased blood glucose
II. Increased glucagon
III. Increased insulin
A. Only I is correct
B. Only II is correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I and II are incorrect

174. A deficiency of the phosphatate causes glycogen storage disease type 1a. This disease results in
an inability of the liver to provide free glucose to the body during a fast.
A. Von Glerke’s disease
B. Pompe’s disease
C. Cori’s disease
D. Anderson’s disease
E. McArdle’s disease

175. Which of the following pairs is incorrect?

A. Type 1b GSD: Cori’s disease
B. Type II GSD: Pompe’s disease
C. Tybe III GSD: Cori’s disease
D. Type V: McArdle’s disease
E. Type VI: Her’s disease

176. The most common monosaccharide consumed by humans:

A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Ribose
D. Mannose
E. Arabinose

177. High-fructose corn syrup typically contains:

A. 90% fructose and 10% galactose
B. 55% fructose and 45% glucose
C. 90% fructose and 10% glucose
D. 50% fructose and 50% glucose
E. 55% galactose and 45% glucose

178. What enzyme is deficient from essential fructosuria?

A. Fructokinase
B. Aldolase A
C. Aldolase B
D. Aldolase C
E. Hexokinase

179. What is the major carbohydrate energy source of sperm cells?

A. Glucose
B. Sorbitol
C. Ribose
D. Fructose
E. Mannose
180. Galactose
I. Major dietary source is milk
II. C-2 epimer with glucose
III. Detected by muric acid test
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III

181. Following the intravenous injection of lactose into a rat, none of the lactose is metabolized.
However, ingestion of lactose leads to rapid metabolism of this disaccharide. The difference in these
observations is a result of:
A. Presence of lactose in the serum
B. The absence of hepatic galactokinase
C. The absence of maltase in the serum.
D. The presence of lactase in the intestine
E. None of these

182. Pentose phosphate pathway

A. Hexose monophosphate pathway
B. 6-phosphogluconate pathway
C. Occurs in cytosol
D. All choices are correct.
E. A and C

183. An inherited disease characterized by hemolytic anemia cause by the inability to detoxify
oxidizing agents.
A. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydroganese deficiency
B. Glucose 6-phosphate deficiency
C. Gaucher’s disease
D. Krabbe’s disease
E. Glycogen storage disease

184. In preparation for a trip to an area of India where malaria is epidemic, A young man is given
primaquine prophylactically. Soon thereafter, He develops a hemolytic condition. The most likely
cause of the hemolysis is a less-than-normal level of which of the following?
A. Glucose 6-phosphate
B.Oxidized form of NAD
C. Reduced form of glutathione
D. Ribose 5-phosphate
E. Ribulose 5-phosphate
185. These are long, unbranched, hetero polysaccharide chains generally composed of a repeating
disaccharide unit.
A. Glycoproteins
B. Glycosaminoglycans
C. Metaloproteins
D. Lipopolysaccharides
E. Carbohydrates.

186. The most abundant glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) in the body

A. Chondroitin sulfate
B. Keratin sulfates
C. Hyaluronic acid
D. Dematan sulfates
E. Herapin

187. Which of the following pairs is correct about muccpolysaccharidoses (MPS)?

A. Hurler syndrome: MPS I
B. Hunter syndrome: MPS II
C. Sly syndrome: MPS III
D. A and B
E. B and C

188. Muccpolysaccharidoses are inherited lysosomal storage diseases. They are caused by:
A. An increased rate of synthesis of the carbohydrate component of proteoglycans
B. The synthesis of polysaccharides with an altered structure.
C. Defects in the degradation of GAGs in the proteoglycans
D. The synthesis of abnormally small amounts of protein cones
E. An insufficient of proteolytuc enzymes

189. Which of the following is a cellular defense against reactive oxygen species (ROS)?
A. Superoxide dismutase
B. Catalase
C. Glutathione peroxidase
D. A and B
E. A,B and C

190. Evaluate the two statements (1) Conversion of FMN to FMNH2 requires oxidation (2)
Conversion of NADH to NAD+ requires reduction.
A. Only I is correct
B. Only II is correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I and II are incorrect

191. A theory that explains how the free energy generated by the transport of electricity by the electron
transport chain is used to produce ATP from ADP + Pi
A. Chemiomotic theory
B. Mitchell hyphothesis
C. Archimedis law
D. Noyes-whitney equation
E. A and B

192. In electron transport train, the transport (“pumping”) of protons (H+) across the inner
mitochondria membrane from the matrix to the intermembrane space does not happen at:
A. Complex I
B. Complex II
C. Complex III
D. Complex IV
E. A and C

193. Leber hereditary optic neuropathy is an example of

A. Mitochondrial mutation
B. Nuclear mutation
C. Ribosomal mutation
D. Cytosolic mutation
E. Oxidative mutation

194. Adenosine Triphosphate

I. Contains the base adenine, the sugar ribose, and three phosphate groups joined each other by two
anhydride bonds
II. Produced from adenosine diphosphate(ADP) and inorganic phosphate (Pi) mainly by the process
of substrate phosphorylation.
III. Plays a central role in energy exchanges in your body
A. Only I is correct
B. Only II is correct
C. I and II are correct
D. I and II are incorrect

195. NADH and/or FADH2 are produced by. . .

A. Glycolysis
B. TCA cycle
C. B-oxidation of fatty acids
D. A and B
E. All of these

196. Which of the following complexes is incorrectly paired?

A. Complex I: NADH dehydroganese
B. Complex II: Succinate dehydroganese
C. Complex III: cytochrome b-c1 complex
D. Complex IV: cytochrome oxidase
E. Complex V: ADP synthase
197. For each pair of electrons that enters the chain from NADH, how many protons are
pumped out of the mitochondria?
A. 10 protons
B. 6 protons
C. 8 protons
D. 12 protons
E. 24 protons

198. In electron transport chain, which complex is blocked by either carbon monoxide or
cyanide?
A. Complex I
B. Complex II
C. Complex III
D. Complex IV
E. Complex V

199. A leading cause of blindness, which is due to, overtime, oxidative damage to the retinal
pigment epithelium, such that the brain no longer processes light correctly.
A. Macular degeneration
B. Astigmatism
C. Diplopia
D. Nearsightedness
E. Farsightedness

200. The following are non-enzymatic antioxidants (free-radical scavengers) EXCEPT:

A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin C
C. Carotenoids
D. Flavonoids
E. Vitamin K

201. The most potent ROS

A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Hydroxyl radical
C. Superoxide
D. Coenzyme Q
E. Nitric oxide

202. Metformin is the standard fist-line oral medication for type 2 diabetes. The use of the drug has the
potential side effect of lactic acidosis. Which of the following explains why this lactic acid build up is
rarely seen clinically?

A. The red blood cells utilize the lactate as fuel.

B. The renal cell utilizes the lactate as fuel
C. The cardiac muscle cells utilize the lactate as fuel.
D. The large, voluntary muscle groups utilize the lactate as fuel.
E. The lactate directly enters the TCA cycle to be oxidized.

203. A contestant on a TV reality show, in which the contestant had to survive off the land for a
extended period of time, developed recurrent diarrhea, dermatitis and had trouble remembering things.
These symptoms could be brought about due to lack of which one of the following in the contestant’s
diet?
A. Niacin
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin D

204. The following contains glucose, EXCEPT:

A. Glycogen
B. Triacylglycerol
C. Glycoprotein
D. Glycolipid
E. Ceramide

205. Lipid are:

I. Water-insoluble organic molecules
II. Can be extracted from tissues by polar solvent
III. Major source of energy for the body
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
E. I, II and III

206. Which of the following is true with regard to digestion of biomolecules?

A. Protein digestion starts in the mouth
B. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach
C. Lipid digestion begins in the stomach
D. A and B
E. B and C

207. What anti-obesity agent inhibits both gastric and pancreatic lipases?
A. Colestipol
B. Simvastatin
C. Orlistat
D. Niacin
E. Gemfibrozil

208. Which hormone/s control/s lipid digestion?

I. Insulin
II. Incretin
III. Secretin
IV. Cholescytokinin
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. III and IV only
D. I,II and III
E. I, II,III and IV

209. These are disk shaped clusters of amphipathic lipids that coalesce with their hydrophobic groups
on the inside and their hydrophilic groups on the outside.
A. Micelles
B. Aggregates
C. Coalesce
D. Chylomicron
E. Liposomes

210. A rare, autosomal recessive disorder cause by a deficiency of lipoprotein lipase resulting to
chylomicronemia and hypertriacylglycerolemia.
A. Type 1 hyperlipoproteinemia
B. Type IIa familial hypercholesterolemia
C. Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia
D. Familial hypertriglyceridemia
E. Tangier disease

211. Which of the following fatty acids is a dietary essential in normal humans?
A. Linolenic acid
B. Linoleic acid
C. Arachidonic acid
D. A and B
E. B and C

212. Which of the following contains omega-3 on its structure?

A. Linolenic acid
B. Linoleic acid
C. Arachidonic acid
D. Palmitic acid
E. Arachidic acid

213. A teenager, concerned about his weight, attempts to maintain a fat-free diet for a period of
several weeks. If his ability to synthesize various lipids were examined, he would be found to be most
deficient in his ability to synthesize:
A. Triacylglycerol
B. Phospholipids
C. Cholesterol
D. Sphingolipids
E. Prostaglandins

214. The oxidation of a molecule of palmitoyl CoA to CO2 and H2O produces:
A. 8 acetyl CoA,7 NADH and 7 FADH2
B. 16 acetyl CoA, 16 NADH and 16 FADH2
C. 7 acetyl CoA, 8 NADH and 8 FADH2
D. 8 acetyl CoA, 8 NADH and 8 FADH2
E. 7 acetyl CoA, 7 NADH and 7 FADH2

215. The major supplier of NADPH for fatty acid synthesis:

A. HMP shunt
B. Pentose phosphate pathway
C. Electron transport chain
D. A and B
E. A, B and C

216. Destruction of fatty acid chain happens in the:

A. Ribosome
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Nucleus
D. Cytoplasm
E. Mitochondrion

217. Evaluate the two statements: (1) if a species of acylglycerol is solid at room temperature, it is
called a “fat” (2) if liquid, it is called an “oil”.
A. Only 1 is correct
B. Only 2 is correct
C. Both 1 and 2 are correct
D. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect

218. The yield from the complete oxidation of fatty acids to CO2 and H2O
A. 9 kcal/g
B. 4kcal/g
C. 7.1kcal/g
D. 3.4 kcal/g
E. None of these

219. The most common inborn error of fatty acid oxidation

A. medium chain fatty acyl CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency
B. Carnithine deficiency
C. Methylmalonyl CoA mutase deficiency
D. Zellweger syndrome
E. X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy

220. Acetoacetate, 3-hydroxybutyrate, and acetone are example of:

A. Ketone bodies
B. Ketogenic amino acids
C. Glucogenic amino acids
D. Ketose sugar
E. Aldose sugar

221. Excessive production of ketone bodies in diabetes mellitus leads to:

A. Ketonemia
B. Ketonuria
C. Ketoacidosis
D. A and B
E. A, B and C

222. Phospholipids
I. Amphipathic
II. Have hydrophilic bond
III. Have a hydrophobic tail
A. Only I is correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II and III are correct
D. Only III is correct
E. I, II and III are correct

223. Phospholipids that contain glycerol are called:

A. Glycerophospholipids
B. Phosphoglycerides
C. Glycealdehydes
D. Glycerin phosphate
E. A and B

224. Which of the following is correctly paired?

I. Serine + PA -> phosphatigylserine
II. Ethanolamine + PA -> cephalin
III. Choline + PA -> lecithin
IV. Inositol + PA -> phosphatidylinositol
A. I and IV
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
E. I, II, III, and IV

225. A long chain fatty acid attached to the amino group of sphingosine through an amide
linkage is known as:
A. Ceramide
B. Cerebroside
C. Ganglioside
D. Sulfatide
E. Lipopolysaccharide

226. What is the role of phosphatidylcholine in the lungs?

A. Surfactant
B. Prevents osmosis
C. Antimicrobial
D. Neurotransmitter
E. All of these

227. Two molecules of phophatidic acid connected by amolecule of glycerol

A. Lecithin
B. Inositol
C. Cardiolipin
D. Cephalin
E. Phosphatidylethanolamine

228. Glucocorticoid (for example,cortisol) inhibit:

A. Phospholipase A1
B. Phospholipase A2
C. Phospholipase C
D. Phospholipase D
E. Fatty acyl CoA transferase

229. An autosomal recessive disease caused by in the inability to degrade sphingomyelin leading
to severe mental retardation and neurodegeneration and death in early childhood.
A. Nieman-pick disease
B. Farber’s disease
C. Farby’s disease
D. Gaucher’s disease
E. Tay-sach’s disease

230. Which of the following is not present in lactosylceramide?

A. Sphingosine
B. Fatty acid
C. Glucose
C. Galactose
E. Ganglioside
231. The most common lysosomal storage disease
A. Niemann-pick disease
B. Farber disease
C. Farby’s disease
D. Gaucher’s disease
E. Tey-sach’s disease

232. The following are eicosanoids, EXCEPT:

A. Prostaglandin
B. Thromboxanes
C. Leukotrienes
D. Palmitic acid
E. Arachidonic acid

233. Which of the following is correct with regarding prostaglandin?

I. Regulate smooth muscle contraction
II. Regulate blood vessel diameter
III. Mediator of inflammatory response
IV. Stimulate gastric acid synthesis
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. I and III
E. I,II,III and IV

234. Evaluate the two statement: (1) linolenic acid is a dietary precursor of prostaglandin. (2)
arachidonic acid is a immediate precursor of the predominant class of prostaglandin.
A. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
B. 1 is incorrect, 2 correct
C. 1 and 2 are correct
D. 1 and 2 are incorrect

235. Two isoenzyme of PGH synthase are known. Which is the inducible form?
A. COX 1
B. COX 2
C. LOX
D. A and B
E. A and C

236. Which of the following NSAIDs is a specific inhibitor of COX-2 isoenzyme?

A. Aspirin
B. Indomethacin
C. Phenylbutazone
D. Celecoxib
E. Mefenamic acid
237. Which of the following is correct about leukotrienes?
I. Mediators of allergic response and inflammation
II. Their synthesis is affected bu NSAIDs
III. Aspirin-induced asthma is a response to overproduction to leukotrienes with NSAID use
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. III only
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III

238. The use of celecoxib to increase the risk of:

A. Hypertension
B. Heart attack
C. Kidney failure
D. Atherosclerosis
E. Diabetes mellitus

239. Aspirin-induced asthma (AIA) is a severe reaction to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

(NSAIDs) characterized by bronchoconstriction 30 minutes to several hours after ingestion. It is seen in
as many as 20 % of adults. Which of the following statements best explains the symptoms seen in
patients with AIA?
A. NSAIDs inhibit the activity of the CFTR protein, resulting in thickened secretion that block
airways.
B. NSAIDs inhibit COX but not lipoxygenase, resulting in the flow of arachidonic acid to
leukotriene synthesis.
C. NSAIDs activates the COX activity of PGH synthase, resulting in increased synthesis of
prostaglandins that promote vasodilation.
D. NSAIDs activate phospholipases, resulting in decreased amounts of
dipalmytoylphosphatidycholine and alveolar collapse.
E. NSAIDs inhibit both COX and LOX enzyme and the asthma attack is due to allergic
response to various antigens.

240. The following are true about cholesterol, EXCEPT:

A. Cholesterol is a structural component of all cell membrane
B. Cholesterol is a precursor of bile acids and vitamin C.
C. Liver plays a central role in the regulation of the body’s cholesterol homeostasis.
D. Cholesterol is the major sterol in animal tissues.
E. All of these

241. What is the rate-limiting enzyme and the major control point for cholesterol biosynthesis?
A. HMG CoA reductase
B. Decarboxylase
C. Kinase
D. Transferase
E. Isomerase

242. Cholelithiasis is a:
A. Kidney failure condition
B. Cholesterol storage disease
C. Cholesterol gallstone disease
D. Cholesterol degradation failure
E. Heart problem

243. A patient with Type 1 hyperlipoproteinemia is deficient in:

A. Lipoprotein lipase
B. HMG-CoA synthase
C. HMG-CoA reductase
D. L-carnithine
E. Apo B

244. Which of the following lipoproteins contains the highest amount of triacylglycerol?
A. Chylomicron
B. HDL
C. LDL
D. VLDL
E. IDL

245. A patient with Type II hyperlipidemia is expected to have an increase in:

A. LDL
B. Cholesterol
C. TAG
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

246. An increase in plasma HDL is correlated to a/an:

A. Decrease risk of arthrosclerosis
B. Increase risk atherosclerosis
C. No significant effect in arthrosclerosis
D. Increase chance of CHD
E. Increase chance of Tangier disease

247. What precursor is present in glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex hormone?

A. Monosaccharides
B. Prostanioc acid
C. Isoprene units
D. Cholesterol
E. Purine/pyrimidines

248. What hormone is labeled as “stress hormone”?

A. TSH
B. ACTH
C. LH and FH
D. Prolactin
E. Vasopressin

249. Aldosterone’s primary effect:

I. Increase glucose uptake
II. Increase sodium uptake
III. Increase potassium excretion
IV. Increase blood pressure
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. II and III
D. II,III and IV
E. I,II,III and IV

250. Carl Derrick, 35y/o male was seen in the emergency room because of recurrent abdominal pain.
The history revealed a 2-year pattern of pain in the upper right quadrant, beginning several hours after
the ingestion of meal rich in fried/fatty food. Ultrasonographic examination demonstrated the
presence of numerous stones in the gallbladder. The patient initially elected treatment consisting of
exogenously supplied chenodeoxycholic acid, but eventually underwent surgery for the removal of
the gallbladder, and had a full recovery. The rationale for the initial treatment of this patient with
chenodeoxycholic acid is that this compound:
A. Interferes with enterohepatic circulation
B. Inhibits cholesterol synthesis
C. Increases de novo bile acid production
D. Increase cholesterol solubility in the bile
E. Increase the hydrophobicity of gallstones

251. Which lipoproteins deliver dietary (exogenous) TAG to peripheral tissues?

A. HDL
B. LDL
C. Chylomicron
D. VLDL
E. IDL

252. Activator of lipoprotein lipase

A. Apoprotein CII
B. Apoprotein B48
C. Apoprotein A1
D. Apoprotein E
E. Apoprotein B100
253. Major carriers of triacylglycerols
A. LDL
B. VLDL
C. Chylomicron
D. A and B
E. B and C

254. The formation of lipid-rich plagues in the intima of arteries

A. Gout
B. Cornea arus accumulation
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Farber’s disease
E. Tangler disease

255. In terms of density, arrange the following lipoproteins in descending order:

I. Chylomicrons
II. LDL
III. VLDL
IV. IDL
V. HDL
A. I-II-III-V-IV
B. I-III-II-IV-V
C. V-IV-III-II-I
D. V-II-IV-III-I
E. V-I-II-IV-III

256. Patients with Familial lipoprotein lipase (LDL) deficiency (chylomicronemia) is treated with:
A. Niacin
B. Diet
C. Gemfibrozil
D. Simvastatin
E. Cholestyramine

257. Fatty acids, which are the major source of energy in the human body, are oxidized mainly by:
A. Beta-oxidation
B. w-oxidation
C. a-oxidation
D. peroxisomal oxidation
E. none of these

258. A patient with high blood cholesterol levels was treated with Lovastatin. This drug lowers blood
cholesterol levels due primarily to which one of the following?
A. inhibition of absorption of dietary cholesterol
B. inhibition of lipoprotein lipase in adipose tissue
C. inhibition of citrate lyase in the liver
D. inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase in the liver and peripheral tissues
E. induction of LDL receptors in the liver and peripheral tissues

259. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused by a decrease ability of the B-cells of the pancreas to produce
insulin. A person with Type 1 diabetes mellitus who has neglected to take insulin injection will
exhibits which one of the following?
A. Increased fatty acid synthesis from glucose in liver
B. Decreased conversion of fatty acids to ketone bodies
C. Increased stone of triacylglycerol in adipose tissue
D. Increased production of acetone
E. Increased glucose transport into muscle cells

260. Shannon, a 2 day-old infant born at 32 weeks gestation has had breathing difficulties since
birth and is currently on a respirator and 100% oxygen. These difficulties occur due to which one of
the following?
A. An inability of the lungs to contract to exhale
B. An inability of the lungs to expand when taking in air
C. An inability of the lung to respond to insulin
D. An inability of the lungs to respond to glucagon
E. An inability of the lungs to produce energy

261. Biological effects of insulin:

I. Increase glucose uptake
II. Increase glycogenolysis
III. Increase protein synthesis
IV. Increase fat synthesis
A. I and II
B. I,II and III
C. I, III, and IV
D. III and IV
E. I,II,III and IV

262. Biological effects of glucagon

I. Increase glucose uptake
II. Increase glycogenolysis
III. Increase protein synthesis
IV. Increase fat synthesis
A. I and II
B. I,II and III
C. I, III, and IV
D. III and IV
E. I,II,III and IV

263. Which of the following oppose/s the many actions of insulin?

I. Glucagon
II. Epinephrine
III. Cortisol
IV. Growth hormone
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I,II and III
D. II and III
E. I,II,III and IV

264. Which of the following is not considered a essential component of the diet but may provide a
significant contribution to the daily caloric intake of some individuals?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Protein
C. Essential fatty acid
D. Ethanol
E. Miinerals

265. Consumption of fats containing w-6 polyunsaturated fatty acid PUFAs:

A. Increase HDL levels
B. decrease LDL level
C. Decrease HDL level
D. A and B
E. B and C

266. True statement about trans fatty acid include:

I. Unsaturated fatty acid
II. Elevate serum LDL
III. Elevate serum HDL
IV. Increase the risk of CHD
A. I and II
B. I,II and III
C. II and III
D. I,II and IV
E. I,II,III and IV

267. Correct statement about nitrogen balance include:

I. Positive nitrogen balance occur when nitrogen intake exceeds nitrogen excretion
II. Negative nitrogen balance occurs when nitrogen loses are greater than nitrogen intake.
III. Negative nitrogen balance is observed in situations in which tissue growth occurs.
IV. Positive nitrogen balance is associated with inadequate dietary protein
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I,II and III
E. I,II,III, and IV
268. Given the information that a 70-kg man is consuming a daily average of 275g of
carbohydrate, 75g of protein, and 65g of lipid, how many kilocalories are generated?
A. 415kcal
B. 1985 kcal
C. 3,410 kcal
D. 1950 kcal
E. 4,310 kcal

269. Where in the body the carotenoids are converted to vitamin A?

A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Muscles
D. Brain
E. Intestine

270. Which of the following fat soluble vitamins has a coenzyme function?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin E

271. Macrocytic nutritional anemia:

I. Deficiency in folate
II. Deficiency in Vitamin B12
III. Iron deficiency anemia
IV. Protein-energy malnutrition
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II and III
E. I, II, III and IV

272. A condition in which the blood has a lower than normal concentration of hemoglobin, which
results in reduced ability to transport oxygen.
A. Anemia
B. Hypoxia
C. Methemoglobinemia
D. Erythropoietic protoporhyria
E. Cyanosis

273. What is the most common form of nutritional anemia?

A. Iron-deficiency anemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Thallassemia
D. Megaloblastic anemia
E. Pernicious anemia

274. The most common neural tube defect is:

A. Spina bifida
B. Anencephaly
C. Microcephaly
D. A and B
E. B and C

275. Vitamin B12 is synthesized only by:

A. Microorganisms
B. Plants
C. Animals
D. A and B
E. B and C

276. Megaloblastic anemia is due to deficiency of:

A. Vitamin B9
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin B15
D. A and C
E. A and B

277. A severe malabasorption of vitamin b12 leads to

A. Pernicious anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Aplastic anemia
E. Polycythemia vera

278. Vitamin C:
I. Active form of vitamin c
II. An oxidizing agent
III. Coenzyme on hydroxylation ractions
IV. Facilitates the absorption of dietary iron
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I,II, and III
D. I,III and IV
E. I,II,III and IV

279. Anti-oxidant vitamin include:

I. vitamin c
II. Vitamin a
III. Vitamin D
IV. Vitamin E
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I,II, and III
D. I,II and IV
E. I,II,III and IV

280. The only water soluble vitamin with significant toxicity

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin B9
E. Vitamin B2

281. Thiamine deficiency with is seen primarily in association with chronic alcoholism
A. Beriberi
B. Scurvy
C. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
D. Hemorrhage
E. RBC fragility

282. Dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia are classic symptoms of what vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6
E. Vitamin B9

283. Niacin effect on lipids:

I. decrease LDL
II. Decrease VLDL
III. Decrease TAG
IV. Decrease HDL
A. I and II
B. I,II and III
C. II,III and IV
D. I and III
E. I,II,III and IV

284. Dermatitis, chellosis and glossitis are symptoms of which vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B4
E. Vitamin B5

285. The addition of raw egg white to the diet as a source of protein induces symptoms of biotin
deficiency, namely, dermatitis, glossitis, loss of appetite, and nausea. What component of raw egg
white tightly binds biotin and prevents its absorption from the intestine?
A. Collagen
B. Avidin
C. Albumin
D. Glianin
E. Albuminoid

286. What vitamin is a component of Coenzyme A (CoA, which functions in the transfer of acyl
groups?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B5
E. Vitamin B6

287. Which vitamin A forms is useful in dermatology?

A. Retinol
B. Retinal
C. Beta-carotene
D. Retinoic acid
E. Retinyl ester

288. Isotretinoin
I. 13-cis-retinoic acid
II. Treatment of promylelocytic leukemia
III. Useful in severe, recalcitrant cystic acne
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D.I and II
E. I, II and III

289. Function of vitamin D, EXCEPT:

A. Increasing uptake of calcium by the intestine
B. Increasing loss of calcium by the kidney
C. Stimulating resorption of bone
D. A and B
E. B and C

290. Vitamin K is required in the hepatic synthesis of prothrombin and blood clotting factors II,
VII, IX, and X. Which drug antagonizes the action of Vitamin K?
A. Aspirin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Heparin
D. Warfarin
E. Clopidogrel

291. The least toxic of the fat-soluble vitamins

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin K

292. Vitamin K deficiency is common in:

A. Newborn
B. Adult male
C. Adult female
D. Adolescent
E. Geriatric patients

293. Vitamin k
A. plays a essential role om preventing thrombosis
B. increases the coagulation time in newborn infants wth hemorrhagic disease
C. is present in high concentration in cow or breast milk
D. is synthesized by intestinal bacteria
E. is a water-soluble vitamin

294. Deficiency of peroximal PhyH (phytanoyl-CoA a-hydroxylase)

A. Refsum disease
B. Zellweger syndrome
C. Trisomy syndrome
D. Lysosomal storage disease
E. Klinefeiter syndrome

295. Which of the following biochemical reactions does not happen in the mitochondria?
A. Kreb cycle
B. Fatty acid synthesis
C. Lipoprotein synthesis
D. Beta-oxidation
E. Heme synthesis

296. People who suffer from binges of overeating, followed by self-induced vomiting to avoid
gaining weight have a condition called:
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Bulimia
C. Stress eating disease
D. Anemia
E. A and B

297. The observable traits of the individuals produced by the interaction of the genes and the
environment
A. Phenotype
B. Genotype
C. Genes
D. Allele
E. Locus

298. Turner syndrome

A. Trisomy 13
B. Trisomy 18
C. Trisomy 21
D. Monosomy X
E. XYY

299. The genetic composition of the individual

A. Phenotype
B. Genotype
C. Heritability
D. Penetrance
E. Variable expressivity

300. Which of the following is correctly paired?

I. Point mutations: a change in one bases of the DNA
II. Deletions: a loss of bases in the DNA
III. Insertions: new DNA sequence added into existing DNA
IV. Extra copy of an allele: trisomy for an autosomal chromosome
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and IV
D. I,II and III
E. I,II,III and IV