Pharmaceutical Chemistry Questionnaire

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INORGANIC PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY A. Na2B4O7.

10H2O
B. Cu(BO2)2
C. Na(NH4)HPO4.4H2O
ANSWER KEY D. CuSO4.5H2O
E. NOTA

1.The upper oxidizing zone of a nonluminous Bunsen flame


consists largely of: 10.The color of borax bead produced by cerium salts in the
oxidizing flame when hot is:
A. Incandescent carbon
A. Orange red
B. A mixture of reducing gases and oxygen
B. Colorless
C. A large excess of oxygen
C. Yellow
D. Nitrogen
D. Rose-violet
E. Unburnt gas
E. Bottle green

2.Less volatile substances may be detected in:


11.The upper edge of a filter paper used during filtration
should be about ______ cm from the upper rim of
A. Lower oxidizing zone the funnel
B. Upper oxidizing zone
C. Upper reducing zone
D. Lower reducing zone A. 1 cm
E. Hottest portion of the flame B. 2 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 2/3 cm
3.Sb imparts ______ color to the nonluminous Bunsen E. 0.5 cm
flame
12.When a precipitate tends to pass through the filter
A. Crimson paper, this salt may be added to prevent the
B. Yellowish green formation of colloidal solutions.
C. Green
D. Blue A. Sodium chloride
E. Brick red B. Potassium nitrate
C. Lithium chloride
D. Ammonium nitrate
4.Tl imparts ______ color to the nonluminous Bunsen flame E. NOTA
A. Crimson 13.Glass apparatus which are particularly greasy may be
B. Yellowish green cleaned with
C. Green
D. Blue A. Hot nitric acid
E. Brick red B. Concentrated hydrochloric acid
C. Chromosulphuric acid
5.In the micro scale of qualitative analysis, the quantity of a D. Perchloric acid
substance employed is reduced by a factor of E. Glacial acetic acid

A. 0.1 14.The reaction between lead nitrate and hydrogen


B. 1 sulphide will yield
C. 10
A. A blue solution
D. 100 B. A colorless solution
E. 1000 C. A white precipitate
D. A yellow precipitate
6.A metallic deposit obtained after sublimation may indicate E. A black precipitate
the presence of:
15.This compound is formed when mercury (I) chloride
A. Ammonium salts dissolves in aqua regia
B. Sulphur
C. Mercury (I) iodide A. Mercury (II) amidochloride
D. Selenium (IV) oxide B. Mercury (I) amidochloride
E. Amalgams C. Mercury (I) nitrate
D. Mercury (II) nitrate
7.The color of the flame caused by calcium chloride when E. Mercury (II) chloride
viewed through cobalt glass is
16.Basic mercury (II) amidonitrate exists as:
A. Brick red
B. Light green A. A black precipitate
C. Violet B. A white precipitate
D. Crimson C. A gray precipitate
E. Purple D. A colorless precipitate
E. Colorless solution
8.A mixture of potassium and sodium chloride will produce
_______ color in the flame test. 17.The reaction between silver nitrate and potassium iodide
will produce
A. Orange
B. Violet A. A black precipitate
C. Yellow
B. A white precipitate
D. Red
E. Reddish orange C. A gray precipitate
D. A yellow precipitate
9.In the microcosmic salt bead test, the microcosmic salt E. No precipitate
_________ is used.
18.The reaction between mercury (II) nitrate and excess
potassium iodide will produce: A. Alpha particles
B. Positron
A. A white precipitate of potassium nitrate C. Negatron
B. A black deposit of metallic mercury D. Cyclotron
C. A red precipitate of mercury (II) iodide E. K capture x rays
D. A colorless solution containing
28.The mineral spodumene contains
tetraiodomercurate (II) ions
E. NOTA A. CaMg3(SiO3)4
B. Na3AIF6
19.Purple colored compounds usually indicate the presence
C. CaSO4.2H2O
of
D. LiA([SiO3])2
E. NOTA
A. Dichromates
B. Cobalt salts
29.Compounds formed when molecules of two different
C. Permanganates
halogens react
D. Purple sulphur
E. Sulphides
A. Interhalogens
B. Intrahalogens
20.Devarda’s alloy contains
C. Semihalogens
D. Cohalides
A. Cu, Al, Zn
E. Reaction is not possible
B. Cu, Ni
C. Bi, Pb, Sn
30.CrCl2 (H2O) 4NO3 is
D. Ni, Fe, Cr
E. Pb, Sb, Sn
A. Aqueous chromochloronitrate
B. Hydrated chromodichloronitrate
21.A solution that yields a white precipitate with dilute HCl
C. Nitrated chromodichlorohydrate
and dissolves in ammonia solution indicates the
D. Dichlorotetraaquochromium (III) nitrate
presence of
E. Dichlorotetraaquochromium (II) nitrate
A. Pb 2++
31.Ethylenediamine is a type of ligand classified as
B. Hg2+ 2
C. Ag+
A. Unidentate
D. Hg2+
B. Bidentate
E. NOTA
C. Hexadentate
D. Tetradentate
22.A solution that yields a white precipitate with excess
E. Pentadentate
reagent of ammonium carbonate indicates the
presence of
32.Francium has Z=
A. Group I cations
A. 37
B. Group II cations
B. 55
C. Group III cations
C. 57
D. Group IV cations
D. 87
E. Group V cations
E. 95
23.A solution that yields a white precipitate with excess
33.The most stable diatomic molecule is
reagent of Na2HPO4 indicates the presence of
A. Oxygen
A. Mg 2+
B. Bromine
B. NH 4+
C. Nitrogen
C. Na +
D. Fluorine
D. K+
E. NOTA
E. NOTA
34.The bond existing between mercury (II) fluoride is
24.The most stable complexes are found by ions of these
groups of elements
A. H bond
B. Ionic
A. Group VI A
C. Covalent
B. Group VII A
D. Metallic bond
C. Group I B
E. NOTA
D. Group II B
E. Group VIII
35.The most metallic of all halogens is
25.The element that was named from a Greek word which
A. Fluorine
means “acid former”
B. Chlorine
C. Bromine
A. Hydrogen
D. Iodine
B. Nitrogen
E. NOTA
C. Oxygen
D. Chloride
36.If a basic solvent is used, the iodine solution obtained is
E. Helium
usually colored
26.Artificial radioactive isotopes emit the following except
A. Colorless
B. Violet
A. Alpha particles
C. Orange
B. Beta particles
D. Blue black
C. Gamma rays
E. Black
D. K capture x rays
E. NOTA
37.Linus Pauling called this element a superhalogen,
probably owing to its high electronegativity value.
27.Emitted when neutrons exceed protons beyond a stable
ratio that occurs mainly in the elements of atomic
A. Fluorine
numbers above 63
B. Chlorine D. HF
C. Bromine E. NOTA
D. Iodine
E. NOTA 47.How many percent by weight of HCl does muriatic acid
contain?
38.This principle states that, in a stable complex, there may
be no high concentration of negative or positive A. 96-98%
charge, and that charge will tend to distribute itself B. 97-99%
over the atoms within a complex in such a way that C. 10-16%
the net charge on each atom approaches zero. D. 35-38%
E. 9.5-105%
A. Law of Hess
B. Aufbau Principle 48.A type of water that contains iron in solution or
C. Electropositvity principle suspension and are characterized by a ferruginous taste
D. Electronegativity principle
E. Electroneutrality principle A. Alkaline water
B. Carbonated water
39.Oxidation of phosphorous with oxygen may yield C. Chalybeate water
D. Lithia water
A. P4O6 E. __ Saline water
B. P4O10
C. P2O4 49.The specific gravity of sulphuric acid is
D. AOTA
E. NOTA A. 1.18
B. 1.84
40.An element that has an electronegativity of 0.9 on the C. 1.71
Pauling scale and an element with a Pauling D. 1.14
electronegativity of 3.0 has sufficient difference to E. NOTA
form
50.A type of water which is sometimes known as purgative
A. Ionic bonds water
B. Covalent bonds
C. Coordinate covalent bonds A. Alkaline water
D. H bonds B. Carbonated water
E. NOTA C. Chalybeate water
D. Lithia water
41.Calcium Disodium Versenate may be used in the E. Saline water
treatment for heavy metal poisoning, primarily that
caused by 51.Graham’s salt is

A. Mercury A. Sodium sulfate


B. Arsenic B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Gold C. Calcium phosphate
D. Lead D. Sodium metaphosphate
E. NOTA E. Ammonium bicarbonate

42.The only alkali metal that melts above the boiling point of 52.Parenteral preparations containing bacteriostatic water
water is for injection may be administered through the
following routes except:
A. Lithium
B. Sodium A. Intravenous
C. Potassium B. Subcutaneous
D. Rubidium C. Intramuscular
E. Cesium D. AOTA
E. NOTA
43.Which alkali metal hydroxide has the highest alkalinity?
53.This element decreases the coefficient of expansion in
A. Lithium hydroxide glass.
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Potassium hydroxide A. Potassium
D. Rubidium hydroxide B. Iron
E. Cesium hydroxide C. Titanium
D. Boron
44.All oxides and hydroxides of the coinage metals are E. Rare earth metals
freely basic except for
54.Element that predominates in the plasma and interstitial
A. Cu2O fluids
B. Ag2O
C. Au2O A. Sodium
D. NOTA B. Potassium
E. AOTA C. Magnesium
D. Calcium
45.The reagent that will precipitate out Group I cations E. Iron

A. Dilute hydrochloric acid 55.The black precipitate produced in Marsh’s test is


B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Ammonium sulphide A. Lead
D. Ammonium carbonate B. Arsenic
E. Sodium biphosphate C. Silver
D. Hydrogen sulfide
46.Which among these acid halides has the highest acidity? E. Cadmium

A. HI 56.The xanthoproteic test make use of this acid


B. HBr
C. HCl A. Boric acid
B. Hydrochloric acid D. AOTA
C. Nitric acid E. NOTA
D. Sulfuric acid
E. Phosphoric acid 67.Deficiency of this mineral result to parakeratosis
57.Softening both temporary and permanent hard water A. Zinc
may be achieved through: B. Iron
C. Copper
A. Boiling D. Magnesium
B. Clark’s lime process E. Iodine
C. Demineralization
D. Addition of ammonia 68.This metal has the capacity to displace hydrogen in
E. NOTA solution
58.The principal anion of the intracellular fluid compartment A. Platinum
is B. Mercury
C. Tin
A. Chloride D. Bismuth
B. Phosphate E. Copper
C. Sulfate
D. Bicarbonate 69.These salts may contain two different cations combined
E. Carbonate with a single anion or may contain a single cation
59.Ringer’s injection contains_____ mEqs of potassium combine with two or more anions.
A. 147 mEq
B. 130 mEq A. Normal salts
C. 4 mEq B. Hydrogen salts
D. 2.7 mEq C. Mixed salts
E. NOTA D. Double salts
E. NOTA
60.This is used both as a diuretic and in the treatment of
chronic acidosis to restore bicarbonate reserve. 70.Temporary hardness of water is usually caused by the
presence of:
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Potassium bicarbonate A. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Sodium citrate B. Sodium carbonate
D. Sodium lactate C. Calcium sulfate
E. Ammonium chloride D. Magnesium carbonate
E. Potassium sulfate
61.Iron compound which has the superior resistance to
oxidation upon exposure to air 71.The element found in human bodies that is an important
constituent of xanthine oxidase and aldehyde
A. Ferrous fumarate oxidase.
B. Ferrous gluconate
C. Ferrous sulfate A. Iodine
D. Ferrous oxide B. Zinc
E. NOTA C. Molybdenum
D. Selenium
62.Important component of the protein ceruloplasmin E. Copper

A. Iron 72.Defacqz reaction is used to test for:


B. Copper
C. Magnesium A. Molybdenum
D. Zinc B. Tungsten
E. NOTA C. Thallium
D. Gallium
63.Marsh test is a test for E. Gold

A. Cadmium 73.Turnbull’s blue is


B. Copper
C. Astatine A. Fe3[Fe(CN)6]12
D. Arsenic B. Iron (II) hexacyanoferrate
E. Lead C. The same as prussian blue
D. AOTA
64.The positive result in Gutzeit’s test is the presence of E. NOTA

A. White precipitate 74.A precipitate may result in an unknown solution upon the
B. Evolution of colorless gas addition of hydrogen sulphide if this action is
C. Black spot in filter paper present:
D. Effervescence in solution
E. Silver mirror in test tube walls A. Ag+
B. As5+
65.Decoloration of fuchsin dye indicates the presence of C. Fe2+
D. Fe3+
A. Phosphates E. Li+
B. Sulphates
C. Oxides
D. Phosphites 75.This system of inorganic nomenclature cites the charge
E. Sulphites on a complex ion rather than the oxidation state of
the central unit.
66.Prussian blue is:
A. Stock system
B. Ewens-Basset system
A. Fe4[Fe(CN6)]3 C. Classical System
B. The same as Turnbull’s blue D. Modern System
C. Iron (III) hexacyanoferrate E. AOTA
E. Buffers
76.Being a bridge element, the behaviour of this element
and its compound is often different that of the other 86.A green precipitate that results after a solution was
members of the Group I family. neutralized with ammonia solution and after the
addition of ammonium sulphide indicates the
A. Lithium presence of:
B. Sodium
C. Ammonium A. Al3+
D. Rubidium B. Mn2+
E. Cesium C. Cr3+
D. Co2+
77.The most chemically active among the members in E. Ni2+
Group II A
87.Potassium alum is an example of a
A. Magnesium
B. Beryllium A. Normal salt
C. Calcium B. Hydrogen salt
D. Strontium C. Mixed salt
E. Barium D. Double salt
E. NOTA
78.The second most abundant element on earth
88.Aromatic Ammonia Spirit, USP must be stored in
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen A. PET bottles
C. Aluminum B. Rubber containers
D. Silicon C. PVC containers
E. Hydrogen D. Amber bottles
E. Clear glass containers
79.This is the product when a base like sodium carbonate is
fused with pure silica. 89.The only route of administration approved in
administering Iron Dextran Injection
A. Smectite
B. Talc A. Intravenous
C. Silanes B. Intramuscular
D. Glass C. Subcutaneous
E. Pumice D. Intra arterial
E. Intradermal
80.One hundred volumes of hydrogen peroxide is equal to
90.This metal will not react with acids to produce hydrogen
A. 3%
B. 6% A. Potassium
C. 30% B. Aluminum
D. 70% C. Bismuth
E. 100% D. Strontium
81.The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at room E. Lead
temperature
91.The softest mineral known is:
A. α- sulfur
B. β- sulfur A. Mg5(Si8O20)(OH)2.8H2O
C. Г-sulfur B. Mg3(OH)2Si4O10
D. NOTA C. [Al4(OH)6][Si4O10)(OH2)]
E. AOTA D. CaAl2Si4O12.6H2O
E. NOTA
82.The best expectorant is
92.A white precipitate after the addition of excess
A. KI syrup ammonium carbonate indicates the presence of
B. NH4Cl solution
C. HI solution A. Group I cations
D. H2O vapor B. Group II cations
E. NOTA C. Group III cations
D. Group IV cations
83.Fatal bends in deep sea divers are caused by E. Group V cations
gaseous_____ in the blood
93.A basic or “sub” salt is prepared by
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Hydrogen A. Partial hydrolysis of a normal salt
C. Helium B. Partial neutralization of a hydroxide
D. Pure oxygen C. Partial reaction with a base
E. Nitrogen D. A and B
E. B and C
84.Compounds which are capable of interfering with the 94.An example of an efflorescent substance is
passage of X rays are used as
A. Epsom salt
A. Enema B. Glauber’s salt
B. Chemotherapeutic agents C. Blue vitriol
C. Radiopaques D. AOTA
D. Radioisotopes E. NOTA
E. NOTA
95.Used as bone replacement for temporary braces of long
85.Iron oxides are usually used as bones and to close openings in the skull

A. Astringents A. Plaster of Paris


B. Topical protectives B. Zinc-eugenol cement
C. Laxatives C. Silver
D. Pigments D. Tantalum
E. Adamantium C. Kaolin
D. Attapulgite
96.The following elements belongs to Period III of the E. Clay
periodic table except for:
106.The metal of Masynoeci is also more commonly known
A. Boron as
B. Magnesium
C. Sulfur A. Wood’s alloy
D. Silicon B. Devarda’s alloy
E. NOTA C. Brass
97.Treatment with gold has been used in the following D. Bronze
conditions except: E. NOTA

A. Rheumatoid arthritis 107.This aluminum magnesium silicate, also known as


B. Disseminated lupus floridin, is a low plasticity, clay-like material which,
C. Nondisseminated lupus erythematosus when heated, exhibits an increase in its adsorptive
D. AOTA properties.
E. NOTA
A. Kaolin
98.The oxidation state of sulphur that gives rise to sulphuric B. Bentonite
cid C. Talc
D. Fuller’s earth
A. -1 E. Pumice
B. -2
C. +2 108.The purest native form of uncombined carbon is
D. -3
E. +6 A. Coal
B. Charcoal
99.Metallic mercury is soluble in the following acids except C. Diamond
D. Graphite
A. Hot H2SO4 E. AOTA
B. HI
C. HCl 109 What is formed when ozone dissolves and unites with
D. Cold HNO3 the double bonds of substances such as oil of
E. NOTA turpentine, oil of cinnamon and olive oil?

100. A solution prepared from the complex compound A. Peroxides


produced when mercuric iodide reacts with B. Ozonides
potassium iodide is known as: C. Oxidized oils
D. Dehydrogenated oils
A. Benedict’s reagent E. NOTA
B. Valser’s reagent
C. Bordeaux mixture 110.The following are the known uses of sodium
D. Nessler’s reagent hypochlorite solution except:
E. Fehling’s reagent
A. Disinfectant
101 Native colloidal, hydrated silicate is also known as: B. Antiseptic
C. Oxidizing agent
A. Kaolin D. Bleaching agent
B. Talc E. AOTA
C. Bentonite
D. Silane 111.Corrosive sublimate is:
E. Siliceous earth
A. Ammoniated mercury
102.Burrow’s solution contains B. Mercury bichloride
C. Mercurous chloride
A. Aluminum acetate D. Potassium hydroxide
B. Lead subacteate E. NOTA
C. Magnesium hydroxide
D. AOTA 112.The only Group V cation that will yield a precipitate with
E. NOTA sodium biphosphate

103.Purple of Cassius consists of A. Li+


B. Na+
A. Metallic gold C. K+
B. Colloidal gold D. NH4+
C. Tin chloride E. Mg2+
D. Metallic tin
E. NOTA 113.Water (as molecules) associated with cations and/or
anions of salt in solution or in crystals.
104.A cofactor for phosphate transferring enzymes and also
a constituent of bones and teeth A. Coordinated water
B. Zeolytic water
A. Magnesium C. Lattice water
B. Iron D. AOTA
C. Calcium E. NOTA
D. Copper
E. Zinc 114.Rinman’s green is

105.Aluminum silicates that contain impurities of calcium, A. Zinc acetate


magnesium, iron oxides, fragments of quartz etc. is known B. Cobalt zincate
as C. Copper acetoarsenate
D. Potassium ferrocyanide
A. Bentonite E. NOTA
B. Montmorillonite
115. In testing for the presence of reducing sugars in a B. Ionization energy increases as the atomic
diabetic urine, 0.1% concentration of such sugars number increases
will produce ______ with the Fehling’s solution. C. Electronegativity of the elements increases
from left to right across any period and from
A. Brick red precipitate bottom to top in any group (except VIIIA)
B. White precipitate D. NOTA
C. Colorless solution E. AOTA
D. Bluish-green solution
E. NOTA 125.A useful diagnostic agent in determining renal function
is:
116.Solution 2 of the Fehling’s reagent contains the:
A. Iodinated I 125 Serum Albumin
A. Cupric sulfate B. Sodium Iodohippurate I 131
B. Reducing agent C. Sodium Rose Bengal I 131
C. Sequestering gent D. Ferric chloride Fe 59
D. AOTA E. NOTA
E. NOTA
126.The quantitative Benedict’s solution contains all of the
117.Which of the following metals are placed higher than following except:
hydrogen in the electromotive series of metals?
A. Cupric sulfate
A. Barium B. Sodium citrate
B. Strontium C. Potassium thiocyanate
C. Nickel D. Potassium ferrocyanide
D. AOTA E. Sodium carbonate
E. NOTA
127 In the Griess-Ilosvay test, diazotization of sulphanilic
118.The oxidation state of oxygen in the peroxide ion is acid is affected by ______acid, followed by
coupling with 1-naphthylamine reagent to form the
A. 0 red azo dye.
B. -1
C. -2 A. Sulphuric acid
D. +2 B. Hypochlorous acid
E. Nota C. Nitrous acid
D. Nitric acid
119.What is the color of the precipitate produced when E. Glacial acetic acid
mercuric salts are treated with sodium hydroxide
TS? 128.Which reagent may be used to differentiate mercurous
salts from mercuric salts?
A. Yellow
B. Scarlet A. Sodium hydroxide TS
C. White B. Copper foil
D. Black C. Hydrogen sulfide
E. No precipitate D. AOTA
E. NOTA
120.Complexes of iodine with carrier organic molecules
serving as solubilizing agent to liberate iodine in 129.Which of the following commercial preparations contain
solution. potassium iodide and is indicated for goiter prophylaxis in
iodine deficiency?
A. Iodates
B. Starch-iodoform A. Eltroxin ®
C. Iodophor B. Iodine ®
C. Jodid ®
121.A procedure that employs gamma emitting isotopes D. Neo mercazole ®
and focused radiation directly on the area under E. Thyrax ®
treatment

A. Teletherapy 130.These metals react vigorously with water to form


B. Implantation therapy hydrogen gas and metallic hydroxides
C. Contact therapy
D. AOTA A. Alkali metals
E. NOTA B. Alkaline earth metals
122.Why is it important to give a patient Lugol’s solution at C. Coinage metals
least 24 hours before the administration of D. Rare earth metals
radioactive iodine? E. AOTA
131.All of the members of the family of these metals form
complex cations with ammonia
A. To saturate the thyroid gland with iodine
B. To prevent iodine depletion A. Alkali metals
C. To prevent the uptake of radioactivity B. Alkaline earth metals
D. A and B C. Coinage metals
E. A and C D. Rare earth metals
E. AOTA
123.Vogel reaction is used to test for:
132.All the other nitrates are soluble in the water except for
A. Nickel ions ______ which is only sparingly soluble in water.
B. Ferrous ions
C. Cobaltous ions A. Mercuric nitrite
D. Ammonium ions B. Sodium nitrite
E. NOTA C. Ammonium nitrite
D. Silver nitrite
124.Which is false from these statements? E. Mercurous nitrite
A. Metallic properties of elements generally 133.An entity providing a pair of electrons in a coordinate
decrease in a given period as atomic covalent bond is termed as
number increases
A. Acceptor species 142.This group of elements predominantly exhibit covalent
B. Electron provider bonding, owing to the small size and high charge
C. Donor species on the tetravalent ions.
D. Acid
E. Base A. Group IA
B. Group IIA
134.This group of element hydroxides in aqueous solutions C. Group IIIA
has the greatest alkalinity in nature with alkalinity increasing D. Group IVA
as the ionic radius increases. E. Group IVB

A. Group IA 143.What is the relationship between the oxidation number


B. Group IB and acidity of the oxyacids of a given element in
C. Group IIA the case of the elements in Group VI?
D. Group IIB
E. Group IIIA A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
135.All Group IA elements have increasing oxidation C. Acidity and oxidation number has no relation
potentials except: at all
D. NOTA
A. Cesium E. AOTA
B. Rubidium
C. Potassium 144.The strongest acid among the members of the halogen
D. Sodium family is
E. Lithium
A. HF
136.The following are the advantages of using Benedict’s B. HCl
solution over Fehling’s solution except: C. HBr
D. HI
A. Benedict’s solution is less alkaline than E. HNO3
Fehling’s solution
B. The citrate solution in Benedict’s reagent is 145.An oxyacid of the halogen with the formula HOXO is
a better sequestering agent appropriately named as
C. Benedict’s solution is more stable than
Fehling’s solution A. Hypohalous acid
D. NOTA B. Halous acid
E. AOTA C. Halic acid
D. Perhalic acid
137.Thenard’s blue is chemically known as: E. NOTA

A. Aluminum carbonate 146.This group of elements are the most stable to any kind
B. Sodium cobaltnitarate of chemical reaction.
C. Cupric sulfate
D. Cobalt meta-aluminate A. Group IA
E. NOTA B. Group IB
C. Group VIIA
138.This is also known as White Precipitate D. Group VIIIA
E. NOTA
A. Zinc sulfide
B. Ammoniated mercury 147.If oxidizing impurities are rigidly excluded, all alkali
C. Calomel metals in this group will dissolve in ammonia to
D. Zinc oxide form a blue solution, which, if evaporated, will
E. Ammonium carbonate recover the uncharged metal eventually.

139. All alkaline earth metals reduce water with the A. Group IA
liberation of hydrogen and the formation of an B. Group IIA
alkaline solution except: C. Group IB
D. Group IIB
A. Be E. Group IIIA
B. Ca
C. Sr 148. According to this principle, hard acids are electron
D. Ba acceptors with high positive charges and relatively
E. Ra small sizes while soft acids have low positive
charges and relatively large sizes.
140.This group of elements have an additional ten
electrons, giving it a “pseudo- inert gas” or an 18- A. Lewis Acid and Base Principle
electron structure. B. Bronsted-Lowry Principle
C. Arrhenius Principle
A. Group IA D. Pearson’s HSAB Principle
B. Group IIA E. NOTA
C. Group IB
D. Group IIB
E. NOTA
149. Heating boric acid to temperature s over 160°C will
141. Hydroxides of this group of elements tend to show produce
amphoteric properties except those at the top and
the bottom elements of this group. A. Metaboric acid
B. Pyroboric acid
A. Group IA C. Boron trioxide
B. Group IIA D. Tetraboric acid
C. Group IIIA E. Sodium perborate
D. Group IVA
E. Group IVB 150.This group of elements are the first elements large
enough to permit the addition of electrons to the d
orbital, beginning with the third principal quantum
number.
159. This is used to provide an inert atmosphere to retard
A. Group IB oxidation in cod liver oil, olive oil, and multiple vitamin
B. Group IIB preparations.
C. Group IIIB
D. Group IVB A. Helium D. Carbon dioxide
E. Group VB
B. Nitrogen E. NOTA
151. Nitric acid, NF 30 is an aqueous solution containing:
C. Hydrogen
A. Not less than 36.5% and not more than 38% by weight of
HNO3 D. Not less than 94% and not more than 98% 160. Temporary hard water is caused by the presence in
solution of calcium or magnesium ____.
B. Not less than 69% and not more than 71% by weight of
HNO3 by weight of HNO3 A. sulfates D.chlorides

C. Not less than 85% and not more than 88% by weight of B. hydroxides E. NOTA
HNO3 E. Not less than 27% and not more than 30%
C. bicarbonate
by weight of HNO3
161. Members of the “heavy platinum metals” include
152. This mixture is used for its ability to absorb CO2 from
expired air in metabolic function test. A. Ruthenium D. Palladium

A. Slaked Lime D. AOTA B. Iridium E. NOTA

B. Soda Lime E. NOTA C. Rhodium

C. Lime Water 162. Faulty calcium metabolism defined as a reduced


volume of bone tissue per unit volume of anatomical bone
153. Each element in this group has a core with an outer and commonly affects postmenopausal women is known
shell of 18 electrons, together with a single valence electron as:
in the outermost shell.
A. Osteoporosis D. Hypocalcemia
A. Group 1A D. Group IIB
B. Rickets E. NOTA
B. Group IB E. Group IIIA
C. Paget’s disease
C. Group IIA
163. Organic mercurial salts were previously used as
154. Sal soda or washing soda has the formula diuretics and are all administered parenterally except:

A. NaHCO3 D. Na2CO3. 7 H2O A. Meralluride D. Chlormerodrin

B. Na2CO3 E. Na2CO3. 10 H2O B. Sodium mercaptomerin E. NOTA

C. Na2CO3. H2O C. Calomel

155. This buffer system is useful at alkaline pH and can be 164. This element can replace calcium in bone formation
used in ophthalmic solutions, contact lens solution and as and has been used to hasten bone remineralization in
solvent for soluble fluorescein. diseases such as osteoporosis.

A. Sorensen phosphate buffer D. Gifford’s buffer A. Strontium D. Magnesium

B. Atkins and Pantin buffer E. NOTA B. Barium E. Tantalum

C. Feldman’s buffer C. Beryllium

156. When combined with oxygen or in the form of their 165. Betadine® antiseptic topical solution contains ____ %
oxygen salts, the halogens have ___ valence/s. of iodine.

A. one D. A and B A. 0.5-1% D.10%

B. negative E. B and C B. 5% E. NOTA

C. greater than one C. 7.5%

157. Addition of Barium chloride solution to solutions 166. This compound has been used in the treatment of
containing nitrites will produce Trichomonas vaginalis and Monilia albicans. However,
extended use of this product may result to argyria and
A. Evolution of gas D. Transient pale blue solution nephritis.

B. Brown precipitate E. No precipitate A. Silver nitrate D. Silver lactate

C. White crystalline precipitate B. Silver nitrite E. Silver protein

158. An antioxidant usually found in solutions of drugs with C. Silver trinitrophenolate


phenol or catechol nucleus ex. Epinephrine HCl to prevent
oxidation of these compounds to quinines and similar 167. This sodium salt does not produce systemic alkalosis
substances. readily and is antikeratogenic. As such, it is thought to be
more suitable as an electrolyte replenisher.
A. Sulfur dioxide D. Nitrogen
A. Sodium bicarbonate D. Sodium tatrate
B. Sodium hyposulfite E. Sodium nitrite
B. Sodium lactate E. Sodium citrate
C. Sodium metabisulfite
C. Sodium gluconate
168. In the reaction: KMNO4 + 5 HNO2 + 3 H2SO4 A. 2 D. 6
3 MnSO4 + 5 HNO3 + K2SO4, the reducing agent is:
B. 3 E. 7
A. KMnO4 D. H2O
C. 4
B.HNO2 E. NOTA
179. The following elements exhibit amphoteric property
C. H2SO4
A. Aluminum D. Lead
169. Addition of ferric salts to solutions of thiocyanates
causes the formation of a blood-red colored solution, which B. Tin E. NOTA
has been variously ascribed to the formation of:
C. Zinc
A.Fe (SCN) 3 D.AOTA
180. Fool’s gold
B. Fe (SCN) 6 E. NOTA
A. Gold sodium thiomalate D. Ferrous carbonate with
C. Fe (SCN) ++ shale

170. KNaC4H4O6. 4 H2O is also known by the following B. Auric selenate E. NOTA
names except:
C. Iron pyrite
A. Potassium Sodium tartrate D. Rochelle salt
181. In a weakly acidic medium, the reaction between this
B. Sal seignette E. NOTA metal and stannous chloride will produce a purple
precipitate commonly known as Purple of Cassius
C. Seidlitz powder
A. Tin D. Gold
171. Fresh silver stains on skin may be best removed by
painting the affected area with B. Silver E. Lead

A. Tincture of iodine D. Potassium cyanide C. Mercury

B. Sodium thiosulfate E. NOTA 182. The most desirable form of talc for cosmetics and
pharmaceuticals
C. Sodium picrate
A. amorphous D. steatite
172. Citric acid is added to Milk of Magnesia to
B. foliated E. granular
A. prevent oxidation D. A and B
C. fibrous
B. enhance palatability E. B and C
183. Quilonium-R® is also
C. minimize alkalinity
A. Lithium bromide D. Lithium bicarbonate
173. This substance gives calamine its pink color.
B. Lithium chloride E. Lithium hydroxide
A. Zinc oxide D. Ferric oxide
C. Lithium carbonate
B. Ferrous oxide E. NOTA
184. The iron salt in this commercial preparation has the
C. Zinc carbonate advantage of being the least irritating to the GI tract.

174. Flash-light powders are mixtures of potassium chlorate A. Feosol® D. Cherifer® capsule
or barium peroxide and the powdered form of this element
B. Hemobion® E. NOTA
A. Calcium D. Sulfur
C. Revicon Max®
B. Aluminum E. Phosphorus
185. A native form of calcium carbonate that has been freed
C. Magnesium from most of its impurities through elutriation.

175. NaF may be stored A. Drop chalk D. Lime

A. in dark, glass bottles D. AOTA B. Precipitated chalk E. NOTA

B. for one year E.NOTA C. Muriate of Lime

C. in cool temperatures 186. A property of some substances to lose water


molecules from a crystalline structure.
176. The explosive form of antimony is the
A. Dehydration D. Efflorescence
A. Metallic form D. Yellow antimony
B. Hygroscopic property E. NOTA
B. Amorphous form E. Black antimony
C. Deliquescence
C. Crystalline form
187. This aluminum magnesium silicate, also known as
177. Salt of wormwood is Floridin, is a low plasticity clay-like material with high water
content. It finds its use in the decolorization of oils.
A. KHCO3 . 4 H2O D. K2HPO4
A. Kaolin D. Pumice
B. K2CO3 . ½ H2O E. NOTA
B. Bentonite E. NOTA
C. CH3COOK
C. Fuller’s Earth
178. In the compound sodium manganite, NaMnO3,
manganese exhibits a valence of
188. This compound is said to be the recommended A. Arsenic D. Aluminum
calcium salt as electrolyte replenisher because it provides
an optimum ratio of 1:1 calcium to phosphorus. B. Ammonia E. Mercury

A. Calcium lactate D. Tribasic calcium phosphate C. Zinc

B. Calcium carbonate E. NOTA 199. The only single acid to dissolve gold

C. Dibasic calcium phosphate A. Nitric acid D. A and B

189. Vleminckx’s solution, a mixture prepared by boiling B. Hydrochloric acid E. B and C


lime and sublime sulfur, is used as
C. Selenic acid
A. cathartic D. emetic
200. 750 mg of Kalium Durules contain an equivalent of
B. scabicide E. irritant ____ mEq of potassium chloride

C. antifungal A. 2.9 D. 9.8

190. Fowler’s solution B. 3.8 E. 12.2

A. Dilute sodium hypochlorite D. Bromine, C. 6.5


tenth-normal solution
201. This cation does not react with HCl but forms
B. Copper Acetoarsenate solution E. NOTA precipitates with H2S in dilute mineral acid medium.

C. Potassium arsenite solution A. Arsenic (III) D. Pb

191. Nordhausen acid also refers to B. Fe (II) E. Li

A. Diluted hypochloric acid D. Fuming sulfuric acid C. Ca

B. Phosphoric acid E. Muriatic acid 202. Which among these hydroxides are the most soluble?

C. Concentrated nitric acid A. Strontium chloride D. Magnesium hydroxide

192. Precipitation of copper salts can be prevented by B. Barium hydroxide E. NOTA


sequestering agents found in
C. Calcium hydroxide
A. Fehling’s reagent D. AOTA
203. The group reagent for Group I cation
B. Benedict’s reagent E. NOTA
A. Dilute HCl D. Ammonium
C. Haine’s reagent carbonate in ammonium chloride in neutral or slightly acidic
media
193. Reduced iron is an odorless, grayish black and very
fine powder, which should pass through sieve B. H2S in dilute mineral acid medium E. NOTA

A. No. 20 D. No. 80 C. Ammonium sulfide in neutral or Ammoniacal solution

B. No. 40 E. No. 100 204. A strong, caustic substance also known as burnt lime

C. No. 60 A. Calcium carbonate D. Calcium chloride

194. The least abundant of all inert gases B. Calcium hydroxide E. Calcium sulfite

A. Krypton D. Argon C. Calcium oxide

B. Xenon E. Neon 205. The compound commonly known as Plaster of Paris

C. Radon A. Magnesium sulfate heptahydrate D. Aluminum chloride

195. What is the difference between Iodine Tincture and B. Dried Calcium sulfate E. Chlorinated Lime
Iodine solution?
C. Sodium phosphate
A. the concentration of iodine present D. AOTA
206. Butter of Zinc
B. the comparative antiseptic efficiency E. NOTA
A. Zinc carbonate D. Zinc lactate
C. the solvent medium used
B. Zinc chloride E. NOTA
196. Acalka® is also
C. Zinc oxide
A. Sodium chloride D. Magnesium sulfate
207. Tromdorff’s starch is used for detecting
B. Calcium carbonate E. Zinc oxide
A. nitrites D. A and B
C. Potassium citrate
B. free chlorides E. B and C
197. The impurity, which is found more frequently in talc, is
C. iodides
A. Zinc oxide D. Magnesium oxide
208. What acid can be used to purify talc?
B. Calcium oxide E. Ferrous oxide
A. Hydrochloric acid D. AOTA
C. Silica
B. Sulfuric acid E. NOTA
198. Nessler’s reagent, an alkaline solution of Potassium
tetraiodomercurate (II), is used to detect C. Nitric acid
209. Philosopher’s wool is also
of the poison
A. Mercuric chloride D. Magnesium carbonate
B. Higher doses of activated charcoal are necessary
B. Lithium carbonate E. Sodium phosphate
if the patient ate before the poisoning occurred
C. Zinc oxide E. NOTA

210. Which among the halogen is the most polarizable? C. Charcoal tablets may substitute the powdered form

A. Iodine D. Fluorine as it is as effective

B. Bromine E. NOTA 219. An effective precipitant for both topical and gastric
exposure to phosphorus is
C. Chlorine
A. Cupric sulfate D. Calcium gluconate
211. Which reagent is more sensitive in the detection of
sodium ions? B. Sodium phosphate E. NOTA

A. Uranyl magnesium acetate solution D. Tartaric acid C. Magnesium sulfate

B. Uranyl zinc acetate solution E. NOTA 220. Dry ice is the frozen form of

C. Chloroplatinic acid A. Hydrogen D. Carbon dioxide

212. Which reagent can be used to precipitate potassium B. Oxygen E. NOTA


salt but not sodium?
C. Nitrogen
A. Sodium hexanitrocobaltate (III) D. AOTA
221. Preston’s salt is
B. Tartaric acid solution E. NOTA
A. Magnesium sulfate D. Cobaltous chloride
C. Chloroplatinic acid
B. Calcium chloride E. Calcium carbonate
213. Fenton’s test is a test for
C. Ammonium carbonate
A. chromates D. chlorides
222. This precipitation can hasten absorption in the
B. tartrates E. iodides stomach, increase acid gastric juice secretion and act as
carminative. It is prepared by charging carbon dioxide in
C. sulfates water at a pressure of 3-4 atmospheres.

214. The only silver halide, which shows appreciable A. Lime water D. Dilute hydrochloric acid
solubility in water
B. Soda water E. NOTA
A. Silver chloride D. Silver fluoride
C. Dakin’s solution
B. Silver bromide E. NOTA
223. Pale yellow precipitate obtained after the reaction with
C. Silver iodide silver nitrate solution

215. Helium is usually supplied in cylinders, which are A. Silver chloride D. Silver fluoride
colored ____
B. Silver iodide E. NOTA
A. green D. grey
C. Silver bromide
B.black E.blue
224. The only sodium halide, which has the least solubility
C. brown in water

216. Nitrous oxide is usually supplied in cylinders, which A. Silver chloride D. Silver fluoride
are colored ____
B. Silver bromide E. NOTA
A. green D. grey
C. Silver iodide
B.black E.blue
225. Howe’s solution is a solution of
C. brown
A. Sodium hypochlorite D. Ammonium chloride
217. This gas is lighter than air and causes the pitch of
sounds uttered by the vocal cords to be increased, B. Cupric sulfate E. NOTA
producing unintelligible speech with a “Donald Duck” sound
C. Ammoniacal silver nitrate
A. Oxygen D. Nitrogen
226. Silver chloride is insoluble in
B. Carbon dioxide E. Nitrous oxide
A. Dilute acids D. AOTA
C. Helium
B. Ammonium hydroxide E. NOTA
218. Which of the following statements is false regarding
activated charcoal? C. Sodium thiosulfate

A. Activated charcoal is administered in 227. This compound has been used in the treatment of
D. Repeated administration of activated charcoal Trichomonas vaginalis and Monilia albicans infections in
concentration from 1-2%
a charcoal to poison ratio of 5:1 to 10:1
after an adequate initial dose of the antidote A. Mild silver protein D. Colloidal silver iodide

appears to exert no additional inhibition of absorption B. Strong silver protein E. Silver picrate
C. Colloidal silver chloride B. Manganese E. Copper

228. Glauber’s salt C. Iron

A. Sodium hydroxide D. Sodium sulfate 238. Iron Dextran must be administered via this route only

B. Magnesium sulfate E. NOTA A. subcutaneous D. oral

C. Ammonium carbonate B. intravenous E. topical

229. Yellow precipitate is used C. intramuscular

A. Ophthalmic antiseptic D. Expectorant 239. Iron interferes with the absorption of tetracycline
through the mechanism of
B. Emetic E. NOTA
A. Oxidation D. Chelation
C. Scabicide
B. Reduction E. NOTA
230. White precipitate is used as
C. Neutralization
A. Local anti- infective D. AOTA
240. Parakeratosi is associated with a deficiency of
B. Dusting powder E. NOTA
A. Calcium D. Iodine
C. Topical anti-parasitic
B. Iron E. NOTA
231. Phosphorus allotrope occurring as a microcrystalline,
non-poisonous powder, which is insoluble in all solvents C. Zinc

A. White phosphorus D. Violet phosphorus 241. This trace element has been implicated in cellular
respiration and as an antioxidant in conjunction with Vitamin
B. Red phosphorus E. Black phosphorus E

C. Scarlet phosphorus A. Manganese D. Sulfur

232. Fine, yellow, crystalline form of sulfur with a faint odor B. Selenium E. Iron
and taste
C. Molybdenum
A. Amorphous sulfur D. Plastic sulfur
242. How many mEq /L of sodium do the human plasma
B. Precipitated sulfur E. NOTA contains?

C. Sublime sulfur A. 4 D. 154

233. Also known as Iac sulfur B. 5 E. 142

A. Amorphous sulfur D. Plastic sulfur C. 3

B. Precipitated sulfur E. NOTA 243. How many mEq /L of potassium do the human plasma
contains?
C. Sublime sulfur
A. 4 D. 154
234. Also known as Flowers of Sulfur
B. 5 E. 142
A. Amorphous sulfur D. Plastic sulfur
C. 3
B. Precipitated sulfur E. NOTA
244. The best food source of Copper
C. Sublime sulfur
A. meat D. AOTA
235. Solder is an alloy of
B. egg yolk E. NOTA
A. Antimony D. Copper
C. whole grains
B. Lead E. Zinc
245. This trace element best found in legumes and whole
C. Bismuth grains, competes with calcium for transport

236. Which of the following statements in Dalton’s Atomic A. Magnesium D. Zinc


Theory are valid in the light of researches that are more
recent in atomic structure? B. Iron E. Copper

A. All elements consist of minute discrete particles called C. Iodine


atom D. Atoms cannot be created nor destroyed
246. A deficiency of this trace element results to
B. Atoms of a given element are alike and have the same hypochromic anemia and excessive hepatic storage in
mass. E. NOTA Wilson’s disease

C. Atoms cannot be subdivided nor those of one element A. Magnesium D. Zinc


changed
B. Iron E. Copper
Into another
C. Iodine
237. An essential trace element which seemed to improve
or normalize impaired glucose tolerance of some diabetics, 247. This trace element is a constituent of Factor 3, acts
elderly and malnourished children. with Vitamin E to prevent liver necrosis and muscular
dystrophy in animals and inhibits lipid peroxidation
A. Zinc D. Chromium
A. Cobalt D. Selenium
B. Manganese E. Chromium B. Potassium bicarbonate E. NOTA

C. Molybdenum C. Sodium citrate

248. This trace element is a constituent of Vitamin B12 258. Salmiac refers to

A. Cobalt D. Selenium A. Sodium lactate D. Sodium acetate

B. Manganese E. Chromium B. Potassium citrate E. NOTA

C. Molybdenum C. Ammonium chloride

249. A deficiency of this inorganic ion results to cystinuria 259. The zone in the non-luminous Bunsen flame used for
and cysteine renal calculi testing volatile substances on whether they impact any
color to the flame
A. Cobalt D. Magnesium
A. upper reducing zone D. lower temperature zone
B. Sulfur E. Fluoride
B. upper oxidizing zone E. NOTA
C. Selenium
C. hottest portion of the flame
250. This trace element is poorly absorbed and needs to be
aided by Vitamin D 260. The fusion zone in the non-luminous Bunsen flame is
also the
A. Sodium D. Iron
A. upper reducing zone D. lower temperature zone
B. Potassium E. Magnesium
B. upper oxidizing zone E. NOTA
C. Calcium
C. hottest portion of the flame
251. Deficiency of this inorganic ion results to osteomalacia
and renal rickets 261. A large excess of oxygen is present in this zone of the
non-luminous Bunsen flame
A. Calcium D. Chloride
A. upper reducing zone D. lower temperature zone
B. Phosphorus E. NOTA
B. upper oxidizing zone E. NOTA
C. Sodium
C. hottest portion of the flame
252. This is added to whole blood to complex blood calcium
and prevent clot formation in a collected blood 262. Salts containing the cation calcium will form a
precipitate with
A. EDTA D. Warfarin
A. Dilute HCl D. Ammonium
B. Citrate E. NOTA carbonate in ammonium chloride in neutral or slightly acidic
media
C. Heparin
B. H2S in dilute mineral acid medium E. NOTA
253. Hypocalcemia can be caused by
C. Ammonium sulfide in neutral or Ammoniacal solution
A. hypoparathyroidism D. NOTA
263. This cation belong to the sub group IIA in the
B. Vitamin D deficiency E. AOTA classification of cations except

C. Steatorrhea A. Mercury (II) D. Copper

254. The fourth most abundant cation in the human body is B. Tin (II) E. Cadmium

A. Magnesium D. Manganese C .Bismuth

B. Iron E. Cobalt 264. Salts containing the cation chromium (III) will form a
precipitate with
C. Calcium
A. Dilute HCl D. Ammonium
255. This cation exerts a powerful general anesthetic action carbonate in ammonium chloride in neutral or slightly acidic
similar to that produced by chloroform when injected media
intramuscularly or intravenously
B. H2S in dilute mineral acid medium E. NOTA
A. Magnesium D. Manganese
C. Ammonium sulfide in neutral or Ammoniacal solution
B. Iron E. Cobalt
265. Which zone in the Bunsen flame should you heat the
C. Calcium thin platinum wire after cleaning it by dipping into
concentrated HCl?
256. How many mEq /L of chlorine do Ringer’s Injection
contains? A. upper reducing zone D. lower temperature zone
A. 147 D. 155.5 B. upper oxidizing zone E. NOTA
B. 4 E. NOTA C. hottest portion of the flame
C. 4.5 266. Which zone in the Bunsen flame should one introduce
the substance being investigated to observe the color that
257. This compound is used in the treatment of chronic imparts to the flame?
acidosis to restore bicarbonate reserve and also exerts a
diuretic effect A. upper reducing zone D. lower temperature zone
A. Sodium bicarbonate D. Sodium biphosphate B. upper oxidizing zone E. NOTA
C. hottest portion of the flame A. Potassium carbonate D. Potassium hydroxide

267. Group reagent of Group IV cations B. Potassium chlorate E. NOTA

A. Dilute HCl D. Ammonium C. Potassium chloride


carbonate in ammonium chloride in neutral or slightly acidic
media 277. If cuprous oxide is colored red, cupric oxide is colored

B. H2S in dilute mineral acid medium E. NOTA A. blue D. green

C. Ammonium sulfide in neutral or Ammoniacal solution B. colorless E. NOTA

268. Strontium imparts this color to the flame when viewed C. black
through cobalt glass
278. Which of the following elements occur highest in the
A. Crimson D. Light green electromotive series of metals?

B. Purple E. Nil A. Aluminum D. Bismuth

C. Yellowish green B. Calcium E. Hydrogen

269. Which of these subatomic particles have the smallest C. Iron


mass?
279. Which of the following elements occur lowest in the
A. electron D. AOTA electromotive series of metals?

B. proton E. NOTA A. Aluminum D. Bismuth

C. neutron B. Calcium E. Hydrogen

270. Chemical activity, in general, increase for the elements C. Iron


listed in the Periodic Table in descending order except for
the _______ elements 280. Which of the following metals will react with acids to
produce hydrogen?
A. Group IA D. Group IIB
A. Copper D. Tin
B. Group IB E. Noble gases
B. Strontium E. Lead
C. Group IIA
C. Iron
271. Borax (Na2B4O7 .10 H2O) is also known as
281. Potassium alum is an example of a
A. Sodium borate D. Sodium pyroborate
A. normal salt D. double salt
B. Sodium tetraborate E. AOTA
B. Hydrogen salt E. hydroxy salt
C. Sodium biborate
C. mixed salt
272. The following are bulk-increasing laxative except
282. KCaPO4 is an example of a
A. Castor oil D. Liquid petrolatum
A. normal salt D. double salt
B. Cellulose E. NOTA
B. Hydrogen salt E. hydroxy salt
C. Saline cathartics
C. mixed salt
273. The following are irritant laxative except
283. An acetate salt, which is only sparingly soluble in
A. sulfur D. vegetable acids water

B. Anthraquinones Cathartics E. NOTA A. Calcium acetate D. Sodium acetate

C. Mercurial purgatives B. Mercurous acetate E. Potassium acetate

274. Other names of Potassium carbonate are the following C. Lead acetate
except for one
284. White precipitate
A. potash D. Salt of Wormwood
A. ZnO D. HgNH2Cl
B. Pearl ash E. NOTA
B. HgCl2 E. NOTA
C. Cream of Tartar
C. ZnSO4
275. Caution is highly exercised in handling potassium
chlorate as great explosions may occur when it is triturated 285. Yellow mercuric oxide turns red in the presence of
with
A. air D. A and B
A. Tannic acid D. charcoal
B. heat E. B and C
B. Sulfides E. AOTA
C. light
C. Reduced iron
286. Corrosive sublimate
276. This toxic potassium salt, which is excreted slowly by
the kidney, may cause lysis of red blood cells, which in turn, A. 4 Bi (OH)2HNO2. BiO (OH) D. magnesium
irritates the kidney and produces a marked interstitial
nephritis. It can also cause some conversion of hemoglobin B. HgCl2 E. NOTA
to met hemoglobin
C. Zinc
287. Copper is associated to promote better assimilation of 297. Chile saltpeter is

A. Iron D. Magnesium A. KNO3 D. NaNO3

B. Calcium E. NOTA B. KNO2 E. NOTA

C. Zinc C. NaNO3

288. First prepared by Egyptians by subliming the ashes 298. Niter is


resulting from the slow burning of camel’s dung
A. KNO3 D. NaNO3
A. Ammonium hydroxide D. Ammonium bromide
B. KNO2 E. NOTA
B. Ammonium chloride E. NOTA
C. NaNO3
C. Ammonium carbonate
299.Which of the following cations is expected to react with
289. Argol is composed of hydrochloric acid?

A. Potassium bitartrate D. AOTA A.Magnesium D. Ammonium

B. Sodium E. NOTA
B. Calcium tartrate E. NOTA
C. Potassium
C. Cream of Tartar
300. The purest native form of uncombined carbon
290.Eau Forte
A. charcoal D. coal
A. water D. nitric acid
B. graphite E. NOTA
B. alcohol E. hydrochloric acid
C. diamond
C. sulfuric acid

291. The following acids have oxidizing properties except

A. Sulfuric acid D. AOTA

B. Phosphoric acid E. NOTA

C. Nitric acid

292. Which of the following anions will have a positive result


to Fenton’s test?

A. tartrates D. succinates

B. citrates E. AOTA

C. malates

293. The color of the precipitate produced when Barium


chloride solution reacts with solutions of chromates

A. white D. brownish red

B. black E. no precipitate

C.pale yellow

294. Borate salts may be derived from

A. H3BO3 D. AOTA

B. H2B4O7 E. NOTA

C. HBO2

295. The precipitate produced in the reaction of magnesium


salts with Sodium hydroxide will readily dissolve in

A. excess reagent D. ammonia

B. water E. NOTA

C. alcohol

296. Continuous washing is employed in the reaction


between Magnesium sulfate and Sodium hydroxide to
prepare Milk of Magnesia

A. dissolved the unreacted magnesium sulfate D.


AOTA

B. dissolve the unreacted sodium hydroxide


E.NOTA

C. removes the byproduct sodium sulfate

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