TERM 2 NUR 153 ANSWER KEY

MODULE 9
1. Which among the following is included in the Title Page? (select all that apply)
A. Name of the authors
B. Name of the adviser
C. Submission date
D. Page
Answer: A and C
Rationale: Option A and C are included in the title page. Option B, name of adviser is not included.
Option D, no pagination appears on the title page although it is considered as page i.

2. This page briefly explains what the paper is all about?

A. Acknowledgement
B. Introduction
C. Table of Contents
D. Title page
Answer: B
Rationale: Option B, Introduction talks about what is the paper all about. Option A, acknowledgement
contains brief statements about mentors or people who made contribution to the research study. Option
C, Table of Contents will guide the readers regarding the content and its corresponding page.

3. Briefly state names of mentors and other people with significant contribution to the research study:
A. Acknowledgement
B. Introduction
C. Table of Contents
D. Title page
Answer: A
Rationale: Option B, Introduction talks about what is the paper all about. Option C, Table of Contents will
guide the readers regarding the content and its corresponding page. Option D, pertains to the title of the
study

4. It contains pictures and documents that are related to the study:

A. Reference
B. Appendices
C. Community profile
D. Recommendations
Answer: B
Rationale: Option B, Appendices contain pictures, letters and other documents related to the study.
Option A, books and other related materials cited in the study will be documented in the reference. Option
C, community profile contains data about the community. Option D, recommendations are the proposal
plans to solve the problems and concerns of the community.
 
5. Geographic identifiers include: (select all that apply)
A. Historical background
B. Spot map
C. Vicinity map
D. Organizational chart
Answer: A, B. C and D
Rationale: All options will help in determining the geographical identity of the community.

6. Who are included in determining the literacy rate of a community:

A. 8 years old and above
B. 8 years old and below
C. 14 years old and below
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Rationale: Only 8 years old and above are included in determining the literacy rate. It is being considered
that 8 years old can read and write. The literacy rate is computed by dividing the total number of 8 years
old and above who can read and write over total number of population of 8 years old and above.

7. It is a record of names of authors cited in the study

A. Reference
B. Appendices
C. Community profile
D. Recommendations
Answer: A
Rationale: Option A, books and other related materials cited in the study will be documented in the
reference. Option B, Appendices contain pictures, letters and other documents related to the study.
Option C, community profile contains data about the community. Option D, recommendations are the
proposal plans to solve the problems and concerns of the community.

8. The health profile of the community is reflected by: (select all that apply)
A. Excreta Disposal
B. Food storage
C. Infant feeding practices
D. Community Facilities and Resources
Answer: B, C and D
Rationale: Option A, excreta disposal reflects the environmental profile of the community. Options B, C
and D depict the community’s health profile.

9. Who are not included in computing the dependency rate of the community?
A. 60 years old and above
B. 18 years old and below
C. 14 years old and below
D. None of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: In computing the dependency rate, the population of 0-14 years old and 65 years old above is
divided to the total population of 15-64 years old.

10. Population density is computed by dividing the total population to the:

A. Total lot area in cubic meter
B. Total lot area in square meter
C. Total community area in meters
D. Total number of houses
Answer: B
Rationale: The formula in computing PD is equals to total number of population divided by total area in
square meters multiply to 1000.

MODULE 10
1. What is the figure all about?
A. Elderly and their usage of health resources
B. Elderly with their health problems
C. Elderly without sickness
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Rationale: The figure does not represent any sickness or health problems but rather facilities which are
being used for health needs.
 
2. Which among the health resources is least visited?
A. Health center
B. Private medical clinic
C. Private hospital
D. Public hospital
Answer: A
Rationale: The percentage of using the health center is 5% which is the lowest among the four health
facilities.

3. Which among the health resources is most visited?

A. Health center
B. Private medical clinic
C. Private hospital
D. Public hospital
Answer: D
Rationale: The percentage of using the public hospital is 60% which is the highest among the four health
facilities.

4. Which statement is true in relation to the Figure?

A. Elderly visits more the public hospital for health resources than health center, private clinic and private
hospital combined.
B. Elderly visits less the public hospital for health resources than health center, private clinic and private
hospital combined.
C. Elderly visits as much the public hospital for health resources as health center, private clinic and
private hospital combined.
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Rationale: The figure shows that combining the percentage of the health center, private clinic and private
hospital, the percentage is 40% comparing to the 60% usage of hospital.

5. What does the figure may imply?

A. Health problems felt by the elderly
B. Socio-economic status of the elderly
C. Confidence to the health facility
D. All of these
Answer: D
Rationale: The health concerns of any individual will affect his/her choice of health facility. Furthermore,
the ability to pay such services will also be a deciding factor. This is reflected by the elderly’s socio-
economic status. Furthermore, the trust and confidence to the health facility will also affect choices and
decisions.

6. Which of the following question coming from the interviewer is correct?

A. What is the nature of your work?
B. Do you use contraceptives?
C. Are the healthcare workers and services effective?
D. Do you eat balanced diet?
Answer: B
Rationale: Option B, is direct and closed ended question. Option A, the question is vague. Instead, ask
the person what his work is. Option C, it is a double-barreled question. Option D, it is a leading question.

7. Who is the best resource person when the caregiver of the family is not around?
A. Grandmother who knows the family.
B. A neighbor who is a friend of the family.
C. A sane adult living with the family.
D. Anyone who is present.
Answer: C
Rationale: A sane adult who lives with the family will know better than a grandmother/friend who is not
living with the family. Option D, any adult who is present not anyone.

8. An example of correct use of speech and volume:

A. Giving the right information, speaking at the right volume and articulating your words properly.
B. Keep eye contact, speaking loudly and using the right language
C. Speaking softly, use long pauses and positive facial expressions
D. Hold your head high, yet all your words and keep your eyes closed
Answer: A
Rationale: Speech and volume pertains to right information and speaking in a right volume. Option B,
speaking loudly may convey that he/she is angry. Option C, use of long pauses may bore the listener.
Option D, keeping eyes closed during conversation is disrespectful; eye contact conveys enthusiasm and
sincerity.

9. One of the best way to show that you are listening is:
A. Talking to the person next to you
B. Appropriate amount of eye contact
C. Frowning at the person
D. Asking to repeat what they said
Answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining eye contact denotes that you are listening to the person you are conversing.
Option A, simply denotes that you are interested to listen to others. Option C, frowning means that you do
not like what was said and may mean that you are not paying attention to what was said. Option D, it
means you are listening that is why you are asking to repeat again what was said.

10. When you speak, your listener gets messages from: (select all that apply)
A. What you say
B. Your accent
C. How you look
D. How you act
Answer: A, C and D
Rationale: Messages will come from the words (verbal communication) and how you look and act (non-
verbal communication). Accent may affect how thy will understand the messages, although accent will not
affect the message.

MODULE 11
1. Which among the following defines planning appropriately?
A. Planning is a systematic process that provides structured actions to address concerns of the
community.
B. Planning is a continuous and change-oriented which desire to improve the future state of the
community.
C. Planning is a formulation of steps to be undertaken in the future in order to achieve a desired end.
D. All of the above
Answer: C
Rationale: Planning is a systematic process that provides structured but flexible actions to address
concerns of the community, not just structured actions. Planning is continuous and change-oriented which
desire to improve the present state of the community not future. Although it is futuristic, the steps are
futuristic, but it desires to improve current state.
2. Plans for priority goals depends on the availability of the resources:
A. True, constraints and limitations are considered
B. False, the nurse pursues the objective based on wellness
Answer: A
Rationale: Prioritization is highly affected by the availability of resources. Absence of resources makes it
impossible to solve problems. Although the nurse pursues objectives/goals based on wellness, availability
or resources is always considered.

3. To answer the question,” Where are we now? “, the nurse should:

A. Define the program goals
B. Design CHN programs
C. Gather health data
D. Specify criteria and standards
Answer: C
Rationale: Define program goals – Goal and objective setting; Design CHN programs – Strategy/activity
setting; specify standards and criteria – Evaluation

4. To analyze the situation, the following actions must be performed:

A. Set priority
B. Assign priority
C. Ascertain resources
D. Determine outcomes
Answer: A
Rationale: Answering the question where we are now (situational analysis) involves the process of
collecting, synthesizing, analyzing and interpreting information in manner that will provide a clear picture
of the health status of the community. Assign priority is part of the Goal and Objective setting. Ascertain
resources are part of the Strategy/activity setting. Determine outcomes is part of the Evaluation

5. Identifying the problem of the community involves:

A. Situational analysis
B. Nurse identifies and explains the problem
C. Nurse projects what situation needs to be changed developed or maintained.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: In order to determine the problem of the community, the current situation must be analyzed.
Situational analysis involves the process of collecting, synthesizing, analyzing and interpreting information
in manner that will provide a clear picture of the health status of the community.

MODULE 12
1. The PHN wants to determine the appropriateness and adequacy of the Infection Training Module. The
PHN evaluates the:
A. Manpower
B. Resources
C. Process
D. Outcome
Answer: C
Rationale: Option C, Process, evaluates specifically on how the training program was conducted, i.e. the
appropriateness and adequacy of the training process. Option A and B, inputs and resources, evaluates
the adequacy of manpower resources. Option D, Option D, Outcome, evaluates the immediate and
intermediate effects/results of the hilot training program.

2. Which among the following is NOT a criterion in evaluation an outcome of deworming program?
A. Training methods used were varied and appropriate to the participants’ level of comprehension.
B. Reports of parasitic infection are accurate
C. Incidence of ascariasis infection
D. Incidence of anemia related to hookworm infection
Answer: A
Rationale: B, C and D are all criteria to evaluate the outcome of the deworming program.

3. Which among the following is true to Evaluation? (select all that apply)
A. It is assumed that the more resources used in a program; it means good health care.
B. Unqualified service people doing an evaluation may result to an insufficient evaluation.
C. Evaluation is a plant that entails determining the specific input, process and output/outcome indicators
of the program stating the criteria and standards of each.
D. Record keeping is a part of the evaluation.
Answer: B, C and D
Rationale: Options B, C and D are true to evaluation. Option A, it is not always true that if plenty of
resources used, it means good health care, it reported that there is often plenty of waste of resources.

4. Program evaluation includes the following steps:

A. Deciding on what to evaluate in terms of relevance, progress, effectivity, impact and efficiency
B. Specifying the evaluation indicators
C. Collection of method
D. Making decisions
Answer: A, B and D
Rationale: All options except C, collection of data not methods.

5. The primary purpose of program evaluation is:

A. To determine its effectiveness
B. To assess its outcome
C. To improve future program
D. To distribute report to the relevant groups
Answer: C
Rationale: Option C is the primary purpose of program evaluation. The findings of the evaluation can be
used to modify activities of future program.

MODULE 13
1. Which among the following best describe Environmental Health (EH)? (select all that apply)
A. EH refers to the characteristics of environmental conditions that affect the man’s well-being.
B. EH is the aspect of private health that is concerned with those forms of life, substances, forces, and
conditions in the surroundings or person that may exert an influence on human health and well-being.
C. EH comprises of those aspects of human health, including quality of life, that are determined by
physical, chemical, biological, social and psychosocial factors in the environment that can potentially
affect adversely the health of past generations.
D. EH is the component of the man’s well-being that is determined by interactions with the physical,
chemical, biological, social, and psychosocial factors external to him.
Answer: A and D
Rationale: A and D define EH. Option B, EH is the aspect of public health not private. Option C, …that
can potentially affect adversely the health present and current generations, not past generation.

2. Nurse Brent is to dispose used intravenous lines; he will place this in a:

A. Black bin
B. Green bin
C. Yellow with biohazard symbol bin
D. Yellow with black band symbol bin
E. Orange bin
Answer: C
Rationale: Used IV line is a pathological waste and in should be in yellow with biohazard symbol bin.
Black or colourless: non-hazardous and nonbiodegradable wastes; Green: non-hazardous biodegradable
wastes; Yellow with black band: pharmaceutical, cytotoxic or chemical wastes (labelled separately);
Orange with radioactive symbol: radioactive wastes

3. On the other hand, needleless syringes used with cytotoxic drugs, must be placed in a:
A. Black bin
B. Green bin
C. Yellow with biohazard symbol bin
D. Yellow with black band symbol bin
E. Orange bin
Answer: D
Rationale: Cytotoxic waste must be placed in a yellow with black band symbol bin. Black or colorless:
non- hazardous and nonbiodegradable wastes; Green: non-hazardous biodegradable wastes; Yellow with
biohazard symbol: pathological/anatomical wastes; Yellow with black band: pharmaceutical, cytotoxic or
chemical wastes (labelled separately); Orange with radioactive symbol: radioactive wastes

4. Which among the following is strictly prohibited in solid waste management? (select all that apply)
A. Garbage composting
B. Squatting in landfills
C. Dumping garbage anywhere
D. Re-use materials as long as possible
Answer: B and C
Rationale: Squatting in landfills is strictly prohibited. Families who live within the landfills will suffer of
health problems. Dumping anywhere is similarly to open dumping and this is prohibited practice. Garbage
composting is encouraged. The end output serves as fertilizer. “Re-use” is also a practice encourage in
managing solid waste. This practice lessens waste present in the environment.

5. This level of water system is common to remote areas. It can be shallow or deep but without
distribution system:
A. Point system
B. Standpost
C. Water works system
D. Communal faucet
Answer: A
Rationale: Points system is Level I which either shallow or deep and without distribution systems. Option
B, standpost and Option D, communal faucet are Level II, this level refers to a system composed of a
source, reservoir, a piped distribution network, and a communal faucet located not more than 25 meters
from the farthest house. Level III (Waterworks System) refers to a system with a source transmission
pipes, a reservoir, and a piped distribution network for household taps.

6. A PHN came to visit a remote area. The water being used for drinking came from the mountains. It is
best to advise the people to let the water boil for about:
A. 30 seconds
B. 1 minute
C. 2 minutes
D. 3 minutes
Answer: D
Rationale: Mountains are high in altitude and water from there should be boiled for 3 minutes. Option A
and C is not enough to disinfect the water. Option B is for water at sea level.

7. A good air quality index is:

A. 60 μg/m3
B. 90 μg/m3
C. 190 μg/m3
D. 290 μg/m3
Answer: A
Rationale: 60 μg/m3 is within 0-80 μg/m3 good air quality index. Option B, 90 μg/m3 and Option C, 190
μg/m3 is within 81-230 fair air quality index. Option D, 290 μg/m3 is considred unhealthy for sensitive
people.

8. Which among the following indicates an acutely unhealthy air index?

A. 231-349 μg/m3
B. 350-599 μg/m3
C. 600-899 μg/m3
D. 900 and above
Answer: C
Rationale: Option A, 231-349 μg/m3 – unhealthy for sensitive groups; Option B, 350-599 μg/m3 – very
unhealthy; Option D, 900 and above – emergency

9. People with heart or respiratory disease, such as asthma, should stay indoors and rest as much as
possible if the air index starts with:
A. 231 μg/m3
B. 350 μg/m3
C. 600 μg/m3
D. 900 μg/m3
Answer: A
Rationale: Option A, indicates that the air is unhealthy and once it starts with 231 and above, all people
with respiratory and heart problems must remain indoor.

10. When the air index reaches 900 μg/m3, the following will be advised: (select all that apply)
A. People should limit outdoor exertion.
B. Keeping windows and doors closed unless heat stress is possible.
C. Everyone should remain indoors.
D. Motor vehicle use should be prohibited except for emergency situations.
Answer: B, C and D
Rationale: An air index of 900 μg/m3 is an emergency situation. All must remain indoors, keep windows
and doors closed and motor vehicles are prohibited except for emergency situations. People are
prohibited out from their homes.

MODULE 14
1. Upon interview, Aling Neneth mentioned that their toilet is known as Antipolo toilet. Antipolo toilet is
best describe as:
A. fecal matter is collected in a can or bucket, which is periodically removed for emptying and cleaning
B. fecal matter is eliminated into a hole in the ground that leads to a dug pit
C. As made up of an elevated pit privy that has a covered latrine.
D. Fecal matter is collected into a built septic tank that is not connected to a sewerage system.
Answer: C
Rationale: Antipolo toilet is made up of an elevated pit privy that has a covered latrine. Option A,
describes Box-and-can privy; Option B describes pit-latrine and Option D describes septic privy

2. On the other hand, Cora described their toilet as pit latrine with a screened air vent installed directly
over the pit. This is a:
A. Aqua privy
B. Overhung latrine
C. VIP latrine
D. Chemical privy
Answer: C
Rationale: A ventilated-improved pit is with screened air vent installed directly over the pit. Option A aqua
privy is a toilet in which fecal matter is eliminated into a water-sealed drop pipe that leads to a small
water- filled septic tank located directly below the squatting plate. Option B overhung latrine is a when
fecal matter is directly eliminated into a body of water such as flowing river that is underneath the facility.
Option D chemical privy is when the fecal matter is collected into a tank that contains a caustic chemical
solution, which in turn controls and facilitates waste decomposition.

3. The following are rules of food safety:(select all that apply)

A. A food establishment must have a sanitary permit
B. Person employed in any food establishment must have a health certificate from health officer
C. Must have no history of diarrhea
D. Person employed in a food establishment shall not be allowed to handle food when suffering of
gastrointestinal upset.
Answer: A, B and D
Rationale: Option A, B and D are rules in food safety. Option C, if the person is afflicted of diarrhea,
he/she will not be allowed but if he is recovered, he/she will be allowed to handle food.

4. After proper washing, the utensils must be subjected to bactericidal treatments such as: (select all that
apply)
A. Immersion for a least a minute in lukewarm water containing 55-100 ppm of chlorine solution
B. Exposure to steam at least half a minute to a 200 °C
C. Exposure to steam for at least 5 minutes to 77 °C
D. Immersion for a least half a minute in clean hot water (77°C)
Answer: A and D
Rationale: Options A and D are correct. Option B, exposure to steam of 200°C must be 5 minutes not
half a minute. Option C, exposure to steam with 77 °C must be 15 minutes, not 5 minutes.

5. It is a law that requires all motor vehicles to pass the smoke emission standards:
A. RA 6969
B. PD 856
C. RA 8749
D. RA 9275
Answer: C
Rationale: Option C (RA 8749) is known as Clean Air Act of 1999. Option A (RA 6969) is known as Toxic
Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Control Act of 1990. Option B (PD 856) is the Sanitation
Code of the Philippines. Option D (RA 9275) is otherwise known as the Clean Water Act of 2004.

6. This law declares the adoption of a systematic, comprehensive, and ecological solid waste
management programs as a policy state of the State. Adopts a community-based approach. Mandates
waste diversion through composting and recycling:
A. RA 6969
B. RA 9003
C. RA 8749
D. RA 9275
Answer: B
Rationale: Option B (RA 9003) is the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000. Option A (RA
6969) is known as Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Control Act of 1990. Option C
(RA 8749) is known as Clean Air Act of 1999. Option D (RA 9275) is otherwise known as the Clean Water
Act of 2004.

7. This law allows traditional small-scale burning but prohibits incineration of biomedical waste and
hazardous waste.
A. RA 6969
B. RA 9003
C. RA 8749
D. RA 9275
Answer: C
Rationale: Option C (RA 9003) is the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000. Option A (RA
6969) is known as Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Control Act of 1990. Option C
(RA 8749) is known as Clean Air Act of 1999. Option D (RA 9275) is otherwise known as the Clean Water
Act of 2004.

8. This law regulates the importation, use, movement, treatment and disposal of toxic chemicals and
hazardous and nuclear wastes in the Philippines:
A. RA 6969
B. RA 9003
C. RA 8749
D. RA 9275
Answer: A
Rationale: Option A (RA 6969) is known as Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Waste
Control Act of 1990. Option B (RA 8749) is the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000. Option
C (RA 8749) is known as Clean Air Act of 1999. Option D (RA 9275) is otherwise known as the Clean
Water Act of 2004.

9. Which among the following method is friendly to nature in controlling vermin: (select all that apply)
A. Chemical control
B. Integrated control
C. Naturalistic control
D. Biological and genetic control
Answer: C and D
Rationale: Options C and D, are natural methods of controlling vermin without disturbing nature. Option A
(Chemical control) uses chemical agents that will kill vermin but it may affect nature. Option B (integrated
control) is a combination of different methods which may either use chemical or natural measures.

10. The minimum air space that shall be provided for school rooms must be:
A. School Rooms - 3.00 cu. meters with 1.00 sq. meter of floor area per person
B. Workshop, Factories, and Offices - 12.00 cu. meters of air space per person
C. Habitable Rooms - 14.00 cu. meters of air space per person
D. 12.00 sq. meters of floor area per person
Answer: A
Rationale: Option A describes the air space for school rooms. Option B describes the air space for
workshop, factories and offices. Option C for habitable rooms. Option D’s unit is incorrect for workshop,
factories and offices, it should be in cu. meters not sq. meters

MODULE 15
1. Which among the following statement is true to communicable disease? (select all that apply)
A. An infectious disease can be contagious because the latter can be transmitted indirectly.
B. Communicable diseases could either be contagious or infectious.
C. An infectious disease is transmitted through indirect physical contact.
D. Contagious diseases are sometimes called as infectious diseases.
Answer: B and C
Rationale: Only Option B and C statements are correct. Option A, Infectious diseases can be contagious
if it is Option D, infectious diseases are usually not regarded as contagious.

2. For an agent to cause infection, it must be: (select all that apply)
A. present all that time
B. capable of infecting the host
C. a virus
D. a bacterium
Answer: A and B
Rationale: Options A and B are correct. Option C and D are incorrect, there are other forms of agent that
can cause infection not only virus.

3. Which among the following is NOT true to the epidemiologic triangle model?
A. If the balance is maintained or is tilted in favor of the host, disease does not occur.
B. Environmental elements can tilt the balance in favor of the agent.
C. The model suggests that the agent and the susceptible host interact freely in a common environment.
D. If the balance is tilted in favor of the agent, disease does not occur.
Answer: D
Rationale: Options A, B and C are correct, while Option D is not. Disease occurs when balance is tilted in
favor of the agent.

4. This refers to any organism capable of causing disease:

A. Causative agent
B. Reservoir
C. Portal of exit
D. Susceptible Host
Answer: A
Rationale: Option A, causative agent is any organism that is capable of causing disease. Option B,
reservoir is the habitat of organisms in which they survive and multiply. Option C, Portal of exit is the path
by which an agent leaves its reservoir. Option D, Susceptible host is the individual who may be vulnerable
of the invasion and multiplication of agents.

5. This refers to the way a pathogen enters a susceptible host:

A. Causative agent
B. Reservoir
C. Portal of exit
D. Portal of entry
Answer: D
Rationale: Option D, portal of entry refers to the manner in which a pathogen enters a susceptible host.
Option A causative agent is any organism that is capable of causing disease. Option B, reservoir is the
habitat of organisms in which they survive and multiply. Option C, Portal of exit is the path by which an
agent leaves its reservoir.
 
6. This is the habitat of causative agents:
A. Reservoir
B. Portal of exit
C. Portal of entry
D. Susceptible Host
Answer: A
Rationale: Option A, reservoir is the habitat of organisms in which they survive and multiply. Option B,
portal of exit is the path by which an agent leaves its reservoir. Option C, portal of entry is the path by
which an agent enters to its host. Option D, susceptible host is an individual that cannot resist that
pathogenicity of the agent.

7. Which among the following is a direct transmission of agents?

A. Droplet spread
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle borne transmission
D. Vector borne
Answer: A
Rationale: Options B. C and D are all example of indirect transmission

8. Which among the following statements made by the student denotes understood the concept of indirect
transmission?
A. “I will not eat street foods.”
B. “I should be wearing gloves when taking care of a patient with gonorrhea.”
C. “Unprotected sexual intercourse may result to sexual transmitted disease.”
D. “I will advise mothers not to let their children walk barefooted. “
Answer: A
Rationale: Option A, prevents the possibility of having disease though foodborne vehicle, which is an
indirect disease transmission. Options B, C and D are examples of preventing transmission of diseases
via direct contact like skin to skin and sexual activity. Option D is an instruction to prevent hookworm
infection. Hookworm penetrates directly through foot that is not protected. This is an example of direct
transmission

9. To prevent transmission of diseases, the best way is to:

A. Remove any elements to prevent the onset of a communicable disease
B. Enhance the immune system of the susceptible host
C. Immunize all people
D. Eradicate the causative agent
Answer: A
Rationale: Option A, removing any element of the chain of infection stops communicable disease spread.
Option B, enhancing immune system is not enough to prevent the transmission of disease. Option C,
immunizing all people is not a guarantee that they will not have a disease. Furthermore, vaccines for all
diseases are not yet developed.
Option D, causative agent eradication is impossible at present. Moreover, an eradication of
microorganisms may lead to birth of other agents.

10. The student nurse knows that a host is susceptible to diseases because of: (select all that apply)
A. Malnutrition
B. Old age
C. Not alcoholic
D. Present existing disease (co-morbidity)
Answer: A, B and D
Rationale: Options A, B and D lessens the immune status of a host making him/her more susceptible to
disease. Option C, not alcoholic does not place an individual at risk of a disease. Alcoholism per se
makes one prone to disease.

MODULE 16
1. The incubation period of leprosy is:
A. 4-6 weeks
B. 5 months to 5 years
C. 7 – 30 days
D. 14-84 days
Answer: B
Rationale: Option A, incubation period of TB. Option C, incubation period of malaria. Option D, incubation
period of Schistosomiasis.

2. The causative agent of leprosy is:

A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Mycobacterium tubercle
C. Mycobacterium
D. All of these
Answer: A
Rationale: The causative agent of leprosy is Mycobactrium leprae that belongs to the family of
Mycobacteria and related to the causative agent of Tuberculosis.

3. Select all early signs of leprosy:

A. Reddish or white change in skin color
B. Gynecomastia
C. Loss of sweating
D. Madarosis
Answer: A and C
Rationale: Option B and D are late signs of leprosy.
Early signs include reddish or white change in skin color, loss of sensation on the skin lesion,
decrease/loss of sweating and hair growth over the lesion, thickened and or painful nerves, Muscle
weakness, pain or redness of the eye, nasal obstruction/bleeding, ulcers that do not heal

4. The specific vector of malaria:

A. Female anopheles mosquito
B. Oncomelania quadrasi
C. Aedes aegypti
D. Plasmodium falciparum
Answer: A
Rationale: Option B is the vector if Schistosomiasis. Option C is the vector of dengue. Option D is the
agent causing malaria.

5. Which among is the triad signs of malaria:

A. Chills, fever and cough
B. Profuse sweating, fever and abdominal pain
C. Fever, chills and profuse sweating
D. Fever, rash and abdominal pain
Answer: C
Rationale: Option C is the triad signs of malaria. Although there is rash and abdominal pain, these signs
and symptoms are less likely.

6. This oral malarial treatment is given to resistant case of P. falciparum:

A. Sulfadoxine 50 mg
B. Primaquine
C. Chloroquine phosphate 250mg
D. Quinine hydrochloride 300mg/mL, 2 mL
Answer: A
Rationale: Option B, Primaquine For relapse P. vivax and P. ovale . Option C, chloroquine phosphate
250mg is given to all species except P. malariae Option D, is a parenteral medication for malaria.

7. The best way to control Schistosomiasis is:

A. Protect self from insect bites.
B. Do not swim in rivers and other bodies of water.
C. Do not walk barefooted.
D. Snails must be killed.
Answer: D
Rationale: Option A, the vector of Schistosomiasis is not an insect. Option B, swimming in rivers and
other bodies of water will prevent the possibility of ingesting the schistosoma. However, it is not the way
to control Schistosomiasis. Option C, walking barefooted is advised to prevent hookworm infection.

8. Which among the following can be a host of Mycobacterium?

A. Humans
B. Dogs
C. Cattles
D. Monkeys
Answer: A and C
Rationale: Mycobacterium canettii and tubercle are found in humans. While Mycobacterium bovis is in
cattles. Option B, dogs and monkeys are not reported as hosts of Mycoacterium.

9. A patient is receiving a treatment of Intensive – HRZE (2 months) Maintenance – HR (4 months). This

patient can be: (Select all that apply)
A. Relapse
B. Return after default (RAD)
C. New Smear (-) PTB with extensive lesions
D. Extrapulmonary PTB
Answer: C and D
Rationale: Option A and B, are category 2 and it requires longer treatment. Option C and D are under
Category 1 and will receive a treatment of Intensive – HRZE (2 months) Maintenance – HR (4 months).

10. This act mandates that communicable diseases must be reported:

A. RA 3573
B. RA 4073
C. RA 1136
D. RA 9173
Answer: A
Rationale: Option B, RA 4073 is an Act Liberalizing the Treatment of Leprosy. Option C, RA 1136, is the
TB Law of 1954. Option D, RA 9173 is the Philippine Nursing Act.