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IIT/NEET – ACADEMY
JUNIOR NEET WEEKEND TEST
Date : 23-01-2022 (NEET MODEL)) Time : 3hrs
Std : XI – NEET Max. Marks :720
720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the
answer sheet.
Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry , Botany
& Zoology). Each part contains 45 questions.
Part – A (Physics) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT
CORRECT.
Part – B (Chemistry) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT
Part – C (Botany&Zoology
Botany&Zoology) : Contains 90 Questions. Each question has
four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT
Marking
king Scheme : For each question in every part you will be awarded
4 Marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct and zero
mark if no bubbles are darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect
answer.
SUBJECT SYLLABUS PAPER SETTER
T-1:
1: CIRCULAR MOTION ( HORIZONTAL AND VERTICAL)
Mr. Venkatesh
PHYSICS T-2:
2: TORQUE, ANGULAR MOMENTUM AND ROTATIONAL Mr.VGR
DYNAMICS
T-1:
1: 18TH GROUP COMPLETE + GENERAL CHARACTERS OF 15TH
Mr.U.Srinivas
CHEMISTRY GROUP ELEMENTS.
Mr.P.S.RAO
T-2:
2: STEREOISOMERISM (COMPLETE)
TRANSPORT IN PLANTS UPTO OSMOSIS AND MEIOSIS
BOTANY Mr Ramana
(CUMULATIVE)

NEURAL CONTROL UP TO HUMAN EYE + CUMULATIVE HUMAN

ZOOLOGY Mr Venkat
PHYSIOLOGY ( LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT)

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
PHYSICS
1. The angular speed of a flywheel making 120 rev min-1 is
1) 2 rad s 1 2) 4 2 rad s 1 3)  rad s 1 4) 4 rad s 1
2. If the mass of earth and radius suddenly become 2 times and 1/4th of the present
value, the length of the day becomes
1) 24h 2) 6h 3) 3/2h 4) 3h
3. The ratio of angular speeds of minute hand and hour hand of a watch is
1)1 : 12 2) 6 : 1 3) 12 : 1 4) 1 : 6
4. A child is standing with folded hands at the centre of a platform rotating about its
central axis. The K.E. of the system is K. The child now stretches his arms so that
the M.I of the system doubles. The K.E of the system now is
1) 2K 2) K/2 3) 4K 4) K/4
5. The wheel of a toy car rotates about a fixed axis. It slows down from 400 rps to
200 rps in 2 s. Then, its angular regardation ( in rad s-2 ) is ( rps = revolutions per
second)
1) 200  2) 100  3) 400  4) None of these
6. Two wheels of M.I. 3kg m2 and 5kg m2 are rotating at the rate of 600 rpm and 800
rpm respectivley in the same direction. If the two are coupled so as to rotate with
the same axis of rotation, the resultant speed of rotation will be (in rpm)
1) 725 2) 850 3) 420 4) 630
7. The motor of an engine is rotating about its axis with an angular velocity of 100 rev
min-1. It comes to rest in 15 s after being switched off, assuming constant angular
deceleration. What is the number of revolutions made by it before coming to rest?
1) 12.5 2) 40 3) 32.6 4) 15.6
8. A mass is whirled in a circular path with an angular momentum L. If the length of
string and angular velocity, both are doubled, the new angular momentum is
1) L 2) 4L 3) 8L 4) 16L
9. A body is moving in a circular path with acceleration a. If its speed gets doubled,
find the ratio of centripetal acceleration after and before the speed is changed.
1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 2 3) 2 : 1 4) 4 : 1
10. The diameter of a rotating fly wheel is R. Its coefficient of linear expansion is  . If
the temperature is increased by T , the percentage change in its rotational KE
would be
T 2T
1) . T.100 2) 2. T.  100 3)  100 4)  100
2 5
11. A particle is moving on a circular path of 10 m radius. At any instant of time, its
speed is 5 ms-1 and the speed is increasing at a rate of 2 ms-2 . At this instant, the
magnitude of the net acceleration will be
1) 3.2 ms-2 2) 2 ms-2 3) 2.5 ms-2 4) 4.3 ms-2

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
12. A uniform circular disc of radius 50cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is
perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque
which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0rads-2. Its net acceleration in
ms-2 at the end of 2.0s is approximately.
1) 7.0 2) 6.0 3) 3.0 4) 8.0
13. The distance of a particle moving on a circle of radius 12 m measured from a fixed
point on the circle is given by s = 2t3 ( in metre). The ratio of its tangential to
centripetal acceleration at t =2s is
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 2 : 1 4) 3 : 1
14. The handle of a door is at a distance 40cm from axis of rotation. If a force 5N is
applied on the handle in a direction 300 with plane of door, then the torque is
1) 0.8Nm 2) 1Nm 3) 1.6Nm 4) 2Nm
15. A particle of mas 2 kg is moving along a circular path of radius 1 m. If its angular
speed is 2 rad s-1, the centripetal force on it is
1) 4 N 2) 8 N 3) 44N 4) 82 N
16. A constant torque of 1000Nm turns a wheel of M.I 200kg m2 about an axis through
centre. The angular velocity after 3s is
1) 15 rad s-1 2) 22 rad s-1 3) 28 rad s-1 4) 60 rad s-1
17. Two particles of equal masses are revolving in circular paths of radii r1 and r2
respectively with the same speed. The ratio of their centripetal forces is
2 2
r r2 r  r 
1) 2 2) 3)  1  4)  2 
r1 r1  r2   r1 
18. A shaft rotating at 3000 rpm is transmitting a power of 3.14 KW. The magnitude of
the driving torque is
1) 6Nm 2) 10Nm 3) 15Nm 4) 22Nm
19. A stone of mass 16 kg is attached to a string 144 m long and is whirled in a
horizontal circle on a smooth surface. The maximum tension in the string that it
can withstand is 16N. The maximum velocity of revolution that can be given to the
stone without breaking it, will be
1) 20 ms-1 2) 16 ms-1 3) 14 ms-1 4) 12 ms-1
20. A thin uniform rod of length l and mass m is swinging freely about a horizontal
axis passing through its end. Its maximum angular speed is  . Its centre of mass
rises to a maximum height of
1 l 1 l 2 2 1 l 2 2 1 l 2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 g 2 g 6 g 3 g
21. If mass, speed and radius of the circle, of a particle moving uniformly in a circular
path are all increased by50%, the necessary centripetal force required to maintain
the body moving in the circular path will have to be increased by
1) 225% 2) 125% 3) 150% 4) 100%

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-20222022
22. If the velocity of a rotating body of mass 50kg is given by V  3i  4 j  5k and radius

vector r  2i  3 j  4k , then its angular momentum is

1) 50i  50 j  50k 2) 50i  100 j  50k 3) 50i  50 j  100k 4) 50i  100 j  50k
23. A motor cyclist moving with a velocity of 72 km h-1 on a flat road takes a turn on
the road at a point, where the radius of curvature of the road is 20m. The
acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms-2. In order to avoid skidding, he must not bend
with respect to the vertical plane by the angle greater than
1)   tan 1  6  2)   tan 1  2  3)   tan 1  25.92  4)   tan 1  4 

24. Two rigid bodies have same angular momentum about their axes of symmetry. If
same torque is applied about their axes, the ratio of times after which they will be
stopped is
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 2 : 1 4) 2 : 3
25. Keeping the angle of banking unchanged, if the radius of curvature is made four
times, the percentage increase in the maximum speed with which a vehicle can
travel on a circular road is
1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 75% 4) 100%
26. A thin circular ring of mass ‘m’ and radius R is rotating about its axis with a
constant angular velocity  . Two objects each of mass M are attached gently to be
opposite ends of a diameter of the ring. The new angular velocity of ring is
m m   m  2M    m  2M 
1) 2) 3) 4)
Mm m  2M m m  2M
27. A person wants to drive on the vertical surface of a large cylindrical wooden ‘well’
commonly known as “death well” in a circus. The radius of the well is R and the
coefficient of the well is  s . The minimum speed, the motorcycle must have in

order to prevent slipping, should be

Rg s s g R
1) 2) 3) 4)
s Rg R s g

28. Circular disc of mass 2kg and radius 1 metre is rotating about an axis
perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre of mass with a rotational
kinetic energy of 8Joules. The angular momentum in (J
(J-sec) is
1) 8 2) 4 3) 2 4) 1
29. A stone is attached to one end of a string and rotated in a vertical circle. IIff string
breaks at the position of maximum tension, it will break at

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
30. If the K.E of a rotating body about an axis is decreased by 36%, its angular
momentum about that axis.
1) Increases by 72% 2) Decreases by 72%
3) Increases by 20% 4) Decreases by 20%
31. A particle is moving in a vertical circle. The tensions in the string when passing
through two positons at angles 300 and 600 from vertical ( lowest position) are T1
and T2 respectively, then
1) T1  T2 2) T2  T1 3) T1  T2 4) Data insufficient
32. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel changes its angular
momentum from A to 4A in 4S. The torque acted on it is
3A A 2A 3A
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 4 3 2
33. A bucket full of water is rotated in a vertical circle of radius R. If the water does
not split out, the speed of the bucket at topmost point will be

R
1) Rg 2) 5Rg 3) 2Rg 4)  
g
34. A uniform solid sphere of diameter 0.2m and mass 10kg is rotated about its
diameter with an angular velocity of 2 rad s-1. Then its angular momentum is
kg m2s-1 is
1) 0.01 2) 0.02 3) 0.08 4) 0.04
35. A car when passes through a convex bridge with velocity v exerts a force on it at
the topmost point is equal to
Mv 2 Mv 2 Mv 2
1) Mg  2) 3) Mg  4) None of these
r r r
36. The correct relation of the following is

      F   
1)   r.F 2)   r  F 3)    4)   r  F
r
37. A particle of mass m is circulating on a circle of radius r having angular
momentum L about centre. Then, the centripetal force will be
L2 L2 L2 L
1) 2) 3) 4)
mr mr 2 mr 3 mr 2
2
38. A wheel at rest has M.I. kgm2 . It is rotated by a 60W motor for one minute. The
2
number of rotations made by the wheel in one minute is
1) 90 2) 450 3) 1800 4) 1200
39. A stone is rotated in a vertical circle. Speed at bottommost point is 8gR , where R

is the radius of circle. The ratio of tension at the top and the bottom is
1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 3 3) 2 : 3 4) 1 : 4
40. If 484J of energy is spent in increasing the speed of a wheel from 60rpm to
360rpm, the M.I. of the wheel is
1) 1.6kgm2 2) 0.3kgm2 3) 0.7kgm2 4) 1.2kgm2

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
41. A body of mass m hangs at one end of a string is length l, the other end of which is
fixed. It is given a horizontal velocity, so that the string would just reach, where it
makes an angle of 60o with the vertical. The tension in the string at bottommost
point position is
1) 2 mg 2) mg 3) 3 mg 4) 3 mg
42. A dancer spins about a vertical axis at 60 rpm with her arms folded. If she stretctes
her hands so that M.I. about the vertical axis increases by 25% the new rate of
revolution is
1) 48rpm 2) 75rpm 3) 15 rpm 4) 24 rpm
43. A block is released from rest at the top of an inclined plane which later curves into
a circular track of radius r as shown in figure. The minimum height h from where
it should be released, so that it is able to complete the circle, is

1) R 2) 2.5 r 3) 1.5 r 4) 0.5 r

44. F  a i  3 j  6k and r  2 i  6 j  12k . The value of ‘a’ for which the angular
momentum is conserved is
1) -1 2) 0 3) 1 4) 2
45. A particle suspended by a light inextensible thread of length l is projected
horizontally from its lower position with velocity 7 gl / 2 . The string wil slack after

swinging through an angle equal to

1) 30o 2) 90o 3) 120o 4) 150o

CHEMISTRY
46. The structure of XeF6 is
1) Distorted octahedral 2) Pyramidal
3) Tetrahedral 4) None of these
47. Which of the following compound show cis and trans isomerism?

48. Which of the following statements is false?

1) Radon is obtained from the decay of radium 2) Helium is inert gas
3) Xenon is the most reactive among the rare gases
4) The most abundant rare gas found in the atmosphere is helium

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
49. Which of the following compound not show geometrical isomerism?

50. In XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 the number of lone pairs on Xe are respectively.
1) 2, 3, 1 2) 1, 2, 3 3) 4, 1, 2 4) 3, 2, 1
51. How many geometrical isomers are possible for given compound?

1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
52. Which inert gas show abnormal behavior on liquefaction
1) Xe 2) He 3) Ar 4) Kr
53 What is the relationship between the following compounds?

1) Configurational isomers 2) Conformational isomers

3) Constitutional isomers 4) Structural isomers
54. The ease of liquefaction of noble gases increases in the order
1) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe 2) Xe < Kr < Ne < Ar < He
3) Kr < Xe < He < Ne < Ar 4) Ar < Kr < Xe < Ne < He
55. In which of the following compound have plane of symmetry?

56. End-product of the hydrolysis of XeF6 is

1) XeO F4 2) XeO2F2 3) XeO3 4) XeO4
57.

1) Diastereomers 2) Enantiomer 3) Identical 4) Structural isomer

58. Which one of the following statements regarding helium is incorrect?
1) It is used to produce and sustain powerful superconductig magnets
2) It is used as a cryogenic agent for carrying out experiments at low temperatures
3) It is used to fill gas balloons instead of hydrogen because it is lighter
4) It is used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors

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Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022

59.

Sum of stereoisomer (a + b = ?):

1) 4 2) 6 3) 8 4) 12
60. The lowest boiling point of helium is due to its
1) Inertness 2) Gaseous nature
3) High polarisability 4) Weak vander Waals forces between atoms
61. Which of the following compound is optical active?

62. The element which has not yet been reacted with F2 is
1) Ar 2)Xe 3) Kr 4) Rn
63. Which of the following compounds has R configuration?

64. Which is a planar molecule?

1) XeO4 2) XeF4 3) XeOF4 4) XeO2F2
65. Which of the following groups has the highest priority using the Cahn, Ingold,
Prelog rule?

66. Sea divers go deep in the sea water with a mixture of which of the following gases.
1) O2 and He 2) O2 and Ar 3) O2 and CO2 4) CO2 and Ar

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
67. What is the relationship between the following molecules?

1) Enantiomers 2) Diastereomes
3) Constitutional isomers 4) Conformational isomers
68. XeF2 is isostructural with
1) ICl 2 2) SbCl3 3) BaCl2 4) TeF2

69.

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
70. Which one of the following reactions or xenon compounds is not feasible?
1) 3XeF4  6H2O  2Xe  XeO3  12HF  1.5O2

2) 2XeF4  2H2O  2 Xe  4HF  O2

3) XeF6  RbF  Rb  XeF7 

4) XeO3  6HF  XeF6  3H2O

71.

1) –F 2) –OH 3) –OCH3 4) All of these

72. A radioactive element X decays to give two inert gases X is
208 226
1) 82 Pb 2) 88 Ra 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Types of geometrical isomerism shown at point X, Y and Z of the following

compound repectively are :

X Y Z X Y Z
1) cis cis trans 2) cis trans trans
3) trans cis cis 4) cis trans cis
74. Which one of the following elements is most metallic?
1) P 2) As 3) Sb 4) Bi
75. C8H16 that can form cis-trans isomerism and also chiral center is:

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
76. The basic character of hydrides of the group 15 elements decrease in the order.
1) SbH3>PH3>AsH3>NH3 2) NH3 > SbH3> PH3>AsH3
3) NH3>PH3>AsH3>SbH3 4) SbH3 > AsH3 >PH3 >NH3
77. Which of the following will form geometrical isomers?

78. The one which does not form pentachloride is

1) Nitrogen 2) Phosphorus 3) Arsenic 4) Antimony
79. Which of the following compounds are meso forms?

1) 1 only 2) 3 only 3) 1 and 2 4) 2 and 3

80. Which of the following compounds does not exist?
1) AsCl5 2) SbCl3 3) BiCl5 4) SbCl5
81. The most stable conformation of cyclohexane is:
1) Boar 2) Half-chair 3) Chair 4) Twist-boat
82. The boiling points of the following hydrides follow the order.
1) SbH3 > NH3 >AsH3 > PH3 2) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
3) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3 4) SbH3 > AsH3 > NH3 > PH3
83. Which of the following compounds can be optically active?

Select correct answer using the codes given:

1) I and III 2) I and II 3) II and III 4) I, II and III
84. Nitrogen forms N2, but phosphorus is converted into P4 from P, the reason is
1) Triple bond is present between phosphorus atom
2) p  p bonding is strong in phosphorus
3) p  p bonding is weak in phosphrous
4) Multiple bond is formed easily in phosphrous
85. Which one of the following is the most stable conformer?

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Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
86. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state?
1) N2H4 2) NH3 3) N3H 4) NH2OH
87. Which of the following comformation of butane is most stable?
1) Skew 2) Anti 3) Gauche 4) Eclipsed
88. In nitrogen family, the H-M-H bond angle in the hydrides gradually becomes closer
to 900 on going from N to Sb. This shows that gradually.
1) The basic strength of the hydrides increases
2) Almost pure p-orbitals are used for M-H bonding
3) The bond energies of M-H bonds increases
4) The bond pairs of electrons become nearer to the central atom
89. Stereoisomers possible for following compound

1) 8 2) 16 3) 32 4) 64
90. Ionic radii (in A ) of As , Sb and Bi follow the order.
0 3+ 3+ 3+

1) As3+ > Sb3+ > Bi3+ 2) Sb3+ > Bi3+ > As3+
3) Bi3+ > AS3+ > SB3+ 4) Bi3+ > Sb3+ > As3+
BIOLOGY
91. Find the incorrect match among the following.
Property Simple Faciltated Active
diffusion diffusion transport
1) Respond to inhibitors No Yes Yes
2) Highly selective No No No
3) Takes place along a gradient Yes Yes No
4) Downhill transport Yes Yes No
92. Which of the following substances find itself difficult to pass through the
membrane?
1) Saturated hydrocarbons 2) Hydrophilic
3) Hydrophobic 4) Both 1 and 3
93. The diffusion of any substance across a membrane does not depend on
1) Solubility in lipids 2) Concentration gradient
3) Input of energy 4) Both 1 and 2
94. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

1) a-Uniport, b-symport, c-Antiport 2) b-Uniport, c-symport, a-Antiport

3) a-Uniport, c-symport, b-Antiport 4) c-Uniport, a-symport, b-Antiport

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
95. Over small distances, substances moved by
1) Diffusion 2) Cytoplasmic streaming
3) Active transport 4) All of the above
96. Transport over longer distances proceeds through the vascular system-xylem and
phloem- is called
1) Transpiration 2) Absorption 3) Translocation 4) Transformation
97. Rate of diffusion is affected by the
1) Pressure and temperature 2) Concentration gradient
3) Membrane permeability 4) All of the above
98. Movement of materials against concentration gradient is called
1) Active transport 2) Passive transport
3) Diffusion 4) Osmosis
99. Which of the following components is/are determinant(s) of water potential?
1) Structure of water 2) Solute potential
3) Pressure potential 4) Both 2 and 3
100. Water potential of a solution is
1) Zero 2) Positive 3) Negative 4) Always > 1
101. Find out the correct relationship.
1) S = W + P 2) P = W + S 3) W = P - S 4) W = S + P
102. Choose the correct statement about diffusion
1) Molecules move randomly without using energy
2) Movement of substance occur over long distance
3) Substances move from lower concentration to higher concentration
4) All the above
103. Diffusion in a non-living system is not affected by
1) Concentration gradient 2) Temperature
3) Membrane permeability 4) Pressure
104. Facilitated diffusion occurs when
1) Gases are substrates 2) Substance is lipid soluble
3) Susbtance molecules are smaller 4) Substance is hydrophilic
105. Membrane proteins are involved in this method of transport
1) Simple diffusion 2) Active transport
3) Facilitated diffusion 4) (2) and (3)
106. Huge pores in the outer membrane of the plastids, mitochondria, and some
bacteria, allowing molecules up to the size of small proteins are called
1) Aquaporin 2) Porins 3) Lechithin 4) Phospholipids
107. Carrier proteins help in
1) Facilitated diffusion 2) Simple diffusion
3) Active transport 4) (1) and (3)
108. Statement-I : Meiosis increases the genetic variability in the population of
organisms from one generation to the next.
Statement-II : Variations are very important for the process of evolution.
Choose the correct option.
1) Both statements I & II are correct
2) Statement I is correct while statement II is incorrect
3) Statement II is correct while statement I is incorrect
4) Both statements I & II are incorrect
109. True statements regarding active transport is/are
1) It requires special carrier proteins 2) It is an uphill transport
3) It is highly selective 4) More than one option is correct
110. The parts of plant with least amount of water are
1) Dry seeds 2) Woody parts of plants
3) Leaves 4) Both (1) & (2)

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Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
111. Statement-I : A mustard plant absorbs water equal to its own weight in about 5
hours.
Statement-II : A watermelon has over 92 percent water.
Choose the correct option.
1) Both statements I & II are correct
2) Statement I is correct while statement II is incorrect
3) Statement II is correct while statement I is incorrect
4) Both statements I & II are incorrect
112. Water potential of pure water at STP is
1) Zero 2) Positive 3) Negative 4) Always > 1
113. If a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to puer water or a
solution, its water potential
1) Increases 2) Decreases 3) Remains same 4) Becomes zero
114. If a plant cells has s value of -10 bars and p value of +5 bars, its water potential
(w) will be
1) +5 bars 2) -5 bars 3) +15 bars 4) -50 bars
115. Shape of chiasmata is
1) C-shaped 2) X-shaped 3) Y-shaped 4) U-shaped
116. The beginning of diplotene is recognized by the
1) Crossing over
2) Tendency of the recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to
separate from each other
3) Synapsis
4) Both 1 and 2
117. Most of the cell organelle duplication occurs during
1) Metaphase-I 2) Interphase 3) Prophase-I 4) Cytokinesis
118. Non-sister chromatids exchange segments during
1) Leptotene 2) Diplotene 3) Zygotene 4) Pachytene
119. Recombination involves
1) Crossing over 2) Chromosome duplication
3) Spindle formation 4) Cytokinesis
120. Crossing over takes place in
1) Prophase 2) Metaphase-I 3) Anaphase-II 4) Prophase I
121. Homologous chromosomes separate during
1) Metaphase I 2) Anaphase I 3) Metaphase II 4) Anaphase II
122. In meiosis, synapsis occurs during
1) S-phase 2) Interphase 3) Leptotene 4) Zygotene
123. In which stage of meiosis, the structure, number and shape of chromosomes can
be observed
1) Prophase I 2) Metaphase I 3) Anaphase I 4) Telophase I
124. If 24 chromosomes are present in each daughter nucleus during telophase-II, how
many chromsomes are found at each pole in that meiocyte at Anaphase-I?
A) 12 2) 96 3) 24 4) 48
125. At what stage, does the number of chromosomes become half?
1) Prophase I 2) Metaphase I 3) Anaphase I 4) Telophase I
126. The water potential of a cell is -0.9MPa and its pressure potential is 0.4MPa. What
is the value of solute potential?
A) -0.9MPa 2) 0.4MPa 3) -1.3MPa 4) -0.5MPa
127. In meiosis centromere divides during
1) Prophase I 2) Metaphase I 3) Anaphase I 4) Anaphase II
128. Recombination nodules are found during
1) Anaphase-I 2) Metaphase-I 3) Prophase-I 4) Telophase-I
129. Terminalisationof chiasmataoccurs during
1) Mitosis 2) Diakinesis 3) Meiosis II 4) Cytokinesis
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Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
130. The water potential of cell A is -10 bars and cell B is -12 bars. If they are placed
side by side, what is the direction of water movement?
1) B  A 2) A  B
3) there will be no movement of water between cells 4) both 1 and 2
131. The given figure represents

1) Prophase I 2) Prophase II
3) Prophase of mitosis 4) Telophase-II
132. Longest phase of meiosis is
1) Prophase I 2) Prophase II 3) Anaphase I 4) Metaphase II
133. Match the columns I and II.
Column – I Column – II
I) W A) Solute potential
II) S B) Pressure potential
III) P C) Water potential
Codes :
A B C A B C
1) II III I 2) II I III
3) I II III 4) III I II
134. A bivalent in metaphase I consists of
1) Two chromatids and one centromere
2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
3) Four chromatids and two centromeres
4) Four chromatids and four centromeres
135. Choose the correctly matched pairs and the correct option.
a) Leptotene – chromosomes become invisible
b) Zygotene – pairing of homologous chromosomes
c) Pachytene – Dissolution of synaptonemal complex takes place
d) Diplotene – Bivalent chromosomes appear as tetrads
e) Diakinesis – Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place
1) a, b correct 2) a, d correct 3) b, e correct 4) b, c correct
136. Basic unit of muscle contraction is
(1) Actin (2) Myosin (3) Sarcomere (4) Actomyosin
137. Chemical ions responsible for muscles contraction are
(1) Mg 2 and K  (2) Na  and K  (3) Na  and Mg 2 (4) Ca 2 and Mg 2

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
138. Match name of bones in Column-I with their number in Column-II and select the
correct option
Column-I Column-II
(a) Skull (i)24
(b) Vertebrae (ii)60
(c) Ribs (iii)22
(d) Sternum (iv)1
(e) Pectoral girdle (v)2
(f) Arms (vi)4
(g) Ears ossicles (vii)6
(h) Pelvic girdle (viii)33
(1) (h) - (iii); (a) - (iv); (f) - (ii); (e) - (vii) (2) (c) - (viii); (a) - (iv); (f) - (ii); (g) - (v)
(3) (c) - (viii); (a) - (iv); (b) - (vi); (g) - (v) (4) None of these
139. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option
Column - I Column – II
(a) True ribs (i) 3 pairs
(b) False ribs (ii) 2 pairs
(c) Floating ribs (iii) 7 pairs
(1) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii) (2) (a) - (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i) (4) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii)
140. Choose the correct statements
(1) Axial skeleton contains 80 bones
(2) Skull, vertebral column, sternum and ribs constitute axial skeleton
(3) Skull has a total of 22 bones (4) All of these
141. In mammals the number of cervical vertebrae is mostly
(1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 1 (4) 12
142. The number of vertebrae present in cervical, thorasic, lumbar, sacral and coccygeal
regions of vertebral column respectively are
(1) 12, 7, 5, 1 and 1 (2) 1, 7, 5, 12 and 1
(3) 7, 5, 12 and 1 (4) 7, 12, 5, 1 and 1
143. Phalangeal formula of fore limb of man is
(1) 1,2,2,2,2 (2) 2,1,1,1,1 (3) 2,3,3,3,3 (4) 2,3,3,2,2
144. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option
Column - I Column – II
(a) Tarsal (i) 14
(b) Phalanges (ii) 1
(c) Metatarsal (iii) 7
(d) Femur (iv) 5
(1) (a) - (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (ii) (2) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i) (4) (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
145. Joint between femur and tibio-fibula is
(1) Hinge joint (2) Ball and socket joint (3) Gliding joint (4) Pivot joint
146. Pectoral girdle, pelvic girdle and limb bones constitute
(1) Hydraulic skeleton (2) Exo skeleton
(3) Axial skeleton (4) Appendicular skeleton
147. Match Column-I With Column-II and choose the correct option
Colum - I Column – II
(a) Hinge joint (i) Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(b) Pivot joint (ii) Between carpals and Metacarpals of thumb
(c) Gliding joint (iii) Between the carpals
(d) Saddle joint (iv) Between atlas and axis
(e) Ball and Socket joint (v) Knee joint
(1) (a) - (v); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii); (e) - (i)
(2) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (v); (e) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (i); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (v); (e) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (v); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i); (e) - (ii)
148. Elbow joint in the fore limb is similar to this type of synovial joint.
(1) Pivotal joint (2) Joint between carpals
(3) Saddle joint (4) Knee joint
149. Myasthenia gravis is
(1) Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
(2) Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic disorder
(3) Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle due to low Ca 2 in body fluid
(4) inflammation of joints
150. Which of the following is a movement but NOT locomotion?
(1) Chewing (2) Flying (3) Climbing (4) Running
151. In Hydra, neural organisation comprises
(1)Network of neurons (2) CNS & PNS
(3) Brain & neural tissue (4) ganglia
152. The system that transmits impulse from CNS to skeletal muscles is
(1) sympathetic neural system (2) parasympathetic neural system
(3) somatic neural system (4) autonomic neural system
153. The diagram given below is the functional organisation of the human nervous
system. Identify A, B, C, D & E in the figure.

1) A– PNS, B –CNS, C – ANS, D– Sympathetic nervous system, E – Parasympathetic

nervous system
2) A – ANS, B – CNS, C- PNS, D- Sympathetic nervous system, E- Parasympathetic
nervous system
3) A – CNS, B- PNS, C- ANS, D- Sympathetic nervous system, E- Parasympathetic
nervous system
4) A – ANS, B – PNS, C- CNS, D- Sympathetic nervous system, E- Parasympathetic
nervous system

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
154. Synaptic knob is bulb like structure which is present
(1) at the end of axon terminal (2) at the node of Ranvier
(3) in the cell body (4) at the end of dendrites
155. A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through the junctions
called
(1) Neuromuscular junction (2) Neuro receptor junction
(3) Synapse (4) Neuro granular junction
156. During the propagation of nerve impulse the action potential results from the
movement of
(1) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
(2) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(3) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(4) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
157. The cytoplasm contained within the cell body of neuron is characterised by the
presence of
(1) Cell granules (2) Neuro cells (3) Nissl’s granules (4) Neuro granules
158. For the maintenance of ionic gradients across the resting membrane, the sodium
potassium pump transports
(1) 3 Na+ outwards for 2 K+ into the cell (2) 2 Na+ outwards for 2 K+ into the cell
(3) 3 Na+ inwards for 2 K+ out of the cell (4) 2 Na+ inwards for 2 K+ out the cell
159. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly atleast
two of A-D.

(1) A - Receptor , C – Synaptic vesicles (2) B – Synaptic connection , D- K+

(3) A – Neurotransmitter, B- Synaptic cleft (4) C – Neurotransmitter , D -Ca2+
160. View the diagram of lateral view of the human brain & choose the correct option in
which A-D has been indicated.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1)Cerebral hemisphere Spiral cord Corpus callosum Cerebellum
(2)Corpus callosum Cerebral hemisphere Cerebellum Spil cord
(3)Cerebral hemisphere Corpus callosum Pons Spiral cord
(4) Spiral cord Pons Corpus callosum Cerebral hemisphere
161. Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation ?
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Corpus callosum (3) Medulla oblongata (4) Cerebrum
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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
162. Which part of the human brain controls the urge for eating and drinking ?
(1) Forebrain (2) Midbrain (3) Hindbrain (4) Spinal cord
163. Identify the parts labelled as A to E and choose the correct option for the given
diagrammatic representation of reflex action showing knee-jerk reflex.

(1) A-Dorsal root ganglion, B–White matter, C-Grey matter, D-Afferent pathway,
E-Efferent pathway
(2) A-Dorsal root ganglion, B–White matter, C-Grey matter, D-Efferent pathway,
E-Afferent pathway
(3) A-Dorsal root ganglion, B–Grey matter, C-White matter, D-Efferent pathway,
E-Afferent pathway
(4) A-Ventral root ganglion, B–White matter, C-Grey matter, D-Efferent pathway,
E-Afferent pathway
164. After head injury, a person lost control of water balance, hunger and body
temperature. Which part of the brain could be damaged in that person?
1) Cerebellum 2) Pons 3) Medulla 4) Hypothalamus
165. Patella, is commonly called
(1) Collar bone (2) Breast bone (3) Knee cap (4) Hip bone
166. The hardest substance in human body is present in
(1) Bone-Ossein (2) Chitin-Protein (3) Tooth-Enamel (4) Muscle-Myosin
167. The smallest and longest bones in human skeleton, respectively are
(1) Malleus &Humerus (2) Incus & tibia
(3) Stapes & Fibula (4) Stapes & Femur
168. Clavicle is a bone of
(1)Thigh (2) Shoulder (3) Knee joint (4) Shank
169. Reflex action is controlled by
(1) ANS (2) CNS (3)Both 1 & 2 (4)None
170. The synaptic cleft is found between the membranes of
(1) pre-synaptic neuron & a post-synaptic neuron
(2) pre-synaptic dendrite & a post-synaptic axon
(3) pre-synaptic dendrite & a post-synaptic dendrite
(4) Presynaptic axon & a post synaptic axon
171. Find the hormone which is an Aminoacid derivative.
(1) Thyroxine (2) Cortisol (3) Estrogen (4) Epinephrine
172. Highly vascular & closely investing protective coat around brain is known as
(1)Arachnoid (2)Pia mater (3)Dura mater (4)Sub-arachnoid space
173. If Na+ - K+ pump stops working then the
(1) Na+ & K+ will be in excess in extracellular fluid
(2) Na+ will be in excess in extracellular fluid
(3) K+ will be in excess in intracellular fluid
(4) Na+ will be in excess in intracellular fluid
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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
174. The neutransmitters released at the synaptic cleft of a chemical synapse may be
(1) Only excitatory (2) Only inhibitory
(3) Either excitatory of inhibitory (4) Neither excitatory nor inhibitory
175. Select the true statement
(1) A band is present in the middle of sarcomere
(2) H zone is present in the middle of A- band
(3) M line is present in the middle of H- zone (4) All the above
176. Drinking of alcohol affects mostly
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum (3) Medulla oblongata (4) Dien cephalon
177. Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited ?
(1) Botulism (2) Tetany (3) Muscular dystrophy (4) Myasthenia gravis
178. Myelin sheath is produced by
(1) Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes (2) Astrocytes & Nissils granules
(3) Oligodendrocytes & Osteoclasts (4) Osteoclasts & Astrocytes
179. Assertion : When muscle fibre contracts, sarcomere length is reduced
Reason : Sliding of myosin filament over actin filament due to rotational movement
of myosin head results this change.
Choose the correct option from the following :
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False
180. Assertion : An injury to medulla oblongata may be fatal
Reason : Medulla oblongata regulates heart beat, respiratory rhythm and other
involuntary actions.
Choose the correct option from the following :
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False
******

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XI- NEET MODEL_23-01-2022
: ANSWER KEY :
STD: XI – NEET Weekend Test DATE: 23-01-2022
SUB: PHYSICS
S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key
1 4 11 1 21 2 31 3 41 1
2 4 12 4 22 4 32 1 42 1
3 3 13 2 23 2 33 1 43 2
4 2 14 2 24 1 34 3 44 1
5 1 15 4 25 4 35 3 45 3
6 1 16 1 26 2 36 2
7 1 17 1 27 1 37 3
8 3 18 2 28 2 38 3
9 4 19 4 29 1 39 2
10 2 20 3 30 4 40 3
SUB:CHEMISTRY
Q.No Key Q. No Key Q. No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
46 1 56 3 66 1 76 3 86 3
47 1 57 1 67 1 77 4 87 2
48 4 58 3 68 1 78 1 88 2
49 4 59 3 69 3 79 2 89 1
50 4 60 4 70 4 80 3 90 4
51 3 61 2 71 4 81 3
52 2 62 1 72 2 82 1
53 1 63 1 73 1 83 3
54 1 64 2 74 4 84 3
55 1 65 4 75 1 85 3
SUB : BOTANY
Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
91 2 101 4 111 1 121 2 131 1
92 2 102 1 112 1 122 4 132 1
93 3 103 3 113 1 123 2 133 1
94 3 104 4 114 2 124 3 134 3
95 4 105 4 115 2 125 3 135 3
96 3 106 2 116 2 126 3
97 4 107 4 117 2 127 4
98 1 108 1 118 4 128 3
99 4 109 4 119 1 129 2
100 3 110 4 120 4 130 2

Topic: SUB : ZOOLOGY

Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
136 3 146 4 156 2 166 3 176 2
137 4 147 1 157 3 167 4 177 3
138 4 148 4 158 1 168 2 178 1
139 2 149 1 159 1 169 3 179 3
140 4 150 1 160 3 170 1 180 1
141 1 151 1 161 1 171 4
142 4 152 3 162 1 172 2
143 3 153 3 163 2 173 2
144 1 154 1 164 4 174 3
145 1 155 3 165 3 175 4

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY