OBJECTIVE QUESTION SET

REFRIGERATION AND AIR-CONDITIONING

T.E.SEM-VI (MECHANICAL)
MODULE : I
Q-1: The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator working on Reversed carnot cycle with T1 being
higher temperature and T2 being lower temperature is

a) T1-T2/T1 b) T1/T1-T2 c) T2/T1-T2 d) T1-T2/T2

Q-2: The relationship between COP heat pump and COPrefrigerator for the same range of temperature is
a) COPheat pump =COPrefrigerator b) COPheat pump-COPrefrigerator = 1 c) COP heat pump =2 COP refrigerator d) not
possible to predict without knowing working substance
Q-3:Reversed carnot cycle comprises
a) Two isentropic processes & two adiabatic processes b) two isentropic processes & two
isothermal processes c) Two isentropic processes & two constant pressure processes d) two
isentropic processes & two constant volume processes
Q-4: Reversed Carnot cycle assumes that all processes in the cycle are
a) Non flow only b) steady flow only c) Non flow or steady flow d) transient flow
Q-5: One tonne of refrigeration is equal to
a) 21 KJ/MIN b) 210 KJ/MIN c) 420 KJ/MIN d) 620 KJ/MIN
Q-6: The coefficient of performance is always ---------------- one
a) Equal to b) less than c) greater than
Q-7: Air refrigerator works on
a) Carnot cycle b) Rankine cycle c) Reversed Carnot cycle d) Bell Coleman cycle
e) both (a) & (b) f) both (c) & (d)
Q-8: In air conditioning of aeroplane ,using air as a refrigerant ,the cycle used is
a) reversed carnot cycle b) reversed joule cycle c) reversed Brayton cycle d) reversed otto cycle

Q-9: The cooling system used in transport type aircrafts is

a) simple air cooling system b) simple evaporative cooling system c) boot strap cooling system
d) all of the above

Q-10: The cooling system used for supersonic aircraft and rockets is

a) simple air cooling system b) boot strap cooling system c) reduced ambient air cooling system
d) regenerative air cooling system

Q-11: The dense air system as compared to open air system for same range of temperature using Bell-
coleman system gives

a)Higher power/ TR b) Lower power/TR c) same power /TR d) Unpredictable results

Q-12: The COP of carnot refrigerator can be expressed :(r=Volume compression ratio for isentropic
compression)

a) 1-ry ₋1 b) 1/ 1-ry - 1 c) 1/ry -1-1 d) 1/1+ry-1

Q-13 : Two Carnot Refrigerators are employed,one for ice making and other for comfort cooling

a) The cop of refrigerator for ice making is higher than that for the other

b) The cop of refrigerator for ice making is lower than that for the other

c) The cop of refrigerator for ice making is same as that for the other

d) The cop of carnot refrigerator will depend on refrigerant used

Q-14: In a refrigerating machine ,heat rejected is ---------------heat absorbed

a) Equal to b) less than c) greater than

Q-15: A boot-strap air cooling system has

a)One heat exchanger b) two heat exchanger c) three heat exchanger d) four heatexchanger

Q-16: Ideal gas can be cooled only if its -------------- decreases.

a) Entropy b) Enthalpy

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MODULE II
Q-1: The highest temperature during the cycle ,in a vapour compression refrigeration system ,occurs
after

a) Compression b) condensation c) expansion d) evaporation

Q-2: Heat is rejected by the refrigerant, during vapour compression refrigeration cycle in

a) Condenser b) evaporator c) throttle valve d) compressor

Q-3: The process of undercooling is generally brought about by

a) Circulating more quantity of cooling water through the condenser

b) Using water colder than the main circulating water
c) Employing a heat exchanger
d) Any one of the above
Q-4: Increase in condenser temperature keeping evaporator temperature fixed ,in vapour compression
refrigerating cycle results in

a) Decrease in refrigeration capacity b) increase in power consumption c) decrease in

volumetric efficiency of compressor d) all of above

Q-5: Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order if

a) 0.1 to 0.3 tonne b) 2 ton c) 5 ton d) 10 ton

Q-6: Vapour compression refrigerating system is used as Heat pump to heat a room and also direct
radiation electrical heater is used to heat similar room . For the same heating effect the former
arrangement uses

a) More electrical energy than the latter b) Less electrical energy than the latter c) same
electrical energy as the latter d)more or less as it can not be predicted

Q-7: In Vapour compression refrigerating system ,If expansion cylinder is used in place of throttle
valve , the C O P will

a) Increase b) decrease c) Will remain same d) not be predictable unless refrigerant

used is known

Q-8: A domestic window type air conditioner capacity may be approximately

a) 1 ton b) 0.1 ton c) 5 ton d) 10 ton

Q-9 :Liquid – suction heat exchanger is used in Vapour compression refrigerating system to

a) Improve COP of cycle b) avoid useless superheating in pipes c) to reduce heat rejection
in condenser d) none of above

Q-10: COP of domestic air conditioner as compared to that of domestic refrigerator will be

a) Lower b)higher c)same d) un-predictable

Q-11 : For the same refrigerant ,same evaporator pressure,same condenser pressure,same intermediate
pressure for two stage Vapour compression refrigerating system

a) Flash intercooling gives better cop than flash cooling b) flash cooling gives better cop than Flash
intercooling c) both flash cooling flash intercooling give same cop d) none of above

Q-12: A system with multiple evaporator at different temperature with compound compression will

a) Increase the power requirements b) reduce power requirements c) neither increase nor
reduce the power requirements d) any of the above

Q-13-: The Coefficient of Performance(C.O.P) of a domestic refrigerator is

 a) Less than 1 b) equal to 1 c) more than 1 d) un-predictable

Q-14 : The diameter of the suction pipe of refrigerating unit compressor,in comparison to delivery side,is

a) Smaller b) bigger c) Equal d) un-predictable

Q-15 : Two stage refrigeration system is recommended if evaporator temperature is below

a) 00C b) -200C c) -300C d) -500C

Q -16: Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest freezing point ?’

a) R-11 b) R-12 c) R-22 d) ammonia

Q -!7: Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest boiling point ?

a) Ammonia b ) carbon dioxide c) sulphur dioxide d) R-12

Q-18: ---------------- refrigerant has the highest critical point temperature.

a) R -22 b) R-12 c) R-11 d) ammonia

Q-19:The brine is an aqueous solution of ------------- in water.

a) Magnesium sulphate b) sodium chloride c) calcium carbonate d) none of above

Q-20: Ammonia is used with refrigerant compressor

a) Reciprocating refrigerant compressor b)Centrifugal refrigerant compressor c)Axial flow

refrigerant compressor d) all of above

Q – 21: Freon -12 is used with

a) Reciprocating refrigerant compressor in small units like domestic refrigerator

b) Reciprocating refrigerant compressor in large units for central a/c plants
c) Centrifugal refrigerant compressor for large units for central a/c plants
d) All of above

Q-22 : Freon -22 is used with

a) Reciprocating refrigerant compressor in large units such as a package units or central a/c plants
b) Centrifugal refrigerant compressor in large units & central a/c plants
c) Only small domestic refrigerator or water coolers
d) All of the above

Q-23: Direct Expansion coil evaporator is

a) Flooded type evaporator b) dry type evaporator c) wet type evaporator d) none of the above
Q-24: The heat rejection ratio is defined as

a) Heat absorbed at evaporator/heat rejected at condenser

b) heat rejected at condenser / Heat absorbed at evaporator
c) heat rejected at condenser/work done on compressor
d) Heat absorbed at evaporator/ work done on compressor

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MODULE - III

Q-1: The Refrigerant , commonly used in vapor absorption system is

a) Water b) ammonia c) Freon d) aqua-ammonia

Q-2: An Electrolux refrigerator is called a

a) Single fluid absorption system b) two fluids absorption system

b) Three fluids absorption system d) none of the above

Q-3: vapor absorption system

a) gives noisy operation b) gives quiet operation

c) requires little power consumption d) cools 00 C

Q-4:- Aqua-ammonia absorption refrigeration system , incomplete rectification leads to accumulation

of water in

a) Condenser b) evaporator c) absorber d) none of these

Q-5: In aqua-ammonia and Li-Br water absorption refrigeration systems ,the refrigerant are respectively

a) water and water b ) water and Li-Br c) ammonia and Li-Br d) ammonia and water

Q-6: In electrolux refrigerator

a) ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen

b) ammonia is absorbed in water

c) ammonia evaporates in hydrogen

d) hydrogen evaporates in ammonia

Q-7: The fluids used in the electrolux refrigerator are

a) water and hydrogen b) ammonia and hydrogen c) ) ammonia ,hydrogen & water
c) none of these

Q-8: Hydrogen is used in electrolux refrigeration system so as to ------------ the vapor pressure ammonia

In evaporator

a) equalize b) reduce c) increase

Q-9: Work of compression of the fluid in vapor absorption system of refrigeration as compared to that in
vapour compression refrigeration system is

a) more b) less c) may be more or less d) unpredictable

Q-10: C.O.P of practical vapour compression system as compared to that for vapor absorption system is

b) more b) less c) unpredictable d) more for subzero temperature and less for
temperature above zero

Q-11: Shaft work required for vapor absorption system to produce one ton refrigeration may be only

a) 50 to 60% of that required for vapour compression system

b) 20 to 30% of that required for vapour compression system
c) 1 to 2% of that required for vapour compression system
d) None of the above

Q-12: The function of compressor in vapour compression system is performed in vapor absorption system
by

a) Generator b) absorber c) generator ,absorber and liquid pump d) absorber and liquid
pump

Q-13: The vapor absorption system using Ammonia-water has cycle operating pressures

a) Higher than that using lithium bromide water

b) Lower than using lithium bromide water
c) May be lower or higher depending upon application
d) Higher for sub-zero application and lower for above zero application

Q-14: Electrolux refrigeration system has

a) Only one liquid pump b) Only two liquid pump c) no liquid pump d)none of the above
 MODULE –IV
Q-1: The ambient air temperature as recorded by ordinary thermometer is called

a) Wet bulb temperature b) dew point temperature c) dry bulb temperature d) saturation
temperature

Q-2: Specific humidity is defined as

a) Mass of water vapour contained in air vapour mixture per kg of dry air
b) Mass of water vapour contained per kg of air vapour mixture
c) Mass of dry air contained per kg of air vapour mixture
d) none of the above

Q-3: Specific humidity is also called

a) Relative humidity b) humidity ratio c) absolute humidity d) saturation humidity

Q-4: Humidity ratio W is expressed as (ma=mass of dry air, mv= mass of vapour in air vapour
Mixture)
a) W= mv/ ma b) W= mv/ mv+ ma c) W= ma/ ma+ mv d) W= mv/ ma- mv
Q-5: Degree of saturation u is defined as the ratio of
a) Specific humidity of moist air to specific humidity of saturated air at same dry bulb
temperature
b) Moisture content contained per 1 kg of dry air to moisture content required to saturate
1 kg of dry air at same dry bulb temperature
c) Both (a) &(b)
d) none of the above
Q-6: Wet bulb temperature of air whose relative humidity is 100% is
a) less than dew point temperature b) equal to dew point temperature c) greater than
dew point temperature d) may be more or less depending upon dry bulb temperature
Q-7: Wet bulb depression is zero, then relative humidity is equal to
a) 0% b) 50% c) 100% d) none of above
Q-8: During sensible heating process
a) dry bulb temperature increases b) relative humidity decreases c) Wet bulb temperature
increases d) all of above
Q-9: During sensible heating process
a) specific humidity remains constant b)partial pressure of vapour remains constanc)dew
point temperature remains constant d) all of the above
Q-10: The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates
a) dry bulb temperature b) Wet bulb temperature c) specific humidity d) relative
humidity
Q-11: The by-pass factor of a cooling coil decreases with
a) decreases in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
b) increase in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
c) increase in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
d) decrease in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
Q-12: An air washer can work as a
a) filter only b) humidifier only c) dehumidifier only d) all of these
Q-13: The type of cooling towers with maximum heat transfer from air to water is
a. Natural draft c. Both a and b
b. Mechanical draft d. Neither a and b
Q-14. Natural draft cooling towers are mainly used in the
a. Steel industry c. Fertilizer industry
b. Alumina industry d. Power stations
Q-15 A better indicators for cooling tower performance is
a. Wet bulb temperature c. Range
b. Dry bulb temperature d. Approach
Q-16:Cooling tower effectiveness is the ratio of
a. Range / (range + approach) c. Range / Approach
b. Approach / (range + approach) d. Approach / Range
Q-17:cooling tower reduces the water temperature close to
a. Dry bulb temperature c. Dew point temperature
b. Ambient wet bulb temperature (WBT) d. None of the above
Q-18:The ratio of dissolved solids in circulating water to the dissolved solids in make up water
is called
a. Liquid gas ratio c. Cooling tower effectiveness
b. Cycle of concentration d. None of the above
Q-19:Which one of the following is true to estimate the range of cooling tower?
a. Range = Cooling water inlet
temperature – Wet bulb temperature
c. Range = heat load in kcal per hour /
Water circulation in liters per hour
b. Range = Cooling water outlet
temperature – Wet bulb temperature
d. None of the above
Q-20: Which one of the following fill material is more energy efficient for cooling towers in case
of seawater cooling?
a. Splash fill c. Low clog film fill
b. Film fill d. None of the above
Q-21:. L / G ratio in a cooling tower is the ratio of
a. Length and girth c. Water flow rate and air mass flow rate
b. Length and temperature gradient d. Air mass flow rate and water flow rate
Q-22: Normally the guaranteed best approach a cooling tower can achieve is
a. 5 oC c. 8 oC b. 12 oC d. 2.8 oC

ANSWERS -(13. b ), (14. d ), (15. d), (16. a), ( 17. b), (18. b), (19. c ), (20. b), ( 21. C), ( 22. d)

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MODULE-V

Q-1: The index which correlates the combined effect of air temperature, relative humidity and
air velocity on the human body is known as
a) mean radiant temperature b)effective temperature c) dew point temperature d) none
of these
Q-2: The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is
a) higher in winter than in summer
b) lower in winter than in summer
c) same in winter and summer
d) not dependent on season
Q-3: In summer comfort cooling, the air of the occupied space should not have a relative
humidity above
a) 30% b) 40% c) 50% d) 60%
Q-4: In summer air conditioning , the air is
a) Cooled and humidified b) Cooled and dehumidified c) heated and humidified
d) heated and dehumidified
Q-5: In winter air conditioning , the air is
a) Cooled and humidified b) Cooled and dehumidified c) heated and humidified
d) heated and dehumidified
Q-6: Effective Room sensible heat factor is
a) Room sensible heat load /room latent heat load
b) Room sensible heat load /room total heat load
 c) Room sensible heat load + BF(outside air sensible heat load)/ room total heat load+
BF(outside air total heat load)
d) Room sensible heat load +outside air sensible heat load / room total heat load +
outside air total heat load
Q-7: In “Comfort Chart” the effective temperature is represented by
a) broken lines b) zigzag lines c) continuous lines d) straight lines
Q-8 : Room sensible heat factor is defined as:(RSH= Room sensible heat,RLH= room latent heat)
a) = RSH/RSH+RLH b) RLH/RSH+RLH c) RSH/RLH d) none of above
Q-9: In air conditioning system, the comfort conditions are defined by
a) 150CDBT,90%RH b) 250CDBT,35%RH c) 200CDBT,80%RH d) 220DBT,60%RH
Q-10:The mixing of two or more streams of moist air in air conditioning is
a) A general polytropic process b) an adiabatic process c) an isothermal d)constant
pressure
Q-11: In air conditioning system the quantity of free air required per person is usually taken as
a) 0.8 m3/min b) 1.2m3/min c) 3 m3/min d) 5 m3/min
Q-12:Which of the following air conditioning system is suitable for air conditioning large space
Such as theatres,cinemas etc.
a) Unitary b) Zonal c) Central d) Unitary- Central
Q-13: By which of the following are dust and impurities in air removed?
a) Centrifugal device b) Adhesive impregnated filters c) Air washing
d)Electrostatic precipitation e) Any one of above
Q-14:Compared to individual systems, the central air conditioning has -----------overall efficiency
a) Lower b)Same c) Higher d) Unpredictable
Q-15:The coil efficiency ,during sensible cooling of air is given by
a) 1/BF b)1+BF c) 1-BF d)none of above
Q-16: Equal friction method of designing air conditioning duct
a) Ensures same velocity in the duct all throughout in all branches
b) Automatically reduces the air velocity in the duct in the direction of flow
c) Ensures constant static pressure at all terminals in the duct
d) does none of above
Q-17: For rectangular duct ,the aspect ratio is equal to
a) Sum of longer and shorter sides
b) Difference of longer and shorter sides
c) Product of longer and shorter sides
d) Ratio of longer and shorter sides
Q-18: The aspect ratio, for rectangular ducts should not be greater than ----- in any case
a) 8 b)10 c)12 d)16
Q-19: In designing ducts equal friction method is ideal
 a) Only for return ducts b) when the system is balanced c) when the system is
not balanced d) none of these
Q-20: Static regain method of designing the ducts as compared to equal friction method
a) Increases balancing problem
b) Increases cost of sheet metal for duct
c) decreases cost of sheet metal for duct
d) none of these
Q-21: The duct is made of
a) galvanized iron b) aluminium c) fibre glass d) any one of these
Q-22: If the velocity of air flowing through the duct V m/min, then the velocity pressure Pv in
mm
Of water is given by
a) (V/4.04)2 b) (V/40.4)2 c) (V/242.4)2 d) (V/2424)2
Q-23: The duct is said to be a low velocity duct if the velocity of air in the duct is up to
a) 600 m/min b) 800 m/min c) 1200 m/min d) 1600 m/min
Q-24:The capacity of a fan is ----------- cube of the impeller diameter
a) directly proportional to b) inversely proportional to c) eithr (a) or (b) d)none of
above
Q-25:The air at inlet of fan is -------- atmospheric pressure.
a) Above b) below c) equal to d) any one of these
Q-26: The temperature maintained in the brine tank of ice plant is
a) -100C b) -150C c) -180C d) -200C
Q-27:The commonly used refrigerant in the ice plant is
a) NH3 b) CO2 c) R-12 d) none of these
Q-28: The dry ice is produced by
a) Drying the ice b) Keeping ice in an insulated chamber c) by solidifying liquid CO2 d)
none of these
Q-29: --------- of sizing the ducts is usually adopted for very simple systems.
a) Velocity reduction method b) Equal friction method c) Static regain method d) any
of the above
Q-30: In an ice plant, the function of brine agitator is
a) To increases c.o.p b) to reduce compressor power c) to obtain uniform temperature
d)None of the above

Module VI

Q-1-The milk is stored at a temperature of

a) -50 C b) 40C c) 100C d) 120C
Q-2- The temperature maintained in the brine tank of ice plant is
a) -100 C b) -150C c) -180C d) -200C

Q-3-For air conditioning ,the operation theatre in a hospital , the recirculated air is
a) 100 % b) 75 % c) 50 % d) 25% e) 0%

Q-4-In ice plant, the brine is used for

a) Improving the cop b) Reducing the compressor power c) Obtaining uniform cooling
d) None of the above

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