CH 03

Package Title: Pratt & Cornely Test Bank
Course Title: Pratt & Cornely

Chapter Number: 3
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following is a characteristic of Chargaff’s rules?
A) A + T = C + G
B) A + G = C + T
C) A + G = C + U
D) all organisms have identical amounts of all four nucleotides
E) none of the above
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: 3-1
Learning Objective: Describe the structural features of DNA and RNA
2) A base found exclusively in DNA is _____ while _____ is found only in RNA.
A) adenine; cytosine
B) guanine; thymine
C) uracil; adenine
D) cytosine; guanine
E) thymine; uracil
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
3) The purines found in nucleic acids are _____ and _____.
A) adenine; cytosine
B) guanine; thymine
C) uracil; adenine
D) adenine; guanine
E) thymine; uracil
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
4) In DNA, the ribose derivative lacks an _____ on carbon _____.
A) alcohol; 2
B) alcohol; 3
C) amine; 2
D) amine; 3
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
5) Which of the following is correctly paired with its nucleoside?
A) adenine: adenylate
B) cytosine: cytidine diphosphate
C) guanine: guanosine
D) thymine: thymidylate
E) uridine: uridine triphosphate
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
6) The coenzymes known as NAD+, FAD and coenzyme A all contain a derivative of _____.
A) adenosine
B) cytidine
C) guanosine
D) thymidine
E) uridine
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
7) What type of bond is made between nucleotides?
A) ester
B) phosphate ester
C) phosphodiester
D) glycosidic
Answer: C
Difficulty: 1
8) The 5 end of a polynucleotide contains _____ while the 3 end contains _____.
A) a hydroxyl group; a phosphate group

B) a phosphate group; a hydroxyl group
C) a phosphate group; a phosphate group
D) a hydroxyl group; a hydroxyl group
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
9) The most common base pairs in DNA are _____ and _____.
A) A-T; A-G
B) G-C; C-A
C) T-A; A-U
D) C-G; T-A
E) G-U; A-T
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
10) An A-T base pair consists of _____ H-bond(s); a C-G base pair consists of _____ H-
bond(s).
A) 1; 2
B) 2; 1
C) 2; 2
D) 3; 2
E) 2; 3
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
11) Which of the following correctly describes the B-DNA double helix?
A) antiparallel strands
B) right-handed helix
C) base pairs are located in the center of the helix
D) one helical rotation has a rise of 3.4 nm
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
12) Differences in structure between a DNA helix and an RNA helix can predominantly be
attributed to the presence of _____ in RNA.
A) uracil
B) 2 hydroxyl group
C) 3 hydroxyl group
D) smaller sizes of RNA molecules
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
13) Which of the following non-covalent interactions is the most important in maintaining the
structure of the double helix?
A) phosphodiester bonds
B) hydrogen bonds
C) London dispersion forces
D) van der Waals interactions
E) ionic interactions
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
14) What term describes the process of converting the information found in DNA into the
sequence of a protein?
A) replication
B) transcription
C) translation
D) expression
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Summarize the biological roles of DNA and RNA
15) The DNA strand that serves as the template for the synthesis of RNA is often called the
_____.
A) coding strand
B) noncoding strand
C) messenger strand
D) transfer strand
E) transcription strand
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
16) If instead of four different bases in DNA and RNA, there were six, what is the minimum size
of a codon to encode the 20 amino acids commonly found in proteins?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) cannot be determined
Answer: B
Difficulty: Hard
17) The replication of DNA is made possible by the presence of _____ strands in the double
helix of DNA.
A) antiparallel
B) hydrogen bonded
C) complementary
D) genomic
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
18) Which of the following represents a DNA mutation in the template strand that would convert
serine to cysteine?
A) 5-GCT-3 to 5-GCA-3
B) 5-AGC-3 to 5-TGC-3
C) 5-AGC-3 to 5-UGC-3
D) 5-AGU-3 to 5-UGU-3
E) 5-TCG-3 to 5-TCC-3
Answer: A
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: Identify the types of information provided by genomic analysis
19) The triplet code allows many amino acids to be specified by more than one codon. Such a
code is said to be _____.
A) conclusive
B) elusive
C) replicative
D) recursive
E) degenerate
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
20) Bacteria and archaea typically have fewer than _____ genes while plants and animals
typically have greater than _____ genes.
A) 200; 1,000
B) 500; 2,500
C) 1,000; 5,000
D) 5,000; 10,000
E) 10,000; 100,000
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
21) What term is used to describe short segments of DNA that are copied many times and
inserted randomly in chromosomes?
A) moderately repetitive sequences

B) highly repetitive sequences
C) transposable elements
D) spliced sequences
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
22) An open reading frame is defined by _____.
A) a start and stop codon

B) homology with other species
C) placement on a genome map
D) presence of transposable elements
E) absence of highly repetitive sequences
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
23) The presence of _____ approximately once in every 1000 base pairs is what makes each
individual human genetically unique.
A) orphan genes
B) horizontal genes
C) homologous genes
D) transposable elements
E) single nucleotide polymorphisms
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
24) A genomic library _____.
A) contains only protein-coding DNA sequences

B) is built from mRNA by reverse transcription
C) is a storehouse of protein structures for a specific organism
D) contains all of an organism's DNA
E) is best constructed from very short DNA fragments
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
25) In humans, approximately _____ % of the genome encodes proteins.
A) 78
B) 45
C) 33
D) 11
E) 1.5
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
26) Incorporation of which of the following would result in chain termination during sequencing
of DNA?
A) dATP
B) dCTP
C) ddTTP
D) dGTP
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Describe the procedures used to study DNA
27) The results of DNA sequencing are obtained by first separating different sized pieces of
DNA using _____ followed by detection of the particular dideoxynucleotide using _____.
A) HPLC; NMR
B) HPLC; absorbance spectroscopy
C) electrophoresis; fluorescence spectroscopy
D) electrophoresis; x-ray crystallography
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
28) What reagents are required for the Sanger sequencing method?
A) template, primer, DNA polymerase, mRNA, dNTPs, ddNTP

B) template, primer, DNA polymerase, dNTPs, ddNTP
C) template, primer, DNA polymerase, rRNA, dNTPs, ddNTP
D) template, primer, DNA polymerase, mRNA, dNTPs
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
29) The most commonly used technique for making large numbers of copies of DNA is _____.
A) polymerase chain reaction

B) dideoxy sequencing
C) restriction digestion
D) genetic engineering
E) site-directed mutagenesis
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
30) Because of the high temperature _____ step during a PCR reaction, the DNA polymerase
from _____ is used.
A) primer extension; E. coli

B) strand separation; Thermus aquaticus
C) primer annealing; Thermus aquaticus
D) primer extension; bacteriophage 
E) strand separation; E. coli
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
31) What reagents are required to perform PCR?
A) DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, DNA polymerase
B) DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, ddNTPs, DNA polymerase
C) DNA fragment, one primer, dNTPs, DNA Polymerase, DNA ligase
D) DNA fragment, one primer, dNTPs, DNA Polymerase, DNA endonuclease
E) DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, DNA endonuclease
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
32) Which of the following represents the correct order of steps in a PCR reaction beginning
with double stranded DNA?
A) primer annealing, strand separation, primer extension

B) strand separation, primer extension, primer annealing
C) strand separation, primer annealing, primer extension
D) primer extension, primer annealing, strand separation
E) primer annealing, primer extension, strand separation
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
33) What technique that is commonly used in forensics relies upon PCR to examine segments of
repetitive DNA sequences?
A) cloning
B) transformation
C) DNA sequencing
D) DNA restriction
E) DNA fingerprinting
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
34) Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?
A) GAATTC
B) GATTAG
C) CATTAG
D) ATCCTA
E) GATATG
Answer: A
Difficulty: Hard
35) EcoRI recognizes the sequence 5-GAATTC-3 (the arrow indicates the point of cleavage).
Treatment of the following oligonucleotide with EcoRI would produce two oligonucleotides with
sizes of _____ nucleotides containing _____ ends.
5-AAGTCGATACAGAATTCGTACCTAG-3
A) 12 and 13; blunt

B) 12 and 8; blunt
C) 11 and 8; sticky
D) 12 and 13; sticky
E) 9 and 13; sticky
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
36) What term describes a small, circular molecule of DNA that can be used to transfer genetic
material from one organism to another?
A) plasmid
B) bacteriophage
C) clone
D) tRNA
E) splice
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
37) What term describes the production of multiple identical organisms from a single ancestor?
A) transcription
B) cloning
C) sequencing
D) phenotyping
E) ligation
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
38) What enzyme is required to form a new phosphodiester bond when inserting DNA into a
plasmid?
A) DNA polymerase
B) endonuclease
C) exonuclease
D) ligase
E) clonase
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
39) What technique involves addition of primers that do not exactly match the sequence of a
gene, thus allowing for introduction of a mutation?
A) cloning
B) transformation
C) site-directed mutagenesis
D) selection
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy

CH 03

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CH 03

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Package Title: Pratt & Cornely Test Bank

Course Title: Pratt & Cornely

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is a characteristic of Chargaff’s rules?

3) The purines found in nucleic acids are _____ and _____.

4) In DNA, the ribose derivative lacks an _____ on carbon _____.

5) Which of the following is correctly paired with its nucleoside?

7) What type of bond is made between nucleotides?

A) a hydroxyl group; a phosphate group

A) moderately repetitive sequences

22) An open reading frame is defined by _____.

A) a start and stop codon

24) A genomic library _____.

A) contains only protein-coding DNA sequences

25) In humans, approximately _____ % of the genome encodes proteins.

A) template, primer, DNA polymerase, mRNA, dNTPs, ddNTP

A) polymerase chain reaction

A) primer extension; E. coli

31) What reagents are required to perform PCR?

A) primer annealing, strand separation, primer extension

34) Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?

A) 12 and 13; blunt

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3) The purines found in nucleic acids are _ and _.

4) In DNA, the ribose derivative lacks an _ on carbon _.