A PERSON IS REQUIRED BEFORE HE
HOLDS HIMSELF OUT TO THE PUBLIC
AS CRIMINOLOGIST TO PASS AN
EXAMINATION GIVEN BY THE BOARD
OF EXAMINERS FOR
CRIMINOLOGISTS.
THE EXAMINATION SHALL COVER
THE FOLLOWING SUBJECTS:
1. LAW ENFORCEMENT
ADMINISTRATION
A. POLICE ORGANIZATION AND
ADMINISTRATION WITH POLICE
PLANNING
POLICE - one of the pillars of the criminal
justice system that has the specific responsibility
of maintaining law and order and combating
crime within the society.
- comes from Latin "politia"-civil administration
which itself derives from the ancient Greek
police "city"
ADMINISTRATION - an organizational
process concerned with the implementation of
objectives and plans and internal operating
efficiency.
ORGANIZATION - a group of persons
working together for a common goal or
objectives.
POLICE ORGANIZATION - a group of
trained personnel in the field of public safety
administration engaged in the achievement of
goals and objectives that promotes the
maintenance of peace and order, protection of
life and property, enforcement of the laws and
the prevention of crimes.
ENFORCEMENT - means to compel
obedience to a law, regulation or command.
LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCY - pertains
to an organization responsible for enforcing the
laws.
OBJECTIVES - refer to the purpose by which
the organization was created. Refer to the goals
of the organization.
SUPERVISION - means the act of watching
over the work or tasks of the members of the
organization to ensure that desired results are
achieved.
MANAGEMENT - the process of directing and
facilitating the work of people organized in
formal groups in order to achieve objectives.
Judicious or wise use of resources (manpower,
material,money,equipment, supplies and time).
HIERARCHY - represents the formal
relationship among superiors and subordinates
in any given organization. Serves as the
framework for the flow of authority downward
and obedience upward, through the department.
AUTHORITY - the right to command and
control the behavior of employees in lower
positions within an organizational hierarchy.
Must be viewed in terms of prescribed roles
rather than of individuals.
A particular position within the organization.
Carries the same regardless of who occupies that
position.
MANAGEMENT/ADMINISTRATIVE
FUNCTIONS
1. Planning
2. Organizing
3. Directing
4. Controlling
5. staffing
6. Reporting
7. Budgeting
PRINCIPLES OF EFFICIENT
MANAGEMENT
DIVISION OF WORK - work specialization
can increase efficiency with the same amount of
effort. AUTHORITY AND
RESPONSIBILITY- authority includes the
right to command and the power to require
obedience. One can not have authority without
responsibility.
DISCIPLINE - necessary for an organization to
function effectively, however, the state of the
disciplinary process depends upon the quality of
its leaders.
UNITY OF COMMAND - subordinate should
receive orders from one superior only.
SCALAR CHAIN - the hierarchy of authority
is the order of ranks from the highest to the
lowest levels of the organization. Shows the
vertical hierarchy of the organization which
defines an unbroken chain of units from top to
bottom describing explicitly the flow of
authority.
ORGANIZATIONAL UNITS IN THE
POLICE ORGANIZATION
1. FUNCTIONAL UNITS
BUREAU - the largest organic functional unit
within a large department; comprised of several
divisions.
DIVISION - a primary subdivision of a bureau.
SECTION - functional unit within a division
that is necessary for specialization.
UNIT - functional group within a section or the
smallest functional group within an
organization.
2. TERRITORIAL UNITS
POST - a fixed point or location to which an
officer is assigned for duty.
ROUTE - a length of streets designated for
patrol purpose, also called line beat.
BEAT - an area designed for patrol purposes
whether foot or motorized.
SECTOR - an area containing two or more
beat, route or post.
DISTRICT - a geographical subdivision of a
city for patrol purposes, usually with its own
station.
AREA - a section or territorial division of a
large city each comprised of designated districts.
EVOLUTION OF THE POLICING
SYSTEM ORIGIN OF THE WORD
“POLICE”
POLITEIA – Greek word which means
government of the city
POLITIA – Roman word which means
condition of the state or government
POLICE – French word which was later
adopted by the English language
THEORIES OF POLICE SERVICE
1.  HOME RULE THEORY
- policemen are regarded as servants of the
community, who rely for the efficiency of their
functions upon the express needs of the people.
- policemen are civil servants whose key duty is
the preservation of public peace and security.  
2. CONTINENTAL THEORY
- policemen are regarded as state or servants of
the higher authorities
- the people have no share or have little
participation with the duties nor connection with
the police organization.
CONCEPTS OF POLICE SERVICE
1. OLD CONCEPT
- police service gives the impression of being
merely a suppressive machinery
- this philosophy advocates that the
measurement of police competence is the
increasing number of arrests, throwing offenders
in detention facilities rather than trying to
prevent them from committing crimes
2. MODERN CONCEPT
- regards police as the first line of defense of the
criminal justice system, an organ of crime
prevention
- police efficiency is measured by the decreasing
number of crimes
- broadens police activities to cater to social
services and has for its mission the welfare of
the individual as well as that of the community
in general.
EARLY POLICING SYSTEM
1. KIN POLICING
- the family of the offended individual was
expected to assume responsibility for justice
- the family of the victim was allowed to exact
vengeance
2. EGYPT
- ancient rulers had elite unit to protect them
- created the MEDJAYS, a form of police force
whose duties include guarding of the tombs and
apprehending thieves
- introduced the use of dogs as guards and
protectors.
3. ROME
- created the first organized police force called
VIGILES OF ROME, or VIGILES URBANI
(watchmen of the city), which had the primary
task of firefighting and policing
- the Vigiles acted as night watch, apprehending
thieves, keeping an eye out for burglars and
hunting down runaway slaves, and were on
occasion used to maintain order in the streets
- the Vigiles dealt primarily with petty crimes
and looked for disturbances of the peace while
they patrolled the streets
- created a special unit called PRAETORIAN
GUARDS, a special force of guards used by
Roman Emperors as the Emperors' personal
guards
- as personal guards of the Emperor, their
primary duty was to protect the Emperor from
assassination and other forms of attack against
the Emperor.
4. ENGLAND
a) FRANKPLEDGE SYSTEM/MUTUAL
PLEDGE SYSTEM
- required all males aged 12 and above to join a
group of nine to form a TYTHING
- members of the tything are called a
TYTHINGMEN
- a CONSTABLE served as a leader of ten
tythings
- the primary task of the things was to protect
their village from thieves and animals
- tythings were later organized into SHIRES
- a shire was headed by a leader called SHIRE
REEVE, which is the origin of the word
“sheriff”
- their duty was to apprehend offenders
b) PARISH CONSTABLES
- a parish official charged with controlling
crimes
- appointed to serve for one year
- duties included organizing watchmen to guard
the gates
- during trouble, the watchman would raise a
“HUE AND CRY”, a call to arms where the rest
of the parish would stop what they were doing
and come to the aid of the constable.
MODERN POLICING SYSTEM
1) ENGLAND
a. BOWSTREET RUNNERS - a group of men
organized to arrest offenders.
- organized by Henry Fielding, a magistrate
in London,in 1749 in London, England.
- the name was adopted from the name of the
street where the office of Henry Fielding was
located.
- when Henry Fielding retired as magistrate, he
was replaced by his blind brother, John Fielding
b. METROPOLITAN POLICE OF ACT
1829
- the law that created the first modern police
force in London England, called the
Metropolitan Police Service.
- this law was passed through the initiative of
Sir Robert Peel, a member of the Parliament
- the headquarters of the Metropolitan Police
Service is the Scotland Yard, now known as the
New Scotland Yard
SIR ROBERT PEEL - recognized as the father
of modern policing system.
2. UNITED STATES OF AMERICA
a. NEW YORK POLICE DEPARTMENT
- created in 1845 in New York, USA
- recognized as the first modern style
police department in the US.
- the largest police force in the world
- modeled after the Metropolitan Police Service
of London
b. BOSTON POLICE DEPARTMENT
- the oldest police department in the US
- the first night watch was established in Boston
in 1631.
- formally founded in May, 1854.
AUGUST VOLLMER - recognized as the
Father of Modern Law Enforcement for his
contributions in the development of the field of
criminal justice in the US
- author of the book, Police Administration,
which served as the basic guide in the
administration of the police organization in the
US
- was the first police chief of Berkeley,
California.
IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES IN THE
EVOLUTION OF PHILIPPINE POLICING
BRIG.GEN. RAFAEL CRAME - the first
Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary in
1917.
COL. ANTONIO TORRES - the first Filipino
Chief of Police of the Manila Police Department
in 1935.
COL. LAMBERT JAVALERA -  the first
chief of police of the Manila Police Department
after the Philippine Independence from the
United States of America in 1946
DIR.GEN. CESAR NAZARENO - the first
chief of the Philippine National Police.
HIGHLIGHTS OF RA 6975 – THE
DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR AND
LOCAL GOVERNMENT ACT OF 1990, RA
8551 – THE PHILIPPINE NATIONAL
POLICE REFORM AND
REORGANIZATION ACT OF 1998 and RA
9708
A. THE DEPARTMENT OF THE
INTERIOR AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT
(DILG)
- formerly Department of Local Government
(DLG)
- reorganized under RA 6975
ORGANIZATION: - consist of:
a) the Department proper
b) existing bureaus and offices of the DLG
c) local government units (LGU)
1) provincial governors
2) city and municipal mayors
d) the National Police Commission
e) the Philippine Public Safety College
f) Philippine National Police
g) Bureau of Fire Protection
h) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
- the PPSC, PNP, BFP and BJMP were created
under RA 6975
- headed by the Secretary to be appointed by the
President and who shall serve at the pleasure of
the President
- the Secretary shall be assisted by two (2)
Undersecretaries and three (3) Assistant
Secretaries
a) Undersecretary for Local Government
b) Undersecretary for Peace and Order
- No retired or resigned military officer or police
official may be appointed as Secretary within
one (1) year from date of retirement or
resignation
- the Secretary is also the ex officio chairman of
the National Police Commission
 
POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE
DILG
1. Assist the President in the exercise of general
supervision over local governments;
2. Advise the President in the promulgation of
policies, rules, regulations and other issuances
on the general supervision over local
governments and on public order and safety;
3. Establish and prescribe rules, regulations and
other issuance's implementing laws on public
order and safety, the general supervision over
local  governments and the promotion of local
autonomy and community empowerment and
monitor compliance thereof;
4. Provide assistance towards legislation
regarding local governments, law enforcement
and public safety; Establish and prescribe plans,
policies, programs and projects to promote
peace and order, ensure public safety and further
strengthen the administrative, technical and
fiscal capabilities of local government offices
and personnel;
5. Formulate plans, policies and programs which
will meet local emergencies arising from natural
and man-made disasters; Establish a system of
coordination and cooperation among the
citizenry, local executives and the Department,
to ensure effective and efficient delivery of
basic services to the public;
6. Organize, train and equip primarily for the
performance of police functions, a police force
that is national in scope and civilian in
character.
RELATIONSHIP OF THE DILG WITH
THE DEPARTMENT OF NATIONAL
DEFENSE (DND)
- under RA 6975, the Armed Forces of the
Philippine (AFP) was in charge with external
security while the DILG was in charge with
internal security
- under RA 8551, the Armed Forces of the
Philippines is now in charge with both internal
and external security with the PNP as support
through information gathering and performance
of ordinary police functions.
NATIONAL POLICE COMMISSION
- an agency attached to the DILG for policy
coordination
- shall exercise administrative control and
operational supervision over the PNP.
VISION OF THE NAPOLCOM
"We envision the National Police Commission
as a highly dynamic, committed and responsive
administering and controlling body, actively and
effectively facilitating the evolvement of a
highly professional, competent, disciplined,
credible and trustworthy PNP"
MISSION OF THE NAPOLCOM
"To administer and control the Philippine
National Police with the end in view of
maintaining a highly professional, competent,
disciplined, credible and trustworthy PNP”
POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE
NAPOLCOM
A. Exercise administrative control and
operational supervision over the Philippine
National Police (PNP) which shall mean the
power to:
1. Develop policies and promulgate a police
manual prescribing rules and regulations for
efficient organization, administration, and
operation, including criteria for manpower
allocation distribution and deployment,
recruitment, selection, promotion, and
retirement of personnel and the conduct of
qualifying entrance and promotional
examinations for uniformed members;
2. Examine and audit, and thereafter
establish standards for such purposes on a
continuing basis, the performance,activities, and
facilities of all police agencies throughout the
country;
3. Establish a system of uniform crime
reporting;
4. Conduct annual self-report surveys and
compile statistical data for accurate assessment
of the crime situation and the proper evaluation
of the efficiency and effectiveness of all police
units in the country;
5. Approve or modify plans and programs on
education and training, logistical requirements,
communications, records,information systems,
crime laboratory, crime prevention and crime
reporting;
6. Affirm, reverse or modify, through the
National Appellate Board, personnel
administrative actions involving the demotion or
dismissal from the service imposed upon
members of the Philippine National Police by
the Chief of the Philippine National Police;
7. Exercise appellate jurisdiction through the
Regional Appellate Boards, over administrative
cases against policemen and over decisions on
claims for police benefits;
8. Prescribe minimum standards for arms,
equipment, and uniforms and, after consultation
with the Philippine Heraldry Commission, for
insignia of ranks, awards, medals of honor;
9. Issue subpoena and subpoena duces tecum
in matters pertaining to the discharge of its own
powers and duties,and designate who among
its personnel can issue processes and administer
oaths in connection therewith;
10. Inspect and assess the compliance of the
PNP on the established criteria for manpower
allocation, distribution and deployment and their
impact on the community and the crime
situation, and thereafter formulate appropriate
guidelines for maximization of resources and
effective utilization of the PNP personnel;
11. Monitor the performance of the local chief
executives as deputies of the Commission; and
12. Monitor and investigate police anomalies
and irregularities.
B. Advise the President on all matters involving
police functions and administration;
C. Render to the President and to Congress an
annual report of its activities and
accomplishments during the thirty (30)days after
the end of the calendar year,  which shall
include an appraisal of the conditions obtaining
in the organization and administration of  police
agencies in the municipalities, cities and
provinces throughout the country,
and recommendations for appropriate remedial
legislations;
D. Recommend to the President, through the
Secretary, within sixty (60) days before the
commencement of each calendar year, a crime
prevention program; and
E. Perform such other functions necessary to
carry out the provisions of R.A. 6975, as
amended, other existing laws and Presidential
issuance's, and as the President may direct.
COMPOSITION OF NAPOLCOM
1. One chairperson
2. Four regular commissioner
3. The Chief PNP as ex officio member
NOTE:
* shall serve a term of office of six (6) years
without reappointment or extension
* three of the four regular commissioners shall
come from civilian sector and not former
members of the police or military
* the fourth regular commissioner shall come
from the law enforcement sector either active or
retired
* at least one (1) of the four regular
commissioners shall be a woman
* from among the three regular commissioners
from the civilian sector, the Vice Chairperson
shall be chosen
* the Vice Chairperson shall act as the
Executive Officer of the Commission
* refer to the organizational structure of the
NAPOLCOM
IMPORTANT DATES IN THE HISTORY
OF MODERN PHILIPPINE POLICING
1901 - ACT no. 175 of the Philippine
Commission established the Philippine
constabulary on august 8, 1901.
1905 - the Philippine constabulary school was
established at the sta.lucia barracks in
Intramuros on February 17, 1905.
1908 - the Philippine constabulary school was
transferred to Baguio City.
1916 - the Philippine constabulary school was
renamed academy for officers of the Philippine
constabulary.
1917 - on December 17, 1917, Brigadier
General Rafael Crame from Rizal Province,
became the first Filipino chief of the Philippine
constabulary.
1926 - the academy for officers of the Philippine
constabulary was renamed Philippine
Constabulary Academy.
1936 - the Philippine Constabulary Academy
became the present day Philippine Military
Academy. 
1938 - The Philippine Constabulary became the
existing and organized national police force of
the country pursuant to commonwealth act no.
343 dated June 23, 1938 and EO no. 389 dated
December 23, 1950. This decree integrated local
police forces into the Philippines constabulary
operational and organizational set up.
1966 - congress enacted RA no. 4864, the police
act of 1966. This law also created the Police
Commission (POLCOM).
1972 - The POLCOM was reorganized as the
National Police Commission.
1975 - PD 765 was enacted. This law is called
the Police Integration Law of  1975. The
Integrated National Police was established with
the Philippine Constabulary as nucleus under
the Department of national Defense. The
NAPOLCOM, originally under the office of the
President was transferred to the Ministry of
National defense.
1985 - The National Police Commission was
returned to the office of the President pursuant
to E.O 1040.
1989 - Executive order 379 placed the
Integrated national Police directly under the
command, supervision and control of the
President. This order vested the NAPOLCOM
with the powers of administrative control and
supervision over the Integrated National Police.
1990 - RA 6975 was passed on December 13,
1990 establishing the Philippine National Police
under a reorganized Department of the Interior
and Local Government (DILG). A new National
Police Commission was created under the
DILG.
1998 - congress passed into law RA no. 8551 on
February 25, 1998, otherwise known as the
Philippine National Police reform and
reorganization act of 1998. This act
strengthened and expanded NAPOLCOM,s
authority over the PNP to include administration
of police entrance examination and conduct pre-
charge investigation against police anomalies
and irregularities and summary dismissal of
erring police members.
FUNCTIONS IN A POLICE
ORGANIZATION
1. PRIMARY OR LINE FUNCTIONS
- functions that carry out the major purposes of
the organization, delivering the services and
dealing directly with the public
- the backbone of the police department
- examples of the line functions of the police are
patrolling, traffic duties, crime investigation
2. STAFF/ADMINISTRATIVE
FUNCTIONS
- functions that are designed to support the line
functions and assist in the performance of the
line functions
- examples of the staff functions of the police
are planning, research, budgeting and legal
advice
3. AUXILIARY FUNCTIONS
- functions involving the logistical operations of
the organization
- examples are training, communication,
maintenance, records management, supplies and
equipment management
ORGANIC UNITS IN A POLICE
ORGANIZATION
1. OPERATIONAL UNITS
- those that perform primary or line functions
- examples are patrol, traffic, investigation and
vice control,
2. ADMINISTRATIVE UNITS
- those that perform the administrative functions
examples are personnel, finance, planning and
training.
3. SERVICE UNITS
- those that perform auxiliary functions
- examples are communication, records
management, supplies.
ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTURE
- the systematic arrangement of the relationship
of   the members, positions, departments and
functions or work of the organization
- it is comprised of functions, relationships,
responsibilities and authorities of individuals
within the organization
KINDS OF ORGANIZATIONAL
STRUCTURES
1. LINE
- the oldest and simplest kind; also called
military
- defined by its clear chain of command from
the highest to the lowest and vice versa
- depicts the line functions of the organization
- orders or commands must come from the
higher l level of authority before it can be
carried out
- involves few departments
2. FUNCTIONAL
- structure according to functions and
specialized units
- depicts staff functions of the organization
- responsibilities are divided among authorities
who are all accountable to the authority above.
3. LINE AND STAFF
- a combination of the line and functional kind
- combines the flow of information from the line
structure with the staff departments that service,
advise, and support them
- generally more formal in nature and has many
departments
ORGANIZATIONAL PRINCIPLES FOUR
PRIMAL CONDITIONS OF AN
ORGANIZATION
1. AUTHORITY
- the supreme source of government for any
particular organization
- the right to exercise, to decide and to
command by virtue of rank and position
2. MUTUAL COOPERATION
- an organization exists because it serves
a purpose.
3. DOCTRINE
- provides for the organization’s objectives
- provides the various actions, hence, policies,
procedures, rules and regulations of the org. are
based on the statement of doctrines
4. DISCIPLINE
- comprising behavioral regulations
ELEMENTS OF POLICE
ORGANIZATION
1. UNITY OF COMMAND
- dictates that there should only be ONE MAN
commanding the unit to ensure uniformity in the
execution of orders
2. SPAN OF CONTROL
- the maximum number of subordinates that a
superior can effectively supervise
FACTORS AFFECTING THE SPAN OF
CONTROL:
a) Leadership qualities of the supervisors
b) Nature of the job and work conditions
c) Complexity of task
d) Education and skill of the employees
3. DELEGATION OF AUTHORITY
- conferring of an amount of authority by a
superior position to a lower-level position.
4. HIERARCHY OF AUTHORITY
- the relationship between superiors and
subordinates
- serves as the framework for the flow of
authority downward and obedience upward
through the
  department
HIERARCHY - represents the formal
relationship among superiors and subordinates
in any given organization
5. SPECIALIZATION
- the assignment of particular personnel to
particular tasks
SPECIALIZATION OF JOBS (AREAS OF
SPECIALIZATION)
- the designation of certain activities or tasks as
ones that must be performed in a highly.
  technological, scientific or precise manner
- areas of police specialization include
undercover works, crime scene operations, legal
advising, computer work, SWAT operations and
others
SPECIALIZATION OF PEOPLE
(SPECIALISTS)
- the designation of particular persons as having
expertise in a specific area of work
- signifies the adaptation of an individual to the
requirements through extensive training
6. CHAIN OF COMMAND
- the arrangement of officers from top to bottom
on the basis of rank or position and authority.
7. COMMAND RESPONSIBILITY
- dictates that immediate commanders shall be
responsible for the effective supervision and   
control.
BRIEF HISTORY OF THE PHILIPPINE
POLICING SYSTEM
The institution of police in the Philippines
formally started during the Spanish period. The
establishment of the police force was not
entirely intended for crime prevention nor
peacekeeping. Rather, it was created as an
extension of the colonial military establishment.
ANCIENT ROOTS
The forerunner of the contemporary police
system was the practice of barangay chieftains
to select able-bodied young men to protect their
barangay during the night and were not required
to work in the fields during daytime.Among the
duties of those selected were to protect the
properties of the people in the barangay and
protect their crops and livestock from wild
animals.
SPANISH PERIOD
CARABINEROS DE SEGURIDAD
PUBLICA – organized in 1712 for the purpose
of carrying the regulations of the Department of
State; this was armed and considered as the
mounted police; years after, this kind of police
organization discharged the duties of a port,
harbor and river police.
GUARDRILLEROS/CUARDILLO – this was
a body of rural police by the Royal Decree of 18
January 1836, this decree provided that 5% of
the able-bodied male inhabitants of each
province were to be enlisted in this police
organization for three years
GUARDIA CIVIL – this was created by a
Royal Decree issued by the Crown on 12
February 1852 to partially relieve the Spanish
Peninsular troops of their work in policing
towns,it consisted of a body of Filipino
policemen organized originally in each of the
provincial capitals of the central provinces of
Luzon under the Alcalde Mayor
AMERICAN PERIOD
The Americans established the United States
Philippine Commission headed by General
Howard Taft as its first governor-general. On
January 9, 1901, the Metropolitan Police Force
of Manila was organized pursuant to Act No
70of the Taft Commission. This has become the
basis for the celebration of the anniversary of
the Manila’s Finest every January 9th.
ACT NO 175 – entitled “An Act Providing for
the Organization and Government of an Insular
Constabulary”,enacted on July 18, 1901.
HENRY T. ALLEN - Captain of the 6th US
cavalry, a graduate of West Point class 1882.
Father of the Philippine Constabulary.The first
chief of the Philippine Constabulary in 1901.
ACT NO 183 - created the Manila Police
Department, enacted on July 31, 1901.
CAPT GEORGE CURRY - the first chief of
police of the Manila Police Department in 1901.
ACT NO 255 – the act that renamed the Insular
Constabulary into Philippine Constabulary,
enacted on October 3, 1901
EXECUTIVE ORDER 389 – ordered that the
Philippine Constabulary be one of the four
services of the Armed Forces of the Philippines,
enacted on December 23, 1940.
POST-AMERICAN PERIOD
RA 4864 – otherwise known as the Police
Professionalization Act of 1966, enacted on
September 8, 1966; created the Police
Commission (POLCOM) as a supervisory
agency to oversee the training and
professionalization of the local police forces
under the Office of the President; later
POLCOM was renamed into National Police
Commission (NAPOLCOM).
MARTIAL LAW PERIOD
PD 765 – otherwise known as the Integration
Act of 1975,enacted on August 8, 1975;
established the Integrated National Police (INP)
composed of the Philippine Constabulary (PC)
as the nucleus and the integrated local police
forces as components, under the Ministry of
National Defense
- transferred the NAPOLCOM from the Office
of the President to the Ministry of National
Defense
POST MARTIAL LAW REGIME
EXECUTIVE ORDER NO 1012 – transferred
to the city and municipal government the
operational subdivision of the patrol operation bureau.
supervision and direction over all INP units 5.POST - Fixed geographic location
assigned within their locality; issued on July 10, usually assigned to an individual officer.
1985 6.SHIFT - one of several tours of duty.
EXECUTIVE ORDER NO 1040 – transferred 7.BEAT - the primary subdivision of a
the administrative control and supervision of the sector.
INP 8.SECTOR - the primary geographic
from the Ministry of National Defense to the subdivision of a precinct.
National Police Commission 9.UNIT - subdivision of a section.
RA 6975 – otherwise known as the Department 10.SQUAD - a subdivision of a unit.
of the Interior and Local Government Act of 11.DETAIL - a subdivision of a squad.
1990, enacted on December 13,1990; 12.SECTION - a primary subdivision of a
reorganized the DILG and established the bureau with a department wide
Philippine National Police, Bureau of Fire responsibility for providing a specific
Protection, Bureau of Jail Management and specialized functions.
Penology and the Philippine Public Safety
College.
RA 8551 – otherwise known as the Philippine
National Police Reform and Reorganization Act
of 1998, enacted on February 25, 1998; this law
amended certain provisions of RA 6975.
RA 9708 - law amending the provisions of RA
6975 and RA 8551 on the minimum educational
qualification for appointment to the PNP and
adjusting the promotion system; approved on 12
August 2009.
- An Act extending for five (5) years the
reglementary  period for complying with the
minimum educational qualification for
appointment to the PNP and adjusting the
promotion system thereof,amending for the
purpose pertinent provisions of RA 6975 and
RA 8551 and for other purposes.
                                                                
MEMORIZE THE FOLLOWING:
1.ORGANIZE - it means planning the
work of the department and of the
personnel in an orderly manner.
2.OVERSEE - It means that the supervisor
ensures that the work that has been
organized and delegated is satisfactorily
completed.
3.DELEGATE - It means giving someone
else the responsibility and authority to do
something.
4.PRECINCT - the primary geographic
 large city each composed of designated
districts.
NOTE: BEAT - an area designated for patrol
MANDATORY PROMOTIONAL purposes whether on foot or motorized.
REQUIREMENT BUREAU - largest organic unit within a
1. Educational Attainment large department.
2. Time in Grade COMMANDING OFFICER- an officer
3. Eligibility who is in command of the department, a
4. Mandatory Training Requirement bureau, a division, an area, or a district.
5. Performance Evaluation Rating DEPARTMENT RULES - rules
6. Awards and Commendations Received established by department directors\
7. Clearances superiors to control the conduct of the
members of the police force.
MANDATORY TRAINING DISTRICT - a geographical subdivision of
REQUIREMENT a city for patrol purposes usually with its
1. SENIOR SUPERINTENDENT - own station.
GSC (General Staff Course, MNSA, or DIVISION - a primary subdivision of a
MPSA (Master in Public Safety bureau.
Administration) DUTY MANUAL - describes the
2. SUPERINTENDENT - OSEC procedures and defines the duties of
(Officer Senior Executive Course) officers assigned to specified post or
3. CHIEF INSPECTOR - Officer position.
Advance Course FORMAL ORGANIZATION - is defined
4. SENIOR INSPECTOR - Officer as those organizations that are formally
Basic Course established for explicit purpose of
5. INSPECTOR - Officer Candidate achieving certain goals.
Course FUNCTIONAL ORGANIZATION - The
6. SPO3 TO SPO4 - Senior Leadership functional responsibility of each functional
Course manager is limited to the particular activity
7. SPO1 TO SPO2 - Basic leadership over which he has control, regardless of
Course who performs the function.
8. PO2  TO  PO3 - Public safety Basic HENRY ALLEN - a captain, first chief of
Course the constabulary.
INFORMAL ORGANIZATION - are
Performance Evaluation Rating - made by those sharing the basic characteristic of all
supervisor twice a year. January to June, organizations arise through the social
July to December interactions of individuals or through
5 - Outstanding family grouping.
4 - Very Satisfactory LEAVE OF ABSENCE- period, which an
3 - Satisfactory officer is excused from active duty by any
2 - Fair valid reason, approved by higher authority.
1 - Poor LENGTH OF SERVICE- the period of
ADMINISTRATION OF POLICE time that has elapsed since the oath of
ORGANIZATION DEFINITION OF office was administered.Previous active
TERMS services may be included or added.
LINE ORGANIZATION -  is the simplest
AREA - a section or territorial division of a
and the oldest types of organization where
responsibility extends in a direct line from
top to bottom within the structures and
authority is definite and absolute.
LINE AND STAFF ORGANIZATION is
a combination of the line and functional
types.
OFF DUTY - the nature of which the
police officer is free from specific routine
duty.
ON DUTY - the period when an officer is
actively engaged in the performance of his
duty.
ORDER – an instruction given by a
ranking officer to a subordinate
ORGANIZATION - It is a form of human
association for the attainment of goal or
objective.
PATROL OFFICER - is the backbone of
the police department.
PD 765 - created the PC-INP.
POLICE - is a branch of the criminal
justice system that has the specific
responsibility of maintaining law and order
and combating crime within the society.
POLICE ORGANIZATION - is a group
of trained personnel in the field of public
safety administration engaged in the
achievement of goals and objectives that
promotes the maintenance of crimes.
POST - a fixed point or location to which
an officer is assigned for duty, such as a
designated desk or office or an intersection
or cross walk from traffic duty.It is a spot
location for general guard duty.
RANKING OFFICER- the officer who
has the senior rank in a team or group.
RA 4864 - established Napolcom.Known
as police act of 1966.
RAFAEL CRAME - first filipini chief of
the constabulary.
REPORT - usually a written
communication unless otherwise specifies
to be verbal reports; verbalreports should
be confirmed by written communication.
ROUTE - (line beat) a length of street
designated for patrol purposes. 
SECTION - functional units within a
division.
SECTOR - an area containing two or more
beat, route, or post.
SICK LEAVE - period which an officer is
excused from active duty by reason of
illness or injury.
SPECIAL DUTY - the police service, its
nature, which requires that the officer be
excused from the performance of his active
regular duty.
SUPERIOR OFFICER- one having
supervisory responsibilities, either
temporarily or permanently, over officers
of lower rank.
SUSPENSION - a consequence of an act
which temporarily deprives an officer from
the privilege of performing his duties as
result of violating directives or other
department regulations.
SWORN OFFICERS - all personnel of the
police department who have taken oath and
who posses the power to arrest.
UNIT - functional group within a section;
or the smallest functional group within an
organization.
PATROL ORGANIZATION AND
OPERATION
PATROL - from french patrouiller - to
paddle, paw about, patrol.
- keep watch over an area by regularly
walking or traveling around or through it.
- a person or group of people sent to keep
watch over an area.
PATROL OFFICERS - are uniformed
officers assigned to monitor specific
geographical areas, that is to move through
their areas at regular intervals looking out
for any signs of problems of any kind.
HISTORY OF PATROL
1. ANCIENT CHINA - law enforcement
was carried out by prefect. Prefects were
government officials appointed by local
magistrates who reported to higher
authorities such as the governors who in
turn were appointed by head of state
usually the emperor of the dynasty.
2. ANCIENT GREECE - publicly owned
slaves were used by magistrates as police.In
Athens, a group of 300 Scythian slaves
(rod-bearers) was used to guard public
meetings to keep order and for crowd
control and also assisted with dealing with
criminal, handling prisoners and making
arrests.
3. ROMAN EMPIRE - the army rather
than a dedicated police organization
provided security. Local watchmen were
hired by cities to provide some extra
security.Magistrates such as procurators,
fiscals and quaestros investigated crime.
Under the reign of Augustus, 14 wards
were created, the wards were protected by
seven squads of 1000 men called vigiles
who acted as  firemen and night watchmen.
Their duties included apprehending thieves
and robbers and capturing run away slaves.
The vigiles were supported by the urban
cohorts who acted as a heavy duty riot
force and praetorian guard if necessary.
PRAETORIAN GUARD - bodyguards
used by roman emperors.
URBAN COHORTS - were created by
Augustus to counter balance the enormous
power of the praetorian guard in the city of
Rome and serve as the police force.
VIGILES - (watchmen of the city) - were
the firefighters and police of ancient Rome.
WARD - a subdivision of a municipality.
4. MEDIEVAL ENGLAND - the Anglo-
Saxon system of maintaining public order
since the Norman conquest was a private
system of tithing, led by a constable to
enforce the law.
TITHING - was a grouping of 10
households.
CONSTABLE - is a person holding a
particular office most commonly in law
enforcement. The office of constable can
vary significantly in different jurisdiction.
5. SPAIN - modern police in Europe has a
precedent in the Hermandus or
(brotherhood) - peace keeping association
of individuals, a characteristic of municipal
life in medieval Spain. The first recorded
case of the formation of the hermandad
occurred when the towns and the peasantry
of the north united to police the pilgrim
road to Santiago de compostela in galicia
and protect the pilgrims against robber
knights.
6. FRANCE - The first police force in the
modern sense was created by the
government of king Louis XIV in 1667 to
police the city of Paris, then the largest city
in Europe.
   
7. BRITAIN AND IRELAND - in
England, a system of sheriffs, reeves and
investigative   juries to provide basic
security and law enforcement.
SHERIFF - is a contraction of the term
"shire-reeve" - designated a royal official
responsible for keeping the peace through
out  a shire or county on behalf of the king.
REEVE - a senior official with local
responsibilities under the crown. ex., chief
magistrate of a town or district.
SHIRE - traditional term for a division of
land in the UK and Australia.
JURY - is a sworn body of people
convened to render impartial verdict
officially submitted to them by a court or to
set a penalty or judgement.
THIEF TAKER - a private individual
hired to capture criminal.
BOW STREET RUNNERS - London's
first professional police force.
HENRY FIELDING - a magistrate
educated at Elton college who founded the
Bow street runners originally numbered just
six.
STATUTE OF WINCHESTER - in 1285,
obliged the authorities of every town to
keep a watch at the city gates and arrest all
suspicious night walkers.
SIR ROBERT PEEL - prime minister of
England from Dec. 1834 to April 1835 and
again From Aug.1841 to June 1846. While
home secretary, help create the modern
concept of the police force leading to
officers being known as bobbies in England
and peelers in Ireland.
PATRICK COLQUHOUN - (1745 -
1820) - a Scottish merchant and a
magistrate who founded the first regular
preventive police force in England, the
Thames river police.
8. IN THE US - the first city police
services were established in Philadelphia in
1751, Boston 1838 and new york 1845.
AUGUST VOLLMER - first police chief
of Berkeley California. He is sometimes
called the father of modern law
enforcement in the US.
1. He was the first chief to require
that police officers attain college degrees.
2. First police chief to create a motorized
force placing officers on   motorcycles and
cars so that they could patrol broader areas
with greater efficiency .     to the community.
3. He was also the first to use the lie
detector in police work.
O.W. WILSON - studied under August
Vollmer. Became Chief of Police of the
Fullerton department. He also became chief
of police of the Wichita police department.
He introduced the following reforms and
innovations:
requires new policeman to have college
education.
use of police car for patrol, mobile radios
and use of a mobile crime laboratory.
he believe that the use of a two way radio
allowed better supervision of patrol
officers.
WHAT ARE THE 3 MAIN TASK OF
SUPERVISION?
1. ORGANIZE - means planning the work
of the department and of the personnel in
an orderly manner.
2. DELEGATE - means giving someone
else the responsibility and authority to do
something. The supervisor confers upon a
subordinate officer the same authority and
responsibility that the supervisor possesses
to accomplish the specific task The
supervisor remain responsible for the
completion of the delegated task.
3. OVERSEE - means that the supervisor
ensures that the work that has been
organized and delegated is satisfactorily
completed.
COMMUNITY POLICING - is the
process by which an organized group of
citizens devoted a time to crime prevention
within a neighborhood. When suspecting
criminal activities, members are encourage
to contact the authorities and not to
intervene.
BEAT PATROL - the deployment of
officers in a given community, area or
locality to prevent and deter criminal
activity and to provide day to day services
STING OPERATIONS - organized
groups of detectives who deceived
criminals into openly committing illegal
acts of conspiring to engage in criminal
activity.
HOTSPOTS OF CRIME - the view that a
significant portion of all police calls in
cities typically radiate from a relatively few
locations.
MODELS OF POLICING
1. NEIGHBORHOOD ORIENTED
POLICING - a philosophy of police
suggesting that problem solving is best
done at the neighborhood level, where
issues originate not at a far-off central
headquarters.
2. PRO ACTIVE POLICING - aggressive
law enforcement style in which patrol
officers take the initiative against crime
instead of waiting for criminal acts to
occur.
3. PROBLEM ORIENTED POLICING -
a style of police management that stresses
proactive problem solving instead of
reactive crime fighting.
4. COMMUNITY ORIENTED
POLICING - programs designed to bring
the police and the public closer together
and create more cooperative working
environment between them.
5. REACTIVE POLICING - the opposite
of Pro Active policing where the police
wait for crime to occur.
BLUE CURTAIN - describes the secrecy
and insulation from others in society that is
a consequence of the police subculture.
CYNICISM - the belief that most peoples
actions are motivated solely by personal
needs and selfishness.
CIVILIAN REVIEW BOARD - ex.
PLEB - organized citizen groups that
examine police misconduct.
WATCHMAN - style of policing
characterized by an emphasis on
maintaining public order.
FLEEING FELON RULE - the oldest
standard relating to the use of deadly force.
BEATS - designated police patrol areas.
INTERNAL AFFAIRS - unit that
investigates allegations of police
misconduct.
DEADLY FORCE - police killing of a
suspect who resists arrest or presents a
danger to an officer or the community.
BOOKING - the administrative record of
an arrest listing the offenders name,
address, physical description, date of birth,
time of arrest, offense and name of
arresting officer. It also include
photographing and fingerprinting of the
offender.
LINE UP - placing a suspect in a group for
the purpose of being viewed and identified
by a witness.
STOP AND FRISK - the situation in
which police officers who are suspicious of
an individual run their hands lightly over
the suspects outer garments to determine if
the person is carrying a concealed weapon.
Also called Inquiry of Pat Down.
FOOT PATROL - police patrol that takes
officer out of cars and puts them in walking
beat to strengthen ties with the community.
EXCITED DELIRIUM - an overdose of
adrenaline that can occur in heated
confrontation with the police.
* Patrol reduces crime by creating an 
impression of omnipresence.
RESPONDING TO CRIME - TOTAL
RESPONSE TIME IS COMPRISED OF
FOUR DIMENSIONS.
1. DISCOVERY TIME - interval between
the commission of the crime and its
discovery.
2. REPORTING TIME - interval between
the discovery of the crime and when it is
reported to the police.
3. PROCESSING TIME - interval
between receiving the call and dispatching
the officers for service.
4. TRAVEL TIME - the amount of time it
takes for the police to travel to the scene of
the crime.
THE PHANTOM EFFECT - "residual
deterrence" most people believe that the
police is present even when the are not in
sight.
SWORN DATE - the date that  a sworn
employee took the oath of office for their
position.
ADVANTAGES OF FOOT/BICYCLE
PATROL
1. Increased personal contact between the
police and citizen.
2. Increased observation ability.
3. Increased ability to gather information
4. Economical
ADVANTAGES OF MOTORIZED
PATROL
1. Increased speed and mobility
2. Increased conspicuousness
3. Availability of additional equipment
4. Increased transportation capability
5. Deceased response time
6. Communications
BASIC PREVENTIVE PATROL
METHODS UTILIZED BY AN
OFFICER
1. Frequent check and contact with business
premises
2. Frequent check of suspicious persons
3. Fluctuating patrol patterns
4. Maintenance of visibility and personal
contact
5. Daily individual patrol and community
action plan
FACTORS TO BE CONSIDERED IN
BECOMING FAMILIAR WITH THE
COMMUNITY
1. General population information
2. Appropriate geographical information
3. Recent criminal activity
4. Specific factors that may influence patrol
functions
    ex. location of hospitals, high crime
areas, community habits.
HOW TO PREPARE FOR A NORMAL
PATROL SHIFT
1. Gathering information through crime
reports and briefings
2. Gathering needed materials ex. report
forms, citation books
3. Obtaining and checking equipment
4. Planning work around identified
priorities
5. Preparing daily patrol and community
action plan
WHAT AN OFFICER ON NIGHTTIME
PATROL SHOULD BE LOOKING
FOR
1. broken glasses
2. open doors and windows
3. pry marks
4. suspicious vehicles
5. persons on foot
6. differences in normal lighting (on or Off)
7. unusual sounds
8. access to roof tops or upper floors
B. INDUSTRIAL SECURITY
MANAGEMENT
ACTIVE SECURITY MEASURES 
1. Physical Barriers
2. Security lighting
3. Vaults
4. Locks
PASSIVE SECURITY MEASURES
1.Those that will deter man from committing
such act for fear of being caught charged in
court or get dismissed
2.Security education programs, investigation,
fire prevention seminars, personal security
checks.
COMPANY GUARD FORCE – (CGF) a
security force maintained and operated by any
private company/corporation utilizing any of its
employees to watch, secure or guard its business
establishment premises, compound or
properties.
DUTY DETAIL ORDER - is a written
order/schedule issued by a superior officer
usually the private security agency/branch
manager or operations officer assigning the
performance of private security/detective
services duties.
FACTORS THAT BRING ABOUT
UNSECURED CONDITIONS
1. THREATS - an activity that could lead to a
loss.
2. HAZARDS - a condition that could lead to a
loss.
3. VULNERABILITY - a weakness that can be
used to gain access an asset.
4. RISK - a potential loss or damage to an asset.
GOVERNMENT GUARD UNIT – (GGU) a
security unit maintained and operated by any
government entity other than military or police,
which is established and maintained for the
purpose of securing the office or compound
and/or extension of such government entity.
GOVERNMENT SECURITY PERSONNEL
– shall be natural persons which include
government security guards, detectives, security
consultants and security officers except those of
the AFP, PNP, or BJMP  rendering or
performing security and/or detective services as
employed by
government entities.
LICENSE TO EXERCISE PROFESSION –
shall mean any document issued by the Chief,
PNP or his duly authorized representative
recognizing a person to be qualified to perform
his duties as private security or training
personnel.
LICENSE TO OPERATE – (LTO) is a
License Certificate document, issued by the
Chief, Philippine National Police or his duly
authorized representative, authorizing a person
to engage in employing security guard or
detective, or a juridical person to establish,
engage, direct, manage or operate an individual
or a private detective agency or private security
agency/company security force after payment of
the prescribed dues or fees.
NOTE: New applicants for license to operate
shall be required to obtain a minimum
capitalization of one million pesos
(P1,000,000.00) with a minimum bank deposit
of five hundred thousand (P500, 000.00) pesos
in order to start its business operation.
No regular license shall be granted to any
private security agency unless it has a minimum
of two hundred (200) licensed private security
personnel under its employ.
No regular license shall be granted to any
company guard force or private detective
agency unless it has a minimum of thirty (30)
licensed private security personnel under its
employ.
The maximum number of private security
personnel that a PSA/CGF/PDA may employ
shall be one thousand (1000).
PADPAO – Philippine Association of Detective
and Protective Agency Operators. Is an
association of all licensed security agencies and
company security forces in the Philippines.
PERSON - shall include not only natural
persons but also juridical persons such as
corporation, partnership, company or
association duly registered with the Securities
and Exchange Commission.
PHYSICAL BARRIER -  any structure or
physical device capable of restricting, deterring,
delaying, illegal access to an installation.
PNP - Philippine National Police, under the
DILG, organized pursuant to the provision of
RA 6975 otherwise known as the National
Police Act of 1991. The PNP shall exercise
general supervision over the operators of all
security agencies and guards.
POWERS AND DUTIES OF A SECURITY
GUARD
1. To watch and secure the property of the
client. Service shall not extend beyond the
property or compound of client.
Exception:
a. Escort duties
b. Hot pursuit of criminal offenders
2. Security Guard and Private Detective have no
police authority.
PRIVATE DETECTIVE - is any person who
does detective work for hire, reward or
commission, other than members of the Armed
Forces of the Philippines, guards of the Bureau
of Jail Management and Penology, municipal or
city jail guards, and members of the Philippine
National Police or of any other law enforcement
agency of the government.
QUALIFICATIONS OF A PRIVATE
DETECTIVE
1. Must be a Filipino citizen
2. Must be a high school graduate
3. Must be physically and mentally fit
4. Must not be less than 21 nor more than 50
years of age
5. Must be at least 5 feet and 4 inches in height
6. Must not be suffering from any of the ff:
disqualifications
a. Dishonorably discharged or separated from
the AFP
b. Mental incompetent
c. Addicted to the use of narcotic drug or drugs
d. Habitual drunkard
7. Must not be convicted of any crime involving
moral turpitude
 
PRIVATE DETECTIVE AGENCY - is any
person, who, for hire or reward or on
commission, conducts or carries on or holds
himself or itself out as conducting or carrying
on a detective agency, or detective service.
NOTES:
1. All person used in a private detective work
must be licensed
2. All person employed solely for clerical or
manual work need no private detective license.
3. License (LTO) shall be displayed at all times
in a conspicuous and suitable place in the
agency office or headquarters of the agency and
shall be exhibited at the request of any person
whose jurisdiction is in relation with the
business of the agency or the employees thereof,
or of the Chief of the PNP or his duly authorized
representative or any peace officer.
4. The PNP shall exercise general supervision
over the operation of all private detective and
privated detective agency.
THE RULES ABOVE APPLIES TO A
PRIVATE SECURITY AGENCY.
PRIVATE SECURITY GUARD - (watchman)
shall include any person who offers or renders
personal service to watch or secure either a
residence, business establishment, or buildings,
compounds, areas, or property,
inspects/monitors bodily checks/searches
individuals and/or baggage and other forms of
security inspection, physically/ manually or
scientifically electronic, including but not
limited to, logging concessions and agricultural,
mining or pasture lands, transportation, for hire
or compensation , or as an employee thereof,
including any employee of the national or local
governments or agencies or instrumentality’s
thereof and or government owned or controlled
firm or corporations who is employed to watch
or secure government buildings, compounds,
premises and other properties, other than
members of the Armed Forces of the
Philippines, guards of the Bureau of Jail
management and Penology, Municipal or City
jail guards, and members of the Philippine
National Police or of any other law enforcement
agency of the Government.
QUALIFICATIONS OF A SECURITY
GUARD
1. Must be a Filipino citizen
2. Must be a high school graduate
3. Must be physically and mentally fit
4. Must not be less than 21 nor more than 50
years of age
5. Must be at least 5 feet and 4 inches in height
(RA 5487)
6. Must not be suffering from any of the ff:
disqualifications 
a. Dishonorably discharged or separated from
the AFP
b. Mental incompetent
c. Addicted to the use of narcotic drug or drugs
d. Habitual drunkard
7. Must have undergone a pre-licensing training
course
8. Must not be convicted of any crime involving
moral turpitude
MORAL TURPITUDE - A phrase used in
Criminal Law to describe conduct that is
considered contrary to community standards of
justice, honesty, or good morals. Crimes
involving moral turpitude have an inherent
quality of baseness, vileness, or depravity with
respect to a person's duty to another or to
society in general.
EXAMPLES OF CRIME INVOLVING
MORAL TURPITUDE
1. Rape
2. Forgery
3. Robbery
4. Prostitution
PRIVATE SECURITY GUARD AGENCY -
any person, association, partnership, or
corporation, who recruits, trains, muster,
furnishes, solicits individuals or business firms,
private or government-owned or controlled
corporations to engage his service or those of its
watchmen.
WHO MAY ORGANIZE A SECURITY
AGENCY
1. Any Filipino citizen
2. Corporation
3. Partnership
4. Association
LIMITATIONS/DISQUALIFICATION/PRO
HIBITIONS IN ORGANIZING A
SECURITY AGENCY
1. Security Agency must be 100% Filipino
owned
2. No person shall organize or have an interest
in, more that security agency
3. No agency shall offer, render or accept
services in gambling dens or other illegal
business establishments or enterprises.
4. Must not be an elective or appointive
government employees who may be called upon
on account of the functions of their respective
offices in the implementation and enforcement
of the Private Security Agency Law and any
person related to such government employees
by affinity or consanguinity in the third civil
degree shall not hold any interest, directly or
indirectly in any security guard or watchman
agency.
5. The extent of the security guard service being
furnished by the security agency shall not go
beyond the compound and/or property of the
person or establishment contracting the security
service except when the security guards is
escorting big amount of money or valuables.
6. MAIN OFFICE - All agencies shall maintain
a main office in their registered addresses.
BRANCH OFFICES - may be established and
maintained in other provinces/ cities where the
security agency has deployed security guards.
7. RULES - Authority to operate outside
principal offices.
 1. No new or moribund but previously licensed
private security agency shall be granted license
to operate unless its business viability is
supported by evidence of assured clientele,
adequate capitalization and the like.
MORIBUND - (dying)(stagnant)(obsolescent)
in terminal decline; lacking vitality or vigour.     
2. Private Security Agency operating at regions
outside its main office shall be required to
register with the nearest Police Provincial Office
and shall submit an authenticated machine copy
of the following documents:
a) License to Operate
b) License of the FA’s to be issued
c) List of the officers and security guards
d) Appointment Order of Branch/Detachment
Manager (if any)
8. All applicants for license to operate shall be
required to attend a private security
agency/company guard force operators and
management seminar/workshop.
9. Prohibition on “KABIT SYSTEM” operators
1. No licensed security agency shall operate,
promote and enter into an agreement of
“merger“ (kabit system) with any person or a
group of persons for the purpose of organizing a
branch unit or subsidiary under separate control
and ownership. Merger of security and detective
agencies shall not be recognized without prior
approval from the SEC with respect to their
Articles of Incorporation and the DTI, with
regards their business name.
2. Any of the following circumstances or a
combination thereof shall be considered prima-
facie evidence of the existence of “Kabit
System”.
a) Maintaining a separate branch, unit or
subsidiary office aside from the main office of
the agency situated within the same locality
b) Receiving direct payments from the agency’s
clientele and issuing officials receipt of their
own distinct from that issued by the agency
concerned
c) Remitting directly Social Security System
premiums, Medicare contributions and other
premium for other policy insurance benefits
d) Existence of an agreement between the
licensee and a branch manager thereof, whereby
the latter obligates himself to pay a certain
percentage of his income to the former on the
condition that the control and supervision of the
guards posted by said branch shall course on the
manager thereof and that the licensee shall be
exempt from liabilities/ obligations attendant to
the operation of said branch.
e) Keeping/maintaining separate payrolls for the
branch employees signed and/or approved by
the branch manager only
f) Absence of record of monthly income
remittances to the main office when said branch
is authorized to make collections from the
clients of the licensee
g) All other similar acts tending to show
separate and distinct
relationship/personality/ownership/
management.
QUALIFICATIONS OF THE
OPERATOR/MANAGER OF A SECURITY
AGENCY
1. Must be at least 25 years of age
2. Must be a College Graduate and/or No.3
below.
3. Must be a commissioned officer in the
inactive service of the Armed Forces of the
Philippines
4. Must be of good moral character
5. Must have no previous record of any
conviction of any crime or offense involving
moral turpitude
6. Must not be suffering from any of the
following disqualifications:
a. Dishonorably discharged or separated from
the AFP
b. Mental incompetent
c. Addicted to the use of narcotic drug or drugs
d. Habitual drunkard
7. Must have taken a course/seminar on
industrial Security Management and/or must
have adequate training or experience in security
business (IRR)
NOTE: One can not be a Commissioned officer
in the inactive service of the AFP unless college
graduate. The law used the word and/or.
RA 5487 is a law. In case of conflict between
the law and its implementing rules and
regulations promulgated by the chief PNP, The
law shall prevail.
  
PRIVATE SECURITY INDUSTRY – shall
cover those in the legitimate business of
providing private security and detective
services.
PRIVATE SECURITY PERSONNEL – shall
be natural persons which include private
security guards, private detectives, security
consultants, and security officers
rendering/performing security and/or detective
services as employed by private security
agencies and/or private firms.
PROTECTIVE SECURITY SYSTEM - are
those measures taken by an installation or unit
to protect itself against sabotage, espionage or
subversion. 
RA 5487 - known as "The Private Security
Agency Law."
RESTRICTED AREA - is any area in which
personnel or vehicles are controlled for reasons
of security. Restricted area is established to
provide security for installation or facilities and
to promote efficiency of security operations and
economy in the use of security personnel.
SAGSD - Security Agency and Guard
Supervision Division. SAGSD is under the PNP
Civil Security Group.
SECURITY - is the state or quality of being
secured, freedom fromfear or danger;assurance;
certainty. To secure is to make safe or be
protected. From the Greek word SECUROS
which means safe, safety or secured.
SECURITY GUARD - (watchman) Any
person who offers or renders personal service to
watch or secure either residential or business
establishment, or both, or any building,
compound, or area including but not limited to
logging concessions, agricultural, mining or
pasture lands for hire or compensation, or as an
employee thereof.
SECURITY HAZARDS - is an act or
condition which results in a situation like a
breach of the protection system and the
subsequent loss or compromise of defense
information, company secret or damage to
personnel, property or facilities.
THREE MAJOR AREAS OF SECURITY
1. PHYSICAL SECURITY - this concern with
the physical measures adopted to prevent
unauthorized access to equipment, facilities,
material and document and to safeguard them
against espionage, damage, loss and theft
2. PERSONNEL SECURITY - this is as
important as physical security. Personnel
security starts even before the hiring of an
employee and remains to be maintained for as
long as the person is employed. Its purpose is to
insure that a firm hires those best suited to assist
the firm in achieving its goals and objectives
and once hired assist in providing necessary
security to the work force while carrying out
their functions
3. DOCUMENT AND INFORMATION
SECURITY - this involves the protection of
documents as classified papers from loss, access
by unauthorized persons, damage, theft and
compromise through disclosure
TWO INSTANCES WHEN  THE CHIEF
PNP MAY DEPUTIZE ANY SECURITY
GUARD TO ASSIST THE PNP IN THE
PERFORMANCE OF POLICE DUTIES.
1. In case of emergency
2. In times of disaster or calamities
TYPES OF SECURITY
1. INDUSTRIAL SECURITY - a type of
security applied to business groups engaged in
industries like manufacturing, assembling,
research and development, processing,
warehousing and even agriculture. It may also
mean the business of providing security.
2. HOTEL SECURITY- a type of security
applied to hotels where its properties are
protected from pilferage, loss damage and the
function in the hotel restaurants are not
disturbed and troubled by outsiders or the guest
themselves. This type of security employs house
detectives, uniforms guard and supervisor and
insures that hotel guests and their personal
effects are safeguarded.
3. BANK SECURITY- this type of security is
concern with the bank operations.
4. VIP Security- a type of security applied for
the protection of top-ranking officials of the
government or private entity, visiting persons of
illustrious standing and foreign dignitaries.
5. SCHOOL SECURITY- a type of security
that is concern with the protection of the
students, faculty members, and school
properties.
6. SUPERMARKET OR MALL
SECURITY- a type of security which is
concern with the protection of the stores,
warehouses, storage, its immediate premises and
properties as well as the supermarket personnel
and customers. Security personnel are trained to
detect shoplifter, robbery, and bomb detection
and customer relation. 3. ORDER MAINTENANCE - security
7. OTHER TYPES- this includes all other 4. SOCIAL SERVICES - community welfare
security matters not covered in the above
enumeration. PATROL AS A FUNCTION
1. Constant Movement
2. Prevent/deter crime
3. Eliminate opportunity for crime
C. POLICE PATROL OPERATIONS WITH
POLICE COMMUNICATION SYSTEM PATROL ACTIVITIES AND PURPOSES
1842 - the London Metropolitan Police 1. Crime Detection and Prevention
established the first detective branch. 2. Apprehension of Criminals & Wanted
BOBBIES - British police. Suspects
BOSTON POLICE - first public police force 3. Data & Information Collection
established in 1631. 4. Report Writing & Documentation
BOW STREET PATROLS - a small body of 5. Public Assistance
police in London who had been organized in the 6. Peace Keeping and Order Maintenance
mid-18th century by the novelist and magistrate 7. Conflict Resolution
Henry Fielding and his half-brother, Sir John 8. Traffic Control and Enforcement
Fielding. 9. Parking Enforcement
COMPURGATION - also called Wager Of 10.Law Enforcement Reduce Citizens’ Fear of
Law,  in early English law, method of settling Crime
issues of fact by appeal to a type of character 11.Detect and Enforce Code and Safety
witness. Violations
EGYPT - the first policing organization was 12.Rapid Responses to Emergencies
created in about 3000 BC. 13.Public Relations
EMPEROR AUGUSTUS - organized one of 14.Police Visibility
the earliest form of organized policing in Rome 15.Property Protection
in 7 BC. He divided the city of Rome into 14
regiones (wards), each consisting of vici PATROL METHOD
(precincts) overseen by vicomagistri, who were 1. Foot Patrol
responsible for fire protection and other 2. Motorcycle Patrol
administrative and religious duties. 3. Motorized Patrol
NEW SCOTLAND YARD - the headquarters 4. Bike Patrol
of the London Metropolitan Police. 5. Horse Patrol
NEW YORK POLICE - The first police 6. Aircraft Patrol
department in the United States, it was 7. Watercraft Patrol
established in 1844 and it was officially
organized in 1845. PATROL OFFICER -  is the backbone of the
PATROL - keep watch over (an area) by police department.
regularly walking or travelling around it.
PATROL SUPERVISION
PATROL FUNCTIONS (Categories) 1. Hands on - supervisor involved in day to day
1. CRIME PREVENTION - pro-active activities.
deterrence 2. Command - supervisor shows up at incident
2. LAW ENFORCEMENT - reactive sites and gives orders
deterrence 3. Counsel - supervisor available and when
requested shows up at incident sites. Principle 6 - Police use physical force to the
extent necessary to secure observance of the law
PATROL TECHNIQUES or to restore order only when the exercise of
1. Routine Patrol persuasion, advice and warning is found to be
2. Directed Patrol insufficient.
3. D-Runs Principle 7 - Police, at all times, should maintain
4. Saturation Patrol a relationshipwith the public that gives reality to
5. Split Force the historic tradition that the police are the
6. Suspect-Oriented Patrol public and the public are the police; the police
being only members of the public who are paid
POLICE TRAFFIC ENFORCEMENT to give full-time attention to duties which are
ACTIVITIES incumbent on every citizen in the interests of
1. Issue Traffic Citations community welfare and existence.”
2. Issue Parking Citations Principle 8 - Police should always direct their
3. Investigate Traffic Accidents action strictly towards their functions and never
4. Arrest Drunk Drivers appear to usurp the powers of the judiciary.
5. Enforce Seat belt Laws Principle 9 - The test of police efficiency is the
6. Direct Traffic absence of crime and disorder, not the visible
evidence of police action in dealing with it.
POLICE TRAFFIC ENFORCEMENT
PURPOSES PEELER - a police officer, especially in the
1. Insure Safety of Public United Kingdom and Australia. Derived from
2. Reduce Accidents and Injuries the name of Sir Robert Peel who developed the
3. Collect Information Metropolitan Police Act in 1928 which proved
4. Make Criminal Arrests to be the foundation for the modern police force
5. Enforce Laws in Britain.
6. Facilitate Traffic Flow
POLICE FUNCTIONAL UNITS
PEEL'S 9 (NINE) PRINCIPLE 1. BUREAU - the largest organic functional
Principle 1. The basic mission for which the unit within a large department. It comprises of
police exist is to prevent crime and disorder. numbers of divisions.
Principle 2 - The ability of the police to perform 2. DIVISION - a primary subdivision of a
their duties is dependent upon public approval bureau.
of police actions. 3. SECTION -functional unit within a division
Principle 3 - Police must secure the willing co- that is necessary for specialization.
operation of the public in voluntary observance 4. UNIT -functional group within a section; or
of the law to be able to secure and maintain the the smalles functional group within an
respect of the public. organization.
Principle 4 - The degree of co-operation of the
public that can be secured diminishes POLICE OPERATIONS 
proportionately to the necessity of the use of 1. PATROL - 50 % Of Force - 80 % Of Budget
physical force. 2. CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION
Principle 5 - Police seek and preserve public (Detectives) - Solve 20 % Of Cases Solved In
favour not by catering to the public opinion but Depth  case screening
by constantly demonstrating absolute impartial 3. Traffic
service to the law. 4. Support/Special Services

POLICE TERRITORIAL UNITS
1. POST - a fixed point or location to which an
officer is assigned for duty, such as a designated
desk or office or an intersection or cross walk
from traffic duty.It is a spot location for general
guard duty.
2. ROUTE -a length of streets designated for
patrol purposes. It is also called Line Beat.
3. BEAT - an area assigned for patrol purposes,
whether foot or motorized.
4. SECTOR - an area containing two or more
beats, routes, or post. 5. District-a geographical
subdivision of a city for patrol purposes, usually
with its own station. 6. Area- a section or
territorial division of a large city each comprised
of designated districts.
POLIS - greek word which means city.
PURPOSES OF CRIMINAL
INVESTIGATION
1. Determine whether or not a crime has been
committed.
2. Decide if the crime was committed within the
investigator’s jurisdiction.
3. Discover all facts pertaining to the complaint.
4. Gather and preserve physical evidence.
5. Identify the perpetrator.
6. Develop and follow up all clues.
7. Locate and apprehend the perpetrator.
8. Aid in the prosecution of the offender by
providing evidence of guilt that is admissible in
court.
9. Testify effectively as a witness in court.
10.Recover stolen property.
ROBERT PEEL - established the Metropolitan
Police Force for London based at Scotland Yard
in 1929. Father of modern policing system.
SPECIALIZED UNITS AND OPERATIONS
1. Special Weapons & Tactics
2. Vice & Drugs
3. K-9
4. Organized Crime
5. Community Services
6. Crime analysis
7. Domestic Violence
8. Sex Crimes
9. Internal Affairs
10.Crime Prevention
11.Juvenile & School Service
12.Intelligence
D. POLICE INTELLIGENCE
ACCURACY OF INFORMATION 
1 - Confirmed By Other Sources
2 - Probably True
3 - Possibly True
4 - Doubtfully True
5 - Improbable
6 - Truth Can Not Be Judged
ALEXANDER THE GREAT - A Greek
Conqueror, was able to identify those who are
disloyal to him by ordering the opening of
communication letter of his men and was
successful in uplifting the esprit de corps and
morale of his men.
ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE - The ability
of a digital computer or computer-controlled
robot to perform tasks commonly associated
with intelligent beings.
ASIS - Australian Secret Intelligence Service -
Primary responsibility is gathering intelligence
from mainly Asian and Pacific interest using
agents stationed in wide variety of areas. Its
main purpose like other most agencies is to
protect the country's political and economic
interest and ensure the safety of its citizens
against national threats.
BUNDESNACHRICHTENDIENST - BND,
Federal Intelligence Service, is the foreign
intelligence agency of the German government,
the BND act as the early warning system to alert
the German government against threats to its
interest coming from abroad.
CATEGORIES OF INTELLIGENCE
1. NATIONAL INTELLIGENCE - integrated
product of intelligence developed by all
government departments concerning the broad
aspect of national policy and national security.
2. DEPARTMENTAL INTELLIGENCE -
the intelligence required by the department or
agencies of the government to execute iys
mission and discharge its responsibilities.
3. MILITARY INTELLIGENCE - refers to
the knowledge by the military institution
essential in the preparation and execution of
military plans, policies and programs.
CIA - Central Intelligence Agency, is the
civilian intelligence agency of the USA. It is the
largest intelligence agency in the world.
CLASSIFICATIONS OF DOCUMENTS
1. TOP SECRET - calls for the utmost degree
of protection, Unauthorized revelation of this
materials and information will cause extremely
severe damage to the nation, politically,
economically, or militarily.
2. SECRET - unauthorized disclosure of this
documents or things may put at risk the national
security, cause serious injury to the reputation of
the nation.
3. CONFIDENTIAL - Unauthorized revelation
of which may be injurious to the reputation of
the nation or governmental activity or will cause
administrative humiliation or unnecessary
injury.
4. RESTRICTED - this are information which
should not be published or communicated to
anyone except for official purposes. These
records are daily files, routine in nature even if
lost or destroyed will not affect operation or
administration.
CLASSIFICATION OF SOURCES OF
INFORMATION
1. OPEN SOURCES - 99% of the information
collected are coming from open sources or
obtained from overt operation.
2. CLOSE SOURCES - only 1% of
information are obtained from covert operation.
ELEMENTS OF CLANDESTINE
OPERATION
1. SPONSOR - directs the organization
conducting the clandestine activity.
2. TARGET - person, place or things against
which the clandestine activity is to be
conducted.
3. AGENT - refers to a person who conducts
the clandestine operations, includes principal
agents, action agents, and support agents.
PRINCIPAL AGENT - leader or management
agent in clandestine operation usually
undertaken by the case officer.
ACTION AGENT - one who conducts the
clandestine operation that includes:
A. ESPIONAGE AGENT - agent who
clandestinely procure or collect information.
B. PROPAGANDIST - agents who molds the
attitudes, opinions and actions of an individual
group or nation.
SUPPORT AGENT - agent who is engaged in
activities which supports the clandestine
operations that includes the ff:
A. SURVEILLANT - agent who observes
persons and places of operation of interest.
B. INVESTIGATOR - agent who undertakes
to procure information or things of clandestine
operation.
PROCURER OF FUNDS - agent who obtains
money when needed for operational use.
SAFE HOUSE KEEPER - agents who
manages and maintains a safe house for
clandestine operations like meetings, safe
heavens, training, briefing and debriefing.
COMMUNICATION AGENT - agent who is
detailed to secure clandestine communications.  
CODING - the changing of message from plain
clear text to unintelligible form, also known as
encrypting.
DECODING - transforming of coded message
into plain text, also known as decrypting.
COUNTER INTELLIGENCE - phase of
intelligence covering the activity
devoted in destroying the effectiveness of
hostile foreign activities
and the protection of information against
espionage, subversion and
sabotage.
TYPES OF COUNTER INTELLIGENCE
1. PASSIVE CI MEASURES - protection of
classified and sensitive information against
unauthorized access through secrecy,
communication security and other safeguards.
2. ACTIVE CI MEASURES - are those
measures which seek actively to block enemies
effort to gain information or engage in
espionage, subversion and sabotage.
CATEGORIES OF COUNTER
INTELLIGENCE OPERATIONS
1. MILITARY SECURITY - it encompasses
the measures taken by a command to protect
itself against espionage, enemy operation,
sabotage, subversion, or surprise.
2. PORT BOUNDARY AND TRAVEL
SECURITY - application of both military and
civil security measures for counter-intelligence
control at point of entry and departure,
international borders and boundaries.
3. CIVIL SECURITY - active and passive
counter-intelligence measures affecting the non-
military nationals permanently or temporarily
residing in an area under military jurisdiction.
4. SPECIAL OPERATIONS - counter
subversion, sabotage and espionage.
OBJECTIVES OF COUNTER-
INTELLIGENCE
1. It denies information to the enemy
2. It reduces the risk of a command
3. Aid in achieving surprises
4. Increases the security of the command
5. Decrease the ability of the enemy to create
information about he forces.
  
FUNCTIONS/ACTIVITIES OF COUNTER-
INTELLIGENCE
1. Protection of Information against espionage
2. Protection of personnel against subversion
3. Protection of installations and materials
against sabotage
CRYPTOGRAPHY - arts and science of codes
and ciphers.
CRYPTO ANALYST - refers to those persons
who break intercepted codes.
CRYPTOGRAPHER - refers to a person who
is highly skilled in converting message from
clear to unintelligible forms by use of codes and
ciphers.
DELILAH - a biblical personality, she was able
to gain information by using her beauty and
charm, she was responsible for the fall of
Samson, a known Israelite leader and enemy of
the Philistines.
FREDERICK THE GREAT - Father of
organized military espionage.
FSD - Federal Security Service of the Russian
Federation, is the main domestic security agency
of the Russian Federation, and the main
successor of the Cheka, NKVD and the KGB.
GENERAL DIRECTORATE FOR
EXTERNAL SECURITY - France external
intelligence agency, operating under the
direction of  the French Ministry of Defense.
HEAVY WATER/DEUTERIUM OXIDE - A
form of water that contains a larger than normal
amount of the hydrogen isotope deuterium.
INFORMANTS - any person who hand over
information to the agents which is relevant to
the subject.
TYPE OF INFORMANTS
1. ANONYMOUS - unidentified or unknown
informants.
2. FALSE INFORMANT - reveals information
of no consequences or value.
3. FRIGHTENED INFORMANTS - weakest
link in criminal chain, motivated by anxiety.
4. SELF-AGGRANDIZING - moves around
the the center of criminals delight in surprising
the police about bits of information.
5. MERCENARY - information for sale,
needed something for exchange of information.
6. DOUBLE CROSSER - wants to get more
information from the police more than what he
gives
7. WOMEN INFORMANT - most dangerous
type of informant.
8. LEGITIMATE - operators of business.
MOTIVES OF INFORMANTS
1. VANITY - conceited act/character of the
criminal resulting to self betrayal or tantamount
to guilt, gaining favorable attention and
importance by the police.
2. CIVIC-Mindedness - sense of duty and
obligation to assist the police.
3. FEAR - a person under an illusion of
oppression by enemies or of other impending
danger.
4. REPENTANCE - one who has a change of
heart and wishes to report a crime that is preying
on his conscience.
5. GRATITUDE OR GAIN - an expression of
appreciation to obtain a privilege or an interest
in the welfare of his family during his detention.
6. REVENGE - to settle a grudge due to settle a
previous injury.
7. JEALOUSY - envious of the
accomplishments or possessions of another and
wishes to humiliate him.
8. REMUNERATION - a person who informs
solely for the pecuniary or other material gain
he is to receive.
INFORMATION WARFARE - The
manipulation of information trusted by a target
without the target's awareness to encourage
them to make decisions against their own
interest, but in the interest of the one conducting
the manipulation.
INFORMERS - refers to any person who
provides information to the agents in a regular
basis regarding a subject, they are paid either on
a regular or case to case basis.       information in writ in or other form of graphical
INTELLIGENCE - the organized effort to
collect information, to assist it Little by little,
and piece it together until it forms larger and
clear pattern. (intelligence as an activity)
- the end product resulting from the collection,
evaluation, analysis, integration and
interpretation of all available information which
may have immediate or potential significance to
the development and execution of plan, policies
and programs of the user.(intelligence as a
product)
- an institution composed of person who
prepares a plan or formulating policies.
(intelligence as an institution)
INTELLIGENCE CYCLE
1. Planning
2. Collection
3. Processing
4. Dissemination
PLANNING - the intelligence officer must
have a thorough knowledge of the available
sources of information, the collecting agencies
and type of information the latter can provide.
COLLECTION - the intelligence officer must
have thorough knowledge of the available
sources of information and collecting agencies
and the type of information they can provide
and consider the following:
a. Determine collecting agency
b. Send orders or request
c. Supervise collection efforts
d. Use tools or techniques in collection
e. Ensure timely collection
FACTORS IN CHOOSING COLLECTION
AGENTS
A. CAPABILITY - agents placement or access
to target
B. MULTIPLICITY - more agents
C. BALANCE
PROCESSING - FIVE STEPS
1. RECORDING - is the reduction of
representation and arranging the information
into groups of related items.
2. EVALUATION - is the determination of the
pertinence of the information to the operation,
relability of the source or agency and the
accuracy of the information.
PERTINENCE - does it holds some value to
current operation.
RELIABILITY - judging the source of
information or agency
CREDIBILITY - truth of information
3. ANALYSIS - is the stage in which the
collected information is subjected to review in
order to satisfy significant facts and derive
conclusions there from.
4. INTEGRATION - the combination of the
elements isolated analysis with other known
information related to the operation.
5. INTERPRETATION - process of
determining the significance of new information
and its meaning.
DISSEMINATION - processed information or
intelligence data are disseminated to end users,
common methods of disseminating intel data are
conferences, briefing and person to person
exchanges. In this process, consider the factors
of timeliness, correctness and security.
ISI - Inter-Services Intelligence, Pakistan's
premier intelligence agency. It was established
in 1948. Its office is located in Islamabad.
JULIUS CAESAR - in his time, the staff of
each legion includes ten speculators who served
as an information collecting agency. The
Speculators were the first intelligence personnel
to appear in a military organization. Military
success of the Romans was aided by the
communication system. Made use of pigeons as
carrier which made intelligence transmittal very
fast.
KARL SCHULMEISTER - known as
Napoleon's Eye, he was credited for establishing
counter-intelligence against spies. He is a master
of deceit who used black mail to obtain vital
information to identify the enemy's of
Napoleon.
KINDS OF COVERT OPERATION
1. SURVEILLANCE - is the covert, discreet
observation of people and places for the purpose
of obtaining information concerning the
identities or activities of subjects.
SURVEILLANT - is the plainclothes
investigator assigned to make the observation.
SUBJECT - can be a person, place, property
and vehicle, group of people, organization, or
object.
SAFE HOUSE - refers to place where agents
meet each other for purposes of debriefing and
reporting.
LIVE DROP - refers to a place where agents or
informants leave their messages to the other
agents.
DECOY - a person or object used by the subject
in an attempt to elude the surveillant.
CONVOY - an associate of the subject who
follows him to detect surveillance.
LOG - chronological records of activities that
took place in the establishment under
surveillance.
METHODS OF SURVEILLANCE
1. STATIONARY SURVEILLANCE - also
referred to as Fixed or
Stakeout Surveillance - is used when you know
or suspect that a person is at or will come to a
known location, when you suspect that stolen
goods are to be dropped  or when informants
have told you that a crime is going to be
committed.
2. MOVING
SURVEILLANCE/SHADOWING/TAILING
- simply the act of following a person.
FORMS OF SHADOWING/TAILING
1. LOOSE TAIL - employed where a general
impression of the subject's habits and associates
is required.
2. ROUGH SHADOWING - employed
without special precautions, subject maybe
aware of the surveillance, employed also when
the subject is a material witness and must be
protected from harm or other undesirable
influences.
3. CLOSE TAIL - extreme precautions are
taken against losing the subject is employed
where constant surveillance is necessary.
4. CASING - it is the careful inspection of a
place to determine its suitability for a particular
operational purpose.
5. ELICITATION - the process of extracting
information from a person believe to be in
possession of vital information without his
knowledge or suspicion.
4. EMPLOYMENT OF TECHNICAL
MEANS
BUGGING - the use of an equipment or tool to
listen and record discreetly conversation of
other people.
WIRETAPPING - a method of collecting
information through interception of telephone
conversation.
5. TACTICAL INTERROGATION - it is the
process or method of obtaining information
from a captured enemy who is reluctant to
divulge information.
6. OBSERVATION AND DESCRIPTION - it
is a method of collecting information by just
merely using the different senses.
METHODS AND TECHNIQUES OF
COLLECTING INFORMATION
INFORMATION - all evaluated materials of
every description including those derived from
observation, reports, rumors, imagery and other
sources from which intelligence is produced.
TYPES OF AGENTS USED IN
COLLECTING INFORMATION
1. AGENT OF INFLUENCE - agent who uses
authority to gain information.
2. AGENT IN PLACE - agent who has been
recruited within a highly sensitive target
3. PENETRATION AGENT - agent who have
reached the enemy, gather information and able
to get back without being caught.
4. EXPENDABLE AGENT - agent who leaks
false information to the enemy.
5. DOUBLE AGENT - an enemy agent who
has been taken into custody turned around and
sent back where he came from as an agent of his
captors.
MI6 - Secret Intelligence Service, supplies the
British government of foreign intelligence.
MSS - Ministry of State Security, is the security
agency of the Peoples Republic of China.
MOLE - also known as sleeper agent. Tasked
with monitoring an organization or individual. A
mole can spend years in the same place only
responding to missions when assigned. They are
trained to be visible but to keep their motives
unknown.
MOSSAD - Institute for Intelligence and
Special Operations, is responsible for the
intelligence collection and covert operation of
the Israel government, Its Director reports
directly to the Israel Prime Minister.  It is one of
the entities of the Israeli intelligence community
along with AMAN (Military Intelligence) and
SHIN BET (Internal Security)
MOSES - sent 12 scouts to the land of Canaan
to survey the land, the people, their location and
the nature of their cities.
NICA - National Intelligence Coordinating
Agency, the primary intelligence gathering arm
of the Philippines. Its motto is Knowledge is
Safety. It is headed by a Director General and is
assisted by a Deputy Director General. The
Director General reports directly to the
President of the Philippines.
EO 492 - issued on February 1, 2006, ordered
the NICA to activate the National Maritime
Aerial Reconnaissance and Surveillance Center
or NMARSC. The NMARSC shall serve as the
primary intel provider for the Philippine
intelligence community. Under the supervision
and oversight of the National Security Adviser,
the NICA-NMARSC will operate unmanned
aerial vehicles or UAV's to cater to the imagery
intelligence demands of various government
agencies.
POLICE INTELLIGENCE - the end product
resulting from the collection, evaluation,
analysis, integration and interpretation of all
available information regarding the activities of
criminals and other law violators for the purpose
of effecting their arrest, obtaining evidence and
prevent plan to commit crimes.
CATEGORIES OF POLICE
INTELLIGENCE
1. STRATEGIC INTELLIGENCE -
knowledge pertaining to the capabilities and
vulnerabilities of a foreign nation which is
required by the national planners for the
formulation of an adequate national defense.
Intelligence is for long range.
2. COUNTER-INTELLIGENCE - preparation
and execution of plans and programs to
neutralize or prevent any activities undesirable
to the police organization.
3. LINE OR TACTICAL INTELLIGENCE -
intelligence information directly contributes to
the accomplishment of specific objectives and
immediate in nature and necessary for more
effective police planning and operation.
COMPONENTS OF STRATEGIC
INTELLIGENCE
1. POLITICAL INTELLIGENCE - deals with
domestic and foreign affairs and relations of
government operations.
2. ECONOMIC INTELLIGENCE - deals
with the extent and utilization of natural and
human resources to the industrial potential of
the nation.
3. TRANSPORTATION AND
TELECOMMUNICATION
INTELLIGENCE – concerned with the
operations and facilities of the military and
civilians.
FUNCTIONAL CLASSIFICATION OF
POLICE INTELLIGENCE
1. CRIMINAL INTELLIGENCE - refers to
the knowledge essential to the prevention of
crimes and the investigation, arrest and
prosecution of criminal offenders.
2. INTERNAL SECURITY
INTELLIGENCE - refers to the knowledge
essential to the maintenance of peace and order.
3. PUBLIC SAFETY INTELLIGENCE -
refers to the knowledge essential to ensure the
protection of lives and properties.
PRINCIPLES OF INTELLIGENCE
1. Intelligence and Operation are interdependent
2. Intelligence is continuous
3. Intelligence must be useful
4. Intelligence operation requires imagination
and foresight
5. intelligence must be available on time
6. Intelligence must be flexible
7. Intelligence requires continuous security
measures
RAW - Research and Analysis Wing is India's
external intelligence agency. Its primary
function is collection of external intelligence,
counter-terrorism and covert operations.
RELIABILITY OF INFORMATION
A - Completely Reliable
B - Usually Reliable
C - Fairly Reliable
D - Not Usually Reliable
E - Unreliable
F - Reliability Can Not Be Judge
SABOTEUR - a spy or member of a
clandestine organization who destroys
machinery, bridges, equipment, or other
products of the enemy.
SECURITY CLEARANCE - is a certification
by a responsible authority that the person
described is clear to access and classify matters
at appropriate levels.
INTERIM CLEARANCE - effective for 2
years.
FINAL CLEARANCE - effective for 5 years.
SECURITY MEASURES AND
OPERATIONS IN RELATION TO
INTELLIGENCE
1. PHYSICAL SECURITY - the broadest type
of security that is concerned with the physical
measures designed to safeguard personnel and
prevent unauthorized access to equipment,
facilities, materials, documents and to protect
them from espionage, sabotage, damage, or
theft.
2. COMMUNICATION SECURITY - the
protection resulting from the application of
various measures which prevent or delay the
enemy or unauthorized person in gaining
information through communication. This
includes transmission, cryptographic and
physical security.
3. DOCUMENTARY SECURITY - protection
of documents, classified matters and vital
records from loss, access to unauthorized
persons, damage, theft and compromise through
proper storage and procedure.
4. PERSONNEL SECURITY - the sum total
procedures followed, inquiries conducted and
criteria applied to determine the work suitable to
a particular applicant or the retention or transfer
of a particular employee.
PERSONNEL SECURITY
INVESTIGATION - is an inquiry into
the character, reputation, discretion, integrity,
morals and loyalty of an individual in order to
determine a person's suitability for appointment
and access to classified matters.
TYPES OF PSI
1. LOCAL AGENCY CHECK - refers to the
investigation of the records and files of agency
in the area of principal residence of the
individual being investigated: Mayor, Police,
Fiscal where the individual is a resident.
2. NATIONAL AGENCY CHECK - it consist
of LAC supplemented by investigation of the
records and files of the following agencies:
PNP. ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau of Immigration
and other agencies.
3. BACKGROUND INVESTIGATION - a
check made on an individual usually seeking
employment through subject's records in the
police files, educational institutions, place of
residence and former employers.
COMPLETE BACKGROUND
INVESTIGATION - a type of BI which is
more comprehensive, it consist of detailed
information regarding the subject.
PARTIAL BACKGROUND
INVESTIGATION - investigation of the
background of an individual but limited only to
some of the circumstances.
SUN TZU - author of the art of war.
UNDERCOVER OPERATION - also called
Roping - is disguising one's own identity or
using an assumed identity for the purpose of
gaining the trust of an individual or organization
to learn secret information or to gain the trust of
targeted individuals in order to gain information
or evidence.
COVER - it refers to the changing, forging, or
falsifying agent's real personality including but
not limited to things, location, job and others
that will be used in undercover assignments.
TYPES OF COVER
1. ARTIFICIAL -altering the background that
will correspond to theh operation.
2. MULTIPLE - includes different cover
3. NATURAL - actual or true background
HAZARDS OF UNDERCOVER
OPERATIONS
1. Reintegration back to normal duty
2. Maintenance of identity
USES AND TYPES OF UNDERCOVER
ASSIGNMENT
1. RESIDENTIAL ASSIGNMENT - it is
related to the neighborhood of the subject,
where the agent will live as a new resident
without making any suspicion. His mission is to
make friends within its neighborhood and gather
information regarding the subject and possibly
getting closer to the subject.
2. SOCIAL ASSIGNMENT - the agent will
gain access to the subject by going to the
different hangout places of the subject and
gather information like knowing how to drink
socially without getting drunk.
3. WORK ASSIGNMENT - the agent will be
employed where the subject work to acquire
information. The agent must know his work and
focus his mind set and habit to his work
assignment
4. SUBVERSIVE ORGANIZATION - this is
the most dangerous of all the undercover
assignment, the agent will join the organization
of the subject itself, he must know the
ideologies of the group and the actions while
inside should conform to the organization to
avoid any suspicion.
    E. POLICE PERSONNEL AND RECORD
MANAGEMENT
ATTRITION - refers to the retirement or
separation from the police service of PNP
uniformed personnel pursuant to any of the
means mentioned in RA 8551.
MEANS OF ATTRITION
1. ATTRITION BY ATTAINMENT OF
MAXIMUM TENURE IN POSITION
a. Chief PNP - 4 years
b. PNP Deputy Chief for Operation - 4 years
c. PNP Deputy chief for Administration - 4
years
d. PNP Chief of the Directorial Staff - 4 years
e. Regional Directors - 6 years
f. Provincial directors - 9 years
g. City Directors - 9 years
h. Other positions higher than provincial
director shall have the maximum tenure of 6
years.
2. ATTRITION BY RELIEF
A PNP member who has been relieved for cause
and has not been given an assignment within 2
years from the effective date of such relief shall
be retired or separated.
3. ATTRITION BY DEMOTION IN
POSITION
A PNP member who has been relieved and
assigned to a position lower than what is
established for his/her rank in the PNP staffing
pattern and who shall not be assigned to a
position commensurate to such rank despite the
existence of a vacancy within 18 months after
his/her demotion in position shall be retired or
separated.
4. ATTRITION BY NON-PROMOTION
A PNP member who has not been promoted for
a continuous period of 10 years shall be retired
or separated.
5. ATTRITION BY OTHER MEANS - a PNP
member with at least 5 years of accumulated
active service shall be separated based on any of
the following grounds:
a. Inefficiency based on poor performance
during the last 2 successive annual rating
periods.
b. Inefficiency based on poor performance for 3
cumulative annual ratings.
c. Physical and/or mental incapacity to perform
police functions and duties
d. Failure to pass the required entrance
examination twice and/or finish the required
career courses except for justifiable reasons.
e. Refusal to take a periodic PNP Physical
fitness test without justifiable reason.
f. Failure to take PNP physical fitness test for 4
consecutive periodic tests due to health reasons.
g. Failure to pass PNP physical fitness test for 2
consecutive periodic tests or 4 cumulative
periodic tests.
h. Non-Compliance with the minimum
qualification standards for the permanency of
original appointment.
ATTRITION IN ACTION - refers to the
action containing the findings and evidence on a
specific means of attrition filed by a particular
screening committee before the concerned
attrition board.
AUTHORITY - Managers must be able to give
orders. Authority gives them this right. Note that
responsibility arises wherever authority is
exercised.
BUDGETING - with all that goes with
budgeting in the form of planning, accounting
and control.
CENTRALIZATION - Centralization refers to
the degree to which subordinates are involved in
decision making. Whether decision making is
centralized (to management) or decentralized (to
subordinates) is a question of proper proportion.
The task is to find the optimum degree of
centralization for each situation.
COORDINATING - that is the all important
duty of interrelating the various parts of the
work.
DEMOTION IN POSITION - refers to the
designation of a personnel to a position lower
than what is established for his/her rank or not
commensurate to his/her rank in the PNP table
of organization.
DIRECTING - that is the continuous task of
making decisions and embodying them in
specific and general orders and instructions and
serving as the leader of the enterprise.
DISCIPLINE - Employees must obey and
respect the rules that govern the organisation.
Good discipline is the result of effective
leadership, a clear understanding between
management and workers regarding the
organisation's rules, and the judicious use of
penalties for infractions of the rules.
DISCIPLINE - the practice of training people
to obey rules or a code of behaviour, using
punishment to correct disobedience.
DIVISION OF LABOR - Authority and
responsibility are clearly defined and officially
sanctioned. Job descriptions are specified with
responsibilities and line of authority. All
employees have thus clearly defined rules in a
system of authority and subordination.
DIVISION OF WORK - This principle is the
same as Adam Smith's division of labour.
Specialization increases output by making
employees more efficient.
EQUITY - Managers should be kind and fair
to their subordinates.
ESPRIT DE CORPS - Promoting team spirit
will build harmony and unity within the
organisation.
FIELD TRAINING PROGRAM - refers to
the training required to make the temporary
appointment of a new PNP member permanent.
FORMAL HIERARCHICAL STRUCTURE
- An organization is organized into a hierarchy
of authority and follows a clear chain of
command. The hierarchical structure effectively
delineates the lines of authority and the
subordination of the lower levels to the upper
levels of the hierarchical structure.
GRIEVANCE - a wrong considered as grounds
for complaint, or something believed to cause
distress.
IMMEDIATE SUPERVISOR - refers to a
person authorized to make the performance
evaluation rating of a PNP member.
INITIATIVE - Employees who are allowed to
originate and carry out plans will exert high
levels of effort.
JUST CAUSE - refers to the legal grounds that
would warrant the relief or removal of a PNP
member from his present position and
designation in the PNP organization.
MANAGEMENT BY RULES - A bureaucracy
follows a consistent set of rules that control the
functions of the organization. Management
controls the lower levels of the organization's
hierarchy by applying established rules in a
consistent and predictable manner.
MANAGERS ARE SALARIED OFFICIALS
- A manager is a salaried official and does own
the administered unit. All elements of a
bureaucracy are defined with clearly defined
roles and responsibilities and are managed by
trained and experienced specialists.
MANDATORY CAREER COURSES - refers
to the required training for a PNP member to be
eligible for promotion to the next higher rank.
MAX WEBER - As a German academic,
Weber was primarily interested in the reasons
behind the employees’ actions and in why
people who work in an organization accept the
authority of their superiors and comply with the
rules of the organization.
MAXIMUM TENURE OF POSITION - is
the maximum cumulative period for a PNP
member to hold a particular position level.
MENTAL INCAPACITY - is a condition
where a PNP member is unable to exercise
his/her reasoning faculties or incapable of
understanding and acting with discernment
his/her duties and responsibilities as a result of
illness or injury as may be determined by the
PNP medical screening committee.
NON-PROMOTION - refers to the non
advancement to the next higher rank or position
beyond the maximum prescribed period.
ORDER - People and materials should be in the
right place at the right time.
ORGANIC PERSONNEL TO A UNIT - is a
PNP member assigned to a particularunit
covered with appropriate PNP assignment
orders.
ORIGINAL APPOINTMENT - refers to the
appointment for the initial entry of PNP member
to the uniformed service who meets all the
requirements of the position.
ORGANIZING - that is the establishment of
the formal structure of authority through which
work subdivisions are arranged, defined, and
coordinated for the defined objective.
PENDENCY OF AN ATTRITION ACTION
- refers to the stage when the endorsement of the
PRO regional director or the NSU director of a
PCO Attrition action has been officially
received by the concerned NHQ PCO attrition
board through the NHQ screening committee
report of a PNCO  attrition action has been
officially received by the NHQ/ PRO/NSU
attrition board.
PERSONNEL ACTION ON ATTRITION -
is an action filed before the screening committee
based on a verified statement of an alleged
means of attrition by an initiating person.
PERSONNEL ADMINISTRATION -
Recruitment, induction, placement, transfer,
promotion, salary administration of Police
personnel.
PERSONNEL HIRED ON GROUNDS OF
TECHNICAL COMPETENCE -
Appointment to a position within the
organization is made on the grounds of technical
competence. Work is assigned based on the
experience and competence of the individual.
PERSONNEL PROGRAMS - refers to the
activities programmed to implement the
organization philosophy or creed and the
personnel philosophy of central managers in
relation to people so as to accomplish
organizational objectives.
PLANNING - that is working out in broad
outline the things that need to be done and the
methods for doing them to accomplish the
purpose set for the enterprise.
POLICE APPRAISAL OR
PERFORMANCE RATING - is the evaluation
of the traits, behavior and effectiveness of a
police officer on the job as determined by work
standards.
POLICE COMPENSATION - Financial
compensation in the form of wages of salaries
constitutes the largest single expenditure for
most organizations. In Metropolitan Manila and
other urban centers, wages of salaries represent
the sole source to meet the basic needs of food,
clothing and shelter.
POLICE PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT -
(Human Resources Management) may be
defined as that area of management concerned
with human relations in the police organization.
POLICE PERSONNEL PLANNING – is a
study of the labor supply of jobs, which are
composed with the demands for employees in an
organization to determine future personnel
requirements, which either increase or decrease.
POLICE PLACEMENT - is the process of
making police officers adjusted and
knowledgeable in a new job and or working
environment.
POLICE RECRUITMENT - is the process of
encouraging police applicant from outside an
organization to seek employment in an
organization.
RECRUITMENT - refers to the overall process
of attracting, selecting and appointing suitable
candidates for jobs within an organisation, either
permanent or temporary.
POLICE SELECTIONS (screening) - is the
process of determining the most qualified police
applicant for a given position in the police
organization.
POLICE TRAINING AND
DEVELOPMENT – refers to any method used
to improve the attitude, knowledge, and skill or
behavior pattern of an employee for adequate
performance of a given job.
PROMOTION - is the advancement of an
employee's rank or position in an organizational
hierarchy system.
PROMOTION - means shifting of an employee
to a higher position carrying higher
responsibilities, facilities, status and salaries.
PHYSICAL FITNESS TEST - the method of
evaluating the physical condition of PNP
members in terms of stamina, strength, speed
and agility.
PHYSICAL INCAPACITY - the inability of a
PNP member to perform his/her duties and
responsibilities due to physical defect as a result
if disease or injury as may be determined by the
PNP medical screening committee.
POOR PERFORMANCE - is the poor rating
in the promulgated PNP performance evaluation
rating system.
REMUNERATION - Workers must be paid a
fair wage for their services.
REPORTING - that is keeping those to whom
the executive is responsible informed as to what
is going on, which thus includes keeping
himself and his subordinates informed through
records, research, and inspection.
RESPONDENT - refers to the PNP member
subjected to attrition proceedings.
RETIREMENT - the termination of
employment and official relations of a PNP
member who rendered at least 20 years of active
service in the government with payment of
corresponding benefits.
SCALAR CHAIN - The line of authority from
top management to the lowest ranks represents
the scalar chain. Communications should follow
this chain. However, if following the chain
creates delays, cross-communications can be
allowed if agreed to by all parties and superiors
are kept informed.
SECOND LEVEL PCO RANKS - refers to
police commissioned officers below the third
level ranks in the PNP.
SECOND LEVEL PCNO RANKS - refers to
all rank for police non commissioned officers.
SEPARATION - is the termination of
employment and official relations of a PNP
member who rendered less than 20 years of
active service in the government with payment
of corresponding benefits.
STABILITY OF TENURE OF PERSONNEL
- High employee turnover is inefficient.
Management should provide orderly personnel
planning and ensure that replacements are
available to fill vacancies.
STAFFING - that is the whole personnel
function of bringing in and training the staff and
maintaining favorable conditions of work.
SUBORDINATION OF INDIVIDUAL
INTERESTS TO THE GENERAL interest –
The interests of any one employee or group of
employees should not take precedence over the
interests of the organisation as a whole.
THIRD LEVEL PCO RANKS - refers to
police commissioned officers with the rank of
Police Senior superintendent and higher.
TOTAL PERMANENT PHYSICAL
DISABILITY - is any impairment of the body
which renders PNP member indefinitely
incapable of substantially performing the
mandated duties and functions of his position.
TRANSFER - refers to a change in job
assignment.
UNITY OF COMMAND - Every employee
should receive orders from only one superior.
UNITY OF DIRECTION - Each group of
organisational activities that have the same
objective should be directed by one manager
using one plan.
WAIVER PROGRAM - refers to the waiver of
the minimum age, height, weight and
educational requirements for the initial
appointment to the PNP pursuant to existing
laws and policies.
WAIVER - the act of choosing not to use or
require something that you are allowed to have
or that is usually required.
WELFARE - the health, happiness, and
fortunes of a person or group.
WRITTEN DOCUMENTS - All decisions,
rules and actions taken by the organization are
formulated and recorded in writing. Written
documentsensure that there is continuity of the
organization’s policies and procedures.
F. COMPARATIVE POLICE SYSTEM
1998 - Asean Chiefs of Police (Aseanapol) was
estabished.
MEMBERS ASEANAPOL
      1. Indonesia
      2. Malaysia
      3. Philippines
      4. Singapore
      5. Thailand
      6. Brunei Darussalam
      7. Vietnam
      8. Laos PDR
      9. Myanmar
      10.Cambodia
ABU SAYYAF - Abu means father and sayyaf
means swordsmith, is a militant Islamist group
based in and around
AL QAEDA - literally means the base, a global
militant Islamist organization founded by
Osama bin Laden, Abdullah Azzam, and several
other militants.
APOSTASY -  is defined as the conscious
abandonment of Islam by a Muslim in word or
through deed. It includes the act of converting to
another religion by a person who was born in a
Muslim family or who had previously accepted
Islam.
ARVAN TAVNII TSAGDAA - The National
Police Agency of Mongolia. Created in 1965
and with its headquarters in the capital
Ulaanbaatar.
Basic Functions of Criminal Justice System
1. Policing
2. Adjudication
3. Correction
CENTRALIZED POLICE - A country with
only one recognized police force which operates
entire that country. It uses a centralized system
of policing.  Philippines is an example of
centralized police because the Philippine
National Police has one central office with many
regional, provincial and local branches
throughout the country.
DECENTRALIZED POLICE - refers to a
system where police administrations and
operations are independent from one state to
another. It is more applicable to countries with
federal government.
COMPARATIVE CRIMINOLOGY -
Theories (Scheider) Alertness to crime theory -
is that as a nation develops, people’s alertness to
crime is heightened, so they report more crime
to police and also demand the police become
moreeffective at solving crime problems.
CHOWKIDAR - in India, means one who
inhabits a "chowki", police station or guard
house.
ECONOMIC OR MIGRATION THEORY -
is that crime everywhere is the result of
unrestrained migration and over population in
urban areas such as ghettos and slums.
OPPORTUNITY THEORY - is that along
with higher standards of living, victims become
more careless of their belongings, and
opportunities for committing crime multiply.
DEMOGRAPHIC THEORY - is based on the
event of when a greater number of children are
being born, because as these baby booms grow
up, delinquent subcultures develop out of the
adolescent identity crisis. Deprivation theory
holds that progress comes along with rising
expectations, and people at the bottom develop
unrealistic expectations while people at the top
don’t see themselves rising fast enough.
MODERNIZATION THEORY - sees the
problem as society becoming too complex.
THEORY OF ANOMIE AND SYNOMIE -
(the latter being a term referring to social
cohesion on values), suggests that progressive
lifestyle and norms result in the of older norms
that once held people together (anomie).
CHUSAI-SAN - the rural police officer in
Japan.
COMPARATIVE CRIMINAL JUSTICE - it
is as subfield of the study of criminal justice
systems worldwide. It studies the similarities
and differences in structure, goals, punishment
and emphasis on rights as well as the history and
political stature of different systems.
COMPARATIVE POLICE SYSTEM - it is
the science and art of investigating and
comparing the police system of nations. It
covers the study of police organizations,
trainings and methods of policing of various
nations.
CONFUCIAN THOUGHT - The belief that
social order can be achieved through moral and
political reform because man is by nature good
or capable of goodness.
COUNTRIES WITH LESS OR NO CRIME
1. Switzerland
2. Japan
3. Ireland
4. Egypt - Siwa Oasis
CYBERCRIMES - are generally defined as
any type of illegal activity that makes use of the
Internet, a private or public network, or an in-
house computer system.
CYBERSTALKINg - a technologically based
attack on person because of anger, revenge, or
control.
COMPUTER FRAUD - altering data or
gaining unlawful use of computer or services.
IDENTITY THEFT - using another's personal
information to commit fraud or other crimes.
COMPUTER VIRUSES - a program that
copies itself and infects a computer.
DENIAL OF SERVICE ATTACKS - making
service unavailable to users.
MALWARE - malicious software that
interferes with the functioning of computers and
sending data of user over the internet.
INFORMATION WARFARE - attacks on
information and computer systems.
 
DIFFERENT POLICE GLOBAL
ORGANIZATIONS
1. ASEAN Chiefs of Police
2. Europol
3. IACP
4. Interpol
5. UN policing
DRUG TRAFFICKING - Drug trafficking is
the commercial exchange of drugs and drug
paraphernalia. This include any equipment used
to manufacture illegal drugs or use them.
ELLINIKI ASTYNOMIA - is the national
police service of Greece.
EUROPOL - It means European Police Office
or Europol. Europol is the European Union’s
criminal intelligence agency. It became fully
operational on July 1,1999. Europol only acts on
request at present.
EUROPOL'S MANDATE
1. llicit drug trafficking
2. Illicit immigration networks;
3. Terrorism; Forgery of money (counterfeiting
of the euro) and other means of payment;
4. Trafficking in human beings (including child
pornography);
5. Illicit vehicle trafficking;
6. Money laundering
GENDARMERIE NATIONALE - is the
national rural police force of Algeria.
NATIONAL GENDARMERIE - is a branch
of the French Armed Forces, in charge of public
safety, with police duties among the civilian
population.
GLOBALIZATION -  is a process of
interaction and integration among the people,
companies,and government of different nations,
as process driven by international trade and
investment and aided by information
technology.
HEZBOLLAH - literally means "Party of
God", is a Shi'a Islamist militant group and
political party based in Lebanon.
HONGKONG POLICE FORCE - It is the
world's second, and Asia's first, police agency to
operate with a modern policing system.
HUMAN TRAFFICKING - the illegal
movement of people, typically for the purposes
of forced labor or commercial sexual
exploitation.
IACP - (International Association of Chiefs of
Police) the world’s oldest and largest nonprofit
membership organization of police executives,
with over 20,000 members in over 80 different
countries. IACP’s leadership consists of the
operating chief executes of international,
federal, state and local agencies of all sizes.
ILLEGAL DRUG TRADE - the term being
used in the international scene, it is a more
comprehensive term than drug trafficking as it
includes cultivation and manufacture.
INTERNATIONAL CRIME - Defined as
crimes against the peace and security of
mankind.
INTERNATIONAL CRIMES
1. Aggression (by one state against another)
2. Treat of aggression
3. Genocide (destroying a national, ethnic,
racial, or religious group)
4. Terrorism
5. Drug trafficking
INTERNATIONAL CRIMINAL JUSTICE -
It involves the study and description of one
country’s law, criminal procedure, or justice.
Comparative criminal justice system attempts to
build on the knowledge of criminal justice in
one country by investigating and evaluating, in
terms of another country,culture, or institution.
INTERPOL - (International Criminal Police
Organization)  It began in1923,and at the same
time its name was International Criminal Police
Commission. In 1956, its name became
International Criminal Police Organization.
Slowly, the name of this international
organization became famous as Interpol. Now,
Interpol is the second biggest international
organization; the United Nations is the first.
JEMAAH ISLAMIYAH - (Islamic
Congregation) is a Southeast Asian militant
Islamist terrorist organization dedicated to the
establishment of a regional Islamic caliphate in
Southeast Asia.
JOLLY R. BUGARIN - a Filipino former
President of the Interpol, from 1980 to 1984. He
is the only Filipino who had achieved that feat.
KOBAN - is a small neighborhood police
station found in Japan. Often translated to
English as Police Box. Koban are staffed by a
relatively small number of police officers
(usually 3-5 officers).
CHUZAISHO - (residential police box) is
usually staffed by a single officer. The
Chuzaisho is typically located outside of urban
districts in villages and is operated by one
community officer, who resides with his family
in this police facility.
HASHUTSUSHO -  (police box) The
Hashutsusho is typically placed in an urban
district and is operated by a number of
community police officers who work under a
shift system. The community officers generally
live in the jurisdiction served by the
Hashutsusho.
MODEL SYSTEM - is used to described the
countries being used as topics of
discussion.These countries are chosen not
because they are greater than others but because
they are thefocus of comparison being studied.
MONEY LAUNDERING - the concealment of
the origins of illegally obtained money, typically
by means of transfers involving foreign banks or
legitimate businesses.
MUTAWA - religious police in Saudi Arabia
whose duty is to ensure strict adherence to
established codes of conduct.
NATIONAL PUBLIC SAFETY
COMMISSION - is the policy making and
oversight body of the national police forces in
Japan and South Korea.
NGĀ PIRIHIMANA O AOTEAROA - it
literally means "the policeman", is the national
police force of New Zealand. Policing in New
Zealand started in 1840.
PALERMO PROTOCOLS - are three
protocols that were adopted by the United
Nations to supplement the 2000 Convention
against Transnational Organized Crime. They
are:
1. The Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish
Trafficking in Persons, especially Women and
Children; and
2. The Protocol against the Smuggling of
Migrants by Land, Sea and Air.
3. The Protocol against the Illicit Manufacturing
and Trafficking in Firearms, Their Parts and
Components and Ammunition
POLRI - (Kepolisian Negara Republik
Indonesia) Indonesian National Police. The
Chief of Police of Indonesia is called Kapolri.
POLICE BOX - is a British telephone kiosk or
callbox located in a public place for the use of
members of the police, or for members of the
public to contact the police. Most are disused at
present with the advent of two way radio and
mobile phones.
POLIS DIRAJA - the Royal Malaysia police.
RA 8792 - Electronic Commerce Act of 2000.
RA 9208 - The Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
of 2003.
RA 9165 - Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs
Act of 2002.
RA 9372 - Human Security Act of 2007.
RA 9995 - Anti-Photo and Voyeurism Act of
2009.
SCHUPO - (Schutzpolizei), the state level
police of the German States.
TALIBAN - means "students", is an Islamic
fundamentalist political movement in
Afghanistan.
TERRORISM - the unofficial or unauthorized
use of violence and intimidation in the pursuit of
political aims.
TRANSNATIONAL CRIME - It is a term that
has been used in comparative and international
criminal justice study in recent years to reflect
the complexity and enormity of global crime
issues. It is defined by the United Nations (UN)
offences whose inception, proportion and/or
direct or indirect effects involve in more than
one country.
EXAMPLES OF TRANSNATIONAL
CRIMES
1. Money laundering
2. Drug trafficking
3. Terrorism
4. Human trafficking
5. Cyber crime
TRANSNATIONAL ORGANIZED CRIME -
involves the planning and execution of illicit
business ventures by groups or networks of
individuals working in more than one country.
These criminal groups use systematic violence
and corruption to achieve their goal. Crimes
commonly
include money laundering; human smuggling;
cyber crime; and trafficking of humans, drugs,
weapons, endangered species, body parts, or
nuclear material.
TYPES OF COURT SYSTEMS OF THE
WORLD
1. ADVERSARIAL SYSTEM - the accused is
innocent until proven guilty.
2. INQUISITORIAL SYSTEM - the accused
is guilty until proven innocent.
VETTING - is the process of performing a
background check on someone to ensure that
they are suitable for a job requiring secrecy,
loyalty, or trustworthiness.
WELL KNOWN ORGANIZED CRIME
GROUP
1. RUSSIAN MAFIA - Around 200 Russian
groups that operate in nearly 60 countries
worldwide. They have been involved in
racketeering, fraud, tax evasion, gambling, drug
trafficking, ransom, robbery and murder.
2. LA COSA NOSTRA - Known as the Italian
or Italian-American mafia. The most prominent
organized crime group in the world from the
1920’s to the 1990’s. They have been involved
in violence, arson, bombings, torture, sharking,
gambling, drug trafficking, health insurance
fraud, and political and judicial corruption.
3. YAKUZA - Japanese criminal group. Often
involved in multinational criminals activities,
including human trafficking, gambling,
prostitution, and undermining licit businesses.
4. FUKCHING - Chinese organized group in
the United States. They have been involved in
smuggling, street violence, and human
trafficking.
5. TRIADS - Underground criminal societies
based in Hong Kong. They control secret
markets and bus routes and are often involved in
money laundering and drug trafficking.
6. HEIJIN - Taiwanese gangsters who are often
executives in large corporations. They are often
involved in white collar crimes, such as illegal
stock trading and bribery, and sometimes run for
public office.
7. JAO PHO - Organized crime group in
Thailand. They are often involved in illegal
political and business activity.
8. RED WA - Gangsters from Thailand. They
are involved in
   manufacturing and trafficking
methamphetamine.
2. CRIMINALISTICS
A. PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION
ALPHONSE BERTILLON - was a French
criminologist and anthropologist who created
the first system of physical measurements,
photography, and record-keeping that police
could use to identify recidivist criminals.
ANCIENT BABYLON - fingerprints were
used in clay tablets for business transactions.
1000 - 2000 BC
ANTHROPOMETRY - the first system of
personal identification.
AZIZUL HAQUE AND HEM CHANDRA
BOSE(1897) - Two Indian fingerprint experts
credited with primary development of the Henry
System of fingerprint classification (named after
their supervisor, Edward Richard Henry).
BERTILLON SYSTEM - a system of
identification which focuses on the meticulous
measurement and recording of different parts
and components of the human body.
CHIROSCOPY – It is the examination and
thorough study of the palms of the human hand
as a point identifying persons.
CORE -
1. Approximate center of the pattern
2. It is placed upon or within the innermost
sufficient recurve.
DACTYL - finger
DACTYLOGRAPHY - the scientific study of
fingerprints as a means of identification.
DACTYLOMANCY - the scientific study of
fingerprint for the purposes of personality
interpretation.
DACTYLOSCOPY - a method of studying
fingerprints to establish identification.
DELTA -
1. point on a ridge at or nearest to the point of
divergence of two typelines and
2. is located at or directly in front of the point of
divergence.
DERMAL PAPILLAE - is the irregular pegs
composed of delicate connective tissue
protruding and forming ridges of the skin on the
fingers, palms, toes, and soles of the feet.
Dr. Henry P. DeForrest - he accomplished the
first fingerprint file established in the United
States, and the first use of fingerprinting by a
U.S. government agency.
DR. NEHEMIAH GREW - in 1684, he was
the first European to publish friction ridge skin
observations.
EDGEOSCOPY – the study of the
morphological characteristics of friction ridges;
shape or contour of the edges of friction ridges.
EDMOND LOCARD - informally referred to
as the Sherlock Holmes of France, he developed
the science of poroscopy, the study of
fingerprint pores and the impressions produced
by these pores. He went on to write that if 12
specific points were identical between two
fingerprints, it would be sufficient for positive
identification. This work led to the use of
fingerprints in identifying criminals being
adopted over Bertillon's earlier technique of
anthropometry.
FINGERPRINT - is an impression of the
friction ridge of all or any part of the finger.
Fingerprint ridges are formed during the third to
fourth month of fetal development.
FINGERPRINT CLASSIFICATION
SYSTEMS
1. The Henry Classification System – developed
by Henry in the late 1800s.
2. Icnofalangometric System – the originalname
of the system developed by Vucetichin 1891
3. Dactiloscopy – the new name of the
systemdeveloped by Vucetich.
4. The Oloriz System of Classification –
developed by Oloriz Identakey – developed in
the 1930s by G. Tyler Mairs.
5. The American System of Fingerprint
Classification – developed by Parke in1903.
6. The Conley System, The Flack-
ConleySystem – developed in 1906 in New
Jersey,an improved Conley System.
7. NCIC Fingerprint Classification System.
Collins System – a classification system
forsingle fingerprint used in Scotland Yard inthe
early 1900s.
8. Jorgensen System – a classification systemfor
single fingerprints used in the early1900s.
9. Battley System – a classification system
forsingle fingerprints used in the 1930s
FRICTION SKIN - also called papillary skin,
is the epidermal layer found on the ventral or
lower surface of the hands and feet covered with
ridges and furrows.
FUNDAMENTAL LAYERS OF FRICTION
SKIN
1. EPIDERMIS - outer layer (stratum corneum,
stratum mucusum)
2. DERMIS - inner layer (blood vessel, dermal
papipllae, various glands and nerves)
FURROWS - the depressed or canal-like
structure/the white space between the ridges.
GILBERT THOMPSON - He used his thumb
print on a document to prevent forgery. First
known use of fingerprints in the U.S.
JOHN EVANGELIST PURKINJE - anatomy
professor at the University of Breslau, in 1823,
he published his thesis discussing nine
fingerprint patterns  but he made no mention of
the value of fingerprints for personal
identification. He is considered by many as
the Father of Dactyloscopy. For purposes of the
criminology licensure examination, Johannes
Evangelist Purkenji is the same person as John
Evangelist Purkinje.
JUAN VUCETICH - In 1892, two boys were
brutally murdered in the village of Necochea,
near Buenos Aires, Argentina. Initially,
suspicion fell on a man named Velasquez, a
suitor of the children's mother, Francisca Rojas.
Investigators found a bloody fingerprint at the
crime scene and contacted Juan Vucetich, who
was developing a system of fingerprint
identification for police use. Vucetich compared
the fingerprints of Rojas and Velasquez with the
bloody fingerprint. Francisca Rojas had denied
touching the bloody bodies, but the fingerprint
matched one of hers. Confronted with the
evidence, she confessed—the first successful
use of fingerprint identification in a murder
investigation.
LOOP
1. One or more ridges enter upon either side
2. Recurve
3. Touch or pass an imaginary line between
delta and core
4. Pass out or tend to pass out upon the same
side the ridges entered.
THREE LOOP CHARACTERISTICS
1. A sufficient recurve
2. A Delta
3. A ridge count across a looping ridge
MARCELO MALPIGHI - in 1686,  an
anatomy professor at the University of Bologna,
noted fingerprint ridges, spirals and loops in his
treatise. A layer of skin was named after him;
"Malpighi" layer, which is approximately
1.8mm thick. Malpighi is considered as the
"Grandfather of Dactyloscopy".
MARK TWAIN - author of the novel
Pudd'nhead Wilson where one of the characters
has a hobby of collecting fingerprints.
PAUL-JEAN COULIER - of Val-de-Grâce in
Paris, published his observations that (latent)
fingerprints can be developed on paper by
iodine fuming, explaining how to preserve (fix)
such developed impressions and mentioning the
potential for identifying suspects' fingerprints by
use of a magnifying glass.
POROSCOPY – refers to the examination of
the shape,size and arrangement of the small
opening on friction ridge through which body
fluids are secreted or released. Poros (a pair),
Skopien (to study)
PODOSCOPY – a term coined by Wilder and
Wentwrth which refers to the examination of the
soles and their significance in personal
identification. Podo (foot), Skopien (to study)
RIDGE - the elevated or hill-like structure (the
black lines with white dots)
1. RECURVING RIDGE - a single ridge that
curves back to the direction where it started.
2. ENDING RIDGE - it refers to an abrupt end
of a ridge
3. ENCLOSURE OR LAKE RIDGE - a single
ridge that divides into two but does not remain
open and meet at a certain point to form the
original single ridge.
4. SUFFICENT RECURVE - a recurving
ridge which is complete with its shoulder free
from any appendage.
5.DIVERGING RIDGE - two ridges that split
apart.
6.CONVERGING RIDGE - two ridges that
meet at certain point.
7.BIFURCATION - a ridge formation in which
a single ridge splits or divides into 2 or more
ridges.
8.RIDGE DOT (Island Ridge) - refers to a
ridge formation in a form of a dot or period.
9.APPENDAGE - a short ridge found at the top
or summit of a recurve.
10.ROD (Bar) - a short or long ridge found
inside the recurve directed towards the core.
11.OBSTRUCTION RIDGE - short ridge
found inside the recurve which blocks the inner
line of flow towards the core.
12.TYPELINES - a diverging ridge that tends
to surround the pattern area and serves as a basic
boundary of fingerprint impression.
13.PATTERN AREA - a part of a loop or
whorl pattern surrounded by typelines and
consisting of the delta, the core and other ridges.
14.DELTA - also called the outer terminus, is a
point along the ridge formation found at the
center or near the center of the
diverging typelines.
15.CORE - also called the heart or inner
terminus, usually found at the center of the
innermost recurve.
RIDGE DESTRUCTION - ridge destruction
of the friction skin can either be temporary or
permanent. Generally temporary destruction
occur when only the epidermis layer of the
friction skin has been damaged while permanent
damage can be injected to the friction skin due
to the damage in the dermis layer.
RIDGE FORMATION - ridges start to form in
the fingers and thumb during the 3rd to 4th
month of fetus life.
RIDGEOLOGY – describes the
individualization process of any area of friction
skin using allavailable detail.
RIDGE CHARACTERISTICS
1. RIDGE DOTS - An isolated ridge unit
whose length approximates its width in size.
2. BIFURCATIONS - The point at which one
friction ridge divides into two friction ridges.
3. TRIFURCATIONS - The point at which one
friction ridge divides into three friction ridges.
4. ENDING RIDGE - A single friction ridge
that terminates within the friction ridge
structure.
5. RIDGE CROSSING - A point where two
ridge units intersect.
6. ENCLOSURES (Lakes) - A single friction
ridge that bifurcates and rejoins after a short
course and continues as a single friction ridge.
7. SHORT RIDGES (Islands) - Friction ridges
of varying lengths.
8. SPURS (Hooks) - A bifurcation with one
short ridge branching off a longer ridge.
9. BRIDGES - A connecting friction ridge
between parallel running ridges, generally right
angles.
SIR EDWARD RICHARD HENRY -  he was
appointed Inspector-General of Police of
Bengal, India in 1891, he developed a system of
fingerprint classification enabling fingerprint
records to be organized and searched with
relative ease.
SIR FRANCIS GALTON - He devised a
method of classifying fingerprints that proved
useful in forensic science. He pointed out that
there were specific types of fingerprint patterns.
He described and classified them into eight
broad categories: 1: plain arch, 2: tented arch, 3:
simple loop, 4: central pocket loop, 5: double
loop, 6: lateral pocket loop, 7: plain whorl, and
8: accidental
SIR HENRY FAULDS - his first paper on the
subject of fingerprint was published in the
scientific journal Nature in 1880. Examining his
own fingertips and those of friends, he became
convinced that the pattern of ridges was unique
to each individual.
SIR WILLIAM JAMES HERSCHEL - was a
British officer in India who used fingerprints for
identification on contracts.
SKOPIEN - to study or examine.
SWEAT DUCT - the passage way.
SWEAT GLAND - the producers of sweat.
SWEAT PORES - the tiny opening/the tiny
white dot
TIME LINE - FINGERPRINTS
1000-2000 B.C. - Fingerprints were used on
clay tablets for business transactions in ancient
Babylon.
3RD CENTURY B.C. - Thumbprints begin to
be used on clay seals in China to “sign”
documents.
610-907 A.D. - During the T’ang Dynasty, a
time when imperial China was one of the most
powerful and wealthy regions of the world,
fingerprints are reportedly used on official
documents.
1ST CENTURY A.D. - A petroglyph located
on a cliff face in Nova Scotia depicts a hand
with exaggerated ridges and finger whorls,
presumably left by the Mi'kmaq people.
14TH CENTURY A.D. - Many official
government documents in Persia have
fingerprint impressions. One government
physician makes the observation that no two
fingerprints were an exact match.
1686 - At the University of Bologna in Italy, a
professor of anatomy named Marcello Malpighi
notes the common characteristics of spirals,
loops and ridges in fingerprints, using the newly
invented microscope for his studies. In time, a
1.88mm thick layer of skin, the “Malpighi
layer,” was named after him. Although Malpighi
was likely the first to document types of
fingerprints, the value of fingerprints as
identification tools was never mentioned in his
writings.
1823 - A thesis is published by Johannes
Evengelista Purkinje, professor of anatomy with
the University of Breslau, Prussia. The thesis
details a full nine different fingerprint patterns.
Still, like Malpighi, no mention is made of
fingerprints as an individual identification
method.
1858 - The Chief Magistrate of the Hooghly
district in Jungipoor, India, Sir William
Herschel, first used fingerprints to
“sign” contracts with native Indians. In July of
1858, a local businessman named Rajyadhar
Konai put his hand print on the back of a
contract at Herschel’s request. Herschel was not
motivated by the need to prove personal
identity; rather, his motivation was to simply
“frighten (Konai) out of all thought of
repudiating his signature.” As the locals felt
more bound to a contract through this personal
contact than if it was just signed, as did the
ancient Babylonians and Chinese,
Herschel adopted the practice permanently.
Later, only the prints of the right index and
middle fingers were required on contracts. In
time, after viewing a number of fingerprints,
Herschel noticed that no two prints were exactly
alike, and he observed that even in widespread
use, the fingerprints could be used for personal
identification purposes.
1880 - Dr. Henry Faulds, a British surgeon and
Superintendent of Tsukiji Hospital in Tokyo,
published an article in the Scientific Journal,
"Nautre" (nature). He discussed fingerprints as a
means of personal identification, and the use of
printers ink as a method for obtaining such
fingerprints. Faulds had begun his study of what
he called “skin-furrows” during the 1870s after
looking at fingerprints on pieces of old clay
pottery. He is also credited with the first
fingerprint identification: a greasy print left by a
laboratory worker on a bottle of alcohol. Soon,
Faulds began to recognize that the distinctive
patterns on fingers held great promise as a
means of individual identification, and
developed a classification system for recording
these inked impressions. Also in 1880, Faulds
sent a description of his fingerprint
classification system to Sir Charles Darwin.
Darwin, aging and in poor health, declined to
assist Dr. Faulds in the further study of
fingerprints, but forwarded the information on to
his cousin, British scientist Sir Francis Galton.
1882 - Gilbert Thompson, employed by the U.S.
Geological Survey in New Mexico, uses his
own fingerprints on a document to guard against
forgery. This event is the first known use of
fingerprints for identification in America.
1883 - “Life on the Mississippi,” a novel by
Mark Twain, tells the story of a murderer who is
identified by the use of fingerprints. His later
book "Pudd'n Head Wilson” includes a
courtroom drama involving fingerprint
identification.
1888 - Sir Francis Galton’s began his study of
fingerprints during the 1880s, primarily to
develop a tool for determining genetic history
and hereditary traits. Through careful study of
the work of Faulds, which he learned of through
his cousin Sir Charles Darwin, as well as his
examination of fingerprints collected by Sir
William Herschel, Galton became the first to
provide scientific evidence that no two
fingerprints are exactly the same, and that prints
remain the same throughout a person’s lifetime.
He calculated that the odds of finding two
identical fingerprints were 1 in 64 billion.
1892 - Galton’s book “Fingerprints” is
published, the first of its kind. In the book,
Galton detailed the first classification system for
fingerprints; he identified three types (loop,
whorl, and arch) of characteristics for
fingerprints (also known as minutia). These
characteristics are to an extent still in use today,
often referred to as Galton’s Details.
1892 - Juan Vucetich, an Argentine police
official, had recently begun keeping the first
fingerprint files based on Galton’s Details.
History was made that year when Vucetich
made the first criminal fingerprint identification.
A woman named Rojas had murdered her two
sons, then cut her own throat to deflect blame
from herself. Rojas left a bloody print on a
doorpost. After investigators matched the crime
scene print to that of the accused, Rojas
confessed. Vucetich eventually developed his
own system of classification, and published a
book entitled Dactiloscopía Comparada
("Comparative Fingerprinting") in 1904,
detailing the Vucetich system, still the most
used system in Latin America.
1896 - British official Sir Edward Richard
Henry had been living in Bengal, and was
looking to use a system similar to that of
Herschel’s to eliminate problems within his
jurisdiction. After visiting Sir Francis Galton in
England, Henry returned to Bengal and
instituted a fingerprinting program for all
prisoners. By July of 1896, Henry wrote in a
report that the classification limitations had not
yet been addressed. A short time later, Henry
developed a system of his own, which included
1,024 primary classifications. Within a year, the
Governor General signed a resolution directing
that fingerprinting was to be the official method
of identifying criminals in British India.
1901 - Back in England and Wales, the success
of the “Henry Fingerprint Classification
System” in India was creating a stir, and a
committee was formed to review Scotland
Yard's identification methods. Henry was then
transferred to England, where he began training
investigators to use the Henry Classification
System after founding Scotland Yard's
Central Fingerprint Bureau. Within a few years,
the Henry Classification System was in use
around the world, and fingerprints had
been established as the uniform system of
identification for the future. The Henry
Classification System is still in use today in
English speaking countries around the globe.
1902 - Alphonse Bertillon, director of the
Bureau of Identification of the Paris Police, is
responsible for the first criminal identification
of a fingerprint without a known suspect. A
print taken from the scene of a homicide was
compared against the criminal fingerprints
already on file, and a match was made, marking
another milestone in law enforcement
technology. Meanwhile, the New York Civil
Service Commission, spearheaded by Dr. Henry
P. DeForrest, institutes testing of the first
systematic use of fingerprints in the United
States.
1903 - Fingerprinting technology comes into
widespread use in the United States, as the New
York Police Department, the New York State
Prison system and the Federal Bureau of Prisons
begin working with the new science.
1904 - The St. Louis Police Department and the
Leavenworth State Penitentiary in Kansas start
utilizing fingerprinting, assisted by a Sergeant
from Scotland Yard who had been guarding the
British Display at the St. Louis Exposition.
1905 - The U.S. Army gets on the fingerprinting
bandwagon, and within three years was joined
by the U.S. Navy and Marine Corps. In the
ensuing 25 years, as more law enforcement
agencies joined in using fingerprints as personal
identification methods, these agencies began
sending copies of the fingerprint cards to the
recently established National Bureau of
Criminal  Investigation.
1911 - The first central storage location for
fingerprints in North America is established in
Ottawa by Edward Foster of the Dominion
Police Force. The repository is maintained by
the Royal Canadian Mounted Police, and while
it originally held only 2000  sets of fingerprints,
today the number is over 2 million.
1924 - The U.S. Congress acts to establish the
Identification Division of the F.B.I. The
National Bureau and Leavenworth are
consolidated to form the basis of the F.B.I.
fingerprint repository. By 1946, the F.B.I. had
processed 100 million fingerprint cards;  that
number doubles by 1971.
1990s - AFIS, or Automated Fingerprint
Identification Systems, begin widespread use
around the country. This computerized system
of storing and cross-referencing criminal
fingerprint records would eventually become
capable of searching millions of fingerprint files
in minutes, revolutionizing law
enforcement efforts.
1996 - As Americans become more concerned
with the growing missing and abducted children
problem, and law enforcement groups urge the
fingerprinting of children for investigative
purposes in the event of a child becoming
missing, Chris Migliaro founds Fingerprint
America in Albany, NY. The company provides
a simple, at-home fingerprinting and
identification kit for parents, maintaining the
family’s privacy while protecting and 2. LOOP  a. Radial Loop
educating children about the dangers of               b. Ulnar Loop
abduction. By 2001, the company distributes 3. WHORL a. Plain Whorl
over 5 million Child ID Fingerprinting Kits                b. Central Pocket Loop
around the world.                c. Double Loop
1999 - The FBI phases out the use of paper                d. Accidental Whorl
fingerprint cards with their new Integrated AFIS
(IAFIS) site at Clarksburg, West PLAIN ARCH
Virginia.  IAFIS will starts with individual 1. Ridges enter upon one side
computerized fingerprint records for 2. Make a rise or wave in the center
approximately 33 million criminals, while the 3. Flow or tend to flow out upon the opposite
outdated paper cards for the civil files are kept side.
at a facility in Fairmont, West Virginia. TENTED ARCH - Possesses an
1. Angle
TYPELINES 2. Upthrust
1. Two innermost ridges that start or go parallel 3. Two of The Three basic characteristics of the
2. Diverge and surround or tend to surround the loop
pattern area ULNAR LOOP - flow toward the little finger -
ulna bone.
TYPES OF FINGERPRINTS RADIAL LOOP - flow toward the thumb -
1. Visible Prints radius bone.
2. Latent Prints PLAIN WHORL
3. Impressed Prints 1. Consists of one or more ridges which make or
tend to make a complete circuit
VISIBLE PRINTS - also called patent prints 2. With 2 delta's
and are left in some medium, like blood, that 3. Between which, when an imaginary line is
reveals them to the naked eye when blood, dirt, drawn, at least one recurving ridge within the
ink or grease on the finger come into contact inner pattern area is cut or touched.
with a smooth surface and leave a friction ridge CENTRAL POCKET LOOP
impression that is visible without development. 1. Consists of at least one recurving ridge or
LATENT PRINTS - not apparent to the naked 2. An obstruction at right angles to the line of
eye. They are formed from the sweat from flow
sebaceous glands on the body or water, salt, 3. With 2 delta's
amino acids and oils contained in sweat. They 4. Between which, when an imaginary line is
can be made sufficiently visible by dusting, drawn, no recurving ridge within the inner
fuming or chemical reagents. pattern area is cut or touched.
IMPRESSED PRINTS - also called plastic DOUBLE LOOP
prints and are indentations left in soft pliable 1. Consists of two separate loop formations
surfaces, such as clay, wax, paint or another 2. With two separate and distinct set of
surface that will take the impression. They are shoulders and
visible and can be viewed or photographed 3. Two delta's
without development. ACCIDENTAL WHORL
1. Consists of a combination of two different
TYPES OF PATTERNS types of patterns with the exception of the plain
1. ARCH  a. Plain Arch arch
              b. Tented Arch 2. With 2 or more delta's or
3. A pattern which possesses some of the
requirements for 2 or more different types or a
pattern which conforms to none of the
definitions.
FINGERPRINT - is an impression left by the
friction ridge of a human finger.
FRICTION RIDGE - is a raised portion of the
epidermis on the fingers and toes, the palm of
the hand or the sole of the foot, consisting of
one or more connected ridge units of the friction
ridge skin. These are sometimes known as
"epidermal ridges"
DERMATOGLYPHICS - scientific study of
fingerprints
TYPE OF PRINTS
1. EXEMPLAR - "known prints" - fingerprints
deliberately collected from a subject.
2. LATENT - means chance or accidental
impression left by the friction ridge skin on a
surface regardless of whether it is visible or
invisible at the time of deposition. Although the
word latent means hidden or invisible in modern
usage for forensic science.
3.PATENT - chance friction ridge impressions
which are obvious to the human eye  and which
have been caused by the transfer of foreign
material from a finger into a surface.
4. PLASTIC PRINT - is a friction ridge
impression left in a material that retains the
shape of the ridge detail.
5. ELECTRONIC RECORDING - example, a
man selling stolen watches sending images of
them on a mobile phone and those images
included parts of his hands in enough detail for
police to be able to identify fingerprint patterns.  measurements and fingerprints. The Henry
NOTES: PALMAR - refers to finger and palm.
PERSONALITIES WHO SIGNIFICANTLY
CONTRIBUTED TO THE SCIENCE OF
FINGERPRINT.
1. JAN EVANGELISTA PURKINJE (1787 -
1869) - a czech physiologist and professor of
anatomy at the university of Breslau,
published a thesis in 1823 discussing 9
fingerprint patterns but he did not mention
any possibility of using fingerprint to
identify people.
2. GEORG VON MEISNER (1829 - 1905) -
German anatomist who studied friction
ridges.
3. SIR WILLIAM JAMES HERSCHEL -
initiated fingerprinting in India. In 1877 at
Hoogly near Calcutta, he instituted the use
of fingerprints on contracts and deeds to
prevent the then rampant repudiation of
signatures and he registered government
pensioners fingerprint to prevent the
collection of money by relatives after a
pensioners death.
4. HENRY FAULDS - a Scottish surgeon who
in 1880, in a Tokyo hospital, published his
first paper on the subject in the scientific
journal nature. He took up the study of "skin
furrows" after noticing finger marks on
specimens of prehistoric pottery.
5. JUAN VUCETICH - an Argentine chief of
police who created the first method of
recording the fingerprint of individuals on
file, associating this these fingerprints  to the
anthropometric system of Alphonse
Bertillon.
6. ALPHONSE BERTILLON - created in
1879 a system to identify individuals by
anthropometric photographs and associated
quantitative descriptions.
7. EDWARD RICHARD HENRY - UK
home secretary who conducted an inquiry
into identification of criminals by
 Classification System of classifying
fingerprint was named after him.
8. AZIZUL HAGUE AND HEM
CHANDRA BOSE - Indian fingerprint
expert who have been credited with the
primary development of a fingerprint
classification system eventually named after
their supervisor Sir Edward Richard Henry.
9. HENRY P. DEFORREST - used
fingerprinting in the New York civil service
in 1902 and by 1906. Pioneered U.S.
fingerprinting.
10. NEHEMIAH GREW -(1641 - 1712) - in
1684, this English physician, botanist and
microscopist published the first scientific
paper to describe the ridge structure of the
skin covering the fingers and palms.
11. MARCELO MALPHIGI - an anatomy
professor at the university of Bologna, noted
in his treatise in 1686, ridges, spirals and
loops in fingerprints, A layer of skin was
named after him "malphigi layer" which is
approximately 1.8 mm thick.
12. MARK TWAIN - in his memoir life on the
Mississippi 1883, it mentioned a
melodramatic account of a murder in which
the killer was identified by a thumbprint.
Twain's novel Pudd'n head Wilson published
in 1893 includes a court room drama that
turns on fingerprint identification.    2. INDIVIDUALITY - no two fingerprints are
FINGERPRINT SENSOR - is an electronic
device used to capture a digital image of the
fingerprint pattern. The captured image is called
a live scan.
BIOMETRICS (Biometric Authentication) -
refers to the identification of humans by their
characteristics or traits
LATENT PRINT - (known as dactyloscopy or
hand print identification) - is the process of
comparing two instances of friction ridge skin
impressions from human fingers, palm of the
hand, or even toes to determine whether these
impressions could have come from the same
individual.
THE MOST POPULAR TEN PRINT
CLASSIFICATION SYSTEM.
1. ROSCHER SYSTEM - developed in
Germany. Implemented in Germany and Japan.
2. JUAN VUCETICH SYSTEM - developed
in Argentina. Implemented through out South
America.
3. HENRY CLASSIFICATION SYSTEM -
developed in India. Implemented in most
English speaking countries.
IN THE HENRY SYSTEM OF
CLASSIFICATION. THERE ARE 3 BASIC
FINGERPRINT PATTERNS.
1. LOOP - constitute 60% to 65% of all
fingerprint.
1)ulnar Loop
2)radial Loop
2. WHORL - constitute 30% to 35% of all
fingerprints.
1)plain Whorl
2)accidental Whorl
3)double Loop whorl
4)central Pocket Loop Whorl.
3. ARCH - constitute 5% of all fingerprints.
1)plain Arch
2)tented Arch
THE BASIC FUNDAMENTALS OF
FINGERPRINTS ARE:
1. PERMANENCE - fingerprints never change.
alike.
CHARACTERISTICS OF A RIDGE
(minutia Features)
1. RIDGE ENDING - the end of a ridge.
2. BIFURCATION - the Y-shaped split of one
ridge into two.
3. DOT - is a very short ridge that looks like a
dot.
When is fingerprint ridges formed? ans.
formed during the third to fourth month of fetal
development.
Automated Fingerprint Identification System
(AFIS) - is the process of automatically
matching one of many unknown fingerprints
against a database of known and unknown
prints.
What is a Loop? ans. the ridges enter from one
side of the finger, form a curve and then exit on
that same side.
What is a whorl? ans. ridges form circularly
around a central point on the finger.
What is an Arch? ans. the ridges enter from
one side of the finger, rise in the center forming
an arch and then exit the other side of the finger.
What does a Minutiae Include? ans. It
includes the following:
1. RIDGE ENDING - the abrupt end of a ridge.
2. RIDGE BIFURCATION - a single ridge
that divides into two ridges.
3. SHORT RIDGE OR INDEPENDENT
RIDGE - a ridge that commences, travels a
short distance and then ends.
4. ISLAND - a single small ridge inside a short
ridge or ridge ending that is not connected to all
other ridges.
5. RIDGE ENCLOSURE - a single ridge that
bifurcates and reunites shortly afterward to
continue as a single ridge.
6. SPUR - a bifurcation with a short ridge
branching off a longer ridge.
7. CROSSOVER OR BRIDGE - a short ridge
that runs between two parallel ridges.
8. DELTA - a Y-shape ridge meeting.
9. CORE - A U-turn in the ridge pattern.
FORENSIC ANTHROPOLOGY - forensic
discipline that studies human skeletal remains
for identification.
FORENSIC ODONTOLOGY - study of
dental features to identify a victim when the
body is otherwise unidentifiable.
B. POLICE PHOTOGRAPHY
ALHAZEN (IBN AL-HAYTHAM) - a great
authority on optics in the Middle Ages who
lived around 1000 AD, invented the first pinhole
camera, (also called the Camera Obscura } and
was able to explain why the images were upside
down.
ANGELO SALA - a self educated chemist, he
discovered that when paper contained powdered
silver nitrate it would react with sunlight,
causing it to darken. These pioneering
experiments with silver salts were a crucial step
towards the later invention of photography. He
published his findings in a pamphlet in 1614.
ANNA ATKINS - (1799- 1871) an English
Botanist, she is considered to be the first female
photographer.
ARISTOTLE - he observed and noted the first
casual reference to the optic laws that made
pinhole cameras possible, around 330 BC, he
questioned why the sun could make a circular
image when it shined through a square hole.
ARTHUR FELLIG - (Weegee) became
famous because of his frequent, seemingly
prescient arrivals at scenes only minutes after
crimes, fires or other emergencies were reported
to authorities.
CARL WILLIAM SCHEELE - (1742-1786)
Swedish scientist, self-educated. He used to
work as an assistant in pharmacies and showed a
talent in chemistry from a very young age. In
spite an offer made to him to study in London or
Berlin, he operated a pharmacy in Kφping
where he spend the rest of his life and made all
his important inventions. He was especially
interest on chemical analysis and worked
particularly with the chemical reactions between
silver nitrate and sunlight, therefore making a
break through in the chemistry of photography.
The records from his experiments were of a
great importance for the next generations of
scientists.
DIGITAL PHOTOGRAPHY - uses an array
of electronic photo detectors to capture the
image focused by the lens, as opposed to an
exposure on photographic film.
EMULSION - is a mixture of two or more
liquids that are normally immiscible
(nonmixable or unblendable). Emulsions are
part of a more general class of two-phase
systems of matter called colloids.
EXPOSURE - is the amount of light per unit
area (the image plane illuminance times the
exposure time) reaching a photographic film, as
determined by shutter speed, lens aperture and
scene luminance.
FILM SPEED - is the measure of a
photographic film's sensitivity to light,
determined by sensitometry and measured on
various numerical scales, the most recent being
the ISO system.
FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY - (forensic
imaging)(crime scene photography) it is the art
of producing an accurate reproduction of a
crime scene or an accident scene using
photography for the benefit of a court or to aid
in an investigation.
FREDERICK SCOFF ARCHER - an English
sculptor who invented the wet plate negative in
1851. Using a viscous solution of collodion, he
coated glass with light-sensitive silver salts.
Because it was glass and not paper, this wet
plate created a more stable and detailed
negative.
GELATIN - It is used to hold silver halide
crystals in an emulsion in virtually all
photographic films and photographic papers.
GEORGE EASTMAN - he invented in 1889 a
film with a base that was flexible, unbreakable,
and could be rolled. Emulsions coated on a
cellulose nitrate film base, such as Eastman's,
made the mass-produced box camera a reality.
HAMILTON SMITH - he patented in 1856 the
Tintypes, another medium that heralded the
birth of photography. A thin sheet of iron was
used to provide a base for light-sensitive
material, yielding a positive image.
TINTYPES - are a variation of the collodion
wet plate process. The emulsion is painted onto
a japanned (varnished) iron plate, which is
exposed in the camera.
HELIOGRAPHS - (sun prints) were the
prototype for the modern photograph.
HENRY FOX TALBOT - an English botanist
and mathematician and The inventor of the first
negative from which multiple postive prints
were made.
HERCULES FLORENCE - (1804-1879) Few
details are known for his life. In 1824 goes to
Brazil and takes part in a scientific mission at
the Amazon, where he becomes preoccupied
with the idea of recording images from his trip.
From 1830 devotes himself to research and
experimentation for photography. The above,
gives Brazil the ability to claim that is one of the
places in the world, where photography was
found.
HIPPOLYTE BAYARD - (1807-1887) The
most unfortunate from the pioneers
of photography. Discovered one direct positive
photographic method.
He was the first person to hold a photographic
exhibition (for
humanitarian reasons) and the first who
combined two negatives to
created one print (called Combination Printing).
As a civil servant
and with five hundred franks that received as
financial help from
Arago for improving his method, prevented him
from presenting the
discovery of photography at the French
Academy of Sciences.
History of Photography - Timeline
Ancient Times: Camera obscuras used to form
images on walls in darkened rooms; image
formation via a pinhole
16TH CENTURY: Brightness and clarity of
camera obscuras improved by enlarging the hole
inserting a telescope lens
17TH CENTURY: Camera obscuras in
frequent use by artists and made portable in the
form of sedan chairs
1727: Professor J. Schulze mixes chalk, nitric
acid, and silver in a flask; notices darkening on
side of flask exposed to sunlight. Accidental
creation of the first photo-sensitive compound.
1800: Thomas Wedgwood makes "sun pictures"
by placing opaque objects on leather treated
with silver nitrate; resulting images deteriorated
rapidly, however, if displayed under light
stronger than from candles.
1816: Nicéphore Niépce combines the camera
obscura with photosensitive paper
1826: Niépce creates a permanent image
1827: Joseph Nicephore Niepce made the first
known photographic image using the camera
obscura. The camera obscura was a tool used by
artists to draw.
1834: Henry Fox Talbot creates permanent
(negative) images using paper soaked in silver
chloride and fixed with a salt solution. Talbot
created positive images by contact printing onto
another sheet of paper.
1837: Louis Daguerre creates images on silver-
plated copper, coated with silver iodide and
"developed" with warmed mercury; Daguerre is
awarded a state pension by the French
government in exchange for publication of
methods and the rights by other French citizens
to use the Daguerreotype process.
1841: Talbot patents his process under the name
"calotype".
1851: Frederick Scott Archer, a sculptor in
London, improves photographic resolution by
spreading a mixture of collodion (nitrated cotton
dissolved in ether and alcoohol) and chemicals
on sheets of glass. Wet plate collodion
photography was much cheaper than
daguerreotypes, the negative/positive process
permitted unlimited reproductions, and the
process was published but not patented.
1853: Nadar (Felix Toumachon) opens his
portrait studio in Paris
1854: Adolphe Disderi develops carte-de-visite
photography in Paris, leading to worldwide
boom in portrait studios for the next decade
1855: Beginning of stereoscopic era
1855-57: Direct positive images on glass
(ambrotypes) and metal (tintypes or ferrotypes)
popular in the US.
1861: Scottish physicist James Clerk-Maxwell
demonstrates a color photography system
involving three black and white photographs,
each taken through a red, green, or blue filter.
The photos were turned into lantern slides and
projected in registration with the same color
filters. This is the "color separation" method.
1861-65: Mathew Brady and staff (mostly staff)
covers the American Civil War, exposing 7000
negatives
1868: Ducas de Hauron publishes a book
proposing a variety of methods for color
photography.
1870: Center of period in which the US
Congress sent photographers out to the West.
The most famous images were taken by William
Jackson and Tim O'Sullivan.
1871: Richard Leach Maddox, an English
doctor, proposes the use of an emulsion of
gelatin and silver bromide on a glass plate, the
"dry plate" process.
1877: Eadweard Muybridge, born in England as
Edward Muggridge, settles "do a horse's four
hooves ever leave the ground at once" bet
among rich San Franciscans by time-sequenced
photography of Leland Stanford's horse.
1878: Dry plates being manufactured
commercially.
1880: George Eastman, age 24, sets up Eastman
Dry Plate Company in Rochester, New York.
First half-tone photograph appears in a daily
newspaper, the New York Graphic.
1888: First Kodak camera, containing a 20-foot
roll of paper, enough for 100 2.5-inch diameter
circular pictures.
1889: Improved Kodak camera with roll of film
instead of paper
1890: Jacob Riis publishes How the Other Half
Lives, images of tenament life in New york City
1900: Kodak Brownie box roll-film camera
introduced.
1902: Alfred Stieglitz organizes "Photo
Secessionist" show in New York City
1906: Availability of panchromatic black and
white film and therefore high quality color
separation color photography. J.P. Morgan
finances Edward Curtis to document the
traditional culture of the North American Indian.
1907: First commercial color film, the
Autochrome plates, manufactured by Lumiere
brothers in France
1909: Lewis Hine hired by US National Child
Labor Committee to photograph children
working mills.
1914: Oscar Barnack, employed by German
microscope manufacturer Leitz, develops
camera using the modern 24x36mm frame and
sprocketed 35mm movie film.
1917: Nippon Kogaku K.K., which will
eventually become Nikon, established in Tokyo.
1921: Man Ray begins making photograms
("rayographs") by placing objects on
photographic paper and exposing the shadow
cast by a distant light bulb; Eugegrave;ne Atget,
aged 64, assigned to photograph the brothels of
Paris
1924: Leitz markets a derivative of Barnack's
camera commercially as the "Leica", the first
high quality 35mm camera.
1925: André Kertész moves from his native
Hungary to Paris, where he begins an 11-year
project photographing street life
1928: Albert Renger-Patzsch publishes The
World is Beautiful, close-ups emphasizing the
form of natural and man-made objects; Rollei
introduces the Rolleiflex twin-lens reflex
producing a 6x6 cm image on rollfilm.; Karl
Blossfeldt publishes Art Forms in Nature
1931: Development of strobe photography by
Harold ("Doc") Edgerton at MIT
1932: Inception of Technicolor for movies,
where three black and white negatives were
made in the same camera under different filters;
Ansel Adams, Imogen Cunningham, Willard
Van Dyke, Edward Weston, et al, form Group
f/64 dedicated to "straight photographic thought
and production".; Henri Cartier-Bresson buys a
Leica and begins a 60-year career
photographing people; On March 14, George
Eastman, aged 77, writes suicide note--"My
work is done. Why wait?"—and shoots himself.
1933: Brassaï publishes Paris de nuit
1934: Fuji Photo Film founded. By 1938, Fuji is
making cameras and lenses in addition to film.
1935: Farm Security Administration hires Roy
Stryker to run a historical section. Stryker would
hire Walker Evans, Dorothea Lange, Arthur
Rothstein, et al. to photograph rural hardships
over the next six years. Roman Vishniac begins
his project of the soon-to-be-killed-by-their-
neighbors Jews of Central and Eastern Europe.
1936: Development of Kodachrome, the first
color multi-layered color film; development of
Exakta, pioneering 35mm single-lens reflex
(SLR) camera
WORLD WAR II: Development of multi-layer
color negative films Margaret Bourke-White,
Robert Capa, Carl Mydans, and W. Eugene
Smith cover the war for LIFE magazine
1940S - in the early 1940's commercially viable
color films (except Kodachrome, introduced in
1935) were brought to the market. These films
used the modern technology of dye-coupled
colors in which a chemical process connects the
three dye layers together to create an apparent
color image.
1947: Henri Cartier-Bresson, Robert Capa, and
David Seymour start the photographer-owned
Magnum picture agency
1948: Hasselblad in Sweden offers its first
medium-format SLR for commercial sale;
Pentax in Japan introduces the automatic
diaphragm; Polaroid sells instant black and
white film
1949: East German Zeiss develops the Contax
S, first SLR with an unreversed image in a
pentaprism viewfinder
1955: Edward Steichen curates Family of Man
exhibit at New York's of Modern Art
1959: Nikon F introduced.
1960: Garry Winogrand begins photographing
women on the streets of New York City.
1963: First color instant film developed by
Polaroid; Instamatic released by Kodak; first
purpose-built underwater introduced, the
Nikonos
1970: William Wegman begins photographing
his Weimaraner, Man Ray.
1972: 110-format cameras introduced by Kodak
with a 13x17mm frame
1973: C-41 color negative process introduced,
replacing C-22
1975: Nicholas Nixon takes his first annual
photograph of his wife and her sisters: "The
Brown Sisters"; Steve Sasson at Kodak builds
the first working CCD-based digital still camera
1976: First solo show of color photographs at
the Museum of Modern Art, William
Eggleston's Guide
1977: Cindy Sherman begins work on Untitled
Film Stills, completed in 1980; Jan Groover
begins kitchen utensils
1978: Hiroshi Sugimoto begins work on
seascapes.
1980: Elsa Dorfman begins making portraits
with the 20x24" Polaroid.
1982: Sony demonstrates Mavica "still video"
camera
1983: Kodak introduces disk camera, using an
8x11mm frame (the same as in the Minox spy
camera)
1985: Minolta markets the world's first
autofocus SLR system (called "Maxxum" in the
US); In the American West by Richard Avedon
1988: Sally Mann begins publishing nude
photos of her children
1987: The popular Canon EOS system
introduced, with new all-electronic lens mount
1990: Adobe Photoshop released.
1991: Kodak DCS-100, first digital SLR, a
modified Nikon F3
1992: Kodak introduces PhotoCD
1993: Founding of photo.net (this Web site), an
early Internet online community; Sebastiao
Salgado publishes Workers; Mary Ellen Mark
publishes book documenting life in an Indian
circus.
1995: Material World, by Peter Menzel
published.
1997: Rob Silvers publishes Photomosaics
1999: Nikon D1 SLR, 2.74 megapixel for
$6000, first ground-up DSLR design by a
leading manufacturer.
2000: Camera phone introduced in Japan by
Sharp/J-Phone
2001: Polaroid goes bankrupt
2003: Four-Thirds standard for compact digital
SLRs introduced with the Olympus E-1; Canon
Digital Rebel introduced for less than $1000
2004: Kodak ceases production of film cameras
2005: Canon EOS 5D, first consumer-priced
full-frame digital SLR, with a 24x36mm CMOS
sensor for $3000; Portraits by Rineke Dijkstra
INFRARED PHOTOGRAPHY - the film or
image sensor used is sensitive to infrared light.
JOHANN HEINRICH SCHULZE - (1687 -
1744) he was a German professor at the
University of Altdorf. He was the first person to
produce Photograms, which were created by
using paper masks in direct contact with a jar
containing a mixture of silver nitrate powder
and chalk. Schulze proved that the darkening of
silver nitrate was caused by light and ruled out
the possibility of the change being caused by
temperature, by observing no tonal change to
silver nitrate when heated in an oven.
JOSEPH NICEPHORE NIEPCE - made the
first photographic image with a camera obscura.
LATENT IMAGE - is an invisible image
produced by the exposure to light of a
photosensitive material such as photographic
film.
LOUIS DAGUERRE - a Frenchman and A
professional scene painter,  was able to reduce
exposure time to less than 30 minutes and keep
the image from disappearing afterwards. He was
the inventor of the first practical process of
photography.
MUGSHOT - (police photograph)(booking
photograph) is a photographic portrait typically
taken after a person is arrested.
NEGATIVE - is an image, usually on a strip or
sheet of transparent plastic film, in which the
lightest areas of the photographed subject
appear darkest and the darkest areas appear
lightest.
PARALLAX - is a displacement or difference
in the apparent position of an object viewed
along two different lines of sight, and is
measured by the angle or semi-angle of
inclination between those two lines.
PHOTOGRAPHY - It is a method of recording
images by the action of light, or related
radiation, on a sensitive material.
PHOTOGRAPHIC FILM - (Film) is a strip or
sheet of transparent plastic film base coated on
one side with a gelatin emulsion containing
microscopically small light-sensitive silver
halide crystals.
POINT-AND-SHOOT CAMERA - (compact
camera) is a still camera designed primarily for
simple operation.[1] Most use focus free lenses
or autofocus for focusing, automatic systems for
setting the exposure options, and have flash
units built in.
ROGUES GALLERY - is a police collection
of pictures or photographs of criminals and
suspects kept for identification purposes
SHUTTER LAG - is the delay between
triggering the shutter and when the photograph
is actually recorded.
SHUTTER SPEED - (exposure time) is the
length of time a camera's shutter is open when
taking a photograph.
SILVER HALIDES - The light-sensitive
chemicals used in photographic film and paper.
SINGLE-LENS REFLEX CAMERA (SLR) -
typically uses a mirror and prism system (hence
"reflex", from the mirror's reflection) that
permits the photographer to view through the
lens and see exactly what will be captured,
contrary to viewfinder cameras where the image
could be significantly different from what will
be captured.
SIR HUMPHRY DAVY - (1778-1829)
Chemistry genius, friend and assistant of
Wedgwood in his experiments whose results
were published at Royal Society, in 1802 by
Davy. The problem of "fixing" the images
remained in spite of Davy's breakthroughs in
chemistry.
SIR JOHN F.W. HERSCHEL - a scientist
who first used the word photography in 1839.
The word photography was derived from the
Greek words Photos, which means light and
Graphein, which means to draw.
SNAPSHOT - is popularly defined as a
photograph that is "shot" spontaneously and
quickly, most often without artistic or
journalistic intent.
THOMAS WEDGWOOD - (1771 - 1805) an
Englishman who made good ground creating
Photograms and recording images from his
Camera Obscura or pinhole camera, However,
he never overcome the problem of fixing the
image and therefore the prints produced had to
be viewed for very short periods of time in a
darkened environment.
TWIN-LENS REFLEX CAMERA (TLR) - is
a type of camera with two objective lenses of
the same focal length.
VIEWFINDER - is what the photographer
looks through to compose, and in many cases to
focus, the picture.
C. FORENSIC BALLISTICS (FIREARMS
AND AMMUNITION)
ACP - Automatic Colt Pistol
ACTION - the working mechanism of a
firearm. An action is a physical mechanism that
manipulates cartridges and/or seals the breech.
AIR GUN - a gun that uses compressed air or
gas to propel a projectile also called air rifle,
pellet rifle, pellet gun, and gun.
AIR RESISTANCE - (Drag) decelerates the
projectile with a force proportional to the square
of the velocity.
AMMUNITION - shall mean loaded shell rifle,
muskets, carbine, shotguns, revolver and pistol
from which a bullet, ball, shot, shell or other
missiles may be forwarded by means of gun
powder or other explosives.
ANVIL - An internal metal component in a
boxer primer assembly against which the
priming mixture is crushed by the firing pin
blow.
ANVIL MARKS - A term generally used by
the military for a cartridge with a full metal
jacketed bullet or solid metal projectile.
ARMALITE – occasionally, the home of
manufacturing company becomes almost a
generic term. It happens with the colt produced
M16, which has been designed and develop at
Armalite. The Armalite business was formed by
Charles Dorchester and George Sullivan in
1950. Armalite employed Eugene Stoner, Chief
Engineer and one of the top designers of the
country.
AUTOMATIC - when the mechanism is so
arranged that it will fire continuously when the
trigger is depressed.
Automatic Action TYPE – a firearm design
that feeds cartridges fires and ejects cartridge
cases as long as the trigger is fully depressed
and there is cartridge available in the feed
system.
BARREL - the metal tube through which the
projectiles travel.
BERTHOLD SCHWARTZ - the inventor of
gunpowder. His real name is Constantin
Anklitzen, a Franciscan monk in the town of
Freiberg in Germany.
BLOWBACK -  In firearm, an automatic and
semi-automatic firearm design, that directly
utilizes the breech pressure exerted on the head
of the cartridge cases to actuate the mechanism.
In ammunition, a leakage of gas re-ward
between the case and chamber wall from the
mouth of the case.
BOLT ACTION TYPE – a firearm in which
the breech closure is
(1) in line with the bore at all times,
(2) manually reciprocated to load, unload and
cock
(3) and is locked in place by breech bolt lugs
and engaging abutments usually in the receiver.
BORE -  the interior of the barrel of a gun or
firearm.
BREECHFACE - is the front part of the
breechblock that makes contact with the
cartridge in a firearm. The breech block (or
breechblock) in a gun is what holds a round in
the chamber, and absorbs the recoil of the
cartridge when the round is fired, preventing the
cartridge case from moving.
BROACH CUTTER - used to create a rifling
impression on a barrel.
BROACH, GANG – A tool having a series of
cutting edges of slightly increasing height used
to cut the spiral grooves in a barrel. All groves
are cut with a single pass of the broach.
BROACH, SINGLE – a non-adjustable rifling
cutter that cuts all the grooves simultaneously,
and is in a series of increasing dimensions until
the desired groove depth is achieved
BROWNING, J.M. - born in 1855. Started the
production of a single shot rifle that was
adopted by Winchester.
BUCKSHOT - coarse lead shot used in shotgun
shells. Lead pellets ranging in size from .20
inches to .36 inch diameter normally loaded in
shotshells.
BUFFER -  in a firearm, any part intended to
absorb shock and check recoil.
BULLET - a projectile propelled from the
firearm. A metallic or non-metallic cylindrical
projectile. Originated from the French word
“BOULETTE”, a small ball. In common police
par lane, a bullet maybe called “SLUG”.
    
- TWO BASIC TYPES OF COMMERCIAL
BULLETS IN COMMON USED TODAY.
1. LEAD BULLETS - are used in almost all
revolver ammunition and in some low or
medium powder rifle cartridges. Are produced
in an automatic swedging machine from
extruded wire containing the proper percentage
of tin and antimony for hardening.
2. JACKETED BULLETS - are used for
automatic pistols ammunition and medium and
high power rifle ammunition. The most common
are those from the blowback- .25 ACP, .380
ACP, 9mm Luger, .45 ACP (Automatic Colt
Pistol) and several types of high velocity .30s.
These are all made automatically by swedging a
cup of metal around a lead core.
ARMOR-PIERCING BULLETS - is pointed
flat base bullet with gliding metal jacket. The
core is of pointed, boat-tailed shape and is made
of harden tungsten, chrome steel and has a
blackened tip. Used to penetrate armored cars
and vehicles.
TRACER BULLET - when fired, emit a light
red flame from its base, there by showing the
gunner the trace of flame, the path as well as the
striking point of the bullet, the flame continuing
to burn and trace for about 600 yards. These are
intended primarily for machine gun use and can
be seen by day and night. The point of the bullet
colored red is for identification. These are used
only in the military service, and were never sold
to individuals. Should an individual obtain one
or more of these cartridges, he should at once
return it to military control or else dispose of
these by throwing into a deep river or lake, as
they are exceedingly dangerous to have around.
This should never be “Monkeyed” with, and
particularly no attempt should be made to
unload them for examination, as these may
ignite and cause exceedingly serious burn or
fire. The ingredients used in tracer and igniter
mixtures are confidential.
INCENDIARY BULLET - is similar in
construction to a tracer bullet, but the
composition contained in the cavity burns
fiercely impact with a very hot flame which will
quite reliably ignite anything that the bullet
strikes. For identification purposes the
incendiary bullet has a light blue color. The
same precautionshould be observed as with
tracer cartridges.
DUM-DUM BULLET - this word and type of
bullet were invented by British Ordinance force
stationed at their arsenal at Dum-Dum, India.
The British army was engaged in extensive
Punitive expedition on the Northwest Frontier of
India, fighting against Afghan and Pathan
tribesmen. It soon develop that such a full
jacketed bullet was of no practical effect against
primitive natures. So the English made some of
these bullets expanding by grinding of the nose
of the jacketed bullet. These are now known as
Hallow Point bullet and Soft Point Bullet.
GAS CHECK BULLET - to prevent the
melting of the base, lead bullets intended to be
fired at higher velocity have their gases
protected with a small copper cups. The bullet is
casts with a slightly tape-ring base, and the
copper gas chock is then pressed lightly on the
bore, the cup remaining on the bullet when it is
fired.
WAD CUTTER BULLET - a cylindrical bullet
design having a sharp shouldered nose intended
to cut target paper clearly to facilitate easy and
accurate soaring.
WAX BULLET - a bullet made from paraffin
and other wax preparation usually used for short
range indoor target shooting.
MARKS FOUND OF FIRED BULLETS
1. LANDMARKS - depressed portion caused
by the lands.
2. GROOVE MARKS - raised on elevated
portions caused by the grooves.
3. SKID MARKS - when the bullet enters the
rifled bore from a stationary position and is
forced abruptly into the rifling, its natural
tendency is to go straight toward before
encountering the regular rifling twist.
4. SLIPPAGE MARKS - bullets fired from a
worn-out barrel, oily barrels and slightly
oversized bullets.
5. SHAVING MARKS - most commonly these
marks are found on the bullets  fires from  a
revolver due to a poor alignment of the
cylindrical with the bore.
IDENTIFICATION OF A BULLET -
PRINCIPLES
1. No two barrels are microscopically identical
as the surfaces of their bores all possess
individual and characteristics on their own.
2. When a bullet is fired from a rifled barrel, it
becomes engraved by the riflings and this
engraving will vary in its minute details with
every individual bore. So it happens that the
engravings on the bullet fired from one barrel
will be different from that on a similar bullet
fired from another barrel. And conversely the
engraving on bullets fired from the same barrel
will be the same.
3. Every barrel leaves its thumb marks on every
bullet which is fired through it, just as every
breech face leaves its thumb marks on the base
of every fired cartridge case.

TEST BULLET - a bullet fired from a bullet
recovery system for comparison analysis.
BULLET RECOVERY SYSTEM - Any
method which will allow the undamaged
recovery of a fired bullet. Differing systems are
needed for different cartridges depending upon
bullet composition, jacket thickness, and
velocity. Water tanks and cotton boxes are most
commonly in use.
BULLET SPLASH - The spatter and
fragmentation of a bullet upon impacting a hard
surface.
BULLET WIPE - The discolored area on the
immediate periphery of a bullet hole, caused by
bullet lubricant, lead, smoke, bore debris, or
possible jacket material. Sometimes called
"Burnishing" or
"Leaded Edge".
BUTTON – a hardened metal plug, called a
button, with a rifled cross-section configuration.
It is pushed or pulled through a drilled and
reamed barrel so as to cold form the spiral
grooves to the desired depth and twist. When the
carbide button was first introduced it was
described as a SWAGING PROCESS or
SWAGED RIFLING.
CALIBER - the diameter of the bore of a rifled
firearm. The caliber is usually expressed in
hundredths of an inch or millimeters
LAND TO LAND - the way to determine the
caliber of a gun is to measure the diameter of
the bore from land to land.
CANE GUN, KNIFE PISTOLS - many
devices primarily designed for other purposes
will have a gun mechanism incorporated in
them. (also known as FREAKISH DEVICE)
CANNELURE - a circumferential groove
generally of a knurled or plain appearance on a
bullet or cartridge. These three uses including
crimping, lubrication, and identification.
CARTRIDGe - a term to describe a complete
un-fired unit, consisting of bullet, primer,
cartridge case, and gunpowder.
TEST CARTRIDGE CASE - a cartridge case
obtain while test firing a firearm in a laboratory
to be used for comparison or analysis.
FUNCTION OF CARTRIDGE CASES
1. It holds the bullet gunpowder and primer.
2. It serves as a water proof container for the
gunpowder.
3. It prevents the escape of gases to the rear.
MARKS FOUND ON CARTRIDGE CASES
1. FIRING PIN IMPRESSION – the
indentation in the primer of a tentative cartridge
case or in the rim of a rimface cartridge case
cause when it is struck by the firing pin.
2. BREECHFACE MARKINGS – negative
impression of the breechface of the firearm
found on the head of the cartridge case after
firing.
3. CHAMBER MARKS – individual
microscope marks placed upon a cartridge case
by the chamber wall as a result of any of the
following:
a. Chambering
b. Expanding during firing
c. Extraction
4. EXTRACTOR MARKS – toolmarks
produced upon a cartridge case form contact
with the extractor. These are usually found on or
just ahead of the rim.
5. EJECTOR MARKS – toolmarks produced
upon a cartridge or cartridge case on the head,
generally at or near the rim, form contact with
the ejector.
CAPE GUN – a doubled-barreled shoulder arm
with barrel side by side: one being a smooth
bore and the other being rifled.
CASE HEAD - The base of the cartridge case
which contains the primer.
CAST-OFF - the off-set of the butt of a firearm
to the right-handed shooter and to the right for a
left-handed shooter.
CAST-ON - the offset of the butt of a firearm to
the left for a right-handed shooter and to the
right for a left-handed shooter.
CHAMBER - the rear part of the barrel bore
that has been formed to accept a specific
cartridge. Revolver cylinders are multi-
chambered.
COCK -  place a firing mechanism under a
spring tension. Raise the cock of (a gun) in
order to make it ready for firing.
FULL COCK - the position of the hammer or
strike when the firearm is ready to fire.
COMPENSATOR - (MuzzleBrake) a device
attached to or integral with the muzzle end of
the barrel to utilize propelling gases for counter-
recoil.
CETME - Centro dos Studios Technicos de
Materiales Especiales. This is a Spanish
government weapon development agency, based
in Madrid.
CLASS CHARACTERISTICS - Are those
characteristics which are determinable only after
the manufacture of the firearm. They are
characteristics whose existence is beyond the
control of man and which have a random
distribution. Their existence in the firearms is
brought about by the tools in their normal
operations resulting in wear and tear, abuse,
mutilation, corrosion, erosion, and other
fortuitous causes.
CLASSIFICATION OF CARTRIDGE
ACCORDING TO RIM
1. RIMMED TYPE - the diameter of the rim is
greater than the diameter of the body of the
cartridge case. e.g. caliber .38 and caliber .22.
2. SEMI-RIMMED TYPE- the diameter of the
rim is slightly greater than the diameter of the
body of the cartridge case. e.g. caliber .25. 32
auto. Super .38.
3. RIMLESS TYPE - the diameter of the rim is
equal to the body of the cartridge case. e.g.
caliber .5.56mm, .30, .9mm, .45.
4. REBATED TYPE- the diameter of the rim is
smaller than the body of the cartridge case. e.g.
caliber 8mm x 59.
5. BELTED TYPE - there is a protruding metal
around the body of the cartridge case near the
rim. e.g. caliber 338 magnum 13.9 x 39
COLT - Samuel Colt was born in July 1814 in
was to be instrumental in making the revolver a
practical type of pistol.
CYLINDER - storage for ammunition in a
revolver, the cylinder rotates as the action is
cocked.
DAMSCUS - an obsolete barrel making process
the barrel is formed by twisting or braiding
together steel and iron wires or bars. Sometimes
called LAMINATED BARREL.
DERRINGER, HENRY - born at the
beginning of the 19th century. Worked at
Philadelphia where he manufactured Pocket
Pistol.
DRILLING - refers to a combination gun that
has three barrels.
EJECTOR ROD - a metal rod used to help
with the removal of the cartridges.
ENERGY BULLET - the capacity of a
projectile to do work.
FIREARMS IDENTIFICATION - a
discipline mainly concerned with determining
whether a bullet or cartridge was fired by a
particular weapon.
FIRING PIN - is a lightweight part, which
serves to transfer energy from a spring-loaded
hammer to the primer, while a striker is usually
heavier, and is directly connected to the spring
providing
the energy to impact the primer.
FLARE GUNS - used in cases such in sending
signals and enabling to see enemies in the dark.
FORENSIC BALLISTICS - A scientific study
of firearm identification with the use of
laboratory examination. The subject gives
emphasis on the study of ammunition,
projectiles, gunpowder, primer, and explosives,
including the use of the bullet comparison
microscope. It also deals with the principles in
the microscopic and macroscopic examination
of firearm evidence and the preparation of
reports for legal proceedings in the solution of
cases involving firearms.
TYPES OF PROBLEMS IN FORENSIC
BALLISTICS
1. Given a bullet to determine the caliber and
type of firearm from which it was fire.
2. Given fired cartridge case, to determine the
caliber and type of firearm from which it was
fired.
3. Given a bullet and a suspected firearm, to
determine whether or not the bullet was fired
from the suspected firearm.
4. Given a fired cartridge case a suspected
firearm, to determine whether or not the
cartridge was fired from the suspected firearm.
5. Given two or more bullets, to determine
whether or not they were fired from only one
firearm.
6. Given two or more cartridge cases, to
determine whether or not they were fired.
EQUIPMENTS USED IN A BALLISTICS
LABORATORY
1. COMPARISON MICROSCOPE - This
valuable instrument is specially designed to
permit the firearm examiner to determine the
similarity and dissimilarity between two fired
bullets or two fired cartridge cases by
simultaneously observing their magnified
image. It is actually two microscope couple
together with a single or two eye piece, so that
when one looks through this comparison eye
piece, he is seeing one half of what is under the
other – in other words, half of the evidence
bullet and half of the test bullet.
2. STEREOSCOPE MICROSCOPE - This is
generally used in the preliminary examination of
fired bullets and fired shells. To determine the
location of the extractor marks and ejector
marks for orientation purposes. It can be used
also in one close-up examination of tampered
serial numbers of firearms.
3. COMPARISON PROJECTOR - CP6 This
is generally used in the preliminary examination
of fired bullets and fired shells. To determine
the location of the extractor marks and ejector
marks for orientation purposes. It can be used
also in one close-up examination of tampered
serial numbers of firearms.
4. BULLET RECOVERY BOX - For
obtaining best fired bullet or test fired cartridge
cases from the suspected firearms submitted to
the ballistics laboratory. In test firing suspected
firearms, it is standard procedure to used
ammunition that are of the same caliber, make
or brand and manufactured in the same year
with that of the evidence bullet or shell. Water is
one of the means to obtain test bullets and test
shells because the microscope marks on the
cylindrical or peripheral surface of the bullets
are preserved for good used. The same is true
with cotton.
5. MEASURING PROJECTOR - MP6 This
projector determines the width of the lands,
width of grooves, diameter and twist of fired
bullets.
6. VERNEIR CALIPER - This instrument
determines the bullet diameter and barrel length.
7. ANALYTICAL BALANCE - This more or
less determines the weight of the bullets, shots
and pellets for possible type, caliber and make
for firearm from which they were fired.
8. TAPER GAUGE - Used for determining the
diameter of the bore of the firearms.
9. ONOSCOPE - For examining the interior
surface of the barrel.
10.HELIXOMETER - For measuring the pitch
of the rifling. Pitch of rifling is the distance
advanced by the rifling in one complete turn or a
distance traveled by the bullet in one complete
turn.
11.CHRONOGRAPH - For determining the
speed of the bullet or the muzzle velocity of the
bullet.
FOULING - the residual deposits remaining in
the bore of  a firearm after firing.
GARAND, JOHN C. - was born in North
Carolina in 1818. Developed the hang-ranked
machine gun. A development of Duver Gatling
type of machine gun.
GAS GUNS – these will be found in all shapes
and sizes and used for firing tear gas and other
forms of disabling gases.
GAS OPERATED - an automatic or semi-
automatic firearm in which the propellant gases
are used to unlock the breech bolt and then to
complete the cycle of extracting and expecting.
GAS PORT - an opening in the wall of a barrel
to allow gas to operate a mechanism or reduce
recoil.
GRIP - handle of the handgun.
GUNPOWDER - any of the various powder
used in firearms as a propellant charge.
TYPES OF GUNPOWDER
1. BLACK POWDER - consists of the jet black
and rather shiny grains. Although black powder
has been in used for about six centuries, and
although methods of manufactured are naturally
led to greater efficiency in action, its
composition has remained practically the same
in all countries.
2. SMOKELESS POWDER - a mixture of
nitrocellulose 60 parts, nitroglycerine 35 parts
and Vaseline 5 parts. These substances are
almost entirely smokeless in action. They are all
given the generic term of nitro powders and are
legion in number. All nitro powders used 2. in
rifles, pistols, and revolvers are a gelatinized
powder that is they are made by forming dough
into sticks or grains. The identification of
partially burnt powder grains may become a
matter of vital importance, since such grains
maybe found around the entrance hole of a
wound, and it will obviously help if the type of
powder can be identified from these unburnt
grains.
HAMMER - part that strikes the primer to
cause ignition.
HAMMERLI, JOHANN ULRICH - hammerli
weapons have always been the epitome of Swiss
precision Engineering ability.
HANDGUN - a revolver or a pistol.
HARPOON GUNS - barbed spear in hunting
large fish.
HEADSPACE - is the distance measured from
the part of the chamber that stops forward
motion of the cartridge (the datum reference) to
the face of the bolt.
HEADSTAMP - numerals, letters, and symbols
stamped into the head of the cartridge case or
shotshell to identify the anufacture caliber gauge
or give additional information.
HECKLER AND KOCK – Edmond Heckler
has been a plant manager with Mauser, and Alex
Siedel a designer with Mauser.
HOOK – a cutting tool that cuts has a hook
shape and only cuts one groove at a time.
KEYHOLE - an oblong or an oval hole in a
target that is produced by an unstable bullet
striking the target at an oblique angle to the
bullets. Longitudinal axis.
LEADING - the accumulation of lead in the
bore of a firearm from the passage of lead shot
or bullet. Also called METAL FOULING.
LEVER ACTION TYPE – a design wherein
the breech mechanism is cycled by an external
lever generally below the receiver
LIBERATOR PISTOL – made by the US
government for use in occupied countries in
Europe during the recent war and fired
the .45ACP cartridge, single shot, and smooth
bore. The liberator pistol was a tiny little single
shot 45. It was designed to fit in the palm of
your hand, and designed to get close to
somebody, execute him, and then take away his
gun. The liberator pistol was intended for short-
range use, and although it held five extra rounds
of ammo in the pistol grip, it could only hold
one round in the barrel. And after firing you'd
need to extract the spent cartridge using a rod
before replacing it with a fresh round
LUBALOY - is a wrought copper alloy that is
composed mainly of copper and zinc. In 1922,
the Western Cartridge Company introduced a
copper-washed bullet jacketing called Lubaloy
which stands for a lubricating alloy. Lubaloy
replaced standard bullet jacketing which had
been cupro-nickel coated steel or solid cupro-
nickel.
LUGER, GEORGE - was born in Australia in
1849. he did lasting designed work in
connection with 9mm Parabellum cartridge.
MACHINE GUN TYPE – primarily used only
in military combat and will seldom be
encountered by the firearms technician.
MACHINE MARKINGS - a cross section of a
gun barrel will show small grooves or striations
all along with the lands and grooves.
MARLIN, JOHN MAHLON - New Haven,
Connecticut manufacturer of lever action rifle,
1800’s.
MAUSER - Paul and Wilhelm brothers
produced parts of the rifle which had been
adopted by the German government in 1871.
MOSSBERGE, OSCAR - born in Sweden in
1866 and went to the United States. The maker
of high quality .22 rifles. Sporting rifles and
pump action shotguns.
MOSSIN, SERGEI - Colonel of Russia Army.
Designated in Russian Service Rifle in 1891.
MULTI –BARRELED GUNS – in particular,
one will find guns having the three or four
barrels are mounted in one receiver. Some may
have a combination of several different gauges
of shotguns, or a combination of shotgun barrels
and rifle barrel.
MUZZLE - the end of the barrel through which
the bullet exits.
MUZZLE ENERGY - is the kinetic energy of
a bullet as it is expelled from the muzzle of a
firearm. It is often used as a rough indication of
the destructive potential of a given firearm or
load.
NAMBU, KIJIRO - an army gun officer
designer. His first design was produced by the
Kayoba Factory in 1904.
PARADOX - an obsolete barrel designed in
which the major length of the barrel is smooth
and last few inches are rifled.
PEN GUN -  a small caliber firearm shaped like
a pen or pencil.
POWDER - commonly used term for the
propellant in a cartridge or shotshell.
PRESSURE - in a firearm, the force developed
by the expanding gasses generated by the
combustion of the propellant.
PRIMER - The ignition components of
cartridge primers are used for igniting
prominent. A blow from the firing pin of the
firing cup compresses the priming composition
to detonate. This detonation
produces a flame that passes through the vent of
flesh hole in the cartridge case, igniting the
gunpowder.
COMPOSITION OF A PRIMER
1. Potassium Chlorate - 45%
2. Antimony Sulfide         - 23%
3. Fulminate of Mercury - 32%
PROOFMARK - a distinctive symbol stamped
into the metal of the barrel or other parts of a
firearm to indicate that testing of the part
bearing the stamp by firing proof loads has been
carried out.
PROOF TEST - is a form of stress test to
demonstrate the fitness of a load-bearing
structure. The firing of a deliberate overload to
test the strength of a firearm barrel an action.
RACHET - a notched wheel on the rear of a
revolver cylinder to rotate when a force is
applied by a level hold a hand.
RECOIL - (often called knockback, kickback
or simply kick) is the backward momentum of a
gun when it is discharged. In technical terms,
the recoil caused by the gun exactly balances the
forward momentum of the projectile and
exhaust gases (ejecta), according to Newton's
third law.
RELOAD - a cartridge, which has been
reassembled with a new primer, powder and or
other components.
REPEATING ARMS – this type is loaded with
more than cartridge into the chamber when it is
fired rather than having to perform this
operation by hand.
RESIZING - the reduction in diameter of a fire
cartridge case to unfired diameter by forcing it
into a smaller size than the fired case.
RICOCHET - is a rebound, bounce or skip off
a surface, particularly in the case of a projectile.
RIFLING - refers to helical grooves in the
barrel of a gun or firearm, which imparts a spin
to a projectile around its long axis.
TYPES OF RIFLINGS
1. STEYR TYPE - four lands, four grooves,
right hand twist and lands or equal widths ( 4-R-
G=L) used in earlier self-loading pistols.
2. SMITH AND WESSON TYPE - five lands
and five grooves, right hand twist and lands of
equal width (5-R-G=L)
3. BROWNING TYPE- six lands, six grooves,
right hand twist, narrow lands and broad
grooves. (6-R-G-2x)
4. COLT TYPE- six lands and six grooves, left
hand twist, narrow lands and broads grooves. (6-
L-G-2x)
5. WEBLEY TYPE- seven lands, seven
grooves, right hand twist, narrow lands and
broad grooves. (7-R-G3x)
6. ARMY TYPE- four lands and four grooves,
right hand twist, narrow lands and broad
grooves. ( 4-R-G3x)
ROUND -  a military term for a cartridge.
SCRAPE – a cutting tool that cuts two
opposing grooves at a time.
SHOCKING POWER - the ability of a
projectile to dissipate its kinetic energy
effectively in a target.
SHOT - a small ball or pellet of lead, a number
of which are loaded in a cartridge and used for
one charge of a shotgun.
BIRDSHOT - the smallest size of shot for
sporting rifles or other guns.
SHOTSHELL - a cartridge containing
projectile designed to be fired in a shotgun. The
cartridge body may be metal, plastic or paper.
SEMI-AUTOMATIC TYPE – A firearm
requiring a separate pull of the trigger for each
shot fired, and which uses the energy of
discharge to perform a portion of the operating
or firing cycle.
SERIAL NUMBER - a number applied to a
firearm in order to identify the individual
firearm.
SHELL - an explosive artillery projectile or
bomb.
IDENTIFICATION OF SHELLS -
PRINCIPLES
1. The breech face and striker of every single
firearm leave microscopically individualities of
their own.
2. The firearm leaves its “fingerprints” or
“thumb mark” on every cartridge case which it
fires.
3. The whole principle of identification is based
on the fact that since the breech face of every
weapon must be individually distinct, the
cartridge cases which it fires are imprinted with
this individuality. The imprint on cartridge cases
fired form different weapons must always be
different.
SHOTGUN - a smooth-bore gun for firing
small shot at short range.
a. SINGLE BARRELED SHOTGUN – it is
loaded with a single shotgun cartridge, closed.
Fired and then re-loaded by the shooter.
b. DOUBLE BARRELED SHOTGUN – the
two barrels may be side by side or they may be
one over the other. Each barrel may have its
own trigger.
c. PUMP ACTION SHOTGUN - operates in
the same manner as a slide action rifles, by
means of sliding lever under the barrel.
d. AUTO LOADING SHOTGUNS - these are
the same as auto-loading or self-loading rifles in
that the recoil action reloads the gun form the
magazine without any effort on the part of the
shooter.
SIG - (SCHWEIZERISCHE INDUSTRIE
CESSELSHALF) adopted by the Swiss
government as their standard service weapon.
The company started to produced railway
engines and carriage in 1853.
SIDELOCK – A design in which the firing
mechanism is attached to a sideplate rather than
being integral with the frame.
SIGHT - a device used for aiming.
SILENCER - a device attached to the barrel of
the firearm to reduce the noise of discharge.
Also called SOUND SUPPRESSOR.
SINGLE SHOT FIREARMS – those type of
firearms that are designated to shoot only one
shot.
SLIDE ACTION TYPE – a firearm that
features a movable forearm which is manually
actuated in motion parallel to the barrel by the
shooter. Forearm motion is transmitted to a
breech blot assembly which performs all the
functions of the firing cycle assigned to it by the
design. Also known as PUMP ACTION.
SLING - a strap fastens to a firearm to assist in
carrying or to steady it during firing. A sling
may also refer to a projectile weapon typically
used to throw a blunt projectile such as a stone,
clay or lead "sling-bullet".
SLUG - a projectile generally fired from a
shotgun either one large piece of lead or several
smaller caliber pieces.
RIFLED SLUG - a simple projectile in spiral
grooves and hollow base, intended to use in
shotgun. The slug will rotate, and thus, reach its
target much more accurate.
SMITH AND WESSON - Horace Smith and
Daniel B. Wesson formed a partnership in 1852.
They manage by producing what is probably the
best double-action revolver in the world. (Daniel
Wesson left the company to set up his own
firearm business).
SMOKE RING - the circular gray deposits
around the face of the chamber of a revolver
produced by gun powder residues upon
discharge.
STOCK - also known as a shoulder stock, a
buttstock, or simply a butt is a part of a rifle or
other firearm, to which the barrel and firing
mechanism are attached, that is held against
one's shoulder
when firing the gun.
STRIATIONS - (Striae) When a bullet is fired
through a rifled barrel, the raised and lowered
spirals of the rifling etch fine grooves called
"striations" into the bullet.
CHARACTERISTICS OF STRIATIONS
DEPEND UPON THE FF: FACTORS
1. The size and shape of the microscopic
irregularities of the acting tool.
2. The original surface smoothness of the object
acted upon.
3. Relative hardness of the two materials.
4. Speed of application or rate of relative
motion.
5. Pressure areas involved
6. Texture and uniformity of material acted
upon.
SUBMACHINE TYPE – is alight, portable
machine gun which uses pistol size ammunition.
It differs from a pistol in it that has a shoulder
stock that may or may not fold but is designed
to be fired by the use of both hands.
SWAGE – an internal mandrel with rifling
configuration which forms rifling in the barrel
by means of the external hammering. Also
known as HAMMER FORGING.
TATTOOING - small hemorrhagic marks on
the skin produced by the impact of gun powder
particles also called STRIPLING.
THOMPSON, JOHN - born in 1860 in
Newport, Kentucky. Designed the Thompson
submachine gun in 1920.
THUMB REST -  a ledge in the grip area of a
rifle or handgun in which to rest the thumb of
the trigger hand.
TRAILING EDGE - the edge of a land or
groove impression in a fired bullet which is
opposites the driving edge of the same land or
groove impressions
TRAJECTORY - the curved path of a
projectile from muzzle to target.
TRAP DOOR – An action in which a top-
hinged breechblock pivots up and forward to
open. Locking on this action is accomplished by
a cam located at the rear of the breechblock that
fits into a mating recess. Also known as a CAM
LOCK.
TRIGGER - is a mechanism that actuates the
firing of firearms.
TRIGGER GUARD - trigger guard is a loop
surrounding the trigger of a firearm and
protecting it from accidental discharge.
TRIGGER PULL - the amount of force, which
must firearm to cause sear release.
TOKAREV, FEDOR - born in Egorlikshaya in
1971. Designed the service pistol of the Soviet
forces.
TOOL MARKS IDENTIFICATION - is a
discipline of forensic science which has, as its
primary concern to determine if a tool mark was
produced by a particular tool.
TWO GENERAL TYPE OF TOOL MARKS
1. IMPRESSION TYPE - which as its name
implies a little more than a bent. A pry-bar may
leave an impression type-mark on a window
frame to which is applied. The shape and the
size of the mark, plus irregularities cause by
nicks or breaks in the pry-bar, may be such as to
permit a positive statement as to its source.
2. STRIATED TOOL MARK- is left by a tool
scrapping over an object or surface softer than
him. Thus, a pry-bar which slips during the
application may scraped over the jamb of a
door, leaving striate. Tin Snips or Bolt Cutter
have blades which frequently leave striate on the
edges of metal cut. An axe will leave striate on
wood chips, as well as the auger or blade of a
plane. Mechanical tool as a planner, joiner, and
lathe all have blades and edges which leaves
striate on chips, shaving and stock being
worked. Many examples should be given
but these are typical if the tool most encountered
in the criminal investigations. Striated marks are
often referred to a “friction marks”, abrasion
marks or “scratched marks”.
TOOLS – there are a number of tools using
cartridges that are designed to drive studs,
punch holes or cut tables. Such tools may be
encountered in the investigation of an accident.
TRAPS – these are designed to be set in the
woods and left where animals will encounter
them. They may fire a bullet or a poisoning
charge, depending on their construction.
TRIGGER - small lever that is pulled or
squeezed to start the firing process.
TRIGGER GUARD - piece that surrounds the
trigger to protect it from being accidentally
squeezed or bumped.
VELOCITY - the speed of the projectile at a
given point along its trajectory.
VIERLING - A four-barreled gun, typically
with two identical shotgun barrels and with two
rifle barrels of differing calibres. Built primarily
in Germany and Austria.
WALTHER, CARL - developed a reliable
small caliber automatic pistol in 1866.
WALKER TEST - the original chemical test
for the detection of spatial distributions of
nitrites in gun powder residue.
WINCHESTER, OLIVER - he led the
formation of the Winchester Company.
TYPES OF CARTRIDGE CASE
ACCORDING TO LOCATION OF
PRIMER
1. PIN-FIRE CARTRIDGE - the pin extends
radially through the bead of the cartridge case
into the primer. This type of cartridge is no
longer use.
2. RIM-FIRE CARTRIDGE- the priming
mixture is placed in the cavity formed in the rim
of the head of the cartridge case.
3. CENTER-FIRE CARTRIDGE- the primer
cup is force to the middle portion of the head of
the cartridge case.
4. PERCUSSION - a means of ignition of
propellant change by a mechanical blow against
the primer or percussion cap.
A. LOW POWER - a cartridge giving a muzzle
velocity of less than 1850 ft/sec.
B. HIGH POWER- a cartridge giving a muzzle
velocity of between 1925 and 2500 ft/sec.
C. HIGH INTENSITY- a cartridge giving a
muzzle velocity over 2500 ft/sec.
YAW - the angle between the longitudinal axis
of a projectile and the line of the projectile
trajectory.
ZIP GUNS - these may be in any form, since
the name has been applied to all homemade
guns. A great many of this class will be found to
be exceedingly clever mechanisms and most
effective weapon.
ZWILLING - European term for a double
barreled shoulder arm with one rifle and one
smooth bore barrel.
THE BASICS OF FIREARMS AND
AMMUNITION
This site is intended for those who are interested
in the basics and practical aspects of firearms
and ammunition
THERE ARE 5 GENERAL CATEGORIES
OF SMALL ARMS
1. Handguns
2. Rifles
3. Shotguns
4. Sub-machine guns
5. Machine guns
THERE ARE 4 BASIC TYPES OF
HANDGUNS
1. Single shot pistols
2. Derringers
3. Revolvers
4. Auto-loading pistols
GREAT AMERICAN FIREARMS
INVENTOR
1. JOHN MOSES BROWNING - He was born
on January 23, 1855 in Ogden,Utah U.S. where
his father settled after the Mormon exodus of
1847.It was in his fathers shop that he learned
the art and secrets of gunsmithing.He passed
away in Liege,Belgium in 1926 due to heart
failure.He is famous for designing many
firearms but the most famous of his design is the
colt's 45 ACP M1911 government model and
FN Browning high power model P-35 in 9mm
parabellum.He is a person who invented more
firearms than any other gun maker in the
history of the world.
2. RICHARD JORDAN GATLING - He is
the inventor of the Gatling gun.He was born on
September 12, 1818 at Maney's Neck,NC.He
died in New York city on February 26, 1903.He
has a medical degree in Ohio medical
college.He conceived the idea of the rapid fire
machine gun which is associated with his
name.He succeeded in perfecting the Gatling
gun in 1862 capable of discharging 350 shots
per minute.
3. SAMUEL COLT - He was born at
Hartford,Connecticut in 1814 and died there in
1862.After leaving school,he worked at his
father's textile mill.He spent his spare time
disassembling and reassembling
his father's guns.In 1829,he became a sailor.In
1835,he patented his five shot revolver that
transformed firearm into a multi-shot device.
4. JOHN CANTIUS GARAND - He was born
on January 1, 1888 in Saint Remi, Quebec in a
french Canadian family.He died On February
16, 1974 in Springfield,Massachusetts.He was
11 years old when he came to America speaking
little English but fluent in French.He quit
school and went to work at a textile mill and
later became a machinist at a precision tool
company.He took Correspondence course in
engineering.He is best known for creating the
first successful semi-automatic rifle,the M1
Garand,to be widely used in active military
service.
5. HORACE SMITH - He was born in
Cheshire,Massachusetts on October 28,1808
and died on January 15, 1893.He was a
gunsmith,inventor, and Businessman.He moved
to Springfield at age four.He joined his father
working in the U.S. armory as an apprentice.He
worked his own gun manufacturing business.He
patented an improvement of the breech-loading
rifle in 1851 a year before he met Wesson
through their work at Allen Brown and Luther
barrel manufacturers.He together with Daniel
Wesson patented a pistol that used a cartridge
with powder and lubricant and had a new
repeating action which became the basis for the
famous Winchester rifle.
6. DANIEL BAIRD WESSON - He was born
on May 18, 1825 in Worcester, MA and died on
August 4, 1906 at Springfield, MA due to heart
failure.He apprenticed as a gunsmith under his
elder brother Rufus and later worked with
another gunsmith brother,Frank before
partnering with Horace Smith in establishing the
Smith and Wesson arms company in 1852.He
developed a lever-action pistol with a repeating
action and the first practical self-primed
metallic cartridge.The pistol was powerful
enough that it was quickly nicknamed volcanic
followed
by the more famous volcanic rifle.
7. DAVID MARSHALL WILLIAMS - He
was born on November 13, 1900 in
Cumberland County,North Carolina and he died
on January 8, 1975 in Raleigh,North
Carolina.He built his first pistol with a reed
barrel when he was 10 years old.He was
imprisoned in Halifax County.After 8 years,he
was pardoned.When World War II broke out,he
was working for Winchester Repeating Arms
Company in Connecticut.He was famous for
designing a rifle with a short stroke gas piston
which he had worked in prison.He is best
remembered for the gun that gave him his
nickname,the M1 carbine.
8. JOHN TALIAFERRO THOMPSON - He
was born on December 31, 1860 in
Newport,Kentucky and he died on June 21,
1940.He was a soldier and a United States
Military Academy graduate.He graduated in
1882.He invented and developed the Thompson
sub-machine gun.After his death in 1940,the
Thompson sub-machine gun began to be used
for its creator's original intended purpose as
highly effective and easily carried weapon in
trench warfare
9. EARLE HARVEY - He designed the T25
rifle while working at Springfield armory.The
T25 was later renamed T47.Later on T44 was
created as an alternative to T47.In 1957,U.S.
formally adopted the T44 as the U.S. infantry
service rifle,designated M14.He is also known
as the father of the 7.62 mm NATO cartridge.
10.EUGENE MORRISON STONER - He was
born on November 22, 1922 in
Gosport,Indiana.He died on April 24, 1997 due
to cancer.He is the man most associated with the
design of the AR15 rifle,adopted by the U.S.
military as M16.
11.CHRISTIAN SHARPS - He was born on
January 2, 1810 in Washington,New Jersey.He
died on March 12, 1874 at his home in
Vernon,Depot due to tuberculosis.He was the
inventor of the first commercially successful
breech-loading rifle.At the onset of the
American Civil War,Sharp's rifle was produced
in large quantities.
12.ARTHUR WILLIAM SAVAGE - He was
born on May 13, 1857 in Kingston,Jamaica,
British West Indies and he died on September
22, 1938.He committed suicide.He is the
inventor of the Savage model 99 lever-action
rifle.
13.WILLIAM BATTERMAN RUGER - He
was born on June 21, 1916 in Brooklyn, New
york and he died on July 6, 2002 in
Prescott,Arizona.In 1938,he came up with a
design for what eventually became a light
machine gun for the United States army.
14.ELIPHALET REMINGTON - He was
born on October 28, 1793 in Suffield,
Connecticut and he died on August 12, 1861 in
Ilion,New York due to heart failure.He was a
blacksmith.He can not afford to purchase a rifle
which he need so he made his own from scrap
iron in his smithing shop and soon hired by
neighbors as rifle maker and by
1820,Remington's rifle were sold throughout
New England.He introduced America's first gun
barrel made from solid steel,the popular beal
revolver,and the breech-loading gun that
superseded the conventional muzzle-loading
rifle.
15.ROBERT PARKER PARROT - He was
born on October 5, 1804 in Lee,New Hampshire
and he died on December 24, 1877 in Cold
Spring,New York.He is a product of the U.S.
Military Academy class of 1824.During 1860,
he produced the Parrot rifle gun,an innovative
rifled cannon which was manufactured in
several sizes the largest, the 300 pounder
version weighed 26000 lbs. and its projectile
weighed 300 lbs.Parrot guns was extensively
used during the American Civil War by Union
and Confederate armies.
16.HIRAM MAXIM - He was born on
February 5, 1840 in Sangerville, Maine and he
died on November 24, 1916 in London.He was
the inventor of the Maxim gun, the first portable
fully automatic machine gun.
17.JOHN MARLIN - He was born in 1836 in
Connecticut and he died in 1901. He
apprenticed as a tool and die maker. During the
civil war, he worked at the Colt plant in
Hartford and in 1870, manufactured his own
line of revolvers and derringers. He was able,
together with outstanding team of
inventors,enduring firearms models known
today as models 39 and 336, they are the oldest
shoulder arm designs in the world still being
produced.
18.BENJAMIN TYLER HENRY - Born in
1821 and he died in 1898. He was a gunsmith
and inventor of the Henry rifle, the first reliable
lever-action repeating rifle.
D. QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS
EXAMINATIONS
3RD CENTURY A.D. - The earliest
handwriting examination cases reported.
6TH CENTURY - the Roman Emperor
Justinian dictated guidelines for the use of
handwriting comparisons in Roman courts.
1873 - the year in which the first commercially
successful typewriter was introduced.
ADDITION - inserting or modifying clause or
sentence in a document to alter its meaning.
SUBSTITUTION - replacing original entries or
writing with another.
ALBERT SHERMAN OSBORN - became the
pre-eminent American pioneer in the field when
he authored "Questioned Documents," a seminal
work in scientific document analysis that
remains in print and in use. He founded the
American Society of Questioned Document
Examiners in 1942.
ALFRED DREYFUS - A French army officer,
accused of treason through letters found
attempting to sell French secrets to Germany.
Later found that Dreyfus did not write the
letters.
ALIGNMENT - relation of successive
characters or letter of a word, signature or line
of writing to an actual or imaginary base line.
ALPHABET - is a standard set of letters (basic
written symbols or graphemes) which is used to
write one or more languages based on the
general principle that the letters represent
phonemes (basic
significant sounds) of the spoken language.
ALTERATION - any change made on a
document before, during, or after its original
execution.
METHODS OF ALTERATION 
1. Mechanical
2. Chemical
ARRANGEMENT - habitual placing and
positioning of letters and words.
CASTING - was one method used to produce
counterfeit coins in Britain and America during
the colonial period. Basically it consisted of
melting metal and then pouring the molten
liquid into a mold having a reservoir in the
shape of a coin.
CLASS CHARACTERISTICS - common to a
group of people. Learned from school or from
an individual's parent or tutor. Class
Characteristics are similarities between
individuals who learned the same type of
writing systems.
- INDIVIDUAL CHARACTERISTICS -
highly personal or peculiar to a particular writer.
Influenced by habit, mindset, personal
preference. It identifies an individual from other
writers.
- TYPES OF INDIVIDUAL
CHARACTERISTICS
1. SKILL LEVEL - the way a writing looks.
2. SLANT - is the angle of writing.
3. FORM - is the way a writer makes a letter or
movement of letters. Most basic individual
characteristic and is very important to QDE.
4. MOVEMENT - is the way a pen moves in
order to make a mark or form a letter. This can
help distinguish the difference in form. 2 letters
can be the same, but made in a different way.
5. PROPORTIONS - is the symmetry of an
individual letter.
6. HEIGHT - is comparing the height of one
letter to another. Height, proportions are usually
habits found in a specific writer.
7. “I” Dot
8. “t” Crossing
9. LOOPS - are similar to proportions.
10.PRESSURE - is the difference in ink or
pencil in width or shade. Helps show direction
of movement.
11.BASELINE ALIGNMENT - The value of
this show the questioned writing in correlation
to the baseline. Helps QDE examiners determine
whether the writing was altered or is consistent
with the rest of the writing or other examples.
12.PEN LIFTS - Pen lifts are when the pen or
pencil is lifted from the paper and reapplied to
finish a word or sentence.
13.SPEED - The speed of a writer is a key
indicator for QDE in the examination process.
Fast and slow speeds are difficult to duplicate
leaving behind inconsistencies in the writing.
14.EMBELLISHMENTS - decorate writing.
Usually found in the beginning of word, but can
be seen other places.
15.ENTRY/EXIT STROKES -  is the way a
writer begins certain letter or words and can be
very specific to an individual. Also includes the
idea of connecting stokes.
16.RETRACING - is considered fixing a
portion of writing that is not readable or
pleasing to the writer. In some cases, this can
indicate forgery but is very common in normal
handwriting to retrace letters or words.
17.SPELLING - is an individual characteristic
because of education or habits and can be an
easy fix to eliminate or pin point suspects.
18.SPACING - is the area between letters or
words and is usually specific to the writer.
19.FORMAT - is the habit in which a writer
uses to depict simple things like; Dates,
numbers, abbreviations.
Example: The way people write checks
20.CASE - is a characteristic of a writer who
might use upper case letters where a lower case
should be present.
COIN CLIPPING - shaving off a small portion
of a precious metal coin for profit.
COIN MUTILATION - cutting a portion of a
coin.
COLLECTED STANDARD - (Procured
Standard)obtained from files executed in the
course of everyday routine.
REQUESTED STANDARD - document
requested by an investigator for the purpose of
comparative examination.
COLOR SHIFTING INK - ink that changes
color when viewed in different angles.
CONNECTIONS - links which connect a letter
with the one following it.
COUNTERFEITING - imitate fraudulently for
gain. To make a copy of, usually with the intent
to defraud; forge: counterfeits money.
CUNEIFORM - denoting or relating to the
wedge-shaped characters used in the ancient
writing systems of Mesopotamia, Persia, and
Ugarit, surviving mainly on clay tablets.
CUTTING - skillful cutting away of some
portions and then inserting new one to fill the
gap.
DISGUISED WRITING - is any deliberate
attempt to alter one's handwriting to prevent
recognition.
DOCUMENT - any material that contains
marks, symbols, or signs either visible, partially
visible or invisible that may present or
ultimately convey a meaning or message to
someone.
DOCUMENT MAY BE QUESTIONED
WITH RESPECT TO ITS 
1. Authenticity
2. Identity
3. Origin
4. Relation among its parts
5. Relation to other things
TYPES OF DOCUMENT EXAMINATION
1. Handwriting Comparisons
2. Ink Examinations
3. Indented Writing
4. Alterations
5. Paper Analysis
6. Photocopy Analysis
7. Typewriting
INSTRUMENT USED IN A QUESTIONED
DOCUMENT QD LABORATORY
1. STEREO MICROSCOPE - The stereo or
stereoscopic or dissecting microscope is an
optical microscope variant designed for low
magnification observation of a sample, typically
using light reflected from the surface of an
object rather than transmitted through it.
2. LIGHT MICROSCOPE - light microscope
works like a refracting telescope except that the
object is very close to the objective lens.
3. VIDEO SPECTRAL COMPARATOR
(VSC) - is an apparatus which can:
A. ANALYSE AND COMPARE INKS: reveal
alterations on a document;
b. Visualize security features printed into
papers;
c. USE THE SPECTROMETER AND
VARIOUS BUILT-in light sources for U.V.,
visible spectrum and I.R. examinations of ink
and documents to visualise fluorescence;
examination with transmitted light or low angle
light, and recording/comparing differences in
reflectance, and absorption under variable
wavelengths of light and with various filters
which will discriminate between different inks.
4. ELECTROSTATIC DETECTION
APPARATUS (ESDA) - is an apparatus which
can:
a. Produce an evidential record of any
indentations (writing impressions) which are
present upon a page, resulting from previous
pages of over-writing in a writing pad,
notebook, or upon a letter placed inside an
envelope which was then addressed.
b. Visualise and record any other transmitted
impression, such as from a machine postal
stamp upon an envelope; or visualise and record
any paper edge impressions of a page-portion
that was torn from a page within a note-pad,
even if the page was removed some time later.
ERASURE - the removal of writing, recorded
material, or data.
EURION CONSTELLATION - is a pattern of
symbols incorporated into a number of banknote
designs worldwide since about 1996. It is added
to help imaging software detect the presence of
a banknote in a digital image.
EXEMPLARS -  Handwriting used as a
standard for comparison with the document in
question. Known authentic writing samples.
- TWO TYPES OF EXEMPLARS
1. REQUESTED WRITINGS - (Dictated) are
writing samples taken from someone for the
purpose of comparison with a questioned
document.
2. NON-REQUESTED WRITINGS -
(Undictated)(Collected) these are examples of
the subject's writings that are taken in the
normal course of business or personal
transactions.
FORENSIC DOCUMENT EXAMINATION
- the practice of the application of document
examination to the purposes of the law.
GRAPHOLOGY - is the study of handwriting
to identify the writer's personality traits.
GRAPHOLOGIST - Profiles character or
personality by drawing conclusions from certain
types of characteristics in the handwriting
sample.
HANDWRITING  - refers to a person's writing
created with a writing utensil such as a pen or
pencil.
HANDWRITING COMPARISON
CHARACTERISTICS
1. Spacing between letters
2. Spacing between words
3. Relative proportions between letters and
within letters
4. Individual letter formations
5. Formations of letter combinations
6. The overall slant of the writing
7. Connecting strokes
8. Pen lifts
9. Beginning and ending strokes
10.Unusual flourishes
11.Pen pressure
CHARACTER OF HANDWRITING
1. No single handwriting characteristic can in
itself be taken as the basis for a positive
comparison.
2. The final conclusion must be based on a
sufficient number of common characteristics
between the known and questioned writing
samples.
3. There are no hard and fast rules for a
sufficient number of personal characteristics; it
is a judgment call made by the expert examiner
in the context of each case.
HENRY MILL - was an English inventor who
patented the first typewriter in 1714
HIEROGLYPH - (Greek for "sacred writing")
is a character of the ancient Egyptian writing
system. Logographic scripts that are
pictographic in form in a way reminiscent of
ancient Egyptian are also sometimes called
"hieroglyphs".
HOLOGRAM - a three-dimensional image
formed by the interference of light beams from a
laser or other coherent light source.
INDENTED WRITING - (second page
writing), is the impression from the writing
instrument captured on sheets of paper below
the one that contains the original writing.
ELECTROSTATIC DETECTION - indented
writing may be recovered using this method.
INK - a coloured fluid or paste used for writing,
drawing, printing, or duplicating.
MICROSPECTROPHOTOMETER - A
nondestructive approach to comparing ink lines.
It is accomplished with a VISIBLE-light
microspectrophotometer.
THIN-layer chromatography is also suitable for
ink comparisons.
INTERLINEATION - insertion between lines
or paragraphs.
JUXTAPOSITION - an act or instance of
placing close together or side by side, especially
for comparison or contrast.
LINDBERGH BABY CASE - a sensational
case of kidnapping for ransom resulting in
murder of a baby where questioned document
examination is the center piece of the
investigation and the reason for the arrest of the
perpetrator.
MANUSCRIPT - is any document written by
hand, as opposed to being printed or reproduced
in some other way.
MICROPRINTING - is one of many anti-
counterfeiting techniques used most often on
currency and bank checks, as well as various
other items of value. Microprinting involves
printing very small text, usually too small to
read with the naked eye, onto the note or item.
OBLITERATION - obscuring a document by a
series of x-types, haphazard, lines, blots, and
smears.
OFFSET PRINTING - or web offset printing
is a commonly used printing technique in which
the inked image is transferred (or "offset") from
a plate to a rubber blanket, then to the printing
surface.
LETTERPRESS PRINTING - is a technique
of relief printing using a printing press. A
worker composes and locks movable type into
the bed of a press, inks it, and presses paper
against it to transfer the ink from the type which
creates an impression on the paper
PELLEGRINO TURRI - an Italian inventor,
invented a mechanical typing machine, one of
the first typewriters in 1801 for his blind lover
Countess Carolina Fantoni da Fivizzano. He
also invented carbon paper to provide the ink for
his machine.
PEN LIFT - is the practice of lifting the tip of a
pen from a writing surface. It comes in the form
of a disconnection between letters and letter
combinations.
PEN PRESSURE - the proportions of strokes
to each other in width as affected by shading
and by unconscious emphasis.
PENMANSHIP - is the technique of writing
with the hand using a writing instrument. The
art or practice of writing with the pen.
PICTOGRAPH - a pictorial symbol for a word
or phrase. Pictographs were used as the earliest
known form of writing, examples having been
discovered in Egypt and Mesopotamia from
before 3000 BC.
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT - is any
signature, handwriting, typewriting, or other
mark whose source or authenticity is in dispute
or doubtful.
MOST COMMON QUESTIONED
DOCUMENT
1. Letters
2. Checks
3. Drivers License
4. Contracts
5. Wills
6. Voters Registration
7. Passports
8. Petitions
9. Threatening Letters
10.Suicide Notes
11.Lottery Tickets
RULES IN COLLECTING QUESTIONED
DOCUMENTS
1. Original Document Preferred
2. QDE must mark all evidence - initial and
date. If document cannot be marked it should be
placed in enveloped and sealed with initial and
date.
3. Maintain chain of custody.
   
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT
EXAMINATION - The scientific methods of
identification and examination of questionable
documents, handwriting examination, detection
of forgery, falsification and counterfeiting of
documents which stress the procedures of
restoring and deciphering erasures and
obliteration's; examination of documents by
means of visible light, ultra-violet light and
ultra-red radiation and colored powders;
recognition and selection of standards; and
examination of questionable typewriting,
computerized documents and other forms of
modern printing.
RETRACING - any writing stroke which goes
back over another writing stroke.
RHYTHM - the balanced quality of movement,
producing a natural result not constrained nor
artificial.
RUBRIC AND EMBELLISHMENT - the
additional and unnecessary stroke incorporated
in writing for decorative or ornamental
purposes.
SAMUEL WILLARD SOULÉ - (January
25,1830-July 12,1875) along with Christopher
Sholes and Carlos Glidden invented the first
practical typewriter at a machine shop located in
Milwaukee, Wisconsin,
in 1869.
SECURITY FIBERS - are embedded in the
paper during manufacture and are non-
reproducible.
SECURITY THREAD - is a security feature of
many banknotes to protect against
counterfeiting, consisting of a thin ribbon that is
threaded through the note's paper.
SHADING AND PEN POSITION - the
increase in width of stroke brought by variations
in writing pressure.
SHOLES AND GLIDDEN TYPE-WRITER -
the first commercially successful typewriter.
SIGNATURE - a person's name written in a
distinctive way as a form of identification in
authorizing a cheque or document or concluding
a letter. From the latin word "signare" which
means "to sign".
KINDS OF SIGNATURE
1. FORMAL SIGNATURE - signature used on
official documents such as will or deed of sale.
2. INFORMAL SIGNATURE - signature used
in routine correspondence such as personal
letters and other documents where you want the
reader to recognize the signature but the exact
spelling of the name isn’t important.
3. STYLISTIC SIGNATURE - signature used
in signing checks, credit card receipts, etc. This
is also like the famous “physician’s signature”
on a prescription. It is often highly stylistic and
looks like a scribble with little that would be
recognizable as a signature.
SIGNATURE FORGERY - refers to the act of
falsely replicating the signature of another
person.
POPULAR METHODS OF FORGING
SIGNATURE
1. FREEHAND METHOD -  whereby the
forger, after careful practice, replicates the
signature by freehand. Although a difficult
method to perfect, this often produces the most
convincing results.
2. TRACE-OVER METHOD - the sheet of
paper containing the genuine signature is placed
on top of the paper where the forgery is
required. The signature is traced over, appearing
as a faint indentation on the sheet of paper
underneath. This indentation can then be used as
a guide for a signature.
METHODS OF SIGNATURE TRACING
1. CARBON OUTLINE METHOD - carbon
paper inserted between original and false
document.
2. INDENTATION PROCESS - original
document is placed over false one under it, to be
traced later using a pen or pencil.
3. TRANSMITTED LIGHT PROCESS - a
light source is placed under a light, the original
document is placed under the false one. The
light source will illuminate both documents so
that the writings on the original document will
be seen and traceable on the false one.
CHARACTERISTICS THAT MAY
SUGGEST PRESENCE OF FORGERY
1. Shaky handwriting
2. Pen lifts             that bears type for printing.
3. Signs of retouching
4. Letter proportions
5. Very close similarity between two or more
signatures
KINDS OF FORGERY OF SIGNATURES
1. SIMPLE FORGERY - (spurious forgery)
signing of a document in his own or in a
modified handwriting. Easy to detect once
standards of genuine signatures are obtained.
2. SIMULATED FORGERY - (freehand
forgery) the copying or imitation of a signature.
INDICATORS OF FORGERY 
1. Blunt starts and stops
2. Pen lifts and hesitations
3. Tremor
4. Speed and Pressure
5. Patching
     
SLANT - slope of writing in relation to the base
line.
SPACING -  is a blank area devoid of content,
serving to separate words, letters, numbers, and
punctuation.
STRIKING - (stamping) making an impression
of a coin on a metal blank by pressure using
steel dies.
SUPERIMPOSITION - placing or laying of
one document over another in a way that it
appears as a single image. The placement of an
image or video on top of an already-existing
image or video, usually
to add to the overall image effect, but also
sometimes to conceal something.
TERMINAL - The end of a writing stroke.
INITIAL STROKE - the beginning of a
writing stroke.
TREMOR - deviation from uniform stroke
brought about by lack of smoothness.
KINDS OF TREMORS 
1. GENUINE TREMORS - caused by age,
illiteracy, weakness.
2. TREMOR OF FRAUD
TYPEBAR - one of the bars on a typewriter
TYPEWRITER - is a mechanical or electro-
mechanical machine for writing in characters
similar to those produced by printer's movable
type by means of keyboard-operated types
striking a ribbon to transfer
ink or carbon impressions onto the paper.
CARRIAGE RETURN -  referred to a
mechanism or lever on a typewriter. It was used
after typing a line of text and caused the
assembly holding the paper (the carriage) to
return to the right so that the machine was ready
to type again on the left-hand side of the paper
(assuming a left-to-right language).
TYPEFACE - the printing surface of the type
block. The most popular type are pica and elite.
PICA - 10 characters per inch
ELITE - 12 characters per inch
TYPES OF TYPEWRITERS
1. KEYBOARD TYPEWRITER - is the
simplest kind of typewriter, functioning from
the QWERTY formation of letters and having a
type (a metallic cast with letters molded into it)
that's attached by a bar or rod.
2. SINGLE-ELEMENT TYPEWRITER -
enable the user to print data in different
languages or fonts. Instead of using a bar mold
for the type (called a type bar), single-element
typewriters use type wheels, type sleeves or type
shuttles for molds. The most popular single-
element was the Hammond type-shuttle
typewriter produced in 1884.
3. TYPE-BAR TYPEWRITERS, as the name
suggests, use type bars, or molds of iron shaped
like bars, for their types. Type bars are the most
common kind of typewriter and the original
invented by Sholes, Glidden and Soule was a
type-bar typewriter.
4. INDEX TYPEWRITERS - were far less
costly in the pre-modern era, but also less
useful. An index typewriter required that users
first input what key they would like, and then
perform another action (usually pressing a lever)
to print the letter to a page. Usually these didn't
use type bars, but instead
type wheels, type shuttles, type plates and even
more novel types. Examples of the index
typewriter are the American Visible, first
manufactured in 1901, and the French Virotyp
of 1914.
5. TELETYPE TYPEWRITERS -
(Teleprinters) came on the scene in the mid-
1950s and peaked in popularity in the 1960s.
They were used mostly for communicating
information from point to point, much as
modern fax machines are used. Most non-IBM
computers had teletype terminals. Teletypes
were completely mechanical and thus required
regular lubrication; they didn't have type bars in
the strictest sense and instead used plastic gears
to print messages.
6. ELECTRIC TYPEWRITERS - The most
modern typewriter, still used today, is the
electric typewriter, most notably IBM models
such as the Selectric. The electric typewriter
minimized the force necessary to print out a
message by using a motor and type ball to print
letters on paper.
VIGNETTE - a small illustration or portrait
photograph which fades into its background
without a definite border.
WATERMARK - a faint design made in some
paper during manufacture that is visible when
held against the light and typically identifies the
maker.
WRITING - is a medium of communication
that represents language through the inscription
of signs and symbols.
CURSIVE WRITING - also known as script,
joined-up writing, joint writing, running writing,
or handwriting is any style of penmanship in
which the symbols of the language are written in
a conjoined and/or flowing manner, generally
for the purpose of making writing faster.
WRITING SPEED - CLASSIFIED INTO 4
DIVISIONS
1. Slow and Drawn
2. Deliberate
3. Average
4. Rapid

E. POLYGRAPH (LIE DETECTION)
1875 - The earliest attempt at a scientific
approach to the development of diagnostic
instrumentation for lie detection, when the
Italian physiologist, Angelo Mosso (1846-
1910), began studies of fear and its influence on
the heart and respiration. The fear of being
detected was considered an essential element of
deception. Through his research Mosso
demonstrated that blood pressure, blood volume,
and pulse frequency changed depending on
changes in emotions of a tested subject. From
records of pulsation, Mosso was able to
distinguish persons who were afraid from those
who were tranquil.
1915 - the year Dr.Marston developed the
discontinuous systolic blood pressure test which
would later become one component of the
modern polygraph.
1992 - the polygraph made its official entrance
into the computer age.
1997 - considered the year of birth of lie
detection in Ukraine.
18TH CENTURY - the era conducive to
developing technical means of detecting
deception, subsequently named: lie detector,
variograph, polygraph, emotional stress monitor,
deceptograph, to name a few.
AFRICAN TRIBES - have utilized their own
method of detecting a guilty person. While
performing a special dance around a suspected
individual, a sorcerer intensely sniffed him. The
"investigator" made a conclusion whether the
suspect committed the crime based upon the
intensity of his body odor.
ALEXANDER R. LURIA - (1902-1977) a
Soviet neuropsychologist, who initiated  the
research on the psycho-physiological diagnostic
instrumentation methods in criminal
investigations which began in the 1920s. He
used reaction time measures to study thought
processes and developed a psychodiagnostic
procedure he referred to as the "combined motor
method" for diagnosing individual subject's
thought processes. He did not use an instrument
in his study.
ANCIENT METHODS OF LIE
DETECTION
ANCIENT ROME - bodyguard candidates
were asked provocative questions. Those who
blushed were selected for the job. It was
believed that if a person blushed in response to
provocative questions, he would not participate
in plots.
ANCIENT SPARTA - Before being admitted
to certain schools Spartan young men were
required to pass the selection criteria. The young
men were ordered to stand on the edge of a cliff,
and were asked if they were afraid. The answer
was always negative; however its integrity was
determined by the men’s complexion. It was
concluded that the pale young men lied and they
were pushed from the cliff.
NERVOUS BEHAVIOR - if the subject look
down and moved his toe in a circular motion
while being interrogated, he was thought to be
deceptive. This was later diagnosed as nervous
behaviorism. Nervous individuals were
stereotyped as being deceptive.
THE ORDEAL OF RICE - was commonly
utilized as a lie detector in ancient China.
Suspect was required to chew a mouthful of dry
rice and then spit it out. If the rice was moist,
the suspect was judged innocent. If the rice was
dry, the suspect was judged guilty. The tension
of guilt supposedly caused a cessation of
salivary glands secretion of fluids.
THE ORDEAL OF THE HOT IRON - in
Africa, the suspect had a hot iron placed on his
tongue, if the suspect's tongue was not burned,
he was judged innocent, if the suspect's tongue
was burned, he was judged guilty. The tension
of guilt supposedly caused a cessation of
salivary secretions which would allow the
tongue to be burned.
THE ORDEAL OF THE SACRED
DONKEY - around 1500 BC in India, Indian
priests paints a donkey's tail with carbon residue
from an oil lamp and placed the animal in a dark
tent. The suspects were sent into the tent and
told that pulling the "magic" donkey's tail would
reveal the liar (if a guilty man pulls his tail, the
donkey will bray). When the suspects came out,
the priests examined their hands. Those with
clean hands had not touched the donkey's tail. It
was assumed that this was due to the suspects’
fear of their guilt being discovered, proving they
were liars.
ANGELO MOSSO - an Italian Physiologist, he
used an instrument called plethysmograph in his
research on emotion and fear in subjects
undergoing questioning and he studied the
effects of these variables on their cardiovascular
and respiratory activity.
PLETHYSMOGRAPH - from the Greek word
"Plethysmos" - increase or enlargement and
"grapho" - write or record, is an instrument for
recording and measuring variation in the volume
of a part of the body, especially as caused by
changes in blood pressure.
ANTI–CLIMAX DAMPENING - The
principle of psychological focus which holds
that a person will establish an emotional priority
for that stimulus which he perceives to represent
the greatest threat to his well being.
ANXIETY - A state of mental uneasiness or
concern. Abnormal apprehension or fear, often
accompanied by psychological signs, behavior
symptoms or doubt concerning the nature and
reality of a threat; real or imagined. Unfounded
self–doubt.
APNEA - The transient cessation of breathing
which follows forced breathing. On a polygraph
chart, apnea is generally represented by a
blocking pattern in the pneumograph tracing
APPLIED STIMULUS - An intentionally
applied external stimulus, normally in the form
of a question, directed to a person under going a
polygraph examination. An applied stimulus
may be employed for the purpose of
demonstrating a persons response capabilities at
the time the stimulus is applied.
ASSOCIATED RESEARCH INC. - in
Chicago, manufactured the 1st  commercial
polygraph instrument for Leonarde Keeler.
AUTONOMIC NERVOUS System - That part
of the peripheral nervous system consisting of
the sympathetic and the parasympathetic
nervous system.
AXON - The central core which forms the
essential conducting part of a nerve fiber. An
extension from and a part of the cytoplasm of
some nerve cells.
BACKSTER ZONE COMPARISON
TECHNIQUE -  a polygraph technique which
primarily involved an alteration of the Reid
question sequencing.
BASIC POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION
REQUIREMENTS
1. THE EXAMINING ROOM - Polygraph
examinations should be conducted in a quiet.
private room. Under normal circumstances only
the polygraphist and examines are permitted in
the examining room.
2. PRE-TEST INTERVIEW - The
examination actually begins with the first
contact between the examinee and the
polygraphist. The pre- test interview is vital to a
proper polygraph examination. and no
examination will be administered by any AzPa
member without an adequate pre-test interview.
3. QUESTION FORMULATION - Question
formulation should be conduced in accordance
with established standards and techniques.
Unless specifically required by the nature of the
issue being resolved, no questions regarding
morals or the intimate details of a person’s
personal life will be asked.
4. TEST CONSTRUCTION - The use and
placement of test questions within the question
sequence must adhere to and be in accordance
with those techniques generally recognized and
widely accepted within the polygraph
profession.
5. STIMULATION TEST - The “stim” test is
optional. It may be conducted either as the first
polygraph chart or inserted between polygraph
charts. The fact that an individual has been
previously examined, perhaps even by the same
polygraphist], does not negate the use of the
“stim” test.
6. REVIEW OF TEST QUESTIONS - Under
no circumstances will any test be administered
without a prior, thorough review of all test
questions with the examinee.
7. ADMINISTERING THE POLYGRAPH
CHARTS
a. After applying pressure to the blood pressure
cuff at the time of the test, the polygraphist
should be able to announce the beginning of the
test with minimum delay.
b. Test questions should be usually spaced at not
less than 15 second intervals.
c. The administering of the polygraph
examination shall be conducted in accordance
with established standards and techniques which
are taught by the accredited schools.
8. CHART INTERPRETATION - Chart
interpretation is the final key to a valid
polygraph examination. Under no circumstances
is it permitted that a AzPa polygraphist overlook
or ignore the established, basic concepts of chart
interpretation taught in all accredited polygraph
schools.
BEHAVIOR SYMPTOMS - Those
subjectively observable non-verbal
manifestations of a person at the time of an
applied stimulus which may or may not be
indicative of that person’s veracity.
BLOOD PRESSURE CHANGE - The visual
representation of an increase or decrease in
blood pressure or volume on a polygraph chart
by the cardio component of a polygraph
instrument.
CARDIO-SPHYGMO-GRAPH -
Heart/pressure/recording. The tracing on a
polygraph chart, made by a pen moved by a
bellows device in connection with a closed air
pressurized circuit and an in-line
cardiosphygmomanometer, which reflects blood
pressure and radial pulse in response to an
applied stimulus.
CARDIOSPHYGMOMANOMETER -  An
in-line pressure dial in a closed air pressurized
circuit capable of representing the pressure in
that circuit in units of millimeters of mercury.
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM - Those
portions of an organism which contain the heart,
arteries, veins and capillaries. The functional
means by which blood is transported throughout
the body.
CEREBELLUM - That portion of the brain
which projects over the medulla and is
especially concerned with the coordination of
muscular activity and body equilibrium.
CEREBRUM - The enlarged front and upper
part of the brain which contains the higher
nervous centers.
CESARE LOMBROSO (1835-1909) was the
first in 1895 to experiment with a device,
measuring blood pressure and pulse, to detect
deception in criminal suspects and noted
increased blood pressure following relevant
questions when put to some subjects. He called
it a Hydrosphygmograph.
CHART - The graphic recorded representations
of a persons psychophysiological responses to a
set of carefully controlled stimuli presented to
him in the form of a valid and reliable question
structure.
CHRISTIAN HANS STOELTING - founded
the stoelting company, now a Manufacturer and
distributor of research instrumentation
including,physiology and biofeedback for
scientific research plus psychological and
educational tests.
STOELTING COMPANY - Stoelting invented
the first modern polygraph in 1935.
CHART IDENTIFICATION - Any
information placed on a polygram which
identified the person examined, the polygraphist
conducting the examination as well as any other
data, time and place of the examination,
including the signature of the examinee, if
obtainable.
CLEVE BACKSTER -  he founded the CIA's
polygraph unit shortly after World War II. He
also founded the longest running polygraph
school in the world. He developed the Backster
Zone Comparison Technique (ZCT).
CONTROL STIMULATION TEST -  A
modified peak of tension test used to relax the
non-deceptive examinee and stimulate the
deceptive examinee by empirical evidence of
the effectiveness of the polygraph technique.
CONTROL QUESTION - That question
within a structured technique which is broad in
scope and depth, generally limited by mutually
exclusive time parameter, which relates to a
wrong doing of the same general nature as the
one under investigation, and one to which the
examiner will, in all probability, lie or to which
his answer will be of dubious validity in his own
mind.
- A question to which the examinee’s answer
will be a known lie or a probable lie. This
question is similar in nature but not related to
the issue being resolved, and should be of
slightly less weight than the relevant questions.
CONTROL QUESTION TECHNIQUE
(CQT) - a polygraph technique that
incorporated control questions (comparison)
which were designed to be emotionally arousing
for non-deceptive subjects and less emotionally
arousing for deceptive subjects than the relevant
questions previously used.
COUNTER MEASURES - Deliberate
chemical, mental or physical, attempts by an
examinee to affect the polygraph tracings or the
final outcomeof a polygraph examination.
CUFF PRESSURE - The air pressure in the
inflatable bladder in the blood pressure cuff as
indicated on the sphygmomanometer of the
polygraph instrument in units of millimeters of
mercury.
DANIEL DEFOE - a British novelist who in
1730 wrote an essay entitled "An Effectual
Scheme for the Immediate Preventing of Street
Robberies and Suppressing all Other Disorders
of the Night", wherein he
recommended that taking the pulse of a
suspicious fellow was a practical, effective and
humane method for distinguishing truthfulness
from lying.
DECEPTION - the act of making someone
believe something that is not true.
DENDRITES - An extension or process of a
neuron which serves to conduct impulses toward
the cell body.
DICK ARTHER - refined the Reid Control
Question Technique with his known Lie and
Probable Lie Question Technique and the Guilt
Complex Question. This Became known as
Arther's Technique.
DICROTIC NOTCH - graphic representation
within the cardio tracing on a polygraph chart
caused by a backward surge of blood against the
semi-lunar valve in the left ventricle of the
heart.
DISTORTION - change in polygraph tracings
caused by artifact stimulus.A disturbance of
normal polygraph tracings not attributable to an
intended stimulus within a test structure.
DR. JOSEPH F. KUBIS - of Fordham
University in New York City, was the first
researcher to use potential computer
applications for the purpose of polygraph chart
analysis in the late 1970's.
DR. MARIE GABRIEL ROMAIN
VIGOUROUX (1831-1911) a French
electrotherapy specialist was first to discover in
1879 the phenomenon we now know as
Electrodermal Response.
ELECTRODERMAL RESPONSE - human
body phenomenon in which the body, mainly
the skin, involuntarily changes resistance
electrically upon the application of certain
external stimuli.
SCIENTISTS WHO CONTRIBUTED TO
THE ELECTRODERMAL RESPONSE
RESEARCH
1. Ivan R. Tarchanoff (1846-1908) Georgian
2. Charles Samson Fere (1852-1907) French
3. Georg Sticker (1860-1960) German
4. Otto Veraguth (1870-1944) Swiss
DYSPENA - Abnormal breathing characterized
by either labored breathing, shortness of breath,
suppression or serrated exhalation.
EFFERENT NERVE FIBERS - Those neural
fibers which carry impulses away from the
central nervous system.
EGO DEFENSE MECHANISM - Those
psychological defenses used by a person to
shield himself against that which he perceives to
represent a threat to his immediate well-being.
ENDOCRINE GLANDS - Those ductless
glands which discharge their secretions directly
into the blood stream. In general, the endocrine
glands coordinate and control body activities at
a slower rate than the nervous system and thus
promote long term adjustments.
ENVELOPING QUESTION - A question
used at the beginning and end of a searching
peak of tension test which deals with an issue or
subject which is beyond the realm of possibility
of the information being sought.
EUPNEA - Regular or normal breathing.
EXAMINEE -  An individual who has
volunteered for and undergoes a polygraph
examination.
EXCITABILITY - The potential ability of a
neuron to respond to any given stimulus.
EXPERT OPINION - A statement reflecting
the results of the evaluation of a polygraph
chart.
EXTRASYSTOLE - A premature contraction
of the heart which is independent of the normal
rhythm and which arises in response to an
impulse in some part of the heart other than the
sino-auricular node, or from some abnormal
stimulus. An extra systole appears in the cardio
tracing of a polygraph chart as a break in the
normal rhythm of the heart.
FIGHT OR FLIGHT SYNDROME - The
activation of involuntary sympathetic neural
activity upon conscious recognition of a threat
to the immediate well-being of an organism. A
group of neural symptoms which enable an
organism to cope with a stressful or threatening
situation by taking that organism from a normal
relaxed state to an emergency state of
preparedness for the sake of survival.
FORENSIC PSYCHOPHYSIOLOGY -
Modern term for polygraph examination.
GALVANOGRAPH - electrical Current
recording, known as the GSR, galvanic skin
response and galvanic skin conductance.
GALVANOMETER - measures the small
differences in electrical resistance and any shifts
in a subject’s anxiety.
GANGLIA -  Groups of nerve cell bodies found
in the autonomic plexuses composed primarily
of sympathetic postganglionic neurons.
GUILT COMPLEX -  A group of associated
ideas or attitudes which have a common
emotional tone of feelings of universal
responsibility. These ideas or attitudes may be
conscious or unconscious; however, they may
significantly influence an individuals behavior
or psychophysiological responses when
confronted with an accusation.
GUILT COMPLEX QUESTION - A question
included in a structured polygraph test designed
to identify a person who may be inappropriately
responding to relevant and control questions due
to a guilt complex. This question is usually one
which concerns a nonexistent crime or
circumstance which an examinee is led to
believe did exist in which he is suspect but
which he knows he could not have committed.
GUILT COMPLEX QUESTION -  A
question about a fictitious incident of individual.
and of a similar nature and weight as the issue
being resolved.
STICKER - one of the first to suggest the use
of EDA, galvanic skin response as an indicator
of deception.
HIDDEN KEY - An item of evidence known
only to the victim, perpetrator, investigator and
polygraphist.
HOMESTASIS - The tendency of an organism
to maintain a state of equilibrium between
interrelated psychological and psysiological
stimuli.
HYDROSPHYGMOGRAPH - (water pressure
recording) a device consisting of a cylinder
containing water and connected with a
registering tube, used to record the amount of
blood forced with each pulsation into a limb in
cased in the apparatus.
HYPNOSIS - alteration of consciousness and
concentration, subject manifest heightened
suggestability, not admissible in court.
HYPOTHALAMUS - That portion of the brain
which contains centers for the regulation of
body temperatures, sleep and water balance. It
also appears to be the center for the integration
of emotions, visceral activity and neural
impulses which trigger the sympathetic division
of the autonomic nervous system.
IRRELEVANT QUESTION - is intended to
be an innocuous. Harmless question, having no
particular relationship to the issue being
resolved and which can unequivocally be
answered truthfully.
PRIMARY RELEVANT QUESTION - The
key question regarding the direct act of
committing an offense.
SECONDARY RELEVANT QUESTION - A
question pertaining to pertinent aspects of the
issue. to which a guilty or knowledgeable
person would be expected to respond
significantly.
JACQUES-ARSÈNE D'ARSONVAL (June
8,1851–December 31,1940) was a French
physician, physicist, and inventor of the
moving-coil D'Arsonval galvanometer and the
thermocouple ammeter. D'Arsonval was an
important contributor to the emerging field of
electrophysiology, the study of the effects of
electricity on biological organisms, in the 19th
century.
JOHN AUGUSTUS LARSON - was a Police
Officer for Berkeley, California, United States,
and famous for his invention of modern
polygraph used in forensic investigations. He
was the first American police officer having an
academic doctorate and to use polygraph in
criminal investigations.
JOHN E. REID - a lawyer from Chicago,
Illinois, developed the Control Question
Technique (CQT) in 1947. Also called the
"father of Controls".
REID CONTROL QUESTION
TECHNIQUE - inserted a surprise control
question in the relevant/irrelevant technique.
KEELER POLYGRAPH - It became the most
widely used polygraph in the world for the next
three decades.
KNOWN PEAK OF TENSION TEST - This
is a series of similar type questions containing
only one relevant question. known to the
polygraphist.
SEARCHING PEAK OF TENSION TEST -
A series of questions wherein the relevant
questions are not known to the polygraphist.
KYMOGRAPH - An instrument for recording
variations in pressure, as of the blood, or in
tension, as of a muscle, by means of a pen
orstylus that marks a rotating drum at a constant
speed.
LAFAYETTE INSTRUMENT COMPANY -
founded in 1947 by Max Wastl (1915-1990),
located in Lafayette, Indiana, USA, dominates
the international polygraph market. It is the
unconditional global leaderin the manufacture
and sale of lie detectors.
LEONARDE KEELER - in 1926, modified
the polygraph instrument designed by John
Larson by adding a device that measured
electrical skin conductivity or electrodermal
response. He also founded the world's first
polygraph school, the Keeler Polygraph Institute
in Chicago, Illinois in 1948. Considered the
father of modern polygraph.
LIE - is an intentionally false statement to a
person or group made
by another person or group who knows it is not
wholly the truth.
KINDS OF LIE
1. WHITE OR BENIGN LIE - lie to preserve
harmony of relationship.
2. PATHOLOGICAL LIE - can not tell right
from wrong.
3. RED LIE - communist propaganda
4. BLACK LIE - lie to dishonor or to discredit
5. MALICIOUS/JUDICIAL LIE -misleading
or lie to obstruct justice.
6. FABRICATION - misrepresentation of truth
7. BOLD-FACE LIE - obviously lying
8. LYING BY OMISSION - omission of
important facts
9. LIE TO CHILDREN - to gain acceptance to
children
10.NOBLE LIE - to maintain law and order
11.EMERGENCY LIE - to prevent harm to
third party
12.PERJURY - false testimony under oath
13.BLUFFING - pretense of
capability/intention one does not possess
14.JOCOSE LIE - meant to be jest, teasing and
sarcasm
15.CONTEXTUAL LIE - stating part of truth
out of context
16.PROMOTION LIE - incredible
advertisements
TYPE OF LIARS
1. Panic Liars
2. Occupational Liars
4. Psychopathic Liars
5. Ethological Liars
6. Pathological Liars
7. Black Liars
LUIGI GALVANI - an Italian Physician and
Physiologist who in 1791, accidentally
discovered that a dissected frog leg would
twitch and contract at the touch of a scalpel
charged with electricity. He discovered that
current or galvanic electricity flowed through
animal tissue.
MECHANICAL ADJUSTMENT - The
manual centering of the ink pens on a polygraph
instrument in order to maintain the individual
component tracings within their appropriate
physical parameters.
MEDULA OBLONGATA - The lowest or
hindmost part of the brain continuous with the
spinal cord. Contains centers of respiratory,
cardio inhibitory, cardio acceleratory,
vasoconstrictor, vasodilator, swallowing,
salivary and vomiting.
MIDBRAIN - The middle segment of the brain
containing the centers for certain visual and
auditory reflexes.
MIDDLE AGES - a suspect's pulse rate
readings were collected for determining his or
her guilt. This method was employed for
exposing unfaithful wives and their lovers. The
testing technique was very simple. A trained
individual placed a finger on a wrist of a woman
suspected of infidelity, while mentioning names
of the men, who could have had an intimate
relationship with her. The examinee's pulse
accelerated when she heard and, consequently,
reacted to the name of her lover.
NAME TEST - A controlled peak of tension
test utilized to establish an examinee’s response
capability to a known lie in which the name of a
person upon whom the examinee places
emotional significance is used as a known peak
of tension.
NERVES - Those strands of tissue which
specialize in the transmission of impulses to and
from the brain and spinal cord and all parts of
the body.
NEURON - A single nerve cell.
NEUTRAL QUESTION - A question which
does not pertain to the issue under investigation
the answer to which recognized as universally
correct by both the examinee and the
polygraphist. A neutral question is intended to
elicit a minimal response from the examinee and
provide the polygraphist with a valid graphic
representation of the examinee’s non-stress
response patterns.
NUMERICAL EVALUATION - A valid and
reliable system of numerical evaluation which
employs a consistent set of values to describe
the observable physiological responses
graphically represented on a polygraph chart.
OPINION - The expert conclusion expressed
by a qualified polygraphist concerning the
veracity of the statements made by examinee.
OTTO VERAGUTH - was a Swiss
neurologist. In the 1900s he published a study of
a phenomenon he called "psychogalvanic
reflex" associated with observed changes in the
electrical properties of the skin. In his research
he noticed that emotional stimuli caused greater
deflections (higher readings) on a galvanometer
that was connected to the skin via electrodes
than did neutral stimuli. He used the
galvanomenter in conjunction with word-
association tests.
PSYCHOGALVANIC REFLEX - also called
galvanic skin response, a change in the electrical
properties of the body following noxious
stimulation, stimulation that produces emotional
reaction and to some extent, stimulation that
attracts the subject's attention and leads to an
aroused alertness.
OUTSIDE ISSUE - A circumstance unrelated
to the primary issue which poses a greater threat
to the immediate well-being of the examinee
than does the primary relevant issue.
PADDING QUESTIONS - Those questions
placed before and after the known relevant
question in a known peak of tension test.
Padding questions are similar in nature to the
known relevant question and fall within
the realm of possibility of the information being
sought.
PARASYSMPATHETIC NERVOUS
SYSTEM -  That part of the autonomic nervous
system which tends to induce secretion, to
increase the tone and contractibility of smooth
muscle and to channel the dilation of blood
vessels. That division of the autonomic nervous
system responsible for the normal “house
keeping functions of the body; i.e. digestion and
body temperature.
PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM - That
portion of the nervous system lying outside the
central nervous system.
PLETHSYSMOGRAPH - The tracing on a
polygraph chart made by a pen moved by a
photo-optical system controlled by an
examinee’s psychophysiological responses to
controlled stimuli.
PNEUMOGRAPH — breathing/recording,
from the Greek word "Pneuma" – airor breath
and "Grapho" - write or record, a device that
recorded a subject's breathing patterns.
POLYGRAM - One or more polygraph charts.
The cumulative recorded representations of an
examinee’s psychophysiological responses to a
set of controlled stimuli presented to him in the
form of a properly constructed question
technique upon which an expert opinion is
formed.
POLYGRAPH - a machine designed to detect
and record changes in physiological
characteristics, such as a person's pulse and
breathing rates, used especially as a lie detector.
POLYGRAPH MACHINE MEASURE AND
RECORD THE FF:
1. Blood Pressure
2. Heart Rate
3. Respiration
4. Skin Conductivity
POLYGRAPHIST - An individual who, by
virtue of his education, training and experience,
is capable of conducting a valid and reliable
polygraph examination for the purpose of
determining whether or not an examinee
honestly believes that his own statements and
answers concerning a questioned issue are in
fact truthful.
POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION - The entire
environment within which a qualified
polygraphist renders an expert opinion as to the
veracity of an examinee’s statements concerning
the primary issue of the matter under
investigation.
POLYGRAPH EXAMINER - interpret the
charts generated by the polygraph machine.
Polygraph came from the Greek word "polys" -
many writings and "grapho" write.
POLYGRAPH CHART - is one continuous set
of test questions recorded on paper by the
polygraph instrument.
POLYSCORE - a software program which
used a sophisticated mathematical algorithm to
analyze the polygraph data and to estimate a
probability or degree of deception or
truthfulness in a subject.
- is a computerized polygraph chart scoring
algorithm that uses statistical probability to
arrive at truthfulness or deception. It has been
shown that validated algorithms have exceeded
98 percent in their accuracy to quantify, analyze
and evaluate the physiological data collected
from polygraph examinations administered in
real criminal cases.
DR. DALE E. OLSEN AND JOHN C.
HARRIS - statisticians at Johns Hopkins
University Applied Physics Laboratory, in
Maryland, completed a software program called
PolyScore in 1993.
PONS - A band of nerve fibers in the brain
connecting the lobes of the cerebellum, the
medulla and the cerebrum.
PRE-EMPLOYMENT EXAMINATION - An
examination in which an individual is tested
regarding the truthfulness and accuracy of an
employment application. along with other
background areas, which aids the employer in
selecting the most qualified individual for a
position within the organization.
PRE-EXAMINATION INTERVIEW - That
portion of a polygraph examination during
which information is obtained by the
polygraphist from the examinee regarding the
facts and circumstances which from the basis of
the examination and from which the
polygraphist develops appropriate questions for
the polygraph technique to be employed.
PSYCHOGALVANIC SKIN RESPONSE -
The recordable changes of body tissue
polarization (neural discharge), sweat gland
activity or circulatory variations which occur as
the result of work, emotion or a combination of
either. In polygraphy, these changes are
recorded on a polygraph chart by a pen attached
to a galvanometer driven by the variations of
electrical conductivity introduced into a
Wheatstone Bridge by the body tissues of an
examinee.
PSYCHOGALVANOMETER — a
component that measured changes in a subject's
galvanic skin resistance during questioning, and
in doing so, thus signaling the birth of the
polygraph as we know it today.
PSYCHOLOGICAL SET - The theory which
holds that a person’s fears, anxieties and
apprehensions will be directed toward that
situation which presents the greatest immediate
threat to his self-preservation or general well-
being; generally to the exclusion of all other less
threatening circumstances within his
environment.
PSYCHOSIS - A form of sever personality
disorder involving loss of contact with reality,
generally characterized by delusions and
hallucinations.
QUESTION SPACING - The elapsed time
(not less than 15 seconds) between an answer
given by an examinee and the following
question asked by the polygraphist during a
polygraph test.
RECEPTORS - Those specialized cells
sensitive to incoming stimuli.
REFLEX ACTION - The cumulative product
of stimulus, receptor, afferent nerve, connecting
neuron, efferent nerve and effector action. A
simple reflex arc.
REFRACTORY PERIOD - That period of
time in which a neuron is unable to conduct an
impulse.
REID POLYGRAPH - was the first instrument
to use a movement sensor to detect subject
movement during the examination. Besides
recording blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and
GSR, this new polygraph recorded muscular
activity in the forearms, thighs, and feet thanks
to metal bellows placed under the arms and seat
of the polygraph chair.
RELEVANT QUESTION - That question
within a structured polygraph test which
pertains directly to the matter under
investigation.
IRRELEVANT QUESTION - is intended to
be an innocuous, harmless question, having no
particular relationship to the issue being
resolved. and which can unequivocally be
answered truthfully.
PRIMARY RELEVANT QUESTION - The
key question regarding the direct act of
committing an offense.
SECONDARY RELEVANT QUESTION - A
question pertaining to pertinent aspects of the
issue. to which a guilty or knowledgeable
person would be expected to respond
significantly.
CONTROL QUESTION - A question to which
the examinee’s answer will be a known lie or a
probable lie. This question is similar in nature
but not related to the issue being resolved, and
should be of slightly less weight than the
relevant questions.
GUILT COMPLEX QUESTION - A question
about a fictitious incident of individual. and of a
similar nature and weight as the issue being
resolved.
RELEVANT/IRRELEVANT (R/I)
QUESTIONING - a mixture of questions
relevant to the crime (for example, Do you own
a knife?) and irrelevant questions are asked (for
example, Are you twenty years old?). The basis
for this type of questioning was that an innocent
person has a similar physiological response to
both types of questions, but a guilty person
would react more strongly to the crime-relevant
questions.
RESIDUAL AIR - That volume of air which
remains in the lungs after the
deepest possible exhalation.
SACRIFICE RELEVANT QUESTION - A
question used in the Zone comparison Test
designed for the intended to dissipate initial
tension anticipated by an examinee in response
to the target issue.
SEARCHING PEAK OF TENSION TEST -
a polygraph test in which a series of questions,
usually similar in nature and scope, are asked
and in which the answer to only one of them
may evoke a response from the examinee.
SCREENING EXAMINATION - is one in
which, without any specific allegation, an
individual is examined to verify his/her honesty,
integrity and conduct as an employee.
SPECIFIC EXAMINATION - is one in which
there is one specific issue to be resolved, ex.
theft, burglary, robbery murder, etc.
SENSOR - Any attachment made to the human
body for the purpose of measuring and/or
recording a psychophysiological response
during a polygraph test.
SPECIFIC RESPONSE - A deviation from an
examinee’s normal state of homeostasia as
evidenced by the tracings on a polygraph chart.
Consideration must be given to overall chart
interpretation with emphasis on the nature of the
questions asked, the sequential position of the
question within the structure used and the
manner in which the question was presented to
the examinee.
SPHYGMOMANOMETER - or blood
pressure meter (also referred to as a
sphygmometer) is a device used to measure
blood pressure, composed of an inflatable cuff
to restrict blood flow, and a mercury or
mechanical manometer to measure the pressure.
SPOT ANALYSIS TECHNIQUE - A system
of chart interpretation whereby analysis of
response capability may be made at each
location on a polygraph chart wherein a relevant
question is either preceded by or followed by a
control question.
SUPER DAMPENING - The principle of
psychological focus which holds that if a person
considers an outside issue to be a greater threat
to his well-being than the main relevant issue,
and that if he anticipates an unreviewed question
concerning this outside issue, he may tune out
all relevant and control questions by forcing his
psychological set on the outside issue. The
presence of an outside issue usually results in
poor responses or no responses.
STIMULATION TEST - Verifies for the
examiner that the examinee is testable. and aids
in convincing the examinee that the polygraph
instrument works, and will work on him.
SUPPRESSION - An involuntary reduction in
the amplitude of the pneumograph and
cardiograph tracings in response to a stressful
stimulus.
SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM -
That part of the autonomic nervous system
which tends to depress secretion, decrease the
tone and contractibility of muscle not under
direct voluntary control, and cause the
contraction of blood vessels.
SYMPTOMATIC QUESTION - A question
contained within a structured question technique
which is designed to identify the presence of an
outside issue upon which a person may be
focusing during the course of a polygraph
examination.
SYMPTOMATIC QUESTION - A question
use to determine it some outside issue is of such
concern to the examinee that it tends to damage
expected responses to relevant questions.
SYNAPSIS - The chemical junctions where
nerve impulses pass from one neuron to another.
SYSTEM - A group of body organs which
combine to form a whole and to cooperate for
the purpose of carrying on some vital function.
TEST TECHNIQUE - A valid and reliable
question structure employed by a qualified
polygraphist for the purpose of verifying an
examinee’s statements or answers during a
polygraph examination. The sequential order in
which questions are asked during a polygraph
examination. The foundation of expert opinion.
THALAMUS - The middle part of the brain
through which sensory impulses pass to reach
the cerebral cortex.
TIDAL VOLUME -  The volume of air moved
in or out of the lungs with each respiratory
cycle.
VERAGUTH - was one of the first to make
word-association tests with the galvanometer.
VITTORIO BENUSSI - an Italian
Psychologist who in 1914 discovered a method
for calculating the quotient of the inhalation to
exhalation time as a means of verifying the truth
and detecting deception in a subject. Benussi
measured and recorded breathing by means of
an instrument known as the Pneumograph. He
concluded that lying caused an emotional
change within a subject that resulted in
detectable respiratory changes that were
indicative of deception.
WEST AFRICA - persons suspected of a crime
were made to hold and pass a bird's egg to one
another. The person breaking the egg was
considered guilty, based on the notion that his or
her tremor-eliciting nervousness was to blame.
WHEATSTONE BRIDGE - A specially
devised electronic circuit for the measurement
of electrical resistance in a conductor. The
conductor of unknown resistance is included in
the circuit with three known resistances. when
the unknown resistance (RX) is balanced with
three known resistances (R1, R2, R3) it can be
calculated mathematically since it becomes one
term in a proportion.
WILLIAM MOULTON MARSTON - was an
American psychologist and the creator of the
systolic blood pressure test, which became one
component of the modern polygraph invented
by John Augustus Larson in Berkeley,
California.
- an American attorney and psychologist, is
credited with inventing an early form of the lie
detector when, in 1915, he developed the
discontinuous systolic blood pressure test which
would later become one component of the
modern polygraph.
WORD ASSOCIATION TEST  - questions
answerable by yes or no, concerned with time of
response. Quick answer, no relation to
investigation. Delayed answer, has relation to
investigation. 
F. LEGAL MEDICINE
DEFINITION OF TERMS
ABRASION - a skin injury caused by scraping
off of superficial skin due to friction against a
rough surface.
ABORTION - is the termination of pregnancy
by the removal or expulsion from the uterus of a
fetus or embryo before viability.
ADIPOCERE - a peculiar waxy substance
consisting of salts and fatty acids and formed
from the decomposition of corpse tissues,
especially in moist habitats, also called grave-
wax.
ALGOR MORTIS (Latin: algor - coldness;
mortis - death) is the reduction in body
temperature following death.
RIGOR MORTIS (Latin: rigor - stiffness,
mortis - death") is one of the recognizable signs
of death, caused by chemical changes in the
muscles after death, causing the limbs of the
corpse to become stiff and difficult to move or
manipulate.
IMPORTANCE OF RIGOR MORTIS
Rigor mortis is utilized to approximate the time
of death. Generalized muscular contractions
occur from 3 to 6 hours until 36 hours.
AUTOPSY - a post-mortem examination to
discover the cause of death or the extent of
disease. An autopsy is derived from the Greek
word "autos" - oneself and "opsis" - sight/view.
WHO ARE AUTHORIZED TO PERFORM
AUTOPSY
1. Health officers
2. Medical officer of law enforcement agencies
3. Members of the medical staff of accredited
hospitals
WHEN AUTOPSY PERFORMED
1. Written request of nearest kin to ascertain the
cause of death
2. Order of the competent court, mayor,
prosecutor
3. Written request of a law enforcement officer
4. When required by a special law
5. Solgen, prosecutor to determine the cause of
death
PRINCIPAL AIM OF AN AUTOPSY
1. To determine the cause of death
2. To determine the state of health of the person
before he or she died,
3. To determine whether any medical diagnosis
and treatment before death were appropriate.
TYPES OF AUTOPSIES
1. MEDICO-Legal Autopsy or Forensic or
coroner's - autopsies seek to find the cause and
manner of death and to identify the decedent.
2. CLINICAL OR PATHOLOGICAL
AUTOPSIES are performed to diagnose a
particular disease or for research purposes.
3. ANATOMICAL OR ACADEMIC
AUTOPSIES - are performed by students of
anatomy for study purposes only.
4. VIRTUAL OR MEDICAL IMAGING
AUTOPSIES - are performed utilizing imaging
technology only, primarily magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI) and computed tomography (CT).
FORENSIC AUTOPSY - is used to determine
the cause and manner of death.
ANATOMY - the branch of science concerned
with the bodily structure of humans, animals,
and other living organisms, especially as
revealed by dissection and the separation of
parts.
BIOCHEMISTRY - the branch of science
concerned with the chemical and physico
chemical processes and substances which occur
within living organisms.
CADAVERIC SPASM - also known as
postmortem spasm, instantaneous rigor,
cataleptic rigidity, or instantaneous rigidity, is a
rare form of muscular stiffening that occurs at
the moment of death, persists into the period of
rigor mortis and can be mistaken for rigor
mortis.
- Cadaveric spasm occurs immediately after
death and is useful to ascertain the
circumstances of death.
CEREBRAL CONCUSSION – there is a brief
loss of consciousness and sometimes memory
after ahead injury that doesn’t cause obvious
physical damage.
CEREBRAL CONTUSION – they are bruises
to the brain, usually caused by a direct, strong
blow to the head. They are more serious than
concussions
CIRCULATORY SYSTEM - also called the
cardiovascular system, is an organ system that
permits blood to circulate and transport nutrients
(such as amino acids and electrolytes), oxygen,
carbon dioxide,
hormones, and blood cells to and from cells in
the body to nourish it and help to fight diseases
stabilize body temperature and pH, and to
maintain homeostasis.
CONTEMPT OF COURT - any willful
disobedience to or disregard of a court order or
any misconduct in the presence of a court action
that interferes with a judge's ability to
administer justice or that
insults the dignity of the court. Punishable by
fine or imprisonment or both.
CONTUSION - also called a bruise, is a type of
hematoma of tissue in which capillaries and
sometimes venules are damaged by trauma,
allowing blood to seep, hemorrhage, or
extravasate into the surrounding interstitial
tissues.
DEATH - Complete cessation of all
cardiopulmonary (heart-lung) and/or cessation
of brain activity.
Death is the termination of all biological
functions that sustain a living organism.
KINDS OF DEATH
1. SOMATIC OR CLINICAL DEATH -
permanent cessation of all vital bodily functions.
2. MOLECULAR OR CELLULAR DEATH
- refers to the death of cells. 3 to 6 hours after
cessation of life.
3. APPARENT DEATH OR STATE OF
SUSPENDED ANIMATION - a state in which
the processes of the body (such as blood
circulation) stop or become very slow for a
period of time while a person or animal is
unconscious.
LEADING CAUSES OF DEATH IN THE
WORLD
1. Ischaemic heart disease
2. Stroke (cerebrovascular diseases)
3. Lower respiratory infections
4. Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease
SIGNS OF DEATH
1. Cessation of heart action and circulation
2. Cessation of respiration
3. Cooling of the body (Algor Mortis) - The
temperature of 15–20 degrees Fahrenheit is
considered as an ascertain sign of death.
4. Loss of motor power
5. Loss of sensory power
6. Changes in the skin
7. Changes in and about the eye - There is loss
of corneal reflex
TOKYO DECLARATION - is a set of
international guidelines for physicians
concerning torture and other cruel, inhuman or
degrading treatment or punishment in relation to
detention and imprisonment,
which was adopted in October 1975 during the
29th General assembly of the World Medical
Association.
DEFLORATION - is the laceration or rupture
of the hymen as a result of sexual intercourse.
DERMIS - the thick layer of living tissue below
the epidermis which forms the true skin,
containing blood capillaries, nerve endings,
sweat glands, hair follicles, and other structures.
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM - The digestive system
is a group of organs working together to convert
food into energy and basic nutrients to feed the
entire body.
DR. PEDRO P. SOLIS - Philippines father of
Legal Medicine.
ECCHYMOSIS - a discoloration of the skin
resulting from bleeding underneath, typically
caused by bruising.
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM - refers to the
collection of glands of an organism that secrete
hormones directly into the circulatory system to
be carried towards a distant target organ.
EPIDERMIS - the outermost layer of the skin
of a human or other vertebrate animal.
EUTHANASIA - Meaning good death ( well or
good ), Refers to the practice of ending life in a
painless manner. The deliberate intervention
was undertaken with the express intention of
ending life, to relieve intractable suffering.
EXCRETORY SYSTEM - is a passive
biological system that removes excess,
unnecessary materials from an organism, so as
to help maintain homeostasis within the
organism and prevent damage to the body.
FIREARM IDENTIFICATION - used to
determine whether the gun that is subject of the
investigation has the same gun used or fired.
FORENSIC MEDICINE - application of
medical science to elucidate legal problems.
FORENSIC SCIENCE - involves the
application of the sciences to answer questions
of interest to the legal system.
FOUR 4 SIGNS OF INFLAMMATION
1. RUBOR - redness
2. CALOR - heat
3. TUMOR - swelling
4. DULOR - pain
FRACTURE - comes from the Latin word
“fractura” which means a break in the continuity
of the bone. It is also a combination of a break
in the bone and soft tissue injury.
FROSTBITE - injury to body tissues caused by
exposure to extreme cold, typically affecting the
nose, fingers, or toes and often resulting in
gangrene.
FROSTNIP - the initial stages of frostbite.
GYNECOLOGY - the branch of physiology
and medicine which deals with the functions and
diseases specific to women and girls, especially
those affecting the reproductive system.
HEMATOMA - is a collection of blood outside
of a blood vessel.
HOMEOSTASIS -means remaining stable or
remaining the same.
INCISION - a surgical cut made in skin or
flesh.
INJURY -  is the damage to a biological
organism caused by physical harm.
COUP INJURY - injury at the site of
application of force.
CONTRE-COUP INJURY - injury opposite
the site of application of force.
COUP-CONRE-COUP INJURY - injury at
the site and opposite the site of application of
force.
LOCUS MINORIS RESISTENTIAE - injury
not at the site and not opposite the site of
application of force but at the site offering least
resistance.
EXTENSIVE INJURY - injury on a greater
area more than the site of application of force.
INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM - is the organ
system that protects the body from various kinds
of damage, such as loss of water or abrasion
from outside. The system comprises the skin
and its appendages, including hair, scales,
feathers, hooves, and nails.
LACERATION - a deep cut or tear in skin or
flesh. A wound that is produced by the tearing
of soft body tissue. This type of wound is often
irregular and jagged.
LAZARUS SYNDROME - is also called
Lazarus Phenomenon, is the spontaneous return
of circulation after failed attempts at
resuscitation.
LAZARUS SIGN - or Lazarus reflex is a reflex
movement in brain dead patients, which causes
them to briefly raise their arms and drop them
crossed on their chests.
LEGAL MEDICINE - Branch of medicine
which deals with the application of medical
knowledge to the purpose of law and in the
administration of justice. Application of
medicine to legal cases.
LIVOR MORTIS - is a settling of the blood in
the lower (dependent) portion of the body,
causing a purplish red discoloration of the skin.
From the Latin word "livor" - bluish color and
"mortis" - of death. Also known as post-mortem
lividity.
MAYHEM -  intentional maiming of another
person.
MECHANICAL TRAUMA - is an injury to
any portion of the body from a blow, crush, cut,
or penetrating the wound.
MEDICAL EVIDENCE - is the means
sanctioned by the rules of court of ascertaining
in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a
matter of fact.
      TYPES OF EVIDENCE
      1. Real Evidence/Autoptic - made known to
the senses
      2. Testimonial Evidence - oral testimony
under oath
      3. Experimental Evidence
      4. Documentary Evidence
MEDICAL JURISPRUDENCE - knowledge
of the law in relation to the practice of medicine.
MEDICO-LEGAL OFFICER - (medical
examiner) a physician who determines the cause
of injury/death/disease by examining the
patient/cadaver and testify in court to aid in the
administration of justice.
MENTAL DEFICIENCY – or mental
retardation, is sub average intellectual ability
present from birth or early infancy. Intelligence
is both determined by heredity and environment.
In most cases of mental
deficiency, the cause is unknown.
CLASSIFICATION OF MENTAL
DEFICIENCY
1. IDIOT – The idiot’s intelligence never
exceeds that of a normal child over 2years old.
The IQ is between 0 – 20. This is usually
congenital.
2. IMBECILE – the imbecile’s intelligence is
compared to a normal child from 2 –7 years old
and the IQ is 20 – 40.
3. FEEBLE MINDED – his mentality is similar
to that of a normal child between 7 – 12 years
old and an IQ of 40 – 70.
THE LEGAL IMPORTANCE OF
DETERMINING THE PERSON’S STATE
OF MIND ARE THE FOLLOWING:
1. In Criminal law, insanity exempts a person
from criminal liability.
2. In Civil law, Insanity is a restriction of the
capacity of a natural person to act as provided in
Article 38 of the Civil Code.
3. Insanity modifies or limits the capacity of a
natural person to act as provided in Article 39 of
the Civil Code.
4. Insanity at the time of marriage of any or both
parties is a ground for the annulment of
marriage.
MENTAL HEALTH DISORDERS – include
disturbances in thinking, emotion, and behavior.
There is a complex interaction between the
physical, psychological, social, cultural and
hereditary influences.
FACTORS THAT CONTRIBUTE TO THE
DEVELOPMENT OF MENTAL
DISORDERS
1. HEREDITY – the most frequent factor that
contributes to insanity and a good history will
reveal the ascendants afflicted with the same.
2. INCESTUOUS MARRIAGE – The mental
illness is accentuated when they are blood
relative.
3. IMPAIRED VITALITY – Stress, tension,
worry,grief may predispose to insanity.
4. POOR MORAL TRAINING AND
BREEDING – Corrupt moral upbringing in the
family due to immorality of the parents.
5. PSYCHIC FACTORS – Factors like love,
hate,rage, anger, passion disappointments.
6. PHYSICAL FACTORS
A. NON TOXIC FACTORS – exhaustion
resulting from severe physical and mental strain
and traumatic injuries to the head.
B. TOXIC FACTORS – drug
addiction,infections of the brain.
KINDS OF MENTAL HEALTH
DISORDERS
1. PSYCHOSOMATIC DISORDERS –
physical disorders caused by psychological
factors.
2. SOMATIFORM DISORDERS –
encompasses several psychiatric disorders in
which people report physical symptoms but
deny having psychiatric problems.
3. GENERALIZED ANXIETY DISORDERS
4. PANIC ATTACKS AND PANIC
DISORDER
5. PHOBIC DISORDERS
a. Agoraphobia
b. Specific phobias
c. Social phobia
6. OBSESSIVE COMPULSIVE DISORDER
7. POST TRAUMATIC STRESS
DISORDER
8. DEPRESSION AND MANIA b. Hallucination
9. BIPOLAR DISORDER 2. DISORDERS OF MEMORY
10.SUICIDAL BEHAVIOR a. Dementia
11.EATING DISORDERS 3. DISORDERS IN THE CONTENT OF
a. Anorexia nervosa THOUGHT
b. Bulimia nervosa A. Delusion
c. Binge eating disorder a. Delusion of grandeur
12.PERSONALITY DISORDERS b. Delusion of persecution
a. Paranoid c. Delusion of reference
b. Schizoid d. Delusion of Self – Accusation
c. Histrionic e. Delusion of infidelity
d. Narcissistic f. Nihilistic delusion
e. Antisocial g. Delusion of poverty
f. Borderline h. Delusion of control
g. Avoidant i. Delusion of depression
h. Dependent B. Obsession
i. Obsessive – Compulsive 4. DISORDERS IN THE TREND OF
j. Passive Aggressive THOUGHT    
k. Dissociative Types a. Mania
13.SCHIZOPHRENIA – a serious mental b. Melancholia
disorder characterized by loss of contact with 5. DISORDERS OF EMOTIONS OR
reality(psychosis), hallucinations, delusions FEELINGS – a disorder in the state of mind,
(false beliefs), abnormal thinking, fervor, or sensibility, not in accord with reality.
disrupted work and social functioning. 6. DISORDERS OF VOLITION OR
CONATION (doing)
TYPES OF SCHIZOPHRENIA CONATION - the mental faculty of purpose,
A. PARANOID - is a mental disorder desire, or will to perform an action; volition.
characterized by paranoia and a pervasive, long-      
standing suspiciousness and generalized KINDS OF CONATION
mistrust of others. A. IMPULSION OR IMPULSE (Compulsion)
B. HEBEPHRENIC -  it is characterized by – a sudden and irresistible force compelling a
disorganized behavior and speech, as well as person to the conscious performance of some
disturbances in emotional expression. action without motive or forethought.
C. CATATONIC - does not respond to external
stimuli. characterized by a marked lack of TYPES OF COMPULSION
movement, activity, or expression. A. PYROMANIA - from the Greek word "pyr"
14.DELUSIONAL DISORDER - fire, is an impulse control disorder in which
15.PSYCHOLOGICAL INCAPACITY – a individuals repeatedly fail to resist impulses to
waste basket diagnosis because it is so broad a deliberately start fires in order to relieve tension
term, that it covers all possible Mental or for instant gratification.
Disorders. B. KLEPTOMANIA - is the inability to refrain
from the urge to steal items and is done for
SOME MANIFESTATIONS OF MENTAL reasons other than personal use or financial
DISORDERS gain.
1. DISORDERS OF COGNITION (Knowing) C. DIPSOMANIA - an uncontrollable craving
a. Illusion for alcoholic liquors.
D. HOMICIDAL IMPULSE - occurs when
one person kills another suddenly and without
premeditation or planning.
E. SEX IMPULSE - a sudden strong and
unreflective urge or desire to have sex..
F. SUICIDAL IMPULSE - recurring thoughts
of or preoccupation with suicide.
MORTAL WOUND - capable of causing
death.
MUSCULAR SYSTEM - is an organ system
consisting of skeletal, smooth and cardiac
muscles. It permits movement of the body,
maintains posture, and circulates blood
throughout the body.
MUTILATION - or maiming is an act of
physical injury that degrades the appearance or
function of any living body.
NERVOUS SYSTEM - consists of the brain,
spinal cord, sensory organs, and all of the nerves
that connect these organs with the rest of the
body.
OBSTETRICS - branch of medicine that deals
with pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum
period, including care of the newborn.
PARAFFIN TEST OR DERMAL NITRATE
test – present on the skin of the hand or site of
the wound of entrance. This test is not
conclusive because of fertilizers, cosmetics,
cigarettes, urine and other nitrogenous
compounds with nitrates will give a positive
reaction. A negative test is also not conclusive.
The test usually gives a positive result even after
a lapse of 3days or even if the hands are
subjected to ordinary washing.
PATHOLOGY - the science of the causes and
effects of diseases, especially the branch of
medicine that deals with the laboratory
examination of samples of body tissue for
diagnostic or forensic purposes.
PAULUS ZACCHIAS - (1584–1659) is the
Father of Forensic Medicine.
PETECHIAE – a circumscribe extravasation of
blood in the subcutaneous tissue.
PHYSICAL INJURY - is the effect of some
stimulus on the body.
PHYSICAL INJURIES - include those caused
by mechanical trauma, heat and cold, electrical
discharges, changes in pressure, and radiation
- Mechanical trauma is an injury to any portion
of the body from a blow, crush, cut, or
penetrating the wound.
PHYSICS - The subject matter of physics
includes mechanics, heat, light and other
radiation, sound, electricity, magnetism, and the
structure of atoms.
PHYSIOLOGY - the branch of biology that
deals with the normal functions of living
organisms and their parts.
POST-MORTEM - (meaning after death)
internal examination of the dead to determine
the cause of death.
ANTE-MORTEM - before death.
POST-MORTEM CALORICITY - is the rise
of temperature of the body after death due to
rapid and early putrefactive changes, usually in
the first two hours.
POST MORTEM LIVIDITY - it occurs in
most extensive areas of the most dependent
portions of the body.
PUNCTURE WOUND - is usually caused by a
sharp pointy object such as a nail, animal teeth,
or a tack. This type of wound usually does not
bleed excessively and can appear to close up.
PUTREFACTION - or decomposition is the
final stage following death, produced mainly by
the action of bacterial enzymes, mostly
anaerobic organisms derived from the vowel.
Other enzymes are derived from fungi and
sometimes from insects.
KINDS OF PUTREFACTION:
1. MUMMIFICATION -  is the preservation of
a body.
2. SAPONIFICATION – also called Adipocere
Formation.
3. MACERATION - Softening of the tissues
after death by autolysis.
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM - or genital
system is a system of sex organs within an
organism that works together for the purpose of
sexual reproduction. Many non-living
substances such as fluids, hormones, and
pheromones are also important accessories to
the reproductive system.
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM - (or ventilatory
system) is a biological system consisting of
specific organs and structures used for the
process of respiration in an organism. The
respiratory system is involved
in the intake and exchange of oxygen and
carbon dioxide between an organism and the
environment.
SCALD - is a type of burn injury caused by hot
liquids or gases.
SEX CRIMES - generally involve illegal or
coerced sexual conduct by one person towards
another.
CHASTE – An unmarried woman who has had
no carnal knowledge with men or that she never
voluntarily had unlawful sexual intercourse.
These also denote the purity of mind and
innocence of heart
SHRAPNEL - fragments of a bomb, shell, or
other object is thrown out by an explosion.
SKELETAL SYSTEM - gives the body its
basic framework, providing structure,
protection, and movement.
SUBPOENA - order issued by the court to a
person to appear in court.
SUBPOENA AD TESTIFICANDUM´- is a
court summons to appear and give oral
testimony for use at a hearing or trial.
SURGERY - is an ancient medical specialty
that uses operative manual and instrumental
techniques on a patient to investigate and/or
treat a pathological condition such as disease or
injury, to help improve
bodily function or appearance or to repair
unwanted ruptured areas.
TOPINARD AND ROLET - two French
anatomist who devised a formula for the
determination of the height for male and female.
TOXICOLOGY - the branch of science
concerned with the nature, effects, and detection
of poisons.
TRAUMA - injury, a physical wound to the
body caused by an external source.
VIRGIN – A woman who has had no carnal
knowledge of man. Her genital organs have not
been altered by carnal connection.
VIRGINITY - A condition of a female who has
not experience sexual intercourse and whose
genital organs have not been altered by carnal
connection and whose hymen is still intact.
KINDS OF VIRGINITY
1. MORAL VIRGINITY – the state of not
knowing the nature of sexual life and not having
experience sexual relations.
2. PHYSICAL VIRGINITY – A condition
whereby a woman is conscious of the nature of
sexual life but has not experienced sexual
intercourse.
3. DEMI–VIRGINITY – This term refers to a
condition of a woman who permits any form of
sexual liberties as long as they abstain from
rupturing the hymen by the sexual act. The
woman allows sexual intercourse, but only inter
femora or even inter labia, but not to the extent
of rupturing the hymen.
4. VIRGO INTACTA – A truly virgin woman.
There is no structural change in her organ,
notwithstanding the fact of previous sexual
intercourse.
CARNAL KNOWLEDGE - is the act of a man
in having a sexual bodily connection with a
woman. There is carnal knowledge if there is the
slightest penetration in the sexual organ of the
female by the sexual organ of the male.
VIRTUOUS FEMALE - If her body is pure
and if she has never had any sexual intercourse
with another through her mind and heart is
impure.
VITAL REACTION -  the response of living
body tissues to injury.
WOUND - in legal medicine, it means strictly a
solution of continuity. An injury to living tissue
caused by a cut, blow, or other impacts,
typically one in which the skin is cut or broken.
OPEN WOUND - THERE IS A BREAK IN
THE CONTINUITY OF THE SKIN.
1. ABRASION - a wound consisting of
superficial damage to the skin. Scratch, friction
mark.
2. BRUISE - is a common skin injury that
results from the breakage of tiny blood vessels
leaking under the skin. Blood from damaged
blood vessels beneath the skin collects near the
surface of the skin to appear as what we
recognize as a black and blue mark. Cause by a
blunt injury to the tissues which damage blood
vessels beneath the surface, allowing blood to
extravasate or leak into the surrounding tissues.
3. INCISED WOUND - caused by a clean,
sharp-edged object such as a knife, razor, or
glass splinter.
4. STAB WOUND - is a specific form of
penetrating trauma to the skin that results from a
knife or a similar pointed object that is "deeper
than it is wide".
5. PUNCTURED WOUND - is a deep wound
caused by something sharp and pointed, like a
nail. The opening on the skin is small, and the
puncture wound may not bleed much. Puncture
wounds can easily become infected.
6. PERFORATING WOUND - a wound with
an entrance and exit opening.
7. LACERATED WOUND - that occurs when
skin, tissue, and/or muscle is torn or cut open.
Lacerations may be deep or shallow, long or
short, and wide or narrow. Most lacerations are
the result of the skin hitting an object, or an
object hitting the skin with force.
 8. BITE -  is a wound received from the teeth
of an animal, including humans.
 9. GUNSHOT WOUND (GSW) - (Ballistic
Trauma) is a form of physical trauma sustained
from the discharge of arms or munitions.
BAROTRAUMA - wound/injury caused by a
change in atmospheric pressure.
DEFENSE WOUND - or self-defense wound is
an injury received by the victim of an attack
while trying to defend against the assailant.
often found on the hands and forearms, where
the victim has raised them to protect the head
and face or to fend off an assault, but may also
be present on the feet and legs where a victim
attempts defense while lying down and kicking
out at the assailant.
FORENSIC MEDICINE DEFINITION OF
TERMS
AEDEAGUS - the reproductive organ of a male
insect.
AGNOSIA - impairment or loss associated with
brain injury of the ability to recognized or
comprehend the meaning of stimuli including
familiar objects and and symbols.
AIRWAYS - any part of the respiratory tract
thought which air passes during breathing.
ALVEOLAR DUCTS - the smallest of the
lungs airways that connect terminal bronchioles
and alveolar sacs, sometimes called bronchioles.
ALVEOLI - microscopic air sacs in which gas
exchange between the blood and the lungs
occur.
AMNESIA - partial or total loss of memory for
past experiences.
ANARTHRIA - loss of the ability to form
words accurately caused by brain lesion or
damage to peripheral nerves that carry impulses
to the articulatory muscles.
ANEMIA - any condition in which the number
of red blood cells, the amount of hemoglobin,
and the volume of packed red blood cells per
100 ml of blood are less that normal. It may
result from increased destruction of red blood
cells, excessive blood loss or decreased
production of red cells.
APLASTIC ANEMIA - anemia caused by
aplasia of bone marrow or its destruction by
chemical agents or physical factors.
AUTO IMMUNE HEMOLYTIC - acquired
disorder characterized by premature erythrocyte
destruction owing to abnormalities in them
individuals own immune system.
HEMOLYTIC - anemia caused by hemolysis
of red blood cells resulting in reduction of
normal red cell life span.
IRON-DEFICIENCY ANEMIA - anemia
resulting from a demand on stored iron greater
than can be met.
MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA - anemia in
which megaloblasts are found in the blood,
usually due to a deficiency of folic acid or
vitamin B12.
MICROANGIOPATHIC HYMOLYTIC - a
hemolytic process associated with thrombotic
thrombotic purpura, prosthetic heart valve, and
burns. It is visualized in the peripheral blood
smear by fragmentation
of the red cells and other bizarre morphology.
PERNICIOUS - a type of megaloblastic
anemia due to a deficiency of vitamin B12,
directly linked to absence of intrinsic factor.
SICKLE-CELL - hereditary chronic anemia in
which abnormal sickle or crescent shaped
erythrocytes are present.It is due to the presence
of hemoglobin S in the red blood cells.
ANTIBODY - a protein produced for body
defense in response to an antigen.An antibody is
a substance that appears in the plasma or body
fluids as a result of stimulation by an antigen
and will react specifically with that antigen in
some observable way.
ANTICOAGULANt - a substance such as
EDTA that prevent coagulation or clotting of the
blood.
ANTIGEN - a foreign substance, usually a
protein, capable of stimulating an antibody
response for body defense.Any substance that
when introduced parenterally into an individual
lacking lacking the substance,stimulates the
production of an antibody that when mixed with
the antibody react with it in some observable
way.
APLASIA - failure of an organ or tissue to
develop normally.
ASPHYXIA - lack of oxygen or excess of
carbon dioxide in the body.Asphyxia may lead
to unconsciousness, seizures, damage to various
sensory systems and death.
ASTHMA - a chronic condition in which
constriction (spasm) of the bronchial tubes
occurs in response to irritation, allergy, or other
stimuli.
ATHEROSCLEROSIS - deposition of plaques
of cholesterol esters in blood vessels, resulting
in the narrowing of the vessel lumen and
restricting blood flow.
ATROPHY - a loss of function due to age,
disuse, or disease.
AUTISM - mental introversion in which
thinking is governed by personal needs and the
world is perceived in terms of wishes rather than
reality.Extreme preoccupations with one's own
thoughts and fantasies.
AUTOPSY - a physical examination of the
corpse through dissection to determine cause of
death (also necropsy and postmortem).
Bestiality - is a sexual intercourse by a human
being with a lower animal
BIOPSY - a small piece of tissue excised for the
purpose of analysis
BITE MARK - a circular or oval patterned
injury consisting of two opposing
symmetrical.U-shaped arches separated at their
bases by open spaces.Following the periphery of
the arches are a series of individual abrasions,
contusions, or lacerations reflecting the size,
shape, arrangement, and distribution of the class
characteristics of the contacting surfaces of the
human dentition.
BLOAT - the transient phase in corpse
decomposition that follows the fresh phase and
is characterized by excessive swelling, produced
by gases trapped internally.
BLOOD GROUP - an immunologically
distinct, genetically determined class of human
erythrocyte antigens, identified as A, B, AB, and
O.A classification of red blood cell surface
antigens, ABO is the best known of the blood
group systems.
BLOOD TYPE - a way of saying which blood
group antigens are present on the persons red
cells.
BLOODBORNE PATHOGEN - infectious,
disease causing microorganism that maybe
found or transported in biological fluids.
BLOODSTAIN - liquid blood that has dried
once it has come in contact with a surface.
BODY BAG - a heavy waterproof bag usually
closed with a zipper and used to transport a
corpse.
BODY DUMP SITE - the location where an
offender disposes of the murder victim's body.
BONDAGE - the combining of sadism and
masochism.
BRONCHI - (singular-bronchus) large
divisions of the trachea that convey air to and
from the lungs.
BRONCHIOLE - a small diameter airway
branching from a bronchus.
BRONCHITIS - inflammation of the mucus
membrane of the bronchial tubes, usually
associated with a persistent cough and sputum
production.
BRONCHOSPASM - contraction of the
smooth muscle of the bronchi causing the
narrowing of the bronchi.This narrowing
increases the resistance or airflow into the lungs
and may cause a shortness of breath typically
associated with wheezing.
BUCCAL COITUS - (coitus per os or sin of
Gomorrah) the male organ is introduced into
mouth, usually of a young child.
CADAVER DOG - canines specially trained to
find human decomposition scent and and alert
their handlers to its location.
CADAVERINE - malodorous chemical
compound produced during decomposition.
CAUSE OF DEATH - an injury or disease that
ultimately lead to death of the individual,
generally determined by medical examiner or
coroner (pathologists).
CARRION - decaying animal flesh.
CEPHALOTHORAX - the anterior body
region in some arthropods consisting of the
fused head and thorax.
CEREBELLUM - the large brain mass located
at the posterior base of the brain, responsible for
balance and coordination of movement.
CEREBRAL CONTUSION - bruising of brain
tissue marked by swelling and hemorrhage and
resulting in loss of consciousness.
CEREBRAL EDEMA - swelling of the brain
caused by excessive buildup of fluid in the
tissue.
CEREBRAL INFARCTIONS - is an ischemic
stroke resulting from a disturbance in the blood
vessels supplying blood to the brain.
CEREBRUM - the largest portion of the brain,
include the cerebral hemispheres (cerebral
cortex and basal ganglia)
CHRONIC - persistent, prolonged, repeated.
CIRRHOSIS - a chronic disease of the liver
marked by degeneration of cells, inflammation,
and fibrous thickening of the tissue, can be
cause =d by long term alcoholism, viral
infections, and metabolic disease.
CLITORIS - erectile tissue in female analogous
to male penis, located above the urethra and
covered by the clitoral hood.
CLOT - a thick mass of coagulated liquid, ex.
blood.A blood clot is formed by a complex
mechanism involving plasma protein,
fibrinogens, platelets, and other clotting factors.
COAGULATION - the process of stopping
blood flow from a wound or by which blood
forms clot.
COAGULOPHATY - a disease affecting the
blood clotting process.
CODE OF HAMMURABI - is the oldest
known medico legal code.
COMA - state of profound unconsciousness
from which the patient can not be aroused.
CONCUSSION - sudden shock to or jarring of
the brain which may or may not cause a loss of
consciousness.
CONJUNCTIVA - the delicate mucous
membrane that covers the exposed surface of the
eyeball and lines of the eyelids.
CONTACT WOUND - a wound that results
when a small weapon is fired in contact with the
skin.May divided into tight or loose contact
wounds based on the amount of pressure used
against the skin.
CONTUSION - a bruise that is either
superficial or internal.An injury cause by blunt
object impact without laceration with surface
discoloration due to subsurface
hemorrhaging.An injury to subsurface tissue
caused by a blow from a blunt instrument that
does not break the skin.
CONVULSION - is a medical condition where
the body muscle contract and relax rapidly and
repeatedly, resulting in an uncontrolled shaking
of the body.
CORNEA - the transparent membrane that
cover the colored part of the eye.
CORONARY ARTERY - an artery supplying
blood to the heart.
CORONER - (medical examiner) (pathologists)
an officer responsible for determining the
manner and cause of death.
CORPSE - a dead human body, also called
cadaver.
CUNNILINGUS - is the oral stimulation of the
female genitalia.
Death - the loss of life characterized by
clinically by combined failure of respiratory,
cardiovascular, and nervous system activity.
DECOMPOSITION - post mortem
degenerative rotting of the corpse.Chemical
breakdown, separating compounds into their
component parts, includes breakdown pf
proteins by putrefaction, of carbohydrates by
fermentation, and of fats by rancidification.
DECUBITUs - may be seen as a bedsore that
can produce an ulcer in the body caused by
lying long in one position, this pressure necrosis
can be found on elderly patients.
DEFENSE WOUNDS - stab or incised wounds
to the hands, wrists, forearms, and arms that
may contain embedded fragments of the
weapon.
DELIRIUM - extreme mental excitement
marked by defective perception, impaired
memory, and rapid succession of confused and
unconnected ideas, often with illusions and
hallucinations.
DELUSION - firm belief opposed to reality but
maintained in spite of srong evidence to the
contrary.
DIATOMS - are microscopic, unicellular, silica
coated algae.Presence of diatoms in tissue is a
sign of ante-Morten drowning.Diatoms are
examined by acid digestion technique.
DIPSOMANIA - an irresistible desire for
alcoholic drinks at periodic intervals.
DURHAM RULE - an accused person is nor
criminally responsible if his unlawful act is the
product of mental disease or mental defect.
ECCHYMOSIS - is the medical term for a
subcutaneous purpura larger than 1 centimeter
or a hematoma, commonly called a bruise.
ECLAMPSIA - an acute disorder of pregnant
and puerperal women, associated with
convulsions and coma.
EMBOLISM - obstruction of a blood vessel by
foreign substances or by a blood clot.
ENDEMIC - a disease that occurs continuously
in a particular population but has a low
mortality rate such as measles.
ENDOCARDITIS - inflammation of the lining
membrane of the heart.Maybe due to invasion of
microorganisms or an abnormal immunologic
reaction.
EPIDURAL HEMORRHAGE - bleeding in
the space between the dura matter and skull or
wall of the vertebral canal around the spinal
cord.
EPISTAXIS - hemorrhage from the nose,
nosebleed.
ERYTHROCYTES - red blood cells.A type of
blood cell that contain a nucleus in all
vertebrates but man and that has hemoglobin in
the cytoplasm.
ERYTHRODERMA - intense, widespread
reddening of the skin.
ESOPHAGUS - the portion of the digestive
canal extending from the throat to the stomach,
also referred to as gullet.
EUNUCHS - male prostitutes.
EUTHANASIA - (mercy killing) it means
producing painless death of a person suffering
from hopelessly incurable and painful disease.
EXOSKELETON - a skeleton on the outside of
the body whose inner walls serves as a point for
the attachment of muscles.
FECES - animal solid waste material
discharged from the rectum through the
anus.End product of digestion after absorption
of nutrients and re-absorption of water.
FELACIO - is the oral stimulation or
manipulation of the penis either by the female or
male.
FETICHISM - sexual satisfaction by contact
with articles of opposite sex.
FORENSIC MEDICINE - is the application of
medical knowledge in the administration of law
and justice.
FORENSIC TAPHONOMY - the study of
post-mortem processes affecting human remains
for the purposes of interpreting forensic data.
FORTUNATO FEDELE - an Italian physician
who in 1602 published the first book on forensic
medicine.
FRIGIDITy - is the inability to start or to
maintain the sexual arousal pattern in the
female.
FROTTEURISM - contact with other persons
to obtain sexual gratification.
Gangrene - death of tissue due to lack of blood
supply.
GASTRITIS - inflammation of the stomach,
characterized by epigastric pain or tenderness,
nausea, vomiting, and systemic electrolyte
changes if vomiting persists.
GLAUCOMA - a disease of the eye
characterized by abnormal and damaging high
pressure in the eye, usually due to a blockage of
the channel that normally allows the outflow of
fluid from the eye.
HEMATOLOGY - branch of biology that deals
with blood and blood forming organs.
HEMATOMA - accumulation of blood in the
tissue due to internal hemorrhaging.A tumor of
blood caused by leakage from damage blood
vessels, it contains enough blood to form a
blood-filled space.
HEMOLYSIS - destruction or dissolution of
red blood cells in such a manner that
hemoglobin is liberated into the medium in
which the cells are suspended.
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA - Any anemia
resulting from destruction of red blood cells.
HEMOPHILIA A hereditary blood disease
characterized by impaired coagulability of the
blood and a strong tendency to bleed.
HEMOPTYSIS - Coughing and spitting of
blood as a result of bleeding from any part of
the respiratory tract.
HEMORRHAGE - Escape of whole blood
from a blood vessel. Abnormal internal or
external bleeding. May be venous, arterial, or
capillary from blood vessels into the tissues, or
into or from the body.
HERNIATION - Rupture of tissue into an
adjacent space due to internal pressure or
swelling.
HIJRAHS - castrated eunuchs.
HOMOSEXUALITY - means persistent
emotional and physical attraction to members of
same sex.
HYMEN - Thin membrane, in females, that
separates the external genitalia from the vagina.
The outer surface is a dry, squamous epithelium,
and the inner surface is a moist mucous
membrane
HYPOTHERMIA - Having a body temperature
below normal.
HYPOVOLEMIA - Diminished blood volume.
HYPOXIA - Condition in which below-normal
levels of oxygen are present in the air, blood, or
body tissues, short of anoxia.
IMPETIGO - Highly contagious, rapidly
spreading skin disorder caused by
staphylococcus or streptococcus and
characterized by red blisters. Impetigo
sometimes occurs as a result of poor hygiene.
INBREEDING - Reproduction between related
individuals.
INCISED WOUND - Injury produced by a
sharp instrument and characterized by lack of
surface abrasion and absence of bridging
vessels, nerves, and smooth margins.
INCISION - A wound produced by a sharp-
edged instrument or object.
ISCHEMIA - Obstruction of blood flow
(usually by arterial narrowing) that causes lack
of oxygen and other bloodborne nutrients.
ISCHEMIA NECROSIS - Death of cells as a
result of decreased blood flow to affected
tissues.
INVERTEBRATE - Any species of animal
lacking a back bone.
IMPOTENCE - is the inability of a person to
perform sexual intercourse.
JAUNDICE - yellowing of the skin and whites
of the eyes due to an accumulation of bile
pigments (e.g., bilirubin) in the circulating
blood. Another cause is liver damage caused by
hepatitis.
KLEPTOMANIA - an irresistible desire to
steal articles of little value.
LABIA MAJORA - Outer lips to the vagina
that are covered by pubic hair after menarche
(onset of menstruation).
LACERATION - A wound produced by a tear
in the skin due to application of blunt force in
crushing or shearing.
LIVOR MORTIS - A coloration of the skin of
the lower parts of a corpse caused by the settling
of the red blood cells as the blood ceases to
circulate.
LYMPHOCYTE - A general class of white
blood cells that are important components of the
immune system of vertebrate animals.
MAGGOT - The larva of a higher fly. It sheds
its skin twice and has three growth instars prior
to pupariation. A legless larva without a well-
developed head capsule.
MANDIBLE - A mouth organ of invertebrates
(especially in the arthropods and insects) used
for seizing, biting, and manipulating food. With
vertebrate organisms, it is recognized as the
lower jaw.
MANNER OF DEATH - A typology of deaths
according to whether they are due to homicide,
suicide, accident, or natural causes. Death
occurs in one of four manners: natural, if caused
solely by disease; accidental, if it occurs without
apparent intent; suicidal, if caused by the
deceased; and homicidal, if someone other than
the deceased caused it.
MALINGERING - (shamming) means
conscious, planned feigning or pretending a
disease for the
MASOCHISM - opposite of sadism, derived
from the name of Leopold Von Sacher-Masoch,
an Austrian novelist, being whipped by his wife
used to be a stimulant for his literary work.
MEDICAL JURISPRUDENCE - deals with
the legal rights, privileges, duties and
obligations of medical practitioner.
MENINGITIS - Brain infection involving an
acute inflammation of the membranes that cover
the brain and spinal cord, characterized by
drowsiness, confusion, irritability, and sensory
impairments.
MITE - Any arthropod in the order Acari.
These are very small to minute animals having
four pairs of legs in the adult stage, but only
three pairs in the larva. All mites have
chelicerated mouth parts and lack mandibles.
MUMMIFICATION - The drying, shrinking,
and hardening of dead flesh due to extreme
dehydration
MUILOMANIA - an irresistible desire to
mutilate animals.
MYIASIS - The invasion of any living
vertebrate animal, including people, by fly
larvae, especially maggots. The description may
be further refined to indicate location affected
(e.g., nasal myiasis, rectal myiasis) or the
predisposing cause (e.g., traumatic myiasis in a
suppurating wound). Myiasis may be classified
as either primary or secondary (facultative).
MYOCARDIAL ISCHEMIA - Insufficient
oxygen supplies to meet the metabolic demands
of heart muscles.
MYOCARDITIS - Inflammation of the
muscles of the heart.
MYOCLONUS - Involuntary spasm or
twitching of a muscle or group of muscles.
MYOGLOBIN - The oxygen-transporting,
pigmented protein of muscle resembles blood
hemoglobin in function
MYOTOMY - Cutting of muscle; in forensic
odontology, cutting facial muscles to release
postmortem rigor mortis.
NECROPHAGIA - necros - corpse, phagia - to
eat.
NECROPHILIA - sexual intercourse with dead
body.
NECROPHILOUS - Having a dietary fondness
for dead flesh.
NECROSIS - Death of one or more cells or a
portion of a tissue or organ.
NEOPLASM - A new and abnormal formation
of tissue such as a tumor or growth.
NEUROPATHY - A disorder of the nervous
system; in contemporary usage, a disease
involving the cranial or spinal nerves.
NEUROSES - the patient suffer from emotional
or intellectual disorder but does not loss touch
with reality.
Osteoarthritis - deterioration in joint integrity
connected with use-wear exacerbated by
inflammation and related to reduction in bone
density.
OSTEOMYELITIS - Inflammation of the bone
especially the marrow caused by a pathogenic
organism.
OSTEOPOROSIS - Increased porosity of the
bone, seen most often in the elderly.
PAEDOPHILE - (pedophile) is an adult who
repeatedly engages in sexual activities with
children below the age of puberty.
PARAPHILIAS - abnormal and unorthodox
sex play using unusual objects or parts of the
body.
PERIMORTEM - At or near the time of death
PETECHIAE - Pinhead-sized (red) dots which
are minute hemorrhages found inside the eyelids
and the facial skin; considered by pathologists to
be a sign of strangulation.
PHOBIA - it is an excessive or irrational fear of
a particular object or situation.
PLASMA - The liquid portion of whole blood
containing water, electrolytes, glucose, fats,
proteins, and gases. Contains all the clotting
factors necessary for coagulation but in an
inactive form. Once coagulation occurs, the
fluid is converted to serum.
PNEUMONITIS - Inflammation of the lungs.
POSTMORTEM - After death, occurring after
death, or pertaining to a postmortem
examination, an autopsy.
POSTMORTEM - artifact Alteration to the
body that occurs after death that is not related to
antemortem injury.
POSTMORTEM INTERVAL - The period of
time between death and corpse discovery.
PRIAPISM - painful penile erection in absence
of sexual desire.
PSEUDO-MALINGERING - A phenomenon
whereby a mentally ill individual feigns the
mental illness he or she actually has. The
behavior is considered a temporary ego-
supportive device that allows the individual to
feel he or she has control over the illness.
PSYCHOLOGICAL AUTOPSY - An attempt
to determine the mode of death (whether an
accident, suicide, homicide, or natural causes)
by an examination of what was known about the
deceased.
PSYCHOPATH - a person who is neither
insane nor mentally defective but fails to
conform to normal standards of behavior.
PSYCHOSES - they are characterized by
withdrawal from reality, living in a world of
fantasy.
PULMONARY EDEMA - Accumulation of
extra vascular fluid in the lungs that impairs gas
exchange; usually due to either increased
intravascular pressure or increased permeability
of the pulmonary capillaries.
PUTRIFACTION - The foul-smelling,
anaerobic decomposition of moist or wet
organic matter by microorganisms. The
breakdown of tissues, particularly proteins, due
to enzyme action.
PYROMANIA - sexual stimulation while
seeing flames or destruction of buildings.
RIGOR MORTIS - The stiffness of the body
after death that helps in reconstructing the time
at which death occurred. The progressive
rigidity of a corpse following death, caused by
an accumulation of lactic acid in dying muscle
tissues. This is a temporary condition lasting 12
to 36 h.
SADISM - sexual gratification is obtained or
increased from acts of physical cruelty or
causing of pain upon one's partner.The term is
derived from the name of a French nobleman
Marquis de Sade, infamous for his crimes and
writings.Many of his stories were about
sexuality, cruelty, and torture.
SAPONIFICATION - The conversion of
corpse body fat into a curdlike foul-smelling
product called adipocere
SAPROPHAGOUS - Feeding on dead or
decaying plant or animal material, such as
carrion, corpses, dung, or rotting wood.
SATYRIASIS - incessant sexual desire.
SCOLIOSIS - A lateral curvature of the spine.
SCURVY - A deficiency disease characterized
by hemorrhagic manifestations and abnormal
formation of bones and teeth.
SEPSIS - Pathologic state, usually febrile,
resulting from the presence of microorganisms
or their poisonous products in the bloodstream.
SEPTICEMIA - Bacteria in the blood system
with signs and symptoms of disease.
SEXUAL ORALISM - it is the obtaining of
sexual pleasure from the application of the
mouth to the sexual organs
SODOMY - is anal intercourse between two
males or between a male and female.It is also
called buggery.It is also called gerontophilia
when the active agent is an adult and paederasty,
wen the passive agent is a young boy who is
known as catamite.
TACHYCARDIA - Rapid heartbeat (typically
greater than 100 beats per minute).
TACHYPNEA - Rapid breathing.
TATTOOING - A characteristic pattern in the
skin caused by particles of
unburned and partially burned powder from a
shotgun blast at very close range.Also may be
called stippling.
TETANY - Condition marked by involuntary
muscle contractions or spasms.
TRAUMA - An injury that is the result of any
force such as blunt, sharp, or penetrating.
TRANSVESTISM - trans - opposite, vesta -
clothing of eonism.The term is derived from the
name of Chevelier d'Eon Beamont, a
Frenchman.It is usually found in the males who
derived sexual pleasure by wearing female
dress.
TRIBADISM - female homosexuality.Sexual
gratification of a woman is obtained by another
woman by simple lip kissing,generalized body
contact, deep kissing, manual manipulation of
breast and genitalia, genital apposition, friction
of external genital organs, etc.In some case,
artificial penis or phallus may be used.
THROTTLING - is manual strangulation.
UNDINISM - sexual pleasure by witnessing the
act of urination.
VASODILATION - Increased diameter of the
blood vessels.
VOYEURISM - (scoptophilia) peeping tom,
sexual enjoyment by watching.
WHEEZING - Breathing noisily and with
difficulty; usually a sign of spasm or narrowing
of the airways.
ZENANA - eunuch with intact genitalia.
  
3. CRIMINAL
JURISPRUDENCE,PROCEDURE AND
EVIDENCE
A. CRIMINAL LAW BOOK 1
BOOK 1
GENERAL PROVISIONS
   Art.1. Time When Act Takes Effect
   Art.2. Application of Its Provisions
   Art.3. Definitions: Acts and Omissions
Punishable by law Are Felonies
   Art.4. Criminal Liability
   Art.5. Duty Of The Courts Acts Not Covered
By Law
   Art.6. Consummated, Frustrated, And
Attempted Felonies
   Art.7. When Light Felonies Are Punishable
   Art.8. Conspiracy And Proposal To Commit
Felony
   Art.9. Grave Felonies, Less Grave Felonies
And Light Felonies
   Art.10. Offenses Not Subject To The
Provisions of this code
   Art.11. Justifying Circumstances
   Art.12. Circumstances Which Exempt from
Criminal Liability
   Art.13. Mitigating Circumstances
               Introduction To Aggravating
Circumstances
   Art.14. Aggravating Circumstances
   Art.15. Alternative Circumstances
   Art.16. Who Are Criminally Liable
   Art.17. Principals
                Principal By Direct Participation
                Principal By Induction
                Principal By Indispensable
Cooperation
   Art.18. Accomplices
   Art.19. Accessories
   Art.20. Accessories Who Are Exempt From
Criminal Liability
   Art.21. Penalties That May Be Imposed
   Art.22. Retroactive Effect Of Penal Laws
   Art.23. Effect Of Pardon By The Offended
Party
   Art.24. Measures Of Prevention Or Safety
Which Are Not Considered Penalties
   Art.25. Penalties Which May Be Imposed
   Art.26. When Afflictive, Correctional, Or
Light Penalty
   Art.27. Reclusion Perpetua
   Art.28. Computation Of Penalties
   Art.29. Period Of Preventive Imprisonment
Deducted From Term Of Imprisonment
   Art.30. Effects Of The Penalties Of Perpetual
Or Temporary Absolute Disqualification
   Art.31. Effect Of The Penalties Of Perpetual
Or Temporary Special Disqualification
   Art.32. Effect Of The Penalties Of Perpetual
Or Temporary Special Disqualification
               For The Exercise Of The Right Of
Suffrage
   Art.33. Effects Of The Penalties Of
Suspension From Any Public Office
   Art.34. Civil Interdiction
   Art.35. Effects Of Bond To Keep The Peace
   Art.36. Pardon; Its Effects
   Art.37. Cost; what Are Included
   Art.38. Pecuniary Liabilities; Order Of
Payment
   Art.39. Subsidiary Penalty
   Art. 40. Death; Its Accessory Penalties
   Art. 41. Reclusion Perpetua and Reclusion
Temporal; Their Accessory Penalties
   Art. 42. Prision Mayor; Its Accessory
Penalties
   Art. 43. Prision Correccional; Its Accessory
Penalties
   Art. 44. Arresto; Its Accessory Penalties
   Art. 45. Confiscation And Forfeiture Of The
Proceeds Or Instruments Of The Crime
   Art.46. Penalty To Be Imposed Upon
Principals In General
   Art.47. In What Cases The Death Penalty
Shall Not Be Imposed
   Art.48. Penalty For Complex Crimes
   Art.49. Penalty When Crime Committed
Different Than Intended
   Art. 50: Penalty to be imposed upon principals
of a frustrated crime
   Art. 51: Penalty to be imposed upon principals
of attempted crimes
   Art. 52: Penalty to be imposed upon
accomplices in consummated crime
   Art. 53: Penalty to be imposed upon
accessories to the commission of a
                consummated felony
   Art. 54: Penalty to imposed upon accomplices
in a frustrated crime
   Art. 55: Penalty to be imposed upon
accessories of a frustrated crime
   Art. 56: Penalty to be imposed upon
accomplices in an attempted crime
   Art. 57: Penalty to be imposed upon
accessories of an attempted crime
                Application of Art. 50 - 57
   Art.58. Additional Penalty To Be Imposed
Upon Certain Accessories
   Art.59. Penalty To Be Imposed In Case Of
Failure To Commit The Crime
   Art.60. Exception To The Rules Established In
Art. 50 To 57
   Art.61. Rules For Graduating Penalties
   Art.62. Effect Of The Attendance Of Habitual
Delinquency
   Art.63. Rules For The Application Of
Indivisible Penalties
   Art.64. Rules For The Application Of
Penalties Which Contain 3 Periods
   Art.65. Rule In Cases In Which The Penalty Is
Not Composed Of  Three Periods
   Art.66. Imposition Of Fines
   Art.67. Penalty To Be Imposed When Not All
The Requisites Of.....
   Art.68. Penalty To be Imposed Upon A Person
Under 18 Years Of Age
   Art.69. Penalty To Be Imposed When The
Crime Committed Is Not Wholly Excusable
   Art.70. Successive Service Of Sentence
   Art.71. Graduated Scales
   Art.72.  Preference In The Payment Of The
Civil Liabilities
   Art.73. Presumption In Regard To The
Imposition Of Accessory Penalties
   Art.74. Penalty Higher Than Reclusion
Perpetua In Certain Cases
   Art.75. Increasing or reducing the penalty of
fine by one or more degrees
   Art.76. Legal period of duration of divisible
penalties
   Art.77. When The Penalty Is A Complex One
Composed Of Three Distinct Penalties
   Art.78. When And How A Penalty Is To Be
Executed
   Art.79. Suspension Of The Execution And
Service Of The Penalties...
   Art.80. Suspension Of Sentence Of Minor
Delinquents
   Art.81.
   Art.82.
   Art.83.
   Art.84.
   Art.85.
   Art.86.
   Art.87.
   Art.88.
               Execution Of Principal Penalties Art.
81 - Art. 88
   Art.89. How Criminal Liability Is Totally
Extinguished
   Art.90. Prescription Of Crime
   Art.91. Computation Of Prescription Of
Offenses
   Art.92. When And How Penalties Prescribe
   Art.93. Computation Of The Prescription Of
Penalties
   Art.94. Partial Extinction Of Criminal
Liability
   Art.95. Obligations Incurred By Person
Granted Conditional Pardon
   Art.96. Effect Of Commutation Of Sentence
   Art.97. Allowance For Conduct
   Art.98. Special Time Allowance For Loyalty
   Art.99. Who Grants Time Allowances
   Art.100. Civil Liability Of A Person Guilty Of
Felony
   Art.101. Rules Regarding Civil Liability In
Certain Cases
   Art.102. Subsidiary Civil Liability Of
Innkeepers
   Art.103. Subsidiary Civil Liability Of Other
Persons
   Art.104. What Is Included in Civil Liability
   Art.105. Restitution; How Made
   Art.106. Reparation; How Made
   Art.107. Indemnification; What is Included
   Art.108. Obligation To Make Restoration;
Upon Whom It Devolves
   Art.109. Share Of Each Person Civilly Liable
   Art.110. Several And Subsidiary Liability Of
Principals
   Art.111. Obligation To make Restitution In
Certain Cases
   Art.112. Extinction Of Civil Liability
   Art.113. Obligation To Satisfy Civil Liability
B. CRIMINAL LAW BOOK II
CRIMES AGAINST NATIONAL
SECURITY AND THE LAW OF NATIONS
- TITLE I
   Art.114. Treason
   Art.115. Conspiracy and Proposal To Commit
Treason
   Art.116. Misprision Of Treason
   Art.117. Espionage
   Art.118. Inciting To War Or Giving Motives
For Reprisals
  Art.119. Violation Of Neutrality
   Art.120. Correspondence With Hostile
Country
   Art.121. Flight To Enemy's Country
   Art.122. Piracy In General And Mutiny On
The High Seas
   Art.123. Qualified Piracy
CRIMES AGAINST THE FUNDAMENTAL
LAWS OF THE STATE - TITLE II
  Art.124. Arbitrary Detention
   Art.125. Delay In The Delivery Of Detained
Persons To The Proper Judicial Authorities
   Art.126. Delaying Release
   Art.127. Expulsion
   Art.128. Violation Of Domicile
   Art.129. Search Warrant Maliciously Obtained
   Art.130. Searching Domicile Without
Witnesses
   Art.131. Prohibition, Interruption, and
Dissolution of Peaceful Meetings
   Art.132. Interruption Of Religious Worship
   Art.133. Offending Religious Feelings
CRIMES AGAINST PUBLIC ORDER -
TITLE III
   Art.134 - A. Coup D' Etat
   Art.135. Penalty For Rebellion, Insurrection,
Or Coup D' Etat
   Art.136. Conspiracy And Proposal To Commit
Rebellion, Coup D' Etat Or Insurrection
   Art.137. Disloyalty Of Public Officers Or
Employees
   Art.138. Inciting To Rebellion Or Insurrection
   Art.139. Sedition
   Art.140. Penalty For Sedition Person Liable
   Art.141. Conspiracy To Commit Sedition
   Art.142. Inciting To Sedition
   Art.143. Acts Tending To Prevent The
Meeting Of Congress
   Art.144. Disturbance Of Proceedings
   Art.145. Violation Of Parliamentary Immunity
   Art.146. Illegal Assemblies
   Art.147. Illegal Associations
   Art.148. Direct Assault
   Art.149. Indirect Assault
   Art.150. Disobedience To Summons Issued
By Congress
   Art.151. Resistance And Disobedience To A
Person In Authority
   Art.152. Person In Authority And Agents Of
Person In Authority
   Art.153. Tumults And Other Disturbances Of
Public Order
   Art.154. Unlawful Use Of Means Of
Publication And Unlawful Utterances
   Art.155. Alarms And Scandals
   Art.156. Delivery Of Prisoners From Jail
   Art.157. Evasion Of Service Of Sentence
   Art.158. Evasion Of Service Of Sentence On
The Occasion Of Disorder
   Art.159. Other Cases Of Evasion Of Service
Of Sentence
   Art.160. Commission Of Another Crime
During Service Of Penalty
CRIMES AGAINST PUBLIC INTEREST -
TITLE IV
   Art.161. Counterfeiting The Great Seal Of The
Government Of The Philippines
   Art.162. Using Forged Signature Or
Counterfeit Seal Or Stamp
   Art.163. Making And Importing And Uttering
False Coins
   Art.164. Mutilation Of Coins - Importation
And Utterance Of Mutilated Coins
   Art.165. Selling Of False Or Mutilated Coin,
Without Connivance
   Art.166. Forging Treasury Or Bank Notes
   Art.167.Counterfeiting, Importing, And
Uttering Instruments Not Payable To Bearer
   Art.168. Illegal Possession And Use Of False
Treasury Or Bank Notes
   Art.169. How Forgery Is Committed
   Art.170. Falsification Of Legislative
Documents
   Art.171. Falsification By Public Officer,
Employee, Or Notary
   Art.172. Falsification By Private Individuals
And Use Of Falsified Instruments
   Art.173. Falsification Of Wireless, Cable
Telegraph And Telephone Messages
   Art.174. False Medical Certificates or Merit
Or service
   Art.175. Using False Certificates
   Art.176. Manufacturing And Possession Of
Instruments For Falsification
   Art.177. Usurpation Of Authority Or Official
Functions
   Art.178. Using Fictitious Name And
concealing True Name
   Art.179. Illegal Use Of Uniforms Or Insignia
   Art.180. False Testimony Against A
Defendant
   Art.181. False Testimony Favorable To The
Defendant
   Art.182. False Testimony In Civil Cases
   Art.183. False Testimony In Other Cases And
Perjury In Solemn Affirmation
   Art.184. Offering False Testimony In
Evidence
   Art.185. Machinations In Public Auctions
   Art.186. Monopolies And Combinations In
Restraint Of Trade
   Art.187. Importation And Disposition Of
Falsely Marked Articles
   Art.188. Substituting And Altering
Trademarks, Tradenames, Or Service Marks
   Art.189. Unfair Competition
CRIMES RELATED TO OPIUM AND
OTHER PROHIBITED DRUGS - TITLE V
  Art.190 to 194 - repealed by RA 6425 -
Dangerous Drugs Act Of 1972     Art.222. Officers Included In The Preceding
   RA. NO. 9165 - Comprehensive Dangerous
Drugs Act Of 2002
CRIMES AGAINST PUBLIC MORALS -
TITLE VI
  Art.195 to 199 - repealed by PD 1602
  Art.200. Grave Scandal
   Art.201. Immoral Doctrines, Obscene
Publications and Exhibitions
   Art.202. Vagrants And Prostitutes
  PD. NO. 449 - Cockfighting Law of 1974
   PD. NO.1602 - Prescribing Stiffer Penalties In
Illegal Gambling
CRIMES COMMITTED BY PUBLIC
OFFICERS - TITLE VII
  Art.203. Who Are Public Officers
   Art.204. Knowingly Rendering An Unjust
Judgment
   Art.205. Judgment Rendered Through
Negligence
   Art.206. Unjust Interlocutory Order
   Art.207. Malicious Delay In The
Administration Of Justice
   Art.208. Prosecution Of Offenses: Negligence
And Tolerance
   Art.209. Betrayal Of Trust By An Attorney Or
Solicitor - Revelation Of Secrets
   Art.210. Direct Bribery
   Art.211. Indirect Bribery
   Art.211-A. Qualified Bribery
   Art.212. Corruption Of Public Officials
   Art.213. Frauds Against The Public Treasury
And Similar Offenses
   Art.214. Other Frauds
   Art.215. Prohibited Transactions
   Art.216. Possession Of Prohibited Interests By
A Public Officer
   Art.217. Malversation Of Public Funds Or
Property
   Art.218. Failure Of Accountable Officer To
Render Account
   Art.219. Failure Of A Responsible Public
Officer To Render Accounts
   Art.220. Illegal Use Of Public Funds
   Art.221. Failure To Make Delivery Of Public
Funds Or Property
Provisions
   Art.223. Conniving With Or Consenting To
Evasion
   Art.224. Evasion Through Negligence
   Art.225. Escape Of Prisoner Under The
Custody Of A Person Not A Public Officer
   Art.226. Removal, Concealment, Or
Destruction Of Documents
   Art.227. Officer Breaking Seal
   Art.228. Opening Of Closed Documents
   Art.229. Revelation Of Secrets By An Officer
   Art.230. Public Officer Revealing Secrets Of
Private Individual
   Art.231. Open Disobedience
   Art.232. Disobedience To Order Of Superior
Officer
   Art.233. Refusal Of Assistance
   Art.234. Refusal To Discharge Elective Office
   Art.235. Maltreatment Of Prisoners
   Art.236. Anticipation Of Duties Of A Public
Office
   Art.237. Prolonging Performance Of Duties
And Powers
   Art.238. Abandonment Of Office Or Position
   Art.239. Usurpation Of legislative Powers
   Art.240. Usurpation Of Executive Functions
   Art.241. Usurpation Of Judicial Functions
   Art.242. Disobeying Request For
Disqualification
   Art.243. Addressing Orders Or Requests By
Executive Officer
   Art.244. Unlawful Appointments
   Art.245. Abuses Against Chastity
CRIMES AGAINST PERSONS - TITLE
VIII
  Art.246. Parricide
   Art.247. Death Or Physical Injuries Under
Exceptional Circumstances
   Art.248. Murder
   Art.249. Homicide
   Art.250. Penalty For Frustrated Parricide,
Murder Or Homicide
   Art.251. Death Caused In A Tumultuous
Affray
   Art.252. Physical Injuries Inflicted In A
Tumultuous Affray
   Art.253. Giving Assistance to Suicide
   Art.254. Discharge Of Firearms
   Art.255. Infanticide
   Art.256. Intentional Abortion
   Art.257. Unintentional Abortion
   Art.258. Abortion Practiced By The Woman
Herself Or By Her Parents
   Art.259. Abortion Practiced By A Physician
Or Midwife
   Art.260. Responsibility Of Participants In A
Duel
   Art.261. Challenging To A Duel
   Art.262. Mutilation
   Art.263. Serious Physical Injuries
   Art.264. Administering Injurious Substance
Or Beverages
   Art.265. Less Serious Physical Injuries
   Art.265. Slight Physical Injuries And
Maltreatment
   Art.266A-266B Rape
CRIMES AGAINST PERSONAL LIBERTY
AND SECURITY - TITLE IX
  Art.267. Kidnapping And Serious Illegal
Detention
   Art.268. Slight Illegal Detention
   Art.269. Unlawful Arrest
   Art.270. Kidnapping And Failure To Return A
Minor
   Art.271. Inducing A Minor To Abandon His
Home
   Art.272. Slavery
   Art.273. Exploitation Of Child Labor
   Art.274. Services Rendered Under
Compulsion In Payment Of Debt
   Art.275. Abandonment Of Person In Danger
   Art.276. Abandoning A Minor
   Art.277. Abandonment Of Minor By Person
Entrusted With His Custody
   Art.278. Exploitation Of Minors
   Art.279. Additional Penalties For Other
Offenses
   Art.280. Trespass To Dwelling
   Art.281. Other Form Of Trespass
   Art.282. Grave Threats
   Art.283. Light Threats
   Art.284. Bond For Good Behavior
   Art.285. Other Light Threats
   Art.286. Grave Coercions
   Art.287. Light Coercions
   Art.288. Other Similar Coercions
   Art.289. Formation, Maintenance, And
Prohibition Of...
   Art.290. Discovering Secrets Through Seizure
Of Correspondence
   Art.291. Revealing Secrets With Abuse Of
Office
   Art.292. Revelation Of Industrial Secrets
CRIMES AGAINST PROPERTY - TITLE X
  Art.293. Who are Guilty of Robbery
   Art.294. Robbery With Violence Against Or
Intimidation Of Persons
   Art.295. Robbery With Physical Injuries
Committed In An Uninhabited Place
   Art.296. Definition Of A Band And Penalty
Incurred By Members Thereof
   Art.297. Attempted Or Frustrated Robbery
With Homicide
   Art.298. Execution Of Deeds By Means Of
Violence Or Intimidation
   Art.299. Robbery In An Inhabited House Or
Public Building
   Art.300. Robbery In An Uninhabited Place By
A Band
   Art.301. What Is An Inhabited House, Public
Building Or ....
   Art.302. Robbery In An Uninhabited Place Or
In A Private building
   Art.303. Robbery Of Cereals, Fruits, Or
Firewood
   Art.304. Illegal Possession Of Picklocks Or
Similar Tools
   Art.305. False Keys
   Art.306. Who Are Brigands: Penalty
   Art.307. Aiding And Abetting A Band Of
Brigands
   Art.308. Theft
   Art.309. Penalties for Theft
   Art.310. Qualified Theft
   Art.311. Theft Of Property Of The National
Library And National Museum
   Art.312. Occupation Of Real Property
   Art.313. Altering boundaries Or landmarks
   Art.314. Fraudulent Insolvency
   Art.315. Estafa (Swindling)
   Art.316. Other Forms Of Swindling
   Art.317. Swindling A Minor
   Art.318. Other Deceits
   Art.319. Removal. Sale Or Pledge Of
Mortgaged Property
   Art.320. Arson  Art.320 to Art.326 repealed
by PD 1613
   Art.327. Malicious Mischief
   Art.328. Special Cases Of Malicious Mischief
   Art.329. Other Mischiefs
   Art.330. Damage And Obstruction To Means
Of Communication
   Art.331. Destroying or Damaging Statues,
Public Monuments, or Paintings
   Art.332. Persons Exempt From Criminal
Liability In Crimes Against Property
CRIMES AGAINST CHASTITY - TITLE
XI
   Art.333. Adultery
   Art.334. Concubinage
   Art.335. Rape - Now Art.266-A
   Art.336. Acts of Lasciviousness
   Art.337. Qualified Seduction
   Art.338. Simple Seduction
   Art.339. Acts of lasciviousness with consent
of the Offended Party
   Art.340. Corruption of Minors
   Art.341. White Slave Trade
   Art.342. Forcible Abduction
   Art.343. Consented Abduction
   Art.344. Prosecution of Adultery,
Concubinage, Seduction...
   Art.345. Civil Liability of persons of Crimes
Against Chastity
   Art.346. Liability of Ascendants, Guardian,
Teachers
CRIMES AGAINST THE CIVIL STATUS
OF PERSONS - TITLE XII
  Art.347. Simulation Of Births
   Art.348. Usurpation of Civil Status
   Art.349. Bigamy
   Art.350. Marriage Contracted Against
Provisions Of Laws
   Art.351. Premature Marriages
  Art.352. Performance Of Illegal Marriage
Ceremony
CRIMES AGAINST HONOR - TITLE XIII
  Art.353. Definition Of Libel/Defamation
   Art.354. Requirement of Publicity
   Art.355. Libel by Means of Writings Or
Similar Means
   Art.356. Threatening To Publish Libel
   Art.357. Prohibited  Publication Of Acts
   Art.358. Slander - Oral Defamation
   Art.359. Slander By Deed
   Art.360. Persons Responsible Libel
   Art.361. Proof Of The Truth
   Art.362. Libelous Remarks
   Art.363. Incriminating Innocent Person
   Art.364. Intriguing Against Honor
QUASI - OFFENSES - TITLE XIV
   Art.365. Imprudence and Negligence
SPECIAL CRIMES
   Act. No. 3226 - An act to establish periods of
prescription
   Act NO. 4103 Indeterminate Sentence Law
   PD. NO 46
   PD. NO 90 Declaring Unlawful Rumor-
Mongering And Spreading False Information
   PD. NO 704 Illegal Fishing
   CA. NO. 142 - Anti-Alias Law
   PD. NO. 247 - Defacement, Mutilation,
Tearing, Burning, Central Bank Notes
   PD. NO. 749
  PD. 532 -  Anti-Piracy And Anti-Highway
Robbery Law Of 1974
   PD. 533 - Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
   PD. 1612 - Anti-Fencing Law of 1979
   PD. 1613 - Destructive  Arson
   PD. 1653 - Mendicancy Law Of 1978
   PD. 1727 - Anti-Bomb Joke Law
   RA. NO. 947
   RA NO. 3019 Anti-Graft And Corrupt
Practices Act
   RA. No. 3226 - Creating four additional
positions of assistant provincial fiscal
   RA. NO. 4200 - Anti-Wire Tapping Law
   RA. No. 4661 - Shortening the prescriptive
period for libel
   RA. NO. 6235 - Anti-Hijacking Law
   RA. NO. 6713 Ethical Standards For Public
Officials And Employees
   RA. NO. 7080 An Act Defining And
Penalizing The Crime Of Plunder
   RA. NO. 7438 Rights of Persons Arrested or
Detained
   RA. NO. 7659 - Heinous Crimes Act Of 1993
   RA. NO. 8049 - The Anti-Hazing Law
   RA. NO. 8294 - Law Penalizing Illegal
Possession Of Firearms
   RA. NO. 8353 - Anti-Rape Law of 1997
   RA. NO. 9160 - Anti Money Laundering Act
Of 2001
   RA. NO. 9165 - Comprehensive Dangerous
Drugs Act Of 2002
   RA. NO. 9262 - Anti-Violence Against
Women And Their Children
   RA. NO. 9485 - Anti-Red Tape Act
   RA. NO.10591 - Comprehensive Firearms and
Ammunition Regulation Act
   RA. NO.11053 - The Anti-Hazing Act of 2018
     C. CRIMINAL PROCEDURE
PRELIMINARY MATTERS
RULE 110
PROSECUTION OF OFFENSES
   Section 1. Institution Of Criminal Actions
   Section 2. The Complaint Or Information
   Section 3. Complaint Defined
   Section 4. Information
   Section 5. Who Must Prosecute Criminal
Actions
   Section 6. Sufficiency Of Complaint Or
Information
   Section 7. Name Of The Accused
   Section 8. Designation Of The Offense
   Section 9. Cause Of The Accusation
   Section 10. Place Of The Commission Of The
Offense
   Section 11. Date Of Commission Of The
Offense 
   Section 12. Name Of The Offended Party
   Section 13. Duplicity Of The Offense
   Section 14. Amendment Or Substitution
   Section 15. Place Where Action Is To Be
Instituted
   Section 16. Intervention Of The Offended
Party In Criminal Action
RULE 111
PROSECUTION OF CIVIL ACTION
   Section 1. Institution Of Criminal And Civil
Actions 
   Section 2. When Separate Civil Action Is
Suspended
   Section 3. When Civil Action May Proceed
Independently
   Section 4. Effect Of Death On Civil Actions
   Section 5. Judgment in Civil Action Not A
Bar
   Section 6. Suspension By Reason Of
Prejudicial Question
   Section 7. Elements Of Prejudicial Question
   Section 8. Records
   Section 9. Cases not requiring preliminary
investigation     Section 3.No Release Or Transfer Except On
RULE 112  Court Order Or Bail
PRELIMINARY INVESTIGATION
   Section 1. Preliminary Investigation defined;
When Required
   Section 2. Officers Authorized To Conduct
Preliminary Investigation
   Section 3. Procedure
   Section 4. Resolution Of Investigating
Prosecutor And Its Review
   Section 5. Resolution Of Investigating Judge
And Its Review
   Section 6. When Warrant Of Arrest May Issue
   Section 7. When Accused Lawfully Arrested
Without Warrant
   Section 8. Records
   Section 9. Cases Not Requiring Preliminary
Investigation.......
RULE 113
ARREST
   Section 1. Definition Of Arrest
   Section 2. Arrest; How Made
   Section 3. Duty Of Arresting Officer
   Section 4. Execution Of Warrant
   Section 5. Arrest Without A Warrant; When
Lawful
   Section 6. Time Of Making Arrest
   Section 7. Method Of Arrest By Officer By
Virtue Of Warrant
   Section 8. Method Of Arrest By Officer
Without A Warrant
   Section 9. Method Of Arrest By Private
Person
   Section 10. Officer May Summon Assistance
   Section 11. Right Of Officer To Break Into
Building Or Enclosure
   Section 12. Right To Break Out Of The
Building Or Enclosure To Effect Release
   Section 13. Arrest After Escape Or Rescue     Section 2. Plea Of Guilty To A Lesser Offense
   Section 14. Right Of An Attorney Or Relative
To Visit The Person Arrested
RULE 114
BAIL
   Section 1. Bail Defined
   Section 2. Condition Of The Bail;
Requirements
   Section 4. Bail, A Matter Of Right; Exception
   Section 5. Bail, When Discretionary
   Section 6. Capital Offense; Defined
   Section 7. Offenses Punishable By Life
Imprisonment, Not Bailable
   Section 8. Burden Of Proof In Bail
Application
   Section 9. Amount Of Bail; Guidelines
   Section 10. Corporate Surety
   Section 11. Property Bond; How Posted
   Section 12. Qualifications Of Sureties In
Property bond
   Section 13. Justification Of Sureties
   Section 14. Deposit Of Cash As Bail
   Section 15. Recognizance
   Section 16. Bail, when not required; reduced
bail or recognizance
   Section 17. Bail, Where Filed
   Section 18. Notice Of Application To
Prosecutor
   Section 19. Release On Bail 
   Section 20. Increase Or Reduction Of Bail
   Section 21. Forfeiture Of Bail
   Section 22. Cancellation Of Bail
   Section 23. Arrest Of Accused Out On Bail
   Section 24. No Bail After Final Judgment;
Exception
   Section 25. Court Supervision of Detainees
   Section 26. Bail Is Not A Bar To Objection
On Illegal Arrest
RULE 115
RIGHTS OF THE ACCUSED
Section 1. Rights of the accused at the trial
RULE 116
ARRAIGNMENT AND PLEA
   Section 1. Arraignment And Plea How Made
   Section 3. Plea Of Guilty To Capital offense;
Reception Of Evidence
   Section 4. Plea of guilty to non-capital
offense; reception of evidence,  discretionary
   Section 5. Withdrawal of improvident plea of
guilty
   Section 6. Duty Of Court To inform Accused
Of His Right To Counsel
   Section 7. Appointment Of Counsel De Oficio
   Section 8. Time For Counsel De Oficio To
Prepare For Arraignment
   Section 9. Bill Of Particulars
   Section 10. Production Or Inspection Of
Material Evidence
   Section 11. Suspension Of Arraignment
RULE 117
MOTION TO QUASH
   Section 1. Time To Move To Quash
   Section 2. Form and Contents
   Section 3. Grounds Motion To Quash
   Section 4. Amendment of Complaint Or
Information
   Section 5. Effect Of Sustaining The Motion
To Quash
   Section 6. Order Sustaining The Motion To
Quash Not A Bar To ....
   Section 7. Former Conviction Or Acquittal;
Double Jeopardy
   Section 8. Provisional Remedies
   Section 9. Failure To Move To Quash Or To
Allege Any Ground Therefor
RULE 118
PRE-TRIAL
   Section 1. Pre-Trial Mandatory In Criminal
Cases
   Section 2. Pre-Trial Agreement
   Section 3. Non-Appearance at Pre-Trial
Conference
   Section 4. Pre-Trial Order
RULE 119
TRIAL
   Section 1. Time To Prepare For Trial
   Section 2. Continuous Trial Until Terminated;
Postponements
   Section 3. Exclusions
   Section 4. Factors Granting Continuance
   Section 5. Time limit following an order for
new trial
   Section 6. Extended Time Limit
   Section 7. Public Attorney's Duties Where
Accused Is Imprisoned
   Section 8. Sanctions
   Section 9. Remedy Where Accused Is Not
Brought To Trial Within The Time Limit
   Section 10. Law On Speedy Trial Not A Bar
To Provisions In The Constitution
   Section 11. Order Of Trial
   Section 12. Application For Examination Of
Witness For Accused Before Trial
   Section 13. Examination Of Defense Witness
How Made
   Section 14. Bail To Secure Appearance Of
Material Witness
   Section 15. Examination Of Witness For The
Prosecution
   Section 16. Trial Of Several Accused
   Section 17. Discharge Of Accused To Be State
Witness
   Section 18. Discharge Of Accused Operates
As Acquittal
   Section 19. When Mistake has Been Made In
Charging The Proper Offense
   Section 20. Appointment Of Acting
Prosecutor
   Section 21. Exclusion Of The Public
   Section 22. Consolidation Of Trials Of
Related Offenses
   Section 23. Demurrer To Evidence
   Section 24. Reopening
RULE 120
JUDGMENT
   Section 1. Judgment Definition And Form
   Section 2. Contents Of Judgment
   Section 3. Judgment For Two Or More
Offenses
   Section 4. Judgment In Case Of Variance Bet.
Allegation And Proof
   Section 5. When An Offense Includes Or Is
Included In Another
   Section 6. Promulgation of Judgment
   Section 7. Modification Of Judgment
   Section 8. Entry Of Judgment
   Section 9. Existing Provisions Governing
Suspension Of Sentence
RULE 121
NEW TRIAL OR RECONSIDERATION
   Section 1. New Trial Or Reconsideration
   Section 2. Grounds For New Trial
   Section 3. Grounds For Reconsideration
   Section 4. Form Of Motion For New Trial Or
Reconsideration
   Section 5. Hearing On Motion
   Section 6. Effects Of Granting A New Trial
Or Reconsideration
RULE 122
APPEAL
   Section 1. Who May Appeal
   Section 2. Where To Appeal
   Section 3. How Appeal Taken
   Section 4. Publication Of Notice Of Appeal
   Section 5. Waiver Of Notice
   Section 6. When Appeal To Be Taken
   Section 7. Transcribing and Filing Notes Of
Stenographic Reporter Upon Appeal
   Section 8. Transmissions of Papers To
Appellate Court Upon Appeal
   Section 9. Appeal To The Regional Trial
Courts
   Section 10. Transmission Of Records In Case
Of Death Penalty
   Section 11. Effect Of Appeal By Any Of
Several Accused
   Section 12. Withdrawal Of Appeal
   Section 13. Appointment Of Counsel De
Oficio For Accused On Appeal
RULE 123
PROCEDURE IN THE MUNICIPAL
TRIAL COURTS
   Section 1. Uniform Procedure
RULE 124
PROCEDURE IN THE COURT OF
APPEALS
   Section 1. Title Of The Case
   Section 2. Appointment Of Counsel De Oficio
For The Accused
   Section 3. When Brief For Appelant To Be
Filed
   Section 4. When Brief For Appellee To Be
Filed
   Section 5. Extension Of Time For Filing
Briefs
   Section 6. Form Of Briefs
   Section 7. Contents Of Brief
   Section 8. Dismissal Of Appeal For
Abandonment Or Failure To Prosecute
   Section 9. Prompt Disposition Of Appeals
   Section 10. Judgment Not To Be Reversed Or
Modified
   Section 11. Scope Of Judgment
   Section 12. Power To Receive Evidence
   Section 13. Certification Or Appeal Of Case
To The Supreme Court
   Section 14. Motion For New Trial
   Section 15. Where New Trial Conducted
   Section 16. Reconsideration
   Section 17. Judgment Transmitted And Filed
In Trial Court
   Section 18. Application Of Certain Rules In
Civil Procedure To Criminal Cases
RULE 125
PROCEDURE IN THE SUPREME COURT
   Section 1. Uniform Procedure
   Section 2. Review Of Decisions Of The Court
Of Appeals
   Section 3. Decision If Opinion Equally
Divided
RULE 126
SEARCH AND SEIZURE
   Section 1. Search Warrant Defined
   Section 2. Court Where Application For
Search Warrant Shall Be Filed
   Section 3. Personal Property To Be Seized
   Section 4. Requisites For Issuing A Search
Warrant
   Section 5. Examination Of Complainant
   Section 6. Issuance And Form Of Search
Warrant
   Section 7. Right To Break Door Or Window
To Effect Search
   Section 8. Search Of House Be Made In
Presence Of Two Witnesses
   Section 9. Time Of Making Search
   Section 10. Validity Of Search Warrant
   Section 11. Receipt For The Property Seized
   Section 12. Delivery Of Property And
Inventory Thereof To The Court
   Section 13. Search Incident To Lawful Arrest
   Section 14. Motion To Quash A Search
Warrant Where To File
RULE 127
PROVISIONAL REMEDIES IN
CRIMINAL CASES
   Section 1. Availability of Provisional
Remedies
   Section 2. Attachment
     D. EVIDENCE
RULE 128
GENERAL PROVISIONS
      Section 1. Evidence defined
      Section 2. Scope
      Section 3. Admissibility of Evidence
      Section 4. Relevancy; Collateral matters
RULE 129
WHAT NEED NOT BE PROVED
      Section 1. Judicial Notice, When Mandatory
      Section 2. Judicial Notice, When
Discretionary
      Section 3. Judicial Notice, When Hearing
Necessary
      Section 4. Judicial Admissions
RULE 130
RULES ON ADMISSIBILITY
      Section 1.   Object as Evidence
      Section 2.   Documentary evidence
      Section 3.   Original Document Must Be
Produced; Exceptions
      Section 4.   Original of document
      Section 5.   When original document is
unavailable
      Section 6.   When original document is in
adverse party's custody or control
      Section 7.   Evidence admissible when
original document is a public record
      Section 8.   Party who calls for document
not bound to offer it
      Section 9.   Evidence of written agreements
      Section 10. Interpretation of a writing
according to its legal meaning
      Section 11. Instrument construed so as to
give effect to all provisions
      Section 12. Interpretation according to
intention general and particular provisions
      Section 13. Interpretation according to
circumstances
      Section 14. Peculiar signification of terms
      Section 15. Written words control printed
      Section 16. Experts and interpreters to be
used in explaining certain writings
      Section 17. Of Two constructions, which
preferred
      Section 18. Construction in favor of natural
right
      Section 19. Interpretation according to usage
      Section 20. Witnesses; their qualifications
      Section 21. Disqualification by reason of
mental incapacity or immaturity
      Section 22. Disqualification by reason of
marriage
      Section 23. Disqualification by reason of
death or insanity of adverse party
      Section 24. Disqualification by reason of
privileged communication
      Section 25. Parental and filial privilege
      Section 26. Admission of a party
      Section 27. Offer of compromise not
admissible
      Section 28. Admission by third party
      Section 29. Admission by co-partner or
agent
      Section 30. Admission by conspirator
      Section 31. Admission by privies
      Section 32. Admission by silence
      Section 33. Confession
      Section 34. Similar acts as evidence
      Section 35. Unaccepted offer
      Section 36. Testimony generally confined to
personal knowledge; hearsay excluded
      Section 37. Dying declaration
      Section 38. Declaration against interest
      Section 39. Act or declaration about
pedigree
      Section 40. Family reputation or tradition
regarding pedigree
      Section 41. Common reputation
      Section 42. Part of res gestae
      Section 43. Entries in the course of business
      Section 44. Entries in official records
      Section 45. Commercial lists and the like
      Section 46. Learned treatises
      Section 47. Testimony or deposition at a
former proceeding
      Section 48. General rule
      Section 49. Opinion of expert witness
      Section 50. Opinion of ordinary witnesses
      Section 51. Character evidence not generally
admissible; exceptions:
RULE 131
BURDEN OF PROOF AND
PRESUMPTIONS
      Section 1. Burden of proof
      Section 2. Conclusive presumptions
      Section 3. Disputable presumptions
      Section 4. No presumption of legitimacy or
illegitimacy
RULE 132
PRESENTATION OF EVIDENCE
      Section 1.   Examination to be done in open
court
      Section 2.   Proceedings to be recorded
      Section 3.   Rights and obligations of a
witness
      Section 4.   Order in the examination of an
individual witness
      Section 5.   Direct examination
      Section 6.   Cross-examination; its purpose
and extent
      Section 7.   Re-direct examination; its
purpose and extent
      Section 8.   Re-cross-examination
      Section 9.   Recalling witness
      Section 10. Leading and misleading
questions
      Section 11. Impeachment of adverse party's
witness
      Section 12. Party may not impeach his own
witness
      Section 13. How witness impeached by
evidence of inconsistent statements
      Section 14. Evidence of good character of
witness
      Section 15. Exclusion and separation of
witnesses
      Section 16. When witness may refer to
memorandum
      Section 17. When part of transaction,
writing or record given in evidence, the
remainder, the remainder admissible
      Section 18. Right to respect writing shown
to witness
      Section 19. Classes of Documents
      Section 20. Proof of private document
      Section 21. When evidence of authenticity
of private document not necessary
      Section 22. How genuineness of handwriting
proved
      Section 23. Public documents as evidence
      Section 24. Proof of official record
      Section 25. What attestation of copy must
state
      Section 26. Irremovability of public record
      Section 27. Public record of a private
document
      Section 28. Proof of lack of record
      Section 29. How judicial record impeached
      Section 30. Proof of notarial documents
      Section 31. Alteration in document, how to
explain
      Section 32. Seal
      Section 33. Documentary evidence in an
unofficial language
      Section 34. Offer of evidence
      Section 35. When to make offer
      Section 36. Objection
      Section 37. When repetition of objection
unnecessary
      Section 38. Ruling
      Section 39. Striking out answer
      Section 40. Tender of excluded evidence
RULE 133
WEIGHT AND SUFFICIENCY OF
EVIDENCE
      Section 1. Preponderance of evidence, how
determined
      Section 2. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
      Section 3. Extrajudicial confession, not
sufficient ground for conviction
      Section 4. Circumstantial evidence, when
sufficient
      Section 5. Substantial evidence
      Section 6. Power of the court to stop further
evidence
      Section 7. Evidence on motion
RULE 134  aid of any inference or presumption.
PERPETUATION OF TESTIMONY
      Section 1. Petition
      Section 2. Contents of petition
      Section 3. Notice and service
      Section 4. Order of examination
      Section 5. Reference to court
      Section 6. Use of deposition
      Section 7. Depositions pending appeal
INTRODUCTION
DEFINITION OF EVIDENCE - The means,
sanctioned by these rules, of ascertaining in a
judicial proceeding, the truth respecting a matter
of fact.(Rule 128, Sec. 1) The mode and manner
of proving competent facts in judicial
proceedings. (Bustos v. Lucero)
SCOPE - General Rule: Rules of evidence shall
be the same in all courts and in all trials and
hearings
Exception: If otherwise provided by:
1) law;
2) ROC.
CLASSIFICATION
RULES OF COURT CLASSIFICATION
ACCORDING TO FORM
1) OBJECT – Directly addressed to the senses
of the court (Rule 130, Sec.1) Referred to as real
evidence or evidence by “autoptic preference”.
2) DOCUMENTARY - Consist of writing or
any material containing modes of written
expression (i.e. words, numbers, figures,
symbols) offered as proof of their contents.
(Rule 130, Sec. 2)
3) TESTIMONIAL - Submitted to the court
through the testimony or deposition of a
witness.
OTHER CLASSIFICATIONS
[REGALADO]
1) DIRECT – Proves the fact in dispute without
CIRCUMSTANTIAL – Proof of fact/s from
which, taken singly/collectively, the existence of
the particular fact in dispute may be inferred as
a necessary/probable consequence. It is
evidence of relevant collateral facts.
2) CUMULATIVE – Evidence of the same
kind and to the same state of facts.
CORROBORATIVE – Additional evidence of
a different character to the same point.
3) PRIMA FACIE – That which, standing
alone, is sufficient to maintain the proposition
affirmed.
CONCLUSIVE – That class of evidence which
the law does not allow to be contradicted.
4) PRIMARY – (Best evidence) The law
regards these as affording the greatest certainty
of the fact in question.
SECONDARY – (Substitutionary evidence)
Permitted by law only when the best evidence is
unavailable.
5) POSITIVE – When a witness affirms that a
fact did or did not occur (there is personal
knowledge).
NEGATIVE – When witness states that he did
not see or know of the occurrence of a fact (total
disclaimer of personal knowledge).
EVIDENCE COMPARED TO PROOF
It is the result or effect of evidence; when the
requisite quantum of evidence of a particular
fact has been duly admitted and given weight,
the result is called the proof of such fact.
TO FACTUM PROBANDUM
The ultimate fact or the fact sought to be
established. It refers to the proposition (e.g.
victim was stabbed).
TO FACTUM PROBANS
The evidentiary fact or the fact by which the
factum probandum is to be established; refers to
the materials that establish the proposition (e.g.
bloody knife).

     E. COURT TESTIMONY
4. CRIME DETECTION AND
INVESTIGATION
A. FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL
INVESTIGATION
INVESTIGATION - an inquiry, judicial
or otherwise for the discovery and
collection of facts concerning the matters
involved.
- it is the process of inquiring, eliciting,
soliciting and getting vital information,
facts, circumstances in order to establish
the truth.
CRIMINAL INVESTIGATOR - a public
safety officer who is tasked to conduct the
investigation of all criminal cases as
provided for and embodied under the
revised penal code, criminals laws and
special laws which are criminal in nature.
- a well trained, disciplined and
experienced professional in the field of
criminal investigation.
CUSTODIAL INVESTIGATION -
investigation conducted by law
enforcement officers after a person has
been arrested or deprived of his freedom of
action.
NEIGHBORHOOD INVESTIGATION -
one of the most crucial steps in kidnap for
ransom cases which is often overlooked.
The objective is to identify and interview in
person all individuals in the area where the
victim was kidnapped or last known
sighting area during the window of
opportunity.(last time seen until the time
discovered missing.
CRIME SCENE - a venue or place where
the alleged crime/incident/event has been
committed.
CORPUS DELICTI - (latin for the body
of the crime) - used to describe the physical
or material evidence that a crime has been
committed. ex. corpse of a murder victim.
CONFESSION - is an express
acknowledgement by the accused in a
criminal prosecution of the truth of his guilt
as to the offense charge.
ADMISSION - refers to statement of facts
not directly constituting an
acknowledgement of guilt.
ORGANIZED CRIMINAL GROUP - a
structured group of three or more persons
existing for a period of time and acting in
concert with the aim of committing one or
more serious crime or offenses.
ORGANIZED CRIME - a combination of
two or more persons who are engaged in a
criminal or virtual criminal activity on a
continuing basis for the purpose of profit or
power using gangland style to attain their
purpose.
PHYSICAL EVIDENCE - evidenced
addressed to the senses of the court that are
capable of being exhibited, examined or
viewed by the court. This includes but not
limited to fingerprints, body fluid,
explosives, hazardous chemicals,
soil/burned debris, bombs, electronic parts
used in the commission of the crime.
VICTIMOLOGY/VICTIM PROFILING
- a detailed account of the victims lifestyle
and personality, assist in determining the
nature of the disappearance, the risk level
of the victim and the type of person who
could have committed the crime. Complete
information regarding the victims physical
description, normal behavior patterns, the
family dynamics and known friends and
acquintances should be obtained as soon as
possible.
MIRANDA VS. ARIZONA - Ernesto
Miranda had confessed to rape and
kidnapping, after two hour interrogation.
Because the interrogators failed to inform
Miranda of his right to counsel and remain
silent, his conviction was overturned.
WATERBOARDING - refers to the
practice of strapping a suspect to a board
with his or her head lowered, then the face
is covered and water is poured over it
causing the suspect to gag and experience
the sensation of drowning.
CHINESE WATER TORTURE -
interrogation technique, repeatedly dripping
water on the forehead of the suspect. The
goal is to drive the suspect to near insanity
thereby obtaining a confession.
SERIAL KILLER - is someone who
murders 3 or more people with "cooling
off" periods in between.
POLICE BLOTTER - is an 18" x 12"
logbook with hard bound cover that
contains the daily register of all crime
incident reports, official summary of arrests
and other significant events reported in a
police station. A separate police blotter
shall be maintained for offenses requiring
confidentiality like violence against women
and children and those cases involving a
child in conflict with the law to protect
their privacy pursuant to RA 9262 (anti
violence against women and children act of
2004) and RA 9344 ( juvenile justice and
welfare act of 2006).
ACTUS REUS - proof that a criminal act
has occurred.
SKETCH - a rough drawing or painting,
often made to assist in making a more
finished picture.
TYPES OF SKETCHES
  1. Floor plan (Birds Eye View)
  2. Elevation Drawing
  3. Exploded View
  4. Respective Drawings
ALLAN PINKERTON - a Scottish
american detective who created the
Pinkerton National Detective Agency, the
first detective agency in the US.Pinkerton
foiled a plot to assassinate President
Lincoln.
ROUGES GALLERY - is a police
collection of pictures or photographs of
criminals and suspects kept for
identification purposes.A compilation of
descriptions, methods of operation having
places and names of criminal and their
associates.
MUGSHOT - is a photographic portrait
taken after one is arrested.
CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION - it is the
collection of facts in order to accomplish
the three fold aims:
3 FOLD AIMS OF CRIMINAL
INVESTIGATION
To identify the guilty party
To locate the guilty party
To provide evidence of his guilt
6 CARDINAL POINTS OF
INVESTIGATION
What specific offense was committed
How the offense was committed
Who committed it
Where the offense was committed
When it was committed
Why it was committed
TOOLS OF AN INVESTIGATOR IN
GATHERING FACTS
1. INFORMATION - data gathered by an
investigator and other person including the
victim himself and from:
1. public records
2. private records
3. modus operandi file
2. INTERVIEW - skillful questioning of
witness and suspects.
3. INSTRUMENTATION - scientific
examination of real evidence, application of
instruments an          method of physical
sciences in  detecting crime.
                                              
PHASES OF INVESTIGATIONS
1.PHASE 1 - identify the suspect through:
1. confession
2. eyewitness testimony Plaster cast
3. circumstantial evidence Tape recording of sounds
4. associate evidence Video tape recording of objects
2. PHASE 2 - locate and apprehend Written statement of objects and witnesses.
suspect.
3. PHASE 3 - gather and provide evidence 2 KINDS OF INFORMATION
to establish  the guilt of the accused.   1. REGULAR SOURCES - ex. citizen,
company records
COMPOSITION/ORGANIZATION OF   2. CULTIVATED SOURCES - ex. paid
AN INVESTIGATION TEAM: informant
Team leader
Investigator/recorder Interrogation or questioning witness or
Photographer suspect who is reluctant to divulge or reveal
Evidence Custodian information with the goal of extracting a
Composite illustrator/Artist confession or obtaining information while
an Interview is simple questioning of a
EQUIPMENT OF AN INVESTIGATOR person who cooperate with the investigator.
Police line HOW THE SUSPECT IS IDENTIFIED
Video camera 1. Confession or Admission - is a
Voice recorder declaration of an accused acknowledging
Camera his guilt.
Measuring device 2. Eyewitness testimony
Gloves 3. Circumstantial evidence
Flashlight
Fingerprint kit HOW CIRCUMSTANTIAL
Evidence bag EVIDENCE OBTAINED
Evidence tag 1. Motive
Evidence bottles/vials 2. Opportunity
Investigators tickler 3. Associative Evidence

INVESTIGATORS TICKLER TYPES OF INTERVIEW

Investigators checklist 1. INFORMAL (on the scene interview) -
Anatomical diagram form conducted by police/investigator at the
Evidence Checklist crime scene to get description of criminal if
Turn-over receipt seen.
2. FORMAL - interview conducted by the
STANDARD METHODS OF investigator assigned to the case.
RECORDING INVESTIGATIVE
DATA: TYPES OF FORMAL INTERVIEW
Photographs 1. NORMAL - for willing or cooperative
Sketching crime scenes witness.
Written notes (what you have 2. GROUP/PRETEXT INTERVIEW -
seen/observed) for hostile witness or witness who refuse to
Developing and lifting fingerprints found at cooperate.
the crime scene. 3. FOLLOW UP - additional interview in
Gathering physical evidence addition to vital points if necessary.

QUALIFICATIONS OF
INTERVIEWER
  1. Salesman
  2. Actor
  3. Psychologist
REQUISITES OF AN INTERVIEW
  1. Establish rapport
  2. Forcefulness of personality
  3. Breadth of interest
SETTING OF INTERVIEW
1. BACKGROUND INTERVIEW - time
and place of interview are not a
consideration except for busy person.
2. ROUTINE CRIMINAL CASES -
interview should be carefully planned.
Busy person can be interviewed at night,
privacy is important.
3. IMPORTANT CRIMINAL CASES -
should be conducted in places other than
the subjects home/office to
prevent him/her feeling confident.
Investigator should get interviewees
respect.
4. APPROPRIATE TIME - General rule -
(ASAP) as soon possible while facts are
fresh in the memory of interviewees.
METHODS OF CRIME SCENE
SEARCH
1. STRIP METHOD - the area is blocked
out in the form of a rectangle. The
searchers (3 person is good) proceed slowly
at the same pace along paths parallel to one
side of the rectangle.
2. DOUBLE STRIP SEARCH METHOD
- modification of the strip search method.
The rectangle is traversed first parallel to
the base then parallel to a side.
3. SPIRAL SEARCH METHOD - The
searchers (3 person is good) follow each
other along the path of a spiral beginning
on the outside and spiraling in towards the
center.
4. ZONE SEARCH METHOD - one
searcher is assigned to each subdivision of
a quadrant and then each quadrant is cut
into another set of quadrants.
5. WHEEL SEARCH METHOD - the
area is considered to be approximately
circular. The searchers gather at the center
and proceed outward along radii or spokes.
Procedure is repeated several times
depending on the size of the circle and the
number of searchers.
B. TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND
ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION
ACCIDENT (Legal meaning) – an accident is
any happening beyond the control of a person
the consequences of which are not foreseeable.
(There is no criminal liability in accident
provided, the following requisites or elements
under the law must be satisfied;
1. performance of a lawful act
2. with due care
3. causes injury to another by mere accident
4. without any fault or intention of causing it
ARTICULATED VEHICLE - shall mean any
motor vehicles with a trailer having no front
axle and so attached that part of the trailer rest
upon the motor vehicle and a substantial part of
the weight of the trailer and of its load is born
by the motor vehicle.
BENZ PATENT-MOTORWAGEN -
(motorcar) built in 1886, is widely regarded as
the first automobile. It is a vehicle designed to
be propelled by an internal combustion engine.
BOX JUNCTION - is a road traffic control
measure designed to prevent congestion and
gridlock at junctions. A road area at a junction
marked with a yellow grid, which a vehicle
should enter only if its exit from it is clear. Box
junctions were introduced in UK during 1967,
following a successful trial in London.
CHAIN OF EVENTS – is the making up of
accident or the link which explains the
occurrence of the accident and its components
are present in every accident.
PERCEPTION OF HAZARD – is the point of
sensory warning at which the operator sensed
the approaching hazard. The driver may not
comprehend or recognized the hazard in all of
its implications at this point of perception, but
there was a warning. The normal routine is
perception, realization, or recognition, decision,
and action.
POSSIBLE PERCEPTION - is a link in the
accident chain dealing with the reaction of a
normal person. Prompt perception occurs when
possible and actual perception are very close.
Maximum delayed perception occurs when
actual perception is delayed until impact shock
alerts the driver..
ENCROACHMENT – is the movement of a
vehicle into the path assigned to the other traffic
unit.
EVASIVE ACTION – is the first action taken
by a traffic unit to escape from a collision
course or otherwise avoid the hazard.
POINT OF NO ESCAPE – is that location and
that time after or beyond which an accident
cannot be prevented by the driver or pedestrian.
INITIAL CONTACT – it is the first accidental
touching of an object collided with by a traffic
unit in motion.
MAXIMUM ENGAGEMENT – is the greatest
collapse or overlap in a collision.
DISENGAGEMENT – is the separation of a
traffic unit in motion from an object with which
it has collided.
FINAL REST OF STOPPING – it usually
stabilizes the accident situation where both
vehicles in a collision has ceases its force, and
stopping may occur with or without control by
the driver or pedestrian.
CLASSIFICATION OF ROAD
1. National Road
2. Provincial Road
3. City Road
4. Municipal Road
5. Barangay Road
6. Private Road
COMPRESSED AIR CAR - is an alternative
fuel car that uses a motor powered by
compressed air. The car can be powered solely
by air, or by air combined (as in a hybrid
electric vehicle) with gasoline,diesel, ethanol, or
electric plant.
CROSSWALKS - are designed to keep
pedestrians together where they can be seen by
motorists, and where they can cross most safely
across the flow of vehicular traffic.
DEFENSIVE DRIVING – is an act of driving
while preventing accidents despite of the wrong
actions of others aggravated by the existence of
adverse driving conditions. Which requires
knowledge, alertness, foresight, judgment and
skill.
FERDINAND VERBIEST - a member of a
Jesuit mission in China, built the first steam-
powered vehicle around 1672 which was of
small scale and designed as a toy for the
Chinese Emperor, that was unable to carry
a driver or a passenger, but quite possibly, was
the first working steam-powered vehicle.
FORCE MAJURE – is an inevitable accident
or casualty, an accident produced by any
physical cause which is irresistible. In other
words it is an Act of Man, such robbery, fire,
fault, negligence, rebellion, etc.
FORTUITOUS EVENT – an event which
takes place by accident and could not have been
foreseen. In other words it is an Act of God
which could neither be foreseen nor resisted,
such as earthquake, lightning, flood, and the
like.
FRANCOIS ISAAC DE RIVAZ - A French
and Swiss national who invented a hydrogen
powered internal combustion engine with
electric ignition and described it in a French
patent published in 1807. In 1808 he fitted it
into a primitive working vehicle the world's first
internal combustion powered automobile.
FUEL CELL HYBRID VEHICLE - FCHV
was developed by Toyota in 2005. The vehicle
is powered by the chemical reaction between
hydrogen and oxygen to power the motor
driving the vehicle.
GENEVA CONVENTION ON ROAD
TRAFFIC - September 19, 1949. Promotes the
development and safety of international road
traffic by establishing certain uniform rules.
GOTTLIEB DAIMLER - He invented the
high-speed petrol engine.He is also thought to
have invented the first real motorcycle in 1885.
GUSTAVE TROUVE - In November 1881,
Trouvé demonstrated a working three-wheeled
electric automobile at the International
Exhibition of Electricity in Paris.
HIT-AND-RUN - is the act of causing (or
contributing to) a traffic accident (such as
colliding with a person or a fixture), and failing
to stop and identify oneself afterwards. It is
considered a crime in most jurisdictions.
CHARACTERISTICS OF HIT-AND RUN
DRIVERS
1. After living the scene, he dreads or frighten of
being caught.
2. He may have left the accident scene because
he was shocked, injured, or intoxicated.
3. He may have been too confused to know he
was doing.
4. He may have a long record of violations or
accidents and therefore a terrible fear of  getting
further involve with the law.
5. More often, he fears financial loss specially if
he does not have liability insurance.
6. Hit-and run drivers do not have a establish
method of operation unlike criminals.
IMPRUDENCE – indicates deficiency of
action. If a person fails to take the necessary
precaution to avoid injury to a person or damage
to property, there is imprudence. Imprudence
usually involves lack of skill.
IVAN KULIBIN - a Russian mechanic and
inventor, he developed in 1971 a human-
pedalled, three-wheeled carriage with modern
features such as a flywheel, brake, gear box, and
bearings.
KARL FRIEDRICH BENZ - was a German
engine designer and car engineer, generally
regarded as the inventor of the first automobile
powered by an internal combustion engine, and
together with Bertha Benz, pioneering founder
of the automobile manufacturer Mercedes-Benz.
LAST CLEAR CHANCE - it means that the
driver who is in the better position to prevent the
accident shoulders the responsibility of
preventing the accident. The last clear chance
principle is always applied in any traffic
accidental investigation in order to justify
penalized the driver who was not defensive in
its driving.
LESTER WIRE - a policeman in Salt Lake
City, Utah. He developed the first electric traffic
light in 1912 which used red-green.
MACADAM - is a type of road construction
pioneered by Scottish engineer John Loudon
McAdam around 1820. The method simplified
what had been considered state of the art at that
point. Single-sized aggregate layers of small
stones, with a coating of binder as a cementing
agent, are mixed in an open-structured roadway.
MESOPOTAMIA - (Present Iraq) location of
the oldest constructed roads discovered to date.
The stoned paved streets date back to about
4000 BC, in the Mesopotamia cities of Ur and
Babylon.
MILESTONE - The earliest road signs, giving
distance or direction. milestone is one of a series
of numbered markers placed along a road or
boundary at intervals of one mile or
occasionally, parts of a mile. They are typically
located at the side of the road or in a median.
MOTOR CAR ACT 1903 - introduced
registration of motor cars and licensing of
drivers in the United Kingdom and increased the
speed limit.
MOTOR VEHICLE – shall mean any vehicle
propelled by any power other than muscular
power using the public highways, but exempting
road rollers, trolley cars, street sweepers,
bulldozers, graders, fork-lifts, cranes, vehicles
which runs only on rails or tracks, tractors,
trailers, and traction engine.
NEGLIGENCE – indicates a deficiency of
perception. If a person fails to pay proper
attention to use due diligence in foreseeing the
injury or damage impending to be caused there
in negligence. Negligence usually involves lack
of skill.
NICOLAS-JOSEPH CUGNOT - was a
French inventor. He is known to have built the
first working self-propelled mechanical vehicle,
the world's first automobile.
NIKOLAUS AUGUST OTTO - the German
inventor of the first internal-combustion engine
to efficiently burn fuel directly in a piston
chamber.
PARIS - in 1964, first time that police women
were used for traffic control duties.
PAVEMENT MARKINGS – are markings on
the roads and surfaces whereby a message is
conveyed by means of words or symbols,
officially reflected for the purpose of regulating,
warning and guiding traffic.
MAY INDICATE A NUMBER OF THINGS
LIKE
1. Where lanes are divided
2. Where you may pass other vehicles
3. Where you may change lanes or which lane to
use for turns
4. Where pedestrian walkways are located
5. Where you may stop for traffic signs and
traffic signals
TYPES OF PAVEMENT MARKINGS
1. CURVE MARKINGS – are used to show
where parking is legally prohibited or not
allowed, such Bus Stop, or in front of `a fire
hydrant, drive way.
2. OBJECT MARKINGS – are painted on
fixed poles, and on vertical ends of bridges and
ports to avoid accidents.
3. REFLECTORIZED MARKINGS – are
used to mark hazardous area and also used as
delineators or road limits, these delineators are
aids especially during night driving, particularly
when the alignment of a road changes and might
confused the operator of the vehicle.
4. STRIPED CURB MARKINGS – are
markings used in traffic islands in order to warn
the driver of the traffic island on the road and
aids the motorist to its traffic lane.
5. PAINTED CROSSWALK – are placed at
intersections and other places where there is
considerable pedestrians traffic to provide
pedestrians with safety zones when crossing.
6. BROKEN WHITE LINES – is used to
define or separate traffic lanes. It permits
crossing from one lane to another if there is
ample passing distance, and if the opposing lane
is clear of traffic.
7. SOLID WHITE LINE – is used to separate
opposing streams of traffic. Crossing is unlawful
except where ample distance exists and where
the opposing traffic lane is clear of traffic.
8. SOLID YELLOW LINE – is your driving
lane prohibits you from passing other vehicles.
9. DOUBLE YELLOW LINE – indicates two
way traffic; were crossing of pedestrian and
motorist is not allowed. It separates the
opposing flow of traffic.
10.BROKEN YELLOW LINES – is a two
way/highway which means no overtaking or
passing is permitted only when the road ahead is
clear.
11.STOP LINE – it indicates where stop should
be made.
PD 96 - A law declaring unlawful the use or
attachment of sirens, bells, horns, Whistles or
similar gadgets that emit exceptionally loud or
startling sounds, including dome lights and other
signalling or flashing devices on motor vehicles.
(January 13, 1973)
Excemptions - Motor Vehicles designated for
official use by the
      1. AFP
      2. NBI
      3. LTO
      4. PNP
      5. BFP
      6. Hospital Ambulances
PENALTY
1. CONFISCATION - 1st offense
2. IMPRISONMENT - 6 months and/or Fine. -
2nd and succeeding offenses.
3. Cancellation or Revocation or Certificate of
Registration
PD 1911 - a law authorizing the disposal of of
unclaimed recovered and impounded carnapped
motor vehicles.
This law provides that all carnapped or stolen
motor vehicle, recovered and impound by law
enforcement agencies which after a period of
three (3) months from the date of its
seizure/recovery have remained unclaimed or
whose real owners could no longer be
determined or established because the original
numbers of the motor engine or chassis numbers
could no longer be determined and restored, are
considered as abandoned motor vehicles and
shall be sold and disposed of by the Chief PNP
or his authorized representative in a public
auction.
In all cases before any public auction is effected,
there shall be published once a week for three
(3) consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general
circulation in the Philippines or in the place
where it was recovered or found, a description
of the motor vehicles intended to be auctioned
with a notice that after the lapse of one month
from the date of the last publication, should no
person file a claim for the recovery of the same,
said motor vehicles will be sold at public
auction.
PEDESTRIAN CROSSING - is a place
designated for pedestrians to cross a road.
PIERRE-MARIE-JÉRÔME TRÉSAGUET -
was a French engineer. He is widely credited
with establishing the first scientific approach to
road building about the year 1764. Proposed a
method of construction relying on a firm well-
drained foundation of large rocks topped by
progressively smaller ones, forming a convex
surface to make it more impervious to water. He
is sometimes considered the first person to bring
post-Roman science to road building.
PLACES WHERE PARKING IS
PROHIBITED
1. Within an intersection
2. On a crosswalk
3. Within six meters of the intersection of curb
lines.
4. Within four meters of the driveways entrance
to any fire station.
5. Within four meters of a fire hydrant.
6. In front of a private driveway
7. On the roadway side of any vehicle stopped
or parked at the curb or edge of the highway.
8. At any place where official signs have been
erected prohibiting parking.
PNP HIGHWAY PATROL GROUP - is an
operational support unit of the PNP in charged
of anti-carnapping, highway robbery and hi-
jacking incidents. Formerly called Traffic
Management Group. Traffic Management in
Metro Manila is managed by the MMDA.
PROFESSIONAL DRIVER – shall mean
every and any driver hired or paid for driving or
operating a motor vehicle, whether for private
use or for public.
CATEGORIES OF DRIVERS
      1. Tourist
      2. International Driver
      3. Government
      4. Professional
      5. Non-professional
      6. Student Permit
RA 4136 - the Land Transportation and Traffic
Code.
RA 6539 - Anti-Carnapping Act of 1972. An act
preventing and penalizing carnapping. (repealed
by RA 10883)
CARNAPPING -  is the taking, with intent to
gain, of a motor vehicle belonging to another
without the latter's consent, or by means of
violence against or intimidation of persons, or
by using force upon things.
ROAD INTELLIGENCE – Unusual points of
serious congestion must be noted. Note and
report unnecessary delay at stop signs or signals
which are installed when traffic is heavier. Note
and report congestion that ties up traffic for a
block or more.
SKID MARKS - are marks caused by tires on
roads which occur when a vehicle wheel stops
rolling and slides or spins on the surface of the
road.
IMPORTANCE OF SKID MARK IN
TRAFFIC ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION
Skid marks can be analyzed to find the
maximum and minimum vehicle speed prior to
an impact or incident.
KINDS OF SKID MARKS
1. PAVEMENT GRINDING – is the
collection of many fine scratches and some
larger one form by particles of gritty
materials such as stone, gravel, glass and
sometimes bit of metal embedding itself in the
rubber of the tire or in the thread pattern and
being ground or scored against the road surface.
2. TIRE GRINDING – is the collection of
particles of rubber ground from the tire surface
by gritty paving, especially before the tire gets
hot enough smear. It occur on hard, dry,
granular surfaces, particularly weathered or new
but not traffic-polished cement.
3. ERASING – is a clean light area where a
sliding tire had erased or removed dirt from the
pavement. Erasing is most likely to be found on
traffic-polished concrete road.
4. SQUEEZE MARK – are areas where a
sliding tie rubs moisture of the surface in its
path. It occurs on some kind of surface as
erasing except that the surface is wet.
5. SMEAR OF SOFT MATERIAL –
materials such as snow, mud, or debris usually
wet smooth or spread by a sliding tire. It occurs
on road covered with snow, or mud.
6. SMEAR OF BITUMINOUS MATERIAL
– is excess asphalt or tar, usually warm which
spread by a sliding tire this occurs in pavement
patches and joints in very warm weather and
else where when there is an excess of tar or
asphalt bleeding to the surface.
7. TIRE SMEAR – is a rubber melted from the
tire rather than material melted from the road by
a sliding tire.
8. SCRUB OF TIRE DURING COLLISION
– collision of cars usually cause the wheel to
jam and prevents it from turning. If the vehicles
are moving there will be a heavy scrubbing
action between tire and road surface.
9. FURROW – is a ploughed depression made
by a sliding tire with material piled-up on each
sides and usually at the end. If the soil is smooth
and sticky, there may be soft material smear in
the bottom of the rut.
TYPES OF ENDING SKID MARK
1. OVERLAPPING SKID MARK – occurs
when the rear wheels track on top of the front
wheel marks in sliding.
2. FRONT WHEEL MARKS – are in long
skids on hard pavement with bituminous
binders. Front wheels skid marks in which most
of the mark is at edge of the tire.
3. REAR TIRE MARKS – are relatively faint
because of lesser weight on the tire in slowing.
They may show thread grooves when the front
tire marks do not.
4. FLAT TIRE SCUFFS – will leave marks by
a scrubbing action even without application of
brakes due to overload.
5. GAPS IN SKID MARKS – are interruptions
in skid marks made by release of brake pressure
and its reapplication.
6. SKIP SKID – are skid marks that are broken
or interrupted without brakes being release.
7. CURB IN SKID MARKS – are usually
gentle slides toward the edge of the road which
is simply downhill.
SOURCES OF POWER IN
TRANSPORTATION
1. Man Power
2. Animal Power
3. Water and Air Power
4. Petroleum Fuel
5. Bi-fuel, bio gas, and Ethanol fuel
6. Hydrogen
7. Electric
REGISTRATION CLASSIFICATION OF
VEHICLES
1. Private
2. For Hire
3. Government
4. Diplomatic
SCUFF MARKS – are signs left on the road by
tires that are sliding or scrubbing while the
wheel is still turning.
TYPES OF SCUFF MARKS
1. DECELERATING SCUFF – are left while
the vehicle is slowing by braking effort and tires
are both sliding and rolling.
2. ACCELERATING SCUFF – are left by a
wheel driven by the engine and spinning on the
ground.
3. SIDE SCUFF – are scuff marks left by a tire
that is free to rotate without braking or power
the sliding sideways, these are usually left by a
vehicle steering around a curb and also in
collision.
4. COMBINATION SCUFF – are combination
of slide with either decelerating or accelerating
scuffs.
5. FLAT TIRE SCUFF – are marks lefts on the
road by the edges of under-inflated or greatly
overloaded tires. They are usually smear of
rubber, a flat tire rolls it become a very hot
specially at the edges where the pressure is
greatest.
6. SCRUB OF TIRE – during collision it is
much the same when the wheel is rotating as
when it is locked.
7. FURROWS – by a rotating and sliding wheel
are little different than one with a locked wheel.
STATE OF NECESSITY – there is state of
necessity even if the injury to a person results in
his death, because self-preservation always
makes the actor feel that his own safety is
greater than that of another.
ELEMENTS OR REQUISITES UNDER
THE LAW
1. the evil sought to avoided actually exists ;
2. the injury feared be greater that that done to
avoid it;
3. that there is no other practical and less
harmful means of preventing it.
THOMAS TELFORD - a Scottish civil
engineer, architect and stonemason, and a noted
road, bridge and canal builder.  he was dubbed
The Colossus of Roads, and, reflecting his
command of all types of civil engineering in the
early 19th century. He was elected as the first
President of the Institution of Civil Engineers.
TIMELINE - HISTORY OF
TRANSPORTATION
3500 BC - Fixed wheels on carts are invented -
the first wheeled vehicles in history. Other early
wheeled vehicles include the chariot.
- River boats are invented - ships with oars
2000 BC - Horses are domesticated and used for
transportation.
181-234 - The wheelbarrow is invented.
770 - Iron horse shoes improve transportation by
horse.
1492 - Leonardo da Vinci first to seriously
theorize about flying machines - with over 100
drawings that illustrated his theories on flight.
1620 - Cornelis Drebbel invented the first
submarine - a human oared submersible.
1662 - Blaise Pascal invents the first public bus
- horse-drawn, regular route, schedule, and fare
system.
1740 - Jacques de Vaucanson demonstrates his
clockwork powered carriage.
1783 - First practical steam boat demonstrated
by Marquis Claude Francois de Jouffroy
d'Abbans - a paddle wheel steamboat.
1783 - The Montgolfier brothers invent the first
hot air balloons.
1787 - Steamboat invented.
1769 - First self-propelled road vehicle invented
by Nicolas Joseph Cugnot.
1790 - Modern bicycles invented.
1801 - Richard Trevithick invented the first
steam powered locomotive (designed for roads).
1807 Isaac de Rivas makes a hydrogen gas
powered vehicle - first with internal combustion
power - however, it is an unsuccessful design.
1807 - First steamboat with regular passenger
service – inventor Robert Fulton's Clermont.
1814 - George Stephenson invents the first
practical steam powered railroad locomotive.
1862 - Jean Lenoir makes a gasoline engine
automobile.
1867 -First motorcycle invented.
1868 - George Westinghouse invents the
compressed air locomotive brake - enabled
trains to be stopped with fail-safe accuracy.
1871 - First cable car invented.
1885 - Karl Benz builds the world's first
practical automobile to be powered by an
internal combustion engine.
1899 - Ferdinand von Zeppelin invents the first
successful dirigible - the Zeppelin.
1903 - The Wright Brothers invent and fly the
first engine airplane.
1907 - Very first helicopter - unsuccessful
design.
1908 - Henry Ford improves the assembly line
for automobile manufacturing.
1908 - Hydrofoil boats co-invented by
Alexander Graham Bell & Casey Baldwin -
boats that skimmed water.
1926 - First liquid propelled rocket launched.
1940 - Modern helicopters invented.
1947 - First supersonic jet flight.
1956 - Hovercraft invented.
1964 - Bullet train transportation invented.
1969 - First manned mission (Apollo) to the
Moon.
1970 - First jumbo jet.
1981 - Space shuttle launched.
TRAFFIC – is a movement of vehicles along a
route where passengers and cargoes are carried
by transportation.
ELEMENTS OF STREET AND HIGHWAY
TRAFFIC
1. The road user
2. The vehicle and its load
3. The road.
POLICE OFFICERS MAIN FUNCTIONS
IN TRAFFIC
1. Police traffic directions
2. Police traffic law enforcement
3. Police traffic accident investigation.
TRAFFIC ACCIDENT -  (traffic Collision)
occurs when a vehicle collides with another
vehicle, pedestrian, animal, road debris, or other
stationary obstruction, such as a tree or utility
pole.
ELEMENTS OF TRAFFIC ACCIDENT
1. The vehicle involved
2. The highway
3. The road user.
CAUSES OF TRAFFIC ACCIDENT
1. DIRECT CAUSES – the direct causes of an
accident are observable by witness and
participants, or may be constructed from
physical evidence found at the scene. Since a
direct cause relates to the action of the human
part of the traffic unit concerned it is a behavior
cause. Usually only four direct causes are
considered in accident investigation;
A. INITIAL BEHAVIOR - Any movement,
position, or failure to signal intent to make a
traffic maneuver that creates a dangerous
situation and is either hazardous,
illegal, improper, or unusual may be initial
behavior of a nature justly term a direct cause of
an accident.
B. SPEED – Too fast for conditions is the direct
cause of many accidents.
C. DELAYED PERCEPTION – is inattention
to the major task of operating a motor vehicle,
and occurs when the driver is distracted by
conversation with other occupants of the car,
lighting a cigarette or cigar, looking at a
roadway or the scenery, or glancing at
occupants of nearby vehicles.
D. FAULTY EVASIVE ACTION – Faulty
evasive action always occurs after perception
and is the reaction of a driver or pedestrian to a
hazardous situation on the highway.
2. MEDIATE AND EARLY CAUSES –
These mediate and early causes of an accident
are also termed condition causes in formalized
accident investigation procedure. A mediate
cause of an accident occurs between the early
and the direct causes in the time span leading to
the accident, but it has a closer relationship to
the direct cause than to the early causes. A
mediate cause should not be listed unless it
explains the direct cause of an accident. A
mediate cause of an accident is an irregular or
unusual condition of a vehicle, the road, the
weather, or of a road user (driver or pedestrian)
that explains on of the four direct causes of an
accident: initial behavior, speed, delayed
perception and faulty evasive action.
3. EARLY CAUSES - An early cause of an
accident results from the act of any individual,
or the failure to act by any person, which creates
conditions leading to the chain of events making
up an accident.
EARLY CAUSE OF AN ACCIDENT - is an
act or negligence on the part of an individual or
an organization which causes or permits a
mediate cause to exist.
TRAFFIC ACCIDENT ANALYSIS
1. Condition of the motor vehicles involved in
the accident;
2. Condition of the drivers at the time of the
accident;
3. Load of the vehicle;
4. Weather condition;
5. Characteristics of the road, which involves
the design condition, and inhabitants of the
place of accident
6. Presence or absence of traffic sign and its
condition. All these factors must considered in
order to fully uncover the reasons of the
accident, and thereby provide a factual bases in
coming-up with a traffic prevention program
and traffic plans and programs.
KEY EVENTS IN A TRAFFIC ACCIDENT
KEY EVENT – means the one which
characterizes the manner of the occurrence of
the traffic accident. It determines the time,
place, and type of accident.
1. POINT OF POSSIBLE PERCEPTION – is
the place and time at which the unusual or
unexpected movement or condition could have
been perceive by a normal person.
2. DELAY IN PERCEPTION OR
PERCEPTION TIME – it is the time between
the point of possible perception and actual
perception.
3. PROMPT PERCEPTION – is the
perception of hazard which is actually nearly the
possible accident.
4. MAXIMUM DELAYED PERCEPTION –
occurred when the traffic unit does not sense a
hazard until he hits another vehicle.
5. POINT OF NO ESCAPE – is the place and
time after or beyond which the accident cannot
be prevented by the traffic unit under
consideration.
6. POINT OF IMPACT – is used to mean as
the point of initial contact, sometimes it is
considered the point of maximum engagement
or center of force.
7. FINAL POSITION – is the place and time
when the object involved in the accident finally
come to rest without application of power.
TRAFFIC ACTUATED SIGNAL – is
controlled by an individual using his hands in
signaling the flow of traffic wherein traffic shall
proceed in accordance with the desire of the
individual controlling the flow of traffic.
TRAFFIC CODE - (also motor vehicle code)
refers to the collection of local statutes,
regulations, ordinances and rules that have been
officially adopted by countries to govern the
orderly operation and interaction of motor
vehicles, bicycles, pedestrians and others upon
the public (and sometimes private) ways.
TRAFFIC EDUCATION – comprises all
means for public information and the safety
education of both drivers and pedestrians as to
traffic laws and the use of traffic facilities and
an adequate training programs in traffic control
throughout the police unit.
TRAFFIC ENGINEERING - is a branch of
civil engineering that uses engineering
techniques to achieve the safe and efficient
movement of people and goods on roadways.
FUNCTIONS OF TRAFFIC
ENGINEERING
1. Fact finding surveys and recommendation of
traffic rules and regulations.
2. Supervision and maintenance to the
application of traffic control devices.
3. Planning of traffic regulations.
OBJECTIVES OF TRAFFIC
ENGINEERING
1. To achieve efficient, safe, free and rapid flow
of traffic.
2. To prevent traffic accidents and casualties.
3. To present the role of traffic engineering in
reducing the needs for police action and
simplifying police performance.
4. To show that good police action and
performance makes engineering plans effective.
TRAFFIC INVESTIGATION - OBJECTIVE
1. Securing facts upon which to base an accident
prevention program;
2. Determining whether or not laws have been
violated, gathering evidence which will reveal
the road user responsible for the accident, and
taking on-the-scene police action; and
3. Ascertaining the facts so that those involved
in accidents can properly exercise claims under
our Civil Law.
TRAFFIC ISLAND - a small raised area in the
middle of a road which provides a safe place for
pedestrians to stand and marks a division
between two opposing streams of traffic.
KINDS OF TRAFFIC ISLANDS
1. Divisional and or Pedestrian Barrier
2. Channelizing Island
3. Refuge Island
4. Rotary Island
TRAFFIC LAWS - are the laws which govern
traffic and regulate vehicles, while rules of the
road are both the laws and the informal rules
that may have developed over time to facilitate
the orderly and timely flow of traffic.
TRAFFIC LAW ENFORCEMENT –
comprises all police activities in connection
with the direction of traffic, regulation and
education of drivers, determine potential
offenders, constant patrol, giving of assistance
in the prosecution of offenders, investigation of
accidents, follow-up complaints, requesting
police action, warning, summoning or arrest of
violators, reporting of road hazards and
obstruction.
TRAFFIC ENFORCEMENT ACTION
1. Detection
2. Apprehension
3. Prosecution
4. Adjudication
5. Penalization
ENFORCEMENT ACTION IS USUAL
LIMITED TO:
1. Verbal or written warning;
2. Summon or citation requiring the offender to
appear in court;
3. Arresting traffic violators for traffic violations
not attended
4. Suspension or revocation of license;
5. Payment of fines or civil damages, and;
6. Prosecution of criminal offenses in relation to
traffic.
TRAFFIC LIGHTS - a set of automatically
operated coloured lights, typically red, amber,
and green, for controlling traffic at road
junctions, pedestrian crossings, and
roundabouts.
TRAFFIC LIGHT SIGNALS – is a power
operated traffic control device by which traffic
is warned or directed to take some specific
actions.
LIGHT: FLASHING RED
1. This is the same as STOP SIGN.
2. STOP at the designated line.
3. Vehicles will be crossing from the “other
side”
4. Expect pedestrians to cross at the pedestrian
lane.
5. PROCEED WHEN CLEAR.
LIGHT: FLASHING YELLOW
1. This is the same as a YIELD SIGN.
2. Proceed through the intersection with caution.
3. You have the right of way over a flashing
RED light.
4. Vehicles on the other side will proceed to a
FULL STOP.
LIGHT: STEADY GREEN AND STEADY
LEFT/RIGHT ARROW
1. Vehicles can go straight or vehicles on the
left lane can make a left turn.
2. Vehicles can go straight or vehicles on the
right lane can make a right turn.
3. The RIGHT GREEN signal might or might
NOT have a road sign disallowing a right turn
while the RED lights is On
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT – it comprises all
public surfaces , facilities and agencies having
responsibility for licensing, approving,
maintaining and controlling the flow of traffic
and the use of traffic facilities.
TRAFFIC PATROL – Traffic patrol refers to
the observation of road conditions, the behavior
of the drivers and other users of vehicles for the
purpose of traffic supervision and law
enforcement and providing authorized traffic-
connected services to the public.
PURPOSE OF TRAFFIC PATROL
1. Deterrent to violations and dangerous driving.
2. Detecting and apprehending violators.
3. Observing and reporting traffic conditions.
4. Observing and reporting road conditions,
including view obstruction which needs
attention.
5. Providing certain services to the public.
TYPES/KINDS OF TRAFFIC PATROL
1. LINE PATROL – Conducts observation
either in moving or stationary observation at a
certain route or point of a major street in a city.
2. AREA PATROL – Conduct observation
either by moving patrol or stationary
observation in a certain area, which included a
number of streets roads or sections of a
highway.
3. STATIONARY OBSERVATION –
Observation of traffic conditions of a selected
place, usually one with unfavorable accident
experiences for traffic law supervision.
Stationary observation may be conspicuous,
visible or concealed, depending upon the
location of the patrol unit in relation to the street
under observation.
4. CONSPICUOUS OBSERVATION –
Stationary observation in which the observer
remains in full review of traffic conditions.
5. VISIBLE OBSERVATION – Stationary
observation in which observer is full view but so
located, for example, at Side Street, so as to
require effort on the part of traffic users to
discover the observer.
6. CONCEALED OBSERVATION –
Stationary observation in which the observer is
not visible to persons using ordinary power of
observation form the roadway being observed.
TRAFFIC SIGNS – a device mounted on a
fixed or portable means of words or symbols,
officially created and installed for the purpose of
regulating, warning and guiding traffic.
TYPES OF TRAFFIC SIGNS
1. REGULATORY SIGNS - are intended to
inform road-users of special obligations,
instructions or prohibitions which must comply.
A round shape is used for regulatory signs with
exception of stop and yield signs.
2. WARNING SIGNS - are intended to warn
road-users of danger on the road and to inform
them of its nature. These signs have an
equilateral triangular shape with one side
horizontal.
3. GUIDE OR INFORMATIVE SIGNS - are
intended to guide road-users while they are
traveling or to provide them with other
useful information.
TYPES OF GUIDE SIGNS
1. ROUTE MARKINGS – is usually found on
highways composed of several lanes which are
going into different direction.
2. DESTINATION AND DISTANCE SIGNS
– is usually erected on highway informing the
motorist as to the number of kilometers and at
which way to take going to its place of
destination.
3. INFORMATION SIGNS – is usually
erected on highway which informs the motorist
of the establishments in the era, such hospitals,
restaurants, restrooms, hotels, and other
establishments which provide services to
motorist.
TRANSFER EVIDENCE – it is an evidence
found at the accident scene that will connect to
the suspected vehicle and with the crime scene.
C. SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION
DEFINITION OF TERMS
ADMISSION - Any statement of fact made by
a party which is against his interest or
unfavorable to the conclusion for which he
contends or inconsistent with the facts alleged
by him.
AFIS - Automated Fingerprint Identification
System (AFIS) is a biometric identification (ID)
methodology that uses digital imaging
technology to obtain, store, and analyze
fingerprint data.
AMATEUR INTERMITTENT OFFENDER
- These types of robbers view themselves as
lifetime robbers and commits infrequent robbery
offenses, often recklessly.
ARMED ROBBERY - This involves the use of
weapons such as firearm, a knife or other
dangerous weapons.
ANIMUS LUCRANDI - means intent to gain,
in Robbery.
BIENES MUEBLES - in Robbery, means
personal property belonging to another.
ARREST - The legal taking of a person into a
custody in order that
he may be bound to answer for the commission
of an offense.    
ARREST WARRANT - An order in writing
issued in the name of the Philippines
commanding or directing a peace officer to
arrest the person described therein and brings it
before the court.
THE WARRANT OF ARREST IS TO BE
SERVED WITHIN A STATUTORY
PERIOD OF 10 DAYS.
THE WARRANT  OF ARREST VALIDITY
CONTINUES UNLESS:
1. Recalled by the issuing court
2. The respondent has been arrested
3. Respondent voluntary submitted himself
ARSON - An act of willfully and maliciously
damaging or destroying a building or other
property by fire or explosion.
AUTOPSY - known as a post-mortem
examination, necropsy, autopsia cadaverum, or
obduction, is a highly specialized surgical
procedure that consists of a thorough
examination of a corpse to determine the cause
and manner of death and to evaluate any disease
or injury that may be present.
ACCUSED - A person who’s case was
forwarded to the office of the prosecutor and
filed in court.
BASELINE - a method of locating object,
particularly useful in in large, irregularly shaped
outdoor areas.
CONFESSION - An express acknowledgment
by the accused in a criminal prosecution of the
truth of his guilt as to the offense charged, while
admission refers to statements of fact not
directly constituting an acknowledgment of
guilt.
CORPUS DELICTI - Latin for the “body of
the crime”.
CRIME - A generic term referring to many
types of misconduct forbidden by law.
CRIME SCENE - A venue or place where the
alleged crime/incident/event has been
committed.
CRIMINAL - A person who is convicted by
final judgment.
CRIMINALIST - The officer responsible for
recording a crime scene and recognizing and
preserving physical evidence.
CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION - The
collection of facts in order to accomplish the
three-fold aims – to identify the guilty party, to
locate the guilty party and to provide evidence
of his (suspect) guilt.
CRIMINAL INVESTIGATOR - A well-
trained, disciplined and experienced
professional in the field of criminal
investigation.
CRIMINAL LAW - One that defines crimes
treats of their nature and provides for their
punishment.
CRIME SCENE - The geographical area where
the crime was committed.
CRIME SCENE SKETCH -  A simple
diagram that creates a mental pictures of the
scene to those who are not present.
ROUGH SKETCH -  The first pencil-drawn
outline of the scene and the location of objects
and evidence within this outline.
DNA PROFILING - (also called DNA testing,
DNA typing, or genetic fingerprinting) is a
technique employed by forensic scientists to
assist in the identification of individuals by their
respective DNA profiles.
DNA FINGERPRINTING - is a test to identify
and evaluate the genetic information, called
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid), of a person's
cells.
EARLY TECHNIQUES OF CRIME
INVESTIGATION
ARCHIMEDES (287–212 BC) invented a
method for determining the volume of an object
with an irregular shape.
BOOK OF XI YUAN LU - The first written
account of using medicine and entomology to
solve criminal cases.
CARL WILHELM SCHEELE - he devised in
1773 a method for detecting arsenous oxide,
simple arsenic, in corpses.
HENRY GODDARD - at Scotland Yard
pioneered the use of bullet comparison in 1835.
ALPHONSE BERTILLON - was the first to
apply the anthropological technique of
anthropometry to law enforcement, thereby
creating an identification system based on
physical measurements.
SIR WILLIAM HERSCHEL - was one of the
first to advocate the use of fingerprinting in the
identification of criminal suspects.
ENGLISH CONSTABLE - early recorded
professional criminal investigator.
EVIDENCE -  The means by which facts are
proved.
FORCIBLE RAPE - Sexual intercourse carried
out against a person’s will by the use of physical
violence.
FOUR BASIC TECHNIQUES THAT CAN
BE USED TO MEASURE A CRIME SCENE
1. Rectangular/Coordinate System
2. Baseline/Station Line
3. Triangulation/Trilateration
4. Azimuth/Polar Coordinates
AZIMUTH - uses polar coordinates. This
method requires two people; one to hold each
end of a tape measure. This type of measuring
convention is best suited for large open areas
where there might not be any fixed reference
points. A known starting point must be
established in your scene which might require
pounding in a stake. That point is located by
using a handheld GPS (global positioning
system). A large protractor or some other type
of board marked with a circle and degree
increments is used. The zero location on the
board is oriented toward magnetic north.
TRIANGULATION - is a method that can be
used when the scene is irregularly shaped. Two
control points are used for this method.
HIGHGRADING – selling
INFORMATION - The general term referring
to the knowledge acquired by criminal
investigator from various sources. Data gathered
by an investigator from other persons including
the victim himself and other sources.
INSTRUMENTATION - The application of
instrument and method of physical science in
the detection and investigation of crime.
INTERVIEW - The simple friendly
questioning of people who have the information
officially needed by investigators.
INTERROGATION - The vigorous or
aggressive questioning of person suspected of
having committed an offense or a person who is
reluctant or willing to make a full disclosure of
information in his possessions, which is
pertinent to the investigation of a criminal case.
INVESTIGATION - The collection of basic
facts establishing that a crime has been
committed and that some other person is
responsible thereof.
KASTLE–MEYER TEST - is a presumptive
blood test, first described in 1903, in which the
chemical indicator phenolphthalein is used to
detect the possible presence of hemoglobin.
MIRANDA DOCTRINE - The principle on the
rights of a suspect against forced self-
incrimination during police interrogation.
MODUS OPERANDI - Methods of Operation,
Modes of Operation, Manner of committing the
crime.
MURDER-SUICIDE - An act in which an
individual kills one or more other persons
immediately before or at the same time as him
or herself.
PHENOMENA - A circumstance, event or
occurrence as it actually exists or existed.
PHOTOGRAPHY -  The most reliable means
of preserving the crime scene or evidence.
POLITICAL TERRORISTS - The use of
force or the fear of force to achieve a political
end.
POWER-REASSURANCE RAPIST - The
rapist who psychologically doubt his
masculinity and seeks to dispel this doubt by
exercising power and control over women.
PROFESSIONAL ROBBER - This
characterized as having a long-term
commitment to crime as a source of livelihood,
planning and organizing crimes before
committing them and pursuing money to
support a particular lifestyle.
RA 7438 - An act defining certain rights of
person under custodial investigation.
RA 8353 - The Anti-Rape Law of 1997.
RA 9514 - The Fire Code of the Philippines.
RECTANGULAR - a method of obtaining
measurement to locate an object by making a
measurement at right angles from each of two
walls. Works well for indoor measurements.
SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION - The
investigation of cases that are unique and often
require special training to fully understand their
broad significance.
SPECTROMETRY - modern detection method
of alcohol and drugs.
SUSPECT - A person arrested for a crime.
TERRORISM - The unlawful use of threat of
violence against person or property to further
political or social objectives.
THREE FOLD AIM OF CRIMINAL
INVESTIGATION
1. Identify the Perpetrator
2. Locate the Perpetrator
3. Provide Evidence
TRIANGULATION - method of locating
object where measurements are taken from two
fixed points at the scene to the object you desire
to locate.
D. ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION
DEFINITION OF TERMS:
AL-QAEDA - is a global militant Islamist
organization founded by Osama bin Laden,
Abdullah Azzam and several other militants in
Peshawar, Pakistan. If translated, al-qaeda
means the base.
ALEX BONCAYAO BRIGADE - is a Manila-
based death squad that assassinated dozens of
people on the orders of the Communist Party of
the Philippines. It was formed in 1984. It
formally split with the NPA in 1991.
- Chairman and founder of the MILF Moro
Islamoc Liberation Front. He passed away in
2003. MILF was formed in 1977.
HUKBALAHAP - It was an anti-Japanese
guerrilla movement formed by the peasant
farmers of Central Luzon. In 1946, the
organization rebelled against the government.
JIHAD - a war or struggle against unbelievers.
MUJAHID - a person engaged in jihad.
NUR MISUARI - is a Moro revolutionary,
politician, founder and former leader of the
Moro National Liberation Front.
PARTIDO KOMUNISTA NG PILIPINAS -
the original communist party of the Philippines.
It was established on November 7, 1930.
E. DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE
CONTROL
1875 - in San Francisco California, enacted an
ordinance which banned the smoking of opium
in opium dens.
1919 - the prohibition of alcohol commenced in
Finland.
1920 - the prohibition of alcohol commenced in
the United States.
1974 - the Inter Agency Committee on Drug
Prevention Education was created and played
vital role in the integration of drug abuse
prevention concepts in social actions programs.
1979 - the first International non-governmental
organization conference was held in Jakarta,
Indonesia, followed by the second which was
held from November 3 to 8, 1980 at Manila.
After the second conference, the Philippine
council of Non-Governmental Organization was
organized.
1988 - the United Nations Convention Against
Illicit Traffic in Narcotics Drugs and
Psychotropic Substances was held further
bolstering anti-drug laws.
ADDICTION - A person has an addiction when
he becomes dependent on or craves a drug and
believes he needs the drug to live. All an
addicted drug user can think about is getting the
next dose after getting high.
CLASSIFICATION OF COMMONLY
USED DRUGS
PSYCHOACTIVE DRUGS - These are often
described as a psychotropic (mind affecting) or
mind altering drugs. It is a chemical substances
that changes ones thinking, feelings, perceptions
and behaviors.
A. DEPRESSANTS - they are drugs that
affects the central nervous system causing it to
relax.
COMMON TYPES OF DEPRESSANTS
1. NARCOTICS - refers to any drugs which
produces insensibility, stupor, melancholy or
dullness of mind with delusion and which may
be habit forming.
2. BARBITURATES - drugs that affect the
central nervous system causing sedation.
3. TRANQUILIZERS - are drugs which
relieves uncomfortable emotional feelings by
reducing anxiety and promoting relaxation.
4. ALCOHOL - fermented or distilled liquids
or drug containing ethanol and intoxicating
substances.
5. SOLVENTS AND INHALANTS - volatile
liquids that give off a vapor, which is inhaled
producing short term excitement and euphoric
followed by a period of disorientation. Its effect
includes nausea, sneezing, coughing, nose
bleeds, fatigue,lack of coordination and loss of
appetite.
B. STIMULANTS - chemical substances that
generally speed up central nervous system
function, resulting in alertness and excitability.
COMMON TYPES OF STIMULANTS
1. COCAINE - a natural stimulants derived
from the plant erythroxylon coca.
2.
METHAMPHETAMINE/AMPHETAMINE
- man made stimulants drugs.
3. CAFFEINE - a stimulant found in coffee.
4. NICOTINE - an addictive substance usually
obtained from cigarette smoking.
C. HALLUCINOGEN/PSYCHEDELICS -
sometimes known as “all rounder's” and “mind
expanders” these drugs affects the person
perceptions, awareness, emotions and can also
cause hallucinations as well as illusions.
COMMON TYPES OF HALLUCINOGENS
1. Marijuana
2. Lysergic Acid Diethylamide
3. Ecstacy
4. PCP, Psilocybin mushroom and peyote
COCAINE - is a stimulant of the central
nervous system and an appetite suppressant,
giving rise to what has been described as a
euphoric sense of happiness and increased
energy. It is a quick acting drug whose effects
are rapid from the time of intake. It is legally
used in medicine as a topical anesthetic,
specifically in the eye, nose and throat surgery.
It is a crystalline tropane alkaloid that is derived
from the leaves of the coca plant known as
“Erythroxylon”
ALEXANDER BENNET - he discovered the
first medical use of cocaine in 1873 as
anesthetic.
1879 - cocaine was used to treat morphine
addiction.
1884 - cocaine was introduced into clinical use
as anesthetic in Germany.
1970 - cocaine gained popularity as a
recreational drug.
MEDELLIN AND CALI CARTEL - were
founded in Colombia to meet the new demand
for cocaine. The Cali Cartel became the number
one cocaine trafficker after the death of Pablo
Escobar.
PABLO ESCOBAR - the founder of the
Medellin Cartel who was killed by the police in
late 1993.
CHEMICALS – is any substance taken into the
body, which alters the way, the mind and the
bodywork.
CHEMICAL ABUSE – is an instance when the
use of a chemical has produced a negative or
harmful consequence.
CODEINE - Methylmorphine is an opiate used
for its analgesic, anti-tussive and anti-diarrheal
properties. It is marketed as the salt codeine
sulfate and codeinephosphate. It is also often
used as recreational drugs. This is primarily
because of its easy availability over the counter
or on prescription in combination of products.
DANGEROUS DRUGS - are those that have
high tendency for abuse and dependency, these
substances may be organic or synthetic, and
pose harm to those who use them.
DANGEROUS DRUGS ACT OF 1972 -
marked the government assurance to strict
policy against drug abuse. The act was
subsequently amended through Presidential
Degree No. 44. Dangerous Drug Board was
created to implement the provisions of the
Dangerous Drug Act as the national policy
making body and deal with other related matters
on drug abuse prevention and control.
DANGEROUS DRUGS BOARD - is the
policy making and strategy-formulating body,
under the office of the President, in the planning
and formulation of policies and programs on
drug prevention and control.
The late President Ferdinand E. Marcos,
organized the Dangerous Drugs Board on
November 14, 1972 under the Office of the
President.
NATIONAL AGENCIES FORMING PART
OF THE DANGEROUS DRUGS BOARD
1. DOH - Department of Health
2. DSWD - Department of Social Welfare and
Development
3. DECS - Department of Education, Culture
and Sports
4. DOJ - Department of Justice
5. DND - Department of National Defense
6. DOF - Department of Finance
7. DILG - Department of the Interior and Local
Government
8. DOLE - Department of Labor and
Employment
9. DFA - Department of Foreign Affairs
10.CHED - Commission on Higher Education
11.NYC  - National Youth Commission
12.PDEA - Philippine Drug Enforcement
Agency
PERMANENT CONSULTANTS OF THE
DDB
1. Director of the NBI
2. Chief of the PNP
TWO REGULAR MEMBERS OF THE DDB
1. PRESIDENT OF THE IBP - Integrated Bar
of the Philippines
2. Chairman or President of a non-government
organization involved in dangerous drug
campaign to be appointed by the President of
the Philippines.
OPLAN IWAS DROGA - is the national
flagship program on drug abuse prevention
launched by the DDB in 1995.
BARKADA KONTRA DROGA - is a peer-
based program designed as a preventive
education and information strategy to counter
the dangers and disastrous effects of drug abuse.
It aims to empower individuals to be catalysts
within their peer groups in advocating healthy,
drug-free lifestyles through involvement in
various wholesome activities.
IDADIN - INTEGRATED DRUG ABUSE
DATA AND INFORMATION NETWORK.
is an online drug data pooling and collection
system that allows better management and
assessment of the over-all drug demand and
supply reduction efforts undertaken by the
government.
DDB-DIAL - (DDB DRUG INFORMATION
ACTION LINE) is an action center created to
receive reports and complaints related to drug
abuse as well as to provide relevant information
and assistance to the public.
KID LISTO - is a mascot created to stand as an
icon or representation of the drug abuse
prevention program. KID means KALABAN
NG ILEGAL NA DROGA. It was brought to
different schools and communities all over the
country to promote the anti-drug advocacy.
5 PILLAR GLOBAL DRUG CONTROL
APPROACH
1. Drug Supply Reduction
2. Drug Demand Reduction
3. Alternative Development
4. Civic Awareness and Response
5. Regional and International Cooperation
DANGEROUS DRUGS BOARD
CERTIFICATION - is issued to attest that
substance/s manufactured or imported by
companies are not included in the list of
dangerous drugs and controlled precursors and
essential chemicals.
CERTIFICATE OF EXEMPTION - is issued
to exempt products or preparations containing
dangerous drugs and/or controlled substances
that are below and above the 30% threshold
from certain regulatory control measures.
DEPENDENCY - is the state of physical and
psychological dependence, or both, on a
dangerous drug, or drugs, experienced by a
person following the use of that substance on a
periodic or continuous basis.
DEPRESSANT - A depressant is a drug that
slows a person down. Doctors prescribed
depressants to help people be less angry,
anxious, or tense. Depressants relax muscles and
make people feel sleepy or like their head are
stuffed.
DRUGS - are chemicals that affect a person in
such a way as to bring about physiological,
emotional, or behavioral change.
DRUG ABUSE - is a patterned use of a
substance (drug) in which the user consumes the
substance in amounts or with methods which are
harmful to themselves or others. Drug abuse
exists when a person continually uses a drug
other than its intended purpose. This continued
use can lead to drug addiction and dependency.
GENERAL SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS OF
DRUG ABUSE
1. Unexpected changes of behavior
2. Significant deterioration of grooming
3. Continually wear long sleeve clothing to hide
injection marks
4. Wearing of sunglasses in appropriate time.
5. Weight loss not attributed to proper physical
exercises.
6. Association with persons who are known
drug abusers
7. Unusual spending of money
DRUG ADDICTION – a state of periodic or
chronic (continuous) intoxication (drunk)
detrimental to individual and to the society
produced by the repeated consumption of drugs.
- Drug addiction refers to the behavioral
condition where an individual’s need to obtain
and use (especially, self-administer) drugs
becomes a strong fixation.
- Drug addiction is a complex, and often
chronic, brain disease. It is characterized by
excessive drug craving, seeking, and use.
Addiction is caused by brain changes caused by
constant drug use.
DRUG DEPENDENCE - A state of psychic or
physical dependence, or both on dangerous
drugs, arising in a person following
administration or use of a drug on a periodic or
continuous basis.
- Drug dependence describes the state when an
individual is dependent upon the drug for
normal physiological functioning.
DRUG EXPERIMENTER - One who
illegally, wrongfully, or improperly uses any
narcotics substances, marijuana or dangerous
drugs as defined not more than a few times for
reasons of curiosity, peer pressure or other
similar reasons.
DRUG SYNDICATE - it is a network of evil.
It is operated and manned by willful criminals
who knowingly traffic human lives for the
money. Large sum of money, they can make in
their illegal and nefarious trade. The set results
of their commerce are physical and mental
cripples, ruined lives, even agonizing death.
ECSTACY - In 1912 MDMA or
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine was
developed in Germany as an appetite depressant
by the pharmaceutical company Merck. During
the late 1970 psychiatrists and psychologist used
the drugs as treatment for emotional and
psychological disorders. Among the youth users
referred it as the “sex drugs”. In its purest form
it is crystalline substance white powder with
mastic odor.
ENABLING - is any action taken by a
concerned person that removes or softens the
negative effect or harmful consequences of drug
use upon the user. Enabling only makes thing
worse. It is like fighting fire with gasoline.
FACILITY BASED/TREATMENT BASED
DATA - are data gathered from the residential
and out-patient treatment and rehabilitation
centers in the Philippines.
HALLUCINOGEN - A hallucinogen is a drug,
such as LSD, that changes a person's mood and
makes him see, hear, or think things that aren't
really there. Hallucinogens change the way a
person feels time, making it seem to slow down.
As the name implies, hallucinogens may cause
hallucinations - this is when people think they
see or hear imaginary people or things.
HARRISON ACT - passed in 1914, which
required sellers of opiates and cocaine to
procure license. Originally intended to require
paper trails of drug transactions between
doctors, drug stores and patients, it soon became
a prohibitive law.
HashISH - It is the dark brown resin that is
collected from the tops ofpotent Cannabis
Sativa. It is at least five times stronger than
crude marijuana. Since it is stronger, the effect
on the user is more intense, and the possibility
of side effects is greater. Placing the crude plant
material in a solvent makes it. The plant
materials then filtered out and the solvent is
removed, yielding a gummy, resinous substance.
HEROIN - is also known as Diacetylmorphine,
is a semi synthetic opioid. It mimics endorphins
and creates a sense of well being upon entering
the bloodstream usually through intravenous
injection. It is widely used as a illegal drug for
its intense euphoria, which often disappears with
increase tolerance.
HIGH - A high is the feeling that drug users
want to get when they take drugs. There are
many types of high, including a spacey feeling,
euphoria, or a feeling that a person  has “special
powers”, such as the ability to fly or see into the
future.
LEBANON - also became the transit country
for cocaine from South America to illicit drugs
markets.
MARIJUANA - obtained from an Indian hemp
plant known as “Cannabis Sativa” a strong,
handy, annual shrub which grows wild in
temperature and tropic regions. A mind-altering
substance produced from cannabis sativa, it is
used because its primary active chemical
Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) induces relaxation
and heightens the senses.
CANNABIS IS PREPARED FOR HUMAN
CONSUMPTION IN DIFFERENT FORMS:
1. MARIJUANA OR GANJA - the leaves and
flowering tops of female plants.
2. HASHISH OR CHARAS - a concentrated
resin composed of glandular trichomes and
vegetative debris that has been physically
extracted usually by rubbing, sifting or with ice.
3. KIF OR KIEF - the chopped flowering tops
of female cannabis plants, often mixed with
tobacco,Moroccan hashish produced in the Rif
mountains.Sifted cannabis trichomes consisting
of only the glandular heads often incorrectly
referred to as “Crystals or Pollen”.
4. BHANG - a beverage prepared by grinding
cannabis leaves in milk and boiling with spices
and other ingredients.
5. HASH OIL - an oily mixture resulting
fromchemical extraction or distillation of
theTHC- rich part of the plant.
6. BUDDER - hash oil whipped to incorporate
air, making it more like butter.
METHODS/APPARATUS IN SMOKING
MARIJUANA
1. The Joint
2. The Blunt
3. The Hookah
4. The Bong - is a tube with a small bowl at the
end of a thinner tube inserted throughthe side
near the base.
5. The Waterfall
6. The Pipe
7. The Shotgun
8. The Chillum
9. The One Hitter or Bat - is a contrivance that
allows the small amount of cannabis to be
burned and inhaled in a single breath.
MIDDLE EAST - the Bec ka Valley of
Lebanon is considered to be the biggest
producer of cannabis in the Middle East.
MORPHINE - is a strong opiate analgesic drug
and is the principal active agent in opium. It acts
directly on the central nervous system relieving
pain. It is claimed to be six (6) times more
potent than opium. It is administered into the
body by means of injection. It is used legally as
an analgesic in hospital setting to relieve pain
after surgery and pain associated with trauma.
MOST COMMONLY USED/ABUSED
SUBSTANCES IN THE PHILIPPINES
1. Methamphetamine hydrochloride (Shabu)
2. Cannabis Sativa or Marijuana
3. Inhalants (Contact Cement)
MOTBOK - an alcohol rationing system with
personal ration record book employed by
Sweden from 1914 to 1955.
NARCOTICS - is any drug that produces sleep
or stupor and relieves pain due to its depressant
effect on the central nervous system. A term
narcotic comes from the Greek word for sleep
“Narkotikos".
OPIUM - Obtained from a female poppy plant
known as “Papayer Somniferum”. It comes from
the Greek word which means “juice”. It is the
original components of Morphine and Heroin. It
was known to be cultivated in lower
Mesopotamia long ago as 3400 BC. In De
Medicina (30 AD), Aulus Cornelius Celsus
specified various uses for “Poppy Tears” as an
emollient for painful joints and anal crevices, in
anodynes pills promoting relief of pain through
sleep.
OPIUM PREPARATION - The smoking of
opium does not involve the burning of the
material as might be imagined. The prepared
opium is indirectly heated to temperature at
which active alkaloids, mainly Morphine, are
vaporized.
OPIUM CHEMICAL PROPERTIES AND
PHYSIOLOGICAL EFFECTS – Opium
includes two groups of alkaloids:
Phenanthrenes(including Morphine and
Codeine) and Benzylisoquinolines (including
Papaverine).
OPIUM MEDICAL USES - Opium has been a
major commodity of trade for centuries, due to
the fact that it has long been used as a pain killer
and sedative.
PRESIDENTIAL PROCLAMATION
NO.1192 - declared the 2nd week of November
as Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Week,
and celebrated every year.
PHYSICAL DEPENDENCE - An adaptive
state caused by repeated drug use that reveals
itself by development of intense physical
symptoms when the drug is stopped (withdrawal
syndrome).
POLYDRUG ABUSE - Many people who
abuse on drug tend to take all sorts of drugs.
Some play chemical “Russian roulettes” by
taking everything including unidentified pills.
This is called polydrug abuse.
PSYCHOLOGICAL DEPENDENCE - An
attachment to drug use which arises from a drug
ability to satisfy some emotional or personality
need of an individual. (Physical dependence not
required but it does not seem to reinforce
psychological dependence.
RA 9165 - commonly known as The
Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.
It took effect on July 4, 2002.
DANGEROUS DRUGS BOARD (DDB) -
continues as policy making body and it formed
the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
(PDEA) as the led agency in the enforcement of
the law under the office of the President.
The new law abolished the National Drug Law
Enforcement and Prevention Coordinating
Center, the PNP Narcotics Group, the NBI
Narcotics Unit and the Customs Narcotics
Interdiction Office.
Establishing the proper intelligence network has
been inherent task given by the law to PDEAin
coordination with the following support
units:The PNP AIDSOTF, the NBI AIDTF, the
Customs Task Force in Dangerous Drugs and
Controlled Chemicals along with other
government and non-government entities
dedicated to curb the drug problem.
NATIONAL STRATEGIES AGAINST
DANGEROUS DRUGS
1. SUPPLY REDUCTION STRATEGY -
which refers to the concept of keeping the  drugs
away from the potential drug users.
INTENDED PROGRAMS
a. Law Enforcement
b. Amendments of the Law
2. DEMAND REDUCTION STRATEGY -
refers to the concept of keeping the potential
users away from drugs.
INTENDED PROGRAMS
a. Preventive Education
b. Sports Development
c. Moral and Spiritual Values Recovery
d. Treatment and Rehabilitation
3. INTERNATIONAL AND LOCAL
COOPERATION/COORDINATION - refers
to an effective and efficient cooperation and
coordination of all local and international
agencies of the government.
INTENDED PROGRAMS
a. Joint Training and Exercises
b. Intelligence Networking
c. Interdiction Operation
REHABILITATION - is a dynamic process
directed towards the changes on the health of
the person to prepare him from his fullest life
potentials and capabilities, and making him law-
abiding and productive member of the
community without abusing drugs.
SHABU - Methamphetamine was discovered in
Japan in 1919. This crystalline powder is solute
in water making it an ideal drug for injection.
During world War II, the drugs was used as
stimulants for combat soldiers. After the war it
was regarded as a cure all for treatment in mild
depression and a good weight control substance.
In the mid 80’s it was introduced in the
Philippines and has gained popularity not only
in urban areas but rural communities as well. It
is also regarded as poor man’s cocaine.
STIMULANT - A stimulant speeds up a
person's body and brain. Stimulants, such as
methamphetamines, have the opposite effect of
depressants. Usually stimulants make a person
high energetic. When the effects of a stimulant
wear off, a person will feel tired or sick.
TETRAHYDROCANNABINOL - (THC) It is
the psychoactive agent of marijuana. The more
THC present in marijuana, the more potent is
the drug. It is also known as the “sinister
element” in marijuana. This is what causes the
“high lift” or “trip” in marijuana users.
THE GOLDEN CRESCENT
1. Afghanistan
2. Pakistan
3. Iran
4. India
THE GOLDEN TRIANGLE OF DRUG
TRAFFICKING
1. Laos
2. Thailand
3. Burma
TOLERANCE - it is the increasing dosage of
drugs to maintain the same effect.
TREATMENT – Is a medical service rendered
to a client for the effective management of hit
total conditions related to drug abuse. It deals
with the physiological without abusing drugs.
WITHDRAWAL PERIOD - From the point of
habituation or drug dependence up to the time a
drug dependent is totally or gradually deprived
of the drug.
DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE
CONTROL
RA NO. 9165 - Comprehensive Dangerous
Drugs Act of 2002.
RA NO 6425 - DANGEROUS DRUGS ACT
OF 1972 - the law that was repelled by RA no.
9165.
DANGEROUS DRUGS BOARD (DDB) - the
policy-making and strategy-formulating body in
the planning and formulation of policies and
programs on drug prevention and control.
DUTIES/FUNCTION OF THE DDB -To
develop and adopt a comprehensive, integrated,
unified and balanced national drug abuse
prevention and control strategy.
COMPOSITION OF THE DDB
3 permanent members
2 regular members
12 ex officio members
THE 12 EX OFFICIO MEMBERS ARE THE
FOLLOWING:
DOJ secretary or his/her representative
DOH secretary or his/her representative
DND secretary or his/her representative
DOF secretary or his/her representative
DOLE secretary or his/her representative
DILG secretary or his/her representative
DSWD secretary or his/her representative
DFA secretary or his/her representative
DECS secretary or his/her representative
CHED chairman or his/her representative
National Youth Commission chairman or his/her
representative
PDEA director general
The DDB is under the office of the President.
The Department Secretary's representative shall
in no case be lower than Under Secretary.
THE TWO REGULAR MEMBERS OF THE
DDB ARE:
 The President of The Integrated Bar of the
Philippines (IBP)
The Chairman or President of a non-
governmental organization involved in
dangerous drug campaign to be appointed by the
President of the Philippines.
PERMANENT CONSULTANTS OF THE
DDB
Director of the NBI
Chief of the PNP
PDEA - implementing arm of the DDB.
QUALIFICATION OF THE 3 PERMANENT
MEMBERS OF THE DDB
- at least 7 years training and experience in the
field of dangerous drugs and in any of the
following fields:
law,medicine,criminology,psychology or social
work.They are appointed by the President.
 The President shall designate a Chairman  of the
DDB from among the 3 permanent members
who shall serve for 6 years.
The Chairman of the DDB shall have a rank of
Under Secretary.
Term of office of the permanent members of the
DDB - 6 years and until their successors shall
have been duly appointed and qualified.
The PDEA shall be headed by a Director General
with the rank of undersecretary.
The PDEA Director General shall be appointed
by the President of the Philippines.
DUTIES/FUNCTIONS OF PDEA
DIRECTOR GENERAL
1. Responsible for the general administration and
management of the agency.
2. Perform other duties that may be assigned to
him/her by the President.
The PDEA Director General and the 2 Deputy
Director General must possess adequate
knowledge, training and experience in the field
of dangerous drugs and in any of the following
field: law enforcement, law, medicine,
criminology, psychology and social work.
THERE ARE 2 PDEA DEPUTY DIRECTOR
GENERAL
1. One for Administration
2. One for Operation
They shall have a rank of Assistant Secretary and
both are appointed by the President of the
Philippines upon recommendation of the board.
MANDATORY SERVICES OF THE PDEA
  1. Intelligence and Investigation
  2. International Cooperation and Foreign
Affairs
  3. Preventive Education and Community
Involvement
  4. Plans and Operation
  5. Compliance, Legal and Prosecution
  6. Administrative and Human Resource
  7. Financial Management
  8. Logistic Management
  9. Internal Affairs
PDEA shall establish regional offices.
PDEA ACADEMY -  Shall be established either
in Baguio City or Tagaytay City and in such
other places as may be necessary.
PDEA Academy shall be headed by a
Superintendent with the rank of Director. He
shall be appointed by the PDEA Director
General.
 Iran
3 PRONGED APPROACHED IN THE India
SOLUTION OF DRUG PROBLEMS
1. Law enforcement activities CLASSIFICATION OF DRUG
2. Preventive Drug Education and Information USER/ABUSER
program in school and in communities. SITUATIONAL USER - those who use drugs
3. Treatment and Rehabilitation programs for to keep them awake or for additional energy to
drug dependent. perform an important work. Such individual may
or may not exhibit psychological dependence.
CLASSIFICATION OF DRUGS SPREE USER - school age user who take drugs
ACCORDING TO EFFECT for "kicks", adventure, daring experience or a
DEPRESSANT - "downers" - a drug reducing means of fun.
functional or nervous activity. Lower the level of HARDCORE ADDICTS - those whose
arousal when taken. activities revolves almost entirely around drug
STIMULANTS - "Uppers" - increase mental  use and securing supplies. They show strong
and/or physical function. A substance that raises psychological dependence on the drug.
the levels of physiological or nervous activity in HIPPIES - Those who are addicted to drugs
the body. believing that drug is an integral part of life.
HALLUCINOGENS - "psychedelics" - a drug
that causes hallucinations. Psychoactive drugs COMMONLY ABUSED DRUGS:
that cause subjective change in SEDATIVES - are depressant drugs which
perception,thought,emotion and consciousness. reduce anxiety and excitement such as
barbiturates, tranquilizers and alcohol.
CLASSIFICATION OF DRUGS STIMULANTS - are drugs which increase
ACCORDING TO PHARMACOLOGY alertness and activity such as amphetamine,
Depressants cocaine and caffeine.
Narcotics HALLUCINOGEN/PSYCHEDELICS - drugs
Tranquilizers which affect sensation,thinking,self awareness
Stimulants and emotion.
Hallucinogens NARCOTICS - drugs that relieve pain and often
Solvents/Inhalants induce sleep. This includes opium and its
derivatives like morphine,codeine and heroin.
CLASSIFICATIONS OF DRUGS SOLVENTS - volatile substances which are
ACCORDING TO LEGAL CATEGORIES found to be the most commonly abused.
Prohibited Drugs
Regulated Drugs PRIMARY CAUSES OF DRUG
Volatile substances ADDICTION:
PRIDE - excessive feeling of self worth or self
GOLDEN TRIANGLE OF DRUG esteem or sense of self importance.
TRAFFICKING ANGER - against, himself,family,friends and
Laos society in general.
Thailand LUST - burning sexual desire can distort the
Burma human mind to drug abuse.
GLUTTONY - "food trip" in the lingo of
THE GOLDEN CRESCENT junkies.
Afghanistan GREED - wealth,fame,recognition as
Pakistan
exemplified by people under pressure in their Irritability
work of art such as musician,actors and athletes Lots of cans,aerosols in the trash
who indulge in rug abuse. 5 . HALLUCINOGENS - ex. LSD, PCP
ENVY - to get attention from someone as sign of Dilated pupils
protest. Bizarre and irrational behavior including
LAZINESS - "i cant syndrome" incapacity to paranoia, aggression, hallucination
achieve is a breeding ground of drug abuse and Mood swings
boredom coupled with poor self image. Detachment from people
Absorption with self or other objects
WARNING SIGNS OF COMMONLY Slurred speech
ABUSED DRUGS Confusion
1. MARIJUANA 6. HEROIN
Glassy red eye Contracted pupils
Loud talking No response of pupils to light
Inappropriate laughter followed by sleepiness Needle marks
Loss of interest, motivation Sleeping at unusual time
Weight gain or loss Sweating
2. DEPRESSANT Vomiting
Contracted pupils Coughing, shiffling
Drunk-like Twitching
Difficulty concentrating Loss of appetite
Clumsiness 7. ALCOHOL
Poor judgement Clumsiness
3. STIMULANTS - ex. cocaine, amphetamines Difficulty walking
Dilated pupils Slurred speech
Hyperactivity Sleepiness
Euphoria Poor judgement
Irritability Dilated pupils
Anxiety Possession of false id cards
Excessive talking followed by depression or 8. TOBACCO/NICOTINE
excessive sleeping Smell of tobacco
May go long period of time without eating or Stained fingers or teeth
sleeping
Weight loss ANALGESIC - any drugs such as salicylates,
Dry mouth and nose morphine or opiates used primarily for the relief
4. INHALANTS - ex. glues, aerosols, vapors of pain.
Watery eyes ACUTE TOLERANCE - The development of
Impaired vision, memory and thought tolerance within the course of a single exposure
Secretions from the nose or rashes around the to a drug.
nose and mouth ADDICTION - Implies a very severe form of
Head aches and nausea dependence, one involving an overwhelming
Appearance of intoxication compulsion for the use of a particular drug.
Drowsiness ADULTERANT - Material used to increase the
Poor muscle control mass of a controlled substance. Adulterants
Changes in appetite produce physiological effects and give the
Anxiety illusion that more controlled substance is
present than its actual content.
ALKALOID - One of a group of nitrogenous
organic bases, especially one of vegetable
origin, having a powerful toxic effect on
animals and man, such as nicotine, cocaine,
strychnine, or morphine.
AMITRIPTYLINE - A tricyclic antidepressant
drug, found to impair skilled performance and to
be additive with ethanol in its adverse effects.
AMOBARBITAL - A barbiturate derivative
used as a sedative or hypnotic; available in
ampules for intravenous or intramuscular
injection for the control of seizures.
AMPHETAMINE - A drug that is
representative of a class of structurally related
compounds known as phenethylamines. Basis of
a group of hallucinogenic,habit-forming drugs
that affect the central nervous system.The sale
and use restricted to physicians; trade name
Benzedrine.
ANALGESIC - Any drugs, such as salicylates,
morphine, or opiates used primarily for the
relief of pain.
ANAPHYLAXIS - An allergic hypersensitivity
reaction of the body to a foreign protein or drug.
ANTIDEPRESSANT - A drug, such as
imipramine and tranylcypromine, that relieves
depression by increasing central sympathetic
activity.
ANTISERA - Injecting human serum into
various animals, such as the horse, goat,sheep,
rabbit, duck, hen, or guinea pig, can produce
antihuman sera.
ANTISERUM - Any immune serum that
contains antibodies active chiefly in destroying
a specific infecting virus or bacterium.
BARBITURATE - A derivative of barbituric
acid that produces depression of the central
nervous system and consequent sedation.
BENZOYLECOGNINE - A cocaine
metabolite.
BUTABARBITAL - A short- to intermediate-
acting barbiturate derivative.
BUTALBITAL - An occasionally encountered
short-acting barbiturate closely related to
Talbutal and less closely to Amobarbital and
Secobarbital. Intoxication can result in lethargy,
confusion, disorientation, and ataxia.
CANNABIDIOL - A constituent of cannabis,
which, upon isomerization to a
tetrahydrocannabinol, has some of the
physiologic activity of marijuana.
CANNABINOL - (C21H26O2) A
physiologically inactive phenol formed by
spontaneous dehydrogenation of
tetrahydrocannabinol from cannabis.
CANNABIS - A genus of tall annual herbs in
the family Cannabaccae having erect stems,
with 3 to 7 elongated leaflets and pistillate
flowers in spikes along the stem. Commonly
known as marijuana or sometimes referred to on
the street as grass or pot.
CHRONIC - Persistent, prolonged, repeated.
CHRONIC EFFECT - A pathologic process
caused by repeated exposures over a period of
long duration.
CHRONIC TOLERANCE - The gradual
decrease in degree of effect produced at the
same blood concentration in the course of
repeated exposure to that drug.
COCAINE - A colorless to white crystalline
powder. Used as a local anesthetic (medicine or
dentistry), usually as the hydrochloride. Also
known by street names, such as coke, snow, or
freebase.
CODEINE - A narcotic alkaloid that is used in
medicine and cough syrups; highly toxic and
habit-forming narcotic.
CONCENTRATION - The amount of a
substance in a stated unit of a mixture or
solution. Common methods of stating
concentration are percent by weight,percent by
volume, or weight per unit volume. Amount of a
drug in a unit volume of biological fluid,
expressed as weight/volume.
CONFIRMATORY TEST - Second test by an
alternative chemical method for unambiguous
identification of a drug or metabolite.
CRACK - Concentrated form of cocaine, which
is used in vapor form. It is smoked or inhaled
through crack pipes. It is a highly addictive drug
that causes psychotic behavior, which is often
violent. Almost pure form of the drug cocaine
hydrochloride, obtained from a shrub native to
Bolivia and Peru. It can cause increased
alertness and energy, runny nose, and decreased
appetite when snorted, injected, or smoked.
CUT-OFF CONCENTRATION -
Concentration of a drug in a specimen or sample
used to determine whether the specimen or
sample is considered positive or negative. In
some circumstances it is recommended that the
cut-off concentration should be set equal to the
limit of detection.
DEPRESSANTS - Drugs that depress the
action of the central nervous system such as
phenobarbital, pentobarbital, and alcohol.
DESIGNER DRUGS - Drugs that are produced
illicitly by means of chemical technology.They
can cause uncontrollable tremors, chills, or
sweating and faintness and paranoia when
injected or taken in pill form.
DIAZEPAM - (valium) The second
benzodiazepine derivative to have been
approved for human usage has been one of the
most frequently prescribed drugs in the United
States. It is administered as an antianxiety
agent,muscle relaxant, or anticonvulsant.
DRUG - Any natural or synthetic substance that
is administered to produce specific
physiological or psychological effects.
DRUG ABUSE - The nonmedicinal use of a
drug in a manner that is not socially acceptable.
DRUG DEPENDENCE - The primary hazard
of the abusive use of drugs is the likelihood for
some individuals to develop a “need” or
compulsive desire that may occur as a result of a
psychological or a physical craving.
HALLUCINOGENS - Drugs like marijuana,
LSD, PSP, and ecstasy that produce changes in
mood, thought and perception.
HASHISH - Purified resin prepared from the
flowering tops of the female cannabis plant and
smoked or chewed as a narcotic or an intoxicant.
IMPRAMINE - The prototype of the tricyclic
antidepressant drugs.
MARIJUANA - Popular name for the dried
flowers and leaves of Cannabis sativa.
MEPERIDINE HYDROCHLORIDE - A
fine, white, odorless, crystalline powder; very
soluble in water, soluble in alcohol, and used in
medicine as a narcotic.
METHADONE HYDROCHLORIDE - A
synthetic narcotic. Used medicinally as a
sedative and also useful in treating heroin
addiction.
METHAMPHETAMINE - Colorless, volatile
liquid; characteristic strong odor and slightly
burning taste. Highly toxic, flammable, as well
as a dangerous fire risk. Basis of a group of
hallucinogenic, habit-forming drugs that affect
the central nervous system.
MORPHINE - White crystalline alkaloid,
slightly soluble in water, alcohol, and ether;
highly toxic, narcotic, habit-forming drug.
MUSHROOM - (Drugs) Umbrella-shaped
fungus, some varieties of which contain a drug
that can cause hyperventilation, tremors, and
hyperactivity when the fungus is chewed,
smoked, or ground and infused in water and
drunk as a tea.
NARCOTIC - Pharmacologically, any
substance that produces narcosis, a stuporous
state resembling sleep, and characterized by loss
of sensation. Addictive substance that reduces
pain, alters mood and behavior, and usually
induces sleep or stupor.
OPIATES - Natural, semi-synthetic, or
synthetic substances with morphine-like effects
in the body. They are primarily employed as
analgesics and can be considered narcotic in
their effects.
OPIUM - A highly toxic plant alkaloid that is a
habit-forming narcotic; one source of opium is
morphine.
OVERDOSE - An excessive dose of medicine
or narcotic substance.
PeyOTE - The common name for the small
Mexican cactus, Lophophora williamsii,which
contains the hallucinogen, mescaline.
PHARMACODYNAMICS - The study of the
relationship of drug concentration to drug
effects.
PHARMACOKINETICS - The study of the
time course of the processes
(absorption,distribution, metabolism, and
excretion) a drug undergoes in the body.
PHARMACOLOGIC - Relating to the study
of drugs and their origin, natural properties,and
effects on living organisms.
PHENCYCLIDINE (PCP) - Has an anesthetic
activity and is manufactured legitimately for use
as a veterinary anesthetic. It has no legitimate
use in humans because of its hallucinogenic
actions. The effects on humans are considered
euphoric, but at times depression or anxiety and
aggressive behavior are produced. Common
street names are PCP, peace pill,hog, and angel
dust.
PICKING - Adherence of a drug to the face of
the punch used to produce a tablet.Picking
creates holes in the surfaces of pressed tablets,
usually near letters such as A or R.
PROPOXYPHENE - A mildly effective
narcotic analgesic, somewhat less potent than
codeine, that bears a close structural relationship
to methadone.
QUALITATIVE TEST - A test that determines
the presence or absence of specific drugs or
metabolites, proteins, or enzymes in the
specimen or sample.
QUININE - Bulky, white, amorphous powder
or crystalline alkaloid; very bitter taste; odorless
and levorotatory. Used in medicine as an
antimalarial drug.
SECOBARBITAL - A barbiturate derivative of
short duration of action; used as either a
sedative or hypnotic.
SOLVENT - A substance capable of dissolving
another substance (solute) to form a uniformly
dispersed mixture (solution) at the molecular or
ionic size level.
STIMULANTS - Drugs that increase the
activity of the central nervous system, creating
feelings of confidence and energy. A drug that
produces a temporary increase of functional
activity or efficiency. A drug that increases
alertness and motor activity and, at the same
time, reduces fatigue, allowing the individual to
remain awake for an extended period of time. It
can cause weight loss, increased respiration and
heart rate, blurred vision, and anxiety when
snorted,injected, smoked, or swallowed in
capsule, tablet, or pill form.
STRYCHNINE - An alkaloid found together
with the less active brucine in the seed of
Strychnos nux-vomica, a tree indigenous to
India. It is a potent central nervous system
stimulant and convulsant, acting by the selective
blockage of postsynaptic neuronal inhibition.
SUBSTANCE ABUSE - Use of alcohol or
drugs that results in adverse effects on the user.
Substance abuse is a major health and social
problem in the United States among adolescents.
TOLERANCE - A state that develops after
long-term exposure to a drug. Metabolic
tolerance infers a faster removal and oxidation
by the liver. Functional tolerance infers a
change in sensitivity of the organ to the effects
of the drug.
F. FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON
INVESTIGATION
3 STATES OF MATTER
Solid
Liquid
Gas
4 GENERAL CATEGORIES OF HEAT
ENERGY
Chemical Heat Energy
Electrical Heat Energy
Mechanical Heat Energy
Nuclear Heat Energy
BACKDRAFT - a phenomenon in which a fire
that has consumed all available oxygen
suddenly explodes when more oxygen is made
available, typically because a door or window
has been opened.
BOILING POINT - The temperature of a
substance where the rate of evaporation exceeds
the rate of condensation.
BRITISH THERMAL UNIT - (BTU)  The
amount of heat needed to raise the temperature
of one pound of water one degree F.
CALORIE - The amount of heat needed to
raise the temperature of one gram of water one
degree Centigrade.
CENTIGRADE - (Celcius)  On the Centigrade
scale, zero is the melting point of ice; 100
degrees is the boiling point of water.
CHEMICAL HEAT ENERGY
HEAT OF COMBUSTION - The amount of
heat generated by the combustion (oxidation)
process.
HEAT OF DECOMPOSITION - The release
of heat from decomposing compounds.  These
compounds may be unstable and release their
heat very quickly or they may detonate.
HEAT OF SOLUTION - The heat released by
the mixture of matter in a liquid.  Some acids,
when dissolved, give off sufficient heat to pose
exposure problems to nearby combustibles.
SPONTANEOUS HEATING - The heating of
an organic substance without the addition of
external heat.  Spontaneous heating occurs most
frequently where sufficient air is not present to
dissipate the heat produced.  The speed of a
heating reaction doubles with each 180 F (80 C)
temperature increase.
CLASSIFICATION OF FIRES
CLASS A FIRE - Fires involving ordinary
combustible materials, such as wood, cloth,
paper, rubber and many plastics.
CLASS B FIRES - Fires involving flammable
liquids, greases and gases.
CLASS C FIRES - Fires involving energized
electrical equipment.
CLASS D FIRES - Fires involving combustible
metals, such as magnesium, titanium, zirconium,
sodium and potassium.
CLASS K FIRES - Class K is a new
classification of fire as of 1998 and involves
fires in combustible cooking fuels such as
vegetable or animal fats.
COMBUSTION - is the self-sustaining process
of rapid oxidation of a fuel being reduced by an
oxidizing agent along with the evolution of heat
and light.
DRY CHEMICALS AND HALONS - method
of fire extinguishment, interrupt the flame
producing chemical reaction, resulting in rapid
extinguishment.
ELECTRICAL HEAT ENERGY
DIELECTRIC HEATING - The heating that
results from the action of either pulsating direct
current, or alternating current at high frequency
on a non-conductive material.
HEAT FROM ARCING - Heat released either
as a high-temperature arc or as molten material
from the conductor.
HEAT GENERATED BY LIGHTNING -
The heat generated by the discharged of
thousands of volts from either earth to cloud,
cloud to cloud or from cloud to ground.
INDUCTION HEATING - The heating of
materials resulting from an alternating current
flow causing a magnetic field influence.
LEAKAGE CURRENT HEATING - The heat
resulting from imperfect or improperly insulated
electrical materials.  This is particularly evident
where the insulation is required to handle high
voltage or loads near maximum capacity.
RESISTANCE HEATING - The heat
generated by passing an electrical force through
a conductor such as a wire or an appliance.
STATIC ELECTRICITY HEATING - Heat
released as an arc between oppositely charged
surfaces.  Static electricity can be generated by
the contact and separation of charged surfaces or
by fluids flowing through pipes.
ENDOTHERMIC HEAT REACTION - A
chemical reaction where a substance absorbs
heat energy.
EXOTHERMIC HEAT REACTION - A
chemical reaction where a substance gives off
heat energy.
FAHRENHEIT - On the Fahrenheit scale, 32
degrees is the melting point of ice; 212 degrees
is the boiling point of water.
FIRE POINT - The temperature at which a
liquid fuel will produce vapors sufficient to
support combustion once ignited.  The fire point
is usually a few degrees above the flash point.
FIRE TRIANGLE - Oxygen, Fuel, Heat
FIRE NATIONAL TRAINING INSTITUTE
- (FNTI) the Institution for training on human
resource development of all personnel of the
Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP).
FLAME - A gas-phased combustion.
FLAMMABLE OR EXPLOSIVE LIMIT -
The percentage of a substance in air that will
burn once it is ignited.  Most substances have an
upper (too rich) and a lower (too lean)
flammable limit.
FLASHOVER - an instance of a fire spreading
very rapidly across a gap because of intense
heat. Occurs when a room or other area becomes
heated to the point where flames flash over the
entire surface or area.
FLASH POINT - The minimum temperature at
which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to
form an ignitable mixture with the air near the
surface.  At this temperature, the ignited vapors
will flash, but will not continue to burn.
FUEL - is the material or substance being
oxidized or burned in the combustion process.
Material such as coal, gas, or oil that is burned
to produce heat or power.
FUEL REMOVAL - method of fire
extinguishment, fire is effectively extinguished
by removing the fuel source.  This may be
accomplished by stopping the flow of liquid or
gaseous fuel or by removing solid fuel in the
path of the fire or allow the fire to burn until all
fuel is consumed.
GLOWING COMBUSTION - A condensed
phased combustion.
HEAT - the quality of being hot; high
temperature. A form of energy arising from the
random motion of the molecules of bodies,
which may be transferred by conduction,
convection, or radiation.
HEATING - is transfer of energy, from a hotter
body to a colder one, other than by work or
transfer of matter.
HEAT OF COMBUSTION - The amount of
heat generated by the combustion (oxidation)
process.
HEAT TRANSFER
CONDUCTION - Conduction is the transfer of
energy through matter from particle to particle.
Heat may be conducted from one body to
another by direct contact of the two bodies or by
an intervening heat-conducting medium.
CONVECTION - is the transfer of heat by the
actual movement of the warmed matter.
Transfer of heat by the movement of air or
liquid.
RADIATION - Electromagnetic waves that
directly transport energy through space.
IGNITION TEMPERATURE - The minimum
temperature to which a fuel in air must be
heated in order to start self-sustained
combustion independent of the heating source.
HEAT - The form of energy that raises
temperature.  Heat is measured by the amount of
work it does.
HEAT OF DECOMPOSITION - The release
of heat from decomposing compounds. These
compounds may be unstable and release their
heat very quickly or they may detonate.
HEAT OF SOLUTION - The heat released by
the mixture of matter in a liquid.  Some acids,
when dissolved, give off sufficient heat to pose
exposure problems to nearby combustibles.
MECHANICAL HEAT ENERGY
FRICTIONAL HEAT - The heat generated by
the movement between two objects in contact
with each other.
FRICTION SPARKS - The heat generated in
the form of sparks from solid objects striking
each other.  Most often at least one of the
objects is metal.
HEAT OF COMPRESSION - The heat
generated by the forced reduction of a gaseous
volume.  Diesel engines ignite fuel vapor
without a spark plug by the use of this principle.
NUCLEAR FISSION AND FUSION - The
heat generated by either the
splitting or combining of atoms.
OXIDATION - The complex chemical reaction
of organic material with oxygen or other
oxidizing agents in the formation of more stable
compounds.
OXIDIZING AGENTS - are those materials
that yield oxygen or other oxidizing gases
during the course of a chemical reaction.
OXYGEN DILUTION - is the reduction of the
oxygen concentration to the fire area.
PHASES OF FIRE
Incipient Phase (Growth Stage)   Administration, Assistant Regional Director for
Free-Burning Phase (Fully Developed Stage)
Smoldering Phase (Decay Stage)
PRODUCTS OF COMBUSTION
Fire gases
Flame
Heat
Smoke
PYROLYSIS (also known as thermalde
composition) - is defined as the chemical
decomposition of matter through the action of
heat.
RA 6975 - CREATED THE BFP.
BUREAU OF FIRE PROTECTION (BFP) -
administers and enforces the fire code of the
Philippines. The Fire Bureau shall have the
power to  investigate all causes of fires and, if
necessary, file the proper  complaints with the
city or provincial prosecutor who has
jurisdiction  over the case.
CHIEF OF THE FIRE BUREAU - rank is
Director.
DEPUTY CHIEF FOR ADMINISTRATION
OF THE FIRE BUREAU - 2nd highest officer
in the BFP. Rank is Chief Superintendent.
DEPUTY CHIEF FOR OPERATION OF
THE FIRE BUREAU - the 3rd highest officer
in the BFP. Rank is Chief Superintendent.
CHIEF OF DIRECTORIAL STAFF OF
THE FIRE BUREAU - 4th highest officer in
the BFP. Rank is Chief Superintendent.
DIRECTORS OF THE DIRECTORATES
IN THE RESPECTIVE NATIONAL
HEADQUARTERS OFFICE - rank is Senior
Superintendent.
REGIONAL DIRECTOR FOR FIRE
PROTECTION - The BFP  shall establish,
operate and maintain their respective regional
offices in each of the administrative regions of
the country. Rank is Senior Superintendent.
- He/She shall be respectively assisted by the
following officers with the rank of
superintendent: Assistant Regional Director for
Operations, and Regional Chief of Directorial
Staff.
ASSISTANT REGIONAL DIRECTOR FOR
FIRE PROTECTION – The assistant heads of
the Department's regional offices – rank is
Senior Superintendent.
DISTRICT FIRE MARSHALL - the heads of
the NCR district offices - rank is Senior
Superintendent.
PROVINCIAL FIRE MARSHALL - the
heads of the provincial offices - rank is
Superintendent.
DISTRICT FIRE MARSHALL - heads of the
district offices – rank is Chief Inspector.
CHIEF OF MUNICIPAL/CITY FIRE
STATION - (also called City/ Municipal Fire
Marshall) - the heads of the municipal or city
stations - rank is Senior Inspector.
FIRE STATION - at least one in every
provincial capital, city and municipality.
LGU - (Local Government Unit) - shall
provide the site of the Fire Station.
RA 9263 - this Act shall be known as the
"Bureau of Fire Protection and Bureau of Jail
Management and Penology Professionalization
Act of 2004.
The BFP is headed by a Chief to be assisted by
2 deputy chief, 1 for administration and 1 for
operation, all appointed by the President upon
recommendation of DILG Secretary from
among qualified officers with at least the rank of
Senior Superintendent in the service.
In no case shall any officer who has retired or is
retriable within six (6) months from his/her
compulsory retirement age be appointed as
Chief of the Fire Bureau or Chief of the Jail
Bureau.
The Chief of the Fire Bureau and Chief of the
Jail Bureau shall serve a tour of duty not to
exceed four (4) years.
The President may extend such tour of duty in
times of war or other national emergency
declared by Congress.
RA 9514 - this act shall be known as the fire
code of the Philippines of 2008. An Act
establishing a comprehensive fire code of the
Philippines repealing PD 1185 and for other
purposes.
SPECIFIC GRAVITY - the density of liquids
in relation to water.
SPONTANEOUS HEATING - The heating of
an organic substance without the addition of
external heat.  Spontaneous heating occurs most
frequently where sufficient air is not present to
dissipate the heat produced.
TEMPERATURE REDUCTION - method of
extinguishing fire,  cooling the fuel with water
to a point where it does not produce sufficient
vapor to burn.
VAPOR DENSITY - the density of a particular
gas or vapor relative to that of hydrogen at the
same pressure and temperature.
DEFINITION OF TERMS UNDER RA 9514
ABATEMENT - Any act that would remove or
neutralize a fire hazard.
ADMINISTRATOR - Any person who acts as
agent of the owner and ma nages the use of a
building for him.
BLASTING AGENT - Any material or mixture
consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off
explosives.
CELLULOSE NITRATE OR NITRO
CELLULOSE - A highly combustible and
explosive compound produced by the reaction
of nitric acid with a cellulose material.
CELLULOSE NITRATE PLASTIC
(Pyroxylin) - Any plastic substance, materials
or compound having cellulose nitrate (nitro
cellulose) as base.
COMBUSTIBLE, FLAMMABLE OR
INFLAMMABLE - Descriptive of materials
that are easily set on fire.
COMBUSTIBLE FIBER - Any readily
ignitable and free burning fiber such as cotton,
oakum, rags, waste cloth, waste paper, kapok,
hay, straw, Spanish moss, excelsior and other
similar materials commonly used in commerce.
COMBUSTIBLE LIQUID - Any liquid having
a flash point at or above 37.8 C (100 F).
CORROSIVE LIQUID - Any liquid which
causes fire when in contact with organic matter
or with certain chemicals.
CURTAIN BOARD - A vertical panel of non-
combustible or fire resistive materials attached
to and extending below the bottom chord of the
roof trusses, to divide the underside of the roof
into separate compartments so that heat and
smoke will be directed upwards to a roof vent.
CRYOGENIC - Descriptive of any material
which by its nature or as a result of its reaction
with other elements produces a rapid drop in
temperature of the immediate surroundings.
DAMPER - A normally open device installed
inside an air duct system which automatically
closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire.
DISTILLATION - The process of first raising
the temperature in separate the more volatile
from the less volatile parts and then cooling and
condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce
a nearly purified substance.
DUCT SYSTEM - A continuous passageway
for the transmission of air.
DUST - A finely powdered substance which,
when mixed with air in the proper proportion
and ignited will cause an explosion.
ELECTRICAL ARC - An extremely hot
luminous bridge formed by passage of an
electric current across a space between two
conductors or terminals due to the
incandescence of the conducting vapor.
EMBER - A hot piece or lump that remains
after a material has partially burned, and is still
oxidizing without the manifestation of flames.
FINISHES - Materials used as final coating of a
surface for ornamental or protective purposes.
FIRE - The active principle of burning,
characterized by the heat and light of
combustion.
FIRE TRAP - A building unsafe in case of fire
because it will burn easily or because it lacks
adequate exits or fire escapes.
FIRE ALARM - Any visual or audible signal
produced by a device or system to warm the
occupants of the building or fire fighting
elements of the presence or danger of fire to
enable them to undertake immediate action to
save life and property and to suppress the fire.
FIRE DOOR - A fire resistive door prescribed
for openings in fire separation walls or
partitions.
FIRE HAZARD - Any condition or act which
increases or may cause an increase in the
probability of the occurrence of fire, or which
may obstruct, delay, hinder or interfere with fire
fighting operations and the safeguarding of life
and property.
FIRE LANE - The portion of a roadway or
public way that should be kept opened and
unobstructed at all times for the expedient
operation of fire fighting units.
FIRE PROTECTIVE AND FIRE SAFETY
DEVICE - Any device intended for the
protection of buildings or persons to include but
not limited to built-in protection system such as
sprinklers and other automatic extinguishing
system, detectors for heat, smoke and
combustion products and other warning system
components, personal protective equipment such
as fire blankets, helmets, fire suits, gloves and
other garments that may be put on or worn by
persons to protect themselves during fire.
FIRE SAFETY CONSTRUCTIONS - Refers
to design and installation of walls, barriers,
doors, windows, vents, means of egress, etc.
integral to and incorporated into a building or
structure in order to minimize danger to life
from fire, smoke, fumes or panic before the
building is evacuated. These features are also
designed to achieve, among others, safe and
rapid evacuation of people through means of
egress sealed from smoke or fire, the
confinement of fire or smoke in the room or
floor of origin and de lay their spread to other
parts of the building by means of smoke sealed
and fire resistant doors, walls and floors.It shall
also me an to include the treatment of buildings
components or contents with flame retardant
chemicals.
FLASH POINT - The minimum temperature at
which any material gives off vapor in sufficient
concentration to form an ignitable mixture with
air.
FORCING - A process where a piece of metal
is heated prior to changing its shape or
dimensions.
FULMINATE - A kind of stable explosive
compound which explodes by percussion.
HAZARDOUS OPERATION/PROCESS -
Any act of manufacturing, fabrication,
conversion, etc., that uses or produces materials
which are likely to cause fires or explosion.
HORIZONTAL EXIT - Passageway from one
building to another or through or around a wall
in approximately the same floor level.
HOSE BOX - A box or cabinet where fire
hoses, valves and other equipment are stored
and arranged for fire fighting.
HOSE REEL - A cylindrical device turning on
an axis around which a fire hose is wound and
connected.
HYPERGOLIC FUEL - A rocket or liquid
propellant which consist of combinations of
fuels and oxidizers which ignite spontaneously
on contact with each other.
INDUSTRIAL BAKING AND DRYING -
The industrial process of subjecting
materials to heat for the purpose of removing
solvents or moisture from the same, and/or to
fuse certain chemical salts to form a uniform
glazing the surface of materials being treated.
JUMPER - A piece of metal or an electrical
conductor used to bypass a safety device in an
electrical system.
OCCUPANCY - The purpose for which a
building or portion thereof is used or intended to
be used.
OCCUPANT - Any person actually occupying
and using a building or portions thereof by
virtue of a lease contract with the owner or
administrator or by permission or sufferance of
the latter.
ORGANIC PEROXIDE - A strong oxidizing
organic compound which releases oxygen
readily. It causes fire when in contact with
combustible materials especially under
conditions of high temperature.
OVERLOADING - The use of one or more
electrical appliances or devices which draw or
consume electrical current beyond the designed
capacity of the existing electrical system.
OWNER - The person who holds the legal right
of possession or title to a building or real
property.
OXIDIZING MATERIAL - A material that
readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to
stimulate or support combustion.
PRESSURIZED OR FORCED DRAFT
BURNING EQUIPMENT - Type or burner
where the fuel is subjected to pressure prior to
discharge into the combustion chamber and/or
which includes fans or other provisions for the
introduction of air at above normal atmosphere
pressure into the same combustion chamber.
PUBLIC ASSEMBLY BUILDING - Any
building or structure where fifty (50) or more
people congregate, gather, or assemble for any
purpose.
PUBLIC WAY - Any street, alley or other strip
of land unobstructed from the ground to the sky,
deeded, dedicated or otherwise permanently
appropriated for public use.
PYROPHORIC - Descriptive of any substance
that ignites spontaneously when exposed to air.
REFINING - A process where impurities
and/or deleterious materials are removed from a
mixture in order to produce a pure element of
compound. It shall also refer to partial
distillation and electrolysis.
SELF-CLOSING DOORS - Automatic closing
doors that are designed to confine smoke and
heat and delay the spread of fire.
SMELTING - Melting or fusing of metallic
ores or compounds so as to separate impurities
from pure metals.
SPRINKLER SYSTEM - An integrated
network of hydraulically designed piping
installed in a building, structure or area with
outlets arranged in a systematic pattern which
automatically discharges water when activated
by heat or combustion products from a fire.
STANDPIPE SYSTEM - A system of vertical
pipes in a building to which fire hoses can be
attached on each floor, including a system by
which water is made available to the outlets as
needed.
VESTIBULE - A passage hall or antechamber
between the outer doors and the interior parts of
a house or building.
VERTICAL SHAFT - An enclosed vertical
space of passage that extends from floor to
floor, as well as from the base to the top of the
building.
    
5. CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
A. INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
ALCATRAZ - a US federal penitentiary, Often
referred to as "The Rock", the small island of
alcatraz was developed with facilities for a
lighthouse, a military fortification, a military
prison (1868), and a federal prison from 1933
until 1963.
ALEXANDER MACONOCHIE - was a
Scottish naval officer, geographer, and penal
reformer. He is known as the Father of Parole.
HIS 2 BASIC PRINCIPLE OF PENOLOGY
1. As cruelty debases both the victim and
society, punishment should not be vindictive but
should aim at the reform of the convict to
observe social constraints, and
2. A convict's imprisonment should consist of
task, not time sentences, with release depending
on the performance of a measurable amount of
labour.
AUBURN PRISON - Constructed in 1816 ,
(opened 1819) it was the second state prison in
New York, the site of the first execution by
electric chair in 1890. It uses the silent or
congregate system.
BANISHMENT - a punishment originating in
ancient times, that required offenders to leave
the community and live elsewhere, commonly in
the wilderness.
BJMP - (Bureau of Jail Management and
Penology) government agency mandated by law
(RA 6975) to take operational and
administrative control over all city, district and
municipal jails. It takes custody of detainees
accused before a court who are temporarily
confined in such jails while undergoing
investigation, waiting final judgement and those
who are serving sentence promulgated by the
court 3 years and below.
- created Jan. 2, 1991.
- Charles S. Mondejar - 1st BJMP chief.
- BJMP chief tour of duty, must not exceed 4
years, maybe extended by President. Grounds:
1. In times of war
2. other national emergencies.
- Senior superintendent - the rank from which
the BJMP chief is appointed. This is the rank of
the BJMP Directors of the Directorates in the
National Headquarters. This is also the rank of
the Regional Director for Jail Management and
Penology.
CHIEF OF THE BJMP - Highest ranking
BJMP officer. Appointed by the President upon
recommendation of DILG Secretary. Rank is
Director.
BJMP DEPUTY CHIEF FOR
ADMINISTRATION - the 2nd highest ranking
BJMP officer. Appointed by the President upon
recommendation of the DILG Secretary. Rank is
Chief Superintendent.
BJMP DEPUTY CHIEF FOR
OPERATIONS - the 3rd highest ranking BJMP
officer. Appointed by the President upon
recommendation of the DILG Secretary. Rank is
Chief Superintendent.
BJMP CHIEF OF THE DIRECTORIAL
STAFF - the 4th highest BJMP officer.
Appointed by the President upon
recommendation of the DILG Secretary. Rank is
Chief Superintendents.
BORSTAL - a custodial institution for young
offenders.
BORSTAL SYSTEM - rehabilitation method
formerly used in Great Britain for delinquent
boys aged 16 to 21. The idea originated (1895)
with the Gladstone Committee as an attempt to
reform young offenders. The first institution was
established (1902) at Borstal Prison, Kent,
England.
BRANDING - stigmatizing is the process in
which a mark, usually a symbol or ornamental
pattern, is burned into the skin of a living
person, with the intention that the resulting scar
makes it permanent as a punishment or
imposing masterly rights over an enslaved or
otherwise oppressed person.
BRIDEWELL PRISON AND
WORKHOUSE - was the first correctional
institution in England and was a precursor of the
modern prison. Built initially as a royal
residence in 1523, Bridewell Palace was given
to the city of London to serve as the foundation
for as system of Houses of Correction known as
“Bridewells.” These institutions, eventually
numbering 200 in Britain, housed vagrants,
homeless children, petty offenders, disorderly
women, prisoners of war, soldiers, and colonists
sent to Virginia.
BRIDEWELL PRISON AND HOSPITAL -
was established in a former royal palace in 1553
with two purposes: the punishment of the
disorderly poor and housing of homeless
children in the City of London.
BUREAU OF CORRECTIONS - has for its
principal task the rehabilitation of national
prisoners, or those sentenced to serve a term of
imprisonment of more than three years.
- has 7 prison facilities
- 1 prison institution for women
- 1 vocational training centre for juveniles.
- Classification Board - classifies inmates
according to their security status.
- Reception and Diagnostic Centre - (RDC)
receives, studies and classifies inmates
committed to Bureau of Corrections.
- Board of Discipline - hears complaints and
grievances with regard to violations of prison
rules and regulations.
- Iwahig Penal Farm - established in 1904 upon
orders of Gov. Forbes, then the Sec. of
Commerce and police.
- New Bilibid Prison - established in 1941 in
Muntinlupa Camp Bukang Liwayway -
minimum security prison. Camp Sampaguita -
medium security prison
- Davao penal Colony - established jan 21, 1932
(RA 3732)
- Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm - established
Sept.27, 1954 (Proclamation No.72)
location:Occidental Mindoro
- Leyte Regional Prison - established Jan.16,
1973
- Old Bilibid Prison - First Penal Institution in
the Phil. designated as insular penitentiary by
Royal Decree in 1865.
 
BURNING AT STAKE - a form of ancient
punishment by tying the victim in a vertical post
and burning him/her.
CESARE BECCARIA - an Italian
criminologist, jurist, philosopher and politician
best known for his treaties On Crimes and
Punishments (1764), which condemned torture
and the death penalty, and was a founding work
in the field of penology and the Classical School
of criminology
CHARLES MONTESQUIEU - a french
lawyer, who analyzed law as an expression of
justice. He is famous for his articulation of the
theory of separation of powers, which is
implemented in many constitutions throughout
the world.
CODE OF JUSTINIAN -  formally Corpus
Juris Civilis (“Body of Civil Law”), Justinian I
the collections of laws and legal interpretations
developed under the sponsorship of the
Byzantine emperor Justinian I from AD 529 to
565.
COMMITMENT ORDER - is an act of
sending a person to prison by means of such a
warrant or order.
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION -
the study and practice of a system of managing
jails and prisons and other institutions
concerned with the custody, treatment and
rehabilitation of criminal offenders.
CORRECTIONS - describes a variety of
functions typically carried out by government
agencies, and involving the punishment,
treatment, and supervision of persons who have
been convicted of crimes.
DEATH ROW - refers to incarcerated persons
who have been sentenced to death and are
awaiting execution.
DETERRENCE - as contended by Cesare
Beccaria, proponent of the classical theory, that
punishment is to prevent others from
committing crime.
DIRECTOR CHARLES S. MONDEJAR -
the first Chief of BJMP. He took his oath of
office on July 1 of   1991.
DISTRICT JAIL - is a cluster of small jails,
each having a monthly average population of ten
or less inmates and is located in the vicinity of
the court.
DRACO - was the first legislator of ancient
Athens, Greece, 7th century BC. He replaced
the prevailing system of oral law and blood feud
by a written code to be enforced only by a court.
DUCKING STOOL - a chair fastened to the
end of a pole, used formerly to plunge offenders
into a pond or river as a punishment.
DUNGEON - a dark cell, usually underground
where prisoners are confined.
ELMIRA REFORMATORY - located in new
York, was originally a prison opened to contain
Confederate prisoners of war during the Civil
War. It became known as a “death camp”
because of the squalid conditions and high death
rate in its few years of operation. Established
1876.
ELMIRA SYSTEM - An American penal
system named after Elmira Reformatory, in New
York. In 1876 Zebulon R. Brockway became an
innovator in the reformatory movement by
establishing Elmira Reformatory for young
felons. The Elmira system classified and
separated various types of prisoners, gave them
individualized treatment emphasizing vocational
training and industrial employment, used
indeterminate sentences.
ERGASTULUM - is a Roman prison used to
confine slaves. They were attached to work
benches and forced to do hard labor in period of
imprisonment.
EXEMPLARITY - the criminal is punished to
serve as an example to others to deter further
commission of crime.
EXPIATION - (Atonement) execution of
punishment visibly or publicly for the purpose
of appeasing a social group. Expiation is a group
vengeance as distinguished from retribution.
FIRST WOMEN'S PRISON - opened in
Indiana 1873. Based on the reformatory model.
FOUR CLASSES OF PRISONERS
1. INSULAR OR NATIONAL PRISONER –
one who is sentenced to a prison term of three
years and one day to death;
2. PROVINCIAL PRISONER – one who is
sentenced to a prison term of six months and
one day to three years;
3. CITY PRISONER – one who is sentenced to
a prison term of one day to three years; and
4. MUNICIPAL PRISONER – one who is
sentenced to a prison term of one day to six
months.
FLOGGING - (Flog) beat (someone) with a
whip or stick as a punishment.
FRED T. WILKINSON - last warden of the
Alcatraz prison.
GALLEY - a low, flat ship with one or more
sails and up to three banks of oars, chiefly used
for warfare or piracy and often manned by
slaves or criminals.
GOALS OF CRIMINAL SENTENCING
1. Retribution
2. Punishment
3. Deterrence
4. Incapacitation
5. Rehabilitation
6. Reintegration
7. Restoration
GOLDEN AGE OF PENOLOGY - 1870 -
1880
GUILLOTINE - an ancient form of capital
punishment by cutting the head.
HALFWAY HOUSE - a center for helping
former drug addicts, prisoners, psychiatric
patients, or others to adjust to life in general
society.
HAMMURABI'S CODE - an ancient code
which contain both civil and criminal law. First
known codified law prior to Roman law. Better
organized and comprehensive than biblical law.
One of its law is lex taliones (an eye for an eye)
HEDONISM - the ethical theory that pleasure
(in the sense of the satisfaction of desires) is the
highest good and proper aim of human life.
HULK - an old ship stripped of fittings and
permanently moored, especially for use as
storage or (formerly) as a prison.
IMPALEMENT - (Impaling) a form of capital
punishment, is the penetration of an organism
by an object such as a stake, pole, spear or hook,
by complete (or partial) perforation of the body,
often the central body mass.Killing by piercing
the body with a spear or sharp pole.
INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS - refers
to those persons housed in secure correctional
facilities.
JAIL - is defined as a place of confinement for
inmates under investigation or undergoing trial,
or serving short-term sentences
GAOL - old name/term of jail.
THREE TYPES OF DETAINEES
1. Those undergoing investigation;
2. those awaiting or undergoing trial; and
3. those awaiting final judgment
JAILS - HOLDS
a. Convicted offenders serving short sentences
b. Convicted offenders awaiting transfer to
prison
c. Offenders who have violated their probation
or parole
d. Defendants who are awaiting trial
JAMES V. BENNETT - was a leading
American penal reformer and prison
administrator who served as director of the
Federal Bureau of Prisons (FBOP) from 1937 to
1964. He was one of the strongest advocates in
the movement in persuading Congress to close
Alcatraz and replace it with a new maximum-
security prison, eventually successful in 1963
when it closed.
JANUARY 2, 1991 - the Bureau of Jail
Management and Penology was created thru
Republic Act 6975 as a line Bureau under the
Department of Interior and Local Government.
JEAN JACQUES VILLAIN - pioneered
classification to separate women and children
from hardened criminals.
JEREMY BENTHAM - a prison reformer,
believed that the prisoner shouldsuffer a severe
regime, but that it should not be detrimental to
the prisoner's health. He designed the
Panopticon in 1791.
JOHN HOWARD - a philanthropist and the
first English prison reformer.
JUSTICE - crime must be punished by the state
as an act of retributive justice, vindication of
absolute right and moral law violated by the
criminal.
LAPIDATION - (Stoning) the act of pelting
with stones; punishment inflicted by throwing
stones at the victim.
LEX TALIONES - an eye for an eye, a tooth
for a tooth.
LOCKUPS - Suspects usually stay in a lockup
for only 24 to 48 hours. A suspect may later be
transferred from the lockup to the jail.
MAMERTINE PRISON -  was a prison
(carcer) located in the Comitium in ancient
Rome. It was originally created as a cistern for a
spring in the floor of the second lower level.
Prisoners were lowered through an opening into
the lower dungeon.
MARK SYSTEM - developed in Australia by
Alexander Maconochie, whereby credits, or
marks, were awarded for good behaviour, a
certain number of marks being required for
release.
MITTIMUS - is a process issued by the court
after conviction to carry out the final judgment,
such as commanding a prison warden to hold
the accused, in accordance with the terms of the
judgment. Mittimus is often attached on the
commitment order issued by the court whenever
the convict is to be transferred to prison for
service of sentence.
MORTALITY RATE - A measure of the
frequency of deaths in a defined population
during a specified interval of time.
MUTILATION OR MAIMING - an ancient
form of punishment, is an act of physical injury
that degrades the appearance or function of any
living body, sometimes causing death.
NATIONAL PRISONS ASSOCIATION -
was organized in Cincinnati in 1870.
NEO-CLASSICAL - children and lunatics
should not be punished as they can not calculate
pleasure and pain.
CLASSICAL THEORY - pain must exceed
pleasure to deter crime. All are punished
regardless of age, mental condition, social status
and other circumstances.
POSITIVIST THEORY - criminal is a sick
person and should be treated and not punished.
ECLECTIC - it means selecting the best of
various styles or ideas.
NEWGATE PRISON - not a real prison but an
abandoned copper mine of Simsbury
Connecticut. Inmates are confined underground
(Black hole of horrors).
OPERATIONAL CAPACITY - the number of
inmates that can be accommodated based on a
facility's staff, existing programs, and services.
PANOPTICON - a prison design, allowed a
centrally placed observer to survey all the
inmates, as prison wings radiated out from this
central position.
PAROLE - refers to criminal offenders who are
conditionally released from prison to serve the
remaining portion of their sentence in the
community.
PAROLE AND PROBATION
ADMINISTRATION (PPA) - was created
pursuant to Presidential Decree (P.D.) No.968,
as amended, to administer the probation system.
Under Executive Order No. 292, the Probation
Administration was renamed as the Parole and
Probation Administration, and given the added
function of supervising prisoners who, after
serving part of their sentence in jails are
released on parole or granted conditional
pardon. The PPA and the Board of Pardons and
Parole are the agencies involved in the non-
institutional treatment of offenders.
PENAL MANAGEMENT - refers to the
manner or practice of managing or controlling
places of confinement such as jails and prisons.
PD NO. 603 - was promulgated to provide for
the care and treatment of youth offenders from
the time of apprehension up to the termination
of the case. Under this law, a youth offender is
defined as a child, minor or youth who is over
nine years but under eighteen years of age at the
time of the commission of the offence.
PENNSYLVANIA AND NEW YORK -
pioneered the penitentiary movement by
developing two competing systems of
confinement. The Pennsylvania system and the
Auburn system.
PENNSYLVANIA SYSTEM - An early
system of U.S. penology in which inmates were
kept in solitary cells so that they could study
religious writings, reflect on their misdeeds, and
perform handicraft work.(Solitary System).
AUBURN SYSTEM - An early system of
penology, originating at Auburn Penitentiary in
New York, under which inmates worked and ate
together in silence during the day and were
placed in solitary cells for the evening.
(Congregate System)
PENOLOGY - a branch of Criminology that
deals with prison management and reformation
of criminals.
Poene (latin) - penalty
Logos (latin) - science
PILLORY - a wooden framework with holes
for the head and hands, in which offenders were
formerly imprisoned and exposed to public
abuse.
PRISON -  which refers to the national prisons
or penitentiaries managed and supervised by the
Bureau of Corrections, an agency under the
Department of Justice.
PRISON HULKS - (1776-1857) were ships
which were anchored in the Thames, and at
Portsmouth and Plymouth. Those sent to them
were employed in hard labour during the day
and then loaded, in chains, onto the ship at
night.
PRISON REFORM - is the attempt to improve
conditions inside prisons, aiming at a more
effective penal system.
PROBATION - Probation in criminal law is a
period of supervision over an offender, ordered
by a court instead of serving time in prison.
JOHN AUGUSTUS - Father of Probation.
Augustus was born in Woburn, Massachusetts in
1785. By 1829, he was a permanent resident of
Boston and the owner of a successful boot-
making business.
FATHER COOK - a chaplain of the Boston
Prison visited the courts and gained acceptance
as an advisor who made enquiries into the
circumstances of both adult and juvenile
offenders
PROVINCIAL JAIL - under the office of the
Governor. Where the imposable penalty for the
crime committed is more than six months and
the same was committed within the
municipality, the offender must serve his or her
sentence in the provincial jail.

Where the penalty imposed exceeds three years,
the offender shall serve his or her sentence in
the penal institutions of the Bureau of
Corrections.
PUNISHMENT - the infliction or imposition of
a penalty as retribution for an offence.
QUAKERS - (or Friends, as they refer to
themselves) are members of a family of
religious movements collectively known as the
Religious Society of Friends. Many Quakers
have worked for reform of the criminal justice
systems of their day. Quakers believe that
people can always change: their focus has been
on reforms that make positive change more
likely, such as increased opportunities for
education, improved prison conditions, help
with facing up to violent impulses, and much
else.
WILLIAM PENN - founder of the Province of
Pennsylvania, the English North American
colony and the future Commonwealth of Pennsy
lvania.was the first great Quaker prison
reformer. In his ‘Great Experiment’ in
Pennsylvania in the 1680s he abolished capital
punishment for all crimes except murder. He
also stated that ‘prisons shall be workhouses,’
that bail should be allowed for minor offences’,
and ‘all prisons shall be free, as to fees, food
and lodgings’. He provided for rehabilitation, as
he stipulated that prisoners should be helped to
learn a trade, so that they could make an honest
living when they were released.
JOHN BELLERS - (1654-1725) was the
earliest British Friend to pay serious and
systematic attention to social reform. He
pleaded for the abolition of the death penalty,
the first time this plea had been made. He
argued that criminals were the creation of
society itself and urged that when in prison there
should be work for prisoners so that they might
return to the world with an urge to industry.
ELIZABETH FRY -  (1780-1845) was the
most famous of Quaker reformers, though others
were equally influential in raising public
awareness. Reforms such as the separation of
women and children from men and the
development of purposeful activity of work or
education came about through pressure from
informed people.
RA 6975 - SEC.60 TO 65, CREATED THE
BJMP.
RANK CLASSIFICATION OF BJMP
Director
Chief Superintendent
Senior Superintendent
Superintendent
Chief Inspector
Senior Inspector
Inspector
Senior Jail Officer IV
Senior Jail Officer III
Senior Jail Officer II
Senior Jail Officer I
Jail Officer III
Jail Officer II
Jail Officer I
RA 10575 - The Bureau of Corrections Act of
2013.
RACK - a form of torture or punishment
wherein pain is inflicted to to the body through
stretching.
RATED CAPACITY - the number of beds or
inmates assigned by a rating official to
institutions within the jurisdiction.
REFORMATION - the object of punishment in
a criminal case is to correct and reform the
offender.
REFORMATORY MOVEMENT - The
reformatory movement was based on principles
adopted at the 1870 meeting of the National
Prison Association.
THE REFORMATORY WAS DESIGNED:
a. for younger, less hardened offenders.
b. based on a military model of regimentation.
c. with indeterminate terms.
d. with parole or early release for favorable
progress in reformation.

REHABILITATION - to restore a criminal to a
useful life, to a life in which they contribute to
themselves and to society.
RETRIBUTION - punishment inflicted on
someone as vengeance for a wrong or criminal
act.
SECURITY LEVEL - A designation applied to
a facility to describe the measures taken, both
inside and outside, to preserve security and
custody.
THE SIMPLEST SECURITY LEVEL
CATEGORIZATION IS:
a. maximum
b. medium
c. minimum
MAXIMUM - security facilities are
characterized by very tight internal and external
security.
COMMON SECURITY MEASURES
INCLUDE: (MAXIMUM)
- A high wall or razor-wire fencing
- Armed-guard towers
- Electronic detectors
- External armed patrol
- A wide, open buffer zone between the outer
wall or fence and the community.
- Restrictions on inmate movement
- The capability of closing off areas to contain
riots or disruptions.
HOUSES THE FOLLOWING INMATES:
- Those sentenced to death
- Those sentenced with min. 20 years
- Those remanded inmates/detainees with min.
20 years sentence
- Those whose sentences is under review by SC
(min.20 years)
- Those whose sentences is under appeal
(min.20 years)
- Those with pending cases
- Those who are recidivist
ULTRA-MAXIMUM/SUPER-MAXIMUM
SECURITY PRISON -  house notorious
offenders and problem inmates from other
institutions. These institutions utilize: Total
isolation of inmates, Constant lockdowns
MEDIUM-SECURITY INSTITUTIONS -
place fewer restrictions on inmate movement
inside the facility.
CHARACTERISTICS OFTEN INCLUDE:
(MEDIUM)
- Dormitory or barracks-type living quarters
- No external security wall
- Barbed wire rather than razor wire
- Fences and towers that look less forbidding
HOUSES THE FOLLOWING INMATES:
- Those sentenced to less than 20 years
Minimum-security prisons - are smaller and
more open.
      
THEY OFTEN HOUSE INMATES WHO:
- Have established records of good behavior
- Are nearing release
CHARACTERISTICS OFTEN INCLUDE:
(MINIMUM)
- Dormitory or barracks living quarters
- No fences
- Some inmates may be permitted to leave
during the day to work or study.
- Some inmates may be granted furloughs
SING SING PRISON - was the third prison
built by New York State. It is a maximum-
security prison.
SIR EVELYN RUGGLES BRISE - was a
British prison administrator and reformer, and
founder of the Borstal system.
SIR WALTER CROFTON - the director of
Irish prisons. In his program, known as the Irish
system, prisoners progressed through three
stages of confinement before they were returned
to civilian life. The first portion of the sentence
was served in isolation. After that, prisoners
were assigned to group work projects.
STOCKS - an instrument of punishment
consisting of a heavy timber frame with holes in
which the feet and sometimes the hands of an
offender can be locked.
THREE MAJOR GOVERNMENT
FUNCTIONARIES INVOLVED IN THE
PHILIPPINE CORRECTIONAL SYSTEM:
1. DOJ
2. DILG
3. DSWD
DOJ - supervises the national penitentiaries
through the Bureau of Corrections, administers
the parole and probation system through the
Parole and Probation Administration, and assists
the President in the grant of executive clemency
through the Board of Pardons and Parole.
DILG - supervises the provincial, district, city
and municipal jails through the provincial
governments and the Bureau of Jail
Management and Penology, respectively.
DSWD - supervises the regional rehabilitation
centers for youth offenders through the Bureau
of Child and Youth Welfare.
TRANSPORTATION - a punishment in which
offenders were transported from their home
nation to one of that nation's colony to work.
TWELVE TABLES - The Law of the Twelve
Tables (Latin: Leges Duodecim Tabularum or
Duodecim Tabulae) was the ancient legislation
that stood at the foundation of Roman law.
Established basic procedural rights for all
Roman citizens as against one another
UNDERGROUND CISTERN - a reservoir for
storing liquids, an underground tank for storing
water. This was also used in prison in ancient
times.
UTILITARIANISM - a tradition stemming
from the late 18th- and 19th-century English
philosophers and economists Jeremy Bentham
and John Stuart Mill that an action is right if it
tends to promote happiness and wrong if it tends
to produce the reverse of happiness—not just
the happiness of the performer of the action but
also that of everyone affected by it.
VOLTAIRE - believes that fear of shame is a
deterrent to crime.
WALNUT STREET JAIL - opened in 1790 in
Philadelphia. Considered the 1st state prison.
Inmates labored in solitary cells and received
large doses of religious training
WORKHOUSES - European forerunners of the
modern U.S. prison, where offenders were sent
to learn discipline and regular work habits.
ZEBULON REED BROCKWAY - was a
penologist and is sometimes regarded as the
Father of prison reform and  Father of American
Parole in the United States.
B. NON-INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
BOARD OF PARDONS AND PAROLE -
was created pursuant to Act No. 4103, as
amended. It is the intent of the law to uplift and
redeem valuable human material to economic
usefulness and to prevent unnecessary and
excessive deprivation of personal liberty.
FUNCTIONS
1. To grant parole to qualified prisoners;
2. To recommend to the President the grant of
pardon and other forms of executive clemency;
3. To authorize the transfer of residence of
parolees and pardonees, order their arrest and
recommitment, or grant their final release and
discharge.
BASIS FOR GRANT OF PAROLE
1. The prisoner is fit to be released;
2. There is a reasonable probability that, if
released, he or she will live and remain at liberty
without violating the law; and
3. His or her release will not be incompatible
with the welfare of society.
HOW MAY EXECUTIVE CLEMENCY BE
EXERCISED?
1. Reprieve
2. Absolute pardon
3. Conditional pardon
4. Commutation of sentence.
COMMUTATION – refers to the reduction of
the duration of prison sentence of a prisoner.
COMMUTATION ALLOWED WHEN:
1. person is over 70 years old
2. 8 justices fail to reach a decision affirming
the death penalty
ABSOLUTE PARDON - An act of grace,
proceeding from the power entrusted with the
execution of the laws, Exempts the individual
from the penalty of the crime, he has committed.
CONDITIONAL PARDON - If delivered and
accepted, it is a contract between the executive
and the convict that the former will release the
latter upon compliance with the condition.
Example of a condition: Not to violate any of
the penal laws of the country again.
REPRIEVE - refers to the deferment of the
implementation of the sentence for an interval of
time; it does not annul the sentence but merely
postpones or suspends its execution
BASIS FOR GRANT OF EXECUTIVE
CLEMENCY
The BPP recommends to the President the grant
of executive clemency when any of the
following circumstances are present:
1. The trial or appellate court recommended in
its decision the grant of executive clemency for
the prisoner
2. Under the peculiar circumstances of the case,
the penalty imposed is too harsh compared to
the  crime committed
3. Offender qualifies as a youth offender at the
time of the commission of the offense
4. Prisoner is seventy years old and above;
5. Prisoner is terminally-ill;
6. Alien prisoners where diplomatic
considerations and amity among nations
necessitate review and
7. Other similar or analogous circumstances
whenever the interest of justice will be served
thereby
WHEN APPLICATIONS FOR
EXECUTIVE CLEMENCY WILL NOT BE
FAVOURABLY ACTED UPON BY THE
BOARD OF PARDON AND PAROLE
1. Convicted of evasion of service of sentence;
2. Who violated the conditions of their
conditional pardon;
3. Who are habitual delinquents or recidivists;
4. Convicted of kidnapping for ransom;
5. Convicted of Violation of the Dangerous
Drugs Act of 1972 and the Comprehensive
Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002;
6. Convicted of offenses committed under the
influence of drugs
7. Whose release from prison may constitute a
danger to society.
ISSUES CONFRONTING THE
PHILIPPINE CORRECTIONS SYSTEM
1. Overcrowding of Certain Prison
Institutions/Jails
2. Fragmented Set-Up of the Corrections System
3. Lack of Information Technology Systems and
Expertise
4. Lack of/Inadequate Training - lack of
awareness and understanding by some
prison/jail officials and staff on the rights of
inmates.
Petitions for parole shall be addressed to the
Chairman or to the Executive Director of the
Board. However, the Board may, motu proprio,
consider cases for parole, commutation of
sentence or conditional pardon of deserving
prisoners whenever the interest of justice will be
served thereby.
Minimum Requirements A Prisoner Must Meet
Before Petitions for executive clemency may be
reviewed.
  
FOR COMMUTATION OF SENTENCE
1. The prisoner shall have served at least one-
third (1/3) of the minimum of his indeterminate
and/or definite sentence or the aggregate
minimum of his indeterminate and/or definite
sentences.
2. At least ten (10) years for prisoners sentenced
to Reclusion Perpetua or Life imprisonment for
crimes or offenses committed before January 1,
1994.
3. At least twelve (12) years for prisoners whose
sentences were adjusted to a definite prison term
of forty (40) years in accordance with the
provisions of Article 70 of the Revised Penal
Code, as amended.
4. At least fifteen (15) years for prisoners
convicted of heinous crimes as defined in
Republic Act No. 7659 and other special laws
committed on or after January 1, 1994, and
sentenced to one or more Reclusion Perpetua or
Life imprisonment.
5. At least twenty (20) years in case of one (1)
or more Death penalty/penalties, which
was/were automatically reduced or commuted to
one (1) or more Reclusion Perpetua or Life
imprisonment.
FOR CONDITIONAL PARDON
The prisoner shall have served at least one-half
(1/2) of the minimum of his original
indeterminate and/or definite sentence.
However, in the case of a prisoner who is
convicted of a heinous crime as defined in
Republic Act No. 7659 and other special laws,
he shall have served at least one-half (1/2) of the
maximum of his original indeterminate sentence
before his case may be reviewed for conditional
pardon.
FOR ABSOLUTE PARDON
After he has served his maximum sentence or
granted final release and discharge or court
termination of probation. However, the Board
may consider a petition for absolute pardon even
before the grant of final release and discharge
under the provisions of Section 6 of Act No.
4103, as amended, as when the petitioner:
(1) is seeking an appointive/elective public
position or reinstatement in the government
service;
(2) needs medical treatment abroad which is not
available locally;
(3) will take any government examination; or
(4) is emigrating.
Prisoners who escaped or evaded service of
sentence are not eligible for executive clemency
for a period of one (1) year from the date of
their last recommitment to prison or conviction
for evasion of service of sentence.
BUREAU OF CORRECTION - Where the
penalty imposed exceeds three years, the
offender shall serve his or her sentence in the
penal institutions of the BuCor.
CARPETA - refers to the institutional record of
an inmate which consists of his mittimus or
commitment order issued by the Court after
conviction, the prosecutor's information and the
decisions of the trial court and the appellate
court, if any; certificate of non-appeal,
certificate of detention and other pertinent
documents of the case.
DISTRICT JAIL - is a cluster of small jails,
each having a monthly average population of ten
or less inmates, and is located in the vicinity of
the court.
JAIL - is defined as a place of confinement for
inmates under investigation or undergoing trial,
or serving short-term sentences.
- Jails include provincial, district, city and
municipal jails managed and supervised by the
Provincial Government and the Bureau of Jail
Management and Penology (BJMP)
respectively, which are both under the
Department of the Interior and Local
Government.
Municipal and city prisoners are committed to
municipal, city or district jails managed by the
BJMP.
PRISON -  refers to the national prisons or
penitentiaries managed and supervised by the
Bureau of Corrections, an agency under the
Department of Justice.
- prison refers to the national prisons or
penitentiaries managed and supervised by the
Bureau of Corrections, an agency under the
Department of Justice.
PROVINCIAL JAIL - Where the imposable
penalty for the crime committed is more than six
months and the same was committed within the
municipality, the offender must serve his or her
sentence in the provincial jail which is under the
Office of the Governor.
EXECUTIVE CLEMENCY - refers to
Reprieve, Absolute Pardon, Conditional Pardon
with or without Parole Conditions and
Commutation of Sentence as may be granted by
the President of the Philippines.
INDETERMINATE SENTENCE LAW
THE INDETERMINATE SENTENCE IS
COMPOSED OF:
1. a MAXIMUM taken from the penalty
imposable under the penal code
2. a MINIMUM taken from the penalty next
lower to that fixed in the code.
THE LAW DOES NOT APPLY TO
CERTAIN OFFENDERS:
1. Persons convicted of offense punished with
death penalty or life imprisonment.
2. Those convicted of treason, conspiracy or
proposal to commit treason.
3. Those convicted of misprision of treason,
rebellion, sedition or espionage.
4. Those convicted of piracy.
5. Those who are habitual delinquents.
6. Those who shall have escaped from
confinement or evaded sentence.
7. Those who violated the terms of conditional
pardon granted to them by the Chief Executive.
8. Those whose maximum term of imprisonment
does not exceed one year.
9. Those who, upon the approval of the law, had
been sentenced by final judgment.
10. Those sentenced to the penalty of destierro
or suspension.
Purpose of the law: to uplift and redeem
valuable human material and prevent
unnecessary and excessive deprivation of liberty
and economic usefulness
- It is necessary to consider the criminal first as
an individual, and second as a member of the
society.
- The law is intended to favor the defendant,
particularly to shorten his term of imprisonment,
depending upon his behavior and his physical,
mental and moral record as a prisoner, to be
determined by the Board of Indeterminate
Sentence.
The settled practice is to give the accused the
benefit of the law even in crimes punishable
with death or life imprisonment provided the
resulting penalty, after considering the attending
circumstances, is reclusion temporal or less.
ISL does not apply to destierro. ISL is expressly
granted to those who are sentenced to
imprisonment exceeding 1 year.
Procedure For Determining The Maximum and
Minimum Sentence
- It consists of a maximum and a minimum
instead of a single fixed penalty.
- Prisoner must serve the minimum before he is
eligible for parole.
- The period between the minimum and
maximum is indeterminate in the sense that the
prisoner may be exempted from serving said
indeterminate period in whole or in part.
- The maximum is determined in any case
punishable under the RPC in accordance with
the rules and provisions of said code exactly as
if the ISL had never been enacted.
- Apply first the effect of privileged mitigating
circumstances then consider the effects of
aggravating and ordinary mitigating
circumstances.
- The minimum depends upon the court’s
discretion with the limitation that it must be
within the range of the penalty next lower in
degree to that prescribed by the Code for the
offense committed.
NOTE: A minor who escaped from
confinement in the reformatory is entitled to the
benefits of the ISL because his confinement is
not considered imprisonment.
PAROLE – The suspension of the sentence of
the convict after serving the minimum term of
the intermediate penalty, without being granted
a pardon, prescribing the terms upon which the
sentence shall be suspended.
- May be given after the prisoner has served the
minimum penalty; is granted by the Board of
Pardons and Parole under the provisions of the
Indeterminate Sentence Law.
DISQUALIFICATION FOR PAROLE -
THE FOLLOWING PRISONERS SHALL
NOT BE GRANTED PAROLE:
1. Those convicted of an offense punished with
Death penalty, Reclusion Perpetua or Life
imprisonment;
2. Those convicted of treason, conspiracy or
proposal to commit treason or espionage;
3. Those convicted of misprision of treason,
rebellion, sedition or coup d'etat;
4. Those convicted of piracy or mutiny on the
high seas or Philippine waters;
5. Those who are habitual delinquents i.e. those
who, within a period of ten (10) years from the
date of release from prison or last conviction of
the crimes of serious or less serious physical
injuries, robbery, theft, estafa and falsification,
are found guilty of any of said crimes a third
time or oftener;
6. Those who escaped from confinement or
evaded sentence;
7. Those who were granted Conditional Pardon
and violated any of the terms thereof;
8. Those whose maximum term of imprisonment
does not exceed one (1) year or those with
definite sentence;
9. Those suffering from any mental disorder as
certified by a government
psychiatrist/psychologist;
10.Those whose conviction is on appeal;
11.Those who have pending criminal case/s.
SPECIAL FACTORS - The Board may give
special consideration to the recommendation for
commutation of sentence or conditional pardon
whenever any of the following circumstances
are present
1. Youthful offenders;
2. Prisoners who are sixty (60) years old and
above;
3. Physical disability such as when the prisoner
is bedridden, a deaf-mute, a leper, a cripple or is
blind or similar disabilities;
4. Serious illness and other life-threatening
diseases as certified by a government physician;
5. Those prisoners recommended for the grant
of executive clemency by the trial/appellate
court as stated in the decision;
6. Alien prisoners where diplomatic
considerations and amity between nations
necessitate review;
7. Circumstances which show that his continued
imprisonment will be inhuman or will pose a
grave danger to the life of the prisoner or his co-
inmates; and,
8. Such other similar or analogous
circumstances whenever the interest of justice
will be served thereby.
PRISON RECORD - refers to information
concerning an inmate's personal circumstances,
the offense he committed, the sentence imposed,
the criminal case number in the trial and
appellate courts, the date he commenced serving
his sentence, the date he was received for
confinement, the place of confinement, the date
of expiration of the sentence, the number of
previous convictions if any, and his behavior or
conduct while in prison.
PROBATION - is a disposition under which an
accused, after conviction and sentence is
released subject to conditions imposed by the
court and to the supervision of a probation
officer.
PROGRESS REPORT - refers to the report
submitted by the Probation and Parole Officer
on the conduct of the parolee/pardonee while
under supervision.
INFRACTION REPORT -  refers to the report
submitted by the Probation and Parole Officer
on violations committed by a parolee/pardonee
of the conditions of his release on parole or
conditional pardon while under supervision.
SUMMARY REPORT - refers to the final
report submitted by the Probation and Parole
Officer on his supervision of a parolee/pardonee
as basis for the latter's final release and
discharge.
SENTENCE - in law, is the penalty imposed by
the court in a criminal case against a person,
known as the “accused”, who is found guilty of
committing the crime charged.
YOUTH OFFENDER - is defined as a child,
minor or youth who is over nine years but under
eighteen years of age at the time of the
commission of the offense.
6. SOCIOLOGY OF CRIMES AND ETHICS
A. INTRODUCTION TO CRIMINOLOGY
ABRAHAMSEN - In his crime and human
mind, 1945, explained the causes of crime by
his formula "Criminal Behavior equals
criminalistic tendencies plus crime inducing
situation divided by the persons mental or
emotional resistance to temptation.
ADOLPHE QUETELET (1796–1874) - was a
Belgian mathematician, astronomer and
statistician, he helped to establish the
cartographic school and positivist schools of
criminology which made extensive use of
statistical techniques. Through statistical
analysis, Quetelet gained insight into the
relationships between crime and other social
factors. Among his findings were strong
relationships between age and crime, as well as
gender and crime.
ALIENIST - a doctor specializing in the
treatment of mental illness. An expert witness in
a sanity trial.
ANDREW VON HIRSCH -  developed the
notion of just desert.
JUST DESERT - has five guidelines; 1. treat
legal punishment as a desert; 2. avoid doing
harm; 3. Sentence delinquency, not the
delinquent; 4. interfere parsimoniously; 5.
restrain efforts to prevent crime; modern day
utilitarianism.
ANGER - is an emotion characterized by
antagonism toward someone or something you
feel has deliberately done you wrong.
ANOMIE - is a condition in which society
provides little moral guidance to individuals.
ANTHROPOLOGY - is the study of humans,
past and present.
ATAVISM - The return of a trait or recurrence
of previous behavior after a period of absence.
ATAVISTIC ANOMALY - physically their
throwbacks on the evolutionary scale to more
primitive times, where people were savages.
AUGUST AICHHORN - is considered to be
one of the founders of psychoanalytic education.
He is remembered for his work with juvenile
delinquent and disadvantaged youth. He
believed that imposed discipline and
suppression which were practiced in traditional
reformatories yielded few positive results.
AUTOPHOBIA - is the specific phobia of
isolation; a morbid fear of being egotistical, or a
dread of being alone or isolated.
MONOPHOBIA - is an acute fear of being
alone and having to cope without a specific
person, or perhaps any person, in close
proximity.
BIOMETRICS - is a technique for
identification of people that uses body
characteristics or behavioral traits and is
increasingly being used instead of or in
conjunction with other forms of identification
based on something you have (e.g. ID card) or
something you know (e.g. password or PIN).
BROMBERG - (crime and mind 1948)
criminality is the result of emotional immaturity.
A person is emotionally matured when he has
learned to control his emotion effectively and
who live at peace with himself and in harmony
with the standard of conduct which are
acceptable to society. Am emotionally immature
person rebels against rules and regulations,
tends to engage in unusual activities and
experience a feeling of guilt due to inferkiority
complex.
BROTHERHOOD - an association, society, or
community of people linked by a common
interest, religion, or trade.
CESARE BECCARIA - founders of the
classical school of thought within criminology.
CESARE LOMBROSO - an Italian
criminologist, founder of the Italian school of
criminology, formulated the theory of
anthropological criminology, essentially stated
that criminality was inherited, and that someone
"born criminal" could be identified by physical
defects, which confirmed a criminal as savage,
or atavistic.
CHARLES DARWIN - wrote Origin of
Species in 1859, kicked off the scientific
revolution, father of evolution.
CHARLES GORING - author of the
influential work The English convict: a
statistical study.
THE ENGLISH CONVICT: A
STATISTICAL STUDY - It was first
published in 1913, and set out to establish
whether there were any significant physical or
mental abormalities among the criminal classes
that set them apart from ordinary men, as
suggested by Cesare Lombroso. He ultimately
concluded that "the physical and mental
constitution of both criminal and law-abiding
persons, of the same age, stature, class, and
intelligence, are identical. There is no such thing
as an anthropological criminal type."
CLASSICAL SCHOOL - based on free will;
able to make decisions in a logical way;
assumes people are hedonistic.
CONFLICT OF CULTURE THEORY - by
Thorstein Sellin. It was emphasized in this
theory that the multiplicity of conflicting
cultures is the principal source of social
disorganization. The high crime and
delinquency rates of certain ethnic or racial
group is explained by their exposure to diverse
and incongruent standards and codes of larger
society.
CONTAINMENT THEORY - criminality is
brought about by the inability of the group to
contain behavior of its member and that of
effective containment of the individual into the
value system and structure of society will
minimize crime.
COPYCAT CRIME - A copycat crime is a
criminal act that is modelled or inspired by a
previous crime that has been reported in the
media or described in fiction.
CRIMINALOID - (from the word "criminal"
and suffix -oid, meaning criminal-like) is a
person who projects a respectable, upright
facade, in an attempt to conceal a criminal
personality. This type, first
defined by Cesare Lombroso in the later editions
of his 1876 work "the Criminal man".
CRIMINAL PERSONALITY - 1. the roots of
criminality lie in the way in which people think
and make decisions; 2. criminals think and act
differently from others, even at a very young
age; 3. criminals are irresponsible, 4.
deterministic explanations of crime result from
believing the criminal who is seeking sympathy.
ANTI-SOCIAL PERSONALITY -
characterized by patterns of irresponsible and
antisocial behavior, as well as aggressive
tendencies.
CYRIL BURT - gave the theory of general
emotionality. An excess of the submissive
instinct account for tendency of many criminals
to be weak-willed or easily led. Fear and
absconding may be due to the impulse of fear.
DETERMINISM - belief that individual
behavior is beyond the control of the individual;
opposite of free will.
DIFFERENTIAL ASSOCIATION THEORY
- Criminal behavior is learnable and learned in
interaction with other deviant persons. Through
this association, they learn not only techniques
of certain crimes, but also specific rationale,
motives and so on.
EDWIN SUTHERLAND - Differential
association theory was Sutherland's major
sociological contribution to criminology; similar
in importance to strain theory and social control
theory. These theories all explain deviance in
terms of the individual's social relationships.
IMITATION-SUGGESTION THEORY -  by
Gabriel Tarde, Delinquency and crime pattern
are learned and adopted. The learning process
either be conscious type copying or unconscious
copying of confronting pattern of behavior.
DIFFERENTIAL-SOCIAL
DISORGANIZATION THEORY - This is
sometimes called Social Disorganization. There
is social disorganization when there is
breakdown, changes, conflict of values between
the new and the old, when there is reduced
influence of the social institution over behavior
and when there is declining influence of the
solid moral and ethical front.
ELECTROENCEPHALOGRAM - recording
of electrical activity of the brain; measures it.
EMILE DURKHEIM - father of sociology. He
is a Frenchman, Chief among his claims is that
society is a sui generis reality, or a reality
unique to itself and irreducible to its composing
parts. It is created when individual consciences
interact and fuse together to create a synthetic
reality that is completely new and greater than
the sum of its parts.
E. O. WILSON - put forth a theory that
differed from earlier theories, believed that
biological factors affect the perception and
learning of social behaviors.
ETIOLOGY OF CRIME - causes of crime.
EUGENICS - the science of improving a
human population by controlled breeding to
increase the occurrence of desirable heritable
characteristics. Developed largely by Francis
Galton as a method of improving the human
race.
FREE WILL - the idea that human beings are
free to choose one behavior or action over
another.
FRUSTRATION - the feeling of being upset or
annoyed, especially because of inability to
change or achieve something.
GENERAL DETERRENCE - involves the
effects of legal punishment on those persons
who have not suffered.
SPECIFIC DETERRENCE -  involves the
effects of legal punishment on those who have
suffered it.
GENETICS - the branch in biology that deals
with heredity.
HEALY - (individual delinquency) crime is the
expression of the mental content of the
individual. Frustration of the individual causes
emotional discomfort, personality demands
removal of pain and the pain is eliminated by
substitute behavior, that is the start of the crime
delinquency of an individual.
GIANELT INDEX OF CRIMINALITY - this
crimino-synthesis explains the reason why a
person may commit a crime or inhibit himself
from doing so.
HEDONISM - pleasure or the absence of pain
is the soul good in life.
HENRY MAUDSLEY - mental illness and
criminal behavior went hand in hand, crime
prone traits were inherited.
INCAPACITATION - when they are locked
up behind bars, they can't commit anymore
crimes.
ITALIAN SCHOOL OF CRIMINOLOGY -
Founded in the end of the 19th century by
Cesare lombroso and 2 of his disciples, Enrico
Ferri and Rafael Garofalo.
ENRICO FERRI - an italian criminologist,
student of Lombroso, His work served as the
basis for Argentina’s penal code of 1921. His
research led to him postulating theories calling
for crime prevention methods to be the mainstay
of law enforcement, as opposed to punishment
of criminals after their crimes had taken place.
RAFAEL GAROFALO - often regarded as the
father of Criminology. He is a student of Cesare
Lombroso.
JAMES Q. WILSON -  advocate for special
deterrence; ultilitarian. JEREMY BENTHAM
- founders of the classical school of thought
within criminology. He is a lawyer.
JUKES FAMILY -  family of criminals.
Descendants are criminally minded and
committed crimes.
JONATHAN EDWARDS FAMILY - opposite
of jukes Family, descendants are good people
and attained prominence in various fields.
KALLIKAK FAMILY - A Study in the
Heredity of Feeble-Mindedness was a 1912
book by the American psychologist and
eugenicist Henry H. Goddard. The work was an
extended case study of Goddard's for the
inheritance of "feeble-mindedness," a general
category referring to a variety of mental
disabilities including mental retardation,
learning disabilities, and mental illness.
Goddard concluded that a variety of mental
traits were hereditary, and society should limit
reproduction by people possessing these traits.
KARYOTYPE STUDIES - examination and
comparison of chromosomes.
KLEPTOMANIA - a recurrent urge to steal,
typically without regard for need or profit.
LAWRENCE KOHLBERG - pathological
jealousy, quick anger reactions, and the bearing
of grudges.
LIMBIC SYSTEM - a set of areas in the
human brain that integrate a wide variety of
messages from the senses and control goal-
oriented response to environmental and internal
stimuli.
MEGALOMANIa - is a psychopathological
condition characterized by delusional fantasies
of power, relevance, omnipotence, and by
inflated self-esteem.
MENS REA - The state of mind indicating
culpability which is required by statute as an
element of a crime.(Latin) guilty mind.
MILLER LOWER-CLASS CULTURE
CONFLICT THEORY - citizens who obey the
street rules of lower class life find themselves in
conflict with the dominant culture.
MORAL/INTELLECTUAL STAGES - deals
with how adults morally represent a reason
about the world that they live in.
MORPHOLOGY - deals with the form and
structure of an organism or any of its parts;
measuring different parts of the human head;
there is a meaningful relationship between
certain types of physical features and
personality.
NEO-CLASSICAL PERSPECTIVE - stressed
that the legal system should focus exclusively
on doing justice; respond to the crime; the
criminal made the rational decision.
NEUROSIS - condition characterized by
anxiety, impulses may breakthrough and take
control.
AMNESIA - a partial or total loss of memory.
Origin late 18th century: from Greek amnēsia
‘forgetfulness.’
DELUSION - a belief that is not true : a false
idea. : a false idea or belief that is caused by
mental illness.
DEMENTIA PRAECOX (a "premature
dementia" or "precocious madness") refers to a
chronic, deteriorating psychotic disorder
characterized by rapid cognitive disintegration,
usually beginning in the late teens or early
adulthood. It is a term first used in 1891 in this
Latin form by Arnold Pick (1851–1924), a
professor of psychiatry at the German branch of
Charles University in Prague.
PSYCHOSIS - severe form of mental
disturbance, behavior impairs or gets in the way
of everyday focus, Id takes control.
SCHIZOPHRENIA - often linked to criminal
behavior, incoherent thought process, thinking is
scrambled and may have split personalities.
PARANOIA - pathological jealousy, quick
anger reactions, and the bearing of grudges.
PENAL COUPLE - is defined as the
relationship between perpetrator and victim of a
crime. That is, both are involved in the event.
PENITENTIARY -  repent of wrongdoing and
the will to atone for it.
PHOBIA - an extreme or irrational fear of or
aversion to something.
PHRENOLOGY - study of the shape of the
skull and bumps of facial features. The study of
facial features.
CRANIOLOGY - the scientific study of the
shape and size of the skulls of different human
races. Another term for Phrenology.
PSYCHOPATIC PERSONALITY – This is
the most important cause of criminality among
youthful offenders and habitual criminals. It is
characterized by infantile level or rescind, lack
of conscience, deficient feeling of affection to
others and aggression to environment and other
people.
PHYSIOGNOMY - to judge, interpret, or
assess a person's character or personality from
his or her outer appearance, especially the face.
This study and science was used by Beccaria
(1764) and lavater (1175) to discover the
character of a person.
POSITIVIST SCHOOL - based on
determinism; human behavior is controlled by
science.
POSITIVISM - the belief that the classical
school of thought is wrong in explaining what
causes crime because they failed to explain
adequately the why portion.
CESARE LOMBROSO - father of positivism;
medical doctor who wanted to see whether
criminals were physically different, believed in
atavistic anomaly.
PSYCHIATRY - the study and treatment of
mental illness, emotional disturbance, and
abnormal behavior.
PSYCHOANALYTIC - the analysis of human
behavior. First laid out by Sigmund Freud in the
19th century.
RECIDIVISM - elapse into criminal behavior;
where you return back into the criminal system.
REGRESSION - a return to an earlier stage of
life or a supposed previous life, especially
through hypnosis or mental illness, or as a
means of escaping present anxieties.
SAMUEL YOCHELSON - convinced that
there is such thing as a criminal personality.
SCHOOLS OF THOUGHT - devices for
organizing fundamentally differing views of
human nature and relating them to issues
surrounding crime and its control.
SEXUAL DEVIATION - a type of mental
disorder characterized by a preference for or
obsession with unusual sexual practices.
EXHIBITIONISM - a mental condition
characterized by the compulsion to display one's
genitals in public.
FETISHISM - is sexual attraction to objects,
situations, or body parts not traditionally viewed
as sexual.
PARAPHILIA - a condition characterized by
abnormal sexual desires, typically involving
extreme or dangerous activities.
PEDOPHILIA - sexual feelings directed
toward children.
SADOMASOCHISM - is the giving or
receiving of pleasure, sometimes sexual, from
acts involving the infliction or reception of pain
or humiliation.
SADISM - the tendency to derive pleasure,
especially sexual gratification, from inflicting
pain, suffering, or humiliation on others.
TRANSVESTISM (also called transvestitism) -
is the practice of dressing and acting in a style
or manner traditionally associated with another
gender.
MASOCHISM - the tendency to derive
pleasure, especially sexual gratification, from
one's own pain or humiliation.
VOYEURISM - Watching others while naked
or having sex, generally without their
knowledge; also known as scopophilia or
scoptophilia.
ZOOPHILIA - is a paraphilia involving cross-
species sexual activity between human and non-
human animals or a fixation on such practice.
SHAW AND MCKAY'S ECOLOGICAL
THEORY - crime is a product of transitional
neighborhoods that manifest social
disorganization and value conflict.
SIGMUND FREUD - austrian psychiatrist; his
approach: crime is but one form of deviance.
ID - contains the inner world of the individual's
inborn instincts and reflexes.
EGO - represents the real world of the
individual's conscious reason and common
sense.          SUPEREGO - inner world of the
individual's ideal expectations and conscience;
the conceptions of what the individual considers
to be morally good.
SOCIAL BOND THEORY - relation between
social factors and individual activities;
individuals become free to commit crimes when
their ties to society are broken.
SPIRITUAL SCHOOL - based on
determinism; human behavior is determined by
God or demons or Satan.
STANTON SAMENOW -  convinced that
there is such thing as a criminal personality.
THOMAS HOBBES - he believed that man is
egotistical and self-centered; if he thought he
could get away with it, then he would commit
the crime.
TYPE OF PHYSIQUE
ECTOMORPH - a person with a lean and
delicate body build. Are tall and thin and less
social and more intellectual.
MESOMORPH - a person with a compact and
muscular body build. Have well-developed
muscles and an athletic appearance. They are
active, aggressive, sometimes violent, and more
likely to become criminals.
ENDOMORPH - a person with a soft round
body build and a high proportion of fat tissue.
Have heavy builds and are slow moving. They
arte known for lethargic behavior rendering
them unlikely to commit violent crime and more
willing to engage in less strenuous criminal
activities such as fencing stolen property.
TYPOLOGY OF CRIME - involve classifying
offenses or offenders according to some criteria
of relatedness or similarity.
UTILITARIANISM - the belief that legal
punishments serve two vital functions:
1. deterring persons from committing the crimes
and
2. protecting society from those wholes acts
threaten the social order; the greatest good for
the greatest number.
WILLIAM SHELDON - an American
psychologist who created the field of
somatotype and constitutional psychology that
tried to correlate body types with
behavior,intelligence, and social hierarchy
through his Ivy league nude posture photos.
TEMPERAMENT
VISCEROTONIC - Coined by WH Sheldon,
from viscera + -o- + tonic. Designating a
personality type characterised as sociable, easy-
going, and comfort-seeking.
SOMATONIC - active, dynamic; walks, talks,
gestures assertively and behaves aggressively.
CEREBROTONIC - Introvert and full of
functional complaints to allergies, skin troubles,
chronic fatigue, insomia, insensitive skin, and to
noise, shrinks from crowds.
XYY Syndrome - these people are very tall and
disproportionate; more inclined to commit
crimes.
B. CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM
CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM - is the
system of practices and institutions of
governments directed at upholding social
control, deterring and mitigating crime or
sanctioning those who violate laws with
criminal penalties and rehabilitation efforts.
GOALS OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE
To protect individuals and society
To reduce crime by bringing offenders to
justice
To increase the security of the people
CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM
CONSISTS OF THREE MAIN PARTS
LEGISLATIVE - create laws
COURTS - adjudication
CORRECTIONS - jail, prison, probation,
parole
PARTICIPANTS OF CRIMINAL
JUSTICE SYSTEM
POLICE - first contact of offender since
they investigate wrongdoing and makes
arrest.
PROSECUTION - proves the guilt or
innocence of wrongdoers.
COURT - venue where disputes are settled
and justice is administered.
CORRECTION - after accused is found
guilty, he is put to jail or prison to be
reformed.
COMMUNITY - where the convict after
service of sentence comes back to be
integrated to be a productive member of
society.
COMMUNITY POLICING - the system
of allocating officers to particular areas so
that they become familiar with the local
inhabitants.
EARLY HISTORY OF PUNISHMENT
1. EARLY GREECE AND ROME
a. most common state administered
punishment was banishment and exile.
b. economic punishment such as fins for
such crime as assault on slave, arson, or
house breaking.
2. MIDDLE 5TH TO 15TH CENTURY
a. blood feuds were the norm.
b. law and government not responsible for
conflict.
3. POST 11TH CENTURY FEUDAL
PERIODS
a. fine system, punishment often consisted
of payment to feudal lord.
b. goals, public order and pacifying the
injured.
c. corporal punishment for poor who can
not pay.
4. 1500'S
a. urbanization and industrialization, use of
torture and mutilation showed and
punishment began to be more monetary
based.
b. use of gallery slaves - ship-rowers.
c. shipped inmates to american colonies
5. 1700'S - EARLY 1800'S
a. increase in prison population
b. gap between rich and poor widens
c. physicality of punishment increases
GOALS OF PUNISHMENT
1. GENERAL DETERRENCE - the state
tries to convince potential criminals that the
punishment they face is certain, swift, and
severe so that they will be afraid to commit
an offense.
2. SPECIFIC DETERRENCE -
convincing offenders that the pain of
punishment is greater than the benefits of
crime so they will not repeat their criminal
offending
3. INCAPACITATION - if dangerous
criminals are kept behind bars, they will not
be able to repeat their illegal activities.
4. RETRIBUTION/JUST DESERT -
punishment should be no more or less than
the offender’s actions deserve, it must be
based on how blameworthy the person is.
5. EQUITY/RESTITUTION - convicted
criminals must pay back their victims for
their loss, the justice system for the costs of
processing their case and society for any
disruption they may have caused.
6. REHABILITATION - if the proper
treatment is applied, an offender will
present no further threat to society
7. DIVERSION - criminals are diverted
into a community correctional program for
treatment to avoid stigma of incarceration.
The convicted offender might be asked to
make payments to the crime victim or
participate in a community-based program
that features counseling.
8. RESTORATIVE JUSTICE - repairs
injuries suffered by the victim and the
community while insuring reintegration of
the offender. Turn the justice system into a
healing process rather than a distributor of
retribution and revenge.
3 BROAD CATEGORIES OF CRIME
1. Sensational crime
2. Street Crime
3. Corporate Crime, White Collar Crime,
and Organized Crime.
SENSATIONAL CRIME - certain
offenses are selected for their sensational
nature and made into national issues.Much
of what we know about crime comes from
the media.
STREET CRIME - includes a wide
variety of acts both in public and private
spaces including interpersonal violence and
property crime.
JUSTICE - the quality of being just, fair
and reasonable.
RULE OF LAW - is a legal maxim
whereby governmental decisions be made
by applying known legal principles.
JUDGE - a public officer who presides
over court proceedings and hear and decide
cases in a court of law either alone or as
part of a panel of judges.
PROSECUTOR - the person responsible
for presenting the case  in a criminal trial
against an individual accused of breaking
the law.
LAW - is a system of rules of conduct
established by the sovereign government of
a society to correct wrongs, maintain the
stability of political and social authority
and deliver justice.
PLAINTIFF - the person who brings a
case against another in court of law.
RESPONDENT - the defendant in a
lawsuit.
APPELLEE - the respondent in a case
appealed to a higher court.
APPELLANT - the party who appeals the
decision of the lower court. A person who
applies to a higher court for a reversal of
the decision of a lower court.
STARE DECISIS - the legal principle of
determining points in litigation according to
precedent. Latin for "to stand by that which
is decided", general practice of adhering to
previous decisions when it makes new one.
MIRANDA DOCTRINE - criminal
suspect has the right to remain silent which
means they have the right to refuse to
answer questions from the police. They
have the right to an attorney and if they can
not afford an attorney, one will be provided
for them at no charge.
PRO BONO - legal work done for free.
WRIT - a form of written command in the
name of the court or other legal authority to
act or abstain from acting in some way.
SUBPOENA - is a writ issued by a court
authority to compel the attendance of a
witness at a judicial proceeding
SUMMON - a legal document issued by a
court or administrative agency of
government authoritatively or urgently call
on someone to be present.
DISCRETION - the use of personal
decision making and choice in carrying out
operations in the criminal justice system.
WHAT IS TWELVE TABLE? early
Roman laws written around 450 BC which
regulated family.religious, and economic
life.
WHAT IS THE MEDICAL MODEL OF
PUNISHMENT?
- a view of corrections holding that
convicted offenders are victims of their
environment or sick people who were
suffering from some social malady that
prevented them into valuable members of
society.
WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE
BETWEEN INDETERMINATE
SENTENCE AND DETERMINATE
SENTENCE?
1. INDETERMINATE SENTENCE
a. a term of incarceration with a stated
minimum and maximum length. ex. 3-
10years
b. prisoner is eligible for parole after the
minimum sentenced has been served.
c. based on belief that sentences fit the
criminal, indeterminate sentences allow
individualized sentences and provide for
 sentencing flexibility.
d. judges can set a high minimum to
override the purpose of the indeterminate
sentence.
2. DETERMINATE SENTENCE
a. a fixed term of incarceration ex. 3 years
b. these sentences are felt by many to be
restrictive for rehabilitative purposes.
c. offenders know exactly how much time
they have to serve.
VARIOUS FACTORS SHAPING
LENGTH OF PRISON TERMS
1. LEGAL FACTORS
a. the severity of the offense
b. the offenders prior criminal record
c. whether the offender used violence
d. whether the offender used weapons
e. whether the crime was committed for
money
2. EXTRA LEGAL FACTORS
a. social class
b. gender
c. age
d. victim characteristics
WHAT ARE THE INSTITUTIONS OF
SOCIALIZATION?
1. Family
2. Religion
3. Schools
4. Media
FAMILY - is the primary institution of
socialization in society.
NOTES:
1. CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM - The
Interdependent actors and agencies, law
enforcement agencies, the courts, the
correctional systems, and victim services at the
local and national levels of govt. that deal with
the problem of crime.
2. SECONDARY VICTIMS - family and
friends of an individual who has been
victimized.
3. WEDDING CAKE MODEL - An
explanation of the workings of the criminal
justice system that shows how cases get filtered
according to the seriousness of the offense.
4. CRIME PREVENTION - Measures taken to
reduce the opportunity for crime commission by
individuals predisposed to such.
5. CRIME CONTROL MODEL - A model of
the criminal justice system that emphasizes the
efficient arrest and processing of alleged
criminal offenders.
6. DUE PROCESS MODEL - A model of the
criminal justice system that emphasizes
individual rights at all stages of the justice
process.
7. MORAL PANIC - The reaction by a group
of people based on exaggerated or false
perceptions about crime and criminal behavior.
8. VICTIM ADVOCATE - A professional who
assists the victim during the post victimization
period.
9. PAROLE - An early release from prison
based on complying with certain standards
while free.
10. PROBATION - An alternative to prison or
jail in which the offender remains in the
community under court supervision.
NOTES:
1. MALA PROHIBITA - A behavior that is
morally wrong. Wrong in any context, even if
there is no law against it.
2. MALA IN SE - Also known as statutory
crimes. Are Acts that are criminal because they
are prohibited by law.
3. RETRIBUTION - (Vengeance)(Revenge)
punishment inflicted on someone as vengeance
for a wrong or criminal act.
4. DETERRENCE - A thing that discourage or
intended to discourage someone from doing
something.
5. PUNISHMENT - the infliction or imposition
of a penalty as retribution for an offense.
6. REHABILITATION - restore someone to
health or normal life by training and therapy
after imprisonment, addiction, or illness.
7. RECOGNIZANCE - a bond by which a
person undertakes before a court to observe
some condition especially to appear when
summoned.
8. CURFEW - a regulation requiring people to
remain indoors between specified hours,
typically at night.
9. TRUANCY - the action of staying away from
school without good reason; absenteeism.
10. CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM - the
system of law enforcement that is directly
involved in apprehending, prosecuting,
defending, sentencing and punishing those who
are suspected or convicted of criminal offenses.
-In 1829, England, The Metropolitan Police Act
was passed to the leadership of Home Secretary
Robert Peel
-Bobbies - first salaried police to patrol London.
-Boston - began its police department in 1838.
-New York City - 1845 created a police force.
-U.S. Marshall Service 1789.
-U.S. Coast Guard 1790.
-Department of Homeland Security - was
created to coordinate the work of intelligence
and security agencies.
-Texas Rangers - 1835, became the first state
police organization.
-William Penn - in the new world in 1682,
established houses of correction.
NOTES:
1. SOCIAL DISORGANIZATION
THEORY - This Theory argues that more
crime occurs in neighborhoods that have
fraying social structures such as poor
schools, vacant and vandalized buildings, a
mix of commercial and residential property,
changing ethnicity and high unemployment.
2. ANOMIE - Another word for strain. It
refers to the difference between what a
person aspires to do and what he can
actually achieve.
3. LOWER CLASS REACTION
THEORY - Holds that as kids in lower
classes fail to live up to society's
expectations, they reject middle-class
values and develop their own value
systems, being so allows them to maintain
their self-esteem.
4. RICHARD CLOWARD AND LLOYD
OHLIN - In 1960, developed another sub-
culture theory called differential
opportunity theory.
5. MANOR - A large country house with
lands; the principal house of a landed
estate.
6. STATUTE OF WINCHESTER -
(1285) Declared that each district or
hundred would be held responsible for
unsolved crimes. Each man was to keep
arms to take part in the Hue And Cry when
necessary.
7. TITHING - Earliest type of community
organized policing. Based on principles of
self-help and collective responsibility. Each
Tithing consisted of 10 men who were
accountable for policing each other.
8. SHERIFF - Supervision of the tithing
was a responsibility of the sheriff, the local
representative of the king.
9. THE ACT OF SETTLEMENT OF
1701 - In England, Was designed to secure
the protestant succession to the throne and
to strengthen the guarantees for ensuring
parliamentary system of government. The
act also strengthened the bill of rights
(1689) which had previously established
the order of succession of Mary II's heirs.
One of the most important provisions of
this act was the recognition that judges
should hold office only during  good
behavior and could be removed only with
the consent  of the parliament.
10. BILL OF RIGHTS - A statement of
fundamental rights and privileges. The bill
of rights is an act of the Parliament of
England whose title is " And Act Declaring
the Rights and Liberties of the Subject and
Settling the Succession of the Crown". It is
often called the English Bill of Rights.
11. WRIT OF HABEAS CORPUS - A
writ ordering a prisoner to be brought
before a judge. It is a writ or legal action
through which a prisoner can be released
from unlawful detention. The remedy can
be sought by the prisoner or by another
person coming to his aid.
12. CONSTITUTION - A body of
fundamental principles or established
precedents according to which a state or
other organization is acknowledged to be
governed.
13. MAGNA CARTA - A Charter of
Liberty and political rights obtained from
King John of England by his rebellious
Barons at Runnymede in 1215 which came
to be seen as the seminal document of
English constitutional practice.
14. EUTHANASIA - helping another
person commit suicide.
15. SHAKEN BABY SYNDROME - A
situation of shaking a baby. An infant’s
brain is so vulnerable, just one or two
violent shakes can result in serious injury or
even death.
16. SODOMY - Refers to forced anal or
oral sex or those same acts when they're
done consensually between an adult and a
juvenile.
17. NARCISSISTIC PERSONALITY
DISORDER - Someone with this disorder
generally sees herself as very important,
needs others to see her as important, and
lacks the ability to experience empathy
with others.
18. ANTI-SOCIAL PERSONALITY
DISORDER - Someone with this disorder
has a pattern of disregarding the rights of
others that starts when she's a juvenile and
progresses into adulthood.
19. PSYCHOPATH - is a predator who
uses charm, manipulation, and violence to
control others and achieve her own selfish
needs without experiencing any guilt or
remorse.
20. PYRAMID SCHEME - a form of
investment in which each paying
participant recruits two further participants
with returns being given to early
participants using money contributed by
later ones.
21. PONZI SCHEME - a form of fraud in
which belief in the success of non existent
enterprise is fostered by the payment of
quick returns to the first investors from
money invested by later investors.
22. FENCE - would buy stolen items for a
huge discounts and then resell those items.
23. EMBEZZLEMENT - is the act of
stealing from your employer.
CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM
DEFINITION OF TERMS
4 PRINCIPAL METHODS OF
IMPLEMENTING THE PUNITIVE
POLICY USED DURING THE HISTORY
OF MANKIND
Physical Torture
Social Degradation
Financial Loss
Removal from the group by death, exile or
imprisonment.
ALPHONSE BERTILLON – One who
originated a system of classifying criminals
according to bodily measurements.
ANCIENT ROME – A nation who pioneered
banishment as a form of punishment.
APPROACHES TO THE EXPLANATION
OF CRIME
1. Subjective Approach
2. Objective Approach
SUBJECTIVE APPROACH
1. Anthropological Approach
2. Medical Approach
3. Biological Approach
4. Physiological Approach
5. Psychological Approach
6. Psychiatric Approach
7. Psycho-Analytical Approach
OBJECTIVE APPROACH
1. Geographic Approach
2. Ecological Approach
3. Economic Approach
4. Sociological and Cultural Approach
               
AUSTRALIA – A place where after the
Americans gained their independence from
England in 1786, the prisoners of England were
transferred until 1867.
AUTOPHOBIA – It is a morbid fear of one's
self or of being alone.
BERLIN – The country where the last burning
at the stake was made until 1786.
BIOLOGY – Is the study of living things. The
science that deals with the origin, history,
physical characteristics, life, processes, habits
etc. of plants and animals.
CLASSICAL SCHOOL – This school of
penology which Beccaria made of the first
significant contributions and to which Rousseau
Montesquieu and Voltaire belonged maintained
the doctrine of psychological hedonism, that the
individual calculates pleasures and pains in
advance of action and regulates his conduct by
the results of his calculations. That since
punishment must be one that can be calculated, it
must be same for all individual regardless of age,
mentality, social  or other conditions.
CRIMINALISTICS – Sum total of the
application of all sciences in crime detection. A
criminal commits crime by means of things or he
leaves something in the crime scene.
THESE PHYSICAL EVIDENCE INCLUDE
BUT NOT LIMITED TO THE
FOLLOWING
1. Blood and Blood stain
2. Firearms and other deadly weapons
3. Fingerprints and footprints
4. Tool marks and many more
CRIMINAL ETIOLOGY – Is an attempt at
scientific analysis of the causes of crime.
CRIMINOLOGICAL SCHOOLS
Cartographical School
The Socialist School
The Psychiatric School
Sociological and Social-Psychological School.
DAVID W. MAURER – An American
authority in police matters who in his books
“The Big Con – 1940” once said the dominant
culture would control the predatory cultures
without difficulty and what is more, it could
exterminate them for no criminal subculture can
operate continuously and professionally without
the connivance of the law.
DIVISIONS OF CRIMINALISTICS
SCIENTIFIC
A. Chemistry
b. Physics
c. Biology
TECHNOLOGICAL
a. Questioned Document Examination
b. Firearms Identification
c. Fingerprint Identification
ITALIAN THEORY – Dr. Cesare Lombroso
3 CLASSES OF CRIMINALS
BORN CRIMINALS – Atavism
INSANE CRIMINALS – Idiots, imbecile,
dementia, paralysis, pelagno etc.
CRIMINALOIDS – Not born with physical
stigma but who are of such mental makeup
that they display anti social conduct.
Criminaloids are persons suffering from
psychological defects.
PROPONENTS/PIONEER OF ITALIAN
THEORY
Dr. Cesare Lombroso
Enrico Ferri
Garofalo
JOHN HOWARD – The great prison reformer
who wrote “The state of prisons in england in
1777 after a personal investigation of practically
all the prisons in England.
MIDDLE OF THE 16TH CENTURY – The
period when the first house of correction
appeared in England on the petition of Bishop
Ridley of London for help in dealing with the
sturdy vagabonds of the city. The King gave his
place at Bridewell to be one of the hospitals of
the city for lewd and idle and a place for the
employment of the unemployed and the training
of children.
MODERN TREND IN CRIMINOLOGY
AND PENOLOGY – Is that the offender in
society regardless of the gravity of the offense
must be corrected and rehabilitated for eventual
return to the community.
NEO-CLASSICAL SCHOOL – This school
arose at the time of the French revolution and the
period immediately following, maintained that
while the classical school was correct in general,
it should be modified in certain details since
children and lunatic can not calculate pleasures
and pain, they should not be regarded as
criminals or to be punished.
PEACE – Philippine Educator's Association for
Criminology Education, January 15, 1983.
PENOLOGY – Concerned with the control and
prevention of crime and the treatment of
youthful offenders.
PHENOMENON – Any extremely unusual or
extra ordinary thing or occurrence.
PHILIPPINE COLLEGE OF
CRIMINOLOGY – At Sta. Cruz Manila,
Formerly known as Plaridel College, 1950's.
FOUNDERS:
Manila Police Major Eliseo Vibar
Dr. Pedro Solis of NBI
SC Associate Justice Felix Bautista Angelo
PETER RENTZEL – A private person who in
1669 established a work house in hamburg at his
own expense because he had observed that
thieves and prostitutes were made worse instead
of better by pillory and he hoped that they might
be improved by work and religious instruction in
the workhouse.
POLICE/LAW ENFORCEMENT – The core
of the criminal justice system or the institution
which the other machineries of the criminal
justice system are developed.
POSITIVE SCHOOL – This school denied
individual responsibility and reflected an
essentially non punitive reaction to crime and
criminality. The adherents of this school
maintained that a crime as any other act is a
natural phenomenon like tornado, flood etc.
PRINCIPAL DIVISION OF
CRIMINOLOGY -
Criminal Etiology
Sociology of Law
Penology
SOCIAL CONTRACT THEORY – It is based
on the principle that it is the obligation of the
state to protect and provide safety of the people
and to promote the happiness of its constituent
members. In return for these services, it is the
obligation of the individual member to surrender
a small portion of his natural liberty in obedience
to the valid laws of the state.
SOCIAL CONTROL THEORY – Since man
has enjoyed freely the protection and security, it
is necessary for the state to assume some sort of
control over the behavior of the members so that
the greatest happiness for the majority can be
obtained.
SOCIOLOGY OF LAW – Is an attempt at
scientific analysis of the conditions under which
penal/criminal laws develop as a process of
formal social control.
THEORIES UNDERLYING CRIMINAL
LAW IN RELATION TO MAN
Classical Theory
Neo-Classical Theory
The Positive and Italian Theory
The behavior system in crime may be described
by its 3 principal characteristics except “it is not
merely an aggregation of individuals criminal
acts”.
The maintenance of peace and order is the joint

and several responsibility of man and his
government. Can be described by the following
theories:
1. Social Contract Theory
2. Social Control theory
   C. ETHICS AND VALUES
POLICE ETHICS AND COMMUNITY
RELATIONS
PNP PHILOSOPHY
  1. Service
  2. Honor
  3. Justice
PNP CORE VALUES
  1. Makadios (God-Fearing)
  2. Makabayan (Nationalistic)
  3. Makatao (Humane)
ETHICAL ACTS TO BE OBSERVED BY
PNP MEMBERS
  1. Morality
  2. Judicious use of authority
  3. Integrity
  4. Justice
  5. Humility
  6. Orderliness
  7. Perseverance
DEFINITION OF TERMS
CUSTOMS - established usage or social
practices carried on by tradition that have
obtained the force of law.
TRADITIONS - bodies of belief, stories,
customs and usages handed down from
generation to generation with the effect of an
unwritten law.
COURTESY - a manifestation of expression of
consideration and respect for others.
CEREMONY - a formal act or set of formal
acts established by customs or authority as
proper to special occasion.
SOCIAL DECORUM - a set of norms and
standard practiced by the members during social
activities and other functions.
POLICE COMMUNITY RELATION -
generally refers to the sum total of attitudes and
behavior between police and the communities
they serve.
PUBLIC RELATIONS - a collection of
communication techniques used by individuals
or organizations to convince an audience about
the merits of an idea, organization, program,
practice or policy.
COMMUNITY SERVICE - refers to the
activities whereby police engage in pro-social
activities to enhance the well being of the
community beyond law enforcement and other
maintenance.
COMMUNITY PARTICIPATION - involves
members of the community taking an active role
in trying to genuinely help the police.
POLICE TRADITIONS
1. Spiritual beliefs
2. Valor
3. Patriotism
4. Discipline
5. Gentlemanliness
6. Word of Honor
7. Duty
8. Loyalty
9. Camaraderie
SPIRITUAL BELIEFS - can refer to an
ultimate or an alleged immaterial reality, an
inner path enabling a person to discover the
essence of his/her being or the deepest values
and meanings by which people live.
VALOR - great courage in the face of danger.
Strength of mind or spirit that enables a person
to encounter danger with firmness.
PATRIOTISM - love of country and
willingness to sacrifice for it.
DISCIPLINE - the practice of training people to
obey rules or a code of behavior using
punishment to correct disobedience.
GENTLEMANLINESS - characteristic of or
 having the character of a gentleman. A man
whose conduct conforms to a high standard of
propriety or correct behavior
WORD OF HONOR - a verbal commitment by
one person to another agreeing to do or not to do
something in the future.
DUTY - a task or action that someone is
required to perform.
LOYALTY - a strong feeling of support or
allegiance. Is faithfulness or a devotion to a
person, country, group or cause.
CAMARADERIE - mutual trust and friendship
among people who spend a lot of time together.
Goodwill and lighthearted rapport between or
among friends.
FAMILIARIZE YOURSELF WITH THE
FOLLOWING TERMS:
1. CORRUPTION – is the misuse of authority
by a police officer in a manner designed to
produce personal gain for himself or others; an
impairment of integrity, virtue or moral
principle; inducement (as an official) by means
of improper considerations (as bribery) to
commit a violation of duty.
2. DHRDD – refers to the DIRECTORATE
FOR HUMAN RESOURCE AND
DOCTRINE DEVELOPMENT; the primary
training and education directorate in the PNP.
3. ETHICS - is the capacity to determine right
conduct and the knowledge of what is right from
wrong; specific moral choices to be made by the
individual in his relationship with others; the
moral quality of a course of action, fitness and
propriety.
4. ETHICS AND VALUES COUNSELING
CENTER – A facility for spiritual and
behavioral intervention established in every
Police Regional Office to provide adequate
counseling and assistance to police officers
5. ETHICS AND VALUES FORMATION
PROGRAM - THIS program contains
policies,principles, guidelines and sanctions, all
geared towards the internalization of moral
values and service dedication through the
implementation of a systematic values-
integration and intervention program.
6. MORAL RECOVERY PROGRAM - The
Moral Recovery Program is a movement which
aims to mobilize all Filipinos for nation-
building through the practical exercise of human
values in our daily lives as citizens. It is
empowered through Executive Order 319 signed
by President Fidel V Ramos on April 03, 1996,
which institutionalizes the MRP in all
government departments, offices, agencies, and
government-owned and controlled corporations
7. MORALE – refers to a person’s state of
mind and emotions, affecting the
personnel/employee and the police force to
perform assigned tasks willingly and
enthusiastically with confidence, cheerfulness
and discipline to work, which in turn affects the
individual performance and organizational goals
and objectives.
8. MORALITY – quality of human acts that
leads man to observe “moral behavior”, to be
obedient to a system of moral rules, “rules of
right conduct”.
9. POLICE DISCRETION – the inherent
ability and privilege of a police officer to test
and use the limits of his power in making a
choice among possible courses of action or
inaction (i.e. to arrest or not to arrest).
10. PRO - Police Regional Office which
constitute seventeen (17) Regional Offices of
the PNP to include ARMM, CAR and NCRPO
11. POLICE OFFICER – a public servant who
represents the disciplinary and discretionary
power of the state to enforce laws
12. VALUES – are beliefs, principles and
philosophies that are important,cherished,
prized, upheld and defended:
13. VIRTUE – the quality of moral excellence,
righteousness, probity, responsibility and
goodness; conformity to standard morality or
mores (as by abstention from vices, rectitude);
specific type of moral excellence or other
exemplary quality considered meritorious, a
worthy practice or ideal
14. CUSTOMS - Established usage or social
practices carried on by tradition that have
obtained the force of law.
15. TRADITIONS - Bodies of beliefs, stories,
customs and usages handed down from
generation to generation with the effect of an
unwritten law.
16. COURTESY - A manifestation or
expression of consideration and respect for
others.
17. CEREMONY - A formal act or set of
formal acts established by customs or authority
as proper to special occasion.
18. SOCIAL DECORUM - A set of norms and
standards practiced by members during social
and other functions.
19. SALUTE - Salute is the usual greeting
rendered by uniformed members upon meeting
and recognizing person entitled to a salute.
20. HABITS - Provide the basis for judgments
about what is important for the organization to
succeed in its core business.
D. JUVENILE DELINQUENCY
PD 603 - Child and Youth Welfare Code
RA 9262 - Anti Violence Against Women
and their Children Act of 2004.
RA 9344 - Juvenile Justice and Welfare
Act of 2006
YOUTHFUL OFFENDER - over 9 years
old but under 18 years old at the time of the
commission of the offense.
CRIME THEORIES APPLICABLE TO
JUVENILE DELINQUENCY
1. RATIONAL CHOICE - causes of
crime lie within the individual offender
rather than in their external environment.
2. SOCIAL DISORGANIZATION -
absence or breakdown of communal
institutions and communal relationships
that traditionally encouraged cooperative
relationships among people.
                  
COMMUNAL INSTITUTIONS
1. Family
2. School
3. Church
4. Social Groups
3. STRAIN THEORY - crime is caused by
the difficulty of those in poverty in
achieving socially valued goals by
legitimate means.
4. DIFFERENTIAL ASSOCIATION -
young people are motivated to commit
crimes by delinquent peers and learn
criminal skills from them.
5. LABELLING THEORY - once a
person is labeled criminal they are more
likely to offend. Once labeled as deviant, a
person may accept that role and more likely
to associate with others who have been
similarly labeled.
6. SOCIAL CONTROL THEORY -
proposes that exploiting the process of
socialization and social learning builds self
control and can reduce the inclination to
indulge in behavior recognized as anti
social.
FOUR TYPES OF CONTROL THAT
CAN HELP PREVENT JUVENILE
DELINQUENCY
1. DIRECT - punishment is threatened or
applied for wrongful behavior and
compliance is rewarded by parents, family
and authority figures.
2. INTERNAL - youth refrains from
delinquency through the conscience or
super ego.
3. INDIRECT - by identification with
those who influence behavior because
his/her delinquent act might cause pain and
disappointment to parents and others with
whom he/she has close relationships.
4. CONTROL - through needs satisfaction,
if all individuals needs are met, there is no
point in criminal activity.
BREED VS. JONES - A US court
decision where it held that juveniles can not
be tried when acquitted in juvenile court
then tried again in adult criminal
court.Double jeopardy applies to juveniles
as well as adults.
JUVENILE DELINQUENCY - is the
participation in illegal behavior by minors
who fall under a statutory limit.
JUVENILE DELINQUENT - is a person
who is typically under the age of 18 and
commits an act that otherwise would have
been charged as a crime if they were an
adult.
CRIMES COMMONLY COMMITTED
BY JUVENILE DELINQUENTS
STATUS OFFENSES - is an action that is
prohibited only to a certain class of people
and most often applied to offenses only
committed by minors. example, under age
smoking.
PROPERTY CRIMES - is a category of
crime that includes theft,robbery,motor
vehicle theft,arson,shop lifting and
vandalism.
Violent Crime in which the offender uses or
threatens to use violent force upon the
victim.
AGE OF MAJORITY - is the threshold of
adulthood as it is
conceptualized,recognized or declared by
law.The vast majority of country including
the Philippines set majority age at 18.
YOUNG ADULT - a person between the
ages of 20 and 40 whereas adolescent is a
person between the ages of 13 and 19.
 
TYPES/CATEGORIES OF JUVENILE
DELINQUENCY
DELINQUENCY - crimes committed by
minors which are dealt with by the juvenile
courts and justice system.
CRIMINAL BEHAVIOR - crimes dealt
with by the criminal justice system.
STATUS OFFENSES - offenses which are
only classified as such because one is a
minor, such as truancy which is also dealt
with by juvenile court.
TRUANCY - is any intentional
unauthorized absence from compulsory
schooling.
VANDALISM - Ruthless destruction or
spoiling of anything beautiful or
venerable.The term includes criminal
damage such as graffiti and defacement
directed towards a property without the
permission of the owner.
GRAFFITI - is writing or drawings
scribbled,scratched or sprayed illicitly on a
wall or other surface in a public place.
DEFACEMENT - refers to marking or
removing the part of an object designed to
hold the viewers attention.
TYPES OF OFFENDERS THAT
EMERGE IN ADOLESCENCE
REPEAT OFFENDER - (life-course-
persistent offender) - begins offending or
showing anti-social/aggressive behavior in
adolescence or even childhood and
continuous in adulthood.
AGE SPECIFIC OFFENDER
(adolescence-limited offender) - juvenile
offending or delinquency begins and ends
during their period of adolescence.
1. VICTIMLESS CRIMES -  refers to
offenses where there is no private offended
party.
2. YOUTH REHABILITATION
CENTER - refers to a 24-hour residential
care facility managed by the Department of
Social Welfare and Development (DSWD),
LGUs, licensed and/or accredited NGO's
monitored by the DSWD, which provides
care, treatment and rehabilitation services
for children in conflict with the law.
3. YOUTH DETENTION HOME - refers
to a 24-hour child-caring institution
managed by accredited local government
units (LGU's) and licensed and/or
accredited non-government organizations
(NGO's) providing short-term residential
care for children in conflict with the law
who are awaiting court disposition of their
cases or transfer to other agencies or
jurisdiction.
4. STATUS OFFENSES -  refers to
offenses which discriminate only against a
child, while an adult does not suffer any
penalty for committing similar acts. These
shall include curfew violations, truancy,
parental disobedience and the like.
5. RESTORATIVE JUSTICE -  refers to
a principle which requires a process of
resolving conflicts with the maximum
involvement of the victim, the offender and
the community.
6. RECOGNIZANCE -  refers to an
undertaking in lieu of a bond assumed by a
parent or custodian who shall be
responsible for the appearance in court of
the child in accordance with the law, when
required.
7. OFFENSE - refers to any act or
omission whether punishable under special
laws or the Revised Penal Code, as
amended.
8. LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICER -  child in conflict with the law is not
refers to the person in authority or his/her
agent as defined in Article 152 of the
Revised Penal Code, including a barangay
tanod.
9. JUVENILE JUSTICE AND
WELFARE SYSTEM - refers to a system
dealing with children at risk and children in
conflict with the law, which provides child-
appropriate proceedings, including
programs and services for prevention,
diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration and
aftercare to ensure their normal growth and
development.
10. INTERVENTION - refers to a series
of activities which are designed to address
issues that caused the child to commit an
offense. It may take the form of an
individualized treatment program which
may include counseling, skills training,
education, and other activities that will
enhance his/her psychological, emotional
and psycho-social well-being.
11. INITIAL CONTACT WITH THE
CHILD - refers to the apprehension or
taking into custody of a child in conflict
with the law by law enforcement officers or
private citizens.
12. DIVERSION PROGRAM - refers to
the program that the child in conflict with
the law is required to undergo after he/she
is found responsible for an offense without
resorting to formal court proceedings.
13. DIVERSION - refers to an alternative,
child-appropriate process of determining
the responsibility and treatment of a child
in conflict with the law on the basis of
higher social, cultural, economic,
psychological or educational background
without resorting to formal court
proceedings.
14. DEPRIVATION OF LIBERTY - 
refers to any form of detention or
imprisonment, or to the placement of a
child in conflict with the law in a public or
private custodial setting, from which the
permitted to leave at will by order of any
judicial or administrative authority.
15. COURT -  refers to a family court or,
in places where there are no family courts,
any regional trial court.
16. COMMUNITY-based Programs - 
refers to the programs provided in a
community setting developed for purposes
of intervention and diversion, as well as
rehabilitation of the child in conflict with
the law, for reintegration into his/her family
and/or community.
17. CHILD IN CONFLICT WITH THE
LAW - refers to a child who is alleged as,
accused of, or adjudged as, having
 committed an offense under Philippine
laws.
18. CHILD AT RISK -  refers to a child
who is vulnerable to and at the risk of
committing criminal offenses because of
personal, family and social circumstances.
19. CHILD -  refers to a person under the
age of eighteen (18) years.
20. BEST INTEREST OF THE CHILD -
refers to the totality of the circumstances
and conditions which are most congenial to
the survival, protection and feelings of
security of the child and most encouraging
to the child's physical, psychological and
emotional development. It also means the
least detrimental available alternative for
safeguarding the growth and development
of the child.
21. BAIL -  refers to the security given for
the release of the person in custody of the
law, furnished by him/her or a bondsman,
to guarantee his/her appearance before any
court. Bail may be given in the form of
corporate security, property bond, cash
deposit, or recognizance.
22. R.A. NO. 9344 - The Act creating the
Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006.
23. ARTICLE 40 OF THE UNITED
NATIONS CONVENTION ON THE
RIGHTS OF THE CHILD -  the State
recognizes the right of every child alleged
as, accused of, adjudged, or recognized as,
having infringed the penal law to be treated
in a manner consistent with the promotion
of the child's sense  of dignity and worth,
taking into account the child's age and
desirability of promoting his/her
reintegration.
24. R.A. NO. 9344 should be construed
liberally in favor of the child in conflict
with the law.
JUVENILE DELINQUENCY DEFINITION
OF TERMS
1. ADJUDICATED DELINQUENT: A
youth who has been found by a judge in
juvenile court to have committed a
violation of the criminal law, that is, a
delinquent act.The judge can formally
adjudicate the youth as an initial step before
imposing a disposition (a sentence or
punishment), or the judge can decide not to
adjudicate the youth and instead impose
conditions that, if met, will result in
dismissal of the charges.
2. ADJUDICATORY HEARING: The
fact finding (trial) phase of a juvenile case
in which a judge receives and weighs
evidence before deciding whether a
delinquency or status offense has been
proven beyond a reasonable doubt.
3. AGGRAVATING FACTORS: Factors
to be considered that may increase the
seriousness of the offense, such as prior
offenses, weapon use, heinous nature of
crime, and threats to victims or witnesses.
4. ARREST: A law enforcement officer
charges an offender with a criminal act or
violation of law and takes the offender into
custody based on probable cause.
5. CONFLICT RESOLUTION: Use of
communication skills and creative thinking
to develop voluntary solutions that are
acceptable to disputants.
6. CONTINUUM OF CARE: A broad
array of juvenile justice programs and
services ranging from prevention programs
for young children and youth at risk of
delinquency to intervention programs
serving high-risk youth in secure residential
settings.
7. CURFEW: A local ordinance that
requires, under specific conditions and
exceptions, a specific group of persons
(usually juveniles under a certain age) to
refrain from unsupervised activities after a
designated hour within the confines of a
selected area, city, or county.
8. CUSTODY; Taken into custody: Being
in the care of a criminal or juvenile justice
agency or official or being taken into
custody by a law enforcement officer
pursuant to the laws of arrest if the juvenile
were an adult and the offense is criminal in
nature.
9. DELINQUENCY PREVENTION
PROGRAMS: Programs and services
designed to keep at-risk youth from
entering the juvenile justice system.
10. DELINQUENT ACT: Any act
committed by a youth that would be a
criminal violation if committed by an adult.
11. DELINQUENT JUVENILE: A youth
who has been found responsible for having
committed a delinquent act--the equivalent
of being found guilty of a criminal offense.
12. DETENTION: In custody (secure,
non-secure, or home confinement) while
awaiting an adjudication hearing,
disposition, or commitment placement.
13. DETENTION HEARING: A judicial
hearing generally required to be held within
72 hours of a youth being taken into
custody, at which point the court
determines whether (1) there is probable
cause to believe that the youth has
committed a delinquent act or a court order
exists that requires the continued detention
of the youth, and (2) continued detention is
required pending an adjudicatory hearing.
14. DISPOSITION HEARING: The
hearing in a juvenile case (like a sentencing
hearing in criminal court) at which the
court receives a predisposition report
containing information and
recommendations to help determine the
appropriate sanction. These sanctions can
include probation, commitment to the
custody of the state's department of juvenile
justice, or community-based sanctions.
15. DIVERSION: A process by which a
youth is channeled from the juvenile justice
system. Examples are Informal Adjustment,
Truancy Court, etc.
16. INTAKE: The process used for every
youth referred to juvenile court. Intake
involves screening each youth to determine
the appropriateness for release or referral to
a diversionary program or agency for
nonofficial or nonjudicial handling. This
screening also identifies the presence of
medical, psychiatric, psychological,
substance abuse, and educational problems
or other conditions that may have caused
the youth to come to the attention of law
enforcement or intake. Intake includes
initial screening of a status offender to
determine the recommended action to be
taken in the best interests of the youth, the
family, and the community.
17. JUVENILE DELINQUENCY
PROGRAM: Any program or activity
related to juvenile delinquency prevention,
control, diversion, intervention, treatment,
rehabilitation, planning, education, training,
and research.
18. MEDIATION: A process by which a
neutral third person, or mediator,
encourages and facilitates the resolution of
a dispute between two or more parties. It is
an informal process designed to help the
disputants reach a mutually acceptable and
voluntary agreement. Decision making
authority rests with the parties. The role of
the mediator includes, but is not limited to,
helping the parties identify issues, fostering
joint problem solving, and exploring
settlement alternatives.
19. MENTORING: Generally involves
providing support and guidance to and
spending time on a regular basis with a
youth. Mentoring activities can include
participating in sports, playing games,
shopping, taking hikes, helping with
homework, and doing chores.
20. PROTECTIVE FACTORS: Factors
that help to reduce the impact of risk
factors in a young person's life.
21. RISK FACTORS: Certain problem
behaviors present risk factors in a young
person's life that may contribute to later
delinquency. A few examples include the
availability of drugs and firearms in the
community, family conflict, and friends
who engage in problem behaviors.
22. STATUS OFFENSES: Non-criminal
offenses only applicable to children--for
example, being truant, running away from
home, possessing alcohol or cigarettes, or
violating curfew.
23. TRUANT: A young person who is
absent from school without permission or
authorization.
24. VICTIMIZATION: The result of a
planned or accidental act that causes
physical or psychological harm.
25. VIOLENT CRIME: Crimes of
violence include rape, robbery, assault, or
murder.
4 MAJOR THEORIES THAT EXPLAIN
EXISTENCE OF DELINQUENCY
Demonological/Pre-Classical – Possessed by
spirits – before.
Classical
Positivist
Gotical
ABANDONED CHILD – Is one who has no
proper parental care or guardianship or whose
parents or guardians have deserted him for a
period of at least 6 continuous months.
AGE OF ENLIGHTENMENT – 18th century.
BORSTALS – Youth Custody Centers and
detention center.
CESARE LOMBROSO – Father of
Criminology.
COMMON DETECTED YOUNG PERSONS
CRIME
Shoplifting
Crimes Of Violence
CRIME RATE –
Population X 100%
Crime Volume
CRITICAL THEORY – explains that
delinquency is the by product of social
arrangement.
DEFENDANT CHILD – Is one who is without
a parent, guardian or other custodian or one
whose parents, guardian or other custodian for
good cause desires to be relieved of his care and
custody.
DELINQUENCY – Acts against norms, mores
of society.
DEVIANCY – Is a stage of human existence
where one has ceased to believe in love whereby
the child ends up bitter, empty, lonely, resentful
and in most cases emotionally infantile
EDWIN SCHUR – Radical Non Intervention –
if a child commits an offense, he should be left
alone.
EMANCIPATION – Liberty from parental
authority.
EMOTIONALLY DISTURBED CHILDREN
– Are those who although not afflicted with
insanity or mental defect are unable to maintain
normal social relations with others and the
community in general due to emotional problems
and complexes.
EPIDEOLOGY –Transmission.
ETIOLOGY – Delinquency
FAMILY HOME – Constituted jointly by the
husband and the wife or by unmarried head of a
family, is the dwelling house where they and
their family reside and the land on which it is
situated.
HEDONISM – Pleasure, highest goal of man's
life.
HEDONISTIC CALCULUS – Process of
weighing pleasure and pain.
IDEA OF DETERMINATION – Any act
committed awaits an explanation to the natural
world.
JEREMY BENTHAM – Introduced
punishment of imprisonment.
JJS – Juvenile Justice System
JUVENILE – person/Minors/Youth whose
mental and emotional faculty has not been fully
developed.
JUVENILE DELINQUENT – Person commits
any act of delinquency.
JUVENILE DIVERSION – Offender is
removed from JJS and diverted to other
government programs.
LABELLING THEORY - RA 6809 – 18 years old - age of majority.
INTERNATIONALIST PERSPECTIVE – RA 8669 – Law which created the family court.
any youth who commits a crime should be left TRUANCY – Frequent Absences
alone
SOCIAL PERSPECTIVE TYPES OF DELINQUENTS
Occasional Delinquent
NEGLECTED CHILD – is one whose basic The Gang Delinquent
needs have been deliberately unattended or Mal Adjusted delinquent
inadequately attended.
NEO-CLASSICAL THEORY – Modified the WELFARE MODEL – Is the positivistic
classical theory, excepted the child and lunatics approach which holds that young offenders
from punishment. should be helped rather than punished.
PARENTAL AUTHORITY/PARTIA WILLIAM BONGER – Social Conflict Theory
POTESTOS – Rights and obligations which – society is composed of the ruling class and the
parents have in relation to the persons and ruled class.
property of their children until their
emancipation and even after this under certain YOUNG OFFENDERS FALL INTO TWO
circumstances. CATEGORIES
PD 603 – Child and Youth Welfare Code – Juveniles
Approval – Dec.10,1974 Young Adults – at least 17
EFFECTIVITY – June 10,1975
POLICE – Prime mover of JJS; Backbone of YOUTHFUL OFFENDER – below 18 years
CJS old.
POVERTY – Means the condition of that group - Is one who is over 9 years but under 18 years of
whose income is low, therefore, the standard of age at the time of the commission of the offense.
living is not enough to maintain normal health ZONES OF PEACE – Children trapped in an
and efficiency. armed conflict based on RA 7610.
SOME CAUSES OF POVERTY WHICH
COULD BE ONE OF THE CAUSES OF
CRIME
Physical Environment
Unfavorable Economic Condition    E. HUMAN BEHAVIOR AND CRISIS
Social Environment MANAGEMENT
Defects in Government AUTOMATIC CUES OR FIXED ACTION
Defects in Education RESPONSES - these are responses that are
usually found or used among animals when you
PROPONENT OF CLASSICAL THEORY instruct them to do something. For example, in
Jeremy Bentham an animal show, animal trainers use a whistle to
Cesare Beccaria elicit a specific response from an animal.
ANTISOCIAL PERSONALITY DISORDER
PROPONENTS OF POSITIVIST/ITALIAN - is characterized by a long-standing pattern of a
THEORY disregard for other people’s rights, often
Cesare Lombroso crossing the line and violating those rights. It
Enrico ferri usually begins in childhood or as a teen and
Rafael Garofalo continues into their adult lives.
ANXIETY - a feeling of worry, nervousness, or
unease about something with an uncertain
outcome.
APATHY - lack of interest, enthusiasm, or
concern.
AVOIDANT PERSONALITY DISORDER -
experience long-standing feelings of inadequacy
and are extremely sensitive to what others think
about them. These feelings of inadequacy leads
to the person to be socially inhibited and feel
socially inept. Because of these feelings of
inadequacy and inhibition, the person with
avoidant personality disorder will seek to avoid
work, school and any activities that involve
socializing or interacting with others.
BORDERLINE PERSONALITY
DISORDER - (BPD) is a pervasive pattern of
instability in interpersonal relationships, self-
image and emotions. People with borderline
personality disorder are also usually very
impulsive, oftentimes demonstrating self-
injurious behaviors (risky sexual behaviors,
cutting, suicide attempts).
COMPULSION - A sudden and irresistible
force compelling a person to do some action.
CONDITIONS AND FACTORS THAT
SURROUNDS AND INFLUENCES AN
INDIVIDUAL  normal condition before the crisis.
THAT CAN CAUSE CERTAIN BEHAVIOR
PATTERNS.
1. Environment
2. Society                                                       CRISIS NEGOTIATION - the use of
3. Heredity
4. Learning
COUNTER-SURVEILLANCE - any method
either physical or technical employed by the
offender(s) to detect Law Enforcement
involvement or the use of surveillance.
COURIER - the person(s) delivering the
concessions(s), which, purports to be, that being
demanded by the offenders.
CRIMINAL BEHAVIOR - is intentional
behavior that violates a criminal code;
intentional in that it did not occurs accidentally
or under duress.
CRIMINAL PSYCHIATRY - a branch of
psychiatry that deals with the evaluations,
prevention and cure of criminal behavior.
CRIMINAL PSYCHOLOGY - a branch of
psychology that deals with the study of behavior
and mental processes of the criminal.
CRIMINAL SIEGE - is a result of a
perpetration of crime that went wrong and the
criminals were trapped or cornered by law
enforcers. In many cases, hostage taking is
violent and unplanned.
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY - a branch of
sociology that studies about the criminal and to
its relation to the social structure of organization
of society as well the process on how the
criminal learn the behavior, both criminal and
non-criminal.
CRISIS - Any situation that is threatening or
could threaten to harm people or property,
seriously interrupt operations, damage
reputation and/or negatively impact the bottom
line.
CRISIS INTERVENTION - focuses on
studying an individual’s life in order to defuse
the destructive effects of the unusual stress
being experienced, and then assisting the
individual in crisis to go back to his or her
CRISIS MANAGEMENT - is the expert
handling of a situation to reduce or eliminate
danger or destruction.
communication techniques and strategies to
influence a person to change his/her behavior in
accordance with goals within legal, ethical and
moral constraints.
CRISIS NEGOTIATION TEAM -
COMPOSITION
1. PRIMARY NEGOTIATOR - actually
communicates with the subject.
2. SECONDARY NEGOTIATOR - (Backup)
assists the primary negotiator by offering
advice, monitoring the negotiations, keeping
notes, and ensuring that the Primary Negotiator
sees and hears everything in the proper
perspective.
3. INTELLIGENCE LIAISON/RECORDER
- interviews individuals associated with the
suspect to compile a criminal history and a
history of mental illness, as well as to gather
other relevant information. He is also in charge
of the recordings of all conversations.
4. NEGOTIATION TEAM LEADER - the
most senior member of the team act as a leader.
His primary responsibility is to act as a buffer
between command personnel and the
Negotiation Team. He/She advises the
Incident/On-Scene Commander on the best
negotiating strategies and co-ordinates the
process with the SWAT and the forward
command resources.
5. BOARD NEGOTIATOR - he/she maintains
a visual display of all information relevant to the
negotiations, i.e. deadlines, demands and details
of persons known to be in the stronghold.
DEADLOCK - means no deal and no
agreement—in other words, failure of the
negotiation.
DEBRIEFING - shall be conducted after each
positive police action to evaluate and study
operational lapses. Proper assessment of the
situation is an important key to a successful
operation during hostage-taking scenarios.
Debriefing also assists in determining and
establishing best practice.
DELUSION - is a belief held with strong
conviction despite superior evidence to the
contrary.
DEPENDENT PERSONALITY DISORDER
- is characterized by a long-standing need for
the person to be taken care of and a fear of being
abandoned or separated from important
individuals in his or her life. This leads the
person to engage in dependent and submissive
behaviors that are designed to elicit care-giving
behaviors in others. The dependent behavior
may be see as being “clingy” or “clinging on” to
others, because the person fears they can’t live
their lives without the help of others.
DEPRESSIVE AND SUICIDAL - is an
individual who has no contact with reality.
He/She is characterized by the following:
a. Irritable depressed mood
b. Diminished interests
c. Weight loss and fatigue
d. Insomnia or hypersomnia
e. Psychomotor agitation or retardation
f. Feeling of worthlessness and guilt
g. Lack of concentration
h. Thoughts of death.
DEVIANT BEHAVIOR - a behavior that
deviates from the norms and standards of the
society. It is not criminal behavior but it has the
tendency to become abnormal behavior, it will
become criminals when it violates the provision
of the criminal law.
EMPHATY - is the ability to understand and
share the feelings of another. It is where the
negotiator tries to perceive the emotional state
or condition of the subject and feedback a
response that demonstrates his/her
understanding of the subject.
HEMATOPHOBIA - an abnormal and
persistent fear of blood.
HISTRIONIC PERSONALITY DISORDER
- is characterized by a long-standing pattern of
attention seeking behavior and extreme
emotionality. Someone with histrionic
personality disorder wants to be the center of
attention in any group of people and feel
uncomfortable when they are not. While often
lively, interesting and sometimes dramatic, they
have difficulty when people aren’t focused
exclusively on them.
HOSTAGE - an individual who has been held
by the perpetrators against this/her will.
HOSTAGE-TAKER(S) - an individual or
group of person who hold another person(s)
against his/her/their will as bargaining chips for
purposes of demanding certain amount of
money, self protection, thwarting any police
action, or pursuing personal interest or that of
the general public.
HOSTAGE TAKING - is a situation that set of
circumstances wherein a suspected law violator
is holding a person in captive by the use of force
or threat of violence.
HOT DEBRIEF - short debriefing conducted
by negotiating team prior to turn over to another
set of negotiating team.
HUMAN BEHAVIOR - is refers to the
manner, the way in which a human react to his
environment.
ILLUSION - is a distortion of the senses,
revealing how the brain normally organizes and
interprets sensory stimulation. Though illusions
distort reality, they are generally shared by most
people.
IMPULSION - a strong urge to do something.
INCIDENT/ON-SCENE COMMANDER -
the senior officer in command of the incident.
INSIDE AGENT - a person who is in any
advantageous position (e.g. employed by the
victim or victim’s organization) which allows
them to gather intelligence or carry out counter
surveillance on behalf of the offenders.
INTERMEDIARY - any person authorized by
the Incident/On-Scene Commander to
communicate with the hostage-takers either
upon the request of the latter or to facilitate
smooth communication between the designated
negotiators and the hostage-takers. All actions
of the intermediary are supervised by the
negotiators.
KIDNAPPER(S) - an individual or group of
persons who kidnapped or held another person
against his/her will as bargaining chips for
purposes of demanding certain amount of
money, self-protection, thwarting any police
action, or pursuing personal interest.
LEARNED - an operant behavior which
involves cognitive adaptation that enhances the
human being’s ability to cope with changes in
the environment and to manipulate the
environment.
NARCISSISTIC PERSONALITY
DISORDER - is characterized by a long-
standing pattern of grandiosity (either in fantasy
or actual behavior), an overwhelming need for
admiration, and usually a complete lack of
empathy toward others. People with this
disorder often believe they are of primary
importance in everybody’s life or to anyone they
meet.
NEGOTIATION - to communicate on a matter
of disagreement between two parties, with a
view to first listen to the other party’s
perspective and then attempt to arrive at a
resolution agreed by consensus.
NEGOTIATOR - a trained PNP personnel or
any person authorized by the Incident/On-Scene
Commander to negotiate for and in behalf of the
police.
NEIGHBORHOOD CHECK – the process of
getting information from a person who knew the
victim particularly in the neighborhood with the
purpose of obtaining material information about
the victim and probable suspect.
OBSESSION - an idea or thought that
continually preoccupies or intrudes on a person's
mind.
OBSESSIVE–COMPULSIVE DISORDER -
(OCD) is an anxiety disorder characterized by
intrusive thoughts that produce uneasiness,
apprehension, fear or worry (obsessions),
repetitive behaviors aimed at reducing the
associated anxiety (compulsions), or a
combination of such obsessions and
compulsions. Symptoms of the disorder include
excessive washing or cleaning, repeated
checking, extreme hoarding, preoccupation with
sexual, violent or religious thoughts,
relationship-related obsessions, aversion to
particular numbers and nervous rituals such as
opening and closing a door a certain number of
times before entering or leaving a room.
PARANOID - is a mental disorder
characterized by paranoia and a pervasive, long-
standing suspiciousness and generalized
mistrust of others.
PARANOID PERSONALITY DISORDER -
are generally characterized by having a long-
standing pattern of pervasive distrust and
auspiciousness of others.  A person with
paranoid personality disorder will nearly always
believe that other people’s motives are suspect
or even malevolent. Individuals with this
disorder assume that other people will exploit,
harm, or deceive them, even if no evidence
exists to support this expectation.
PAY-OFF – the act of exchanging an agreed
amount between the family and the kidnappers
at a designated time and place for the safe
release of the victim.
PERSONALITY DISORDER - is not a mental
disorder. Individuals with personality disorders
can function in the world to a high level, e.g.
look after themselves, business, finance, etc.
However, they fail to function normally in terms
of their relationship with other people. They
have dramatic/aggressive clusters of behavior.
CHARACTERISTICS OF A PERSON
WITH PERSONALITY DISORDER
1. No conscience – lacks guilt or remorse,
inability to love, no empathy. A Bully.
2. Selfish, no loyalty
3. Manipulative/charmer – likes
power/controlling others
4. Sexually experimenting
5. Seeks immediate gratification, thrill seeker
6. Low anxiety, blames others – never their fault
7. Frustration tolerance low – may turn to
his/her for stimulation
8. Low self esteem, poor achievement history
9. Poor planner – lacks follow through
10.Probable marital and employment problems
11.Chaotic family relationship
12.Excessive/exorbitant and
13.Changing demands
14.Suicide potential high
15.Seeks attention/audience
16.Wants to prove can do something
17.May like attention and not want to end
incident
PHASES OF A CRISIS
1. PRE-INCIDENT PHASE - is the period of
time prior to an incident occurring. This Phase
consists of the following:
A. PREDICTION - determination of what
incident is going to occur and when it is going
to occur, is the key to minimizing the effects of
the incident.
B. PREVENTION - the best way to minimize
the damage done by an incident is to prevent it
from occurring. Not all incidents are preventable
like natural disasters. Some preventable
incidents may be detected too late to prevent
them.
C. PREPARATION - 2 Forms of preparation
1. Preparation of the response designed to
prevent the incident
2. Preparation for the incident.
2. INCIDENT OCCURRENCE - is the
instance in time at which the incident occurs or
starts to occur if it has not been prevented.
3. POST-OCCURRENCE PHASE - during
this phase, the incident may get worse. This
Phase consists of the following:
a. Recognition
b. Response
1. Initial Response
2. Consolidation
3. Stand down
c. Recovery
d. Investigation
4. POST-INCIDENT PHASE - incident is
likely to have a finite lifetime. Most incidents
will conclude without intervention. However,
without intervention the effects of the incident
may be worse or the incident may last longer.
This Phase Consist of the following:
A. RESTORATION - once the incident is over,
normality returns over a period of time which
can take months or years for very severe
incidents.
B. INVESTIGATION - may be performed
after the incident concludes to provide
information and evidence for any hearing,
inquiries and criminal prosecution.
C. POST-INCIDENT DISCUSSION
ACTIVITIES - activities include immediate
incident debriefs and other types of incident
discussions occurring sometime after the
incident concludes. The aim of the debriefs is to
identify areas for improvement.
PHOBIA - is an overwhelming and
unreasonable fear of an object or situation that
poses little real danger but provokes anxiety and
avoidance.
PROOF OF LIFE - positive proof that the
hostage is alive, obtained from a reliable or
verified source.
PSYCHOTIC – (Paranoid Schizophrenic) is a
mental disorder which means that individuals
affected cannot function in the world adequately
on a day-to-day basis. They see the world as
disorder and they are desperately trying to make
sense of it. They have odd/eccentric clusters of
behavior and fear/terror may be their underlying
emotion.
CHARACTERISTICS OF A PSYCHOTIC
INDIVIDUAL
1. DISORGANIZED THINKING
a. Delusions, false beliefs – often of persecution
or grandeur despite evidence to the contrary.
b. Thoughts spill out in no logical order, leaps
from one idea to another.
2. DISTURBED PERCEPTION -
Hallucinations, all 5 senses with no known
cause.
3. INAPPROPRIATE
EMOTIONS/ACTIONS - Laughs at funerals,
cries when others laugh, performs compulsive or
senseless acts e.g. rocking, rubbing, twisting
hair.
4. Socially withdrawn, aloof, detached
5. Disoriented/confused/paranoid
6. Argumentative, suspicious of others, over
reacts
7. Acts peculiarly such as collecting rubbish and
talking to himself/herself
8. Belief that his/here body/thoughts is
controlled by external force.
RAPPORT - a close and harmonious
relationship in which the people concerned
understand each other’s feelings or ideas and
communicate.
SCHIZOID PERSONALITY DISORDER -
IS a personality disorder characterized by a lack
of interest in social relationships, a tendency
towards a solitary lifestyle, secretiveness, and
emotional coldness.
SCHIZOPHRENIC - is an individual who has
no contact with reality.
He/She is usually characterized by the
following:
a. He/She is a psychotic;
b. He/She has a fundamental personality
disorder;
c. He/She exhibits symptoms such as
hallucinations, voices, obscene language,
giggling, self absorbed smile and sudden breaks
in flow of thinking.
STOCKHOLM SYNDROME - term that
refers to a situation during hostage taking where
the victim develops rapport and becomes
sympathetic with his/her captor.
STRONGHOLD - any location or structure,
fixed or mobile, where the hostage is being held.
SUICIDE INTERVENTION - the use of
communication techniques and strategies to
influence a person to change behavior and
reconsider his desire to commit suicide.
TACTICAL INTERROGATION - refers to
the act of questioning or eliciting information
from a suspect to produce information of tactical
or operational value.
TIME - is the most important element of
hostage negotiation.
VICTIM -  the person/company/organization to
whom the unwarranted demand or threat is
directed or intended, or is expected by the
offenders to respond.
VICTIM COMMUNICATOR - the individual
communicating directly with the people making
the threat(s), demand(s) or issuing instructions.
VICTIMOLOGY – the process of obtaining a
detailed account of the victim’s lifestyle and
personality that can assist in determining the
nature of the disappearance, the risk level of the
victim, and the
type of person who could have committed the
crime. It also includes complete information
regarding the victim’s physical description,
normal behavioral patterns, family dynamics
and known friends and
acquaintances. crime committed by Lito?
A.    Corruption of Public Officials
B.    Direct Assault
C.    Slight Physical Injuries
   F. CRIMINOLOGICAL RESEARCH AND D.    Grave Coercion
STATISTICS
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the
killing of his parents.  When PO2 Tapang tried to
arrest him,Fred gave him 1 million pesos to set him
free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Fred.  What
was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
A.    Indirect Bribery   
B.    Direct Bribery
C.    Corruption of Public Officials
D.    Qualified Bribery

6. Which of the following is the exemption to the

QUESTION: hearsy rule made under the consciousness of an
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE REVIEW impending death?
QUESTIONS A. Parol Evidence
1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery B. Ante mortem statement
killed his father.  What was the crime committed? C. Suicide note
A.    Murder D. Dead man statute
B.    Parricide
C.    Homicide 7. Factum probans means __.
D.    Qualified Homicide A.    preponderance of evidence
B.    ultimate fact
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against C.    evidentiary fact
the latter’s will on suspicion that Bitoy keep D.    sufficiency of evidence
unlicensed firearms in his home. What was the crime
committed by PO3 Bagsik? 8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted
A.    Trespass to Dwelling from one generation to another.
B.    Violation of Domicile A.    inheritance
C.    Usurpation Of Authority B.    heritage
D.    Forcible Trespassing C.    pedigree
D.    culture
3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6
months.They live together with the children of Lea 9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the
from her first husband. Charlie had sexual relation case in the first instance.
with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of Lea.Jane loves A.    Appellate Jurisdiction
Charlie very much. What was the crime committed B.    General Jurisdiction
by Charlie? C.    Original Jurisdiction
A. Simple Seduction D.    Exclusive Jurisdiction
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Consented Abduction 10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute
D. Rape    litigants.
   A.    Counsel de officio
4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his B.    Attorney on record
students, Lito. When the two met the following day, C.    Attorney at law
Lito slapped Prof. Jose on the face.  What was the D.    Special counsel 
11. Which of the following is not covered by the A.    Tumultuous
Rules on Summary Procedure? B.    charivari
A.    Violation of rental laws C.    sedition
B.    Violation of traffic laws D.    scandal
C.    The penalty is more than six months of Answer: B 
imprisonment
D.    The penalty does not exceed six months 18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who
imprisonment compels another person to change his residence.
A.    violation of domicile   
12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of B.    arbitrary detention
the court is to be exercised. C.    expulsion
A.    jurisdiction        D.    direct assault
B.    jurisprudence Answer: C  
C.    venue
D.    bench 19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty
of another person without legal grounds.
13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law. A.    illegal detention   
A.    RA 6425 B.    arbitrary detention
B.    RA 8353 C.    forcible abduction
C.    BP.22 D.    forcible detention
D.    RA 6975 Answer: A  

14. The taking of another person’s personal property, 20. An offense committed by a married woman
with intent to gain, by means of force and through carnal knowledge with a man not her
intimidation. husband who knows her to be married, although the
A.    qualified theft marriage can be later declared void.
B.    robbery A.    concubinage   
C.    theft B.    bigamy
D.    malicious mischief C.    adultery
D.    immorality
15. Felony committed when a person compels Answer: C  
another by means of force, violence or intimidation 21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the
to do something against his will, whether right or commission of a crime.
wrong. A.    15-18 years old
A.    grave threat B.    18-70  years old
B.    grave coercion C.    9 years old and below
C.    direct assault D.    between 9 and 15 years old
D.    slander by deed Answer: C   
Answer: B   
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the
16. These are persons having no apparent means of execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous
subsistence but have the physical ability to work and acts.
neglect to apply himself or herself to lawful calling. A.    Accomplices
A.    Pimps B.    Suspects
B.    prostitutes C.    principal actors
C.    gang members D.    accessories
D.    vagrants Answer: A    
Answer: D   
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade government to execute the final sentence after the
of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult. lapse of a certaintime fixed by law.
A.    prescription of crime A.    gang   
B.    prescription of prosecution B.    conspiracy
C.    prescription of judgement    C.    band
D.    prescription of penalty D.    piracy
Answer: D    Answer: C   

24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the 30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one
execution of penalty is suspended. is bound to.
A.    Pardon A.    Negligence
B.    commutation B.    imprudence
C.    amnesty C.    omission
D.    reprieve D.    act
Answer: D     Answer: C  

25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed 31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of
to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the
the society. execution of his criminal plan.
A.    mala prohibita A.    Misfeasance
B.    mala in se B.    entrapment       
C.    private crimes C.    inducement
D.    public crimes D.    instigation
Answer: A    Answer: B   

26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees 32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for
to commit an act in consideration of a gift and this reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no
act is connected with the discharge of his public penalty imposed.
duties. A.    impossible crimes
A.    qualified bribery B.    aggravating circumstances
B.    direct bribery C.    absolutory  causes
C.    estafa D.    Complex Crimes
D.    indirect bribery Answer: C
Answer: B     
33. One of the following is an alternative
27. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood circumstance.
under oath of affirmation, administered by authority A.    Insanity
of law on a material matter. B.    intoxication       
A.    libel    C.    passion or obfuscation
B.    falsification D.    evident premeditation
C.    perjury Answer: B   
D.    slander
Answer: C     34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make
conditional plea of guilty, what shall be entered for
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution. him?
A.    Treachery A.    a plea of not guilty
B.    evident premeditation B.    a plea of guilty
C.    ignominy C.    a plea of mercy
D.    cruelty D.    a plea of surrender
Answer: B    Answer: A   

29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall 35. At what time may the accused move to quash the
have acted together in the commission of a crime. complaint or information?
A.    at any time before his arrest C.    preliminary investigation
B.    only after entering his plea D.    plea bargaining
C.    any time before entering his plea Answer: C   
D.    Monday morning
Answer: C 41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same
     state of facts.
36. The process whereby the accused and the A.    secondary evidence
prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually B.    prima facie evidence
satisfactory C.    corroborative evidence
disposition on the case subject to court approval. D.    best evidence
A.    Arraignment Answer: C   
B.    plea bargaining
C.    preliminary investigation    42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or
D.    trial uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the
Answer: B    proposition affirmed.
A.    secondary evidence
37. The security given for the release of a person in B.    prima facie evidence
custody, furnished by him or a bondsman, C.    corroborative evidence
conditioned upon his appearance before any court as D.    best evidence
required under the conditions specified by law. Answer: B    
A.    Subpoena
B.    recognizance 43. A form of evidence supplied by written
C.    bail instruments or derived from conventional symbols,
D.    warrant such as letters, by which ideas are represented on
Answer: C    material substances.
A.    documentary evidence
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, B.    testimonial evidence
according to the laws of the land, of the acts in issue C.    material evidence
in a case, for the purpose of determining such issue. D.    real evidence
A.    Trial Answer: A
B.    Arraignment    
C.    pre-trial 44. When the witness states that he did not see or
D.    judgment know the occurrence of a fact.
Answer: A A.    positive evidence
                                  B.    corroborative evidence
39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is C.    secondary evidence
guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged, and the D.    negative evidence
imposition of the proper penalty and  Answer: D   
A.    trial
B.    Pre-trial 45. Personal property that can be subjects for search
C.    Arraignment      and seizure.
D.    Judgment A.    used or intended to be used  as means in
Answer: D    committing an offense
B.    stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of of the offense
determining whether there is sufficient ground to C.    subject of the offense
engender a well founded belief that an offense has D.    all of the above
been committed and the offender is probably guilty Answer: D   
thereof and should  be held for trial.
A.    pre-trial 46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can
B.    arraignment make known their perception to others.
A.    Suspects 52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not
B.    witnesses more than….
C.    victims A.    36 hours
D.    informers B.    24 hours
Answer: B    C.    48 hours
D.    72 hours
47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth Answer: D
prematurely, of human fetus before the natural time         
of birth which results in death. 53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from
A.    abortion    compliance therewith.
B.    infanticide A.    ignorantia legis non excusat   
C.    murder B.    parens patriae
D.    parricide C.    res ipsa loquitur
Answer: A    D.    dura lex sed lex
Answer: A
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or
wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel 54. An act which would be an offense against persons
among several persons not organized into groups and or property if it was not for the inherent impossibility
the parties responsible cannot be ascertained. of its accomplishment.
A.    alarm and scandal            A.    compound crime
B.    mysterious homicide B.    impossible crime
C.    death under exceptional circumstances      C.    complex crime
D.    tumultuous affray D.    accidental crime
Answer: D  Answer: B  
 
49. A question which arises in a case the resolution 55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.
of which is the logical antecedent of the issue A.    RA 5425
involved in said case and the cognizance of which B.    RA 8553
pertains to another tribunal. C.    RA 7659
A.    legal question D.    RA 8551
B.    juridical question Answer: C
C.    prejudicial question
D.    judicial question 56. One who is deprived completely of reason or
Answer: C      discernment and freedom of the will at the time of the
commission of the crime.
50. The RPC was based on the A.    discernment   
A.    Spanish penal code B.    insanity
B.    English penal code C.    epilepsy
C.    American penal code D.    imbecility
D.    Japanese penal code Answer: D   
Answer: A
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to
51. An act or omission which is a result of a a person as its owner or author
misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not A.    responsibility   
intentional. B.    duty
A.    impossible crime C.    guilt
B.    mistake of facts D.    imputability
C.    accidental crime Answer: D   
D.    complex crime
Answer: B    58. Something that happen outside the sway of our
will, and although it comes about through some acts
of our will, lies beyond the bound s of humanly B.    alternative
foreseeable consequences. C.    justifying 
A.    fortuitous event D.    aggravating
B.    fate Answer: C   
C.    accident
D.    destiny 64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making
Answer: C    his victim suffers slowly and gradually, causing him
unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with the criminal act.
an offense,subscribed by the offended party, any A.    Ignominy
peace officer or other public officer charged with the B.    cruelty
enforcement of the law violated. C.    treachery
A.    subpoena    D.    masochism
B.    information Answer: B
C.    complaint       
D.    writ 65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime
Answer: C    shall have been previously convicted by final
judgment of another crime embraced in the same title
60. This right of the accused is founded on the of the Revised Penal Code.
principle of justice and is intended not to protect the A.    Recidivism
guilty but to prevent as far as human agencies can the B.    habitual delinquency
conviction of an innocent person. C.    reiteracion
A.    right to due process of law D.    quasi-recidivism
B.    presumption of innocence Answer: A   
C.    right to remain silent
D.    right against self-incrimination 66. Alevosia means
Answer: B    A.    Craft
B.    treachery
61. Known in other countries as the body of C.    evident premeditation
principles, practices, usages and rules of action which D.    cruelty
are not recognized in our country. Answer: B   
A.    penal laws
B.    special laws 67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon
C.    common laws inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial.
D.    statutory laws A.    ex post facto law
Answer: C B.    equal protection of the law
C.    rule of law
62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the D.    due process of law
agent of the crime any of all the conditions that Answer: D   
would make  an act voluntary and hence, though
there is no criminal liability there is civil liability. 68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the
A.    Exempting date of his release or last conviction of the crime of
B.    alternative serious or less serious physical injuries, robbery,
C.    justifying theft, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of any
D.    aggravating of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
Answer: A    A.    Recidivist
B.    quasi-recidivist
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are C.    habitual delinquent
in accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no D.    hardened criminal
criminal and civil liability. Answer: C   
A.    exempting           
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or contempt upon another person.
overcome. A.    libel     
A.    Primary B.    slander by deed   
B.    Best C.    incriminating innocent person   
C.    Secondary D.    intriguing against honor
D.    Conclusive Answer: B   
Answer: D
    76. The improper performance of some act which
70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or might lawfully be done.   
overcome. A.    misfeasance        
A.    Primary B.    malfeasance         
B.    Best C.    nonfeasance    
C.    Secondary D.    dereliction
D.    Conclusive Answer: B  
Answer: D   
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath
71. These questions suggest to the witness the before an authorized magistrate or officer.
answers to which an examining party requires. A.    subpoena   
A.    leading B.    writ     
B.    misleading C.    warrant    
C.    stupid D.    affidavit
D.    hearsay Answer: D   
Answer: A  
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and to himself without authority of law.
prosecution of persons alleged to have committed a A.    alias    
crime, and or their punishment in case of conviction B.    common name    
A.    Criminal Law C.    fictitious name 
B.    Criminal Evidence D.    screen name
C.    Criminal Procedure Answer: C 
D.    Criminal  Jurisprudence          
Answer: C  79. A special aggravating circumstance where a
person, after having been convicted by final
73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable judgment, shall commit a new felony before
by death. beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving
A.    20  years the same.
B.    15 years A.    quasi-recidivism    
C.    10 years B.    recidivism    
D.    40 years C.    reiteracion   
Answer: A   D.    charivari
Answer: A  
74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a
crime. 80. Which of the following is not a person in
A.    Accomplices authority?
B.    Accessories A.    Municipal mayor    
C.    Instigators B.    Private School Teacher       
D.    Principals C.    Police Officer
Answer: D   D.    Municipal Councilor
Answer: C   
75. A crime against honor which is committed by
performing any act which casts dishonor, discredit, or 81. In its general sense, it is the raising of
commotions or disturbances in the State. C.    Rebellion    
A.    Sedition     D.    Rape
B.    Rebellion        Answer: C  
C.   Treason    
D.    Coup d’ etat 88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than
Answer: A    that  which is intended.
A.    Aberratio ictus    
82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its B.    Error in personae    
date. C.    Dura Lex Sed lex 
A.    30 days D.    Praeter Intentionem
B.    15 days    Answer: D  
C.    10 days    
D.    60 days 89. It means mistake in the blow.
Answer: C    A.    Aberratio Ictus    
B.    Error in Personae           
83. The detention of a person without legal grounds C.    Dura lex sed lex     
by a public officer or employee. D.    Praeter Intentionem
A.    illegal detention    Answer: A    
B.    arbitrary detention    
C.    compulsory detention 90. A stage of execution when all the elements
D.    unauthorized detention necessary for its execution and accomplishment are
Answer: B    present.
A.    Attempted    
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, B.    Frustrated    
committed by a person who owes allegiance to it. C.    Consummated   
A.    treason     D.    Accomplished
B.    espionage      answer: C
C.    rebellion    
D.    coup d’ etat 91. An act or omission which is the result of a
Answer: A    misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not
intentional.
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest A.    Absolutory Cause 
and comfort. B.    Mistake of facts        
A.    sanctuary     C.    Conspiracy 
B.    prison     D.    Felony
C.    jail     Answer: B   
D.    dwelling  
Answer: D    92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.
A.    Material    
86. The mental capacity to understand the difference B.    Formal   
between right and wrong. C.    Seasonal    
A.    treachery     D.    Continuing
B.    premeditation     Answer: A   
C.    recidivism    
D.    discernment 93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the
Answer: D     offender are malicious.
A.    Culpable    
87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable B.    Intentional   
under the law. C.    Deliberate   
A.    Estafa     D.    Inculpable
B.    Murder    Answer: B   
  with her 11 year old girlfriend without threat, force
94. It indicates deficiency of perception. or  intimidation. What was the crime committed?
A.    Negligence   
B.    Diligence                   A.    Child rape
C.    Imprudence              B.    Qualified Rape   
D.    Inference           C.    Statutory Rape    
Answer: A              D.    None of these                                             
Answer: C
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal
laws. Law Enforcement Administration Review
          A.    Offenses     Questions
          B.    Misdemeanors    
          C.    Felonies 1.  The amount and nature of the demands
          D.    Ordinances of the police service
Answer: A          A.Clientele
         B.Purpose
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding          C.Time
upon all persons who live or sojourn in the
         D. Process
Philippines.
          A.    General     Answer: C
          B.    Territorial  
          C.    Prospective     2.  The PNP has a program which ensures
          D.    Retroactive                                                  the deployment of policemen in busy and
Answer: A    crime prone areas.  This is called
A.    patrol deployment program
97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment B.    roving patrol program
without judicial trial. C.    patrol and visibility program
          A.    Bill of Attainder    D.    police patrol program
          B.    Bill of Rights   
Answer: C
          C.    Ex Post Facto Law
          D.    Penal Law
Answer: A 3. All regional appointments of
            commissioned officers commence with the
98. The taking of a person into custody in order that rank of: 
he may be bound to answer for the commission of an           A.    Senior Police Officer I
offense.           B.    Inspector
          A.    Search              C.    Police Officer III
          B.    Seizure             D.    Senior Inspector
          C.    Arrest     Answer: B
          D.    Detention
Answer: C  
4.  In busy and thickly populated
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime commercial streets like those in Divisoria,
committed? police patrol is very necessary.  Since there
          A.    Robbery are several types of patrol, which of the
          B.    Farm Theft      following will you recommend:
          C.    Qualified Theft    
          D.    Simple Theft
          A.    Horse patrol
Answer: C              B.    Mobile patrol
          C.    Foot patrol
100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse           D.    Helicopter patrol
Answer: C
5.  It is the product resulting from the
collection, evaluation, analysis, and
interpretation of all available information
which concerns one or more aspects of
criminal activity and which is immediately
or potentially significant to police planning.
          A.    Investigation        A.    Three (3) members chosen by the
          B.    Information
          C.    Data
          D.    intelligence
Answer: D
         
6.  These are work programs of line
divisions which related to the nature and
extent of the workload and the availability
of resources.
          A.    administrative plan            Answer: D
          B.    operational plan
          C.    strategic plan
          D.    tactical plan
Answer: B        particular operational purpose.
7.  It is the premier educational institution
for the police, fire and jail personnel.
A.    Philippine Military Academy
B.    Development Academy of the
Philippines
C.    Philippine College of Criminology
D.    Philippine Public Safety College
Answer: D
8.  A crew which is assigned to a mobile
car usually consist of
A.    a driver and intelligence agent
B.    a driver and traffic man
C.    a driver and a recorder
D.    a driver, recorder and supervisor
Answer: D
9.  An industrial complex must establish its
first line of physical defense.  It must have
A.    the building itself            B.    his personal circumstances such as his
B.    perimeter barriers
C.    communication barriers
D.    window barriers
Answer:B
10. All of the following are members of the
People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB),
EXCEPT:
Peace and Order Council from among the
respected members of the community.
B.    Any barangay Captain of the
city/municipality concerned chosen by the
association of the Barangay Captains.
C.    Any member of the Sangguniang
Panglungsod/Pambayan
D.    A bar member chosen by the
Integrated bar of the Philippines (IBP)
                                             
11. It is the circumspect inspection of a
place to determine its suitability for a
          A.    Inspection       
          B.    Surveillance
          C.    Survey
          D.    Casing
Answer: C
12. In the civil service system, merit and
fitness are the primary considerations in the
          A.    two-party system   
          B.    evaluation system
          C.    promotional system
          D.    spoils system
Answer: C
13. In the de-briefing, the intelligence agent
is asked to discuss which of the following:
A.    his educational profile and schools
attended
age, religious affiliation, address, etc. accordance with a police-to-population
C.    his political inclination and/or party ratio of:
affiliation A.    one (1) policeman for every seven
D.    his observations and experiences in the hundred (700) inhabitants.
intelligence B.    one (1) policeman for every one
Answer: D thousand five hundred (1,500)
C.inhabitants.
14. It is a natural or man-made structure or C.    one (1) policeman for every five
physical device which is capable of hundred (500) inhabitants.
restricting, determine, or delaying illegal D.    one (1) policeman for every one
access to an installation. thousand (1,000) inhabitants.
          A.    alarm                    Answer: C
          B.    wall   
          C.    barrier 18. In disaster control operations, there is a
          D.    hazard need to establish a ______where telephones
Answer: C or any means of communication shall  
A.ensure open lines of communication.
15. What form of intelligence is involved B.command post           
when information is obtained without the C.operations center
knowledge of the person against whom the D.field room
information or documents may be used, or Answer:B
if the information is clandestinely acquired?
          A.    covert                 19. Registration of a security agency must
          B.    overt    be done at the______.
          C.    active A.Securities and Exchange Commission
          D.    underground B.National Police Commission
Answer: A C.Department of National Defense
D.PNP Criminal Investigation Group
16. The provincial Governor shall choose Answer:D
the provincial Director from a list of
___________ eligible recommended by the 20. The cheapest form of police patrol.
Regional Director, preferable from the           A.    Bicycle Patrol
same province, city, municipality.             B.    Foot Patrol
          A.    three (3)              C.    Motorcycle Patrol
          B.    five (5)           D.    Helicopter Patrol                        
          C.    four (4)                                        Answer: B    
21. The budget is a _________________ in
          D.    Two (2) terms of expenditure requirements.
Answer: A           A.tactical plan           
          B.financial plan   
17. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the           C.work plan
average nationwide, the manning levels of           D.control plan
the PNP shall be approximately in Answer: B

22. The term used for the object of
surveillance is a subject while the
investigator conducting the surveillance is:
          A.rabbit                    27. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the
          B.surveillant
          C.traffic enforcement
          D.patrol
Answer: A
23. It is a police function which serves as
the backbone of the police service.  In all
types of police stations, there is a specific
unit assigned to undertake this function in
view of its importance.
          A.vice control            busy patrol beats but assign a roving mobile
          B.criminal investigation
          C.traffic management
          D.patrol
Answer: D
24. It is the weakest link in security chain.
          A.managers                          B.    Alexander the Great
          B.Barriers
          C.Personnel
          D.inspections
Answer:
25. Which of the following is considered as
the most important factor in formulating an
effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. adequacy of resources of the police
station
C. rank of the patrol commander
D. salary rates of police personnel
Answer: B
26. Who among the following have
summary disciplinary powers over errant
police members?
          A.District Director                      B.    count the number of supervisor
          B.Provincial Director
          C.Chief of Police
          D.Chief, PNP                                     
Answer: D
morning shift.  You don’t have enough men
to cover all the patrol beats.  Which of the
following will you implement?
A.    assign roving mobile patrol with no
foot patrol
B.    assign mobile patrols only in strategic
places
C.    maintain your patrolmen at the station
and just wait for calls for police assistance
D.    assign foot patrol in congested and
patrol to cover beats which are not covered
by foot patrol               Answer: B
                                                           
28. The father of organized military
espionage was:
          A.    Akbar                   
   
          C.    Genghis Khan
          D.    Frederick the
Great                               Answer: D
29. Which of the following is the most
common reason why informer can give
information to the police?
          A.wants to be known to the
policeman
          B.monetary reward
          C.as a good citizen
          D.revenge                                        
Answer: B
30. To improve delegation, the following
must be done, EXCEPT:
          A.    establish objectives and
standards
          C.    require completed work
          D.    define authority and surveillance are the following, EXCEPT
responsibility           Answer: C A.    stop quickly, look behind
B.    drop paper, never mind what happens
31. What administrative support unit to the paper
conducts identification and evaluation of C.    window shop, watch reflection
physical evidences related to crimes, with D.    retrace steps                                      
emphasis on their medical, chemical, Answer: B
biological and physical nature.
A.    Logistics Service        36. On many occasions, the bulk of the
B.    Crime Laboratory    most valuable information comes from:
C.    Communication and Electronic service           A.    business world           
D.    Finance Center                                              B.    newspaper clippings
Answer: B           C.    an underworld informant
          D.    communications
32. Those who are charged with the actual media                           Answer: B
fulfillment of the agency’s mission are
________. 37. Highly qualified police applicants such
          A.    staff                    as engineers, nurses and graduates of
          B.    supervision    forensic sciences can enter the police
          C.    management service as officers through:
          D.    line                                                       A.    regular promotion           
Answer: D           B.    commissionship
          C.    lateral entry
33. When the subject identifies or obtains           D.    attrition                                        
knowledge that the investigation is Answer: C
conducting surveillance on him, the latter
is: 38. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the
          A.    cut out                  Chief of Police of a municipality.  He wants
          B.    sold out his subordinates to be drawn closer to the
          C.    burnt out people in the different barangays.  He
          D.    get out                                         should adopt which of the following
Answer: C projects?
          A.    COPS on the blocks       
34. Small alley like those in the squatters           B.    Oplan Bakal
area of Tondo can be best penetrated by the           C.    Oplan Sandugo
police through:           D.    Complan
          A.    foot patrol                Pagbabago                              Answer: A
          B.    mobile patrol   
          C.    highway patrol 39. What should be undertaken by a
          D.    helicopter Security Officer before he can prepare a
patrol                                    Answer: A comprehensive security program for his
industrial plan?
35. Some of the instructions in foot           A.    security conference           
          B.    security check    thief’s desire to steal is not diminished by
          C.    security survey the presence of the police officer but the
          D.    security education                        ______for successful theft is.
Answer: C           A.    ambition               
          B.    feeling
40. This patrol method utilizes disguise,           C.    intention
deception and lying in wait rather than           D.    opportunity                                  
upon high-visibility patrol techniques. Answer: A
          A.    low-visibility patrol           
          B.    directed deterrent patrol 45. Graduates of the Philippine National
          C.    decoy patrol Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically
          D.    high-visibility appointed to the rank of:
patrol                               Answer: A           A.    Senior Superintendent       
          B.    Inspector
41. It enforces all traffic laws and           C.    Senior Police Officer 1
regulations to ensure the safety of motorists           D.   
and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic. Superintendent                                   
          A.    Civil Relations Unit        Answer: C
          B.    Traffic Operations Center
          C.    Traffic Management Command 46. PNP in-service training programs are
          D.    Aviation Security under the responsibility of the:
Command                    Answer: C A.    PNP Directorate for Plans
B.    PNP Directorate for Human Resource
42. A method of collecting information and Doctrine Development
wherein the investigator merely uses his C.    PNP Directorate for Personnel and
different senses. Records Management
          A.    observation            D.    PNP Directorate for
          B.    casing Comptrollership          Answer: C
          C.    research
          D.    interrogation                                47. One way of extending the power of
Answer: A police observation is to get information
from persons within the vicinity. In the
43. In stationary surveillance, the following police work, this is called:
must be observed, EXCEPT           A.    data gathering            
          A.    never meet subject face to face           B.    field inquiry
          B.    avoid eye contact           C.    interrogation
          C.    recognize fellow agent           D.    interview                                     
          D.    if burnt out, drop subject             Answer: B
Answer: C
48. Dogs have an acute sense of ________
44. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the thus, their utilization in tracking down lost
handbag of Maria.  PO1 Santos Reyes is persons or illegal drugs.
standing a few meters from Maria. The           A.    smell                   
          B.    hearing                                       
          C.    eating 53. The uprightness in character, soundness
          D.    drinking                                       of moral principles, honesty and freedom
Answer: A from moral delinquencies is referred to as
          A.    integrity               
49. Intelligence on _______makes heavy           B.    loyalty                   
use of geographic information because law           C.    discretion
enforcement officials must know exact           D.    moral                        
locations to interdict the flow of drugs. Answer: A
          A.    Logistics                                                      
          B.    Human Cargo Trafficking 54. Going east while foot patrolling and
          C.    Narcotics Trafficking turning right after reaching the end of your
          D.    Economic beat and turning right after reaching the
resources                              Answer: C other end of the road and again turning
right until you completed the cycle by
50. Which of the following is most ideally reaching back to your origin of patrolling.
suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue What patrol pattern have you applied?
duties?           A.    clockwise                
          A.    motorcycle                          B.    straightway
          B.    helicopter                  C.    counter clockwise
          C.    patrol car           D.    free-
          D.    bicycle                                          wheeling                                      Answer: A
Answer: B                                       
55. Which theory of patrol state that police
51. A method of collection of information visibility increases the opportunity to
wherein the investigator tails or follows the apprehend criminals by soothing them and
person or vehicle. letting them believe that their crimes will
          A.    research                not be detected?
          B.    undercover operation           A.    low profile theory   
          C.    casing           B.    high visibility   
          D.    surveillance                                          C.    theory of omnipresence
Answer: C           D.    team policing                             
Answer: A
52. This is a person who does detective
work for hire, reward or commission, other 56. Without air force capability, patrol
than members of the AFP, BJMP, operation that covers large park areas,
provincial guards, PNP or any law grassy fields or wooded areas requires the
enforcement agency of the government. use of
          A.    Secret Agent                          A.    bike patrol               
          B.    “Tiktik”           B.    horse patrol
          C.    Private detective           C.    marine patrol
          D.    Undercover                                           D.    helicopter
Answer: C patrol                                   Answer: B
 same meaning as the word credibility?
57. Which of the following refers to the           A.    ability               
long range planning?           B.    capacity
          A.    Intermediate                          C.    believability
          B.    Strategic           D.    vulnerability                               
          C.    Medium Answer: C
          D.    short                                                                                 
Answer: B 63. Which of the following best defines the
word self-reliant?
58. The operational plan which is designed           A.    observation           
to met everyday or year  round needs is           B.    crime prevention
called           C.    called for service
A.   meeting unusual needs                  D.    criminal
B.   extra office    apprehension                            Answer: C
C.   regular operating programs
D.   special operating 64. All but one are the primarily line
programs                      Answer: C operation in police organization
          A.    patrol               
59. Which of the following is the oldest           B.    records
type of patrol?           C.    investigation
          A.    horse                                  D.    traffic                                        
          B.    foot Answer: C
          C.    canine
          D.    police                                       65. Criminals can hear the sound of the
Answer: B helicopter coming and so element of
surprise is lost which is one of the
60. The act of expelling a squatter by the ______of air patrol:
legal process is called:           A.    advantages               
          A.    demolition                          B.    features
          B.    squadron           C.    disadvantages
          C.    eviction           D.    import                                         
          D.    tear down                                     Answer: C
Answer: C
66. What is the patrol used to locate
61. Which of the following is not a prowlers, burglars hiding in large buildings
commissioned officer? or stores, and the control of unruly crowds
          A.    Inspector                  and riots?
          B.    senior superintendent                  A.    foot                       
          C.    asst. chief           B.    horse
          D.    chief           C.    bicycle
superintend                                  Answer: C           D.    dog               .                     
Answer: D
62. Which of the following words has the
67. Which of the following laws established officers and new officers of the police
the Police Organization under the DILG? service?
          A.    R.A.     5487                      A.    15 years               
          B.    R.A.    8551           B.    25 years
          C.    R.A. 1174           C.    30 years
          D.    R.A.    6975                                            D.    20 years                                       
Answer: D Answer: D

68. Who is the most important officer in the 73. Governors and mayors, upon having
police organization?     been elected and having qualified as such,
          A.    investigator are automatically deputized as
          B.    patrol officer representatives of the
          C.    traffic officer           A.    NAPOLCOM            
          D.    The Chief of           B.    DND
Police                                Answer: B           C.    PLEB
          D.    none of these                               
69. Which of the following is the oldest Answer: A
warning device?
          A.    trumpet            74. It is constitutionally and legally
          B.    horn    mandated to administer and control the
          C.    radio Philippine National Police. 
          D.    siren                                                      A.    DILG                   
Answer: A           B.    DND 
          C.    NAPOLCOM
70. What type of cover uses actual or true           D.    DFA                                           
background? Answer: C
A.    artificial               
B.    multiple cover    75. It is the central receiving entity for any
C.    natural citizen’s  complaint against the members
D.    cover within a cover                             and officers of the PNP.
Answer: C           A.    DILG                  
          B.    NAPOLCOM 
71. What is the principle of organization           C.    PLEB
suggesting that communication should           D.    IAS                                             
ordinarily go upward and downward Answer: C
through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A.    Chain of Command            76. When we say that a commander is
B.    Span of Control directly responsible  for any act or omission
C.    Unity of Command of his subordinates  in relation to the
D.    Delegation of performance of their official duties, we are
Authority                          Answer: A referring to:
                                               A.    chain of command              
72. What is the optional retirement for           B.    delegation of responsibility
          C.    Command responsibility           A.    off duty         
          D.    span of control                                      B.    off limits  
Answer: C           C.    on call
          D.    on duty                                        
77. A police strategy which aims to directly Answer: D
involve members of the community in the
maintenance of peace and order by police 81. The act of temporarily denying an
officers. officer the privilege of performing his
A.    Integrated Police System         police duties in consequence of an offense
B.    Comparative Police System  and violation of rules and regulations.
C.    Police Visibility           A.    dismissal                    
D.    Community Oriented Policing System           B.    restriction           
(COPS)           C.    suspension
                                                                                 D.    reprimand                                    
Answer: D                   Answer: C

78. No person in an organization can do all 82. The credential  extended by the Civil
the tasks necessary for accomplishing Service Commission/National Police
group objective.  Also, no one should Commission for the purpose of conferring
exercise all the authority for making status for permanent appointment  in the
decisions.This refers to police service.
          A.    chain of command                   A.    police credibility         
          B.    command responsibility             B.    police visibility   
          C.    unity of command           C.    Criminology Board Examination
          D.    delegation of authority                          D.    police patrol examination 
Answer: D           E.    police eligibility                         
Answer: E
79. Under RA 6975, a police officer is
entitled to a longevity pay equivalent to 83. In the history of our police force, who
how many percent (%) of his monthly basic was the first Director General of the
salary for every five years of service, to be Philippine National Police (PNP)?
reckoned from the date of his original           A.    Gen. Cesar Nazareno            
appointment in the police, fire, jail or other           B.    Gen. Raul Imperial  
allied services?            C.    Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
          A.    2 percent                                    D.    Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento          
          B.    5 percent Answer: A
          C.    10 percent
          D.    15 percent                                  84. The premier educational institution for
Answer: C the training, human resource development
and continuing education of all the
80. This term refers to the period when a personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
police officer is actively engaged in the           A.    PNPA                    
performance of his duty.            B.    PCCR    
          C.    PNTC
          D.    PPSC                                             90. The annual reservation percentage
Answer: D quota for women in the PNP
          A.    25%                  
85. Under the law,the city/municipal jail           B.    5%   
warden should have a rank of __.           C.    10%
          A.    Inspector                            D.    20%                                            
          B.    Chef Inspector  Answer: C
          C.    Senior Inspector
          D.    Superintendent                    91. Which of the following administers and
Answer: C attends to cases involving crimes against
chastity?
86. The required rank for the Chief of Jail           A.    CIDG                    
Bureau.            B.    DSWD
          A.    Chief Superintendent                  C.    Women’s Desk
          B.    Director  General             D.    Homicide Division                      
          C.    Director Answer:    C
          D.    Deputy Director General           
Answer: C 92. They are automatically deputized as
NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise
87. It exercise supervision and control over supervision and control over PNP units. 
the provincial jails.           A.    Chief of Police             
          A.    BJMP            B.    Judges       
          B.    Bureau of  Prisons             C.    Local Government Executives
          C.    Department of Justice           D.    Fiscals                                        
          D.    Provincial Government              Answer: C
Answer:  D
93. They have the authority to recommend
88. The required rank for the head of the to the Provincial Director the transfer,
Fire Bureau. reassignment of PNP members outside of
          A.    Chief Superintendent             their town residences.
          B.    Director General              A.    Regional Directors         
          C.    Director           B.    Priests 
          D.    Deputy Director General                       C.    Chiefs of Police
Answer: C           D.    Mayors                                       
Answer: D
89. It exercise supervision and control over
all city and municipal jails. 94. The head of a local peace and order
          A.    BJMP                council is the __.
          B.    Bureau of Prisons               A.    judge                    
          C.    Department of Justice           B.    chief of police  
          D.    Local Government                                C.    mayor
Answer: A           D.    governor                                      
Answer: C Answer: C

95. The utilization of units or elements, of 100. The current PNP deputy director
the PNP for the purpose of protection of General for Administration is
lives and properties, enforcement of laws          A.    Arturo Cacdac Jr.
and maintenance of peace and order.          B.    Emilito Sarmiento
          A.    employment                           C.    Rommel Heredia
          B.    deployment             D.    Alexander Roldan                       
          C.    assignment Answer: A
          D.    designation                                  
Answer: A 101. Registration of a security agency as a
corporation must be processed at what
96. The orderly and organized physical particular government agency.
movement of elements or units of the PNP.              A. PNP SAGSD
          A.    employment                         B. NAPOLCOM
          B.    deployment                      C. DND
          C.    assignment              D. SEC                                            
          D.    designation                                  Answer: D
Answer: B
102. Minimum age requirement for security
97. One of the following exercises control manager or operator of a security agency.
and supervision over the PNP units during              A. 25 years old
elections.              B. 30 years old
          A.    NBI                         C. 35 years old
          B.    Ombusdman              D. 40 years old                                 
          C.    COMELEC    Answer: A
          D.    DILG                                          
Answer: C 103. He exercises the power to revoke for
cause licenses issued to security guards.
98. The number of eligible for which the              A. Chief PNP
Regional Director may recommend for              B. DILG Usec
Provincial Director to the governor is __.              C. NAPOLCOM chairman
          A.    2                        D. DILG Secretary                          
          B.    3   Answer: A
          C.    5
          D.    4                                                  104. Refers to a natural or man made
Answer: B structure which is capable of delaying
illegal access to facility.
99. Who is the current Chief of the PNP?              A. Wall
         A.   Nicanor Bartome              B. Fence
         B.   Nicanor Bartomeo              C. Barriers
         C.   Nick Bartolome              D. Beach fronts                                
         D.   Nicanor Bartolome                       Answer: C
 Answer: A
105. It refers to means and ways that
personnel and employees making them 110. This is an additional outward inclined
security conscious. fixed structure usually barbed wires placed
             A. Security Promotion above a vertical fence to increase
             B. Security Education physical protection from intruders of a
             C. Security Investigation certain area,this is known as
             D. Security Seminar                                      A. Cellar Guard
Answer: B              B. Tower Guard
             C. Top Guard
106. Industrial management must establish              D. Top Tower                                  
the first line of physical defense,it refers to Answer: C
A. Perimeter barriers
B. The building itself 111. The exterior and interior parallel area
C. Door,Locks,Window barriers near the perimeter barrier of an industrial
D. Entry points where security guards are compound to afford better observation and
located        Answer: A patrol movement is known as
             A. Protective zone
107. Physical security is a system of              B. Clear zone
barriers placed between the potential              C. Twilight zone
intruder and the object matter to be              D. Patrol lane zone                         
protected. As criminologists, this is simply Answer: B
a denial of
A. Opportunity to commit the offense 112. Protective guarding in a compound
B. Opportunity to the object of protection can be done by the use of electronic
C. Access to the object of protection hardware,human guards and even
D. Criminal instinct to surface in the animals.In England,an owner to protect his
potential offender Answer: C compound used this and they are not only
effective but also the cheapest to
108. Weakest link in the security chain. maintain.This man is using
             A. Security Guards              A. Doberman
             B. Manager              B. Tame Tigers
             C. Barriers              C. Geese
             D. Personnel                                                  D. Duck                                            
Answer: D Answer: C

109. Perimeter barriers,protective lighting 113. The government agency that issues
and ______ system are known in industrial licenses for private and government
security as physical security. security guard is
             A. Guarding              A. PNP SOSIA
             B. Reporting              B. Mayors office
             C. Relieving              C. PNP FEO
             D. Accounting                                               D. PNP SAGSD                               
Answer: D or owning a security agency
B. A military intelligence officer
114. If access is limited only to C. A police officer
unauthorized personnel,this particular place D. A security agency owner                  
is referred to as Answer: A
             A. Compromise area
             B. Restricted area 119. As a security officer,you can not
             C. Danger area prevent nor protect natural hazards like
             D. Exclusive area                              storm, earthquakes, floods and the like.In
Answer: B order to reduce the disastrous effects of
these natural hazards you will
115. First measure undertaking before a A. Call PAGASA and inquire when the
comprehensive security program for an next storm is coming
industrial plan could be developed. B. Alert your guards when hazards occur
             A. Security education C. Not take any concern of such hazards
             B. Security check D. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan for
             C. Security survey these hazards for the firm           Answer: D
             D. Security Inspection                     
Answer: C 120. Practical exercise or test of a plan or
activity to determine its effectiveness is
116. A security of a plant or industrial firm called
is also known by other terms except              A. Sham drill
             A. Robbery evaluation              B. Fire drill
             B. Vulnerability              C. Dry run
             C. Risk Assessment              D. Evacuation plan                         
             D. Security Audit                              Answer: C
Answer: B
121. The main reason for a personnel
117. Today there are 3 categories of security investigation is
security guards belonging to the blue army. A. To weed out undesirable employees
             A. Government security guards B. To check loyalty of employees to the
             B. Company guards organization
             C. Agency guards C. To determine the character and
             D. Body guards                                 reputation  of certain employees secretly
Answer: D tagged as risks.
D. Preclude assignment to sensitive
118. Whether to put up its own security positions for those who are security
guard organic to the firm or hire contractual risks.                           Answer: D              
agency guards have their individual merits 122. In an industrial firm there is a need for
and disadvantages.To determine which type document security.As security officer,you
of guarding system an industrial firm will can advice management on this aspect
require management must consult although this is not totally your assigned
A. A security consultant not connected to work.Document
security is not a protection of vital records              C. key control
from              D. Key management                        
             A. Authorized handlers Answer: C
             B. Theft or loss
             C. Compromise or destruction 126. It is defined as system of barriers
             D. Unauthorized access                    placed between the matters protected and
Answer: A the potential intruder
             A. Computer security
123. As a security chief of an industrial              B. Personnel security
firm,inventory shows that pilferage is              C. Document security
rampant in the warehouses.What will be              D. Physical security                        
your choice of action Answer: D
A. To resign if you have failed your job
B. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage 127. This type of alarm system utilizes a
prone areas to catch the culprit station located outside the compound
C. Prepare your protective plans and confer              A. Auxiliary system
with management for their immediate              B. Proprietary system
implementation              C. Central alarm system
D. Tighten checking at exists of vehicles of              D. Local alarm system                     
the compound/complex Answer: C
Answer: B
128. It is installed as part of the building
124. There are many types of electronic and which holds up to 10,000 cubic meters of
electric protective devices available for essential items.At least 12 ft. in height with
security buildings,storehouses and enough ventilation and fire proof of at least
compounds.One of the ff: is true one hour.
A. Electronics/electrical devices provide              A. Protective cabinet
total protection for the place to be              B. File room
safeguarded              C. Vault
B. Types of alarms needed can best be              D.
given by the dealers of said devices Safe                                                   
C. Each building or compound requires Answer: B
particular electronic/electrical protective
devices 129. It is the susceptibility of a plant or
D. Electronic/electrical devices eliminate establishment to damage,loss or disruption
human guards  of operations due to various hazards.
Answer: C              A. Risk analysis
             B. Risk assessment
125. The management of keys used in plant              C. Relative vulnerability
office or business organization to prevent              D. Relative criticality                       
unauthorized access is referred to as Answer: C
             A. Security key control
             B. Lock control 130. It refers to the importance of the
establishment with reference to the national plant adequacy and deficiency all aspects of
economy and security. security with the corresponding
             A. Risk analysis recommendation.
             B. Relative vulnerability              A. Security audit
             C. Risk assessment              B. Security survey
             D. Relative criticality                                    C. Security inquiry
Answer: D              D. Security operations                     
Answer: B
131. The association of all licensed security
agencies operators 136. Barrier which includes but not limited
             A. POAPAD to wall,fences,grill etc.
             B. PADPAO              A. Structural barriers
             C. PODPAO              B. Man made barriers
             D. PAOPAD                                                 C. Physical barriers
Answer: B              D. Natural barriers                           
Answer: B
132.Who among below can own or operate
security agency? 137. One who steals due to his inability to
             A. A Filipino citizen resist the unexpected opportunity and has
             B. Anyone provided he knows the little fear of detection.
job              A. Systematic
             C. An alien but living in the              B. Outsider
Philippines              C. Casual
             D. All of them                                                D. Insider                                        
Answer: A Answer: C

133. A licensed issued to operate security 138. A barrier which includes but not
agency or company forces. limited to mountains, cliffs, ravines, cliffs,
             A. Business license etc.
             B. License to engage in business              A. Energy
             C. License to operate              B. Human 
             D. All of them                                                C. Natural
Answer: C              D. Animals                                      
Answer: C
134. R.A. No. 5487 governs the operation
of 139. Issued by the security guard for
             A. Private detective personnel to be admitted to the company.
             B. Company security              A. Duress code
             C. Private security forces/agencies              B. Pass system
             D. All of them                                              C. ID
Answer: D              D. Access list                                   
Answer: B
135. A fact-finding prove to determine a
140. In a close-in security formations, a one              A. Electronic hazard
man security covers              B. natural hazard
             A. 360 degrees              C. Artificial hazard
             B. 180 degrees              D. Human
             C. 45 degrees hazard                                     Answer: D
             D. 90 degrees                                   
Answer: A 145. Example of the Security
  Communication system.
141. A mechanical device of supplying              A. Telephone
water which can be manual or motor              B. Paging system
driven.              C. Radio
             A. Stand pipe              D. All of them                                
             B. Fire extinguisher Answer: D
             C. Fire hydrant
             D. Fire pump                                     146. The revised rules and regulations
Answer: A governing the organization and operation of
private detective and private security
142.Intrusion alarm devices are designed to agencies and company security forces
______ and not prevent criminals from throughout the country.
trespassing and should be used normally as              A. Private security law
an independent adjunct and not a              B. International law
replacement of the human guard forces.              C. Private law
             A. Detect              D. Security law                                
             B. Deterred Answer: A
             C. Provide
             D. Impeded                                     147. A metallic container used for the 
Answer: A safekeeping of documents or small items in
an office or installation.
143. An authenticated list of personnel              A. Steel cabinet
given to security allowing entry to              B. Drawer
compound or installation or part thereof.              C. Basket
             A. Pass system              D. Safe                                            
             B. ID Answer: D
             C. Access list
             D. Duress code                                148. A heavily constructed fire and burglar
Answer: C resistant container usually a part of the
building structure used to keep and protect
144. The act or condition affecting the safe cash, document and negotiable instruments.
operation of the facility caused by human              A. Basket
action,accidental or intentional.It includes              B. Vault
sabotage,espionage,pilferage and theft,              C. Steel cabinet
disloyalty,disaffection and subversive              D. Concrete
activities. coffin                                   Answer: B
 inactive or retirees
149. Steal or plastic pipes located in the B. At least 25 years of age
building from the lowest to the top floor C. Filipino citizen
with water under pressure for use in case of D. All of them                                          
fire. Answer: D
             A. Lowering pipe
             B. Wet pipe 154. A security force maintained and
             C. Top pipe operated by any private company for its
             D. Stand pipe                                    own security requirements only.
Answer: D              A. Insular security force
             B. Company security force
150. Who among below are exempted from              C. Government security unit
pre-licensing training?              D. Private security
             A. AFP and PNP retirees unit                              Answer: B
             B. Graduate of ROTC basic or
advance 155. A person who offers or renders
             C. AFP and PNP veterans personal services to watch or secure a
             D. All of the residence or business establishment or both
above                                   Answer: D is
             A. Watchman
151. Tenure of security personnel is based              B. Security guard
on              C. B only
A. Can be extended by the client              D. B and
B. The service contract between the agency A                                              Answer: D
and the client
C. Labor only contracting between the 156. Include all the security measures
agency and the guard designed to prevent unsuitable individuals
D. Tenure provided by the labor or persons of doubtful loyalty to the
code            Answer: B government from gaining access to
classified matter or to any security facility
152. Before private security agencies and to prevent appointment or retention as
render security services to its clients,there employees of such individuals.
must be a contract that must bind them,it is              A. Security personnel
called              B. Employee security
             A. Contract service              C. Personnel security
             B. Service contract              D. Both A and
             C. Security contract C                                         Answer: C
             D. Security service
contract                       Answer: D 157. It is an inquiry into the character,
reputation, discretion and loyalty of
153. Which below is a qualification for the individual in order to determine a persons
operator or manager of security agency. suitability to be given security clearance.
A. Commissioned officer of AFP or PNP,              A. BI
             B. LAC 162. Motives that cause people to be
             C. NAC disloyal
             D. PSI                                                          A. Character
Answer: D              B. Revenge
             C. Moral
158. Consist of the investigation of the              D.
background of an individual but limited Reputation                                           
only to some of the circumstances of his Answer: B
personal life which are deemed pertinent to
the investigation. 163. Weakness that makes people
             A. PSI susceptible to pressure
             B. PBI              A. Jealousy
             C. CBI              B. Weakness of character
             D. BI                                                              C. Close relative in foreign land
Answer: B              D. All of
them                                            Answer: D
159. A thorough and complete investigation
of all or some of the circumstances or 164. A security unit maintained and
aspect of a persons life is conducted. operated by any government entity.
             A. PSI              A. Insular security force
             B. PBI              B. Company security force
             C. CBI              C. Government security unit
             D. BI                                                              D. Private security
Answer: D agency                           Answer: C

160. Among the following,which is the 165. Cosnsist of the investigation of the
least expensive and least secure personnel background of a person particularly all the
control identification system? circumstances of his personal life
             A. Multiple pass system              A. PSI
             B. Group pass and badge system              B. PBI
             C. Spot magnetized identification              C. CBI
pass              D. BI                                               
             D. Single pass or badge Answer: C
system                     Answer: D
166. Any
161. Factors considered in background person,association,partnership,firm or
investigation except: private corporation,who contracts recruits,
             A. Integrity trains,furnishes or post any security guards
             B. Character to do its functions.
             C. Personal prestige              A. Insular security force
             D. Loyalty                                                     B. Company security force
Answer: C              C. Government security unit
             D. Private security
agency                           Answer: D              A. Top secret
             B. Information security
167. Shall be responsible to the detachment              C. Personnel security
commander as far as his shift is concerned.              D. Documents
A. Officer in charge security                               Answer: D
B. Shift in charge
C. Security guard on duty 172. Refers to assigned information by one
D. Assistant detachment of the four classification categories
commander             Answer: B              A. Reclassify
             B. Classified
168. Before a security guard can practice              C. Declassify
his profession,he shall possess a valid              D. Security
security license,What is this license? clearance                                 Answer: B
             A. Firearm license
             B. License to operate 173. Refers to the administrative
             C. Drivers license determination that an individual is eligible
             D. Security guard for access to classified matter.
license                            Answer: D              A. Reclassify
             B. Classified
169. How many firearms issued for every              C. Declassify
two guards employed by the security              D. Security
agency is allowed by law? clearance                                 Answer: D
             A. 4
             B. 3 174. Means loss of security which results
             C. 2 from an unauthorized persons obtaining
             D. 1                                                  knowledge of classified matter.
Answer: D              A. Vulnerability
             B. Criticality
170. Firearms of security agency should be              C. probability
covered with firearms license issued by the              D.
PNP through its Firearm Explosive Compromise                                         
Division under the civil security group Answer: D
renewable every
             A. 4 years 175. These are information and material,the
             B. 3 years unauthorized disclosure of which would
             C. 2 years cause exceptional grave damage to the
             D. 1 year                                          nation, politically, economically or from a
Answer: D security aspect,this category is reserved for
the nations closest secret and is to be used
171. The aspect of security which involves with great reserve.
the application of security measures For the A. Restricted matters
protection and safeguarding of classified B. Secret matters
information C. Confidential matters
D. Top secret matters                                manufacturing,treating or preserving
Answer: D materials,a pattern for machine or device or
a list of customers.
176. These information and material,the              A. Transmission security
authorized disclosure of which would              B. Trade secret
endanger national security,cause serious              C. Patents
injury to the interest or prestige of the              D. Proprietary
nation or of any governmental activity or information                            Answer: B
would be of great advantage to a foreign
nation. 180. It is the protection resulting from the
             A. Restricted matters application of various measures which
             B. Secret matters prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized
             C. Confidential matters persons in gaining information through
             D. Top secret communication.
matters                                 Answer: B              A. Transmission security
             B. Cryptographic security
177. These information and material,the              C. Communication security
unauthorized disclosure of which while not              D. All of the
endangering the national security would be above                                    Answer: C
prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the
nation or any government activity or would 181. That component of communication
cause administrative embarrassment or security which results from the provisions
unwarranted injury to an individual or of technically sound crypto system and
would be of the advantage to a foreign their proper use.
nation.              A. Transmission security
             A. Restricted matters              B. Cryptographic security
             B. Secret matters              C. Communication security
             C. Confidential matters              D. All of the
             D. Top secret above                                    Answer: B
matters                                Answer: C
182. A system which uses words as the
178. It is information that in some special smallest element.
way relates to the status or activities of the              A. Transposition system
possessor and over which the possessor              B. Code
asserts ownership.              C. Concealment
             A. Transmission security              D.
             B. Trade secret Cipher                                                
             C. Patents Answer: B
             D. Proprietary
information                            Answer: D 183. A system that manipulate 1,2 or 3
characters at a time.
179. It maybe a formula for a chemical              A. Transposition system
compound, a process of              B. Code
             C. Concealment common human hazards which security has
             D. to deal with.
Cipher                                                              A. Casual pilferage
Answer: D              B. Systematic pilferage
             C. Pilferage
184. It is the potential damage or loss of an              D. None of the
asset. above                                 Answer: C
             A. Adversary
             B. Risk 189. One who steals with pre conceived
             C. Security hazard plans and takes always any or all types of
             D. items or supplies for economic gain.A.
Criticality                                            Casual pilferage
Answer: B              B. Systematic pilferage
             C. Pilferage
185. It is the impact of a loss as measured              D. None of the
in financial terms. above                                 Answer: B
             A. Adversary
             B. Risk 190. What date is the Republic Act No.
             C. Security hazard 5487 or the private security agency law
             D. passed?
Criticality                                                         A. June 13, 1999
Answer: D              B. June 13, 1969
             C. June  7, 2009
186. Eliminating or removing the risk              D. June 31,
totally from the business,government or 1969                                       Answer: B
industrial environment for which the risk
manager has responsibility. 191. A natural hazards or acts of god.
             A. Risk self-assumption              A. Calamity
             B. Risk spreading              B. Phenomenon
             C. Risk avoidance              C. Disaster
             D. Risk              D. Force
avoidance                                      Answer: majeure                                      Answer: D
C
192. A restricted area where visitors are
187. It is an act of spying. limited in movement and are usually
             A. Saboteur escorted.
             B. Espionage              A. Exclusive area
             C. pilferer              B. Limited area
             D.              C. Restricted area
Sabotage                                                          D. Protected
Answer: B area                                     Answer: B

188. It is one of the most annoying and 193. A structure placed above a vertical
fence to increase protection from intruder.              D.
             A. Guard house Peterman                                            
             B. Clear zone Answer: D
             C. Tower guard  
             D. Top
guard                                           Answer: D 198. The badge or pass coded for
authorization to enter specific
194.A conference similar to entrance        areas is issued to an employee who
conference,this is only done keeps it in his possession
      after the completion of security survey.        until his authorization terminates.
             A. Entrance conference              A. Pass system
             B. Briefing              B. Pass exchange system
             C. Debriefing              C. Single pass system
             D. Exit              D. Multi pass
conference                                     Answer: system                                  Answer: C
D

195. It is the lost that would be sustained if 199. Company owned alarm system with a
a given target or unit in the nearest police
       combination of target where totally        station so that in case of need, direct
removed,destroyed or call is possible.
       both.              A. Auxiliary alarm
             A. Risk reduction              B. Proprietary system
             B. Probable maximum loss              C. Local alarm system
             C. Risk transfer              D. Central station station
             D. Possible maximum system                 Answer: A
loss                            Answer: D
200. The system consists of ringing up a
196. Refers to the amount of loss a target visual or audible alarm
would be likely to        system near the object to be protected.
       sustain through theft and robbery.              A. Auxiliary alarm
             A. Risk reduction              B. Proprietary system
             B. Probable maximum loss              C. Local alarm system
             C. Risk transfer              D. Central station
             D. Possible maximum system                           Answer: C
loss                            Answer: B
Criminalistics Review Questions 1
197. A term used in England for lock 1. There is freehand invitation and is
pickers,safe crackers and considered as the most  skilful
       penetrators of restricted rooms or area.     class of forgery
             A. Superman           A.    simulated or copied forgery
             B. Peterpan           B.    simple forgery
             C. Batman           C.    traced forgery
          D.    carbon           A.    Certificate
tracing                                             B.    Subpoena
          C.    Warrant
2. Condensed and compact set of authentic           D.    Document                                   
specimen which is
    adequate and proper, should contain a        
cross section 7. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the
    of the material from known sources.  slope or downward 
          A.    disguised document          flow  of the innermost sufficient
          B.    questioned document recurve is towards the 
          C.    standard document       thumb of radius   bone of the hand of
          D.    requested origin.
document                                   A.    ulnar loop
             B.    tented arch
3. Specimens of hand writing or of           C.    accidental whorl
typescript which is of known            D.    radial loop                                   
    origin.
          A.    Letters
          B.    Samples 8. The forking or dividing of one line to
          C.    Exemplars two or more branches.
          D.              A.    Ridge
Documents                                                  B.    Island
          C.    Delta
4. A document which is being questioned           D.    Bifurcation                              
because of its origin, its  
    contents or the circumstances or the
stories of its production.  9. The point on a ridge at or in front of and
          A.    disputed document nearest the center  of
          B.    standard document     the divergence of the type lines.
          C.    requested document           A.    Divergence
          D.    questioned           B.    Island
document                                C.    Delta
          D.    Bifurcation                                  
5. The art of beautiful writing is known as
          A.    Drafting  
          B.    Calligraphy 10.The following are considerations used
          C.    Art appreciation for the identification  
          D.    Gothic                                               of a  loop except one:
          A.    Delta
          B.    Core
6. Any written instrument by which a right           C.    a sufficient recurve
or obligation is           D.    a ridge count across a looping
    established. bridge    
 
11.The process of recording fingerprint 16.The impressions left by the patterns of
through the use of  ridges and depressions on
      fingerprint ink.       various surfaces.  
          A.    Pathology           A.    kiss marks
          B.    Fingerprinting           B.    finger rolls
          C.    Dactyloscopy           C.    thumb marks
          D.    Printing press                                      D.    fingerprints                                  

 
12.The fingerprint method of identification. 17.Which among the following is not
          A.    Pathology considered as a basic fingerprint    
          B.    Fingerprinting pattern? 
          C.    Dactyloscopy           A.    Arch
          D.    Printing press                                         B.    Accidental
          C.    Loop
          D.    Whorl                                         
13.Two lines that run parallel or nearly
parallel, diverge and 
     surround  the pattern area.  18.The minimum identical characteristics to
          A.    Ridges justify the identity
          B.    Delta      between two points.  
          C.    Type line           A.    Eighteen
          D.    Bifurcation                                            B.    Fifteen
          C.    Twelve
          D.    Nine                                            
14.A part of the whorl or loop in which
appear the cores, deltas
     and ridges. 19.A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges
          A.    type line form a sequence of
          B.    bifurcation     spirals around core axes.
          C.    pattern area           A.    whorl
          D.    furrow                                                   B.    double loop
          C.    central pocket loop
          D.    accidental                                    
15.Fingerprints left on various surfaces at
the crime scene which are
    not clearly visible. 20.A fingerprint pattern which one or more
          A.    plane impressions ridges enter on either side
          B.    visible fingerprints     of the impression by a recurve, and
          C.    rolled impressions terminate on the same side
          D.    latent fingerprints                            where the ridge has entered.  
          A.    Loop
          B.    radial loop      a  predetermined time interval.
          C.    ulnar loop           A.    holder of sensitized material
          D.    tented arch                                              B.    view finder
          C.    shutter
          D.    view finder                                 
21.A person allowed who gives his/her
opinion or conclusion on a
    given scientific evidence is considered 26.A lens with a focal length of less than
          A.    interrogator the diagonal of its negative
          B.    expert witness     material.
          C.    prosecutor           A.    telephoto lens
          D.    judge                                                    B.    long lens
          C.    normal lens
          D.    wide angle lens                         
22.The application of scientific knowledge
and techniques in the  
     detection of crime and apprehension of 27.Chemical used as an accelerator in a
criminals.  developer solution.
          A.    Law Enforcement           A.    Potassium Bromide
Administration           B.    Sodium Carbonate   
          B.    Forensic Administration           C.    Sodium Sulfite
          C.    Criminal Psychology           D.    Hydroquinone                            
          D.    Criminalistics                              

  28.A part of a camera used in focusing the

23.Lens that is characterized by a thicker light from the subject
center and thinner sides.           A.    view finder
          A.    concave lens           B.    lens
          B.    convex lens           C.    shutter
          C.    negative lens           D.    light tight box                             
          D.    positive lens                                
29.A component of the polygraph
instrument which records the 
24.The normal developing time of a paper     breathing of the subject.
or film.           A.    Cardiosphygmograph
          A.    30-60 minutes           B.    Pneumograph
          B.    20-30  minutes           C.    Galvanograph
          C.    5-10 minutes           D.    Kymograph                                 
          D.    1- 2 minutes                                

30.A component of the polygraph

25.This part of a camera is used to allow instrument which records the
light to enter  the lens for     blood  pressure and the pulse rate of the
subject.
          A.    Cardiosphygmograph 34. It refers to an emotional response to a
          B.    Pneumograph specific danger, which   
          C.    Galvanograph      appears to go beyond a person’s
          D.    Kymograph                                 defensive power.
          A.    Fear
            B.    Stimuli
31.A component of the polygraph           C.    Response
instrument which is a motor that              D.    Reaction                                      
    drives or pulls the chart paper under the
recording pen  
    simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 35. The primary purpose of pre-test
inches per minute.   interview.
          A.    Cardiosphygmograph           A.    Prepare subject for polygraph
          B.    Pneumograph test
          C.    Galvanograph           B.    Obtain confession
          D.    Kymograph                                           C.    Make the subject calm
          D.    Explain the polygraph test
procedures  
32.The following are specific rules to be  
followed in the formulation of 36. The deviation from normal tracing of
     the questions in a polygraph test except the subject in the relevant  
one.      question.
          A.    Questions must be clear and           A.    positive response
phrased in a language the            B.    specific response
                 subject can easily           C.    normal response
understand.                        D.    reaction                                      
          B.    Questions must be answerable
by yes or no.  
          C.    Questions must be as short as 37. The study of the effect of the impact of
possible. a projectile on the
          D.    Questions must all be in the      target.   
form of accusations           A.    Terminal Ballistics
                                                                                  B.    Internal Ballistics
             C.    External Ballistics
33. In “ polygraph examination”, the term “           D.    Forensic Ballistics                       
examination” means a  
     detection of  
          A.    Forgery 38. The unstable rotating motion of the
          B.    Emotion bullet is called
          C.    the mind           A.    Trajectory
          D.    deception                                                B.    Yaw
          C.    Velocity
          D.    Gyroscopic           D.    breaching                                   
action                             
 
39. The part of the mechanism of a firearm 44. It refers to the unstable rotating motion
that withdraws the shell  of the bullet.
      or cartridge from the chamber.           A.    Trajectory
          A.    Extractor           B.    Yaw
          B.    Ejector           C.    Velocity
          C.    Striker           D.    Gyproscopic action                     
          D.    Trigger                                       

45. It is the measurement of the bore

40. The pattern or curved path of the bullet diameter from land to land.
in flight.           A.    Calibre
          A.    Yaw           B.    Mean diameter
          B.    Range           C.    Gauge               
          C.    Velocity           D.    Rifling                                       
          D.    Trajectory                                    

46. He is known as the Father of Ballistics.

41. This refers to the deflection of the bullet           A.    Hans Gross
from its normal path           B.    Charles Waite
      after striking a resistant surface.           C.    Albert Osborne
          A.    Misfire           D.    Calvin Goddard                           
          B.    Mushroom
          C.    Ricochet
          D.    Key hole shot                             47. A document in which some issues have
been raised or is under
     scrutiny.
42. A type of primer with two vents or flash           A.    Void Document
holes.           B.    Illegal Document
          A.    Bordan primer           C.    Forged Document
          B.    Berdan Primer           D.    Questioned Document                
          C.    Baterry Primer
          D.    Boxer Primer                               
48. The following are characteristics of  
forgery  except one:
43. This refers to the helical grooves cut in           A.    Presence of Natural Variation
the interior surface of           B.    Multiple Pen Lifts
      the   bore.           C.    Show bad quality  of ink lines
          A.    swaging            D.    Patchwork
          B.    ogive Appearance                
          C.    rifling
49. Standards which are prepared upon the           A.    simulated document
request of the           B.    forged document
     investigator and for the purpose of           C.    standard document
comparison with the           D.    compared document                    
     questioned document.  
          A.    relative standards  
          B.    collected standards 54. The process of making out what is
          C.    extended standards illegible or what has been   
          D.    requested standards                        effaced. 
                A.    Comparison
50. Any stroke which goes back over           B.    Collation
another writing stroke.           C.    Obliteration
          A.    natural variation           D.    Decipherment                              
          B.    rhythm
          C.    retracing  
          A.    shading                                        55. A document which contains some
  changes either as an
51. The name of a person written by      addition or deletion.  
him/her in a document as a sign           A.    inserted document
      of acknowledgement.           B.    altered document
          A.    Opinion           C.    disputed document
          B.    Document           D.    obliterated document                  
          C.    Signature
          D.    Handwriting                                
56. A kind of erasure by using a rubber
eraser, sharp knife, razor  
52. A kind of document  which is executed      blade or picking instrument.
by a private person           A.    mechanical erasure
      without the intervention of a notary           B.    electronic erasure
public, or of           C.    magnetic erasure
      competent public   official, by which           D.    chemical erasure                        
some disposition of
      agreement is proved.
          A.    commercial document 57. It is the periodic increase in pressure,
          B.    official document characterized by 
          C.    public document       widening of the ink stroke.
          D.    private document                                   A.    Shading
          B.    pen lift
          C.    pen emphasis
53. An instrument that can be legally used           D.    pen pressure                                
in comparison with a
     questioned document, its origin is
known and can be proven.   58. A kind of document executed by a
person in authority and by  
     private parties but notarized by 63. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is
competent officials. commonly known as 
          A.    private document           A.    Coke
          B.    commercial document           B.    LSD
          C.    public document           C.    Heroin
          D.    official document                                   D.   
“shabu”                                            
  Answer: D
59. The detection and identification of
poisons. 64. An area surrounding the place where
          A.    Bacteriology the crime occurred.
          B.    Posology           A.    crime scene
          C.    Toxicology           B.    police line
          D.    Chemistry                                               C.    area of operation
          D.    area of
responsibility                        Answer: A
60. The specimen that is preferably used in  
the determination of 65. The body of the crime.
      abused drugs in the body.           A.    Evidence
          A.    blood           B.    body of the victim
          B.    saliva           C.    criminology
          C.    body fluid           D.    corpus
          D.    urine                                             delicti                                     Answer: D
 
66. One of the following is a derivative of
61. A forensic chemist is tasked  to the opium poppy.
examine the chemical nature           A.    Demerol
      and composition of the following           B.    Caffeine
except one:            C.    Morphine
          A.    Fingerprint           D.    nicotine                                       
          B.    Explosives Answer: C
          C.    Blood  
          D.    Body 67. Number restoration is necessary in
fluids                                        Answer: A determining whether there is
     tampering of serial number in 
62. Who qualifies a forensic chemist as           A.    Typewriter
expert?           B.    Firearm
          A.    defense  lawyer              C.    Prisoners
          B.    judge           D.    Bank notes                                  
          C.    prosecutor Answer: B
          D.    the chemist
himself/herself               Answer: B 68. In forensic examination, a tip of the hair
is examined to of semen particularly
     determine  if it was       in  stained clothing.
          A.    Bend           A.    Florence Test
          B.    Folded           B.    Barberio’s Test
          C.    Stretched           C.    Microscopic Test
          D.    Cut                                                         D.    Ultra-Violet Test                         
Answer: D Answer: A
   
69. All of the following are accurate tests 74. The test used to determine the presence
for the presence of alcohol       of blood in stained
      in the human body except one:       material.
          A.    Saliva test           A.    Florence Test
          B.    Harger Breath Test           B.    Barberio’s Test
          C.    Fecal test           C.    Takayama Test
          D.    Blood test                                              D.    Phenolphtalein  Test                   
Answer: C Answer: C
  
70. The application of chemical principles 75. It is the major component of a glass.
and processes in the              A.    Lime
     examination of evidence.           B.    Soda
          A.    Forensic Medicine           C.    Silica
          B.    Forensic Evidence           D.    Gel                                              
          C.    Criminalistics Answer: C
          D.    Forensic                   
Chemistry                           Answer: D 76. Poisons which produce stupor and less
  feeling.
71. Volatile poisons may be isolated by           A.    Narcotics
means of this process.           B.    Irritants
          A.    Dialysis           C.    Depressants
          B.    Dilution           D.    Stimulants                                   
          C.    Distillation Answer: A
          D.    Extraction                                    
Answer: C 77. A supercooled liquid which possess
  high viscosity and rigidity.
72. The process in reproducing physical           A.    dry ice
evidence by plaster moulds.           B.    cartridge case
          A.    Casting           C.    gel
          B.    Cementing           D.    glass                                          
          C.    Moulage Answer: D
          D.    Sticking                                         
Answer: C 78. The study and identification of body
fluids.
73. The test used to determine the presence           A.    Pharmacology
          B.    Serology           D.    Deoxy Nucleic Acid                  
          C.    Posology Answer: B
          D.    Immunology                               
Answer: B 84. The Geneticist from Great Britain who
pioneered DNA testing and   
79. The test to determine whether blood is         fingerprinting. 
of human origin or not.           A.    Alec Jeffries
          A.    Blood typing           B.    Lowell C. Van Berkom
          B.    Precipitin Test           C.    William  Reynolds
          C.    Confirmatory Test           D.    Henry Van Dyke                        
          D.    Preliminary Test                         Answer: A
Answer: B
85. The cause of death of a person who
80. The circulating tissue of the body. immediately died because of
          A.    Blood       lack of oxygen for around 3 to five
          B.    Cells minutes.
          C.    Muscles           A.    Stroke
          D.    Liver                                                     B.    Asphyxia
Answer: A           C.    Stupor
          D.    Exhaustion                                 
81. The complete, continuous, persistent Answer: B
cessation of respiration,
      circulation and almost all brain function 86. The most serious burn involving skin,
of an organism.  nerves, muscles and bones,
          A.    Apparent death       causing death due to loss of fluids and
          B.    Molecular death electrolytes in
          C.    Cellular Death       the body and massive infection.  
          D.    Somatic death                                       A.    First Degree Burn
Answer: D           B.    Second Degree Burn
          C.    Third Degree Burn
82. The approximate time for the           D.    Sunburn                                       
completion of one case for DNA   Answer: C
      Testing. 
          A.    minimum of eight weeks 87. A discoloration of the body after death
          B.    minimum of six weeks when the blood tends 
          C.    minimum of four weeks      to  pool in the blood vessels of the most 
          D.    minimum of two weeks               dependent portions
Answer: C      of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes
after death and is 
83. DNA stands for      completed by 12 hours.
          A.    Deonatural Acid           A.    livor mortis
          B.    Deoxyribonucleic  Acid           B.    primary flaccidity
          C.    Denaturalized  Acid           C.    maceration
          D.    rigor      experience but not had conceived a
mortis                                        Answer: A child.
          A.    virgo-intacts
88. A wound which if inflicted in the body           B.    demi-virginity
so serious that it will             C.    moral virginity
     endanger one’s life.           D.    physical virginity                       
          A.    mortal wound Answer: A
          B.    trauma
          C.    coup injury 93. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed
          D.    superficial wound                        inside the blood vessels
Answer: A      or  has diffused to different parts of the
body.
89. A wound produced by a blunt           A.    hypostatic lividity
instrument such as club and stone.           B.    diffusion lividity
          A.    incised wound           C.    hyper lividity
          B.    hack wound           D.    rigor mortis                                
          C.    lacerated wound Answer: B
          D.    punctured wound                           
Answer: C 94. Things used by a person in the
  commission of a crime, or objects
90. A displacement of the articular surface      left in a crime scene which are the
of the bone without  subjects of criminalistics. 
     external wounds.           A.    testimonial evidence
          A.    Hematoma           B.    hearsay evidence
          B.    Fracture           C.    circumstantial evidence
          C.    Sprain           D.    physical evidence                      
          D.    Dislocation                                   Answer: D
Answer: D
95. The science dealing with the motion of
91. A condition of exposure to cold a projectile and the
temperature of certain parts of        conditions governing that motion.  
     the body which produces mechanical           A.    Ballistics
disruption of cell structure           B.    Forensic Ballistics
     characterized by cold stiffening and           C.    Terminal Ballistics
diminished body.              D.    External Ballistics                       
          A.    immersion foot Answer: A
          B.    trench foot
          C.    frostbite 96. The application of medical knowledge
          D.    gangrene                                       in the solution of crimes.
Answer: C           A.    Forensic Science
          B.    Forensic Chemistry
92. A condition of women who have had           C.    Forensic Ballistics
one or more sexual           D.    Forensic Medicine                      
Answer: D 7.    D 29.   54.  
8.    D B D
97. The science or art of obtaining images 9.    C 30.   55.  
in scientific materials by 10.   A B
     the  action of electro magnetic radiation B 31.   56.  
rays. 11.   D A
          A.    Polygraphy B 32.   57.  
          B.    Dactyloscopy 12.   D D
          C.    Photography C 33.   58.  
          D.    Chemistry                                     13.   D C
Answer: C C 34.   59.  
     14.   A C
98. Instrument used in the measurement of C 35.   60.  
temperature. 15.   A D
          A.    Endometer D 36.  
          B.    Barometer 16.   A
          C.    Thermometer D 37.  
          D.    ananometer                                   17.   A
Answer: C B 38.  
  18.   B
99. The scientific detection of deception. D 39.  
          A.    Polygraphy 19.   B
          B.    Dactyloscopy A 40.  
          C.    Toxicology 20.   D
          D.    Chemistry                                     C 41.  
Answer: A 21.   C
  B 42.  
100. The test conducted to determine the 22.   D
presence of gunpowder D 43.  
       residue in the hands of a suspect.      23.   D
          A.    diphenylamine test A 44.  
          B.    ultra violet test 24.   B
          C.    paraffin test C 45.  
          D.    Simon’s Test    25.   A
                                   Answer: C C 46.  
D
Answers: Criminalistics Review Questions 47.  
1.    A 26.   51.   D
2.    C A C 48.  
3.    C 27.   52.   A
4.    D B D 49.  
5.    B 28.   53.   D
6.    D B C 50.  
 C           B.    application of medical science to
Criminalistics Review Questions 2 elucidate legal problems
1. The following are types of medical           C.    knowledge of law in relation to
evidence, except: practice of medicine
          A.    Photographic evidence           D.    none of the above
          B.    Experimental evidence           E.    all of the
          C.    Testimonial evidence above                                 
          D.    Autoptic
evidence                             6. The different test to determine peripheral
circulation are the
2. The art of identification by comparison     following, except 
of fingerprint is called:           A.    Magnus test
          A.    Dactylography           B.    Diaphanous test
          B.    All of the these           C.    I card’s test
          C.    Dactyloscopy           D.    Winslow’s test                            
          D.    Palmistry                                     
   
7. The following officials of the Philippine
3. Some scientific methods of identification Government are authorized to
are the following, except:     conduct death investigation, except -
          A.    Fingerprinting           A.    Public Prosecutor
          B.    Handwriting           B.    Judges of the regional trial court
          C.    Dental identification           C.    Director PNP
          D.    Identification by close friends           D.    SOCO team                                 
and relatives
  
4. The greater the number of points of 8. The following statements are important
similarities and dissimilarities of in death determination.
    two persons compared, the greater the     Which is not valid?.
probability for the           A.    Civil personality of a natural
    conclusion to be correct is found in the person is extinguished by
          A.    Law of Municipality of                  death
Evidence in Identification              B.    Civil property of a person is
          B.    All of the these transmitted to the heirs, if
          C.    Identification by Comparison                  not, to  the government      
and Exclusion          C.    The death of the partner is one of
          D.    Law of Super the causes of
Imposition                                    dissolution of partnership
agreement             
5. In the strict sense of the word, Forensic          D.    The criminal liability of a person
Medicine means is extinguished by death 
          A.    application of medicine to legal                                                                        
cases    
9. The following are kinds of death, which
one is not? 14. Hanging is asphyxia due to the
          A.    Somatic or Clinical Death constriction of the neck as a result
          B.    State of Suspended Animation      of suspension in which the weight of the
          C.    Cellular or Molecular Death body pulls upon the
          D.    Regulated Death                        
     ligature.What differentiates it from
strangulation by a ligature
10. Of the following kinds of death, which      therefore is: 
one is relevant to Organ           A.    The factor of suspension
     Transportation?           B.    Hanging raises a presumption of
          A.    Somatic or clinical Death suicide
          B.    State of Suspended Animation           C.    Strangulation is usually
          C.    Molecular Death homicidal
          D.    Cellular Death                                       D.    All of the above
          E.    None of the
above                        
11. To find out the truth is an essential
requirement for the 15. Distinctions between ante-mortem from
      administration of Justice. Which of the post-mortem clot are the
following is the commonly      following. Which one is not valid?
      used method of deception detection?           A.    Ante-mortem clot is firm in
          A.    Lie detection method consistency
          B.    Hypnotism           B.    Clot is homogenous in
          C.    Use of drugs construction so it cannot be
          D.    Confession                                                    stripped into layers          
          C.    Clot with varied colors
            D.    Surface of the blood vessels are
12. In molecular or cellular death, death of raw after the clots are
individual cells is with in                   removed                                      
          A.    3-6 minutes
          B.    3-6 hours                                                     
          C.    20-30 minutes 16. Post-mortem lividity maybe due to any
          D.    20-30 hours                               of the following, except:
          A.    Hypostasis       
            B.    Autolysis
13. Post-mortem lividity has the following           C.    Diffusion
mechanisms:           D.    Suggillation                                 
          A.    Hypostatic pressure
          B.    Diffusion    
          C.    Gravitational pressure 17. Comprehensive study of dead body,
          D.    All of the above                         performed by a trained
      Physician, to determine the cause of
death: the matter of fact.
          A.    Autopsy           A.    Polygraph
          B.    Biophsis           B.    Evidence
          C.    Dissection              C.    Lie detector
          D.    Physicians                                              D.    All of
these                                      
 
18. Articles and materials found in the 23. Determination of individuality of a
crime scene: person or thing:
          A.    Physical evidence           A.    Description   
          B.    Associative evidence           B.    Perception
          C.    Evidence           C.    Identification
          D.    Tracing evidence                                   D.    All of these                                  

        
19. Circumscribed extravation of blood or 24. Types of fingerprint patters, except:
subcutaneous tissue or          A.    Arches
      underneath the mucous membrane.          B.    Ordinary
          A.    Contusion          C.    Loop
          B.    Petechia          D.   
          C.    Abrasion Whorl                                            
          D.    All of them                                 
25. It is any unusual pattern of sexual
behavior including habitual,
20. Among the following, which has the       preference and completing need for
greatest value in scientific sexual gratification by any
      examination/identification?
          A.    Dental examination       means except sexual intercourse which
          B.    Fingerprinting results to bodily 
          C.    Photography       excitement
          D.    Pictures Parle                                       A.    Virginity
          B.    Sexual intercourse
          C.    Prostitution
21. One is a condition that can approximate           D.    Sexual
the time of death. deviation                              
          A.    Cadaver   
          B.    Magnus test 26. An open wound produced by a sharp-
          C.    Rigor mortis pointed instrument and is
          D.    None of these                                    characterized by a small opening of the
wound.
22. The means sanctioned by the law, of           A.    Gunshot wound
ascertaining the judicial           B.    Stab wound
      power/proceeding, the truth respecting           C.    Shrapnel wound
          D.    Punctured wound                                   A.    Bore
Answer: D           B.    Barrel
          C.    Rifling
27. A physical injury wherein the offended           D.    Primer                                        
victim is incapacitated for Answer: A

      work or requires medical assistance for 32. The portion of the gun which is held or
10 days or more but not shouldered is called
          A.    Slight physical injury              A.    Buckle
          B.    Mutilation           B.    Buttstock
          C.    Serious physical injury           C.    Handle
          D.    less serious physical           D.    End
injury                Answer: D joint                                            Answer: B
   
28. It is the type of burn due to gamma rays 33. In a gun, the portion of the "action" that
and which is difficult to holds the cartridge ready
      remedy:       for firing is called
          A.    Thermal burn              A.    Gas tube
          B.    Electric burn           B.    Chamber
          C.    Chemical burn           C.    Double-action
          D.    Radiation burn                                      D.    Trigger                                      
Answer: D Answer: B

29. The metal tube through which the bullet 34. A metal rod or plate that strikes the
is fired is called cartridge primer to detonate
          A.    Bore      the powder.  
          B.    Barrel           A.    Spring
          C.    Baretta           B.    Trigger guard
          D.    Bromet                                                   C.    Hammer
Answer: B           D.    Revolver                                     
                     Answer: C
30. The old form of gunpowder invented
over a thousand years ago 35. This is a device for storing cartridges in
     and consisting of nitrate, charcoal, and a repeating firearm for
sulfur.       loading into the chamber. Also referred
          A.    Chinese Powder to as a "clip".
          B.    Black Powder           A.    Clipper
          C.    Gray Powder           B.    Holder
          D.    All of these                                           C.    Pin or pinhead
Answer: B           D.    None of these                             
Answer: D
31. The inside of the barrel is generally
termed as 36. A device that fits over the muzzle of the
barrel to muffle the           C.    Core
     sound of a gunshot. Most work by           D.    Cuticle                                         
baffling the escape of gases.  Answer: B
          A.    Buffer
          B.    Silencer 40. Who was the noted British Examiner of
          C.    Magazine questioned documents said
          D.    Hanger                                              that an intelligent police investigator
Answer: B can detect almost 75% of all
      forgeries by careful inspection of a
37. Under the management of Lt. Darby document with simple
during the American       magnifiers and measuring tools?
     occupation in the Philippines, a modern           A.    Dr. Arthur Stoll
and complete fingerprint           B.    Dr. Aristotle Curt
     file has been established for the           C.    Dr. William Harrison
Philippine commonwealth. In 1937,           D.    Dr. Benjamin Jones                     
     the first Filipino fingerprint technician Answer: C
employed by the Phil.
     Constabulary was        41. In police photography studies, what are
          A.    Mr. Generoso Reyes called the thin, gelatinous,
          B.    Mr. Amado Delos Santos       light-sensitive coatings on film that
          C.    Mr. Calixto Solis react chemically to capture
          D.    None of these                                    the color and shadings of a scene?
Answer: A           A.    Films
          B.    Emulsions
38. The first leading judicial decision in the           C.    Chemical Coatings
Philippine jurisprudence on           D.    None of these                              
     the  science of fingerprinting was the Answer: B
case of
          A.    People vs Medina 42. A medium that divert or absorb light,
          B.    People vs Pineda but does not allow lights to
          C.    People vs Amador      pass though, they absorb most of the
          D.    People vs. Rosas                          light while reflecting some of
Answer: A      it is called
          A.    Opaque object
39. What is the intermediate and the           B.    Convection
thickest layer of the hair and is           C.    Visible light
      composed of elongated, spindle-shaped           D.    Prisms                                         
fibrils which cohere? They Answer: A
      contain pigment granules in varying
proportion depending on the 43. In the practice of polygraphy, what do
      type of hair. you call questions
          A.    Medulla      unrelated to the matter under
          B.    Cortex investigation but are of similar
     nature although less serious as compared       fingerprint which maybe compared with
to those relevant the low area in a tire
     questions under investigation?       tread.   
          A.    Irrelevant questions           A.    None of these
          B.    Relevant questions           B.    Envelope
          C.    Control questions           C.    Furrows
          D.    Interrogative questions                         D.    Bifurcation                                 
Answer: C Answer: C
 
44. What test is given if a subject of 48. In the study of questioned documents,
interrogation is not yet informed what do you call the
     of the details of the offense for which he      quality of paper that does not allow light
is being interrogated by to pass through or which
     the investigation, or by other persons or      prevents dark objects from being seen
from other sources like through the paper?
     the print media?           A.    Opacity
          A.    Peak of Tension test           B.    Watermarks
          B.    Control test           C.    Skid marks
          C.    IQ Test           D.    Invisibility                                   
          D.    Guilt Complex Test                    Answer: A
Answer: A
   49. What is the oldest ink material known?
45. In fingerprinting, the space between           A.    Ball point pen ink
shoulders of a loop, free of           B.    Chinese Ink
     any appendage, and a butting at right           C.    Aniline Ink
angle.              D.    White Ink                                   
          A.    Complete curve Answer: B
          B.    Sufficient Recurve
          C.    Straight arrow 50. It is the art of extracting and working
          D.    Core                                            on metals by the application
Answer: B      of chemical and physical knowledge.
          A.    Cryptography
46. The term use to refer to a single           B.    Metallurgy
recurving ridge enclosing one or           C.    Casting
      more rods or bars of a fingerprint.           D.    Matalisky                                    
          A.    None of these Answer: B
          B.    Envelope
          C.    Furrows 51. The branch of geology that deals with
          D.    Bifurcation                                  the systematic
Answer: B       classification and identification of
   rocks, rock forming minerals and
47. These are depressions or canals       soil.Also includes study of dust, dirt,
between the ridges of a safe insulation, ceramics and
      other such materials, both natural and Answer: A
artificial.
          A.    Petrography 56. The ratio of the weight of the powder
          B.    Serology charge to the weight of the
          C.    Anthropology       projectile is called
          D.    Ecology                                                  A.    Power to speed ratio
Answer: A           B.    Charge weight to bullet weight
ratio
52. In a fire, the presence of reddish brown           C.    Firing pin stroke ratio
smoke indicates           D.    All of these                                 
          A.    Nitrocellulose Answer: B
          B.    Sulfuric acid  
          C.    Nitric acid 57. Chemical rearrangement of molecules
          D.    All of these                                   into gas instead of solids to
Answer: D      cause the high explosives to exert full
power of shock. The speed
53. The bending of light around an object      varies in different explosive but in some
gives rise to the it is as high as 7000 yards
     phenomenon called      in a second. This refers to
          A.    attraction           A.    Energy
          B.    diffraction           B.    Gas
          C.    light curve           C.    Detonation
          D.    light fingerprint                                      D.    Gun powder                               
Answer: B Answer: C

54. Under the law of reflection, The angle 58. What occurs when a cartridge fails to
of reflection depends upon explode on time or delayed
     the angle of the light striking the      in firing?
material, which is referred to as           A.    Knocking Power
     the           B.    Hang fire
          A.    angle of incidence           C.    Recoil
          B.    angle of biometry           D.    None of
          C.    angle of light these                                   Answer: B
          D.    none of these                               
Answer: A 59. In China, fingerprint is called ___. It
  was valued for purposes of
55. In ballistics, what is the pressure       identification since time immemorial as
generated within the chamber found on a Chinese clay
      erroneously called breeched pressure?       seal made not later than the 3rd Century
          A.    Chamber Pressure B.C.   
          B.    Barrel Pressure           A.    Hua Chi
          C.    Gunpowder           B.    Mah Whang
          D.    None of these                                         C.    Wong Cho
          D.    Tiang Hin                                              C.    John Dellinger
Answer: A           D.    Billy the Kid                              
Answer: C
60. Who has given the fame title as “Father
of Dactyloscopy”? 64. What is the science of palm print
          A.    Johannes Purkinje identification?
          B.    Leonard Keeler           A.    Chiroscopy
          C.    Charles Darwin           B.    Poroscopy
          D.    Sir Francis Galton                                  C.    Podoscopy
Answer: A           D.   
Astrology                                         
61. In Hoogly, district of Bengal, India, he Answer: B
used fingerprints to prevent
      fraudulent collection of army pay 65. A single ridge which splits into two
account and for identification of ridges forming a “Y” shape
      other documents. He was known as the       formation or structure is commonly
Father of Chiroscopy. known as
          A.    William Herschel           A.    Diverging ridges
          B.    Francis Galton           B.    Bifurcating ridges
          C.    Gilbert Thompson           C.    Loop
          D.    Alphonse Bertillon                                D.    Delta                                           
Answer: A Answer: B
 
62. A noted British anthropologist who 66. Symbolized by letter W in the
began observation which led to fingerprint classification. It is a
      the publication in 1882 of his book      fingerprint pattern which there are two
“Fingerprints.”  That deltas and in which at
      established the individuality of      least one ridge makes a turn through one
classifying fingerprint patterns. complete circuit.
          A.    Francis Galton           A.    Plain whorl
          B.    Gilbert Thompson           B.    Central pocket loop whorl
          C.    Wayne Kate           C.    Accidental loop
          D.    Alphonse Bertillon                                D.    Ulnar loop                                  
Answer: A Answer: A

63. The notorious gangster and a police 67. Father of Criminalistics.

character, who attempted to           A.    Dr. Hans Gross
      erase his fingerprints by burning them           B.    Dr. Cesare Lombroso
with acid but as time went           C.    Dr. John Reid
      by the ridges were again restored to           D.    Dr. John Larson                          
their “natural” feature.  Answer: A
          A.    John Fielding  
          B.    Johanes Curie 68. Which evidence offers least resistance
to decomposition? solemnities required  by law, it is
          A.    Semen      called
          B.    Urine           A.    Official document
          C.    Hair           B.    Public document
          D.    Blood                                                     C.    Commercial document
Answer: C           D.    Private Document                      
Answer: B
69. One in which the facts appearing  
therein may not be true, and are 73. What is known as the blotting out or
     contested either in whole or part with shearing over the writing to
respect to its authenticity,       make the original invisible to as an
     identity, or origin. addition?
          A.    Questioned document           A.    Obliteration
          B.    Illegal document           B.    Obscuration
          C.    Falsified document           C.    Forged
          D.    Disputed facts                                       D.    None of these                              
Answer: A Answer: A
 
70. Are condensed and  compact  set  of 74. In legal language, it refers to the
authentic specimens which, document examiner's conclusion.
     if adequate and proper, should contain  a      In Court, he may not only express it but
cross  section  of  the demonstrates the
     material from a known source for      reasons for arriving at his conclusion.
questioned document           A.    Remarks
     examination.           B.    Testimony
          A.    Basis products           C.    Opinion
          B.    Standards           D.    Reasoning                                  
          C.    Handwriting Answer: C
          D.    Signatures                                    
Answer: B 75. In this kind of document examination,
  the document is viewed with
71. A term used by some document      the source of illumination behind it and
examiners and attorneys to the light passing through
      characterize known material.       the paper.Documents are subjected to
          A.    Basis this type of examination to
          B.    Exemplar      determine the presence of erasures,
          C.    Xerox copies matching of serrations and
          D.    Reproduced                                       some other types of alterations.
Answer: B           A.    Microscopic examination
            B.    Ultra violet examination
72. When a document is issued and           C.    Photographic examination
notarized by a notary  public or           D.    Transmitted light
     competent public official with examination           Answer: D
           B.    Characteristics
76. Ultraviolet radiation is invisible and           C.    Attribute
occurs in the wave lengths just           D.    Form                                            
     below the visible blue-violet end of the Answer: B
spectrum (rainbow). These  
     visible rays react on some substances so 80. The act of setting two or more items
that visible light is side by side to weigh their
     reflected, a phenomenon known as       identifying qualities; it refers not only a
          A.    Prism visual but also the mental 
          B.    Fluorescence       act in which the element of one item are
          C.    Infrared related to the
          D.    Radiation                                            counterparts of the other.
Answer: B           A.    Collation
               B.    Analysis
77. It is the result of a very complicated           C.    Comparison
series of facts, being used as           D.    Recording                                    
     whole, combination of certain forms of Answer: C
visible mental and muscular
     habits acquired by long, continued 81. In the study handwriting, the movement
painstaking effort.Some of the pen toward the
     defined it as “visible speech.”       writer is called
          A.    Typewriting           A.    Downstroke
          B.    Money Bills           B.    Backstroke
          C.    Handwriting           C.    Sidestroke
          D.    All of these                                            D.    None of these                              
Answer: C Answer: A
 
78. In document examination, what is the 82. It is a signature, signed at a particular
relation of parts of the time  and place, under
     whole of writing or line of individual      particular conditions, while the signer
letters in words to the was at particular age, in a
     baseline?      particular physical and mental condition,
          A.    Proportion using particular
          B.    Alignment      implements, and with a particular reason
          C.    Lining and purpose for recording
          D.    Letter forms                                     his name.
Answer: B           A.    Fraudulent Signature
            B.    Freehand forged signature
79. Any property or mark which           C.    Guided Signature
distinguishes and in document           D.    Evidential Signature                   
      examination commonly called to as the Answer: D
identifying details si called
          A.    Standard 83. It is the crime of making, circulating or
uttering false coins and       between two fired bullets or two fired
     banknotes.  Literally, it means to make a shells, by simultaneously
copy of; or imitate; to       observing their magnified image in a
     make a spurious semblance of, as money single microscopic field.
or stamps, with the           A.    Magnetic field device
     intent to deceive or defraud.           B.    Compound microscope
          A.    Counterfeiting           C.    Bullet comparison microscope
          B.    Falsification           D.    Photographic microscope          
          C.    Forgery Answer:C
          D.    Fake money bills                            
Answer: A 88. Consist of a wooden box, 12 “x”12”x
96, with a hinged to cover
84. A fluid or viscous marking material      and with one end open. This long box is
used for writing or printing. filled with ordinary cotton
          A.    Pen      and separated into sections by cardboard
          B.    Ink petitions use in
          C.    Coal      ballistics.
          D.    Chalk                                                     A.    Firing point box
Answer: B           B.    Bullet recovery box
          C.    Slug collection box
85. In 1884, who was this insurance agent           D.    All of
in New York who patented these                                        Answer: B
      the first practical fountain pen
containing its own ink reservoir 89. Photographic films maybe classified
          A.    Lewis Waterman according to their forms and
          B.    John Loud       types. What are the films that are
          C.    Peter Reynolds sensitive to radiation?
          D.    Henry Ball                                              A.    Chrome Films
Answer: A           B.    X-Ray Films
             C.    B&W Films
86. What do you calle the type of           D.    Colored Films                             
instrument used in measuring pitch Answer: B
     of rifling firearms
          A.    Pinometer 90. Which film is suitable for general use in
          B.    Helixometer the preparation of black
          C.    Thermometer      and white photography because it
          D.    Caliper                                         produces the most natural
Answer: B      recording of colors?
            A.    Panchromatic film
87. This valuable instrument is specially           B.    Chrome Films
designed to permit the           C.    X-Ray Films
      firearms examiner to determine the           D.    Color Films                                 
similarity and dissimilarity Answer: A
           becomes a vertical line.   
91. One film maybe rated ISO – 100, and           A.    Astigmatism
another film ISO- 200. This           B.    Bended light
     means that the 200 films are twice as           C.    Chromatic aberration
fast (twice more sensitive           D.    Pragmatic rays                           
     to light) than the ISO-100 film. This Answer: A
statement is
          A.    true 95. Depth of field is the range in front of
          B.    false and behind a sharply focused
          C.    partly true       subject in which details also look sharp
          D.    partly false                                   in the final photographic
Answer: A       image.
          A.    Focus
92. Among the following speed of film,           B.    Depth of field
which has the fastest speed?           C.    Camera trick
          A.    ISO – 25           D.    Aperture                                     
          B.    ISO – 100 to ISO – 200 Answer: B
          C.    ISO – 400
          D.    ISO – 1000 and up                      96. In photography, what determines how
Answer: D effectively a moving object
         can be stopped, that is, how sharply it
93. Chromatic aberration is the failure of can be reproduced without
different colored light rays to       blurring, or streaking in the final
      focus after passing through a lens, image?
focusing of light of different           A.    Focus
      colors at different points resulting in a           B.    Shutter speed
blurred image.           C.    Aperture
          A.    Astigmatism           D.    Lens                                            
          B.    Bended light Answer: B
          C.    Chromatic aberration
          D.    Pragmatic rays                             97. What makes a bullet spin? Without
Answer: C spin, a bullet would not stay
        pointed forward in flight, but would
94. What is the defect in which the light tumble over and over. The
coming from an off-axis       spinning motion increases the accuracy
     object point is spread along the direction of a bullet.
of the optic axis? If the           A.    Bore
     object is a vertical line, the cross section           B.    Gunpowder
of the refracted beam at      successively           C.    Rifling
greater distances from the lens is an ellipse           D.    Shell                                            
that Answer: C
     collapses first into a horizontal line,
spreads out again, and later 98. What component of the polygraph
machine records the changes in 16.  B
      the breathing of the subject? 17.  A
          A.    Pneumograph 18.  A
          B.    Cardiograph 19.  A
          C.    Galvanograph 20.  B
          D.    Kymograph                                  21.  C
Answer: A 22.  B
23.  C
99. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process 24.  B
of counting the 25.  D
     intervening ridges that touch or cross an Crime Detection Review Questions
imaginary line drawn 1. An extra judicial confession obtained
     between the core and the delta. from a suspect is admissible
          A.    Ridge counting     in a court of law if it was made in the
          B.    Ridge tracing presence of a counsel
          C.    Delta tracing     of his own choice and must be in
          D.    All of these                                          A.    the presence of  a  fiscal   
Answer: A         B.    the presence of a police
investigator
100.For many years the most commonly         C.    writing
used preliminary test for blood         D.    front of a judge                         
          A.    Plasma count
          B.    Serum test 2. Fiscals and Prosecutors  are under the
          C.    Benzidine test control and supervision
          D.    Barberio’s test                                  of the  
Answer: C         A.National Bureau of Investigation
          B. Department of the Interior and
Answers:Criminalistics Local Government
1.   B         C. Supreme Court
2.   C         D.Department of Justice                   
3.   D
4.   A 3.The questioning of a person in a formal
5.   B and systematic way and is
6.   C 26.   D   most often used to question criminal
7.   B 27.   B suspects to determine their
8.   B 28.   D   probable guilt or innocence.  
9.   D 29.   B         A.    Inquiry
10.  A 30.   B         B.    Interview
11.  A         C.    polygraph examination
12.  A         D.    interrogation                            
13.  D
14.  E 4.A form of investigation in which the
15.  C investigator assume a
   different and unofficial identity. additional evidence of a
        A.   Tailing    different character to the same point.
        B.   Casing         A.    Corroborative evidence
        C.   Espionage         B.    Circumstantial evidence
        D. Undercover work                                  C.    Direct evidence
        D.    Real evidence                             
5.A type of surveillance in which extreme
precautions and actions 10.The process of bringing together in a
   are taken in not losing the subject. logical manner all evidence
        A.    loose tail      collected during the investigation and
        B.    casing present it to the
        C.    pony tail      prosecutor.
        D.    close tail                                              A.    case preparation
        B.    order maintenance
6.A type of shadowing employed when a         C.    crime prevention
general impression of the         D.    public service                           
   subject’s habits and associates is required.
        A.   loose tail 11.Ways and means are resorted for the
        B.   casing purpose of trapping and
        C.   pony tail      capturing the law breaker during the
        D. close tail                                      execution of a criminal act.
        A.    Instigation
7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of         B.    Inducement
waiting the anticipated         C.    Buy bust operation
   arrival of a suspect or observing his         D.    Entrapment                              
actions from a fixed location.
        A.   Casing 12.A special qualification for an
        B.   Tailing undercover agent.
        C.   Stake out         A.    excellent built
        D.   Espionage                                           B.    excellent eyesight
        C.    excellent looks
8.An examination of an individual’s person,         D.    excellent memory                   
houses, or effects or a
  building, or premises with the purpose of 13.The discreet observation of places,
discovering contraband's persons and vehicles for the
  or personal properties connected in a    purpose of obtaining information
crime. concerning the identities or
        A.   Search    activities of suspects.
        B.   Raid         A.    close observation
        C.   Investigation         B.    espionage
        D.   Seizure                                               C.    tailing
        D.    surveillance                             
9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove
14. The questioning of a person by law preliminary investigation.
enforcement officers after            A. initial investigation   
      that person has been taken into custody.         B.custodial investigation
        A.    preliminary investigation         C.secondary investigation
        B.    interrogation         D.follow-up investigation                   
        C.    custodial investigation
        D.    cross examination                     19.To obtain admission and confession of
guilt is the primary purpose
15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can      of
be served at         A. Interview
        A.   day time                        B. Surveillance
        B.   night time         C. Investigation
        C.   any day and at any time of the day         D.Interrogation                                  
or night
        D.   weekdays                                    20.Such facts and circumstances that would
lead a reasonably
16.Measures through which police seek to     discreet and prudent man to believe that
detect crimes, or an offense has been
    attempts to be present when they are
committed, through the     committed and that the object sought in
connection with the 
    use of the undercover agents, electronic     offense are in the place sought to be
devices for wiretapping searched.
    or bugging, and stakeouts.         A. prima facie evidence
        A.    preventive measures         B. probable cause
        B.    countermeasures         C. prejudicial question
        C.    pro-active measures         D.res ipsa loquitur                              
        D.    tape measures                         
21.A search warrant shall be valid for
17.A police activity directed toward the _____ days from its date.
identification and     Thereafter, it shall be void.
    apprehension of alleged criminals and         A.    10
the accumulation,         B.    15
        C.    30
    preservation, and presentation of         D.    45                                            
evidence regarding their
    alleged crimes. 22.It means that a specific crime was
        A. police patrol committed at a specified time,
        B. police intelligence     date and place, and that the person
        C. Criminal procedure named in his report
        D. Criminal investigation                    committed the crime.
        A.    corpus delicti
18.An extension or continuation of the         B.    sufficiency of evidence
        C.    stare decisis      person who is the subject of
        D.    parens patriae                          investigation.
        A.    background interview
23.Police seek to prevent crime by being         B.    personal interview
present in places where         C.    intimate interview
    crimes might be committed and by         D.    pre-game interview                 
alerting citizens to refrain from
    practices that make them or their 28.It means method of operation.
property vulnerable.         A.    corpus delicti
        A.    opportunity denial         B.    parens patriae
        B.    order maintenance         C.    stare decisis
        C.    criminal investigation         D.    modus operandi                       
        D.    police intelligence                       
29.It is one which induces the criminal to
24.A statement of the suspect directly act and need not be
acknowledging his guilt.     shown in order to obtain conviction.
        A.    Admission         A.    Intent
        B.    Confession         B.    Motive
        C.    Deposition         C.    Opportunity
        D.    Accusation                                          D.    Inducement                               

25.It may be a direct acknowledgement of 30.The three tools in criminal investigation,

the truth of the guilty whereby their
    fact as charge or of some essential part of     application varies in proportion on their
the commission of the necessity to establish
    criminal act itself.      the guilt of the accused in a criminal
        A.    Admission case.
        B.    Confession         A.    information, interrogation,
        C.    Deposition instrumentation
        D.    Accusation                                          B.    detection, apprehension,
conviction    ‘
26.It may be a self-incriminatory statement         C.    inquiry, observation, conclusion
by the subject falling         D.    magnifying glass, pencil, tape
    short of an acknowledgement of guilt. measure    
        A.    Admission
        B.    Confession 31.The simple questioning of a person who
        C.    Deposition is cooperating in the
        D.    Accusation                                       investigation.
        A.    Interview
27.The simplest type of interview which         B.    Inquiry
concerns with the gathering         C.    Interrogation
     of information regarding the personal         D.    Instrumentation                        
circumstances of a
32.It involves a number of persons who 36.This may be applicable to a crime scene
might have handled  which is approximately
    evidence     between the time of the     circular or oval.  The searchers gather at
commission of the alleged the center and proceed
    offense and the disposition of the case,     outward along radii or spokes.
should be kept to         A.   strip method
    a minimum.         B.   wheel method
        A.chain of command         C.   spiral method
        B.chain of custody         D.   zone method                            
        C.evidence tracking
        D.tracing evidence                          37.The area to be searched is divided into
quadrants and each
33.A kind of evidence which may link the     searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
suspect to the crime scene         A.   strip method
    or offense. Examples are fingerprints,         B.   wheel method
impressions, blood etc.         C.   spiral method
        A.   physical evidence         D.   zone method                           
        B.   associative evidence
        C.   tracing evidence 38.The searchers follow each other in the
        D.   factual evidence                         path of a crime scene
    beginning in the outside and circling
34.Articles and materials which are found around a central point.
in connection with an         A. strip method
    investigation and which help in         B. wheel method
establishing the identity of the         C.spiral method
    perpetrator or the circumstances under         D.zone method                                     
which the crime was 
    committed or which in general, assist in 39.A kind of gathering information
the prosecution of the whereby a subject is being
     criminal.      followed.
        A.   physical evidence         A.    Convoy
        B.   documentary evidence         B.    Caravan
        C.   tracing evidence         C.    Tailing
        D.   testimonial evidence                           D.    Surveillance                          

35.The following are different techniques 40.Another term for tailing.

in interrogation except          A.Impersonating
      one:         B.Backing
        A.   sympathetic approach         C.Supporting
        B.   emotional appeal         D.Shadowing                                
        C.   financial assistance
        D.   friendliness                                  41.A person who gives necessary
information to the investigator.
    He may give the information openly and         C.    Flash over
even offer to be a         D.    Starter                                  
    witness or he may inform the
investigator surreptitiously and 46.A term of the start of the combustion, its
    request to remain anonymous. detailed process of
        A.   Witness     a solid is very complicated, since the
        B.   Expert witness proportion of different
        C.   Hostile witness     flammable vapors varies from one
        D.   Informant                                material to another and  
    contact with oxygen must take place
42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen before combustion can
and record discreetly     begin.
    conversations of other people.         A.    Intensity
        A.   Bugging         B.    Ignition
        B.   Dubbing         C.    Flash over
        C.   Mimicking         D.    Starter                                    
        D. Tapping                                      
47.The term describes the transfer of heat
43.The questioning of persons not through a gas or vacuum
suspected of being involved in a     in a similar way to that of light.
    crime,but who knows about the crime or         A.    Ignition
individuals involved in it.         B.    Convection
        A.   Interrogation         C.    Radiation
        B.   rumor mongering         D.    Conduction                          
        C.   interview
        D. inquiry                                         48.The transfer of heat within a solid
material from hotter to
44.An objective of criminal investigation.     cooler parts.
        A.    determine the motive         A.    Ignition
        B.    identify criminals         B.    Convection
        C.    rehabilitate criminals         C.    Radiation
        D.    prevent crimes                                 D.    Conduction                         

49.The greatest concern of the firemen at

45.A term used to describe a transition the fire/crime scene is to
which occur in the         A.    interview witnesses
    development of a fire, when, for         B.    view the site of the crime
example, most of all the         C.    preserve the fire/crime scene
    combustible surfaces within a room are         D.    opportunity in the fire/crime
heated above their scene 
    ignition temperature at the same time.
        A.    Intensity 50.Most malicious fires are set by
        B.    Ignition individuals secretly; it is
    either set for revenge or self         A.    fire resistance
aggrandizing; or set by psychotic         B.    fire duration
    fire setter, or for sexual gratification.         C.    fire proof
        A.    group fire setter         D.    fire strength                              
        B.    arson for profit Answer: A
        C.    fire starter
        D.    solitary fire setter                  55.A type of fire that is the result of the
combustion of certain
51.The primary course of action in case of a     metals in finely divided forms;
fire. magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
        A.   pack up and flee         A.    class A
        B.   run for your life         B.    class B
        C.   call an ambulance         C.    class C
        D.   raise the alarm                                     D.    class D                                        
Answer: D Answer: D

52.The main product of the combustion of 56.A type of fire which results from
carbon.  It is not burning of wood, paper,
    poisonous but is an asphyxia which     textiles, and other carbonaceous
lowers the proportion of materials.Extinguishment of
    oxygen available for breathing.     this fire is by quenching and cooling.
        A.   carbon oxide         A.    class A
        B.   carbon monoxide         B.    class B
        C.   carbon paper         C.    class C
        D.   carbon dioxide                                      D.    class D                                        
Answer: D Answer: A

53.A normal product of combustion, and is 57.The following are components of fire
poisonous, especially except one:
    when the air supply to the fire is         A.    Gas
restricted.         B.    Fuel
        A.    carbon oxide         C.    Oxygen
        B.    carbon monoxide         D.    Heat                                           
        C.    carbon paper Answer: A
        D.    carbon dioxide                            
Answer: B 58.It is observed in structural fires and can
be an indicator of
54.The fire resisting property of structural     the fire travel and point of origin.
elements and the         A.    Charring
    behavior of a building material in a fire,         B.    Alligatoring
it is used to predict         C.    V pattern
    how long it will resist the effect of a fire         D.    Pour pattern                              
before it fails. Answer: A
         C.    pyromania
59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular         D.    pyrophobia                                  
lines in glass and wood.                                                    Answer:
        A.    Crazing C                          
        B.    Spalling
        C.    Light bulbs 64.It is known as the “Fire Code of the
        D.    Charring                                      Philippines.”
Answer: A         A.    PD 1108
        B.    PD 1017
60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay         C.    PD 1081
the start of the fire         D.    PD 1185                                     
    and allow him to establish an alibi. Answer: D
        A.    Accelerants
        B.    delaying tactic 65.Any material or mixture consisting of a
        C.    timing device fuel and oxidizer used
        D.    stopper                                             to set off explosives.
Answer: C         A.    blasting agent
        B.    blasting cap
61.It can be readily identified by their         C.    gun powder
distinctive odors, and the         D.    explosive primer                         
    most common examples are gasoline, Answer: A
turpentine and kerosene.
        A.    Accelerants 66.These are description of materials or
        B.    Trailers compounds that are
        C.    timing device       easily set on fire except one:
        D.    Stopper                                              A.    Combustible
Answer: A         B.    Corrosive
        C.    Flammable
62.This catalytic combustion device is the         D.    Inflammable                               
most common means Answer: B
    employed to detect flammable vapors.
        A.    Accelerant 67.Any material having a flash point at or
        B.    Sniffer above 37.80 degree
        C.    timing device      Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
        D.    stopper                                               A.    combustible liquid
Answer: B         B.    flammable liquid
        C.    inflammable liquid
63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion         D.    corrosive liquid                          
to start a fire and Answer: A
     experience gratification and satisfaction
from it. 68.Any liquid that causes fire when in
        A.    fire starter syndrome contact with organic matter.
        B.    pyrotechnic disease         A.    combustible liquid
        B.    flammable liquid 73.The temperature at which a liquid is
        C.    inflammable liquid transformed or converted to 
        D.    corrosive liquid                                 vapor.
Answer: A         A.    burning point
        B.    melting point
69.An extremely hot luminous bridge         C.    freezing point
formed by the passage of an         D.    boiling point                               
     electric current across the space between Answer: B
two conductors.
        A.    electrical arc 74.The first action taken by a traffic unit to
        B.    damper escape from a
        C.    duct system      collision course or to avoid hazard.
        D.    ember                                                 A.    point of no return
Answer: A         B.    point of no escape
        C.    start of evasive action
70.The active principle of burning,         D.    final position                               
characterized by the heat Answer: C
     and light combustion.
        A.    explosion    75.The movement of vehicles, and
        B.    arson pedestrians in a road or highway.
        C.    combustion         A.    Traffic
        D.    fire                                                     B.    Flight
Answer: D         C.    Trip
        D.    Journey                                     
71.A type of fire, of flammable liquid and Answer: A
gasses.
        A.    class A 76.A method of locating a spot in the area
        B.    Class B by measurements from
        C.    Class C     two or more reference points.
        D.    Class D                                               A.    traffic report
Answer: B         B.    spot report
        C .    triangulation
72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example         D.    accident investigation                
a liquid or a gas where Answer: C
     fluid at one temperature and density
moves under the influence 77.The force that tends to pull all objects to
     of gravity at different temperatures. the center of the
        A.    Conduction      earth.
        B.    Convection         A.    Inertia
        C.    Radiation         B.    Friction
        D.    Combustion                                         C.    Energy
Answer: B         D.    Gravity                                      
Answer: D
          D.   D. traffic violation                        
78.Any motor vehicle accident that results Answer: A
in no death, but only
    injuries to one or more persons. 83.The first accidental touching of an
        A.    Fatal object collision course
        B.    Chronic      or otherwise avoid a hazard.
        C.    Non fatal         A.    primary contact
        D.    Injurious                                             B.    secondary  contact
Answer: B         C.    disengagement
        D.    initial contact                              
79.The “Traffic and Land Transportation Answer: D
Code of the Philippines”
        A.    RA 7160 84.The following are the three E’s of
        B.    RA 8551 Traffic Management and
        C.    RA 6425     Operation except one:
        D.    RA 4136                                              A.   Engineering
Answer: D         B.   Education
        C.  Enforcement
80.An occurrence in a sequence of events,         D.  Evaluation                                    
which usually produces Answer: D
    unintended injury, death or property
damage. 85.The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs
        A.    traffic incidents Act of 2002.”
        B.    traffic accidents         A.    RA 9870
        C.    traffic hazards         B.    RA 9165
        D.    traffic events                                      C.    RA 1017
Answer: B         D.    RA 6195                                      
Answer: B
81.Any motor vehicle accident occurring
on a traffic way. 86.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration,
        A.   non motor vehicle traffic accident varying emotional
        B.   non motor vehicle non-traffic      change, thought disruption and ego
accident distortion. They are called
        C.   motor vehicle non-traffic accident     psychedelics.
        D.   motor vehicle traffic accident              A.    Tranquillizers
Answer: D         B.    Hallucinogens
        C.    Stimulants
82.An order wherein a violator is         D.    Depressants                               
commanded to appear in court, Answer: B
     but without detaining him.
        A.   traffic citation 87.Drugs which produce insensibility,
        B.   traffic request stupor, melancholy or
        C.   traffic warrant     dullness of the mind with delusions.
        A.    Stimulants     depravity, wickedness and corruption of
        B.    Narcotics the mind and body.
        C.    Depressants         A.    Vice
        D.    Hallucinogens                                       B.    Abuse
Answer: B         C.    Addiction
        D.    Virtue                                         
88.The practice or profession of having Answer: A
sexual intercourse for
    money or profit. 93.The most common form of stimulant.
        A.    Gynecology         A.    Heroin
        B.    Prostitution         B.    Codeine
        C.    White Slavery         C.    Morphine
        D.    Sex Trade                                            D.    Shabu                                         
Answer: B Answer: D
 
89.The scientific name of Indian hemp 94.It is chemically known as
plant. methamphetamine hydro chloride.
        A.    cannabis sativa L         A.    Heroin
        B.    Papaver somniforum         B.    Codeine
        C.    deoxyribonucleic acid         C.    Morphine
        D.    methamphetamine HCl                         D.    None of these                             
Answer: A Answer: D

90.The original components of heroin and 95.A derivative of opium which is used a
morphine. cough reliever.
        A.    Codeine         A.    Codeine
        B.    Caffeine         B.    Heroin
        C.    Opium         C.    Morphine
        D.    Methamphetamine                                D.    Caffeine                                      
Answer: C Answer: A

91.An inter department agency that enforce 96.Any part of the plant of the papaver
and carry out the law somniferum, including the 
    against illegal drugs.      seeds.
        A.    Philippine Drug Enforcement         A.    opium poppy
Agency         B.    marijuana
        B.    Bureau of Foods and Drugs         C.    caffeine components
        C.    Dangerous Drug Board         D.    codeine                                      
        D.    Food and Drug Administration     Answer: A
Answer: A
97.Another term for psychological drug
92.A harmful conduct or habit, the addiction.
indulgence of which leads to         A.    drug habituation
        B.    drug net consciousness 10. A 35.   C
        C.    drug pushing 11. D 36.   B
        D.    drug dependence                        12. D 37.   D
Answer: D 13. D 38.   C
14. B 39.   C
98.Commercially produced drugs that can 15. C 40.   B
be legally sold or 16. C 41.   D
    dispensed only by a physician’s order. 17. D 42.   A
        A.    illegal drugs 18. D 43.   C
        B.    prohibited drugs 19. D 44.   B
        C.    regulated drugs 20. B 45.   C
        D.    prescription drugs                         21. A 46.   B
Answer: D 22. A 47.   C
23. A 48.   D
99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of 24. B 49.   C
its chemical nature 25. B 50.   D
    alters the structure and functioning of Sociology of Crimes Review Questions
living organism. 1. An old woman approached PO3 Gomez
        A.    Alcohol asking the police officer to
        B.    Poison      run after an unidentified young man who
        C.    Drug allegedly snatched her      mobile
        D.    Vice                                               phone. PO3 Gomez declined claiming that
Answer: C the man was   
     already a block away from them and
100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for besides the police officer 
obtaining information      alleged that he is rushing home for an
     to determine the origin and cause of fire. urgent matter. The
     officer’s  refusal to help the old woman
        A.    Evidence collection is an example of
        B.    laboratory examination of          A.    nonfeasance
evidence          B.    malfeasance 
        C.    interview witnesses          C.    misfeasance
        D.    interrogation of suspects                        D.    misconduct        
Answer: C                               
1.   C 26.   A Answer: A                        
2.   D 27.   A
3.   D 28.   D 2. When the accused is found not guilty of
4.   D 29.   B the charges presented    
5.   D 30.   A     before the court, he is
6.   A 31.   A         A.    convicted
7.   C 32.   A         B.    suspended
8.   A 33.   C         C.    acquitted
9.   A 34.   A         D.    absuelto           
                                                             Answer: A                                 
Answer: C                        
7. What aggressive behavior includes
3. Guilty by act means cursing/swearing, intentional 
         A.    Actus Reus      destruction of property, and self
         B.    Actus Numbus destructive behaviors?
         C.    Giltus reus          A.    Isolated
         D.    Rea mensa               B.    Covert
                                         C.    Interactive
Answer: A                                 D . Overt     
                                                              
4. If physiological or psychological Answer: A                                    
dependence on some agent are 
     obviously detected from a person, he is 8. What aggressive behavior includes the
in the state of emotional and cognitive
         A.    dependency or addiction      components of aggression such as anger
         B.    comatose and hostility?
         C.    insanity          A.    Covert
         D.    metamorphosis           B.    Dynamic
                                                                    C.    Interactive
Answer: A                            D.    Directive       
                                
5. Which of the following is described as Answer: A                           
the threatening behaviors, 
     either verbal or physical, directed at 9. When there is an apparent, intentional,
others and physically aggressive
         A.    Abnormality      act irrespective of severity against
         B.    Dependency another person, there is
         C.    Aggression          A.    Battering
         D.    Violence               B.    Assault
                                        C.    Chaos
Answer: C                                      D.    Crisis   
                                
6. What aggressive behavior includes Answer: B                                 
repeated noncompliance to a  
     direct command, verbal abuse-name 10.What kind of assault committed when it
calling, verbal abuse-threat, includes kicking,
     and physical abuse?      punching,deliberately throwing an
         A.    Interactive object and drawing a lethal
         B.    Isolated      weapon against someone?
         C.    Covert          A.    Mental
         D.    Overt              B.    Physical
                                         C.    Sexual
         D.    Verbal             B.    Conspiracy theory
                                                                          C.    Neurotic Mind theory
Answer: B                                         D.    Dementia praecox                     
Answer: A
11.Allege means
         A.    Assert or make an accusation 15.A term used to describe a clinical
         B.    remove from its position condition in young children who
         C.    direct an act from doing
         D.    intentional mutilation                       have received non-accidental,
Answer: A inexcusable violence or injury,
       ranging from minimal to severe or fatal
12.What do you call measures other than trauma, at the hand of
judicial proceedings used      an adult in a position of trust, generally
a parent or guardian
     to deal with a young person alleged to          A.    Battered Child Syndrome
have committed an          B.    Incapacitated Child Syndrome
     offense?          C.    Abuse Trauma Syndrome
         A.    Rehabilitation          D.    None of these                           
         B.    Alternative measures Answer: A
         C.    Individual response against bad
behavior 16.When we say capital offense, it means:
         D.    Extra judicial proceedings                    A.    a very serious crime, for which
Answer: B the death penalty is 
                 imposed
13.What do we call the psychological,          B.    the highest penalty for selected
emotional and behavioral offenses
         C.    total punishment of offender by
     reactions and deficits of women victims incarceration
and their inability to          D.    all of the above                         
     respond effectively to repeated physical Answer: A
and psychological 
     violence?
         A.    Woman Menopausal Syndrome 17.At trial, the authenticity of an item as
         B.    Battered Woman Syndrome evidence is crucial,
         C.    Violence against women      whether it be a physical object like a
         D.    M'Naghten Rule                         bullet, a medical record or a
Answer: B      photograph. The item cannot be offered
in court without a
14.What is the theory that tumors and      testimonial sponsor who can vouch for
seizures have been its unaltered authenticity
     associated with aggression and violent      to the court and the jury. To validate an
behavior? items unaltered
         A.    Brain lesion theory      authenticity, a record must be kept of
each and every time the evidence to the
     item changes hands. This refers to      contrary, and which is not related to
         A.    Records management cultural or religious beliefs
         B.    Presentation of evidence in court          A.    False alarm
         C.    Chain of custody          B.    Wrong perception
         D.    Laboratory analysis of items                 C.    Incoherence
Answer: A          D.    Delusion                                     
  Answer: D
18.The negligent treatment or maltreatment      
of a child by a parent or 22.Which of the following is an act
     caretaker under circumstances indicating committed by a juvenile for
harm or threatened      which an adult could be prosecuted in a
     harm to the child's health or welfare is criminal court?
known as          A.    Adult offense
         A.    Child Abuse          B.    Status offense
         B.    Child Neglect          C.    Delinquency offense
         C.    Child Dilemma          D.    Children in conflict with the
         D.    Child in conflict with the law       law      Answer: C
Answer: C
23.Anything that has been used, left,
19.The exchange of sexual favors for removed, altered or
money or other material goods      contaminated during the commission of
     without any emotional involvement  a crime by either the
involving a person under the      suspect or victim is part of
     age of 18 years is called          A.    Evidence
         A.    Child prostitution          B.    Modus operandi
         B.    Child trafficking          C.    Recidivism
         C.    Both A and B are correct          D.    Preservation of crime scene      
         D.    Both A and B are wrong             Answer: A
Answer: A
24.Generally, putting to death a person, as a
20.An abuse that is kept secret for a legal penalty, is called
purpose, concealed, or           A.    Infliction
     underhanded is called          B.    Execution
         A.    Clandestine abuse          C.    Murder
         B.    Clinical abuse          D.    Capital punishment                    
         C.    Overt abuse Answer: B
         D.    Abuse of authority                    
Answer: A 25.Among the following, what is the form
of abuse where the use of
21.A false belief based on an incorrect      the victim is for selfish purposes and or
inference about external financial gain?
     reality and firmly sustained despite clear          A.    Verbal Abuse
         B.    Exploitation rather than by courts or
         C.    Racketeering      judges.
         D.    Khotongism                                         A.    Criminal procedure
Answer: C          B.    Administrative procedure
         C.    Summary procedure
26.The most common legal grounds for          D.    Trial                                            
termination of parental rights, Answer: B
     also a form of child abuse in most states.
Sporadic visits, a few 30.A legal relationship between two people
     phone calls, or birthday cards are not not biologically related,
sufficient to maintain      usually terminating the rights of
     parental rights. biological parents, and usually
         A.    Exploitation      with a trial "live-in" period. Once it is
         B.    Abuse finalized, the records are
         C.    Neglect      sealed and only the most compelling
         D.    Abandonment                             interests will enable
Answer: D      disclosure of documents.
         A.    Adoption
27.Which of the following is defined as          B.    Foster parenting
acts or omissions by a legal          C.    Common law relationship
     caretaker that encompasses a broad          D.    Brotherhood                              
range of acts, and usually Answer: A
     requires proof of intent.
         A.    Abuse 31.What is the legal doctrine establishing
         B.    Exploitation court as determiner of best
         C.    Neglect      environment for raising child which is
         D.    Abandonment                             an alternative to the Parens
Answer: A      Patriae Doctrine?
         A.    Rights of Society
28.The phase of a delinquency hearing          B.    Miranda Doctrine
similar to a "trial" in adult          C.    Best interest of the Child Rule
     criminal court,except that juveniles have          D.    Parental Obligation                    
no right to a jury trial, a Answer: C
     public trial, or bail.
         A.    Acquittal 32.What was the case that allowed second
         B.    Conviction prosecution in adult
         C.    Adjudication      court for conviction in juvenile court
         D.    Entertainment                             which was based on idea
Answer: C      that first conviction was a "civil"
matter?
29.Any of the processes involving          A.    Case Law
enforcement of care, custody, or          B.    Breed v. Jones
     support orders by an executive agency          C.    Miranda v. Arizona
         D.    Matt v. Jeff                                delinquent.
Answer: B          A.    Summon
         B.    Subpoena
33.The Law established by the history of          C.    Custodial confinement
judicial decisions in cases          D.    Rehabilitation order                   
     decided by judges, as opposed to Answer: C
common law which is
     developed from the history of judicial 37.___ is anyone under the care of someone
decisions and social else. A child ceases to
     customs.      be a dependent when they reach the age
         A.    Case Law of emancipation.
         B.    Breed v. Jones          A.    Delinquent
         C.    Miranda v. Arizona          B.    Dependent
         D.    Matt v. Jeff                                         C.    Independent
Answer: A          D.    Recognizance                            
Answer: B
34.The filing of legal papers by a child    
welfare agency when its 38.It a phase of delinquency proceeding
     investigation has turned up evidence of similar to "sentencing" 
child abuse. This is a      phase of adult trial. The judge must
     civil,rather than criminal, charge consider alternative,
designed to take preventive      innovative, and individualized sentences
     action, like appointment of a guardian rather than imposing
for at-risk children before      standard sentences.
     abuse occurs.           A.    Preliminary investigation
         A.    Child prosecution          B.    Judgment
         B.    Child protection action          C.    Disposition
         C.    Parens Patriae          D.    Probationary period                  
         D.    Preliminary investigation             Answer: C
Answer: B
39.The independence of a minor from his
35.The act of being responsible for or her parents before  
enforcing child support      reaching age of majority is known as
     obligations is known as          A.    Enlightenment
         A.    Child’s care          B.    Recognizance
         B.    Parental Guidance          C.    Emancipation
         C.    Child at risk          D.    Freedom from parental
         D.    Child support                              obligation       Answer: C
Answer: D
40.A clause requiring government to treat
36.A court order for placement in a secure similarly situated people
facility, separate from      the same or have good reason for
     adults, for the rehabilitation of a juvenile treating them differently.
     Compelling reasons are considered to      of a child's inheritance. Guardians are
exist for treating children usually compensated for
     differently.      their services.
         A.    Bill of Rights          A.    Guardianship
         B.    Equal Protection          B.    Order of Authority
         C.    Parens Patriae          C.    In Loco Parentis
         D.    Diversion                                              D.    Parens Patriae                           
Answer: B Answer: A
 
41.What is the legal doctrine preventing 45.Teachers, administrators, and babysitters
unemancipated children who are viewed as
     from suing their parents?      having some temporary parental rights
         A.    Parens Patriae Doctrine & obligations are
         B.    Equal Protection      considered
         C.    Family Immunity Doctrine          A.    Guardianship
         D.    Poisonous Tree          B.    Order of Authority  
Doctrine               Answer: C          C.    In Loco Parentis
         D.    Parens Patriae                           
42.What is the legal doctrine holding Answer: C
parents liable for injuries caused
     by a child's negligent driving or other 46.What is the legal doctrine establishing
actions? "parental" role of state 
         A.    Family Purpose Doctrine      over welfare of its citizens, especially its
         B.    Family Immunity Doctrine children?
         C.    Parens Patriae Doctrine          A.    Guardianship
         D.    None of the above                               B.    Order of Authority
Answer: A          C.    In Loco Parentis
         D.    Parens Patriae                           
43.Guardian ad litem means: Answer: D
         A.    “For the Proceeding"
         B.    “Protection of child by the law” 47.The emergency, temporary custody by a
         C.    “Guardians of the little children” child welfare agency,
         D.    “Legal authority”                              police agency, or hospital for reasons of
Answer: A immanent danger to the
       child is called
44.A court order giving an individual or          A.    Preventive detention
organization legal authority          B.    Diversion
     over a child. A guardian of the person is          C.    Witness protection program
usually an individual and          D.    Protective custody                    
     the child is called a ward. A guardian of Answer: D
the estate is usually an
     organization, like a bank, which 48.What is the legal doctrine granting
manages the property and assets custody to the parent whom
     the child feels the greatest emotional 52.A parent who provided an egg, sperm,
attachment to? or uterus with an intent of
         A.    Psychological Parent      giving the child up for adoption to
         B.    Maternity specific parties.
         C.    Paternity          A.    None of these
         D.    Parental Selection                                B.    Stepparent
Answer: A          C.    Foster Parent
         D.    Surrogate Parent                       
49.A disposition requiring a defendant to Answer: D
pay damages to a victim.
     The law prohibits making it a condition 53.What is the legal doctrine that unless the
of receiving probation. mother is "unfit", very
     Poor families cannot be deprived of      young children should be placed in
probation simply because custody with their mother
     they are  too poor to afford it.      following a divorce?
         A.    Bond          A.    Tender Years Doctrine
         B.    Surety          B.    Psychological Parent Doctrine
         C.    Restitution          C.    Unwed Mother’s Doctrine
         D.    Protection money                                 D.    Illegitimacy                                 
Answer: C Answer: A
         
50.An activity illegal when engaged in by a 54.What is declared of a temporary or
minor, but not when done permanent termination of
     by an adult. Examples include truancy,      parental rights in the best interest of the
curfew, running away, or child usually for
     habitually disobeying parents.      reasons of abandonment, abuse, or
         A.    Adult Offenses neglect, but also including
         B.    Minor Offenses      mental illness, addiction, or criminal
         C.    Status Offenses record?
         D.    Stubbornness                                      A.    Unfit Parent
Answer: C          B.    Psychological Incapacitation
         C.    Mental Disturbance
51.A spouse of a biological parent who has          D.    Child at risk                                
no legal rights or duties Answer: B
     to the child other than those which have
been voluntarily 55.It refers to the security given for the
     accepted. release of the person in
         A.    Maternity      custody of the law, furnished by him/her
         B.    Paternity or a bondsman, to
         C.    Stepparent      guarantee his/her appearance before any
         D.    Foster parent                              court.
Answer: C          A.    Surety
         B.    Money order
         C.    Conditions      as:
         D.    None of these                                     A.    Arrest
Answer: D          B.    Initial contact
         C.    Child custody
56.It refers to the totality of the          D.    All of the above                         
circumstances and conditions most Answer: B
     congenial to the survival, protection and
feelings of security of 60.The series of activities designed to
     the child and most encouraging to the address issues that caused
child’s physical,      the child to commit an offense. It may
     psychological and emotional take the form of an
development.      individualized treatment program, which
         A.    Best interest of the child may include counseling,
         B.    Rights      skills training, education, and other
         C.    Obligations activities that will enhance
         D.    Child’s role                                        his/her psychological, emotional and
Answer: A psycho-social well-being is
     called
57.Children who are vulnerable to and at          A.    reformation guide
the risk of committing          B.    intervention
     criminal offenses because of personal,          C.    diversion
family and social          D.    welfare procedures                   
     circumstances are considered Answer: B
         A.    Abused Children
         B.    Neglected Children 61.An undertaking in lieu of a bond
         C.    Children in conflict with the law assumed by a parent or
         D.    Children at risk                                 custodian who shall be responsible for
Answer: D the appearance in court of
        the child in conflict with the law, when
58.A child who is alleged as, accused of, or required is known as
adjudged as, having          A.    Status offense
     committed an offense under Philippine          B.    None of these
laws is considered          C.    Recognizance
         A.    Child at risk          D.    Bail                                             
         B.    Child in conflict with the law Answer: C
         C.    Minor offense
         D.    Juvenile offender                       62.What is the type of offense committed
Answer: B where there is no private
     offended party involved?
59.The apprehension or taking into custody          A.    Status offense
of a child in conflict with          B.    Victimless crime
     the law by law enforcement officers or          C.    Minor crime
private citizens is termed          D.    None of these                           
Answer: B          C.    The belief that man is a demon
  and devil
63.What is the doctrine that requires a          D.    The belief that man is evolved
process of resolving conflicts from the animal ape.   
     with the maximum involvement of the                                                                    
victim, the offender and Answer: B
     the community?
         A.    Proactive justice 66.Among the following classical thoughts
         B.    Restorative justice in Criminology is not  
         C.    Reactive justice      correct:
         D.    All of the above                                   A.    The Classical school of
Answer: B Criminology is spearheaded by 
                 Bentham and Beccaria.
64.One of the following is an act          B.    The Classical School of
constituting exploitation and sex  Criminology is an advocate of
     abuse among children in exchange of                  punishment as a deterrent to
any form of incentive. crime.
         A.    Child trafficking             C.    The Classical School of
         B.    Child abuse Criminology argues that criminals
         C.    Child prostitution                  were primitive creatures,
         D.    Child racketeering                       incapable of living normally in 
Answer: C                  society.
         D.    The Classical School of
65.Centuries ago, criminal behavior was Criminology also argued that
believed to be the result of                  nature has placed mankind under
     evil spirits and demons.Guilt and the governance of two
innocence were established by a                  sovereign masters, “pain” and
     variety of procedures that presumably “pleasure’.
called forth the               
     supernatural allies of the accused. The                                                                    
accused were innocent if Answer: C
     they could survive an ordeal, they were   
guilty if they died at the 67.What school of thought in Criminology
     stake or if omens were associated with challenges the proposition
them. In the 18th       that man has absolute free will to
     century,this spiritual determination choose between good and evil
began to give way to:      and states that it is not absolute as
         A.    The belief that there is no such presumed to be because
thing as bad spirits      free will can be diminished by
         B.    The belief that humans are pathology, mental disorders and
rational creatures with free        other conditions that may instigate
                 will,who    seek happiness and personal responsibility? 
pleasure and avoid pain          A.    Neo-classical School of
Criminology they could best
         B.    Positivism      understand human behavior by
         C.    Hedonistic Calculus searching for a stable, consistent
         D.    Radical Criminology                          personality dispositions or traits that
Answer: A exert orderly generalized
     effects on behavior. Which among the
68.The Classical School of thoughts in following theory on
Criminology is based on the      Criminal Behavior is not consistent with
     principle of free will. The positivist the previous statement?
thoughts on the other hand is          A.Psychoanalytical Theory
     focused on the principle of:          B.Strain Theory
         A.    Darwinism          C.Behavioral descriptions
         B.    Determinism          D.Psychological Determination          
         C.    Cognitive Functioning Answer: B
         D.    Conceptual Thinking                  
Answer: B 72.Based on the Lombroso’s works, he
classified criminals as: the
69.The Differential Association Theory      born criminal, the habitual, the
provides a good illustration of passionate and the criminoloid.
     a social learning approach perspective in     Which of the following statements
Criminology Criminal describe a criminoloid?
     behavior according to this theory is:          A.    the morally insane and hysteric
         A.    A result of an emotional criminal
disturbance          B.    the impulsive and cruel criminal
         B.    An inmate quality of goodness or          C.    the “weak natures” susceptible to
badness bad examples
         C.    Learned and not inherited          D.    the primitive and atavist            
         D.   An excess of wisdom                    Answer: C
Answer: C
73.Some criminology theorists have linked
70.What perspective in Criminology probes physical characteristics
the situational or      with personality. Among these theories
     environmental action and examines the is William Sheldon’s
underlying conditions with      Somatotyping theory. He classified body
     in the environment that may encourage physique into three
criminal behavior?      categories as the endomorphic, the
         A.    Psychiatric Criminology mesomorphic and the
         B.    Psychological Criminology      ectomorphic body. Of the following
         C.    Sociological Criminology statements, which
         D.    Criminal Anthropology                      appropriately describes the
Answer: C mesomorphic?
         A.    the twin and fragile with
71.In the past, psychologist assumed that withdrawn behavior
         B.    the muscular and hard physique
         C.    the attractive and beautifully
shaped
         D.    the fat and soft body type        Answer: A
Answer: B
74.According to Hans Eyesenck, in his
study about the behavioral
     character and incidence to crime, the
typical extravert is one
     who is:           A.    Inadequate type of family
         A.    sociable, impulsive, optimistic
and has high needs for            B.    Anti-social type of family
                excitement
         B.    reserved, quiet and cautious
         C.    undersized, short and untidy
         D.    over sized, heavy and firm                  D.    Disrupted or incomplete family
Answer: A
75.To explain human behavior, social
learning theorists place great
     emphasis on cognitive variables. Social
learning reflects the
     theory’s strong assumption that we learn
primarily by observing
     and listening to people around us-
         A.    the social environment
         B.    the stimulus that elicit response
         C.    the mental state and brain-
mediation processes.
         D.    the reinforcements for
behavior     Answer: A
76.In the study of juvenile delinquency,
which of the following
     projects paved the way for a
reassessment of existing
     treatment and prevention programs for
delinquents?
         A.    Chicago Area Project of 1930
         B.    Illinois Legislature
         C.    Boston Child Guidance Clinic
         D.    President’s Commission on Law
Enforcement in the
                U.S.    
                                                                   
77.One family background predictors in
juvenile delinquency is
     broken home. The term broken home is
ambiguous but can be
     characterized by:
structure
structure
         C.    Discordant or disturbed family
structure
structure   Answer: D
78.Parental discipline appears relation to
delinquency. Harsh
     discipline in the home may result in
more delinquencies than
     consistent and reasoning forms of
discipline. Aside from this,
     screaming at the child, calling the child
insulting names,
     excessive criticizing or generally
ignoring the child is also
     contributory to delinquency. These
actions simply refers to:
         A.    Physical Abuse
         B.    Emotional abuse
         C.    Unfair parent
         D.    Parental neglect                        
Answer: B
79.When a person is seen to show
indiscriminate giggling or crying,
     emotional flatness, the voice is
monotonous, the face immobile
     and expressionless and manifest highly
bizarre and add behavior
     then appropriately he is:      that it would be inhuman to convict him
         A.    suffering from neurotic behavior since it was clear he
         B.    suffering from psychopathic      was not in control of his faculties.This
behavior case became known as:   
         C.    suffering from schizophrenia or          A.    the M’naghten Rule
psychotic behavior          B.    the Durham Rule
         D.    suffering from sexual          C.    the Brawner Rule
dysfunctions    Answer: C          D.    the Irrational Mind Rule             
Answer: A
80.It is a popular notion that the brutal,     
violent and apparently 83.One day we maybe cool and withdrawn
     senseless crime is usually committed by and the next day, warm
someone who is mentally      and sociable. This condition may fall
     ill or sick. Or if not sick, then the person into the disorder known as:
is an animal. The kind of          A.    Bipolar disorder
     alternate explanation is an influence of          B.    Schizophrenia
the:          C.    Psychopathic behavior
         A.    Positivist theory of Criminology          D.    Amnesia                                     
         B.    Classical theory of Criminology Answer: A
         C.    Neoclassical theory of
Criminology 84.A bank robber who kills some individual
         D.    Differential Association theory with in the bank, flees
of Criminology   Answer: A      with hostages, and kills a number of
people while in flight diving a
81.Which of the following is not a      chase would be an example of:
symptom of dyssocial behavior?          A.    Serial Murder
         A.    Failure to conform to social          B.    Spree Murder
norms.          C.    Mass Murder
         B.    Consistent irresponsibility, as          D.    Multiple Murder                         
reflected in a poor work  Answer: A
                 history
         C.    Lack of guilt for wrongdoings. 85.Pedro engaged in a multiple means of
         D.    Episode of schizophrenia like torture, using psychological
illogical thinking  Answer: D      torment combined with physical
methods to lighten his sexual
82.A Scottish woodcutter was accused of      arousal is suffering from:
killing a man he believed          A.    Sexual Pyromania
     to be Prime Minister for thought that he          B.    Sexual Sadism
was persecuted by the          C.    Sexual Torture
     Tories and their leader, Robert Peel,          D.    Masochism                                 
however turned out to be Answer: B
     another person. The court believed he
was so mentally deranged 86.There are many pathways to
delinquency and a variety of family          A.    harass the people 
     circumstances contribute to negative          B.    perform his job well
behavior in children.  Which          C.    dress well   
     of the following developmental          D.    always present in the office      
pathways to delinquency begins Answer: B
     with stubborn behavior, then defiant
behavior, and developing 90.Which of the following is the basic
     later into avoidance of authority figures political unit of the Filipino
like truancy, running      nation that implements the policies of
     away, staying out late, etc.? the national and local
         A.    Authority conflict pathways      government?
         B.    Covert pathway          A.    family
         C.    Overt pathway          B.    society    
         D.    None of these                                     C.    community  
Answer: A          D.    barangay                                   
Answer: A
87.Which of the following refers to
juveniles who have doli incapax? 91.In crisis management, the teams under
         A.    Children aging from 7 to 12 the support unit are under
years      the control of the ground commander. 
         B.    Children above 9 that below 15 Which is responsible for
years old      the collection and processing of all
         C.    Children at puberty age information needed by the on
         D.    Children in conflict with the law       – scene commander?
Answer: B          A.    Security element
         B.    Support unit     
88.Recent research and legal literature          C.    Negotiation unit   
suggest that a useful away          D.    Intelligence team                       
     of classifying juvenile crime is to Answer: D
distinguish between serious and
     non-serious acts and between serious 92.What is known to be the oldest but
and non-serious offenders. commonly used terrorist
     Among the following, which is not     tactic where target are often police,
considered a serious juvenile military officials or political
     act?     features?
         A.    Forcible sexual intercourse          A.    Hijacking
         B.    Larceny          B.    Assassination
         C.    Homicide          C.    Ambush
         D.    Vagrancy                                              D.    Kidnap for Ransom                    
Answer: D Answer: B

89.The best PCR a police officer can do to 93.The one who makes complete estimate
the community is of the crisis situation and
     plans his courses of actions upon arrival taker is due to
at the incident area          A.    selfishness
     while negotiation is in progress is the           B.    personal grudge
          A.    Chief Negotiator          C.    personal affection
          B.    Tactical Commander          D.    personal interest                       
          C.    Fire fighting team Answer: C
          D.    Support Unit Commander         
Answer: B 98.The stage of advance planning,
organization and coordination
94.A comprehensive plan which delineates      and control in response to an anticipated
responsibilities and future crisis occurrence
     specific action to be taken when a bomb      is called
incident or bomb threat          A.    Proactive Crisis Management
     occurs is called          B.    Reactive Crisis Management   
         A.    Floor plan          C.    Performance Stage
         B.    Bomb threat plan          D.    Reaction Phase                          
         C.    Drill Answer: A
         D.    Contingency plan                      
Answer: B 99.What stage is the performance of the
crisis management plan
95.What do you call the phenomenon      when a crisis situation occurs?
where a hostage begins to          A.    Pro-active Phase
     identify his captor and give his          B.    Reactive Phase   
sympathy to his own hostage          C.    Prediction
     taker?          D.    None of these                            
         A.    Holmshock syndrome Answer: B
         B.    Traumatic syndrome
         C.    Withdrawal syndrome 100.What model of insurgency does the
         D.    none of these                            New People’s Army in the
Answer: D         Philippines is employing?
         A.    Communist Model
96.Among the following, which is most          B.    Socialist Model
contagious on human          C.    Democratic  Model
     emotion?          D.    None of these                              
         A.    Fear Answer: A
         B.    Panic Correctional Administration Review Questions
         C.    Worry
         D.    Dementia Praecox                     
Answer: A 1. It is the authority of the President of the
Philippines to
97.In Stockholm syndrome, some of the     suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the
causes why a hostage sentence and
     becomes cooperative with the hostage     extinguish criminal liability.
       A. Parole     budgeting, accounting, and other activities
       B.Executive clemency related to financial
       C. Pardon        services.  It consolidates and prepares
       D.President’s clemency                                   financial reports and
Answer: B     related statements of subsistence outlays and
disbursements in
2. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of     the operational of the jail.
the:        A.    Budget and finance branch   
       A.    Executive Department             B.    General services branch
       B.    P.N.P.        C.    Property and supply branch
       C.    D.I.L.G.        D.    Mess services branch                             
       D.    D.O.J                                                      Answer: A
Answer: C
7. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a
3. There are three (3) casework techniques prisoner maybe
applied by the parole
     officer, which is not included?      checked at any time.  His bedding's, lockers
       A.    The trick and treat techniques and personal
       B.The executive techniques      belongings may also be opened at anytime, in
       C.The guidance, counseling and leadership his presence,
techniques      whenever possible.  This practice is known
       D.The manipulative techniques                 as:
Answer: A        A.    Check and balance   
       B.    S.O.P.
4. The basis of this old school of penology is the        C.    Inventory
human free-will.        D.    Operation Greyhound                             
       A.    Penology School        Answer: D
       B.    Classical School
       C.    Neo-classical 8. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the
       D.    Positivist                                                 following instances.
Answer: B        A.    Murder
       B.    Brigandage
5. This helps the prisoner/detainee in the        C.    Rape
resolution of his problems        D.    Impeachment                                         
       A.    Meeting            Answer: D
       B.    Working
       C.    Recreation    9. It refers to commission of another crime
       D.    Counseling                                      during service of
Answer: D
     sentence of penalty imposed for another
6. Takes charge of financial matters especially in previous offense.
programming,        A.    Recidivism   
       B.    Delinquency
       C.    Quasi-recidivism prisoner to pursue
       D.    City prisoner                                                his normal job during the week and return to
Answer: C the jail to serve
     his sentence during the weekend or non-
10. A person who is detained for the violation of working hours.
law or ordinance        A.    Amnesty
     and has not been convicted is a -        B.    good conduct time allowance
       A.    Detention Prisoner        C.    probation
       B.    Provincial Prisoner        D.    delayed sentence                                    
       C.    Municipal Prisoner            Answer: D
       D.    City
Prisoner                                                 Answer: 15. The following are the justifications of
A punishment, EXCEPT
       A.    Retribution           
11. The following are forms of executive        B.    Deterrence
clemency, EXCEPT        C.    Redress
       A.    Commutation               D.    Expiration or atonement                
       B.    Reform model Answer: C
       C.    Amnesty
       D.    Pardon                                                    16. Pardon is exercised when the person is __.
Answer: B        A.    already convicted
       B.    not yet convicted
12. It is that branch of the administration of        C.    about to be convicted
Criminal Justice        D.    serve the sentence                                   
     System charged with the responsibility for the Answer: A
custody,
     supervision, and rehabilitation of the 17. The idea that punishment will be give the
convicted offender. offender lesson by
       A.    conviction         showing to others what would happen to them
       B.    corrections if they have   
       C.    penalty         committed   the heinous crime.
       D.    punishment                                              A. Protection
Answer: B        B. Deterrence
       C. Lethal injection   
13. Which of the following instances Pardon        D.Stoning                                                       
cannot be exercised? Answer: B
       A.    before conviction
       B.    before trial 18. For a convicted offender, probation is a form
       C.    after conviction of __.
       D.    during service of sentence                              A.  Punishment
Answer: B        B.  Treatment
       C.  Enjoyment
14. This is a procedure which permits a jail        D.  Incarceration                                             
Answer: B        B.    Social defense
       C.    Exemplary
19. For amnesty to be granted, there should be        D.    Equality                                                 
__. Answer: C
       A.    Recommendation from U.N.
       B.    Recommendation from C.H.R. 24. The purpose of the decree on probation shall
       C.    Application from C.H.R be to
       D.    Concurrence of the congress                          A.    provide an opportunity for the
Answer: D reformation of a
              penitent offender
20. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the        B.    prevent the commission of offenses
       A.    Director        C.    promote the correction and
       B.    Secretary of the DND rehabilitation of an offender
       C.    Chief of Executive               by providing him with individualized
       D.    Prison Inspector                                       treatment
Answer: A        D.    All of these                                       
Answer: D
21. Which program plays a unique role in the
moral and spiritual 25. In the Philippines, the most common
      regeneration of the prisoner? problem of the
       A.    None of these       National Prison is
       B.Work programs        A.    Excessive number of escapes
       C.Education programs        B.    Overcrowding
       D.Religious programs                                            C.    Disagreement about their mess
Answer: D        D.    Lack of adequate funding                 
Answer: D
22. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person
shall not be permitted 26. A justification of penalty which states that
    to enter the place designated in the sentence or nobody can assume
within the radius       the suffering for a crime committed by
    therein specified, which shall not be more than others.
250 and not less        A.    Justice
    than 25 kilometers from the place designated.        B.    Personal
       A.    Fine        C.    Legal   
       B.    None of these        D.    Certain                                             
       C.    P22.00/day Answer: B
       D.    P19.00/day                                           
Answer: B 27. These are the factors considered in
diversification, EXCEPT;
23. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as        A.    Age of offenders       
an example to        B.    Mother of offender
      others is the theory of        C.    Sex of offenders   
       A.    Self-defense        D.    Medical condition                              
Answer: B        dangerous as the super security prisoners. 
They are not 
28. This branch takes charge of the preparation        allowed to work outside the institution.
of the daily menu,        A.    maximum security prisoners
      makes foodstuff purchases, prepares and        B.    super security prisoners
cooks the food and             C.    minimum security prisoners
      serves it to the inmates.It maintains a record        D.    medium security prisoners                     
of daily purchases Answer: A
      and consumption and submits a daily report
to the warden. 33. Among the following, which has the
       A.    General Services Branch authority to grant parole?
       B.    Mittimus Computing Branch        A.    President
       C.    Budget and Finance        B.    Board of Pardons and Parole
       D.    Mess services Branch                                     C.    Director of Prison
Answer: D        D.    Court                                                      
Answer: B
29. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B)
of the Philippines 34. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________
      Constitution, pardoning power is vested with from civil
the       liability imposed upon him by the sentence.
       A.    Department of Justice        A.    partially exempted
       B.    Judiciary        B.    exempted
       C.    Chief Executive           C.    conditionally exempted
       D.    Legislative                                                     D.    not exempted                                         
Answer: C Answer: D

30. The temporary stay of execution of sentence 35. It is an act of clemency which changes a
is called heavier sentence to
       A.    Reprieve       a less serious one or a longer term to a
       B.    Pardon shorter term.
       C.   Communication        A.    Amnesty   
       D.    Amnesty                                                    B.    Commutation
Answer: A          C.    Reprieve
       D.    none of these                                         
31. Parole is a matter of ___. Answer: B
       A.    Privilege
       B.    Right 36. ___ is an act of grace and the recipient is not
       C.    Grace entitled to
       D.    Requirement                                          it as a matter of right.
Answer: A        A.    Pardon
       B.    Parole
32. This group consists of chronic troublemakers        C.    Probation
but not as           D.    none of these                                         
Answer: B Supervision of the BJMP?
       A.    Provincial and sub-Provincial Jails
37. In probation system’s philosophy and        B.    City and Municipal Jails
concept, it is stated        C.    Lock up Jails
      that the individual has the ability to ____ and        D.    Insular Jails                                      
to modify Answer: B
      his anti-social behavior with the right kind of
help. 42. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910
       A.    challenge under the
       B.    none of these      American Regime.  At present, who
       C.    change supervises and controls the
       D.    aggravate his behavior                                  said jails?
Answer: C        A.    BJMP
       B.    Provincial Government
38. The Bureau of Corrections is under the        C.    DOJ
_____.        D.    Municipal or City Mayor                     
       A.    Department of Social Welfare and Answer: B
Development
       B.    Department of Justice 43. What is the primary purpose of
       C.    Department of the Interior and Local imprisonment?
Government        A.    Rehabilitation and Reformation
       D.    Department of Health                                    B.    To stand trial
Answer: B        C.    Punishment
       D.   
39. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison Socialization                                                
term of over three Answer: A
   (3) years is a _________________.
       A.    Municipal prisoner 44. Which is a place of confinement for persons
       B.    Detention prisoner awaiting trial or
       C.    National or Insular prisoner       court action and where the convicted
       D.    City prisoner                                            offenders serve short
Answer: D       sentences or penalty of imprisonment?
       A.    Jail
40. The Head of Bureau of Corrections is also        B.    Lock-up
the        C.    Penitentiary
       A.    Chief of the Bureau of Corrections        D.    Detention
       B.    Director of the Bureau of Corrections Cells                                             Answer: A
       C.    Superintendent of the Bureau of
Corrections 45. Which is a warrant issued by the court
       D.    Warden                                                   bearing its seal and
Answer: B     signature of the judge directing the jail or
prison authorities to
41. What is the type of Jails under the     receive the convicted offender for service of
sentence or       state which exempts an individual from the
    detention? punishment which the
       A.    Mittimus     law imposes or prescribes for his crime,
       B.    Detention Mittimus extended by the President
       C.    Sentence Mittimus     thru the recommendation of the Board of
       D.    Detention Warrant                                   Parole and Pardon is 
Answer: C     called
       A.    Amnesty
46. The maintenance or care and protection        B.    Parole
accorded to people who        C.    Pardon
    by authority of law are temporarily        D.    Probation                                           
incarcerated for violation Answer: C
    of laws and also those who were sentenced by
the court to serve 50. Under the prison service manual, the
    judgment is called – prescribed color of prison
       A. custody       uniform for maximum security prison is -
       B.    safe-keeping        A.    Orange   
       C.    classification        B.    Brown
       D.    caring                                               C.    Stripe Orange
Answer: A        D.    Blue                                                   
Answer: A
47. Which of these refers to the assigning or
grouping of offenders 51. When an inmate is given a “shakedown”
    according to their sentence, gender, age, before admission, it  
nationality, health,       means:
    criminal record, etc.?        A.    He has taken the process of
       A.    None of these identification, record,
       B.    Custody                fingerprint and photograph
       C.    Security        B.    He has been examined for contraband
       D.    Safe-keeping                                                   C.    His commitment paper are delivered to
Answer: A record clerk
         D.    All of these                                        
48. The institution for dangerous but not Answer: B
incorrigible prisoners
    in the Philippines is the 52. An inmate maybe granted parole if he
       A.    NBP           A.    earned good conduct time allowance
       B.    Medium Security Institution credit
       C.    Maximum Security Institution        B.    serve minimum sentence
       D.    Minimum Security Institution                       C.    earned good behavior while serving
Answer: B prison term
       D.    all of these                                        
49. The act of grace from a sovereign power Answer: D
inherent in the
53. Aside from protecting the public,        D.    None of the above                           
imprisonment has for its Answer: B
      latest objective, the
       A.    reformation of offenders 58. The putting of offenders in prison for the
       B.    deterrence purpose of protecting
       C.    segregation of offender       the public and at the same time rehabilitating
       D.    confinement of Offender                         them by requiring
Answer: A       the latter to undergo institutional treatment
program is
54. In the New Bilibid Prison, all medium       referred to as:
security prisoners are       A.    Imprisonment
      confined at the       B.    Trial
       A.    NBP Main Prison       C.    Conviction
       B.    Camp Bukang Liwayway       D.    Detention                                           
       C.    Camp Sampaguita Answer: A
       D.    Medium Security Prison                         
Answer: C 59. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a
National Penitentiary in
55. Under the prison rules, who is charged for        the Philippines under the BUCOR is located
the hearing of in ____.
      disciplinary cases in prison?       A.    Palawan
       A.    Classification Board          B.    Zamboanga
       B.    Parole Board       C.    Davao
       C.    Administrative Board       D.    Occidental Mindoro                           
       D.    Disciplinary Board                                 Answer: D
Answer: D
60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, this is credited
56. The form of conditional release that is as the oldest
granted after a       code prescribing savage punishment but in
      prisoner has served a portion of his sentence fact ___ is nearly.
in a correctional       100 years older
       A.    Conditional pardon        A.    Hammurabic Code
       B.    Probation        B.    Sumerian Code
       C.    Parole        C.    Justinian Code
       D.    Commutation                                                  D.    Code of Draco                                   
Answer: C Answer: B

57. In jails or prisons, which of the following is a 61. The penalty imposed for offenders must be
function of certain.  This means
      the Custodial Division?       that:
       A.    Supervision of prisoners               A.    The guilty one must be the one to be
       B.    Escort of inmates or prisoners punished, no proxy.
       C.    Keeping of records        B.    No one must escape its effect
       C.    It must be equal for all persons        C.    PD 968   
       D.    The consequence must be in        D.    PD 869                                                   
accordance Answer: C
               with law.                                                
Answer: B 66. The continuing relationship between
probation officer and 
62. The following are the duties of the custodial       probationer is known as –
force in prison,         A.    Affiliation Guidance
      except:        B.    Pre-sentenced Investigation
       A.    Censor offender’s items        C.    Supervision
       B.    Escort inmates        D.    Probation Guidance                                
       C.    Inspect security devices Answer: C
       D.    Conduct disciplinary hearing                 
Answer: D 67. Those who have been once on probation
under the Probation 
63. As a rule, when a jailbreak, escape or riot is       Law:
in progress or has        A.    are qualified to apply for probation
    just been perpetuated in the jail, the officer at        B.    are disqualified to apply for probation
the control        C.    may be granted for another probation
    centers shall immediately:        D.    should be confined in prison                 
       A.    sound the alarm Answer: B
       B.    locked prisoners in their respective cells
       C.    Notify the nearest police precinct 68. This pillar/component of our criminal justice
       D.    call the warden or the director                system has been
Answer: A      regarded the weakest pillar due to its failure
to eliminate
64. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the      recidivism and habitual offenders.
custodial force        A.    law enforcement
     shall immediately issued firearms and        B.    prosecution       
assigned to critical posts to:        C.    court
       A.    plug off the escape routes        D.    correction                                               
       B.    to shoot the escapees Answer: D
       C.    protect the other inmates
       D.    to give warning shots                        69. The traditional goal of penology is
Answer: A        A.   Retribution
       B.   Deterrence
65. Which of these is known as the Adult        C.   Incapacitation
Probation Law, which        D.  
    grants probation to prisoner sentenced to term Rehabilitation                                                
in prison of not Answer: B
    more than six (6) years?
       A.    PD 603 70. The attempt to prevent future crimes through
       B.    RA 698 fear of  
      punishment. implement a better
       A.   Retribution     system of jail management nationwide
       B.   Deterrence        A.   Bureau of Jail Management and
       C.   Incapacitation    Penology
       D.   Rehabilitation                                             B.   Department of Justice
Answer: B        C.   Bureau of    Corrections
       D.   Parole and Probation
71. The task of changing an offender’s attitude Administration                   Answer: A
so that he or she
     may not commit another crime in the future. 75. It exercise supervision and control over
       A.   Retribution provincial jails.
       B.   Deterrence        A.   BJMP   
       C.   Incapacitation        B.   Bureau of  Corrections        
       D.   Rehabilitation                                                  C.   Provincial Government
Answer: D        D. Parole and Probation
Administration                     Answer: C
72. The idea that re-entry of an offender should
be in the 76. An agency under the Department of Justice
      mainstream of society rather than the usual that is charged with
abrupt re-entry     custody and rehabilitation of national
      at the end of a prison sentence. offenders, that is, those
       A.   Reintegration     sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of
       B.   Deterrence more than three
       C.   Incapacitation     (3) years
       D.   Rehabilitation                                                 A.   BJMP   
Answer: A        B.   Bureau of  Corrections
       C.   Provincial Government 
73. They were known as Bridewells, which        D.   Parole and Probation
started in 1553 and  Administration                    Answer: B
      served as training schools for delinquent
youths, provided 77. The New Bilibid Prison, the Correctional
      housing and support for older and poorer Institution for Women
persons,      (CIW), Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm, and
      and detained vagrants. Sablayan Prison and 
        A.   House of Corrections        Penal Farm are all under this agency.    
        B.   Workhouses        A.   BJMP   
        C.   Common jails        B.   Bureau of  Corrections
        D.   Penal colonies                                                C.   Provincial Government 
Answer: B        D.   Department of Justice                        
Answer: B
74. It direct, supervise and control the
administration and operation 78. An attached agency of the Department of
    of all district,  city  and municipal jails to Justice which provides
    a less costly alternative to imprisonment of        C.   Work Release
offenders who are         D.   Halfway Houses                                     
    likely to respond to individualized community Answer: B
based treatment 
    programs. 83. An alternative to incarceration granted after a
       A.   BJMP    convicted person
       B.   Bureau of  Corrections     served a part of his sentence and is allowed to
       C.   Provincial Government  complete a
       D.   Parole and Probation     sentence at large, subject to restrictions and
Administration                    Answer: D supervision.
       A.   Probation
79. Prisoners whose sentences are more than        B.   Work release
three years to capital        C.   Parole
     punishment are considered        D.   Halfway houses                                 
       A.   municipal prisoners Answer: C
       B.   provincial prisoners
       C.   city prisoners 84.  An alternative to incarceration that allow
       D.   insular prisoners                              convicted persons
Answer: D       to remain at large and under varying degrees
of restriction
80. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day       and supervision and certain conditions
to six months are imposed by the
       A.   municipal prisoners       granting court.                             
       B.   provincial prisoners        A.   Probation
       C.   city prisoners        B.   Work release
       D.   insular prisoners                                              C.   Parole
Answer: A        D.   Halfway houses                                       
Answer: A
81. A prison model which sought penitence
(hence the term   85. A correctional institution that has the
      penitentiaries) through total individual authority to detain
isolation and silence.     persons awaiting trial or adjudication or
       A.   Pennsylvania Prison Model confine convicted
       B.   Auburn Prison Model     offenders   for a short period of time.    
       C.   Work Release        A.   Halfway houses
       D.   Halfway Houses                                         B.   Penal colonies
Answer: A        C.   Jails
       D.   All of these                                             
82. A prison model where incarcerated persons Answer: C
are allowed to work
    outside the institution that houses them. 86. A correctional institution that has the
       A.   Pennsylvania Prison Model authority to detain
       B.   Auburn Prison Model     convicted offenders for longer or extended
period of time, 90. Which of the following is an executive
    including those who are waiting their death clemency that requires
sentence.        the concurrence of congress?
       A.   Halfway house        A.   Probation   
       B.   Farm house        B.   Pardon
       C.   Jail         C.   Amnesty
       D.   Prison                                                              D.   Parole                                                 
Answer: D Answer: C

87. The law creating the Bureau of Jail 91. The Parole and Probation Administration
Management and Penology. administers the _____
       A.   RA 8551     Correctional Program.
       B.   RA 9165        A.   Institutional
       C.   RA 6975        B.   Integrated
       D.   RA 4890                                                         C.   Community – based
Answer: C        D.   Traditional                                          
Answer: C
88. Who among the following is a provincial
prisoner? 92. A minimum and maximum amount of time to
       A.   A prisoner serving a term below six (6) be served in prison is
years     referred to as
       B.   A prisoner serving a term of six (6)        A.   a corporal punishment
years and up        B.   a determinate sentence
       C.   A prisoner serving a term of six (6)        C.   an indeterminate sentence
months and one        D. a capital punishment                                 
             (1) day to three (3) years Answer: C
       D.   A prisoner serving a term of three
(3)years and one 93. Pedro was required to provide financial
             (1) day up                                            remuneration for the
Answer: C      losses incurred by the victim. What is the type
of penalty  
89. This theory in criminology states that people      described?
are totally        A.   Bond
    responsible for their behaviors and the stress is        B.   Retribution
more on the        C.   Restitution
    effect of their felonious act than upon the        D.   Remuneration                             
criminal. Answer: C
       A.   Positivist Theory       
       B.   Psychological Theory 94. What kind of program employs prisoners in
       C.   Biological Theory various product or
       D.   Classical Theory                                          good producing tasks?
Answer: D        A.   Agricultural       
       B.   Operational
       C.   Industrial
       D.   Administrative                                          99. The ________ theory in crime causation
Answer: C focuses on the criminal
    disorders, chromosomes irregularity and
95. What crimes apparently have no complaining abnormal brain activity.
victims such as        A.   None of these
    gambling, prostitution and drunkenness?        B.   Age Reform       
       A.   Complex Crime        C.   Age of Discernment
       B.   Compound Crime        D.   Age of Reason                                         
       C.   Blue Collar crimes Answer: A
       D.   Victimless crimes                                   
Answer: D 100. What correctional institution houses
accused persons awaiting 
96. Which agency performs the evaluation of         trial?
prisoner’s fitness and        A.   Rehabilitation center   
    qualifications for the grant of pardon or        B.   Jail
parole?        C.   Halfway house
       A.   Punishment, confinement retribution,        D.   Prison                                                     
treatment Answer: B
       B.   Retribution, Deterrence, incapacitation,
rehabilitation 101. Articles 1706 - 1727 of the revised
       C.   Deterrence, retribution, punishment Administrative Code as
treatment         amended is known as
       D.   None of the above                                   A.    Correction Law
Answer: D        B.    Jail Management Law
       C.    Prison Law
97. Which of the following should a probationer        D.    Parole and Probation Law                   
avoid? Answer: C
       A.   Make periodic report
       B.   Go and play in the gambling den 102. The mechanical device or contrivance, tools
       C.   Work regularly to support family or implement used
       D.   Stay away from bad associates.                       to hold back, keep in check or under control
Answer: B is the
       A.    Instrument of Restraint
98. The Supreme Court automatically reviews        B.    Iron leg Lock
the cases of criminals        C.    Handcuffs
    convicted and meted out the penalty of        D.    Metallic chains                                     
       A.   12 years 6 months and one day    Answer: A
       B.   Death
       C.   Life imprisonment 103. Who is tasked with the gathering and
       D.   6 years one month and one day               collecting of information
Answer: B        and other data of every prisoner into a case
study to determine
       the work assignment, the type supervision        B.    social degradation
and degree of        C.    banishment
       custody and restriction under which an        D.    public trial                                            
offender must live in jail? Answer: B
       A.    Classification Board
       B .   Board of Custody 108. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a
       C.    Diagnostic Board criminal may be sent
       D.    Treatment Board                                         away from a place carried out by prohibition
Answer: A to coming against a
       specified territory. This is an ancient form of
104. The imprisonment a convicted offender punishment called:
may serve, at the rate        A.    Exile
       of PhP8.00 a day subject to certain rules, for        B.    Transportation
failure to pay a        C.    Banishment
       fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment        D.    Public trial                                            
is referred to as  Answer: C
       A.    Subsidiary imprisonment
       B.    Secondary imprisonment 109. One of the following represents the earliest
       C.    Preventive imprisonment codification of the
       D.    None of the above                                       Roman law, which was incorporated into
Answer: A the Justinian Code.
       A.    Twelve Tables
105. The meaning of the word oblivion is        B.    Burgundian Code
       A.    forgetting completely        C.    Code of Draco
       B.    class of persons        D.    Hammurabic code                                
       C.    abolish Answer: A
       D.    community based treatment               
Answer: A 110. In the history of correction, thinkers during
the reformatory
106. The process of determining the needs  and         movement were the major influences of
requirements of today’s correctional
        prisoners for assigning them to programs          system. Alexander Macanochie was the one
according to their who introduced the __
        existing resources is called:         of correction
       A.    classification        A.    Solitary system
       B.    quarantine        B.    Irish System
       C.    diversification        C.    Marked System
       D.    quality control                                             D.    Congregate system                            
Answer: C Answer: C

107. Public humiliation or public exhibition also 111. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to
mean: Bureau of Correction
       A.    public execution         during the Aquino administration in the
Philippines?       and abolition of fee system by which jailers
       A.    E.O 727 obtained money from
       B.    E.O 292       prisoners.
       C.    E.O 645        A.    John Howard
       D.    E.O 104                                                      B.    Robert Peel
Answer: B        C.    William Penn
       D.    Manuel Montesimos                             
112. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a Answer: A
wrong act to any one (in
       the primitive society). The concept follows 115. Mr. Cruz was convicted of the crime of
that the victim’s murder. After 10 days
       family or tribe against the family or tribe of        from the promulgation of the sentence, he
the offender, hence escaped from his
       “blood feuds” was accepted in the early        place of confinement. He maybe
primitive societies.        A.    liable for evasion of service of sentence
       Retaliation means:        B.    considered as an escaped prisoner
       A.    Personal Vengeance        C.    not liable for evasion of service of
       B.    Tooth for a tooth sentence   
       C.    Eye for an Eye        D.    All of these                                          
       D.    All of these                                          Answer: A
Answer: A
116. Ms. Bantog was convicted for the crime of
113. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its infanticide. After
Muntinlupa property        serving her sentence she committed again
       with the Bureau of Prisons originally the same crime.Ms.
intended as a site for boys’        Ines Bantog maybe considered as a
       training school. Today, the old Bilibid        A.    recidivist    
Prison is now being used as        B.    quasi-recidivist
       the Manila City Jail, famous as the :        C.    habitual delinguent       
       A.    “ May Halique Estate”        D.    mentally retarded person                   
       B.    “Tandang Sora State” Answer: A
       C.    New Bilibid Jail
       D.    Muntinlupa Jail                                     117. Ramon, a basketball player, arrested Berto
Answer: A for some legal ground
        but he failed to file a complaint against the
114. The sheriff of Bedsfordshire in 1773 who latter with in the
devoted his life and         prescribed period of filing. What crime did
      fortune to prison reform.After his findings on Ramon committed?
English Prisons, he        A.    arbitrary detention
      recommended the following: single cells for        B.    illegal Detention
sleeping, segregation        C.    illegal arrest
      of women, segregation of youth, provision of        D.    no crime committed                             
sanitation facilities, Answer: B
118. The Camp Sampaguita of the national 122. One of the following is an admission
Bilibid Prison houses procedure which involves
       A.    Super Maximum Security Prisoners             the frisking of the prisoner.
       B.    Maximum Security Prisoners        A.    Identification
       C.    Medium Security Prisoners        B.    Searching
       D.    Minimum Security Prisoners                         C.    Briefing/Orientation
Answer: C        D.    minimum security prisoners                 
Answer: B
119. The only early Roman place of confinement
which was built 123. If the warden is taken as the hostage, for all
       under the main sewer of Rome in 64 B.C.    intents and
       A.    Bridewell Workhouse         purposes, he ceases to exercise authority
       B.    Wulnut Street Jail and the next in
       C.    Burgundian House         command or the __________ officer
       D.    none of these                                       present shall assume the
Answer: D         command.
        A.    Veteran
120. The punishment should be provided by the         B.    Assistant
state whose sanction         C.    Most senior
       is violated, to afford the society or         D.    Custodian                                           
individual the opportunity of Answer: C
       imposing upon the offender suitable
punishment as might be 124. Upon receipt of the probation officer
       enforced. Offenders should be punished investigation report, the
because they deserve         court shall resolve the application for
       it.This is one justification of punishment probation not later than-
called:         A.    60 days
       A.    Atonement         B.    5 days
       B.    Incapacitation         C.    15 days
       C.    Deterrence         D.    45 days                                              
       D.    Retribution                                           Answer: B
Answer: D
125. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation?
121. The purpose of commutation of sentence is         A.    Jose Lacson
to:         B.    Juan Ponce Enrile
       A. do away with the miscarriage of justice           C.    Antonio Torres
        D.    None of these                                    
       B. break the rigidity of the law Answer: D
       C. restore the political and civil rights of the
accused     126. What is the country, whose early schemes
       D. all of the above                                       for humanizing the
Answer: D         criminal justice under it’s common law,
originated probation.        A.    Montesquieu
        A.    England          B.    Pope Clement XI
        B.    United States              C.    Samuel Romily
        C.    Greece        D.    John Howard                                       
        D.    France                                                Answer: B
Answer: A
131. The advocate of ultimate prison known as
127. Which of the following does not belong to “the Panopticon” was
the common law        A.    Jeremy Bentham
        practices to which the emergence of        B.    Samuel Romily
probation is attributed?        C.    Walter Crofton
       A.    Recognizance                        D.    John Howard                                       
       B.    Reprieve   Answer: A
       C.    Benefit of the Clergy       
       D.    Penance                                               132. The founder of the Classical School of
Answer: D Criminology and published
       a short treaties “ On Crimes and
128. Benefit of clergy, judicial reprieve, Punishments” which contains
sanctuary, and abjuration        his reformatory ideas was
        offered offenders a degree of protection        A.    Jeremy Bentham
from the enactment of        B.    Cesare Lombroso
       A.    harsh sentences        C.    Cesare Beccaria
       B.    soft sentences        D.    Enrico Ferri                                          
       C.    criminal liabilities Answer: C
       D.    code of Hammurabi                              
Answer: A 133. Diversification means
       A.    Proper integration of prisoners
129. In the United States, particularly in        B.    Proper classification of prisoners
Massachusetts, different        C.    Proper segregation of prisoners
       practices were being developed. "Security        D.    Welfare of prisoners                            
for good behavior," Answer: C
       also known as good aberrance, was much
like modern bail. 134. Filipino female  national prisoners  are
       A.    Penalizing confined at the
       B.    Good aberrance        A.    Mental hospital
       C.    Paying in cash        B.    CIW
       D.    Collateral                                                    C.    Manila City Jail
Answer: B        D.    Iwahig Penal Colony                            
Answer: B
130. Who among the following was the builder
hospice of San 135. An offender who surrenders  from escaping
       Michelle, a reformatory for delinquent boys  because  of calamity
        immediately  48 hours  after the
pronouncement of  the        C. 60 days
        passing  away  of calamity  shall be        D. 90 days                                                  
granted   Answer: C
       A.    1/5 reduction of sentence
       B.    ½ reduction of sentence 140. Parole in the Philippine is governed by the
       C.    2/5 reduction of sentence         A. determinate sentence law
       D.    2/6 reduction of sentence                           B. Indeterminate sentence law
Answer: B         C. Board of pardon and parole
        D. Parole and probation administration     
136. What is the name of the prison institution Answer: B
situated in
       Zamboanga, named after Capt. Blanco of the 141. A detention jail in Philadelphia but it was
Spanish Royal converted into state
       Army?         prison and became the first American
       A.    Old Bilibid Prison penitentiary.
       B.    Sablayan Prsions and Penal Farm        A. Auburn Prison
       C.    San Ramon Prison & Penal Farm        B. Walnut Street Jail
       D.    Iwahig Penal                                                C. Pennsylvania Prison
Answer: C        D. Bride Well                                               
Answer: B
137. A branch or division of law which defines
crimes, treat of their 142. The system of prison  were  the
        nature and provides for their punishment confinement of the prisoners  in
       A. Remedial law        single cells at night  and congregate work  in
       B. Criminal law stop during the
       C. Civil law        day.
       D.Political law                                                      A. Pennsylvania prison
Answer: B        B. Auburn prison
       C. Elmira reformatory
138. One who investigates  for the  court a        D. Alcatraz prison                                       
referral  for probation or Answer: B                         
        supervises a probationer or both 143. Under the rules, the chairman of the
       A. police officer classification  board and
       B. probationer officer        disciplinary  board for jails should be
       C. intelligence officer        A. Warden
       D. law enforcer                                                  B. Assistant warden
Answer: B        C.Custodial officer
       D. Security officer                                      
139. Post sentence investigation report must  be Answer: B
submitted by the
        probation officer to the court within 144. A special group of prisoners composed of
       A. 20 days incorrigible, intractable
       B. 30 days        and dangerous persons who are so difficult
to manage inside         measures imposable  to inmate offender
       prisons. except
       A.Medium Security prisoners        A.    Reprimand
       B. Maximum security prisoners        B.    Cancellation of visiting privilege
       C. Super maximum security prisoners        C.    Cancellation of food allowance
       D. Minimum Security Prisoners                           D.    Extra fatigue duty                               
Answer: B Answer: D

145. One of the following is considered as the 149. The principle of an “eye for an eye” “tooth
corner stone  in for a tooth” doctrine
       reformation n which  includes all the life        is common among ancient laws, specifically
experiences  which t
       shape a persons attitudes and behaviors.        A.    Code of Draco
       A.    Recreational program        B.    Hammurabic Code
       B.    Religious program        C.    Summerian Code
       C.    Educational program        D.    Code of Solomon                                 
       D.    Work program                                      Answer: B
Answer: C
150. “Lex Tallionis” means
146. It involves supervision of prisoners to        A.    Punishment
insure punctual and        B.    Law of retaliation
       orderly movement  from the dormitories,        C.    Retribution
place of work, hospital        D.    Suffering                                             
       and churches  in accordance with the daily Answer: B
schedules.
       A.    Control 151. These were abandoned or unusable
       B.    Custody transport ships use to
       C.    Discipline        confine criminals during the early period of
       D.    Inspection                                            treating criminal
Answer: A        offenders.
       A.    Hulks
147. It is a special unit in prison  where by newly        B.    Gaols
arrived prisoners         C.    Transportation
       will be admitted for diagnostic examination,        D.    Galleys                                                
observation Answer: A
       A.    Reception  and Diagnostic Center
       B.    Medium Security Compound 152. He wrote his book “State of the Prisons”
       C.    Maximum Security Compound and he was also
       D.    Minimum Security Compound                        considered as the great prison reformer.
Answer: A        A.    John Howard
       B.    John Augustus
148. Under the jail rules, the following are        C.    William Penn
authorized disciplinary         D.    Domets of France                               
Answer: A Government
       D.    BJMP                                                   
153. The first house of correction in London Answer: B
England was the
       A.    Bridewell Workhouse 158. What is nature in hearing the violation of a
       B.    Walnut Street Jail probation?
       C.    Mamertine Prison        A.    Formal
       D.    Panopticon                                                  B.    Summary
Answer: A        C.    Due process
       D.    None of the above                              
154. ___ - known as the “Rock” build in San Answer: B
Francisco Bay
       A.    Walnut prison 159. Which is considered the forerunner of
       B.    Alcatraz prison parole?
       C.    New York prison        A.    Mark system
       D.    Red Rock penitentiary                                B.    Solitary system
Answer: B        C.    Benefits of a clergy
       D.    Congregate system                            
155. Anything that is contrary to prison  or jail Answer: A
rules and regulations
       are considered 160. The following are considered as 
       A.    Firearms discretionary conditions of
       B.    Contrabands         probation except
       C.    Greyhounds        A.    Drinking intoxicated liquor to excess
       D.    Personal belongings                                     B.    Abstain from visiting house of ill repute
Answer: B        C.    Meet his family responsibilities
       D.    Cooperate with the program of
156. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the probation    Answer: C
state for the
       transgression of a law for the purpose of 161. The first convict in the Philippines,
controlling criminals. sentenced to death by
        A.    Prevention        means of Lethal injection was
        B.    Revenge        A.    Baby Ama
        C.    Penalty        B.    Asiong Salonga
        D.    All of the above                                          C.    Leo Echagaray
Answer: C        D.    Gregorio S. Mendoza                          
Answer: C
157. Parole and Probation  Administration is
under  the direction of 162. In the 13th C, a criminal could avoid
       the ________ by claiming
       A.    Department of Finance        refugee in a church for a period of 40 days at
       B.    Department of Justice the end of which          time he has compelled to
       C.    Department of Interior and Local leave the realm by a road or path
       assigned to him.        B. Anglo-American Law
       A.    Penalty        C. Roman Law
       B.    punishment        D. Hammurabic Code                                  
       C.    trial Answer: C
       D.    conviction                                            
Answer: D 166. Hanging is for death penalty, maiming is for
       A. Social degradation    
163. Long, low, narrow, single decked ships        B. Exile
propelled by sails, usually        C. Physical torture
        rowed by criminals, a type of ship used for        D. Slavery                                                  
transportation of Answer: C
        criminals in the 16th century. This referred
to as the: 167. Who is the Director of the English Prison
       A.    Gaols who opened the Borstal
       B.    Galleys         Institution for young offenders? The Borstal
       C.    Hulks Institution is
       D.    Stocks                                                           considered as the best reform institution for
Answer: B young offenders
        today.
164. The Classical School of penology maintains        A. Evelyn Brise    
the “doctrine of        B. Manuel Montesimos
        psychological hedonism” or __________.        C. Zebulon Brockway
That the individual        D. Walter Crofton                                      
        calculates pleasures and pains in advance of Answer: C
action and
        regulates   his conduct by the result of his 168. The __________ is considered forerunner
calculations. of modern penology
       A. denied individual responsibility             because it has all the elements in a modern
       B. free will system.
       C. pleasures and avoiding pain        A.    Bridewell Workhouse
       D. natural phenomenon                                      B.    Elmira Reformatory
Answer: C        C.    Wulnut Street Jail
       D.    Borstal Institution for Boys                  
165. History has shown that there are three main Answer: B
legal systems in the
       world, which have been extended to and 169. Capital punishment refers to:
adopted by all        A.    Life imprisonment
       countries aside from those that produced        B.    Death Penalty
them. Among the        C.    Reclusion Perpetua
       three, it was   the _____ that has the most        D.    All of these                                          
lasting and most Answer:  B
       pervading influence.
       A. Mohammedan Law     170. One of the following is not an
administrative function exercised        sound custody, security and control of
       by the executive branch of the government. inmates and their
       A.    Probation        movements and also responsible to enforce
       B.    Pardon prison or jail
       C.    Parole        discipline is the:
       D.    Amnesty                                                      A.    Security group for jails
Answer: A        B.    Escort Platoon
       C.    Control Center groups
171. Pardon granted by the Chief Executive        D.    Warden                                               
       A.    extinguishes criminal liability of Answer:  A
offender
       B.    does not extinguish civil liability of 175. A unit of the prison or a section of the RDC
offender where the prisoner is
       C.    must be given After the prosecution of        given thorough physical examination
the offense including blood test, x-rays,
       D.    all of the above                                           vaccinations and immunity is the:
Answer: D        A.    Quarantine cell
       B.    NBP
172. The enactment of Republic Act no. 6975        C.    Death row
created the BJMP. It        D.    Control Area                                        
        operates as a line bureau under the Answer: A
Department of Interior and
        Local Government (DILG). This statement 176. Imprisonment is not always advisable.
is: Placing a person to
       A.    partially true        custodial coercion is to place him in physical
       B.    partially false     jeopardy, thus
       C.    true        drastically narrowing his access to source of
       D.    false                                                      personal
Answer: C        satisfaction and reducing his self-esteem.
This principle is based
173. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief        on the ____ of community based treatment
with a rank of programs.
       Director General, and assisted by Deputy        A.    Restorative aspect
Chief with the Rank of        B.    Humanitarian aspect
       Chief Superintendent. This statement is:        C.    Managerial aspect
       A.    partially true        D.    Legal aspect                                        
       B.    partially false Answer: A
       C.    true
       D.    false                                                     177. The case where the Supreme Court laid
Answer: D down the doctrine that
       the absolute pardon removes all that is left
174. The group having the responsibility of of the consequences
providing a system of        of conviction, and that it is absolute in so far
it restores the 180. Prisoners who are nearly to leave the
       pardonee to full civil and political rights. institution, awaiting
       A.    Cristobal vs. Labrador        transfer,those in disciplinary status, and
       B.    Fernandez vs. Aquino those who are
       C.    People vs. Galit        chronically ill with mental disabilities are
       D.    None of these                                       considered:
Answer: A        A.    unassignable prisoners to undergo
prison programs
178. The power of the chief Executive to grant        B.    all of these
pardon is limited to        C.    special group of offenders
       the following, except:          D.    minimum security prisoners                   
       A.    Pardon can not be extended to cases of Answer: D
impeachment.
       B.    No pardon, parole or suspension of 181. Parole is not claimed as a right but the
sentence for the Board of Parole grants it
             violation   of any election law may be        as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. This
granted without statement is:
             favorable recommendation of the        A.    partially true
Commission        B.    partially false
             of Elections.                  C.    true
       C.    Pardon is exercised only after        D.    false                                                    
conviction Answer: B
       D.    Pardon is administered by the
court         Answer: D 182. Every violation of jail/prison discipline
shall be dealt with
179. In determining the fitness of a prisoner for        accordingly. In extreme cases, where the
release on conditional violation necessitate
        pardon, the following points shall be        Immediate action, the warden or the Officer
considered as guides, of the Day may
        except:        administer the necessary restraints and
       A.    The political, organizational or reports the action
religious affiliation of the        taken to
              prisoner should be disregarded.        A.    an SOP
       B.    Due regard should be given the attitude        B.    an emergency plan
of the people in        C.    a general rule
              the community from which he was        D.    not applicable to prisoners                    
sentenced.        Answer: C
       C.    The background of the prisoner before
he was committed 183. Which of the following is a maximum
              to prison – social, economic.        security prison in Ossining,
       D.    Financial capacity of the prisoner.                  New York, USA? It is located
Answer: D approximately 30 miles (48 km)
        north of New York City on the banks of the
Hudson River which Women is a prison in
        the Auburn Prison system was applied        Bedford Hills, Westchester County, New
       A.    Alcatraz prison York, USA. It is the
       B.    Sing Sing Prison        largest women's prison in New York State
       C.    Wulnut Street Jail and has hosted many
       D.    Silver Mine Farm                                         infamous prisoners. It is the only women's
Answer: B maximum security
       prison in New York State. This statement is:
184. A ___, also called a 'block' or 'isolation        A.    True
cell', used to separate        B.    False
        unruly, dangerous, or vulnerable prisoners        C.    Partially true
from the general        D.    Partially false                                      
        population, also sometimes used as Answer: A
punishment.
       A.    Segregation Unit 188. The Panopticon is a type of prison building
       B.    Reception Unit designed by English
       C.    Quarantine Unit         philosopher Jeremy Bentham in 1785. The
       D.    Cell 45                                                  concept of the design
Answer: A         was derived from the word meaning of
“pan” and “opticon”.
185. What is the place in some prisons, or a         “Opticon’ means:
section in prisons where        A. to allow an observer to observe
        criminals are placed awaiting execution?        B. with out the prisoner
       A.    Execution room        C. avoid watching
       B.    Death row        D. To walk in military manner                       
       C.    Garotine Answer: A
       D.    Galley room                                         
Answer: B 189. Elmira Correctional Facility, known
otherwise as ___, is a
186. The Auburn system is a penal method of the        maximum security prison located in New
19th century in York in the USA. The
       which persons worked during the day in        prison is located in Chemung County, New
groups and were kept in York in the City of
       solitary confinement at night, with enforced        Elmira.
silence at all times.        A.    “the school”
       The Auburn system is also known as        B.    “the hill”
       A.    Albany system        C.    “the rock”
       B.    Irish system        D.    “the dungeon”                                     
       C.    New York System Answer: B
       D.    None of these                                     
Answer: C 190. Who among the following was given the
title “father of Prison
187. Bedford Hills Correctional Facility for         Reform” in the United States?
       A.    Zebulon Brockway
       B.    Robert Peel 194. Lethal injection refers to the practice of
       C.    John Howard injecting a person with
       D.    Alexander Macanochie                                a fatal dose of drugs for the explicit purpose
Answer: A of causing the
       death of the subject. The main application
191. It is the idea that the moral worth of an for this procedure is
action is solely        capital punishment. Which of the following
       determined by its contribution to overall drug is injected to
utility, that is, its        stops the heart thus causing death by cardiac
       contribution to happiness or pleasure as arrest?   
summed among all        A.    Sodium thiopental
       persons. It is thus a form of        B.    Pancuronium
consequentialism, meaning that the        C.    Potassium chloride
       moral worth of an action is determined by its        D.    Bicarbonate                                         
outcome—the ends Answer:  C
       justify the means.
       A.    Hedonism 195. Execution by electrocution (referred to as
       B.    Positivism the Electric Chair) is
       C.    Determinism        an execution method originating in the
       D.    Penology                                              United States in which
Answer: A        the person being put to death is strapped to a
specially built
192. The concept of probation, from the Latin        wooden chair and electrocuted through
word “probatio” which electrodes placed on
        means ___, has historical roots in the        the body. In the Philippines, its first use was
practice of judicial in :
        reprieve.        A.    1924
       A.    walk with faith        B.    1976
       B.    live with integrity        C.    1972
       C.    testing period        D.    1918                                                    
       D.    out of prison                                         Answer: A
Answer: C
196. Who was the British prison administrator
193. In the history of capital punishment, what and reformer, and
do they call this         founder of the Borstal system?
       frame, typically wooden, used for execution        A.    Zebulon Brockway
by hanging?        B.    Alexander Mocanochie
       A.    Galley        C.    Evelyn Ruggles Brise
       B.    Gallows        D.    Sir John Watson                                  
       C.    Hulk Answer: C
       D.    Double blade                                       
Answer: B 197. Besides religious laws such as the Torah,
important codifications        B.    Pardon
       of laws were developed in the ancient        C.    Parole
Roman Empire, with the        D    Amnesty                                               
       compilations of the Lex Duodecim Answer: A
Tabularum.This law refers to   
       A.    the Corpus Juris Civilis
       B.    the Twelve Tables
       C.    the Hammurabic code
       D.    lex taliones                                          
Answer: B

198. The first permanent system of codified laws

could be found in
       China, with the compilation of the
       A.    Tang Code
       B.    Wong Code
       C.    Ting Code
       D.    Chang Code                                        
Answer: A

199. Opponents of capital punishment claim that

a prisoner's isolation
       and uncertainty over their fate constitute a
form of mental
       cruelty and those especially long-time death
row inmates are
       liable to become mentally ill, if they are not
already. This is
       referred to as   
       A.    death row phenomenon
       B.    Cruelty syndrome
       C.    Execution syndrome
       D.    None of these                                     
Answer: A

200. After individuals are found guilty of an

offense and sentenced to
       execution, they will remain on death row
while following an
       appeals   procedure, if they so choose, and
then until there is a
       convenient time for __.
       A.    Execution