Test I c) reciprocating cam 36.

A cam with a roller follower would constitute

d) tangential cam which type of pair?
1. It deals only with the motion of bodies 19. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a a) close pair
without reference to the forces that cause four bar mechanism lies on b) higher pair
them. a) a point obtained by intersection c) lower pair
a) Kinetics of extending adjoining links d) open pair
b) Motion b) left side pivot of this link 37. Kinematics pairs are those pairs that have
c) Kinematics c) right side pivot of this link a) elements of pairs not held together
d) Acceleration d) any of the choices above mechanically
2. Progressive change in position of a body is 20. A vector quantity that describes both how b) point or line contact between the
called: fast it is moving and the direction in which it is elements when in motion
a) Acceleration heated. c) surface contact between the two
b) Motion a) Acceleration elements when in motion
c) Force b) Displacement d) two elements that allow relative
d) Momentum c) Motion motion
3. Cam in general maybe divided into two d) Velocity 38. A Pantograph is a mechanism having
classes; uniform motion and _________motion 21. Which of the following is the rate at which the a) higher pairs
cam. velocity is changing? b) lower pairs
a) Reverse a) Acceleration c) rolling pairs
b) gravity b) Linear d) spherical pairs
c) decelerated c) Motion 39. The number of links in a pantograph is equal
d) accelerated d) Vertical to
4. Product of mass and linear velocity is known 22. The direction of the ________ is toward the a) 3
as: center of the circle in which, the study b) 4
a) Impulse moves. c) 5
b) Linear momentum a) Centripetal acc. d) 6
c) Angular momentum b) Centrifugal acc. 40. In elliptical trammels,
d) Impact c) Radial cam a) all four pairs are turning
5. It is the motion of an object d) Tangential b) one pair turning and three pairs
diminished/decreased speed. 23. It is a device that changes the magnitude, sliding
a) Deceleration direction or mode of application of a torque c) three pairs turning and one pair
b) Retarded motion or force while transmitting it for a particular sliding
c) Negative impulse purpose. d) two pairs and two pairs sliding
d) All of these a) Frame 41. The Klein’s method of construction for
6. It is a property of matter, which causes it to b) Machine reciprocating engine mechanism
resist any change in its motion or state of rest. c) Mechanism a) enables determined of coriolis
a) Brake d) Structure component
b) Friction 24. The process of obtaining the resultant of any b) is a simplified form of instantaneous
c) Inertia number of vectors. center method
d) Impulse a) Scalar quantity c) is based on acceleration diagram
7. If the velocity of mass is the same all the time b) Vector composition d) utilizes a quadrilateral similar to the
during which motion takes place is called: c) Vector quantity diagram of mechanism for
a) Deceleration d) Vector resolution reciprocating engine
b) Uniform motion 25. It has magnitude, direction and sense. 42. If a particle of a link has a velocity that
c) Acceleration a) scalar quantity changes both in magnitude and direction at
d) None of these b) absolute quantity any instant, then
8. Statement that a given body is in static c) vector quantity a) it must have only unidirectional
equilibrium means that the body cannot d) relative velocity acceleration
a) have any type of motion 26. A plate, cylinder or other solid with a surface b) it must have two components of
b) be acted upon by more than one of contact so designed as to caused or acceleration e.g., centripetal and
force modify the motion of the piece. tangential
c) undergo any displacement a) Cam c) it must have three components of
d) have any type of acceleration b) Disc acceleration e.g., centripetal,
9. It is a science of motion that can be solved in c) Gear centrifugal and tangential
terms of scalar or vector algebra. d) Pulley d) it must have three components of
a) Kinematics 27. When acceleration is zero, the acceleration e.g., centripetal,
b) Curvilinear translation a) velocity is constant centrifugal and gravitational
c) Projectile b) velocity is negative 43. Select the one that is the highest pair.
d) Acceleration c) velocity is variable a) Crosby indicator mechanism
10. An object thrown upward will return to earth d) velocity is zero b) Hart’s straight line mechanism
the magnitude of the terminal velocity equal 28. When the velocity is changing, the c) Thomson indicator mechanism
to acceleration is d) Both gearing mechanism
a) zero a) constant 44. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a
b) one-half the initial velocity b) not constant a) Cylindrical pair
c) twice the initial velocity c) variable b) higher pair
d) initial velocity d) zero c) lower pair
11. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a 29. Klein’s construction is used to determine the d) sliding pair
plane perpendicular to the axis of rotation of a) acceleration of various parts 45. The total number of instantaneous center for
the cam. b) angular acceleration of various parts a mechanism of N links is equal to
a) Radial cam c) displacement of various parts a) 2N
b) Cylindrical cam d) velocity of various parts b) (N-1)(N+1)
c) Cam curves 30. Klein’s construction can be used when c) 2N(N-1)
d) Tangential cam a) crank has a uniform angular d) N(N-1)/2
12. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a acceleration 46. A kinematics chain needs a minimum of
plane parallel to the axis of rotation. b) crank has a uniform angular velocity a) 2 links and 2 turning pairs
a) cam curves c) crank has a non uniform angular b) 3 links and 3 turning pairs
b) cylindrical cam velocity c) 3 links and 2 turning pairs
c) tangential cam d) b and c above d) 4 links and 4 turning pairs
d) Radial cam 31. The cam angle is 47. For kinematics chains formed by lower pair
13. A cone formed by elements, which are a) the angle subtended by live portion of the relation between the number of joint J is
perpendicular to the elements of the pitch cam at the cam’s center given by
cone at the large end. b) the angle of rotation of the cam for a a) L = 2/3(J+2)
a) cone distance definite displacement of the follower b) L = 3/2(J+2)
b) back cone c) the angle subtended at the cam’s c) L = 2/3(L+2)
c) root cone center by the portion of cam during d) L = 3/2(L+2)
d) cone center which the follower moves 48. In case of an elliptical trammel,
14. The ability of moving body to perform work is d) the angle subtended by the cam at a) one pair turns and two pairs slide
called: the cam center when the follower b) two pairs and two pairs slide
a) Internal energy dwells c) three pairs turn and one pair slides
b) potential energy 32. The pitch point on a cam refers to d) all four pairs turn
c) kinetic energy a) any point on pitch curve 49. Coriolis component of acceleration is found
d) flow work b) a point at a distance equal to pitch in
15. A slider crank chain is made up of circle radius from the center a) four bar mechanism
a) one turning and one sliding pair c) the point of cam pitch circle that has b) mechanism of steam engine
b) one turning and two sliding pairs the maximum pressure angle c) higher pair
c) two turning and one sliding pair d) none of the above d) whitworth-quick-return
d) three turning and one sliding pair 33. For a kinematics chain to be considered as mechanism
16. A scott-Russell mechanism is made up of mechanism, 50. It is one that is not appreciably deformed by
a) rotating pair only a) none of the links should be fixed the action of any external force or load.
b) sliding and turning pairs b) one link should be fixed a) rigid body
c) turning and rotary pairs c) there is no such criterion b) structure
d) turning pair only d) two links should be fixed c) Frame
17. Ackerman steering gear is made up of 34. Hart mechanism has how many links? d) Mechanism
a) rolling and sliding pairs a) 4
b) rolling pairs b) 6
c) sliding and rotary pairs c) 8
d) turning pairs d) 12
18. A cam where the follower reciprocates or 35. Peaucellier mechanism has how many links?
oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of a) 4
the cam is called: b) 5
a) circular cam c) 6
b) cylindrical cam d) 8
 TEST 2 c) poisson’s ratio d) tensile strength
d) endurance limit 37. Which of the following is the different of the shear
1. At a given section of an I beam the maximum 19. The single force which produces the same effect equation?
bending stress occurs at the upon a body as two or more forces acting together is a) bending moment
a) max. shear stress area called: b) load on the beam
b) neutral axis a) Resultant force c) tensile strength of the beam
c) web joint near the flange b) co-planar force d) slope of the beam
d) outermost c) couple 38. The change in length per unit original length
2. The resultant of two or more forces is a d) non-coplanar force a) strain
a) couple of forces 20. The ability of metal to resist being crushed is called b) stress
b) concurrent of forces a) shearing strength c) deformation
c) momentum b) compressive stress d) elastic modulus
d) resolution of forces c) torsional strength 39. The ability of material or metal to resist being crushed
3. Two or more forces acting together, could be d) tensile strength is
replaced by a single force with same effect in a mass 21. Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called: a) fatigue strength
called: a) co-planar b) bending strength
a) couple of forces b) non-coplanar forces c) torsional strength
b) resolution of forces c) Acceleration d) compressive strength
c) resultant d) composition of forces 40. The ability of a metal to withstand forces that causes
d) concurrent of forces 22. In general, the design stress and factor of safety are a member to twist.
4. The frictional forces depends on coefficient of friction related as follows a) shear strength
and a) design stress = ultimate stress times factor of b) tensile strength
a) torque safety c) bearing strength
b) weights of object b) design stress = ultimate stress divided by d) torsional strength
c) normal of force factor of safety 41. The ratio of stress to strain within the elastic limit is
d) moment c) factor of safety = design stress divided called
5. Shear modulus is also known as: ultimate stress a) creep
a) Shear elasticity d) ultimate stress = factor of safety divided by b) modulus of rigidity
b) poisson’s ratio design stress c) modulus of elasticity
c) modulus of elasticity 23. Stresses that are independent to loads are known as: d) poisson’s ratio
d) modulus of rigidity a) Working stresses 42. The ability of metal to withstand loads without
6. The maximum stress induced in a material when b) Operating stresses breaking down is termed as
subjected to intermittent or repeated load without c) residual stresses a) strain
causing failure is called: d) shear stresses b) stress
a) Ultimate stress 24. The ratio of unit lateral deformation to unit c) elasticity
b) Endurance limit longitudinal deformation is called: d) strength
c) Ultimate strength a) poisson’s ratio 43. The last point at which a material may be stretched a
d) Elastic limit b) willan’s line still return to its underformed
7. Internal stress exerted by the fibers to resist the action c) modulus of elasticity condition upon release of the stress.
of outside force is called: d) deformation a) rupture limit
a) Shearing stress 25. Separate forces, which can be so combined are b) elastic limit
b) tensile stress called: c) proportional limit
c) ultimate stress a) non-concurrent d) ultimate limit
d) compressive stress b) couple 44. The deformation that results from a stress and is
8. Alloy steel axle under repeated load/stress will c) combined forces expressed in terms of the amount of
eventually fail if the load/stress is above the endurance d) concurrent forces deformation per inch.
for the steel under consideration. The endurance limit of 26. Endurance strength is nearly proportional to the a) elongation
the steel is therefore ultimate strength but not with b) strain
a) equal to the allowable stress of the module of a) yield strength c) poisson’s ratio
elasticity b) design stress d) elasticity
b) equal to half of the ultimate strength c) shear stress 45. The internal resistance a material offers to being
c) equal to module of elasticity d) all of these deformed and is measured in terms
d) equal to 80% of the elastic limit 27. The three moment equation may be used to analyze of applied load.
9. Moment of inertia is also called: a a) strain
a) Modulus of elasticity a) tapered column b) elasticity
b) Weep strength b) continuous beam c) stress
c) Radius of gyration c) endurance limit d) resilience
d) None of these d) tensile stress 46. The maximum stress induced in a material when
10. Defection of a beam is 28. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of subjected to alternating or repeated loading without
a) proportional to the modulus of elasticity and a) shear strain to compressive strain causing failure.
moment of inertia b) elastic limit to compressive strain a) Ultimate strength
b) proportional to the load imposed and c) lateral strain to longitudinal strain b) yield strength
inversely to the length squared d) elastic limit to proportional limit c) endurance strength
c) inversely proportional to the modulus of 29. The product of the resultant of all forces acting on a d) rupture strength
elasticity and moment of inertia body and the time that the resultant acts. 47. The maximum stress to which a material may be
d) inversely proportional to the weight imposed a) angular impulse subjected before failure occurs is called:
times the length b) angular momentum a) Rupture strength
11. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is c) Linear impulse b) ultimate strength
less than the yield point is called: d) linear momentum c) Yield strength
a) Plasticity 30. The system of forces and opposite collinear forces are d) proportional limit
b) Elasticity added, which of the following if any is true? 48. The total deformation measured in the direction of
c) Creep a) equilibrium is destroyed the line of stress.
d) Ductility b) equilibrium is maintained a) strain
12. It is opposite direction of parallel force. c) none of these is true b) elasticity
a) concurrent d) an unbalance of moment exist c) elongation
b) coplanar 31. What is the property of a material, which resists forces d) contraction
c) couple acting to pull the material apart? 49. The total resistance that a material offers to an
d) non coplanar a) shear strength applied load is called
13. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross - b) tensile strength a) friction torque
section of the beam to the section c) torsional strength b) stress
modulus is d) compressive strength c) rigidity
a) equal to the radius of gyration 32. What is the metal characteristic to withstand forces d) compressive force
b) equal to the area of the cross-section that causes twisting? 50. The ability of metal to withstand forces thus following
c) measure of a distance a) torsional strength a number of twist.
d) dependent on modulus of elasticity of beam b) modulus of elasticity a) shear strength
measure c) twisting moment b) bearing strength
14. The differential of the shear equation is which of the d) elasticity c) endurance limit
following: 33. The unit deformation is called d) deformation
a) bending moment of the beam a) torsion
b) tensile strength of the beam b) strain
c) slope of the elastic curve c) stress
d) load of the beam d) shear
15. Could be defined as simply push and pull is known as 34. The total amount of permanent extension of the
a) work gage length measured after specimen has fractured
b) force and is expressed as percentage increase of the original
c) inertia length.
d) power a) elongation
16. The changes in shape or geometry of the body due b) strain
to action of a force on it is called deformation or c) stress
a) shearing stress d) elastic limit
b) stresses 35. Strength of a material is that of a stress intensity
c) compressive stress determined by considering the maximum test load to
d) strains act over the original area of the test specimens called
17. Ability to resist deformation under stress is called: a) yield point
a) plasticity b) ultimate strength
b) all of these c) break strength
c) stiffness d) elastic limit
d) toughness 36. The maximum stress, which is reached during a
18. The property of a material that relates the lateral tension test is called
strain to longitudinal strain is called: a) stress
a) stress b) elasticity
b) strain c) strain
TEST 3 d) maximum load during test / original cross- a) is a ratio of the average stress on a section to
sectional area the allowable stress
1. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable stress. 18. When a part is constrained to move and heated, it b) can not be evaluated for brittle materials
a) proportionality constant develops what kind of stress? c) is the ratio of areas involved in a sudden
b) strain a) compressive stress change of cross-section
c) Modulus b) principal stress d) is the ratio of the maximum stress produced in a
d) Factor of safety c) shear stress cross section to the average stress over the
2. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at the d) tensile stress section
free end, the moment is 19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared 36. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the
a) constant along the beam to in tension is nearly a) unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal
b) maximum at the wall a) one-half deformation
c) ¼ maximum half way out on the beam b) one-third b) unit stress to unit strain
d) maximum at the free end c) one-fourth c) elastic limit to proportional limit
3. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously d) the same d) shear strain to compressive strain
withstand. 20. The intensity of stress that causes unit strain is known 37. Hooke’s law for an isotropic homogeneous medium
a) yield point as experiencing one dimensional stress is known as
b) bearing strength a) bulk modulus a) Stress = E (strain)
c) ultimate strength b) modulus of elasticity b) Strain = E (stress)
d) point of rupture c) modulus of rigidity c) (Force)(Area) = E (change in length/length)
4. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is d) unit stress d) strain energy = E (internal energy)
removed the strain disappears. From this information, 21. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel, as compared 38. The modulus of rigidity of a steel member is
which of the following can be deducted about this to its ultimate compressive stress will be a) a function of the length and depth
material? a) less b) defined as the unit shear stress divided by the
a) It is elastic. b) more unit shear deformation
b) It has a modulus of elasticity. c) more or less depending on the factors c) equal to the modulus of elasticity divided by
c) it is plastic d) same one plus Poisson’s ratio
d) it is ductile. 22. The relation between modulus of elasticity E and d) defined as the length divided by the moment
5. A cantilever beam having a uniformly increasing load modulus of elasticity in shear G, bulk modulus of elasticity of inertia
toward the fixed end K and Poisson’s ratio is given by 39. The maximum bending moment of a beam simply
a) has uniform shear a) E = Gu supported at both ends and subject to a total load 
b) has a reaction equal to the load b) E = G (u + 1) uniformly distributed over its length L is expressed by the
c) will have maximum bending moment c) E = 2g(u+1) formula
midway to the beam d) E = 4G (1+2u) a)  L/8
d) has a reaction is not equal to the load 23. When shear force is zero along a section, the b)  L2/8
6. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces bending moment at that section will be c)  L/2
a) depends on the materials and the finish a) maximum d)  L2/2
condition of the surface b) minimum 40. In a column (slenderness ratio > 160), which of the
b) depends only on the finish condition pf the c) minimum or maximum following has the greatest influence on its tendency to buckle
surface d) zero under a compressive load?
c) does not depend on the materials 24. The stress-strain curve for a glass rod during tensile test a) the modulus of elasticity of the material
d) depends on the composition of the materials is b) the compressive strength of the material
c) the radius of gyration of the column
only a) an irregular
d) the length of the column
7. The maximum stress to which a material may be b) a parabola
41. The area of the shear diagram of a beam between any
subjected before failure occurs. c) a sudden break two points on the beam is equal to the
a) rupture stress d) a straight line a) change in shear between the two points
b) yield stress 25. The ratio of average shear stress to maximum shear b) total shear beyond the two points
c) ultimate stress stress for a circular section is equal to c) average moment between the two points
d) allowable stress a) 2 d) change in moment between the two points
8. The total resistance that a material offers to an b) 2/3 42. Poisson’s ratio is principally used in
applied load. c) 3/2 a) the determination of capability of material for
a) flexure d) ¾ being shaped
b) stress 26. The ratio of bulk modulus for Poisson’s ratio of 0.25 will b) the determination of capacity of a material for
c) elasticity be equal to plastic deformation with fracture
c) stress-strain relationships where stresses are
d) rigidity a) 3/2
applied in more than one direction
9. If the areas of cross-sections of square and circular b) 5/16
d) the determination of the endurance limit
beams are the same and both are put to equal bending c) 1
43. Modulus of resilience is
moment then the correct statement is d) 2
a) the same as the modulus of elasticity
a) both the beams are equally economical 27. The compression members tend to buckle in the b) a measure of a materials ability to store strain
b) both the beams are equally strong direction of energy
c) the circular beam is more economical a) axis of load c) the reciprocal of the modulus of elasticity
d) the square beam is more economical b) perpendicular to the axis of load d) a measure of the deflection of member
10. Ties are load carrying members that carry c) minimum cross-section 44. Which of the following best describes the 0.2% offset
a) axial compressive loads d) least radius of gyration yield stress?
b) axial tension loads 28. The stress in an elastic material is a) it is elastic limit after which a measurable
c) prestressing thick cylinders a) inversely proportional to the material’s yield plastic strain has occurred.
e) d)relieving thick cylinders strength b) it is the stress at which the material plastically
11. Auto frottage is the method of b) inversely proportional to the force acting strains 0.2%.
a) calculating stresses in thick cylinders c) proportional to the displacement of the material c) it is the stress at which the material elastically
b) increasing life of thick cylinders acted upon by the force
strains 0.2%
d) inversely proportional to the strain
c) prestressing thick cylinders d) it is 0.2% below the fracture point of the
29. The slenderness ratio of a column is generally defined
d) relieving thick cylinders material.
as the ratio of its
12. Mohr’s circle can be used to determine _________ on 45. Under very low deformation and at high temperature
a) length to its minimum width
inclined surface. b) unsupported length to its maximum radius of it is possible to have some plastic flow in a crystal at a
a) principal stress gyration shear stress lower than the critical shear stress. What is this
b) normal stress c) length to its moment of inertia phenomenon called?
c) tangential stress d) unsupported length to its least radius of gyration a) Slip
d) all of the above 30. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel b) Twinning
13. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the ratio of is known as c) Creep
a) linear stress to longitudinal strain a) modulus of elongation d) Shearing
b) shear stress to shear strain b) plastic range 46. In a stress-strain diagram what is the correct term for
c) shear to strain c) irreversible range the stress level at e = 0.20% offset?
d) shear stress to volumetric strain d) elastic range a) Elastic limit
14. The total strain energy stored in a body is called 31. Principal stresses occur on those planes b) Plastic limit
a) resilience a) where the shearing stress is zero c) Offset rupture stress
b) proof resilience b) which are 45 degrees apart d) Offset yield stress
c) modulus of resilience c) where the shearing stress is a maximum 47. Under which type of loading does fatigue occur?
d) toughness d) which are subjected only to tension a) Static load
15. The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight 32. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross-section b) Plane
is equal to of a beam to the section c) High load
a) one fourth that of a prismatic bar of the same modulus is d) Repeated load
length a) equal to the radius of gyration
b) one-sixth that of a prismatic bar of the same length 48. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is
b) equal to the area of the cross section
c) one third that of a prismatic bar of the same length removed, the strain disappears. From this information,
c) a measure of distance
d) that of a prismatic bar of the same length which of the following can be deduced about this
d) multiplied by the bending moment to
16. Which one is the incorrect statement about true material?
determine the stress
stress-strain method? a) It is elastic.
33. Structural steel elements subjected to torsion develop
e) it is more sensitive to changes in mechanical
what kind of stress? b) It is plastic.
conditions.
f) There is no such phenomenon like true stress or true a) bending stress c) It is has a high modulus of elasticity.
strain. b) compressive stress d) It is ductile.
g) This method can be used for compression tests as c) shearing stress 49. Which of the following may be the Poisson ratio of a
well. d) tensile stress material?
h) True stress is load per unit area and similarly true 34. The bending moment at a section of a beam is a) 0.45
strain is determined under actual conditions. derived from the b) 0.5
17. The tensile stress of a material is given by a) sum of the moments of all external forces on one c) 0.55
a) average load during the test / average at the side of the section d) 0.60
time of fracture b) difference between the moments on one side of 50. In pure torsion, the minimum torsional stress occurs at
b) average load during the test / original cross- the section and the opposite side the
sectional area c) sum of the moments of all external forces on both a) center
sides of the section
c) maximum load during test / area at the time b) long side
d) sum of the moments of all external forces between
of fracture c) medium side
supports
d) short side
35. The stress concentration factor
TEST 4 c) triaxial c) compressive stress
d) uniaxial d) tensile stress
1. In a specification schedule is used when the pipe 20. Under theories of failure for static loading of ductile 39. In the stress-strain diagram where there is a large
specified as “schedule 80”, the pipe corresponds to the material, the design stress is the increase in strain with little or no increase in stress is called
a) “ extra standard “ weight a) endurance strength / factor of safety a) Endurance strength
b) allowable stress b) factor of safety / yield stress b) Ultimate strength
c) internal pressure c) yield stress / factor of safety c) Rapture strength
d) “ old standard “ weight d) ultimate stress / factor of safety d) Yield strength
2. The modulus of elasticity for ordinary steel usually falls 21. Under theories of failure, the value of shear stress is 40. A ________ member that carries loads transverse to its
between ________ million pounds per square inch. ______ that of tensile stress. axis.
a) 26 to 28 a) equal a) structure
b) 28 to 31 b) double b) column
c) 20 to 45 c) half c) beam
d) 50 to 30 d) three times d) frame
3. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of 22. The theory of mechanics of materials shows that the 41. Which type of load that is applied slowly and is never
a) accuracy results from the octahedral shear stress theory and those removed?
b) quality from the maximum distortion energy theory are ________. a) Uniform load
c) stiffness a) more than b) Static load
d) rigidity b) less than c) Equilibrium load
4. The modulus of elasticity for most metals in c) relevant d) Impact load
compression is usually taken as that in d) the same 42. When varying loads are applied that are not regular
a) tension 23. A kind of stress that is caused by forces acting along in their amplitude, the loading is called
b) bearing or parallel to the area is called a) Repeated loading
c) torsion a) Bearing stress b) Random loading
d) yield b) Shearing stress c) Reversed loading
5. The ratio of moment and stress is called: c) Tangential stress d) Fluctuating loading
a) Contraction d) tensile stess 43. A measure of the relative safety of a load-carrying
b) Proportional constant 24. Obtained by dividing the differential load dF by the component is termed as
c) Section modulus dA over which it acts. a) design factor
d) Strain a) Elasticity b) load factor
6. For a symmetrical cross-section beam the flexural stress b) Elongation c) ratio factor
is _______ when the vertical shear is maximum. c) Strain d) demand factor
a) infinity d) Stress 44. The condition, which causes actual stresses in
b) maximum 25. The highest ordinate in the stress – strain diagram or machine members to be higher than nominal values
c) minimum curve is called predicted by the elementary direct and combined stress
d) zero a) elastic limit equations.
7. When tested in compression, ductile materials usually b) rapture strength a) Stress concentration factor
exhibit ________characteristics up to the yield strength as c) ultimate strength b) Stress factor
they do when tested in tension d) yield point c) Design factor
a) the same 26. A pair of forces equal in magnitude opposite in d) Load factor
b) less than direction, and not in the same line is called 45. The stress value, which is used, in the mathematical
c) more than a) couple determination of the required
d) approximately the same b) momentum size of the machine member.
8. It has been said that 80% of the failures of machine c) parallel forces a) Endurance stress
parts have been due to d) torque b) Design stress
a) compression 27. Framework composed of members joined at their c) Maximum stress
b) fatigue failures ends to form a rigid structure is known as : d) Normal stress
c) negligence a) Joists 46. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of cast iron is in the
d) torsion b) Machine range of
9. Cazand quotes values for steel showing Sn/Su ratios, c) Purlins a) 0.30 to 0.33
often called endurance ratio, from d) Truss b) 0.27 to 0.30
a) 0.23 to 0.65 28. The ratio of the tensile stress to the tensile strain is c) 0.25 to 0.27
b) 0.34 to 0.45 called d) 0.35 to 0.45
c) 0.34 to 0.87 a) Bulk modulus 47. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of steel is in the range
d) 0.63 to 0.93 b) Hooke’s law of
10. The discontinuity or change of section, such as c) Shear modulus a) 0.30 to 0.33
scratches, holes, bends, or grooves is a d) Young modulus b) 0.27 to 0.30
a) stress raiser 29. The ratio of the volume stress to the volume strain is c) 0.25 to 0.27
b) stress functioning called the coefficient of volume elasticity or d) 0.35 to 0.45
c) stress raiser a) bulk modulus 48. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of aluminum and
d) stress relieving b) Hooke’s law titanium is in the range of
11. The degree of stress concentration is usually c) shear modulus a) 0.25 to 0.27
indicated by the d) Young modulus b) 0.27 to 0.30
a) power factor 30. The action of a force is characterized by c) 0.30 to 0.33
b) stress concentration factor a) its magnitude d) 0.35 to 0.45
c) service factor b) direction of its action 49. The angle of inclination of the planes on which the
d) stress factor c) point of application principal stresses act is called
12. In a part at uniform temperature and not acted upon d) all of the above a) normal plane
by an external load, any internal stress that exists is 31. At highest or lowest point on the moment diagram b) principal plane
called: a) shear is half, the maximum moment c) tangential plane
a) Control stress b) shear is maximum d) traverse plane
b) Form stress c) shear is negative 50. _________ provides a very accurate prediction of
c) Residual stress d) shear is zero failure of ductile materials
d) Superposed stress 32. The built-in or fixed support is capable of supporting under static loads or completely reversed normal, shear
13. The stress or load induced by the tightening a) an axial load or combined stresses.
operation. b) a traverse force a) Shear stress theory
a) Initial stress c) a bending moment b) Normal stress theory
b) Initial tension d) all of these c) Distortion energy theory
c) Residual stress 33. The modulus of elasticity in shear is commonly called d) Soderberg line theory
d) None of these a) Bulk modulus
14. A type of failure due to instability is known as b) deformation
a) Slenderness ratio c) Modulus of rigidity
b) Buckingham d) Young modulus
c) Buckling 34. The stress beyond which the material will not return to
d) Stability its original shape when unloaded, but will retain a
15. The ratio of the length of the column and the radius permanent deformation is termed as
of gyration of the cross-sectional area about a a) elastic limit
centroidal axis is called b) proportional limit
a) contact ratio c) yield point
b) constant ratio d) yield strength
c) power factor 35. Refers to the actual stress the material has when
d) slenderness ratio under load.
16. Formula that applies to a very slender column is a) Allowable stress
called b) Factor of safety
a) Column formula c) Ultimate strength
b) Euler’s formula d) Working stress
c) Moment formula 36. The safe soil bearing pressure of diesel engine is
d) Slender formula about
17. If two principal stresses are zero, the state stress is a) 2000 kg per sq. cm
a) biaxial b) 4600 kg per sq. cm
b) monoaxial c) 4890 kg per sq. cm
c) triaxial d) 5633 kg per sq. cm
d) uniaxial 37. The machine foundation must have a factor of safety
18. If one principal stress is zero, the state stress is of
a) biaxial a) 3
b) monoaxial b) 4
c) triaxial c) 5
d) uniaxial d) 6
19. If all the principal stresses have finite values, the 38. The load acts over a smaller area, and the ________
system is continues to increase unit failure.
a) biaxial a) actual stress
b) monoaxial b) allowable stress
 TEST 5 18. For a circular shaft subjected to torque the value of b) after
shear stress c) parallel to
1. Torsional deflection is a significant consideration in a) is uniform throughout d) adjacent to
the design of shaft and the limit should be in the range b) has maximum value at the axis 38. In the top gear, the rotational speeds of _________
of ________ degrees/foot of length. c) has maximum value at the surface remain the same
a) 0.004 to 0.006 d) is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a a) primary and lay shafts
b) 0.08 to 1 maximum value at the surface of the shaft b) main and lay shafts
c) 0.006 to 0.008 19. The compression members tend to buckle in the c) primary and main shafts
d) 0.008 to 1 direction of d) secondary and main shafts
2. For a universal joint shaft angle should be _________ a) axis of load 39. The primary and lay shafts rotate in _________
degrees maximum and much less if in high rotational b) perpendicular to the axis of load direction.
speed. c) minimum cross-section a) in the same
a) 12 d) least radius of gyration b) different
b) 16 20. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be c) reverse
c) 15 made up of d) none of the above
d) 14 a) clad material 40. It is an integral part of a machine.
3. It is a good design practice for steel line shafting to b) composite material a) Spindle
consider a limit to the linear c) homogeneous material b) Axle
deflection of ________ inch/foot length maximum. d) heterogeneous material c) Counter shaft
a) 0.050 21. The column splice is used for increasing d) Machine shaft
b) 0.010 a) strength of the column 41. Stresses in shafts are analyzed through
c) 0.020 b) cross-sectional area of the column a) torsional
d) 0.060 c) length of the column b) bending
4. It is a rotating machine member that transmits power. d) all of the above c) axial
a) Cam 22. A simply supported beam has a uniformly distributed d) all of these
b) Plate load on it, the bending moment is 42. What is the standard stock length?
c) Shaft a) triangle a) 16 ft
d) Flywheel b) parabola b) 20 ft
5. A stationary member carrying pulleys, wheels and etc. c) semi-circle c) 24 ft
that transmit power is called: d) rectangle d) all of the above
a) Axle 23. The power obtained by piston reaches flywheel 43. Centrifugal separators that operate at speeds
b) Propeller shaft through the ________ also employ these flexible
c) Turbine shaft a. countershaft shafts.
d) Machine shaft b. crank shaft a) 1000 to 3000 rpm
6. A line shaft is also known as c. transmission shaft b) 5000 to 10000 rpm
a) Counter shaft d. line shaft c) 15000 to 30000 rpm
b) Jack shaft 24. There are two types of crankshafts, namely d) 20000 to 50000 rpm
c) Main shaft a) single piece and built up 44. Which of the following material is used for shafting?
d) Head shaft b) forged and turned a) AISI 3240
7. Which of the following shaft intermediate between a c) rotary and stationary b) AISI 3150
line shaft and a driven shaft? d) none of these c) AISI 4063
a) Counter shaft 25. Engine valves get open by means of d) AISI 33000
b) Jack shaft a) cam shaft 45. The process of redistributing the mass attached to a
c) Head Shaft b) rocker shaft rotating body in order to reduce
d) All of the above c) crank shaft vibrations arising from a centrifugal force.
8. Short shafts on machines are called d) valve guard a) Shaft coupling
a) Core shafts 26. The value of allowable stresses which are generally b) Shaft balancing
b) Head shafts used in practice for main transmitting shafts is c) Shaft hooper
c) Medium shafts a) 282 kg/cm2 d) stator balancing
d) Spindles b) 423 kg/cm2 46. In many cases the _________ of the shaft is an import
9. For shafts, the shear due to bending is a maximum at c) 599 kg/cm2 design feature.
the neutral plane where the d) 620 kg/cm2 a) deflections
normal stress is 27. The value of allowable stresses which are generally b) rigidity
a) constant used in practice for line shafts carrying pulleys is c) size
b) maximum a) 150 kg/cm2 d) strength
c) minimum b) 282 kg/cm2 47. Commercial shafting is made of
d) zero c) 423 kg/cm2 a) low carbon steel
10. Criteria for the limiting torsional deflection vary from d) 550 kg/cm2 b) cast iron
0.08 per foot of length for machinery shafts to _______ per 28. The value of allowable stresses which are generally c) brass
foot. used in practice for small, short shafts, countershafts is d) bronze
a) 1 a) 282 kg/cm2 48. What is the most common material for shafting?
b) 2 b) 599 kg/cm2 a) Wrought iron
c) 3 c) 650 kg/cm2 b) Cast iron
d) 4 d) 750 kg/cm2 c) Mild steel
11. For transmission shafts the allowable deflection is one 29. Torsional deformation in transmission shafts should be d) Aluminum
degree in a length of limited to _______ in 20 diameters. 49. Cold drawing produces a ________ shaft that hot
_________ diameters. a) 1 rolling, but with higher residual stresses.
a) 10 b) 2 a) weaker
b) 15 c) 3 b) stronger
c) 20 d) 4 c) harder
d) 25 30. Lateral deflection caused by bending should not d) none of the above
12. An old rule of thumb for transmission shafting is that exceed 50. Allowable stresses in shear equal to ________ are
the deflection should not exceed ____________ of a) in. per foot of length common in design of a shaft.
length between supports. b) 0.005 in. per foot of length a) 3000 to 5000 psi
a) 0.01 in. per foot c) in. per foot of length b) 4000 to 6000 psi
b) 0.02 in. per foot d) 0.05 in. per foot of length c) 5000 to 8000 psi
c) 0.03 in. per foot 31. Front axle should be live and d) 6000 to 10000 psi
d) 0.04 in. per foot a) weak
13. In general for machinery shafts, the permissible b) dead
deflection may be closer to c) strong
a) 0.02 in/ft d) none of these
b) 0.01 in/ft 32. The steering is coupled to the two front wheels by
c) 0.002 in/ft means of a
d) 0.030 in/ft a) connecting rod
14. The speed at which the center of mass will equal the b) tie rod
deflecting forces on the shaft with its attached bodies c) push rod
will then vibrate violently, since the centrifugal force d) spindle
changes its direction as the shaft turns. 33. In the overdrive transmission system the rotation
a) Critical speed speed of ________ rest higher than that of engine’s
b) Geometrical speed speed.
c) Mean speed a) main shaft
d) Unit speed b) crank shaft
15. For shaft, the minimum value of numerical combined c) propeller shaft
shock and fatigue factor to be applied in every case to d) machine shaft
the computed bending moment is 34. A slip joint ________ the length of propeller shaft.
a) 1.0 a) increases
b) 1.3 b) decreases
c) 1.5 c) keeps appropriate
d) 1.8 d) none of these
16. It is suggested that the design factor on the yield 35. The transmission system incorporates clutch, gear
strength be about 1.5 for the smooth load, about 2 to box, and propeller shaft and
2.25 for minor shock loads, and _________ when the a) brake
loading reverse during operation. b) differential
a) 3.0 c) steering
b) 4.0 d) main shafting
c) 3.5 36. The lay shaft moves ________ the primary shaft.
d) 4.5 a) equal to
17. A column is called short column when b) more than
a) the length is more than 30 times the diameter c) less than
b) slenderness ratio is more than 120 d) in the gear ratio
c) the length is less than 8 times the diameter 37. The main shaft is lifted ________ the lay shaft.
d) the slenderness ratio is more than 32 a) before
 TEST 6 members to prevent relative angular motion between b) used for collinear shafts
1. A type of coupling that allows slight amount of these mating. c) used for non-collinear shafts
torsional angular flexibility due to introduction with some a) Key way d) used only on small shafts rotating at low
elastic material cylindrically wrapped around the bolts in b) Key speed
the flange. c) Constant key 38. In flange coupling the weakest element should be
a) Simple elastic bonded coupling d) Variable key the
b) Elastic material bushed coupling 20. A feather key is one of the following types of a) bolts
c) Elastic material bonded coupling a) sunk b) flange
d) All of these b) tapered c) key
2. Which of the following keys that is square or flat and c) parallel d) shaft
tapered with head? d) tangent 39. In flange coupling the flange bolts are designed for
a) Pin key 21. Permanent keys made integral with the shaft and a) fatigue
b) Saddle key fitting into key ways broached b) shear forces
c) Gib-head keys into the mating hub. c) compression
d) None of these a) Square keys d) tensile forces
3. What are considered as the most common keys? b) Splines 40. Which of the following mechanical devices is used for
a) Flat key c) Woodruff keys uniting or connecting parts of a mechanical system?
b) Square key d) Kennedy keys a) Coupling
c) Saddle key 22. A type of square key with bottom two corners b) Keys
d) A & B above beveled is called c) Splines
4. A key may either straight or tapered. It is usually a a) Flat key d) Flexible coupling
drive fit. b) Feather key 41. A coupling that employs a fluid to provide angular
a) Pin key c) Barth key flexibility between the input and output shafts.
b) Saddle key d) Woodruff key a) Rigid coupling
c) Gib-head key 23. The bearing load on feather keys should not exceed b) Flexible coupling
d) None of these a) 600 psi c) Hydraulic coupling
5. A key with one of several patented methods of keying b) 800 psi d) Oldham coupling
is driven or pressed into a hole that is small enough to c) 1000 psi 42. Which of the following type of coupling is used with
close the slit, assembled in radial direction. d) 1200 psi collinear shafts?
a) Fit key 24. The two keys are angularly spaced a) Collar coupling
b) Saddle key a) 45  b) Rigid coupling
c) Roll Pin b) 60  c) Flexible coupling
d) Pin key c) 75  d) Hydraulic coupling
6. Kennedy keys are also known as d) 90  43. A type of coupling used to connect shafts that have
a) Tangential keys 25. The three keys are angularly spaced lateral misalignment.
b) Normal keys a) 60  a) Compression coupling
c) Saddle keys b) 90  b) Collar coupling
d) Roll Pin c) 1200 c) Chain coupling
7. A key that allows the hub to move along the shaft but d) 1800 d) Oldham coupling
prevents the rotation of the shaft. 26. The permissible crushing stress is about _________ times 44. A coupling that is composed of two slotted members,
a) Woodruff key the permissible shear stress. which are connected by a continuous steel spring, and
b) Feather key a) 1.5 lies in the slots.
c) Gibbs key b) 1.7 a) Ajax coupling
d) Square key c) 1.9 b) Falk coupling
8. Which of the following type of fits used for involute d) 1.10 c) Lord coupling
spline? 27. Practical considerations required that the hub length d) Slip coupling
a) Close fit should be at least _________ to obtain a good grip. 45. Shaft couplings are used in machinery for several
b) Press a) 1.2D purposes. The most common purpose of shaft coupling is
c) Sliding b) 1.5D a) to provide for the connection of shafts of
d) All of these c) 1.7D units that are manufactured separately
9. Used for permanent fits and are similar to involute d) 1.9D b) to provide for misalignment of the shafts
splines except that the pressure angle is 14.5 deg. 28. For three keys, a _________ percent overload often is c) to reduce the transmission of shock loads
a) Separation load used. from one shaft to another
b) Stub serrations a) 10 d) all of the above
c) Spline shaft b) 15 46. Typical hub length falls between _________ where D is
d) Involute serrations c) 20 the shaft diameter
10. In case of a knuckle joint, the pin is most likely to fall in d) 25 a) 1.2D and 1.8D
a) compression 29. A pin that is cylindrical in shape with a head on one b) 1.25D and 2.4D
b) shear end and a radial through hole in the other end. c) 1.30 and 2.5D
c) tension a) Clevis pins d) 1.35D and 3.0D
d) double shear b) Taper pins 47. The diameter of the large end of the pin should be
11. In case of sunk key, c) Dower pins ________ the shaft diameter.
a) the key is cut in both shaft and hub d) Taper pins a) ¼
b) the key way is cut in hub only 30. Used for the attachment of levers, wheels and similar b) 1/3
c) the key way is cut in shaft only devices onto shafts for light-duty service. c) ½
d) the key way is helical along the shaft a) Clevis pins d) 3/2
12. Splined shafts are generally for b) Cotter pins 48. The most common type of sliding action fastener and
a) air craft c) Dowel pins is widely used on doors is the
b) automobiles d) Taper pins a) Pawl fastener
c) bicycles 31. The key fits into mating grooves in the shaft and b) Magnetic fastener
d) machine tools mating member is called c) Sliding fastener
13. Splines are used when a) Key way d) Screw fastener
a) the power to be transmitted is low b) Key path 49. When the key is not fitted on all four sides experience
b) the power to be transmitted is high c) Key hole has shown that, the permissible crushing stress is about
c) the torque is high d) None of these ____________ times the permissible shear stress.
d) axial relative motion between shaft and hub 32. Used as couplings, or in addition to overload, where a) 1.3
is necessary there is danger of injury to b) 1.5
14. Which key normally used in wristwatches? machines or to material in process. c) 1.7
a) Kennedy key a) Flange couplings d) 1.9
b) Sunk key b) Involute serrations 50. The mechanical fastening that connects shafts
c) Tangent key c) King pins together for power transmission.
d) None of the above d) Shear pins a) Coupling
15. If a square key and shaft are to be of the same 33. A coupling that transmits power via the frictional b) Key
material and of equal strength the forces induced by pulling the flanges toward each other c) Splines
length of key would be equal to over slotted tapered sleeves is known as d) None of the above
a) d a) Flange coupling
b) 0.75 d b) Flange compression coupling
c) 1.2 d c) Ribbed compression coupling
d) 1.5 d d) Rigid coupling
16. A type of key that is used in self-aligning machine key 34. What is used for absorbing some shock and vibration
made by a side milling cutter in the form of a segment of that may appear on one shaft and of preventing the
a disk. occurrence of reversed stresses caused by the shaft
a) Kennedy key deflecting at the coupling?
b) Saddle key a) Flange coupling
c) Tangent key b) Flexible coupling
d) Woodruff key c) Rigid coupling
17. A female mating member that forms a groove in the d) None of these
shaft to which the key fits. 35. For a single Hooke’s coupling the shaft angle should
a) Key path not be greater than
b) Key way a) 10 
c) Key holder b) 12 
d) Key hole c) 15 
18. A square taper key fitted into a keyway of square d) 30 
section and driven from opposite ends of the hub is
known as
36. A universal coupling is
a) Barth key
a) A rigid coupling
b) Feather key
b) A type of flange coupling
c) Kennedy key
c) Used for collinear coupling
d) Saddle key
d) Used for non-collinear shafts
19. A machine member employed at the interface of a
37. A flange coupling is
pair of mating male and female circular cross-sectioned
a) flexible
 TEST 7 19. A kind of bolt, which has no head but instead has c) minor diameter
1. Top surface joining two sides of thread in screw is threads on bolts ends. d) none of the above
known as a) Stud bolt 38. Turn buckle has
a) Pitch b) Acme threaded bolt a) left hand threads on both ends
b) Top flank c) Square bolt b) left hand threads on one end and right hand
c) Top land d) Hex bolt threads on other end
d) Crest 20. Refers to the diameter of the imaginary cylinder that c) right hand threads on both ends
2. Screw thread projecting from a cylindrical surface is a bounds the crest of an external thread. d) no threads
a) thread series a) Mean diameter 39. The diameter of a washer is generally
b) thread shear b) Stress diameter a) equal to the diameter of bolt
c) straight thread c) Minor diameter b) slightly more than the diameter of the bolt
d) taper thread d) Major diameter c) slightly less than the diameter of the bolt
3. The conical surface at the starting end of the thread is 21. The distance in inches a screw thread advances d) of any size that suits the application
called axially in one turn. 40. The stress concentration is maximum at _________ in a
a) Pitch cone a) Lead standard coarse thread.
b) Chamfer b) Circular pitch a) all over the surface
c) Crest c) Pitch b) flank
d) Flute d) Mean pitch c) root
4. The surface connecting the cast and roots of the 22. Which of the following type of threads d) top surface
screw thread. recommended for general use? 41. Elastic nut is a locking device that has
a) Lead angle a) UNC a) one small nut is tightened over main nut and
b) Length of engagement b) UNEF main nut tightened against smaller one
c) Top land c) UNF loosening, creating friction jamming.
d) Flank d) NC b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut partly in
5. The theoretical profile of the thread for a length of one 23. It is frequently used in automobile and aircraft work. middle of tightening of screw
pitch in the axial plane on which design forms of both a) UNC c) hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the
the external threads are based. b) UNEF nut and becomes threaded as the nut is
a) Basic form of thread c) UNF screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip.
b) Effective thread d) NC d) Through slots are made at top and a cotter
c) Basic profile of thread 24. Which of the following type of threads are useful in pin is passed through these and a hole in the
d) Design form of external thread aeronautical equipments? bolt and cotter pin splitted and bent in
6. The top and bottom-land for gears is similar formed as a) UNC reverse direction at other end
to crest and ________ for screw thread. b) UNEF 42. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and
a) flank c) UNF surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of
b) root d) NC a least ________ times the diameter of the anchor bolt.
c) flank tooth 25. It is used on bolts for high-pressure pipe flanges, a) 1
d) top land cylinder head studs etc. b) 2
7. Some experiments made at Cornell University showed a) UNC c) 3
that experience mechanic could bread a ________ bolt b) UNEF d) 4
due to nut tightening. c) UNF 43. Foundation bolts should be at least ____________ times
a) 3/8 d) 8UN the diameter of the anchor bolt.
b) 5/8 inch 26. Refers to a screw fastening with a nut on it. a) 12
c) ½ inch a) Bolt b) 14
d) 7/16 inch b) Fastener c) 16
8. The angle included between the sides of the thread c) Rivet d) 18
measured in an axial plane in a screw thread. d) None of these 44. No foundation bolts shall be less than _________ mm
a) Angle of thread 27. Which one that has no nut and turns into a threaded diameter.
b) Angle between thread or 40 deg hole? a) 10
c) Helix angle thread a) Rivet b) 12
d) Half angle thread b) Screw c) 14
9. Length of contact between two mating parts in screw c) Stud bolt d) 16
and nut threads measured axially is called d) U-bolt 45. Anchor bolts should be embedded in concrete at
a) Arc of contact 28. Refers to an old name for an unfinished through bolt, least ___________ times the bolt diameter.
b) Depth of engagement comes with a square. a) 10
c) Length of engagement a) Coupling bolt b) 20
d) Axis of contact b) Machine bolt c) 30
10. Major and minor diameters are commonly used in c) Stud bolt d) 40
a) screw thread d) Automobile bolt 46. The screw thread commonly used for transmission of
b) bolt 29. Which type of bolt that finished all over, usually motion is one of the
c) gear having coarse threads? following types of ___________ threads.
d) all of these a) Coupling bolt a) acme
11. Nominal diameter of bolts is the b) Machine bolt b) vee
a) major diameter c) Stud bolt c) knuckle
b) minor diameter d) Automobile bolt d) British Association
c) stress area 30. A type of bolt distinguished by a short portion of the 47. The spindle of bench vises are usually provided with
d) mean diameter shank underneath the head being square or finned or a) buttress threads
12. A _________ is a kind of thread in which the width of ribbed. b) square threads
the thread and the space between threads are a) Carriage bolt c) acme threads
approximately equal. b) Coupling bolt d) v-threads
a) square thread c) Machine bolt 48. Any device to connect or joint more components.
b) acme thread d) Stud bolt a) Bolt
c) buttress thread 31. It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends that can be b) Screw
d) whit worth thread used where a through bolt c) Fastener
13. A kind of thread that is generally used. is impossible. d) None of the above
a) UNEC a) Carriage bolt 49. When the threads are of opposite hand, the driven
b) UNC b) Coupling bolt screw moves rapidly is known as
c) UNF c) Machine bolt a) Bearing screw
d) UNEF d) Stud bolt b) Compound screw
14. A type of bolt commonly used in the construction 32. A cheap variety of bolt was made in small sizes. c) Differential screw
that is threaded in both ends. a) Stud bolt d) Set screw
a) Stud bolt b) Carriage bolt 50. The threaded length is about _________ times the
b) Acme threaded bolt c) Stove bolt diameters.
c) Square threaded bolt d) Mini bolt a) 1.25
d) Hex bolt 33. A large wood screw is used to fasten machinery and b) 1.5
15. A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts. equipment to a wooden base. c) 1.8
a) Shaver a) Lag screw d) 2.0
b) Tachometer b) Log screw
c) Tensor c) Wood screw
d) Torque wrench d) None of these
16. One of the following is not a tap used for cutting 34. The length of contact in a tapped hole should be a
threads in holes. minimum of about ___________
a) Tapping tap for cast iron.
b) Plug tap a) D
c) Taper tap b) 1.5D
d) Bottoming tap c) 1.2D
17. Type of bolt intended for use in bolting wooden parts d) 2D
together or wood to metal. It has a short portion of shank 35. When the location of bolt is such that it would
just underneath a round head, which is designed to normally be shear, it is better
keep the bolt from turning in the wood when the nut is practice to use a
tightened. a) dummy bolts
a) U-bolt b) mid-pins
b) Carriage bolt c) crank pins
c) Eye bolt d) dowel pins
d) Stud bolt 36. A locking device used to maintain pressure between
18. A cylindrical bar or steel with threads formed around the threads of the bolt and nut.
it and grooves or flutes running lengthwise in it, a) Gasket
intersecting with the threads to form cutting edges. It is b) Lock nuts
used to cut internal threads. c) Lock washer
a) Groove d) Lock out
b) Lap 37. The crest diameter of a screw thread is the same as
c) Tap a) major diameter
d) Flute b) pitch diameter
 TEST 8 d) 8/7 b) copper
18. It is used in high-pressure cylinders. c) bronze
1. Extra flexible hoisting rope applications is a) Thin-walled cylinders d) all of the above
a) 6 x 27 b) Thick-walled cylinders 37. The ratio of the strength of all the inside wires to the
b) 6 x 37 c) Solid-walled cylinders strength of all the wires in the rope
c) 6x9 d) Hard-walled cylinders a) excess strength
d) 6 x 21 19. To obtain safe working pressure the critical pressure, b) reserve strength
2. All terms and abbreviations deal with wire rope should be at least ______ times the working pressure. c) factor of safety
arrangement except this ________ which deals with rope a) 3 d) ratio of factor
materials strength . b) 4 38. The chief usage of wire ropes at the present time is
a) performed c) 5 a) elevators
b) IWRC d) 6 b) cranes
c) Mps 20. The radial pressure between the cylinders at the c) tramways
d) Lang lay surface of contact depends on the ___________ of the d) all of the above
3. One of the following materials is not mentioned for materials. 39. Tests and theoretical investigations by J.F. Howe
wire rope pulley / sheave applications. a) strength indicate that for steel ropes of the ordinary constructions
a) Plastic b) hardness the value of modulus of elasticity is
b) Iron c) modulus of elasticity a) 10,000,000 psi
c) Paper d) modulus of rigidity b) 10,500,000 psi
d) Copper alloy 21. In cross or regular lay ropes the c) 11,000,000 psi
4. The factor of safety generally applied in wire rope a) direction of twist in strands is opposite to the d) 12,000,000 psi
design starts at 3-4 for standing rope application, 5-12 for direction of twist of strands 40. Average mine-hoist practice is to use drums
operating rope and __________ for hazard to life and b) direction of twist of wires and strands are the ______________ times the rope diameter.
properly application like foundry operation. same a) 60 to 70
a) higher value c) wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in b) 60 to 80
b) 7 – 10 opposite direction c) 60 to 90
c) 8 – 10 d) wires are not twisted d) 60 to 100
d) 10 – 18 22. Which of the ropes will be most flexible? 41. What is the recommended sheave diameter for
5. In the selection of wire rope, regular lay means wires a) 6 by 7 haulage rope?
and standards are arranged in the following manner b) 6 by 19 a) 70d
_________ c) 6 by 37 b) 71d
a) twisted in same direction d) 8 by 19 c) 72d
b) twisted in any direction 23. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in d) 73d
c) twisted in opposite direction opposite direction. 42. What is the recommended sheave diameter for
d) twisted in along direction standard hoisting rope?
6. A process of prestressing or over stressing a hollow a) Long lay a) 40d
cylindrical member beyond the elastic range by b) Lang lay b) 45d
hydraulic pressure. c) Regular lay c) 50d
a) Presstage d) Performed d) 55d
b) Stress relieving 24. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in 43. What is the recommended sheave diameter for
c) Auto frettage the same direction. extra-flexible hoisting rope?
d) Countersinking a) Long lay a) 30d
7. When two touching surface have a high contact b) Lang lay b) 31d
pressure and when these surfaces have minute relative c) Performed c) 32d
motion a phenomenon called d) Non-performed d) 33d
a) Carving 25. A type of rope used for haulages, rigging, and 44. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that are
b) Friction guardrails. first wrapped into
c) Fretting a) 6 x 35 IWRC a) pulp
d) Prestressing b) 6 x 25 IWRC b) strands
8. Pipes subject to high pressure are generally made by c) 7 x 7 IWRC c) helices
a) slush casting d) 6 x 8 IWRC d) hemp
b) pressure casting 26. A rope used for general-purpose. 45. The Roebling Handbook suggests minimum design
c) extrusion a) 6 x 15 IWRC factor of guy’s is
d) centrifugal casting b) 6 x 21 IWRC a) 3.0
9. Hoop stress refers to c) 6 x 19 IWRC b) 3.5
a) circumferential tensile stress d) 7 x 26 IWRC c) 4.0
b) compressive stress 27. A type of rope used for lines, hawsers, overheated d) 5.0
c) longitudinal stress cranes, hoists. 46. The Roebling Handbook suggests minimum design
d) radial stress a) 6 x 34 IWRC factor of miscellaneous hoisting equipment is
10. Autfrettage is the method of b) 6 x 35 IWRC a) 3.0
a) calculating stress in thick cylinders c) 6 x 37 IWRC b) 5.0
b) increasing life of thick cylinders d) 6 x 45 IWRC c) 7.0
c) prestressing thick cylinders 28. The regular materials for wire rope are made of d) 9.0
d) relieving thick cylinders a) cast steel 47. An extra flexible rope is
11. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick b) chromium a) 6x7
cylinder is c) wrought iron b) 6 x 19
a) maximum at inner surface and decreases d) high-carbon steel c) 6 x 37
toward outer surface 29. The ultimate strength of improved Plow Steel is in the d) 7x7
b) minimum at inner surface and increases range of 48. The strength of the rope is always ____________ the
towards outer surface a) 200 and 400 ksi sum of the strength of wires
c) minimum at inner and outer surfaces and b) 240 and 280 ksi a) less than
maximum in middle c) 230 and 260 ksi b) more than
d) maximum at inner and outer surfaces and d) 400 and 500 ksi c) equal
minimum in middle 30. The minimum suggested design factor of ________ for d) the same
12. Assuming longitudinal strain to be constant at any ropes miscellaneous hoisting equipment. 49. One of the most popular rope style is
point in the thickness of the cylinder, the radial stress Sr a) 2 a) 6x7
and hoop stress Sh are related as b) 3 b) 6 x 19
a) Sr – Sh = constant c) 4 c) 6 x 37
b) Sr + Sh = constant d) 5 d) 7x7
c) Sr/Sh = constant 31. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended 50. The minimum factor of safety of small hoist is
d) Sr – Sh/Sr = constant limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ___________ for cast iron. a) 3
13. Thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and thickness t a) 200 psi b) 5
when subjected to internal pressure P, if Poisson’s ratio of b) 300 psi c) 7
material is  , the circumferential or hoop strain is c) 400 psi d) 9
a) Pd(1-2)/2tE d) 500 psi
b) Pd(1-2)/ 32. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended
c) Pd(1/2 - )/2tE limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ________ for cast steel.
d) Pd(1/2-)/4tE a) 700 psi
14. A cylinder in which the ratio of the wall thickness to b) 900 psi
the inside diameter is ___________ may be called a thin c) 1000 psi
cylinder d) 1200 psi
a) less than 0.05 33. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended
b) less than 0. limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ___________ for
c) more than 0.05 manganese steel.
d) more than 0.07 a) 2000 psi
15. External pressure tubes in boilers are designed with an b) 2300 psi
apparent factor of safety of c) 2500 psi
a) 1 to 3 d) 3000 psi
b) 4 to 6 34. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that are
c) 5 to 7 first wrapped into
d) 8 to 10 a) layer
16. Refers to a hollow product of round or any other cross b) segment
section having a continuous periphery. c) strands
a) Gear d) none of these
b) Flywheel 35. The designation 6 by 7 indicates the rope is made of
c) Sphere six strands each containing
d) Tube a) 7 pieces
17. The thickness should be multiplied by _________ to b) 7 diameters
obtain the nominal wall thickness. c) 7 wires
a) 5/8 d) 7 strands
b) 8/5 36. Ropes are made of
c) 7/8 a) aluminum alloys
TEST 9 d) Relative strength b) Arc welding when reverse polarity is
17. In a pressure vessel, the usual factor of safety used
1. To avoid brittleness of weld or the residual may be taken as c) Gas welding
stress in the welding it is normally stress relieved of a) 2 d) Welding stainless steel
a) Quenching b) 3 35. Unlike materials or materials of different
b) Normalizing c) 5 thickness can be butt welded by
c) Tempering d) 5 a) Adjusting initial gap
d) Drawing 18. Are resistance welds, usually round in the b) Adjusting time duration of current
2. A of welding whereby a wire or powder from same form as the electrodes that press the sheets c) Control of pressure and current
the nozzle of a spray gun is fused by a gas flame, together d) All of the above
arc or plasma jet and then molten particles are a) Edge joint 36. The phenomenon of weld decay takes place
projected in a form of a spray by means of b) MIG joint in
compressed air or gas is known a c) Spot joint a) Brass
a) Elector-slug building d) TIG joint b) Bronze
b) Electro-beam welding 19. Consists of short lengths (2 to 3 inches long) of c) Cast iron
c) Plasma-arc welding welds with space between as 6 inches on centers. d) Stainless steel
d) Metal spray welding a) Intermittent weld 37. Laser welding is widely used in
3. Weld metal impact specimen shall be taken b) MIG weld a) electronic industry
across the weld with one face substantially parallel c) Spot welds b) Heavy industry
to and within d) TIG welds c) Process industry
a) 3/4in 20. An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the d) Structural work
b) 1/32 in. members in position for assembly purposes or for 38. Up to what thickness of plate, edger
c) ¼ in. principal welding preparation for welding is not needed?
d) 1/16 in. a) Edge weld a) 2 mm
4. A joint between to overlapping members in b) Tack weld b) 4 mm
whom the overlapped edge of one member is c) Back welds c) 8 mm
welded with a fillet weld is called d) Half welds d) 12 mm
a) A single welded lap joint 21. A welding operation that uses hot flame and 39. Grey cast iron is best welded by
b) Double welded lap joint metal rod is known as a) Arc
c) A single welded lap joint with backing a) Gas welding b) MIG
d) Track weld b) Arc welding c) Oxy- acetylene
5. A weld place in groove between two butting c) Resistance welding d) TIG
members is called d) Automatic welding 40. In resistance welding, the pressure is release
a) Full-fillet weld 22. The arc is covered with a welding a) Just at the time of passing the current
b) Tack weld composition and bare electrode wire is fed b) After completion of currents
c) Butt weld automatically c) After the weld cools
d) fillet weld a) Resistance welding d) During heating
6. A weld of approximately triangular cross- b) Submerged arc welding 41. Half corner weld is used
section that join two surfaces at approximately c) Induction welding a) Where severe loading is encountered
right angles as in lap joint, tee joint, corner joint. d) Spot welding and the upper surfaces of both pieces
a) Single welded lap joint 23. Treating the weld as a line, the amount or must be in the same plane
b) Fillet weld inertia about center of gravity of a circular weld or b) Where efficiency of joint should be 50%
c) Tack weld diameter d would b c) Where longitudinal shear is present
d) Butt weld a) 𝜋 d2/36 d) None of the above
7. A fillet weld whose size is equal to the b) 𝜋d2/6 42. Projection welding is
thickness of the inner joint member is called c) 𝜋 d3/36 a) Continuous spot welding process
a) Butt joint d) 𝜋d3/4 b) Multi spot welding process
b) Butt weld 24. For butt welding of two plates each of which c) Used to form frameworks
c) Tack weld is 25 mm thick, the best process would be d) All of the above
d) Full-fillet weld a) TIG welding 43. Reducing flame is obtained in oxy- acetylene
8. A weld made to hold the parts of a b) MIG welding welding with
weldment in proper alignment until the final welds c) Gas welding a) Excess oxygen
are made of d) Electro slag welding b) Excess of acetylene
a) Butt weld 25. What should be the maximum size of the fillet c) Equal parts of both gases
b) Tack weld weld? d) Reduced acetylene
c) Fillet weld a) 2 mm 44. Brasses and bronzes are welded using
d) Full fillet weld b) 3 mm a) Carburizing flame
9. Test is designed primarily for application to c) 5 mm b) Neutral flame
electric-welded tubing for detection of lack of d) 7 mm c) Oxidizing flame
penetration or overlaps resulting from flash removal 26. The maximum size of the fillet weld that can d) Reducing flame
in the weld be made in single pass is 45. One of the following function is not
a) Butt weld a) 3 mm performed by coating on the welding electrodes is
b) Paste b) 6 mm to
c) Lap weld c) 8 mm a) Increase the cooling rate
d) Double butt weld d) 12 mm b) Provide protective atmosphere
10. The internal stresses existing in a welded 27. Which diamond riveted joint can be c) Refuse oxidation
connection are adopted? d) Stabilize the arc
a) Relieved by x-ray analysis a) Butt joint 46. Welding defect called arc blow occurs in
b) Maybe relieved when weld is penned b) Lap joint a) Arc welding using ac current
c) Not relieved when the weld is penned c) Double riveted lap joint b) Arc welding using dc current
d) Not relieved by heat treatment d) All types of joints c) Gas welding
11. A welding operation in which a non-ferrous 28. Wiping is the process of d) MIG welding
fillet metal at a temperature below that of the a) Applying flux during welding process 47. The purpose of using flux in soldering is to
metal joined but is heated above 450C b) Clearing the welded surface after the a) Increase fluidity of solder material
a) Spot welding welding operation is over b) Full up gaps in bad joint
b) Gas welding c) Connecting load pipes by soldering c) Prevent oxide formation
c) Brazing alloy d) Lower the melting temperature of the
d) Arc welding d) Low temperature welding solder
12. Uniting two pieces of metal by means of a 29. A collimated light beam is used for producing 48. The parts are lapped and held in place
different metal which is applied between the two heat in under pressure
in molten state a) Laser welding a) Butt welding
a) Casting b) MIG welding b) Spot welding
b) Welding c) Plasma welding c) Steam welding
c) Soldering d) TIG welding d) Projection welding
d) Brazing 30. During MIG welding the metal is transferred in 49. The parts are brought together lightly with
13. Joining metal by means of high current at the form of current flowing and then separated slightly
low voltage. During the passage of current, a) A fine spray of metal a) Mash weld
pressure by the electrodes produces a forge weld: b) Continuous flow of molten metal b) Steam welding
a) Spot welding c) Electron beam c) Flush welding
b) Resistance welding d) Solution d) Percussion welding
c) Steam welding 31. If “t” is the thickness of sheet to be spot 50. Which of the following produced a series of
d) Gas welding welded then electrode tip diameter is equal to spot welds made by circular or wheel type
14. A fusion process in which the metal is heated a) √𝑡 electrodes?
together into a solid joint. b) 1.5√𝑡 a) Steam welding
a) Electric arc welding c) 2.5√𝑡 b) Mash welding
b) Gas welding d) 2√𝑡 c) Spot welding
c) Spot welding 32. Weld spatter refers to d) Steam welding
d) Projection welding a) Flux
15. As one example, the ASME code for riveted b) Filler material
joints permits the design surface compressive stress c) Welding defect
to be about ________ higher than the design tensile d) Welding electrode
stress. 33. Which of the following metals can be suitably
a) 40% welded by TIG welding?
b) 50% a) Aluminum
c) 60% b) Magnesium
d) 70% c) A and B above
16. In a pressure vessel, the ratio of minimum d) Stainless steel
strength of joint to the strength of solid joint is 34. Arc blow takes place in
known as a) Arc welding when straight polarity is
a) Efficiency used
b) Joint efficiency
c) Performance factor
TEST 10 b) Keeping the solder from running off the temperature above the recrystallization
metal temperature.
1. The soldering material commonly applied for c) Keeping the tip of the soldering iron a) Flash welding
automobile radiator cores and roofing seams. and clean b) Projection welding
a) 15/85 % tin and lead d) Remove and prevent oxidation of the c) Thermit welding
b) 50/50% tin and lead metals d) Resistance welding
c) 45/55% tin and lead 19. Soldering is the process of 35. A fusion welding process in which the
d) 20/80% tin and lead a) Holding two metals together by heating welding heat is obtained from an electric arc set
2. The flux that should be provided in soldering b) Joining two metals by a third soft metal up either between the base metal and one
electrical connection or commutator wires as its that is applied in a molten state electrode or between to electrodes.
tends to corrode the connectors called c) Holding two different kinds of metals a) Arc welding
a) Sal ammoniac together by heating b) Gas welding
b) Zinc chloride d) All of the above c) Fusion welding
c) Stearin 20. Brazing is used for joining d) Spot welding
d) Acid fluxes a) Tow ferrous material 36. Refers to the capacity of a metal to be
3. A brazed joint is ___ soldered joint. b) One ferrous and non-ferrous material joined by welding in a satisfactory manner.
a) Stronger than c) Two non-ferrous metal a) Flame plating
b) The same strength as d) Two non-metals b) Metal spraying
c) Three times as strong as 21. What is the most commonly used flux for c) Metalizing
d) Weaker than brazing? d) Weldability
4. Brazing requires a) Zinc chloride 37. A surfacing method of blasting particles of
a) Hard solder b) Zinc and tin tungsten carbide onto the surface of a piece of
b) Soft solder c) Zinc and copper metal.
c) More heat d) Zinc and lead a) Flame plating
d) Choices A and C 22. Multi spot welding process is also referred as b) Metal spraying
5. What is the reason why lead is used in _____welding c) Metalizing
solders? a) Tack d) Powder pouring
a) It has a high melting point. b) Fillet 38. For fusion welding, efficiency shall be taken
b) It has a low melting point. c) TIG as equal to
c) It is cheap d) Projection a) 80%
d) Choices B and C 23. The maximum temperature developed for b) 60%
6. The higher the melting pint of the solder, the oxy-hydrogen welding is c) 90%
a) Harder the solder joint a) 1755 C d) 95%
b) Softer the solder joint b) 1965 C 39. When the tensile strength of steel shell plates
c) Stronger the solder joint c) 2565 C is not known it shall be taken as
d) Weaker the solder joint d) 3440 C a) 379. 31 N/mm2
7. Special solders used for aluminum usually 24. The maximum temperature developed for b) 565.71 N/mm2
require oxy-acetylene welding is c) 556.17 N/mm2
a) less heat a) 1965 C d) 671.55 N/mm2
b) More heat b) 2565 C 40. Minimum thickness for boiler plate shall be
c) The same heat as copper wire c) 3440 C a) 3.56 mm
d) The same heat as sheet metal d) 4565 C b) 5.36 mm
8. The flux usually used for hard solder is 25. A mixture of aluminum powder and a metal c) 6. 36 mm
a) Alum oxide powder is ignited by a special powder in a d) 6. 56 mm
b) Barium crucible. 41. The strength of iron rivets in single shear
c) Borax a) Thermit welding a) 262 N/mm2
d) Rosin b) Stud welding b) 303 N/mm2
9. Soft solder melts at approximately c) Resistance welding c) 524 N/mm2
a) 250 °F d) Gas welding d) 607 N/mm2
b) 350 °F 26. A welding where an arc is struck between 42. The strength of steel rivets in single shear
c) 450 °F two tungsten electrodes into which a jet of a) 262 N/mm2
d) 550 °F hydrogen is directed b) 303 N/mm2
10. Soft solder is made of a) Atomic hydrogen welding c) 524 N/mm2
a) Copper and zinc b) Electron beam welding d) 607 N/mm2
b) Tin and copper c) Electro slug welding 43. When the longitudinal seams are of lap
c) Tin and lead d) Flash welding riveted construction the minimum factor of safety is
d) Tin and zinc 27. A common rule is to make the rivet hole a) 5
11. Prepared soldered paste flux is most popular diameter from ________ for rivets in single or double b) 6
but if you did not have any, you could use _____ as shear. c) 7
substitute a) 1.2 t to 1.4 t d) 8
a) Hydrochloric acid b) to 44. The maximum allowable working pressure of
b) Nitric acid c) to a non-code steel or wrought iron heating boiler of
c) Sulfuric acid welded construction shall not exceed.
d) to
d) Any of the above a) 0.5 bar
12. Hard solder is made of b) 1.0 bar
a) Copper and zinc 28. Fusion welding is the name frequently given c) 1.5 bar
b) Tin and copper to processes not requiring pressure. It is sometimes d) 2.0 bar
c) Tin and lead called 45. The ASME Boiler Code requires that the edge
d) Tin and zinc a) Flash welding distance must be not less than
13. Soldered will not unite with a metal surface b) Seam welding a) 1.5d
that has c) Spot welding b) 2.0d
a) Dirt on it d) Thermit welding c) 2.5d
b) Grease on it 29. The ratio of the load that will produce the d) 3.0d
c) Oxidation on it allowable stress in any part of the joint to the load 46. A method of resistance welding in which the
d) Any of the above that will produce the allowable tension stress in the heating and the pressure are localized at specified
14. If muriatic acid is used as a flux, the soldered unpunched plate. points by providing embossed or coined
area must be cleaned thoroughly afterwards to a) Efficiency of the welded projections on the pieces to be joined.
prevent b) Efficiency of the jont a) Projection welding
a) Anyone touching it from getting burned c) Performance factor b) Flash welding
b) Remaining acid form eating the metal d) Load factor c) Seam welding
c) The acid form evaporating and the 30. Thicker plates usually require excessive rivet d) Resistance welding
solder disintegrating sizes and for practical reasons the rivet diameter is 47. An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the
d) None of the above made approximately members in position for assembly purposes or for
15. Sweating is the process of a) 1.2t the principal welding.
a) Soldering two different kinds of metal b) 1.2 a) Spot weld
b) Separating two pieces of metal that c) 2t b) Tack weld
have been soldered together d) 2 c) Butt weld
c) Tinning two surfaces, applying flux 31. The process of joining metals by means by d) Fillet weld
them, holding the two together and heating to a temperature above the 48. What type of welding that the hot flame and
heating recrystallization temperature or to fusion with or a metal rod are used?
d) None of the above without the application or pressure a) Seam welding
16. A surface to be soldered should be prepared a) Brazing b) Gas welding
by b) Soldering c) Spot welding
a) Acid cleaning the surfaces c) Welding d) Resistance welding
b) Filing the surfaces d) Seaming 49. It used for joining members of approximately
c) Scraping the surfaces 32. The process of bonding two or more pieces equal in cross-section
d) Any of the above of metal together by means of another metal a) Mash welding
17. One of the most important factors that is whose melting point is below 800⁰F b) Butt welding
often overlooked when soldering is the fact that a) Brazing c) Upset welding
b) Seaming d) Choices B and C
a) The surfaces to be soldered must be c) Soldering 50. The melting point of the filler material in
clean d) Welding brazing is approximately or above.
b) The two metals to be soldered must not 33. The process of joining metal parts by means a) 420⁰F
be the same of a non ferrous fitter or alloy that melts at a b) 600⁰F
c) The two metals to be soldered must be temperature above 800⁰F. c) 800⁰F
the same a) Brazing d) 1000⁰F
d) All surfaces should be dipped in acid b) Seaming
first c) Soldering
18. When soldering, flux is used for d) Welding
34. The process of joining metals in which the two
a) Keeping the metal from getting too hot parts are joined by heating them electrically to a
TEST 11

1. The rule of thumb in journal bearing design, B. The greater the load capacity of C. Radial load
the clearance ratio/clearance should be the bearing D. Peripheral load
A. 0.01001 C. None of these 37. Conrad bearing is also known as
B. 0.0101 D. Variable A. Needle bearing
C. 0.0110 20. Which of the following is considered an B. Ball bearing
D. 0.0010 advantage for bearing materials? C. Roller bearing
2. Also called eccentrically loaded bearing A. Conformability D. Tapered bearing
A. Full bearing B. Embeddability 38. The combined effect of many of the
B. Offset bearing C. Compatibility variables involved in the operation of a bearing
C. Partial bearing D. All of these under hydrodynamic lubrication can be
D. Fitted bearing 21. For thrust bearing the speed at moderate characterized by the dimensionless number called:
3. Wahta type of bearing which totally encloses operating conditions is A. Reynolds Number
the shaft? A. 50<Vm>200 fpm B. Prandtl Number
A. Offset bearing B. 50<Vm>220 fpm C. Grashof Number
B. Central bearing C. 50<Vm>250 fpm D. Sommerfeld Number
C. Babbitt bearing D. 50<Vm> 290 fpm 39. It exits primarily to guide the motion of a
D. Full bearing 22. The 200 series bearing is called machine member without specific regard to the
4. All are functions of lubricating oil except A. Heavy direction of load application.
A. Adhesion B. Light A. radial bearing
B. Corrosion prevention C. Medium B. Journal bearing
C. Act as coolant D. None of these C. Thrust bearing
D. To tighten the load 23. The 300 series bearing is called D. Guide bearing
5. It is considered semi-solid lubricant A. Heavy 40. It carries a load collinear to the axis of
A. Lube oil B. Light possible rotation of the supported member.
B. Graphite C. Medium A. Guide bearing
C. Grease D. None of these B. Journal bearing
D. All of these 24. A type of roller bearing in which the balls are C. Thrust bearing
6. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in assembled by the eccentric displacement of the D. Radial bearing
itself inner ring. 41. The 400 series bearing is called:
A. Zinc A. Shallow-groove ball bearing A. Light
B. Antimony B. Self-aligning ball bearing B. Medium
C. Babbit C. Filling-slot ball bearing C. Heavy
D. Lead D. Deep-groove ball bearing D. Extra heavy
7. Which of the following materials is unsuitable 25. Which of the following is not a type of ball 42. The product of length and diameter of the
as a bearing? bearing? bearing is called:
A. Teflon A. Shallow-groove ball bearing A. Shearing area
B. Low carbon steel B. Self-aligning ball bearing B. Compressive area
C. Cast iron C. Fillet-slot ball bearing C. Projected area
D. Nylon D. Deep-groove ball bearing D. Cross-sectional area
8. Aerostatic bearing is one in which 26. Steel ball for ball bearing are manufactured 43. If the length over diameter of the bearing is
A. The lube oil is supplied under by unity, it is also known as
pressure A. Casting
B. Lube oil is not pressurized B. Cold headling A. Long bearing
C. There is no lube oil C. Rolling B. Short bearing
D. Bearing is lightly loaded D. Turning C. Medium bearing
9. At the same thermal and minimum film, 27. In hydrodynamic bearings D. Square bearing
thickness limitation as sleeve A. The oil film pressure is generated only by 44. A bearing in which the length ratio
A. Ball bearing the rotation of the journal Length/diameter is greater than 1.
B. Roller bearing B. The oil film is maintained by supplying oil A. Short bearings
C. Thrust bearing under pressure B. Long bearings
D. Full bearing C. Do not need external supply of C. Square bearings
10. The desired between two surfaces having lubricant D. Medium bearings
relatively sliding motion is known D. Grease is used for lubrication
A. Lube oil 28. If P = bearing pressure on projected bearing 45. The product of absolute viscosity and
B. Graphite area, Z= absolute viscosity of lubricant, and N = rotational speed divided by the unit loading.
C. Packing speed of journal, then the bearing characteristic A. Section modulus
D. Lubrication number is given by B. Bearing modulus
11. What bearing composed of two principal A. ZN/P C. Shear modulus
parts, namely the B. Z/ PN D. All of the above
A. Bearing and journal C. ZP/ N
B. Clearance and fitted D. P/ZN 46. From the line of radial loading on the bearing
C. Bolt and Babbitt 29. The rated life of a bearing changes to the position of the minimum oil-film thickness.
D. Bolt and cylinder A. Directly as load A. Attitude angle
12. When the line of action of the load bisects B. Inversely as fourth power of load B. Latitude angle
the arc of partial bearing it is said to be: C. Inversely as cube of load C. Longitude angle
A. Eccentrically loaded D. Inversely as square of load D. Altitude angle
B. Fit loaded
C. Centrally loaded 30. In oiless bearing 47. The radial distance between the center of
D. Surface loaded A. The oil film pressure is produced only by the the bearing and the displaced center of the
13. It is the difference in the radii of the bearing rotation of the journal journal is called.
and the journal B. The oil film I maintained by supplying oil under A. Concentricity
A. Even clearance pressure B. Eccentricity
B. Clearance ratio C. Do not need external supply of lubricant C. Embeddability
C. Fit clearance D. Grease is needed to be applied after some D. None of the above
D. Radial clearance intervals 48. Which of the following is an example of solid
14. It is one in which the radii of the journal and 31. A shaft rotating in anticlockwise direction at lubricant?
the bearing are the same slow speed inside a bearing will be A. Molybdenum disulfide
A. Clearance bearing A. At bottom most of bearing B. Graphite
B. Fitted bearing B. Towards left side of bearing and making
C. Full bearing metal to metal contact C. Tungsten disulfide
D. Partial bearing C. Towards left side of bearing and making no D. All of the above
15. The line that passes through centers of the metal to metal contact 49. The length ratio L/D typically varies between
bearing and the journal is called the D. Towards right side of bearing and making A. 0.1 to 0.5
A. Line of action no metal to metal contact B. 0.2 to 0.6
B. Line of centers 32. A machine part that supports another part, C. 0.2 to 0.8
C. Line of tangent which rotates, slides or oscillateds in or on it D. 0.25 to 1.0
D. Under cut A. Journal 50. The operating temperature of the Babbitt is
16. Length-diameter ration was a good B. Bearing limited to
compromise for the general case of hydrodynamic C. Roller A. 200°F
bearings. It is approximately equal to D. Casing B. 300°F
A. 1 33. The part of a shaft or crank which is C. 400°F
B. 2 supported by and turns in bearing. D. 500°F
C. 3 A. Casing
D. 4 B. Bushing
17. Operating temperature of oil film ranges C. Roller
_____________ or less D. Journal
A. 120 F to 190 F 34. It is also called anti-friction bearing.
B. 130 F to 160 F A. Rolling bearing
C. 140 F to 150 F B. Thrust bearing
D. 140 F to 160 F C. Tapered bearing
18. At higher temperature, the oil oxidizes more D. Single row bearing
rapidly above 35. Which of the following is a bearing material?
A. 120F A. Babbitt
B. 140F B. Bronze
C. 160F C. Plastics
D. 200F D. All of the above
19. A conclusion repeatedly verified by 36. It acts toward the center of the bearing
experiments is _____ that the smoother the surface. along a radius.
A. Constant A. Thrust load
B. Tangential load
TEST 12

1. A heavy rotating body which serves as a B. 0.40 to 0.50% C. Full spring

reservoir for absorbing and redistributing kinetic C. 0.50 to 0.60% D. Conical spring
energy. D. 0.60 to 0.70% 37. Cross wire grooves are types which
A. Gear 19. Experimental results indicate that the actual A. Decrease the danger of skidding
B. Brakes frequency of the spring is from B. Absorb shocks because of road
C. Flywheel A. 5 to 10% unevenness
D. Fan B. 10 to 15% C. Provide good faction
2. Which of the following is not a use of spring? C. 15 to 20% D. Provide better load carrying capacity
A. Absorbs energy D. 20 to 25% 38. The _____ of parallel connection of spring is
B. Measure weight 20. According to W.M. Griffirth, the critical always constant
C. Source of energy in clocks frequency of the spring should behold at least Elongation
D. Measure the thickness ________ times the frequency of application of a A. Load
3. The ratio of mean diameter of coil to the coil periodic load. B. Thermal conductivity
diameter A. 5 C. Resistance
A. Wahl factor B. 10 39. Speedometer drive is generally taken from
B. Diameter ratio C. 15 A. Dynamo
C. Spring index D. 20 B. Flywheel
D. Lead angle 21. The actual number of coil is _________ in a C. Gear
4. The overall length of the spring when it is squared and ground ends. D. Front wheel
compressed until all adjacent coils touched. A. n 40. The device for smoothing out the power
A. Compressed length B. n+2 impulses from the engine is known as
B. Free length C. nd A. Clutch
C. Solid length D. ( n + 1) d B. Flywheel
D. None of these 22. The solid length of squared ends is C. Gearbox
5. The length of coil sprig under no load. A. (n+3)d D. Differential
A. Compressed length B. (n+1)d 41. Typical hub length falls between
B. Free length C. np A. 1.25D to 2.4D
C. Solid height D. n+2 B. 1.25D to 5D
D. None of these 23. The free length of ground ends is C. 1.3 D to 3.4D
6. In general, steel spring are made of relatively A. np + 3d D. D to 7D
high carbon steel usually B. np + 2d 42. The recommended coefficient of fluctuation
A. More than 0.5% C. np + d of flywheels for punching, shearing, and pressing
B. 5% D. np machine is
C. Less than 0.5% 24. the shortest length for the spring during A. 0.05 to 0.10
D. 10% normal operation B. 0.03 to 0.05
7. When heat treated wire is coiled cold, it A. compressed length C. 0.002 to 0.005
should be stress relieved for bending stresses after B. operating length D. 0.01 to 0.02
cooling by being heated at some at what C. solid length 43. Attached to the rear end of the crankshaft is
temperature D. free length the
A. 400F 25. the relationship between the force exerted A. Vibration damper
B. 500F by a spring and its deflection is called B. Flywheel
C. 600F A. spring index C. Drive pulley
D. 700F B. spring rate D. Timing gear
8. A low cost spring material, suitable where C. wahl’s factor 44. Flywheel is also known as
service is not severe and dimensional precision is D. Spring angle A. Steering wheel
not needed. 26. The ration of the mean diameter of the spring B. Front wheel
A. Hard drawn wire spring to the wire diameter is called C. Balance wheel
B. Helical spring A. Spring index D. Rear wheel
C. Stainless steel B. Spring ratio 45. What energy is stored in flywheels?
D. Helical tension spring wire C. Spring rate A. Kinetic energy
9. A hard drawn also 80% reduction but it is D. Spring constant B. Internal energy
made of high-grade steel 27. Refers to the axial distance from a point on C. Potential energy
A. Music wire one coil to the corresponding point on the next D. Rest energy
B. Oil tempered wire adjacent coil. 46. What is the function of the flywheel?
C. Song wire A. Lead A. To keep the speed fluctuation within the
D. Chromium- silicon B. Spring distance desired limits
10. A spring wire with good quality for impact C. Pitch B. To limit the momentary rise or fall in speed
loads at moderately high temperature D. Spring deflection during sudden changes of load
A. Hard drawn wire spring 28. The spring index for general industrial uses C. To keep the angular advance or retardation
B. Helical spring wire should be within prescribed limit as compared with a
C. Chromium-silicon A. 5 to 7 perfectly uniform angular speed
D. Helical tension spring wire B. 6 to 8 D. All of the above
11. A type of coil where the helical coil is C. 7 to 9 47. In many flywheel designs, about how many
wrapped into a circle forming an annular ring D. 8 to 10 percent of the weight is concentrated in the hub
A. Volute spring 29. What is the spring index of valve and clutch? and arms
B. Motor spring A. 3 A. 20
C. Hair spring B. 5 B. 30
D. Garter spring C. 7 C. 35
12. A type of spring where thin flat strip wound D. 9 D. 45
up on itself as a plane spiral, usually anchored at 30. Refers to the space between adjacent coils 48. A large rotary machine part whose function is
the inside when the spring is compressed to its operating to store energy and to produce uniform angular
A. Volute spring length velocity of the shaft or reciprocating engine.
B. Motor spring A. Coil allowance A. Cam
C. Hair spring B. Coil tolerance B. Idler
D. Garter spring C. Coil clearance C. Flywheel
13. A type of spring made in the form of dished D. None of these D. Chuck
washer 31. The most practical spring designs produce a 49. A massive wheel, which by its inertia assists in
A. Volute spring pitch angle is less than securing uniform motion of machinery by resisting
B. Motor spring A. 12° sudden changes of speed.
C. Hair spring B. 15° A. Linkage
D. Beleville spring C. 20° B. Crank
14. In laminated spring the strips are provided in D. 25° C. Planetary gears
different lengths for 32. Engine valves get shut by means of D. Flywheel
A. Economy A. Valve lock 50. The function of a flywheel is to
B. Reduction in weight B. Tappet A. Complete the unusual stroke
C. Improved appearance C. Valve spring B. Operated the engines
D. Space consideration of the utility D. Adjusting screw C. Keep the engines weight light
stage 33. Which of the following materials is used for D. None of theses
15. An elastic stored energy machine element leaf and coil spring?
that when released, will recover its basic form A. AISI 3140
A. Flywheel B. AISI 3150
B. Clutch C. AISI 3240
C. Brakes D. AISI 4063
D. Spring 34. The circumference of a coil spring times the
16. When a spring is made of ductile material, effective number of coils is called
the curvature factor would be A. Active length
A. Zero B. Solid length
B. Constant C. Compressed length
C. Unity D. Operating length
D. Positive 35. For spring subjected to light service, the
17. The solid length plus the clearance plus the factor of safety __________ is suggested
maximum deflection. A. 1.5
A. Free length B. 2.0
B. Height C. 2.5
C. Distance D. 3.0
D. Original length 36. Refers to a flat or curved made of thin
18. The majority of coils springs are made of coil superimposed plates and formin a cantilever or
tempered carbon steel wire containing beam of uniform strength.
______________ carbon. A. Laminated spring
A. 0.30 to 0.40% B. Graduated spring
TEST 13
1. A shaft that is used to connect or disconnect D. None of these D. Slip clutch
at will is called: 19. A hydraulic clutch doesn’t incorporate a: 38. Refers to the simplest type of brakes.
A. Clutch A. Clutch plate A. Differential brakes
B. Bearing B. Oil plate B. Block brakes
C. Brake Shaft C. Vacuum plate C. Band brakes
D. Lock Shaft D. None of these D. Brake shoe
2. The frictional forces depend on coefficient of 20. The lining of a brake shoe: 39. The practical length of shoe is limited to
friction and: A. Can be changed about:
A. Torque B. Cannot be fitted A. 75 o
B. Weights of object C. Can be fitted with spring B. 90 o
C. Normal Force D. None of these C. 120 o
D. Moment 21. Due to air effect, the hydraulic brakes D. 180 o
3. Friction devices used to regulate the motion become: 40. If the angle of contact is ______, the pressure
of bodies and with clutches A. More effective between the brakes shoe and the drum cannot be
A. Rollers B. Ineffective considered uniform:
B. Brakes C. Possible A. Less than 45 deg
C. Babbitt D. None of these B. Less than 60 deg
D. Holders 22. The efficiency of hydraulic braking system is: C. Greater than 60 deg
4. The part of the total frictional energy that is A. About 90 percent D. Greater than 120 deg
stored in the brake parts, principally in the drum or B. 60-80 percent 41. It is used to stop the motion of a moving
disk has been estimated at __________. C. 50-60 percent object.
A. 56% up D. 40-50 percent A. Clutch
B. 86% up 23. The SAE recommends an angle of ________ B. Brakes
C. 90% up for cone clutches faced with leather or asbestos or C. Band clutch
D. 75% up having cork inserts: D. Band brake
5. The part of an automobile disc clutch that A. 7.5 o 42. The effectiveness of the brake may greatly
presses against the flywheel is referred to as: B. 9.5 o decrease shortly after it begins to act continuously,
C. 12.5o a phenomenon called:
A. Contact plate D. 14.5o A. Creep
B. Friction plate 24. Why does a clutch create noise? B. Pressurized
C. Pressure plate A. Clutch release bearings is either dry or C. Fade
D. Sliding plate defective D. Worn-out
6. The brake capacity to absorb energy is B. Clutch spring is broken 43. Type of brake under the category of power
known as: C. Clutch is faulty brake is known as:
A. Energy D. All of these A. Servo brake
B. Resistance brake 25. What faults develop in the brakes? B. Band brake
C. A. Brakes do not work properly C. Differential brake
D. Braking torque B. Brakes do not disengage D. Brake shoe
7. If the band warps partly around the brake C. Brake make noise 44. Clutches which are designed to transmit
wheel or drum and brake action is obtained by D. All of these torque for one direction of rotation of the driver
pulling the band tight onto the wheel. This type of 26. Which of the following types of brakes are and then free-wheel or transmit essentially no
brake is known as: also changed while replacing brake lining? torque when the direction of the driver rotation is
A. Block brake A. Brake shoes reversed.
B. Band brake B. Shoe rivets A. Magnetic clutches
C. Clutch C. Shoe spring B. Trip clutches
D. Centrifugal brake D. Block brake C. Overrunning clutches
8. The brake lining operating at temperature 27. Power brakes require ______ power: D. Slip clutches
_____, sintered mixtures containing ceramics are A. Equal 45. The reason for noise at the time of engaging
used: B. Less brake:
A. 750 F to 1000 F C. More A. Back plate being loose or bent
B. 560 F to 900 F D. Pulsating B. Brake shoe being loose or bent
C. 800 F to 1200 F 28. That type of oil is used in the hydraulic brake C. Brake drum could be defective
D. 400 F to 789 F system? D. All of these
9. Hydrodynamic brake is the major type of: A. Engine oil 46. When the vehicle runs brake drum becomes
A. Air brake B. Gear oil hot because of friction of the shoe. This fault is
B. Fluid brake C. Brake oil known as _______
C. Electric brake D. Clutch oil A. Brake lining
D. Spot brake 29. The principal parts of a hydraulic brake B. Brake winding
10. Type of brakes that are capable of stopping system are the master cylinder and the: C. Back plate
the motion of a machine member as well as A. Multi-cylinder D. None of these
retarding its motion B. Wheel cylinder 47. The maintenance of mechanical brake is:
A. Electrical brake C. Brake wire A. Expensive
B. Fluid brake D. Brake shoe B. Economical
C. Air brake 30. In the mechanical brake system, the main C. Costly
D. Mechanical brake function is of: D. None of these
11. It is considered as the simplest type of A. Spring 48. What is the most common defect of clutch?
mechanical brake. B. Cam A. Slip of the clutch
A. Differential brake C. Shoe adjuster B. Clutch does not disengage
B. Block brake D. Shoe rivets properly
C. Band brake 31. In motor vehicles, there is a __________ in C. Clutch creates noise
D. Brake shoe addition of foot brake. D. All of these
12. The friction devices used to connect shafts: A. Hand brake 49. The act keeping some pressure on the clutch
A. Brakes B. Hydraulic brake pedal at the time of driving is known as:
B. Clutches C. Mechanical brake A. Hydraulic clutch
C. Spring D. Band brake B. Slip of the clutch
D. Holder 32. Which of the following is also used in the C. Riding on clutch
13. A clutch that has a disadvantage of heavier suspension system? D. Clutch adjustment
rotary masses. A. Shock absorbers 50. Which of the following shortcoming in the
A. Multiple disc clutch B. Brake shoes cone clutch because of which the clutch is not
B. Disc cluth C. Cams used?
C. Cone clutch D. Block brakes A. Clutch slips quickly
D. None of these 33. There are ______ plates in a multi-plate clutch B. It occupies more space
14. The overrunning clutch A. More than one C. Adjustment has to be done early
A. Should be oiled B. Less than four D. All of these
B. Should be repacked with grease C. More than ten
C. Cannot be lubricated D. Less than one
D. Contains no lubricant 34. Hydraulic clutches are used in _______
15. The overrunning clutch: vehicles.
A. Transmits cranking force to the A. Costly
engine flywheel B. Foreign made
B. Is one way clutch C. Cheap
C. Prevents the engine flywheel from D. Affordable
driving the starting motor 35. Which of the following is mounted inside the
D. All of these clutch?
16. Clutch gear box, differential etc. are the A. An engine
parts of: B. Gear box propeller shaft
A. Charging system C. Both the rear axle
B. Transmission system D. All of these
C. Cooling system 36. Which clutch is suitable for mine hoists and
D. None of these other services where heavy loads are
17. In motor vehicles, it is very common practice accompanied by severe shock?
to use a: A. Band clutch
A. Multiple clutch B. Block clutch
B. Hydraulic clutch C. Centrifugal clutch
C. Cone clutch D. Expanding ring clutch
D. Single plate clutch 37. It is used to protect a machine in case of
18. The clutch finger is pushed by jamming and for overload protection of motors
A. Clutch fork and engine
B. Clutch A. Dry fluid clutch
C. Clutch bearing B. Magnetic clutch
C. Eddy clutch
TEST 14

1. It is ideal for maximum quietness in sprocket B. 85% B. 7 in.

drive operation to choose _____ or more teeth. C. 88% C. 8 in.
A. 25 D. 100% D. 9 in.
B. 26 19. The tension in the belt due to centrifugal 37. According to the Goodrich company, the
C. 27 force increases rapidly above permissible net belt pull is ____ that it gives a simple
D. 28 A. 2500 fpm means for quick estimation
2. It is recommended for high speed B. 3000 fpm A. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width
application that the minimum number of teeth in C. 3500 fpm B. 15.75 lb/ply per inch of width
small sprocket should be: D. 4000 fpm C. 16.75 lb/ply per inch of width
A. 12 to 20 20. Experience suggests that the most D. 17.75 lb/ply per inch of width
B. 18 to 24 economical designs are obtained for a belt speed 38. Which type of chain is used in motorcycle?
C. 16 to 32 of: A. Bush roller
D. 14 to 28 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm B. Pintle
3. Consider a maximum safe center distance of B. 3000 to 4000 fpm C. Silent
should be _____ pitches. Very long center distance C. 4000 to 4500 fpm D. None of these
caused catenaries tension in the chain D. 4000 to 4000 fpm 39. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller
A. 70 21. For leather belts, recommended speed is: sprocket for low speeds is:
B. 80 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm A. 12
C. 90 B. 4000 to 5000 fpm B. 14
D. 100 C. 6000 to 7500 fpm C. 16
4. The recommended lubricant for the chain D. 7000 to 8000 fpm D. 18
drive operation is: 22. For fabric belts, recommended speed is: 40. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller
A. SAE 4140 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm sprocket for moderate speeds is:
B. Petroleum Oil B. 2000 and more fpm A. 15
C. Moly slip C. 3000 to 4000 fpm B. 17
D. Heavy grease D. 4000 to 4500 fpm C. 19
5. Type of leather belt being applied with 23. In high speed, centrifugal blowers, it has D. 21
waterproof cement is called: been observed that the arc of contact reduced 41. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller
A. Combination of Oak/Mineral from 180 deg at rest to _______ in motion sprocket for high speeds is:
Tanned A. 90 deg A. 19
B. Oak Tanned B. 95 deg B. 21
C. Mineral Tanned C. 100 deg C. 23
D. All of these D. 110 deg D. 25
6. What type of leather belting should be used 24. The recommended initial tension of belt is: 42. For maximum quietness, use sprockets with
at an ambient temperature above 149 deg F and A. 75 lb/in of width _____ or more teeth
possible acid liquid coming in contact with the B. 71 lb/in of width A. 21
belt? C. 73 lb/in of width B. 23
A. Mineral Tanned D. 80 lb/in of width C. 25
B. Combination of Oak 25. The recommended net belt pill for rubber belt D. 27
C. Oak Tanned is: 43. For the average application a center
D. None of these A. 11.34 lb/ply per inch of width distance equivalent to ____ pitches of chain
7. It is recommended not to have a direct drive B. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width represents good practice.
and drive sprockets if the raio of their teeth C. 16.35 lb/ply per inch of width A. 10 to 20
exceeds _______ use two or more combination D. 20.34 lb/ply per inch of width B. 20 to 30
A. 10 times 26. If two intersecting shafts are to be belt C. 30 to 50
B. 8 times connected, how many guide pulley/s is used? D. 40 to 60
C. 5 times A. 1 44. The tension ratio of flat belt is:
D. 6 times B. 2 A. 2
8. Flat leather belting not recommended for use C. 3 B. 3
in a speed in excess of ________ fpm D. 4 C. 4
A. 3600 27. Two shafts at right angles to each other may D. 5
B. 4800 be connected by the _____ arrangement 45. The tension ratio of V-belt is:
C. 6000 A. Half turn A. 2
D. All of these B. Three-fourths turn B. 3
9. V-belts operate efficiently at speed of about: C. One turn C. 4
A. 4500 fpm D. Quarter turn D. 5
B. 4400 fpm 28. It offers long life, high efficiency and low cost 46. Balata belt is about _____ stronger than
C. 4200 fpm and low maintenance rubber
D. 3600 fpm A. Flat belt A. 10%
10. It is advised that in rubber belts application B. V-belt B. 15%
mounting, it should have an initial tesion of _______ C. Tooth belt C. 20%
A. 18 to 24 D. All of these D. 25%
B. 15 to 20 29. It is used to connect pulleys to convey 47. The coefficient of friction between the belt
C. 12 to 15 materials by transmitting motion and power and the pulley for leather belt running on steel
D. 10 A. Rope pulley is:
11. In shear pin or breaking pin design, we may B. Wires A. 0.1
use the date experience by Link-Belt for 1/8 inch C. Belt B. 0.2
pins and the breaking stress is __________ ksi. D. Flat C. 0.3
A. 40 30. A crossed belt wider than ______ inches D. 0.5
B. 55 should be avoided 48. The capacity of a crossed belt should be
C. 50 A. 7 reduced to _____ that of an open belt
D. 48 B. 8 A. 25%
12. A type of V-belts to use in a driving pulley C. 9 B. 50%
with a speed of 260 rpm and transmitting 5 hp D. 10 C. 60%
A. Type C belts 31. If the pulley ratio is 3:1 or more, the reduction D. 75%
B. Type B belts should be: 49. What is the usual factor of safety used with
C. Type A belts A. 25% leather belts?
D. Type D belts B. 50% A. 3
13. Belt slip may take place because of: C. 75% B. 5
A. Loose load D. 95% C. 7
B. Heavy Belt 32. The advantage of flat belt is that: D. 10
C. Driving pulley too small A. It can be used with high-speed 50. In practice, it is found that arcs less than
D. All of these drives ______ required high belt tensions.
14. A single ply leather belt running at a belt B. It can be used in dusty and A. 155o
velocity of 300ft/min is likely to transmit ____ per abrasive environments B. 165o
inch of width C. It allows long distances between C. 175o
A. 2.5 hp shafts D. 180o
B. 3.0 hp D. All of these
C. 4.0 hp 33. The best leather has an ultimate strength of
D. 5.0 hp about
15. What is the density of a leather belt? A. 3000 psi
A. 0.035 lb/in3 B. 4000 psi
B. 0.0253 lb/in3 C. 5000 psi
C. 0.046 lb/in3 D. 6000 psi
D. 0.074 lb/in3 34. Initial tensions should range from ___ for
16. What is the density of flat belt rubber leather belts and 10 to 12 lb/ply per inch of width
material? for rubber belts
A. 0.055 lb/in3 A. 200 to 240 psi
B. 0.045 lb/in3 B. 220 to 260 psi
C. 0.0725 lb/in3 C. 240 to 280 psi
D. 0..0726 lb/in3 D. 260 to 300 psi
17. The breaking strength of oak tanned belting 35. The density of a balata belt is:
varies from 3 to more than A. 0.031 lb/in3
A. 5 ksi B. 0.42 lb/in3
B. 6 ksi C. 0.51 lb/in3
C. 7 ksi D. 0.61 lb/in3
D. 8 ksi 36. In the selection of the proper belt, it is not
18. If the ends are joined by wire lacing with considered good practice to use single-ply leather
machine, the usual efficiency of joint is: belts more than ____ wide
A. 75% A. 6 in.
TEST 15
1. The minimum recommended worm pitch 18. The reciprocal of a diametrical pitch or the C. 340 – 350 normal
diameter is ¼ in and the maximum is: ratio of pitch diameter to number of teeth is called: D. All of these
A. 1 ¾ in A. Lead 35. The path of contact involute gears where the
B. 2 ¾ in B. Module force/power is actually transmitted, it is a straight
C. 3 in C. Involute imaginary line passing through the pitch point and
D. 2 in D. Clearance tangent to the base circle is known as _____.
2. Vertex distance is a term used in ____ gearing 19. For evenly distributed and uniform wear on A. Principal Reference Plane
A. Spiral each meshing gear tooth, the ideal design B. Pitch point
B. Worm practice is to consider a: C. Front Angle
C. Bevel A. Wear resistance alloy addition to D. Line of Action
D. Zerol tooth gear 36. _______ is the angle at the base cylinder of an
3. The arc of action to circular pitch or length of B. Heat treatment of the gears involute gear that the tooth maxes with the gear
action to base pitch C. Hardening of each axis
A. Approach D. Hunting tooth addition A. Base Helix Angle
B. Contact ratio 20. It is used to transmit power at high velocity B. Pressure Angle
C. Arc of action ratios between non-intersecting shafts that are C. Arc of Recess
D. Arc of approach usually but not necessarily at right angle. D. Arc of Approach
4. Recommended hardness of pinion for A. Helical gear 37. Fillet radius in machine parts is usually
helical/herringbone gear tooth should be _____ B. Bevel gear introduced to:
BHN point to sustain life: C. Worm gear A. Improve the look of the patch
A. 50-58 D. Spiral gear B. Reduce concentration of stress and
B. 48-65 21. In gear design, the ratio of pitch diameter, in extend life of the parts
C. 40-50 inches to the number of teeth is called: C. Avoid obstruction
D. 30-60 A. Module D. Necessary to lessen casting
5. In designing gears of power transmission, B. Diametral Pitch weight
consider and efficiency of _____ as recommended. C. English Module 38. A type of gear tooth cut inside a cylinder or
A. 96% or more D. Circular Pitch ring is termed as:
B. 89% or more 22. The concave portion of tooth profile where it A. Rack Gear
C. 85% or more joints the bottom of the tooth filler curve is called: B. Ring Gear
D. 98% or more A. Fillet curve C. Miter Gear
6. The surface of the gear between the fillets of B. Fillet radius D. Internal Gear
adjacent teeth is called: C. Bottom depth 39. The length of arc between the two sides of a
A. Bottom land D. Fillet gear tooth on the pitch circle.
B. Flank A. Circle Thickness
C. Top land 23. The distance of the tooth, which is equal to B. Axial Plane
D. Flank of tooth the sum of the addendum and dedendum is C. Helix Angle
7. Bevel gears subjected to corrosion and lightly known as: D. Chordal Curves
loaded are usually made of: A. Full depth 40. Which of the following materials to be utilized
A. Bronze B. Whole depth to reduce cost in the manufacture of large worm
B. Brass C. Working depth gears?
C. Duralumin D. Dedendum A. Alloyed Aluminum
D. All of these 24. It is used to change rotary motion to B. Bronze Rim with Cast Iron Spider
8. If a set of spur gears are made installed and reciprocating motion. C. Cast Iron Rim with Bronze Spider
lubricated properly, they normally may be A. Helical Gear D. All of these
subjected to failures like: B. Rack Gear 41. A circle bounding the bottom of the teeth
A. Tooth spalling C. Worm Gear A. Addendum Circle
B. Tooth penning D. Spur Gear B. Addendum Cylinder
C. Pitting 25. Tooth width measure along the chord at the C. Pitch Circle
D. Shearing pitch circle is known as: D. Dedendum Circle
9. Which of the following is an example of A. Flank 42. ______ is one in which angle is 90 degrees
rectilinear translation? B. Face Width that is the pitch cone has become a plane
A. Locomotive wheels C. Width of face A. Crown Gear
B. Rack gear D. Chordal Thickness B. Angular Gear
C. Piston of an engine 26. _______ is the difference of addendum and C. Miter Gear
D. Jack dedendum, which is equivalent to the whole depth D. Spiral Gear
10. For economical cost in the manufacturing less working depth. 43. A ______ formed by elements, which are
large worm gears, the following materials are A. Fillet Space perpendicular to the elements of the pitch cone at
usually applied: B. Fillet Radius the large end.
A. Bronze rim with cast steel spider C. Clearance A. Cone Distance
B. Cast iron rim with bronze spider D. Backlash B. Back Cone
C. Cast steel rim with brass spider 27. For moderate speed of mating gears, the C. Root Cone
D. Alloyed aluminum rim with cast ideal ratio contact is: D. Cone Center
iron spider A. 1.25 – 4.00 44. A bevel gear of the same size mounted on a
11. Intermediate gear is also called ____ gear in B. 1.20 – 1.45 shaft at 90 degrees is called:
a gear train engagement. C. 1.00 – 1.30 A. Crown Gear
A. Idler D. 1.35 – 1.45 B. Spur Gear
B. Pinion 28. The distance a helical gear or worm would C. Angular Gear
C. Third gear thread along its axis in one revolution if it free to D. Miter Gear
D. Mounted gear move axially is called: 45. Gearing in which motion or power that is
12. The distance of a helical gear or worm would A. Length of action transmitted depends upon the friction between the
thread along its axis in one revolution if it were to B. Length of contact surfaces in contact
move axially is called: C. Land A. Bevel Gears
A. Lead D. Lead B. Spur Friction wheels
B. Thread 29. Hyphoid gear is a special type of gear like: C. Evans Friction Cones
C. Pitch A. Worm Gear D. Friction Gearing
D. Land B. Spur Gear 46. Wheels are sometimes used for the
13. Range of helix angle on helical gear is C. Herring Gear transmission of high power when an approximately
_________. D. Bevel Gear constant velocity ratio is desired is called:
A. Less than 18 30. What type of gear is used for high-speed A. Bevel Cones
B. 15 - 25 operation? B. Friction Gearing
C. 20 - 35 A. Helical C. Spur Friction Wheels
D. 35 – 40 B. Spur D. Evans Friction Wheels
14. What will be the effect in bushing gears C. Bevel 47. The frustums of two cones used in a manner
without backlash? D. Worm to permit a variation of velocity ratio between two
A. Jamming 31. In a pair of gears, _____ is the plane parallel shafts are called:
B. Overheating perpendicular to the axial plane and tangent to A. Evans Friction Cones
C. Overload the pitch surface. B. Bevel Cones
D. All of these A. Pitch C. Spherical Cones
15. The amount by which the width of a tooth B. Pitch Plane D. Friction
space exceeds the thickness of the engaging C. Pitch Circle 48. If gears cannot, parallel shafts, they are
tooth on the pitch circles D. Pitch point called:
A. Backlash 32. What type of gear, which can transmit power A. Cycloidal Gears
B. Clearance at a certain angle? B. Helical Gears
C. Undercut A. Helical Gear C. Spur Gears
D. Chordal thickness B. Worm Gear D. Toothed Gears
16. Height of tooth above pitch circle or radial C. Bevel Gear 49. ______ is used to transmit power between
distance between pitch circles and top land of the D. Herringbone Gear shafts axis of which it intersect
tooth is called: 33. _______ commonly used in a parallel shaft A. Spur Gears
A. Top tooth transmission especially when a smooth continuous B. Bevel Gears
B. Addendum action is essential as in high speed drives up to C. Helical Gears
C. Land 12,000 fpm. D. Straight Bevel Gears
D. Hunting A. Bevel Gear 50. The space between the adjacent teeth is
17. In involutes teeth, the pressure angle is often B. Herringbone Gear called:
defined as the angle between the line of action C. Spur Gear A. Tooth
and the line of tangent to pitch circle. It is termed D. Helical Gear B. Flank
as: 34. The hardness of helical and herringbone gear C. Backlash
A. Helix angle teeth after heat treatment is 210 to 300 Brinell D. Width
B. Angle of recess Hardness, for gear and pinion is at:
C. Angle of obliquity A. 360 Brinell minimum
D. Arc of action B. 400 Brinell maximum
TEST 16

1. Tooth width measurement along the chord at D. Tooth Space 35. _______ is the average tangential force on
the pitch circle 18. The portion of a gear tooth that projects the teeth is then obtained from the horsepower
A. Chord Space above or outside the pitch circle A. Total load
B. Chord Clearance A. Top Relief B. Separation load
C. Chordal Thickness B. Dedendum C. Pressure load
D. Chordal Length C. Addendum D. Tangential load
2. Herringbone gears are gears which: D. Tooth Space 36. The service factor of a gear may be taken as
A. Do not operate parallel shafts 19. The distance from the center of one tooth of ____ _is an electric motor drives a centrifugal
B. Have a line contact between the a gear to the center next consecutive tooth blower
teeth measured on the pitch. A. 1
C. Tend to produce and thrust on the A. Circular Pitch B. 2
shafts B. Module C. 3
D. Consists of two left handed helical C. Diametral Pitch D. 4
gears D. Circular Pitch 37. The kind of a wear occurs because of a
3. In usual spur gearing, the: 20. The number of teeth per inch of pitch fatigue failure of the surfaces material as a result of
A. Pitch circle and base circle are the diameter and which gives some indications of the high contact stresses is known as:
same size of the gear teeth A. Slotting
B. Working depth induces clearance A. Module B. Pitting
C. Tooth outline are always cycloidal B. Pitch Circle C. Involuting
curves C. Diametral Pitch D. Curving
D. Tooth outlines are usually involute D. Circular Pitch 38. ______ is caused by foreign matter such as
curves 21. An imaginary circle passing through the grit or metal particles or by a failure of the oil film at
4. _____ is a kind of gear used to transmit motion points at which the teeth of the meshing gears low speed
from one shaft to another shaft at angle to the first contact each other. A. Suction
A. Worm Gear A. Pitch Circle B. Scoring
B. Bevel Gear B. Addendum Circle C. Abrasion
C. Helical Gear C. Dedendum Circle D. Corrosion
D. Spur Gear D. Base Circle 39. _______ occurs when the oil film fails but in this
5. A circle coinciding with a tangent to the 22. If the lead angle of a worm is 22.5 degrees case, the load and speed are so high that the
bottom of the tooth spaces then the helix angle will be ______ surface metal is melted and the metal is melted
A. Pitch Circle A. 45 degrees and the metal is smeared down the profile.
B. Root Circle B. 67.5 degrees A. Abrasion
C. Base Circle C. 22.5 degrees B. Corrosion
D. Outside Circle D. 90 degrees C. Spalling
6. A circle the radius of which is equal to the 23. Refers to the smallest wheel of a gear train D. Scoring
distance from the gear axis to the pitch point A. Pinion 40. _______ is a surface fatigue of greater extent
A. Pitch Circle B. Idler than pitting that is the flakes are much larger. This
B. Root Circle C. Spur type of failure occurs in surface-hardened teeth.
C. Base Circle D. Driver A. Abrasion
D. Outside Circle 24. Spiral Gears are suitable for transmitting: B. Corrosion
7. Ratio of pitch diameter to the number of A. Small power C. Spalling
teeth B. Any power D. Scoring
A. Diametral Pitch C. Huge power 41. Buckingham says that mating phenolic gears
B. Module D. Pulsating power with steel of BHN less than ____ leads to excessive
C. Contact Ratio 25. Zero axial thrust is experienced in: abrasive wear
D. Helical Overlap A. Helical gears A. 200
8. A kind of gear used for duty works where a B. Herringbone gears B. 300
large ratio of speed is required and are extensively C. Spiral gears C. 400
used in speed reducer is known as: D. Bevel gears D. 500
A. Worm Gear 26. Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary 42. ____ is the extra tooth in gear, which is used
B. Spiral Gear motion between two shafts whose axes are: to distribute the wear more evenly.
C. Helical Gear A. Parallel A. Hunting tooth
D. Bevel Gear B. Non-coplanar B. Tooth profile
9. The ratio of the number of teeth to the C. Non-intersecting C. Dummy tooth
number of mm of pitch diameter equals number of D. None of these D. Add tooth
gear teeth to each mm pitch diameter 27. According to the law of gearing: 43. The length of the hub should not be made
A. Diametral Pitch A. Teeth should be involute type ____ the face width of the gear.
B. Module B. Clearance between mating teeth A. Less than
C. Circular Pitch should be provided B. Equal
D. English Module C. Dedendum should be equal to 1.57 M C. Greater
10. The depth of tooth space below the pitch D. None of these D. None of these
circle 28. Gears for watches are generally 44. _____ is a gear that has teeth cut on the
A. Dedendum manufactured by: inside of the rim instead of on the outside
B. Working Depth A. Die casting A. External gear
C. Full Depth B. Machining on hobber B. Involute gear
D. Tooth Depth C. Machining on a gear shaper C. Stub gear
11. The total depth of a tooth space, equal to D. Stamping D. Annular gear
addendum plus Dedendum 29. In case of gears, the addendum is given by 45. To estimate fouling, let the minimum
A. Full Depth A. One module differences in tooth numbers between the internal
B. Working Depth B. 2.157 x module gear and pinion be _____ for 14.5 deg involute
C. Whole Depth C. 1.57 x module depth
D. Dedendum D. 1.25 x module A. 10 teeth
12. A circle coinciding with a tangent to the 30. In case of cross helical worm, the axes of two B. 12 teeth
bottom of the tooth space shafts are: C. 14 teeth
A. Root circle A. Parallel D. 16 teeth
B. Pitch circle B. Intersecting 46. The loss pair of spur, helical or bevel gears in
C. Addendum circle C. Non-parallel an ordinary train should not exceed:
D. Dedendum D. Non-parallel/non-intersecting A. 4%
13. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the 31. In case of spur gears, the flank of the tooth is: B. 6%
top of the teeth of an internal gear A. The part of the tooth surface lying C. 2%
A. Pitch diameter below the pitch surface D. 5%
B. Root diameter B. The curve forming face and flank 47. The typical helix angle ranges from _____ to
C. Internal diameter C. The width of the gear tooth measured _____
D. Central diameter axially along the pitch surface A. 10 deg to 12 deg
14. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical D. The surface of the top of the tooth B. 12 deg to 15 deg
surface. 32. A reverted gear train is one in which: C. 14 deg to 20 deg
A. Outer gear A. The direction of rotation of first and last D. 15 deg to 25 deg
B. External gear gear is opposite 48. _____ is the advance of the tooth in the face
C. Spiral gear B. The direction of rotation of first and last width divided by circular pitch.
D. Helical gear gear is the same A. Face contact ratio
15. Addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth C. The first and last gear are essentially on B. Speed ratio
A. Cycloid separate but parallel shafts C. Profile ratio
B. Epicycloid D. None of these D. Advance ratio
C. Straight Rack 33. For best running conditions of a gear, the 49. The distance between the teeth measured
D. Involute contact ratio should be about: on the pitch surface along a normal to the helix
16. When meshed with a gear, it is used to A. 1.25 to 1.40 A. Lead
change rotary motion to reciprocating motion is: B. 1.20 to 1.45 B. Lead angle
A. Gear Shaft C. 1.34 to 1.56 C. Normal circular pitch
B. Gear Tooth D. 1.62 to 1.45 D. Pitch
C. Gear Rack 34. The _____ full depth teeth have the 50. The hardness of a helical and herringbone
D. Gear Motor advantages of the greater capacity and less teeth cut after heat treatment will generally fall
17. The portion of a gear tooth space that is cut interference trouble. between the limits of ______.
below the pitch circle and is equal to the A. 14.5o A. 210 and 300 Brinell
addendum plus the clearance B. 24o B. 147 and 300 Brinell
A. Root C. 20o C. 230 and 320 Brinell
B. Dedendum D. 30o D. 220 and 320 Brinell
C. Addendum
TEST 17
1. Helical gears mounted on non-parallel shafts 36. When the number of teeth in a pair of
are called _____ 19. If a big gear is moved by a small gear then meshing gears are such that they do not have a
A. Open gear the big gear common divisor.
B. Crossed helical gear A. Will not rotate
C. Closed helical gear B. Will rotate reverse direction A. Dummy
D. Herringbone gear C. Will not rotate fastly B. LCD
2. _____ is used to connect intersecting shafts, D. None of these C. Add it
usually but not necessarily at 90 degrees 20. ______ are bevel gears mounted on D. Hunting
A. Bevel gear intersecting shafts at angle other than 90 degrees. 37. For internal gears having a 20 degree
B. Helical gear A. Right angle gears pressure angle and full depth teeth, the difference
C. Spur gear B. Half gears between the number of teeth in a gear and pinion
D. Worm gear C. Inclined gears should not be less than ______.
3. Bevel gear teeth are built with respect to a D. Angular gears A. 10
____ rather than to a pitch cylinder as ion spur 21. The pitch angle is 90 degrees that is, the pitch B. 12
gears. has become a plane C. 14
A. Pitch pedal A. Atten gear D. 16
B. Pitch profile B. Crown gear 38. Zerol bevel gears angle should have a pinion
C. Pitch cone C. Cool gear either not less than:
D. Cylinder D. Hiphap gear A. 15 teeth
4. It refers to the length of pitch cone in a bevel 22. ____ is used to transmit power between non- B. 16 teeth
gear intersecting shafts, nearly always at right angle to C. 17 teeth
A. Cone center each other D. 18 teeth
B. Lead A. Spur gear 39. _______ are machine elements that transmit
C. Center distance B. Ordinary gear motion by means of successively engaging teeth.
D. Pitch C. Bevel gear A. Sprockets
5. Refers to the cone that is performed by the D. Worm gear B. Gears
elements of top lands 23. What are the two types of construction for C. Tooth belt
A. Face cone the worm? D. Annular
B. Root face A. Shell and cylindrical 40. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth
C. Dial face B. Shell and zigzag travels from the first point and contact with the
D. Pitch face C. Shell and integral mating tooth to the pitch point is called:
6. The cone formed by the elements of bottom D. Tube and integral A. Arc of contact
lands 24. The standard pressure angle for fine pitch B. Arc of approach
A. Face cone gears is ______ gears and is recommended for most C. Arc of recess
B. Root cone applications D. Arc of action
C. Back cone A. 14.5 degrees 41. Height of tooth above pitch circle or the
D. Rake cone B. 16 degrees distance between the pitch circle and the top of
7. An imaginary cone whose elements are C. 20 degrees the tooth is called:
perpendicular to the pitch cone elements at the D. 21 degrees A. Dedendum
large end of the tooth. 25. The contact ratio of a pair of mating spur B. Addendum
A. Front cone gears must be well over ____ to insure a smooth C. Working depth
B. Side cone transfer of load from one pair of teeth to the next D. Total depth
C. Rear cone pair. 42. The circle that bounds the outer ends of the
D. Back cone A. 1.0 teeth.
8. _____ is one whose tooth profiles consists of B. 2.0 A. Addendum circle
straight elements that converge to a point at the C. 3.0 B. Dedendum circle
cone center. D. 4.0 C. Pitch circle
A. Circular bevel gear 26. As general rule contact ratio should not be D. Root circle
B. Straight bevel gear less than: 43. The angle through which the gear turns from
C. Path bevel gear A. 1:1 the time a given pair of teeth are in contact at the
D. Herringbone gear B. 1:2 pitch point until they pass out the mesh
9. The desired quality in gear is C. 1:3 A. Pressure angle
A. Quietness D. 1:4 B. Angle of action
B. Durability 27. Surface roughness on active profile surfaces C. Angle of approach
C. Strength on gear is about ____ pitch D. Angle of recess
D. All of these A. 30 44. The angle through which the gear turns from
10. Straight and zerol bevel gears should not be B. 32 the time a particular pair of teeth comes into in
sued when the pitch line velocity is greater than: C. 34 contact until they go out the contact.
A. 800 rpm D. 36 A. Pressure angle
B. 850 rpm 28. Tooth breakage on gear is usually: B. Angle of action
C. 875 rpm A. A tensile fatigue C. Angle of approach
D. 900 rpm B. A contact stress D. Angle of recess
11. The spiral bevel gears are recommended C. A crack 45. The angle through which the gear tirns from
when the pitch line speed exceeds: D. None of these the time a particular pair of teeth come into in
A. 1000 fpm 29. AGMA means: contact until they are in contact at the pitch point
B. 1100 fpm A. American German Manufacturer Association A. Pressure angle
C. 1500 fpm B. Athletic Gear Main Association B. Angle of action
D. 2000 fpm C. American Gear Metal Association C. Angle of approach
12. When the pitch line speed is above 800 fpm D. American Gear Manufacturer Association D. Angle of recess
the teeth should be: 30. Which of the following does not belong to 46. Arc of the circle through which a tooth
A. Ground after hardening the group? travels from the point of contact with the mating
B. Should be cooled in air A. Tooth scoring tooth to the pitch point is called:
C. Should be quenched after B. Tooth breakage A. Arc of contact
D. None of these C. Pitting B. Arc of approach
13. ______ have curved teeth as in spiral bevels, D. Toughing C. Arc of recess
but with zero angle. 31. Well proportion commercial gears with a D. Arc of action
A. Spiral gears pitch line velocity of less than _____ will normally not 47. The ratio of the arc of approach to the arc of
B. Zerol bevel gears score if they have a reasonably good surface finish action
C. Zero bevel gears and are properly lubricated. A. Approach ratio
D. Straight bevel gears A. 6000 fpm B. Action ratio
14. ______ is a gear that has an advantage of B. 6500 fpm
smoother tooth engagement quietness of C. 7000 fpm C. Recess ratio
operation greater and higher permissible speeds. D. 8000 fpm D. Contact ratio
A. Zerol bevel gear 32. Experimental data from actual gear unit 48. In a pair of gear, it is the plane that contains
B. Straight bevel gear measurements are seldom repeatable within a plus two axes in a simple gear; it may be any plane
C. Hypoid bevel gear or minus ______ band containing the axes and the given point.
D. Spiral bevel gear A. 5% A. Axial plane
15. When the pair of bevel gears of the same size B. 10% B. Central plane
is on shafts intersecting at right angle, they are C. 15% C. Normal plane
called _____ D. 20% D. Transverse plane
A. Mold gear 33. Pitting is a function of the Hertzian contact 49. Arc of the pitch circle which a tooth travels
B. Helix angle stresses between two cylinders and is proportioned from its contact with the mating tooth at the pitch
C. Miter gear to the square root of the ______. point to the point where the contact ceases is
D. Tangent gear A. Applied load called:
16. The use of gearbox provides: B. The contact stresses A. Arc of contact
A. Gear leverage C. The stress B. Arc of approach
B. More torque D. Impact C. Arc of recess
C. More speed 34. When an excitation frequency coincides with D. Arc of action
D. None of these a natural frequency, this is known to be: 50. A single ply leather belt running at a belt
17. For equalizing the rotation of two gears, a A. Unity velocity of 300 ft/min is likely to transmit _____ per
gearbox employs” B. Resonance inch of width
A. Dog and clutch C. Obliquity A. 2.5 hp
B. Crown gear D. Sinusoidal B. 3.0 hp
C. Star pinion 35. The average tooth stiffness constant of face is C. 4.0 hp
D. None of these usually: D. 5.0 hp
18. In a constant mesh gearbox, all the speed A. 1.5 to 2 psi
gears remain: B. 3 to 6 psi
A. Separate C. 3 to 4 psi
B. Joined to their couple D. 7.5 to 10 psi
C. Of the same measurements
D. None of these
TEST 18 b. Dedendum 37. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the top of
c. Working depth the teeth on an internal gear.
1. The _____ from which an involute tooth is generated or d. Whole depth
developed. 20. The circle that bounds the bottom of the teeth. a. Pitch diameter
a. Root circle a. Addendum circle b. Internal diameter
b. Base circle b. Pitch circle c. Root diameter
c. Pitch circle c. Base circle d. Dedendum diameter
d. Dedendum circle d. Dedendum circle 38. A gear with teeth on the inner cylindrical surface.
2. The angle at the base cylinder if an involute gear, that 21. The ratio of the number of teeth to the number of a. Pitch gear
the tooth makes with the gear axis. millimeters of pitch diameter. b. Internal gear
a. Helix angle a. Diametral pitch c. Idler
b. Pressure angle b. Module d. Spur gear
c. Lead angle c. Circular pitch 39. The curve formed by the path of a point on a straight
d. Base Helix angle d. Base pitch line called their generatrix, as it rolls along a convex base
3. In an involute gear, _____ is the pitch on the base 22. The diametral pitch circulated in the normal plane curve.
circle or along the line of action. and is equal to the pitch dived by the cosine of the helix a. Involute
a. Base circle angle b. Cycloidal
b. Normal base pitch a. Normal diametral plane c. Cycloid
c. Base pitch b. Normal diametral pitch d. Trochoid
d. Pitch gear c. Normal plane 40. The top surface of the tooth.
4. The base pitch in the normal plane. d. Normal axial pitch a. Tooth face
a. Normal pitch 23. That portion of the face width that actually comes b. Tooth surfaces
b. Normal base pitch into contact with mating teeth, as occasionally one c. Top land
c. Axial plane member of a pair of gears may have a greater face d. Tooth flank
d. Central plane width than the other is called: 41. The surface of the gear between the fillets of
5. The base pitch in the axial plane. a. Effective face width adjacent teeth.
a. Axial base pitch b. Effective tooth face a. Space width
b. Axial pitch c. Effective tooth thickness b. Backlash
c. Normal pitch d. Effective tooth flank c. Bottom land
d. Base pitch 24. The actual torque of a gear set divided by its gear d. Tooth space
6. In a worm gear, _____ is a plane perpendicular to the ratio. 42. The distance of a helical gear or worm would thread
gear axis and contains the common perpendicular of a. Coefficient of performance along its axis one revolution of it was free to move axially.
the gear and the worm axis. b. Transmission ratio a. Lead
a. Central plane c. Ratio factor b. Helix
b. Normal plane d. Efficiency c. Length of action
c. Axial plane 25. When it rolls along the outer side another circle, is d. Line of action
d. Traverse plane called: 43. The path of contact in involute gears, it is straight line
7. The length of the chord subtended by the circular arc a. Cycloid passing through the pitch point and the tangent to the
is called: b. Hypocycloid base circles.
a. Backlash c. Epicycloid a. Length of action
b. Face width d. Trochoid b. Line of action
c. Chordal thickness 26. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical surface. c. Line of contact
d. Curve thickness a. Annular gear d. None of these
8. The height from the top of the tooth to the chord b. External gear 44. The distance on involute line of action through which
subtending the circular thickness arc. c. Idler the point of contact moves during the action of the
a. Curve thickness d. Spur gear tooth profile.
b. Chordal thickness 27. That surface of the tooth, which is between the pitch a. Length of action
c. Chordal addendum circles to the top of the tooth is known as _____. b. Line of action
d. Chordal dedendum a. Face width c. Line of contact
9. The length of the arc of the pitch circle between the b. Tooth flank d. None of these
centers or other corresponding points of the adjacent c. Face of tooth 45. The ratio of pitch diameter in millimeters to the
teeth. d. Top land number of teeth.
a. Circular pitch 28. The length of the teeth in axial plane. a. Addendum
b. Diametral Pitch a. Face of tooth b. Diametral pitch
c. Base pitch b. Face width c. Module
d. Normal pitch c. Circular pitch d. None of these
10. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the d. Chordal thickness 46. A plane normal to the tooth surfaces acts a point of
mating gear makes contact. 29. The surface of the tooth between the pitch cylinder contact and perpendicular to the pitch plane.
a. Contact ratio and the addendum cylinder. a. Axial plane
b. Contact diameter a. Face b. Central plane
c. Contact stress b. Flank c. Normal plane
d. None of these c. Top land d. Diametral
11. The maximum compressive stress within the contact d. Bottom land 47. The distance between similar equally spaced tooth
area between mating gear tooth profiles is called: 30. The concave portion of the tooth profile where it joins surfaces in a given direction and along a given curve or
a. Bearing stress the bottom of the toot space. line.
b. Contact stress a. Toot curve a. Module
c. Ultimate stress b. Involute b. Pitch
d. Internal stress c. Fillet radius c. Addendum
12. The curve formed by the path of a point on a circle d. Fillet curve d. Involute
as it rolls a straight line. 31. The maximum tensile stress in the gear tooth fillet. 48. The angle subtended by the arc on the pitch equal in
a. Trochoid a. Gear stress the length to the circular pitch.
b. Epicycloid b. Contact stress a. Pitch angle
c. Hypocycloid c. Fillet stress b. Pressure angle
d. Cycloid d. Fillet curve c. Helix angle
13. The circular pitch in the normal plane. 32. That surface which is between the pitch circle and d. Lead angle
a. Circular plane the bottom land is called: 49. Of meshing gears, _____ is the point of tangency to
b. Normal circular pitch a. Flank of tooth the pitch circle.
c. Central plane b. Face of tooth a. Pitch point
d. Circular base pitch c. Face of width b. Pitch of contact
14. The strength of the arc between the two sides of a d. Fillet of tooth c. Pitch
gear tooth on the pitch circles unless otherwise specified. 33. The surface of the tooth between the pitch and root d. Reference point
a. Face of tooth cylinders. 50. In a pair of gears, it is the plane perpendicular to the
b. Circular thickness a. Fillet axial plane and tangent to the axial plane and tangent
c. Tooth profile b. Face to the pitch surfaces.
d. Face width c. Flank a. Normal plane
15. The amount by which the dedendum exceeds the d. Bottom land b. Central plane
addendum of the mating tooth. c. Pitch plane
a. Tolerance 34. The number of teeth in the gear divided by the d. Tangent plane
b. Allowance number of teeth in the opinion.
c. Clearance
d. Backlash a. Ratio factor
16. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the b. Gear ratio
mating gear makes: c. Transmission ratio
a. Idler d. None of these
b. Pinion
c. Gear 35. The helical angle that a helical gear tooth makes the
d. Central diameter gear axis.
17. The ratio of the arc of action to the circular pitch is
known as: a. Helix angle
a. Contact ratio b. Lead angle
b. Action ratio c. Pressure angle
c. Recess ratio d. Tooth angle
d. Approach ratio
18. The curve that satisfy the law of gearing. 36. When it rolls along the inner side of another circle, it is
a. Tooth profile called:
b. Stub curve
c. Conjugate curve a. Cycloid
d. Involute curve b. Epicycloid
19. The depth of tooth space below the pitch circle or c. Hypocycloid
the radial dimension between the pitch circle and the d. Trochoid
bottom of the tooth space.
a. Addendum
TEST 19
1. One of the causes of spur gear tooth breakage is the 18. A device for engaging and disengaging gears. 36. A type of gear of non-parallel and non-intersecting
unbalanced load on one end of breakage is the a. Gear shift and the teeth are straight.
unbalanced load on one end of the tooth that results in b. Gear train a. Hypoid gears
the higher stress than when the load is evenly distributed. c. Gear wheel b. Skew bevel gears
To minimize this problem, the face width “b” should not d. Gear motor c. Spiral bevel gears
be greater that the thickness of the tooth. In the 19. For spur gear, the speed ratio is customary to limit the d. Zerol bevel gears
absence of test values, the following can be guide. reduction of: 37. For worm gears, Buckingham recommends face
a. 2.5 Pc < b < 4 Pc a. 3:1 width.
b. 2.0 < b < 4 Pd b. 4:1 a. 0.2 Dwo
c. 2.5 Pd < b < 4 Pd c. 5:1 b. 0.3 Dwo
d. 2.0 Pc < b < 4 Pc d. 6:1 c. 0.4 Dwo
2. Any perpendicular to a gear axis is called: 20. For helical and herringbone gears, the speed ratio is d. 0.5 Dwo
a. Plane of action limited to: 38. For worm gears, circular pitch is equal to:
b. Plane of rotation a. 3:1 a. Axial pitch
c. Normal plane b. 5:1 b. Diametral pitch
d. Transverse plane c. 6:1 c. Normal pitch
3. The angle between the tooth profile and radial line at d. 10:1 d. Traverse pitch
its pitch point. Involute teeth the angle between the line 21. They are cylindrical in form operate on parallel axes 39. The service factor of heavy shock, rolling mill and
of action and line tangent to the pitch circle. and have straight teeth parallel to the axis. rock crushes.
a. Roll angle a. Helical gears a. 1.25 - 1.35
b. Pitch angle b. Bevel gears b. 1.35 - 1.50
c. Helix angle c. Spur gears c. 1.50 - 1.80
d. Pressure angle d. Worm gears d. 1.75 -2.00
4. The radial distance from the addendum circle to the 22. The design stress based upon the ultimate strength of 40. Any plane perpendicular to a gear axis is called:
working depth circle. the material with a factor of safety of about _____. a. Transverse axis
a. Total depth a. 2 b. Conjugate axis
b. Full depth b. 3 c. Plane rotation
c. Whole depth c. 4 d. Axis of rotation
d. Working depth d. 5 41. The circle containing the bottoms of the tooth spaces
5. The total depth of a tooth space equal to addendum 23. Safe working stresses for common gear materials is called:
plus dedendum also equal to working depth plus operating at very low velocities are usually assumed to a. Addendum circle
clearance. be _____ the ultimate strength. b. Base circle
a. Full depth a. One-fourth c. Pitch circle
b. Working b. One-third d. Root circle
c. Whole depth c. One-half 42. The surface between the flanks of adjacent teeth.
d. None of these d. Two-third a. Bottom land
6. It is a condition in generated gear teeth when any 24. To avoid charring by the heat of friction, rawhide b. Top land
part of the fillet curve lies inside of a line drawn to the gears should not be operated of pitch line velocities c. Pitch surface
working profile as the lowest point. greater than _____ d. Space width
a. Medium cut a. 2500 fpm 43. The usual ratio of miter gear is:
b. Under cut b. 3000 fpm a. 1:1
c. Over cut c. 35000 fpm b. 1:2
d. Hidden cut d. 4000 fpm c. 1:3
7. The curve formed by the path of a point on the 25. The outside diameter of the hubs of larger gears d. 1:4
extension of the radius of a circle as it rolls along the should be _____ the bore for steel. 44. The angle between the element of the face cone
curve or line. a. 1.5 times and its axis equals pitch angle plus addendum angle.
a. Cycloids b. 1.6 times a. Cutting angle
b. Epicycloids c. 1.7 times b. Face angle
c. Hypocycloid d.1.8 times c. Pitch angle
d. Trochoid 26. The couple diameter of the hubs of larger gears d. Front angle
8. A plane perpendicular to the axis plane and to the should be _____ the bore for cast iron. 45. The apex of the pitch cone
pitch plane. a. 1.5 times a. Cone center
a. Norma plane b. 1.8 times b. Vertex
b. Pitch plane c. 2.0 times c. Pitch point
c. Tangent plane d. 2.5 times d. Apothem
d. Transverse plane 27. Helix angles of _____ degrees are preferred for single 46. The portion of the tooth surface adjacent to the
9. The total width dimensions of a gear blank to the pitch helical gears. involute lying inside a radial line passing through an
plane. a. 10 and 18 imaginary intersection of an involute and the base
a. Total face width b. 12 and 20 circle/
b. Effective face width c. 15 and 23 a. Excessive cut
c. Addendum d. 18 and 28 b. Over cut
d. Transverse plane 28. Helix angles of _____ degrees are preferred for double c. Under cut
10. The space between the teeth measured along the helical gears. d. None of these
pitch circle. a. 15 and 25 47. In spur gearing system, the preferred pressure angle
a. Tooth space b. 20 and 30 is:
b. Tooth thickness c. 25 and 40 a. 14- ½ deg
c. Backlash d. 30 and 45 b. 20 deg
d. Tooth face 29. A _____ is a spur gear of infinite diameter. c. 22- ½ deg
11. The width of tooth measured along the pitch circle. a. Hypoid d. 25 deg
a. Tooth space b. Herringbone 48. Hub length usually vary from:
b. Tooth thickness c. Annular a. 1.05 Ds to 1.7 Ds
c. Backlash d. Rack b. 1.25 Ds to 2 Ds
d. Tooth face 30. It is standard practice to assume that the thickness of c. 1.35 Ds to 2.5 Ds
12. An arbitrary modification of a tooth profile whereby a the tooth measured around the pitch circle is exactly d. 1.35 Ds to 3.0 Ds
small amount of material is removed near the tip of the _____ of a circular pitch. 49 The service factor for heavy shock is:
gear tooth. a. One-fourth a. 1 to 1.25
a. Chamber b. One-half b. 1.25 to 1.50
b. Tip relief c. One-third c. 1.50 to 1.75
c. Under cut d. Two-third d. 1.75 to 2.0
d. None of these 31. It occurs under heavy loads and in adequate 50. A gear wheel with cured teeth that mesh with a
13. A plane tangent to the surfaces at a point or line of lubrication. worm.
contact. a. Pitting a. Worm wheel
a. Normal plane b. Honing b. Rack gear
b. Pitch plane c. Scoring c. Spiral gear
c. Tangent plane d. Tooth breakage d. Herringbone gear
d. Axial plane 32. In order to get benefit helical-gear action the face
14. A circle coinciding with or tangent to the bottoms of width should be at least _____ the axial pitch.
the tooth spaces. a. Once
a. Addendum circle b. Twice
b. Pitch circle c. Thrice
c. Base circle d. Minimum
d. Root circle 33. The outside diameter of the worm gear measured on
15. The angle subtended at the center of the base circle the central plane.
from teeth origin of an involute to the point of tangency a. Addendum diameter
of the generation from any point of the same involute. b. Throat diameter
a. Root angle c. Pitch diameter
b. Roll angle d. Root diameter
c. Pitch circle 34. For worms mating with gears having 24 teeth or more
d. Base circle the _____ pressure angle is recommended.
16. _____ gear with teeth spaced along a straight and a. 14.5 degrees
suitable for straight line motion. b. 20 degrees
a. Helical c. 22.5 degrees
b. Bevel d. 25 degrees
c. Rack 35. The axes intersect and the teeth are curved and
d. Worm oblique is called:
17. The pitch plane, axial plane and transverse plane, all a. Skew bevel gears
intersect at a point and mutually perpendicular to the: b. Straight bevel gears
a. Principal reference plane c. Spiral bevel gears
b. Principal reference axis d. Zerol bevel gears
c. Principal reference point
d. Principal reference line
TEST 20 18. Gear pump used in hydraulic system are d. Circular pitch
used for: 35. The _________ is the arc of the pitch circle
1. Which type of gear is a cylinder, wheel or disk on a. Low and medium pressure where the tooth profile cuts the pitch circle when a pair
the surface of which is cut parallel teeth? b. Medium and high pressure of teeth first comes in contact until they are in contact as
a. Bevel gear c. Low and high pressure the pitch point.
b. Helical gear d. Medium and not high pressure a. Arc of recess
c. Spur gear 19. In machine tool drive, the modulus for gears is b. Arc of approach
d. Worm gear usually selected between: c. Arc of contact
2. Which type of gear has a ratio of 1:1? a. 10 ≥ μ ≥ 1 d. Arc of action
a. Herringbone gears b. 2≥μ1 36. The _________ traced by the outermost corner
b. Miter gear c. 20 ≥ μ ≥ 1 of one tooth on the plane of the other gear.
c. Internal gear d. 5≥μ≥1 a. Cycloid
d. Spur gear 20. The shape of the curve on the side of gear is b. Hypocycloid
3. The distance between similar sides of termed as: c. Epitrochoid
adjacent teeth measured on the pitch line is called: a. Stub d. Trochoid
a. Diametral pitch b. Involute 37. An imaginary circle passing through the
b. Linear pitch c. Trochoid points at which the tooth of the meshing gears contact
c. Circular pitch d. Cycloid each other.
d. Axial pitch 21. The distance in a straight line from one side of a. Pitch circle
4. In rack gear, circular pitch is called: a tooth to the side at points where the pitch circle passes b. Base circle
a. Linear pitch through the tooth. c. Addendum circle
b. Base pitch a. Circular pitch d. Dedendum circle
c. Diametral pitch b. Pitch 38. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical
d. Axial pitch c. Chordal thickness surface.
5. __________ is equal to twice the addendum. d. Tooth length a. Rack gear
a. Tooth flank 22. The _______ of a bevel gear is equal to the b. Zerol gear
b. Tooth thickness altitude of the pitch cone. c. Miter gear
c. Whole depth a. Length of cone d. External gear
d. Working depth b. Vertex distance 39. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the
6. The meaning of module in a gearing system c. Length of hub top of the teeth of an internal gear.
is: d. Thickness a. Dedendum diameter
a. Distance 23. The _______ of a worm is the distance b. Pitch diameter
b. Addendum between the center of one tooth and the center of an c. Base diameter
c. Measure adjacent tooth, measured perpendicular to the teeth. d. Internal diameter
d. a. Diametral pitch 40. It is standard practice to assume that the
7. Refers to the portion of the tooth surface b. Circular pitch thickness of the tooth measured sound the pitch circle is
adjacent to the involute lying inside a radial line passing c. Axial pitch exactly ________ the circle path.
through an imaginary intersection of the involute and the d. Normal pitch a. One half
base circle. 24. The _______ of a worm gear is the concave b. One third
a. Over cut surface of the gear tooth. c. One fourth
b. Under cut a. Radius d. One fifth
c. Tip relief b. Throat 41. The helix angles for the herringbone gears are
d. None of these c. Pitch used from ______for industrial gears.
8. In a pair of gears, spur or bevel, the smaller is d. Addendum a. 10 to 15
often called: 25. A type of gear, which is used for heavy duty b. 15 to 20
a. Rack work where a large ratio of speed is required. c. 20 to 30
b. Pinion a. Worm gear d. 25 to 45
c. Worn b. Bevel gear 42. The distance parallel to the axis from the
d. Idler c. Spur gear pitch circle to the face of the shoulder or hub.
9. Which of the following gears that are of the d. Miter gear a. Back one
same and transmit motion at right angles? 26. A _________ is a cylinder with teeth resembling b. Backing
a. Herringbone gears those of acme thread. c. Crown height
b. Spur gears a. Pinion d. Apex distance
c. Miter gears b. Spur 43. A machine that makes gear teeth by means
d. Rack gears c. Worm of a reciprocating cutter that rotates slowly with the
10. The cone, which represents in bevel gears d. Bolt work.
the original friction surfaces are called 27. The _________ is the angle at which the teeth a. Gear forming
a. Back cone of a helical gear are slanted across the face of the gear. b. Gear hobber
b. Length of cone a. Lead angle c. Gear shaper
c. Pitch cones b. Helix angle d. Gear cutter
d. Cone distance c. Pressure angle 44. A type of gear wheels connecting non-
11. Which of the following angles equal the pitch d. Pitch angle parallel, non-intersecting shafts usually at right angles.
angle? 28. A __________ is one thicker in proportion to its a. Helical gear
a. Back angle length than the involute tooth. b. Herringbone gear
b. Front angle a. Hypoid c. Hypoid gear
c. Face angle b. Cycloidal tooth d. Bevel gear
d. Root angle c. Stub tooth 45. The angle between the plane of the pitch
12. The surface between the flanks of adjacent d. Spiral circle and a plane tangent to the end of the tooth.
teeth. 29. Which gears are used to connect parallel a. Foot angle
a. Top land shafts lying in the same plane? b. Back angle
b. Tooth flank a. Worm gears c. Dedendum angle
c. Tooth face b. Bevel gears d. Face angle
d. Bottom land c. Herringbone gears 46. The circle containing the bottoms of the
13. The portion of the common tangent to the d. Spiral gears tooth spaces.
base circles along which contact between mating 30. Which of the following is used to connect the a. Root circle
involutes occurs. shafts at an angle but lying in the same plane? b. Working depth circle
a. Line of action a. Helical gears c. Base circle
b. Pitch line b. Worm and worm wheel d. Pitch circle
c. Arc of action c. Spur gears 47. The depth of the tooth inside of the pitch line is
d. Angle of action d. Herringbone gears called:
14. The intersection between the axes of the line 31. The product of circular pitch and diametral a. Working depth
of centers and the common tangent to the base circles, pitch is: b. Dedendum
a. Pitch line c. Total depth
a. 2π
b. Pitch circle d. Whole depth
b. π
c. Pitch point c. 3π
48. The amount by which the dedendum in a given
d. Pitch surface d. 4π gear exceeds the addendum of its mating gear.
15. The angle between the element of the face 32. A line drawn through all the points at which a. Whole depth
cone and its axis. the teeth touch each other. b. Clearance
a. Face angle a. Angle of contact c. Backish
b. Back angle b. Arc of contact d. Working depth
c. Front angle c. Path of contact
d. Increment angle d. Arc of approach 49. The outside diameter of the worm measured on
16. Refers to a portion of the small end of the 33. The length of the gear tooth measured along the central plane.
tooth. an element of the pitch surface is called: a. Dedendum diameter
a. Heel b. Addendum diameter
a. Acting flank
b. Toe c. Throat diameter
b. Face width
d. Pitch diameter
c. Sole c. Flank of the tooth
d. Corner d. Tooth space 50. The circle from which the involute is generated.
17. The apex of the pitch cone. 34. The ________ is equal to the tooth thickness a. Base circle
a. Cone vertex plus the space width. b. Pitch circle
b. Cone distance a. Normal pitch c. Working depth circle
c. Cone radius b. Axial pitch d. Addendum cir
d. Cone center c. Diametral pitch