100 Đề Thi Luyện Vào Chuyên Anh Lớp 10

ENGLISH PRACTICE 1
PART ONE: PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others
1. A. supposedly B. markedly C. allegedly D. determinedly
2. A. endure B. feature C. procedure D. measure
3. A. complete B. command C. common D. community
4. A. comb B. climb C. debt D. cable
5. A. neighbour B. height C. sleigh D. weight
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others
1. A. possibility B. disappointed C. manufacture D. instrument
2. A. environment B. mystery C. contribute D. terrific
3. A. deficiency B. psychology C. ecological D. competitor
4. A. recommend B. difficulty C. admirable D. document
5. A. encouragement B. interviewer C. acknowledge D. miraculously
PART TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences
1. Only after the atomic bomb ________ and development in the air travel _______, ______ science fiction
really become popular.
A. had created/ had taken off/ was B. had been created/ had been taken off/ has
C. had been created/ had taken off/ did D. had been created/ / had taken off/ had
2. We’ve bought some ________ chairs for the garden so that they are easy to store away.
A. adapting B. adjusting C. bending D. folding
3. I don’t think she can get her message _______ to the students. She seems too nervous.
A. across B. around C. out D. over
4. _______, it is obvious that the whole thing was a waste of time and effort.
A. None of us wanted to go in the first place
B. Staff meetings are often boring and have no apparent point to them
C. Since the results were far more satisfactory than anyone had expected
D. Seeing that we couldn’t solve anything in the end
5. There are ______ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close attention to this fact.
A. a large many B. quite many C. a great many D. quite a lot
6. This car has many features including _________.
A. stereo, safety devices, air condition, and it saves gas
B. good music, safety devices, air conditioning, and gas
C. stereo, safety devices, air conditioned, and good gas
D. stereo, safety devices, air conditioning, and low gas mileage
7. Round and round ___________.
A. the wheels of the engine went B. did the wheels of the engine go
C. went the wheels of the engine D. going the wheels of the engine
8. The replacement of shops such as the groceries and chemists’ by the café _______ the housewives with
insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. leave B. have left C. has left D. to have left
9. Your argument _______ that Britain is still a great power, but this is no longer the case.
A. outlines B. presupposes C. concerns D. presents
10. They are happily married although, of course, they argue _______.
A. most times B. from day to day C. every now and then D. on the occasion
11. He promised to mend the broken wheel soon without ___________ .
A. fail B. failure C. trouble D. mistake
12. One of the first exercises in math class is ______ measure the radius of a circle.
A. to learn and B. to learn how to C. learning to D. learn to
13. We were shocked to hear the news of your ________.
A. having fired B. being fired C. having been fired D. to have been fired
14. I don’t know French, but I’ll ________.
A. get Tom to translate it B. have it translate C. have Tom to translate it D. make it translate
15. _______ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer to B. What we refer to C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to
16. _______ have settled, one of their first concerns has been to locate an adequate water supply.
A. Wherever people B. There are people who C. Where people D. People
17. Politicians should never lose ______ of the needs of the people they represent.
A. view B. sight C. regard D. prospect
18. _______ team sports require cooperation.
A. Of all B. They are all C. Why all are D. All
19. Studies indicate _________ collecting art today than ever before.
A. there are that more people B. more people that are C. that there are more people D. people there are more
20. Doctors advise people who are deficient __________ vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
A. from B. of C. in D. for
21. Dick put ____ ball in ____ net in _____ second half but ____ goal was disallowed.
A. a - a - a - a B. the - the - the - the C. the - the - a - a D. a - a - the - the
22. There is a real possibility that these animals could be frightened _______ a sudden loud noise.
A. being there B. should there be C. there was D. there have been
23. The computer has dramatically affected ______ photographic lenses are constructed.
A. is the way B. that the way C. which way do D. the way
24. Six novels a year, you say? He’s certainly a __________ writer.
A. fruitful B. fertile C. virile D. prolific
25. The handwriting is completely ______ . This note must have been written a long time ago.
A. inedible B. indelible C. illegible D. unfeasible
II. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets.
a. The children were frightened because the lights suddenly (1.go) ________ out and they (2.sit) ________ in
the dark.
b. What tune (3. play) ________ when we (4. come) ________ in?
c. She was badly hurt when her car hit another car. If she (5. wear) ________ her seat belt, she (6. not hurt)
________ so badly.
d. It is vital that no one else (7. know) _______ about the secret government operation.
e. It seems strange to be standing here, (8. look) _______ out at SydneyHarbor.
f. Tom had a lucky escape. He (9. kill) ________ when a car crashed into the front of his house.
g. _____ (10. Rank) as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it was
created.
III. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. (1.5 pt)
It seems that the mystery of why the Pyramids were built may have solved. Until quite recently people got
used to think that they were just tombs for pharaohs. Instead, the connection with astronomy seems much more
important. Egyptologists have often asked them how long it spent to build them and why people built them in
first place. Experts came up with a suggestion that the Egyptians may have believed in the River Nile was the
earthly equivalent of the Milky Way. Many agree that the sizes of the three Giza Pyramids are in promotion to
the three stars of Orion. Nothing, then, was by the chance. Rather, the souls of dead pharaohs were deliberately
being project through shafts to reach at their goal of the Orion constellation.
IV. Give the correct form of the word in each of the following brackets.(1.5 pt)
It was not so long ago that we dealt with colleagues through face-to-face (1. INTERACT) ______ and
with counterparts and customers by phone or letter. But the world of communication has undergone a dramatic
transformation, not for all the good. Email, while (2. DOUBT) _____ a swift means of communication
providing your server is fully (3.FUNCTION) ______ and that the address you have contains no (4.
ACCURATE) _____ has had a (5. SIGNIFY) _____ effect on certain people’s behaviour, both at home and
business. For those people, the use of email has become irresistibly (6. ADDICT) _____ to the extent that it is
(7. THREAT) _____ their mental and physical health. Addicts spend their day (8. COMPULSION) _____
checking for email and have a (9. TEND) ______ to panic if their server goes down. It is estimated that one in
six people spend four hours a day sending and receiving messages, the equivalent to more than two working days
a week. The negative effect on (10. PRODUCE) ________ is something employers are well aware of.
PART THREE: READING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Read the following passage and choose the option that indicates the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
In the United States in the early 1800's, individual state governments had more effect on the economy
than did the federal government. States chartered manufacturing, banking, mining, and transportation firms and
participated in the construction of various internal improvements such as canals, turnpikes, and railroads. The
states encouraged internal improvements in two distinct ways; first, by actually establishing state companies to
build such improvements; second, by providing part of the capital for mixed public-private companies setting out
to make a profit.
In the early nineteenth century, state governments also engaged in a surprisingly large amount of direct
regulatory activity, including extensive licensing and inspection programs. Licensing targets reflected both
similarities and differences between the economy of the nineteenth century and that of today: in the nineteenth
century, state regulation through licensing fell especially on peddlers, innkeepers, and retail merchants of various
kinds. The perishable commodities of trade generally came understate inspection, and such important frontier
staples as lumber and gunpowder were also subject to state control. Finally, state governments experimented
with direct labor and business regulation designed to help the individual laborer or consumer, including setting
maximum limits on hours of work and restrictions on price-fixing by businesses.
Although the states dominated economic activity during this period, the federal government was not
inactive. Its goals were the facilitation of western settlement and the development of native industries. Toward
these ends, the federal government pursued several courses of action. It established a national bank to stabilize
banking activities in the country and, in part, to provide a supply of relatively easy money to the frontier, where
it was greatly needed for settlement. It permitted access to public western lands on increasingly easy terms,
culminating in the Homestead Act of 1862, by which title to land could be claimed on the basis of residence
alone. Finally, it set up a system of tariffs that was basically protectionist in effect, although maneuvering for
position by various regional interests produced frequent changes in tariff rates throughout the nineteenth century.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. States's rights versus federal rights.
B. The participation of state governments in railroad, canal, and turnpike construction.
C. The roles of state and federal governments in the economy of the nineteenthcentury.
D. Regulatory activity by state governments.
2. The word “effect” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. value B. argument C. influence D. restraint
3. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as areas that involved statevernments in the nineteenth
century EXCEPT _________.
A. mining B. banking C. manufacturing D. higher education
4. The word “distinct” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. separate B. innovative C. alarming D. provocative
5. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the nineteenth century canals and railroads were
_________.
A. built with money that came from the federal government
B. much more expensive to build than they had been previously
C. built predominantly in the western part of the country
D. sometimes built in part by state companies
6. The regulatory activities of state governments included all of the following EXCEPT_______.
A. licensing of retail merchants B. inspecting materials used in turnpike maintenance
C. imposing limits on price-fixing D. control of lumber
7. The word “setting” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. discussing B. analyzing C. establishing D. avoiding
8. The word “ends” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. benefits B. decisions C. services D. goals
9. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Homestead Act of 1862?
A. It made it increasingly possible for settlers to obtain land in the West.
B. It was a law first passed by state governments in the West.
C. It increased the money supply in the West.
D. It established tariffs in a number of regions.
10. Which of the following activities was the responsibility of the federal government in the nineteenth century?
A.Control of the manufacture of gunpowder.
B. Determining the conditions under which individuals worked.
C. Regulation of the supply of money.
D. Inspection of new homes built on western lands.
II. Read the text below and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 pts)
The British are widely (1) _____ to be a very polite nation, and in (2)______ respects this is true. An
Italian journalist once commented of the British that they need (3) _____ fewer than four “thank you” merely to
buy a bus ticket. The first, from the bus conductor means, “I’m here.” The second accompanies the handing over
of the money. The third, again from the conductor, (4) ____ “Here is your ticket.”, and then the passenger utters
a final one as he accepts the tickets. Such transactions in most (5) ____ parts of the world are usually conducted
in total silence. In sharp contrast to this excessive politeness with strangers, the British are strangely lacking (6)
_____ ritual phrases for social interaction. The exhortation “Good appetite”, uttered in so (7) ______ other
languages to fellow-diners before a meal, does not exist in English. The nearest equivalent – Enjoy your dinner!
– is said only by people who will not be partaking of the meal in question. What’s more, the British (8) ____
happiness to their friends or acquaintances only at the start of a new year and at (9)_____ such as birthdays, (10)
_____ the Greeks routinely wish all and sundry a “good week” or a “good month”.
1._____________2._____________3._____________4._____________ 5.____________
6._____________7._____________8._____________9._____________ 10.____________
III. Read the passage and choose the best option for each of the following blanks. (2.0 pts)
Media and advertising
After more than fifty years of television, it might seem only obvious to conclude that it is here to (1)
______. There have been many objections to it during this time, of course, and (2) ______ a variety of grounds.
Did it cause eye-strain? Was the (3) ______ bombarding us with radioactivity? Did the advertisements contain
subliminal messages, persuading us to buy more? Did children turn to violence through watching it, either
because so (4) ______ programmes taught them how to shoot, rob, and kill, or because they had to do something
to counteract the hours they had spent glued to the tiny screen? Or did it simply create a vast passive ( 5) ______
drugged by glamorous serials and inane situation (6) ______ ? On the other hand did it increase anxiety by
sensationalizing the news [or the news which was (7) ______ by suitable pictures] and filling our living rooms
with war, famine and political unrest? (8) ______ in all, television proved to be the all-purpose scapegoat for the
second half of the century, blamed for everything, but above all, eagerly watched. For no (9) ______ how much
we despised it, feared it, were bored by it, or felt that it took us away from the old paradise of family
conversation and hobbies such as collecting stamps, we never turned it off. We kept staring at the screen, aware
that our own tiny (10) ______ was in if we looked carefully.
1. A. be B. stay C. exist D. prolong
2. A. with B. over C. by D. on
3. A. screen B. danger C. machine D. reason
4. A. that B. far C. many D. what
5. A. programme B. personality C. audience D. tense
6. A. comedies B. programmes C. perhaps D. consequently
7. A. taken B. presented C. capable D. accompanied
8. A. Taken B. All C. Somewhat D. Thus
9. A. one B. matter C. difference D. reason
10. A. fault B. reflection C. situation D. consciousness
PART FOUR: WRITING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.
1. If the work is finished by lunchtime, you can go home.
Get_______________________________________________________________________
2. You haven’t done your work, have you?
It’s about______________________________________________________________________
3. The fourth time he asked her to marry him, she accepted.
Only on his ________________________________________________________________
4. He said that he had won as a result of good luck.
He attributed___________________________________________________________________
5. That reminds me of the time I climbed to the top of Mount Fuji.
That takes me________________________________________________________________
6. People rumour that he is rich but stingy.
What_______________________________________________________________________
7. Such a ridiculous proposal isn’t worth serious consideration.
There is____________________________________________________________________
8. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh.
The very____________________________________________________________________
9.We cannot see animals in a vast area after the forest fire.
There is an__________________________________________________________________
10.The staff hated Frank’s new policies so intensely that they went on strike.
So intense___________________________________________________________________
II. Write a new sentence similar in meaning to the given one, using the word given in the brackets. Do not
alter the word in any way. (2.0 pts)
1. I suddenly realized the meaning of a “freebie”.(dawned)
___________________________________________________________________________
2. After the scandal, he was asked to resign. (HAND)
__________________________________________________________________________
3. Bruce said that the situation at work was like a family argument. (likened)
___________________________________________________________________________
4. My father is not feeling well these days. (weather)
___________________________________________________________________________
5. I don’t think this record will ever be popular. (catch)
___________________________________________________________________________
6. His arrival was completely unexpected. (took)
___________________________________________________________________________
7. The success of our local theater has made our city famous. (map)
___________________________________________________________________________
8. He is certainly not a reliable witness. (means)
___________________________________________________________________________
9. Our company is the only company allowed to import these chemicals. (monopoly)
___________________________________________________________________________
10. It’s uncertain whether the band’s tour will take place. (BALANCE)
___________________________________________________________________________
III. Essay writing Some high schools require all students to wear school uniforms. Other high schools permit
students to decide what to wear to school. Which of these two school policies do you think is better? In about
250 words, write an essay to expess your opinion, usingspecific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
KEYS
PART ONE: PHONETICS (1.0 POINT)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently fromthat of the others. (0.5 pt)
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.(0.5 pt)
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B
PART TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences.(2.5pts)
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5.C 6. D 7. C
8. C 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. C 14.
A
15. B 16. A 17. B 18.D 19. C 20. C 21.
B
22. B 23. D 24. D 25. C
II. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets. (1.5 pt)
1. had gone 2. were sitting
3. was being played 4. came
5. had been wearing 6. wouldn’t have been hurt
7. (should) know 8. looking
9. could have been killed 10. To be ranked
III. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. (1.5 pt)
It seems that the mystery of why the Pyramids were built may (1. have solved🡪have been solved). Until quite
recently people got used (2. to think🡪to thinking) that they were just tombs for pharaohs. Instead, the
connection with astronomy (3.seem 🡪 seems) much more important. Egyptologists have often asked (4. them 🡪
themselves) how long it (5. spent 🡪 took) to build them and why people built them in (6. first place 🡪 the first
place). Experts came up with a suggestion that the Egyptians may have (7. believed in🡪 believed that) the
River Nile was the earthly equivalent of the Milky Way. Many agree that the sizes of the three Giza Pyramids
are in propotion to the three stars of Orion. Nothing, then, was (8. by the chance 🡪 by chance). Rather, the
souls of dead pharaohs were deliberatedly being (9. project 🡪 projected ) through shafts to (10. reach at 🡪
reach) their goal of the Orion constellation.
N Line Mistake Correction
o
1 1 have solved have been solved
2 2 to think to thinking
3 3 seem seems
4 3 them themselves
5 3 spent took
6 4 first place the first place
7 5 believed in believed that
8 7 by the chance by chance
9 7 project projected
10 8 reach at reach
IV. Give the correct form of the word in each of the following brackets. (1.5 pt)
1. INTERACTION 2. UNDOUBTEDLY 3. FUNCTIONAL
4. INACCURACIES 5. SIGNIFICANT 6. ADDICTIVE
7. THREATENING 8. COMPULSIVELY 9. TENDENCY
10. PRODUCTION
PART THREE: READING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Read the following passage and choose the option that indicates the correct answer to each of the following
questions.(2.0 pts)
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. D
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. C
II. Read the text below and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 pts)
1. considered 2. some 3. no 4. means
5. other
6. in 7. many 8. wish 9. celebrations 10.
while
III. Read the passage and choose the best option for each of the following blanks. (2.0 pts)
1.B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.C
6.B 7.D 8.B 9.B 10.B
PART FOUR: WRITING (6 POINTS)
I. Rewrite the following sentences beginning with the given words. (2.0 pts)
1. Get the work finished by lunchtime and you can go home.
2. It’s about time you did your homework.
3. Only on his fourth proposal did she accept to marry him.
4. He attributed his win/ victory/ success/ achievement/ triumph to good luck.
5. That takes me back to the time I climbed to the top of Mount Fuji.
6. What people rumour is that he is rich but stingy.
7. There is no point in considering such a ridiculous proposal seriously.
8. The very thought of his face at that moment makes me laugh.
9.There is an absence of animals in a vast area after the forest fire.
10. So intense was the hatred for Frank’s new policies that the staff went on strike.
II. Write a new sentence similar in meaning to the given one, using the word given in the brackets. Do not
alter the word in any way. (2.0 pts)
1. It suddenly dawned on me what the meaning of a “freebie” was.
2. After the scandal, he was asked to hand in his resignation.
3. Bruce likened the situation at work to a family argument
4. My father is feeling (a bit) under the weather these days.
5. I don’t think this record will ever catch on.
6. His arrival took us (completely) by surprise.
7. The success of our local theater has put our city on the map.
8. He is by no means a reliable witness.
9. Our company has got the monopoly of/on/in importing these chemicals.
10. The band’s tour is in the balance.
III. Essay writing (2.0 pts) Marking scheme
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before marking
the papers. The mark given to part III is based on the following scheme:
Mô tả tiêu chíđánh giá Điểm tối
đa
1 Bố cục 0.40
.
∙ Câu đề dẫn phải thể hiện được rõ ý kiến của người viết 0.10
∙ Bố cục hợp lí, rõ ràng phù hợp với yêu cầu của đề bài và đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết 0.15
luận.
∙ Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận 0.15
2 Phát triển ý 0.40
.
∙ Phát triển ý có trình tự logic và mạch lạc 0.20
∙ Có giải thích, dẫn chứng, ví dụ xác thực đủđể bảo vệý kiến của người viết 0.20
3 Sử dụng ngôn ngữ 0.40
.
∙ Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp với nội dung của bài viết 0.10
∙ Sử dụng ngôn từđúng văn phong/ thể loại, đa dạng về từ vựng và cấu trúc. 0.15
∙ Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển 0.15
4 Nội dung 0.40
.
∙Đủ thuyết phục người đọc 0.15
∙Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận 0.15
∙Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 10 % 0.10
5 Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả 0.40
.
∙ Sử dụng đúng dấu câu 0.10
∙ Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả 0.10
- Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết)
- Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi
∙ Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý
sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.) 0.20
Tổng 2.00
ENGLISH PRACTICE 2
A. PHONETICS (10 points)
Question 1: Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words.
Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below (5p)
01. A. random B. canal C. many D. explanatory
02. A. good B. moon C. food D. balloon
03. A. provide B. product C. production D. procedure
04. A. kite B. bite C. Christian D. Christ
05. A. voltage B. voyage C. massage D. dosage
Question 2: Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. Write your
answers in the numbered blanks provided below (5p)
06. A. argumentative B. psychological C. contributory D. hypersensitive
07. A. atomic B. brilliant C. determined D. ambitious
08. A. trigonometry B. explanatory C. immediately D. democracy
09. A. photograph B. payroll C. accent D. regretful
10. A. majority B. ceremony C. astronomy D. investiture
B. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (60 points)
Question 3: Give the correct tense/ form of the verbs in the brackets. Write your answers in the numbered
blanks provided below (30p)
a. It’s time we (11. go)………. If we (12. not leave)…….. now, we (13. miss)…… the train.
b. I know I (14. not write) to you before, but I (15. be)////// so busy recently that I (16. not have)……… time for
writing letters. I (17. telephone)……… you instead, but I (18. forget)………. your number.
c. Why didn’t you tell me you could lend me the money? I (19. not borrow)…………. it from the bank.
d. He is walking (20. hurry)……… to the place where his ex-wife, a famous naturalist now (21. lie)………(22.
bury)……… among the animals she (23. love) ………….so much.
e. We will see Alice at the corner, she (24. wait)…….. for us when we (25. arrive)………….
f. He resents (26. be)………. (27. tell) ………….what (28. do)…………………..
g. Her mother (29. go)……… abroad last month, so it (30. not be)………….her you see at the theater last
Sunday.
Question 4: The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. (0) has been done as an
example. Write your answers in the numbered blanks below (20p)
Question 5: Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. Write your answers in the
numbered blanks provided below the passage. (10p)
41. We’re all very obliged_________ you
42. When the wound has healed_________ you can remove the plaster.
43. Without a fridge, fresh food will go_________ very quickly.
44. I’m faithful_________ my principle.
45. I haven’t heard_________ Mandy since she wrote in July.
46. This service is free_________ charge.
47. They went ahead contrary_________ my advice.
48. The weather was fine, and everyone was making_________ the coast.
49. We’re going_________ Tom’s car tomorrow.
50. Have a card_________ your sleeve.
C. READING (40 points)
Question 6: Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered
blanks provided below the passage. (20p)
In addition to the great ridges and volcanic chains, the oceans conceal another form of undersea
mountains: the strange guyot, or flat-topped seamount. No marine geologist even suspected the existence of
these isolated mountains until they were discovered by geologist Harry H. Hess in 1946. He was serving at the
time as naval officer on a ship equipped with a fathometer. Hess named these truncated peaks for the nineteenth-
century Swiss-born geologist Arnold Guyot, who had served on the faculty of Princeton University for thirty
years. Since then, hundreds of guyots have been discovered in every ocean but the Arctic. Like offshore canyons,
guyots present a challenge to oceanographic theory. They are believed to be extinct volcanoes. Their flat tops
indicate that they once stood above or just below the surface, where the action of waves leveled off their peaks.
Yet today, by definition, their summits are at least 600 feet below the surface, and some are as deep as 8,200
feet. Most lie between 3,200 feet and 6,500 feet. Their tops are not really flat but slope upward to a low pinnacle
at the center. Dredging from the tops of guyots has recovered basalt and coral rubble, and that would be expected
from the eroded tops of what were once islands. Some of this material is over 80 million years old. Geologists
think the drowning of the guyots involved two processes: The great weight of the volcanic mountains depressed
the sea floor beneath them, and the level of the sea rose a number of times, especially when the last Ice Age
ended, some 8,000 to 11.000 years ago.
51. What is the author's main purpose in writing this passage?
A. To trace the career of Arnold Guyot. B. To describe feature of the undersea world.
C. To present the results of recent geologic research. D. To discuss underwater ridges and volcano chains
52. The word “conceal” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Contain B. Erode C. Hide D. Create
53. The passage implies that guyots were first detected by means of________.
A. a fathometer B. computer analysic C. a deep-sea diving expedition D. research submarines
54. The author indicates that Arnold Guyot________.
A. was Harry Hess's instructor B. invented the fathometer
C. named the guyed after himself D. taught at Princeton University
55. What does the passage say about the Arctic Ocean?
A. The first guyot was discovered there. B. No guyots have ever been found there.
C. There are more guyots there than in any other ocean. D. It is impossible that guyots were ever formed there.
56. The author states that offshore canyons and guyots have which of the following characteristics in common?
A. Both are found on the ocean floor near continental shelves.
B. Both present oceanographers with a mystery.
C. Both were formed by volcanic activity.
D. Both were, at one time, above the surface of the sea.
57. According to the passage, most guyots are found at a depth of________.
A. less than 600 feet. B. between 600 and 3,200 feet.
C. between 3,200 and 6,500 feet D. more than 8,200 feet
51. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “rubble”?
A. Fragments B. Mixture C. Columns D. Core
51. According to the passage, which of the following two processes were involved in the submersion of guyots?
A. Erosion and volcanic activity. B. The sinking of the sea floor and the rising of sea level.
C. Mountain building and the action of ocean currents D. High tides and earthquakes
60. According to the passage, when did sea level significantly rise?
A. In 1946 B. In the nineteenth century
C. From 8,000 to 11,000 years D. 80 million years ago
Question 7: Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered
blanks provided below the passage. (20p)
As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were
reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch settlers to
New York in the early 18 th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus - from the Dutch Sinter Klaas - was depicted as a
tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known as Saint Nicholas in Germany, he was
usually accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient children. In North America he eventually
developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict
disciplinarian character of Black Peter.
Santa’s transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem A Visit from
Saint Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem introduced many
Americans to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a reindeer-drawn sleigh. Portraits and
drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further strengthened the legend during the second
half of the 19th century. Living at the North Pole and assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered
toys to all good children. By the late 19th century he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore
that in 1897, when Virginia O’Hanlon wrote to the New York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she
received a direct answer: “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus”.
61. Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage?
A. Sinter Klaas B. Saint Nicholas C. A German D. Dutch settlers
62. Santa Claus was traditionally described as a________.
A. tall man who could walk through the air. B. fat, jolly, old man.
C. religious figure. D. fat man riding a white horse.
63. Santa Claus in North America was depicted as________.
A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter.
B. a good old man with less religious character.
C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas.
D. a jolly man on horseback.
64. Who was Black Peter?
A. an elf accompanying Saint Nicholas. B. an elf who rode a white horse.
C. one of the disobedient children. D. a popular traditional figure.
65. What word is closest in meaning to “attributes”?
A. symbols of a person B. natural qualities C. effects D. outer appearance
66. Where did the legend of Santa Claus come from?
A. the North Pole B. Europe C. North America D. the City of New York
67. 1823 was mentioned as a year when________.
A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem B. Clement Clark Moore’s poem made him popular
C. Saint Nicholas visited New York D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed
68. According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem
A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one.
B. Santa Claus had wings and could fly.
C. Santa Claus liked poetry.
D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh.
69. The answer “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus” is an illustration for the fact that________.
A. the New York Sun was popular with children.
B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time.
C. newspapers are unreliable.
D. Virginia O’Hanlon was a reader of the New York Sun
70. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figures.
B. Living in the North Pole, Santa Claus visited children at Christmas.
C. Santa Claus was a real figure living in northern America.
D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter.
D. USE OF ENGLISH (30 points)
Question 8: Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Write your answers in
the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example. (10p)
Vietnamese generally shake hands when greeting and parting. Using both hands shows respect as does a
(71)________ bow of the head. In rural areas, elderly people do not extend their hand are greeted with a bow.
Women are more (72)________ to bow the head than to shake hands. Vietnamese names begin with the family
name and are (73)________ by a given name. For example, in the name Nguyen Van Due, Nguyen is the family
name. People address (74)________ by their given names, but add a title that indicates their perceived
(75)________ to the other person. These titles are family related rather than professional. Among colleagues, for
example, the (76)________ of the two might combine the given name with the title of Anh ("Older Brother").
A(n) (77)________ greeting combined with the given name and title is Xin chao ("Hello."). Classifiers for
gender and familiarity are also combined with the greeting. In formal meetings, business cards are sometimes
(78)________ on greeting.
Vietnamese people have a strong (79)________ of hospitality and feel embarrassed if they cannot show
their guests full respect by preparing for their arrival. Therefore, it (80)________ to visit someone without
having been invited. Gifts are not required, but are appreciated. Flowers, incense, or tea may be proper gifts for
the hosts. Hosts also appreciate a small gift for their children or elderly parents
71. A. light B. slight C. lightly D. lighted
72. A. possible B. capable C. probable D. likely
73. A. continued B. chased C. followed D. taken
74. A. each one B. one other C. one the other D. one another
75. A. relation B. relationship C. relation D. relatives
76. A. younger B. most young C. youngest D. young
77. A. easy B. basic C. fundamentally D. elementary
78. A. changed B. transferred C. reserved D. exchanged
79. A. sense B. sensation C. sensitivity D. sensible
80. A. inactive B. inaccurate C. inappropriate D. inexact
Question 9: Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided
below the passage. (0) has been done as an example. (10p)
Cell Phones
Cell phones have been popular in Japan (0. since) the early 1990s, but it was (81)________ until 1999
that their use really took off. The age of cell phones has emerged, but with it come problems.
Cell phones are used on buses and trains, in restaurants, and in all areas of (82)________. They cause
problems when they (82)________ during meetings, concerts, weddings, or even funerals. What's more,
people speak loudly in public, and students read and text messages during lessons. (83)________ seriously,
when a cell phone is used near a person (84)________ a pacemaker to fegulate his heartbeat, its radio waves
may interfere with the functioning of the pacemaker.
Now, something is being done to solve these (86)________. In many places, new technology is being
used to block cell phone calls. Airline (87)________ are requested to stop using cell phones while on board.
Concert halls ask their audience to switch their phones to the (88)________ mode. However, phone users fear
that if they do not (89)________ their phones, they will lose valuable business opportunities. That's why many
do not (90)________ off their phones even when they are asked to.
Question 10: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. Write your answers in the numbered spaces
provided below. (10p)
91. Those (theatre) group has never lost its appeal.
92. Dolphins, (mammal) species, sometimes jump above the surface of the water.
93. The situation is so (chaos) in some countries now that it is difficult to see any solution
94. He’s the most (please), ill-mannered person I’ve ever met.
95. Good friends can enrich the quality of our lives (measure).
96. This famous singer had two (enter) in the Guinness Book of World Records.
97. Beauty is in the eye of the (hold).
98. Computers are now considered (dispense) in the business world.
99. Due to (electric) the difference between urban life and rural life is more and more reduced.
100. A doctor may prescribe (biotic) if the patient has an infection.
E. WRITING (30p)
Question 11: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it (10p).
101. Someone stole the old lady’s handbag.
→ The old lady was .........................................................................................
102. A true story forms the basis of Mary’s new novel.
→ Mary’s new novel .........................................................................................
103. If you have completed your test, you can go home.
→ Get ......................................................................................................................
104. Absolute secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission.
→ Without ............................................................................................................
105. Something must be done to solve this problem.
→ Urgent .......................................................................................... ....................
Question 12: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar its possible in meaning
to the original sentence. Use the word given and other words as necessary. Do not change the form of the
given word (10p).
106. The job received over a hundred applications. (APPLIED)
→ .......................................................................................................................
107. Alan prides himself on his punctuality. (TAKES)
→ .......................................................................................................................
108. Many people attended this year’s festival. (TURNOUT)
→ .......................................................................................................................
109. He is becoming quite famous as an interviewer. (NAME)
→ .......................................................................................................................
110. The whole team was in a happy mood. (SPIRITS)
→ .......................................................................................................................
Question 13: Writing an essay (40p)

It is widely believed nowadays that social knowledge and the ability to adapt in a changing society make a
school-leaver succeed in getting a job.
What do you think about the saying?
Write an essay of around 250 words to prove your points.
_____________THE END_____________
KEYS
A. PHONETICS (10p)
Question 1: (5p) 01. C 02. A 03. B 04. C 05. C
Question 2: (5p) 06. C 07. B 08. A 09. D 10. B
B. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (20p)
Question 3: (10p)
11. went 12. don’t leave 13. will miss 14. shouldn’t/ oughtn’t have written
15. have been 16. haven’t had 17. should/would have telephoned 18. have forgot(ten)
19. needn’t have borrowed 20. hurrying 21. lies 22. buried
23. loved 24. will be waiting 25. arrive 26. being 27. told
28. to do29. went 30. can’t/ couldn’t have been
Question 4: (10p)
31. visiting → to visit 32. no → not 33. right address → the right address
34. their → its 35. up → down 36. had → had been
37. risen → raised 38. extending → extended
39. previous → previously 40. untidy gravel yard → an untidy gravel yard
Question 5: (5p)
41. to 42. over 43. off 44. to 45. from
46. of 47. to 48. for 49. in 50. Up
C. READING (20p)
Question 6: (10p)
51. B 52. C 53. A 54. D 55. B 56. B 57. C 58. A 59. B 60. C
Question 7: (10p)
61. D 62. C 63. B 64. A 65. A 66. B 67. D 68. D 69. B 70. A
D. USE OF ENGLISH (20p)
Question 8: (10p)
71. B 72. D 73. C 74. D 75. B 76. A 77. B 78. D 79. A 80. C
Question 9: (10p)
81. not 82. life 83. ring 84. More 85.using
86. problems 87. passengers 88. silent 89. answer 90. turn/switch
Question 10: (10p)
91. theatrical 92. mammalian 93. chaotic 94. unpleasant 95. immeasurably96. entries
97. beholder 98. Indispensable 99. Electrification 100. antibiotics
E. WRITING (30p)
Question 11: (10p)
101. The old lady was robbed of her hand bag.
102. Mary’s new novel is based on a true story.
103. Get your test completed/ finished and you can go home.
104. Without absolute secrecy this mission would not have succeeded/ been successful/ been a success/ would
have failed.
105. Urgent action is/ measures are necessary/ essential to solve this problem.
Question 12: (10p)
106. Over a hundred people applied for the job.
107. Alan takes (a) pride in his punctuality.
108. This year’s festival attracted a record/ high turnout.
109. He is making quite a name for himself as an interviewer.
110. The whole team was in good spirits.
Question 13: (20p) ESSAY WRITING
___________THE END___________
ENGLISH PRACTICE 3
I. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7/20 points)

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer (A, B, C, or D) in the
numbered box.
1. Sheila will inherit everything ________ her uncle’s death.
A. on account of B. in spite of C. in the event of D. in place of
2. His poor handling of the business ________ on negligence.
A. neared B. edged C. approached D. bordered
3. Down ________ for three days.
A. the rain poured B. poured the rain C. did the rain pour D. do the rain poor
4. Can I ________ your brains for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself.
A. have B. pick C. mind D. use
5. The job wasn’t giving the ________ of the experience he wanted.
A. width B. depth C. length D. breadth
6. I suppose I could ________ advertising.
A. catch on B. get out of C. go in for D. work out
7. The storm ripped our tent to ________.
A. slices B. shreds C. strips D. specks
8. She travelled the world in ________ of her dreams.
A. pursuit B. finding C. chase D. trail
9. The agency is ________ and not run for profit.
A. charitable B. donated C. voluntary D. free
10. Mike, _______, will you switch off that television!
A. once and for all B. now and then C. over and above D. from time to time
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the
right.
11. The (PLACE)_______ of natural resources is becoming inadequate for the support of increasing
population.
12. The grammar section provides coverage of all the most(PROBLEM)_______ areas.
13. He has recorded the (NARRATE)______ for the production.
14. In this profession, women (NUMBER)______ men by two to one.
15. An (LAY)_______ showing population can be placed on top of the map.
16. The shells are so hard and they are virtually (DESTROY)_______.
17. We should arrive two days early in order to (CLIMATE)________.
18. These changes are likely to (POOR)________ single-parent families even further.
19. I’m afraid the hospital is desperately (STAFF)______ at the moment.
20. This book will challenge your (CONCEPT)_______ about rural life.
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them in the space
provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.
Human and primates, the family of apes, gorillas, and chimpanzees, among others, divide 0. Humans
many common traits. 21.____________
While primates are deemed the most intelligent of animals, most researchers believed they
lack the capacity to produce language. However, a research project in the 1970s at 22.____________
University of Georgia showed promise that chimpanzees have the ability to learn a certain 23.____________
language, just as human children do.
The project used several chimpanzees as test subjects in which Lana, a female chimp was 24.____________
the study focus.
Though the primates lack the vocal constructions to make human speech patterns, the
25.____________
researchers created a language called Yerkish, using lexigram made up of symbols that
26.____________
represent sounds and words. 125 symbols were placed on a keyboard, which Lana was
27.____________
taught how to use the board to communicate with the researchers. She successfully
28.____________
expressed her thoughts by pressing different keys in succession. In some cases, she used up
29.____________
to seven at times.
30.____________
Part 4: Supply the correct form of the VERB in brackets to complete the passage. Write your answer in the
numbered box.
I don't normally go to the cinema. Not because I don't like it but because it's just a habit I (31.never
GET)__________ into. However, on this occasion I (32. DECIDE)__________ to go because my friends (33.
constantly GO)__________ on about this film all week and eventually wore me down. It was starring some
ephemeral Hollywood actor whom I had vaguely heard of but couldn't put a face to. We got to the cinema early
to find people (34. already WAIT)__________ outside, which suggested that my friends weren't the only ones
who thought it was worth seeing although I could still think of several other things I would rather having been
doing at that moment. In the end, the film (35. TURN)_________ out to be not half as bad as expected, though
I (36. PREFER)__________ something with a bit more action. The plot centred on two men who were planning
to carry out some immensely complicated robbery, though what they (37. completely FAIL) ___________ to
realize was that all the time their plans (38. closely MONITOR) ____________ by the police. Somewhat
unpredictably, however, they got away with it because they (39. CHANGE) _____________ their plans at the
last minute. It was okay but I (40.not THINK)________ of going again.
Part 5: Fill each gap in the following sentences with one of the prepositions or particles in the box. Use each
word only ONCE and write your answer in the numbered box. (Please note that the given words outnumber
the gaps.)
by through with for in out
up into off across down beyond
41. He likes to show _________ how well he speaks French.
42. They were sad because the plan fell _________ at the last minutes.
43. Ben is a true adventurer. He has climbed this country's highest mountain, canoed _________ the continent,
and hiked through the Amazon jungle.
44. She wrote the book _________ collaboration with one of her students.
45. You'd better write _________ the appointment in your agenda, or you'll probably forget.
46. Mary has always looked _________ to her uncle, who is a very successful actor.
47. I do feel ________ you, honestly!
48. As I had put on weight, my dress was too tight so I had to let it ________ especially around the waist.
49. I'm sorry but Dr. Ho sees patients _________ appointments only.
50. He spoke _________ such assurance that we couldn't but believe him.
II. READING (6/ 20 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example.
When faced (0)________ some new and possible bewildering technology change, most people
(51)________ in one of two ways. They either recoil (52)________ anything new, claiming that it is
unnecessary, or too complicated or that it (53)________ makes life less than human. Or they learn to adapt to the
new invention and (54)________ wonder how they could possibly have existed (55)________ it. Take
computers as example. For many of us, they still (56)________ a threat to our freedom and give us a frightening
(57)________ of a future in which all decisions will be (58)________ by machines. This may be because they
seem (59)________, and difficult to understand. Ask most people what you can use a home computer for, and
you usually get vague answers about how ‘they give you information’. In fact, even those of us who are
(60)________ with computer and use them in our daily work, have little idea of how they work. But it does not
take long to learn how to operate a business programme, even if things occasionally go wrong for no apparent
(61)________. Presumably, much the same happened when telephone and television became widespread. What
seems to alarm most people is the (62)________ of technology change, (63)________ than change itself. And
the objections that are made to new technology may (64)________ have a point to them, since change is not
always an improvement. As we discover during power cuts, there is a lot to be said for the oil lamp, the coal fire,
and forms of entertainment, such as books or board (65)________, which don’t have to be plugged into work.
0. A. with B. to C. for D. on
51. A. react B. treat C. solve D. perform
52. A. of B. out of C. away from D. from
53. A. somewhere B. someplace C. someway D. somewhat
54. A. eventually B. possibly C. initially D. naturally
55. A. with B. without C. on D. for
56. A. show B. meet C. face D. represent
57. A. possibility B. sense C. idea D. prospect
58. A. invented B. changed C. taken D. done
59. A. unsteady B. unsure C. mysterious D. obvious
60. A. accustomed B. familiar C. used D. commonplace
61. A. reason B. cue C. excuse D. cause
62. A. rate B. swiftness C. speed D. tempo
63. A. more B. less C. rather D. other
64. A. badly B. better C. worse D. well
65. A. sports B. games C. plays D. shows
Part 2: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 66 to 75 that follow.
THE HISTORY OF THE GUITAR
The word 'guitar' was brought into English as an adaptation of the Spanish word 'guitarra’, which was,
in turn, derived from the Greek 'kithara'. Tracing the roots of the word further back into linguistic history, it
seems to have been a combination of the Indo-European stem 'guit-’, meaning music, and the root '-tar’, meaning
chord or string. The root '-tar' is actually common to a number of languages, and can also be found in the word
'sitar’, also a stringed musical instrument. Although the spelling and pronunciation differ between languages,
these key elements have been present in most words for 'guitar' throughout history.
While the guitar may have gained most of its popularity as a musical instrument during the modern era,
guitar-like instruments have been in existence in numerous cultures throughout the world for more than 5.000
years. The earliest instruments that the modern eye and ear would recognise as a 'normal' acoustic guitar date
from about 500 years ago. Prior to this time, stringed instruments were in use throughout the world, but these
early instruments are known primarily from visual depictions, not from the continued existence of music written
for them. The majority of these depictions show simple stringed instruments, often lacking some of the parts that
define a modern guitar. A number of these instruments have more in common with the lute than the guitar.
There is some uncertainty about the exact date of the earliest six-string guitar. The oldest one still in
existence, which was made by Gaetano Vinaccia, is dated 1779. However, the authenticity of six-string guitars
alleged to have been made prior to 1790 is often suspect, as many fakes have been discovered dating to this era.
The early nineteenth century is generally accepted as the time period during which six-string guitars began
taking on their modern shape and dimensions. Thus for nearly two hundred years, luthiers, or guitar makers,
have been producing versions of the modern acoustic guitar.
The first electric guitar was not developed until the early twentieth century. George Beauchamp
received the first patent for an electric guitar in 1936, and Beauchamp went on to co-found Rickenbacker,
originally known as the Electro String Instrument Company. Although Rickenbacker began producing electric
guitars in the late 1930s, this brand received most of its fame in the 1960s, when John Lennon used a
Rickenbacker guitar for the Beatles' debut performance on the Ed Sullivan show in 1964. George Harrison later
bought a Rickenbacker guitar of his own, and the company later gave him one of their earliest 12-string electric
guitars. Paul McCartney also used a Rickenbacker bass guitar for recording. The Beatles continued to use
Rickenbacker guitars throughout their career, and made the instruments highly popular among other musicians of
the era.
The Fender Musical Instruments Company and the Gibson Guitar Corporation were two other early
electric guitar pioneers, both developing models in the early 1950s. Fender began with the Telecaster in 1950
and 1951, and the Fender Stratocaster debuted in 1954. Gibson began selling the Gibson Les Paul, based
partially on assistance from jazz musician and guitar innovator Les Paul, in 1952. The majority of present day
solid-body electric guitars are still based largely on these three early electric guitar designs.
Throughout the history of the guitar, an enormous number of individuals have made their mark on the
way in which the instrument was built, played and perceived. Though some of these individuals are particularly
well known, like the Beatles or Les Paul, the majority of these people are virtually invisible to most modern
guitar fans. By looking at the entire history of the guitar, rather than just recent developments, largely confined
to electric guitars, it is possible to see more of the contributions of earlier generations.
Questions 66-70: Complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for
each answer. Write your answer in the numbered box.
66. Despite differences in _________, 'guit-' and '-tar' appear in the word for 'guitar' in many languages.
67. Instruments that we would call acoustic guitars have been made and played for approximately _________.
68. The ________ of acoustic guitars have not changed much in 200 years.
69. Les Paul, the well-known ________ guitarist, was involved in the development of the electric guitar.
70. Most ________ of the guitar know little about its rich history.
Questions 71-75:Complete the summary. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for
each answer. Write your answer in the numbered box.
Instruments similar to the guitar have been played by musicians for over (71) ________ years. What we know
about many of these instruments comes from (72) ________ rather than actual physical examples or music
played on them. In some ways, these early stringed instruments were closer to (73) ________ than the guitar as
we know it today. We do have examples of six-string guitars that are 200 years old. However, the (74) ________
of six-string guitars made by guitar makers who are also known as luthiers before the final decade of the
eighteenth century is often open to question.
Although the electric guitar was invented in the 1930s, it took several decades for electric guitars to develop,
with the company Rickenbacker playing a major part in this development. Most (75) ________ electric guitars
in use today are similar in design to guitars produced by the Fender Musical Instruments Company and the
Gibson Guitar Corporation in the 1950s.
Part 3: Some parts of the following passages have been removed. Read the passage and then choose from the
list A-J given below the best phrase to fill each of the spaces. Some of the suggested answers do not fit at all.
Write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example.
PEDAL POWER
If you are trying to get around central London when the traffic is bad and you can’t find a taxi,
(0)____________: pedal-powered rickshaws are becoming increasingly popular in the capital. In fact, it is
estimated that 350 of them now cruise the streets, though there is no official licensing procedure for these
diminutive vehicles, so precise numbers are not available. And this is exactly the problem; it is claimed by
residents’ associations and taxi drivers. Since rickshaws are not subject to the same regulations as other vehicles,
(76) ____________. Consequently, the areas around popular tourist sights are sometimes packed with stationary
pedicabs, as the rickshaws are also known. And (77) ____________ as no specific law is being broken.
On the other hand, (78) ____________, which naturally get stuck in traffic jams like other motor
vehicle. And unlike traditional London cabs, pedal-powered rickshaws cause no pollution whatsoever. Many
tourists like them because they are an amusing, unusual way to get around. But are they potentially dangerous?
Well, (79) ____________. Some taxi drivers claim the three-wheeled vehicles are inherently unstable and may
tip over if the driver takes a corner too quickly. Rickshaw drivers insist that they drive almost exclusively in the
narrow streets of the city centre, where (80) ____________. There has as yet been no serious accident involving
a pedicab, but the government is considering some form of regulation just to be on the safe side.
A. it could hardly be any different in this context

B. it is difficult for traffic police to do anything about them
C. it never seems to cause too much inconvenience
D. it very much depends who you talk to
E. it annoys pedestrians as much as motorists
F. it is clear that there is a need for an alternative to taxis
G. it is impossible to gain enough speed for this to be a problem
H. it is not clear whether they are subject to parking restrictions
I. it is tempting to try an alternative
76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
Part 4: Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered box provided below the
passage. (0) has been done as an example.
Although the (0)________ in the global temperature by 4 per cent predicted by many scientists may not
sound like much, it is the difference between (81)________ and the last Ice Age, when huge glaciers
(82)________ Europe and most of Britain. Nobody knows exactly what would happen in a warmer world,
(83)________ we do know some things. Heat a kettle and the water inside it expands. The temperature of the
world has climbed more than half a degree this century, and the oceans have risen by at (84)________ 10 cm.
But just as it takes several minutes for a kettle to begin (85)________, so it may have taken the oceans
thirty years to swell. This means that the global warming we are now (86)________ is a result only of the carbon
dioxide we have dumped into the atmosphere up to (87)________ 1960s. Since then, the use of fossil
(88)________ has increased rapidly. Scientists working for the United Nations and European governments have
(89)________ warning that what the Dutch and the people of the East Anglia will need to do will be to build
more extensive sea defences. Many of the world’s greater cities are at (90)________, because they are located at
sea level. Miami, (91)________ entirely built on a sandbank, could be swept away. But the effects of
(92)________ sea levels will be much worse for the developing countries. With a metre rise in sea levels, 200
million people could become (93)________.
There are other fears too, (94)________ to a recent United Nations report. The plight of the hungry in
the northern Africa could (95)________, as rainfall in the Sahara and beyond is reduced by 20 per cent.
III. WRITING (7/ 20 points)

Part 1:
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
96. Half the afternoon was spent on clay-modelling.
Clay-modelling ………………………….....................................................................
97. I heard her use those words many times.

Many’s…………………………………………………………………………………
98. It was more an argument than a discussion.
It was not so ..................................................................................................................
99. They only reimbursed us because we took legal advice.
We wouldn't .................................................................................................................
100. Your silly question distracted me.

You drove .................................................................................................................
Part 2:
Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it
is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word.
101. From the educational point of view his childhood years had been well spent (TERMS)
………………………………………………………………………….………..........................
102. He's very good at tennis and he's also a very good footballer. (ADDITION)
………………………………………………………………………….………..........................
103. Why does everything seem to be difficult to me? (ONLY)
………………………………………………………………………….………..........................
104. If you work without a break, you are more likely to make an error. (PRONE)
………………………………………………………………………….………..........................
105. They were very keen to hear the president’s speech. (EARS)
………………………………………………………………………….………..........................
Part 3:
The chart below shows the results of a survey on various home activities among young people aged 11 to
16 in four countries. Write a report describing the information in the chart.
Home activities among young people
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Part 4:
A large number of people think that nowadays women should not work hard to earn their living; they
should spend more time in caring for their families.
To what extend do you agree or disagree with this opinion?
Write about 300 words to support your position (and do not include your personal information).
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THE END
KEYS – PRACTICE 3
I. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (7/20 points)

Part 1: (1/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
1. 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. A
C

11. replacement 12. problematic 13. narration 14. outnumber 15. overlay
16. indestructible 17. acclimatize 18. impoverish 19. short- 20. preconceptions
staffed
Part 3: (2/20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)
21. divide => share 22. believed => 23. University 24. just as => 25. in which =>
have believed => the just like among which
University
26. study focus => 27. Though => Since 28. up of => 29. which => 30. at times => at
study’s focus of and a time

31. have never 32. decided 33. had been constantly going/ had 34. were already 35. turned
got constantly gone waiting
36. would have 37. completely 38. were being closely monitored/ 39. changed 40. am not
preferred failed were closely monitored thinking

41. off 42. through 43. across 44. in 45. down 46. up 47. for 48. out 49. by 50. with
II. READING: (6/ 20 points)

Part 1: (1.5/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
51. A 52. D 53. C 54. A 55. 56. D 57. 58. C 59. 60. B 61. A 62. C 63. C
B B C
64. D 65. B
66. spelling and 67. five hundred 68. shape and 69. jazz 70. Fans
pronunciation years dimensions
71. five thousand 72. visual depictions 73. the lute 74. 75. solid-
authenticity body

76. 77. B 78. G 79. 80. F
H D
Part 4: (1.5/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
81. now 82. 83. but 84. least 85. warming
covered
86. experiencing 87. the 88. fuels 89. been 90. risk
91. almost 92. rising 93. homeless 94. according 95. worsen
III. WRITING: (7/ 20 points)

Part 1: (0.75/20pts) (0.15 point for each correct answer)
Suggested answers
96. Clay-modelling was timetabled for/took up/ half the afternoon.
97. Many’s the time (that) I heard her use those words.
98. It was not so much a discussion as argument.
99. We wouldn't have been reimbursed if we hadn’t taken legal advice.
100. You drove me to distraction with your silly question.
Part 2: (0.75/20pts) (0.15 point for each correct answer)

Suggested answers
101. In terms of education, his childhood years had been well spent.
102. He’s a very good footballer/ tennis player in addition to being a very good tennis player/ footballer.
Or: He’s a very good footballer/ tennis player in addition (is) a good tennis player/ footballer.
103. If only everything weren’t difficult to me!
104. Working without a break makes you more prone to error.

105.They were all ears to the president’s speech.
Part 3: (2.5/20pts)
Part 4: (3/20pts)
Notes:
The mark given to parts 3 and 4 is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence,
style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students
Markers, please, should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before marking
the papers.
Thank you for your cooperation.
PRACTICE TEST NO. 4
I. PRONUNCIATION
Part 1: Questions 1-10 Write the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in each of the
following questions
1. A. disappearance B. Sympathetic C. capacity D. conversation

2. A. argument B. achievement C. Involvement D. confinement
3. A. completion B. behaviour C. material D. understand
4. A. opinion B. comfortable C. powerful D. accurate
5. A. penalty B. habitat C. decision D. Countryman
6. A. Atmosphere B. emission C. disposal D. volcanic
7. A. economic B. considerate C. territorial D. continental
8. A. commit B. recipe C. index D. preview
Part 2: Questions 11-20 Write the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three
in each of the following questions
1. A. rained B. followed C. arrived D. jumped

2. A. leather B. tea C. lead D. leave
3. A. autumn B. summer C. sunny D. much
4. A. considered B. stayed C. picked D. received
5. A. prohibit B. co-exist C. frozen D. notify
6. A. rational B. devastate C. parade D. danger
7. A. Valentine B. determine C. examine D. heroine
8. A. muddy B. punctual C. studious D. culture
9. A. element B. election C. event D. eliminate
10. A. dreams B. thinks C. hours D. gardens
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. Nathalie seems very tough at work. She’s a different person at home, _________.
A. though B. although C. as though D. even though
2. I kept out of the conversation because it _________ me.
A. wasn’t concerned B. wasn’t concerning C. didn’t concern D. didn’t concern to
3. The entire city was _________ electricity last night – it was chaotic.
A. no B. almost no C. hardly any D. without
4. Henry was overweight, so he went on a strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.
A. missed B. lost C. failed D. fell
5. He was arrested because he answered to the description of the _________ man.

A. searched B. pursued C. wanted D. hunted
6. Humanity has done great damage to the environment in its search for _________ materials.
A. live B. raw C. crude D. rude
7. _________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.

A. Leaving uncovered B. Having left uncoveredC. Left uncoveredD. Been left uncovered
8. One way to let off _________ after a stressful day is to take some vigorous exercise.
A. cloud B. tension C. steam D. sweat
9. Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break the new _________ in the field and possibly
lead to a cure.
A. earth B. ground C. soil D. land
10. After three days in the desert, his mind began to play _________ on him.
A. games B. jokes C. tricks D. fun
11. The match will be screened on ITV with _________ commentary by Any Gray.
A. lively B. live C. alive D. living
12. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’d sooner you _________ me the whole truth yesterday.
A. could have told B. told C. have told D. had told
13. As the drug took _________, the patient became quieter.

A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
14. The dawn redwood appears ____ some 100 million years ago in northern forests around the world.
A. was flourished B. having to flourish C. to have flourished D. have flourished
15. His comments _________ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.
A. reflect B. bear C. give D. possess
16. All _____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.

A. what is neededB. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is needed
17. It is urgent that this letter _____ immediately.

A. was posted B. posted C. be posted D. be post
18. John: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!
Mary: _____ but I think it’s quite easy.
A. I couldn’t agree more B. I understand what you’re saying
C. You’re wrong D. I don’t see in that way
19. It is only recently that ballets have been based on the themes _____ American life.
A. reflecting B. reflects C. is reflecting D. reflected
20. I wish you’d do the accounts. I don’t have ________ for numbers.
A. a head B. a mind C. the heart D. the nerve
Exercise 2. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
SKIING HOLIDAYS IN COLORADO
To ski or snowboard in Colorado is to experience the pinnacle of winter sports. The state of Colorado is
known for its spectacular scenery and (1. BREATH) _______ views, which inspire today's travelers as much as
they spurred on the (2. SETTLE) _______ who first arrived in this part of the US over a century ago. And
whether you're seeking the outdoor adventure of a (3. LIFE) _______ exciting nightlife or a great family
getaway, Colorado has everything you need.
November through April, snow conditions are (4. CONSIST) _______ and reliable, featuring
Colorado's (5. LEGEND) _______ “champagne powder” snow. Extensive snow making and grooming
operations always keeps trails in top shape.
The mountain destinations in the Colorado Rockies can turn your wildest ski dreams into thrilling (6.
REAL) _______. There, you'll find the best skiing and snowboarding resorts on (7. PICTURE) _______ slopes,
as well as the finest ski schools in the US. Together, they present an (8. PARALLEL) _______ winter paradise.
And the best part is that you'll enjoy friendly, (9. CARE) _______ service in resorts that are (10. COMMIT)
_______ to delivering the highest quality amenities.
Exercise 3. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition/ particle for each blank.
1. The government’s plans to reduce crime came ________for a lot of criticism from freedom groups.
2. I was ________the impression that you like Indian food.
3. This is one of the exceptions ________the rule.
4. The factory paid ________nearly a million pounds to their employees who were injured in the explosion.
5. Before they open the new factory, a lot of the young people round here were ________the dole.
6. Mr. Horrid was a terrible teacher and obviously not cut ________for teaching.
7. I can’t cancel my arrangements ________such short notice.
8. All the police’s efforts to find him were ________vain.
9. The farmhouse we stayed in was completely ________the beaten track.
10. She’s gone and this time it’s ________good.
Exercise 4: There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them
Children who tell pop music does not interfere with their homework receive
support today, with the discovery that pay attention to visual stimuli and sounds
requires completely different brain pathways which can operate at the same time
with your appreciation of either being damaged. Researchers have founded that
listening to car stereos does not create much interference when you are driving.
Similarly, pop music should not interfere with children homework. The affect of
pop music on their performance at it is far outweigh by other factors, such as
how happy they are to be doing it. These findings could be applied for the
design of places which people have to take in large amounts of information very
quickly. They could, for example, be relevantly to the layout of pilot cockpits
on aircraft.
III. READING COMPREHENSION
Exercise 1. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer
by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
THE ATMOSPHERE OF VENUS

Venus, also called the Morning Star and Evening Star, is the second-closest planet to the sun and the
brightest object in the night sky. The planet orbits the sun every two hundred and twenty four Earth-days and is
sometimes referred to as Earth’s sister planet because the two share both a similar size and bulk. What is not
similar, however, is Venus’s atmosphere in comparison to Earth’s atmosphere.
The atmosphere on Venus is much heavier and has a higher density than that of Earth. Venus’s
atmosphere also expands significantly higher than Earth’s atmosphere although a thick cloud cover makes the
surface of Venus nearly impossible to see unless observed through radar mapping.
While the pressure and temperature of Venus’s upper atmosphere are comparable to those of Earth, the
heat and pressure of the lower atmosphere are not unlike a furnace. Venus’s atmosphere is very thick due to a
composition consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, and a small amount of nitrogen. If man could survive the
extreme heat of Venus’s surface (400 degrees Celsius), then he would have to contend with a surface
pressure that is more than 90 times that of Earth. Venus’s extremely high temperature is thanks to the
greenhouse effect caused by such a large amount of carbon dioxide. The greenhouse effect is a process by which
the sun’s infrared radiation is more readily absorbed by the atmosphere. Just like in a real greenhouse used to
grow plants years round, the proliferation of carbon dioxide traps radiation and warms Venus’s atmosphere. Due
to this phenomenon, Venus boasts a higher atmospheric temperature than Mercury, even though Venus is twice
the distance from the sun.
However, scientists postulate that Venus’s atmosphere was not always so hot. [A] Studies show that
large bodies of water were once on Venus’s surface but that eventually evaporation of all the water caused the
runaway greenhouse effect which regulates the planet today. [B] Thus Venus has become a critical study for
today’s scientists, as human beings are only beginning to struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect.
[C] Our problems do not stem from evaporated water supplies but from a propagation of carbon dioxide and
other greenhouse gases due to industrial and automobile emissions. [D]
Another interesting characteristic to note regarding Venus’s atmosphere is that its daytime temperatures
and nighttime temperatures are not that far removed from each other. This is due to the thermal inertia, the
ability of a substance to store heat despite changing temperatures and the transfer of heat by Venus’s strong
winds. Although winds on the surface of Venus move slowly in comparison with Earth’s winds, Venus’s air is so
dense that a slow-moving there can move large obstructions and even skip stones along the planet’s surface.
In 1966, humankind made its first attempt at sending a recording instrument into Venus’s atmosphere.
The Venera 3 probe did collide with Venus surface; however, the abrupt impact caused its communication
system to fail, and it was unable to send and feedback. In 1967, Venera 4 successfully enter Venus’s atmosphere
and was able to take many readings, one of which recorded that Venus’s atmosphere was between ninety and
ninety-five percent carbon dioxide. Subsequent Venera probes were sent into Venus’s atmosphere, but most of
them succumbed to the crushing air pressure.
Questions 1-7: Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the passage.
1.According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star because_____.
A. it is very bright B. it is close to the sun
C. it can be seen from evening till morning D. it is used to find the direction by sailors
2.The word that in paragraph 2 refers to _________.

A. size B. bulk C. atmosphere D. density
3.Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 3? Incorrect
answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Earth experiences greater surface pressure than Venus.
B. If a man could survive its surface pressure.
C. The surface pressure and heat of Venus are much greater than those on Earth.
D. Venus’s surface temperature and pressure make it uninhabitable by humans.
4.According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to _________.

A. the small amounts of nitrogen B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide
C. growing plants D. the high atmospheric temperatures
5.In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth _________.
A. might suffer the same greenhouse effect as Venus
B. once had an atmosphere similar to Venus’s
C. has bodies of water similar to those on Venus today
D. is experiencing a reduction of carbon dioxide emissions
6.Look at the four blanks […] in paragraph 4 that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the
passage.
Although the causes are different, the ramifications are the same.
Where would the sentence best fit?
7.The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.

A. generation B. elimination C. evaporation D. desecration
Questions 8 to 10: Complete the brief summary of the passage by selecting the THREE answer choices that
express important ideas in the passage. The introductory sentence for the summary is provided bellowed.
Scientists look at Venus to predict Earth’s future.

8. …………………………………………………
9. …………………………………………………
10. ………………………………………………
Answer Choices
A.Venus once had large bodies of water that elaborated and caused a rapid increase in carbon dioxide.
B.Earth’s wind has a greater velocity than Venus’s because the air movement on Venus is denser and can even
move large obstructions.
C.Spaceships landing on Venus, though often crushed by Venus’s atmosphere, have revealed much about its
carbon dioxide filled atmosphere.
D.If man could survive the hot temperature of Venus, then he would have to contend with the great surface
pressure.
E.The first space probe of Venus was made in 1966.
F.Scientists are concerned that conditions on Earth that propagate significant quantities of carbon dioxide will
produce greenhouse effects similar to Venus’s.
Exercise 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each
space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
SPLENDID SPAS OF ASIA
Lying on a bed almost on the (1) ________ of a cliff, with a stupendous ocean view and the (2)
________ of waves, aches and pains are soothed away (3) ________ expert hands. Only two steps are needed to
reach the private pool, which seems to merge (4) ________ the ocean.
Such a scenario is no longer a fantasy (5) ________ an increasingly popular reality in Asia for many
stressed out businessmen and visitors from all over the world in search of that peaceful time and space for their
body and mind.
In the last four years, at (6) ________ 17 hotel spas have opened in South East Asia to (7)________ this
need. The tropical climate of the region and its reliable sunshine make for an ideal spa setting. Picturesque
environments (8) ________ with a series of rejuvenating treatments bring the desired result. The Asian spa
resorts have acquired a formidable reputation for their professional services as (9) ________ as for the decor of
their large treatment rooms. Visitors relax with Thai music and soak in the warm tones of the room. As all these
take (10) ________ in individual rooms, precious privacy is guaranteed, a rare privilege often absent from other
spas where guests share rooms or changing areas.
Exercise 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
WIND - The untamable weather machine
On 15 October 1987, the southern counties of Britain were struck by the strongest winds they had
experienced in 200 years. Gusts of over 130 kilometers per hour slammed across the region and £1.5-billion-
worth of damage was (1) _________ in just a few hours.
Extreme weather events like this are dramatic (2) _________ of the power of the wind. It’s one part of
the weather we generally don't give a second thought to in Britain but it plays a vital role in people’s lives across
the world. Without the formation and circulation of winds there would quite (3) __________ be no climate.
Some parts of the world seem to suffer more than others from the effects of ‘ill winds’, and links
between particular winds and psychological problems (4) __________ back centuries. The Föhn, the hot dry
wind that slides off the slopes of the Alps, is capable of boosting temperatures quite suddenly by 10°C or more.
It affects as many as one in three people in its (5) __________, making them feel anxious, irritable and generally
ill. In California, many people (6) __________ the arrival of the Santa Ana, which rushes down from the high
Mojave desert. Lyall Watson, in his book Heaven’s Breath, claims that when the Santa Ana blows, murder rates
soar.
The wind may get into the headlines when it comes in the form of tornadoes and hurricanes, but for the
(7) __________ part it goes about its job of shifting huge masses of air around the planet. Plants take (8)
__________ of this free ride to send their pollen grains far and wide. Trees (9) __________ on it to remove old
leaves and make way for new growth. Spiders have been caught (10) __________ a lift at altitudes of almost 4.5
kilometers.
1. A. made B. caused C. destroyed D. completed

2. A. reminders B. recollections C. mementos D. memorial
3. A. easily B. rightly C. surely D. simply
4. A. last B. originate C. pass D. date
5. A. line B. road C. path D. bypass
6. A. despair B. respect C. dread D. warn
7. A. most B. maximum C. majority D. general
8. A. benefit B. chance C. occasion D. advantage
9. A. need B. trust C. hope D. rely
10. A. traveling B. hitching C. borrowing D. making
IV. WRITING
Exercise 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given. These
words must not be changed in any way.
1. I would like to be able to speak French. (HAD)
I wish _______________________________________________ speak French.
2. It was raining cats and dogs. (TORRENTS)

The rain was ___________________________________________________.
3. It was wrong of you to borrow my book without asking. (HAVE)

You ___________________________________before you borrowed my book.
4. When I was younger, this record was one of my favourites. (FAVOURITE)

This record used ___________________________ mine when I was younger.
5. My sister finds commuting every day annoying. (PUT)

It’s difficult for my sister _________________________________ every day.
6. The Mediterranean is warm, whereas the North Sea is much colder. (NOTHING)
The North Sea is _________________________________ the Mediterranean.
7. Christ would only eat a pizza if he could have a mushroom topping. (ON)
Christ _________________________________________ when he ate a pizza.
8. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language. (TALKED)

My father _________________________________ another foreign language.
9. Sam tried extremely hard to convince her, but it was no use. (BRING)
Hard _________________________________________________________.
10. When he arrived at the airport, his family welcomed him warmly. (GIVEN)
On___________________________________________________________.
Exercise 2. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic.
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have knowledge
of history in order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Write at least 250 words.
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KEYS – PRACTICE 4
I. PRONUNCIATION
Part 1: Questions 1-10 Write the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in each of the
following questions

Part 2: Questions 11-20 Write the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three
in each of the following questions
11. A. rained B. followed C. arrived D. jumped

12. A. leather B. tea C. lead D. leave
13. A. autumn B. summer C. sunny D. much
14. A. considered B. stayed C. picked D. received
15. A. prohibit B. co-exist C. frozen D. notify
16. A. rational B. devastate C. parade D. danger
17. A. Valentine B. determine C. examine D. heroine
18. A. muddy B. punctual C. studious D. culture
19. A. element B. election C. event D. eliminate
20. A. dreams B. thinks C. hours D. gardens
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)
Exercise 1. (10pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer)
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. C
11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. B
16. D 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. A
1. 2. settlers 3. lifetime 4. consistent 5. legendary

breathtaking
6. reality 7. picturesque 8. unparalleled 9. caring 10. committed
1. in 2. under 3. to 4. out 5. on
6. 7. at 8. in 9. off 10. for

out
Exercise 4. (10pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer + 0.5pt/ each correction)
line mistake correction line mistake correction

Line 1 tell say Line 6 affect effect
Line 2 pay paying Line 7 outweigh outweighed
Line 4 with without Line 8 for to
Line 4 founded found Line 9 which where
Line 6 children children’s Line 10 relevantly relevant
III. READING (30pts)
Exercise 1. (10pts; 1pt/ each correct answer)
1. 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A
A
6. B 7. A 8 – 10. A, C, F in any order
1. 2. sound 3. by 4. 5. but
edge with
6. least 7. satisfy/meet 8. together/along 9. well 10. place
1. B 2. 3. D 4. D 5. C
A
6. C 7. 8. D 9. D 10. B
A
IV. WRITING (20pts)
1. I wish I had ability to speak French.

2. The rain was coming down in torrents.
3. You should have asked me/ for permission before you borrowed my book.
4. This record used to be a/one favourite of mine when I was younger.
5. It’s difficult for my sister to put up with commuting every day.
6. The North Sea is nothing like as warm as the Mediterranean.
7. Christ insisted on having a mushroom topping when he ate a pizza.
8. My father talked me into learning another language.
9. Hard as/ though Sam tried, he couldn’t bring her round (to his way of thinking).
10. On his arrival at the airport, he was given a warm welcome by his family.
Exercise 2. (15 points)

Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have knowledge of
history in order to understand the present.
Marking scheme
The mark given is based on the following scheme:
 Task achievement (25 % of total mark)

 Coherence and cohesion (25 % of total mark)
 Grammar range and Accuracy (25 % of total mark)
 Lexical resource (25 % of total mark)
-------------Hết-----------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 5
SECTION A: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress is pronounced differently from the other three in the following questions

SECTION B: READING
Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
Scientists have established that influenza viruses taken from man can cause diseases in animals. In
addition, man can catch the diseases from animals. In fact, a greater number of wild birds seem to carry the
viruses without showing any evidence of illness. Some scientists conclude that a large family of influenza
viruses may have evolved in the bird kingdom, a group that has been on earth 100 million years and is able to
carry the viruses without contracting the disease. There is even convincing evidence to show that virus strain are
transmitted from place to place and from continent to continent by migrating birds.
It is known that two influenza viruses can recombine when both are present in an animal at the same
time. The result of such recombination is a great variety of strains containing different H and N spikes. This
raises the possibility that a human influenza viruses can recombine with an influenza virus from a lower animal
to produce an entirely new spike. Research is underway to determine if that is the way major new strains come
into being. Another possibility is that two animal influenza strains may recombine in a pig, for example, to
produce a new strain which is transmitted to man.
11. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses _______
A. cause ill health in wild animals B. do not always cause symptoms in birds
C. are rarely present in wild birdsD. change when transmitted from animals to man
12. What is known about the influenza viruses?

A. It was first found in a group of very old birds.
B. All the different strains can be found in wild birds.
C. It existed over 100 million years ago. D. It can survive in many different places.
13. According to the passage, a great variety of influenza strains can appear when______
A. H and N spikes are produced B. animal and bird viruses are combined
C. dissimilar types of viruses recombine D. two viruses of the same type are contracted
14. New strains of viruses are transmitted to man by_______
A. a type of wild pig B. diseased lower animals
C. a group of migrating birds D. a variety of means
15. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the following are ways of producing new strains of
influenza EXCEPT_______
A. two influenza viruses in the same animal recombining
B. animal viruses recombining with human viruses
C. two animal viruses recombining D. two animal viruses recombining in a human
Part 2: Read the text and then select the correct answer, A, B, C or D. Write your answer in the right box
below.
The Netherlands
Welcome to the Netherlands, a tiny country that only extends, at its broadest, 312 km north to south,
and 264 km east to west - (16) ______ the land area increases slightly each year as a (17) ______ of continuous
land reclamation and drainage. With a lot of heart and much to offer, 'Holland,' (18) ______ it is commonly
known to most of us abroad - a name stemming (19) ______ its once most prominent provinces - has more
going on per kilometre (20) ______ most countries, and more English-speaking natives. You'll be impressed by
its (21) ______ cities and charmed by its countryside and villages, full of contrasts. From the exciting
variety (22) ______ offer, you could choose a romantic canal boat tour in Amsterdam, a Royal Tour by coach in
The Hague, or a hydrofoil tour around the biggest harbour in the world - Rotterdam. In season you could visit the
dazzling bulb fields, enjoy a full day on a boat, or take a bike tour through the pancake-flat countryside spiced
with windmills. The possibilities are (23) ______ and the nationwide tourist office, which is on hand to give you
information and (24) ______ reservations. You'll have (25) ______ language problems here, as the Dutch are
true linguists and English is spoken here almost universally.
16. A. so B. despite C. in spite of D. although
17. A. whole B. consequently C. rule D. result
18. A. as B. like C. so D. that
19. A. in B. from C. on D. of
20. A. then B. than C. like D. to
21. A. historic B. historical C. historically D. historian
22. A. at B. in C. on D. for
23. A. B. counted C. countless D. countable

countdown
24. A. sit B. catch C. do D. make
25. A. few B. a few C. little D. a little
SECTION B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

Part 1: Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write A, B, C or D in your
answers
26. Please and see us some time - you’re always welcom
A. come to B. come about C. come round D. come away
27. This is the most difficult job I’ve had to do.
A. by farB. by chance C. by all means D. by myself
28. You’d better stop spending money, you’ll end up in debts.
A. or so B. if not C. otherwise D. so that
29. One person……..seven in the world speaks perfect English.
A.from B. within C. for among D. out of.

30. The agency is ________ and not run for profit.
A. charitable B. donated C. voluntary D. free
31. He retired early ________ his ill health.
A. on behalf of B. in front of C. on account of D. in spite of
32. Job specialisation takes place…………of production is seperated into occupations.
A. whenever the work isB. when the work C. is when the work D. whenever working
33. The judge decided to……….the thief to three months’imprisonment.
A. sentence. B. prison. C. put. D. imprison.
34. I met Jim at college. It was the start of a………….friendship.
A. longlife B. prolong C. lengthened D. lifelong
35. Bats avoid………..objects by emitting high-frequency sounds and listening for echoes.
A. to run into B. running onto C. running into D. to run onto
Part 2: There are 8 mistakes in the following passage. Underline the mistakes and write the correct answers
in the space provided.
Let us suppose that you are in the position of a parent. Would you allow your children read any book
they wanted to without first checking its content? Would you take them to see any film without first finding
whether it is suitable for them? If your answer of these questions is yes, then you are either extremely
permissive, or just plain irresponsible. If your answer is not, then you are exercising your right as a parent to
protect your children from what you consider to be desirable influences. In other words, by acting as a censor
yourself, you are admitting that there is a strong case for censorship.
Children need protection and it is the parents' responsible to provide it. But what about adults? Aren't
they old enough to decide that is good for them? The answer is that many adults are, but don't make the mistake
of thinking that all adults are as yourself. Censorship is for the good of society as a whole. Highly civilized
people might find it possible to live together without laws of any kind: they would just rely on good sense to
solve their problems. But imagine what chaos there would be if we live in a society without laws! Like the law,
censorship contributes to the common good.
Your answers:
MISTAKES CORRECTION MISTAKES CORRECTION
36. 40.
37. 41.
38. 42.
39. 43.

Part 3: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to fill in the blanks.
Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this century, thirteen
vitamins have been discovered .
A lack of any vitamins in a person’s body can cause illness. In some cases, an excess of vitamins can also (44)
……….to illness. For example, sailors in the past were prone to suffer from scurvy (45)………is a disease
resulting from the lack of vitamin C. It causes bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer
from scurvy because they did not eat fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables contain vitamin C ,which is
necessary for good (46)…………..
Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these vitamins will lead to
different(47)……….. For instance, a person who has too little vitamin B1 will suffer from beri-beri, a disease
that causes heart problems and mental disorders. A lack of vitamin B2 results in eye and skin problems while
deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of the nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The
knowledge that vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to (48)………people suffering from
these illnesses by giving them doses of the necessary (49)………….Today, vitamins are available (50)
……….the form of pills and can easily be bought at any pharmacy.
Part 4: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to first one. Use and don’t change the
word given. Write 2-5 words in total.
51. I tried to talk to Jack about the problem, but he was too busy. WORD
I tried to …………………………… about the problem ,but he was too busy
52. “ I don’t mind which film we see”, I said MATTER
I said that …………………………… me which film we saw.
53. I was too scared to tell him what I really thought. COURAGE
I ……………………………………… to tell him what I really thought.
54. People say that the pyramids are worth visiting. SUPPOSED
The pyramids ……………………………………………. worth visiting.
55. I was so shocked that I couldn’t react. WASN’T
I …………………………………………………………… react.
SECTION C: WRITING
Part 1: Part 1: You have recently seen a film you enjoyed very much. Write a letter to an English-speaking
penfriend, recommending the film and explaining why you thought it was so good (80-90 words). Use your
name and address as Tom Smith – 123, Red Street, Fantasy City.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Part 2: Write a composition about 150-200 words on the following topic:

Some students prefer to study alone. Others prefer to study with a group of students. Which do you prefer?
Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Keys practice 5
SECTION A: PRONUNCIATION (20 points)
Choose the word whose stress is pronounced differently from the other three in the following questions

SECTION B: READING (20 points)
Part 1: (2pts × 5 Qs)
11.B 12.D 13.C 14.D 15.D
16.D 17.D 18.A 19.B 20.B
21.A 22.C 23.C 24.D 25.A
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1(1pts × 10 Qs)
26.C 27.A 28.C 29.D 30.C

31.C 32.B 33. 34.D 35.C
A
Part 2: (1pts ×8 Qs)

MISTAKES CORRECTION MISTAKES CORRECTION
36. read to read 40. responsible responsibility
37. finding finding out 41. that is good what is good
38. not no 42. as yourself like yourself
39. undesirable 43.live lived

desirable
Part 3: (1pts × 7 Qs).
44. 45.which/that 46.healt 47.diseases

lead h
48.cure 49.vitamins 50.in
51. I tried to have a word with Jack about the problem, but he was too busy.
52. I said that it didn’t matter to me which film we saw.
53. I didn’t have the courage to tell him what I really thought.
54. The pyramids are supposed to be worth visiting.
55. I wasn’t calm enough to react.
SECTION D: WRITING (20 points)
Part 1: (7pts)
Length (1ps): 80-90 words
Ideas (2ps):
Organization and Style (2ps): informal
Vocabulary and grammar (2ps)
Part 2: (13pts)
1. Length: (2ps) : 150 to 200 words.
2. Organization & style: (3ps) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate
to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
3. Ideas (4ps): a provision of main ideas and appropriate details and examples.
4. Grammar and Vocabulary (4ps) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 6
SECTION A: PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. Write your
answer in the space provided.
1. A. associate B. sociable C. ancient D. ancestor
2. A. walked B. threatened C. passed D. forced
3. A. too B. food C. soon D. good
4. A. legal B. legend C. generous D. manager
5. A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure
II. Pick out the word that differs from the other words in the position of the main stress. Write your answer in
the space provided.
6. A. comedy B. collection C. comical D. calculate
7. A. ambitious B. memorial C. memory D. mechanic
8. A. remove B. cancel C. copy D. answer
9. A. Japanese B. engineer C. practical D. questionnaire
10. A. document B. develop C. opponent D. astonish

SECTION B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answer in the space provided.
11. He has declared......building a new bridge.

A. against B. to C. in D. about
12. A washing machine of this type will certainly......normal domestic use.

A. stand up for B. get on to C. take down with D. come up with
13. She set......some money each month for her holiday.

A. aside B. back C. about D. up
14. .......of half-starving wolves were roaming the snow-covered countryside.

A. Packs B. Herds C. Flocks D. Swarms
15. We had to get a bank loan when the money finally.......

A. gave off B. gave in C. gave over D. gave out
16. Mary always takes great care.......her children.

A. with B. for C. of D. to
17. ........he did not attend the English class, he knew the lesson quite well.
A. In spite of B. Despite C. Although D. Because
18. Please don't enter.......knocking.

A. without B. with C. except for D. while
19. While studying he was financially dependent.......his parents.

A. of B. from C. on D. to
20. I took your pen........mistake.

A. of B. with C. by D. from
21. ........of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.
A. In place B. On account C. Instead D. On behalf
22. He kept his job.......the manager had threatened to sack him.

A. despite B. even C. although D. unless
23. Mary doesn’t mind living.......her own.

A. with B. by C. at D. on
24. Please cut my hair.......the style in this magazine.

A. the same long asB. the same length asC. the same long like D. the same length like
25. Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, ......ancient Peruvians did
through natural processes.
A. whether or not B. even though C. whereas D. because
II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
26. Because the torrential rains that had devastated the area, the governor sent the National Guard to assist in the
clean-up operation.
27. One of the most important things in life is a good health.
28. The city has spent a big amount of money on crime prevention.
29. Comparing with other countries, Libya spends a high percentage of income on education.
30. People are now enjoying a higher level of living.
31. In the United Kingdom women see their doctor on the average five times a year.
32. Although Mark has been cooking for many years, he still doesn’t know to prepare French foods in the
traditional manner.
33. When we arrived at the store to purchase the dishwasher advertise in the newspaper, we learned that all the
dishwashers had been sold.
34. After rising the flag to commemorate the holiday, the mayor gave a long speech.
35. This time tomorrow I will lie on the beach, enjoying the sunshine.
MISTAK CORRECTION MISTAK CORRECTION

E E
26. 31.
27. 32.
28. 33.
29. 34.
30. 35.
III. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets in each of the following sentences. Write your answer
36.Iwas annoyed at his (REFUSE)______ to co-operate.

37. The book doesn’t say much about prices, but it is very (INFORM)______ about everything else.
38. The noise (LESS)______ as the plane got farther away.
39. He lost in the election because he was a weak and (DECIDE)______ leader.
40. I couldn’t help it. The accident was (AVOID)______.
41. She was (EXTREME)______ knowledgeable about the history of China.
42. He was very (SET)_______ when his cat was run over.
43. Jackson had another violent (AGREE)_______ with the referee.
44. Many people were buried (LIVE)______ after the earthquake.
45. She studied (ECONOMY)______________ at university.
SECTION C: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write your answer in the space provided.
Australia is a big country, but nearly all Australians live near the sea. On hot summer days, you can see
thousands of people at the beach. Many beaches have waves (46)______ are very high.
These large waves are known as surf and the people who ride them are called surfers. Surfing is a skill, and
it needs learning. Don’t (47)______ to be able to surf properly the (48)______ time you try. However, by
practising a few times you will learn (49)______ to do it.
Surfing is not a new sport. Perhaps its origins need explaining. It started hundreds (50)______ years ago in
Hawaii. Men swam (51)______ to sea to catch fish and found they could come back to land very quickly by
riding the waves. These first surfers did not (52)______ a board. They were “body surfers”. Many people
(53)______ do this type of surfing today.
After a while people started to use boards and rode the waves by lying, kneeling or standing (54)______
them. These first surfboards were made of wood and the water made them rot after a while. Today, surfboards
are made of plastic or fibreglass (55)______.
II. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer
What do you do well? What do you enjoy doing? Your answers to these two questions will help you identify
your (56)______. An employer will consider you seriously for a (57)______ when you can show them that you
know who you are, what you can offer and which you have studied. Sometimes it is difficult to know what your
weaknesses are. Clearly not everyone is equally good (58)______ everything. You may need to improve yourself
and so (59)______ courses in that field could turn a weakness into strength.
You will need to (60)______ some time on your self-assessment. Your honesty and the desire for self-
improvement will lead to (61)______ in getting the right job. Explore the following seven areas to start to get to
know yourself: your aptitude, your skills, your personality, the level of responsibility you feel comfortable with,
your interests and your needs.
Ask (62)______ if you have any special talents and if you need to consider your physical health when
choosing a job. Be as honest and realistic as you can, and ask for other people's (63)______ if necessary. Make a
list of these things. It is usually a good idea to talk about your aptitudes with teachers, family and friends.
If you are considering a career that (64)______ a special talent, such as art, acrobatics, mathematics or
music, discuss your aptitudes with (65)______ expert in that area and discover how they fit the needs of the
occupation.
56. A. strong B. strength C. strengthen D. strengthened
57. A. position B. location C. spot D. room
58. A. upon B. in C. at D. for
59. A. meeting B. taking C. making D. interviewing
60. A. use B. make C. lose D. spend
61. A. success B. successful C. successfully D. succeed
62. A. you B. your C. yours D. yourself
63. A. interests B. fields C. opinions D. attendances
64. A. requires B. asks C. tells D. urges
65. A. a B. an C. the D. this
III. Read the following text and choose the best answer for the questions below. Write your answer in the
space provided.
May 7th 1840 was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century:
Peter Ilyich Tchaikovsky, the son of a mining inspector. Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied
composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and
1890, during which time he enjoyed patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave him a
yearly living stipend. Madame von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living
allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von Meck’s
patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous, including the music for
the ballets of “Swan Lake” and “The Sleeping Beauty”. Tchaikovsky’s music, well-known for its rich melodic
and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before
this, little attention had been given to the music behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died ostensibly of cholera on
November 6th 1893, though there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
66. The best title for this passage could be ______.
A. “The Life and Music of Tchaikovsky”
B. “Development of Tchaikovsky’s Music for Ballets”
C. “Tchaikovsky’s Relationship with Madame von Meck”

D. “The Cause of Tchaikovsky’s Death”
67. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT ______.
A. she had economic troubles B. she was generous
C. she was never introduced to Tchaikovsky D. she enjoyed Tchaikovsky’s music
68. According to the passage, Tchaikovsky’s music is most well-known for ______.
A. its repetitive and monotonous tones B. the ballet-like quality of music
C. the richness and melodic drama of the music D. its lively, capricious melodies
69. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky’s influence on ballet music.B. Tchaikovsky’s unhappiness leading to suicide.
C. The patronage of Madame von Meck.D. Tchaikovsky’s productivity in composing.
70. It can be inferred from the passage that ______.
A. it was not the music behind the dance that made Tchaikovsky famous
B. there is suspicion on the cause of Tchaikovsky’s death
C. Madame von Meck was one of the most famous Russian composers
D. Madame von Meck was one of Tchaikovsky’s girlfriends
SECTION D: WRITING
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
71. It is extremely difficult for us to make ends meet these days.
We find....................................................................................................................................
72. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second child.
Only when................................................................................................................................
73. While mending the road, they accidentally blocked our water pipes.
They accidentally cut off .........................................................................................................
74. He brought the umbrella along but it didn't rain.
He needn't .......................................................................................................................................................

75. While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
Despite ....................................................................................................................................
II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way
that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given
word(s).
76. When I was driving, I realized that the car wasn’t working properly. (WRONG)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
77. Sandra said that she was willing to work late. (MIND)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
78. They pretended to be enjoying themselves, but they weren’t really. (AS)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
79. I can't lift this table on my own. (UNLESS)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
80. The coins are believed to have been buried for safe-keeping. (IT)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
III. Write a composition about the following topic:
What do you think an ideal teacher should be?
Write about 200 words.
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Keys – practice 6
SECTION A: PHONETICS (10 points)
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. Write your
answer in the space provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 5 = 5 points
1 2 3 4 5
D B D A C
II. Pick out the word that differs from the other words in the position of the main stress. Write your answer in
the space provided.
6 7 8 9 10
B C A C A
SECTION B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 points)
I. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answer in the space provided.
1. He has declared......building a new bridge.

A. against B. to C. in D. about
2. A washing machine of this type will certainly......normal domestic use.

A. stand up for B. get on to C. take down with D. come up with
3. She set......some money each month for her holiday.

A. aside B. back C. about D. up
4. .......of half-starving wolves were roaming the snow-covered countryside.

A. Packs B. HerdsC. Flocks D. Swarms
5. We had to get a bank loan when the money finally.......

A. gave off B. gave in C. gave over D. gave out
6. Mary always takes great care.......her children.

A. with B. for C. of D. to
7. ........he did not attend the English class, he knew the lesson quite well.
A. In spite of B. Despite C. Although D. Because
8. Please don't enter.......knocking.

A. without B. with C. except for D. while
9. While studying he was financially dependent.......his parents.

A. of B. from C. on D. to
10. I took your pen........mistake.

A. of B. with C. by D. from
11. ........of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.
A. In place B. On account C. Instead D. On behalf
12. He kept his job.......the manager had threatened to sack him.

A. despite B. even C. although D. unless
13. Mary doesn’t mind living.......her own.

A. with B. by C. at D. on
14. Please cut my hair.......the style in this magazine.

A. the same long as B. the same length as C. the same long like D. the same length like
15. Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, ......ancient Peruvians did
through natural processes.
A. whether or not B. even though C. whereas D. because
II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
MISTAKE CORRECTION MISTAKE CORRECTION
26. Because Because of 31. on the average on average
27. a good good health 32. know to know how to

health
28. a big amount a large/ huge/ enormous amount 33. advertise Advertised, or:
that/ which had been advertised
29. Comparing Compared 34. rising raising
30. level standard 35. will lie will be lying
III. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets in each of the following sentences. Write your answer
36. refusal 39. indecisive 42. upset 45. economics
37. informative 40. unavoidable 43. disagreement
38. lessened 41. extremely 44. alive
SECTION C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 points)
I. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write your answer in the space provided.
46. that/ which 49. how 52. use 55. instead
47. expect 50. of 53. still
48. first 51. out 54. on
II. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer
56. B 59. B 62. D 65. B
57. A 60. D 63. C
58. C 61. A 64. A
III. Read the following text and choose the best answer for the questions below. Write your answer in the
space provided.
2 points/ 1 correct answer × 5 = 10 points
66. A 68. C 70. B
67. D 69. B
SECTION D: WRITING (25 points)
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
Suggested answers:
71. We find it difficult to make ends meet these days.
72. Only when Alice and Charles had their second child, did they decide to move to a bigger house.
73. They accidentally cut off our water supplying while mending the road.
74. He needn't have brought the umbrella along (because it didn't rain anyway).
75. Despite my strong disapproval of your behaviour/ the fact that I strongly disapprove of your
behaviour, I will help you this time.
II. Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way
word(s).
Suggested answers:
76. While I was driving, I realized that there was something wrong with the car.
77. Sandra said that she didn’t mind working late.
78. They acted as if they were enjoying themselves, but they weren’t really.
79. I can't lift this table unless you help me/ someone helps me.
80. It is believed that the coins were buried for safe-keeping.
III. Write a composition about the following topic: (15 points)
What do you think an ideal teacher should be?
Write about 200 words.
Notes:
The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate.
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence,
style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
Markers, please, should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before marking the
papers.
Thank you for your cooperation and considerations.

ENGLISH PRACTICE 7
SECTIONI–PHONETICS
I.Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line.( 5p)
1.A.several B. suppose C. decisive D. sister
2.A. muddle B. struggle C. bush D. interrupt
3.A. ready B. measure C. steak D. stealth
4.A. wind B. behind C. mind D. find
5.A.chalice B. challenge C. choice D. chemist
II. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently from that of the other words.(5p)
1.A. application B. certificate C. biology D. security
2. A. university B. punctuality C. agricultural D.mathematician
3. A. identify B. secondary C. luxuriously D. majority

4. A. academic B. engineering C. availabe D.sympathetic
5.A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
SECTION II- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best option ( A, B, C or D) to complete sentence below and write your answers in the answer
sheet.( 10p)
1. She refused to eat meat under any ………………… .
A. circumstances B. occasion C. opportunity D. reason
2. It was difficult to guess what he ……………. to the news would be.
A. feelings B. reaction C. capital D. opinion
3. Though badly damaged by fire, the palace was eventually …… to its original splendour.
A. repaired B. renewed C. restored D. renovated
4. He didn’t know anyone at the wedding ………….. than the bride and the groom.
A. except B. other C. apart D. rather
5. When you are an old age pensioner, you have to learn to ………… a very small income.
A. live on B. live up to C. live out D. live down
6. I felt so much better, my doctor ………….. me to take a holiday by the sea.
A. suggested B. considered C. accepted D. advised
7. He said that the plane had already left and that I …………….. arrived an hour earlier.
A. must have B. had to C. should have D. was supposed to
8. Alice didn’t expect ……………. to Bill’s party.
A. to ask B. being asked C. to be asked D. asking
9.The restaurants on the island are expensive, so it’s worth ……………… a packed lunch.
A. take B. to take C. taking D. taken
10. When the alarm went off, Mick just turned ………..…. and went back to sleep.
A. down B. over C. up D. out
II.Put the verb in brackets into the correct tense.( 10p)
1.When he ( not arrive) ……….. by 6.00, I ( know) ………. He ( miss) ………… the bus.
2. Something ( tell) ………….. me that you ( not listen) …………… to a single word I (say) ……….. in the
past tense minutes.
3. Same ( not receive) ……………..…… the parcel the last time I ( speak) …………….. to him.
4. When you ( feel) ……….… hungry, room service ( bring) ………….. you whatever you want.
III. Give the correct forms of the words in brackets to complete the blank space. ( 10p)
1.The judges describe Jones as a ….. criminal who was a danger to members of the public. HARD
2. Rescue team held out little hope of finding other …………. SURVIVE
3. He works for UNESCO in a purely ………….. role. ADVICE

4. …………… of the new system will take several days. INSTALL
5. This type of behaviour is no longer …………. acceptable. SOCIETY
6. Watching television can be very …………….. EDUCATION
7. Teachers must keep a record of students’ ……………….. ATTEND
8. Our school set up a project to ……………. the library system. COMPUTER
9.The breakdown of the negotiations was not ……………….. EXPECT
10. Those countries are ……. on other countries for most of their food. DEPEND
IV. Fill in each gap with a suitable preposition. (10 points)
1.……………… behalf of the department I would like to thank you all.
2. Many people expressed a strong preference …………. the original plan.
3. They were refused entrance ………… the exhibition .
4. He graduated …………….. York with a degree in Psychology.
5. We had an argument ………….. the waiter about the bill.
6. She complimented him ………….. his exellent German.
7. She sacrificed everything ……………. her children.
8. Sit down and make yourself ……………. home.
9. He works away …………… home during the week.
10. The searchers spread ………….. to over the area faster.
SECTION III – READING
I.Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions below.(10p)
Traditionally the United States has been described as a melting pot, a place where the previous
identities of each immigrant group are melted down to create an intergrated, uniform society. Since the 1960s,
many Americans have rejected the melting pot metaphor in favour of the image of the mosaic, a picture created
by assembling many small stones or tiles. In a mosaic, each peace retains its own distinctive identity, while
contributing to a larger design. Advocates of the mosaic metaphor assert that it better represents the diverse
multicultural society of the United States. Today, may Americans value their immigrant heritage as an important
part of their identity. More recent immigrant groups from Asia, such as Vietnamese Americans and Korean
Americans, have established communities alongside those populated by the descendants of European
immigrants, such as French Americans, German Americans, Irish Americans and Italian Americans.
1.Why has the United States often been described as a melting pot?
2. Why have people been in favour of the image of the “ mosaic”?
3. What does the word “mosaic” mean?
4. What have immigrant groups from Asia done to maintain their identity?
5. Name some recent immigrant groups from Asia in the United States?
II.Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each space. (10 p)
CAR CATCHES FIRE
Three people jumped ……………( 1) a car on a busy Oxford road after a fire started under the bonnet this
morning. They were just able to rescue their possessions before the car burst into …………..(2). Mr. Peter
Collins, 25, of Wey Road, Berinsfield …………….(3) his Avenger astate car home ………….(4) work with two
friends when he noticed smoke coming into the car. He stopped, …………(5) was unable to open the bonnet. He
poured a bottle of water over the radiator where the smoke was coming from, but could not put out the flames.
He then ………… (6) to get fire extinguishers from a nearby…………(7) , but ………….(8) also failed to have
any effect. ……….(9) he telephoned for a ……..(10) , but by the time it arrived, the car was totally burned out.
1. A. into B. on C. out of D. over
2. A. flames B. petrol C. smoke D. sparks
3. A.drove B. has driven C. was driving D. was driven
4. A. to B. from C. at D. in
5.A. but B. because C. although D. so
6. A. wandered B. jumped C. walked D. ran
7.A. hospital B. garage C.library D. swimming pool
8. A. this B. those C. that D. these
9. A. At length B.Finally C. At the end D. Terminally
10. A. police car B. ambulance C. taxi D. fire engine
III.Read the passage below carefully. Then choose the correct answer: A, B, C or D that best answers the
question about the passage. (5p)
When we were in England last year, I went fishing with my friend, Peter. Early in the morning we were
sitting quietly by the side of the lake when we had an unpleasant surprise. We saw a duck come along with three
ducklings padding cheerfully behind her. As we watched them, there was a sudden swirl in the water. We caught
a glimpse of the vicious jaws of a pike- a fish which is rather like a freshwater shark- and one of the ducklings
was dragged below the surface.
This incident made Peter furious. He vowed to catch the pike. On three successive mornings we
returned to the vicinity and used several different kinds of bait. On the third day Peter was lucky. Using an
artificial frog as bait, he managed to hook the monster. There was a desperate fight but Peter was determined to
capture the pike and succeeded. When he had got it ashore and killed it, he wieghed the fish and found that it
scaled nearly thirty pounds- a record for that district.
1.Why do you think Peter was sitting quietly by the lake ?
A. He was watching the ducks. C. He was waiting for the pike to appear.
B. He wasn’t very talkative. D. He was fishing
2. To what does surprise in line 3 probably refer?
A. to the duck. B. to the ducklings. C. to the action of the pike. D. to the time of the day.
3. What were Peter’s feelings about the incident two days later?
A. He caught and killed the pike. C. He vowed that he would catch the remaining ducklings
B. He remained determined to catch the pike. D. He caught a frog and used it as bait for the pike.
4. How much was the pike worth?
A. about thirty pounds. B. about two hundred and forty dollars.
C. the passage contains no information on this point. D. the passage says that the fish scaled nearly thirty pound.
5. Which of the following titles best sums up the whole passage?
A. Mysterious disappearance of ducklings. C. Record pike caught by an angry fisherman.

B. Revenge on a duck. D. Huge pike caught by fisherman after desperate struggle
at sea.
Section IV – writing
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it (5 points).
1. But for your unsuspected talents as a mechanic, he would have been stranded there for hours.
- If …………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Let’s invite the Browns to the party on Sunday.
- He suggested ……………………………………………………………………………..
3. The only thing that prevented the passing of the bill was the death of the Prime Minister.
- Had it not ..………………………….……………………………………………………….
4. I’ve forgotten that commentator’s name but he’s very well-known.
- That commentator, …………………………………………………………………………..
5. I only recognised him when he came into the light.
- Not until ……………………………….……………………………………………………..
II. Using the word given and other words, complete the sencond sentence so that it has a similar meaning to
the first sentence. (5points)
1.There’s no point in asking George to help. (WORTH)
- It ………………………………………………………….Gerge to help.
2. The last time I saw him was when I lived in London. ( SINCE)
- I …………………………………….. I lived in London.
3. I don’t normally go into town by car. ( USED)
- I ……………………………………………into town by car.
4. Nobody plays this piece as beautifully as he does. (MORE)
- He plays this piece………………………………………………….else.
5. I couldn’t go to work because of the transport strike. ( PREVENTED)
- I ……………………………………………to work by the transport strike.
III. Using the cues below to complete each sentence of the following passage. (5p)
1.Teacher/ Day/ Vietnam/ fall/ twenty/ November/ each year.
........................................................................................................................................................................
2. General/ it / be/ mean/ schoolchildren/ show/ appreciation/ teacher/ who/ guide/ in/ study.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. In / a/ time/ forget/ bad/ experience/ student/ have/ teacher/ scold/ punish.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Students/ give/ teacher/ flower/ small/ gift.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Small/ party/ hold/ and/ there/ be/ atmosphere/ fun/ amusement/ school.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
IV. Writing an essay (10p)
Living in a tranditional family of three or four generations has both advantages and disadvantages. What do you
think of that matter? Write an essay of about 180- 200 words to support your points.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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-----------THE END-------------
Keys – practice 7
SECTION I: Phonetics (10 POINTS)
I. A. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1.
2. C 3. C 4. A 5. D
B
B. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
3.
1.A 2.D 4.C 5.A
B
SECTION II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 POINTS)
I . (1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
5. A
2.
1.A 3. C 4. B
B
7. 10. B
6. D 8. C 9. C
C
II .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1. didn’t arrive/ knew/ hadn’t missed

2. tells/ haven’t been listening/ have said
3. hadn’t received/ spoke
4. feel/ will bring
III .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1. hardened 6. eduacational
2. survivors 7. attendances
3. advisory 8. computerize
4. Installation 9. unexpected
5. socially 10. dependent
IV .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1. On 6. on
2. for 7. for
3. to 8. at
4. from 9. from
5. with 10. out
SECTION III.reading (25 POINTS)
I.(10 points): 2 pts/ each correct answer.
1. Because the United States is a place where the previous identities of each immigrant group are melted
down to create an intergrated, uniform society.
2. Because it better represents the diverse multicultural society of the United States.
3.It means a picture create by assembling many small stones or tiles.

4. They have established communities alongside those populated by the descendants of European
immigrants.
5. They are Vietnamese Americans and Korean Americans.
II. (10 points): 1 pts/ each correct answer.
5. A
1.C 2. A 3. C 4. B
10. D
6. D 7. B 8. D 9. B
III.(5 points): 1 pts/ each correct answer.
1. 4.
2. C 3. B 5. C
D C
SECTION IV : WRITING (25 POINTS)
I.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1. If it hadn’t been for your unsuspected talents as a mechanic, we would have been stranded there for hours.
2. He suggested inviting the Browns to the party on Sunday.
3. Had it not been for the death of the Prime Minister, the bill would have been passed.
4. That commentator, whose name I’ve forgotten, is very well-known.
5. Not until he came into the light did I recognise him.
II.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1. It’s worth asking George to help.
2. I haven’t seen him since I lived in London.
3. I am not used to going into town by car.
4. He plays this piece more beautifully than anybody/ anyone else.
5. I was prevented from going to work by transport strike.
III.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1.Teacher’s day in Vietnam falls on the twentieth of November each year.
2. Generally/ In general, it is meant for schoolchildren to show their appreciation to their teachers who have
guided them in their studies.
3. It is a time to forget the bad experiences students may have of their teachers scolding and punishing them.
4. Students give their teachers flowers and small gifts.
5. Small parties are held and there is an atmosphere of fun and amazenment in the school.
II.10 points
Gợi ý cách cho điểm:
1. Form: an essay (2points)
+ Easy to read
+ Coherent
2. Content: ( 4 points)
+Successful fulfillment of the task.
3. Language: ( 4 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1 point )
+ Suitable connectors (0.5 point )
+ Correct grammar (2 points )
+ Punctuating/ Spelling (0.5 point)
ENGLISH PRACTICE 8
Part I: Grammar and Vocabulary – Choose the best answer
1. Our holiday was_________ by the weather.

A. spoilt B. damaged C. overcome D. wasted
2. The________ charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually high.
A. hire B. price C. fees D. sum
3. He_________ his son of the dangers of driving too fast in his new car
A. warned B. remembered C. threatened D. concerned
4. The child was_________ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street.
A. knocked out B. run across C. run out D. knocked down
5. When Ali arrived in London he spent all his time_______ and visited all the important museums and
buildings.
A. sight-seeing B. traveling C. looking D. touring
6. If you want a cheap air ticket you must_________ well in advance.

A. book B. engage C. reserve D. buy
7. His sister was full of_________ for the way in which he had so quickly learned to drive a car.
A. pride B. admiration C. surprise D. jealousy
8. He asked if we would_________ to share the room.

A. accept B. consider C. agree D. approve
9. I wondered whether you would like to_________ to the theater tomorrow.

A. visit B. go away C. go out D. walk out
10. _________ I would like to say how pleased I am to be here.

A. Primarily B. Foremost C. Earliest D. First
11. The independent arbitrator managed to_________ the confrontation between the union and the
employers.
A. refuse B. confuse C. refute D. defuse
12. When I heard the footsteps behind me I was_________ that I would be attacked.
A. horrified B. terror-struck C. terrorized D. terrified
13. His illness made him_________ of concentration.

A. incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless
14. Has the committee_________ a decision yet?

A. done B. made C. arrived D. voted
15. I am a bit hungry. I think_____________ something to eat.

A. I’ll have B. I’ll be having C. I’m going to have D. I’m having
16. What do you plan to do when you_____________ your course at college?

A. finish B. will finish C. have finished D. is going to finish
17. Where_____________? Which hairdresser did you go to?

A. did you cut your hair B. have you cut your hair
C. did you have cut your hair D. did you have your hair cut
18. ‘Shall I stay here?’ ~ ‘I’d rather_____________ with us’.

A. you come B. you to come C. you would come D. you came
19. I_____________ saying what I think.

A. believe B. believe in C. believe for D. believe
when
20. Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunately I_____________ just in time.
A. could stop B. could have stopped
C. managed to stop D. must be able to stop
Part II: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in
the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.
Part III: Give the correct form of the words in brackets to fill in the blanks.
Traditional, mental tests have been divided 0. traditional → traditionally Dark

black clouds into two types. Achievement tests are designed to in a
dull sky measure acquiring skills and knowledge, particularly 1._____________________ meant
one thing those that have been explicitness taught. The and
one thing proficiency exams required by few states for high 2._____________________ only:
there was school graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude going
to be a tests are designed and measure a person’s ability to 3._____________________
(1.thunder) acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, …..
4._____________________
Not one of vocation aptitude tests can help you decide whether us had
brought an you would do better like a mechanic or musician. 5._____________________
umbrella, or However, all mental tests are in some sense even a
(2.rain)……. achievement tests because they assumption some sort 6._____________________ So
when Jack of past learning or experience with certainly objects,
suggested words, or situations. The difference between 7._____________________ we
should go to achievement and aptitude tests is the degree and a
museum, we intention use. 8._____________________ all
agreed
immediately. 9._____________________ As we
had been (3. shop)
………all 10._____________________
morning we were
now feeling very
tired, it would
be a (4.
pleasant)
………...to sit
down. We took a bus and arrived just as large shops of rain were beginning to fall.
The museum was quite (5.desert)……and very peaceful. We sat down in the main hall and listened to the rain (6.
beat)…….against the windows.
Suddenly, there was a great (7. disturb)……..at the (8. enter)……… a large party of schoolboys were (9. lead)
………in by a teacher. The poor man was trying to keep them quiet and threatening to punish them, but they did
not pay the (10.slight)……. attention.
Section B: Reading
Part I:
The shark is a meat- eating fish and one of the most feared animals of the sea. Scientists (1)…………
about 250 species of fish as sharks. These fish live in oceans (2)………..the world, but they are most common in
warm seas.
Sharks (3)………….greatly in size and habits. Whale sharks, the largest kind of shark, may grow 60
feet long. A whale shark weighs up to 15 tons, more than twice (4)…………….much as an African elephant.
The smallest shark may (5)…………..only 4 inches long and weigh less than 1 ounce. Some kinds of sharks live
in the depths of the ocean, but (6)……………are found near the surface. Some species live in coastal waters, but
others (7)……………far out at sea. A few species can even live in (8)…………..water.
All sharks are carnivores (meat- eaters). Most of them eat (9)…………fish, including other sharks. A
shark’s only natural enemy is a large shark. Sharks eat their prey whole, or they tear off large chunks of flesh.
They also (10)………………..on dead or dying animals.
1. A. classify B. divide C. organize D. arrange

2. A. all B. through C. throughout D. over
3. A. grow B. rise C. evolve D. vary
4. A. as B. so C. very D. exactly
5. A. stretch B. measure C. develop D. expand
6. A. some others B. others C. different kinds D. some sharks
7. A. dwell B. exist C. emigrate D. migrate
8. A. fresh B. sweet C. light D. clear
9. A. uncooked B. live C. lively D. alive
10. A. eat B. swallow C. exist D. feed

Part II: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to fill in the blanks.
Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this century, thirteen
vitamins have been (1)…………
A lack of any vitamins in a person’s body can cause illness. In some cases, an excess of vitamins can also (2)
…………to illness. For example, sailors in the past were prone to (3)…………from scurvy that is a disease
resulting from the lack of vitamin C. It causes bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer
from scurvy because they did not eat fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables (4)…………vitamin C which is
necessary for good (5)…………
Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these vitamins will lead to
different (6)…………For instance, a person who has too little vitamin B1 will suffer from beri-beri, a disease
that causes heart problems and mental (7)…………A lack of vitamin B2 results in eye and skin problems while
deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of the nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The
(8)…………that vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to cure people suffering from these
illnesses by giving them doses of the (9)……...vitamins.
Today, vitamins are (10)…………in the form of pills and can easily be bought at any pharmacy.
Part III: Read the following passage and answer the questions by choosing the best answer among A, B, C
or D.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language
of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated
many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English
was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland.
However, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of
exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. That small enslaves of English
speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English
gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, more than 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two
thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising,
media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are 700 million English users in the world,
and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of nonnative users of any language
in the world.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The number of nonnative users of English. B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an internatonal language. D. The use of English for science and tecnology.
2. English began to be used beyond England approximately.............................
A. in 1066 B. around 1350 C. before 1600 D. after 1600

3. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world EXCEPT
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries. D. colonization
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Most of the information stored on computer systems is in English.
B. Only one thirds of the world’s science writing is in languages other than English.
C. English is the only language used in technology, and advertising.
D. International airports and air controllers use mostly English.
5. According to the passage, approximately how many nonnative users of English are there in the world today?
A. A quarter million B. Half a million C. 350 million D. 700 million.
Part IV:
BITTER WATER HITS THE BIG TIME
Chocolate, which has its origins in South America, is now part of a multi-million pound worldwide
business.
At Easter, British people spend over $230 million on chocolate. A massive eight per cent of all
chocolate is bought at this time.
(1)____. Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in the last century, the
cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec, Toltec and Mayan civilizations of Central America over three
thousand years ago.
The cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa, South and Central America, the
West Indies and South East Asia. The fruit of this tree is melon-sized and contains 20-40 seeds. (2)____. In
English – speaking countries, they are called cocoa beans. This is a misspelling from the 17 th century when they
were also called cacoa and cocao beans.
The Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (3)____. This is from the world in the Aztec language,
Nahuatl, meaning “bitter water”. (4)____. The Spanish found the drink more palatable mixed with cinnamon and
sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of Europe for another century. In the late 17 th century, chocolate
houses were set up in Europe’s capital cities, where people gathered to drink chocolate.
(5)____. But in 1826, CJ van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate powder. (6)____.
The age of the chocolate bar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol company, Fry and Sons,
combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate liquor and sugar to produce a solid block that you could eat. (7)____.
At the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated by French companies. In 1879
the English company Cadbury even named their Birmingham factory Bournville (ville is the French word for
town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off. But then came Cadbury’s famous Dairy Milk bar which
began life as a Dairymaid in 1905. (8)____.It seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain
has established at about four bars each week. (9)____. The latest market trick is the so-called “extended line”.
This is when the humble chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a dessert, to tempt chocoholics who
have grown tired of conventional snacks.
At the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still feeling the effects of a crash in
cocoa bean prices at the end of 1980s. (10)____. Perhaps you could spare a thought for them as you munch your
next chocolate bars.
A. This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed beans.
B. A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave us milk chocolate.
C. They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl.

D. Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid blocks of chocolate which had to be melted
down in hot water.
E. When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make chocolate.
F. Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of milk from the English countryside
quickly established the bar as a rival to the more decadent French brands.
G. British manufacturers include up to 5 per cent vegetable fat in their chocolate, something forbidden
elsewhere.
H. As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced out of business.
I. This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract customers.
J. In Aztec times the chocolate drink was flavored with spices and used on ceremonial occasions and for
welcoming visitors.
K. Only at Christmas do people eat more of the cocoa-based foodstuffs.

Section C: Writing
Part I: Rewrite the following sentences so that they have a similar meaning with the first one.
1. “Don’t forget to phone the police”, she said
She reminded him .................................................. .................................................. .........
2. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
The man............................................... .................................................. ...................
3. A small church lies at the foot of the hill.
At the foot .................................................. .................................................. .....................
4. If you changed your mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club .
Were you .................................................. .................................................. ......................
5. We don’t have to do so many things to please him.
It is .................................................. .................................................. .................................
6. I’m sure he didn’t do it by himself.
He................................................ .................................................. ........................................
7. He can’t afford to go to America this summer.
He doesn’t .................................................. .................................................. ......................
8. Timmy has become confident as a result of his success .
Timmy’s success has turned............................................ ................................................
9. I haven't seen my uncle for a long time.
It's a long time .................................................. .................................................. ....................
10. She dances beautifully and she sings sweetly, too.
Not only .................................................. .................................................. .............................
PART II: Rewrite the sentence, using the given word.

1. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not. (consideration)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. People don’t want to buy cars with large engines any more. (call)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.(halved)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident (prompt)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….

Part III: Write a composition (300 words) about the following topic:
How do movies and television influence people’s behavior? Use reasons and specific examples to support
your answer.
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Keys – practice 8
Part I
Câu 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C A D A A B A C D
Câu 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D D C B A A D D B C
Part II
1. acquiring → acquired 6. vocation → vocational
2. explicitness → explicitly 7. like → as
3. few → a few 8. assumption → assume
4. and → to 9. certainly → certain
5. but → to 10. intention → intended
Part III
1. thunderstorm 6. beating
2. raincoat 7. disturbance
3. shopping 8. entrance
4. pleasure 9. led
5. deserted 10. slightest
READING
Part I
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D
Part II
1.discovered 2. lead 3. suffer 4. contain 5. health
6. diseases 7. disorders 8. knowledge 9. necessary 10. available
Part III
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. C
Part IV
1.K 2.E 3.C 4.J 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.F 9.I 10H
Section C:
1. She reminded him to phone the police.
2. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car
3. At the foot of the hill lies a small church
4. Were you to change you mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club.
5. It is unnecessary to do so many things to please him.
6. He can’t have done it by himself.
7. He doesn’t have enough money to go to America this summer.
8. Timmy’s success has turned him into a confident person.
9. It’s a long time since I last saw my uncle/ I saw my uncle for the last time.
10. Not only does she dance beautifully but she also sings sweetly.
Part II
1. You should take the price into consideration before you decide whether to buy it or not
2. There is no(longer any)/ (There isn’t much) call for cars.
3 .Coal production/ (The coal produced) in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
4. There is little likelihood/ (The likelihood is small) of the PM calling an…./that the PM will call a…….
5. The policeman’s prompt action averted/ the prompt action of the policeman averted an accident
ENGLISH PRACTICE 9
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
I. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. literature B. concentrate C. comfortable D. rhinoceros

2. A. produce B. protect C. project D. purchase
3. A. policeman B. candidate C. fantastic D. position
4. A. counterpart B. outstanding C. applicant D. wilderness
5. A. mosquitoB. document C. literature D. business
6. A. magazine B. preference C. cigarette D. engineer
7. A. regardless B. coincide C. specific D. inventive
8. A. promise B. tonight C. furnish D. reason
9. A. electronic B. proficiency C. petroleum D. equivalent
10. A. substantial B. dramatic C. terrorist D. demolish
PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer
1. You need a passport to cross the _________between Mexico and the United States.
A. edge B. line C. border D. rim
2. When you _______ your destination, your tour guide will meet you at the airport.
A. arrive B. get C. reach D. achieve
3. Rachel is mad ______ the Eurovision.
A. about B. for C. from D. against
4. We are pleased to announce that Keith Danish ______ replace Susan Williams as Operations Manager from
24th September.
A. does B. is about to C. is to D. is due
5. Make sure you mix the ingredients well, ________ you might get lumps in your cake.
A. unless B. otherwise C. provided D. supposing.

6. If you hadn’t taken the money, you _____ in prison now.
A. wouldn’t be B. wouldn’t have been C. haven’t been D. hadn’t been.
7. The bank is reported in the local newspaper _______ in broad daylight yesterday.
A. to be robbed B. robbed C. to have been robbed D. having been robbed
8. Fiona can’t _______ about the meeting. I reminded her this morning!
A. forget B. have forgotten C. be forgetting D. have been forgetting
9. The doctor _______the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.
A. examined B. investigated C. researched D. looked into
10. Dr parker gave my mum a lovely ______for spaghetti carbonara.
A. receipt B. recipe C. prescription D. paper
11. I was shocked when I crashed the car but at least I wasn’t __________.
A. injured B. broken C. damaged D. spoilt
12. I glanced at the newspaper and saw that the _______ said “President Resigns”
A. headline B. heading C. subtitle D. chapter
13. I think my favorite _____ is probably table tennis.
A. athletics B. exercise C. sport D. gym
14. I think the discussion has gone on _______ and we should make a decision.
A. long enough B. such long C. so long D. enough long
15. A: “Could you do something for me?” B: _________________
A. Certain! B. Certainly C. Right! D. Never mind!
16. Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn’t _______ as usual.
A. ring off B. get off C. go off D. take off
17. She applied for paid leave but her boss rejected her application__________.
A. in hand B. on hand C. at hand D. out of hand
18. I’m older than you are, ____________?
A. am I B. isn’t it C. aren’t I D. aren’t you
19. ______ parrots are native to tropical regions is untrue.
A. That all B. All C. Why all D. Since all
20. Jane: “Would you rather go to the beach or to the mountains?” Kim: “_______________”
A. That’s very nice of you C. I’d love to go
B. Thanks for the mountains D. The beach definitely
II. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and then correct them. Write your
answers on your answer sheet.
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Culture clashes
One (1)______(CHARACTER) of the modern world is that people increasingly find themselves living side by
side with people from other cultures. While in the past people with different cultures were able to live quite
(2)______(SEPARATE), high mobility and freedom of movement mean that we are more likely today to be
confronted with people whose way the life is (3)______(FAMILIAR) to us. In such circumstances,
(4)______(RACE) is a read danger.
People feel a tremendous (5)_____(LOYAL) to their own culture, and are often unwilling to develop an
(6)______(APPRECIATE) of the positive aspects of other cultures. They may feel that another culture presents
a threat to their own (7)______(INHERIT), one that could even lead to the (8)_____(APPEAR) of certain
aspects of their way of life. Often, however, this threat is more a matter of (9)_____(PERCEIVE) than reality
and different groups live in (10) ______(RELATE) harmony in many parts of the world
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by
This symptoms of hay fever include watery and itchy eyes and a runny, congested nose. People
suffering from hay fever may experience occasional wheezing and repeated bouts of sneezing and may even lose
their sense of smell. Some victims of hay fever may also have stopped-up ears. About 30 percent of those who
suffer from hay fever may develop the symptoms associated with periodic asthma or a sinus infection. The
allergen-antibody theory does not fully explain allergic reactions because the membranes and glands in eyes and
ears are controlled by the independent nervous system, which keeps these organs in balance. But the independent
nervous system itself is part of the emotional- response center and may cause the feelings of anger, fear,
resentment, and lack of self-confidence in reaction to allergy-causing substances.
The most common cause of hay fever is the pollen of ragweed, which blossoms during the summer and
autumn. When airborne pollen particles, as well mold, come into contact with the victim’s membranes, they can
cause allergic reactions that release histamine and result in virtual blockage of air passages. To prevent hay fever
or to decrease the severity of its symptoms, contact with the ragweed pollen should be reduced. Although some
communities have attempted to eliminate the plants that cause the reactions, elimination programs have not been
successful because airborne pollen can travel considerable distances. Antihistamine can help with short but
severe attacks. Over extended periods of time, however, patients are prescribed a series of injections of the
substance to which they are sensitive in order to increase immunity and thus be relieved of the seasonal allergy.
(Resource: Toefl test strategies by Eli Hinkel, Ph.D)
1.It can be inferred from the passage that the phrase “hay fever” refers to
A. fodder for cattle B. a seasonal discomfort
C. viral bacteria D. a lung disease
2. According to the passage, the symptoms of the allergy are predominantly
A. abdominal B. intestinal C. respiratory D. chronic
3. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Hay fever may cause severe allergic reactions and even death.
B. The cause of allergic reactions has not been determined.
C. The nervous system balances allergic reactions.
D. People should not have an emotional response to allergic reactions.
4. According to the passage, patients suffering from hay fever may also experience
A. hunger pains B. mood swings
C. nervous blockages D. sensory perceptions
5. The word “resentment” is closest in meaning to
A. reprieve B. reprisal C. irritation D. grief
6. According to the passage, the irritants are transported by
A. wind B. food C. travelers D. air passages
7. The word “blockage” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. obstruction B. bleeding C. enlargement D. dryness
8. According to the passage, to avoid incidents of hay fever, patients need to
A. avoid interactions with other patients
B. avoid exposure to pollen
C. increase their self-confidence
D. take doses of prescribed medicine.
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a cause of allergies?
A. pollen B. mold C. flowers D. injections
10. A paragraph following this passage would most probably discuss
A. how the nervous system alerts patients.
B. how the immune system reacts to allergens.
C. what other diseases can be relieved by vaccines.
D. What flowers are harmless to hay fever patients.
II. Complete the following passage by choosing the correct option (A, B, C or D) to fill in blanks. Write
your answers on your answer sheet.
Down from the mountains
On the fourth day, We started our descent from the mountain range. We walked down the narrow track in single
(1)______, taking care not to slip on the wet surface. We followed the river down a steep-sided (2)_____,
stopping just once along the way to take a shower under a beautiful______(3). Soon the (4)_______ began to
change, with more and more trees and (5) ______vegetation. Several (6)_______ of birds flew overhead, and we
saw an amazing multi-coloured snake lying under a small (7)______ as we walked past. By the afternoon, the
countryside was changing again as we approached the coast. Here, there were (8)_______ where farmers grew a
variety of crops such as wheat, and we saw a (9)_________ of cows near a farmhouse. Then we climbed up and
down some tall, grass-covered (10)_______ , and at last we had arrived at the sea.
1. A. line B. file C. track D. queue
2. A. channel B. lagoon C. canal D. valley
3. A. pond B. waterfall C. current D. bath
4. A. scenery B. sights C. settings D.scenes
5. A. dense B. tight C. intense D. close
6. A. crews B. bunches C. flocks D. crowds
7. A. wood B. hedge C. bush D. forest
8. A. deserts B. fields C. shores D. jungles
9. A. team B. gang C. pack D. herd
10. A. dunes B. beaches C. plains D. fences
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each
Travel Insurance
When going on holiday, it is always a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just in case something goes
(1) _____ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or even become ill and need
expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a precaution (2)_______
will help them have an enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for (3)_____, travel insurance is a way of earning
money (4) ______ making false claims against insurance companies. For (5) ______ some people pretend that
they have had expensive equipment stolen which in (6) ______ never even existed, and then claim large sums in
compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total (7)_____ £ 50 million per year. But the cheats’ luck
is about to run (8)____ . (9) ______ to a new computer system, companies will be able to tell at a glance (10)
_____ someone has made a claim within the last three years. Honest travelers will no longer have to pay through
the nose for other people’s dishonesty.
PART D. WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your
answers on your answer sheet.
1. Is there any chance of his coming to the party? (likely)
Is he ________________________________________________________?
2. I’m sure it wasn’t Jim who did it. (have)
It ________________________________________________________
3. He promised me he would be back before midnight. (word)
He _________________________________________________________
4. He prefers cycling to walking. (prefer)
He would _____________________________________________________.
5. That dress is a third of the cost of the blue one. (much)
The blue dress is _______________________________________________
II. Essay writing
” Nowadays, the increasing number of schools in Vietnam are facing with the alarming issue, school
violence. What do you think are the causes of this? What solutions can you suggest?”
You should write about 250 words.
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Keys – practice 9
I. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. literature B. concentrate C. comfortable D. rhinoceros

2. A. produce B. protect C. project D. purchase
3. A. policeman B. candidate C. fantastic D. position
4. A. counterpart B. outstanding C. applicant D. wilderness
5. A. mosquito B. document C. literature D. business
6. A. magazine B. preference C. cigarette D. engineer
7. A. regardless B. coincide C. specific D. inventive
8. A. promise B. tonight C. furnish D. reason
9. A. electronic B. proficiency C. petroleum D. equivalent
10. A. substantial B. dramatic C. terrorist D. demolish
PART B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.05/item)
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. B
11. A 12. 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. 17. D 18. 19. 20. D
A C C A
II. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and then correct them. Write your
answers on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)
1. the second → a second 6. signature → signing
2. and (intricate) → an (intricate) 7. to investigate → investigating
3. is functioned → functions 8. for → in
4. presenter → representative 9. reciprocates → reciprocate
5. promised → promising 10. personnel → personal
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (1pt;
0.1/item)
1. characteristic 2. separately 3. unfamiliar 4. racism 5. loyalty
6. appreciation 7. heritage 8. disappearance 9. perception 10. relative
PART C. READING
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)
1. 2.C 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. B
B A
II. Complete the following passage by choosing the correct option (A, B, C or D) to fill in blanks. Write
your answers on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)
1. B 2.D 3. 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. 8. B 9. D 10. A
B C
III. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each
space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)
1. wrong 2. which 3. others/ some 4. by 5. example/ instance
6. fact 7. of 8. out 9. Thanks 10. whether/ if
PART D. WRITING (2pt)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your
answers on your answer sheet. (0.5 pt; 0.1/item)
1. Is he likely to come to the party?
2. It can’t have been Jim who did it.
3. He gave me his word that he would be back before midnight
4. He would prefer to cycle rather than walk.
5. The blue dress is three time as much as that one.
II. Essay writing (1.5pt)

” Nowadays, the increasing number of schools in Vietnam are facing with the alarming issue, school
violence. What do you think are the causes of this? What solutions can you suggest?”
You should write about 250 words
Total score: 1.5 points;
ENGLISH PRACTICE 10
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different
1. A. different B. tradition C. opera D. capital
2. A. individual B. unemploymentC. difficult D. Population
3. A. apply B. appear C. visit D. attend
4. A. kindergarten B. conventional C. contaminate D. curriculum
5. A. corporate B. different C. engineer D. difficult
6. A. adorable B. ability C. entertainment D. impossible
7. A. company B. customer C. atmosphere D. employment
8. A. university B. institution C. preferential D. indicative
9. A. environment B. difficulty C. inhabitant D. community
10. A. impossible B. entertainment C. adorable D. ability
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer by
1. The audience couldn’t listen to the lengthy and pointless speech _________.
A. far any more B. any longer C. any more far D. any lengthier
2. He missed two most important lectures. He _________very ill.
A. had to be B. must be C. was to be D. must have been
3. Allan: “Do you mind if I use your dictionary?” Nick: “_______.”
A. I’m afraid not B. Without doubt C. No, feel free D. Straight ahead
4. Oh, I’m always forgetting _______ these medicines. Is that before or after meal, Ron?
A. when to take B. what I will take with
C. on which I should take D. when I take
5. We rang the doorbell again _______ they hadn’t heard it the first time.
A. because B. although C. for fear of D. in case
6. How boring the lecture was! I _______ just in the first half of it.
A. dropped off B. fell out C. called off D. came out
7. Will it make any _______ to them if we deliver their equipment tomorrow?
A. displeasure B. alteration C. difference D. conflict
8. What time are you _______ duty? Let’s have a coffee after that.
A. over B. on C. off D. out of
9. Don’t give up your harboring dream. _______ working harder and harder.
A. Try out B. Keep on C. Speed up D. Go off
10. It’s been a good year. I’ve written two books and a couple of articles, and _______ are now in print.
A. both of which B. both of them C. all of which D. all of them
II. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
With the development of fast motorway systems in many countries, once remote parts of the countryside are (1.
INCREASE) __________ becoming (2. ACCESS) ____________to people who live in towns and cities. In
many parts of the world, rising (3. PERSON) ____________incomes have resulted in mass (4. OWN)
____________ of motor cars at a time when people have more leisure time to fill.
This means that there is a lot of (5. PRESS) ___________ on the countryside to accept a growing number of
visitors. In Britain, for example, the (6. NATION)____________ parks are used by more than one hundred
million people annually.
In (7. ADD) __________, similar numbers visit areas that do not enjoy the same level of (8. PROTECT)
____________. Some people regard this invasion of the countryside as (9. DESIRE) ____________and they
have begun campaigning to try and save some aspects of (10. TRADITION)____________ rural culture.
III. In most lines of this text there is one unnecessary word. It is either incorrect grammatically, or does not
fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space beside the text. Tick (√) each correct line.
There are two examples at the beginning. Transfer your answers to your answer sheet.
I am really keen on going to the cinema, so I’ve got lots of favourite films. But the best one as 0 …√………
I’ve seen lately is called “Pressure”. In some ways, I suppose that you could regard it as a 00 …
detective film but it’s different from most films of that kind because the characters are they as………
such unusual people. The detective in it, for example, is a computer expert who solves crimes 1 …………
on her computer using information given to her by her assistants, who go out and interview to 2 …….
people. The case in the film concerns about the wife of a millionaire, who has gone missing. ………
Sometimes the plot gets a bit complicated but it isn’t too hard to keep up with it. There are a 3 ….………
lot of strange characters in it, such as a man who always wears two hats on, and some of the 4 ……………
scenes really made me laugh. Also, there is a big surprise at the end but I won’t say what that 5 ……..
is in the case you go to see it. It’s very well acted and I also like the music in it. But what do I ………
really like most about the film is that it’s so original- I’ve certainly seen another film quite like 6 …….…….
that. 7 …….….…
8……….……
9. ……….
……..
10.
…………….
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by writing
the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
Have you ever thought about the names of the months? Why are “January” and “February” not called
“Primo” or “Secondo”? Is it because the original names were created in ancient times? Or is it because the
originators preferred odd words?
Take February, for example. Say it aloud a few minutes and you start to wonder. Most people don’t
know who developed these names. However, a little research reveals that the names of the months came mostly
from a combination of the names of Roman gods and goddesses, important festivals, and the original numbers of
the months.
Julius Caesar and Pope Gregory XIII change the calendar to make it more exact. Caesar developed a
new calendar of 364 and a quarter days, the time it takes the earth to orbit the sun from one spring season to the
next. The Pope’s astronomers refined the calendar regarding leap years; they determined that there should be no
leap year in years ending in 00- unless they were divisible by 400; the years 1700, 1800, 1900 and 2100 would
not be considered leap years, while the years 1600 and 2000 would be. This new Gregorian calendar was so
accurate that today, scientists need only add leap seconds every few years to the clock in order to keep the
calendar matching the Earth’s cycles.
1. What is the topic of the passage?
A. how the modern calendar was named and developed
B. how the months were named
C. how the leap year system was developed
D. how accurate the modern day is calendar
2. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author think the names of the months are __________.
A. odd B. difficult to pronounce C. inappropriate D. none of the answers
3. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______________.
A. calendars B. days C. astronomers D. years
4. The word “accurate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. interesting B. informative C. correct D. simple
5. Which of the following will be a leap year?
A. 2300 B. 2400 C. 2200 D. 2500
6. Which of the following is true of the Gregorian calendar?
A. It needs major improvements.
B. It was so well designed, it needs little adjusting today.
C. It copied the Roman calendar’s formula of leap years.
D. none of the answers
7. Why is Caesar important in calendar making?
A. He changed the length of the year
B. He extended summer.
C. He has a month named for him
D. He altered the number of days in the year.
8. In what order is the information in the passage presented?
A. Caesar’s calendar, the Gregorian calendar, the modern calendar
B. Roman Gods, important festivals, original numbers of months
C. names of months, Caesar’s calendar, the Gregorian Calendar
D. none of the answers
9. The word “refined” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. studied B. invented C. observed D. improved
10. Why is the number of 364 and a quarter important?
A. It is the length of time from the beginning of spring to the end of winter.
B. It is the length of a planetary year.
C. It is the most accurate number for calendars.
D. It was a number randomly chosen by Caesar for his calendar.
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space.
Write your answers on your answer sheet.
The legend of the root
Ginseng is one of the great mysteries of the east. Often referred to as the “elixir of life”, its widespread
use in oriental medicine has led to many myths and legends building up around this remarkable plant. Ginseng
has featured (1) ____ an active ingredient in oriental medical literature for over 5,000 years. Its beneficial effects
were, at one time, (2) ____ widely recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its weight in gold.
(3) ____ the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active part of the ____ (4) is
the root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng – the word Panax, (5) ____ the word panacea, coming from the Greek
for “all healing”. There is growing interest by western scientists in the study of ginseng. It is today believed that
this remarkable plant may (6) ____ beneficial effects in the treatment of many diseases which are difficult to
treat with synthetic drug.
Today, ginseng is (7) ____ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is becoming widely
recognized that this ancient herb holds the answer to relieving the stresses and ailments of modern living. It is
widely used for the treatment of various ailments (8) ____ as arthritis, diabetes, insomnia, hepatitis and anemia.
However, the truth behind (9) ____ ginseng works still remains a mystery. Yet its widespread effectiveness
shows that the remarkable properties are (10) ____ than just a legend.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by writing
Environmental Concerns
Earth is the only place we know of on the universe that can support human life. (1) ________ human
activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (2) _______ on consuming two- thirds of
the world’s resources while half of the world’s population do so (3) ________ to stay alive we are rapidly
destroying the (4) _______resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil
is (5) ___________built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will
never be able to recover (6) ______. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the
consequences. As a result the planet’s ability to support people is being (7) _______ at the very time when rising
human numbers and consumption are (8) _______ increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth’s natural
resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to
(9) _______ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources they will
(10) _______ indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon run out and everyone
will suffer.
1. A. Although B. Still C. Yet D. Despite
2. A. continues B. repeats C. carries D. follows
3. A. already B. just C. for D. entirely
4. A. alone B. individual C. lone D. only
5. A. sooner B. neither C. either D. rather
6. A. quite B. greatly C. utterly D. completely
7. A. stopped B. narrowed C. reduced D. cut
8. A. doing B. having C. taking D. making
9. A. hold B. maintain C. stay D. keep
10. A. last B. stand C. go D. remain
PART D: WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your answers on
your answer sheet.
1. Its lack of irregular verbs makes Esperanto a unique language.
Unlike_________________________________________________.
2. Mr. Smith knew little about the Internet, so he didn’t invest into any computer companies.
Had_________________________________________________.
3. The Board of Directors discussed the business in length, but came to no decision.
The Board of Directors had ________________________________.
4. When she got to the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
On_________________________________________________.
5. Barbara runs a successful company and she also manages to look after her five children.
Not only_________________________________________________.
II. Write a passage of about 200 words to show your opinion on the following statement:
“Some people believe that children’s leisure activities must be educational, otherwise they are a complete
waste of time”
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--------------THE END --------------
Keys – practice 10
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different
1. A. different B. tradition C. opera D. capital
2. A. individual B. unemploymentC. difficult D. Population
3. A. apply B. appear C. visit D. attend
4. A. kindergarten B. conventional C. contaminate D. curriculum
5. A. corporate B. different C. engineer D. difficult
6. A. adorable B. ability C. entertainment D. impossible
7. A. company B. customer C. atmosphere D. employment
8. A. university B. institution C. preferential D. indicative
9. A. environment B. difficulty C. inhabitant D. community
10. A. impossible B. entertainment C. adorable D. ability
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
I. 10 points- Half a point for each correct answer)
1. 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. D
B A
II. 10 points (one point for each correct answer)
1. increasingly 2. accessible 3. personal 4. ownership 5. pressure
6. national 7. addition 8. protection 9. undesirable 10. traditional
III. 10 points (one point for each correct answer)

1. 2. they 3. √ 4. to 5. about
√
6. 7. √ 8. 9. the 10. do
√ on
PART C: READING (30 POINTS)

I. (10 points: one point for each correct answer)
1. 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B
A
6. B 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. B
II. (10 points: one point for each correct answer).

1. as 2. so 3. 4. plant 5. like
despite
6. 7. no 8. such 9. how 10. more
have/cause/produce
III. (10 points: one point for each correct item).

1. C 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. A
PART D: WRITING (20 POINTS)

I. (5 points: one point for each correct answer).
1. Unlike other languages, Esperanto has no irregular verbs.
2. Had Mr. Smith known something / more / a little more / some more about the Internet, he would have invested
into some computer companies.
3. The Board of Directors had a long discussion on / about the business, but came to / reached / made no
decision.
4. On her arrival at the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
5. Not only does Barbara run a successful company, but she also manages to look after her five children /but she
manages to look after her five children as well.
II. 15 points: Bài viết cần phù hợp về hình thức, ngôn ngữ và nội dung.
1. Form: passage (2 points)
- Easy to follow
- Coherent
2. Content: (8 points)
3. Language: (5 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1.5 point)
+ Suitable connectors (1 point\
+ Correct grammar (1.5 points)
+ Punctuating / Spelling (1 point)
--------------THE END--------------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 11
I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
21. A.shower B.allow C.shout D.arrow

22. A.increase B.creation C.mean D.cheat
23. A.danger B.exchange C.blame D.anger
24. A.these B.theory C.worth D.threaten
25. A. chamber B. ancient C. danger D. ancestor
26. A. smoothly B. southern C. breath D. airworthy
27. A dozen B glove C love D stove
28. A kites B catches C oranges D buzzes
29. A wood B good C food D childhood
30. A whistled B laughed C lodged D received
16. A. community B. developing C. conditioner D. interested
17. A. continue B. importance C. different D. directed
18. A. medicines B. opposite C. pollution D. capable
19. A. preservation B. inspiration C. disposable D. popularity
20. A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer
II. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence.
21. Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?”
Mary: “_________”
A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you.
C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one. D. Neither. I’m going to lease one.
22. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!”
Mr John: “_________”
A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so.
23. You have never been to Italy, ________?
A. have you B. haven’t you C. did you D. had you
24. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ________.
A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality
25. “How is it going?” - “________”
A. By bike B. Not much C. It sounds better D. Mustn’t grumble
26. ________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.
A. Because B. He is C. As D. That he is
27. ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.
A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test
C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test
28. As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act responsibly.
A. whose B. whom C. which D. when
29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea.
A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view

30. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.
A. with B. to C. by D. for
31. As soon as you ________ that, I’d like you to go to bed.
A. have done B. did C. will do D. will have done
32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on ________ Prime Minister.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. to have been
33. In 1870, ________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices
C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating
34. They’re staying in rented accommodation for the time ________.
A. going B. making C. doing D. being
35. “I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Sunday afternoon”. - “________”
A. OK, what time? B. You’re kidding C. I know D. I’m sure
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets.
36. We found it ____________ (thrill) to your wonderful news. THRILLING
37. He left the room without any ____________ (explain). EXPLANATION
38. He didn’t feel happy because he worked ____________ (success). UNSUCCESSFULLY
39. Many people expressed ____________ (disagree) with the whole idea. DISAGREEMENT
40. There was a ____________ (wide) dissatisfaction with the government’s policies. WIDESPREAD
41. Her health has ____________ (bad) considerably since we last saw her. WORSENED
42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart diseases and other
____________ (sick). SICKNESSES
43. He was ____________ (information) of the consequences in advance. INFORMED
44. I was kept ____________ (wake) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above. AWAKE
45. This road is so bad that it needs ____________ (surface). RESURFACING
IV. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
46. Last week unless my mother had had enough money, she would have bought that toy for me.
47. It often takes me about fifteen minutes to go to work from here by foot.
48. Those people say that it is such polluted air that they can’t breath, don’t they?
49. It is noisy enough in this room, so I would rather you stop shouting like that.
50. Dr. Roberts, the first woman to be elected president of the university, is intelligent, capable and awareness of
the problem to be solved.
V. Fill in the gaps
A. terrible B. size C. hope D. wrong E. loose F. problem G.

want
Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people (51)________ to be fashionable, but they don’t want to
look exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are suitable for work or school, perhaps because they are not
formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the (52)_________ size, and find that your trousers
are too tight, especially if you are a little bit overweight. Very (53)________ clothes make you feel slim, but
when they have shrunk in the washing machine, then you have the same (54)________! If you buy light cotton
clothes, then they might not be warm enough for winter. If your shoes are not tight, and if you aren’t dressed for
the cold, you might look good, but feel (55)________!
II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
(10 points)
Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As (56)________as 1958
about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all. The number of public school libraries
increased dramatically (57)_______ the federal government passed the Elementary and Secondary Education
Act of 1965, ( 58)_______ provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities,
including their libraries. (59) ________, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal
spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising (60)______ of new library technologies such as
computer databases and Internet access.
Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school districts (61)
_______ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public school expenses. Therefore, the
libraries of the public schools tend to reflect the (62) ______ capabilities of the communities in which they are
located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (63) _______ abundant resources, spacious
facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In (64) ______, school districts in many poor areas house their
libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by volunteers,
who organize and (65) ______ books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.
56. A. freshly B. recently C. frequently D. newly
57. A. though B. with C. during D. when
58. A. that B. who C. which D. this
59. A. Nevertheless B. Therefore C. Consequently D. Otherwise
60. A. fine B. fee C. cost D. sum
61. A. go B. come C. rely D. stay
62. A. educational B. economical C. political D. financial
63. A. for B. with C. on D. by
64. A. country B. converse C. contrast D. conflict
65. A. attain B. obtain C. contain D. maintain
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D(10 points).
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying,
smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh
milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas
Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail
Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more
common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however,
inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all
kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets.
Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce.
Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve
them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western
strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In
addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice
commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial
ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so
until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were
heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could
take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Population movements in the nineteenth century
D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
67. The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to
A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring
68. During the 1860’s, canned food products were
A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities
C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet.
69. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
70. The word” them” in line 13 refers to
A. refrigerator cars B.growers C. perishables D. distances.
71. The word” fixture” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. commonplace object B. substance C. luxury item D. mechanical device
72.The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice
A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer
C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule
73. The word “ Nevertheless” in line 21 is closest meaning to
A. occasionally B. however C. therefore D. because
74. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage
75. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
B. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
C. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
D. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners

E. Writing
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentences
printed before. (5 points)
76. Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
- Since.............................................................................................................................
77. She was not only bad-tempered but also very lazy.
- As well ........................................................................................................................
78. “ Nothing will persuade me to apply for that kind of job.” She said.
_ She flatly.......................................................................................................................
79. The school I studied at last year was better than this one.
- This school isn’t.............................................................................................................
80. You must leave now, or you’ll miss the bus.
- You’ll miss......................................................................................................................
II. Use the suggested words and phrases to write complete sentences of a letter. (10 points)
Dear Sir or Madam.
81. I/ write/ complain/ hair drier/ buy/ your shop/ last Saturday/ and/ treatment/ I receive/ when/ I try/ return/ a
few days later.
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
82.I buy/ hair drier/ Wednesday, November 22nd.
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
83. first time/ try/ use/ handle become/ extremely hot/ and within a few minutes/ part/ plastic casing/ begin/ melt.
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
84. I turn/ off/ immediately/ return/ with/ receipt/ your shop/ Saturday.
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
85. I explain/ situation/ one/ assistants/ ask/ money back/ but / be told/ speak/ you.
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
86. Unfortunately you/ not available/ that day/ I/ write instead.

............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
87. I enclose/ hair drier/ copy of/ original receipt.
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
88. Please send/ full fund/ soon/ possible.
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
Yours faithfully,
III. Write a paragraph of about 120 words on the following topic: ( 10 points)
What club do you want to be founded in your school? Why?
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
............................................................................................................................................ ........................................
....................
1. A.shower B.allow C.shout D.arrow

2. A.increase B.creation C.mean D.cheat
3. A.danger B.exchange C.blame D.anger
4. A.these B.theory C.worth D.threaten
5. A. chamber B. ancient C. danger D. ancestor
6. A. smoothly B. southern C. breath D. airworthy
7. A dozen B glove C love D stove
8. A kites B catches C oranges D buzzes
9. A wood B good C food D childhood
10. A whistled B laughed C lodged D received
B. PHONETICS: ( 5 points) ( 1 point for each correct answer)
16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS.

I.
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. C 27. A 28.B
29. D 30.A 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35.A
II.
36. THRILLING
37. EXPLANATION
38. UNSUCCESSFULLY
39. DISAGREEMENTS
40. WIDESPREAD
41. WORSENED
42. SICKNESSES
43. INFORMED
44. AWAKE
45. RESURFACING
III.
46.A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50.C
D. READING:
I. 51. G 52.D 53.E 54.F 55.A
II.
56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. C
61. C 62. D 63. B 64. C 65. D
III.
66.D 67. A 68. B 69.B 70.C 71.A 72.C 73.B 74.B 75.C
E. WRITING.
I.
76. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
Or (Since we didn’t have anything else to do, we decided to go for a walk.)
77. As well as being bad-tempered, she’s very lazy.
78. She flatly refused to apply for that kind of job.
79. This school isn’t as/so good as the one ( that/which) I studied at last year.
Or (This school isn’t as/so good as the one at which/ where I studied last year.)
80. You’ll miss the bus if you don’t leave now.
Or (You’ll miss the bus unless you leave now.)
II. Dear Sir or Madam.

81. I am writing to complain about the/a hair drier (0.5)( which/that I) bought in your shop last Saturday(0.5) and
the treatment (which/that) I received (0.5)when trying/I tried to return it a few days later.(0.5)
82. I bought the hair drier(0.5) on Wednesday, November 22nd.(0.5)
83. The first time I tried to use it,(0.5) the handle became extremely hot (0.5)and within a few minutes part of the
plastic casing began to melt.(0.5)
84. I turned it off immediately (0.5)and returned it with the receipt to your shop on Saturday.(0.5)
85. I explained the situation to one of the/ your assistants (0.5)and asked for my/the money back(0.5) but I was
told (that I had) to speak to you.(0.5)
86. Unfortunately, you were not available that day,(0.5) so I am writing instead.(0.5)
87. I enclose the hair drier(0.5) and a/the copy of the original receipt.(0.5)
88. Please send me a full refund (0.5) as soon as possible (0.5)
Yours faithfully.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 12
PART I: PHONETICS. (1, 0 POINT).
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same group. Write
your answer in the numbered box.
1. A. exposure B. Terminal C. utterance D. discipline
2. A. Economy B. Elaborate C. Assassinate D. Fascinate
3. A. mountain B. sustain C. contain D. retain
4. A. fulltime B. farmhand C. bookshop D. tradesman
5. A. Metropolitan B. Entrepreneurial C. Hippopotamus D. curiosity
6. A. company B. comfortable C. together D. business
7. A. Associate B. Formal C. Movement D. militant
8. A. Important B. Cigarette3 C. Protection2 D. informal
9. A. introduce B. conversation C. independent D. welcome
10. A. expect B. alone C. liquor D. invite
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (8, 0 POINTS).
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1, 5 point).
1. In the ___of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all times.
A. requirement B. interests C. demands D. assistance
2. ___ how angry he was he would never resort to violence.
A. No matter B. No problem C. Although D. Because
3. We played the game ___ the rules.
A. on account of B. ahead of C. according to D. apart from

4. ___ to get through to Jackie for days now. Either she’s away or her phone’s out of order.
A. I’ve been trying B. I had tried C. I’m trying D. I tried
5. This is ___ the most difficult job I have ever tackled.
A. by rights B. by all means C. by far D. by the way
6. She ___till the early hours listening to pop music.
A. took me up B. kept me up C. caught me up D. held me up
7. Please don’t ___yourself out. A sandwich will do.
A. let B. put C. leave D. take
8. The chairman requested that ___
A. the members studied more carefully the problem.
B. the problem was more carefully studied.
C. with more carefulness the problem could be studied.
D. the members study the problem more carefully.
9. Smoking is ___ in many companies in our country.
A. permitted B. taught C. banned D. stopped
10. After the battle, the ___ soldiers were helped by those who could walk.
A. injured B. wounded C. broken D. killed
11. I don’t think this strange new fashion will …………
A. turn up B. care for C. show off D. catch on
12. Their house is ___ near the Cathedral.
A. whereabouts B. anywhere C. somewhere D. any place
13. This young tree could not have been damaged by accident. I believe it was done ___
A. in fact B. on purpose C. by appointment D. by plan
14. There was hardly ___ money left in my bank account.
A. more B. no C. some D. any
15. It is wrongly believed that natural resources will never be used ___.
A. off B. out C. away D. up
II. Give the correct tenses of the verbs in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (1,5 point)
1. If he __ (1. not drink) too much last night, he __ (2. not - be) tired now.
2. I’m sure he must ___ (3. be) at home last night because the door was open when I _ (4. come).
3. At this time next week, they _(5. sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
4. It’s raining. I would rather you ___ (6. close) the window.
5. I don’t know what’s the matter with him. He ___ funny since you __ (8. be)away.
6. On the first of next month, he __ (9. be) in prison for five years.
7. His personal problems seem __ (10. distract) him from his work lately.
8. He suggested that a final decision ___ (11. make).
9. I don’t know why you __ (12. always - make) noise in class, Tom.
10. __ (13. you/visit) many museums when you were in Paris?
11. The car looks very clean. ___ (14. you/wash) it?
12. My best friend, James, was no longer there. He ___ (15. go) away.
III. Put the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (2,0 points) AUTUMN
COLORS
A new term is rapidly gaining recognition in the American language - a 'leaf peeper' is someone who, in
autumn, is on the ___ (1. LOOK) for areas where the leaves of deciduous trees have changed colour. In New
England, in the USA, 'leaf peeping' is big business, generating millions of dollars annually. The first report that
leaves are changing colour sets off an ___ (2. INVADE) of 'peepers' thus causing serious obstruction on some
roads. Thousands of people log on to websites in their __ (3. EAGER) to find the location of the trees that have
foliage in the most ___ (4. GLORY)colours. The popularity of 'leaf tourism' is well established in New England,
and the changing colours of autumn provide an annual __ (5. TALK) point. The colours vary from year to
year since the __ (6. INTENSE) of the colour is __(7. DEPEND) on the chemical composition of the dying
leaves. After a long dry summer, leaves often turn bright red, while cloudy autumn days will produce less
spectacular yellows. If climate change leads to __ (8. INCREASE) hot, dry summers in the northern
hemisphere, then countries in Europe can expect summers not __ (9. LIKE) those across the Atlantic. They will
then enjoy a kaleidoscope of ___ (10. SEASON)colour to rival the deep reds and blazing oranges seen in New
England.
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the box.(2,0 points)
Example: Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule.
1. A persimmon tastes best when it is such ripe that it looks wrinkled and almost spoiled.
2. American pioneers did water systems from logs with holes bored through theircenters.
3. The pituitary gland is a small endocrine gland at the base of the brain that releases many hormones and
regulates another endocrine glands.
4. In America, the Indians used crude oil for fuel and medicine hundreds of years before the first white settlers
arrive.
5. When radio programs became popular, approximately around 1925, many people stopped attending
movies.
6. Musical comedies, as an American form of entertainment, often take its subjects from America’s present or
past.
7. Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed bylong periods
coveringby water.
8. The fruit of the plantain looks much like a banana, and it is not so sweet or so pleasing in flavor.
9. The viceroy butterfly, an insect that birds like to eat, has a color pattern similar to that of the monarch
butterfly, whom birds do not like to eat.
10. Behavior therapy uses rewards and punishments to encourage patients to act in a way healthier.
V. Complete these sentences with proper prepositions or adverbs. Write your answers in the numbered
box.
1. Don't use pencils. Please write the letter ____________ ink.

2. My father made ______________ his mind to settle in the South.
3. Minh couldn’t start his motor engine. I think it ran __________fuel.
4. Time is off now. Please hand ______________ your papers.
5. We invited 40 people to the party but only 23 turned __________
6. That fish of yours has been in the fridge for weeks. It must have gone _by now.
7. He needed a model, someone to look _____________ _
8. Uncle Tom is an idiot, but I only have to put ____________ him once a year.
9. I don’t like to make friends with the person who always runs ____________ his old friends.
10. These two men’s farms are adjacent ___________ each other.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION. (6,0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
It is now extremely popular to take a gap year between school and university or university and work
and to spend it traveling. There are plenty of reasons to recommend it - travel broadens the mind, you’re (1)
___________young once, life isn’t a rehearsal and so on. And if you don’t do it, you may always regret that you
didn’t take the (2) __________In the end, there’s only one response: well, why not?
The idea may have its roots in the 18 th century Grand tour once (3) ____________ by the young, rich
and noble, but it is the middle classes who have turned it (4) __________ something that 200,000 British
youngsters do every year. (5) ____________ has never been so easy and cheap, with more places open to tourists
than ever. Also, the gap year is now (6) ____________ by many employers and universities.
The States, the Far East and Australia were among the original (7) _________ _and although these
remain in the top five, young explorers are now going even further. The most far-flung corners of the world are
(8) ____________ in popularity year by year. About $700 will buy a student ticket (9) ___________ for six
months that will take you from London to Calcutta, Singapore, Bangkok, Perth, Sydney, Auckland, Fiji, Tahiti,
Los Angeles and (10) ____________ again.
1. A. merely B. only C. slightly D. simply
2. A. occasion B. moment C. chance D. luck
3. A. undertaken B. gone C. done D. given
4. A. up B. out C. over D. into
5. A. Voyage B. Travel C. Excursion D. Tour
6. A. received B. stood C. accepted D. admitted
7. A. B. endings C. landings D. terminals

destinations
8. A. spreading B. expanding C. enlarging D. growing
9. A. genuine B. valid C. effective D. legal
10. A. now B. here C. back D. then
II. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered
box.(2,0 Ginseng is one of the great mysteries of the east. Often referred to as the “elixir of life”, its
widespread use in oriental medicine has led to many myths and legends building up around this remarkable
plant. Ginseng has featured (1) _ __ an active ingredient in oriental medical literature for over 5,000 years. Its
beneficial effects were, at one time, (2) __ widely recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its
weight in gold.
(3) _the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active part of the _ (4) is the
root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng – the word Panax, (5) _the word panacea, coming from the Greek for “all
healing”. There is growing interest by western scientists in the study of ginseng. It is today believed that this
remarkable plant may (6) ___ beneficial effects in the treatment of many diseases which are difficult to treat with
synthetic drug.
Today, ginseng is (7) __ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is becoming widely
widely used for the treatment of various ailments (8) __ as arthritis, diabetes, insomnia, hepatitis and anemia.
However, the truth behind (9) __ ginseng works still remains a mystery. Yet its widespread effectiveness shows
that the remarkable properties are (10) ___ than just a legend.
III. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2,0 points)
One of the 7 wonders of the ancient world, the great pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and
prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheop in 1720 BC. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of this
construction makes it truly one of the truly great wonders of the world. The thirteen – acre structure near the Nile
river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the
burial chamber for the pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The 4 sides of the pyramid are
aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west – an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians
were sun worshipers and great astronomers, so computations for the great pyramid were based on astronomical
observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines.
Further scientific study indicates that these represent type of timeline of events – past, present and future. Many
of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for
future generations and currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers, and
this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate with its extraterrestrial being of the ancient past.
Was it superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today.
1. What has research of the base reveal?
A. There are racks in the foundation.
B. Tomb robbers have stolen pharaoh’s body.
C. The lines represent important events.
D. A superior race of people built it.
2. Extraterrestrial beings are ____
A. very strong workers. B. astronomers in the ancient times.
C. researchers in Egyptology. D. living beings from other planets.
3. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
C. To enable the pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife.
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh.
4. The word “intersecting” in line 9 is nearest in meaning to ____
A. crossing B. coming C. observing D. cutting
5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architect’s plans for the hidden passage. B. Pathways of the great solar body.
C. Astrological computation. D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time.
6. The word “prophesied” in line 12 is closest in meaning to ____
A. said B. armed C. terminated D. foretold
7. What is the best title for the passage?

A. Symbolism of the Great pyramid.
B. Problems with the construction of great pyramid.
C. Wonders of the Great pyramid of Giza.
D. Exploration of the burial chamber of Cheop.
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians based their calculation?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies. B. Advanced technology.
C. Advanced tools of measurements. D. Knowledge of the earth’s surface.
9. Why was the Great pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory. B. As a religious temple.
C. As a tomb for the pharaoh. D. As an engineering feat.
10. Why is the Great pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the 4 cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.
B. It was selected as the tomb of the pharaoh Cheop.
C. It was built a super race.
D. It is very old.
PART IV: WRITING. (5,0 POINTS)
I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (1,0 point)
1. We couldn’t have managed without my father’s money.
If it hadn’t ..............................................................................................................................
2. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
There has .... ........................................................................................................................
3. The only thing they didn’t steal was the television.
They stole ........ ...................................................................................................................
4. He didn’t succeeded in searching for the stolen car.
He tried in vain ...... ............................................................................................................
5. She started to clean up the house just after the guests had left.
No sooner ..... ........................................................................................................................
6. The boy was about to cry when he was reprimanded by his mother.
→ The boy was on ..... .................................................................................................................
7. People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.
→ Paper....... ..................................................................................................................................
8. As people use a lot of wood-pulp, many trees are cut down.
→ The more ........ .........................................................................................................................

9. It takes six hours to drive from here to London.
→ It is ........ .....................................................................................................................................
10. He got so angry that no one dared to say anything.
→ So ... .................................................................................................................................................
II. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meanings, using the word given. (1,0 point)
1. If you want to see me, come here by six a.m. (PROVIDED)
.....................................................................................................................................................................................
.....................
2. He won’t let anyone touch his records. (OBJECTS)
.....................................................................................................................................................................................
.....................
3. He didn’t think much of the musical show yesterday. (OPINION)
.....................................................................................................................................................................................
.....................
4. The concert was not as good as he had hoped. (EXPECTATIONS)
.....................................................................................................................................................................................
.....................
5. We missed the beginning of the concert because we had overslept. (CONSEQUENCE)
.....................................................................................................................................................................................
.....................
III.Write an essay (3, 0 points).
Face book dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students. It can have negative
effect on their study and the physical development.
Do you agree or disagree? Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion.
Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion.(3, 0 points).
PART I:
1A 2D 3A 4A 5B 6C 7A 8B 9D 10C
PART II:
1B 2A 3C 4A 5C 6B 7A 8D 9 10B
C
11 12C 13B 14 15D

D D
II.
1. had not drunk/wouldn’t fell 2. have been/came 3. will be sitting 4. closed
5. has acted/been acting/were 6. will have been 7. to have been distracting 8. (should) be made
9. are always making 10.did you visit 11. have you washed 12. had gone
III.
1. outlook 2. invasion 3. eagerness 4. glorious 5. talking
6.intensitive 7. dependent 8. increasingly 9. unlike 10. seasonal
IV.
1. B - so 2. A - made 3. D - other 4. D - arrived 5. C - /
6. C - 7. D - covered 8. B - but 9. D - which 10. D – healthier way

their
V.
1. 2. up 3. out 4. in 5.up 6. 7. up/up to 8. up with 9. 10. to

in of off down
PART III:
I.
1B 2C 3 4D 5B 6 7A 8B 9B 10C
A C
II
1C 2D 3D 4A 5D 6D 7C 8 9C 10A
A
II
1C 2D 3D 4A 5D 6D 7C 8 9C 10A
A
PART IV:
I.
1. If it hadn’t ......been for my father’s money, we could not have managed.....
2. There has ....been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
3. They stole ........everything except for/but/apart from the television...
4. He tried in vain ......to search for the stolen car.
5. No sooner .......had the guests left than she started to clean up the house.
6. The boy was on .......the point of crying when he was reprimanded by his mother.
7. Paper.......is believed to have been invented by the Chinese in 105 A.D.
8. The more ........wood-pulp is used, the more trees are cut down..........
9. It is ........a six-hour-drive from here to London.

10. So ......angry did he get that no one dared to say anything.
II.
1. Provided (that) you want to see me, come here by 6 a.m
2. He objects to anyone (else) touching his records
3. He had a low opinion of the musical show yesterday
4. The concert failed to come/live up to his expectations/The concert didn’t come/live up to
5. We missed the beginning of the concert as a consequence of (our) oversleeping/We had overslept. As a
consequence, we missed the beginning
ENGLISH PRACTICE 13
A. PHONETICS
Choose the word whose main stress pattern is different from the rest in each of the following questions
1. A. career B. schoolgirl C. machine D. request
2. A. deposit B. complexion C. difference D. decision
3. A. tuition B. symbolize C. etiquette D. interest
4. A. semester B. acceptance C. procedure D. institute
5. A. industry B. comprehend C . confident D. socialize
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (20 pts)
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences.
1. To meet this __________, we have brought 3 ships into regular operation.
A. demand B. success C. appeal D. situation
2. I can’t remember his name, but it’s on the tip of my _______________.
A. tongue B. mouth C. figure D. head
3. The discovery was a major ______________for research workers.
A. breakthrough B. breakdown C. breakout D. breakup
4. This is not the right ___________to ask for my help; I’m far too busy even to listen.
A. moment B. situation C. opportunity D.

circumstance
5. He drives so quickly that I am afraid that one day he wll___________someone crossing the road.
A. crash down B. knock down C. turn over D. run across
6. When the electricity failed, he ____________a match to find the candles.
A. rubbed B. struck C. scratched D. started

7. The safety committee’s report recommend that all the medicine should be kept out of the ________of
children.
A. reach B. grasp C. hand D. hold
8. I __________part in the last competition if I__________younger.
A. would have taken/would be B. would take/were
C. would have taken/would have been D. would have taken/ were
9. It was desirable that we ____________at dawn.
A. started B. had started C. start D. would start
10. Thousand dollars ____________wasted by him in the casino.
A. was B. were C. are D. has
11. I’m going to stay here for___________few days.
A. another B. other C. others D. the other
12. “Can’t you read?” Mary said, _____________
A. and angrily pointing to the notice. B. pointing angrily to the notice.
C. angrily pointed to the notice. D. and pointed angrily the notice
13. There has to be this starting and stopping movement __________the eye can only see only when it is not
moving.
A. because B. although C. when D. while
14. “________to Japan?” – “Yes, I _________there the year when there was an earthquake.”
A. Were you ever/was B. Have you ever been/ have been
C. Were you ever/have been D. Have you ever been /was
15. When the tenants failed to pay their bill, the authorities decided to cut ________the gas supply to the flat.
A. down B. out C. across D. off
II. Some of the lines in the passage are correct, and some have a word that needs correction. If a line is
correct, put a tick (✓). If a line has a word that needs correction, write the word and its correction. There are
two examples at the beginning ( 0 and 00).
Women are experts at gossiping, and they always talk about trivial things, or at least that’s which 0. _____
men have been always thought. However, some new research suggests that when women talk to
women, whose conversations are far from frivolous, and cover many more topics (up to 40 00. ____
subjects) than when men talk to other men. Women’s conversations ranged from health to their
houses, from politics to fashion, from films to family, from education to relationship problems. 1.______
Football is notable absent. Men tend to have a more limited range of subjects, the most popular
being work, sport, jokes, cars, and women. 2.______
3.______
According to Professor Petra Boynton, a psychology at University College London, which
4.______
interviewed over 1000 women, women also tend to move quickly from one subject to another in
conversation, whereas men usually stick about one subject for longer periods of time. 5.______
6.______
At work, this difference can be an advantage for men, where they can put another matters aside
and concentrate fully on the topic being discussed. In the other hand, it also means that they 7.______
sometimes find it hard to concentrate when several things have to be discussed at the same time in
a meeting.
0. ✓ 8.______
00. which=> what 9.______
10._____
11._____
12._____
13._____
14._____
15._____
III. Supply the correct forms of the words in the CAPITAL letters
“Culture shock” describes the impact of ______(1) from a familiar culture to one which is MOVE
________( 2). It is an experience described by people who have traveled abroad to work, live or
study; it can be felt to a certain extent even when abroad on holiday. It can ______(3) anyone, FAMILIAR
including _______(4) students. It includes the shock of a new environment, meeting lots of new
people and learning the ways of a _______(5) country. It also includes the shock of being
separated from the ______(6) people in your life, maybe family, friends, colleagues, teachers: EFFECT
people you would normally talk to at times of _____(7), people who give you support and
guidance. When familiar ______(8) , sounds, smells or tastes are no longer there you can miss NATION
them very much. If you are tired and ______(9) when you arrive small things can be upsetting
and out of all proportion to their real __________(10).
DIFFER
IMPORT
CERTAIN
SEE
JET-LAG
SIGNIFY
C. READING
I. Read the text and think of the word that best fits each space. (ONE word for each space)
About 50 years ______(1) now, it is possible to use virtual reality to bring the_____(2) back to life, people will
drag out _____(3) old and boring movies and choose a relative _____(4) bring back to life. The visual will be
combined ______(5) records about that person to create a virtual relative.
Then the family can _____(6) a chat with that relative, _____(7) it running, and live with it. The experience will
be_____(8) living with a ghost. People who died long ago will be resurrected,____(9) they can take on new
_____(10).
II. Read the passage and choose the best heading in the box for each paragraph. There are three extra ones
that should not be used.
1.___________
Sunshine contains three different bans of ultraviolet radiation: UVA, UVB and UVC. Although UVC is the most
dangerous, because it is a shorter-wavelength radiation than UVA and UVB, it is screened out by the Earth’s
ozone layer. UVA used to be thought less dangerous than UVB, but it is now known that both bands can cause
skin cancer. It is UVB which causes sunburn. However, both UVA and UVB can age the skin prematurely.
2.___________
Levels of UV rays can vary. A two-week holiday in the Mediterranean will expose you to the same amount of
sun as you would get in a year in Britain. Short periods of intense exposure to the sun are thought to be more
risky than regular daily exposure, particularly if you have fairer skin. However, even if you have darker skin
tones you will burn eventually. You can find out the daily UV rate by watching the solar UV index which has
recently been introduced on national weather forecasts across Europe.
3.___________
The ideal sunscreen to use is an SPF15. This means a sunscreen which gives you fifteen times more protection
that you would have normally. An SPF15 sunscreen will absorb proportionally equal amounts of UVA and
UVB, and will give you good protection if you are sensible about your exposure. Sunscreens higher than SPF15
tend to lose their balanced effect: the chemicals in an SPF30, for example, will not block UVA rays as
effectively as UVB. The other danger with high SPFs is that people will stay in the sun longer because they think
are better protected. Higher SPFs do not give proportionately greater protection. An SPF15 gives 93 percent
protection, for example, while an SPF34 gives 97 percent protection.
4.____________
Only UVA rays can pass through glass, so you won’t get sunburnt sitting by a window, while you can still enjoy
the warmth of the sun. Be careful when sitting in the shade, however. You can still get burnt because you will be
exposed to rays bouncing off reflective surfaces nearby. This is particularly the case near water. Not all clothing
offers effective protection, either. If you can see the light through a piece of clothing when you hold it up, it will
not offer much of a barrier to UV rays.
5.____________
You should keep an eye out for any moles or dark spots on the skin that change in size, shape, or color, become
bigger, itchy or inflamed, or bleed. All these may be symptoms of skin cancer and should be checked by a
doctor. Once a mole has been identified as a potential melanoma, it is removed under local anaesthetic and sent
for examination. Most turn out to be harmless. Of the three forms of skin cancer the two most common varieties
– basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas are easily treatable and rarely fatal, and even melanomas can be
treated effectively if caught in time.
III. Read the following passages and choose the best answer to each question.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance
that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the
most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At
first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval
of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop.
Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your
symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis,
headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts,
seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an
infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective.
Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium
nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring,
chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some
people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and
niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and
foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is
the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book Why your Child is Hyperactive. Other
researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
1. The topic of this passage is
A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition
C. infants and allergies D. a good diet
2. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
3. The word "symptoms" is closest in meaning to
A. indications B. diet C. diagnosis D.

prescriptions
4. The phrase "set off" is closest in meaning to
A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
5. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
6. The word "hyperactive" is closest in meaning to
A. overly active B. unusually low activity
C. excited D. inquisitive
7. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the
infant's
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods
8. The word "these" refers to
A. food additives B. food colorings
C. unnutritious foods D. foods high in salicylates
9. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas
B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
10. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
D. WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences, using key words in the parentheses or the suggested phrases given at the
beginning of the sentences
1. Jack has become confident as a result of his success. (turned)
Jack’s success______________________________person.
2. To find new fuels it is necessary to spend a lot of money.( means)
Finding_____________________________________money.
3. Dan promised sincerely that he wouldn’t watch so much TV. (sincere)
Dan________________________________________not to watch so much TV.
4. Someone almost certainly broke the window on purpose. (must)
The window ________________________on purpose.
5. We were all surprised when she suddenly left the job. (found)
All__________________________________left the job.
6. The cost of living has gone up considerably in the last few years.
There________________________________________________
7. “No one can persuade me to sleep in that haunted house,” she said.
She flatly_____________________________________________.
8. If we can solve the problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
The sooner____________________________________________.
9. We must continue our efforts, whether there are problems or not.
Regardless ___________________________________________.
10. “ Less noise!” the teacher told the boys.
The teacher shouted_______________.
II. The social networks such as Facebook or Twitter are very popular among teenagers. What are their
advantages? Give examples and reasons to support your opinion.
Write a paragraph of about 200 words.
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Bài Câu Nội dung trình bày Điểm
Phonetics 1 B 0,1
2 C 0,1
3 A 0,1
4 D 0,1
5 B 0,1
Grammar 1 A 0,1
1
2 A 0,1
3 A 0,1
4 A 0,1
5 B 0,1
6 B 0,1
7 A 0,1
8 D 0,1
9 C 0,1
10 A 0,1
11 A 0,1
12 B 0,1
13 A 0,1
14 D 0,1
15 D 0,1
Grammar 1 ✓ 0,1
2
2 whose => their 0,1
3 ✓ 0,1
4 ranged => range 0,1
5 ✓ 0,1
6 notable => notably 0,1
7 ✓ 0,1
8 psychology => psychologist 0,1
9 which => who 0,1
10 ✓ 0,1
11 about => to 0,1
12 ✓ 0,1
13 another => other 0,1
14 In => On 0,1
15 ✓ 0,1
Grammar 1 movement 0,1

3
2 unfamiliar 0,1
3 affect 0,1
4 international 0,1
5 different 0,1
6 important 0,1
7 uncertainty 0,1
8 sights 0,1
9 jet-lagged 0,1
10 significance 0,1
Reading 1 1 from 0,1
2 dead 0,1
3 their 0,1
4 to 0,1
5 with 0,1
6 have 0,1
7 keep 0,1
8 like 0,1
9 so 0,1
10 roles 0,1
Reading 2 1 C
2 H
3 D
4 F
5 G
Reading 3 1 A
2 C
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 A
7 C
8 D
9 D
10 A
Writing 1 Jack’s success has turned him into a confident person. 0,15
2 Finding new fuels means spending a lot of money. 0,15
3 Dan made a sincere promise not to watch so much TV. 0,15
4 The window must have been broken on purpose. 0,15
5 All of us found it surprising when she suddenly left the job. 0,15
6 There has been a considerable rise/increase in the cost of living in the last few years. 0,15
7 She flatly refused to sleep in that haunted house. 0,15
8 The sooner we can solve the problem, the better it will be for all concerned. 0,15
9 Regardless of whatever problems, we must continued our efforts. 0,15
10 The teacher shouted to the boys to make less noise. 0,15

ENGLISH PRACTICE 14
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. difficult B. corporate C. different D. engineer

2. A. demolish B. substantial C. dramatic D. terrorist
3. A. proficiency B. electronic C. petroleum D. equivalent
4. A. vineyard B. ignite C. business D. Finland
5. A. change B. image C. danger D. oasis
6. A. reference B. interview C. government D. understand
7. A. scholarship B. develop C. equipment D. discourage
8. A. expectation B. temperament C. opportunity D. decoration
9. A. religious B. miserable C. performance D. including
10. A. decision B. personal C. interest D. wonderful
PART II - LEXICO-GRAMMAR

23. The entire city was _________ electricity last night- it was chaotic.
24. Henry was overweight, so he went on s strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.

A. Leaving uncovered B. Having left uncovered
C. Left uncovered D. Been left uncovered
lead to a cure.
32. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’ sooner you _________ me the whole truth yesterday.

A. was flourished B. having to flourish
C. to have flourished D. have flourished


known for its spectacular scenery and (1. BREATH) ____ views, which inspire today's travelers as much as they
spurred on the (2. SETTLE) ____ who first arrived in this part of the US over a century ago. And whether
you're seeking the outdoor adventure of a (3. LIFE) ____ exciting nightlife or a great family getaway, Colorado
has everything you need.
November through April, snow conditions are (4. CONSIST) ____ and reliable, featuring Colorado's
(5. LEGEND) ____ “champagne powder” snow. Extensive snow making and grooming operations always keep
trails in top shape.
REAL) ______.There, you'll find the best skiing and snowboarding on (7. PICTURE) ____ slopes, as well as
the finest ski schools in the US. Together, they present an (8. PARALLEL) ____ winter paradise. And the best
part is that you'll enjoy friendly, (9. CARE) ____ service in resorts that are (10. COMMIT) ____ to delivering
the highest quality amenities.
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank.
14. The factory paid ________nearly a million pounds to their employees who were injured in the
explosion.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by

today’s scientists, as human being are only beginning to struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect.
8. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star because_________.
9. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to _________.

10. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 3?
Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
11. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to _________.

A. the small amounts of nitrogen
B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide

C. growing plants
D. the high atmospheric temperatures
12. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth _________.
13. Look at the four blanks […] in paragraph 4 that indicate where the following sentence could be added
to the passage.
14. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.

8. …………………………………………..…………………………………………..……
9. ………………………………………………….…………………………………………
10. ………………………………………………………………..…………………………
Answer Choices
G. Venus once had large bodies of water that elaborated and cause a rapid increase in carbon dioxide.
H. Earth’s wind has a greater velocity than Venus’s because the air movement on Venus is denser and can
even more large obstructions.
I. Spaceships landing on Venus, though often crushed by Venus’s atmosphere, have revealed much about
its carbon dioxide filled atmosphere.
J. If man could survive the hot temperature of Venus, then he would have to contend with the great
surface pressure.
K. The first space probe of Venus was made in 1966.
L. Scientists are concerned that conditions on Earth that propagate significant quantities of carbon dioxide
will produce greenhouse effects similar to Venus’s.
body and mind.
In the last four years, at (6) ________ 17 hotel spas have opened in South East Asia to (7) ________
this need. The tropical climate of the region and its reliable sunshine make for an ideal spa setting. Picturesque
experienced in 200 years. Gusts of over 130 kilometers per hour slammed across the region and £1.5- billion-
worth of damage was (1)__________ in just a few hours.
Extreme weather events like this are dramatic (2)__________ of the power of the wind. It’s one part of
the world. Without the formation and circulation of winds there would quite (3)__________ be no climate.
between particular winds and psychological problems (4)__________ back centuries. The Föhn, the hot dry
It affects as many as one in three people in its (5)__________, making them feel anxious, irritable and generally
ill. In California, many people (6)__________ the arrival of the Santa Ana, which rushes down from the high
soar.
(7)__________ part it goes about its job of shifting huge masses of air around the planet. Plants take
(8)__________ of this free ride to send their pollen grains far and wide. Trees (99)__________ on it to remove
old leaves and make way for new growth. Spiders have been caught (10)__________ a lift at altitudes of almost
4.5 kilometers.

19. A. need B. trust C. hope D. realize
PART IV: WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given. These words must
not be changed in any way.
I wish ________________________________________________________ speak French.

The rain was ______________________________________________________________

You ____________________________________________before you borrowed my book.
This record used ______________________________________ mine when I was younger.

It’s difficult for my sister ___________________________________________ every day.
The North Sea is ____________________________________________ the Mediterranean.
17. Christ would only eat a pizza if he could have a mushroom topping. ON
Christ ______________________________________________ when he ate a pizza.
18. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language. TALKED

My father ______________________________________________ another foreign language.
19. Sam tried extremely hard to convince her, but it was no use. BRING
Hard ________________________________________________________________________
20. When he arrived at the airport, his family welcomed him warmly. GIVEN
On___________________________________________________________________________
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic.
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------------------THE END -----------------
1. A. difficult B. corporate C. different D. engineer

2. A. demolish B. substantial C. dramatic D. terrorist
3. A. proficiency B. electronic C. petroleum D. equivalent
4. A. vineyard B. ignite C. business D. Finland
5. A. change B. image C. danger D. oasis
6. A. reference B. interview C. government D. understand
8. A. expectation B. temperament C. opportunity D. decoration
9. A. religious B. miserable C. performance D. including
10. A. decision B. personal C. interest D. wonderful
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 POINTS)
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)
1.A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. C
11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. B
16. D 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. A
II. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 pts)
1. breathtaking 2. settlers 3. lifetime 4. consistent 5. legendary
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank. (5pts)
6. 7. at 8. in 9. off 10. for

out
PART IV. READING (30POINTS)
I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D. (10pts)
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. A 8. A 9. 10. F
C.
In any order from question 8 to 10
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts)
1. 2. sound 3. by 4. 5. but
edge with
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
1. B 2. 3. D 4. D 5. C
A
6.C 7. 8. D 9. D 10. B
A
PART V. WRITING (25 POINTS)
I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before
it. (5 pts)

13. You should have asked me/ for permission….
14. This record used to be a favourite of mine when I was younger.
19. Hard as/ though Sam tried, he couldn’t bring her round (to his way of thinking.
20. On his arrival at the airport, he was given a warm welcome by his family
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic. (20 points)
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English
ENGLISH PRACTICE 15
1. A. vulnerable B. conservation C. generation D. disappearance

2. A. encounter B. influence C. agency D. memory
3. A. crossbar =B. advance C. goalie D. Polo
4. A. succeed B. anxious C. well-done D. reduce
5. A. studious B. semester C. similar D. century
6. A. teacher B. brochure C. achieve D. purchase
7. A. departure B. inherit C. elegant D. authentic
8. A. satisfy B. quality C. mistake D. Sequential
9. A. repetition B. television C. residential D. mountaineer
10. A. communication B. international C. university D. necessarily
PART II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR
1. Millie’s father accused her of _________.

A. trying not hard enough B. trying not hard enough
C. not trying hard enough D. trying not enough hard
2. The public library _________ to all readers who are interested in reading and doing research.
A. is opening B. is open C. is opened D. is being opened
3. I bought some new shoes. They felt a bit strange _________ because I wasn’t used to them.
A. first B. at first C. firstly D. first of all
4. I quickly packed my new belongings and spent _________ money I had on a one-way ticket home.
A. little B. a little C. the little D. a little of
5. She believes that all countries should _________ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away with
6. Keep your ticket _________ you have to show it to an inspector.

A. if B. in case C. unless D. supposing
7. He always _________ aside some time every day to read to his children.
A. sets B. leaves C. spares D. lets
8. For the past few months she’s been as a street _________ selling fruit and vegetable.
A. dealer B. trader C. pusher D. vendor
9. I use weed-killer to _________ the weeds in the garden.

A. get rid of B. get out of C. get away with D. get in the way with
10. If there is new evidence that proves his innocence, it is likely that the authorities will _________ him
from jail.
A. release B. relieve C. remove D. rehabilitate
11. The defendant’s lawyer wasn’t very good and he was found _________ by the jury.
A. faulty B. mistaken C. guilty D. sinful
12. The dish was so tasty that I asked for second _________.
A. helping B. portion C. ration D. share
13. I’m amazed that this game ever _________- it is so silly!

A. took in B. caught on C. took up D. caught by
14. “I’m sure the Whitleys were involved.” - “They _________ have since they know nothing about the
business.”
A. can’t B. wouldn’t C. shouldn’t D. mustn’t
15. “Candy’s an excellent pianist, isn’t she?” – “She _________ to win the prize if she plays this well
during the competition.”
A. is due B. is bound C. is about D. is set
16. His friends offered to _________ the next time he was in town so that he wouldn’t have to pay for a
hotel.
A. place him in B. put him up C. back him up D. turn him out
17. Susan became so tired of city life that she decided to buy a piece of land _________.
A. out of the ordinary B. as the crow flies
C. far and away D. in the middle of nowhere
18. My mind went ____ when the official asked me my phone number- I couldn’t remember it at all.
A. empty B. clear C. blank D. vacant
19. During their first date, Jane had nervously peppered the conversation with _____talk.
A. unimportant B. tiny C. small D. trivial
20. We do go _________ in the office, but the odd rule gets broken from time to time.
A. by the book B. for a song C. astray D. in phrases
II. Supply the correct FORM of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Before going to an interview, it is advisable to go through a mock interview. This will give you the
opportunity to try out your technique and answers live. It is also a chance to receive feedback that is (1.
BENEFIT) __________ in guiding you towards improving your interview style and general (2. PRESENT)
_________ Just one mock interview will result in a (3. NOTICE)_________ improvement in your interview
skill. Why? For the same reason that a (4. SPEAK) _________ doesn’t exist while it is still on paper or floating
in your head. It only exists when you give it (5. ORAL)_________ The first time you give it in front of an
audience, it will come out nothing like the one you prepared.
It is the same with being interviewed. It is not enough to look at a question and say, ‘Yeah, I know the
answer to that one.’ You need to practise your answer live; this is not the time to talk to yourself in front of a
mirror. Seek out a (6. PROFESSION) _________ and have the session videotaped. Then you will have two
opinions – the interview’s and your own. You will find you get a completely different (7. IMPRESS)________
when listening to yourself than when you are watching yourself saying something. Just as your voice always
sounds different on tape, so do your (8. RESPOND) _______. You will be glad the image is captured on tape
and not in a potential employer’s mind. For maximum effect, you should (9. VISIT)________ your answers and
go through a second mock interview. This should help with any (10. EASE)________ and give you more
confidence for the real interview.
III. There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them. The first has been done for
you.
Most children with (0) health appetites are ready to eat almost anything that is offering 1. healthy
them and a child rare dislikes food unless it is badly cooked. The way the meal is cooked (1)_________
and served is most important and an attractive served meal will often improve a child’s
appetite. Never ask a child whether he likes and dislikes a food and never discuss them in (2)_________
front of him or allow nobody else to do so. If the father says he hates fat meat or the
mother refuses vegetables under the child’s hearing he is likely to copy this procedure. (3)_________
Take it for grant that he likes everything and he probably will. Nothing healthful should
be omitted out the meal because of a supposing dislike. At meal time, it is a good idea to (4)_________
give a child a small portion and let him come back for a second helping other than give
(5)_________
him as much as he is likely to at all once. Do not talk too much to the child during the
meal times. But let him get on with his food, and do not allow him to leave the table (6)_________
immediately after a meal or he will soon learn to swallow his food so that he can hurry
back to his toys. Under no circumstance must a child be coaxed and forced to eat. (7)_________
(8)_________
(9)_________
(10)_________
PART III: READING
The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists have suggested
that human tears are (1) _____ of an aquatic past – but this does not seem very likely. We cry from the moment
we enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to persuade their parents that they are ill,
hungry or uncomfortable. As they (2) _____, they will also cry just to attract parental attention and will often
stop when they get it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (3) _____ is a very old one and now it has scientific validity since
recent research into tears has shown that they (4) _____ a natural painkiller called enkaphalin. By fighting
sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (5)
_____.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (6) _____ activity. Because some
people still regard it as a (7) _____ of weakness in men, boys in particular are admonished when they cry. This
kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (8) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in
them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable
– (9) _____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (10) _____ “weepies”. It seems that
people enjoy crying together almost as much as laughing together.
1. A. witness B. evidence C. result D. display

2. A. evolve B. change C. develop D. alter
3. A. better B. fine C. good D. well
4. A. contain B. retain C. hold D. keep
5. A. construct B. achieve C. provide D. produce
6. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving
7. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign
8. A. release B. rid C. loosen D. expel
9. A. consider B. remark C. distinguish D. regard
10. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called
ITALY’S MOST POETIC CITY
Venice has been an inspiration for writers, artists and musicians throughout history. In the 15th century
it was the world’s (1) _____ port. Since then it has built up an astonishing collection of art and architecture (2)
_____ to its trade with the East.
The city (3) ____ its visitors incredible sights. Do not believe those who say Venice is a museum. This
is still a living city full of joys. Venice looks good in any light. The sun makes the domes sparkle, but even on a
grey, (4) _____ day the city can be extremely romantic.
And (5) _____ it gets overcrowded, (6) _____ is an easy escape to the other islands in the Venice Gulf,
(7) _____ brightly-colored houses are a photographer’s dream.
In a curious way, Venice is a model city for the future; it is free from cars and the (8) _____ way to get
around is by public transport or on foot. This one fact alone (9) _____ it a unique city, one (10) _____ traffic
noise, the creation of genius indeed.
III. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by
Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train carrying
oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a snowstorm and had to be
abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he
had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross
the “Great American Desert” to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United
States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and
stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that
familiar bluejoint grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless.
Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed
themselves all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient
features that made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama
grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of
summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And
they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this
way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for
themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they
trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional
rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a barn cured the cultivated grasses.

A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War
C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western United States
2. What can be inferred by the phrase “Legend has it” in line 1?

A. Most history book include the story of the train.
B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.
C. The driver of the train invented the story.
D. The story of the train may not be completed factual.
3. The word “they” in line 4 refers to _____.

A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans
4. What can be inferred about the “Great American Desert” mentioned in line 7?
A. Many had settled there by the 1860’s.
B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.
C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.
D. It was not discovered until the late 1800’s.
5. The word “barren” in paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to _____.

A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous
6. The word “preferred” paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to _____.

A. favored B. available C. ordinary D. required
7. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second paragraph?
A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it.
B. It had to be imported into the United States.
C. It would probably not grow in the western United States.
D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.
8. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?
A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass
9. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?

A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems
C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather
10. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by_____.
A. eating only small quantities of grass
B. continually moving from one grazing area to another
C. naturally fertilizing the soil
D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground
PART IV: WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given. These words
must not be changed in any way.
1. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaints about it.
Should ______________________________________________________________________
2. It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine.

I cancelled ___________________________________________________________________
3. Her success went beyond her expectation.

Never _______________________________________________________________________
4. His fondness for the game increased with his proficiency.

The more ____________________________________________________________________
5. Simon hadn’t expected that he would feel so weak after the operation.
The operation left ______________________________________________________________
6. I am sure he recognized us at the airport.

He must _____________________________________________________________________
7. The journalists only heard about the changes to the wedding plans when they arrived at the avenue.
Not until _____________________________________________________________________
8. “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?” Helen’s boss said to her.
Helen’s boss criticized __________________________________________________________
9. Someone has suggested raising the parking fees in the city.

It ___________________________________________________________________________
10. Don’t misquote. I never said I hated ballet.

Don’t put ____________________________________________________________________
II. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic:
Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites. Explain what some of the negative effects may be. Suggest some
solutions to this problem.
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
-----------------THE END-----------------
PART A
1. A. vulnerable B. conservation C. generation D. disappearance

2. A. encounter B. influence C. agency D. memory
3. A. crossbar B. advance C. goalie D. Polo
4. A. succeed B. anxious C. well-done D. reduce
5. A. studious B. semester C. similar D. century
6. A. teacher B. brochure C. achieve D. purchase
7. A. departure B. inherit C. elegant D. authentic
8. A. satisfy B. quality C. mistake D. Sequential
9. A. repetition B. television C. residential D. mountaineer
10. A. communication B. international C. university D. necessarily
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer. 10pts)
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. D
6. B 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. A
11. 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B

C
16. 17. D 18. C 19. C 20. A

B
II. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR CORRECT
FORMS. (5pts)
1. offering => offered 2. attractive => attractively 3. and => or
4. nobody => anybody 5. under =>in/with 6. grant => granted
7. out => from 8. supposing => supposed 9. other => rather

10. circumstance =>
circumstances
III. Supply the correct FORM of the word in capital letter.
1. beneficial 2. presentation 3. 4. speech 5. orally

noticeable
6. 7. impression 8. responses 9. revisit 10. unease

professional
PART IV. READING
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. D
6. C 7. 8. B 9. A 10. D
D
1. largest/greatest 2. thanks 3. 4. rainy/cloudy 5. if

offers
6. there 7. whose 8. only 9. makes 10. without
1. 2. B 3. C 4. 5. C
A D
6. 7. C 8. B 9. 10. B
A D
PART V. WRITING
it. (5pts)
1. Should you have any complaints about the product, return it to the shop.
2. I cancelled my subscription to that magazine nine months ago.
3. Never had she expected she was so successful.
4. The more proficient he was at the game, the more he was fond of it.
5. The operation left Simon feeling weaker than he (had) expected.
6. He must have recognized us at the airport.
7. Not until the journalist arrived at the airport did they hear the changes to the wedding plans.
8. Helen’s boss criticized her for not doing her work more carefully.
9. It has been suggested that the parking fees (should) be raised.
10. Don’t put words into my mouth. I never said I hated ballet.
II. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic:
Marking scheme
ENGLISH PRACTICE 16
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following questions
1. A. argument B. reject C. attract D. install

2. A. librarian B. religious C. commercial D. Japanese
3. A. technology B. activity C. experience D. presentation
4. A. informality B. entertainment C. situation D. appropriate
5. A. experience B. cosmetics C. economics D. fertility
6. A. preparation B. apology C. geography D. experience
7. A. surplus B. surface C. surgeon D. surprise
8. A. award B. control C. regard D. conquer
9. A. colleague B. neighbour C. career D. classmate
10. A. disappear B. precision C. mechanic D. discover
PART 2: LEXICO - GRAMMAR
Section 1: Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
1. Much of what he said had little _______ to the issue we were discussing.
A. accordance B. involvement C. concern D. relevance
2. The restless lion kept pacing _________ along the front of its cage.
A. back and fort B. up and down C. on and off D. back and out
3. You can have _______ for the meals during your package vacation.
A. vouchers B. tags C. checks D. records
4. A new motorcycle model has just been _______ on the Internet.
A. delivered B. designed C. launched D. exploited
5. Why don’t you _______ a go? - It’s not difficult!
A. do B. have C. set D. make
6. The Prime Minister has _______ from the dogmatic position he adopted a few days ago.
A. backed out B. backed down C. backed up D. backed on
7. At the South Pole _______, the coldest and most desolate region on Earth.
A. Antarctica lies where B. Antarctica lies and
C. where Antarctica lies D. lies Antarctica
8. _______ in the diet is especially important for vegetarians.
A. Enough protein is obtained B. Obtaining enough protein
C. They obtain enough protein D. By obtaining enough protein
9. _______ over long distances is a fact.
A. That electricity can be transmitted B. That electricity transmitting

C. That electricity D. That can be transmitted
10. Don’t leave paraffin heaters in a draught or where they’re _______
A. dangerously knocked over B. in danger knocked over
C. in danger of being knocked over D. in danger of knocking over
11. My father took _______ of the fine weather to a day’s work in his garden.
A. chance B. advantage C. interest D. charge
12. By 2050, medical technology _______ many diseases.
A. has conquered B. will conquer C. will have conquered D. is conquering
13. I realized _______ that he was a thief.
A. sooner or later B. all along C. at the beginning D. eventually
14. _______ his assistance in those days, I would not be so successful now.
A. If it had not for B. Had it not been for
C. If there were not D. Unless I had
15. They thought they could deceive me but they were wrong. I could ________.
A. see them off B. see off them C. see through them D. see them through
16. Janet will see you if you use the computer without permission. She has eyes like a _______.
A. hawk B. bird C. goose D. fox
17. My sister remained very calm. She _______.
A. kept her temper B. kept her soul C. kept her head D. lost her head
18. A network of railroads to unite the continent and encourage Western settlement _______ before the Civil
War by Asa Whitney.
A. when proposed B. to propose C. was proposed D. a proposal
19. Farmers are at the _______ of the bad weather that can destroy their crop.
A. change B. influence C. force D. mercy
20. He showed his _______ for the TV programme by switching it off.
A. distaste B. discontent C. annoyance D. boredom
Section 2: Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space at the same
line.
OBSESSED WITH YOUR INBOX?
It was not so long ago that we dealt with colleagues through face-to-face interaction and
with counterparts and customers by phone or letter. But the world of communication has (1)
________ a dramatic transformation, not all for the good. Email, while (2) _______ a swift 1. GO
means of communication providing your server is fully (3) ________ and that the address
you have contains no (4) _________ has had a (5) _______ effect on certain people's, both 2. DOUBT
at home and in business. For these people, the use of email has become (6) _______
addictive to the extent that it is (7) ________ their mental and physical health. Addicts 3. FUNCTION
spend their day (8) ________ checking for email and have a (9) ________ to panic if their
server goes down. It is estimated that one in six people spend four hours a day sending and 4.
receiving messages the equivalent to more than two working days a week. The negative ACCURATE
effect on (10) ________ is something employers are well aware of.
5. SIGNIFY
6. RESIST
7. THREAD
8.
COMPULSION
9. TEND
10. PRODUCE
Section 3: There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them
Children who tell pop music does not interfere with their homework receive support today, with the
discovery that pay attention to visual stimuli and sounds requires completely different brain pathways which can
operate at the same time with your appreciation of either being damaged. Researchers have founded that
listening to car stereos does not create much interference when you are driving. Similarly, pop music should not
interfere to children’s homework. The affect of pop music on their performance at it is far outweigh by other
factors, such as how happy they are to be doing it. These findings could be applied for the design of places which
people have to take in large amounts of information very quickly. They could, for example, be relevantly to the
layout of pilot cockpits on aircraft.
LINE MISTAKE CORRECTION LINE MISTAKE CORRECTION
Section 4: Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition.
1. I have already told Tim that I won’t go to Spain with him, but he still trying to talk me _______.
2. _______ receipt of your instructions, I immediately sent a telex message to Algeria.
3. Grandfather must be tired. He’s nodding _______ in his chair.
4. The applause died _______ after 5 minutes.
5. He accepted my advice _______ reservation.
6. Our students are orientated _______ the science subjects.
7. Cheques should be made _______ to Wellington.
8. I’m in no hurry. I’ll hang _______ here until you’re ready.
9. She is Polish _______ birth, but she has French nationality.
10. Your plan doesn’t allow _______ changes in the weather.
PART 3. READING
Section 1: Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the
corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
How to win friends and influence colleagues
The worst sins that office workers can commit in the eyes of colleagues are interrupting people on the
phone, talking loudly in front of someone’s desk and arriving late (1) _______ a meeting. It is almost (2)
_______ bad to eat at your desk, make personal phone calls or leave coffee cups (3) _______ around, according
to Bodytalk, a guide published by the Industrial Society, (4) _______ lists the 30 traits most likely to annoy
colleagues.
High on the list are signing on at someone else’s computer terminal (5) _______ signing off afterwards,
messing up the photocopier by jamming the paper or leaving it set to produce multiple copies. Reading
newspaper, doodling, chewing gum, keeping cuddly toys or ornaments on your desk, and putting up postcards or
supposedly witty slogan (6) _______ invite disapproval. Also unpopular are (7) _______ who never fetch a
colleague a drink from the machine, or who (8) _______ to hold the lift door open when others are approaching.
(9) _______ conduct, according to the guide’s author, Judi James, not only gives you an unprofessional image
but is downright anti-social and could result (10) _______ dismissal.
Section 2: Fill the gaps in the passage by choosing the best phrases from A-M.
A few years ago one enlightened city decided to ease traffic congestion by (1) _______. People would
just take a bike, ride it to where they were going and leave it (2) _______. The trouble was the citizens naturally
found it (3) _______ to have their own free bicycle and (4) _______.
That slight detail of human nature apart, it was a good idea and (5) _______. The electric cars buzzing
round the streets of La Rochelle in France are seen (6) _______ and, it is clamed, will make it easier (7) _______
within the city centre.
The idea is based on the belief that people like their own space, the freedom to drive a vehicle
themselves (8) _______. It’s also based on the fact that cars in towns usually carry just one person. In effect, it’s
(9) _______. At the moment, it’s a slightly utonpian view but the concept has grown (10) _______.
A. to end the use of private cars H. supplying sufficient communal bicycles
B. rather than crowd on to a bus or train I. taking the place of bicycles
C. to encourage their use J. a sort of do-it-yourself taxi
D. stock swiftly dwindled K. as a supplement to conventional cars
E. out of a practical study L. instead of car
F. for someone else to use M. it’s now the basic of a new scheme
G. even more convenient
Section 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and
prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its
construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is a
solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial
chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned
almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun
worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical
observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further
scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future. Many of the
events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for
future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers
and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known
today?
1. What has research of the base revealed?
A. there are cracks in the foundation B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. The lines represent important events D. A superior race of people built in
2. Extraterrestrial beings are _______.
A. very strong workers B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology D. living beings from other planets
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night
C. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
4. The word “feat”in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to _______.
A. accomplishment B. Appendage C. festivity D. structure
A. Architects’plan for the hidden passages
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies
C. Astrological computations
D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time
6. In the second passage, the word ‘prophesied’ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. affiliated B. precipitated C. terminated D. foretold
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies B. Advanced technology
C. Advanced tools of measurement D. knowledge of the earth’s surface
9. Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory B. As a religious temple
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh D. as an engineering feat
10. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. it is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops
C. It was built by a super race
D. It is very old
Section 4: Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each numbered gap in the passage below.
Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
CARNIVOROUS PLANTS
All plants rely on nutrients taken from the soil in order to survive. However, in areas where the soil does not
contain enough (1) _______ nutrients, some plants have adapted to (2) _______ their diets from another source:
living organisms. Though they are few in number, carnivorous plants are (3) _______ fascinating beings that
“eat” anything from one-celled organisms to insects in order to survive. They are commonly found in
marshlands. Carnivorous plants feature one of several types of “traps” to ensnare prey, which they consume to
make up for nutrients that may be missing from the soil. While there are over 400 species of carnivorous plants
in the world today, some are more (4) _______ than others.
The most well-known of these plants are the snap traps, which include the Venus flytrap. Snap traps are
easily identified by their leaves, which are separated into two lobes that have the ability to fold together. Inside
the lobes, the surface is covered with tiny hairs that are (5) _______ to movement. When the plant’s prey brushes
against the hairs, it triggers a closing mechanism that rapidly brings the two lobes together, trapping the prey (6)
_______ inside. The response of the traps is phenomenal (7) _______ speed: the time between triggering the
hairs and snapping shut is less than a second. As the prey struggles inside the trap, it only triggers more hairs,
causing the leaves to tighten their (8) _______. The plant then secrets liquid chemicals from special glands into
the trap to dissolve the prey and absorb all of its nutrients. Besides the Venus flytrap, only one other type of snap
trap exists today, (9) _______ to as the waterwheel plant. The two share a common ancestor and differ only in a
few ways. For instance, the waterwheel is an aquatic plant, while the flytrap is exclusively terrestrial. In addition,
the flytrap feeds primarily on arthropods like spiders, while the waterwheel lives (10) _______ simple
invertebrates, like certain types of plankton.
1. A. critical B. vital C. crucial D. indispensable
2. A. modify B. enlarge C. augment D. supplement
3. A. nonetheless B. though C. contradictorily D. yet
4. A. prevalent B. current C. domineering D. prevailing
5. A. vulnerable B. liable C. prone D. sensitive
6. A. closely B. securely C. irreplaceably D. steadily
7. A. in accordance with B. in preference to C. in regard to D. on merits of
8. A. fist B. hold C. seizure D. grip
9. A. denoted B. referred C. indicated D. implicated
10. A. off B. onto C. though D. with
PART E. WRITING
Section 1: Write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, but using the word
given. The word must not be altered in any way.
1. The new lecturer was unpopular with his students. TAKE
🖝 ___________________________________________________.
2. John decided that an actor's life was not of him. CUT
🖝 ___________________________________________________.
3. The number of people out of work has been going down little by little. GRADUAL
🖝 ___________________________________________________.
4. I really want to see her again. DYING
🖝 ___________________________________________________.
5. What did his silence mean?

SIGNIFICANCE
🖝 ___________________________________________________.
Section 2: Write an essay of around 250 words on the following topic.
The idea of going overseas for university study is an exciting prospect for many people. But while it
may offer some advantages, it is probably better to stay home because of the difficulties a student inevitably
encounters living and studying in a different culture.
To what extent do you agree or disagree this statement?
Give reasons for your answer.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
_________The end_________
1. A. argument B. reject C. attract D. install

2. A. librarian B. religious C. commercial D. Japanese
3. A. technology B. activity C. experience D. presentation
4. A. informality B. entertainment C. situation D. appropriate
5. A. experience B. cosmetics C. economics D. fertility
6. A. preparation B. apology C. geography D. experience
7. A. surplus B. surface C. surgeon D. surprise
8. A. award B. control C. regard D. conquer
9. A. colleague B. neighbour C. career D. classmate
10. A. disappear B. precision C. mechanic D. discover
PART 2: LEXICO-GRAMMAR - 25 pts

Section 1: Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete the sentences (10 pts; 1pt/item)
1.
5. B 9. A 13. B 17. C
D
2. 10.
6. A 14. B 18. C
A C
3. 11.
7. D 15. C 19. D
A B
12.
4. C 8. B 16. A 20. A
C
Section 2: Word formation (5 pt; 0,5pt/item)
1. undergone 2. undoubtedly 3. functional 4. inaccuracies 5. significant
6. irresistibly 7. threatening 8. compulsively 9. tendency 10. production
Section 3: Identify the 10 mistakes in the following sentences and correct them (5 pt; 0.5pt/item)
LINE MISTAKE CORRECTION LINE MISTAKE CORRECTION
1 tell say 5 affect effect
2 pay paying 6 outweigh outweighed
3 with without 7 for to
4 founded found 7 which where
5 to with 8 relevantly relevant
(Lưu ý: Tìm đúng từ nhưng sửa sai được 0,25pt)
Section 4: Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition - 5 pts, 0,5pt/item
4.
1. round 2. on 3. off 5. without
away
6. towards/
7. out 8. around 9. by 10. for
to
PART 3: READING - 30 pts
Section 1: (10 pt; 1pt/item)
1. for 2. as 3. lying 4. which 5. without
6. all 7. 8. fail/forget 9. Such 10. in

those/people
Section 2: (5 pt; 0,5pt/item)
1.
2. F 3. G 4. D 5. M
H
6.
7. A 8. B 9. J 10. E
K
Section 3: (5 pt; 0,5pt/item)
3.
1. C 2. D 4. A 5. D
D
8.
6. D 7. C 9. C 10. A
A
Section 4: (10 pt; 1pt/item)
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. D
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A
PART 4: WRITING - 25 pts

Section 1: (5 pt; 1/item)
1. The students didn't take to their new lecturer.
2. John (decided that he) was not cut out to be an actor.
3. There has been a gradual decline (reduction/ fall/ decrease) in the number of people out of work.
4. Iam (I'm) dying to see her again.
5. What's (What was) the significance of his silence?
Section 2: Essay writing (20 pts)
Total score: 2 points; assessed against the language level appropriate to that of a secondary student with four
years of learning English in a gifted school in Vietnam.
 Task achievement (5pts)
 Grammar range and Accuracy (5 pts)
 Coherence and cohesion (5 pts)
 Lexical resource ( 0.5 pts)
ENGLISH PRACTICE 17
I – PRONUNCIATION
1. A. complain B. gather C. product D. transcript

2. A. mosquito B. elephant C. dinosaur D. buffalo
3. A. protect B. settle C. relate D. compose
4. A. government B. understand C. interview D. reference
6. A. integral B. terrific C. cathedral D. museum
7. A. appreciative B. archeologist C. architectural D. cosmopolitan
8. A. photograph B. separate C. recommend D. hurricane
9. A. tonight B. control C. purpose D. involve
10. A. enough B. awareC. support D. swallow
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1: Choose the best answer for each question.
1. My sister never allows ____ a party at home.

A. to have B. me having C. having had D. having
2. She forgot _____ her toilet bag for her trip and she is now a little annoyed about it.
A. to be packing B. having packed C. packing D. to pack
3. When I __________ how to ski for the first time, I felt so happy.
A. succeeded B. began C. studied D. learned
4. Thailand defeated Laos ___2______3.

A. with/by B. by/of C. by/to D. with/of
5. A number of political prisoners….. since Independent Day

A. have been released B. have released C. was released D. has been released
6. The street is very noisy,….makes sleeping difficult

A. which B. what C. that D. it
7. There’s someone at the door. ………….. it

A. I am going to answer B. I’m answering C. I’ll answer D. I answered
8. There are a lot of…. buildings in the centre of Sydney.

A. many-floored B. multi-storey C. multi-storied D. many-story
9. It’s surprising how few people can… between margine and butter.
A. distinguish B. seprate C. disgnose D. estimate
10. Rapid _______ would cause frequent floods and leave little water during dry seasons.
A. run-off B. run-in C. run-out D. run-over
11. You are _______ to clean the bathroom.
A. declared B. imagined C. supposed D. spoken
12. They are passing new laws to ________ wildlife in the area.
A. conserve B. protest C. shield D. shelter
13. They ________ a serious threat to security.
A. put B. place C. set D. pose
14. _______ did he pay for his transitor radio?
A. How high B. How many C. How much D. How often
15. More than half the staff ___________ temporary.
A. is B. are C. was D. were
16. He reduced _________ and turned sharp left.
A. speed B. rapidity C. fast D. rate
17. What’s taking an entrance exam ___________?
A. like B. alike C. likely D. look like
18. The kids found it hard to stay ________.
A. unmoved B. unmoving C. still D. stuck
19. _________ he became famous did he realize the price of fame.
A. Only until B. Not until C. Since D. Until
20. He is _________ now so he can’t afford to buy a car.
A. out of job B. out of order C. out of work D. out of employment
Exercise 2: Provide the correct article A/AN/THE/X (zero article) in the following gaps.
(21)________first few days after getting home from (22)______ college were okay but then I began to feel
rather bored and lonely. My parents were busy working and (23)______most of my friends were either away on
holiday or else had (24)________ holiday jobs. I tried to get a job myself but without success. I was beginning to
wish I had not come home when I saw (25)_______advertisement for holiday courses in (26)________local
newspaper. For (27)_______small fee you could try lots of different activities organized by (28)________
town’s youth club. Each activity lasted half (29)________ day and they were all exciting. I also met new people
as many of (30)________ tourists staying in the town joined in.
Exercise 3: Provide the correct form of the word in bold capitals.
The World Health Organisation (WHO) is (31) WORRY that 1.1 billion teenagers and people in their twenties
and early thirties are damaging their (32) HEAR by listening to loud music. It says (33) NEAR half the young
people in middle and high-income countries risk hearing loss because of the "(34) SAFETY use" of personal
music (35) PLAY, including smartphones. Loud music in nightclubs, bars and at sporting events also increases
the risk. The WHO recommends a safe (36) LIMITED of listening to music for just one hour a day. The WHO
director for (37) INJURE prevention, Dr Etienne Krug, told the BBC that: "What we're trying to do is raise
(38) AWARE of an issue that is not (39) TALK about enough." He said hearing loss is easily (40)
PREVENT.
Exercise 4: Choose the incorrect parts and correct them.
31. Despite (A) fats and oil are nutritionally (B) important as (C) energy sources, medical research indicates
that saturated fats may contribute to hardening (D) of the arteries.
32. The radio telescope, invented (A) in 1932, has capabilities (B) beyond far (C) those of optical
telescopes in tracking (D) signals from galaxies.
33. The boat rose and fell slow (A) as (B) the huge sea swells (C) moved (D) towards shore.
34. She was determined (A) to pursue (B) a tertiary education however (C) happened to her (D).
35. Today there is (A) an unusually (B) large amount (C) of students in the class (D).
III. READING
Exercise 1: Questions 1 – 10
Clinic for internet addicts opens in US
If you have to take a quick break from reading this article to send a text message or check your Blackberry, then
the good news is that help is at hand.
A new centre for cyberspace addicts has opened in the US city of Seattle. It claims to be America’s first
residential centre for people addicted to the internet and video games. For $14,000, six people at a time can
spend 45 days fighting against their constant need to connect to the internet. Residents are given counselling and
psychotherapy, as well as group activities such as household chores, walks in the grounds and exercising.
The centre, in the countryside about 50km outside Seattle, is the idea of therapist Hilarie Cash. She recorded her
first case of cyberspace addiction in 1994, with a patient so glued to video games that he lost his marriage and
two jobs. But until this summer she had only met patients on a day-by-day basis. Cash points out that although
countries such as China, South Korea and Taiwan have places where internet addicts can find help, America has
been slow to recognise the problem.
Ben Alexander, 19, was one of the centre’s first residents. He became addicted to the video game World of
Warcraft, which took up most of his time awake. He started playing the game when he was a new student at
Iowa University. “At first it was a couple of hours a day. By midway through the first semester, I was playing 16
or 17 hours a day,” he said.
By comparison to the whizz-bang on the screen in front of him, the social life at university seemed very boring.
He came to see the game as an “easy way to socialise and meet people.” Alexander eventually left the university
and found help with his gaming problem. “I don’t think I’ll go back to World of Warcraft any time soon,” he
said.
Questions 1 – 6: Read the text and choose the correct answers to these questions.
1. The centre is for people who spend too much time ____________
A. at the office B. on the phone C. online
2. The residents at the centre do activities ___________
A. in pairs B. in small groups C. in big groups
3. Cash’s first patient was addicted to _____________
A. video games B. exercising C. household chores
4. People have been slow to recognise the addiction in ___________
A. China B. South Korea C. the US
5. Ben began to have problems when he started ______________
A. at college B. at the centre C. at work
6. Ben found the game a good way to _____________
A. study B. make friends C. help his problem
Questions 7 – 12: Read the text and write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer to these
questions.
7. Where is the new centre?

8. How much does the course cost?
9. How long is the course?
10. When did Cash have her fist addicted patient?
11. What internet game did Ben play?
12. How many hours a day did Ben play the game?
Read the text and fill in each blank with a most suitable word.
School students do not shower after sports class
A report has found that more than half of high (13)__________ boys and two-thirds of girls never shower after a
physical (14)__________ class. Researchers suggest that students don't want to sweat and take a
(15)__________ , so they are less active in sports classes. The researchers questioned almost 4,000 children in
schools in Essex, England. Lead researcher Dr Gavin Sandercock said he was surprised (16)__________ how
rarely students showered. He said: "We know (17)__________ children aren't getting (18)__________ physical
activity because we have seen their fitness declining; (19)__________ the unwillingness to shower is a barrier to
working up a sweat (20)__________ playing sport, it's something we need to tackle to promote activity at
schools."
Read the text and choose the most suitable option to complete the text.
The Internet bus
In the desert areas that surround Tucson city, USA, students spend hundreds of hours on yellow buses each year
getting to and from their schools. But when mobile internet equipment was (21)____________ on a yellow
school bus, the bored, often noisy, teens were transformed into quiet, studious individuals.
District officials got the idea during (22)____________ drives on school business to Phoenix, two hours each
way, when they (23)____________ that, when they went in pairs, one person could drive and the other could
work using a laptop and a wireless card. They (24)____________ if internet access on a school bus could
(25)____________ students’ academic productivity, too.
But the idea for what students call ‘the internet bus’ really took shape when the district’s chief information
officer (26)____________ across an article about having internet across in cars. He thought, “What if you could
put that in a bus?”
The officials have been delighted to see the (27)____________ of homework getting done, morning and
evening, as the internet bus (28)____________ up and drops off students along the 70-minute drive.
(29)____________ some students spend their time playing games or visiting social networking sites, most
students do make (30)____________ their travel time to study.
21. A. installed B. set C. included D. structured

22. A. extraordinary B. occasional C. exceptional D. few
23. A. believed B. acknowledged C. estimated D. realised
24. A. thought B. imagined C. suspected D. wondered
25. A. increase B. enlarge C. rise D. heighten
26. A. got B. looked C. came D. put
27. A. total B. amount C. number D. measure
28. A. brings B. picks C. rides D. catches
29. A. Since B. Despite C. Although D. However
30. A. progress B. work C. use D. part
IV. WRITING
Exercise 1: Complete the following sentences so that their meanings are close to the originals.
1. I can’t say I enjoy it when people tear my writing to pieces in front of me.
 I can’t say I enjoy having …………………………………………..
2. We’ll have to make up our minds by the end of the week, won’t we?
 A decision will have to …………………………………………..
3. The job received over a hundred applications.
 Over a hundred people …………………………………………..
4. This story of yours isn’t true!
 You have made …………………………………………..
5. The best solution was thought of by Sally.
 Sally came …………………………………………..
Exercise 2: Write a PARAGRAPH of at least 120 words on the following topic:
If you could study a subject that you have never had the opportunity to study, what would you choose?
Explain your choice, using specific reasons and details.
I – PRONUNCIATION
1. A. complain B. gather C. product D. transcript

2. A. mosquito B. elephant C. dinosaur D. buffalo
3. A. protect B. settle C. relate D. compose
4. A. government B. understand C. interview D. reference
6. A. integral B. terrific C. cathedral D. museum
7. A. appreciative B. archeologist C. architectural D. cosmopolitan
8. A. photograph B. separate C. recommend D. hurricane
9. A. tonight B. control C. purpose D. involve
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR: Total: 3 pts
Exercise 1: (Total: 1 pts: 0.05pt/each correct answer)
1. D 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. A
6. A 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. A
11. C 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. B
16. A 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. C
Exercise 2: (Total: 0.5 pts: 0.05pt/each correct answer)
21. The 22. x 23. x 24. x 25. an

26. the 27. a 28. the 29. a 30. the
Exercise 3: (Total: 1 pts: 0.1pt/each correct answer)
31. worrie 32. hearing 33. nearly 34. unsaf 35. players
d e
36. limit 37. injury 38. awarenes 39. talked 40. preventable
s
Exercise 4: (Total: 0.5 pts: 0.05pt/each correct finding + 0.05pt/each correction)
41. A => Although/ Though

42. C => far beyond
43. A => slowly
44. C => whatever
45. C => number
III. READING: Total: 3 pts (0.1pt/each correct answer)
Exercise 1:
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C
5. A 6. B 7. Seattle 8. S14,000
9. 45 days 10. 1994 11. World of 12. 16 or 17
Warcraft
Exercise 2:
13. school 14. education 15. showe 16. at

r
17. that 18. enough 19. if 20. or
Exercise 3:
21. A 22. B 23. D 24. D 25. A

26. C 27. B 28. B 29. C 30. C
IV. WRITING: Total: 2 pts
Exercise 1: Total: 0.5 pts (0.1pt/each correct answer)
1. I can’t say I enjoy having my writing torn to pieces in front of me.

2. A decision will have to be made by the end of the week, won’t we?
3. Over a hundred people applied for the job.
4. You have made up this story!
5. Sally came up with the best solution.
Exercise 2: 1.5 pts
I. Hướng dẫn
 Chấm bài theo hướng dẫn chấm.

 Chi tiết hoá điểm số các ý (nếu có) phải đảm bảo không sai lệch với tổng điểm mỗi ý và
được thống nhất trong hội đồng chấm thi.
 Không làm tròn điểm
III. Hướng dẫn cụ thể
Tiêu chí Mô tả chi tiết Điểm
Nội dung Viết đúng chủ đề (chỉ cần viết đúng câu chủ 0,3
đề)
0,4
Viết logic, hợp lí
Ngôn Đúng cấu trúc ngữ pháp 0,3

ngữ
Sử dụng từ vựng phù hợp phong phú 0,3
Trình bày Viết đủ số từ theo qui định 0,1
Mạch lạc, rõ ràng, có ý sáng tạo 0,1
Tổng 1.5
Cách tính lỗi: - 01 lỗi ngữ pháp (cấu trúc, từ vựng…) trừ 0,05
- 01 lỗi chính tả trừ 0,01
- Viết ít hơn số từ qui định trừ 0,2
- Viết nhiều hơn số từ qui định không trừ điểm
ENGLISH PRACTICE 18
I – PRONUNCIATION
1. A. period B. consider C. advocate D. cultural

2. A. exclude B. expire C. expert D. exceed
3. A. industrial B. infallible C. intimacy D. intensity
4. A. engineering B. comprehension C. maturity D. architectural
5. A. curriculum B. grammatical C. repetitious D. historical
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your
21. Millie’s father accused her of _________.

A. trying not hard enough B. not trying enough hard
C. not trying hard enough D. trying not enough hard
22. The public library _________ to all readers who are interested in reading and doing research.
A. is opening B. is open C. is opened D. is being opened
23. I bought some new shoes. They felt a bit strange _________ because I wasn’t used to them.
A. first B. at first C. firstly D. first of all
24. I quickly packed my new belongings and spent _________ money I had on a one-way ticket home.
A. little B. a little C. the little D. a little of
25. She believes that all countries should _________ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away with
26. Keep your ticket _________ you have to show it to an inspector.

A. if B. in case C. unless D. supposing
27. He always _________ aside some time every day to read to his children.
A. sets B. leaves C. spares D. lets
28. For the past few months she’s been working as a street _________ selling fruit and vegetable.
A. dealer B. trader C. pusher D. vendor
29. I use weed-killer to _________ the weeds in the garden.

A. get rid of B. get out of C. get away with D. get in the way with
30. If there is new evidence that proves his innocence, it is likely that the authorities will _________ him
from jail.
A. release B. relieve C. remove D. rehabilitate
31. The defendant’s lawyer wasn’t very good and he was found _________ by the jury.
A. faulty B. mistaken C. guilty D. sinful
32. The dish was so tasty that I asked for a second _________.
A. helping B. portion C. ration D. share
33. I’m amazed that this game ever _________ - it is so silly!

A. took in B. caught on C. took up D. caught by
34. - “I’m sure the Whitleys were involved.”

- “They _________ have since they know nothing about the business.”
A. can’t B. wouldn’t C. shouldn’t D. mustn’t
35. “Candy’s an excellent pianist, isn’t she?” – “She _________ to win the prize if she plays this well
during the competition.”
A. is due B. is bound C. is about D. is set
36. His friends offered to _________ the next time he was in town so that he wouldn’t have to pay for a
hotel.
A. place him in B. put him up C. back him up D. turn him out
37. The doctor _______the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.
A. examined B. investigated C. researched D. looked into
38. My mind went _________ when the official asked me my phone number – I couldn’t remember it at all.
A. empty B. clear C. blank D. vacant
39. During their first date, Jane had nervously peppered the conversation with _____talk.
A. unimportant B. tiny C. small D. trivial
40. You need a passport to cross the _________between Mexico and the United States.
A. edge B. line C. border D. rim
Exercise 2. There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them like the example
provided.
Example: success (Line 1) → succeed
It is very difficult to success in the music business; nine out of ten bands Line …………………..
that release a first record fail to produce the second. Surviving in the music 1 …………………..
industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it requires and intricate Line …………………..
knowledge of how a record company is functioned. The process begins when a 2 …………………..
presenter of a company’s Artist and Repertoire (A&R) department visits bars and Line …………………..
night clubs, scouting for young, talented bands. After the representative identifies a 3 …………………..
promised band, he or she will work to negotiate a contract with that band. The Line …………………..
signature of this recording contract is a slow process. A company will spend a long 4 …………………..
time to investigate the band itself as well as current trends for popular music. Line …………………..
During this period, it is important that a band reciprocates with an investigation of 5 …………………..
its own, learning as much as possible about the record company and making Line …………………..
personnel connections within the different departments that will handle their 6 …………………..
recordings. Line …………………..
7 …………………..
Line
8
Line
9
Line
10
Line
11
Line
12
Line
13
Line
14
Exercise 3. Supply the correct FORM of the word in capital letters. Write your answers on your answer
sheet.
Before going to an interview, it is advisable to go through a mock interview. This will give you the opportunity
to try out your technique and answers live. It is also a chance to receive feedback that is (1. BENEFIT)
__________ in guiding you towards improving your interview style and general (2. PRESENT) __________.
Just one mock interview will result in a (3. NOTICE) ______ improvement in your interview skill. Why? For the
same reason that a (4. SPEAK) _______ doesn’t exist while it is still on paper or floating in your head. It only
exists when you give it (5. ORAL)_______. The first time you give it in front of an audience, it will come
out nothing like the one you prepared.
It is the same with being interviewed. It is not enough to look at a question and say, ‘Yeah, I know the
answer to that one.’ You need to practise your answer live; this is not the time to talk to yourself in front of a
mirror. Seek out a (6. PROFESSION) _______ and have the session videotaped. Then you will have two
opinions – the interview’s and your own. You will find you get a completely different (7. IMPRESS)________
when listening to yourself than when you are watching yourself saying something. Just as your voice always
sounds different on tape, so do your (8. RESPOND) _______. You will be glad the image is captured on tape
and not in a potential employer’s mind. For maximum effect, you should (9. VISIT)________ your answers and
go through a second mock interview. This should help with any (10. EASE)________ and give you more
confidence for the real interview.
III. READING
Exercise 1. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer
_____.
Tears of emotion also help the body (8) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in
them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable
– (9) _____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (10) _____ “weepies”. It seems that

Exercise 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in
each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Travel Insurance
When going on holiday, it is always a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just in case
something goes (1) _____ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or even become ill
and need expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a precaution
(2)_______ will help them have an enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for (3)_____, travel insurance is a way
of earning money (4) ______ making false claims against insurance companies. For (5) ______, some people
pretend that they have had expensive equipment stolen which in (6) ______ never even existed, and then claim
large sums in compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total (7)_____ £50 million per year. But the
cheats’ luck is about to run (8)_____. (9) ______ to a new computer system, companies will be able to tell at a
glance (10) _____ someone has made a claim within the last three years. Honest travelers will no longer have to
pay through the nose for other people’s dishonesty.
Exercise 3. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your
The symptoms of hay fever include watery and itchy eyes and a runny, congested nose. People
suffering from hay fever may experience occasional wheezing and repeated bouts of sneezing and may even lose
their sense of smell. Some victims of hay fever may also have stopped-up ears. About 30 percent of those who
suffer from hay fever may develop the symptoms associated with periodic asthma or a sinus infection. The
allergen-antibody theory does not fully explain allergic reactions because the membranes and glands in eyes and
ears are controlled by the independent nervous system, which keeps these organs in balance. But the independent
nervous system itself is part of the emotional- response center and may cause the feelings of anger, fear,
resentment, and lack of self-confidence in reaction to allergy-causing substances.
The most common cause of hay fever is the pollen of ragweed, which blossoms during the summer and
autumn. When airborne pollen particles, as well as mold, come into contact with the victim’s membranes, they
can cause allergic reactions that release histamine and result in virtual blockage of air passages. To prevent hay
fever or to decrease the severity of its symptoms, contact with the ragweed pollen should be reduced. Although
some communities have attempted to eliminate the plants that cause the reactions, elimination programs have not
been successful because airborne pollen can travel considerable distances. Antihistamine can help with short but
severe attacks. Over extended periods of time, however, patients are prescribed a series of injections of the
substance to which they are sensitive in order to increase immunity and thus be relieved of the seasonal allergy.
(Resource: Toefl test strategies by Eli Hinkel, Ph.D)
1. It can be inferred from the passage that the phrase “hay fever” refers to________.
A. fodder for cattle B. a seasonal discomfort
C. viral bacteria D. a lung disease
2. According to the passage, the symptoms of the allergy are predominantly________.
A. abdominal B. intestinal C. respiratory D. chronic
3. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Hay fever may cause severe allergic reactions and even death.
B. The cause of allergic reactions has not been determined.
C. The nervous system balances allergic reactions.
D. People should not have an emotional response to allergic reactions.
4. According to the passage, patients suffering from hay fever may also experience________.
A. hunger pains B. mood swings
C. nervous blockages D. sensory perceptions
5. The word “resentment” is closest in meaning to________.
A. reprieve B. reprisal C. irritation D. grief
6. According to the passage, the irritants are transported by________.
A. wind B. food C. travelers D. air passages
7. The word “blockage” in the passage is closest in meaning to________.
A. obstruction B. bleeding C. enlargement D. dryness
8. According to the passage, to avoid incidents of hay fever, patients need to________.
A. avoid interactions with other patients B. avoid exposure to pollen
C. increase their self-confidence D. take doses of prescribed medicine.
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a cause of allergies?
A. pollen B. mold C. flowers D. injections
10. A paragraph following this passage would most probably discuss________.
A. how the nervous system alerts patients.
B. how the immune system reacts to allergens.
C. what other diseases can be relieved by vaccines.
D. what flowers are harmless to hay fever patients.
IV. WRITING
Exercise 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning.

1. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaint about it.
Should ______________________________________________________________________
2. It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine.

I cancelled ___________________________________________________________________
3. Her success went beyond her expectation.

Never _______________________________________________________________________
4. His fondness for the game increased with his proficiency.

The more ____________________________________________________________________
5. Simon hadn’t expected that he would feel so weak after the operation.
The operation left ______________________________________________________________
6. I am sure he recognized us at the airport.

He must _____________________________________________________________________
The journalists only heard about the changes to the wedding plans when they arrived at the avenue.
Not until _____________________________________________________________________
7. “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?” Helen’s boss said to her.
Helen’s boss criticized __________________________________________________________
8. Someone has suggested raising the parking fees in the city.

It ___________________________________________________________________________
9. That dress is a third of the cost of the blue one.

The blue dress is three__________________________________________________________
Exercise 2. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic:
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
-------------Hết-----------
I – PRONUNCIATION

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 pts)
Exercise 1. (10pts: 0.5 pt/each correct answer)
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. D
6. B 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. A
11. 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B

C
16. 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. C

B
Exercise 2. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR
CORRECT FORMS. (10pts: 0.5 pt/each correct finding + 0.5 pt/each correction)
1. the second (Line 2)→ a second 6. signature (Line 8)→ signing

2. and (intricate) (Line 4)→ an (intricate) 7. to investigate (Line 10)→ investigating
3. is functioned (Line 4)→ functions 8. for (Line 10)→ in
4. presenter (Line 5)→ representative 9. reciprocates (Line 11)→ reciprocate
5. promised (Line 7)→ promising 10. personnel (Line 13)→ personal
Exercise 3. (5 pts: 0.5 pt/each correct answer)
1. beneficial 2. presentation 3. 4. speech 5. orally

noticeable
6. 7. impression 8. responses 9. revisit 10. unease

professional
III. READING (30pts)

Exercise 1. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. D
6. C 7. 8. B 9. A 10. D
D
1. wrong 2. which 3. others/ some 4. by 5. example/ instance
6. fact 7. of 8. out 9. Thanks 10. whether/ if
1.B 2.C 3. B 4. B 5. C
6. 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. B
A
IV. WRITING (25 pts)
11. Should you have any complaint about the product, return it to the shop.
12. I cancelled my subscription/ subscibing to that magazine nine months ago.
13. Never had she expected she was so successful/ she got so much/ such success.
14. The more proficient he was at the game, the more he was fond of it.
15. The operation left Simon feeling weaker than he (had) expected.
16. He must have recognized us at the airport.
17. Not until the journalists arrived at the avenue did they hear about the changes to the wedding plans.
18. Helen’s boss criticized her for not doing her work more carefully.
19. It has been suggested that the parking fees in the city (should) be raised.
20. The blue dress is three times as much/ expensive as that one.
Exercise 2. (15 pts)
Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites.
Explain what some of the negative effects may be. Suggest some solutions to this problem.
Marking scheme

-------------Hết-----------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 19
I – PRONUNCIATION

2. A. emergency B. geothermal C. alternative D. expensively
3. A. technology B. variety C. centenarian D. Compulsory
4. a. reindeer b. engineer c. pioneer d. referee
5. a. dangerous b. marvelous c. conspicuous d. numerous
6. a. establish b. illustrate c. intimidate d. inheritance
7. a. expansion b. conversion c. precision d. explosion
8. a. eradicate b. character c. malaria d. spectacular
9. A.encourage B.financial C.departure D.average
10. A.career B.request C.ancient D.machine
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B, C or D).
1. She looked very______ when I told her the good news.
A. happily B. happiness C. happy D. was happy
2. I don't want much sugar in my coffee. Just_______, please.
A. few B. a few C. little D. a little
3. He's left his book at home; he's always so______.
A. forgetful B. forgettable C. forgotten D. forgetting
4. 'I'm very ______ to you for putting in so much hard work,' the boss said.
A. thanking B. grateful C. considerate D. careful
5. Steel_______ with chromium to produce a noncorrosive substance known as stainless steel.
A. is combined B. that is combined C. combining D. when combined
6. Joe seemed to be in a good mood, ________ he snapped at me angrily when I asked him to join us.
A. yet B. so C. for D. and
7. A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ________, it will stop burning.
A. Consequently B. Furthermore C. Otherwise D. However
8. “Who has brothers and sisters?”
“Everyone ________Virginia who’s an only child.”
A. except to B. with C. from D. but
9. He is the manager of the factory. He’s ________it.
A. charged with B. charged C. in charge D. in charge of
10. He was new on the job, but he quickly fit himself into the ________ routine of the office.
A. establishing B. established C. establishes D. establish
11. Florida, ________ the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year.
A. is B. is known as C. known as D. that is known as
12. ________becoming extinct is of great concern to zoologists.
A. That giant pandas are B. Giant pandas are
C. Are giant pandas D. Giant panda is
13. Her parents gave her everything she asked for. She's a completed _______ child.
A. wounded B. spoilt C. damaged D. destroyed
14. _______ my experience, very few people really understand the problem.
A. To B. In C. With D. From
15. When she died, she gave _________ all her money to a charity for cats.
A. away B. out C. on D. off
II. Complete the following passage by supplying the correct form of the word to fill in each blank.
The increase in city crime is a global phenomenon. Some people say that a lot of crime in this country
is because of (1 - migrate) ______ and the new people arriving from other countries bring different (2 - culture)
______ values and attitudes to the law. I don’t agree with this idea because the most common crimes are (3 -
local) ______ produced and not imported from other countries. (4 - Vandal) ______ is one of the biggest crimes
in my city with bus shelters and shop windows being popular targets. Another popular crime is (5 - pay) ______
parking fines, which is unlikely to be because of immigrants because most of them do not own cars. The (6 -
oppose) ______ point of view is that young local people feel angry when they can’t get a job and in order to (7 -
hand) ______ the change in their environment, they strike out at easy targets. This would explain why bicycle (8
- thief) ______ is more common than car crime these days, especially in rich (9 - neighbors) ______ where
most cars are protected with electronic alarms. Another reason, though, for so many bicycles getting stolen might
be that the (10 - punish) ______ is not very severe compared to car stealing which can land you in prison for a
number of years.
III. Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition.
1. Most American men earn _______ average about $110 a week.
2. He was walking through the park when a strange dog suddenly went _______ him.
3. My car is not worth much _______ most $ 50.
4. I’d better not drink that milk, Joe. It’s gone _______.
5. Clive was really cut _______ when he failed his proficiency exam.
IV. Identify the error in each sentence. Write the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet.
1. The children forgot picking up the note from the office and now they are worried.
A B C D
2. Helen has never met such good person who is ready to help others.
A B C D
3. If only I have done the test better than other students did.
A B C D
4. If you want to borrow my car, promise to drive careful.
A B C D
5. Rumors began circulating that the Prime Minister was seriously illness.
A B C D
6. Everybody in class has to choose a topic of your own to write an essay of 500 words.
A B C D
7. Neither of the boys had ever been out of town before, so they were really exciting.
A B C D
8. I hope that I can help you with the historic questions.
A B C D
9. My son learned to talk the time before he was 5 years old.
A B C D
10. Jim offered us presents as if it had been Xmas.
A B C D
PART III: READING

I. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the
questions.
Million of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to
use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are
means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried.
Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile
phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about
the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use
mobile phones. Signs of change in the issues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning
equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He
couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on
his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family
doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High – tech
machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that
there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often.
Use your regular phone of you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it.
Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may
have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone
too often.
1. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because ______.
A. they are indispensable in everyday communication
B. they make them look more stylish
C. they keep the users alert all the time
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
2. The changes possible caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with______.
A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of brain
C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory
3. The word "means" in the passage most closely means _______.
A. meanings B. expression C. method D. transmission
4. The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means _______.
A. obviously B. possibly C. certainly D. privately
5. "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means _______.
A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones
C. the negative public use of cell phones

D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones
6. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _______.
A. damage their users' emotions B. cause some mental malfunction
C. change their users' temperament D. change their users' social behavior
7. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often _______.
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family D. had a problem with memory
8. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ______.
A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction
C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays
9. According to the writer, people should _______.
A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases
B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
C. keep off mobile phones regularly
D. never used mobile phones in all cases
10.The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. "The reasons why mobile phones are regular"
B. "Technological Innovation and their price"
C. "They way mobile phones work"
D. "Mobile phones – a must of our time"
II. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank.
Stamp collecting! What a wonderful hobby! I began when I was only five. I used to (1) ______ for the
postman's arrival, always (2) ______ to seize unwanted envelopes and tear off the corner with the stamp stuck on
it.
Once – I remember it was too clearly – my mother and father were sunning themselves in the garden
when the post (3) _____ on the doormat. I heard the clatter of the letter flap and hurriedly went to (4) ______.
There were four or five envelops, all with very exciting stamps.
Even at the (5) ______ age of five I knew one doesn't open mail addressed to other people. However,
tearing just the corners off the envelops (6) ______ me as perfectly fair and allowable, and just what I did. I
carefully tore as (7) ______ to the stamps as (8) _______, feeling that even the envelopes, which were addressed
to my parents and not to be, should be treated with (9) _______.
There were nothing furtive in what I did. I knew my parents would see what I'd done, and I didn't think
there was any (10) ______ in it. They always let me (11) ______ the corners after they'd opened them. Why
should I think there was any harm in doing it first, (12) ______ in mind that they weren't on hand to be (13)
______. Wouldn't they rather be left to doze in their summer deckchairs?
(14) ______, though, my father solemnly showed me his letters. They looked distinctly moth-eaten,
with bites taken out of the corners and sites. I began to (15) ______ what I've done.
1. A. stare B. watch C. look D. peer

2. A. glad B. pleased C. eager D. excited
3. A. came B. was C. lay D. arrived
4. A. investigate B. observe C. see D. notice
5. A. junior B. tender C. small D. little
6. A. struck B. seemed C. appeared D. felt
7. A. nearby B. close C. next D. round
8. A. able B. possibly C. possible D. could
9. A. gentleness B. caution C. honor D. respect
10. A. trouble B. wrong C. bad D. harm
11. A. take B. tear C. cut D. remove
12. A. having B. holding C. bearing D. keeping
13. A. consulted B. advised C. queried D. requested
14. A. After B. Then C. Later D. Soon
15. A. accept B. realize C. admit D. confess
III. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Write A, B, C or D to indicate your
answers on the answer sheet.
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create
the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind
are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve
more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant
Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe.
In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a
lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places,
the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle,
so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and
when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the
spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is
added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a
high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at
the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal
movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other
time during the month.
1. What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
2. The words "In reality" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. surprisingly B. actually C. characteristically D. similarly

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational
effect one object in space has on the tides is
A. size B. distance C. temperature D. density
4. The word "configuration" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. unit B. center C. surface D.

arrangement
5. Neap tides occur when
A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
B. the Moon is full
C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
PART IV. WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the word give. Do not change the word given in any way.
1. We are afraid that the next train to Cardiff has been cancelled.
REGRET
We ________________________ the next train to Cardiff has been cancelled.
2. 'I was going to phone Sarah but I had too much homework to do', said John
MEANT
John said that ___________________ but he'd had too much homework to do.
3. Many people think that Gone with the Wind is one of the greatest films ever made.
BE
Gone with the Wind _________________ one of the greatest films ever made.
4. If you hold your breath for a few seconds it might get rid of your hiccups.
HOLDING
You might be able to get rid of your hiccups if you _____________ for a few seconds.
5. Anna didn't like it at all when one of her colleagues got the promotion instead of her.
RESENTED
Anna _____________________ the promotion instead of her.
6. I have a good relationship with my neighbors.
ON
My neighbors __________________well together.
7. It wasn't a good idea for me to spend all my money on beer and cigarettes, but I did.
UP
I wish ________________________ my money on beer and cigarettes.
8. The police left and then all the journalists arrived.
ALREADY
The police ____________________all the journalists arrived.
9. Although Sarah wasn't wearing a helmet, she wasn't injured in the accident.
OF
Sarah wasn't injured in the accident, ______________ a helmet.
10. She felt she had achieved a lot in life, despite her disadvantaged background.
SENSE
Despite her disadvantaged background, she felt _______________ about her life.
Top of Form
II. Write a complete letter using the given word/phrases as cues. You should change the form of words if
necessary.
1. Thank/ much/French/ cookery book/ you/ give/ me.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..
2. recipes/ look/ wonderful/, and/ I/ certainly/ enjoy/ use/ it.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..
3. I/ hope/ you/ and/ Auntie Susan/ have/ good/ Christmas.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..
4. we/ stay/ at/ home/, but/ have/ couple/ day/ trips/ out/ nearby.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..
5. our/ local/ theatre/ put/ on/ production/ "A Christmas Carol"/, which/ fun.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..
6. I/ go/ back/ University/ next/ week/, and/ this/ year/ I/have/ to/ study/ hard/ final/ exams.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..
7. I/ really/ enjoy/ the/ course/ so/ far/, but/ I/ not/ sure/ what/ do/ once/ I/ get/degree.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..
8. university/ arrange/ career/ interviews/, but/ I/ not/really/ have/clear/ idea/what/ I/ want/ do.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..
9. hopefully/ it/ all/ become/ clearer/ during/ course/ the/ year.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..
10. Thank/ again/ lovely/ present/, and/ Happy/ New/ Year/
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..
I – PRONUNCIATION

2. A. emergency B. geothermal C. alternative D. expensively
3. A. technology B. variety C. centenarian D. Compulsory
4. a. reindeer b. engineer c. pioneer d. referee
5. a. dangerous b. marvelous c. conspicuous d. numerous
6. a. establish b. illustrate c. intimidate d. inheritance
7. a. expansion b. conversion c. precision d. explosion
8. a. eradicate b. character c. malaria d. spectacular
9. A.encourage B.financial C.departure D.average
10. A.career B.request C.ancient D.machine
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35pts)
I. (15pts: 1/item)
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A
6. A 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. B
11. C 12. A 13. 14. B 15. A
B
II. (10pts: 1/item)
1. immigration 3. locally 5. unpaid 7. handle 9. neighborhoods
2. cultural 4. vandalism 6. 8. theft 10. punishment

opposing
III. (5pts: 1pt/item)
1. on 2. 3. at 4. 5. up
for off
IV. (5pts: 0.5 pt/ item)
1. A 3. A 5. 7. D 9. B
D
2. B 4. D 6. C 8. D 10. D
PART III. READING (30 pts)

I. (10pts: 1/item)
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B
6. B 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. B
II. (15pts: 1/item)
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B
6. A 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. D
11. 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. B

D
1. D 2. B 3. 4. D 5. A
B
PART IV. WRITING (20pts)
I. (10pts: 1/item)
1. regret to inform/to tell you/announce that
2. he had meant to phone Sarah
3. is considered/thought to be
4. try holding your breath
5. resented one of her colleagues getting
6. and I get on
7. I hadn't used up
8. had already left when/before
9. in spite of not wearing
10. a sense of achievement
II. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. Thank you very much for the French cookery book you gave me.
2. The recipes look wonderful, and I'll certainly enjoy using it.
3. I hope you and Auntie Susan had a good Christmas.
4. We stayed at home, but had a couple of day trips out nearby.
5. Our local theatre put on a production of "A Christmas Carol", which was fun.
6. I am going back to University next week, and this year I'm going to have to study hard for the final exams.
7. I've really enjoyed the course so far, but I'm not sure what to do once I get my degree.
8. The University arranges career interviews, but I don't really have a clear idea of what I want to do.
9. Hopefully it will all become clearer during the course of the year.
10. Thank you again for the lovely present, and Happy New Year!
ENGLISH PRACTICE 20
PART I. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words.
1. A. latter B. label C. ladder D. latitude
2. A. pour B. roar C. flour D. soar
3. A. chase B. purchase C. bookcase D. suitcase
4. A. thread B. feather C. bread D. bead
5. A. prepare B. preface C. preparation D. prejudice
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words.
1. A. amphibian B. champagne C. cathedral D. creature
2. A. accommodation B. antibiotic C. counterclockwise D.

deforestation
3. A. consciousness B. ecotourism C. biosphere D. confirm
4. A. architectural B. cosmopolitan C. appreciative D. archeologist
5. A. consolidate B. context C. conference D. confidence
PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones.
1. From 1949 onward, the artist Georgia O’keeffe made New Mexico _______.
A. her permanent residence was B. where her permanent residence
C. permanent residence for her D. her permanent residence
2. Just as remote-controlled satellites can be employed to explore outer space, _______ employed to investigate
the deep sea.
A. can be robots B. robots can be C. can robots D. can robots that are
3. _______ is not clear to researchers.

A. Why dinosaurs having become extinct. B. Why dinosaurs became extinct
C. Did dinosaurs become extinct D. Dinosaurs became extinct
4. The first transatlantic telephone cable system was not established _______ 1956.
A. while B. until C. on D. when
5. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel
of teeth.
A. containing B. in which containing
C. contains D. that contain
6. In the 1820’s physical education became _______ of the curriculum of Harvard and Yale Universities.
A. to be part B. which was part C. was part D part
7. If you can win his attention ___________ for you.
A. the so much better B. the better so much
C. so much the better D. so the much better
8. The President resigned; the whiff of scandal remained ____________.
A. otherwise B. therefore C. immediately D. nevertheless
9. Which __________ agency do you work for?
A. ads B. advertised C. advertising D. advertisement
10. Van Gogh suffered from depression ____________ by overwork and ill-health.
A. brought on B. coming about C. taken up D. put through
FORMS.
1. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully, they would have realized that the
second was superior than the first:
2. Malnutrition is a major cause of death in those countries where the cultivation of rice have been impeded by
recurrent drought.
3. Because the residents had worked so diligent to renovate the old building, the manager had a party.
4. John’s wisdom teeth were troubling him, so he went to a dental surgeon to see about having them pull.
5. Time spends very slowly when you are waiting for a bus to arrive
6. Judy decided to wait until after she had taken her exams before having her wisdom teeth pull.
7. Hardly the plane had landed when Adam realized that he had left the file that he needed at his office.
8. When she was asked for her opinion on the course, she said it had been a waist of time.
9. I try to remember your name but I am afraid I cannot remember it.
10. I’d prefer to do it on myself because other people make me nervous.
III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE.
1. I know ________ experience that I do my best work early in the morning.

2. I am astonished ________ the way my students can spend all night at the disco and still remember their
prepositions next morning.
3. Is it possible to insure yourself ________ nuclear attack?
4. At school today, we had a long discussion _______ the best way to learn a foreign language.
5. “How can I discourage my boyfriend _______ trying to kiss me all the time?” “Eat plenty of garlic.”
6. Raise the gun to your shoulder, aim _______ the target, and try not to kill anyone.
7. Small children should be watched ____________ carefully.
8. Would you give up your country cottage __________ a town flat?
9. He’ll inherit the money when he comes ______________ age.
10.The performance on the first night came ______________ pretty.
IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word.

1. (ADAPT)__________ to a new environment is a difficult thing for old people.
2. Police asked (PASS) ______________ if they had seen the accident happen.
3. What a (WORRY) ______________pair of children. They have to be watched every minute of the day.
4. Children are taught from young to be (RESPECT) _____________ to their elders.
5. They frequently (MOBILE) _________________ the traffic as they march through the streets.
6. He shook his head in _____________ (APPROVE)
7. He fought the illness with courage and ________________ (DETERMINE)
8. She seems (REASON) __________happy in her new job.
9. Can we (ARRANGE) _____________the meeting for next Monday at 7?
10. If you weren’t so (ACT)_______________, you wouldn’t be so fat!
PART III. READING
I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D.
Action scenes in films
Modern cinema audiences expect to see plenty of thrilling scenes in action films. These scenes, which are (1)
__________ as stunts, are usually performed by stuntmen who are specially trained to do dangerous things
safely. (2) ________ can crash a car, but if you are shooting a film, you have to be extremely (3) __________
sometimes stopping right in front of the camera and film crew. At an early (4) ___________ in the production,
an expert stuntman is (5) __________ in to work out the action scenes and form a team. He is the only person
who can go (6) __________ the wishes of the director, although he will usually only do this in the (7)
__________ of safety.
Many famous actors like to do the dangerous parts themselves, which produces better shots, since stuntmen
don’t have to (8) _________ in for the actors. Actors like to become (9) _________ in all the important aspects
of the character they are playing, but without the recent progress in safety equipment, insurance companies
would never let them take the risk. To do their own stunts, actors need to be good athletes, but they must also be
sensible and know their (10) ___________.If they were to be hurt, the film would come to a sudden halt.
1. A. remarked B. known C. referred D. named
2. A. Everyone B. Someone C. Anyone D. No one
3. A. detailed B. plain C. straight D. precise

4. A. period B. minute C. part D. stage
5. A. led B. taken C. drawn D. called
6. A. over B. against C. through D. across
7. A. interests B. needs C. purposes D. regards
8. A. work B. get C. put D. stand
9. A. connected B. arranged C. involved D. affected
10. A. limits B. ends C. frontiers D. borders
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word.
THE BIRTH OF THE T-SHIRT
The T-shirt, or at least the T-shirt as we know it, was born in the theatre. When Tennessee William's
play A Streetcar Named Oesire opened in New York in December 1947, a young actor (1) ____________
Marlon Brando went (2) __________ stage wearing a (3) _________ of blue jeans and a bright, white, capped-
sleeve T-shirt. It was the first time the T-shirt had been seen publicly as anything (4) ____________ an item of
underwear and it set a fashion trend that was to last through (5) _____________ the end of the century. The idea
for the T-shirt came (6) __________ Brando himself. He had worn one at rehearsals for the play. The director
was so impressed by the look that was created that he asked Brando to wear the shirt in the play itself. Brando
may have seen the shirt being advertised by the American company Sears Roebuck. They had decided to market
the shirt (7) ___________ a fashionable garment in its (8) ____________ right, rather than just something to be
worn (9) __________ warmth beneath a denim workshirt (10) ___________ an army uniform. It was Brando,
however, who popularized it, especially with the release of the film version of Streetcar in 1951. A short leather
jacket completed the look that was to be adopted by teenage rebels in many countries for decades afterwards.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer.
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or
have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast
numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct. What is
alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by
poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal
gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals,
such as Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem.
International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival and the survival of our
planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an
effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then charge
admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world
organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals.
Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from
endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from being hunted and
killed.
A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “alarming” in the first paragraph?
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
3. The word “poachers” as used in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. illegal hunters B. enterprising researchers
C. concerned scientists D. trained hunters
4. The word “callousness” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. indirectness B. independence C. incompetence D. insensitivity
5. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast.
A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and contrast D. specific and general information
6. What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to in the passage?
A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
7. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in the second paragraph?
A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off
8. The word “defray” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. lower B. raise C. make a payment on D. make an investment toward
9. What does the term “international boycott” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. buying and selling of animal products overseas
B. a refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. a global increase in animal survival
D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
10. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised
PART IV. WRITING
it.
1. She never seems to succeed even though she works hard.
Hard _____________________________________________________.
2. Do all the washing, please!
Let ______________________________________________________.
3. I regret not going to the airport to say good bye to him.
I wish ___________________________________________________.
4. Mick thought that we were married.
Mick was under _________________________________________.
5. The only thing that kept us out of prison was the way he spoke the local dialect.
But for his command ____________________________________.
II. Write an essay ( about 250 words) about the following topic:
Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of motorbikes. Others
blame for man’s fault. Which point of view do you agree? State at least three relevant evidences.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..
PART II. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. (5pts)
1. B 2. 3.B 4.D 5.D

C
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5pts)
1.D 2.C 3. 4.C 5.D

D
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
1. D 2.B 3.B 4.B 5.A
6.D 7.C 8.D 9.C 10.A
FORMS. (10pts)
1. to the first 2. has 3. diligently 4. them pulled 5. Time passes
6. pulled 7. had the plane 8. waste of time 9. am trying 10. by myself
III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. (10pts)
1. from 2. at/by 3.against 4. about 5. from
6.at 7.over 8. for 9.of 10.off

IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10pts)
1. Adaptation 2. passers-by 3.worrisome 4.respectful 5.immobilize
6.disapproval 7.determination 8.reasonabl 9.rearrange 10.inactive

y
PART IV. READING
1.B 2.C 3.D 4. 5.D

D
6.B 7. 8.D 9.C 10.A

A
1.named/ 2.on 3.pair 4.but/ except 5.to/until

called
6.from 7.as 8.own 9.for 10.or
1.C 2.D 3. 4.D 5.A

A
6.C 7.A 8.C 9.B 10.B
PART V. WRITING
it. (10pts)
1. Hard as/ though she works, she never seems to succeed.
2. Let all the washing be done.
3. I wish I had gone to the airport to say good bye to him.
4. Mick was under the impression that we were married
5. But for his command of the local dialect, we could have been put into prison / jail.
II. Write an essay (of about 250 words) about the following topic (20pts)
Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of motorbikes. Others blame
for man’s fault. Which point of view do you agree? State at least three relevant evidences.
Marking scheme
------The end ------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 21
I. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (10.8 pts)

a. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.
1. She swam strongly and_______ cross the river easily, even though it was swollen by the heavy rain.
A. used to B. was able to C. could D. was supposed to
2. The government has spent one million pounds on an advertising ______ to encourage energy conservation.
A. campaign B. promotion C. operation D. competition
3. Toxic chemicals are one of the factors that lead wildlife to the ______ of extinction.
A. wall B. fence C. verge D. bridge
4. ______ the best of my knowledge, this system cannot work automatically.
A. For B. To C. Within D. In
5. The aim of ASEAN is to promote closer economic_______.
A. delegation B. integration C. reputation D. migration
6. The International Committee of the Red Cross is a private _______ institution founded
in 1863 in Geneva, Switzerland.
A. human B. humanity C. humanization D. humanitarian
7. Affected by the Western cultures, Vietnamese young people's attitudes _______ love and marriage have
dramatically changed.
A. for B. with C. through D. towards
8. How do you speak the fraction 2/5?
A. two-five B. two-fifths C. second-fifths D. two-fifth
9. Don’t be late for the interview, _______ people will think you are a disorganized person.
A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so
10. You may borrow as many books as you like, provided you show them to ______ at the desk.
A. whoever B. who C. whom D. which
11. It is essential that your luggage _______ thoroughly before delivery.
A. to be checked B. being checked C. be checked D. should be checking
12. The reason why this game attracts so many youngsters is that ___________ other video games, this one is far
more interesting.
A. comparing to B. in compared with
C. on comparison to D. in comparison with
13. Take the shortcut round the church _______ late for school.
A. in order not be B. in order that we won't be
C. so that not to be D. so that we couldn't
14. A cooperative program between two companies building a famous ancient city, into
a(n) _______ city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year.
A. friendly ecology B. ecology-friendly

C. friendly-ecological D. ecological-friendly
15. Doctor Pike ______ the hospital after he ______an uneventful evening on duty. He ______ of his day of rest.
A. was leaving / has had / thought B. left / had had / was thinking
C. will leave / had / will think D. is leaving / will have / thinks
16. Something _____ immediately to prevent teenagers from _____ in factories and mines.
A. should be done /being exploited B. we should do /exploiting
C. should do / be exploited D. should have done /exploited
17. John: “Have you decided on a present yet?”
Ben: “Almost, I need to choose one of _______.”
A. new two exciting spy novels B. two spy exciting new novels
C. two exciting new spy novels D. exciting new two spy novels
b. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
1. I knew he was only flattering me because he wanted to borrow some money.
A. making me impatient B. praising me too much
C. making me feel worse D. elevating me
2. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. all day long B. all long day C. the long day D. day after day
3. He testified that he had seen the man leaving the building around the time of the murder.
A. said B. provided evidence C. disapproved D. denied
4. She has a deep aversion to getting up in the morning so she usually goes to work late.
A. intense dislike B. feeling C. provocation D. trouble
5. Those who transgress the laws of society will be punished.
A. disagree with B. disperse C. violate D. interfere with
c. Fill a suitable preposition/ particle into each gap to complete the sentences.
1. She felt a bit dizzy and had to lean _________ the wall before walking on.
2. Next year, we intend to bring __________ several new products. But at the moment,
we are still testing them.
3. I’m not sure if this is a suitable topic for a research paper. I need to talk it ______ with my teacher before I
start writing.
4. The store had to lay _______ a number of clerks because sales were down.
5. “Have you ever heard _________ William Carlos Williams?”
“I believe so. He was a poet, wasn’t he?”
6. “Mitchell looked pale and tired.”
“ He told me he was feeling a little _______ the weather.
7. “Are you going to take that job?”

“No, I decided to pass it _________ because I don’t want to relocate.”
d. Choose and give correct form of the verbs in column A with particles in column B to make phrasal
verbs to complete the sentences. There are some extra.
A B
give fall step go get hold off down in up through on

come
1. Let’s hope the rain will ___________ long enough for them to finish the cricket match.
2. He twisted my arm to make me tell what I knew, but I refused to ___________.
3. Some people think that the Queen should ___________ and allow the Prince to become King.
4. Whenever the subject of holidays _______________, Ruth and her husband have an argument.
5. They were planning to hold a Pop Concert in one of the parks but it ___________ owing to opposition from
the local residents.
e. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences.
1. One is left with the ______________ problem of larger populations requiring more and more food. (solve)
2. The ______________ of the trains and buses causes frustration and annoyance. (frequent)
3. Women who are slimming can never enjoy a meal without being afraid of ______________ their diet.
(organize)
4. They frequently ______________ the traffic as they march through the streets. (mobile)
5. There will sometimes be silences and pauses in a TV commentary, although these are becoming
______________ rare. (increase)
6. More women than men emphasized ______________ and trust; more men than women emphasized
pleasure in a friend’s company, going out with a friend and having a friend in one’s home. (confidence)
7. Among the middle-aged men and women, the lack of contact with relatives, even those who lived nearby,
was notable, suggesting that friends and relatives are indeed ____________. (change)
8. There is __________ dissatisfaction with the government’s policies. (wide)
9. Welcome to another edition of the club newsletter. A list of ___________ events for the autumn is being
prepared. (come)
10. One of the ____________ of this car is its high petrol consumption. (draw)
f. Fill a suitable word in each space to complete the passage.
The Countryside Agency began the process of designating the South Downs as a National Park in April last
year. We believe that being a National Park is the best way to protect the Downs, build on the achievements of
the past to (1) ______________ and enhance the area in its widest sense for future (2) ______________ . The
Downs are under huge and increasing pressure. The South East is one of the busiest and most pressurised
regions (3) ______________ Europe. This means there is (4) ______________ demand for the development of
new homes, roads and industry. There are also more people living and working in the region, which means
more need for people to be able to access beautiful and peaceful countryside to get (5) ______________ from
it all. The Downs already receives around 35 million visits a year: this number is likely to increase as more and
more people
live and work in the area.
Designation will bring a body with new ideas and resources specifically focused on (6) ______________ and
visitor management, working with others across the whole of the Park to encourage co-ordination and joint
action, and taking action itself where needed. It will be able to manage the increasing number of visitors so
that the Downs themselves are not (7) ______________, but are still a resource everyone can enjoy. It will
also be best placed to protect and enhance the Downs, so that the qualities so many people love in this special
area remain for future generations. We have two (8) ______________: to identify a boundary for the
proposed National Park and to prepare advice to the Government on the arrangements needed for a South
Downs National Park Authority.
The Agency is launching a widespread public consultation in November 2015 which will last for three months
and give all interested organisations and individuals the (9) _________ to comment in detail on our initial
proposals for the boundary and the administrative options for the National Park Authority. If you would like to
receive a copy of the consultation document once it is published then please contact us (10) _____________
the feedback form.
II. READING (5.2 pts)
a. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the questions.
Most forms of property are concrete and tangible, such as houses, cars, furniture, or anything else that is
included in one's possessions. Other forms of property can be intangible, and copyright deals with intangible
forms of property. Copyright is a legal protection extended to authors of creative works, for example, books,
magazine articles, maps, films, plays, television shows, software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in
dance, and all other forms of intellectual or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and enjoyment, copyright establishes the
ownership of the creator. When a person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs to this individual as a tangible
object. However, the authors of the magazine articles own the research and the writing that went into creating the
articles. The right to make and sell or give away copies of books or articles belongs to the authors, publishers, or
other individuals or organizations that hold the copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission must
be received from the copyright owner, who will most likely expect to be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual property. Music may be played by anyone
after it is published. However, if it is performed for profit, the performers need to pay a fee, called a royalty. A
similar principle applies to performances of songs and plays. On the other hand, names, ideas, and book titles are
excepted. Ideas do not become copyrighted property until they are published in a book, a painting, or a musical
work. Almost all artistic work created before the 20 th century is not copyrighted because it was created before the
copyright law was passed.
The two common ways of infringing upon the copyright are plagiarism and
piracy. Plagiarizing the work of another person means passing it off as one's
own. The word plagiarism is derived from the Latin plagiarus, which means
"abductor." Piracy may be an act of one person but, in many cases, it is a joint
effort of several people who
reproduce copyrighted material and sell it for profit without paying royalties to the creator. Technological
innovations have made piracy easy, and anyone can duplicate a motion picture on videotape, a computer
program, or a book. Video cassette recorders can be used by practically anyone to copy movies and television
programs, and copying software has become almost as easy as copying a book. Large companies zealously
monitor their copyrights for slogans, advertisements, and brand names, protected by a trademark.
A. Legal rights of property owners
B. Legal ownership of creative work
C. Examples of copyright piracy work
D. Copying creating work for profit
2. Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as protected by copyright?
A. music and plays B. paintings and maps
C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries

3. It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if ___________.
A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
4. With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students.
B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission.
C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the lyrics.
D. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
5. The phrase "infringing upon" is closest in meaning to _________.
A. impinging upon B. inducting for
C. violating D. abhorring
6. The purpose of copyright law is most comparable with the purpose of which of the following?
A. A law against theft B. A law against smoking
C. A school policy D. A household rule
7. According to the passage, copyright law is _____________.
A. meticulously observed B. routinely ignored
C. frequently debated D. zealously enforced
b. Read the passage and do the tasks followed
At any given time, more than a million international students around the world are engaged in the study of the
English language in a predominantly English-speaking country. The five most popular destinations, in order of
popularity, are the U. S., Britain, Australia, New Zealand, and Canada. The reasons for choosing to study
English abroad differ with each individual, as do the reasons for the choice of destination.
Numerous studies conducted in Britain and the United States show that the country of choice depends to a large
extent on economic factors. While this should not provoke much surprise, careful analysis of the data suggests
that students and their parents are most influenced by the preconceptions they have of the countries considered
for study abroad, which, in turn, influence the amount they or their parents are prepared to outlay for the
experience. The strength of international business connections between countries also gives a good indication of
where students will seek tuition. In the main, students tend to follow the traditional pattern of study for their
national group. The United States attracts the most diverse array of nationalities to its English language
classrooms, this heterogeneity being largely due to its immense pulling power as the world's foremost economy
and the resulting extensive focus on U.S. culture. Furthermore, throughout the non-European world, in Asia and
North and South America especially, the course books used to teach English in most elementary and high
schools introduce students to American English and the American accent from a very early age. Canada also
benefits from worldwide North American exposure, but has the most homogenous group of students - most with
French as their first language. Before furthering their English skills, students in Europe study from
predominantly British English material; most Europeans, naturally, opt for neighboring Britain, but many Asian,
Middle-Eastern, and African students decide upon the same route too.
Australia and New Zealand are often overlooked, but hundreds of thousands of international students
have discovered the delights of studying in the Southern Hemisphere. The majority are Asian for reasons that
are not difficult to comprehend: the proximity of the two countries to Asia, (Jakarta, the capital of Australia's
closest Asian neighbor, Indonesia, is only 5506 kilometers from Sydney), the comparatively inexpensive cost
of living and tuition, and, perhaps of most importance to many Asian students whose English study is a prelude
to tertiary study, the growing awareness that courses at antipodean universities and colleges are of an
exceptionally high standard. In addition, revised entry procedures for overseas students have made it possible
for an increasing number to attend classes to improve their English for alternative reasons.
Australia and New Zealand have roughly the same mix of students in their language classrooms, but not
all students of English who choose these countries are from Asia. The emerging global consciousness of the
late twentieth century has meant that students from as far as Sweden and Brazil are choosing to combine a taste
for exotic travel with the study of English 'down under' and in 'the land of the long white cloud'. But even the
Asian economic downturn in the 1990s has not significantly altered the demographic composition of the
majority of English language classrooms within the region.
Nor have the economic problems in Asia caused appreciable drops in full-time college and university
attendances by Asian students in these two countries. This is partly because there has always been a greater
demand for enrolment at Australian and New Zealand tertiary institutions than places available to overseas
students. In addition, the economic squeeze seems to have had a compensatory effect. It has clearly caused a
reduction in the number of students from affected countries who are financially able to study overseas.
However, there has been a slight but noticeable shift towards Australia and New Zealand by less wealthy Asian
students who might otherwise have chosen the United States for English study.
The U.S. and Britain will always be the first choice of most students wishing to study the English
language abroad, and it is too early to tell whether this trend will continue. However, economic considerations
undoubtedly wield great influence upon Asian and non-Asian students alike. If student expectations can be met
in less traditional study destinations, and as the world continues to shrink, future international students of
English will be advantaged because the choice of viable study destinations will be wider.
1-3. Complete the missing information in the table below
U.S Britain Australia New Canada

Zealand
order of popularity 1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th
type of English in course books American (1)……………… (2)……………. not given not
used in this country given
student heterogeneity 1 2 (3)……………… equal 3 5
(1 = most heterogenous
5 = least heterogenous)
4-9. Tick (√ ) in the right column if the statement is True, False or Not Given in the text
Tr Fal Not
ue se Given
4. Study destination choices are mostly influenced by proximity to home.
5. Students who wish to study business will probably study English overseas.
6. Students of the same nationality usually make similar study choices.
7. English language classrooms in the U.S. have the widest range of student nationalities.
8. Standards at Australian and New Zealand tertiary institutions are improving.
9. Despite the 1990s Asian economic crisis, Asian students still dominate the English
language classrooms of Australia and New Zealand.
c. Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word(s)
for each of the numbered blanks.
The expression on your face can actually dramatically alter your feelings and perceptions, and it has been
proved that (1) ____ smiling or frowning can create corresponding emotional responses. The idea was first
(2) _______ by a French physiologist, Israel Waynbaum, in 1906. He believed that different facial (3)
_______ affected the flow of blood to the brain, and that this could create positive or negative feelings. A
happy smile or irrepressible laughter increased the blood flow and contributed to joyful feelings. But sad,
angry expressions decreased the flow of oxygen- carrying blood, and created a vicious (4) _______ of gloom
and depression by effectively (5) _______ the brain of essential fuel.
Psychologist Robert Zajonc rediscovered this early research, and (6) ____ that the temperature of the
brain could affect the production and synthesis of neurotransmitters which definitely influence our moods
and energy levels. He argues that an impaired blood flow could not only deprive the brain of oxygen, but
create further chemical imbalance by inhibiting these vital hormonal messages. Zajonc goes on to propose
that our brains remember that smiling is associated with being happy, and that by deliberately smiling
through your tears you can (7) ____ your brain to release uplifting neurotransmitters – replacing a depressed
condition with a happier one. People suffering from psychosomatic illness depression and anxiety states
could (8) _____ from simply exercising their zygomatic (9) ____ which pull the corners of the mouth (10)
____ to form a smile, several times an hour.
1. A. desperately B. determinedly C. deliberately D. decidedly
2. A. put off B. put down C. put by D. put forward
3. A. aspects B. looks C. expressions D. appearances
4. A. cycle B. spiral C. circle D. vortex
5. A. cutting B. starving C. removing D. eliminating
6. A. advises B. wants C. demands D. suggests
7. A. make B. persuade C. give D. decide
8. A. recover B. improve C. benefit D. progress
9. A. muscles B. nerves C. veins D. bones
10. A. to and from B. up and back C. now and then D. up and down
III. WRITING (4.0 pts)
a. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before
it.
1. I am having a lot of trouble now because I lost my passport last week.
If I
________________________________________________________________________________________.
2. The hurricane blew the roof off the house.
The house ________________________________________________________________________________.
3. He was sentenced to six months in prison for his part in the robbery.
He received a ______________________________________________________________________________.
4. That rumor about the politician and the construction contract is absolutely false.
There is __________________________________________________________________________________.
5. I thought about what had happened all those years before.
I cast ____________________________________________________________________________________.
6. There aren’t many other books which explain this problem so well.
In few other books _________________________________________________________________________.
7. Don’t you think we should ask the price?
Hadn’t ___________________________________________________________________________________?
8. Doris tiptoed up the stairs because she didn’t want to wake anyone up.
To ______________________________________________________________________________________.
9. I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Bill you saw because he’s in New York.
It can’t __________________________________________________________________________________.
10. The collision didn’t damage my car much.
Not a great _______________________________________________________________________________.
b. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given in any way.
1. Most people regard him as the best man for the job. (widely)
_________________________________________________________________________________________.
2. The suspect could not explain why he had sand on his boots. (account)
__________________________________________________________________________________________
3. The best solution was thought of by Sally. (came)

__________________________________________________________________________________________
4. You should consider the fact that he hasn’t spoken French for years. (allowances)
__________________________________________________________________________________________
5. He stood no chance of passing his driving test. (inevitable)
__________________________________________________________________________________________
______The end ______
KEYS – PRACTICE 21
I. Lexico – Grammar ( 54 x 0.2 pt = 10.8 pts) d. Choose and give correct form of the verbs in
column A with particles in column B to make
a. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete phrasal verbs to complete the sentences.
the sentences.
1. hold off
1. B. was able to
2. A. campaign 2. give in
3. C. verge
3. step down
4. B. To
4. comes up
5. B. integration
5. fell through
6. D. humanitarian
7. D. towards e. Give the correct form of the words given to
complete the sentences.
8. B. two-fifths 1. insoluble/unsolved
9. B. otherwise 2. infrequency
10. A. whoever 3. disorganizing
11. C. be checked 4. immobilize
12. D. in comparison with 5. increasingly
13. B. in order that we won't be 6. confidentiality
14. B. ecology-friendly 7. interchangeable
15. B. left / had had / was thinking 8. widespread

16. A. should be done / being exploited
9. forthcoming/ upcoming
17. C. two exciting new spy novels
10. drawbacks
b. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the
word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions. f. Fill a suitable word in each space to complete
the passage
1. B. praising me too much
1. conserve/ protect
2. A. all day long
2. generations
3. B. provided evidence
3. in
4. A. intense dislike
4. increasing/ greater
5. C. violate
5. away
c. Fill a suitable preposition/ particle into each gap to
complete the sentences. 6. conservation
1. against 7. damaged
2. out 8. tasks
3. over 9. opportunity
4. off 10. using
5. of
6. under
7. up
II. READING ( 26 x 0.2 pts = 5.2 pts)
a. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the questions.
1. B. Legal ownership of creative work
2. D. scientific discoveries
3. B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
4. A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students.
5. C. violating
6. A. A law against theft
7. B. routinely ignored
b. Read the passage and do the tasks followed
l. British 2. not given (NG) 3. (equal) 3
4. F 5. NG 6. T 7. T 8. NG 9. T
c. Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word(s)
for each of the numbered blanks.
1. C. deliberately
2. D. put forward
3. C. expressions
4. C. circle
5. B. starving
6. D. suggests
7. B. persuade
8. C. benefit
9. A. muscles
10. B. up and back
III. WRITING (4.0 pts)
a. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.
(10 x 0.2 pt = 2.0 pts)
1. If I hadn’t lost my passport last week, I wouldn’t be having so much trouble now.
2. The house had its/the roof blown off by/in/during/because of the hurricane.
3. He received a six month sentence (in prison) for his part in the robbery.
4. There is absolutely no truth in that rumor about the politician and the construction contract.
5. I cast my mind back to what had happened all those years before.
6. In few other books is this problem explained so well./ will we see this problem so well explained.
7. Hadn’t we better ask the price?
8. To avoid waking anyone up, Doris tiptoed up the stairs.
9. It can’t have been Mr. Bill you saw because he’s in New York.
10. Not a great deal of damage was done to my car in/by the collision./
Not a great amount of damage was caused to my car in/by the collision.
b. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given in any way. (5 x 0.4 pt = 2.0 pts)
1. He is widely regarded as the best man for the job.
2. The suspect could not account for the sand on his boots /
The suspect could not account for the fact (that) he had sand on his boots.
3. Sally came up with the best solution.
4. You should make allowances for the fact that he hasn't spoken French for years.
You should make allowances for his not speaking French for years.
5. It was inevitable that he would fail his driving test.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 22
Part 1: Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group.
Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
1. A. arrow B. loud C. moldy D. poultry
2. A. basilisk B. bison C. basic D. basin
3. A. subtlety B. indebtedness C. bombard D. combing
4. A. benevolent B. content C. molecules D. technique
5. A. conscience B. bronchitis C. shuttle D. chauffeur
Part 2: Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in each line.
6. A. comic B. clementine C. climax D. thermonuclear
7. A. diligent B. dimension C. action D. innate
8. A. characterize B. absence C. datum D. charcoal
9. A. solicitor B. separately C. spacious D. sequence
10. A. parachute B. armchair C. accent D. accidentally
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your
answer. (20 pts)
11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _____ of identical products.
A. quality B. quantity C. quandary D. qualification
12. Only the _____ of the building is going to be remodeled.
A. insides B. interior C. indoors D. inner
13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _____ to me.
A. indifference B. disinterest C. importance D. interest
14. After years of neglect there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. refurbishment
15. The assistant suggested _____ the next day when the manager would be there.
A. we are coming back B. to come back C. we will come back D. we came back
16. I never get a _____ of sleep after watching a horror film.
A. wink B. blink C. night D. ounce
17. As it was Christmas, the _____ at church was much larger than usual.
A. audience B. convention C. congregation D. grouping
18. The sheep were huddled into a _____ to protect them from overnight frosts.
A. cage B. kennel C. hutch D. pen
19. The jury _____ the defendant “not guilty”.
A. gave B. returned C. subscribed D. found
20. Many _____ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
A. customary B. habitual C. traditional D. ordinary
21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor.
A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance
22. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _____ of his service to his country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
23. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _____ any solutions.
A. thought over B. come up with C. looked into D. got round to
24. You _____ as well seek for a fish in the tree as try to do that.
A. must B. would C. should D. might
25. _____ calculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out before the end of the next century.
A. Raw B. Rude C. Crude D. Blunt
26. By the time you receive this letter, I _____ for China.
A. will have left B. have left C. would have left D. will leave
27. Prizes are awarded _____ the number of points scored.
A. resulting from B. adding up C. presented to D. according to
28. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _____ neglected.
A. dolefully B. woefully C. idly D. pathetically
29. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _____ over 20 minutes a day.
A. increases B. gains C. accelerates D. progresses
30. It had been a trying afternoon, _____ at about six o’clock in the television breaking down.
A. culminating B. leading C. arriving D. finalizing
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the
column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)
According to some (0) _____ (SCIENCE), high-risk sports can be particularly (31) scientists
_____ (VALUE) for certain types of people. Such activities help them to learn that being 31.
(32) _____ (FRIGHT) doesn’t mean that they have to lose control. The recent fashion for ________________
jumping from bridges attached to a (33) _____ (LONG) of elastic rope, known as 32.
“bungee jumping”, has now been tried by over one million people (34) _____ (WORLD) ________________
and interest in it is continuing to grow. 33.
Before the special elastic rope (35) _____ (TIGHT) around them, jumpers reach speeds ________________
of nearly 160kph. First-timers are usually too (36) _____ (TERROR) to open their 34.
mouths, and when they are finally (37) _____ (LOW) safely to the ground, they walk ________________
around with broad smiles on their faces, saying (38) _____ (REPEAT) how amazing it 35.
was. However, for some people, it is only the (39) _____ (EMBARRASS) of refusing to ________________
jump at the last minute that finally persuades them to conquer their fear of (40) _____ 36.
(HIGH) and push themselves off into space. ________________
37.
________________
38.
________________
39.
________________
40.
________________
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms
in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. Achievement tests are 0. traditional →
designed to measure acquiring skills and knowledge, particularly those that have traditionally
been explicitness taught. The proficiency exams required by few states for high 41.
school graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a _____________________
person’s ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, vocation 42.
aptitude tests can help you decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or _____________________
musician. However, all mental tests are in some sense achievement tests because 43.
they assumption some sort of past learning or experience with certainly objects, _____________________
words, or situations. The difference between achievement and aptitude tests is the 44.
degree and intention use. _____________________
45.
_____________________
46.
_____________________
47.
_____________________
48.
_____________________
49.
_____________________
50.
_____________________
Part 4: Fill in each of the gaps with the correct preposition or particle. Write your answers in the
numbered spaces provided below the passage. (10 pts)
The show was fully booked (51) _____ for weeks, and when it opened last night, the public poured (52)
_____ and very soon the London Arts Center was packed (53) _____. But why? What did they come to see?
They came to see human beings take (54) _____ circus animals, men in cat suits who stood (55) _____ for real
lions and tigers. The show was put (56) _____ by its creators to protest (57) _____ traditional circuses and to
send a message about cruelty to animals. The show was timed to tie (58) _____ with the National Protection of
Animals Week. It was a good idea, but the standard of the performances was third-rate and an embarrassing
number of people simply walked (59) _____ before it ended. There were some amusing moments when the
performers sent (60) _____ typical circus folks, but overall it was a dismal show. Despite the large turnout for
the show’s first night, I doubt it will attract many people during the rest of its seven-day run.
Part 5: Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the phrasal verbs below. Write your
answers in the numbered spaces provided below the passage. Each verb is used only once. (10 pts)
try out slip up carry get by put out
on
take after get down look up go through turn down
61. If you’re finding it difficult to _____ on your salary, why don’t you ask for a raise?
62. I know what you’re _____ and I feel really sorry for you.
63. In many ways you _____ your father.
64. If you _____ you’ll get into trouble.
65. I proposed to her but she _____ me _____.
66. You’d better _____ your cigarette because smoking isn’t allowed in here.
67. If you _____ working so hard, you’ll make yourself ill.
68. Stop worrying about it. Don’t let this failure ____ you _____.
69. The car’s in quite good condition but you can _____ it _____ before you make any decision to buy,
70. When I was in New York, I was able to _____ several old friends I hadn’t seen for years.
Part 6: Insert A, AN, THE or Ø (zero article) where necessary. Write your answers in the numbered
spaces provided below the passage. (10 pts)
Suddenly (71) _____ blackbird flew to (72) _____ top of (73) _____ beach. She perched way up on (74) _____
topmost twig that stuck up thin against (75) _____. Then she commenced to sing.
Her little black body seemed only (76) _____ tiny dark speck at that distance. She looked like (77) _____ old
dead leaf. But she poured out her song in (78) _____ great flood of rejoicing through (79) _____ whole forest.
And (80) _____ things began to stir.
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Circle
A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (10 pts)
_____.
Tears of emotion also help the body (88) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them
than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable –
(89) _____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (90) _____ “weepies”. It seems that
Part 2: Read the following passage and fill the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in
the space provided below the passage. (10 pts)
New technologies, like all technologies, are morally neutral. (91) _____ their advent makes the world a
better place or not depends on the uses to which they are (92) _____. And that, (93) _____ turn, depends upon
the decisions of many people, especially of politicians, managers, trade (94) _____ leaders, engineers and
scientists. The new technologies, cheap, flexible, dependent on knowledge and information as their main input,
can (95) _____ human being from many of their current constraints for example constraints of resources and
geography. (96) _____ the new technologies could also (97) _____ those with power to control their fellow
citizens even more effectively than in the (98) _____ efficient dictatorships of the past. The new technological
society will (99) _____ colossal demands on our imagination and ingenuity and on the capacity (100) _____ our
institutions to respond to new challenges.
Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 101 to 110. (10 pts)
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross the
“Great American Desert” to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United States,
the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it
would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar
bluejoint grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless. Who could
imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all
winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that
made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or
mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer
and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did
not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they
remained naturally sweet and nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived
on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural
seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The
dry summer air cured them much as storing in a barn cured the cultivated grasses.
105. The word “barren” in line 7 is closed in meaning to _____.
106. The word “preferred” in line 8 is closed in meaning to _____.
A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass
C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass
A. eating only small quantities of grass.
B. continually moving from one grazing area to another.
C. naturally fertilizing the soil.
D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.
IV. WRITING (6/20 points)
Part 1: Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it
111. Customs officials are stopping more travelers than usual this week.
→ An increased ________________
112. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
→ Rather ________________
113. My decision to get up and dance coincided with the band’s decision to stop playing.
→ The moment ________
114. He never suspected that the bicycle had been stolen.
→ At no time ________________
115. How could I help, except to offer to lend her some money?
→ Other ________________
Part 2: Use the word(s) given in the brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new
sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change
the form of the given word(s).
116. To this day no one has equaled his achievements in the field of technology. (unsurpassed)
→ To this day ………………………………………………………… in the field of technology.
117. Peter grimaced as he swallowed the foul-tasting medicine. (pulled)
→ Peter ……………………………………………………………….the foul-tasting medicine.
118. It’s unfortunately that the construction of the building will not be finished as originally planned. (longer)
→ The construction of the building ………………………………………………………… unfortunate.
119. What he told me made me very curious to hear the rest of the history. (appetite)
→ What he told me ………………………………………………………………………….. the story.
120. They chose not to drive because they thought there would be too much snow. (fear)
→ They chose …………………………………………………………………….…. too much snow.
_____THE END_____
I. PHONETICS: 1/20 points

Part 1: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B
Part 2: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. D
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR: 6/20 points
Part 1: (20 x 0.05 = 1)
11. B 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D
16. A 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C
21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C
26. A 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. A
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
31. value → valuable 36. terror → terrified
32. fright → frightened 37. low → lowered
33. long → length 38. repeat → repeatedly
34. world – worldwide 39. embarrass → embarrassment
35. tight → tightened 40. high → heights
Part 3: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
Part 4: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
51. up 52. in 53. out 54. off 55. in
56. on 57. against 58. in 59. out 60. up
Part 5: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
61. get by 62. going through 63. take after 64. slip up 65. turned down
66. put out 67. carry on 68. get down 69. try out 70. look up
Part 6: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
71. a 72. the 73. a 74. the 75. the
76. a 77. an 78. a 79. the 80. Ø
III. READING COMPREHENSION: 4/20 points
Part 1: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
81. B 82. C 83. C 84. A 85. D
86. C 87. D 88. B 89. A 90. D
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
91. whether 92. put 93. in 94. union 95. free
96. but 97. enable 98. most 99. make 100. of
Part 3: (10 x 0.2 = 2)
101. A 102. B 103. C 104. D 105. C
106. A 107. C 108. B 109. D 110. B
IV. WRITING: 6/20 points
Part 1: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
111. An increased number of travellers is being stopped by customs officials this week.
112. Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
113. The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
114. At no time did he suspect that the bicycle had been stolen.
115. Other than to offer to lend her some money, how could I help?
Part 2: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
116. his achievements are unsurpassed. 117. pulled a face as he swallowed.
118. will take longer than originally planned, which is. 119. whetted my appetite for the rest of.
120. not to drive for fear of.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 23
section I: Phonetics
Question 1. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
1.A. manufacture B. mature C. pasture D. agriculture
2.A. breathe B. mathematics C. D. trustworthy

southern
3.A. special B. social C. official D. society
4.A. answered B. crowded C. enjoyed D. failed
5.A. horrifying B. honey C. vehicle D. hit
Question 2. Pick out the word whose stress is placed differently
6.A. examine B. introduce C. determine D. peninsula
7.A. inventory B. circumstance C. monastery D. personnel
8.A. B. returnee C. horizontal D. mausoleum

safeguarding
9.A. existential B. appellation C. colonialist D. Argentina
10.A. defective B. deficit C. reference D. deference
Your answers
1 ....... 2 .......... 3.......... 4 .......... 5........... 6 ......... 7 ........... 8 .......... 9 ........... 10 ........
. .
section II: Vocabulary and grammar
Question 1. Choose the word that best completes each sentence
1. These figures give you some ideas of the cost of .............. your car for one year.
A. controlling B. C. managing D. maintaining
handling
2. It takes a great deal of ................. for the class to make a trip abroad.
A. B. organization C. expense D. business

arrangement
3. Paper making began in China and from there it ............. to North Africa.
A. B. sprang C. D. flowed
spread spilled
4. When will it ........... on you that I am right and you are wrong?
A. descend B. come C. dawn D. arise
5. They are fighting to eradicate the ............. of starvation caused by the civil war.
A. B. legacy C. tradition D. remains

leaving
6. He had to .............. a new syllabus as the old one was out-dated.
A. make up B. do C. take up D. get up

up
7. They say he inherited his money from a ............ relative he had never met.
A. far B. remote C. distant D. far

away
8. I was thinking of going out, but on .............. thoughts, it might be better to stay in.
A. strong B. second C. good D. deep
9. I have been working very hard, I hope I will ........... my math exam.
A. get through B. get round C. get through to D. get up
10. Marrying into such a rich family had always been ............. his wildest dreams.
A. B. above C. over D. beyond

under
11. Here is an example of an ancient ............. Chinese vase.
A. beautiful B. tiny C. patterned D. exotic
12. Because of its warm typical climate, Hawaii ............ subzero temperature.
A. almost experiences B. almost never experiences

never
C. experiences never almost D. experiences almost

never
13. After the accident, there was considerable doubt ............. exactly what had happened.
A. in the question of B. as to C. in the shape of D. for
14. Turn to page 35 to find out at a ............. which courses are available to you.
A. glance B. stare C. glimpse D. look
15. The actor was so nervous that he could only remember small ............. of dialogue.
A. shreds B. pieces C. patches D.
snatches
16. The truant was ............. from school for unbecoming behavior.
A. dispelled B. repelled C. compelled D. expelled
17. The light from the car .............. as it receded into the distance.
A. seeped out B. faded C. shone out D. rolled

away away
18. Nobody would call me an alcoholic, but I like to have a drink of beer ............. and then.
A. now B. when C. D. there

often
19. I really don’t like the shoes, and ............. they aren’t my size, so I don’t want to buy them.
A. further B. C. anyway D. even if

however
20. The musical comedy Oklahoma did much to expand the potential of the musical stage, and it encouraged
others to attempt .............. .
A. original themes B. to original themes
C. that were original D. how original themes

themes
Your answers
1 ........ 2 .......... 3.......... 4 .......... 5.......... 6 ......... 7 ........... 8 ........... 9 ........... 10 ........
.
11........ 12 ........ 13........ 14 ........ 15 ....... 16 ....... 17 ........ 18......... 19 ......... 20.........
. .
Question 2. Mistake correction
There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find them and correct them
Many different kinds of insurance are available to deaf people today but weren’t in past. It was the year
1898 that an insurance company for deaf people was born. A small group of young deaf man had a meeting in
this year. They were all worried. At that time, only deaf people were not allowed to buy insurance. The group
worked hard during the three years making research. They were ready for action at the second meeting. That
meeting was historic because the men found the Fraternal Society of the Deaf. The first few years on the
Fraternal Society of the Deaf were difficult. There was no money for an office, so they worked in their home.
Since the company was very young, there was no money to pay for deadly benefits. If a member passed away,
each of the other members gave one dollar to help pay for burial costs. As time passed by, the company grew. As
it grew, the benefits improved. Health insurance has added. In 1905, the first office opened in Chicago, Illinois.
In 1907, the name of the company changed. The new name, still is used today, was the National Fraternal
Society of the Deaf, NFSD.
1 ...................... →....................... 2 ...................... →....................... 3 ..................... →........................
4 ....................... →...................... 5 ....................... →...................... 6 .................... →.........................
7 ....................... →...................... 8 ....................... →...................... 9 ...................... →.......................
10 ..................... →........................
Question 3. Complete each sentence with a suitable preposition
1. He got ............... his examination fairly well although his health had broken down a few days before it started
2. I couldn’t understand a thing they were talking about. I was ............... sea.
3. I hate people who give ............... the end of film that you haven’t seen .
4. When you look .............. the matter in the library, did you find any question?
5. Someone who robs an old lady of all her savings is ............. contempt and deserves to be punished.
6. He was poor, but he rent a mansion and set himself .............. as a millionaire.
7. I must find the time and energy to get ............. to doing that job.
8. The dog ran away from me and disappeared ............. the hill .
9.As nobody seems to know what to do next, may I put .............. a proposal?
10. ............ all likelihood, we will never know the real reason.
Your answers
1 ....... 2 .......... 3.......... 4 .......... 5........... 6 ......... 7 ........... 8 .......... 9 ........... 10 ........
. .
section III: reading comprehension
Question 1. Read the passage and choose the best option to each question
Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another. Smoke signals and
tribal drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters, carried by birds or by humans on foot or
on horseback, made it possible for people to communicate larger amounts of information between two places.
The telegraph and telephone set the stage for more modern means of communication. With the invention of the
cellular phone, communication itself has become mobile.
For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you or your friends use to keep in touch with family
and friends, take pictures, play games, or send text messages. The definition of a cell phone is more specific: it is
a hand-held wireless communication device that sends and receives signals by way of small special areas called
cells.
Walkie-talkies, telephones, and cell phones are duplex communication devices: they make it possible
for two people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different from regular phones, because
they can be used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is sometimes called a half-duplex communication
device, because only one person can talk at a time. A cell phone is a full-duplex device because it uses both
frequencies at the same time. A walkie-talkie has only one channel. A cell phone has more than a thousand
channels. A walkie-talkie can transmit and receive signals across a distance of about a mile. A cell phone can
transmit and receive signals over hundreds of miles. In 1973, an electronic company called Motorola hired
Martin Cooper to work on wireless communication. Motorola and Bell Laboratories (now AT&T) were in a race
to invent the first portable communication device. Martin Cooper won the race and became the inventor of the
cell phone. On April 3, 1973, Cooper made the first cell phone call to his opponent at AT&T while walking
down the streets of New York City. People on the sidewalks gazed at Cooper in amazement as he walked down
the street talking on his cellular phone. Cooper’s phone was called Motorola Dyna-Tac. It weighed a whooping 2
½ pounds (as compared to today’s cell phones that weigh as little as 3 or 4 ounces).
After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell phone available to
the general public. After ten years, Motorola introduced the first cell phones for commercial use. The early cell
phone and its service were both very expensive. The cell phone itself cost about $3,500. In 1977, AT&T
constructed a cell phone system and tried it out in Chicago with over 2,000 customers. In 1981, a second cellular
phone system was started in the Washington, D.C. and Baltimore area. It took nearly 37 years for cell phones to
become available for general public use. Today there are more than sixty million cell phone customers with cell
phones producing over thirty billion dollars per year.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. the difference between cell phones and B. how Cooper competed with AT&T
telephones
C. the history of a cell phone D. the increasing number of people using cell
phones
2. What definition is true of a cell phone?
A. Something we use just for playing games. B. A version of walkie-talkie
C. The first product of two famous D. A hand-held wireless communication device

corporations
3. What is wrong about a walkie-talkie?
A. Only one person can talk at a B. It has one channel.

time.
C. It was first designed in 1973. D. It can be used within a distance of a mile.
4. The word “duplex” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
A. B. modern C. having two parts D. having defects

quick
5. To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call?
A. a person on a New York Street B. his assistant at Motorola
C. a member of Bell Laboratories D. the director of his company
6. How heavy is the first cell phone compared to today’s cell phones?
A. ten times as heavy as B. much C. 2 pounds heavier D. as heavy as

lighter
7. When did Motorola introduce the first cell-phones for commercial use?
A. in the same year when AT&T constructed a cell phone system
B. in 1983
C. in the same year when he first made a cell-phone call
D. in 1981
8. When did AT&T widely start their cellular phone system?
A. 37 years after their first design B. in 1981
C. in 2001 D. in 1977
9. What does the word “gazed” in line 21mean?
A. angrily looked B. glanced
C. started conversation D. looked with admiration
10. The phrase tried it out in the last paragraph refers to?
A. tested the cell-phone system B. reported on AT&T
C. introduced the cell phone system D. made effort to sell the cell-phones
Your answers
1 ....... 2 .......... 3.......... 4 .......... 5........... 6 ......... 7 ........... 8 .......... 9 ........... 10 ........
. .
Question 2. You are going to read a newspaper article about sleep. Five paragraphs have been removed from
the article. Choose from the paragraphs A – F the one which fits each gap (1 – 5). There is one extra
paragraph which you do not need to use.
Enough Sleep?
Tiredness, it is often claimed, has become the modern conditions. As the richer, busier countries have grown,
so sleeplessness and anxiety have also grown in the popular psyche. Research in the USA has found 40 million
Americans to be chronically affected, and some recent best-selling novels in Britain have featured insomniacs as
protagonists, or sleep-research laboratories as their settings.
Recently, a sleep researcher fried an experiment. He offered his subjects the opposite of the modern routine.
“I allowed them to sleep for up to 14 hours a night for a month. It took them three weeks to reach an equilibrium
of eight-and-a-quarter hours. That indicates a great rebound of sleep – sleep that they hadn’t been getting.
For guinea pigs, they advertise in the student newspapers. Subjects are picked up by taxi, paid $ 5 an hour,
and asked to adjust their sleeping patterns according to instructions. Dr. Louise Reyner provides reassurance:
“Some people are quite worried, because you’re putting electrodes on their heads, and they think you can see
what they’re dreaming or thinking.”
The young men all deny they are going to fall asleep. Dr. Reyner has a video recording of one trying not to.
At first the person at the wheel is very upright, wet and bleary eyes determinedly fixed on the windscreen. Then
he begins to blink briefly, every now and again; then for longer, and more often, with a slight drop of the head.
Each nod grows heavier than the last. The blinks become a 10-second blackout. Every time, he jerks awake as if
nothing has happened. But the car, by the second or third occasion, has shot off the carriageway.
But apart from these findings, what else do we know about human sleep with any kind of certainty? It is
known that humans sleep, like other mammals, according to a daily cycle. Once asleep, they switch between four
different stages of unconsciousness, from stage one sleep, the shallowest, to the stage four, the deepest. When
dreams occur, which is usually during the lightest sleep, the brain paralyses the body except for the hands and
eyelids, thus preventing injuries.
However, there is a strong degree of certainty among scientists that women sleep for half an hour longer than
men, and that older people require less sleep, though they don’t know why. When asked what sleep is for, some
sleep researchers reply in cosmic terms: “Sleep is a tactic to travel through time without injury.”
_______________________________________________________________________________________
A. Beyond this, certainties blur into theories. It is often suggested, for example, that sleep repairs body tissue, or
restores muscles, or rests the frontal section of the brain that controls speech and creativity. But all of this may
happen more quickly during relaxed wakefulness, so no one is really sure.
B. Part of this interest is in sleep in general: in its rhythms, its uses and in problems with sleeping. But a central
preoccupation remains. “People need more sleep,” says one leading sleep researcher. “People cut back on sleep
when they’re busy. They get up too early to avoid rush hour.”
C. The sleep researchers seem interested in this theory. But the laboratory is not funded to investigate such
matters. Its sponsors what its research to lead to practical solutions such as deciding where Take a break signs
should be placed on motorways, and how different kinds of food and drink can affect driving and sleeplessness.
D. A coffee might have helped. Two cups, Dr. Reyner says, even after no sleep at all, can make you a safe driver
for half an hour or more. She recommends a whole basket of alertness products: tablets, energy drinks,
caffeinated chewing gum. Shift workers, she is quite sure, could probably use them.
E. In fact, the laboratory’s interest is more physical. In a darkened room stands a motorway simulator, the front
section of a car facing a wide projection screen. The subjects are always told to arrive at 2pm, in the body’s
natural mid-afternoon lull, after a short night’s sleep or no sleep at all. The projector is switched on and they are
asked to drive, while answering questions. An endless road rolls ahead, sunlight glares; and the air is warm.
F. In Europe, such propositions are perhaps most thoroughly tested in a small, unassuming building on a
university campus in the English midlands. The university sleep research laboratory has investigated, among
many subjects, the effects of fatigue on sailors, the effects of airport noise on sleepers, and the dangers of
motorway driving for flagging drivers.
Your answers
1 ........................ 2 .................... 3 ...................... 4 ........................ 5 .......................
section IV: Use of English
Question 1. Read the passage and choose the word that best fits each gap
Why did you decide to read this and will you keep reading to the end? Do you expect to understand every
single part of it and will you remember anything about it in a fortnight's time ? Common sense (1) ......... that the
answers to these questions depend on “readability" whether the (2) ......... matter is interesting, the argument clear
and the layout attractive. But psychologists are discovering that to (3) ......... why people read - and often don't
read -technical information, they have to examine so much the writing as the reader.
Even the most technically confident people often (4) ......... instructions for the video on home computer in
favour of hands-on experience. And people frequently (5) ......... little consumer information, whether on
nutritional labels or in the small print of contracts a Psychologists researching reading (6) ......... to assume that
both beginners and competent readers read everything put in front of them from start to finish. There are
arguments among them about the (7) .........of eyes, memory and brain during the process. Some believe that
fluent readers take (8) ......... every letter or word they see: others (9) ......... that readers rely on memory or
context to carry them from one phrase to another. But they have always assumed that the reading process is the
same: reading starts, comprehension (10) ......... then reading stops.
1.A. B. transmits C. advises D. informs

suggests
2.A. content B. topic C. subject D. text
3.A. ensure B. determine C. value D. rate
4.A. miss B. omit C. pass D. ignore

5.A. get B. pay C. take D. make
6.A. tend B. undertake C. lead D. consent
7.A. concern B. role C. share D. relation
8.A. up B. over C. out D. in
9.A. insist B. direct C. urge D. press
10.A. sets B. occurs C. issues D. establishes
Your answers
1 ....... 2 .......... 3.......... 4 .......... 5........... 6 ......... 7 ........... 8 .......... 9 ........... 10 ........
. .
Question 2. Read the passage and fill each gap with ONE suitable word
It is not surprising that actors want to be pop stars and vice versa. (1) ..................... that is deep in a part of
our brain that most of us manage to keep under control, we all want to be pop stars and actors.
Sadly, there’s nothing about the (2) ..................... profession that automatically qualifies you for the other,
except, of course, for the fact that famous actors and singers are already surrounded by people who never say no
to them. (3) ..................... the whole, pop stars tend to fare better on screen than their (4) ..................... numbers
do on CD. Let’s (5) ..................... it: not being able to act is no big drawback in Hollywood, whereas not being
able to play or sing still tends to count (6) ..................... you in the recording studio.
Some stars do display a genuine proficiency in both disciplines, and a few even maintain successful careers in
both fields, but this just (7) ..................... a bad example for all the others. For every success, there are two dozen
failures. And most of them have no idea how terrible they are. (8) ..................... as power tends to corrupt, so
celebrity tends to destroy the ability to gauge whether or not you’re making a fool of (9) ..................... .
But perhaps we shouldn’t criticize celebrities for trying to expand their horizons in this way.
(10) ..................... there is one good thing about actors trying to sing and singers trying to act, it is that it keeps
them all too busy to write books.
Your answers
1 ......................... 2 ......................... 3 ........................... 4 ........................... 5 .........................

.
6 ........................ 7 ......................... 8 ......................... 9 ........................... 10 ........................
Question 3. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. N0(0) has been done
People of the Forest
This TV (0. DOCUMENT) ................................ follows a family of chimpanzees which live in the forest of
Tanzania. Set in (1. SPECTACLE) ................................ scenery the programme gives us a fascinating insight
into the life and social (2.ACTION) ................................ of these creatures. Apparently, we humans share 98%
of our genes with chimpanzees; indeed, they are our closest (3.RELATE) ................................ in the animal (4.
KING) and scenes in the documentary offer clear evidence of our (5. SIMILAR) ................................ . The focus
of the film is on Fifi and we first see her as a (6. PLAY) ................................ five-year-old who spends all her
time annoying her younger brother. Meanwhile, the older male chimps seem to be involved in an endless fight
for (7. SUPREME) ................................ . And it is no surprise to learn that while all this is taking place the
females are left to deal with the day-to-day (8. ORGANISE) ................................ matters. Make sure you set
aside an hour to watch this. The (9.GEOGRAPHY) ................................ splendour of the location makes this
programme worthwhile viewing, although our (10. LIKE) ................................ to these animals will make you
think.
Your answers
0. DOCUMENT🠂 documentary
1.......................... 2 ........................ 3 ........................ 4 ......................... 5 ........................

.
6 ......................... 7 ....................... 8 ........................ 9 ......................... 10 ......................
.
section V: Writing
A. Sentence transformation
Question 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
before it
1. You must be at the airport by 2 o’clock, no matter what you have to do.
At all .................................................................................................................... .
2. One advantage of living in the city is the range of clothes shops.
One point ............................................................................................................ .
3. For further information, please send a self-addressed envelope to the above address.
Further information can ....................................................................................... .
4. The thought of what might happen next fills me with horror.
I dread .................................................................................................................. .
5. The realization that I had mad a big mistake came later.
Only ................................................................................................................... .
Question 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to
the original sentence. Use the word given and other words as necessary. Do not change the form of the given
word
1. It was Peter who pointed the mistake out to me.
( attention)
................................................................................................................ .
2. Don’t you remember anything about your lifetime in London as a child?

( recollection)
................................................................................................................ ?
3. “ I don’t mind where the money goes as long as the people are the real beneficiaries.” ( matter)
.................................................................................................................... .
4. You should pay more attention to those road signs about speed limits.
( notice)
................................................................................................................... .
5. She herself admits to being rather selfish.

( admission)
.................................................................................................................... .
B. Essay writing
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? High schools should allow students to study the
courses that students want to study. Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
Write at least 250 words
.....................................................................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
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............................... THe end .............................
I. Phonetics ( 10 marks)
1.C 2. 3.D 4. 5.C 6.B 7. 8.A 9.C 10.A

A B D
II. Vocabulary and grammar
Question 1. Choose the word that best completes each sentence ( 10 marks)
1.D 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.A 7.C 8.B 9.A 10.D
11.C 12.B 13.B 14. 15.C 16.D 17.B 18. 19.C 20.A
A A
Question 2. Mistake correction ( 5 marks)
There are 10 mistake in the following passage. Find them and correct them
1. in past → in the past 2. deaf man → deaf men making research →doing .....
4. found → founded 5. on the fraternal → of the 6. their home → their homes
7. deadly benefits → 8. passed by → passed 9. has added → was added

death ....
10. is used → used
Question 3. Complete each sentence with a suitable preposition ( 5 marks)
1. through 2. at 3. 4. into 5. beneath

away
6. up 7. (a)round 8. over 9. forward 10. In
III. reading comprehension
Question 1. Read the passage and choose the best option to each question ( 10 marks)
1.D 2. 3.A 4. 5.A 6.B 7. 8.C 9. 10.B

C B D A
2. You are going to read a newspaper article about sleep. Five paragraphs have been removed from the
article. Choose from the paragraphs A – F the one which fits each gap (1 – 5). There is one extra paragraph
which you do not need to use. ( 10 marks)
Enough Sleep?
1.B 2. 3.E 4. 5.A

F D
IV. Use of English
Question 1. Read the passage and choose the word that best fits each gap ( 5 marks)
1.A 2. 3.B 4. 5.C 6.A 7. 8.D 9. 10.B

C D B A
Question 2. Read the passage and fill each gap with ONE suitable word (10 marks)
1. 2. one / former / first 3. On 4. 5. face

Somewhere opposite
6. against 7. sets 8. Just 9. yourself 10. If
Question 3. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. N0(0) has been done (5 marks)
1. SPECTACULAR 2. interaction 3. relatives 4. kingdom 5. similarity (ies)
6. playful 7. supremacy 8. 9. geographic(al) 10. likeness
organizational
V. Writing
A. Sentence transformation
Question 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
before it ( 5 marks)
1. At all costs you must be at the airport by 2 o’clock.
2. One point in favor of living in the city is the range of clothes shops
3. Further information can be obtained by sending a self-addressed envelope to the above address.
4. I dread to think what might happen next.
5. Only later did I realize that I had mad a big mistake
Question 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar its possible in meaning to
the original sentence. Use the word given and other words as necessary. Do not change the form of the given
word ( 5 marks)
1. It was Peter who drew my attention to the mistake
2. Haven’t you had any recollection of your lifetime in London as a child?
3. “ It doesn’t matter where the money goes as long as the people are real beneficiaries”
4. You should take notice of those road signs about speed limits
5. By (On) her own admission, she is rather selfish
B. Essay writing (20 marks)
The impression mark is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 10 points: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate

2. Language: 5 points: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language
gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 5 points: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted
upper-secondary school students.
............................... THe end .............................
ENGLISH PRACTICE 24
I. PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others in the following questions
1. A.creative B.sensitive C.ambitious D.attentive

2. A.professor B.manager C.reporter D.director
3. A.exercise B.refusal C.collective D.abundant
4. A. material B. maritime C. marathon D. masculine
5. A. conceal B. consul C. contour D. contraband
6. A. participant B. accidental C. parentheses D. industrial
7. A. competent B. compliance C. commuter D. computer
8. A. malevolent B. pasteurise C. satellite D. manicure
9. A. emotional B. sympathetic C. responsible D. indifferent
10. A. continue B. inhabit C. disappear D. imagine
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer A, B, C or D in the
numbered boxes.
1. ___________ the weather forecast, it will rain heavily later this morning.
A. On account of B. According to C. Because of D. Due to
2. I read the contract again and again __________ avoiding making spelling mistakes.
A. in view of B. in terms of C. with a view to D. by means of

3. It's a shame they didn't pick you up, but it doesn't _______ out the possibility that you might get a job in a
different department.
A. B. cancel C. draw D. rule

strike
4. I reckon Mark is ________ of a nervous breakdown.
A. in B. under suspicion C. on the verge D. indicative

charge
5. Many local authorities realize there is a need to make _______ for disabled people in their housing
programmes.
A. assitance B. conditions C. admittance D. provision
6. It turned out that we _________ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.
A. hadn't B. should C. mustn't have D. needn't have

have
7. All three TV channels provide extensive _________ of sporting events.
A. coverage B. vision C. broadcast D. network
8. No matter how angry he was, he would never ________ to violence.
A. B. C. exert D. resort
resolve recourse
9. ________ as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it was created.
A. Ranking B. To be C. Being ranked D. In order to be ranking

ranked
10. _________, the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. All together C. To a degree D. Virtually
11. I am afraid that you have _________ the deadline, so we can't take your application into account.
A. missed B. met C. delayed D. put off
12. The main aim of the campaign is to raise _______ of the issues involved.
A. B. awareness C. attention D. acquaintance

knowledge
13. After so many years, it is great to see him _________ his ambitions.
A. B. realise C. possess D. deserve

get
14. It was confirmed that the accident was caused by human ________.
A. error B. slip C. D. blunder

fault
15. The roadworks made ________ to the hotel from the main road difficult.
A. entrance B. C. access D. ways in

approach
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the
right. (0) has been done as an example.
The origins of Halloween 0.____ western

_____
Halloween is celebrated in many parts of the (0)________ (WEST) world, and is a time
when people dress up as witches or ghosts, and go "trick-or treating". It is (1) 1.
_________ (DOUBT) one of the most popular traditions in the United States and _________________
Britain.
2.
The celebration (2) _________(ORIGIN) about two thousand years ago with the Celts. _________________
These people were the (3) ________ (INHABIT) of an area that includes Britain,
Ireland and Brittany. They relied on the land for their (4) _______ (LIVE), and this 3.
meant that they were at the mercy of (5) ________ (PREDICT) weather conditions, _________________
especially during the winter.
4.
The Celtic new year began on 1st November, which also marked the beginning of _________________
winter, a period (6) _________ (TRADITION) associated with death. On the eve of the
new year, it was believed that the barriers between the worlds of the living and the dead 5.
were (7) ________ (TEMPORARY) withdrawn, and it was possible to communicate _________________
with spirits. The Celts believed that the spirits offered them (8) ________ (GUIDE) and
protection, and the Druids (Celtic priests) were (9) _________ (REPUTE) able to 6.
predict the future on this point. _________________
When the Roman completed their (10) ________ (CONQUER) of Celtic lands, they 7.
added their own flavour to this festival. The advent of Christianity brought about yet _________________
other changes.
8.
_________________
9.
_________________
10.
________________
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. UNDERLINE the mistake and WRITE THEIR CORECT
FORMS in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.
The horse and carriage is a thing of the past, but love and marriage are still with us 0. __ interrelated ____
and still closely interrelating. Most American marriages, particular first marriages
uniting young people, are the result of mutual attraction and affection rather with 1. ________________
practical considerations.
2. _________________
In the United States, parents do not arrange marriages for their children. Teenagers
begin date in high school and usually find mates through their own academic and 3. _________________
social contacts. Though young people feel free to choose their friends from different
groups, almost choose a mate of similar background. This is due partly to parental 4.__________________
guidance. Parents cannot select spouses for their children, but they can usually
5. _________________
influence choices by voicing disapproval for someone they consider suitable.
6. _________________
However, marriages of members of different groups (interclass, interfaith, and
interracial marriages) are increasing, probably because of the greater mobile of 7. _________________
today's youth and the fact that they are restricted by fewer prejudices as their parents.
Many young people leave their hometowns to attend college, serve in armed forces, 8. _________________
or pursue a career in a bigger city. One away from home and family, they are more
likely to date and marry outside their own social group. 9. _________________
10._________________
Part 4: Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example.
0. Could you deal ________ this problem. I'm rather busy.
1. The Minister is also implicated __________ the scandal.
2. Irrespective _________ the poor weather conditions the search for the missing child was continued.
3. I have been using her computer ever since she placed it __________ my disposal.
4. I met him at the party and he asked __________ you.
5. You can't miss him. That haircut makes him stand ___________ in a crowd.
Your answers:
0. with 1. 2.
3. 4. 5.
Part 5: Complete each sentence with a correct phrasal verb from the box. Write your answers in the
numbered boxes. Each phrasal verb is used only once.
put down come out see off set about work out
stand for step up track down turn make up for

down
1. The managing director __________ the company's poor performance to high interest rates.
2. The police were able to __________ the car thieves using satellite technology.
3. This is a sensitive matter, and we have to __________ dealing with it very carefully.
4. David's new album is expected to ___________ at the end of the year.
5. I hope this award will ____________ your disappointment at not winning the first prize.
6. The company has decided to ___________ production of cars at its factory in Hull.
7. You might need a calculator to __________ this problem.
8. Claire decided to __________ the job, because it would have meant more travelling.
9. Our maths teacher simply won't _________ any talking in class.
10. Helen is going to the airport to _________ some friends.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. READING
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
answer in the numbered boxes.
The Mysterious Isle
In the early morning of 23 January, 2009, the most powerful storm for a decade hit western France. With wind
speeds in (1) ________ of 120 miles per hour, it flattened forests, (2) ________ down power lines and caused
massive destruction to buildings and roads. But it also left behind an extraordinary creation. Seven miles out to
sea at the (3) ________ where the Atlantic Ocean meets the estuary of the River Gironde, a small island had (4)
_________ out of water. Locals soon gave it the name The Mysterious Isle. What was so remarkable, (5)
________ its sudden apparition, was the fact that the island (6) _________ intact in what is often quite a hostile
sea environment. It could well become a permanent feature.
Scientists (7) ________ realised that the island's appearance (8) ________ a unique opportunity to study the
creation and development of a new ecosystem. Within months, it had been colonised by seabirds, insects and
vegetation. Unfortunately, however, they were not alone in (9) ________ the island attractive. It became
increasingly difficult to (10) ________ the site from human visitors. In its first year, day trippers came in
powered dinghies, a parachute club used it as a landing strip, a rave party was even held there one night.
1. A. surplus B. advance C. excess D. put
2. A. fetched B. brought C. carried D. sent
3. A. scene B. mark C. stage D. point
4. A. risen B. growth C. lifted D. surfaced
5. A. in spite of B. instead of C. apart from D. on account

of
6. A. B. remained C. resided D. preserved

prolonged
7 A. quickly B. briskly C. hastily D. speedily
8. A. delivered B. awarded C. proposed D. offered
9. A. regarding B. finding C. seeking D. deciding
10. A. prevent B. preserve C. protect D. prohibit
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10
Part 2: Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the
corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
Enjoy the benefits of stress!
Are you looking forward to another busy week? You should be according to some experts. They argue that the
stress encountered in our daily lives is not only good for us, but essential to survival. They say that the response
to (1) _________, which creates a chemical called adrenal in, helps the mind and body to act quickly (2)
___________ emergencies. Animals and human beings use it to meet the hostile conditions which exist on the
planet.
Whilst nobody denies the pressures of everyday life, what is surprising is that we are yet to develop successful
ways of dealing with them. (3) ________ the experts consider the current strategies to be inadequate and often
dangerous. They believe that (4) ________ of trying to manage our response to stress with drugs or relaxation
techniques, we must exploit it. Apparently, research shows that people (5) ________ create conditions of stress
for (6) _______ by doing exciting and risky sports or looking for challenges, cope much better with life's
problems. Activities of this type have been shown to create a lot of emotion; people may actually cry or feel
extremely uncomfortable. But there is a point (7) _________ which they realise they have succeeded and know
that it was a positive experience. This is because we learn through challenge and difficulty. That's (8) _________
we get our wisdom. Few of us, unfortunately, understand this fact. For example, many people believe they (9)
_________ from stress at work, and take time off as a result. Yet it has been found in some companies that by far
(10) __________ healthiest people are those with the most responsibility. So next time you're in a stressful
situation, just remember that it will be a positive learning experience and could also benefit your health!
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3: Read the following passage. For question 1-5, choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D). Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Day after day we hear about how anthropogenic development is causing global warming. According to an
increasingly vocal minority, however, we should be asking ourselves how much of this is media hype and how
much is based on real evidence. It seems, as so often is the case, that it depends on which expert you listen to, or
which statistics you study.
Yes, it is true that there is a mass of evidence to indicate that the world is getting warmer, with one of the world's
leading weather predictors stating that air temperatures have shown an increase of just under half a degree
Celsius since the beginning of the twentieth century. And while this may not sound like anything worth losing
sleep over the international press would have us believe that the consequences could be devastating. Other
experts, however, are of the opinion that what we are seeing is just part of a natural upward and downward swing
that has always been part of the cycle of global weather. An analysis of the views of major meteorologists in the
United States showed that less than 20% of them believed that any change in temperature over the last hundred
years was our own fault-the rest attributed it to natural cyclical changes.
There is, of course, no denying that we are still at a very early stage in understanding weather. The effects of
such variables as rainfall, cloud formation, the seas and oceans, gases such as methane and ozone, or even solar
energy are still not really understood, and therefore the predictions that we make using them cannot always be
relied on. Dr. James Hansen, in 1988, was predicting that the likely effects of global warming would be a raising
of world temperature which would have disastrous consequences for mankind: "a strong cause and effect
relationship between the current climate and human alteration of the atmosphere". He has now gone on record as
stating that using artificial models of climate as a way of predicting change is all but impossible. In fact, he now
believes that, rather than getting hotter, our planet is getting greener as a result of the carbon dioxide increase,
with the prospect of increasing vegetation in areas which in recent history have been frozen wastelands.
In fact. there is some evidence to suggest that as our computer-based weather models have become more
sophisticated, the predicted rises in temperature have been cut back. In addition, if we look at the much reported
rise in global temperature over the last century, a close analysis reveals that the lion's share of that increase,
almost three quarters in total, occurred before man began to 'poison' his world with industrial processes and the
accompanying greenhouse gas emissions in the second half of the twentieth century.
So should we pay any attention to those stories that scream out at us from billboards and television news
headlines, claiming that man, with his inexhaustible dependence on oil-based machinery and ever more
sophisticated forms of transport is creating a nightmare level of 'greenhouse gas emissions, poisoning his
environment and ripping open the ozone layer? Doubters point to scientific evidence. which can prove that, of all
the greenhouse gases, only two percent come from man-made sources, the rest resulting from natural emissions.
Who, then, to believe: the environmentalist exhorting us to leave the car at home, to buy re-usable products
packaged in recycled paper and to plant trees in our back yard? Or the sceptics, including, of course, a lot of big
businesses who have most to lose, when they tell us that we are making a mountain out of a molehill? And my
own opinion? The jury's still out as far as I am concerned!
1. The author __________
A. believe that man is causing global warming.
B. believes that global warming is a natural process.
C. is sure what the causes of global warming are.
D. does not say what he believes the causes of global warming are.
2. As to the cause of global warming, the author believes that _________
A. occasionally the facts depend on who you are talking to.
B. the facts always depend on who you are talking to.
C. often the facts depend on which expert you listen to.
D. you should not speak to experts.
3. More than 80% of the top meteorologists in the United States are of the opinion that _________
A. global warming should make us lose sleep.
B. global warming is not the result of natural cyclical changes but man-made.
C. the consequences of global warming will be devastating.
D. global warming is not man-made, but the result of natural cyclical changes.
4. Our understanding of weather __________
A. leads to reliable predictions.
B. is variable.
C. cannot be denied.
D. is not very developed yet.
5. Currently, Dr James Hansen's beliefs include the fact that _________
A. it is nearly impossible to predict weather change using artificial models.
B. the consequences of global warming would be disastrous for mankind.
C. there is a significant link between the climate now, and man's changing of the atmosphere.
D. Earth is getting colder.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
For questions 6-10, write in the corresponding numbered boxes with YES, NO, or NOT GIVEN:
Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage
No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
Not given if there is no information about the statement in the passage.
6. At the same time that computer-based weather models have become more sophisticated, weather forecasters
have become more expert.
7. Most of the increase in global temperature happened in the second half of the twentieth century.
8. The media wants us to blame ourselves for global warming.
9. The media encourages the public to use environmentally friendly vehicles, such as electric cars to combat
global warming.
10. Many big businesses are on the side of the sceptics as regards the cause of global warming.
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

IV. WRITING
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
before it.
1. Although Mary was exhausted, she agreed to join in the activity.
→ Exhausted ......................................................................................................
2. We'll let you know as soon as we have received the information.
→ The .................................................................................................................
3. You can only really master a language if you use it regularly.
→ Only by ...........................................................................................................
4. It's nobody's fault that the match was cancelled.
→ Nobody is to .................................................................................................
5. I don't intend to apologise to either of them..
→ I have no ..........................................................................................................
Part 2: Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a
way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given
word. You must use between three and six words, including the word given. (0) has been done as an example.
0. Fiona refused to wear her old dress. (not)
Fiona said that ________ she would not wear ________ her old dress.
1. As long as he could see, Kevin really didn't mind where he sat in the stadium. (difference)
→ As long as he could see , ____________________________________ where he sat in the stadium.
2. Somebody should have told us that the date had been changed. (informed)
→ We should ___________________________________ the change of the date.
3. Jane's family persuaded her to enter the competition. (talked)

→ Jane was ____________________________________ the competition by her family.
4. We never imagined that Julian might be planning to resign from his job. (occurred)
→ It never __________________________________ Julian might be planning to resign from his job.
5. Sally was all ready to leave the office when her boss asked her to type up a report (point)
→ Sally was ________________________________ the office when her boss asked her to type up a
report.
Part 3: Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic:
"The widespread use of the Internet has brought many problems. What do you think are the main problems
associated with the use of the web? What solutions can you suggest"?
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---THE END---
I, PRONUNCIATION
1. A.creative B.sensitive C.ambitious D.attentive

2. A.professor B.manager C.reporter D.director
3. A.exercise B.refusal C.collective D.abundant
4. A. material B. maritime C. marathon D. masculine
5. A. conceal B. consul C. contour D. contraband
6. A. participant B. accidental C. parentheses D. industrial
7. A. competent B. compliance C. commuter D. computer
8. A. malevolent B. pasteurise C. satellite D. manicure
9. A. emotional B. sympathetic C. responsible D. indifferent
10. A. continue B. inhabit C. disappear D. imagine
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR. (7,5 điểm)
Part 1.(15 câu x 0,15 = 2,25 điểm)
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. D
6. D 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. A
11. 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. C

A
Part 2: ( 10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)
1. undoubtedly 2. originated 3. inhabitants 4. livelihood 5. unpredictable
6. traditionally 7. temporarily 8. guidance 9. reputedly 10. conquest
Part 3: ( 10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)
The horse and carriage is a thing of the past, but love and marriage are still with us and still 0.
closely interrelating. Most American marriages, particular first marriages uniting young interrelated
people, are the result of mutual attraction and affection rather with practical considerations.
1.
In the United States, parents do not arrange marriages for their children. Teenagers begin date particularly
in high school and usually find mates through their own academic and social contacts. Though
young people feel free to choose their friends from different groups, almost choose a mate of 2. than
similar background. This is due partly to parental guidance. Parents cannot select spouses for
their children, but they can usually influence choices by voicing disapproval for someone they 3. dating/ to
consider suitable. date
However, marriages of members of different groups (interclass, interfaith, and interracial 4. most
marriages) are increasing, probably because of the greater mobile of today's youth and the fact
that they are restricted by fewer prejudices as their parents. Many young people leave their 5. of
hometowns to attend college, serve in armed forces, or pursue a career in a bigger city. One
6. unsuitable
away from home and family, they are more likely to date and marry outside their own social
group. 7. between /
among
8. mobility
9 . than
10. once
Part 4: (5 câu x 0,15 = 0,75)
1. 2. of 3. at 4. after 5. out
in
Part 5:(10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)
1. put down 2. track down 3. set about 4. come out 5. make up for
6. step up 7. work out 8. turn down 9. stand for 10. see off
III. READING (4,5 điểm)
Part 1:(10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. C
6. B 7. 8. D 9. B 10. C
A
Part 2: (10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)
1. stress 2. in / during 3. 4. instead 5. who / that

Even
6. 7. at 8. how 9. suffer 10. the

themselves
Part 3:(10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)
1. D 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. A
6. NOT 7. NO 8. YES 9. NOT GIVEN 10. YES

GIVEN
IV. WRITING. ( 5 điểm)
Part 1: (5 câu x 0,2 = 1 điểm)
1. Exhausted as / though Mary was / might be, she agreed to join the activity.
2. The minute / moment we have received the information , we'll let you know.
3. Only by using it ( a language) regularly, can you really master a language (it).
4. Nobody is to blame for the match cancellation / the match's cancellation / the cancellation of the match / the
fact that the match was cancelled.
5. I have no intention of apologising / apologizing to either of them.
Part 2:(5 câu x 0,2 = 1 điểm)
1. As long as he could see, it made no difference to Kevin where he sat in the stadium.
2. We should have been informed of / about the change of the date.
3. Jane was talked into entering the competition by her family.
4. It never occurred to us that Julian might be planning to resign from his job.
5. Sally was on the point of leaving the office when her boss asked her to type up a report.
Part 2: (3 điểm) Giám khảo tự quyết định dựa vào các yêu cầu sau:
- Task fulfillment (idea/content): 30%
- Essay organization (coherence, cohesion); 30%

- Vocabulary/structures (variety, accuracy, appropriacy): 30%
- Handwriting, essay layout ... : 10%

ENGLISH PRACTICE 25
PART 1: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others in the following question
1. A. emit B. indeed C. belong D. private

2. A. economic B. territorial C. multiracial D. memorial
3. A. compromise B. correspond C. interview D. innocent
4. A. origin B. subsequent C. admirable D. conductor
5. A. favorite B. relatively C. ingredient D. notice
6. A. museum B. commemorate C. commercial D. commentator
7. A. zoology B. conquest C. cement D. duet
8. A. emergency B. vulnerable C. activity D. initiative
9. A. photocopy B. particular C. enthusiasm D. economy
10. A. innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (3.5 PT)
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B, C or D)
1. Jack _____________ a fortune when his great uncle Jack passed on.
A. made into B. went into C. came into D. bought

2. Telephone service to that remote village can't be ______ this year.
A. provided B. supplied C. improved D. made
3. His company had to close because of_______.
A. redundancy B. economic difficulties
C. subtitles D. a high rate of unemployment
4. I couldn't ______over how well the team play!
A. make B. get C. turn D. put
5. Even if you are good at a game, you shouldn't be______.
A. overconfident B. unconfident C. confidential D. confidentable
6. “Is it true that you fell asleep in class yesterday?”
“Unfortunately, yes. ________ is unbelievable. I’m very embarrassed.”
A. That I could do such a thing it B. That I could do such a thing
C. I could do such a thing it D. I could do such a thing
7. ________ is the biggest city in Michigan, it is not the capital.
A. Detroit B. If Detroit C. Although Detroit D. Detroit, which
8. An almost _______ line of traffic was moving at a snail’s pace through the town.
A. continuous B. constant C. continual D. stopping
9. They were walking on tiptoe ______ the Director's room.
A. pass B. passed C. past D. passing
10. I haven’t been feeling very well ________.
A. of late B. not long ago C. currently D. by now

II. Each line of the following passage has one mistake related to either grammar or vocabulary usage.
Find and correct them.
Air pollution is a cause for ill – health in human beings. It a lot of countries, there are laws
limited the amount of smoke which factories can produce. Because there isn't enough information 0. for -->
on the amount of smoke in the atmosphere, doctors have proved that air pollution makes lung of
cancer. The gases from the exhausts of cars have also risen air pollution in most cities. The lead in
petrol produces a poisoned gas which often collects in busy streets surrounding by high buildings. 1.
Children who live in areas where there is a lot of lead in the atmosphere cannot think as quick as _________
other children and they are clumsy where they use their hands. There are long-term effects of
pollution. If the gases in the atmosphere continues to increase, the earth's climate will become 2.
warmer. A lot of ice near the Poles may water and may cause serious floods. _________
3.
_________
4.
_________
5.
_________
6.
_________
7.
_________
8.
_________
9.
_________
10.
________
III. Use the given phrasal verbs to replace the underlined words/phrases in the sentences. Then put the
verbs in the correct form in the sentences.
come into fall through turn in draw up let on
go round do without make out take after turn

down
1. Before we do anything else, we ought to prepare a plan of action.
2. It was getting late so I decided to go to bed.
3. I believe that Diana has recently inherited a lot of money.
4. Do you think there is enough food to feed everybody?
5. If we can’t get any bread, we’ll just have to manage.
6. He speaks very badly. I can’t understand what he’s saying.
7. Don’t say anything to the children about the party. I want it to be a promise.
8. I was rejected for the army on the health ground.
9. We’ve made all the arrangements. Let’s hope our plans don’t fail.
10. I resemble my mother. She was small with blond hair and had a terrible memory too.
IV. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the gap in the sentences. Write your answers
on your answer sheet.
1. I’ll never forget the _________ I felt in the situation. (HUMILIATE)
2. She’s so ________ that she won’t let anything stand in the way of her ambition. (MIND)
3. That was a very ________ thing to say. (HURT)
4. It’s ______ of him to lose his temper like that – he’s usually very calm. (CHARACTER)
5. He stood at the door to make sure that no one _______ the party. (GATE)
PART III. READING
I. Read the passage carefully , then fill in the blank a suitable word.
The majority of lottery winners change their lives (1) __________ little, and continue on their settled
way happy ever after. A couple of years ago, a Mr. David Horabin won a million. He had been struggling to (2)
_________ a success of his dry cleaning shop for the past 12 months. He accepted his cheque in a small
ceremony (3) ________ the premises at 2.30, and by three o'clock he had reopened for business. The reaction of
Mr. Pasquale Consalvo who won $30 million in the New York state lottery was very (4) _________. He was
unhappy not to be able to fulfill his desire to go to work as (5) ___________ on the day he won. He also said that
if the money made him (6) ____________ he would give it back. In fact, the chances of his life being made a
misery by his new-found wealth are almost (7) _________ slim though not quite as the sixty million-to-one odds
he beat to take a jackpot (8)________ had remained unclaimed through six previous draws. Gambling small
amounts (9) __________ the lottery is a harmless if futile hobby. (10) __________, gambling can become an
addiction, increasingly so as the activity becomes socially acceptable.
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the
questions.
A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than 20 years ago
and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes.
The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house which is very
obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one which is well-protected. A
burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.
There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid leaving
signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or
television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your latest music centre or computer is enough
to tempt any burglar.
Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is under the
doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be uncovered by the intruder. It is
much safer to leave a key with a neighbor you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware
that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting
security lights to the outside of your house.
But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or intruder has decided
to target your home? Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows
provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before
going to bed you should double-check that all windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your
windows may be, it is surprising what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through. For extra
security, fit window locks to the inside of the window.
What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open, should have
top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well spent. Install a burglar alarm
if you can afford it as another line of defence against intruders.
A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to the trouble of
breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or workmen and, particularly if
you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinize callers at your leisure. When you do have
callers never let anybody into your home unless you are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity
card, for example.
If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can hear an
intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. Far better to telephone the police and wait for
help.
1. According to the writer, we should _______.
A. avoid leaving our house empty
B. only go out when we have to
C. always keep the curtains closed
D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out
2. The “aforementioned precautions” refer to steps that _______.
A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not
B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe
C. will stop a potential burglar
D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your home
3. Gaining entry to a house through a small window _______.
A. is surprisingly difficult
B. is not as difficult as people think
C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door
D. is tried only by very determined burglars
4 . According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms _______.
A. cost a lot of money but are worth it B. are good value for money
C. are luxury items D. are absolutely essential items
5. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole _______.
A. will prevent your home being burgled
B. avoids you having to invite people into your home
C. is only necessary for elderly people
D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine
III. Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Circle A, B, C or D to
indicate your answers.
Viewed from the outside (1) ________, the Houses of Parliament look impressive. The architecture
gives the place a traditional look, and the buildings are sandwiched between a busy square and the river, making
them a (2) ________between the country house of an eccentric duke and a Victorian railway station. You have
only to learn that the members (3) ______ to each other as ‘The Honorable Member to (4) ______ the picture of
a dignified gentlemen’s club, with of course a few ladies to (5) _______ the numbers. Sadly, over the past few
years first radio, and now television, have shown the general public, who are (6) ______ the electorate, what in
fact goes on when bills are discussed and questions are asked. The first obvious fact is that the chamber is very
rarely full, and there may be only a handful of members present, some of whom are quite clearly asleep, telling
jokes to their neighbor, or shouting like badly-behaved schoolchildren. There is not enough room for them all in
the chamber in any (7) _______, which is a second worrying point. Of course, television does not follow the
work of committees, which are the small discussions groups that do most of the real work of the House. But the
(8) ______ impression that voters receive of the workings of government is not a good one. To put it (9)
_______, parliament looks disorganized, is clearly behind the time and seems to be filled with bores and
comedians. This is presumably why members (10) _______ for so long the efforts of the BBC to broadcast
parliamentary matters on television.
1. A. likewise B. at least C. nevertheless D. as well
2. A. mixture B. combination C. cross D. match
3. A. call B. refer C. speak D. submit
4. A. finalize B. end C. conclude D. complete
5. A. take away B. bring about C. make up D. set in
6. A. after all B. anyway C. even D. furthermore
7. A. point B. way C. matter D. case
8. A. total B. broad C. overall D. comprehensive
9. A. bluntly B. shortly C. directly D. basically
10. A. prevented B. checked C. defied D. resisted
PART IV: WRITING

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it.
1. The phone stopped ringing the moment I got down stairs.

🡪No sooner _______________________________________________
2. He is determined to carry on working when he is 65.

🡪He has no ________________________________________________
3. He was very sorry that he didn’t see Audrey on her trip to London.
🡪He greatly ______________________________________________
4. She agreed to go out to dinner with him because she assumed he was not married.
🡪Had she __________________________________________________
5. Everyone was surprised that the singer had very little money when he died.
🡪The singer had _____________________________________________
II. Write about the following topic:
‘Some people feel that certain workers like nurses, doctors and teachers are undervalued and
should be paid more’
How far do you agree?
You should write at least 150 words.
1. A. emit B. indeed C. belong D. private

2. A. economic B. territorial C. multiracial D. memorial
3. A. compromise B. correspond C. interview D. innocent
4. A. origin B. subsequent C. admirable D. conductor
5. A. favorite B. relatively C. ingredient D. notice
6. A. museum B. commemorate C. commercial D. commentator
7. A. zoology B. conquest C. cement D. duet
8. A. emergency B. vulnerable C. activity D. initiative
9. A. photocopy B. particular C. enthusiasm D. economy
10. A. innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35pt)
I. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. C 2. 3. B 4. B 5. A
A
6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. A
1. limited --> limiting 6. surrounding --> surrounded
2. Because --> Although 7. quick --> quickly
3. makes --> causes 8. where--> when
4. risen --> increased 9. continues --> continue
5. poisoned --> poisonous 10. water --> melt
III. (10pts: 1 pt/item)

1. draw up 2. turn in 3. came into 4. go round 5. do without
6. make 7. let on 8. turned down 9. fall though 10. take after
out
IV. ( 5pts: 1pt/ item)
1. humiliation 2. single-minded/ strong-minded 3. hurtful 4. 5. gate-crashed
uncharacteristic
PART III. READING
I. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. but 2. make 3. at 4. similar 5. usual
6. unhappy 7. as 8. 9. on 10. However

that
II. (5 pts: 1 pt/item)
1. D 2. 3. B 4. 5. D
D A
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. 5. C
D
6. A 7. D 8.C 9. 10. D
A
PART IV. WRITING

I. (5 pts: 1pt/item)
1. No sooner had I got downstairs than the phone stopped ringing.
2. He has no intention of giving up working/ retiring when he is 65.
3. He greatly regretted not seeing Audrey on her trip to London.
4. Had she known that he was married, she would not have agreed to go out to dinner with him.
5. The singer had very little money (left) when he died, which surprised everybody.
II. Write about the following topic: 20 pts
1. Content (10 pts): a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language (5pts): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language
gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation (5pts): coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language
gifted upper-secondary school students.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 26
PART A: PRONUNCIATION
1. A. argument B. enquiry C. medicine D. justify

2. A. convenience B. mechanic C. preference D. official
3. A. recently B. attitude C. octopus D. proposal
4. A. economy B. advisory C. peninsula D. economics
5. A. arithmetic B. agriculture C. contributor D. assassinate
6. A. magnificent B. appliances C. potentially D. preservation
7. A. computer B. property C. horizon D. imagine
8. A. architect B. electric C. mineral D. luxury
9. A. photochemical B. trigonometry C. dramatically D. alphabetical
10. A. popularity B. conscientious C. apprenticeship D. personality
PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C, or D) to complete the sentences.
1. Of course, I will play the piano at the party but I’m a little ________.
A. out of use B. out of practice C. out of reach D. out of turn
2. Where’s that _______ dress that your grandma gave you?
A. pink, long, lovely, silk B. lovely, long, pink, silk
C. lovely, pink, long, silk D. long, pink, silk, lovely
3. _________ air is essential to man, so is water to fish.
A. As B. Just C. Since D. Like
4. Having selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the International Convention,
_________.
A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him
C. the members congratulated him D. he gave a short acceptance speech
5. We _______ wandering about without any food.
A. hungered B. made hungry C. had been hungry D. got hungry

6. James was ________ upset after being rejected in love.
A. strongly B. hardly C. deeply D. highly
7. The company have to _______ways of reducing costs.
A. take in B, think over C. look D. work out
8. Don’t take any _______ of Mike – he’s always rude to everyone.
A. notice B. view C. attention D. sight
9. Before you sign the contract, ________ in mind that you won’t be able to change anything later.
A. hold B. bear C. retain D. reserve
10. Does that name _________ to you?
A. ring a bell B. break the ice C. foot the bill D. fall into place
II. Complete the following passage with the correct forms of the given words.
ACCESS APPEAR COMMIT DENY EXCLUDE
IMMERSE INFANT INSTITUTE LONELY SEE
One of the most challenging aspects of the science anthropology comes from its fieldwork. Certainly, in
its (1)________ as a profession, anthropology was distinguished by its concentration on so-called primary
societies in which social (2)________ appear to be fairly limited and social interaction to be conducted almost
(3)_________ face – to – face. Such societies, it was felt, provided anthropologists with a valuable
(4)________into the workings of society that contrasted with the many complexities of more highly developed
societies. There was also a sense that the way of life represented by these smaller societies were rapidly
(5)________and that preserving a record of them was a matter of some urgency.
The (6)________ of anthropologists to the first – hand collection of data led them to some of the most
(7)________ places on earth. Most often they worked alone. Such lack of contact with other people created
feelings of intense (8)________ in some anthropologists, especially in the early stages of fieldwork.
Nevertheless, this process of (9)________ in a totally alien culture continues to attract men and women to
anthropology, and is (10)_________ the most effective way of understanding in depth how other people see the
world.
III. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank.
1. Kate fell _______ with her boyfriend and they stopped seeing each other.
2. She would just sit in her chair, dreaming her life ________.
3. I’ve taken this watch _______ pieces, and now I can’t put it together again.
4. I went to the library, but the book I wanted was out _______ loan.
5. Sorry I’m late. Something cropped _________ at the office.
6. I’m sure my brother will never get married because he hates the feeling of being tied _____.
7. Deborah is going to take extra lessons to catch up______ what she missed why she was away.
8. I don’t think anyone understood what I was saying at the meeting. I failed to get my point _______.
9. Jane’s very modest, always playing ________ her success.

10. Check the bottles carefully to make sure they have not been tampered________.
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the options among A, B, C or D that best complete the blanks.
Stressful situations that (1)________ almost every day in life seem to be unavoidable. However, we can
do little sometimes to avoid a misfortune or an unpleasant occurrence which may (2)________ us unexpectedly
as only it can. At such a moment, one may hit the (3)_______, give in to the helplessness of the situation or,
ideally, put a brave face on it trying to (4)_________ the burden.
Can you (5)_________ in your mind an hour spent in a traffic jam, say, this morning? Do you light one
cigarette after another? Do you sound the horn every few seconds like the other neurotics? Or do you take a
different (6)________ and make good use of the time drawing up a schedule for the days to come? To withstand
the stressful moment you can also do a crossword puzzle, listen to your favorite music or even compose a menu
for your Sunday dinner.
In fact, whatever way you (7)________ to the annoying situation, you can exert no impact on it as the
traffic jam will only reduce in due (8)_________. Nevertheless, your reaction might considerably influence your
mood for the rest of the day. The inability to confront a stressful occurrence like that with a deal of composure
and sensibility adds much more strain to your life and in this way puts your well – being in (9)_________.
Surprisingly, it is seemingly negligible hardships we stumble on daily that run double the risk of developing
serious health disorders rather than our isolated tragedies however painful they may be. (10)_______that so
many of those wretched stresses and inducing troubles affect us in a day, we should, at best, try to avoid them or
possibly make radical alterations in the way we lead our daily lifestyles.
1. A. devise B. create C. originate D. emerge
2. A. arise B. happen C. befall D. occur
3. A. post B. roof C. bottom D. wall
4. A. subsist B. remain C. cow D. bear
5. A. envision B. observe C. picture D. image
6. A. manner B. stance C. practice D. mode
7. A. strike B. deal C. respond D. challege
8. A. term B. course C. timing D. period
9. A. risk B. weakness C. insecurity D. jeopardy
10. A. Providing B. Given C. Hence D. As much
II. Read the text and then answer the questions 1 – 5 by choosing A, B, C or D.
Federal Express is a company that specializes in rapid overnight delivery of high-priority packages. The
first company of its type, Federal Express was founded by the youthful Fred Smith in 1971, when he was only 28
years old. Smith had actually developed the idea for the rapid delivery service in a term paper for an economics
class when he was a student at Yale University. The term paper reputedly received a less – than – stellar grade
because of the infeasibility of the project that Smith had outlined. The model that Smith proposed had never been
tried; it was a model that was efficient to operate but at the same time was very difficult to institute.
Smith achieved efficiency in his model by designing a system that was separate from the passenger
system and could, therefore, focus on how to deliver packages most efficiently. His strategy was to own his own
planes so that he could create his own schedules and to ship all packages through the hug city of Memphis, a set
– up which resembles the spokes on the wheel of a bicycle. With this combination of his own planes and hub set
– up, he could get packages anywhere in the United States overnight.
What made Smith’s idea difficult to institute was the fact that the entire system had to be created before
the company could begin operations. He needed a fleet of aircraft to collect packages from airports every night
and deliver them to Memphis, where they were immediately sorted and flown out to their new destinations; he
needed a fleet of trucks to deliver packages to and from the various airport; he needed facilities and trained staff
all in place to handle the operation. Smith had a $4 million inheritance from his father, and he managed to raise
an additional $91 million dollars from venture capitalists to get the company operating.
When Federal Express began service in 1973 in 25 cities, the company was not an immediate success,
but success did come within a relatively short period of time. The company lost $29 million in the first 26
months of operations. However, the tide was to turn relatively quickly. By late 1976, Federal Express was
carrying an average of 19,000 packages per night and had made a profit of $36 million.
1. The word developed in paragraph 1 could be replaced by
A. come up with B. come about C. come across D. come into
2. What was a key idea of Smith’s?
A. That he should focus on passenger service.
B. That package delivery should be separate from passenger service.
C. That packages could be delivered on other companies’ planes.
D. That passenger service had to be efficient.
3. A hug city in paragraph 2 is
A. a large city with small cities as destinations.
B. a city that is the final destination for many routes.
C. a city where many bicycle routes begin.
D. a centralized city with destinations emanating from it.
4. It can be inferred from the passage that Smith selected Memphis as his hub city because it
A. was near the middle of the country.
B. had a large number of passenger aircraft
C. already had a large package delivery service.
D. was a favorite passenger airport.
5. Which paragraph explains what made Smith’s model effective?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph
C. The third paragraph D. The last paragraph
III. Complete the following passage by filling one word for each blank.
If there is just one single thing more astonishing than the ability of the adult human being to talk, it is
the process by which someone learns to do this. Some parts of the process are still (1)________ much a closed
book, but it is for the (2)_________ part possible to describe what the child is doing at various stages in its
development, even if we cannot account (3)________ how exactly it learns to do these things.
In fact, research carried out by various linguists has (4)_________ rise to as many theories as there are
differences in the rate of development. A baby actually makes sounds from the moment it is born, but for some
time these are rather far removed (5)_________ articulate speech. In something like a year, a baby will probably
be at a stage where one or two syllables represent the peak of its achievement as a speaker; one more year and it
will be (6)_______ out with short phrases, and after this it seems (7)________ time at all before the child is
capable of uttering complete sentences.
Despite being a truly remarkable feat of learning, this is one that is performed by the vast (8)_________
of human beings. Complex operations are brought (9)________ play in these dealing with speech and language;
the key (10)_______ in brain work, though tongue – work and ear – work play a part in the whole process.
PART D. WRITING
I. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word/phrase in capitals, and so that the meaning stays the
same.
1. Please excuse Jane’s poor typing; she’s only been learning for a month. ALLOWANCES
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
2. This is the procedure. FOLLOWS
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
3. I just didn’t know what to say. LOST
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
4. Alison bought the big house because she wanted to open a hotel. VIEW
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
5. We decided to spend the afternoon exploring the shop LOOKING
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
II. With 250-300 words, write about the following topic:
Increasing the price of petrol is the best way to solve growing traffic and pollution problems.
To what extent do you agree or disagree? What other measures do you think might be effective?
Give reasons for your answer with relevant examples from your knowledge and experience.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………….
------------THE END-------------
1. A. argument B. enquiry C. medicine D. justify

2. A. convenience B. mechanic C. preference D. official
3. A. recently B. attitude C. octopus D. proposal
4. A. economy B. advisory C. peninsula D. economics
5. A. arithmetic B. agriculture C. contributor D. assassinate
6. A. magnificent B. appliances C. potentially D. preservation
7. A. computer B. property C. horizon D. imagine
8. A. architect B. electric C. mineral D. luxury
9. A. photochemical B. trigonometry C. dramatically D. alphabetical
10. A. popularity B. conscientious C. apprenticeship D. personality
PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 PT)
I. 10 points (1 point/item)
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. D
6. C 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. A
II. 10 points (1 point/item)
1. infancy 2. institutions 3. exclusively 4. insight 5. disappearing
6. 7. inaccessible 8. loneliness 9. immersion 10. undeniable

commitment
III. 10 points (1 point/item)
1. out 2. 3. to 4. on 5. up
away
6. down 7. on 8. across 9. down 10. with
PART C. READING (30 POINTS)
1. 2. C 3. B 4. 5. A
D D
6. B 7. C 8. B 9. 10. B
D
II. 10 points (2 point/item)
1. 2. B 3. D 4. 5. B
A A
III. 10 points (1 point/item)
1. 2. most 3. for 4. given 5.. from

very/pretty
6. coming 7. no 8. 9. into 10. lies

majority
PART D. WRITING (2.5 PT)
1. Please make allowances for Jane’s poor typing; she’s only been learning for a month.
2. The procedure is as follows.
3. I was lost for words.
4. Alison bought a big house with a view to opening a hotel.
5. We decided to spend the afternoon looking around the shop.
XI. 2.0 pt.
- The writing passage should be well-organized: introduction, body and ending of the passage: 0.25 pt
- The ideas should be clarified with relevant and specific examples: 1 pt
- The writing passage is supposed to be free of grammatical and spelling errors: 0.75 pt
---------------THE END-----------------
ENGLISH TEST NO. 27

I. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. (15 points)
1. These figures give you some idea of the cost of ….. your car for one year.
A. controlling B. handling C. managing D. maintaining
2. It can take up to three months to ….. a man to do this specialist work.
A. guide B. raise C. train D. learn
3. In today’s paper it ….. that we shall have an election this year.
A. says B. admits C. expresses D. proposes
4. I had to pay ….. on a carpet I bought in through the Customs today.
A. taxes B. rates C. fines D. duty
5. Tropical diseases are comparatively ….. in Europe.
A. scarce B. rare C. slight D. few
6. The ….. charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually high.
A. hire B. price C. fees D. sum
7. It takes a great deal of ….. for the class to make a trip abroad.
A. arrangement B. organisation C. expense D. business
8. You shouldn’t eat so many sweets. They’re ….. for you.
A. bad B. unhealthy C. unsuitable D. disagreeable
9. I wondered whether you would like to ….. to the theatre tomorrow.
A. visit B. go away C. go out D. walk out
10. Do you think he is ….. of doing the job?
A. capable B. competent C. able D. suited
11. I bought these shoes in the sale. They were a real ……….
A. cheap B. economy C. bargain D. purchase
12. If you put your money in the bank, it will earn ten per cent ……….
A. investment B. profit C. deposit D. interest
13. Edward was named after one of his father ‘s distant ……….
A. family B. brothers C. members D. relations
14. Jane and Brian got married a year after they got ……….
A. divorced B. proposed C. engaged D. separated
15. Julie had a terrible ………. with her parents last night.
A. row B. discussion C. argue D. dispute
Part 2: Read the text and use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in
the space in the same line. (10 points)
Margaret started English Literature this term, and I’m afraid that her (1) INTRODUCE ……………
to the subject has not bee entirely (2) SUCCESS …………….. She has not show much enthusiasm and does not
always pay (3) ATTEND ……......… in class. Her assignments are often (4) READ…......… , because she is so
untidy, and because of her (5) FAIL.....… to check her work thoroughly. She failed to do any (6) REVISE ...
…...… before the end of term test, and had poor results. She seems to have the (7) MISTAKE ……....… idea
that she can succeed without studying. She has also had many (8) ABSENT..…......… and has frequently
arrived late for class. This has resulted in several (9) PUNISH…...... . Although Margaret is a (10) GIFT ...…..
… student in some respects, she has not had a satisfactory term.
Part 3: Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be
correct. Circle your answers. (5 points)
1. We sent a present for the children living next door.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. Penny took three exams and managed to succeed them all.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3. Items of luggage whose weight exceed 50 kilograms will not be allowed on the ferry.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4. The unemployment rate has increased considerably since last year. Another two millions are jobless.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. The President often contradicts himself. He often says something which doesn’t agree with what he says earlier.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Part 4: The following sentences are badly constructed. Rewrite them in better style and correct any
grammatical errors. (5 points)
1. All students must pay their fees, except foreigners, to the university bursar.
...........................................................................................................................................................
2. Swimming is a sport to any healthy person I would recommend.
...........................................................................................................................................................
3. The president said that the new education programme was essential addressing a large audience in the
provincial capital yesterday.
...........................................................................................................................................................
4. Talks have begun to plan a railway linking the provincial capitals between the representatives of the
provincial assemblies.
...........................................................................................................................................................
5. The advertisement said that they wished to employ a secretary for an expanding company with good
shorthand and typing speeds at their head office.
...........................................................................................................................................................
II. READING
Part 1: Read the passage and choose the correct answer for the following questions:
All at once Hazel was coming in through the French windows, pulling off gardening gloves, and Bill was
entering through the door, both at once. So I only had time to take one quick look at her before I turned to face
him. All very confusing. What that first glimpse showed me was that time had thickened her figure but didn’t
seem to have made much difference to her face. It still had good skin and youthful outlines. She was holding a
bunch of roses – must have been cutting them in the garden while waiting for me. The gardening gloves lent a
delightfully informal touch. It was quite an entrance, though Bill spoilt it a bit by making his at the same time.
Bill seemed longer and thinner. His tightly massed hair had a tinge of grey. Apart from that, twenty years
had done nothing to him, except deepen the lines of thoughtfulness that had already, when I knew him, begun to
spread across his face. Or was that all? I looked at him again, more carefully, as he looked away from me at
Hazel. Weren’t his eyes different somehow? More inward looking than ever? Gazing in not merely at his
thoughts, but at something else, something he was keeping hidden or perhaps protecting.
Then we were chattering and taking glasses in our hands, and I came back to earth. For the first ten minutes
we were all so defensive, so carefully probing, that nobody learnt anything. Bill had forgotten me altogether, that
much was clear. He was engaged in getting to know me from scratch, very cautiously so as not to hit a wrong
note, with the object of getting me to contribute a big subscription to his African project. I kept trying to absorb
details about Hazel, but Bill was talking earnestly about African education, and the strain of appearing to
concentrate while actually thinking about his wife proved so great that I decided it would be easier just to
concentrate. So I did. I let him hammer away for about ten more minutes, and then the daughter, who seemed to
be acting as parlourmaid, showed in another visitor. Evidently we were to be four at lunch.
1. What effect had time had on Hazel and Bill?
A. They had both lost weight. B. They were more withdrawn.
C. They hadn’t changed at all. D. They had changed in subtle ways.
2. When they all started talking, the writer
A. relaxed at last. B. stopped dreaming.
C. spoke most to Hazel. D. began to remember things.
3. The writer found the first part of their conversation
A. sentimental. B. irritating. C. uninformative. D. trivial.
4. Why did Bill speak seriously?
A. He wanted some money from the writer. B. He did not remember the writer.
C. His wife was present. D. He was talking about the
past.
5. In the end the writer found Bill’s conversation
A. monotonous B. convincing C. thought-provoking D.
instructive
Part 2: Read the following passage and choose the most suitable word for each space.
According to a magazine article I read recently, we (1) ......... live in an age of increasing leisure. Not
only are more and more people reaching (2) ......... age with their taste for enjoyment and even adventure
relatively (3) ......... but the working week is becoming shorter and the opportunities for (4) ......... are becoming
greater and greater all the time. Not to mention the fact that people (5) .........to spend less time travelling to work
or may even be working from home. What I can't understand, however, is who these people are. As far as I can
(6) ......... the whole thing is another one of (7) ......... journalistic fictions. I admit that there are a lot of retired
people (8) ......... but I am not sure that all of them are dashing about learning hang-gliding or sailing single-
handed (9) ......... the world. My own parents seem to (10) ......... most of their time gazing at the television. And
as for the shorter working week, I wish someone (11) .........remind my company about it. I seem to be working
longer and longer hours (12) ......... the time. The little leisure time I have is eaten into by sitting in the traffic
jams or waiting for trains to (13) ......... up at rain-swept platforms. I haven't noticed any dramatic improvements
in my (14) ......... either, but perhaps I just have to wait until I get my (15) .........
1. A. presently B. at the moment C. now D. at this time

2. A. retirement B. their C. later D. third
3. A. present B. survived C. free D. intact
4. A. this B. longer C. leisure D. people
5. A. use B. tend C. have D. demand
6. A. concern B. imagine C. expect D. tell
7. A. the B. those C. these D. some
8. A. in our days B. in these times C. nowadays D. now and again
9. A. round B. over C. through D. into
10. A. have B. use C. the D. spend
11. A. would B. to C. had D. might
12. A. at B. for C. take D. all
13. A. keep B. line C. show D. set
14. A. cost of living B. lifestyle C. lifeline D. livelihood
15. A. pension B. retirement C. insurance D. salary
Part 3: Read the text and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word.
Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The maximum class size
is twelve (1) .................... the average is ten. We use modern methods of (2) .................... and learning, and the
school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving
(3) .................... English, however, if you work hard and (4) .................. speaking English as much as you can.
You will take a short (5) ................... in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a
(6) .................... at the most suitable level.
There are two classes at the Elementary level; one is for complete (7) ..................... and the other is for
students who know only a little English, in both classes you will practise simple conversations. In the class
(8) ..................... the intermediate level you will have a lot of practice in communication in real-life situation
because we help you to use the English you have previously (9) ................... in your own country, You will also
have the chance to improve your (10) ................... of English grammar and to build up your vocabulary...

III. PRONUNCIATION
Part 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (05
points)
1. a. technical b. change c. much d. exchange
2. a. weapon b. increase c. threat d. spread
3. a. requirements b. subject c. secondary d. levels
4. a. prohibit b. exhibit c. habit d. hunting
5. a. elephants b. decades c. poachers d. actions
Part 2: Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
1. a. continent b. however c. elephant d. tropical

2. a. represent b. intensive c. domestic d. employment
3. a. social b. proportion c. industry d. easily
4. a. habitat b. century c. difficult d. prohibit
5. a. generally b. secondary c. education d. specialize
III. WRITING
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
sentence printed before it. 1. It's a long time since we spoke to your sister.
We ............................................................................................................................. .
2. "Why don't you leave now. That's what I'd do."
If ............................................................................................................................... .
3. Jill was the only person who came late.
Everyone ................................................................................................................... .
4. This matter is so complicated that we don't know how to deal with it.
So ................................................................................................................................................................................
.............. .
5. It's a pity you didn't ask us to spend the time with you.
If
only .............................................................................................................................................................................
....... .
Part 2: For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence, but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way.
1. I'm afraid that we haven't got any eggs left. (run)
................................................................................................................... .
2. Let me tell you what I think you should do. (advice)
................................................................................................................... .
3. The numbers of cars on the roads must be reduced. (down)
................................................................................................................... .
4. Come on Thursday or Friday. It' s all the same to me. (difference)
................................................................................................................... .
5. Amanda has improved a lot this term. (progress)
................................................................................................................... .
Part 3:
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 THE END -
I/ GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Part 1.
Q# 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 1 13 14 15
2
Ke D C A D B C B A C A C D C A D
y
Part 2
1. introduction 2. successful 3. attention
4. unreadable 5. failure 6. revision
7. mistaken 8. absences 9. punishments 10. gifted
Part 3:
Q# 1 2 3 4 5
Key B C C D D
Part 4
1. All students, except foreigners, must pay their fees to the university bursar.
2. Swimming is a sport I would recommend to any healthy person.
3. Addressing a large audience in the provincial capital yesterday, the president said that the new education
programme was essential.
4. Talks have begun between the representatives of the provincial assemblies to plan a railway linking the
provincial capitals.
5. The advertisement said that an expanding company wished to employ a secretary with good shorthand and
typing speeds at their head office.
II/ READING
Part 1:
Q# 1 2 3 4 5
Key D B C A A
Part 2. one point for each correct answer
Q# 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 1 13 14 15
2
Ke C A D C B D B C A D A D C B A
y
Part 3.
1. and 3. your 5. test 7. beginners 9. learnt
2. teaching 4. practise 6. class 8. at 10.
knowledge
III/ PRONOUNCIATION
Part 1
Q# 1 2 3 4 5
Ke A B D B A
y
Part 2
Q# 1 2 3 4 5
Ke B A B D C
y
IV WRITING
Part 1:
1. We haven't spoken to your sister for a long time.
2. If I were you, I'd leave now.
3. Everyone was on time except for Jill.
4. So complicated is this matter that we don't know how to deal with it.
5. If only you had asked us to spend the time with you.
Part 2:
1. I'm afraid we have run out of eggs.
2. Let me give you some advice on what you should do.
3. We must cut down on the numbers of cars on the roads.
The numbers of cars must be cut down on the roads.
4. Come on Thursday or Friday. It makes no difference to me.
5. Amanda has made good/great progress/ made a lot of progress this term.
ENGLISH TEST 28
PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (2
pts)
1. A. genuine B. guy C. generate D. geneticist
2. A. breath B. spread C. break D. headline
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each
question. (3 pts)
3. A. briefcase B. journalism C. calculate D. apply
4. A. redundant B. terrorism C. unique D. officer
5. A. bigoted B. perpetrate C. relativism D. picturesquely
Part B : LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR ( 45 pts )
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts)
6. They came to inspect the house _________ buying it.
A. in the event of B. with reference to C. with a view to D. on account of
7. The boy who failed the exam has to take another one, ?
A. did he B. hasn’t he C. didn’t he D. doesn’t he
8. It is _______ knowledge in the village that Mr. and Mrs. Thorne quarrel violently several time a week.
A. common B. complete C. normal D. usual
9. _________ passenger pigeon, one of several species of extinct birds, was hunted to extinction over
_________ few decades.
A. The / Ø B. Ø / the C. The / a D. A / the
10. Don’t be angry with Sue. All that she did in good______
A. hope B. belief C. idea D. faith
11. Mrs. Brown always ______ in a crowd because she wore large hats.
A. found against B. looked up C. stood out D. showed up
12. Mary bought______ hat yesterday.
A. a red big plastic hat B. a big red plastic hat
C. a plastic big red hat D. a bit plastic red hat
13. ______ the two sisters, Mary is _______.
A. Of/ the prettier B. Between/ the prettiest
C. Of/ prettier D. Between/ the prettier
14. Helen: “I love your gardens. The plants are well taken care of!”
Ingrid: “Thanks. Yes, I suppose I’ve always __________.”
A. had green fingers B. let nature take its course
C. made it down on my luck D. drawn the short straw
15. My old riding boots served me well for eleven years before they finally ________.
A. wore off B. broke down C. wore out D. broke up
16. _______ of birds over a city usually predict cold weather.
A. Herds B. Packs C. Flocks D. Groups
17. We might have to change our plans for the weekend and, _______ we’ll let you know as soon as possible.
A. in case B. if so C. providing D. supposing
18. It’s one of the worst books I’ve ever read. Its only redeeming ___________ is that it’s quite short.
A. aspect B. element C. feature D. factor
19. - Well, I’m sorry, that’s all I can offer you. - ____________.
A. Take it or forget it B. Get it or forget it
C. Take it or leave it D. Leave it or take it
20. He has been unable to find a job _______ with his ability as an accountant.
A. appropriate B. suitable C. requisite D. commensurate
Question II: The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them (10 pts)
Too many parents have a tough time get clear and accessible information about the public schools at their 21
communities. That is why President Clinton had announced an initiative requiring all states to produce
annual reports cards that are easily understood by and widely distributing to parents and the public, for each 22
school, school district and the state as a whole. The report cards will include information to student
achievement, teacher professionally qualifications, class size, school safety and other factors that will help 23
parents judging the overall performance of the schools. President Clinton’s proposal will help ensure which
parents in every state have access to the information they need to determine the quality of their schools and 24
identity areas in which improvement is needed.
25
26
27
28
29
30
Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
31. It is essential that the plan (inform) ________to everyone in advance.
32-33. I realized that someone (steal) ___ my wallet when I (feel) ____ their hand in my jacket pocket.
34-35. At school I (dislike) _______ the Chemistry teacher because she (always pick) _______ on me.
36. Fortunately, the hospital's new air-conditioning system (install) _________ when the first heat wave of the
summer arrived.
37. The cake (make) _______________ by my mom tastes really delicious.
38. She was breathing fast and deep, as if she (run) _______.
39. I can't find my book anywhere. I (leave) ______ it on the train. I am not sure.
40. No wonder he was sacked! He seems (fiddle) ________ the accounts for years.
Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
41. Many people make their living on theater. In essence the theater is not only for LIVE
entertainment, it is a _____ .
42. They never dare to leave their only child ________ for even a moment. ATTEND
43. What I don’t like about school uniform is that it completely destroys all_______. INDIVIDUAL
44. The main reason I believe children shouldn’t be exposed to violence on TV is that they IMPRESS
are so__________ at that age.
45. His ________ of his opponent led to his biggest failure. ESTIMATE
46. The curriculum is ________developed; therefore, students benefit a great deal. SYSTEM
47. The mother is usually the homemaker and the father is the _______. BREAD
48. There was a donation of $100,000 made by an anonymous _________. BENEFIT
49. Being the hardest natural substance, diamond is practically_________. DESTROY
50. The government’s ________ approach has brought criticism. COMPROMISE
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10
pts)
The money that some professional sportsmen earn shouldn’t impress anyone when you take into (51)__
__the fact that only a few of them manage to attain immortality and everlasting fame. And once they reach their
(52) __and display their talent at their best, they are fully conscious that their brilliant careers won’t last forever.
They live under a constant pressure of being (53) and subsequently replaced by someone who is younger, faster
and more accomplished. For that reason, objectives like retirement benefits and pensions are (54)_______great
concern to all professional athletes.
Some of the retired competitors go as far as to organize strikes and rallies to voice their protest against
any policy unresponsive to their demand (55)_____the younger professionals seek more upgrading solutions to
the problem as more and more of them attach a proper significance to (56)___a solid education, even at
university level. Such an approach should help them find interesting and well-paid jobs (57)____their sports
career is over.
A completely new strategy has been devised by the schools priding themselves (58)_____supporting their
own teams. Their authorities insist that the sports clubs members achieve high academic standards or else they
are debarred from partaking in certain sports events, which may lead to further disruption in their professional
careers.
By these practical and most effective (59)___, combining education with sports activity, the (60)___of the
professional athlete as being brainless and unintelligent may eventually be changing to the sportsmen’s benefit.
51. A. reflection B. attention C. examination D. consideration
52. A. prime B. shape C. best D. capacity
53. A. outcast B. outshone C. outstayed D. outgrown
54. A. with B. in C. at D. of
55. A. whereby B. whereas C. whereupon D. wherein
56. A. mastering B. learning C. receiving D. attending
57. A. right away B. promptly C. barely D. once
58. A. with B. on C. for D. in
59. A. grounds B. results C. factors D. means
60. A. vision B. outlook C. image D. judgment
Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
In the 21st century food will (61)______ more than just you feed you. A new range of products
appearing on shelves in shops and supermarkets (62) ______ designed to give you specific health benefits. The
demands of modern life make these foods very attractive. Not only do they provide proven ways to improve
health, but they are also very attractive (63) ______ a quick and convenient way of making sure we enjoy a
healthy diet.
In some countries it is already possible to buy crisps that make you feel (64) ______ depressed,
chewing gum that increases your brain power and tea that helps you (65) ______ over the tiredness associated
(66) ______ long-distance air travel. In the future, experts promise biscuits that will keep you healthy, and hot
chocolate drink to give you strong bones.
Despite the fact that these “functional” foods cannot replace a balanced diet and regular exercise, they
can help the body perform at (67) ______ best a lot of the time. At (68) ______, these foods are more expensive
than other foods, but that is due to the ingredients they (69) ______ of and the way they are made. All the foods
contain probiotics (70) ______ increase the number of “good” bacteria in your stomach, helping to keep your
digestive system healthy.
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
The Digital Divide
Information technology is influencing the way many of us live and work today. We use the Internet to look
and apply for jobs, shop, conduct research, make airline reservations, and explore areas of interest. We use e-
mail and the Internet to communicate instantaneously with friends and business associates around the world.
Computers are commonplace in homes and the workplace.
Although the number of Internet users is growing exponentially each year, most of the world’s
population does not have access to computers or the Internet. Only 6 percent of the population in developing
countries are connected to telephones. Although more than 94 percent of U.S. households have a telephone, only
42 percent have personal computers at home and 26 percent have Internet access. The lack of what most of us
would consider a basic communications necessity – the telephone – does not occur just in developing nations.
On some Native American reservations only 60 percent of the residents have a telephone. The move to wireless
connections may eliminate the need for telephone lines, but it does not remove the barrier to equipment costs.
Who has Internet access? Fifty percent of the children in urban households with an income over $75,000
have Internet access, compared with 2 percent of the children in low-income, rural households. Nearly half of
college-educated people have Internet access, compared to 6 percent of those with only some high school
education. Forty percent of households with two parents have access; 15 percent of female, single-parent
households do. Thirty percent of white households, 11 percent of black households, and 13 percent of Hispanic
households have access. Teens and children are the two fastest-growing segments of Internet users. The digital
divide between the populations who have access to the Internet and information technology tools is based on
income, race, education, household type, and geographic location. Only 16 percent of the rural poor, rural and
central city minorities, young householders, and single parent female households are connected.
Another problem that exacerbates these disparities is that African-Americans, Hispanics, and Native
Americans hold few of the jobs in information technology. Women hold about 20 percent of these jobs and are
receiving fewer than 30 percent of the computer science degrees. The result is that women and members of the
most oppressed ethnic groups are not eligible for the jobs with the highest salaries at graduation. Baccalaureate
candidates with degrees in computer science were offered the highest salaries of all new college graduates in
1998 at $44,949.
Do similar disparities exist in schools? More than 90 percent of all schools in the country are wired with at
least one Internet connection. The number of classrooms with Internet connections differs by the income level of
students. Using the percentage of students who are eligible for free lunches at a school to determine income
level, we see that nearly twice as many of the schools with more affluent students have wired classrooms as
those with high concentrations of low-income students.
Access to computers and the Internet will be important in reducing disparities between groups. It will
require greater equality across diverse groups whose members develop knowledge and skills in computer and
information technologies. If computers and the Internet are to be used to promote equality, they will have to
become accessible to populations that cannot currently afford the equipment which needs to be updated every
three years or so. However, access alone is not enough. Students will have to be interacting with the technology
in authentic settings. As technology becomes a tool for learning in almost all courses taken by students, it will be
seen as a means to an end rather than an end in itself. If it is used in culturally relevant ways, all students can
benefit from its power.
71. Why does the author mention the telephone in paragraph 2?
A. To demonstrate that even technology like the telephone is not available to all
B. To argue that basic telephone service is a first step to using the Internet
C. To contrast the absence of telephone usage with that of Internet usage
D. To describe the development of communications from telephone to Internet
72. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the statement “ Although the
number ............. or the Internet.” in the paragraph 2?
A. Most of the people in the world use the Internet now because the number of computers has been increasing
every year.
B. The number of people who use computers and the Internet is increasing every year, but most people in the
world still do not have connections.
C. The number of computers that can make the Internet available to most of the people in the world is not
increasing fast enough.
D. The Internet is available to most of the people in the world, even though they don't have their own computer
terminals.
73. The word “eliminate” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. accept B. dispute C. define D. remove
74. Based on information in paragraph 3, which of the following best explains the term "digital divide?"
A. The number of Internet users in developing nations
B. The disparity in the opportunity to use the Internet
C. Differences in socioeconomic levels among Internet users
D. Segments of the population with Internet access
75. Why does the author give details about the percentages of Internet users in paragraph 3?
A. To prove that there are differences in opportunities among social groups
B. To argue for more Internet connections at all levels of society
C. To suggest that improvements in Internet access are beginning to take place
D. To explain why many people have Internet connections now
76. According to paragraph 3, which of the following households would be least likely to have access to the
Internet?
A. A household with one parent B. A black household
C. A Hispanic household D. A household with both parents
77. The word “those” in the passage refers to
A. classrooms B. students C. schools D.

concentrations
78. According to paragraph 4, why are fewer women and minorities employed in the field of computer
technology?
A. They are not admitted to the degree programs.
B. They do not possess the educational qualifications.
C. They do not have an interest in technology.
D. They prefer training for jobs with higher salaries.
79. The word “concentrations” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. protections B. numbers C. confidence D. support
80. What can be inferred from paragraph 6 about Internet access?
A. Better computers need to be designed.
B. Schools should provide newer computers for students.
C. The cost of replacing equipment is a problem.
D. Technology will be more helpful in three years.
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)

Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to
the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. There were not nearly as many people there as I had expected.
🡪 There were far ______________________________________________________.
82. People say that the plane of Germanwings crashed into the mountains.
🡪 The plane of Germanwings ____________________________________________.
83. It's nobody's fault that the meeting was cancelled.
🡪 Nobody ___________________________________________________________.
84. The President is the statesman I admire most of all.
🡪 There is ___________________________________________________________.
85. It was his lack of confidence that surprised me.
🡪What ______________________________________________________________.
Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning
to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts)
86. The manager should think about experience when hiring new staff. CONSIDERATION
🡪 __________________________________________________________________.
87. He is determined to become a doctor. HEART
🡪 __________________________________________________________________.
88. I expect the book to be far better because it had been written by such a good novelist.
SHORT
🡪 __________________________________________________________________.
89. He never felt so emotional when he looked at a picture. TIME
🡪 __________________________________________________________________.
90. I’m not very keen on gold, I much prefer silver. RATHER
🡪 __________________________________________________________________.
Question III. Essay writing (10 pts):
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement: “Children should begin learning a foreign
language as soon as they start school.”?
Write an essay ( about 250 to 300 words) to express your personal point of view.
---------- THE END ---------

A- ĐÁP ÁN:
PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
2.
1.B 3.D 4.A 5.D
C
PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm)
( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm, riêng bài sửa lỗi, nếu tìm được lỗi mà sửa không đúng thì cho 0.5 điểm)
Question I.
6.C 7.D 8.A 9.C 10.D

11.C 12. 13.A 14.A 15.C
B
16.C 17. 18.C 19.C 20.D
B
Question II.
MISTAKES CORRECTIONS MISTAKES CORRECTIONS
21. get getting 26. to on/about
22. at in 27. professionall professional

y
23. had has 28. judging judge
24. reports report 29. which that
25. distributing distributed 30. identity identify
Question III
32. was 34. disliked 35. was always picking
31. (should) be 33. felt
stealing
informed
36. had been installed 37. made 38. had been 39. might have 40. to have been
running left fiddling
Question IV
41. livelihood. 42. unattended 43. individuality 44. impressionable 45.underestimation
46. systematically 47. breadwiner 48. benefactor 49. indestructible 50.uncompromising
( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I
51. D 52. 53. B 54. D 55. 56. C 57. 58. B 59. D 60. C
A B D
Question II.
51. do 52. is 53. as 54. less 55. get
56. 57. its 58. present 59. 70. which/that

with consist
Question III.
71. 72.B 73. 74.B 75.A

A D
76.B 77.C 78.B 79.B 80.C
Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
81 There were far fewer people than I had expected

.
82 The plane of Germanwings is said to have crashed into the mountains.

.
83 Nobody is to blame for the fact that the meeting was cancelled.
.
84 There is no statesman (that/who/whom) I admire more than the President.

.
85 What surprised me was his lack of confidence.

.
Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
86 The manager should take experience into consideration when hiring new staff.
.
87 His heart is set on becoming a doctor/ He has set his heart on becoming a doctor.
.
88 The book fell short of my expectation even though it had been written by such a good novelist.
.
89 At no time did he feel so emotional when he looked at a picture.

.
90 I’d rather have silver than gold.

.
Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)

Marking criteria:
+ Task completion (4 điểm)
Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân bài,kết luận)
giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp trở xuống
được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20
Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25
Tổng số point thí sinh làm đúng
Điểm bài thi = ---------------------------------------
5
ENGLISH PRACTICE 29
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each of the
following questions
31. A. contributed B. eradicated C. developed D. needed

32. A. approached B. unwrapped C. obliged D. sacrificed
33. A. brush B. crush C. rush D. push
34. A. breathe B. threaten C. healthy D. earth
35. A. said B. play C. lemonade D. plate
36. A. bother B. breakthrough C. thoughtful D. geothermal
37. A. leaves B. practices C. wishes D. introduces
38. A. dough B. doubt C. county D. blouse
39. A. fracture B. signature C. culture D. mature
40. A. pride B. life C. combine D. machine
1. I'm addicted ______ these sweets. I loved them!
A. on B. at C. to D. for
2. You are being thoroughly _________in refusing to allow this ceremony to take place.
A. unrequited B. unrepresentative C. unreliable D. unreasonable
3. Nylon, a synthetic _______ from a combination of water, air, and a by-product of coal, was first introduced in
1938.
A. to make B. make C. made D. making
4. He ______ book the tickets, but he had no time to call at the Cinema.
A. would B. might C. could D. was going to
5. It is necessary that an employee _________ his work on time.
A. finish B. finished C. finishing D. finishes
6. This dress is eye-catching, and many people________ me on it.
A. complain B. complement C. compliment D. complementary
7. Bill is jealous ________ your promotion.
A. with B. of C. at D. about
8. _______ are sought by an elementary school.

A. Mentally retarded teachers B. Teachers retarded for mental cases
C. Teachers for the mentally retarded D. Mental retarded case teachers
9. Since I came in half an hour late this morning, I have to stay until 5:30 to _______ for it.
A. make up B. save up C. keep up D. hold up
10. Earthquake can damage a tree ______violently, and it can take several years for the tree to heal.
A. to cause to shake it B. when shaking it causes
C. to cause shaking it D. by causing it to shake
II. In the following text, some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If
a line is correct, put a tick (√). If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word. There are
two examples at the beginning.
We can tend to think of poverty as the main cause of violent crime. However, research 0____ can ____
from both sides of the Atlantic shows that fathers may be the most important factor in 00___√_______
preventing to children from turning over to crime. In the United States, children from better- 1. ___________
off family were compared with ones who from families with lower incomes. Children from 2. ___________
both groups that lived with their fathers also committed the same number of crimes. In the 3. ___________
United Kingdom, a study was carried out of comparing a group of boys who had never been 4. ___________
accused of not any crimes such as assault and stealing vehicles. All the boys had difficulties 5. ___________
at the school and came from large families that didn't earn a lot of money. The biggest 6. ___________
difference between from the groups was that fifty-five percent of the "good boys" lived with 7. ___________
their fathers, while only four per cent of the "bad boys" did it. Eighty per cent of the well – 8. ___________
behaved boys said how they felt close to their fathers even if they didn't live in the same 9. ___________
house. It seems that by having a father who takes an interest in his children encourages 10. __________
youngsters not to break the law. 11. __________
12. __________
13. __________
14. __________
15. __________
III. Complete the following passage by supplying the correct form of the word to fill in each blank.
There is a saying that first impressions are generally correct and I would say that (1)
_______ throughout my entire life, I have found this to be true apart from one notable exception ALL
of a good friend and neighbor with whom my first (2) ______ was decidedly unfriendly. CHANGE
At the time of our first meeting I was living in a (3) __________ area of London, not far
from the exit of a dual carriageway and this meant that although it was a (4) ____________
street, even with the (5) _______ will in the world, drivers would often travel dangerously fast DEPRIVE
within inches of my front door. This used to really annoy me and I have to admit I did often go a RESIDENCE
bit (6) ________ in expressing my anger even though (or perhaps because) I knew I didn't stand GOOD
a (7) ________ chance of being taken notice of or even noticed at all. So when one day, I BOARD
shouted my usual string of swear words at a rapidly passing car and it immediately screamed to REASON
a halt, my first reaction was an enormous sense of (8) ______. But then the driver of the car
opened his window and shouted a stream of swear words back at me.
So the next morning, I was more than a little surprised to find an apology note from the ACHIEVE
same motorist in my mail box explaining that in an attempt to (9) _______ his career as an up
and coming IT (10) ______, he had been driving too fast the previous evening and inviting me
to have dinner with him and his wife. FAR
CONSULT
PART III. READING
I. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the
questions.
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science have made enormous
steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made any foods unfit to eat. Some research has
shown that perhaps 80 percent of all human illness are related to diet and 40 percent of cancer is related to diet as
well, especially cancer of colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contact certain illnesses because
of the characteristics food they consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers showed that
nitrates and nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meats) as well as other food additives caused cancer.
Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which
ingredients on the packaging labels of processed food are helpful or harmful.
The additives we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and
because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows. Sometimes similar drugs are administered
to animals not for medical purposes, but for financial reasons. The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals
in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried
repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we
ingest. Sometimes, well – meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances
to food without our knowledge.
1. How has science done a disservice to people?
A. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated.
B. It has caused a lack of information concerning the value of food.
C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our
food.
D. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables.
2. The word "prone" is nearest in meaning to ______.
A. supine B. unlikely C. healthy D. predisposed
3. What are nitrates used for?
A. They preserve flavor in packaged foods. B. They preserve the color of meats.
C. They are the objects of research. D. They caused to animals to become fatter.
4. The word "these" refers to_______.
A. meats B. colors C. researchers D. nitrates and nitrites
5. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT_______.
A. drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons.
B. some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living
animals.
C. researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than 60 years.
D. food may cause 40 percent of cancer in the world
II. Read the passage and fill in the blank a suitable word.
PEER PRESSURE
One of the strongest influences on children today (1) ______ that of their peers. What their classmates think,
how they dress and how they act in class and out of it (2) ________ the behavior of nearly every child at school.
In their efforts not to be different, some children go so far as to hide their intelligence and ability in case they
are made ( 3)_________ of. Generally, children do not want to stand (4) _______ from the crowd. They want to
fit in, to be accepted. In psychological terms, the importance of (5)_________ pressure cannot be over
emphasized. There is a lot of evidence that it has great bearing on all aspects of children's lives, (6) ________ the
clothes they wear, the music they listen to and their attitude to study to their ambitions in life, their
relationships and their sense. (7) _________, as children grow up into adolescents, individuality becomes more
acceptable, desirable even, and in their search for their (8) _______ personal style, the teenager and young adult
will begin to experiment and be more willing to run the (9) _______ of rejection by the group. Concern about
intellectual prowess and achieving good exam results can dominate as the atmosphere of competition develops
and worries (10) ______ the future override any fears of appearing too brainy.
III. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank.
Last year Gladys Kalema became the Ugandan Wildlife Service's chief and only vet after (1) _____ for
the Royal Veterinary College in London. She was the first person to fill the post for 30 years and at the age of
26, easily the youngest.
If Gladys did nothing else, caring for the world's (2) ______ population of 650 gorillas would alone
justify her wages. Since the 1970s, gorillas have (3) ______ severely from war and poaching. Now for $150
each, tourists can be led through the forest and come within five meters of gorilla – no closer, for (4) ______ of
transmitting diseases such as measles and flu.
The gorillas here make a small but viable population. (5) ______ in the national parts the usual animals,
elephants, rhinos, giraffes, are either not there or present in insignificant numbers which are dangerously out of
(6) ______ with the creatures around them. If Uganda stays calm, wildlife may, in (7) _______, return by itself.
But Gladys believes the country cannot wait. Animals must be brought in to swell tourism and provide (8)
______to expand her work.
Despite her difficulties, Gladys feels more useful and fulfilled than she would be anywhere else. "At
this moment, my friends from vet school are reading the best way to (9) ______ a cat or dog, and here am I
planning to translocate elephants. In my small (10) _______ I am part of the reconstruction and rehabilitation of
my country."
1. A. leaving B. qualifying C. graduating D. passing
2. A. living B. surviving C. continuing D. lasting
3. A. endured B. harmed C. died D. suffered
4. A. risk B. fear C. fright D. danger
5. A. Somewhere B. Anywhere C. Elsewhere D. Nowhere
6. A. balance B. relation C. comparison D. equality
7. A. terms B. years C. ages D. time
8. A. figures B. funds C. accounts D. savings
9. A. treat B. prescribe C. heal D. operate
10. A. means B. manner C. method D. way
PART IV. WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the word give. Do not change the word given in any way.
1. She felt she had achieved a lot in life, despite her disadvantaged background (SENSE)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
2. I think you should try to be optimistic as you can. (SIDE)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
3. In the end, it was quite a good sunny day after all. (OUT)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
4. I hate watching late night films on TV. (STAND)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
5. The principal was the first person who arrived at the meeting. (ARRIVE)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
II. Writing a topic.
Computers can translate all kinds of languages well, so our children needn’t learn more languages
in the future.
What is your opinion about this idea? Within 200-250 words, use evidence and examples to write a
passage to clarify your idea.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
following questions
1. A. contributed B. eradicated C. developed D. needed

2. A. approached B. unwrapped C. obliged D. sacrificed
3. A. brush B. crush C. rush D. push
4. A. breathe B. threaten C. healthy D. earth
5. A. said B. play C. lemonade D. plate
6. A. bother B. breakthrough C. thoughtful D. geothermal
7. A. leaves B. practices C. wishes D. introduces
8. A. dough B. doubt C. county D. blouse
9. A. fracture B. signature C. culture D. mature
10. A. pride B. life C. combine D. machine
I. (10 pts: 1pt/item)
1. C 2. 3. C 4. D 5. A
D
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. D
II. (15 pts: 1/item)
1. to 2. over 3. who 4. √ 5. also

6. of 7. not 8. the 9. √ 10. from
11. 12. it 13. how 14. by 15. √
√
1. overall 6. overboard
2. interchange/ 7. reasonable
exchange
3. deprived 8. achievement
4. residential 9. further
5. best 10. consultant
PART III. READING

I. (5 pts: 1/item)
1. C 2. 3. B 4. D 5. A
D
1. is 2. affect 3. fun 4. out 5. peer
6. 7. However 8. own 9. 10. about

from risk
III. (10 pts: 1pt/item)
1. C 2. B 3. 4. B 5. C
D
6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. D
PART IV. WRITING
I. (5pts: 1pt/item)
1. Despite her disadvantaged background, she felt a sense of achievement about her life
2. I think you should look on the bright side.
3. The day turned out to be quite sunny after all/ It turned out to be quite a good sunny day after all.
4. I can't stand watching late night films on TV.

5. The principal was the first person to arrive at the meeting
II. 20 pts
- The student’s paper has logical structure, with opening, development and closing parts, using right linking
words: 5 pts
- The paper has less than 5 mistakes (both grammar and spelling mistakes): 5 pts
- The paper has interesting, creative content: 10 pts
ENGLISH PRACTICE 30
following questions
1. A. imagine B. discipline C. determine D. Valentine

2. A. purses B. blouses C. amuses D. Pleases
3. A. lie B. goalie C. society D. pie
4. A. finished B. jagged C. packed D. punched
5. A. accurate B. tale C. shape D. date
6. A. situations B. obstacles C. secrets D. Sounds
7. A. chasm B. phrase C. suitcase D. chase
8. A. vineyard B. Finland C. business D. ignite
9. A. touched B. crooked C. missed D. watched
10. A. dedicate B. private C. eliminate D. educate
1. I’m really sorry. We _____ stop at a service station and phone you, but we didn’t want to waste any more
time.
A. were due to B. were going to C. were to D. were about to
2. It is not until December 25th _________the exam results will be announced.
A. which B. what C. that D. when
3. I saw a ___________ scarf in a shop near my house.
A. sweet little green silk B. little green silk sweet
C. sweet green little silk D. green little sweet silk
4. There has been a recommendation that Peter ______ the president of the country.
A. will be elected B. be elected C. is elected D. was elected
5. He kept his marriage for years, but eventually the truth ________.
A. came out B. went out C. came through D. fell out
6. It was in this house ______.
A. I was born in B. in which I was born C. where I was born D. that I was born
7. ______of half- starving wolves were roaming the snow- covered countryside.
A. Herds B. Flocks C. Packs D. Swarms
8. When ______ to explain his mistake, the new employee cleared his throat nervously.
A. asking B. to be asked C. to be asking D. being asked
9. ______, he felt so unhappy and lonely.
A. In spite of his being wealth B. Rich as was he
C. Rich as he was D. Despite his wealthy
10. According to the _______of the contract, tenants must give six months notice if they intend to leave.
A. laws B. rules C. terms D. details
11. It is difficult for museums to find funds to protect the nation’s_______.
A. inheritance B. heritage C. possessions D. legacy
12. A part-time job gives me the freedom to_______ my own interests.
A pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
13. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for_______15 minutes.
A. other B. others C. another D. the others
14. ____ I’ve told him not to go out with those people, but he wouldn’t listen. Just let him face the music now.
A. Many a time B. Many the time C. Quite a time D. For a time
15. _______ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten years.
A. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers
C. A number of tigers D. That the number of tigers
16. _______ every industry in our modern world requires the work of engineers.
A. Wholly B. Hardly C. Most D. Virtually
17. Jane had a problem with her finances, so we talked _______ and now it's fine.
A. over B. it over C. over it D. over and over
18. When the electricity failed, he _______a match to find the candles.
A. rubbed B. scratched C. struck D. started
19. I usually buy my clothes _______. It’s cheaper than going to the dressmaker.
A. on the house B. off the peg C. in public D. on the shelf
20. She tried to _______.
A. talk out of me the plan B. talk me the plan out of
C. talk me out of the plan D. talk out me of the plan.
II. In most lines of this text there is one unnecessary word. It is either incorrect grammatically, or does not
Talent scouts are looking for the next generation of supermodels have realized Africa’s 0 ……are…
potential. Lyndsey Mclntyre, a former model herself, recently opened one agency’s first
African office. “African women are being graceful and serene” she says. “These qualities 00 …√………
could to make them do very well in this business.” However, spotting supermodels is rarely
easy, as well Mclntyre discovered when she visited the Orma tribe of remote north- eastern 1 ……….……
Kenya, whose women are reported to be especially striking. “The tribal leaders were a bit
suspicious and I wasn’t allowed to be meet many of their girls,” she explains. Another 2 ………..…
problem is that the reports aren’t always reliable. Mclntyre discovered this when one of
village’s “most beautiful girls” turned out to be its heaviest ones. She had to explain that 3 ………….…
Western advertisers prefer far slimmer women. The Orma are not alone in believing fat it is
beautiful. In a recent Africa-wide beauty contest, all the Uganda contestants were disqualified 4 ……..……
for being a little too large around the hips. “I don’t understand the fashion industry’s
obsession with small hips,” said one judge for the contest. “But because we want the girls to 5 ……….……
succeed and to see African models working internationally, we give the industry what it
6 ………….…
wants”
7 ………….…
8 …………….
9 …….…….…
10………..……
UK companies have received criticism from a business forum for what their report refers to as a rather
narrow-minded attitude towards the dress code for office workers. This follows a case in which a male (1.
EMPLOY) __________working in the post room of a large (2. ORGANISE) __________in the United
Kingdom received a (3. SUSPEND) __________ for wearing jeans to work. Whilst the report accepts that there
is a need for people dealing with (4. CUSTOM) __________to look well dressed, it questions whether
employees who work behind the scenes necessarily need to dress formally. The authors of the report made a (5.
COMPARE) ___________ between the UK and other European nations where employers seem (6.
CONCERN)___________about the need for their workers to wear smart clothes in the office. Their (7.
ARGUE) ___________is based on research that claims workers are far more (8. PRODUCT) _________ when
they have the (9. FREE) _________to dress in a way that they feel most (10. COMFORT) _______in.
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. Write your answers on
your answer sheet.
PART C. READING
Stressful situations that (1)________ almost everyday in life seem to be unavoidable. However, we can
7. A. strike B. deal C. respond D. challenge
Students frequently complain (1)___________ studying for hours on (2)________ and then not doing
well in their final exams. Many factors can (3) _________ in poor performances: (4) _________illness or a
personal problem. Getting high grades can also put a terrible strain on students (5) _________ don’t want to let
their parents down.
Can students’ knowledge be judged by a (6) _________exam? Certainly not! If we want to be fair,
students ought to be (7) _________on a regular basic. So does that mean more exams? Yes, but (8)
_________many written ones. In many countries, student do not have to take written exams (9) _________ they
don’t want to, they are (10) _________to take oral ones instead. This seems to be fairer way of assessing
understanding, not just testing it.
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from
the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as
tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea
waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano
for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a
series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open
ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the
shallow waters near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity.Two areas
of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that
causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan
often come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian
Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much
greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent
arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous
tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the
Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred
on the other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending
waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled
around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _______.
A. underwater earthquakes B. storm surges C. tides D. tidal waves
2. According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that _______.
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
3. The word “displaced” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. moved B. filtered C. located D. not pleased
4. It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis _______.
A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
Dare often identified by ships on the ocean
5. Water that is “shallow” is NOT _____________.
A. deep B. clear C. coastal D. tidal
6. A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to
___________.
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska
C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem
7. The possessive “their” refers to ____________.
A. the Hawaiian Islands B. thousands of miles
C. these tsunamis D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
8. A “calamitous” tsunami is one that is _____________.
A. at fault B. disastrous C. extremely calm D. expected
9. From the expression “on record”, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa volcano
____________.
A. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon B. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
C. was filmed as it was happening D. occurred before efficient records were kept
10. The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano ___________.
A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
B. resulted in little damage
C. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands

D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
PART D. WRITING
must not be changed in any way. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
1. The reduction in the price of the magazines led to a growth in sales. (RESULT)
Sales of the magazines __________________________________________.
2. Georgia hasn’t written to me recently. (HEARD)
I ___________________________________________________________.
3. Dinner will be served immediately upon our arrival at the hotel. (SOON)
Dinner will be served ___________________________________________.
4. Barbara couldn’t sing or dance. (UNABLE)
Besides ______________________________________________________.
5. It was careless of you to leave without locking the door. (OUGHT)
You _________________________________________________________.
II. Write an essay to express your opinion on the following statement. Use specific reasons and details to
support your idea.
“Face-to-face communication is better than other types of communication, such as letters, email, or
telephone calls”.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
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following questions
1. A. imagine B. discipline C. determine D. Valentine

5. A. accurate B. tale C. shapeD. date
PART B.LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). (10pts)
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. C
11. 12. A 13. C 14. 15. B 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. C
B A
fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space beside the text. Tick (√) each correct
line. (5pts)
1. 2. to 3. well 4. 5. √
being √
6. be 7. the 8. of 9. 10. it
√
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. (10pts)
1.employee 2. organization/ organisation 3. suspension 4. customers 5. comparison
6. unconcerned 7. argument 8. productive 9. freedom 10. comfortable
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. (5pts)
1. out 2. 3. down 4. 5. across
to on
PART C. READING
(10pts)
1. 2. C 3. B 4. 5. A
D D
6. B 7. C 8. B 9. 10. B
D
space. (10pts)
1. about 2. end 3. result 4. an 5. who/that
6. single 7. 8. not 9. if 10. allowed

tested
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (10pts)
1. B 2. 3. A 4. C 5. A
A
6. C 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. A
PART D.WRITING
must not be changed in any way. (5pts)
1. Sales of the magazines grew/increased/went up as a result of the reduction in the price.
2. I haven’t heard /have heard nothing from Georgia for/in a while.
3. Dinner will be served as soon as we arrive at the hotel.
4. Besides being unable to sing, Barbara couldn’t dance either.

5. You ought not to have left without locking the door.

support your idea. (15pts)
telephone calls”.
Marking scheme
ENGLISH PRACTICE 31
following questions
1. A. impaired B. performed C. produced D. designed

2. A. healthy B. whom C. honest D. heal
3. A. amuses B. repeats C. attacks D. coughs
4. A. stomach B. change C. watchD. Church
5. A. relax B. campus C. fashion D. locate
6. A. worthy B. together C. ethnic D. though
7. A. throw B. brow C. slow D. crow
8. A. pizza B. paparazzi C. seizure D. blitz
9. A. comb B. come C. something D. done
10. A. washed B. calledC. talked D. passed
Choose the word whose stress is different from the other thres in each of the following questions
11. A. psychology B. generative C. insurrance D. inheritance

12. A. extinguish B. fortunate C. technical D. resident
13. A. interference B. influential C. perception D. academic
14. A. adventure B. dimension C. commercial D. hygiene
15. A. preferential B. calculation C. conventional D. apprehension
16. A. responsibility B. originality C. accommodation D. mischievousness
17. A. appliance B. conscientious C. independent D. confidential
18. A. psychology B. environmental C. impossible D. photography
19. A. stimulate B. maximize C. interrupt D. register
20. A. appointment B. punishment C. publicity D. efficient
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS:
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence: (15 points)
21. Tom: “I thought your performance last Sunday was wonderful.” Laura: “………………………..”
A. Don’t tell a lie. I thought it was terrible.
B. You must be kidding. It was not as good as I had expected.
C. I completely agree with you. It was terrific.
D. No doubt!
22. Boy: “What is your greatest phobia?” Girl: “………………………..”
A. I'm afraid not. B. Worms, definitely!
C. Probably people who smoke. D. I haven't made up my mind.
23. Jenny: “Thank you very much for your donation, Mr. Robinson.”
Mr. Robinson: “………………………..”
A. You can say that again. B. I see.
C. You are right. D. Delighted I was able to help.
24. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is ………………………..
A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as wood
25. Susan was sad because she wasn’t invited to any social events. She felt ………………………..
A. left out B. turned out C. omitted out D. gone out
26. Most psychologists believe that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is………………………..
A. well established extremely by the age of five
B. by the age of five it is extremely well established
C. by the age of five and well established extremely
D. extremely well established by the age of five
27.In most ………. developed countries, up to 50% of ……..population enters higher education at some time in
their lives.
A. Ø / Ø B. the / Ø C. Ø / the D. the / a
28. I wish you ………………….. me a new one instead of having it………………………..as you did.
A. would give / to repair B. gave / to repair
C. had given / to be repaired D. had given / repaired
29.Henry was really a silly boy when we were at high school. I still remember…………..very stupid questions.
A. him asking B. him to ask C. asking him D. his being
asked
30. ………………………..the invention of the steam engine, most forms of transport were horse-drawn.
A. With referenceB. Akin C. Prior to D. In addition to
31. No sooner ………………………..to marry Jack ………………………..to have serious doubts.
A. had Carol agreed / than she began B. Carol has agreed / than she began
C. had Carol agreed / than she begins D. had Carol agreed / than she had begun
32. Having been served dinner, ……………………...
A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee.
B. the committee members discussed the problem.C. it was discussed by the committee members the
problem.
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.
33. The marathon runner ……………………...for nearly one hour and a half when she ………...to the
pavement.
A. has been running / collapses B. were running / collapsed
C. had been running / collapsed D. ran / had been collapsing
34. Son: “What is the process of ……………………..., Dad?”
Father: “Well, it involves the heating of liquid such as milk in order to kill harmful bacteria.”
A. industrialization B. pasteurization C. commercialization D. globalization
35. An artist ……………………...will do his best to express innocence and inexperience in the child’s face.
A. portraying a child B. who portray a child C. he portrays a child D. portrayed a child
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets: (10 points)
36. Deforestation and excessive farming have ……………………... the soil. (POOR)
37. The damage caused by the terrible storm two days ago was……………………... by the (ESTIMATE)
government. The real figures go up every minute.
38. Barack Obama is the first President of the United States with ……………….…... (RACE)
background.
(BREATH)
39. From the hotel there is a……………………...view across the canyon.
(SUSPECT)
40. The policeman examined the parcel ……………………... as he had no idea what it
could be. (OBSERVE)
41. It was very ……………………...of you to notice that. (FURIOUS)
42. In his …………………….., Mike smashed all the breakable items in the kitchen. (VALID)
43. Before enrolling on a course, you should first ensure that it has been
……………………... by an officially recognized body. (ATTEND)
44. Mr. John, who teaches us Latin, usually stresses the need for regular (PRONOUNCE)
……………………...
45. The government has yet to make an official ……………………...on the issue.
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5 points):
46. Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and indication its
correct use. A B C
D
47. The rings of Saturn are so distant to be seen from the Earth without a telescope.
A B C D
48. Children subjected to violence, exploitation, abuse and neglect are in risk of death, poor physical
A B
and mental health, HIV/AIDS infection, and educational problems.
C D
49. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure.
A B C
D
50. Aten-thousand-dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped prisoner.
A B C D
D. READING:
I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space: (10 points)
Everyone has got two personalities - the one that is shown to the world and the other that is (51)…………...
and real. You don’t show your secret personality when you are (52)…………..., because you can control
yourself. But when you are asleep, your feeling position (53)…………...the real you. In a normal (54)
…………..., of course, people often change their position. The important position is the one you go to sleep in.
If you go to sleep on your back, you are a very (55)…………...person. You usually believe people and you
accept new things or new ideas easily. You don’t like to make people sad, so you never express your (56)
…………... feeling. You are quite shy.
If you sleep on your stomach, you are a rather secretive person. You (57)…………...a lot and you always
easily become sad. You usually live for today not tomorrow. This means that you (58)…………...having a good
time.
If you sleep curled up, you are probably a very (59)…………...person. You have a low opinion of yourself.
You are shy and don’t like meeting people. You (60)………….....to be on your own. You are easily hurt.
51 A. important B. serious C secret D particular

. . .
52 A. awake B. active C happy D honest

. . .
53 A. makes B. understand C changes D shows

. . .
54 A. room B. bed C night D body

. . .
55 A. independent B. open C talkative D generous

. . .
56 A. real B. lonely C cheerful D gentle

. . .
57 A. talk B. sleep C relax D worry

. . .
58 A. regret B. enjoy C mind D deny

. . .
59 A. strong B. healthy C nervous D careful

. . .
60 A. pretend B. oppose C refuse D prefer

. . .
II.There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the most suitable for
each blank. There are THREE extra words that you do not need to use: (5 points)
A. legal C. responsibility E. serve G. organizations
B. D. give back F. long-term H. rare

community
Volunteering has many intangible benefits. It can help you (61) ……………………...to society, break
down barriers of misunderstanding or fear, explore personal issues and even have fun. It also has a meaningful,
positive impact on your (62)…………………….... But did you know that it can have many benefits for you,
too? You may have heard that volunteering helps you get into college, but keep in mind they are not just looking
for a list of (63)……………………... and dates. Colleges want to see a complete picture of you and real
examples of your commitment, dedication and interests.
Volunteering brings together a variety of people. Both the recipients of your volunteer efforts and your
co-workers can be rich sources of insight. For example, maybe you’ll learn about the (64)
……………………...profession from a former lawyer you visit at a convalescent center. Colleges pay attention
to your life inside and outside the classroom. Your extracurricular activities reveal a great deal about you, such
as what your interests are, whether you can manage your priorities and maintain a (65)……………………...
promise and how you’ve made an important contribution to something.
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer: (10 points)
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for
people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often
overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits.
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which
humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide
that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what
is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more
of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city
landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas.
Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for
buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit
from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop
gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting
gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated
engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred
dollars and a few hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without
taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with
nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the
summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce
cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly,
leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city
dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone
can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.
66.Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigatebelongs to which of the following word
groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
67. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that ..................................
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
68. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that .........................
a. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas
b. building materials absorb more of the sun’s heat than organic surfaces
c. building materials release the sun’s heat more quickly than organic surfaces
A. a. only B. a. and b. only C. b. and c. only D. a., b., and c.
69.Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between
parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
70. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except ..................................
A. increased space for private relaxation
B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers
D. improved air quality
71. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that
they ..................................
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect
B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land
D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
72. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as..................................
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative
73.Which of the following pieces of information would, if true, most weaken the author's claim that rooftop
gardens are good for the environment?
A. Parks have many benefits that rooftop gardens do not share.

B. More pollution is produced during rooftop garden construction than rooftop plants can remove from
the air.
C. Extremely high winds atop tall city buildings can severely damage some plants.
D. The overall environmental benefits that result from driving less exceed those of planting a rooftop
garden.
74.Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed.
B. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.
C. A viewpoint is established and then defended.
D. A thesis is presented and then supported.
75.It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program
that ..................................
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of
summer
E. WRITING:
I.Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it: (5 points)
76. Its lack of irregular verbs makes Esperanto a unique language.

🖎 Unlike………………………………….........................................
………………………………………………….…………………..
77. Mr. Smith knew little about the Internet, so he didn’t invest into any computer companies.
🖎Had…..........................................................................................................................................................
78. The Board of Directors discussed the business in length, but came to no decision.
🖎 The Board of Directors had .....................................................................................................................
79. When she got to the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
🖎On...............................................................................................................................................................
80. Barbara runs a successful company and she also manages to look after her five children.
🖎 Not only....................................................................................................................................................
81. It is my opinion that you should spend more time practicing English.
🖎If..................................................................................................................................................................
82. Everyone was surprised that the famous actor had very little money when he died.
🖎 The famous actor......................................................................................................................................
83. Success in the academic field depends on your ability to amass qualifications.
🖎 The more...................................................................................................................................................
84. “Get out of my house or I will shoot you”, the woman shouted at the strange man.
🖎 The woman threatened............................................................................................................................
85. What mainly distinguishes man from other animals is the power of speech.
🖎 Man………….................................................................................................................................................
II. After having attended a course on computing at ABC Information Technology Center for two weeks,
you notice that many things are worse than what were advertised by the Center. Write a letter of
complaint of about 150 words to the Director of the Center: (10 points)
Your letter should include:
- the reason for writing
- the problems you have encountered
- your suggestions and the actions you wish to be taken to resolve the problems
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
III. Violence among school students seems to be increasing. Write a passage of about 150 – 170 words to
suggest what should be done to help solve this problem: (10 points)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
following questions
1. A. impaired B. performed C. produced D. designed

2. A. healthy B. whom C. honest D. heal
3. A. amuses B. repeats C. attacks D. coughs
4. A. stomach B. change C. watch D. Church
5. A. relax B. campus C. fashion D. locate
6. A. worthy B. together C. ethnic D. though
7. A. throw B. brow C. slow D. crow
8. A. pizza B. paparazzi C. seizure D. blitz
9. A. comb B. come C. something D. done
10. A. washed B. calledC. talked D. passed
Choose the word whose stress is different from the other thres in each of the following questions
11. A. psychology B. generative C. insurrance D. inheritance

12. A. extinguish B. fortunate C. technical D. resident
13. A. interference B. influential C. perception D. academic
14. A. adventure B. dimension C. commercial D. hygiene
15. A. preferential B. calculation C. conventional D. apprehension
16. D 17. A 18. B 19.C 20.
B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY.
I. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
21. B 22. B 23. D 24. C 25.

A
26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30.

C
31. A 32. B 33.C 34.B 35.

A
II. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct word)
36. impoverished 37. underestimated 38. multiracial 39. breathtaking 40.

suspiciously
41. observant 42. fury 43. validated 44. attendance 45.

pronouncement
III. 5 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)

46. D 47. B 48.C 49.A 50.
B
D. READING
I. 10 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
51. C 52. A 53.D 54.C 55.

B
56. A 57. D 58.B 59.C 60.

D
II.5 points (1.0 point for each correct answer)
61. D 62. B 63.G 64.A 65. F
III. 10 points (1.0 points for each correct answer)
66. C 67. A 68.C 69.D 70.

A
71. C 72. C 73.B 74.C 75.

B
E. WRITING
I.5 points ( 0.5 point for each correct answer)
76. Unlike other languages, Esperanto has no irregular verbs.
77. Had Mr. Smith known something / more / a little more / some more about the Internet, he would have
invested into some computer companies.
78. The Board of Directors had a long discussion on / about the business, but come to / reached / made no
decision.
79. On her arrival at the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
80. Not only does Barbara run a successful company, but she also manages to look after her five children.
, but she manages to look after her five children (as well)
, she also manages to look after her five children.
81. If I were you I would spend more time practicing English.
82. The famous actor had very little money when he died, which surprised everyone.
, which made everyone surprised
83. The more qualifications you are able to / can amass, the more successful you become / are in the academic
field.
, the more success you can / will make / have in the academic field.
84. The woman threatened to shoot the strange man if he did not get out of her house.
85. Man is mainly distinguished from other animals by the power of speech.
II.10 points
Bài viết cần phù hợp về hình thức, ngôn ngữ và nội dung.
Gợi ý cho điểm:

1. Form: - Form of the letter: Formal letter (1 point)
- the reasons for writing (1 point)
- the problems the writer has encountered (2 points)
- suggestions for solutions (1 point)
3. Language: (4p)
- Appropriate vocabulary (1 point)
- Correct grammar (2 points)
- Punctuating/ Spelling (1 point)
III. 10 points
Bài viết cần phù hợp về hình thức, ngôn ngữ và nội dung.
Gợi ý cho điểm:
1. Form: passage (2 points)
- Easy to follow
- Coherent
3. Language: (4 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1 point)
+ Suitable connectors (0.5 point)
+ Correct grammar (2 points)
+ Punctuating / Spelling (0.5 point)
ENGLISH PRACTICE 32
SECTION I–PHONETICS

sheet.( 10p)
past tense minutes.
3. He works for UNESCO in a purely ………….. role. ADVICE
4. …………… of the new system will take several days. INSTALL
6. Watching television can be very …………….. EDUCATION
7. Teachers must keep a record of students’ ……………….. ATTEND
8. Our school set up a project to ……………. the library system. COMPUTER
CAR CATCHES FIRE
A. to the duck. B. to the ducklings.
C. to the action of the pike. D. to the time of the day.
A. He caught and killed the pike.
C. He vowed that he would catch the remaining ducklings
B. He remained determined to catch the pike.
D. He caught a frog and used it as bait for the pike.

A. about thirty pounds.
B. about two hundred and forty dollars.
C. the passage contains no information on this point.
D. the passage says that the fish scaled nearly thirty pound.
A. Mysterious disappearance of ducklings.
C. Record pike caught by an angry fisherman.
B. Revenge on a duck.
D. Huge pike caught by fisherman after desperate struggle at sea.
- If
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
- He suggested
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………..
- Had it not ..………………………….…………………………………………

…………………………………………………………….
- That commentator,
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
- Not until ……………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
- It ………………………………………………………….Gerge to help.
- I ……………………………………………into town by car.

........................................................................................................................................................................
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
1.
2. C 3. C 4. A 5. D
B
3.
1.A 2.D 4.C 5.A
B
5. A
2.
1.A 3. C 4. B
B
7. 10. B
6. D 8. C 9. C
C

8. feel/ will bring
6. On 6. on
7. for 7. for
8. to 8. at
9. from 9. from
10. with 10. out
immigrants.

5. A
1.C 2. A 3. C 4. B
10. D
6. D 7. B 8. D 9. B
1. 4.
2. C 3. B 5. C
D C
II.10 points
+ Easy to read
+ Coherent

ENGLISH PRACTICE 33
I. PHONETICS
Part 1: Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in
each group. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
Part 2: Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in each line.
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your
answer. (20 pts)
11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _____ of identical products.
12. Only the _____ of the building is going to be remodeled.
13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _____ to me.
14. After years of neglect there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory.
15. The assistant suggested _____ the next day when the manager would be there.
A. we are coming back B. to come back
C. we will come back D. we came back
16. I never get a _____ of sleep after watching a horror film.
17. As it was Christmas, the _____ at church was much larger than usual.
18. The sheep were huddled into a _____ to protect them from overnight frosts.
19. The jury _____ the defendant “not guilty”.
20. Many _____ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor.
22. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _____ of his service to his country.
23. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _____ any solutions.
24. You _____ as well seek for a fish in the tree as try to do that.
25. _____ calculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out before the end of the next century.
26. By the time you receive this letter, I _____ for China.
27. Prizes are awarded _____ the number of points scored.
28. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _____ neglected.
29. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _____ over 20 minutes a day.
30. It had been a trying afternoon, _____ at about six o’clock in the television breaking down.
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the
column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)
According to some (0) _____ (SCIENCE), high-risk sports can be particularly (31) scientists
_____ (VALUE) for certain types of people. Such activities help them to learn that being 31.
(32) _____ (FRIGHT) doesn’t mean that they have to lose control. The recent fashion for ________________
jumping from bridges attached to a (33) _____ (LONG) of elastic rope, known as 32.
“bungee jumping”, has now been tried by over one million people (34) _____ (WORLD) ________________
and interest in it is continuing to grow. 33.
Before the special elastic rope (35) _____ (TIGHT) around them, jumpers reach speeds ________________
of nearly 160kph. First-timers are usually too (36) _____ (TERROR) to open their 34.
mouths, and when they are finally (37) _____ (LOW) safely to the ground, they walk ________________
around with broad smiles on their faces, saying (38) _____ (REPEAT) how amazing it 35.
was. However, for some people, it is only the (39) _____ (EMBARRASS) of refusing to ________________
jump at the last minute that finally persuades them to conquer their fear of (40) _____ 36.
(HIGH) and push themselves off into space. ________________
37.
________________
38.
________________
39.
________________
40.
________________
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms
in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. Achievement tests are 0. traditional →
designed to measure acquiring skills and knowledge, particularly those that have traditionally
been explicitness taught. The proficiency exams required by few states for high 41.
school graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a _____________________
person’s ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, vocation 42.
aptitude tests can help you decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or _____________________
musician. However, all mental tests are in some sense achievement tests because 43.
they assumption some sort of past learning or experience with certainly objects, _____________________
words, or situations. The difference between achievement and aptitude tests is the 44.
degree and intention use. _____________________
45.
_____________________
46.
_____________________
47.
_____________________
48.
_____________________
49.
_____________________
50.
_____________________
Part 4: Fill in each of the gaps with the correct preposition or particle. Write your answers in the
numbered spaces provided below the passage. (10 pts)
The show was fully booked (51) _____ for weeks, and when it opened last night, the public poured (52)
_____ and very soon the London Arts Center was packed (53) _____. But why? What did they come to see?
They came to see human beings take (54) _____ circus animals, men in cat suits who stood (55) _____ for real
lions and tigers. The show was put (56) _____ by its creators to protest (57) _____ traditional circuses and to
send a message about cruelty to animals. The show was timed to tie (58) _____ with the National Protection of
Animals Week. It was a good idea, but the standard of the performances was third-rate and an embarrassing
number of people simply walked (59) _____ before it ended. There were some amusing moments when the
performers sent (60) _____ typical circus folks, but overall it was a dismal show. Despite the large turnout for
the show’s first night, I doubt it will attract many people during the rest of its seven-day run.
Part 5: Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the phrasal verbs below. Write your
answers in the numbered spaces provided below the passage. Each verb is used only once. (10 pts)
try out slip up carry get by put out
on
take after get down look up go through turn down
61. If you’re finding it difficult to _____ on your salary, why don’t you ask for a raise?
62. I know what you’re _____ and I feel really sorry for you.
63. In many ways you _____ your father.
64. If you _____ you’ll get into trouble.
65. I proposed to her but she _____ me _____.
66. You’d better _____ your cigarette because smoking isn’t allowed in here.
67. If you _____ working so hard, you’ll make yourself ill.
68. Stop worrying about it. Don’t let this failure ____ you _____.
69. The car’s in quite good condition but you can _____ it _____ before you make any decision to buy,
70. When I was in New York, I was able to _____ several old friends I hadn’t seen for years.
Part 6: Insert A, AN, THE or Ø (zero article) where necessary. Write your answers in the numbered
spaces provided below the passage. (10 pts)
Suddenly (71) _____ blackbird flew to (72) _____ top of (73) _____ beach. She perched way up on (74) _____
topmost twig that stuck up thin against (75) _____. Then she commenced to sing.
Her little black body seemed only (76) _____ tiny dark speck at that distance. She looked like (77) _____ old
dead leaf. But she poured out her song in (78) _____ great flood of rejoicing through (79) _____ whole forest.
And (80) _____ things began to stir.
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Circle
A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (10 pts)
_____.
Tears of emotion also help the body (88) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them
(89) _____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (90) _____ “weepies”. It seems that
Part 2: Read the following passage and fill the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in
the space provided below the passage. (10 pts)
New technologies, like all technologies, are morally neutral. (91) _____ their advent makes the world a
better place or not depends on the uses to which they are (92) _____. And that, (93) _____ turn, depends upon
the decisions of many people, especially of politicians, managers, trade (94) _____ leaders, engineers and
scientists. The new technologies, cheap, flexible, dependent on knowledge and information as their main input,
can (95) _____ human being from many of their current constraints for example constraints of resources and
geography. (96) _____ the new technologies could also (97) _____ those with power to control their fellow
citizens even more effectively than in the (98) _____ efficient dictatorships of the past. The new technological
society will (99) _____ colossal demands on our imagination and ingenuity and on the capacity (100) _____ our
institutions to respond to new challenges.
Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 101 to 110. (10 pts)
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross the
“Great American Desert” to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United States,
the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it
would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar
bluejoint grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless. Who could
imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all
winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that
made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or
mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer
and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did
not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they
105. The word “barren” in line 7 is closed in meaning to _____.
106. The word “preferred” in line 8 is closed in meaning to _____.
A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama
grass
A. eating only small quantities of grass. B. continually moving from one grazing area to another.
C. naturally fertilizing the soil.D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.
IV. WRITING (6/20 points)

Part 1: Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it
→ An increased ________________
→ Rather ________________
→ The moment ________
→ At no time ________________
→ Other ________________
Part 2: Use the word(s) given in the brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new
sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change
the form of the given word(s).
→ To this day ………………………………………………………… in the field of technology.
→ Peter ……………………………………………………………….the foul-tasting medicine.
118. It’s unfortunately that the construction of the building will not be finished as originally planned. (longer)
→ The construction of the building ………………………………………………………… unfortunate.
→ What he told me ………………………………………………………………………….. the story.
→ They chose …………………………………………………………………….…. too much snow.
_____THE END_____
I. PHONETICS: 1/20 points

Part 1: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B
Part 2: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. D
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR: 6/20 points
Part 1: (20 x 0.05 = 1)
11. B 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D
16. A 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C
21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C
26. A 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. A
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
31. value → valuable 36. terror → terrified
32. fright → frightened 37. low → lowered
33. long → length 38. repeat → repeatedly
34. world – worldwide 39. embarrass → embarrassment
35. tight → tightened 40. high → heights
Part 3: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
Part 4: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
51. up 52. in 53. out 54. off 55. in
56. on 57. against 58. in 59. out 60. up
Part 5: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
61. get by 62. going through 63. take after 64. slip up 65. turned down
66. put out 67. carry on 68. get down 69. try out 70. look up
Part 6: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
71. a 72. the 73. a 74. the 75. the
76. a 77. an 78. a 79. the 80. Ø
III. READING COMPREHENSION: 4/20 points
Part 1: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
81. B 82. C 83. C 84. A 85. D
86. C 87. D 88. B 89. A 90. D
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
91. whether 92. put 93. in 94. union 95. free
96. but 97. enable 98. most 99. make 100. of
Part 3: (10 x 0.2 = 2)
101. A 102. B 103. C 104. D 105. C
106. A 107. C 108. B 109. D 110. B
IV. WRITING: 6/20 points
Part 1: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
111. An increased number of travellers is being stopped by customs officials this week.
112. Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
113. The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
114. At no time did he suspect that the bicycle had been stolen.
115. Other than to offer to lend her some money, how could I help?
Part 2: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
116. his achievements are unsurpassed. 117. pulled a face as he swallowed.
118. will take longer than originally planned, which is. 119. whetted my appetite for the rest of.
120. not to drive for fear of.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 34
PART I: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (7, 0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences. (2,0 points)
1. The strike was ___ owing to a last minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down
2. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to ___ rather thin.
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
3. ___ the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually
4. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the ___ wonderfully.
A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion
5. The train service has been a ___ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas
6. Is an inexperienced civil servant ___ to the task of running the company.
A. capable B. skilled C. eligible D. suited
7. We ___ have been happier in those days.
A. can’t B. couldn’t C. might not D. must not
8. You’ve lived in the city for most of your life, so ___ you’re used to the noise.
A. apparently B. presumably C. allegedly D. predictably
9. The storm ripped our tent to ___
10. He ____ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never fully recovered.
A. indicted B. inferred C. induced D. inflicted
11. Hotel rooms must be ____ by 10 a. m, but luggage may be left with porters.
A. vacated B. evacuated C. abandoned D. left
12. I do not think there is so much as a ____ of truth in that rumor.
A. crumb B. speck C. grain D. pebble
13. He’s not exactly rich but he certainly earns enough money to ____
A. get through B. get by C. get on D. get up
14. I have very ____ feelings about the plan – it might possibly work or it could be a disaster.
A. certain B. mixed C. doubtful D. troubled
15. The noise of the typewriter really ____ me off. I just couldn’t concentrate.
A. put B. pulled C. set D. took
16. The sixth time he called me at night was the ____
A. last cause B. last straw C. touch and go D. hot air
17. All three TV channels provide extensive ____ of sporting events.
A. broadcast B. network C. coverage D. vision
18. They seemed to be ____ to the criticism and just carried on as before.
A. disinterested B. sensitive C. uncaring D. indifferent
19. “Shall we go out tonight?” - “____”
A. Yes, I can B. Yes, we are C. Yes, we go D. Yes, let’s
20. It's no use ___ over ___ milk.
A. crying/ spilt B. to cry/ spilling C. crying/ spilling D. crying/ to spill
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
II. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the numbered gap. (2, 5
points)
BLACK WIDOW SPIDER
The black widow spider’s notoriety is not without foundation. However, an element of exaggeration has
led to certain ___ (1. CONCEPT) regarding its evil nature.
Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the most ___ (2.
VENOM) species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of the prairie rattlesnake, its bite
injects such as amount of venom by ___ (3. COMPARE) that it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact, ___ (4.
FATAL) are rare.
Black widows bite only if they are touched or their web is threatened. Furthermore, only the adult
female is poisonous. Those most at risk from the female are the spider’s natural pray-insects-and male black
widow spiders. The latter are vulnerable as the female is ___ (5. SOLITUDE) by nature, and has been known to
kill and eat the male after mating. Such ___ (6. OCCUR) are rare, but they explain how the spider got its name –
and its reputation.
Nevertheless, the ___ (7. PLEASE) effects of this spider’s bite should not be ___ (8. ESTIMATE),
and if you live in a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is advisable to take ___ (9.
CAUTION). Black widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you should wear gloves when handling firewood.
Furthermore, since black widow spiders are ___ (10. RESIST) to many insecticides, you should regularly clean
out likely hiding places.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. (2, 0 point)
bring out do up slow down save up hang over

mix up grow up go with dress up run for
1. Silence ___the theatre as the audience awaited the opening curtain with expectation and excitement.
2. Having seen a sharp bend ahead, Tim pressed hard on the brake pedal to ___.
3. Charles Dickens was born near Portsmouth, Hampshire on 7 February 1812, but relocated to and ___ in
Camden Town in London.
4. Barrack Obama has decided to ___ the American presidency in the election that will take place next year.
5. Because I hate ___ my shoes, I have bought a pair of shoes without any laces.
6. Sarah wanted to buy some curtains that would ___ his furniture, so she had brought a photo of her sofa with
her to the store.
7. Kate had been ___ in order to buy a new laptop, but then she decided to use the money on the guitar lessons
instead.
8. Even though two of the bands are dead, a new ‘The Beatle’ album called Love was recently ___.
9. Brendan was worried about having to ___ for the boss’ retirement dinner as he didn’t own any formal
clothes.
10. He ___ his grandmother’s phone number with his girlfriend’s, which led to some embarrassment for him.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
IV. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline them and write the correct forms in the
numbered boxes. (2, 5 points)
Large animals inhabit the desert have evolved adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme hot. One
adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal
mammalian practice of maintaining a constantly body temperature. Instead of try to keep down the body
temperature inside the body, what would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow
their temperatures rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degree Celsius
have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body cools down during the cold desert night, and
indeed the temperature may fall unusual low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is a
advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight absorb in warming up the body.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART II: READING COMPREHENSION. (6, 0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (2,0 points)
True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television with a welcome
drink. Nor is it about drifting (1) ___ an exhausted sleep. Useful though these responses to tension and over-
tiredness (2) ___ be, we should distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in (3) ___ of quality and
effect. (4) ___ of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same time passive awareness,
in which our bodies are (5) ___ rest while our minds are awake.
Moreover, it is as natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting. (6) ___ relaxed in
action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do, so as to have a feeling of healthy tiredness by
the end of the day, (7) ___ than one of exhaustion. Unfortunately, as a result of living in today’s competitive
world, we are under constant strain and have difficulty in coping, (8) ___ alone nurturing our body’s abilities.
What needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With (9) ___ in mind we must apply ourselves to
understanding stress and the nature of its causes (10) ___ deep-seated.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
II. Read the text and do the tasks as follow. (2, 0 points) OUT OF THE ASHES
Paragraph A
On the afternoon of 30th August 1989, fire broke out at Uppark, a large eighteenth century house in
Sussex. For a year builders had been replacing the lead on the roof, and by a stroke of irony, were due to finish
the next day, on August 31st. Within fifteen minutes of the alarm being sounded, the fire brigade had arrived on
the scene, though nothing was to survive of the priceless collection on the first floor apart from an oil painting of
a dog which the firemen swept up as they finally retreated from the blaze. But due to the courage and swift
action of the previous owners, the Meade-Featherstonhaugh family, and the staff, stewards and visitors to the
house, who formed human chains to pass the precious pieces of porcelain, furniture and paintings out on to the
lawn, 95 percent of the contents from the ground floor and the basement were saved. As the fire continued to
rage, the National Trust’s conservators were being mobilised, and that evening local stationers were especially
opened to provide the bulk supplies of blotting paper so desperately needed in the salvage operation.
Paragraph B
The following morning, Uppark stood open to the sky. A sludge of wet charcoal covered the ground
floor and basement, and in every room charred and fallen timbers lay amongst the smoke. It was a scene of utter
devastation.
Paragraph C
After the initial sense of shock, the days which followed the fire were filled with discoveries. Helped by
volunteers, the National Trust’s archaeologists and conservators swung into action, first of all marking the site
out into a grid and then salvaging everything down to the last door handle. The position of each fragment was
recorded, and all the debris was stored in countless dustbins before being sifted and categorised.
Paragraph D
There was great excitement as remnants of the lantern from the Staircase Hall were pulled out from the
debris of two fallen floors, and also three weeks later when the Red Room carpet, thought to have been totally
lost, was found wrapped around the remains of a piano. There was a lucky reprieve for the State Bed too. Staff
who had left the scene at 3 a.m on the night of the fire had thought its loss was inevitable, but when they returned
the next morning it had escaped largely undamaged. Firemen, directed by the National Trust’s conservators from
outside the Tapestry Room window, dismantled the silk-hung bed and passed it out piece by piece. Twenty
minutes later the ceiling fell in.
Paragraph E
The scale of the task to repair Uppark was unprecedented in the National Trust. The immediate question
was whether it should be done at all. A decision had to be taken quickly, as the building was unsound and
whatever had not been damaged by the fire was exposed to the elements. Within a month, after consulting many
experts and with the agreement of the National Trust’s Executive Committee, the restoration programme began.
It was undertaken for three main reasons. After the fire it had become apparent just how much remained of the
structure with its splendidly decorated interiors; to have pulled the house down, as one commentator suggested,
would have been vandalism. Also the property was covered by insurance, so the repairs would not call upon the
National Trust’s own funds. Lastly, much had been saved of the fine collection acquired especially for Uppark
from 1747 by Sir Matthew Featherstonhaugh and his son Harry. These objects belonged nowhere else, and
complete restoration of the house would allow them to be seen and enjoyed again in their original setting.
Paragraph F
The search for craftsmen and women capable of doing the intricate restoration work was nation-wide.
Once the quality and skill of the individual or company had been ascertained, they had to pass an economic test,
as every job was competitively tendered. This has had enormous benefits because not only have a number of
highly skilled people come to the fore - woodcarvers for example, following in the footsteps of Grinling Gibbons
- but many of them, for example plasterers, have relearnt the skills of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries
which can now be of use to other country house owners when the need arises.
Paragraph G
In June 1994 the building programme was completed, on time and on budget. The total cost of the work
to repair the house and its contents came to be nearly £20 million, largely met from insurance. In addition, it
made economic sense for the National Trust to invest time and money in upgrading water and heating systems,
installing modern environmental controls, and updating fire and security equipment.
Paragraph H
The final stages of restoration and the massive programme of reinstallation took eight months. The
family and the room stewards were visibly moved when returning to their old haunts, perhaps the best testament
that the spirit of Uppark had not died. But the debate will no doubt continue as to whether or not it was right to
repair the house after the fire. The National Trust has done its best to remain true to Uppark; it is for others to
judge the success of the project. Note: The National Trust is a charitable organisation in Britain set up over a
hundred years ago to preserve the national heritage.
Questions 1–6. The text has eight paragraphs, A–H. Which paragraphs contain the following information?
Write the appropriate letters, A–H, in the boxes.
1. The procedure for sorting through the remains of the fire.
2. How Uppark looked after the fire.
3. Improvements made to the rebuilt Uppark.
4. The selection of people to carry out the repair work.
5. Why the National Trust chose to rebuild Uppark.
6. How people reacted to the rebuilt Uppark.
Questions 8–10. Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text
for each answer. Write your answers in the boxes.
7. On what date in 1989 should the original repairs to the roof have been completed?
8. By what method were things rescued immediately from the burning house?
9. After the fire, what did the conservators require large quantities of immediately?
10. Into what did the conservators put material recovered from the fire?
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. Write your
answer in the numbered box. (2, 0 points)
A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than 20 years
ago and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes.
There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid
leaving signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or
much safer to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware
to target your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows
you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise callers at your leisure. When you do have
card, for example.
intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to telephone the police and wait for
help.
1. A well-protected house …………
A. is less likely to be burgled. B. is regarded as a challenge by most criminals.
C. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.
2. According to the writer, we should …………
A. avoid leaving our house empty. B. only go out when we have to.
C. always keep the curtains closed. D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we
go out.
3. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot …………
A. is predictable. B. is useful.
C. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key.
4. What word best replaces “desolate” in paragraph 4?
A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing
5. The phrase “aforementioned precautions” in paragraph 5 refers to steps that …………
A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not.
B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe. C. will stop a potential burglar.
D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your home.
6. Gaining entry to a house through a small window …………
A. is surprisingly difficult.
B. is not as difficult as people think.
C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door.
D. is tried only by very determined burglars.
7. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms …………
A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. B. are good value for money.
C. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.
8. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole…………
A. will prevent your home being burgled.
B. avoids you having to invite people into your home.
C. is only necessary for elderly people.
D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.
9. What word best replaces “scrutinise” in paragraph 7?
A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine
10. The best title for the text is …………
A. Increasing household crime. B. Protecting your home from intruders.
C. Burglary statistics. D. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART III. WRITING. (4,0 POINTS)
I. Complete each of the sentences so that it has similar meaning to the given one, using the word given in
bold. Do NOT change the form of the word given. (1, 0 point)
1. Although Joe kept on attempting to contact his cousin, he didn't manage to speak to her until the next day.
→ Despite repeated ........................ TOUCH................... his cousin, Joe didn't manage to speak to her
until the next day.
2. When it comes to computer games, Jack is a real expert. CONCERNED
→ As far ............................................................................., Jack is a real expert.

3. David said that the accident was his fault. TOOK
→ David .................................................................. the accident.
4. If he doesn’t get that job, who knows what he’ll do. KNOWING
→ If he doesn’t get that job, ........................................................... what he’ll do.

5. The stranded climber would never have been rescued if his brother hadn’t had an ingenious plan.
INGENUITY
→ But .......................................................... plan, the stranded climber would never have been rescued.
II. Use the word given and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence in such a way that it
is as similar as possible to the original one. Do NOT change the form of the word given. (1, 0 point)
1. They will try John for murder at the High Court next week. (trial)
→ John …………………………………………………………..………………………………………
2. How do our sales compare with those of other firms? (relation)
→ How do …………………………………………………………………..……………………………
3. The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was imposed. (decline)
→ There has ……………………………………………………………..………………………………
4. This new record is certain to sell a lot of copies. (doubt)
→ There is…………………………………………………………..……………………………………
5. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning. (question)
→ My changing …………………………………………………….……………………………………
III. The charts below give information on the ages of the populations of Yemen and Italy in 2000 and
projections for 2050. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make
comparisons where relevant. (2, 0 points)
PART ANSWERS MARK
PART I: I. Choose the best option to 1. A 0.1 p

LEXICO- complete each of the sentences.
GRAMMAR (2,0 points)
(7,0/20 points) 2. C 0.1 p
3. A 0.1 p
4. D 0.1 p
5. A 0.1 p
6. D 0.1 p
7. B 0.1 p
8. B 0.1 p
9. B 0.1 p
10. C 0.1 p
11. A 0.1 p
12. C 0.1 p
13. B 0.1 p
14. B 0.1 p
15. A 0.1 p
16. B 0.1 p
17. C 0.1 p
18. D 0.1 p
19. D 0.1 p
20. A 0.1 p
II. Read the passage below. Use 1. misconception 0.25 p

the word given in bold to form a
word that fits in the numbered 2. venomous 0.25 p
gap. (2,5 points)
3. comparison 0.25 p
4. fatalities 0.2 5p
5. solitary 0.2 5p
6. occurences 0.2 5p
7. unpleasant 0.25 p
8. underestimated 0.25 p
9. precautions 0.25 p
10. resistant 0.2 5p
III. Complete each sentence 1. hung over 0.2 p

with the correct form of ONE of
the two-word verbs. (2,0 point)
2. slow down 0.2 p
3. grew up 0.2 p
4. run for 0.2 p
5. doing up 0.2 p
6. go with 0.2 p
7. saving up 0.2 p
8. brought out 0.2 p
9. dress up 0.2 p
10. mixed up 0.2 p
IV. The passage below contains 1. inhabit 🡪 inhabiting/which(that) 0.5 p

TEN mistakes. Underline them inhabit
and write the correct forms in
the numbered boxes. (2,5 points) 2. hot 🡪 heat 0.5 p
3. constantly 🡪 constant 0.5 p
4. try 🡪 trying 0.5 p
5. what 🡪 which 0.5 p
6. rise 🡪 to rise 0.5 p
7. degree 🡪 degrees 0.5 p
8. unusual 🡪 unusually 0.5 p
9. a 🡪 an 0.5 p
10. absorb 🡪 absorbed 0.5 p
PART II: I. Read the passage and fill in 1. into 0.2 p

READING: each of the blanks with ONE
(6,0/20 points) suitable word. (2,0 points) 2. might/may/can 0.2 p
3. terms 0.2 p
4. regardless/irrespective 0.2 p
5. at 0.2 p
6. Being 0.2 p
7. rather 0.2 p
8. let 0.2 p
9. that/this 0.2 p
10. how 0.2 p

II. Read the text and do the 1. C 0.2 p
tasks as follow. (2,0 points)
2. B 0.2 p
3. G 0.2 p
4. F 0.2 p
5. E 0.2 p
6. H 0.2 p
7. August 31st 0.2 p
8. human chain 0.2 p
9. blotting paper 0.2 p
10. dustbins 0.2 p
III. Read the following passage 1. A 0.2 p

and choose the best answer (A,
B, C or D) to each question. (2,0 2. D 0.2 p
points)
3. A 0.2 p
4. A 0.2 p
5. C 0.2 p
6. B 0.2 p
7. A 0.2 p
8. D 0.2 p
9. D 0.2 p
10. B 0.2 p
PART III: I. Complete each of the 1. Despite repeated [attempts/efforts to 0.2 p
WRITING: sentences. (1,0 point) get in touch with] his cousin, Joe didn't
(4,0/20 points) manage to speak to her until the next day.
2. As far [as computer games are 0.2 p

concerned], Jack is a real expert.
3. David took [the blame/responsibility 0.2 p

for] the accident.
4. If he doesn’t get that job, [there is no 0.2 p

knowing] what he’ll do.
5. But [for the ingenuity of his 0.2 p

brother’s] plan, the stranded climber
would never have been rescued.
II. Use the word given and make 1. John will stand trial murder at the High 0.2 p
any necessary additions to Court next week.
complete a new sentence . (1,0
point) 2. How do our sales stand in relation to 0.2 p
those of other firms?
3. There has been a steady decline in the 0.2 p

number of accidents since the speed limit
was imposed.
4. There is no doubt that this new record 0.2 p

will sell a lot of copies.
5. My changing my mind about resigning 0.2 p

is out of question.
III. Summarize the information 1. Content: 1.0

by selecting and reporting the
main features and make a. Providing main ideas and details.
comparisons where relevant. (summarizing the information, reporting
(2,0 points) the main features, and make comparisons
where relevant)
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently

and effectively. 0.25
2. Organization and presentation:
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented

with coherence, cohesion, and clarity.
0.5
b. The paragraph is well-structured.
3. Language:
a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and 0.25

structures.
b. Good use of grammatical structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and

spelling:
a. Intelligible handwriting.
b. Good punctuation and no spelling

mistakes.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 35
PART I: PHONETICS. (1, 0 POINT)
1. A. exposure B. terminal C. utterance D. discipline
2. A. economy B. elaborate C. assassinate D. fascinate
3. A. mountain B. sustain C. contain D. retain
4. A. fulltime B. farmhand C. bookshop D. tradesman
5. A. metropolitan B. entrepreneurial C. hippopotamus D. curiosity
6. A. company B. comfortable C. together D. business

7. A. associate B. formal C. movement D. militant
8. A. Important B. cigarette C. protection D. informal
9. A. introduce B. conversation C. independent D. welcome
10. A. expect B. alone C. liquor D. invite
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (8, 0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1, 5 point)
A. the members studied more carefully the problem.
B. the problem was more carefully studied.
C. with more carefulness the problem could be studied.
D. the members study the problem more carefully.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
II. Give the correct tenses of the verbs in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (1, 5 point)
1. If he ____ (1. not drink) too much last night, he ____ (2. not - be) tired now.
2. I’m sure he must ____ (3. be) at home last night because the door was open when I ____ (4. come).
3. At this time next week, they ____ (5. sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
4. It’s raining. I would rather you ____ (6. close) the window.
5. I don’t know what the matter with him is. He ____ (7. act) funny since you ____ (8. be) away.
6. On the first of next month, he ____ (9. be) in prison for five years.
7. His personal problems seem ____ (10. distract) him from his work lately.
8. He suggested that a final decision ____ (11. make).
9. I don’t know why you ____ (12. always - make) noise in class, Tom.
10. ____ (13. you/visit) many museums when you were in Paris?
11. The car looks very clean. ____ (14. you/wash) it?
12. My best friend, James, was no longer there. He ____ (15. go) away.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
III. Put the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (2, 0 points)
AUTUMN COLORS
autumn, is on the ____ (1. LOOK) for areas where the leaves of deciduous trees have changed colour. In New
England, in the USA, 'leaf peeping' is big business, generating millions of dollars annually. The first report that
leaves are changing colour sets off an ____ (2. INVADE) of 'peepers' thus causing serious obstruction on some
roads. Thousands of people log on to websites in their ____ (3. EAGER) to find the location of the trees that
have foliage in the most ____ (4. GLORY) colours. The popularity of 'leaf tourism' is well established in New
England, and the changing colours of autumn provide an annual ____ (5. TALK) point. The colours vary from
year to year since the ____ (6. INTENSE) of the colour is ____ (7. DEPEND) on the chemical composition of
the dying leaves. After a long dry summer, leaves often turn bright red, while cloudy autumn days will produce
less spectacular yellows. If climate change leads to ____ (8. INCREASE) hot, dry summers in the northern
hemisphere, then countries in Europe can expect summers not ____ (9. LIKE) those across the Atlantic. They
will then enjoy a kaleidoscope of ____ (10. SEASON) colour to rival the deep reds and blazing oranges seen in
New England.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the box. (2, 0 points)
Example: Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule. Answer: C → is
A B C D
A B C D
2. American pioneers did water systems from logs with holes bored through their centers.
A B C D
3. The pituitary gland is a small endocrine gland at the base of the brain that releases many
A B
hormones and regulates another endocrine glands.

C D
arrive. A B C
D
5. When radio programs became popular, approximately around 1925, many people stopped attending movies.
A B C D
past.
A B C

D
7. Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed by long periods
covering by water. A B C
D
A B C

D
butterfly, whom birds do not like to eat. A B C
D
A B C D
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
box. (1, 0 point)
6. Don't use pencils. Please write the letter ___ ink.

7. My father made ____ his mind to settle in the South.
8. Minh couldn’t start his motor engine. I think it ran ____ fuel.
9. Time is off now. Please hand ____ your papers.
10. We invited 40 people to the party but only 23 turned ____
6. That fish of yours has been in the fridge for weeks. It must have gone ____ by now.
7. He needed a model, someone to look ____
8. Uncle Tom is an idiot, but I only have to put ____ him once a year.
9. I don’t like to make friends with the person who always runs ____ his old friends.
10. These two men’s farms are adjacent ____ each other.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in
the numbered box. (2, 0 points)
and to spend it traveling. There are plenty of reasons to recommend it - travel broadens the mind, you’re (1) ___
young once, life isn’t a rehearsal and so on. And if you don’t do it, you may always regret that you didn’t take
the (2) ___. In the end, there’s only one response: well, why not?
The idea may have its roots in the 18 th century Grand tour once (3) ___ by the young, rich and noble,
but it is the middle classes who have turned it (4) ___ something that 200,000 British youngsters do every year.
(5) ___ has never been so easy and cheap, with more places open to tourists than ever. Also, the gap year is now
(6) ___ by many employers and universities.
The States, the Far East and Australia were among the original (7) ___ and although these remain in the
top five, young explorers are now going even further. The most far-flung corners of the world are (8) ___ in
popularity year by year. About $700 will buy a student ticket (9) ___ for six months that will take you from
London to Calcutta, Singapore, Bangkok, Perth, Sydney, Auckland, Fiji, Tahiti, Los Angeles and (10) ___ again.

destinations
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
box. (2, 0 points)
THE LEGEND OF THE ROOT
has featured (1) ____ an active ingredient in oriental medical literature for over 5,000 years. Its beneficial effects
were, at one time, (2) ____ widely recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its weight in gold.
(3) ____ the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active part of the ____ (4) is
the root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng – the word Panax, (5) ____ the word panacea, coming from the Greek
for “all healing”. There is growing interest by western scientists in the study of ginseng. It is today believed that
this remarkable plant may (6) ____ beneficial effects in the treatment of many diseases which are difficult to
treat with synthetic drug.
Today, ginseng is (7) ____ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is becoming widely
widely used for the treatment of various ailments (8) ____ as arthritis, diabetes, insomnia, hepatitis and anemia.
However, the truth behind (9) ____ ginseng works still remains a mystery. Yet its widespread effectiveness
shows that the remarkable properties are (10) ____ than just a legend.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2, 0 points)
observations.
A. There are racks in the foundation.
B. Tomb robbers have stolen pharaoh’s body.

C. The lines represent important events.
D. A superior race of people built it.
2. Extraterrestrial beings are ____.
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly. B. To permit the high priests to pray at
night.
A. Symbolism of the Great pyramid.
B. Problems with the construction of great pyramid.
C. Wonders of the Great pyramid of Giza.
D. Exploration of the burial chamber of Cheop.
B. It was selected as the tomb of the pharaoh Cheop.
C. It was built a super race.
D. It is very old.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART IV: WRITING. (5, 0 POINTS)
I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (1, 0 point)
If it hadn’t ..............................................................................................................
There has ...............................................................................................................
They stole ...............................................................................................................
He tried in vain ......................................................................................................
No sooner ...............................................................................................................
→ The boy was on .......................................................................................................
→ Paper........................................................................................................................
→ The more .................................................................................................................
→ It is ..........................................................................................................................
→ So ............................................................................................................................
II. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meanings, using the word given. (1, 0 point)
→ ..................................................................................................................................
→ ..................................................................................................................................
→ ..................................................................................................................................
→ ..................................................................................................................................
→ ..................................................................................................................................
III. Write an essay (3, 0 points).
Facebook dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students. It can have negative
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
PART I: PHONETICS. (1, 0 POINT).
1. A. exposure 2 B. Terminal1 C. utterance1 D. discipline 1
2. A. Economy2 B. Elaborate2 C. Assassinate2 D. Fascinate1
3. A. mountain1 B. sustain2 C. contain2 D. retain
4. A. fulltime2 B. farmhand1 C. bookshop1 D. tradesman
5. A. Metropolitan3 B. Entrepreneurial4 C. Hippopotamus3 D. curiosity
6. A. company1 B. comfortable 1 C. together2 D. business
7. A. Associate2 B. Formal1 C. Movement1 D. militant
8. A. Important2 B. Cigarette3 C. Protection2 D. informal
9. A. introduce3 B. conversation3 C. independent D. welcome1
10. A. expect B. alone2 C. liquor1 D. invite2
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (8, 0 POINTS).
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1, 5 point).
A. the members studied more carefully the problem. B. the problem was more carefully studied.
C. with more carefulness the problem could be studied. D. the members study the problem more
carefully.
II. Give the correct tenses of the verbs in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (1,5 point)
1. If he _ had not drunk _ (1. not drink) too much last night, he _ would not be _ (2. not - be) tired now.
2. I’m sure he must __ have been _ (3. be) at home last night because the door was open when I _ came _ (4.
come).
3. At this time next week, they _ will be sitting (5. sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
4. It’s raining. I would rather you _ closed __ (6. close) the window.
5. I don’t know what’s the matter with him. He __ has acted/has been acting _ funny since you _ were _ (8. be)
away.
6. On the first of next month, he _ will have been _ (9. be) in prison for five years.
7. His personal problems seem _ to have been distracting _ (10. distract) him from his work lately.
8. He suggested that a final decision _ should be made/be made __ (11. make).
9. I don’t know why you _ are always making _ (12. always - make) noise in class, Tom.
10. _ did you visit _ (13. you/visit) many museums when you were in Paris?
11. The car looks very clean. _ have you washed __ (14. you/wash) it?
12. My best friend, James, was no longer there. He __ had gone _ (15. go) away.
III. Put the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (2,0 points) AUTUMN
COLORS
autumn, is on the __ outlook _ (1. LOOK) for areas where the leaves of deciduous trees have changed colour. In
New England, in the USA, 'leaf peeping' is big business, generating millions of dollars annually. The first report
that leaves are changing colour sets off an __ invasion _ (2. INVADE) of 'peepers' thus causing serious
obstruction on some roads. Thousands of people log on to websites in their _ eagerness _ (3. EAGER) to find
the location of the trees that have foliage in the most __ glorious _ (4. GLORY) colours. The popularity of 'leaf
tourism' is well established in New England, and the changing colours of autumn provide an annual _ talking _
(5. TALK) point. The colours vary from year to year since the _ intensity _ (6. INTENSE) of the colour is __
dependent (7. DEPEND) on the chemical composition of the dying leaves. After a long dry summer, leaves
often turn bright red, while cloudy autumn days will produce less spectacular yellows. If climate change leads to
_ increasingly _ (8. INCREASE) hot, dry summers in the northern hemisphere, then countries in Europe can
expect summers not _ unlike _ (9. LIKE) those across the Atlantic. They will then enjoy a kaleidoscope of _
seasonal __ (10. SEASON) colour to rival the deep reds and blazing oranges seen in New England.
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the box. (2,0 points)
Example: Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule. Answer: B → is
A B C D
A B🡪 so C D
2. American pioneers did water systems from logs with holes bored through their centers.
A🡪 made B C D
3. The pituitary gland is a small endocrine gland at the base of the brain that releases many hormones and
regulates another endocrine glands. A B C D🡪 other
arrive.
A B C D🡪
arrived
5. When radio programs became popular, approximately around 1925, many people stopped attending
movies.
A B C🡪 bỏ D

past.
A B C🡪 their

D
covering by water. A B C D🡪 covered
A B🡪 but C

D
butterfly, whom birds do not like to eat. A B C
D🡪 which
A B C D🡪
healthier way
box. (1,0 point)
11. Don't use pencils. Please write the letter _ in _ ink.

12. My father made _ up _ his mind to settle in the South.
13. Minh couldn’t start his motor engine. I think it ran _ out of __ fuel.
14. Time is off now. Please hand _ in _ your papers.
15. We invited 40 people to the party but only 23 turned _ up __
6. That fish of yours has been in the fridge for weeks. It must have gone _ off _ by now.
7. He needed a model, someone to look _ up / up to _
8. Uncle Tom is an idiot, but I only have to put _ up with __ him once a year.
9. I don’t like to make friends with the person who always runs __ down _ his old friends.
10. These two men’s farms are adjacent _ to _ each other.
the numbered box. (2,0 points)
and to spend it traveling. There are plenty of reasons to recommend it - travel broadens the mind, you’re (1) __
only _ young once, life isn’t a rehearsal and so on. And if you don’t do it, you may always regret that you didn’t
take the (2) _ chance __. In the end, there’s only one response: well, why not?
The idea may have its roots in the 18 th century Grand tour once (3) _ undertaken __ by the young, rich
and noble, but it is the middle classes who have turned it (4) _ into __ something that 200,000 British youngsters
do every year. (5) _ Travel __ has never been so easy and cheap, with more places open to tourists than ever.
Also, the gap year is now (6) _ accepted __ by many employers and universities.
The States, the Far East and Australia were among the original (7) _ destinations __ and although these
remain in the top five, young explorers are now going even further. The most far-flung corners of the world are
(8) __ growing _ in popularity year by year. About $700 will buy a student ticket (9) _ valid __ for six months
that will take you from London to Calcutta, Singapore, Bangkok, Perth, Sydney, Auckland, Fiji, Tahiti, Los
Angeles and (10) __ back _ again.


destinations
box. (2,0 points) THE LEGEND OF THE ROOT
has featured (1) _ as __ an active ingredient in oriental medical literature for over 5,000 years. Its beneficial
effects were, at one time, (2) _ so _ widely recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its weight in
gold.
(3) _ despite _ the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active part of the _
plant __ (4) is the root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng – the word Panax, (5) _ like _ the word panacea, coming
from the Greek for “all healing”. There is growing interest by western scientists in the study of ginseng. It is
today believed that this remarkable plant may (6) _ have/cause/produce __ beneficial effects in the treatment of
many diseases which are difficult to treat with synthetic drug.
Today, ginseng is (7) _ no _ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is becoming widely
widely used for the treatment of various ailments (8) _ such _ as arthritis, diabetes, insomnia, hepatitis and
anemia. However, the truth behind (9) _ how _ ginseng works still remains a mystery. Yet its widespread
effectiveness shows that the remarkable properties are (10) __ more _ than just a legend.
III. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2,0 points)
observations.
A. There are racks in the foundation. B. Tomb robbers have stolen pharaoh’s body.
C. The lines represent important events. D. A superior race of people built it.
2. Extraterrestrial beings are ____

A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
A. Symbolism of the Great pyramid. B. Problems with the construction of great pyramid.
C. Wonders of the Great pyramid of Giza. D. Exploration of the burial chamber of Cheop.
B. It was selected as the tomb of the pharaoh Cheop. C. It was built a super race. D. It is very old.
I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (1,0 point)
If it hadn’t ...... been for my father’s money, we could not have managed.....
There has .... been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
They stole ........ everything except for/but/apart from the television...
He tried in vain ...... to search for the stolen car.
No sooner ....... had the guests left than she started to clean up the house.
→ The boy was on ....... the point of crying when he was reprimanded by his mother.
→ Paper....... is believed to have been invented by the Chinese in 105 A.D.
→ The more ........ wood-pulp is used, the more trees are cut down..........
→ It is ........ a six-hour-drive from here to London..

→ So ...... angry did he get that no one dared to say anything.
→ .......... Provided (that) you want to see me, come here by 6 a.m..................
→ ...... He objects to anyone (else) touching his records.................
→ ........ He had a low opinion of the musical show yesterday...............
→ ....... The concert failed to come/live up to his expectations/The concert didn’t come/live up to .......
→ ... We missed the beginning of the concert as a consequence of (our) oversleeping/We had overslept. As a
consequence, we missed the beginning....
III. Write an essay (3, 0 points).
Face book dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students. It can have negative
Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion. (3, 0 points).
1. Content:
a. Providing main ideas and details.
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively.

a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity.
3. Language:
a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling:
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly
and add more answers possible before marking the papers.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 36
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
1. A. resume B. statistics C. position D. designer
2. A. criteria B. initiate C. certificate D. interactive
3. A. ginger B. gesture C. gymnasium D. ghost
4. A. teammate B. reading C. seaside D. creating
5. A. crooked B. naked C. masked D. needed
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
6. A. oceanic B. argument C. temperature D. valuable
7. A. incredible B. fortunately C. astronomy D. evaporate
8. A. committee B. expensive C. guarantee D. successful
9. A. vocabulary B. assistance C. develop D. evidence
10. A. applicant B. recognize C. yesterday D. curriculum
III. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets.
a. My father (11. work)_______ in Canada for the last year, so by the time he (12. return)_______ the month
after next, I (13. not see)_______ him for fourteen months.
b. We looked out of the window and saw it (14. rain)_______, so we stayed in.
c. TV chat shows (15. increase)_______ in number all the time.
d. The camera (16. disappear)_______ when we came in.
e. The woman (17. accuse)_______ of the killing said that she was at the cinema at the time.
f. Not until we (18. arrive)_______ at his house we (19. discover)_______ that he was on holiday.
g. After (20. take)_______ to the hospital, the injured victim felt much better yesterday.
II. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences.

21. There is a rumour that the National Bank is going to________ the company I am working for.
A. take on B. take out of C. take off D. take over
22. It would be lovely if the children could see and, ________, touch the animals.
A. eventually B. if possible C. at last D. finally
23. ________ he failed in the entrance exam caused his family much sadness.
A. Which B. That C. The thing D. What
24. Unless you return money immediately, you will risk being charged________ theft and getting into serous
trouble
A. on B. with C. of D. for
25. The old woman came in, ________ by a young man.
A. accompany B. to be accompanied C. accompanying D. accompanied
26. I’ve applied for the job I saw________ in the newspaper last month.
A. advertised B. advertising C. be advertised D. being advertised
27. No, I didn’t know his number; ________ I’d have phoned him.
A. otherwise B. so C. therefore D. unless
28. ________ the two sisters, Mary is________ .
A. Of/ the prettierB. Between/ the prettiest C. Of/ prettier D. Between/ the prettier
29. A: Do you think it will rain tonight?
B: ________. I am attending the evening class.
A. I don’t hope so B. I hope so C. I hope not D. I am not
hoping
30. Ninety________ the maximum length of time allowed for entrance exams to this school.
A. minute is B. minutes are C. minute are D. minutes is
III. Read the text below. Give the correct form of the words in brackets.
JUDO
Judo is a sport that has achieved great popularity in many parts of the world. It was (31. origin)_______
developed in Japan in the late 19th century based on ancient methods of self-defense. There are two (32.
fight)_______ . Although they use physical (33. violent)_______ against each other, they are respectful to their
(34. oppose)_______ and bow to each other before and after each contest. Judo is an (35. expense)_______
sport to take up because the only equipment you need is the special loose-fitting suit. It is very suitable for (36.
young)_______ if they join a club where the (37. instruct)_______ are properly qualified and pay enough
attention to safety. Although Judo is a physically (38. demand)_______ sport which requires a lot of (39.
strong)_______ practice, and skill, there are many people who find it (40. enjoy)_______ as a means of
relaxation in their spare time.
IV. Find one mistake in each sentence below by choosing the letter A, B, C or D.
41. Joel giving up smoking has caused him to gain weight and become irritable with his acquaintances. A
B C D
42. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.
A B C D
43. George won’t lend you any money as long as you promise to pay him back.
A B C D
44. Having worked hard during the summer, his result was very successful in the entrance examination.
A B C D
45. Society will be having to change radically to keep pace with the technology available.
A B C D
46. It is necessary that he goes to see a doctor as soon as he returns from taking the exam.
A B C D
47. The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and it is very cruel.
A B C D
48. The Nobel Prize winning candidate, together with his wife and children, are staying in Sweden after the
presentation. A B C D
49. My brother composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the major Broadway musicals.
A B C D
50. After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realized that he has been driving in the wrong direction. A
B C D
V. Fill in each numbered space with ONE appropriate word.
TSUNAMI IN JAPAN
Japan's most powerful earthquake since records began has struck the north-east coast, triggering a
massive tsunami. Cars, ships and buildings were (51)_______ away by a wall of water after the 8.9 - magnitude
tremor, which struck about 400 kms (250 miles) north-east of Tokyo. A state of emergency has been declared at
a nuclear power plant, (52)_______ pressure has exceeded normal levels. Officials say more than 10,000 people
are dead and about 7,000 (53)_______, but it is feared the final death toll will be (54)_______ higher. In one
ward alone in Sendai, a port city in Miyagi prefecture, 200 to 300 bodies were found. “The quake has been the
fifth-largest in the world (55)_______ 1900 and nearly 8,000 (56)_______ stronger than the one which
devastated Christchurch, New Zealand, last month”, said scientists. Thousands of people (57)_______ near the
Fukushima nuclear power plant have been ordered to evacuate. Japanese nuclear officials said that pressure
inside a boiling water reactor at the plant was running much higher than normal after the cooling system failed.
Officials said they might need to deliberately (58)_______ some radioactive steam to relieve pressure, but that
there would be no health risk. US Secretary of State Hillary Clinton had earlier said the US Air Force had flown
emergency coolant to the site. But US officials later said (59)_______ coolant had been handed over because the
Japanese had decided to handle the situation (60)________.
The UN's nuclear agency said four nuclear power plants had been shut down safely.
VI. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Women nowadays have more (61)________ than those in the past. For example, our great
grandmothers were not allowed to go to school or to work to earn their own living. (62)________, they had to
depend on their husbands financially. Modern women, on the contrary, can get good education, have their own
careers, and (63)________ their interests. They can even take good positions in politics if they are competent
(64)________ it. However, women living in our modern society have their (65)________ too. Today women
work harder than their great grandmothers so that they can gain the (66)________ between working life and
family life. Many people predict that by 2032, most (67)________ positions at work will be taken by women.
Then, it is possible that women will have more (68)________ life because, (69)________ in a very modern
society, the women can’t (70)________ their role in the family.
61. A. advances B. advantages C. benefits D.
conveniences
62. A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Although
63. A. pursue B. support C. promote D. stimulate
64. A. to B. at C. with D. of
65. A. obstacles B. disputes C. profits D. problems
66. A. equality B. stables C. balance D. steadiness
67. A. senior B. junior C. inferior D. superior
68. A. sheltered B. healthy C. strenuous D. active
69. A. though B. even C. ever D. never
70. A. perform B. adopt C. fulfill D. neglect
VII. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Walt Disney was born in 1901 in Chicago, but soon moved to a small farm near Marceline, Missouri.
From this rural and rather humble beginning, he later became one of the most famous and beloved motion-
picture producers in history. Although he died in 1966, his name and artistic legacy continue to influence the
lives of millions of people throughout the world.
After several years of barely making ends meet as a cartoon artist operating from his Los Angeles
garage, Disney had his first success in 1928, with his release of a Mickey Mouse cartoon. Throughout the next
decade, he continued to produce a number of cartoons, and develop more of his highly profitable and enduring
creations, such as Donald Duck and Pluto. In the late 1930s, he issued a full-length cartoon film. Snow White
became an instant commercial and critical success. This was only the first of many films, both animated and not,
produced by Disney and his studio.
But as renowned as Disney name is for cartoons and movies, it is probably best known for a string of
spectacular amusement and theme parks. Starting with California’s Disneyland in 1955 and culminating with the
fantastically successful Disney World and EPCOT Center in Florida, Disney became a household name. In
recent years, the theme park concept became international, with openings in Tokyo and Paris. With the
continuing success of Disney, the creation of future theme park is under discussion.
71. Which of the following is the title for the passage?
A. The history of Disney World and Disneyland.
B. Walt Disney’s Boyhood Years
C. Walt Disney and his Legacy.
D. Walt Disney and Animated Cartoons
72. The word “humble” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. boring B. shy C. simple D. respectful
73 What is the author’s attitude toward the accomplishments of Walt Disney?
A. critical B. respectful C. ambivalent D. approving
74. In paragraph 2 “barely making ends meet” in bold is closest in meaning to __________.
A. meeting personal failure. B. producing only a few cartoons.
C. not making much money. D. trying new businesses.
75. The word “enduring” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. lasting B. suffering C. famous D. difficult
76. The word “renowned” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. possessed B. talked about C. useful D. well-known
77. It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. Snow White was Disney’s most successful film.
B. Disney created cartoon movies and “non cartoon” movies.
C. the Tokyo theme park is in financial difficulty.
D. the California theme park is now closed.
78. The word “concept” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. idea B. location C. birth D. demand
79. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Disney’s first achieved success after his death.
B. Mickey Mouse was Disney’s only cartoons creation.
C. Snow White was the first full-length cartoon film.
D. Disney’s first concern was always profitability.
80. In future years it is most likely that ___________.
A. the Disney name will stay well–known.
B. Disney will produce only cartoons.
C. the Paris theme park will become successful
D. the remaining theme parks will also close
IX. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (10 pts)
81. Peter hasn’t had his hair cut for over 3 months.
→ It is over _______________________________________________.
82. I meant to post that letter before lunch.
→ What I meant _________________________________________.
83. People will only become aware of the problem if you increase the publicity.
→ Only if _________________________________________________.
84. Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for AIDS.
→ Enormous _____________________________________________.
85. Success depends on hard work.
→ The harder ____________________________________________.
X. Writing an essay.
“Increasing numbers of private transportations have put greater and greater pressure on the roads”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your solutions.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………
_____________THE END____________
I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer. II. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.

1. B 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. D
III. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.

11. has worked 15. are increasing 18. arrived (had arrived)
12. returns 16. had disappeared 19. did we discover
13. won’t (will not)have seen 17. accused 20. being taken
14. was raining
IV. (20pts) 1 point/correct answer.

21. 22. B 23. B 24. 25. D 26. 27. A 28. 29. D 30. D
D B A A
V. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
31. 33. violence 35. inexpensive 37. instructors 39. strength

originally
38. demanding
32. fighters 34. opponent 36. youngsters/ youths 40. ẹnjoyable
VI. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.

41. A 42. C 43. B 44. C 45. B 46. B 47. 48. C 49. 50. C
D A
VII. (10pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.

51. swept 53. missing 55. since 57. living 59. no
54. much/ far 56. 58. release 60. themselves
52. where times
VIII. (10pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.

61. B 62. C 63. A 64. B 65. D 66. C 67. A 68. C 69. B 70. D
VIII. (15pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.

71. C 72. C 73. 74. C 75. A 76. D 77. B 78. A 79. C 80. A
D
IX. (10pts) 2 points/correct answer.

81. → It is over 3 months since Peter (last) had his hair cut.
82. → What I meant (to do) was to post that letter before lunch.
83. → Only if you increase the publicity will people become aware of the problem.
84. → Enormous efforts/attempts have been made by scientists to find a cure for AIDS.
85. → The harder you work, the more successful you are/ will be.
VIII (15pts) Students’ own answers

.
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content,
the candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language,
the candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language high school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate styles
and linking devices
ENGLISH PRACTICE 37
I. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (5 pts)
1. A. B. biology C. experiment D. philosophy

mathematics
2. A. evolution B. development C. discovery D. philosopher
3. A. another B. energy C. centigrade D. gravity
4. A. evaporate B. temperature C. impossible D. experiment
5. A. gravity B. professor C. pyramid D. remedy
II. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences.

6. Is an inexperienced civil servant_________ to the task of running the company.
7. We _________ have been happier in those days.
8. You’ve lived in the city for most of your life, so _________ you’re used to the noise.
9. The storm ripped our tent to _________.
10. He _________ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never fully recovered.
11. Hotel rooms must be _________ by 10 a. m, but luggage may be left with porters.
12. I do not think there is so much as a _________ of truth in that rumor.
13. He’s not exactly rich but he certainly earns enough money to _________.
14. I have very _________ feelings about the plan – it might possibly work or it could be a disaster.
15. The noise of the typewriter really _________ me off. I just couldn’t concentrate.
16. The sixth time he called me at night was the _________
17. All three TV channels provide extensive _________ of sporting events.
18. They seemed to be _________ to the criticism and just carried on as before.
19. “Shall we go out tonight?” - “__________________ ”
20. It's no use _________ over _________ milk.
21. The strike was _________ owing to a last minute agreement with the management.
22. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to _________ rather thin.
23. _________ the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
24. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the _________ wonderfully.
25. The train service has been a _________ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. Fracas
III. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the numbered gap.
BLACK WIDOW SPIDER
led to certain (26. CONCEPT)_______ regarding its evil nature.
Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the most (27.
VENOM)_______ species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of the prairie rattlesnake, its
bite injects such as amount of venom by (28. COMPARE)_______ that it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact, (29.
FATAL)_______ are rare.
widow spiders. The latter are vulnerable as the female is (30. SOLITUDE)_______ by nature, and has been
known to kill and eat the male after mating. Such (31. OCCUR)_______ are rare, but they explain how the
spider got its name – and its reputation.
Nevertheless, the (32. PLEASE)_______ effects of this spider’s bite should not be (33.
ESTIMATE)_______, and if you live in a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is advisable to
take (34. CAUTION)_______. Black widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you should wear gloves when
handling firewood. Furthermore, since black widow spiders are (35. RESIST)_______ to many insecticides, you
should regularly clean out likely hiding places.
IV. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs.
36. Silence_______ the theatre as the audience awaited the opening curtain with expectation and excitement.
37. Having seen a sharp bend ahead, Tim pressed hard on the brake pedal to_______.
38. Charles Dickens was born near Portsmouth, Hampshire on 7 February 1812, but relocated to and_______ in
39. Barrack Obama has decided to_______ the American presidency in the election that will take place next
year.
40. Because I hate_______ my shoes, I have bought a pair of shoes without any laces.
41. Sarah wanted to buy some curtains that would_______ his furniture, so she had brought a photo of them.
42. Kate had been_______ in order to buy a new laptop, but then she decided to use the money on the guitar.
43. Even though two of the bands are dead, a new ‘The Beatle’ album called Love was recently_______.
44. Brendan was worried about having to_______ for the boss’ retirement dinner as he didn’t own any formal
clothes.
45. He _______ his grandmother’s phone number with his girlfriend’s, which led to some embarrassment for
him.
V. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word.
True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television with a welcome drink.
Nor is it about drifting (46)_______ an exhausted sleep. Useful though these responses to tension and over-
tiredness (47)_______ be, we should distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in (48)_______ of
quality and effect. (49)_______ of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same time
passive awareness, in which our bodies are (50)_______ rest while our minds are awake.
Moreover, it is as natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting. (51)_______
relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do, so as to have a feeling of healthy
tiredness by the end of the day, (52)_______ than one of exhaustion. Unfortunately, as a result of living in
today’s competitive world, we are under constant strain and have difficulty in coping, (53)_______ alone
nurturing our body’s abilities. What needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With (54)_______ in mind
we must apply ourselves to understanding stress and the nature of its causes (55)_______ deep-seated.
VI. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question.
if you can afford it as another line of defense against intruders.
card, for example.
help.
56. A well-protected house________.
57. According to the writer, we should________.
A. avoid leaving our house empty.
B. only go out when we have to.
C. always keep the curtains closed.
D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.
58. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot________.
60. The phrase “aforementioned precautions” in paragraph 5 refers to steps that________.
B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe.
C. will stop a potential burglar.
61. Gaining entry to a house through a small window________.
62. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms________.
63. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole________.
65. The best title for the text is________.
A. Increasing household crime. B. Protecting your home from intruders.
C. Burglary statistics. D. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home.
VII. Complete each of the sentences so that it has similar meaning to the given one, using the word given in
bold. Do NOT change the form of the word given.
66. They will try John for murder at the High Court next week. (trial)
→ John____________________________________________________________.
67. How do our sales compare with those of other firms? (relation)
→ How do_________________________________________________________.
68. The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was imposed. (decline)
→ There has_______________________________________________________.
69. This new record is certain to sell a lot of copies. (doubt)
→ There is_________________________________________________________.
70. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning. (question)
→ My changing____________________________________________________.
VIII. Writing an essay.

“Recycling is saving up our lives”.
What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 280- 300 words to support your points.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………..
I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. B
II. (20pts) 1 point/correct answer.

6. D 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. A
16. B 17. 18. D 19. D 20. A 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. A
C
III (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.

.
26. misconception 28. comparison 30. solitary 32. unpleasant 34. precautions
27. venomous 29. fatalities 31. 33. underestimated 35. resistant

occurrences
IV. (15pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.

36. hung over 38. grew up 40. doing up 42. saving up 44. dress up
39. run for 41. go with 43. brought 45. mixed up
37. slow down out
V. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.
46. into 48. terms 50. at 52. 54. this/that

rather
47. might/may/can 49. regardless/irrespective 51. Being 55. how
53. let
VI. (15pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.

56. A 57. D 58. A 59. A 60. C 61. B 62. 63. D 64. D 65. B
A
VII. (10pts) 2 points/correct answer.

66. → John will stand trial murder at the High Court next week.
67. → How do our sales stand in relation to those of other firms?
68. → There has been a steady decline in the number of accidents since the speed limit was imposed.
→ There is no doubt that this new record will sell a lot of copies.
69. → My changing my mind about resigning is out of question.
70. (15pts) Students’ own answers
VIII
. Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content,
and linking devices
ENGLISH PRACTICE 38

Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line.
(2 pts)
1. A. famous B. nervous C. favourite D.

mountain
2. A. through B. enough C. rough D.

tough
question. (3 pts)
3. A. passion B. encourage C. occasion D.

depend
4. A. participant B. publicity C. competitive D. Individual
5. A. limitation B. documentary C. government D. interactive
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45 pts)
6. ..............1915 that the cinema really became an industry.
A. It is not until B. It was not until C. Not until D. Until in
7. I really appreciate________ to help me, but I am sure I’ll be able to manage by myself.
A. you to offer B. you are offering C. your offering D. that you
offer
8. My friend’s uncle has been________ MP ( Member of Parliament) for five years.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
9. - Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mary: “………….”
A. Lovely, I think so B. No problem
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
10. My new glasses cost me _______ the last pair I bought last month.
A. more than three times C. more three times than
B. three times as much as D. as much three times as
11. We bought some ________.
A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses
C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses
12. After years of neglect, there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. Refurbishment
13. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is_____ the law.
A. beyond B. over C. above D. Onto
14. On the_____, optimists believe that life will be much better than it is today.
A. contrary B. contrast C. opposition D. opponent
15. You had your house decorated, .............. ?

A. hadn’t you B. didn’t you C. weren’t you D. haven’t you
16. A part – time job gives me the freedom to ………… my own interests.
A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
17. The type of plant and animal life living in and around a pond depends on the soil of the pond, .............., and
the pond’s location.
A. what the quality of the water is B. how is the water quality
C. the quality of water D. what is the water quality
18. __________ its accuracy, laser is very useful in medicine.
A. In view of B. As a result of C. Thanks to D. Despite
19. ______ for their strong fiber include flax and hemp.
A. Plants are grown B. Plants grown
C. Plants that grow D. To grow plants
20. ______ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical illusion.
A. What the Moon B. The Moon which
C. When the Moon D. That the Moon
Question II: The following passage contains 10 unnecessary words. Find and write the word(s) on your
answer sheet (10 pts) (Questions 21-30).
line
As you will see from my curriculum vitae, I have attended university, where I studied English and Law.
1 After finishing my course, I took a job in a travel agency in Paris and now I organise few hours for people
who wanting to go to Australia and the United States. Although I enjoy this very much, I feel I need to get
more experience and it would seems to me that working as a specialised tour guide in England would help
me for do that. I would rather work in an English-speaking country, as I need to practise my English. I
spend one year at London University, which it was most useful. I did much conversation classes and at
5 first I thought that I would find them difficult. However, they turned out to be very enjoyable. I will have
no any difficulty in coming to England for an interview if you will let me know in plenty of the time. I
enclose details of my present employer who will be too pleased to send you a reference.
10
11
31. By the time the war is over, thousands of innocent people ( kill)_________.
32. Tom will never forget ( send)______ to a boarding school when he was just 8 years old.
33-34. The accident ( report)_______(cause)________ by a reckless motorist.
35. Many people (invite) ______ to the party couldn’t come because it rained heavily.
36. In her report, she mentioned (treat) ______ at a hospital abroad last year
37. Hardly our teacher (enter) ________the classroom when it started to rain.
38. Bi Rain, together with 58 members of the South Korean National Military Symphony Orchestra and 17
traditional musicians, (come) _________to Vietnam since yesterday.
39. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look) _______ for the escaped prisoner.
40. My uncle would rather that I ( not leave) _________ yesterday.

41. Different conservation efforts have been made in order to save _______ species. (DANGER)
42.There are some ______ and differences between the New Year in Japan and that in Vietnam.
(SIMILAR)
43. He resigned for a ___________________ of reasons. (VARIOUS)
44. We have to decide to interview only the best six __________ for the job. (APPLY)
45. Her son is always mischievous and ______, which annoys her very much. (OBEY)
46. Sugar is the_________ of healthy teeth. (DESTRUCTION)
47. What percentage of the city’s _______ live in poverty? (HOUSE)
48. When confronted with a mass of red tape, many people feel a sense of _________________
(POWER)
49. Mr. Pike has_________ his wife by three years. (LIVE)
50. I was a bit_______ by my performance in the first exam, but I decided (MORAL)
to make an extra effort in the ones left.
pts)
Childhood is the time when there are (51)_________ responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child has
good parents, he is (52) _________ , looked after and loved, whatever he may do. It is improbable that he will
ever again in his life be given so much without having to do anything in return. In (53) _________, life is always
presenting new things to the child- things that have lost their interest for older people because they are too well-
known. A child finds pleasure playing in the rain , or in the snow. His first visit to the seaside is a marvellous
adventure. But a child has his (54) _________ .He is not so free to do as he wishes as he thinks older people are:
he is continually told not to do things, or being punished (55) _________ what he has done wrong. His life’s
therefore not perfectly happy.
When a young man starts to (56) _________his own living, he becomes free from the discipline of
school and parents, but at the same time he is forced to accept responsibilities. He can no longer expect (57)
_________ to pay for his food, his clothes and his room, but he has to work if he wants to live comfortably. If he
spends most time playing about in a day he used to as a child, he will be hungry. And if he breaks the laws of
society as he used to break the laws of his parents, he may go to prison. If, however, he works hard, keeps out of
trouble and has good health, he can have the greatest happiness of seeing himself make steady (58) _________ in
his job and of building up for himself his own position in society.
Old age has always been thought of as the worst age to be, but it is not necessary for the old to be
unhappy. With old age (59) _________wisdom and the ability to help others with advice wisely given. The old
can have the joy of seeing their children making progress in life: they can watch their grandchildren growing up
around them, and perhaps best of all, they can, if their life has been a useful one, feel the happiness of having
come (60) _________ the battle of life safely and of having reached a time when they can lie back and rest,
leaving others to continue the fight.
51. A. little B. a few C. a little D. few
52. A. eaten B. fed C. feeded D.

fetched
53. A. short B. term C. addition D. reality
54. A. injury B. difficulty C. problem D. pain
55. A. because B. by C. at D. for
56. A. take B. have C. create D. earn

57. A. other B. another C. others D.
someone
58. A. progress B. achievement C. improvements D. accomplishments
59. A. coming B. come C. came D. had come
60. A. out B. across C. through D. back
THE THREAT TO THE ENVIRONMENT
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in___61___.Many species of
animals are threatened, and could easily become ____62__ if we do not make an ___63___ to protect them.
There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable ___64___
of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught ___65___ and sold as pets. For many animals and birds,
the problem is that their habitat - the place ___66____ they live - is disappearing. More ___67___ is used for
farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces ___68___ there once were. Farmers use powerful
chemicals to help them grow better crops but these chemicals ___69__ the environment and harm wildlife. The
most successful animals on earth - human beings - will soon be the only ones ___70___ unless we can solve this
problem.
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a
place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city.
What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits.
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen,
Line which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of
5 carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler.
Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal,
concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic
surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities
are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban
Heat Island Effect.
Line Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being
10 used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However,
cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another
type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their
roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop
gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens
that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.
Line
15 Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but
without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in
the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save
people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun,
which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials
like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and
Line herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets
20 healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart
environmental investment.
Line
25
Line
30
Line
33
71. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word
groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
72. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that ........................
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
73. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that ..................
a. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas
b. building materials absorb more of the sun’s heat than organic surfaces
c. building materials release the sun’s heat more quickly than organic surfaces
A. b and c B. a and b C. a D. a,
b, and c
74. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between
parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
75. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except ........................
A. increased space for private relaxation
B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers
D. improved air quality
76. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they ........................
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect
B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land

D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
77. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as................................
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative
78. Which of the following pieces of information would, if true, most weaken the author's claim that rooftop
gardens are good for the environment?
A. Parks have many benefits that rooftop gardens do not share.
B. More pollution is produced during rooftop garden construction than rooftop plants can
remove from the air.
C. Extremely high winds atop tall city buildings can severely damage some plants.
D. The overall environmental benefits that result from driving less exceed those of planting a
rooftop garden.
79. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed.
B. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.
C. A viewpoint is established and then defended.
D. A thesis is presented and then supported.
80. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that ..................
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop
gardens.
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens.
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city
park.
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the
peak of summer.
81. The heavy rain made it impossible for us to have our picnic.
🡪 Had ___________________________________________________
82. People no longer smoke so many cigarettes as they used to.
🡪 The ___________________________________________________
83. My decision to get up to dance coincided with the band’s decision to stop playing.
🡪 The moment ___________________________________________
84. If anyone succeeds in solving the problem, it will probably be him.
🡪 He is the most __________________________________________

85. We were all shocked by his reaction.
🡪 His reaction came_________________________________________
86. I left my last job because I didn’t really agree with my manager’s approach. ( EYE)
🡪 I left my last job because I_______________________ with my manager.
87. All the witnesses said that the accident was my fault. ( BLAME)
🡪 All the witnesses said that___________________________ the accident.
88. It was childish of him not to accept my apologies. ( REFUSED)
🡪 He _________________________________________________ of him.
89. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night. (EARS)
🡪 What ____________________________________________ last night.
90. She thought it was too difficult for her to come to the class on time. (FOUND)
🡪 She _______________________________________ the class on time.
Some people say that cell phones have improved modern life. Others believe that cell phones have
caused many problems to people. What is your opinion? In about 150 - 200 words, write an essay to assert your
point of view on this problem.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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---------- THE END ---------

1. 3.
2.A 4.D 5.C
D A
PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I.
6.B 7.C 8.B 9.D 10.B

11.C 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.B
16. 17.C 18.C 19.B 20.D
A
Question II.
WOR LINE WOR LINE

D D
21. few 3 26. much 8
22. who 3 27. any 9
23. would 5 28. will 10
24. for 6 29. the 10
25. it 7 30. too 11
Question III
31. will have been killed 36. having been treated
32. being sent 37. had our teacher entered
33. was reported 38. has come
34. to have been caused 39 must be looking
35. invited 40. hadn’t left
Question IV
41.endangere 42. similarities 43. variety 44. applicants 45. disobedient

d
46. destroyer 47.households 48. powerlessness 49. outlived 50. demoralised/
demoralized

Question I
51. 52.B 53.C 54.D 55.D

D
56. 57.C 58.A 59.B 60.C

D
Question II.
61. danger 62. 63. effort 64. parts 65. alive

extinct
66. where 67. land 68. than 69. pollute 70. left
Question III.
71. C 72. A 73. A 74. D 75. A
76. C 77. C 78. B 79. C 80. B
81 - Had it not been for the heavy rain, we could have had our picnic.
.
- Had it not rained heavily, we could have had our picnic.
82 The smoking of cigarettes is no longer as popular as it used to be.

.
83 The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
.
84 He is the most likely person to succeed in solving the problem

.
85 His reaction came as a shock to us all

.
86 I left my last job because I didn’t really see eye to eye with my manager.
.
87 All the witnesses said that I was to blame for the accident.
.
88 He refused to accept my apologies, which was childish of him

.
89 What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
.
90 She found it too diffcult to come to the class on time.

.

Marking criteria:
giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1 - 4 điểm.
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Tổng số điểm thí sinh làm đúng
Điểm bài thi = ---------------------------------------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 39
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following question
1. A. imagine B. discipline C. determine D. Valentines

5. A. accurate B. tale C. shape D. date
PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (5.0 points)
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
1. The singer and actor____________ coming now.
A. is B. are C. was D. were
2. Tom_________ things around the house, which is annoying.
A. always leaves B. has always leftC. is leaving D. is always leaving
3. Up_________ when it saw its master.
A. jumped the dog B. did the dog jump C. the dog jump D. does the dog jump
4. I’m really sleepy today. I wish I_________ Bob to the airport late last night.
A. weren’t taking B. hadn’t had to take
C. didn’t have to take D. didn’t take
5. _________ you didn’t come to see her?
A. How come B. Why C. What for D. A and B are correct
6. The couple _________in that castle for several months before they noticed anything odd.
A. have been living B. have lived C. had been living D. were living
7. That is the librarian _________ I got the information.

A. whom B. from who C. from him D. from whom
8. Part- time workers at the company are the first_________.
A. that is laid off B. who lay off C. being laid off D. to be laid off
9. Noise pollution generally receives less attention than_________ air pollution.
A. does B. it does C. is D. it is
10. While_________ to help him with his essay, I got impatient because he wouldn’t pay attention to what I was
saying.
A. I am trying B. having tried C. I try D. trying
11. After he left _________ University of Massachusetts, he went to_________ Indiana State University.
A. the - ø B. the – the C. ø - the D. ø - ø
12. If Mary_________ me she was going, I could have asked her for a lift.
A. tells B. had told C. wouldn’t tell D. won’t tell
13. The salesperson says that there_________ many quality items on sale from next Monday.
A. was B. will be C. would be D. were
14. There is a small number involved, possibly___________ a hundred.
A. as many as B. as little as C. as few as D. as much as
15. I can never understand why quite a few city dwellers have no ideas of _________.
A. that their neighbor B. who are their neighbors
C. whose neighbor is D. who their neighbors are
16. His pale face suggested that he _________ not well.
A. should be B. be C. were D. was
17. Corporations have been donating more and more to _________.
A. the needy B. the need C. the needy people D. the needed
18. You’re going to set up the equipment in a minute. _________ give you a hand?
A. Shall I B. Will IC. Would I D. Do I
19. Going on this diet has really_________me good. I’ve lost weight and I feel fantastic!
A. made B. taken C. done D. had
20. She nearly lost her own life _________ attempting to save the child from drowning.
A. at B. with C. for D. in
21. The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several _________ .
A. celebrations B. celebrated C. celebrities D. celebrates
22. I expect Tom’s jokes were awful. Actually they are _________ funny.
A. ratherB. quite C. completely D. totally
23. She_________ me a nice compliment yesterday.

A. brought B. made C. took D. paid
24. Over the last few months garages_________ the price of petrol three times.
A. have risen B. have put up C. raisedD. have gone up
25. The polar bear’s _________ depends on its ability to catch fish.
A. survivor B. survive C. surviving D. survival
26. It was _________ that I bought those books.
A. this shop B. this shop where C. at this shop D. the shop
27. “ So how are things at school, Tim? “________________________”
A. Oh, pretty good, actually . B. Well, I can’t agree with you.
C. It’s my pleasure. D. I was not very good at it.
28. _________, the young woman was visibly very happy after the birth of her child.
A. Despite tired B. Though tired
C. Tired although she was D. She was tired
29. Our school _________ about 600 new students every year.
A. admits B. accepts C. allows D. gets
30. The kind- hearted woman _________ all her life to helping the disabled and the poor.
A. wasted B. spent C. dedicated D. lived
31. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted _________ a good answer.
A. came up to B. came up for C. came up with D. came out of
32. Tom: “ Which is more important, luck or effort?”
Mary: “ Luck is _________effort.”
A. on the same importance B. of the same importance as
C. the same importance as D. as the same importance as
33. “ He’s not interested in Physics, is he?” “_________”
A. No problem. B. Yes, he is not at all
C. I promise he isn’t. D. No, he isn’t, I’m afraid.
34. As its sales have increased, that computer company is going to _________ more staff.
A. take in B. take on C. take over D. take up
35. It is a good idea for them to exchange _________ before the visits.
A. correspond B. corresponds C. correspondence D. correspondingly
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
part in each of the following questions.
36. For a decade, Barzilai has studied centenarians, looking for genes that contribute to longervity.
A. who are vegetarians B. who want to be fruitarians

C. who are extraordinary D. who live to be 100 or older
37. The high mountain climate is cold and inhospitable.
A. rainy B. stormy C. uninviting D. intense
38. After the bottom fell out of the market, he was virtually bankrupt.
A. completely B. finally C. practically D. dishonestly
39. . My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. skillful B. famous C. perfect D. modest
40. New members will be issued with a temporary identity card.
A. of a long time B. of a short time
C. of great attempt D. of prime importance
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
41. My laptop is very slow and unreliable. If you use it, please save your files frequently if you do
A B C
not want to loose it.
D
42. It took a ship approximately eight hours to complete the trip through the canal and cost an
A B C
average of fifteen thousands dollars.
D
43. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate
A B C
with the locals now.
D
44. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.
A B C D
45. Many places of history, scientific, cultural, or scenic importance have been designated
A B C
national monuments.
D
Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
46. Hillary changed her major from linguistics to business, ______.

A. hoping she can easier get a job
B. with the hope for being able finding a better job
C. hoping to find a job more easily
D. with hopes to be able easier to get employment
47. _________, I was pleased it was over.
A. Though strange it was
B. Despite it may sound strange
C. Strange though it may sound
D. Even though being very strange
48. Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is_________.
A. well established extremely by the age of five
B. by the age of five it is extremely well established
C. extremely well established by the age of five
D. by the age of five and extremely well established
49. Having been served lunch, _________.
A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee
B. the committee members discussed the problem
C. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the committee
50. He objected to____________________________.
A. his mistakes being laughed at B. laughing his mistakes at
C. his mistakes laughing at D. his mistakes at laughing
PART C. READING (6.0 points)
I. Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer ( A,B,C or D ) for each space: (2 points)
According (0)______ a magazine article I read recently, we (1)______ live in an age of increasing
leisure. Not only are more and more people reaching retirement age with their taste for enjoyment and even
adventure relatively (2)________ but the working week is becoming shorter and the opportunities for leisure are
becoming greater and greater all the time. Not to mention the fact that people (3)_________ to spend less time
traveling to work or may even be working from home. What I can't understand, however, is who these people
are. As far as I can (4)________ the whole thing is another one of the journalistic fictions. I admit that there are
a lot of retired people nowadays but I am not sure that all of them are dashing about learning hang- gliding or
sailing single-handed (5)_________ the world. My own parents seem to (6)_______ most of their time gazing at
the television. And as for the shorter working week, I wish someone (7)________ remind my company about it. I
seem to be working longer and longer hours all the time. The little leisure time I have is eaten into by sitting in
the traffic jams or waiting for trains to (8)_______ up at rain-swept platforms. I haven't noticed any dramatic
improvements in my (9)_________ either, but perhaps I just have to wait until I get my (10)__________ .
0. A. to B. for C. of D. into
1. A. present B. at the moment C. now D. at this time
2. A. present B. survived C. free D. intact
3. A. use B. tend C. have D. demand
4. A. concern B. imagine C. expect D. tell

5. A. round B. over C. through D. into
6. A. have B. use C. save D. spend
7. A. would B. to C. had D. might
8. A. keep B. line C. show D. set
9. A. cost of living B. lifestyle C. lifeline D. livelihood
10. A. pension B. retirement C. insurance D. salary
II. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.(2 points)
The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how the body takes in
and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first began in the nineteenth century and
extended into the early twentieth century when it was recognized for the first time that food contained
constituents that were essential for human function and that different foods provided different amounts of these
essential agents. Near the end of this era, research studies demonstrated that rapid weight loss was associated
with nitrogen imbalance and could only be rectified by providing adequate dietary protein associated with certain
foods.
The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be called "the vitamin
period. " Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency syndromes were described. As vitamins
became recognized as essential food constituents necessary for health, it became tempting to suggest that every
disease and condition for which there had been no previous effective treatment might be responsive to vitamin
therapy. At that point in time, medical schools started to become more interested in having their curricula
integrate nutritional concepts into the basic sciences. Much of the focus of this education was on the recognition
of deficiency symptoms. Herein lay the beginning of what ultimately turned from ignorance to
denial of the value of nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless claims were made for effects of vitamins that
went far beyond what could actually be achieved from the use of them.
In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamin therapy began to fall into
disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also became less popular. It was just a
decade before this that many drug companies had found their vitamin sales skyrocketing and were quick to
supply practicing physicians with generous samples of vitamins and literature extolling the virtue of
supplementation for a variety of health-related conditions. Expectations as to the success of vitamins in disease
control were exaggerated. As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies are much less effective when
applied to health-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term problems of under nutrition that lead to
chronic health problems.
A. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study
B. The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present
C. The effects of vitamins on the human body
D. Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century
2. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following discoveries was made during the first era in the
history of nutrition?
A. Certain foods were found to be harmful to good health.
B. Vitamins were synthesized from foods.
C. Effective techniques of weight loss were determined.
D. Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet.

3. The word "tempting" is closest in meaning to.
A. realistic B. necessary C. correct D. attractive
4. It can be inferred from the passage that medical schools began to teach concepts of nutrition in order to
A. encourage medical doctors to apply concepts of nutrition in the treatment of disease
B. support the creation of artificial vitamins
C. convince doctors to conduct experimental vitamin therapies on their patients
D. convince medical doctors to participate in research studies on nutrition
5. The word "Reckless" is closest in meaning to?
A. recorded B. irresponsible C. informative D. urgent
6. The word "them" refers to
A. effects B. vitamins C. claims D. therapies
7. Why did vitamin therapy begin losing favor in the 1950's ?
A. Medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts
B. Nutritional research was of poor quality
C. The public lost interest in vitamins
D. Claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.
8. The phrase "concomitant with" is closest in meaning to
A. in dispute with B. prior to C. in conjunction with D. in regard to
9. The word "skyrocketing" is closest in meaning to
A. internationally popular B. increasing rapidly C. surprising D. acceptable
10. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses
A. Why nutrition education lost its appeal B. Problems associated with undernutrition
C. The fourth era of nutrition history D. How drug companies became successful
III. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions .(2 points )
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a
career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and
effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding
career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every
aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by
assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that
you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel ? Do you want to work with
children ? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work ?” There are no right or wrong answers ; only
you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and
which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not,
there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of
time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields in
concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand,
many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country.
If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as
insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your
experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or
negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does
not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are
less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as
highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new
interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your
final one.
1. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by

A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
2. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to ____
A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
3. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
4. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to
live in a big city ?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
5. It can be inferred from the paragraph 4 that
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
6. The word “evoke” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. agree on B. bring to mind C. be related to D. differ from
7. The word “that” in paragraph 5 refers to
A. occupation B. the traveling life
C. a flight attendant D. commission
8. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 5 ?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
9. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
10. According to the passage, which of the following is true ?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
PART D. WRITING (5.0 points)
I. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the clues at the
beginning of each sentence. There’s an example at the beginning (0). (2.0 points)
0. She was not used to driving on the left.
🡪 She found it strange to drive on the left.
1. I was very shocked when I knew that I had failed that important test.
It came _______________________________________________________________ .
2. The third time he asked her to marry him, she accepted.

Only on ________________________________________________________________ .
3. As he grew older, he became more and more forgetful.
The____________________________________________________________________ .
4. It was wrong of you to allow a 4- year-old child to walk home alone.
You should______________________________________________________________.
5. She thought it was too difficult for her to finish the job by lunchtime.
She found_______________________________________________________________ .
6. They thought that the thief was still in the house.
The thief________________________________________________________________ .
7. “ Unless I receive her letter tomorrow, I’ll phone her,” said Nam
Nam said that if__________________________________________________________.
8. Nick told one of the detectives that he had taken the cashbox.
Nick admitted __________________________________________________________ .
Despite my _____________________________________________________________ .
10. It was essential for her to be relieved of her duties.
It was essential that _______________________________________________________.
II. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the words given in
the brackets. There’s an example at the beginning (0). (1.0 points)
0. The last Olympic Games were held in Seoul. (TOOK)
🡪 The last Olympic Games took place in Seoul.
1. No messages have come for me, have they? ( THERE)
______________________________________________________________________.
2. He drove so carelessly that he had an accident last month. (SUCH)
_______________________________________________________________________ .
3. They are letting John out of hospital next week. (RELEASED)
_______________________________________________________________________ .
4. Why don’t you get an optician to test your eyes? (TESTED)
_______________________________________________________________________ .
5. I bought a magazine whose title is Sun Flowers. (OF)
_______________________________________________________________________
III. Write a passage (about 200 words) on the following topic: (2.0 points)
In order to help save endangered species from extinction, a number of wildlife habitat reserves have
been established. What are the advantages and disadvantages of these reserves?
Use your specific ideas and examples to support your answer.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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-------THE END-------
1. A. imagine B. discipline C. determine D. Valentines

5. A. accurate B. tale C. shapeD. date
PART B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (5.0 points)
0.1 point for each correct answer.
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. D
11. A 12. B 13. B 14. 15. D 16. 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. D
C D
21. C 22. 23. D 24. 25. D 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. 30. C
A B A
31. C 32. B 33. D 34. 35. C 36. 37. C 38. C 39. 40. B
B D A
41. D 42. 43. A 44. 45. A 46. C 47. C 48. C 49. B 50. A
D B
PART C. READING (6.0 points)
I. Closing reading. (2.0 points)
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A
II. MCQ reading. (2.0 points)
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. C
III. MCQ reading. (2.0 points)
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. D
PART D. WRITING (5.0 points)
I. Finish second sentences. (2.0 points)

1. It came as a shock to me/ when I knew that I had failed that important test.
2. Only on his third proposal did she agree to marry him.
3. The older he grew, the more forgetful he became.
4. You should not have allowed a 4- year-old child to walk home alone.
5. She found it too difficult to finish the job by lunch time.
6. The thief was thought to be still in the house.
7. Nam said that if he didn’t receive her letter the next day/ the following day/ the day after, he would
phone her.
8. Nick admitted to one of the detectives that he had taken the cashbox.
9. Despite my strong disapproval of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
10. It was essential that she be relieved of her duties.
II. Finish second sentences. (1.0 point)

1. There have been no messages/ haven’t been any messages for me, have there?
2. He was such a careless driver that he had an accident last month.
3. John is being released from hospital next week.
4. Why don’t you get/ have your eyes tested by an optician?
5. I bought a magazine the title of which is Sun Flowers.
III. (2.0 points)
Marking scheme
1. Format. (0.2 point) - the passage has 3 parts: the Introduction (01 para), the body (01 or 02 para) and the
conclusion (01 para).
2. Content. (1.0 point): a provision of main ideas and details as appropriate.
Note: Students need to mention the advantages and disadvantages of wildlife habitat reserves
3. Language. (0.5 point): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of secondary
gifted students
4. Presentation. (0.3 point): coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of secondary gifted
students.
--------- THE END --------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 40
1. A. appropriate B. opposite C. economic D. technology

2. A. dykesB. mins C. pesticides D. nowadays
3. A. cooked B. practised C. laughed D. decided
4. A. application B. identify C. chemistry D. indicate
5. A. managed B. played C. penalized D. marked
6. A. style B. typical C. pretty D. penalty
7. A. mature B. century C. futureD. puncture
8. A. lie B. pie C. tie D. believe
9. A. mastery B. baggyC. deny D. symbol
10. A. organization B. capital C. dictation D. co-operation
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B, C or D). (1,5
points).
1. He's really shy _______ girl.
A. by B. at C. for D. with
2. The teacher _______ her to improve her drawing.
A. insisted B. encouraged C. made D. persisted
3. I couldn't quite ______ what they were doing because they were so far away.
A. bear out B. make out C. think out D. try out
4. The meal Mary cooked tastes_______.
A. well B. nice C. good D. worse
5. ______ at the party, we saw Ruth standing alone.
A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were

arriving
6. The people who______ the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
7. The judge found him ______ of stealing and sent him to prison.
A. evil B. innocent C. guilty D. wicked
8. The house we have rented is______. So we will have to buy some beds, chairs, tables, etc.
A. unrestored B. unrepaired C. unfurnished D. undecorated
9. He was turned down for the job because he is ________.
A. qualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D.

qualification
10. The trouble started only______ the other man came into the room.
A. when B. until C. and then D. too soon
11. _______, the disaster would not have happened.
A. Had you have obeyed the orders B. You had obeyed the orders
C. You obeyed the orders D. Had you obeyed the orders
12. _______ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who B. Only those who
C. Only who were those D. Only were those who
13. Traveling alone to a jungle is adventurous, ________.
A. if not impossible B. if it not impossible
C. when not impossible D. when it not impossible
14. I ______ the hot weather in the south.
A. use to B. used to C. am use to D. am used to
15. The meat looked very _______ to the dog.
A. invited B. invite C. inviting D. invitingly
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces provided in the passage.
Write your answers on your answer sheet. (1,5 point)
Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on the amazingly beautiful
surface of the moon from close quarters, Galileo’s newly built telescope (1)_______ him to
look at the edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere. He saw that the apparently (2)_______ 1. ABLE
surface was not divinely smooth and round, but bumpy and imperfect. He realized that although
the moon might appear (3)_____, resembling a still life painted by the hand of a cosmic 2. LIVE
(4)_____, it was a real world, perhaps not very different from our own. This amounted to a
great (5)______ hardly to be expected in his day and age, although nowadays his (6)______ 3. ACT
may appear to some to be trivial and (7)________.
4. ART
Not long after Galileo lunar’s observations, the skies which had previously been so
(8)________ revealed more of their extraordinary mysteries. Casting around for further 5. ACHIEVE
wonders, Galileo focused his lens on the (9)_______ planet of Jupiter. Nestling next to it, he
6.
saw four little points of light circling the distant planet. Our moon it appeared, perhaps
CONCLUDE
(10)_______ in the eyes of those fearful of what the discovery might mean, was not alone!
7. SIGNIFY
YOUR ANSWERS:
8. ELUDE
9. STRIKE
10.
FORTUNE
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. In the following passage, some numbered lines contain a word that shouldn’t be there. Tick (√) the
sentences that are correct and write the words that shouldn’t be there in the numbered space. (1.0 point)
KEEPING YOUR DISTANCE
Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to keep between ourselves YOUR
and other people. When someone we do not know well gets too close that we usually begin to ANSWERS:
feel uncomfortable. If such a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most
common response is to move away. Some interesting studies have been done in libraries. If 0 someone
strangers will come too close, many people get up and leave the building, others use to different
methods such as turning their back on the intruder. Living in cities has made people to develop 1..................
new skills for dealing with situations where they are very close to strangers. Most people on so
crowded trains try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands 2 ..................
touch by a mistake. People use newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other people,
3 ..................
and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into
anyone’s eyes. 4 ..................
5 ..................
6 ..................
7 ..................
8 ..................
9 ..................
10 .................
PART III. READING

I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank. (1,0 point)
In recent years, there has been a remarkable increase into happiness. The researchers have come up a
number of factors which contribute to a definition of happiness.
First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be happy, in other words,
happiness (1)_______ in families. And happiness seems to correlate quite strongly with the main dimensions of
personalities: extroverts are generally happier, neurotics are less so.
Second, people often report good social relations as a reason for their happiness. In particular, friends
are a great (2)______ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do together, partly because of the way
friends use positive non-verbal (3)______ such as caressing and touching, to affirm their friendship. Marriage
and similar (4)______ relationships can also form the basis of lasting happiness.
Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (5)______ overall satisfaction, and vice versa - perhaps this is why
some people are happy in boring jobs: it (6)______ both ways. Job satisfaction is caused not only by the
essential nature of the work, but (7)_____ by social interactions with co-workers. Unemployment, on the
contrary, can be a serious cause of unhappiness.
Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (8)______ than most other causes of
happiness. Activities (9)_____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and social clubs of various
kinds, can give great joy. This is partly because of the (10)______ themselves, but also because of the social
support of other group members – it is very strong in the case of religious groups.
1. A. runs B. arrives C. goes D. descends
2. A. source B. origin C. base D. meaning
3. A. movements B. signals C. slogans D. motions
4. A. near B. tight C. close D. heavy
5. A. consists of B. applies to C. counts on D. contributes to
6. A. works B. effects C. makes D. turns
7. A. too B. as well C. also D. plus
8. A. check B. power C. choice D. control
9. A. so B. such C. like D. thus
10. A. facilities B. activities C. exercises D. Amenities
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the questions.
(0,5 point)
Scientists have established that influenza viruses taken from man can cause disease in animals. In
addition, man can catch the disease from animals. In fact, a greater numbers of wild birds seem to carry the virus
without showing any evidences of illness. Some scientists conclude that a large family of influenza virus may
have evolved in the bird kingdom, a group that has been on earth 100 million years and is able to carry the virus
without contracting the disease. There is even convincing evidence to show that virus strain are transmitted from
place to place and from continent to continent by migrating birds.
raises the possibility that a human influenza virus can recombine with an influenza virus from a lower animal to
produce an entirely new spike. Research is underway to determine if that is the way major new strains come into
being. Another possibility is that two animal influenza strains may recombine in a pig, for example, to produce a
new strain which is transmitted to man.
1. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses______.
C. are rarely present in wild birds D. change when transmitted from animals to man
2. What is known about the influenza virus?
A. It was first found in a group of very old birds.
B. All the different strains can be found in wild birds.
C. It existed over 100 million years ago.
D. It can survive in many different places.
3. According to the passage, a great variety of influenza strains can appear when______.
A. H and N spikes are produced
B. animal and bird viruses are combined
C. dissimilar types of viruses recombine
D. two viruses of the same type are contracted
4. New strains of viruses are transmitted to man by_______.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the following are ways of producing new strains of influenza
EXCEPT_______.
C. two animal viruses recombining
D. two animal viruses recombining in a human
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D in the following
questions. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (0,5
point)
Several hundred million years ago, plants similar to modern ferns covered vast stretches of the land.
Some were as large as trees, with giant fronds bunched at the top of trunks as straight as pillars. Others were the
size of bushes and formed thickets of undergrowth. Still others lived in the shade of giant club mosses and
horsetails along the edges of swampy lagoons where giant amphibians swam.
A great number of these plants were true ferns, reproducing themselves without fruits or seeds. Others
had only the appearance of ferns. Their leaves had organs of sexual reproduction and produced seeds. Although
their “flowers” did not have corollas, these false ferns (today completely extinct) ushered in the era of flowering
plants. Traces of these floras of the earliest times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most
commonly found in shale and sandstone rocks wedged between coal beds.
Today only tropical forests bear living proof of the ancient greatness of ferns. The species that grow
there are no longer those of the Carboniferous period, but their variety and vast numbers, and the great size of
some, remind us of the time when ferns ruled the plant kingdom.
A. Plant reproduction B. How to locate fossils
C. An ancient form of plant life D. Tropical plant life
2. The word “Others” refers to_________.
A. plants B. pillars C. trees D. fronds
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the plants described in the passage?
A. They once spread over large areas of land.
B. They varied greatly in size.
C. They coexisted with amphibians, mosses, and horsetails.
D. They clung to tree trunks and bushes for support.
4. The word “true” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. accurate B. genuine C. straight D. dependable
5. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located between deposits of
_______.
A. coal B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
PART IV: WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way. (0,5 point)
1. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)
→ .......................................................................................................................................................
2. They suspended Jack for the next two matches. (BANNED)
→ .......................................................................................................................................................
3. I really want to see her again. (DYING)
→ .......................................................................................................................................................
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't stop looking at her. (EYES)
→ .......................................................................................................................................................
5. We are looking forward to watching the program. (WAIT)
→ .......................................................................................................................................................
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one. (0,5 point)
1. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
→ Were you.................................................................................................................................
2. I'd rather not go out this afternoon.
→ I do not feel.............................................................................................................................
3. Adeles tries hard, but she doesn't get anywhere.
→ However.................................................................................................................................
4. It is thought that the boss is considering raising wages.
→ The boss..................................................................................................................................
5. His disabilities did not prevent him from sailing around the world.
→ Despite the fact.......................................................................................................................
III. Topic writing. (1,0 point)
Computers can translate all kinds of languages well, we needn’t learn more languages in the future.
What is your opinion about this idea? Within 200-250 words, use evidence and examples to write a
passage to clarify your idea.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………
1. A. appropriate B. opposite C. economic D. technology

2. A. dykesB. mins C. pesticides D. nowadays
3. A. cooked B. practised C. laughed D. decided
4. A. application B. identify C. chemistry D. indicate
5. A. managed B. played C. penalized D. marked
6. A. style B. typical C. prettyD. penalty
7. A. mature B. century C. future D. puncture
8. A. lie B. pie C. tie D. believe
9. A. mastery B. baggyC. deny D. symbol
10. A. organization B. capital C. dictation D. co-operation
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B, C or D). (1,5
points; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. C
9. C 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. C
II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces provided in the passage.
Write your answers on your answer sheet. (1,5 points; 0,15 point a correct answer)
1. ENABLED 2. LÌELESS 3. INACTIVE 4. ARTIST 5. ACHIEVEMENT
6. 7. INSIGNIFICANT 8. ELUSIVE 9. STRIKING 10. UNFORTUNATELY

CONCLUSION
sentences that are correct and write the words that shouldn’t be there in the numbered space. (1,0 point; 0,1
point a correct answer)
1. that 2. such 3. √ 4. will 5. to
6. to 7. √ 8. so 9. a 10. √
PART III. READING
I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a
correct answer)
1. 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. 10. B
A D C
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the questions.
(0,5 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. B 2. 3. C 4. D 5. D
D
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D in the following
questions. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (0,5
point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. C 2. 3. D 4. B 5. A
A
PART IV: WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way. (0,5 point; 0,1
point a correct answer)
1. →Some interesting new information has come to light.
2. →Jack was banned from playing in the next two matches.
3. →I'm dying to see her again.
4. →She was so beautiful that I couldn't take my eyes off her.

5. →We can't wait to watch the program.
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one. (10 pts)
1. → Were you to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
2. → I do not feel like going out this afternoon.
3. → However hard Adeles tries, she doesn't get anywhere/gets nowhere.
4. → The boss is thought to be considering raising wages.
5. → Despite the fact that he was disabled, he sailed/managed to sail around the world.
III. Topic writing
Correct form of essay - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting ideas and
writing relevant examples (0,2 point)
(0,6 point) - Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (0,2 point)
- Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (0,2 point)
Incorrect form of essay - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting ideas and
ENGLISH PRACTICE 41
Question 1:
a. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line.
( 5points)
1. A. tomb B. combatant C. comber D. subtlety
2. A. trustworthy B. theory C. theses D. width
3. A. naked B. beloved C. walked D. hatred
4. A. resource B. encourage C. toward D. horse
5. A. heart B. heard C. church D. circle
b. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently fromthat of the other words.(5points)
6. A. sentimental B. commonplace C. mathematics D. information
7. A. distraction B. considerable C. description D. recommend
8. A. confidence B. minimize C. complaint D. immitate
9. A. soldier B. American C. pronounce D. prefer
10. A . generous B. pagoda C. address D. control
Question 2: Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence ( 10points)
11. She ……….her husband’s job for his ill health.
A. available B. capable C. acceptable D. accessible
12. It’s no use………. make him change his mind.
A. to try to B. trying and C. trying to D. to trying to
13. In most ……… developed countries, up to 50% of …………population enters higher education at some time
in their lives.
A. Ø / Ø B. Ø / the C. the / Ø D. the / a
14. I wish you …….. me a new one instead of having it……..as you did.
A. would give / to repair B. gave / to repair
C. had given / to be repaired D. had given / repaired
15. Good restaurants serving traditional English food are very hard to …… .
A. come into B. come by C. come to D. come at
16 It was a very difficult question and ….. got it right.
A. little student B. few students C. a few students D. a little students
17. ………………………..the invention of the steam engine, most forms of transport were horse-drawn.
A. With reference B. Akin C. Prior to D. In addition to
18.I have had some summer jobs but I have never been.........employed.
A. ever B. occasionally C. rarely D. permanently
19. ……………. long, I'm sure you will be speaking English ………………. a native speaker.
A. After/ like B. Before/ like C. After/ with D. Before/ with

20. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is ………………………..
A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as wood
Question 3: Use the correct forms of the verbs in brackets (10points)
21. He decided that he (go)…….. to Ho Chi Minh city as soon as possible.
22. I’m sure you (forget)………. me by the time I (be)……… back in five years.
23. If these machines (not invent) ……., we couldn’t live as we do now.
24. Nowaday children would prefer history (teach) ……… in more practical ways.
25. Had I parked my car in the car park, they (not/ take)…….. it away.
26. The police (pay)……… no attention to Clare’s complaint because she (phone)……… them so many times
before.
27. As our new furniture (deliver )……… on Monday morning I will have to stay at home to check that it (not
damage)……… during transmit.
Question 4: Fill each blank with the correct form of the words given. (10points)
28. We can look forward to a period of ………... (PROSPER)
29. It is said the …… of a Swiss watch is perfect. (PRECISE)
30. In nursing, women tend to …… men by four to one. (NUMBER)
31. We have to decide to interview only the best six ……..… for the job. (APPLY)
32. The damage caused by the terrible storm two days ago was……………………... by the (ESTIMATE)
government. The real figures go up every minute.
33. Barack Obama is the first President of the United States with ……………….…... (RACE)
background.
34. Tom spoke…….. because he was so excited (BREATH)
35. Before enrolling on a course, you should first ensure that it has been ……………………... (VALID)
by an officially recognized body.
36. As a result of her ……….., Ethel has strong sense of the differencee between right and (BRING)
wrong
37. We are discussing the ……… of soil with artificial chemicals (FERTILE)
Question 5: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each space.
(10 points)
When you are driving abroad you should make sure that you have all documents with you. These (38)____
your passport, your driving licence and insurace papers. It (39) ____ be very inconvinient if you (40) ____ any
of these or if you cannot find (41) ____ quickly. You must also make sure that your car has a nationality plate
which showthe country where the car is registered; for (42) ____, GB for Great Britain, F for France, N for
Norway. And so on
In some (43) ____ you have to pay if you don’t (44) ____ motoring laws and this can sometimes cost you a lot
of money. For instance, you may have to pay immediately if you are stopped by a police officer for taking no
notice of the traffic lights, speed (45) ____ or if you allow children (46) ____ the age of twelve to (47) ____ in
the fron seat of the vehicle.
38. A. include B. make C. mean D. contain
39. A. should B. can C. is D. has
40. A. miss B. hide C. lose D. pass
41. A. that B. those C. their D. them
42. A. once B. example C. general D. fact
43. A. countries B. positions C. ways D. routes
44. A. do B. allow C. obey D. continue
45. A. marks B. spots C. limits D. numbers
46. A. under B. lower C. over D. behind
47. A. follow B. pass C. travel D. wait
Question 6: Supply the most suitable word for each blank (10 points)
Mr. Brown lived his entire life in a small town in the north of England. He never left the house
____(48) he had been born, never married, never went on holiday and had no friends. He worked in a local
factory for ___-(49) forty years but even the people who had worked with him for years ____(50) very little
about him. He wore the same clothes year in year out, and ___(51) he shopped regularly at the local store he
bought only the most basic foodstuffs, never changing his purchases from one week to the next. So when he died
last month, neighbors and local people were ___(52) to learn that Mr. Brown was not just a rich man, he was in
fact ___(53) millionaire!
He had no bank, no account, no money invested anywhere but in the various drawers, cupboards and
boxes in the house there were hundreds and thousands of bank ___(54) and coins.It took police over two weeks
to clear the house and the bank clerks took just as long to __-(55) all the money. “We had absolutely no ideas
that he had been hiding his money over the years”, one of his neighbors said. “In fact, we used to feel ___(56)
for him, we thought he was a poor old man unable to ___(57)
Question 7: You are going to read a magazine article about learning how to fly a plane. Eight paragraphs
have been removed from the article. Choose from paragraphs A-I the one that fits each gap (58-65). There is
one extra paragraph that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the numbered table below. (10 points)
Learning to Fly
I had been testing cars and motorcycles for over twenty years. I couldn’t take any more. It wasn’t terribly
exciting and, in any case, new cars were beginning to look identical and drive similarly. What I needed was a
new challenge.
5
8
Unfortunately, I wore glasses. The Royal Air Force wouldn’t consider anyone for pilot training unless they had
perfect eyesight. Halfway through an aptitude test, they realised that my eyes were far from perfect. I didn’t
stand a chance.
5
9
It was an obvious choice. It’s just twenty minutes’ drive from my home. It’s very quiet, too, so the £90 per hour
for the training is spent flying in the air, not waiting on the ground for other planes to take off.
6
0
It took me a whole year to get my private pilot’s license. It started well, with my first solo flight coming after
just seven hours. Then came all the studying, the exams, the hard work. I never thought I’d get to the end of it.
6
1
Then came last winter and the end of the course was in sight. For weeks, the weather was so terrible that for
most of the time it was impossible to fly. Strong winds, heavy rain and even snow and ice made flying
conditions extremely hazardous.
6
2
But finally the first of three practical exams arrived – the navigation test. The examiner sets you a course that
you have to plan according to the weather, and then fly with him sitting beside you.
6
3
I passed this test, but I don’t know how. The second test involves flying cross-country to two other airports,
which you can choose, and landing at both. The important thing is to give the right messages to the air-traffic
control people and understand their replies.
6
4
After this alarming episode, the exercises in the flight-handling test were simple. As we complete the sixth
exercise, the examiner suddenly turned to me and said, ‘Congratulations – you’ve passed!’
6
5
I wasn’t sure why, because we usually land as slowly as possible. Then I turned round and realised straight
away: we were being followed by a British Airways jumbo jet!
A. A week which we had set aside for finishing the course came and went with no possibility of getting in the air
at all. And besides the problems with the weather, my second son was born, and that made it even more difficult
to find the time for lessons and studying.
B. But the real reason I chose this club was that a friend of mine, Andrew Wilkins, is the chief instructor there.
He impressed me by taking me out for a free flight just so that I could see what it was like.
C. Unfortunately, I got myself lost this time and flew too far east. I completely missed the first airport. However,
I flew over a car factory I recognised and managed to get back on course.
D. Along the way, he’ll take the controls and fly off course, just to get you lost. Then he’ll hand back the control
to you and expect you to find your way home.
E. One day I was asked by an air-traffic controller if I could see another aircraft ahead. I said yes, and
immediately it disappeared into a cloud. I just didn’t know what to do.
F. At the time, taking private lessons to learn how to fly was financially beyond me. So I had to delay my plans
to become a pilot for quite a while. It was twenty years, in fact, before I finally enrolled at a flying club in
Hertfordshire.
G. Since getting my pilot’s license, I’ve been out flying a few times. The highlight so far was flying up to
Birmingham International Airport for a motor show with Andrew beside me. As we approached the way, the air-
traffic controller came on the radio asking for as much speed as our little plane could manage.
H. For months, my head was always in a book and my head hurt from all the facts, figures and flying
instructions.
I. This feeling of needing a change coincided with my 40 th birthday, which started me thinking about what I’d
been doing all those years. When I left school all I had really wanted to do was fly.
Write your answers here:
58. 59. 60. 61.
62. 63. 64. 65.
Question 8: There is ten mistakes in following sentences. Find and correct them.(10points)
0. ..√…
00. will
66. …..
67. …..
68. …..
69. …..
70. …..
71. …..
72. …..
73. …..
74. …..
75. …..
Question 9:
a.Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. ( 5 points )
76. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaints about it.
🡪 Should ………………………………………………………………..
77. Both of the lifts were out of order.
🡪 Neither ………………………………………………………………
78.I had only just put the phone down when the boss rang back.
🡪Hardly ……………………………………………………………
79.While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
🡪Despite my ……………………………………………………………
80.They were seasoned travelers, which we hadn't expected them to be!

🡪Contrary ……………………………………………………………
b.Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words, including the word
given. (5 points)
81. I’ve got to get a new computer. (NEED)
→ What I really .................................... new computer.
82. I can’t describe people as well as you can. (BETTER)
→ You’re .................................................. I am.
83. It was easy for us to get tickets for the concert. (NO)
→ We ............................................. tickets for the concert.
84. The two theories appear to be completely different. (COMMON)
🡪The two theories……………………………………………………
87. Money is of little value on a desert island. (COUNTS)
→ Money ………………………………………………………….
Questions 10: Writing an essay about 200 words ( 10 points)
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? “The most important aspect of a job is the money a
person earns.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Question 1:
a. 1.B 2.A 3.C 4. B 5. A
b. 6.B 7.D 8. C 9. A 10. A
Question 2:
11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D 15.B
16.A 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. C

Question 3:
21. should go(go) 25. wouldn’t have taken
22. will have forgotten - am 26.paid – had phoned
23. were not invented 27. is being delivered- has not been damaged
24. being taught
Question 4:
28. prosperity 33. multiracial
29. precision 34. breathlessly
30. outnumber 35. validated
31. applicants 36. upbringing
32. underestimated 37. fertilization
Question 5:
38. A 39. B 40. C 41. D 42.B
43. A 44. C 45. C 46. A 47. C
Question 6:
48. where 49. over 50. knew 51. regularly 52. when
53. a 54. notes 55. count 56. said 57. afford
Question 7:
58. I 59. F 60. B 61.H
62. A 63. D 64. C 65. G
Question 8:
66. V 67. up 68. more69. a 70. long
71. from 72. part 73. v 74. to 75. it
Question 9:
a.
76. Should you have any complaints about the product, return it to the shop.
77. Neither of the lists was working.
78. Hardly had I put the phone down when the boss rang back.
79. Despite my strong disapproval of your behaviour, I will help you this time
80. Contrary to what we had expected/ our expectation, they were seasoned travellers.
b.
81. What I really need to get is a new computer.
82. You’re better at describing people than I am.
83. We have no difficulty in getting tickets for the concert.

84. The two theories have nothing in common.
85. Money counts for little on a desert island
Question 10Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme:
1.Format: 2 pts ( coherence , cohesion , style )
a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are expressed clearly
b. Body: should consist of at least 2 paragraphs to show your strong defence with reason and evidence about the
importance of money or other aspects of a job.
c. Conclusion (summary of the main ideas, students’ comment)
2. Content : 5pts
3. Language : 3pts ( grammatical accuracy , wide range of vocabularies and structures )
ENGLISH PRACTICE 42
1. A. that B. mother C. this D. think

2. A. physics B. hesitate C. basic D. reserve
3. A. finished B. developed C. defeated D. looked
4. A. toughB. roughC. through D. enough
5. A. exhibition B. holiday C. childhood D. hilarious
6. A. laughed B. watched C. lived D. cooked
7. A. Christmas B. switch C. character D. chemical
8. A. honest B. exhaust C. heir D. height
9. A. handcraft B. handkerchief C. handbag D. handbook
10. A. called B. prepared C. expressed D. raised
1. I’m really sorry. We _____ stop at a service station and phone you, but we didn’t want to waste any more
time.
A. were due to B. were going to C. were to D. were about to
2. It is not until December 25th _________the exam results will be announced.
A. which B. what C. that D. when
3. I saw a ___________ scarf in a shop near my house.
A. sweet little green silk B. little green silk sweet
C. sweet green little silk D. green little sweet silk
4. There has been a recommendation that Peter ______ the president of the country.
A. will be elected B. be elected C. is elected D. was elected
5. He kept his marriage for years, but eventually the truth ________.
A. came out B. went out C. came through D. fell out

6. It was in this house ______.
A. I was born in B. in which I was born C. where I was born D. that I was born
7. ______of half- starving wolves were roaming the snow- covered countryside.
A. Herds B. Flocks C. Packs D. Swarms
8. When ______ to explain his mistake, the new employee cleared his throat nervously.
A. asking B. to be asked C. to be asking D. being asked
9. ______, he felt so unhappy and lonely.
A. In spite of his being wealth B. Rich as was he
C. Rich as he was D. Despite his wealthy
10. According to the _______of the contract, tenants must give six months notice if they intend to leave.
A. laws B. rules C. terms D. details
11. It is difficult for museums to find funds to protect the nation’s_______.
A. inheritance B. heritage C. possessions D. legacy
12. A part-time job gives me the freedom to_______ my own interests.
A pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
13. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for_______15 minutes.
A. other B. others C. another D. the others
14. ____ I’ve told him not to go out with those people, but he wouldn’t listen. Just let him face the music now.
A. Many a time B. Many the time C. Quite a time D. For a time
15. _______ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten years.
A. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers
C. A number of tigers D. That the number of tigers
16. _______ every industry in our modern world requires the work of engineers.
A. Wholly B. Hardly C. Most D. Virtually
17. Jane had a problem with her finances, so we talked _______ and now it's fine.
A. over B. it over C. over it D. over and over
18. When the electricity failed, he _______a match to find the candles.
A. rubbed B. scratched C. struck D. started
19. I usually buy my clothes _______. It’s cheaper than going to the dressmaker.
A. on the house B. off the peg C. in public D. on the shelf
20. She tried to _______.
A. talk out of me the plan B. talk me the plan out of
C. talk me out of the plan D. talk out me of the plan.
Talent scouts are looking for the next generation of supermodels have realized Africa’s 0 ……are…
potential. Lyndsey Mclntyre, a former model herself, recently opened one agency’s first 00 …√………
African office. “African women are being graceful and serene” she says. “These qualities
could to make them do very well in this business.” However, spotting supermodels is rarely 1 ……….……
easy, as well Mclntyre discovered when she visited the Orma tribe of remote north- eastern
Kenya, whose women are reported to be especially striking. “The tribal leaders were a bit 2 ………..…
suspicious and I wasn’t allowed to be meet many of their girls,” she explains. Another
problem is that the reports aren’t always reliable. Mclntyre discovered this when one of 3 ………….…
village’s “most beautiful girls” turned out to be its heaviest ones. She had to explain that
4 ……..……
Western advertisers prefer far slimmer women. The Orma are not alone in believing fat it is
beautiful. In a recent Africa-wide beauty contest, all the Uganda contestants were 5 ……….……
disqualified for being a little too large around the hips. “I don’t understand the fashion
industry’s obsession with small hips,” said one judge for the contest. “But because we want 6 ………….…
the girls to succeed and to see African models working internationally, we give the industry
what it wants” 7 ………….…
8 …………….
9 …….…….…
10………..……
UK companies have received criticism from a business forum for what their report refers to as a rather
narrow-minded attitude towards the dress code for office workers. This follows a case in which a male (1.
EMPLOY) __________working in the post room of a large (2. ORGANISE) __________in the United
Kingdom received a (3. SUSPEND) __________ for wearing jeans to work. Whilst the report accepts that there
is a need for people dealing with (4. CUSTOM) __________to look well dressed, it questions whether
employees who work behind the scenes necessarily need to dress formally. The authors of the report made a (5.
COMPARE) ___________ between the UK and other European nations where employers seem (6.
CONCERN)___________about the need for their workers to wear smart clothes in the office. Their (7.
ARGUE) ___________is based on research that claims workers are far more (8. PRODUCT) _________ when
they have the (9. FREE) _________to dress in a way that they feel most (10. COMFORT) _______in.
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. Write your answers on
your answer sheet.
PART C. READING
Stressful situations that (1)________ almost everyday in life seem to be unavoidable. However, we can
7. A. strike B. deal C. respond D. challenge
Students frequently complain (1)___________ studying for hours on (2)________ and then not doing
well in their final exams. Many factors can (3) _________ in poor performances: (4) _________illness or a
personal problem. Getting high grades can also put a terrible strain on students (5) _________ don’t want to let
their parents down.
Can students’ knowledge be judged by a (6) _________exam? Certainly not! If we want to be fair,
students ought to be (7) _________on a regular basic. So does that mean more exams? Yes, but (8)
_________many written ones. In many countries, student do not have to take written exams (9) _________ they
don’t want to, they are (10) _________to take oral ones instead. This seems to be fairer way of assessing
understanding, not just testing it.
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from
the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as
tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea
waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano
for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a
series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open
ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the
shallow waters near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity.Two areas
of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that
causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan
often come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian
Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much
greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent
arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous
tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the
Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred
on the other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending
waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled
around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _______.
A. underwater earthquakes B. storm surges C. tides D. tidal waves
2. According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that _______.
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
3. The word “displaced” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. moved B. filtered C. located D. not pleased
4. It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis _______.
A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
Dare often identified by ships on the ocean
5. Water that is “shallow” is NOT _____________.
A. deep B. clear C. coastal D. tidal
6. A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to
___________.
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska
C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem
7. The possessive “their” refers to ____________.
A. the Hawaiian Islands B. thousands of miles
C. these tsunamis D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
8. A “calamitous” tsunami is one that is _____________.
A. at fault B. disastrous C. extremely calm D. expected
9. From the expression “on record”, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa volcano
____________.
A. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon
B. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
C. was filmed as it was happening
D. occurred before efficient records were kept
10. The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano ___________.
A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
B. resulted in little damage
C. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
PART D. WRITING
must not be changed in any way. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
1. The reduction in the price of the magazines led to a growth in sales. (RESULT)
Sales of the magazines __________________________________________.
2. Georgia hasn’t written to me recently. (HEARD)
I ___________________________________________________________.
3. Dinner will be served immediately upon our arrival at the hotel. (SOON)
Dinner will be served ___________________________________________.
4. Barbara couldn’t sing or dance. (UNABLE)
Besides ______________________________________________________.
5. It was careless of you to leave without locking the door. (OUGHT)
You _________________________________________________________.
support your idea.
telephone calls”.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
------------THE END-------------
1. A. that B. mother C. this D. think

2. A. physics B. hesitate C. basic D. reserve
3. A. finished B. developed C. defeated D. looked
4. A. toughB. roughC. through D. enough
5. A. exhibition B. holiday C. childhood D. hilarious
6. A. laughed B. watched C. lived D. cooked
7. A. Christmas B. switch C. character D. chemical
8. A. honest B. exhaust C. heir D. height
9. A. handcraft B. handkerchief C. handbag D. handbook
10. A. called B. prepared C. expressed D. raised
PART B.LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). (10pts)
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. C
11. 12. A 13. C 14. 15. B 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. C
B A
fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space beside the text. Tick (√) each correct
line. (5pts)
1. 2. to 3. well 4. 5. √
being √
6. be 7. the 8. of 9. 10. it
√
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. (10pts)
1.employee 2. organization/ organisation 3. suspension 4. customers 5. comparison
6. unconcerned 7. argument 8. productive 9. freedom 10. comfortable
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. (5pts)
1. out 2. 3. down 4. 5. across
to on
PART C. READING
(10pts)
1. 2. C 3. B 4. 5. A
D D
6. B 7. C 8. B 9. 10. B
D
space. (10pts)
1. about 2. end 3. result 4. an 5. who/that
6. single 7. 8. not 9. if 10. allowed

tested
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (10pts)
1. B 2. 3. A 4. C 5. A
A
6. C 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. A
PART D.WRITING
must not be changed in any way. (5pts)
1. Sales of the magazines grew/increased/went up as a result of the reduction in the price.
2. I haven’t heard /have heard nothing from Georgia for/in a while.
3. Dinner will be served as soon as we arrive at the hotel.
4. Besides being unable to sing, Barbara couldn’t dance either.

5. You ought not to have left without locking the door.

support your idea. (15pts)
telephone calls”.
Marking scheme
------------------THE END-----------------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 43
PART I PRONUNCIATION
1. A. exchange B. technology C. mischievious D. challenge

2. A. finished B. declared C. linked D. developed
3. A. accept B. succeed C. account D. accident
4. A. compulsory B. curriculum C. substantial D. supportive
5. A. committed B. daunted C. confided D. installed
6. A. much B. autumn C. sunnyD. summer
7. A. dedicated B. hatched C. stopped D. influenced
8. A. spectrum B. special C. species D. specify
9. A. wrong B. two C. windy D. wrist
10. A. picked B. nakedC. booked D. worked
A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were arriving
A. qualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D. qualification
A. Only who B. Only those who C. Only who were those D. Only were those
who
II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces.
The mysteries of the skies
Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on the amazingly
beautiful surface of the moon from close quarters, Galileo’s newly built telescope (1) 1. ABLE
_________ him to look at the edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere. He saw that the
apparently (2) _________ surface was not divinely smooth and round, but bumpy and 2. LIVE
imperfect. He realized that although the moon might appear (3) _______, resembling a still
life painted by the hand of a cosmic (4) ____________, it was a real world, perhaps not
very different from our own. This amounted to a great (5) _________ hardly to be expected 3. ACT
in his day and age, although nowadays his (6) _________ may appear to some to be trivial 4. ART
and (7) _____________.
5. ACHIEVE
Not long after Galileo lunar’s observations, the skies which had previously been so (8)
_____________ revealed more of their extraordinary mysteries. Casting around for further 6.
wonders, Galileo focused his lens on the (9) _____________ planet of Jupiter. Nestling CONCLUDE
next to it, he saw four little points of light circling the distant planet. Our moon it appeared,
perhaps (10) ____________ in the eyes of those fearful of what the discovery might mean, 7. SIGNIFY
was not alone!
8. ELUDE
9. STRIKE
10.
FORTUNE
sentences that are correct and write the words that shouldn’t be there in the numbered space.
KEEPING YOUR DISTANCE
Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to keep between ourselves and 0 ___√___
other people. When someone we do not know well gets too close that we usually begin to feel
uncomfortable. If such a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common 00
response is to move away. Some interesting studies have been done in libraries. If strangers will someone
come too close, many people get up and leave the building, others use to different methods such as
turning their back on the intruder. Living in cities has made people to develop new skills for 1________
dealing with situations where they are very close to strangers. Most people on so crowded trains
try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by a mistake. 2
People use newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other people, and if they do not have ________
one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes.
3 __√____
4
________
5
________
6
________
7 ___√___
8
________
9
________
10 __√___
PART III. READING

I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank.
are a great (2) ______ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do together, partly because of the way
friends use positive non-verbal (3) ______ such as caressing and touching, to affirm their friendship. Marriage
and similar (4) ______ relationships can also form the basis of lasting happiness.
Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (5) ______ overall satisfaction, and vice versa - perhaps this is why
some people are happy in boring jobs: it (6) ______ both ways. Job satisfaction is caused not only by the
Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (8) ______ than most other causes of
happiness. Activities (9) _____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and social clubs of various
kinds, can give great joy. This is partly because of the (10) ______themselves, but also because of the social
10. A. facilities B. activities C. exercises D. amenities
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option.
1. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses ______.
A. It was first found in a group of very old birds. B. All the different strains can be found in wild birds.

EXCEPT_______.
C. two animal viruses recombining
D. two animal viruses recombining in a human
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D.
2. The word “Others” refers to _________.
_______. A. coal B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas
IV. Read the passage carefully then fill in the blank a suitable word.
As swimming became a popular recreation in England during the 1860s and 1870s, several (1) ______
sports developed, roughly patterned after land sports. (2) ______ them were water football (or soccer), water
rugby, water handball, and water polo, in which players rode on floating barrels, painted to look (3) ______
horses, and struck the ball with a stick.
Water rugby became most popular of these sports, but somehow the water polo name became attached
to it, and it's been attached (4) ______ since.
As played in England, the object of the sport was for a player to touch the ball, with both (5) ______, at
the goal end of the pool. The goaltender stood on the pool deck, ready to dive on any opponent who was about to
score.
Water polo quickly became a very rough sport, filled (6) ______ underwater fights away from the ball,
and it wasn't unusual for players to pass out for lack of air.
In 1877, the sport was tamed in Scotland by the addiction of goalposts. The Scots also replaced (7)
______ original small, hard rubber ball with a soccer ball and adopted (8) ______ that prohibited taking the ball
under the surface or, "tackling" a player unless he had the ball.
The Scottish game, which emphasized swimming speed, passing, and (9) ______ work, spread to
England during the early 1880s, to Hungary in 1889, to Austria and Germany in 1894, to France in 1895, and
(10) ______ Belgium in 1900.
Water polo was the first team sport added to the Olympic program, in 1900.
PART IV: WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way.
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one.
→ Were you____________
→ I do not feel__________
→ However____________
→ The boss____________
→ Despite the fact______
6. I didn't arrive in time to see her.
→ I wasn't____________
7. I'd prefer you not to smoke.
→ I'd rather___________
8. The mother smiled happily. She took the baby in her arms.
→ Smiling____________
9. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
→ It was not __________
10. You can ring this number whenever there is any difficulty.
→ Should ____________
-------------------------------THE END---------------------------------
PART I PRONUNCIATION
1. A. exchange B. technology C. mischievious D. challenge

2. A. finished B. declared C. linked D. developed
3. A. accept B. succeed C. account D. accident
4. A. compulsory B. curriculum C. substantial D. supportive
5. A. committed B. daunted C. confided D. installed
6. A. muchB. autumn C. sunny D. summer
7. A. dedicated B. hatched C. stopped D. influenced
8. A. spectrum B. special C. species D. specify
9. A. wrong B. two C. windy D. wrist
10. A. picked B. nakedC. booked D. worked
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35pts)
(15pts: 1pt/item)
A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were arriving
A. qualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D. qualification
A. Only who B. Only those who
C. Only who were those D. Only were those who

II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces provided in the
passage. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (10pts: 1pt/item)
The mysteries of the skies
Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on the amazingly
beautiful surface of the moon from close quarters, Galileo’s newly built telescope (1) 1. ABLE
enabled __ him to look at the edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere. He saw that the
apparently (2) lifeless ___ surface was not divinely smooth and round, but bumpy and 2. LIVE
imperfect. He realized that although the moon might appear (3) inactive ____, resembling a
still life painted by the hand of a cosmic (4) artist ____, it was a real world, perhaps not
very different from our own. This amounted to a great (5) achievement _____ hardly to be 3. ACT
expected in his day and age, although nowadays his (6) conclusion ____ may appear to
some to be trivial and (7) insignificant _____. 4. ART
Not long after Galileo lunar’s observations, the skies which had previously been so (8) 5. ACHIEVE
elusive ____ revealed more of their extraordinary mysteries. Casting around for further
wonders, Galileo focused his lens on the (9) striking _____ planet of Jupiter. Nestling next 6.
to it, he saw four little points of light circling the distant planet. Our moon it appeared, CONCLUDE
perhaps (10) unfortunately _____ in the eyes of those fearful of what the discovery might
7. SIGNIFY
mean, was not alone!
8. ELUDE
9. STRIKE
10.
FORTUNE
sentences that are correct and write the words that shouldn’t be there in the numbered space.
KEEPING YOUR DISTANCE (10pts: 1pt/item)
Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to keep between ourselves and 0 ___√___
other people. When someone we do not know well gets too close that we usually begin to feel
uncomfortable. If such a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common 00
response is to move away. Some interesting studies have been done in libraries. If strangers will someone
come too close, many people get up and leave the building, others use to different methods such as
turning their back on the intruder. Living in cities has made people to develop new skills for 1________
dealing with situations where they are very close to strangers. Most people on so crowded trains
try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by a mistake. 2
People use newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other people, and if they do not have ________
one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes.
3 __√____
4
________
5
________
6
________
7 ___√___
8
________
9
________
10 __√___
PART III. READING

I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank. (10pts: 1pt/item)
are a great (2) ______ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do together, partly because of the way
friends use positive non-verbal (3) ______ such as caressing and touching, to affirm their friendship. Marriage
and similar (4) ______ relationships can also form the basis of lasting happiness.
Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (5) ______ overall satisfaction, and vice versa - perhaps this is why
some people are happy in boring jobs: it (6) ______ both ways. Job satisfaction is caused not only by the
Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (8) ______ than most other causes of
happiness. Activities (9) _____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and social clubs of various
kinds, can give great joy. This is partly because of the (10) ______themselves, but also because of the social
10. A. facilities B. activities C. exercises D. amenities
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the
questions. (5pts: 1pt/item)
1. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses ______.
A. It was first found in a group of very old birds. B. All the different strains can be found in wild birds.
EXCEPT_______.
A. two influenza viruses in the same animal recombining B. animal viruses recombining with human
viruses
C. two animal viruses recombining D. two animal viruses recombining in a human
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D in the
following questions. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet. (5pts: 1pt/item)
2. The word “Others” refers to _________.
_______. A. coal B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas
IV. Read the passage carefully then fill in the blank a suitable word. (10pts: 1pt/item)
As swimming became a popular recreation in England during the 1860s and 1870s, several (1) water _
sports developed, roughly patterned after land sports. (2) Among __ them were water football (or soccer), water
rugby, water handball, and water polo, in which players rode on floating barrels, painted to look (3) like __
horses, and struck the ball with a stick.
Water rugby became most popular of these sports, but somehow the water polo name became attached
to it, and it's been attached (4) ever __ since.
As played in England, the object of the sport was for a player to touch the ball, with both (5) hands __,
at the goal end of the pool. The goaltender stood on the pool deck, ready to dive on any opponent who was about
to score.
Water polo quickly became a very rough sport, filled (6) with __ underwater fights away from the ball,
and it wasn't unusual for players to pass out for lack of air.
In 1877, the sport was tamed in Scotland by the addiction of goalposts. The Scots also replaced (7) the
_ original small, hard rubber ball with a soccer ball and adopted (8) rules __ that prohibited taking the ball
under the surface or, "tackling" a player unless he had the ball.
The Scottish game, which emphasized swimming speed, passing, and (9) team __ work, spread to
England during the early 1880s, to Hungary in 1889, to Austria and Germany in 1894, to France in 1895, and
(10) to __ Belgium in 1900.
Water polo was the first team sport added to the Olympic program, in 1900.
PART IV: WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way. (10 pts: 1pt/item)
→Some interesting new information has come to light.
→Jack was banned from playing in the next two matches.
→I'm dying to see her again.
→She was so beautiful that I couldn't take my eyes off her.
→We can't wait to watch the program.
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one. (10 pts:
1pt/item)
→ Were you to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
→ I do not feel like going out this afternoon.
→ However hard Adeles tries, she doesn't get anywhere/gets nowhere.
→ The boss is thought to be considering raising wages.
→ Despite the fact that he was disabled, he sailed/managed to sail around the world.
6. I didn't arrive in time to see her.
→ I wasn't early enough to see her.
7. I'd prefer you not to smoke.
→ I'd rather you didn't smoke.
8. The mother smiled happily. She took the baby in her arms.
→ Smiling happily, the mother took the baby in her arms.
9. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
→ It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
10. You can ring this number whenever there is any difficulty.
→ Should there is any difficulty, you can ring this number.
-------------------------------THE END---------------------------------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 44
PART A PRONUNCIATION
1. A. plays B. works C. lives D. buys

2. A. frogs B. villagers C. fields D. insects
3. A. page B. village C. damage D. luggage
4. A. safetyB. ready C. entry D. occupy
5. A. league B. equal C. creature D. menace
6. A. food B. school C. root D. wood
7. A. facility B. society C. necessity D. economy
8. A. stamped B. indulged C. accomplished D. practised
9. A. friends B. clubs C. tunes D. stamps
10. A. nowadays B. ruins C. pesticides D. dykes
PART B: LEXICO - GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C, or D) to complete each sentence
below. Identify your answers by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet.
1. The park __________ hundreds of species of endangered animals.
A. contains B. consists C. composes D. holds
2. It’s 4 miles further if you don’t take the __________ cut.
A. narrow B. by C. short D. half
3. There are fast-growing __________ of fir tree here in this park.
A. varieties B. variances C. variants D. variations
4. “What are you doing?”
A. No B. Neither C. None D. Nothing
5. I like listen to sweet __________ in my free time.
A. guitar B. ballads C. pops D. jazz
6. These pills will __________ your pain.
A. prevent B. ease C. simplify D. avoid

7. He was a(n) __________ man who was determined to be rich by any means.
A. ambitious B. mature C. brilliant D. romantic
8. She study hard and got a degree with __________ colors.
A. scarlet B. red C. soaring D. flying
9. The old manager has just retired, so Jack takes __________ his position.
A. on B. out C. in D. up
10. It is __________ for you to stay in New York with just a few dollars in your pocket.
A. incapable B. unable C. impossible D. irresponsible
II. Put the words in capitals in the right forms.
SCHOOL REPORT
Margaret started English Literature this term, and I am afraid that her (1)__________ to
the subject has not been entirely (2)__________. She has not shown much enthusiasm, and 1. INTRODUCE
does not always pay (3)__________ in class. Her assignments are often (4)__________,
because she is so untidy, and because of her (5)__________ to check her work thoroughly. 2. SUCCESS
She failed to do any (6)__________ before the end of term test, and had poor results. She
seems to have the (7)__________ idea that she can succeed without studying. She has also 3. ATTEND
had many (8)__________ and has frequently arrived late for class. This has resulted in
several (9)__________. Although Margaret is a (10)__________ student in some respects, 4. READ
she has not had a satisfactory term.
5. FAIL
6. REVISE
7. MISTAKE
8. ABSENT
9. PUNISH
10. GIFT
III. Look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be
there. Tick each correct line. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word in the space.
Supermarkets
The every time I go to a supermarket I ask myself why I go shopping there so often. 0 ………
Last time I ended up buying all the kinds of things when the all I really wanted was a the……………
packet of rice and a small loaf, but could find neither of them. I looked in every one
corner of the shop but there was simply no a sign of these products. I looked carefully 00 …………√ ….
on either side of the aisles but it was no any good. I ought to confess here that I had ……..
forgotten my glasses! All of I could see was rows of colorful shapes of all sizes. I
decided to ask an assistant. They were all a busy of course and none of them was 1
anywhere nearby in any case. Meanwhile I had been filling my basket with all the ……………………….
kinds of things I thought I wanted. After I had paid, I had no money left for the
weekend, but I hadn’t bought either of the things I wanted! 2
……………………….
3
……………………….
4
……………………….
5
……………………….
6
……………………….
7
……………………….
8
……………………….
9
……………………….
10
………………………
11
………………………
12
………………………
13
………………………
14
………………………
15
………………………
PART C: READING
I. Complete the following passage by filling in each blank with the correct answer. Identify your
choice by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
SPORT IN PRISON
For all the arguments about prison, there is no getting (1)__________ from the fact that it exists. Once the judge
and (2)__________ have done their job, we have to (3)__________ thousands of men and women occupied until
they are (4)__________.
Sport is ideal (5)__________ prisoners for many reasons. Being (6)__________ punishes people by taking away
their freedom; just because someone gets in (7)__________ with the law, we have no (8)__________ to take
away their health as well. Secondly, the (9)__________ that you feel when you are (10)__________ up for a
long prison (11)__________ can make you very anti-social and aggressive. The (12)__________ thing we want
is for people to come out (13)__________ ten years, or even ten months, and (14)__________up the first person
they see. Sport provides a way of controlling that (15) __________.
1. A. away B. out C. back D. far

2. A. panel B. team C. jury D. board
3. A. hold B. store C. preserve D. keep
4. A. abandoned B. remanded C. released D. charged
5. A. to B. for C. in D. with
6. A. inwards B. indoors C. internal D. inside
7. A. mess B. trouble C. worry D. trial
8. A. right B. fairness C. justice D. demand
9. A. uniqueness B. remoteness C. isolation D. individuality
10. A. keyed B. broken C. closed D. locked
11. A. contract B. experience C. sentence D. course
12. A. best B. last C. final D. terminal
13. A. after B. before C. during D. over
14. A. hit B. beat C. mug D. fight
15. A. crime B. guilt C. assault D. violence
II. Read the passages below and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D. Identify
your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet.
horsetails along the edges of swampy lagoons where giant amphibians swan.
plants. Traces of these flora of the earliest times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most
2. The word “others” in bold refers to
4. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located between
deposits of
A. coal B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas
5. The word “bear” in bold could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. call for B. provide C. tolerate D. suffer

III. Read the passages below and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D.
Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet.
Most of us tend to think of production when we think of mass media industries. After all, it is the output
of this production – the papers we read, the cable TV shows we watch – that grab our attention, make us happy
or angry, interested or bored. Moreover, most public discussion about mass communication tends to be about
production. The latest gossip about that actor will be in what film, the angry comments a mayor makes about the
violence on local TV news, the newest CDs by an up-and-coming group – these are the kinds of topics that focus
our attention on the making of content, not its distribution or exhibition.
Media executives know, however, that production is only one step in the arduous and risky process of
getting a mass media idea to an audience. Distribution is the delivery of the produced material to the point where
it will be shown to its intended audience. The activity takes place out of public view. We have already mentioned
the NBC acts as a distributor when it disseminates television programming via satellite to TV stations. When
Philadelphia Newspapers Inc. delivers its Philadelphia Inquirer to city newsstands, when Twentieth – Century –
Fox moves its Musicland stores, they are involved in distribution to exhibitions.
1. In this passage, “arduous” means________.
A. difficult B. lucrative C. lengthy D. free
2. The passage states that people tend to focus on production because _______.
A. it takes place out of public view
B. mass media companies do not own production divisions
C. the output of mass media is intended to grab our attention
D. companies can function as both producers and distributors
3. In this passage, to “disseminate” means to _______.
A. create B. send out C. take in D. fertilize
4. This passage states that distribution is_______.
A. the first step in mass media production
B. the most talked-about step in mass media production
C. at least as important as production
D. not as important as exhibition
5. The author’s purpose in writing this passage is to ________.
A. tell an interesting story B. define a concept clearly
C. describe a scene vividly D. argue with the reader
IV. WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences using the given words so that they have the same meaning as the
given sentences. Do not change the words given in any way.
1. Be careful of thieves if you go to that part of town. (Watch)
_____________________________________________________________________________
2. Please behave in my house as you would in your own house. (make)
_____________________________________________________________________________
3. Nobody helped me to build this. (own)
_____________________________________________________________________________
4. I don’t really like this kind of music. (keen)
_____________________________________________________________________________
5. Most university students need the financial support of their parents. (depend)
_____________________________________________________________________________
II. Wring a topic
“There are some advantages and disadvantages of the cinema. ”
Do you agree with this statement? Write an essay about 250 – 300 words to an educated non – specialist
audience on this topic. You should give reasons for your answers and include any relevant examples from your
own knowledge and experience.
PART A PRONUNCIATION
1. A. plays B. works C. lives D. buys

2. A. frogs B. villagers C. fields D. insects
3. A. page B. village C. damage D. luggage
4. A. safetyB. ready C. entry D. occupy
5. A. league B. equal C. creature D. menace
6. A. food B. school C. root D. wood
7. A. facility B. society C. necessity D. economy
8. A. stamped B. indulged C. accomplished D. practised
9. A. friends B. clubs C. tunes D. stamps
10. A. nowadays B. ruins C. pesticides D. dykes
PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR: 2.5 point
I. 10 pts: 1 pt/item
1. 2. C 3. 4. D 5. B 6. 7. A 8. 9. D 10. C
A A B D
II. 10pts: 1pt/ item
1. introduction 3. attention 5. failure 7. mistaken 9. punishments
2. successful 4. 6. revision 8. absences 10. gifted

unreadable
III. 15 pts: 1pt/item
1. 4. one 7. any 10. a 13. the

the
2. 5. a 8. of 11. √ 14. √
the
3. √ 6. √ 9. √ 12. √ 15. the
PART C. READING
I. 15 point: 1 pt/item
1.A 4. C 7. B 10. D 13. A
2. B 5.B 8. A 11. C 14. B
3. D 6. D 9. C 12. B 15. D
II. 5 points: 1 pt/ item
1. C 2. 3. D 4. 5. B
A A
III. 5 points: 1 pt /item

1. 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. B
A
PART D.
I. 5 points: 1pt/ item
1. Watch thieves if you go to that part of town.
2. Please make yourself at home.
3. I built this on my own.
4. I’m not really keen on this kind of music.
5 Most university students depend on the financial support of their parents.
II. 20 points
The candidate’s essay should include the following points:
- The writing passage should be well-organized: introduction, body and ending of the passage: 2.5 pts
- The ideas should be clarified with relevant and specific examples: 12.5 pts
- The writing passage is supposed to be free of grammatical and spelling errors: 5.0 pts
ENGLISH PRACTICE 45
SECTIONI–PHONETICS
sheet.( 10p)

past tense minutes.
3. He works for UNESCO in a purely ………….. role.

ADVICE
4. …………… of the new system will take several days.

INSTALL
6. Watching television can be very ……………..

EDUCATION
7. Teachers must keep a record of students’ ………………..

ATTEND
8. Our school set up a project to ……………. the library system.

COMPUTER
CAR CATCHES FIRE

A. to the duck. B. to the ducklings. C. to the action of the pike. D. to the time of the
day.
A. He caught and killed the pike. C. He vowed that he would catch the remaining ducklings
B. He remained determined to catch the pike.D. He caught a frog and used it as bait for the pike.
A. about thirty pounds. B. about two hundred and forty dollars.
C. the passage contains no information on this point. D. the passage says that the fish scaled nearly thirty pound.
A. Mysterious disappearance of ducklings. C. Record pike caught by an angry fisherman.
B. Revenge on a duck. D. Huge pike caught by fisherman after desperate struggle at sea.
- If …………………………………………………………………………………………
- He suggested ……………………………………………………………………………..
- Had it not ..………………………….……………………………………………………….
- That commentator, …………………………………………………………………………..
- Not until ……………………………….……………………………………………………..
- It ………………………………………………………….Gerge to help.
- I ……………………………………………into town by car.
........................................................................................................................................................................
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
-----------THE END-------------
1.
2. C 3. C 4. A 5. D
B
3.
1.A 2.D 4.C 5.A
B
5. A
2.
1.A 3. C 4. B
B
7. 10. B
6. D 8. C 9. C
C

12. feel/ will bring

11. On 6. on
12. for 7. for
13. to 8. at
14. from 9. from
15. with 10. out
immigrants.

5. A
1.C 2. A 3. C 4. B
10. D
6. D 7. B 8. D 9. B
1. 4.
2. C 3. B 5. C
D C
II.10 points
+ Easy to read
+ Coherent
ENGLISH PRACTICE 46
1. A. candy B. sandy C. many D. handy
2. A. earning C. searching D. clearing

earning
3. A. pays B. stays C. says D. plays
4. A. given B. risen C. ridden D. whiten
5. A. cough B. tough C. rough D. enough
6. A. eleven B. elephant C. energy D. envelope
7. A. preparation B. decoration C. television D. exhibition
8. A. leather B. paper C. iron D. ceramics
9. A. mirror B. invent C. wallet D. engine
10.A. discovery B. calculator C. aero-plane D. difficulty
III. Fill each blank with a suitable word or phrase.

11. The car can't have broken down. I_________ serviced last week.
12. If I_________ in that situation, I certainly wouldn't have had the courage to do what you did.
13. Although he had a difficult time during the war, it_________ harm.
14. It's no_________ the cold and wet, you'll just have to put up with it.
15. I won't have_________ their cars in the street outside the entrance to my house!
16. In times of hardship we have to learn to do_________ some basic necessities.
17. I'm_________ death of spiders!
18. I heard the thunder_________ in the distance.
19. He's been_________ weather for ages and still isn't back at work.
20. We made the uniforms ourselves as we couldn't_________ made.
IV. Find one underlined part marked A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.

past. A B C D
covering by water. A B C D
A B C
D
butterfly, whom birds do not like to eat. A B C D
A B C D
V. Give the right form of the word in each blanket in the following passage.
From what we had read in the (26. ADVERTISE)________, it promise to be the holiday of a lifetime –
not only a quality hotel in a top (27. SEA)_________ resort, but also (28. SURPRISE)_________ cheap with it!
We should have known it was too good to be true! We arrived at the airport to discover we only had (29.
STAND)_________ tickets and there was no guarantee we would be flying. Luckily, two places became free at
the last minute and we took off. The flight lasted at least (30. TWO)_________ as long as it should have and by
the time we arrived, we were both feeling rather (31. POOR)_________ , probably because of the dubious in-
flight meal we had had. We were met by our guide, who seemed (32. LANGUAGE)_________ incompetent and
understood very little of what we said to him. Instead of the hotel we had seen in the photograph back home, he
took us to a squalid little guesthouse much (33. FAR)_________ away from the resort than we were expecting.
We wanted to explain that there had been a (34. DREAD)_________ mistake but it was (35. USE)_________
trying to complain – nobody could understand us.
VI. Choose among A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks.
36. The child was told to__________ for being rude to his uncle.
A. forgive B. apologize C. excuse D. confess
37. This is the__________ of the bicycle which was stolen.
A. information B. detail C. example D. description
38. Some drives, after__________ annoy their fellow-motorists by slowing down again immediately.
A. passing along B. passing by C. overtaking D. taking over
39. It is__________ unlikely that the Queen agree to open the new Town Hall.
A. greatly B. highly C. mainly D. largely
40. I don't think he'll ever__________ the shock of his wife's death.
A. get by B. get over C. get off D. get through
41. Some school have very__________ rules of behavior which must be obeyed.
A. strict B. strong C. straight D. solid
42. It was difficult to__________ a date which was convenient for everyone.
A. organize B. arrange C. elect D. provide
43. It's difficult to pay one's bills when prices keep__________.
A. growing B. raising C. rising D. gaining
44. You may not have to stay the night but take a toothbrush just in__________.
A. preparation B. case C. time D. order
45. She remembered the correct address only__________ she had posted the letter.
A. since B. following C. after D. afterwards
VII. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage.
The Internet bus
In the desert areas that surround Tucson city, USA, students spend hundreds of hours on yellow buses
each year getting to and from their schools. But when mobile internet equipment was (46)____________ on a
yellow school bus, the bored, often noisy, teens were transformed into quiet, studious individuals.
District officials got the idea during (47)____________ drives on school business to Phoenix, two
hours each way, when they (48)____________ that, when they went in pairs, one person could drive and the
other could work using a laptop and a wireless card. They (49)____________ if internet access on a school bus
could (50)____________ students’ academic productivity, too.
But the idea for what students call ‘the internet bus’ really took shape when the district’s chief
information officer (51)____________ across an article about having internet across in cars. He thought, “What
if you could put that in a bus?”
The officials have been delighted to see the (52)____________ of homework getting done, morning
and evening, as the internet bus (53)____________ up and drops off students along the 70-minute drive.
VIII. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word.

TRAVEL INSURANCE
something goes (56)________ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or even
become ill and need expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a
precaution (57)________ will help them have an enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for (58)________, travel
insurance is a way of earning money (59)________ making false claims against insurance companies. For
(60)________ some people pretend that they have had expensive equipment stolen which in (61)________ never
even existed, and then claim large sums in compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total
(62)________ £ 50 million per year. But the cheats’ luck is about to run (63)________. (64)________ to a new
computer system, companies will be able to tell at a glance (65)________ someone has made a claim within the
last three years. Honest travelers will no longer have to pay through the nose for other people’s dishonesty.
IX. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in dense fog, a
pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining
speeds of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of
radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps
a person determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves.
Radio waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short
burst of radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By determining
the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance between
the radar set and other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets its name from the term “radio detection and
ranging”. “Ranging” is the term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being
of critical importance to pilots, radar is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking
weather systems and storms.
66. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The nature of radar. B. History of radar.
C. Alternatives to radar. D. Types of ranging.
67. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?
A. Shape B. Size C. Speed D. Weight
68. The word “exemplified” in the passage can be replaced by_________.
A. “specified” B. “resembled” C. “illustrated” D. “justified”
69. The word “shouts” in the passage most closely means_________.
A. “exclaims” B. “yells” C. “shoots” D. “whispers”
70. Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?
A. argumentative B. explanatory C. humorous D. imaginative
71. According to the passage, the distance between a radar set and an object can be determined by_________.
A. the time it takes for a burst of radio waves to produce echoes when the waves bounce off the object
B. the term “ranging” used for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set
C. the time it takes for the radio waves to produce echoes and bounce off the object
D. the time it takes for the echoes produced by the radio waves to return to the radar set
72. Which type of waves does radar use?
A. tidal B. sound C. heat D. radio
73. The word “tracking” in the passage most closely means_________.
A. sending B. searching for C. ranging D. repairing
74. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. A history of flying. B. Other uses of radar.
C. The technology used by pilots. D. Uses of some technology.
75. What might be inferred about radar?
A. It takes the place of a radio. B. It has improved navigational safety.
C. It was developed from a study of sound waves.
D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.
X. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one, using the word in capital letters
which must not be altered in any way.
→ You should ______________________________________.
→ There isn’t ______________________________________.
78. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now. (halved)
→ The coal produced _____________________________.
→ The likelihood __________________________________.
80. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident. (prompt)
→ The policeman’s ________________________________.
XI. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given.
→ If it hadn’t _______________________________________________.
→ There has _______________________________________________.
→ They stole _______________________________________________.
→ He tried in vain _________________________________________.
→ No sooner _______________________________________________.
XII. Writing an essay.

“Soft-skills are more and more needed for future jobs”.
____________THE END____________
I. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer. II. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

1. C 2. D 3. C 4. 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A
D
III. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

11. only had it 14. good/ use grumbling/ complaining 17. frightened/ scared
12. had been about to
13. did him no/ did not (seem to) do 15. people parking 18. rumbling
him any
16. without 19. under the
20. afford to have

them
IV. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

21. 22. D 23. 24. D 25. D
C B
V (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

.
26. advertisement 28. surprisingly 30. twice 32. linguistically 34. dreadful
27. seaside 29. standby 31. 33. farther/ further 35. useless
poorly
VI (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

.
36. B 37. D 38. C 39. 40. B 41. A 42. B 43. C 44. 45. C
B B

VII. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

46. A 47. B 48. D 49. 50. A 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. C 55. C
D
VIII (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

.
56. wrong 58. other/ some 60. example/ instance 62. of 64. Thanks
57. which 59. by 61. fact 63. out 65. whether/ if
IX. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

66. A 67. C 68. 69. B 70. B 71. 72. D 73. B 74. B 75. B
C D
X. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.

76. → You should take the price into consideration before you decide whether to buy it or not.
77. → There isn’t much call for cars with large engines any more.
78. → The coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
79. → The likelihood is small of the PM calling an early general election.
80. → The policeman’s prompt action averted an accident.
XI. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.

81. → If it hadn’t been for my father’s money, we could not have managed.
82. → There has been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
83. → They stole everything except for/but/apart from the television.
84. → He tried in vain to search for the stolen car.
85. → No sooner had the guests left than she started to clean up the house.
XII.
(15pts) Students’ own answers
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content,
and linking devices
ENGLISH PRACTICE 47
I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
II. Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in each line.
III. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence.
11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _______ of identical products.
12. Only the _______ of the building is going to be remodeled.
13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _______ to me.
14. After years of neglect there was a huge _______ program to return the city to its former glory.
15. The assistant suggested _______ the next day when the manager would be there.
A. we are coming back B. to come back C. we will come back D. we came back
16. I never get a _______ of sleep after watching a horror film.
17. As it was Christmas, the _______ at church was much larger than usual.
18. The sheep were huddled into a _______ to protect them from overnight frosts.
19. The jury _______ the defendant “not guilty”.
20. Many _______ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _______ of his tutor.
22. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _______ of his service to his country.
23. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _______ any solutions.
24. You _______ as well seek for a fish in the tree as try to do that.
25. _______ calculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out before the end of the next century.
26. By the time you receive this letter, I _______ for China.
27. Prizes are awarded _______ the number of points scored.
28. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _______ neglected.
29. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _______ over 20 minutes a day.
30. It had been a trying afternoon, _______ at about six o’clock in the television breaking down.
IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed (0) has been done as an example.
V. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. (0) has been done as an example.
VI. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
that human tears are (51)_______ of an aquatic past – but this does not seem very likely. We cry from the
moment we enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to persuade their parents that they are
ill, hungry or uncomfortable. As they (52)_______, they will also cry just to attract parental attention and will
often stop when they get it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (53)_______ is a very old one and now it has scientific validity since
recent research into tears has shown that they (54)_______ a natural painkiller called enkaphalin. By fighting
sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can increase the quantities of enkaphalin you
(55)_______.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (56)_______ activity. Because some
people still regard it as a (57)_______ of weakness in men, boys in particular are admonished when they cry.
This kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (58)_______ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them
(59)_______ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (60)_______ “weepies”. It seems
that people enjoy crying together almost as much as laughing together.
VII. Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train
carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a snowstorm and had to
be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons
he had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross
the “Great American Desert” to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United
States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and
stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that
familiar bluejoint grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless. Who
could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves
all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that
made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite
grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and
autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did not
need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they
63. The word “they” in line 4 refers to________.
65. The word “barren” in line 7 is closed in meaning to________.
66. The word “preferred” in line 8 is closed in meaning to________.
A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass
70. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by________.
A. eating only small quantities of grass.
B. continually moving from one grazing area to another.
C. naturally fertilizing the soil.
D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.
VIII. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before
it
→ An increased_________________________________________________.
→ Rather _______________________________________________________.
→ The moment_________________________________________________.
→ At no time ___________________________________________________.
→ Other ________________________________________________________?
IX. Use the word(s) given in the brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence in
such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of
the given word(s).
→ To this day_________________ in the field of technology.
→ Peter_________________ the foul-tasting medicine.
78. It’s unfortunately that the construction of the building will not be finished as originally planned.
→ The construction of the building_________________ unfortunate. (longer)
→ What he told me_________________ the story.
→ They chose_________________ too much snow.
______________THE END_______________

1. 2. A 3. C 4. 5. B 6. 7. B 8. 9. A 10. D
B C D A

11. B 12. B 13. 14. A 15. D 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C
A
21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. A 27. 28. B 29. B 30. A
D
31. valuable 33. length 35. tightened 37. lowered 39. embarrassment
32. frightened 34. 36. terrified 38. repeatedly 40. heights
worldwide
V (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.

.
41. acquired 43. a 45. to 47. as 49. certain
42. explicitly few 46. vocational 48. assume 50. intended
44. to

51. 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. D 56. 57. D 58. B 59. A 60. D
B C
VII. (20pts) 2 points/correct answer.

61. 62. B 63. C 64. D 65. 66. A 67. C 68. B 69. 70. B
A C D
VIII. (20pts) 2 points/correct answer.

71 → An increased number of travelers is being stopped by customs officials this week.
. → Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
72 → The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
. → At no time did he suspect that the bicycle had been stolen.
73 → Other than to offer to lend her some money, how could I help?
IX. .
74 → To this day his achievements are unsurpassed in the field of technology.
.
75 → Peter pulled a face as he swallowed the foul-tasting medicine.
.
76 → The construction of the building will take longer than originally planned, which is unfortunate.
.
77 → What he told me whetted my appetite for the rest of the story.
. → They chose not to drive for fear of too much snow.
78
.
79
.
80
.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 48
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words.
1. A. latter B. label C. ladder D. latitude
2. A. pour B. roar C. flour D. soar
3. A. chase B. purchase C. bookcase D. suitcase
4. A. thread B. feather C. bread D. bead
5. A. prepare B. preface C. preparation D. prejudice
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words.
6. A. amphibian B. champagne C. cathedral D. creature
7. A. accommodation B. antibiotic C. counterclockwise D.
deforestation
8. A. consciousness B. ecotourism C. biosphere D. confirm
9. A. architectural B. cosmopolitan C. appreciative D. archeologist
10. A. consolidate B. context C. conference D. confidence
III. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones.
11. From 1949 onward, the artist Georgia O’keeffe made New Mexico_________.
A. her permanent residence was B. where her permanent residence
C. permanent residence for her D. her permanent residence
12. Just as remote-controlled satellites can be employed to explore outer space, _________ employed to
investigate the deep sea.
A. can be robots B. robots can be C. can robots D. can robots that are
13. _________ is not clear to researchers.
A. Why dinosaurs having become extinct. B. Why dinosaurs became extinct
C. Did dinosaurs become extinct D. Dinosaurs became extinct
14. The first transatlantic telephone cable system was not established _______ 1956.
A. while B. until C. on D. when
15. Drinking water ___________ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the
enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. in which containing C. contains D. that contain
16. In the 1820’s physical education became___________ of the curriculum of Harvard and Yale Universities.
A. to be part B. which was part C. was part D part
17. If you can win his attention ___________ for you.
A. the so much better B. the better so much
C. so much the better D. so the much better
18. The President resigned; the whiff of scandal remained ____________.
A. otherwise B. therefore C. immediately D. nevertheless
19. Which __________ agency do you work for?
A. ads B. advertised C. advertising D. advertisement
20. Van Gogh suffered from depression ____________ by overwork and ill-health.
A. brought on B. coming about C. taken up D. put through
IV. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR CORRECT
FORMS.
21. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully, they would have realized that the
second was superior than the first:
22. Malnutrition is a major cause of death in those countries where the cultivation of rice have been impeded by
recurrent drought.
23. Because the residents had worked so diligent to renovate the old building, the manager had a party.
24. John’s wisdom teeth were troubling him, so he went to a dental surgeon to see about having them pull.
25. Time spends very slowly when you are waiting for a bus to arrive
26. Judy decided to wait until after she had taken her exams before having her wisdom teeth pull.
27. Hardly the plane had landed when Adam realized that he had left the file that he needed at his office.
28. When she was asked for her opinion on the course, she said it had been a waist of time.
29. I try to remember your name but I am afraid I cannot remember it.
30. I’d prefer to do it on myself because other people make me nervous.
V. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE.

31. I know ________ experience that I do my best work early in the morning.
32. I am astonished ________ the way my students can spend all night at the disco and still remember their
prepositions next morning.
33. Is it possible to insure yourself ________ nuclear attack?
34. At school today, we had a long discussion _______ the best way to learn a foreign language.
35. “How can I discourage my boyfriend _______ trying to kiss me all the time?” “Eat plenty of garlic.”
36. Raise the gun to your shoulder, aim _______ the target, and try not to kill anyone.
37. Small children should be watched ____________ carefully.
38. Would you give up your country cottage __________ a town flat?
39. He’ll inherit the money when he comes ______________ age.
40. The performance on the first night came ______________ pretty.
VI. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word.

41. (ADAPT)__________ to a new environment is a difficult thing for old people.
42. Police asked (PASS) ______________ if they had seen the accident happen.
43. What a (WORRY) ______________pair of children. They have to be watched every minute of the day.
44. Children are taught from young to be (RESPECT) _____________ to their elders.
45. They frequently (MOBILE) _________________ the traffic as they march through the streets.
46. He shook his head in _____________ (APPROVE)
47. He fought the illness with courage and ________________ (DETERMINE)
48. She seems (REASON) __________happy in her new job.
49. Can we (ARRANGE) _____________the meeting for next Monday at 7?
50. If you weren’t so (ACT)_______________, you wouldn’t be so fat!
VII. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D.
Action scenes in films
Modern cinema audiences expect to see plenty of thrilling scenes in action films. These scenes, which
are (51)_________ as stunts, are usually performed by stuntmen who are specially trained to do dangerous things
safely. (52) ________ can crash a car, but if you are shooting a film, you have to be extremely (53)_________
sometimes stopping right in front of the camera and film crew. At an early (54)_________ in the production, an
expert stuntman is (55)_________ in to work out the action scenes and form a team. He is the only person who
can go (56)__________ the wishes of the director, although he will usually only do this in the (57)_________ of
safety.
Many famous actors like to do the dangerous parts themselves, which produces better shots, since stuntmen
don’t have to (58)________ in for the actors. Actors like to become (59)________ in all the important aspects of
the character they are playing, but without the recent progress in safety equipment, insurance companies would
never let them take the risk. To do their own stunts, actors need to be good athletes, but they must also be
sensible and know their (60)_________.If they were to be hurt, the film would come to a sudden halt.
51. A. remarked B. known C. referred D. named

52. A. Everyone B. Someone C. Anyone D. No one
53. A. detailed B. plain C. straight D. precise
54. A. period B. minute C. part D. stage
55. A. led B. taken C. drawn D. called
56. A. over B. against C. through D. across
57. A. interests B. needs C. purposes D. regards
58. A. work B. get C. put D. stand
59. A. connected B. arranged C. involved D. affected
60. A. limits B. ends C. frontiers D. borders
VIII. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word.

THE BIRTH OF THE T-SHIRT
The T-shirt, or at least the T-shirt as we know it, was born in the theatre. When Tennessee William's
play A Streetcar Named Oesire opened in New York in December 1947, a young actor (61)________ Marlon
Brando went (62)________ stage wearing a (63)________ of blue jeans and a bright, white, capped-sleeve T-
shirt. It was the first time the T-shirt had been seen publicly as anything (64)________ an item of underwear and
it set a fashion trend that was to last through (65)________ the end of the century. The idea for the T-shirt came
(66)________ Brando himself. He had worn one at rehearsals for the play. The director was so impressed by the
look that was created that he asked Brando to wear the shirt in the play itself. Brando may have seen the shirt
being advertised by the American company Sears Roebuck. They had decided to market the shirt (67)________
a fashionable garment in its (68)________ right, rather than just something to be worn (69)________ warmth
beneath a denim work shirt (70)________ an army uniform. It was Brando, however, who popularized it,
especially with the release of the film version of Streetcar in 1951. A short leather jacket completed the look that
was to be adopted by teenage rebels in many countries for decades afterwards.
IX. Read the following passage and choose the best answer.
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or
have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast
numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct. What is
alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by
poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification.
This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals, such as Bengal
tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws
protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an
effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then charge
admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world
organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals.
Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from
endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from being hunted and
killed.
A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
72. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “alarming” in the first paragraph?
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
73. The word “poachers” as used in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. illegal hunters B. enterprising researchers
C. concerned scientists D. trained hunters
74. The word “callousness” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. indirectness B. independence C. incompetence D. insensitivity
75. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast.
A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and contrast D. specific and general information
76. What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to in the passage?
A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
77. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in the second paragraph?
A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off
78. The word “defray” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. lower B. raise C. make a payment on D. make an investment toward
79. What does the term “international boycott” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. buying and selling of animal products overseas
B. a refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. a global increase in animal survival
D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
80. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised
X. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.
81. She never seems to succeed even though she works hard.
→ Hard ____________________________________________________.
82. Do all the washing, please!
→ Let ______________________________________________________.
83. I regret not going to the airport to say good bye to him.
→ I wish ___________________________________________________.
84. Mick thought that we were married.
→ Mick was under ________________________________________.
85. The only thing that kept us out of prison was the way he spoke the local dialect.
→ But for his command __________________________________.
XI. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic:
Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of motorbikes. Others blame
for man’s fault. Which point of view do you agree? State at least three relevant evidences.
_____________THE END____________

1. 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. 8. D 9. C 10. D
B C

11. D 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. 19. C 20. A
D
21. to the first 23. diligently 25. Time passes 27. had the 29. am trying
plane 30. by myself
22. has 24. them pulled 26. pulled
28. waste of time
V (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.

.
31. from 33. against 35. from 37. over 39. of
32. at/by 34. about 36. at 38. for 40. off
41. Adaptation 43. worrisome 45. immobilize 47. determination 49. rearrange
42. passers-by 44. respectful 46. disapproval 48. reasonably 50. inactive
VII. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.

51. B 52. C 53. D 54. D 55. D 56. B 57. A 58. D 59. C 60. A
VIII (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.

.
61. named/called 63. pair 65. to/until 67. as 69. for
68. own 70. or
62. on 64. but/ except 66. from
IX. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.

71. 72. D 73. A 74. D 75. 76. C 77. A 78. C 79. B 80. B
C A

81. → Hard as/ though she works, she never seems to succeed.
82.
83. → Let all the washing be done.
84.
85. → I wish I had gone to the airport to say good bye to him.
XI.
→ Mick was under the impression that we were married
→ But for his command of the local dialect, we could have been put into prison/ jail.
(15pts) Students’ own answers
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content, the
candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language, the
candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
and linking devices
ENGLISH PRACTICE 49
A. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer in each of the following questions. (15 pts)
01: They had meals together in the school______.
A. café B. restaurant C. canteen D. bar
02: You should______ your pounds for dollars before going to New York.
A. change B. convert C. turn D. exchange
03: Who is the______ of this company?
A. top B. head C. leader D. minister
04: His sister's marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man______.
A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know
C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know
05: Instead of ______ about the good news, Peter seemed to be indifferent.
A. exciting B. being excited C. to excite D. to be excited
06: She nearly lost her own life______ attempting to save the child from drowning.
A. at B. with C. in D. for
07: If I could speak German, I______ next year studying in Berlin.
A. will spend B. had spent C. would spend D. would have spent
08: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is______.
A. another B. other C. the another D. the other
09: The police are______ an incident which took place this afternoon.
A. inspecting B. searching C. looking out D.
investigating
10: Someone wanted to______ Belle Vue Hotel to us.
A. introduce B. direct C. recommend D. tell
11: Tony never comes to class on time and______.
A. neither does Pedro B. so does Pedro C. so doesn’t Pedro D. neither doesn’t
Pedro
12: Tom: “Thank you for your help.” ~ Mary: “____________.”
A. With all my heart B. It’s my pleasure C. Never mind me D. No
problem
13: We______ won the game if we’d had a few more minutes.
A. have B. will C. had D. could have
14: Mr. Ba is intelligent but he______ common sense.
A. fails B. lacks C. misses D. wants
15: We’ll play tennis and______ we’ll have lunch.
A. after B. then C. so D. immediately
II: Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank space. (5 pts)
1. How much does______ of this club cost? (MEMBER) MEMBERSHIP
2. She is extremely______ about the history of art. (KNOW) KNOWLEDGEABLE
3. Traveling in big cities is becoming more and more______ every day. (TROUBLE) TROUBLESOME
4. He is completely______! Not only is he lazy but he is dishonest too. (EMPLOY) UNEMPLOYABLE
5. His boss told him off because he had behaved______. (RESPONSIIBLE) IRRESPONSIBLY
III: Complete each sentence with one of the idiomatic phrases given. Use each phrase once only. (6 pts)
made her blood boil jumped out of her skin had a lump in her throat
lost her head gave me the cold shoulder took her breath away
1. Pauline completely ignored me this morning. She______.

2. It really______ to see her friend copy a poem she had written and then present it to her boyfriend as one that
she had written for him.
3. Saying goodbye to her son was a very emotional occasion for her and she______ as she watched him get on
the train.
4. The view from the top of the mountain was absolutely fantastic. It really______.
5. Susan panicked when the fire broke out. She______.
6. When I dropped that tray behind her, she got a shock. She almost______.
IV: Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form. (14 pts)
1. Mr. Pike, who is supposed______ (witness) the accident, has left the town.
2. At this time next week they______ (sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
3. He said that he watered the plants every day. He______ (water) them. If he had, they wouldn’t have died.
4. No sooner the announcement______ (make) than everyone started complaining.
5. They said they never______ (make) to do anything they didn’t want to before.
6. We______ (watch) the play for nearly thirty minutes when he came.
7. The pop star who______ (take) part in over 25 films always avoids______ (recognize) by wearing dark
glasses.
8. There’s no point in______ (try) to get Tim______ (lend) you his car.
9. Not until John______ (receive) the offer of promotion in writing he______ (celebrate)
10. He______ (have) trouble with the second-hand car since he bought it. He wishes he______ (not / buy) it.
V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need correction in
each of the following questions. (5 pts)
01: She asked why did I look so embarrassed when I saw her.
A B C D
02: There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Mexico.
A B C D
03: Could you mind telling me the way to the nearest post office?
A B C D
04: The children were playing last night outdoors when it began to rain very hard.
A B C D
05: I’d prefer to do it on myself, because other people make me nervous.
A B C D
B. READING
I: Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle letter A, B, C or
D next to the answer you choose. (10 pts)
If you’re an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a
symbol of our wasteful, throw-way society. But there seems little (1)______ it is here to stay, and the truth is, of
course, that plastic has brought enormous (2)______ even environmental ones. It’s not really the plastics
themselves that are the environmental (3)______ – it’s the way society choose to use and abuse them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal – non-renewable
natural (4)______. We import well over three million tons of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later,
most of it is thrown away. A high proportion of our annual consumption is in the (5)______ of packaging, and
this (6)______ about seven per cent by weight of our domestic refuse. Almost all of it could be recycled, but
very little of it is, though the plastic recycling (7)______ is growing fast.
The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich – they have a higher calorific (8)______ than coal
and one (9)______ of ‘recovery’ strongly favored by the plastic manufacturers is the (10)______ of waste
plastic into a fuel.
1. A. evidence B. concern C. doubt D. likelihood
2. A. pleasures B. benefits C. savings D. profits
3. A. poison B. disaster C. disadvantage D. evil
4. A. resources B. processes C. products D. fuels
5. A. way B. kind C form D. type
6. A. takes B. makes C. carries D. constitutes
7. A. manufacture B. plant C. factory D. industry
8. A. degree B. value C. demand D. effect
9. A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium
10. A. conversion B. melting C. change D. replacement
II: Read the following text and then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 pts)
I was reading an article last week in (1)______ the writer described how her children has changed as
they grow up. When they were small she had to (2)______ up with noisy games in the house, or join in
interminable games of football in the garden which wore her out. If the house went quiet, she wondered what the
monsters were getting up to, or what crisis she would have to (3)______ with next. She dreaded the fact that they
might take after her husband, who admitted having (4)_____ an uncontrollable child who (5)______ most of the
time showing off to his friends by breaking things or getting into fights. What was worse was that (6)______
else thought he was a sweet child, and he got away with the most terrible things! However, she had experienced
an even greater shocked with her children. They had (7)______ out of all their naughty behavior, and
(12)______ up serious hobbies (8)______ as chess and playing the piano. They never did anything without
(9)______ it over first, and coming to a serious decision. She had to face up to the fact that they made her feel
rather childish as they got (10)______, and that in some ways she preferred them when they were young and
noisy.
III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the questions. (10 pts)
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the future
will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile engines have
already been developed than run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas,
methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option presently
available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other dependable
source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday
life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes and
trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are focusing
on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging facilities will need
to be as common as today’s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be
equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To
encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centres might be reserved
for electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all meeting at transit centres
that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of electric cars to
suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer
trips, which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of
vehicles that can be carried by freeway today.
01: The author’s purpose in the passage is to______.
A. criticize conventional vehicles C. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles
B. support the invention of electric cars D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future
02: The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT______.
A. planes B. trolleys C. vans D. trains
03: The passage would most likely be followed by details about______.
A. the neighborhood of the fixture C. electric shuttle buses
B. automated freeways D. pollution restrictions in the future
04: The word ‘compact’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. squared B. long-range C. inexpensive D.
concentrated
05: In the second paragraph, the author implies that______.
A. everyday life will stay much the same in our fixture.
B. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation
C. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future
06: According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be______.
A. much larger than they are today C. common as today’s gas stations
B. more convenient than they are today D. equipped with charging devices
07: The word ‘charging’ in this passage refers to______.
A. aggression B. lightning C. electricity D. credit
cards
08: The word ‘foresee’ in this passage could best be replaced with______.
A. imagine B. count on C. rely on D. invent
09: The word ‘commuters’ in paragraph 4 refers to______.
A. visitors B. cab drivers C. shoppers D. daily
travelers
10: The word ‘hybrid' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. hazardous B. futuristic C. automated D.
combination
C. WRITING
I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it. (5 pts)
1. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
Scarcely
Rather
3. The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week.
There has
4. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
Had it not
5. Harriet was upset because she saw Peter with another woman.
It was
II: Topic: Media are said to affect us different ways. Discuss the matter in a composition. (20 pts)
-------------Hết-----------
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Họ và tên thí sinh:…………………….………..…….…….….….; Số báo danh……………………
KEYS- PRACTICE 49
A. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer in each of the following questions. (15 pts)
01: They had meals together in the school______.
A. café B. restaurant C. canteen D. bar
02: You should______ your pounds for dollars before going to New York.
A. change B. convert C. turn D. exchange
03: Who is the______ of this company?
A. top B. head C. leader D. minister
04: His sister's marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man______.
A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know
C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know
05: Instead of ______ about the good news, Peter seemed to be indifferent.
A. exciting B. being excited C. to excite D. to be excited
06: She nearly lost her own life______ attempting to save the child from drowning.
A. at B. with C. in D. for
07: If I could speak German, I______ next year studying in Berlin.
A. will spend B. had spent C. would spend D. would have spent
08: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is______.
A. another B. other C. the another D. the other
09: The police are______ an incident which took place this afternoon.
A. inspecting B. searching C. looking out D.
investigating
10: Someone wanted to______ Belle Vue Hotel to us.
A. introduce B. direct C. recommend D. tell
11: Tony never comes to class on time and______.
A. neither does Pedro B. so does Pedro C. so doesn’t Pedro D. neither doesn’t Pedro
12: Tom: “Thank you for your help.” ~ Mary: “____________.”
A. With all my heart B. It’s my pleasure C. Never mind me D. No
problem
13: We______ won the game if we’d had a few more minutes.
A. have B. will C. had D. could have
14: Mr. Ba is intelligent but he______ common sense.
A. fails B. lacks C. misses D. wants
15: We’ll play tennis and______ we’ll have lunch.
A. after B. then C. so D. immediately
II: Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank space. (5 pts)
1. How much does_ membership_ of this club cost?(MEMBER) MEMBERSHIP
2. She is extremely__ knowledgeable _ about the history of art.(KNOW) KNOWLEDGEABLE
3. Traveling in big cities is becoming more and more_ troublesome__ every day. (TROUBLE)
4. He is completely_ unemployable _! Not only is he lazy but he is dishonest too.(EMPLOY)

5. His boss told him off because he had behaved _irresponsibly__. (RESPONSIIBLE) IRRESPONSIBLY
III: Complete each sentence with one of the idiomatic phrases given. Use each phrase once only. (6 pts)
1. gave me the cold shoulder 3. had a lump in her throat 5. lost her head
2. made her blood boil 4. took her breath away 6. jumped out of her skin
1. Pauline completely ignored me this morning. She______.
2. It really______ to see her friend copy a poem she had written and then present it to her boyfriend as one that
she had written for him.
3. Saying goodbye to her son was a very emotional occasion for her and she______ as she watched him get on
the train.
4. The view from the top of the mountain was absolutely fantastic. It really______.
5. Susan panicked when the fire broke out. She______.
6. When I dropped that tray behind her, she got a shock. She almost______.
IV: Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form. (14 pts)
1. Mr. Pike, who is supposed__ to have witnessed _ (witness) the accident, has left the town.
2. At this time next week they_ will be sitting __ (sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
3. He said that he watered the plants every day. He_ couldn’t have watered _ (water) them. If he had, they
wouldn’t have died.
4. No sooner the announcement_ had …. been made _ (make) than everyone started complaining.
5. They said they never_ had never been made __ (make) to do anything they didn’t want to before.
6. We_ had been watching _ (watch) the play for nearly thirty minutes when he came.
7. The pop star who_ has taken __ (take) part in over 25 films always avoids_ being recognised _ (recognize)
by wearing dark glasses.
8. There’s no point in_ trying _ (try) to get Tim_ to lend __ (lend) you his car.
9. Not until John_(had) received __ (receive) the offer of promotion in writing he_ did he celebrate _
(celebrate)
10. He__ has had _ (have) trouble with the second-hand car since he bought it. He wishes he_ hadn’t bought _
(not / buy) it.
V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need correction in
each of the following questions. (5 pts)
01: She asked why did I look so embarrassed when I saw her.
A B C D
02: There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Mexico.
A B C D
03: Could you mind telling me the way to the nearest post office?
A B C D
04: The children were playing last night outdoors when it began to rain very hard.
A B C D
05: I’d prefer to do it on myself, because other people make me nervous.
A B C D
B. READING
I: Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle letter A, B, C or
D next to the answer you choose. (10 pts)
If you’re an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a
symbol of our wasteful, throw-way society. But there seems little (1)______ it is here to stay, and the truth is, of
course, that plastic has brought enormous (2)______ even environmental ones. It’s not really the plastics
themselves that are the environmental (3)______ – it’s the way society choose to use and abuse them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal – non-renewable
natural (4)______. We import well over three million tons of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later,
most of it is thrown away. A high proportion of our annual consumption is in the (5)______ of packaging, and
this (6)______ about seven per cent by weight of our domestic refuse. Almost all of it could be recycled, but
very little of it is, though the plastic recycling (7)______ is growing fast.
The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich – they have a higher calorific (8)______ than coal
and one (9)______ of ‘recovery’ strongly favored by the plastic manufacturers is the (10)______ of waste
plastic into a fuel.
1. A. evidence B. concern C. doubt D. likelihood
2. A. pleasures B. benefits C. savings D. profits
3. A. poison B. disaster C. disadvantage D. evil
4. A. resources B. processes C. products D. fuels
5. A. way B. kind C form D. type
6. A. takes B. makes C. carries D. constitutes
7. A. manufacture B. plant C. factory D. industry
8. A. degree B. value C. demand D. effect
9. A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium
10. A. conversion B. melting C. change D.

replacement
II: Read the following text and then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 pts)
I was reading an article last week in (1)_ which _ the writer described how her children has changed as
they grow up. When they were small she had to (2)_put__ up with noisy games in the house, or join in
interminable games of football in the garden which wore her out. If the house went quiet, she wondered what
the monsters were getting up to, or what crisis she would have to (3)_deal_ with next. She dreaded the fact that
they might took after her husband, who admitted having (4)_been_ an uncontrollable child who (5)_spent__
most of the time showing off to his friends by breaking things or getting into fights. What was worse was that
(6)_everyone__ else thought he was a sweet child, and he got away with the most terrible things! However, she
had experienced an even greater shocked with her children. They had (7)_grown__ out of all their naughty
behavior, and taken up serious hobbies (8)_such__ as chess and playing the piano. They never did anything
without (9)__taking__ it over first, and coming to a serious decision. She had to face up to the fact that they
made her feel rather childish as they got (10)_older__, and that in some ways she preferred them when they were
young and noisy.
III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the questions. (10 pts)
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the future
will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile engines have
already been developed than run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas,
methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option presently
available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other dependable
source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday
life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes and
trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are focusing
on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging facilities will need
to be as common as today’s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be
equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To
encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centres might be reserved
for electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all meeting at transit centres
that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of electric cars to
suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer
trips, which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of
vehicles that can be carried by freeway today.
01: The author’s purpose in the passage is to______.
A. criticize conventional vehicles C. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles
B. support the invention of electric cars D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future
02: The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT______.
A. planes B. trolleys C. vans D. trains
03: The passage would most likely be followed by details about______.
A. the neighborhood of the fixture C. electric shuttle buses
B. automated freeways D. pollution restrictions in the future
04: The word ‘compact’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. squared B. long-range C. inexpensive D.
concentrated
05: In the second paragraph, the author implies that______.
A. everyday life will stay much the same in our fixture.
B. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation
C. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future
06: According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be______.
A. much larger than they are today C. common as today’s gas stations
B. more convenient than they are today D. equipped with charging devices
07: The word ‘charging’ in this passage refers to______.
A. aggression B. lightning C. electricity D. credit
cards
08: The word ‘foresee’ in this passage could best be replaced with______.
A. imagine B. count on C. rely on D. invent
09: The word ‘commuters’ in paragraph 4 refers to______.
A. visitors B. cab drivers C. shoppers D. daily
travelers
10: The word ‘hybrid' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. hazardous B. futuristic C. automated D.
combination
C. WRITING
I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it. (5 pts)
1. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill.
Scarcely had he been appointed to the post when the new editor fell ill.
Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
3. The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week.
There has been a considerable fall in the value of sterling in the past week.
Had it not been for the attendance of a famous film star the party would not have been a success.
5. Harriet was upset because she saw Peter with another woman.
It was because she saw Peter with another woman that Harriet was upset / that upset Harriet.
II: Topic: Media are said to affect us different ways. Discuss the matter in a composition. (20 pts)
I think the media pay too much attention to the private lives of famous people. Television, newspapers,
magazines and web sites dig up all kinds of past bad actions. They say that these are true reflections of a
person's character. This may be true if they occurred only a few years before, but some of these are things
people did as teenagers. People in their forties are expected to explain something they did when they were
fifteen. If they killed someone, obviously that's more than a youthful mistake. Usually, though, these incidents
involve experiments with drugs or being reckless in a car. They're not something that the public needs to know.
The media love to say that the public has a right to know. That's not true. We don't need to know if a
movie star or politician has had an extramarital affair. That is something of concern only to the people involved.
We do need to know if someone we're electing to public office has been involved in shady business deals, but we
don't need to know if he or she defaulted on a loan twenty years ago.
It seems the media dig up these facts without giving thoughtful consideration to what might happen. It
has an effect on the celebrity's family, especially the children. A celebrity's good name and credibility may be
ruined before he or she can prove that rumors are false. If a case goes to court, paying a lawyer can use up all
their money. Even if it doesn't come to that, they may find their career ruined.
When are we, the public, going to make it clear to the media that we're tired of having to watch this
kind of thing on the news? Wouldn't it be better if they would concentrate on more important issues?
ENGLISH PRACTICE 50
11.A. geology B. psychology C. classify D. photography
12.A. idiom B. ideal C. item D. identical
13.A. B. child C. mild D. wild

children
14.A. both B. myth C. with D. sixth
15.A. helped B. booked C. hoped D. waited
16.A. B. suburban C. internet D. character
difference
17.A. beautiful B. effective C. favorite D. popular
18.A. attraction B. government C. borrowing D. visit
19.A. difficulty B. individual C. population D. unemployment
20.A. biology B. redundancy C. interviewer D. comparative
III. Each of the numbered lines in the passage contains a mistake, find and correct it.
IV. Choose among A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks.
21. You shouldn't have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely__________ of you.
A. unfortunate B. insensitive C. unconscious D. insensible
22. The job was more difficult than I__________ expected it to be.
A. might B. would C. have D. had
23. We had so many problems with the car that__________ we sold it and bought a new one.
A. to the end B. by the end C. at the end D. in the end
24. His parents think it's time he__________ married.
A. gets B. would get C. will get D. got
25. He__________ me to buy my air ticket immediately or it would be too late.
A. suggested B. convinced C. insisted D. advised
26. You will become ill__________ you stop working so hard.
A. until B. if C. unless D. when
27.__________ I ask him for the money he owes me, he says he will bring it in a few days, but I don't think he
has got it at all.
A. However B. Wherever C. Whatever D. Whenever
28. It was impossible for her to tell the truth so she had to__________ a story.
A. combine B. invent C. lie D. manager
29. He is very stubborn, so it will be difficult to__________ him to go.
A. make B. suggest C. persuade D. prevent
30. I hope he's__________ to buy some bread; there's hardly any left.
A. reminded B. proposed C. remembered D. suggested
V. Circle the option A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.

31. Antarctica, which is largely covered by ice, receive hardly any rainfall.
A. largely B. rainfall C. receive D. hardly any
32. Jessica is only an amateur, but she sings sweeter than most professionals.
A. than B. sweeter C. is only D. an
33. Mrs. Adams was surprising that her son and his friend had gone to the mountains to ski.
A. her B. to ski C. surprising D. had gone
34. A cure for the common cold, causing by a virus, has not been found.
A. causing B. for C. a virus D. has not been
found
35. Amelia Earhart, that was one of the pioneers in aviation, attempted to fly the world in 1937, but she and her
plane mysteriously disappeared over the Pacific Ocean.
A. over B. that C. in aviation D. attempted to fly
VI. Use the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank space.
One (36. CHARACTER)________ of the modern world is that people increasingly find themselves
living side by side with people from other cultures. While in the past people with different cultures were able to
live quite (37. SEPARATE)________ , high mobility and freedom of movement mean that we are more likely
today to be confronted with people whose way the life is (38. FAMILIAR)________ to us. In such
circumstances, (39. RACE)________ is a real danger.
People feel a tremendous (40. LOYAL)________ to their own culture, and are often unwilling to develop an (41.
APPRECIATE)________ of the positive aspects of other cultures. They may feel that another culture presents a
threat to their own (42. INHERIT)________, one that could even lead to the (43. APPEAR)________ of certain
aspects of their way of life. Often, however, this threat is more a matter of (44. PERCEIVE)________ than
reality and different groups live in (45. RELATE)________ harmony in many parts of the world.
VII. Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space. For each question, circle letter A, B, C
or D next to the answer you choose.
Dolphins communicate mainly by (46)________ of sounds. These sounds not only (47)________
whistles, but also so-called pulsed sounds, which are often described as squawks, barks, rasps, etc. However,
they also use breaching (jumping and falling back into the (48)________ with a loud splash) and pectoral fin (or
flipper) and tail (or fluke) slaps (hitting the flipper or fluke on the water surface). Body posturing and jaw
popping also have a role in (49)________. As for language, we do not know (50)________ they have one.
Several studies have demonstrated that dolphins can understand a structured language like (51)________. This
has been demonstrated for a number of other animal species as well (gorilla, California sea lion, and parrot).
Some studies also indicate that dolphin vocalizations are complex (52)________ to support some form of
language. (53)________, it has not been demonstrated (54)________ that they can undoubtedly communicate
(55)________ themselves.
46. A. way B. mean C. using D. means
47. A. have B. include C. contain D. combine
48. A. water B. sea C. ocean D. river
49. A. reaction B. chewing C. speaking D. communication
50. A. why B. if C. when D. how
51. A. your B. ours C. our D. yours
52. A. too B. as C. enough D. so
53. A. Whenever B. Wherever C. However D. Whoever
54. A. yet B. still C. though D. neither
55. A. together B. each other C. between D. among
VIII. Read the following passage and fill the blank with ONE suitable word.
Enjoyment is what drinking wine is all about. However, the more you know, (56)________ easier it
becomes to select the right wines for you or your guests. Wine is basically grape juice to (57)________ yeast has
been added causing it to ferment and produce alcohol. Alcohol is flavourless, so there must be something more
(58)________ wine than this. Many of the secrets of wine lie within the grape. Its pulp is a sugar solution which
contains the things that give a wine its fruity flavour. In a dry wine, most of a grape’s sugar has been converted
(59)________ alcohol. In a sweet one, more sugar is left. This can be felt on the (60)________ of the tongue.
The pulp also contains acidity which gives the wine "crispness” that makes the mouth water.
Too much (61)________ it can make you wince, too little and the wine could taste dull. The skin
contains flavour and tannin. Tannin produces a tingling sensation in the gums and gives a wine firmness. White
grapes (62)________ their skins removed before fermentation so tannin is only really found in red wines. The
pulp of black and white grapes is (63)________ same pale colour. The fact that the skins of black grapes are left
on (64)________ the wine is fermented gives red wine its colour.
The wines which are often considered to be the best are (65)________ where all the elements balance
one another. There are many grape varieties grown in many climates which influence the emphasis given to
these features and this is why wines can be so wonderfully different.
Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides.
No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are
surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve
more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In
theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In
reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a
lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places,
the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle,
so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and
when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the
spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is
added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a
high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at
the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal
movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other
time during the month.
66. What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
67. The words "In reality" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. surprisingly B. actually C. characteristically D. similarly
68. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational
effect one object in space has on the tides is_________.
A. size B. distance C. temperature D. density
69. The word "configuration" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. unit B. center C. surface D. arrangement
70. Neap tides occur when_________.
A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
B. the Moon is full
C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
X. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it.
71. John didn’t celebrate until he received the offer of promotion in writing.
→ Not until ______________________________________________________.
72. I don’t really like her, even though I admire her achievements.
→ Much __________________________________________________________.
73. It’s thought that the accident was caused by human error.
→ The accident _________________________________________________.
→ There has ____________________________________________________.
75. This affair does not concern you.
→ This affair is no ______________________________________________.
76. You must submit articles for the magazine by June 18th.
→ The final date _________________________________________________.
77. Although Jimmy was the stronger of the two, his attacker soon overpowered him.
→ Despite his ____________________________________________________.
78. What a surprise to see you here!
→ Fancy __________________________________________________________.
79. I don’t intend to apologize to either of them.
→ I have _________________________________________________________.
80. It was only when I left home that I realized how much my father meant to me.
→ Not until _______________________________________________________.
XI. Writing an essay.

“Stable development (development without harming the environment) is essential for the present time as well
as the future”.
____________THE END____________

1. C 2. 3. A 4. C 5. 6. B 7. B 8. 9. A 10. C
A D A

11. losed → lost 15. on → in 19. produce → produced
12. are → is 16. nature → natural 20. by → in
13. endanger → 17. With → Without
endangering 18. Not → No
14. so → such

21. B 22. D 23. D 24. D 25. D 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. C
V. (10pts) 1.5 point/correct answer.

31. 32. B 33. 34. A 35. B
C C

36. 39. racism 42. heritage 44. perception
characteristic 40. loyalty 43. disappearance 45. relative
37. separately 41. appreciation
38. unfamiliar
VII. (15pts) 1 point/correct answer.

46. D 47. 48. A 49. D 50. B 51. 52. C 53. C 54. 55. D
B B A
VIII. (10pts) 1 point/correct answer.

56. the 58. to 60. tip 62. 64. while
57. 59. into 61. of have 65. those/ones
which 63. the

66. D 67. B 68. B 69. D 70. A
X. (10pts) 2 points/correct answer.

71. → Not until John (had) received the offer of promotion in writing did he celebrate.
72. → Much as I admire her achievements, I don’t really like her.
73. → The accident is thought/ believed to have been caused by human error.
74. → There has been a dramatic increase in (the) house prices this year.
75. → This affair is no concern/business of yours.
76. → The final date for you to submit articles for the magazine is June 18th.
77. → Despite his (superior) strength Jimmy was (soon) overpowered by his attacker.
78. → Fancy seeing you here.
79. → I have no intention of apologizing to either of them.
80. → Not until (after) I (had) left home did I realize how much my father meant to me.
XI. (15pts) Students’ own answers
and linking devices
________THE END________
ENGLISH PRACTICE 51
PART I: PRONUNCIATION
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
1. A. forged B. appalled C.composed D. noticed
2. A. resort B. aisle C. hesitate D. desert
3. A. rough B. tough C. cough D. though
4: A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
5. A. theatre B. bathing C. breathe D. southern
6. A. break B. meant C. breakfast D. head
7. A. admission B. decision C. revision D. provision
8. A. change B. hungry C. stronger D. Single
9.A. intention B. material C. mature D. Intensity
10. A. birthday B. mouth C. athletics D. gather

Mark the the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
1. A. reasonable B. cigarette C. comfortable D. implement
2. A. validity B. tremendous C. flexible D. commercial
3. A. purchase B. ignorant C. tuition D. vigorous
4. A. overlook B. influential C. furniture D. oceanic
5: A. Success B. conflict C. author D. figure
6: A. surpass B. moment C. exchange D. Persuade
7. A. argumentative B. Psychological C. Contributory D. hypersensitive
8. A. sandals B. dental C. canal D. rental
9. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
10. A. forgettable B. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR.
J. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences. (2,0 points)
1. The strike was______ owing to a last minute agreement with the management.
2. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to______ rather thin.
3. ______ the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
4. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the______ wonderfully.
5. The train service has been a______ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas
6. Is an inexperienced civil servant______ to the task of running the company.
7. We______ have been happier in those days.
8. You’ve lived in the city for most of your life, so______ you’re used to the noise.
9. The storm ripped our tent to______.
10. He______ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never fully recovered.
11. Hotel rooms must be______ by 10 a. m, but luggage may be left with porters.
12. I do not think there is so much as a______ of truth in that rumor.
13. He’s not exactly rich but he certainly earns enough money to______.
14. I have very______ feelings about the plan – it might possibly work or it could be a disaster.
15. The noise of the typewriter really______ me off. I just couldn’t concentrate.
16. The sixth time he called me at night was the______.
17. All three TV channels provide extensive______ of sporting events.
18. They seemed to be______ to the criticism and just carried on as before.
19. “Shall we go out tonight?” - “____________”
20. It's no use______ over______ milk.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
II. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the numbered gap. (1,0
point)
BLACK WIDOW SPIDER
led to certain______ (1. CONCEPT) regarding its evil nature.
Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the most______ (2.
VENOM) species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of the prairie rattlesnake, its bite
injects such as amount of venom by______ (3. COMPARE) that it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact, ______ (4.
FATAL) are rare.
widow spiders. The latter are vulnerable as the female is______ (5. SOLITUDE) by nature, and has been known
to kill and eat the male after mating. Such______ (6. OCCUR) are rare, but they explain how the spider got its
name – and its reputation.
Nevertheless, the______ (7. PLEASE) effects of this spider’s bite should not be______ (8.
ESTIMATE), and if you live in a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is advisable to
take______ (9. CAUTION). Black widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you should wear gloves when
handling firewood. Furthermore, since black widow spiders are______ (10. RESIST) to many insecticides, you
should regularly clean out likely hiding places.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. (1,0 point)
1. Silence______ the theatre as the audience awaited the opening curtain with expectation and excitement.
2. Having seen a sharp bend ahead, Tim pressed hard on the brake pedal to______.
3. Charles Dickens was born near Portsmouth, Hampshire on 7 February 1812, but relocated to and ______ in
4. Barrack Obama has decided to______ the American presidency in the election that will take place next year.
5. Because I hate______ my shoes, I have bought a pair of shoes without any laces.
6. Sarah wanted to buy some curtains that would______ his furniture, so she had brought a photo of her sofa
with her to the store.
7. Kate had been______ in order to buy a new laptop, but then she decided to use the money on the guitar
lessons instead.
8. Even though two of the bands are dead, a new ‘The Beatle’ album called Love was recently______.
9. Brendan was worried about having to______ for the boss’ retirement dinner as he didn’t own any formal
clothes.
10. He______ his grandmother’s phone number with his girlfriend’s, which led to some embarrassment for him.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
numbered boxes. (1,0 point)
Large animals inhabit the desert have evolved adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme hot. One
adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal
mammalian practice of maintaining a constantly body temperature. Instead of try to keep down the body
temperature inside the body, what would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow
their temperatures rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degree Celsius
have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body cools down during the cold desert night, and
indeed the temperature may fall unusual low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is a
advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight absorb in warming up the body.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION.
I. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (1,0 point)
True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television with a welcome
drink. Nor is it about drifting (1)______ an exhausted sleep. Useful though these responses to tension and over-
tiredness (2)______ be, we should distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in (3)______ of quality
and effect. (4)______ of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same time passive
awareness, in which our bodies are (5)______ rest while our minds are awake.
Moreover, it is as natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting. (6)______ relaxed
in action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do, so as to have a feeling of healthy tiredness
by the end of the day, (7)______ than one of exhaustion. Unfortunately, as a result of living in today’s
competitive world, we are under constant strain and have difficulty in coping, (8)______ alone nurturing our
body’s abilities. What needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With (9)______ in mind we must apply
ourselves to understanding stress and the nature of its causes (10)______ deep-seated.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. Write your
answer in the numbered box. (1,0 point)
card, for example.
help.
1. A well-protected house______.
2. According to the writer, we should______.
A. avoid leaving our house empty.
B. only go out when we have to.
C. always keep the curtains closed.
D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.
3. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot______.
5. The phrase “aforementioned precautions” in paragraph 5 refers to steps that______.
B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe.
C. will stop a potential burglar.
6. Gaining entry to a house through a small window______.
7. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms______.
8. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole______.
10. The best title for the text is______.
A. Increasing household crime.
B. Protecting your home from intruders.
C. Burglary statistics.
D. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART IV. WRITING.
I. Complete each of the sentences so that it has similar meaning to the given one, using the words given
(0,5 point)
1. It is extremely difficult for us to make ends meet these days.
→ We find....................................................................................................................................
2. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second child.
→ Only when................................................................................................................................
3. While mending the road, they accidentally blocked our water pipes.
→ They accidentally cut off ........................................................................................................
4. He brought the umbrella along but it didn't rain.
→ He needn't ..............................................................................................................................
→ Despite ..................................................................................................................................
word(s).(0,5 point)
1. When I was driving, I realized that the car wasn’t working properly. (WRONG)
→........................................................................................................................................................
2. Sandra said that she was willing to work late. (MIND)
→........................................................................................................................................................
3. They pretended to be enjoying themselves, but they weren’t really. (AS)
→........................................................................................................................................................
4. I can't lift this table on my own. (UNLESS)
→........................................................................................................................................................
5. The coins are believed to have been buried for safe-keeping. (IT)
→........................................................................................................................................................
III. Writing a topic. (1,0 point)
The mass media, including television, radio and newspapers, have great influence in shaping
people’s ideas. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer.
You should write about 250 words.
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……………THE END
PART I: PRONUNCIATION
1. A. forged B. appalled C.composed D. noticed
2. A. resort B. aisle C. hesitate D. desert
3. A. rough B. tough C. cough D. though
4: A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
5. A. theatre B. bathing C. breathe D. southern
6. A. break B. meant C. breakfast D. head
7. A. admission B. decision C. revision D. provision
8. A. change B. hungry C. stronger D. Single
9.A. intention B. material C. mature D. Intensity
10. A. birthday B. mouth C. athletics D. gather
1. A. reasonable B. cigarette C. comfortable D. implement
2. A. validity B. tremendous C. flexible D. commercial
3. A. purchase B. ignorant C. tuition D. vigorous
4. A. overlook B. influential C. furniture D. oceanic
5: A. Success B. conflict C. author D. figure
6: A. surpass B. moment C. exchange D. Persuade
7. A. argumentative B. Psychological C. Contributory D. hypersensitive
8. A. sandals B. dental C. canal D. rental
9. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant

PART I: LISTENING. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
You will hear a conversation at the customs in Gatwick Airport. As you listen, fill in the form below. (write
your answers in capital letters)
1. BUTCHER 2. ANTHONY 3. MALE 4. A 5. 14 APRIL 1966
STUDENT
6. ITALIAN 7. TO STUDY 8. A BROTHER 9. 35 10. LONDON

ENGLISH
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR.
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences. (2,0 points; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. C
11. 12. C 13. B 14. 15. A 16. 17. C 18. 19. D 20. A
A B B D
II. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the numbered gap. (1,0
point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. misconception 2. venomous 3. comparison 4. fatalities 5. solitary

6. occurences 7. 8. underestimated 9. 10. resistant
unpleasant precautions
III. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a
correct answer)
1. hung 2. slow down 3. grew up 4. run for 5. doing up

over
6. go with 7. saving up 8. brought out 9. dress up 10. mixed up
numbered boxes. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. inhabit 🡪 inhabiting/which(that) 6. rise 🡪 to rise

inhabit
2. hot 🡪 heat 7. degree 🡪 degrees
3. constantly 🡪 constant 8. unusual 🡪 unusually
4. try 🡪 trying 9. a 🡪 an
5. what 🡪 which 10. absorb 🡪 absorbed
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION.
I. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct
answer)
1. into 2. might/may/can 3. terms 4. regardless/irrespective 5. at

6. 7. rather 8. let 9. that/this 10. how
Being
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. Write your
answer in the numbered box. (1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. B
PART IV. WRITING.
I. Complete each of the sentences so that it has similar meaning to the given one, using the words given
(0,5 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. We find it difficult to make ends meet these days.
2. Only when Alice and Charles had their second child, did they decide to move to a bigger house.
3. They accidentally cut off our water supplying while mending the road.
4. He needn't have brought the umbrella along (because it didn't rain anyway).
5. Despite my strong disapproval of your behaviour/ the fact that I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will
help you this time.
word(s).(1,0 point; 0,1 point a correct answer)
1. While I was driving, I realized that there was something wrong with the car.
2. Sandra said that she didn’t mind working late.
3. They acted as if they were enjoying themselves, but they weren’t really.
4. I can't lift this table unless you help me/ someone helps me.
5. It is believed that the coins were buried for safe-keeping.
III. Writing a topic. (1,0 point)
Correct form of essay - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting ideas and
Incorrect form of essay - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting ideas and
--------------------------HẾT--------------------------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 52
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line.
(2 pts)
1. A. chamber B. ancient C.
danger D. ancester
2. A. looked B. learned C.
stopped D. laughed
question. (3 pts)
3. A. appropriate B. expectation C. accomplished

D. invaluable
4. A. prohibit B. separate C. president

D. elephant
5. A. assimilate B. committee C. tomorrow

D. relative
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45 pts)
6. Never ______ till tomorrow what you can do today .

A. put out B. put off C. put away
D. put down
7. John’s score on the test is the highest in the class;______ .
A. he should study last night B. he should have studied last

night
C. he must have studied last night D. he must have to study last night
8. The company received______complaints about the quality of its products.
A. continual B. continued C. continuous

D. continuing
9. Mai is______of the two sisters.

A. as beautiful as B. more beautiful
C. the more beautiful D. the most beautiful
10. Many lists of “Wonders of the World” ______during the Middle Ages.
A. said to be existed B. are said to exist
C. said to exist
D. are said to have existed
11. The weather is going to change soon; I feel it in my ______.
A. body B. legs
C. skin D. bones
12.The workers have gone on strike. ______, all production has ceased.
A. So that B. Therefore C. Because

D. Now that
13.Do you expect there will be a lot of _______ to the project from the local community?
A. rejections B. disapproval C. disagreement

D. objections
14. _________ handball is fast becoming ________ popular sport worldwide.
A. The/ the B. Φ/ a C.
A/ Φ D. Φ/ the
15. The size and shape of a nail depend primarily on the function ______ intended.
A. which it is B. for which it C. which it is for D.

for which is
16. But for the fog, we_________ our destination ages ago.
A. would have reached B. would reach
C. reached
D. had reached
17. Nam: “ I'm having some friends over for lunch this Saturday. Would you like to join us?”
Huong: “______________________”.
A. Can I take a rain check? B. Come on. It's your turn.
C. Thanks, but I musn't D. As a matter of fact,

I do.
18. Tom: “Wasn't it Mozart who composed Swan Lake?” Jane: “__________.”
A. Yes, he wasn't B.
It's out of question
C. I haven't a clue D. It's not my

favourite
19. Water polo is played in a pool. It is played ____a ball and people play it ___a team.
A. by/ in B. in/with C.
within/ by D. with/in
20. I wonder if they have that dress in my size. I ______ a size 10.
A. make B. have C. take

D. get
Question II: The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them (10 pts) (Questions 21-30)
line
Once when I was a teenager, I had gone to my Aunt Leah’s house. Aunt Leah collected pottery, and when
1 I got there, she told me that she wants to show me her new bowl. She told she has just bought it. It was
beautiful. When Aunt Leah went to answer the door; I picked up the bowl. It slipped from my hands and
smashed to pieces on the floor.When Aunt came back, I screamed and said what the cat had just broken
your new bowl. Aunt Leah got this funny look on her face and told me that it isn’t important. I didn’t
sleep at all that night, and the next morning, I called my aunt and confessed that I have broken her bowl.
5 She said I had known that all along. I promised that I am going to buy her a new one someday. We still
laugh at the story today.
10
31. It is crucial that English (teach) ______ in a more practical way.
32. Without my parents’ financial support, I (not,be) _____ so successful now.
33. My children enjoy (allow) ______ to stay up late when there is something special on television.
34. I didn’t do the test well. I (prepare) _______ it very carefully at home.
35. The cowboy (wound) ______ by an arrow fell of the horse.
36. Nam: "The maintenance people didn't remove the chairs from the ballroom."
Huong: "Don't worry. They (move) ______ them before the dance begins."
37-38. It’s high time the local government (do) _______something about the sewage system which (not upgrade)
________ for years.
39- 40. Come on, Hoa. I want to show you something. - Oh how nice of you! I (never think) ______ you (bring)
______ me a gift.
41. All those foreign visitors can speak Vietnamese very well.
There will be a big ______to have a translator here. USEFUL
42. Katherine Curtis's water ballet club attracted both national and
international ________ .
PUBLIC
43. The _____ of books were the hand-written books since centuries
BC, including clay tablets, wood or bamboo tablets tied with cord.
RUN
44. The doctor gave him an injection to _______ the pain.

DIE
45. According to Dr. Davis, the ______ population is mushrooming
as our general health improves.

CENTENARY
46. A century ago average life ______ in Europe was 45, today it is 70. EXPECT
47. Because of the nuclear leakage, a large area of land needs _____ . CONTAMINATE
48. If your luggage is very ______ , you’ll have to pay an excess charge. WEIGH
49. If your terms are _______, we may consider placing regular orders. SATISFY
50. He talked ______ of the past and his youth.

ROMANTIC
pts)
Reference books are not designed to be read from the first page to the last but rather to be consulted to answer
the questions and provide both general and specific pieces of information.
One of the most (51. _____ ) -used reference books is a dictionary, which provides information about words. It
lists meanings and spellings, (52. ____ ) how a word is pronounced, gives (53. ____ ) of how it is used, may
reveal its origins and also lists synonyms and (54. ____ ). To help you find the words faster, there are guide
words at the top of each page showing the first and last words on that page - and of course it (55. ____ ) to
know the alphabet!
There may be numerous special sections at the back with (56. ____ ) about famous people and places, lists of
dates and scientific names, etc. There is usually a section at the front (57. ____ ) how to use the dictionary,
which includes the special abbreviations or signs.
An atlas is also a reference book and (58. ____ ) charts, tables and geographical facts, as well as maps.
Political maps locate countries and cities, physical maps show the formation of the land with its mountains and
valleys, and economic maps show industries and agriculture. To find a specific place, you need to look in the
(59. ____ ) at the back of the atlas and the exact position on the map. There are numerous map (60. ____ ) that
you need to know in order to be able to read a m ap-almost like a special language-and these are explained at
the front of the atlas.
51. A. greatly B. widely C. mainly D. largely
52. A. speaks B. tells C. says D. gives
53. A. evidence B. roof C. examples D. cases
54. A. antonyms B. closest C. oposite D. controversies
55. A. assists B. pays C. helps D. works
56. A. events B. stories C. facts D. materials
57. A. explaining B. interpreting C. suggesting D. presenting
58. A. includes B. contains C. consists D. composes
59. A. index B. preface C. complement D. foreword

60. A. marks B. signs C. signals D. symbols
I was reading an article last week in which the writer described ___61___ her children has changed as they
grow up. When they were small she had to ___62____ up with noisy games in the house or join in
interminable games of football in the garden which wore her out. If the house went quiet, she wondered what
the monsters were getting up to, or what crisis she would have to ____63_____ with next. She dreaded the fact
that they might ____64____ after her husband, who admitted having ___65____ an uncontrollable child who
____66_____ most of time showing off to his friends by breaking things or getting into fights. What was
worse was that everyone else thought he was ___ 67____sweet child, and he got away with the most terrible
things. However, she had experienced an even greater shocked with her children. They had ___68____ out as
chess and playing the piano. They never did anything ___69____ talking it over first, and coming to a serious
decision. She had to face up to the fact that they made her feel rather childish as they got ___70____, and that
in some ways she preferred them when they were young and noisy
There is a common expression in English language referring to a blue moon. When people say that
something happens “only once in a blue moon”, they mean that it happens only very rarely, once in a
great while. This expression has been around for at least a century and a half. There are references to
this expressions that date from the second half of the nineteenth century.
Line
5 The expression “a blue moon” has come to refer to the second full moon occurring in any given
calendar month. A second full moon is not called a blue moon because it is particularly blue or is any
different in the hue from the first full moon of the month. In stead, it is called a blue moon because it is
so rare. The moon needs a little more than 29 days to complete the cycle from full moon to full moon.
Because every month except February has more than 29 days, every month will have at least one full
moon (except February, which will have a full moon unless there is a full moon at the very end of
Line January and another full moon at the very beginning of March). It is on the occasion when a given
10 calendar month has a second full moon that a blue moon occurs. This does not happen very often, only
three or four times a decade.
The blue moons of today are called blue moons because of their rarity and not because of their color;
however, the expression “blue moon” may have come into existence in reference to unusual
circumstances in which the moon actually appeared blue. Certain natural phenomena of gigantic
Line proportions can actually change the appearance of the moon from the Earth. The eruption of the
15 Krakatao volcano in 1883 left dust particles in the atmosphere, which clouded the sun and gave the
moon a bluish tint. This particular occurrence of the blue moon may have given rise to the expression
that we use today. Another example occurred more than a century later. When Mount Pinatubo erupted
in the Philippines in 1991, the moon again took on a blue tint.
Line
20
Line
25
71. This passage is about_________________ .
A. an idiomatic expression B. an
unusual color
C. a month on the calendar D. a

phase of the moon
72. How long the expression “once in a blue moon” been around?
A. For around 50 years
B. For less than 100 years
C. For more than 100 years D.

For 200 years.
73. A blue moon could best be described as _________________ .
A. a full moon that is not blue in color B. a new moon that is blue in color
C. a full moon that is blue in color D. a new moon that is not blue
in color
74. The word “hue” in line 8 is closest in meaning to _____________________ .
A. shape B. date
C. color D. size
75. Which of the following might be the date of a blue moon?
A. January 1st B. February 28th C. April 15th

D. December 31 st
76. How many blue moons would there most likely be in a century?
A. 4 B. 35
C. 70 D. 100
77. According to the passage, the moon actually looked blue ______________ .
A. after large volcanic eruptions B. when it

occurred late in the month
C. several times a year

D. during the month of February
78. The expression “given rise to” in line 24 could be best replaced by ___________ .
A. created a need for

B. elevated the level of
C. spurred the creation of D.

brighten the color of
79. Where in the passage does the author describe the duration of a lunar cycle?
A. line 1- 3 B. line 6-7

C. line 9-10 D. line 13 – 15
80. In which paragraph does the author mention the two blue moons which were blue in color?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph

3 D. Paragraph 1 and 3.
81. If I were you, I wouldn’t tell anybody about the discovery.
🡪 You had ___________________________________________.
82. It is thought that the Prime Minister is considering raising taxes.
🡪 The Prime Minister __________________________________.

83. I was very annoyed by his refusal to listen to reason.
🡪 What _____________________________________________.
84. The company have been reviewing their recruitment policy for the last three months.
🡪 The company’s recruitment policy has ___________________.
85. I realy like her voice but not her choice of songs.
🡪 Much _____________________________________________.
86. I am telling you this for you not to make a mistake.

FEAR
🡪 __________________________________________.
87. I'd rather you didn't stay long at the party.

BETTER
🡪 _________________________________________.
88. I now think differently about this matter.

MIND
🡪 __________________________________________.
89. I am going to write and complain to the council.

COMPLAINT
🡪 __________________________________________.
90. She was just as good as they had thought.

CAME
🡪 __________________________________________.
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement: “All children should learn at least one foreign
language at school”?
Write an essay ( about 150 to 200 words) to express your personal point of view.
---------- THE END ---------
3.
1.D 2.B 4.A 5.D
B
PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm)
( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm, riêng bài sửa lỗi, nếu tìm được lỗi mà sửa không đúng thì cho 0.5 điểm)
Question I.
6.B 7.C 8.A 9.C 10.D

11.D 12.B 13.D 14.B 15.B
16.A 17.A 18.C 19.D 20.C
Question II.
MISTAKES CORRECTIONS MISTAKES CORRECTIONS
21 had gone went 26 isn’t wasn’t

. .
22 wants wanted 27 have broken had broken

. .
23 has had 28 I she

. .
24 what that 29 am was

. .
25 your her 30 at about

. .
Question III
31. be taught/ should be 36. will have moved
taught
32. would not be. 37. did
33. being allowed 38. has not been upgraded
34. should have prepared 39 never thought
35. wounded 40. were going to bring/would bring
Question IV
41. uselessness 42. publicity 43. forerunners 44. deaden 45. centenarian
46. expectancy 47.decontaminatin 48. overweight 49. satisfactory 50. romantically

g
Question I
51.B 52.B 53.C 54.A 55.C
56.C 57.A 58.B 59.A 60.D
Question II.
61. how 62. put 63. deal 64. take 65. been
66. 67. a 68. grown 69. without 70. older

spent
Question III.
71. 72.C 73.A 74.C 75.D

A
76.B 77.A 78.C 79.C 80.C
81 You had better not tell anybody about the discovery.

.
82 The Prime Minister is thought to be considering raising taxes.

.
83 What really annoyed me was his refusal to listen to reason.

.
84 The company’s recruitment policy has been under review for the last three months.
.
85 Much as I like her voice, I don’t like her choice of songs.

.
86. I am telling you this for fear that you might make a mistake.
87. It would be better if you didn't stay long at the party.
88. I've changed my mind about this matter.
89. I intend to make a written complaint to the council.
90. She came up to their expectations.

Marking criteria:
giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
Tổng số point thí sinh làm đúng
Điểm bài thi = ---------------------------------------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 53
1. A. purpose B. consumer C. comprise D. collapse
2. A. battle B. magic C. nag D. dismayed
3. A. sound B. doubt C. Count D. Would
4. A. honest B. home C. vehicles D. heiress
5. A. apple B. absent C. applicant D. Any
6: A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
7. A. four B. journey C. pour D. Your
8 A. fool B. bamboo C. food D. flood
9. A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked
10: A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure
1. A. Commit B. index C. preview D. open
2. A. enrichment B. advantage C. sovereignty. D. edition
3: A. innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
5: A. inaccurate B. pupivorous C. profitable D. reiterate
6: A. bibliophile B. inheritance C. illustrate D. judicature
7. A. dangerous B. conspicuous C. marvelous D. numerous
8. A. pioneer B. engineer C. reindeer D. referee
9: A. sociable B. vacancy C. opponent D. habitat
10: A. discourage B. document C. general D. politics
43. The entire city was _________ electricity last night- it was chaotic.
44. Henry was overweight, so he went on s strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.

A. Leaving uncovered B. Having left uncovered
C. Left uncovered D. Been left uncovered
lead to a cure.
52. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’ sooner you _________ me the whole truth yesterday.

A. was flourished B. having to flourish
C. to have flourished D. have flourished


known for its spectacular scenery and (1. BREATH) ____ views, which inspire today's travelers as much as they
spurred on the (2. SETTLE) ____ who first arrived in this part of the US over a century ago. And whether
you're seeking the outdoor adventure of a (3. LIFE) ____ exciting nightlife or a great family getaway, Colorado
has everything you need.
November through April, snow conditions are (4. CONSIST) ____ and reliable, featuring Colorado's
(5. LEGEND) ____ “champagne powder” snow. Extensive snow making and grooming operations always keep
trails in top shape.
REAL) ______.There, you'll find the best skiing and snowboarding on (7. PICTURE) ____ slopes, as well as
the finest ski schools in the US. Together, they present an (8. PARALLEL) ____ winter paradise. And the best
part is that you'll enjoy friendly, (9. CARE) ____ service in resorts that are (10. COMMIT) ____ to delivering
the highest quality amenities.
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank.
24. The factory paid ________nearly a million pounds to their employees who were injured in the
explosion.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by

today’s scientists, as human being are only beginning to struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect.
15. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star because_________.
16. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to _________.

17. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 3?
Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
18. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to _________.

A. the small amounts of nitrogen
B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide
C. growing plants
D. the high atmospheric temperatures
19. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth _________.
20. Look at the four blanks […] in paragraph 4 that indicate where the following sentence could be added
to the passage.
21. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.


8. …………………………………………………
9. …………………………………………………
10. …………………………………………………
Answer Choices
M. Venus once had large bodies of water that elaborated and cause a rapid increase in carbon dioxide.
N. Earth’s wind has a greater velocity than Venus’s because the air movement on Venus is denser and can
even more large obstructions.
O. Spaceships landing on Venus, though often crushed by Venus’s atmosphere, have revealed much about
its carbon dioxide filled atmosphere.
P. If man could survive the hot temperature of Venus, then he would have to contend with the great
surface pressure.
Q. The first space probe of Venus was made in 1966.
R. Scientists are concerned that conditions on Earth that propagate significant quantities of carbon dioxide
will produce greenhouse effects similar to Venus’s.
body and mind.
In the last four years, at (6) ________ 17 hotel spas have opened in South East Asia to (7) ________
this need. The tropical climate of the region and its reliable sunshine make for an ideal spa setting. Picturesque
experienced in 200 years. Gusts of over 130 kilometers per hour slammed across the region and £1.5- billion-
worth of damage was (1)__________ in just a few hours.
Extreme weather events like this are dramatic (2)__________ of the power of the wind. It’s one part of
the world. Without the formation and circulation of winds there would quite (3)__________ be no climate.
between particular winds and psychological problems (4)__________ back centuries. The Föhn, the hot dry
It affects as many as one in three people in its (5)__________, making them feel anxious, irritable and generally
ill. In California, many people (6)__________ the arrival of the Santa Ana, which rushes down from the high
soar.
(7)__________ part it goes about its job of shifting huge masses of air around the planet. Plants take
(8)__________ of this free ride to send their pollen grains far and wide. Trees (99)__________ on it to remove
old leaves and make way for new growth. Spiders have been caught (10)__________ a lift at altitudes of almost
4.5 kilometers.

29. A. need B. trust C. hope D. realize
PART IV: WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given. These words must
not be changed in any way.
I wish ________________________________________________________ speak French.

The rain was ______________________________________________________________

You ____________________________________________before you borrowed my book.
This record used ______________________________________ mine when I was younger.

It’s difficult for my sister ___________________________________________ every day.
The North Sea is ____________________________________________ the Mediterranean.
27. Christ would only eat a pizza if he could have a mushroom topping. ON
Christ ______________________________________________ when he ate a pizza.
28. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language. TALKED

My father _______________________________________________ another foreign language.
29. Sam tried extremely hard to convince her, but it was no use. BRING
Hard _________________________________________________________________________
30. When he arrived at the airport, his family welcomed him warmly. GIVEN
On___________________________________________________________________________
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------THE END -----------------
KEYS ENGLISH PRACTICE 53
1. A. purpose B. consumer C. comprise D. collapse
2. A. battle B. magic C. nag D. dismayed
3. A. sound B. doubt C. Count D. Would
4. A. honest B. home C. vehicles D. heiress
5. A. apple B. absent C. applicant D. Any
6: A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
7. A. four B. journey C. pour D. Your
8 A. fool B. bamboo C. food D. flood
9. A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked
10: A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure
1. A. Commit B. index C. preview D. open
2. A. enrichment B. advantage C. sovereignty. D. edition
3: A. innocent B. nevertheless C. contents D. supermarket
5: A. inaccurate B. pupivorous C. profitable D. reiterate
6: A. bibliophile B. inheritance C. illustrate D. judicature
7. A. dangerous B. conspicuous C. marvelous D. numerous
8. A. pioneer B. engineer C. reindeer D. referee
9: A. sociable B. vacancy C. opponent D. habitat
10: A. discourage B. document C. general D. politics
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 POINTS)
1.A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. C
11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. B
16. D 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. A
II. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 pts)
1. breathtaking 2. settlers 3. lifetime 4. consistent 5. legendary
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank. (5pts)
6. 7. at 8. in 9. off 10. for

out
PART IV. READING (30POINTS)
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. A 8. A 9. 10. F
C.
In any order from question 8 to 10
1. 2. sound 3. by 4. 5. but
edge with
1. B 2. 3. D 4. D 5. C
A
6.C 7. 8. D 9. D 10. B
A
PART V. WRITING (25 POINTS)
it. (5 pts)

23. You should have asked me/ for permission….
24. This record used to be a favourite of mine when I was younger.
29. Hard as/ though Sam tried, he couldn’t bring her round (to his way of thinking.
30. On his arrival at the airport, he was given a warm welcome by his family
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic. (20 points)

ENGLISH PRACTICE 54
PART I: PHONETICS. (1,0 POINT)
1. A. hospital B. mischievous C. supportive D. special
2. A. family B. whenever C. obedient D. solution
3. A. biologist B. generally C. responsible D. security
4. A. confident B. important C. together D. exciting
5. A. possible B. university C. secondary D. suitable
6. A. medieval B. humanity C. psychology D. familiar
7. A. masterpiece B. predator C. technical D. flamingo
8. A. overpopulated B. responsibility C. originality D. incomprehensible
9. A. arithmetic B. mausoleum C. economy D. receptionist
10. A. simplify B. national C. illiteracy D. secretary
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (7,5 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1,0 point)
1. The criminal was sentenced to death because of …….of his crime.
A. the severity B. the complexityC. a punishment D. the importance
2. “Would you like me to get a taxi?” - “…….”
A. That would be delightful. Thanks B. Well, let’s see.

C. Yes, please, if it’s no bother D. Yes, I see.
3. If it…….their encouragement, he could have given it up.
A. hadn’t been B. had been C. hadn’t been for D. had been for
4. By the end of this month I…….for this company for two years.
A. have been working B. will have been working
C. will be working D. will work
5. Laura is very thin,…….her young sister, who is quite heavy.
A. dissimilar to B. unlikely C. unlike D. dislike
6. Please…….and see us some time. You’re always welcome.

A. come to B. come about C. come around D. come away
7. They're having a party in…….of his 84th birthday.
A. ceremony B. honor C. memory D. celebration
8. The proposal has not met with…….agreement.
A. voluntary B. universal C. informal D. effective
9. A child's vocabulary…….through reading.
A. expands B. expends C. expels D. exposes
10. We…….friends even after we grew up and left home.
A. became B. made C. struck up D. remained
II. Supply the correct form(s) of the verb in brackets to complete each sentence. Write your answer in the
numbered box. (0,5 point)
1. He was the only student …….(award) the special prize in reciting poetry competition.
2. …….(convince) that they were trying to poison him, he refused to eat anything.
3. You look hot. What …….you ……. (do)?
4. I regret …….(invite) him to my party yesterday.
5. Had you studied harder, you …….(get) a prize.
III. Supply the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence. Write your answer in the
numbered box. (2,0 points)
1. Don't press the 'submit' button till you’ve…….finished with these 5 sentences. (completion)
2. The criminal has a very …….scar in his face. (notice)
3. His …….arrival surprised all his friends and family. (expect)
4. I have known…….for all my life. (hard)
5. It was a…….thing to say. (hurt)
6. Don’t try to do things too quickly. Set yourself a…….target. (really)
7. In…….with the rules of the competition, the team was disqualified. (accord)
8. Snow in August! How…….! (ordinary)

9. The film is entertaining but full of historical ……. (accurate)
10. Since I am an …….driver, I think you should drive. (experience)
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2,0
points)
Example: The oil price is believing to be rising again.
A B C D
Your answer: B 🡢 is believed
1. Caroline refused to take the job given her because the salary was not good.
A B C D
2. I finished college last year, and I am working here for only eight months now.
A B C D
3. Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week.
A B C D
4. While the Browns were away on holiday, their house was broken in.
A B C D
5. Why don’t you congratulate our son about passing his final exam?
A B C D
6. Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and he is now looking after a new one.
A B C D
7. Now I’ve become old, I can’t read as quickly as I used to.
A B C D
8. Although research has been ongoing since 1930, the existence of ESP - perception and without the
A B
use of the sight, hear, taste, touch or smell - is still disputed.
C D
9. As many as 50 percent of the income from motion pictures produced in the United States comes from
A B C
marketing the films abroad.
D
10. Sleep is controlled by the brain and associated by characteristic breathing rhythms
A B C D
V. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. Write your answer in the
numbered box. (2,0 points)
lay off make up get on care for go out

fall through come down put off draw up bring up
1. The teacher…….well with everyone in the school.
2. She…….with a bad cold just before Christmas and she could not come to the party.
3. After his mother died, he…….by his grandmother.
4. Once the fire ……., we had to sit in the cold.
5. The neighbor always …….stories about others. Don’t trust him.
6. I’ve just spent 2 weeks …….an old aunt of mine who’s been ill.
7. The two sides were close to an agreement, but it…….
8. The meeting had to be ……. until a later day.
9. The company has…….two hundred workers because of a lack of new orders.
10. Our lawyers will…….a new contract.
the numbered box. (2,0 points)
The accumulation of book (1) ……. is one part of school education but this kind of learning can be and
often is carried to (2) ……. in many countries so that no time for other interests is (3) ……. to young people. Not
only must they attend school (4) ……. five-hour periods on six days of the week, studying possibly as many as
thirteen different subjects, but in addition they may even go to afternoon institutes for (5) ……. instruction. They
have almost no chance of taking (6) ……. any of their own hobbies or becoming familiar with the plants and (7)
……. life of the countryside except during their summer holidays. Early youth should be a time of exploration
and adventure, of reading books for (8) ……. as well as study, of freedom to enjoy life before the responsibilities
of working for a living and (9) ……. a family (10) ……. an end to study, to freedom and only too often to
carefree enjoyment.
1. A. treasure B. value C. richness D. knowledge
2. A. extremity B. excess C. limit D. boundary
3. A. available B. provided C. devoted D. reserved
4. A. during B. for C. throughout D. in
5. A. farther B. additional C. extra D. further
6. A. on B. up C. back D. over
7. A. untamed B. original C. wild D. natural
8. A. pleasure B. amusement C. joy D. entertainment
9. A. creating B. bringing C. building D. raising
10. A. hold B. put C. indicate D. mark
II. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2,0 points)
The principles of use and disuse states that those parts of organism’s bodies that are used grow larger.
Those parts are not tending to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you exercise particular muscles, they
grow. Those that are never used diminish. By examining a man’s body, we can tell which muscles he uses and
which he does not. We may even be able to guess his profession or recreation. Enthusiasts of body building cult
make use of the principles of use and disuse to build their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever
unnatural shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts of the
body that respond to use in this way. Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin on your soles. It is easy to tell a
farmer from a bank teller by looking at their hands alone. The farmer’s hands are horny hardened by long
exposure to rough work. The teller’s hands are often soft. The principles of use and disuse enables animals to
become better at the job of surviving in their world, progressively better during their lifetime as the result of
living in that world. Humans, through direct exposure to sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips
them better to survive in particular local conditions. Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers
with very fair skins are susceptible to skin cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin D
deficiency and rickets. The brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight makes a
screen to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight. If a suntanned person moves
to a less sunlight climate, the melanin disappears, and the body benefits from what little sun there is. This can be
represented as an instance of the principles of use and disuse: skin goes brown when it is used, and fades to
white when it is not.
A. How the principles of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves.
B. The way people change themselves to conform to fashion.
C. The changes that occur according to the principles of use and disuse.
D. The effects of the sun on the principles of use and disuse.
2. The word “wither way” could be best replaced by …….
A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink
3. The word “those” refers to …….
A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles
4. Men who body build …….
A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance
C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable
5. It can be inferred that the author views body building …….
A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic form
C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefits
6. The word “horny” could be best replaced by …….
A. firm B. strong C. tough D. dense
7. It can be inferred that the principles of use and disuse enables organisms to …….
A. change their existence B. automatically benefit
C. survive in any condition D. improve their lifetime
8. The author suggest that melanin …….
A. is necessary to produce vitamin D B. is beneficial in sunless climate
C. helps protects fair-skinned people D. is a synthetic product
9. In the 2nd paragraph, the author mentioned sun tanning as an example of …….
A. humans improving their local conditions
B. humans surviving in adverse conditions
C. humans using the principles of use and disuse
D. humans running the risk of cancer

10. The word “susceptible” could be best replaced by …….
A. condemned B. vulnerable C. allergic D. suggestible
III. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered
box. (2,0 points)
BICYCLE SAFETY
Having to obey rules and regulations when riding a bike is one of the first experiences children have of
the idea of (1) ……. the law. However, a large number of children are left to learn the rules by trial and error,
instead of being guided by experienced (2) …….. Every year, hundreds of children visit the doctor or the
hospital casualty department (3) ……. crashing on their bikes. This could be easily prevented by (4) ……. them
the basics of bicycle safety. Ideally, children should be allowed to (5) ……. only in safe places, such as parks
and cycle tracks. When this is not possible, and they are permitted to go on the (6) ……., it is important to teach
them some basic safety principles.
First, they ought to learn and obey the rules of the road, which (7) ……. traffic signs, signals and road
markings. Second, they should (8) ……. wear a helmet. Studies have shown that wearing bicycle helmets can (9)
……. head injuries by up to 85 percent. In many places, (10) ……. are required by law, particularly for children.
Finally, children should be made to understand the importance of riding in areas that are brightly lit and of
wearing clothes that make them clearly visible on the road.
I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (2,0 points)
1. Remember to check for spelling mistakes before you hand in your composition.
Don't ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. Jack has become confident as a result of his success.
Jack’s success ……………………………………….…………………………………………………...
3. Green Peace will organize a meeting at the Town Hall next Tuesday.
There ………………………………………………………………………………………………….….
4. I can't describe people as well as you can.

You are …………………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. I didn't arrive in time too see her.

I wasn't …………………………………………………………………………………………………..
6. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.
All dogs are ……………………………………………………………………………………………...
7. I was surprised at how easy he was to talk to
I hadn’t expected ………………………………………………………………………………………..
8. Adrian was the only person who didn’t enjoy the party.
Everyone enjoyed ……………………………………………………………………………………….
9. They were never aware at any moment that something was wrong.
At no time ………………………………………………………………………………………..……....
10. Do shops usually stay open so late in this country?
Is it……………………………………………………………………………….……..……………….?
1. I don’t know how you can stand getting up so early to go to the pool. put
………………………………………………………………………………………
2. These two makes of computer are practically the same. hardly
………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Do you think climate affects people’s personalities? influence
………………………………………………………………………………………
4. He doesn’t find it difficult to earn money. trouble
………………………………………………………………………………………
5. I’ve finally started sorting out my postcard collection. round
………………………………………………………………………………………
III. Write a report of about 150 words to describe the chart. (2,5 points)
The chart below shows the amount of time an average student spends on various subjects in certain
years from 1995 to 2007. Study the chart carefully and comment on the proportion of time they spend on these
subjects every two weeks.
Hour
THE END OF THE TEST

Total mark: 20
PART ANSWERS MARK
PART I: Choose the word whose stress 1. C 0.1 p

PHONETICS: pattern is different from that
(1,0 point) of the other words in the 2. A 0.1 p
same group.
3. B 0.1 p
4. A 0.1 p
5. B 0.1 p
6. A 0.1 p
7. A 0.1 p
8. A 0.1 p
9. B 0.1 p
10. C 0.1 p
PART II: I. Choose the best answer to 1. A 0.1 p

fill in each gap. (1,0 point)
LEXICO- 2. C 0.1 p
GRAMMAR (7,5
points) 3. C 0.1 p
4. B 0.1 p
5. C 0.1 p
6. C 0.1 p
7. D 0.1 p
8. B 0.1 p
9. A 0.1 p
10. D 0.1 p
II. Give the correct tenses 1. to be awarded 0.1 p
of the verbs in brackets. (1,0 2. Convinced 0.1 p

point)
3. have … been doing 0.1 p
4. inviting/having invited 0.1 p
5. would have got/would have gotten 0.1 p
III. Put the correct form of 1. completely 0.2 p

the words in brackets. (2,0 2. noticeable 0.2 p
points)
3. unexpected 0.2 p
4. hardship 0.2 p
5. hurtful 0.2 p
6. realistic 0.2 p
7. accordance 0.2 p
8. extraordinary 0.2 p
9. inaccuracies 0.2 p
10. inexperienced 0.2 p
IV. Find out and correct the 1. B 🡪 given to 0.2 p

mistake in each sentence. (2,0
points) 2. C 🡪 have been working 0.2 p
3. C 🡪 was made 0.2 p
4. D 🡪 broken into 0.2 p
5. B 🡪 our son on 0.2 p
6. D 🡪 looking for 0.2 p
7. A 🡪 Now that/Because/As/Since 0.2 p
8. D 🡪 hearing 0.2 p
9. A 🡪 As much as 0.2 p
10. C 🡪 associated with 0.2 p
V. Complete these sentences 1. got on/gets on 0.2 p

with proper prepositions. (2,0
points) 2. came down 0.2 p
3. was brought up 0.2 p
4. went out/had gone out 0.2 p
5. makes up 0.2 p
6. caring for 0.2 p
7. fell through 0.2 p
8. put off 0.2 p
9. laid off 0.2 p
10. draw up 0.2 p
PART III: I. Read the passage below 1. D 0.2 p

READING: (6,0
points) and decide which answer (A, 2. B 0.2 p
3. A 0.2 p
4. C 0.2 p
5. D 0.2 p
6. B 0.2 p
B, C
7. C 0.2 p
or D) best fits each gap. (2,0
points) 8. A 0.2 p
9. D 0.2 p
10. B 0.2 p
II. Read the passage, then 1. C 0.2 p

choose the correct options.
(2,0 points) 2. D 0.2 p
3. D 0.2 p
4. C 0.2 p
5. D 0.2 p
6. C 0.2 p
7. C 0.2 p
8. C 0.2 p
9. C 0.2 p
10. B 0.1 p
III. Read the passage and fill 1. obeying 0.2 p

in each blank with ONE
suitable word. (2,0 points) 2. adults/people 0.2 p
3. after 0.2 p
4. teaching/instructing 0.2 p
5. ride 0.2 p
6. road 0.2 p
7. include 0.2 p
8. always 0.2 p
9. reduce 0.2 p
10. helmets 0.2 p
PART IV: I. Rewrite each 1. Don't forget to check for spelling 0.2 p
WRITING: (5,5 mistakes before you hand in your
points) of the sentences without composition.
changing its meaning, using
the cue given. (2,0 points) 2. Jack’s success has turned him into a 0.2 p
confident person.
3. There will be a meeting organized by 0.2 p

Green Peace at the Town Hall next Tuesday.
4. You are better at describing people than I 0.2 p

am.
5. I wasn't early enough to see her. 0.2 p
6. All dogs are thought to have evolved 0.2 p

from wolves.
7. I hadn’t expected him to be so easy to 0.2 p

talk to.
8. Everyone enjoyed the party apart 0.2 p

from/except (for)/with the exception of
Adrian
9. At no time were they aware that 0.2 p

something was wrong.
10. Is it usual for shops to stay open so late 0.2 p

in this country?
II. Rewrite each 1. I don’t know how you can put up with 0.2 p
getting up so early to go to the pool.
of the sentences without
changing its meanings. (1,0 2. There is / are hardly any difference(s) 0.2 p
point) between these two makes of computer.
3. Do you think climate has/can have 0.2 p

an/some influence on people’s personalities?
4. He never has/doesn’t have trouble earning 0.2 p

money.
5. I’ve finally got round to sorting out my 0.2 p

postcard collection.
III. Write an essay (250 - 300 1. Content: 1.0 p

words) to express your
opinion. (2,5 points) a. Providing main ideas and details.
(summarizing the information, reporting the
main features, and make comparisons where
relevant)
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently 0.5 p

and effectively.
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented 0.75 p

with coherence, cohesion, and clarity.

0.25 p
3. Language:
a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and
structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling:
b. Good punctuation and no spelling

mistakes.
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly
and add more answers possible before marking the papers.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 55
I. Câu 01-05: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có phần gạch dưới được phát âm khác với những từ còn
lại trong mỗi câu.
01. A. eliminate B. equal C. elaborate D. ejection

02. A. carriage B. dosage C. massage D. voyage
03. A. suit B. bruise C. suite D. fruit
04. A. calculate B. populate C. contemplate D. fortunate
05. A. apprehension B. division C. precision D. measure
II. Câu 06-10: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với
những từ còn lại trong mỗi câu.
06. A. ignorant B. decisive C. horizon D. museum

07. A. suffice B. product C nuclear D. province
08. A. neurosis B. nocturnal C nominate D. nostalgia
09. A. psychological B. contributory C argumentative D. hypersensitive
10. A. crescendo B. attorney C. compromise D. endeavor
III. Câu 11-20: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phướng án đúng nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) cho mỗi câu hỏi.
(1) On the night of September 2, 1666, a fire broke out in a baker's shop near Fish Street Hill in London. Before
the flames were finally extinguished, nearty the entreaty had been reduced to ashes. Over thirteen thousand
homes, fifty churches and numerous public buildings and hospitals were lost in the blaze. For all practical
purposes, London was destroyed.
(5) The Great Fire was not seen as a total tragedy, however. The deplorable conditions of the city had been
attacked by physicians and humanitarians for years before the fire; thus, with the opportunity dearly presented to
create a shining new dty, artists and craftsmen from all over England hurried to submit their designs for the
rebuilding of London.
Among those who submitted plans was Sir Christopher Wren, one of England's leading architects and the
(10) Surveyor of London. The task of rebuilding the city was given to him. Wren realized that the Great Fire
would not have been so damaging if the city had been better laid out: broader streets were needed to replace the
crooked, narrow alleys overhung with dilapidated wooden houses and shops. He also felt that redesigning the
main thoroughfares of London would result in increased and more effective transportation within the city.
Shortly after Wren began working on his first drafts for the rebuilding. King Charles I issued a proclamation
(15) prohibiting the construction of any house or shop within the city limits until after the plans were completed.
When the plans were unveiled to the citizens of London, however, they were overwhelmingly rejected. The most
vocal leaders of the opposition were the landlords, who feared that such a drastic widening of the streets would
reduce the amount of land available for development.
(20) Winter was approaching; consequently, it was necessary for the rebuilding to proceed at once. Permission
was, therefore, granted for the townspeople and landlords to commence reconstruction of their houses and shops
at the sites where they had been before the fire. Had the need for immediate action not been so pressing, some
kind of compromise could likely have been reached. This was not to be, however, and the ideas that could (25)
have made London one of the world's most beautiful cities never came to pass.
11 The probable meaning of “reduced to ashes” (line 2) is ..........

A. made unbearably hot B. discolored by the fire and smote
C. covered with ashes D. destroyed by fire
12. Which of the followings was probably among the deplorable conditions of the city?
A. lack of adequate lightning
B. the rough streets and alleys
C. the run-down condition of many houses and shops
D. all of the above
13. What did Sir Christopher Wren describe as the reason for the damage of the city?
A. the configuration B. the construction C. the landscape D. the pathway
14. The word thoroughfares (line 13) refers to..........
A. public buildings B. streets C. alleys D. houses and shops
15. The word proclamation (line 14) refers to..........
A. promulgation B. speech C. request D. law
16. The word unveiled (line 16) refers to..........
A. concealed B. disclosed C. obscured D. edipsed
17. What became of the plans for the rebuilding of London?
A. Nothing - they were never finished.
B. They were adopted in modified form.
C. They were followed and London was rebuilt at once.
D. Nothing - London was rebuilt as it had been before the fire.
18. To whom or what does they (line 23) refer to..........?
A. the original building sites B. the townspeople
C. the burned-down houses and shops D. the landlords
19. Which of the following describes the author's probable attitude toward Sir Christopher Wren's plans?
A. He feels it would have been a mistake to rebuild London according to Wren's designs.
B. He feels it was a mistake for London not to have been rebuilt according to Wren's designs.
C. He feels that someone rather than Wren should have been chosen to plan the rebuilding.
D. He feels that Wren's ideas had much more influence than commonly acknowledged.
20. Which of the following would be an appropriate title for the passage?
A. "The Life and Times of Sir Christopher Wren"
B. "The Rebuilding of London"
C. "The Holocaust of Fish Street Hill"
D. "The London That Might Have Been"
IV. Câu 21-30: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) cho mỗi chỗ
trống.
Smart Shoes
Smart shoes that adjust their size throughout the day could soon be available. A prototype has already been
produced and a commercial (21).....may be in production within a few years. The shoe contains sensors that
constantly check the amount of room left in it. If the foot has become too large, a tiny valve opens and the shoe
(22).....slightly. The entire control system is about 5 mm square and is located inside the shoe. This radical shoe
(23).....a need because the volume of the (24)...... foot can change by as much as 8% during the course of the day.
The system is able to learn about the wearer's feet and (25)......up a picture of the size of his or her feet
throughout the day. It will allow the shoes to change in size by up to 8% so that they always fit (26)....... They
are obviously more comfortable and less likely to cause blisters. From an athlete's point of view, they can help
improve (27)......a little, and that is why the first (28).....for the system is likely to be in a sports shoe. Eventually,
this system will find a (29)......In many other household items, from beds that automatically change to fit the
person sleeping in them, to power tools that (30)......themselves to the user's hand for better grip.
21. A. assortment B. version C. style D. variety
22. A. amplifies B. develops C. expands D. increases
23. A. detects B. finds C. meets D. faces
24. A. average B. general C. usual D. medium
25. A. build B. pick C. grow D. set
26. A. exactly B. absolutely C. completely D. totally
27. A. achievement B. performance C. success D. winning
28. A. purpose B. exercise C. use D. operation
29. A. function B. part C. way D. place
30. A. shape B. change C. respond D. convert
V. Câu 31-40: Chọn từ/ cụm từ thích hợp nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.
31. Save your money. Don't.......it too quickly.

A. go through B. die down C. hold on D. touch on
32. They all have to follow the rules, and none of them is.......the law.
A. over B. beyond C. above D. onto
33. They.......the aid of the United States but did not receive it.
A. asked B. found C. sought D. obtained
34. The police spokesman said he was.......to believe that the arrested man was the serial killer they had been
looking for.
A. inclined B. seemed C. suspected D. supposed
35. I'm.......my brother is.
A. nowhere near as ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nowhere like so ambitious as D. nothing as ambitious as
36. He says he might come, but I........
A. doubt B. doubt it C. doubt so D. doubt about it
37. I'm sure your bank manager will lend you a.......ear when you explain the situation to him.
A. merciful B. sympathetic C. pitiful D. compassionate
38. Have you seen the girl.......?
A. that I told B. I told you of C. whom I told you D. I told you of her
39. Children usually.......a flu much more quickly than adults.
A. pick up B. pick at C. pick on D. pick out
40. The accident.......was the mistake of the driver.
A. causing many people to die B. caused great human loss
C. to cause many people die D. which causes many people to die
VI. Câu 41-50: Sử dụng từ trong ngoặc ở dạng thích hợp nhất để điền vào các chỗ trống.
Shadow puppetry is a traditional art form that often goes (41. appreciate).......in modem times. A large part of
the (42. appealable).......of puppet shows is the (43. craft).......behind the creation of the actual puppets. In
shadow puppetry, on the other hand, the puppets remain (44. see)......., so the real artistry is in the presentation.
The combination of the puppets’ shape, the background screen, and the light itself creates the overall effect of
the shadow puppet show. The task of the director is to ensure these elements are working together (45.
harmony).......in order to produce the optimal experience for the audience. The screen is the medium through
which the audience experiences the performance, so selecting the best screen is among great (46. essential)........
One unique challenge for the director is that the presentation is two-dimensional. The screen is flat, so puppets
can only move forwards and backwards. Having chosen a screen and designed the set, the next step is to
determine the light that will be used. There are several factors to be considered: (47. intense)......., spread, and
angle. Therefore, finding the optimal (48. combine).......of light, shadow involves careful (49. plan)......and
scrupulous design. Every detail must be controlled in relation to others, making shadow puppetry an art of (50.
precise).......
VII. Câu 51-60: Tìm từ thích hợp nhất để điền vào chỗ trống trong đoạn văn. Mỗi chỗ trống chỉ điền
MỘT từ.
Son Doong Cave is in the heart of Phong Nha Ke Bang National Park in Quang Binh province of Central
Vietnam. Only recently (51).........in 2009-2010 by the British Cave Research Association, the cave has only
been open to the (52).........since 2013.
Fewer people have seen the inside of Son Doong Cave than have stood on the summit of Mount Everest. Join
us on this otherworldly expedition and become one of the lucky few (53)......... have had the life changing
experience of exploring the world's largest cave.
Imagine trekking straight into the (54).........of the world's largest cave on an expedition unlike any other. A
cave is (55).........massive that a Boeing 747 could fly through its largest cavern. Foreign landscapes found
(56) ......... else, enormous stalagmites rising from the ground and statuesque stalactites hanging from the celling
like an alien species. Jungles emerge (57).........the cave itself, which is so surreal that it's worth seeing once.
Misty clouds envelop the whole scene, a result of the cave's own localised weather system. Passages adorned
(58).........ancient fossils offer evidence of the millions of years that have passed on this Earth.
As you approach the Jungle just outside the entrance, the (59) .......... of cool wind that cascades out brings to
life everything inside of you. Hazy, cold and exhilarating, it is apparent that there's (60)..........magical waiting
just beyond the opening to the cave.
VIII Câu 61-70: Sử dụng từ cho sẵn trong ngoặc và các từ khác để hoàn thành câu thứ hai sao cho ý nghĩa
của nó tương tự như câu thứ nhất. Chỉ được viết từ 2 đến 5 từ vào Phiếu Trả Lời và không được thay đổi
dạng thức của từ cho sẵn.
61. Mary cried her eyes out just after she was told she'd been rejected for the Job. (broke)
Mary...............................as soon as she heard she'd been rejected for the job.
62. I never thought that I would win the lottery. (occurred)
It never.................................................that I would win the lottery.
63. I failed to make him understand that I didnt want to see him anymore. (across)
I failed........................................that I didnt want to see him anymore.
64. Would you give us your answer as soon as possible? (convenience)
Please reply...................................................................
65. I'm so sorry, I didn't realise it was so late. (track)
Sorry, I..................................................................time.
66. Everyone who spoke to the victim is a suspect. (under)
Everyone who spoke to the victim...................................................
67. She will probably be chosen for the beauty contest. (stands)
She.........................................................chosen for the beauty contest.
68. "Can you tell me what happened yesterday, John?" She asked (account)
She asked John.....................................what had happened the day before.
69. Those two makes of car are practically the same. (hardly)
There are...................................................those two makes of car.
70. There is no way that I can meet you tomorrow. (question)
Meeting you tomorrow...........................................................
IX. Câu 71-80: Viết lại các câu theo gợi ý (kể cả những từ bắt đầu câu cho sẵn) vào Phiếu Trả Lời sao cho
ý nghĩa ban đầu của câu không thay đổi.
71. It's sad, but the crime rate is unlikely to go down this year.
Sad as .....................................................................................
72. You must concentrate on your study more.
You must apply ......................................................................
73. It has been nearly one year since they stopped subscribing to that magazine.
They cancelled ........................................................................
74. I don't feel like going to the party.
I am not in ..............................................................................
75. "Please don't run so fast!" Suzy begged her friend.
Suzy pleaded ..........................................................................
76. You should not only balance your diet but also do sports.
In addition ............................................................................
77. Immediately after their arrival, the meeting was delayed.
Barely ...................................................................................
78. If you don’t pay on time, your booking will be cancelled.
Failure ..................................................................................
79. David is proud of the fact that he is never late.
David prides .........................................................................
80. It’s nobody's fault that the meeting was cancelled.
Nobody is to .........................................................................
X. Câu 81: Viết một ĐOẠN VĂN khoảng 120 - 150 từ, sử dụng lập luận và dẫn chứng cụ thể để bình luận
về chủ đề sau.
To be admitted to university, using the result of study during high school years is better than that of the
university entrance examination. Do you agree or disagree?
HẾT
ANSWER KEY
I. Câu 01-05: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có phần gạch dưới được phát âm khác với những từ còn
lại trong mỗi câu.
01. A. eliminate B. equal C. elaborate D. ejection

02. A. carriage B. dosage C. massage D. voyage
03. A. suit B. bruise C. suite D. fruit
04. A. calculate B. populate C. contemplate D. fortunate
05. A. apprehension B. division C. precision D. measure
II. Câu 06-10: Chọn từ (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí khác với
những từ còn lại trong mỗi câu.
06. A. ignorant B. decisive C. horizon D. museum

07. A. suffice B. product C nuclear D. province
08. A. neurosis B. nocturnal C nominate D. nostalgia
09. A. psychological B. contributory C argumentative D. hypersensitive
10. A. crescendo B. attorney C. compromise D. endeavor
III. Câu 11-20: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phướng án đúng nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) cho mỗi câu hỏi.
(1) On the night of September 2, 1666, a fire broke out in a baker's shop near Fish Street Hill in London. Before
the flames were finally extinguished, nearty the entreaty had been reduced to ashes. Over thirteen thousand
homes, fifty churches and numerous public buildings and hospitals were lost in the blaze. For all practical
purposes, London was destroyed.
(5) The Great Fire was not seen as a total tragedy, however. The deplorable conditions of the city had been
attacked by physicians and humanitarians for years before the fire; thus, with the opportunity dearly presented to
create a shining new dty, artists and craftsmen from all over England hurried to submit their designs for the
rebuilding of London.
Among those who submitted plans was Sir Christopher Wren, one of England's leading architects and the
(10) Surveyor of London. The task of rebuilding the city was given to him. Wren realized that the Great Fire
would not have been so damaging if the city had been better laid out: broader streets were needed to replace the
crooked, narrow alleys overhung with dilapidated wooden houses and shops. He also felt that redesigning the
main thoroughfares of London would result in increased and more effective transportation within the city.
Shortly after Wren began working on his first drafts for the rebuilding. King Charles I issued a proclamation
(15) prohibiting the construction of any house or shop within the city limits until after the plans were completed.
When the plans were unveiled to the citizens of London, however, they were overwhelmingly rejected. The most
vocal leaders of the opposition were the landlords, who feared that such a drastic widening of the streets would
reduce the amount of land available for development.
(20) Winter was approaching; consequently, it was necessary for the rebuilding to proceed at once. Permission
was, therefore, granted for the townspeople and landlords to commence reconstruction of their houses and shops
at the sites where they had been before the fire. Had the need for immediate action not been so pressing, some
kind of compromise could likely have been reached. This was not to be, however, and the ideas that could (25)
have made London one of the world's most beautiful cities never came to pass.
11 The probable meaning of “reduced to ashes” (line 2) is ..........

A. made unbearably hot B. discolored by the fire and smote
C. covered with ashes D. destroyed by fire
12. Which of the followings was probably among the deplorable conditions of the city?
A. lack of adequate lightning
B. the rough streets and alleys
C. the run-down condition of many houses and shops
D. all of the above
13. What did Sir Christopher Wren describe as the reason for the damage of the city?
A. the configuration B. the construction C. the landscape D. the pathway
14. The word thoroughfares (line 13) refers to..........
A. public buildings B. streets C. alleys D. houses and shops
15. The word proclamation (line 14) refers to..........
A. promulgation B. speech C. request D. law
16. The word unveiled (line 16) refers to..........
A. concealed B. disclosed C. obscured D. edipsed
17. What became of the plans for the rebuilding of London?
A. Nothing - they were never finished.
B. They were adopted in modified form.
C. They were followed and London was rebuilt at once.
D. Nothing - London was rebuilt as it had been before the fire.
18. To whom or what does they (line 23) refer to..........?
A. the original building sites B. the townspeople
C. the burned-down houses and shops D. the landlords
19. Which of the following describes the author's probable attitude toward Sir Christopher Wren's plans?
A. He feels it would have been a mistake to rebuild London according to Wren's designs.
B. He feels it was a mistake for London not to have been rebuilt according to Wren's designs.
C. He feels that someone rather than Wren should have been chosen to plan the rebuilding.
D. He feels that Wren's ideas had much more influence than commonly acknowledged.
20. Which of the following would be an appropriate title for the passage?
A. "The Life and Times of Sir Christopher Wren"
B. "The Rebuilding of London"
C. "The Holocaust of Fish Street Hill"
D. "The London That Might Have Been"
IV. Câu 21-30: Đọc đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) cho mỗi chỗ
trống.
Smart Shoes
Smart shoes that adjust their size throughout the day could soon be available. A prototype has already been
produced and a commercial (21).....may be in production within a few years. The shoe contains sensors that
constantly check the amount of room left in it. If the foot has become too large, a tiny valve opens and the shoe
(22).....slightly. The entire control system is about 5 mm square and is located inside the shoe. This radical shoe
(23).....a need because the volume of the (24)...... foot can change by as much as 8% during the course of the day.
The system is able to learn about the wearer's feet and (25)......up a picture of the size of his or her feet
throughout the day. It will allow the shoes to change in size by up to 8% so that they always fit (26)....... They
are obviously more comfortable and less likely to cause blisters. From an athlete's point of view, they can help
improve (27)......a little, and that is why the first (28).....for the system is likely to be in a sports shoe. Eventually,
this system will find a (29)......In many other household items, from beds that automatically change to fit the
person sleeping in them, to power tools that (30)......themselves to the user's hand for better grip.
21. A. assortment B. version C. style D. variety

22. A. amplifies B. develops C. expands D. increases
23. A. detects B. finds C. meets D. faces
24. A. average B. general C. usual D. medium
25. A. build B. pick C. grow D. set
26. A. exactly B. absolutely C. completely D. totally
27. A. achievement B. performance C. success D. winning
28. A. purpose B. exercise C. use D. operation
29. A. function B. part C. way D. place
30. A. shape B. change C. respond D. convert
V. Câu 31-40: Chọn từ/ cụm từ thích hợp nhất (ứng với A, B, C hoặc D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.
31. Save your money. Don't.......it too quickly.

A. go through B. die down C. hold on D. touch on
32. They all have to follow the rules, and none of them is.......the law.
A. over B. beyond C. above D. onto
33. They.......the aid of the United States but did not receive it.
A. asked B. found C. sought D. obtained
34. The police spokesman said he was.......to believe that the arrested man was the serial killer they had been
looking for.
A. inclined B. seemed C. suspected D. supposed
35. I'm.......my brother is.
A. nowhere near as ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nowhere like so ambitious as D. nothing as ambitious as
36. He says he might come, but I........
A. doubt B. doubt it C. doubt so D. doubt about it
37. I'm sure your bank manager will lend you a.......ear when you explain the situation to him.
A. merciful B. sympathetic C. pitiful D. compassionate
38. Have you seen the girl.......?
A. that I told B. I told you of C. whom I told you D. I told you of her
39. Children usually.......a flu much more quickly than adults.
A. pick up B. pick at C. pick on D. pick out
40. The accident.......was the mistake of the driver.
A. causing many people to die B. caused great human loss
C. to cause many people die D. which causes many people to die
VI. Câu 41-50: Sử dụng từ trong ngoặc ở dạng thích hợp nhất để điền vào các chỗ trống.
Shadow puppetry is a traditional art form that often goes (41. appreciate).......in modem times. A large part of
the (42. appealable).......of puppet shows is the (43. craft).......behind the creation of the actual puppets. In
shadow puppetry, on the other hand, the puppets remain (44. see)......., so the real artistry is in the presentation.
The combination of the puppets’ shape, the background screen, and the light itself creates the overall effect of
the shadow puppet show. The task of the director is to ensure these elements are working together (45.
harmony).......in order to produce the optimal experience for the audience. The screen is the medium through
which the audience experiences the performance, so selecting the best screen is among great (46. essential)........
One unique challenge for the director is that the presentation is two-dimensional. The screen is flat, so puppets
can only move forwards and backwards. Having chosen a screen and designed the set, the next step is to
determine the light that will be used. There are several factors to be considered: (47. intense)......., spread, and
angle. Therefore, finding the optimal (48. combine).......of light, shadow involves careful (49. plan)......and
scrupulous design. Every detail must be controlled in relation to others, making shadow puppetry an art of (50.
precise).......
41. appreciated 42. appeal 43. craftiness 44. unseen 45. harmoniously
46. essentials 47. intensity 48. combination 49. planning 50. precision
VII. Câu 51-60: Tìm từ thích hợp nhất để điền vào chỗ trống trong đoạn văn. Mỗi chỗ trống chỉ điền
MỘT từ.
Son Doong Cave is in the heart of Phong Nha Ke Bang National Park in Quang Binh province of Central
Vietnam. Only recently (51).........in 2009-2010 by the British Cave Research Association, the cave has only
been open to the (52).........since 2013.
Fewer people have seen the inside of Son Doong Cave than have stood on the summit of Mount Everest. Join
us on this otherworldly expedition and become one of the lucky few (53)......... have had the life changing
experience of exploring the world's largest cave.
Imagine trekking straight into the (54).........of the world's largest cave on an expedition unlike any other. A
cave is (55).........massive that a Boeing 747 could fly through its largest cavern. Foreign landscapes found
(56) ......... else, enormous stalagmites rising from the ground and statuesque stalactites hanging from the celling
like an alien species. Jungles emerge (57).........the cave itself, which is so surreal that it's worth seeing once.
Misty clouds envelop the whole scene, a result of the cave's own localised weather system. Passages adorned
(58).........ancient fossils offer evidence of the millions of years that have passed on this Earth.
As you approach the Jungle just outside the entrance, the (59) .......... of cool wind that cascades out brings to
life everything inside of you. Hazy, cold and exhilarating, it is apparent that there's (60)..........magical waiting
just beyond the opening to the cave.
51. discovered 52. public 53. that / who 54. heart /centre 55. so 56. nowhere
57. outside 58. with 59. current / blowing 60. more
VIII Câu 61-70: Sử dụng từ cho sẵn trong ngoặc và các từ khác để hoàn thành câu thứ hai sao cho ý nghĩa
của nó tương tự như câu thứ nhất. Chỉ được viết từ 2 đến 5 từ vào Phiếu Trả Lời và không được thay đổi
dạng thức của từ cho sẵn.
61. Mary cried her eyes out just after she was told she'd been rejected for the Job. (broke)
Mary...............................as soon as she heard she'd been rejected for the job. broke down
62. I never thought that I would win the lottery. (occurred)
It never.................................................that I would win the lottery. occurred to me
63. I failed to make him understand that I didnt want to see him anymore. (across)
I failed........................................that I didnt want to see him anymore. put it across
64. Would you give us your answer as soon as possible? (convenience)
Please reply................................................................... at your convenience
65. I'm so sorry, I didn't realise it was so late. (track)
Sorry, I..................................................................time. didn’t follow the track of
(time)
66. Everyone who spoke to the victim is a suspect. (under)
Everyone who spoke to the victim................................................... is under suspicion
67. She will probably be chosen for the beauty contest. (stands)
She.........................................................chosen for the beauty contest. stands a chance of being
68. "Can you tell me what happened yesterday, John?" She asked (account)
She asked John.....................................what had happened the day before. to account for
69. Those two makes of car are practically the same. (hardly)
There are...................................................those two makes of car. hardly any differences between
70. There is no way that I can meet you tomorrow. (question)
Meeting you tomorrow........................................................... is out of the question
IX. Câu 71-80: Viết lại các câu theo gợi ý (kể cả những từ bắt đầu câu cho sẵn) vào Phiếu Trả Lời sao cho
ý nghĩa ban đầu của câu không thay đổi.
71. It's sad, but the crime rate is unlikely to go down this year.
Sad as it is, the crime rate is unlikely to go down this year.
72. You must concentrate on your study more.
You must apply yourself with your study.
73. It has been nearly one year since they stopped subscribing to that magazine.
They cancelled subscribing to that magazine nearly a year ago.
74. I don't feel like going to the party.
I am not in the mood for going to the party.
75. "Please don't run so fast!" Suzy begged her friend.
Suzy pleaded with her friend not to run so fast.
76. You should not only balance your diet but also do sports.
In addition to balancing your diet, you should do sports.
77. Immediately after their arrival, the meeting was delayed.
Barely had they arrived when the meeting was delayed.
78. If you don’t pay on time, your booking will be cancelled.
Failure to pay on time will cancel your booking.
79. David is proud of the fact that he is never late.
David prides himself on being never late.
80. It’s nobody's fault that the meeting was cancelled.
Nobody is to blame for the meeting being cancelled / for the cancel of the meeting.
X. Câu 81: Viết một ĐOẠN VĂN khoảng 120 - 150 từ, sử dụng lập luận và dẫn chứng cụ thể để bình luận
về chủ đề sau.
To be admitted to university, using the result of study during high school years is better than that of the
university entrance examination. Do you agree or disagree?
The End
ENGLISH PRACTICE 56
I. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
6. A. B. temperature C. impossible D. experiment
evaporate
7. A. gravity B. professor C. pyramid D. remedy
8. A. abandon B. discover C. imagine D. satisfy
9. A. activity B. epidemic C. philosopher D. significance
10.A. picture B. business C. stranger D. return
II. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C and D) one best answer to complete each
sentence.
6. He soon received promotion, for his superior realized that he was a man of considerable__________.
A. opportunity B. ability C. possibility D. future
7. Take the number 7 bus and get__________ at Forest Road.
A. off B. up C. down D. outside
8. Some people think it is__________ to use long and little-known words.
A. sensitive B. clever C. intentional D. skilled
9. Don't touch the cat, he may__________ you.
A. scratch B. kick C. tear D. scream
10. These old houses are going to be__________ soon.
A. run down B. knocked out C. pulled down D. laid out
11. The house is__________ at the corner of a busy street.
A. put B. stood C. placed D. situated
12. You must be careful when you wash this__________ silk blouse.
A. delicate B. weak C. feeble D. sensitive
13. The stolen jewels were__________ a lot of money.
A. worth B. priced C. valued D. cost
14. Would you be__________ to hold the door open?
A. too kind B. as kind C. kind enough D. so kind
15. He couldn't make the radio__________.
A. work B. to work C. working D. worked
16. I__________ do that if I were you.
A. won't B. don't C. shan't D. wouldn't
17. While studying he was financially dependent__________ his wife.
A. of B. to C. from D. on
18. He often__________ about his expensive car.
A. boasts B. shows C. prides D. praised
19. She isn't__________ well with the new manager.
A. going on B. getting on C. keeping on D. taking on
20. What do you mean, he's watching television? He's__________ to be washing the car.
A. hoped B. thought C. supposed D. expected
III. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets.

Forests from an integral component of the (21. SPHERE)_______ are essential to the (22.
STABILITY)_______ of global climate and the management of water and land. They are home for (23.
COUNT)_______ plants and animals that are vital elements of our life-supporting systems, as well as for
millions of forest (24. DWELL)_______ . They provide goods for direct (25. CONSUME)_______ (including
recreational activities) and land for food production. They also represent capital when converted to shelter and
(26. FRASTRUCTURE)_______ .
The two main types of forests are tropical, which are rich in (27. DIVERSITY)_______ and valuable
tropical (28. WOOD)_______ and temperate, which serve as the world’s primary source of industrial wood. The
temperate forests (1.5 billion hectares) can be found mainly in developed countries, whereas the tropical forests
(both moist and dry, (29. TOTAL)_______ about 1.5 billion ha each) stretch across the developing world. Two
thirds of the tropical moist forests are in Latin America, with the (30. REMAIN)_______ split between Africa
and Asia; three quarters of the tropical dry forests are in Africa.
IV. Each sentence below has four underlined words or phrases marked A, B, C, D. Circle one underlined
word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
31. My father used to giving me some good advice whenever I had a problem.
A. a problem B. whenever C. some good D. giving
32. The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star.
A. is parked B. of whom the C. a famous pop star D. front of
33. The better you are at English, more chance you have to get a job with international organizations.
A. a job B. better C. are at D. more chance
34. There are differences and similarities between Vietnamese and American culture.
A. Vietnamese B. and similarities C. There are D. culture
35. Society will be having to change radically to keep pace with the technology available.
A. with B. Society C. available D. will be having
V. Each of the numbered lines in the passage contains a mistake, find and correct it.
VI. Read the following passage then choose the best answer from the four options (marked A, B, C and D) to
complete the numbered blanks in the passage.
Several years ago while I was visiting Athens for a few weeks, I decided to spend a whole day on a
nearby island. The weather (46)________ had predicted that it would be a scorching hot day so (47)________
off early in the morning.
Even though I arrived at the port in plenty of time, I was forced to sit on the top (48)________because
other passengers who had got to the boat earlier filled the lower ones. Soon after the boat had departed,
somebody came round with raffle tickets. There were, as far as I could make (49)________two prizes: a bag of
fresh fish and several (50)________ of chocolate. I bought a ticket, not expecting to win as I had never won
anything in a raffle (51)________.
Some time later the person who had sold the tickets announced the winning numbers. To my great
surprise, I had won the chocolate. I was naturally delighted, but (52)________how I could prevent it from
(853)________in the intense heat. Realizing that I could not possible eat it all myself, I (54)________it with the
passengers sitting near me. In return, they offered me sandwiches and (55)________drinks.
All in all, it was a pleasant start to a memorable day with my new acquaintances.
46. A. prediction B. prophecy C. forecast D. foresight

47. A. went B. left C. departed D. set
48. A. deck B. layer C. floor D. storey
49. A. up B. out C. for D. over
50. A. bars B. slices C. cartons D. packets
51. A. again B. before C. since D. already
52. A. thought B. questioned C. wondered D. regarded
53. A. dissolving B. liquefying C. melting D. spreading
54. A. separated B. divided C. distributed D. shared
55. A. soft B. light C. bubbly D. sparkling

VII. Read the following passage and then choose one word to fill in each blank.
MTV stands for Music Television. It's a television (56)________ dedicated to pop music. It was
(57)________ on 1st August 1981 in the United States. Because of MTV's instant success in the US, the company
expanded into other (58)________. MTV Europe (59)________ operating on 1 st August 1987. MTV Europe
(60)________ 24 hours a day from its London studios. It can be seen in 33 countries and reaches an estimated
(61)________ of 110 million viewers.
People of 19 different nationalities work at London headquarters, and they try to offer a (62) of music
from all over Europe. The channel broadcasts in (63)________ but Germany provides the biggest number of
viewers. Currently, one fifth of the (64)________ is by German artists.
Most of TV output is video and concerts, but there is also a programme (65)________ Unplugged,
where major artists play live and acoustic in front of a small studio audience.
VIII. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best answers each of the questions in the following passage.
The Stone Age was a period of history which began in approximately two million B.C and lasted until
3000 B.C. Its name was derived from the stone tools and weapons that modern scientists found. This period was
divided into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic, and Neolithic Ages.
During the first period (2 million to 8000 B.C), the first hatchet and use of fire for heating and cooking
were developed. As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved about one million years into the Paleolithic Age,
people were forced to seek shelter in caves, wear clothing, and developed new tools.
During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 6000 B.C), people made crude pottery and the first fish hooks, took
dogs hunting, and developed the bow and arrow, which was used until the fourteenth century A.D.
The Neolithic Age (6000 to 3000 B.C) saw humankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs, and cattle,
being less nomadic than in previous eras, establishing permanent settlements, and creating governments.
66. Into how many periods was the Stone Age divided?
A. two B. three C. four D. five
67. The word “derived” is closest meaning to___________.
A. originated B. destroyed C. inferred D. discussed
68. Which of the following was developed earliest?
A. fish hook B. bow and arrow C. hatchet D. pottery
69. Which of the following developments is NOT related to the conditions of the Ice Age?
A. farming B. clothing C. living indoors D. using fire
70. The word “crude” is closest meaning to___________.
A. extravagant B. complex C. vulgar D. primitive
71. The author states that the Stone Age was so named because____________.
A. it was very durable like stone B. there was little vegetation
C. the stools and weapons was made of stone D. the people lived in stone caves
72. The word “nomadic” is closest meaning to___________.
A. sedentary B. wandering C. primitive D. inquisitive
73. The word “eras” is closest meaning to___________.
A. families B. periods C. herds D. tools
74. Which of the following best describes the Mesolithic Age?
A. people were inventive B. people were warriors

C. People stayed indoors all the time D. people were crude
75. With what subject is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The Neolithic Age B. The Stone Age C. The Ice Age D. The Paleolithic
Age
IX. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it.
→ Rather__________________________________________________.
77. There aren’t many other books which explain this problem so well.
→ In few other books____________________________________.
78. I dislike it when people criticize me unfairly.
→ I object_________________________________________________.
79. Robert is sorry now that he didn’t accept the job.
→ Robert now wishes___________________________________.
80. I am having a lot of trouble now because I host my passport last week.
→ If I______________________________________________________.
81. When the police caught him, he was climbing over the garden wall.
→ The police caught_____________________________________.
82. It’s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
→ Sad______________________________________________________.
83. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
→ The man is_____________________________________________.
84. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
→ Having_________________________________________________.
85. “Nothing will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house,” she said.
→ She flatly_______________________________________________.
X. Writing an essay.
“Economic start-up projects among the young nowadays make us believe in a prosperous future for the
nation”.
____________THE END____________
I. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.

1. 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D
B
II. 15pts: 1pt/ item

6. B 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. A
D
16. 17. D 18. 19. B 20. C
D A
III 10pts: 1 point/correct answer.

.
21. biosphere 23. countless 25. consumption 27. biodiversity 29. totally
22. stabilization 24. dwellers 26. infrastructure 28. hardwood 30. Remainder
IV. 5pts: 1 point/correct answer.

31. D 32. 33. D 34. D 35. D
B
V. 10pts: 1 point/correct answer.
36. Is → Does 39. most → more 42. is → are 44. Made → Make
37. feeling → 40. possibly → 43. confidently → 45. opportunities →
feel possible confident opportunity
38. real → really 41. provides →
provide
VI 15pts: 1 point/correct answer.

.
46. C 47. 48. A 49. B 50. A 51. B 52. 53. C 54. D 55. A
D C
VII. 15pts: 1 point/correct answer.

56. 58. areas 60. broadcast 62. mixture 64. music
channel 59. began/ started 61. audience 63. English 65. called
57. born
VIII. 15pts: 1 point/correct answer.

66. 67. A 68. 69. A 70. 71. C 72. B 73. 74. A 75. B
B C D B

71 → Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
. → In few other books would one see this problem so well- explained.
72 → I object to people criticizing me unfairly.
. → Robert now wishes (that) he had taken/accepted the job.
73 → If I hadn’t lost my passport last week, I wouldn’t have been having so much trouble now.
. → The police caught him (as he was) climbing over the garden wall.
74 → Sad though/as it is, unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
. → The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car.
75 → Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
. → She flatly refused to sleep in that haunted house.
76 (15pts) Students’ own answers
. Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content, the
X. 77 candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
. Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language, the
78 candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
. language high school students.
79 Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
. presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate styles
80 and linking devices
.
________THE END________
ENGLISH PRACTICE 57
Part A: phonetics
I: Pick out the word with the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest(5pts)
1. A. confide B. hobbies C. convince D. principle
2. A. kites B. sketches C. oranges D. buzzes
3. A. mountain B. pronounce C. country D. pounce
4. A. common B. conceited C. won D. terror
5. A. solution B. resolution C. success D. prosperity
II. Pick out the word that has the tress syllable different from that of the other words (5pts)
6. A. agency B. memory C. influence D. encounter
7. A. detective B. completely C. regional D. campaign
8. A. preservation B. dictation C. reservation D. liberation
9. A. preserve B. tropical C. climate D. temperature
10. A. advantage B. authority C. government D. intention

Part B : vocabulary and grammar
I. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence(15pts)
1. The school was closed for a month because of serious . . . . . . . . . . . . of fever.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
2. Don’t be late for the interview, . . . . . . . . . . . . people will think you are a disorganized person.
A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so
3. Women……………. wear long dresses.
A. are used to B. used to C. used for D. all are correct
4. He went…………… a bad cold just before Christmas.
A. down with B. in for C. over D. through
5. We have had the roof of our house……………..
A. to replace B. replace C. been replaced D. replaced
6. There was no……………..in waiting longer than half an hour, so we left.
A. good B. use C. worth D. point
7. The soldier was punished for………. to obey his commanding officer’sorders.
A. refusing B. regretting C. objecting D. resisting
8. She is………….. to leave as soon as possible.
A. cautious B. anxious C. worried D. nervous
9. There was nothing special about his clothes………… from his flowery tie.
A. but B. except C. other D. apart
10. She……….. her husband’s job for his ill health.
A. accused B. blamed C. caused D. claimed
11…………..you have no key, you’ll have to get back before I go out.
A. although B. provided C. as D. unless
12. Radar…………….. pilots to land safely in difficult weather conditions.
A. forces B. gets C. enables D. warns
13. I’m sorry, I haven’t got any money. I have ……..my wallet at home
A. missed B. left C. let D. forgotten
14. The man …………of the killing said that he was at the cinema at that time
A. accused B. was accused C. accusing D. be accused
15. It isn’t quite ……….that he will turn up at the meeting
A. certain B. exact C. sure D. right
II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pts)
1. I don’t believe it! It’s three in the morning and that party still…………(not finish).
2. Two miles ...(be) ... enough for her to go jogging every morning
3. Don’t call him at 2.30 p.m. He ( interview)................ job applicants at that time
4.I didn’t do the test well. I .................(prepare) it very carefully at home
5. Our car broke down. But for that, we………………. (to be) in time
6. It is imperative that the letter ……………(send) at once
7. I don’t mind her ………………(appoint) above me
8. When I see my brother again, he ……………(finish) all his exams
9. My father would rather that we ………………..(not leave) yesterday
10. Jane’s train ……………….(arrive) tomorrow morning at 7.00 so we will meet him at the station
III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pts)
1. Tom spoke…………………………because he was so excited. (BREATHE)
2. Do you ever suffer from…………………. (BORE)
3. Are there any………………………rivers left in the world? (POLLUTE)
4. This new film is…………………………….good. (EXCEPT)
5. Freedom of………………is one of the fundamental rights. (SPEAK)
6. After the explosion, only two people were left…………….. (LIVE)
7. The evening was…………………..spent playing and talking. (ENJOY)
8. Everyone has a number of………..but none has many true friends. (ACQUAINT)
9. There is a shortage of pure water in the city nowadays. We have to use it…… (ECONOMY)
10. ……………children will not be allowed to cross busy roads. (ACCOMPANY)
IV. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.(10pts)
1. The King was too happy that he decided to build a pagoda of lotus shape over water.
2. If I knew you were coming , I would have met you at the airport.
3. Found in 1933, The New York Sun was the first successful penny newspaper.
4. For such an experience and able teacher , discipline was not a problem
5. Never before have so many people in the United States interested in soccer.
6. Keeping calmly is the secret of passing your driving test
7. They didn’t seem to take any notice of that the teacher said.
8. Marie asked Sandra whether she knew the post office had been at strike for the past week
9. Nobody watched, so the little boy took the packet of sweets from the shelf and putting it in his pocket.
10. More and more women are now joining the pay labor force worldly
Part C : Reading
I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space(10pts)
Around the age of sixteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. Do I stay on at
school and hopefully go on to university (1)_____? Do I leave and start work or beginning a training (2)_____ ?
The decision is yours, but it may be (3)_____ remembering two things: there is more unemployment
(4)_____ who haven’t been to university, and people who have the right (5)_____ will have a big advantage in
the competition for jobs. If you decide to go (6)_____ into a job, there are many opportunities for training.
Getting qualifications will (7)_____ you to get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you
to learn (8)_____ you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is (9)_____
possibility . This way, you can save up money for your student days, as well as (10)_____ practical work
experience.
1. A. after B. later C. then D. past
2. A. school B. class C. course D. term
3. A. worth B. necessary C. important D. useful
4. A. between B. among C. with D. through
5. A. notes B. papers C. arts D. skills
6. A. straight B. just C. direct D. rather
7. A. make B. help C. let D. give
8. A. where B. while C. when D. what
9. A. also B. again C. another D. always
10. A. getting B. making C. taking D. doing
II. Fill in the gap with one suitable word to complete the paragraph(10pts)
Most of the addicts are men. They come home (1)………….work, eat their meal quickly, and then spend the
evening (2)………..their computers. Some of them (3)………….programs, but most of them (4)…………play
games. Some wises say (5)……….computer is killing their marriage. Their husbands play until three (6)
……..four o’clock in the morning and all weekend. people (7)………..these lonely wives “computer widows”.
When television became popular in the 1950s, doctors said it caused “ television neck”, TV eyes and (8)
………….new illnesses, and makes their eyes tired. But worst (9)………..all, it is addictive. That means it is
(10)……….drinking, smoking or taking drugs. Some people can’t stop doing it.
III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10pts)
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius , they will cause a disaster.
According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious
parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic
parental expectations can cause great damage to children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a
sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very supportive of their
child. Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to
concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week
for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large
orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling. Winston Smith,
Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and they set too high a
standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano
competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint
his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.
1: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to ______.
A. push their child into trying too much B. help their child to become a genius
C. make their child become a musician D. neglect their child’s education

2: Parents’ ambition for their children is not wrong if they ______.
A. force their children into achieving success B. themselves have been very successful
C. understand and help their children sensibly D. arrange private lessons for their children
3: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic parents. C. Their children. D. Educational psychologists.
4: Michael Collins is fortunate in that ______.
A. his father is a musician B. his parents are quite rich
C. his mother knows little about music D. his parents help him in a sensible way
5: The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. "surprised at" B. "extremely interested in"
C. "completely unaware of" D. "confused about"
6: Winston’s parents push their son so much and he ______.
A. has won a lot of piano competitions B. cannot learn much music from them
C. has become a good musician D. is afraid to disappoint them
7: The word "They" in the passage refers to ______.
A. concerts B. violin lessons C. parents in general D. Michael’s parents
8: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT _____.
A. Winston’s father B. Winston’s mother C. Michael’s father D. Michael’s mother
9: The word "unwilling" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. "getting ready to do something" B. "eager to do something"
C. "not objecting to doing anything" D. "not wanting to do something"
10: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that ______.
A. successful parents always have intelligent children
B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children
C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants
D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education
Part D: writing
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same meaning as the sentence printed before
it. (10pts)
1. He not only failed in his exam but also had a road accident
- Not only ……………………………………………………..
2. The book was so interesting that people couldn’t put it down.
- It was ..........................................................................................................
3. They had hardly left home when it started to rain.

- No sooner .....................................................................................................
4. Your hair needs cutting.
- It’s about time you .......................................................................................
5. I only recognized him when he came into light.
- Not until ……………………………………..……………………
- Had it not ……………………………………………
7. Everyone heard about the accident before I did.
- I was ...........................................................
8. Would you mind leaving your shoes outside?
- I’d rather…… ………………………………
9. The rail workers don’t intend to call off their strike.
- The rail workers have no..................................................... .....
10. We found that somebody had broken one of our windows
- One of our windows …………………………………………………………
II. Write a second sentence as similar in meaning as the first one. Use the word given.(5pts)
1.I find his handwriting very hard to read (DIFFICULTY)
……………………………………………………………………………
2. . I couldn't go to work because of the flood. (PREVENTED)
…………………………………………………………………………
3. I don’t believe in anything that he says.(whatever)
…………………………………………………………………………
4. He prefers tea to coffee.(Rather)
…………………………………………………………..
5. I’ve never read such a sarcastic essay before. (ever)
……………………………………………………..
…………The end……………
Mỗi câu đúng = 1 điểm
Part A
I. 1A, 2A, 3C, 4C, 5B
II. 1D, 2C, 3B,4A , 5C
Part B
I. 1D 2B 3B 4A 5D 6D 7A 8B 9C 10B11C12C13B14A15A
II.
1. hasn’t finished 6. be sent/ should be sent
2. is 7. having been appointed (being appointed)
3. will be interviewing 8. will have finished
4. should have prepared 9. hadn’t left
5. would have been 10. arrives
III.
1. breathlessly 2. boredom 3. unpolluted 4. exceptionally 5. speech
6. alive 7. enjoyably 8. acquaintances 9. economically 10. unaccompanied
IV. (tìm ra lỗi được 0.5đ, sửa lại đúng được 0.5 đ)
1. too – so 2. knew – had known 3. found – founded

4. experience – experienced 5. interested - been interested
6. calmly – calm 7. that – what 8. at – on
9. putting – put 10. pay – paid
Part C
I. 1B 2C 3A 4B 5D 6A 7B 8B 9C 10A
II. 1 from 2 on 3 make 4 only/just 5 the
6 or 7 call 8 other 9 of 10like
III. 1A 2C 3D 4D 5B 6D 7D 8D 9D 10C
Part D
1. Not only did he fail in his exam but (he) also had a road accident
2. It was such an interesting book that people couldn’t put it down
3. No sooner had they left home than it started to rain
4. It’s about time you had your hair cut/ a haircut/ you had someone cut your hair
5. Not until he came into light did I recognize him
6. Had it not been for the attendance of a famous film star, the party would not have been a success
7. I was the last person to know/ hear about the accident
8. I’d rather you left your shoes outside
9. The rail workers have no intention of calling off their strike.
10. One of our windows was found to have been broken
II. 1. I have difficulty (in) reading his handwriting
2. The flood prevented me from going to work
3. I don’t believe whatever he says
4. He’d rather drink tea than (drink) coffee
5. This/ It is the most sarcastic essay that I have ever read
ENGLISH PRACTICE 58
1 A. candy B. sandy C. many D. handy
2 A. earning C. D. clearing
earning searching
3 A. pays B. stays C. says D. plays
4 A. given B. risen C. ridden D. whiten

5 A. cough B. tough C. rough D. enough
6 A. eleven B. elephant C. energy D. envelope
7 A. preparation B. C. television D. exhibition

decoration
8 A. leather B. paper C. iron D. ceramics
9 A. mirror B. invent C. wallet D. engine
1 A. discovery B. calculator C. aero-plane D. difficulty

0
III. Fill each blank with a suitable word or phrase.

11. The car can't have broken down. I_________ serviced last week.
12. If I_________ in that situation, I certainly wouldn't have had the courage to do what you did.
13. Although he had a difficult time during the war, it_________ harm.
14. It's no_________ the cold and wet, you'll just have to put up with it.
15. I won't have_________ their cars in the street outside the entrance to my house!
16. In times of hardship we have to learn to do_________ some basic necessities.
17. I'm_________ death of spiders!
18. I heard the thunder_________ in the distance.
19. He's been_________ weather for ages and still isn't back at work.
20. We made the uniforms ourselves as we couldn't_________ made.
IV. Find one underlined part marked A, B, C, or D that needs correcting.

past. A B C D
A B C
covering by water.
D
A B C D
A B C
butterfly, whom birds do not like to eat.
D
A B C D
V. Give the right form of the word in each blanket in the following passage.
From what we had read in the (26. ADVERTISE)________, it promise to be the holiday of a lifetime –
not only a quality hotel in a top (27. SEA)_________ resort, but also (28. SURPRISE)_________ cheap with it!
We should have known it was too good to be true! We arrived at the airport to discover we only had (29.
STAND)_________ tickets and there was no guarantee we would be flying. Luckily, two places became free at
the last minute and we took off. The flight lasted at least (30. TWO)_________ as long as it should have and by
the time we arrived, we were both feeling rather (31. POOR)_________ , probably because of the dubious in-
flight meal we had had. We were met by our guide, who seemed (32. LANGUAGE)_________ incompetent and
understood very little of what we said to him. Instead of the hotel we had seen in the photograph back home, he
took us to a squalid little guesthouse much (33. FAR)_________ away from the resort than we were expecting.
We wanted to explain that there had been a (34. DREAD)_________ mistake but it was (35. USE)_________
trying to complain – nobody could understand us.
VI. Choose among A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks.
36. The child was told to__________ for being rude to his uncle.
A. forgive B. apologize C. excuse D. confess
37. This is the__________ of the bicycle which was stolen.
A. information B. detail C. example D. description
38. Some drives, after__________ annoy their fellow-motorists by slowing down again immediately.
A. passing along B. passing by C. overtaking D. taking over
39. It is__________ unlikely that the Queen agree to open the new Town Hall.
A. greatly B. highly C. mainly D. largely
40. I don't think he'll ever__________ the shock of his wife's death.
A. get by B. get over C. get off D. get through
41. Some school have very__________ rules of behavior which must be obeyed.
A. strict B. strong C. straight D. solid
42. It was difficult to__________ a date which was convenient for everyone.
A. organize B. arrange C. elect D. provide
43. It's difficult to pay one's bills when prices keep__________.
A. growing B. raising C. rising D. gaining
44. You may not have to stay the night but take a toothbrush just in__________.
A. preparation B. case C. time D. order
45. She remembered the correct address only__________ she had posted the letter.
A. since B. following C. after D. afterwards
VII. Choose from A, B, C, or D the one that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage.
The Internet bus
In the desert areas that surround Tucson city, USA, students spend hundreds of hours on yellow buses
each year getting to and from their schools. But when mobile internet equipment was (46)____________ on a
yellow school bus, the bored, often noisy, teens were transformed into quiet, studious individuals.
District officials got the idea during (47)____________ drives on school business to Phoenix, two
hours each way, when they (48)____________ that, when they went in pairs, one person could drive and the
other could work using a laptop and a wireless card. They (49)____________ if internet access on a school bus
could (50)____________ students’ academic productivity, too.
But the idea for what students call ‘the internet bus’ really took shape when the district’s chief
information officer (51)____________ across an article about having internet across in cars. He thought, “What
if you could put that in a bus?”
The officials have been delighted to see the (52)____________ of homework getting done, morning
and evening, as the internet bus (53)____________ up and drops off students along the 70-minute drive.
VIII. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word.

TRAVEL INSURANCE
something goes (56)________ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or even
become ill and need expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a
precaution (57)________ will help them have an enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for (58)________, travel
insurance is a way of earning money (59)________ making false claims against insurance companies. For
(60)________ some people pretend that they have had expensive equipment stolen which in (61)________ never
even existed, and then claim large sums in compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total
(62)________ £ 50 million per year. But the cheats’ luck is about to run (63)________. (64)________ to a new
computer system, companies will be able to tell at a glance (65)________ someone has made a claim within the
last three years. Honest travelers will no longer have to pay through the nose for other people’s dishonesty.
A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in dense fog, a
pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining
speeds of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of
radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps
a person determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves.
Radio waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short
burst of radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By determining
the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance between
the radar set and other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets its name from the term “radio detection and
ranging”. “Ranging” is the term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being
of critical importance to pilots, radar is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking
weather systems and storms.
66. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The nature of radar. B. History of radar. C. Alternatives to radar. D. Types of ranging.
67. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?
A. Shape B. Size C. Speed D. Weight
68. The word “exemplified” in the passage can be replaced by_________.
A. “specified” B. “resembled” C. “illustrated” D. “justified”
69. The word “shouts” in the passage most closely means_________.
A. “exclaims” B. “yells” C. “shoots” D. “whispers”
70. Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?
A. argumentative B. explanatory C. humorous D. imaginative
71. According to the passage, the distance between a radar set and an object can be determined by_________.
A. the time it takes for a burst of radio waves to produce echoes when the waves bounce off the object
B. the term “ranging” used for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set
C. the time it takes for the radio waves to produce echoes and bounce off the object
D. the time it takes for the echoes produced by the radio waves to return to the radar set
72. Which type of waves does radar use?
A. tidal B. sound C. heat D. radio
73. The word “tracking” in the passage most closely means_________.
A. sending B. searching for C. ranging D. repairing
74. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. A history of flying.B. Other uses of radar.C. The technology used by pilots. D. Uses of some technology.
75. What might be inferred about radar?
A. It takes the place of a radio. B. It has improved navigational safety.
C. It was developed from a study of sound waves. D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.
X. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one, using the word in capital letters
which must not be altered in any way.
→ You should ______________________________________.
→ There isn’t ______________________________________.
78. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now. (halved)
→ The coal produced _____________________________.
→ The likelihood __________________________________.
80. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident. (prompt)
→ The policeman’s ________________________________.
XI. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given.
→ If it hadn’t _______________________________________________.
→ There has _______________________________________________.
→ They stole _______________________________________________.
→ He tried in vain _________________________________________.
→ No sooner _______________________________________________.
XII. Writing an essay.

“Soft-skills are more and more needed for future jobs”.
____________THE END____________
KEY – PRACTICE 58
I (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer. II. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

.
1. C 2. D 3. 4. D 5. A 6. 7. C 8. 9. B 10. A
C D D
III. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

11. only had it 14. good/ use grumbling/ complaining 17. frightened/ scared
12. had been about to
13. did him no/ did not (seem to) do 15. people parking 18. rumbling
him any 16. without 19. under the
20. afford to have
them
IV. (5pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

21. 22. D 23. B 24. D 25. D
C
V. (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

26. advertisement 28. surprisingly 30. twice 32. linguistically 34. dreadful
27. seaside 29. standby 31. poorly 33. farther/ further 35. useless
VI (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

.
36. B 37. 38. C 39. B 40. B 41. A 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. C
D

VII (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

.
46. A 47. B 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. C 55. C
VIII (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

.
56. wrong 58. other/ some 60. example/ instance 62. of 64. Thanks
57. which 59. by 61. fact 63. out 65. whether/ if
IX (10pts) 1 pt/correct answer.

.
66. A 67. 68. C 69. B 70. B 71. D 72. D 73. B 74. 75. B
C B

76. → You should take the price into consideration before you decide whether to buy it or not.
77. → There isn’t much call for cars with large engines any more.
78. → The coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
79. → The likelihood is small of the PM calling an early general election.
80. → The policeman’s prompt action averted an accident.
XI. (5pts) 1 point/correct answer.

81. → If it hadn’t been for my father’s money, we could not have managed.
82. → There has been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
83. → They stole everything except for/but/apart from the television.
84. → He tried in vain to search for the stolen car.
85. → No sooner had the guests left than she started to clean up the house.
XII. (15pts) Students’ own answers

and linking devices
___________THE END__________

100 Đề Thi Luyện Vào Chuyên Anh Lớp 10

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100 Đề Thi Luyện Vào Chuyên Anh Lớp 10

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ENGLISH PRACTICE 1

PART ONE: PHONETICS

Question 13: Writing an essay (40p)

I. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7/20 points)

A. on account of B. in spite of C. in the event of D. in place of

2. His poor handling of the business ________ on negligence.

A. neared B. edged C. approached D. bordered

3. Down ________ for three days.

A. have B. pick C. mind D. use

5. The job wasn’t giving the ________ of the experience he wanted.

A. width B. depth C. length D. breadth

6. I suppose I could ________ advertising.

A. catch on B. get out of C. go in for D. work out

7. The storm ripped our tent to ________.

A. slices B. shreds C. strips D. specks

8. She travelled the world in ________ of her dreams.

A. pursuit B. finding C. chase D. trail

9. The agency is ________ and not run for profit.

A. charitable B. donated C. voluntary D. free

10. Mike, _______, will you switch off that television!

13. He has recorded the (NARRATE)______ for the production.

14. In this profession, women (NUMBER)______ men by two to one.

15. An (LAY)_______ showing population can be placed on top of the map.

18. These changes are likely to (POOR)________ single-parent families even further.

19. I’m afraid the hospital is desperately (STAFF)______ at the moment.

47. I do feel ________ you, honestly!

II. READING (6/ 20 points)

A. it could hardly be any different in this context

H. it is not clear whether they are subject to parking restrictions

I. it is tempting to try an alternative

76. 77. 78. 79. 80.

III. WRITING (7/ 20 points)

97. I heard her use those words many times.

It was not so ..................................................................................................................

99. They only reimbursed us because we took legal advice.

We wouldn't .................................................................................................................

100. Your silly question distracted me.

Home activities among young people

I. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (7/20 points)

Part 2: (1/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)

Part 4: (2/ 20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)

Part 5: (1/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)

II. READING: (6/ 20 points)

Part 3: (1/ 20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)

III. WRITING: (7/ 20 points)

99. We wouldn't have been reimbursed if we hadn’t taken legal advice.

100. You drove me to distraction with your silly question.

Part 2: (0.75/20pts) (0.15 point for each correct answer)

103. If only everything weren’t difficult to me!

104. Working without a break makes you more prone to error.

1. A. disappearance B. Sympathetic C. capacity D. conversation

1. A. rained B. followed C. arrived D. jumped

2. I kept out of the conversation because it _________ me.

A. wasn’t concerned B. wasn’t concerning C. didn’t concern D. didn’t concern to

5. He was arrested because he answered to the description of the _________ man.

A. live B. raw C. crude D. rude

7. _________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.

13. As the drug took _________, the patient became quieter.

16. All _____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.

17. It is urgent that this letter _____ immediately.

A. I couldn’t agree more B. I understand what you’re saying

C. You’re wrong D. I don’t see in that way

III. READING COMPREHENSION

THE ATMOSPHERE OF VENUS