(@clatexam20 - Official) CL Clat Mock 57 - 220211 - 121028

LST Mock 57 2021 (CLAT)
English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In
some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose
the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage – 1
Boasting wingspans of up to 11 feet-largest of any bird alive today-these feathered goliaths, native to the
Southern Ocean and North Pacific, are built to soar. Gliding at speeds exceeding 50 miles per hour, they
can cover vast swaths of sea in minutes, whilst scouring waters for bright flickers of fish. Some species
are known to spend years at sea without touching down on land, and a few have even been documented
circumnavigating the globe.
With their keen eyes and wandering ways, albatrosses are the de facto "sentinels of the sea," says Henri
Weimerskirch, a marine ornithologist at French National Center for Scientific Research.
Weimerskirch is working to make that title a little more official-by recruiting seabirds to patrol oceans for
illegal fishing vessels. He and his colleagues have outfitted nearly 200 albatrosses with tiny GPS trackers
that detect radar emissions from suspicious ships, allowing the birds to transmit locations of fishers
amid illicit acts. Results of this method were published in a study in the Proceedings of the National
Academy of Sciences.
Capable of following fishing boats into remote regions out of reach of monitoring machines like ships,
aircraft and even individual satellites, these feathered crimefighters could offer a convenient and cost-
effective way to keep tabs on foul play at sea-and may even help gather crucial conservation data along
the way.
"This is a clever method for facilitating law enforcement," says Melinda Conners, a conservation biologist
studying albatrosses at Stony Brook University who was not involved in the study. "There is no boat or
plane that can match the capability of an albatross to cover vast oceanic regions."
In many parts of the world, trawling for marine catch has become something of a fishy business. Though
estimates vary, around a fifth of fishes on the market may be the result of illegal, unreported and
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unregulated catches at sea. Fishers who trawl without a license, exceed quotas or underreport their hauls
imperil fragile ecosystems, and their operations have been linked to other crimes, including human
trafficking. All told, illegal fishing is thought to cost the global economy up to $20 billion or $30 billion
every year-figures that exceed the annual GDP of about half the world's countries.
However, policing the ocean, which blankets more than 70 percent of our planet, is no easy task for land-
based law enforcement agencies. Resources and infrastructure are notably lacking far from the coast,
where regulated strips of the ocean give way to international waters, says Amanda Gladics, a fisheries
expert at Oregon State University, not involved in the study.
Out here, surveillance often relies on something of an honour system, wherein vessels voluntarily report
their presence through an automatic identification system (AIS) that can easily be switched off. "If any
boats cut off its AIS, nobody knows where the boat is," Weimerskirch says.
Q 1. 11601887 It can be inferred from the passage that:
a) Albatrosses can detect vessels that have their automatic identification systems switched off.
b) Satellite tracking systems cannot reach the remote swaths of the high international waters.
c) Surveillance and policing by albatrosses extend to over 70% of the oceans on the planet.
d) Albatrosses are more effective than enforcement agencies in keeping a tab on illicit fishing.
Q 2. 11601887 All of the following are true about the surveillance carried out using an albatross
EXCEPT:
a) Certain officials have actualized the project of employing Albatrosses in surveillance.

b) Albatrosses have been trained to send back signals through GPS trackers fitted on them.
c) An Albatross will follow illegal fishing ships in far off regions that are hard for humans to track.
d) The use of Albatrosses for surveillance purposes does not appear to be a very expensive venture.
Q 3. 11601887 According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the albatross?
a) No other living bird is as large as the Albatross.
b) Albatrosses are native to colder areas of the polar region.

c) Albatross can see a fishing boat from a distance of 50 miles.
d) Albatrosses can fly long distances, even around the world.
Q 4. 11601887 Which of the following, if true, would most strongly invalidate Weimerskirch's project (of
recruiting Albatrosses to patrol the ocean for illegal fishing vessels)?
a)
Albatrosses are naturally attracted to fishing vessels because these vessels are a source of easy food for
the Albatross.
b)
Vessels constantly emit radar for the purpose of navigation and to avoid collisions with other marine
bodies.
c)
The range of radar signals from vessels is not big enough to be picked up by Albatrosses unless they get
close enough to the vessels.
d)
The devices attached to the plumage change the birds' natural routes and they tend to avoid long flights.
Q 5. 11601887 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the passage?
a) Albatrosses are fitted with GPS-enabled devices that send back signals about suspicious ships.
b) Albatrosses hover around ships and identify the ones that are working illegally.
c)
It is hoped that ships involved in criminal activities will not become aware of the purpose of Albatrosses
used in surveillance.
d) The GPS-enabled devices fitted on Albatrosses can track the radar emissions from ships.
Passage – 2
In the essay, "The Transaction", William Zinsser writes about a doctor who has recently begun to write
and has experienced some publishing successes. He compares his way of working with the way the
doctor works. Zinsser points out that to him, a professional writer, writing is a vocation, while to the
doctor, it is an avocation. The assignment of the term "avocation" implies the doctor will never be taken
seriously as a writer. I always wanted to call writing my vocation. Like many people, I had a lifelong dream
of being a writer. I began to teach. I never viewed teaching as my vocation. First and foremost, I was a
writer. The teaching was just something I did-a class or two a semester-on the side. Only "on the side"
took up a huge portion of what I'd anticipated would be my writing time. I am conscientious and
hardworking by nature, and approach everything I take on with gusto. Teaching was no different. I was
dedicated to helping my students discover and develop their individual voices. However, I decided to take
a break the following spring to put into practice the subject I'd been teaching and pursue my vocation. I
was going to write. What happened that spring is as unsurprising as a predictable plotline. With time
stretched out endlessly before me, I filled it just as endlessly with writing-related activities, all of which
provided a pretext of writing but produced little new work. I am an impulsive person and impulsively one
day, five months into my vocation as a full-time writer, I picked up the newspaper, studied the want ads
and started to send out my resume. I quickly progressed from applying for part-time to applying for full-
time positions, reasoning in my non-writing angst that as long as I was going to compromise on my
dream and work for someone else, I might as well be well paid for my efforts. When I began my new
position as a contract administrator for a real estate broker, I didn't know what to expect. So, what did I
discover? It was a refreshing change to work hard and have not only my boss, but all his clients tell me
what a great job I was doing. My communication skills, both oral and written, and the requirements of the
job were a perfect match. I'd found my vocation. Maybe the ending is to be expected, a plot twist in what
continues to be a predictable storyline. I still write. Now that writing has become my avocation, I have
become more prolific despite, or maybe because of, having to squeeze my writing into narrow periods of
time.
Q 6. 11601887 The author would describe avocation as a:
a) Full time job b) Part time job c) A hobby d) Life's Pursuit
Q 7. 11601887 Which of the following is the most likely reason for the author not being able to fulfil her
writing dreams?
a) She was not ready to take the risk of being a full time author.
b) She was not good enough.
c) She was not passionate enough.

d) She was never meant to be a writer; it was only an infatuation.
Q 8. 11601887 Which of the following can be concluded from the above passage?
a) Writing requires as much effort and dedication as any other vocation.
b) Education in the literary arts is a waste of time.
c) Writing can never be your full time job.

d) Writing cannot help sustain you financially.
Q 9. 11601887 Consider the statement, "Maybe the ending is to be expected, a plot twist in what
continues to be a predictable storyline." The twist in the plot refers to:
a) Resumption of writing by the author, but in a different scenario.

b) The author taking up a full time job.
c) The author enjoying her new role and being successful at it.
d) The author finally realizing the futility of her dream and giving up.
Q 10. 11601887 Which of the following CAN best replace the word prolific as mentioned in the passage?
a) Creative b) Nuanced c) Productive d) Imaginative
Passage – 3
Bravo to Norway for withdrawing its application to hold the 2022 Winter Olympics in Oslo. If anyone has
the desire, weather conditions, facilities and cash to put on the Winter Olympics, it is the Norwegians.
Even so, the government has pulled out in the face of public opposition, an apparently contagious
condition. Germany and Switzerland -- also major skiing nations -- initially planned bids but changed their
minds after losing referendums on the idea. Lviv, in Ukraine, withdrew for obvious reasons in June, while
Poland's Krakow pulled its bid in May after 70 percent of the city voted against it. Only China and
Kazakhstan remain -- two authoritarian regimes with poor human rights records and no need to consider
what their people think. This popular recoil from Olympics hosting is a rational response to the excess
and corruption of the games in Sochi, Russia, last February, and the painful spectacle of Rio de Janeiro
struggling to deliver the next Summer Olympics. Maybe Sochi Games broke even on operating costs, but
certainly not on the estimated $50 billion that Russia spent in total. The best way to fix this broken
process would be to get rid of it, and give the Summer and Winter Olympics a permanent residence on
land under international control. Or pick a handful of permanent locations around the world, so the
games could rotate among continents? If even that idea is too radical, there's plenty that could be done to
pare the games back to a size that would make cities want to host them. The cost of putting together a
successful bid for the games has gone up multiple times since proposals were drawn up for the 2010
Olympics. The games themselves have gotten too big: Capacity requirements force cities to ignore their
existing sports venues, and the number of hotel rooms needed for athletes, Olympic officials and media --
almost 25,000 -- use up all the existing space the average host city has to offer. That means a new hotel
room for every spectator. The huge construction cost -- and later redundancy - - all this implies is made
worse by IOC rules that prevent the games from being held across borders or among several cities.
Those who run the Olympic movement must recognize the games exist to showcase sporting excellence
-- not organizers' egos or the spending power of governments anxious to impress the world.
Q 11. 11601887 The countries which put up the proposal to host Olympic Games for voting by the public
are:
a) Norway, Ukraine, Poland b) Norway, Germany, Switzerland

c) Germany, Switzerland, Poland d) Norway, Germany, Switzerland, Poland
Q 12. 11601887 Which of the following is true as per the passage?
a) Qatar is hosting the next Summer Olympics.

b) Last Summer Olympics were held in Sochi, Russia.
c) Around $50 billion were spent during the last summer Olympics.
d) China is unlikely to conduct a referendum on the decision to host the Winter Olympics.
Q 13. 11601887 Which of the following has NOT been mentioned as one of the major problems of
hosting Olympic games?
a)
The host city for Olympics has to build a mammoth tourist infrastructure which becomes unnecessary
once the games are over.
b) As per the rules, multiple cities cannot host the same Olympics.
c)
It is likely that the operating costs may be recovered but the capital expenditure is possibly a sunk cost
for the Olympics games.
d)
The number of games and the corresponding athletes have become so huge that it is a logistical
nightmare to schedule the different sports and events during the Games.
Q 14. 11601887 The author mentions all of the following as possible solutions EXCEPT:
a)
That games be allowed to be conducted across different cities at the same time so that the they can be
completed quickly.
b)
That both summer and winter Olympics be conducted at permanent places and the process of bidding
for securing the hosting rights for the Games be scrapped.
c)
That both summer and winter Olympics be conducted at a few selected places and the process of
bidding for securing the hosting rights for the Games be scrapped.
d) That the scale of the event be brought down so that it becomes viable for the host cities.
Q 15. 11601887 Which of the following CAN best replace the word redundancy as mentioned in the
passage?
I. Uselessness
II. Excess
III. Superfluous
IV. Outdated
a) I and II b) III and IV c) I and III d) II and IV
Passage – 4
In the build-up to the 'Leaders' Climate Summit' organised by the United States this week, there has been
a flurry of articles about whether India should announce a 'net-zero' emissions target, and by when. The
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) 1.5°C report called for global carbon emissions to
reach net-zero by 2050, which the pressure cooker of climate diplomacy has quickly transformed into a
call for all countries to announce 2050 as the net-zero target year. Yet, global net zero may require some
countries reaching net-zero before 2050 in order for others to have some additional time. Since a
disproportionate share of the carbon space has been used up by developed countries, it is important that
they act boldly at home, to match the vigour of their diplomatic efforts.
Nonetheless, as a climate-vulnerable country, India must also up its game to contribute to limiting global
temperature rise, ideally below 1.5°C. While doing so, it should not lose sight of the history of global
climate negotiations and its own developmental needs. Though a large country and economy, we are still
a very poor country with a significant development deficit - for example, our per-capita carbon emissions
are less than half the world average.
So, what is the way forward for India? Saying India will take only modest steps until richer countries do
more is not viable in the context of a global climate crisis. Yet, announcing an Indian 2050 net-zero
commitment risks taking on a much heavier burden of decarbonisation than many wealthier countries,
and could seriously compromise India's development needs.
We suggest a third path, focused on concrete, near-term sectoral transformations through aggressive
adoption of technologies that are within our reach, and an earnest effort to avoid high carbon lock-ins.
This is best accomplished by focusing on sectoral low-carbon development pathways that combine
competitiveness, job-creation, distributional justice and low pollution in key areas where India is already
changing rapidly. This approach is directionally consistent with India moving [1] net-zero, which should be
our long-term objective. Here, we detail what such an approach would look like, by laying out the contours
of an enhanced national pledge for the electricity sector, to illustrate how it can be both ambitious and in
India's interest.
To achieve net-zero emissions, a key piece of the puzzle is to decarbonise the electricity sector, which is
the single largest source (about 40%) of India's greenhouse gas emissions. De-carbonised electricity
would also allow India to undertake transformational changes in urbanisation and industrial
development, for example by expanding the use of electricity for transport, and by integrating electric
systems into urban planning. India now needs to shift gears to a comprehensive re-imagination of
electricity and its role in our economy and society.
Q 16. 11601887 Which of the following would be the most suitable title for the given passage?
a) Urbanization and industrial development through decarbonized electricity.

b) India's net-zero target commitment.
c) A low-carbon future for India via sector-led change.
d) India's and the world's climate crises.
Q 17. 11601887 According to the given passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
a) India's per-capita carbon emissions are one-third of the world average.

b) India's per-capita carbon emissions are more than half the world average.
c) India's per-capita carbon emissions are less than half the world average.
d) India's per-capita carbon emissions are two-thirds of the world average.
Q 18. 11601887 What, according to the given passage, could happen to India if it announces 2050 net-
zero commitment?
a)
It risks taking on a heavy burden of decarbonization, more than many wealthier countries and could
compromise its developmental needs.
b)
It risks taking on a heavy burden of decarbonization, more than other developing nations that are in a
similar predicament.
c)
It could be caught unprepared to meet such a commitment that might result in economic and political
fallouts.
d) It could leave the wealthier nations less responsible about their 2050 net-zero commitments.
Q 19. 11601887 According to the given passage, which sector is the largest single source of India's
greenhouse gas emissions?
a) Forestry b) Agriculture c) Electricity d) Transportation

Q 20. 11601887 Which of the following prepositions should be used in place of [1] in the given passage?
a) for b) towards c) beyond d) through
Passage – 5
Australians of Indian origin are yet to make substantial inroads into Australian legislative institutions.
They participate in many sectors of the Australian economy and society. Many are well educated and
earn high incomes. Most speak English and, coming from a democratic country, understand democratic
political processes. But this group has not risen to political leadership in numbers proportionate to the
size of the community in Australia.
The most recent census in Australia (2016) found that approximately 6,19,000 people, or 2.6 per cent of
the population, traced their ancestry to India. Of them, approximately 3,76,000 people, or 1.6 per cent of
the population, had Australian citizenship (officially defined as Australians of Indian origin) - a key
eligibility criteria for holding political office. But very few Australians of Indian origin have been elected at
federal, state or local levels. A 2018 study by the Australian Human Rights Commission showed that 94
per cent of members of the Federal Parliament had either Anglo-Celtic or European heritage.
Australians of Indian origin account for 0.5 per cent of representatives in the federal parliament, 0.7 per
cent in the Victorian state parliament, and even lower proportions for local councils in New South Wales
(NSW) and Victoria.
They are doing relatively well in the NSW state parliament, where they account for 1.5 percent of elected
representatives. In May-December 2019, I conducted interviews with eight Australians of Indian origin,
some of whom had been elected to parliament and others who were unsuccessful, to find out the
opportunities, barriers and challenges they had experienced. Interviews were also conducted with nine
leaders and members of the Indian diaspora in Australia.
A major finding is that the complex process of preselection by political parties is a significant hurdle.
There is a perception among the respondents that regardless of the contribution of these candidates to
the community, first preference in winnable seats is given to candidates with Anglo-Celtic backgrounds.
One of them said, "…political parties put Indian-Australian and Asian candidates in seats where it really
does not make a difference because it is a safe opposition seat." Community members and leaders
interviewed criticized the caliber of Australians of Indian origin who stood as candidates in recent state
and federal elections. They felt many lacked the skills to articulate a policy agenda or handle the media.
They also reproached candidates who stood for the anti-nonwhite immigration party - Pauline Hanson's
One Nation - because these candidates failed to appreciate the values they saw as fundamental to the
community.
Australia has neglected to embrace cultural and ethnic diversity in parliament to the same degree as
nations such as Britain and the US, where politicians from Indian migrant backgrounds were elected to
government as early as the 1890s and 1957 respectively, when the Indian diaspora was comparatively
minuscule.
Q 21. 11601887 The author of the passage will most likely agree with which of the following statements:
a) The demographic profiles of Australian politicians are varied and rich.

b)
The Australian political parties should address the under-representation of ethnic minorities in politics.
c)
The Australian political parties should address the under-representation of minorities across gender and
orientation in politics.
d)
The Australian political parties are rich in diversity as they have assimilated Australians of Indian origin
into their ranks.
Q 22. 11601887 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:
a) Indian migrants to Britain enjoyed greater political rights even two centuries back.
b) Indian migrants to Britain initially suffered at the hands of their political masters.
c) Indian migrants to Britain enjoyed economic prosperity when they migrated.
d) Indian migrants to Britain wanted to enjoy a better life and so, they migrated.
Q 23. 11601887 Out of the following options, which one is true in the light of the passage?
a) Australian politicians are often accused of misanthropic activities and hate crimes.
b) Australian politicians often pass misogynistic statements.

c) People of British and Irish origins are often chosen as political candidates in Australian politics.
d) People of Chinese origin are often chosen as political candidates in Australian politics.
Q 24. 11601887 Out of the following options, which one is an appropriate central idea of the passage?
a) Xenophobia in politics b) An overview of politics in the 21st century
c) Where are the politicians of Australia? d) Where are the Indian-Australian politicians?
Q 25. 11601887 Out of the following options, which one is a synonym of the word 'reproach' as used in
the passage?
a) Upbraid b) Ameliorate c) Eulogise d) Preen
Passage – 6
Fate is the most potent weapon in the arsenal of hard determinists. They contend that outcomes of
events are predetermined and that ebbs and flows of history are all dictated by fate. In a fate-filled
universe, actors would be nothing more than pawns in a vast drama that is "directed" down to the
minutest wobble of sub-atomic particles by the omnipotent intervention of predestination. In spite of its
scientific veneer, fate is a patently unscientific superstition. Determinists admit that in order to predict
future events with 100% certainty, an observer would need to be endowed with some form of
superhuman omniscience. Roger Boscovich, argues that "…if the law of forces were known, and the
position, velocity and direction of all the points at any given instant, it would be possible for a mind of this
type to foresee all the necessary subsequent motions and states, and to predict all the phenomena that
necessarily followed from them". What "type of mind" could possibly monitor the infinite complexity of
the innumerable variables involved in calculating the deterministic progression of events in the entire
universe? Boscovich certainly can't be referring to a human mind, nor any form of available, or even
theoretical, computer technology. Thus, the only way that hard determinism can even begin to make
sense is by proposing that humans will somehow be able to achieve god-like omniscience. In the
absence of such an absurd claim, hard determinists can't generate the credible evidence that is required
to validate their extravagant knowledge claims. The simple but crucial distinction between fate vs.
prediction is that scientists are disinclined to accept any knowledge claim purely on the basis of faith-or
as Feynman states emphatically, "Experiment is the sole judge of scientific 'truth'. Scientists remain
dubious of any knowledge claim unless or until the claim successfully undergoes a "risky test". For
example, the scientific community treated Einstein's mind-bending claim that spacetime curves around
massive objects as an elegant, but nonetheless, tentative assertion until 1919 when Arthur Eddington
detected the distortion of starlight around the sun during a solar eclipse. Thus, scientists are not
opponents of imaginative speculation. Far from it. Scientists often display as much imaginative
inspiration in the process of creating new scientific theories as dream weavers of any other stripe. Where
scientists diverge from non-scientists is over the matter of empirical evaluation. Scientists are inclined to
reject any form of imaginative thinking that has no demonstrable connection with empirical reality (e.g.,
omniscient gods). This is where scientists and devotees of the supernatural differ: scientists demand
factual accountability whereas believers in the supernatural are content to subscribe to unsubstantiated
faith e.g., Creation in 4004 BCE vs. Darwinian evolution.
Q 26. 11601887 Which of the following is the major reason why the theory of "fate" goes against the
grain of scientific theory?
a) Anything which is imaginative or speculative in nature cannot be considered a plausible theory.

b) A hypothesis must not be based on faith.
c)
Fate theory is based on the irrational assumption of omniscience which cannot be empirically evaluated.
d) Fate theory is based on an assumption of a supernatural mind.
Q 27. 11601887 Which of the following best represents the author's opinion on 'fate'?
a) He thinks that though it is a scientific concept it does not have universal acceptance.
b)
He thinks that fate is a determinist theory which can explain all events, but it has not been proven
conclusively.
c)
He believes that fate is a scientific charade propounded by pretentious determinists to mystify events
and give a supernatural feel to experiments.
d)
He feels that fate is unscientific superstition propounded by determinists which cannot be proven with
any empirical evidence.
Q 28. 11601887 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a)
Those who believe in the supernatural contend that human beings came into existence through evolution.
b) Determinists believe that there is nothing known as chance or luck.
c) Albert Einstein was a determinist.
d) The author agrees with the argument of Roger Boscovich.
Q 29. 11601887 Which of the following is the most appropriate title of the passage?
a) God does play dice b) Playing God and tempting fate

c) Fate is superstitious; science is not d) Where science meets religion
Q 30. 11601887 How many times should the article 'the' appear in the bold and italicized sentence in the
passage in order to render it grammatically correct?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3

d)
The article is not
required
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1
Chloe Zhao's "[1]," a wistful portrait of itinerant lives on open roads across the American West, won the
best picture at the 93rd Academy Awards, where the China-born Zhao became the first woman of color to
win best director, and a historically diverse group of winners took home awards.
In the biggest surprise of a socially distanced Oscar ceremony held during the pandemic, best actor went
to [2] for his performance in the dementia drama "The Father." The award had been widely expected to go
to Chadwick Boseman for his final performance in "Ma Rainey's Black Bottom." The night's last award, it
ended the ceremony on a down note, particularly since [2] wasn't in attendance.
But the "[1]" victory, while widely expected, nevertheless capped the extraordinary rise of Zhao, a lyrical
filmmaker whose winning film is just her third, and which - with a budget less than $5 million and
featuring a cast populated by non-professional actors - ranks as one of the most modest-sized movies to
win Hollywood's top honor.
A plain-spoken meditation on solitude, grief and grit, "[1]" stuck a chord in a pandemic-ravaged year. It
made for an unlikely Oscar champ: A film about people who gravitate to the margins took center stage.
With a howl, "[1]" star [3] implored people to seek out her film and others on the big screen. Released by
the Disney-owned Searchlight Pictures, "[1]" premiered at a drive in and debuted in theaters, but found its
largest audience on Hulu.
Soon after, [3] won best actress, too - her third such win. Only Katharine Hepburn, a four-time winner, has
won best actress more times. "My Octopus Teacher," a film that found a passionate following on Netflix,
won best documentary. Danish director Thomas Vinterberg's "[4]" won best international film, an award
he dedicated to his daughter, Ida, who in 2019 was killed in a car crash at age 19.
For the first time ever, this year's nominees were overwhelmingly seen in the home during a pandemic
year that forced theaters to close and prompted radical change in Hollywood.
Q 31. 11601887 What is the name of the film which won the best picture at the 93rd Academy Awards
redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Nomadland b) Pieces of a Woman c) Mank d)
Promising Young
Woman
Q 32. 11601887 Who won the best actor award at the 93rd Academy Awards whose name has been
a) Riz Ahmed b) Chadwick Boseman c) Gary Oldman d) Anthony Hopkins
Q 33. 11601887 Who won the best actress award at the 93rd Academy Awards whose name has been
a) Viola Davis b) Carey Mulligan c) Andra Day d) Frances McDormand
Q 34. 11601887 Danish Director Thomas Vinterberg's [4] won the best international film at the 93rd
Academy Awards. What is the name of the film redacted with [4] in the passage above?
a) Another Round b) Sound of Metal c) d)

Ma Rainey's Black Judas and the Black
Bottom Messiah
Q 35. 11601887 The Academy Awards, popularly known as the Oscars are awards for artistic and
technical merit in the film industry. The awards are annually given by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts
and Sciences (AMPAS) and were presented for the first time in______________.
a) 1909 b) 1919 c) 1929 d) 1939
Q 36. 11601887 Which of the following Indian films has never been nominated for the Academy
Awards?
a) Mother India b) Salaam Bombay! c) Lagaan d) Jallikattu
Passage – 2
[1] ratified the RCEP agreement on April 9, becoming the first participating country to do so, the Ministry
of Trade and Industry (MTI) said in a press release.
The RCEP is the world's largest free trade agreement, bringing together the 10 ASEAN economies as well
as Australia, [2], Japan, New Zealand and South Korea.
"[1]'s expeditious ratification of the RCEP agreement signals [1]'s strong commitment to strengthening
our trade and economic linkages with our partners, for the benefit of our businesses and people," said
Minister for Trade and Industry Chan Chun Sing.
"We look forward to our fellow RCEP Participating Countries doing likewise, to expedite the entry into
force of the agreement." [1] has deposited its instrument of ratification with the Secretary-General of
ASEAN, said MTI.
The RCEP was signed by the 15 participating countries in November last year. Prime Minister Lee Hsien
Loong said then: "The RCEP is a major step forward for the world, at a time when multilateralism is losing
ground and global growth is slowing."
The RCEP deal establishes a mutually beneficial economic partnership that builds on existing ASEAN
agreements with the bloc's five FTA partners, said MTI
Businesses can expect to benefit from tariff elimination of about 92 per cent on average, as well as
streamlined rules of origin for greater flexibility to tap on preferential market access benefits.
The RCEP agreement will enter into force after six ASEAN member states and three ASEAN FTA partners
have ratified it. The participating countries are targeting entry into force on Jan 1, 2022, said MTI.
Q 37. 11601887 Which of the following countries has become the first country to ratify RCEP agreement
which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Indonesia b) Thailand c) Singapore d) Malaysia
Q 38. 11601887 Which of the following countries has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Pakistan b) China c) Russia d) USA
Q 39. 11601887 Which of the following is Not a reason for the India's withdrawal from RCEP agreement?
a) India has a bilateral trade deficit with most of the member countries of RCEP.
b) Non-acceptance of Auto-trigger mechanism proposed by China, which was opposed by India.
c)
India had also reportedly expressed apprehensions on lowering and eliminating tariffs on several
products like dairy, steel etc.
d) India was concerned about a "possible circumvention" of rules of origin.
Q 40. 11601887 Which of the following is/are the economic implications on India after withdrawing from
RCEP agreement?
1. The move could potentially leave India with less scope to tap the large market that RCEP presents.
2. There are also worries that India's decision could impact the Australia-India-Japan network in the Indo-
Pacific.
3. India will not have a chance to leverage its existing bilateral free trade agreements with several RCEP
members to increase imports.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 41. 11601887 Which of the following reasons is/are true regarding India to review it's withdrawal
decision from RCEP agreement and will have to join in the RCEP agreement?
1. Global Economic Stagnation due to Covid-19.

2. India should deter seeing RCEP only from the Chinese perspective.
3. It is not just because gains from trade are significant, but the RCEP's membership is a prerequisite for
India to have a say in shaping RCEP's rules.
Passage – 3
Agriculture Infrastructure Fund has crossed the eight thousand crore mark. The investment will give a
boost to several agricultural projects which will unlock value for farmers across the country.
The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has informed that a total of eight thousand 665
applications worth eight thousand 216 crore rupees have been received for the fund. The largest share of
58 per cent has been contributed by Primary Agricultural Credit Societies followed by agri-entrepreneurs
and individual farmers.
The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund has brought farmers and agri-businesses together with newer
partnership models. The fund will facilitate medium and long-term debt financing facilities for investment
in agricultural projects through interest subvention and credit guarantee.
Under the scheme, Rs. [1] Crore will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans to Primary
Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS), Marketing Cooperative Societies, Farmer Producers Organizations
(FPOs), Self Help Group (SHG), Farmers, Joint Liability Groups (JLG), Multipurpose Cooperative Societies,
Agri-entrepreneurs, Startups and Central/State agency or Local Body sponsored Public Private
Partnership Project.
All loans under this financing facility will have interest subvention of 3% per annum up to a limit of Rs. [2]
crore. This subvention will be available for a maximum period of 7 years. Further, credit guarantee
coverage will be available for eligible borrowers from this financing facility under CGTMSE scheme for a
loan up to Rs. [2]. The fee for this coverage will be paid by the Government.
In case of FPOs the credit guarantee may be availed from the facility created under FPO promotion
scheme of Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare (DACFW). Moratorium for
repayment under this financing facility may vary subject to minimum of 6 months and maximum of 2
years.
Q 42. 11601887 Under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund scheme, Rs. [1] Crore will be provided by
banks and financial institutions as loans with interest subvention of 3 per cent per annum and credit
guarantee coverage for loans up to [2] Crore rupees. Which of the following has been removed with [1] in
the passage above?
a) Rs. 1 Lakh Crore b) Rs. 2 Lakh Crore c) Rs. 3 Lakh Crore d) Rs. 5 Lakh Crore
Q 43. 11601887 All loans under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund will have interest subvention of 3% per
annum up to a limit of Rs. [2] crore. Which of the following has been removed with [2] in the passage
above?
a) Rs. 1 crore b) Rs. 2 crore c) Rs. 5 crore d) Rs. 7 crore
Q 44. 11601887 What is the full form of CGTMSE scheme mentioned in the passage above?
a) Credit Guarantee Farmers Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
b) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
c) Cooperative Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

d) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Marketing and Small Enterprises
Q 45. 11601887 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Agriculture Infrastructure
Fund?
a)
The fund has been launched as part of 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' (self-reliant India) to make farmers
selfreliant.
b)
The scheme shall provide a medium - long term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects
for post-harvest management Infrastructure and community farming assets through interest subvention
and financial support.
c) It will be managed and monitored through an online SBI platform YONO.
d)
The National, State and District level Monitoring Committees will be set up to ensure real-time monitoring
and effective feed-back.
Q 46. 11601887 The first state to impose Agriculture Income Tax in India is

a) Bihar b) Madhya Pradesh c) Maharashtra d) Assam
Passage – 4
Space agencies of India and France signed an agreement for cooperation for the former's first human
space mission, Gaganyaan, a move that will enable Indian flight physicians to train at French facilities.
French space agency [1] said under the agreement, equipment developed by it, tested and still operating
aboard the International Space Station (ISS) will be made available to Indian crews.
The [1] will also be supplying fireproof carry bags made in France to shield equipment from shocks and
radiation, it said. The agreement was announced during French Foreign Affairs Minister Jean-Yves Le
Drian's visit to the Indian Space Research Organisation's (ISRO) headquarters in Bengaluru.
ISRO has asked [1] to help prepare for the Gaganyaan mission and to serve as its single European
contact in this domain, the French space agency said. "Under the terms of the agreement, [1] will train
India's flight physicians and CAPCOM mission control teams in France at the CADMOS centre for the
development of microgravity applications and space operations at [1] in Toulouse and at the European
Astronaut Centre (EAC) in Cologne, Germany," the [1] said.
The training of astronauts is a critical aspect of the human space mission project. Flight physicians or
surgeons are responsible for astronaut's health before, during and after the flight. Currently, all space
physicians are from the Indian Air Force. France has a well-established mechanism for space medicine. It
also has the MEDES space clinic, a subsidiary of [1], where space surgeons undergo training.
The agreement provides for [1] to support the implementation of a scientific experiment plan on
validation missions, exchange information on food packaging and the nutrition programme, and above
all, the use of French equipment, consumables and medical instruments by Indian astronauts.
"This cooperation could be extended in the future to parabolic flights operated by Novespace to test
instruments and for astronaut training, as well as technical support for the construction of an astronaut
training centre in Bangalore," the [1] said. The Gaganyaan orbital spacecraft project was kicked off in
August 2018. It originally intended to send astronauts from India to mark the [2].
Q 47. 11601887 What is name of the France space agency which has been redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) CERN b) CSA c) CNES d) ROSCOMOS
Q 48. 11601887 The Gaganyaan orbital spacecraft project was kicked off in August 2018. It was
originally intended to send astronauts from Indian soil to mark the [2]. Which of the following has been
a) b)
70th anniversary of India's Independence Day in 75th anniversary of India's Independence Day in
2022 2022
c) 70th anniversary of India's Republic Day in 2022 d) 75th anniversary of India's Republic Day in 2024
Q 49. 11601887 In June 2019, the Human Space Flight Centre of the ISRO and the Russian government-
owned ________________signed a contract for the training, which includes Russian support in the selection
of candidates, their medical examination, and space training.
a) SpaceX b) Neuralink c) Glavkosmos d) Ames
Q 50. 11601887 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Gaganyaan?
a)
The spacecraft is being designed to carry three people, and a planned upgraded version will be equipped
with rendezvous and docking capability.
b) There will be two unmanned flights and one human spaceflight.
c)
GSLV Mk III, the four-stage heavy lift launch vehicle, will be used to launch Gaganyaan as it has the
necessary payload capability.
d) The spacecraft will circle Earth at a low-earth-orbit at an altitude of 300-400 km from earth.
Q 51. 11601887 Which of the following statements is Not a significance of Gaganyaan Mission?
a) It will help in enhancement of science and technology levels in the country and help inspire youth.
b) It will help in improvement of industrial growth.
c) It will focus on regional needs such as food, water and energy security.
d) It will make India as a space hub and pioneer for sending spacecraft's to Mars and Sun.
Passage – 5
The leaders of India, US, Australia and Japan took part in the first-ever summit level talks of "Quad"
nations, which was held virtually. Members of the Quadrilateral Framework or 'Quad' will become "closer
than ever before", said Prime Minister Narendra Modi, in his address to the first ever leadership summit of
the grouping. Addressing the virtual summit, Mr. Modi, President Joe Biden of the United States,
Japanese Premier Yoshihide Suga and Australian Prime Minister [1] highlighted cooperation among the
member countries to beat the global COVID-19 pandemic, with joint partnership on vaccines, and
emphasised the need for an "open" and "free" [2] region.
"We are united by our democratic values and our commitment to a free, open and inclusive [2]. Our
agenda, covering areas like vaccines, climate change, and emerging technologies make the Quad a force
for global good. We will work together, closer than ever before on advancing our shared values and
promoting a secure, stable and prosperous [2]," said Mr. Modi, who described the Quadrilateral
Framework as an "important pillar of stability in the region."
The member nations agreed to ensure "equitable" access to vaccines to counter the pandemic. A joint
statement, titled 'The Spirit of the Quad', said: "We will join forces to expand safe, affordable, and
effective vaccine production and equitable access to speed economic recovery and benefit global health."
Addressing the meeting, President Biden emphasised that the [2] region should be governed in
accordance to human rights.
The 'Quad', has been taken to the "apex level", said Foreign Secretary Harsh Vardhan Shringla during a
special briefing on the leaders' summit.
"We are all committed to free and open, inclusive, secure and prosperous [2]. The summit adopted a
positive vision to address contemporary issues with vaccine cooperation. Leaders agreed to strengthen,
peace and stability in the [2] region," said Mr Shringla, who described the focus on the vaccines as the
"most pressing". He informed that Japan, U.S. and Australia will finance the vaccine initiative that India
has welcomed.
Q 52. 11601887 What is the name of the current Australian Prime Minister whose name has been
a) Scott Morrison b) David Hurley c) Malcolm Turnbull d) Tony Abbott
Q 53. 11601887 What is the name of the region redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Indo-Atlantic region b) Indo-Pacific region c) Indo-Antarctic region d) Indo-Arctic region
Q 54. 11601887 The idea of Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) was first mooted by______________.
a) India b) Australia c) Japan d) USA
Q 55. 11601887 On April 28, 2021, India and ______________announced the establishment of a new 2+2
dialogue at the foreign and defence minister level between the two countries and it is the first non-Quad
member country with which India will now have this 2+2 dialogue mechanism.
a) Russia b) Germany c) China d) Brazil
Q 56. 11601887 Which of the following is Not a significance of QUAD for India?
a)
The Quad provides a platform to India to seek cooperation from like-minded countries on various issues
such as ensuring respect for territorial integrity and sovereignty and peaceful resolution of disputes.
b)
The Quad also demonstrates a united front to check the unceremonious and belligerent activities of
China against India.
c)
Chinese strategy of surrounding India through String of Pearls is a direct challenge to the maritime
sovereignty of India and therefore needs to be countered.
d)
QUAD provides India a platform to enhance security through partnership in the region as well as
emphasize that its idea of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam stands for a free, open, and inclusive region.
Passage – 6
Rising sea levels, heatwaves, melting glaciers and storms are some of the well-known consequences of
climate change. New research has added yet another impact to this list - marked shifts in the axis along
which the Earth rotates.
A study published in Geophysical Research Letters of the American Geophysical Union (AGU) says that
due to the significant melting of glaciers because of global temperature rise, our planet's axis of rotation
has been moving more than usual since the 1990s.
While this change is not expected to affect daily life, it can change the length of the day by a few
milliseconds, experts say.
The Earth's axis of rotation is the line along which it spins around itself as it revolves around the Sun. The
points on which the axis intersects the planet's surface are the geographical north and south poles.
The location of the poles is not fixed, however, as the axis moves due to changes in how the Earth's mass
is distributed around the planet. Thus, the poles move when the axis moves, and the movement is called "
[1]".
According to NASA, data from the 20th century shows that the spin axis drifted about 10 centimetres per
year. Meaning over a century, [1] exceeds 10 metres.
Generally, [1] is caused by changes in the hydrosphere, atmosphere, oceans, or solid Earth. But now, [2] is
adding to the degree with which the poles wander. Since the 1990s, [2] has caused billions of tonnes of
glacial ice to melt into oceans. This has caused the Earth's poles to move in new directions.
As per the study, the North Pole has shifted in a new eastward direction since the 1990s, because of
changes in the [3]. From 1995 to 2020, the average speed of drift was 17 times faster than from 1981 to
1995. Also, in the last four decades, the poles moved by about 4 metres in distance.
Q 57. 11601887 The location of the poles is not fixed, however, as the Earth axis moves due to changes
in how the Earth's mass is distributed around the planet. Thus, the poles move when the axis moves, and
the movement is called "[1]". Which of the following has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Solar motion b) Polar motion c) Earth motion d) Axis motion
Q 58. 11601887 Generally, [1] is caused by changes in the [3], atmosphere, oceans, or solid Earth. But
now, [2] is adding to the degree with which the poles wander. Which of the following has been redacted
with [2] in the passage above?
a) Earth Quakes b) Tsunami c) Climate change d) All of the above
Q 59. 11601887 As per the study, the North Pole has shifted in a new eastward direction since the
1990s, because of changes in the [3], which of the following has been redacted with [3] in the passage
above?
a) Lithosphere b) Hydrosphere c) Ozone Layer d) Stratosphere
Q 60. 11601887 Which of the following statements is not True regarding the Earth's magnetic field?
a) Earth's magnetic field is what protects our planet from harmful space radiation.
b)
Earth has two North Poles, the geographic North Pole, which never changes and the magnetic North Pole,
which is always on the move.
c)
Over the last 150 years, the magnetic North Pole has casually wandered 685 miles across northern
Russia but right now it's racing 100 miles a year to the northeast.
d) When a magnetic polar flip happens, it could affect much more than just your compass.
Q 61. 11601887 Which of the following is/are the impacts of the reversal of Earth's magnetic field?
1. It could leave life at the surface exposed to higher amounts of solar radiation as Earth's magnetic field
acts as a shield from the direct impact of solar radiation.
2. Even with Earth's strong magnetic field today, we are still vulnerable to solar/geomagnetic storms that
can impact our electricity-dependent society causing power outages.
3. The rapid fluctuations in the number of cosmic rays hitting the atmosphere directly alter the amount of
cloud covering the planet.
Passage – 7
Defence Minister [1] invoked special provisions and granted Emergency financial powers to the Armed
forces to empower them and speed up their efforts in tide over the current COVID-19 situation in the
country.
"To empower the Armed Forces and speed up their efforts in the nationwide fight against Covid-19
situation, Raksha Mantri [1] invoked special provisions and granted Emergency Financial Powers to the
Armed Forces today," the Defence Minister's Office tweeted.
"These powers will help Formation Commanders to establish and operate quarantine facilities/hospitals
and undertake procurement/repair of equipment/items/material/stores, besides provisioning of various
services and works required to support the ongoing effort against the pandemic," said a statement from
Ministry of Defence.
Under these powers, Vice Chiefs of Armed Forces including Chief Of Integrated Defence Staff To The
Chairman Chiefs Of Staff Committee (CISC) and General Officer Commanding-in-Chiefs (GOC-in-Cs) and
equivalents of all three services have been given full powers, whereas Corps Commanders/Area
Commanders have been delegated powers up to Rs. [2] per case and Division Commanders/Sub Area
Commanders and equivalents have been delegated powers up to Rs. 20 lakh per case.
These powers have been devolved initially for a period of three months from 1 May to 31 July 2021.
These are in addition to the emergency powers delegated to the Medical Officers of the Armed Forces
last week.
The emergency powers were sanctioned to the Armed Forces last year too when the COVID-19 pandemic
first broke out. This had helped the Armed Forces tackle the situation faster and in an effective manner.
Q 62. 11601887 Who is the Union Defence Minister of India whose name has been redacted with [1] in
the passage above?
a) Rajnath Singh b) Amith Shah c) Suresh Prabhu d) Nitin Gadkari
Q 63. 11601887 Which of the following has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Rs. 25 lakh per case b) Rs. 35 lakh per case c) Rs. 50 lakh per case d) Rs. 75 lakh per case
Q 64. 11601887 Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution provides a safeguard for the
Central Government from financial threat exists to the financial stability of India?
a) Article 352 b) Article 359 c) Article 360 d) Article 356
Q 65. 11601887 How many times Financial Emergency imposed in India?

a) 2 times b) 3 times c) 5 times d)
Never imposed till date
Q 66. 11601887 How many times National Emergency imposed in India?
a) 2 times b) 3 times c) 5 times d) 6 times
Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 67 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on
each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external
knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.
Passage – 1
Whenever we hear about Doping, the first thing that comes to our mind is using steroids and
performanceenhancing drugs by sportspersons. To a certain extent, it's true that doping is about the
usage of forbidden drugs, however, it also includes using biological methods like gene doping and blood
transfusions. To keep the spirit of sports alive and intact, it's necessary to prohibit Doping among the
sportspersons. So, in the year 1999, the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) was established to realize the
goals of the Lausanne Declaration on Doping in Sports, with a motto of creating a world where every
sports person can compete in a doping-free environment. WADA publishes an annual list of drugs and
methods which are prohibited to be used by the athletes and the list is contained in World Anti-Doping
Code. All the signatories of WADA including India are expected to abide by the code and legislate their
respective anti-doping laws.
In the sport of Cricket, Anti-doping laws are coded and regulated by the International cricket committee
(ICC). The Anti-Doping Code adopted is in accordance with the code adopted by the World Anti-Doping
Agency as part of compliance policy due to being a signatory of WADA since the year 2006.Article 1 of
this code exhaustively deals with the scope and application of the code and creates an onus on the
players and the other staff to acquaint themselves with the code.
So, any player who has participated in any international match, either as a player in the playing XI or as a
substitute player in the past 24 months, i.e. 2 years will automatically be bound by the Code and shall
need to comply with it.
For illustration, let us suppose a dope test is scheduled for 21st January 2020, and there is this player
Milind Deshpande, who has not played any international matches since 20th January 2017. So, he
remains out of the scope of this code. However, it doesn't set its jurisdiction over the domestic level
players across the world and thus it provides for the duty of the Nation specific cricketing body to
organize such dope tests in their territory.
Article 1.2.2 of this code also provides for a provision that once a player is retired from international
cricket, he will not be bound by the code unless they didn't notify ICC of their retirement in writing.
Coaches, trainers, medical staff and other support staff also come under the purview of this code and are
expected to comply with the code and make themselves acquainted with the same. Article 1.4.7 clearly
states that using and even possessing such prohibited substances by the officials and support staff
would amount to a violation of the code and will be punishable.
Under this code, the onus of establishing the proof of violation of the code lies with ICC itself. The
standard of proof according to Article 3.1.1, is less than what constitutes proof beyond any reasonable
doubts. However, when ICC code places a burden of proof on the player or any other person, then the
standard of proof shall be a balance of probability.
Q 67. 11601887 A had represented India on 22nd January. Thereafter he never got a chance to represent
India again. On 23rd March 2021 A was charged for breaching ICC anti-doping codes. A contended that
the code shall not be applicable on him. Decide.
a)
The anti-doping code shall not be applicable as it has been more than 2 years since he represented the
country.
b)
The anti-doping code shall be applicable on A as he has represented the country in at least one
International match.
c)
The anti-doping code shall be applicable as A has last represented A within 3 years from the date of
charges.
d)
The anti-doping code shall not be applicable on A as it can be considered only for those players who are
currently in the national team.
Q 68. 11601887 S was representing India in international cricket. However, he was dropped from the
national team continuously for 6 months. Thereafter S decided to retire from international cricket, but did
not mention the same officially. Subsequently S was found guilty of breaching doping codes. S
contended the code did not apply to him as he was a retired player. Decide.
a) The anti-doping code shall not be applicable on S as he has already retired from the game of cricket.
b) The anti-doping code is applicable on S as he has failed to notify ICC regarding the same.
c) The anti-doping code shall not be applicable on S but the local code of India.
d) S shall not be answerable under the anti-doping code of ICC as he has been dropped from the team.
Q 69. 11601887 D worked as a statistician in the England cricket team. He was found with substances
that were banned by ICC anti-doping code. D contended that he was not bound by the rules as he was not
a sportsperson nor a coach but just a statistician. Decide.
a) D shall be held liable for breaching the ICC anti-doping code.
b) D shall not be held liable for breaching ICC anti-doping code.
c) D shall be liable only if it is proved that he had shared the substances with the players.
d) D shall be liable only if it is proved that he had carried substances to his work environment.
Q 70. 11601887 Which of the following individuals shall not be held liable under the ICC anti-doping
code?
a) Team Physio b) Team mentor
c) Director of cricket of a franchise d) Team bus driver.
Q 71. 11601887 Which of the following articles has not been mentioned in the passage?
a) Article 1.2.3 b) Article 1 c) Article 3.1.1 d) Article 1.4.7
Passage – 2
Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act'1872 defines Contract of Indemnity as a contract by which one
party guarantees to save the other person from loss caused to him by the action of the guarantor himself,
or by the action of any other person. For, e.g. X can agree to stand as a guarantor for his son Y, a student
so that if Y is unable to pay his monthly expenses and rent to Z (a PG); X will be required to pay on behalf
of Y, thereby compensating for the losses that Z acquired because of action of Y. Definition of a contract
of indemnity sets out both express promises as well as implied promises. Indian Contract Act'1872
bargains with cases of implied indemnity under Sec. 69, Sec. 145 and Sec. 222.
A contract of indemnity recognizes the parties, and it characterizes the types of losses or damages
covered and explain whether legal expenses in the filing of the suit or contesting the suit are included or
not. Generally, the contract also specifies the "triggering event"; happening of which will make the
indemnifier responsible. The "triggering events" are defined with aids of terms like "arise out of", "in
connection with", or "occasioned by", "acts or omissions" or "negligence". Indemnity is considered as a
sub-class of compensation and Contract of Indemnity as a class of contracts. The responsibility to
indemnify is a willing responsibility taken by the indemnifier. A contract of indemnity is one of the
varieties of contracts. The principles appropriate to contract in general are also pertinent to such
contracts so that rules like free approval or consent, the legality of object, etc. are equally relevant. As in
the case of general agreement consent to an agreement shouldn't be by coercion, fraud,
misrepresentation otherwise the contract will voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so
caused; the same applies to contract of indemnity also. As per the need of the Contract Act, the element
or object of the agreement must be legitimate.
A demand for damages under the Contract Act only allows looking for compensation for any loss or
damages 'which the parties knew; when they made the contract, to be likely to result from rupture or
breach of it' at the time of formation of contract; which is usually termed as the 'Principle of
Contemplation of Damages' between the parties. Reasonable foreseeability is deduced as the genuine
possibility of happening of loss and is frequently used for the test for damages or losses. Additionally,
the damages claimed should be moderate, and thus damages may not be tenable for loss of profit or
opportunity costs. But, an indemnity claim is not bounded by such limits.
Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act specifies that a request for damages or losses is accountable to
the ordinary rules of remoteness mentioned above, but a claim for indemnity is not subjected to same
rules. So all consequential, remote, indirect and third party losses can be claimed by the indemnified
party until and unless notably excluded from the indemnity clause.
Q 72. 11601887 C hired B's car to learn driving. A entered into a contract to indemnify B if there was any
damage to the car during C's driving lessons. C hit the car to a pole and damaged the vehicle. A
disagreed to indemnify stating he was running short of money. Decide.
a) A can/cannot indemnify B as according to his own wishes.
b) A has to indemnify B as he has already entered into a contract of indemnity,
c) A wilfully entered into a contract, hence he can withdraw himself whenever he wishes to do so.
d) C has to reimburse B for the damages to the car, not A.
Q 73. 11601887 D asked X to enter into a contract of indemnity to indemnify any damage caused by his
son during his Swordsmen practise. D also stated that if X failed to agree for the same, he would put
more interest on the money that X had borrowed. X who had rejected initially accepted the contract after
hearing about the increase in interest. Is there a valid contract in the given case?
a) There is a valid contract in the given case and X shall be the indemnifier for D's son.
b) The contract entered by X is void ab initio as the consent was obtained by coercion.
c) The contract entered by X is voidable at the option of X as his consent was obtained by coercion.
d)
The contract entered by X is valid as the external factors such as rate of interest shall not have any
bearing upon the applicability of the contract.
Q 74. 11601887 B was an employer who employed more than 50 workers. In contract he stated to
indemnify any family if there was a death within the family due to natural calamities which included flood,
tsunami, earthquake, drought, hunger etc. In 2019 novel coronavirus infection spread across the world
leading to lockdown in different parts. There was a month-long lockdown in the place of B. This lockdown
led to an economic crisis which in turn led to poverty and hunger. One of B's employees dies of hunger.
Now B contested that the event was too remote and hence he shall not pay the indemnity. Decide.
a) B is required to pay the indemnity even though the possibility of such an event was remote.
b)
B is not required to pay the indemnity as the spread of a pandemic and a subsequent lockdown was not
foreseeable.
c) B is required to pay the indemnity but only half the original amount as there is an economic crisis.
d) B can pay the amount once the economy betters itself and there is adequate cash flow.
Q 75. 11601887 Which of the following sections of Indian contract act does not deal with the contract of
Indemnity?
a) Section 124 b) Section 128 c) Section 69 d) Section 145
Q 76. 11601887 Which of the following is the rightful conclusion regarding "the Principle of
Contemplation of Damages"?
a) Paying the indemnity depends upon the reasonable foreseeability of the happening of such an event.
b) Principle of contemplation of damages has to be applied every time before paying the indemnity.
c)
An indemnity claim is not bound by limits such as 'principle of contemplation of damages' that is
reasonable foreseeability.
d) Damages have to be always paid by the indemnifier within 1 month of occurring of the said incident.
Passage – 3
Qatar announced on January 16, 2020 that most migrant workers previously prevented from leaving the
country without their employer's permission, including domestic workers, will no longer need an exit
permit, Human Rights Watch said. While this is an important step forward, the larger Kafala (visa
sponsorship) system, which facilitates the abuse and exploitation of migrant workers, remains intact. A
September 2018 law abolished the exit permit requirement for most migrant workers. But it did not
extend to people who are not covered under the labour law, including government employees and
workers in the oil and gas sector, at sea and in territorial waters, in agriculture, in private offices, and
domestic workers. A new ministerial decision extends the right to leave the country without prior
permission to most of those excluded workers, except those in the military. However, employers can
apply for exceptions for a few workers, and domestic workers are required to inform employers that they
wish to leave at least 72 hours in advance. Disappointingly, both Law No. 13 of 2018 and the new
Ministerial Decision no. 95 of 2019 still maintains exit visa requirements for some employees. Employers
can apply to the authorities to designate up to five percent of their foreign national staff to be required to
seek prior consent due to the nature of their work. While this designation does not apply to domestic
workers, they are the only workers required to give their employers advance notice.
Later on the same year Qatar has scrapped a rule requiring employers' consent to change jobs and said it
will also implement a basic monthly minimum wage of 1,000 Qatari riyals ($274). Under Qatar's "kafala"
(Arabic word for sponsorship) system, migrant workers needed to obtain their employer's permission - a
no-objection certificate (NOC) - before changing jobs, a law that rights activists said tied their presence in
the country to their employers and led to abuse and exploitation. With the announcement, migrant
workers can now change jobs before the end of their contract subject to a notice period. "Either party
must provide one month written notice in the first two years of the contract or two months' notice beyond
the second year of the contract," the MADLSA said in a statement. It added that the ministry will be
"working with employers to update all employment contracts where workers earn less than the amount
established by the new law [minimum wage], which will come into force after 6 months of its publication
in the official gazette". In addition to the minimum wage, the ministry has also announced the provision of
500 riyals ($137) for accommodation and 300 riyals ($82.2) for food if those expenses are not provided
as part of the contract. The new laws have been welcomed by the International Labour Organization (ILO)
which described the announcement as a "huge milestone in the labour reform agenda for the state of
Qatar". "The NOC was the last problematic part of the kafala system, this power imbalance that was
created between an employee and the sponsor will no longer be there," Houtan Homayounpour, head of
the ILO project office for Qatar, told Al Jazeera.
Q 77. 11601887 A, a migrant worker in Qatar worked in a government office. Once he wanted to leave
the countryowing to an emergency. A was gleeful as the new law had passed had he no longer required
to obtain an exit permit. But when A tried to leave the country authorities stopped him demanding an exit
permit. Whether the act of the authorities is lawful?
a)
The act of denying A to leave the country is not authorised as the new reforms allow laborers to travel
without the exit permit.
b)
The act of asking A for an exit permit is valid as he is a government employee and needs to produce exit
permits.
c) A can leave the country as and according to his wishes, no exit permit is required.
d) A need to take permission of the public welfare officer of his department before leaving.
Q 78. 11601887 A was working under a sponsor B in Qatar. A wanted to change the job and gave a 2-
month notice period as he was working there for 5 years. However, his sponsor contended that a no
objection certificate is mandatory. Decide. (Assuming the laws provided in the passage are passed and
implemented)
a) Since A is working from 5 years a no objection certificate is mandatory.
b) A need to give a notice period of 4 months and not 2 months.
c) A need not procure a no objection certificate, 2 months -notice will suffice.
d) A need to take a no-objection certificate if his sponsor demands the same.
Q 79. 11601887 D worked as a construction employee in preparation for the 2022 world cup in Qatar.
The new labour laws were passed and D continued to receive a minimum wage of 150$ monthly. Is the
wage of D justified?
a) The wage is justified as the world cup laborers are exempted from the new laws.
b) The wage is not justified and the minimum wage should be 274$.
c)
The wage is justified as the world cup is fast approaching and a lot of construction needs to be finished.
d)
The contractors need to obtain a special permission from the government to pay less than the minimum
wage.
Q 80. 11601887 Which of the following is not the latest amendment to labour laws in the state of Qatar?
a) Removal of exit permits to leave the country for migrant labours.
b) Removal of requirement of no objection certificates to change jobs.
c) Removal of liberty for employers to charge labourers with 'absconding'.
d) Introduction of minimum wages to laborers.
Q 81. 11601887 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the passage?
a)
Houtan Homayounpour described the announcement as a "huge milestone in the labour reform agenda
for the state of Qatar". "The NOC was the last problematic part of the kafala system, this power
imbalance that was created between an employee and the sponsor will no longer be there,"
b)
The legislationis an important step forward, the larger Kafala (visa sponsorship) system, which facilitates
the abuse and exploitation of migrant workers is seeing its end.
c)
Domestic workers are required to inform employers that they wish to leave at least 72 hours in advance.
d)
The new laws have been welcomed by the International Labour Organization (ILO) which described the
announcement as a "huge milestone in the labour reform agenda for the state of Qatar'.
Passage – 4
U.S. immigration law is complex, and there is much confusion as to how it works. Immigration law in the
United States has been built upon the following principles: the reunification of families, admitting
immigrants with skills that are valuable to the U.S. economy, protecting refugees, and promoting diversity.
This fact sheet provides basic information about how the U.S. legal immigration system is designed and
functions.
Family unification is an important principle governing immigration policy. The family-based immigration
category allows U.S. citizens and LPRs to bring certain family members to the United States. Family-
based immigrants are admitted either as immediate relatives of U.S. citizens or through the family
preference system.
Prospective immigrants under the immediate relatives' category must meet standard eligibility criteria,
and petitioners must meet certain age and financial requirements. Immediate relatives are:
• spouses of U.S. citizens;
• unmarried minor children of U.S. citizens (under 21-years-old); and
• parents of U.S. citizens (petitioner must be at least 21-years-old to petition for a parent).
The United States provides various ways for immigrants with valuable skills to come to the country on
either a permanent or a temporary basis. Temporary employment-based visa classifications permit
employers to hire and petition for foreign nationals for specific jobs for limited periods. Most temporary
workers must work for the employer that petitioned for them and have limited ability to change jobs.
There are more than 20 types of visas for temporary non-immigrant workers. The overall numerical limit
for permanent employment-based immigrants is 140,000 per year. This number includes the immigrants
plus their eligible spouses and minor unmarried children, meaning the actual number of employment-
based immigrants is less than 140,000 each year. The 140,000 visas are divided into five preference
categories. These categories include 1) persons who have expertise in arts, science, education, business,
athletics, 2) Advance degree holders, 3)Skilled workers with at least 2 years of training 4) Special
immigrants such as religious workers, former US government employees etc, 5) Persons who will invest
$500,000 to $1 million in a job-creating enterprise that employs at least 10 full time U.S. workers.
Refugees are admitted to the United States based upon an inability to return to their home countries
because of a "well-founded fear of persecution" due to their race, membership in a particular social
group, political opinion, religion, or national origin. Refugees apply for admission from outside of the
United States, generally from a "transition country" that is outside their home country. The admission of
refugees turns on numerous factors, such as the degree of risk they face, membership in a group that is
of special concern to the United States (designated yearly by the President of the United States and
Congress), and whether or not they have family members in the United States.
Q 82. 11601887 A aged 35 years worked in the USA. His parents who were above 70 years stayed in his
native that is India. A wanted to bring his parents to the USA, so they could live with him for the rest of
their lives. Is it permissible under the immigration laws of the USA?
a) Yes, it is permissible under US laws and A can bring his parents to the US.
b) A can only bring one of his parents at a time.
c) A cannot bring his parents to the USA as he holds an employment visa.
d) A first needs to become a citizen of the USA to bring over his parents.
Q 83. 11601887 D aged 58 years stayed in America with his family. His mother, aged78, lived alone in
France. D wanted to immigrate her to the U.S.A under reunification of family. Can D do the same?
a) D can bring his mother to America under reunification of family.
b) D cannot bring his mother to America under reunification of family.
c) D needs to obtain permission from French government to do the same.
d) D can bring his mother to the USA but needs to undergo a waiting period of 1 year.
Q 84. 11601887 C a Chinese business tycoon wanted to invest in a project in the USA. The investment
was costing 1 million. It would also create job opportunities for 100's of American citizens. Can C obtain
an American citizenship?
a) C cannot obtain an American citizenship just by investing money.
b) C needs to invest more than 2 million in order to obtain an American citizenship.
c) Chinese are not in friendly terms with the USA, if this is allowed the country will go to dogs.
d) None of the above
Q 85. 11601887 Which of the following set of persons cannot get US citizenship?
a) Special immigrants such as religious workers
b) Advance degree holders
c) Wildlife photographers
d) Persons who have expertise in arts, science, education, business and athletics.
Q 86. 11601887 Which of the following sentences regarding refugee citizenship in the US is false?
a)
Refugees are admitted to the United States based upon an inability to return to their home countries
because of a "well-founded fear of persecution".
b)
Well-founded fear of persecution may be due to their race, membership in a particular social group,
political opinion, religion, or national origin.
c) Refugees are allowed to live in the USA for a term of 1 year.
d) Refugees apply for admission from outside of the United States, generally from a "transition country.
Passage – 5
The Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines an 'Agent' in Section 182 as a person employed to do any act for
another or to represent another in dealing with third persons. According to Section 182, The person for
whom such act is done, or who is so represented, is called the "principal". Therefore, the person who has
delegated his authority will be the principal. According to Section 183, any person who has attained the
age of majority and has a sound mind can appoint an agent. In other words, any person capable of
contracting can legally appoint an agent. Minors and persons of unsound mind cannot appoint an agent.
In the same fashion, according to Section 184, the person who has attained the age of majority and has a
sound mind can become an agent. A sound mind and a mature age is a necessity because an agent has
to be answerable to the Principal.
An agency can be created by:

Direct (express) appointment- The standard form of creating an agency is by direct appointment. When a
person, in writing or speech appoints another person as his agent, an agency is created between the two.
Implication- When an agent is not directly appointed but his appointment can be inferred from the
circumstances, an agency by implication is created.
Necessity- In a situation of necessity, one person can act on behalf of another to save the person from
any loss or damage, without expressly being appointed as an agent. This creates an agency out of
necessity.
Estoppel- An agency can also be created by estoppel. In a situation where one person behaves in such a
manner in front of a third person, as to make someone believe he is an authorized agent on behalf of
someone, an agency by estoppel is created.
Ratification- When an act of a person, who acted as another person's agent (on his behalf) without his
knowledge is later ratified by that person, this creates an agency by ratification between the two.
According to Section 187, authority is said to be expressed when it is given by words spoken or written.
According to Section 187, authority is said to be implied when it is to be inferred from the facts and
circumstances of the case. In carrying out the work of the Principal, the agent can take any legal action.
That is, the agent can do any lawful thing necessary to carry out the work of the Principal.
Implied authority is of four main types

1. Incidental authority- doing something that is incidental to the due performance of express authority
2. Usual authority- doing that which is usually done by persons occupying the same position
3. Customary authority- doing something according to the pre-established customs of a place where the
agent acts
4. Circumstantial authority- doing something according to the circumstances of the case.
Q 87. 11601887 A wanted to sell his old car. He visited a car selling agency for the same. They
appointed one D to sell the car of A. A paid the advance amount for the agency and left. Is there a
creation of Agency between D and A?
a) There is no creation of agency between D and A as A did not approach D.

b) There is an implied creation of agency between A and D.
c) There is no implied creation of agency but an expressed creation.
d) There is no agency involved in the said situation.
Q 88. 11601887 B was looking to sell his 1-acre plot of land. One day one A approached B asking to sell
his land to him. B did not intend to sell the land to A but was unable to tell the same as they were close
friends. To get out of this embargo, B asked one C who was a real estate agent to behave as his agent
and mention a very high price. Is C an agent of B in the given situation?
a) There is no creation of agency in the given situation as B did not intend to do the same.
b) There is no creation of agency as B did not expressly mention C to work as his agent.
c) There is a creation of agency between C and B by estoppel.
d) There is a creation of agency between C and B by implication.
Q 89. 11601887 D was looking to buy a plot of land. One B wanted to sell the land but did not have any
agents for the same. X a real estate agent took D to B's land and broke a deal for a very good price. Later
when B got to know about the same, he allowed X to continue as his agent. Is X an agent of B?
a) X is not an agent of B because when he showed the land, he wasn't assigned the job.
b) X is an agent of B by ratification.
c) X is an agent of B by estoppel.

d) In the given case the deal brought by X is voidable at the option of B.
Q 90. 11601887 Which of the following is a wrong combination of section and its provision?
a) Section 182- Definition of agent b) Section 187- Express authority of agency
c) Section 185- Termination of agency d) Section 183-Who Can appoint an agent?
Q 91. 11601887 In which of the following situations a valid agency is not created?
a) A asks B to work as his agent to sell his plot of land.

b)
B brings A to work as an agent to find a new apartment for his father. B's father gives all necessary
details.
c) D behaves as the agent of A in front of B.
d)
A asks for B to work as his agent, C assumes the request was for him and visits A's home to collect
necessary documents.
Passage – 6
Public tranquillity means a group of persons doing an activity which causes disturbance in the activity of
an individual or group. Public order which is defined under Section 31 of the Indian Police Act 1861
instructs police to maintain order on roads, public areas, prevent the formation of unlawful assemblies
and Section 34 granting the right to the police to punish the person and to be made liable for not
following them. These two sections address the need and maintenance of "public tranquillity".
A public nuisance created in a public setting or on public land, or affecting the community's morals,
safety, or health, is considered to be a state offence. Public nuisances include activities such as
obstructing a public road, polluting air and water, operating a prostitution house and keeping explosives.
Section 278 of Indian Penal Code defines any person who does an act or an illegal omission that causes
any common injury, danger or annoyance to the public or who live or occupy the property in the vicinity, or
that necessarily causes injury, obstruction, danger or annoyance to persons who may have the potential
to use any public right. Punishment for public nuisance is defined in Section 290 of IPC, in accordance to
which person committing public nuisance shall be liable of a fine of Two Hundred Rupees, further if the
person continues to create havoc and nuisance even after the lawful public authority issues an injunction,
in such a case that person will be liable for imprisonment which may extend to 6 months or fine or both
under Section 291 of IPC
Every right comes with a restriction and responsibility. Article 19(1)(b) of the Constitution of India
provides, the right to assemble peacefully without arms Section 141 of the Indian Penal Code forbids
unlawful assembly. An unlawful assembly is defined as coming together of five or more people sharing a
common object of committing an unlawful act. A common object is defined in Section 149 of IPC.
In Ram Bilas Singh v. the State of Bihar, it was held that:

"it is competent to a court to come to the conclusion that there was an unlawful assembly of five or more
persons, even if less than that number have been convicted by it if:
(i) the charge states that apart from the persons named, several other unidentified persons were also
members of the unlawful assembly whose common object was to commit an unlawful act
(ii) or that the first information report and evidence show such to be the case even though the charge
does not state so.
(iii) or that though the charge and prosecution witnesses named only the acquitted and the convicted
accused persons there is other evidence which discloses the existence of named or other persons"
The members of the unlawful assembly must have a common purpose and aim, and do any of the
actions as mentioned in IPC Section 141. When an unlawful assembly exercises the right of private
defence and at that moment, when they are threatened by the opposition party, the right of private
defence cannot be regarded as the general-purpose but, if five or more people abduct a woman and hold
her in unlawful confinement, then this assembly is an unconstitutional assembly.
Q 92. 11601887 India was going through the deadly second wave of Covid-19 pandemic. One Mother
and son were blocking the entrance and hurling abuses at the city hospital as they had lost their near one
due to negligence of the hospital. 3 others were throwing stones at the hospital as their relatives had not
got a bed. One more person was protesting semi naked and demanding for liquor in the hospital. The
police charged all of them for unlawful assembly under section 141of IPC. Is the charge justified?
a)
The charge is justified because the entire group of persons have a common intention of disrupting public
peace.
b) The charge is not justified as there is no common purpose and aim between all the individuals.
c) The charge is justified as more than 5 people have assembled to disturb the peace in the hospital.
d) They should have been charged with public nuisance instead of unlawful assembly.
Q 93. 11601887 D a young law student was not happy with the way the prime minister Rajender Godi
was handling the pandemic situation. D had read constitutional law and was aware that he had a
fundamental right to protest. D blocked a small road ahead of his house and started burning tyres
shouting slogans asking Mr. Godi to resign. D was charged for public nuisance. Decide whether the act of
D is justified?
a) The act of D was justified as he was protesting in accordance with Article 19(1)(b) of the constitution.
b) The act of D is not justified, it is always advisable to read the IPCbefore the Constitution.
c) The act of D is not justified and he has committed public nuisance under section 278 of IPC.
d) Police charging D is a classic example of 'Police brutality'. D was expressing his fundamental right.
Q 94. 11601887 Consider the facts of the above-mentioned question. What would be the punishment
awarded for D?
a) D would be imprisoned for a term of 1 year.

b) D would be imprisoned for a term of 2 months and levied a fine of 200 rupees.
c) D would be levied a fine of 200 rupees.
d) D would be levied a fine of 400 rupees.
Q 95. 11601887 Which of the following was not held in the case of Ram Bilas Singh v. the State of Bihar
while discussing parameters to charge the provision of unlawful assembly?
a)
The charge states that apart from the persons named, several other unidentified persons were also
members of the unlawful assembly.
b) The common object of several other members was to commit an unlawful act.
c)
The first information report and evidence show such to be the case even though the charge does not
state so.
d) All the individuals must be acquainted with each other at least 7 days before the commission of act.
Q 96. 11601887 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a)
The members of the unlawful assembly must have a common purpose and aim, and do any of the
actions as mentioned in IPC Section 141 of IPC.
b)
Public tranquillity means a group of persons doing an activity which causes disturbance in the activity of
an individual or group
c) Public order is defined under Section 31 of the Prevention of corruption act 1988.
d)
A public nuisance created in a public setting or on public land, or affecting the community's morals,
safety, or health, is considered to be a state offence.
Passage – 7
Accidents happen all the time and many a time, it is because of someone's negligence. And in the law of
torts, to prove somebody's negligence, the burden of proof is on the plaintiff, that is, someone who is the
victim of the tort. It becomes really difficult to prove that the defendant was at fault and also to gather
evidence against his act or omission. Therefore, keeping this in mind, the principle of Res Ipsa Loquitur
came into force under which a plaintiff can use circumstantial evidence to establish negligence.
Before claiming the tort of Res Ipsa Loquitur, a plaintiff must meet a few requirements to claim
compensation
• The event that caused injury to the plaintiff does not occur unless someone has acted negligently.
• The evidence adduced rules out all the possibilities of the fault of the plaintiff or third party.
• There is a duty of care of defendant towards the plaintiff which he breached
Prima facie evidence just tends to prove if a certain circumstance could or could not have occurred. It is
not conclusive in nature and hence, is true only till it is rebutted and so in any given case, it just tends to
state that for a given situation there is enough evidence to prove the liability but does not prove the
liability of it. But Res Ipsa Loquitur states that facts are evident of the liability as there cannot be any
other probable cause for the same. Hence, the keynote difference between the key doctrines states that
while prima facie aims at providing the evidence to prove liability, Res Ipsa Loquitur states that it is
reasonable that liability lies with the defendant and hence, no further evidence is required to be furnished.
But both the doctrines are rebuttable in the sense that the defendant may prove the case in opposition to
the stated evidence and hence negate the applicability of the doctrines.
Essentials of Res Ipsa Loquitur

Inference of negligence- For the element of Res Ipsa Loquitur to be made applicable in any case, the
accident should be such as which could not have happened if ordinary course of things had happened
without negligence. For instance, a barrel of flour cannot randomly fall on someone's head if the party is
reasonably careful.
Exclusive control by the defendant- The thing that has caused the damage must be under the direct
control of the defendant or his representative. It is not always necessary that all the circumstances are
under the defendant's control, but if the events leading upto the accidents were under the control of
others besides the defendant, then the mere happening of the accident is insufficient evidence against
the defendant
Freedom from contributory negligence- The third essential for the principle is that the plaintiff or any third
party did not cause or contribute to the injuries suffered by him. If it is found that the plaintiff or third
party contributed to the act that caused damage to the plaintiff, then the principle shallnot apply.
Q 97. 11601887 A B and C were asked to carry bags of grain from the store to a vehicle. In order to save
efforts, the three of them passed the bags to each other by throwing it. The passage was happening from
1st floor to the vehicle. One bag slipped from A who was at the top and fell on Mr Z who was injured. Is
the principle of res ipsa loquiturapplicable to prove the negligence of A?
a) Res ipsa loquitur is applicable in the given case to prove that A was negligent.
b) Res Ipsa locquitor is not applicable as Z should have been careful while passing under the bags.
c) Res ipsa loquitur is not applicable but there is a prima facie case against A.
d) A along with B and C should be held liable for their negligent act.
Q 98. 11601887 D, rowed a boat from one part of a river to another. One day X asked D to take him and
his groceries to the other side of the river. The boat had a small whole and needed repair. It was risky to
take the boat. D concealed the glitch in the boat and accepted to take X. The boat sank mid-way because
of which all the groceries were destroyed. Can X claim res ipsa loquitur?
a) No, X cannot claim res ipsa loquitur as D was unsure regarding the probability of the boat sinking.
b) In the given case Res ipsa loquitur cannot be applied.
c) X can claim res ipsa ipsa loquitur as the sole act of S has caused this loss.
d) None of the above.
Q 99. 11601887 D was driving on the wrong side of the road. A was driving in an inebriated state. Both
met with the accident. A, the plaintiff claims res ipsa loquitur as D was driving on the wrong side of the
road. Decide.
a) Res ipsa loquitur is applicable as D was driving on the wrong side of the road.
b)
Res ispa locquitor is not applicable as the essential requirements to hold the same has not been fulfilled.
c) Re ipsa loquitur is applicable irrespective of the fact that A was drunk or not.
d) In the given case the principle of contributory negligence applies.
Q 100. 11601887 Which of the following is not a difference between Prima facie and Res Ipsa loquitur?
a) Prima Facie is not conclusive in nature. Res ipsa loquitur is.
b)
Res Ipsa Loquitur states that facts are evident of the liability as there cannot be any other probable cause
for the same but Prima Facie doesn't.
c) In Res Ipsa loquitur no further evidence is required, in prima facie further evidence is required.
d) All the above are valid differences.
Q 101. 11601887 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a)
In the law of torts, to prove somebody's negligence, the burden of proof is on the plaintiff, that is,
someone who is the victim of the tort.
b)
One of the requirements to claim res ipsa loquitur is the event that caused injury to the plaintiff does not
occur unless someone has acted negligently.
c)
One of the essentials for res ipsa loquitur is that the plaintiff or any third party did not cause or contribute
to the injuries suffered by him.
d)
Under Res Ipsa loquitur, the thing that caused an accident must not be under the direct control of the
defendant.
Passage – 8
Theft is defined under section 378 of IPC. It defines- 'Whoever, intending to dishonestly take any
moveable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that
property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.'
Following are the essential ingredients of theft:

Dishonest intention- intention of taking the property must be dishonest i.e. there should be an intention to
cause wrongful gain to oneself or wrongful loss to another. It is not necessary that there should be
permanent loss or gain; even if any temporary loss or gain is caused it is sufficient to constitute
dishonest intention. Taking a property under good faith or under a mistake does not amount to theft.
Type of property- the subject matter of theft is movable property. Movable property includes every kind of
corporeal property except land and things attached or permanently fastened to the earth. However, when
an immovable property is completely severed from the earth, it then becomes movable property and
subject matter of theft.
Ex-. A tree is not a subject matter of theft until its root is attached to the earth but when it is severed it
becomes the subject matter of theft.
It is not necessary that the thing stolen must have some appreciable value. A human body, whether living
or dead (except bodies or portions thereof, or mummies, preserved in museums, etc.) cannot be the
subject of theft.
Taking out of possession: the real test of theft is possession and not ownership. Theft is committed
when a property is dishonestly moved out of possession; it is not necessary that the person from whose
possession the property is taken is the true owner or has the real title of the property. Hence there can be
theft of one's own property. Possession can be immediate i.e. in the immediate control e.g. phone in the
pocket or constructive i.e. having a control but not immediate e.g. car in parking.
However, once the property is lost, all types of possession are lost over it and it no longer remains the
subject matter of theft. Removing ornaments from a dead body is not theft as the dead body is not in the
constructive possession of any person. In all such cases the person will be liable for criminal
misappropriation.
Without consent- In order to constitute theft, the property must have been taken without the consent of
the person in whose possession the property rests. The consent may be express i.e. through words or
implied i.e. through conduct and may be given either by the person in possession or by any authorized
person. Consent obtained through misrepresentation is not a valid consent.
Moving-The offence of theft is complete a soon as the property is moved in order to such taking. What is
important is the simple movement of the property from its original position and not its actual taking
away. Hence, a person becomes guilty of theft if he has moved the property with dishonest intention from
its original position even if it is not in his possession.
Q 102. 11601887 A gave the car to his driver B and asked him to get certain groceries from the store.
Instead the driver B escaped with the car. After 7 days B felt guilty about his act and returned the car to A.
By then, A had filed a case for theft. Is B liable for theft?
a) B is not liable for theft as he returned the car to A.
b) B is not liable for theft as he has not taken the car out of the possession of A but was wilfully given to.
c) B is liable for theft irrespective of whether he returned the car or not.
d) B is only liable for attempted theft and not theft.
Q 103. 11601887 MS Robin was a cricketer and had a collection of various bikes. One day he asked his
assistant Ambuti Royodo to gift his Harley Davidson bike to one friend. Royodo gave away BMW
confusing it to be Harley Davidson. When MS got to know about the same, he filed a case of theft against
Royodo. Decide.
a)
Royodo shall be held liable for theft as he moved the bike without the consent of MS with dishonest
intention.
b) Royodo shall not be liable for theft as the ingredients of theft are not satisfied.
c) Royodo shall not be held liable for theft but for dishonest misappropriation of property.

Q 104. 11601887 D put the ring which belonged to Y in the pocket of his 5 years old nephew with the
intention of collecting it later. It was found out that the said act was committed by D. Is D liable for theft?
a) D is not liable for theft as the ring was recovered from his nephew.
b) The parents of D's nephew shall be held liable for theft.
c) D shall be held liable for theft.
d) D shall be held liable for attempting to commit theft.
Q 105. 11601887 A attended the party of B with a plan of stealing A's expensive watch. The watch was
kept in the stand. Before A picked the watch, son of B came up, thanked A and took the watch as A was
searching for the same. Is A liable for theft?
a)
A is liable for theft as there was dishonest intention and movement of property from its original position.
b) A is liable for attempting to commit theft.
c) A shall not be liable for theft as the act did not take place.
d) A should be ousted from the party and charged for extortion.
Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 106 to 130: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated
or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones
supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a
case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage – 1
In the 'nature-vs-nurture' debate, psychiatry originally was very much at home in the 'nature' camp-mental
illnesses ran in families and were inherited weaknesses. It was the psychiatrists' job to ameliorate them
and make life bearable, while hoping for speedy recovery. Sigmund Freud and his followers began to
change all that, shifting the balance to 'nurture'. Freud's psychoanalysis is firmly based on the belief that
what happens to us in early life, and the memory of those experiences, is the cause of many illnesses.
Freud showed that addressing those memories could cure some mental illnesses. So, an individual's
personal history wasn't just the context for understanding their illness but possibly its origin.
This controversy has raged most fiercely over the origins of schizophrenia. Schizophrenia had always
been known to run in families and it had been observed that these families could seem 'odd' (eccentric or
withdrawn), often with strained or intensely over-involved relationships. As schizophrenia is a disorder
expressed in thinking and relating there is an obvious possible link between it and early upbringing.
Family life is conducted through thinking and relating, and aims to equip growing children with skills in
these areas. As psychoanalytical thinking was applied to schizophrenia, a number of theories were
proposed, some of which had enormous influence.
The most notorious and damaging of these was that of the cold, hostile, and controlling parent-the
'schizophrenogenic mother'. This was proposed by the analyst Frieda-Fromm-Reichmann who, along with
Harry Stack Sullivan, engaged in long-term intensive psychoanalysis with hospitalized schizophrenia
patients in the USA. Her most famous patient, Joanne Greenberg, later described her experiences in her
best-selling autobiographical novel I Never Promised You a Rose-Garden.
Q 106. 11601887 What is this passage primarily about?
a) The nature vs. nurture debate in the realm of psychiatry
b) A study in the various causes of mental illnesses
c) The nature vs. nurture debate over the origins of schizophrenia
d) Freud's overwhelming and continuing influence on psychiatry
Q 107. 11601887 Which of the following is NOT true about schizophrenia, as per this passage?
a) It runs in families. b) It involves hallucinations.
c) It involves problems in thinking and relating. d) It is caused by poor parenting.
Q 108. 11601887 What can be inferred to be the author's opinion about psychoanalysis?
a) He believes its benefits - such as its successes in curing mentally ill patients - outweigh its flaws.
b) He thinks that while it can help treat mental illnesses to some extent, it also has a potential for misuse.
c)
He condemns it because its methodology involves blaming parents for the mental illnesses of their children.
Q 109. 11601887 Which of the following statements would strengthen the psychoanalytical viewpoint
towards Schizophrenia:
a)
Children with schizophrenic tendencies who are exposed to family environments high in expressed emotion
are at increased risk of developing it.
b)
It has been observed that despite advances in the medical field, the viability of taking care of a patient with
schizophrenia by the family remains a challenge.
c)
Studies of people with schizophrenia have shown there are subtle differences in the structure of their brains.
d) Both (a) and (b).
Q 110. 11601887 According to this passage, mental illnesses are caused due to:
a) Nature. b) Nurture.
c) Both nature and nurture equally. d) Cannot be determined.
Passage – 2
While condign and compensatory power are viable and objective, conditioned power, in contrast, is
subjective; neither those exercising it nor those subject to it need always be aware that it is being exerted.
The acceptance of authority, the submission to the will of others, becomes the higher preference of those
submitting. This preference can be deliberately cultivated by persuasion or education. This is explicit
conditioning. Or it can be dictated by the culture itself; the submission is considered to be normal, proper, or
traditionally correct. This is implicit conditioning. No sharp line divides one from the other; explicit
conditioning shades by degrees into implicit. In giving substance to these abstractions, I recur to the means
by which men in the past, and considerably also in the present, have exerted power over women and bent
them to their will.
Something in the exercise of masculine authority must be attributed to the superior access of the male to
condign power - to the greater physical strength of a husband and its use to enforce his will on a physically
weaker and insufficiently acquiescent spouse. And no one can doubt the frequent efficiency of
compensatory power, of reward in the form of clothing, jewellery, equipage, housing, entertainment, and
participation in social observances. These have long and adequately demonstrated their utility in securing
feminine compliance with masculine will.
However, it will be evident on brief thought, that male power and female submission have relied much more
completely on the belief since ancient times that such submission is the natural order of things. Men might
love, honour and cherish. It was for long accepted that women should love honour, and obey. Some of this
was the product of specific education - of institutions at home, in the schools, and from the Church as to the
proper role of women in the social order and in relation to the family. Until recently, courses in universities
and colleges taught women but not men the homely arts - home economics and homemaking - with a strong
implication that this was relevant to a normal submission to male will. Such implication in this form of
instruction has not entirely disappeared.
Q 111. 11601887 According to the passage:
a) education cannot contribute to conditioned power.
b) compensatory power often emerges from implicit conditioning.

c) condign power emerges from compensatory power.
d) The difference between explicit and implicit conditioning is only that of degree.
Q 112. 11601887 The author attributes male power and female submission to:
i. conditioned power.
ii. condign power.
iii. compensatory power.
a) i, ii b) ii, iii c) i, iii d) i, ii, iii
Q 113. 11601887 Physical strength would be an example of:
a) conditioned power. b) condign power. c) compensatory power. d) Both [a] and [b].
Q 114. 11601887 Based on the passage, it can be inferred that:
a) schools have subtly encouraged dominance of male over female.
b) men usually do not use power to enforce their will over women.
c) the use of compensatory power in the relationship between sexes is declining.
d)
the availability of courses in 'homely arts' for women in universities is to prove male dominance over
women.
Q 115. 11601887 As per the author's definition, persuasive advertising could be seen as an example of:
a) the explicit use of condign power. b) the implicit use of conditioned power
c) the implicit use of compensatory power. d) the explicit use of conditioned power.
Passage – 3
As soon as the blue calamintha bee arrived on the scene, scientists worried it might be gone for good. The
indigo insect was last spotted in central Florida in 2016, five years after it was first identified. However, this
spring, just as Americans began to hunker down because of the COVID-19 pandemic, the rare blue bees,
known scientifically as Osmia calaminthae, were rediscovered in the same region foraging on Ashe's
calamint, a dainty violet flower that blooms in specific scrub habitats.
Chase Kimmel of the Florida Museum of Natural History confirmed the bees' survival in March. In all,
Kimmel and colleagues documented just 17 rare bees and never more than three at any one time. To find
these few, and record them for potential legal protections, Kimmel ventured to different sites across the
Lake Wales Sand Ridge, a 150- mile long region along the dirt roads of central Florida marked by sprawling
citrus groves and Bok's Singing Tower, a 205-foot iridescent neo-Gothic structure. It is a place where the
jasmine-like scent of orange blossoms hangs thick in the air.
"The Lake Wales Ridge is a pretty specialised environment composed of a scrub habitat that is limited in
geographic extent," Kimmel says. The flower that hosts the bee is restricted to a few of these isolated scrub
pockets, predominantly along the ridge, Kimmel says, meaning the bee has probably always been restricted
to a small area.
In addition to this geographic limitation, experts believe habitat loss and fragmentation have hurt the blue
bee's numbers in recent decades. "This ancient island ridge is now primarily composed of agriculture,
typically citrus, and urban development," Kimmel says. "While we have no evidence of pesticide exposure, it
is highly likely that this adjacent agriculture could impact the bees given that they have been found only
meters away."
Q 116. 11601887 Which of the following is true as per the passage?
a) The rare blue bee had gone extinct since it was last seen in 2016.
b) The blue bee first appeared in 2011, five years before it was last spotted in 2016.
c) The blue bee had remained obscure for many years before it resurfaced.
d) The unprecedented lockdown led to the reappearance of the rare blue bees.
Q 117. 11601887 "As soon as the blue calamintha bee arrived on the scene, scientists worried it might be
gone for good," because:
a) Only 17 bees could be documented, and their extinction was a real possibility.
b) The rare bees were believed to be extinct when they were rediscovered.
c) The scientists feared that the bees may not be spotted ever again.
d) Some of the extinct species might reappear briefly even after extinction.
Q 118. 11601887 According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a threat to the blue calamintha?
a) Uniqueness of its habitat. b) Destruction of its habitat.
c) Fragmentation of host populations. d) Its unusual foraging habits.
Q 119. 11601887 Which of the following CANNOT be concluded from the passage?
a)
Blue calamintha bee is a floral specialist dependent exclusively on a vulnerable plant source, Ashe's
calamint.
b)
Ashe's Calamint, the blue calamintha bee's host plant, is a scrub that grows profusely along the Lake Wales
Sand Ridge, a 150-mile long region in central Florida.
c)
The blue calamintha bee is currently known from only a few sites in the Lake Wales Sand Ridge region in
Florida.
d) The primary threat faced by the blue calamintha bee is the destruction and modification of its habitat.
Q 120. 11601887 Chase Kimmel is likely to recommend all of the following "legal protections" for the blue
bees EXCEPT:
a) Translocate the bees to increase the species' resilience to habitat changes.
b) Designate blue bees as 'critically endangered' and conserve them as such.
c) Designate areas with sufficient populations of the Ashe's calamint as protected.
d) Declare areas between the isolated bee populations along the ridge as protected.
Passage – 4
I arrived on Kangaroo Island bracing myself for the sight of acres of blackened trees and white ash, but I had
not expected the parasitic bright green vines wrapped around almost every charred trunk, glowing
phosphorescent in the sunlight. This was no parasite, I learned. It was epicormic growth, bursting directly
from the burnt trunks themselves, a desperate bid for photosynthesis in the absence of a leaf canopy.
The growth looks nothing like a eucalyptus tree's normal adult leaves. It is soft and waxy, with rounded
edges instead of long pointy tips, and it blooms from cracks in the trunks or right from the tree's base, rather
than along the branches where leaves typically grow. It is beautiful, and also very strange, in keeping with the
surreal phenomena that became almost commonplace over this past apocalyptic Australian summer, even
before the coronavirus pandemic further upended life as we know it. A few weeks earlier, in Sydney, I had
watched red-brown rain fall to the ground after rain clouds collided with ash in a smoke-filled sky. During a
recent downpour here on Kangaroo Island, burnt blue gum trees foamed mysteriously, as if soap suds had
been sprayed over them.
Even in less strange times, Kangaroo Island can feel like the edge of the earth. Although it sits fewer than
ten miles off the southern coast of Australia, about 75 miles from Adelaide, it is a geographical Noah's Ark;
its isolation from the mainland 10,000 years ago because of rising seas transformed it into an ecological
haven. It is vast and rugged, with dramatic views of bush or sea- or cliff-scapes in every direction. National
parks or the protected wilderness areas make up a third of the island's 1,700 square miles. Much of the rest
of the island is farmland or privately owned backcountry. In recent years, the island has rebranded itself as a
high-end tourist paradise, with unspoiled wilderness, farm-to-table produce, fresh oysters, and wine from
local vineyards. Nevertheless, while there are luxury accommodations here and there, the island's few small
settlements feel decidedly unglamorous, befitting laid-back country and coastal towns.
Q 121. 11601887 The author of the passage is most likely which of the following?
a) An environmentalist. b) A native of the island. c) A visiting tourist. d) A visiting journalist.
Q 122. 11601887 In the context of the passage, the author refers to 'parasitic bright green vines' in order to:
a) paint a surrealistic landscape of the Kangaroo island.
b) bring out the extreme conditions on the island after the fires.
c) show how plant life on the island survived the devastating fires.
d) show that the forests of the island may not survive at all.
Q 123. 11601887 The author refers to the Kangaroo island as a "geographical Noah's Ark" most likely
because:
a) Its isolation allows it to act as a haven for all sorts of endangered animals and birds.
b) The island is as isolated from human populations as was the biblical Noah's Ark.
c) The island acts as a safe haven and provides protection for all the world's animals and plants.
d) The island is believed to be located exactly where historical accounts place Noah's Ark.
Q 124. 11601887 According the passage, all the following can be inferred about Kangaroo island EXCEPT:
a) A substantial part of the island comprises farmland or private property.
b) A majority of the settlements on the island have been repurposed as luxury accommodations.
c) There have been attempts to increase tourism on the island in the recent years.
d) The climate of the island supports production of farm vegetables and local wines.
Q 125. 11601887 Which of the following best describes the function of the THIRD paragraph in the passage
as a whole?
a) It narrows down the scope of the topic introduced in the first two paragraphs.
b) It presents a contrast to bring home the change discussed in the first two paragraphs.
c) It cites the most striking features of the change mentioned in the first two paragraphs.
d) It explains the circumstances that led to the changes mentioned in the second paragraph.
Passage – 5
Higher learning used to be a field reserved for a few who got access to the high towers. These have been
gradually thrown open with unlimited possibilities and immense potential for imparting uniform and high-
quality education for everyone. The Indira Gandhi National Open University has reached the people in remote
districts in India with great success. The teacher-learner interaction, which is essential for an effective
learning process, has become possible at a distance through distance education. The capacity to adopt
flexible teaching-learning strategies, providing high quality education and ensuring equity in educational
opportunities, particularly for the benefit of physically challenged, remotely placed and SC/ST students has
become a reality. Enough has happened during the brief history of the Open University system. In an
asynchronous medium, both learners and tutors get time to think over their respective responses and
prepare messages, although it can at times be boring. In synchronous communication there is use of voice
and vision, and both learners and teachers need to respond there and then. Those who like to think it over or
lack command over language or do not feel comfortable with spontaneous communication find it hard to
cope up with this form of communication. The handicapped and physically challenged learners have been
greatly benefited by the system as they can easily respond and interact with their tutors and other students
making use of their own language through their own PCs. There is, unfortunately, some rigidity, in times of
admission and contact due to the usage of the media within the traditional campuses and it has limited the
practice of open learning. However, there is no doubt that the use of these technologies has opened
enormous vistas of learning and the delivery of quality education. In the developing countries like India, there
is limited access to internet, compared to the developed countries, but it is poised for a rapid expansion. We
are made to believe that internet-based courses can be efficient and ultimately an inexpensive way to deliver
quality education, and can cater to the vast numbers of learners, anytime, anywhere, without any
incongruence.
Q 126. 11601887 As per the passage which of the following can be inferred to be an advantage of online
teaching?
a)
Students have the convenience of attending classes from their rooms and thus can manage their schedule
better; they can get more involved in extracurricular activities also, resulting in more accomplished
individuals.
b)
Since the students may not be aware of their peers in an online learning model, there is little chance for
prejudice and discrimination, thus providing equity in the classroom.
c)
Since the infrastructural constraints are limited, there is greater scope for the teachers as well as students
to adopt a more customized approach to learning.
d)
Since online teaching provides better access, which is impossible in the case of physical infrastructural
requirements of campus learning, it is easier for all the students to avail the highest quality education
available.
Q 127. 11601887 Which of the following will MOST undermine the author's argument?
a)
The literacy rate in India is abysmally low and in a population which is lacking in basic education, trying to
promote the usage of computers and online learning is doomed to fail.
b)
The real learning at the school and college level is not academic but involves imbibing critical skills of
communication and team-work that come from physical interaction with peers and mentors.
c)
Academic learning is based on interaction and in spite of the advent of technology, online education has
limited scope for a two way interaction, thus making the lectures a monologue.
d)
Involvement of parents and guardians is a critical component of overall learning at school and college level,
which is almost negligible in online education
Q 128. 11601887 Which of the following best represents the attitude of the author towards online learning?
a) Fascinated b) Dazzled c) Bewitched d) Betrothed
Q 129. 11601887 Which of the following best represents the effort made by the author in the passage?
a) He is explaining the advantages and disadvantages of online education.
b) He is pitching for online education to be used more extensively.
c) He is deliberating and expounding on the advent and growth of online education in India.
d) He is briefing the readers on the opportunities offered by the new vista of learning.
Q 130. 11601887 The Author is most likely:
a) An academician b) An information technology professional
c) A technocrat d) A freelancer and online education enthusiast
Directions for questions 131 to 133: Following is an array of questions to test your reasoning ability in
different situations. Answer each of them according to the question asked in each of them respectively:
Q 131. 11601887 Things are looking up for kids. According to the U.S. Government's fifth annual report on
child wellbeing, the percentage of kids living in poverty is 16%, a 20 year low. Teenage mortality and the
incidence of teens having babies is lower now than at any other time since these statistics were first kept.
Kids are also less likely to smoke and only half as likely to be victims of violent crimes as they were in 1990.
Which of these, if true, would act as an additional premise to support the conclusion?
a) Only 20% of the kids suffer from congenital diseases.
b) The rate of absenteeism in primary schools has stagnated at 10%.
c) 86% of the kids today are more likely to have health insurance.
d) 79% of the kids are more likely to be an only child.

Q 132. 11601887 The following question has a paragraph from which one sentence has been deleted. From
the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. The most
successful immigrants in the U.S. are the Asians-the Chinese, Japanese and Indians.
There is no magic in this. _______. As immigrants they bring with them the fruits of years spent educating
themselves in their own country.
a) Asians are generally more hardworking than Americans.
b) Asians do better because on an average, they are better educated than other Americans.
c) The reasons for their success are their skills and abilities which are superior to those of the Americans.
d) As immigrants, the Asians work harder because there is no going back.
Q 133. 11601887 Statement: "If you are fond of travelling, then Bali is the best place to visit."- An
advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. People, who are fond of travelling, often want advice regarding places that are worth a visit.
II. Such advertisements are taken into consideration by potential travelers while deciding on a destination.
III. Bali should be considered as a place that deserves a visit.
a) b) c) d) All are implicit.

Only I and II are implicit. Only II and III are implicit. Only I and III are implicit.
Q 134. 11601887 A man walks 6 km towards the north, then turns towards his left and walks for 4 km. He
again turns left and walks for 6 km. At this point he turns to his right and walks for 6 km. How many km and
in what direction is he from the starting point?
a) 10 km, West b) 6 km, South c) 4 km, South d) 8 km, West
Q 135. 11601887 Five boys are standing on one behind the other facing the ticket counter. Samar is
standing after Gagan in the queue. Tinkle is standing after Raman in the queue. Gagan, Raman and Tinkle
are standing after Keshav in the queue. If Raman is standing between Gagan and Tinkle, who is fourth from
the front, then Gagan is at what position from the back?
a) first b) second c) third d) fourth
Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The first pie chart given below shows the distribution of passengers through different airlines in 2019. The
second pie chart given below shows the distribution of the revenue generated by the different airlines in
2019. Assume that there are only these 5 airlines in the aviation sector.
Q 136. 11601887 Which airlines has the third highest ticket price?
a) W b) X c) Y d) V
Q 137. 11601887 If the total passengers are 168 million and total revenue generated is Rs. 1,120 billion,
then what is the difference in the average ticket price of W and Z?
a) Rs.3,981.80 b) Rs.2,000.42 c) Rs.3,018.20 d) Rs.2,268.52
Q 138. 11601887 If the average ticket price of each airline is represented by its name, then which of the
following is true?
a) Y > X > V b) V > Y > X c) X > V > Y d) X > Y > V
Q 139. 11601887 In 2020, the total number of passengers decreased by 16% and the total revenues
generated decreased by 11.8%, then what is the percentage change in the average price of Z?
a) 39% b) 28% c) 18% d) Cannot be determined
Q 140. 11601887 In 2019 the total number of passengers was 168 million and total revenue was Rs.1,120
billion. In 2020, the average price per ticket for V increased by 20%. If the share of the total number of
passengers for V is same in 2019 as well as 2020, then what is the total revenue of V in 2020?
a) Rs.26880 million b) Rs.309.12 billion c) Rs.302.4 billion d) Rs.268.8 billion
The Bar graph given below shows the time taken by five persons - A, B, C, D and E - to complete a job.
Q 141. 11601887 A and C worked alternatively for 10 days on the job. Then B and D worked together on the
job for 'x' days.
If 1/36 of the job still remained, then find the value of 'x'.
a) 1 day b) 1.25 days c) 1.33 days d) 1.5 days
Q 142. 11601887 E worked on the job for 5 days and the remaining job was completed by A, B and D who
worked on alternate days starting with A followed by B and D in that order. Find the number of days that B
worked.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 9 d) 3

Q 143. 11601887 A, C and E worked on the job for 2 days each and the remaining job was done by B and D.
If the ratio of number of days for which B and D worked is 20 : 21, then find the number of days for which B
worked.
a) 4 days b) 4.5 days c) 5.5 days d) 5 days
Q 144. 11601887 A, C and E worked on the job for 2 days, 3 days and 2 days respectively. If the ratio of
number of days for which B and D worked on the job is 4 : 3, then find the difference between number of
days for which B and D worked.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 4
Q 145. 11601887 If C worked on the job with 5/4 times his given efficiency and was assisted by B every 3rd
day, then find the time taken by C to complete the job.
a) 13 days b) 12 days c) 9 days d) 11 days
A Horticultural research company treats mango seeds and saplings with new types of chemicals and drugs
to make high quality trees. The company takes in 100 saplings every day for 100 weeks. Each sapling has a
unique code with date attached. It is known that 20% of the saplings taken in on a particular day do not
survive more than 1 week. Further 15% of the remaining saplings die within 4 weeks of starting the
treatment. If a sapling survives till the end of 4 weeks, it is considered as a superior quality tree. This tree is
available for sale at the nursery at a fixed price of Rs.350 per tree.
Q 146. 11601887 Total number of trees sold by the end of 10 weeks is
a) 4750 b) 2740 c) 4550 d) 2856
Q 147. 11601887 Total revenue generated by the company from the project is
a) Rs.1.666 crore b) Rs.1.592 crore c) Rs.1.245 crore d) Rs.2.545 crore
Q 148. 11601887 A drug available in the market when sprayed within 4 weeks of starting treatment reduces
mortality of saplings by 25%. Each vial of medicine costs Rs.7,700 and it lasts for seven days. If the
company starts using it after the 50th week, the net income from the project is:
a) Rs.1.5925 crore b) Rs.1.7255 crore c) Rs.2.1065 crore d) Rs.2.4048 crore
Q 149. 11601887 A drug available in the market when sprayed within 4 weeks of starting treatment reduces
mortality of saplings by 25%. If the company starts using it after the 50th week, then the drugs helped to
save how many trees from dying with respect to the previous result?
a) 47600 b) 2400 c) 6468 d) 2800

Q 150. 11601887 If the selling price of a tree is increased by Rs.70, then what would be the percentage
change in revenue generated?
a) 7% b) 35% c) 20% d) 25%

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a) Certain oﬃcials have actualized the project of employing Albatrosses in surveillance.

a) No other living bird is as large as the Albatross.

b) Albatrosses are native to colder areas of the polar region.

d) Albatrosses can ﬂy long distances, even around the world.

Q 5. 11601887 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the passage?

b) She was not good enough.

c) She was not passionate enough.

Q 8. 11601887 Which of the following can be concluded from the above passage?

a) Writing requires as much effort and dedication as any other vocation.

b) Education in the literary arts is a waste of time.

c) Writing can never be your full time job.

a) Resumption of writing by the author, but in a different scenario.

a) Creative b) Nuanced c) Productive d) Imaginative

a) Norway, Ukraine, Poland b) Norway, Germany, Switzerland

a) Qatar is hosting the next Summer Olympics.

a) I and II b) III and IV c) I and III d) II and IV

a) Urbanization and industrial development through decarbonized electricity.

c) A low-carbon future for India via sector-led change.

d) India's and the world's climate crises.

a) India's per-capita carbon emissions are one-third of the world average.

d) India's per-capita carbon emissions are two-thirds of the world average.

a) Forestry b) Agriculture c) Electricity d) Transportation

a) for b) towards c) beyond d) through

a) The demographic proﬁles of Australian politicians are varied and rich.

Q 22. 11601887 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:

b) Australian politicians often pass misogynistic statements.

a) Xenophobia in politics b) An overview of politics in the 21st century

a) Upbraid b) Ameliorate c) Eulogise d) Preen

a) Anything which is imaginative or speculative in nature cannot be considered a plausible theory.

Q 28. 11601887 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

c) Albert Einstein was a determinist.

d) The author agrees with the argument of Roger Boscovich.

a) God does play dice b) Playing God and tempting fate

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

a) Riz Ahmed b) Chadwick Boseman c) Gary Oldman d) Anthony Hopkins

a) Viola Davis b) Carey Mulligan c) Andra Day d) Frances McDormand

a) Another Round b) Sound of Metal c) d)

a) 1909 b) 1919 c) 1929 d) 1939

a) Mother India b) Salaam Bombay! c) Lagaan d) Jallikattu

a) Indonesia b) Thailand c) Singapore d) Malaysia

a) Pakistan b) China c) Russia d) USA

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. Global Economic Stagnation due to Covid-19.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) Rs. 1 crore b) Rs. 2 crore c) Rs. 5 crore d) Rs. 7 crore

a) Credit Guarantee Farmers Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

b) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

c) Cooperative Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

Q 46. 11601887 The ﬁrst state to impose Agriculture Income Tax in India is

a) CERN b) CSA c) CNES d) ROSCOMOS

a) SpaceX b) Neuralink c) Glavkosmos d) Ames

Q 51. 11601887 Which of the following statements is Not a signiﬁcance of Gaganyaan Mission?

b) It will help in improvement of industrial growth.

a) Scott Morrison b) David Hurley c) Malcolm Turnbull d) Tony Abbott

a) Indo-Atlantic region b) Indo-Paciﬁc region c) Indo-Antarctic region d) Indo-Arctic region

a) India b) Australia c) Japan d) USA

a) Russia b) Germany c) China d) Brazil

Q 56. 11601887 Which of the following is Not a signiﬁcance of QUAD for India?

a) Solar motion b) Polar motion c) Earth motion d) Axis motion