Comprehension (1) (antibiotics and microorganisms)

The Food and Drug Administration has formulated certain severe restrictions regarding the use of
antibiotics, which are used to promote the health and growth of meat animals. Though the different
types of medicines mixed with the fodder of the animal’s kills many microorganisms, it also
encourages the appearance of bacterial strains, which are resistant to anti-infective drugs.

It has already been observed that penicillin and the tetracycline’s are not as effective
therapeutically as they once used to be. This resistance to drugs is chiefly caused due to tiny
circlets of genes, called plasmids, which are transferable between different species of bacteria.
These plasmids are also one of the two kinds of vehicles on which molecular biologists depend
on while performing gene transplant experiments. Existing guidelines also forbid the use of
plasmids, which bear genes for resistance to antibiotics, in the laboratories. Though congressional
debate goes on as to whether these restrictions need to be toughened with reference to scientists
in their laboratories, almost no congressional attention is being paid to an ill advised agricultural
practice, which produces deleterious effects.

A. In the present passage, the author's primary concern is with:

1. The discovery of methods, which eliminate harmful microorganisms without generating drug-
resistant bacteria.
2. Attempting an explanation of the reasons for congressional inaction about the regulation of
gene transplant experiments.
3. Portraying a problematic agricultural practice and its serious genetic consequences
4. The verification of the therapeutic ineffectiveness of anti-infective drugs
5. Evaluation of the recently proposed restrictions, which are intended to promote the growth of
meat animals.

Ans : 3

B. As inferred from the above passage, the mutual transfer of plasmids between different
bacteria can result in which of the following?
1. Microorganisms, which have an in-built resistance to drugs
2. Therapeutically useful circlets of genes
3. Penicillin like anti-infective drugs
4. Viruses used by molecular biologists
5. Carriers for performing gene transplant experiments.

Ans : 1

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C. According to the above passage the author believes that those who favor the stiffening of
restrictions on gene transplant research should logically also.
1. Approve and aid experiments with any plasmids except those, which bear genes for antibiotic
resistance.
2. Inquire regarding the addition of anti-infective drugs to livestock feeds
3. Oppose the using of penicillin and tetracycline’s in order to kill microorganisms
4. Agree to the development of meatier live-stock through the use of antibiotics
5. Approve of congressional debate and discussion regarding science and health issues.

Ans : 2

D. The attitude the author has with reference to the development of bacterial strains that
render antibiotic drugs in effective can best be described as
1. indifferent
2. perplexed
3. pretentious
4. insincere
5. apprehensive

Ans : 5

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Comprehension (2) (Mammals Extinction)

The existence of mammals on the earth can be traced back to at least the Triassic time. The rate
of development was retarded, till evolutional change suddenly accelerated in the oldest
Paleocene. This resulted in an increase in average size, larger mental capacity, and special
adaptations for different modes of life, during the Eocene time. Further improvement was seen
during the Oligocene Epoch, with the appearance of some new lines and extinction of others. The
Miocene and Pliocene times are especially significant as they mark the culmination of various
groups and a continued approach toward modern characters. It is in the Miocene time that the
mammals reached their peak with reference to variety and size.

The ability of the mammals to adapt to various modes of life finds a parallel in the reptiles of the
Mesozoic time, and apart form their greater intelligence, the mammals apparently have not done
much better than the corresponding reptilian forms. Undoubtedly the bat is a better flying animal
than the pterosaur, but at the same time the dolphin and whale are hardly more fish like than the
ichthyosaur. Quite a few of the swift-running mammals inhabiting the plains, like the horse and the
antelope, must excel any of the dinosaurs. Although the tyrannosaur was a more weighty and
robust carnivore than perhaps any carnivorous mammal, the lion and the tiger, by virtue of their
superior brain are far more efficient and dangerous beasts of prey. It is significant to note that
various species of mammals gradually adapted themselves to various kinds of lifestyles, some
took to grazing on the plains and were able to run swiftly (horse, deer, bison), others started living
in rivers and swamps (hippopotamus, beaver), inhabiting trees (sloth, monkey), burrowing
underground (rodent, mole), feeding on flesh (tiger, wolf), swimming in the water (dolphin, whale,
seal), and flying in the air (bat). Human beings on account of their superior brain have been able
to harness mechanical methods to conquer the physical world and adapt to any set of conditions.

Such adaptation to different conditions leads to a gradual change in form and structure. This is a
biological characteristic of the youthful, plastic stage of a group. It is seen that early in its
evolutional cycle animals possess the capacity for change, but as the animal progresses in its
cycle becoming old and fixed, this capacity for change disappears. The generalized types of
organisms retain longest the ability to make adjustments when required, and it is from them that
new, fecund stocks take origin-certainly not from any specialized end products. With reference to
mammals, we see their birth, plastic spread in many directions, increased specialization, and in
some cases, extinction; this is a characteristic of the evolution of life, which can be seen in the
geologic record of life.

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A. From the following, choose the most appropriate title for the above passage?
1. From Dinosaur to Man
2. Adaptation and Extinction
3. The Superior Mammals
4. The Geologic Life Span
5. Man, the Vanquisher of the Physical World.

Ans : 2

B. According to the passage the chronological order of the geologic periods is:
1. Paleocene, Miocene, Triassic, Mesozoic
2. Paleocene, Triassic, Mesozoic, Miocene
3. Miocene, Paleocene, Triassic, Mesozoic
4. Mesozoic, Oligocene, Paleocene, Miocene
5. Mesozoic, Paleocene, Eocene, Miocene

Ans : 5

C. From the above passage, we can infer that, the pterosaur

1. resembled the bat
2. was a Mesozoic mammal
3. was a flying reptile
4. inhabited the seas
5. evolved during the Miocene period

Ans : 3

D. As inferred from the passage, the largest numbers of mammals were found in which of the
following periods?
1. Triassic period
2. Eocene period
3. Oligocene epoch
4. Pliocene period
5. Miocene period

Ans : 5

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E. Among the following statements, which statement, if true, would weaken the argument put
forth in the first sentence of Paragraph 1?
1. It has been found that the tyrannosaur had a larger brain, than was previously known.
2. Within the next thousand years, mammals will become extinct.
3. Recently certain forms of flying ichthyosaurs have been discovered.
4. It has now been proved, that the tiger is more powerful than the carnivorous reptiles.
5. It is now possible to double human mental capacity, by the use of certain recently developed
computers.

Ans : 1

F. It is clear from the passage, that the evidence used to discuss the life of past time periods
1. was developed by Charles Darwin
2. was unearthed by the author
3. has been negated by more recent evidence
4. was never truly established
5. is based on fossilized remains

Ans : 5

G. As inferred from the passage, which of the following proverbial expressions is the author
most likely to agree with?
1. It's a cruel world.
2. All the world's a stage.
3. The more things change, the more they remain the same.
4. Footprints in the sands of time.
5. A short life, but a merry one.

Ans : 4

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 Comprehension (3) (Medical care)

The recent news that local hospitals have had to reroute seriously ill patients because the
community's critical-care beds are full is worrisome. Earlier this week, four of the six local hospitals
ran out of space for the critically ill and had to turn people away.

Federal law requires hospitals to treat anyone who walks in. As a result of having to treat large
numbers of uninsured patients, the emergency rooms often become an economic drain on their
hospitals. Doctors now want to set up their own free-standing ambulatory surgical facilities and
diagnostic centers. Critics contend this would leave hospitals with less revenue and the same
number of indigents to treat.

A bill was recently introduced to phase out the need for a "certificate of public need" for non-
hospital-based facilities, provided those facilities met stringent regulations and requirements. This
would have made it easier to set up alternative facilities to help indigent patients. The finance
committee balked at the hefty price and killed the bill, another casualty of a failed legislative
session.

Unfortunately, the problem of access to medical care for those of limited means is not going to go
away anytime soon and, despite the well-intended regulations, too-full hospitals compromise
everyone's welfare. Healthy competition with small neighborhood surgical and diagnostic centers
may be what is necessary to help dampen rising medical costs. But under no circumstances
should the hospitals be forced to care for everybody without health insurance while competitors
operate free of the burden of caring for those unable to pay.

A. Which of the following is a conclusion supported by the passage?

1. If doctors want to run their own facilities, they should be required to take in at least some of
the indigents.
2. The government should provide health insurance for those unable to buy their own.
3. Voters should tell the finance committee members that they will not be reelected if they do not
pass some new legislation.
4. Emergency rooms that turn patients away due to overcrowding are derelict in their duty.
5. The fundamental problem facing hospitals now is that health care costs have risen dramatically
in recent years.
Ans: 1

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B. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
1. neutral
2. positive
3. persuasive
4. angry
5. reverential

Ans: 3

C. Which of the following is cited as a factor which has contributed to the overburdening of
hospitals?

I. Failure to pass legislation which would have mitigated the problem

II. Limited access to medical care for the poor

III. Federal law

1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and II
5. I, II, and III

Ans: 5

D. The author cites the failed legislation in order to show that

1. The legislature will never resolve this issue.
2. The finance committee does not care about the uninsured citizens.
3. There will always be uninsured hospital patients.
4. The legislature recently attempted to resolve this issue.
5. The doctors successfully lobbied the finance committee.

Ans: 4

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 Comprehension (4) (Journalism)

“Journalism as a profession is facing dreadful times. First, it has never been harder to become a
journalist. Second, journalists are facing lower wages and no job security in today’s economy.

Today’s media has become global and instant. The internet allows everyone to become a
journalist using applications like Twitter or Facebook. Anyone who’s on the scene can now write
about it and post their articles online. Anyone with an opinion can start their own journalistic column
in the form of an online blog. The need for real, professional journalism is at its lowest, and the
competition between those few remaining individuals with a background and education in
journalism is fierce.

With global economies going down the toilet, and people buying less and less newspapers for a
variety of reasons, news companies are faced with financial difficulties. They can’t hire journalists
or pay them the high salaries they deserve. As a result, journalists face low wages and lower job
security. As a matter of fact, many newspaper companies are converting their regular journalists
into contract-workers for lower pay, or even replacing them with unpaid interns.

Professional journalism is indeed in trouble. It’s hard to become a journalist, and once you do
become one it’s even harder to make a living. If you are consider going into journalism, you might
want to take this into account. Best of luck to you.”

A. The primary purpose of the passage is to advise people to:

1. Support underpaid journalists
2. Buy more newspapers to help news companies
3. Boycott news companies who are underpaying journalists
4. Avoid or reconsider going into the journalism profession
5. Join Twitter or start a blog to become part of the global media

Ans: 4

B. The authors mentions all of the following challenges facing journalists EXCEPT:
1. Fierce competition in the industry
2. Lower demand for professional journalism
3. Maintaining online blogs on time
4. Lower average wages
5. Possibility of being replaced by interns

Ans: 3

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C. According to the author, why can’t newspaper companies pay journalists the high wages
they deserve?
1. People are not buying as many newspapers as they used to
2. Unpaid interns are a good, cheaper alternative to paid journalists
3. Becoming a journalist is very hard these days
4. Making regular staff writers into contract workers can reduce wages and thus expenses for
companies
5. Job security is low while competition is high

Ans: 1

D. It can be inferred from the article that, in the future: Possible Answers
1. Journalism will bounce back and become a great profession
2. Newspaper companies will all go bankrupt and be replaced by Twitter
3. There will be less students enrolled in journalism programs at college
4. Demand for newspapers will rise until it meets the supply
5. Many existing journalists will have to find new career paths or at least part-time jobs to make
ends meet

Ans: 5

E. Which of the following describes the relationship of the first paragraph to the rest of the
article?
1. It poses a question to be answered later in the passage
2. It provides an introduction to the concept discussed later
3. It introduces conflicting elements to be reconciled
4. It explains one side of the argument
5. It introduces an opinion to be refuted later in the passage

Ans: 2

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Comprehension (5) (topography and erosion)

From the 197 million square miles, which make up the surface of the globe, 71 per cent is covered
by the interconnecting bodies of marine water; the Pacific Ocean alone covers half the Earth and
averages near 14,000 feet in depth. The portions which rise above sea level are the continents -
Eurasia, Africa; North America, South America, Australia, and Antarctica. The submerged borders
of the continental masses are the continental shelves, beyond which lie the deep-sea basins.

The ocean are deepest not in the center but in some elongated furrows, or long narrow troughs,
called deeps. These profound troughs have a peripheral arrangement, notably around the borders
of the pacific and Indian oceans. The position of the deeps, like the highest mountains, are of
recent origin, since otherwise they would have been filled with waste from the lands. This is further
strengthened by the observation that the deeps are quite often, where world-shaking earthquakes
occur. To cite an example, the “tidal wave” that in April, 1946, caused widespread destruction
along Pacific coasts resulted from a strong earthquake on the floor of the Aleutian Deep.

The topography of the ocean floors is none too well known, since in great areas the available
soundings are hundreds or even thousands of miles apart. However, the floor of the Atlantic is
becoming fairly well known as a result of special surveys since 1920. A broad, well-defined ridge-
the Mid-Atlantic ridge-runs north and south between Africa and the two Americas and numerous
other major irregularities diversify the Atlantic floor. Closely spaced soundings show that many
parts of the oceanic floors are as rugged as mountainous regions of the continents. Use of the
recently perfected method of submarine topography. During World War II great strides were made
in mapping submarine surfaces, particularly in many parts of the vast Pacific basin.

Most of the continents stand on an average of 2870 feet above sea level. North America averages
2300 feet; Europe averages only 1150 feet; and Asia, the highest of the larger continental
subdivisions, averages 3200 feet. Mount Everest, which is the highest point in the globe, is 29,000
feet above the sea; and as the greatest known depth in the sea is over 35,000 feet, the maximum
relief (that is, the difference in altitude between the lowest and highest points) exceeds 64,000
feet, or exceeds 12 miles. The continental masses and the deep-sea basins are relief features of
the first order; the deeps, ridges, and volcanic cones that diversify the sea floor, as well as the
plains, plateaus, and mountains of the continents, are relief features of the second order. The
lands are unendingly subject to a complex of activities summarized in the term erosion, which first
sculptures them in great detail and then tends to reduce them ultimately to sea level. The modeling
of the landscape by weather, running water, and other agents is apparent to the keenly observant
eye and causes thinking people to speculate on what must be the final result of the ceaseless

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 wearing down of the lands. Much before there was any recognizable science as geology,
Shakespeare wrote “the revolution of the times makes mountains level.”

A. The peripheral furrows or deeps are found

1. only in the pacific and Indian oceans
2. near earthquakes
3. near the shore
4. in the center of the ocean
5. To be 14,000 feet in depth in the pacific.

Ans: 3

B. The largest ocean is the

1. Atlantic
2. pacific
3. Aleutian deep
4. arctic
5. Indian.

Ans: 2

C. We may conclude from this passage that earth quakes

1. Occur more frequently in newly formed land or sea formations
2. Are caused by the weight of the water
3. Cause erosion
4. Occur in the deeps
5. Will ultimately “make mountains level”.

Ans: 1

D. The highest mountains are

1. oldest
2. in excess of 12 miles
3. near the deeps
4. relief features of the first order
5. of recent origin.

Ans: 5

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E. The science of geology was started
1. By the Greeks
2. During world war II
3. April 1946
4. After 1600
5. In 1920

Ans: 4

F. The highest point on North America is

1. 2870 feet above sea level
2. not mentioned in the passage
3. higher than the highest point in Europe
4. 2300 feet above sea level
5. in Mexico.

Ans: 2

G. The deeps are subject to change caused by

1. erosion
2. soundings
3. earthquakes
4. waste
5. weathering

Ans: 3

H. The continental masses

1. Rise above sea level
2. Consist of six continents
3. Are relief features of the second order
4. Are partially submerged
5. Comprise 29 per cent of the earth’s surface.

Ans: 4

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Comprehension (6) (Labors)

In any country, the wages commanded by the laborers who have comparable skills but who work
in various industries are determined by the productivity of the least productive unit of labor, i.e. the
unit of labor which works in the industry which has catatest economic disadvantages. We will
represent the various opportunities of employment in a country like United States by Symbols. A
standing for a group of industries in which we have exceptional economic advantage over foreign
countries; B for a group in which our advantages are less; E, one in which they are still less; D,
the group of industries in which they are the least of all.

When our population is so small that all our labor can be engaged in the group represented by A,
productivity of labor and (therefore wages) will be at their maximum. When our population
increases so that some of the labor will have to work in group B, the wages of all labor must decline
to the level of productivity in that group. But no employer, without government aid, will yet be able
to afford to hire labor to exploit the opportunities, represented by E and D, unless there is a further
increase in population.

But suppose that the political party in power holds the belief that we should produce everything
that we consume, that the opportunities represented by E and D should also be exploited. The
commodities, that the industries composing C and D will produce have been hitherto obtained
from abroad in exchange for commodities produce by A and B. The government now renders this
difficult by imposing high duties upon the former class of commodities. This means that workers
in A and B must pay higher prices for what they buy, but do not receive higher prices for what they
sell.

After the duty has gone into effect and the prices of commodities that can be produced by C and
D have rich sufficiently enterprises will be able to hire labor at the wages prevailing in A and B and
establish industries in C and D. So far as the remaining labors in A and B buy the products of C
and D, the difference between the price which they pay for these product and the price they would
pay it they were permitted to import those products duty-free is a tax paid not to the government,
but to the producers in C and D, to enable the later to remain in business. It is on uncompensated
deduction from the natural earnings of the laborers in A and B. nor are the workers in C and D
paid as much, estimated in purchasing power as they would have received if they had been
allowed to remain in A and B under the earlier conditions.

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A. The author’s main point is that
1. The government ought to subsidize C and D
2. Wages ought to be independent of international trade
3. It is impossible to attain national self sufficiency
4. The varying productivity of the various industries leads to the inequalities in wages of workers
in these industries
5. A policy that draws labor from the fields of catater natural productiveness to fields of lower
natural productiveness tends to redirect purchasing power.

Ans: 5

B. No employer, without government aid will yet be able to afford to hire labor to exploit the
opportunities represented by C and D because
1. The population has increased
2. Productivity of labour is not at the maximum
3. Productivity would drop correspondingly with the wages of labour
4. We cannot produce everything we consume
5. Enterprises would have to pay wages equivalent to those obtained by workers in A and B while
producing under catater disadvantages.

Ans: 5

C. When C and D are established, workers in these industries

1. Receives wages equal to those workers in A and B
2. Receives higher wages than do the workers in A and B
3. Are not affected so adversely by the levying of duties as are workers in A and B
4. Must be paid by government funds collected from the duties on imports.
5. Receive lower wages than do the workers in A and B.

Ans: 1

D. We cannot exploit C and D unless

1. The producers in E and D are compensated for the disadvantages under which they operate.
2. We export large quantities of commodities produced by A and B
3. The prices of commodities produced by A and B are raised
4. The productivity of labour in all industries is increased
5. We allow duties to be paid to the producers in C and D rather than to the government.

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Ans: 1

Comprehension (7) (Caffeine)

Caffeine, the stimulant in coffee, has been called “the most widely used psychoactive substance
on Earth.” Snyder, Daly, and Bruns have recently proposed that caffeine affects behavior by
countering the activity in the human brain of a naturally occurring chemical called adenosine.
Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by
inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters, chemicals that carry nerve impulses from one neuron
to the next.

Like many other agents that affect neuron firing, adenosine must first bind to specific receptors on
neuronal membranes. There are at least two classes of these receptors, which have been
designated A1 and A2. Snyder et al. propose that caffeine, which is structurally similar to
adenosine, is able to bind to both types of receptors, which prevents adenosine from attaching
there and allows the neurons to fire more readily than they otherwise would.

For many years, caffeine’s effects have been attributed to its inhibition of the production of
phosphodiesterase, an enzyme that breaks down the chemical called cyclic AMP. A number of
neurotransmitters exert their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP concentrations in target
neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at the elevated concentrations, as might be brought about
by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, could lead to a greater amount of neuron firing and,
consequently, to behavioral stimulation. But Snyder et al. point out that the caffeine concentrations
needed to inhibit the production of phosphodiesterase in the brain are much higher than those that
produce stimulation. Moreover, other compounds that block phosphodiesterase’s activity are not
stimulants.

To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by preventing adenosine binding, Snyder et al.
compared the stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with their ability to dislodge
adenosine from its receptors in the brains of mice. “In general,” they reported, “the ability of the
compounds to compete at the receptors correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in the
mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate
locomotion.” Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine and the major stimulant in tea,
was one of the most effective compounds in both regards.

There were some apparent exceptions to the general correlation observed between adenosine
receptor binding and stimulation. One of these was a compound called 3-isobutyl-1-
methylxanthine (IBMX), which bound very well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder
et al. suggest that this is not a major stumbling block to their hypothesis. The problem is that the
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 compound has mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with psychoactive drugs. Even
caffeine, which is generally known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this property,
depressing mouse locomotion at very low concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.

A. Snyder et al suggests that caffeine's ability to bind to A1 and A2 receptors can be at least
partially attributed to which of the followings:
1. The chemical relationship between caffeine and phosphodiesterase
2. The structural relationship between caffeine and adenosine
3. The structural similarity between caffeine and neurotransmitters
4. The ability of caffeine to stimulate behavior
5. The natural occurrence of caffeine and adenosine in the brain

Ans: 2

B. The author quotes Snyder et al in lines 38-43 most probably in order to

1. reveal some of the assumptions underlying their theory
2. summarize a major finding of their experiments
3. point out that their experiments were limited to the mouse
4. indicate that their experiments resulted only in general correlations
5. refute the objections made by supporters of the older theory

Ans: 2

C. the primary purpose of the passage is

1. discuss a plan for investigation of a phenomenon that is not yet fully understood
2. present two explanations of a phenomenon and reconcile the differences between them
3. summarize two theories and suggest a third theory that overcomes the problems
encountered in the first two
4. describe an alternative hypothesis and provide evidence and arguments that support it
5. challenge the validity of a theory by exposing the inconsistencies and contradictions in it

Ans: 4

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D. in response to experimental results concerning IBMX, Snyder et al contended that is not
uncommon for psychoactive drugs to have
1. mixed effects in the brain
2. inhibitory effects on enzymes in the brain
3. close structural relationships with caffeine
4. depressive effects on mouse locomotion
5. the ability to dislodge caffeine from receptors in the brain

Ans: 1

E. According to Snyder et al, all of the following compound can bind to specific receptors in
the brain EXCEPT
1. IBMX
2. caffeine
3. adenosine
4. theophylline
5. phosphodiesterase

Ans: 5

F. according to Snyder el al ,caffeine differs from adenosine in that caffeine

1. stimulates behavior in the mouse and in humans, whereas adenosine stimulates behavior in
humans only
2. has mixed effects in the brain, whereas adenosine has only a stimulatory effect
3. increases cyclic AMP concentrations in target neurons, whereas adenosine decreases such
concentrations
4. permits release of neurotransmitters when it is bound to adenosine receptors, whereas
adenosine inhibits such release
5. inhibits both neuron firing and the production of phosphodiesterase when there is a sufficient
concentration in the brain, whereas adenosine inhibits only neuron firing

Ans: 4

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Comprehension (8) In 1988, services moved ahead of manufacturing as the main product of the United
States economy. But what is meant by "services"? Some economists define a service as something that is
produced and consumed simultaneously, for example, a haircut. The broader, classical definition is that a
service is an intangible something that cannot be touched or stored. Yet electric utilities can store energy,
and computer programmers save information electronically. Thus, the classical definition is hard to
sustain.

The United States government's definition is more practical: services are the residual category that
includes everything that is not agriculture or industry. Under this definition, services includes activities as
diverse as engineering and driving a bus. However, besides lacking a strong conceptual framework, this
definition fails to recognize the distinction between service industries and service occupations. It
categorizes workers based on their company's final product rather than on the actual work, the employees
perform. Thus, the many service workers employed by manufacturers’ bookkeepers or janitors, for
example-would fall under the industrial rather than the services category. Such ambiguities reveal the
arbitrariness of this definition and suggest that, although practical for government purposes, it does not
accurately reflect the composition of the current United States economy

1. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

(A) discussing research data underlying several definitions
(B) arguing for the adoption of a particular definition
(C) exploring definitions of a concept
(D) comparing the advantages of several definitions
(E) clarifying some ambiguous definitions

2. In comparing the United States government's definition of services with the classical definition, the
author suggests that the classical definition is
(A) more pragmatic
(B) more difficult to apply
(C) less ambiguous
(D) more widely used
(E) more arbitrary

3. The passage suggests which of the following about service workers in the United States?
(A) The number of service workers may be underestimated by the definition of services used by the
government.
(B) There were fewer service workers than agricultural workers before 1988.
(C) The number of service workers was almost equal to the number of workers employed in
manufacturing until 1988.
(D) Most service workers are employed in service occupations rather than in service industries.
(E) Most service workers are employed in occupations where they provide services that do not fall under
the classical definition of services.
4. The author of the passage mentions which of the following as one disadvantage of the United States
government's definition of services?
(A) It is less useful than the other definitions mentioned in the passage.

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(B) It is narrower in scope than the other definitions mentioned in the passage.
(C) It is based on the final product produced rather than on the type of work performed.
(D) It does not recognize the diversity of occupations within the service industries.
(E) It mis-classifies many workers who are employed in service industries.

5. The author refers to "service workers employed by manufacturers" (line 15) primarily in order to point
out
(A) a type of worker not covered by the United States government's system of classifying occupations
(B) a flaw in the United States government's definition of services
(C) a factor that has influenced the growth of the service economy in the United States
(D) a type of worker who is classified on the basis of work performed rather than on the basis of the
company's final product
(E) the diversity of the workers who are referred to as service workers

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Comprehension (9) During the 1960's and 1970's, the primary economic development strategy of local
governments in the United States was to attract manufacturing industries. Unfortunately, this strategy was
usually implemented at another community's expense: many manufacturing facilities were lured away
from their moorings elsewhere through tax incentives and slick promotional efforts. Through the transfer
of jobs and related revenues that resulted from this practice, one town's triumph could become another
town's tragedy.

In the 1980's the strategy shifted from this zero-sum game to one called “high-technology development,”
in which local governments competed to attract newly formed high-technology manufacturing firms.
Although this approach was preferable to victimizing other geographical areas by taking their jobs, it also
had its shortcomings: high-tech manufacturing firms employ only a specially trained fraction of the
manufacturing workforce, and there simply are not enough high-tech firms to satisfy all geographic areas.

Recently, local governments have increasingly come to recognize the advantages of yet a third strategy:
the promotion of homegrown small businesses. Small indigenous businesses are created by a nearly
ubiquitous resource, local entrepreneurs. With roots in their communities, these individuals are less likely
to be enticed away by incentives offered by another community. Indigenous industry and talent are kept at
home, creating an environment that both provides jobs and fosters further entrepreneurship.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) advocate more effective strategies for encouraging the development of high- technology enterprises in
the United States
(B) contrast the incentives for economic development offered by local governments with those offered by
the private sector
(C) acknowledge and counter adverse criticism of programs being used to stimulate local economic
development
(D) define and explore promotional efforts used by local governments to attract new industry
(E) review and evaluate strategies and programs that have been used to stimulate economic development

2. The passage suggests which of the following about the majority of United States manufacturing
industries before the high-technology development era of the 1980's?

(A) They lost many of their most innovative personnel to small entrepreneurial enterprises.
(B) They experienced a major decline in profits during the 1960’s and 1970’s.
(C) They could provide real economic benefits to the areas in which they were located.
(D) They employed workers who had no specialized skills.
(E) They actively interfered with local entrepreneurial ventures.

3. The tone of the passage suggests that the author is most optimistic about the economic development
potential of which of the following groups?

(A) Local governments

(B) High-technology promoters
(C) Local entrepreneurs
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(D) Manufacturing-industry managers
(E) Economic development strategists

4. The passage does NOT state which of the following about local entrepreneurs?

(A) They are found nearly everywhere.

(B) They encourage further entrepreneurship.
(C) They attract out-of-town investors.
(D) They employ local workers.
(E) They are established in their communities.

5. The author of the passage mentions which of the following as an advantage of high-technology
development?

(A) It encourages the modernization of existing manufacturing facilities.

(B) It promotes healthy competition between rival industries.
(C) It encourages the growth of related industries.
(D) It takes full advantage of the existing workforce.
(E) It does not advantage one local workforce at the expense of another.

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Comprehension (10) According to a recent theory, Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems were formed
more than two billion years ago from magmatic fluids that originated from molten granite-like bodies deep
beneath the surface of the Earth. This theory is contrary to the widely held view that the systems were
deposited from metamorphic fluids, that is, from fluids that formed during the dehydration of wet
sedimentary rocks.

The recently developed theory has considerable practical importance. Most of the gold deposits
discovered during the original gold rushes were exposed at the Earth's surface and were found because
they had shed trails of alluvial gold that were easily traced by simple prospecting methods. Although these
same methods still lead to an occasional discovery, most deposits not yet discovered have gone undetected
because they are buried and have no surface expression.

The challenge in exploration is therefore to unravel the subsurface geology of an area and pinpoint the
position of buried minerals. Methods widely used today include analysis of aerial images that yield a
broad geological overview; geophysical techniques that provide data on the magnetic, electrical, and
mineralogical properties of the rocks being investigated; and sensitive chemical tests that are able to detect
the subtle chemical halos that often envelop mineralization. However, none of these high-technology
methods are of any value if the sites to which they are applied have never mineralized, and to maximize
the chances of discovery the explorer must therefore pay particular attention to selecting the ground
formations most likely to be mineralized. Such ground selection relies to varying degrees on conceptual
models, which take into account theoretical studies of relevant factors.
These models are constructed primarily from empirical observations of known mineral deposits and from
theories of ore-forming processes. The explorer uses the models to identify those geological features that
are critical to the formation of the mineralization being modeled, and then tries to select areas for
exploration that exhibit as many of the critical features as possible.

1. The author is primarily concerned with

(A) advocating a return to an older methodology

(B) explaining the importance of a recent theory
(C) enumerating differences between two widely used methods
(D) describing events leading to a discovery
(E) challenging the assumptions on which a theory is based

2. According to the passage, the widely held view of Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems is that such
systems

(A) were formed from metamorphic fluids

(B) originated in molten granite-like bodies
(C) were formed from alluvial deposits
(D) generally have surface expression
(E) are not discoverable through chemical tests
3. The passage implies that which of the following steps would be the first performed by explorers who
wish to maximize their chances of discovering gold?

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(A) Surveying several sites known to have been formed more than two billion years ago
(B) Limiting exploration to sites known to have been formed from metamorphic fluid
(C) Using an appropriate conceptual model to select a site for further exploration
(D) Using geophysical methods to analyze rocks over a broad area
(E) Limiting exploration to sites where alluvial gold has previously been found
4. Which of the following statements about discoveries of gold deposits is supported by information in the
passage?

(A) The number of gold discoveries made annually has increased between the time of the original gold
rushes and the present.
(B) New discoveries of gold deposits are likely to be the result of exploration techniques designed to
locate buried mineralization.
(C) It is unlikely that newly discovered gold deposits will ever yield as much as did those deposits
discovered during the original gold rushes.
(D) Modern explorers are divided on the question of the utility of simple prospecting methods as a source
of new discoveries of gold deposits.
(E) Models based on the theory that gold originated from magmatic fluids have already led to new
discoveries of gold deposits.

5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is easiest to detect?
(A) A gold-quartz vein system originating in magmatic fluids
(B) A gold-quartz vein system originating in metamorphic fluids
(C) A gold deposit that is mixed with granite
(D) A gold deposit that has shed alluvial gold
(E) A gold deposit that exhibits chemical halos
6. The theory mentioned in lines 1-5 relates to the conceptual models discussed in the passage in which of
the following ways?

(A) It may furnish a valid account of ore-forming processes, and, hence, can support conceptual models
that have great practical significance.
(B) It suggests that certain geological formations, long believed to be mineralized, are in fact mineralized,
thus confirming current conceptual models.
(C) It suggests that there may not be enough similarity across Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems to
warrant the formulation of conceptual models.
(D) It corrects existing theories about the chemical halos of gold deposits, and thus provides a basis for
correcting current conceptual models.
(E) It suggests that simple prospecting methods still have a higher success rate in the discovery of gold
deposits than do more modern methods.

7. According to the passage, methods of exploring for gold that are widely used today are based on which
of the following facts?

(A) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are still molten.
(B) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are exposed at the surface.
(C) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are buried and have no surface expression.
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(D) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration, since the other types of gold deposits are found in
regions difficult to reach.
(E) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration, since the other types of gold deposits are unlikely
to yield concentrated quantities of gold.

8. It can be inferred from the passage that the efficiency of model-based gold exploration depends on
which of the following?

I. The closeness of the match between the geological features identified by the model as critical and the
actual geological features of a given area
II. The degree to which the model chosen relies on empirical observation of known mineral deposits rather
than on theories of ore-forming processes
III. The degree to which the model chosen is based on an accurate description of the events leading to
mineralization
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III

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