ACT Crack Chemistry

Made By Shahd A.
Gaber
(Test 1-2)
Ferric oxide (Fe2O3) is more commonly known as rust. This is produced in a
reaction between iron, a common metal, and water, H2O.
Table 1 shows the amount of Fe2O3 produced over time from 15 g Fe

submerged in different liquids: 100 mL distilled water, a salt solution made
from dissolving 20 g of salt in 100 mL of distilled water, and a sugar solution
made from dissolving 20 g of sugar in 100 mL of distilled
water.
The distilled water trial was repeated four times, but for each trial, a total
volume of 100 mL of water was buffered to different pH levels.
1
Made By Shahd A.Gaber
6. Based on
Table 1, if the amount of Fe2O3 produced on Day 9 had been measured for
the salt solution, it would most likely have been:
F. less than 0.56 g.
G. between 0.59 g and 0.72 g.
H. between 1.23 g and 1.84 g.
J. greater than 1.84 g.
7. In the experiments shown in Table 1 and

Figure 1, by measuring the rate at which Fe2O3 was formed every day, the
experimenters could also measure the rate at which: A. H2O was
produced.
B. H2 was produced.
C. Fe was produced.
D. FeO was produced.
8. Consider the amount of Fe2O3 produced by the salt solution on Day 2.

Based on Table 1 and
Figure 1, the water buffered to pH = 10.0 produced approximately the same
amount of Fe2O3 on which of the following days?
F. Day 1
G. Day 3
H. Day 6
J. Day 10
2
9. According to
Table 1, what was the amount of Fe2O3 produced by the sugar solution from
the time the amount was measured on Day 6 until the time the amount was
measured on Day 8?
A. 0.08 g
B. 0.11 g
C. 0.19 g
D. 0.30 g
10. Based on
Table 1, which graph best shows how the amount of Fe2O3 produced by the
sugar solution changes over time?
F.
G.
H.
J.
3
(Test 2-2)
Sodium chloride, or salt, is used to de-ice roads and sidewalks during the
winter because it lowers the freezing point of water. Water with sodium
chloride freezes at a lower temperature than water alone, so putting sodium
chloride on icy sidewalks and roads can cause the ice to melt. Sodium
chloride is highly effective as a de-icer and is given a de-icer proof of 100.
Distilled water is ineffective as a de-icer and is given a de-icer proof of 0.
Different proportions of sodium chloride and distilled water were combined

to create mixtures with de-icer proofs between 0 and 100.
Experiment 1
A 125-g cube of ice, frozen from distilled water, was submerged in 500-mL of
each de-icing mixture listed in Table 1. After 300 seconds, the portion of the
cube that had not been melted was removed and weighed. The de-icing rate
was calculated by determining the weight of ice melted per second. By doing
this, it was possible to determine de-icer proof for a solution based on the rate
at which ice was melted.
Experiment 2
The addition of magnesium chloride to a de-icer changes its de-icer proof.
Different amounts of magnesium chloride were added to 500-mL samples of
sodium chloride. Each de-icing mixture was tested under the same conditions
as Experiment 1 and the measured de-icing rate was used to calculate the
de-icer proof. The results are shown in Figure 1.
4
Figure 1
Experiment 3
The temperature rating (TR) is the minimum de-icer proof of a de-icing
solution for a de-icer to have any effect on ice. 125-g cubes of ice were
submerged in 500-mL samples of De-icers A and B and the samples were
then placed in freezers at different temperatures. Table 2 shows the de-icer
proof determined for each de-icer at each freezer temperature and the known
TR for that temperature.
7. Suppose a trial had been performed in Experiment 3 with a freezer

temperature of -30°C. At this temperature, which of the following sets of
proofs would most likely have been determined for De-icer A and De-icer
B? De-icer A De-icer B
A. 68.8 59.7
B. 70.1 70.5
C. 75.5 61.8
D. 78.9 64.9
5
8. Based on
Table 1, if 1 mL distilled water were added to 4 mL sodium chloride, the proof
of this mixture would be:
F. 4
G. 8
H. 40
J. 80
9. Based on Experiment 3, as temperature decreases, the minimum proof for

a de-icer to be effective:
A. increases only.
B. decreases only.
C. increases, then decreases.
D. decreases, then increases.
10. Whichof the following expressions is equal to the proof for each de-icer
mixture listed in
Table 1?
F.
G.
H.
J.
11. Based on
Table 1 and Experiment 2, if 6 mL magnesium chloride were added to a
mixture of 10 mL distilled water and 40 mL sodium chloride, the proof of the
resulting de-icer would most likely be:
A. less than 60.
B. between 60 and 80.
6
C. between 80 and 112.
D. greater than 112.
12. Which of the 2 de-icers from Experiment 3 would be better to use to melt
ice if the temperature were between -10°C and -75°C?
F. De-icer A, because its proof was lower than the TR at each temperature
tested.
G. De-icer A, because its proof was higher than the TR at each temperature
tested.
H. De-icer B, because its proof was lower than the TR at each temperature
tested.
J. De-icer B because its proof was higher than the TR at each temperature
tested.
(Test 3-2)
A cotton fiber is composed of one very long cell with two cell walls. During a
2-week period of cell life called elongation, cotton fibers grow 3 to 6 cm. The
level of hydrogen peroxide in cotton fiber cells during elongation is very high.
Scientists wanted to study whether the level of hydrogen peroxide affected
the length of the cotton fiber.
The amount of hydrogen peroxide is controlled by an enzyme called
superoxide dismutase (SOD). This enzyme turns superoxide into hydrogen
peroxide. Four identical lines of cotton fiber plants were created. Each line
was able to express only one of three types of superoxide
dismutase. The gene for SOD1 was incorporated into L1, the gene for SOD2
was
incorporated into L2, and the gene for SOD3 was incorporated into L3.
Experiment
Five cotton plants of each line were grown in nutrient solution until cotton
fibers completed the elongation period. The average length of cotton fibers
and the average concentration of hydrogen peroxide were determined. This
information is shown in Table 1.
7
Next, because the scientists had determined the average elongation period,
they measured the amount of hydrogen peroxide and the length of the cotton
fibers halfway through their elongation period. This information is shown in
Table 2.
Finally, the scientists measured the amount of hydrogen peroxide and the
length of cotton fibers on the first day of the elongation period. This
information is shown in Table 3.
8
8. For L2, as the elongation period moved from the first day to the end, the
amount of hydrogen peroxide:
F. increased only
G. decreased only
H. increased, then decreased
J. decreased, then increased
9. Which of the following is a dependent variable in the experiment?
A. The point in time during the elongation period
B. The type of superoxide dismutase the plant could express
C. The length of the cotton fiber
D. Thetype of cotton plant

10. A cotton fiber is one very long cell with two cell walls. A cotton fiber is a
special kind of what type of cell?
F. Prokaryotic
G. Animal
H. Plant
J. Bacterial
11. One plant had an average cotton fiber length of 0.5 cm, and the average
amount of hydrogen peroxide in its fibers was 5.9 μmol/mg. Which of the
following most likely describes this plant?
A. It was from L1 and at the end of its elongation period.
B. It was from L1 and at the midpoint of its elongation period.
C. It was from L2 and at the beginning of its elongation period.

9
D. It was from L2 and at the end of its elongation period.
12. The scientists used one of the four lines of cotton plants as a control.
Which line was most likely the control?
F. L1
G. L2
H. L3
J. L4
13. Suppose the data for all the plants were plotted on a graph with the time
of the elongation period on the x-axis and the average length of the cotton
fiber on the y-axis. Suppose also that the best-fit line for these data was
determined. Which of the following would most likely characterize the slope
of this line?
A. The line would have a positive slope.
B. The line would have a negative slope.
C. The line would have a slope equal to zero.
D. The line would have no slope, because the line would be vertical.
10
(Test 4-1)
Convection is a heat transfer process caused by moving liquid or gas currents

from a hot region to a cold region. As a liquid or gas cools, it gets more
dense. An example of a convection process is a cup of hot coffee: the liquid
toward the top is cooled by the air, so it becomes more dense and sinks to
the bottom of the cup; the hotter liquid toward the bottom of the cup is less
dense, so it rises toward the top. See Figure 1, below.
Figure 1
The temperature of the liquid at the hot end of the insulated system is higher
than the temperature at the cool end of the system. The difference (ΔT)
between the hot liquid at the bottom and the cold liquid at the top changes
depending on the starting temperature of the system. Table 1 gives ΔT for
500 mL of water in an insulated container with a height of 6.0 cm and a cross-
sectional area of 4.0 cm2 when the container is heated to different
temperatures.
Table 1
Heated temperature (°C) ΔT (°C)

80 1
100 4
120 10
140 19
Figure 2 shows how ΔT changes with cross-sectional area for 500 mL of

100°C water in a container with a height of 6.0 cm. Figure 3 shows how ΔT
changes with height for 500 mL 100°C water in a container with a cross-
sectional area of 4.0 cm2.
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Figure 2
Figure 3
1. System 1 and System 2 are two convection systems. Based on
Figure 2, if System 1 were the same height as System 2, but had two times
the crosssectional area and the systems were heated to the same
temperature, the ratio of ΔT for System 1 to ΔT for System 2 would be:
F. 1:01
G. 1:02
H. 2:01
J. 3:01
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2. For the systems described in the passage, if the containers were metal
containers rather than insulated containers, heat would be transferred from
the water to the container by which of the following heat transfer
processes?
I. Convection
II. Conduction
III. Radiation
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. I and II only
3. Which of the following systems, if all were heated to the same temperature,
would have the greatest ΔT?
F.
G.
H.
J.
4. Based on the information in

Table 1, if an insulated container of 500 mL of water with a height of 6.0 cm
and a crosssectional area of 4.0 cm2 were heated to 120°C, which of the
following pairs could represent the temperatures of the liquid at the top and
bottom ends of the container? Bottom end Top/Exposed to air end
A. 140°C 120°C
B. 140°C 110°C
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C. 115°C 115°C
D. 120°C 110°C
5. The data in the passage supports the hypothesis that ΔT increases as

which of the following increases?
F. Amount of insulation
G. Volume of liquid
H. Radius of the container
J. Air temperature
(Test 4-2)
Metallic alloys, solid mixtures of metal, are useful for coin production when
they contain a high percentage of zinc. When electric current is applied to
zinc in the presence of precious metal solutions of silver nitrate, copper
sulfate or potassium gold cyanide, the precious metals plate (form a coating)
on the zinc surface.
- Silver nitrate, formed when silver dissolves in nitric acid, reacts with zinc to
form solid silver and zinc nitrate.
- Copper sulfate, formed when copper dissolves in sulfuric acid, reacts with
zinc to form solid copper and zinc sulfate.
- Potassium gold cyanide contains reactive gold ions.
A chemist performed experiments on precious metal plating.

Experiment 1
The chemist obtained 4 coin-like samples of a high percentage zinc alloy. All
samples were circular, had a radius of 1 cm, and had the same thickness.
The mass of each coin was recorded. Each coin was wired via a battery to a
strip of either pure silver or copper metal. Coins wired to silver were placed in
dilute nitric acid and coins wired to copper were placed in dilute sulfuric acid.
Electric current of either 1,000 milliamperes (mA) or 2,000 mA was applied for
30 minutes to each sample. The coins were removed and the increase in
mass from precious metal plating was recorded in milligrams. Results of the
experiment are shown in Table 1.
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Experiment 2
The chemist completely dissolved equal amounts of pure silver in 4 beakers
of nitric acid. He then placed equivalent coin-like samples of zinc into the
beakers for different lengths of time measured in minutes (min). The coin
surfaces developed a silver metal coating without any electric current applied.
The concentrations of silver coating on the coin and zinc nitrate in the
surrounding solution were determined in parts per billion (ppb) and recorded
in Table 2.
6. A comparison of the results for coin samples II and IV supports the

hypothesis that zinc is plated more extensively when exposed to:
A. silver
nitrate and a current of 1,000 mA than silver nitrate and a current of
2,000 mA.
B. coppersulfate and a current of 1,000 mA than copper sulfate and a current

of 2,000
mA.
C. silver nitrate than when exposed to copper sulfate.
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D. copper sulfate than when exposed to silver nitrate.
7. If the chemist were to repeat Experiment 1, but compress each coin

sample to a radius of 0.5 cm to decrease the surface area exposed to the
surrounding solution, how would the mass of precious metal plated most likely
be affected?
F. The mass of precious metal plated would decrease for all coin
samples.
G. The mass of precious metal plated would decrease for coin

samples I and III and increase for coin samples II and IV.
H. The mass of precious metal plated would remain constant for all
coin samples.
J. The mass of precious metal plated would increase for all coin samples.
8. According to the information in the passage, a zinc alloy coin sample

exposed to which of the following conditions would result in the greatest
concentration of zinc nitrate?
A. 10 minutes in a solution with a high initial concentration of silver nitrate
B. 10 minutes in a solution with a low initial concentration of silver nitrate
C. 6 minutes in a solution with a high initial concentration of silver nitrate
D. 6 minutes in a solution with a low initial concentration of silver nitrate
9. In Experiment 1, if the chemist had applied 1,580 mA to a 1 cm radius

zinc alloy coin sample in a copper sulfate solution, approximately how much
copper would have plated after 30 minutes?
F. 0.6 mg
G. 1.1 mg
H. 1.9 mg
J. 4.6 mg
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10. In Experiment 1, which of the following variables was the same for all 4
zinc alloy coin sample trials?
A. Change in mass from plating
B. Electric current applied
C. Type of precious metal solution used
D. Initial radius of the sample
11. According to the passage, if a chemist wants to study the effect of plating
zinc alloys with silver, the chemist should monitor the concentration of which
of the following substances in the surrounding solution?
F. Potassium gold cyanide
G. Zinc nitrate
H. Copper sulfate
J. Sulfuric acid
(Test 5-1)
Organic compounds are molecules that frequently contain carbon (C),

hydrogen (H), and oxygen (O) joined together by covalent bonds (symbolized
by straight lines in chemical notation). As the number of bonds to oxygen
atoms increases in a carbon chain, the overall molecule is increasingly
oxidized. For example, aldehydes are more oxidized than alcohols, which are
more oxidized than alkanes as shown in Table 1. The melting points of these
compounds are listed in Table 2, and their viscosities (resistance to flow, or
"stickiness,") are listed in Table 3.
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1. Which organic compounds in Table 2 are solids at 215 K?
A. All alkanes, alcohols, and aldehydes with 5 carbons or fewer.
B. Alcohols and aldehydes with 6 or more carbons and octane.
C. The 4- and 5-carbon alcohols and aldehydes, and all alkanes with
7 or fewer carbons.
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D. The 5-carbon pentane and pentanol compounds and the 4-carbon

butane, butanol, and butanaldehyde. ‘
2. According to Tables 1 and

3, which organic compound has the highest viscosity?
F. Octanol
G. Octanaldehyde
H. Hexanol
J. Butane
3. According to
Table 3, how do the different types of 5-carbon molecules differ with respect
to their viscosity?
The alkane has a higher viscosity than the aldehyde and the aldehyde
A.
has a higher viscosity than the alcohol.
The alkane has a higher viscosity than the alcohol and the alcohol has a
B.
higher viscosity than the aldehyde.
C. The
alcohol has a higher viscosity than the alkane and the alkane has a
higher viscosity than the aldehyde.
D. The
alcohol has a higher viscosity than the aldehyde and the aldehyde
has a higher viscosity than the alkane.
4. For each type of organic compound, what is the relationship between the
length of the carbon chain to the melting point and viscosity? As the number
of carbons in the chain increases, the melting point:
F. decreases and the viscosity decreases.
G. increases and the viscosity increases.
H. increases but the viscosity decreases.
J. decreases but the viscosity increases.
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5. According to
Table 2, the difference in melting point between an alkane and an alcohol with
the same number of carbons is approximately how much?
A. 25 K
B. 35 K
C. 45 K
D. 65 K
(Test 9-2)
As the pressure on a gas is increased, the volume of that gas is expected to

decrease by an inversely proportional amount. For example, if pressure is
doubled the volume is halved. Under certain conditions, the volume of the gas
will change by an amount that deviates from an inverse proportion. Various
10.00 L samples of gas were subjected to increases in pressure. Table 1 shows
the resulting volume changes at 300°C, while Tables 2 and 3 show the volume
changes at 25°C and -200°C, respectively. All pressures are measured in
atmospheres (atm).
20
7. Which of the following gases shown in Tables 1-3 was compressed by the
same amount each time the pressure was changed, regardless of its initial
pressure?
A. Helium
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. Neon
D. Oxygen
8. Which of the following is the best explanation for the change in volume
seen in any one of the samples of carbon dioxide in Table 1? As pressure on
one sample of carbon dioxide was increased, the volume of that sample:
F. increased as the molecules of carbon dioxide were forced closer together.
G. increased as the molecules of carbon dioxide were forced farther apart.

21
H. decreased as the molecules of carbon dioxide were forced closer together.
J. decreased as the molecules of carbon dioxide were forced farther apart.
9. Based on Table 2, if the sample of nitrogen at a pressure of 4 atm were

returned to its initial pressure of 2 atm, the volume would most likely:
A. decrease by 5.00 L.
B. decrease by 8.00 L.
C. increase by 5.00 L.
D. increase by 8.00 L.
10. Based on Table 3, if the pressure on a 10.00 L sample of neon gas is

increased from 8 atm to 16 atm at a temperature of -200°C, the change in
volume will most likely be closest to which of the following?
F. -5.12 L
G. -5.06 L
H. -5.03 L
J. -5.02 L
11. A scientist concludes that whenever the pressure on helium is increased,

its volume will decrease. Based on Tables 2 and 3, is this a valid conclusion?
Yes; in every trial that the pressure of helium was increased, the change
A.
in volume was negative.
No; in every trial that the pressure of helium was increased, the change in
B.
volume was positive.
C. Yes;
when the pressure on helium was increased from 1 to 2 atm, its
change in volume was positive at 25°C and negative at -200°C.
D. No;
when the pressure on helium was increased from 1 to 2 atm, its
change in volume was negative at 25°C and positive at -200°C.
22
(Test 10-2)
Nuclear fission occurs when the nucleus (central core) of an atom splits into
multiple parts. This splitting is accompanied by the release of a large amount
of energy, as in nuclear weapons and nuclear power plants.
A chemical element is said to be radioactive if it is prone to fission. Fission is
often the result of the nucleus of a radioactive atom absorbing a free neutron
(an uncharged nuclear particle). When a fission event occurs, the nucleus often
splits into two new nuclei and produces free neutrons. This process generates
the possibility of a chain reaction. If, on average, a fission event produces one
neutron and that neutron causes another nucleus to fission, the reaction is said
to be critical; that is, it will sustain itself, but not increase in magnitude. If one
fission event releases more free neutrons than are required to initiate another
fission event, the reaction is said to be supercritical; that is, it will sustain and
increase in magnitude. If more neutrons are required to initiate a fission event
than are released in fission, the reaction is said to be subcritical: the reaction
will not sustain itself.
Many factors affect how many neutrons from each fission event will trigger
another fission event. The most important factor is the mass (m) of the
substance. The criticality of a substance also depends on the substance's purity,
shape, density, temperature, and whether or not it is surrounded by a material
that reflects neutrons.
In a nuclear weapon, a radioactive substance is made highly supercritical.
One of the primary challenges in building a nuclear weapon is keeping the
radioactive material subcritical prior to detonation, then upon detonation,
keeping it supercritical for a long enough period of time for all of the material to
fission before it is blown apart by the energy of the blast. A fizzle occurs when
a nuclear weapon achieves supercriticality but is blown apart before all of the
radioactive material fissions.
The first nuclear weapons were made of enriched uranium, or U-235. The
density (ρ) of U235 under normal conditions is 19.1 g/cm3. For U-235 to attain
a supercritical state, the product of its mass and density must exceed 10 6
g2/cm3. If it is assembled over too long a time (t), it will achieve slight
supercriticality and then fizzle. Therefore, the speed of assembly (measured as
t divided by ρ), must be less than 10-5 sec × cm3/g (Michelson's Criterion).
Two schemes for the assembly of a supercritical amount of U-235 that

avoid fizzle are discussed below.
Gun-Type Weapon
At one end of a tube, similar to a gun barrel, is a hollow, subcritical cylinder of
U-235 with a mass of 48 kg; on the other end is a subcritical pellet of U-235 with
a mass of 12 kg. The pellet is propelled by a small explosion down the tube and
into the cylinder of U-235. The combined mass of the two pieces of U-235 is
23
great enough to induce a supercritical state. Since the combined cylinder of U-

235 is at or near normal density, the assembly process must be completed in
less than 2 × 10-4sec to meet Michelson's Criterion.
Implosion-Type Weapon
A 15-kg sphere of U-235 is surrounded by explosives. When the explosives
are simultaneously detonated, the U-235 is compressed in order to achieve
supercriticality. The explosives are designed to compress the U-235 to a density
of approximately 70 g/cm3 in less than 10-7 sec.
6. For both types of weapon, avoiding fizzle is difficult because:

A. the mass of U235 must be large.
B. 2 separate pieces of U-235 must be brought together.
C. U-235 is highly unstable.
D. of the speed with which the U-235 must be assembled.
7. Comparing the mass of uranium used in the two types of weapons reveals
that:
the mass of U-235 used in the implosion-type weapon is less than the
F.
mass of U-235 used in the gun type weapon.
G. the
mass of U-235 used in the implosion-type weapon is greater than the
mass of U235 used in the gun type weapon.
H. the
mass of U-235 used in the implosion-type weapon is greater in some
cases and less in some cases than the mass used in the gun-type weapon.
J. the mass of U-235 used in both weapons is approximately the same.
8. Both types of weapons use explosives in order to: A. increase the heat
of the U-235.
B. release the nuclear energy of the weapon from the confinement of the
bomb's casing.
C. achieve supercriticality of U-235.
D. generate neutrons to start the chain reaction.
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9. For an implosion-type weapon, when U-235 has reached

supercriticality, to which of the following is the value of ρ closest?
F. 10-3 g/cm3
G. 0.1 g/cm3
H. 100 g/cm3
J. 106 g/cm3
10. In the implosion-type weapon, the explosives are used to:

A. trigger the first fission events.
B. heat the U-235 so it will become supercritical.
C. increase the density of U-235.
D. produce additional damage.
11. In order to achieve a supercritical state just before detonation,

both methods: F. increase the product of the mass and
density of the U-235.
G. decrease the product of the mass and density of the U-235.
H. increase the amount of U-235 in the weapon.
J. decrease the time necessary for all the U-235 to fission.
12. Scientists are trying to build a bomb using only 8 kg of U-235. Presently they can achieve
a ρ of 150 g/cm3 with t = 10-2 sec. Which of the following changes would be the most likely to
get the weapon to meet Michelson's Criterion?
A. Decrease both t and ρ.
B. Decrease t and leave ρ the same.
C. Increase t and decrease ρ.
D. Increase t and leave ρ the same.
25
(Test 11-1)
A scientist studying hemoglobin investigated the impact of temperature and

carbon dioxide (CO2) concentrations on the binding capacity of oxygen (O2).
The scientist observed the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin molecules as the
pressure of oxygen was increased. The temperature and CO2 were varied to
identify their direct impact on the binding capacity of O2.
Figure 1 displays the impact of changes in temperature on the binding

(percent of hemoglobin saturated) of oxygen. Figure 2 displays the impact of
varying carbon dioxide concentrations on oxygen binding. Under normal
conditions, the core body temperature is 37°C and has carbon dioxide and
oxygen concentrations of 40 mmHg and 100 mmHg respectively.
Figure 1
Figure 2
26
1. According to Figure 1, if the temperature is 42°C, which of the following

changes in pressure of oxygen will cause the least increase in the percent of
hemoglobin saturated with O2?
F. 0-15 mmHg
G. 15-30 mmHg
H. 30-45 mmHg
J. 45-60 mmHg
2. According to Figure 1, which of the following sets of temperature and

pressure of oxygen results in the lowest hemoglobin saturation with oxygen?
Temperature (°C)
A. 37
B. 37
C. 42
D. 42
3. According to Figure 1, if the pressure of oxygen is 100 mmHg and 65% of

hemoglobin molecules are saturated with oxygen then the core body
temperature is most likely within which of the following ranges?
F. Less than 30°C
G. 30°C-37°C
H. 37°C-42°C
J. Greater than 42°C
4. Based on Figure 2, if an individual has 70% of his hemoglobin molecules

saturated at a pressure of 75 mmHg of oxygen, then the individual's carbon
dioxide pressure is most likely closest to which of the following?
A. 30 mmHg
B. 50 mmHg
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C. 70 mmHg
D. 90 mmHg
5. According to Figure 2, at a CO2 pressure of 90 mmHg, as the pressure of

O2 is increased from 45 mmHg to 90 mmHg, the percent of hemoglobin
saturated with oxygen: F.
remains constant, then increases.
G. remains constant, then decreases.
H. increases, then decreases.
J. decreases, then increases.
(Test 12-2)
Rock candy was made by putting a mixture of 180°°F water and an amount of
sugar (S1) into an apparatus shown in Figure 1, inserting a string through the
top, and allowing the mixture to stand and cool. The internal container was a
jar made of glass, and the external container was made of plastic.
Figure 1
Figure 2 shows how the temperature of S1 and the temperature of the cold
water in the outer jar varied with time as the mixture was allowed to stand.
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Figure 2
According to the Second Law of Thermodynamics, as the temperature of S1
decreases, the orderliness of the atoms in the solution must increase. This is
why crystals form on the string, creating rock candy. Because of the Second
Law of Thermodynamics, temperature of the sugar and water mixture can be
monitored to measure orderliness of the atoms in the mixture. Two other
sugar and water mixtures (S2 and S3) were monitored under standing
conditions the same as those used for S1.
Figure 3
7. According to Figure 3, for S3, the heat lost from the beginning
temperature of 180°F after being allowed to stand for 30 minutes is closest to
which of the following?
F. 10 degrees Fahrenheit
G. 50 degrees Fahrenheit
H. 80 degrees Fahrenheit
J. 100 degrees Fahrenheit
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8. According to Figures 2 and 3, as the temperature of the water in the outer

jar increased, the heat loss from the beginning temperature of 180°F for S1:
A. decreased only.
B. increased only.
C. decreased, and then increased.
D. increased, and then decreased.
9. An additional sugar and water mixture (S4) was monitored under

conditions identical to those used to gather the data in Figure 3. The heat lost
after being allowed to stand 0 minutes was 15°F. How does the initial
orderliness of the atoms in S4 compare with the orderliness of the atoms in
mixtures S1, S2, and S3?
F. The orderliness of S4 was greater than the orderliness of S1, S2, and S3.
G. The orderliness of S4 was less than the orderliness of S1, S2, and S3.
H. The orderliness of S4 was greater than the orderliness of S2 and S3, but
less than the orderliness of S1.
J. The orderliness of S4 was greater than the orderliness of S1 and S3, but
less than the orderliness of S2.
10. Based on Figure 1, which of the following best explains the trends shown in Figure 2?
In sum, as the time the mixture was allowed to stand increased, the heat was
conducted by the: A. glass jar from the sugar and water mixture to the
water outside the jar. B. glass jar from the water outside the jar to the sugar
and water mixture.
C. plastic container from the string to the water outside the jar.
D. plastic container from the string to the sugar and water mixture.
11. Rock candy begins to form when the temperature of the sugar and water mixture has
lost 100°F from its beginning temperature. Based on Figure 3, which mixture, if any, would
begin to form rock candy first?
F. S1
G. S2
30
H. S3 J. All mixtures would begin to form rock candy at the same time.
(Test 14-1)
The pH at which a protein is uncharged is called its isoelectric point (pI). As the
surrounding pH decreases, proteins gain an increasing positive charge. As the
surrounding pH increases, proteins gain an increasingly negative charge. In gel
electrophoresis, a mixture of proteins can be separated based on their relative
charge. The proteins are first dissolved in a solvent and then placed at the
starting point of an agarose gel. A current is applied to the gel and the proteins
migrate different distances according to their charge (see Figure 1).
Figure 1
The following experiments were done to determine how varying the pH of a

solvent affects the separation of proteins with gel electrophoresis. Table 1
shows the isoelectric points of the proteins and the pH values of the solvents
used. The pH scale is logarithmic. Solutions with a pH less than 7.0 are acidic,
while those with a pH more than 7.0 are basic.
Table 1
Protein pI
A 8.2
B 7.4
C 6.8
D 5.9
Solvent pH
1 8.9
2 9.6
3 10.2
Experiment 1
A special paper 150 mm long is treated with an agarose gel. Electrodes were
attached on each end and wired to a 100-volt source. A 150 μg mixture of
proteins A-D was added to Solvent 1 to make a 200 μL solution. The solution
was placed at the starting point of the gel and allowed to separate for 60
31
minutes. The density of the separated proteins was plotted as a percentage over
their distance traveled. The procedure was repeated for Solvents 2 and 3 and
the results presented in Figure 2.
Figure 2
Experiment 2
The procedures of Experiment 1 were repeated after reversing the
electrode attachments on the voltage source. Results are shown in Figure 3.
32
Figure 3
1. In Experiment 2, when Solvent 2 was used, the majority of Protein D

migrated a distance from the starting point closest to:
F. 15 mm.
G. 35 mm.
H. 50 mm.
J. 65 mm.
2. Suppose that Experiment 1 were repeated using a solvent with a pH of

8.4. The migration distance of Protein A would most likely peak at: A. less
than 10 mm.
B. between 10 mm and 20 mm.
C. between 20 mm and 30 mm.
D. greater than 30 mm.
33
3. Protein L has an isoelectric point (pI) of 6.6. The results of Experiments 1

and 2 would be most similar to the plots shown in Figures 1 and 2 if, in each
trial, Protein L were added to the protein mixture after removing: F. Protein A.
G. Protein B.
H. Protein C.
J. Protein D.
4. The resolution of gel electrophoresis decreases as the overall distance

between the peaks on the density plot decreases. Based on the results of
Experiments 1 and 2, which of the following sets of conditions had the lowest
resolution for the separation? Experiment 1
A. Solvent 1
B. Solvent 3
C. Solvent 2
D. Solvent 3
5. Suppose that Experiment 1 will be repeated using Solvent 2, but Protein
Y (pI = 7.1) is added to the overall mixture. Which of the following best
predicts the order of migration distances of the 5 proteins, from shortest to
longest?
F. D, C, Y, B, A
G. D, Y, C, B, A
H. A, B, Y, C, D
J. A, Y, B, C, D
6. In Experiment 2, for Solvent 2, at the migration distance where Protein B

returned to its 0% migration detection, the percent of Protein A that migrated
using Solvent 3 was closest to:
A. 0%. B.25%. c.50%. D.75%.
(Test 15-2)
34
Ethanolamines are compounds that contain both alcohol (-OH or HO-) and
amine (-NH3, RNH2, -R2NH, or -R3N) subgroups. They remove weakly acidic
gases from the atmosphere of enclosed spaces such as on a submarine. An
example is the use of monoethanolamine (MEA) to remove CO2 from the
atmosphere as shown in Figure 1.
2 MEA(liquid) + CO2(gas) (MEA)COO-(aqueous) + (MEA)H +(aqueous) +
heat
Figure 1
If the temperature rises sufficiently, ethanolamines will release any absorbed
acidic gases back into the environment, creating a potential hazard.
Scientists studied the absorption properties of 2 ethanolamines (MEA and

DEA).
Experiment 1
At 0°C and 1 atmosphere (atm) pressure, 1 mole (6.02 × 10 23 molecules) of
MEA was spread at the base of a reaction vessel containing CO2 gas at a
concentration of 1,000 parts per million (ppm). As the CO 2 was absorbed, its
ambient concentration decreased. The scrub time (time for CO2 concentration
to drop to at least 10 ppm) was measured. Longer scrub times indicate a slower
rate of absorption. The experimental procedure was repeated at varying
temperatures and for DEA, with results recorded in Table 1.
Experiment 2
The scrub times of MEA for different acidic gases were measured using the
procedures of Experiment 1 at 26°C (see Table 2). Each of the gases listed is
toxic and poses a significant safety hazard if its concentration becomes elevated
within an enclosed space.
35
6. In which of the following ways was the procedure of Experiment 2

different from that of Experiment 1? In Experiment 2:
F. temperature was varied; in Experiment 1, the temperature was held

constant.
G. temperature was held constant; in Experiment 1, the temperature was

varied.
H. only MEA was used; in Experiment 1, only DEA was used.
J. only DEA was used; in Experiment 1, only MEA was used.

7. In Experiment 1, during the DEA trial at 20°C, as the time progressed
from 0 to 8,190 msec, the concentration of CO2 in the vessel: A. increased
from 10 ppm to 1,000 ppm.
B. increased from 1,000 ppm to 10 ppm.
C. decreased from 10 ppm to 1,000 ppm.
D. decreased from 1,000 ppm to 10 ppm.
8. If, in Experiment 1, an additional trial were done at 12°C, the scrub times
(in msec) for MEA and DEA would most likely be closest to which of the
following?
F. 10,805
G. 10,985
H. 11,000
36
J. 11,025
9. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following is a
possible chemical formula for an ethanolamine?
A. HO--(CH2)2--NH3
B. HO--(CH2CF2)2--CH3
C. H3C--(CH2)4--NH3
D. H3N--(CH2CHCl)2--NH3
10. A scientist claims that under the same conditions, DEA will always absorb
CO2 at a faster rate than will MEA. Do the results of Experiment 1 support this
claim?
F. No; at all temperatures tested, the scrub time for DEA was more than that
for MEA.
G. No; at all temperatures tested, the scrub time for MEA was more than that
for DEA.
H. Yes; at all temperatures tested, the scrub time for DEA was more than that
for MEA.
J. Yes; at all temperatures tested, the scrub time for MEA was more than that
for DEA.
11. Based on the results of Experiment 2, which acidic gas had the slowest
absorption by MEA at 26°C?
A. HCl
B. HCN
C. H2S
D. D. SO2
(Test 17-2)
37
Pressure, temperature, volume, and amount of reactant are four variables that
affect the rate at which a reaction in the gas phase occurs. A change in any of
these variables changes the likelihood of particles running into each other and
reacting: Increasing any one increases reaction rate; decreasing any one
decreases reaction rate.
Pressure is measured in atmospheres, atm, where 1 atm is the sea level
pressure of earth's atmosphere. Volume is measured in liters, L. The amount of
reactant is measured in moles, where 1 mole is 6.02 × 1023 molecules.
Figure 1 shows how temperature and pressure affect the gaseous reactants
in an experiment. Figures 2 and 3 show how the rate of Reaction A is affected
by pressure and temperature, respectively.
Figure 1
Figure 2
38
Figure 3
7. A scientist claimed that increasing temperature increases the rate at
which Reaction A occurs and increasing pressure increases the rate at which
Reaction A occurs. Is the scientist's claim supported by the passage and
Figures 1-3?
A. Yes; the rate at which Reaction A occurred increased as temperature increased

and increased as pressure increased.
B. Yes; the rate at which Reaction A occurred increased as pressure decreased.
C. No; the rate at which Reaction A occurred increased as temperature increased,

but decreased as pressure increased.
D. No; the rate at which Reaction A occurred decreased as pressure increased.

8. According to Figures 2 and 3, the reactions occur at the same rate at
what pressure and temperature?
F. 20°C and 2.0 atm
G. 40°C and 1.5 atm
H. 50°C and 1.0 atm
J. 70°C and 1.5 atm
9. The amounts of reactants in Reaction A are 1 mole/L of Compound Y and 2 mole/L of

Compound Z. According to the passage, the number of molecules of
Compound Y is: A. one quarter of the number of molecules of
Compound Z in the reactants.
39
B. one half the number of molecules of Compound Z in the reactants.
C. equal to the number of molecules of Compound Z in the reactants.
D. twice the number of molecules of Compound Z in the reactants.

10. A scientist tests a new Reaction B. This reaction is conducted with the
same gas phase reactants, volume, pressure, and temperature as Reaction
A, but the amounts (moles) of reactants are doubled. Based only on the
information in the passage and Figures 1-3, how will the rate of Reaction B
compare with the rate of Reaction A?
F. Reaction B will be slower than Reaction A because temperature

will be lower.
G. Reaction B will be faster than Reaction A because temperature will

be lower.
H. Reaction B will be faster than Reaction A because the

concentration of reactants is greater, so the likelihood of reactant molecules
colliding and reacting is greater.
J. Reaction B will be slower than Reaction A because the concentration of

reactants is greater, so the likelihood of reactant molecules colliding and
reacting is greater.
11. A chemist wanted to measure Reaction A at the greatest possible

reaction rate. She had the ability to change either the temperature or the
pressure of the gaseous reactants. Based on the data in Figures 2 and 3,
which property did she most likely alter to increase the rate of Reaction A?
A. Pressure, which she decreased from 1 atm to 0.5 atm
B. Pressure, which she increased from 1 atm to 3 atm
C. Temperature, which she decreased from 50°C to 20°C
D. Temperature, which she increased from 50°C to 100°C
(Test19-2)
40
Osmotic pressure (Π) is the amount of pressure, in atm, required to maintain

equilibrium of a solvent across a semipermeable membrane. At a constant
temperature, osmotic pressure is dependent only on a solute’s ability to
dissociate or ionize in the solvent (van ’t Hoff factor, i) and the concentration of
solute particles. The osmotic pressure is determined by the equation:
M represents the concentration (in molarity, M), R is the ideal gas constant
(0.0821 L atm mol?1 K?1), and T (300 K) is the temperature in Kelvin (K). The
value of R is assumed to be a constant for all osmotic pressure calculations.
The dissociation of a solute depends on its unique chemical properties. The

van ’t Hoff factors for some common substances are displayed in Table 1.
Higher van ’t Hoff factors correlate with greater dissociation or ionization. The
effect of the van ’t Hoff factor on the osmotic pressure may be seen in Figure 1.
Table 1
Substance van ’t Hoff factor *
sucrose 1.0
NaCl 1.9
MgCl2 2.7
FeCl3 3.4
*Values at 300 K
41
Figure 1
7. According to Figure 1, which of the following solutions would exhibit the
least osmotic pressure?
A. 1.0 M FeCl3 solution
B. 1.0 M MgCl2 solution
C. 2.0 M NaCl solution
D. 2.0 M sucrose solution
8. If 1.0 M solutions of various solutes were prepared, which of the following

solutions would have the highest level of ionization?
F. Sucrose
G. NaCl
H. MgCl2
42
J. FeCl3
9. Which of the following solutions would exhibit the closest osmotic

pressure to that of a 1.5 M NaCl solution at 300 K, if the gas constant is
0.0821 L atm/ mol-1 K-1?
A. 1.0 M NaCl solution (i = 1.9)
B. 2.0 M NaCl solution (i = 1.9)
C. 2.9 M Sucrose solution (i = 1.0)
D. 3.5 M Sucrose solution (i = 1.0)
10. Based on Figure 1, as the concentration of solute decreases, the

pressure required to hold solvent concentration across a membrane at
equilibrium will: F. increase only.
G. decrease only.
H. remain constant.
J. increase, then remain constant.
11. A scientist recently discovered a compound that ionizes readily in solution

(i = 3.8) and results in low osmotic pressures. Are the findings of this
scientist consistent with Figure 1? A. Yes, because FeCl3 causes
higher osmotic pressure than sucrose.
B. No, because sucrose causes higher osmotic pressure than FeCl3.
C. Yes, because FeCl3 causes lower osmotic pressure than sucrose. D.

No, because sucrose causes lower osmotic pressure than FeCl3.
43
(Test 21-1)
Methane (CH4) is an important energy source and a powerful greenhouse gas. CH4 levels in
the atmosphere are increasing, largely as a result of increasing livestock populations and
energy emissions. Two scientists debate possible consequences of rising levels of
atmospheric methane.
Scientist 1
Increasing CH4 levels are a serious concern because, in the atmosphere, CH4 can be
converted into formaldehyde (H2CO). H2CO is a dangerous chemical, banned in some
countries and used as an embalming fluid in others.
When ozone (O3) is struck by solar radiation (light) in the presence of water, hydroxyl
radicals (·OH) are created (Reaction 1):
light + O3 + H2O → 2·OH + O2
When OH comes into contact with CH4, another radical, ·CH3, is formed (Reaction 2):
OH + CH4 → ·CH3 + H2O
In the presence of oxygen (O2) and nitric oxide (NO), the highly reactive ·CH3 is converted
into H2CO (Reaction 3):
·CH3 + NO + 2O2 → H2CO + NO2 + HO2
The product HO2 is unstable and reacts with NO, yielding more ·OH (Reaction 4):
HO2 + NO → NO2 + ·OH
Together, Reactions 2?4 are called a chain reaction because the OH formed in Reaction 4
can react with another CH4 molecule in Reaction 2:
·OH + CH4 → ·CH3 + H2O
·CH3 + NO + 2O2 → H2CO + NO2 + HO2
HO2 + NO → NO2 + ·OH
As a result, one ·OH can convert a great deal of CH4. At current CH4 levels, this chain
reaction is the primary fate of atmospheric ·OH, making the formation of H2CO an urgent
concern.
Scientist 2
H2CO is a dangerous chemical, but atmospheric formaldehyde levels will not increase
dramatically due to methane emissions. Carbon monoxide (CO) generation may be the
greater concern. Hydroxyl radicals can break down methane, leading to the formation of
H2CO and nitric oxide, as in Reactions 1?4; in the presence of light, however, H 2CO quickly
decomposes to CO and hydrogen, H2 (Reaction 5):
H2CO → H2 + CO
Furthermore, the OH generated by Reactions 1 and 4 will react rapidly with any H 2CO in the
atmosphere to produce CO and water: (Reaction 6)
H2CO + 2·OH → CO + 2H2O
44
In addition to reducing the amount of H2CO by breaking down the H2CO molecule, this
reaction removes OH from the atmosphere, inhibiting the chain reaction of Reactions 2?4.
1. Which of the following substances do the two scientists agree must be present in order for
·CH3 to be generated by atmospheric methane?
A. H3O+
B. NO2
C. HNO3
D. O3
2. Which of the following graphs reflects Scientist 1's hypothesis of how levels of H 2CO in the
atmosphere will change as more CH4 is released into the atmosphere?
F.
G.
45
H.
J.
3. A student suggested that the molecular mass of either product in Reaction 5 would be
greater than the molecular mass of the reactant in Reaction 5. Is he correct?
A. No; H2CO is composed not of molecules, but of atoms.
B. Yes; the mass of a molecule of H2CO is greater than the mass of either reactant.
C. No; the mass of a molecule of H2CO is greater than the mass of either product.
D. Yes; the mass of a molecule of CO is greater than the mass of a molecule of H 2.
4. In certain parts of the atmosphere, the amount of O3 is decreasing. As O3 levels decrease,

which of the following would Scientist 1 most strongly agree with regarding the levels of
·CH3 and H2CO in the atmosphere?
F. The amount of ·CH3 would increase and the amount of H2CO would decrease.
G. The amount of ·CH3 would decrease and the level of H2CO would remain constant.
H. The amounts of ·CH3 and H2CO would both decrease.
J. The amounts of ·CH3 and H2CO would both increase.
5. Of the following statements, with which would Scientist 2 most strongly disagree?
A. O3 is involved in the generation of H2CO in the atmosphere.
B. ·OH is contributing to the formation of carbon monoxide in the atmosphere.
C. Solar radiation contributes to the break down of CH4.
D. As CH4 emissions increase, levels of H2CO will rise dramatically.
46
6. After examining Scientist 1's hypothesis, Scientist 2 claimed that Reaction 3 would lead to
increased levels of carbon monoxide. By which of the following explanations would Scientist
2 most likely support this argument?
F. Reaction 3 reduces the amount of NO present, inhibiting Reaction 4.
G. Reaction 3 produces H2CO, which can react in Reaction 5 and Reaction 6.
H. Reaction 3 produces HO2, which can react with H2CO to produce CO.
J. Reaction 3 reduces the amount of O2 present, making it more difficult for CO to form.
7. Further investigation has shown that Reaction 6 occurs on a large scale. Which of the
following statements explains how the new evidence most weakens the argument of Scientist
1?
A. The OH produced in Reaction 4 reacts with CH4.
B. The OH produced in Reaction 4 reacts with H2CO.
C. The H2O produced in Reaction 6 reacts with light and O3.
D. The OH produced in Reaction 6 reacts with H2CO.
(Test 21-2)
A Carnot heat engine is an engine which runs by compressing and expanding a gas and
transferring heat.
Figures 1 and 2 show the changes in pressure, P, and volume, V, that occur as two Carnot
heat engines, A and B,?run. For every gas, PV = ΩT, where Ω is a constant and T represents
the time.
The cycle begins as the gas is at its highest temperature and pressure. First, the gas
expands, so volume increases while pressure decreases. As the gas expands, it can do work,
such as pushing a piston. After the gas has run out of thermal energy and can no longer do
work it is at its lowest temperature and pressure and the gas begins to be compressed, for
instance a piston falling back down on the gas. As the gas is compressed, pressure increases
while volume decreases and temperature begins to rise. In every Carnot heat engine, the gas
ends at the same pressure, temperature, and volume as it began, thus completing a cycle.
47
Figure 1
Figure 2
8. According to Figure 2, for Carnot heat engine B, when V was decreasing from its largest
value and had a value of 1.5 mL, P had a value closest to:
F. 10 Pa.
G. 30 Pa.
H. 50 Pa.
J. 70 Pa.
48
9. For a new Carnot heat engine, F, a partial graph of V versus P is obtained.
If Carnot heat engine F behaves like Carnot heat engines A and B, the remainder of the
graph of V versus P for Carnot heat engine F will look most like which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49
10. For Carnot heat engine A, the minimum value of P was obtained at a V closest to:
F. 0.5 mL.
G. 2.0 mL.
H. 3.5 mL.
J. 5.0 mL.
11. Consider the largest value of V and the smallest value of V on the graph in Figure 2. How
are these values related?
A. The smallest value of V is -1 times the largest value of V.
B. The smallest value of V is 1/3 times the largest value of V.
C. The smallest value of V is 1 times the largest value of V.
D. The smallest value of V is 2 times the largest value of V.
12. The reversible isothermal expansion step of a Carnot heat engine cycle takes place
when P is decreased from its highest value and V is increased from its lowest value.
According to Figure 1, the reversible isothermal expansion step for Carnot heat engine A
begins when V is closest to:
F. 1.0 mL.
G. 2.25 mL.
H. 3.0 mL.
J. 3.5 mL.
SUBMIT
(Test 22-3)
A heater was placed in a room with a measured initial temperature of 0°C. The heater was
set to heat the room to 25°C, and a mercury thermometer recorded the change of the air
temperature in the room over time. This process was then repeated with the heater set to
heat the room to 37°C and 50°C (see Figure 1).
Next, a cooling device was placed in a tank filled with 50°C saltwater. For three separate
tests, the cooler was set to cool the water to 25°C, 10°C, and 0°C, respectively, while a mercury
thermometer recorded the temperature of the saltwater over time (see Figure 2).
50
Figure 1
Figure 2
(Note: Assume that the temperature of the air was uniform throughout the room and that the
temperature of the saltwater was uniform throughout the tank in all tests. Assume that at all
times the heater and cooling device operated at full capacity.)
51
12. Based on the information presented in Figure 2, what was the most likely temperature of
the saltwater in the 0°C setting at 220 minutes?
F. 52°C
G. 29°C
H. 17°C
J. 7°C
13. In the time interval from 8 minutes to 10 minutes, approximately how fast, in °C/min, was
the temperature of the air changing when the heater was set to 37°C?
A. 0.5°C/min
B. 2°C/min
C. 27°C/min
D. 31°C/min
14. When the cooling device was set to 0°C, for which of the following time periods
represented in Figure 2 was the temperature of the water changing most rapidly?
F. 0-100 min
G. 100-200 min
H. 200-300 min
J. 300-400 min
15. According to Figure 2, when the cooling device was set to 25°C, at which of the following
times was the average kinetic energy of the thermometer's mercury atoms the greatest?
A. 150 min
B. 350 min
C. 550 min
D. 750 min
16. Based on Figure 2, if another test were performed with the cooling device set to -10°C,
approximately how long would it take for the saltwater to reach -10°C?
F. Greater than 400 min
G. Between 100 and 350 min
H. Between 10 and 50 min
J. Less than 10 min
52
(Test 22-5)
Chemical researchers studied the viscosity (a fluid’s resistance to flow) for several liquids.
Highly viscous fluids take more time to flow through a vessel than do low viscous fluids. They
measured the viscosity in centipoise (cP) (.01 grams per centimeter per second). Some
solutions were treated with chemical additives before the fluids were heated. The results are
shown in Figures 1-3.
Figure 1
Figure 2
53
Figure 3
23. For which of the 3 figures did at least one sample fluid have a viscosity greater than 1.0
cP at a temperature of 0°C?
A. Figure 1 only
B. Figure 3 only
C. Figures 1 and 2 only
D. Figures 1, 2, and 3
24. According to Figure 2, for the sample that contained nitrobenzene without Additive B, the
greatest decrease in fluid viscosity occurred over which of the following intervals of
temperature change?
F. From 0°C to 10°C
G. From 10°C to 20°C
H. From 30°C to 40°C
J. From 40°C to 50°C
25. According to Figure 1, after water was heated to reach a temperature of 70°C, the
viscosity was closest to which of the following?
A. 1.0 cP
B. 0.7 cP
C. 0.4 cP
D. 0.2 cP
26. Based on the information given, which of the following best describes and explains the
experimental results presented in Figure 2? As the temperature increased, the time required
for the sample fluids to flow out of their containers:
F. decreased, because heating the fluids increased each fluid's viscosity.
G. decreased, because heating the fluids decreased each fluid's viscosity.
54
H. increased, because heating the fluids increased each fluid's viscosity.

J. increased, because heating the fluids decreased each fluid's viscosity.
27. A researcher hypothesized that a solution of nitrobenzene treated with Additive A would
have a lower viscosity at 60°C than would untreated diethyl ether at that same temperature.
Do the results in the figures confirm this hypothesis?
A. Yes; according to Figure 2, at 60°C, nitrobenzene had a higher viscosity than did
nitrobenzene treated with Additive B.
B. Yes; according to Figure 3, at 60°C, diethyl ether had a higher viscosity than did
diethyl ether treated with Additive A.
C. No; according to Figure 2, at 60°C, nitrobenzene had a higher viscosity than did
nitrobenzene treated with Additive B.
D. No; according to Figures 1-3, samples of nitrobenzene treated with Additive A were
not tested for viscosity.
(Test 22-7)
A solution results from dissolving a solute into a solvent. The van ’t Hoff factor (i) is the
number of moles (1 mole = 6.02 × 1023 entities such as molecules, ions, or atoms) of
particles produced in solution for every 1 mole of solute dissolved.
The temperature at which a solution changes state from liquid to solid is the freezing point.
Two scientists observed that the freezing point of H2O decreased after adding KCl to it. To
explore this further, they conducted an experiment and each scientist provided separate
explanations of the results.
Experiment
One mole each of fructose, KCl, and MgCl2 were separately dissolved in 1 kg of pure water.
The concentration of each solution was thus 1.0 mole/kg. In addition, 1 kg of pure water only
was placed in a fourth container. The containers were placed in a cooling device. The
temperature was gradually decreased and the freezing point of each solution was recorded.
The results are shown in Table 1.
55
Scientist 1
For a solvent to freeze, its molecules must arrange in an orderly fashion relative to each
other. When a solute is added, the dissolved solute molecules are attracted to the solvent
molecules by the intermolecular force of charge. The attraction of the solute particles to the
solvent particles interferes with the orderly arrangement of solvent molecules, and the net
effect is that the freezing point is lowered. This decrease in freezing point is related only to
the charge of the solute particles and occurs with solutes that form charged particles in
solution.
Scientist 2
The freezing point of a solvent is the temperature at which the liquid and solid states of that
solvent have equivalent energetic potentials. Below the freezing point, the solvent has a
lower energetic potential in the solid state. When a solute is dissolved in a solvent, the
energetic potential of the liquid phase is decreased more than the energetic potential of the
solid phase. Because of the different energetic potentials, it takes a larger drop in
temperature for the liquid to freeze. Thus, the size of the decrease in freezing point is in
direct proportion with the van ’t Hoff factor. This decrease in freezing point is related only to
the concentration of particles, not to the identity or properties of each individual particle.
34. Based on the results in Table 1, how did the concentration of dissolved particles in
Solution 4 compare with the concentration of dissolved particles in Solution 2? Solution 4
contained:
F. fewer particles in solution than did Solution 2, resulting in a lower freezing point.
G. more particles in solution than did Solution 2, resulting in a lower freezing point.
H. fewer particles in solution than did Solution 2, resulting in a higher freezing point.
J. more particles in solution than did Solution 2, resulting in a higher freezing point.
35. The freezing point of benzene is lowered with the addition of the solute naphthalene
(C10H8), which has no charge. According to the information in the passage, this
observation disagrees with the explanation provided by:
A. Scientist 1, who argued that only charged particles can have an effect on the freezing
point of a solution.
B. Scientist 1, who argued that any solute is capable of increasing the stability of the
liquid phase of a solvent.
C. Scientist 2, who argued that only charged particles can have an effect on the freezing
point of a solution.
D. Scientist 2, who argued that any solute is capable of increasing the stability of the
liquid phase of a solvent.
56
36. With which of the following statements about solutes would both scientists agree? Adding
to a liquid a substance that has:
F. a positive or negative charge will decrease the liquid's freezing point.
G. a positive or negative charge will increase the liquid's freezing point.
H. no charge will decrease the liquid's freezing point.
J. no charge will increase the liquid's freezing point.
37. Suppose an experiment showed that adding the positively-charged solute NaClO4 to the
solvent H2O but holding the concentration of the solution constant, the freezing point was
significantly lower than an equally concentrated uncharged solution of NaClO 4 in pure H2O.
This finding would support the explanation(s) of which of the scientists, if either?
A. Scientist 1 only
B. Scientist 2 only
C. Both Scientists 1 and 2
D. Neither Scientist
38. Of the following diagrams, which best illustrates how Scientist 1 would describe the
results after a charged solute (?) has been added to H2O (×)?
F.
G.
H.
J.
57
39. Do the scientists offer different explanations for the impact of a solute's physical
properties, such as solute charge, on the decrease in freezing point of a solution?
A. Yes, Scientist 1 states that solute physical properties have an impact but Scientist 2
states they do not.
B. Yes, Scientist 2 states that solute physical properties have an impact but Scientist 1
states they do not.
C. No, both scientists state that solute physical properties have an impact on solution
freezing point.
D. No, neither Scientist discusses the impact of solute physical properties on solution
freezing point.
40. Assume the following for the addition of a substance to a pure liquid: k is a constant,
T is the decrease in freezing point, and i is the van 't Hoff factor. Which of the following
equations is most consistent with Scientist 2's explanation?
F. T = k/i
G. T = ki2
H. T = k/i2
J. T = ki
(Test 23-5)
Oceanographers conducted a series of experiments with water to explore the
relationship between temperature, salinity (% salt by mass), and density (mass per
unit volume).
Experiment 1
In a beaker, 35 g of NaCl and 965 g of distilled H2O were mixed, and the solution
was brought to a specific temperature. A graduated cylinder was then used to
measure 150 mL of the solution. The mass of this 150-mL sample was measured
with an electronic balance and the density (g/mL) was calculated. This procedure
was repeated for 5 different temperatures with the results recorded in Table 1.
58
Experiment 2
A graduated cylinder was placed on an electronic balance and a certain mass of
NaCl was added. Distilled water at 10°C was added to make a 150 mL solution,
and the total mass of this was noted. The density (g/mL) and salinity (%) of the
solution were calculated. This procedure was repeated for 5 different quantities of
NaCl with the results recorded in Table 2.
Experiment 3
Water samples from Experiments 1 and 2 were used individually to fill a test pool.
For each sample, multiple prototypes of a newly designed instrument were placed
in the pool. If a prototype stayed afloat, it was marked with a (+). If a protoype
sank, it was marked with a (–). These data were then collected and recorded in
Table 3.
59
22. In Experiment 1, if an additional sample were brought to 40°C and a density of

1.018 g/mL, what would its expected mass be in the graduated cylinder?
F. 150.9 g
G. 151.8 g
H. 152.7 g
J. 153.6 g
23. Based on Table 2, what is the most likely density of water at 10°C and 2.50%
salinity?
A. 1.019
B. 1.017
C. 1.013
D. 1.01
24. An engineer states that prototype U3 is better suited than X2 for water surface
data collection in a 10°C and 2.35% salinity environment. Do the results of the
experiments support this claim?
F. Yes, because prototype U3 will sink and X2 will float in these water
conditions.
60
G. Yes, because prototype U3 will float and X2 will sink in these water
conditions.
H. No, because prototype U3 will sink and X2 will float in these water
conditions.
J. No, because prototype U3 will float and X2 will sink in these water
conditions.
25. A new prototype is tested in water samples IV through VII in a manner similar
to Experiment 3. Which of the following results would NOT be possible?
? Water Sample
? IV V VI VII
A. - - - -
B. + + + +
C. + + - -
D. - - + +
26. In Experiment 1, samples were transferred to a graduated cylinder to obtain a

more accurate and precise measurement of the:
F. mass of the NaCl added to the H2O.
G. salinity after it reached the designated temperature.
H. volume used to calculate the density.
J. temperature used to determine the final salinity.
27. In a later analysis, the density of prototype U3 is manually determined. Which

of the following values would be consistent with the results of Experiments 1
through 3?
A. 1.021 g/mL
B. 1.023 g/mL
C. 1.026 g/mL
D. 1.028 g/mL
61
(Test 34)
As a liquid evaporates, the vapors on the surface of the liquid exert a vapor pressure. Vapor
pressure varies with the liquid's temperature.
When vapor pressure equals the surrounding atmospheric pressure, boiling occurs.
The normal boiling point of a liquid is defined as the temperature at which vapor pressure is
equal to the standard atmospheric pressure of 760 mmHg (1 atm). If atmospheric pressure
changes, a liquid's boiling point will also change.
Figure 4.3 illustrates the relationship between vapor pressure and temperature for four
organic compounds belonging to the alkane group. The normal boiling point is indicated by a
horizontal dashed line.
Figure 4.3
Source: http://wiki.chemprime.chemeddl.org.
Organic compounds are composed of various functional groups attached to a hydrocarbon
backbone. A functional group is a specific grouping of atoms that exhibits a characteristic set
of properties. These properties remain consistent, regardless of the overall size of the
compound.
Figure 4.4 compares the normal boiling points of organic compounds of increasing size for
eight different functional groups, including the alkane group.
62
63
64
Figure 4.4
Table 4.1 lists the types of chemical bonds each of the eight functional groups are capable of
forming. Stronger bonds are more difficult to break, thus requiring a higher temperature for
phase changes.
TABLE 4.1 Functional Group Bonds
Table 4.2 lists characteristics of four common organic compounds with similar molecular
weights. The temperatures listed represent the normal boiling point for each molecule.
TABLE 4.2 Molecular Weight
1. A compound's normal boiling point is the:

A. minimum temperature at which the compound boils.
B. average temperature at which the compound boils across all possible atmospheric
pressures.
C. maximum temperature at which the compound boils.
D. temperature at which the compound boils under standard atmospheric pressure.
2. According to Figure 4.3, an organic compound will boil at a lower temperature if:
A. vapor pressure increases.
B. atmospheric pressure decreases.
C. atmospheric and vapor pressures become unequal.
D. vapor pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.
65
3. At a vapor pressure of 50 mmHg, which alkane in Figure 4.3 would boil closest to 0°C?
A. Heptane
B. Hexane
C. Pentane
D. Octane
4. According to Figure 4.3, what vapor pressure will cause pentane's boiling point to be
closest to 40°C?
A. 760 mmHg
B. 600 mmHg
C. 400 mmHg
D. 850 mmHg
5. What is the best approximation for the normal boiling point of octane in Figure 4.3?
A. 126°C
B. 100°C
C. 145°C
D. 98°C
6. According to Figure 4.4, the alkanes exhibit normal boiling points most similar to which
other group?
A. Alkynes
B. Alcohols
C. Carboxylic acids
D. Amines
7. Based on the data in Figure 4.4, a 2-carbon alcohol would exhibit a normal boiling point
closest to that of a:
A. 3-carbon alkane.
B. 9-carbon alkene.
C. 4-carbon ketone.
D. 2-carbon carboxylic acid.
66
8. Based on the data in Figure 4.4, which type of bond listed in Table 4.1 is the weakest?
A. Dipole-dipole
B. Double hydrogen
C. Van der Waals
D. Single hydrogen
9. Caproic acid is a carboxylic acid with a molecular formula of C6H12O2. Which of the
following temperatures is closest to the normal boiling point of caproic acid?
A. 200°C
B. 250°C
C. 100°C
D. 125°C
10. Based on the data in Figure 4.4, which of the following lists the bonds in Table 4.1 from
the highest to the lowest boiling point required to break them?
A. Van der Waals, dipole-dipole, single hydrogen, double hydrogen
B. Double hydrogen, single hydrogen, dipole-dipole, Van der Waals
C. Single hydrogen, double hydrogen, dipole-dipole, Van der Waals
D. Dipole-dipole, Van der Waals, single hydrogen, double hydrogen
11. Which of the following generalizations about the relationship between an organic
compound's molecular weight and its boiling point is best supported by the data in Table 4.2?
A. The boiling point varies directly with molecular weight.
B. As molecular weight increases, the boiling point decreases.
C. As molecular weight decreases, the boiling point increases.
D. The boiling point is not determined by molecular weight.
12. Based on the data in Figure 4.4, n-Butanol (see Table 4.2) most likely contains which
functional group?
A. Alcohol
B. Ester
C. Amine
D. Alkyne
67
13. Which of the four compounds in Table 4.2 is most likely to contain double hydrogen
bonds?
A. Pentane
B. Butanone
C. Propanoic acid
D. n-Butanol
14. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the
type of bonds in an organic compound?
A. Double hydrogen bonds are easier to break at high temperatures than single hydrogen
bonds.
B. Dipole-dipole bonds require the highest boiling point to break of all four types of
bonds.
C. Van der Waals bonds become easier to break as a compound's vapor pressure is
increased.
D. At the same vapor pressure, single hydrogen bonds require a higher boiling point to
break than dipole-dipole bonds.
15. Which of the following generalizations is best supported by the data in Figures 4.3 and
4.4?
A. Organic compounds containing the same number of carbon atoms have similar boiling
points.
B. The boiling point increases with the number of carbon atoms among organic
compounds within the same group.
C. The number of carbon atoms in an organic compound cannot be used to predict the
compound's relative boiling point.
D. The greater the number of carbon atoms in an organic compound, the lower that
compound's boiling point is.
68
(Test 45)
The boiling point of a liquid is commonly defined as the temperature at which
the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure that
surrounds the liquid. When a liquid is brought to a temperature at or above its
boiling point, it quickly changes from the liquid phase to the gaseous phase.
This can easily be observed in vapor bubbles that form in the liquid and rise
to the top.
The boiling point of a substance depends on many different factors, such as
the composition of the substance, its molar mass, and the atmospheric
pressure surrounding it. The names, molar masses, and skeletal models of a
variety of alkanes and three alcohols were identified and recorded in Table
7.2. TABLE 7.2
Figure 7.4 shows the boiling points of these six substances versus their molar
mass. All temperatures are in degrees Celsius and have been recorded at a
standard atmospheric pressure of 1 atm.
69
Figure 7.4
1. What is the boiling point of heptane?
A. 37°C
B. 97°C
C. 117°C
D. 156°C
2. Based on Figure 7.4, what is the best summary of the relationship between
the molar mass and boiling point of an alkane?
A. The molar mass of a substance seems to have little effect on its

boiling point.
B. As the molar mass of a substance increases, its boiling point tends

to increase.
C. As the molar mass of a substance increases, its boiling point tends

to decrease.
D. The relationship between the molar mass and boiling point of a

substance is not clear from the data in the figure.
70
3. The organic substance propanol has a molar mass of about 60 g/mol.

Which temperature is most likely the boiling point of propanol?
A. 11°C
B. 52°C
C. 97°C
D. 117°C
4. In which physical state would pentanol be if the atmospheric pressure were
1.0 atm and the temperature were 150°C?
A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gaseous
D. Cannot be determined
5. Based on the skeletal models shown in Table 7.2, which statement best
describes the effect of a hydroxyl group (OH-) on the boiling point of a
substance?
A. When the molar mass of a substance is controlled, the addition of a

hydroxyl group tends to increase the substance's boiling point.
B. When the molar mass of a substance is controlled, the addition of a

hydroxyl group tends to decrease the substance's boiling point.
C. When the molar mass of a substance is controlled, the addition of a

hydroxyl group tends to have no effect on the substance's boiling point.
D. The figure does not show a relationship between the presence of a

hydroxyl group and the boiling point of a substance.
71
6. Based on the skeletal models shown in Table 7.2, which of the following
images shows the skeletal model for hexanol?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7. Organic chemists draw skeletal models to simplify the actual atoms and
connections that exist within a molecule. Each short line segment
represents the connection between two carbon atoms. In alkane molecules,
hydrogen atoms surround each carbon atom in such a way that there are
three hydrogen atoms on each end carbon and two hydrogen atoms on
each middle carbon. These molecules can also be represented by ball-and-
stick models or chemical formulas. An example for the molecule hexane is
shown in Figure 7.5.
Figure 7.5
The alkane molecule, decane, has the following skeletal structure.
What is the chemical formula for decane?
A. C10H20
B. C10H22
C. C10H24
D. C10H30
8. Decane has a molar mass of 142 g/mol. What could a person expect its
boiling point to be?
A. 212°C C. 185°C
B. 142° D. 156°C
72
(Test 50) Electrochem

There is some evidence that ancient civilizations knew placing various metals
together could create an electrical current. In the year 1800, Alexander Volta
published experiments outlining his discovery of the voltaic pile, a device
commonly referred to as the first electric battery. Volta stacked two different
metals on either side of a wet felt disk and found that certain combinations
produced an electrical voltage. By the early 1800s, many scientists were
expanding on the idea of the voltaic pile by making apparatuses now known
as voltaic cells. These cells generally contain two separate jars connected by
a salt bridge, or porous membrane. Each jar contains a certain metal and a
solution of the positive ions of the same metal. When different jars containing
different metals are connected, an electrical voltage can be produced. A
theoretical example of a copper/zinc voltaic cell is shown in Figure 9.1.
Figure 9.1
The last two centuries have seen a marked spike in demand for smaller
batteries that can produce higher voltages for longer periods of time. This led
a chemistry student to become interested in how using different metals in the
voltaic cell could increase the voltage output of that cell. To conduct the
experiment she chose four different types of metals that were available in
strips from her local hardware store. These metals were zinc (Zn), lead (Pb),
copper (Cu), and silver (Ag). She used 1-molar concentrated solutions of
each of the various metal ions. She then made a salt bridge out of filter paper
soaked in a potassium chloride brine solution. Many different combinations of
metals were attempted, and the voltage output was measured with a standard
voltmeter. The results of the experiment are recorded in Table 9.1.
73
TABLE 9.1
After the experiment was completed, the chemistry student looked at the
literature to make sense of her results. She found two definitions particularly
helpful. The anode was defined as the metal strip where oxidation occurs.
The metal atoms were losing electrons and dissolving into the solution as
metal ions. Electrons from the anode were free to move through the wire
toward the cathode. The cathode was defined as the metal strip where
reduction occurs. The cathode had an abundance of electrons from the
anode. Metal ions in the solution around the cathode accepted those
electrons and joined the strip as additional solid metal atoms. The student
also found tables of standard reduction potentials (Table
9.2). These tables compared how much voltage should be produced when
the metal is placed in an electrochemical cell with a standard electrode. One
table showed each metal as a cathode, and the other showed each as an
anode. The student learned that these tables were used to calculate the
theoretical voltage output of any electrochemical cell. (Any electrochemical
cell has to have both a cathode and an anode.)
TABLE 9.2
The theoretical output voltage of an electrochemical cell is the sum of the

standard potentials of the anode and the cathode.
74
1. Which of the following best describes the independent variables of this

investigation?
A. The types of metal used for the cathode and anode
B. The type of metal ion solution used in the anode jar
C. The
amount of output voltage produced by various electrochemical cell
configurations
D. The concentration of metal ion solution used in each electrochemical cell.
2. Which variable should not be controlled for this experiment?

A. The surface area of the metal strip used for the anode
B. The type of metal strip used for the anode
C. The amount of time the electrochemical cell is allowed to operate
D. The concentration of potassium chloride used to make the salt bridge
3. A lead/silver electrochemical cell is expected to have an output voltage of

0.93 V. However, Experiment 6 from Table 9.1 shows a measured output
voltage of 0.73 V. Which of the following might account for the difference?
Silver should have been the cathode, and lead should have been the
A.
anode, but the experimenter switched them.
Experiment 6 was the third time the silver ion solution had been used,
B.
and the concentration of silver ions had been diminished.
C. The experimenter mistakenly switched a lead strip with a zinc strip for the
anode.
D. The
experimenter used a 1.5-inch-wide strip of lead as the anode instead
of the standard 1-inch strip.
4. Experiment 1 from Table 9.1 shows a zinc/lead cell with a measured output voltage of
0.63 V. Which of the following best describes the cell?
A. Zinc is the cathode and lead is the anode.
B. Zinc is the cathode and zinc ions are the anode.

75
C. Zinc is the anode and lead is the cathode.
D. Zinc is the anode and zinc ions are the cathode.
5. Figure 9.1 shows the electrochemical cell the student used for
Experiment 2 where zinc was the anode and copper was the cathode. What
can be inferred about the mass of the zinc and copper strips as the
experiment progressed?
A. The mass of both strips increased.
B. The mass of both strips decreased.
C. The mass of the zinc strip increased, but the mass of the copper strip
decreased.
D. The mass of the zinc strip decreased, but the mass of the copper strip
increased.
6. Experiment 8 was conducted with an aluminum strip in Jar 1 and a copper strip in Jar
2. Which metal would be the anode?
A. Aluminum would be the anode.
B. Copper would be the anode.
C. Aluminum would be the anode until the metal dissolved to a certain

point, and then copper would become the anode.
D. There is not enough information to determine which would be the

anode.
7. Experiment 8 was conducted with an aluminum strip in Jar 1 and a copper strip in Jar
2. What would be the expected output voltage of the electrochemical cell?
A. 1.10 V
B. 1.66 V
C. 1.32 V
D. 2.00 V
76
8. Further experimentation finds that when electrochemical cells are hooked

together in a series configuration, their output voltage is added together for
total output voltage. How many copper/zinc electrochemical cells are required
to light a diode that needs a minimum of 12.0 V to operate?
A. 2 cells
B. 10 cells
C. 11 cells
D. 12 cell
(Test 52)
Since ancient times, scientists, philosophers, and other thinkers considered
the smallest pieces of matter to be tiny spherical structures called atoms that
were stacked in various arrangements. The ancient Greek philosopher
Democritus also suggested that these atoms were indivisible and
indestructible. The turn of the twentieth century brought with it a renewed
interest in exploring atoms. Two ground-breaking experiments challenged the
idea that atoms are the smallest constituent of matter. These experiments
were very different, but both pointed to the fact that atoms contained even
smaller parts.
Experiment 1: The 1897 Cathode Ray Tube Experiments
Scientists in the late 1890s investigated a curious new device known as a
cathode ray tube (CRT). The CRT consisted of a glass tube with a metal wire
coming out of each end. When all of the air was removed from the tube and a
voltage was applied across the wires, mysterious green rays appeared at one
end of the tube. These rays were called cathode rays. It was not immediately
known if these rays were a type of wave or a type of particle, but several
experiments were conducted on them. First it was discovered that the rays
would always be attracted to an area of excess positive charge and away
from an area of excess negative charge. Precise measurements could not
determine the exact mass of the cathode rays, but it was determined that they
did have mass. After that discovery, the rays were considered a particle
instead of a wave.
The mass-to-charge ratio of the cathode rays was determined to be more
than 1,000 times smaller than the same ratio for any known atom or ion. After
subsequent experiments, researchers determined that cathode rays were
small particles that broke off of an atom when a voltage was applied.
Experiment 2: The 1911 Gold Foil Experiment
At the time, the accepted model of the atom was a relatively solid sphere,
similar to a ball of chocolate chip cookie dough. An experiment in 1911
77
brought that model into question. A beam of alpha particles (small, high-
energy, positively charged particles) was shot into a piece of gold foil
approximately 8.6 × 10-8 m in thickness. The alpha particles were thought to
have enough energy to pass straight through the foil and hit a detector on the
other side, and most of the particles did just that. However, a small fraction of
alpha particles were deflected a few degrees as they passed through the foil.
Upon closer examination of the data, a more startling fact was found-some
alpha particles never hit the detector.
More detectors were added around the gold foil, and it was discovered that a
tiny portion of the alpha particles, 1 out of every 20,000 particles, was
deflected 90 degrees or more from the beam. Some particles even bounced
straight back toward the alpha particle source. The scientist was so surprised
by the results that he stated, "It was as if you fired a 15-inch shell at a sheet
of tissue paper and it came back to you." It was concluded that there must be
some particle inside an atom causing these major deflections of alpha
particles.
1. Which of the following best describes what each experiment concluded
about the newly discovered small particles that make up atoms?
Experiment 1, Experiment 2
A. Dense and sturdy, Positively charged
B. Negatively charged, Dense
C. Positively charged, Negatively charged
D. Small, Low energy
2. Which of the following is the best conclusion concerning why the cathode
rays in
Experiment 1 had a mass-to-charge ratio 1,000 times smaller than that of any
known atom? A. Cathode ray particles are 1,000 times less massive
than any known atom.
Cathode ray particles have 1,000 times less charge than any known
B.
atom.
C. Cathode ray particles have 1,000 times more charge than any known
atom.
D. Cathode
ray particles could either be less massive or have a greater
charge than any known atom.
78
3. Modern chemistry books discuss several subatomic particles. Figure 9.4

offers a common diagram of such particles. The symbol (-) means negative,
(+) means positive, and (ø) means neutral. Which particle would have an
undefined mass-to-charge ratio?
Figure 9.4
A. Electron
B. Proton
C. Neutron
D. Nucleus
4. Which of the following statements do the data from both experiments

support? A. Atoms are highly charged particles.
B. Atoms are composed of a dense core known as a nucleus.
C. Atoms are not indestructible and indivisible.
D. The mass-to-charge ratio of atoms is much smaller than was originally

thought.
5. Atoms, once thought to be solid spheres, have instead been proven to be

mostly empty space with just a few tiny particles giving each atom its
properties. Which data from either Experiment 1 or Experiment 2 best
explains this fact?
A. Experiment 1: Cathode rays are attracted to areas of positive electric

charge.
B. Experiment 1: Cathode rays have a small mass-to-charge ratio.
C. Experiment 2: Some alpha particles were deflected from the beam at wide
angles.
79
D. Experiment 2: One out of every 20,000 particles got deflected to a large

extent.
6. A micrometer (μm) is a common unit to measure small objects. One

micrometer is equivalent to 0.000001 m. How thick was the gold foil in
Experiment 2?
A. 8,600 μm
B. 86 μm
C. 0.86 μm
D. 0.086 μm
7. Which scientists would be most likely to write the following in their lab
notebook: "I can see no escape from the conclusion that they are charges
of negative electricity carried by particles of matter"?
A. Scientists working on Experiment 1
B. Scientists working on Experiment 2
C. Scientists working on either experiment
D. Scientists working on both experiments
8. Which headline best matches the conclusions of the experiment?
A. Gold Foil: Alpha Particles Are Found Inside Atoms
B. Cathode Rays Destroy Atoms
C. Gold Foil: Solid Particle in Atom Incredibly Small
D. Cathode Rays: Most Go Through But a Few Bounce Off
80
(Test 55)
A chemistry student was given the task of determining what percentage of

hydrated magnesium sulfate sample was water. Many chemical compounds
exist in nature as hydrates instead of in a dry (or anhydrous) state. A sample
of hydrated magnesium sulfate
(MgSO4 · nH2O) is a solid white powder that contains a certain number (n) of
water molecules bonded to each magnesium sulfate crystal. One accepted
method of isolating magnesium sulfate from the water molecules is by heating
the sample in an open porcelain crucible. Magnesium sulfate has a very high
boiling temperature, but water molecules can easily be turned into gas. When
sufficiently heated, the water molecules are driven away from the container,
leaving only anhydrous magnesium sulfate (MgSO4).
The student cautiously heated the sample over a Bunsen burner. He then
removed the crucible, allowed it to cool, and measured the mass. He returned
the crucible to the burner and heated it again, allowed it to cool, and
measured the mass again. The student repeated this procedure until he was
certain all of the water had been removed. His data are found in Table 10.2.
TABLE 10.2
TABLE 10.3
81
1. What mass of hydrated magnesium sulfate sample did the student place
in the crucible at the start of the experiment?
A. 32.569 g of MgSO4 ? nH2O
B. 6.120 g of MgSO4 ? nH2O
C. 29.440 g of MgSO4 ? nH2O
D. 3.129 g of MgSO4 ? nH2O
2. How was the student certain that all of the water had been removed from
the sample after the fourth heating?
A. He had heated the sample for a sufficient amount of time.
The mass of the sample and empty crucible remained at less than 30.00
B.
g for two consecutive heatings.
C. The
mass did not change appreciably between the third and fourth
heatings.
D. The
sample would have started to gain mass if more heating had
occurred.
3. Which equation is the appropriate way to determine the percent mass of

water in a sample of hydrated magnesium sulfate? A.
B.
C.
D.
82
4. From the data in Table 10.2, which is closest to the percent mass of the
sample that is made up of water?
A. 10% water molecules
B. 25% water molecules
C. 50% water molecules
D. 90% water molecules
5. How would the calculated percent mass of water in the sample be

affected if some of the sample splattered out of the crucible while it was being
heated?
A. The calculated percent mass of water would be too high.
B. The calculated percent mass of water would be too low.
C. The calculated percent mass of water would be too high or too low,
depending on outside conditions.
D. The calculated percent mass of water would remain unchanged.
6. The student left the crucible and the sample on the balance after the
fourth heating. Forty minutes later, he came back and noticed the mass of the
sample had changed again, as shown in Table 10.3. What is the best
conclusion the student can reach about the additional change in mass?
A. More water molecules were able to evaporate during the additional

40 minutes.
B. During the additional 40 minutes, the contents cooled to room

temperature, which caused the mass to increase.
C. Water molecules were able to reattach to the MgSO4 crystals

during the additional 40 minutes.
D. The magnesium sulfate crystals had time to expand during the

additional 40 minutes.
83
7. The student repeated the procedure but placed a lid on the crucible
during the entire experiment. Which statement best describes the
expected results?
A. More water would be driven off because the crucible would get to a
higher temperature.
B. Drops of water would be found on the lid, but the mass of the
sample would not change.
C. Less water would be driven off because the heat could not get to
the sample.
D. The mass change of this experiment would be identical to the

change in mass recorded in the initial experiment.
8. The student did a follow-up experiment by completely dissolving 50 g of

anhydrous MgSO4 in 100 mL of distilled water in Beaker 1 and 50 g of
MgSO4? 7H2O hydrate in 100 mL of distilled water in Beaker 2. How would
the concentration of magnesium (Mg) in each beaker compare?
A. Both beakers would have identical concentrations of magnesium.
B. Beaker 1 would have a higher concentration of magnesium.
C. Beaker 2 would have a slightly higher concentration of

magnesium.
D. Beaker 2 would have a concentration approximately 7 times higher

than that of magnesium.
84
(Test 57)
A sample of solid lauric acid was placed in a test tube and heated in a
Bunsen burner in a chemistry classroom. The lauric acid melted. A
thermometer was carefully placed in the test tube to measure the temperature
of the sample. The burner was then turned off, and the sample was allowed to
cool; the temperature was recorded in Figure 10.4. The warm liquid sample
crystallized into a solid while the temperature was being recorded.
Figure 10.4 TABLE 10.5
The melting point of a substance is the temperature at which that substance

changes from the solid to the liquid phase. The boiling point of a substance is the
temperature at which that substance changes from the liquid to the gaseous phase.
Table 10.5 shows the boiling and melting points of other common substances.
1. Based on Figure 10.4, the temperature of the lauric acid sample decreased
most rapidly during which time interval?
A. 0 to 6 minutes
B. 15 to 20 minutes
C. 20 to 25 minutes
D. 25 to 30 minutes
85
2. The thermometer was carefully placed in the test tube to measure the
temperature of the lauric acid. If the thermometer was allowed to rest on the
bottom of the test tube, what temperature may have been recorded at the
start of the experiment (0 minutes)?
A. 80°C
B. 50°C
C. 20°C
D. 0°C
3. During the experiment, particles of lauric acid could either decrease in

temperature or change from a liquid to a solid-they could not do both at the
same time. In which time interval(s) did the particles' temperature
decrease?
A. 0 to 6 minutes
B. 6 to 20 minutes
C. 20 to 30 minutes
D. Both 0 to 6 minutes and 20 to 30 minutes
4. What is the melting point of lauric acid?
A. 55°C
B. 43°C
C. 34°C
D. 0°C
5. What phase(s) of matter is present in the sample of lauric acid at 25°C?
A. Only solid
B. Only liquid
C. Only gaseous
86
D. Both solid and liquid
6. The sample of lauric acid was allowed to remain in the room, and the clock
continued to run. If the trend found in Figure 10.4 continued, what would the
stopwatch read when the sample reached room temperature of 25°C?
A. About 32 minutes
B. About 40 minutes
C. About 50 minutes
D. About 60 minutes
7. If twice the amount of lauric acid were heated in the test tube, at what
temperature would one expect the lauric acid to crystallize into a solid?
A. 43°C
B. 86°C
C. Somewhere between 43°C and 86°C
D. A little lower than 43°C
8. What would most likely have occurred if this experiment had been
conducted in an oven set at 50°C?
A. The sample would have taken much longer to turn to a solid.
B. The sample would have turned to a solid much more quickly.
C. The sample would never have turned into a solid.
D. The sample would not have decreased in temperature.
9. According to the data in Table 10.5, what phase(s) of matter is present in

the sample of isopropyl alcohol at 25°C?
A. Only solid
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B. Only liquid
C. Only gaseous
D. Both solid and liquid
10. The same experiment was conducted with a sample of water in a test
tube. It was heated to 55°C and then removed from the heat and allowed to
cool in the classroom. Which of the following graphs would most likely
represent the results? A.
(A)
B.
(A)
C.
(A)
D.
(A)
88
(Test 58)
In the early 1800s, chemists started experimenting with different chemicals.

They had the ability to measure the temperature, pressure, and mass of a
sample of gas. In 1911, a chemist named Amadeo Avogadro published an
observation that came to be known as Avogadro's law. This law states that
any two gasses that are held under the same pressure, temperature, and
volume will contain the same number of molecules (measured in moles)
regardless of the identity of the gasses. Table 11.1 shows data collected from
various gas samples at 1 atm and 0°C.
TABLE 11.1
1. According to Table 11.1, which sample of gas took up the most space?
A. Sample 1
B. Sample 4
C. Sample 6
D. Sample 7
2. Comparing Samples 1 and 3, one can state that:
A. Samples 1 and 3 are the same size and the same mass.
B. Sample 1 is larger, but Sample 3 is more massive.
C. Sample 3 is larger, but Sample 1 is more massive.
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D. Samples 1 and 3 are the same size, but Sample 3 is more massive.
3. Referring to Table 11.1, how does the number of gas molecules in Sample
4 compare to the number of gas molecules in Sample 5?
A. Sample 4 has more molecules.
B. Sample 5 has more molecules.
C. Samples 4 and 5 have the same number of molecules.
D. It is impossible to determine from the data given.
4. Howmuch mass would a 22.4-L sample of oxygen gas have when

measured at 1 atm and 0°C?
A. 4.0 g
B. 20.2 g
C. 32.0 g
D. 44.8 g
5. In the early 1800s, mass was measured with a double-pan balance. If a

11.2-L sample of neon is placed in one side of the balance, what volume of
hydrogen would have to be placed on the other side to have an equal
amount of mass?
A. 224.0 L
B. 112.0 L
C. 22.4 L
D. 11.2 L
6. Referring to Avogadro's law and Table 11.1, which of the following places
the samples of gas in order from the least number of molecules to the
most?
A. Sample 1, Sample 3, Sample 7
B. Sample 7, Sample 3, Sample 1
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C. Samples 3 and 1 have an equal number of molecules, but Sample 7 has

more.
D. All the samples have an equal number of molecules.
7. What can be said about the mass of one molecule of helium and one
molecule of oxygen gas?
A. One molecule of helium has the same mass as one molecule of hydrogen
gas.
B. One molecule of oxygen is 8 times more massive than one molecule of

helium.
C. One molecule of helium is 8 times more massive than one molecule of oxygen
gas.
D. One molecule of oxygen gas is 4 times more massive than one molecule of
helium.
8. Chemists counted molecules in the unit of moles. Avogadro stated that 1

mole (mol) of gas particles at 1 atm and 0°C takes up a volume of 22.4 L.
What is the mass of 1 mol of oxygen gas molecules?
A .32.0 g C. 8.0 g
b.16.0 g D. 4.0 g
(Test 61)
Two investigations were conducted on a sample of green nickel sulfate (NiSO 4) that was
dissolved in water. The first investigation placed a sample of the nickel sulfate into a
spectrometer. Most solutions absorb some wavelengths of light and allow other wavelengths
to pass right through. The spectrometer changed the wavelength of light shining into the
solution and recorded how much of the light was absorbed by the solution. An absorbance of
0.00 would indicate that all of the light shone into the solution passed through with no light
being absorbed. Figure 11.4 shows the result of absorbance versus wavelength for a sample
of NiSO4(aq).
91
Figure 11.4
The next experiment used five different solutions of NiSO4(aq) at different known
concentrations (measured in molarity). Each solution was placed in a spectrometer set at 740
nm, and light was shone into each sample to determine the absorbance of each of the five
solutions. Table 11.3 shows the results.
TABLE 11.3
1. Which wavelength of light was absorbed to the greatest degree in the first investigation?
A. 380 nm
B. 500 nm
C. 740 nm
D. 830 nm
2. The wavelength of 490 nm is green light. Why is the absorbance of NiSO4 low at 490 nm?
A. The spectrometer is not accurate at the wavelength of 490 nm.
B. The NiSO4(aq) is green in color, so green light from the spectrometer passes through
the solution.
C. The NiSO4(aq) is green in color, so the green light from the spectrometer is absorbed to
a large extent.
D. The green light gets reflected back to the spectrometer when it contacts the green
NiSO4(aq) solution.
3. What conclusions can be drawn from the data collected in Table 11.3?
A. As the wavelength of light aimed at the sample increases, the absorbance increases.
B. Light with a wavelength of 740 nm is not absorbed to a great extent by NiSO4(aq).
92
C. Concentration of solution is inversely proportional to absorbance of light.

D. As the concentration of NiSO4(aq) increases, the absorbance of light increases.
4. Which of the following statements accurately describes the trend found in Table 11.3?
A. Light with a wavelength of 740 nm increases absorbance by about 0.09.
B. Doubling the concentration of NiSO4(aq) causes an increase in absorbance of about
0.90.
C. An increase of 0.08 mol/L causes an increase in the absorbance of about 0.90.
D. The absorbance of NiSO4(aq) stops increasing at a concentration of 0.40 mol/L.
5. Which set of data would best represent the results if Investigation 2 were repeated with a
wavelength of 490 nm instead of 740 nm?
Concentration
A.
B.
C.
D.
6. The process of spectrometry works well on colored solutions such as green nickel sulfate
(NiSO4) and cupric sulfate (CuSO4). Why might spectrometry not work well on solutions such
as table salt dissolved in water (NaCl(aq))?
A. Table salt is clear, so it will absorb all wavelengths of light.
B. Table salt is clear, so all colors of light will pass through the solution.
C. The researcher cannot vary the concentration of table salt.
D. Spectrometry is not appropriate for food-grade substances.
7. Experiment 2 was repeated with a sixth sample of NiSO4 solution with a concentration of
0.48 mol/L. However, the test tube had fingerprints on the glass where the light passed
93
through. The fingerprints absorbed some light from the spectrometer. What would be an
expected value for the absorbance?
A. 0.451
B. 0.522
C. 0.542
D. 0.622
8. What would be the results of Investigation 1 if a more concentrated solution of

NiSO4(aq) were used to make the graph in the table?
A.
Figure 11.5
B.
Figure 11.6
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C.
Figure 11.7
D.
Figure 11.8
(Test 63)
In 1922, Niels Bohr revised the atomic model to include a positively charged nucleus
surrounded by negatively charged electrons that traveled in well-defined shells around the
nucleus. The shells can be thought of as concentric circles around the nucleus. A neutral
atom contains the same number of protons in the nucleus as electrons surrounding the
nucleus. The inside shell can hold two electrons, and the second shell can hold eight
electrons. An electrostatic attraction occurs between the positively charged protons in the
nucleus and the negatively charged electrons. A representation of Bohr's shell model is
shown in Figure 12.1.
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Figure 12.1
Partial evidence for this atomic shell model comes from the study of ionization energies of
different elements. Ionization energy is the amount of energy required to remove an electron
from an atom or ion in the gaseous state. The first ionization energy removes the electron
farthest from the nucleus and can be represented by the following formula:
where X represents a neutral atom.

The nth ionization energy removes additional electrons from an already charged ion. For
example, the third ionization energy can be represented by the following formula:
The ionization energies in kJ/mol of the first 10 elements can be found in Table 12.1.
TABLE 12.1
1. How much energy does it take to remove the outermost electron from beryllium (Be)?
A. 900 kJ/mol
B. 1,757 kJ/mol
C. 14,849 kJ/mol
D. 21,007 kJ/mol
96
2. Which of the following statements regarding the ionization energy of the third proton of the
elements listed is true?
A. There is a general and consistent increase as the elements get larger.
B. There is a general and consistent decrease as the elements get larger.
C. Increases are then followed by a decrease.
D. After an early dip, there is a general increase.
3. How much energy is required to remove an electron from nitrogen as shown in the
following equation?
A. 1,402 kJ/mol
B. 2,856 kJ/mol
C. 4,578 kJ/mol
D. 7,475 kJ/mol
4. The first ionization energy of Element 2, hydrogen, is much larger than the first ionization
energy for Element 3, lithium. Which statement best explains this trend?
A. Helium has only two electrons while lithium has three.
B. Helium is a very light element; therefore, it is very hard to remove its electrons.
C. Both of helium's electrons are the first shell, while one of lithium's electrons is found in
the second shell.
D. Helium has two protons providing the positive electrostatic attraction, while lithium has
three protons providing a larger attraction.
5. Which best explains why there is no seventh ionization energy listed for the element
carbon?
A. It is hard to measure the energy required to remove carbon's seventh electron.
B. Carbon does not have seven electrons surrounding its nucleus.
C. The seventh ionization energy of carbon is equal to the first ionization energy of
nitrogen, so it does not need to be listed.
D. The seventh, eighth, ninth, and tenth ionization energies of carbon are all equal to the
sixth, so they do not need to be listed.
97
6. Figure 12.2 shows an electron being removed from the element oxygen. How much
energy is associated with the image shown?
Figure 12.2
A. 1,314 kJ/mol
B. 3,388 kJ/mol
C. 71,330 kJ/mol
D. 84,078 kJ/mol
7. According to Table 12.1, how many electrons must the element nitrogen have in its
outermost shell?
A. Two
B. Five
C. Seven
D. Eight
8. Referring to Table 12.1, what evidence supports the fact that each element has only two
electrons in the first, innermost shell?
A. The first two ionization energies are always smaller than the rest.
B. The last two ionization energies are always significantly larger than the rest.
C. There is a significant jump between the second and third ionization energies for most
elements.
D. The first two ionization energies of helium and lithium are both relatively small.
9. Which set of ionization energy (IE) data represents an atom that has one electron in its
outermost electron shell?
First IE, Second IE, Third IE, Fourth IE
A. 300, 600, 1801, 2230
B. 700, 2892, 3019, 3299
98
C. 1121, 1398, 4456, 4876

D. 854, 1981, 2765, 3344
10. Helium and lithium are isoelectronic. This means their electron structure is identical. They
both have two electrons in the first shell outside of the nucleus. Why does it take less energy
to remove an electron from helium than it does to remove an electron from lithium?
A. Helium has two protons, but lithium has three.
B. Lithium has already had the outermost electron removed.
C. The first ionization energy of lithium is smaller than that of helium.
D. Lithium has a positive charge so removing electrons is more difficult.
11. How many kJ of energy would be required to remove all of the electrons from 1 mol of
helium atoms?
A. 2,372 kJ
B. 5,250 kJ
C. 7,622 kJ
D. 10,500 kJ
SUBMIT
(Test 66-2)
Scientists tested a new method of titration, called atomic absorption inhibition titration (AAIT).
They ran a series of experiments to determine if AAIT could be used successfully to
determine the presence of phosphate, silicate, and sulfate in river and waste water. AAIT
involves continually adding magnesium to a stirred sample solution while monitoring the
solution for magnesium absorption.
Experiment 1
The scientists conducted an experiment to determine the effect of sulfate on titration of
phosphate. Four trials were conducted, varying the concentration of both the sulfate and the
magnesium used for the titration. Table 1 displays the results of the AAIT for solutions
containing phosphate and sulfate and varying concentrations of magnesium.
Table 1
Experiment 2
Analysis of water from the Milwaukee River was performed. Solutions containing phosphate
and sulfate were analyzed using AAIT. Titrations were performed on river water, river water
99
plus the addition of phosphate, and standardized phosphate solution. The endpoint was
noted for each trial when the titration reached the conditions under which only silicate would
be detected. Table 2 shows the data collected, in ml.
Table 2
Experiment 3
Scientists created artificial waste water by adding phosphate, silicate, and sulfate to water
and then conducting AAIT to simultaneously determine how much of each substance was in
the water. Four titrations were conducted. Table 3 displays the results.
Table 3
7. According to the data in Table 2, which trial resulted in the most silicate being detected in
river water?
F. Trial 1
G. Trial 2
H. Trial 3
J. Trial 4
8. Based on the information presented in Table 3, which trial resulted in less PO4 being
found than was initially added?
A. Trial 1
B. Trial 2
C. Trial 3
D. Trial 4
100
9. Before conducting Experiment 1, the scientists hypothesized that the higher the
concentration of Mg used, the more Mg that would be absorbed. Do the results of the
experiment support the hypothesis?
F. Yes. For each trial as the concentration of Mg used increased from 2.5 to 4.5 ppm,
more Mg was absorbed.
G. Yes. Table 1 shows that the most Mg absorbed was during Trial 1 and with an Mg
concentration of 2.5 ppm.
H. No. The opposite has been shown to be the case. For each trial as the Mg
concentration increased, the amount of Mg absorbed decreased.
J. No. There is not a clear relationship between the Mg concentration and the amount of
Mg absorbed.
10. Based on the results of Experiment 2, what type of solution was found to reach the
endpoint with the least amount of solution?
A. Phosphate and sulfate
B. Standardized phosphate solution
C. River water
D. River water plus phosphate
11. The data in Table 1 supports which of the following statements?

F. The titrations done using Mg with a concentration of 4.0 ppm resulted in the most Mg
being absorbed.
G. The titrations done using Mg with a concentration of 2.5 ppm resulted in the least Mg
being absorbed.
H. With a Mg concentration of 4.5 ppm, as the titrations included more concentrated SO4,
less Mg was absorbed.
J. With a Mg concentration of 4.5 ppm, as the titrations included more concentrated SO4,
more Mg was absorbed.
101
(Test 69-2)
Crude oil is put into a boiler. The boiler is connected to a distillation column filled with
collection trays. As the heated oil boils, the vapors released enter the distillation column and
rise to the top. When a substance in the vapor reaches a height where the temperature of the
column is equal to that substance’s boiling point, it will condense to form a liquid. The liquid is
gathered on the collection trays.
Experiment 1
Students determined the boiling points of various components of crude oil by recording the
temperature of the vapor at various heights in the distillation column, then determining which
component was collected in each of the eight collection trays. See Table 1 and Table 2.
Table 1
Table 2
The students distilled one barrel of crude oil. Figure 2 shows the breakdown of that barrel, in
terms of which components were collected.
Figure 2
Experiment 2
102
Students determined the number of carbons in each component of crude oil and recorded the
data in Table 3.
Table 3
7. Based on the results of Experiment 1, the boiling temperature of Naphtha is:

F. 20°C
G. 40°C
H. 120°C
J. 200°C
8. According to the results of Experiment 1, one barrel of crude oil contains about how many
gallons of diesel?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 11
D. 29
9. One of the students hypothesized that the components of crude oil with the highest boiling
points would be collected at the top of the distillation column. Do the results of Experiment 1
support the student’s claim?
F. No. As the vapor rose in the distillation column, the temperature cooled, so the
components with the lowest boiling points were collected at the top of the column.
G. No. There was no correlation between boiling point and location in the distillation
column.
H. Yes. Gasoline and diesel had the highest boiling points, and they were collected in the
top two trays.
J. Yes. The lower the collection tray was in the distillation column, the lower the
component’s boiling point.
10. A scientist claimed that the more carbons a substance has, the higher its boiling point will
be. Do the results of Experiment 1 and Experiment 2 support this claim?
103
A. No. There is no relationship between the number of carbons and the boiling point.
B. No. Diesel has more carbons than gasoline, yet its boiling point is lower.
C. Yes. Residual oil has the most carbons and the lowest boiling point, whereas gas has
the fewest carbons and the highest boiling point.
D. Yes. Residual oil has the most carbons and the highest boiling point, whereas gas has
the fewest carbons and the lowest boiling point.
11. Which of the following components of crude oil has the highest boiling point?
F. Naphtha
G. Kerosene
H. Heavy gas oil
J. Diesel
12. The data in Table 1 and Figure 2 support which of the following?
A. Components with the highest boiling points are collected in greatest quantity.
B. Components with the lowest boiling points are collected in greatest quantity.
C. Components with medium boiling points are collected in greatest quantity.
D. Components with higher boiling points are collected in the same quantities as those
with medium boiling points.
(Test 70-1)
Solubility refers to the ability of one substance, the solute, to dissolve in another
(the solvent). The balance of molecules between the solvent and the solute determines the
solubility of one substance in another. Factors such as temperature and pressure will alter
this balance, thus changing the solubility.
Experiments to determine the solubility of methane and carbon dioxide in polyamide (PA-11)
were performed in the temperature range 50–90°C, and the pressure range 50–150 atm for
methane and 20–40 atm for carbon dioxide. Table 1 displays the solubility (sol) of methane in
PA-11. Table 2 shows the solubility (sol) of carbon dioxide in PA-11.
Solubility = (g gas/g PA-11) × 103
Table 1—Methane
Table 2—Carbon Dioxide
104
Figure 1 shows the pressurization cycle for methane at 100 atm and 50°C. The mass gain
divided by the net polyamide mass determines the solubility of the gas.
Figure 1
1. Which of the following substances did NOT become more soluble as pressure increased?
F. Methane at 70°C
G. Methane at 50°C
H. Carbon dioxide at 50°C
J. Carbon dioxide at 90°C
2. According to Table 2, at which temperature was carbon dioxide the most soluble under
pressure of 31.1 atm?
A. 50°C
B. 70°C
C. 90°C
D. 100°C
3. Figure 1 supports which of the following claims about polyamide mass gain over time?
F. The polyamide steadily gained mass.
G. The polyamide lost mass over time.
H. The polyamide gained mass at first, and then lost mass.
J. The polyamide quickly gained mass and then leveled off.
4. If the experiment was repeated at a temperature of 90°C and a pressure of 80 atm, the
solubility of methane would be closest to:
105
A. 2.61 atm.
B. 3.75 atm.
C. 5.08 atm.
D. 14.0 atm.
5. Based on the results shown in Table 2, which of the following conclusions can be drawn
regarding the relationship between pressure and solubility?
F. Solubility increases with pressure only above 70°C.
G. As pressure increases, solubility decreases.
H. As pressure increases, so does solubility.
J. There is no correlation between pressure and solubility.
6. In this experiment, which substance functioned as the solvent?

A. Methane
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Mass
D. Polyamide
(Test 72-2)
Acid deposition delivers acids and acidifying compounds to the Earth’s surface. Once on the
surface, they move through soil, vegetation, and surface waters and, in turn, set off a
cascade of adverse ecological effects. Acid deposition occurs in three forms: wet deposition,
which falls as rain, snow, sleet, and hail; dry deposition, which includes particles, gases, and
vapor; and cloud or fog deposition, which occurs at high altitudes and in coastal areas. Acid
deposition is comprised of sulfuric acid, nitric acid, and ammonium derived from sulfur
dioxide (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), and ammonia (NH3). Sulfuric and nitric acid lower the
pH of rain, snow, soil, lakes, and streams.
106
Study 1
A specially designed collection bucket was used to gather rain samples. The collector
opened automatically during wet weather, allowing the precipitation to fall into the collection
bucket, and then closed as soon as the precipitation stopped. The sample was then taken to
a laboratory, where it was weighed and its acidity was measured. Finally, the concentrations
of important inorganic chemicals found in the precipitation were analyzed. The results are
shown in Table 2.
Table 2
Study 2
Another study was done to compare the average pH of precipitation across various months.
The same procedure was used as in Study 1, and the results are shown in Table 3.
Table 3
107
6. It is known that precipitation with a higher concentration of chlorine (Cl) does more
damage to bodies of water than precipitation with a lower concentration of Cl. Based on this
information, which sample tested in Study 1 would cause the most harm to rivers?
F. Sample 1
G. Sample 2
H. Sample 3
J. Sample 4
7. Based on the results of Study 2, it can be concluded that the deposition is least acidic
during which season?
A. Spring
B. Summer
C. Fall
D. Winter
8. Based on the results of Study 1, which of the following can be concluded about the
relationship between sodium (Na) concentration and the acidity of deposition?
F. The lower the concentration of Na, the more basic the precipitation.
G. The higher the concentration of Na, the more basic the precipitation.
H. The higher the concentration of Na, the more acidic the precipitation.
J. There is no correlation between the concentration of Na and acidity of the precipitation.
108
9. During which of the following months should there be the least concern for the health of
frogs?
A. January
B. April
C. August
D. September
10. The precipitation collected in Study 1 is an example of which type of acid deposition?
F. Wet deposition
G. Dry deposition
H. Cloud deposition
J. Fog deposition
11. If the collection bucket used in Study 1 had been rinsed with sulfuric acid before
collecting sample number 2, the resulting pH measurement would have been:
A. impossible to determine.
B. exactly 5.28.
C. lower than 5.28.
D. higher than 5.28.
(Test 73-1)
Students crystallized an impure, solid compound. First, they added just enough hot solvent to
dissolve the compound. They then allowed the hot solution to cool, whereupon crystals
began to form. Finally, the solution was placed in an ice bath to complete the crystallization
process (see Figures 1 and 2). Figure 3 illustrates the progression of crystallization.
109
1 Solution added, undersaturated

2 Solution cools to saturation
3 Concentration decreases with crystal growth
4 Crystal growth during main cooling cycle
5 Supersaturated
Figure 3
Solubility (the amount of solute that will dissolve in a specific solvent) and crystallization are
directly related. Since crystallization cannot begin until the solution becomes saturated, the
faster a compound dissolves, the more quickly it can begin to form into crystals.
Study 1
Students tested the solubility of four different substances. The temperature was measured in
°C, and water was used as the solvent. The results of the study are displayed in Figure 4.
Figure 4
1. In a solution of 60°C water, which sample from Study 1 would begin the crystallization
process first?
F. Sample 1
G. Sample 2
110
H. Sample 3
J. Sample 4
2. A fifth sample was tested for solubility under the same conditions as in Study 1. The
solubility at 30°C was 20%. How did the solubility of Sample 5 compare with that of Samples
1–4?
A. It was lower than Samples 1–4.
B. It was higher than Samples 1–4.
C. It was lower than Samples 3 and 4 but higher than Samples 1 and 2.
D. It was lower than Samples 1–3 but higher than Sample 4.
3. According to Figure 4, the solubility of Sample 1 at a water temperature of 30°C was

closest to which of the following?
F. 20%
G. 60%
H. 80%
J. 95%
4. Based on the information in the passage and Figure 3, the solution was most likely placed
in an ice bath at which of the following points?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
5. Based on Figure 3, which of the following best explains the relationship between
temperature and crystallization?
F. As temperature decreases, crystallization increases.
G. As temperature increases, crystallization increases.
H. As temperature decreases, crystallization decreases.
J. Temperature and crystallization do not affect one another.
111
(Test 74-2)
A solution consists of a solute dissolved in a solvent. For example, in a saltwater solution, the
salt is the solute and the water is the solvent. Osmosis is the movement of solvent molecules
across a barrier in order to equalize solution concentrations. When a saltwater solution is
placed in a u-shaped tube with a selectively permeable barrier or semipermeable membrane,
the phenomenon of osmotic pressure can be observed. Osmotic pressure is the pressure
required to prevent the flow of a solvent across a barrier. In Figure 1, saltwater was poured in
the right half of the tube and pure water was poured in the left half of the tube. As water
passes from left to right in the figure below due to osmosis, the level of solution on the right
rises. Eventually, the weight of the solution due to gravity becomes sufficient to prevent the
further flow of water from right to left.
Figure 1
The following experiments were carried out to study how varying the molecular weight
percentage of solvents and the temperature of solutions affects osmotic pressure. Table 1
shows the molecular weight percentages of the different solvents studied and Table 2
displays the temperatures of the various solutions used.
Table 1
Table 2
112
Experiment 1
A 1000 ml u-shaped tube was fitted with a semipermeable membrane and 300 ml of solution
was added on the right half and 300 ml of water was added on the left half. Table 1 shows
the four solutions used in four separate trials of Experiment 1. The percent weight was
measured by computing the ratio of the weight of the solute (salt) to the weight of the solution
after dissolution. Every 5 seconds, the height of the solution on the right side of the tube was
measured and recorded. Figure 2 shows the results of Experiment 1 recorded at 20°C.
Figure 2
Experiment 2
Four more trials were performed but only the 10% solution was used. For each trial, the
temperature was varied as shown in Table 2 and the results were graphed in Figure 3. In
each trial, the height was measured 5 minutes after the water and solution were poured.
Figure 3
7. Based on Figure 2 and Table 2, which solution resulted in the greatest osmotic pressure
after 30 seconds?
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F. Solution 1
G. Solution 2
H. Solution 3
J. Solution 4
8. Based on the results of Experiment 2, what is the relationship between osmotic pressure
and temperature?
A. Osmotic pressure increases with an increase in temperature.
B. Temperature and osmotic pressure are unrelated.
C. Osmotic pressure decreases with an increase in temperature.
D. Five minutes was insufficient time to allow the effects of osmotic pressure to be
observed.
9. Based on Experiment 1, how does solution concentration affect osmotic pressure?

F. Osmotic pressure increases with concentration.
G. Osmotic pressure decreases with concentration.
H. There is no relationship between osmotic pressure and concentration.
J. The results were inconclusive because all solution heights were still fluctuating after 30
seconds.
10. Was Experiment 1 successful in determining the relative osmotic pressure of the four
solutions tested?
A. Yes. There is a clear difference in osmotic pressure between the four solutions with
Solution 1 having the greatest osmotic pressure.
B. Yes. There is a clear difference in osmotic pressure between the four solutions with
Solution 4 having the greatest osmotic pressure.
C. No. All osmotic pressures were too similar to make any determination.
D. No. All solution heights were still fluctuating after 30 seconds.
11. Reverse osmosis occurs when the solvent flows from a solution of higher concentration
to a solution of lower concentration. In Experiments 1 and 2, reverse osmosis can be
observed by pouring more solution in the right side of the tube. Assuming the pressure
required for reverse osmosis occurs at twice the osmotic pressure, approximately what
volume of the 30% solution in Experiment 1 would have to be added for reverse osmosis to
occur?
F. 0.7 atm
G. 1.2 atm
114
H. 2.8 atm
J. 3.2 atm
12. Data in Figure 2 is consistent with which of the following trials?

A. Trial 1 and Trial 3
B. Trial 1 only
C. Trial 2 only
D. Trial 2, Trial 3, and Trial 4
(Test 76-1)
The main source of the world’s energy for the last century has been fossil fuels. To use fossil
fuels, we must be able to locate and recover them at affordable costs, convert them to usable
forms, and use them without wasting them or harming the environment.
Experiment 1
Scientists set out to determine the energy potential of various fossil fuels. They burned 1 ton
of each of 5 different fuel varieties, and measured the energy produced. Table 1 shows the
energy content of various fossil fuels.
Table 1
Fuel Energy Content (Btu/Ton)
Coal 25,000,000
Crude oil 37,000,000
Gasoline 38,000,000
Natural gas 47,000,000
Peat 3,500,000
Experiment 2
Students completed an experiment to measure the heat energy obtained from natural gas,
using water, a Fahrenheit thermometer, and a Bunsen burner (see Figure 1). They filled a
beaker with enough water to
115
Figure 1
weigh 1 pound (approximately 450 mL). They recorded the temperature of the water, then lit
the Bunsen burner and stirred the water continuously. They took several measurements of
the water’s temperature, at 5-minute intervals. The results of the experiment are displayed in
Table 2.
Table 2
Time (m) Water Temperature (°F)
0 67°
5 92°
10 117°
15 142°
Each type of fossil fuel releases a different amount of energy. This energy is measured in a
variety of units. Table 3 provides a conversion chart for energy units.
Table 3
1 Btu = .252 kilocalorie
.000293 kilowatt-hour
1 kilocalorie = 3.97 Btus
.0012 kilowatt-hour
1 kilowatt-hour = 3,413 Btus
860 kilocalories
1 barrel of oil = 5,600,000 Btus
1,410,579 kilocalories
1,640.8 kilowatt-hours
116
1. According to the results of Experiment 1, which of the following ranks the different types of
fossil fuels in order of energy potential, from the most Btus/ton to the least?
F. Peat, coal, crude oil, gasoline, natural gas
G. Natural gas, gasoline, crude oil, coal, peat
H. Gasoline, crude oil, peat, coal, natural gas
J. Natural gas, crude oil, peat, gasoline, coal
2. If 1 Btu is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water 1°
Fahrenheit, then how many Btus of natural gas were used during the first 5 minutes of
Experiment 2?
A. 92
B. 67
C. 50
D. 25
3. The main purpose of Experiment 2 was to:

F. determine the amount of energy natural gas creates.
G. compare various fossil fuels to see which one produces the most energy.
H. see how long it would take to heat water to 100° F.
J. calculate how much water is necessary to burn 25 Btus of natural gas.
4. If Experiment 2 had been repeated using gasoline to heat the water instead of natural gas,
the temperature of the water after 10 minutes would most likely have been closest to which of
the following?
A. 40° F
B. 99° F
C. 117° F
D. 180° F
5. According to the data in Table 3, which unit of energy is equivalent to the most Btus?
F. 1 kilowatt-hour
G. 1 kilocalorie
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H. 1 barrel of oil
J. 10,000 Btus
6. Based on the results of Experiment 2, if temperature had continued to be measured for 5

more minutes, what would the temperature of the water have most likely been at the next
measurement?
A. 85° F
B. 142° F
C. 167° F
D. 200° F
(Test 77-1)
A science class studied the pH strength of acids and bases. The
terms strong and weak indicate the ability of acid and base solutions to conduct electricity.
Figure 1 displays the pH scale used to rank solutions as acidic or basic, and Table 1 provides
an overview of what pH levels are considered strong and weak solutions.
Figure 1
Table 1
Solution pH
Strong acid 0–3
Weak acid 4–6
Neutral 7
Weak base 8–10
Strong base 11–14
Experiment 1
Students conducted an experiment to determine the conductivity of acid and base solutions,
using a light bulb apparatus (see Figure 2). The light bulb circuit was incomplete. If the circuit
is completed by a solution containing a large number of ions, the light bulb will glow brightly,
118
indicating a strong ability to conduct electricity. If the circuit is completed by a solution

containing a large number of molecules and either no ions or few ions, the solution does not
conduct electricity or conducts it very weakly. Students tested the conductivity of several
solutions; the results are reported in Table 2.
Figure 2
Table 2
Solution Acid or Base Light Bulb
H2O Neutral No light
HCl Acid Bright
HC2H3O2 Acid Dim
H2SO4 Acid Bright
H2CO3 Acid Dim
NaOH Base Bright
KOH Base Bright
NH4OH Base Dim
Experiment 2
Students mixed 50 mL of each chemical with 1 liter of water and then tested the pH of the
solution. Table 3 displays the pH found for each chemical.
Table 3
Chemical pH
HCL 0.86
HC2H3O2 2.92
H2SO4 1.29
H2CO3 3.73
NaOH 13.1
KOH 11.2
NH4OH 9.2
1. Based on the information presented in Figure 1 and Table 1, a solution with which pH
would be the strongest base?
119
A. 12.5
B. 9.7
C. 7
D. 0.2
2. According to the results of Experiments 1 and 2, which of the following is true?

F. The weaker the acid or base, the brighter the light bulb glowed.
G. The lower the pH of the solution, the brighter the light bulb glowed.
H. The stronger the acid or base, the brighter the light bulb glowed.
J. The higher the pH of the solution, the brighter the light bulb glowed.
3. Based on the results of Experiment 2, KOH would be classified as:

A. a strong acid.
B. neutral.
C. a strong base.
D. a weak base.
4. According to the information presented in Figure 1 and Table 3, it can be concluded that
which of the following acids contains the most hydrogen?
F. H2CO3
G. H2SO4
H. HC2H3O2
J. HCL
5. Suppose the students decided to test the conductivity of an additional solution according to
the procedures outlined in Experiment 1. They tested a solution of NaOCl, and they found
that the solution caused the light bulb to glow brightly. The students would be correct in
classifying the NaOCl solution as which of the following?
A. A strong base
B. A weak base
C. A weak acid
D. Cannot be determined from the given information
6. Based on Table 3, which of the following figures best represents the pH values for the 3
bases tested?
120
F.
G.
H.
J.
(Test 78-1)
The melting point of a substance is the temperature at which the solid phase transitions to
the liquid phase. When a substance melts, the attractive forces holding the molecules
together are reduced sufficiently to allow the molecules to flow. The stronger the
intermolecular forces in solid form, the higher the melting point will be.
The boiling point of a substance is the temperature at which the vapor pressure in the liquid
phase equals the atmospheric temperature of its surroundings. When a substance boils, the
substance transitions from a liquid phase to a gaseous phase and the intermolecular forces
are completely severed. The stronger the attractive forces between the molecules in the
liquid phase, the higher the boiling point will be.
Table 1 and Figure 1 show details of some of the elements from the third row of the periodic
table.
Table 1
121
Figure 1
1. The melting point of silicon is closest to which temperature?
A. 700 K
B. 1200 K
C. 1700 K
D. 2200 K
2. Based on Table 1 and Figure 1, what can be concluded about the relationship between the
number of protons in the nucleus and the attractive forces between molecules?
F. As the number of protons increase, the intermolecular forces increase.
G. As the number of protons increase, the intermolecular forces decrease.
H. As the number of protons increase, the intermolecular forces are unchanged.
J. There is no relationship between the number of protons and the intermolecular forces.
122
3. Based on Figure 1, what is the relationship between melting point (MP) and boiling point
(BP)?
A. There is a direct relationship between melting point and boiling point and the constant
of variation is roughly 2. The equation would be MP ≈ 2 ·(BP).
B. There is a direct relationship between melting point and boiling point and the constant
of variation is roughly . The equation would be MP ≈ · (BP).

C. There is an inverse relationship between melting point and boiling point and the
constant of variation is roughly 1.5 · 106. The equation would be (BP)≈ 1.5 · 106.
D. There is a direct relationship between melting point and boiling point but no constant
of variation exists. When melting point increases, boiling point also increases but every
element has a different numerical relationship.
4. Which element transitions from a liquid phase to a gaseous phase at 500 K?

F. P
G. Al
H. Mg
J. Na
5. Do Figure 1 and Table 1 support the conclusion that nonmetals have melting points and
boiling points that are closer in temperature than the metals?
A. Yes. Phosphorus, sulfur, and chlorine all have melting points and boiling points that
are less than 500 K apart. Sodium, magnesium, and aluminum have boiling points that are
500 K or more apart.
B. Yes. Phosphorus, sulfur, and chlorine all have melting points and boiling points that
are less than 1000 K apart. Sodium, magnesium, and aluminum have boiling points that are
more than 1000 K apart.
C. No. Silicon’s melting point is 1000 K less than its boiling point. Magnesium’s melting
point is 500 K less than its boiling point.
D. No. There is no general relationship between melting points and boiling points and an
element’s classification as a metal or a nonmetal.
123
(Test 79-1)
Radium-226 (226Ra) activity is often elevated in bodies of water that have been augmented
with groundwater. Samples were collected over a two-year period in order to study 226Ra
activity in Florida Marsh and Cypress wetlands. Figure 1 shows the average 226Ra activity
from surface sediment samples collected in 2002 and 2004. Cores were taken from shallow
sediment (0 to 4 cm) in the wetlands and analyzed for 226Ra activity. The activity, in
disintegration per minute per gram (dpm/g), found in the Marsh and Cypress wetlands is
displayed in Figures 2 and 3.
Figure 1
Figure 2
124
Figure 3
1. According to Figure 2, the average radium-226 activity in Cypress wetlands in 2004 at a
depth of 200 cm was closest to which of the following?
A. 0.30 dpm/g
B. 0.70 dpm/g
C. 1.00 dpm/g
D. 2.50 dpm/g
2. Based on the information in Figure 3, if the average radium-226 activity had been
measured in Marsh wetlands at the depth of 400 cm in 2002, it most likely would have been
closest to which of the following?
F. 2.75 dpm/g
G. 2.50 dpm/g
H. 2.00 dpm/g
J. 1.80 dpm/g
3. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the difference in the average 226Ra
activity between 2002 and 2004?

A. In 2004 the wetlands were augmented with groundwater, which caused an increase
in226Ra activity.
B. In 2002 the wetlands were augmented with groundwater, and in 2004, they were not.
This resulted in more 226Ra activity in 2004.
C. The amount of groundwater the wetlands were augmented with was higher in 2002
than in 2004.
D. In 2004 there was more rainfall than in 2002, which created a decrease in 226Ra
activity.
125
4. If the data in Figures 2 and 3 are typical of Cypress and Marsh wetlands, one would most
likely make which of the following conclusions about the 226Ra activity in a wetland?
F. 226Ra activity is highest in wetlands in the top 50 cm of the sediment layer.
G. 226Ra activity gets higher as the sediment gets deeper.
H. 226Ra activity is highest in wetlands at around 325 cm below the top of the sediment.
J. Each year, the 226Ra activity in wetlands will become less.
5. According to Figures 2 and 3, the 226Ra activity increased between the depths of 200 and
250 cm for which wetlands?
A. Cypress wetlands in 2002
B. Cypress wetlands in 2004
C. Marsh wetlands in 2002
D. Marsh wetlands in 2004
(Test 79-2)
The balanced chemical equation for the dissociation of acetic acid in water is shown below:
CH3COOH(aq) CH3COO- (aq) + H+(aq)
The reaction can proceed in either direction in order to maintain a constant value for the acid
dissociation constant. Acetic acid is an acid because it contributes H+ ions to the solution.
The acid dissociation constant for the above reaction can be expressed as follows:
The expression [A] represents the concentration of substance A in moles/liter. One mole is
6.02 · 1023 molecules.
Experiment 1
NaOH is a strong base because it dissociates readily in water and contributes OH– ions to
the water. A 1 M solution of NaOH, a strong base, is slowly added to a 100 ml, 2 M (M
represents molarity, a measure of concentration in ) solution of acetic acid. The NaOH

–
solution contributes OH ions to the mixture. An ion is a charged atom or molecule.
The OH– ions from the NaOH combine with the H+ ions from the acetic acid to form water as
shown below:
H+(aq) + OH– (aq) → H2O (l)
Various measurements were taken and the results are shown in Table 1 and graphed in
Figure 1. Note: pH = –log [H+]
Table 1
126
Figure 1
6. Using the figure and the table, how much NaOH was added in order to increase the pH to
9.3?
F. 0 ml
G. 100 ml
H. 200 ml
J. 300 ml
7. If only 50 ml of NaOH had been added, what approximate value would the pH have been?
A. 1.5
B. 3.5
C. 5.5
D. 7.5
127
8. Using all the information in the passage, why did the concentration of CH3COOH(aq)
continue to decrease while the concentration of CH3COO–(aq) remained nearly unchanged?
F. Looking at the Ka, [CH3COOH(aq)] is in the denominator and [CH3COO–(aq)] is in the
numerator. The system counteracts the decrease in [H+(aq)] by dissociating more molecules
of CH3COOH.
G. Looking at the Ka, [CH3COOH(aq)] is in the denominator and [CH3COO–(aq)] is in the
numerator. The system counteracts the increase in [H+(aq)] by synthesizing more molecules
of CH3COOH.
H. The NaOH produces Na+ ions that must be combining with the CH3COOH molecules
in such a way that the concentration continues to decrease.
J. Clearly, the data must be inaccurate. Looking at the balanced equation, for every
molecule of acetic acid that dissociates, one CH3COO– ion must form and the [CH3COO–
(aq)] should have continued to increase.
9. What would be the effect on the results if 100 ml of 1 M acetic acid was used instead of
100 ml of 2 M?
A. The decreased concentration of acetic acid will decrease acidity and increase the
initial pH.
B. The decreased concentration of acetic acid will decrease acidity and decrease the
initial pH.
C. The increased concentration of acetic acid will increase acidity and increase the initial
pH.
D. The increased concentration of acetic acid will increase acidity and decrease the initial
pH.
10. How could you lower the pH back to 2.2?

F. Adding enough NaOH will eventually lower the pH because the cycle will repeat.
G. Adding enough water will dilute the base and lower the pH.
H. Evaporating some of the water will increase the concentration of H+ ions sufficiently to
lower the pH.
J. Adding a sufficient amount of acetic acid will add H+ ions and lower the pH.
128
11. What is true about the relationship between [H+(aq)] and pH?
A. There is an inverse relationship; as [H+(aq)] decreases, the pH increases.
B. There is a direct relationship; as [H+(aq)] decreases, the pH decreases.
C. The relationship is complex. Because the concentrations are so small, the pH jumps
after 200 ml of NaOH is added because small quantities of H+ ions increase the pH greatly,
whereas large quantities of H+ ions have little effect.
D. There is no relationship between [H+(aq)] and pH.
(Test 82-2)
A catalyst is a substance that speeds up a reaction but is chemically unchanged
at the end of the reaction. Catalysts can be divided into two main types—
heterogeneous and homogeneous. In a heterogeneous reaction, the catalyst is in
a different phase (such as solid, liquid, or gas) from the reactants. In a
homogeneous reaction, the catalyst is in the same phase as the reactants. Most
examples of heterogeneous catalysis go through the same stages (see Table 1).
Table 1
Stage Description
1 One or more of the reactants are absorbed onto the surface of
the catalyst.
2 There is some sort of interaction between the surface of the
catalyst and the reactant molecules, which makes them more
reactive.
3 The reaction happens.
4 The product molecules are desorbed, meaning that the
product molecules break away.
Students did experiments to convert propanol to propene using alumina beads,
and then to convert propene to propanol using a palladium catalyst.
Experiment 1
Two glass syringes were connected to an aluminabead catalyst tube (see Figure
1). The 1 mL syringe was filled with 1 mL of propanol. Next, the apparatus was
held above a burner’s flame and the alumina-bead catalyst tube was gently
heated while the liquid propanol was slowly introduced into the catalyst tube. The
liquid flowed through the tube until it hit the hot region. Then it vaporized, reacted
with the catalyst, and exited the catalyst tube as gaseous propene into the 60-mL
receiver syringe. The procedure was repeated with various amounts of propanol
129
and alumina beads and the amount of gaseous propene collected was recorded
(see Table 2).
Figure 1
Table 2
Experiment 2
A reactant syringe was filled with equal volumes of hydrogen and propene. The
reactant syringe and receiver syringe were connected to the catalyst tube filled
with solid palladium as shown in Figure 2. Then the hydrogenpropene mixture
was slowly passed over the catalyst, the reaction occurred, and the propane was
collected in the receiver syringe. The procedure was repeated several times,
varying the amount of time the reactant was passed over the catalyst. The results
are shown in Table 3.
Figure 2
Table 3
8. In Experiment 2, as the amount of time the reactant was passed over the
catalyst decreased, the volume of propane created:
A. increased only.
B. decreased only.
130
C. increased and then remained constant.

D. decreased and then remained constant.
9. Which is the most likely explanation for why 0 mL of propane was produced in
Trial 4 of Experiment 2?
F. There was not enough volume of hydrogen and propene to create a
reaction.
G. Fifteen seconds was too long a time for the reactant to pass over the -
catalyst.
H. There was not enough volume of palladium in the catalyst tube to create a
reaction and produce propane.
J. The reactant was not allowed enough time to interact with the catalyst;
therefore no reaction occurred and no propane was produced.
10. What type of catalyst was used in Experiment 1?

A. It cannot be determined from the information given.
B. A liquid catalyst
C. A heterogeneous catalyst
D. A homogeneous catalyst
11. In Experiment 2, the hydrogen-propene mixture turns into propane at what

stage of the catalysis?
F. Stage 1
G. Stage 2
H. Stage 3
J. Stage 4
12. Based on the data in Table 2, which two trials illustrate the effect that varying
the volume of the catalyst has on the volume of propene produced?
A. Trials 1 and 2
B. Trials 1 and 3
C. Trials 3 and 4
D. Trials 2 and 4
131
13. Which of the following best describes what occurred to the plunger of the 60-
mL syringe during Experiment 1? When propanol was injected into the catalyst
tube, the distance between the end of the plunger and the syringe tip:
F. decreased slowly over 30 seconds.
G. increased immediately, and then decreased as the reaction occurred.
H. remained in place until the reaction occurred, and then decreased.
J. remained in place until the reaction occurred, and then increased.
(Test 84-2)
Scientists used gas chromatography to analyze benzene concentrations in fuel vapors. The
results of the analysis are displayed in Table 1.
Samples from four different brands of fuel were collected, with each brand offering both
leaded and unleaded versions of fuel. A portion of each sample was analyzed for benzene
concentration in the liquid, while the rest of the sample was placed in a vial and prepared for
vapor analysis. Each vial was put into an oven, heated, and the gas chromatograph detected
the concentrations of benzene in the vapor. Figure 1 displays the oven temperature during
the experiment.
Figure 1
Table 1
A gasohol is a fuel blended with certain alcohols such as ethanol or methanol. Two of the
fuels tested in this experiment (brands C and D) were gasohols. Figure 2 shows the average
concentrations of benzene found in the liquid and vapor form of the leaded and unleaded
132
fuels tested. Figure 3 compares the average concentrations of benzene found in gasohols
and regular unleaded fuels.
Figure 2
Figure 3
8. According to Figure 2, the average concentration of benzene found in the liquid form of
leaded fuel was approximately:
F. 200 mg/l.
G. 240 mg/l.
H. 480 mg/l.
J. 400 mg/l.
9. Based on Figure 2, which type of fuel tested was found to contain the highest average
concentration of benzene?
A. Liquid unleaded
B. Liquid leaded
C. Vapor leaded
D. Vapor unleaded
10. Suppose that during the experiment the samples of fuel had been kept in the oven for 20
minutes. Based on Figure 1, the temperature in the oven after 20 minutes would most likely
have been:
133
F. less than 100°C.

G. between 100°C and 150°C.
H. between 150°C and 200°C.
J. greater than 200°C.
11. A scientist claimed that, in liquid form, a leaded fuel would emit more benzene than an
unleaded fuel. Does the data in Table 1 support this claim?
A. Yes. For all fuel brands tested, the benzene levels were higher in the leaded fuel than
in the unleaded fuel.
B. Yes. For all fuels tested, the amount of benzene found in the vapor form was higher
than that found in the liquid form.
C. No. The amount of benzene found in the leaded fuel was only higher than the amount
found in the unleaded fuel for one brand tested.
D. No. Only nongasohols emit more benzene in the leaded version of the fuel.
12. According to Figure 3, how did vaporizing the gasohol fuels affect the average
concentration of benzene found in the fuel? In the gasohol fuels, the average concentration
of benzene found in the liquid form of the gas was about:
F. two times the average concentration found in the vapor form.
G. one-half the average concentration found in the vapor form.
H. one-quarter the average concentration found in the vapor form.
J. the same as the average concentration found in the vapor form.
(Test 86-1)
When introduced into H2O, many solid substances are able to dissolve, or
disperse evenly throughout the solvent. Salts have been found to dissolve easily
when introduced into H2O, since they readily dissociate to yield ions that may
interact directly with H2O. Molecular compounds, on the other hand, do not
dissolve as easily, since their interactions with water typically do not
permit ionization, the physical process of converting an atom or molecule into an
ion by adding or removing charged particles such as electrons or other ions. Two
experiments were conducted to better understand the solubility of salts and
molecules in water at various temperatures. The solubility, S, was measured as
follows:
S = (msub) / (mH20)
134
where msub was the mass of the substance dissolved in water, and mH20 was the
mass of the water itself. △S, or the change in solubility (from 0℃), was calculated
in the experiments for three salts and three molecules with increasing
temperature. The mass of water was held constant at 100g for each of these
experiments.
Figure 1 shows the results of comparing the solubilities of three salts with
increasing temperature, while Figure 2 shows the results of comparing the
solubilities of three molecules with increasing temperature. Molecular masses
(MM) are shown for each substance.
Figure 1
Figure 2
1. Based on Figure 1, at 40℃ as the molecular masses of the salts increase, the
△S:
135
A. decreases, because a greater mass of substance dissolves in the same

mass of water.
B. decreases, because a smaller mass of substance dissolves in the same
mass of water.
C. increases, because a greater mass of substance dissolves in the same
mass of water.
D. increases, because a smaller mass of substance dissolves in the same
mass of water.
2. Consider the trials represented in Figure 1 that occurred at 60℃. As the

molecular mass of the substance decreased, the observed △S:
F. increased only.
G. increased, then decreased.
H. decreased only.
J. decreased, then increased.
3. If an additional trial had been done in which KCl dissolved in H2O at 102℃,
while it was still in aqueous form, the △S most likely would have been:
A. less than 25.
B. between 25 and 35.
C. between 35 and 45.
D. greater than 45.
4. According to Figure 2, when NH3 was added to water at 20℃, the solubility of
the resulting solution:
F. increased, because △S was positive.
G. increased, because △S was negative.
H. decreased, because △S was positive.
J. decreased, because △S was negative.
5. Based on Figures 1 and 2, which of the following combinations of solute and

temperature at a known mH2O would produce the greatest increase in solubility?
A. CH4 (molecular compound, MM = 16) at 40℃
B. NaF (salt, MM = 42) at 40℃
C. CH4 (molecular compound, MM = 16) at 80℃
D. NaF (salt, MM = 42) at 80℃
136
(Test 87-2)
Polyatomic ions can be represented by the combination of symbols
(XaZb)n
where a is the number of atoms of Element X, b is the number of atoms of
Element Z, and n is the total positive or negative charge for the entire polyatomic
ion. If a or b is equal to 1, then the number 1 is omitted. If n is equal to 0,
indicating a net neutral charge, then the number 0 is also omitted. For example,
(NH4)+1 represents an ammonium ion, which contains 1 nitrogen atom (the
number 1 is omitted), 4 hydrogen atoms, and a net polyatomic ion charge of +1.
Since polyatomic ions carry a charge, they are very soluble in water, as opposed
to neutral molecules.
Some atoms that comprise polyatomic ions are able to donate or accept different
numbers of electrons, depending on the atoms with which they interact. In these
different situations, they are said to have different oxidation states. For instance,
while oxygen (O) typically has a constant oxidation state of -2, meaning it typically
only accepts 2 extra electrons, chlorine (Cl) can have oxidation states of -1, +1,
+3, +5, and +7, meaning that it has the ability to either accept 1 extra electron (-1)
or donate either 1, 3, 5, or 7 electrons. The specific ions that feature the different
oxidation states of chlorine are listed below.
Table 1
Name Ion Oxidation state of chlorine atom
Chloride (Cl)−1 −1
Hypochlorite (ClO) −1 +1
Chlorite (ClO2)−1 +3
Chlorate (ClO3) −1 +5
Perchlorate (ClO4) −1 +7
The energy required to remove an electron from an atom, thereby giving that
atom a more positive oxidation state, is known as an ionization energy. The
ionization energies for removing each of the first four electrons from elements
with atomic numbers 11-15, as measured in electron-volts (eV), are shown in
Figure 1.
137
Figure 1
6. Which of the following symbols correctly represents the negatively charged

polyatomic ion containing seven oxygen atoms and two chromium (Cr) atoms?
F. (CrO4)-1
G. (Cr2O2)-7
H. (Cr7O2)-2
J. (Cr2O7)-2
7. According to Table 1, what is the total charge for the polyatomic ion chlorite?
A. -1
B. +1
C. +2
D. +3
138
8. Based on Figure 1, the ionization energy required to remove 4 electrons from P

(atomic number 15) is approximately twice the ionization energy required for
which of the following?
F. Removing 1 electron from S
G. Removing 2 electrons from Ar
H. Removing 3 electrons from Si
J. Removing 4 electrons from Cl
9. A sample of bleach contains a mixture of chlorite and hypochlorite. Based on

Table 1 and Figure 1, what is the ionization energy for the chlorine atom in each
of these polyatomic ions?
A. Chlorite: IE of chlorine = 24 eV, Hypochlorite: IE of chlorine = 53 eV
B. Chlorite: IE of chlorine = 53 eV, Hypochlorite: IE of chlorine = 24 eV
C. Chlorite: IE of chlorine = 13 eV, Hypochlorite: IE of chlorine = 40 eV
D. Chlorite: IE of chlorine = 40 eV, Hypochlorite: IE of chlorine = 13 eV
10. Suppose a chloride ion is isolated and accelerated at a constant rate. How
would the net force acting on the chloride ion compare with the net force acting
on a perchlorate ion that is accelerated at the same constant rate?
F. It would be smaller, because chloride is more massive than perchlorate.
G. It would be smaller, because chloride is less massive than perchlorate.
H. It would be larger, because chloride is more massive than perchlorate.
J. It would be larger, because chloride is less massive than perchlorate.
139
(Test 91-1)
Carboxylic acids are organic compounds containing a carboxyl (-COOH) group.
These molecules are acidic since they are able to donate protons in solution. The
acidity and other physical properties of carboxylic acids are affected by the
composition of the atoms bound to the carboxyl group. Table 1 lists the freezing
points and boiling points for several carboxylic acids.
Figure 1 shows how the vapor pressure (in mm Hg) of 3 carboxylic acids changes
as a function of temperature.
Figure 1
140
Figure 2 shows how the vapor pressure of the same 3 carboxylic acids changes
as a function of concentration when mixed with water at 20°C.
Figure 2
1. Which of the carboxylic acids listed in Table 1 has the highest melting point?
A. Propionic acid
B. Valeric acid
C. Acetic acid
D. Formic acid
2. According to Figure 2, the vapor pressure of a 0.5 mole fraction solution of

water in formic acid is closest to the vapor pressure of which of the following
water in formic acid solutions?
F. 0.9 mole fraction
G. 0.8 mole fraction
H. 0.6 mole fraction
J. 0.4 mole fraction
141
3. According to Figure 2, as the mole fraction of water in an acetic acid and water
solution increases from 0 to 1, the vapor pressure:
A. decreases, then increases.
B. increases, then decreases.
C. decreases only.
D. increases only.
4. CH3 (CH2)4 COOH is the chemical formula for the carboxylic acid named
hexanoic acid. Based on Table 1, this compound most likely boils at a
temperature:
F. lower than 160°C.
G. between 200°C and 220°C.
H. between 220°C and 240°C.
J. higher than 240°C.
5. According to Figure 1, does acetic acid or formic acid resist vaporization more
at 60°C ?
A. Formic acid, because formic acid has the lower vapor pressure.
B. Formic acid, because formic acid has the higher vapor pressure.
C. Acetic acid, because acetic acid has the lower vapor pressure.
D. Acetic acid, because acetic acid has the higher vapor pressure.
142
(Test 102)
Radioactive decay is a natural process by which an atom of a
radioactive isotope (chemical element) spontaneously decays into another
element. The unstable nucleus disintegrates by emitting alpha or beta particles,
or gamma rays. This process changes the composition of the nucleus and
continues to take place until a stable nucleus is reached. Half-life refers to the
amount of time it takes for half (50%) of the atoms in a sample to decay.
Figure 1 shows the decay from Radon 222 to Polonium 218 and other decay
products.
Figure 1
Figure 2 shows the decay from Mercury 206 to Thallium 206 to Lead 206.
Figure 2
Table 1 shows decay products and associated energy in MeV, million electron
volts, and the type of particle emitted from the decay.
143
1. According to Figure 1, what is the approximate half-life of Radon 222?

F. 2 days
G. 4 days
H. 12 days
J. 16 days
2. Based on the passage, radioactive decay:

A. is unstable.
B. does not occur in nature.
C. is a natural process.
D. only occurs in half of the atoms.
3. Based on Table 1, what is the relationship between decay energy and the type
of particle emitted?
F. Beta particles tend to have higher decay energies.
G. Alpha particles tend to have lower decay energies.
H. Alpha particles tend to have higher decay energies.
J. There is no apparent relationship between type of particle and decay
energy.
4. When Technetium 98 decays into Ruthenium 98, the decay energy is 1.796
MeV. According to the data in Table 1, the decay particle type is most likely:
A. an alpha particle.
B. a beta particle.
C. similar to that of Radon 222.
D. extremely stable.
5. According to the passage, approximately when do Radon 222 and Polonium

218 have the same percent of atoms remaining?
F. On Day 2.
G. On Day 4.
H. On Day 8.
J. On Day 16.
144
6. What statement best explains the meaning of the shape of the Radon 222
curve in Figure 1 and the Mercury 206 curve in Figure 2?
A. The rate of decay is erratic.
B. The rate of decay starts off slowly and then speeds up.
C. The rate of decay occurs very quickly at first and slows as the number of
atoms is reduced.
D. The rate of decay occurs at a fairly steady rate over time.
(Test 109)
A mercury thermometer, at an initial temperature of 20°C, was placed in 40°C
water, and the temperature registered by the thermometer was recorded over
time. This procedure was repeated using water samples at 50°C and 60°C (see
Figure 1). Next, the same thermometer, at an initial temperature of 60°C, was
placed in an air sample at 50°C, and the temperature registered by the
thermometer was recorded over time. This procedure was repeated using air
samples at 30°C and 40°C (see Figure 2).
Figure 1
Figure 2
(Note: Assume that the temperatures of the water and air samples did not change
during the measurements.)
145
1. Based on Figure 1, at 3.0 sec, the thermometer reading in the 40°C water most
likely was closest to which of the following?
A. 47°C
B. 42°C
C. 36°C
D. 29°C
2. According to Figure 2, for an air temperature of 30°C, over which of the

following time intervals was the thermometer reading changing most rapidly?
F. 0-100 sec.
G. 100-200 sec.
H. 200-300 sec.
J. 300-400 sec.
3. When the thermometer was in the 40°C water, in the time interval between 0
sec and 2 sec, approximately how rapidly, in °C/sec, was the temperature
registered by the thermometer changing?
A. 1°C/sec.
B. 5°C/sec.
C. 10°C/sec.
D. 40°C/sec.
4. Based on Figure 2, if the thermometer, at an initial temperature of 60°C, had

been placed in an air sample at 20°C, how long would it most likely have taken
the thermometer reading to reach 20°C?
F. Less than 10 sec.
G. Between 10 and 50 sec.
H. Between 50 and 100 sec.
J. Greater than 100 sec.
5. According to the passage, at which of the following did the thermometer

register the highest reading?
A. Water temperature 60°C, 4.0 sec.
B. Water temperature 60°C, 2.0 sec.
C. Water temperature 50°C, 4.0 sec.
D. Water temperature 50°C, 2.0 sec.
146
(Test 112)
Certain preservatives known as sulfites are often added to fruit products to keep
the fruit fresher longer. Use of sulfites is controversial because studies have
linked sulfites to severe reactions in some asthmatics. Students performed 2
experiments to measure sulfite levels.
Experiment 1
Four solutions, each containing a different amount of sulfite dissolved in H2O
were prepared. A coloring agent was added that binds with sulfite to form a red
compound that strongly absorbs light of a specific wavelength, and each solution
was diluted to 100 mL. A blank solution was prepared in the same manner, but no
sulfite was added. A colorimeter (a device that measures how much light of a
selected wavelength is absorbed by a sample) was used to measure
the absorbance of each solution. The absorbances were corrected by subtracting
the absorbance of the blank solution from each reading (see Table 1 and Figure
1).
147
Figure 1
Experiment 2
A 100 g fruit sample was ground in a food processor with 50 mL of H2O and the
mixture was filtered. The food processor and remaining fruit were then washed
with H2O, these washings were filtered, and the liquid was added to the sample
solution. The coloring agent was added and the solution was diluted to 100 mL.
The procedure was repeated for several fruits, and the absorbances were
measured (see Table 2).
1. Based on the results of Experiment 1, if the concentration of sulfite in a solution

is doubled, then the corrected absorbance of the solution will approximately:
A. remain the same.
B. halve.
C. double.
D. quadruple.
2. A sample of dried pineapple was also measured in Experiment 2 and its

corrected absorbance was determined to be 0.603. Which of the following
correctly lists prunes, apricots, and dried pineapple in decreasing order of
corrected absorbance?
F. Prunes, dried apricots, dried pineapple.
G. Dried pineapple, apricots, prunes.
H. Prunes, dried pineapple, dried apricots.
J. Dried apricots, dried pineapple, prunes.
148
3. Based on the results of Experiment 1, if a solution with a concentration of 1.5

ppm sulfite had been tested, the corrected absorbance would have been closest
to which of the following values?
A. 0.160
B. 0.240
C. 0.300
D. 0.360
4. If Experiments 1 and 2 were repeated using a different coloring agent that

produces a different color when it binds with sulfite, which of the following
changes in procedure would be necessary?
F. The new coloring agent should be added to the blank solution, but not to
the sample solutions.
G. Both of the coloring agents should be added to the blank solution and to all
of the samples.
H. The absorbance of the blank solution made with the new coloring agent
should be added to the measured absorbances.
J. The colorimeter should be set to measure at a different wavelength of light.
5. Based on the results of Experiments 1 and 2, if the measured absorbances for

the fruits tested in Experiment 2 were compared with their corrected
absorbances, the measured absorbances would be:
A. higher for all of the fruits tested.
B. lower for all of the fruits tested.
C. lower for some of the fruits tested, higher for others.
D. the same for all of the fruits tested.
6. If some of the water-soluble contents found in all of the fruits tested in

Experiment 2 absorbed light of the same wavelength as the compound formed
with sulfite and the coloring agent, how would the measurements have been
affected? Compared to the actual sulfite concentrations, the sulfite concentrations
apparently measured would be:
F. higher.
G. lower.
H. the same.
J. higher for some of the fruits, lower for others.
149
(Test 113)
The molar heat of fusion is the amount of heat necessary to melt (or freeze) 1.00
mole of a substance at its melting point at a constant pressure. The molar heat of
fusion for water is 6.02 kilojoules per mole (kJ/mol).
The equation for molar heat of fusion is:
q = ΔHfus(mass/molar mass)
In this equation, q is the total amount of heat involved, ΔHfus represents the molar
heat of fusion (this value is a constant for a given substance), and (mass/molar
mass) represents the number of moles of a given substance.
The following table lists molar heats of fusion, boiling points, and melting points
for several elements.
1. According to the passage, ΔHfus of water:

A. is less than ΔHfus of calcium.
B. is greater than ΔHfus of calcium.
C. is greater than ΔHfus of nickel.
D. cannot be determined.
2. The energy required to melt 1.00 mole of iron at 1,535°C and constant
pressure of 1 atm is:
F. 6.02 kJ.
G. 8.54 kJ.
H. 13.80 kJ.
J. 2,750.00 kJ.
3. According to the table, as the energy required to melt 1 mole of the given
elements increases, the melting points:
A. increase only.
B. decrease only.
150
C. increase then decrease.

D. neither increase nor decrease.
4. The boiling point of potassium is 759.90°C. If potassium follows the general
pattern of the other elements in the table, its heat of fusion would be:
F. below 8 kJ/mol.
G. between 8 and 11 kJ/mol.
H. between 11 and 14 kJ/mol.
J. between 14 and 18 kJ/mol.
5. Molar heat of fusion is directly related to the strength of the forces that hold
molecules together; strong forces make it difficult for molecules to break away
into the liquid or gaseous phase. Data in the table support the conclusion that
those forces are stronger in:
A. calcium than in silver.
B. silver than in nickel.
C. iron than in calcium.
D. iron than in nickel.
6. It was hypothesized that the heat of fusion will increase as the boiling point
increases. Based on the data in the table, which of the following pairs of elements
support(s) this hypothesis?
I. Nickel and iron
II. Water and calcium
III. Silver and iron
F. I only
G. III only
H. II and III only
J. I, II, and III
SUBMIT
(Test 118)
Students studied the effect of temperature on the conversion rates of two organic
acids to their corresponding alcohols. The two organic acids studied were lactic
acid (LA) and propionic acid (PA). Each acid was mixed with an Ru/C catalyst (to
start the conversion) in an aqueous (water) solution. Lactic acid was found to
break down into propylene glycol (PG), water, and various carbon side products.
Propionic acid was found to break down into 1-propanol (1-PrOH), water, and
151
various carbon side products. For all experiments, temperature was measured in
degrees Kelvin (K).
Experiment 1
Students mixed an LA concentration of 0.5 moles (M) in a 50-milliliter (ml)
aqueous solution along with a 5% Ru/C catalyst. The temperature was then
varied to study the effect on the rate of conversion from lactic acid to PG. The
results are shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
Experiment 2
Students mixed a PA concentration of 0.5 M in a 50 ml aqueous solution along
with a 5% Ru/C catalyst. The temperature was then varied to study the effect on
the rate of conversion from propionic acid to 1-PrOH. The results are shown in
Figure 2.
Figure 2
1. According to Figure 1, after two hours at 403°K, the percent of LA converted
was closest to which of the following?
A. 10%
B. 50%
152
C. 80%
D. 100%
2. According to Figure 1, at 423°K, the greatest percentage of conversion
occurred during which of the following time intervals?
F. 8 to 10 hours.
G. 6 to 8 hours.
H. 2 to 4 hours.
J. 0 to 2 hours.
3. Which of the following was held constant in each of the experiments?

A. The amount of catalyst used.
B. The temperature.
C. The conversion rates.
D. The type of acid used.
4. Based on the data in Tables 1 and 2, which of the following best describes the
results of the experiments? As conversion time increased, the percent of acid
converted:
F. decreased at some temperatures only until conversion stopped.
G. increased at some temperatures only until conversion stopped.
H. decreased at all temperatures until conversion stopped.
J. increased at all temperatures until conversion stopped.
5. A chemist claimed that the propionic acid conversion rate at 403°K dramatically
increases between 8 and 12 hours. Do the results of the experiments support this
claim?
A. No; according to Figure 2, conversion stops after 8 hours and does not
reach 100%.
B. No; according to Figure 1, nearly 100% of the acid has been converted
after 8 hours.
C. Yes; according to Figure 1, there is a significant increase in the conversion
rate after 8 hours.
D. Yes; according to Figure 2, less than 50% of the acid has been converted
after 8 hours.
153
6. Based on the results of Experiment 2, assuming that conversion of PA at 423°K

continued until it reached 100%, one could predict that 100% of the PA would be
converted during which of the following time intervals?
F. < 2 hours.
G. 4 to 6 hours.
H. 12 to 14 hours.
J. < 12 hours.
(Test 119)
Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless gas produced by burning material
that contains carbon, such as coal or natural gas. Carbon monoxide is the leading
cause of accidental poisoning deaths in America. The Centers for Disease
Control estimates that carbon monoxide poisoning claims nearly 500 lives and
causes more than 15,000 visits to hospital emergency departments annually.
Common household appliances produce carbon monoxide. When not properly
ventilated, carbon monoxide emitted by these appliances can build up. The only
way to detect carbon monoxide is through testing, using a specialized sensing
device.
Gas stoves have been known to emit high levels of carbon monoxide. Average
carbon monoxide levels in homes without gas stoves vary from 0.5 to 5.0 parts
per million (ppm). Levels near properly adjusted gas stoves are often 5.0 to 15.0
ppm and those near poorly adjusted stoves may be 30.0 ppm or higher. CO
levels between 0.5 and 15.0 ppm are considered safe.
Table 1 shows the carbon monoxide levels in ppm for each of five homes, with
and without gas stoves.
154
1. According to the passage, which of the following homes listed in Table 1 most
likely has a poorly adjusted gas stove?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 1
2. A sensing device was installed in Home 2 to test CO levels. Which of the

following is most likely true about the results of the test?
F. The results indicated below average CO emissions.
G. The results indicated above average CO emissions.
H. The results indicated average CO emissions.
J. The results indicated no CO emissions.
3. According to the passage, which of the following carbon monoxide levels would
be considered most harmful?
A. 40.25 ppm
B. 12.00 ppm
C. 6.50 ppm
D. 0.30 ppm
4. According to the passage, if Home 4 has a gas stove, should it be removed?

F. Yes, because it is emitting a high level of carbon monoxide.
G. Yes, because it is not properly adjusted.
H. No, because carbon monoxide levels in the house are within a safe range.
J. No, because there is no indication of any carbon monoxide emissions.
5. Suppose a 6th home was tested for carbon monoxide and the results showed a
carbon monoxide level of 10.0 ppm. According to the passage, which of the
following conclusions can be reached?
A. The residents of Home 6 are highly susceptible to CO poisoning.
B. Home 6 has a poorly adjusted gas stove that should be repaired or
removed.
C. The CO levels in Home 6 will not pose any danger to the residents.
D. The CO sensing device is defective and should be replaced.
155
(Test 122)
Radon is a radioactive gas that occurs naturally in the environment as a result of
the decay of uranium. If inhaled into the lungs at high concentrations and over a
long period of time, radon gas can increase the chance that an individual will
develop lung cancer.
Outdoors, radon levels are rarely high enough to pose a health threat to
individuals. Indoors, however, radon is a concern because it can seep into the
foundation of a home through the ground and accumulate in areas with little
ventilation, where levels can then become threatening. Radon gas can seep from
the ground through many different pathways, such as cracks in the basement
floor, through drains and sump pumps, or through loose-fitting pipes.
The only way to detect radon levels is through testing, using a specialized
sensing device. Radon is colorless and odorless, and the levels are constantly
changing from one area to the next and from one day to the next. In addition,
radon exposure produces no short-term health symptoms. Therefore, radon
levels should be monitored on a regular basis.
Radon potential is an estimate of the radon level of a structure measured
in picocuries per liter of air (pCi/L). A picocurie is one-trillionth of a Curie (a
measurement unit of radioactivity). The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
assigns each county in the United States to a zone, based on its radon potential.
Radon potential is not used to determine which houses should be tested in an
area. Instead, levels are used to determine if radon-resistant features should be
installed in new structures being built in an area. Table 1 shows the radon levels
in pCi/L for each of 3 zones, with areas in Zone 1 indicating a high radon
potential, areas in Zone 2 indicating a moderate radon potential, and areas in
Zone 3 indicating a low radon potential.
156
1. According to the passage, radon levels are tested indoors because:

F. radon levels are different in every area, but they are always the same
indoors.
G. radon accumulates in the air inside a home and poses a possible health
threat.
H. radon gas has a strong, unpleasant smell that can only be detected
indoors.
J. radon levels vary from season to season but are similar for most houses.
2. All of the following are mentioned as characteristics of radon that contribute to

the importance of continual in-home testing EXCEPT:
A. radon is colorless and odorless.
B. radon produces no short-term symptoms.
C. radon levels vary from day to day.
D. radon is a naturally occurring radioactive gas.
3. Studies have shown that existing homes in the same neighborhood can have
very different radon levels. Are these findings consistent with information
presented in the passage?
F. No, because radon levels cannot be measured in existing homes.
G. No, because radon seeps into all homes in the same way.
H. Yes, because the occurrence of radon is very rare.
J. Yes, because radon levels vary depending on many different factors.
4. According to the passage, which of the following radon levels would be

considered most harmful?
A. 5.2 pCi/L
B. 4.0 pCi/L
C. 3.0 pCi/L
D. 1.9 pCi/L
157

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Made By Shahd A.

Table 1 shows the amount of Fe2O3 produced over time from 15 g Fe

F. less than 0.56 g.

G. between 0.59 g and 0.72 g.

H. between 1.23 g and 1.84 g.

J. greater than 1.84 g.

7. In the experiments shown in Table 1 and

D. FeO was produced.

8. Consider the amount of Fe2O3 produced by the salt solution on Day 2.

Different proportions of sodium chloride and distilled water were combined

7. Suppose a trial had been performed in Experiment 3 with a freezer

9. Based on Experiment 3, as temperature decreases, the minimum proof for

C. increases, then decreases.

D. decreases, then increases.

A. less than 60.

B. between 60 and 80.

C. between 80 and 112.

D. greater than 112.

H. increased, then decreased

J. decreased, then increased

9. Which of the following is a dependent variable in the experiment?

A. The point in time during the elongation period

B. The type of superoxide dismutase the plant could express

C. The length of the cotton fiber

D. Thetype of cotton plant

A. It was from L1 and at the end of its elongation period.

B. It was from L1 and at the midpoint of its elongation period.

C. It was from L2 and at the beginning of its elongation period.

D. It was from L2 and at the end of its elongation period.

A. The line would have a positive slope.

B. The line would have a negative slope.

C. The line would have a slope equal to zero.

Convection is a heat transfer process caused by moving liquid or gas currents

Heated temperature (°C) ΔT (°C)

Figure 2 shows how ΔT changes with cross-sectional area for 500 mL of

C. I and III only

4. Based on the information in

5. The data in the passage supports the hypothesis that ΔT increases as

H. Radius of the container

A chemist performed experiments on precious metal plating.

6. A comparison of the results for coin samples II and IV supports the

B. coppersulfate and a current of 1,000 mA than copper sulfate and a current

C. silver nitrate than when exposed to copper sulfate.

D. copper sulfate than when exposed to silver nitrate.

7. If the chemist were to repeat Experiment 1, but compress each coin

G. The mass of precious metal plated would decrease for coin

8. According to the information in the passage, a zinc alloy coin sample

A. 10 minutes in a solution with a high initial concentration of silver nitrate

B. 10 minutes in a solution with a low initial concentration of silver nitrate

C. 6 minutes in a solution with a high initial concentration of silver nitrate

D. 6 minutes in a solution with a low initial concentration of silver nitrate

9. In Experiment 1, if the chemist had applied 1,580 mA to a 1 cm radius

A. Change in mass from plating

B. Electric current applied

C. Type of precious metal solution used

D. Initial radius of the sample

F. Potassium gold cyanide

Organic compounds are molecules that frequently contain carbon (C),

1. Which organic compounds in Table 2 are solids at 215 K?

A. All alkanes, alcohols, and aldehydes with 5 carbons or fewer.

B. Alcohols and aldehydes with 6 or more carbons and octane.

D. The 5-carbon pentane and pentanol compounds and the 4-carbon

2. According to Tables 1 and