VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. ( Research) December – 2020
Master of Business Administration

Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No, branch and branch code are not already printed on the
OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
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14. Scientific calculator is only permitted. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary
action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered
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16. Handover the OMR sheet and the question paper booklet to the Room Invigilator while
leaving the examination hall.
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 PART – I
Research Methodology to all Engineering,
MCA, MBA and Basic Sciences

[50 Marks]

1. The research study carried out with help of collecting of primary and /or secondary data is
termed as
a) Observational b) Conceptual c) Empirical d) None of the above

2. _______type of research design is especially formulated to give a detailed description about a

phenomenon / an event.
a) Longitudinal research design b) Exploratory research design
c) Descriptive research design d) Experimental research design

3. In a research problem, the variable related to the cause is known as

a) Dependant variable b) Independent variable
c) Test variable d) Moderating variable

4. The restraints / short falls / problems encountered in the process of data collection / compilation
/ analysis are included in ________ section of the research report.
a) Limitations of the study b) Findings of the study
c) Literature review d) Conclusion of the study

5. _______ can be used to clearly depict / display the steps / components of a process.
a) Pie charts b) Flow charts c) Picto graphs d) Histogram

6. A systematic literature review is

a) One which generates a literature review using online method
b) A replicable , scientific and transparent process
c) One which gives equal attention to the principal contributors to the area
d) A manufactured system for generating literature reviews tailored to your subject

7. What is distinctive about a narrative literature review?

a) It is a review based exclusively on experiences of organizations in case study form.
b) It is historically – based review , starting with the earliest contributions to the field.
c) It is a paraphrase style of reviewing which does not require referencing.
d) It serves as a means of obtaining initial impression on a topic , which you will understand
fully as you carry out the research.

8. Research design strategy does NOT deal with

a) Data collection design b) Sampling design
c) Instrument development d) Data analysis

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9. If neither the experimenter nor the participant knows which experimental condition the
participant is assigned to , this is known as
a) Single - blind b) Double – blind
c) Standardization d) Treatment combination
10. A variable that changes in a systematic way with the independent variable and may also affect
the dependent variable is known as
a) Confounding variable b) Error variable
c) Equivalent variable d) Intruder variable

11. Which among the following type of non – sampling errors occurs during the planning stage
a) Specific errors b) Ascertainment errors c) Tabulation errors d) Total errors

12. In which form of convenience sampling the population elements are selected based on the
judgment of the researcher
a) Quota sampling b) Snowball sampling
c) Systematic sampling d) Judgement sampling

13. Which among the following test is done to determine how well an instrument that is developed
measures the particular concept it is intended to measure
a) Validity test b) Item analysis test c) Stability test d) Reliability test

14. Which among the following research technique is more time consuming but scientifically valid
a) Focus Group Research b) Experimental Research
c) Observational Research d) Survey Research

15. The population census carried out by the Government of India is an example of
a) Exploratory Research b) Causal Research
c) Descriptive Research d) All of the above

16. Which one of the technologies is most likely to be used in qualitative analysis
a) ANOVA b) Discriminant analysis c) CHAID d) NVIVO

17. The range of a sample gives an indication of the

a) way in which the values cluster about a particular point
b) number of observations bearing the value
c) maximum variation in the sample
d) degree to which the mean value differs from its expected value.

18. The measure of dispersion can never be

a) Positive b) Zero c) Negative d) Equal to 2

19. If beta one is 9 and beta two is 11 then coefficient of skewness is

a) 0.589 b) 0.689 c) 0.489 d) 0.889

20. Statistical measures such as average deviation, standard deviation and mean are classified as
part of
a) Deciles system b) Moment system c) Percentile system d) Quartile system

21. The difference between statistic and parameter is called

a) Error b) Bias c) Sampling error d) Random error
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22. Non – sampling error is reduced by
a) Increasing sample size b) Decreasing sample size
c) Reducing the amount of data d) None of these

23. In statistical analysis, the sample size is considered large if

a) n > or = 30 b) n < or = 30 c) n > or = 50 d) n < or = 50

24. What does the Central limit theorem state :

a) If the sample size increases sampling distribution must approach normal distribution
b) If the sample size decreases then the sample distribution must approach normal distribution
c) If the sample size increases then the sample distribution must approach an exponential
distribution.
d) If the sample size decreases then the sample distribution must approach an exponential
distribution.

25. Statistical inference is the process of drawing formal conclusions from data
a) True b) False

26. If you reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true, what is this an example of ?
a) Type I error b) Type II error c) Statistical power d) Hypothesis testing

27. The length of time to prepare dinner is recorded in minutes. A sample of 25 people is taken and
the time to prepare dinner is recorded. It is required to test the hypothesis based on the evidence
that the population mean time to prepare dinner is less than 48 minutes, at a significance level of
0.05. the null hypothesis for this case is Ho : μ 7, 48. The appropriate alternative hypothesis is
a) μ = 48 b) μ > 48 c) μ < 48 d) μ # 48

28. A certain process produces 10 percent defective articles. A supplier of new raw material claims
that the use of his material would reduce the proportion of defectives. This hypothesis testing is
an example of
a) Testing for mean number of defectives
b) Testing for variances of the number of defectives
c) Testing for proportions of defectives
d) Testing for ratio of variances of defectives.

29. If it is required to test the hypothesis that the fit is good or the observed data is drawn from the
population having the specified distribution, against the hypothesis that the fit is not good, the
observed data is not drawn for the population having the specified distribution, then the
appropriate test statistic is
2 (O i  E i ) 2 2
(O ij  E ij ) 2
a)  c   b)  c  
 Ei all cells E ij
X  o X  o
c) Z= d) t =
/ n / n

30. If Zc is the computed value of test statistic and the distribution of test statistic is normally
distributed with N(0, 1) then the p value for the right tailed test is
a) 2 p(Z > / Zd) b) p(Z < Zc) c) p(Z > Zc) d) p(Z = Zc)

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31. The ANOVA theory was developed by
a) Siegel S b) Fisher RA c) Delbert Miller d) Whitney F.L

32. The correction factor used in ANOVA is

T T T2 T2
a) b) c) d)
N N N N2

33. In an experiment to study the yield of three variates of wheat grown on four plots, the number of
factors studied are
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

34. The null hypothesis used in ANOVA is

a) All population variance are same b) All population means are same
c) All population variance are not same d) All population means are not same

35. In ANOVA, there is a relationship between

a) Independent variable and uncontrolled variable
b) Dependent variable and controlled variable
c) Independent variable and controlled variable
d) Dependent variable and uncontrolled variable.

36. A factor loading of 0.8 means

a) The variable is poorly related to the factor
b) The variable is moderately related to the factor
c) The variable correlates well with the factor
d) There is no relation between the factor and the variable.

37. In Q – type factor analysis

a) Factors emerge where there is high correlation within groups of people
b) Factors emerge where there is high correlation within groups of variables
c) Factors emerge when variables and people are unrelated
d) Factors emerge where there is low correlation within groups of variables.

38. Rotation usually involves _______ high correlations and _______ low ones
a) Retaining , Omitting b) Omitting , Retaining
c) Minimizing , Maximizing d) Maximizing , Minimizing.

39. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model with one
variable?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

40. In the equation y = α1 + α2 x + error , α1 and α2 refer to

a) x intercept, slope b) y intercept, slope c) slope, x intercept d) slope, y intercept

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41. The odds that the book will be reviewed favourably by three independent cities are 5 to 2, 4 to
3, 3 to 4. What is the probability that of the three reviews, a majority will be favourable
209 219 2 3
a) b) c) d)
343 343 49 49

42. If Ten shooters hit the target independently with the chances 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
then compute the probability that the target is destroyed
a) 1 b) 1 c) 10 d) Cannot decide
2 11! 11

43. A business man buys washing machines from three manufacturers A, B, C. The possibilities of
buying washing machines from these manufacturers are 0.25, 0.5 and 0.25 respectively. For a
specified period of ten years the probabilities that the washing machines work properly are 0.8,
0.9 and 0.85 respectively (for A, B, C manufacturers). If the products A, B, C are mixed, find
the probability that a randomly chosen washing machine will work properly for specified time.
a) 1 b) 96.25 percent
3
c) 86.25 percent d) Product from B only work properly

44. A continuous random variable x has probability density function (pdf)

Kx 2 0  x  3
P(x) =  . Find mean = m by first finding K.
 0 otherwise
a) K = 2 m = 9 b) K = 1 m = 2 c) K = 1 m = 2 d) K = 1 m = 9
9 4 3 3 9 3 9 4

45. Given the joint probability distributions of two discrete random variable X and Y, find whether
they are independent.

X Y 1 3 6

1 1 1 1
9 6 18
P11 P12 P13
3 1 1 1
6 4 12
P21 P22 P23
6 1 1 1
18 12 36
P31 P32 P33

a) Not independent b) Independent

c) For X = Y = 1, 3 independent d) Impossible to predict

46. In a Binomial distribution if p = q , then the probability function p(x) is given by _______,
where ‘p’ is probability of success and ‘q’ is probability of failure.
a) n Cn (0.5) n b) n C x (0.5) n c) n C x p n x d) n C x p n p

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47. If ‘μ’ is the mean of Poisson distribution then P(0) is ______
a) e- μ b) e μ c) e d) e-x

48. The shape of the normal curve is ____

a) Flat b) Bell shaped c) Circular d) Spiked

49. The area under the standard normal curve is ____

a) 0 b) ∞ c) 1 d) not defined

50. Suppose a bag contains m white and n black balls. If r balls are drawn at random (with
replacement) then the probability that K of them will be white is _____
mC  nC k n-k ek K n m C  n Cr
k rk k
a) b) n C p q c) d)
m  n Cr k n! m  n Cr

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 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Master of Business Administration)
[50 MARKS]

51. The recruitment and selection process is aimed at right kind of people.
a) At right place b) At right time c) To do right things d) All of the above.

52. The _______ and the job applicant are interrelated at each step in the selection procedure.
a) Job specification b) Job Evaluation c) On the Job training d) Both (b) and (c).

53. In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions.

a) Organizing, Planning, Controlling, Leading
b) Leading, Organizing, Planning, Controlling
c) Planning, Organizing, Leading, Controlling
d) Planning, Controlling, Leading, Organizing.

54. Who is the father of 3 Needs theory?

a) Vroom b) Maslow c) McClelland d) None of above.

55. ________ is the result of human limitation to span of Management.

a) Satisfaction b) Delegation c) Motivation d) Communication.

56. Which one of the following is not true?

a) OB and Management are not related
b) OB is behavioural approach of Management
c) OB is part of Management
d) OB is human tool for human benefits.

57. Which one of the following is related as the base of OB development?

a) Scientific Management b) Administrative Management
c) Hawthorne Experiments d) System Approach.

58. What type of relation exists between morale and motivation?

a) Morale and motivation are exactly similar
b) Morale and motivation are closely related
c) There is no relation between motivation and morale
d) Motivation and morale are opposite to one another.
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59. In view of modern managements, what is considered as desirable?
a) Absence of conflict b) Completely stress free work
c) Optimum level of stress and conflict d) None.

60. Which is the basic technique of directing, that uses other techniques?
a) Communication b) Supervision c) Motivation d) Readership.

61. Managerial economics deals with applications of

a) Economic theory to business management
b) Economic theory to financial accounting
c) Economic theory to organized behaviour
d) Economic theory to statistics and management.

62. Demand curve shows the relationship between

a) Price and demand for the commodity b) Price and income for the commodity
c) Price, taste and preference d) Both (a) and (c).

63. Price discrimination in monopoly refers

a) Charging same price from different buyers
b) Charging different prices from different buyer for same goods
c) Charging different price for different product from the buyers
d) When demand price are similar.

64. Which of the following assumption is not necessary for the existence of perfect competition
a) Product are homogeneous
b) Buyers have no preference between different sellers
c) Each producer is aware of the profits made by the other
d) Buyer have knowledge of price in excess part of the market

65. Breakeven point is

a) When total revenue equal total cost
b) when total contribution equal valuable cost
c) Where total revenue equal fixed cost
d) None of above.

66. What is the main purpose of Accounting

a) Organise financial information
b) Provide useful, financial information to outsiders
c) Keep track of Company expenses
d) Minimize Company taxes.

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67. Which account is not a liability account
a) Accounts payable b) Accrued expenses c) Cash d) Notes payable.

68. Term “Credit” means _______ by the business.

a) Receiving of benefits b) It has no effect on business
c) Providing of benefits d) In depends upon items.

69. Accounting provides information on

a) Cost and income for managers
b) Company’s tax liability for a particular year
c) Financial conditions of an firm
d) All of the above.

70. Any written evidence in respect of a business transaction is called as :

a) Journal b) Ledger c) Ledger posting d) Voucher.

71. Get out production, cut the price phylosophy by Hanry Ford is an example of
a) Marketing concept b) Selling concept
c) Production concept d) Product concept.

72. Launching a product in a small part of the market is called as

a) Commercialization b) Competitive response
c) Competitive Analysis d) Test marketing.

73. According to Philip Kotler the 5th P of marketing mix is

a) Persistent b) Purpose c) Process d) People.

74. ________ refers to how an individual’s perceives a particular message

a) Consumer behavior b) Consumer interest
c) Consumer perception d) Consumer attitude.

75. One of the most basic influences on an individual needs, wants and behavior is
a) Brand b) Culture c) Product d) Price.

76. Which of the following term is used to indentify “what the Job holder does”? how it is done?
And why it is done?
a) Job specification b) Job Evaluation c) Job description d) Job Tittle.

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77. H.R.M function does not involve
a) Recruitment b) Selection c) Cost control d) Training.

78. Under which of the following authority, an HR manager took the decision to provide training
to its employee regarding the operations of newly installed machine.
a) Staff b) Line c) Implied d) Functional.

79. Recruiting employees, selecting right one for Job and giving them training leads to
a) Organizing b) Controlling c) Leading d) Staffing.

80. Human Resource management helps to improve

a) Production b) Productivity c) Profits d) Power.

81. The scope of Financial Management under modern approach was started during mid ____
a) 1920 b) 1930 c) 1950 d) 1960

82. The Finance function comprise of ______.

a) Safe custody of funds only b) Procurement of finance only
c) Expenditure of funds only d) Procurements and effective use of funds.

83. Maximization of _________ is the main goal of financial management.

a) Profit b) Value c) Shareholders wealth d) a and b.

84. The market for new issues is called _____ market.

a) Secondary b) Primary c) Spot d) Over the
counter.

85. Money markets provide funds for _______ year period.

a) Less than one b) More than one c) Less than five d) More than five.

86. Population is divided into internally heterogeneous sub groups; some are randomly selected for
further study comes under _________.
a) Simple Random sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Cluster sampling.

87. The formula for coefficient of Quartile Deviation is

Q  Q1 Q  Q1 Q  Q1 Q3  Q1
a) CQD  3 b) CQD  3 c) CQD  3 d) CQD  .
Q1  Q3 Q 3  Q1 Q3  Q1 Q3  Q1

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88. In Comparison to primary data, secondary data can be collected
a) Rapidly and easily b) At a relatively low cost
c) In a short time with less effort d) All of the above.

89. Given below are the marks of 10 students in an examination

30, 75, 70, 50, 80, 55, 65, 40, 45, 60
What is the Average score of the students?
a) 57 b) 58 c) 59 d) 60.

90. Mean Deviation is also known as

a) Quartile Deviation b) First moment of Dispersion
c) Interquartile Range d) Measures of central Tendency.

91. An Entrepreneur who owns more than one business at a time is called
a) An Intrapreneur b) A Corporate Entrepreneur
c) A Portfolio Entrepreneur d) None of the above.

92. Name the institution which was set up in 1982 to promote Integrated Rural development.
a) NSIC b) NABARD c) SIDBI d) NCEUS.

93. A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business name and sell
its products or services is known as
a) A cooperative b) An Owner Manager Business
c) A limited company d) A franchise.

94. Which of the following is a function of SIDBI?

a) Extension of seed capital b) Discounting of bills
c) Providing factoring services d) All of the above.

95. A new Venture’s business plan is important because

a) It helps to persuade other to commit funding to the venture
b) Can help to demonstrate the viability of the venture
c) Provides a guide for business activities by defining objectives
d) All of the above.

96. The first step of problem _______.

a) Finding a problem b) Selecting a problem
c) Searching problem d) Identifying problem.

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97. The depth of any research can be judged by :
a) Title of the Research b) Duration of the Research
c) Objectives of the Research d) Total expenditure on the Research.

98. The study in which the investigators attempt to trace an effect is known as :
a) Historical Research b) Survey Research
c) Summative Research d) Ex-post Facto Research

99. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?

a) Systematic Sampling Technique b) Purposive Sampling Technique
c) Area Sampling Technique d) None of the above.

100. Random Sampling is helpful as it is

a) Reasonably accurate b) Free from personal biases
c) An economical method of data collection d) All the above.

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