CHEM 6122 Inorganic and Organic Chemistry ENTIRE COURSE TEST MATERIALS - Quiz 1-6, Prelim Exam, Lab 1 Quiz - Lab 6 Quizzes, Midterm and Final Exams

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Prelim Lab Quiz 1
1. British scientist William Crookes and others were able to  PLACE CUSTOM WRITING ORDER
evacuate rarefied
tubes to a pressure of less than 106 atm in the 1870s. Crookes
tubes were
the name for these. True
2. Based on his work with atmospheric 8 0 

gases, [1], an English scientist and
meteorologist, is credited with developing
the first modern atomic theory
John Dalton
3. Johann Hittorf, an American
physicist, was the first to notice that
something had to be traveling in straight
lines from the cathode to cast
the shadows in 1869. They were given the term
cathode rays by Eugene
Goldstein. False
4. proposed the law of definite Document
composition based on his studies of chemical
compound composition. Joseph
Proust
5. Michael Faraday saw a peculiar light arc with its beginning at the
information
cathode
(negative electrode) and ending almost at the anode (positive
electrode)
when he sent a current through a rarefied air-filled glass tube in Connected school, study & course
1848.
(positive electrode). False
6. states that reactants will always combine in
whole number proportions.
Law of definite proportions
7. The building blocks
of matter are atom
8. Cathode rays are named after the positive electrode, or About the document
cathode, in a
vacuum tube, which emits them. False
9. High-velocity electrons
flow in straight lines through an empty cathode ray
tube, striking the tube's Uploaded 1 month ago
glass wall and causing excited atoms to fluoresce
or glow. True
10. A number of
scientists and thinkers, including Galileo, Newton,
Boyle, Lavoisier, and Dalton, Number of pages 41
expanded on and examined the concept of
an [1]. Atom
11. Democritus and [1],
Written in All
ancient Greek philosophers, first recorded the
concept of the atomos, an
indivisible building block of matter, in the 5th
century BCE atomic theory
12. Type QUESTIONS &
Chemical compounds are composed of a defined ratio of elements
as ANSWERS
determined by mass, according to the Law of Definite Composition
13. Any of
the most basic chemical substances that cannot be degraded
in a chemical
reaction or by any chemical means and are made up of
atoms with the same
amount of elements
14. In his book The Sceptical Chymist, published in [1],
Boyle discussed
atoms. However, according to his book A New System of Seller  Follow
Chemical
Philosophy, English chemist and meteorologist John Dalton is credited
with
developing the first modern atomic theory. Concept of ato
15. The [1]
QuizMaster
holds that mass cannot be generated or destroyed; it can
only be rearranged.
Member since 3 years ago
law of conservation of mass
16. A [1] rule is the law of various proportions. Law
of multiple
proportions
17. A chemical substance created as a result of a
981 Documents Sold
chemical reaction is
referred to as products
18. The chemist [1] is credited with
discovering the law of conservation
of mass. Antoine Lavoisier
19. he [1] is the
tiniest unit of substance that preserves its identity as a
chemical element, and is
now known to consist of a nucleus surrounded
by electrons. Atom
20. Any of Send Message
the individuals present at the onset of a chemical reaction is
referred to as a [1].
A molecule before it undergoes a chemical
transformation. reactants
g)
Midterm Lab Quiz 1
1. If light were merely a particle, it would not display the
interference pattern
exhibited in [1] experiment. double slit
2. The [1] is the Additional information
range of all electromagnetic radiation frequencies.
electromagnetic wave
3.
Wave motion can take many forms, including pressure variations in the
air,
This document has been written
transverse motions along a guitar string, and variations in the
intensities of local
for:
electric and magnetic fields in space, which make up
[1]. Waves electromagnetic
radiation
4. When using these equations to calculate wavelength, frequency, or Course Chemistry
velocity by manipulating the equation, keep in mind that wavelengths are
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Paper Category QUESTIONS &
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10/5/22, 1:43 PM CHEM 6122 Inorganic and Organic Chemistry ENTIRE COURSE TEST MATERIALS: Quiz 1-6, Prelim Exam, Lab 1 Quiz - Lab 6 Quizzes, Midterm and Final Exams.
measured in meters, centimeters, nanometers, and so on; and frequency

is ANSWERS
usually measured in or [1]. Units of cycles per second waves per second
5. The
Uploaded 1 month ago
famous double-slit experiment was carried out by English scientist [1]
in the
early nineteenth century, demonstrating that splitting a beam of
light into two Downloads  0
beams and then recombining them produces interference
effects that can only
be explained by assuming that light is a wavelike
disturbance. Thomas Young
6. Views  8
The distance traveled by the wave in a full period (1/frequency) is called
the
wavelength
7. Wave motion can be measured in three ways: amplitude,
wavelength, and
[1] (the number of vibrations per second). The propagation
velocity v
determines the relationship between the wavelength (Greek lambda)
and
frequency of a wave v (Greek nu), such that velocity frequency
8. proposed
that light's energy is related to its frequency, demonstrating
that light is made
up of discrete energy quanta. Planck's Quantum Theory
9. Diffraction and [1]
are terms that describe how a wave interacts with
something that modifies its
amplitude, such as another wave. Interference
10. The crest is the peak of each
wave, and the trough is the valley; the
amplitude is the distance between the
crest and the x-axis; and the
wavelength is the distance between two crests (or
two troughs) called [1]
wave height
11. is a phenomenon generated by the
superposition of two wave
systems, such as a broadcast signal distortion caused
by atmospheric or
other factors. Interference is a physics phenomena in which
two waves
superimpose to generate a new wave with a larger or smaller
amplitude.
Interference
12. A collective oscillation of charge carriers in bulk
material is known
as [1] (plasma oscillation). The oscillation of electrons in an
antenna is a
good example. Radio
13. is a high-frequency electromagnetic
radiation with a high energy
per photon. X-ray
14. is a form that alternates
between two maximum points in two
different directions. two-point source
interference
15. The [1] is a discrete particle with zero rest mass, no electric
charge,
and an endless lifetime that is used to describe light and other
electromagnetic energy. Neutrino
16. The greatest value of the variable in either
direction is called [1].
17. is the breaking up of an electromagnetic wave when it
travels
through a geometric structure (such as a slit), followed by interference
reconstruction of the wave. Diffraction
18. The [1] is the emission of electrons
from a material's surface as a
result of electromagnetic radiation absorption.
photoelectric effect
19. The number of vibrations per second is known as
frequency
20. When a periodic disturbance of some kind is propagated through
a
[1], wave motion occurs. deviation
g)
Prelim Lab Quiz 2
1. A chemical reaction
that absorbs heat energy from its environment is
described as endothermic
2.
The amount of force delivered across a certain area divided by the area's
size is
known as pressure
3. The cold content of a system under constant pressure is
known as its
enthalpy False
4. Potential energy is linked not just to the location
of matter, but also to the
[1] of matter. Structure
5. All particles have energy, but
it differs depending on whether the
substance is a solid, liquid, or gas; solid
particles have the least energy,
while gas particles have the most. True
6. is a
device that measures atmospheric pressure. Barometer
7. The net potential
energy liberated or absorbed during the course of a
chemical reaction is known
as chemical energy
8. The group VII elements (helium (He), neon (Ne), argon
(Ar), krypton (Kr),
xenon (Xe) and radon (Rn)) exist as monatomic gases at
standard
temperature and pressure (STP) and are called the noble gases False
9.
Gases have no definite shape or volume. True
10. One of the three classical
states of matter is a gas (the others being
liquid and solid ). True
11. Motionless
particles make up matter. False
12. The products of exothermic reactions have
less enthalpy than the
reactants, hence an exothermic reaction is said to have a
[1] enthalpy of
reaction. zero
13. At high temperatures and low pressures,
liquids behave the best.
This is because intermolecular forces will be minimal at
these conditions.
False
14. is a quality of objects that may be transmitted from
one object to
another or converted into new forms, but it cannot be generated
or
destroyed. Energy
15. The derived unit of force in the International System of
Units; the
force necessary to propel a mass of one kilogram one meter per
second
per second; symbol: N
16. The intermolecular interactions between
molecules in the gas phase
are minimal. True
17. is the energy that an object
possesses as a result of its position (in
a gravitational or electric field) or its state
(as a stretched or compressed
spring, as a chemical reactant, or by having rest
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mass). Kinetic
18. The coldest conceivable temperature, zero on the Kelvin scale,
or
approximately 273.15 °C, 459.67 °F; entire lack of heat; temperature at
which
all molecules stop moving. True
19. If a substance's boiling point is greater than
273 K, it will be in
gaseous form at STP. False
20. A chemical reaction that emits
heat energy into its surroundings is
described exothermic
g)
Midterm Lab Quiz
2
1. The number of electron shells in elements of the same period is the same.
True
2. A positively charged ion is referred to as a cation
3. Chemical knowledge
extended throughout cultures, and by the mideighteenth century, 43 elements
had been identified. False
4. is a form of chemical bond in which one atom loses
its valence electrons
and gains them from another. Ionic bond
5. A process that
transfers heat into its surroundings is known as an [1]
reaction. Exothermic
6.
The periodic table is a systematic organization of chemical elements
ordered
according to their electron configurations. True
7. The ability of an atom to
attract electrons to itself is known as
electronegativity
8. The binding strength
of an ionic substance is measured by ionic charge
9. A negatively charged ion is
known as an anion
10. The transfer of an electron from a metal atom to a [1]
atom forms
an ionic connection. non-metal
11. Mendeleev's periodic chart has
been updated to include a total of
128 elements. The atomic number is the
number above the symbol in the
periodic table that represents the number of
protons in the nucleus. The
sum of neutrons and protons determines the atomic
mass. False
12. Joseph Proust and others experimented with the Law of Definite
Proportions at the turn of the nineteenth century. True
13. The origins of atomic
theory may be traced back to ancient Greek
and Hellenistic Egyptian
intellectuals. True
14. The modern hunt for a universal remedy and the
philosopher's
stone is known as alchemy. Chemistry emerged as a result of the
process.
False
15. An [1] is an ionic chemical that dissolves in water and allows
the
solution to conduct electricity. Electrolyte
16. The nucleus of the most
common isotope of hydrogen, made of two
up quarks and a down quark, is a
negatively charged subatomic particle
that is part of the nucleus of an atom and
determines the atomic number
of an element. False
17. is a monatomic element
that is inert or non-reactive, with very few
exceptions, and belongs to group 18
of the periodic table. Noble gases
18. The Aufbau principle outlines the filling of
orbitals and the
construction of atoms with known electronic configurations in a
step-bystep manner. True
19. The [1] and radius of the bound ions are two
major elements that
influence the magnitude of the lattice energy. Charge
20. A
simplified model of an atom was proposed by Neils Bohr, with a
central nucleus
surrounded by electrons in specified energy levels. True
g)
Prelim Lab Exam
1.
Molar ratios can be used to determine all of the following EXCEPT: the
absolute
amount of each product that will be formed in a given
transformation
2. Which
of the follow equations can be used to calculate the percent yield of
a chemical
reaction
(actual yield)/(theoretical yield)*100
3. Which of the following can be
determined from a balanced chemical
equation?
All of these answers
4.
Potential energy is the energy associated with moving objects. False
5. What
kind of energy is depicted in the image? CHEMICAL
6. Determine the amount of
aluminum bromide formed when 50 mL of
bromine (density: 3.11g/mL) is
reacted with 30 grams of aluminum in the
following reaction: 3Br2 + 2Al →→
2AlBr3 259g
7. How many moles are 132 g of pure CaCl2 ? 1.19 moles.
8. Energy
is required for organisms to survive, grow, respond to stimuli,
reproduce, and
carry out all other biological processes. True
9. What kind of energy is depicted
in the image? POTENTIAL
10. What kind of energy is depicted in the image?
CHEMICAL
11. Chemical energy is found in the molecules of gasoline (octane,
the
chemical formula given). This energy is converted to kinetic energy, which
enables a car to race on a track. True
12. The Greeks called these particles
atomos, which means
"indivisible," from which the current word "atom" is
derived. Democritus
proposed that the various forms of matter were caused by
different sorts
and combinations of these particles. True
13. 290.23 mg of
ethanol (C2H5OH) is reacted with excess oxygen to
provide 484.11 mg of
carbon dioxide via the chemical reaction:s C2H5OH +
2O2 →→ 3H2O + 2CO2 .
What is the percent yield of this reaction? 87.3%
14. Chemical energy is a sort of
energy that is released when chemical
bonds are broken and can be used in
metabolic activities. True
15. What kind of energy is depicted in the image?
KINETIC
16. Newton's theories were not widely accepted for most of the
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nineteenth century, but his concepts have now been accepted, with
changes
addressing subatomic particles and energy and mass
interconversion. True
17.
Water behind a dam has kinetic energy. Moving water, such as in a
waterfall or
a rapidly flowing river, has potential energy. False
18. Determine the limiting
reagent if 164 grams of calcium carbonate is
reacted with 450 grams of
hydroiodic acid in the following
reaction: CaCO3 + 2HI →→ CaI2 + H2O + CO2.
CaCO3
19. What kind of energy is depicted in the image? POTENTIAL
20.
Determine the limiting reagent if 164 grams of calcium carbonate is
reacted
with 450 grams of hydroiodic acid in the following reaction:
CaCO3 + 2HI →→
CaI2 + H2O + CO2 . CaCO3
g)
Midterm Lab Exam
1. In actuality, [1] density is
shared among the constituent atoms, implying
that all bonds are covalent in
some way. True
2. Certain occurrences require the phase associated with a wave
to be
described. True
3. The simplest whole-number ratio between elements in a
compound's
formula is called an [1]. empirical formula
4. The tendency of an
atom to attract electrons to itself is measured by [1].
Electronegativity
5.
Determine the frequency or photon energy of electromagnetic waves, as
well as
the two physical aspects of electromagnetic waves. False
6. Interference is a
phenomena in which two waves collide, resulting in a
wave with a larger or
smaller amplitude. True
7. Transition metals are the eight middle groups of the
periodic table's
fourth, fifth, sixth, and seventh periods. False
8. The f-block
electrons give the lanthanide and actinide series their
characteristics. True
9.
When a transition metal complex has only one unpaired d electron, it is
called
paramagnetic. False
10. The crystal lattice of sodium chloride is known as [1].
Simple cubic
11. An ion made up of many atoms is known as a polyatomic
12.
The constituent ions in ionic formulations must have noble gas
configurations,
and the resultant compound must be electrically [1].
Neutral
13. When an atom,
molecule, or compound has no surplus or deficit of
electrons, it is said to be [1]
electrically neutral
14. The partial sharing of electrons between atoms with an
ionic bond is
known as covalent bonds
15. The catalytic properties of transition
metals and related derivatives
are well recognized. True
16. Diffraction is a
physics phenomena in which two waves
superimpose to generate a new wave
with a larger or smaller amplitude.
False
17. A [1] is a covalent connection with a
partial ionic character due to
the electronegativity difference between the two
connecting atoms. polar
covalent bond
18. The electromagnetic spectrum has
wavelengths ranging from
thousands of kilometers down to a fraction of an
atom's size, from below
the high frequencies employed in modern radio
communication to gamma
radiation at the short-wavelength (high-frequency)
end. False
19. character can be found in ionic bonding.
20. The electronic
transitions of three main types of charge transfer
transitions cause color in
transition-series metal compounds. False
g)
Final Lab Quiz 2
1. An atom or
group of atoms with an electrical charge, such as sodium and
chlorine atoms in
a salt solution, is referred to as an ion
2. The attractive and repulsive interactions
between molecules are called
Intermolecular forces
3. An [1], which occurs when
water solvates ions in solution, is another
common example of these forces at
work. ion-dipole interaction
4. The science of energy conversions between heat
and other types of
energy is known as thermodynamics
5. To form a solution,
there are two conceptual processes, each
corresponding to one of the two
opposing forces that determine solubility
6. The unpredictability or spread-
outness of a set of molecules is referred to
as [1]. Increasing the level of
randomness is beneficial uncertainty
principle
7. When a solution is generated,
it increases in [1], which is one of the many
driving forces in this process.
Entropy
8. To form a solution, solute and [1] molecules must be more attracted
to
each other than they are to each other. Solvent
9. to overcome significant
coulombic pull, electrically charged ions interact
with water via ion-dipole
interactions, resulting in an [1] solution. Aqueous
10. The stabilizing interactions
that happen when ions dissolve in water
produce energy known as the
electrolytes
g)
Final Lab Quiz 2
1. An atom or group of atoms with an electrical
charge, such as sodium and
chlorine atoms in a salt solution, is referred to as an
ion
2. The attractive and repulsive interactions between molecules are called
Intermolecular forces
3. An [1], which occurs when water solvates ions in
solution, is another
common example of these forces at work. ion-dipole
interaction
4. The science of energy conversions between heat and other types
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of
energy is known as thermodynamics
5. To form a solution, there are two
conceptual processes, each
corresponding to one of the two opposing forces
that determine solubility
6. The unpredictability or spread-outness of a set of
molecules is referred to
as [1]. Increasing the level of randomness is beneficial
uncertainty
principle
7. When a solution is generated, it increases in [1], which is
one of the many
driving forces in this process. Entropy
8. To form a solution,
solute and [1] molecules must be more attracted to
each other than they are to
each other. Solvent
9. to overcome significant coulombic pull, electrically
charged ions interact
with water via ion-dipole interactions, resulting in an [1]
solution. Aqueous
10. The stabilizing interactions that happen when ions
dissolve in water
produce energy known as the electrolytes
g)
Final Lab Quiz 1
1. A component of a material system characterized by chemical composition
and/or physical condition is called a [1]. There are three phases of matter:
solid,
liquid, and gaseous. Matter
2. The movement of particles from a high
concentration to a low
concentration is known as diffusion
3. The average [1]
energy of the particles is measured by the temperature of
a substance. Kinetic
4.
consists of constantly moving particles. Matter
5. The [1] describes how matter
transitions between solid, liquid, and gas
phases. Phase transition
6. is a word
that means "moving" or "moving.
7. A uniform spacing or arrangement of
atoms/molecules within a crystal is
called a lattice
8. The energy of [1] particles
is the lowest, whereas the energy of gas
particles is the highest. Solid
9.
particles contain more energy and, on average, are separated from one
another
by distances far greater than the size of the atoms/molecules.
Gas
10. The
energy of all particles fluctuates based on the temperature of
the sample of
matter, which defines whether the substance is a solid, [1],
or gas. liquid
g)
Final
Lab Exam
1. In a solution, water molecules (gray/green for hydrogen, orange for
oxygen) surround a sodium cation. It's worth noting that the negative
dipole, or
oxygen molecules, is 'facing' the Na+. True
2. To overcome significant
coulombic pull, electrically charged ions interact
with water via ion-dipole
interactions, resulting in an aqueous solution.
True
3. When a solution is
generated, entropy decreases, which is one of the
many driving forces for this
process. False
4. Entropy is a thermodynamic quantity that represents the
amount of
thermal energy in a system per unit temperature that is not available
for
meaningful work. True
5. Ion hydration is a thermodynamically
advantageous process that can
release heat. It's for this reason that it's known
as the "heat of hydration."
True
6. Solvation can be aided by a variety of
intermolecular forces, including
hydrogen bonding, dipole-dipole forces, Van
der Waals forces, and iondipole interactions. True
7. The science of energy
conversions between heat and other types of
energy is known as physics. False
8. The heat emitted by hydration of one mole of ions at a changing pressure
is
known as heat of hydration. The more hydrated an ion is, the more heat
it
emits. False
9. Intermolecular forces are forces that attract and repel atoms.
False
10. The stabilizing contacts that emerge when ions dissolve in gas
release
energy known as the "heat of hydration." False
Inorganic and Organic Chemistry
Final Exam
1. What is the average atomic mass of a bromine atom given the
following
information: the two major isotopes of bromine are bromine-79 with
an
abundance of 50.69% and bromine-81 with an abundance of 49.31%.
79.99
amu
2. You are given a solution, at equilibrium, containing 1.25M neon gas in
water under a neon atmosphere at 1.43 atm. If the pressure of the neon
gas is
increased to 2.05 atm, what will the concentration of the gas in the
water be?
1.79M
3. Nitrogen gas has a pressure of 452 mm Hg. What is the pressure in
atmospheres? 0.595 atm
4. A regular spacing or arrangement of geometric
points, is called a lattice
5. At constant pressure, the following equation is
applied:
ΔH=ΔU+w=ΔU+PΔV
6. A cathode ray is a beam of which of the
following subatomic particles?
Electrons.
7. [1] character can be found in ionic
bonding.
8. Which of the following statements represents the BEST first step for
attempting to draw a Lewis structure? Form a structure by connecting all
the
atoms by single bonds
9. Which of the following is NOT a basic premise of the
Kinetic Theory of
Matter? Matter always exists in the gas phase at Standard
Temperature
and Pressure (STP).
10. Which gas law states that at a given
temperature and pressure all
gases will contain the same number of molecules?
Avogadro's Law
11. How many moles are 132 g of pure CaCl2 ? 1.19 moles
12.
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Both covalent bonds and ionic bonds involve: The equal sharing of
electrons
within the bond.
13. The stabilizing contacts that emerge when ions dissolve in
gas
release energy known as the "heat of hydration." False
14. Planck postulated
that the energy of light is: proportional to the
frequency.
15. What is the
pressure in atmospheres of a gas mixture that consists
of 0.200 moles of
nitrogen and 0.300 moles of oxygen in a 1250 mL
container at 0Â°C?
8.97 atm
16. The tendency of an atom to attract electrons to itself is measured
by
electronegativity
17. Ionic crystals have the following properties. Long range
order
18. Determine the limiting reagent if 164 grams of calcium carbonate is
reacted with 450 grams of hydroiodic acid in the following
reaction: CaCO3 +
2HI →→ CaI2 + H2O + CO2. CaCO3
19. All of the following statements are true
EXCEPT: ionic bonds tend to
be more directional than covalent bonds, which are
generally electrostatic
20. Which of the following ionic formulas is INCORRECT?
CaCl
21. Which of the following people developed the framework for the
modern periodic table? Dmitri Mendeleev
22. Surface tension is: a contractive
tendency of the surface of a liquid
that allows it to resist an external force.
23.
One photon of light carries exactly: one quantum of energy.
24. Which of the
following elements is considered a transition metal, or
d-block, element?
Copper
25. All of the following are examples of hydrophobic colloids EXCEPT:
Gelatin in water
26. In actuality, [1] density is shared among the constituent
atoms,
implying that all bonds are covalent in some way.
27. Which of the
following produces radiation with the highest
frequency? microwave oven
28.
Which of the following is an example of an f-block element?
Uranium
29. Which
of the following measurements used in radiometric dating
can be used to
determine the age of fossils? The current half-life of a
stable radioisotope in the
sample
30. The best way to determine the heat content of a cookie with a
bomb
calorimeter is to: Calculate the heat of reaction from the change in
temperature
of the water
31. Which of the following statements about polyatomic molecules
are
true?A) Polyatomic molecules are electrically neutral groups of three or
more atoms held together by covalent bonds.B) A given polyatomic
molecule
always has the same ratio of atoms. A and B are true
32. The rise or fall of liquid
in a capillary tube is governed by: the
surface tension and adhesive forces.
33.
Which of the following describes the concentration of NaCl in the
saline
solution often given to medical patients? Nearly isotonic with blood
plasma
34.
What kind of energy is depicted in the image? KINETIC
35. Boyle's Law states
that the pressure and volume of a gas are
inversely proportional. Which of the
following assumptions are NOT
required for this relationship to hold? The gas
must be diatomic.
36. Two examples of closest packing in crystals are:
hexagonal, which
has 8 atoms per unit cell, and cubic, which has 4 atoms per
unit cell.
37. Determine the frequency or photon energy of electromagnetic
waves, as well as the two physical aspects of electromagnetic waves. True
38.
Which of the following elements is a d-block element? Copper
39. If the
molecular formula of butane is C4H10, what is its empirical
formula? C2H5
40.
What is the base SI unit for pressure? pascal (Pa)
41. To overcome significant
coulombic pull, electrically charged ions
interact with water via ion-dipole
interactions, resulting in an aqueous
solution. True
42. Which noble gas symbol
would be used for the noble gas notation
for the electron configuration of
silver? Krypton
43. You are given an aqueous solution of sodium chloride that is
saturated and has crystals of sodium chloride floating in it. What will
happen to
the sodium chloride crystals as you raise the temperature? they
will begin to
dissolve
44. What kind of energy is depicted in the image? CHEMICAL
45. One
liter of substance X requires 10 J of heat to achieve a Î”T=
100K, how much heat
does two liters require? 20 J
46. Predict the molecular formula of the compound
with the structural
formula HOCH2CH2CH2CH2OH C4H10O2
47. What volume
in mL of 0.453 M NaCl solution contains 25.0 g of NaCl
(molar mass = 58.5
g/mol)? 943 mL
48. Which of the following is a characteristic property of the
transition
metal elements?
All of these answers
49. Which of the following are
emitted from matter due to the
photoelectric effect? Electrons
50. What is the
molar mass of of CuSO4 â€¢ 5 H2O ? 249.685 g/mol
g)
Inorganic and Organic
Chemistry Quiz 1
10/10
1. Which of the following statements accurately
describes the locations of
the three subatomic particles that make up an atom?
The protons and
neutrons are in the nucleus, while the electrons orbit the
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nucleus.
2. A cathode ray is a beam of which of the following subatomic
particles?
Electrons.
3. Which of the following is the correct definition for the
Law of Conservation
of Mass as expressed by Lavoisier in 1789? Despite
chemical reactions or
physical transformations, mass is conserved within an
isolated system.
4. Which of the following is the correct definition of the law of
multiple
proportions? If two elements can form multiple compounds, the ratios
of
the masses of the two elements in those compounds can be expressed as
a
ratio
5. Which of the following statements correctly describes the relative
charges
of the three subatomic particles? Protons are positive, neutrons are
neutral, electrons are negative.
6. Which of the following statements correctly
describes the relative masses
of the three subatomic particles? Protons and
neutrons weigh the same,
electrons weigh much less.
7. All of the following are
main points of Dalton's Atomic Theory EXCEPT:
Equal mass quantities of two
different compounds should have the same
number of atoms.
8. All of the
following were major findings of Millikan's Oil Drop Experiment
EXCEPT: The
charge of a proton and an electron is of equivalent
magnitude but of the
opposite s
9. Which of the following is the correct definition for the Law of
Definite
Composition? Chemical compounds are formed of constant and
defined
ratios of elements, as determined by mass.
10. All of the following are
examples of Dalton's theories of atomic structure
and reactivity EXCEPT: The
fundamental structure of atoms can change
during chemical reactions.
g)
Inorganic and Organic Chemistry Quiz 2
19/20
1. A 6.75 g sample of gold
(specific heat capacity = 0.13 J/g Â°C) is heated
using 50.6 J of energy. If the
original temperature of the gold is 25 Â°C,
what is its final temperature? 82.7
Â°C
2. A slinky at the top of a staircase has: potential energy
3. At constant
pressure, the following equation is applied:
ΔH=ΔU+w=ΔU+PΔV
4. What is the
sign of the enthalpy change for an endothermic reaction?
Positive
5. A 5.10 g
sample of iron is heated from 36.0Â°C to 75.0Â°C. The amount of
energy
required in 89.5 J. What is the specific heat capacity of iron? 0.450
J/g Â°C
6. A
bomb calorimeter measures: heat of combustion of a reaction.
7. Thermal work,
in the context of an enclosed chemical system, is defined
as the:
change in the
temperature within the system multiplied by a volume
variable.
8. One liter of
substance X requires 10 J of heat to achieve a Î”T= 100K, how
much heat does
two liters require? 20 J
9. A complex carbohydrate, such as a starch, contains
many chemical
bonds. This is an example of: potential energy in the form of
chemical
energy
10. Heat capacity (C) is the: amount of energy required to
change a
substance's temperature by a given amount.
11. A 350.0g sample of
metal is heated to 100.0Â°C, then dropped into
400.0g of water at 21.4Â°C. The
temperature of the water rises to
28.0Â°C. Assuming there is no heat lost to the
surroundings, what is the
heat capacity of the metal? (specific heat of water =
4.184 J/g Â°C) 0.438
J/g Â
12. In a thermodynamic process occurring at constant
volume, no work is
performed, and the change in internal energy of the system
is equal to
the heat gained or lost by the system.
13. What is the sign of the
enthalpy change for an exothermic reaction?
Negative
14. Choose the correct
description of endothermic and exothermic processes:
endothermic: absorb
energy, non-spontaneous and have a positive
change in enthalpy.
15. Which
statement regarding the relationship between work and heat
is accurate?
Work
can be completely converted into heat, but heat can only be
partially converted
into work.
16. Exothermic reactions: Release energy
17. The best way to
determine the heat content of a cookie with a bomb
calorimeter is to: Calculate
the heat of reaction from the change in
temperature of the water
18. A reaction
that releases heat to its surroundings are: exothermic and have
a negative
enthalpy of reaction.
19. The first law of thermodynamic states that: energy
cannot be created or
destroyed, but can be transferred or transformed.
20.
What can be said about the following thermochemical
equation?
A+B→C,ΔH=100kJ The reaction is endothermic; the value of
Î”H depends on
reactant and product concentration
g)
Inorganic and Organic Chemistry
Midterm Exam
1. When the molecule F2 is formed, the 2s and 2pz orbitals have
the proper
symmetry to mix and form a new set of molecular orbitals. How
many
molecular orbitals will be formed from this particular interaction? 4
2. One
of certain integers or half-integers that specify the state of a quantum
mechanical system (such as an electron in an atom). quantum number
3. Which
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of the following combinations of two elements is most likely to

produce highly
ionic bonds? lithium and fluorine
4. Which of the following is the most accurate
description of a valence
electron? an electron in the outermost shell of an atom
5. Which of the following is a characteristic property of the transition metal
elements? All of these answers
6. According to VSEPR Theory, a silicon atom
with four surrounding bonds
would produce which geometry? tetrahedral
7.
Which property refers to the hypothetical charge that a
molecule/compound
would have if all bonds were purely ionic? Oxidation
Number
8. Please explain
why, in the molecule HF, the 1s and F2s orbitals do not
interact to form a
molecular orbital. the interaction does not occur
because 2s is substantially
lower in energy than the H 1s orbital
9. Which of the following statements
about polyatomic molecules are true?A)
Polyatomic molecules are electrically
neutral groups of three or more
atoms held together by covalent bonds.B) A
given polyatomic molecule
always has the same ratio of atoms. A is true, B is
false A and B are false
A and B are true B is true, A is false
10. Which of the
following are properties of homonuclear diatomic
molecules:a) composed of
two of the same elementsb) linear geometryc)
non polard) formed primarily by
nobel gases a, b, c
11. Assuming the aluminum atom of the molecule
AlCl3 is
sp2 hybridized, which of the following best describes the geometry
of this
compound? ° trigonal planar with Cl-Al-Cl bonds of approximately
120Â°
12.
The collective states of all electrons in an atom having the same
principal
quantum number (visualized as an orbit in which the electrons
move). electron
shell
13. The element phosphorus has 15 protons in its nucleus. Predict on
which row of the periodic table it is located. row 3
14. Which of the following
factors would contribute to highly polar
chemical bond?
atoms Wide deviation
in the electronegativities of the bonded atoms
15. The element sulfur is located
on the third row of the periodic table
and has 6 electrons in its outer shell.
Based on this information, what is
the atomic number of sulfur? n=16
16. Which
noble gas symbol would be used for the noble gas notation
for the electron
configuration of silver? krypton
17. All of the following are characteristics of f-
block elements EXCEPT:
because of their large size they are highly unreactive
18. What is the frequency in megahertz of a radio set that is
broadcasting at
99.9 meters? (1 Hz = 1 cycle per second; speed of light
= 3.0 x 108 m/s; 1nm =
1.0 x 10-9 m) 3.00 MHz
19. A specification of the energy and probability density
of an electron
at any point in an atom or molecule. orbital
20. Which of the
following elements is considered a transition metal, or
d-block, element?
copper
21. When diatomic bromine is formed, two s orbitals combine to
produce one Ïƒ bond and one Ïƒ* antibond. Which of the following
statements
is true about the relative energies of these two bonds? The Ïƒ
bond is lower in
energy than the Ïƒ* bond.
22. Which of the following best describes valence
bond theory? overlap
between two valence orbitals with an unpaired electron
forms a covalent
bond between two atoms
23. Which molecule contains at least
one double bond? CO2
24. The Lewis structure of HCN contains: one triple
bond and one single
bond
25. According to Valence Shell Electron Pair
Repulsion Theory (VSEPR),
what number of bonded atoms is normally expected
to produce a trigonal
planar geometry? four
26. Lattice energies _____________.
are correlated with the charge and
radius of the component ions
27. What
element has the electron configuration [Rn] 5f3 6d1 7s2? U
28. If the frequency
is observed to be 1.00 x 1012 Hz for a microwave
signal, what is the wavelength
of this radiation in centimeters? (1 Hz = 1
cycle per second; speed of light = 3.0
x 108 m/s; 1 cm = 1.0 x 10-2 m)
3.00 x 10-2 cm
29. Which noble gas symbol
would be used for the noble gas notation
for the electron configuration of the
element platinum? Xe
30. Which of the following is an indicator of the degree of
oxidation an
atom in a chemical compound ? Oxidation Number Polarity
31. All
of the following statements are true EXCEPT: ionic bonds tend to
be more
directional than covalent bonds, which are generally electrostatic
32. A bent
molecular geometry is associated with molecules in which
the central atom has
which of the following? Two bonding groups and two
free electron pair
33.
What periodic trend would be most useful in determining the ionic
bond
character of a bond? Electronegativity
34. Which of the following elements is a
d-block element? Copper
35. Which of the following people developed the
framework for the
36. Which of the
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following is an example of an f-block element?

Uranium
37. How many valence
electrons are expected for an element that is in
the halogen group of the
periodic table? seven
38. According to Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion
Theory (VSEPR),
what number of bonded atoms is normally expected to
produce a
tetrahedral geometry? four
39. A local radio station has a frequency
of 98.6 megahertz (MHz). What
is the wavelength of this station in centimeters?
(1 MHz = 1.00 x
106 cycles per second; 1 Hz = 1 cycle per second; Speed of
light =3.0 x
108 m/s; 1 nm = 1.0 x 10-9 m) 3.00
40. One of certain integers or
half-integers that specify the state of a
quantum mechanical system (such as an
elec indeterminacytron in an
atom) quantum number indeterminacy
41. What is
the correct electron configuration for an iron(III) ion3d3
[Ar] 3d5
42. Which of
the following effects leads to an observed dipole moment
in chemical bonds?
an unequal sharing of electrons, leading to two
negatively charged poles of the
bond an unequal sharing of electrons,
leading to two positively charged poles
of the bond
43. What is the frequency in megahertz of a radio station that
broadcasts at a wavelength of 325 centimeters? (1 MHz = 1.00 x
106 cycles per
second; 1 Hz = 1 cycle per second; speed of light = 3.0
x 108 m/s; 1 cm = 1.0 x
10-2 M) 92.2
44. If red light has a frequency of 4.28 x 1014 Hz,
what is
the wavelength of this light? (1 Hz = 1 cycle per second; speed of light
=
3.0 x 108 m/s; 1 nm = 1.0 x 10-9 m) 700
45. Which noble gas symbol would be
used for the noble-gas notation
for the electron configuration of silver? krypton
46. What types of orbitals does the central carbon in acetone, CH2O ,
use to
form bonds with the hydrogen atoms? sp2
47. Which of the following people
developed the framework for the
48.
According to the principles of molecular orbital theory, why does the
molecule
Ne2 not form?
The filled antibonding orbital destabilizes the interaction.
49.
Which of the following atom pairs include atoms that won't satisfy
the octet
rule? K and Br
50. All of the following physical properties can be explained by
the
covalent bonding model EXCEPT: Electronegativity
g)
Chemistry Quiz 3
1. What are the three measurable properties of wave motion?
amplitude,
wavelength and frequency
2. Photon energy and wave frequency
are: directly proportional.
3. Which of the following are emitted from matter due
to the photoelectric
effect? Electrons
4. Planck postulated that the energy of
light is: proportional to the
frequency.
5. Young's double slit experiment showed
that: light shined at two slits in a
screen produces an interference pattern
characteristic of waves.
6. Diffraction is described as: the apparent bending of
waves around small
obstacles and spreading out of waves past small openings.
7. A local radio station has a frequency of 98.6 megahertz (MHz). What is the
wavelength of this station in centimeters? (1 MHz = 1.00 x 106 cycles per
second; 1 Hz = 1 cycle per second; Speed of light =3.0 x 108 m/s; 1 nm = 1.0
x
10-9 m) 3.00 MHz
8. Three physical properties of electromagnetic waves are:
frequency,
wavelength and photon energy
9. Which of the following statements
is NOT correct in regards to
interference? Constructive interference is when a
crest of one wave meets
a trough of another wave.
10. Interference is a
phenomenon in which: waves superimpose to form a
resultant wave of greater
or lower amplitude.
11. If the frequency is observed to be 1.00 x 1012 Hz for a
microwave signal,
what is the wavelength of this radiation in centimeters? (1 Hz
= 1 cycle
per second; speed of light = 3.0 x 108 m/s; 1 cm = 1.0 x 10-2 m) 3.00 x
10-2 cm
12. Wavelength and wave frequency are: inversely proportional.
13. If
red light has a frequency of 4.28 x 1014 Hz, what is the
wavelength of this light? (1 Hz = 1 cycle per second; speed of light = 3.0 x
108
m/s; 1 nm = 1.0 x 10-9 m) 700 nm
14. What is the frequency in megahertz of a
radio station that broadcasts at a
wavelength of 325 centimeters? (1 MHz = 1.00
x 106 cycles per second; 1
Hz = 1 cycle per second; speed of light = 3.0 x 108
m/s; 1 cm = 1.0 x 10-2 M)
92.2 MHz
15. One photon of light carries exactly: one
quantum of energy.
16. Which region of the spectrum and matching description
is NOT accurate?
excitation of molecular and atomic valence electrons
17.
Which of the following produces radiation with the highest frequency?
microwave oven
18. Wave motion arises when:
a periodic disturbance is
propagated through a medium.
19. Which of the following has the longest
wavelength? Red light
20. What is the frequency in megahertz of a radio set
that is broadcasting at
99.9 meters? (1 Hz = 1 cycle per second; speed of light =
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3.0 x 108 m/s;

1nm = 1.0 x 10-9 m) 3.00 MHz
g)
Chemistry Quiz 4
18/20
1. Which of the following ionic formulas is INCORRECT?
CaCl
2. Which of the following elements is most likely to participate in the
formation of multiple bonds? S
3. Which molecule contains at least one double
bond? CO2
4. All of the following physical properties can be explained by the
covalent
bonding model EXCEPT: Electronegativity
5. The Lewis structure of
HCN contains: one triple bond and one single bond
facts about Lewis structures is FALSE? Lewis
structures _________. can be used to
show elements or molecules
7. Draw the Lewis structure for nitrate (NO3-) .
How many lone pairs does it
have?
8
8. Lattice energies _____________. are
correlated with the charge and radius of
the component ions estimate the
strength of covalent bonds
9. Which of the following correctly describes the
bond in hydrogen gas? 1s
atomic orbital overlaps with 1s atomic orbital to form
sigma bond
10. Which of the following is an indicator of the degree of oxidation
an atom in
a chemical compound ? Oxidation Number
11. Which of the
following does NOT accurately describe a feature of ionic
bonding? Electrons
are shared in ionic bonds.
12. Which of the following pairs of atoms is likely to
form a covalent bond? Se
and O
13. Which property refers to the hypothetical
charge that a
molecule/compound would have if all bonds were purely ionic?
Oxidation
Number
14. Which of the following atom pairs include atoms that
won't satisfy the
octet rule? Na and H
15. What types of orbitals does the
central carbon in acetone, CH2O , use to
form bonds with the hydrogen atoms?
sp2
16. What periodic trend would be most useful in determining the ionic
bond
character of a bond? ionization energy
statements represents the BEST first step for
attempting to draw a Lewis
structure? Form a structure by connecting all
the atoms by single bonds
18.
Which of the following best describes the variation of the electronegativity
of
the elements with respect to their position on the periodic table?
increases
across a period; decreases down a group
19. Which of the following two
elements is most likely to produce highly ionic
bonds? lithium and fluorine
20.
Which of the following atoms would be shown with 7 electrons in its Lewis
structure? None of these answers
g)
20/20
1. Capillary action acts on: concave menisci to pull the liquid up,
increasing
the contact area between liquid and container.
2. The rise or fall of
liquid in a capillary tube is governed by: the surface
tension and adhesive
forces.
3. Which of the following terms mean "of or relating to motion"? kinetic
4. Why don't covalent solids conduct electricity? Because there are no
delocalized electrons.
5. According to the kinetic molecular theory, which
observable property of
matter is related to the average kinetic energy of the
particles in it?
Temperature
6. Dispersion forces are caused by: a temporary
dipole moment.
7. Two examples of closest packing in crystals are: hexagonal,
which has 8
atoms per unit cell, and cubic, which has 4 atoms per unit cell.
8.
Hydrogen bonding is partly responsible for: secondary, tertiary and
quaternary
structures.
9. Ionic crystals have the following properties. Long range order
10.
Surface tension is responsible for the: curvature of the surfaces of
air/liquid &
the shape of the interface between two immiscible
liquids.
11. A coordination
number corresponds to the number of: spheres within the
crystalline structure
that touch the sphere that is being evaluated.
12. For what purpose is the
method of x-ray crystallography used?
To determine the arrangement of atoms
within the molecules making up a
crystal.
13. A dipole is: two opposite charges
closely spaced to each other.
14. The structure of an ionic crystal is: a crystal
lattice and tend to be hard
and have high melting points.
15. An ion-dipole
force is a result of the interaction between: an an ion and a
polar molecule; the
strength is proportionate to the ion charge
16. Surface tension is: a contractive
tendency of the surface of a liquid that
allows it to resist an external force.
17. A
regular spacing or arrangement of geometric points, is called a
lattice
18. Lattice
energy is: released when two ions join and is the sum of all the
interactions
within in the crystal.
19. Viscosity is a measure of:
the resistance of a fluid that is
being deformed by either shear stress or
tensile stress.
20. Which statement
most accurately describes hydrogen bonding? A
hydrogen bond is a strong
intermolecular force created by hydrogen and
an electronegative atom.
g)
20/20
1. What is the molality of a
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solution in which 701.3 g of NaCl is disolved in

240 kg of H2O? 0.05 molal
2.
Which of the following equations will provide the correct mole percentage
of a
compound from its given mole fraction? (mole percentage) = 100 x
(mole
fraction)
3. In order for a given solute to dissolve in a solvent and form a
solution,
which of the following sets of two conceptual steps must occur?
dispersion
and salvation
4. Which of the following statements describes the
effect of a solute on the
freezing point of a solvent? decreases the freezing
point by an amount
that is proportional to the molality of the solution
5. Which
of the following statements describes the effect of a solute on the
boiling point
of a solvent? increases the boiling point by an amount that is
proportional to
the molality of the solution
6. Which of the following factors is an entropic
consideration that contributes
to the tendency of solutes to dissolve and form
solutions? Randomness
7. The vapor pressure of pure water is 23.8 torr at
25.0Â°C. 23.8 torr
8. Which of the following describes the concentration of NaCl
in the saline
solution often given to medical patients? Nearly isotonic with
blood
plasma
9. 4 liters of a 0.24 M aqueous solution of NaBr is diluted with
enough water
to provide 12 liters of solution. What is the final concentration of
this
solution? 0.08 M
10. Which of the following is NOT a colligative property?
Molality
11. You are given an aqueous solution of sodium chloride that is
saturated and
has crystals of sodium chloride floating in it. What will happen to
the
sodium chloride crystals as you raise the temperature? they will begin to
dissolve
12. You are attempting to dissolve sodium sulfate in water. Given the
relative
energies for the lattice energy and heat of hydration, predict whether
sodium sulfate will be soluble in water.lattice energy: 56.8 kcal/molheat of
hydration: -79.2 kcal/mol sodium sulfate will be soluble in water
13. What
volume in mL of 0.453 M NaCl solution contains 25.0 g of NaCl
(molar mass =
58.5 g/mol)? 943 mL
14. What is the molarity of a solution containing 116.9
grams of NaCl
dissolved in enough water to make 5 liters of solution? 0.4 M
15.
Rank the following in terms of increasing osmotic pressure:a) pure waterb)
0.2
M glucosec) 0.5 M sucrose a < b < c
16. All of the following are examples of
hydrophobic colloids EXCEPT:
Gelatin in water
17. Rank the following three
solutions in terms of INCREASING vapor pressure:
a) pure H2O b) 1.2 M MgCl2
in H2O c) 0.8 M MgCl2 in H2O b < c < a
18. As you cool a solution of a
nonpolar gas in water, what happens to the
solubility of the gas? it goes up
19.
Under which set of circumstances will an ionic solid dissolve in water? the
heat
of hydration is greater than the lattice energy
20. You are given a solution, at
equilibrium, containing 1.25M neon gas in
water under a neon atmosphere at
1.43 atm. If the pressure of the neon
gas is increased to 2.05 atm, what will the
concentration of the gas in the
water be?
1.79M
g)
Chemistry Prelim Exam
1. If the molecular weight of water (H2O)
is 18.015 g/mol,
what is the mass of 1 mole of water? 18.015 g
2. A sample of a
certain gas has a volume of 222 mL at 695 mm Hg and
0Â°C. What would be
the volume of this same sample of gas if it were
measured at 333 mm Hg and
0Â°C? 463 mL
3. What is the pressure in atmospheres of a gas mixture that
consists of
0.200 moles of nitrogen and 0.300 moles of oxygen in a 1250 mL
container at 0Â°C? 8.97 atm
4. Which gas law states that at a given temperature
and pressure all
gases will contain the same number of molecules? Avogadro's
Law
5. All of the following are examples of Dalton's theories of atomic
structure
and reactivity EXCEPT: The fundamental structure of atoms
can change during
chemical reactions.
6. Determine the amount of aluminum bromide formed
when 50 mL of
bromine (density: 3.11g/mL) is reacted with 30 grams of
aluminum in
the following reaction: 3Br2 + 2Al →→ 2AlBr3 259g
7. What is the
average atomic mass of a bromine atom given the
following information: the
two major isotopes of bromine are bromine-
79 with an abundance of 50.69%
and bromine-81 with an abundance
of 49.31%.
79.99 amu
8. Which of the
following gases would have the greatest density at STP?
CO2
9. What is the
molar mass of ammonium carbonate (NH4)2CO3)?
96.09 g/mol
10. Calculate
the number of moles in 12 grams of lithium chloride, LiCl.
mol 0.28
11. What is
the molar mass of disulfur decafluoride (S2F10)? 254.10 g/mol
12. Boyle's Law
states that the pressure and volume of a gas are
inversely proportional. Which
of the following assumptions are NOT
required for this relationship to hold?.
The gas must be diatomic.
Temperature must be held fixed. The gas must be
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ideal.
13. A sample of a certain gas has a volume of 415 mL at 725 mm Hg
and 0
Â°C. What would be the volume of this same sample of gas if it
were measured
at STP? 396 mL
14. All of the following are true about combustion analysis
EXCEPT:
The mass of H2O and CO2 produced are each equal to the mass of the
starting sample
The amount of carbon dioxide produced is used to determine
the
amount of carbon in the sample
Combustion analysis is used to determine
the empirical formula of an
organic compound
15. The volume of a certain gas
sample is 1150 mL at a temperature of
25Â°C. At what temperature would that
same gas sample have a
volume of 1.53 L at constant pressure and mass? 124
ÂºC
16. What is the molar mass of of CuSO4 â€¢ 5 H2O ?
249.685 g/mol
313.231 g/mol
17. A sample of Ne gas is contained in a 265 mL flask at 0.0 Â°C
at a
pressure is 432 mm Hg. If the gas is transferred to a new flask at 25.0
Â°C,
and its pressure is now 355 mm Hg, what is the volume of the
new flask? 352
mL
18. Avogadro stated that equal volumes of gases under the same
temperature and pressure have equal: numbers of molecules
19. Which of the
following is the correct definition for the Law of
Conservation of Mass as
expressed by Lavoisier in 1789? Despite
chemical reactions or physical
transformations, mass is conserved
within an isolated system.
20. What is the
volume occupied by 1.80 grams of sulfur dioxide gas at
a pressure of 2.60 atm
and a temperature of 25.0 Â°C? 0.264 L
21. The molar mass of MgSO4 â€¢ 7
H2O is: 246.47 g/mol
22. Calculate the number of atoms in 72 g of aluminum
chloride, AlCl3 .
3.3x1023 atoms
23. A cathode ray is a beam of which of the
following subatomic
particles? Electrons.
24. A 1.92 gram sample of an unknown
gas occupies a volume of 673
mL at STP. The molar mass of the unknown gas is:
63.9 g/mole
25. The density of liquid benzene, C6H6 , is 0.879 g/cm3 at 15Â°C.
How
many moles are there in 36.5 mL of benzene at 15Â°C? 0.411 mol
26. All of
the following were major findings of Millikan's Oil Drop
Experiment EXCEPT: The
charge of a proton and an electron is of
equivalent magnitude but of the
opposite s
27. In 1 mole of malic acid, C4H6O5, how many molecules are there?
6.02
x 1023 molecules
28. If the pressure of a confined gas sample doubled
while the volume
was held constant, what happened to the temperature? It
doubled.
29. The volume of a certain gas sample is 235 mL at a temperature of
25Â°C. At what temperature would that same gas sample have a
volume of 310
mL at constant pressure and mass? 120 ÂºC
30. What is the pressure in
atmospheres of a gas mixture that consists
of 8.80 grams of nitrogen and 8.80
grams of carbon dioxide in a 2.01
liter container at 27Â°C? 6.30 atm
0.971 atm
31. Which of the following pieces of information would be obtained by a
mass
spectrometer?
When ionized, acetic acid forms acetate anion, with a mass to
charge
ratio of ~59 atomic mass units.
32. 1.92 gram sample of an unknown gas
occupies a volume of 673 mL
at STP. The molar mass of the unknown gas is:
63.9 g/mole
33. Calculate the molar mass of carbon dioxide, CO2 44.01 g/mol
34. All of the following are properties of a mole EXCEPT:
The mass of one mole
of carbon dioxide is equal to the mass of one
mole of water.
35. 290.23 mg of
ethanol (C2H5OH) is reacted with excess oxygen to
provide 484.11 mg of
carbon dioxide via the chemical
reaction:s C2H5OH + 2O2 →→ 3H2O + 2CO2 .
What is the percent yield of
this reaction? 87.3%
36. A compound consisting of
only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen with
molecular weight 90.12 g/mol is
subjected to combustion analysis and
found to contain 53.3% carbon and 11.2%
hydrogen by mass. What is
the molecular formula of this compound? C4H10O2
37. Molar ratios can be used to determine all of the following EXCEPT:
the
absolute amount of each product that will be formed in a given
transformation
38. Molar ratios can be used to determine all of the following EXCEPT:
the
absolute amount of each product that will be formed in a given
transformation
39. The molar mass of aluminum acetate (C6H9AlO6) is: 204.1 g/mol
40.
Determine the limiting reagent if 164 grams of calcium carbonate is
reacted
with 450 grams of hydroiodic acid in the following
reaction: CaCO3 + 2HI →→
CaI2 + H2O + CO2. CaCO3 CaCO3
41. Fill in the blank. For a given sample of
gas molecules, the average
kinetic energy depends only on the value of the
________. Temperature
42. Charles' Law states that __________.
the pressure and
volume of a gas are inversely proportional at constant
temperature
43. Any of
two or more forms of an element where the atoms have the
same number of
protons but a different number of neutrons within
their nuclei: Isotope
44.
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Which of the follow equations can be used to calculate the percent

yield of a
chemical reaction
(actual yield)/(theoretical yield)*100
45. A 1 L container of gas
at 25Â°C and 1 atm is compressed to 0.5 L
while the temperature is held
constant. What is the final pressure of
the gas? 2 atm
46. What is the molar
mass of potassium sulfate (K2SO4)? 174.259 g/mol
47. How many moles are
132 g of pure CaCl2 ? 1.19 moles
48. What is the volume occupied by 0.212
moles of oxygen gas at a
pressure of 555 mm Hg and a temperature of 55.0
Â°C? 7.82 L
49. Which of the following can be determined from a balanced
chemical
equation? All of these answers
50. Which gas law states that at a given
temperature and pressure all
gases will contain the same number of molecules?
Avogadro's Law
g)
Research in Psychology Prelim Exam
1. Acknowledgement
sheet should be placed immediately after the title
page. Generally, it contains
statements of recommendation and
acceptance. False
2. What is the
sponsorship by a department or the institution itself in the
gathering of data
and defraying the cost of the study? Sponsorship
3. These are questions that
are answerable by yes or no. This is?
Non-re searchable questions
4. Which of
the following is not true about Research title? None of the
choices
5. Title page
has the following contents except, Approval Sheet
6. Factor-relating questions
isolate, categorize, describe, or name factors and
situations. False
7. External
support is also an essential element to look into in determining
whether a
research is feasible or not. True
8. Asking the level of performance is considered
as? Factor-relating questions
9. This element of Theoretical framework contains
theories that are partially
or fully related to the present study are discussed to
serve as a
backgrounder on the variables being investigated. Relevant theories
10. A research title must not come from personal experience, an article
read, a
scene witnessed or news heard for it will invalidate the study. False
11. Ethical
considerations falls under what criteria? External Criteria
12. Approval sheet
contains the following except, The approval of the
adviser that the thesis
proposal is complete and the recommendation for
oral examination The
approval of the date and the venue where the
defense must be conducted
13.
What do you call the factor-naming questions? Factor-isolating
questions
14. It
is very significant to note that the researcher must be totally
aware of the
purpose of the study or research problem. True
15. In writing the introduction,
review of related theories are not
necessary for they are to be discussed in the
chapter 2 of the thesis. True
16. The general problem is followed by specific
problems that are
usually stated as questions the researcher seeks to answer.
True
17. The basic form of a research questions involves the use of question
words such as who, what, where, when, why, and how. True
18. It is very
significant to note that the researcher must be totally
aware of the purpose of
the research problem. True
19. The setting of the problem describes to the
reader the place where
the research was conducted, as the setting has a
significant bearing on
the variables being studied. True
20. There are three
generally types of questions formulated in
research.These are non researchable
question, researchable question and
open-ended questions. False
21. This is the
kind of reading which everyone does and is
demonstrated by an individual who
passes from illiteracy to literacy.
elementary reading
22. During the Defense
which of the following the researchers must do
first? Orientation from the
chairman of the panel
23. Experience, training, and professional qualifications
falls under what
criteria? Internal Criteria
24. The Title page should be center-
justified and in all capital letters,
follows the inverted pyramid style, and is
single-spaced. True
25. This refers to a model which explains how variables are
interrelated.
conceptual framework
26. Which of the following is the External
criteria in formulating
research problem? Ethical considerations
27. What
element of the Theoretical framework is the showcase of
theses or dissertations
carrying the same variables must be read by the
researcher to determine
previous findings regarding the same variables
studied in the present thesis.
Review of related studies
28. Situation-producing question answers the "How
can I make it
happen" questions. True
29. During the Defense which of the
following must be done last? None
of the choices Group presentation
30. An
example of this question is "How can catering services be
organized to promote
job satisfaction? What type of Research question is
this? situation-producing
question
31. The references section should appear on a new page True
32. Age
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is considered as what type of research question. FactorIsolating Questions

33.
This is/These are tentative answers to the posted problems.
Hypotheses
34. The
research title must have 10 to 15 words. True
35. They are adopted as a premise
to the solution of the problem under
study. This is _______? Assumptions of the
study
36. The question "What relationships and interrelationships are
observed
between and among the following variables?" is what kind of
research
question? Factor Relating question
37. These questions usually yield hypothesis
testing or experimental
study designs in which the researcher manipulates the
variables to see
what will happen. situation-relating questions
38. What is the
required spacing for thesis writing content? 1.5 2.0
39. Time factor falls under
what criteria?
Internal Criteria
40. It is a traditional practice that the review of
related literature is
divided into foreign and local. True
g)
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