ELECTRONIC DEVICES

4. A tunnel diode is used

Semiconductor Diodes
Answer: in circuits requiring negative resistance
1. A silicon diode is forward-biased. You measure the voltage to
ground from the anode at ________, and the voltage from the 5. A varactor is a pn junction diode that always operates in
cathode to ground at ________. ________-bias and is doped to ________ the inherent capacitance
of the depletion region.
Answer: 2.3 V, 1.6 V
Answer: reverse, maximize
2. The movement of free electrons in a conductor is called

Answer: current Bipolar Junction Transistors

3. For a forward-biased diode, as temperature is ________, the 1. Refer to this figure. Determine the minimum value of IB that
forward current ________ for a given value of forward voltage. will produce saturation.

Answer: increased, increases

4. Which statement best describes an insulator?

Answer: A material with few electrons

5. Effectively, how many valence electrons are there in each atom

within a silicon crystal?

Answer: 8

6. An ideal diode presents a(n) ________ when reversed-biased Answer: 10.425 uA

and a(n) ________ when forward-biased. (Assume VCE = 0.2)

Answer: open, short 2. What is the ratio of IC to IB?

7. A reverse-biased diode has the ________ connected to the Answer: either BDC or hFE, but not αDC
positive side of the source, and the ________ connected to the
negative side of the source. 3. When a transistor is used as a switch, it is stable in which two
distinct regions?
Answer: cathode, anode
Answer: saturation and cutoff
8. Reverse breakdown is a condition in which a diode
4. What does DC vary with?
Answer: is subjected to a large reverse voltage
Answer: both IC and ºC
9. As the forward current through a silicon diode increases, the
voltage across the diode 5. The value of DC

Answer: is relatively constant Answer: varies with temperature and Ic

10. The most common type of diode failure is a(n) ________. 6. A transistor data sheet usually identifies DC as

Answer: open Answer: hFE

7. What is the order of doping, from heavily to lightly doped, for

Special Purpose Diodes each region?

1. Zener diodes with breakdown voltages less than 5 V operate Answer: emitter, collector, base
predominantly in what type of breakdown?
8. In what range of voltages is the transistor in the linear region of
Answer: zener its operation?

2. What type of diode maintains a constant current? Answer: 0.7 < VCE < VCE(max)

Answer: Current Regulator 9. The magnitude of dark current in a phototransistor usually falls
in what range?
3. Zener diodes with breakdown voltages greater than 5 V operate
predominantly in what type of breakdown? Answer: nA

Answer: Avalanche
10. A 35 mV signal is applied to the base of a properly biased
transistor with an r'e = 8 and RC = 1 k. The output signal voltage
at the collector is: Answer: 110
Answer: 4.375
5. Use this table of collector characteristics to calculate βac at VCE
A = Rc / re = 15 V and IB = 30 A.
A = Vo / Vi

11. What is (are) general-purpose/small-signal transistors case

type(s)?

a. TO-18
b. TO-92
c. TO-39
d. TO-52
e. all of the above

Answer: all of the above Answer: 100

12. What is (are) common fault(s) in a BJT-based circuit? 6. Which of the following can be obtained from the last scale
factor of a curve tracer?
a. opens or shorts internal to the transistor
b. open bias resistor(s) Answer: βac
c. external opens and shorts on the circuit board
d. all of the above 7. Calculate ac for IC = 15
mA and VCE = 5 V.
Answer: all of the above

BJT Devices

1. For what kind of amplifications can the active region of the

common-emitter configuration be used?

a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Power
d. All of the above

Answer: All of the above Answer: 200

(IB = 75 uA)
2. Calculate minority current ICO if IC = 20.002 mA and IC majority
= 20 mA. 8. How many carriers participate in the injection process of a
unipolar device?
Answer: 2 uA
(20.002 mA – 20 mA) Answer: 1

3. What is (are) the component(s) of electrical characteristics on 9. How many individual pnp silicon transistors can be housed in a
the specification sheets? 14-pin plastic dual-in-line package?

a. On Answer: 4
b. Off
c. Small-signal characteristics 10. In what decade was the first transistor created?
d. All of the above
Answer: 1940s
Answer: all of the above
11. What is the ratio of the total width to that of the center layer
4. Calculate βdc at VCE = 15 V and IB = 30 A. for a transistor?

Answer: 150:1

12. Which component of the collector current IC is called the

leakage current?

Answer: Minority

BJT Amplifiers
1. Which of the h-parameters corresponds to re in a common-
base configuration? 9. What is the unit of the parameter ho?

a. hib Answer: Siemen

b. hfb
c. hrb
d. hob

Answer: hib 9. Refer to this figure. Calculate the value of Rin(tot).

2. Which of the following conditions must be met to allow the use

of the approximate approach in a voltage-divider bias
configuration?

Answer: βre < 10R2

3. Refer to this figure. Determine the value of Av.

Answer: 3.77 kohm

Rin total = RB || Zin

Zin = β (re + RE)

10. What is the range of the current gain for BJT transistor
amplifiers?
Answer: 5
a. less than 1
Av = Rc/Re b. 1 to 100
c. above 100
4. Refer to this figure. If an emitter bypass capacitor was installed, d. all of the above
what would the new Av be?
Answer: all of the above

11. For the common-emitter fixed-bias configuration, there is a

________ phase shift between the input and output signals.

Answer: 180⁰

12. The differential amplifier has

Answer: two inputs and one output

Answer: 600
Since this is with bypass capacitor 13. Under which of the following condition(s) is true under the
current gain?
Av = Rc / re’
re’ = 25 mV / IE Answer: ro≥10RC and RB ≥10re

5. What is the typical value of the current gain of a common-base 14. The ________ configuration is frequently used for impedance
configuration? matching.

Answer: Less than 1 a. fixed bias

b. voltage divider bias
6. What is the voltage gain of a feedback pair connection? c. emitter-follower
d. collector feedback
Answer: 1
Answer: emitter follower
7. A common-emitter amplifier has ________ voltage gain,
________ current gain, ________ power gain, and ________ input
impedance. 15. Refer to this figure. You notice while servicing this amplifier
that the output signal at Vout is reduced from normal. The
Answer: high, high, high, low problem could be
caused by
8. The advantage that a Sziklai pair has over a Darlington pair is

Answer: less input voltage is needed to turn it on

 SINCE BYPASS CAPACITOR IS INSTALLED
Rin base = B (re’)
Where IE = 6 mA (it should be, 5.5 mA)

19. Refer to this figure. Find the value of Rin(base).

a. an open C3
b. an open C2
c. an open base-emitter of Q2
d. a shorted C2

Answer: an open C2

16. Refer to this figure. The output signal from the first stage of
this amplifier is 0 V. The trouble could be caused by

Answer: 50 kohm

SINCE BYPASS CAPACITOR IS NOT INSTALLED

Rin base = B (re’ + RE)

20. Under which of the following conditions is the output

impedance of the network approximately equal to RC for a
common-emitter fixed-bias configuration?
a. an open C3
b. an open C2 Answer: ro ≥10RC
c. an open base-emitter of Q2
d. a shorted C2 21. The total gain of a multistage amplifier is the ________.

Answer: an open base-emitter of Q2 a. sum of individual gains

b. sum of dB voltage gains
16. To analyze the common-emitter amplifier, what must be done
to determine the dc equivalent circuit? Answer: sum of dB voltage gains

a. leave circuit unchanged 22. For BJT amplifiers, the ________ gain typically ranges from a
b. replace coupling and bypass capacitor with opens level just less than 1 to a level that may exceed 1000.
c. replace coupling and bypass capacitors with shorts
d. replace Vcc with ground Answer: current

Answer: replace coupling and bypass capacitor with opens
(To convert it into Dc – open
To convert to AC – short)
17. For the common-emitter amplifier ac equivalent circuit, all
capacitors are
Answer: effectively shorts
18. Refer to this figure. If an emitter bypass capacitor was
installed, determine the value of Rin(base).
23. The loaded voltage gain of an amplifier is always more than
the no-load level.
Answer: False
24. Which of the following configurations has a voltage gain of –
RC /re?
a. Fixed-bias common-emitter
b. Common-emitter voltage-divider with bypass capacitor
c. Fixed-bias common-emitter and voltage-divider with bypass
capacitor
d. Common-emitter voltage-divider without bypass capacitor

Answer: Fixed-bias common emitter and voltage divider with

bypass capacitor

25. An emitter-follower amplifier has an input impedance of 107 k.

The input signal is 12 mV. The approximate output voltage is
(common-collector)

Answer: 12 mV
(Common collector is a voltage buffer. So, output voltage is same
as the input voltage.)
Answer: 416 ohm
26. Which of the following is (are) true regarding the output
impedance for frequencies in the midrange 100 kHz of a BJT Answer: no bias
transistor amplifier?
3. Referring to this transfer curve, determine ID at VGS = 2 V.
a. The output impedance is purely resistive.
b. It varies from a few ohms to more than 2 M.
c. An ohmmeter cannot be used to measure the small-signal ac
output impedance.
d. All of the above Answer: 0.444 mA

Answer: all of the above

27. What is the limit of the efficiency defined by = Po / Pi?

4. Which of the following controls the
Answer: less than 1 level of ID?

28. What is re equal to in terms of h parameters? a. VGS

b. VDS
a. hre / hoe c. IG
d. VDG
29. Which of the following techniques can be used in the
sinusoidal ac analysis of transistor networks? Answer: VGS

Answer: Small – or –large signal 5. The BJT is a ________ device. The FET is a ________ device.

30. The input impedance of a BJT amplifier is purely ________ in Answer: bipolar, unipolar
nature and can vary from a few ________ to ________.
6. The region to the left of the pinch-off locus is referred to as the
Answer: resistive, ohms, megoohms ________ region.

31. The ________ the source resistance and/or ________ the load Answer: ohmic
resistance, the less the overall gain of an amplifier.
7. A BJT is a ________-controlled device. The JFET is a ________ -
Answer: larger, smaller controlled device.

32. A Darlington pair provides beta ________ for ________ input a. voltage, voltage
resistance. b. voltage, current
c. current, voltage
Answer: multiplication, increased d. current, current

FET DEVICES Answer: current, voltage

(BJT – CCCS
1. Refer to this portion of a specification sheet. Determine the FET – VCCS)
values of reverse-gate-source voltage and gate current if the FET
was forced to accept it. 8. Refer to the following figure. Calculate VGS at ID = 8 mA for k =
0.278 × 10–2 A/V2.

Answer: 3.70 V

a. 25 Vdc, -200 nAdc ID = k(VGS-VP)^2;

b. -25 Vdc, 10 mA dc 8mA = 2.78mA/V2(VGS-2)^2;
c. -6 Vdc, -10 mA dc VGS = 3.70V.
d. -6 Vdc, -1.0 nAdc
9. Which of the following is (are) the advantage(s) of VMOS over
Answer: -25 Vdc, 10 mAdc MOSFETs?

2. At which of the following condition(s) is the depletion region a. Reduced channel resistance
uniform? b. Higher current and power ratings
c. Faster switching time Answer: 9 Volts
d. Al of the above
Use ID = IDSS /2
Answer: all of the above = 10mA / 2
= 5 mA
10. Hand-held instruments are available to measure ________ for
the BJT. 3. Refer to this figure. If Vin = 1 V p-p, the output voltage Vout
would be
Answer: βDC

11. Which of the following input impedances is not valid for a

JFET?

a. 1010
b. 109
c. 108
d. 1011 a. undistorted
b. clipped on negative peaks
Answer: 108 c. clipped on the positive peaks
d. 0 V p-p
12. Refer to the following characteristic curve. Calculate the
resistance of the FET at VGS = –0.25 V if ro = 10 k. Answer: undistorted

11. The class D amplifier uses what type of transistors?

Answer: MOSFETs

12. What is the input resistance (Rin(source)) of a common-gate

amplifier?

a. Rs
b. (1 / gm) || Rs
c. 1 / gm
d. none of the above

Answer: 1 / gm

Answer: 11.378 kῼ 13. There is a ________º phase inversion between gate and
source in a source follower.
R = ro / (1 – VGS / VP)^2
Use Vp = -4 V a. 0
b. 90
c. 180
FET Amplifiers d. none of the above

1. The theoretical efficiency of a class D amplifier is Answer: 0

a. 75% 14. Which of the following is a required condition to simplify the

b. 85% equations for Zo and Av for the self-bias configuration?
c. 90%
d. 100% Answer: rd ≥10RD

Answer: 100% 15. The steeper the slope of the ID versus VGS curve, the
________ the level of gm.
2. Refer to this figure. Find the value of VD.
a. less
b. same
c. greater

Answer: greater

16. What is the typical value for the input impedance Zi for JFETs?

a. 100 kohm
b. 1 Mohm
c. 10 Mohm
d. 1000 Mohm
Answer: 1000 Mohm
23. The more horizontal the characteristic curves on the drain
17. Which type of FETs can operate with a gate-to-source Q-point characteristics, the ________ the output impedance.
value of 0 V?
Answer: greater
a. JFET
b. E-MOSFET 24. Refer to this figure. The approximate value of Rin is
c. D-MOSFET
Answer: 100 Mohm
Answer: D-MOSFET

18. On which of the following parameters does rd have no or little

impact in a source-follower configuration?

a. Zi
b. Zo
c. Av
d. All of the above
25. The input resistance at the gate of a FET is extremely
Answer: All of the above
Answer: extremely high
19. Refer to this figure. For midpoint biasing, ID would be
26. FET amplifiers provide ________.

a. excellent voltage gain

b. high input impedance
c. low power consumption
d. all of the above

Answer: al of the above

27. CMOS digital switches use

Answer: n-channel and p-channel E-MOSFETs in series.

28. What is the range of gm for JFETs?

At midpoint biasing:
IDSS / 2 = 10 mA / 2 = 5 mA Answer: 1000 S to 5000 S

20. Which FET amplifier(s) has (have) a phase inversion between 29. Input resistance of a common-drain amplifier is
input and output signals?
Answer: RG || RIN(gate).
a. common-gate
b. common-drain 30. E-MOSFETs are generally used in switching applications
c. common-source because
d. all of the above
Answer: of their threshold characteristics
Answer: common source

21. Referring to the figure below, determine the output BJT AND FET FREQUENCY RESPONSE
impedance for VGS = –3 V at VDS = 5 V.

1. Determine the lower cutoff frequency of this network.

Answer: 100 kohms

22. For the fixed-bias configuration, if ________.

Answer: RD || rd
a. 15.8 Hz
b. 46.13 Hz
c. 238.73 Hz
d. 1575.8 Hz Answer: -Vsat

Answer: 238.73 Hz 3. Refer to the given figure. Determine the output voltage.

2. What is the range of the capacitor Cds?

Answer: 0.1 to 1 pF

3. In the input RC circuit of a single-stage BJT, by how much does

the base voltage lead the input voltage at the cutoff frequency in
the low-frequency region?
Answer: 45⁰ Answer: +Vsat
4. Refer to the given figure. With the inputs shown, determine the
4. In the input RC circuit of a single-stage BJT, by how much does output voltage.
the base voltage lead the input voltage for frequencies much
larger than the cutoff frequency in the low-frequency region?

Answer: 0⁰

4. What is the normalized gain expressed in dB for the cutoff

frequencies?

Answer: -3dB

5. By what factor does an audio level change if the power level

changes from 4 W to 4096 W? Answer: + Vsat

Answer: 6 4. A comparator with a Schmitt trigger has

6. For audio systems, the reference level is generally accepted as Answer: two trigger levels
________.
5. In a(n) ________, when the input voltage exceeds a specified
Answer: 1 mW reference voltage, the output changes state.

7. What is the range of the capacitors Cgs and Cgd? Answer: comparator

Answer: 1 to 10 pF 6. In a flash A/D converter, the priority encoder is used to

8. What is the ratio of the common logarithm of a number to its Answer: select the highest value input
natural logarithm?
7. A good example of hysteresis is a(n)
Answer: 2.3
Answer: thermostat
9. What is the ratio of the output voltage to the input voltage at
the cutoff frequencies in a normalized frequency response plot? 8. What is (are) the necessary component(s) for the design of a
bounded comparator?
Answer: 0.707
a. rectifier diodes
10. What is the ratio of the output power to the input power at b. zener diodes
the cutoff frequencies in a normalized frequency response plot? c. both of the above

Answer: 0.5 Answer: zener diodes

Basic Op Amp Circuits 9. What type(s) of circuit(s) use comparators?

1. The output of a Schmitt trigger is a a. summer

b. non-zero level detector
Answer: pulse waveform c. averaging amplifier
d. summer and nonzero-level detector
2. Refer to the given figure. What is the output voltage?
Answer: non-zero level detector 5. Refer to the given figure. This circuit is known as

10. In a comparator with output bounding, what type of diode is

used in the feedback loop?

Answer: Zener

Op Amp Applications

1. How many op-amps are required to implement this equation?

Vo = V1

Answer: 1
Answer: Shunt Voltage Regulator
2. How many op-amps are required to implement this equation?
6. A switching regulator that is configured as a voltage-inverter
produces what type of output?

Answer: a dc output that is the negative of the dc input voltage

Answer: 1
7. Refer to the
3. A filter that provides a constant output from dc up to a cutoff given figure. This
frequency and passes no signal above that frequency is called a circuit is called
________ filter.

Answer: low pass filter

4. An example of an instrumentation circuit is a(n) ________.

a. dc voltmeter
b. display driver
c. ac voltmeter
d. all of the above

Answer: all of the above

Voltage Regulators Answer: a step down switching regulator

1. The 7812 regulator IC provides ________. 8. What is the purpose of an additional RC filter section in a power
supply circuit?
a. 5V
b. -5V a. decrease the ac voltage component
c. 12V
d. -12V 9. The ________ regulator is less efficient than the ________ type,
but offers inherent short-circuit protection.
Answer: 12 V
(78 – poositive) Answer: shunt, series

2. The 7912 regulator IC provides ________ . 10. Refer to the given

figure. If the output of
Answer: -12 V the circuit were to be a
(79 – negative) short circuit, what power
rating would R1 need to
3. Calculate the ripple voltage of a full-wave rectifier with a 75-F have?
filter capacitor connected to a load drawing 40 mA

Answer: 1.28 V

4. In which period is the capacitor filter discharged through the

load in a full-wave rectifier?

a. The time during the positive cycle

b. The time during which the diodes are not conducting
c. The time during which the diode(s) is (are) conducting
d. The time during the negative cycle
Answer: 22. 5 V
Answer: The time during which the diodes are not conducting
11. Refer to the given figure. This circuit is known as Answer: transistor

21. In a series linear regulator, the control element is a(n)

________ in series with the load.

Answer: transistor

22. A ________ -wave rectified signal has less ripple than a

________ -wave rectified signal and is thus better to apply to a
filter.

Answer: full, half

Answer: A series pass voltage regulator Active Filters

12. In a series regulator, what is the purpose of fold-back limiting?
Answer: to provide current up to a maximum, but drop current to
a lower value when the output becomes shorted, to prevent
overheating of the device
1. Filters with the ________ characteristic are useful when a rapid
roll-off is required because it provides a roll-off rate greater than –
20/dB/decade/pole.
Answer: Chebyshev

13. In a simple series regulator circuit, which of the following 2. The gain of the multiple-feedback band-pass filter above is
components is the controlling element? equal to which of the following? Assume C = C1 = C2

a. Load resistor Answer: A0 = R2 / 2 R1

b. Zener diode
c. Transistor Q1
d. None of the above

Answer: Transistor Q1
14. What is the ratio of the peak ripple voltage level to its rms
voltage level? 3. The bandwidth in a ________ filter equals the critical
frequency.
Answer: Square root of 3
Answer: low pass
15. How many terminals does a 7800 series IC regulator have?
4. Filters with the ________ characteristic are used for filtering
Answer: 3 pulse waveforms.

16. Across which of the following components of a power supply Answer: Bessel
does the average (dc) voltage exist?
5. Refer to the given figure. The roll-off of this filter is about
a. Diodes
b. Secondary of the transformer
c. Capcitor filter
d. None of the above

Answer: Capacitor filter

17. Switching regulators are more efficient than linear regulators

and are particularly useful in ________-voltage, ________-current
applications.

Answer: low, high

18. For what range of load current can voltage regulators be Answer: 20 dB
selected for operation?
6. Refer to the given figure. The roll-off of the circuit shown is
Answer: Hundreds of milliamperes to tens of amperes about

19. What type of regulator offers inherent short-circuit

protection?

Answer: shunt regulators

20. In a shunt linear regulator, the control element is a(n)

________ in parallel with the load.
Answer: 20 dB

7. Refer to this figure. This is a ________ filter.

Answer: Butterworth type

16. Refer to this figure. This filter has a roll-off rate of

Answer: High pass filter

8. Which filter exhibits a linear phase characteristic?

Answer: Bessel

9. The critical frequency is defined as the point at which the

response drops ________ from the passband.

Answer: - 3 dB

10. Filters with the ________ characteristic provide a very flat

amplitude in the passband and a roll-off rate of –20
dB/decade/pole.
Answer: 80 dB/decade
Answer: Butterworth
17. A third-order filter will have a roll-off rate of
11. Which filter has a maximally flat response?
Answer: -60 dB/octave
Answer: Butterworth (20 * 3)

12. Refer to the given figure. This is a ________ filter. Semiconductor Diodes

1. What does a high resistance reading in both forward- and

reverse-bias directions indicate?

Answer: open diode

2. How many orbiting electrons does the germanium atom have?

Answer: 32

3. In which of the following is the light intensity measured?

Answer: Bandpass Filter
(Accept it) Answer: Candela

13. A low-pass filter has a cutoff frequency of 1.23 kHz. Determine 4. Which of the following elements is most frequently used for
the bandwidth of the filter. doping pure Ge or Si?

Answer: 1.23 kHz a. Boron

b. Gallium
14. One important application of a state-variable ________ filter c. Indium
with a summing amplifier is to minimize the 60 Hz "hum" in audio d. All of the above
systems.
Answer: All of the above
Answer: bandstop
5. In general, LEDs operate at voltage levels from ________ V to
15. Refer to the given figure. RA = 2.2 k and RB = 1.2 k. This filter is ________ V.
probably a:
Answer: 1.7, 3.3

6. What is the maximum power rating for LEDs?

Answer: 150 mW
7. The ________ diode model is employed most frequently in the 8. If the ac supply is 60 Hz, what will be the ripple frequency out of
analysis of electronic systems. the half-wave rectifier?

Answer: simplified Answer: 60 Hz

Since it is half wave rectifier
8. What is the value of the transition capacitance for a silicon
diode when VD = 0? (Choose the best answer.) 9. Refer to the figure given below. The probable trouble, if any,
indicated by these voltages is
Answer: 3 pF

Diode Applications

1. Each diode in a center-tapped full-wave rectifier is ________ -

biased and conducts for ________ of the input cycle

Answer: forward, 180⁰

2. What is the voltage measured from the negative terminal of C4 Answer: the filter capacitor is shorted
to the negative terminal of the transformer?
10. Which diode(s) has (have) a zero level current and voltage
drop in the ideal model?

a. Si
b. Ge
c. Both Si and Ge
d. Neither Si nor Ge

Answer: -20 V Answer: Both Si and Ge

(This circuit is called voltage quadrupler. 4 times the input voltage
which is 20 but the capcitor polarity is given in opposite direction,
so -20V)
3. The output frequency of a full-wave rectifier is ________ the
input frequency.
Answer: twice
4. In a regulated supply, what term describes how much change
occurs in the output voltage for a given change in the input
voltage?
Answer: line regulation
5. In a regulated supply, what term describes how much change
occurs in the output voltage over a certain range of load current
values, from minimum to maximum current?
11. A diode is in the "________" state if the current established by
the applied sources is such that its direction matches that of the
arrow in the diode symbol, and VD ≥ 0.7 V for Si and VD ≥ 0.3 V for
Ge.
Answer: on
12. A silicon diode has a voltage to ground of –117 V from the
anode. The voltage to ground from the cathode is –117.7 V. The
diode is
Answer: forward-biased
13. Refer to the figure given below. If the voltmeter across the
transformer reads 0 V, the probable trouble, if any, would be

Answer: load regulation

6. What is the PIV for each diode in a full-wave center-tapped

rectifier? Note: Vp(out) = peak output voltage.

A. Vp(out) – 0.7 V
B. Vp(out) + 0.7 V
C. 2Vp(out) – 0.7 V
D. 2Vp(out) + 0.7 V Answer: an open transformer secondary

Answer: 2Vp(out) + 0.7 V 14. In a voltage regulator network with fixed RL and R, what
element dictates the minimum level of source voltage?
7. A silicon diode in a half-wave rectifier has a barrier potential of
0.7 V. This has the effect of Answer: Vz

a. reducing the peak output voltage by 0.7 V Transistor Bias Circuits

b. increasing the peak output voltage by 0.7 V
c. reducing the peak input voltage by 0.7 1. Which transistor bias circuit arrangement provides good
d. no effect stability using negative feedback from collector to base?

Answer: reducing the peak output voltage by 0.7 V Answer: collector-feedback bias
2. Which transistor bias circuit provides good Q-point stability 4. The value of VGS that makes ID approximately zero is the
with a single-polarity supply voltage?
Answer: Cut-off voltage
Answer: voltage-divider bias (It must be Pinch-off voltage)

3. The most stable biasing technique used is the 5. A dual-gated MOSFET is

Answer: voltage-divider bias Answer: either a depletion or an enhancement MOSFET

4. Which transistor bias circuit arrangement has poor stability 6. What three areas are the drain characteristics of a JFET (VGS =
because its Q-point varies widely with DC? 0) divided into?

Answer: base bias Answer: ohmic, constant-current, breakdown

5. What is the most common bias circuit? 7. High input resistance for a JFET is due to

Answer: voltage divider a. a metal oxide layer

6. Which transistor bias circuit arrangement provides good Q-
point stability, but requires both positive and negative supply
voltages?
Answer: Emitter bias
7. The cutoff region is defined by IB ________ 0 A.
Answer: ≤
8. Which of the following voltages must have a negative level
(value) in any npn bias circuit?
Answer: VBC
9. For the typical transistor amplifier in the active region, VCE is
usually about ________ % to ________ % of VCC.
Answer: 25, 75
10. The saturation region is defined by VCE ________ VCEsat.
Answer: ≤
b. a large input resistor to the device
c. an intrinsic layer
d. the gate-source junction being reverse-biased
Answer: the gate-source junction being reverse-biased
8. For a JFET, the change in drain current for a given change in
gate-to-source voltage, with the drain-to-source voltage constant,
is
Answer: forward transconductance
9. The input controlling variable for a(n) ________ is a current
level and a voltage level for a(n) ________.
Answer: BJT, FET
10. Through proper design, a ________ can be introduced that will
affect the biasing level of a voltage-controlled JFET resistor.
a. photodiode
b. thermistor
c. laser diode
d. Zener diode

Field Effect Transistor Answer: thermistor

11. On the universal JFET bias curve, the vertical scale labeled
________ can, in itself, be used to find the solution to ________
1. For a JFET, the value of VDS at which ID becomes essentially configurations.
constant is the
Answer: m, fixed bias
Answer: pinch-off voltage
12. For the noninverting amplifier, one of the most important
2. The ________ has a physical channel between the drain and advantages associated with using a JFET for control is the fact that
source. it is ________ rather than ________ control.

a. D-MOSFET Answer: dc, ac

b. E-MOSFET
c. V-MOSFET AMPLIFIER FREQUENCY RESPONSE

Answer: D-MOSFET 1. A roll-off of 20 dB per decade is equivalent to a roll-off of

________ per octave.
3. Midpoint bias for a D-MOSFET is ID = ________, obtained by
setting VGS = 0. a. 3 dB
b. 13 dB
a. IDSS / 2 c. 12 dB
b. IDSS / 3.4 d. 6 dB
c. IDSS
Answer: 6 dB
Answer: IDSS
2. Refer to this figure. The output voltage at fcl = 12 mV. What is b. low-frequency response
the output voltage at the midpoint frequency? c. midrange response
d. nothing

Answer: low-frequency response

8. Refer to this figure. The capacitor Cbe affects

Answer: 16.97 mV

Vo = 12 mV / 0.707

3. Each RC circuit causes the gain to drop at a rate of ________ Answer: high frequency response
dB/decade.

a. 20 9. Refer to this figure. The capacitor C1 affects

b. 10
c. 6
d. None of the above

Answer: 20

4. The phase shift through the input of an RC circuit approaches

________° as the frequency approaches zero.

a. 0
b. 45
c. 180
d. 90 Answer: low frequency response

Answer: 90 10. An RC network has a roll-off of 20 dB per decade. What is the

total attenuation between the output voltage in the midrange of
5. Internal transistor junction capacitances affect the high- the passband as compared to the output voltage at a frequency of
frequency response of amplifiers by 10 times fc?

Answer: reducing the amplifier's gain and introducing phase shift a. -3 dB

as the signal frequency increases. b. -20 dB
c. -23 dB
6. What is the method that can be used to determine the values of d. -43 dB
fcl and fcu of an amplifier?
Answer: -20 dB
Answer: step response
10. For low-frequency response, all RC circuits in an amplifier may
7. Refer to this figure. The capacitor C3 affects not have the same critical frequency. Which RC response will
determine the critical frequency of the amplifier?

a. the lowest frequency

b. the center frequency
c. the highest frequency
d. the bypass frequency

Answer: the highest frequency

11. Refer to this figure. You measure an output voltage at the
lower cutoff frequency of 3.42 V p-p. The output voltage at the
upper cutoff frequency will be

a. high frequency response

 input frequency and measure the output signal, you must
remember to

Answer: 3.42 V p-p

12. Refer to this figure. The upper cutoff frequency of this

amplifier is 22 kHz. The output at that frequency is 6.71 V p-p.
What is the output voltage at 220 kHz?
a. set the oscilloscope to DC
b. maintain the input voltage constant
c. keep a constant temperature
d. watch for a change of β

Answer: maintain the input voltage constant

OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIERS

1. A voltage-follower amplifier comes to you for service. You find

the voltage gain to be 5.5 and the input impedance 22 k. The
probable fault in this amplifier, if any, is

a. the gain is too low for this type of amplifier

b. the input impedance is too high for this amplifier
Answer: 0.671 V p-p c. nothing is wrong, the trouble must be somewhere else
d. none of these
13. In a multistage amplifier, the overall frequency response is
determined by the Answer: none of these

A frequency response of each stage depending on the 2. An op-amp has an open-loop gain of 100,000 and a cutoff
relationships of the critical frequencies. frequency of 40 Hz. Find the open-loop gain at a frequency of 30
B. frequency response of the first amplifier. Hz.
C. frequency response of the last amplifier.
D.lower critical frequency of the first amplifier and the upper a. 800
critical frequency of the final amplifier. b. 8000
c. 80,000
Answer: frequency response of each stage depending on the d. 100,000
relationships of the critical frequencies.
Answer: 100,000
14. What term means that the midrange voltage gain is assigned a (There is no change i.e.its not dependent on frequency change.)
value of 1 (or 0 dB)?
3. An op-amp has an open-loop gain of 75,000 and a cutoff
a. critical frequency of 100 Hz. At 1 kHz the open-loop gain is down by
b. Miller
c. normalized Answer: 20 dB
d. corner (An op amp has open loop gain that decreases at the rate of 20
db/decade.)
Answer: normalized
4. What is the difference output voltage of any signals applied to
15. A two-times change in frequency is called a(n) the input terminals?

a. binave a. The differential gain times the difference input voltage.

b. octave b. The common-mode gain times the common input voltage.
c. decade c. The sum of the differential gain times the difference input
d. none of the above voltage and the common-mode gain times the common input
voltage.
Answer: octave d. The difference of the differential gain times the difference input
voltage and the common-mode gain times the common input
16. Refer to this figure. You are attempting to determine the lower voltage.
cutoff frequency of this amplifier in the lab. As you change the
Answer: The sum of the differential gain times the difference input
voltage and the common-mode gain times the common input
voltage.
Oscillator Circuits
1. At what phase shift is the magnitude of β A at ts maximum in
the Nyquist plot?
9. A certain oscillator has a tap on the inductor in the tank circuit.
This oscillator is probably
Answer: a Hartley Oscillator
10. Refer to this figure. Assuming it is configured as an oscillator
and if you desired to reduce the duty to less than 50%, the
following circuit change would need to be made.

a. 90⁰
b. 180⁰
c. 270⁰
d. 0⁰

Answer: 180⁰

2. For a phase shift oscillator, the gain of the amplifier stage must
be greater than _____.

a. 19
b. 29
c. 30
d. 1

Answer: 29 a. Reduce the size of R1

b. Reduce the size of R2
3. A circuit that can change the frequency of oscillation with an c. Increase the size of R1
application of a dc voltage is sometimes called d. Connect a diode in parallel with R1

a. a voltage-controlled oscillator Answer: Connect a diode in parallel with R1

b. a crystal oscillator
c. a Hartley oscillator 11. What is the relationship between the series and parallel
d. an astable multivibrator resonant frequencies of a quartz crystal?

Answer: a voltage-controlled oscillator a. They are equal

b. Parallel resonant frequency is approximately 1 kHz higher than
4. In order to start up, a feedback oscillator requires series resonant frequency
c. Series resonant frequency is approximately 1 kHz higher than
a. negative feedback less than 1 parallel resonant frequency
b. positive feedback greater than 1 d. none of the above
c. unity feedback equal to 1
d. no feedback Answer: Parallel resonant frequency is approximately 1 kHz higher
than series resonant frequency
Answer: positive feedback greater than 1
THYRISTORS
5. At what phase shift is the magnitude of A at its minimum in the
Nyquist plot? 1. You need a very efficient thyristor to control the speed of an AC
fan motor. A good device to use would be
Answer: 0⁰
a. a 4-layer diode
6. What is the total phase shift requirement, around the feedback b. a PUT
loop, for a phase-shift oscillator? c. a triac
d. a BJT
Answer: 360⁰
Answer: a triac
7. At series resonance, the impedance of a crystal is
2. An application of a(n) _____ is in a lighting system for power
a. minimum interruptions
b. 0
a. SCR
Answer: minimum b. SCS
c. diac
8. The twin-T oscillator produces a ________ response. d. triac

Answer: Band-stop Answer: SCR

(sTTTTop)
3. The ________ can conduct current in either direction and is
turned on when a breakover voltage is exceeded.
 2. Occasionally, a particular logic expression will be of no
a. SCR consequence in the operation of a circuit, such as a BCD-to-
b. diac decimal converter. These result in ________terms in the K-map
c. SCS and can be treated as either ________ or ________, in order to
d. triac ________ the resulting term.

Answer: diac Answer: don't care, 1s, 0s, simplify

4. You need to design a relaxation oscillator circuit. The most likely 3. A Karnaugh map is a systematic way of reducing which type of
device to use might be expression?

a. an SCR Answer: sum-of-products

b. a UJT
c. a triac Microprocessor Fundamentals
d. a 4-layer diode
1. The software used to drive microprocessor-based systems is
Answer: a UJT called:

5. You have the schematic diagram of several types of circuits. a. assembly language
Which of these circuits most likely uses a triac? b. firmware
c. machine language code
a. an oscillator d. BASIC interpreter
b. an ac motor control
c. a programmable oscillator Answer: assembly language
d. an amplifier
2. The circuits in the 8085A that provide the arithmetic and logic
Answer: an ac motor controller functions are called the:

6. You have a need to use a device to trigger an SCR. A good one a. CPU
to use might be b. ALU
c. I/O
a. an SCS d. none of the above
b. a UJT
c. a 4-layer diode Answer: ALU
d. a PUT
3. How many buses are connected as part of the 8085A
Answer: a UJT microprocessor?

7. Which of the following devices might best be used to control an a. 2

electric motor? b. 3
c. 5
a. an SCS d. 8
b. a PUT
c. an SCR Answer: 3
d. a diac
4. The ________ ensures that only one IC is active at a time to
Answer: an SCR avoid a bus conflict caused by two ICs writing different data to the
same bus.
8. You have a light-dimmer circuit using an SCR. In testing the
circuit, you find that IG = 0 mA and the light is still on. You a. control bus
conclude that the trouble might be one of the following: b. control instructions
c. address decoder
d. CPU
Answer: this is normal; nothing is wrong
Answer: address decoder
Boolean Algebra and Logic Simplification
6. How many bits are used in the data bus?
1. An AND gate with schematic "bubbles" on its inputs performs
the same function as a(n)________ gate. a. 7
b. 8
a. NOT c. 9
b. OR d. 16
c. NOR
d. NAND Answer: 8

Answer: NOR 7. When referring to instruction words, a mnemonic is:

(Note: on its inputs)
a. a short abbreviation for the operand address
b. a short abbreviation for the operation to be performed
c. a short abbreviation for the data word stored at the operand a. stack pointer
address b. program counter
d. shorthand for machine language c. instruction pointer
d. accumulator
Answer: a short abbreviation for the operation to be performed
Answer: accumulator
8. When was the first 8-bit microprocessor introduced?
15. What is the difference between a mnemonic code and
a. 1969 machine code?
b. 1974
c. 1979 A. There is no difference.
d. 1985 B. Machine codes are in binary, mnemonic codes are in shorthand
English.
Answer: 1974 C. Machine codes are in shorthand English, mnemonic codes are
in binary.
9. What type of circuit is used at the interface point of an input
port? Answer: Machine codes are in binary, mnemonic codes are in
shorthand English.
a. decoder
b. latch 16. Which of the following buses is primarily used to carry signals
c. tristate buffer that direct other ICs to find out what type of operation is being
d. none of the above performed?

Answer: tristate buffer A. data bus

B. control bus
10. What type of circuit is used at the interface point of an output C. address bus
port? D. address decoder bus

a. decoder Answer: control bus

b. latch
c. tristate buffer 17. What kind of computer program is used to convert mnemonic
d. none of the above code to machine code?

Answer: latch a. debug

b. assembler
11. I/O mapped systems identify their input/output devices by c. C++
giving them a(n) ________. d. Fortran

a. 8-bit port number Answer: assembler

b. 16-bit port number
c. 8-bit buffer number 18. Which of the following are the three basic sections of a
d. 8-bit instruction microprocessor unit?

Answer: 8-bit port number A. operand, register, and arithmetic/logic unit (ALU)
B. control and timing, register, and arithmetic/logic unit (ALU)
12. The register in the 8085A that is used to keep track of the C. control and timing, register, and memory
memory address of the next op-code to be run in the program is D. arithmetic/logic unit (ALU), memory, and input/output
the:
Answer: control and timing, register, and arithmetic/logic unit
a. stack pointer (ALU)
b. program counter
c. instruction pointer COMPUTERS
d. accumulator
1. Which method bypasses the CPU for certain types of data
Answer: program counter transfer?

13. The 8085A is a(n): A. Software interrupts

B. Interrupt-driven I/O
a. 16-bit parallel CPU C. Polled I/O
b. 8-bit serial CPU D. Direct memory access (DMA)
c. 8-bit parallel CPU
d. none of the above Answer: Direct Memory Access (DMA)

Answer: 8-bit parallel CPU 2. Which of the following is not an enhancement to the Pentium
that was unavailable in the 8086/8088?
14. A register in the microprocessor that keeps track of the
answer or results of any arithmetic or logic operation is the: A. "Pipelined" architecture
B. Expansion of cache memory
C. Inclusion of an internal math coprocessor Answer: all of the above
D. Data/address line multiplexing
10. The Pentium microprocessor has a data bus of ________.
Answer: Data/address line multiplexing
A. 16 bits
3. The first microprocessor had a(n)________. B. 32 bits
C. 64 bits
A. 1-bit data bus D. 128 bits
B. 2-bit data bus
C. 4-bit data bus Answer: 64 bits
D. 8-bit data bus
11. The process of jointly establishing communication is called
Answer: 4-bit data bus ________.

4. Which microprocessor has multiplexed data and address lines? A. DMA

B. bidirectional addressing
A. 8086/8088 C. multiplexing
B. 80286 D. handshaking
C. 80386
D. Pentium Answer: handshaking

Answer: 8086/8088 COMBINATIONAL CIRCUITS

5. Which is not an operand? 1. One positive pulse with tw = 75 µs is applied to one of the
inputs of an exclusive-OR circuit. A second positive pulse with tw =
A. Variable 15 µs is applied to the other input beginning 20 µs after the
B. Register leading edge of the first pulse. Which statement describes the
C. Memory location output in relation to the inputs?
D. Assembler
a. The exclusive-OR output is a 20µs pulse followed by a 40µs
Answer: Assembler pulse, with a separation of 15µs between the pulses.
b. The exclusive-OR output is a 20µs pulse followed by a 15µs
6. What is occurring when two or more sources of data attempt to pulse, with a separation of 40µs between the pulses.
use the same bus? c. The exclusive-OR output is a 15µs pulse followed by a 40µs
pulse.
A. Bus contention d. The exclusive-OR output is a 20µs pulse followed by a 15µs
B. Direct memory access pulse, followed by a 40µs pulse
C. Bus interruption
D. PPI Answer: The exclusive-OR output is a 20µs pulse followed by a
15µs pulse, followed by a 40µs pulse
Answer: Bus contention
2. The inverter can be produced with how many NAND gates?
7. Which of the following was not a design improvement for the
8086/8088 over the 8085? a. 1
b. 2
A. Execution unit (EU) c. 3
B. 16-bit data bus d. 4
C. Arithmetic logic unit (ALU)
D. Bus interface unit (BIU) Answer: 1

Answer: Arithmetic logic unit (ALU) 3. How many 2-input NOR gates does it take to produce a 2-input
NAND gate?
8. The Pentium can address ________.
a. 1
A. 1 MB b. 2
B. 1 GB c. 3
C. 2 GB d. 4
D. 4 GB Answer: 4

Answer: 4 GB COMBINATIONAL LOGIC CIRCUITS

9. A port can be ________. 1. How many 3-line-to-8-line decoders are required for a 1-of-32
decoder?
A. strictly for input
B. strictly for output Answer: 4
C. bidirectional (8 * 4 = 32)
D. all of the above
2. How many data select lines are required for selecting eight Answer: All logic circuits are reduced to nothing more than simple
inputs? AND and OR operations.

Answer: 3 9. An output gate is connected to four input gates; the circuit does
(2^3 = 8) not function. Preliminary tests with the DMM indicate that the
power is applied; scope tests show that the primary input gate has
3. How many 1-of-16 decoders are required for decoding a 7-bit a pulsing signal, while the interconnecting node has no signal. The
binary number? four load gates are all on different ICs. Which instrument will best
help isolate the problem?
Answer: 8
a. Current Tracer
4. The implementation of simplified sum-of-products expressions b. Logic Probe
may be easily implemented into actual logic circuits using all c. Oscilloscope
universal ________ gates with little or no increase in circuit d. Logic analyzer
complexity. (Select the response for the blank space that will BEST
make the statement true.) Answer: Current Tracer

a. AND/OR 10. Each "1" entry in a K-map square represents:

b. NAND
c. NOR
d. OR/AND
Answer: NAND
5. As a technician you are confronted with a TTL circuit board
containing dozens of IC chips. You have taken several readings at
numerous IC chips, but the readings are inconclusive because of
their erratic nature. Of the possible faults listed, select the one
that most probably is causing the problem.
a. a HIGH for each input truth table condition that produces a
HIGH output.
b. a HIGH output on the truth table for all LOW input
combinations.
c. a LOW output for all possible HIGH input conditions.
d. a DON'T CARE condition for all possible input truth table
combinations.
Answer: a HIGH for each input truth table condition that produces
a HIGH output.

a. A defective IC chip that is drawing excessive current from the 11. Looping on a K-map always results in the elimination of:
power supply
b. A solar bridge between the inputs on the first IC chip on the a. variables within the loop that appear only in their
board complemented form.
c. An open input on the first IC chip on the board b. variables that remain unchanged within the loop.
d. A defective output IC chip that has an internal open to Vcc c. variables within the loop that appear in both complemented
and uncomplemented form.
Answer: An open input on the first IC chip on the board d. variables within the loop that appear only in their
uncomplemented form.
6. Which gate is best used as a basic comparator?
Answer: variables within the loop that appear in both
a. NOR complemented and uncomplemented form.
b. OR
c. Exclusive-OR 12. What will a design engineer do after he/she is satisfied that
d. AND the design will work?

Answer: Exclusive – OR a. Put it in a flow chart

b. Program a chip and test it
7. In VHDL, macrofunctions is/are: c. Give the design to a technician to verify the design
d. Perform a vector test
a. digital circuits.
b. analog circuits. Answer: Program a chip and test it
c. a set of bit vectors.
d. preprogrammed TTL devices. 13. Based on the indications of probe A in the figure given below,
what is wrong, if anything, with the circuit?
Answer: preprogammed TTL devices

8. Which of the following is an important feature of the sum-of-

products form of expressions?
a. All logic circuits are reduced to nothing more than simple AND
and OR operations.
b. The delay times are greatly reduced over other forms. a. The logic probe is
c. No signal must pass through more than two gates, not including unable to determine
inverters. the state of the circuit
d. The maximum number of gates that any signal must pass at that point and is blinking to alert the technician to the problem.
through is reduced by a factor of two. b. The output appears to be shorted to Vcc, but is being pulsed by
the pulser.
c. The output appears to be LOW, but is being pulsed by the
pulser.
d. Nothing appears to be wrong at that point.
Answer: Nothing appears to be wrong at that point
Answer: Karnaugh maps provide a visual approach to simplifying
Boolean expressions.
20. The design concept of using building blocks of circuits in a PLD
program is called a(n):

14. What is the indication of a short on the input of a load gate? a. hierarchical design.
b. architectural design.
a. Only the output of the defective gate is affected. c. digital design.
b. There is a signal loss to all gates on the node. d. verilog.
c. The affected node will be stuck in the LOW state.
d. There is a signal loss to all gates on the node, and the affected Answer: hierarchical design.
node will be stuck in the LOW state.
21. When adding an even parity bit to the code 110010, the result
Answer: There is a signal loss to all gates on the node, and the is ________.
affected node will be stuck in the LOW state.
a. 1110010
15. In HDL, LITERALS is/are: b. 1111001
c. 110010
a. digital systems. d. 001101
b. scalars.
c. binary coded decimals. Answer: 1110010
d. a numbering system. (From the choices, only A has even number of 1)

Answer: scalars 22. Which of the following combinations of logic gates can decode
binary 1101?
16. The carry propagation can be expressed as _____.
a. One 4-input AND gate
Answer: Cp = A + B b. One 4-input AND gate, one OR gate
c. One 4-input NAND gate, one inverter
17. A decoder can be used as a demultiplexer by ________. d. One 4-input AND gate, one inverter

a. tying all enable pins LOW Answer: One 4-input AND gate, one inverter
b. tying all data-select lines LOW
c. tying all data-select lines HIGH 23. What is the indication of a short to ground in the output of a
d. using the input lines for data selection and an enable line for driving gate?
data input
a. Only the output of the defective gate is affected.
Answer: using the input lines for data selection and an enable line b. There is a signal loss to all load gates.
for data input c. The node may be stuck in either the HIGH or the LOW state.
d. The affected node will be stuck in the HIGH state.
18. How many 4-bit parallel adders would be required to add two
binary numbers each representing decimal numbers up through Answer: There is a signal loss to all load gates.
30010?
24. How many outputs would two 8-line-to-3-line encoders,
a. 1 expanded to a 16-line-to-4-line encoder, have?
b. 2
c. 3 a. 3
d. 4 b. 4
c. 5
Answer: 3 d. 6

300 = 100101100 (Binary). Answer: 4

Total number of digits == 9.

9/4 is greater than 2 and less than 4, so obviously 3.

19. Which statement below best describes a Karnaugh map?

a. A Karnaugh map can be used to replace Boolean rules.

b. The Karnaugh map eliminates the need for using NAND and
NOR gates.
c. Variable complements can be eliminated by using Karnaugh
maps.
d. Karnaugh maps provide a visual approach to simplifying
Boolean expressions.