2022+a350+Periodic+Proficiency+Test Q Type+Abcde

Knowledge test of
A350 Type A
Periodic Proficiency Check in 2022
Written test
1. The following is a description of ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION. What is incorrectly described? B
a. Use the rain repellent in the case of heavy rain only
b. The bleed air of engine anti-ice systems come from hot bleed air source
c. Wipers Maximum operation speed is 230kt
d. Rain repellent must not be used as a windshield washer, and never be applied on a
dry windshield 답이 없어보입니다. FCOM 2280page 에 comes from the 3rd stage of the
high pressure compressor 문구가 있어서 B로 표기합니다. 나머지 보기는 FCOM에
보기문장과 동일하게 표기되어 있습니다.
2. Fill in the blank.
This is a description related to LATE LANDING RUNWAY CHANGE.
If the flight crew may not have sufficient time to prepare BTV for the new landing runway.
When BTV detects and confirms ( ) that the landing runway is not the selected
at 300ft
runway, BTV function reverts to basic autobrake ( ).
BRK MED appears on the FMA and BTV/LDG RWY DISAGREE appears on
the ANF
3. Which of the the following approaches and landing capabilities are not fail-passive automatic
landing systems? C
a. LAND3 SINGLE b. LAND2 c. APPR1 d. LAND1
4. What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff? 15kts
5. Prior to initiating an ILS CAT II/III approach with autoland, the crew should check required
equipment. Which of the following is not Required Equipment not monitored by FG: D
a. Autoland light
b. Attitude indication on PFD
c. Attitude indication on standby instrument
d. Radio altimeter
6. This is a description of PITCH ATTITUDE PROTECTION. Which one is NOT correct? C

a. The pitch attitude is limited to 30 ° nose up, progressively reduced to 25 ° at low speed
b. The pitch attitude is limited to 15 ° nose down Manual
c. The pitch attitude aural alert is available during AUTO landing, below 50 ft RA.
d. A tail strike pitch limit also appears on the PFD at landing
REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 1/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

Knowledge test of
A350 Type A
7. The use of AP or FD in OP DES or DES is not permitted, if the AFS CP selected altitude is set
below ( ), or ( ) ft AGL, whichever is higher: A
a. MDA(H)/DA(H), 500 b. MDA(H)/DA(H), 400
c. MDA(H)/DA(H), 300 d. MDA(H)/DA(H), 200

a. LAND1 (2) (3) approach and landing capability is computed only if the aircraft is
(
Above 400ft) when the flight crew arms the approach modes.
b. Below 200 ft RA, LAND3 SINGLE, or LAND3 DUAL is memorized and remains
displayed as long as.
-( ) At least one AP is engaged
-( ) LAND, FLARE or ROLL OUT is engaged
9. If for any reason during an RA, the aircraft vertical speed does not reach the green area of
the vertical speed scale, the Pilot Flying (PF) should disconnect the AP, and override the FD
orders, in order to lead the aircraft vertical speed out of the red area of the vertical speed
scale. If necessary, the PF must use the full speed range between Vαmax and Vmax.
Is it true or false? True

MAXIMUM FLAPS/SLATS SPEEDS:
FLAPS Lever Configuration on Max Speed Flight Phase
Position Slat/Flap display
0 VMO/MMO CRUISE
1 1 255 kt HOLDING
1+F ( ) 220kt TAKEOFF / APPROACH
2 2 212 kt TAKEOFF / APPROACH
3 3 ( ) 195kt (TAKEOFF/APPROACH/LANDING
)
FULL FULL 186 kt LANDING

Knowledge test of
A350 Type A
Oral test
11. The bird is computed from IRS data and is affected by inertial errors. During the approach,
the flight crew may detect a small track error, usually up to ( ).
12. The autopilot can be used with the following minimum values for at takeoff/after manual go-
around:
13. The MORA information is the grid MORA based on the FMS database. However, the MORA
value displayed on the ND and the VD may be different, because the calculation assumptions
are different:
- The ND displays the max MORA around the aircraft within ( ).
- The VD displays the MORA and the MSA ( ) (i.e. along the F-PLN when in NAV mode,
or along the track when in HDG/TRACK mode), in a corridor linked to the RNP value, ().
14. The engines must warm up at idle or taxi thrust before takeoff. What are the Warm-up time,
if engines were shut down 90 min or less and if engines were shut down more than 90 min :
15. AUTOLANDING warning is a flashing of the LOC and G/S scales on the PFD and ND ROSE
ILS. It occurs whenever:
G/S deviation is greater than ( ) dot ( ).
LOC deviation is greater than ( ) dot ( ).
16. What are the company minima for a CAT-Ⅲ Fail operation?
17. What are the computes the aircraft approach and landing capability?
18. Explain the proper actions about the memory items:

- EMER DESCENT
If the pressure altitude is above 10 000 ft:
If A/THR is not active:

- LOSS OF BRAKING
Knowledge test of
A350 Type A
If no braking:
If still no braking:
20. Explain the proper actions about F-G/S (G/S) INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE.

Knowledge test of
A350 Type B
Written test
1. The Autoland light flashes when the LAND mode is engaged below 200 ft RA.
Which of the following is not a condition for AUTOLAND LIGHT to flash? A
a. Between 100 ft and 15 ft RA, if the glide signal of the ILS transmitter fails, or the glide
deviation is not available 200ft and 100ft
b. The last AP disengages,
c. One radio altimeter is failed, and the values provided by the two remaining radio altimeters
differ by more than 15 ft
d. Long flare is detected, when FLARE is engaged while the aircraft flies more than 1 000 m
2. What is the maximum tire speed & wipers operating speed? 204kts / 230kts
3. The autopilot can be used with the following minimum values for In approach with G/S mode
and APPR1 on FMA: 160ft AGL
4. What is the minimum starting temperature of oil? -40’c
5. Which of the following is not relevant for APU: C

a. An APU start is not permitted during a refuel/defuel procedure if the APU has failed to start
b. The electric generator of the APU can operate in the entire flight envelope
c. Use of APU bleed air for wing anti-ice is permitted not permitted
d. A normal APU shutdown must be completed if a fuel spill has occurred during the
refuel/defuel procedure.
6. What is the EGT limit for takeoff / go-around thrust setting? 900’c
7. When the flight crew uses the BSF, which of the following is not turn technique? B
a. Disconnect the autopilot (AP) and the autobrake (A/BRK) before using the BSF.
b. Do use manual differential braking or differential thrust to steer the aircraft.
Do not use
c. Start the turn with a target of 10 kt. This speed ensures aircraft movement even when the
BSF will command the brakes.
d. During the turn, keep some thrust on the engines and adjust the level of thrust to maintain
10 kt.

Knowledge test of
A350 Type B
8. The following is about Cold Temperature Altitude Corrections. Fill in the blank.
Approach is not continued below ( ) above airport elevation unless the PIC is
1000ft
satisfied that, with the runway surface condition information available, the aircraft landing
performance assessment indicates that a safe landing can be made.
9. If FLARE does not come up on FMA at 40ft RA, what should flight crew do? GO AROUND
10. Fill in the blanks

Definition of ‘Icing conditions’:
10’c
Icing conditions exist when OAT on the ground and for takeoff, or TAT in flight is ( )
(50 °F) or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility
of ( ) or less, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals)
1SM/1600m

Knowledge test of
A350 Type B
Oral test
11 The APU may be started and operated even if the OIL LEVEL LO ECAM advisory is displayed.
Maintenance action is required within:
12. The autopilot can be used with the following minimum values for in approach with F-G/S
mode:
13. The engines must warm up at idle or taxi thrust before takeoff.
What is the time if engines were shut down 90min or less and more than 90min?
14. Following is about fuel dumping enforcement. Fill in the blank.

The route to be flown, if possible, should be clear of cities and towns, and the level to be
used should be at or above ( ) feet AGL
15. Maximum Descent Rate to prevent CFIT is as follows:

1) 5,000 feet ~ 2,000 feet AGL: ( ) fpm
2) 2,000 feet ~ 1,000 feet AGL: ( ) fpm
3) Below ( ) feet: Stabilized Approach criteria
16. What is the maximum wind for cabin and cargo doors operation and must be closed before
the wind reaches?
17. What is Maximum operating altitude with slats and/or flaps extended?

- EMERGENCY DESCENT
If the cabin pressure altitude is above 10,000ft:
If A/THR is not active:

Knowledge test of
A350 Type B

- STALL RECOVERY
When out of stall (no longer stall indications):
If in clean configuration and below 20 000ft:
20. Describe about the LOW VISIBILITY TAXI

Because taxi under low visibility condition is another difficult operation, flight crew should
try to be more careful. What should I avoid during taxi?

Knowledge test of
A350 Type C
Written test
1. Which of the following statements is not correct to avoid the “Blind Alley” effect and to
correctly detect the weather? C
a. A high ND range provides the flight crew with a long-term vision, for strategic anticipation
b. A low ND range provides the flight crew with a short-term vision that is more precise, and
can help with a detailed analysis
c. The accuracy of the weather echo is higher for long-distance weather
d. The use of two different ND ranges on PF and PM sides provides enhanced awareness
on the situation.
2. There is a direct relationship between aircraft pitch control, and engine thrust control.
Which of the following statements is not correct? B
a. If the AP/FD pitch mode controls a vertical trajectory (e.g. ALT, V/S, FPA, G/S):
A/THR controls speed
b. Any change in the AP/FD pitch mode is not associated with a change in the A/THR mode
c. If no AP/FD pitch mode is engaged (i.e. AP is off and FD is off): A/THR controls speed.
d. The AP/FD pitch mode controls a speed (e.g. OP CLB, OP DES): A/THR controls thrust (THR
CLB, THR IDLE)
3. Which of the following is not an operational techniques if the OVERSPEED warning is triggered? C
a. The flight crew should keep the AP engaged
b. The flight crew should extend the speed brakes to the most appropriate lever position
c. If the A/THR is OFF, the A/THR reengage for overspeed recovery
d. If the A/THR is ON, keep it engaged and check that the thrust is reducing to idle
4. Which one is NOT correct? The AP/FDs automatically disengages, if one of the following occurs? B
a. The FD and AP become inoperative
b. In ROLL OUT, the difference between the aircraft track and the runway track is more than
30 ° 20’
c. In approach, the LOC signal is disturbed (for example LOC beam masking).
d. Both the AFS CP and the AFS CONTROL PANEL page of MFD FCU BKUP are not available

Knowledge test of
A350 Type C

A rejected takeoff can possibly be a hazardous maneuver, and the time for decision making is
limited. To minimize the possibility of decisions that are not appropriate to reject a takeoff,
many alerts are inhibited between ( ) and ( ).
80kts 400ft
7. What is the maximum allowed wing imbalance at takeoff, in flight and at landing?
6613lb (3000kg)
8. Following sentence is true or false?
Cold Temperature Altitude Corrections application at airports under FAA jurisdiction,
CATC is not applied at airports not designated as CTA. However, if obstacle avoidance is
suspected, the captain (PIC) should report to ATC and apply CATC. True
9. What altitude should PM call out when passing the FAF?

Published altitude on chart
10. When the speed brakes are extended, VLS increases. Complete the ( ) in the table below.
CONF VLS increase

0 ( )Between 0kt and 34kt depending on weight and altitude
1 ( ) 27kt
( , ) 1+F Between 26 kt and 32 kt depending on altitude
3+S Between 16 kt and 20 kt depending on altitude
FULL ( ) 16kt

Knowledge test of
A350 Type C
Oral test
11 To assist the flight crew in the decision making the takeoff is divided into low speed and high
speed phases, separated by the 100 kt speed. Describe the circumstances in which the captain
must reject the takeoff and to stop the aircraft before it reaches V1
12. The flight crew defines the approach speed (VAPP) to perform the safest approach. It is a
function of gross weight, configuration, headwind, A/THR ON(OFF) and downburst.
Fill in the blank.
The flight crew can insert:
- A lower VAPP on the APPR panel, down to VLS, if landing is performed with ( )
- A higher VAPP in the case of suspected ( )
- The VAPP calculated by the OIS LDG PERF application if ( )
- The VAPP increment if required by an ( )
13. The ( ) approach and landing capability is fail-operational automatic landing system.
The following approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system.
( , , )
14. Single engine autolands are authorized at Asiana Airlines if using CATIII FO procedure.
Is it True or False:
15. For a CAT II approach, the PM should enter ( ) on the DH field of the FMC:
16. For automatic landing, one autopilot at least must be engaged in APPR mode, LAND1, LAND2
or LAND3 SINGLE or LAND3 DUAL capability must be displayed on the FMA and the
configuration must be ( ) or ( ):
17. When the rotation is initiated, the flight crew achieves a rotation rate of approximately ( )
resulting in a continuous pitch increase. During the rotation, the aircraft liftoff occurs at
approximately ( ) of pitch, typically around ( ) after the initiation of the rotation.

Knowledge test of
A350 Type C

- UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION
PITCH / THRUST:

- STALL WARNING AT LIFTOFF
20. When an RA is triggered and the AP/FD TCAS mode is not available?

Knowledge test of
A350 Type D
Written test
1. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about manual engagement of one AP? A
a. The aircraft is in flight for more than 3 s. 5s
b. The pitch is between -30 ° and 50 °
c. The bank angle is less than 120 °
d. In flight, the flight crew can not engage the AP, if the sidestick or the rudder pedals
are deflected.
2. What is max altitude for air conditioning and pressurization single pack operation and
dual pack operation? Single pack : 25000ft
Dual pack : 22500ft
3. Fill the blank below.
a. Selection of ( ) is not permitted when a derated takeoff is performed, except when
TOGA Thrust
requested in any abnormal or emergency procedures.
b. The use of ( ) is not permitted in conjunction with derated takeoff.
reduced thrust takeoff(FLEX takeoff)
c. The use of ( ) is permitted regardless of the runway condition (dry, wet or
contaminated). derated takeoff
4. What are the maximum fuel and minimum fuel temperature with JET A? +55’c / -40’c
5. Which statement is not correct? C

a. When the BSF activates, do not use manual differential braking or differential thrust to
steer the aircraft unless required for controllability at the end of the rollout.
b. Maximum taxi speed is 3kt to vacate the runway or taxi with one or more deflated or
damaged tires
not be used
c. The Backup Steering Function (BSF) must be used on contaminated runways
d. Maximum nosewheel steering angle is 30 ° to vacate the runway or taxi with one or more
deflated or damaged tires
6. What does this mean if the ECAM displays LDG PERF AFFECTED?
Both approach speed and landing distance are affected
7. The surveillance(SURV)system includes the following systems that perform aircraft surveillance
functions which is wrong: D

Knowledge test of
A350 Type D
a. TAWS
b. Weather Radar(WXR)
c. TCAS, ADS-B, XPDR
d. CPDLC
9. The main functions of the DSCS are to Monitor and display on the DOOR/OXYGEN SD page.
Which one is not monitor items? C
a. The passenger doors & the escape slides
b. The cargo doors
c. The cockpit escape hatch & cockpit door
d. The external access door to the forward avionics bay
10. Which statement is not correct about the airport moving map? B
a. TAX: The use of the airport moving map is authorized on both PF and PM displays
b. TAKEOFF: The use of the airport moving map is authorized on PF display
is not authorized
c. GO-AROUND, CRUISE, DESCENT AND APPROACH UNTIL TOUCHDOWN: The use of the
airport moving map is authorized on either PF or PM display for BTV
d. ROLL OUT AFTER TOUCHDOWN: The use of the airport moving map is authorized on both
PF and PM displays

Knowledge test of
A350 Type D
Oral test
11. What is the thrust to target the vertical speed in MAN GA SOFT?
12. If the entered V1, VR, and V2 do not satisfy the condition V1 ≤ VR ≤ V2,
what is the ECAM alert displayed also, when does it appear?
13. What is maximum speed with the landing gear operating (VLO/MLO)?
14. Maximum Descent Rate to prevent CFIT is as follows

1) 5,000 feet ~ 2,000 feet AGL: ( ) fpm
2) 2,000 feet ~ 1,000 feet AGL: ( ) fpm
3) Below ( ) feet: Stabilized Approach criteria
15. The tuning of both ILS must be consistent. If the tuning of both ILS in MMR is not consistent,
( ) alert triggers:

Scan Policy
Condition Captain First officer
Commence
( 1 )
outside scanning
CAT II ( 4 )
After Visual
Inside & Outside
Reference Contact
Commence
( 2 )
CAT III outside scanning
Inside
With DH After Visual
Inside & Outside
Reference Contact
CAT III
( 3 ) Commence outside scanning Inside
Without DH
17. What is the following described?

This System is a multi-channel automatic landing system which has capability to complete the
approach, flare, touchdown and rollout by using the remaining operating elements of the

Knowledge test of
A350 Type D
System when the failure of any single system component occurs after passing a point
designated by the applicable safety analysis.

- WINDSHEAR WARNING - REACTIVE WINDSHEAR
On ground, at takeoff:
Before V1:
After V1:

- TAWS WARNING
"PULL UP" or "TERRAIN AHEAD PULL UP" or "OBSTACLE AHEAD PULL UP"
20. Explain the proper actions about LOSS OF VISUAL REFERENCES with DH or without DH after
Touchdown
A. If the visual references are lost after touchdown, ( ).
B. The rollout should be continued with ( ) down to taxi speed.

Knowledge test of
A350 Type E
Written test
1. There is a direct relationship between aircraft pitch control, and engine thrust control.
Which of the following statements is not correct? B
a. If the AP/FD pitch mode controls a vertical trajectory (e.g. ALT, V/S, FPA, G/S):
A/THR controls speed
b. Any change in the AP/FD pitch mode is not associated with a change in the A/THR mode
c. If no AP/FD pitch mode is engaged (i.e. AP is off and FD is off): A/THR controls speed.
d. The AP/FD pitch mode controls a speed (e.g. OP CLB, OP DES): A/THR controls thrust (THR
CLB, THR IDLE)
2. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the EO MAX altitude? C
a. It can be flown with LRC speed
b. It can be held in level flight with the operating engine at "Maximum Continuous Thrust"
rating
c. It can be reached before buffeting with a margin of 0.2 g 0.3g
d. It is less than the maximum certified altitude
3. There are a description related to GROUND SPOILER CONTROL.

Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. All the spoilers and ailerons are also used
as ground spoilers
D
b. When a spoiler fails on one side, the symmetric one on the other wing is inhibited
c. The ground spoilers fully extend when the thrust levers are at idle and the speed is greater
than 72 kt for rejected Takeoff 110kt
d. The roll function of the spoilers is inhibited below 72 kt, when the spoilers are used for the
ground spoiler function. Roll control is available through ailerons
4. Which one is NOT correct? The AP/FDs automatically disengages, if one of the following
occurs? B
a. The FD and AP become inoperative
b. In ROLL OUT, the difference between the aircraft track and the runway track is more than
30 ° 20’
Knowledge test of
A350 Type E
c. In approach, the LOC signal is disturbed (for example LOC beam masking).
d. Both the AFS CP and the AFS CONTROL PANEL page of MFD FCU BKUP are not available
5. The engine thrust is always limited by the thrust lever position, with or without A/THR,
except when the ( ) protection is active: D
a. HIGH SPEED
b. LOW ENERGE
c. HIGH PITCH
d. A.FLOOR

In CONF CLEAN, the standard EO holding speed is (the green dot speed + 20 kt)
답이 이미 적혀있음
7. What is the regulatory reference to be used for dispatch landing performance computation? A
a. REQUIRED LANDING DISTANCE (RLD)
b. IN-FLIGHT LANDING DISTANCE (LD)
c. FACTORED IN-FLIGHT LANDING DISTANCE (FLD)
d. ROW LANDING DISTANCE
8. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the In-Flight Landing Distance
calculation assumes? D
a. An airborne phase of 7 s from threshold to touchdown
b. In the case of manual braking: maximum manual braking initiated immediately after main
gear touchdown
c. In the case of autobrake: normal system delays in braking activation
d. Prompt selection of idle thrust to full stop
max reverse thrust, maintained to 70kts, and
IDLE thrust of full stop(when credit is used)
9. What does this mean if the ECAM displays LDG DIST AFFECTED?
Only the landing distance is affected

Knowledge test of
A350 Type E
Oral test
11. What does the Takeoff Surveillance (TOS) function verify the takeoff data?
12. The autopilot can be used with the following minimum values for in approach with G/S
mode and APPR1 on FMA:
13. If there is engine fail after AH and there is not any change of ( ) status on FMA,
flight crew may do the ( ) according to the fail operational concept.
14. In LAND3 DUAL, in general, a single failure (for example one AP failure or one engine
failure) below AH does not necessitate a ( ). But a go-around is required if the ( )
is triggered.
15. What is the altitude at which you make a final decision to whether airborne instruments are
operable for CATlll approaches without having visual reference insight:
16. The ( ) approach and landing capability is fail-operational automatic landing system.
The following approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system.
( , , )
17. Explain the proper actions about LOSS OF VISUAL REFERENCES with DH or without DH
after Touchdown
A. If the visual references are lost after touchdown, ( )
B. The rollout should be continued with ( ) down to taxi speed.

Knowledge test of
A350 Type E

- STALL WARNING AT LIFTOFF

- TCAS WARNING - RESOLUTION ADVISORY
If the AP/FD TCAS mode is not available:
Respond promptly and smoothly:
If AP/FD TCAS mode is available:
If the AP is off:
20. Describe about the LOW VISIBILITY TAXI

Because taxi under low visibility condition is another difficult operation, flight crew should
try to be more careful. What should I avoid during taxi?

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Knowledge test of

4. What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff? 15kts

6. This is a description of PITCH ATTITUDE PROTECTION. Which one is NOT correct? C

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 1/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

8. Fill in the blank.

10. Fill in the blank.

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 2/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

18. Explain the proper actions about the memory items:

If A/THR is not active:

19. Explain the proper actions about the memory items:

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 4/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

4. What is the minimum starting temperature of oil? -40’c

5. Which of the following is not relevant for APU: C

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 1/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

10. Fill in the blanks

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 2/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

14. Following is about fuel dumping enforcement. Fill in the blank.

15. Maximum Descent Rate to prevent CFIT is as follows:

18. Explain the proper actions about the memory items:

If A/THR is not active:

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 3/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

19. Explain the proper actions about the memory items:

When out of stall (no longer stall indications):

If in clean configuration and below 20 000ft:

20. Describe about the LOW VISIBILITY TAXI

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 4/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 1/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

6. Fill in the blank.

9. What altitude should PM call out when passing the FAF?

CONF VLS increase

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 2/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 3/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

18. Explain the proper actions about the memory items:

19. Explain the proper actions about the memory items:

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 4/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

5. Which statement is not correct? C

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 1/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 2/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

14. Maximum Descent Rate to prevent CFIT is as follows

16. Fill the blank below.

17. What is the following described?

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 3/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

18. Explain the proper actions about the memory items:

19. Explain the proper actions about the memory items:

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 4/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

3. There are a description related to GROUND SPOILER CONTROL.

6. Fill the blank below.

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 2/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 3/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

18. Explain the proper actions about the memory items:

19. Explain the proper actions about the memory items:

Respond promptly and smoothly:

If AP/FD TCAS mode is available:

20. Describe about the LOW VISIBILITY TAXI

REV00 / JAN 1ST, 2022 4/4 FLIGHT CREW EVALUATION TEAM

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