1

CROP SCIENCE 12. Which does not belong to the group of forage
crops?
1. The word cereal is derived from the name of a. R. communis
the most important grain deity. b. S. humilis
a. the Roman Goddess Venus c. M. atropurpureum
b. the Roman Goddess Ceres d. P. purpureum
c. the Roman God of Soul
d. the Xeres God of Israel 13. Which does not belong to the Crucifer family?
a. B. junceae c. B. oleracea
2. The synonym of family Leguminoseae is b. B. sinensis d. B. alba
a. Fabaceae
b. Monocotyledonae 14. The scientific name of bitter gourd is
c. Convulaceae a. Momordica charantia
d. Pedaliaceae b. Luffa acutangula
c. Citrullus lunatus
3. The botanical classification of Agricultural d. Luffa cylindrica
crops using the scientific names is an
accepted means of plant classification 15. The scientific name of watermelon is
worldwide and its was found by the scientist. a. C. lunatus c. C. maximus
a. Linneaus c. Lousiky b. S. edule d. C. sativus
b. Leuwenhook d. Lovendorf
16. Momordica charantia and Sechium edule, are
4. An example of pulse crop is examples of the family
a. Cowpea c. Tomato a. Cucurbitaceae
b. Squash d. Eggplant b. Malvaceae
c. Moringaceae
5. Which is not under the family Leguminoseae d. Compositae
a. Phaseolus lunatus
b. Vigna unguiculata 17. The scientific name of durian is
c. Lagenaria siceraria a. Durio zibethinus
d. Phaseolus vulgaris b. Durio discolor
c. Artocarpus altilis
6. Which does not belong to the group? d. Aveeehoa bilimbi
a. Centro c. Stylo
b. Siratro d. Paragrass 18. The scientific name of mangosteen is
a. Garcinia mangostana
7. Which is not an example of root crops? b. Durio discolor
a. Sweet potato c. Potato c. Artocarpus altilis
b. Arrow root d. Cassava d. Aveeehoa bilimbi

8. Which of these crops can be classified as an 19. Mango’s scientific name is

agronomic crops and horticultural crops based a. Mangifera indica
on their uses under Philippine condition? b. Durio discolor
a. Rice c. Sorghum c. Artocarpus altilis
b. Mungbean d. Peanut d. Aveeehoa bilimbi

9. Analyze the statements: 20. The scientific name of lanzones is

a. Durio zibithinus
I. An example of family Cucurbitaceae are: a. b. Durio discolor
M. charantia b. C. sativum c. C. lunatus c. Artocarpus altilis
d. Lansium domesticum
II. An example of family Leguminoseae are:
a. A. hypogaea b. Cajanus cajan c. V. radiate. 21. This is the scientific name of rambutan
a. Nephelium tappaceum
a. Statements I and II are correct b. Durio discolor
b. Statement I and II are not correct c. Artocarpus altilis
c. Statement I is correct but Statement II is d. Aveehoa bilimbi
not correct
d. Statement I is not correct but Statement 22. The scientific name of wheat is
II is correct a. Triticum aestivum
b. Zea mays
10. Which among the crops does not fall under c. Oryza sativa
the family Solanaceae? d. Saccharum officinarum
a. L. esculentum c. S. melongena
b. C. annuum d. P. lunatus 23. Plants that grow on live trees or dead trunks
but do not depend on them for water and
11. An example of small fruit is nutrients
a. Pineapple c. Tamarind a. Epiphytes c. Xerophytes
b. Lanzones d. Duhat b. Terrestrial d. Bryophytes
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24. Pterocarpus indicus Willd, the Philippine 33. The most common type of cell and tissue in
National Tree, represents a type of dry the plant body is
indehiscent fruit called a. Aerenchyma c. Slerenchyma
a. Achene c. Schizocarp b. Collenchymas d. Parenchyma
b. Nut d. Samara
34. The phloem tissue is found in the bark which
25. Root hairs are uncutinized epidermal is composed of
appendages located at the a. Sieve tube, fibers, parenchyma and
a. Cell division region companion cell
b. Meristem region b. tracheids, vessel, parenchyma and
c. Cell maturation region companion cell
d. Cell elongation region that increase the c. sieve tube, vessels, parenchyma and
water absorbing capacity of the root fibers
d. sieve tube, companion cell, fibers and
26. Which is not a characteristic of dicolyledonous vessels used in transporting the
plants? photosynthetic
a. Netted venation
b. Tap root system 35. The structure in plants located either at the
c. Floral parts in 5’s or multiples of 5 upper, lower or both epidermic of the leaves
d. Distinct nodes and internodes responsible for exchange of gases is known as
a. Root hair c. Stoma
27. Mangifera indica L., our national fruit, is what b. Crystal d. Trichome
type of fleshy fruit?
a. Fibrous drupe c. Berry 36. A type of sclerenchyma that is shorty and
b. Fleshy drupe d. Pepo more or less cuboidal in shape that imparts
gritty feeling when fruits containing them are
28. The increase in the girth of the stem of eaten is called
dicotyledonous plants is due to the division of a. Fibers c. Sclereids
a meristematic tissue called b. Strings d. Tracheids
a. Protoderm
b. Vascular cambium 37. Provided with tap root system in which the
c. Procambium main root is capable of penetrating down the
d. Apical meristem soil surface to seek water level and this
explains why these plants are rather long
29. Water is translocated from the basal part of lived. They are:
the plant, the root, to the upper parts, the a. Ferns c.Monocots
stem, the leaves, the flowers or the fruits via b. Dicots d. Mosses
two members of the conducting tissue namely
a. Vessel and sieve tube 38. A leaf is held to the stem by a petiole, a
b. Tracheids and vessels leaflet to the rachis by a petiolule, a solitary
c. Tracheids and sieve tube flower to the stem by a peduncle and a flower
d. Vessel and companion cell in a cluster by
a. Pedicel c. Filament
30. A flower that bears both reproductive b. Style d. Receptacle
structures, the pistil and stamen, is called
a. Complete c. Perfect 39. The main cell type and tissue type comprising
b. Determinate d. Essential flower the whole plant body that performs the
function of food production, storage and
31. The enlarged, fleshy root of some plants like secretion is
Daucus carota, Ipomea batatas, Raphanus a. Collenchymas c. Parenchyma
sativus, etc. is example of modified root doing b. Clorenchyma d. Schlerenchyma
the function
a. Water absorption c. Anchorage 40. The ultimate origin of all the primary tissues
b. Food storage d. All of these in the root and the stem is
a. Protoderm
32. Analyze the following statements: b. Procambium
c. Ground meristem
1. The most colorful whorl of the flower is d. Apical meristem
the petals and these attract insects for
pollination. 41. Stems of monocot plants are generally small
2. Flowers that are inconspicuous are compared to the dicot plants because of the
provided with mechanism responsible for absence of meristematic primary tissue called
attracting insects called showy or brightly a. Cork cambium
colored leaves. b. Cortex
Pphellogen
a. Statement 1 is correct or true and c. Vascular cambium
Statement 2 is incorrect or false.
b. Statement 1 is incorrect or false and 42. Kangkong, ampalaya, and camote tops are
Statement 2 is correct or true easily chewed because of the absence of
c. Both statements are correct or true supporting and strengthening tissue called
d. Both statements are incorrect or false a. Parenchyma c. Sclerenchyma
b. Chlorenchyma d. Sclereids
 3

43. The smooth texture of the monocot stem is 53. The transformation of one plastid to another
generally due to the absence of the porous like the transformation of leucoplast to
swelling that facilitates gaseous exchange in chloroplast is manifested in the following
this organ of the plant. This structure is instances
called a. Senescence of a green leaf
a. Pneumatophore c. Lenticels b. Ripening of a fruit
b. Stoma d. Cuticle c. Greening of a potato tuber
d. Abscission of leaf
44. An indication that corm and rhizome are
stems although they are generally below the 54. Crystals are metabolic waste products of the
ground is the presence of cell that could not be excreted and therefore
a. Node and internode stored in an organelle called
b. Node and buds a. Golgi bodies c. Vacoule
c. Node and leaf sheath b. Microbodies d. Microtubules
d. Node and roots

45. Which is not a kind of parallel venation? 55. Based on habit, plants exist as trees, shrubs
a. Veinlets run on the same direction as and vines. Vines cling to a support or crawl
midrib on the soil surface and could not attain a
b. Veinlets form an angle with the midrib vertical growth by itself because of the
c. Veinlets originate from a common point absence of
and project like the fingers of a palm a. Permanent
d. Veinlets are perpendicular to the midrib b. Secondary
c. Primary
46. A strengthening tissue present in the plant d. Mechanical tissue
that can be extracted and can be transformed
into economic products like rope, jute sack, 56. Corn or Zea mays L., is a monocot plant that
cotton balls or cloth is uses its terminal bud for the formation of the
a. Aerenchyma c. Sclerieds staminate flower and the lateral bud in the
b. Collenchymas d. Fibers formation of the pistillate flower. Such
condition exhibited by this plant is known as
47. A condition exhibited by the plants bearing a. Dioecious
both pistillate and staminate flowers that may b. Determinate
be derived from either the lateral or terminal c. Indeterminate
bud is called d. Monoecious condition
a. Decisuous
b. Dioecious 57. The plant that is considered the tree of life
c. Monoecious simply because of the many uses of its stem,
d. Papilionaceous condition leaves and fruits is
a. Oryza sativa
48. In some plants like acacia trees, the outer b. Zea mays L.
covering especially of the older portion of the c. Cocos nucifera L.
stem that breaks, separates and flakes off is d. Musa paradisiaca L.
the
a. Phellem c. Phelloderm 58. The tissue found in the root but not in the
b. Cuticle d. Epidermis stem is known as
a. Endodermis
49. Oryza sativa L., is the Filipino’s staple food b. Epidermis
and it represents a kind of indehiscent fruit c. Pericycle
called d. Pith which is the inner boundary line of
a. Caryopsis c. Schizocarp the cortex
b. Samara d. Achene
59. Analyze the following statements:
50. In coconut, Cocos nucifera L., the endosperm
is classified into coconut meat and coconut 1. Terminal buds are necessary for the
water. The botanical term for the coconut increase in the height of the plant as well
meat is as for fruit formation.
a. Liquid endosperm c. Endocarp 2. Lateral buds are necessary for fruit
b. Solid endosperm d. Mesocarp formation only.

51. Several plants have the characteristic of a. Both statements are true
becoming leafless during a year’s growth. b. Both statements are false
These plants that shed off their leaves are c. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
called d. Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
a. Monoecious c. Deciduous
b. Dioecious d. Foliaceous 60. Adjacent cell walls are cemented together by
means of
52. The pigment found in some plants that is a. Cell membrane
soluble in water is known as b. Plasma membrane
a. Anthocyanin c. Xathophylls c. Middle lamella
b. Carotene d. Lycopene d. Lipid membrane
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61. Storage plastids store starch, oil and proteins 71. Stomatal closure is not only due to deficiency
and are called of turgor pressure but also due to the action
a. Aleuroplast c. Elaioplast of hormones. It is effected by
b. Amyloplast d. Leucoplast a. Ethylene c. Cytokinins
b. Gibberellins d. Abscissic acids
62. The meristematic tissue found in the periderm
responsible for the production of the cork and 72. Senescence is yellowing of leaves due to
the parenchyma is maturity and it is due to a hormone called
a. Phellem c. Phellogen a. ethylene
b. Phelloderm d. Exocarp b. gibberellins
c. cytokinins
63. These are meristems found at the apices of d. auxins
the stem and the root mainly responsible for
the increase in length of these plant organs 73. Short day plants that bear flowers during the
are called period of the year when nights are longer
a. Secondary meristems than daytime. The following of these kinds of
b. Lateral meristems plants is due to the action of the hormone
c. Intercalary meristems a. Auxin
d. Promeristems b. Absissic acid
c. Ethylene
64. Stomata are avenues for the exchange of d. Cytokinin
gases in the leaves. When these avenue are
located on both epidermis of the leaves, they 74. The production of ethylene is due to the
are called action of growth hormone known as
a. Amphistomata c. Hypostomata a. Gibberellins
b. Epistomata d. Mesostomata b. Cytokinins
c. Auxins
65. Photosynthesis occurs also in other organs of d. Abscissin
the plant as specialized function. A modified
stem capable of food production is called 75. Geotropism is response of the plant to
a. Mesophyll c. Megaphyll gravity. This response is an effort of growth
b. Cladophyll d. Chlorophyll hormone called
a. Auxin
66. Branch roots or secondary roots are produced b. Gibberellins
due to the division of a meristematic tissue c. Cytokinins
called d. Ethylene
a. Pericycle c. Radicle
b. Hypocotyls d. Stele 76. Senescence is affected by ethylene but
prevented by
67. Fruits are derived from one flower with a. Auxin
several ovaries b. Cytokinins
a. Aggregate c. Simple c. Gibberellins
b. Multiple d. Accessory d. Abscissic acid

68. Analyze the following statements: 77. Storing matured fruit in plastic bags
a. Enhances
1. Endospermic or albuminous seeds contain b. Delays
endosperm for food storage c. Stops
2. Corn and rice are two plants whose seeds d. Prevents ripening of these fruits
are classified as non-endospermic or
exalbuminous. 78. The foolish seedling growth is associated with
what kind of growth hormone
a. Both statement are correct a. Auxins
b. Both statements are incorrect b. Cytokinins
c. Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is c. Gibberellins
incorrect d. Ethylene
d. Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is
correct 79. If the flowering of short day plant is controlled
by a growth hormone, the flowering of long
69. These are several agents that transfer pollen day plant is likewise controlled by growth
grains to hasten fruit development. Some hormones. The hormone responsible for this
flowers are pollinated by bats and these effect is
flowers are called a. Auxins
a. Hydrophilous c. Entomophilous b. Cytokinins
b. Anemophilous d. Chiropterophilous c. Gibberellins
d. Ethylene
70. Apical dominance is a phenomenon wherein
lateral buds are dormant in the presence of 80. Growth is also manifested in the increase in
terminal buds is effected by the girth of the trunk. This growth is due to
a. Ethylene c. Auxins the division of a meristematic tissue called
b. Gibberellins d. Cytokinins a. Cork cambium
b. Vascular cambium
 5

c. Protoderm
d. Ground meristem 91. The observable variation present in a
character in a population is called
81. Tissue at the cell elongation are a. phenotypic variation
a. Protoderm, epiderm, and cortex b. genotypic variation
b. Procambium, cortex and pith c. dominance variation
c. Protoderm, ground meristem and d. environmental variation
procambium
d. Procambium, phloem, and xylem 92. The component of variation that is due to
genotypic differences among individuals
82. Tissues at the cell elongation region are within a population is called
a. protoderm, epidermis and cortex a. phenotypic variation
b. procambium, cortex and pith b. genotypic variation
c. protoderm, ground meristem and c. population variation
procambium d. environmental variation
d. procambium, phloem and xylem
93. The differential performance of genotypes in
83. Cork cells are derived from the division of the different environments is termed as
tissue called a. adaptation
a. cortex b. GE interaction
b. cork cambium c. plant reaction
c. vascular cambium d. adaptability
d. phloem
94. The ratio of genotypic variance to the total
84. The grand phase of growth is known as variance is termed as
a. logarithmic phase a. genetic advance
b. linear phase b. heritability
c. exponential phase c. repeatability
d. declining phase d. combining

85. A tissue found only in the dicot but not in the 95. Characters governed by several genes with
monocot root and stem as well as dicot stem small effects are known as
is a. qualitative
a. cortex b. quantitative
b. phellogen c. dominant
c. endodermic d. recessive characters
d. epidermis
96. The phenomenon of a single major gene
86. Is an irreversible increase in the size of the affecting more than one character is known as
organism a. pleiotropy
a. Development b. penetranx
b. Growth c. expressivity
c. Catabolism d. isogenic
d. Anabolism
97. Modification in the expression of a dominant
87. This law states that additional farm inputs in gene by another non-allelic dominant gene is
excess of the required does not bring an known as
increase in the amount of produce a. gene interaction
a. limiting factors b. gene action
b. optima c. geneflow
c. minimum d. modifies
d. diminishing returns
98. Bacillus thuringensis is
88. The hormone that inhibits organ formation is a. bacterium
known as b. fungi
a. auxin c. virus
b. gibberellin d. all of the above which is a major
c. cytokinin component of the microbial pesticides
d. ethylene
99. Bt corn is a variety of corn where the Bt gene
89. The appearance of a plant with respect to a has been inserted and makes corn resistant to
particular character a. Asiatic corn borer
a. phenotype b. potato beetle
b. genotype c. cotton bollworm
c. ideotype d. tobacco budworm
d. prototype
100. The first genetically modified food crop
90. The genetic constitution of an individual produced in developed countries due to its
a. genotype delayed ripening is
b. phenotype a. tomato
c. gametophyte b. eggplant
d. ideotype c. watermelon
 6

d. soybean c. budding
d. layering
101. The process of introducing a recombinant DNA
molecules into cells of bacteria plants or 111. This refers to a group of cells, tissues or plant
animal is called derived from a single mother cell, tissue or
a. DNA cloning plant through asexual means and is expected
b. transformation to be genetically identical
c. recombination a. clone
d. introduction b. meristem
c. bud
102. Cells containing nucleus of one specie but d. scion
cytoplasm from both the parental species
a. Cybrids 112. A group of substances whether natural or
b. hybrids synthetic
c. transgenic a. auxins
d. symmetric hybrids b. cytokinins
c. gibberellins
103. A plant in which a gene has been transformed d. vitamins
through genetic engineering is called
a. transgenic plant 113. A standard procedure of testing whether plant
b. modified plant or plant tissue carry known diseases or not
c. engineered plant a. quarantine
d. biotech plant b. diagnostic
c. disease tracing
104. The capacity of a cell cultured in vitro to d. disease indexing
regenerate into a plant
a. potency 114. A substance whether natural or synthetic that
b. totipotency can modify growth
c. sustainability a. growth regulator
d. cultirability b. fertilizer
c. nutrient media
105. Production of various organs such as root, d. enhancer
shoot, etc. from cells and tissue cultures is
known as 115. A plant originating from a meristem or other
a. organogenesis organ isolated in vitro
b. adventiseous a. mericlone
c. megagametogenesis b. cyclone
d. gametogenesis c. shoot
d. protocorm
106. The plant part to be cultured in vitro is known
as 116. The clonal true-to-type rapid propagation of
a. mother plant plants in vitro is
b. source plant a. enculturation
c. explant b. clonal propagation
d. stock plant c. fertilization
d. micropopagation
107. Removal of developing embryo from seed and
its cultivation in vitro is called 117. A sterile plant with a functional roots and
a. ovule culture shoots developed in vitro is
b. endosperm culture a. seedling
c. seed culture b. embryo
d. embryo cultures c. plantlet
d. radicle
108. The cultivation of apical meristems,
particularly of shoot apical meristem is known 118. This refers to the group of cells that develops
as into an organ
a. meristem culture a. somatic cells
b. root culture b. primordeum
c. apiculture c. callus
d. stem culture d. cell culture

109. Vegetable multiplication through meristem 119. The increased genetic variability brought
culture is known as about by tissue culture is
a. cloning a. mutation
b. mericloning b. genetic variation
c. shoot culture c. somaclonal variation
d. somacloning d. none of the above

110. The implantation of a meristem from another 120. Group of plant hormone that induces cell
plant to a plantlet or sterile plant in vitro elongation and cell division.
a. grafting a. gibberellins
b. micrografting b. growth regulator
 7

c. vitamins d. inarching
d. trace elements
130. In cleft grafting the wedge is located at the
121. Any organic substance which at low a. scion
concentrations, promotes inhibits or modifies b. root stock
growth c. top of the scion
a. hormone d. above the scion
b. fertilizer
c. enhancer 131. Inarching is also known as
d. modifier a. grafting by approach
b. layering
122. Actively dividing non-organized tissues of c. marcotting
undifferentiated and differentiated cells often d. serpentine
developing from injury (wounding) or in tissue
cultures. 132. Most tropical seed usually germinate in air
a. cellulose containing
b. callus a. 50% O2
c. protocorm b. 55% O2
d. cell suspension c. 40% O2
d. 20% O2
123. Organic compounds serving as a source of
energy, including sugars, starches, and 133. For rapid rate of multiplication the type of
cellulose. propagation generally practiced is
a. fertilizer a. micro propagation
b. carbohydrates b. asexual
c. CO2 c. sexual
d. hormone d. grafting

124. The development of cells or tissues with a 134. Method of plant propagation for discovery of
specific function and/or the regeneration of new variety
organs or organ-like structure (roots, shoots, a. tissue propagation
etc.) or embryo b. embryo propagation
a. differentiation c. vegetative propagation
b. development d. sexual propagation
c. rejuvenation
d. organogenesis 135. The easiest method of artificial propagation
a. marcotting
125. Is the phenomena that, after a number of b. inarching
subcultures, cells can grow without the c. layering
addition of hormones, although this was d. cutting
originally necessary.
a. habituation 136. Type of germination when the cotyledon
b. adaptation comes above the ground
c. acclimatization a. hypogeal
d. maturation b. epigeal
c. hypho-epigeal
126. An undesirable phenomenon that sometime d. exodermus
develops in culture appearing as overly
succulent, crisp water-logged or glassy 137. Term to describe the mucilage or waxy
tissues. materials around some seed which causes
a. vitification physical dormancy
b. oxidation a. exodermus
c. degradation b. seed coat
d. retardation c. sacro-testa
d. hypogeal
127. Combining together a root stock and scion
until they unite permanently 138. The treatment that removes the seed coat or
a. marcotting alter it making it permeable to water
b. layering a. scarification
c. grafting b. stratification
d. cutting c. vernalization
d. separation
128. Example of plant propagated by root cutting
a. onion 139. The placement of seeds between layers of
b. okra either moist, sand, soil, or sawdust at high or
c. guava low temperature so the action of water high
d. eggplant and low temperature will soften the seedcoat
a. separation
129. Air layering is also known as b. vernalization
a. marcotting c. scarification
b. budding d. stratification
c. grafting
 8

140. Term used to describe seeds of some plants the scion hence, it heals quickly and makes a
that could be kept viable for longer periods, very strong union.
provided they are properly dried and stored a. cleft grafting
a. recalcitrant b. saddle grafting
b. foundation c. whip and tongue grafting
c. orthodox d. bark grafting
d. certified
150. An specialized form of grafting in which a
141. Term used to describe seeds of plants that single detached bud is used as the scion
could not be kept viable a long time. It instead of the stem
cannot withstand drying and should not a. cleft
permit to dry out before planting. b. saddle
a. recalcitrant c. whip and tongue
b. registered d. budding
c. foundation
d. orthodox 151. Method of artificial vegetative propagation
when the plant part to be rooted is still
142. Another term for propagating material attached from the parent plant which supplies
a. vegetative the nutrients and moisture while the parts is
b. separation rooting.
c. division a. cutting
d. propagules b. grafting
c. layering
143. Slender specialized aerial stem that grows d. budding
horizontally along the ground from the leaf
axil at the base or crown that produce roots 152. This type of layering was originated by the
and leaf at the near tip Chinese centuries ago
a. sucker a. tip layering
b. runner/stolon b. simple layering
c. slip c. air layering
d. water sucker d. mound layering

144. Method of artificial vegetative propagation 153. Method of artificial plant propagation when
involving regeneration of severed plant part rootstock and scion are made to unite while
(roots, leafs or stem, from the parent plant) both of them are still growing on their own
a. layering roots.
b. grafting a. marcotting
c. budding b. inarching
d. cutting c. grafting
d. layering
145. Type of cuttings consist of leaf blade, petiole
and short piece of the stem with an axillary 154. Sexual propagation is also known as
bud a. vegetative propagation
a. stem cutting b. tissue culture
b. leaf c. embryo culture
c. leaf bud d. seed propagation
d. root
155. Marcotting is a method of
146. These are small suckers just emerging from a. asexual propagation
an underground stem b. sexual propagation
a. maiden c. micro propagation
b. water d. vegetative propagation
c. peepers
d. sword 156. Propagation which preserve the characters of
the parent plant
147. Type of grafting for overgrown stocks too a. sexual
large for other grafting operation b. thinning
a. saddle c. asexual
b. whip and tongue d. etiolation
c. cleft
d. bark 157. A properly dried seed can be stored for longer
duration with high germination using this
148. In grafting, when the wedge is made on the container
stock and the split on the scion the process is a. paper bags
called. b. sealed tin cans
a. whip and tongue grafting c. jute sack
b. bark grafting d. plastic sack
c. saddle grafting
d. cleft grafting 158. An example of recalcitrant seeds
a. tomato
149. These type of grafting allows a bigger area of b. eggplant
cambial contact between the rootstock and c. avocado
 9

d. star apple b. hot treatment

c. mechanical abrasion of seed coat
159. It is not an example of classes of seed d. treating the seeds using abscissic acid
recognized by the Philippine Seed Certification
scheme 169. The best seed storage temperature for
a. foundation seeds orthodox seeds at relatively low humidity is at
b. registered seed a. below 0oC
c. good seed b. 15oC
d. certified seed c. 20oC
d. 25oC
160. Cabbage, onion, carrots require
a. vernalization 170. Who is not the member of the National Seed
b. rainfall Industry Council (the former Philippine
c. high temperature Seedboard)?
d. adequate amount of fertilizer for flower a. Secretary of Agriculture
induction b. Bureau of Plant Industry Director
c. Crop Research Director, PCARRD
161. An example of biennial vegetable crop is d. Bureau of Post harvest Research and
a. tomato Extension Director
b. onion
c. eggplant 171. Crops that normally produce quality seeds in
d. squash temperate countries
a. tomato
162. Which is not included as rogues in seed b. cabbage
production c. eggplant
a. weeds d. all of the above
b. plants that are genetically pure and
conform with the standard of the variety 172. The germination percentage of tomato after
intended for reproduction seed testing was 96 percent, therefore, the
c. plants of another cultivars of the same class of tomato seed is
species a. breeder seed
d. diseased plant of the same crop species b. foundation seed
c. registered seed
163. Theoretically, crops intended for seed d. good seed
production shall be harvested at the point of
a. physiological maturity 173. In purity analysis of the seeds, pure seed
b. when the fruits are very dry includes
c. when there is no rain a. immature seeds
d. when sunlight is very intense so that seed b. seedlike structures
quality are good c. seeds less than one half in size of the
seeds currently analyzed and
164. Under Philippine condition, what character is d. all of the above
not routinely analyzed in the seed testing
laboratory to become a certified seed 174. What moisture content of the seed inhibit
a. physical purity insect activity or little insect activity?
b. germination a. 45-60%
c. incidence of seedborne diseases b. 18-20%
d. moisture content c. Above 14% but below 45%
d. Below 8-9%
165. The inability of a viable seeds to germinate
under favorable conditions 175. A white tag shall be attached to the bag of
a. seed dormancy a. breeder seed
b. vernalization b. foundation seed
c. fermentation c. registered seed and
d. quiscence d. certified seed of rice

166. An example of monoecious plant 176. An example of crop that needs light in order
a. corn to germinate is
b. beans a. lettuce
c. eggplant b. tomato
d. tomato c. eggplant
d. mungbean
167. The scientist who formulated the “Rule of
Thumb” in seed storage of seeds is 177. It is the removal of water from the soil
a. Harrington through surface run-off by flow through the
b. Taylor soil to underground spaces
c. Collin a. Soil erosion
d. Van Daar b. Soil drainage
c. Soil texture
168. Which is not recommended for treating seed d. None of the choices
dormancy?
a. hydrochloric acid treatment
 10

178. This law changed the National Seed Industry c. fungicide application
Council to the Philippines Seedboard to the d. slurry application
National Seed Industry Council as per RA no
a. RA 7308 since March 27, 1992 187. The seeds are treated with fungicide before
b. RA 2000 since March 27, 1998 planting to protect them from soil-borne
c. RA 7001 since March 27, 1994 diseases that can cause poor seedling stand
d. RA 200 since April 12, 1999. a. seed treatment
b. rag doll method
179. In seed production, rouging shall be done c. seed box method
several times at different stages of the crop d. Petri-dish method
development however, the best time is when
the crop is in 188. It is a usual method employed by farmers in
a. Vegetative stage planting the seeds evenly into the field
b. Full bloom a. broadcast method
c. Maturity b. transplant method
d. Right before harvesting c. hill method
d. drill method
180. The class of seed which is considered the
purest in terms of varietal purity is 189. Method of planting where the seeds are sown
a. Breeder seed first on specially prepared seedbed or seed
b. Foundation seed boxes. The seedlings are nursed for
c. Registered seed sometime before they are transplanted to the
d. Certified seed final site.
a. broadcast method
181. The tilling of the soil when it is saturated with b. ridge method
water c. drill method
a. Wet land or low land preparation d. transplant ting method
b. Dry land or upland preparation
c. Dry land or upland preparation 190. Seedlings of rice on wet bed method are
d. Zero tillage preparation ready for transplanting in
a. 10-15 days
182. It refers to the traditional system, which b. 15-20 days
begins with a primary tillage operation c. 25-30 days
followed by several secondary tillage d. 30-35 days
operations.
a. Zero tillage 191. Planting the seeds by distributing them
b. Minimum tillage individually in the row is called:
c. Maximum or conventional tillage a. hill planting
d. Secondary tillage b. drill planting
c. ridge planting
183. Characteristics of a well prepared lowland field d. list planting
a. It must be free of trash and
vegetation to avoid interference with 192. A method of planting the seed at specified
the seedling operation depth on top of the furrows and with the
b. It must contain sufficient moisture to expectation of abundant rain
germinate the seed and support a. surface or flat-bed planting
subsequent growth b. ridge planting
c. Weeds, rice straw, and stubble, which c. list planting
have been tilled under are thoroughly d. hill planting
decayed. The soil is well puddle and
leveled for uniform distribution of 193. Method of raising rice seedling where pre-
water germinated seeds are sown on cement or
d. Low moisture content. puddle soil covered with banana leaves or
polyethylene plastic sheet. The raised
184. Land preparation for one hectare using draft seedlings are ready for transplanting in 10-14
animal requires days.
a. 15 man days a. wet bed method
b. 20 man days b. dapog method
c. 25 man days c. dry bed method
d. 30 man days d. seedbed method

185. Direction of tillage on rolling or hilly field
a. across the contour
b. follow the general contour of the land
c. against the contour
d. up and down the contour
186. It ensures the presence of nitrogen-fixing
bacteria in the root environment of the plant
which may be otherwise low or absent.
a. inoculation
b. dust application
194. A process done on the seedling which is
started at 7 to 10 days before transplanting in
which the seedlings are exposed to full
sunlight and temporary wilting
a. transplanting shock
b. hardening
c. pricking
d. blocking
195. A process done at 7 to 10 days before the
vegetable seedlings are transplanted in which
 11

the full depth of the soil is cut with knife into

blocks of about 5 cm x 5 cm to confine the
roots in separate blocks
a. pricking
b. blocking
c. hardening
d. transplanting shock

196. A process of transferring the seedlings from

seed box to another seex boxes or container
before they are brought to the field.
a. pricking
b. hardening
c. blocking
d. none of the above

197. Advantages of row planting over broadcasting

a. Uniform plant growth, distance between
plants and reduced seeding rate.
b. It increases seeding rate
c. Mutual shading
d. Increase competition of nutrients

198. What is the germination percentage of corn, if

only 180 normal seedling has germinated out
of the 200 seed sown.
a. 80%
b. 85%
c. 90%
d. 95%

199. The recommended seeding rate of peanut is

90 kilogram per hectare. How many kilogram
seed is needed if the germination test is only
80 percent.
a. 120.0
b. 112.5
c. 125.0
d. 128.5

200. Corn will be planted at spaced 75 cm between

rows and 50 cm between hills and will be
maintained at 2 plants per hill. What is the
plant population per hectare?
a. 50,333
b. 51,333
c. 52,333
d. 53,333

201. A drill method of seeding mungbean will be

followed with 30 seeds per linear meter and
the rows are spaced at 50 cm. How many
plants are there per hectare?
a. 60,000
b. 63,000
c. 66,000
d. 69,000
 12

Crop Protection a. mesosternum

b. pleuron
DIRECTION: Encircle the letter of the best c. mesonotum
answer from the choices given. d. mesopleuron

1. The author of the milestones of Philippine 11. The ventral portion of the thorax and
Entomology is abdomen is known as
a. Antonio S. Sedeno a. sternum
b. Julio C. Martinez b. sternites
c. Emiliana N. Bernardo c. sternopleuron
d. Bernardo P. Gabriel d. pleurites

2. This starling was successfully introduced in 12. This group of insecticides inhibits the
1849 from Southern China to control the cholinesterase enzyme of insect pests
locust a. IGRs
a. Martinez b. carbamates
b. Aetheopsar cristatellus c. chlorinated hydrocarbons
c. neither a nor b d. microbial insecticides
d. both a and b
13. The use of oil is a _____ type of method
3. He was the first Filipino to obtain a doctoral against insect pests
degree in entomology in 1922 a. physical
a. L.B. Uichanco b. chemical
b. G.O. Ocfemia c. cultural
c. L.B. Sanchez d. mechanical
d. S.M. Cendana
14. The part of the mouthparts without a palpus
4. The first monographic treatment of Philippine a. labium
mosquitoes by Delfinado in 1966 included all b. maxilla
genera except c. mandibles
a. Anopheles d. all of the above
b. Aedes
c. Culex 15. The anteriormost vein of an insect forewing is
d. Malaria a. jugum
b. costa
5. He was the first Filipino Acarologist who c. anal
spearheaded the research on mites in the d. radial
Philippines in 1961
a. F.F. Sanchez 16. The Pterygote insects include the following
b. L.C. Rimando except
c. C.R. Baltazar a. Odonata
d. V.P. Gapud b. Thysanura
c. Ephermeroptera
6. This is the study of insects d. Orthoptera
a. entomology
b. entomologists 17. Nephotettix virescens belong to the Suborder
c. entomophobia a. Hemiptera
d. pathology b. Heteroptera
c. Homoptera
7. The earliest insect found during the Middle d. Phthiraptera
Devonian period, Thyniella praecursor, belong
to the insect order 18. The insect order characterized by having
a. Thysanura scales on its membranous wings
b. Protura a. Trichoptera
c. Collombola b. Hymenoptera
d. Diptura c. Orthoptera
d. Lepidoptera
8. The nearest relative of the class Insecta is
a. Class Crustacea 19. The third segment of the insect’s midleg is
b. Class Diptura known as
c. Class Chilopoda a. midfemur
d. Class Diplopoda b. midtrochanter
c. midtarsus
9. When the mouthparts are directed anteriad, d. midtibia
this is known as
a. prognathous 20. The third segment of the dorsal part of
b. hypognathous abdomen is
c. opisthognathous a. T3
d. agnathous b. te III
c. t3
10. The lateral sides of the middle segment of the d. t III
insect thorax is known as
 13

21. The injury caused by a “putakti” comes from 32. This part of the digestive system functions as
this body region of the insect center of absorption; absorbing nutrients in
a. head the hemocoele
b. cephalothorax a. crop
c. thorax b. mouth
d. abdomen c. anus
d. malpighian tubules
22. The third layer of an insect’s skin is
a. outer epicuticle 33. Cockroaches belong to this insect order
b. wax a. Phasmatodea
c. cement b. Mantodea
d. inner procuticle c. Orthoptera
d. Blattodea
23. The thrips belong to this order
a. Thysanoptera 34. Houseflies and mosquitoes are
b. Termitidea a. Strepsipterans
c. Trichoptera b. Dipterans
d. Thripidae c. Neuropterans
d. Coleopterans
24. Human louse’s life cycle is
a. paurometabola 35. This wing type belongs to Orthopterans
b. hemimetabola a. membranous
c. ametabola b. elytron
d. holometabola c. hemelytron
d. tegmen
25. Naiad is a part of this metamorphosis
a. ametabola 36. Spodoptera litura is a pest of
b. hemimetabola a. onion
c. paurometabola b. corn
d. holometabola c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
26. Nymph is a part of this metamorphosis
a. ametabola 37. Bactrocera dorsalis is a pest of
b. hemimetabola a. eggplant
c. paurometabola b. watermelon
d. holometabola c. mango
d. tomato
27. Pterothorax pertains to the winged segments
of the insect’s thorax 38. Insects became pests because of
a. no a. man
b. yes b. its voraciousness
c. probably c. mouthparts
d. not sure d. sting

28. This functions as air storage of the insect’s 39. A cultural practice against pest utilized to
respiratory system enhance the activities and survival of natural
a. atrium enemies
b. valves a. trap crops
c. air sac b. biological control
d. taenidium c. habitat diversification
d. cultivation
29. This functions to control the influx of air
within the insect’s respiratory system 40. The use of adhesive substances is a _______
a. tacnidium method used against pests
b. valves a. cultural control
c. air sac b. chemical control
d. atrium c. physical control
d. mechanical control
30. This functions to guide the air flow within the
insect’s respiratory system 41. Early harvest is a _______ type of control
a. valves against pests
b. atrium a. cultural control
c. taenidium b. chemical control
d. air sac c. physical control
d. mechanical control
31. This is referred to as thickened tracheoles
a. atrium 42. Cold storage could also be used against pests
b. valves and is considered a _______ method of
c. taenidium control
d. air sac a. cultural control
b. chemical control
c. physical control
 14

d. mechanical control
53. Prediction technology is useful to prevent this
43. Water management can be categorized under pest’s outbreak
all methods of control except a. key
a. cultural b. occasional
b. chemical control c. potential
c. physical control d. migrant
d. mechanical control
54. Majority of the seeds entering the seedbank in
44. This group of insecticides, in a way, could be agricultural land came from
considered a biological control method a. annual weeds
a. organophosphates b. perennial
b. botanicals c. biennial
c. IGRs d. both of a and b
d. microbial insecticides
55. This method involves manipulation of the
45. The most toxic insecticide has this band color cultural management practices to suppress
on its label the weeds
a. blue a. mechanical
b. red b. cultural
c. green c. chemical
d. yellow d. none

46. IPM employs a variety of tactics, and the least 56. Buthachlor or Machete EC belongs to this
type of method that could be used is group of herbicide
a. cultural control a. triazines
b. chemical control b. amides
c. HPR c. ureas
d. hutocidal d. uraelis

47. The type of metamorphosis for exopterygotes 57. An adjuvant or surfactants that improve
is absorption of herbicide by raising the
a. holometabola humidity or spray film and leaf surface
b. paurometabola a. emulsifiers
c. hemimetabola b. humectants
d. both b and c c. dispersing agent
d. fertilizer additives
48. The type of metamorphosis for
endopterygotes is 58. Among the invertebrates, only insects have
a. holometabola this characteristic
b. paurometabola a. segmentation
c. ametabola b. wings
d. hemimetabola c. antennae
d. 3 pair of jointed legs
49. A category of pest that cause no significant
damage under the conditions currently 59. From which character was the name
prevailing, however, this can be a key or “Arthropoda” derived?
occasional pest if conditions in the field are a. segmentation
disrupted b. wings
a. key c. antennae
b. occasional d. jointed legs
c. potential
d. migrant 60. In caterpillars, where are the
prolegs/pseudolegs located?
50. Term used for non-resident pests a. head
a. key b. thorax
b. occasional c. abdomen
c. potential d. thorax and abdomen
d. migrant
61. Where would you least likely find insects?
51. Pests that are focal point of pest management a. North Pole
systems b. Mt. Makiling
a. key c. Laguna Lake
b. occasional d. Sulu Sea
c. potential
d. migrant 62. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic
of arthropods?
52. Part-time pests a. Radial synnetry
a. key b. Exoskeleton
b. occasional c. Jointed legs
c. potential d. Segmented body
d. migrant
 15

63. Which of the following pests is NOT an a. ametabolous

arthropod b. hemimetabolous
a. Santol gall mite c. paurometabolous
b. Golden apple snail d. holometabolous
c. Melon fruit fly
d. Corn earthworm 74. A modern approach to minimize damage by
pests with ultimate goal of population
64. Which is NOT true of ALL insects? management rather than eradication
a. they have antennae a. Integrated pesticide management
b. they have wings b. Integrated pest management
c. they have three body regions c. Pest control strategies
d. they have three pairs of legs d. Biological control

65. This sensory organ is NOT found among 75. A control method whereby synthetic toxic
insects substances or bioactive plant products are
a. mouthpart used to combat pest population
b. antennae a. use of resistant varieties
c. chelicera b. cultural control
d. eye c. chemical control
d. IGR
66. The first segment of the insect antennae
a. scape 76. An unwanted organism which competes with
b. pedicel man for food and shelter or threatens their
c. flagellum health comfort or welfare
d. clavola a. pest
b. insect
67. In the piercing-sucking type of mouthparts, c. weed
this component cannot be inserted into the d. pathogens
host plant, hence it bends when the insects is
feeding 77. The relative amount of heritable qualities in
a. labrum plants that influence the ultimate degree of
b. mandible damages by the pest
c. maxilla a. host plant resistance
d. labium b. insecticide resistance
c. tolerance
68. This type of antennae is found among d. host evasion
scarabeid beetles
a. bipeetinate 78. The man-directed control of insect pests by
b. clavate employing the use of natural enemies
c. filiform a. mechanical control
d. lamellate b. cultural control
c. biological control
69. The setaceous type of antennae is found d. microbial evasion
among
a. butterflies 79. The term given for crop destruction, injury or
b. grasshoppers loss of value caused by the feeding activity of
c. dragonflies different pests.
d. houseflies a. characteristic damage
b. pest infestation
70. The elbow-like type of antennae found among c. infection
ants d. all of the above
a. geniculate
b. clavate 80. The pest density at which artificial control
c. lamellate measures should be applied to prevent pest
d. plumose population increases or pest outbreak
a. economic injury level
71. Preying mantis use this type of forelegs to b. equilibrium level
catch their prey c. economic threshold level
a. grasping d. average population
b. clinging
c. walking 81. A toxic substance which is readily available
d. digging and kills pest instantly
a. insecticide
72. Headlice use this type of legs to anchor b. pesticides
themselves on the host c. rodenticide
a. grasping d. weedicide
b. clinging
c. walking 82. The collective term for parasitic and predatory
d. digging insects
a. Phytophagous insects
73. In what type of insect development has the b. Entomophagous insects
larval and pupal stage? c. Polyphagous insects
 16

d. none of the above d. haustorium

83. The symptom of stemborer damage during 93. Characteristic of fungi

the reproductive stage of the rice plant a. eukaryotic
characterized by the pale appearance of the b. prokaryotic
unfilled grains c. chlorophyllous
a. deadheart d. none of the above
b. whitehead
c. wilting 94. The presence of different nuclei in the same
d. false smut mycelium is
a. heterotrophism
84. The most destructive avian pest that attacks b. hermaphrodite
rice and other small grains c. heterokaryosis
a. Philippine weaver d. heterothallism
b. Philippine eagle
c. Philippine oriole 95. Macroconidia and microconidia are formed by
d. None of the above a. Collectotrichum spp.
b. Alternata spp.
85. A vertebrate pest which is a perennial c. Fusarium spp.
problem in crop production that usually d. Cercospora spp.
demands a unified, coordinated and sustained
community action to gain an effective control. 96. A character of hyphae that is found only in
a. birds the basidiomycetous fungi
b. snakes a. pseudosepta
c. rodents b. cross walls
d. snails c. septal pore
d. clamp connections
86. Grassy weeds (Poaceae) looks similar to
sedges except that their stem called culm is: 97. A group of substances secreted by pathogens
a. triangular that interfere with the permeability of
b. cylindrical photoplast membrane
c. polyhedral a. enzymes
d. hexagonal b. growth regulators
c. toxins
87. The hair membranous outgrowth in between d. suppressors
leafsheat and leaf blade in grasses is called
a. leaf blade 98. Type or method of sexual reproduction in
b. petiole fungi which involves the union of two naked
c. ligule motile gametes
d. auricle a. gametangial copulation
b. spermatization
88. Diseased plant is a c. planogametic copulation
a. host d. gametangial contact
b. suscept
c. both a and b 99. An ascocarp in fungi with a pore at the top
d. pathogen and wall of its own
a. apothecium
89. The corn disease incited by Bipolaris maydis b. pycnidium
may be controlled by c. clestothecium
a. insecticides d. perithecium
b. antibiotics
c. fungicides 100. The naming of newly discovered fungal
d. miticides species is based commonly on
a. location
90. Fungi in the Philippines reproduce mainly by b. host
forming c. distinct structural character
a. sexual spores d. well-known mycologist
b. asexual spores
c. mycelia 101. Which is not a distinct characteristic of Class
d. endospores Loculoascomycetes of fungi
a. ascocarp in ascostroma
91. Fungal pathogens are often isolated by b. asei in locules
a. serial dilution c. monolocular ascostroma
b. tissue planting d. a single-walled ascus
c. spore trapping
d. Baermann funnel 102. Non-parasitic fungi which are present on plant
parts with deposit of insects, particularly
92. Some fungal pathogens form this structure to aphids and scale insects.
obtain nutrients from the host a. downy mildew fungi
a. germ tube b. powdery mildew fungi
b. sporeling c. sooty mold fungi
c. infection hypha d. slime molds
 17

c. direct parasite
103. Spores produced from fragmentation of d. indirect parasite
hyphal cells
a. chlamydospores 113. The regulatory method of insect control is
b. catenate spores closely related to:
c. arthrospores a. cultural control
d. basidiospores b. quarantine control
c. biological control
104. Burning the rice straw to control rice stem d. physical control
bore is a good example of:
a. sanitation 114. Education, quarantine, using certified planting
b. clean culture materials, checking suspect materials before
c. rationing planting and cleaning equipment, are
d. physical control examples of what type of management
a. prevention
105. One of the functions of this agency is to b. protection
quarantine c. eradication
a. UPLB d. all of the above
b. BPI
c. FPA 115. The most widely used category of chemicals
d. IRRI for management of plant parasitic nematodes
has traditionally been
106. Some nematodes are able to transmit plant a. mebendazoles
viruses. What role do these nematodes play b. carbamates
in disease development? c. fumigants
a. incitants d. natural products
b. vectors
c. pathogens 116. A broad spectrum gaseous chemical used for
d. parasites management of plant parasitic nematodes
that is thought to be damaging to the
107. For annual crops, the maximum number of a. metam-sodium
nematode parasites can be recovered during b. carbamate
a. fallow period c. methyl bromide
b. vegetable stage d. all of the above
c. flowering stage
d. near harvest stage 117. The practice of incorporating fresh plants or
plant materials onto the soil as a mean to
108. This is the outer non-cellular layer covering control plant parasitic nematodes is called
the nematode body and is shed-off during a. biological control
molting b. biofumigation
a. exoskeleton c. fallowing
b. skin d. organic fertilization
c. endoskeleton
d. cuticle 118. Published the first book on pytobacteriology
“bacteria in relation to plant diseases”
109. Which of the following root symptoms should a. Thomas Jonathan Burril
raise suspicion of a nematode problem? b. Charlotte Elliot
a. galls or swelling c. Erwin Frank Smith
b. lesions or dark spots d. Martinus Willem
c. both a and b are correct
d. no correct answer 119. Main means of reproduction of bacteria
a. budding
110. Possessing both functional male and female b. spore
reproductive organ c. binary fission
a. amphimictic d. transverse fission
b. parthenogenetic
c. hermaphroditic 120. Where protein synthesis occurs
d. oviparous a. lysosomes
b. ribosomes
111. The term for eggs hatching within the uterus c. mesosomes
followed by expulsion of living young is called d. chromosomes
a. amphimictic
b. parthenogenetic 121. Five-carbon sugar compound of DNA
c. oviparous a. ribose
d. oviviparous b. deoxyribose
c. maltose
112. If juveniles and adult are motile during all life d. dextrose
cycle stages but may be either within or
outside of roots and plant parasitic nematode 122. The building blocks of proteins
is a/an a. fatty acids
a. migratory ectoparasite b. peptides
b. migratory endoparasites c. nucleic acids
 18

d. amino acids b. biological control

c. behavior control
123. Metabolic pathway that converts glucose to d. autocidal control
pyruvate
a. glycolysis 133. Interaction between two organisms where
b. gluconeugenesis both are adversely affected is called
c. hydrolysis a. competition
d. photosynthesis b. parasitism
c. amensalism
124. Organism that use organic compounds as d. commensalism
source of hydrogen atoms or electrons
a. autotrops 134. Which of these are density-independent
b. lithotrophs mortality factors
c. heterotrophs a. parasites
d. organotrophs b. predators
c. food supply
125. A group of pathogens that infect a set of plant d. drought
varieties
a. species 135. Legal actions intended to exclude potential
b. race pests and to prevent spread of those already
c. pathovar present
d. blovar a. eradication
b. containment
126. A virus that infects bacteria c. suppression
a. prophage d. quarantine
b. baculovirus
c. bacteriophage 136. The discovery of DDT on this year is
d. macrophage considered as one of the major event in the
history of crop protection.
127. A microbial product other than an enzyme a. 1959
which causes obvious damage to plant b. 1937
tissues, and which is known with reasonable c. 1935
confidence to be involved in disease d. 1939
development
a. phytoalexin 137. Comprise the total complex of organism is a
b. phytotoxin cropped area together with all aspects of the
c. cutin environment as modified by the activities of
d. suberin man.
a. ecosystem
128. Toxin produced by Erwinia syringae pv b. pathosystem
syringae c. agroecosystem
a. Syringomycin d. crop system
b. Phaseolotoxin
c. Amylovorin 138. Which of the following is a barrier to virus
d. Tabtoxin movement through the plant
a. movement from the first infected cell
129. Hormone involved in fruit ripening b. movement out of parenchyma cells into
a. cytokinin vascular tissues
b. giberillin c. movement out of the vascular tissue into
c. ethylene the parenchyma of an invaded leaf
d. indole acetic acid d. movement out of the stylet of the vector
among epidermal cells of the plants
130. Yellowing caused by some factor other than
light, such as infection by a virus or 139. A seed infected with a virus is an important
mycoplasma source of infection since the seed introduces
a. gummosis a. the virus into the crop at a very early
b. chlorophyllosis stage
c. chlorosis b. a concentrated foci of infection throughout
d. mottling the crop
c. the virus into the crop at all stages of the
131. A general necrosis caused by the rapid growth crop
and advance of the causal bacteria through d. the virus into the crop during its
leaves and stems reproduction stage
a. wilt
b. blast 140. The main components of plant viruses are
c. blight a. DNA + glycoprotein + lipids
d. rot b. Transfer RNA + protein + lipids
c. Glyconucleoprotein + lipids
132. Refers to the control of pest by living d. Either DNA or RNA + protein
organisms under either natural or artificial
environment 141. Plant pathology is the study of:
a. cultural control a. pests
 19

b. weeds d. viruses
c. plant diseases
d. insects 152. These pathogens are known to cause the
cadang-cadang of coconut
142. Which of the following is NOT part of the art a. bacteria
of plant pathology b. viriods
a. disease diagnosis c. spiroplasma
b. characteristics of diseases d. mycoplasma
c. disease assessment
d. field application of control measures 153. Pierre Marie Alexis Millardet formulated this
substance, which became the foundation of
143. He is considered the father of plant pathology chemical disease control of plant diseases.
a. Heinrich de Bary a. fungicide
b. Whetzel b. Bordeaux mixture
c. Theophrastus c. Pesticide
d. Pliny the Elder d. benlate

144. The well known toxin produced by Aspergillus 154. The type of insecticide highly compatible for
flavus IPM
a. fungus toxin a. none selective insecticide
b. aflatoxin b. fumigants
c. ochratoxin c. selective insecticide
d. yellow corn toxin d. persistent insecticide

145. Blight pathogens affect this capacity of the 155. Which of the following is NOT a definition of
plant plant disease
a. reproductive a. a physiological malfunctioning caused by
b. growth animate objects
c. photosynthetic b. any deviation from normal growth or
d. respiratory structure of plants that is sufficiently
pronounced any permanent to produced
146. The Autogenetic Theory of Disease states visible symptoms
that: c. a malfunctioning process caused by
a. diseases are infectious continuous irritation
b. diseases are caused by “germs” or d. any agent which causes a disease
microorganism
c. pathogens are outgrowths of the disease 156. This refers to an organism which has the
and not the cause ability to be a parasite although it is ordinarily
d. diseases are caused by unfavorable a saprophyte
weather and sick soil a. pathogen
b. obligate parasite
147. The insecticide is said to be extremely toxic if c. facultative parasite
the color of the container label is: d. saprophyte
a. black
b. red 157. The insect, termites, can be best be controlled
c. green by the use of:
d. yellow a. selective insecticide
b. broad spectrum insecticide
148. The name of the disease caused by fungus c. persistent insecticide
Claviceeps purpurea? d. fumigant
a. ergot
b. late blight 158. The expression of a diseased plant with
c. bacterial wilt certain characteristics
d. club root a. symptoms
b. signs
149. Rye may induce affliction called: c. conditions
a. leprosy d. indications
b. St. Anthony’s Fire
c. Divine Punishment 159. This refers to the pathogen associated with
d. Tetanus the infected plant
a. pathogen
150. He wrote the first textbook in Plant Pathology b. obligate parasite
a. Julius Kuhn c. facultative parasite
b. Heinrich Anton de Bay d. saprophyte
c. Franz Unger
d. Pier Antonio meheli 160. The type of resistance the plant has if the
insect is immediately killed after feeding
151. Submicroscopic entities which could pass a. none preference
through bacterial-proof filters are called b. antibiosis
a. viroids c. tolerance
b. bacteria d. mechanical basis of resistance
c. mycoplasma
 20

161. When a peanut plant has a root and stem rot d. nonmotile, nonspore-forming,
disease, which leads to wilting, the wilting polymorphic microorganisms that lack cell
symptoms are classified as: walls and are bound by a triple-layered
a. primary symptoms unit membrane
b. secondary symptoms
c. localized symptoms 170. It is the only genus of plant pathogenic
d. systemic symptoms bacteria that produces spores.
a. Xanthomonas
162. The overdevelopment of plant cells, tissue or b. Pseudomonas
plant parts is termed as ___ c. Agrobacterium
a. hyperplastic symptoms d. Streptomyces
b. local symptoms
c. necrotic symptoms 171. The primary reproductive structures of fungi
d. systemic symptoms are
a. filaments
163. This symptoms is also called a lesion b. spores
a. spot c. mycelium
b. blast d. fungus
c. blight
d. hypertrophy 172. The causal organism of the root knot of most
vegetables:
164. This refers to an extensive, usually sudden a. Plasmodiophora brassicae
death of host tissue b. Radopholus similes
a. hypertrophy c. Meloidogyne incognita
b. blight d. Phytophthora infestans
c. blast
d. spot 173. What statements is true about biotypes?
a. Pathogens of the same biotype are
165. The rotting of seedlings prior to emergence is morphologically identical
called: b. The biotype is genetically homogenous
a. damping off c. Biotypes differ in the cultivar or host
b. blast variety infected
c. blight d. If an organism from one biotype mates
d. resetting with one from another biotype, no new
biotype is formed
166. The four rules of proof that are used in
identifying certain plant diseases 174. What is heterokaryosis?
a. the Central Dogma a. parasexuality
b. Koch’s Postulate b. presence of different nuclei in the same
c. Koch’s Rules mycelium
d. The disease Proofs c. variation
d. susceptibility
167. Conditions caused by manimate agents are
also called: 175. The formae specialis is a subspecific
a. symptoms classification of fungi, which is based on
b. physiological disorders a. ability to attack different genera of crop
c. diseases plants
d. maladies b. ability to attack different varieties or
cultivars
168. What are viroids? c. morphological characteristics of the
a. Ultramicroscopic, obligately parasitic fungus
entities that are made up of a nucleic acid d. cultural characteristics of the fungus
core and a protein coat.
b. Tiny entities composed of stable and free 176. This refers to the sequence of events that
ribonucleic acids that can infect plant leads to and is involved in disease production
cells. a. incubation
c. Unicellular microorganisms that reproduce b. disease cycle
asexually by binary fission. c. disease
d. Nonmotile, nonspore-forming, d. life cycle
polymorphic microorganisms that lack cell
walls and are bound by a triple-layered 177. This occurs when the pathogen has become
unit membrane. established in the plant tissues and obtains
nutrients from the host
169. These pathogens are commonly disseminated a. infection
by insects. b. disease cycle
a. ultramicroscopic, obligately parasitic c. disease
entities that are made up of a nucleic acid d. life cycle
core and a protein coat
b. tiny entities composed of stable and free 178. Which of the following is now a survival
ribonucleic acids that can infect plant cells structure?
c. unicellular microorganisms that reproduce a. phanerogram seeds
asexually by binary fission b. sclerotial bodies
 21

c. chlamydospores d. legs
d. spores
190. The part of the insect body which is
179. The term used for the leaf and above-ground constricted with forcep like cerci
plant surfaces a. wings
a. phylloplane b. mouth
b. above-ground parts c. abdomen
c. rhizosphere d. legs
d. phyllosphere
191. The forewing is leathery while the hind legs
180. What is the term for plant disease epidemics are modified for jumping
that occur throughout the world? a. Odonata
a. pandemic b. Ortthoptera
b. sporadic c. Ephemeroptera
c. endemic d. Phasmatodea
d. natural
192. The forewings are highly sclerotized
181. This is considered as world worst weed a. Phthirhaptera
a. Galinsoga parviflora b. Coleoptera
b. Cyperus rotundus c. Strepsiptera
c. Eleusine indica d. Neuroptera
d. Amaranthus spinosus
193. The gestation period of rodents
182. A weed considered as a true-parasite a. 25 days
a. Portulaca oleraceae b. 30 days
b. Cuseuta sp. c. 21 days
c. Plantago major d. 31 days
d. Digitaria setigera
194. A quick acting poison which cause death to
183. A broad-leaf weed rats shortly after ingestion
a. Impereta cylindrica a. acute poison
b. Cyperus rotundus b. chronic
c. Commelina benghalensis c. anticoagulant
d. Leersia hexandra d. none of the above

184. An example of a grass 195. The order category in insect classification

a. Digitaria setigera where most of the representative insects are
b. Peperomia pellucida natural enemies.
c. Cyperus kylingia a. Coleoptera
d. Portulaca oleraceae b. Diptera
c. Hemiptera
185. The father of world entomology d. Hymenoptera
a. Linnaeus
b. Socrates 196. The pathogen that gained world wide
c. Aristotle recognition especially during the 1960s
d. Calora because of its extreme effectiveness in
controlling lepidorterous pests especially
186. The most problematic insect in crucifer plants diamondback moth
a. flea beetles a. fungi
b. diamondback moth b. virus
c. aphids c. bacteria
d. cutworm d. nematodes

187. Which do not conform with the principle of 197. This type of pheromone ants have:
entomology a. alarm pheromone
a. all insects have 3 pairs of legs b. aggregation pheromones
b. all insects are winged c. dispersal pheromones
c. not all insects have antennae d. trail phermones
d. all insects have 3 body regions
198. The type of resistance the plant has if the
188. The term for the larval stage of the insects in insect is immediately killed after feeding
the order Lepidoptera a. none preference
a. grubs b. antibiosis
b. caterpillar c. tolerance
c. pupa d. mechanical basis of resistance
d. immature stage
199. An example of systemic insecticide
189. Leathery, horny and membranous part of the a. Dipel
insect body. b. Pennant 50EC
a. mouth c. Furadan 3G
b. abdomen d. Vegetox 50 SP
c. wings
 22

200. The insect termites can be best be controlled

by the use of:
a. selective insecticide
b. broad spectrum insecticide
c. persistent insecticide
d. fumigant
 23

Soil Science 11. A lowland paddy soil possesses

a. ABC horizons
DIRECTION: Encircle the letter of the best b. oxidized and reduced layers
answer from the choices given. c. AB horizons
d. OABC
1. The original source of most organic matter in
soil is 12. An organic soil is most likely having % OM of
a. plant residues a. 1
b. bodies of dead animals and insects b. 5
c. soil inhabiting microorganisms c. 25
d. rocks d. 0

2. The most abundant gas in the soil atmosphere 13. The mineral supplying P is:
is: a. feldspar
a. CO2 b. apatite
b. O2 c. talc
c. N2 d. pyrite
d. A
14. Tourmaline supplies the element
3. A soil horizon is defined as: a. Mn
a. the depth of finely divided soil mineral b. B
matter over bed rock c. Ca
b. a soil layer that differs in recognizable d. N
properties from other layers immediately
above or below 15. Resistance of a mineral to abrasion is
c. the slope of the soil surface relative to the a. Luster
horizontal b. specific gravity
d. any of the above c. hardness
d. cleavage
4. An example of physical weathering process is
a. exfoliation 16. The softest mineral is
b. solution a. diamond
c. hydration b. talc
d. oxidation c. quartz
d. apatite
5. A civil engineer is a:
a. edaphologist 17. The hardest mineral is
b. pedologist a. diamond
c. petrologist b. talc
d. anthropologist c. quartz
d. apatite
6. The study of rock is:
a. mineralogy 18. This mineral is hardly soluble in water
b. rockology a. talc
c. petrology b. quartz
d. hydrology c. gypsum
d. fluorite
7. The molten mass from where igneous rocks
solidify from is: 19. This is not an element of climate
a. core a. relief
b. magma b. precipitation
c. mantle c. temperature
d. soil d. sunshine

8. Metamorphism is caused by: 20. Parent material deposited in lakes is

a. high pressure and temperature a. alluvium
b. floods b. lacustrine
c. erosion c. marine
d. earthquake d. tuff

9. The parent material corresponds to horizon: 21. The soil profile is found in the
a. AB a. core
b. C b. mantle
c. D c. crust
d. ABCD d. Moho layer

10. The true soil corresponds to horizon: 22. The most abundant elements in the earth’s
a. C crust are
b. AB a. Fe, Al, Mn, N, P
c. ABC b. O, Si, Al, Fe, Ca
d. ABCD c. N, P, K, Ca, Mg
d. C, H, O, N, P
 24

a. quartz
23. Secondary mineral include b. feldspar
a. montmorillonite c. calcite
b. quartz d. ferromagnesian minerals
c. feldspar
d. diamond 34. The chemical element in dolomite that is not
an important constituent of calcite is:
24. This is not a soil forming factor a. Mg
a. climate b. Ca
b. organism c. C
c. soil color d. O
d. time
35. The primary mineral most likely to accumulate
25. The basic elements lost in weathering are at the site of chemical weathering of granite
a. Fe, Al is:
b. Ca, Mg a. mica
c. Zn, Mn b. muscovite
d. C, H c. quartz
d. clay
26. The main objective of physical weathering is
a. increase total surface area for chemical 36. Soil textural classes are defined in terms of
weathering ranges in variation in:
b. weaken rock by removal of bases a. structure
c. produce clay b. weathering
d. leach bases c. texture
d. drainage
27. The two soil forming factors that normally
show the greatest variation from one 37. The physical state of the soil as relates to
geographic region to another are: plant growth is known as soil:
a. topography and parent material a. texture consistency
b. topography b. tilth
c. climate and vegetation c. structure
d. time and relief
38. The sedimentary rock that contains clay
28. Parent material that has formed by minerals as one of its more important
weathering of bedrock in place is: constituents is:
a. transported a. shale
b. residual b. limestone
c. colluvial c. sandstone
d. alluvial d. slate

29. One of the most variable soil components is: 39. The percent moisture of a moist soil sample
a. mineral matter that weighs 12.5 g originally and 10 g after
b. organic matter oven drying is:
c. soil water a. 12.5
d. sand b. 10
c. 25
30. Of the following minerals, the one that d. 22.5
expands on wetting is:
a. muscovite 40. The force that determines the height to which
b. illite water will rise in a vertical capillary tube:
c. montmorillonite a. surface tension
d. kaolinite b. capillarity
c. infiltration
31. Feldspar minerals that are most easily d. capillary fringe
weathered by chemical means tend to be high
in the element: 41. The entry of surface applied water into soil is
a. K known as:
b. Na a. infiltration
c. Ca b. percolation
d. P c. seepage
d. erosion
32. Basalt weathers more easily than granite, this
difference being explained most readily by 42. The zone of saturated soil where water is held
difference in: under suction immediately above the water
a. mineralogy table is known as:
b. texture a. water table
c. both a and b b. spring
d. color c. capillary fringe
d. capillarity
33. The dark color of igneous rocks is usually
caused by:
 25

43. The acidity of rain water is largely due to the 53. Where a complete cloud is present, the
gas: component of solar radiation that is of
a. CO2 maximum intensity at ground level is:
b. NO3 a. light
c. SO3 b. infrared
d. H c. ultraviolet
d. far red
44. Which does not relate to CEC?
a. amount of clay 54. The exchange of energy in radiant form
b. amount of OM between the soil and the atmosphere goes
c. kind of clay on:
d. bulk density a. only during daylight hours
b. only during night
45. This ion is adsorbed with the least force to soil c. continuously
particles: d. only during cloudy day
a. Na
b. Ca 55. Maximum daily variation in temperature at
c. H the surface of the ground normally occurs
d. Al where:
a. both the soil and air above are dry
46. The soil depth from which plants obtain the b. both the soil and air above are moist
major part of the water absorbed is turned: c. the soil is dry but the air above is moist
a. effective-rooting depth of plant d. soil is wet
b. solum
c. profile 56. In addition to hydrogen, the cation that
d. rhizosphere normally tends to increase in exchangeable
form with increasing soil acidity is:
47. The consumptive use of water is defined as a. aluminum
that quantity of water in the production of a b. calcium
crop by the process of: c. ammonium
a. transpiration d. magnesium
b. evaporation
c. evapotranspiration 57. The cation exchange capacity of a soil is a
d. water use efficiency measure of
a. the force of bonding between the soil and
48. Porosity, which is the total pore-space volume exchangeable cations
of soils: b. the negative charge of the soil neutralized
a. is highest in fine-texture soils by easily replaceable cations
b. is highest in coarse-textured soils c. the speed with which ions added to the
c. varies little with difference in texture soil solution become adsorbed on soil
d. is same for all the soil particle surfaces
d. acidity
49. The hydraulic pressure of water held in the
soil by capillary forces of attraction is: 58. Of the following, the material with the highest
a. zero cation-exchange capacity is:
b. positive a. vermiculite
c. negative b. montmorillonite
d. 10,000 c. organic matter
d. kaolinite
50. Soil suction in a saturated zone beneath a
water table is: 59. A soil has a cation exchange capacity of 10
a. greater than zero me per 100 g, and the following compliment
b. zero of exchangeable cations, the amounts being
c. less than zero expressed in millequivalents per 100 g of soil:
d. 10,000 Hm 3.0 Ca, 2.0 Al, 3.0 Mg, 1.0 Na, o.25 and
K, 0.75. The percent base saturation of this
51. In magnitude and algebraic sign, the matric soil is:
potential of soil water is equal to: a. 10
a. negative hydraulic pressure b. 40
b. soil suction c. 70
c. soil water tension d. 50
d. positive hydraulic pressure
60. In slightly acid soils, such as in those with pH
52. Plant wilting commences when: between 6.0 and 7.0 the two most abundant
a. water flow into roots stops cations will probably be:
b. water flow into roots drops below a. calcium and magnesium
transpirational loss b. hydrogen and aluminum
c. water starts flowing from roots back into c. potassium and sodium
the soil d. iron and manganese
d. soil is at field capacity
61. An illuvial horizon in a soil is designated by
the symbol:
 26

a. A1 b. 40
b. A2 c. 200
c. B2 d. 80
d. O2
72. The dominant basic cation in agricultural soil
62. A parent material that often has the same is
origin as losses but is separated from the loss a. Na
by the action of wind is: b. K
a. colluvium c. Mg
b. volcanic ash d. Ca
c. dune sand
d. lahar 73. A loam soil has
a. macropores > micropores
63. The removal of excess water from a b. macropores < micropores
waterlogged soil depends on c. micropores = macropores
a. a difference in soil suction d. zero pore spaces
b. the force of gravity
c. atmospheric pressure 74. A submerged soil has
d. temperature a. all pores filled with water
b. macropores filled with water
64. CEC is 20 m.e./100 g. If it has 8 m.e. H and c. macropores filled with air
the remaining cations are bases, what is the d. micropores filled with air
% BS?
a. 80 75. Under conditions of high rainfall and humidity
b. 40 the least leached cation is
c. 60 a. Al
d. 50 b. Ca
c. Mg
65. During the dry season plant roots are d. Na
naturally supplied with water through
a. infiltration 76. At the same level of OM which will have the
b. capillarity highest water holding capacity?
c. percolation a. loamy sand
d. leaching b. clay loam
c. clay
66. Which soil property is not influenced by OM? d. sandy loam
a. bulk density
b. texture 77. The capability of the soil being molded by
c. structure hands is
d. color a. stickiness
b. plasticity
67. Which is the seat of chemical activities in the c. tilth
soil? d. cracking
a. sand
b. silt 78. If a ring without crack is formed in the roll
c. colloid method of determining texture the texture is
d. clay most likely:
a. loamy sand
68. Which has the highest pH dependent negative b. clay loam
charges? c. clay
a. OM d. sandy loam
b. Illite
c. Montmorillonite 79. The hydrometer and pipette method of
d. kaolinite mechanical analysis obey the:
a. Dick’s Law
69. Ten m.e. of Ca (40) can replace how many b. Freundlick’s Law
m.e. of H in the exchange complex? c. Ohm’s Law
a. 0.2 d. Stokes Law
b. 1
c. 20 80. This is used in determining soil color:
d. 10 a. color wheel
b. LCC
70. The soil contains 10 m.e. Ca/100 g. This is c. Munsell color chart
equivalent to how many tons Ca per HFS? d. Mohs’ scale
a. 4
b. 40 81. The hardest mineral is
c. 10 a. quartz
d. 200 b. diamond
c. talc
71. One m.e. Ca/100 g soil is equivalent to how d. topaz
many ppm Ca? At Wt. Ca = 40
a. 400
 27

82. Which among these minerals does not 91. This micronutrient is needed in the synthesis
contribute any soil nutrient? of auxin and is usually deficient in
a. quartz talc waterlogged soils.
b. apatite a. iron
c. calcite b. zinc
c. molybdenum
83. Aside from carbon and hydrogen, the other d. copper
macroelement constituent of organic
compound in the plant is 92. This micronutrient is needed in nitrogen
a. oxygen fixation by leguminous plants and is usually
b. nitrogen deficient in acid upland soil.
c. phosphorus a. zinc
d. potassium b. molybdenum
c. iron
84. This macroelement is a component of protein d. manganese
and chlorophyll and is the most limiting
element in crop production except for 93. In a very extremely acidic soil (pH 4.5-5.0),
legumes these elements are toxic to plants except
a. nitrogen a. aluminum
b. phosphorus b. calcium
c. potassium c. iron
d. calcium d. manganese

85. This macronutrient is involved in energy 94. Which of the following elements is not
storage in the plant and is a constituent of essential to plant growth?
phospholipids, nucleoproteins, and phytins a. nitrogen
and is deficient in acid upland soil. b. molybdenum
a. nitrogen c. copper
b. phosphorus d. aluminum
c. potassium
d. calcium 95. This is a substance produced by one organism
which inhibits growth of other organisms
86. This macronutrient is not a component of any a. pesticide
organic molecule in the plant, its function is b. antibiotic
more catalytic in nature and usually deficient c. antigen
in coarse-textured soils. d. antibody
a. nitrogen
b. potassium 96. The most dominant soil microflora are
c. phosphorus a. insects
d. calcium b. bacteria
c. algae
87. This macronutrient is a part of the middle d. fungi
lamella, and is deficient in acid upland soil.
a. nitrogen 97. The root-nodulating rhizobium that is infective
b. potassium on tropical legumes is
c. calcium a. Azorhizobium
d. magnesium b. Bradyrhizobium
c. Rhizobium
88. This macronutrient is a metal component of d. Azospirillium
chlorophyll and is deficient in acid upland soil.
a. nitrogen 98. The iron-containing substance found in
b. calcium legume nodules is
c. magnesium a. carotenoid
d. copper b. auxin
c. leghemoglobin
89. This macronutrient is a component of amino d. xanthophylls
acids such as methionine, cystein and cystine
and is usually deficient in waterlogged soils. 99. The seat of N2 fixation in symbiotic system is
a. sulfur a. nodule
b. calcium b. leaves
c. magnesium c. root
d. zinc d. stem

90. This micronutrient is needed in chlorophyll 100. The soil microflora with the highest biomass
synthesis and usually deficient in alkaline soil are
a. iron a. bacteria
b. zinc b. actinomycetes
c. molybdenum c. algae
d. boron d. fungi

101. The stable product of organic matter

decompositions is
 28

a. humus d. rate of reproduction

b. lignin
c. cellulose 112. Nutrient deficiency symptoms is referred as
d. hemicellulose the language of the crop. What is the term
used to describe general yellowing of leaves
102. Indirect utilization of molecular nitrogen is as a result of deficiency of some nutrient
a. symbiotic nitrogen fixation element?
b. non-symbiotic nitrogen fixation a. necrotic
c. Haber-Bosch process of immobilication b. chlorosis
d. VAM c. plasmolysis
d. defective
103. This is not a biological process
a. volatilization 113. The deficiency symptoms of mobile elements
b. nitrogen fixation in the plant like K are manifested at the older
c. mineralization leaves while the deficiency symptoms of
d. nitrification immobile elements like
a. N
104. This N transformation is an acidifying process b. Mg
a. denitrification c. Ca
b. nitrogen fixation d. S are observed at the younger leaves
c. nitrification
d. volatilization 114. The Maligaya series which was developed
from recent alluvium is generally adequate in
105. Association between plant root and fungi is P and exchangeable bases such as Ca, Mg, K
known as and Na but deficient in
a. lichen a. nitrogen
b. symbiosis b. zinc
c. competition c. boron
d. mycorrhiza d. copper

106. One organism inhibits or suppresses growth of 115. A well drained soil subject to excessive
other organism is a kind of leaching of the basic cations are acidic and
a. symbiosis are deficient with P, Ca, Mg and Mo while
b. parasitism lowland rice soils that are poorly drained and
c. neutralism waterlogged are deficient with these elements
d. predation a. N and K
b. Zn and S
107. Rhizobium-legume association is an example c. Zn and Ca
of d. Ca and Mg
a. mutualism
b. neutralism 116. Deficiency indicates low level of nutrient
c. predation elements while this term indicates excessive
d. symbiosis level of nutrient elements in the plant or soil.
a. sufficiency
108. Microorganisms that are most active in the b. toxicity
decay of organic substances in soils are c. hidden hunger
a. autotrophs d. poverty adjustment
b. aerobes
c. anaerobes 117. A problem soil usually found in upland areas
d. phototrophs with high rainfall characterized by very low pH
values
109. Once a soil has been placed under cultivation, a. acid
its organic matter content usually b. saline
a. increases c. alkaline
b. decreases d. pest
c. remains relatively unchanged
d. all of the above 118. A problem soil usually found in coastal areas
characterized by excessive amount of salts in
110. Nitrogen is the most limiting element in crop the soil solution.
production, except for legumes. The available a. acid
form of nitrogen is b. saline
a. organic matter c. alkaline
b. nitrate d. pest
c. ammonium
d. both b and c 119. Problem soil usually found in low-lying
waterlogged areas characterized by the
111. The capacity of the soil to supply nutrient accumulation of organic matter is
elements in right amount and correct a. acid
proportion b. saline
a. availability c. alkaline
b. soil fertility d. peat
c. soil productivity
 29

120. A problem soil usually found in low-lying c. ammonium chloride

areas mining area characterized by excessive d. ammonium nitrate
amount of heavy metals.
a. mine-tailing affected soil 130. Which does not belong to the group of words
b. peat a. guano
c. saline b. night soil
d. saline-sodic c. urea
d. chicken dung
121. There are sixteen (16) essential elements
needed by plants for normal growth and 131. Flooding acid soils improves the availability of
development. How many of these essential P and decreases solubility of aluminum, iron,
elements are derived from the soil. and manganese. This phenomenon is
a. 13 referred to as “self-liming effect”. The
b. 12 increase in the availability of nutrient
c. 11 elements in acid soil by flooding is due to
d. 10 a. increase in soil pH
b. decrease in soil pH
122. Some nutrient elements are not essential but c. increase microbial activities
are beneficial. Identify the nutrient element d. increase rate of mineralization
beneficial to the rice plant.
a. nitrogen silicon 132. Continuous flooding such as in waterlogged
b. manganese lowland rice soils causes reduction of soils
c. vanadium which decrease the availability of these
essential elements
123. The chlorophyll molecule is composed of four a. N, P, K
(4) essential elements. Identify the metallic b. Zn, S and Cu
element in the chlorophyll molecule. c. Ca, Mg and S
a. carbon d. Mo, Mn and Cu
b. hydrogen
c. magnesium 133. One practical soil management practice to
d. nitrogen improve availability of Zn and S in
waterlogged lowland rice soils is
124. The nutrient element in organic matter and a. alternate wetting and drying
minerals are considered unavailable. The b. continuous flooding
most available form of nutrient elements are c. application of organic fertilizer
in d. application of inorganic fertilizer
a. soil solution
b. exchangeable 134. Soil microorganism are responsible for the
c. fixed decomposition of soil organic matter. The
d. occluded process of conversion from organic form of
nutrient elements to inorganic form is termed
125. The terms below are factors affecting nutrient a. mineralization
availability except for one. Identify this term b. immobilization
a. capacity c. vernalization
b. weathering d. denitrification
c. intensity
d. rate of replenishment 135. The minimum guarantee of a fertilizer
material in terms of percent nitrogen,
126. All these processes contribute in the decline in phosphorus and potassium is referred as
soil fertility, except this process a. fertilizer rates
a. crop removal b. fertilizer grade
b. soil erosion and run-off c. fertilizer ratio
c. green manuring d. filler
d. fixation
136. The advantage of organic fertilizer over
127. One of these processes does not result in the inorganic fertilizer is
loss of nitrogen from the soil a. higher analysis
a. mineralization b. immediate effect
b. volatilization c. more available
c. denitrification d. long term effect
d. leaching
137. Farm manure with the highest fertilizer value
128. The most accurate method of assessing soil a. goat manure
fertility b. carabao manure
a. nutrient deficiency symptom c. chicken manure
b. field experiment d. cow manure
c. plant analysis
d. soil analysis 138. The fertilizer recommended for irrigated
lowland rice in a Maligaya clay loam during
129. Which does not belong to the group of words dry season is 113 kg N, 21 kg P2O5 and 21 kg
a. ammonium sulfate K2O per ha. The amount of fertilizer needed
b. urea to satisfy the requirement is:
 30

a. 4 bags urea (46-0-0) + 3 bags complete 147. To be more effective, a liming material should
fertilizer (14-14-14) be applied at the proper time. This is usually
b. 5 bags urea (46-0-0) + 4 bags complete done at
fertilizer (14-14-14) a. plowing
c. 4 bags urea (46-0-0) + 4 bags complete b. planting
fertilizer (14-14-14) c. 3-4 weeks before planting
d. 10 bags complete fertilizer (14-14-14) d. harvesting

139. Soil pH is one of the most important single 148. The enzyme responsible in nitrogen fixation
chemical property of the soil that indicates its a. nitrate reductase
nutritional status. A soil with pH 5 has H+ ion b. catalase
concentration of c. nitrogenase
a. 5 x 10-5 M d. carboxylase
b. 50 x 10-5 M
c. 1 x 10-5 M 149. Non-symbiotic N2 fixing organisms in a
d. 10 x 10-5 M lowland soil
a. actinomycetes
140. Soil acidity is due to the presence of both Al b. bacteria
+++
and H+ ions in the soil. The hydrolysis of c. blue green algae
1 mole of Al+++ gives rise to d. fungi
a. 1
b. 3 150. Organisms capable of nitrogen fixation are
c. 5 called
d. 7 moles of H+ ions a. organotrophs
b. diazotrophs
141. The H+ ion concentration of a soil is 1 x 10-6 c. chermotrophs
M. The pH of this soil is d. autotrophs
a. 6
b. 5 151. Decomposers which work both under aerobic
c. 7 and anaerobic conditions
d. 6.1 a. actinomycetes
b. bacteria
142. Which among these processes does not c. fungi
contribute to the development of soil acidity d. algae
a. leaching
b. nitrification 152. The conversion of ammonium (NH4) into
c. application of NH4+ carrying fertilizers organic N
d. volatilization a. immobilization
b. fixation
143. In the laboratory, the amount of lime to c. mineralization
alleviate soil acidity can be determined using d. nitrification
the
a. Veitch method 153. The element that most often limits the rate of
b. Hoagland’s method plant residue decay in soils
c. Espino’s methods a. oxygen
d. De Amon method b. carbon
c. nitrogen
144. Soil acidity is one of the most extensive soil d. phosphorus
problems in crop production. To alleviate soil
acidity, which among these soil amendments 154. On the average, the tissue of legume plants
is applied decomposes more rapidly than the straw from
a. sulfur mature grass because the legume is
b. lime a. higher in readily decomposable
c. organic fertilizer carbohydrates
d. urea b. higher in protein
c. higher in both readily decomposable
145. The most common form of agricultural lime carbohydrates and protein
available in the market d. higher in lignin
a. CaMg(CO3)2
b. CaCO3 155. Microorganisms that are most active in the
c. CaO decay of organic substance in soils
d. MgO a. autotrophs
b. aerobes
146. Dolomite is extensively used as liming c. anaerobes
material in acid soil grown to sugarcane. d. phototrophs
What is the chemical formula of dolomite
a. CaCO3 156. Of the following, the one that is not
b. CaMg (CO3)2 carbohydrate is
c. CaO a. lignin
d. MgCO3 b. starch
c. cellulose
d. hemicellulose
 31

157. Product of nitrification is 167. Bacteria belong to this factor of soil formation
a. N2 a. relief
b. NO3 b. living organism
c. NH4 c. climate
d. N2O d. parent material

158. Product of denitrification 168. Blocks of soil from each horizon posted on
a. N2 hard board
b. NO3 a. Regolith
c. NH4 b. Monolith
d. NH3 c. Litolith
d. Pedon
159. The anaerobic non-symbiotic nitrogen fixing
bacteria belong to the genus 169. Basis for mapping of Philippine soils
a. Dexria a. soil series/type
b. Clostridium b. soil order
c. Azotobacter c. soil family
d. Bradyrhizobium d. great group

160. The percentage of organic N in the soil is 170. The percent N, P2O5, and K2O in a fertilizer
approximately a. fertilizer ratio
a. 96-98% b. fertilizer grade
b. 78-80% c. fertilizer recommendation
c. 68-75% d. fertilizer brand
d. 50-60%
171. In highly weathered and leached tropical soils
161. Bacteria belonging to this genus are non- most of the phosphorus is stored in
symbiotic nitrogen fixers a. soil solution
a. Nitrobacter b. secondary minerals
b. Aerobacter c. organic matter
c. Azotobacter d. clay fraction
d. Athrobacter
172. When nutrients are immobile deficiency first
162. If a crop residue contains 60% organic carbon shows up in
and 5% total nitrogen, its C/N ratio is a. youngest leaves
a. 10:1 b. oldest leaves
b. 12:1 c. senescent leaves
c. 15:1 d. stems
d. 20:1
173. Deficiency of nitrogen first shows up as
163. Which of the following microorganisms is very chlorosis of
sensitive to potassium levels in soil and a. oldest leaves
therefore useful in diagnosing potassium b. youngest leaves
deficiency? c. middle leaves
a. Pseudomonas denitrificans d. stems
b. Aspergillus niger
c. Azotobacter chroococcum 174. The suitable fertilizer for an alkaline N
d. Nitrobacter agilis deficient soil
a. anhydrous NH3
164. The most efficient organic matter b. urea
decomposers under acidic soil conditions are c. calcium nitrate
the d. ammonium sulfate
a. Bacteria
b. Actinomycetes 175. At maturity, the nitrogen content of a grain
c. Fungi crop will be highest in
d. Protozoa a. stem
b. leaf
165. A soil with bulk density of 1.3 g/cm3 and c. grain
particle density of 2.60 g/cm3 will have a d. grain
porosity of:
a. 5% 176. Soil application of fertilizer after plant
b. 25% emergence
c. 50% a. basal
d. 75% b. topdressing
c. foliar
166. Type of soil structure best suited for growing d. deep placement
upland crops
a. massive 177. The fist stage in soil erosion
b. platy a. soil particle detachment
c. crumb b. entrapment
d. single-grain c. deposition
 32

d. water infiltration 189. Of the following calcium compounds, the one

that has the highest neutralizing power when
178. Basic properties described in a soil profile in pure form is
a. texture, bulk density, consistency a. calcium oxide
b. CEC, OM (%) content, BS, BD b. calcium hydroxide
c. Color, texture, stoniness, structure c. calcium carbonate
d. Plasticity, structure d. dolomite

179. Describes the darkness or lightness of color 190. To conserve the nitrogen it contains, animal
a. value manure should be stored in
b. hue a. loose, moist condition
c. ultra b. compact, dry condition
d. spectra c. compact, moist condition
d. loose, dry condition
180. Soil texture can be described effectively in the
field 191. The reason micronutrient cations such as
a. touch method copper, zinc, and iron are frequently supplied
b. pinch method plants in the form of sprays is because
c. hydrometer a. these elements are readily fixed in
d. feel and roll method unavailable forms in soils
b. these elements are not efficiently taken
181. The cracking clay soils fall under this order up from the soil solution by roots
a. vertisols c. spraying gives better control over toxic
b. ultisols effects from micronutrients
c. mollisols d. these elements are volatile
d. alfisols
192. Soils in this category have the same color,
182. It is the most extensively weathered of all the texture, structure, consistency, thickness, and
soil orders reaction (pH) and have the same number and
a. vertisols arrangement of horizons and similar chemical
b. oxisols and mineralogical properties
c. ultisols a. soil series
d. alfisols b. soil order
c. great group
183. The most detailed category of soil taxonomy d. family
a. soil family
b. soil series 193. A surface horizon that is too light in color, too
c. great group low in organic matter or too thin
d. suborder a. mollic epipedon
b. ochric eppedon
184. The percent N, P2O5, and K2O in a fertilizer c. histic epipedon
a. fertilizer ratio d. umbric epipedon
b. fertilizer grade
c. fertilizer recommendation 194. The total number of soil orders classified
d. fertilizer brand under the soil taxonomy
a. 15
185. The available form of nitrogen b. 10
a. N2 c. 12
b. N2O d. 11
c. NH4
d. NH3 195. Soil particles larger than 2 mm in size
a. sand
186. Calcium in plants tends to be concentrated in b. rockiness
a. cell sap c. stones
b. cell nucleus d. gravelly
c. cell wall
d. mitochondria 196. The property of the soil that enables water,
air or roots to move through it
187. If neutral salts were leached from a sodic soil, a. infiltration
its pH would probably b. density
a. increase c. permeability
b. decrease d. percolation
c. remain the same
d. zero 197. A soil temperature regime wherein the mean
annual soil temperature is 22°C or higher and
188. A soil condition usually associated with a the difference between mean summer and
salinity problem is mean winter temperature is less than 5°C
a. fine texture a. mesic
b. level topography b. thermic
c. poor internal drainage c. hyperthermic
d. soil acidity d. isohyperthermic
 33

198. Increased bulk density is not favorable in

practical agriculture. Which of the following
may lead to reduced bulk density
a. less aggregation and root penetration
b. compaction caused by the weight of the
overlying layers
c. addition of organic matter in large
amounts
d. heavy foot traffic

199. Soil component with extreme small size and

large surface area, capable of adsorbing
cations and water
a. colloid
b. quarts
c. feldspar
d. carbonates

200. The El Niño phenomenon created a global

problem on agriculture. This problem is
manifested by wide cracks in soils. The crack
are due to the predominance of
a. kaolinite
b. montmorillonite
c. vermiculite
d. illite clays
 34

Animal Science 11. This is an animal where both testicles failed to

descend to the scrotal sac
DIRECTION: Encircle the letter of the best a. cryptorchid
answer from the choices given. b. monorchid
c. duorchid
1. This corresponds to the knee of animals d. anestrus
a. carpals
b. tarsals 12. The average gestation period of beef cattle
c. humerus a. 283 days
d. femur b. 300 days
c. 330 days
2. This hormone is responsible for the d. 250 days
characteristic buck odor
a. capric hormone 13. The outer layer of the extra-embryonic
b. castric hormone membranes which is in contact with the
c. codric hormone maternal uterine tissues
d. centric hormone a. allantois
b. chorion
3. This is the fluid portion of uncoagulated blood c. amnion
a. serum d. placenta
b. plasma
c. globulin 14. Which of these cells produce the hormone
d. hemoglobin testosterone?
a. spermatogonia
4. This is a lymphoid organ that acts as b. spermatocyte
graveyard for old or senile red blood cells c. Leydig cells
a. liver d. sertoli cells
b. lungs
c. spleen 15. Which of the following accessory sex glands in
d. thynus male is absent in tom?
a. seminal vesicles
5. This is a musculomembranous partition that b. prostate gland
separates the thoracic from the abdominal c. Cowper’s gland
cavity d. bullbourethral glands
a. pleurae
b. peritoneum 16. Part of the oviduct in chicken which is
c. diaphragm responsible for the secretion of albumen
d. mesentery a. uterus
b. isthmus
6. These teeth are absent in horse and cattle c. magnum
a. canine teeth d. fimbrae
b. milk teeth
c. molar teeth 17. What hormone is responsible for broodiness in
d. incisor chicken?
a. prolactin
7. This is the site of gastric juice production in b. estrogen
chicken c. progesterone
a. crop d. oxytocin
b. proventriculus
c. gizzard 18. This hormone is responsible for the
d. small intestine development of sperm cells in the
seminiferous tubules
8. This is the structural and functional units of a. luteinizing hormone
the kidneys b. follicle stimulating hormone
a. alveoli c. testosterone
b. glomerulus d. adrenocorticotrophic hormone
c. nephron
d. nephrite 19. This hormone stimulates glycogen breakdown
and glyconeogenesis in the liver
9. Gall bladder is absent in this animal a. insulin
a. cattle b. epinephrine
b. dog c. glucagons
c. horse d. estradiol
d. cat
20. This is the neuroepithelial portion of the
10. This is the site of fertilization in chicken nervous tunic of the eye
a. fimbriae a. retina
b. infundibulum b. iris
c. uterus c. pupil
d. isthmus d. choroid

21. The auditory ossicles are found in the

 35

a. external ear a. meat

b. middle ear b. fat
c. inner ear c. lean
d. auricula d. muscle

22. This is a protective mechanism of animals 32. Which is not considered as a red meat?
against profound cooling a. beef
a. hibernation b. pork
b. estivation c. mutton
c. panting d. none of the above
d. chilling
33. This refers to the meat of rabbit
23. This refers to the range of environmental a. mutton
temperature within which the animal does not b. lapan
have to adopt to the environment. c. star meat
a. critical temperature d. venison
b. comfort zone
c. body temperature 34. This refers to the meat of cattle slaughtered
d. subnormal temperature before one year of age
a. venison
24. Which of the following is not a way of b. veal
removing moisture or water from the animal’s c. beef
body? d. mutton
a. panting
b. sweating 35. Which of the following muscles yield the less
c. respiration tender meat?
d. none of the above a. leg muscle
b. back muscle
25. The average body temperature of goat is c. rib
a. 37.6oC d. rump
b. 38,3ºC
c. 39.1ºC 36. Which of the following is not affected by water
d. 40.1ºC or moisture content in the meat?
a. texture
26. This refers to a rise in body temperature that b. color
develops during pathological conditions c. juiciness
a. fever d. none
b. hypothermia
c. hyperthermia 37. This is a protein that greatly influences the
d. heat stroke tenderness of the muscle after cooking
a. collagen
27. This is the yellow body formed from the b. elastin
ruptured graafian follicle c. reticulin
a. corpus hemorrhagicum d. myosin
b. corpus albicans
c. corpus luteum 38. These substances in meat are responsible for
d. corpus anthrum the so-called “gamey” flavor of meat of wild
animals
28. Phase of estrous cycle where the corpus a. nitrogenous extractives
luteum is developed and progesterone is b. sarcoplasmic proteins
secreted c. fats
a. proestrus d. carbohydrates
b. metestrus
c. estrus 39. Which is not an advantage of fasting animals
d. diestrus prior to slaughter?
a. save feeds
29. The length of estrus period of cattle b. ease of cleaning entrails
a. 30 hours c. low shrinkage
b. 18 hours d. short shelf-life
c. 2 hours
d. 24 hours 40. The water requirement for slaughtering a
head of cattle or carabao
30. This is the muscle which retracts the testicles a. 30 gallons
against the body to protect it from excessive b. 60 gallons
cold c. 15 gallons
a. bulbocavernous muscle d. 35 gallons
b. cremaster
c. retractor 41. This refers to the process of making the
d. urethral muscle animal unconscious prior to slaughter
a. sticking
31. This refers to animal tissues which are b. stunning
suitable for food c. scalding
 36

d. evisceration b. Hybro
c. H and N
42. The process of wrapping the beef carcass with d. Starcross
cheesecloth soaked in lukewarm water
a. chilling 53. Arbor Acre is locally known as
b. shrouding a. Lohmann
c. scalding b. Ross
d. singeing c. Magnolia
d. Hubbard
43. This refers to the cutting of carcasses into
standard wholesale and retail cuts 54. The common type of house intended for
a. fabrication broiler contract growing is
b. grading a. litter floor
c. meat evaluation b. slat floor
d. meat chopping c. range
d. battery cages
44. Which is not included as a wholesale cut of
the front quarter of a beef carcass? 55. In brooding chicks, old newspapers are used
a. ribs as bedding to
b. plate a. serve as litter to absorb moisture of
c. loin manure
d. brisket b. teach birds to recognize pictures
c. improve the walking stance of chicks for
45. Which of the following wholesale cuts of beef better growth
contains the sternum? d. conserve heat for brooding as insulator
a. chuck
b. brisket 56. In raising 200 broilers in the litter floor, how
c. ribs many feeding trough of one meter length,
d. loin both sides can be used are required? The
feeding space is 4 cm/bird
46. This refers to the process of making a stable a. 3
milk emulsion b. 4
a. pasteurization c. 5
b. homogenization d. 6
c. cream separator
d. curdling 57. Removal of feathers in the processing plants
a. molting
47. This cut contains part of the 13th rib and the b. plucking
abdominal muscle c. scalding
a. flank d. evisceration
b. loin
c. round 58. The crude protein content of broiler parent
d. brisket stock
a. 12-14% CP
48. Which is not included as primal cuts of pork? b. 16-17% CP
a. loin c. 17-18% CP
b. ham d. 18-21% CP
c. shoulder
d. belly 59. Gumboro disease is also known as
a. Avian Pest
49. The predominant carbohydrate in milk b. Fowl Pox
a. galactose c. Infectious Bursal disease
b. lactose d. Marek’s disease
c. maltose
d. fructose 60. The limiting constraints why broilers cannot
be extensively raised in rural areas
50. Milk is not rich in this mineral a. diseases and parasites
a. iron b. feeds
b. zinc c. labor requirement
c. calcium d. marketing and distribution
d. phosphorus
61. The disease commonly observed in brooding
51. Strain of broiler used in the contract growing with moist litter or wet litter causing brooder
scheme of Tyson’s agribusiness ventures pneumonia or
a. Cobb a. coccidiosis
b. Magnolia b. aspergillosis
c. Anak c. avian pasteurellosis
d. Peterson d. mycoplasmosis

52. Commercial broiler strains available in the 62. The average body weight of modern broilers
market except now is about _____ at 35-37 days
a. Pilch a. 2.0 kg
 37

b. 1.4 kg 72. Crossing the first generation with a male

c. 1.7 kg belonging to each of the parent breeds
d. 1.0 kg alternately
a. criss-cross
63. When the FCE of broiler is 1.9, it means b. back cross
a. broiler will have to eat 1 kg feed to c. upgrade
produce 1.9 kg body weight d. inbreeding
b. feeding 1.9 kg feed to produce one kg of
broiler 73. In the selection of breed, this trait is the
c. the total feed intake of one broiler is 1.9 attitude to tolerate the environmental
kg conditions without drop in egg production
d. body weight of 1.9 kg will be achieved by a. hardiness high productivity
feeding only 1 kilo b. low feed consumption
c. product quality
64. Broilers can be raised any time of the year for d. none of these
about _____ per year if the duration of cycle
is 38 days, cleaning of 3 days, selling of 14 74. The breed of commercial hybrid layers with
days and chick order of 7 days white eggs
a. 5 batches a. White Leghorn
b. 7 batches b. Barred Plymouth Rock
c. 9 batches c. New Hampshire
d. 3 batches d. Rhode Island Red

65. The highest cost expenses aside from feeds in 75. Example of layer from the Institute of Animal
broiler production Selection (IAS) strain
a. labor cost a. Warren
b. depreciation b. Starcross
c. chick cost c. Hissex
d. light, heat and water d. Golden Comet

66. The worldwide numbers of breeds of fowls 76. The red jungle fowl from East Java, Burma,
a. more than 300 Thailand and Sumatra
b. more than 100 a. Gallus bankciva
c. more than 200 b. Gallus soneratti
d. more than 400 c. Gallus varius
d. Gallus lafayetti
67. Population of small number of birds isolated
within the breed that is responsible specific 77. Class of chicken based on purpose/use of
characteristics breeding
a. breed a. economic
b. strain b. standard
c. cross c. weight
d. in-breed d. all of these

68. Leghorn breed has plumage colors of 78. Native chickens are popular because people
a. white a. people like the eggs of native chickens
b. black b. people prefer the tough meat
c. silver c. maintenance costs are low
d. all of these d. all of the above

69. The progeny of two different breeds or strains 79. Annual egg production of native chicken
belonging to a single specie a. 50-60 eggs
a. cross b. 100-150 eggs
b. hybrid c. 200-240 eggs
c. strain d. 260-280 eggs
d. inbreed
80. Term applied to designate mature domestic
70. Progeny of crossing between different species cocks and hens
a. hybrid a. poultry
b. cross b. fowl
c. mutant c. chicken
d. hybrid vigor d. chicks

71. The method of crossing wherein the first 81. Young domestic ostrich in the downy stage
generation crosses are mated with their a. chick
parents b. poult
a. back cross c. keet
b. criss-cross d. gosling
c. upgrade
d. cross breeding 82. A male fowl one year old or over
a. cob
b. gobbler
 38

c. cock d. mercury
d. drake
94. The toxic mineral known as industrial
83. Unsexed female fowl is known as pollutant
a. capon a. arsenic
b. pullet b. lead
c. poulard c. cadmium
d. poult d. mercury

84. Race of domestic fowls which maintains 95. The fat soluble vitamin needed in calcium and
distinctive characteristics of shape, phosphorus metabolism
temperament and color of egg shells a. vit. A
a. variety b. vit. D
b. strain c. vit. E
c. breed d. vit. K
d. type
96. The vitamin necessary in all metabolism and
85. Poultry species having 39 pairs of anti-oxidation
chromosomes a. vitamin K
a. chicken b. vitamin C
b. quail c. vitamin E
c. guinea fowl d. vitamin D
d. all of these
97. Vitamin needed only by humans, monkeys
86. Poultry species having 40 pairs of and guinea pigs
chromosomes a. vitamin A
a. duck b. vitamin B1
b. geese c. vitamin C
c. turkey d. vitamin D
d. all of these
98. After palay milling, the level of rice bran in
87. The incubation period of muscovy duck the palay is about
a. 35 days a. 35
b. 21 days b. 10%
c. 28 days c. 20%
d. 24 days d. 17%

88. This is the incubation period of quails 99. Storage of bran and rice polishings is difficult
a. 16-18 days because of
b. 30-34 days a. high oil content
c. 26-28 days b. high silica of hull
d. 22-24 days c. to fine to become dustry
d. bulkiness of the stuff
89. The egg weight of geese is
a. 58-60 grams 100. In general, all grain products need this
b. 70-80 grams supplement
c. 85-89 grams a. calcium
d. 130-200 grams b. phosphorus
c. magnesium
90. The egg weight of guinea fowl is d. salt
a. 40-48 grams
b. 13-15 grams 101. In general, all grain products is need this
c. 55-61 grams supplement
d. 17-18 grams a. Glycine max
b. Triticum sativum
91. The incubation period of mallard duck is c. Arachis hypogea
a. 21 days d. Manihat utilisima
b. 28 days
c. 35 days 102. Cassava contains this substance that makes
d. 14 days the taste bitter in some varieties.
a. prussic acid
92. The incubation period of turkey is b. anti-trypsin factor
a. 17 days c. tannin
b. 42 days d. mimosine
c. 28 days
d. 21 days 103. Kapok seeds can not be fed for monogastrics
due to tannin. Kapok is known scientifically
93. Example of toxic mineral found in paint in as
greater amount is a. Helianthus anus
a. lead b. Henea brasiliensis
b. arsenic c. Ceiba pentandra
c. cadmium d. Arachis hypogea
 39

114. This refers to the general susceptibility of

104. The mineral needed in trace amount includes animals to diseases either acquired or
a. sodium genetically present at birth/development
b. calcium a. predisposition
c. copper b. condition
d. potassium c. constitution
d. behavior
105. The mineral needed as macroelement in
poultry 115. Diseases which are easily spread from one
a. iodine animal to another animal
b. iron a. contagious diseases
c. selenium b. zoonotic diseases
d. phosphorus c. acute diseases
d. nutritional defects
106. Poultry eat a daily amount of feed that is
equivalent to approximately _____ percent of 116. Pathogens which can neither be classified as
their body weight plants nor animals
a. 5% a. viruses
b. 10% b. bacteria
c. 15% c. yeast
d. 3% d. fungi

107. The percent crude protein of quail starter 117. Organisms that live at the expense of other
should be live plants or animals.
a. 23-27% CP a. parasite
b. 18-22% CP b. saprophytes
c. 10-14% CP c. microorganism
d. 20-22% CP d. commensals

108. The site of bacterial fermentation of 118. The process of anaerobic breakdown of
undigested food in poultry carbohydrates used for the production of
a. small intestine alcohol, vinegar and lactic acid
b. large intestine a. fermentation
c. cloaca b. biosynthesis
d. ceca c. symbiosis
d. mineralization
109. This organ has thick glandular mucous
membrane that secretes hydrochloric acid and 119. The microorganism which can only be seen by
pepsinogen an electron microscope
a. gizzard a. yeast
b. proventriculus b. fungi
c. crop c. viruses
d. cloaca d. bacteria

110. The CP content of grower mash 120. Pathogenic agents can damage the tissue by
a. 16% loss of resistance known as
b. 18% a. anemia
c. 20% b. necrosis
d. 24% c. immunosuppression
d. diarrhea
111. Method of feeding grain to broiler parent
stock 121. The science of the specific defense
a. place in hopper mechanisms of the body against pathological
b. broadcast in litter processes
c. place in round feeder a. immunity
d. place in automatic feeder b. immunology
c. pathology
112. Most practical way to feed broiler d. enzymology
a. ad libitum
b. skip-a-day 122. The disease of poultry known as avian pest
c. restricted feeding a. Gumboro disease
d. phase feeding b. Newcastle Disease
c. Fowl Pox
113. A disease condition is observed when d. Lymphoid Lenkosis
a. there are subclinical pathological
processes 123. The basic unit of inheritance is
b. there is imbalance between infection a. cell
pressure and resistance of animals b. chromosomes
c. normal body functions of tissues or organs c. genes
are impaired d. nucleus
d. all of the above
 40

124. The disease that can be prevented by c. neomycin

vaccination through the wing-web method d. lincomycin
a. Avian Pest
b. Fowl Pox 135. Ectoparasites that have no wings.
c. Herpes virus of turkey a. ticks
d. Infectious Bursal Disease b. fleas
c. mite
125. During vaccination, skim milk is sometimes d. house flies
added to
a. supplement the feed as protein source 136. Very small ectoparasites barely visible by the
b. decrease the effect of vaccination naked eyes
c. increase potency of vaccine a. mites
d. improve the drinking capacity of poultry b. ticks
c. fleas
126. Bacterial disease of poultry caused by d. lice
Mycoplasma gallisepticum
a. Avian Leucosis 137. Most endoparasites are roundworms and can
b. Infectious Coryza also be called
c. Chronic Respiratory Disease a. annelids
d. Fowl Cholera b. nematodes
c. cestodes
127. Bacterial disease caused by Salmonella d. trematodes
gallinarum
a. Fowl Typhoid 138. Tapeworms are also known as
b. Pullorum a. trematodes
c. Fowl cholera b. cestodes
d. Fowl pox c. nematodes
d. annelids
128. Aspergillosis, a disease caused by Aspergillus
fumigatus and also known as Brooder 139. Excretion of pathogenic agents in this group is
Pneumonia is a dangerous because detection is nearly
a. viral disease impossible and the quantity of pathogens may
b. bacterial disease be high
c. protozoan disease a. Sick animals
d. fungal disease b. Animals in the incubation period
c. Recovered animals
129. The disease characterized by swollen face of d. Subclinical infections
poultry
a. Coryza 140. Any disease is a stress which can have this
b. Fowl pox effect
c. Chronic Respiratory Disease a. Immunosupression
d. Avian Pest b. Decreased intestinal function
c. Increased metabolism
130. Hypodermic injection is similar to d. All of them
a. intramuscular route
b. intra ocular 141. Protozoan that move by making projections
c. per os method like amoeba are called
d. intranasal method a. Sporozoa
b. Rhizopora
131. Hitcher B1 strain of vaccine is c. Flagellates
a. fowl pox d. Cilia
b. avian pest
c. fowl cholera 142. Viral diseases can be prevented only by
d. Marek’s disease vaccination because
a. It is caused by viruses and no drugs
132. The vaccine usually administered in the exist against these diseases
hatchery at day-old b. Drugs act on the enzyme but viruses
a. fowl pox vaccine use the enzyme of host
b. bursal disease vaccine c. When a virus enters a cell, it losses its
c. La sota vaccine proteins
d. Marek’s disease vaccine d. All of the above

133. These antibiotics are bacteriostatic except 143. The management problem resulting to
a. tetracycline mortalities due to lack of water and feed
b. erythromycin intake is
c. bacitracin a. Strave cuts
d. tylosine b. Pilling
c. Cannibalism
134. These are bactericidal antibiotics that can kill d. Wet lifter
bacteria except
a. penicillin 144. Too high mortality in growing birds can be
b. streptomycin due to
 41

a. Disease and parasites d. all of the above

b. High stocking density
c. Poor debeaking 155. There are at least accredited feedlots in the
d. All of these Philippines
a. 18
145. Too much feed consumption during the b. 180
rearing period can be due to c. 280
a. Poor quality feed d. 80
b. Feed wastage
c. Feed eaten by rats and mice 156. The largest feedlot in the Philippines at
d. All of these present is
a. Monterey
146. The growing pullets had slow growth rate b. Dealco
because c. El Rancho
a. High house temperature d. Del Monte
b. Diseases
c. Poor quality feed 157. The scientific name of Aurochs is
d. All of these a. Bos auros
b. Bos longitrans
147. High mortality in laying house can be due to c. Bos taurus
a. Poor debeaking d. Bos premigenus
b. High stocking rate
c. Disease 158. The 997,000 hectares Philippines pasture land
d. All of these can support
a. 500,000 A.U.
b. 5,000 A.U.
148. The reason why layers have poor quality eggs c. 500 A.U.
a. poor design of nest d. None of the above
b. age of birds
c. high temperature 159. The commercial cow-calf operations of the
d. all of these country are located in
a. Pangasinan
149. Toxin produced from secondary metabolites of b. Masbate
mold is c. Bukidnon
a. endotoxin d. All of the above
b. aflatoxin
c. toxoid 160. The total agricultural lands devoted to crops
d. autotoxins of the country like the Riceland, cornland,
coconut farming, etc. can support.
150. A chick can be resistant or immunologically a. 10 M A.U.
adult at b. 12 M A.U.
a. 3 months c. 11 M A.U.
b. 9 weeks d. None of the above
c. 3 weeks
d. 6 months 161. Herd division is merely grouping the
cattle/buffalo according to
151. Deficiency of this nutrient can permanently a. age
damage the immunological system of bird b. purpose
a. carbohydrates c. size
b. protein d. all of the above
c. vitamins
d. minerals 162. The A.U. equivalent of a heifer is
a. 0.75
152. Organ lesions can lower resistance like liver b. 0.50
which can be damaged by c. 0.25
a. intestinal disorders d. 1.0
b. intoxications
c. disease and stress 163. The total A.U. of 5 yearlings in the herd is
d. all of the above a. 1.5
b. 2.5
153. The meat per capita consumption in the c. 3.5
Philippines d. 4.5
a. 43.1 kg
b. 50 kg 164. The daily dry matter requirement of a 300 kg
c. 30 kg feedlot cattle
d. 41.3 kg a. 7.5 kg
b. 6.5 kg
154. The beef cattle production system are c. 6.0 kg
composed of d. 9.0 kg
a. backyard
b. commercial
c. semi-commercial
 42

165. The roughage dry matter requirement of a a. omasum

400 kg mature cattle with a roughage to b. reticulum
concentrate ratio of 80:20 c. small intestine
a. 6.4 kg d. rumen
b. 8.4 kg
c. 7.4 kg 176. The heat cycle of goat
d. None of the above a. 31 days
b. 21 days
166. What is the total number of vegetative c. 41 days
planting materials needed for 1 ha if the d. 11 days
distance between furrows is 0.7 m and 0.5 m
between hills? 177. The matured weight of a native goat is
a. 20,000 a. 20-25 kg
b. 25,000 b. 15-20 kg
c. 20,666 c. 20-30 kg
d. 26,666 d. 30-40 kg

167. What is the total daily soilage requirement of 178. The chromosome number of goat is
a 120 kg young cattle if soilage contains 20% a. 54
DM b. 60
a. 27 kg c. 64
b. 20 kg d. 72
c. 25 kg
d. 30 kg 179. The chromosome number of sheep is
a. 64
168. This ensures the appropriate nutrition of the b. 44
various age groups of the herd c. 54
a. herd division d. 74
b. herd management
c. nutritional requirement 180. The latest breed of goat in the Philippines is
d. none of the above a. Anglo-Nubian
b. Saanen
169. The most common and legal means of c. Boer
identifying beef cattle ownership d. Kiko
a. hide branding
b. horn branding 181. The term for female goat is
c. earnotching a. boe
d. tattooing b. doe
c. sow
170. The average gestation period of beef cattle is d. dam
a. 270 days
b. 283 days 182. The term for male goat is
c. 290 days a. buck
d. 273 days b. boar
c. ram
171. Bullock is usually a stag that is used for d. stag
a. milk
b. draft 183. The term for female sheep is
c. meat a. doe
d. fattening b. dam
c. ewe
172. Beef cattle that are common in tropical d. mare
countries are
a. Bos Taurus 184. The term for male sheep is
b. Bos indicus a. ram
c. Bos bubalus b. buck
d. Bos aurochs c. stag
d. steer
173. Gestation period of goat
a. 165 days 185. The term for mother goat or sheep is
b. 265 days a. dam
c. 150 days b. doe
d. 157 days c. ewe
d. stallion
174. Scientific name of goat
a. Capra aries 186. The term for young goat is
b. Ovies hircus a. kid
c. Capra circus b. nanny
d. Capra hircus c. billy
d. gouty
175. The largest part of the cattle digestive system
and serve as fermentation chamber 187. The act of parturition in goat is
 43

a. goating 199. The other term for female goat is

b. kidding a. nanny
c. lambing b. jenny
d. farrowing c. Kelly
d. golly
188. The breed of goat with long pendulous ears
and distinct roman nose is 200. The other term for male goat is
a. Boer a. billy
b. Anglo-Nubian b. dilly
c. Toggenburg c. timmy
d. Kambing kajang d. jonny

189. The act of parturition in sheep is

a. sheeping
b. lambing
c. darling
d. ewing

190. The goat is said to be

a. grazers
b. browsers
c. growsers
d. boers

191. The sheep is said to be

a. grazers
b. growsers
c. browsers
d. bowsers

192. The first milk of goat is called

a. colostrums
b. fresh milk
c. non-allergenic milk
d. skim milk

193. The queen of dairy goat is

a. Queeny
b. Alpine
c. Saanen
d. Kiko

194. The castrated ram is called

a. wether
b. fether
c. bether
d. rather

195. The meat of goat is called

a. lapan
b. chevrons
c. mutton
d. chevon

196. The meat of sheep is called

a. lapan
b. chevrons
c. mutton
d. chevon

197. The prehensile organ of goat is

a. lips mouth
b. tongue
c. teeth

198. The matured goat consumes _____ of clean

water a day
a. 1.5 liters
b. 2 liters
c. 2.5 liters
d. 3 liters
 44

Agricultural Economics and Marketing 10. When all available resources should be
employed or no workers should be
DIRECTION: Encircle the letter of the best involuntarily out of work,, this is related to
answer from the choices given. the goal of
a. economic security
1. The meaning of the word “economics” is most b. economic freedom
close by associated with the word c. full employment
a. free d. economic efficiency
b. scarce
c. unlimited 11. An economic system characterized by public
d. restricted ownership of property resources and collective
determination of economic decisions through
2. A theory is central economic planning is
a. an assumption a. socialism
b. an “if-then” proposition b. communism
c. a hypothesis c. capitalism
d. a validated hypothesis d. fascism

3. A hypothesis is tested by 12. Which of the following criterion guides

a. the realism of its assumption economic decisions?
b. its ability to predict accurately a. Marginal Costs (MC) are greater than
c. both a and b Marginal Benefits (MB)
d. none of the above b. Marginal Costs are lesser than Marginal
Benefits
4. In a free enterprise economy, the problems of c. Both a and b
what, how and for whom to produce are d. MC=MB
solved by
a. a planning committee 13. The word economics means household
b. the elected representatives of the people a. decisions
c. the price mechanisms b. keeping
d. none of the above c. management
d. resources
5. It is concerned with controlling or influencing
economic behavior or its consequences 14. Economics is everybody’s
a. normative economics a. vocation
b. positive economics b. concern
c. agricultural economics c. occupation
d. policy economics d. welfare

6. An economic system in which all major 15. The most basic of all economic concept is
decisions concerning the level of resource use, a. desires
the composition and distribution of output and b. needs
the organization of production are determined c. scarcity
by the price system is d. wants
a. socialism
b. communism 16. While macroeconomics deals with the
c. capitalism economy as a whole, microeconomics deals
d. fascism with the actions of individual
a. firms and markets
7. Microeconomic theory studies how a free- b. enterprise
enterprise economy determines c. expenditures
a. the price of goods d. employment
b. the price of services
c. the price of economic resources 17. Scarcity is a permanent economic
d. all of the above phenomenon, shortage is
a. llimited
8. Which aspect of taxation involves positive b. occasional
economics? c. short run
a. the incidence of tax (i.e. who actually d. temporary
pays the tax)
b. the effect of the tax on incentives 18. The basic human needs like food, water,
c. the fairness of the tax clothing, and shelter are considered
d. all of the above a. psychological
b. physiological
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic c. social
of economic resources? d. emotional
a. unlimited in supply
b. has alternative uses 19. This refers to all things people would consume
c. they command a price if they had unlimited resources
d. insatiable a. needs
b. desires
c. motives

d. wants
20. Because resources are limited, people must
avoid _____ to prevent economics problems
a. choices
b. decisions
c. priorities
d. extravagance
21. The value of the best alternative one gives up
when a choice is made is called
a. implicit cost
b. opportunity cost
c. explicit cost
d. cash cost
22. The highest need in the hierarchy level is
a. esteem
b. belongingness
c. security
d. self-actualization
23. Man will usually satisfy
a. basic
b. social welfare
c. cultural needs before satisfying the higher
level needs
24. Macroeconomics is not concerned with
a. the level of output of goods and services
b. the general level of prices
c. the growth of income
d. individual income
25. Economic problems arise because
a. resources are scarce
b. human wants are insatiable
c. most goods are scarce
d. all of the above
26. The objective of a rational consumer is to
a. buy as much as his income allows of the
cheapest articles
b. avoid purchasing the most expensive
commodities
c. secure the highest level of satisfaction
from his money income
d. spread his expenditures over as many
products as possible
27. A change in demand or supply
a. is caused by a change in price
b. is presented by a movement from one
point to another on the demand or supply
curve
c. is caused by a change in any of the
determinants of demand or supply other
then price and is presented by a shift of
the entire demand or supply curve
d. none of the above
28. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. Microeconomics is primarily concerned
with the problem of what, how and for
whom to produce
b. Microeconomics is primarily concerned
with the economic behavior decision
making units when at equilibrium
c. Microeconomics is primarily concerned
with the economic activities of the
household, business firms and the
government sector
45
d. Microeconomics is primarily concerned
with the flow of goods and services from
business firms to consumers, the
compositions of the flow, and the
evaluation or pricing of the component
parts of the flow.
29. Economics is
a. a scientific study which deals with how
individuals and society generally make
choices
b. concerned with consumption of goods and
services to satisfy human wants
c. concerned with allocation of scarce
resources
d. all of the above
30. A change in quantity demanded or supplied
a. is caused by any of the determinants of
demand or supply
b. is caused by a change in price of the good
itself, when all other things remain
unchanged and is represented by a
movement from the point to another of
the demand or supply curve
c. is presented by a shift of the entire
demand or supply curve
d. none of the above
31. The market equilibrium point for a commodity
is determined by
a. the market demand
b. the market supply
c. the balancing forces of demand and
supply
d. any of the above
32. When an individual’s income rises (other
things constant) the demand for a normal
good
a. rises
b. falls
c. remains the same
d. we cannot say without additional
information
33. The supply curve sloping upward because
a. price and quantity are directly related
b. price and quantity are inversely related
c. price and quantity are not related
d. none of the above
34. The demand curve is sloping downward
because
a. price and quantity are directly related
b. price and quantity are inversely related
c. price and quantity are not related
d. none of the above
35. Which of the following is also known as RA
7394 which protects consumers against
hazard to health and safety, unfair sales acts
and the like?
a. Toxic Substance and Nuclear Waste
Control Act
b. Consumers Act of the Philippines
c. Retail Trade Liberalization Act
d. None of the above
36. A price support leads to persistent
a. surplus
b. shortage
 46

c. restriction of output d. regulation

d. none of the above
46. Underground economy is conducted
37. A price control will create a problem of a. outside legal boundaries
a. surplus b. within legal boundaries
b. shortage c. on parts of entry
c. rationing of output d. outside parts of entry
d. all of the above
47. When the current price exceeds the
38. The exclusive right of an inventor for the equilibrium price, there is a
control of his invention for a period of some a. shortage and price will rise
say, 17 years is called b. shortage and price will fall
a. patent c. surplus and price will rise
b. royalty d. surplus and price will fall
c. monopoly
d. franchise 48. When there is a price floor on the price of
palay
39. The right of the property owner to designate a. supply of palay increases because of the
the recipient of his property at the time of his higher price
death refers to b. quantity supplied increases because of the
a. the right of ownership high price
b. the right to be bequeath c. quantity demanded will decrease because
c. the freedom of choice of the high price
d. the freedom of enterprise d. all of the above will take place

40. Protection against imitators or copycats is 49. When there is price ceiling on the price of
known as crude oil
a. intellectual property rights a. supply of crude oil decreases because of
b. copyright the lower price
c. patent b. quantity supplied decreases because of
d. SEC registration the lower price
c. quantity demanded will increase because
41. A fee received by individuals for endorsing a of the low price
product is called d. all of the above will take place
a. franchise
b. royalty 50. A steeply drawn supply curve indicates
c. patent fee a. an increased demand may be met with a
d. intellectual property rights fee substantial price increase
b. production may be increased without
42. Which of the following can not be used as substantially increasing price
synonym for another? c. quantity demanded changes over time
a. price system d. none of the above
b. command economy
c. free enterprise Use the graph below for items 51-53
d. capitalism
Given the demand and supply for product X
43. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
a. The law of supply yields a positively
sloped supply curve
b. The law of demand yields a negatively 7
sloped curve
c. A shortage or surplus is observed if P 6 S
disequilibrium occurs in the market 5
d. None of the above
4
44. It is owned by two or more people who agree
3
to pool their resources in a common fund with
the aim of sharing whatever profit (losses) 2
they will get. Examples of which are law
firms, accounting firms and medical offices. 1
a. sole proprietorship D
0 Q
b. partnership
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c. corporation
d. franchise

45. It is the selling of government-owned or 51. If the government imposes a tax f P0.50 per
controlled corporations and non-performing unit of product X, the supply curve will
assets to the private sector a. shift parallel upward by an amount equal
a. privatization to the tax
b. corporativism b. shift downward by an amount equal to the
c. cooperativism tax

c. remain unchanged
d. all of the above
52. An increase in the price of Y which is a
complement of X would
a. increase the quantity for X
b. decrease the quantity for X
c. increase the demand for X
d. decrease the demanded for X
53. A decrease in the supply of X will
a. raise the equilibrium price and reduce the
equilibrium quantity
b. raise the equilibrium price and raise the
equilibrium quantity
c. reduce the equilibrium price and raise the
equilibrium quantity
d. reduce the equilibrium price and reduce
the equilibrium quantity
54. A shortage of a commodity is said to exist
when the prevailing price is
a. above the equilibrium price
b. below the equilibrium price
c. such that demand is greater than supply
d. both b and c
55. The production possibility frontier is concave
towards the origin because
a. it takes into consideration the law of
increasing costs
b. it implies that a trade-off between the two
commodities is possible
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
56. Which of the following diagrams illustrates the
application of technological innovation in the
production of good Y?
Y c. unlimited interest to capital
a.
Y
b.
Y
c.
57. What does a point in the production possibility
frontier tell us?
a. the society must utilize all the available
resources to reach a point on the
production possibility frontier
b. the society must increase the resources
available to reach a point on the
production possibility frontier
c. the society can increase the production of
either one of the commodities
d. both a and c
58. When the current price is less than the
equilibrium price, there is a
47
a. shortage and price will rise
b. shortage and price will fall
c. surplus and price will rise
d. surplus and price will fall
59. When there is a price floor on the price of
palay
a. surplus of palay increases because of the
higher price
b. quantity supplied increases because of the
high price
c. quantity demanded will decrease because
of the high price
d. all of the above will take place
60. Increasing returns to scale means that
a. a doubling of all inputs would cause a
doubting of output
b. a doubling of all inputs would cause
output to more than double
c. a doubling of all inputs would cause
output to a less than doubling of output
d. doubling only one output while other
inputs remain fixed would cause a
doubling of output
61. If the country’s supply of productive resources
or inputs increases, then, its production
possibility frontier would
a. shift outward
b. shift inward
c. remain the same but the country would
move to a point on the production
possibility frontier
d. all of the above
62. Which of the following is not a basic principle
guiding the cooperative movement?
a. open membership
b. democratic control
d. patronage refund
Use the following diagram for items 63-66:
63. The resource market is where
a. household sell products and businesses
buy products
b. businesses sell the resources and
household buy products
c. household sell resources and businesses
buy resources
d. businesses sell resources and household
buy resources
64. Which of the following will be determined in
the product market?
a. manager salary
 48

b. the price of equipment used in a b. Stage II

manufacturing firm c. Stage III
c. the price of a 30-hectare farmland d. none of the above
d. the price of a new pair of leather shoes
74. It represents the point of equilibrium of
65. In this circular flow diagram market baskets corresponding to all possible
a. money flows counterclockwise levels of money income.
b. resources flow counterclockwise a. price consumption curve
c. goods and services flow clockwise b. Engel curve
d. households are on the supply side of the c. income consumption curve
product market d. demand curve

66. In the same diagram 75. The relationships between the equilibrium
a. household spend income in the product quantity purchased of a good and the level of
market income is referred to as
b. firms supply resources to the household a. price consumption curve
c. household receive income through the b. Engel curve
product market c. income consumption curve
d. household produce goods d. demand curve

67. At market equilibrium 76. The locus of points of consumer equilibrium

a. quantity demand equa’s quantity supplied when only the price of a good is varied
b. demand and supply curves intersect a. price consumption curve
c. the quantity sellers are willing to sell and b. Engel curve
consumers are willing to purchase are the c. income consumption curve
same d. demand curve
d. all of the above
77. Which of the following best describes the
68. When the price of talk ‘n text cell card “Production Function”?
increases, the demand for touch mobile cards a. it indicates the best output to produce
a. will increase b. it relates physical inputs to physical
b. will decrease outputs
c. have no effect at all c. it relates peso inputs to peso outputs
d. may not be affected d. it indicates the best way to combine
factors to produce any given product
69. An increase in demand and a decrease in
supply of a commodity will cause the 78. This law states that if one kind of an input is
equilibrium price to increased and added in equal amount to some
a. increase fixed amount of resources, per unit of time,
b. decrease total product will increase, reaches a
c. remain the same maximum then declines
d. we can not say a. Law of diminishing returns
b. Law of diminishing marginal returns
70. If the percentage increase in quantity c. Law of diminishing utility
demanded is greater than the percentage fall d. Law of diminishing marginal utility
in its price, the coefficient of price elasticity is
a. less than one 79. Using marginal approach the firm will
b. greater than 1 maximize profit or minimize losses by
c. equal to 1 producing at the point where
d. zero a. Marginal Revenue = Marginal Cost
b. Total Revenue – Total Cost
71. An indifference curve illustrates c. Marginal Revenue > Marginal Cost
a. constant quantities of one good with d. Marginal Revenue < Marginal Cost
varying quantities of another
b. the prices and quantities of two goods 80. Any price lower than minimum AVC is
that can be purchased for a given sum of a. close/shut down case
money b. loss minimization
c. all combinations of two goods that will c. profit maximization
have the same level of satisfaction d. none of the above
d. all of the above
e. none of the above 81. Under total approach, the quantity to produce
maximum profit is the output where
72. The locus of points each of which represents a a. Marginal Revenue = Marginal Cost
bundle of goods that can be purchased if the b. Excess of Total Cost over Total Revenue is
entire money income is spent is called greatest
a. budget line c. Excess of Total Revenue over Total Cost is
b. indifference curve greatest
c. isoquant d. Total Revenue = Total Cost
d. supply curve
82. That point where the isocost line is tangent to
73. The most economical stage of production is the isoquant curve
a. State I a. producer’s equilibrium point
 49

b. consumer’s equilibrium point a. more, more

c. point of tangency b. less, less
d. none of the above c. more, less
d. less, more
83. The concept, which determines the
combination of inputs that will produce a 92. At the elastic portion of the demand curve, a
given output at the least possible cost, refers price decrease will
to a. increase total revenue
a. Inverse price ratio b. decrease total revenue
b. Least cost combination c. not change total revenue
c. Isoquant d. increase marginal revenue
d. Substitution principle
Use the table below in answering items 93-95.
84. It indicates the least cost combination of two
substitutable inputs. P1 Q1 P2 Q2
a. Inverse Price Ratio > Marginal Rate of Corn 4 80 6 80
Technical Substitution Beef 80 150 96 128
b. Inverse Price Ratio = Marginal Rate of Silk 100 20 110 4
Technical Substitution
c. Inverse Price Ratio < Marginal Rate of 93. The demand for silk is
Technical Substitution a. elastic
d. Converse Net Price Ratio = Marginal Rate b. inelastic
of Enterprise Substitution c. unitary elastic
d. unitary inelastic
85. It shows the different combinations of two
inputs, with which a firm can produce a 94. The demand for beef is
specific quantity of output. a. Elastic
a. indifference curve b. inelastic
b. isocost c. unitary elastic
c. isoquant d. unitary inelastic
d. isoquant map
95. The elasticity of demand for corn is
86. Marginal revenue (MR) is equal to the a. elastic
a. price of output b. inelastic
b. price of input c. unitary elastic
c. marginal cost d. unitary inelastic
d. none of the above under a purely
competitive market model Use the equations below in answering items 96-
99:
87. Stage I of production process goes from the
origin to the point where AP is Qs = 20 + 2p Qd = 10C – 8p
a. zero
b. minimum Where: Qs – quantity supplied
c. maximum Qd – quantity demanded
d. negative
96. What is the equilibrium price (Pe) and
88. Production will result in an economic profit if quantity (Qe)?
a. TR exceeds a. Pe = 20, Qe = 60
b. Price of output (MR) exceeds minimum b. Pe = 6, Qe = 80
ATC c. Pe = 8, Qe = 36
c. Both a and b d. Pe = 10, Qe = 70
d. None of the above
97. Suppose government grants subsidy per unit
89. When marginal product is at zero, total of output, Pe and Qe will
product is a. decrease
a. declining b. increase
b. minimum c. remain unchanged
c. maximum d. none of the above
d. negative
98. If a price ceiling be fixed at P 6 what will
90. The irrational stages of production are happen to quantity levels?
a. Stages I and II a. Qs and Qd will decrease
b. Stages II and III b. both quantity levels will increase
c. Stages I and III c. Qs will decrease and Qd will increase
d. Stage III d. Qs will increase and Qd will decrease

91. A surplus would exist after a price floor is
imposed because suppliers would want to
supply _____ at the higher than equilibrium
price while demanders would want _____
than the equilibrium quantity because of a
higher than equilibrium price
99. Given a combination of increase in consumers’
income and a decrease in prices factors of
production the result will be
a. such that the direction of changes in price
and quantity will be uncertain
b. a higher price and a lower quantity level

c. a lower equilibrium price and a higher
equilibrium quantity
d. a lower price and a higher quantity level
100. Which of the following does not support an
upward sloping supply curve?
a. lower prices, producers may be less
willing to supply more goods because they
will earn less profits assuming that all
factors remain the same
b. at lower prices, inefficient producers
would still be willing to produce the
commodity
c. the law of diminishing returns is in
operation
d. none of the above
101. An increase in demand and a decrease in
supply of a commodity will cause the
equilibrium price to
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain the same
d. we can not say
102. A sudden shift from rice to corn consumption
by Filipinos will
a. induce a movement along the demand
curve for corn and rice
b. shift the demand curve for rice upward
and corn downward
c. shift the demand curve for corn upward
and rice downward
d. none of the above
103. Increased advertising of a product tends to
a. increase price levels, quantity levels
constant
b. shift the demand curve to the right
c. shift the demand curve to the left
d. increase quantity demanded, with price
levels constant
104. Extending subsidy on consumer’s income will
a. shift the demand curve to the right
b. shift the demand curve to the left
c. change quantity demanded and price but
the change will be contained within the
original demand curve
d. decrease quantity demanded but increase
price level
105. From the fact that the demand curve is
sloping downward, we know that
a. when people’s income increases, the
quantity bought will increase
b. when the people of the commodity
increases, the quantity bought will
decrease
c. when the price of the commodity
increases, the quantity bought will
increase
d. when the quantity demanded increases,
the quantity supplied will also increase
106. An increase in the income of Filipinos wanting
computers would
a. shift the demand curve downward
b. shift the demand curve upward
c. induce a movement along the demand
curve
d. create no effect on the demand curve
50
107. Which of the following does not support a
downward sloping demand curve?
a. a lowering of price may bring in new
buyers
b. a lowering of price may make a consumer
buy more of a commodity
c. a lowering of price may reduce the
quantity demanded for a commodity
d. none of the above
108. The distribution of resources is determined by
a. the initial distribution of resources
b. the supply and demand for productive
resources
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
109. Which of the following depicts a relationship
between input and output?
a. Law of increasing relative cost
b. Law of diminishing returns
c. Principle returns to scale
d. b and c
110. The law of diminishing returns tells us that
a. society must sacrifice ever increasing
amounts of one good to get equal extra
amounts of another good
b. as you add equal units of a variable input
to a fixed input, the marginal (or
additional) and total product increase
c. as you add equal units of a variable input
to a fixed input, the marginal or additional
product diminishes even if total product
may increase
d. none of the above
111. If resources were not scarce, i.e., if they are
available in unlimited amounts
a. what, how and for whom to produce
would not be problems
b. it would not matter of resources were
combined unwisely in the production
process
c. it does not matter how goods and
incomes were distributed among different
people and classes
d. all of the above would be true
112. A steeply drawn supply curve indicates
a. an increased demand may be met with a
substantial price increase
b. production may be increased without
substantially increasing price
c. quantity demanded changes over time
d. none of the above
113. When there is a price ceiling set on the price
of crude oil
a. supply of crude oil decreases because of
the lower price
b. quantity supplied decreases because of
the low price
c. quantity demanded will increase because
of the low price
d. all of the above will take place
114. Scarcity of capital relative to labor will induce
producers to use
a. more labor intensive techniques
b. more capital intensive techniques
 51

c. capital and labor in the same amount a. above the ATC curve, ATC rises
d. all of the above tax b. above the AVC curve, ATC rises
c. below the AVC curve, TFC increases
115. The incidence of a sales tax on a commodity d. below the ATC curve, TFC falls
will vary depending on the
a. intersection of demand and supply for the 125. The MR curve under pure competition is
commodity horizontal because
b. relatives slopes of demand and supply for a. price falls as output increases
the commodity b. the law of diminishing utility is at work
c. relative elasticities of supply and demand c. the market demand for this product is
for the commodity perfectly elastic
d. none of the above d. the firm is a price take

116. An increase in supply will lower price except 126. The cost that a firm incurs in purchasing or
when demand is hiring any factor of production is referred to
a. infinitely elastic as
b. perfectly inelastic a. explicvit cost
c. unit elastic b. implicit cost
d. elastic c. variable cost
d. fixed cost
117. When an increase in demand causes price to
increase but leaves quantity unchanged, 127. During inflation, the real value of income
supply must be a. increases
a. infinitely elastic b. decreases
b. perfectly inelastic c. remain unchanged
c. unit elastic d. none of the above
d. unit inelastic
128. When the law of diminishing returns begins to
118. When the current price exceeds equilibrium operate the total Variable Cost curve begins
price to
a. there is shortage and price will rise a. fall at an increasing rate
b. there is shortage and price will fall b. rise at a decreasing rate
c. there is surplus and price will rise c. fall at a decreasing rate
d. there is surplus and price will fall d. rise at an increasing rate

119. For a firm to maximize profits, it should 129. All of the following curves are U-shaped
a. reduce output whenever MR > MC except
b. produce the greatest possible output a. the average variable cost curve
c. increase output whenever MR < MC b. the average fixed cost curve
d. none of the above c. the average cost curve
d. the marginal cost curve
120. Extra income earned from producing an
additional unit of output is called 130. The Marginal Cost curve is given by
a. Marginal Costs a. the slope of the Total Fixed Cost curve
b. Marginal Product b. the slope of the Total Variable Cost curve
c. Marginal Revenue but not the Total Cost curve
d. all of the above c. the slope of the total cost curve but not
the Total Variable Cost curve
121. The most important characteristics of d. either the slope of the Total Variable Cost
monopolistic competition curve of the Total Cost curve
a. many sellers
b. existence of non-price competition 131. The Marginal Cost (MC) curve reaches its
c. product differentiation minimum point before the Average variable
d. easy entry Cost (AVC) curve and the Average Cost (AC)
curve. In addition, the MC curve interests
122. Marginal product is a. the above statements are both true
a. the change in total product divided by the b. one of the statements is not true
change in the unit of the variable input c. no basis identify whether the above
b. total product divided by the quantity of statements are either true or false
the variable input d. none of the above
c. always negative
d. always positive as long as the total 132. Which of the following industries most closely
product is positive approximates the purely competitive model?
a. cigarette
123. The vertical distance between the ATC and b. automobile
AVC curves measures c. newspaper
a. marginal cost d. rice farming
b. total fixed cost
c. average fixed cost 133. The following characteristics are true for
d. profit per unit indifference curves except that
a. lower indifference curve means lower
124. When the MC curve lies level of satisfaction
 52

b. it is concave from the origin a. will increase

c. they never intersect b. will decrease
d. they are negatively sloped c. have no effect at all
d. may not be affected
134. At a lower price, one can afford more of the
good without giving up any alternative good is 138. Generally, marginal utility is positive but
true for declining when total utility is positive and
a. income effect a. rising at an increasing rate
b. substitution effect b. falling at an increasing rate
c. neither a nor b c. rising at a decreasing rate
d. all of the above d. falling at a decreasing rate

135. If the % increase in Qd is less than a % fall in 139. Because Globe prepaid card is a necessity to
price, Ed = globe subscribers, so with Smart call cards to
a. zero Smart users, the demand for those cards is
b. one nearly
c. greater than one a. elastic
d. less than one b. inelastic
c. unitary elastic
136. At market equilibrium d. perfectly inelastic
a. quantity demanded equals quantity
supplied 140. Which form of monopoly regulation is most
b. demand and supply curves intersect advantageous for the consumer?
c. the quantity sellers are willing to sell and a. price control
consumers are willing to purchase are the b. lump-sum tax
same c. per-unit tax
d. all of the above d. all of the above

137. When the price of talk ‘n text cell card

increases, the demand for touch mobile cards
 53

Use of the following hypothetical table to answer the succeeding three (3) items

Output Total Total Cost Profit Marginal Marginal Average Profit/

RTevenue Revenue Cost Cost Unit
0 0 400 -400 --- --- --- ---
100 400 1000 -600 4.00 6 10.00 -6.00
200 800 1300 -500 4.00 3 6.50 -2.50
300 1200 1500 -300 4.00 2 5.00 -1.00
400 1600 1600 0 4.00 1 4.00 0.00
500 2000 1700 300 4.00 1 3.40 0.60
600 2400 1850 550 4.00 1.5 3.08 0.92
700 2800 2100 700 4.00 2.5 3.00 1.00
750 3000 2265 735 4.00 3.3 3.02 0.98
800 3200 2500 700 4.00 4.7 3.13 0.88
900 3600 3600 0 4.00 11 4.00 0.00

141. The Total Fixed Cost is 149. Which of the following relationship between
a. zero Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) and
b. 400 Marginal Propensity to save (MPS) is true?
c. 100 a. MPC – MPS = 0
d. 3600 b. MPC – MPS = 1
c. MPC + MPS = 1
142. The output to produce is the units in order d. MPC + MPS = 0
to attain maximum profit
a. 700 150. Which of the following adequately defines
b. 750 inflation
c. 800 a. increase in aggregate output level and
d. 900 services
b. decrease in aggregate output level
143. The firm breaks even at _____ units of c. rising prices of output of goods
output d. declining prices of output
a. 400
b. 900 151. Disposable income is comprised of
c. Zero a. Savings + Consumption
d. 400 and 900 b. Consumption + Government
Expenditures
144. All productive activities are based on c. Savings + Taxes
a. distribution d. Consumption + Investment
b. consumption
c. exchange 152. Gross private investment includes
d. marketing a. all final purchases of machineries,
equipment and tools
145. Because oil is necessity and has no good b. all construction
substitute, the demand for it is likely to be c. changes in inventories
a. price inelastic d. all of the above
b. price elastic
c. unitary elastic 153. A schedule which shows the various
d. perfectly elastic amounts household plan to consume at
various levels of income is a
146. A market model characterized by few a. consumption level
sellers and pricing interdependence is b. demand schedule
known as c. savings schedule
a. pure competition d. supply schedule
b. monopoly
c. monopolistic competition 154. Debtors and profit earners benefit from
d. oligopoly inflation. This statement is
a. true
147. A market with a single buyer of commodity b. false
is termed as c. ambiguous
a. monopoly d. none of the above
b. oligopsony
c. monopsony 155. The ratio of the change in consumption to
d. none of the above the change is income is known as
a. Marginal Propensity to Consume
148. Savings is an increasing function of b. Marginal Propensity to Save
a. autonomous investments c. Average Propensity to Consume
b. income d. Average Propensity to Save
c. consumption
d. all of the above 156. It refers to the recurrent ups and downs in
the level of economic activity.
a. inflation
 54

b. business cycle d. diversion

c. depression
d. deflation 167. The amount of goods and services that
your wages can buy is called
157. Taxes will reduce a. free wage
a. consumption b. money wage
b. savings c. salary
c. both a and b d. real wage
d. revenues
168. The most common cause of depreciation of
158. Unemployment caused by the business land value is
cycle is known as a. depletion of fertility
a. cyclical unemployment b. erosion
b. structural unemployment c. acid rain
c. frictional unemployment d. pollution
d. none of the above
169. The subsistence theory of wages was
159. Inflation brought about by considerable inadequate because it gave the workers
market power is referred to as just their
a. demand pull inflation a. food
b. cost push inflation b. luxuries
c. structural inflation c. basic needs
d. none of the above d. comforts

160. Because of scarcity, a choice must be 170. Like any other goods and services, the role
made which in turn involves of interest on capital is determined by
a. exchange a. supply
b. decisions b. demand
c. priorities c. supply and demand
d. trade off d. available resources

161. Consumer behavior can be understood if 171. The creation of goods and services which
the following are considered except will satisfy human needs and wants is
a. budget constraints a. interest
b. consumer’s preferences b. allocation
c. consumer’s choices c. production
d. producer’s preference d. wage

162. A good may be classified as consumer’s or 172. It refers to the share of the land used in
producer’s good depending on its the production of goods and services
a. quality a. wage
b. quantity b. commercial rent
c. price c. economic rent
d. utility d. profit

163. The theory of consumer sovereignty says 173. It is defined as the price paid for personal
that in a free market economy _____ will service in production
determine which goods and services to a. interest
produce b. profit
a. consumer c. dividend
b. producer d. wage
c. buyer
d. seller 174. A basic cause of inflation is excessive
a. demand
164. The best way to avoid buying on b. supply
installment is by c. consumption
a. borrowing d. none of the above
b. credit buying
c. savings 175. The most commonly used measure of
d. withholding consumption change in the general price level is the
a. cost of living
165. Capital is usually accumulated from b. consumer price index
a. interest c. price increase
b. profit d. supply of money
c. rent
d. savings 176. The main source of government revenues
are
166. The decrease in the value of capital goods a. fees
used in production is called b. fines
a. depression c. licenses
b. depreciation d. taxes
c. diminishing returns
 55

177. During inflation, the real value of income
a. remains uncharged
b. increases
c. decreases
d. none of the above
178. A term created to describe a situation of
simultaneous economic stagnation, high
unemployment and inflation is
a. deflation
b. inflation
c. depression
d. stagnation
179. Among the effects and widespread
unemployment is
a. income effect
b. substitution effect
c. supply effect
d. none of the above
180. The most serious and widespread
unemployment is
a. cyclical unemployment
b. frictional unemployment
c. hidden unemployment
d. structural unemployment
181. Severe and prolonged period of decline in
business activity is called a/an
a. depression
b. inflation
c. deflation
d. stagnation
182. Changes in real wages are calculated by
comparing changes in money wages with
changes is the
a. rate of profits work
b. cost of living
c. effort of work
d. tax rate
183. Which if the following is not a source of
aggregate demand?
a. exports less imports
b. savings
c. government expenditures
d. consumption expenditures
184. GNP represents
a. market value of all intermediate goods
and services produced by the economy
within the year
b. market value of all final goods and
services produced by the economy
within the year
c. market value of all final and
intermediate goods and services
produced by the economy within the
year
d. none of the above
185. Over a five-year period (1976-1980), GNP
in current price in country A doubled, but
prices increased by 70%. In country B,
nominal GNP rose by only 20% while prices
remained virtually the same. Which if the
following can be inferred?
a. the real GNP of A is now higher than
that of B
b. the real GNP of B is now higher than
that of A
c. the real GNP of A increases faster than
that of B
d. the real GNP of B increases faster than
that of A
186. In making year to year comparisons of
GNP, a difference may arise between
“money GNP” and “Real GNP” because
a. not all the production of an economy
represents tangible goods
b. the nation’s gold supply may change
c. the average index of goods prices may
change over the years
d. the total quantity of good may change
over the years
187. Real GNP is greater than nominal GNP if
a. imports exceeds exports
b. prices are falling
c. exports exceeds imports
d. prices are raising
188. An important difference between personal
income and personal disposable income
consists of
a. personal savings
b. dividends
c. personal taxes
d. investment income
189. The phase of the cycle wherein output and
employment expand to full employment is
a. real
b. recession
c. trough
d. recovery
190. During inflation, the real value of income
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains unchanged
d. none of the above
191. GNP excludes non-productive transactions
such as firms
a. second hand
b. purely financial transactions
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
192. Slope of the consumption function is also
called
a. Average Propensity to consume
b. Marginal Propensity to Consume
c. Marginal Propensity to Save
d. All of the above
193. Reserve held by the bank over and above
the legal reserve is called
a. required reserve
b. excess reserve
c. interest rate
d. all of the above
194. Money balances held to meet unforeseen
contingencies is referred to as
a. speculative demand for money
b. transaction demand for money
c. precautionary demand for money
d. real demand for money
 56

a. greater than the government

195. Nominal money supply is expenditure multiplier
a. the peso value of the nation’s money b. equal to the government expenditure
supply multiplier
b. flow of receipts per unit of time c. less than the government expenditure
c. checking accounts at commercial banks multiplier
d. peso value of the money supply over d. equal to the investment expenditure
the price level multiplier

196. Phase in the business cycle when economic 205. If C = 50 + 0.80 Yd

prosperity is experienced is the a. the MPC is 0.50
a. peak b. the MPS is 0.80
b. recession c. the MPC is 0.20
c. trough d. the MPS is 0.20
d. recovery phase
206. If the national government lowers taxes
197. Commodities that have been processed but and government spending by 10%, then
require further processing before they are with the MPC of 0.90, the income will fall
made available to the final consumer are by
called a. 9
a. crude materials b. 80
b. finished goods c. 10
c. intermediate goods d. 20
d. durable goods
207. Keyne’s fundamental law states that
198. Manipulation of the public budget a. the change in income is greater than
government spending and tax collections the change in consumption
to achieve full employment is called b. the change in consumption is greater
a. monetary policy than the change in income
b. fiscal policy c. people stop consuming when they
c. public policy become affluent
d. economic policy d. none of the above

199. Source of date relating to the
measurement of prices which measure the
price of commodities at various stages of
production is called
a. consumer price index
b. producer price index
c. implicit price deflator
d. all of the above
208. Equilibrium occurs in two-sector model
when
a. saving equals investment
b. consumption plus investment equals
planned investment
c. aggregate spending equals the revenue
of business firms
d. all of the above

200. Inflation caused by the deficiency of the 209. An autonomous increase in investment will
aggregate supply is called result in
a. demand pull or excess inflation a. higher level of income and a higher
b. bottleneck inflation interest rate
c. cost-push inflation b. lower level of income and a lower
d. all of the above interest rate
c. higher level of income and a lower
201. Unemployment resulting from the interest rate
deficiency of aggregate total demand d. lower rate of income and a higher
a. frictional interest rate
b. structural
c. cyclical 210. Which of the following statements is
d. all of the above incorrect?
a. A household’s average holding of
202. The equation C = 20 + .90 Yd predicts that money for transactions increases as
consumption is the level of disposable income
a. 90 when disposable income (Yd) is increases
100 b. A household’s average holding of
b. 100 when Yd is 90 money for transactions increases as
c. 110 when Yd is 100 the number of days in a pay period
d. 180 when Yd is 200 increases
c. A household’s average holding of
203. If the marginal propensity to consume is money for transactions is unrelated to
0.75, the multiplier has a value of its pattern of expenditure
a. 5 d. None of the above
b. 4
c. 3 211. Disposable income can either be spent on
d. 2 which two items?
a. savings and investment
204. The tax multiplier is b. consumption and investments
 57

c. consumption and savings a. 100

d. none of the above b. 120
c. 150
212. Which of the following is mostly associated d. 200
with unemployment due to business
recessions 220. The consumption of equilibrium income is
a. frictional unemployment a. 100
b. cyclical unemployment b. 115
c. consumption and savings c. 125
d. seasonal unemployment d. 90

213. An option resorted by countries which is 221. Saving at equilibrium income is

done by changing the country’s exchange a. 25
rate in a fixed rate system or by increasing b. 35
the number of units of a country’s c. 55
currency. d. 60
a. devaluation
b. depreciation 222. The value of the multiplier is
c. inflation a. 1.6
d. deflation b. 2.0
c. 2.5
214. Macroeconomics maybe divided into four d. 3.0
sectors except
a. GNP sector 223. Inflation brought about by considerable
b. Money sector market power is related to as
c. Unemployment and inflation sector a. demand pull inflation
d. Public sector b. cost push inflation
c. structural inflation
215. It refers to any activity that uses resources d. all of the above
today allowing for greater production in the
future and hence, greater consumption. 224. Which of the following groups is not
a. inventory penalized by inflation?
b. investment a. savers
c. saving b. debtors
d. deposit c. creditors
d. fixed money income groups
216. Interest, the payment for the use of capital
is commonly expressed 225. A point outside the production possibility
a. in absolute amount frontier indicates that given the technology
b. in percent and resources available, this combination
c. as a combination of percentage and is
absolute amount a. attainable but inefficient
d. none of the above b. unattainable but best for society
c. attainable and is best for society
217. The statement Taxes reduce private d. unattainable
spending and lower the equilibrium rate of
“GNP” is 226. When marginal utility is zero,
a. correct a. total utility is also zero
b. incorrect b. neither rising for falling
c. no basis for saying whether true or c. negative
false d. rising but at a decreasing rate
d. all of the above
227. Marginal utility
218. A minimum wage rate higher than the a. is the extra output a firm obtains when
market wage rate results in it adds another units of labor
a. labor b. explains why product supply curves are
b. labor surplus upsloping
c. an equilibrium in the labor market c. typically rises as successive units of a
d. none of the above good are consumed
d. is the extra satisfaction from the
Give the following equations, answer items consumption of one more of the some
219-222. good or service

i. S = -25 + 0.4 Y G = 20 I = 15 T=0 228. Every time the government incurs a deficit,
it must borrow from the following except
Where: from the
S – savings a. private sector
G – government expenditures b. public sector
I – investments c. foreign sector
T - tax d. religious sector

219. The equilibrium level of Y is


229. The legal method to reduce taxes owed to
the government is called a tax
a. loophole
b. rebate
c. incentive
d. evasion
230. It is a tax based on a percentage of income
that varies inversely with the level of
income
a. Progressive tax
b. Regressive tax
c. Proportional tax
d. All of the above
231. The current government policy which
addresses food security and
competitiveness of the agricultural sector,
is known as
a. Agriculture and Fisheries Modernization
Act
b. Agriculture and Forestry Modernization
c. Agriculture Fisheries and Mining Act
d. Agriculture Farm Management Act
232. The speech delivered by the president of
the country during the opening of the
annual regular session of the legislative
house is coined as the
a. Speech of the National Address
b. Special Organization for National Arts
c. State of the Nation Address
d. Speech for National Advocacy
233. The country had entered into this group in
1994 as an accession to global trade
development
a. World Tariff Organization
b. Welfare and Trade Organization
c. World Trade Organization
d. World and Trade Organization
234. The law, which promotes high value crops,
is given
a. RA 3438
b. RA 7900
c. RA 6455
d. RA 6436
235. A measure of determining which resource a
country to use abundantly in order to be
competitive in the export market is called
a. Record Company of America
b. Rice and Corn Administration
c. Revealed Comparative Advantage
d. Resonance Competitive Advantage
236. A multilateral contract among countries to
gradually remove trade protection thus
allowing freer trade is known as
a. General Agreement of Trade and Taxes
b. General Agriculture on Tariff and Trade
c. General Agreement on Tariffs and
Trade
d. All of the above
237. The main recipients of redistributed lands
by virtue of CARP are the
a. Agricultural Resource Communities
b. Association of Reformed Communities
c. Agrarian Reform Communities
d. Agricultural Rehabilitation Centers
58
238. The agency which is mainly responsible to
promote the welfare of fishery sector is
a. Bureau of Freshwater and Aquaculture
Resources
b. Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic
Resources
c. Bureau of Freshwater and Agricultural
Resources
d. All of the above
239. The program which is only focused to
redistribute lands to eligible farmers is
known as
a. Comprehensive Reform Program
b. Cooperative Development
Administration
c. Cooperation and Development Agency
d. Land Reform Program
240. When a government wishes to create
excess demand for foreign exchange, it
basically adopts _____ of exchange rate
a. Devaluation
b. Depreciation
c. Deterioration
d. Overvaluation
241. The regulatory agency responsible to
register and monitor cooperative is called
a. Cooperative Development Authority
b. Cooperative Development
Administration
c. Cooperation and Development Agency
d. All of the above
242. The extent of protection of agricultural
outputs is measured by
a. National Power Corporation
b. National Performance Coefficient
c. Nominal Protection Coefficient
d. National Protection Cofactor
243. The main subject of GATT-WTO
organization is the reduction of
a. Tariffs
b. Quantitative Restrictions
c. Levies
d. Subsidies imposed on agricultural
products
244. The trading block where the Philippines
belongs is
a. Asean for Trade Association
b. Asean Free Trade Area
c. Atlantic Free Trade Association
d. Association of Food and Trade Asia
245. It measures the degree given to value
added of agricultural sector
a. Effective Protection Rate
b. Effective Prevention Ration
c. Effective Protection Reconnaissance
d. None of the above
246. It provides climate for enhancing
competitiveness and food security of the
country
a. Hybrid Valued Corn and Crops
b. High Valued Commodity Crops Act
c. High value Commercial Crops Act
d. None of the above
 59

a. Department of Environment and

247. The _____ reflects the current and capital Natural Resources
accounts of a country vis-à-vis other b. Department of Agrarian Reform
countries. c. Department of Trade and Industry
a. Balance of Payment d. Court of Agrarian relation
b. Balance of Trade
c. Balance of Tariffs 257. For the country to be industrialized, the
d. Balance Sheet strategy should be
a. agri-based
248. Unlike any other government programs, b. business-based
infrastructures do not enhance efficiency in c. export based
the agricultural sector because it is sector d. import based
neutral
a. true 258. The rule, which states that equal income
b. maybe should be taxed equally while unequal
c. false income should be taxed unequally is
d. both a and b a. horizontal equity
b. proportional equity
249. Most pricing policies adopted by the c. progressive equity
government are d. vertical equity
a. distorionary
b. favoring urban consumers 259. If a country has a positive balance of trade
c. support farmers a. its exports exceeds imports in value
d. none of the above b. its imports exceed exports in value
c. its debts have been paid
250. The licensure exam for agriculture is d. it has no deficit
embodied in
a. HVCC 260. The performance of the foreign trade is not
b. CARP determined by
c. AFMA a. foreign policies
d. CHED b. restrictions
c. demand for goods
251. A frequently used provision of labor d. trade laws
contracts that grants wage increases based
on changes in the consumer price (also 261. The arm of the government that oversees
called escalator clause) is trade, industry and investment activities is
a. Cost of Living Allowance (COLA) the
b. Amelioration fund a. Philippine Trade Training Center
c. 13th month pay b. Philippine International Trading
d. Cash gift Corporation
c. Department of Trade and Industry
252. GNP can be measured through the national d. Department of Tourism
income category and the
a. expenditure category 262. This theory states that a nation’s resources
b. output category are nonrenewable and can contribute to
c. investment type category economic development only up to a certain
d. consumer type category point. Such viewed phenomenon is related
to the law of diminishing returns
253. Land reform is intended to place the a. Adam Smith’s theory
ownership of land in the hands of the b. Ricardian theory
a. landlord c. Charles Darwin theory
b. tenant d. none of the above
c. tiller
d. lease 263. Restrictions to foreign trade are made
through these except
254. The whole country was proclaimed a land a. quotas
reform country by President b. incentive
a. Corazon C. Aquino c. embargoes
b. Diosdado P. Macapagal d. tariff
c. Ferdinand E. Marcos
d. Fidel V. Ramos 264. He is the leading exponent of the linear
stage theory
255. The Philippines is basically a. Walt Rostow
a. agricultural b. Adam Smith
b. industrial c. Milton Friedman
c. commercial d. Paul Samuelson
d. manufacturing
265. He believed that specialization or division
256. All these agencies are involved in of labor increases productivity thereby
improving agricultural production except causing positive socioeconomic conditions.
the He also asserted that economic freedom is
an efficient way to organize an economy
 60

a. Adam Smith a. Dualism

b. Ptolemy b. Neoclassical
c. Ricardo c. equity
d. Charles Darwin d. Say’s law

266. Cooperation among APEC members is 275. The capacity of an economy to generate
based on the following except and sustain an annual increase in its GNP
a. equal partnership at rates of perhaps 5 to 7% or more is
b. shared responsibility known as
c. mutual respect a. Lewis model
d. common funding b. Harrod-Domar growth model
c. Development
267. The permanent loss of professional workers d. Dualism
in a country’s labor force is called
a. brain drain 276. An investment is not acceptable if Benefit
b. brawn drain Cost Ratio is
c. resource drain a. one
d. people drain b. greater than one
c. less than one
268. They are the strongest factor/s that d. positive
attracts the OCWs to leave the Philippines
a. Higher pay 277. An investment is acceptable if
b. Better working conditions a. NPV is zero or greater
c. Chances of advancement b. BCR is one or greater
d. Social factors c. both a and b
d. NPV and BCR is negative
269. The _____ has the best potential for
economic growth considering the country’s 278. A market wherein producers and
large area and availability of manpower. consumers have complete knowledge of
a. agriculture and fishery sector demand and supply is said to be
b. industry and manufacturing sector a. purely competitive
c. forest sector b. perfectly competitive
d. service sector c. imperfect market
d. none of the above
270. The _____ is the major contributor to the
country’s gross national income 279. In monopolistic competition, we have
a. agriculture and fishery sector a. few firms differentiated product
b. industry and manufacturing sector b. many firms selling a homogeneous
c. forest factor product
d. service factor c. few firms selling a homogeneous
product
271. It is an integrated program consisting of d. many firms selling differentiated
measures to improve land tenure by product
production and support services to hasten
the process of development in the 280. Which of the following most closely
countryside approximates our definitions of oligopoly?
a. sustainable development a. the fast food chains
b. Agrarian reform b. the barber shop in the city
c. AFMA c. the cigarette industry
d. GATT d. rice farming in the region

272. This theory viewed the process of 281. A series of services involved in moving a
development as a series of successive product from the point of production to the
stages through which all countries must point of consumption refers to
pass a. production
a. linear stages theory b. marketing
b. international dependent theory c. transporting
c. neoclassical model d. buying and selling
d. structural change model
282. A utility created if good possess the
273. States simply that the rate of growth of required properties is called
GNP is determined by the national savings a. form utility
ratio and the capital-output ratio b. place utility
a. Lewis model c. time utility
b. Rostow’s model d. possession utility
c. Harrod-Domar growth model
d. Dualistic model 283. A utility created if goods are made
available where they are wanted is referred
274. It is a concept which represents the to as
existence and persistence increasing a. form utility
divergence between rich and poor nations b. place utility
and rich and poor people on various levels c. time utility

d. possession utility
284. An activity of function performed to alter
the form, time, place or possession
characteristics of the product refers to
a. marketing services
b. market planning
c. food purchasing
d. none of the above
285. Which one does not belong to the 4P’s of
marketing?
a. product
b. price
c. place
d. purchase
286. The point of usual first sale by farmers,
typically at the farm or at the farmer’s
home is called
a. point of consumption
b. point of production
c. point of equilibrium
d. point of marginalism
287. The point where marketing ends or it is the
point of last purchase or sale refers to
a. point of consumption
b. point of equilibrium
c. point of equilibrium
d. point of breakeven
288. It is a part or component of the marketing
system, which includes the
climatic/physical, socio-cultural, economic,
technological, and legal/political factors
that affects the marketing system
a. consumer subsystem
b. function subsystem
c. environment subsystem
d. channel subsystem
289. An approach in the study of marketing
which covers the characteristics of the
product, the market demand and supply
situation at the domestic and international
level, the behavior of the consumers in
relation to a specific product, and prices
either at the farm, wholesale or retail level
is referred to as
a. institutional approach
b. commodity approach
c. functional approach
d. market-structure-conduct-performance
approach
290. This involves the study of various agencies
and function structures involved in the
marketing processes. It attempts to
answer “who”
a. Institutional approach
b. commodity approach
c. functional approach
d. market-structure-conduct-performance
approach
291. While advertising inform the consumers of
product availability (creating awareness
among them), this marketing function on
the other hand, encourages them to buy
(enhancing demand). Sometime it does
not only encourages them to buy, but also
61
of P0.95, provision of supplementary
products, free samples, etc.)
a. advertising
b. promotion
c. packaging
d. selling
292. They are those individuals or business
concerns that specialize in performing the
various marketing functions involved in the
purchase and sale of goods as they are
moved from producers to consumers
a. middlemen
b. farmers
c. processors
d. consumers
293. It is a type of middleman who takes title to
and therefore, own the products they
handle. They also buy and sell for their
gain.
a. middlemen
b. merchant middlemen
c. commission agent
d. broker
294. A type of middlemen who acts as
representatives of their client. They do not
take title to and therefore do not own, the
products they handle. They just receive
their incomes in the form of fees and
commissions. They sell their services to
their principal, not physical goods to
consumers
a. agent middlemen
b. merchant middlemen
c. commission
d. broker
295. This agent usually not have physical
control of the product. He ordinarily
follows the instructions of his principal
closely and has less discretionary power in
price negotiations than the commission
agent
a. agent middlemen
b. merchant middlemen
c. commission
d. broker
296. Marketing activity which involves the
sorting of products into lots or units
according to one or more of their quality
attributes
a. standardization
b. packaging
c. grading
d. branding
297. This marketing function is the
establishment and maintenance of uniform
measurement. This function simplifies
buying and selling, since it makes possible
the sale by sample and description
a. financing function
b. risk-bearing function
c. standardization function
d. market intelligence function
298. A type of market where the number of
buyers and sellers is sufficiently large so
that no individual can perceptibly influence
 62

price by his decisions to buy or sell. The

product is also sufficiently homogenous so
that the product of one firm is essentially a
perfect substitute for that of other firm
refers to
a. monopolistic market
b. purely competitive
c. oligopolistic market
d. perfect market

299. This marketing function addresses the

problem on product seasonality. The
primary aim of which is to help balance
and consumption of or to balance periods
or scarcity
a. pooling
b. storage
c. processing
d. packaging

300. A marketing service that influences the

buyers and/or consumers to buy. The
objective is to inform consumers what is
available for purchase, especially if the
product is new in the market
a. market intelligence
b. market research
c. advertising
d. branching

301. It refers to an inter-organizational system

made up of a set of interdependent
institutions and agencies involved in the
task of moving product from their point of
production to the point of consumption
a. marketing system
b. marketing origin
c. marketing channel
d. marketing program

302. There are product handlers who serve as

the last link in the marketing channel.
They have greater utility both in rural and
urban centers by selling to consumers.
They occupy almost everyday
a. merchant
b. wholesalers
c. retailers
d. brokers

303. This refers to the difference between prices

at different levels of the system. It can be
also defined as the difference between
what the consumer pays and what the
producer receives for his agricultural
produce. It is also termed as “price
spread” between farm price and retail
price.
 63

Agricultural Extension and a. effectiveness

Communication b. efficiency
c. productivity
DIRECTION: Encircle the letter of the best d. profitability
answer from the choices given.
11. Which is not included as a high value fruit
1. This is considered as a lifelong process of tree
learning a. mango
a. Education b. guava
b. Administration c. papaya
c. Management d. macopa
d. Extension
12. The ability to make decisions that achieve
2. Extension classes are examples of this type goals in the most efficient manner is
of education a. managerial skill
a. formal b. psychomotor skill
b. non-forma c. manipulative skill
c. informal d. planning skill
d. basic
13. This is the principle of extension which
3. The clientele of extension are considers the level of knowledge and
a. youths economic status of the people
b. youth and adults a. grassroot approach
c. adults b. cooperation
d. farmers c. participation
d. leadership
4. The body of principles that governs the
conduct of human activity 14. Extension programs are based on the
a. knowledge people’s _____ so that they will certainly
b. philosophy support the program
c. science a. interests and needs
d. incentives b. social status
c. educational attainment
5. This principle considers the involvement of d. income
the people in the planning, implementation
and evaluation of extension activities 15. A manifestation of the principle of
a. participation cooperation is
b. cooperation a. assistance provided by local leaders
c. leadership b. working alone to minimize errors
d. interests and needs c. identifying cooperator
d. working together in the
6. Extension provides educational implementation of the project
opportunities with
a. coercion 16. The principle of voluntary education means
b. compulsion a. participation with coercion
c. prescription b. participation with compulsion
d. voluntary participation c. free-willing participation
d. participation with lukewarm attitude
7. Extension considers this/these person(s) in
introducing development projects 17. The population of the Philippines in 2002
a. father a. 68 million
b. mother b. 86 million
c. children c. 78 million
d. all members of the family d. 80 million

8. The ultimate objective of extension is 18. The number of people below the poverty
a. economic development line in the Philippines in 2002
b. people development a. 32 million
c. social development b. 35 million
d. physical development c. 30 million
d. 20 million
9. Majority of the Filipinos live in this area
and are involved in agricultural economy 19. Poverty line in the Philippines in 2002 is
a. urban area equivalent to
b. rural area a. 40.00
c. rurban area b. P50
d. agricultural area c. P38
d. P45
10. It means using land, labor, capital and
managerial ability in the best possible 20. Which is not a natural resource in the
combination to produce marketable following?
product a. church
 64

b. land c. The Extension Division

c. water d. The Demonstration Division
d. minerals
30. Founder of the Home Extension Service is
21. The Philippines is composed of _____ a. Maria T. Orosa
regions b. Maria Y. Orosa
a. 13 c. Mary Osora
b. 16 d. Maria Y. Osora
c. 20
d. 15 31. The year the 4-H Club in the Philippines
was started
22. There are _____ provinces in the a. 1947
Philippines b. 148
a. 76 c. 1949
b. 80 d. 1950
c. 86
d. 96 32. This was created on April 24, 1952 with
signing of Republic Act 680
23. Making the youth stay in their farms and a. Bureau of Agricultural Extension
homes will eventually reduce this to cities b. Agricultural Productivity Commission
or urban cities or urban areas c. Rice and Corn Administration
a. migration d. Presidential Assistant for Community
b. immigration Development
c. employment
d. underemployment 33. After World War II, the Philippine
Government requested the U.S.
24. Much is to be desired in terms of government to look over the post war
environmental _____ like floods, wildlife situation with the end in view of making
nearing extinction, pollution, garbage and suggestions for improvement to which the
trash, insecticide/ rodenticides US sent this mission
a. degradation a. Bell Mission
b. improvement b. Political Survey Mission
c. development c. Ball Mission
d. management d. Daniel

25. Globalization concerns can be addressed 34. On August 8, 1963 the Bureau of
through extension by enhancing this Agricultural Extension was changed into
among people in agriculture and fisheries a. Agricultural Productivity Commission
in both domestic and foreign markets b. Presidential Assistant for Community
a. cooperation Development
b. complementation c. Rice and Corn Administration
c. competitiveness d. Community Development Council
d. commitment
35. The Bureau of Agricultural Extension was
26. This means being concerned with other placed again under this Department on
people or giving the best in oneself in July 1, 1973
helping others. a. Department of Agriculture
a. commitment b. Department of Interior
b. complementation c. Department of Forestry
c. cooperation d. Department of Animal Husbandry
d. competitiveness
36. The National Extension Program was
27. Which is the meaning of complementation? appraised by the World Bank Mission in
a. partnership a. 1978
b. networking b. 1979
c. linkage c. 1980
d. consortium d. 1977

28. Extension work in the Philippines started in 37. This is the development strategy designed
1565 through the establishment of model to improve the quality of life of farm
farms by this group families through the resources pool of
a. Spaniards marketing assistance program, technology
b. Americans packaging, cooperatives development with
c. Japanese extension delivery system
d. Taiwanese a. Complementation Program
b. Coordination Program
29. This is the first formally organized c. Cooperation Program
department implementing extension and d. Extension Program
research program
a. The Demonstration and Extension 38. In 1982, as the province was designated as
Division the political unit of management for
b. The Farm and Home Division inducing agricultural development,
 65

coordination and supervision of operations d. none of these

of the various agencies involved in the
delivery of agricultural service became the 47. Time and material factors in the choice of
responsibility of the _____ methods do not include:
a. Mayor a. skill of the resource person in using the
b. Provincial Governor method
c. Provincial Agriculturist b. preparation time
d. Provincial c. duration of the activity
d. budget and facilities
39. This is the merger of the Bureau of
Agricultural Extension, the Philippine 48. It is a prepared oral presentation of a
Training Center for Rural Development and subject by a trainer or a resource person
the Philippine Training Center by the virtue a. small group discussion
of the Executive Order No. 116 (1987) b. lecture
a. Agricultural Training Institute c. meetings
b. Extension Delivery System d. panel discussion
c. Complementation Program
d. Bureau of Cooperatives 49. This is a planned and guided visit of a
group of participants to a specific site or
40. The Agricultural and Fisheries sites for the purpose of obtaining first hand
Modernization Act of 1997 was created by information about an organization and its
this law services or products
a. R.A. 8435 a. field day
b. R.A. 8345 b. field trip
c. R.A. 7385 c. result demonstration
d. R.A. 4835 d. excursion

41. A principle of AFMA that the state shall 50. This means not only to discuss results of
enhance the competitiveness of the research in a meeting but also to discuss
agriculture and fisheries in both domestic any activity or part of any activity with a
and foreign markets is _____ specific purpose
a. globalization a. meeting
b. excellence b. seminar
c. quality assurance c. workshop
d. accreditation d. brainstorming

42. Which of the following does not describe 51. A meeting or individual, preferably a small
extension? number usually in round table situation,
a. demonstration process who meet for specific purpose is
b. educational process a. seminar
c. communication process b. conference
d. autocratic process c. small group discussion
d. meeting
43. It refers to the systematic procedure
employed by the extension worker in 52. This is a method of acting out roles from
getting vital information across his/her real life situation and understanding the
client-learners dynamics of these roles
a. method a. role playing
b. technique b. case study
c. device c. theater arts
d. instructional materials d. balagtasan

44. The art or skill of performance is referred 53. An activity where a group of people meet
to as together to discuss informally and
a. method deliberately on a topic of mutual concern is
b. technique _____
c. device a. brainstorming
d. instructional materials b. group discussion
c. panel discussion
45. This refers to a teaching aid or a tool used d. meeting
to facilitate instruction
a. method 54. It is one, if not the oldest, of all teaching
b. technique methods which emphasizes the principle of
c. device learning by doing
d. instructional material a. result demonstration
b. method demonstration
46. Which one of the following does not c. demonstration
contribute in the choice of extension d. hands on
teaching method
a. human factors 55. An informal type of group communication
b. objectives usually composed of no fewer than three
c. subject area and no more than six members
 66

a. panel discussion
b. small group discussion 64. This is the best method of extension
c. meeting teaching
d. conference a. demonstration
b. field trip
56. These methods of extension teaching are c. farm and home visits
particularly useful in making large group of d. a variety of methods
people aware of new ideas and practices or
alerting them to sudden emergencies 65. A method of extension teaching which
a. group shows after a period of time what
b. individual happened after a practice is adopted is
c. mass a. a method demonstration
d. media b. result demonstration
c. meetings
57. One of the fastest, most powerful and in d. field trip
many countries the only way of
communicating with the masses of rural 66. In this method, the step by step procedure
people who understand the language of of doing a thing is shown
transmission a. method demonstration
a. television b. result demonstration
b. radio c. meetings
c. poster d. field trip
d. leaflet
67. This method of extension teaching which
58. A sheet of paper or cardboard with an appeal to man’s desire to go places and
illustration and usually a few simple words see things
designed to catch the attention of the a. travel
passerby b. field day
a. poster c. field trip
b. wall newspaper d. farm and home visits
c. flyer
d. billboard 68. The new paradigm in agriculture is to look
at farming as a/an
59. This is well organized plan for bringing a. way of life
about widespread adoption of a particular b. family traditions to uphold
practice c. business
a. political campaign d. art
b. educational campaign
c. promotional campaign 69. The components of agricultural
d. campaign development that will facilitate the
attainment of its objectives are called
60. Extension is described as this process a. accelerators
because it starts where the people are and b. essentials
with what they have and gradually works c. fundamentals
up to what they ought to be d. requisites
a. educational
b. continuous 70. Which of the following does not describe
c. democratic process?
d. autocratic a. it does not have a beginning and an
end
61. This has to be planned continuously in b. it is unidirectional
order to know where we are, where we had c. it is continuing
been, and where we are going d. there are steps which are sequential
a. monitoring
b. documentation 71. A veterinarian’s intervention that is
c. evaluation directed towards sick animals is called
d. processing a. medical
b. experts
62. This changes if the people could feel and c. specialized
see the outcomes and efforts of the d. technical
extension workers
a. skill 72. Then one’s actions are not according to
b. knowledge one’s beliefs, the feeling that will be
c. culture experienced is called
d. perception a. affective resonance
b. cognitive dissonance
63. This is the gap between the present c. active-reactive resonance
situation and the desired situation d. experiential imbalance
a. problem
b. need 73. The type of agriculture where the
c. issue production of plants and animals is for the
d. concern use of the family and not for the market is
 67

a. sustainable agriculture 83. They are the most accurate of all graphs
b. extractive agriculture a. line graphs
c. modern agriculture b. bar graphs
d. traditional agriculture c. pie graphs
d. pictorial graphs
74. A development theory wherein there was
the creation of metropolis in the third 84. Which of the following is/are goals of AFMA
world countries to facilitate the transfer of a. poverty alleviation and social equity
economic surplus to the western countries b. global competitiveness
a. modernization theory c. food security
b. world system theory d. a, b and c
c. dependency theory
d. development theory 85. The stage of the adoption process wherein
the farmers would apply the technology on
75. The establishment of credit unions (Rural a large scale in preference to old methods
Bank of 1952) to provide production credit a. awareness
to the farmers place under its term of b. interest
President c. trial
a. Manuel L. Quezon d. adoption
b. Manuel B. Roxas
c. Elpidio Quirino 86. People participate in developing programs
d. Ramon Magsaysay and projects by providing the field but are
not involved in the experimentation or in
76. The comprehensive Agrarian Reform the process of learning
program was a program of President a. passive
a. Joseph Ejercito Estrada b. functional
b. Ferdinand E. Marcos c. interactive
c. Fidel V. Ramos d. cooperate
d. Corazon C. Aquino
87. Farmer’s knowledge level and attitude are
77. The Masagana 99 was a program of being influenced unknowingly
President a. coercion
a. Joseph Ejercito Estrada b. manipulation
b. Ferdinand E. Marcos c. exchange
c. Corazon C. Aquino d. providing service
d. Gloria Macapagal Arroyo
88. A form of communication used in rallies
78. He was the first president of the Republic and demonstration
of the Philippines who was granted a loan a. interpersonal
of P75M and during his term, agricultural b. intrapersonal
production increased substantially c. discussion
a. Manuel L. Quezon d. shared
b. Elpidio Quirino
c. Manuel Roxas 89. An extension approach wherein foreign
d. Ramon Magsaysay advice is provided to local staff
a. general
79. Among the five senses, the most important b. participatory
are c. project
a. touch and sight d. commodity
b. touch and smell
c. sight and hearing 90. The extension approach practiced by DA-
d. smell and sight ATI
a. participatory
80. The story that a picture tells refers to b. commodity
a. the introduction c. general
b. the title d. project
c. the content
d. the caption 91. The extension approach practiced by
PhilRice
81. They are realistic replicas of real things a. participatory
a. objects b. commodity
b. specimen c. general
c. maps d. project
d. models
92. If upstream research is the responsibility of
82. They are information supplied in tabular the national RDE network, down stream
form to show sequences and relationships research is the responsibility
a. charts a. Regional RDE
b. graphs b. Provincial RDE
c. statistical tables c. Municipal RDE
d. bard graphs d. Barangay RDE
 68

93. An action which leads to desirable outcome d. November 1, 1972

is likely to be repeated in similar
circumstances is the basic law of 102. The functions of the Department of
a. extension Agriculture was devolved to the local
b. communication government units through the enactment
c. learning of Republic Act No. 7160 on November 10,
d. motivation 1991 otherwise known as
a. Bell survey mission
94. It is an example of individual method of b. Land Reform Code
extension c. Local Government Code
a. farm and home visits d. National Integrated Pest Management
b. fairs/exhibits Program
c. campaign
d. field day 103. In the Philippines, agricultural extension
work started in the 19th century through
95. They are the first persons in the locality the induction of
who will adopt an innovation a. Communal irrigation system
a. laggards b. Cooperative organization for farmers
b. innovators c. “granja modelos” (model farms)
c. early adopters d. Sorjan Farming
d. majority early adopters
104. The primary functions of Extension
96. It is the total process by which an agencies in agriculture and rural
innovation spreads out among clients until development is to disseminate ____
a large number have adopted it a. resources
a. intervention b. infrastructure
b. adoption c. technologies
c. diffusion d. diseases
d. evaluation
105. The various government and non-
97. This extension approach is highly government research center/ agencies in
disciplined and patterned, with fixed the country are continuously generating
schedule of training of village extension _____ in livestock crops, fisheries, forestry
workers to farmers and natural resources
a. project extension approach a. technologies
b. participatory approach b. breeder seeds
c. farming systems development c. infrastructure
approach d. natural resources
d. training and visit approach
106. When a technology is ready for
98. Increasing private sector participation in dissemination it has passed specific _____
the agricultural extension activities to established by credible organization/groups
improve the delivery of service a. protocol/criteria
a. commercialization b. market
b. cost-recovery scheme c. content
c. d. implementation
d.
107. Technology can be defined as
99. The Philippines adopted the Training and a. body of tools and products
Visit System as a result of the appraisal of b. materials and machine
the country’s agricultural extension service c. technologies and processes
by the d. all of the above
a. World Bank mission
b. Bell Bank mission 108. The field of extension is described as a
c. ASEAN mission continuous process of _____ technologies
d. New Society Agricultural Task Force in order to satisfy human needs
a. disseminating
100. RA 7160 devolved the agricultural b. generating
extension service of the Development of c. selling
Agriculture to the d. analyzing
a. State colleges and universities
b. Local government units 109. Technologies can be categorized as
c. Non-government organizations that are a. product
into extension works b. process
d. All of the above c. service and information
d. all of the above
101. The Bureau of Agricultural Extension was
created by virtue of Republic Act No. 680 110. Rice drier, hybrid rice, tissue cultured
on macapuno, copra meal in swine rations,
a. August 8, 1963 and others are examples of _____
b. July 16, 1952 technologies
c. June 16, 1952 a. product
 69

b. process 119. Some progressive farmers conduct

c. information personal experiments, modify the
d. serving technologies and discover new process and
procedure, as such they are considered as
111. Integrated pest management, improved a. cooperator
forestry scheme, community based farming b. farmer-scientist
system, biological method of coconut oil c. para-professional
extraction are examples of _____ d. demonstrator
technologies
a. product 120. The effective extension worker designs his
b. process technology promotion strategy to the stage
c. information of diffusion or present thinking of the
d. serving _____
a. target audience
112. R and D center also generate _____ not b. co-extension worker
only technologies that are important to c. sponsoring agency
agriculture and rural development d. research agency
a. product
b. process 121. The first stage of diffusion is _____
c. information wherein the target users/clients merely
d. service know the technology or innovation
a. awareness
113. Technologies are ready for dissemination if b. interest
these have met the following criteria c. trial
a. general adaptability d. evaluation
b. economic profitability
c. social acceptability 122. This is the stage when the person is
d. all of the above attracted to the technology and seeks
more factual information
114. The purpose of piloting technologies are a. awareness
a. confirm and demonstrate the feasibility b. interest
of a technology c. trial
b. gauge end-users reaction to the d. evaluation
introduction of technology
c. identify potential problem related to 123. In this stage, the individual tries and
widen adoption experiments the new technology after
d. all of the above weighing the advantage and risks involved
a. awareness
115. The process of spreading the technologies b. interest
and information from one agency to c. trial
another, from one person to another d. evaluation
person, from one group to another group,
from generation to generation is called 124. Based on available information and actual
_____ process experiences/experiments on the
a. adoption technology, the individual assesses its
b. diffusion goodness over existing
c. learning practice/technology. This is the ____
d. teaching stage.
a. awareness
116. The ultimate objective of diffusion process b. interest
is users _____ of the technology c. trial
a. adoption d. evaluation
b. diffusion
c. learning 125. The stage refers to the large scale and
d. teaching continuous use of the technology,
characterized by feeling of satisfaction on
117. The process of technology _____ may the part of the user
requires different methods of extension in a. evaluation
order to become effective b. adoption
a. adoption c. interest
b. diffusion d. trial
c. learning
d. teaching 126. In the process of technology adoption,
sometimes the farmer/ person makes
118. This is the stage when a person utilizes a _____ on the technology to fit his
particular technology until such time that resources and needs
there are no other new technologies a. innovation
a. adoption b. revision
b. diffusion c. modification
c. learning d. all of the above
d. teaching
 70

127. The first group of people in this community 136. It is the procedural consisting of a series of
to bring in a new idea or practices are action that is organized, orderly,
called _____ systematic and well planned aimed at
a. laggards facilitating technology adoption
b. innovators a. style
c. early adoptors b. approach
d. early majority c. teaching
d. method
128. They are characterized by their
conservation, are older than average and 137. It is the step by step way of guiding
seldom take any risks prospective adopters in knowing, trying
a. laggards and adopting specific technology
b. innovators a. style
c. early adoption b. approach
d. early majority c. teaching
d. method
129. The technology can be described as _____
if the magnitude of expected benefits like 138. It is implementational, a particular trick,
increased net income, more employment, strategy or individual artistry of the
higher foreign exchange earning/savings extension worker
a. technically feasible a. approach
b. economically viable b. techniques
c. socially acceptable c. method
d. environmental d. none of the above

130. The technology helps maintain ecological 139. The participatory approach can be
balance, does not have harmful described as _____ process because every
environmental consequences, it is member of a group of target users must be
characterized to have involved in the whole process of the
a. technically feasible project/program
b. economically viable a. aristocratic
c. socially acceptable b. democratic
d. environmental soundness c. bureaucratic
d. modern
131. The technology has shown goodness or its
better than existing practice/product 140. This approach provides an opportunity for
a. technically sound project beneficiaries to be involved in
b. economically viable problem and need assessment up to
c. socially acceptable program implementation to evaluation
d. environmental a. mass approach
b. participatory approach
132. Extension workers assist target clients like c. commodity approach
farmers from _____ d. community approach
a. production
b. post-harvest and processing 141. This approach reaches a great number of
c. marketing people at the same time in a short period
d. all of the above of time
a. mass approach
133. The technology is categorized as b. participatory approach
component technology and _____ c. commodity approach
a. package of technology d. community approach
b. stage of technology
c. source of technology 142. This approach is basically used in creating
d. receiver of technology awareness and awakening interest among
target adoptors/users
134. Aside from the technology, this is the a. mass approach
primary concern of an extension agency to b. participatory approach
be used in disseminating a particular c. commodity approach
technology d. community approach
a. approaches and methods
b. sources 143. This approach is promoting a single
c. market technology
d. characteristics a. commodity approach
b. community approach
135. This embraces the entire spectrum of the c. single purpose approach
technology promotion process and provides d. mass approach
sound philosophy and orientation
a. style 144. If the agency is promoting a package of
b. approach technology, the concept is seed to shelf
c. teaching technology. This is called _____
d. method a. commodity approach
b. community approach
 71

c. single purpose approach d. all of the above

d. mass approach
154. Technically,a____is a written document
145. This approach covers the promotion of a covering specific period of time, that
technology that starts from production contains the organizations/ agency’s
storing, processing, and marketing vision, mission, plan goals, program ,
a. commodity approach thrust, approaches and strategies,
b. community approach policies, and rules, structures, manpower
c. single purpose approach and functioning requirements
d. mass approach a. Project
b. Plan
146. This approach is used by an agency c. Program
whether public or private to develop a d. Mission
community in all aspects such as
economic, social, cultural, political and 155. A plan has a time duration which can be
environmental describe as :
a. commodity approach a. Long-range plan
b. community approach b. Short –range plan
c. single purpose approach c. Medium-range
d. mass approach d. All of the above

147. Total community development is the 156. Almost all plans are guided by a deep
objective of the _____ approach seated beliefs or a general statement that
a. commodity approach guides the
b. community approach a. Objectives
c. single purpose approach b. Mission
d. mass approach c. Philosophy
d. Policies
148. In this approach, the target is categorized
by regions or ecological zones as lowland 157. To make the organizational plan
upland and coastal areas operational, it is broken down into___
a. area approach a. Programs
b. commodity b. Projects
c. mass approach c. Tasks
d. participatory approach d. Activities

149. This approach puts together the resources 158. The program is composed of realistic,
of different agencies, services of various doable and practical
agencies, share their resources, agree on a. Projects c. Activities
common goals and approaches b. Tasks d. Rules
a. integrated approach
b. commodity approach 159. Project/ programs in extension can be
c. mass approach characterized as :
d. participatory approach a. Influenced by political leaders
vision and mission
150. Project outcomes in the technology b. Intervention to solve peoples
promotion process are problems
a. outputs c. Influenced by the priorities of
b. effects assisting agencies
c. impacts d. All of the above
d. all of the above
160. The process composed of situation
151. The integrated approach believes on the analysis, program planning,
principle of _____ implementation, monitoring, and
a. complementation evaluation is called___
b. competition a. Adoption process
c. democracy b. Diffusion process
d. none of the above c. Program development process
d. Communication process
152. The integrated approach develops all areas
of concern in a community thereby it 161. The___is an activity of carefully and
results to _____ critically examining in the detail the
a. holistic development condition , resources, natural trends, and
b. agricultural development quality of an area with special focus on
c. area development problems and needs.
d. national development a. Program evaluation
b. Program planning
153. In selecting an approach in technology c. Situation analysis
promotion, major considerations are _____ d. Program implementation
a. objective and nature of technology
b. cost of techno promotion 162. The common document available in the
c. agency resources barangay that describes the geographic,
 72

economic, social, demographic , political , 171. All programs/projects must contribute to

institutional and historical is called___ the development of _____ and foremost
a. Barangay profile a. technology first
b. Barangay budget b. resources first
c. Barangay workplan c. people first
d. Barangay road d. environment first

163. Planning as a major component of all 172. Programs/projects must be _____, this
program development process is basically means continuity and viability of projects
a ___ for a long time and with minimum
a. Diffusion process destruction from the environment
b. Decision making process a. sustainable
c. Evaluation process b. adaptable
d. Learning process c. productive
d. acceptable
164. It is the stage of deciding in advance what
to do, when to do, how to do it, who will do 173. Resources in the community can be
it, why and how much is needed categorized as
a. Program planning a. human
b. Program evaluation b. physical and natural
c. Program monitoring c. institutional
d. Program evaluation d. all of the above

165. The output or product of an agency or 174. _____ is defined as the gap between the
organization planning process is called existing or current situation and the ideal
a. Technology plan or desired situation
b. Strategy plan a. extension
c. Feasibility plan b. problem
d. Development plan c. need
d. objective
166. The agency/ barangay development plan is
made operational and ready for 175. _____ needs are those needs that are
implementation by preparing a detailed known and readily identified and felt by the
____ with an approved budgetary people
requirements a. recognized
a. Workplan/ plan of work b. family
b. Proposal c. unrecognized
c. Monitoring plan d. community needs
d. Outline
176. Due to limitations in education,
167. Plan are made to ensure___ information, level of economic and social
a. Effectiveness and efficiency living, people have _____ needs which are
b. Productivity and profitability not known by them
c. Satisfaction a. recognized
d. All of the above b. family
c. unrecognized
168. ____ is a serious and systematic process of d. community needs
problem analysis , formulating objectives,
identifying solutions/ projects, choosing 177. When problems are identified, the next
strategies and estimating budgetary step usually done is to _____
requirements a. evaluate
a. Program evaluation b. prioritize
b. Program planning c. internet
c. Program monitoring d. list
d. Program implementation
178. Solutions to identified problems and needs
169. Plans are important because : can be in the form of
a. Serves as a basis for evaluating a. programs
accomplishments b. projects
b. Guide implementations c. tasks and activities
c. Bases for monitoring and d. all of the above
evaluation
d. All of the above 179. When top executives or high local
officials/officers of an organization or local
170. Programs and projects in extension are government units develop general plans,
based on existing _____ affecting a great this is called _____
number of people a. top level planning
a. local/political leaders b. low level planning/grassroot planning
b. problems and needs c. joint planning
c. climate d. team planning
d. religion
 73

180. This is the evolving planning strategy c. resource centered

wherein low level officials of the barangay d. process centered
or rural people and members of the
community participate in planning 189. Community based approach can be
a. top level planning described as
b. low level planning/grassroot planning a. people centered
c. joint planning b. community oriented
d. team planning c. resource-based
d. all of the above
181. In development planning the problem
analysis commonly used are: 190. Before any organizing can be done, an
a. macro web analysis initial _____ should first be undertaken
b. micro web analysis a. community study
c. problem tree analysis b. climatic study
d. all of the above c. feasibility study
d. political study
182. The focus of _____ is on one specific
core/major problem 191. To gain a first hand knowledge of the
a. macro web analysis community, it is important to stay and live
b. micro web analysis with the people. This is called _____
c. problem tree analysis a. evaluation
d. all of the above b. immersion/integration
c. conversion
183. This type of analysis is very exhaustive and d. communication
may focus on many core and major
problems in the community 192. The guiding principle in integration of the
a. macro web analysis community organizer is _____
b. micro web analysis a. rapport building among the people
c. problem tree analysis b. cooperation
d. all of the above c. unification
d. teamwork
184. _____ is the process of establishing a
viable and functional community 193. In the CO process, the best method for
organization that is created to contribute to data gathering is _____
sustainable development of rural a. integration
communities b. evaluation
a. community organizing c. cooperation
b. fraternity organizing d. unification
c. brigade organizing
d. all of the above 194. A community organizer maybe internal or
_____ to the community
185. _____ is a problem solving approach a. external
whereby the community is empowered to b. professional
identify their own problems, harness local c. local official
resources and take action collectively d. volunteer worker
a. community organizing
b. fraternity organizing 195. In community organizing _____ analysis, is
c. brigade organizing an activity that helps raise the level of
d. all of the above consciousness of the people and the
organizer
186. A _____ is a group of people living in a a. social
specific geographic area, sharing common b. economic
resources, norms, beliefs and values c. cultural
a. fraternity d. educational
b. club
c. community 196. People empowerment involves a learning
d. agency process of the rural people developing their
_____
187. A viable and functional organization serves a. capacity to identify issues, problems
a. to elicit people participation and needs
b. venue to collectively plan, implement b. decide on solutions to their problems
and evaluate projects c. act and manages their own affairs
c. to mobilize and harness human, d. all of the above
material and financial resources to
achieve goals 197. Every barangay has Ira wherein 20%
d. all of the above development fund is allocated. IRA means
a. Internal Rural Appraisal
188. CO is a process that revolves around the b. Internal Revenue Allotment
lives, experiences and aspirations of the c. Internal Rapid Appraisal
people. It is described to be _____ d. None of the above
a. people centered
b. environment centered 198. LGU means _____
 74

a. Local Government Units

b. Lead Government Unit
c. Local Government Union
d. None of the above

199. In extension and rural development, the

agencies or people external to the
community can help but the _____ must
do their jobs
a. insiders/people
b. teachers
c. researchers
d. president

200. This approach refers to different groups of

people with different specialization working
together in one project
a. mass approach
b. interdisciplinary approach
c. commodity
d. area approach