Anatomy and Physiology (LEC) composed of two or more tissue types that
SESSION 1 together perform one or more common functions.
1. D - Anatomy is defined as the study of the
structures of the body. Option D focuses on how
the nerve conduction occurs, which refers to the
physiology.
2. D - Most negative feedback mechanisms have three
components in control system: (1) A receptor
monitors the value of variables such as body
temperature, by detecting stimuli; (2) a control
center, such as part of the brain, determines the set
point for the variable and receives input from the
receptor about the variable; and (3) an effector,
such as sweat glands, can change the value of the
variable when directed by the control center. A
changed variable is a stimulus because it initiates a
homeostatic mechanism.
3. B - Near the end of pregnancy, the uterus is
stretched by the baby’s large size. This stretching,
especially around the opening of the uterus,
stimulates contractions of the uterine muscles.
These contractions push the baby against the
opening, stretching it further. This stimulates
additional contractions, which result in additional
stretching.
4. A - There are 2 basic approaches to study anatomy.
Systemic anatomy is the study of the body by
systems, such as cardiovascular. It is the approach
taken in textbooks. Regional anatomy is the study
of the organization of the body by areas, such as the
abdomen. It is the approach taken in medical and
dental schools
5. C - Studying the physiology is vital due to the
following reasons: ✔ in order to recognize
structures as dynamic ✔ to understand and
predict the body’s responses to stimuli ✔ to
understand how the body maintains internal
conditions within a narrow range of values in the
presence of continually changing internal and
external stimuli
6. D - Development usually involves growth, but it also
involves differentiation.
7. B - All of the systems act in relation to the
occurrence of any change. Most homeostatic
mechanisms are governed by nervous and
endocrine systems.
8. A - If the body temperature rises, sweat glands
produce sweat and the body cools.
Thermoreceptors in the skin and hypothalamus
detect the increase in temperature. In turn, the
hypothalamus stimulates blood vessels in the skin
to relax which sends more blood to the body’s
surface for radiation of heat away from the body.
Once body temperature returns to normal, the
control center signals the sweat glands to reduce
sweat production and the blood vessels constrict to
their normal diameter.
9. C - If the fluid surrounding the cells deviates from
homeostasis, the cells do not function normally and
may even die. Disease disrupts homeostasis and
sometimes results in death.
10. A - The many tissues that make up the body are
classified into four primary types: epithelial,
connective, muscle, and nervous. An organ is
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 2
1. C - Golgi apparatus is located inside the cytoplasm,
and not on the cell surface.
2. B - The nucleoli are diffuse bodies with no
surrounding membrane that are found within the
nucleus. There is usually one to several nucleoli
within the nucleus. The subunits of ribosomes are
formed within a nucleolus. Proteins produced in
cytoplasm move through the nucleolus are joined
to ribosomal ribonucleic acid (rRNA) to form large
and small ribosomal units.
3. B - Golgi apparatus collects, modifies, packages,
and distributes proteins and lipids manufactured
by the endoplasmic reticulum.
4. B - Mitochondria are the major sites of adenosine
triphosphate (ATP) production within cells. They
carry out aerobic respiration, a series of chemical
reactions that require O2 to break down food
molecules to ATP. ATP is the main energy source
for most chemical reactions within the cells, and
cells with a large energy requirement have more
mitochondria than cells that require less energy.
Muscle cells require large numbers of ATP for
contraction.
5. D - Extracellular substances, also known as
intercellular substances, are defined as materials
outside the cell membrane.
6. A - Fluid-Mosaic Model presents the arrangement
of molecules in the cell membrane. The protein
molecules float among the phospholipid molecules
and perform important cellular functions. The
phospholipids form a double layer in the plasma
membrane: polar heads which are hydrophilic and
nonpolar tails which are hydrophobic. The
membrane proteins function as membrane
channels, carrier molecules, receptor molecules,
enzymes, or structural supports in membranes.
7. A - Carbon dioxide is an example of molecules that
are lipid-soluble and can pass easily through the
phospholipid bilayer.
8. A - Cell membranes are selectively permeable,
meaning that they allow some substances, but not
others, to pass into or out of the cells.
9. ABCD - All of these statements are true of cell
membranes.
10. ACD - Intracellular material has a different
composition than extracellular material, and the
cell’s survival depends on maintaining the
difference. All of the choices are plausible, except
for the Option B. Cells would be isotonic, not
hypertonic, to their environment since no changes
within the cell membrane have occurred.
 Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 3
1. E - Knowledge of tissue structure and function is
important in understanding how individual cells
are organized to form organs, organ systems, and
the complete organisms. The structure of each
tissue type is related to its function, and the
structure of the tissues in an organ is related to the
organ’s function. Many tissue abnormalities result
from changes in tissues that can be identified by
microscopic examination.
2. A - The four basic tissue types are epithelial,
connective, muscle, and nervous. Glandular is a
single cell or multicellular structure that secretes
substances into the blood, into a cavity, or onto a
surface.
3. BCD - All statements are true to epithelial tissues
except options A and E. Epithelial tissue is
nonvascular and consists almost entirely of cells
with very little extracellular material between
them thereby forming a barrier against entry into
the body.
4. D - Basement membrane is a specialized type of
extracellular material secreted by epithelial and
connective tissue cells. This helps attach the
epithelial cells to the underlying tissues. It plays an
important role in supporting and guiding cell
migration during tissue repair. This is typically
porous, which allows substances to move to and
from the epithelial tissue above it.
5. C - Stratified squamous epithelium forms a thick
epithelium because it consists of several layers of
cells. The deepest cells are cuboidal or columnar
6. E - All the properties stated are in accordance with
the characteristics and functions of epithelial
tissue.
7. D - Transitional Epithelium is a special type of
stratified epithelium that can be greatly stretched.
The cells change to a low cuboidal or squamous
shape, and the number of cell layers decreases
when stretched. Best example of this type is the
urinary bladder
8. B - Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is a single
layer of cells; some are tall and thin and reach the
free surface, and others do not; and appear
stratified.
9. ABE - All of these statements are true except
options C and D. Transitional epithelium is a special
type of stratified epithelium. When stretched, the
number of cell layers decreases.
10. B - Some substances easily pass through thin layers
of cells, for example, gas exchange. This pertains to
simple squamous epithelium, a single layer of thin,
flat cells.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 4
1. TRUE - The skin, specifically the epidermis, is made
up of stratified squamous epithelium. Epithelial
tissues have the ability to regenerate and replace
damaged cells with new cells. Stem cells
continuously divide and produce new cells to
replace the dead cells.
2. FALSE - The skin, specifically the epidermis, is
made up of stratified squamous epithelium. This is
keratinized and contains a protein called keratin.
This forms a barrier that prevents toxic chemicals
from entering the body and reduces water loss.
3. FALSE - Skin is made up of two major tissue layers:
epidermis and dermis. The skin rests on
hypodermis which is not a part of it but it does
connect the skin to underlying muscle or bone.
4. TRUE - On average, the dermis is 10 to 20 times
thicker than the epidermis.
5. FALSE - The process of keratinization involves the
strata of epidermis, not dermis.
6. TRUE - All the cells in the body undergo the cell
division in the process of mitosis, except the sex
cells. The gametes divide through the process of
meiosis.
7. FALSE - Keratin is a type of protein that makes the
cells more rigid and durable.
8. FALSE - The new cells are produced in the deepest
layer of the skin, which consists of cuboidal or
columnar cells.
9. TRUE - The most superficial layer of the skin is
composed of dead stratified squamous epithelium
with keratin. This keratin provides a structural
strength and waterproofing ability.
10. TRUE - Anatomically, the skin is the largest organ
of the body. In human organisms, an organ is
primarily composed of different tissues; and that
qualifies the skin.
 Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 5
1. ACD - All of the stated characteristics are correct,
except options B. Bone remodeling continues
throughout the lifespan of the individual.
2. C - The major functions of the skeletal system are
major support for the body, protection of internal
organs, movement between bones, storage of
minerals, and blood cell production. The transport
of materials via a fluid matrix is under the
circulatory system of the body.
3. E - All of the following options are correct in
maintaining the homeostasis.
4. D - The extracellular matrix of bone contains
collagen and minerals and has a high proportion of
calcium phosphate crystals (hydroxyapatite). The
proteoglycans are included in the matrix of
cartilage.
5. D - Bones are classified as a solid matrix of
supporting connective tissue.
6. A - Tendons and ligaments contain large amounts
of collagen fibers, making these structures very
tough, like ropes & cables.
7. C - Growth in the length of a bone, which is the
major source of increased height in an individual,
occurs in the epiphyseal plate.
8. B - Most of the outer surface of bone is covered by
dense connective tissue called periosteum, which
consists of two layers and contains blood vessels
and nerves
9. AB - A long bone has a medullary cavity in the
diaphysis, has red marrow and yellow marrow in
its cavities, has endosteum lining the medullary
cavity, and has an epiphysis at each end.
10. B - Calcium homeostasis is maintained by
parathyroid hormone (PTH) and calcitonin. Due to
the decreased calcium caused by her diet, the PTH
and vitamin D are secreted to the blood in order to
increase the calcium levels. The PTH works through
three simultaneous mechanisms, one of which is
stimulating the osteoclasts to break down bone.
This further weakens the bone leading to bone
fractures.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 6
1. D - An adult skeleton has sacral bones and coccyx
bones that are fused to be a single count
2. D - Prevention measures include exercise and
calcium & vitamin D supplements.
3. C - Joints are classified structurally as fibrous,
cartilaginous, or synovial, according to the major
connective tissue type that binds the bones
together and whether a fluid-filled joint capsule is
present. Joints can also be classified in functional
categories according to their degree of motion as
synarthroses, amphiarthrosis, and diarthroses.
4. D - All of the following happen as you age, except
for Option D. The likelihood of bone fractures is
increased due to decreased collagen production
and loss of bone density
5. C - Opposition is the movement of thumb to other
digits, bringing each other across the palm of hand.
Pronation is the rotation of the forearm with palms
face down. Eversion is turning the foot so that the
plantar surface (bottom of foot) faces laterally.
Circumduction is when the arms move so that it
traces a cone where the shoulder joint is at the
cone’s apex. Excursion is movement of a structure
to one side, as in moving the mandible from side
to side.
6. A - Hinge joints permit movement in one plane
only. Ball-and-socket joints allow a wide range of
movement in almost any direction. Ellipsoidal
joints limit its range of movement nearly to that of
a hinge motion, but in two planes. Pivot joints
restrict movement to rotation around a single axis.
Saddle joints move in two planes.
7. D - A prominence can be seen on each side of the
ankle: lateral malleolus of the fibula (outside of
ankle) and medial malleolus of the tibia.
8. A - All are paired bones, except the sphenoid bone
which can be seen immediately anterior to the
temporal bone. Although it appears to be two
small, paired bones on the sides of the skull, it is
actually a single bone that extends completely
across the skull.
9. B - Collectively, the vertebral foramina of all the
vertebrae in the spine form the vertebral canal
that encloses and protects the spinal cord from
injury.
10. B - The large foramen magnum, through which the
spinal cord joins the brain, is located in the
posterior fossa.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 7
1. C - The sarcomere is the basic structural and
functional unit of a skeletal muscle because it is the
smallest portion of a skeletal muscle capable of
contracting.
2. C - All of these are characteristics of the
neurotransmitter Acetylcholine (ACh), except
Option C. The binding of ACh to the ACh receptors
occurs on the muscle cell membrane (sarcolemma
or the postsynaptic membrane).
3. A - The M line consists of fine protein filaments
that anchor the myosin myofilaments in place.
4. AD - Muscle fibers are highly specialized,
electrically excitable cells that have a relatively
high metabolic rate, depend upon large amounts
of O2 (CO2 not included), contain large numbers of
mitochondria, & preferentially use aerobic
respiration.
5. B - Actin myofilaments are attached to Z lines at
one end and form the I band, but the overlapping
occurs at the both ends of the A band. Myosin
myofilament resembles bundles of minute golf
clubs. Epimysium is a connective tissue sheath that
surrounds the entire skeletal muscle.
6. B - All of the statements are correct in the process
of ion channels and action potential, except Option
B. The concentration of Na+ is higher outside the
cell than inside.
7. A - Just remember the mnemonic PISO in resting
membrane potential: Potassium Inside, Sodium
 Outside. A change in electrical charge may cause
the movement of ions.
8. B - The calcium ions in skeletal muscle contraction
and relaxation are released from the sarcoplasmic
reticulum by active transport and bind to troponin
of actin myofilaments. These ions move the
tropomyosin and expose the myosin attachment
sites. If not used, they are returned to the
sarcoplasmic reticulum by active transport for
storage.
9. A - All of the following are characteristics of
aerobic respiration, except Option A. This
respiration requires the use of oxygen. On the
other hand, anaerobic respiration does not require
the use of oxygen.
10. D - In isometric contraction, the amount of tension
increases during contraction, but the length of the
muscle does not change. Pushing a hard surface
will not change the length of the muscles used, but
will increase the tension it will exert.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 8
1. E - The gluteus maximus originated in the posterior
surface of ilium, sacrum, and coccyx and its
insertion are the gluteal tuberosity of femur and
iliotibial tract.
2. E - The muscles responsible for closing the jaw are
temporalis, masseter, lateral pterygoid, and
medial pterygoid.
3. D - All of the muscles stated are involved in the
movement of hands and/or fingers, except option
D. Tensor fasciae latae is one of the muscles
involved in moving the thigh.
4. ABCE - All the muscles given compress the
abdomen, except option D. Latissimus dorsi is
responsible for shoulder extension and adduction
& medially rotation of the arm.
5. D - The buccinators flattens the cheeks as in
whistling or blowing trumpet and is therefore
sometimes called the trumpeter’s muscle.
6. C - Members of a group of muscles working
together to produce a movement is called
synergists. Among the group of synergists, if one
muscle plays the major role in accomplishing the
desired movement, it is called the prime mover.
7. A - Orbicularis oris is located around the mouth
that closes and purses the lips, as of that ‘kissing’.
Option B pertains to depressor anguli oris. Option
C is for occipitofrontalis. Option D is for orbicularis
oculi. The muscles responsible for closing the jaw
are temporalis, masseter, lateral pterygoid, and
medial pterygoid.
8. E - Hip flexion involves the muscle coordination of
iliopsoas, tensor fasciae latae, and rectus femoris.
Options B, C, and D are involved in knee extension.
Biceps femoris is responsible for knee flexion and
hip extension.
9. A - The action of a single muscle or group of
muscles (agonist) is opposed by that of another
muscle or group of muscles (antagonist). For
example, the biceps brachii flexes the elbow, and
the triceps brachii extends the elbow.
10. BCDE - Muscles are named according to 7
characteristics: location, size, shape, orientation of
fascicles, origin and insertion, number of heads,
and function.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 9
1. A - The major functions of the nervous system are
receiving sensory inputs, integrating information,
controlling muscles and glands, maintaining
homeostasis, and establishing and maintaining
mental activity.
2. B - Leak channels are always open. Options A, C, D,
and E are characteristics of gated channels.
3. D - All of the following are true to the functions of
K+ leak channels, except option D. These channels
are responsible for the resting membrane
potential and the repolarization phase of the
action potential.
4. B - Following neurotransmitter activation of
chemically gated channels, the following events
occur: Na+ channels open for a brief time
generating a local current, the cell may reach
threshold, the inside of the membrane becomes
more positive, and a local potential is generated.
5. B - Continuous conduction of the action potential
occurs primarily in unmyelinated axons and slower
than saltatory conduction. Options A, C, and E are
characteristics of the latter.
6. C - All of the statements are correct about
summation, except Option C. Temporal
summation occurs when local potential overlap in
time.
7. A - Dendrites are extensions of the neuron cell
body that receive stimulus from other neurons or
sensory receptors. Cell body contains a nucleus
and processes stimulus. Axons are single long
processes that transmit stimulus to a gland,
muscle, organ, or other neuron. Myelin Sheaths
are fatty, protective wrapping around axons of
some neurons and serve as an excellent insulator
that prevents almost all ion movements across cell
membranes.
8. C - Nodes of Ranvier are gaps in the myelin sheath
where the ion movement occurs & action potential
develops. Microglia and ependymal cells are glial
cells. Nerve tracts form the white matter of the
CNS. Ganglia are clusters of neuron cell bodies in
PNS.
9. CD - All of the following are true to the question,
except Options A and B. The neurotransmitters
released from the presynaptic terminal bind to
receptors on the postsynaptic membrane and may
inhibit or stimulate an action potential in the
postsynaptic membrane depending on the
receptors.
10. C - Five basic components of the reflex arc are
sensory receptor, sensory neuron, interneurons,
motor neuron, & effector organs.
 Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 10
1. E - All are correct effects of aging on the nervous
system, except option E. The neuron plasma
membranes become less flexible therefore
decreasing the ability of the neurons to function.
2. ABC - All are characteristics of the enteric nervous
system, except option D. The enteric nervous
system stimulates glands to secrete substances
into the digestive tract.
3. B - Epidural anesthesia of the spinal nerves is
injected to the epidural space of the vertebral
canal which is between the dura mater and the
vertebrae.
4. C - The sympathetic division of the ANS has cell
bodies of preganglionic neurons in the lateral horn
of spinal cord gray matter from the T1 to L2
segments. On the other hand, the parasympathetic
division is located either within the brainstem
nuclei of cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X or within the
lateral part of the central gray matter of spinal cord
in the regions that give rise to spinal nerves S2
through S4.
5. E - The nerves, receptors, ganglia, and synapses
outside the CNS are structures in neural pathways
responsible for the electrical impulses to be passed
in sensory or afferent division. Any structures
outside the CNS are considered under the
peripheral nervous system (PNS).
6. B - The efferent division is subdivided into somatic
nervous system and autonomic nervous system.
The latter innervates skeletal muscle which is
mostly under voluntary control; while the former
innervates cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and
glands which is mostly under involuntary control.
7. B - Corpus callosum is the largest commissure with
a broad band of nerve tracts at the base of
longitudinal fissure. If it is severed, the sensory
information received by one hemisphere is shared
with the other hemisphere. Pepper could find the
object with her left hand (control of right
hemisphere) but could not say what it was
(function of Broca area in left hemisphere).
8. A - All of the statements are characteristics of a
parasympathetic nervous system, except option A.
The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in
vegetative activities, such as digestion, urination,
and defecation.
9. A - The sympathetic nervous system has
postganglionic cell bodies in chain ganglia or
collateral ganglia. The preganglionic neurons are
located in T1 to L2. Most postganglionic neurons
secrete norepinephrine. When stimulated, it
would increase the heart rate and the respiration
rate.
10. C - The mammillary bodies form externally visible
swellings on the posterior portion of
hypothalamus which are involved in production of
strong reflexive physical and emotional responses
to odors and memories.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 11
1. C - Merkel disk is small, superficial nerve endings;
detects light touch and superficial pressure. Hair
follicle receptors detect light touch but not
discriminative. Meissner corpuscle is deep to
epidermis; for fine & discriminative touch and very
specific in localizing tactile sensations. Ruffini
corpuscle is a deeper tactile receptor; detects
continuous pressure in skin. Pacinian corpuscle is
the deepest receptors associated with tendons &
joints; detect deep pressure, vibration, and
position.
2. D – The auricle opens into an external auditory
canal that leads to tympanic membrane. It is the
fleshy part of the external ear.
3. A - The auditory ossicles include the malleus, incus,
and stapes. They are located in the middle ear and
increase the vibrations from the tympanic
membrane. They transmit vibrations from the
tympanic membrane to the oval window
4. C - The interior of the eyeball has chambers that
are filled with aqueous humor, a watery fluid, and
with vitreous humor, a transparent, jellylike
substance.
5. A - The receptors for the special senses are more
specialized in structure and are localized to specific
parts of the body, which are found primarily in the
head (nose, tongue, eyes, and ears).
6. A - The maculae are located in the vestibule which
has two chambers: the saccule and utricle
7. A - The wall of the eyeball has 3 layers: fibrous
tunic – outer layer, vascular tunic – middle layer,
and nervous tunic – inner layer
8. D - If looking directly at an object, it places the
image on the fovea centralis. Since it is a night
combat, areas of the retina that contain many rods
are essential. Slightly looking to one side of the
object will divert the image to fovea centralis
which has very few rod cells, which are necessary
for vision in dim light.
9. C - All of the statements are correct, except option
C. Depth perception requires both eyes and occurs
where the two visual fields overlap, known as
binocular vision.
10. B - Convex lenses allow the passing of light to
converge. These light rays will then cross at the
focal point and are said to be focused and
accommodated.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 12
1. C - The neurotransmitters are secreted by neurons
to activate another neuron, muscle cell or
glandular cell. They serve as intercellular chemical
signals, secreted by nerve cells and are important
in functions of the nervous system.
2. C - All of the following statements are correct,
except option C. Hormones alter cellular
properties and functions by changing the rate of
enzyme breakdown.
3. B - Lipid-soluble hormones bind to intracellular
receptors in the target cell. Options A, C, and D are
all characteristics of water-soluble hormones.
4. E - In hormone action, all of the aforementioned
statements are true.
5. BCD - All of the statements are correct about
intracellular receptors, except option A. These
receptors are located in the cytoplasm or nucleus
of the cell.
6. B - All of the following can be done by membrane-
bound receptors, except option B. Membrane-
bound receptors can activate G proteins.
7. C - These activations from G proteins and
intracellular mediators elicit second messengers
that activate the cellular response referred to as
second-messenger systems which act rapidly
because they act on already existing enzymes.
8. C - Hypothalamus controls the pituitary gland in
two ways: hormonal control and direct
innervation.
9. A - Hormones secreted are controlled by action
potentials carried by axons that pass from the
hypothalamus, referred to as direct innervation.
10. B - Negative Feedback: prevents further hormone
secretion once a set point is achieved.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 13
1. C - Parafollicular cells or C cells are scattered
throughout loose connective tissue between
thyroid follicles. Thyroglobulin is a protein to which
thyroid hormones are attached.
2. B - Gonadotropins are secreted by anterior
pituitary gland. These hormones regulate growth,
development and function of the ovaries and
testes and include LH and FSH. A single releasing
hormone from the hypothalamus increases the
secretion of these hormones. Antidiuretic
hormones directly promote water retention by the
kidneys.
3. C - All characteristics are correct regarding growth
hormone, except option C. The deficiency in an
adult can produce pituitary dwarfism.
4. B - ADH is sometimes called vasopressin and can
cause blood vessels to constrict when present in
the blood in large amounts. Option C pertains to
oxytocin. Option D is for melanocyte-stimulating
hormone (MSH).
5. C - Calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid glands,
specifically the C cells. This hormone decreases the
rate of calcium release from bone & secreted when
blood Ca2+ levels drop too high. The PTH increases
the amount of Ca2+ absorbed by the intestine.
6. A - Diabetes mellitus is characterized by increased
appetite, thirst, low energy level, and increased
urine output.
7. E - Glucagon regulates blood glucose levels by
increasing the breakdown of glycogen into
glucose. Epinephrine activates the sympathetic
nervous system. Insulin is secreted in response to
elevated levels of glucose and amino acids.
Glucocorticoids reduce inflammation and break
down proteins and lipids, making them available as
energy sources to other tissues. Growth hormone
increases blood glucose levels & increases lipid
breakdown, but slows protein breakdown.
8. D - All of the statements are correct regarding
aldosterone secretion, except option D.
Aldosterone promotes Na+ and water retention,
while excreting potassium.
9. BCD - All are correct characteristics of thymus
gland, except option A. The thymus gland becomes
smaller with increasing age.
10. B - Oversecretion of MSH causes the skin to
darken.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 14
1. E - Blood is a type of connective tissue; it consists
of a liquid matrix (plasma) containing cells & cell
fragments (formed elements). It makes up about
8% of total body weight and the total blood volume
is about 4-5 L in average adult female & 5-6 L in
average adult male. It transports oxygen to the
cells.
2. E - All of the options given are true to plasma
proteins.
3. C - Hematopoiesis is the process of blood cell
formation that happens all through life.
4. D - RBCs are biconcave disks that lose their nucleus
in development. They do not divide and live for
about 120 days. They contain large quantities of
hemoglobin.
5. C - Erythropoietin stimulates red bone marrow to
produce more red blood cells. It is produced in the
kidneys when low blood oxygen levels occur. It
does not have a cofactor to be released.
6. D - Polycythemia Vera is a type of erythrocytosis
with no known cause. The signs include low
erythropoietin levels & enlarged spleen, increased
blood viscosity and blood volume resulting in
clogging of capillaries and hypertension.
7. D - Aspirin is known to have an anticoagulation
effect which prevents the clotting factors from
forming clots.
8. ABC - All of the statements are correct regarding
the cause of abnormal prothrombin time, except
option D. Abnormal prothrombin time is
associated with decreased levels of von
Willebrand's factor.
9. AC - All are correct statements about antigen-
antibody interactions, except options B and C.
Antibodies are proteins in plasma. Blood groups
are named for the antigens normally present in
that blood.
10. E - Both the lymphocytes and eosinophils are
involved in inflammatory responses in response
with allergies and asthma.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 15
1. C - All of the following are functions of the heart,
except option C. The generation of the formed
elements is done by hemocytoblasts are stem cells.
2. B - The heart is located in the thoracic cavity
between the two pleural cavities called the
mediastinum. It lies obliquely in mediastinum
where the apex is directed to the left
(approximately 2/3 of its mass lies to the left
 midline of sternum) and deep to the left 5th
intercostal space, midclavicular line and the base is
located deep to the sternum & extends to level of
2nd intercostal space.
3. B - Coronary arteries supply oxygenated blood to
the wall of the heart. Pulmonary veins carry
oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left
atrium. Coronary sinus drains most of the blood
from the heart and flows into the right atrium.
Pulmonary trunk divides into right & left
pulmonary arteries that carry deoxygenated blood
from the right ventricle to the lungs. Vena cava are
great vessels that drain deoxygenated blood from
the upper and lower body to enter the right
atrium.
4. ABD - All of the following are characteristics of
pericardium or pericardial sac, except option C. It
has a tough fibrous connective tissue outer layer
called the fibrous pericardium.
5. A - Options B, C, D, and E are referring to the
functions of heart valves: option B for tricuspid
valve, option C for bicuspid valve, option D for
pulmonary SL valve, and option E for aortic SL
valve.
6. A - Tricuspid valve is an AV valve that has 3 cusps
between the right atrium & right ventricle.
7. C - All blood vessels stated in the options carry
blood to the heart, except option C. The pulmonary
trunk divides into right & left pulmonary arteries
that carry deoxygenated blood from the right
ventricle to the lungs.
8. B - Blood flows from superior & inferior vena cava
right atrium tricuspid valve right ventricle
pulmonary SL valve pulmonary trunk pulmonary
arteries lungs pulmonary veins left atrium bicuspid
valve left ventricle aortic SL valve aorta systemic
vessels for circulation.
9. E - All are correct functional characteristics of the
heart chambers, except option E. During
ventricular systole, the atrioventricular valves
close and SL valves open. During ventricular
diastole, the SL valves close & AV valves are open.
10. B - The order for the flow of blood entering the
heart from the body and leaving for pulmonary
circulation will start from superior & inferior vena
cava right atrium tricuspid valve right ventricle
pulmonary SL valve pulmonary artery.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 16
1. D - All of the following are functions of peripheral
circulation, except option D. The heart is pumping
blood into arteries.
2. E - The systemic vessels are characterized by all the
stated options
3. A - Elastic Arteries are the largest diameter arteries
& have thickest walls. They are composed of a
greater portion of elastic tissue & smaller portion
of smooth muscle. Examples of these arteries are
aorta & pulmonary trunk.
4. BCD - All of the following are able to actively dilate
and constrict, except option A. The elastic recoil of
elastic arteries prevents blood pressure from
falling rapidly & maintains blood flow while
ventricles are relaxed
5. E - Valves are found more often in the leg veins
than in the arm veins and allow blood to flow only
toward the heart. They are found in veins greater
than 2mm in diameter and consist of folds in the
tunica intima.
6. B - Capillary walls consist of endothelium which is
a layer of simple epithelium surrounded by
delicate loose connective tissue. They serve as a
location of gas and nutrient exchange.
7. C - Brachiocephalic Artery – extends a short
distance & then branches at the level of clavicle to
form: ▪ Right Common Carotid Artery – transports
blood to right side of head & neck ▪ Right
Subclavian Artery – transports blood to right upper
limb
8. E - Parietal Arteries – supply the thoracic walls ▪
Posterior Intercostal Arteries – extend between
ribs, supply the intercostal muscles, vertebrae,
spinal cord, & deep muscles of back ▪ Superior
Phrenic Arteries – supply the diaphragm
9. E - Hepatic portal system is a vascular system that
begins & ends with capillary in the viscera & ends
with capillaries in liver.
10. B - Brachial artery branches off from axillary
arteries where the blood pressure measurements
are taken.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 17
1. B - The lymphatic system is vital in fluid balance.
The extra 3 L of fluid enters the lymphatic
capillaries and becomes lymph. It passes through
the lymphatic vessels to return to the blood.
2. E - Lymphatic nodes contain lymphatic nodules are
dense aggregations of tissue formed by
lymphocytes & other cells that contain rapidly
dividing lymphocytes called germinal centers.
3. D - Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)
Molecules are glycoproteins that have binding
sites specific for certain antigens. Antigens are
substances that stimulate adaptive responses.
Antibodies bind to antigen. Antigen receptors are
located in the surfaces of B cells and T cells.
4. B - Natural Killer (NK) Cells are nonspecific
lymphocytes that recognize classes of cells such as
tumor cells or virus infected cells which kill target
cells by releasing chemicals that damage cell
membranes & cause cell lysis. Macrophages are
large monocytes that leave blood & enter tissues
and are responsible for most phagocytic activity in
late stages of infection. Eosinophils participate in
inflammation associated with allergies & asthma.
Basophils are motile WBC that can leave blood &
enter infected tissues that produce inflammatory
responses to fight against pathogens.
5. ADE - All are events that occur during the
inflammation, except options B and C. Due to the
increased vascular permeability, the blood flow is
increased to the area.
6. C - In cell-mediated immunity, here’s the proper
order of events: antigen presented to T
lymphocyte activation of T lymphocytes cloning of
cytotoxic T cells and memory T cells cytotoxic T
cells attack target cells.
7. A - A IgA is found in saliva and tears. IgG can cross
the placenta. IgM is first to challenge the antigen
& transfusion reactions. IgD is an antigen-binding
receptor on B cells. IgE binds to mast cells &
basophils to stimulate inflammatory response.
8. C - Active natural immunity occurs when an
individual develops a disease. Option A & E is for
passive natural immunity. Option B is for passive
artificial immunity. Option D is for active artificial.
9. C - Cytotoxic T cells are responsible for immediate
immune response by binding to antigen on
surfaces of these cells (viral antigen, tumor
antigen, & foreign antigen) & kill them.
10. AD - The signs associated with local inflammation
are pain, heat, swelling, redness, and loss of
function.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 18
1. A - Alveoli is tiny air sacs of lungs which allow for
rapid gaseous exchange. It is located at the very
end of the conducting zone and beginning of the
respiratory zone in the respiratory system.
2. A - Trachea is also known as windpipe, a
cartilaginous tube that connects the pharynx and
larynx to lungs. It filters the air
3. C - Hyaline cartilage is a glass like but translucent
cartilage. It contains no nerves or blood vessels
and is simple in structure. It supports trachea.
4. B - In the process of inspiration, the alveolar
volume is increased resulting in decreased alveolar
pressure for the air to flow in. On the contrary,
during expiration, the alveolar pressure increases
caused by decreased alveolar volume, and air
flows out of the alveoli.
5. C - During inhalation, the air passes through the
respiratory tract from nostrils, nasal passages,
pharynx, glottis, larynx, trachea, bronchi,
bronchioles (terminal bronchioles to respiratory
bronchioles), alveoli (alveolar ducts), to lung
capillaries (alveolus).
6. A - Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air a
person can expel from the lungs after a maximum
inhalation. A person’s vital capacity can be
measured by a wet or regular spirometer.
7. A - Pulmonary ventilation is commonly referred to
as breathing. Air flows because of the pressure
difference between the atmosphere and the gases
inside the lungs. Costal muscles and diaphragm
help pulmonary ventilation.
8. D - During expiration in quiet breathing, a passive
process, the diaphragm and external intercostal
muscles relax. This requires less muscle
contractions and the thorax recoils.
9. A - Vital capacity of the lung is the sum of tidal
volume, inspiratory reserve and expiratory reserve
volume. This is the maximum volume of air that a
person can expel from the respiratory tract after a
maximum inspiration (about 4,600mL).
10. A - The average lung capacity of an adult human is
about 6L of air. The tidal volume is the volume of
air that is inhaled or exhaled in a single breath. It is
about 5,800mL.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 19
1. D - The pressure exerted by specific gas in a
mixture of gases is known as partial pressure. The
movement of molecules diffuse down their
pressure gradient: from areas of higher partial
pressure to areas of lower partial pressure.
2. B - The molecules diffuse down their pressure
gradient: from areas of higher partial pressure to
areas of lower partial pressure. The partial
pressure of gases in blood and lungs is inversely
proportional.
3. B - The maximum amount of oxygen is exchanged
from blood in capillaries surrounding the alveoli.
4. C - Oxyhemoglobin is a bright red substance
formed by the combination of hemoglobin with
oxygen present in oxygenated blood.
5. B - Carbon monoxide has a high affinity to
hemoglobin. It is then followed by carbon dioxide
and oxygen.
6. ACD - In the alveolar capillaries the diffusion of
gases occurs. Oxygen diffuses from alveoli into
blood and carbon dioxide from blood to alveoli.
Alveolar diffusion does not depend on the
reactivity of gas.
7. A - The urge to inhale in humans results from the
rise of PCO2. This refers to the partial pressure of
carbon dioxide.
8. A - Oxygen diffuses out of the blood into tissues
because the concentration of oxygen in tissue fluid
is lower. The principle of osmosis is followed here.
9. A - Gas molecules move randomly from higher to
lower concentration. When oxygen is in contact
with tissue fluid, the oxygen dissolves.
10. C - Reduced supply of oxygen to the brain is called
cerebral hypoxia. Prolonged hypoxia induces
neurons cell death via apoptosis.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 20
1. D - As we eat, the food passes through the
digestive tract from the entry route to exit as
follows: mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach,
small intestine, large intestine, & anus
2. ABCE - All are part of digestion, except option D.
This function is primarily done by the lymphatic
system.
3. C - During the pharyngeal phase, the soft palate
closes the nasopharynx, and the epiglottis closes
the opening into the larynx. Pharyngeal muscles
elevate the pharynx and larynx and then move the
bolus to the esophagus.
4. C - Pepsin, an active enzyme of precursor
pepsinogen, starts the protein digestion. This
enzyme is primarily produced by chief cells of
gastric glands in the stomach.
5. A - During the gastric phase, the food in the
stomach is mixed with gastric secretions.
 Distention of the stomach stimulates stretch
receptors that send action potential and activate
the CNS reflexes & local reflexes. This results in the
cascade events that increase secretion.
6. B - All of the following hormones inhibit gastric
glands secretions, except for option B. Gastrin is a
hormone produced by gastric glands that increases
gastric secretion as it stimulates additional
secretory activity.
7. C - All of the choices do not occur during the gastric
phase of gastric secretion. Options A, B, and D are
activities that occur during the cephalic phase.
8. B - The medulla oblongata controls the neural
mechanisms that involve the CNS reflexes. Local
reflexes, though, are integrated within the entire
enteric plexus in the wall of the digestive tract and
do not involve the CNS for hormonal mechanisms.
9. A - The incisors and canines are primarily cut and
tear food, whereas the premolar and molar
primarily crush and grind it. Incisors are located
anteriorly.
10. D - Cabbage is one of the vegetables that are rich
in cellulose and humans cannot digest cellulose.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 21
1. B - The small intestine extends from the pyloric
sphincter, connecting from stomach, to the
ileocecal valve, connecting ileum to cecum.
2. C - The small intestine is composed of duodenum,
jejunum, and ileum. The middle section is jejunum.
3. C - Mechanical digestion breaks large food
particles down into smaller ones. Chemical
digestion involves the breaking of covalent
chemical bonds in organic molecules by digestive
enzymes. Absorption begins in the stomach, where
some small, lipid-soluble molecules, such as
alcohol and aspirin, can diffuse through the
stomach epithelium into the circulation. Transport
requires carrier molecules and includes facilitated
diffusion, cotransport, and active transport.
4. A - The combined duct of pancreatic and bile
empties into the duodenum at the duodenal
papilla.
5. A - The small intestine is responsible for the most
absorption which occurs in the duodenum and
jejunum. Options B, C, D, and E are functions of the
large intestine.
6. C - Circular folds, villi, and microvilli greatly
increase the surface area of the intestinal lining.
Peyer’s patches are small masses of lymphatic
tissue found throughout the ileum region of the
small intestine.
7. B - Once food is placed in the mouth, both
mechanical and chemical digestion begin.
Mechanical digestion breaks large food into
smaller ones while chemical digestion uses
enzymes to break covalent chemical bonds.
Propulsion occurs when peristalsis, the major
means of propelling food through the digestive
tract, is initiated. Absorption refers to the
movement of nutrients, water & electrolytes from
the lumen of the small intestine into the cell, then
into the blood.
8. D - This process refers to absorption, the
movement of nutrients, water and electrolytes
from the lumen of the small intestine into the cell,
then into the blood. Propulsion occurs when
peristalsis, the major means of propelling food
through the digestive tract, is initiated. Digestion
can be done through mechanical or chemical.
Defecation is the elimination of indigestible
residues from the GI tract via the anus in the form
of feces.
9. E - The parasympathetic nervous system controls
processes in the body such as digestion, repair and
relaxation. When the parasympathetic nervous
system is dominant in the body it conserves
energy, slows heart rate, increases digestion and
relaxes sphincter muscles in the digestive tract.
10. A - Hypoactive bowel sound is the description
given to auscultation of one to two bowel sounds
in 2 minutes. Normal bowel sounds are heard
every 5 to 20 seconds. Hyperactive bowel sounds
occur when 5 or 6 sounds are heard in less than 30
seconds. The nurse records that bowel sounds are
absent when no sound is heard in 3 to 5 minutes.
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 22
1. ACE - All are functions of the urinary system,
except options B and D. The urinary system
regulates red blood cell synthesis. The option D is
a function of the digestive system. The small
molecules that result from digestion are absorbed
through the walls of the intestine for use in the
body.
2. C - The urinary system consists of two kidneys, two
ureters, a urinary bladder, and a urethra. The
kidneys are bean-shaped organs which help the
body produce urine to get rid of unwanted waste
substances. When urine is formed, tubes called
ureters transport it to the urinary bladder, where
it is stored and excreted via the urethra. The
kidneys are also important in controlling our blood
pressure and producing red blood cells.
3. B - Hilum is on the medial side of the kidney where
the renal artery and nerves enter and where the
renal vein and ureter exit the kidney. Calyx is a
funnel-shaped that surrounds the tip of each renal
pyramid. Renal pyramid, any of the triangular
sections of tissue that constitute the medulla, or
inner substance, of the kidney
4. D - Nephron is the basic structural and functional
unit of the kidney. Its chief function is to regulate
the concentration of water and soluble substances
like sodium salts by filtering the blood, reabsorbing
what is needed and excreting the rest as urine.
5. C - All are falsely stated, except for option C.
Filtration is the movement of materials across the
filtration membrane into Bowman’s capsule to
form a filtrate. In reabsorption, the solutes are
reabsorbed across the wall of the nephron into the
interstitial fluid by transport processes, such as
active transport and cotransport.
6. A - The ascending limb of the loop of Henle
functions to dilute the filtrate by removing solutes.
 The thin segment of the ascending limb is not
permeable to water, but it is permeable to solutes.
7. B - Approximately 180 L of filtrate enters the
nephrons each day; of that volume, 65% is
reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. In the proximal
tubule, solute molecules move by active transport
and cotransport from the lumen of the tubule into
the interstitial fluid. Water moves by osmosis
because the cells of the tubule wall are permeable
to water.
8. B - When ADH levels increase, the permeability of
the distal tubules and collecting ducts to water
increases, and more water is reabsorbed from the
filtrate. An increase in ADH results in the
production of a small volume of concentrated
urine. On the other hand, when ADH levels
decrease, the distal tubules and collecting ducts
become less permeable to water. As a result, less
water is reabsorbed, and a large volume of dilute
urine is produced.
9. D - The renal tubule regions start from renal
corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of
Henle, and to distal convoluted tubule.
10. C - One of the risk factors of having respiratory
acidosis is hypoventilation which may be due to
brain trauma, coma, and hypothyroidism or
myxedema. Other risk factors include COPD,
respiratory conditions such as pneumothorax,
pneumonia and status asthmaticus. Drugs such as
morphine and MgSO4 toxicity are also risk factors
of respiratory acidosis
Anatomy and Physiology (LEC)
SESSION 23
1. A - Testes are divided into lobules containing the
seminiferous tubules that consist of interstitial
cells that secrete testosterone, germ cells where
the sperm cells begin, & sustentacular cells that
nourish the germ cells and produce a number of
hormones.
2. E - Seminiferous Tubules contain within lobules
which serve as a site of sperm cell development.
This is the actual ‘sperm-forming factories’ of male
reproductive system that empty sperm into the
rete testis.
3. B - Interstitial Cells or also known as Leydig Cells
secrete testosterone.
4. D - The descending order of the male duct system:
starting from seminiferous tubules, rete testis,
efferent ductules, epididymis, ductus deferens,
ampulla of ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct,
prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, spongy
urethra, exiting to external urethral orifice.
5. ABDE - All are true statements pertaining to
spermatic cord, except option C. The epididymis is
enclosed by a two layered pseudostratified
epithelium. The epithelium is separated by a
basement membrane from the connective tissue
wall which has smooth muscle cells
6. B - The urethra is divided into three parts: first part
is prostatic urethra which passes through the
prostate gland, middle part is the membranous
urethra which passes through the floor of pelvis &
surrounded by external urinary sphincter and the
end part is the spongy urethra which extends the
length of penis & opens at its end.
7. ABCD - Semen is a mixture of sperm cells, seminal
vesicles secretions, prostatic fluid, and the mucus
from bulbourethral glands.
8. B - The prostatic fluid has several functions:
regulation of pH and liquefy the coagulated semen
through proteolytic enzymes for the sperm cells to
be released and be able to swim to the oocyte.
9. D - The most common cause of infertility in males
is a low sperm cell count. If the sperm cell count
drops to below 20 million sperm cells per mL, the
male is usually sterile.
10. A - Spermatogenesis is sperm production that
begins during puberty and continues throughout
life. The process is begun by primitive stem cells
called spermatogonia. From birth until puberty,
spermatogonia undergo mitotic division to
increase the number of stem cells. During puberty,
FSH causes each division of spermatogonia into
one stem cell (type A cell) and one type B cell that
becomes a primary spermatocyte. The primary
spermatocytes then undergo meiosis to secondary
spermatocytes, which then form four spermatids.
The spermatids streamline and a tail is formed
during spermiogenesis, after which they are
mature enough to fertilize an ovum and are called
sperm.
11. D - During ovulation, the oocyte is released due to
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
12. C - The average menstrual cycle is 28 days (short as
18 days & long as 40 days) and results from cyclical
changes that occur in endometrium.
13. ABCD - All are correct events that occur during the
proliferative state of menstrual cycle, except for
option E. The endometrium of this event is
thickened, in preparation for the ovulation.
14. D - All are secondary sex characteristics in young
women, except option D. Adipose tissue is
deposited in the breasts and around the hips,
causing them to enlarge and assume adult form.
15. B - Following ovulation, the granulosa cells divide
rapidly and enlarge to form the corpus luteum that
releases progesterone
16. B - Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) is a
hormone released by hypothalamus to trigger the
anterior pituitary gland to secrete LH and FSH.
17. C - A secondary follicle forms when fluid-filled
vesicles develop and theca cells arise on the
outside of the follicle. This is produced just before
the ovulation, when the primary oocyte completes
the first meiotic division
18. C - Suspensory ligament extends from each ovary
to lateral body. Ovarian ligament attaches the
ovary to the superior margin of the uterus. Broad
ligament spreads out on both sides of the uterus
and attaches to the ovaries and uterine tubes.
Mesovarium folds in the peritoneum where the
ovaries are attached.
19. D - A mature egg travels from the fimbriae, to
infundibulum, to ampulla, and finally to the
isthmus of the uterine tube.
20. BCD - All events are happening during the sexual
act, except for option A. The labia becomes larger
from the engorgement of blood.