Chemical Bonding and

Chapter 4
Molecular Structure

8. The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous solution is:

Covalent Bond and Electrovalent (2008)
a. Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
Bond, Octet Rule
b. K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+

1. Which of the following species contains equal number of c. Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
s and p-bonds? (2015 Re) d. Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+
a. (CN)2 b. (CH)2(CN)2
9. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is
c. HCO3 –
d. XeO4
represented by: (2005)
2. Which one of the following molecules contains no p bond?
(2013) a. LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2
a. SO2 b. NO2 b. BeCl2< NaCl < LiCl
c. CO2 d. H2O
c. NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
3. Which of the following is electron-deficient? (2013)
d. BeCl2< LiCl < NaCl
a. (CH3)2 b. (SiH3)2
c. (BH3)2 d. PH3 10. The table shown below gives the bond dissociation energies
(Ediss) for single covalent bonds of carbon atoms with element
4. In the replacement reaction
A, B, C and D. Which element has the smallest atoms?
(1994)
Bond Ediss (kJ mol–1)
C–A 240
The reaction will be most favorable if M happens to be:
(2012 Mains) C–B 328

a. Li b. Na C–C 276

c. K d. Rb C–D 485

5. Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting a. C b. D

point? (2011 Pre)
c. A d. B
a. CaF2 b. CaCl2
11. Among the following which compound will show the highest
c. CaBr2 d. CaI2
lattice energy? (1993)
6. Among the following which one has the highest cation to
anion size ratio? (2010 Mains) a. KF b. NaF
a. CsI b. CsF c. CsF d. RbF
c. LiF d. NaF 12. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent bond
7. In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases character follows the order: (1990)
in the order: (2009)
a. BeCl2 > BC13 > CC14 < LiCl
a. MF > MCl > MBr > MI
b. BeCl2 < BC13 < CC14 < LiCl
b. MF > MCl > MI > MBr
c. MI > MBr > MCl > MF c. LiCl < BeCl2 < BC13 < CC14
d. MCl > MI > MBr > MF d. LiCl > BeCl2 > BC13 > CC14
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 25

13. Which one of the following formulae does not correctly 20. Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the
represent the bonding capacities of the two atoms involved? given statement is false? (2016 - I)
 (1990) a. The H─C─H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H─N─H
H + bond angle in NH3
a. H P H b.
F F b. The H─C─H bond angle in CH4, the H─N─H bond angle
O in NH3, and the H─O─H bond angle in H2O are all greater
H than 90º.
O O c. Then H─O─H bond angle in H2O is larger than the
c. O N d.
H C C H─C─H bond angle in CH4
O H O H
d. The H─O─H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the
14. Which of the following does not apply to metallic bond? H─N─H bond angle in NH3
 (1989)
21. Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of the
a. Overlapping valence orbitals following? (2015)
b. Mobile valence electrons a. NO2+ b. NO3–
c. Delocalized electrons c. NO2 d. NO2–
d. Highly directed bonds 22. Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole
15. H2O has a net dipole moment while BeF2 has zero dipole moment? (2014)
moment because: (1989) a. CH4 b. NH3
a. H2O molecule is linear while BeF2 is bent c. NF3 d. CO2
b. BeF2 molecule is linear while H2O is bent 23. Which of the following is a polar molecule? (2013)
c. Fluorine has more electronegativity than oxygen a. BF3 b. SF4
d. Beryllium has more electronegativity than oxygen. c. SiF4 d. XeF4
24. The pair of species with the same bond order is:(2012 Pre)
a. N2 , O2 b. O22 –, B2
Bond Parameters and
c. O2+ , NO+ d. NO , CO
Dipole Moment
25. Which of the following has the minimum bond length?
 (2011 Pre)
16. Which of the following set of molecules will have zero
a. O2 b. O2+
dipole moment? (2020)
c. O2– d. O22 –
a. Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide,
1,3-dichlorobenzene 26.
The correct order of increasing bond length of
C ─ H, C ─ O, C ─ C and C ═ C is: (2011 Pre)
b.
Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water
1,3-dichlorobenzzene a. C ─ H < C ─ O < C ─ C < C ═ C
c. Boron trifluoride, berylium difluoride, carbon dioxide, b. C ─ H < C ═ C < C ─ O < C ─ C
1,4-dichlorobenzene c. C ─ C < C ═ C < C ─ O < C ─ H
Ammonia,
d. beryllium difluoride, water, d. C ─ O < C ─ H < C ─ C < C ═ C
1,4-dichlorobenzene 27. Which of the following structures is the most preferred and
17. Which one of the following pair of species have the same hence of lowest energy for SO3? (2011 Mains)
bond order? (2017-Delhi)
a. N 2 ,O −2 b. CO, NO a. b.
c. O2, NO+ d. CN–, CO
18. The species, having bond angles of 120° is (2017-Delhi) O
a. BCl3 b. PH3 c. d.
S
O
O

c. ClF3 d. NCl3
19. Which of the following hydrides has the largest bond angle?
 (2017-Gujarat)
a. H2Se b. H2S
c. H2Te d. H2O
28. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following
species is: (2010 Pre)
a. Cl2O < ClO2 < ClO -2 b. ClO2 < Cl2O < ClO -2
c. Cl2O < ClO -2 < ClO2 d. ClO -2 < Cl2O < ClO2
26 AV NEET 35 Years

29. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following 38. The bond length between hybridised carbon atom and other
triatomic species is: (2008) carbon atom is minimum in (1996)
a. NO +2 < NO 2− < NO 2 b.
NO −2 < NO 2+ < NO 2 a. Propene b. Propyne
c. NO < NO 2 < NO d.
−
2
+
2
NO < NO 2 < NO+
2
−
2 c. Propane d. Butane
30. The correct order of C–O bond length among: CO, CO3 , 2 –
39. The correct order of the O – O bond length in O2, H2O2 and
CO2 is: (2007) O3 is: (1995)
a. CO < CO32 – < CO2 b. CO32 – < CO2 < CO a. O2 > H2O2 > O3 b. H2O2 > O3 > O2
c. CO < CO2 < CO32 –
d. CO2< CO32 – < CO c. O2 > O3 > H2O2 d. O3 > H2O2 > O2
31. The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater
than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of NH3 40. Which of the following molecule does not possess a
(1.5 D) is larger than that of NF3 (0.2 D). This is because: permanent dipole moment? (1994)
(2006) a. CS2 b. SO3
a. In NH3 as well as in NF3, the atomic dipole and bond c. H2S d. SO2
dipole are in the same direction
41. Which one of the following has the shortest carbon carbon
b. In NH3, the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same bond length? (1992)
direction whereas in NF3 these are in opposite directions
a. Benzene b. Ethene
c. In NH3, as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole
are in opposite directions c. Ethyne d. Ethane
d. In NH3, the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the 42. In compound X, all the bond angles are exactly 109°28ʹ, X
opposite directions whereas, in NF3 these are in the same is: (1991)
directions a. Chloromethane b. Carbon tetrachloride
32. Which of the following would have a permanent dipole c. Iodoform d. Chloroform
moment? (2005)
a. BF3 b. SiF4
VSEPR Theory
c. SF4 d. XeF4
33. The correct order in which the O—O bond length increases
43. Match List-I with List-II.
in the following is: (2005)
a. H2O2 < O2 < O3 b. O3 < H2O2 < O2 List-I List-II
c. O2 < O3 < H2O2 d. O2 < H2O2 < O3 (A) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
(B) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
34. Which of the following statements is not correct for
sigma- and pi-bonds formed between two carbon atoms? (C) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
(2003) (D) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
a. Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
b. Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of (2021)
264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol, respectively
a. A-ii B-iii C-iv D-i
c. Free rotation of atoms about a sigma bond is allowed but
b. A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii
not in case of a pi-bond
c. A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
d. Sigma-bond determines the direction between carbon
atoms but a pi-bond has no primary effect in this regard d. A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii

35. Which of the following is iso-electronic? (2002) 44. Identify the wrongly matched pair. (2020-Covid)

a. CO2 , NO2
−
b. NO ,CO 2
2
Molecule Shape or geometry of molecule
c. CN–, CO d. SO2, CO2 a. SF6 Octahedral
36. In which of the following, bond angle is maximum?(2001) b. BeCl2 Linear
a. NH3 b. NH +4 c. NH3 Trigonal pyramidal
d. PCl5 Trigonal planar
c. PCl3 d. SCl2
45. Which one of the following ions is not tetrahedral in shape?
37. In PO43– ion, the formal charge on each oxygen atom and
(2017-Gujarat)
P-O bond order respectively are: (1998)
a. –0.75, 0.6 b. –0.75, 1.0 a. [NiCl4]2– b.
NH +4

c. –0.75, 1.25 d. –3, 1.25 c. BF4− d. [Cu(NH3)4]2+

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 27

46. Which of the following pair of species is not iso-structural? 56. Which of the following is not a correct statement? (2006)
(2017-Gujarat) a. The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acids
a. BrO ,XeO3
−
3 b. −
ICl ,XeF4
4 b. The canonical structures have no real existence
c. Every AB5 molecule does infact have square pyramid
c. ClO3− ,CO32 − d.
IBr2− ,XeF2
structure
47. Among the following which one is a wrong statement? d. Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding
(2016 - II) single bonds
a. SeF4 and CH4 have same shape 57. Which of the following species has a linear shape? (2006)
b. I3+ has bent geometry a. NO2– b. SO2
c. PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist c. NO2+ d. O3
58. Which of the following molecules has trigonal planar
d. p� - d� bonds are present in SO2
geometry? (2005)
48. Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and
a. IF3 b. PCl3
isostructural? (2016-II)
c. NH3 d. BF3
a. CO32– , NO3– b. ClO3– , CO32–
c. SO32– , NO3– d. ClO3– , SO32–
49. Predict the correct order among the following: (2016 - I) Valence Bond Theory,
a. Lone pair ─ bond pair > bond pair ─ bond pair > lone Hybridisation
pair ─ lone pair
b. Lone pair ─ lone pair > lone pair ─ bond pair > bond pair
59. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization
─ bond pair and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively
c. Lone pair ─ lone pair > bond pair ─ bond pair > lone pair are: (2021)
─ bond pair a. sp3 and 6 b. sp2 and 6
d. Bond pair ─ bond pair > lone pair ─ bond pair > lone pair c. sp2 and 8 d. sp3 and 4
─ lone pair 60. How many (i) sp2 hybridised carbon atoms and (ii) π bonds
50. Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and are present in the following compound? (2020-Covid)
isostructural? (2015)
a. SO32– , NO3– b. ClO3– , SO32–
c. CO32– , SO32– d. ClO3– , CO32– a. 8, 6 b. 7, 6
51. Which one of the following species has planar triangular c. 8, 5 d. 7, 5
shape? (2014) 61. The potential energy (y) curve for H2 formation as a function
of internuclear distance (x) of the H atoms is shown below.
a. NO3– b. NO2–
(2020-Covid)
c. CO2 d. N3
52. Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and
one lone pair around the central atom? (2012)
a. H2O b. BF3
c. NH2 –
d. PCl3
53. The angular shape of molecule (O3) consists of: (2008) The bond energy of H2 is
a. 2 sigma and 1 pi bond b. 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds (c− a) (b − a)
a. b.
c. 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds d. 1 sigma and 1 pi bond 2 2
54. In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso- c. (c – a) d. (b – a)
structural? (2007) 62. Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl5 from the
a. SO32– and NO3– b. BF3 and NF3 following:  (2019)
c. BrO3– and XeO3 d. SF4 and XeF4 a. Three equatorial P-Cl bonds make an angle of 120° with
each other
55. Which of the following is not iso-structural with SiCl4? b. Two axial P-Cl bonds make an angle of 180° with each
(2006) other
a. SCl4 b. SO42 –
c. Axial P-Cl bonds are longer than equatorial P-Cl bonds
c. PO43 –
d. NH4– d. PCl5 molecule is non-reactive
 28 AV NEET 35 Years

63. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are coplanar? 71. Which of the two ions from the list given below have the
 (2016 - II) geometry that is explained by the same hybridisation of
orbitals?
a. b.
NO2– , NO3– , NH2– , NH4+ , SCN– (2011 Pre)
a. NO2 and NH2
– –
b. NO2 and NO3
– –

c. NH4 and NO3

+ –
d. SCN– and NH2–

c. d. 72. Some of the properties of the two species, NO3– and H3O+
are described below. Which one of them is correct?
 (2010 Mains)
a. Dissimilar in hybridisation for the central atom with
64. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are  different structures
 (2016 - II) b. Isostructural with same hybridisation for the central atom
a. octahedral, sp3d2 c. Isostructural with different hybridisation for the central
b. trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d atom
c. planar triangle, sp3d3 d. Similar in hybridisation for the central atom with different
d. square planar, sp3d2 structures
65. The total number of π-bond electrons in the following 73. In which of the following molecules the central atom does
structure is: (2015) not have sp3 hybridisation? (2010 Mains)
a. CH4 b. SF4
c. BF4 –
d. NH4+
74. In which one of the following species the central atom has
a. 8 b. 12 the type of hybridisation which is not the same as that present
c. 16 d. 4 in the other three? (2010 Pre)
66. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not a. PCl5 b. SF4
isostructural?  (2015) c. I d.
−
SbCl52 −
3
a. Diamond, Silicon carbide
75. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, the central
b. NH3, PH3
atoms have sp2 hybridisation? (2010 Pre)
c. XeF4, XeO4
a. NH −2 and H 2O b.
NO −2 and H 2O
d. SiCl4, PCl4+
c. BF3 and NO 2− d.
NO −2 and NH −2
67. Which of the following organic compounds has same
hybridisation as its combustion product (CO2)? (2014) 76. In which of the following molecules/ions BF3, NO2– , NH2–
and H2O, the central atom is sp2 hybridised? (2009)
a. Ethyne b. Ethene
c. Ethanol d. Ethane a. NH −2 and H2O b.
NO −2 and H2O

68. XeF2 is isostructural with (2013) c. BF3 and NO −2 d.

NO −2 and NH −2
a. SbCl3 b. BaCl2
77. The state of hybridisation of C2 , C3 , C5 and C6 of the
c. TeF2 d. ICl2– hydrocarbon,
69. Which one of the following pairs is iso-structural (i.e., having
the same shape and hybridisation)? (2012 Pre)
a. [BF4– and NH4+ ] b. [BCl3 and BaCl3]
c. [NH3 and NO3 ] –
d. [NF3 and BF3]
is in the following sequence: (2009)
70. Considering the state of hybridisation of carbon atoms,
find out the molecule among the following which is linear? a. sp , sp , sp and sp
3 2 2
b. sp, sp , sp and sp
2 2 3

 (2011 Pre) c. sp, sp , sp and sp

2 3 2
d. sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3
a. CH3 — CH2 — CH2— CH3 78. The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid
b. CH3 — CH = CH— CH3 orbitals of carbon is: (2006)
c. CH3 — C ≡ C — CH3 a. sp > sp2 < sp3 b. sp > sp2 > sp3
d. CH2 = CH— CH2— C ≡ CH c. sp < sp2 > sp3 d. sp < sp2 < sp3
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 29

79. Among the following, the pair in which the two species are 89. Correct order of dissociation energy of N2 and N2+ is:
not isostructural is:- (2004) (2000)
a. IO3− and XeO3 b.
BH −4 and NH +4 a. N 2 > N+2 b.
N 2 = N +2
− +
c. PF6 and SF6 d. SiF4 and SF4 c. N2 > N2 d. None
80. H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is because (2004) 90. Which of the following has sp2 hybridisation? (1996)
a. H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas BeF2 is a a. BeCl2 b. C2H2
discrete molecule c. C2H6 d. C2H4
b. H2O is linear and BeF2 is angular 91. Which one of the following is the correct order of interactions?
c. H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear (1993)
d. The electronegativity of F is greater than that of O a. Covalent < hydrogen bonding < Van Der Waals’ < dipole-
81. In a regular octahedral molecule, MX6 the number of X–M–X dipole
bonds at 180° is: (2004) b. Van Der Waals’ < hydrogen bonding < dipole < covalent
a. Two b. Six c. Van Der Waals’ < dipole-dipole < hydrogen bonding <
c. Four d. Three covalent
82. In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions d. Dipole-dipole < Van Der Waals’ < hydrogen bonding <
to minimise: (2004) covalent.
a. Bond pair-bond pair repulsion only 92. Which structure is linear? (1992)
b. Lone pair-lone pair repulsion and lone pair-bond pair a. SO2 b. CO2
repulsion
c. CO32 − d. SO 24 −
c. Lone pair-lone pair repulsion only
93.
The complex ion [Co(NH3)6]3+ is formed by sp3d2
d. Lone pair-bond pair repulsion only
hybridisation. Hence the ion should possess: (1990)
83. In NO3– ion number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons
a. Octahedral geometry
on nitrogen atom are: (2002)
b. Tetrahedral geometry
a. 2, 2 b. 3, 1
c. Square planar geometry
c. 1, 3 d. 4, 0
d. Tetragonal geometry.
84. Which of the following has pπ-dπ bonding? (2002)
94. Which statement is NOT correct? (1990)
a. NO3– b. SO32–
a. A sigma bond is weaker than a pi bond.
c. BO33– d. CO32–
b. A sigma bond is stronger than a pi bond.
85. Nitrogen form N2, but phosphorous form P2, but after some
time convert in P4, reason is: (2001) c. A double bond is stronger than a single bond.
a. Triple bond present between phosphorous atom d. A double bond is shorter than a single bond.
b. pπ – pπ bonding is weak 95. Linear combination of two hybridised orbitals belonging
c. pπ – pπ binding is strong to two atoms and each having one electron leads to the
formation of: (1990)
d. Multiple bond form easily
a. Sigma bond
86. Main axis of a diatomic molecule is z, molecular orbital
px and py overlaps to form, which of the following orbital? b. Double bond
(2001) c. Co-ordinate covalent bond
a. π molecular orbital b. σ molecular orbital d. Pi bond
c. δ molecular orbital d. No bond will form 96. Which of the following molecule does not have a linear
87. Which of the following two species in the pair are arrangement of atoms? (1989)
isostructural? (2001) a. H2S b. C2H2
a. XeF2, IF2– b. NH3, BF3 c. BeH2 d. CO2
c. CO3 , SO3
2– 2–
d. PCl5, ICl5 97. In which one of the following molecules the central atom can
88. dπ – pπ bond is present in: (2000) be said to adopt sp2 hybridisation? (1989)
a. CO 2-
3
b.
PO 3-
4 a. BeF2 b. BF3
c. NO -
3 d.
NO -
2
c. C2H2 d. NH3
 30 AV NEET 35 Years

98. The angle between the overlapping of one s-orbital and one 108. Which of the following is paramagnetic? (2013)
p-orbital is: (1988) a. CO b. O −2
a. 180° b. 120° c. CN– d. NO+
c. 109.28° d. 120°– 60° 109. Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct
99. Equilateral shape has: (1988) order in which the bond order is increasing in them:
(2012 Mains)
a. sp hybridisation b. sp hybridisation
2

a. He2+ < O2– < NO < C22 –

c. sp hybridisation
3
d. dsp3 hybridisation.
b. NO < O2– < C22 – < He2+
c. O2– < NO < C22 – < He2+
d. C22 – < He2+ < O2– < NO
MOT, Bonding in Some
110. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by: (2012 Pre)
Homonuclear Diatomic Molecule a. O2 b. O2+
c. O–2 d. O22 –

100. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature? 111. During change of O2 to O −2 ion, the electron adds on which
(2021) one of the following orbitals? (2012 Mains)

a. CH2O b. SbCl5 a. π* orbital b. π orbital

c. NO2 d. POCl3 c. σ* orbital d. σ orbital

112. The pair of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours
101. Identify a molecule which does not exist. (2020)
are noted below. Which of the following given represents the
a. Li2 b. C2 correct description? (2011 Mains)
c. O2 d. He2 a. O2+ ,O2 – Both paramagnetic
102. Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only b. O, O22 – – Both paramagnetic
π bonds according to Molecular Orbital Theory?  (2019) c. O2– ,O22 – – Both diamagnetic
a. O2 b. N2 d. O+, O22 – – Both paramagnetic
c. C2 d. Be2 113. Which one of the following species does not exist under
103. Consider the following species: (2018) normal conditions? (2010 Pre)
CN , CN , NO and CN
+ – a. Li2 b. Be +2
Which one of these will have the highest bond order? c. Be2 d. B2
a. NO b. CN –
114. According to MO theory, which of the following lists ranks
c. CN d. CN+ the nitrogen species in terms of increasing bond order?
+ (2009)
104. The hybridisations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2 ,
– + a. N 22 − < N 2− < N 2 b.
N 2 < N 22 − < N 2−
NO3 and NH4 respectively are: (2016-II)
a. sp, sp3 and sp2 b.
sp2, sp3 and sp c. N −2 < N 22 − < N 2 d. N −2 < N 2 < N 22 −

c. sp, sp2 and sp3 d.

sp2, sp and sp3 115. Four diatomic species are listed below in different sequences.
+ 2–
Which of these presents the correct order of their increasing
105. Decreasing order of stability of O2 , O2– , O2 and O2 is: bond order? (2008)
(2015 Re)
+ + – 2– a. He +2 < O −2 < NO < C 22 − b.
O 2  NO  C22  He 2
a. O2– > O22– > O2 > O2 b. O2 > O2 > O2 > O2
2– – + + 2– – c. NO < C 22 − < O −2 < He +2 d.
C 22   He 2  NO  O 2
c. O > O > O2 > O
2 2 2
d. O2 > O > O2 > O2
2
116. The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic
106. Which of the following options represents the correct bond
molecule of an element with atomic number 16 is: (2006)
order? (2015)
a. 2 b. 3
a. O2– < O2 < O2+ b. – +
O 2 > O2 < O 2
+ + c. 4 d. 1
c. O2– < O2 > O2 O 2 > O2 > O 2
d. –

117. Which one of the following oxides is expected to exhibit

107. The correct bond order in the following species is: (2015) paramagnetic behaviour? (2005)
– + – +
a. O22+ < O2 < O2 2+
O2 < O2 < O2
b.
a. CO2 b. SO2
+ –
c. O2– < O2+ < O22+ d. 2+
O2 < O2 < O2 c. ClO2 d. SiO2
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 31

118. Which species does not exhibits paramagnetism? (2000) 124. The ground state electronic configuration of valence shell
a. N+2 b. O–2 electrons in nitrogen molecule (N2) is written as σ2s2, σ*2s2,
π2px2 = π2py2 σ2pz2
c. CO d. NO
Hence the bond order in nitrogen molecule is: (1995)
119. Which one is not paramagnetic among the following?
a. 2 b. 3
(Atomic number : Be = 4, Ne = 10, As = 33, Cl = 17)
(1998) c. 0 d. 1
a. Cl– b. Be+ 125. Which of the following molecules has the highest bond
order? (1994)
c. Ne2+ d. As–
2– a. O −2 b. O2
120. The number of anti-bonding electrons pairs in O2 molecular
ion on the basis of molecular orbital theory is (atomic no. of c. O +
2 d. O 22 −
O is 8): (1998)
a. 3 b. 2 Hydrogen Bonds
c. 5 d. 4
121. N2 and O2 are converted into monocations, N2+ and O22+ 126. Which one of the following compounds shows the presence
respectively. Which is wrong? (1997) of intramolecular hydrogen bond? (2016 - II)

a. In O2+ paramagnetism decreases. a. Cellulose b. Concentrated acetic acid

b. N2+ becomes diamagnetic. c. H2O2 d. HCN
c. In N2+ , the N–N bond weakens. 127. In X – H– – –Y, X and Y both are electronegative elements:
d. In O2 , the O–O bond order increases.
+ (2001)
122. N2 and O2 are converted into monoanions, N −2 and O −2 a. Electron density on X will increase and on H will decrease
respectively, which of the following statements is wrong? b. In both electron density will increase
(1997) c. In both electron density will decrease
a. In O2 , bond length increases
–
d. On X electron density will decrease and on H increases
b. N2 –
becomes diamagnetic 128. Strongest hydrogen bond is shown by: (1992)
c. In N2 , then N–N bond weakens
–
a. Water b. Ammonia
d. In O2 , the O–O bond order decreases
–
c. Hydrogen fluoride d. Hydrogen sulphide
123. Which of the following species is paramagnetic? (1995) 129. Which one shows maximum hydrogen bonding? (1990)
a. CO b. CN –
a. H2O b. H2Se
c. O 22 − d. NO c. H2S d. HF

Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
d d c d d b c c c b b c d d b c d
18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
a d c a b b b b b d d c c b c c b
35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51
c b c b b a c b d d d c a a,d b b a
52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
d a c a c c d b b d d c a a c a d
69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
a c b a b d c c d b d c d c d b b
86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102
a a b a d b b a a a a b a b b d c
 32 AV NEET 35 Years

103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119
b c b a c b a c a a c a a a c c a
120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129
d b b d b c a a c a

Explanations
1. (d) (CN)2, N ≡ C – C ≡ N (3s + 4p) 10. (b) Smaller the atom, stronger is the bond and greater the
bond dissociation energy. Therefore, the bond C–D has the
greatest energy or smallest atoms.
(6s + 4p)
11. (b) Compounds that contain ions of same charge, lattice
energy increases as the size of ions decreases. Hence, NaF
has highest lattice energy.
(4s + 1p) 12. (c) Along the period, electronegativity (EN) increases
and hence as we move from Li → Be → B → C, the
electronegativity increases and hence the EN difference
between the element and Cl decreases and accordingly the
(4s + 4p)
covalent character increases. Hence LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 <
CCl4 is correct.
O

2. (d) 13. (d) H C C* O H

3. (c) Among the 4 options (CH3)2 , (SiH3)2 and PH3 all have The asterisk (*) marked carbon has a valency of 5 and hence
complete octets with 8e─ . But BH3 has only 6e─ and act as this formula is not correct because carbon has a maximum
a Lewis acid. valency of 4.
4. (d) For the reaction 14. (d) Metallic bonds have electrostatic attraction on all sides
and hence do not have directional characteristics.
15. (b) BeF2 is linear and hence it has zero dipole moment.
The reaction will be faster with Rb because lattice energy of F Be F
RbF is less than LiF, NaF, KF due to large size of Rb+
While H2O is a bent molecule and hence it has a non-zero
5. (d) CaI2 has the lowest melting point with the most covalent dipole moment.
character and lowest lattice energy.
O
6. (b) Caesium Fluoride (CsF) have largest cation to anion ratio H H
as Cs+ being the biggest cation and F─ being the smallest
anion, among their groups. 16. (c) The given set of molecules have dipole moment zero.
Because dipoles of the bond cancel each other.
7. (c) Covalency depends on 2 criterias– first the charge on the
ionic species. (Charge is same on all species) Second the size
of anion will determine the covalent character, more the size
more the covalent character so the order goes as:
MI > MBr > MCl > MF
8. (c) The alkali metal ion exist as hydrated ion M+ (H2O)n
in aqueous solution with decrease in ionic size, degree of
hydration increases hence Na+ is mostly hydrated since
mobility of ion is inversely proportional to size of their
hydrated ion, hence increasing order of ionic mobility is
Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
9. (c) Covalency depends on 2 factors polarisation or
polarisability, charge and cation size. More the charge 17. (d) CN– = 6 + 7 + 1 = 14
more the overlapping tendency hence more covalent
CO = 6 + 8 = 14
character, BeCl2 ranks first as Be2+. Smaller the cation
greater the overlapping tendency, i.e., Li+ > Na+. These two species are isoelectronic and iso structural in
So, order will be BeCl2 > LiCl > NaCl nature. Therefore, they both have same bond order.
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 33

23. (b)
18. (a) BCl3 having bond angles of 120 . 0

19. (d) O, S, Se, Te belong to Group 16.

On moving down the group, size of atom increases.
'O' is most electronegative and lone pairs
lie close to the atom electron cloud. This
causes repulsion in lone pairs of oxygen
and bond pairs of hydrogen.

∴ Angle maximum due to l.p - b.p repulsion.

Te has maximum size: lone pair lie far away

from the atom electron cloud. Lone pair -
bond pair repulsion is the least. 24. (b)
O 22 − : 1 B2 : 1
H O2+ : 2.5 NO+ : 3
NO : 2.5 CO : 3
20. (c) CH4 – sp3 hybridised, tetrahedral C N2 : 3 O2 : 2
bond angle 109o29ʹ H H 25. (b) O2+ has the maximum bond order 2.5, electronic
H configuration and thus minimum bond length.
NH3 – sp3 hybridised, bond angle – 107o σ1s 2σ1* s 2σ2s 2σ2* s 2σ2p 2z ( π2p 2x =π2p 2y )( π2* p1x =π2* p 0y )
Nb − Na
Bond order =
2
H2O – sp3 – bent shaped 10 − 5
= = 2.5
2
bond angle - 104o5ʹ 1
As Bond order ∝
B.L.
So, bond angle of H2O is less than that of NH3 & CH4
So, O2+ exhibits maximum bond order but minimum bond
21. (a) length.
Species → NO3– NO2 NO2– NO2+ 26. (b) C ─ C bond length will be maximum followed by
C ─ O (carboxyl), C ═ C and then C ─ H.
Hybd. → sp2 sp2 sp2 sp
C ─ H < C ═ C < C ─ O < C ─ C.
Bond angle → 120o 134o 115o 180o
27. (d)
↓ ↓
B.P.– B.P. L.P. – B.P. repulsion Maximum number of covalent bond.
repulsion dominant So,
dominant Bond angle ↓ 28. (d) In ClO2– there are 2 l.p of e–s present on the central
chlorine atom. Therefore the bond angle in ClO2– is less than
So bond angle↑
118° which is bond angle in ClO2 which has less number of
22. (b) electron chlorine
ClO2– < Cl2O < ClO2
110° 111° 117°
29. (c) As the no. of l.p of e–s increases, bond angles decreases.
NO2+ ion has linear structure with sp hybridisation, hence
bond angle is 180°
In NO2– N-atom-undergoes sp2 hybridisation. Due to presence
of l.p on N-atom bond angle decreases from 120° to 115°
In NO2 molecule, N-atom has one unpaired e– in sp2 hybrid
orbital. The bond angle should be 120° but actually it is 132°
due to presence of one unpaired e– in sp2 hybrid orbital
34 AV NEET 35 Years

\ Increasing order of bond angle is: Total charge on PO34− ion is –3

NO2– < NO2 < NO2+
So, the average formal charge on each ‘O’ atom is
30. (c) More is the single bond character, more will be the bond 3
length. Hence, the correct order is: =− =−0.75
4
CO < CO2< CO32 –.
38. (b) The C–C bond length = 1.54 Å C ═ C bond length =
31. (b) Dipole moment of NH3 > NF3 is because of orientation 1.34 Å and C ≡ C bond length = 1.20 Å Since propyne has
of dipole moments. a triple bond, therefore it has minimum bond length.
39. (b) Bond length of O – O in O2 is 1.21 Å (O = O); in H2O2 is
1.48 Å (HO – HO) and in O3 is 1.28 Å

In NH3, the dipole moments between the lone pair & N-H
gets added but in NF3, there is a net cancellation of dipole
moments . 40. (a) The structure of CS2 is linear and therefore it does not
have permanent dipole moment. It is represented as S ═ C
32. (c)
═ S.
41. (c) There is a triple bond in ethyne molecule (H—C ≡ C—H)
and due to this triple bond, carbon-carbon bond distance is
shortest in ethyne.
42. (b) As all C─Cl bonds are directed towards the corner of a
regular tetrahedron.
43. (d) Geometry of PCl5 – Trigonal bipyramidal (sp3d)
Cl
Cl
Cl P
33. (c) O-O bond length in O2 = 120.7 pm Cl
Cl
O-O bond length in O3 = 127.8 pm
Geometry of SF6 – Octahedral (sp3d2)
O-O bond length in H2O2 = 147.5 pm
F
Hence, the O—O bond length increases in the order : F F
O2 < O3 < H2O2 S
F F
34. (b) We know that bond energy of C – C = 347 KJ/mol F
C = C, 619KJ/mol Geometry of BrF5 – Square pyramidal (sp3d2)

35. (c) In CO, the number of electrons = 6 + 8 = 14 F F

CN- have also got 6 + 7 + 1 = 14 electron. Br
F F
36. (b) Bond angle is maximum in NH+4 , tetrahedral molecule F
with bond angle 109°. Geometry of BF3 – Trigonal Planar (sp2)
37. (c) Bond order F
no. of bond in all possible direction F B
= F
Total no. of resonating structure
5
= = 1.25 44. (d)
4
Resonating structure are:
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 35

45. (d) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is not tetrahedral. It is a square planar 53. (a) Angular shape of an ozone molecule consists of 1 pi bond
complex. and 2 sigma bonds.
O
O Ozone O

54. (c) Hybridisation of Br in BrO3─ .

46. (c) 1
( 7 + 0 − 0 + 1) ⇒ sp3
2
Hybridisation of XeO3
1
(8 + 0 − 0 + 1) = 4 ⇒ sp3
2

Hence, they both are not isostructural.

47. (a) SeF4 and CH4 do not have same shape. SeF4 is AB4L
type molecule with 4 bond pair and 1 lone pair with shape
Structure is trigonal pyramidal in both molecules.
see–saw. CH4 is AB4 type molecule with no lone pair and
tetrahedral shape. 55. (a) SCl4 is not isostructural with SiCl4. It has trigonal
pyramidal geometry and sea-saw shaped structure.
I3+ have 2 lone pairs with bent/angular shape. BiCl5 does not
exists because of inert pair effect. SO2 type molecule have
both pπ - pπ & dπ - pπ bonds.
48. (a,d)
56. (c) It’s not important that every AB5 type compound have
square pyramidal structure, it can have trigonal pyramidal
geometry example PCl5.
Cl

Cl Cl
P
Cl
49. (b) Order of repulsing force according to VSEPR theory is
lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair –
bond pair.
Cl
50. (b) ClO3– and SO32– are isoelectronic and pyramidal in shape.
57. (c) NO2 has linear structure with sp hybridisation
+

51. (a) NO3– resonating structure

O─N = O+
58. (d) BF3 has sp3 hybridisation with trigonal planar geometry.
59. (b) Geometry of BF3 molecule is Trigonal Planar hybridization
of B is sp2.
F

Planar structure B
F F
52. (d) 2 bond pairs, 2 lone pairs BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. The number
of valence electrons around the central atom that is Boron in
BF3 molecule is 6.
3 bond pairs, 0 lone pair
60. (b) (i) Number of sp2 hybridised carbon atoms is 7
(ii) Number of pi bonds is 6
2 bond pairs, 2 lone pairs

3 bond pairs, 1 lone pair

 36 AV NEET 35 Years

61. (d) Potential energy of two H atoms at infinite distance = a – +

69. (a) BF4 & NH4 have sp3 hybridised central atom and exhibit
Potential energy of two H atoms at distance equal to bond tetrahedral geometry.
length = b
So, The bond energy of H2 = (b – a) 70. (c) CH3– C ≡ C – CH3 has sp hybridisation and linear
geometry.
71. (b) Among all the species NO2– and NO3– have sp2
hybridisation with planar geometry showing resonance.
62. (d) 72. (a) Hybridisation of NO3− is sp2. It has a planar structure
exhibiting resonance.
H3O+ - sp3 hybridisation with tetrahedral geometry.

d. False 73. (b) In SF4 hybridisation is sp3d.

Hybridisation = 1/2 (No. of σ bond + no. of atoms attached
Due to longer and thus weaker axial bonds, PCl5 is a
reactive molecule. ± charge)
6 + 4 10
= = 5
63. (c) 2 5
H H H H
74. (d) sp3d hybridisation is present in PCl5, SF4, I3–
H H But sp3d2 hybridisation is present in SbCl52–
H H H H 75. (c)
Coplanar are in a plane or where all C atoms are sp2
hybridised.
64. (a)

Both showing planar geometry with sp2 hybridisation. Rest

all NH2-, NH3, H2O are sp3 hybridised.
76. (c) BF3 and NO −2 have sp2 hybridisation having planar
geometry and linear geometry respectively.

65. (a) Each pi bond have 2e– involved so 4 pi bonds = 8e–.

66. (c) In diamond and silicon carbide, central atom is sp3

hybridised and hence, both are isostructural.
NH3 and PH3 both are pyramidal and central atom in both
cases in sp3 hybridised. SiCl4 and PCl4+, both are tetrahedral
and central atom in both cases is sp3 hybridised.
In XeF4, Xe is sp3d2 hybridised and structure is square 77. (d)
planar while in XeO4, Xe is sp3 hybridised and structrue is
tetrahedral.
Hybridisation of C2 , C3 , C5 , and C6 are as follows
sp , sp3, sp2 , sp3.
78. (b) More the ‘s’ character more the electronegativity thus
more the acidity.
sp > sp2 > sp3
50% 33.3% 25%
67. (a) Hybridisation of CO2 is sp O = C = O
79. (d) SiF4 has symmetrical tetrahedral shape, due to sp3
and of ethyne C2H2 is sp H – C ≡ C – H hybridisation of the central silicon atom in its excited state
68. (d) configuration.
SF4 has distorted tetrahedral shape or sea-saw geometry due
to sp3d hydridisation
80. (c) In BeF2 dipole moment is zero because of its linear shape
while water has net dipole moment because of its angular
shape.
H2O has angular structure with bond angle 105° while BeF2
is a linear molecule.
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 37

81. (d) In octahedral molecule, six hybrid orbital are directed
towards the corners of a regular octahedron with a bond
angle of 90°.
Here X - M - X bonds at 180° must be three.
91. (b) The strength of interaction follow the order van Der
Waals < hydrogen-bond < dipole-dipole < covalent. It is
so because bond length of H-bond is larger than that of a
covalent bond. Also covalent bond is strongest because, the
greater the extent of overlapping, the stronger is the bond
formed.
92. (b) CO2 molecule is sp-hybridised and thus it is linear, while
CO32 – is planar (sp2-hybridised), SO2 is an angular molecule
with sp2 hybridisation, SO 24 − is tetrahedral (sp3-hybridised).

82. (c) To minimise lone pair - lone pair repulsion 93. (a) According to VSEPR theory, a molecule with 6 bond
pairs must be octahedral.
94. (a) A σ-bond is stronger than a π-bond.
83. (d) 95. (a) When two hybridised orbitals belonging to two atoms
In NO3 ion, nitrogen has 4 bond pair of electrons and no
- undergoes linear combination, they form sigma bond.
lone pair of electrons. 96. (a) For linear arrangement of atoms the hybridisation is sp.
(bond angle = 180°).
84. (b) In sulphite ion ( SO3−2 ) → ‘S’ is sp3 hybridised
Only H2S has sp3-hybridisation and hence it has angular
shape while C2H2, BeH2 and CO2 all involve sp-hybridisation
and hence has linear arrangement of atoms.
97. (b) BF3 involves sp2-hybridisation
Excited state of ‘S’ atom
F
3p - e– form σ bond with three ‘O’ - atom,
d - electron form π bond with one oxygen atom B
F F
pπ = dπ - bonding.
98. (a) The type of overlap between s- and ­p-orbitals occurs
85. (b) For strong π-bonding, pπ – pπ bonding should be strong.
along internuclear axis and hence the angle is 180°.
Due to larger size of P, pπ – pπ bonding is weak compared
to N-atom.
86. (a) For π overlap the lobes of the atomic orbitals are
perpendicular to the line joining the nuclei.
+ + +
ππ-overlop
overlap 99. (b) Equilateral or triangular planar shape involves sp2
   hybridisation. e.g., BCl3.
px py
Px Py 100. (b) Among the given options, only SbCl5 is non-polar in
Hence only sidewise overlap takes place. nature, rest other are polar in nature.
CH2O
87. (a) Compound having same shape with same hybridisation O
are known as iso-structural. XeF2, IF–2 → both are sp3d
C
hybridised linear molecules.
H H
88. (b) In PO34− , P atom has vacant d-orbitals, thus it can form Polar molecule
p� – d� bond. ‘N’ and ‘C’ have no vacant ‘d’ orbital in their SbCl5
valence shell, so they cannot form such bond. Cl
89. (a) N2(14) → (σ1s) , (σ*1s) , (σ2s) ,
2 2 2 Cl
Cl Sb
(σ*2s) , (�2Px) , (�2Py) , (σ2pz)
2 2 2 2

Cl
N b − N a 10 − 4 Cl
In N2, bond order
= = = 3
2 2 It has Zero dipole moment because sum of bond moments is
9−4 zero, hence non-polar molecule
In N2+ bond order
= = 2.5
2 NO2
As the bond order in N2 is more than N2+ so the dissociation O
energy of N2 is higher than N2+ .
N
90. (d) BeCl2 and C2H2 have sp-hybridisation and C2H6 has
O
sp3-hybridisation. Polar molecule
 38 AV NEET 35 Years

POCl3 1
O NO3−= [5 + 0 + 1]
2
P = 3 → sp 2
Cl Cl
Cl 1
Polar molecule
NH +4= [5 + 4 − 1]
2
101. (d) For He2 molecule = 4 → sp3
Electronic configuration is σ1s2, σ*1s2 105. (b) O2 (atomic number) = 16
1 Molecular orbital Diagram:
B.O
= (N b − N a )
2
1
= (2 − 2)
2
=0
The bond order comes out to be zero. This indicates that there
is no bond formation between 2 He atoms and hence the He2
molecule does not exist.

102. (c) σ1s 2 , σ*1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , π2p 2x =

π2p 2y

Double bond in C2 consists of both p bonds because of the

presence of four electrons in two p molecular orbital. In other
molecule a double bond is made up of a sigma bond and a
pi bond.
103. (b) NO : (σ1s)2, (σ*1s)2, (σ2s)2, (σ*2s)2, (σ2pz)2, (π2px)2
= (π2py)2, (π*2px)1 = (π*2py)0
10 - 5
BO = = 2.5
2
CN– : (σ1s)2, (σ*1s)2, (σ2s)2, (σ*2s)2,
(π2px)2 = (π2py)2, (σ2pz)2
10 - 4 Bond order = 1/2 (No. of bonding orbital – no. of anti bonding
BO = =3 orbitals)
2
CN : (σ1s)2, (σ*1s)2, (σ2s)2, (σ*2s)2, = 1/2 (10 – 6) = 2
Similarly, For O–2 = 1.5
(π2px)2 = ( π2py)2, (σ2pz)1
O2–2 = 1
9-4
BO = = 2.5 1
2 and Bond order ∝ ∝ stability
Bond length
CN+ : (σ1s)2, (σ*1s)2, (σ2s)2, (σ*2s)2,
∴ Order of Bond length = O2–2 > O–2 > O2 > O+2
(π2px)2 = (π2py)2
106. (a) Bond order:
= O −2 1.5=O 2 2=O +2 2.5
8- 4
BO = =2
2 O +2 > O 2 > O −2
Hence, option (b) should be the right answer. 107. (c) Indentation Bond order: =
O 22 + 3,=
O −2 1.5,=
O +2 2.5
104. (c) Hybridisation state = Number of σ bond + number of lone → O 22 + > O 2+ > O 2−
pair or
108. (b) In paramagnetic species there is a presence of unpaired
Hybridisation state → from steric number rule electrons.
1 Except O2– all contains paired electrons.
Hybridisation state = (V.E + MA – C + a)
2
109. (a) By MOT for filling of e– in molecular orbitals
1
For, NO = ( 5 + 0 − 1)
+
2 Bond order of= He +2 0.5,
= NO 2.5,
= O −2 1.5 C 22 − = 3
2
= 2 → sp So, C22 − > NO > O −2 > He +2
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 39

110. (c) O 2 ⇒ σ1s 2σ*1s 2σ2s 2σ* 2s 2σ2p z2 ( π2p 2x = π2p 2y )( π* 2p1x = π* 2p1y ) 119. (a) Paramagnetic character is based upon presence of
unpaired electron
1
O 2 :Bond order = (8 − 4 ) = 2 Cl– = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3px2 3py2 3pz2
2 17

1 1 4
Be+ = 1s2 2s1
O +2 :Bond order = ( 8 − 3 )= 2 Ne 2 + = 1s 2 ,2s 2 2p 2x 2p1y 2p1z
2 2 10

1 1 As + = 1s 2 ,2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 2 3p 6 3d10 ,4s 2 4p1x 4p1y 4p 0z

O −2 :Bond order = ( 8 − 5 )= 1 33

2 2 Except Cl– all have unpaired electrons, so these are

1 paramagnetic in nature.
O 22− :Bond order = ( 8 − 6 ) = 1
2
120. (d) O 22 − (18) → (σ1s)2, (σ*1s)2(σ2s)2, (σ*2s)2 (�2pz)2, (σ2px)2,
111. (a) Electronic configuration of O2 (�2py)2, (�*2py)2, (�*2pz)2
σ (1s)2, σ* (1s)2, σ (2s)2, σ* (2s)2, σ (2Pz)2, π (2Px)2, π (2Py)2, * represents antibonding molecular orbitals
π* (2Px)1 = π*(2Py)1 Thus the no. of antibonding electrons in O22– ion is
So, incoming e- will enter in π* 2Px / π*2Py = 8 (4 pairs)
121. (b) Diamagnetism is caused due to the absence of unpaired
112. (a) Both O2+ and O2 are paramagnetic in nature since they
electrons. But in N2+ , there is unpaired electron. So, it is
contain 1 and 2 unpaired electrons respectively.
paramagnetic.
113. (c) Bond order of Be2 is zero
122. (b) In O2, the bond order is 2 and in O2– the bond order is
electronic configuration σ1s2σ*1s2σ2s2σ*2s2 1.5.
Nb = Na bond order = 0 N2– = 15 e–
Species with bond order zero, does not exist under normal Due to presence of 1 unpair e–, it shows paramagnetic
condition. character.
114. (a) Bond order - N 22− < N 2− < N 2 123. (d) Paramagnetism in caused by the presence of atoms, ions
• ••
2 2.5 3 or molecules with unpaired electrons, i.e. •• N = O ••
Electronic configuration: 124. (b) Number of electrons in bonding orbitals Nb = 10 and
N2 = σ1s σ*s σ2s σ2*s ( π2p =
2 2 2
π2p ) σ2p
2 2 2 2 number of electrons in antibonding orbitals Na = 4.
x y z
Therefore bond order = 1/2 (Nb – Na )
N 2− =σ1s 2σ*s 2σ2s 2σ2* s 2 ( π2p 2x =π2p 2y ) σ2p 2z ( π* 2p1x =π* 2p 0y )
= 1/2(10 – 4) = 3
N 22− =σ1s 2σ*s 2σ2s 2σ2* s 2 ( π2p 2x =π2p 2y ) σ2p z2 ( π2p1z =π2 2p1y )
125. (c) The bond order of O +2 = 2.5, O 22 − = 1, O −2 = 1.5 and that
115. (a) Bond order of C 2−
2 = 3.0 of O2 = 2.
NO = 2.5 126. (a) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding takes place within the
O −
= 1.5 same molecule i.e., between the atoms of the same molecule.
2
Since, cellulose is a complex structure containing oxygen
He2+ = 0.5
and hydrogen the bonding occurs between them easily.
Hence the order is: C22− > NO > O 2− > He 2+
Whereas, in HCN, H2O2 and concentrated acetic acid inter-
116. (a) Paramagnetic diatomic molecule with atomic number molecular hydrogen bonding occurs.
16 = O2. Eg.:
Electronic configuration:
σ1s2 σ* ls2 σ2s2 σ*2s2 σ2pz2 (π2p2x = π2py2) (π* 2px1 = π*2py1)
There are 2 unpaired e- in orbital π*2px1 and 2π* 2py1 127. (a) Electron density on X will increase and on H will
117. (c) ClO2 has 1 unpaired e in molecular hybridised orbital
– decrease.
exhibiting paramagnetic behaviour. 128. (c) H — F shows strongest H-bonds because fluorine is most
118. (c) In ‘CO’ (14 electrons), there is no unpaired electron electronegative.
in its molecular orbital. Therefore this does not exhibit 129. (a) H2O shows maximum H-bonding because each H2O
paramagnetism. molecule is linked to four H2O molecules through H-bonds.
 Work, Energy and
Chapter 5
Power

6. 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined

Work done
1. A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y direction where
F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to
move the particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is  (2019)
a. 30 J b. 5 J
c. 25 J d. 20 J
2. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling from
a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50 m/s.
Take ‘g’ constant with a value 10 m/s2. The work done by
the (i) gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of air is:
 (2017-Delhi)
a. (i) 1.25 J (ii) –8.25 J
b. (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J
c. (i) 10 J (ii) –8.75 J
d. (i) –10 J (ii) –8.25 J
plane of height 10 m. Taking g = 10 ms2, work done against
friction is: (2006)
a. 50 J b. 100 J
c. Zero d. 150 J
7. A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes
a displacement s in meters in it, given by the relation
s = (1/3) t2, where t is in s. Work done by the force in 2 s is:
 (2006)
a. (17/3)J b. (3/8)J
c. (8/3)J d. (3/17)J
8. A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown
here. The force is in N and x is in m. The work done by the
force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6 m is:(2005)

( ) (
3. A particle moves from a point -2iˆ + 5jˆ to 4ˆj + 3kˆ when
( )
a force of 4iˆ + 3jˆ N is applied. How much work has been
done by the force? (2016 - II)
a. 5 J b. 2 J
c. 8 J d. 11 J
( )
4. A uniform force of 3iˆ + ˆj newton acts on a particle of mass
(
2 kg. Hence the particle is displaced from position 2iˆ + kˆ
( )
metre to position 4iˆ + 3jˆ - kˆ metre. The work done by the
force on the particle is: (2013)
a. 15 J b. 9 J
c. 6 J d. 13 J
5. Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with
distance d as shown in the figure. The work done on the
particle during its displacement of 12 m is: (2011 Pre)
a. 18 J b. 21 J
c. 26 J d. 13 J
)
a. 10.5 J b. 13.5 J
) c. 8.5 J d. 6.5 J
9. Two springs A and B (KA = 2KB) are stretched by same
suspended weights then ratio of work done in stretching is:
 (1999)
a. 1 : 2 b. 2 : 1
c. 1 : 1 d. 1 : 4
10. If x = 3 – 4t2 + t3, then work done in first 4 s. Will be (Mass
of the particle is 3 gram): (1998)
a. 384 mJ b. 168 mJ
c. 192 mJ d. None of these
11. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight line under
the action of a 5 N force. If the work done is 25 J, then angle
between the force and direction of motion of the body is:
 (1997)
a. 60° b. 75°
c. 30° d. 45°
 44 AV NEET 35 Years

12. A body, constrained to move in y–direction, is subjected to a

 ^ ^ ^
force given by F =(-2 i + 15 j + 6 k ) N The work done by this
^
Energy and Conservation of
force in moving the body through a distance of 10 j m along Mechanical Energy
y–axis, is: (1994)
a. 150 J b. 20 J
c. 190 J d. 160 J 20. A particle is released from height S from the surface of the
Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times
13. A position dependent force, F = (7 – 2x + 3x2) N acts on its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth
a small body of mass 2 kg and displaces it from x = 0 to and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively:
x = 5 m. The work done in joule is: (1994, 92)  (2021)
a. 135 b. 270 S 3gS S 3gS
c. 35 d. 70 a. , b. ,
4 2 2 2
14. When a body moves with a constant speed along a circle: S 3gS S 3gS
 (1994) c. , d. ,
4 2 4 2
a. No work is done on it
21. A body initially at rest, breaks up into two pieces of masses
b. No acceleration is produced in it
2 M and 3 M respectively, together having a total kinetic
c. Its velocity remains constant energy E. The piece of mass 2 M, after breaking up, has a
d. No force acts on it kinetic energy. (2017-Gujarat)
15. A bullet of mass 10 g leaves a rifle at an initial velocity of 100
m/s and strikes the earth at the same level with a velocity of a. 2E b.
E
5 2
500 m/s. The work done in joule overcoming the resistance
3E
of air will be: (1989) c. E d.
a. 375 b. 3750 5 5
c. 5000 d. 500 22. A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium
and helium. Then: (2015 Re)
Work Energy Theorem a. The helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the
thorium nucleus.
16. A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a velocity b. The helium has more kinetic energy than the thorium
of 400 ms–1 strikes a wooden block of mass 2 kg which is nucleus.
suspended by a light inextensible string of length 5 m. As c. The helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium
a result, the center of gravity of the block is found to rise a nucleus.
vertical distance of 10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it d. The helium nucleus has more momentum than the thorium
emerges out horizontally from the block will be:(2016 - II) nucleus.
a. 120 ms–1 b. 160 ms–1 23. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly
c. 100 ms–1 d. 80 ms–1 explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each of mass (m)
17. A block of mass 10 kg moving in x direction with a move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (v). The
constant speed of 10 ms–1, is subjected to a retarding force total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is: (2014)
F = –0.1x J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m. Its a. mv2 b. 3/2mv2
final K.E. will be: (2015) c. 2 mv2 d. 4 mv2
a. 450 J b. 275 J
24. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly
c. 250 J d. 475 J explodes into three pieces. Two pieces, each of mass (m)
18. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (v). The
m/s. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is (2014)
of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? 3
(g = 10 m/s2) (2009) a. mv2 b.
mν 2
2
a. 30 J b. 40 J c. 2mv2 d. 4mv2
c. 10 J d. 20 J
25. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane.
19. A car is moving with velocity V. If car stop after applying Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The first part
break at a distance of 20 m. If velocity of car is doubled, of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms–1 and the second part
then how much distance it will cover (travel) after applying of mass 2 kg moves with 8 ms–1 speed. If the third part flies off
break: (1998) with 4 ms–1 speed, then its mass is: (2013)
a. 40 m b. 80 m a. 17 kg b. 3 kg
c. 160 m d. 320 m c. 5 kg d. 7 kg
Work, Energy and Power
A B
26. The potential energy of particle in a force field is U = - m1 and m2 which move in opposite directions with velocities
r2 r
where A and B are positive constants and r is the distance of
particle from the centre of the field. For stable equilibrium,
the distance of the particle is: (2012 Pre)
a. B/2A b. 2A/B
c. A/B d. B/A
27. The potential energy of a system increases if work is done:
 (2011 Pre)
a. Upon the system by a nonconservative force
b. By the system against a conservative force
c. By the system against a nonconservative force
d. Upon the system by a conservative force
28. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. two parts go
off at right angles to each other. These two are, 1 kg first
part moving with a velocity of 12 ms–1 and 2 kg second part
moving with a velocity 8 ms–1. If the third part flies off with
a velocity of 4 ms–1, its mass would be: (2009)
a. 7 kg b. 17 kg
c. 3 kg d. 5 kg
29. A shell of mass 200 gm is ejected from a gun of mass 4 kg by an
explosion that generates 1.05 kJ of energy. The initial velocity
of the shell is (2008)
a. 40 m/s b. 120 m/s
c. 100 m/s d. 80 m/s
30. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of
masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of 18 kg mass is 6
ms–1. The kinetic energy of the other mass is: (2005)
a. 243 J b. 486 J
c. 564 J d. 388 J
31. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio
of kinetic energy to the magnitude of potential energy is:
 (2005)
a. 4 b. 1/2
1 1
c. d. is in stable equilibrium, when:
2 4
32. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and
another particle of mass m2 is moving with a velocity vb.
Both of them have the same momentum but their different
kinetic energies are E1 and E2 respectively. If m1 > m2 then:
 (2004)
E m
a. 1 = 1 b. E1 > E2
E2 m2
c. E1 = E2 d. E1 < E2
33. A ball of mass 2 kg and another of mass 4 kg are dropped
together from a 60 feet tall building. After a fall of 30 feet each
towards earth, their respective kinetic energies will be in the
ratio of: (2004)
a. 1 : 4 b. 1 : 2
c. 1: 2 d.
2 :1
45
34. A stationary particle explodes into two particles of masses
v1 and v2. The ratio of their kinetic energies E1/E2 is:(2003)
a. m2/m1 b. m1/m2
c. 1 d. m1v2/m2v1
35. If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300% than
percentage change in momentum will be: (2002)
a. 100% b. 150%
c. 265% d. 73.2%
36. A child is sitting on a swing. Its minimum and maximum
heights from the ground is 0.75 m and 2 m respectively, its
maximum speed will be: (2001)
a. 10 m/s b. 5 m/s
c. 1 m/s d. 15 m/s
37. The K.E. of a person is just half of K.E. of a boy whose mass
is just half of that person. If person increases its speed by 1 m/s,
then its K.E. equals to that of boy then initial speed of person
was: (1999)
a. ( 2 + 1) m/s b.
( 2 + 2 ) m/s
c. 2 ( 2 + 2 ) m/s d. None
38. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are moving with equal kinetic
energies. The ratio of their linear momenta is:(1998, 97, 89)
a. 1 : 2 b. 1 : 4
c. 4 : 1 d. 1 : 1
39. A moving body of mass m and velocity 3 km/hour collides
with a rest body of mass 2 m and sticks to it. Now the
combined mass starts to move. What will be the combined
velocity? (1996)
a. 3 km/hour b. 4 km/hour
c. 1 km/hour d. 2 km/hour
40. The potential energy between two atoms, in a molecule,
a b
is given by U ( x) = 12 - 6 where a and b are positive
x x
constants and x is the distance between the atoms. The atom
(1995)
1/ 6 1/ 6
 2a   11a 
a. x =   x=
b. 
 b   5b 
1/ 6
 a 
c. x = 0 d. x =  
 2b 
41. The kinetic energy acquired by a mass m in travelling
distance d, starting from rest, under the action of a constant
force is directly proportional to: (1994)
a. m b. m0
c. m d.
1/ m
42. Two masses of 1 g and 9 g are moving with equal kinetic
energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their respective
linear momenta is: (1993)
a. 1 : 9 b. 9 : 1
c. 1 : 3 d. 3 : 1
 46
43. A particle of mass M is moving in a horizontal circle of
radius R with uniform speed v. When it moves from one
point to a diametrically opposite point, its: (1992)
a. Kinetic energy change by Mv2/4
b. Momentum does not change
c. Momentum change by 2Mv
d. Kinetic energy changes by Mv2
Energy in a Spring
44. Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants KP and KQ
such that KP > KQ. They stretched first by the same amount
(case a), then by the same force (case b). The work done by
the springs WP and WQ are related as in case (a) and case (b),
respectively: (2015)
a. WP = WQ ; WP = WQ b. WP > WQ ; WQ > WP
c. WP < WQ ; WQ < WP d. WP = WQ ; WP > WQ
45. A block of mass M is attached to the lower end of a
vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling and has
force constant value k. The mass is released from rest with
the spring initially unstretched.The maximum extension
produced in the length of the spring will be: (2009)
a. 2 Mg/k b. 4 Mg/k
c. Mg/2k d. Mg/k
46. A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table.
A ball of mass m at a height h above the free upper end of
the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the spring is
compressed by a distance d. The net work done in the process
is:  (2007)
1 2 1 2
a. mg ( h + d ) - kd b. mg ( h - d ) - kd
2 2
1 2 1 
c. mg ( h - d ) + kd d. mg ( h + d ) + kd 2
2 2
47. The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm
is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm the potential energy
stored in it is: (2006)
a. 4U b. U/8
c. 16U d. U/4
48. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a
horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless
spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. The maximum
compression of the spring would be: (2004)
a. 0.12 m b. 1.5 m
c. 0.5 m d. 0.15 m
49. When a long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its potential energy
is U. If the spring is stretched by 10 cm, the potential energy
stored in it will be: (2003)
a. U/5 b. 5 U
c. 10 U d. 25 U
AV NEET 35 Years
50. Two springs A and B having spring constant KA and KB
(KA = 2KB) are stretched by applying force of equal
magnitude. If energy stored in spring A is E then energy
stored in B will be: (2001)
E
a. 2E b.
4
E
c. d. 4E
2
51. When a spring is subjected to 4 N force its length is a metre,
and if 5 N is applied length is b metre. If 9 N is applied its
length is: (1999)
a. 4b – 3a b. 5b – a
c. 5b – 4a d. 5b – 2a
Vertical Circle
52. A point mass ‘m’ is moved in a vertical circle of radius ‘r’
with the help of a string. The velocity of the mass is 7gr
at the lowest point. The tension in the string at the lowest
point is (2020-Covid)
a. 7 mg b. 8 mg
c. 1 mg d. 6 mg
53. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical
circle. The wire is most likely to break when:  (2019)
a. The mass is at the highest point
b. The wire is horizontal
c. The mass is at the lowest point
d. Inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical
54. A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track
from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a
vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to:
(2018)
a. 7 D b. D
5
5
c. 3 D d.
D
2 4
55. What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m
must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete
the loop? (2016 - I)
a. gR b.
2gR
c. 5gR
3gR d.
56. A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius
6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the
magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the
particle becomes equal to 8 × 10–4 J by the end of the second
revolution after the beginning of the motion? (2016 - I)
a. 0.1 m/s2 b. 0.15 m/s2
c. 0.18 m/s2 d. 0.2 m/s2
Work, Energy and Power 47

57. A stone is tied to a string of length ‘l’ and is whirled in a
vertical circle with the other end of the string at the centre.
At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest position
and has a speed ‘u’. The magnitude of the change in velocity
as it reaches a position where the string is horizontal (g being
acceleration due to gravity) is: (2004)
a. u - u 2 - 2g
u 2 - g b.
c. 2 u - g
2g d. ( 2
) arteries per minute at a pressure of 150 mm of mercury. If
58.
A mass is performing vertical circular motion
(see figure). If the average velocity of the particle is increased,
then at which point the string will break: (2000)
a. A b. B
c. C d. D
Power
59. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to
operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of
the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine?
(g = 10 m/s2) (2021)
a. 8.1 kW b. 12.3 kW
c. 7.0 kW d. 10.2 kW
60. A body starts moving unidirectionally under the influence
of a source of constant power. Which one of the graph
correctly shows the variation of displacement (s) with time
(t)? (2017-Gujarat)
62. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a
constant power k watts. If the particle starts from rest the
force on the particle at time t is: (2015)
-1 -1
a. mkt 2 b.
2mkt 2
-1
mk -21
c. 1 mkt 2 d. t
2 2
63. The heart of a man pumps 5 litres of blood through the
the density of mercury be 13.6 × 103 kg/m3 and g = 10m/s2,
then the power of heart in watt is: (2015 Re)
a. 1.50 b. 1.70
c. 2.35 d. 3.0
64. A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that
the instantaneous power delivered to the car has a constant
magnitude P0. The instantaneous velocity of this car is
proportional to: (2012 Mains)
a. t2P0 b. t1/2
1
c. t-1/2 d.
m
65. A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height
equal to earth’s radius before returning to the earth. The
power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest:
 (2011 Pre)
a. At the highest position of the body
b. At the instant just before the body hits the earth
c. It remains constant all through
d. At the instant just after the body is projected
66. A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height
equal to earth’s radius before returning to the earth. The
power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest
 (2011 Pre)
a. At the highest position of the body
b. At the instant just before the body hits the earth
c. It remains constant all through
d. At the instant just after the body is projected

a. b. 67. A particle of mass M starting from rest undergoes uniform

acceleration. If the speed acquired in time T is V, the power
delivered to the particle is: (2010 Mains)
2
2 MV 2
a. 1 MV2 b.
2 T 1 T2
c. d.
MV 2 1 MV 2
c. 2
d.
T 2 T
68. An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water
61. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit
length of the water jet. What is the rate at which kinetic
time dependent force =
F ( 2tiˆ + 3t ˆj) N, where
2
î and ĵ
energy is imparted to water? (2009)
are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be
1 2
a. mv3 b.
developed by the force at the time t? (2016 - I) mv
2
a. (2t2 + 3t2)W b. (2t2 + 4t4)W
c. 1 m 2v 2 d.
1 3
mv
c. (2t3 + 4t4)W d. (2t3 + 3t5)W 2 2
 48 AV NEET 35 Years

69. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to

operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional forces are 10%
of energy. How much power is generated by the turbine?
(g = 10 m/s2) (2008)
a. 7.0 kW b. 8.1 kW
c. 10.2 kW d. 12.3 kW
70. 250 N force is required to raise 75 kg mass from a pulley.
If rope is pulled 12 m then the load is lifted to 3 m, the
efficiency of pulley system will be: (2001)
a. 25% b. 33.3%
c. 75% d. 90%
 
71. If F = (60iˆ +15j-
ˆ 3k)N
ˆ and V = (2iˆ - 4jˆ + 5k)
ˆ m / s then
instantaneous power is: (2000)
a. 195 watt b. 45 watt
c. 75 watt d. 100 watt
72. How much water a pump of 2 kW can raise in one minute
to a height of 10 m ? (Take g = 10 m/s2) (1990)
a. 1000 litres b. 1200 litres
c. 100 litres d. 2000 litres
Collision
c. 1 m12 u12 + 1 m 22 u 22 +
= ε
1 2 2 1 2 2
m1 ν1 + m 2ν 2
2 2 2 2
d. m12 u1 + m 22 u 2 - ε= m12ν1 + m 22ν 2
77. On a frictionless surface, a block of mass M moving at speed
v collides elastically with another block of same mass M
which is initially at rest. After collision the first block moves
at an angle θ to its initial direction and has a speed v/3. The
second block’s speed after the collision is: (2015 Re)
a. 3 b. 2 2 ν
ν
2 3
3 3
c. ν d. ν
4 2
78. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m
with an initial velocity u0 It collides with the ground, loses 50
percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same
height. The initial velocity u0 is: (Take g = 10 ms–2)
 (2015 Re)
a. 10 m/s b. 14 m/s
c. 20 m/s d. 28 m/s

73. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with 79. Two particles A and B, move with constant motion in one
 
another body B of mass 2m, at rest. The collision is head on dimensional with velocities v1 and v 2 . At the initial moment
 
and elastic in nature. After the collision the fraction of energy their position vectors are r1 and r2 respectively. The condition
lost by the colliding body A is: (2019) for particle A and B for their collision is: (2015 Re)
1 8    
a. b.     r1 - r2 ν 2 - ν1
9 9 a. r1 - r2 = ν1 - ν 2 b.   =  
r1 - r2 ν 2 - ν1
4 5
c. d.        
9 9 c. r1 . ν1 = r2 . ν 2 d.
r1 ×ν1= r2 ×ν 2
74. A moving block having mass m, collides with another 80. Two spheres A and B of masses m1, and m2 respectively
stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes
collide. A is at rest initially and B is moving with velocity v
to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter
block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution(e) will v
along x-axis. After collision B has a velocity in a direction
be  (2018) 2
a. 0.8 b. 0.25 perpendicular to the original direction. The mass A moves
c. 0.5 d. 0.4 after collision in the direction. (2012 Pre)

75.
Two identical balls A and B having velocities of a. Same as that of B
0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s respectively collide elastically in one b. Opposite of that of B
dimension. The velocities of B and A after the collision
c. θ = tan–1 (1/2) to the x-axis
respectively will be: (2016 - II)
d. θ = tan–1 (–1/2) to the x-axis
a. –0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s b. 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
c. –0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s d. 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s 81. A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with
76. Two particles of masses m1, m2 move with initial velocities velocity v collides and sticks to a mass of 3m moving
u1 and u2. On collision, one of the particles get excited to vertically upward (along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The
higher level, after absorbing energy ε. If final velocities of final velocity of the combination is: (2011 Mains)
particles be v1 and v2, then we must have: (2015)
1 1 1 1 1 ˆ 3 ˆ 1 ˆ 2 ˆ
a. m1u12 + m 2 u=
2
m1ν12 + m 2ν 22 - ε
a. vi + vj b. vi + vj
2 2
2
2 2 4 2 3 3
1 1 1 1 3 ˆ 1 ˆ
b. m1u1 + m 2 u 2 -=
2 2
ε m1ν12 + m 2ν 22 c. 2 viˆ + 1 vjˆ d. vi + vj
2 2 2 2 3 3 2 4
Work, Energy and Power 49

82. A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity 86. A ball is dropped from a height of 5 m, if it rebound upto height
v collides and sticks to a mass of 3 m moving vertically upward of 1.8 m, then the ratio of velocities of the ball after and before
(along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the rebound is: (1998)
combination is (2011 Mains)
1 3 3 2
a. 3 viˆ + 1 vjˆ b. viˆ + vjˆ a. b.
2 4 4 2 5 5
1 2 2 1 1 4
c. viˆ + vjˆ d. viˆ + vjˆ c. d.
3 3 3 3 5 5

83. A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head on with
another stationary ball of double the mass. If the coefficient
of restitution is 0.5 then their velocities (in m/s) after collision
will be:  (2010 Pre)
a. 0, 2 b. 0, 1
c. 1, 1 d. 1, 0.5
84. An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes
through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of 2 m/s. The
mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What
is the power of the engine? (2010 Pre)
a. 800 W b. 400 W
c. 200 W d. 100 W
85. Two identical balls A and B are moving with velocity
+0.5 ms–1 and –0.3 ms–1 respectively. They collide head on
elastically then their velocities after collision will be:(1998)
a. –0.3 ms–1 and 0.5 ms–1 b. +0.5 ms–1 and +0.3 ms–1
c. –0.4 ms–1 and 0.3 ms–1 d. 0.3 ms–1 and –0.4 ms–1
87. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with speed of 36 km/h
has a head on collision with a stationary ball of mass 3 kg.
If after collision, both the balls move as a single mass, then
the loss in K.E. due to collision is: (1997)
a. 100 J b. 140 J
c. 40 J d. 60 J
88. Two identical balls A and B collide head on elastically. If
velocities of A and B, before the collision, are +0.5 m/s and
–0.3 m/s respectively, then their velocities, after the collision,
are respectively: (1994, 91)
a. –0.5 m/s and +0.3 m/s b. +0.5 m/s and +0.3 m/s
c. +0.3 m/s and –0.5 m/s d. –0.3 m/s and +0.5 m/s
89. The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly elastic collision
is: (1988)
a. 1 b. 0
c. ∞ d. – 1

Answer Key

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
c c a b d b c b a a a a a a b a d
18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
d b c d b b b c b b d c b b d b a
35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51
a b a a c a b c c b a a c d d a c
52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
b c d d a d b a d d d b b b b d d
69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
b c b b b b d b b c b d a b b a a
86 87 88 89
a d d a
 50 AV NEET 35 Years

Explanations

1. (c) Work done by variable force is Total work done ∆K.E.

yf (Here ∆K.E. = 0 )
W= ∫ Fdy Work done by external Force = 300 J
yi
Work done by gravity = mgh = 2 × 10 ×10 = 200 J
Here, yi= 0, yf= 1 m Work done by friction = Wf
1 1 Since, work done by gravity and friction is negative.
\ W= ∫ ( 20 + 10y ) dy=  20y + 5y 2  = 25J ⇒ 300 – 200 – Wf = ∆KE = 0 ⇒ Wf = 100 J
0 0 Hence, work done against friction is 100 J
2. (c) Apply work energy theorem 1 2
7. (c)  s = t
Wall force = Kf – Ki 3
ds 2
W(conservative) + W(non conservative) = Kf – Ki =v = t m/s
dt 3
2× 2 4
At= t 2,=v = m/s
3 3
t = 0 , v = 0 m/s
According to Work – Energy theorem,
W = ∆K.E
Wg = mgh 1 2 1 2
= mv 2 - mv1 [Mass of body = 3 kg]
= 10–3 × 10 ×103 2 2
= 10 J
1  4  2
2

1 2 = × 3   - ( 0 ) 
(U1 – U2) +=
Wfr mv - 0 [Ki = 0 , u = 0] 2  3  
2
1 2 3 16 8
mgh +=
Wfr mv -[U2 = 0] = × = J
2 2 9 3
1 8. (b) As we know,
10–3 × 10 × 1000 + Wfr = × 10-3 × ( 50 )
2

2 x =6

10 + Wfr = 1.25 Work done = ∫ Fdx

x =0
↓
So, work done is equal to the area under F-x curve
Work done by gravitational force
W = Area of square + Area of triangle
Wfr = –8.75 J 1
= 3 × 3 + × 3 × 3 = 9 + 4.5 = 13.5 J
   2
3. (a) s = rf - ri = 2iˆ - ˆj + 3kˆ
  1 2
( )
W = F.s = 4iˆ + 3jˆ .  2iˆ - j + 3kˆ  = 8 - 3 = 5 J
 
9. (a) W =
2
Kx , F = -Kx

  1 F2 F2
( )
4. (b) W= F.S= 3iˆ + ˆj . ( 4 - 2 ) ˆi + ( 3 - 0 ) ˆj + ( -1 - 1) k 
 
=W = K. 2
2 K 2K
ˆ( ˆ )( ˆ ˆ ˆ )
= 3i + j . 2i + 3j - 2k ⇒ 3 ( 2 ) + 1( 3) + 0 ( -2 ) = 9 J W∝
1
K
 
5. (d) Work done = ∫ F.dx WA K B KB 1
= = =
WB K A 2K B 2
= Area under F.d graph
1 10. (a) Work energy theorem W = ΔK.E, x = 3 – 4t2 + t3
= 2 × ( 7 - 3) + × 2 × 5 = 13 J dx
2 v= = -8t + 3t 2
dt
6. (b) v1 (t = 0) = 0
v2 (t = 40) = 16
Therefore,
1 1 1
K.E = mv 22 - mv12 = × 3 × 10-3 × 16 × 16 - 0
2 2 2
= 384 mJ
Work, Energy and Power 51

11. (a) Distance (s) = 10 m; Force (F) = 5 N and work done (W) 17. (d) F = –0.1 x J/m
= 25 J. According to Work Energy theorem
Work done (W) = Fs cos θ = 25 Work done by all force = Kf – Ki
∴ 25 = 5 × 10 cos θ = 50 cos θ ⇒ ∫ F.dx =
Kf - Ki
Or cos θ = 25/50 = 0.5 or θ = 60°. 30
1
 ⇒ ∫ -0.1x dx = K f - × mu 2
^ ^ ^
2
12. (a) Force F =(-2 i + 15 j + 6 k ) N and distance 20

^ 30

(d ) = 10 j m.  x2  1
( - ) 0.1  = K f - × 10 × 102
Work done  2  20 2
  ^ ^ ^ ^ 1 20
W =F .d =(-2 i + 15 j + 6 k ).(10 j )  x 2 = K f - 500
10 × 2 30

= 150 N-m = 150 J. Limit inverse to make –ve to positive

13. (a) Force (F) = 7 – 2x + 3x2; 1
× [ 400 - 900] =K f - 500
Mass (m) = 2 kg and displacement d = 5 m. 20
Therefore work done 500
- =K f - 500
5 20
∫ Fdx = ∫ (7 - 2 x + 3x )dx =
2
(W ) = [7 x - x 2 + x3 ]50 K f = 500 - 25 = 475 J
0

= (7 × 5) – (5)2 + (5)3 = 35 – 25 + 125 = 135 J. 18. (d) By using Work – Energy theorem,
14. (a) By work energy theorem W = ΔK.E.
W = ΔKE 1 1
⇒ -mgh - Wfriction = 0 - mu 2 ⇒ - Wfriction = - mu 2 + mgh
Speed is constant hence ΔKE = 0 2 2
W=0
15. (b) Work done = Change in kinetic energy of the body
1
W= × 0.01[(1000) 2 - (500) 2 ] =
3750 joule
2
16. (a) AB = 5 m
1
⇒ Wfriction = mu 2 - mgh
2
= 200 – 180 = 20 J [m = 1 kg, u = 20 m/s, h = 18 m]
19. (b) v2 = u2 – 2as v=0
2
u 20 u 2
s= ⇒ s ∝ u2 ⇒ = s' = 80 m
2a s' 4u 2
Apply conservation of linear momentum 20. (c) Required figure,
mu + 0 = mv + MV u
10 10 =
× 400
= +0 v + 2V 0
1000 1000
0.01v + 2V = 4  ...(1) V S
PE = KE h
1
MgH= × MV 2
2 Particle is released, i.e., its initial velocity is zero,
10 1 u = 0 m/s.
2 × 10 × = × 2 × V 2 ⇒ V2 = 2
100 2 Let the height at any instant be ‘h’.
V = 2 ms -1 Total energy remains conserved at any point.
Substituting the value of V in Eq. (1), we get
⇒ K.E + P.E = ETotal
v
100
4 ⇒ v = 4 - 2 2 100
+2 2 = ( ) ⇒ 3 P.E + P.E = ETotal [Acc–d to the question] ⇒ 4 P.E = ETotal
S
 120 ms-1 ⇒ 4(mgh) = mgS ⇒ h =
4
 52 AV NEET 35 Years

Velocity of a particle under free fall is given by;  

pi = p f
V = 2gh = mviˆ + mvjˆ + 2mv '
 S 3gS  v v
V
= 2g  S - =
 v'= - iˆ - ˆj
 4 2 2 2

The magnitude of ν ' is
21. (d)
2 2
 ν  ν ν
Fext = 0 ν '= -  +-  =
  2  2 2
P = constant Total kinetic energy generated due to explosion
2
P 1 1 2 1 2 1
K.E. = ⇒ K.E. ∝ = mν + mν + ( 2m ) ν '2
2m m 2 2 2
3E 1 2 1 2 1  ν 
2
\ K.E 2M = = mν + mν + ( 2m ) 
5 2 2 2 
 2
22. (b) According to conservation of linear momentum mν 2 3 2
= mν 2 + = mν
pf = pi = 0 ⇒ pHe - pTn = 0 ⇒ pHe = pTn 2 2

1 25. (c)
but K ∝ and mHe < mTh ⇒ So KHe > KTn
m
23. (b)

From conservation of momentum

m ( 4) = (1× 12 ) + ( 2 × 8 ) ⇒ m = 5 kg
2 2

dU 2A B 2A
By conservation of linear momentum 26. (b) F = = - 3 + 2 = 0 ⇒ r=
dr r r B
v
2mv
= 2mv ⇒ =
v1 2A d 2 U
1
2 = At r = ; 2 +ve, so stable equilibrium
B dr
1 1 1  
Total K.E generated = mv 2 + mv 2 + ( 2m ) v 2 27. (b) As we know ⇒ U =- ∫ F.dx
2 2 4
mv 2 3 2 where F is conservative force
= mv 2 + = mv
2 2 28. (d) When an explosion breaks a rock, by the law of
conservation of momentum, initial momentum is zero and
24. (b)
for the three pieces,

Total momentum of the two pieces 1 kg and 2 kg


Let ν ' be velocity of third piece of mass 2m.

Initial momentum, p i = 0 (As the body is at rest)
  Velocity = 4ms–1
Final momentum, p i = mviˆ + mvjˆ + 2mv '
According to law of conservation of momentum
= 122 + 162 = 20 kg ms -1
The third piece has the same momentum and in the direction
opposite to the resultant of these two momenta.
∴ Momentum of the third piece = 20 kg ms–1
mv 20
∴ Mass of the 3rd piece
= = = 5kg
v 4
Work, Energy and Power 53

m
29. (c) mv= Mv' ⇒ v'=   v
M
Total K.E. of the bullet and gun
1 2 1
= mv + Mv'2 33. (b)
2 2
1 2 1 m2
Total=K.E. mv + M. 2 v 2
2 2 M
1 2 m
Total
= K.E. mv 1 + 
2  M
1 2
1  0.2  2 KE1 2 m1v1 m1 2 1
 0.2 1 +
=× v =
1.05 × 1000 J = = = = [⸪ V1 = V2]
 2  4  KE 2 1 m v 2 m 2 4 2
2 2
4 × 1.05 × 1000 2
⇒ v2
= = 1002
0.1 × 4.2 34. (a) m­1v1 = m2v2 (P1 = P2);
∴ v = 100 m/s 1 2
P12
mv
E1 2 1 1 2m1 m 2
30. (b) 30 kg, u = 0 = = = [⸪ P1 = P2]
E 2 1 m v2 P22 m1
2 2
2 2m 2
35. (a)
= P1 2mE1 ;P2
= 2mE 2

 300 
= 2m  E1 + E1  = 2m(4E1 ) = 2P1
 100 
P2 - P1 2P2 - P1
% change= × 100
= × 100
= 100%
P1 P1
According to law of conservation of linear momentum
m1v1 + m2v2 = Mu ⇒ m1v1 + m2v2 = 0

-m v
v 2 = 1 1 ⇒ 18 × 6 =-12 × v 2 ⇒ v 2 =-9 m/s
m2
36. (b)
So, kinetic energy of other mass
1
= mv 2
2
1
= × 12 × ( -9 ) ⇒ 6 × 81 = 486 J
2

h = 2m
31. (b) - GMm + mω2 R =0
R2 3
h1 = m or ( 0.75 )
4
GMm
\ mω2 R
= According to conservation of energy
R2
PA + KA = PB + KB
1 2 1 GMm
K.E.= Iω = mR 2ω2 = 1
2 2 2R mgh += 0 mgh1 + mv 2max
2
GMm
P.E. = - 3 v 2max
R 10 × 2 = 10 × +
4 2
P.E. v 2max
\ K.E. = 20
= 7.5 +
2 2
K.E. 1 v 2max
\ = = 20 - 7.5
P.E. 2 2
v 2max
= 12.5
P2 1 2
32. (d)  E= \E ∝ if m1 > m2 then E1 < E2 2
v max = 25
2m m ⇒ vmax = 5 m/s
 54 AV NEET 35 Years

37. (a) Let initial speed of man of mass m be u 44. (b) Given KP > KQ
Then Case (a) : x1 = x2 = x
1 1 1 2
K.E man = mu 2 & K.E boy = 2 × mu 2 =mu 2 WP 2 K P x K
2 2 = = P ⇒ WP > WQ
WQ 1
Now if man increases his speed by 1 m/s then KQx2 KQ
2
1 u +1
K.E man
= m(u + 1)=2 K.E 'boy
= mu 2 ⇒ = 2 Case (b) : F1 = F2 = F
2 u
For constant force
1 2 +1
⇒ u=
2 -1
× =
2 +1
( )
2 + 1 m/s W=
F2
⇒W∝
1
2K K
38. (a) Mass of first body = m; WP K Q
So, = ⇒ WQ > WP
Mass of second body = 4 m and K.E1 = K.E2. WQ K P
Linear momentum of a body 45. (a) Let the maxm extension produced
=P 2mE ∝ m .
In the length of the spring is x.
Then,
P1 m1 m 1 1 1
Therefore = = = = ⇒ kx 2 = Mgx
P2 m2 4m 4 2 2
[Gravitational P.E gets stored as elastic potential
Or P1 : P2 = 1 : 2
energy]
39. (c) Mass of body (m1) = m; 2Mg
⇒x=
Velocity of first body (u1) = 3 km/hour; Mass of second body k
in rest (m2) = 2m 46. (a) Since the spring is compressed by a distance
Velocity of second body (u2) = 0. d, mass m will go downward for distance
After combination, mass of the body (h + d), and the work done by the spring is negative.
Net work done in process = Work done by
M = m + 2m = 3m
gravitational force + work done by spring force.
From the law of conservation of momentum, we get
1
Mv = m1u1 + m2u2 ⇒W = mg ( h + d ) - kd 2
2
Or 3mv = (m × 3) + ( 2m × 0) = 3m
1
Or v = 1 km/hour 47. (c) Potential energy ( U ) = kx 2
2
x = displacement
a b 12a -6b
40. (a) U ( x) = - 6 or - 13 - 7 =0
x12
x x x Here, x = 2 cm

2a  2a 
1/ 6
1
k × ( 2 ) ⇒ 2k
2
=Or x
6
= . Therefore x   . ⇒U=
b  b  2
Again, x 1 = 8 cm
41. (b) v2 = u2 + 2as or v2 – u2 = 2as
1 1
k × ( 8 ) ⇒ U1 = k × 64 = 32k
2
2 2 F 2 2 Fs ⇒ U1 =
Or v - (0) =2 × × s or v = 2 2
m m
⇒ U 1 =16 × ( 2k ) [ U =2k ]
1 2 1 2 Fs
And K .E. = mv = m × =Fs. ⇒ U1 =
16U
2 2 m
K.E. is independent of m or directly proportional to m0. 48. (d) Surface is smooth only conservative force apply
K1 p M 2 2 conservation of energy
42. (c) = × 1 2

K2 p M 2
2 1
2 k1 + p1(spring) = k2 + p2(spring)
When K1 = K2 1 2 1
mv + 0 = 0 + kx 2
p1 M1 1 1 2 2
= = =
p2 M2 9 3 mv 2
x=
k
∴ p1 : p2 = 1 : 3
m
43. (c) On the diametrically opposite points, the velocities have x=v
same magnitude but opposite directions. Therefore change in k
momentum is 0.5
= 1.5 = 0.15 m
Mv – (– Mv) = 2 Mv 50
Work, Energy and Power 55

1 1 1 1  10  2
49. (d) U = K(2)
= 2
; U' = K(10) 2 25U 56. (a) mv 2 =
E→  8 × 10-4
v =
2 2 2 2  1000 
kx 2 k 2 x 2 f2 16
50. (a) E=
2
=
2k
⇒ E=
2k
v2 =(8 ×10-4 ) 200 =
100
ms -1

1 4
⸪ Force is equal \ E ∝ v = ms -1
k 10
51. (c) Let natural length of spring be  o then according to Now applying v2 – u2 = 2as
question 2
 4
4 = K (a –  o )   = 2a ( 4pR ) ; s = 4pR = 2 ( 2pR ) 
 10 
5 = K (b –  o )
16  6.4 
1 = 2a  4p 
⇒  0 = 5a - 4b ;k = 100  100 
b -1
Now if we apply 9 N force then 16  7 × 100 
a= × 0.1 m/s 2
=
1 100  8 × 22 × 6.4 
9= k( -  0 ) ⇒ 9= [ - 5a + 4b] ⇒  = 5b - 4a
(b - 1)
52. (b) According to the given question
57. (d)
( )
2
7gr
T - mg =
m
r
⇒ T = 8 mg
 
53. (c) Now, at point P from figure Magnitude of change in velocity
= | VP - VA |
 
mv 2 VP2 + VA2 (angle b/w V P and V A is 90°)
=
T – mg cos q =
r
2
= u 2 - 2g + u 2
mv
∴ T = mg cos q + = 2 ( u 2 - g )
r
r-h
From figure, cos q = 58. (b) Tension in the string at the lowest position B is maximum.
r Therefore, string will break at point B.
So T will be maximum when cos q will be 1
d ( mgh )
59. (a) Input power, Pin =
r-h dt
\ 1 ⇒h=0
=  dm 
r Pin = gh  
 dt 
The tension is maximum when the mass is at the lowest
position of the verticle circle, so the chance of breaking is Pin = gh(15) = 10 × 60 × 15
maximum. Pin = 9000 watt
54. (d) To complete verticle circle minimum velocity required at Again,
lowest point of circle is 5gr So by conservation of energy.  100 - 10 
Pout =   of Pin
1 2 D  100 
mgh
= =mv r
2 2 90
= × 9000 =8100 watt
1 D 100
mgh
= m × 5g
2 2 Pout = 8.1 KW
5D
h= 1 2
4 K.E 2 mv
= =
60. (d) Power
55. (d) Minimum velocity required at different points to complete t t
full vertical circle v= t
ds 1
=t 2
dt
1
ds = t 2 dt
3
2t 2 3
s
= ⇒ s∝t 2
3
Slope of x-t graph is +ve.
 56 AV NEET 35 Years
 
F 2ti + 3t 2ˆj
61. (d) = P F.v
66. (b) Power, = = F v cos q
dv Just before hitting the earth θ = 0°. Hence, the power exerted
m = 2t ˆi + 3t 2ˆj
dt by the gravitational force is greatest at the instant just before
v t
the body hits the earth.
∫ ( 2t ˆi + 3t ˆj) dt =
∫ dV = t ˆi + t ˆj
2 2 3

o o 1
MV 2 - 0
Power
= F.V
= ( 2t 3
+ 3t 5 ) W
67. (d) Pavg
= =
W 2
=
1 MV 2
∆t T 2 T
dv
62. (d)P = Fv = mav ⇒ k =mv 68. (d) Velocity of water is v, mass flowing per unit length is m
dt
∴ Mass flowing per second = mv
By integrating the equation
∴ Rate of kinetic energy or K.E. per second
k
⇒ ∫ vdv =
∫ m dt 1 1
= =( mv ) v 2 mv3
2 2
v2 k 2kt
⇒ = t ⇒ v= 69. (b) Total energy produced per second
2 m m
dv 2k  1 -12  = 10 × 60 × 15 = 9000 J/s = 9000 W
a
= =  t 
dt m 2  Losses due to frictional force
-1
 1  2k mk mk 10
F = ma = m   ⇒ F= = t 2
= × 9000 =900W
 2  mt 2t 2 100
63. (b) Pressure = 150 mm Hg Power generated by turbine
dV 5 × 10 -3
= 9000 – 900 = 8100 W = 8.1 kW
Pumping rate
= = m3 /s
dt 60 Useful work mgh (75 × 10) × 3
=
70. (c) η = = = 0.75
dV dV Total work F× d 250 × 12
Power of heart =P. ρgh ×
=
dt dt 
71. (b) P = F.v
5 × 10-3
=(13.6 × 103 kg/m3 ) (10 ) × ( 0.15 ) ×
60 = ( 60iˆ + 15jˆ - 3kˆ ).( 2iˆ - 4ˆj + 5kˆ )
13.6 × 5 × 0.15
= = 1.72 watt = (120 – 60 – 15) = 45 watt
6
Work done W
64. (b) Car starts from rest 72. (b)
= Power =
Time taken t
u=0
But W = mass × gravity × height
v – u = at
v = at M ×g×h
\ P=
Instantaneous power P0 = FV t
P0 = maV p × t 200 × 60
⇒ M= = = 1200kg
mdv g × h 10 × 10
P0 = V
dt i.e. 1200 litres as one litre has a mass of 1 kg.
P dt
Vdv = 0 73. (b) From law of conservation of momentum we have
m
v
P
t
m1u1 = m1v1 + m2v2
∫o Vdv = m0 ∫o dt m2v2 = m1u1 – m1v1...(1)
V 2 P0 t From the law of conservation of K.E. we have
=
2 m
1 1 1
2P0 t m u2 = m v2 + m v 2 ...(2)
V= 2 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 2
m
Rewriting (1) as
V ∝ t ⇒ V ∝ t1/ 2
m2v2 = m1(u1 – v1)...(3)
 
65. (b) Instantaneous power, =
P F.V
= FV cos=
q mg V cos q Rewriting (2) as
just before hitting the earth θ = 0° m2v22 = m1 (u12 – v21)...(4)
v = maxm ⇒ g = maxm Dividing (4) with (3)
Hence, the power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest v2 = u1 + v1...(5)
at the instant just before body hits the earth. eliminating v2 from (1) and (5) we get
Work, Energy and Power 57

m1u1 - m1v1 1 2
= u1 + v1 mv0 + mgh =400 J
m2 2
1
 m1 - m 2  ⇒ mv02 + m × 10 × 20
= 400m ⇒ v=
0 20 ms -1
  u1 = v1 ...(6) 2
 m1 + m 2 
79. (b) For two particles to collide, the direction of the relative
Fraction of KE of m1 carried by m2 is velocity of one with respect to other should be directed
 m - m2 
2
4m1m 2 towards the relative position of the other particle
1-  1  =  
m
 1 + m 2 ( m1 + m 2 )2 r -r
i.e. 1 2 → direction of relative position of 1
r1 - r2
This is also equal to the fractional transfer of KE of colliding  
body. ν -ν
w.r.t. 2. and  2  1 → direction velocity of 2 w.r.t. 1.
Fractional transfer of KE of colliding body ν 2 - ν1

∆KE 4 ( m1m 2 ) so for collision of A and B

=    
KE ( m1 + m 2 )2 r1 - r2 ν 2 - ν1
  =  
r1 - r2 ν 2 - ν1
4 ( 4m ) 2m
=
( 4m + 2m )2 80. (d) In x - direction m2v = m1v1 cosθ .........(i)
In y - direction 0 = m2v/2 + m1v1 sinθ ........(ii)
32m 2 8
= = -1
36m 2 9 From above equations tan q =
2
This fractional transfer is equal to the fraction of energy lost
by A. 81. (a) According to law of conservation of linear momentum,

v
74. (b) mv
= 4mv' ⇒ =
v'
4
v' v/4 1
e= = = = 0.25
v v 4
75. (d) Since both bodies are identical and collision is elastic. pi = pf
Therefore velocities will be interchanged after collision.
mviˆ + 6mvjˆ =
4mv f
vA = –0.3 m/s and vB = 0.5 m/s
 [Here vf is final velocity of combination]
76. (b) Energy will always be conserved so 1 3
⇒ viˆ + vjˆ =
vf
K. E.initial = K.E.final + Excitation energy 4 2
1 1 1 1 82. (b)
m1u12 + =m 2 u 22 m1v12 + m 2 v 22 + ε
2 2 2 2

77. (b) In elastic collision energy of system remains same so

(K.E)before collision = (K.E)after collision
Let speed of second body after collision is V
2
1 2 1 v 1 2 2
m   + m ( v') =
2
mv
= +0 ⇒ v' v According to conservation of momentum, we get
2 2 3 2 3
mviˆ + ( 3m ) 2vjˆ =
( m + 3m ) v '
78. (c) Let ball rebounds with speed V so
where v' is the final velocity after collision
v= 2gh = 2 × 10 × 20 = 20 m / s 1 ˆ 6 ˆ 1 ˆ 3 ˆ
ν' = νj + νj = νi + νj
Energy just after rebound 4 4 4 2
83. (b)
1
E = × m × v 2 = 200 m
2
50% energy loses in collision means just before collision
energy is 400 J By conservation of linear momentum:
By using energy conservation 2m = mv1 + 2mv2 ⇒ v1 + 2v2 = 2
 58 AV NEET 35 Years

1 v 2 - v1 1 1  1
By definition of e : e= = =  m1v12 + m2v22  - × (m1 + m2 )v 2
2 2-0 2 2  2
⇒ v2 – v1 = 1 ⇒ v1 = 0 and v2 = 1 ms–1 1 1  1
=  × 2 × (10) 2 + × 3(0) 2  - × (2 + 3) × (4) 2
m 2 2  2
84. (a) Power
= Fv
= v v v 2 ( ρAv )
=
t
  s = 100 – 40 = 60 J
(100 )( 2 ) =
3
ρAv3 =
= 800 W 88. (d) mA = mB; Velocity of ball A before collision (uA) = 0.5
m/s and velocity of ball B(uB) = – 0.3 m/s.
85. (a) In elastic collision of bodies of same mass, the velocities
get mutually exchanged between them. From conservation of momentum,
mAuA + mBuB = mAvA + mBvB
86. (a)
or (0.5) + (– 0.3) = vA + vB ....(i)
From energy conservation,
1 1 1 1
mAu A2 + mB uB2 = mAu A2 + mB uB2
2 2 2 2
Or (0.5)2 + (– 0.3)2 = vA2 + vB2 .....(ii)
By solving equation (i) and (ii), we get
vA = – 0.3 m/s and vB = + 0.5 m/s.
Alternate method:
V2 2g × 1.8 18 9 V 3 Velocities are interchanged in elastic head on collision.
= = = ⇒ 2= Therefore uA now is – 0.3 m/s and uB becomes + 5 m/s.
V1 2g × 5 50 25 V1 5
89. (a) Coefficient of restitution is defined as the constant ratio
87. (d) Mass of metal ball = 2 kg;
of relative velocity after impact to the relative velocity of the
Speed of metal ball (v1) = 36 km/h = 10 m/s and mass of bodies before impact when the two bodies collide head on.
stationary ball = 3 kg.
There velocities are in the opposite directions.
Applying law of conservation of momentum, v1 - v2
m1v1 + m2v2 = (m1 + m2)v ∴
u1 - u2
m1v1 + m2v2 (2 × 10) + (3 × 0) 20 = constant = e
or,
= =
m1 + m2 2+3 5 The constant e is known as coefficient of restitution. For a
= 4 m/s. perfectly elastic collision, e = 1 and for a perfectly inelastic
Therefore loss of energy collision, e = 0. Thus 0 ≤ e ≤ 1.
 Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

6. In which animal nerve cell is present but brain is absent?

Basis of Classification (2002)
a. Sponge b. Earthworm
1. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are c. Cockroach d. Hydra
exemplified by: (2020)
7. Which of the following animals have scattered cells with
a. Platyhelminthes cell - tissue grade organisation? (2000)
b. Aschelminthes a. Sponge b. Hydra
c. Annelida c. Liver fluke d. Ascaris
d. Ctenophora 8. Blastopore is the pore of: [OS] (2000)
2. Consider following features a. Archenteron b. Blastocoel
A. Organ system level of organisation c. Coelom d. Both (a) and (c)
B. Bilateral symmetry
9. Coelom is found between: (1996)
C. True coelomates with segmentation of body
a. Body wall and ectoderm
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all
b. Ectoderm and endoderm
the above characteristics (2019)
c. Mesoderm and body wall (endoderm)
a. Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
d. Mesoderm and ectoderm
b. Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
c. Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata 10. Besides annelida and arthropoda, the metamerism is exhibited
by: (1995)
d. Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
a. Mollusca b. Acanthocephala
3. Metagenesis refers to: (2015 Re)
c. Cestoda d. Chordata
a. Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual
phases of organisms 11. The organisms attached to the substratum, generally, possess:
[OS] (1995)
b. Occurrence of a drastic change in form during post-
embryonic development a. One single opening of the digestive canal
c. Presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode b. Cilia on the surface to create water current
of reproduction c. Radial symmetry
d. Presence of different morphic forms d. Asymmetrical body
4. Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic? 12. Radial symmetry is, usually, exhibited in animals which:
(2010 Pre) (1994)
a. Sponges b. Ctenophores a. Are attached to the substratum
c. Corals d. Flatworms b. Have one opening of alimentary canal
5. Which one is the group of bilaterally symmetrical and c. Live in water
triploblastic animals? (2009)
d. Have ciliary mode of feeding
a. Sponges
b. Coelenterates 13. Coelom derived from blastocoel is known as: (1994)
c. Ctenophores a. Pseudocoelom b. Schizocoel
d. Aschelminthes c. Haemocoel d. Enterocoelom
 30 AV NEET 35 Years

21. Biradial symmetry and lack of Cnidoblasts are characteristics

Porifera, Coelenterata, Ctenophora, of: (2006)
a. Hydra and Starfish
Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes
b. Starfish and Sea Anemone
c. Ctenoplana and Beroe
14. Match List-I with List-II (2021) d. Aurelia and Paramecium
List-I List-II 22. Select the wrong statement: (2005)
(A) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata a. Prawn has two pairs of antennae
(B) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora b. Millipedes have two pairs of appendages in each segment
(C) Comb plates (iii) Annelida of the body
c. Nematocysts are characteristic of phylum Cnidaria
(D) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera
d. Porifers are exclusively marine
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
23. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best described
a. A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii
as: (2003)
b. A-iii B-iv C-ii D-i
a. Unicellular or acellular
c. A-iv B-i C-ii D-iii
b. Multicellular without any tissue organisation
d. A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii
c. Multicellular with a gastrovascular system
15. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated d. Multicellular having tissue organisation, but no body
cells called: (2017-Delhi) cavity
a. Ostia b. Oscula 24. In Hydra, waste material of food digestion and nitrogenous
c. Choanocytes d. Mesenchymal cells waste material removed from: (2001)
16. Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show a. Mouth and mouth
viviparity? [OS] (2015) b. Body wall and body wall
a. Trichinella spiralis c. Mouth and body wall
b. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Mouth and tentacles
c. Ancylostoma duodenale 25. Which characteristic is true for Obelia? (1998)
d. Enterobius vermicularis a. Metagenesis b. Morphogenesis
c. Apolysis d. Pedogeny
17. Planaria possess high capacity of: (2014)
a. Bioluminescence 26. The embryonated egg of Ascaris represents: [OS] (1997)
a. An egg with blastula b. An egg with a juvenile
b. Metamorphosis
c. An egg with an egg d. An egg with gastrula
c. Regeneration
27. Which of the following statements is without exception for
d. Alternation of generation
sponges? (1996)
18. Select the taxon mentioned that represents both marine and
a. They all have calcareous spicules
fresh water species:(2014)
b. They have high regenerative power
a. Cnidaria b.
Echinoderms
c. They are found only in marine water
c. Ctenophora d. Cephalochordata d. They are all radially symmetrical
19. One example of animals having a single opening to the 28. The nephridia in earthworm are analogous to: (1996)
outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is: a. Nematoblasts of Hydra
 (2010 Pre)
b. Flame cells of Planaria
a. Asterias b.
Ascidia c. Gills of Prawn
c. Fasciola d. Octopus d. Trachea of insects
20. Ascaris is characterised by: (2008) 29. The formation of canal system in sponges is due to:(1996)
a. Presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism a. Folding of inner walls
b. Presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism b. Gastro-vascular system
c. Presence of true coelom and metamerism c. Reproduction
d. Absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism d. Porous walls
Animal Kingdom 31

30. One of special characters of coelenterata only, is the 42. Onchosphere occurs in: [OS] (1990)
occurrence of: (1994) a. Ascaris b. Fasciola
a. Polymorphism b. Flame cells c. Taenia d. Planaria
c. Hermaphrodistism d. Nematocysts 43. Transfer of Taenia to secondary host occurs as:
31. Which of the following is an example of platyhelminthes?  [OS] (1989)
 (1994) a. Oncosphere b. Cysticercus
a. Plasmodium b. Schistosoma c. Morula d. Egg
c. Trypanosoma d. Wuchereria
44. Jelly fish belongs to class: [OS] (1989)
32. Tube feet are the characteristic structures of: [OS] (1994) a. Hydrozoa b. Scyphozoa
a. Starfish b. Jellyfish c. Anthozoa d. None of these
c. Crayfish d. Cuttlefish
45. Organ Pipe Coral is: [OS] (1988)
33. What is true about Taenia saginata? [OS] (1993)
a. Tubipora b. Astraea
a. Life history has pig as intermediate host
c. Halipora d. Fungia
b. There are two large suckers on scolex
c. Rostellar hooks are absent
d. Rostellum has double circle of hooks Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca,
34. Which one of the following animals possesses nerve cells
but no nerves? (1993)
Echinodermata
a. Hydra b. Tapeworm
c. Earthworm d. Frog’s tadpole 46. Match the following: (2021)
35. Ascaris larva is called: [OS] (1992) List-I List-II
a. Cysticercus b. Rhabditiform (A) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster
c. Hexacanth d. Onchosphere (B) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of War

36. What is correct about Taenia? [OS] (1992) (C) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
(D) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
a. Male organs occur in posterior proglottides
b. Male organs occur in anterior proglottides Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
c. Female organs occur in anterior proglottides a. A-iv B-i C-iii D-ii
d. Mature proglottides contain both male and female organs b. A-ii B-iii C-iv D-i
37. The simplest type of canal system in Porifera is: [OS] (1992) c. A-i B-iv C-iii D-ii
a. Ascon type b. Leucon type d. A-ii B-iii C-i D-iv
c. Sycon type d. Radial type 47. Read the following statements. (2021)
38. Classification of Porifera is based on: (1991) A. Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
a. Branching b. Spicules B. Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
c. Reproduction d. Symmetry C. Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
39. The excretory structures of flatworms/Taenia are: (1991) D. Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
a. Flame cells b. Protonephridia E. Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.
c. Malpighian tubules d. Green glands Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
40. Bladderworm/cysticercus is the larval stage of: a. A, B and C are correct b. A, D and E are correct
 [OS] (1991) c. B, C and E are correct d. C, D and E are correct
a. Tapeworm b. Roundworm 48. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
c. Pinworm d. Liver fluke  (2020)
41. Taenia saginata differs from Taenia solium in: Column - I Column - II
 [OS] (1990) 1. Gregarious, polyphagous pest (i) Asterias
a. Absence of scolex hooks 2. Adult with radial symmetry (ii) Scorpion
b. Absence of scolex hooks and uterine branching and larva with bilateral
c. Absence of scolex hooks and presence of both male and symmetry
female reproductive organs 3. Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
d. Presence of scolex hooks 4. Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
32 AV NEET 35 Years

(1) (2) (3) (4) 55. Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible
a. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) for diversification of insects on land? [OS] (2015)
b. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) a. Exoskeleton b. Eyes
c. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) c. Segmentation d. Bilateral symmetry
d. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
56. Body having mesh work of cell, internal cavities lined with
49. Which of the following options does correctly represent the
food filtering flagellated cells and indirect development are
characteristic features of phylum Annelida? (2020-Covid)
the characteristics of phylum: (2015 Re)
a. Triploblastic, segmented body and bilaterally symmetrical
a. Porifera b. Mollusca
b. Triploblastic, flattened body and acoelomate condition
c. Diploblastic, mostly marine and radially symmetrical c. Protozoa d. Coelenterate
d. Triploblastic, unsegmented body and bilaterally 57. One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is:(2013)
symmetrical a. Flying fish b. Cuttlefish
50. Match the following organisms with their respective c. Silverfish d. Pufferfish
characteristics :  (2019)
58. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect
A. Pila i. Flame cells to their taxonomic classification? (2013)
B. Bombyx ii. Comb plates
a. Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber – Echinodermata
C. Pleurobrachia iii. Radula
b. Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish, – Pisces
D. Taenia iv. Malpighian
tubules c. Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion – Insecta
Select the correct option from the following : d. House fly, butterfly, tsetsefly, silverfish – Insecta
(A) (B) (C) (D) 59. Which group of animals belongs to the same phylum?
a. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)  (2013)
b. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) a. Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
c. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) b. Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito
d. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
c. Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm
51. Which of the following animals does not undergo d. Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
metamorphosis?  (2018)
a. Earthworm b. Tunicate 60. The figure shows four animals (A), (B), (C) and (D). Select
c. Moth d. Starfish the correct answer with respect to common characteristics
of two of these animals. (2011 Mains)
52. Which of the following symmetry is exhibited by Echinoderm
larvae? (2017-Gujarat)
a. Bilateral b. Radial
c. Asymmetrical d. Biradial
53. Which of the following represents correct match of feature
with the given set of animals? (2017-Gujarat)
Feature Animals
a. Metameric - Earthworm, Leech,
segmentation Liver fluke
b. Respiratory system - Cockroach,
Tapeworm, Starfish a. (A) and (D) have cnidoblasts for self-defense
c. Bilateral symmetry - Hydra, Tapeworm, b. (C) and (D) have a true coelom
Sea urchin c. (A) and (D) respire mainly through bodywall
d. Jointed appendages - Prawn, Centipede, d. (B) and (C) show radial symmetry
Grasshopper
61.
Which one of following statement about certain given
54. Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum- animals is correct? (2010 Pre)
Arthropoda? (2016 - I)
a. Molluscs are acoelomates
a. Chitinous exoskeleton
b. Metameric segmentation b. Insects are pseudocoelomates
c. Parapodia c. Flatworms are coelomates
d. Jointed appendages d. Roundworms are pseudocoelomates
Animal Kingdom
62. Which is matched with two general characteristics? (2008)
a. Echinodermata – Pentamerous radial symmetry, internal
fertilisation
b. Mollusca – Normally oviparous and development through
a trochophore or veliger larva.
c. Arthropoda – Body divisible into head, thorax 71. In contrast to annelids, the Platyhelminthes show: (2005)
and abdomen, only tracheal respiration
d. Chordata – Notochord at some stage, separate anal and
urine apertures
63. Which one is correctly matched?
a. Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach – Ventral solid central
nervous system
b. Cockroach, Locust, Taenia – Metameric segmentation
c. Liver fluke, Sea Anemone, Sea Cucumber –Bilateral
symmetry
d. Centipede, Prawn, Sea Urchin – Jointed appendages
64. A feature absent in annelids is:
a. Clitellum
b. Pseudocoelom
c. Metameric segmentation
d. Nephridia
65. Which one is mismatched pair?
a. Apis indica - Honey b. Kerria lacca - Lac
c. Bombyx mori - Silk d. Pila globosa - Pearl
66. What is the true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and
Silver Fish? (2007)
a. All possess dorsal heart
b. None is aquatic
c. They belong to same phylum
d. They have jointed paired appendages
67. Pick up the matching pair of body feature and animal
possessing it: (2007)
a. Ventral central nervous system - Leech
b. Ventral heart - Scorpion
c. Post anal tail - Octopus
d. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo - Chameleon
68. Which one of the following is matching set of phylum and
its three examples? (2006)
a. Porifera – Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula
b. Cnidaria – Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia
c. Platyhelminthes – Planaria, Schistostoma, Enterobius
d. Mollusca – Loligo, Teredo, Octopus
69. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and
crab are: (2006)
a. Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
b. Green glands and tracheae
c. Book lungs and antennae
d. Compound eyes and anal cerci
33
70. Metameric segmentation is characteristic of: (2006)
a. Mollusca and chordata
b. Platyhelminthes and arthropoda
c. Echinodermata and annelida
d. Annelida and arthropoda
a. Absence of body cavity
b. Bilateral symmetry
c. Radial symmetry
(2008) d. Presence of pseudocoel
72. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage and
radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to
the phylum: (2004)
a. Mollusca b. Cnidaria
c. Echinodermata d. Annelida
73. In Arthropoda, heads and thorax are often fused to form
(2008) cephalothorax, but in which one of the following classes, is
the body divided into head, thorax and abdomen?
 [OS] (2004)
a. Myriapoda
b. Crustacea
c. Arachnida and Crustacea
(2007) d. Insecta
74. In which of the animal dimorphic nucleus is found?
 [OS] (2002)
a. Amoeba proteus
b. Trypanosoma gambiens
c. Plasmodium vivax
d. Paramoecium caudatum
75. In which of the following haemocyanin pigment is found?
 [OS] (2001)
a. Annelida b. Echinodermata
c. Insecta d. Lower invertebrates
76. Solenocytes occur in: [OS] (1998)
a. Platyhelminthes b. Arthropoda
c. Annelida d. Aschelminthes
77. What is common among silverfish, scorpion, crab and honey
bee? (1997)
a. Jointed legs b. Metamorphosis
c. Compound eyes d. Poison glands
78. A common characteristic of all vertebrates without exception
is: (1994)
a. The division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail
b. Their body covered with an exoskeleton
c. The possession of two pairs of functional appendages
d. The presence of well-developed skull
79. Among the following organisms point out a completely non-
parasitic form: (1994)
a. Tapeworm b. Mosquito
c. Sea anemone d. Leech
34
80. Which one assists in locomotion? [OS] (1993)
a. Trichocysts in Paramoecium
b. Pedicellariae of star fish
c. Clitellum in Pheretima
d. Posterior sucker in Hirudinaria
81. A larval stage occurs in the life history of all members of the
group: (1993)
a. Frog, lizard and cockroach
b. Ascaris, housefly and frog
c. Housefly, earthworm and mosquito
d. Butterfly, frog and mosquito
82. Aristotle’s lantern occurs in class: [OS] (1992)
a. Echinoidea b. Asteroidea
c. Holothuroidea d. Ophiuroidea
83. Star Fish belongs to: [OS] (1992)
a. Asteriodea b. Ophiuroidea
c. Holothuroidea d. Crinodiea
84. Eye of the molluscan group that resembles vertebrate eye is:
 [OS] (1992)
a. Bivalvia b. Gastropoda
c. Pelecypoda d. Cephalopoda
85. Adult Culex and Anopheles can be distinguished with the
help of: [OS] (1992)
a. Mouth parts/colour b. Sitting posture
c. Antennae/wings d. Feeding habits
86. Which one occurs in echinodermata? (1991)
a. Bilateral symmetry b. Radial symmetry
c. Porous body d. Soft skin
87. An insect regarded as greatest mechanical carrier of diseases
is: [OS] (1991)
a. Pediculus b. Cimex
c. Musca d. Xenopsylla
88. Metamorphosis of insects is regulated through hormone:
 [OS] (1991)
a. Pheromone b. Thyroxine
c. Ecdysone d. All of these
89. Ecdysis is shedding of: [OS] (1990)
a. Stratum corneum b. Epidermis
c. Dermis d. Stratum malpighi
90. Malpighian tubules are: (1990)
a. Excretory organs of insects
b. Excretory organs of annelids
c. Respiratory organs of insects
d. Respiratory organs of annelids
91. Fish which can be used in biological control of mosquitoes/
Larvicidal fish is: [OS] (1989)
a. Eel b. Carp
c. Cat fish d. Gambusia
AV NEET 35 Years
92. A wood boring Shipworm is: [OS] (1988)
a. Chiton b. Teredo
c. Limax d. Patella
93. Silk thread is obtained from silk moth during:
 [OS] (1988)
a. Pupal stage b. Larval stage
c. Nymph stage d. Adult stage
Hemichordata and Chordata
94. Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-
Chordata? (2020)
a. In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and
it is present throughout their life.
b. In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic
period only.
c. Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
d. Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla:
Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalchordata.
95. All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not
vertebrates, why? (2020-Covid)
a. Ventral hollow nerve cord remains throughout life in
some chordates
b. all chordates possess vertebral column
c. All chordates possess notochord throughout their life
d. Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in adult of
some chordates
96. An important characteristic that hemichordates share with
chordates is: (2017-Delhi)
a. Absence of notochord
b. Ventral tubular nerve cord
c. Pharynx with gill slits
d. Pharynx without gill slits
97. Which one of the following statements is totally wrong
about the occurrence of notochord while the other three are
correct? (2011 Mains)
a. It is absent throughout life in humans from the very
beginning
b. It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
c. It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
d. It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
98. Which of the following character is not found in all the
chordates? (2000)
a. Diaphragm b. Coelom
c. Pharyngeal gill clifts d. Dorsal nerve cord
99. A common characteristic of all vertebrates without exception
is: (1994)
a. The division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail
b. Their body covered with an exoskeleton
c. The possession of two pairs of functional appendages
d. The presence of well-developed skull
Animal Kingdom 35

100. What is common in whale, bat and rat? (1993) 107. In which of the following notochord is present in embryonic
a. Absence of neck stage? (2002)
a. All chordates b. Some chordates
b. Muscular diaphragm between thorax and abdomen
c. Vertebrates d. Non chordates
c. Extra-abdominal testes to avoid high temperature of body
108. In which of the following animal post anal tail is found?
d. Presence of external ears
(2001)
101. A chordate character is: (1989) a. Earthworm b. Lower invertebrate
a. Gills b. Spiracles c. Scorpion d. Snake
c. Post-anal tail d. Chitinous exoskeleton 109. Which fish selectively feed on larva of mosquito? (2001)
a. Gambusia b. Rohu
c. Clarias d. Exocoetus
Class Cyclostomata,
Chondrichythes, Osteichythes
Class Amphibia, Reptilia,
Aves, Mammalia
102. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
(2020)
110. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and
Column - I Column - II pneumatic long bones? (2021)
1. 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits (i) Trygon a. Hemidactylus b. Macropus
c. Ornithorhynchus d. Neophron
2. Heterocercal caudal fin (ii) Cyclostomes
111. Match the following columns and select the correct option:
3. Air bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes (2020-Covid)
4. Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes Column-I Column-II

(1) (2) (3) (4) 1. Aptenodytes (i) Flying fox

a. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 2. Pteropus (ii) Angel fish
b. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 3. Pterophyllum (iii) Lamprey
c. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) 4. Petromyzon (iv) Penguin
d. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
103. Choose the false statement regarding Petromyzon. a. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2017-Gujarat) b. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
a. The circulatory system is closed c. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
b. The body is devoid of scales d. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
c. Mouth is circular and lacks jaws 112. Match the following group of organisms with their respective
d. It migrates to the ocean for spawing distinctive characteristics and select the correct option:
(2020-Covid)
104. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in freshwater and whose
ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis return to the ocean Organisms Characteristics
is: (2015 Re) 1. Platyhelminthes (i) Cylindrical body with no
segmentation
a. Myxine b.
Neomyxine
c. Petromyzon d. Eptatretus 2. Echinoderms (ii) Warm blooded animals with
direct development
105. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current
3. Hemichordates (iii) Bilateral symmetry with
is: (2014) incomplete digestive system
a. Scoltodon b. Pristis
4. Aves (iv) Radial symmetry with indirect
c. Torpedo d. Trygon development
106. Which one pair comprises jawless fishes? (2009) (1) (2) (3) (4)
a. Mackerels and Rohu a. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
b. Lampreys and Hag Fishes b. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
c. Lampreys and Eels c. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
d. Guppies and Hag fishes d. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
 36 AV NEET 35 Years

113. Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?  (2018) 122. Which of the following represents the correct combination
a. Macropus b.
Chelone without any exception? (2015)
c. Camelus d.
Psittacula Characteristics Class
a. Sucking and circular mouth; Cyclostomata
114. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterised by
jaws absent, integument without
crop and gizzard in its digestive system.  (2018)
scales; paired appendages
a. Amphibia b. Reptilia b. Body covered with feathers; Aves
c. Aves d. Osteichthyes skin moist and glandular; fore-
115. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic limbs form wings; lungs with
air sacs
mammals? (2017-Delhi)
c. Mammary glands; hair on Mammalia
a. Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
body; pinnae; two pairs of
b. Dolphins, Seals, Trygon limbs
c. Whales, Dolphins, Seals d. Mouth ventral; gills without Chondrichthyes
d. Trygon, Whales, Seals operculum; skin with placoid
scales, persistent notochord
116. Which of the following represents order of ‘Horse’?
 [OS] (2017-Delhi) 123. Match the name of the animal (Column I) with one
a. Equidae b. Perissodactyla characteristics (Column II) and the phylum/class (column
III) to which it belongs: (2013)
c. Caballus d. Ferus
Column I Column II Column III
117. Choose the correct statement: (2016 - II)
a. Adamsia Radially symmetrical Porifera
a. All reptiles have a three–chambered heart.
b. Petromyzon Ectoparasite Cyclostomata
b. All pisces have gills covered by an operculum.
c. Ichthyophis Terrestrial Reptilia
c. All mammals are viviparous. Body covered by
d. Limulus Pisces
d. All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins. chitinous exoskeleton

118. Which one of the following characteristic is not shared by 124. Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly
birds and mammals? (2016 - I) described with no single exception in it? (2012)
a. Ossified endoskeleton a. All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart
b. Breathing using lungs and are cold blooded (poikilothermal)
c. Viviparity b. All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum
on each side
d. Warm blooded nature
c. All sponges are marine and have collared cells
119. Which of the following characteristic features always holds
d. All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for
true for the corresponding group of animals? (2016 - I)
breathing
a. Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes 125. Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to
b. Viviparous Mammalia each other pertaining to the feature stated against them?
 (2012)
Possess a mouth with an upper
c. Chordata
and a lower jaw a. Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus - Viviparity
3-chambered heart with one b. Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three chambered heart
d. Reptilia
incompletely divided ventricle c. Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric segmentation
d. Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded (poikilothermal)
120. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?
 [OS] (2016 - I) 126. What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?
 (2011 Pre)
a. Gangetic shark b. River dolphin
a. Male shark: Claspers borne on pelvic fins
c. Blue whale d. Sea-horse
b. Female Ascaris: Sharply curved posterior end
121. Which of the following animals is not viviparous? (2015)
c. Male frog: A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind
a. Platypus b. Whale limb
c. Flying fox (bat) d. Elephant d. Female cockroach: Anal cerci
Animal Kingdom 37

127. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly 133. They give birth to young ones: (2006)
matched with its one characteristic feature without even a a. Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, Loris
single exception? (2011 Pre) b. Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich
a. Mammalia: Give birth to young ones c. Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus
b. Reptilia: Possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely d. Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi
divided ventricle
134. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the
c. Chordata: Possess a mouth provided with an upper and a class Mammalia? (2005)
lower jaw
a. Thecodont dentition
d. Chondrichthyes: Possess cartilaginous endoskeleton b. Alveolar lungs
128. In which one of the following the genus name, its two c. Ten pairs of cranial nerves
characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched? d. Seven cervical vertebrae
 (2011 Pre)
135.
One of the following is a very unique feature of the
Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum mammalian body: (2004)
(a) Cnidoblasts a. Presence of diaphragm
a. Aurelia Coelenterate
(b) Organ level of organisation b. Four chambered heart
(a) Body segmented c. Rib cage
b. Ascaris Annelida d. Homeothermy
(b) Males and females distinct
(a) A tympanum represents ear 136. Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal
c. Salamandra Amphibia and a certain phenomenon it exhibits? (2003)
(b) Fertilisation is external
a. Pheretima – Sexual dimorphism
(a) Skin possesses hair
d. Pteropus Mammalia b. Musca – Complete metamorphosis
(b) Oviparous
c. Chameleon – Mimicry
129. Crocodile and penguin are similar to whale and dog fish in d. Taenia – Polymorphism
which one of the following characters? (2010 Mains) 137. What is true for mammalia? (2000)
a. Possess bony skeleton a. Platypus is oviparous
b. Possess a solid single stranded central nervous system b. Bats have feather
c. Have gill slits at some stage c. Elephant is ovo-viviparous
d. Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch d. Diaphragm is absent in them
130. Which one of the following statements about all the four of 138. Hollow air filled bones (pneumatic bones) occur in: (1998)
Spongilla, leech, dolphin and penguin is correct? a. Mammals b. Reptiles
 (2010 Pre) c. Urodela d. Aves
a. Leech is fresh water while all others are marine 139. Pneumatic bone is found in: (1996)
b. Spongilla has special collar cells choanocytes not found a. Shark b. Rana
in the remaining three
c. Pigeon d. Whale
c. All are bilaterally symmetrical
140.
Which of the following is common among mammals?
d. Penguin is homoeothermic while the remaining three are  (1996)
poikilothermic
a. They undergo no moulting
131. Which avian feature indicates reptilian ancestry? (2008) b. They have seven cervical vertebrae
a. Two special chambers, crop and gizzard in digestive tract c. They are carnivores
b. Eggs with calcareous shells d. They have ventral nerve cord
c. Scales on hind limbs 141. Which is common between ostrich, penguin and kiwi?
d. Four chambered heart  (1993)
132. What is common among parrot, platypus and kangaroo? a. Running birds b. Migratory birds
 (2007) c. Flightless birds d. Four toed birds
a. Toothless jaws 142. Trachea of cockroach and mammal are similar in having:
b. Functional post anal tail  (1993)
c. Oviparity a. Paried nature b. Non-collapsible walls
d. Homeothermy c. Ciliated inner lining d. Orign from lead
 38 AV NEET 35 Years

143. Bull Frog of India is: [OS] (1992) 151. Bird vertebrae are: [OS] (1988)
a. Rana tigrina b. R. sylvatica a. Acoelous b. Heterocoelous
c. R. catesbeiana d. R. esculenta c. Amphicoelous d. Procoelous
144. Sound box of birds is called: [OS] (1992) 152. Feet of kingfisher are modified for: [OS] (1988)
a. Pygostyle b. Larynx
a. Wading b. Perching
c. Syrinx d. Synsacrum
c. Running d. Catching
145. An egg laying mammal is: (1992)
a. Kangaroo b. Platypus 153. Both male and female pigeons secrete milk through:
 [OS] (1988)
c. Koala d. Whale
a. Salivary glands
146. Penguin occurs in: (1990)
b. Modified sweat glands
a. Australia b. Antarctica
c. Crop
c. Africa d. America
d. Gizzard
147. Eutherians are characterised by: [OS] (1989)
a. Hairy skin b. True placentation 154. Typhlops is: [OS] (1988)
c. Ovoviviparity d. Glandular skin a. Sea snake b. Glass snake
148. Wish bone of birds is from: [OS] (1989) c. Blind snake d. Grass snake
a. Pelvic girdle 155. Necturus is: [OS] (1988)
b. Skull a. Hell bender b. Congo eel
c. Hind limbs c. Mud puppy d. Blind worm
d. Pectoral girdle/clavicles
156. Fire bellied toad is: [OS] (1988)
149. Flight muscles of bird are attached to: [OS] (1989)
a. Amphiuma b. Bombina
a. Clavicle b. Keel of sternum
c. Scapula d. Coracoid c. Necturus d.
Salamandra

150. Hair occur in all mammals except those of: [OS] (1988) 157. Which is not a true amphibian animal? [OS] (1988)
a. Rodentia b. Chiroptera a. Salamander b. Toad
c. Primata d. Cetacea c. Tortoise d. Frog

Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
a a a d d d b a c d c a a b c a c
18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34
a c b c d b c a b b b d d b a c a
35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51
b d a b a a a c a b a b c a a b a
52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
a d c a a c d d b d b a b d a a d
69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
a d a c d d d a a d c c d a a d b
86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102
b c c a a d b b c d c a a d b c d
103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119
d c c b a d a d b d b c c b d c a
120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136
b a a b b d a d c c b c d a c a b
137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153
a d c a c b a c b b b d b d b a c
154 155 156 157
c c b c
Animal Kingdom
Explanations
1. (a) Platyhelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic
and acoelomate animals with organ level of organisation.
2. (a) True segmentation is present in phylum Annelida,
Arthropoda and Chordata. They also have organ system level
of organisation, bilateral symmetry and are true coelomates.
3. (a) Some cnidarians which exist in both forms of body
namely polyp and medusa exhibits alternation of generation
(metagenesis).
4. (d) Sponges, corals (Coelenterate) and ctenophores are
diploblastic.
5. (d) Aschelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic
and acoelomate organisms.
6. (d) Hydra does not have a recognisable brain or true muscles.
Nerve nets connect sensory photoreceptors and touch -
sensitive nerve cells located in body wall and tentacles.
7. (b) Members of coelenterata and ctenophora show tissue -
level of organisation, e.g., Hydra, sponges exhibit cellular -
grade of organisation. Liver fluke and Ascaris shown organ
and organ - system level of organisation.
8. (a) Blastopore is the opening of archenteron that
communicates to exterior of embryo at the gastrula stage. It
is formed by invagination of blastula to form gastrula.
9. (c) Body cavity which is lined by mesoderm, is called
coelom.
10. (d) It occurs in three highly organised phyla: Annelida,
Arthropoda and Chordata.
11. (c) Polyp forms of phylum coelenterata are sessile and show
radial symmetry.
12. (a) All the animals belonging to cnidaria (e.g., jellyfish)
and enchinodermata (e.g. starfish) are radially symmetrical.
These organisms are attached to the substratum.
13. (a) Roundworms have a body cavity called pseudocoelom
consisting of a fluid-filled space between the body wall and
digestive tract. Pseudocoelom is derived from the blastocoel
of the embryo rather than from a secondary cavity within the
embryonic mesoderm (which results in a true body cavity
or coelom).
14. (b) Metamerism is commonly observed in the members of
phylum Annelida where the body is externally and internally
divided into segments with a serial repetition of atleast some
organs.
Water transport or canal system is present in the members
of phylum Porifera.
The body of ctenophores bears eight external rows of ciliated
comb plates which help in locomotion.
Cnidoblasts or cnidocytes are present on the tantacles and
the body of the members of phylum Coelentrata (Cnidaria).
15. (c) Spongocoel (body cavity) and canals are lined with
choanocytes (collar cells).
39
16. (a) The trichina worm Trichinella spiralis is an endoparasitic
worm in the intestine of human beings. It is viviparous. The
disease caused by Trichinella spiralis is called trichinosis.
The symptoms include diarrhoea, nausea, abdominal pain,
muscular pain, etc.
17. (c) Planaria possess high capacity of regeneration.
18. (a) Echinoderms, Ctenophora and Cephalochordata are
exclusively marine.
19. (c) Platyhelminthes has incomplete digestive system. Mouth
serves as common passage for ingestion and excretion.
20. (b) Ascaris (Aschelminthes) are triploblastic,
pseudocoelomates and bilateral symmetrical.
21. (c) Ctenoplana and Beroe does not posses cnidoblasts and
they have biradial symmetry.
22. (d) Poriferas are not exclusively marine (Spongilla – fresh
water sponges).
23. (b) Sycon is an example of phylum Porifera. Members of this
phylum are primitive multicellular animals and show cellular
level of organisation.
24. (c) For excretion, there are no specialised structures in
Hydra. They have a single opening called mouth on
hypostome. Carbon dioxide, salts and ammonia leave the
cells by diffusion into iso-osmotic surroundings.
25. (a) Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms - sessile polyp
(e.g., Hydra) and free-swimming medusa (e.g Aurelia). Some
cnidarians, such as Obelia, show alternation of generation or
metagenesis, i.e., polyps produce medusae asexually and
medusae form polyps sexually.
26. (b) Ascaris lay embryonated eggs, viz - eggs having an
embryo. These embryonated eggs are ingested and hatch in
stomach and duodenum, from where the larvae penetrate the
intestinal wall. So, these eggs carry embryo in a juvenile
stage.
27. (b) Sponges are asymmetrical. They are mostly marine but
can also be found in fresh water. Regenerative power of
sponges are high.
28. (b) Nephridia in earthworm helps in osmoregulation &
excretion. Same function in Planaria is performed by
specialised cells called flame cells.
29. (d) Sponges have a water canal system. Water enters
through minute pores (ostia) in body wall to a central cavity
spongocoel.
30. (d) Nematocysts are specialised cell in tentacles of
coelenterate, containing a barbed or venomous coiled thread
that is projected in self - defence or to capture prey.
31. (b) Schistosoma are commonly known as blood - flukes.
They are parasitic flatworms responsible for a group of
infections in humans termed schiostosomiasis.
32. (a) Tube feet are active tubular projections on oral surface
of Echinoderms that is a part of water vascular system.
40
33. (c) Taenia saginata has close resemblance to other tapeworms
(T.solium) except for few details such as it is larger, has more
proglottids and lacks rostellar hooks.
34. (a) Hydra does not have a recognisable brain - nerve nets
connect sensory photoreceptors & touch-sensitive nerve
cells.
35. (b) In Ascaris, rhabditiform larva of first stage is not infective.
36. (d) Proglottides are segments in the strobila of a tapeworm,
containing a complete sexually mature reproduction system.
37. (a) Ascon type of canal system is the simplest of all the
three. Water current flows as: Ingressing water → Ostia →
Spongocoel → Osculum → Outside.
38. (b) The body of Poriferans is supported by a skeleton made
up of spicules or spongin fibres. The classification of phylum
Porifera is based upon the presence and composition of
spicules.
39. (a) There are specialised cells found in flatworms which
helps in maintaining osmotic balance and excretion, these
are called as flame cells.
40. (a) Cysticercus is a larval tapeworm at a stage in which the
scolex is inverted in a sac. It is typically found encysted in
muscle tissue of the host.
41. (a) Taenia saginata is very similar to Taenia solium, except
for few differences. T.saginata is larger than T.solium and
T. saginata has more proglottids, more testis. Rostellum in
T.solium is armed with two rows of spiny hooks whereas
these scolex hooks are absent in T.saginata.
42. (c) Oncosphere is the larval form of a tapeworm (genus
Taenia), once it has been ingested by an intermediate host
animal.
43. (a) Oncosphere is larval form of tapeworms. These larval
forms are ingested by secondary host or humans.
44. (b) Jelly fish are free - swimming aquatic animals lie under
kingdom Cnidaria and class Scyphozoa.
45. (a) The common name of Tubipora is organ pipe coral.
46. (b) Physalia – Portuguese man of war
Limulus – Living fossil
Ancylostoma – Hookworm
Pinctada – Pearl oyster
47. (c) Metagenesis, i.e., alternation of generation, is observed
in members of phylum Coelenterata (Cnidaria).
Comb plates present in ctenophores and help in locomotion.
48. (a) Locusta – Gregareous, polyphagous pest.
Echinoderms (Asterias) - Adults with radial symmetry and
larvae larva with bilateral symmetry
Scorpions – Respiration takes place through book lungs
Ctenophores (Ctenoplana)- Bioluminescence is well marked
feature
49. (a) Annelida exhibit organ-system level of body organisation
and bilateral symmetry. They are triploblastic, metamerically
segmented and coelomate animals.
AV NEET 35 Years
50. (b) Pila is a mollusc. The mouth contains a file - like rasping
organ for feeding called radula.
Bombyx is an arthropod. In Bombyx, excretion takes place
through malpighian tubules.
Pleurobrachia is a ctenophore. Their body bears eight external
rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion.
Taenia is a platyhelminth. It has specialised cells called
flame cells which helps in osmoregulation and excretion.
51. (a) Development is direct in annelids, so there is no larval
stage in earthworms.
52. (a) Echinoderm adults exhibits radial symmetry and their
larvae are bilaterally symmetrical.
53. (d) Prawn, Centipede, Grasshopper have jointed appendages.
54. (c) Phylum-Arthropoda has all the given three characters
except parapodia.
Nereis (an Annelid) possess lateral appendages, parapodia,
which help in swimming.
55. (a) Most distinctive characteristics of arthropoda is their
exoskeleton containing chitin, mucopolysaccrides. The
success of arthropods is related to their hard exoskeleton
which serves as purpose of forming an armor against enemies,
protection against desiccation in different types of habitats.
56. (a) Sponges usually have a skeleton consisting of spicules
(may be calcareous or silicious) or spongin fibres. The cavity
common to all sponges is spongocoel or paragastric cavity
lined by flagellated choanocytes.
57. (c) Silverfish belongs to phylum Arthropoda.
58. (d) Housefly, butterfly, tsetse fly and silverfish belongs to
phylum arthropoda and class Insecta.
59. (d) Prawn, scorpion, Locusta belong to same phylum
Arthropods.
60. (b) C (octopus) is an example of Mollusca and D (scorpion)
is an example of arthropoda. They have a true coelom.
61. (d) Mollusca and insects are coelomates, flatworms are
acoelomate while roundworms are pseudocoelomates.
62. (b) In Echinodermata, fertilisation is external.
In Arthropoda, respiratory organs are gills, book gills, book
lungs or tracheal system.
Chordata are characterised by the presence of notochord.
63. (a) Scorpion, Spider and cockroach are non-chordates; they
have ventral solid CNS, dorsal heart.
64. (b) Annelids are coelomates, triploblastic and bilaterally
symmetrical. They have clitellum. They are metamerically
segmented.
65. (d) Pila globosa – Pearl is mismatch. Pearl is produced by
Pinctada oyster.
66. (a) Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and silver fish are non –
chordates. All of them possess dorsal heart.
67. (a) Non-chordates have ventral nervous system. Dorsal heart
and post anal tail is present in chordates.
Animal Kingdom
68. (d) Porifera – Spongilla, Euplectella (Pennatula →
Coelenterate)
Cnidaria – Physalia, Aurelia (Bonellia → Annelida)
Platyhelminthes – Planaria, Schistostoma (Enterobius →
Aschelminthes)
69. (a) All of them have jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton.
70. (d) Annelida and arthropoda have metameric segmentation.
71. (a) Platyhelminthes are triploblastic, bilateral symmetrical,
acoelomate organisms.
72. (c) Adult Echinoderms are radially symmetrical but larvae
are bilaterally symmetrical.
73. (d) Arthropoda is the largest phylum of Animalia & includes
insects majorly. In insects, the body is divided into 3 regions
- head, thorax & abdomen.
74. (d) In Paramoecium, a protozoan, there are two types of
nucleus - micronucleus (small nucleus) and macronucleus
(one large ellispoidal nucleus).
75. (d) Haemocyanin is a protein which transport oxygen in the
bodies of some invertebrates. Unlike hemoglobin in RBCs of
vertebrates, haemocyanin are not bound to blood cells. They
are found only in mollusca and Arthropoda.
76. (a) Solenocytes are flagellated cells associated with excretion
and osmoregulation. These are the cells which form subtypes
of protonephridium along with flame cells. Solenocytes of
platyhelminthes are analogous to nephridium of annelids.
77. (a) Arthropods have jointed appendages. Sensory organs like
antennae, eyes (compound or simple), statocysts or balance
organs are present.
78. (d) All vertebrates possess cranium that protect the brain. In
cyclostomes & chondrichthyes, it is made up of cartilage and
in rest groups bony skull is present.
79. (c) Tapeworm is an endoparasite and mosquito and leech are
blood - parasite in human beings. Adamsia or sea anemone
is non - parasitic coelenterata.
80. (c) In earthworm (Pheretima), locomotion begins with a
contraction of the circular muscles in a limited region of
anterior end of body called clitellum. This contraction passes
backward, down the body as a peristaltic wave.
81. (d) Development is indirect in butterfly, mosquito and frog,
all of them possess larva that undergo metamorphosis to
form a new adult individual.
82. (a) Mount of sea urchin (Echinoidea) has a complex dental
apparatus called Aristotle’s lantern, which also may be
venomous.
83. (a) Asterias, commonly known as star fish belongs to class
Asteroidea.
84. (d) Cephalopods are most intelligent, mobile and largest of
all molluscs, e.g., octopus. They have advanced vision and
can detect gravity with statocyst. Morphological construction
gives eyes of cephalopods the same performance as sharks.
41
85. (b) Body of Adult Culex is provided with stouter legs and at
rest body lies parallel to the surface. In Anopheles, body is
provided with delicate legs and body is inclined at an angle
of 45° to the surface at rest position.
86. (b) Adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical but larvae
are bilaterally symmetrical.
87. (c) Alternate movement between filthy material and human
food makes houseflies mechanical carriers to humans of
several pathogens (e.g., viruses, bacteria, protozoa, and
helminth eggs) that may cause disease.
88. (c) Ecdysone is a steroid hormone, secreted by a pair of
prothoracic glands in the thorax of insects and by Y organs
in crustaceans, that stimulates moulting and metamorphosis.
89. (a) In reptiles, the stratum corneum is permanent, and is only
replaced during times of rapid growth, in a process called
ecdysis or moulting.
90. (a) Malphigian tubule system is a type of excretory and
osmoregulatory system found in insects by which excretion
products and toxic compounds are transported.
91. (d) Gambusia is a fish that feeds on mosquito larvae and is
called larvicidal fish. It controls the growth of mosquito in
aquatic ecosystem.
92. (b) The common name of Teredo is shipworm.
93. (b) The silk is obtained from the cocoons of the larvae of the
silkworm. The protein fibre of silk is composed of fibroin.
94. (c) In Urochordata, notochord is present only in larval tail.
In Cephalochordata, the notochord extends from head to
tail region and is persistent throughout the life. Chordata
is divided into 3 subphyla : Vertebrata, Tunicata and
Cephalochordata.
95. (d) The members of subphylum Vertebrata possess notochord
during the embryonic period. The notochord is replaced by a
cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in the adult. Thus all
vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
96. (c) Pharyngeal gill slits are present in hemichordates as
well as in chordates. Notochord is present in chordates only.
Ventral tubular nerve cord is characteristic feature of non-
chordates.
97. (a) The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony
vertebral column in the adult humans. Notochord present in
embryonic period of human beings.
98. (a) Diaphragm is a muscular sheath that supports the lung
and helps in respiration. Many chordates, such as fishes and
amphibians, do not have lungs & thus diaphragm is not found
in them.
99. (d) All vertebrates possess cranium that protect the brain. In
cyclostomes & chondrichthyes, it is made up of cartilage
and in rest groups bony skull is present.
100. (b) Having a diaphragm to support the base of lungs, is
common feature found in mammals.
101. (c) Chordata are fundamentally characterised by the
presence of a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, paired
pharyngeal slits (gill - slits) and post - anal tail.
102. (d) Cyclostomes have an elongated body bearing 6-15 pairs
of gill slits for respiration.
 42
Bony fishes belonging to class Osteichthyes contains air
bladder which regulates buoyancy.
Trygon, a cartilaginous fish, possesses poison sting.
In members of class Chondrichthyes, tail is elongated with
heterocercal caudal fin (the upper and lower halves of
unequal size.
103. (d) Circulation is of closed type. Cyclostomes are marine but
migrate for spawning to fresh water. After spawning, within
a few days, they die. Their larvae, after metamorphosis,
return to the ocean.
104. (c) Cyclostomata class comprises of jawless vertebrate.
They are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
E.g., Petromyzon.
105. (c) Torpedo have electric organs to produce electric current.
106. (b) Cyclostomata comprises of jawless fish. Living members
of Cyclostomata are Ectoparasite on fish. E.g., Lampreys and
Hag fish.
107. (a) All animals belonging to phylum chordata are
fundamentally characterised by presence of notochord.
In larval or embryonic stage, all members of this phylum
exhibit notochord whereas in adults notochord may be absent
(as in urochordata) or may be modified into vertebrae (as in
subphyla vertebrata).
108. (d) Post anal tail is a characteristic feature of phylum
chordates. Sponges (Porifera), earthworm (Annelida) and
cockroach (Arthropoda) are non-chrodates while snakes
belongs to class Reptlia under sub-phyla vertebrata.
109. (a) Gambusia is a freshwater fish. They are viviparous - give
birth to live young. These fishes are introduced into ponds
to eat mosquito larvae.
110. (d) Neophron (vulture) belongs to class Aves. Endoskeleton
of the members of class Aves is fully ossified (bony) and the
long bones are hollow with air cavities (pneumatic).
Hemidactylus (Wall lizard) belongs to class Reptilia.
Macropus (Kangaroo) and Ornithorhynchus (Platypus)
belongs to class Mammalia.
111. (b) Pteropus - Flying fox
Petromyzon - Lamprey
Aptenodytes - Penguin
Pterophyllum - Angel fish
112. (d) Platyhelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic
and acoelomate animals with organ level of organisation.
The adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical but larvae
are bilaterally symmetrical. Development is indirect with
free-swimming larva.
The body of Hemichordates is cylindrical and is composed
of an anterior proboscis, a collar and a long trunk.
Aves are warm-blooded animals with direct development.
113. (b) Reptilians are poikilothermic, i.e., their body temperature
varies according to climate, e.g., Chelone.
114. (c) Birds swallow food and store it in their crop. Then the
food passes into stomach and then into gizzard which can
grind the food with previously swallowed stones.
AV NEET 35 Years
115. (c) Sharks and Trygon (sting ray) are the members of
chondrichthyes (cartilaginous fish) while whale, dolphin and
seals are aquatic mammals belong to class mammalia.
116. (b) Horse belongs to
Order: Perissodactyla
Family: Equidae
Genus: Equus
Species: E. ferus
117. (d) Cyclostomes have a sucking and circular mouth without
jaws. Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins.
All reptiles have a three–chambered heart except crocodiles
(4 chambered).
All mammals are viviparous except platypus.
118. (c) Birds are oviparous and development is direct.
Mammals are viviparous except oviparous-Ornithorhynchus
119. (a) Chondrichthyes are marine animals with streamlined
body and have cartilaginous endoskeleton.
Oviparous-Ornithorhynchus (Platypus)-Mammal
120. (b) National Aquatic Animal of India is river dolphin
(Platanista gangetica); exclusively found in freshwater or
brackish water.
121. (a) Ornithorhynchus (Platypus) is oviparous mammal
122. (a) Cyclostomata have a sucking and circular mouth without
jaws. Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins.
123. (b) Peteromyzon is ectoparasite and belong to class
cyclostomata.
124. (b) All bony fishes have four pair of gills and an operculum
on each side.
125. (d) Both are fishes and cold blooded animals
126. (a) Male shark - Claspers borne on pelvic fins
127. (d) All Chondrichthyes possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
without exception.
128. (c) • Aurelia belongs to phylum coelenterata in which tissue
level of organisation is present.
• Ascaris belongs to phylum Aschelminthes.
• Petropus is viviparous.
129. (c) Crocodile and penguin have gill slits at embryonic stage.
130. (b) Choanocytes are the characteristics of sponges which are
absent in leech, dolphin and penguin.
131. (c) Aves have scales on hindlimb that indicates reptilian
ancestary.
132. (d) Toothless jaws → Parrot
Functional post anal tail → Platypus
Oviparity → Parrot, Platypus
133. (a) Viviparous – Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, Loris
Oviparous – Ostrich, Platypus, Kiwi
134. (c) Mammalia has 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
135. (a) Mammals have diaphragms and other vertebrates such as
amphibians & reptiles have diaphragm - like structures. Aves
do not have diaphragm. Four - chambered heart is also found
in crocodile & aves, therefore, it is not unique to mammals.
Animal Kingdom
136. (b) Metamorphosis is striking change of form / structure in
an individual after hatching or birth. Housefly has complete
metamorphosis with distinct egg, larval, pupal & adult stages.
Pheretima is hermaphrodite (bisexual). Chameleon exhibits
camouflage. Taenia saginata does not show polymorphism.
137. (a) Bats have skin - folded wings. Elephant is completely
viviparous, i.e., it gives birth to young ones. All members
of mammalia respire through lungs and lungs are subtended
in thoracic cavity by a muscular diaphragm. Platypus, a
mammal, show exception and is an oviparous animal.
138. (d) In Aves, endoskeleton is fully ossified and long bones
are hollow with air cavities. These pneumatic bones are
modification to decrease the weight of body & facilitate
smooth flight.
139. (c) Pneumatic (hollow) long bones are characteristic feature
of class Aves.
140. (a) Development in mammals is always direct so members
of mammalia do not undergo moulting.
141. (c) All of these organisms belongs to Aves but can’t fly and
therefore called as flightless birds.
142. (b) Respiratory organs of cockroach includes tracheal system
like human beings. Trachea is wind pipe through which gases
are transported to lungs. They need to be make up of non-
collapsible walls as collapse of this tube may lead to death
of organism.
143. (a) Rana tigrina (Hoplobatrachus tigerinus), the Indus
valley bullfrog is a large species of frog found in Myanmar,
Bangladesh, India, Pakistan, Afghanistan & Nepal.
144. (c) Syrinx is the sound box found in birds. Its analogous in
mammals is called larynx.
145. (b) Mostly mammals are viviparous but platypus is an
exception. It lay eggs and therefore called oviparous.
43
146. (b) Penguins are a group of aquatic, flightless birds living
almost exclusively in Antarctica.
147. (b) Eutheria is a taxon containing the placental mammals,
such as humans.
148. (d) Wish bone is the furcula of birds. It is a forked bone
constituted by the fused clavicles and articulates to each
of the birds’s scapulae of pectoral girdle. Its function is to
strengthen thoracic skeleton to with stand rigors of flight.
149. (b) In birds, the pectoral and supracoracoideus muscles that
power the wings are anchored to a large bony keel along the
midline of the sternum.
150. (d) Order cetacea includes whales, dolphins and porpoises.
151. (b) Bird vertebrae are heterocoelous, i.e., the central of
vertebrae have saddle - shaped ends.
152. (a) In kingfisher, their syndactyl configuration helps in
giving them additional support for hours of perching. Their
feet are short & they do not walk much but they wade.
153. (c) It is formed by the degeneration of the epithelial cells
lining the crop.
154. (c) Typhlops is a genus of blind snakes (non-poisonous
snake).
155. (c) Necturus is a genus of aquatic salamanders. They are
commonly known as waterdogs and mud puppies. Their
characteristic feature is feathery gills on either side of its
head.
156. (b) Fire - bellied toads are a group of eight species of small
frogs belonging to the genus Bombina. Their skin is known
to be toxic to some animals including humans.
157. (c) Testudo (Tortoise) is an example of reptiles. It is a
terrestrial animal having dry & cornified skin with epidermal
scales on body. Heart is 3 - chambered. In this, development
is direct unlike amphibians.